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MICROBIOLOGY SEMESTER QUESTIONS 2020-2021

GENERAL BACTERIOLOGY

• LONG QUESTIONS:
1. What is sterilization? Write down the principle of – a) Autoclaving & b) Fractional sterilization.
[3+3+4=10] [CNMC]
2. Define sterilization and disinfection. Describe briefly the chemical methods of sterilization with
principle. What are the tests used for determining efficacy of disinfectants?
[1+1+5+3=10] [Malda]
3. What is sterilization? What are the different methods of sterilization? How will you sterilize
operation theatre? Name the sporicidal disinfectants. (1+4+3+2= 10) (KPC)

• SHORT NOTES:
1. Bacterial spore [MCK] [NBMC] (BSMC, 4th)
2. Bacterial motility [NRS]
3. R-plasmid [NRS]
4. Bacterial flagella [R G Kar] (RGK, 5th)
5. RCM media [R G Kar]
6. Transformation [R G Kar]
7. Lowenstein Jensen Media [CNMC] [BMC]
8. Transduction [CNMC] [BMC] (JNM, 4th)
9. Conjugation [CMSDH] [Malda]
10. Pasteurization [CMSDH]
11. Bacterial growth curve [BMC] [Murshidabad] [Malda] [KPC]
12. Louis Pasteur [BSMC]
13. Bacterial cell wall [BSMC]
14. Conjugation and its variation [Kalyani]
15. Cold sterilization [NBMC]
16. Blood agar [Murshidabad]
17. Oxidase test [Murshidabad]
18. Anaerobic culture [Malda]
19. OT Sterilization [Midnapore] [KPC]
20. Define and Classify Infection [Midnapore]
21. Gram negative bacterial cell wall [KPC]
22. Autoclave control [JGIMS]
23. Sporicidal disinfectants [JGIMS]
24. Antiseptics [IQ City]
25. Basic mechanisms (only phenotypic) of antibiotic resistance in bacteria [IQ City]
26. Koch’s postulates [ESIC]
27. Mutation (MCK, 5th)
28. Hospital acquired infection (BMC, 5th)
29. Lysogenic conversion (BSMC, 4th)
30. Bacterial capsule (JNM, 4th)
31. Hot air oven (JNM, 4th)
32. Blood agar (Murshidabad, 5th)
33. RT PCR (Midnapore, 5th)
34. Genetic transfer of bacterial resistance (KPC, 5th)
35. Anaerobic bacteria (JIMS, 5th)
36. R Plasmid (JIMS, 5th)
37. Chicken pox [ESIC]

• COMMENT ON:
1. Flagella have different arrangements. [MCK]
2. There are different approaches to classification of bacteria. [MCK]
3. Moist heat is a better sterilizing agent than dry heat. [NRS] [Murshidabad] [Malda] [ESIC]
4. Transposons play an important role in transfer of antimicrobial drug resistance. [NRS]
5. Koch’s postulates have many limitations. [R G Kar]
6. Sterilization of Blood Agar and Chocolate Agar is different from sterilization of all other culture
media. [CNMC]
7. Bacterial gene transfer may occur in different ways. [BSMC]
8. Some disinfectants may act as sterilizing agents. [BSMC]
9. Anaerobiosis can be achieved in RCM medium. [BSMC]
10. Quality control is essential to maintain proper function of autoclave. [NBMC] (RGK, 5th)
11. Importance of Gram stain in clinical Microbiology. [NBMC]
12. MacConkey agar is a selective medium. [Murshidabad]
13. Transport media is necessary for delicate organisms. [Malda]
14. Blood agar does not need sterilization by autoclave. [Midnapore]
15. Antimicrobial resistance can be transferred by bacteriophage. [KPC]
16. Ointments cannot be sterilized in an autoclave. [IQ City]
17. Newborn babies are often given 1% silver nitrate eye drops immediately after birth. [IQ City]
18. Viral replication mechanism differs for different types of viruses. [ESIC]
19. Koch’s postulate has its relevance till today. (BSMC, 4th)
20. Antibiotic abuse is an important cause of evolving resistant strains. (NBMC, 5th)
21. Blood agar is a differential media. (MCK, 4th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Exotoxin and endotoxin. [MCK] [NRS] [R G Kar] [BSMC] [Murshidabad] (CNMC, 5th) (Midnapore,
5th)
2. Tyndallisation and Inspissation. [NRS] [Malda]
3. Cell wall of Gram positive & Gram-negative bacteria. [NRS][RGK][CNMC][CMSDH] [IQ City] [ESIC]
(NRS, 5th) (JIMS, 5th)
4. Flagella and Fimbriae. [IPGMER] (BSMC, 4th)
5. Enriched media and Enrichment media. [CNMC] [Murshidabad]
6. Sterilization and disinfection. [Kalyani] [ESIC]
7. Mutational and transferable drug resistance. [Kalyani]
8. Transcription and Translation. [Malda]
9. Cold Sterilization and Hot Sterilization. [Midnapore]
10. Toxin and Toxoid. [JGIMS]
11. Transposon and Insertion sequence. [IQ City]
12. High-level disinfection and sterilization. [IQ City]
13. Transformation and transduction (NRS, 5th)
14. Selective and Enrichment media (Murshidabad, 5th)
15. Dry heat vs Moist heat in sterilization (JIMS, 5th)

IMMUNOLOGY

• LONG QUESTIONS:
1. Define antigen and draw a schematic diagram of IgG antibody. Describe the different pathways of
complement activation using flow diagram. How the complement activation is controlled?
[1+2+5+2=10] [R G Kar]
2. Define Hypersensitivity. What are the different types of Hypersensitivity? Discuss briefly Type 1
Hypersensitivity with examples and mechanism of action. [2+3+5=10] [NBMC]
3. Answer the following: [2+3+5=10]
a) Define hypersensitivity.
b) Classify them.
c) Discuss type IV hypersensitivity. [Murshidabad]
4. What is hypersensitivity? Classify hypersensitivity reactions. Write in detail about type I reaction.
[2+3+5=10] [Malda]
5. Define hypersensitivity. Classify hypersensitivity reactions with relevant examples. Describe
briefly the mechanism of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction with appropriate diagrams.
[1+5+4=10] [ESIC]

• SHORT NOTES:
1. T-helper lymphocyte [MCK]
2. Type IV hypersensitivity [MCK] [BSMC] (CNMC, 5th)
3. Type I hypersensitivity [NRS]
4. Type II hypersensitivity [IPGMER] (NRS, 5th) (KPC, 5th)
5. IgM [CNMC] [BMC]
6. Agglutination reaction [BSMC]
7. Superantigen [NBMC]
8. Secretory IgA [Malda]
9. Type I hypersensitivity reactions [KPC]
10. Serum sickness [JGIMS]
11. IgA / Structure & function of IgA (MCK, 4th) (MCK, 5th) (BSMC, 4th)
12. ELISA (principle, types & application) (NBMC, 5th)
13. Serum sickness (Midnapore, 5th)
14. Precipitation test (MCK, 4th)

• COMMENT ON:
1. Optimum concentration of antigen and antibody are required for precipitation to occur. [MCK]
2. Unrelated antigens may be used in diagnostic tests for bacterial infections. [NRS]
3. T cell and B cell co-operation are required for a proper immune response. [IPGMER]
4. Macrophages have multiple functions. [IPGMER]
5. Alternative pathway of complete activation is most primitive. [CNMC]
6. Sometimes self-antigens may lead to certain diseases. [BSMC]
7. C3 plays the pivotal role in many ways in complement activation. [NBMC] [Malda]
8. Antigenicity depends on many factors. [Murshidabad]
9. Complements help in innate immunity. [Murshidabad]
10. T helper cells have a major role in immune response. [Malda]
11. Macrophage is link between innate and acquired immune response. [Midnapore]
12. Hapten can be converted to antigen. [KPC]
13. Capsulated bacteria need to be opsonized for macrophage adhesion. [JGIMS]
14. Molecular mimicry plays an important role in autoimmune disorders. [ESIC]
15. T lymphocytes play significant role in cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity. (CNMC, 5th)
16. Activation of complement occurs in various ways. (JNM, 4th)
17. T cell has got important role in immune response. (Murshidabad, 5th)
18. NK cells play a great role in identifying virus infected cells. (Midnapore, 5th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Innate & acquired/adaptive immunity. [MCK] [BSMC] [Midnapore]
2. CD4 and CD8 T lymphocyte. [IPGMER] [JGIMS]
3. Active immunity and passive immunity. [BMC] [NBMC] (JNM, 4th)
4. Classical and alternative complement pathway. [BSMC]
5. Precipitation & Agglutination test. [Murshidabad] [KPC] (RGK, 5th) (BSMC, 4th) (Murshidabad, 5th)
6. Primary immune response and Secondary immune response. [Malda]
7. T cells and B cells. [KPC]
8. T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes (MCK, 5th)
9. Atopy and Anaphylaxis (BMC, 5th)
10. Antigen and happen (KPC, 5th)

SYSTEMIC BACTERIOLOGY

• LONG QUESTIONS:
1. A large no. of people of different ages and both sexes attended the hospital OPD with complaints
of diarrhea and abdominal cramps. They all attended and had food at a wedding ceremony the
night before. [1+3+6=10]
What is your provisional diagnosis? Name the bacteria responsible for such a case. How will you
proceed for laboratory diagnosis of such a case? [MCK]
2. A 40-year-old soldier was brought to the hospital with complaint of pain and tenderness in his left
leg where he had sustained a battle wound. On examination his left leg was blackish, edematous,
foul smelling, on palpation crepitus could be felt. [1+3+6 = 10]
What is your diagnosis? Name the bacteria responsible for the case. How will you proceed for
laboratory diagnosis of such a case? [MCK]
3. A ten years old child has been brought to the OPD with fever for last 3 days and sore throat with
difficulty in swallowing. On examination the child had 100o C temperature, throat was congested,
cervical lymph nodes were enlarged and tender and pus points seen over tonsillar follicles.
[2+1+5+2=10]
a) What may be the clinical diagnosis?
b) Name the bacterium causing this condition.
c) How will you proceed to identify the agent?
d) Name two important non-suppurative complications caused by this bacterium. [NRS]
4. A 25-year-old female was brought to the hospital who has been suffering from fever and
weakness for last 10 days. Physical examination revealed raised body temperature with relative
bradycardia, coated tongue, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. [1+1+6+2=10]
a) Write the probable clinical diagnosis.
b) Name the probable causative bacterium.
c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of such a case.
d) Mention how occurrence of such disease can be prevented. [NRS]

5. Avishek a 10 years old unvaccinated boy presented with step ladder type of fever with
splenomegaly, relative bradycardia and rose spots over anterior chest wall. [1+2+5+2=10]
What is the clinical diagnosis? Name the most likely etiologic agents responsible for this
condition? How will you confirm your diagnosis in the laboratory? Mention the prophylactic
measures available against this condition. [R G Kar]
6. A 9-year-old child is brought to the chest clinic with a history of contact in the family and
unresolved cough of more than three weeks not responding to antibiotics, moderate evening rise
of temperature with night sweats, anorexia and weight loss. St X ray chest shows a lesion in lung
with hilar lymphadenopathy. [1+1+3+5=10]
a) What may be the possible clinical diagnosis?
b) What may be the possible etiologic agent/s?
c) Discuss the immunopathogenesis of the disease.
d) Briefly outline laboratory diagnosis of this case. [IPGMER]
7. A 40-year-old man has been brought to the trauma care center triage room in an unconscious
state with a deep penetrating wound in the right thigh following road traffic accident injury. The
wound is painful and tender and shows foul smelling serosanguinous discharge and spongy
crepitations in surrounding tissue. [1+1+3+5=10]
a) What is the likely clinical diagnosis?
b) What are the likely etiologic agents?
c) Discuss the pathogenesis of the condition.
d) Briefly outline the laboratory diagnosis of the condition. [IPGMER]
8. A 40-year-old man presents with cough, fever and chest pain for last 5 days. Gram’s staining of
sputum shows presence of lanceolate shaped gram positive diplococcic. [2+2+3+3=10]
a) What is the probable disease?
b) What is the probable name of the causative organism?
c) Give the outline of laboratory diagnosis.
d) How do you prevent this infection? [CNMC]
9. A 10-year-old boy presents with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, high fever and
constipation for 10 days. Physical examination revealed coated tongue, hepato-splenomegaly and
abdominal tenderness. [1+2+3+4=10]
What is your provisional diagnosis? What may be the causative agents? Give a schematic
diagram of the pathogenesis of this infection. How will you proceed with the laboratory
confirmation of the same? [CMSDH]
10. A 47-year-old village woman presents with acute onset of sore throat with neck swelling and low-
grade fever. Physical examination revealed adherent white patch extending from the uvula to the
pharyngeal wall. [2+3+3+2=10]
What is the most probable diagnosis and the bacterial etiology? Describe the pathogenesis
of the disease spectrum. How will you proceed with the laboratory confirmation? What is the
vaccination strategy of this disease? [CMSDH]
11. A 12 years old child is brought to OPD with complain of fleeting joint pain and fever. He had history
of sore throat 3 weeks back. [1+1+4+4=10]
a) What is the probable diagnosis?
b) Name the causative organism responsible for this condition.
c) Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition. [BMC]
12. As a medical officer you are supposed to investigate a diarrheal outbreak. Mention the etiological
agents responsible for such condition. Discuss the collection and transport of such specimen and
the steps to be followed in the laboratory to arrive at a diagnosis.
[2+2+6=10] [BMC]
13. A 4 yrs. old boy was brought to the BSMCH Emergency with acute onset of high fever, headache,
photophobia, neck rigidity and occasional convulsions. [1+2+6+1=10]
What is your clinical diagnosis of this case? Name the possible bacterial etiological agents
responsible for this condition. How will you proceed to confirm bacterial agent in the laboratory?
Name commonly used two drugs for treatment of this case. [BSMC]
14. A 24 yrs. old lady with known rheumatic valvular heart disease presented with fever, malaise,
weakness and anorexia. She gave a history of tooth extraction two weeks back. Clinical
examination reveals systolic cardiac murmur and splinter hemorrhage on nail beds. [1+2+6+1]
What is the possible clinical diagnosis and common etiological agents? Briefly discuss the
laboratory diagnosis to establish the etiological agent. What precaution to be taken before tooth
extraction in the case. [BSMC]
15. A few patients from a nearby village have been brought to the OPD with complaints of watery
diarrhea and vomiting. The characteristic feature of the stool was rice watery. [1+1+6+2=10]
What is your provisional diagnosis? What is the causative agent? Discuss the laboratory
diagnosis of this condition. Describe the epidemiology of the disease. [Kalyani]
16. An eight-year-old boy was brought to hospital emergency with fever, asphyxia and toxemia. On
examination a greyish white patch is found over the faucial area. [1+1+6+2=10]
What is your most probable provisional diagnosis? Name the causative organism. How will you
proceed to do laboratory diagnosis? Describe the immunoprophylaxis of the disease. [Kalyani]
17. An 8-year-old boy develops a severe sore throat and attended OPD. On examination, a grayish
membrane and exudates are seen over the tonsils and pharynx, any attempt to remove the
membrane exposes & tears the capillaries and thus results in bleeding. [1+1+6+2]
a) What may be the clinical diagnosis?
b) What is the etiological agent of the clinical condition?
c) How will you proceed to confirm the case in laboratory?
d) Discuss briefly on immunoprophylaxis against the disease. [NBMC]

18. a) Name two important bacteria causing pyogenic infection. [2+3+5=10]


b) What is the gram staining findings of them?
c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them. [Murshidabad]
19. A young adult female patient was admitted to hospital with intense headache, abdominal
discomfort and remittent type fever with gradual rise in step ladder pattern for 7 days. On
examination she had toxic looks with temperature of 101o F, with mild splenomegaly.
What is the probable clinical diagnosis? Write down etiological agents causing this condition.
How do you collect blood sample and describe lab diagnosis? Write down vaccination available
for this clinical condition. [1+2+(2+3) +2=10] [Midnapore]
20. A 30 years old male patient had undergone Laparotomy operation. After 5 days he was
complaining of fever along with pus discharge along the stitch line. [1+2+5+2=10]
What is your probable clinical diagnosis? Write down common etiological agents causing this
condition. Write down lab diagnosis of the most common causative agent causing this condition.
What do you mean by nosocomial infection? [Midnapore]
21. A 7-year-old girl presented to OPD of KPCMCH with a history of remittent fever for last 5 days
which increases gradually in a step-ladder pattern. She had weakness, lack of appetite and
lethargy. On examination she had 102o F temperature, coated tongue, relative bradycardia and
hepatosplenomegaly. [1+1+5+3=10]
a) What is the provisional diagnosis?
b) What is the causative agent?
c) Write down the laboratory diagnosis of this case.
d) What are the preventive measures?
[KPC]
22. A patient with nail prick injury in the street is brought to the emergency of KPCMCH with severe
spasm of muscles of neck and back. On examination, he is found to have fever with severe spasms
of neck, abdomen and back. [1+1+3+3+2=10]
a) What is the provisional diagnosis?
b) What is the causative agent?
c) Write down the pathogenesis.
d) Write down the laboratory diagnosis of this case. [KPC]
23. Hospital Infection Control Audit shows a sudden increase in number of ‘Surgical Site Infection’.
a) What are the aerobic cocci associated with these types of infection?
b) How will you confirm the diagnosis?
c) How will you show that the same type of cocci associated with all the infections?
d) What screening test you will order to prove that the cocci are MRSA? [2+5+1+2=10] [JGIMS]
24. A 55 years old male patient, a Tripler by nature, comes to the OPD on boxing day with complaints
of sudden high rise of temperature with chill and rigor and chest pain over left side. On
examination bronchial breath sound and leathery rub were noted over left side of chest. X-ray
shows ground glass appearance observed over the same lung fields. [1+1+5+1+2=10]
a) What is the most probable Clinical Diagnosis?
b) What are the bacteria responsible for this condition?
c) How a bacteriological diagnosis is achieved in this case?
d) In what way such an isolate differs from the commensals of the same bacteria?
e) What immune-prophylaxis you like to suggest for this man? [JGIMS]
25. A 35-year-old, previously healthy man is brought to Emergency by his family members with a
history of fever, severe headache and increasing confusion developing over the past one day.
Examination reveals neck rigidity; he also has a purpuric rash which is most prominent under the
elastic waistband of his underwear. His heart rate is 130/minute and blood pressure are 90/60
mm Hg. [1+2+2+3+2=10]
Lumbar puncture yields turbid CSF under increased pressure. The diagnostic laboratory
reports a CSF cell count of 7,500/µl with 90% polymorphonuclear cells, CSF glucose of 30 mg/dl
and CSF protein of 270 mg/dl. The microbiology laboratory says will take another two hours to
issue their report. [IQ City]
Which bacterium is the most likely to give rise to this clinical picture? Draw a colored picture
of the microscopic appearance of a Gram-stained smear of CSF from this patient. Name two of its
most important virulence factors of this organism. Name three methods for establishing its
presence in CSF. Name two methods for preventing infection with this organism?
26. A 30-year-old, previously healthy woman comes to the Medicine OPD complaining of high-grade
fever, cough with rusty sputum, breathlessness and pain over the right side of the chest, all of
which have developed over the past one day. The right infraaxillary and infrascapular areas of the
chest reveal bronchial breath sounds and dullness on percussion. Her TLC is 21,000/µl with 85%
neutrophils. [1+1+1+4+1+2=10]
Name a bacterium which is an important cause of this clinical picture. Name another body
site that can be infected by this bacterium. What is the reservoir of this organism? How can you
establish a bacteriological diagnosis of this infection? Name one antibiotic that can be used to
treat this infection. How can you prevent this infection? [IQ City]
27. A 23 years old male was admitted 5 days after road traffic accident. On examination, the wound
appeared heavily contaminated with soil, local muscles were crushed, there was edema and pain
at wound site and crepitus was felt upon palpation. [1+2+2+5=10]
What can be the probable diagnosis? Name the causative bacterial agent(s). Describe the
pathogenesis of this condition. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis in such a case. [ESIC]
28. A 10-year-old boy presents to the ENT OPD with a history of fever and sore throat. On clinical
examination, inflamed tonsils with pus points are seen along with enlarged deep cervical lymph
nodes. Enumerate the possible etiologic agents for this condition and, give a brief account on lab
diagnosis. What are the non-suppurative sequelae of the most common etiologic agent of this
condition? [2+5+3=10] (IPGMER, 5th)
29. A 35-year-old male has been brought to the hospital emergency suffering from fever and
weakness for last ten days. Physical examination revealed raised body temperature, relative
bradycardia, coated tongue, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly.
a) What may be the probable clinical diagnosis?
b) Name the causative bacterial agents.
c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of such a case.
d) Mention how occurrence of such disease can be prevented. [1+2+5+2=10] (NRS, 5th)

30. A 10 yrs. old boy was brought to the emergency with history of passage of Rice watery stool with
effortless vomiting. What is the most probable diagnosis? Name the causative organisms. Describe
the laboratory diagnosis of the above disease. Describe the different preventive measures of the
disease. [1+1+5+3=10] (RG KAR 5th)

31. A young adult with continuous fever, slight hepatosplenomegaly and costed tongue. (CNMC 5th)

a) What may be the etiology of this case? by How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis? (2+8=10)

32. A middle aged female was brought to OPD with history of fever and burning sensation during
micturition: a) What is the clinical condition? b) What are the bacteria responsible for it? e) How will
you diagnose it in the laboratory? [1-3+6=10] (MURSHIDABAD 5th)

33. Paresh, a 28 years old male, attended the chest OPD with complaints of low-grade fever, loss of
weight and appetite and chronic cough with expectoration for last 6 months.

a) What is your clinical diagnosis?


b) Name the causative organism/s in this case.

c) How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis in this case?

[1+1+8=10] (Bankura 4th)

34. A child has been brought to the hospital emergency with passage of rice water stool and severe
dehydration with tachycardia and feeble pulse.

a) What is your clinical diagnosis?

b) Write down the pathogenesis of the disease.

c) How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis of the disease?

[1+3+6=10] (Bankura 4th)

35.A person is suffering from fever for last 1 month. The temperature comes in the evening. The
patient has h/o cough and hemoptysis. Xray picture shows congestion of lower lobe of right lung.

I)What is your provisional diagnosis?

ii) Name and classify the causative agent.

iii) What are the investigations for confirmation of diagnosis? (1+1+3+5=10) (KPC 5th)

36. A 45-year-old man came to the hospital OPD with history of cough with expectoration for
duration last two weeks. He was complaining of intermittent evening rise of temperature and occasional
hemoptysis.

a) What is your provisional diagnosis.

b) Name the causative bacteria.

c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the condition.

d) Name the vaccine available for the disease.

(1+1+7+1= 10) (JNM, 5th)

37. A 3 years old child presents to the OPD with acute sore throat, dysphagia, salivation & mild fever.
On examination an adherent thick grayish patch is found over the tonsil & oropharynx which bleeds on
removal.

a) What is the clinical condition?

b) What are the causative bacteria?

c) How will you collect the sample & proceed for Laboratory diagnosis?
d) What the method of prevention of such infection? (1+1+6+2=10) (JNM, 5th)

• SHORT NOTES:
1. Tube coagulase test [MCK]
2. Coagulase test [NRS]
3. Elek’s gel precipitation test [R G Kar]
4. Pathogenesis of Tetanus [IPGMER]
5. Classification of Streptococci [IPGMER]
6. MRSA [IPGMER] [NBMC]
7. Post Streptococcal sequalae [CNMC]
8. Recent diagnostic methods of Tuberculosis [CMSDH]
9. HACEK [CMSDH]
10. Satellitism [Kalyani] (BSMC, 4th)
11. Non tubercular Mycobacteria or Atypical mycobacteria [Kalyani] [Midnapore] (NRS, 5th)
12. Scrub typhus [Kalyani] (RGK, 5th) (JNM, 4th) (KPC, 5th)
13. Gonococcal urethritis [Murshidabad]
14. Significant bacteriuria [Midnapore]
15. Mantoux test/ Tuberculin test [JGIMS] (CNMC, 5th) (BMC, 5th)
16. Staphylococcal food poisoning [IQ City]
17. Diphtheria toxin [IQ City]
18. Heterophile agglutination test [ESIC]
19. Bacterial causes of infective endocarditis [ESIC]
20. Nongonococcal urethritis (MCK, 5th) (JIMS, 5th)
21. Vi antigen of S. Typhi and its importance (IPGMER, 5th)
22. Basics of lab diagnosis of Enteric Fever – Enumerate different Culture and Serology methods
(IPGMER, 5th)
23. BCG Vaccine (RGK, 5th)
24. Enterococcus faecalis (JIMS, 5th)
25. Wilda Test (JIMS, 5th)

• COMMENT ON:
1. Swarming can be inhibited. [MCK]
2. Bacteria can cause sexually transmitted disease. (MCK, 4th)
3. Escherichia coli can cause GI tract infection. (MCK, 4th)
4. All diphtheria bacilli are not toxigenic. [NRS] (BSMC, 4th)
5. Tetanus is a preventable disease. [R G Kar]
6. Diarrhea may occur following Escherichia coli infection. [R G Kar]
7. Staphylococcus aureus may cause many toxin mediated conditions. [R G Kar]
8. Isolation of diphtheroid morphology bacteria in the throat does not necessarily mean that it is
Corynebacterium diphtheriae. [IPGMER]
9. Gram stain is of importance in the diagnosis of sore throat. [IPGMER]
10. Disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus can be classified into two groups. [CNMC]
11. Food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus may be early onset or late onset. [CNMC]
12. Non fermenting Gram-negative bacilli may have pathogenic potential. [CMSDH]
13. Colony count is important in diagnosis of bacterial UTI. [CMSDH]
14. Presence of Gram-negative diplococci in genital discharge from female patient should be
interpreted with caution. [CMSDH]
15. Pathogenesis of gas gangrene is polymicrobial in nature. [CMSDH] [Kalyani]
16. VDRL test is confirmatory for diagnosis of syphilis. [BMC]
17. M. leprae follows Koch’s postulate. [BMC]
18. Anaerobic bacteria play a vital role in contaminated wounds after a road traffic accident. [BMC]
19. Mantoux test is diagnostic of active tuberculosis. [BMC]
20. Standard test for Syphilis cannot confirm Syphilis. [Kalyani]
21. Single Widal test may not be helpful for the diagnosis of enteric fever. [Kalyani] (JNM, 4th)
22. Proper collection of urine sample is essential for diagnosis of Urinary tract infection. [Kalyani]
23. Rheumatic fever occurs as a result of repeated infection with Streptococcal species. [NBMC]
24. ASO titer has no value in diagnosis of Post Streptococcal glomerulonephritis. [Midnapore]
25. VDRL has better prognostic value than other test in Syphilis. [Midnapore]
26. Atypical mycobacteria have gained importance after advent of HIV. [KPC]
27. Post streptococcal infection can cause serious diseases. [KPC]
28. CPC (Cetylpyridinium chloride) is the best liquefaction agent of sputum. [JGIMS]
29. Sputum microscopy is the hallmark of diagnosis of tuberculosis of lung. [JGIMS]
30. ASO titer may not rise appreciably in spite of streptococcal infection. [JGIMS]
31. Low levels of antibodies against Streptolysin O can be detected in the blood of many healthy
people. [IQ City]
32. Isolation of Staphylococcus epidermidis from a single blood culture is usually not taken seriously.
[IQ City]
33. Diagnostic methods for Enteric fever differ according to the duration of fever. [ESIC]
34. Bacterial colony count is necessary for proper reporting of urinary tract infection. (MCK, 5th)
35. VDRL is not a specific test for syphilis. (NRS, 5th) / VDRL positivity does not necessarily mean
Treponema pallidum infection. (JNM, 4th)
36. Anaerobic bacteria need special culture techniques. (NRS, 5th)
37. Serological tests may help in diagnosis of congenital syphilis. (RGK, 5th)
38. Chlamydia trachomatis can cause sexually transmitted disease. (RGK, 5th)
39. Animal pathogenicity test is absolutely required for identification of Clostridium tetani. (CNMC,
5th)
40. Weil-Felix test is a heterophile agglutination test. (BSMC, 4th)
41. For the diagnosis of infective conditions, a rise in titer of antibodies is more meaningful. (BSMC,
4th)
42. Though a commensal in GI tract, E. coli may cause diarrhea. (JNM, 4th)
43. Gram staining of CSF has got important role in diagnosis of meningitis. (Murshidabad, 5th)
44. Diagnosis of tuberculosis by acid fast stain may lead to false positivity. (Midnapore, 5th)
45. Diarrhea may be caused by varieties of bacteria. (KPC, 5th)
46. Widal test sometimes gives anamnestic reaction. (JIMS, 5th)
47. Usually, for Streptococcus pyogenes isolate from acute tonsilitis cases, antibiogram is not done.
(JIMS, 5th)
48. Mycoplasma is resistant to ‘beta-lactam’ group of antibiotics. (JIMS, 5th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Pneumococcus & viridians streptococcus. [MCK] [CMSDH]
2. Anthrax bacilli and Anthracoid bacilli. [R G Kar] [Kalyani] [NBMC] (RGK, 5th) (BSMC, 4th)
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Atypical Mycobacteria. [IPGMER]
4. Enterococcus and Group D Streptococcus. [CNMC]
5. Staphylococcus and Micrococcus. [CMSDH]
6. Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Diphtheroids. [BMC] [ESIC]
7. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. [BMC]
8. EPEC and ETEC. [NBMC]
9. Bound coagulase and Free coagulase. [Midnapore]
10. El Tor Vibrio and Classical Vibrio. [Midnapore] [KPC] (JNM, 4th)
11. VDRL and RPR tests. [JGIMS] (IPGMER, 5th)
12. Staphylococcus aureus and Coagulase negative Staphylococcus (JNM, 4th)
13. Multibacillary leprosy and paucibacillary leprosy (NBMC, 5th)
14. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis (Murshidabad, 5th)
15. Streptococcus viridans vs Streptococcus pneumoniae (Midnapore, 5th)

VIROLOGY

• LONG QUESTIONS:
1. A 43 years old dental surgeon presented to Medicine OPD with low grade fever and oral thrush. He
has a history of unexplained chronic diarrhea, malaise, fatigue and weight loss of around 10 Kg within
a month.

a) What is the most probable underlying disease that may have resulted in such condition?
b) How will you proceed for laboratory investigation for diagnosis?
c) What are the prognostic indicators for prediction of the severity of the disease?
d) Mention the prophylactic measures that can be undertaken to prevent transmission of disease in
health care workers following an accidental exposure? [1+4+2+3= 10] (MCK, 5th)

2. A 65-year-old patient was brought to the OPD with high grade fever, malaise & respiratory distress.

a) Name the viruses that are responsible for such a condition.


b) How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis of such a case? [3+7=10] (MCK, 4th)

3. Describe the morphology of human immunodeficiency virus. Give a brief account on pathogenesis
and mode of transmission of HIV/AIDS. Name some opportunistic infections associated with the disease.
2+3+3+2=10 (BURDWAN 5th)

4. A 45-year male, night guard by profession attended OPD of our hospital with complains of
alternate day fever with chills and rigor for last 6 days. On examination he was pale and had mild
hepatosplenomegaly. [1+2+5+2 = 10] (NRS)

I)What is your probable diagnosis?

ii) What are the causative agents?

iii) How will you establish your diagnosis in the laboratory?

iv) What are the complications associated with the disease condition?

5. A 15-Year-old boy presented with high grade fever, body ache, maculopapular rashes and
thrombocytopenia. He eventually had rapid and weak pulse along with cold and clammy extremities.
a) What is your Probable diagnosis?

b) Write down the Pathogenesis of the disease

c) Enumerate the laboratory diagnosis of the disease.

[1+5+4 =10] (MIDNAPUR 5th)

6. A middle aged person was brought to the emergency with fever and sudden loss of consciousness. He
had a history of fever, weakness, gradual weight loss and swelling in the axilla and inguinal region. He
has HIV seropositive report.

I) Name the fungal infection which may give rise to such condition?

ii) Describe the pathogenesis of this disease

iii) How will proceed to confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory?

[1+4+5=10] (NBMC 5th)


7. 16 years boy presented with mild fever, malaise, loss of appetite and yellowish discoloration of eyes.
He had a recent history of injury 2 months back, treated by injections and wound repair in a clinic.

I) What is the clinical condition?

ii) What is / are the etiological agent/s?

iii) How will you establish the laboratory diagnosis?

iv) What prophylaxis could have been offered to prevent the condition?

[1+1+6+2= 10] (Bankura 5th)

8. A 40-year-old truck driver presented with low grade fever, severe weight loss, night sweats and
diarrhea for last 2 months. He has had history of unprotected sexual exposure What is your probable
diagnosis? What are the causative agents of diarrhea in this patient? Which national strategy is
applicable m this case? Write in brief about the laboratory diagnosis. (1+2+1+6=10) (CMSDH 5th)

• SHORT NOTES:
1. Serological markers of HBV (NRS, 5th) (JNM, 5th) (NBMC, 5th)
2. Rabies vaccine (NRS, 5th)
3. COVID-19 / COVID-19 Virus / SARS CoV - 2 (RGK, 5th) (CMSDH, 5th) (JNM, 5th)
4. Viral cultivation methods (CMSDH, 5th)
5. Interferon (BMC, 5th)
6. Antigenic shift (BSMC, 5th)
7. Post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) in Rabies (BSMC, 5th)
8. Negri bodies (Murshidabad, 5th)
9. Oncogenic viruses (Midnapore, 5th)
10. Causative agent, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19 (KPC, 5th)
11. Window period in HIV infection (JIMS, 5th)

• COMMENT ON:
1. Cultivation of virus needs special techniques. (MCK, 5th)
2. Influenza virus is associated with antigenic variation. (NRS, 5th)
3. Different strategies are followed for laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection. (RGK, 5th)
4. Some viruses are oncogenic. (CMSDH, 5th)
5. Following emergence of avian influenza in a poultry farm culling of birds is mandatory to prevent
pandemic influenza. (CMSDH, 5th)
6. Influenza virus has potential to cause pandemic. (BMC, 5th)
7. RT-PCR is more reliable than ELISA for diagnosis of Hepatitis C virus infection. (BMC, 5th)
8. Viral infection may result in malignancy. (BSMC, 5th)
9. Secondary dengue infection may be life threatening. (JNM, 5th)
10. Viral samples should always be transported in Viral transport medium (VTM). (NBMC, 5th)
11. Antigenic shift in influenza is more harmful than antigenic drift. (Midnapore, 5th)
12. Serological tests of nursing staffs with accidental needle prick injury are mandatory. (KPC, 5th)
13. Several viruses are included in the list of ‘opportunistic infection agents’ in AIDS. (JIMS, 5th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Street virus & fixed virus. (MCK, 5th) (CMSDH, 5th) (BMC, 5th)
2. OPV and IPV (CNMC, 5th) (BSMC, 5th) (JIMS, 5th)
3. Antigenic shift and antigenic drift. (JNM, 5th) / Antigenic shift vs Antigenic drift in Influenza A virus
(JIMS, 5th)
4. Encephalitis by JE virus vs Herpes simplex 2 (JIMS, 5th)
5. Picorna Virus & Reo Virus (MCK, 4th)
6. Diploid cell culture & Continuous cell culture (MCK, 4th)

PARASITOLOGY

• LONG QUESTIONS:
1. A 10 yrs. old boy admitted to emergency with history of high fever more than 104°F severe
headache, convulsion and delirium. Microscopy of CSF did not show any pus cell or
microorganism. Peripheral blood smear showed a few gametocytes in RBC when stained by
Giemsa. The patient died 6 hrs. later.
a) What is the most likely diagnosis of this condition?
b) Name the most probable causative agent.
c) How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis of such a case?
d) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease.
e) How will you prevent transmission of infection in the community?
[1+1+3+3+2=10] (MCK, 5th)
2. A middle-aged man residing in a slum area of Kolkata presented to the Medicine OPD with daily
onset spiky fever with chills, rigor and subsiding with sweating since last 10 days. Clinically mild
anemia and mild hepatomegaly are present. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis and
enumerate the possible etiologic agents of this condition? Describe the laboratory diagnostic
approach with appropriate supporting diagrams of the morphologic forms present in peripheral
blood smear of this patient. (1+2+4+3(diagrams)) =10) (IPGMER, 5th)

3. A child complained of itching around the anus. He has several siblings all staying in the same room.
a) Name one parasite that may be responsible for such a condition.
b) Describe its life cycle with a diagram.
c) How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis?
d) What prophylactic measures you should take to prevent infection in siblings?
[1+4+3+2=10] (MCK, 4th)

4. A 45-year male, night guard by profession attended OPD of our hospital with complains of alternate
day fever with chills and rigor for last 6 days. On examination he was pale and had mild
hepatosplenomegaly.

a) What is your probable diagnosis?


b) What are the causative agents?
c) How will you establish your diagnosis in the laboratory?
d) What are the complications associated with the disease condition? [1+2+5+2=10] (NRS, 5th)

5. 30 yrs. old labor worker came to OPD with H/o prolonged fever for 2 months with enlargement of
abdomen, blackening of skin and greyish discoloration of hair. A huge hepatosplenomegaly found on
clinical examination. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case? Name the etiological agent.
Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of such infection. [1+1+3+5=10] (BURDWAN 5th)

6. A male patient from Bihar attended OPD with fever, anemia, huge splenomegaly for last 6 months.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Which Protozoa is the most probable etiological agent? Describe
the immunopathogenesis of this disease. How will you diagnose the case in the laboratory?
[1+1+3+5=10] (RG KAR 5th)

7. One middle aged male patient came to the OPD with history of alternate day fever with chill and rigor:
a) What is the clinical condition? b) What are the parasites responsible for it? e) How will you diagnose it
in the laboratory? [2+2+6=10] (Murshidabad 5th)

8. A middle aged man presented with Intermittent fever associated with chill and rigor for last 10 days.
Fever subsided with sweating within a few hours. On examination, he was found to be anemic and have
mild hepatomegaly.

a) What might be the most probable clinical condition?

b) Enumerate the probable etiological agents.

C) What may be the mode of transmission?

d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of such condition?

[1+2+1+6 =10] (Midnapur 5th)


9. A man of 45 years complains of sudden onset of fever with chills and rigor. The fever subsides with
sweating after a few hours. On examination, he revealed mild hepatosplenomegaly.

I) What is the clinical condition?

ii) What are the etiological agents?

iii) Which are the vectors transmitting the agents?

iv) How will you diagnose the case in the laboratory?

[1+2+1+6=10] (Bankura 5th)

10.A 10-year-old boy presented with high grade fever with chill and rigor for last 3 days and two episodes
of convulsion. What is your probable diagnosis? What is the causative organism? Describe the life-cycle
of the parasite in the definitive host. How will you confirm the diagnosis in laboratory?
(1+1+3+5=10) (CMSDH, 5th)

• SHORT NOTES:
1. Floatation and Sedimentation methods of stool microscopic diagnosis (IPGMER, 5th)
2. Methods of Malaria transmission (IPGMER, 5th)
1. Free living amoeba (CNMC, 5th) (JNM, 5th)
3. Giardia lamblia (CMSDH, 5th)
4. Cysticercosis (BMC, 5th)
5. Hydatid cyst (BSMC, 5th)
6. Extra intestinal amoebiasis (NBMC, 5th)
7. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (NBMC, 5th)
8. L. D. Bodies (Murshidabad, 5th)

• COMMENT ON:
1. Some ova are bile stained. (MCK, 5th)
2. Parasites causing diarrhea (IPGMER, 5th)
3. Pathogenic and non-pathogenic protozoa found in stool in man (IPGMER, 5th)
4. Differentiate between the adult of Taenia solium and Taenia saginata (IPGMER, 5th)
5. Examination of gravid segment of Taenia helps in identification of species. (NRS, 5th)
6. Surgical intervention may be required in complication of Ascaris lumbricoides. (CNMC, 5th)
7. In all cases of filariasis peripheral blood smear is not helpful. (CMSDH, 5th)
8. Relapse cannot occur in Plasmodium falciparum malaria. (BMC, 5th)
9. Hookworm infestation can cause severe anemia. (BSMC, 5th)
10. Taenia solium infestation is more dangerous than Taenia saginata infestation. (BSMC, 5th)
11. Relapse seen in BT malaria but not in MT malaria. (JNM, 5th)
12. Auto infection can occur in certain helminthic infection. (JNM, 5th) (NBMC, 5th)
13. Free living Amoeba are important cause of CNS infection. (NBMC, 5th)
14. Taenia solium has two infective forms. (Murshidabad, 5th)
15. CNS infection may be caused by amoeba other than E. histolytica. (Midnapore, 5th)
16. In malaria, antigen could be detected in peripheral blood even after successful treatment with
schizonticidal drug. (JIMS, 5th)
17. Visceral leishmaniasis is best diagnosed by rK39 Ab detection by ICT. (JIMS, 5th)
18. Taenia species cannot be diagnosed by ova alone. (MCK, 4th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Classical and occult filariasis (MCK, 5th) (JNM, 5th) (Midnapore, 5th)
2. Adult of Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus (IPGMER, 5th)
3. Ring form of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium falciparum (RGK, 5th)
4. Nematode and Cestode (CNMC, 5th) (BMC, 5th)
5. Amoebic dysentery and Bacillary dysentery (CMSDH, 5th)
6. Amastigote and Promastigote (BSMC, 5th)
7. Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba coli (NBMC, 5th)
8. Definitive host and intermediate host (NBMC, 5th)
9. Larva migrans and larva currens (KPC, 5th)
10. Recrudescence vs Relapse in malaria (JIMS, 5th)
11. Amastigote and promastigote of L. donovani (MCK, 4th)

MYCOLOGY

• SHORT NOTES:
1. Dimorphic fungi (MCK,5th) (BMC, 5th)
2. Macroconidia of dermatophytes (MCK, 4th)
2. Mycetoma (MCK, 4th) (IPGMER, 5th)
3. Germ tube (CNMC, 5th)
4. Oral thrush (CMSDH, 5th)
5. Dermatophytes (BSMC, 5th)
6. Mucor mycosis (JNM, 5th)
7. Pseudo-hyphae (Murshidabad, 5th)
8. Eumycetoma (Midnapore, 5th)
9. Opportunistic fungal infections (KPC, 5th)
10. Dermatophytes (JIMS, 5th)
11. Cryptococcus (JIMS, 5th)
• COMMENT ON:
1. SDA medium is a selective medium for fungal culture. (MCK, 5th)
2. Candida pathogenic to man (IPGMER, 5th)
3. Systemic candidiasis is usually encountered in certain group of hospitalized patients. (CNMC, 5th)
4. Fungal culture is required for identification of Dermatophytes. (CMSDH, 5th)
5. Simple microscopy can help in early diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis. (BMC, 5th)
6. Germ tube test helps in species identification of Candida. (BSMC, 5th)
7. LPCB preparation is necessary for species identification of Dermatophytes. (JNM, 5th)
8. SDA is a selective media. (Murshidabad, 5th)
9. Septicemia by Candida albicans is not found in early AIDS cases. (JIMS, 5th)

• DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:
1. Hyphae and Pseudohyphae (IPGMER, 5th) (JNM, 5th) (Midnapore, 5th)
2. Actinomycotic and Eumycotic mycetoma (NRS, 5th) (BSMC, 5th)
3. Yeast and yeast like fungus (CMSDH, 5th)

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