CNS Quiz

Chapter 4 Quiz BNF Central Nervous System
Questions:
1. Which class of drugs does cimetidine belong to?
A. H1 receptor agonist
B. H2 receptor agonist
C. H2 receptor antagonist
D. H1 receptor antagonist
2. You are conducting an antidepressant medication review with Mr PL who is 79 years old.
You have been seeing Mr PL who was commenced on Sertraline 50mg 1 OD a year and a
half ago since the passing of his wife. Today Mr PL informs you he feels as though he does
not need this medication anymore and is informing you, he is in a much better place. He has,
over the last week or so started to wonder is he can come off this medication.
How long should antidepressant treatment be continued in Mr PL following
remission?
A. At least 1 week
B. At least 4 weeks
C. At least 6 months
D. At least 12 months
3. Miss U, 73 years old is new to the practice. You are currently conducting a meds
reconciliation from her previous practice notes. From the notes, you can see that she has
been stabilised on a brand of Lithium Citrate for 20 years, and her bloods from the last 3
years all show Lithium being in range. She also has her annual secondary care mental health
review with the psychiatry team.
How often should Miss U come in for monitoring for her Lithium?
A. Every fortnight
B. Every month
C. 3 monthly
D. 6 monthly
4. Mr L, 58 years old has come into the practice today to see his regular GP. Mr L has recently
been experiencing pain in his back. Below is the list of medication Mr L is currently taking.
▪ Priadel 400mg tablets
▪ Levothyroxine 100mg tablets
▪ Olanzapine 10mg tablets
What would be the least suitable analgesic to prescribe, considering Mr L’s
medication?
A. Naproxen
B. Paracetamol
C. Codeine
D. Meptazinol
5. Mr K89 years old, has been admitted to the ward. He was admitted due to experiencing
nausea and vomiting, being very confused and irritable. Some blood tests have been
conducted, and the results have come back showing a reduction in sodium levels.
Which of the following medications below is likely to have caused a reduction in
sodium levels?
A. Citalopram
B. Olanzapine
C. Temazepam
D. Zopiclone
6. Miss P, a 17-year-old girl has been referred to CAMHS to help with her ongoing persistent
sadness and low mood. The specialist has decided to offer pharmacological therapy
alongside the psychological therapy which Miss P is undertaking.
Which of the following is most appropriate to offer as first line drug treatment to Miss
P?
A. Sertraline
B. Clozapine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Venlafaxine
7. Which of the following antipsychotics has the lowest risk of Diabetes?
A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Quetiapine
8. Mr S has had Parkinson’s disease for 3 years now and is on Co-Beneldopa to help manage
his symptoms. Unfortunately, today he has also been diagnosed with Dementia.
Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate for him to be put on?
A. Donepezil
B. Galantamine
C. Rivastigmine
D. Memantine
9. Entacapone can colour your urine what colour?
A. Red/Yellow
B. Orange/Yellow
C. Orange/Brown
D. Red/Brown
10. Mrs R brings in a prescription for Duloxetine. Your pre-reg student asks you what drug class
this belongs to, what answer do you give?
A. SSRI
B. TCA
C. SNRI
D. MAOI’s
11. Which of the following drugs below has both opioid agonist and antagonist properties?
A. Methadone
B. Gabapentin
C. Topiramate
D. Buprenorphine
12. Which of the following antidepressants drugs can increase the risk of bleeding?
A. Venlafaxine
B. Amitriptyline
C. Imipramine
D. Sertraline
13. How many weeks can it take for Buspirone to work?

A. Up to one week
B. Up to two weeks
C. Up to three weeks
D. Up to four weeks
14. How long should a patient receive an anti-psychotic drug before it is deemed as being
‘ineffective’?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks
15. Over how many weeks should the dose of Clozapine be reduced to avoid the risk of rebound
psychosis?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
16. Which of the following in an example of a group 2 drug under section 4 of the driving road
traffic act?
A. Cannabis
B. Ketamine
C. Diamorphine metabolite
D. Amfetamine
17. Mrs K Alory comes into the pharmacy to collect her monthly repeat prescription of
medications. You are chatting away to her and notice that she’s not her usual self and ask if
she is okay. She informs you that she has been putting on weight recently and unsure why.
She is not eating any more than normal and is exercising the same amount and believes it
may be down the medications.
Which of the medications below is likely to have caused Mrs K Alory’s weight gain?
A. Metformin
B. Pizotifen
C. Methylphenidate
D. Semaglutide
18. Mr P 52-years-old is being treated palliatively after his diagnosis of stage 4 metastasise. For
pain relief, he is currently taking:
▪ Morphine Sulphate 60mg BD M/R Capsules
▪ Morphine Sulphate 30mg BD M/R Capsules
The GP has prescribed oral morphine sulphate solution for Mr P to use break through pain, as
Mr P is experiencing a little pain between the doses of Morphine.
What dose of morphine sulphate solution 10mg/5mLwould you expect to see
prescribed?
A. 18-30mg every 2-4 hours PRN

B. 5-10mg every 4-8 hours PRN
C. 5-10mg every 2-4 hours PRN
D. 30-40mg every 2-4hours PRN
19. Mr P 69-years-old has presented a prescription for Co-Careldopa 25/100mg TDS. He has
been diagnosed with having Parkinson’s disease and has been commenced on this
medication. Mr P asks you what side effects could possibly be related to this medication.
Which of the following adverse effect is not associated with taking Co-Careldopa?
A. Binge eating
B. Hypersexuality
C. Urine discolouration
D. Dry eyes
20. Mrs P 34-years-old, has been experiencing severe back pain, which has not responded to
paracetamol, and topical analgesia. Mrs P also suffers from hypothyroidism and epilepsy.
Which of the following analgesics would be LEAST suitable for Mrs P?
A. Naproxen
B. Tramadol
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
21. You are running a lunch time revision CPD session with your colleagues at the practice.
Today’s topic is regarding anti-depressant, particularly switching between different classes,
and taking extra care with certain anti-depressant due to pharmacokinetic properties.
Which of the following SSRIs is associated with having a particularly long half-life?
A. Escitalopram
B. Citalopram
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline
22. You are discussing opioids and mechanism of action with certain opioids with a fellow pre-
registration pharmacist.
Which of the following opioids below is likely to exert it affect by being a mu-receptor
agonist, and also enhancing serotonergic and adrenergic pathways?
A. Morphine
B. Tramadol
C. Oxycodone
D. Buprenorphine
23. Which of the following drugs below is used to treat moderate to severe dementia in
Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Donepezil
B. Memantine
C. Galantamine
D. Rivastigmine
24. Mr K 89 years old, has been admitted to the ward, he was admitted due to experiencing
sodium levels?
A. Zopiclone
B. Citalopram
C. Olanzapine
D. Temazepam
25. The MHRA have released guidance relating to the prolonged use of a medication. It
reinforces the fact that, prolonged use of this medication can cause serious neurological
adverse effects, and that this medication should not be used for more than 5 days.
Which medication is this guidance most likely to be related too?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Tramadol
C. Oxycodone
D. Domperidone
26. Which one of the drugs below can be used for the treatment of nocturnal enuresis in
children?
A. Citalopram
B. Sertraline
C. Imipramine
D. Duloxetine
27. Miss AS comes into your pharmacy with a script. When labelling the prescription, you notice
that she is a new patient to your pharmacy. You notice that one of the medications on her
prescriptions should be prescribed by brand and not generically. You ask her what brand of
this medication she normally takes, and also inform her GP to ensure that the medication is
prescribed by brand in the future.
Which of the drugs below should always be prescribed by brand for the treatment of
epilepsy?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Sodium Valproate
D. Lamotrigine
28. Mr HF, 72-year-old is diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes. He has been on Metformin for a
number of years which has controlled his blood glucose levels. However, at his last annual
review it was noted that his HbA1c had increased to 67 mmol/mol. The diabetic nurse is
considering adding in another anti-diabetic agent to try and get Mr HF’s HbA1c down to
target levels. Mr HF is also being treated for Hypertension, Hypothyroidism, Heart Failure
and Osteoporosis.
Which one of the following drugs would be least suitable to add to Mr HFs diabetes
treatment regime?
A. Gliclazide
B. Sitagliptin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Dapagliflozin
29. Miss G 42 years old, has presented a prescription for Fluoxetine 20mg capsules – One to be
taken daily. After checking Miss G’s PMR you notice that she currently takes a medicine
which interacts with the Fluoxetine and decide to ring the prescriber to flag this to them.
Which of the medicines below is most likely to prompt you to ring the prescriber due
to an interaction with the Fluoxetine?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Anastrozole
C. Alendronic Acid
D. Omeprazole
30. Mr A, 47 years old, has been coming into the practice to talk about their ongoing depression.
Mr A has been undergoing psychological and psychosocial interventions, however this has
not seemed to help. The GP is now looking at possible pharmacological treatment options.
Mr A is at very low risk of self-harm and has no other medical problems.
Which of the following treatments below would be most appropriate?
A. Citalopram
B. Amitriptyline
C. Clozapine
D. Phenelzine
31. Mr K 89 years old, has been admitted to the ward. He was admitted due to experiencing
sodium levels?
A. Zopiclone
B. Citalopram
C. Olanzapine
D. Temazepam
32. A patient brings in a prescription for lithium 200mg MR tablets. You notice from your PMR
that they have never been to your pharmacy before, and after talking to the patient discover
that this is the first time they’ve been prescribe this medication.
Which of the following counselling points regarding lithium 200mg MR tablets is
INCORRECT?
A. They should maintain an adequate fluid intake

B. They should avoid dietary changes that may increase or decrease levels
C. They should report polyuria or polydipsia
D. They should report persistent headaches or visual disturbance
E. They should use effective contraception during treatment to avoid pregnancy
33. Mr W, who weighs 70kg, has recently started on phenytoin for the treatment of status
epilepticus at a dose of 20mg/kg.
What should the total plasma-phenytoin concentration range for optimum response
be?
A. 5-10 micrograms/litre
B. 10-15 micrograms/litre
C. 10-20 mg/litre
D. 20-25 mg/litre
E. 15-30 mg/litre
34. Mr PD regularly drives large vehicles for transporting goods. He comes into the pharmacy
asking you for advice on which drugs can affect driving, as there are new drug-driving laws
published.
Which of the following drugs may cause a sudden onset of sleep?
A. Lansoprazole
B. Epinephrine
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Co-beneldopa
35. Mr D (65 years old) who started suffering from early morning stiffness and muscle pain. Mr D
has a history of hypertension and occasional stomach upsets but has never been diagnosed
with an ulcer.
Which one of the following medicines carries the lowest risk of gastro-intestinal side-
effects when used in standard doses?
A. Diclofenac
B. Ibuprofen
C. Indomethacin
D. Naproxen
E. Piroxicam
36. Mr PD, a 67-year-old who has been admitted to your ward for routine surgery had a past
medical history of Parkinson’s disease and hypertension. He currently takes Madopar 250mg
TDS and Amlodipine 5mg OM.
Which one of the following medications is the most appropriate to treat his post-
operative nausea and vomiting?
A. Cyclizine
B. Haloperidol
C. Metoclopramide
D. Perphenazine
E. Prochlorperazine
37. Mr PD, a 67-year-old who has been admitted to your ward for routine surgery had a past
medical history of Parkinson’s disease and hypertension. He currently takes Madopar 250mg
TDS and Amlodipine 5mg OM.
Mr PD develops dysphagia post-operatively and a BG tube is inserted to facilitate
enteral feeding and drug administration. Which of the following statements would be
most appropriate for optimising Mr PD’s Madopar therapy?
A. Mr R’s Madopar® capsules should be converted to an equivalent dose of dopamine as

an apomorphine subcutaneous injection
B. Mr R’s Madopar® capsules should be opened and dispersed in 10mL of water for
administration via the NG tube
C. Mr R’s Madopar® capsules should be switched to half the dose of Madopar® dispersible
tablets due to increased absorption and difference in bioavailability
D. Mr R’s Madopar® capsules should be switched to the same dose of Madopar®
dispersible tablets for administration via the NG tube
38. Mrs T normally takes carbamazepine.

Which of the below side effects should she urgently report to the doctor?
A. Hirsuitism
B. Hyponatraemia
C. Nausea
D. Unexplained bruising or bleeding
E. Diarrhoea
39. A drug has both opioid agonist and antagonist properties. Sublingually, it is an effective
analgesic for 6-8 hours. Its effects are only partially reversed by naloxone hydrochloride.
Which of the following is the drug most likely to be?
A. Tramadol
B. Pethidine
C. Dipipanone hydrochloride
D. Gabapentin
E. Buprenorphine
40. An antiepileptic which carries an increased risk of cleft palate if taken in the first trimester of
pregnancy.
A. Topiramate
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Tolfenamic acid
E. Gabapentin
41. A drug indicated in the treatment of epilepsy and due to the long half-life and can be given
once daily.
A. Topiramate
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Tolfenamic acid
E. Gabapentin
42. A drug produces analgesia by two mechanisms: an opioid effect and an enhancement of
serotonergic and adrenergic pathways.
A. Buprenorphine
B. Pethidine
C. Dipipanone hydrochloride
D. Tramadol
E. Codeine
43. Is an antihistamine and serotonin receptor antagonist indicated in the prophylaxis of

migraines.
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Tolfenamic acid
C. Pethidine
D. Pizotifen
E. Tramadol
44. A drug is indicated for the short-term relief (two to four weeks only) of anxiety that is severe,
disabling, or causing the patient unacceptable distress.
A. Promethazine
B. Temazepam
C. Methadone
D. Lorazepam
E. Tetrabenazine
45. Treatment with this drug is associated with impulse control disorders, including pathological
gambling, binge eating and hypersexuality.
A. Varenicline
B. Selegiline
C. Apomorphine
D. Promethazine
E. Rasagiline
46. The drug gives rise to an extremely unpleasant systemic reaction after the ingestion of
alcohol because it causes the accumulation of acetaldehyde in the body. Symptoms can
occur within 10 minutes of ingesting alcohol and include flushing of the face, throbbing
headache and tachycardia.
A. Disulfiram
B. Acamprosate calcium
C. Tetrabenazine
D. Rasagiline
E. Promethazine
47. The drug is indicated for conscious sedation for dental procedures 30-60 minutes before
procedure.
A. Lorazepam
B. Promethazine
C. Temazepam
D. Methadone
E. Carbamazepine
48. The drug is a potent dopamine-receptor agonist indicated in advanced Parkinson’s disease
for patients experiencing ‘off’ periods. The patient must be taught to self-administer the
medicine by subcutaneous injection at the first sign if an ‘off’ episode.
A. Tetrabenazine
B. Selegiline
C. Co-Careldopa
D. Apomorphine
E. Bromocriptine
49. Mr PD has been diagnosed with moderate dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease.
The consultant has started him on a medicine which is licensed as a twice daily dose by
mouth.
A. Agomelatine
B. Memantine
C. Rivastigmine
D. Galantamine
E. Donepezil
50. A patient on a medium secure ward at a hospital specialising in mental health is being trialed
with a first-generation antipsychotic. It is only effective for the positive symptoms and causes
anticholinergic side effects.
A. Lithium
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Valproic acid
D. Lofexidine
E. Aripiprazole
51. Mr L is 38 years old and is currently taking Lithium carbonate (Priadel) 400mg OD. He’s been
having Lithium for 3 years and has had a recent blood test. The results show that his sodium
level is 128 mmol/L.
What is the most likely impact of these results on Mr L’s Lithium levels?
A. His serum sodium level is high causing renal excretion of sodium and lithium which may
result in a decrease of serum lithium
B. His serum sodium level is low causing renal reabsorption of sodium and lithium which
may result in a rise of serum lithium
C. His serum sodium level is low causing renal absorption of sodium and excretion of lithium
which may result in a decrease in serum lithium
D. His serum sodium level is high causing renal excretion of sodium and lithium which may
result in a decrease of serum lithium
52. Mr L comes into your pharmacy with a prescription for Lithium Carbonate (Priadel) 400mg
OD. He states that he has run out of his medication and has not taken today’s dose. You
check you shelves and there is no Priadel left.
Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Tell him to take the prescription elsewhere

B. Speak to the GP to get an alternate medication
C. Advise him to come back tomorrow afternoon when you will have the medicine in stock
D. Try and locate the product from another pharmacy so he can obtain his medicine today
E. Supply him with Camcolit at the appropriate equivalent dose
53. Miss Smyth was diagnosed with schizophrenia 15 years ago. She has previously been taking
Olanzapine 20mg daily but this is not failing to control her symptoms. She was unresponsive
to Risperidone and so a decision has been made for Miss Smyth to begin treatment with
Clozapine. Agranulocytosis is reported as a potentially fatal, although uncommon side effect
of Clozapine.
With respect to agranulocytosis, which of the following test should be carried out
prior to Joanna treatment with Clozapine?
A. Creatinine clearance
B. Leucocyte and differential blood counts
C. Liver function tests
D. Random blood glucose test
E. Thyroid function test
54. Mrs M has been prescribed propranolol 160mg LA capsules (1 ON) for migraine prophylaxis.
When dispensing the prescription, a notification appears on your PMR system that she is
currently taking amiodarone regularly for the last 8 months.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for you to take?
A. Contact the prescriber and recommend to reduce the strength of propranolol

B. Contact the prescriber and recommend to change the amiodarone
C. Contact the prescriber and recommend to change to an alternative migraine prophylaxis
D. Dispense the prescription and counsel the patient on the possible side effects of
amiodarone
E. Dispense the prescription and counsel the patient on the use of the LA formulation i.e.
swallow whole and do not chew/rush
55. Which one of the following is an acceptable dose for a Pregabalin?

A. Take as directed
B. Take twice daily as directed
C. Take weekly
D. Take one as directed
56. Which of these drugs is an example of an atypical antipsychotic?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Clozapine
C. Carbamazepine
D. Citalopram
57. Mr. Z, a 45-year-old man presents in the pharmacy and asks to speak to you in private. He
informs you that he is worried about his father who is 74. He has noticed that he is eating an
abnormally large amount of food in a short period of time and at a very rapid rate. He asks
you whether any of the medication that his father is taking could be making him hungry or
causing him to binge eat.
Which of the following medication that Mr. Z's father is taking could be the likely
cause of his eating habits?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Tamsulosin
C. Selegiline
D. Co-beneldopa
E. Enalapril
58. Mr T, a 35-year-old present at the pharmacy complaining about pain in his upper arm and
shoulder. He was moving heavy items at home. He asks for a suitable analgesic and he has
not taken anything yet. He is on the following:
▪ Ramipril 10mg
▪ Amlodipine 5mg
Which of the following OTC analgesics would be most appropriate to recommend?
A. Ibuprofen tablets
B. Naproxen tablets
C. Co-codamol tablets
D. Paracetamol effervescent tablets
E. Paracetamol caplets
59. One of your patients who normally attends daily for supervised consumption of methadone
has recently been changed to unsupervised. After receiving their dose twice weekly for the
last 2 weeks, they have come to you today having mistakenly taken double the amount of
methadone they were prescribed.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his opioid
toxicity?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Buprenorphine
C. Folinic acid
D. Naloxone
E. Naltrexone
60. One of the F1 doctors on the ward approaches you for some advice about what anti-emetic
to issue in a patient with Parkinson's disease. The patient has no other medical conditions.
Which of the following anti-emetics would be most appropriate to recommend?
A. Cinnarizine
B. Domperidone
C. Granisetron
D. Metoclopramide
E. Prochlorperazine
61. Mrs BD regularly takes Lithium for her bipolar disorder. Her lithium levels are stable and are
monitored every 3 months. She recently suffered from myocardial infarction and comes into
the pharmacy with a new prescription for a new cardiovascular medication.
Which of the medicines listed required Mrs C to undergo additional Lithium level
monitoring?
A. Bisoprolol
B. Clopidogrel
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Atorvastatin
E. Lisinopril
62. A patient is admitted to A&E due to a seizure. They have a past medical history of epilepsy
(seizure-free for over 10 years) and have no known drug allergies. The doctor thinks that the
seizure may be due to medication the patient has recently started and asks for your advice.
You check with the patient's GP and you are given a list of medicines on his PMR.
Which of the following drugs on his PMR is the most likely to have caused seizures in
this patient?
A. Paracetamol
B. Senna
C. Ibuprofen
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. None of the above
63. Ms A was started on Fluoxetine 20mg once daily to treat major depression 3 weeks ago. You
are working as an independent prescriber in a GP surgery with a specialist interest in mental
health. You are reviewing her treatment and she tells you that she has had no response to
treatment but confirms she has taken the medication as prescribed.
Which of the following would be your most appropriate response?
A. Advise her that 3 weeks is too short a period to see any benefits and it would be worth
continuing for another 1-2 weeks when you will review her again
B. Increase dose to 40mg once daily
C. Add in an augmentation agent such as lithium
D. Add in a second antidepressant such as mirtazapine.
64. Mr A, a new patient in the area, comes into your pharmacy with a prescription from the local
GP for methadone 5mg every eight hours. He tells you that he has been prescribed this as
an analgesic for severe pain. Upon further questioning, you discover that Mr A has been
previously prescribed morphine, and also regularly takes metformin for diabetes,
fludrocortisone for postural hypotension and occasionally amitriptyline for pain.
What is the best course of action you should take with Mr A?
A. Refuse to dispense the prescription as you suspect he is opioid dependant

B. Refer the patient back to their GP as methadone is cautioned in this patient
C. Refer the patient back to their GP as methadone is not used for this purpose
D. Check the dosage is appropriate then dispense the prescription
E. Dispense the prescription as there are no known issues
65. Mr GH, who weighs 90kg, was started on lithium carbonate at a dose of 600mg twice daily.
His levels have been monitored for the past few weeks.
Which of the following is the target serum-lithium concentration that should be

achieved?
A. 0.1-0.5 mg/litre
B. 0.4-1 mmol/litre
C. 0.2-1 mmol/litre
D. 0.8-1 mmol/litre
66. Mr M is 27-years-old and has been suffering from motor symptoms. He reported to the GP
that his arms were going stiff and jerky. He was referred and was recently diagnosed with
focal seizures.
Which of the following anticonvulsants would be the most appropriate as the first-line
treatment?
A. Pregabalin
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Gabapentin
E. Lamotrigine
67. Miss U has come into the pharmacy with a prescription for Lithium. She has a diagnosis of
bipolar affective disorder. She has recently had her blood tests.
Which of the following hormones requires monitoring with lithium?
A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisol
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Insulin
E. Thyroxine
68. Mr Y, a 39-year-old man, presents in the pharmacy with a prescription for 60g Piroxicam
0.5% gel to be applied up to FOUR times a day. He explains that his GP has prescribed this
medication for him as he suffers from severe back pain that did not respond to ibuprofen.
Which of the following statements should you consider when dispensing Mr Y's
prescription?
A. Piroxicam should not be used as first-line treatment

B. Piroxicam should only be initiated by physicians experienced in treating inflammatory or
degenerative rheumatic diseases
C. Mr Y must take a gastro-protective agent concomitantly
D. Treatment should be reviewed after 4 weeks
E. In adults, the use of Piroxicam should be limited to the symptomatic relief of
osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis
69. What is the therapeutic plasma concentration range for a 2-month-old who is on phenytoin?
A. 10-20mg/L
B. 40-80micromol/L
C. 6-15mg/L
D. <5mg/L
70. Which drug carries an increased risk of cleft palate when given in the first trimester?
A. Sodium valproate
B. Carbamazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Phenytoin
71. Which category of drugs in epilepsy does not need to be maintained on the same brand?
A. Category 1
B. Category 2
C. Category 3
72. Which of the following drugs for moderate-severe Alzheimer's disease?
A. Donepezil
B. Galantamine
C. Rivastigmine
D. Memantine
73. What is not one of the physical symptoms anxiety?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Palpitations
C. Insomnia
D. Difficulty concentrating
E. Muscle aches
74. You are the GP practice pharmacist and you are conducting a review with 53-year-old Mrs Z
who is taking Co-Careldopa 25/100mg, one tablet three times daily. She explains to you that
she has been feeling nauseous recently and would like a treatment for it.
Which of the following anti-emetics would you recommend to Mrs Z's doctor to
prescribe?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Domperidone
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Prochlorperazine
E. Trifluoperazine
75. Mr L, 25-year-old male is admitted to hospital suffering from fluctuating levels of

consciousness, excessive sweating, muscle rigidity and hypothermia with a temperature of
39.1°C. Upon further examination, he is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea and labile
blood pressure. On admission, Mr L is taking the following medication:
▪ Simvastatin 20 mg, one to be taken at night
▪ Olanzapine 15 mg, one to be taken in the evening
▪ Procyclidine 5 mg, one to be taken three times a day
▪ Metformin 500 mg, want to be taken twice a day
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take in the
management of Mr L's condition?
A. Start an intravenous infusion of soluble insulin

B. Stop the olanzapine
C. Initiate an intravenous infusion of streptokinase 1,500,000 IU
D. Stop the procyclidine
E. Start amiodarone three times a day
76. Mrs A and her three children have been coming to your pharmacy for several years. She
would like to speak to you about her daughter. She is 7 years old and has pain in her
stomach, feels sick and has been vomiting. Mrs A thinks she has a tummy bug. You
remember that she has been on sodium valproate for the past year. Mrs A asks if she can
buy anything OTC for her daughter as she has epilepsy.
What advice would you give to Mrs A?
A. Her symptoms may be due to sodium valproate. Seek immediate medical attention.
B. She is fine and does not need to get medical attention
C. She should go see her GP with an appointment
D. She can continue taking the sodium valproate
77. Mrs U is a 38-year-old patient at your pharmacy. Her daughter rings the pharmacy and
reports that she is very poorly with a fever and has developed a rash. You are aware from
her PMR that she started treatment with carbamazepine a few weeks ago. She would like to
know what recommendation you can make. What advice would you give to Mrs U's
daughter?
Answer: _______________________________________________________________
78. Mrs Z, a 67-year-old woman has been admitted to hospital following a fall. She has been
feeling very weak and drowsy recently and appears to be confused. The doctor has sent her
for further testing. She is currently taking the following medication:
▪ Diclofenac
▪ Omeprazole
▪ Amlodipine
▪ Fluoxetine
▪ Atorvastatin
Which one of Mrs V's medication is the most likely cause of her fall?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Lansoprazole
C. Amlodipine
D. Fluoxetine
E. Atorvastatin
79. Mr NS is a 46-year-old male who has been taking Lithium Carbonate 400mg (Priadel) tablets
for the past 15 years for his bipolar disorder. He has come into the pharmacy with a
prescription. He tells you that the GP told him to come back immediately if he notices signs
of diarrhoea, vomiting, drowsiness or muscle twitching.
Which of the following is most likely to be on the prescription?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clozapine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Theophylline
E. Trimethoprim
80. You receive a prescription for haloperidol depot injections for one of your patients. Your PMR
system shows that the patient usually takes haloperidol tablets.
What is the most likely reason in this patient that the haloperidol has been changed
from tablets to a depot injection?
A. To improve adherence
B. To improve efficacy
C. To provide a more rapid response
D. To reduce the risk of extrapyramidal side effects
E. To reduce the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
81. A 3-year-old child with no long term medical conditions requires paracetamol for the
treatment of pyrexia associated with flu-like symptoms.
What is the most appropriate dose of paracetamol to be administered every six hours?
A. 60mg
B. 120mg
C. 180mg
D. 240mg
E. 360mg
82. Miss SN has been brought into the hospital due to a car accident. She lost control of her
body movements and fell asleep on the wheel. The nurses also mentioned that Miss SN’s
eyes were rapidly moving involuntarily and she has gone into respiratory depression. Her
drug history shows that she was taking Bisoprolol and Diazepam.
What does this indicate?
A. Miss SN has gone into anaphylactic reaction

B. Miss SN has taken too much warfarin
C. Miss SN is experiencing an overdose with benzodiazepines
D. She is experiencing a severe interaction between two medications
83. A 70-year-old woman has been admitted to hospital following a seizure. She has not had one
previously and upon recovery was confused. She had a plasma sodium of 115 mmol/L. her
repeat prescription shows:
▪ Amlodipine 5mg tablets 1 OM
▪ Atenolol 50mg tablets 1 OM
▪ Citalopram 20mg tablets 1 OM
▪ Paracetamol 500mg 2 tablets QDS PRN
▪ Telmisartan 20mg tablets 1 OM
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of this patient’s
symptoms?
A. Amlodipine
B. Atenolol
C. Citalopram
D. Paracetamol
E. Telmisartan
84. Miss S, a 36-year-old female has a severe headache that came on suddenly. She feels sick
and her vision was blurred before the pain began.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for her GP to
prescribe to treat the headache?
A. Almotriptan 12.5mg tablets

B. Pizotifen 1.5mg tablets
C. Propranolol 80mg tablets
D. Timolol maleate 10mg tablets
E. Topiramate 50mg tablets
85. Mr MD has been commenced on Priadel 200mg daily for the treatment of bipolar disorder by
a consultant psychiatrist. At the MDT, the consultant asks you to counsel Mr MD on his new
treatment. Whilst discussing the timing of taking his medication in relation to the blood tests
needed to check his levels.
Which of the following number of hours do you advise Mr MD to leave between taking
his medication and having the blood test?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
86. Mrs RE comes into the pharmacy and requests a bottle of ibuprofen for her child.
What dose do you recommend she gives her 3-year-old?
A. 50mg three times a day

B. 50mg three to four times a day
C. 100mg three times a day
D. 150mg three times a day
E. 200mg three times a day
87. A 34-year-old woman is taking the following medication:

▪ Lithium 600mg once daily
▪ Venlafaxine MR 150mg once daily
She presents in your pharmacy with tremors, diarrhoea, agitation, anxiety and tachycardia
and asks for your advice.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to give the patient?
A. Advise her to carry on taking both medicines

B. Advise her to start taking Loperamide
C. Advise her to stop the Venlafaxine and make a non-urgent appointment with his GP
D. Advise her to stop Venlafaxine and Lithium and make an urgent appointment with his GP
E. Advise her to eat more fibre and drink more water.
88. An 88-year-old man has been transferred to the ward following surgery. He is experiencing
post-operative nausea and vomiting. He has Parkinson’s disease and type 2 diabetes.
Which anti-emetic would be least appropriate to give this patient?
A. Cyclizine IV
B. Cyclizine IM
C. Domperidone PO
D. Metoclopramide PO
E. Ondansetron IV
89. A patient is asking for some advice regarding her lithium carbonate. The GP told her to
speak to the pharmacist.
Which of the following is not a feature of lithium salts?
A. An ECG is recommended in patients with cardiovascular disease or risk factors for it

B. The same brand must always be given as bioavailability may change between different
brands
C. Liver function should be tested every 6 months
D. The patient should maintain adequate fluid intake and avoid dietary changes which
reduce or increase sodium intake
E. The patient should be advised to use effective contraception for women of child bearing
age.
90. Which of the following is true regarding Tramadol?
A. Does not interact with Brimonidine

B. Flumenazil should be given in overdose
C. Avoid abrupt withdrawal after long term treatment
D. Safe to take in Breastfeeding
91. Mr I have presented a prescription for Butec® patches. You are counselling Mr I on these
patches, as this is the first time he has had them.
Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding counselling for these
patches?
A. Remove and change patch every 72 hours, place replacement patch on the same area
B. Remove and change patch every 48 hours, place replacement patch on a different area
C. Remove and change patch every 7 days, place replacement patch on a different area
D. Remove and change patch every 72 hours, place replacement patch on a different area
92. You have been informed that Phenelzine is on a long-term manufacturing problem. The
consultant psychiatrist has approached you asking for some advice.
They are aware Phenelzine has a particularly long half-life and wish to know, if they
had to switch patients to an SSRI, how long should they need to wait before
switching?
A. 1 week after stopping MAOI

B. 2 weeks after stopping MAOI
C. 3 weeks after stopping MAOI
D. 4 weeks after stopping MAOI
93. Which of the following drugs below is used to treat moderate to severe dementia in
Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Donepezil
B. Memantine
C. Galantamine
D. Rivastigmine
94. You are currently conducting a medication history for Mr N who was admitted to the ward this
morning. You gather that he is currently on:
▪ Tegretol® Prolonged Release 200mg: 1 BD
▪ Sertraline 50mg: 1 OD
▪ Ramipril 10mg: 1 OD
▪ Paracetamol 500mg: 1-2 QDS PRN
He presented being confused, lethargic and generally fatigued. You review his blood results
and find that there is an electrolyte disturbance.
Based on the medication Mr N is taking, and the clinical presentation he presented
with, which electrolyte disturbance us most likely to have occurred?
A. Hypokalaemia
B. Hyponatraemia
C. Hypernatraemia
D. Hypocalcaemia
95. The MHRA released advice regarding Domperidone, in particularly the duration of its use.
The advice restricts the dose, indication and duration of use, due to the risk of serious
cardiac side-effects.
How many days should Domperidone be prescribed for?
A. Up to 3 days
B. Up to 4 days
C. Up to 5 days
D. Up to 7 days
A. Escitalopram
B. Citalopram
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline
97. Mr A, 47 years old, has been coming into the practice to talk about their ongoing depression.
A. Citalopram
B. Amitriptyline
C. Clozapine
D. Phenelzine
98. You are conduction an anti-depressant medication review with Mr PL who is 79 years old.
You have been seeing Mr PL who was commenced on Sertraline 50mg 1 OD a year and a
half ago since the passing of his wife. Today Mr PL informs you he feels as though he does
over the last week or so started to wonder if he can come off this medication.
remission?
A. 1 week
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
99. Miss R, has been diagnosed with epilepsy. She has come into the practice to see the GP
after having a seizure yesterday. Whilst having a seizure, she injured herself resulting in
being in severe pain.
What would be the least appropriate analgesic to prescribe to Miss R?
A. Paracetamol
B. Tramadol
C. Codeine
D. Naproxen
100. The MHRA released advice regarding Metoclopramide, in particularly the duration of its
use. The advice reinforces the fact, that prolonged use can possibly cause serious
neurological adverse effects.
How many days should Metoclopramide be prescribed for?
A. Up to 3 days
B. Up to 4 days
C. Up to 5 days
D. Up to 10 days
A. Escitalopram
B. Citalopram
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline
102. Which of the following class of drugs is the most appropriate first line treatment for
depression?
A. Tricyclic Antidepressants
B. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
C. St John’s Wort
D. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
103. Miss S, a 27-year-old woman comes into the pharmacy with a prescription for Priadel
(lithium carbonate) 200mg MR tablets. She states that this is her first time taking this. After
dispensing the prescription, you ask her to come into the consultation room for some
counselling.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of lithium is INCORRECT?
A. Use effective contraception during treatment

B. Reduce the sodium levels in your diet
C. Try to keep your lithium alert card with you
D. Report persistent headache or visual disturbance
E. You will need your BMI, serum electrolyte, eGFR and thyroid functions measured every 6
months during treatment
104. Mr EP, who weighs 65kg, has recently started on phenytoin for the treatment of focal
seizures at a dose of 4mg/kg
What should the total plasma-phenytoin concentration range for optimum response
be?
A. 5-10 micromol/litre
B. 10-20 micromol/litre
C. 10-20 mg/litre
D. 20-25 micromol/litre
E. 15-30 mg/litre
105. in 2018, MHRA published new guidelines on the use of valproate medicines in women
and girls of childbearing potential.
Which of the following statements regarding the MHRA advice on valproate medicines
is INCORRECT?
A. Valproate must not be used in women and girls of childbearing potential unless
conditions of the Pregnancy Prevention Programme or met and only if other treatments
are ineffective or not tolerated
B. Use of valproate in pregnancy is contraindicated for migraine prophylaxis and bipolar
disease
C. Women and girls do not need to be fully informed or the risk and the benefits regarding
valproate medicines in pregnancy but supporting materials must be provided to use in the
implementation of the Pregnancy Prevention Programme
D. Pharmacists must ensure valproate medicines are dispensed in whole packs whenever
possible. All packs dispensed to women and girls of childbearing potential should have a
warning label either on the carton or via a sticker
E. Pharmacists should discuss risks in pregnancy with female patients each time valproate
medicines are dispensed, ensure they have the patient guide and have seen their
GP/specialist to discuss their treatment and the need for contraception
106. What is not one of the psychological symptoms of anxiety?
A. Fear
B. Sweating
C. Worry
D. Irritability
E. Restlessness
107. What is not one of the withdrawal symptoms of benzodiazepines for anxiety?
A. Weight loss
B. Loss of appetite
C. Nystagmus
D. Insomnia
E. Tinnitus
108. You are presented with a prescription for 5-year-old girl, for 500mL Phenobarbital Elixir
BP. The formula for the Elixir is:
▪ Phenobarbital 15mg
▪ Glycerol 0.2mL
▪ Orange syrup 1.0mL
▪ Water to 5mL
How much Phenobarbital would need to fulfil the prescription?
A. 1500g
B. 5.0g
C. 1.5g
D. 15g
E. 10g
109. The MHRA/CHM have published advice on the switching between different
manufacturers’ products. They have divided drugs into three categories.
Which of the following lists shows a CORRECT list of drugs in which it is unnecessary
to maintain the person on a specific manufacturer’s product unless there is patient
anxiety, risk of confusion or dosing errors?
A. Clobazam, gabapentin, lacosamide, phenytoin

B. Clonazepam, gabapentin, phenobarbital, valproate
C. Carbamazepine, ethosuximide, oxcarbazepine, retigabine
D. Gabapentin, lacosamide, levetiracetam, pregabalin
E. Pregabalin, primidone, Topiramate, vigabatrin
110. The MHRA/CHM have published advice on the switching between different
manufacturers’ products. They have divided drugs into three categories.
Which of the following lists shows a CORRECT list of drugs in which doctors are
advised to ensure that their patient is maintained on a specific manufacturer’s
product?
A. Clobazam, gabapentin, lacosamide, phenytoin

B. Carbamazepine, clonazepam, phenytoin, primidone
C. Carbamazepine, ethosuximide oxcarbazepine, retigabine
D. Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone
E. Pregabalin, primidone, Topiramate, vigabatrin
111. Mr P 52-years-old is being treated palliatively after his diagnosis of stage 4 bone
metastasis. For pain relief, he is currently taking:
▪ Morphine Sulphate 60mg BD M/R capsules
▪ Morphine Sulphate 30mg BD M/R capsules
The GP has prescribed oral morphine sulphate solution for Mr P to use for break through
pain, as Mr P is experiencing a little pain between the doses of Morphine.
What dose of morphine sulphate solution 10mg/5mL would you expect to see
prescribed?
A. 18-30mg every 2-4 hours PRN

B. 5-10mg every 4-8 hours PRN
C. 5-10mg every 2-4 hours PRN
D. 30-40mg every 2-4 hours PRN
112. Mr L, 58 years old has come into practice today to see his regular GP. Mr L has recently
been experiencing pain in his back. Below is the list of medication Mr L is currently taking:
▪ Priadel 400mg tablets
▪ Levothyroxine 100mcg tablets
▪ Olanzapine 10mg tablets
What would be the least suitable analgesic to prescribe, considering Mr L’s
medication?
A. Naproxen
B. Paracetamol
C. Codeine
D. Meptazinol
113. Carbamazepine has the potential to cause which electrolyte disturbance?
A. Hyponatraemia
B. Hypokalaemia
C. Hyperkalaemia
D. Hypomagnesaemia
114. You are conducting a polypharmacy medication review with Mrs BT. Upon discussing her
medications, she informs you that she wants to stop her antidepressant medication, as she
feels perfectly fine now. She informs you she was struggling with her mood and was feeling a
little down, but since starting the medication is feeling a lot better, so much better in fact she
feels she can stop. The medication in question is Sertraline.
How long should the Sertraline be continued for after remission, assuming there is not
a high chance of relapse and this is the first episode of depression?
A. At least 1 month
B. At least 3 months
C. At least 6 months
D. At least 18 months
115. You are currently conducting a medication history for Mr Pla Cibo who was admitted to
the ward this morning. You gather that he is currently on:
▪ Tegretol® Prolonged Release 200mg: 1BD
▪ Sertraline 50mg: 1OD
▪ Ramipril 10mg: 1OD
▪ Paracetamol 500mg: 1-2 QDS PRN
He presented being confused, lethargic and generally fatigued. You review his blood results
and find that there is an electrolyte disturbance.
Based on the medication Mr Pla Cibo is taking, and the clinical presentation he
presented with, which electrolyte disturbance is most likely to have occurred?
A. Hypokalaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hyponatraemia
D. Hypocalcaemia
116. A 24-year-old is taking carbamazepine for epilepsy and has recently found out that she is
3 weeks pregnant. She has been seen by the doctor and has had a blood test. There are no
abnormalities.
Which of the following would be most appropriate for the patient?
A. Ferrous sulphate 200mg BD

B. Folic acid 400mcg OD
C. Ferrous gluconate 300mg TDS
D. Folic acid 5mg OD
E. Ferrous fumarate 210mg BD
117. While giving out medication to one of your patients, you notice he is eligible for an MUR.
He is 74 years old and is taking Tolcapone. He states he is experiencing some side effects.
Which of the following side effects is UNLIKELY to be associated with this treatment?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Constipation
C. Diarrhoea
D. Dry mouth
E. Bleeding gums
118. Mr G is a regular patient of yours. He has recently started taking Lithium Carbonate
300mg.
Which of the following monitoring parameters is NOT recommended before initiation
of lithium salts?
A. Renal function
B. Cardiac function
C. Thyroid function
D. Patient’s body weight
E. Hepatic function
119. A newly qualified GP calls you for advice. He would like to know what antidepressants to
give for someone with moderate depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line anti-depressant?
A. Nortriptyline
B. Sertraline
C. Venlafaxine
D. Mirtazapine
E. Dosulepin
120. A 14-year-old girl has been diagnosed with moderate depression. She is starting
antidepressant therapy. She does not have any other medical conditions and has no known
allergies.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line anti-epileptic for the child?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Clobazam
C. Levetiracetam
D. Sodium valproate
E. Topiramate
121. Mr L is a 64-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease. He is admitted to the hospital’s A&E
department following a road traffic collision. The consultant schedules him in for theatre the
following morning to repair his broken arm. He currently takes Co-Beneldopa 25/100 tablets
three times a day. The man is now nil by mouth following the accident.
Since the man is nil by mouth, which of the following advice is most appropriate to
give the nurse?
A. Advise the nurse to withhold the dose as he must not take anything prior to his operation
B. Advise the nurse that they can try but the patient might need a muscle relaxant to help
with his rigidity
C. Convert the patient onto a Rivastigmine patch
D. Convert the patient onto an apomorphine pump
E. The patient can take his co-beneldopa with a small amount of water as this is a critical
medication
122. A patient on your ward has pancreatic cancer and is waiting for surgery. You review the
medical notes and see that the patient also has Parkinson’s disease. The specialist team
suggest the patient will be nil by mouth for a prolonged period and will require an
apomorphine pump. The patient will also require an antiemetic postoperatively.
Which of the following would be most appropriate for the patient?
A. Metoclopramide PO
B. Ondansetron PO
C. Levopromazine S/C
D. Domperidone S/C
E. Promethazine S/C
123. Miss U, 73 years old is new to the practice. You are currently conduction a meds
reconciliation from her previous practice notes. From the notes, you can see that she has
been stabilised on a brand of Lithium Citrate for 20 years, and her bloods from the last 3
years all show Lithium being in range, she also has her annual secondary care mental health
review with the psychiatry team.
How often should Miss U come in for monitoring for her Lithium?
A. 2 weekly
B. Monthly
C. 3 monthly
D. 6 monthly
124. Mr A, 47 years old, has been coming to practice to talk about their ongoing depression.
A. Citalopram
B. Amitriptyline
C. Clozapine
D. Phenelzine
125. You have been informed that Phenelzine is on a long-term manufacturing problem. The
consultant psychiatrist has approached you asking for some advice. They are aware
Phenelzine has a particularly long half-life and wish to know, if they had to switch patients to
another class of antidepressant, say an SSRI, how long should they need to wait before
starting another antidepressant?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
126. Mr P 69-years-old has presented a prescription for Co-Careldopa 25/100mg TDS. He has
been diagnosed with having Parkinson’s disease and has been commenced on this
medication. Mr P asks you what side effects could possibly be related to this medicine.
Which of the following adverse effect is not associated with taking Co-Careldopa?
A. Binge eating
B. Hypersexuality
C. Urine discolouration
D. Dry eyes
127. You are conducting an anti-depressant medication review with Mr PL who is 79 years
old. You have been seeing Mr PL who was commenced on Sertraline 50mg 1OD a year and
a half ago since the passing of his wife. Today Mr PL informs you he feels as though he does
over the last week or so started to wonder if he can come off this medication.
remission?
A. 1 week
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
128. What is the serious skin condition associated with Galantamine?
A. Steven-Johnson Syndrome
B. Seborrhoic eczema
C. Kawasaki Disease
D. Shingles
129. Which one of the drugs below can be used for the treatment of nocturnal enuresis in
children?
A. Citalopram
B. Imipramine
C. Duloxetine
D. Lofepramine
130. Miss P, a 17-year-old girl has been referred to CAHMS to help with her ongoing
persistent sadness and low mood. The specialist has decided to offer pharmacological
therapy alongside the psychological therapy which Miss P is undertaking.
Which of the following is most appropriate to offer as drug treatment to Miss P?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Phenelzine
131. Which of the drugs below is NOT a dopamine receptor agonist?
A. Apomorphine Hydrochloride
B. Bromocriptine
C. Cabergoline
D. Tolcapone
A. Escitalopram
B. Citalopram
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline
133. Mrs P comes into the pharmacy to collect her monthly repeat prescription of medications.
You are chatting away to her and notice that she’s not her usual self and ask if she is okay.
She informs you that she has been putting on weight recently and unsure why. She is not
eating any more than normal and is exercising the same amount and believes it may be
down the medications.
Which of the medications below is likely to have causes Mrs P’s weight gain?
A. Metformin
B. Pizotifen
C. Methylphenidate
D. Paracetamol
134. Which of the following drugs below has both opioid agonist and antagonist properties?
A. Methadone
B. Gabapentin
C. Topiramate
D. Buprenorphine
135. Which of the following anti-epileptics has a long half-life?
A. Perampanel
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Levetiracetam
D. Ethosuximide
136. Mr K 89 years old, has been admitted to the ward. He has admitted due to experiencing
sodium levels?
A. Zopiclone
B. Citalopram
C. Olanzapine
D. Temazepam
137. Which of the following is false regarding Valproate use?
A. Valproate medicines should be dispensed in whole packs

B. Pharmacists should discuss risks in pregnancy with female patients each time valproate
medicines are dispensed
C. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring on plasma-valproate concentrations is
recommended
D. Liver function should be monitored before therapy and during the first 6 months

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Chapter 4 Quiz BNF Central Nervous System

1. Which class of drugs does cimetidine belong to?

7. Which of the following antipsychotics has the lowest risk of Diabetes?

9. Entacapone can colour your urine what colour?

13. How many weeks can it take for Buspirone to work?

A. 18-30mg every 2-4 hours PRN

A. They should maintain an adequate fluid intake

A. Mr R’s Madopar® capsules should be converted to an equivalent dose of dopamine as

38. Mrs T normally takes carbamazepine.

43. Is an antihistamine and serotonin receptor antagonist indicated in the prophylaxis of

A. Tell him to take the prescription elsewhere

A. Contact the prescriber and recommend to reduce the strength of propranolol

55. Which one of the following is an acceptable dose for a Pregabalin?

56. Which of these drugs is an example of an atypical antipsychotic?

A. Refuse to dispense the prescription as you suspect he is opioid dependant

Which of the following is the target serum-lithium concentration that should be

A. Piroxicam should not be used as first-line treatment

72. Which of the following drugs for moderate-severe Alzheimer's disease?

73. What is not one of the physical symptoms anxiety?

75. Mr L, 25-year-old male is admitted to hospital suffering from fluctuating levels of

A. Start an intravenous infusion of soluble insulin

A. Miss SN has gone into anaphylactic reaction

A. Almotriptan 12.5mg tablets

A. 50mg three times a day

87. A 34-year-old woman is taking the following medication:

A. Advise her to carry on taking both medicines

A. An ECG is recommended in patients with cardiovascular disease or risk factors for it

90. Which of the following is true regarding Tramadol?

A. Does not interact with Brimonidine

A. 1 week after stopping MAOI

A. Use effective contraception during treatment

106. What is not one of the psychological symptoms of anxiety?

A. Clobazam, gabapentin, lacosamide, phenytoin

A. Clobazam, gabapentin, lacosamide, phenytoin

A. 18-30mg every 2-4 hours PRN

113. Carbamazepine has the potential to cause which electrolyte disturbance?

A. Ferrous sulphate 200mg BD

128. What is the serious skin condition associated with Galantamine?

131. Which of the drugs below is NOT a dopamine receptor agonist?

135. Which of the following anti-epileptics has a long half-life?

137. Which of the following is false regarding Valproate use?

A. Valproate medicines should be dispensed in whole packs

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