Principles of Organizational Behavior Realities and Challenges International Edition 8Th Edition Quick Test Bank Full Chapter PDF

Principles of Organizational Behavior
Realities and Challenges International

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CHAPTER 9—WORK TEAMS AND GROUPS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In the second quarter of 2010 Ford had a pretax profit of nearly $3billion and the company’s market
share had jumped 1.4%. Ford was also considered to be the best-regarded auto brand in the U.S.
according to Kelley Blue Book. The recent success at Ford is attributed to CEO Alan Mulally and his
emphasis on:
a. product mix with Ford trucks and SUVs leading the way
b. teamwork
c. restructuring to a process type design
d. paying back government sponsored bankruptcy debt
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | AACSB: Group Dynamics
TOP: Thinking Ahead | Looking Back MSC: K&C
2. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:

a. shared leadership
b. mutual accountability
c. products that require collective work
d. individual accountability
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
TOP: Introduction MSC: K&C
3. A group is a collection of two or more persons with common interests or objectives, whereas a team:
a. consists of two or more persons who are loosely tied together, yet each member works
independently
b. may be dozens of people who are quickly assembled to perform a task that may only take
a few minutes
c. has several persons but the performance or contribution of any particular member is
inconsequential for the team's output
d. is usually a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a
common goal for which they are mutually accountable
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
4. A small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission,
performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable is known as
a/an:
a. group
b. cohesive group
c. work team
d. effective group
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
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5. Groups emphasize all of the following except:

a. collective work products
b. individual leadership
c. individual work products
d. individual accountability
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-functioning group?

a. decisions are usually based on what a majority of the group wants
b. conflict and disagreement tend to be over individual personalities or approaches
c. the atmosphere tends to be stressful and formal
d. people express both their feelings and their thoughts
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
7. The standards that a work group uses to evaluate the behavior of its members are called:
a. role congruence
b. expectation consistency
c. norms of behavior
d. superordinate goals
TOP: Norms of Behavior MSC: K&C
8. The behavioral norms expected within work groups and considered to be among the most important
from the organization's perspective are known as:
a. visions
b. organizational culture and credos
c. group cohesion
d. groupthink
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
TOP: Norms of Behavior MSC: Analysis
9. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?

a. Group cohesion can enhance job satisfaction for members.
b. Group cohesion can enhance organizational productivity.
c. Highly cohesive groups tend to have higher interpersonal exchanges away from the
workplace.
d. Highly cohesive groups are better able to control and manage their membership better than
work groups low in cohesion.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
TOP: Group Cohesion MSC: Analysis
10. Social loafing is usually:

a. a norm of behavior within a group
b. supportive of the development of group cohesion
c. detrimental to the group and may cause interpersonal conflict within the group
d. a stimulant to increased group performance
TOP: Social Loafing MSC: K&C
11. A method for countering social loafing includes:

a. motivational training
b. formal evaluation of member contributions
c. emphasizing task functions
d. setting clear group goals
TOP: Social Loafing MSC: Analysis
12. People may engage in immoral acts or even violent behavior as committed members of their group
when:
a. group cohesion declines
b. social loafing is emphasized
c. there is a loss of individuality
d. there is not a norm for moral behavior
TOP: Loss of Individuality MSC: Analysis
13. All of the following would be considered positive norms of behavior within a group except:
a. consensus decision making
b. shared leadership
c. loss of individuality
d. open discussion, or free exchange, of information concerning problems confronting the
group
TOP: Loss of Individuality MSC: K&C
14. One of the contributing factors to the violent and aggressive acts that led to the riot that destroyed Los
Angeles following the Rodney King verdict in the early 1990s included:
a. group cohesion
b. loss of individuality
c. group sanctions
d. integrated involvement
TOP: Loss of Individuality MSC: Analysis
15. According to the group development model discussed in your text, a group addresses which of the
following issues?
a. personal, task, and authority issues
b. cultural, interpersonal, and task issues
c. task, authority, and cultural issues
d. interpersonal, task, and authority issues
TOP: Stages of Group Development MSC: K&C
16. Which of the following includes the set of interpersonal issues that need to be addressed according to
the group development model?
a. purpose, methods, and outcomes
b. trust, personal comfort, and security
c. trust, personal comfort, and inclusion
d. inclusion, personal comfort, and control
TOP: Group Formation and Development MSC: K&C
17. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed
as part of a group’s authority issues?
a. who is in charge, management of power and influence, and security
b. expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and management of power and influence
c. expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
d. who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom
to do what
TOP: Group Formation and Development MSC: Analysis
18. In the formation of effective groups, diversity is an important consideration. Which of the following is
not a type of diversity in groups?
a. interpersonal
b. ethnics
c. cultural
d. age
NAT: AACSB: Diversity | AACSB: Group Dynamics
19. Which of the following would NOT be considered a formal or deliberately designed group in a work
setting?
a. project team
b. council of department heads
c. executive committee
d. lunch hour table group
20. An emergent group is known as a/an:

a. formal group
b. assigned group
c. informal group
d. temporary group
21. In the formation of a group to create H2 (son of Hummer), GM formed a(n):

a. informal group
b. emerging group
c. unofficial group
d. formal group
22. A group's interpersonal compatibility may be assessed by examining which set of interpersonal needs?
a. need for achievement, inclusion, and control
b. need for affection, achievement, and power
c. need for inclusion, affection, and achievement
d. need for inclusion, control, and affection
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Hard
23. Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic in what stage of group
development?
a. norming
b. forming
c. performing
d. adjourning
24. Which stage requires that team members feel they are a part of the team for further progression in
group development to occur?
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Hard
25. At what stage of group development does the leader need to adopt a coaching style due to team
challenges?
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
26. At what stage of group development is the leader’s role primarily one of recognition of the group’s
achievements?
a. forming
b. norming
c. storming
d. adjourning
27. The Science Feature of Chapter 9 provided the results of research that examined the relationship
between psychological collectivism on team performance. Which of the following best reflects the
results of this study?
a. Preference, which is the alignment of team member interests, is beneficial at the time of
group formation.
b. Team member reliance on others in the group taking responsibility can be damaging at the
time of group formation.
c. There is value in acceptance of personal responsibility within the team and in leaders
encouraging team members to get to know one another interpersonally before turning to
the team’s task.
d. All of the above
TOP: Stages of Group Development | Science Feature MSC: K&C
28. Which of the following statements best reflects the punctuated equilibrium model of group
development?
a. Teams experience relational conflicts at different times and in different contexts.
b. Groups do not necessarily progress linearly from one stage to another in sequential steps
or stages.
c. Groups alternate between periods of inertia and progress toward goals with bursts of
energy.
d. All of these.
29. The notion that groups alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as they develop is
most consistent with:
a. storming–norming stage
b. forming–storming stage
c. punctuated equilibrium
d. evolution–revolution in group development
30. Considerable research has examined cohesiveness of groups and its consequences. Which of the
following statements is incorrect with regard to the results of cohesiveness research?
a. Members of a highly cohesive group tend to display and experience less tension and
anxiety than members of a group that exhibits very low cohesiveness.
b. Highly cohesive groups with low productivity standards tend to produce at levels
significantly above groups with low cohesiveness.
c. Groups with low cohesiveness have more difficulty exercising control of members and
enforcing norms.
d. A highly cohesive group has minimal internal competition and can more easily resist
external pressure.
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | AACSB: Group Dynamics
TOP: Characteristics of a Mature Group MSC: Analysis
31. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
a. control and sanctions
b. mutual acceptance
c. status structure
d. cohesiveness
TOP: Characteristics of a Mature Group MSC: K&C
32. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:

a. internal competition
b. prestige of the group
c. external pressure
d. group size when there are only five to eight members
33. The contributor role in a team is usually occupied by someone who:

a. is a good devil's advocate
b. is a collaborator
c. is a good facilitator, listener, and communicator
d. provides data and necessary information for problem solutions
34. An important role in the performance of cross-functional teams is:

a. contributor
b. data generator
c. challenger
d. integrator
35. An effective team exhibits:

a. no weaknesses
b. shared leadership
c. intragroup conflict
d. formal, designated leadership
36. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects research findings on gender and emergent
leadership?
a. Men were more likely to emerge as leaders than women.
b. Women were more likely to emerge as leaders than men.
c. Group members who described themselves in masculine terms were more likely to emerge
as leaders than members who described themselves as feminine.
d. Group members who described themselves in feminine terms were more likely to emerge
as leaders than members who described themselves as masculine.
37. The Real World Feature (9.1) revealed some of the challenges encountered by the Miami Heat during
the 2011 NBA season after signing LeBron James (LBJ) in the 2010 free agent market. To turn things
around the increase cohesion, LBJ set out guidelines that included all of the following Except:
a. start with sacrifice
b. when the going gets tough, the tough get going
c. adversity is an asset
d. manage from the inside out
TOP: Characteristics of a Mature Group | Real World 9.1 MSC: K&C
38. Which of the following is NOT a maintenance function of a group?

a. harmonizing conflicts
b. elaborating concepts
c. following others' leads
d. setting standards
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard
TOP: Task and Maintenance Functions MSC: K&C
39. Task functions relate to a group's efforts to complete an assignment. These functions include all of the
following except:
a. seeking information
b. coordinating activities
c. testing ideas
d. consensus testing
TOP: Task and Maintenance Functions MSC: Analysis
40. As a member of a quality circle, you frequently check with other members to make sure all are focused
on the same problem and that everyone has opportunities to contribute. You are performing the group
maintenance function of:
a. seeking consensus
b. testing ideas
c. gatekeeping communication
d. giving information
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard
TOP: Task and Maintenance Functions MSC: Analysis
41. Tension reduction activities are considered a:

a. maintenance function
b. leadership function
c. management function
d. conflict resolution function
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
TOP: Task and Maintenance Functions MSC: K&C
42. A team-oriented work environment places emphasis on:

a. empowerment and collaboration
b. power and authority or the distribution of power among team members
c. internal competition
d. hierarchical control by top management
TOP: Why Work Teams? MSC: K&C
43. Teams are appropriate where:

a. the knowledge and talent of workers are dispersed across members and require integration
b. tasks are independent and complex
c. tasks are simple and routine
d. knowledge and talent is placed in highly skilled individuals
TOP: Why Work Teams? MSC: Analysis
44. Cooperative rewards in work teams will have the most effective impact on:
a. speed of performance
b. accuracy of performance
c. individual satisfaction
d. none of these
TOP: Work Teams Structures and Work Team Process MSC: K&C
45. Work team effectiveness in the new team environment requires attention by management to both:
a. training and work team process
b. team structure and work team training
c. team structure and team process
d. roles and leadership
46. All of the following are considered important work process issues except:
a. diversity
b. competitive behaviors
c. cooperative behaviors
d. role specification
47. Which of the following problems would a quality circle NOT likely concern itself?
a. production scheduling
b. machine layout
c. quality inspection procedures
d. pay increases
TOP: Quality Teams and Circles MSC: Application
48. Quality teams are different from quality circles in that:

a. they are more informal
b. members usually volunteer to work on quality issues on company time
c. they are more formal and assigned by upper-level management
d. they are developed at lower levels of the organization so assignments typically are made
by first line supervisors
TOP: Quality Teams and Circles MSC: K&C
49. A small group of employees who work voluntarily on company time, typically one hour per week, to
address work-related problems defines:
a. a quality team
b. a quality circle
c. an empowered team
d. a self-managed team
TOP: Quality Teams and Circles MSC: K&C
50. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:

a. emotional support
b. affection and warmth
c. opportunity for influence
d. interpersonal openness
TOP: Social Benefits MSC: K&C
51. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:
a. recognition and integrated involvement
b. integrated involvement and achievement
c. psychological intimacy and recognition
d. psychological intimacy and integrated involvement
TOP: Social Benefits MSC: K&C
52. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the impact of dissimilarity on teams and team
members?
a. value dissimilarity is negatively related to task conflict
b. functional dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement
c. value dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement
d. demographic dissimilarity has no impact on OCB
TOP: Diversity and Creativity in Teams MSC: K&C
53. All of the following were consequences of work reorganization at Southwest Industries except:
a. a group or team compensation was designed through team effort
b. a one-third decrease in production costs
c. middle managers functioned as facilitators of change and consultants to work teams
d. order lead time decreased by 30 percent
TOP: Teamwork and Self-Managed Teams MSC: K&C
54. Which of the following is not considered to be a foundation for successful teamwork?
a. working together
b. empowerment skills
c. goal clarity
d. team diversity
55. Team diversity includes surface level and deep level diversity. Which of the following is not a surface
level indicator of diversity?
a. age
b. values
c. race
d. sex
56. Self-managed teams are sometimes called:

a. quality circles
b. quality teams
c. autonomous work groups
d. cross-functional work teams
TOP: Self-Managed Teams MSC: K&C
57. Hambrick and Fukutomi's research on CEO tenure found that the second stage of tenure involved:
a. selecting an enduring corporate theme
b. responding to a Board of Directors mandate
c. convergence or pulling together for performance
d. experimentation
TOP: Upper Echelons: Teams at the Top MSC: K&C
58. For successful chief executive officers, their peak performance years are usually after:
a. two years
b. ten years
c. five to seven years
d. three to four years
59. Upper echelon theory argues that:

a. turnover at the top becomes a vicious cycle
b. executive turnover will usually result in declining organizational performance
c. characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics
d. wild turkeys will have a detrimental effect on organizational performance
60. A "wild turkey" in the top management team is:

a. someone who is uncontrollable
b. a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives
c. a member of the executive team that retards the executive team’s performance
d. one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group
TOP: Diversity at the Top MSC: K&C
61. Chief executive Robert Iger of Walt Disney has used “job swapping” as a way of preventing
stagnation. Which of the following is no a possible outcome of executive job swapping?
a. broadening an executive for further advancement
b. failure in the new role
c. loss of experience and perspective
d. all of the above are outcomes
TOP: Diversity at the Top | Real World 9.2 MSC: K&C
62. The skills a team leader requires includes:

a. flexibility, delegation, and collaboration
b. communication, decisive decision making, and sensitivity
c. communication, delegation, and decisive decision making
d. sensitivity, flexibility, and communication
TOP: Managerial Implications: Teamwork for Productivity & Quality
MSC: K&C
TRUE/FALSE
1. All work teams are groups, but not all groups are work teams.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. Groups emphasize shared leadership, mutual accountability, and collective work products.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. A group member who becomes a social loafer may negatively affect cohesiveness.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The most common way for decisions to be made within a cohesive group is to vote and follow a
simple majority rule.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. The standards that a work group uses to evaluate the behavior of its members are its norms of
behavior.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. Performance norms are among the most important group norms from the organization's perspective.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. Dependence on guidance and direction is the declining characteristic in the forming stage.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. Informal groups are sometimes called emergent groups.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. According to Tuckman, a group goes through predictable stages of development after it is developed.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. Informal groups do not go through the same stages of group development that formal groups go
through.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. After its formation, a group goes through stages of development that unfortunately cannot be
predicted.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. In the performing stage of development, the group requires a coaching style from the leader.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. The punctuated equilibrium model of group development proposes that groups do not necessarily
progress linearly from one step to another in a predetermined sequence.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. Role and status structures tend to be highly defined and relatively unchanged in a fully developed
mature group.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. A highly cohesive group can set performance output at a level below standard.
ANS: T PTS: 1
16. Group cohesion and intragroup conflict tend to be contradictory forces.
ANS: T PTS: 1
17. A hierarchical status structure within a group facilitates collaborative effort and ensures that each
member contributes according to his/her ability and potential.
ANS: F PTS: 1
18. Company imposed work pressure can disrupt group cohesion by increasing internal competition and
reducing cooperative interpersonal activity.
ANS: T PTS: 1
19. The contributor is data driven, information sensitive, and one who adheres to performance standards.
ANS: T PTS: 1
20. Group maintenance functions are commonly performed or provided by the designated group leader.
ANS: F PTS: 1
21. The primary elements of group structure include goals, operating guidelines, performance measures,
and specification of roles.
ANS: T PTS: 1
22. In order to increase the speed of a group’s performance, competitive rewards would have a better
impact then cooperative rewards.
ANS: T PTS: 1
23. The issue of work team process issues has become less complex in the global workplace due to the
ability to use virtual work teams.
ANS: F PTS: 1
24. Communication gatekeepers serve a maintenance role or function within groups.
ANS: T PTS: 1
25. Quality teams are different from QCs in that they are less formal.
ANS: F PTS: 1
26. Whereas psychological intimacy is more emotion based, integrated involvement is more behavior and
activity based.
ANS: T PTS: 1
27. Work teams tend to be more effective and efficient when the designated leader is socially and
psychologically distant from team members.
ANS: F PTS: 1
28. Although teams are an essential feature of a total quality work environment, there is a danger of
insufficient training and direction if too many teams are formed quickly.
ANS: T PTS: 1
29. Psychological intimacy and integrated involvement need to be achieved in the same team or group.
ANS: F PTS: 1
30. Self-managed teams are broad-based work teams that deal with issues beyond quality.
ANS: T PTS: 1
31. Employees must be properly focused through careful planning and preparation before the power of
empowerment strikes.
ANS: T PTS: 1
32. Dissimilarity tends to increase the creativity in groups and accordingly has positive impacts on groups.
ANS: F PTS: 1
33. Demographic dissimilarity may have positive or negative effects in teams and on team members.
ANS: T PTS: 1
34. The most critical process skill for empowerment is goal setting.
ANS: F PTS: 1
35. The presence of a wild turkey in the top management team can be a particularly negative force.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MATCHING
Match the following:

a. A group member who fails to contribute to group tasks and relies on others to carry the
group.
b. A strong group characteristic that functions to keep members together as a group; or the
force that ties group members together.
c. An expected behavior that group members use as a standard.
d. The phenomenon of a group member losing his/her sense of belonging, contribution to the
group, and accountability to the group.
e. Two or more persons with mutually reinforcing skills and commitment to one another to
accomplish a task goal.
1. Norm
2. Team
3. Loss of Individuality
4. Cohesion
5. Social Loafer
1. ANS: C PTS: 1
2. ANS: E PTS: 1
3. ANS: D PTS: 1
4. ANS: B PTS: 1
5. ANS: A PTS: 1

a. An example of a formally designated group.
b. Strong interpersonal attractiveness among group members.
c. The first stage in a group development.
d. A benchmark against which team members are evaluated by each other.
e. The devil's advocate within a group.
6. Mutual Acceptance
7. Behavioral Norms
8. Board of Directors
9. Challenger
10. Cohesiveness
6. ANS: C PTS: 1
7. ANS: D PTS: 1
8. ANS: A PTS: 1
9. ANS: E PTS: 1
10. ANS: B PTS: 1

a. The final or mature stage of group development.
b. Non-designated leadership.
c. The facilitator and linking pin member of a cross-functional team.
d. The second stage of group development.
e. Alternate periods of inertia and bursts of energy.
11. Integrator
12. Decision Making
13. Punctuated Equilibrium
14. Emergent
15. Control and Sanctions
11. ANS: C PTS: 1

12. ANS: D PTS: 1
13. ANS: E PTS: 1
14. ANS: B PTS: 1
15. ANS: A PTS: 1

a. Emotional closeness to other group members.
b. A task function of a team.
c. Closeness to the group and its members achieved through tasks and activities.
d. Set of authority and task relations among a group’s members.
e. A maintenance function of a team or group.
16. Consensus Testing
17. Integrated Involvement
18. Status Structure
19. Diagnosing Problems
20. Psychological Intimacy
16. ANS: E PTS: 1

17. ANS: C PTS: 1
18. ANS: D PTS: 1
19. ANS: B PTS: 1
20. ANS: A PTS: 1

a. A cultural characteristic of an organization that encourages employee problem solving.
b. A work team that can make decisions formally made by managers.
c. Top level or executive managers.
d. The shifting of authority and responsibility downward into the organization.
e. To act alone.
21. Delegation
22. Upper Echelon
23. Autonomously
24. Self-Managed Teams
25. Empowerment
21. ANS: D PTS: 1

22. ANS: C PTS: 1
23. ANS: E PTS: 1
24. ANS: B PTS: 1
25. ANS: A PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Identify the stages of group development in Tuckman’s 5-stage model, and briefly discuss the
differences between the 5-stage model and Gersick’s punctuated equilibrium model.
ANS:
Tuckman’s 5-stage model suggests groups progress through five stages of development, which include
forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Groups evolve through the stages in a
sequential fashion with predictable behaviors associated with each stage. Gersick’s model suggests the
5-stage model may be unrealistic. Gersick proposes that groups do not necessarily progress linearly
from one step to another in a predetermined sequence, but alternate between periods of inertia and
bursts of energy as work groups develop.
PTS: 1
2. What factors of a group work situation affect cohesiveness?
ANS:
Numerous factors can positively and negatively influence cohesiveness; some of these are size or
number of employees, length of time for task accomplishment and length of time the group is together,
external pressures, organization, location and prestige of the group, group norms, internal competitive
behavior, and closeness of supervision. Large groups (more than 25 to 30 employees) may inhibit the
development of cohesiveness. The longer the time period for group development, the greater the
cohesiveness. External pressures (in the form of close supervision) could accelerate development of
cohesion. The higher the prestige, the more likely cohesiveness will develop. Strong group norms also
increase cohesiveness. However, internal competitive behavior may hinder cohesiveness.
PTS: 1
3. Distinguish between and provide examples of task and maintenance functions of groups.
ANS:
Task functions related to getting the job done, the problem solved, and/or evaluating results. Seeking
and distributing information, assembling and coordinating resources, diagnosing the problem,
assigning personnel, and controlling work activities are task functions. Maintenance functions involve
keeping the group operating in positive ways and retaining individuals or group members. Mutual
support, tension reduction, conflict resolution, and enforcing group norms are maintenance functions.
PTS: 1
4. Identify and briefly discuss the four distinguishing characteristics of a mature (well-functioning)
group.
ANS:
The distinguishing characteristics includes (1) a clear purpose and mission, (2) well-understood norms
and standards of conduct, (3) a high level of group cohesion, and (4) a flexible status structure. Stating
the purpose in terms specific goals enhances productivity over and above any performance benefits
achieved through individual goal setting. Behavioral norms for high performance and productivity set
above organizational norms characterizes high performing work groups. Smaller groups tend to be
more cohesive than large groups, and cohesion based on attraction results in effective control over
members with respect to important performance norms. Successful resolution of authority issues
within a group result in a well understood status structure. This contributes to group functioning.
PTS: 1
5. Assume you have been selected to serve on a quality team of students to assess teaching performance
in your college. What aspects of teaching and the instructional environment might your team examine?
ANS:
In terms of the instructional environment, you could study course and class scheduling, the mix of
courses (required vs. elective), class size, educational technology (computer, labs, etc.) length of class
periods, course registration procedures, classroom seating arrangements, and physical accessibility for
disabled students. Teaching performance can be assessed by direct observation, pre- and post-course
testing procedures, and through student opinion surveys of teaching effectiveness. Grading procedures,
types of tests and other course requirements, instructor preparedness, instructor availability for
individual assistance, and numerous other aspects of course instruction could be examined.
PTS: 1
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A 30
Oct
10132 Smith J S Cav 22 B 64
1
Oct
10299 Strong H 55 E
4
Oct
10323 Smith E 10 H
4
Oct
10516 Snyder Wm 54 H
8
121 Oct
10525 Stones T
K 8
Oct
10530 Smallwood C 7F
8
101 Oct
10609 Small H
H 10
Oct
10720 Smallman J W 63 A
11
Oct
10808 Steele F F Cav 20 A
12
184 Oct
10837 Shank A
C 13
11044 Smith Andrew C 22 B Oct
17
Oct
11069 Stevens C P 11 A
17
Oct
11233 Smith H W 53 B
21
Oct
11246 Smith Jas 57 E
21
Oct
11355 Silvy David Cav 18 I
23
Oct
11368 Seyoff H 81 C
23
Oct
11488 Sunderland E 11 D
26
111 Oct
11529 Stevenson Jno
I 26
Oct
11661 Speck Olive 67 H
30
183 Nov
11741 Smith H
D 2
145 Nov
11785 Snodgrass R J
H 4
145 Nov
11792 Sellentine M
C 4
Nov
11825 Seltzer D 20 K
5
Nov
11885 Smith W B Cav 14 E
6
184 Nov
11890 Shure J P
F 7
Nov
11895 Snively G W Cav 20 F
7
79 Nov
11926 Scover J H
G 8
118 Nov
11951 Shefiley W
G 9
12057 Stitzer G 2E Nov
16
184 Nov
12081 Stensley D, Cor
A 18
118 Dec
12217 Smith J S
F 3
Dec
12218 Skinner S O, Cor 77 A
4
184 Dec
12282 Shafer T
E 13
Dec
12308 Stafford W 67 H
19
Jan
12384 Sourbeer J E 20 A 65
3
Feb
12590 Sipe F 87 C
5
Feb
12598 Stauffer J 1K
6
Feb
12648 Stain G W Cav 20 K
13
Feb
12669 Slough E B, Cor “ 1D
17
Feb
12670 Scott A J 14 D
17
103 Feb
12676 Sheridan M
F 19
Mar
12817 Sharks J N 14 D
27
Apr
12824 Shultz H H 87 A
5
Apr
778 Thistlewood J 73 E 64
28
Apr
785 Tolland D Cav 13 D
28
1144 Taylor J F 13 E May
16
May
1145 Tull D, Cor 4D
16
May
1153 Toner Peter 10 A
16
June
1814 Thompson H 57 C
10
June
2182 Thompson A, Mus C 4C
19
June
2302 Townsend D Cav 18 D
22
145 June
2635 Tyser L
D 29
103 July
2897 Terwilliger E, S’t
H 5
103 July
3003 Thompson R
F 7
May
47 Taylor C W 84 D
24
171 July
3329 Titus W
D 14
103 July
3473 Todd Wm
K 17
183 July
3571 Thompson J S
H 19
July
3768 Terrell A Cav 12 B
22
July
3968 Trumbull H 3E
25
18 July
4116 Thompson Jas, S’t C
G 28
149 July
4160 Tinsdale ——
E 28
Aug
4713 Thompson J Art 3A
4
5179 Thompson W W 101 Aug
E 9
Aug
5345 Thomas F 7F
11
100 Aug
5966 Thompson J B
H 17
Aug
6146 Thompson F A B 69 I
19
143 Aug
6447 Tubbs E 64
I 23
Aug
6476 Toll Wm Res 11 I
22
118 Aug
6791 Turner Jno
H 25
Aug
7250 Thomas E 23 F
30
Aug
7409 Thorpe L 61 E
31
Sept
7904 Trash Seth 81 A
6
Sept
8231 Truman E W 9G
9
115 Sept
8531 Tilt W
A 12
184 Sept
8619 Tutor C
A 13
Sept
9027 Tits P -C
17
Sept
9212 Thorpe D 18 D
19
Sept
9302 Thompson H Cav 18 I
20
Sept
9726 Tonson J 99 B
25
9775 Thuck I 7C Sept
26
145 Sept
9981 Tones E
F 26
Sept
10008 Thompson J 90 H
29
Oct
10725 Tibbels Geo, Cor 69 K
11
Oct
11002 Thatcher R 14 C
16
Oct
11407 Thompson J Cav 12 E
24
Nov
11754 Trespan P 67 H
2
103 Nov
12080 Townsend C, Cor
E 18
May
971 Ulrick Jno 17 E
9
July
4184 Urndragh W 4B
28
Nov
12133 Utter Wm 45 H
23
75 May
1369 Ventler Chas, S’t
G 25
150 June
7739 Vogel L, Cor
A 8
June
2428 Vernon S 7K
24
July
4265 Vanholt T 13 A
29
Aug
5392 Vandeby B, S’t 7A
12
Aug
6877 Vanderpool F 57 B
26
Sept
7716 Vancampments G 52 I
4
8270 Vail G B 77 Sept
G 9
108 Sept
8791 Vaughan J
A 15
112 Sept
8948 Varndale J
A 16
Vandier Wm, Cit Sept
9688 - -
Phila 24
Mar
57 Wilkins A Cav 12 L
17
Mar
128 Waterman Jno 88 B
23
18 Mar
193 Wise Isaac
G 27
110 Apr
496 Wheeler J
I 12
Apr
516 Warren J 76 A
12
Apr
587 Weed A B 4K
17
83 Apr
657 Wentworth Jas
G 21
Apr
665 Watson F F 2B
22
Apr
686 Wahl Jno 73 C
23
Apr
764 Wilson Jno Cav 14 H
27
May
852 Williams S “ 18 I
3
May
941 Wolf J H “ 13 H
7
May
1021 Wright J “ 12 B
11
1067 Whitton Robt 145 May
C 13
May
1093 Wright Wm Cav 16 A
14
150 May
1386 Wymans Jas, Cor
C 26
May
1387 Wilson Jas Cav 13 D
26
May
1443 Williams F “ 3B
28
101 May
1494 Williams Fred
K 30
May
1525 Wallace H Cav 13 H
31
June
1563 Waltermeyer H 76 H
2
June
1721 Whitney W 83 A
8
June
1749 Woodsides W I 18 E
9
June
1791 Wolf Samuel 77 A
10
June
1903 Woodward G W Cav 3 -
13
103 June
1977 Wyant H
G 15
June
2338 Walters C 73 B
22
June
2616 Williams J 83 F
28
June
2699 Wike A 96 B
30
July
2790 Whitaker, (negro) 8 -
2
July
2937 Winsinger S 96 E
6
3023 Weider L 50 H July
7
116 July
3135 Wallace A
I 10
20 July
3277 Wright W A Cav
G 14
103 July
3384 Woodruff W D
B 16
July
3392 Wait Geo Cav 1G
16
July
3605 Walker E 7A
19
July
3694 White E D, S’t Cav 2H
21
July
4181 Wisel M “ 18 K
28
138 July
4338 Ward Daniel
E 30
July
3880 White M 7C
24
103 July
3822 Wilson Andrew
H 23
146 July
4069 Wolf A
D 27
73 July
4046 Winegardner A
G 27
July
3921 Wilson Wm 43 -
25
July
4428 Williams Geo 54 H
31
148 Aug
4702 Willebough E
I 4
103 Aug
4828 Ward P
B 6
4966 Wetherholt C 54 F Aug
7
Aug
4981 Waserun G Cav 4 I
7
Aug
4996 White S “ 14 B
7
Aug
5106 Weaver Jas 90 K
9
77 Aug
5353 Wilks S
G 11
Aug
5458 Wilson Wm 7K
12
53 Aug
5677 Weeks D
G 14
Aug
6050 Williams 7A
18
Aug
6052 Waterhouse W C 3L
18
118 Aug
6133 Workman A
D 19
Aug
6305 Whipple H, Cor 18 B
20
143 Aug
6427 Wart C
E 22
Aug
6530 Winerman Jas 77 A
23
Aug
6563 Wible Paul 57 A
23
103 Aug
6626 Walker S A
I 23
103 Aug
6808 Wick R C
E 25
Woolslaer W H, Aug
6980 77 C
Cor 27
149 Aug
6981 White Jas P
D 27
7023 Woodford J A 101 Aug
E 27
103 Aug
7277 White Ed
K 30
Aug
7382 Webb J S 69 K
31
Aug
7386 Walton A, Ser Cav 4A
31
118 Sept
7680 Wallwork T
D 3
Sept
7714 Warner L Cav 5C
3
101 Sept
7799 Wynn H
F 4
Sept
7809 Wiggins D Art 2D
5
101 Sept
7914 Weekland F
K 5
118 Sept
7933 Wade Geo W
E 5
116 Sept
8081 Weber W
F 7
Sept
8360 White D Art 2F
10
Sept
8879 Wheeler J 7C
15
14 Sept
9091 Wheeler C C Cav
M 18
Sept
9343 Williams W “ 20 -
20
Sept
9434 Wilson W H 3 I
21
Sept
9534 Woolman H Cav 18 A
23
9573 Wingert C 111 Sept
I 23
100 Sept
9634 Wismer J
A 24
Sept
9657 Wilson G M Cav 7M
24
Sept
9825 Walke G “ 4K
27
155 Sept
9909 Wentley J
G 28
Sept
10092 Watson Wm 99 I
30
Oct
10217 Weeks C 76 F
2
Oct
10229 Waltz J 7H
2
Oct
10236 Weekly John 14 A
2
Oct
10253 Weeks C 76 F
3
Oct
10315 Wolfhope J 1 84 A
4
Oct
10400 Wilson G 55 C
6
118 Oct
10426 Wilson J
D 6
Oct
10521 Williams W 46 K
8
Oct
10568 Walk W 87 E
9
116 Oct
10632 Welsy Jno M, Cor
E 10
Oct
10659 Watts A J Cav 12 I 64
11
21 Oct
10729 White J M
G 11
10797 Walker Wm 148 Oct
B 12
184 Oct
9464 Warner Cyrus W
B 21
Oct
10840 Wright Wm 16 I
13
Oct
10902 Wolford D 54 K
14
184 Oct
10974 Watson C
E 15
Oct
11048 Wilderman E 14 D
17
Oct
11108 Walker A 45 D
18
140 Oct
11129 Wilson G
F 18
106 Oct
11498 Warrington J H
H 26
184 Oct
11503 Waiter W
F 26
Oct
11557 Wood J, Ser 19 C
27
Nov
11722 Woodburn D J 7G
1
Nov
11750 Wyncoop F P 7 I
2
Nov
11899 Webster J, Ser C 20 L
7
104 Nov
11978 Wilkinson C, Ser
I 12
Nov
11987 Weaver J 53 K
13
Nov
12095 Walder John Cav 5L
19
12098 Wider N H 184 Nov
F 19
Nov
12123 Weatherald H W 7H
22
101 Nov
12129 Webb C M, Ser
H 23
145 Dec
12222 Williams J
A 4
Nov
12137 Wood J M 2A
23
184 Jan
12380 Watson H 65
A 2
Jan
12485 Williams B 75 B
19
Jan
12493 Walker N C 87 B
20
103 Oct
10158 Van Dyke D L 64
A 1
Nov
11810 Vanmarkes D 6E
4
Nov
12154 Vanhatterman I 4G
25
July
3958 Vogle V 78 D
25
July
3799 Yocumbs W B 93 B
22
Aug
4900 Yocum D Cav 1M
6
Aug
6103 Yingling E 78 E
18
158 Aug
6545 Yeager Samuel
D 23
49 Oct
10204 Young J B
G 2
145 Oct
11040 Young W H
F 17
11872 Yeager J 49 C Nov
6
June
1806 Zerphy J 79 E
10
148 July
4255 Zimmerman B
B 29
Aug
6573 Zane Wm 19 K
23
103 Aug
4818 Zerl S
F 25
118 Oct
11327 Zane M
E 23
Total 1808.
RHODE ISLAND.
Austin J A, S’t 1 July
3266 Cav 64
H 13
1 Aug
6231 Allen Chas “
D 21
1 June
1744 Boneley Wm “
M 8
1 June
1958 Bidmead Jas “
G 14
1 June
2521 Blake J F “
M 26
1 July
3647 Burk Jas
C 20
2 July
4261 Bether J
C 29
5 Aug
4576 Baine H
A 2
1 May
1339 Carpenter P Cav
E 24
1 May
1413 Carson B F “
K 27
- July
3810 Callihan Jas Bat
- 23
5 Sept
7966 Calvin E O, Cor Art
A 6
1 Apr
12832 Collins J H Cav 65
A 16
Delanah E B, 1 Apr
651 “ 64
S’t G 20
1217 Dix Geo “ 1 May
M 19
1 May
1435 Dickinson J, S’t “
K 28
1 July
3036 Dearborn G “
- 8
1 Aug
4742 Durden Robert “
F 5
2 Aug
4927 Doolittle G S Art
B 6
5 Aug
5670 Doyle Jas “
A 14
1 May
827 Eustace Geo C Cav
M 1
5 Oct
10203 Eaton A Art 64
A 1
1 May
939 Freelove H Cav
H 7
1 Aug
4538 Farrell Jas F Art
A 2
2 Aug
4672 Fay John
G 4
5 Aug
7356 Fay A Art
A 31
5 June
1866 Goudy John “
A 12
5 Aug
4866 Gallagher C
A 6
5 Aug
5561 Garvey Wm Art
A 13
2 Sept
8308 Green R
B 10
9978 Green Daniel 2 Sept
H 29
1 May
1075 Henry T Cav
F 13
1 June
2656 Healy A “
D 29
1 July
2746 Hunt C W “
A 1
5 July
3904 Hampstead J Art
F 24
1 Aug
7032 Hooker A Cav
G 27
5 Nov
11843 Hawkins D F
A 5
5 Nov
12016 Hanley T Art
A 15
1 June
1962 Ide S R Cav
H 14
5 July
3049 Johnson A G Art
A 8
1 July
2968 Kettell Jas Cav
B 6
2 July
3096 Kiney J
B 20
5 July
4215 Lewis Edward Art
A 29
5 Aug
5827 Littlebridge, Cor “
A 16
5 Aug
6798 Lee Cornelius “
A 25
1 Sept
7849 Leach L D Cav
F 5
Livingston J, 5 Oct
11688 A
Mus A 31
1750 Miner S Cav 1 June
D 9
2 Aug
7393 McKay Thos
F 31
3 Sept
8306 McKenna J Art
- 10
1 July
3192 Northrop E Cav
H 12
5 Sept
7904 Navoo G
K 5
1 Apr
607 Peterson John
D 18
1 Aug
7219 Rathburn J Cav
A 29
1 June
2382 Sweet M “
D 23
1 June
2563 Spink J “
H 27
Slocum Geo T, 1 July
2859 C
2 Lt A 4
1 July
4158 Smith P Cav
A 28
1 Aug
4949 Stalord J Bat
A 7
5 Aug
6186 Sisson Chas T Art
A 19
5 Aug
6187 Seymour H “
A 19
5 Aug
6351 Sullivan J “
A 21
5 Aug
7129 Sanders Chas “
A 28
7425 Slocum C A, “ 5 Aug

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Principles of Organizational Behavior Realities and Challenges International Edition 8Th Edition Quick Test Bank Full Chapter PDF

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Principles of Organizational Behavior

Realities and Challenges International

2. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:

5. Groups emphasize all of the following except:

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-functioning group?

9. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?

10. Social loafing is usually:

11. A method for countering social loafing includes:

20. An emergent group is known as a/an:

21. In the formation of a group to create H2 (son of Hummer), GM formed a(n):

32. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:

33. The contributor role in a team is usually occupied by someone who:

34. An important role in the performance of cross-functional teams is:

35. An effective team exhibits:

38. Which of the following is NOT a maintenance function of a group?

41. Tension reduction activities are considered a:

42. A team-oriented work environment places emphasis on:

43. Teams are appropriate where:

48. Quality teams are different from quality circles in that:

50. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:

56. Self-managed teams are sometimes called:

59. Upper echelon theory argues that:

60. A "wild turkey" in the top management team is:

62. The skills a team leader requires includes:

8. Informal groups are sometimes called emergent groups.

16. Group cohesion and intragroup conflict tend to be contradictory forces.

24. Communication gatekeepers serve a maintenance role or function within groups.

Match the following:

Match the following:

Match the following:

11. ANS: C PTS: 1

Match the following:

16. ANS: E PTS: 1

Match the following:

21. ANS: D PTS: 1

2. What factors of a group work situation affect cohesiveness?

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