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 a  Q.26 Which of the following pairs of physical

 P + 2  (V–b) = RT. The dimensions of
 V  quantities has different dimensions?
constant a as given above are – (1) stress, pressure
(2) Young’s modulus, energy density
(1) M L4 T–2 (2) ML5 T–2
(3) density, relative density
(3) M L3 T–2 (4) M L2 T–2 (4) energy, torque

Q.22 For 10(at+3), the dimension of a is-

Q.27 If the unit of length is micrometre and the
(1) M0 L0 T0 (2) M0 L0 T1
unit of time is microsecond, the unit of
(3) M0 L0 T–1 (4) None of these velocity will be-
(1) 100 m/s (2) 10 m/s
Q.23 The velocity of a moving particle depends (3) micrometre/s (4) m/s
b
upon time t as v = at + . Then
t+c
Q.28 A wave is represented by-
dimensional formula for b is –
y = a sin (At – Bx + C)
(1) [M0 L0 T0] (2) [M0 L1 T0] where A, B, C are constants. The
Dimensions of A, B, C are
(3) [M0 L1 T–1 ] (4) [M0 L1 T–2]
(1) T–1, L, M0L0T0
(2)T–1, L–1, M0L0T0
Q. 24 The SI unit of length is the meter. Suppose
(3) T, L, M
we adopt a new unit of length which equals
to x meters. The area 1m2 expressed in (4) T–1, L–1, M–1
terms of the new unit has a magnitude-
Q.29 Which of the following is a dimensional
(1) x (2) x2 constant?
1 1 (1) Refractive index
(3) (4)
x x2 (2) Dielectric constant
(3) Relative density
Q.25 The units nanometre, fermi, angstrom and (4) Gravitational constant
attometre, arranged in decreasing order
will read as- Q.30 Two quantities whose dimensions are not
same, cannot be-
(1) angstrom, nanometre, fermi, attometre
(1) multiplied with each other
(2) fermi, attometre, angstrom, nanometre
(2) divided
(3) nanometre, angstrom, fermi, attometre
(3) added or subtracted in the same
(4) attometre, angstrom, fermi, nanometre

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expression cm and listed the measurements. The

(4) added together correct measurement is-
(1) 5.3 cm (2) 5.32 cm
Q.31 If force, length and time would have been
(3) 5.320 cm (4) 5.3200 cm
the fundamental units, what would have
been the dimensional formula for mass?
Q.34 The error in the measurement of radius of
(1) F L–1 T2 (2) F L T–2 a sphere is 0.1%. The error in the
(3) F L T–1 (4) F measurement of volume is-
(1) 0.1 % (2) 0.3 %
Q.32 The density of a cube is measured by
(3) 0.5 % (4) 0.8 %
measuring its mass and the length of its
side. If the maximum errors in the
measurement of mass and length are 4% Q.35 The pressure on a square plate is measured
and 3% respectively, the maximum error in by measuring the force on the plate and the
the measurement of the density is- length of the sides of the plate. If the
maximum error in the measurement of
(1) 9 % (2) 13 %
force and length are respectively 4% and
(3) 12 % (4) 7 %
2%, the maximum error in the
measurement of pressure is-
Q.33 A student measured the diameter of a wire
(1) 1 % (2) 2 %
using a screw gauge with least count 0.001
(3) 6 % (4) 8 %

Physics Section – B

This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any 10 questions out of 15.

Q.36 When a copper sphere is heated, maximum Q.38 If the error in the measurement of radius of
percentage change will be observed in- a sphere is 2% then the error in the
(1) radius (2) area determination of volume of the sphere will
(3) volume (4) none of these be-
(1) 8 % (2) 2 %
Q.37 A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g, radius (3) 4 % (4) 6 %
(0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm.
The maximum percentage error in the Q.39 A quantity is represented by X = MaLbTc.
measurement of its density is- The percentage error in measurement of M,
(1) 1 (2) 2 L and T are %, β% and γ% respectively.
(3) 3 (4) 4 The percentage error in X would be-

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(1) (a + β b + γ c) % (3) 16% (4) None

(2) (a – β b + γ c) %
(3) (a – β b – γ c) % Q.45 The period of oscillation of a simple
(4) None of these pendulum in the experiment is recorded as
2.63 s, 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and 2.80s
Q.40 An experiment measure quantities a, b and respectively. The average absolute error
c, and X is calculated from X = ab2/c3. If is-
the percentage error in a, b and c are ±1%, (1) 0.1 s (2) 0.11 s
±3% and ±2% respectively, the percentage (3) 0.01 s (4) 1.0 s
error in X will be-
(1) ± 13 % (2) ± 7 % V
Q.46 The resistance is R = where V = 100 ±
I
(3) ± 4 % (4) ± 1 %
5 volts and I = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is
the total error in R?
Q.41 Zero error of an instrument introduces-
(1) 5 % (2) 7 %
(1) Systematic errors (2) Random errors
(4)   %
5
(3) Both (4) None (3) 5.2 %
2

Q.42 What is the fractional error is g calculated

Q.47 The length, breadth and thickness of a strip
from T = 2π  / g ? Given that fractional
are
errors in T and ℓ are ±x and ± y (10.0 ± 0.1) cm, (1.00 ± 0.01) cm and
respectively. (0.100 ± 0.001) cm respectively. The most
(1) x + y (2) x – y probable error in its volume will be-
(3) 2x + y (4) 2x – y (1) ± 0.03 cm3 (2) ± 0.111 cm3
(3) ± 0.012 cm3 (4) None of these
Q.43 If error in measuring diameter of a circle is
4%, the error in the radius of the circle Q.48 If error in measuring diameter of a circle is
would be- 4%, the error in circumference of the circle
(1) 2% (2) 8% would be-
(3) 4% (4) 1% (1) 2 % (2) 8 %
(3) 4 % (4) 1 %
Q.44 A thin copper wire of length ℓ metre
increase in length by 2% when heated Q.49 Percentage error in measuring the radius
through 10ºC. What is the percentage and mass of a solid sphere are 2% and 1%
increase in area when a square copper sheet respectively. Then error in measurement
of length ℓ metre is heated through 10ºC? of moment of inertia with respect to its
(1) 4% (2) 8% diameter is-

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(1) 3 % (2) 6 %
(3) 5 % (4) 4 % 1mm). The least count of the instrument in
cm should be-
Q.50 In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier (1) N (2) N – 1
scale coincide with (N – 1) divisions of 1 1
(3) (4)
main scale (in which 1 division represents 10 N N −1

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2024 Unit Test 01

Syllabus: Mole Concept

Chemistry Section – A

This section contains 35 questions. All the questions are compulsory

Q.51 Using the rules for significant figures, the Q.56 The simplest formula of a compound
correct answer for the containing 50% of element X (atomic mass
0.02858  0.112 10) and 50% of element Y (atomic mass
expression will be
0.5702 20) is
(1) 0.005613 (2) 0.00561 (1) XY (2) X2Y
(3) 0.0056 (4) 0.006 (3) XY3 (4) X2Y3

Q.52 The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 Q.57 A solution of sodium sulfate contains 92g
g mol-1. The ratio of 35Cl to 37Cl in naturally of Na+ ions per kilogarm of water. The
occurring chlorine is close to molality of Na+ ions in that solution in mol
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 Kg-1 is
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 (1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 12
Q.53 Hemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by
mass. The number of Fe atoms in 3.3 g of Q.58 In the reaction. 2Al(s) + 6HCl(s) → 2Al3+(aq)
hemoglobin is (Given: Atomic mass of Fe + 6Cl-(aq) + 3H2(g)
is 56u, NA is 6.022 × 1023 mol-1) (1) 6L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3L
(1) 1.21 × 105 (2) 12.0 × 1016 H2(g) produced
(3) 1.21 × 1020 (4) 3.4 × 1022 (2) 33.6L H2(g) is produced regardless of
temperature and pressure for every mole Al
Q.54 N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) that reacts
(3) 67.2L H2(g) at STP is produced for every
20 g 5 g
mole Al that reacts
Consider the above reaction, the limiting
(4) 11.2H2(g) at STP is produced for every
reagent of the reaction and number of
mole HCl(aq) consumed
moles of NH3 formed respectively are
(1) H2,1.42 moles (2) H2,0.71 moles
Q.59 1.5 mol of O2 combine with Mg to form
(3) N2,1.42 moles (4) N2,0.71 moles
oxide MgO. The mass of Mg (At. mass 24)
that has combined is
Q.55 The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen
(1) 72 g (2) 36 g
in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The
(3) 48 g (4) 24 g
ratio of number of their molecule is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 7 : 32
Q.60 The decomposition of a certain mass of
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 3 : 16
CaCO3 gave 11.2 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP.

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The mass of KOH required to completely (1) 3×10-26 kg (2) 3×10-25 kg

neutralise the gas is (3) 1.5×10-26 kg (4) 2.5×10-26 kg
(1) 56 g (2) 28 g
(3) 42 g (4) 20 g Q.68 The molarity of orthophosphoric acid
having purity of 70% by weight and
Q.61 Equivalent weight of KMnO4 acting as an specific gravity 1.54 would be
oxidant in acidic medium is (1) 11 M (2) 22 M
(1) The same as its molecular weight (3) 33 M (4) 44 M
(2) Half of its molecular weight
(3) One-third of its molecular weight Q.69 Arrange the following in the order of
(4) One-fifth of its molecular weight increasing mass (atomic mass: O = 16, Cu
= 63, N = 14)
Q.62 Volume occupied by one molecule of water (I) One atom of oxygen
(density 1gcm-3) is (II) One atom of nitrogen
(1) 3.010-23 cm3 (2) 5.510-23 cm3 (III) 1×10-10 mole of oxygen
(3) 9.010-23 cm3 (4) 6.02310-23 cm (IV) 110-10 mole of copper
(1) II < I < III < IV
Q.63 The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of (2) I < II < III < IV
CO2 is approx (3) III < II < IV < I
(1) 1.21023 (2) 61022 (4) IV < II < III < I
(3) 61023 (4) 121023
Q.70 Assertion: Atoms can neither be created
nor destroyed.
Q.64 Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal
Reason: Under similar condition of
to 1.17g/cc is
temperature and pressure, equal volume of
(1) 36.5 (2) 18.25
gases does not contain equal number of
(3) 32.05 (4) 4.65
atoms.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
Q.65 In which case is the number of molecules
and the reason is the correct explanation
of water minimum
of the assertion.
(1) 18 mL of water
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) 0.18 g of water
but reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm
the assertion.
and 273 K
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) 10-3 mol of water
(4) If the assertion and reason both are
false.
Q.66 The value of amu is which of the following
is
Q.71 Which is heaviest
(1) 1.57×10-24 kg (2) 1.66×10-24 kg
(1) 25 gm of mercury
(3) 1.99×10-23 kg (4) 1.66×10-27 kg
(2) 2 moles of water
(3) 2 moles of carbon dioxide
Q.67 The mass of a molecule of water is
(4) 4 gm atoms of oxygen

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Q.72 When 6gm urea dissolve in 180 gm H2O. (1) Total mass of iron and oxygen in
The mole fraction of urea is reactants = total mass of iron and oxygen
10 10.1 in product; therefore, it follows law of
(1) (2)
10.1 10 conservation of mass.
10.1 0.1 (2) Total mass of reactants = total mass of
(3) (4)
0.1 10.1 product; therefore, law of multiple
proportions is followed.
Q.73 1 M solution contains 0.5 moles of solute (3) Amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by
in- taking any one of the reactants (iron or
(1) 500g solvent (2) 500 ml solution oxygen) in excess.
(3) 1000g solvent (4) 1000 ml solvent (4) Amount of Fe2O3 produced will
decrease if the amount of any one of the
Q.74 In which ratio of volumes 0.4 M HCl and reactants (iron or oxygen) is taken in
0.9 M HCl are to be mixed such that the excess.
concentration of the resultant solution
becomes 0.7 M Q.79 Assertion: The reactant which is present in
(1) 4:9 (2) 2:3 larger amount limits the amount of product
(3) 3:2 (4) 1:1 formed is called limiting reagent.
Reason: Amount of product formed does
Q.75 Which of the following concentration not depend upon the amount of reactants
factor is affected by change in temperature taken.
(1) Molarity (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) Molality and the reason is the correct explanation
(3) Mole fraction of the assertion.
(4) Weight fraction (2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct explanation of
Q.76 The molar concentration of Cl- ions in a the assertion.
solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 0.3 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
M NaCl and 200 mL of 0.4 M BaCl2 is (4) If the assertion and reason both are
(1) 0.9 M (2) 1.5 M false.
(3) 0.25 M (4) 0.5 M
Q.80 Assertion: Matter can neither be created
Q.77 What will be the molality of the solution nor destroyed.
containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of Reason: This is law of definite
water? proportions.
(1) 0.1 m (2) 1 M (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
Q.78 Which of the following statements is (2) If both assertion and reason are true
correct about the given reaction: 4Fe(s) + but reason is not the correct explanation of
3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(g) ? the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.

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completely 1L of propane gas (C3H8) Q.96 How many grams of dibasic acid (mol. wt.
measured under the same conditions 200) should be present in 100ml of its
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L aqueous solution to give
(3) 7 L (4) 6 L decinormal strength
(1) 1g (2) 2g
Q.90 The total number of protons in 10 g of (3) 10g (4) 20g
calcium carbonate is (N0 = 6.0231023)
(1) 1.5057 × 1024 (2) 2.0478 × 1024 Q.97 A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl
(3) 3.0115 × 1024 (4) 4.0956 × 1024 alcohol, CH3OH, is supplied. What is the
mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the
Q.91 Which one of the following is the heaviest solution
(1) 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas (1) 0.100 (2) 0.190
(2) 6.023  1022 molecules of nitrogen (3) 0.086 (4) 0.050
(3) 0.1g of silver
(4) 0.1 mole of oxygen gas Q.98 The number of atoms in 16gm of methane
is
Q.92 If 1 ml of water contains 20 drops. Then (1) 30 1023
no. of molecules in a drop of water is (2) 6.02 1023
(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules 16
(3) 1023
(2) 1.376 × 1026 molecules 6.02
(3) 1.344 × 1018 molecules 16
(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules (4) 1023
3.0

Q.93 Number of atoms of He in 100 amu of He Q.99 A solution contains 1.2046 ×

(atomic wt. of He is 4) are 1024 hydrochloric acid molecules in one
(1) 25 (2) 100 dm3 of the solution. The strength of
(3) 50 (4) 100×6×10-23 the solution is
(1) 6 N (2) 2 N
Q.94 The weight of a molecule of the (3) 4 N (4) 8 N
compound C60H122 is
(1) 1.4×10-21 g (2) 1.09×10-21 g Q.100 What will be the value of molality for an
(3) 5.025×1023 g (4) 16.023×1023g aqueous solution of 10% w/w NaOH. (Na
= 23, O = 16, H = 1)
Q.95 The number of significant figures in (1) 2.778 (2) 5
60.0001 are (3) 10 (4) 2.5
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 2

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2024 Unit Test 01

Syllabus: The Living World

Biology Section – A

This section contains 35 questions. All the questions are compulsory

Q.101 What is true for living organisms? (1) A-II; B-I; C-III
(1) Metabolism is not a defining feature of (2) A-II; B-III; C-I
all living organisms (3) A-III; B-II; C-I
(2) Reproduction can be taken as a all- (4) A-I; B-II; C-III;
inclusive defining property
(3) Growth can be taken as a defining Q.104 The herbarium sheets carry a label
property providing information about:
(4) Cellular organisation of the body is the (1) Date and place of collection
defining feature of life forms (2) English, local and botanical names
(3) Family, collector's name
Q.102 Identify given diagram and choose (4) All of the above
incorrect options :
Q.105 Statement I: The earliest classifications
were based on the 'uses' of various
organisms
Statement II: The word systematics is
derived from the Latin word 'systema'
(1) These are generally analytical in which means systematic arrangement of
nature organisms.
(2) Serve as quick referral systems in (1) Statement I is correct, statement II is
taxonomic studies incorrect.
(3) Herbarium which is a store house of (2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
collected dried plant specimens correct.
(4) None of the above (3) Both statements I and II are correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Q.103 Match column-I with column-ll and
choose the correct combination from the Q.106 Label of Plant in botanical gardens does
options given below. not carry information about:
(1) Botanical name
Column-I Column-II (2) Scientific name
A. National Botanical I. Carolus (3) Family name
Research Institute Linneaus (4) Collector's name
B. Indian Botanical II. Howrah
Garden (India) Q.107 Choose the correct one from given
C. Binomial III. Lucknow statements:
Nomenclature

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molecular constituents of the organelle but
arise as a result of interactions among the
molecular components comprising the
organelle.
(1) Statement I is correct, statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II
is correct.
(3) Both statements I and II are correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Q.116 Which of the following represents the
correct sequence of various taxonomic
categories -
(1) Class - Phylum - Order - Family –
Genus Species
(2) Division - Class - Family - Order -
Genus - Species
(3) Division - Class - Order - Family -
Genus - Species
(4) Phylum - Order - Class - Family -
Genus – Species

Q.113 Which of the following acts as a quick Q.117 Binomial nomenclature system was given
referral system in taxonomic studies, in by -
which plant specimens are dried, pressed (1) Carolus Linnaeus
and preserved on sheets? (2) Mayr
(1) Flora (3) Charles Darwin
(2) Herbarium (4) Leeuwenhoek
(3) Botanical garden
(4) Monograph Q.118 Match the following and choose the
correct combination from the options
Q.114 How many of the following statements are given below:
correct Column I Column II
A. Flora provides the information of any A. Panthera leo I. Cat
one taxon. B. Panthera pardus II. Lion
B. Metabolic reactions cannot be C. Panthera tigris III. Tiger
demonstrated outside the body in cell D. Felis catus IV. leopard
free system
C. Keys are generally analytical in (1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
nature. (2) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
D. Reproduction can be an all inclusive (3) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
defining characteristics of living (4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
organisms
(1) 1 (2) 2 Q.119 The number of species that are known and
(3) 4 (4) 3 described range between -
(1) 1.7-1.8 million
Q.115 The number and types of organisms (2) 0.5-1.0 million
present on earth is known as - (3) 2.7-2.8 million
(1) Biodiversity (4) 0.7-0.8 million
(2) Biomagnification
(3) Biome Q.120 In Chlamydomonas and Amoeba-
(4) Biosphere

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(1) Reproduction is synonymous with Q.124 Read the following statement.

growth i.e., increase in number of cell (i) Consciousness is the defining property of
(2) Multicellular organization may be living organisms.
formed (ii) The environmental stimuli can be
(3) Growth does not occur by increase in physical, chemical or biological.
mass (iii) Living organisms can sense and respond
(4) Growth occur by increase in mass but to stimuli.
not by increase in number (iv) All organisms show the property of
selfconsciousness.
Q.121 Which of the following are characteristics (v) Prokaryotes cannot sense and respond to
of Manuals? the environment.
(1) Contains the actual account of habitat How many of the above statements are
and distribution of plants of a given area incorrect?
(2) Provide the index to the plant species (1) Three (2) One
found in a particular area. (3) Two (4) Five
(3) Providing information for
identification of names of species Q.125 What is full form of ICZN?
found in an area (1) International Code for Zoo Animal
(4) All of the above Nomenclature
(2) International Code for Zoological
Q.122 Match the following entities of column I Nomenclature
with their respective orders of column ll (3) International Code for Zoologist
and choose the correct combination form Nomenclature
the option (4) All of the above
Column-I Column-II
(Common (Taxonomic category- Q.126 Which of the following are characteristics
name) family) of Flora?
A. Wheat I. Hominidae (1) Contains the actual account of habitat
B. Mango II. Muscidae and distribution of plants of a given
C. Housefly III. Anacardiaceae area
D. Man IV. Poaceae (2) Provide the index to the plant species
(1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III found in a particular area
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I (3) Providing information for
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III identification of names of species
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I found in an area
(4) Both (a) and (b)
Q.123 Live specimens are found in :
(1) Botanical gardens Q.127 Which of the following is incorrect
(2) Zoological parks sequence?
(3) Both botanical gardens and zoological (1) Tritium-Poaceae-Poales -
parks Monocotyledonae
(4) None of the above

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(2) Mangifera- Sapindanceae Sapindales- D. Key IV. Actual account of

Dicotyledonae habitat and
(3) Musca-Muscidae - Diptera - Insecta distribution of
(4) Homo-Hominidae - Primata – plants of a given
Mammalia area
(1)i.A-IV;
2 B-II; C-I; D-III
Q.128 Select correct statement w.r.t. (2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
identification key- (3) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(1) Different taxonomic categories are (4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
identified by separate taxonomic keys
(2) Based on the pair of similar Q.131 Assertion: All organisms, including those
characters as couplet in the plant and animal kingdoms have
(3) Each statement of key is grade species as the lowest category in
(4) It is used for identification of plants taxonomic hierarchy.
only Reason: Taxonomic studies starts with a
group of individual organisms with
Q.129 Assertion: Mangifera indica Linn, Linn fundamental similarities as a species.
indicates that this species was first (1) Assertion and reason both are true
described by Linnaeus. and the reason is correct explanation
Reason: Name of the author appears after of assertion.
the specific epithet, i.e., at the end of the (2) Assertion and reason both are true but
biological name and is written in an reason is not correct explanation of
abbreviated form. assertion.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
the reason is correct explanation of (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but Q.132 Assertion: Biology is the science of life
reason is not correct explanation of forms and living processes.
assertion. Reason: The living world comprises an
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. amazing diversity of living organisms.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. (1) Assertion and reason both are true
and the reason is correct explanation
Q.130 Match the following and choose the of assertion.
correct option (2) Assertion and reason both are true but
Column-I Column-II reason is not correct explanation of
A. Monograph I. Couplet assertion.
B. Manuals II. Information on (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
one taxon (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
C. Flora III. Information for
identification of Q.133 From the species towards the kingdom,
names of species the number of common

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characteristics______so that the problem
of classification becomes____complex.
(1) Increases, less (2) Decreases, more
(3) Decreases, less (4) Increases, more
Q.134 An order can be best defined as -
(1) A group of related species and genera
of different taxa
(2) A group of related families which
exhibit a few similar characters
(3) A group of related classes which
exhibit a few similarities
(4) An assemblage of genera related to
Biology Section – B
This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any 10 questions out of 15.
Q.136 Keys are made for the taxonomy of -
(1) Families of plants only
(2) Families of animals only
(3) Species of plants only
(4) Families, genus and species of both
plants and animals
Q.137 Identify the true statements from given
below statements:
(i) Increase in mass and increase in number
of individuals are twin characteristics of
growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell
division.
(iii) In plants growth occurs by cell division
which seen only up to a certain age.
(iv) In animals, growth occurs continuously
throughout their life span and cell division
occurs in all tissues to replace lost cells.
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different classes.
Q.135 Find the incorrect statement about
herbarium-
(1) It is a store house of collected dried
plant specimens.
(2) It consists of many herbarium sheets
arranged in universally accepted
system of classification.
(3) Herbarium sheets also carry a label
containing height of specimen.
(4) Herbaria also serve as quick referral
system in taxonomic studies.
(v) Unicellular organisms multiply by cell
division
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
Q.138 Assertion: Genus Panthera, comprising
lion, tiger, leopard is put along with
genus, Felis in the family Felidae.
Reason: Families like Convolvulaceae,
Solanaceae are included in the genera
Solanum mainly based on the floral
characters.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
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(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (ii) Non-living objects like Mountains,
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. boulders and sand mounds do grow.
However, growth is due to accumulation
Q.139 Which characters for reproduction in of material inside surface
living organisms are correct from given (iii) In living organisms, growth is from
characters? outside
(i) Fungi multiply and spread easily due to (iv) Growth can be taken as a defining
the millions of asexual spores property of living organisms
(ii) Lower organisms like yeast and hydra (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
reproduce by budding (2) (ii) and (iv) only
(iii) In Planaria (flat worms) regeneration is (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
not present (4) (i) and (iv)
(iv) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the
protonema of mosses, all easily multiply Q.142 Statement I: The keys are based on the
by fragmentation living contrasting characters generally in a pair
(v) Unicellular organisms like bacteria, called lead.
unicellular algae and Amoeba, Statement II: Each statement in the key is
reproduction is synonymous with growth, called a couplet.
i.e., increase in number of cells. (1) Both statement are correct.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) Statement I is correct & II incorrect.
(2) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (3) Statement II is correct & I incorrect.
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) Both statement are incorrect.
(4) (i) and (v) only
Q.143 Match the following and choose the
Q.140 Statement I: Name of the author appears correct option
after the generic name and before specific Column-I Column-II
epithet and is written in an abbreviated
form. A. Binomial I. Ernst
Statement II: In Mangifera indica Linn, nomenclature Mayr
Linn indicates that this species was first B. The Darwin of II. Robert
th
described by Linnaeus. 20 century may
(1) Both statements are correct. C. Global species III. Linnaeus
(2) Statement I is correct & II incorrect. diversity
(3) Statement II is correct & I incorrect. D. Systema naturae IV. Linnaeus
(4) Both statements are incorrect. (1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
Q.141 Which of the following statements about (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
growth is not true? (4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
(i) Non-living objects also grow if we take
increase in body mass as a criterion for Q.144 Select the wrong Statement for binomial
growth nomenclature:

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(i) This naming system was given by Carolus
Linnaeus
(ii) Biological names are generally in Latin
and written in italics
(iii) The first word represents the species while
the second component denotes the genus
(iv) When name is handwritten then should be
not underlined, or printed in latin
(v) Genus starts with a capital letter while the
specific epithet usually starts with a small
letter
(vi) Name of the author appears after the
genus epithet and is written in an
abbreviated form
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(4) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
Q.145 Assertion: Biology is the story of
evolution of living organisms on earth.
Reason: All living organisms - present,
past and future are linked to one another
by the sharing of the common genetic
material, but to varying degrees.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
Q.146 Match the following and choose the
correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Planaria I. Binary fission
B. Fungi II. Asexual spores
C. Yeast III. Budding
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D. Amoeba IV. True
regeneration
(1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-II; D-III
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(4) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
Q.147 Choose wrong statement for Museums:
(i) Museum may be set up in educational
institutes.
(ii) Museums have collections of preserved
plant and animal specimens
(iii) Specimens are not preserved in the jars in
preservative solutions.
(iv) Plant and animal specimens may also be
preserved as dry specimens
(v) Insects are preserved in insect boxes after
collecting, killing and pinning
(vi) Small animals are usually stuffed and
preserved.
(vii) Museums often have collections of
skeletons of animals
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (iii), (v) and (vi)
(4) (iii) and (vi)
Q.148 Assertion: Metabolism is a defining
feature of all living organisms without
exception.
Reason: All plants, animals, fungi and
microbes exhibit metabolism but no non-
living object exhibits metabolism.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true
and the reason is correct explanation
of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
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Q.149 Assertion: Families are characterised on
the basis of both vegetative and
reproductive features of plant species.
Reason: Three different genera Solanum,
Petunia and Datura are placed in the
family Solanaceae.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true
and the reason is correct explanation
of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
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Q.150 Assertion: Herbarium is a store house of
collected animal specimens that are dried,
pressed and preserved on sheets.
Reason: The herbarium sheets also carry
a label providing information about only
Zoological names.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true
and the reason is correct explanation
of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
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Column I Column II D. Radial symmetry IV. Sycon,

Spongilla
A. Porifera I. Canal E. Metamerism V. Pheretima,
system Neries
B. Aschelminthes II. Water (1) A-V; B-II; C-IV; D-III; E-I
vascular (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II; E-V
system (3) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-V; E-IV
C. Annelida III. Muscular (4) A-III; B-II; C-V; D-I; E-IV
Pharynx
D. Arthropoda IV. Jointed Q.163 The members of following phylum are
appendages exclusively marine, radially symmetrical
E. Echinodermata V. Metameres and diploblastic -
(1) A-V; B-IV; C-I; D-II; E- III (1) Porifera (2) Echinodermata
(2) A-IV; B-V; C-I; D-II; E-III (3) Ctenophora (4) Hemichordata
(3) A-I; B-III; C-V; D-IV; E-II
(4) A-V; B-IV; C-III; D-I; E-II Q.164 Given below are four statements regarding
Aschelminthes.
Q.160 The phenomenon of metagenesis occur in- A. They are bilaterally symmetrical and
(1) Taenia (2) Aurelia triploblastic.
(3) Obelia (4) Musca B. They are dioecious.
C. All are plants or animals parasites.
Q.161 Which of the following organism is D. They are acoelomate.
correctly matched with its common name? Mark the option that has both the correct
(1) Aurelia-comb jelly statements.
(2) Adamsia-sea anemone (1) A, B (2) A, C
(3) Ancylostoma -pin worm (3) B, C (4) B, D
(4) Aplysia - sea mouse
Q.165 Arthropoda is characterized by -
Q.162 Match the features given in column I with (1) Mouth contains radula
their examples given in column II and (2) Bilateral symmetry and pair of wings
choose the correct match from the option (3) Acoelomate and radial symmetry
given below. (4) Exoskeleton, metameric segmentation
Column-I (Features) Column-II and jointed appendages
(Examples)
Q.166 Radial symmetry occurs in -
A. Pseudocoelomates I. Hydra,
(1) Porifera and Coelenterata
Adamsia
(2) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
B. Diploblastic II. Ctenoplana,
(3) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes
Aurelia
(4) Arthropoda and Mollusca
C. Cellular level of III. Ascaris,
organization Wuchereria
Q.167 Examine the figures I and II. In which of
the four options all the items is correct for

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given diagram? (2) Bioluminescence is well marked in

ctenophores
(3) Coelenterata are bilaterally
symmetrical, triploblastic and
acoelumate animals.
(4) Flame cells helps in excretion and
I II
respiration
(1) Cnidoblast- Pleurobrachia-
defensive organ fresh water Q.171 Which of the following character is not
(2) Cnidoblast- true for porifera?
offensive organ Pleurobrachia- (1) Hermaphrodite
(3) Cnidoblast- Coelenterates (2) Reproduce asexually by fragmentation
defensive organ Pleurobrachia- (3) Fertilisation is internal
(4) Pleurobrachia- Ctenophora (4) Development is direct
Ctenophora
Cnidoblast- Q.172 Which of the following phylum is being
defensive organ described by the given statements?
(i) These are primitive multicellular animals
and have cellular level of organization.
Q.168 Choose incorrect option for Ctenophora:
(ii) Digestion is intracellular.
(1) Sexes are not separate
(iii) They have a water transport or canal
(2) Reproduction takes place only by
system.
asexual means
(iv) They reproduce asexually by
(3) Fertilisation is external with indirect
fragmentation and sexually by formation
development
of gametes.
(4) Examples: Pleurobrachia and
(1) Porifera (2) Ctenophora
Ctenoplana
(3) Coelenterata (4) Platyhelminthes

Q.169 Which of the following is true for

Q.173 Match the animals in Column I with their
metagenesis?
common name in Column II.
(1) Polyps produce medusae sexually and
Column I Column II
medusa form the polyps asexually
(2) Polyps produce medusae asexually (A) Physalia (i) Sea-pen
and medusa form the polyps asexually
(3) Polyps produce medusae asexually (B) Adamsia (ii) Sea-fan
and medusa form the polyps sexually.
(C) Pennatula (iii) Sea anemone
(4) Polyps produce medusae sexually and
medusa form the polyps sexually (D) Gorgonia (iv) Brain coral

Q.170 Select the correct option: (E) (v) Portuguese

(1) Ctenophores exhibit two forms polyp Meandrina man of war
and medusa

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(1) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(2) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(4) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iv)
Q.174 Statement I: The animals in which the
body cavity is absent are called
acoelomates, e.g., platyhelminthes
Statement II: Notochord Notochord is a
ectodermally derived rod-like structure.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect & Il is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Q.175 Match the animals in Column I with their
common name in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Taenia (i) Roundworm
(B) Fasciola (ii) Filarial worm
(C) Ascaris (iii) Tapeworm
(D) Wuchereria (iv) Hookworm
(E) Ancylostoma (v) Liver fluke
(1) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(2) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iv), E-(i)
Q.176 Examine the figures I and II and choose
correct option for it.
(1) I-Scorpion- Insects, II-Prawn-
Molluscs
(2) I-Prawn-Crustacean, II-Pila-Molluscs
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(3) 1-Scorpion-Arachnids, II-Snail-
Molluscs
(4) I-Scorpion-Insects, II-Pila-Snail
Q.177 Assertion: Sponges exhibit cellular level
of organisation.
Reason: Cells are arranged as loose cell
aggregates. and some division of labour
occur among the cells.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Q.178 Assertion: All members of animalia are
multicellular.
Reason: All of them do not exhibit the
same pattern of organisation of cells.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Q.179 Match the following columns and select
the correct option:
Column I Column II
(A) Gregarious, (i) Asterias
polyphagous pest
(B) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
with bilateral
symmetry
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(C) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(D) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Q.180 Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding phylum aschelminthes?
(i) The body is circular in cross-section
hence the name roundworms.
(ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-
developed muscular pharynx.
(iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males
and females are distinct.
(iv) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and
excretion.
(1), (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these
Q.181 Assertion: Coelentrates are triploblastic
animal.
Reason: An undifferentiated layer,
mesoglea, is present in between the
ectoderm and the endoderm in
triploblastic animals.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Q.182 Statement I: Ctenophores, commonly
known as sea walnuts or comb jellies are
exclusively marine.
Statement II: Fertilisation is external with
direct development.
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(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect & Il is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Q.183 Statement I: Nereis, an aquatic form, is
dioecious, but earthworms and leeches are
monoecious.
Statement II: The mouth in echinodermata
contains a file-like rasping organ for
feeding, called radula.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect & Il is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Q.184 Assertion: Animals possessing coelom
are called coelomates.
Reason: Annelids, molluscs, arthropods,
echinoderms, hemichordates and
chordates are coelomates.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Q.185 Assertion: Sponges have a water transport
or canal system.
Reason: In canal system water enters
through ostia in the spongocoel from
where it goes out through the osculum.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not correct explanation of
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assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

Zoology Section – B

This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any 10 questions out of 15.

Q.186 Which of the following characters for Q.188 Choose the wrong statement for
echinodermata are correct? Arthropoda.
(i) These animals have an exoskeleton of (i) The body consists of head, thorax and
calcareous ossicles. abdomen.
(ii) All are marine with organ-system level (ii) Respiratory organs are gills, book gills,
of organisation. book lungs or tracheal system.
(iii) Digestive system is complete with (iii) Statocysts is an excretory organs.
mouth on the dorsal side and anus on (iv) They are mostly monoecious, fertilisation
the ventral side. is usually internal.
(iv) Water canal system present which (v) Apis, Bombyx and Laccifer are
helps in locomotion, capture and economically important insects.
transport of food and (1) (iv) and (v)
(v) They are monoecious, fertilisation is (2) (iii) and (iv)
usually external. (3) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(vi) Development is indirect with free- (4) None of these
swimming larva.
(1) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi) Q.189 Match the following:
(2) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi) List-I List-II
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii) and (vi) A. Physalia I. Pearl oyster

B. Limulus II. Portuguese

Q.187 Identify the correct match between the Man of War
group of animals and their characteristic
C. Ancylostoma III. Living fossil
morphological feature.
(1) Scorpion, spider, butterfly – Open D. Pinctada IV. Hookworm
circulatory system
(2) Culex, Locust, Taenia – Metameric (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
segmentation (2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(3) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea (3) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
cucumber - Bilateral symmetry (4) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(4) Pheretima, prawn, Antedon – Jointed
appendages

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Q.190 Identify the wrong statements for Q.193 Match List - I with List - II
poriferans from given statements. List-I List-II
(i) Metameric segmentation present in
poriferans. A. radula I. balanoglossus
(ii) Notochord is a mesodermally derived in B. Stomochord II. Pila
poriferans. C. Excretory III. Ophiura
(iii) Poriferans are primitive multicellular and organ
have cellular level of organisation. proboscis
(iv) Digestion is intracellular in poriferans. gland
(v) Poriferans are hermaphrodite and D. Excretory IV. saccoglossus
fertilisation is internal. system absent
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iv) and (v) (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (ii) (2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(3) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
Q.191 Which of the following option is correct (4) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
for given diagram I and II ?
Q.194 Assertion: Arthropoda are the largest
phylum of animals which includes insects.
Reason: Over one-thirds of all named
species on earth are arthropods.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and
the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(1) I-Tapeworm; II - Female Roundworm (2) Assertion and reason both are true but
(2) I-Liver fluke; II- Male Roundworm reason is not correct explanation of
(3) I-Female Roundworm; II- Male assertion.
Roundworm (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) I-Male Roundworm; II- Female (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Roundworm
Q.195 Gills in Mollusca have --------- function
Q.192 Choose the Wrong statement for Annelida (1) Respiratory (2) Excretory
(i) They are triploblastic, metamerically (3) Digestive (4) Both a and b
segmented and coelomate animals.
(ii) They possess longitudinal and circular Q.196 Given diagram shows the coelom of
muscles which help in locomotion. animals. Which of the following option is
(iii) Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess correct regarding coelom with examples?
lateral appendages, parapodia, which help
in swimming
(iv) Nereis, an aquatic form, is monoecious
(v) Earthworms and leeches are dioecious. (1) I-Wuchereria, II- Locust, III- Sycon
(1) (i).(ii) and (v) (2) (iii).(iv) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (iv) and (v)

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(2) I- Ancylostoma, II- Earthworm, III-
Aurelia
(3) I- snail , II- Ascaris , III- Taenia
(4) I- Hookworm, II- Pleurobrachia, III-
Fasciola
Q.197 Select the wrong statement for
platyhelminthes.
(i) These are mostly endoparasites found in
animals including human beings.
(ii) Hooks and suckers are present in the
parasitic forms.
(iii) Some absorb nutrients from the host
directly through their suckers.
(iv) Specialised cells called flame cells help in
osmoregulation and excretion.
(v) Sexes are separate, fertilisation is internal
and development is through many larval
stages
(1) (i), (iii) and (v) (2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (v) (4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(iv) They are monoecious, fertilisation is
internal and development may be direct or
indirect.
(v) Ancylostoma is bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and pseudocoelomate
animals.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(4) All of these
Q.200 Identify which of the following are TRUE
and select the correct option.
(i) Sponges: Cellular level of organisation
(ii) Cnidaria: Tissue level of organisation
(iii) Platyhelminthes: Organ level of
organisation
(iv) Echinoderms: Organ system level of
organisation
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iv
(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii, iii and iv

Q.198 Identify the correct match.

(1) Echinodermata - Radial symmetry,
spiny bodies, internal fertilization
(2) Mollusca - Diploblastic
pseudocoelomate, bilateral symmetry
(3) Arthropoda - Bilateral symmetry,
segmented body, chitinous
exoskeleton
(4) Chordata - Dorsal heart, ventral nerve
cord, post-anal tail absent

Q.199 Select true statement for Aschelminthes.

(i) Alimentary canal is complete with a well
developed muscular pharynx.
(ii) An excretory tube removes body wastes
from the body cavity through the
excretory pore.
(iii) They may be free living, aquatic and
terrestrial or parasitic in plants and
animals.

Rough Space

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