17/12/2023 Code-A Phase-1&2

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms & Nuclei, Semiconductor Electronics
Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules
Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation
Zoology : Biotechnology-Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applications

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. In an n-type semiconductor if n1 is the 3. In the shown circuit, if the barrier voltage of

number of conduction electrons and n2 is diode is 0.1 V and external resistance
the number of holes, then connected is 10 Ω, then current supplied by
10 V battery is
(1) n1 >> n2
(2) n1 << n2
(3) n1 = n2
(4) n1 ≠ 0, n2 = 0

2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a gas

molecule at absolute temperature T K will
be
(1) h
(1) 1.01 A
√3mkT
(2) 10.1 A
(2) h

mkT (3) 0.99 A

(3) h
(4) 9.9 A
√2mkT

(4) h

√mkT

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

4. The kinetic energy of a particle is reduced to 10. What is the output Y in the following circuit,
1
of its initial value keeping its mass fixed, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0
4
and then 1?
then de-Broglie wavelength of this particle
will be
(1) Doubled
(2) Halved (1) 0, 1
(3) Quadrupled (2) 0, 0
(4) Unchanged (3) 1, 0
(4) 1,1
5. Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant
'8λ' and material ‘B’ has decay constant 'λ'. 11. The force acting on the electron in a
Initially they have same number of nuclei.. hydrogen atom depends on the principal
After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei quantum number as
of material ‘A’ to that ‘B’ will be 1/e? (1) F ∝ n2
(1) 1
λ (2) F ∝ n
4

(2) 1
(3) F ∝
1
7λ 2
n

(3) 1
(4) 1
8λ F ∝
4
n

(4) 1

9λ

12. The circuit

6. The half life of a radioactive substance is f
times the mean life. The value of f will be
(1) 0.3010 is equivalent to
(2) 0.6932 (1) NAND gate
(3) 1
(2) AND gate
0.3010
(3) NOR gate
(4) 1

0.6932 (4) OR gate

7. Which of the following phenomenon cannot 13. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a
be explained by wave theory of light? cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The
(1) Reflection maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons
(2) Refraction is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are
incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach
(3) Polarisation the anode A, if the potential of A relative to C
(4) Photoelectric effect is
(1) +3 V
8. A photon of energy 6 eV is incident on metal (2) +4 V
surface of threshold frequency 3.2 × 1015 (3) –1 V
Hz, then maximum kinetic energy of electron (4) –3 V
emitted is (h = 6.6 ×10–34 J s)
(1) 4.8 eV
14. In NPN transistor, the collector current is 10
(2) 2.4 eV mA. If 90% of electrons emitted reach the
(3) 0.8 eV collector, then
(4) No electron ejected (1) Emitter current will be 11.1 mA
(2) Base current will be 0.1 mA
9. The given circuit has two ideal diodes (3) Base current will be 0.01 mA
connected as shown in the figure below. The (4) Emitter current will be 9 mA
current flowing through the resistance R1
will be
15. The distance between point light source and
photoelectric cell is d. If the distance is
d
decreased to 3 then
(1) Emission of electron increases 3 times
(1) 2.5 A (2) Emission of electron decreases 3 times
(2) 10.0 A (3) Emission of electron increases 9 times
(3) 1.43 A (4) Stopping potential increases 3 times
(4) 3.13 A

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

16. For nuclear fusion, choose incorrect 20. The orbital velocity of an electron in ground
statement. state of H-atom is v. If the electron is excited
(1) In fusion two lighter nuclei combine to to energy state –0.544 eV, then its orbital
form a larger nucleus speed will be
(2) In fusion, a heavy nucleus breaks into (1) v
two smaller nucleus (2) v
3

(3) Fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium (3) v

nuclei is the source of energy of sun 7

(4) For thermonuclear fusion enough (4) v

kinetic energy is required to overcome

the coulombic repulsion
21. When an electron jumps from n = 2 to n = 1,
the momentum of recoiled hydrogen atom
17. In a NAND gate the input signals are X and will be
Y and the output signal is Z. If the inputs X (1) 5.45×10–27 kgms–1
and Y have the following pulse patterns
(2) 6.5×10–27 kgms–1
(3) 4.2×10–26 kgms–1
(4) 2.1×10–27 kgms–1

22. In a photoelectric experiment, lights of

frequencies f1 and f2 are made to fall on
metal surface. The maximum speeds of
then the pulse pattern of output Z will be
photoelectrons in the two cases are v1 and
(1)
v2 respectively. Hence, Planck’s constant is
(m : Mass of electron)
(1) m(v −v )
2

1
2

(2) 2(f1 −f2 )

(2) m(v1 −v2 )

2(f1 +f2 )

(3) (3) 2 2
m( v +v )
1 2

2(f1 +f2 )

(4) m(v1 +v2 )

2(f1 +f2 )
(4)

23. A zener diode having breakdown voltage

equal to 8 V is used in a voltage regulator
circuit as shown in the figure. The current
18. A hydrogen atom is in ground state. Then to through the diode is
get six lines in emission spectrum,
wavelength of incident radiation should be
(1) 800 Å
(2) 825 Å
(3) 975 Å (1) 8 mA
(4) 1025 Å (2) 16 mA
(3) 24 mA
19. If the nuclear radius of 8 Be is 2.4 fermi, then (4) 12 mA
radius of 27 Al would be
(1) 6.0 fermi 24. A common emitter amplifier has current gain
(2) 5.6 fermi of 20, an input impedance of 300 Ω and
output impedance of 600 Ω. The power gain
(3) 3.6 fermi
of the amplifier is
(4) 3.0 fermi (1) 400
(2) 600
(3) 1000
(4) 800

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

25. The radiation emitted when an electron 31. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of
jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 orbit in hydrogen α β
−
γ

atom falls on a metal to produce decay as A → A1 → A2 → A3

photoelectrons. If work function of metal is If the mass number and atomic number of A
0.8 eV, stopping potential will be are 180 and 72 respectively, then these
(1) 1.09 V numbers for A3 are
(2) 2.09 V (1) 176, 73
(3) 3.09 V (2) 180, 71
(4) 5.09 V (3) 176, 71
(4) 176, 72
26. The frequency of the emitted radiation for a
hydrogen atom will be maximum in transition 32. What is the mass defect for 16 O?
8
of electron from Given:
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 Mass of neutron = 1.00866 u
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 Mass of proton = 1.00727 u
(3) n = 4 to n = 3 Experimental mass of nucleus
16
O = 15.99053u
(4) n = 4 to n = 2 8

(1) 0.1369 u
(2) 0.2369 u
27. The ratio of maximum to minimum
wavelength in Balmer series is (3) 0.0369 u
(1) 3 : 4 (4) 0.3389 u
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 5 : 36 33. 1 atomic mass unit is equal to
(4) 9 : 5 (1) 1 (mass of one mole of C13 carbon
12
6
atom)
28. If the nuclear radius of 64 X nucleus is 4.8 (2) 1 (mass of one mole of C12 carbon
6
fermi, then the nuclear radius of 125 Y
12

atom)
nucleus is (3) 1 (mass of one C12 carbon atom)
(1) 4.8 fermi 12
6

(2) 6 fermi (4) 1

(mass of one 6 C13 carbon atom)
12

(3) 3.8 fermi

(4) 7.5 fermi 34. The number of α-particles and β-particles
respectively, emitted in the reaction
238 ⟶ 206
29. Relation between the stopping potential V0 92 U 82 Pb are
of a metal and the maximum velocity v of the (1) 8α, 6β
photoelectron is (2) 6α, 8β
(1) V0 ∝ v2 (3) 6α, 6β
(2) V0 ∝ 1
(4) 8α, 8β
2
v

(3) V0 ∝ v
35. The nuclear force acts in between
(4) V ∝ 1
0 v (1) Two protons
(2) Two neutrons
30. The mean density of a nucleus of mass (3) Proton & Neutron
number A is proportional to (4) All of these
(1) A1/3
(2) A2/3
(3) A
(4) A0

SECTION-B

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

36. The diagram shows the energy levels for an 41.

electron in a certain atom. Which transition
among the following represents the
emission of a photon with least energy?

If VB for Ge = 0.3 V
VB for Si = 0.7 V
then current flowing through resistor is
(1) 10 mA
(2) 12 mA
(3) 13 mA
(1) II
(4) 9.7 mA
(2) III
(3) I
(4) IV
42. What is the respective number of α and β–
particles, emitted in the following radioactive
decay?
37. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a 90 X
200
→ 80 Y
168

semiconductor with band gap of 2.0 eV. It

(1) 6 and 8
can detect a signal having wavelength
(1) 6000 nm (2) 8 and 8
(2) 600 nm (3) 6 and 6
(3) 700 nm (4) 8 and 6
(4) 900 nm
43. The angular momentum of an electron in first
orbit of Li++ ions is
38. The energy band gap in conductors,
semiconductors and insulators are EG1 , EG2 (1) 3h

4π
and EG3 respectively. The correct option is
(2) 9h

(1) EG1 = EG2 = EG3 2π

(2) EG1 < EG2 < EG3 (3) h

2π

(3) EG1 > EG2 > EG3 (4) h

6π
(4) EG1 < EG2 > EG3

44. For the stability of any nucleus

39. The angular momentum of an electron in (1) Its binding energy should be less
5h
hydrogen atom is 2π . The kinetic energy of (2) Binding energy per nucleon should be
this electron is low
(1) 10.2 eV (3) Binding energy per nucleon should be
(2) 12.09 eV high
(3) 3.4 eV (4) Number of electrons should be more
(4) 0.544 eV
45. If ionisation energy of a hydrogen atom is
13.6 eV. What is the energy of a level with
40. Binding energy per nucleon is
quantum number n = 3?
(1) Maximum for lighter elements
(1) 0.85 eV
(2) Maximum for heavier elements
(2) – 1.51 eV
(3) Maximum for middle order elements
(3) – 10.2 eV
(4) Equal for all elements
(4) – 24.8 eV

46. A light of certain wavelength strikes a metal

surface of work function 4 eV. If energy of the
incident photons is 8 eV. Then maximum
kinetic energy of the ejected photo electrons
will be
(1) 2 eV
(2) 4 eV
(3) 8 eV
(4) 16 eV

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

47. For the transistor circuit shown below, if β = 49. In the given reaction, the element X is
100, voltage drop between emitter and base 6C
12
+0 n
1
→ X +−1 β
0

is 0.7 V. Find the value of collector current (1) Carbon

(2) Nitrogen
(3) Oxygen
(4) Helium

50. Stability of a nucleus can be confirmed from

(1) Binding energy
(2) Binding energy per nucleon
(3) Mass defect
(4) All of these
(1) 2.5 mA
(2) 7.5 mA
(3) 5 mA
(4) 4 mA

48. An electron is moving in a orbit of H-atom

having n = 3. Radius of orbit in terms of de-
Broglie wavelength λ of electron can be
given as
(1) λ
π

(2) 2λ

(3) 3λ

2π

(4) λ

2π

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Which of the following compounds is most 52. ( i) )SnCl2 /HCl

reactive towards Nucleophilic addition R − CN ⟶ P (Major)
reactions? (ii) H3 O+

(1) Product P is
(1) R – CH2 – NH2
(2) R – CH = NH
(3) R – CHO
(2) (4) R – COOH

(3)

(4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

53. Which of the following pairs can be 55. The strongest acid among the following is
distinguished by Fehling 's test? (1)
(1) HCHO & CH3 CHO
(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)
(4)

(4)

54. The product of the given reaction is

(1) 56.

(2)
The product(s) in the above reaction is
(1)

(3)

(4)
(2)

(3)

(4)

57. When ethylbenzene is reacted with alkaline

or acidic KMnO4 followed by
hydrolysis majorly gives.
(1) 2-phenylethanol
(2) 2-phenylethanoic acid
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Benzaldehyde

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

58. Which acid is majorly present in lemon 61. The most basic compound among the
juice? following is
(1) Malic acid (1)
(2) Maleic acid
(3) Citric acid
(4) Stearic acid

59. The compound which cannot be synthesised

by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is (2)
(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)
(3)

(4)

62. Consider the following reaction

60.
Major product P is
(1)

Reactant X is
(1)
(2)

(3)
(2)

(4)
(3)

(4)
63. Alkyl isocyanides are prepared by which of
the following reaction?
(1) Etard reaction
(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Carbylamine reaction
(4) Hoffmann bromamide reaction

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

64. Which of the following does not react with 68. The incorrect statement regarding
Hinsberg's reagent? amylopectin is
(1) (1) Insoluble in water
(2) Constitutes about 15-20% of starch
(2) (3) Branched chain polymer
(3) (4) Composed of α-D-glucose units

69. The vitamin whose deficiency causes

bleeding of gums is
(4) (1) Vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin B1
(4) Vitamin D
65.
70. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
(1) α-D-glucose and α-D-fructose
(2) α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose
(3) β-D-glucose and β-D-fructose
Product P is (4) β-D-glucose and α-D-fructose
(1)
71. The carbohydrates are stored in animal
body as
(1) Starch
(2) Glycogen
(2) (3) Cellulose
(4) Sucrose

72. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are related as

(1) Anomers
(3)
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Conformers
(4) Geometrical isomers

73. Correct order of Ka of carboxylic acid

(4) derivatives among the following is
(1) CF3 COOH > CH3 COOH >
CH3 CH2 COOH
(2) CF3 COOH > CH3 CH2 COOH >
CH3 COOH
(3) CCl3 COOH > CF3 COOH >
66. Glucose on heating with HI gives HCCl2 COOH
(1) Gluconic acid (4) CCl3 COOH > HCCl2 COOH >
(2) Hexanol CF3 COOH
(3) Hexanal
(4) n-Hexane 74. Product obtained in the following reaction is
called
67. Nitrogenous base which is not present in
RNA is
(1) Guanine
(2) Thymine (1) Acetal
(3) Uracil (2) Schiff's base
(4) Cytosine (3) Carbylamine
(4) Oxime

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

75. KMnO 4 / OH
−
/Δ 77. Reductive ozonolysis products of an olefin
A −−−−−−−−−→Adipic acid are OHC – CHO and OHC – CH2 – CH2 –
Compound A is CHO, the olefin is
(1) (1)

(2)
(2)

(3)

(3) (4)

(4) 78. Which among the following compound

decarboxylates most easily on heating?
(1)

(2)
76. Given below are two statements one is
labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Benzaldehyde reacts with
HNO3 in the presence of H2 SO4 to give m- (3)
nitrobenzaldehyde.
Reason (R) : – CHO is meta directing group
when attached with benzene ring in SE
reaction. (4)
In the light of above statement choose the
correct answer.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 79. In the given set of reactions
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
D is
(1) CH3 NH2
(2) CH3 CH2 NH2
(3) CH3 CH2 NHCH3
(4) (CH3 )2 NH

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

80. Consider the following reaction. 82. Which of the following will be most stable
diazonium salt?
(1) C H CH N+ X−
6 5 2 2

(2) CH3 N
+
X
−
2

Major product P is (3) +

−
C6 H5 N X
(1) 2

(4) CH3 CH2 N

+
X
−
2

83. Consider the following reaction sequence.

(2)
Compound B obtained is
(1) CH3 CH2 NH2
(2) CH3 CH2 – OC2 H5
(3) CH3 CH2 COOH
(4)
(3)

84. Lactose is composed of

(1) β-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose
(2) β-D-Galactose and β-D-Glucose
(4)
(3) β-D-Fructose and α-D-Glucose
(4) β-D-Galactose and α-D-Glucose

85. Purine base among the following is

(1) Guanine
(2) Cytosine
81. The product, P formed in the given reaction
is (3) Thymine
(4) Uracil

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

86. H
+
92.
C2 H5 NC + H2 O → A + B .
A and B are
(1) C2 H5 NHCH3 and CH3 NH2
(2) C2 H5 NH2 and HCOOH
(3) CH3 NH2 and CH3 COOH
(4) C2 H5 OH and N2 Major product X is
(1)

87. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

(1)

(2)
(2)

(3) HCHO
(4) CH3 CHO
(3)

88. In Etard reaction, the starting material

and reagent used are respectively
(1) Benzene and CrO2 CI2 in CS2
(2) Toluene and CO, HCI, anh. AICI3
(3) Toluene and CrO2 CI2 in CS2
(4) Benzonitrile and DIBAL – H (4)

89. Which of the following is not a dibasic acid?

(1) Oxalic acid
(2) Picric acid
(3) Malonic acid
(4) Terephthalic acid

90. Which of the following aryl amines

undergoes diazotization most readily? 93. Non-reducing carbohydrate among the
following is
(1)
(1) Sucrose
(2) Glucose
(2) (3) Lactose
(4) Maltose

(3)

(4)

91. Among the following the most basic

compound in aqueous medium is
(1) (C2 H5 )2 NH
(2) (C2 H5 )3 N
(3) C2 H5 NH2
(4) NH3

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

94. Which of the following are D-erythrose and 99. Identify ‘X’ in the following reaction
L-erythrose respectively?

(i) (ii)

(1)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2)
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

95. Which of the following can’t form Zwitter ion

(1) Glycine
(2) Valine (3)
(3) Lysine
(4) Aniline

96.

Major product P is (4)

(1) m-Nitroaniline
(2) p-Nitroaniline
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) Benzene

97. The correct order of boiling points of

isomeric amines is
(1) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary 100. Which of the following compounds on
reaction with CH3 MgBr will give a tertiary
(2) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary
alcohol?
(3) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
(1) C6 H5 CHO
(4) Secondary > Tertiary > Primary
(2) C2 H5 COCH3
(3) C2 H4
98. Which among the following is an essential
amino acid? (4)
(1) Histidine
(2) Alanine
(3) Proline
(4) Serine

BOTANY

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

SECTION-A

101. In which of the following both pairs have 106. Read the following statements and select
correct combination? the correct option.
(1) In-situ conservation : Zoological parks Statement A: Ecological pyramids does not
Ex-situ conservation : Home gardens accommodate a food web.
Statement B: Ecological pyramids does not
(2) Alien species invasion : Nile perch in
take into account the same species
Lake Victoria
belonging to two or more trophic levels.
Ecosystem services : Pollination
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Sixth mass extinction : Purely non
anthropogenic (2) Only statement B is correct
Habitat loss and fragmentation : Most (3) Both statements are incorrect
important cause of plant and animals (4) Both statements are correct
extinction
(4) The World Summit : Held in Rio de
Janeiro 107. The annual net primary productivity of the
The Earth Summit : Held in South Africa whole biosphere w.r.t. dry weight of organic
matter is approximately
(1) 55 billion tons
102. Choose the correct option w.r.t. phosphorus
(2) 115 billion tons
cycle
(1) Input of phosphorus through rainfall are (3) 170 billion tons
much larger (4) 160 billion tons
(2) Exchange of the nutrient occurs in
gaseous form 108. Total amount of living organic matter present
(3) There is respiratory release of in different trophic levels per unit area at a
phosphorus into atmosphere given time in an ecosystem is known as
(4) Rocks serve as the reservoir pool (1) Standing state
(2) Biotic potential
103. All of the following are true about hydrarch (3) Productivity
succession, except (4) Standing crop
(1) Phytoplanktons are the pioneer
community
109. Read the following statements and choose
(2) Transitional community includes the correct option.
submerged plant stage and reed- Assertion (A) : GFC is major conduit for
swamp stage energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.
(3) Climax community is represented by Reason (R) : DFC may be connected with
aquatic herbs and shrubs GFC at some levels.
(4) It occurs in aquatic habitat like freshly (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
formed pond the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
104. In primary succession on rocks, the pioneer
the reason is not the correct
communities are of
explanation of the assertion
(1) Free floating angiosperms
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) Lichens is false
(3) Annual grasses (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Perennial grasses statements

105. Select the correct one(s) w.r.t. ecosystem 110. Humus is

characteristics that occur(s) during A. Dark coloured amorphous substance
succession B. Highly resistant to microbial action
a Decease in number of species C. Rich in cellulose, lignin, tannins, resin,
b Increases in total biomass etc.
c No change in the diversity of the species The correct one(s) is/are
(1) a and c (1) All A, B and C
(2) Only b (2) Only B
(3) a and b (3) Only A and C
(4) b and c (4) Only C

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

111. The rate of decomposition is slow if 116. There are A wild life sanctuaries and
(1) Detritus is rich in nitrogen ¯
¯¯¯
¯
B biosphere reserves in India.
(2) Environment is warm and humid ¯¯¯¯
Here, A and B respectively are
(3) Conditions are aerobic
(1) 90 and 448
(4) Temperature is very low and
(2) 448 and 14
anaerobiosis condition is present
(3) 448 and 90
(4) 90 and 14
112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
productivity
(1) It is the rate of biomass production 117. Which of the following is not an ‘Evil Quartet’
(2) Net primary productivity minus w.r.t. biodiversity loss?
respiratory losses is the gross primary (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
productivity (2) Over-exploitation
(3) Secondary productivity is the rate of (3) Co-evolution
formation of new organic matter by (4) Co-extinctions
consumers
(4) The primary productivity depends on
the plant species inhabiting a particular 118. Khasi and Jaintia Hills, Aravalli Hills and
area Western Ghats have
(1) No endemic species
113. The amount of carbon dioxide that is fixed (2) Only biosphere reserves
annually by photosynthesis in biosphere, is (3) Least biodiversity
(1) 4 × 1013 kg (4) Sacred grooves
(2) 2 × 1015 kg
(3) 14 × 103 kg 119. Exploration of molecular, genetic and
species level diversity for products of
(4) 13 × 104 kg economic importance is known as
(1) Bioremediation
114. Read the following statements and select (2) Biofortification
the correct option. (3) Bioprospecting
Statement-A : The pyramid of energy is (4) Biopiracy
always upright.
Statement-B : The energy at a lower trophic
level is always more than at a higher trophic 120. Presently how much percentage of mammal
level. species are facing the threat of extinction?
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) 12%
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) 23%
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct (3) 31%
(4) Both the statements A and B are (4) 32%
incorrect
121. The species which are confined to a
115. The historic convention the Earth Summit particular region and not found anywhere
held in 1992 was called to take appropriate else are called
measures for (1) Epidemic
(1) Conservation of biodiversity and (2) Ecotype
sustainable utilisation of its benefits
(3) Endemic
(2) Reducing greenhouse gas emission
(4) Vulnerable
and global warming
(3) Reducing release of persistent organic
pollutant in atmosphere 122. Which of the following animals native to
(4) Ex situ conservation of endangered Mauritius had recently become extinct?
species of wild flora and fauna (1) Dodo
(2) Thylacine
(3) Quagga
(4) Steller’s sea cow

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

123. The major cause of extinction of passenger 128. Key industry animals
pigeon is (1) Are second order consumers
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Convert plant matter into animal matter
(2) Alien species invasion (3) Are primary carnivores
(3) Over-exploitation by humans (4) Are top carnivores
(4) Co-extinction
129. The food web
124. Hot spots are characterised by (1) Provides stability to ecosystem
(i) Large number of endemic species
(2) Is accommodated by pyramids
(ii) Low levels of species richness
(iii) Regions of accelerated habitat loss (3) Rarely occurs in nature
(iv) Exceptionally high biodiversity regions (4) Connects only DFCs
The correct ones are
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
130. Select the odd one w.r.t anthropogenic
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv) ecosystems.
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (1) Lack of self regulatory mechanisms
(4) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) Little cycling of nutrients
(3) Very low productivity
125. Which of the following is considered as (4) Presence of simple food chain
‘Lungs of the Planet’?
(1) Western ghat
131. Which of the following places are suitable
(2) Lake Victoria sites for secondary succession?
(3) Greenland (a) Cooled volcanic lava
(4) Amazon rainforest (b) Sand dunes
(c) Abandoned farm lands
(d) Igneous rocks
126. Identify the blanks in the given figure and (e) Burned or cut forests
select the correct option. (f) Flooded lands
(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Only (c), (e) and (f)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(4) All except (d)

132. How many of the following species has/have

become extinct due to over-exploitation by
humans?
Steller’s sea cow, Catfish, Cichlid fish,
Lantana, Soyabean, Parthenium

A B C D (1) Five
(1) Detritus Run off Producers Weathering (2) One
(3) Three
(2) Detritus Producers Run off Weathering
(4) Four
(3) Producers Detritus Run off Weathering
(4) Weathering Detritus Run off Producers
133. According to Robert May’s estimate, the
(1) (1) global species diversity is about
(2) (2) (1) 7 million
(3) (3) (2) 1.5 million
(4) (4) (3) 20-50 million
(4) 30 million
127. Ten percent law of energy transfer in the
ecosystem from one trophic level to another
was proposed by
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) A. V. Humboldt
(4) Lindeman

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

134. In India, Parthenium, Lantana and water

hyacinth, all are
(1) Endangered species
(2) Critical link species
(3) Keystone species
(4) Invasive species

135. The most important cause of biodiversity

loss is
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Over-exploitation
(4) Co-extinction

SECTION-B

136. Stratification is 140. Ecosystem with high species diversity

(1) Vertical distribution of different species (a) Is more stable
occupying different levels (b) Is more productive
(c) Is resilient to occasional disturbances
(2) Horizontal distribution of different
The correct ones are
species along the equater of earth
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3) Invasion of a new species in a
particular area (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) Identification and classification of (3) (a) and (c) only
biological species. (4) All (a), (b), (c)

137. Value of PAR is 141. According to Rivet popper hypothesis,

(1) More than 50% of solar radiation Identify A and B
reaching to earth Airplane Ecosystem
(2) Equal to total (100%) solar radiation Rivets A
(3) 70% of solar radiation Rivets on wings B
(4) Less than 50% of incident solar
radiation (1) A - Keystone species
B - Specie
(2) A - Predators
138. Find the odd one out w.r.t. narrowly utilitarian B - Prey
ecosystem services
(3) A - Prey
(1) Food and fibres B - Predator
(2) Drugs and industrial products (4) A - Species
(3) Pollination B - Keystone species
(4) Construction material and firewood
142. Species-area relationships among very
139. Which of the following is a man-made large areas like the entire continents, the
ecosystem? values of Z are in the range of
(1) Crop-field (1) 0.1 to 0.2
(2) Grassland (2) 6 to 12
(3) Desert (3) 0.3 to 0.6
(4) Forest (4) 0.6 to 1.2

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

143. Arrange the following in order of increasing 147. The pyramid of biomass in the sea
diversity of birds ecosystem is usually
(A) New York (1) Inverted
(B) India
(2) Upright
(C) Columbia
(D) Greenland (3) Spindle shaped
(1) D < B < C < A (4) Either spindle shaped or upright
(2) A < B < D < C
(3) D < A < B < C 148. Lindemann’s law is not applicable for
(4) B < A < D < C (1) Producer → Herbivore → Parasite
(2) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
144. As we move from low to high latitude, the (3) Detritus → Detritivore
biodiversity (4) Producer → Herbivore → Carnivore
(1) Increases
(2) Remains constant 149. Among animals, the most species rich
(3) Decreases taxonomic group, making up more than 70
(4) First increase and then decreases percent of the total are
(1) Molluscs
(2) Fishes
145. Both xerarch and hydrarch succession
progress to (3) Insects
(1) Hydric condition (4) Reptiles
(2) Xeric condition
(3) Mesic condition 150. One of the reasons of the richness of
(4) Dry condition biodiversity in tropics is
(1) Frequent glaciations in the past
(2) Being more seasonal and less constant
146. In the deep sea hydrothermal vent,
producers are (3) Being more productive for supporting
wide range of species
(1) Photoautotrophs
(4) High temperature and humidity but
(2) Phytoplanktons
receiving less solar radiations
(3) Chemoautotrophs
(4) Heterotrophs

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes 152. In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ represents
which (1) Name of the genus
(1) Make cuts at specific nucleotide (2) Name of the viral strain
sequence within the DNA molecule
(3) Name of the bacterial strain
(2) Recognize a specific nucleotide
(4) Order of isolation of bacterial strain
sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(3) Restrict the action of DNA polymerase
(4) Remove nucleotides from terminal
ends of the DNA molecule

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

153. Restriction endonucleases are produced by
bacteria. What is the function of these
enzymes in the bacterial cell?
(1) Restricts the growth of bacteria
(2) Restricts the growth of viruses
(3) Enhances the number of protozoa
(4) Inhibits the multiplication of fungal cells
154. Which of the following DNA nucleotide
sequences would act like a recognition
site?
(1) 5′–GGATCT–3′
3′–CCTAGA–5′
(2) 5′–CCCGGC–3′
3′–GGGCCG–5′
(3) 5′–AAGCTT–3′
3′–TTCGAA–5′
(4) 5′–CTGCAT–3′
3′–GACGTA–5′
155. In recombinant DNA technology, the
stickiness of the ends of DNA fragment
facilitates the action of the enzyme
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) DNA ligase
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Exonuclease
156. In genetic engineering, DNA fragments are
joined through
(1) Ligases
(2) Chitinase
(3) Peroxidase
(4) Polymerases
157. During DNA extraction purified
precipitates out after the addition of
(1) Phenol-chloroform
(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Ribonuclease
(4) Protease
158. DNA polymerase used during
technique is isolated from
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Haemophilus influenzae
160. A method of obtaining DNA over a glass rod
for DNA extraction is
(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Electroporation
(4) Electrophoresis
161. In blue-white screening of recombinants,
gene of interest is ligated in the coding
sequence of
(1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) β-galactosidase
(4) Kanamycin
162. Plasmids are used as vectors for gene
cloning because they are capable of
(1) Self replication in bacterial cells
(2) Replicating outside bacterial cells
(3) Replicating in culture medium
(4) Replicating in artificial media
163. The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
tumefaciens is ‘disarmed’ by
(1) Introducing it in a monocot plant cell
(2) Treating it with disarming chemicals
(3) Replacement of harmful T-DNA of Ti
plasmid by a gene of interest
(4) Changing the host bacterium that
doesn’t allow replication of Ti plasmid
164. The tumor inducing plasmid of A.
tumefaciens in nature induces
transformation in
(1) Bacteria
DNA
(2) Several dicot plants
(3) Viruses
(4) Fungi
165. If an alien DNA is inserted within the coding
sequence of ampR then the recombinants
will
PCR (1) Lose resistance to tetracycline
(2) Grow in medium containing tetracycline
(3) Grow in medium containing ampicillin
(4) Lose resistance to both ampicillin and
tetracycline

159. All the given enzymes are required for the

isolation of DNA from a plant cell, except
(1) RNase
(2) Cellulase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Protease

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

166. Read the following statements carefully 171. Which organisation of the government of
Statement-A : The native (wild type) E.coli India regulates GM research and safety of
cells do not carry resistance against any introducing GM organisms for public
antibiotics services?
Statement-B : Lac Z gene in pBR322 is (1) Biosafety Committee
considered as useful selectable marker for
(2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
E.coli
Choose the correct option (3) Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Research Committee on Genetic
(2) Both statements are correct
Manipulation
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
172. Insulin is synthesized as pro-hormone,
which contains an extra stretch called
167. The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac (1) A-peptide
and cry II Ab control the
(2) B-peptide
(1) Corn borer
(3) C-peptide
(2) Cotton bollworm
(4) Peptidoglycan
(3) Nematode
(4) Bacteria
173. The process involving silencing of mRNA
has been used in producing transgenic
168. Which of the following factors is responsible plants resistant to
for the activation of Bt protoxin to active toxin (1) Corn borer
in bollworm?
(2) Cotton bollworms
(1) Acidic pH of gut
(3) Nematodes
(2) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Insects
(3) Action of lipases
(4) Action of nucleases
174. Which of the following biological products
has been used to treat emphysema?
169. Genetically engineered crop-based (1) α-interferon
agriculture is useful in all of the following
(2) α-lactalbumin
ways, except
(3) α-1-antitrypsin
(1) It reduces post-harvest losses
(4) β-galactosidase
(2) It increases the efficiency of mineral
usage by plants
(3) It increases reliance on chemical 175. Golden rice is a rich source of β-carotene
pesticides which is the precursor of
(4) It makes crops more tolerant to abiotic (1) Vitamin B
stresses (2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin C + E
170. Which of the following is not a critical (4) Vitamin D
research area of biotechnology?
(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form
176. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma
of improved organism usually a
and flavour. How many documented
microbe or pure enzyme
varieties of it are grown in India?
(2) Creating optimal conditions through (1) 17
engineering for a catalyst to act
(2) 07
(3) Use of better management practices
and use of agrochemicals (3) 27
(4) Downstream processing technologies (4) 37
to purify the protein/organic compound
177. Which of the following diagnostic techniques
is used for the early detection of HIV?
(1) Urine analysis
(2) PCR
(3) Serum analysis
(4) Biopsy

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

178. The host used to produce human insulin 182. In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company
was prepared two DNA sequences
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens corresponding to A and B chains of
(2) pBR322 (1) Thyroxine
(3) Meloidogyne incognita (2) Insulin
(4) Escherichia coli (3) Cortisol
(4) Glucagon
179. Which of the following is considered as first
step towards gene therapy? 183. The main challenge for production of insulin
(1) Introducing a functional ADA cDNA into using rDNA techniques was
leucocytes by using suitable vectors (1) Splitting A and B peptide chains
(2) Growing the lymphocytes taken from (2) Addition of C-peptide chain
blood of patient outside the body in a (3) Getting insulin assembled into a
culture medium mature form
(3) Genetically engineered lymphocytes (4) Removal of C-peptide from the active
are subsequently returned to the insulin
patient
(4) Periodic infusion of such genetically
engineered lymphocytes 184. Bacteriophages have very high copy
numbers of their genome within the bacterial
cells because
180. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (1) Their replication is linked to replication
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently of chromosomal DNA
by
(2) Their number per cell is high
(1) Introducing ADA genes into bone
marrow stem cells at early embryonic (3) Of absence of their own ‘ori’ sequence
stage (4) Of lack of vital genes
(2) Enzyme replacement therapy
(3) Periodic infusion of genetically 185. How many copies of gene of interest(DNA)
engineered lymphocytes having are synthesized from a double stranded
functional ADA cDNA DNA template after 10 cycles of PCR?
(4) Administering adenosine deaminase (1) 1024
activators (2) 1 billion
(3) 124
181. Illegal and unlawful utilisation of (4) 10
biomaterials without payment to people
concerned is called
(1) Bio-war
(2) Biopatent
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Biotechnology

SECTION-B

186. DNA fragments separated by agarose gel 187. DNA fragments are ______charged
electrophoresis are visualized by staining molecules, and they move towards ______
with under an electric field on electrophoretic
(1) Ethidium bromide plate. Choose the option which correctly
fills the blanks respectively.
(2) Bromophenol blue
(1) Negatively, cathode
(3) UV rays
(2) Positively, anode
(4) Visible light
(3) Negatively, anode
(4) Positively, cathode

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

188. For the transformation with recombinant 194. From the box given below, how many
DNA, cells are bombarded with high velocity processes can be considered as
microparticles of gold or tungsten, coated biotechnological processes?
with DNA in a method known as
IVF, curd-making, producing a DNA vaccine,
(1) Micro-injection
bread-making, gene therapy
(2) Cloning
(3) Biolistics (1) Two
(4) Elution (2) Four
(3) Five
189. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in (4) Three
heterologous host then the resultant protein
is known as 195. Over 95% of transgenic animals are
(1) Conjugated protein _______.
(2) Flavoprotein Select the option which fills the blank
(3) Recombinant protein correctly.
(4) Proteinoid (1) Rabbit
(2) Rat
(3) Mice
190. Sampling ports in a bioreactor are meant for
(1) Temperature control system (4) Monkey

(2) pH control system

(3) Introduction of raw material
(4) Withdrawing small volumes of culture
periodically
191. Which of the following is included in
upstream processing?
(1) Separation and purification of products
(2) Product is formulated with suitable
preservatives
(3) Quality control testing
(4) The expression of foreign genes in host
cells to produce a desirable protein
192. If in a plasmid pBR322 the sequence 5'
GAATTC 3' appears at three sites, how many
restriction fragments will result if we use
BamHI for restriction digestion?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
196. Select the mismatch from the following.
(1) Armyworm – Lepidopteran
(2) Mosquito – Dipteran
(3) Beetle – Coleopteran
(4) Fly – Coleopteran
197. Assertion : The first clinical gene therapy
was given in 1990 to a 4 year old girl with
adenosine deaminase deficiency.
Reason : Gene therapy is used to treat
hereditary diseases.
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.

193. If we introduce the gene for Bt toxin in

soyabean then the resultant plant 198. _____ involves silencing of a specific mRNA
due to a complementary ds RNA.
(1) Can’t survive in nature
Choose the option that fills the blank
(2) Will have decreased efficiency of correctly.
mineral usage
(1) Electroporation
(3) Will be toxic for insects that eat the
(2) Gene therapy
same plant
(3) RDT
(4) Will increase post-harvest losses
(4) RNAi

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2324-T04A

199. Match column I and column II for the

organism and its cell wall degrading
enzyme, and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Plant cells (i) Lysozyme
b. Fungi (ii) Cellulase
c. Bacteria (iii) Chitinase
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

200. Read the following given statements and

choose the correct option.
Statement A : Plasmids and bacteriophages
have the ability to replicate within bacterial
cells independent of the control of
chromosomal DNA.
Statement B : The vector pBR322 has a rop
region which codes for proteins required for
resistance against tetracycline.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Statement B is incorrect

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