006-30 Oct Paper FST Test-6 - 1074060

[FST-06] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-206]
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
TEST DATE : 30-10-2022
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
All India Full Syllabus Test–06 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 30-Oct-2022
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
igh
L
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TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. A concave mirror of focal length f, produces an 1. f
image P time the size of the object. If the image P
is real, then the distance of the object from the
mirror is :
(1) (P – 1)f
(1) (P – 1)f
(2) (P + 1)f
(2) (P + 1)f
 P  1  P  1
(3)  f
(3) 
P 
f P 
 P  1  P  1
(4)  f
(4) 
P 
f P 
2. 64 charged drops coalesce to form a bigger 2. 64

charged drop. The potential of bigger drop will n
be n times that of smaller drops then n is : n
(1) 4 u
(1) 4 te
s tit
(2) 16
t In (2) 16
(3) 64
igh (3) 64
(4) 8
L (4) 8
ew
3. N is a
A motor vehicle moves such that the velocity 3.
linear function of time. The graph between
acceleration and time and velocity and time,
respectively will be :
(1)
(1) Straight line, straight line
(2) ,
(2) Straight line, parabola
(3) ,
(3) Parabola, straight line
(4) Parabola, parabola (4) ,
4. Radius of curvature of an equiconvex lens is 4. 0.2 m

0.2 m. Its refractive index is 1.5. It two such lenses
1.5
are kept separated with common principal axis
0.2 m
by a distance of 0.2 m, what will be the effective
focal length of the combination :
(1) 20 cm
(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm (3) 60 cm
(4) 30 cm. (4) 30 cm.

5. A stone of mass 4 kg is whirled in a horizontal 5. 4 kg 169 m
circle by attaching it to a 169 m long string. The 4N
string can withstand a maximum tension of 4N.
The maximum speed of revolution of the stone
such that the string does not break is :
(1) 10 m/s
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 13 m/s (2) 13 m/s
(3) 16 m/s (3) 16 m/s
(4) 12 m/s (4) 12 m/s
6. The incident photon involved in the photoelectric 6.

effect experiment :
(1)
(1) Completely disappear
(2)
(2) Comes out with increased frequency
(3)
(3) Comes out with a decreased frequency
(4) Comes out without change in frequency (4)
7. The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. 7.

u te m3 5 × 1028
tit m
22
This is doped simultaneously with 5 × 10 atoms 3
5 × 10 22
s
In
3 20 3
per m of Arsenic and 5 × 10 per m atoms of 5 × 10 per m 20 3
Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and t

16 –3
igh
holes. Given that n = 1.5 × 10 m . Is the material
n-type or p-type:
i
L n = 1.5 × 10 m . n- 16 –3
p- :
w i
(1) 3.54 × 109 m –3, n-type Ne (1) 3.54 × 109 m –3, n-type
(2) 2.54 × 109 m –6, p-type (2) 2.54 × 109 m –6, p-type
(3) 4.54 × 109 m –6, p-type (3) 4.54 × 109 m –6, p-type
(4) 4.54 × 109 m –3, n-type. (4) 4.54 × 109 m –3, n-type.
8. What will be the input A and B for the Boolean 8. (A  B)  (A  B)  1 A

expression (A  B)  (A  B)  1 : B
(1) 0, 1 (1) 0, 1
(2) 1, 0 (2) 1, 0
(3) 0, 0 (3) 0, 0
(4) 1, 1. (4) 1, 1.
9. What is the ratio of forward and reverse resistance 9. p-n

of p-n junction diode :
(1) 10–4 : 1 (1) 10–4 : 1

(2) 10–2 : 1 (2) 10–2 : 1
(3) 104 : 1 (3) 104 : 1
(4) 102 : 1. (4) 102 : 1.
10. In a common base circuit, the current gain is 0.96. 10. 0.96
If the base current is 60 mA, find the emitter 60 mA
current is :
(1) 3 mA
(1) 3 mA
(2) 1.5 mA
(2) 1.5 mA
(3) 1.44 mA.
(3) 1.44 mA.
(4) 2.1 mA. (4) 2.1 mA.
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely 11. n

at the nth power of distance. Then time period of R
a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the
sun will be proportional to :
 n 1
(1)  
 n 1
 
R 2 
(1) 2 
R
 n 1
(2)  
(2)
 n 1
 2 
R 2 
R
(3) Rn
(3) Rn
 n  2
 n  2 (4)  
(4)  2  R 2 
R
12. The truth table for the following combination of 12.
u te
logic gates shown as below:
stit
t In AB Y
A
B
Y
igh
L
A B Y A B Y ew A B
0 0
Y
1
A
0
B
0
Y
0
0 0 1 0 0 0 N 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 1 0 1 (1) (2)
0 1 0 0 1 1
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
A B Y A B Y
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0 1 0 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 0 1 0 1 0 1
0 1 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
13. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different 13.

processes. The mean value period for the first t1 t2
process is t1 and that for the second process is t2.
The effective mean value period for the two
processes is :
t1  t2
(1)
t1  t2 2
(1)
2
(2) t1 + t2
(2) t1 + t2
(3) t1 t 2
(3) t1 t 2
t1 t 2
t1 t 2 (4) t  t
(4) t  t 1 2
1 2
14. Which one of the following gases possesses the 14.
large internal energy :
(1) 2 300 K 1m 3
3
(1) 2 moles of helium occupying 1 m at 300 K
(2) 56 g 300 K 107 Nm–2
(2) 56 g of nitrogen at 107 Nm–2 at 300 K
(3) 8 300 K 8 atm
(3) 8 grams of oxygen at 8 atm at 300 K
(4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying 40 m 3 at (4) 6 × 1026 900 K 40 m 3

900 K.
15. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure 15. Cp Cv
and constant volume respectively. It is observed Cp – Cv = a,
that Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas, Cp – Cv = b for
nitrogen gas, The correct relation between a and Cp – Cv = b, a b
b is : (1) a = 28 b
(1) a = 28 b
1
1 (2) a  b
(2) a  b 14
14
(3) a = b
(3) a = b
(4) a = 14 b
(4) a = 14 b
16. Two heat engines A and B have their sources at 16. A B 1000 K 1100 K
1000 K and 1100 K and their sinks are at 500 K and 500 K 400 K
400 K respectively. What is true about their u te
efficiencies : tit
s
(1) A = B
t In (1)  = A B
(2) A > B g h (2)  >  A B
(3) A < B
Li (3)  < A B
ew (4)
(4) Cannot predict. N
17. A square loop and a long straight wire are situated 17.
in a common plane such that one edge of the
square is parallel to the w ire. The mutual
inductance between the wire and loop is :
a a
a a
0a 0a
(1) In(2) (1) In(2)
4 4
0a 0a
(2) In(2) (2) In(2)
2 2
0a 0a
(3) (3)
 
0a 0a
(4) (4)
2
18. If 1 g of substance of relative density 2 and 4 g of 18. 1g 2 4g
another substance of relative density 3 are mixed
3
together, then the relative density of the mixture
is :
(1) 2.4 (1) 2.4
(2) 2.5 (2) 2.5
(3) 2.7 (3) 2.7
(4) 2.8 (4) 2.8
19. A material has Poisson's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod 19. 0.5
of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, the 2 × 10–3
percentage increase in its volume is :
(1) 0% (1) 0%
(2) 2% (2) 2%
(3) 4% (3) 4%
(4) 8%. (4) 8%.
20. Two Carnot engines are operated in succession. 20.
The first one, receives heat from a source at T1 = 400 K T2K
T1 = 400 K and rejects to sink at T2K. The second
engine receives heat rejected by first engine and T3 = 100K
rejects to another sink at T3 = 100K. if the efficiency
u te
of both the engines are equal then T2 is :
s tit T2
(1) 250 K t In (1) 250 K
igh (2) 300 K
(2) 300 K
L
(3) 200 K ew (3) 200 K
N (4) 100 K
(4) 100 K
 
21. If two disturbances represented by equation 21. y1  4 sin(t) y 2  3 sin  t  
 3
 
y1  4 sin(t) and y 2  3 sin  t   interfere at a (distrubance)
3
point. Then the amplitude of the resulting
disturbance will be : (1) 37
(1) 37 (2) 5
(2) 5
(3) 5 2
(3) 5 2
(4) 3 2
(4) 3 2
ωt ˆ ωt ˆ ωt ˆ ωt ˆ
22. A = cosωt ˆi + sinωt ˆj and B = cos i + sin j 22. A = cosωt ˆi + sinωt ˆj B = cos i + sin j
2 2 2 2
are function of time, then the value of t at which t
they are orthogonal :
 
(1) t  (2) t = 0 (1) t  (2) t = 0
 
   
(3) t  (4) t  (3) t  (4) t 
4 2 4 2
23. A light rod carries three equal masses A, B and C 23. A, B C
as shown in figure. What will be velocity of B in
B
vertical position of rod, if it is released form
horizontal position as shown in figure :
/3 /3 / 3 /3 /3 /3
A B C A B C
8g 4g 8g 4g

(1) (2) (1) (2)
7 7 7 7
2g 10g 2g 10g

(3) (4) (3) (4)
7 7 7 7
24. A particle of mass m oscillates along the horizontal 24. m

diameter AB inside a smooth spherical shell of AB
the radius R. At any instant the kinetic energy of
the particle is K. Then the force applied by particle K
on the shell at this instant is:
u te
stit
t In A B
A B
igh
L
ew
N
K
K (1)
(1) R
R
2K
2K (2)
(2) R
R
3K
3K (3)
(3) R
R
K K
(4) (4)
2R 2R
25. F is a force acting on a particle having position 

25. F r

vector r and  be the torque of this force about 

the origion then :
   
    (1) r.   0 F.   0
(1) r.   0 and F.   0
   
    (2) r.   0 F.   0
(2) r.   0 and F.   0
       
(3) r.   0 and F.   0 (3) r.   0 F.   0
       
(4) r.   0 and F.   0 (4) r.   0 F.   0
26. The speed of homogeneous solid sphere after 26. h
rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height
h from rest witbout sliding is :
10 10
(1) gh (1) gh
7 7
(2) gh (2) gh
6 6
(3) gh (3) gh
5 5
4 4
(4) gh (4) gh
3 3
27. An eagle flies at constant velocity horizontally 27.

across the sky, carrying a mouse and releases the
mouse while in flight. From the eagle's v1
perspective, the mouse falls vertically with speed
v1. From an observer on the ground's perspective, v2
the mouse falls at an angle with speed v2. What is
the speed of the eagle with respect to the observer (1) v1 + v2
on the ground :
(2) v1 – v2
(1) v1 + v2
(2) v1 – v2 u te
(3)it v  v 2 2
(3) v v2 2
s t 1 2
1 2
t In
h (4) v  v
2 2
2 1
(4) v v 2 2
g
Li 28.
2 1
28. A body of mass m is placed on the earth surface, m h = 3R

e w of
which is taken from earth surface to a height
N
h = 3R. Then change in gravitational potential
energy :
mgR 2 mgR 2
mgR (1) (2) mgR
(1) (2) 4 3
4 3
3 mgR 3 mgR
(3) mgR (4) (3) mgR (4)
4 2 4 2
29. The largest and shortest distance of the earth from 29. r1 r2
the sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the sun when
it is at perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit
drawn from the sun is :
r1  r2
(1)
r1  r2 4
(1)
4
r1  r2
r1  r2 (2) r  r
1 2
(2) r  r
1 2
2r1r2
2r1r2 (3) r  r
1 2
(3) r  r
1 2
r1  r2
r1  r2 (4)
3
(4)
3
30. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring and is at 30. A m
rest. Block B strikes the block A with velocity v B m v A
and sticks to it. Then the value of v for which the v
spring just attains natural length is :
k k
m A m A
v v
m B m B
60 mg2 60 mg2
(1) (1)
k k
6 mg2 6 mg2
(2) (2)
k k
10 mg2 10 mg2
(3)
k u te (3)
k
s tit
(4) None of these
t In (4)
31. The time dependence of physical quantity P isg h31. 2
t 2 L i P P  P0 e t
given by P  P e where  is a constant and t is 
0
the time. The constant  : e w

N (1)
(1) is dimensionless
(2) [T–2]
(2) has dimension [T–2]
(3) has dimension [T2] (3) [T2]
(4) has dimension of P. (4) P.
32. Consider the following two statements 32.
Statement I : The binding energy per nucleon is I:

practically independent of mass number for nuclei (30 < A < 170)
of middle mass number (30 < A < 170).
Statement II : Binding energy per nucleon is lower II : (A < 30)

for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A > (A > 170)
170).
(1) I
(1) only statement I is correct
(2) only statement II is correct (2) II
(3) Both statement I and II are correct (3) I II
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (4) I II

33. Gravitational potential differernce between a point 33.
on surface of planet and another point 10 m above
10 m 4J/kg
is 4J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be
2kg
uniform, how much work is done in moving a mass
of 2kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the 5m
surface :
(1) 4 J
(1) 4 J
(2) 5 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 6 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 7 J. (4) 7 J.
34. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have 34. P1 P2 Q1 Q2

charges Q1 and Q2 on them. The charges on the A, B, C D
sides A, B and C and D respectively are :
Q1 Q2
Q1 Q2
A B C D
A B C D P1 P2
P1 P2
u te
Q1  Q2 Q1  Q2 s titQ = Q
(1) =
Q1  Q2
QB = –QC=
Q1  Q 2
In
A D
(1) QA = QD = and QB = –QC= 2 2
2 2 t
Q1  Q2 Q1  Q 2 igh (2) Q = Q Q1  Q2 Q1  Q2
(2) QA = QC = and QB = QD= L A C =
2
Q B = Q D=
2
2 2 w
Ne Q1  Q2 Q1  Q 2
Q1  Q2 Q1  Q 2 (3) QB = QC = Q A = Q D=
(3) QB = QC = and QA = QD= 2 2
2 2
Q1  Q2 Q1  Q2
(4) QA= QB= QC = QD = (4) QA= QB= QC = QD =
2 2
SECTION-B SECTION-B
35. The intensity of an electric field inside a capacitor 35. E
is E. The work required to make a charge q, move
in a closed rectangular circuit is :
(1) 2 (l + b) qE (1) 2 (l + b) qE
(2) 2lqE (2) 2lqE
(3) 2bqE (3) 2bqE
(4) Zero. (4) .

36. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are 36. q d
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
F
repulsion between the ions, the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be : (e being
the charge on an electron)
40Fd2
40Fd 2 (1)
(1) e2
e2
4 0Fe2
4 0Fe2 (2)
(2) d2
d2
4 0Fd2
4 0Fd2 (3)
(3) e2
e2
40Fd2 40Fd2
(4)
(4)
q2 q2
37. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at 37. +q, –2q +q (x = 0, y =
points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) (x = a, y = 0, z = 0)
(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
and direction of the electric dipole moment vector
of this charge assembly are :
(1) e
t2qa (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) (x = a, y =
u
(1) 2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z
s tita, z = 0)
= 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
t In (2) qa (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) (x = a, y = a,
(2) qa a long the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) h
g z = 0)
and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) Li
(3) 2qa along +x direction e w (3) 2qa (+x)
N
(4) 2qa along +y direction. (4) 2qa (+y)
38. Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of 38. C

capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as C/2 V
shown in the figure. The work done in charging
fully both the condensers is :
V C C/2
V C C/2
1 1
CV 2 (1) CV 2
(1) 2
2
3 3
(2) CV 2 (2) CV 2
4 4
1 1
(3) CV 2 (3) CV 2
2 2
(4) 2CV2. (4) 2CV2.
39. Two identical conducting balls A and B have 39. A B q1 q2
positive charges q1 and q2 respectively but q1  q2.
The balls are brought together so that they touch
each other and then kept in their original positions.
The force between them is :
(1)
(1) Less than that before the balls touched
(2)
(2) Greater than that before the balls touched
(3) Same as that before the balls touched (3)
(4) Zero. (4)
40. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the 40. p

position of stable equilibrium in uniform electric E 
field of intensity E. This is rotated through an angle
 from the initial position. The potential energy of
the electric dipole in the final position is :
(1) –pE cos  (1) –pE cos 
(2) pE (1 – cos) (2) pE (1 – cos)
(3) pE cos  (3) pE cos 

(4) pE sin . (4) pE sin .
41. A disc of radius R and thickness

R
has moment 41. u te R
R
tit
6 6
of inertia I about an axis passing through its centre s
and perpendicular to its plane. The disc is melted
t In I
gh
and recast into a solid sphere. The moment of
inertia of a sphere about its diameter is :
Li
  ew  
(1)
5
(2)
6 N (1)
5
(2)
6
   
(3) (4) (3) (4)
32 64 32 64
42. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD 42. AOB COD
are placed at right angle to each other, with one
O I1
above other such that O is their common point for
the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents, I2 P, O d
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O P
along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the
point P will be : 0  I1 
(1) 2d  I 
2
0  I1 
(1) 2d  I 
2
0
(2) I1  I2 
2d
0
(2) I1  I2 
2d
0 2 2
0 2 2
(3)
2d

I1  I2 
(3)
2d

I1  I2 
0 2 2
 
1/ 2
0 2 2 (4) I1  I2
 
1/ 2
(4) I1  I2 2d
2d
43. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving 43. 1 MeV
in a circulr path of radius R in uniform magnetic R
field. What should be the energy of an -particle
- R
to describe a circle of same radius in the same
field :
(1) 2MeV (1) 2MeV
(2) 1 MeV (2) 1 MeV
(3) 0.5 MeV (3) 0.5 MeV
(4) 4 MeV. (4) 4 MeV.
44. The length of a metal wire is l1 when the tension 44. T1 l1

in it is T1 and l2 when the tension in it it T2. The T2 l2
unstretched length of the wire is:
T2l2  T1l1
(1) T2l2  T1l1
T2  T1 (1) T2  T1
T2l2  T1l1 T2l2  T1l1

(2) T1  T2 (2) T1  T2
T2l1  T1l2 T2l1  T1l2

(3) T1  T2
u te (3) T1  T2
s tit
T l  Tl
21
(4) T  T
12
t In (4) T l  T l 21 12
2 1 h T T 2 1
g
45. Li 45.
A body falls from rest for 4s. The average speed 4s
w
Ne
2
will be (g = 10 m/s ) : (g = 10 m/s ) : 2
(1) 20 m/s (1) 20 m/s

(2) 10 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 40 m/s (3) 40 m/s
(4) 80 m/s (4) 80m/s
46. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two 46. A B
materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA YA YB
and YB are the Young's modulii of the materials,
then :
A
A
Stress
Stress
B
B 60
o
o
60
30 o
30 o O Strain
O Strain
(1) YB = 2YA
(1) YB = 2YA
(2) YA = YB
(2) YA = YB
(3) YB = 3YA (3) YB = 3YA
(4) YA = 3YB. (4) YA = 3YB.

–4
47. A spherical ball of radius 3.0 × 10 m and density 47. 3.0 × 10–4 m 104 kg/m3
10 4 kg/m3 falls freely under gravity through a
h
distance h before entering a tank of water. If after
entering the water the velocity of the ball does h
not change, find h. Viscosity of water is –6
9.8 × 10 N-s/m : 2
9.8 × 10–6 N-s/m2 :

(1) 1.65 × 103 m (2) 3.30 × 103 m
(1) 1.65 × 103 m (2) 3.30 × 103 m
(3) 2.65 × 103 m (4) 4.65 × 103 m. (3) 2.65 × 103 m (4) 4.65 × 103 m.
48. P-V diagram was obtained from state 1 to state 2 48. P-V 1 2
when a given mass of a gas is subjected to
temperature changes. During this process the gas
is :
P P
1 1
2P0 2P0
P0 2 P0 2
V V
V0 2V0 V0 2V0
(1) heated continuously (1)

u te
(2) cooled continuously tit
(2)
s
(3) heated in the beginning and cooled towards the
t In
end
g h (3)
i
(4) cooled in the beginning and heated towards L
the (4)
w
Ne
end.
49. 7
49. The rms speed of a ground of 7 gas molecules
having speeds (6, 4, 2, 0, –2, –4, –6) m/s is : (6, 4, 2, 0, –2, –4, –6) m/s
(1) 1.5 m/s (1) 1.5 m/s
(2) 3.4 m/s (2) 3.4 m/s
(3) 9 m/s (3) 9 m/s

(4) 4 m/s (4) 4 m/s
50. A cube at temperature 0oC is compressed equally 50. P 0oC
from all sides by an external pressure P. By what
amount should its temperature to raised to bring
it back to its size. The bulk modulus of the material
of the cube is K and the coefficient of linear K 
expansion is  :
P
P (1)
(1) K
K
P
P (2)
(2) 3K
3K
3P 3P
(3) (3)
K K
3K 3K
(4) (4)
P P
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (MODEL)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. What is the maximum number of stereoisomers 51.

that could exist for the compound given below :
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 10 (3) 10
(4) 16 (4) 16
52. The hybridization states of the nitrogen atoms in 52.

pyridine piperidine and pyrrole are respectively:
(1) sp2 sp3 and sp2

u te
(1) sp2 sp3 sp2
(2) sp2 sp3 and sp3 st(2)it sp sp 2 3

sp3
(3) sp3 sp3 and sp3 t In (3) sp sp 3 3

sp3
igh
(4) sp2 sp2 and sp2 L (4) sp sp 2 2
sp2
53. Which alkane has highest boiling point : ew 53.

N
(1) Hexane (1)
(2) 2-2-dimethyl butane (2) 2-2-
(3) 3-methyl pentane (3) 3-
(4) 2, 3-dimethyl butane (4) 2, 3-
54. For 1-methoxy-1, 3-butadiene which of the 54. 1- -1, 3-

following resonating structure is least stable :
(1) CH2––CH+–CH=CH–O–CH3 (1) CH2––CH+–CH=CH–O–CH3

– +
(2) CH –CH=CH–CH=O –CH3
2 (2) CH2––CH=CH–CH=O+–CH3
(3) CH2=CH–CH+–CH––O–CH3
(3) CH2=CH–CH+–CH––O–CH3
(4) CH2=CH–CH––CH=O+–CH3
(4) CH2=CH–CH––CH=O+–CH3
55. Hyperconjugation effect involves :
55.
(1) Delocalization of lone pair into an adjacent -bond.
(1) -
(2) Delocalization of -electron into an adjacent double
bond. (2) -
(3) Delocalization of -electrons into an adjacent - (3) - -
bond.
(4) All are true. (4)

56. Number of delocalised -electron in the following 56. -
structure :
..
.. +
+
(1) 6
(1) 6
(2) 8
(2) 8
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 10
(4) 10
57.
57. The reaction
is fastest when X is : X
(1) OCOR (1) OCOR
(2) OC2H5
u te
(2) OC2H5
(3) NH st(3)it NH 2
In (4) Cl
2
(4) Cl
ht
58. Equimolar solution of two non electrolytes in L ig
the 58.
same solvent have :
e w
N
(1) different boiling and different freezing points (1)
(2) same boiling points and same freezing point (2)

(3) same freezing point but different boiling point (3)
(4) same boiling point but different freezing point
(4)
59. The most stable ion is :
59.
3–
(1) [Fe(OH)5]
(1) [Fe(OH)5]3–
3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
(2) [Fe(CN)6]3–
3–
(3) [FeCl6]
(3) [FeCl6]3–
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
60. The charge on 1 g ion of Al3+ is [NA=Avogadro's
60. 1 Al3+ [NA= ,e=
number, e=charge on one electron] :
]:
(1) 1/27 NA e coulomb
(1) 1/27 NA e coulomb
(2) 1/3 × NA e coulomb
(2) 1/3 × NA e coulomb
(3) 1/9 × NA e coulomb (3) 1/9 × NA e coulomb
(4) 3 × NA e coulomb (4) 3 × NA e coulomb
61. The IUPAC name of the compound is : 61.
CHO CHO
CH3 CH3
H3C H3C
COOH COOH
(1) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal (1) 2, 5- -5- - -3-

(2) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal (2) 2, 5- -6- - -3-
(3) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid (3) 2, 5- -6- - -3-
(4) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid (4) 6- -2- - -3-
62. The quantum number +1/2 and –1/2 for the 62. +1/2 –1/2
electron spin represent :
(1) rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlock

wise direction respectively (1)
(2) rotation of the electron in anticlock wise and (2)

clockwise direction respectively
(3) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and (3)

down respectively.
(4)
(4) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have
no classical analogue. u te
63. st
it
63. Correct order of basic strength is :
t In
NH2 NH2
g h NH 2 NH2
a. me b. Li a. me b.
me
ew me
Nme2
N Nme2
c. me me c. me me
(1) a > b > c (1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b (2) a > c > b
(3) c > b > a (3) c > b > a
(4) b > a > c (4) b > a > c
64. The most stable conformation of the following 64.
compound has :
CH2CH3
CH2CH3
C(CH3)3
C(CH3)3
CH3
CH3
(1) An axial methyl group and an axial ethyl group. (1)

(2) An axial methyl group and an equotorial ethyl (2)
group.
(3) An axial tert-butyl group (3)
(4) An equotorial methyl group and an axial ethyl (4)
group.
65. 1HC  CH  xHCl  65. 1HC  CH  xHCl 
Hg2 Hg2
1HC  CH  yHCl  1HC  CH  yHCl 
Value of x and y for completion of reaction will x y

be :
(1) (2, 2)
(1) (2, 2)
(2) (1, 2)
(2) (1, 2)
(3) (2, 1)
(3) (2, 1)
(4) (1, 1)
(4) (1, 1)
66. Which of the following factors may be regarded 66.

as the main cause the lanthanide contraction :
(1) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in (1) 4f

the subshell
(2) Effective shielding of one of 4f electron by another (2) 4f

in the subshell
u te
tit
(3) Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons. (3) 4f 5d
s
(4) Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons.
t In (4) 4f 5d
67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled i gh67. (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
L
Reason (R). ew (R)
N (A) :
Assertion(A):
F- Cl
F-atom has a less negative electron gain enthalpy
than Cl-atom.
(R) :
Reason(R):
Additional electron are repelled more effectively Cl 3p F-

by 3p electron in Cl-atom than by 2p electron in 2p
F-atom.
In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) (A) (R) (R)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(A)
correct exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
68. Amongest CO32–, AsO33–, XeO3, ClO3–, BO33– and 68. CO32–, AsO33–, XeO3, ClO3–, BO33– SO32–
SO32– the non planer species are :
(1) XeO3, ClO3–, SO32–, AsO33– (1) XeO3, ClO3–, SO32–, AsO33–
(2) AsO33–, XeO3, CO3–2 (2) AsO33–, XeO3, CO3–2
(3) BO33–, CO32–, SO32–, (3) BO33–, CO32–, SO32–,
(4) AsO33–, BO33–, CO32– (4) AsO33–, BO33–, CO32–
69. Match the column : 69.
List-I List-II -I -II
a. XeF4 i. Pyramidal a. XeF4 i.
b. XeF6 ii. T-shape b. XeF6 ii. T-
c. XeO3 iii. Distorted octahedral c. XeO3 iii.
d. XeOF2 iv. Square planer d. XeOF2 iv.
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

u te
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii st(4)it a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
t In
70.
70. In Metallurgy of iron when limestone is added to h
the blast furnace the calcium ion end up in : ig
L
w
Ne
(1) Slag (1)
(2) Gangue (2)
(3) Metallic Calcium (3)
(4) Calcium carbonate (4)
71. In allene (C3H4) the types of hybridization of the 71. (C3H4)

carbon atom is :
(1) sp sp3
(1) sp and sp3
(2) sp sp2
(2) sp and sp2
(3) sp 3 only (3) sp 3
(4) sp2 and sp3 (4) sp2 sp3
72. The Number of stereoisomers obtained by 72.

bromination of trans–2–butene :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
73. Given below are two statements : 73.
Statement I: I:
Solubility of an amino acid is Maximum at
isoelectric point.
Statement II : II :
At isoelectric point amino acids exists as zwitter
ion.
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
74. Polymer with weakest intermolecular force is : 74.
(1) neoprene (1)
(2) NY-66
u te(2) NY-66
(3) polystyrene
st(3)it
(4) polythene t In (4)
75. igh75.
Which of the following do not under go oxidation:
L
w
Ne
+2
(1) Fe+2 (1) Fe
(2) O–2 (2) O–2
(3) Cl+2 (3) Cl+2
(4) Mg+2 (4) Mg+2
Statement I: I:
A catalyst do not change the state function of

reaction.
Statement II : II :
A catalyst increases the rate of a Reaction by
decreasing activation energy.
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

77. Arrange in increasing order of stability: 77.
 
(a) C H 3 (b) H O  
3 (a) C H 3 (b) H O
3


(c) NH4 (c) NH4
(1) a < b < c (1) a < b < c
(2) c < b < a (2) c < b < a
(3) a < c b (3) a < c b
(4) None of these (4)
78. What is the maximum number of degenerate 78. n=3, H–

–
orbital for H ion if n = 3
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 5
u te
(4) 5
79. Which is most polarisable by cation: 79. st

it
t In
(1) F –
g h (1) F –
(2) Cl– Li (2) Cl –
ew
(3) Br – N (3) Br –
(4) I– (4) I–

Statement I: I:
Simple singlet carbene is less stable than simple
triplet carbene.
Statement II :
II :
There is lp-lp repulsion in singlet carbene.
Moreover triplet carbene has greater multiplicity.

below :

81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 81. (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion :
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as

we go down a group.
Reason : (R) :
Size of the atom increase on going down the

group and the added electron would be farther
from the nucleus.

below:
(1) (A) (R) (R)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (A)
correct exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
82. Which is the correct statement about Cr 2O 72– u
82. Cr2O72–te
structure : tit
s
(1) It has neighter Cr–Cr bonds nor O–O bonds
t In (1) Cr–Cr O–O
(2) It has one Cr–Cr bond and six O–O bonds igh (2) Cr–Cr O–O
L
(3) It has no Cr–Cr bond and has six O–O bonds
ew (3) Cr–Cr O–O
(4) It has one Cr–Cr bond and seven Cr–O bonds N (4) Cr–Cr Cr–O
83. Ammonia will not form complex with : 83.
(1) Ag2+ (1) Ag2+
(2) Pb2+ (2) Pb2+
(3) Cu2+ (3) Cu2+
(4) Cd2+ (4) Cd2+
84. Relation between hydrolysis constant and 84.

dissociation constant are given. Which is the MgCl2
correct formula for MgCl2 :
Kw
Kw (1) Kh  K
(1) Kh  K a
a
Kw
Kw (2) Kh  K
(2) Kh  K b
b
Kw
Kw (3) Kh  K  K
(3) Kh  K  K a b
a b
Kh
Kh (4) Kw  K
(4) K w  K b
85. Which mode of expressing concentration depends 85.
upon temperature :
(1)
(1) Molarity
(2)
(2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction (3)
(4) All of these (4)
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. One mole of N2H4 releases 10 moles of electrons to 86. N2H4

form a compound Y. What should be the oxidation Y Y aN
number of N in the compound Y :
(1) +3
(1) +3
(2) –3
(2) –3
(3) –6
(3) –6
(4) +1
(4) +1
87.
87. Which of the following statement is correct :
(1) Ca2+ F–
(1) In fluorite lattice, Ca2+ are located at face centred
cubic lattice and F– at half of the tetrahedral voids.
(2) The fraction of the total volume unoccupied by u te (2) 0.52
atoms in a primitive unit cell is 0.52
s tit
(3)
(3) Schottky defect mainly occurs when positive and
t In
negative ions are almost of same size.
igh (4)
(4) L
Total volume of atoms (radius r) present in face
w
Ne
12 3
12 ( r) r
centred cubic unit cell is r 3
. 3
3
CH3 CH3 CH 3
CH3 CH3 CH 3
88. CH3  C  CH  CH3    CH3  C  CH  CH3  CH3  C  CH  CH 2
Alc.KOH
88. CH3  C  CH  CH3 Alc.KOH

  CH3  C  CH  CH3  CH3  C  CH  CH 2 (A) (B)
(A) (B) H Cl
H Cl
(1) A B
(1) A is major product while B is minor product
(2) A B
(2) A is minor product while B is major product
(3) A B
(3) Both A and B are formed in equal amount
(4)
(4) None of these
89. For the following : 89.
i. NH2– ii. F– i. NH2– ii. F–
iii. OH– iv. CH3– iii. OH– iv. CH3–
the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be :
(1) ii < iii < i < iv (1) ii < iii < i < iv
(2) ii < i < iii < iv (2) ii < i < iii < iv
(3) iv < i < iii < ii (3) iv < i < iii < ii
(4) i < ii < iii < iv (4) i < ii < iii < iv
90. Formation of alcohol by oxymercuration 90.

demercuration of alkenes :
(1) involves carbocations and rearrangement (1)

(2) involves carbanions and rearrangement (2)
(3) is stereospecific (3)
(4) does not involve rearrangement and carbocation (4)
91. An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong 91.

electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to :
(1) increase in number of ions (1)

(2)
(2) increase in ionic mobility of ions
(3) 100%
(3) 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
(4) increase in both i.e., number of ions and ionic (4)

mobility of ions.
92. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown 92.

below
A|A+(xM)||B+(yM)|B A|A+(xM)||B+(yM)|B
The emf measured is +0.20 V. The cell reaction is: emftu
te +0.20 V
s ti
(1) A + B  A + B
In A + B  A + B
+ + + +
(1)
t
(2) A + e  A ; B + e  B
gh (2) A + e  A ; B+ + e–  B
+ + + – + +
L i
(3) A + B  A + B
+ +
(3) A + B  A + B
e w + +
(4) cannot predicted N (4)

93. Which one of the following statement for the order 93.
of a reaction is incorrect :
(1) Order of reaction is always whole number (1)

(2) Order can be determined only experimentally (2)
(3) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient (3)
of the reactant
(4) None of these

(4)
94. Select the incorrect statement : 94.
(1) Physical adsorption is reversible while chemical is (1)
irreversible
(2) High pressure favours physical adsorption while low

(2)
pressure favours chemical adsorption
(3) Physical adsorption is not specific while chemical

(3)
is highly specific
(4) High activation energy is involved in chemical

(4)
adsorption.
95. Which two of the following salts are used for 95.
preparing iodised salt :
A. KIO3 B. KI A. KIO3 B. KI
C. I2 D. HI C. I2 D. HI
(1) A and B (1) A B
(2) A and C (2) A C
(3) B and D (3) B D
(4) C and D (4) C D
96. PI3 upon hydrolysis gives : 96. PI3
(1) monobasic acid and dibasic acid (1)
(2) monobasic and tribasic acid (2)
(3) monobasic acid and a salt (3)
(4) dibasic acid and tribasic acid (4)
97. In the reaction, 97.
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
When 2 mole of ammonia and 2 mole of O2 are NH3 O2
made to react to completion, then :
(1) 2.4 mole of H2O is produced u te H O
(1) 2.4 2
(2) 1.6 mole of NO will be produced s tit1.6 NO

(2)
(3) All the NH3 will be consumed t In (3) NH

gh (4) 1 2
3
(4) Both 1 and 2

Li
98. The period containing maximum number of
ew 98.
gaseous element :
N (1)
(1) Zero
(2)
(2) 1st
(3) Six (3)
(4) Second (4)
99. Which contains both polar and non-polar 99.

bonds :
(1) NH4Cl (2) HCN
(1) NH4Cl (2) HCN
(3) H2O2 (4) CH4 (3) H2O2 (4) CH4
100. Which one of the following is excellent substrate 100. SN1

for SN1 reaction :
(1) (2)
(1) (2) Br Br
Br Br
(3) (4)
(3) (4) Br
Br
Br
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

SECTION–A–(PART-1) SECTION–A–(PART-1)
101. Given below are two statements 101.

Statement I: -I:
The process of plasmolysis is usually reversible.
Statement II :
- II :
Imbibition is also diffusion since water movement is
against a concentration gradient.
Choose the correct answer from the option given

below:

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
-te
Statement I:
I:
tu
Pinus seeds can not germinate and establish with out
the presence of mycorrhizae. sti
t In
gh
Statement II :
i
Lof
The cohesion and Adhesion are chemical properties
- II :
water.
e w
N
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement I: -I:
Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2 O2 CO2
Statement II : - II :
Myoglobin is red coloured iron containing pigment
present in the RBCs. RBCs

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

Statement I: -I:
Carbonic anhydrase present in RBCs at a very low RBCs
concentration.
Statement II :
- II :
Carbonic anhydrase present in plasma at a very high
concentration.

below:

Statement I: -I:
The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm
is quite Insignificant.
u te
Statement II : s tit - II :
Emphysema is a chronic disorder. t In
igh
L
below: w
Ne
Statement I: -I:
Adrenal gland is composed of two types of tissues -

Adrenal medulla and Adrenal cortex.
Statement II : - II :
Human body has two pair of Adrenal glands.

below:
(1) I II

107. Which one of the following is the correct match 107. B
with reference to B DNA :
(1) Diameter of the helix – 34A0 (1) 34A0
(2) Distance between two – 34A0 (2) 34A0
adjacent bp
(3) 200A0
(3) Distance between two – 200A0
complete turns
(4) 20A0
(4) Diameter of the helix – 20A0
108. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 108.
(1) Prokaryotes – Nucleoid (1)

(2) Histones – Negatively charged
(2)
protein
(3)
(3) Arginine – Basic amino acid
(4)
(4) Lysine – Basic amino acid
109. With reference to the given below diagram below 109.

depicting a process taking place in a bacteria, the Ala Val
enzyme that would catalyze a peptide bond u te
between Ala and Val is
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
(1) 23S rRNA

(1) 23S rRNA
(2) 28S rRNA
(2) 28S rRNA
(3)
(3) Peptidyl phosphorylase
(4) Peptidyl dehydrogenase (4)
110. What is true for genetic code : 110.
i. AUG has dual functions i. AUG
ii. Genetic code nearly universal ii.
iii. Genetic code degenerate iii.
iv. Genetic code unambiguous iv.

(1) Only i and ii (1) i ii
(2) Only ii and iii (2) ii iii
(3) i, ii, iii and iv (3) i, ii, iii iv
(4) Only ii and iv (4) ii iv
111. The lac operon consists of one regulatory and three 111. z, y
structural genes z, y and a. Genes z, y and a are
a z, y a
codes respectively for :
(1) – ,
(1) –galactosidase, permease and transacetylase
(2) , –
(2) Permease, –galactosidase and transacetylase
(3) Transacetylase, permease and –galactosidase (3) , –
(4) –galactosidase, transacetylase and permease (4) – ,
112. Assertion (A): AUG Codon has Dual function 112. (A): AUG
Reason (R) : AUG codes for glycine, and it also act (R) : AUG
as Initiator codon
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
113. In plants morphine is obtained from 113.

(1) Seed (1)
u te
(2) Root
(3) Leaves s tit
(2)
(4) Latex t In (3)

g h (4)
Li 114.
114. In which type of barriers under innate immunity
do the skin and mucus membrane belong:
ew
(1) Cellular barriers N (1)
(2) Physiological barriers
(2)
(3) Physical barriers
(3)
(4) Cytokine barriers (4)
115. How many matching are correct with reference to 115.
evolution :
a. – 2000 mya
a. First cellular forms of – 2000 mya
life appeared
b. Invertebrates – 5000 mya b. – 5000 mya
c. Sea weeds – 320 mya c. – 320 mya

d. Jaw less fish – 350 mya d. – 350 mya
e. Dinosaurs suddenly – 165 mya e. – 165 mya
disappeared from
earth.
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
116. Since there are three different alleles, there are 116.
six different combinations of these three alleles
that are possible a total of six different genotypes
of the human ABO blood types. If ‘n’ represents ABO ‘n’
the number of alleles then which one of the
following relation is correct for number of possible
genotype :
n
n
 n  1 (1)  n  1
(1) 2
2
n
n
 n  1  (2)  n  1 
(2) 2
2
n
n
 2  n (3)  2  n
(3) 2
2
n
n
 n  2  (4)  n  2 
(4) 2
2
117. What is the number of chromosome in queen, 117.
worker and drones honeybees respectively :
(1) 16, 32, 16 (1) 16, 32, 16
(2) 32, 16, 16 (2) 32, 16, 16
(3) 32, 16, 32 u te (3) 32, 16, 32
(4) 32, 32, 16 s tit32, 32, 16

(4)
n
tI
118. Which one of the following are a type of traits : h118.
g
(1) Height Li (1)
(2) Colour e w (2)
(3) Position of flower

N (3)
(4) Wrinkled (4)
119. Identify the type of inheritance shown in the 119.

diagram and their disease :
(1) Autosomal recessive trait  Haemophilia (1) 

(2) Autosomal dominant trait  Myotonic dystrophy (2) 
(3) Sex-linked recessive trait  Thalassemia (3) 
(4) Sex-linked dominant trait  Colour blindness
(4) 
120. Which of the following are correct statement: 120.
(1) In sickle cell anaemia defective m-RNA has genetic (1) mRNA
code for valine is GUG GUG
(2) Phenylketonuria is Autosomal recessive trait (2)
(3) Phenylketonuria is a inborn error of metabolism (3)
121. Which is correct : 121.
(1) The inner boundary of the cortex, the endodermis, (1)

is impervious to water because of a band of
suberised matrix called the casparian strip.
(2) Mycorrhiza is parasitic association (2)
(3) Dicot leaves are also called isobilateral leaves (3)
(4) Movement of sucrose from phloem sap into the (4)
cell is a passive process.

u te
122. t
it
122. Tetrad is made up of : s
(1) Four homologous chromosomes with four t
In (1)
chromatids igh (2)
L
w
(2) Two homologous chromosomes, each with two
chromatids
Ne (3)
(3) Four nonhomologous chromatids (4)
(4) Four nonhomologous chromosomes
123.
123. Mitotic cell division occur in
(1)
(1) Diploid somatic cells in animals
(2) TMV
(2) TMV
(3) Bacteriophage (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
124. Which of the following is correct about G1 Phase : 124. G1
(i) Cell is metabolically highly active (i)
(ii) Continuous growth of the cell (ii)
(iii) Replication of DNA (iii)
(1) i and ii are correct (1) i ii
(2) Only ii is correct (2) ii
(3) i, ii and iii are correct (3) i, ii iii
(4) i and iii are correct (4) i iii

125. What is the R group in the alanine amino acid 125. R
(1) –CH3 (1) –CH3
(2) –H (2) –H
(3) –CH2OH (3) –CH2OH
(4) –CH2CH3 (4) –CH2CH3
126. Read the given example properly - 126.
Morphine, Abrin, Ricin, Gums, Vinblastin,
Anthocyanins, Protein, Nucleic acid.
How many statements are correct :
a. All are belong from same category of
chemical. a.
b. All have identifiable function. b.
c. All have not identifiable function at the c.
moment.
d.
d. All are metabolites
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
127. In our digestive system during digestion of proteins 127.

u te
the given below reaction are takes place :
stit
In X Y
Pr otein  Peptones, proteoses  Dipeptide ht
X Y  
Lig X Y
w
In the given reaction X and Y are enzyme. These
enzyme are occurs in which digestive
respectively :
Ne Juice
(1) X Y
(1) X in pancreatic juice and Y in intestinal juice
(2) X Y
(2) X and Y both in intestinal juice
(3) X Y
(3) X in gastric juice and Y in pancreatic juice
(4) X Y
(4) X in pancreatic juice and Y in gastric juice
128. Which one of the follow ing pairs of food 128.
components in human reaches the stomach totally
undigested :
(1)
(1) Starch and fat
(2)
(2) Fat and cellulose
(3) Starch and cellulose (3)
(4) Protein and Starch (4)

129. Which one of the following is correct statement 129.
(1) ABA act as an antagonistics to auxin (1) ABA
(2) ABA act as an antagonistics to GA (2) ABA GA
(3) Ethylene is also called stress hormone (3)
(4) GA stimulates the closure of stomata (4) GA

130. Substances like cytokinin like activity is 130.
(1) Zeatin (1)
(2) 2,4-D (2) 2,4-D
(3) Abscisic acid (3)
131. Which of the following auxin is not obtained from 131.

plants
(1) IAA (1) IAA
(2) IBA (2) IBA
(3) NAA (3) NAA
132. Which of the following statement is Incorrect : 132.
(1) Neutrophils secretes Heparin (1)
te
(2) Basophils secretes vasodilator chemical serotonin (2)
itu
(3) Eosinophils are 6-8 percent of total WBCs.
s t
(4) All t In (3) WBCs
g h (4)
133. Second meiotic division of secondary oocyte
i
L 133.
w
Ne
results in
(1)
(1) Two equal size ovum
(2)
(2) Two second polar bodies
(3)
(3) One ovum and one second polar body
(4) One ovum and one first polar body (4)
134. Which one of the following is NOT extra embryonic 134.

membrane (1)
(1) Chorion
(2)
(2) Allantois
(3)
(3) Amnion
(4)
(4) None of these
135. Which of the following is correct option : 135.
(1) Magnesium is a constituent of ring structure of (1)

chlorophyll
(2) Sulphur is not present in coenzyme A and (2) A
ferredoxin
(3) Fe+2
(3) Plants obtain iron in the form of Fe+2
(4)
(4) Deficiency symptom first appear in older tissue
whenever the elements are relatively immobile.
SECTION–B–(PART-1) SECTION–B–(PART-1)
136. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 136.

(1) Mg2+ - RNA & DNA synthesis (1) Mg2+ RNA & DNA
(2) STP - Energy currency (2) STP
(3) Iron - Chlorophyll (3)
(4) Chlorine - Anion - cation balance (4)

in cells
137. In C4 plants plasmodesmata are used for transport 137. C4

of
(a) C4
(a) C4 acid from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells
(b) C4
(b) C4 acid from bundle sheath to mesophyll cells
(c) C3 acid from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells (c) C3
(d) C3 acid from bundle sheath cells to mesophyll

cells (d) C3
(1) a and d (1) a d

(2) a and c (2) a c
(3) b and d (3) b te d
u
(4) b and c
s titb
(4) c
In
138. Photosynthesis is
ht
138.
g
Li
(1) Endergonic, photochemical, anabolic and reductive
(1)
process w
Ne
(2) Exergonic, reductive and catabolic process
(2)
(3) Exergonic, reductive and anabolic process (3)
(4) Exergonic and chemosynthetic process (4)
139. Find the correct statement(s) from the following 139.

statements :
(a) 10%
(a) In plants light saturation occurs at 10% of the
moderate sunlight
(b) CO2 0.03 0.04
(b) The concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is
0.03–0.04 percent
(c) C3 CO2 450 mlL–1
(c) C3 plants show saturation to CO2 concentration
at 450 mlL–1
(d) C3 CO2 360 mlL–1
(d) C4 plants show saturation to CO2 beyond 360
mlL–1
(1) Only a, d (1) a, d
(2) Only b (2) b
(3) Only b, c (3) b, c
(4) All (4)

(1) Germpore – Embryo sac (1) –
(2) Pollen grain – Liquid nitrogen (2) –
(3) Funicle – Gynoecium (3) –
(4) Micropyle – Ovule (4) –
141. Which one of the following statement is incorrect: 141.
(1) Tapetum is the innermost layer of microsporangium (1)

(2) Tapetum helps in dehiscence and release of pollen (2)
(3) Cells of tapetum posses dense cytoplasm
(4) Cells of tapetum generally have more than one (3)

nucleus (4)
142. Assertion : Endosperm development precedes 142.
embryo development
Reason : For proper development embryo requires
u te
tit
nutrition that are given by endosperm
s
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
t In (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
igh (A)
L
e w (2) (A) (R)
N
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
143. How many matching are correct 143.
a. Cartilaginous joints – Vertebral column a. –
b. Synovial joints – Ball and socket joint b. –
c. Synovial joints – Hinge joint c. –
d. Cartilaginous joints – Saddle joint d. –
e. Fibrous joint – Pivot joint e. –
(1) Two (1)
(2) One (2)
(3) Four (3)
(4) Three (4)

144. Assertion (A) : MTP considered as a good 144. (A) : MTP
contraceptive method.
Reason (R) : The method that are prevent ovulation
and fertilisation are considered as a contraceptive (R) :
method
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
145. Match the column with correct options :
145.
Column A Column B
(i) Lady bird (a) Methanobacterium

(i) (a)
(ii) Mycorrhiza (b) Trichoderma
(ii) (b)
(iii) Biological control (c) Beetle
(iii) (c)
(iv) Biogas (d) Glomus
(iv) (d)
(1) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a e ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
(1) i -tb,
u
(2) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
s titi - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(2)
(3) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
t In (3) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
(4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d igh (4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
L
146. How many matching are correct ew 146.
N
a. Somaclones – genetically identical a. –
b. Explants – Tissue culture b. –
c. Micropropagation – Tissue culture c. –
d. Virus free plants – Meristem culture d. –
(1) Three (1)
(2) Four (2)
(3) Two (3)
(4) One (4)
147. Human protein -1 antitrypsin is used to treat : 147. -1
(1) Cancer
(1)
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2)
(3) Alzheimer's disease (3)
(4) Emphysema (4)
148. Corn borer is controlled by protein encoded by 148.
gene
(1) cryIAc (1) cryIAc
(2) cryIAb (2) cryIAb
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
149. Biolistic technique is used in : 149.
(1) Tissue culture process (1)
(2) Hybridisation process (2)
(3) Germplasm conservation process (3)
(4) Gene transfer process (4)
150. Which of the following is a vector 150.
(1) Plasmid (1)
(2) Cosmid (2)
(3) Phagemid (3)
SECTION–A–(PART-2)
u te SECTION–A–(PART-2)
151. Which one of the following is responsible for 151. s

tit DNA
controlling of copy number of the linked DNA : t In :
(1) Ori igh (1) Ori

L
(2) Selectable marker
ew (2)
(3) Cloning site

N (3)
(4) Rop (4) Rop

152. Which among these are known as the main 152.
techniques which are responsible for the origin
of modern biotechnology
(a)
(a) Genetic engineering
(b)
(b) Phycology
(c) Parthenogenesis (c)
(d) Creation of sterile ambience (d)

(1) a, b (1) a, b
(2) b, c (2) b, c
(3) a, d (3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
153. Which association group given the definition of 153.
biotechnology :
(1) FBI
(1) FBI
(2) NACO
(2) NACO
(3) EFB (3) EFB
(4) FIFA (4) FIFA

154. The average temperature at surface of earth with 154.
out green house effect would have been :
(1) 280C (1) 280C

(2) –180C (2) –180C
(3) 150C (3) 150C
(4) 0.60C
(4) 0.60C
155. Greater biological diversity of tropics than
155.
temperate region is due to the :
(1) Presence of more seasonal environment

(1)
(2) Frequent glaciations in the past
(2)
(3) Highly variable climate and availability of less solar
(3)
energy in the past
(4) Availability of more solar energy which contributes

(4)
to higher productivity
156. In animals, the organism, if unable to migrate

156.
might avoid the stress by escaping in time which
of the following are example : u te
s tit
(a) Hibernation
t In (a)
(b) Aestivation
igh (b)
(c) Diapause L
ew (c)
(d) Mimicry N (d)
(1) Only a, b, d (1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) Only a, b (4) a, b
157. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger 157.
reserves is often based on :
(1) Pug marks and fecal pellets (1)
(2) Only pug marks (2)
(3) Pug marks and directly counting by seeing (3)
(4) Only fecal pellets (4)
158. Water Act became effective in India from : 158.
(1) 1981 (1) 1981

(2) 1991
(2) 1991
(3) 1974
(3) 1974
(4) 1970
(4) 1970
159. Which one of the following is not a functional unit 159.

of an ecosystem?
(1) Energy flow (1)
(2) Decomposition (2)
(3) Productivity (3)
(4) Stratification (4)
160. Which one of the following is odd : 160.
(1) Fragmentation (1)
(2) Humification (2)
(3) Stratification (3)
(4) Mineralisation (4)
161. Which association exemplifies commensalism 161.

(a) Orchid and Mango (a)
u te
(b) Egret and Balaenoptera
s tit
(b)
(c) Silver fish and Adamsia
t In (c)
(d) Barnacle and Cattle igh (d)
L
(1) a, b,c only ew (1) a, b, c
N
(2) a, c only (2) a, c
(3) a, c, d only (3) a, c, d
(4) Only a (4) a
162. The Earth Summit (Historic Convention to 162. ( )

Biological Diversity) was held in :
(1) Johannesburg. South Africa, 2002 (1) 2002
(2) Rio De Janerio, 1992 (2) 1992
(3) Kyoto, Japan (3)
(4) Montreal, Canada (4)
163. Class mammalia includes families : 163.
(1) Felide (1)
(2) Canidae (2)
(3) Convolvulaceae (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

164. How many of the following fungus found in the 164.
class Ascomycetes :
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus,

Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora,
:
Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago,
Morels, Truffles, Colletotrichum, Toadstool: (1) 5
(1) 5 (2) 7
(2) 7 (3) 9
(3) 9 (4) 10
(4) 10 165.
165. Cuscuta is examples of (1)
(1) A type of plants (2)

(2) A type of parasitic fungi
(3)
(3) A type of parasitic animal
(4)
(4) More than one options are corrects
166. The strobili or cones are occurs in which plants : 166.
u te
tit
(1) Selaginella (1)
s
(2) Ferns
t In (2)
(3) Funaria
igh (3)
L
(4) All of these
ew (4)
167. In cloaca opening of which organs/system : N 167.
a. Alimentary canal a.
b. Urinary system b.
c. Reproductive tracts c.
(1) Only a, b (1) a, b
(2) Only b, c (2) b, c
(3) Only a (3) a
(4) a, b, c (4) a, b, c
168. In which class of Algae maximum diversity in 168.
shape of chloroplast occurs
(1) Phaeophyceae (1)
(2) Rhodophyceae (2)
(3) Chlorophyceae (3)
(4) Xanthophyceae (4)

169. Which one of the following plant related with the 169.
given diagram
(1)
(1) Spirogyra
(2)
(2) Polysiphonia
(3) Ectocarpus (3)

170. The given diagram are related with 170.
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
(1) China rose N (1)
(2) Pea (2)
(3) Cassia (3)
(4) Calotropis (4)

171. In mango and coconut type of fruit are 171.
(1) Sorosis (1)
(2) Drupe (2)
(3) Capsule (3)
(4) Berry (4)
172. Sesbania, Trifolium and Indigofera belongs to the 172.

family :
(1) Brassicaceae (1)
(2) Solanaceae (2)
(3) Liliaceae (3)
(4) Fabaceae (4)

173. Select the correct option for the given diagram 173.
(1) A type of connective tissue

(1)
(2) A type of neural tissue
(2)
(3) A type of muscular tissue
(3)
(4) A type of epithelial tissue (4)
174. Select the correct option for the given diagram of 174.
cockroach
u te
s tit
(1)
(1) Respiratory organ
t In
g h (2)
Li
(2) Excretory organ
(3)
(3) Part of intestine
ew
(4) A type of mouth parts N (4)
175. Which type of cell junctions found in the epithe- 175.

lium and other tissues:
(1) Gap junctions (1)
(2) Adhering junctions (2)
(3) Tight junctions (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
176. Which is a secretion of endocrine gland : 176.
(1) Milk (1)
(2) Thyroxine (2)
(3) Saliva (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4)
177. Which of the following are primary meristems 177.
(1) Intercalary meristems (1)
(2) Lateral meristems (2)
(3) Interfascicular cambium (3)
(4) Cork cambium (4)
178. Tracheids are present in the xylem of : 178.
(1) Pinus (1)
(2) Eucalyptus (2)
(3) Cedrus (3)
179. Which of the following is an incorrect match ? 179.
(1) Bowman's capsule – Glomerular filtration (1)
(2) DCT – Absorption of glucose (2) DCT
(3) Henle loop – Concentration of urine (3)
(4) PCT – Absorption of Na+ and (4) PCT

K+ ions
180. Which of the following set is wrong 180.
(a) Acetyl Co-A – 2C (a) - – 2C
(b) Citric acid – 4C (b) – 4C

u te
(c) -ketoglutaric acid – 5C (c)it- –5C
s t
(d) Succinic acid – 4C
t In (d) – 4C
(1) b igh (1) b

L
(2) a, b
ew (2) a, b
(3) a, c
N
(3) a, c
(4) c (4) c
181. Which one of the following molecule are utilised 181.

as well as released during glycolysis process :
(1) ATP, H2O (1) ATP, H2O
(2) ATP (2) ATP
(3) ATP, H2O, CO2 (3) ATP, H2O, CO2
(4) ATP, H2O, CO2, O2 (4) ATP, H2O, CO2, O2
182.
182. Which of the following statement are correct :
(1)
(1) Reproductive health means physical, emotional,
behavioural, social
(2) The family planing were initiated in 1951 (2) 1951
(3) A rapid decline death rate, MMR and IMR are lead (3) MMR IMR
to population growth

183. FOAM are directly related with : 183. FOAM
(1) control of air pollution (1)
(2) control of radioactive pollution (2)
(3) control of deforestation (3)
(4)
(4) control of water pollution
184.
184. Which one of the following types of organism not
occupy more than one trophic level in different
types of ecosystem :
(1) Human (1)
(2) Fish (2)
(3) Sparrow (3)

185. Which of the following concept are not of 185.

Darwinian theory of evolution :
a. Branching descent
u te
a.
b. Natural selection
stit
b.
c. use and disuse of organs t In
igh c.
d. Large difference arising suddenly inL a
population ew d.
N
(1) c, d
(1) c, d
(2) only d (2) d
(3) a, c, d (3) a, c, d
(4) a, d (4) a, d
SECTION–B–(PART-2) SECTION–B–(PART-2)
186. Which one of the following is a type of living 186.

organism :
(a) MALT
(a) MALT
(b) PPLO
(b) PPLO
(c) GMO
(c) GMO
(d) ART
(d) ART
(e)  × 174
(e)  × 174
(1) b, c, e
(1) b, c, e
(2) b, c (2) b, c
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d (4) b, c, d
187. Which one of the following is not vegetative 187.

propagules :
(1)
(1) Rhizome
(2)
(2) Sucker
(3)
(3) Offset
(4) Gemmules (4)
(1) Foetal - ejection reflex – Parturition (1) –
(2) First polar body – Oogenesis (2) –
(3) Second polar body – Spermatogenesis (3) –
(4) Implantation – Blastocyst (4) –
189. Which one of the following statement is correct 189.

with reference to Drosophila:
(1) It reproduces by parthenogenesis

(1)
(2) Smaller female is easily distinguishable from large
(2)
male
u te
tit
(3)
(3) A single mating produces two young flies
s
(4) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
t In (4)
190. In the given below examples how many animals igh190.
are Triploblastic L
Hydra, Spongilla, Sycon, Adamsia, Meandrina, ew , , , , , , ,
N
Taenia, Cockroach, Ctenoplana, Physalia, Sepia
, ,
(1) 7 (2) 6
(1) 7 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) 4 (4) 3
191. Different type of figure of cell organelles are given 191.
below. How many figure in which both RNA and 70 S
70 S ribosome are present :
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d)
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) None (3) 1 (4)

192. Which one of the following structure of internal 192.

ear are not involved in balancing of body
(1) Tectorial membrane (1)
(2) Otolith (2)
(3) Crista ampullaris (3)
(4) Semi-circular canals (4)
193. If a sample of B-DNA which length are 5.1 metre 193. B-DNA 5.1
then number of base pairs present in this sample:
(1) 6.6×1010 (1) 6.6×1010
(2) 1.5×1010 (2) 1.5×1010
(3) 2×109 (3) 2×109
(4) 1.5×109 (4) 1.5×109
194. Main Arena of cellular activities in both the plant 194.

and animal cells :
(1) Nucleus (1)

u te
(2) Cytoplasm s tit
(2)
t In (3)
gh (4)
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Mitochondria Li
ew 195.
N
195. Long exposure of dust in industry results in
(1)
(1) lung inflammation
(2) fibrosis (2)
(3) lung damage (3)

(4) all of these (4)
196. Which is a wrong statement regarding adrenal 196.

cortex:
(a)
(a) Epinephrine stimulates sympathetic nervous
system (b)
(b) Cortisol is a hypoglycemic hormone

(c)
(c) Cortisol is a glucocorticoid
(d)
(d) Cortisol suppresses the immune response
(1) a b
(1) a and b
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) c and d (3) c d
(4) Only b (4) b

197. What would be the stroke volume of a person if 197.
the cardiac output is increased to 7.2 litre but heart 7.2
of person beats normally as it is initially :
(1) 90 ml (1) 90 ml
(2) 80 ml (2) 80 ml
(3) 100 ml (3) 100 ml
(4) 120 ml (4) 120 ml
198. In animal cells during which phase the centriole 198.

duplicates in the cytoplasm
(1) G1 phase (1) G
(2) S phase (2) S
(3) G2 phase
u te
(3) G
(4) M phase
titM
(4)
s
199. Which one of the following is the correct 199.
t In
description of a certain part of a normal human h
g
skeleton
Li
(1) Parietal bone of the skull are paired ew (1)
(2) First vertebra is atlas

N (2)
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called floating (3)
ribs
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)

200. The species confined to a particular region and 200.
not found elsewhere is termed as :
(1) Endemic (1)
(2) Rare (2)
(3) Keystone (3)
(4) Alien (4)

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[FST-06] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-206]

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

TEST DATE : 30-10-2022

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TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

2. 64 charged drops coalesce to form a bigger 2. 64

(4) Parabola, parabola (4) ,

4. Radius of curvature of an equiconvex lens is 4. 0.2 m

(4) 30 cm. (4) 30 cm.

(2) 13 m/s (2) 13 m/s

(3) 16 m/s (3) 16 m/s

(4) 12 m/s (4) 12 m/s

6. The incident photon involved in the photoelectric 6.

(4) Comes out without change in frequency (4)

7. The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. 7.

Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and t

8. What will be the input A and B for the Boolean 8. (A  B)  (A  B)  1 A

9. What is the ratio of forward and reverse resistance 9. p-n

(1) 10–4 : 1 (1) 10–4 : 1

11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely 11. n

13. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different 13.

(4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying 40 m 3 at (4) 6 × 1026 900 K 40 m 3

(2) A > B g h (2)  >  A B

8g 4g 8g 4g

2g 10g 2g 10g

24. A particle of mass m oscillates along the horizontal 24. m

25. F is a force acting on a particle having position 

27. An eagle flies at constant velocity horizontally 27.

28. A body of mass m is placed on the earth surface, m h = 3R

the time. The constant  : e w

(3) has dimension [T2] (3) [T2]

(4) has dimension of P. (4) P.

32. Consider the following two statements 32.

Statement I : The binding energy per nucleon is I:

Statement II : Binding energy per nucleon is lower II : (A < 30)

(2) only statement II is correct (2) II

(3) Both statement I and II are correct (3) I II

(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (4) I II

34. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have 34. P1 P2 Q1 Q2

(2) 2lqE (2) 2lqE

(3) 2bqE (3) 2bqE

(4) Zero. (4) .

38. Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of 38. C

(4) Zero. (4)

40. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the 40. p

(2) pE (1 – cos) (2) pE (1 – cos)

(3) pE cos  (3) pE cos 

41. A disc of radius R and thickness

(2) 1 MeV (2) 1 MeV

(3) 0.5 MeV (3) 0.5 MeV