1.

Molar specific heat is the __________________

(a) Product of specific heat and molar mass
(b) Product of specific heat and mass
(c) Product of specific heat and molecular mass
(d) N.O.T
2. In thermodynamics, the work done is zero if __________
I. There is no change in internal energy
II. There is heat is not supplied to system
III. There is no change in volume
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I & III only
(d) II & III
(e) I, II & III
3. Change of internal energy of a system is an process is equal to
I. Net heat flow into the system minus the total work done by the system
II. Net heat flow into the system plus the total work done by the system
III. Net heat flow into the system minus the total work done on the system
IV. Net flow into the system plus the total work done on the system
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I & IV only
(d) II & III
4. During adiabatic expansion ___________
(a) Internal energy decreased because work is done by the system
(b) Internal energy increased because work is done on the system
(c) Internal energy remains constant because no heat is supplied to system
(d) Internal energy remains same because no change in the temperature
5. All slow process are _____________________ changes
(a) Isobaric
(b) Isochoric
(c) Isothermal
(d) Adiabatic
6. 150 Joule work is done by the system and its internal energy has decreased by 200J the
______
(a) 350J heat is supplied to system
(b) 50J heat leaved the system
(c) 350J heat leaved the system
(d) 50J heat is supplied to system
7. The coulomb’s constant depends up on __________
I. Product of charges
II. Distance between charges
III. Medium between charges
(a) I only
 (b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I , II & III
(e) I & III only
8. A charge q is placed at the midpoint of line joining centers of two point charges q 1 and q2 if
net force on charge q is zero then which choice is correct ______________
I. Charge q1 and q2 are equal in magnitude
II. Charge q1 and q2 are opposite in polarity
III. The magnitude of charge q1 is greater than magnitude of q2
IV. Charge q1 and q2 are same in polarity
(a) I &II
(b) II & III
(c) I & IV
(d) III & IV
9. 15uF and 10uF capacitors are connected in series then net capacitance will be
___________
(a) 6uF
(b) 35uF
(c) 8uF
(d) 5uF
10. An electron is situated midway between two parallel plates 0.5cm apart. One of the plates
is maintained at a potential of 60 Volts above the other. What is the force on electron ___
(a) 1.92x10-12 N
(b) 1.92x10-15 N
(c) 1.92x10-9 N
(d) 1.92x10-17 N
11. The work done per unit charge is called _______________
(a) Electric field intensity
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric flux
(d) Electric force
12. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor can be increased by ____________
I. Increasing the area of plates
II. Increasing the distance between plates
III. Introducing a dielectric between plates of capacitor
(a) I &II
(b) I &III
(c) II & III
(d) I, II & III
13. Electric potential _____________
(a) Increases in the direction of electric field
(b) Decreases in the direction of electric field
(c) Remains same in the direction of electric field
(d) Always at a point where electric field is zero
14. 25uF and 20uF capacitors are connected in parallel if charge stored by 25uF is 5uC then
charged stored by 20uF is ________
(a) 6uC
(b) 4uC
(c) 8uC
(d) 10uC
15. The number of electric lines of forces crossing through a surface per unit area is called
(a) Electric flux
(b) Electric flux density
(c) Electric potential
(d) Electric energy
16. The energy acquired by electron while falling through p.d of one volt is called
______________
(a) 1 eV
(b) 1 J
(c) 1 kWh
(d) 1W
17. 600C charge is flowing in wire in just 2 minutes if wire has resistance of 40 ohm find the
p.d across the wire _____________
(a) 200 Volt
(b) 100 Volt
(c) 150 Volt
(d) 75 Volt
(e) 125 Volt
18. In conventional current
(a) Negative charges would have to move through the circuit from a point of higher
potential to a point of lower potential.
(b) Positive charges would have to move through the circuit from a point of higher potential
to a point of lower potential.
(c) Negative charges would have to move through the circuit from a point of lower
potential to a point of higher potential.
(d) Positive charges would have to move through the circuit from a point of lower potential
to a point of higher potential.
19. The resistance of conductor depends up on ___________
I. The length L of conductor
II. The cross area of conductor
III. The martial of which conductor is made
IV. Weight of conductor
(a) I & II
(b) II & III
(c) I, II & III
(d) I,II , III & IV
20. A wire has resistance ‘R’ and it is compressed and its cross-section area becomes double
then its resistance will be __________
 (a) R/2
(b) R/4
(c) R
(d) 4R
(e) 2R
21. A heater draws a current of 5A for 10sec if its coil has resistance of 100 ohm find the
power dissipated by resistor
(a) 2500W
(b) 250W
(c) 25W
(d) 25000W
22. The resistivity is measure in ______________
(a) Ohm x meter
(b) Ohm / meter
(c) Ohm x (meter)2
(d) Ohm / (meter)2
23. 5000W power is supplied to a factory by mean of two at a voltage of 120Volt what should
be resistance of each wire if voltage at factory must not be lower than 100Volt ________
(a) 0.2 ohm
(b) 0.1 ohm
(c) 0.5 ohm
(d) 0.25 ohm
24. When battery is charged then terminal voltage is _______________ its e.m.f
(a) Less than
(b) Greater than
(c) Equal to
(d) Slight less than
25. Newton x meter / Ampere is equivalent to _________
I. Testa
II. Tesla. m2
III. Weber
IV. Weber / m2
(a) I & IV
(b) II & III
(c) I & III
(d) II & IV
26. The force on moving charge in magnetic field depends up on ___________
I. Magnitude of charge
II. Speed of moving charge
III. Magnetic field of induction
IV. Mass of charge
(a) I & II
(b) I, II & III
(c) I, II & IV
 (d) I, II , III & IV
27. When a charge particles moves perpendicular to magnetic field then its radius of
trajectory depends up on __________
I. Directly to e/m
II. Inversely to e/m
III. Directly to its momentum
IV. Inversely to its momentum
(a) I & III only
(b) I & IV only
(c) II & III only
(d) II & IV only
28. A 50cm conductor is placed perpendicular to uniform of 4Tesla and carried a current of 4
ampere find the force on conductor
(a) 16N
(b) 8N
(c) 4N
(d) 10N
(e) 2N
29. ____________ is also known as back emf
(a) Mutually induced emf
(b) Self-induced emf
(c) Motion emf
(d) N.O.T
30. The current in primary is changed and emf is induced in the neighbor (secondary) coil then
e.m.f induced in secondary is given by _____________
−M ∆ I 1
(a) E=
∆t
−M ∆ I 2
(b) E=
∆t
−M ∆ ∅1
(c) E=
∆t
−M ∆ ∅1
(d) E=
∆t
−L ∆ I 1
(e) E=
∆t
31. The primary to secondary turns ratio of transformer is 1:5, if voltage on primary is 200Volt
find the voltage on secondary of transformer
(a) 1000V
(b) 40V
(c) 400V
(d) 2000V
32. The primary and secondary of transformer are ______________
(a) Magnetically isolated
(b) Electrically isolated
 (c) Connected electrically but isolated magnetically
(d) Connected magnetically but electrically isolated
(e) Connected electrically as well as magnetically
33. A certain amount of power is to be transferred over a long distance. If the voltage is
stepped up 10 times. How much is the transmission line loss reduced _________
(a) 10 times
(b) 100 times
(c) 20 times
(d) 5 times
34. A 100 turns coil is a generator has an area of 500cm2 rotates in a field B = 0.06 Webers- m-
2
. How fast must the coil rotated in order to generate maximum voltage of 150Votls
(a) 250 rad/s
(b) 125 rad/s
(c) 500 rad/s
(d) 100 rad/s
35. When external voltage applied to the junction is in such direction that it cancels the
potential barrier is called _________
(a) Reversed biasing
(b) Ideal biasing
(c) Positive biasing
(d) Forward biasing

36. The rectifier which utilizes both half cycles of input a.c voltage to produce the d.c output
is called ___________
(a) Half wave rectifier
(b) Partial wave rectifier
(c) Complete rectifier
(d) Full wave rectifier
(e) Ideal rectifier
37. Half wave rectifier uses _______________
(a) Two diodes
(b) Four diodes
(c) Single diode
(d) Three diodes
38. For photoelectric effect light must have adequate ____________
(a) Intensity
(b) Brightness
(c) Frequency
(d) Amplitude
39. In photoelectric effect if intensity of light is increased then ____________
I. Maximum K.E of photoelectron will be increased
II. Number of photoelectrons will be increased
III. Maximum K.E of photoelectrons remains same
 IV. Number of photoelectric will remains same
(a) I & II
(b) I & IV
(c) II & III
(d) III & IV
40. Compton’s effect show ______________ nature of light
(a) Wave
(b) Particle
(c) Dual
(d) N.O.T
41. In Compton’s effect photon shares ____________________with electron
(a) Entire energy and entire momentum
(b) Apart of energy but entire momentum
(c) Entire energy but a part of momentum
(d) Apart of energy and a part of momentum
42. Which of the following is anti – electron
(a) Photon
(b) Alpha rays
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron
(e) Positron
43. In which transition longest wavelength photon is emitted
(a) n =5 to n=3
(b) n = 2 to n=1
(c) n = 4 to n =2
(d) n = 6 to n = 4
44. when electron jumps from ni = 5 to nf = 3 then it will emit ______________ series
(a) Ballmer
(b) Lyman
(c) Paschen
(d) Pfund
(e) Bracket
45. A photon of energy 12.75eV is falls on the electron of hydrogen atom in ground state then
electron will be promoted to _________
(a) n = 3
(b) n =4
(c) n=2
(d) n=5
46. How many different lines will be emitted by electron when it is in 5th orbit
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 16
(e) 8
47. After three alpha emissions and two beta (negative emission) the nucleon number (A) is
decreased by _____________________ and charge number (Z) is decreased by _________
(a) 12, 8
(b) 12, 4
(c) 10,4
(d) 8,4
(e) 6,2
48. In archeology _____________ radioactive isotopes is used
(a) Iodine
(b) Cobalt
(c) Sodium
(d) C-14
49. 160gram of radioactive sample was taken after 12hrs only 20gram has been left then half-
live time of sample is ____________
(a) 2 hrs
(b) 3hrs
(c) 4hrs
(d) 6hrs
50. Long lived radioactive samples has _________________ decay constant and
______________ half life time
(a) High , short
(b) Low , long
(c) High, long
(d) Low , short
51. Radiation can cause
I. Leukemia
II. Gene mutation
III. Night blind ness
IV. Rickets
(a) I only
(b) I & II only
(c) I & III only
(d) II & III only
52. Contents of C-14 in specimen is found just 25% less than its initial contents then specimen
is older
(a) less than 5730 year
(b) greater than 5730
(c) greater than 11240
(d) cannot be predicated
53. A conductor sphere is charged then inside its surface _______________
I. Electric field is constant
II. Electric potential is zero
III. Electric potential is constant
IV. Electric field is zero
 (a) II & IV
(b) III & IV
(c) I & III
(d) I & II
54. The filament of electric bulb is made up of _____________
(a) Copper because it has low resistance
(b) Tungsten because it has low resistance
(c) Tungsten because it has high Melting point
(d) Copper because it has low Melting point