AGO MEDICAL AND EDUCATIONAL CENTER

BICOL CHRISTIAN COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

COLLEGE OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
2024

General Instruction: Shade the letter that corresponds to your B. Microscopic analysis specimen. Tube 1 is for the
best answer. Shade E if none. physical assessment and tube 3 is for the chemical
analysis.
1. Correct matches regarding NFPA hazard C. Control. Must not have detectable levels of WBC
classification: D. Cell count. Forwarded to Hematology/CM section for
I. White Quadrant – Stability cell counting.
II. Blue Quadrant – Health 13. When the body is dehydrated
III. Yellow Quadrant – Specific A. ADH production is increased
IV. Red Quadrant – Flammability B. ADH production is decreased
A. I and III. B. II and IV C. I and II. D. III and IV C. Serum osmolality is increased
2. Major chemical constituent of normal urine includes: D. Both A and C
I. Urea IV. Inulin E. Both B and C
II. Salt V. Ca Oxalate 14. RTA can be caused by:
III. Glucose VI. Casts A. Production of excessively acidic urine due to
A. I, II C. I, II, III, IV increased filtration of H+
B. I, II, III D. ALL B. Production of excessively alkaline urine due to
3. p-Aminohippuric acid is used for the assessment of increased secretion of H+
what renal function? C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired
A. Glomerular filtration C. Tubular secretion production of ammonia
B. Tubular Reabsorption D. Renal Blood Flow D. Inability to produce alkaline urine due to impaired
4. A second morning urine is the specimen of choice for: production of ammonia
A. Orthostatic proteinuria D Urine Glucose 15. What analyte is being maintained in the filtration of
B. Culture and sensitivity E. Pregnancy testing amniotic fluid?
C. Prostatic massage A. Bilirubin C. Sphingomyelin
5. All of the following substances may cause false B. α-fetoprotein D. Urea
positive reaction in occult blood test except: 16. Which of the following fluid normally polymerizes
A. Turnips C. Aspirin hyaluronate upon addition of acetic acid?
B. Meat D. Vitamin C A. Amniotic Fluid C. Cerebrospinal Fluid
6. Which of the following is not a major contributing B. Serous fluids D. Synovial Fluid
factor for urine composition? 17. What is/are the function/s of a cortical nephron?
A. Dietary intake C. Hydration A. Removal of waste products
B. Posture D. Endocrine Function B. Reabsorption of nutrients
7. Which is an incorrect match regarding scientists and C. Urine concentration
their discovery: D. A and B
A. Hippocrates – Uroscopy E. B and C
B. Frederick Dekker – Taste Testing 18. Which of the following conditions may be associated
C. Thomas Addis – Addis Count with high concentration of urochrome and decrease
D. Thomas Bryant – Book about pisse prophets urine output?
8. What is the normal volume of urine output in adults? A. Recent fluid intake D. SIADH
A. 2 Liters C. Both B. Isosthenuria E. Alkaline tide
B. 600 mL D. Neither C. Diabetes Mellitus
9. Which of the following statement is unacceptable 19. Angiotensin I is converted by the Angiotensin
when collecting urine sample for routine bacteriologic Converting Enzyme in the lungs to produce a
culture? hormone that will:
A. The container must be sterile I. Vasoconstrict the afferent arteriole
B. Hexochlorophene is the preferred antiseptic II. Vasoconstrict the efferent arteriole
C. The collected sample must be plated within 2 hours III. Vasodilate the afferent arteriole
D. The sample may be refrigerated for 24 hours IV. Vasodilate the efferent arteriole
10. Which of the following is/are not affected in A. I and III C. II, IV
unpreserved urine? B. II and III D. I, IV
I. Carbohydrates IV. Volume 20. Which of the following terms refer to the pressure
II. Ketones V. Clarity formed in the nephron due to variation of capillary
III. Proteins VI. Color size?
A. III, IV only C. I, V, IV, VI A. Oncotic pressure C. Hydrostatic pressure
B. I, III and IV D. IV only B. Osmotic pressure D. A and B
11. Storage of urine reagent strips should include: 21. Which of the following is a correct match of sperm
I. Refrigeration III. Desiccant in the bottle concentration determination method and its
II. Dark Container IV. Tightly Closed immobilizing medium?
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV A. Neubauer Chamber: Acetic Acid
B. I, II, IV D. ALL B. Mackler Chamber: Cold Water
12. What is the function of tube #2 in Three Glass C. Neubauer Chamber: Formalin
Technique specimen: D. A and C
A. For culture plating. In prostatic infection, all 3 urine 22. Which of the following is not a function of the
specimen must be plated for the identification of the peritubular capillaries?
microorganism. A. Reabsorption C. Secretion
B. Filtration D. Diffusion
23. Urinary sediments that are not clinically significant:
 I. Whedellite Crystals IV. Budding 35. Which of the following supplies blood to the nephron?
Yeast A. Afferent arteriole C. Peritubular capillaries
II. Mucus Threads V. Granular Cast B. Efferent arteriole D. Vasa recta
III. RTE cells VI. NH4 Biurate 36. Which of the following would make the best specimen
A. I only D. I, II, V, VI container for Van de Kramer titration?
B. I and II only E. I, II, IV, V, VI A. Clear wide-mouthed, flat-bottomed glass container
C. I, II, VI B. Paint can
24. Watson-Schwartz Test observation: C. Sterile plastic container with rubber stopper
Chloroform extraction: D. Desiccated opaque container
Urine (top layer) = Colorless; Chloroform (bot layer) = 37. Which of the following renal disease is characterized
Red by presence of RBC casts, Hematuria and
Butanol Extraction: Proteinuria?
Butanol (top layer) = Red; Urine (bottom layer) = I. Wegener’s Granulomatosis
Colorless II. Goodpasteur syndrome
What substance is present in the urine? III. Fanconi Syndrome
A. Urobilinogen C. Other Ehrlich’s cmpd IV. Acute Pyelonephritis
B. Porphobilinogen D. None A. I and II C. III and IV
25. Reagent strip with a brown color reaction on the pad B. II and III D. I and IV
impregnated with Potassium iodide indicates: 38. Normal renal plasma flow:
A. Microalbuminuria C. Hemoglobinuria A. 72 L/hr C. 800 mL/min
B. Orthostatic proteinuria D. Urobilinogenuria B. 1500 mL/min D. 60 L/hr
26. A positive silver cyanide nitroprusside test is 39. Parameters included in Cockcroft and Gault formula
indicative of what: for GFR:
A. Presence of cystine, lysine, arginine and ornithine in I. Gender IV. Serum BUN
the urine II. Age V. Body Weight
B. Presence of cystine only D. A and C III. Ethnicity VI. Serum Alb
C. Impaired methionine metabolism E. B and C A. I and II C. I only
27. The physician requested urine glucose test on a 9 B. I, II, IV D. I, II, V
month old baby and the result given was negative on 40. Which of the following method is used to determine
reagent strip but positive in Benedict’s test, which of CSF protein?
the following would explain such reaction? A. Micral test
A. Benedict’s test is a more sensitive test for glucose B. Sorensen’s Error of indicator
B. Benedict’s is a specific test it could detect wide range C. 3% Sufuric acid
of non-reducing sugars in the urine D. Trichloroacteic acid
C. The baby has inborn error of metabolism 41. Phenazopyridine would cause what false reaction on
D. Presence of sucrose in baby’s urine. diazo reaction of urine reagent strip?
28. A clear red urine mixed with ammonium sulfate is A. Positive C. Trace reaction
negative for pseudoperoxidase reaction in reagent B. Negative D. Depends on specimen
strip after filtration of the spun solution, which of the 42. Which of the following affect/s refractometry of urine
following is the most probable cause of the reaction? sp/gr?
A. Hemoglobin C. Porphobilinogen I. Specimen Temperature
B. Myoglobin D. Urobilinogen II. Room temperature
29. Which of the following fecal enzymes is a sensitive III. Presence of glucose
indicator for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency? IV. Presence of proteins
A. Trypsin C. Lipase A. I and II only C. II, III and IV
B. Chymotrypsin D. Elastase I B. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
30. Secretory diarrhea is caused by: 43. A brown pigmentation in urine can be caused by
A. Amoebiasis C. Celiac sprue which of the following?
B. Lactose Intolerance D. V. cholerae A. Melanin C. Pyridium
31. Which of the following contains boric acid and B. Rifampin D. Clorets
stabilizes the urine specimen even at room 44. Urine Volume requirement for IRIS Mass Gravity
temperature for as long as 48 hours? Meter:
A. Gray C and S Tube A. 6mL C. 2mL
B. Urine Collection Kit B. 4mL D. 3mL
C. Yellow Plain UA Tube 45. The following urinary parameters are altered in
D. Cherry Red/yellow top tube delayed specimen processing, which one is odd out:
E. Commercial Tablet preservative A. Clarity C. Odor
32. Protein filtration in glomerulus is prevented primarily B. Color D. pH
by which of the following? 46. APT test is used to differentiate _______ from ______
A. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System in ________.
B. Oncotic pressure A. Fetal Hgb; Maternal Hgb; Maternal urine
C. Capillary fenestration B. Fetal Hgb; Alk. Resistant Hgb; Infant’s stool
D. Renal threshold C. Fetal Hgb; Materal Hgb; Infant’s vomitus
33. To which principle do most automated urinalysis D. Fetal Hgb; Alk. Resistant Hgb; Amniotic fluid
analyzers operate? 47. The MedTech on duty sees a refractile round bodies
A. Electronic impedance around 5-7um in size upon microscopic exam of the
B. Light scattering/absorbance urinary sediment, which of the following would
C. Reflectance photometry confirm his suspicion about the identity of the
D. Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry sediment?
34. The juxtaglomerular apparatus responds to low blood A. 2% Acetic Acid
pressure. Which of the following is a part of the B. Sternheimer-Malbin stain
nephral apparatus? C. Hansel Stain
A. Vasa recta C. Podocytes D. Prussian Blue
B. Endothelia D. Macula densa
48. Incorrect match/es regarding urine reagent strip C. False negative due to high level glucosuria
parameters and their reagents: D. False positive reaction due to presence of a
I. Glucose – Glucose Peroxidase non-reducing sugar
II. Ketones – Na Nitroprusside CASE STUDY for 60 to 62: A 45y/o man was involved in a
III. Nitrite – Benzaldehyde car accident. Routine urinalysis on his random catch
IV. Protein – Tetrabromphenol blue specimen showed the following findings:
A. I only C. III only Color = Reddish Brown RBC = 0-2/pf
B. I and IV D. III and IV Clarity = Clear WBC = 0-2/hpf
49. In reporting sperm concentration, which of the pH = 6.5 Hyaline Cast = 1-3/hpf
following is not true? Protein = 1+ Granular Cast = 0-2/lpf
A. Multiply to 1000000 if the count was done in 5 RBC Blood = 4+
squares 60. How are these results possible?
B. Round cells refer to immature sperms and WBC seen A. Positive blood reagent strip test but negative
in the counting chamber and require separate microscopic exam. The result is invalid.
counting and reporting B. Positive blood reagent strip test but negative
C. Both sides of the chamber must be loaded and microscopic exam due to rhabdomyolysis.
counted and the count should agree within 30% C. Positive blood reagent strip test but negative
D. Presence of more than 1 million spermatids/mL microscopic exam because of hemolytic anemia
indicates disrupted spermatogenesis. D. Positive blood reagent strip test but negative
50. Which of the following stabilizes urine specimen for microscopic exam due to acidity of the urine that
72 hours at room temperature? possibly lysed the RBCs.
A. Gray C&S tube C. Cherry red top tube 61. Describe the reagent strip reaction on the dipstick:
B. Yellow plain UA tube D. Saccomanno Fixative A. Yellow spots on a green/blue blood reagent pad
51. Major contributor for semen pH B. Uniform green/blue color change in blood reagent
A. Seminal vesicle strip pad
B. Seminiferous tubules C. Green/Blue spots on a yellow blood reagent pad
C. Prostate gland D. Uniform yellow color change in blood reagent strip
D. Bulbourethral gland 62. What procedure may be performed next to identify the
52. Which of the following method for fecal occult blood substance/pigment responsible of such urinalysis
determination makes use of an anti-human result?
hemoglobin? A. Waston-Schwartz Test C. Clinitest
A. Hemoquant D. A and B B. Blondheim’s Test D. Micral Test
B. iFOBT E. B and C 63. A normal sperm consistency pours in droplets.
C. Hemoccult ICT Increased viscosity decreases sperm motility.
53. All of the following are true of waxy cast except: A. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
A. It represents extreme urine stasis B. First statement is false. Second statement is true
B. It may have a brittle consistency C. Both statements are true
C. It requires staining to be visualized D. Both statements are false
D. It contains degenerated granules 64. Inhibited growth of Bacillus subtilis in the presence of
54. Foam or shake test is a screening test for which β-thienylalanine confirms the presence of what amino
amniotic fluid substance? acid in the urine?
A. Bilirubin. B. Lecithin. C. α-fetoprotein. D. A. Tyrosine C. Phenylalanine
Albumin B. Cystine D. Homogentisic Acid
55. If only one tube for CSF analysis has been collected, 65. Which of the following is incorrect in terms of CSF
arrange the sequence of testing do be done; clarity and dilution?
A. Cell Count, Culture, Chemistry and Serology. A. Clear: 1:1 C. Bloody: 1:200
B. Culture, Cell Count, Chemistry and Serology B. Hazy: 1:20 D. Turbid: 1:10,000
C. Culture, Chemistry, Serology and Cell Count 66. A patient whose stool exhibits increases fats,
D. Culture, Serology, Chemistry and Cell Count undigested muscle fibers and the inability to digest
56. Which of the following is/are feature/s of an gelatin may have:
automated cell analyzer? A. Bacterial dysentery C. Cystic fibrosis
I. Mixing of urine specimen B. Duodenal ulcer D. Lactose intolerance
II. Aspiration of urine specimen 67. Phase-contrast microscopy is advantageous over the
III. Diluting the urine specimen routine light microscopy in Cinical Microscopy
IV. Staining the urine specimen section because:
A. I, III C. II, III, IV A. It proves high magnification
B. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV B. It provides a larger field of view
57. Renal Tubular disorder characterized by glucosuria C. Differentiates yeast cells from RBC and oil droplets
and normal blood glucose level: D. It is useful for cast detection
A. Nephrotic Syndrome 68. Which of the following is the preferred stimulant for
B. Diabetic nephropathy routine gastric acidity analysis?
C. Renal Glucosuria A. Histamine C. Insulin
D. Fanconi Syndrome B. Histalog D. Pentagastrin
58. Bronchoalveolar lavage is obtained via: 69. Also called “fictitious feeding”:
A. Insertion of rehfuss tube through the patient’s mouth A. Riegel’s Feeding Method
to aspirate the bronchial content B. Ewald’s Diet Method
B. Emesis via infusion of Betazole nasally C. Boa’s Stimulation Method
C. Saline infusion via bronchoscope D. Sham Feeding Method
D. Thoracentesis after vapor stimulation 70. True about sperm morphology:
59. Pass-through phenomenon in Clinitest is? I. Round-shaped head
A. False negative reaction due to specimen preservation II. Head size is 5um wide by 3um long
with formalin, which is an oxidizing agent III. 2/3 of Sperm nucleus is covered by the
B. False positive reaction due to presence of ascorbic acrosomal cap
acid
 IV. Acrosomal cap contains enzymes for egg 82. Method for determining total protein in CSF except:
penetration A. Coomasie Brilliant Blue Stain
A. II and IV C. I, II, and IV B. Tricholoacetic Acid
B. II, III and IV D. III and IV C. Sulfosalicylic Acid + Na Sulfate
71. Which test for FML is least affected by contamination D. CSF/Serum Albumin Index
with hemoglobin and meconium? 83. Rivalta’s Test is used for:
A. Amniostat-FLM C. Lamellar Bodies Count A. Differentiating Pericardial from Pleural Fluid
B. Foam Stability D. TDx-FML II B. Detection of protein in urine
72. Correct specimen handling for Amniotic Fluid: C. Differentiating transudates from exudates
A. For FML: Freeze D. Differentiating urine from amniotic fluid
B. For Down Syndrome Diagnosis: Refrigerate 84. In sputum analysis, the only significance of this
C. For HDN assessment: Protect From Light finding is its resemblance to Blastomyces:
D. A and C A. Creola Bodies C. Curschmann’s Spirals
E. A and B B. Myelin Globules D. Charcot-Leyden Crystals
73. A specimen with negative nitrite reaction and positive 85. HCG is produced by which of the following cells?
Leukocyte was confirmed to have significant number A. Cytotrophoblast cells
of WBCs in the microscopic analysis of urine. What B. Argentaffin cells
condition is associated to such findings? C. Endocervial Glandular Cells
A. Cystitis D. Type II Pneumocytes
B. Acute pyelonephritis 86. Sweat chloride of 70mEq/L is indicative of?
C. Acute Interstitial Nephritis A. Multiple Sclerosis C. Pernicious Anemia
D. Acute Glomerulonephritis B. Excessive Sweating D. Cystic Fibrosis
74. A urinalysis was performed on a specimen from a 87. True of fecal color:
patient with Diabetes Insipidus. Which of the following I. Black Tarry – Lower GIT bleeding
laboratory data sets is most consistent witht his II. Reddish Brown – Upper GIT Bleeding
diagnosis? III. Pale Yellow – Bile Duct Obstruction
A. Sp/gr of 1.005, negative glucose and 3,500mL of IV. Green – Biliverdin
24-hr urine. A. I and II C. III and IV
B. Sp/gr of 1.005, positive glucose and 3,500mL of 24-hr B. II and III D. I and IV
urine 88. Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of
C. Sp/gr of 1.020, negative glucose and 2,850mL of gastric juice?
24-hr urine A. HCl C. Pepsin
D. Sp/gr of 1.020, negative glucose and 3,000mL of B. Mucus D. Lactic Acid
24-hr urine. 89. A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted with Acetic
75. Manner of reporting for mucus threads: Acid. 50 cells are counted in 5 large squares on both
A. Rare, few, moderate and many/HPF sides of the Neubauer counting chamber. This is
B. Rare, few, moderate and many/LPF reported as:
C. Average number/LPF A. 1000 WBCs/uL C. 250 WBCs/uL
D. Average number/HPF B. 50 WBCs/uL D. 500 WBCs/uL
76. A greasy and soap like renal stone is usually 90. What is the Renal threshold for glucose?
associated with? A. 3.8 mmol/L C. 9.4 mmol/L
A. Increased purine-rich food intake B. 6.5 mmol/L D. 16.0 mmol/L
B. Increased ascorbate intake 91. A urine specimen collected from an apparently
C. Disorder in defective amino acid reabsorption healthy 30/o man shortly after his lunch was cloudy
D. Proteus vulgaris infection but showed normal results on reagent strip analysis.
77. Which of the following cells (and inclusion) is seen in The most likely cause of turbidity is:
synovial fluid in Reiter syndrome? A. Chyle C. Amorphous Urates
A. Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing B. WBC’s D. Amorphous Phosphates
immune complexes 92. Which of the following matches is correct with regard
B. Large Vacuolated Macrophages to urine odor and associated condition:
C. Neutrophils with round ingested bodies I. Fruity/Sweet – MSUD
D. Macrophage with ingested neutrophils II. Mousy – Cystine Disorder
78. Infection with which agent may predispose web-like III. Rotting Fish – PKU
clotting of the CSF? IV. Sweaty Feet – Branched Amino Acid Disorder
A. Neisseria meningitides V. Caramel – Elevated Leucine and Valine in urine
B. Coxackie virus VI. Rancid – Tyrosiluria
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. I, II, III C. I, III, VI
D. Cryptococcus neoformans B. IV, V, VI D. II, IV, VI
79. Which of the following is correct with regard to renal 93. Arrange the cast in increasing clinical significance:
calculi and their characteristics: I. Hyaline Cast IV. Coarse Granular Cast
I. Calcium Oxalate – hard and rough II. Broad Cast V. Finely Granular Cast
II. Struvite – due to urea-splitting bacteria III. Waxy Cast VI. Cell Cast
III. Cystine – most common A. I, IV, VI, V, III, II C. I, VI, IV, V, III, II
IV. Phosphates – moderately hard B. I, IV, V, VI, III, II D. I, VI, V, IV, III, II
A. I and II C. III and IV 94. Which of the following is true of CSF in cases of
B. II and III D. I and IV meningitis?
80. High specific gravity would cause what false reaction I. Increased neutrophil diff count in bacterial
for protein? meningitis
A. False (+) C. Delayed (-) II. Increased level of glucose in viral meningitis
B. False (-) D. Pass-through effect III. Normal levels of lactate in fungal meningitis
81. What is the effect of high fiber diet in a urine IV. Increased Lymphocytes and monocytes BOTH in
specimen? tubercular and fungal meningitis.
A. Increased Protein C. Increased pH A. I and II C. III and IV
B. Decreased pH D. Decreased Protein B. II and III D. I and IV
95. All of the following are statements are true about D. Blood Hct: 40, Fluid Hct: 25
serous fluids except: 100.All are example of automated microscopy machine except:
A. Lavage of the peritoneum with visible blood may A. Urisys 1800 system
indicate abnormal bleeding B. UF-100 Urine Cell Analyzer
B. BUN and Creatinine levels is used to detect ruptured C. Urine Analyzer (iQ200 Sprint)
bladder D. iQ200 Automated urine microscopy
C. High ALP in ascitic fluid is diagnostic of pancreatitis
D. A green color in peritoneal fluid is associated with
gallbladder leakage
96. High increased Basal Acid Output and Maximum Acid
Output is seen in what condition?
A. Pernicious Anemia C.
Zollinger-Ellison Dse
B. Cystic Fibrosis D. Duodenal Ulcer
97. Which of the following crystals is massively produced
in cases of an anti-freeze agent poisoning?
A. Weddellite C. Pyramidal CaOx
B. Whewellite D. Uric Acid

98. What is the sperm motility grading for slow forward

progression with noticeable lateral movement?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
99. Which of the following best represents a hemothorax?
A. Blood Hct: 45, Fluid Hct: 15
B. Blood Hct: 40, Fluid Hct: 20
C. Blood Hct: 35, Fluid Hct: 15

END OF EXAMINATION

GOOD LUCK.
AMEC_BCCM_CMT