Labor Relations Development Structure Process 12Th Edition Fossum Test Bank Full Chapter PDF

Labor Relations Development Structure
Process 12th Edition Fossum Test Bank

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Chapter 08
The Environment for Bargaining
True / False Questions
1. The Railway Labor Act injected the federal government into transportation negotiations in the
form of the National Mediation Board.
True False
2. Permissive bargaining has no direct impact on management or labor costs.
True False
3. The demand for goods and services in a competitive market is highly elastic.
True False
4. A competitive market is one with relatively few producers.
True False
5. Deregulation created competition in wages between union and nonunion sectors of the
industries.
True False
6. The derived demand for labor is more inelastic if a given type of labor is essential in the
production of the final products.
True False
8-1
Copyright © 2015 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of
McGraw-Hill Education.
7. Employers are likely to be able to pass on the cost of a wage increase if they are in a
noncompetitive product market.
True False
8. Economic theory suggests workers will be added until the added value of the additional
output no longer exceeds the wage.
True False
9. Marginal revenue product is the value of the output produced by the existing workforce.
True False
10. In concentrated industries, the demand for a firm's product is never completely elastic.
True False
11. The marginal supply curve represents additional cost associated with expanding the
workforce.
True False
12. Employees unionize to obtain outcomes that they believe they are unable to obtain as
individuals.
True False
13. Local union officers are often elected by multiple bargaining units.
True False
14. Union's bargaining power is reduced when the employer has a monopoly in the product or
service market.
True False
8-2
15. In an industry where all employers offer essentially similar goods and services, a wage
increase is easy to pass on to customers.
True False
16. Pattern bargaining has occurred frequently in companies in highly unionized fragmented
industries.
True False
17. Pattern bargaining represents a form of quasi-industrywide bargaining.
True False
18. A conglomerate has low bargaining power.
True False
19. Conglomerates cannot afford to take a long strike at any subsidiary.
True False
20. The goal of conglomerates created by private equity is to refloat the businesses through
initial public offerings as independent companies.
True False
21. Coordinated bargaining occurs where a single union represents employees of several small
employers.
True False
22. With the focus moving from a corporate to a business-unit perspective, unions have gained
leverage on economic issues.
True False
8-3
23. Nonunion competition is reduced by requiring equivalent pattern agreements.
True False
24. In railroads and airlines, the Railway Labor Act requires that bargaining units need not be
organized on a craft basis.
True False
25. The NLRB ordered consent elections in companies where labor and management did not
dispute the makeup of the bargaining unit for representation purposes.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
26. Why was the FMCS established?
A. To help parties reach an agreement in simple situations only

B. To legislate rules for simple disputes that prohibited the use of strikes under any
circumstances
C. To help parties reach an agreement during national emergency situations only
D. To define a set of union unfair labor practices to balance those that employers were
forbidden to use
27. What does section 8(d) of the Taft-Hartley Act explain about collective bargaining?
A. To bargain collectively is the performance of the mutual obligation of the employer and
representative of the employees.
B. Employer and union are prohibited from bargaining collectively on any topic except wages
and hours.
C. No party can request for a written contract incorporating agreement reached.
D. Each party is obligated to reach an agreement or make a concession.
8-4
28. Which bargaining issues do not require a response because they have no direct impact on
management or labor costs?
A. Permissive
B. Mandatory
C. Prohibited
D. Legislative
29. Which of the following is true about permissive bargaining issues?
A. They do not require a response.

B. They have a direct impact on management and labor costs.
C. They are statutorily outlawed.
D. Any party may go to impasse over the issue.
30. Which of the following are classified as mandatory bargaining issues?
A. Issues that have no direct impact on management

B. Internal affairs of the union
C. Issues that have a direct effect on union members' jobs
D. Issues that are statutorily outlawed
31. Which of the following is true about labor and World War II?
A. All disputes were put on hold until the war was over.
B. Strikes were permitted.
C. All collective bargaining agreements required the approval of the federal government.
D. Wages and prices were never administered.
8-5
32. Excessive industrial concentration is dealt with by _____.
A. the courts
B. the National Mediation Board
C. the Federal Trade Commission
D. individual companies
33. Which of the following takes place when an industry matures?
A. It forces more efficient producers to increase prices to gain market share.

B. It forces the producers to substitute skilled craft work with cheaper labor.
C. It results in less standardized production methods thus forcing employers to hire low
skilled labor.
D. It gets dominated by relatively few firms and the less dominant either mimic the leader or
occupy niches.
34. Which of the following is a characteristic of competitive markets?
A. Consumers know very little about product attributes and prices.

B. The demand for goods and services is highly inelastic.
C. Producers are compelled to respond to price decreases.
D. There are relatively few producers selling similar products.
35. Which of the following is true of unionization in a competitive industry?
A. Unions don't focus on competitive industry companies unless they are concentrated
geographically.
B. Unionization in competitive industry requires not much of an effort.
C. Unions focus on competitive industry companies except when the employees prohibit any
form of assistance.
D. Organizing one company gives the union all the bargaining power on wages.
8-6
36. _____ enabled new companies to enter the industry and created competition in wages
between union and nonunion sectors of the industries.
A. Accretion
B. Craft severance
C. Pattern bargaining
D. Deregulation
37. How did deregulation affect the airline industry?
A. It had a relatively strong initial effect on mechanics' pay.

B. Pilots' salaries increased substantially.
C. Flight attendants' salaries decreased.
D. Pilots found alternative jobs in their occupation in other industries.
38. When does the elasticity of demand for a firm's product increase substantially?
A. When an industry is no longer concentrated

B. When there is decreased consumer attention to quality
C. When there is nonavailability of labor
D. When there is a lack of substitute products
39. How does global competition affect unions?
A. It reduces union bargaining power for representatives of employees.

B. It allows unions to bargain for higher wages because of the lack of skilled labor.
C. It increases the employment of domestic workers in basic industries.
D. It protects unionized employees against offshoring.
8-7
40. _____ in basic industries has decreased the wages and employment of domestic workers.
A. Prohibited bargaining
B. Global competition
C. Permissive bargaining
D. Unionization
41. Which of the following is true about health and pension costs?
A. They are largely determined by the control of the bargainers.

B. They are not related to the age of the workers.
C. They are not determined by the prices of financial services.
D. They are related to the prices of medical services.
42. What does management do to meet investor objectives?
A. They sell-off a higher-earning division.

B. They stay away from a possible spin off.
C. They shift investment from areas with increasing returns to those where improvement is
never anticipated.
D. They try to maximize profits in their present operations.
43. The derived demand for labor is more elastic if the:
A. market demand for the final products is inelastic.

B. cost of labor is a significant part of the total product cost.
C. supply of materials is elastic.
D. supply of capital is elastic.
8-8
44. When is the derived demand for labor more inelastic?
A. If a given type of labor is essential in the production of the final products

B. If the market demand for the final products is elastic
C. If the cost of labor is a significant part of the total product cost
D. If the supply of materials is elastic
45. When is the supply of labor elastic?
A. When an employer is a relatively small factor in a labor market

B. When there are a lot of employment opportunities in the market
C. When several employers hire the same type of labor simultaneously
D. When the rate of unemployment is low in the market
46. Employers are likely to be able to pass on the cost of a wage increase if they _____.
A. are in a competitive product market

B. are in a concentrated industry
C. are in a noncompetitive product market
D. sell products that have an elastic demand
47. Which of the following best describes marginal revenue product?
A. It is the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

B. It represents the additional cost associated with expanding the workforce.
C. It is the price at which the product is allowed to be sold in the retail market.
D. It is the total revenue generated times the labor cost.
8-9
48. Which of the following statements about competitive and/or concentrated markets is true?
A. In competitive industries, demand for a firm's product is highly inelastic.

B. The demand for each employer's products in concentrated industries is highly price-
sensitive.
C. The labor demand in concentrated industries is less elastic than it is in the competitive
situation.
D. Wage increase can be easily passed on to customers in competitive industries.
49. What would an employer in a competitive market do when the cost of labor increases?
A. Reduce cost on capital

B. Change capital-labor mix
C. Hire only unskilled workers
D. Decrease its dependence on technology
50. Which of the following is true of labor markets?
A. The union can never acquire monopoly power over the labor supply.
B. The union supplies the labor, but the contract has no authority on fixing its price.
C. Unions stay away from employers that have power to influence prices in the product
market and/or wages in the labor market.
D. A contracted wage elasticizes the labor supply at the negotiated rate.
51. Which of the following best describes a monopsonist employer?
A. A single producer of a specific product in a given market

B. The only unionized employer in a given market
C. A single purchaser of labor in a given market
D. The most dominating producer in a given market
8-10
52. Which of the following is true of the marginal supply curve?
A. It represents the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

B. It represents the graph of product supply and demand.
C. It represents the graph of labor supply and demand.
D. It represents the additional cost associated with expanding the workforce.
53. Which of the following is most likely to happen when a union bargains with a monopsonist
employer for increased wages beyond a point where MS and MRP intersect?
A. Employer will incur unviable labor costs.

B. Employer will be forced to layoff employees.
C. Employer will be able to expand employment.
D. Employer will be able to increase profits substantially.
54. Employers in the private sector are interested in _____.
A. maximizing long-term return to the investment in skills

B. maximizing long-term profits
C. encouraging all employees to join unions
D. increasing employment wages
55. What are the two major goals of unions?
A. Higher wages and more members

B. Maximizing profit and share value
C. Reduce risk of investments and diversification
D. Mergers and acquisitions of firms
8-11
56. In which of the following conditions will the employer have higher ability to continue
operations?
A. When the strike is in peak season

B. When the firm is capital-intensive
C. When high skilled labor is not easily replaceable
D. When an employer has only one plant that produces the product
57. In which of the following scenarios will the employer be less able to take a strike?
A. If employers implement just-in-time inventory systems

B. If the firm is capital intensive
C. If the employer has several plants producing the same product
D. If the jobs' skill level is low
58. Under which condition is union's wage gains in bargaining higher?
A. When new employers can easily enter the market

B. When industrial concentration is low
C. When foreign competition is low
D. When union coverage by dominant union is low
59. Which of the following is true of a multiemployer bargaining unit?
A. A single set of negotiators and negotiated wages applies to all members.

B. The contract expires at different times for all.
C. Each employer faces a product and service demand curve totally different from the market
demand curve.
D. If the market demand for the employers' goods and services is quite inelastic, none of the
wage increases can be passed.
8-12
60. When does the most successful multiemployer bargaining occur?
A. When the employers have varied nonlabor costs

B. When all employers are unionized
C. When the entry costs are low for new firms
D. When the negotiated wages do not apply to all
61. When does industrywide bargaining take place?
A. When employees stick to a single employer within a small geographic area

B. When products or services are essentially commodities
C. When the bargaining occurs within a relatively small geographic area
D. When the bargaining is done in a business operating in several distinct industries
62. What is pattern bargaining?
A. Union targets one dominant employer in a highly concentrated industry

B. Union bargains with many small employers from a particular geographic area
C. Union bargains with a large employer that has many competitors
D. Union bargains with a small employer who has many competitors
63. Which of the following is true of a conglomerate?
A. It has low bargaining power.

B. It is a business operating in several distinct industries.
C. Its parts depend on each other for components and processes.
D. It can never afford to take a long strike at any of its subsidiary.
8-13
64. Why does a conglomerate have higher ability to take on a long strike at any subsidiary?
A. A few parts of its business are large relative to others.

B. Its parts do not depend on each other for components or processes.
C. It has low bargaining power.
D. It deals with a single union and has contracts with the same expiration.
65. Which of the following best describes coordinated bargaining?
A. Dominant union chooses a major employer as a bargaining target

B. Bargaining in businesses operating in several distinct industries
C. Two or more national unions represent employees of a single major employer
D. A single set of negotiators speaks for all employers
66. A _____ arrangement increases union bargaining power but is also accompanied by an
increased willingness to try innovative solutions to employment problems during a period of
rapid technological change in the telecommunications industry.
A. coalition
B. local
C. permissive
D. industrywide
67. Under which act do bargaining units need to be organized on a craft basis?
A. Taft-Hartley Act
B. Norris-La Guardia Act
C. Railway Labor Act
D. Wagner Act
8-14
68. Unions must be able to reduce competition with both nonunion and union workers to improve
conditions. Nonunion competition is reduced through _____.
A. requiring equivalent pattern agreements

B. covering only nonunion labor
C. extending organizing
D. unionizing only the dominant producer
69. Which of the following is true about the changes in industrial bargaining structures and their
outcomes?
A. Professional sports are the least organized, with baseball and basketball players exercising
low bargaining strength.
B. Declining unionization in health care and the consolidation of health care providers has led
to the reduced use of organization-wide bargaining structures.
C. Unionization in the construction industry has increased as employers have increasingly
established nonunion subsidiaries.
D. The Communications Workers have some of the major local operators who are neutral in
organizing campaigns and/or allow card checks for recognition in their wireless business
units.
70. Which of the following is true about bargaining units?
A. Where local unions service several bargaining units, local officers are very concerned
about the content of individual contracts.
B. At its most elemental level, a bargaining unit is what labor and management say it is.
C. After the representation stage, the parties are free to make the bargaining unit less (but
not more) inclusive in negotiations.
D. The expansion of a bargaining unit results only if management forces the union to do so.
Short Answer Questions
8-15
71. What are the changes that occur from the time of infancy to maturity of an industry?
72. Describe the characteristics of a competitive industry.
73. How does the composition of the workforce affect productivity and labor costs of employers?
8-16
74. List some of the steps that a firm can take to increase profitability.
76. Explain the labor-capital substitution.
8-17
77. What is a marginal supply curve? Explain with an example.
78. How do unions demonstrate their effectiveness?
79. How do integrated facilities affect an employer's ability to take on strikes?
8-18
80. Write a short note on industrywide bargaining.
8-19
Chapter 08 The Environment for Bargaining Answer Key
True / False Questions
1. The Railway Labor Act injected the federal government into transportation negotiations in
(p. 219) the form of the National Mediation Board.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
2. Permissive bargaining has no direct impact on management or labor costs.

(p. 220)
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
3. The demand for goods and services in a competitive market is highly elastic.
(p. 224)
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
4. A competitive market is one with relatively few producers.

(p. 224)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-20
5. Deregulation created competition in wages between union and nonunion sectors of the
(p. 225) industries.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
6. The derived demand for labor is more inelastic if a given type of labor is essential in the
(p. 230) production of the final products.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
7. Employers are likely to be able to pass on the cost of a wage increase if they are in a
(p. 231) noncompetitive product market.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8. Economic theory suggests workers will be added until the added value of the additional
(p. 231) output no longer exceeds the wage.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
9. Marginal revenue product is the value of the output produced by the existing workforce.
(p. 231)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-21
10. In concentrated industries, the demand for a firm's product is never completely elastic.
(p. 232)
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
11. The marginal supply curve represents additional cost associated with expanding the
(p. 235) workforce.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
12. Employees unionize to obtain outcomes that they believe they are unable to obtain as
(p. 237) individuals.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
13. Local union officers are often elected by multiple bargaining units.
(p. 237)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
14. Union's bargaining power is reduced when the employer has a monopoly in the product or
(p. 238) service market.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-22
15. In an industry where all employers offer essentially similar goods and services, a wage
(p. 242) increase is easy to pass on to customers.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
16. Pattern bargaining has occurred frequently in companies in highly unionized fragmented
(p. 245) industries.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
17. Pattern bargaining represents a form of quasi-industrywide bargaining.

(p. 245)
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
18. A conglomerate has low bargaining power.

(p. 246)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
19. Conglomerates cannot afford to take a long strike at any subsidiary.

(p. 247)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-23
20. The goal of conglomerates created by private equity is to refloat the businesses through
(p. 247) initial public offerings as independent companies.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
21. Coordinated bargaining occurs where a single union represents employees of several
(p. 247) small employers.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
22. With the focus moving from a corporate to a business-unit perspective, unions have
(p. 249) gained leverage on economic issues.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
23. Nonunion competition is reduced by requiring equivalent pattern agreements.

(p. 249)
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
24. In railroads and airlines, the Railway Labor Act requires that bargaining units need not be
(p. 249) organized on a craft basis.
FALSE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-24
25. The NLRB ordered consent elections in companies where labor and management did not
(p. 251) dispute the makeup of the bargaining unit for representation purposes.
TRUE
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Multiple Choice Questions
26. Why was the FMCS established?

(p. 219)
A. To help parties reach an agreement in simple situations only

B. To legislate rules for simple disputes that prohibited the use of strikes under any
circumstances
C. To help parties reach an agreement during national emergency situations only
D. To define a set of union unfair labor practices to balance those that employers were
forbidden to use
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
27. What does section 8(d) of the Taft-Hartley Act explain about collective bargaining?
(p. 219)
A. To bargain collectively is the performance of the mutual obligation of the employer and
representative of the employees.
B. Employer and union are prohibited from bargaining collectively on any topic except
wages and hours.
C. No party can request for a written contract incorporating agreement reached.
D. Each party is obligated to reach an agreement or make a concession.
Blooms: Understand
8-25
28. Which bargaining issues do not require a response because they have no direct impact on
(p. 220) management or labor costs?
A. Permissive
B. Mandatory
C. Prohibited
D. Legislative
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
29. Which of the following is true about permissive bargaining issues?

(p. 220)
A. They do not require a response.

B. They have a direct impact on management and labor costs.
C. They are statutorily outlawed.
D. Any party may go to impasse over the issue.
Blooms: Understand
30. Which of the following are classified as mandatory bargaining issues?

(p. 220)
A. Issues that have no direct impact on management

B. Internal affairs of the union
C. Issues that have a direct effect on union members' jobs
D. Issues that are statutorily outlawed
Blooms: Understand
8-26
31. Which of the following is true about labor and World War II?
(p. 222)
A. All disputes were put on hold until the war was over.
B. Strikes were permitted.
C. All collective bargaining agreements required the approval of the federal government.
D. Wages and prices were never administered.
Blooms: Understand
32. Excessive industrial concentration is dealt with by _____.

(p. 223)
A. the courts
B. the National Mediation Board
C. the Federal Trade Commission
D. individual companies
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
33. Which of the following takes place when an industry matures?

(p. 224)
A. It forces more efficient producers to increase prices to gain market share.

B. It forces the producers to substitute skilled craft work with cheaper labor.
C. It results in less standardized production methods thus forcing employers to hire low
skilled labor.
D. It gets dominated by relatively few firms and the less dominant either mimic the leader
or occupy niches.
Blooms: Understand
8-27
34. Which of the following is a characteristic of competitive markets?
(p. 224)
A. Consumers know very little about product attributes and prices.

B. The demand for goods and services is highly inelastic.
C. Producers are compelled to respond to price decreases.
D. There are relatively few producers selling similar products.
Blooms: Understand
35. Which of the following is true of unionization in a competitive industry?

(p. 224)
A. Unions don't focus on competitive industry companies unless they are concentrated
geographically.
B. Unionization in competitive industry requires not much of an effort.
C. Unions focus on competitive industry companies except when the employees prohibit
any form of assistance.
D. Organizing one company gives the union all the bargaining power on wages.
Blooms: Understand
36. _____ enabled new companies to enter the industry and created competition in wages
(p. 225) between union and nonunion sectors of the industries.
A. Accretion
B. Craft severance
C. Pattern bargaining
D. Deregulation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-28
37. How did deregulation affect the airline industry?
(p. 225)
A. It had a relatively strong initial effect on mechanics' pay.

B. Pilots' salaries increased substantially.
C. Flight attendants' salaries decreased.
D. Pilots found alternative jobs in their occupation in other industries.
Blooms: Understand
38. When does the elasticity of demand for a firm's product increase substantially?
(p. 227)
A. When an industry is no longer concentrated

B. When there is decreased consumer attention to quality
C. When there is nonavailability of labor
D. When there is a lack of substitute products
Blooms: Understand
39. How does global competition affect unions?

(p. 228)
A. It reduces union bargaining power for representatives of employees.

B. It allows unions to bargain for higher wages because of the lack of skilled labor.
C. It increases the employment of domestic workers in basic industries.
D. It protects unionized employees against offshoring.
Blooms: Understand
8-29
40. _____ in basic industries has decreased the wages and employment of domestic workers.
(p. 228)
A. Prohibited bargaining
B. Global competition
C. Permissive bargaining
D. Unionization
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
41. Which of the following is true about health and pension costs?
(p. 229)
A. They are largely determined by the control of the bargainers.

B. They are not related to the age of the workers.
C. They are not determined by the prices of financial services.
D. They are related to the prices of medical services.
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
42. What does management do to meet investor objectives?

(p. 230)
A. They sell-off a higher-earning division.

B. They stay away from a possible spin off.
C. They shift investment from areas with increasing returns to those where improvement
is never anticipated.
D. They try to maximize profits in their present operations.
Blooms: Understand
8-30
43. The derived demand for labor is more elastic if the:
(p. 230)
A. market demand for the final products is inelastic.

B. cost of labor is a significant part of the total product cost.
C. supply of materials is elastic.
D. supply of capital is elastic.
Blooms: Understand

(p. 230)
A. If a given type of labor is essential in the production of the final products

B. If the market demand for the final products is elastic
C. If the cost of labor is a significant part of the total product cost
D. If the supply of materials is elastic
Blooms: Understand
45. When is the supply of labor elastic?

(p. 230-
231)
A. When an employer is a relatively small factor in a labor market

B. When there are a lot of employment opportunities in the market
C. When several employers hire the same type of labor simultaneously
D. When the rate of unemployment is low in the market
Blooms: Understand
8-31
46. Employers are likely to be able to pass on the cost of a wage increase if they _____.
(p. 231)
A. are in a competitive product market

B. are in a concentrated industry
C. are in a noncompetitive product market
D. sell products that have an elastic demand
Blooms: Understand
47. Which of the following best describes marginal revenue product?

(p. 231)
A. It is the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

B. It represents the additional cost associated with expanding the workforce.
C. It is the price at which the product is allowed to be sold in the retail market.
D. It is the total revenue generated times the labor cost.
Blooms: Understand
48. Which of the following statements about competitive and/or concentrated markets is
(p. 232) true?
A. In competitive industries, demand for a firm's product is highly inelastic.

B. The demand for each employer's products in concentrated industries is highly price-
sensitive.
C. The labor demand in concentrated industries is less elastic than it is in the competitive
situation.
D. Wage increase can be easily passed on to customers in competitive industries.
Blooms: Understand
8-32
49. What would an employer in a competitive market do when the cost of labor increases?
(p. 233)
A. Reduce cost on capital

B. Change capital-labor mix
C. Hire only unskilled workers
D. Decrease its dependence on technology
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
50. Which of the following is true of labor markets?

(p. 235)
A. The union can never acquire monopoly power over the labor supply.
B. The union supplies the labor, but the contract has no authority on fixing its price.
C. Unions stay away from employers that have power to influence prices in the product
market and/or wages in the labor market.
D. A contracted wage elasticizes the labor supply at the negotiated rate.
Blooms: Understand
51. Which of the following best describes a monopsonist employer?

(p. 235)
A. A single producer of a specific product in a given market

B. The only unionized employer in a given market
C. A single purchaser of labor in a given market
D. The most dominating producer in a given market
Blooms: Understand
8-33
52. Which of the following is true of the marginal supply curve?
(p. 235)
A. It represents the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

B. It represents the graph of product supply and demand.
C. It represents the graph of labor supply and demand.
D. It represents the additional cost associated with expanding the workforce.
Blooms: Understand
53. Which of the following is most likely to happen when a union bargains with a monopsonist
(p. 235) employer for increased wages beyond a point where MS and MRP intersect?
A. Employer will incur unviable labor costs.

B. Employer will be forced to layoff employees.
C. Employer will be able to expand employment.
D. Employer will be able to increase profits substantially.
Blooms: Understand
54. Employers in the private sector are interested in _____.

(p. 236)
A. maximizing long-term return to the investment in skills

B. maximizing long-term profits
C. encouraging all employees to join unions
D. increasing employment wages
Blooms: Understand
8-34
55. What are the two major goals of unions?
(p. 237)
A. Higher wages and more members

B. Maximizing profit and share value
C. Reduce risk of investments and diversification
D. Mergers and acquisitions of firms
Blooms: Understand
56. In which of the following conditions will the employer have higher ability to continue
(p. 239) operations?
A. When the strike is in peak season

B. When the firm is capital-intensive
C. When high skilled labor is not easily replaceable
D. When an employer has only one plant that produces the product
Blooms: Understand
57. In which of the following scenarios will the employer be less able to take a strike?
(p. 239)
A. If employers implement just-in-time inventory systems

B. If the firm is capital intensive
C. If the employer has several plants producing the same product
D. If the jobs' skill level is low
Blooms: Understand
8-35
58. Under which condition is union's wage gains in bargaining higher?
(p. 240)
A. When new employers can easily enter the market

B. When industrial concentration is low
C. When foreign competition is low
D. When union coverage by dominant union is low
Blooms: Understand
59. Which of the following is true of a multiemployer bargaining unit?

(p. 242)
A. A single set of negotiators and negotiated wages applies to all members.

B. The contract expires at different times for all.
C. Each employer faces a product and service demand curve totally different from the
market demand curve.
D. If the market demand for the employers' goods and services is quite inelastic, none of
the wage increases can be passed.
Blooms: Understand
60. When does the most successful multiemployer bargaining occur?

(p. 243)
A. When the employers have varied nonlabor costs

B. When all employers are unionized
C. When the entry costs are low for new firms
D. When the negotiated wages do not apply to all
Blooms: Understand
8-36
61. When does industrywide bargaining take place?
(p. 243)
A. When employees stick to a single employer within a small geographic area

B. When products or services are essentially commodities
C. When the bargaining occurs within a relatively small geographic area
D. When the bargaining is done in a business operating in several distinct industries
Blooms: Understand
62. What is pattern bargaining?

(p. 245)
A. Union targets one dominant employer in a highly concentrated industry

B. Union bargains with many small employers from a particular geographic area
C. Union bargains with a large employer that has many competitors
D. Union bargains with a small employer who has many competitors
Blooms: Understand
63. Which of the following is true of a conglomerate?

(p. 246)
A. It has low bargaining power.

B. It is a business operating in several distinct industries.
C. Its parts depend on each other for components and processes.
D. It can never afford to take a long strike at any of its subsidiary.
Blooms: Understand
8-37
64. Why does a conglomerate have higher ability to take on a long strike at any subsidiary?
(p. 246-
247)
A. A few parts of its business are large relative to others.

B. Its parts do not depend on each other for components or processes.
C. It has low bargaining power.
D. It deals with a single union and has contracts with the same expiration.
Blooms: Understand
65. Which of the following best describes coordinated bargaining?

(p. 247)
A. Dominant union chooses a major employer as a bargaining target

B. Bargaining in businesses operating in several distinct industries
C. Two or more national unions represent employees of a single major employer
D. A single set of negotiators speaks for all employers
Blooms: Understand
66. A _____ arrangement increases union bargaining power but is also accompanied by an
(p. 248- increased willingness to try innovative solutions to employment problems during a period
249)
of rapid technological change in the telecommunications industry.
A. coalition
B. local
C. permissive
D. industrywide
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
8-38
67. Under which act do bargaining units need to be organized on a craft basis?
(p. 249)
A. Taft-Hartley Act
B. Norris-La Guardia Act
C. Railway Labor Act
D. Wagner Act
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
68. Unions must be able to reduce competition with both nonunion and union workers to
(p. 249) improve conditions. Nonunion competition is reduced through _____.
A. requiring equivalent pattern agreements

B. covering only nonunion labor
C. extending organizing
D. unionizing only the dominant producer
Blooms: Understand
69. Which of the following is true about the changes in industrial bargaining structures and
(p. 251) their outcomes?
A. Professional sports are the least organized, with baseball and basketball players
exercising low bargaining strength.
B. Declining unionization in health care and the consolidation of health care providers has
led to the reduced use of organization-wide bargaining structures.
C. Unionization in the construction industry has increased as employers have increasingly
established nonunion subsidiaries.
D. The Communications Workers have some of the major local operators who are neutral
in organizing campaigns and/or allow card checks for recognition in their wireless
business units.
Blooms: Understand
8-39
70. Which of the following is true about bargaining units?
(p. 251)
A. Where local unions service several bargaining units, local officers are very concerned
about the content of individual contracts.
B. At its most elemental level, a bargaining unit is what labor and management say it is.
C. After the representation stage, the parties are free to make the bargaining unit less
(but not more) inclusive in negotiations.
D. The expansion of a bargaining unit results only if management forces the union to do
so.
Blooms: Understand
Short Answer Questions
71. What are the changes that occur from the time of infancy to maturity of an industry?
(p. 223-
224)
The growth and maturation of most industries seem to follow a general pattern. During an
industry's infancy, production is labor-intensive. Product characteristics are relatively
diverse. As consumer preferences are revealed, some producers go out of business
because their products do not meet consumers' needs. As production methods become
standardized, capital and cheaper labor are substituted for skilled craft work, and more
efficient producers lower prices to gain market share, thus driving marginal producers
from the industry. Over time, an industry becomes dominated by relatively few firms, and
the less dominant either mimic the leader or occupy niches in which the leader chooses
not to produce.
Blooms: Understand
8-40
72. Describe the characteristics of a competitive industry.
(p. 224)
Competitive market includes many producers that sell similar products. Consumers have
good information about product attributes and prices. Producers that sell at prices above
the market will not be able to remain in business. The demand for goods and services in
this type of market is highly elastic, meaning that if a producer decreases its prices,
buyers will quickly shift toward purchases from this low-price firm. The reverse would
happen to producers that did not respond to the decrease. In a competitive market, if a
producer does not quickly match a drop in the market price, it will be unable to sell enough
to remain in business.
Blooms: Understand
73. How does the composition of the workforce affect productivity and labor costs of
(p. 228) employers?
In general, worker productivity improves with experience, and experience is gained over
time—thus, age and experience are inextricably linked. Pay also generally increases with
experience, particularly if the experience is translated into observable performance having
increasing economic value. As worker productivity increases with experience, fewer
workers are required to produce a given level of output. As employers gain experience with
production methods, refinements are made that improve productivity.
Blooms: Understand
8-41
74. List some of the steps that a firm can take to increase profitability.
(p. 230)
Management seeks to maximize profits in its present operations and to shift investment
from areas with declining returns to those where improvement is anticipated, with the
greatest amount of flexibility possible. Firms might be expected to leave previous markets
and enter new ones as the environment changes the rates of return for various industries.
Mergers and acquisitions reflect the mobility of capital. If a firm is not making an
acceptable return on its equity, a lower-earning division can be sold, forcing unions to deal
with successor owners. Part of an organization can also be spun off.
Blooms: Understand

(p. 230)
The derived demand for labor is more inelastic if (1) a given type of labor is essential in
the production of the final products, (2) the market demand for the final products is
inelastic, (3) the cost of labor is a small part of the total product cost, and (4) the supply of
materials and/or capital is inelastic.
Blooms: Understand
8-42
76. Explain the labor-capital substitution.
(p. 233)
Labor and capital are required to produce products and services. Besides being interested
in moving in and out of product and service markets quickly, employers also would like to
change the capital-labor mix as the relative costs of the two change. Employers would like
to make adjustments whenever a different combination of factors would improve returns.
Changes in the use of capital are generally based on relatively long-term payoffs. To the
extent that labor contracts fix wages and restrict layoffs, the use and costs of labor are not
changeable in the short term, leaving the employer with what it believes is a suboptimal
combination. If negotiations result in increased wages, the employer can be expected to
reduce the use of labor and potentially increase the use of capital.
Blooms: Understand
77. What is a marginal supply curve? Explain with an example.

(p. 235)
Students' examples may vary.

The marginal supply curve MS represents the additional cost associated with expanding
the workforce. For example, if one worker could be hired at $10 but the wage would need
to increase to $11 before a second would take the job, the cost (marginal supply) of
adding the second worker is $11 + $1 increase for the previously hired worker, or $12.
Blooms: Understand
8-43
78. How do unions demonstrate their effectiveness?
(p. 237)
Unions demonstrate their effectiveness by negotiating contracts that improve employment

conditions for their members, attract new members, and organize additional units. As an
institution, the union desires security as the employees' representative through negotiated
union shop agreements.
Blooms: Understand
79. How do integrated facilities affect an employer's ability to take on strikes?

(p. 239)
When output from one plant is necessary for production in several others, there is more
bargaining power in the supplier plant. This situation frequently occurs in the auto industry
at plants producing parts like electrical equipment or radiators for all vehicles in a
manufacturer's line. Problems associated with strikes in supplier facilities have become
more critical as manufacturers have moved toward just-in-time parts deliveries.
Blooms: Understand
80. Write a short note on industrywide bargaining.

(p. 243-
244)
While most multiemployer bargaining is done within a relatively small geographic area, it
also occurs on an industrywide basis when products or services are essentially
commodities. Maintaining an industrywide bargaining structure is a perilous proposition.
As more employers are included, their sizes and abilities to take strikes become dissimilar.
Where employees change employers frequently and employers are widely distributed
geographically, industrial-level bargaining can occur.
Blooms: Understand
8-44
8-45
Another random document with
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of cream; and it may be browned in a Dutch oven, when no other is
in use.
In Italy the flour of Indian corn, which is much grown there, and
eaten by all ranks of people, is used for this dish; but the semoulina
is perhaps rather better suited to English taste and habits of diet,
from being somewhat lighter and more delicate. The maize-flour
imported from Italy is sold at the foreign warehouses here under the
name of polenta,[141] though that properly speaking is, we believe,
a boiled or stewed preparation of it, which forms the most common
food of the poorer classes of the inhabitants of many of the Italian
states. It seems to us superior in quality to the Indian corn flour
grown in America.
141. This was vended at a sufficiently high price in this country before the maize
meal was so largely imported here from America.
New milk (or milk mixed with cream), 1 quart; salt, large 1/2
teaspoonful; semoulina, 5 oz.: 10 minutes. Grated cheese, 6 to 8 oz.;
cayenne, 1/2 teaspoonful; mace, 1 small teaspoonful; butter, 2 to 3
oz.: baked 1/2 hour, gentle oven.
Obs.—A plain mould can be used instead of the basin.
FOR VARIOUS MODES OF DRESSING EGGS, SEE CHAPTER XXII.

CHAPTER XX.
Boiled Puddings.
GENERAL DIRECTIONS.
All the ingredients for puddings should be

fresh and of good quality. It is a false
economy to use for them such as have
been too long stored, as the slightest
degree of mustiness or taint in any one of
the articles of which they are composed will
spoil all that are combined with it. Eggs
should always be broken separately into a Pudding Mould.
cup before they are thrown together in the
same basin, as a single very bad one will
occasion the loss of many when this precaution is neglected. They
should also be cleared from the specks with scrupulous attention,
either with the point of a small three-pronged fork while they are in
the cup, or by straining the whole through a fine hair-sieve after they
are beaten. The perfect sweetness of suet and milk should be
especially attended to before they are mixed into a pudding, as
nothing can be more offensive than the first when it is over-kept, nor
worse in its effect than the curdling of the milk, which is the certain
result of its being ever so slightly soured.
Currants should be cleaned, and raisins stoned with exceeding
care; almonds and spices very finely pounded, and the rinds of
oranges or lemons rasped or grated lightly off, that the bitter part of
the skin may be avoided, when they are used for this, or for any
other class of dishes; if pared, they should be cut as thin as possible.
Custard puddings to have a good appearance, must be simmered
only but without ceasing; for if boiled in a quick and careless manner,
the surface instead of being smooth and velvety, will be full of holes,
or honey-combed, as it is called, and the whey will flow from it and
mingle with the sauce. A thickly-buttered sheet of writing-paper
should be laid between the custard mixture and the cloth before it is
tied over, or the cover of the mould is closed upon it; and the mould
itself or the basin in which it is boiled, and which should always be
quite full, must likewise be well buttered; and after it is lifted from the
water the pudding should be left in it for quite five minutes before it is
dished, to prevent its breaking or spreading about.
Batter is much lighter when boiled in a cloth, and allowed full room
to swell, than when confined in a mould: it should be well beaten the
instant before it is poured into it, and put into the water immediately
after it is securely tied. The cloth should be moist and thickly floured,
and the pudding should be sent to table as expeditiously as possible
after it is done, as it will quickly become heavy. This applies equally
to all puddings made with paste, which are rendered uneatable by
any delay in serving them after they are ready: they should be
opened a little at the top as soon as they are taken from the boiler or
stewpan to permit the escape of the steam from within.
Plum-puddings, which it is customary to boil in moulds, are both
lighter and less dry, when closely tied in stout cloths well buttered
and floured, especially when they are made in part with bread; but
when this is done, care should be taken not to allow them to burn to
the bottom of the pan in which they are cooked; and it is a good plan
to lay a plate or dish under them, by way of precaution against this
mischance; it will not then so much matter whether they be kept
floating or not. It is thought better to mix these entirely (except the
liquid portion of them) the day before they are boiled, and it is
perhaps an advantage when they are of large size to do so, but it is
not really necessary for small or common ones.
A very little salt improves all sweet puddings, by taking off the
insipidity, and bringing out the full flavour of the other ingredients, but
its presence should not be in the slightest degree perceptible. When
brandy, wine, or lemon-juice is added to them it should be stirred in
briskly, and by degrees, quite at last, as it would be likely otherwise
to curdle the milk or eggs.
Many persons prefer their puddings steamed; but when this is not
done, they should be dropped into plenty of boiling water, and be
kept well covered with it until they are ready to serve; and the boiling
should never be allowed to cease for an instant, for they soon
become heavy if it be interrupted.
Pudding and dumpling cloths should not only be laid into plenty of
water as soon as they are taken off, and well washed afterwards, but
it is essential to their perfect sweetness that they should be well and
quickly dried (in the open air if possible), then folded and kept in a
clean drawer.
TO CLEAN CURRANTS FOR PUDDINGS OR CAKES.
Put them into a cullender, strew a handful of flour over them, and
rub them gently with the hands to separate the lumps, and to detach
the stalks; work them round in the cullender, and shake it well, when
the small stalks and stones will fall through it. Next pour plenty of
cold water over the currants, drain and spread them on a soft cloth,
press it over them to absorb the moisture, and then lay them on a
clean oven-tin, or a large dish, and dry them very gradually (or they
will become hard), either in a cool oven or before the fire, taking care
in the latter case that they are not placed sufficiently near it for the
ashes to fall amongst them. When they are perfectly dry, clear them
entirely from the remaining stalks, and from every stone that may be
amongst them. The best mode of detecting these is to lay the fruit at
the far end of a large white dish, or sheet of paper, and to pass it
lightly, and in very small portions, with the fingers, towards oneself,
examining it closely as this is done.
TO STEAM A PUDDING IN A COMMON STEWPAN OR
SAUCEPAN.
Butter and fill the mould or basin as usual; tie over it, first, a well-
buttered paper, and then a thin floured cloth or muslin, which should
be quite small; gather up and tie the corners, and be careful that no
part of it, or of the paper, reaches to the water; pour in from two to
three inches depth of this, according to the height of the mould, and
when it boils put in the pudding, and press the cover of the stewpan
closely on; then boil it gently without ceasing until it is done. This is
the safer method of boiling all puddings made with polenta, or with
the American flour of maize; as well as many others of the custard
kind, which are easily spoiled by the admission of water to them. As
the evaporation diminishes that in the saucepan, more, ready-
boiling, must be added if necessary; and be poured carefully down
the side of the pan without touching the pudding.
TO MIX BATTER FOR PUDDINGS.
Put the flour and salt into a bowl, and stir them together; whisk the
eggs thoroughly, strain them through a fine hair-sieve, and add them
very gradually to the flour; for if too much liquid be poured to it at
once it will be full of lumps, and it is easy with care to keep the batter
perfectly smooth. Beat it well and lightly with the back of a strong
wooden spoon, and after the eggs are added thin it with milk to a
proper consistence. The whites of the eggs beaten separately to a
solid froth, and stirred gently into the mixture the instant before it is
tied up for boiling, or before it is put into the oven to be baked, will
render it remarkably light. When fruit is added to the batter, it must
be made thicker than when it is served plain, or it will sink to the
bottom of the pudding. Batter should never stick to the knife when it
is sent to table: it will do this both when a sufficient number of eggs
are not mixed with it, and when it is not enough cooked. About four
eggs to the half pound of flour will make it firm enough to cut
smoothly.
SUET-CRUST, FOR MEAT OR FRUIT PUDDINGS.
Clear off the skin from some fresh beef kidney-suet, hold it firmly
with a fork, and with a sharp knife slice it thin, free it entirely from
fibre, and mince it very fine: six ounces thus prepared will be found
quite sufficient for a pound of flour. Mix them well together, add half a
teaspoonful of salt for meat puddings, and a third as much for fruit
ones, and sufficient cold water to make the whole into a very firm
paste; work it smooth, and roll it out of equal thickness when it is
used. The weight of suet should be taken after it is minced. This
crust is so much lighter, and more wholesome than that which is
made with butter, that we cannot refrain from recommending it in
preference to our readers. Some cooks merely slice the suet in thin
shavings, mix it with the flour, and beat the crust with a paste-roller,
until the flour and suet are perfectly incorporated; but it is better
minced.
Flour, 2 lbs.; suet, 12 oz.; salt, 1 teaspoonful; water, 1 pint.
BUTTER CRUST FOR PUDDINGS.
When suet is disliked for crust, butter must supply its place, but
there must be no intermixture of lard in paste which is to be boiled.
Eight ounces to the pound of flour will render it sufficiently rich for
most eaters, and less will generally be preferred; rich crust of this
kind being more indigestible by far than that which is baked. The
butter may be lightly broken into the flour before the water is added,
or it may be laid on, and rolled into the paste as for puff-crust. A
small portion of salt must be added to it always, and for a meat
pudding the same proportion as directed in the preceding receipt.
For kitchen, or for quite common family puddings, butter and clarified
dripping are used sometimes in equal proportions. From three to four
ounces of each will be sufficient for the pound and quarter of flour.
Flour, 1 lb.; butter, 8 oz.; salt, for fruit puddings, 1/2 saltspoonful;
for meat puddings, 1/2 teaspoonful.
SAVOURY PUDDINGS.
The perfect manner in which the nutriment and flavour of an

infinite variety of viands may be preserved by enclosing and boiling
them in paste, is a great recommendation of this purely English class
of dishes, the advantages of which foreign cooks are beginning to
acknowledge. If really well made, these savoury puddings are worthy
of a place on any table; though the decrees of fashion—which in
many instances have so much more influence with us than they
deserve—have hitherto confined them almost entirely to the simple
family dinners of the middle classes; but we are bound to
acknowledge that even where they are most commonly served they
are seldom prepared with a creditable degree of skill; and they are
equally uninviting and unwholesome when heavily and coarsely
concocted. From the general suggestions which we make here, and
the few detailed receipts which follow, a clever cook will easily
compound them to suit the taste and means of her employers; for
they may be either very rich and expensive, or quite the reverse.
Venison (the neck is best for the purpose), intermingled or not with
truffles; sweetbreads sliced, and oysters or nicely prepared button-
mushrooms in alternate layers, with good veal stock for gravy;[142]
pheasants, partridges, moorfowl, woodcocks, snipes, plovers,
wheatears, may all be converted into the first class of these; and
veal kidneys, seasoned with fine herbs, will supply another variety of
them. Many persons like eels dressed in this way, but they are
unsuited to delicate eaters: and sausages are liable to the same
objection; and so is a harslet pudding, which is held in much esteem
in certain counties, and which is made of the heart, liver, kidneys,
&c., of a pig. We can recommend as both wholesome and
economical the receipts which follow, for the more simple kind of
savoury puddings, and which may serve as guides for such others
as the intelligence of the cook may suggest.
142. The liquor of the oysters should be added when they are used.
BEEF-STEAK, OR JOHN BULL’S PUDDING.
All meat puddings are more conveniently made in deep pans,

moulds, or basins having a thick rim, below which the cloths can be
tied without the hazard of their slipping off; and as the puddings
should by no means be turned out before they are sent to table, one
to match the dinner-service, at least in colour, is desirable.[143] Roll
out a suet crust to half an inch in thickness, line evenly with it a
quart, or any other sized basin that may be preferred, and raise the
crust from an inch and a half to two inches above the edge. Fill it
with layers of well-kept rump-steak, neatly trimmed, and seasoned
with salt and pepper, or cayenne; pour in some cold water to make
the gravy; roll out the cover, moisten the edge, as well as that of the
pudding; draw and press them together carefully, fold them over,
shake out a cloth which has been dipped into hot water, wrung out,
and well floured; tie it over the pudding, gather the corners together,
tie them over the top of the pudding, put it into plenty of fast boiling
water, and let it remain in from three to five hours, according to its
size. The instant it is lifted out, stick a fork quite through the middle
of the paste to prevent its bursting; remove the cloth quickly, and cut
a small round or square in the top to allow the steam to escape, and
serve the pudding immediately. Though not considered very
admissible to an elegantly served table, this is a favourite dish with
many persons, and is often in great esteem with sportsmen, for
whom it is provided in preference to fare which requires greater
exactness in the time of cooking; as an additional hour’s boiling, or
even more, will have little effect on a large pudding of this kind,
beyond reducing the quantity of gravy, and rendering it very thick.
143. It is now customary in some families to have both meat and fruit puddings
boiled and served in pie or tart-dishes. They are lined entirely with very thin
crust, or merely edged with it, according to taste; then filled, closed, and
cooked in the usual manner. The plan is a good and convenient one, where
the light upper-crust is preferred to the heavy and sodden part which is under
the meat. In Kent and Sussex, shallow pans, in form somewhat resembling a
large deep saucer, are sold expressly for boiling meat puddings.
Some cooks flour the meat slightly before it is laid into the crust,
but we do not think it an improvement: where fat is liked, a portion
may be added with the lean, but all skin and sinew should be
carefully rejected. Beat the steak with a paste roller, or cutlet-bat,
should it not appear to be perfectly tender, and divide it into portions
about the width of two fingers. Two or three dozens of oysters,
bearded and washed free from grit in their own liquor (which should
afterwards be strained and poured into the pudding), may be
intermingled with the meat.
A true epicurean receipt for this dish directs the paste to be made
with veal-kidney suet, and filled with alternate layers of the inside of
the sirloin, sliced and seasoned, and of fine plump native oysters,
intermixed with an occasional small slice of the veal fat.
SMALL BEEF-STEAK PUDDING.
Make into a very firm smooth paste, one pound of flour, six ounces
of beef-suet finely minced, half a teaspoonful of salt, and half a pint
of cold water. Line with this a basin which holds a pint and a half.
Season a pound of tender steak, free from bone and skin, with half
an ounce of salt and half a teaspoonful of pepper well mixed
together; lay it in the crust, pour in a quarter of a pint of water, roll out
the cover, close the pudding carefully, tie a floured cloth over, and
boil it for three hours and a half. We give this receipt in addition to
the preceding one, as an exact guide for the proportions of meat-
puddings in general.
Flour, 1 lb.; suet, 6 oz.; salt, 1/2 teaspoonful; water, 1/2 pint; rump-
steak, 1 lb.; salt, 1/2 oz.; pepper, 1/2 teaspoonful; water, 1/4 pint: 3-
1/2 hours.
RUTH PINCH’S BEEF-STEAK PUDDING.
To make Ruth Pinch’s celebrated pudding (known also as beef-

steak pudding à la Dickens), substitute six ounces of butter for the
suet in this receipt, and moisten the paste with the well-beaten yolks
of four eggs, or with three whole ones, mixed with a little water;
butter the basin very thickly before the paste is laid in, as the
pudding is to be turned out of it for table. In all else proceed exactly
as above.
MUTTON PUDDING.
Mutton freed perfectly from fat, and mixed with two or three sliced
kidneys, makes an excellent pudding. The meat may be sprinkled
with fine herbs as it is laid into the crust. This will require rather less
boiling than the preceding puddings, but it is made in precisely the
same way.
PARTRIDGE PUDDING.
(Very Good.)
Skin a brace of well-kept partridges and cut them down into joints;
line a deep basin with suet crust, observing the directions given in
the preceding receipts; lay in the birds, which should be rather highly
seasoned with pepper or cayenne, and moderately with salt; pour in
water for the gravy, close the pudding with care, and boil it from
three hours to three and a half. The true flavour of the game is
admirably preserved by this mode of cooking. When mushrooms are
plentiful, put a layer of buttons, or small flaps, cleaned as for pickling,
alternately with a layer of partridge, in filling the pudding, which will
then be most excellent eating: the crust may be left untouched, and
merely emptied of its contents, where it is objected to, or its place
may be supplied with a richer one made of butter. A seasoning of
pounded mace or nutmeg can be used at discretion. Puddings of
veal, chickens, and young rabbits, may all be made by this receipt,
or with the addition of oysters, which we have already noticed.
A PEAS PUDDING.
(To serve with boiled pork.)

Separate carefully from a pint of good mellow split peas, all that
are worm-eaten; wash the remainder well, and soak them for a night
in plenty of soft water. The following day tie them up in a thick
pudding cloth, giving them room to swell, cover them well with cold
soft water and boil them gently from two hours to two and a half: if
they are not then quite tender, they are of bad quality, and cannot be
rendered so. Lift them into a cullender, untie the cloth, and crush
them to a paste with a wooden spoon, stir in a good slice of butter,
and a seasoning of pepper and salt, tie them up again very tight, and
boil them for half an hour; turn the pudding gently into a dish that it
may not break, and serve it as hot as possible. This is the common
old-fashioned mode of preparing a peas pudding, and many persons
prefer it to the more modern one which follows. Soak, and boil the
peas as above, drain the water well from them before the cloth is
untied, rub them through a cullender or sieve, mix the seasoning and
the butter thoroughly with them, then add to them gradually three
well whisked eggs, tie the mixture tightly and closely in a floured
cloth, and boil it for one hour.
Good split peas, 1 pint; soaked in soft water 1 night. Boiled 2 to 2-
1/2 hours. Butter, 1 oz.: salt, pepper: boil again 20 to 30 minutes. Or:
butter, 1-1/2 oz.; eggs, 3: boiled 1 hour.
Obs.—When soft water cannot be had, half a teaspoonful of
carbonate of soda must be stirred into that in which the peas are
boiled. They must have room to swell or they will be hard; but if too
much be given them they will be watery, and it will be difficult to
convert them into a pudding at all.
WINE SAUCE FOR SWEET PUDDINGS.
Boil gently together for ten or fifteen minutes the very thin rind of
half a small lemon, about an ounce and a half of sugar, and a
wineglassful of water. Take out the lemon-peel and stir into the sauce
until it has boiled for one minute, an ounce of butter smoothly mixed
with a large half-teaspoonful of flour; add a wineglassful and a half of
sherry or Madeira, or other good white wine, and when quite hot
serve the sauce without delay. Port wine sauce is made in the same
way with the addition of a dessertspoonful of lemon-juice, some
grated nutmeg and a little more sugar. Orange-rind and juice may be
used for it instead of lemon.

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Labor Relations Development Structure

Process 12th Edition Fossum Test Bank

The Environment for Bargaining

True / False Questions

2. Permissive bargaining has no direct impact on management or labor costs.

4. A competitive market is one with relatively few producers.

17. Pattern bargaining represents a form of quasi-industrywide bargaining.

18. A conglomerate has low bargaining power.

19. Conglomerates cannot afford to take a long strike at any subsidiary.

Multiple Choice Questions

26. Why was the FMCS established?

A. To help parties reach an agreement in simple situations only

29. Which of the following is true about permissive bargaining issues?

A. They do not require a response.

30. Which of the following are classified as mandatory bargaining issues?

A. Issues that have no direct impact on management

33. Which of the following takes place when an industry matures?

A. It forces more efficient producers to increase prices to gain market share.

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of competitive markets?

A. Consumers know very little about product attributes and prices.

35. Which of the following is true of unionization in a competitive industry?

37. How did deregulation affect the airline industry?

A. It had a relatively strong initial effect on mechanics' pay.

A. When an industry is no longer concentrated

39. How does global competition affect unions?

A. It reduces union bargaining power for representatives of employees.

A. They are largely determined by the control of the bargainers.

42. What does management do to meet investor objectives?

A. They sell-off a higher-earning division.

43. The derived demand for labor is more elastic if the:

A. market demand for the final products is inelastic.

A. If a given type of labor is essential in the production of the final products

45. When is the supply of labor elastic?

A. When an employer is a relatively small factor in a labor market

A. are in a competitive product market

47. Which of the following best describes marginal revenue product?

A. It is the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

A. In competitive industries, demand for a firm's product is highly inelastic.

A. Reduce cost on capital

50. Which of the following is true of labor markets?

51. Which of the following best describes a monopsonist employer?

A. A single producer of a specific product in a given market

A. It represents the value of output produced by hiring an additional worker.

A. Employer will incur unviable labor costs.

54. Employers in the private sector are interested in _____.

A. maximizing long-term return to the investment in skills

55. What are the two major goals of unions?

A. Higher wages and more members

A. When the strike is in peak season

A. If employers implement just-in-time inventory systems

58. Under which condition is union's wage gains in bargaining higher?

A. When new employers can easily enter the market

59. Which of the following is true of a multiemployer bargaining unit?

A. A single set of negotiators and negotiated wages applies to all members.

A. When the employers have varied nonlabor costs

61. When does industrywide bargaining take place?

A. When employees stick to a single employer within a small geographic area