Radically 0: 06/80/16 Ansalomt Ge onutie Fag mess(ACe) 388 SES 0, EEA/STM/112 2016 L111 LL) SCREENING TEST Series (Mechanical Engineering) ene Time : 150 Minutes Max. Marks : 150 StabSw + 160 MvSsven Sogo srty en : 150 INSTRUCTIONS (29225069) 1. Plouso check the Tost Booklet and ensure tha it contains all he questions, Ifyou find any defect in Se Tee tea ure ies eee een $4 SSO wh Gye Suposadss EF Sra ESOS, (4 SESE Wd, SiG SWSaE ma age Ssosee aS Sane STsaad Does Swsssaw. 2. The Test Booklet contains 150 questions. Bach question earries 1 mark GH SWS 150 (SAO. 26,5), SAL 1 Sirth, Seronoviadsa. 3. The Tost Booklet has three (3) sections, ie., Section I (General Studies & Mental Ability), Section II (Civil/Mechanieal Engineering Common Syllabus) and Section III (Mechanical Engineering). Hach seetion contains 50 questions and each question carries one mark. The question of the Section I i.e. G.S. & MA are set in English and translated into Telugu. In ease of doubt English version will be considered as authentic version for valuation purpose. The questions of the Section II & Section III are set only in English as per existing pattern. Be GH SOs Swe Sema esr S85 I (@sdd FES dat howd 2008), 235 I (806 Tarsnsd gond00h Sav honk) dato gS TIT (SHERDYS goedoh) aiyO. GO Serio 50 HOt, GO We ad airdoy kd SOA GIO. NYO 1 SD Gee sof" saireo ecneaies Bovio Paes Sor BOS BabodSd. SMS Sein Boy soos: ROPRE’D GH Ssressor SsoTsacra0d. Tl Octo ASS TIT SD Geyer wad’ ar 398 Esto eo hes Satire Forerxksd. 4, The Test Booklet is printed in four (4) Series, viz. [A][B][C][D]. The Series, [A] or [B] or [G] or [D- is printed on the right-hand corner of the cover page of the Test Booklet. Mark your Test Booklet Series [A] or [B] or [C] or [D] in Part C on side 1 of the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle with Blue/Black Ball point pen. G¥ Soto Tero S008" Geries) os [A] [B][C][D] sysno’ soposnasa. & sgsnew [A] m2 [B] ro [C] m2 LD] ra Sm Ses Bue, sie Sd HEBD sarog SoBotindss. SHS SH On Gas, Seo Geries) [A] md [B] md [C] a [D] ma susrons sytiw ass By DH C sot eothSsisn Seramotinds Sessoni oy /ep§ ard Sonoel DinG Sgr tog NOSSSso. Example to fill up the Booklet Series Ht our Test Booklet Series is A, please fill as shown below: @®OoO If you have not marked the Test Booklet Series at Part C of side 1 of the Answer Sheet or marked in a way that it leads to discrepancy in determining the exact Test Booklet Series, then, in all such cases, your Answer Sheet will be invalidated without any further notice. Ne corre pete eae entertained in the matter. 4b BY Mwisw Dus, Sosint (Series) Stied Mose ats BOS oF CS gouitour TY R005 BY SHS Seiio po Sir Bevis Pibiet Srrssvst 25 Ghar dar, twos ad Sos swosy, 2% Jevsod Fis wb dassomd Sieg Seite Sosoweckeo (invalidated). 529 1802 Dinsodd égvpieygotine atotindy. 06112016EEA/STM/112 (2 fo 5 Each question is followed by 4 answer choices. Of these, you have to select one correct answer and ‘mark it on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle for the question. If more than one circle is darkened, tho answer will not be valued at all. Use Blue/Black Ball point. pen to make heavy black marks to fill the circle completely. Make no other stray marks. Use of whitener is prohibited. ‘If-used, it will lead to invalidation. BO GE Tak Stircritine aids. eocdd Sado ere ITD Kings Sutin HRS Seromoisnds Sepsinw Sgr HQ Dose. ef oO) ISS Spyssvow ROBIE, ee Sergrssin SOMOS NLD. SAnd SM Ser GQ Soysw oy/ePS od SHanolh Diy TAHT. OSSD Tothen DigQired. BSE srtdeo AGOSGDNO. TASS Sings S850 sobdosmce. .g.: Ifthe answer for Question No. 1 is Answer choice (2), it should be marked as follows GO: Gk nk, EdSow; 1 waren (2) eomssye> TDD Se Bod Detar Mousse : :[O[e [elo Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only, failing which your Answer Sheet will be invalidated. Gel pens/pencils are not allowed. It is not required to darken the second copy separately. Savgrs SEO DosUrdS 49 dy Sg oT Savi Riso Sry was sod sures Sew sobdonacsc. BS DayE, DAs ASGosersito Gouis SH Serty Storr Dod wsarsases. Mark Paper Code and Roll No. as given in the Hall Ticket with Blue/Black Ball point pen by darkening appropriate circles in Part A of side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Incorrectinot encoding will Jead to invalidation of your Answer Sheet. SE USE anode & Dito Any, SE Sontei tOaiw by FF Sond ssirgrs SUS Gok, estes BOS TF A Sotd ep/ep§ oF Danold DiyG SOD Syyswos! Sgr GY Mouser. ssongsor Shiv 3S OS Aol SobsStonar Sars SSn HOIoseces. Example: Ifthe Paper Code is 027, and Roll No. is 956408764 fill as shown below : derswicg: B55 SE 027 Sobaio B'S So. 956409764 Sons Sots Srds MSSur Doyo : Paper Code Roll No. ‘S5596 x0. ol 27] e[elel*lels|71*1¢ @oo @PQOeOODOOD 2OoO ODODDOOXDORDYA 2@e@e D@AOODODOOOO B9O®@ O@ODOOAOODOD @@®@ Q@OOBDOOO®O ®O®@ @O@@OOQOOO®D® ©@O® QOQHOOOHOOe® Q90®@ DOODOOOeOD ®®O® ®@OOOOOOODOD ©@O®@ @2OOO2OOOO 06112016EEA/STM/112 (3) ob) & 10. “ai 12. 13. 4. 15. 16. Please get the signature of the Invigilator affixed in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, An Answer Sheet without the signature of the Invigilator is liable for invalidation. BERG Seiad LaronodS Yotiod SgILSD Unvigilator) Goss, Sowsnws Foose. sees SOD SostSn Stings SOs" Seomss 08 Soho, DO NOT fold, tear, wrinkle, tie, staple, do any rough work or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet, otherwise your Answer Sheet will be invalidated. & SSID BH OT oh SE yw, Seas shessieriomd, Aken Aoibkasen mD, Dosioomd, B5 Sasve20 Asbestos md SOG fp SiirGrS Sw SOLoSmeied. Using the Whitener/Blade/Eraser or any kind of tampering to change the answers on OMR Answer Shect will lead to invalidation. SErgrs SUSnd" bb een soteytor OU, Ged, says ds Dogs Scyeren ayeo Skew by sires Seiso SOPOSMLaLD. Do not mark answer choices on the Test Booklet. Violation of this will be viewed seriously. Ro wiwoh SySGiwp Movies. 629 eHEDoIss Ssorr sonedotincoy. Before leaving the examination hall, the candidate should hand over the original OME Answer Sheet (top sheet) to the Invigilator and carry the bottom sheet (duplicate) for his/her record, SOY HS SAD BIOL, OGY IS Sarg BOSD LodID (UNH Sein) oY,G ai Sows nvigilator) 32, 588 (duplicate) Signs SGowd (God Seis) HF SHTD SPSaye, Programming Calculators, Mathematical/Log Tables, Mobile Phones, Blue Tooth instruments or any other Electronic Devices will not be allowed into the Examination Hall. Smwok soHSab, reiierh Seoody, SuBd, az arS sosrw md dor dunsoss 2og28 SOstswew Shy wiead'Ds exBosnticd. Candidates should stay in the Examination Hall till expiry of Full Time ie. 2 Hours. No candidate shall be allowed to leave the Hall in the middle of the examination under any circumstances. 1 2 SOx Sted! weyigen Ox LQ edly Sow (21 Hower) dociser. Hx EC Oe HOQEOSD mablsto Sotiacits. If any candidate attempts to use any means to cheat/copy ete., he/she is liable for prosecution and debarment. 9 9849 eam Silof/sb Sader Syms Waethodsyond arto eHdirisw sbdawy erste 199 exper, Rough work may be done on the last page of the Question Booklet only. It should not be done anywhere else. O Sy Gey Swod' O56 SAE sre Jaw. 3d 24,5 depos. 06112016EEA/STM/112 SECTIONI Passage for questions no. 1 to 3: Lalitha, Raja and Rama availed the discount offers during a Big Diwali sale. They purchased one item each with the highest discount being = 125. The blue coat was not purchased by Lalitha. Rama was happy to get a discount of © 90 on the item bought by her. The discount on the red item was more than that on the pillow covers. The discount on trousers was not € 50 and the trousers were not bought by Lalitha or Raja. One of the items was green in colour. Answer the following questions : 1, What was the item bought by Rama ? (4) BES I (Steet Wi Ho. 1.5083: 3, Ter OD Sw dG 4359 emysind ond Pp Skye THY. THY Fos SH Sapo soa WO 2808 OfodS 63 ISS rand & 125. e885 DD Soro Seo THSed. Seo Sy SQ P F 9 Tord ofotsors sh SoBFReDOD. It Goro SYP eBods rod Bots nBme Bs offods mand Say 855. Sypen £6 ef005 ond F 50 Ted tdci O86 eb cer SD Sot Swen. SH) SHyHod’ aves 8 Sey Hors 408. G08 Seow Sirqrso waked : 1. O59 SH Shy Dood 7 @) Coat @) Pillow Covers oe i) irene (2) Got rbeven (4) Donot know See @) dase 2. How much di id Lalitha get ? nnn heel ad 2, 28% J05 Gand oboded ? a ©1235 @) £125 @ = 9 @ ©9 (3) © 50 (@) © 50 (4) Donot know i) Soe 8, oer Si Sige Coro D205? 3. What is the colour of the item purchased by ge Raja? (@) BB Gor @) Blue @ 20% @ Red @) eS sy (8) Green ® adaLe @EEA/STM/112, w ol 4. Ifthe data based on workers salary is as 2500,|4. s2a0 dy) DStsiweo 2500, 2700, 2600, 2700, 2600, 2800, 2200, 2100, 2000, 2900, 2800, 2200, 2100, 2000, 2900, 3000, 2800, 3000, 2800, 2200, 2500, 2700, 2800, 2600 and 2200, 2500, 2700, 2800, 2600 00% Swot number of classes desired is 10, then the SUtiwhe Noy 10 wonG, SONG wossesoo ‘width of the class interval is 208 (400 (a) 400 (2) 300 (2) 300 (@) 100 (@) 100 (4) 200 (4) 200 5. erSetSn thOate Siitwo shits Attn & 5. Difference of mode and mean is equal to G00 oS sivas (2) 3 (mean ~ median) @) 8 (Sren ~ agyiesn) aia? Seasanss meses) @) 2 (SSntew - SoSyiesse) (3) (mean — ets cae (8) 3 (‘sin - ertrvessn) (4 2 (mode - mean) (4) 2 (erssoetion - rit) 6. The length of the coastline of Andhra Pradesh in the nearest whole number of kilometres|S GOS SOE Bei cus, Day, SS moge? | is (& G08 are6* hos Sows) a 94 ay ome (3) 974 (3) 974 (2) 954 (2) 954 (4) 984 (4) 984 |EEA/STM/112 I What percentage of the country should be covered with forests in order to maintain the ecological balance ? (1) 23% 2) 31% (3) 33% 41% What were the parameters adopted by Suresh | ‘Tendulkar Committee to estimate poverty in India? Money required for stipulated minimum calorie intake (2) Spending on transport and housing (3) Spending on food, education, health, electricity, clothing and footwear (4) None of the above What is the guiding principle behind establishment of NITI Aayog ? (1) Collateral federalism (2) Competitive federalism (3) Compulsive federalism (4) Cooperative federalism (6) o) Sorgives Steg) Joseds sind" Dos wSiw Ceagined Synd Goad ? 23% @) 31% 8) 33% (4) 47% Door wosier Iciniate dF GotiroyS saoeb GxvS sy Poser Ine ? () S2R3EO ogi SiS0 SHOR GHse 2) Serer Shdaio Ny SHB So Heder @) eSin, Day, Gigi, IcoyS 48, ge thOcto Fsdyo S50 ate ) Pras dow DO sari Jdoistiiin Siwy Ko Srgoys Qqzowise Dovel ? (2) SEAS Saray yg @) ERE Sra; SQ (8) GHISO Sivas SB SSS Beira NgEEA/STM/112 10. 11. 12, 13. What is the target date for implementation of| GsT? Q) 1% January, 2017 (2) 1% April, 2017 (3) 1% April, 2018 (4 31% January, 2017 What is the reason for celebrating 7% August as National Handloom Day ? (2) Swadeshi Movement (2) Civil Disobedience Movement (3) Ahmedabad Mill Strike (4) None of the above ‘Which party is called as the Grand Old Party ? @ @ @ @ ‘The Republican Party Indian National Congress Conservative Party Communist Party of India ‘Which year was declared as the International ‘Year of Pulses by the UN General Assembly 2 @ 2015 @ 2016 (3) 2017 4) 2014 oa) 10. iL 13. o 8.08.03. widen Sorbo Woods os 8D & 80d THE Moyo (1) 1 8358, 2017 (2) 1906, 2017 @) 1988, 2018 (4) 312830, 2017 whan Dse ode sse ery oasdds BYE rb No Stnsw we God rnd MQowsn (1) 8588 eesgsossw waSgowSa gos exyrerS dey Sy BS SE0HD Oo sy @ @ w 9 cada soyio “iy Gs 9” (GOP) r Behoers! & $05 TUS" Qos G) 6385 H§ @) Pts wbar SOND (3) SiyOeIS HQ ) POdcth SSorsdy HG & WB WDE DO Nosehtsnm eospbao SGpBwoivo SoSsKinr o% cay Sd Bow, Peres Se SSH 7 wo @ @) @ 2015 2016 2017 2014EEA/STM/112 14, What is the symbol of the Democratic Party of| 15. 16. a. USA? (2) Horse (2) Elephant (8) Donkey @ Pig In the Brexit referendum, the vote share of the group favouring exit and the group favouring remain was in the following ratio ? ) 86:44 (2) 87:43 () 58:42 4) 89:41 In Paralympics, 2016, which of the Indian athletes broke the World record ? (1) Mariyappan Thangavelu @ @ Devendra Jhajharia Deepa Malik (4) Varun Singh Bhati ‘Who is the winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2016? (2) Juan Manuel Santos @ @ Salvador Sanchez Cerén Carlos Antonio Losada (4) Timochenko (8) 14. 15. & God Mpigod', P85 16. Bua o Be Go TIE wos Sooiny ryos"d GSerdyos SG} Democratic Party) Bos, Derm Beaty /MoQows @) regs 2) dsr (3) macs @ S08 Beason Rsted? Noyes sod mcbits oad adc SNES cocres Siorirswe S5Dy5 2g DsyG Sentoriows () 56:44 2) 87:43 (@) 58:42 @ 59:41 > gtbon de sib SSos Sswp D8erotve eDod§ 2016 6 eOXDowe & G08 TOS Mgowstioto (1) HoadyS sorta AS06 speyrocir @) 4d sd A) Stoe5 ROR aed F$aE To oSvs8D 2016 Hoseoaws S08 te GOTSS SH Bore ? G) eard SrmSd wows 2) HoG6 Sos RS @) SES arowfnar SIs @) S3rBe,EEA/STM112 18. What is a light year ? (A year which passed on without. difficulties @) @ @ ‘Year dedicated by UNO to “light” ‘Time measured in astronomical units Distance travelled by light in one year Deficiency of which of the following results in. goiter and cretinism ? a @ Folic Acid Vitamin A @ w Iodine Zine World Health Organization recommends exclusive breast feeding from the date of birth of the infant up to the age of a @ @) “ 8 months 6 months 9 months lyear Natural ripening of climacteric fruits (like apple) occurs due to (1) _ release of ethylene and increased rate of respiration (2) release of ethylene and decreased rate of Reepirepery release of acetylene and increased rate of respiration @ (4) release of acetylene and decreased rate of respiration (9) 19. ai. ic] S08 Nowss0 ew St? (1) Sinan Sthods KUO a8 HosSeytS00 @) atoms SB SOBs wo8S DIS SOSAywID (B) Stoottnw Terbht sscensa eis Bare @) aS Sometime’ S08 Gairelots corbin & G08 TRE Sd Any, Sk Sows owe (Fomsekd) das GN (corse Sasw) exearsSoe Soetoro () 208 exysn ded A @) aaras 4) 08 Ser WHO HelStdsod I Srisivo St Torin SH Soi gigsebsam Eios EBity Soy Sprom Bove’ we Sod wae MQosbsSu0 GQ) Sorce Srissino Sot Q) wtb Srsiimo Suu (8) SAA Srssno SoH 4) eS SoseLso Sos Sirg08 Socy (UdSS0eD) w God FIST SO argo Sire Siw Dowwao (1) aGOS Aedse Sodas. DOAS wys SoD So RGOS Adio Moan sods wys god Sos ShobS Bata sooty DBAS Tys Ga Seis anos dendo. wpa Sed @) @) ) SBcto §chodsEEA/STM/112 (10) a 22, Scramjet uses the following fuel : 22, & od de D godin Grydoads (Hydrogen Sarl wc S05 (2) Aviation fuel a) é6n0 (8) White Kerosene 2) BSPDY ROgKss (4) Butane (8) Og Sauer a) exis 23. On which date was the Quit India Movement|23, gr8S SyoSyiyiind? & god TOS O ae Osiws GSS Sen Od Sites sos (1) Avgust 8, 1942 (SS acoder) Ssefares (2) August 8, 1943 () emmy 8, 1942 (8) January 26, 1942 @) emmy 8, 1943 (4) January 26, 1943 (8) 2305350 26, 1942 (4) &N58 26, 1943 24. Who is the founder of Arya Samaj ? 24, ety Sretienss Hhodsarte ISS se od (@) Swami Vivekananda SOS mgodriow (2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1) Aye Basson (8) Swami Dayanand Saraswati Q) ce ot Ins cob (4) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (8) Age dairhod BHD @) Nee yg iad 25. Who sang Vande Mataram at the session of the Indian National Congress in 1896 ? (Q) Sarojini Naidu 25, 1806 S* Sodaras fend wos wbad soit SirStind? eobodsa ISS & G08 TOS MQosirot (2) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee @) Stan wets (8) Ravindra Nath Tagore 2) a8 dogs seh (4) Rahimtullah M. Sayani 8) Dos wrh oS @) Stroser IS. Sard 26. Which of the following was nof founded by| ite i 26. se fod S85) soyod* dnd § O86. e085 mt shodamoasts G) Says Dor; Soy (2) Samaj Samata Sangh Q) Stra Ste SoS (8) Peoples Education Society @) Ger do; Soy (4) Depressed Classes Institute @ enmeds Se SSR (1) Decean Education SocietyEEA/STM/112 21. a ‘The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ in the State Emblem of India, have been adopted from ‘which one of the following ? (1) Brahma Upanishad ‘Mudgala Upanishad Maitreyi Upanishad @) @ (4) Mundaka Upanishad After how many years, do one-third of the: members of the Rajya Sabha retire ? a @ @) @) 6 years 8 years S years 2years Out of the bills given below, with regard to which bill, can the President neither return nor withhold his assent ? (1) Defence Bill (2) Money Bill @) Law Bill (4) Financial Account Committee Bill Which is the first Indian State to set up ‘Happiness Department’ ? a) @ @ co) Madhya Pradesh Sikkim 27. o) Sighs won’ wd Stine & god TOE Gd sod utrod sas may ooynd™ Pothssore (ety 65055 Sage sass ParsosS SoosSs2s5 wo @ @) «@ 2838 SorfFowbo Sood wayse Sete & God D6} Sods PAE ID Hoses Sve 28S SED Mees Sarooesoe o @ @ @ 6 Soteyine 3 SoS, 5 Soseytiove 2 Sosepswa Be Gos SSySods DQ Heys gros TYSS ChWoiHee wD, cA Gsn Axowoss Dyes Tra Base ay 2) @) w Ogee Bey (G5; Dey agi Oy EQS Heros Sov Oey feiod Dentin ans Sor D gohan TBHw NGOIGS & Lod SDE MQoidiw Q) SoG OST @) B80 @ Kor ® BosEEA/STM/112 31. How many sectoral missions are established by the Government of Andhra Pradesh as part of the mission based developmental strategy ? @ 12 @) 10 @ 8 w 7 ‘What is “CORE” in CORE Dash Board ? (1) Control Orbit Reentry Exercise (2) CM Office Real Time Executive ) @ Central Organization Reform Effort Central Organization for Rural Electrification ‘The Indo-Gangetic plains, also known as the Great Plains, are large alluvial plains: dominated by which of the three main rivers ? (2) Ganga, Yamuna and Gandaki (2) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra (3) Ganga, Yamuna and Hooghly (4) Ganga, Kosi and Gandaki In terms of proven Coal reserves, the position of India amongst the countries of the World is Ch, @ 3 @ 5 7 (12) 31. o wou G88 Sepaigen (NS) Ear SdHoTOSDS HQ Dyrswd gitsnrr 2, DsSei Ogsawé’ s God wPOS Morn @ 2 @ 10 @ 8 @ CORE $e%ss0 (Dash Board) 6° “CORE” os Sar & Bod TOS gosto (1) Qs: Se Bair 58 SS SY @) Sowsz DOW STYoad De Siva $y; Dogs Sy Sous sow,tes Gar 5g Soyo crdves DeosSsteo Ss @) @ 8 BY PUSOSHS HOS Svar GHYss,S hogr-norr Posed" GSirow Sort (GSom Scvow se God TNE MeQosirfot om, ctbsins SBcio Noes @ Rog, Kor HI BIW (8) or, cxbsonws spOat Soh, 4) Nom, 8% sOcte roaS Dordosads AQ Agiswo e—rdsorr POSSE Sos Seiwed O Zesnd" Moin S God HDS MQoshiocd @ i. @ 3 @ 5 w 7EEA/STM/112 35, 37. 38, Which recent International agreements have a bearing on Disaster Management ? (1) Sendai Framework (2) Sustainable Development 2015-2030 (8) Paris Agreement on Climate Change (4) Allof the above Goals At which stage of disaster management cycle, ‘would “response” be the main activity ? (1) Pre-disaster 2) Disaster (8) Post-disaster (A) Devastating As per the High Powered Disaster Management Committee Report, 2001, in terms of vulnerability, an L2 type indicates manageability with resources at () Village level @) Talul/Mandal level (8) District level @® State level What is “The Limits to Growth” ? (1) Limits set by Society on growth (2) Limits set by Industry Cartels on ‘growth (8) A 1972 book on computer simulation of| growth with finite resource supplies (4 Government's growth inability to improve a3) o 35. aso eons eos Pbad ashorsies, I5eq Digiree SGebop Gerso srsnes! se Bod TNS MBosrot @) Roma 2a08s Beroy 2) RosoowSirOns eo egyeo 2015 ~ 2030 GB) TES Srey QeOAS F06 axyoGo @ pW eXaw SSG watronk spend 5 ox sot “SOQOSS” OXI soos SOySosor Goes’ & 808 a6 MBowsiets CD BSeWL reg (Sno) @) dS Ssoorns* @) DSe) BONS Stars (D5ey esosesin) @) SPO eo wand sors SHS Joo IS exsrank sows 2001 23¥ Ess, Sirs on’, 12 OSS Ge God TE D Fons’ soo eaiironh) srdoF saxo @) reason Q) Bote /rare da» @) ae sor @ cZzon ‘SyQ eSeoe0" (The Limits to Growth) wir Ba? CQ) StirasodsyQ2 Ayonownds wsseoe @) Sows Sytnd AS dgonosods ester 8) SODS SSto0 OBIE HQ D sosye6 BionTAS SameD 1972 sosepsns? Patads yews (@ QO dodososdo Seo wxysEEA/STM/1 12 39. 41. What was the theme of World Environment: Day, 2016 celebrated on 5'” June? (1) “To prohibit illegal trade of threatened” (2) “Seven Billion Dreams; One Planet; ‘Consume with Care” (3) “Small Islands and Climate Change” (4) “Think, Eat, Save” What is the period for which Hyderabad shall bbe the common capital of the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as per Section 5 of the AP Reorganization Act, 2014? @) 10 years (2) Not exceeding 10 years (3) Above 10 years (4) None of the above ‘The number of organizations included in the! xth Schedule of the AP Reorganization Act, 2014 as on date is a 142 (2) 135 @) 12 a) 107 Who heads the Apex Council for supervision of] fanctioning of Godavari and Krishna River: ‘Management Boards ? (2) Governor of AP & TS (2) Prime Minister of India (8) Minister of — Water Government of India Resources, (4) Chairman, Central Water Commission (14) a. 42, o 2016 eF5 65 BoOYSSos Sos Sosoes xsi Gath, Sve; Isetbo Daves? () “SBosdiosy Ey eG TP Sin DBGosE" #700 Sy Soo, 28 Usro, auigr Pore” “Day Ogre trode Tesh srtyy” “eBFdow, SdNow, Beason” @ @ @ wots OSE QI yseo Sew 2014 HD 55 SOS SHNSoD, POSTE Snoce wos SSF Boomer TySnes I) Bosihftine 58 ays Terr RreridihosF & Bod TAS Mogosnoty @) 10 Sossyotws 2) 10 SowseyCSner Sostsoa" @ 10Sosafine ord @ BSD dD SH eos SAE yseigigeteo 2014 ‘sSegins"d 1035 EirYSE Be Serd Dd) Hoe GTO” a (2) @) a) 142, 135 m2 107 Se-Harso SO revs; Seyw sopisos etoggs TASH GOSS OSE & od wae mQostiow @) Goh sda Boormes Oy. Met 2) Ges BES Hos (8) 406 wo Sie Ta HOW (4) G06 we Soi O58EEA/STM/112 43. What is the FRL (full reservoir level) of the (15) Polavaram project ? wo @ @ @) 100 feet. 136 feet 150 feet 170 feet As recommended by the 14 Finance Commission, the primary route for transfor of resources from Centre to States shall be Devolution of taxes On the basis of population On the basis of economic backwardness None of the above Which one of the below is not one of the most: important components of Green Revolution ? a) @ @) w HYV seeds Chemical fertilizers Irrigation facilities Credit facilities ‘The focus of “Make in India” programme is on how many sectors ? a 12 @ @) @ ol 43. Sosto wSsy Seo yrQ eervad BSLYpSo OFRL) 208 ? @) 100 ecéroe0 (2) 135 eciroe0 () 150 etre (4) 170 tatbeo SONOS EBS How RPMerd GHSOOd, SoS-oY Smo sd; Setvo sobs Sos Sniiin & God TIS OF Boxsets Bayo Soded ware Gases QS Si¥ erewdiJo ertion a @ @) @ ps0 99 e% & G08 POE SOs IBSswé" 9 Ovcosn SSOP GIGr Barrow @) 88 Brad no Dg Q) Sas dvyeo 8) Adaoao sip @) ave dey OR) Somrep “GrISS Sab" soyssosins* SR sodsconrs & god woe MYossriocs aM 2 @ @ @ 288EEA/STM/1 12 47, PMKVY means (Pradhan Mantri Krishi Vikas Yojana (@) Prodhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana () Pradhan Mantri Karmik Vikas Yojana (4) Pradhan Mantri Kamkaj Vikas Yojana, 48, Archimedes : Buoyancy +: Newton :? (1) Apple (2) Principia (8) Gravitation (4) Machine 49. Observe the diagrams below and state whieh number on the dice is opposite to 6 = a 4 @ 2 @) 1 @ 3 50. If ELEPHANT is ESLWOHUA, then DELICATE is () KLSWPJHL (2) KLSPHJAL (3) KLSPJHAL (@ KLSHPASL (16) 4. o PMKVY exsrr 32) & GOO was Sershots (1) BOS Hod Sh des SHSSO (2) Sars woP Fad ITS SGESO @) GES to SHE NSS SHSSO (&) Bord DOS Shit Oss SESSO eBydh +959 sawn 1s Syd? es Ida goers cows @ 2 @ @ & God Mw KNod, Sasa 6 ost BOOS ASavS DS, 03 Dod Mgowsriots + 8909 @ 2 @ 1 @ 3 ELEPHANT @%%9 LSLWOHUA cond DELICATE sa250 555% ? a @) @ wo KLSWPJHL KLSPHJAL ‘KLSPJHAL KLSHPAILEEA/STM/112 61. 52. SECTION IL Which hydraulic turbine is more efficient at part load operation ? (2) Pelton wheel (2) Francis turbine (8) Propeller turbine (4) Kaplan turbine In an inward flow reaction turbine, velocity of| flow at the inlet is 2 m/s. If the guide vanes make an angle of 80° to the tangential velocity Girection of the runner, the absolute velocity of| the water leaving the guide vanes is @) ims @) 2ms @) Sms (4) 4m/s In a laminar boundary layer over a flat plate, the growth of the boundary layer with distance x from leading ledge given by 6/x is proportional to Reynolds number (Re,) as Q) Rel? (2) Re? (3) Rel/S (4) Rey’ ‘The cavitation parameter o is defined in terms of net positive suction head (NPSH) and net head H as @) NPSH/ JH (2) H/NPSH (3) H/JNPSH (4) NPSH/H a7) 57. a ‘The momentum correction factor is used to account for (Change in direction of flow (2) Change in pressure (8) _Non-uniform distribution of velocity (4) Unsteady flow Centre of Pressure is @) Always below the centroid of the submerged plane (2) Always at the centroid of the submerged plane (3) Always above the centroid of the submerged plane (4) Anywhere with respect to the centroid of the submerged plane What is a condition for a hydraulically efficient channel ? (Minimum flow rate (2) Maximum wetted perimeter (@) Constant velocity (4 Minimum wetted perimeterEEA/STM/112 58, If three forces P, Q and R keep a body in ‘equilibrium, the angle between P and Q is 90° and R is acting vertically downward, then the magnitude of forces R and Q respectively in terms of P will be P @ =, aP 2 ¥ (2) [2P, @ 2 5 (3) P, v2P @ = 2P,P ‘The algebraic sum of moments of two unlike parallel forces about any point in their plane will be (1) Zero (2) Constant (3) Always anticlockwise (4) Always clockwise If the number of members (m) in a frame having joints (j) is more than that required by the equation m = 2j- 3, then such frames are called (1) Ideal frames (2) Imperfect frames (8) Perfect frames (4 Redundant frames (18) o 61. A steel bar of 500 mm length is under tensile stress of 100 N/mm?. If the modulus of elasticity is 2x10"? N/m, then the total elongation of the bar will be @ 02mm @ 250mm @ 500mm ) 050mm 62, Hoop stress for a wooden wheel with steel flat tyre in terms of outside diameter of the wheel D, inside diameter of the tyre d and Young’s modulus Eis @ EM-a/a @ BD/A) @) EDD-a) @ B@/D) 63, A tensile force P is applied on a compound bar having two members X and Y. Then the load shared by the member X is PA,E, i = ee AyBy +AyEy PAYE, ® = ee AyEy +AyEy (@) Pi PE, o = EyEEA/STM/112 64, 67. ‘The relation between the clastic constants E and C for Poisson's ratio of 0-25 is @ E=100 (@) B=5C (@) B=25c () E=025¢ ‘The radius of Mohr's circle represents @) Minimum normal stress (2) Maximum normal stress (3) Minimum shear stross (4) Maximum shear stress For an inclined plane in a rectangular block: subjected to two mutually perpendicular: normal stresses 1000 MPa and 400 MPa and shear stress 400 MPa, the maximum normal stress will be (1) 1200 MPa (2) 700 MPa (3) 600 MPa (4) 200 MPa Ata hinge in a beam a @ @) Shear force is zero Bending moment is meximum Bending moment is zero (4) Bending moment changes sign (19) 68, 70. in, ol ‘The bending moment for a beam with equal overhangs and carrying equal point loads each of P at the free ends, the shear force for the beam portion between the supports is @) Zero (2) Equal to P (3) Linearly varying from ~P to +P 4) Linearly varying from 0 to P ‘The assumption made in the theory of bending is a @ @ Radius of curvature is small Radius of curvature is large ‘Transverse sections of the beam do not remain plane after bending (4) Doesn't follow Hooke's law in bending In a beam of rectangular cross-section, the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the average shear stress is a @ @) @ 2-50 2-00 1-50 1:33 A simply supported beam of 10 m span is carrying a load of 4:8 kN at mid span. If Young's modulus of elasticity (E) is 2x 108 kN/m® and moment of inertia (I) is 20 em*, then the maximum deflection will be @) 500mm @) 250mm 8) 050mm @) 025mmEEA/STM/112 72. 3. 4. TB. ‘The differential equation of flexure is @ @ @ 2 w mag ax -EL The slenderness ratio of a free standing| column of length 4 m and 40 mm x 40 mm| section is a) 152 (2) 2304 (3) 6928 @) 3468 Euler's crippling load for a column of length 1 with both ends hinged and flexural rigidity ET is given by (@) P=2nEV/? @) P=EYe (3) P=4nRI/i* @) Pare) 2 @ d. (4) All the above (20) 18. o ‘The ratio of maximum shear stress of a solid shaft of diameter D to that of a hollow shaft having external diameter D and internal diameter 0-5 D is a) 050 @) 100 @) 150 @) 094 Section modulus cross-section is (D for a rectangular a) pai @) phi/6 (3) -bh?/12 w w/e ‘The reaction at a roller support of a beam will be (1) Tangential to the support (2) Normal to the support (8) Unknown in direction (4) _ Inclined to the support For a beam subjected to point loads, the shear force between the point loads (2) _Isconstant 2) Varies linearly (8) Has parabolic variation @) Always remains zeroEEA/STM/112 80, 81. ‘The strain energy stored due to bending for a cantilever beam of span /, modulus of| elasticity F, moment of inertia I and a point load P at the free end is PAGED i) (2) P'5/(40RT) @) P*S/(96ED @) PAP/K240E1) ‘The method in which a single equation is formed for all loads on the beam and the ‘equation is constructed in such a way that the integral constants apply to all the sections of the beam, is (@) Moment area method (2) Conjugate beam method (3) Macaulay's method (4) 6-method of superposition A cantilever beam with a UDL of w N/m for entire length of L will have maximum deflection equal to Q) wLh/4sED (2) wL*/(84En) (3) wL/(8ED @) wL4/sED (21) What is poise ? @) Unit of viscosity (2) Dyne-sec/em? (3) 0-1 times Ns/m? (4) All'the above ‘Surface tension has the units of @ Nm @) Nim (3) Nim? @) Nim’ ‘The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant Pressure and the specific heat of the gas at constant volume (1) Is always constant (2) Varies with temperature (3) Varies with pressure. (4) Is not constant A perfect gas obeys (1) Boyle’s law only (2) Charles’ law only (3) Both Boyle’s law and Charles’ law (4) None of the aboveEEA/STM/112 87. ‘The thermal efficiency of an engine, which is supplied heat at the rate of 15000 Nm/s and gives an output of 4500 W is (45% @) 50% (3) 30% A) 38% ‘Micro-manometer is used to () Determine low pressure difference (2) Determine higher pressure difference (3) Measure pressure for gases only (4) Measure pressure in congested areas Prandtl’s Pitot tube measures (1) Stagnation head only (2) Pressure head only (8) Velocity head and Stagnation head (4) Pressure head and Stagnation head Based on the principle of conservation of| energy, the equation derived for an ideal fluid (Q) Bernoulli's equation (2) Newton’s Law of Viscosity (8) Impulse-momentum equation (4) Continuity equation (22) o 91. Mouthpiece has increased net head when compared to small orifice due to (2) Turbulence in the tube (2) Vena contracta occurred within the tube (@) Smaller length of the tube (4) Smooth boundary of the tube If velocity potential satisfies Laplace equation, the flow will be (1) Irrotational flow (2) Free vortex flow (8) Continuous flow (4) Forced vortex flow ‘he ratio of viscous forces to inertial forces is called (2) Mach number (2) Weber number (3) Reynolds number (4) Froude number If the position of metacentre remains lower than centre of gravity of the floating body, the body will remain in a state of @) Stable equilibrium (2) Unstable equilibrium (3) Neutral equilibrium (4) None of the aboveEEA/STM/112 95. The error in discharge due to error in the measurement of head over a rectangular notch is given by mY a > ae @ 2 -i2 @) 2-58 96. Impulse momentum equation gives the relationship between force (F), mass (m) and velocity (v) as dm 1) Fayi@ @ Fev? ldv fa et so m dt @) 97. In turbulent flow, the loss of head is approximately proportional to Velocity @) (Velocity)! (8) (Velocity) (4) Welocity)? (23) o 98. A rigid pipe of length L, diameter D, wall thickness t and modulus of elasticity E is conveying water with a mean velocity of V. If mass density and bulk modulus of water are and K respectively, then water hammer due to sudden closure in the pipe will cause increase in pressure equal to (1) pLvA (2) Vp @ vie te (4) None of the above 99. The discharge from a centrifugal pump is 100 Ipm and the leakage is 11 Ipm. Then the volumetric efficiency of the pump is @) 89% 2) 90% 3) 99% (4) 80% 100. Draft tube for a reaction turbine is arranged for (1) Safety purpose only (2) Increasing velocity head (3) Converting kinetic head into pressure head (4) _Diverting water onlyEEA/STM/112 101. 102. 103. SECTION II A display of a 3-dimensional model that shows all of its edges is known as @) 2D model 2) 3-D model (3) Wire frame (4) Solid model Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (1) PERT is probabilistic and CPM is deterministic. (2) In PERT, events are used and in CPM, activities are used. (8) In CPM, crashing is carried out. (4) In CPM, the probability to complete the project in a given duration is calculated. In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine (2) Standard time of ajob (2) Normal time of a job (3) Merit rating of the worker (4) Fixation of incentive rate (24) 104. 105. 106. o Only two symbols are used to draw the following chart : (@) Flow process chart (2) Man-machine chart () Outline process chart (4) ‘Two-handed chart ‘The subdivision of an operation into Therbligs and their analysis is known as (Work study (2) Time study (@) Micro motion study (4) None of the above According to the Emerson plan, a worker gets. ‘a bonus whenever the efficiency of a worker is, more than (1) 50% @) 55% (3) 60% (4) 66-67%EEA/STM/112 (25) 107. Work done in a free expansion process is, uu. 2) Maximum 2) Negative (3) Positive (4) Zero 112, 108, 109. 110. Which of the following is not a path function ? () Thermal Conductivity (2) Kinetic Energy (3) Heat (4) Work Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochorie and adiabatic processes are (D__ Stable processes (2) Quasi static processes (8) | Thermodynamic processes (4) Dynamic processes Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for (1) Petrol Engine (2) Diesel Engine (8) Reversible Engine (4) Irreversible Engine 113. 114. o (Change of entropy depends upon change of a @ Heat Specific heat ‘Temperature ‘Mass @) @ A petrol engine theoretically operates at (2) Constant temperature cycle @ (3) « Constant volume cycle Constant pressure cycle Mixed cycle of constant pressure and constant volume Insulation in eavity walls is a @ @ «w Cork ‘Wood Water A heat exchanger with heat transfér surface area A and overall heat transfer coefficient U handles two fluids of heat capacities C, and C, such that C, > C,. The NTU of the heat exchanger is given by @ au/c, (2) AU/C, (s) ause er (AU/CEEA/STM/112 15. 116, 117. In a refrigeration cycle heat is a refrigerant in an evaporator and heat by a refrigerant in a condenser. by | (2) Absorbed, Absorbed (2) Absorbed, Rejected (3) Rejected, Absorbed (4) Rejected, Rejected ‘A composite wall of two layers of thickness ‘x,, Ax, and thermal conductivities k and k, having cross-sectional area A is normal to the path of heat flow. If the wall surface temperatures are at t, and ty, the rate of heat flow Q is equal to @ ( © 2 + Aka) (ty =| xi + Og ‘Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes: (1) _ Ineffective refrigeration (2) Breakdown of the refrigerant (3) Corrosion of the whole system (4) Freezing automatic regulating valve (26) 118, 119, 121, o ‘The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration circuit is to (1) _ Improve overall heat transfer coefficient (2) Reduce pressure losses through evaporator (3) Reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapours going to the evaporator (4) Allthe above ‘The saturation temperature of the water at the partial pressure of water vapour in the air ‘vapour mixture is known as () Dry bulb temperature @) Wet bulb temperature (3) Dew point temperature (4) Saturation temperature Fouling factor is used (2) Im heat exchanger design as a safety factor (2) Incase of Newtonian fluids (3) When a liquid exchanges heat with a gas (4) None of the above ‘The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator (1) Increases heat transfer (2) Improves C.0.P. of the system (8) Reduces power consumption (4) Increases power consumptionEEA/STM/112 122, The capacity of a refrigerator is one tonne. 123, 124, ‘This means that the heat removing capacity of| the refrigerator is @) 1000 kCalfnr (@) 2000 kCalhr (3) 3000 kCaVhr (4) 4000 kCalhr De Laval turbine is used for applications requiring (1) Low power, low speed (2) Low power, high speed (8) High power, high speed High power, low speed ‘The maximum blade efficiency in a single stage impulse turbine is obtained when the ratio of blade speed to the entering steam speed is cos a on cos (a/2) Oa ae @) cosa cos 2a @ (27) 125. 126. 127, 128. Gl Phenomenon of Choking in compressor means (1) No flow of air (2) Fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio (8) Reducing mass flow rate with increasing pressure ratio (4) Increased inclination of chord with air steam ‘The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler is a) 7% @) 15 (3) 165 225 In case of Worm Wheel and Worm the maximum efficiency is obtained when (2) either the Worm or the Worm Wheel is the driver (2) the Worm Wheel is the driver (3) the Worm is the driver (4) depends on other factors Idler Pulley is used for (2) Running during idle periods only (2) Changing direction of rotation (8) Stopping motion frequently (4) Maintaining belt tensionEEA/STM/112 129. 180, 181, 132. ‘The throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from (1) Root circle (2) Base circle (3) Pitch circle (4) Starting to finish ‘The sum of the tensions when the belt is running on the pulley is (1) Less than the initial tension (2) More than the initial tension (8) Half the initial tension (4) More than twice the initial tension Which of the following key transmits power through frictional resistance only ? (1) Woodruff key (@) Sunk key (8) Saddle key (Tangent key For the analysis of thick cylinders, the theory applicable is () Lame’s theory (2) Rankine's theory (3) Poisson's theory (4) Courbon’s theory (28) 133. 134, 135. ) The relationship between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (G) is @) E=Ga+p @) G=E2-») E Ge. 2a+W) @) E eure 7 Stress concentration may be eaused by (2) Change in cross-sectional area (Change in shape (3) Change in dimension (4) Ahole or a noteh in the body ‘The Soderberg line for ductile materials gives ‘upper limit for (1) Any combination of mean and alternating stress (2) Alternating compressive stress (3) Alternating tensile stress (4) Mean stressEEA/STM/112 136. 187. 138, 139. Gears of watches are generally manufactured | by a @ (8) Die Casting (4) Stamping ing on Gear Shaper Autofrettage is a (1) Surface coating process (2) A means of inducing favourable residual stress in pressure vessels (3) Extra cover provided on seamless tubes (4) A heat treatment for pressure vessels subjected to low temperature Hot tear (1) Is a physical property of non ferrous metals (2) Isa process involving heat (8) Is a phenomenon occurring in materials exposed (4) Isa defect in casting ‘The loss of strength in compression which occurs when there is a gain in strength in the tension due to overloading is (1) Tsostrain (2) Relaxation (8) Hysteresis (4) Shock absorption (29) 140, 141. 142, 148. Cold heading is a process of (1) Chipless machining (2) Explosive forming (3) High energy ratio forming (4) Electromachining Cores are used (2) Insymmetrical casting only (2) Toget smooth surfuce on casting, (8) To get cavity or recess in cavity @ ‘Tostrengthen mould A soldering iron is used mainly to (2) Heat the metal (2) Melt the solder (8) Heat the flux (4) None of the above ‘The accuracy of a limit gauge can be checked by (Q) Sine bar (2) Micrometer (8) Slip gauge (4) Vernier calipersEEA/STM/112 144, 145. 146. A piercing operation in which the entire contour is not cut is known as 1) Burnishing (2) Broaching (8) Notehing (4) Lancing In which one of the following machining is manual part programming done ? (2) NC machining (2) CNC machining (3) DNC machining (4) FMS machining Production Flow Analysis (PFA) is a method of identifying part families that use data| from (1) Engineering drawings (2) Production schedule (3) Bill of materials (4) Route sheets. (30) 147. 148, 149. 150. o Flexible manufacturing systems are generally applied in (2) High variety and low volume production (2) High variety and high volume production (8) Low variety and low volume production (4) Medium volume and medium variety production Which of the following is not a part of inventory carrying cost ? (A) Cost of inwards goods inspection @ @ wo Cost of obsolescence Cost of insurance Cost of storage space ‘Which two disciplines are usually tied by a ‘common database ? (1) Documentation and Geometric modelling (2) Drafting and Documentation (3) CAD and CAM (4) Testing and Analy: Group Technology brings together and organizes (1) Common parts, problems and tasks (2) Automation and tool produetion (8) Documentation and analysis, (4) Parts and simulation analysisEEA/STM/112 (31) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKEEA/STM/112 (32) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK