Comprehensive Radiographic

Pathology 6th Edition Eisenberg Test

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Chapter 05: Gastrointestinal System
Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 6th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Where does the process of digestion begin?

a. Stomach.
b. Small intestine.
c. Mouth.
d. Esophagus.
ANS: C
Digestion begins in the mouth with chewing breaking down food and mixing it with saliva.

REF: Page 153

2. What is mastication?
a. Chewing.
b. Swallowing.
c. Solid waste excretion.
d. Rhythmic contractions that move digestive contents through the GI tract.
ANS: A
Mastication is the medical term for chewing.

REF: Page 153

3. Deglutition is defined as
a. rhythmic contractions that move digestive contents through the GI tract
b. chewing
c. liquid waste excretion
d. swallowing
ANS: D
Deglutition is the medical term for swallowing.

REF: Page 153

4. Where does the greatest amount of digestion occur?

a. Stomach.
b. Duodenum.
c. Jejunum.
d. Colon.
ANS: B
The greatest amount of digestion occurs in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine.

REF: Page 153

5. Smooth muscle contractions that move the contents of the digestive system along the GI tract
are called
 a. peristalsis
b. deglutition
c. mastication
d. emulsification
ANS: A
Peristalsis is the term that refers to the smooth muscle contractions that move the contents of
the digestive system through the GI tract.

REF: Page 153

6. Which of the following is an emulsifier that aids in the breakdown of fats during digestion?
a. Bile.
b. Trypsin.
c. Pepsin.
d. Chyme.
ANS: A
Bile is an emulsifier that aids in the breakdown of fats during digestion.

REF: Page 153

7. Which of the following are digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

(1) Trypsin.
(2) Chyme.
(3) Chymotrypsin.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B
Trypsin and chymotrypsin are digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas. Chyme is the term
applied to the milky white substance that is formed in the stomach when chewed food is
mixed with hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

REF: Page 153

8. What is the largest gland in the body?

a. Pancreas.
b. Thyroid.
c. Adrenals.
d. Liver.
ANS: D
The liver is the largest gland in the body; it provides several vital functions for the body,
many of which are related to digestion.

REF: Page 153

9. A pear-shaped organ that lies on the undersurface of the liver is the

 a. pancreas
b. spleen
c. gallbladder
d. duodenum
ANS: C
The gallbladder is a pear-shaped organ that lies on the undersurface of the liver.

REF: Page 156

10. What is the function of the gallbladder?

a. Produce bile.
b. Store and concentrate bile.
c. Produce trypsin.
d. Break down glycogen.
ANS: B
The gallbladder functions to store and concentrate bile. It releases bile into the duodenum
when stimulated by the presence of dietary fat in the small bowel.

REF: Page 156

11. An increase in glucose in the blood stimulates the beta cells in the _____ to secrete _____.
a. pancreas; insulin
b. pancreas; glucagon
c. liver; glycogen
d. liver; insulin
ANS: A
Blood glucose levels in the blood are maintained by the secretion of insulin and glucagon by
the pancreas. When there is an increase in glucose, the pancreas secretes insulin. When
glucose is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon to accelerate glycogen breakdown by the liver.

REF: Page 156

12. Acquired tracheoesophageal (TE) fistulas are commonly caused by

a. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
b. Barrett’s esophagus
c. malignancy in the mediastinum
d. portal hypertension
ANS: C
Acquired TE fistulas are commonly caused by a malignancy in the mediastinum and are a
serious, late complication of esophageal carcinoma. Another common cause of acquired TE
fistulas is infections.

REF: Page 156

13. What is esophageal atresia?

a. An abnormal communication between the esophagus and the respiratory system.
b. Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus.
c. Functional obstruction causing proximal dilatation.
 d. Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch.
ANS: D
Esophageal atresia is a congenital condition in which the esophagus fails to form a sufficient
lumen and ends in a blind pouch, so the newborn cannot ingest any food.

REF: Page 156

14. Failure of a satisfactory esophageal lumen to develop separate from the trachea is termed
a. tracheoesophageal fistula
b. achalasia
c. Barrett’s esophagus
d. hiatal hernia
ANS: A
Tracheoesophageal fistula is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea
caused by a failure of the two structures to develop separately.

REF: Page 156

15. The most common type of congenital TE fistula is

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV
ANS: C
85% to 90% of congenital TE fistulas are type III, which consists of the upper segment ending
in a blind pouch and the lower segment attaching to the trachea.

REF: Page 156

16. Which of the following is a serious complication of TE fistula?

a. Hiatal hernia.
b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
c. Esophagitis.
d. Aspiration pneumonia.
ANS: D
Aspiration pneumonia is an extremely serious complication of TE fistula.

REF: Page 157

17. What is the most common cause of acute esophagitis?

a. TE fistula.
b. Gastroesophageal reflux.
c. Infection.
d. Malignancy.
ANS: B
Reflux of the stomach contents into the distal esophagus is the most common cause of acute
esophagitis.
 REF: Page 158

18. What increases the likelihood of reflux esophagitis?

a. Hiatal hernia.
b. Achalasia.
c. Portal hypertension.
d. Diverticula.
ANS: A
Hiatal hernia greatly increases the likelihood of reflux esophagitis.

REF: Page 159

19. What condition is associated with severe reflux esophagitis?

a. Varices.
b. Barrett’s esophagus.
c. Traction diverticula.
d. TE fistula.
ANS: B
Barrett’s esophagus is a condition related to severe reflux esophagitis in which the normal
squamous lining of the esophagus is destroyed and replaced by columnar epithelium similar to
the stomach.

REF: Page 159

20. Which organisms are most often responsible for infectious esophagitis?
a. Streptococcal bacteria and herpesvirus.
b. Helicobacter pylori bacteria and Candida fungus.
c. Herpesvirus and H. pylori bacteria.
d. Candida fungus and herpesvirus.
ANS: D
Infectious esophagitis is most often caused by the Candida fungus and herpesvirus.

REF: Page 160

21. Difficulty swallowing is termed

a. deglutition
b. mastication
c. dysphagia
d. aphasia
ANS: C
Dysphagia is the medical term for difficulty swallowing.

REF: Page 161

22. Which of the following is strongly correlated with esophageal carcinoma?

(1) Excessive alcohol intake.
(2) Smoking.
(3) Portal hypertension.
 a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A
Esophageal carcinoma is strongly linked to excessive alcohol intake and smoking.

REF: Page 162

23. Which imaging procedure is used to detect esophageal carcinoma?

a. CT.
b. NM.
c. US.
d. Double-contrast barium swallow.
ANS: D
Double-contrast barium swallow will demonstrate the early plaquelike lesions or ulcers of
esophageal cancer.

REF: Page 162

24. Which imaging modality is used to stage esophageal carcinoma?

a. Double-contrast barium swallow.
b. CT.
c. Ultrasound.
d. Nuclear medicine.
ANS: B
CT is used to stage esophageal carcinoma with 90% accuracy, including tumor size, extent,
and resectability.

REF: Page 163

25. Which type of esophageal diverticulum contains all layers of the wall?
a. Traction.
b. Pulsion.
c. Zenker’s.
d. Epiphrenic.
ANS: A
A traction or true diverticulum contains all layers of the esophageal wall.

REF: Page 163

26. Which type of diverticulum arises from the posterior wall of the cervical esophagus?
a. Traction.
b. Pulsion.
c. Zenker’s.
d. Epiphrenic.
ANS: C
 Zenker’s diverticula arise from the posterior wall of the cervical esophagus.

REF: Page 163

27. Which type of diverticulum arises in the distal 10 cm of the esophagus?

a. Zenker’s.
b. Pulsion.
c. Traction.
d. Epiphrenic.
ANS: D
Epiphrenic diverticula occur in the distal 10 cm of the esophagus.

REF: Page 163

28. Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus are termed

a. diverticula
b. varices
c. dysphagia
d. achalasia
ANS: B
Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus are termed varices. Outpouchings of the esophagus
are called diverticula. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. Achalasia is a condition in which
the esophagus is dilated from abnormal functioning of the sphincter.

REF: Page 163

29. What is the most common cause of dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus?
a. Abnormal function of the lower esophageal sphincter.
b. Reflux of abdominal contents into the esophagus.
c. Portal hypertension.
d. Weakness in the vessel wall.
ANS: C
Dilated veins of the esophagus, termed varices, are usually caused by portal hypertension.

REF: Page 163

30. Which imaging procedure is used to demonstrate dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus?
a. Upper GI.
b. Barium enema.
c. MRI.
d. Double-contrast barium swallow.
ANS: D
A double-contrast barium swallow best demonstrates the wormlike filling defect that is
evidence of esophageal varices.

REF: Page 164

31. What is the most common abnormality found on upper GI exams?

 a. Hiatal hernia.
b. Esophageal varices.
c. Esophageal diverticula.
d. Gastric ulcer.
ANS: A
Hiatal hernia is the most common abnormality found on upper GI exams.

REF: Page 165

32. Refer to the image. What esophageal pathologic condition is demonstrated?

 From Eisenberg RL: Gastrointestinal radiology: a pattern approach, Philadelphia, 1990,
Lippincott.
a. Varices.
b. Hiatal hernia.
c. Barrett’s esophagus.
d. Esophageal diverticulum.
ANS: D
The image demonstrates an esophageal diverticulum, specifically a traction type.

REF: Page 164

33. Refer to the image. This esophageal pathologic condition is described as resembling beads on
a rosary. What pathologic condition is evident in this image?

a. Varices.
 b. Hiatal hernia.
c. Esophageal diverticula.
d. Gastric ulcer.
ANS: A
The wormlike filling defect demonstrated in the image is described as resembling beads on a
rosary. Esophageal varices are demonstrated in this image.

REF: Page 165

34. Perforation of the esophagus may be a complication of all of the following except
a. neoplasm
b. instrumentation
c. peptic ulcer
d. hiatal hernia
ANS: D
Perforation of the esophagus may be a complication of esophagitis, peptic ulcer, neoplasm,
external trauma, or instrumentation.

REF: Page 168

35. Which of the following are complications of peptic ulcer disease?

(1) Hemorrhage.
(2) Obstruction.
(3) Perforation.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D
Hemorrhage, obstruction, and perforation are all complications of peptic ulcer disease.

REF: Page 171

36. What is the most common cause of acute gastrointestinal bleeding?

a. Peptic ulcer disease.
b. Esophageal varices.
c. Esophageal diverticula.
d. Gastric cancer.
ANS: A
Peptic ulcer disease is the most common cause of acute GI bleeding.

REF: Page 171

37. What is the most common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease?

a. Gastric ulcer in fundus.
b. Duodenal ulcer.
c. Gastric ulcer on lesser curvature.
 d. Esophageal ulcer.
ANS: B
Duodenal ulcer is the most common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease.

REF: Page 171

38. Where is the most common location of gastric ulcers?

a. Fundus.
b. Body.
c. Lesser curvature.
d. Greater curvature.
ANS: C
Gastric ulcers are usually located along the lesser curvature of the stomach.

REF: Page 171

39. Where in the stomach do most gastric cancers occur?

a. Fundus.
b. Cardiac antrum.
c. Body.
d. Distal stomach.
ANS: D
Gastric cancers usually occur in the distal stomach.

REF: Page 174

40. Which imaging modality is used to stage gastric carcinoma?

a. Ultrasound.
b. Upper GI series.
c. CT.
d. MRI.
ANS: C
CT is used to stage gastric carcinoma and is also used for treatment planning and in evaluating
response to therapy.

REF: Page 175

41. A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause that often affects the terminal ileum is
called
a. Crohn’s disease
b. malabsorption syndrome
c. diverticulosis
d. gastritis
ANS: A
Crohn’s disease, or regional enteritis, is a chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause
and has a wide range of symptoms. The terminal ileum is usually the area most often affected.

REF: Page 176

42. The most common cause of a mechanical small bowel obstruction is
a. lack of peristalsis
b. intussusception
c. fibrous adhesions
d. volvulus
ANS: C
About 75% of small bowel obstructions are caused by fibrous adhesions from previous
surgery or peritonitis. The second most common cause of mechanical small bowel obstruction
is external hernia.

REF: Page 178

43. A common disorder of intestinal motor activity in which fluid and gas do not progress
normally through an unobstructed bowel is called
a. regional enteritis
b. adynamic ileus
c. intussusception
d. ischemic colitis
ANS: B
Adynamic ileus is a common disorder in which the lack of peristalsis, or motor activity in the
intestine, causes fluid and gas to not progress through the intestines.

REF: Page 180

44. Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

a. Volvulus.
b. Intussusception.
c. Abdominal surgery.
d. Intraluminal neoplasm.
ANS: B
Intussusception is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children but is rare in adults.

REF: Page 181

45. What is intussusception?

a. A twisting of the bowel on itself.
b. A type of inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, with an associated
psychogenic element.
c. Acquired herniation of the mucosa and submucosa of the intestinal wall.
d. The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another.
ANS: D
Intussusception is the telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another and is a major
cause of bowel obstruction in children.

REF: Page 181

46. In which age group is appendicitis most common?

 a. Infants and toddlers.
b. Children and adolescents.
c. Young adults.
d. Elderly adults.
ANS: B
Appendicitis occurs in all age groups, but it is most common in children and adolescents.

REF: Page 184

47. Which imaging modality is the gold standard for appendicitis?

a. Radiography (KUB).
b. Fluoroscopy (barium enema).
c. CT.
d. MRI.
ANS: C
CT is the gold standard for detection of appendicitis and provides a more precise evaluation of
the nature, extent, and location of the pathologic process.

REF: Page 185

48. A condition of acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through muscular layers at
points of weaknesses of the bowel wall is known as
a. diverticulosis
b. ulcerative colitis
c. Crohn’s colitis
d. volvulus
ANS: A
Diverticulosis is a condition of acquired herniations of the mucosa and submucosa through
muscular layers at points of weaknesses in the bowel wall. Almost 50% of patients over age
60 have diverticulosis.

REF: Page 185

49. Refer to the image below. This typical saw-tooth configuration demonstrated on a barium
enema exam is evidence of
 a. ulcerative colitis
b. diverticulosis
c. appendicitis
d. intussusception
ANS: B
Diverticulosis demonstrates on barium enema with a saw-tooth configuration as demonstrated
in this image.

REF: Page 186

50. Progressive shortening and rigidity of the colon and absent haustral patterns are radiographic
evidence of
a. appendicitis
b. diverticulosis
c. diverticulitis
d. chronic ulcerative colitis
ANS: D
Chronic ulcerative colitis demonstrates radiographically with progressive shortening and
rigidity of the colon and absent haustral patterns caused by ulcer healing and subsequent
reepithelization.

REF: Page 187

51. Which of the following is an ominous complication of ulcerative colitis?

a. Hemorrhage.
b. Toxic megacolon.
c. Obstruction.
 d. Perforation.
ANS: B
Toxic megacolon, characterized by extreme dilatation of a segment of colon with systemic
toxicity, is a severe and ominous complication of ulcerative colitis.

REF: Page 187

52. Which of the following is associated with prior cardiovascular disease?

a. Diverticulosis.
b. Ulcerative colitis.
c. Ischemic colitis.
d. Irritable bowel syndrome.
ANS: C
Ischemic colitis is characterized by an abrupt onset of abdominal pain and rectal pain. It is
often seen in patients with prior cardiovascular disease.

REF: Page 191

53. Which of the following is one of the most typical forms of primary colon cancer?
a. Polypoid.
b. Fungating.
c. Ulcerative.
d. Annular.
ANS: D
Annular carcinoma of the colon is one of the most typical forms of primary colon cancer.
Because of its characteristic appearance on a barium enema exam, it is also called
“apple-core” or “napkin-ring” carcinoma.

REF: Pages 191-192

54. What is one of the most common causes of obstruction in the large bowel?
a. Intussusception.
b. Primary colon cancer.
c. Volvulus.
d. Appendicitis.
ANS: B
About 70% of large bowel obstructions are due to primary colonic cancers. Diverticulitis and
volvulus account for most of the remaining cases of obstruction.

REF: Page 193

55. Which of the following technical adjustments is required when imaging a patient with known
obstruction of the large bowel?
a. Increase in kVp.
b. Decrease in kVp.
c. Increase in kVp and double mAs.
d. Decrease in kVp and half mAs.
ANS: B
 Obstruction causes the bowel to expand with accumulated gas, which requires less radiation to
penetrate. A decrease in kVp is needed when imaging a patient with an obstruction.

REF: Page 193

56. Where in the colon do most primary cancers arise?

a. In preexisting polyps.
b. In diverticula.
c. In the perianal area.
d. In the ileocecal valve.
ANS: A
There is evidence that most primary cancers of the colon arise from preexisting polyps.

REF: Page 191

57. A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed
a. intussusception
b. colitis
c. appendicitis
d. volvulus
ANS: D
A volvulus is a twisting of the bowel on itself and can cause obstruction.

REF: Page 193

58. Varicose veins of the lower end of the rectum that cause symptoms of pain, itching, and
bleeding are
a. volvulus
b. intussusception
c. hemorrhoids
d. Crohn’s disease
ANS: C
Hemorrhoids are varicose veins of the lower end of the rectum with symptoms of pain,
itching, and bleeding.

REF: Page 195

59. Which type of gallstone is most prevalent in the United States?

a. Cholesterol.
b. Pigment.
c. Mixed cholesterol and calcium carbonate.
d. None of these. Gallstones are rare in the United States.
ANS: A
Cholesterol stones are the predominant types of gallstones in the United States.

REF: Page 197

60. What is the current imaging modality of choice for the gallbladder?
 a. Nuclear medicine.
b. Ultrasound.
c. Radiography.
d. CT.
ANS: B
Ultrasound is now the imaging modality of choice for the gallbladder. Oral cholecystogram
was the gold imaging standard in the past.

REF: Page 198

61. What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis?

a. Infection of the biliary system.
b. Cirrhosis of the liver.
c. Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct.
d. Peptic ulcer disease.
ANS: C
Acute cholecystitis usually occurs after obstruction of the cystic duct by impaction of a
gallstone.

REF: Page 198

62. What condition results from chronic cholecystitis in which the gallbladder becomes fibrotic
and calcified?
a. Cholecystectomy.
b. Pseudocyst.
c. Biliary carcinoma.
d. Porcelain gallbladder.
ANS: D
Porcelain gallbladder results from chronic cholecystitis and causes extensive calcification and
fibrosis of the walls. The name is derived from the bluish discoloration and brittle consistency
of the gallbladder.

REF: Page 200

63. Hepatocellular carcinoma most commonly occurs in patients with

a. diffuse hepatocellular disease
b. chronic hepatitis
c. porcelain gallbladder
d. portal hypertension
ANS: A
Primary liver cancer is more common in persons with diffuse hepatocellular disease, such as
alcoholic and postnecrotic cirrhosis.

REF: Page 203

64. What is the modality of choice to image hepatocellular carcinoma?

a. Radiography.
b. CT.
 c. MRI.
d. Nuclear medicine.
ANS: B
CT is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma.

REF: Page 203

65. What is a common complication of cirrhosis?

a. Acute pancreatitis.
b. Portal hypertension.
c. Ascites.
d. Biliary obstruction.
ANS: C
The accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, known as ascites, is a common
complication of liver cirrhosis.

REF: Page 202

66. Which of the following is appropriate when imaging a patient with known liver cirrhosis
complicated by ascites?
a. Increase in kVp.
b. Decrease in kVp.
c. Increase in kVp and decrease in mAs by half.
d. Double mAs.
ANS: A
Fluid attenuates radiation, so an increase in kVp is necessary to penetrate the accumulated
fluid in ascites.

REF: Page 202

67. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

a. Blockage of pancreatic duct by impacted stone.
b. Diabetes.
c. Excessive alcohol consumption.
d. Cirrhosis.
ANS: C
Excessive alcohol consumption is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis. Occasionally,
acute pancreatitis is the result of gallstones.

REF: Page 206

68. Which imaging modality is the most effective for detection of carcinoma of the pancreas?
a. Ultrasound.
b. Nuclear medicine.
c. MRI.
d. CT.
ANS: D
 Whereas ultrasound is often the screening modality for suspected pancreatic carcinoma, CT is
the most effective imaging modality for diagnosis of pancreatic cancer.

REF: Page 209

69. Which of the following is a sign of perforation of the GI tract?

a. Acute pancreatitis.
b. Pneumoperitoneum.
c. Pseudocysts.
d. Localized ileus.
ANS: B
Pneumoperitoneum, or free air in the peritoneal cavity, is a sign of a perforation of the GI
tract.

REF: Page 210

70. Which imaging modality is the preferred method for the detection of pyloric stenosis?
a. Ultrasound.
b. MRI.
c. CT.
d. Radiography.
ANS: A
In today’s imaging arena, ultrasound is the modality of choice due to the high sensitivity and
specificity, an accuracy approaching 100%. Pyloric stenosis will appear as a thickened pyloric
muscle width greater than 3 mm and an elongated pyloric canal (>1.2 cm) on the longitudinal
sonogram.

REF: Page 170

71. Pyloric stenosis usually results in

a. perforation of the pylorus
b. malabsorption syndrome
c. atrophy of the gastric mucosa
d. obstruction that prevents food from entering the duodenum
ANS: D
Pyloric stenosis causes a complete or near-complete obstruction preventing food from
entering into the duodenum.

REF: Page 170

72. Refer to the image. This disorder is caused by a loss of bowel motility. What disorder is
demonstrated in this abdominal radiograph?
 a. Mechanical obstruction.
b. Adynamic ileus.
c. Volvulus.
d. Intussusception.
ANS: B
This image demonstrates an adynamic ileus, which is caused by a loss of bowel motility or
peristalsis. The dilated loops of bowel are filled with gas and fluid.

REF: Page 181

TRUE/FALSE

1. Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis.

ANS: T
Ascites, or accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, is a common complication of
cirrhosis.

REF: Page 202

2. Esophageal atresia and TE fistula are often associated with other congenital malformations of
the skeletal, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems.

ANS: T
 It is common that congenital malformations are accompanied by other developmental
anomalies.

REF: Page 156

3. GERD is a common complication of hiatal hernia.

ANS: T
Reflux of the stomach contents into the esophagus is a common complication of hiatal hernia.

REF: Page 165

4. Esophageal carcinoma is often detected early and carries a good prognosis.

ANS: F
Esophageal cancer does not usually produce early symptoms, so it is often diagnosed late and
has a poor prognosis.

REF: Pages 161-162

5. Esophageal varices are most commonly caused by a malfunction of the lower esophageal
sphincter.

ANS: F
Varices are usually caused by portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis.

REF: Page 163

6. Hiatal hernia is the most common disorder diagnosed on upper GI exams.

ANS: T
This is a true statement in that hiatal hernias occur in almost 50% of the population, and UGI
exams are the most common imaging procedures used to diagnose this condition.

REF: Page 165

7. Peptic ulcer disease most commonly occurs in the duodenum.

ANS: T
Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers.

REF: Page 171

8. Gastric cancer is relatively rare in the United States.

ANS: T
This is a true statement. Whereas stomach cancer is common in other countries, such as Japan,
it is relatively rare in the United States.

REF: Page 174

9. Crohn’s disease most commonly occurs in geriatric patients.

 ANS: F
Crohn’s disease most commonly occurs in young adults.

REF: Page 176

10. The cause of regional enteritis is unknown.

ANS: T
Regional enteritis, or Crohn’s disease, is an inflammatory condition of unknown cause.
Diseases of unknown cause are classified as idiopathic diseases.

REF: Page 176

11. Small bowel obstructions are usually caused by intraluminal neoplasms.

ANS: F
Small bowel obstructions are most commonly the result of fibrous adhesions from previous
surgeries or peritonitis.

REF: Page 177

12. Telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another is called volvulus.

ANS: F
Intussusception is the term for telescoping of one part of the bowel into another.

REF: Page 181

13. The twisting of the bowel on itself is called a volvulus.

ANS: T
A volvulus is when a portion of the bowel twists upon itself.

REF: Page 200

14. Porcelain gallbladder increases the risk of gallbladder carcinoma.

ANS: T
There is an increased incidence of gallbladder cancer in patients with porcelain gallbladder.

REF: Page 200

15. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in persons with cirrhosis.

ANS: T
Primary liver cancer is more common in persons with diffuse hepatocellular disease, such as
alcoholic or postnecrotic cirrhosis.

REF: Page 203

16. Primary liver cancer is more common than liver metastasis.

 ANS: F
Liver metastasis is the most common cancer of the liver.

REF: Page 205

17. About 60% of pancreatic cancers occur in the tail of the pancreas.

ANS: F
Most pancreatic cancers occur in the head of the pancreas.

REF: Page 209

18. Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of perforation of the GI tract.

ANS: T
Free air in the abdominal cavity, pneumoperitoneum, is a sign of a perforation in the GI tract.

REF: Page 210

MATCHING

Match the disease to the cause.

a. Obstruction of cystic duct by an impacted gallstone
b. Perforation of GI tract
c. Inflammation or necrosis
d. Excessive alcohol consumption

1. Pneumoperitoneum
2. Acute pancreatitis
3. Pancreatic pseudocyst
4. Acute cholecystitis

1. ANS: B REF: Page 210

2. ANS: D REF: Page 206
3. ANS: C REF: Page 208
4. ANS: A REF: Page 198

Match the disease to its definition or cause.

a. Esophageal cancer
b. Barrett’s esophagus
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Colon cancer

5. Preexisting polyps
6. Cirrhosis
7. GERD
8. Excessive smoking and alcohol intake

5. ANS: D REF: Page 191

6. ANS: C REF: Page 202
 7. ANS: B REF: Page 159
8. ANS: A REF: Page 162

Match the disease with the most effective imaging modality.

a. CT
b. Ultrasound
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Double-contrast fluoroscopy exam

9. Pancreatic cancer
10. Cholelithiasis
11. Esophageal cancer
12. Liver metastasis

9. ANS: A REF: Page 209

10. ANS: B REF: Page 197
11. ANS: D REF: Page 162
12. ANS: A REF: Page 203
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MASSACHUSETTS.
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