[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 5. Match List-I with List-II.
1. The equation of a projectile motion is described as List-I List-II
x =36t and 2y = 96t – 9.8t2. The angle of a. Intrinsic (e) Prepared by adding
projection (from x-axis) is semi- phosphorus
4
(1) sin −1   conductor
5 b. N-type semi- (f) Width is nearly one
 3 conductor micron
(2) sin −1  
5 c. P-type semi- (g) Silicon
conductor
4
(3) sin −1   d. Depletion (h) Prepared by adding
3
layer indium
3
(4) sin −1  
4 (1) a-g, b-e, c-h, d-I
(2) a-h, b-f, c-e, d-g
2. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit (3) a-e, b-g, c-f, d-h
around the earth has kinetic energy E0. Its (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e
potential energy is
(1) –2E0 6. A body is having +3 coulomb of charge. Which of
the following option is correct?
(2) 1.5 E
(1) 1.875 × 1019 electrons are added to the body
(3) 2E0 (2) 4.25×1018 electrons are added to the body
(4) E0 (3) 4.25×1018 electrons are removed from the
body
(4) 1.875 × 1019 electrons are removed from the
3. Two sound waves of wavelength 1 m and 1.01 m body
in a gas produces 9 beats in 3 s. The velocity of
sound in the gas is 7. An object at rest, at origin, begins to move in
(1) 360 m/s x-direction with uniform acceleration of 1 ms–2 for
(2) 303 m/s 4 s and then it continues moving with uniform
(3) 337 m/s velocity of 4 m/s in same direction. The position-
(4) 330 m/s time (x - f) graph for the object in motion will be

4. Which of the following particles will describe the (1) (2)

smallest circle when projected with the same
velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field?
(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) (4)
(3) He+
(4) Li+
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[2]
8. A parachutist with total weight of 75 kg drops 12. The speed of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum
vertically onto a sandy ground with speed of 2 m/s is
and comes to halt over a distance of 0.25 m. The (1) µ00
average force from the ground on him is close to
(2) 0  0
(1) 1350 N
1
(2) 1260 N (3)
0 0
(3) 1530 N
1
(4) 790 N (4)
00
9. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars
with a maximum mass of 5000 kg. The area of 13. Water from tap emerges vertically downwards
cross-section of piston carrying load is 5×10–4 m2. with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional
The maximum pressure that smaller piston would area of the tap is 10–4 m2. Assume that pressure is
have to bear is [g = 9.8 m/s2] constant throughout the stream of water and flow
(1) 9.8×104 Pa is steady. The cross-sectional area of the steam
0.15 m below the tap.
(2) 9.8 × 107 Pa
(1) 5 × 10–5 m2
(3) 3.9 × 105 Pa
(2) 6 × 10–4 m2
(4) 4.9 × 106 Pa
(3) 3 × 10–5 m2
(4) 10–5 m2
10. A piece of copper having a rectangular cross-
section 15 mm × 20 mm is pulled with a force of
45,000 N, producing only elastic deformation. 14. The nature of electromagnetic waves is
Young's modulus of copper is Y = 4.2 × 1010 Nm–2. (1) Longitudinal
The resulting strain is nearly (2) Transverse
(1) 3.57 × 10–3 (3) Stationary
(2) 4.65 × 10–3 (4) Either longitudinal or transverse
–3
(3) 7.22 × 10
(4) 2.9 × 10–4 15. Two plates of equal area and length, having
thermal conductivities in the ratio 3 : 5 are placed
11. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3Ω in contact with each other (hotter plate has higher
is connected to a resistor. The current in the thermal conductivity). The temperature of
circuit is 0.5 A. The resistance of the resistor and external surface of first plate is 20°C and that of
terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit is external surface at second plate is 60°C. The
closed is temperature at the contact surface of plate is
(1) 17 Ω, 11.5 V (1) 36°C
(2) 7Ω, 8.5 V (2) 45°C
(3) 17 Ω, 8.5 V (3) 55°C
(4) 10 Ω, 11.5 V (4) 25°C

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[3]
16. Which of the following is true for paramagnetic 19. One mole of a diatomic gas undergoes a process
materials in presence of external magnetic field? P0
P= 3
, where P0, V0 P0 , V0 are constants.
(where M is intensity of magnetisation and H is V 
intensity of magnetising field) 1+  
 V0 
(1) Value of M is very low and opposite to H The translational kinetic energy of the gas when
(2) Value of M is very high and in direction of V = 3V0 is given by
H 5
(1) P0V0
(3) Value of M is very low but in direction of 24
H 3
(2) P0V0
(4) None of these 50
5
(3) P0V0
17. A block of mass m is resting on a smooth 2
horizontal surface. One end of uniform rope of 9
(4) P0V0
m 56
mass   is fixed to the block, which is pulled in
4
the horizontal direction by applying a force F at 20. A positive charged particle, when released from
the other end. The tension in the 1/3rd part of the rest
rope from the free end is (1) Will keep on moving along electric field
15 lines
(1) F (2) Will always move normal to electric field
16
lines
1
(2) F (3) May move along electric field lines
8
(4) Will remain at rest
14
(3) F
15
21. Which of the following diode is forward biased?
7
(4) F
8
(1)
18. For a certain process, pressure of one mole
diatomic gas varies according to the relation
P = bV 3 , where b is constant. What is the molar
heat capacity of the gas for this process? (2)
17
(1) R
6
11 (3)
(2) R
4
(3) 2R
13
(4) R (4)
6

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[4]
22. Wheel of a cycle has 24 spokes and it is rotating 26. The following figures shows a logic gate circuit
in a magnetic field directed perpendicular to its with inputs A and B and output C. The voltage
plane. If the number of spokes are doubled then waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below.
the magnitude of emf induced between its centre The logic gate is
and rim will
(1) Doubled
(2) Quadrupled
(3) Halved
(4) Remain same

23. Phasor diagram for a particle executing SHM with (1) OR gate
amplitude A is shown. If phasor starts from P, (2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
then the distance travelled by particle as phasor
(4) NOR gate
move to the diametrically opposite point Q is

27. The height y and distance x along a horizontal

plane of a projectile on a certain planet are given
by; x = 6t m and y = (8t – 5t2) m.
The velocity with which the projectile is projected
is
(1) A (1) 8 m/s
(2) 2A (2) 6 m/s
(3) 2A (3) 10 m/s
(4) Zero
(4) A
28. Gravitational potential on the surface of earth is
24. Find the minimum wavelength of the X-rays V. Gravitational potential at the centre of earth is
emitted by an X-ray tube operating at 50kV. then
(1) 6.525 ×10–10) m (1) V
(2) 2.475 ×10–11) m (2)
3
V
(3) 6.82 ×10–5 m 2
(4) 5.82 ×10–6 m 2
(3) v
3
25. For example, the true value of certain length is (4) Zero
near 3.678 cm. In one experiment, the measured
29. A transverse wave having amplitude A and time
value is found to be 3.5 cm while in another
period T is represented by the equation y = 4sin2π
experiment, the length is determined to be 3.38
(t + x)m. The values of A (in m) and T (in s) are
cm. The first measurement has
(1) A = 5; T = 2
(1) More accuracy but less precision
(2) A = 10; T = 1
(2) Less accuracy and less precision
(3) A = 4; T = 1
(3) More accuracy and more precision
(4) A = 4 ; T = 2
(4) Less accuracy but more precision

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[5]
30. A hydrogen atom and a Li++ ion are both in the and r respectively. The ratio of their respective
second excited state. If LH and LU are their mean free paths in an identical container will be
respective angular momenta, and EH and EU are (1) 3 : 1
their respective energies, then (2) 1 : 9
(1) LH > LU and |EH | > |EL| (3) 1 : 3
(2) LH = LU and |EH | < |EU | (4) 9 : 1
(3) LH = LU and |EH | > |EU |
35. Two cells A and B of emf 4 V and 2 V with
(4) LH < LU and |EH | < |EU |
internal resistances 5Ω each are connected as
shown in figure. The potential difference VA
31. A helium nucleus is moving in a circular path of across the terminals of cells A is
radius 0.4 m. If it takes 4 s to complete one
revolution. The magnetic moment associated is
nearly
(1) 4 × 10–20 Am2
(2) 8 × 10–20 Am2
(3) 11 × 10–20 Am2
(4) 27 × 10–20 Am2
(1) VA = 1.875 V
(2) VA = 2.125 V
32. Two cars are moving in same direction with speed (3) VA = 3.5 V
of 45 km/h and 60 km/h respectively. They are (4) VA = 2.00 V
separated from each other by a distance of 6 km.
Time after which they will meet is SECTION – B
(1) 4 min 36. A Wheatstone bridge has resistance of
(2) 12 min 10Ω,10Ω,10Ω and 30Ω in its four arms. What
(3) 24 min resistance joined to 30Ω resistance will bring it to
(4) 30 min balanced condition?
(1) 15Ω resistance joined in parallel
(2) 30Ω resistance joined in parallel
33. A uniform bar of mass 2 kg, cross-sectional area (3) 30Ω resistance joined in series
A = 0.2 m2 and length 1 meter suspended so that it (4) 10Ω resistance joined in parallel
hangs vertically. The stress at the mid-point of the
bar is 37. A student measured the diameter of a wire using a
(1) 25 Nm–2 scale with least count 0.01 cm and listed the
(2) 100 Nm–2 measurements. The measured value should be
(3) 50 Nm–2 recorded as
(4) 200 Nm–2 (1) 4.230 cm
(2) 4.2 cm
34. Two ideal gases have same number of molecules (3) 4.23 cm
per unit volume and radii of their molecules are 3r (4) 4.2300 cm

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[6]
38. If moment of inertia of a ring about an axis (1) Point of contact between sphere and ground
perpendicular to its plane and passing through a (2) Any point on wall
point on its rim is I, then its moment of inertia (3) Any point on sphere
about an axis in the plane of ring and passing (4) A line passing through centre of sphere and
through its centre will be perpendicular to wall
(1) 2I
(2) I/2 42. Sun while rising appear reddish. This
(3) 4I phenomenon is due to
(4) I/4 (1) Dispersion
(2) Reflection
39. A simple pendulum is taken with constant (3) Scattering
velocity from surface of earth to surface of moon (4) Deviation
in t time. During the journey, the time period of
pendulum 43. In a spring-mass system, if amplitude of
(1) First increases then decreases oscillation is doubled, then its time period will
(2) First decreases then increases (1) Doubled
(3) Decreases continuously (2) Halved
(4) Increases continuously (3) Remains same
(4) Quadrupled
40. Figure shows some equipotential surfaces. The
magnitude and direction of electric field is given 44. Choose the process in which convection take
by place primarily
(1) Heating of a glass bulb due to filament
(2) Heating of earth by sun
(3) Transfer of heat by heat transfer fluid in solar
collector
(4) All of these

(1) 200 V/m making angle 120° with x-axis 45. A block of mass 10 kg is being pulled through an
(2) 100 V/m making angle 30° with x-axis unknown force F with constant speed as shown in
(3) 200 V/m making angle –60° with x-axis the figure.
(4) 100 V/m pointing towards negative x-axis

41 A sphere rolling on a smooth surface collides

elastically with wall as shown. The angular Work done by this unknown force F in displacing
momentum of sphere will remain conserved about the block through 5 m will be
(1) –300 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 300 J
(4) Data insufficient

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[7]
46. Assertion: If a point charge q is placed in front of
an infinite grounded conducting plane surface, the
point charge will experience a force.
Reason: This force is due to the induced charge
on the conducting surface which is at zero
potential.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
49.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion: When two vibrating tuning forks
having frequencies 256 Hz and 512 Hz are held
near each other, beats cannot be heared.
Reason: The principle of superposition is valid
only if the frequencies of the oscillators are nearly
equal.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
50.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
48. Assertion: Soldiers are asked to break steps while
crossing the bridge.
Reason: The frequency of marching may be equal
to the natural frequency of bridge and may lead to
resonance which can break the bridge.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Assertion: The periodic time of a hard spring is
less as compared to that of a soft spring.
Reason: The periodic time depends upon the
spring constant and spring constant is large for
hard spring.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Assertion: The average speed of an object may be
equal to arithmetic mean of individual speeds.
Reason: Average speeds is equal to total distance
travelled per total time taken.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
[8]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION-A (3) Four times that of hydrogen molecule.

51. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following (4) Half that of hydrogen molecule.
matter waves have the shortest wavelength?
(1) Electron 56. The work to be done on 2 moles of perfect gas at
(2) -particle 27°C, if it is compressed reversibly and
(3) Neutron isothermally from a pressure of 1.01 × 105 Nm–2 to
(4) Proton 5.05 ×106 Nm–2 is:
(1) 2.03 × 104 J
52. The value of n in: (2) 1.95 × 102 J
MnO−4 + 8H+ + ne – → Mn 2+ + 4H2O is: (3) 1.95 × 104 J
(4) 1.95 × 108 J
(1) 5
(2) 4
75. pH of 0.5 M aqueous solution of HF (Ka = 2 × 10–4)
(3) 2
is:
(4) 3
(1) 2
(2) 4
53. In a flask at a certain temperature there are 2g H2
(3) 6
and 8g O2. The mole fraction of O2 in the given
(4) 10
mixture is:
(1) 8/5
58. An electrochemical cell consists of two half-cell
(2) 0.2
reactions:
(3) 0.25
AgCl(s) + e– → Ag (s) + Cl– (aq)
(4) 1.0
Cu(s) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2e–
54. Which of the following statements is in accordance The mass of copper (in grams) dissolved on passing
with the Arrhenius equation? 0.5 A current for 1 hour is (Given : Atomic mass of
(1) Rate of a reaction has no effect with increase Cu is 63.6 ; F = 96500 C mol–1)
in temperature. (1) 0.88 g
(2) Rate of a reaction increases with decrease in (2) 1.18 g
activation energy. (3) 0.29 g
(3) Rate constant decreases exponentially with (4) 0.56 g
increase in temperature.
(4) Rate of reaction decreases with decrease in 59. Solubility of AgCl in water, in 0.01 M CaCl2, in
activation. 0.01 M NaCl and in 0.05 M AgNO3 are S1, S2, S3
and S4 respectively, then:
55. Helium atom is two times heavier than hydrogen (1) S1 < S2 < S3 < S4
molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of (2) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
helium atom is: (3) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4
(1) Two times that of hydrogen molecule. (4) S1 > S3 > S4 > S2
(2) Same as that of hydrogen molecule.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[9]
60. Among following reactions, which one will (1) If both assertion and reason is true and reason
produce dihydrogen? is the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) H2S4O8+H2O (2) If both assertion and reason is true but reason
(2) BaO2 + HCl is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Mg + H2O (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Na2O2 + 2HCl (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

61. Which of the following alkaline earth metals do not 66. The percent loss in mass after heating a pure
impart any colour to the flame? sample of 245 g potassium chlorate (mol. Mass =
122.5) will be:
(1) Ca, Sr
(1) 12.25
(2) Mg, Ca
(2) 24.50
(3) Be, Mg
(3) 39.18
(4) Sr, Ba
(4) 49.0

62. The solution which maintains its pH constant even 67. Anhy. AlCl3 produces fumes in the air. This is due
upon addition of small amounts of acid or base, is to:
called buffer solution. Which can act as a buffer? (1) Hydrolysis
(1) NH4Cl + NH4OH (2) Reduction
(2) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (3) Oxidation
(3) 40 mL of 0.1 M NaCN + 20 mL of 0.1 M HCN (4) Dimerisation
(4) All of the above.
68. Among the given compounds, the compound
63. The metallic luster exhibited by sodium is which is oxidised to prepare methyl ethyl ketone is
explained by the: (1) tert-butyl alcohol
(1) Existence of body centred cubic lattice. (2) butan-2-ol
(2) Excitation of free electrons. (3) propan-2-ol
(3) Diffusion of sodium ions. (4) butanol
(4) Oscillation of loose electrons.
 
69. Basic strength of CH  C (I); CH 2 = C H (II) and
64. The product P in following reaction is: 
CH3 C H 2 (III) will be in order:
(1) I < II < III
(1) 2-phenylpropanoic acid (2) II < III > I
(2) benzoic acid (3) III < II < I
(3) 2-phenylethanoic acid (4) III < I < II
(4) phenylmethanoic acid
70. The temperature of the slag zone in the metallurgy
65. Assertion: The pKa of acetic acid is lower than that of iron using blast furnace is:
(1) 1200 – 1500 °C
of phenol.
(2) 1500 – 1600 °C
Reason: Phenoxide ion is more resonance
(3) 400 – 700 °C
stabilized than acetate ion.
(4) 800 – 1000 °C

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[10]
71. The one of the product obtained on reaction of
ethyl magnesium bromide with methanol is: (3)
(1) Ethane
(2) Methane
(3) Propane
(4) Methoxyethane
(4)
72. For ZnS, the coordination number of cation and
anion are respectively:
(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 6 76. A graph of log [A] v/s t for first order reaction is
(3) 6, 6 given below.
(4) 4, 8

73. Which of the following statements is incorrect

regarding corrosion?
(1) Impurities present in iron enhance rusting by
settling a number of miniature cells. X is equal to:
(2) It is an electrochemical phenomenon. 0.693
(1)
(3) The technique of protecting a metal from k
corrosion by connecting it to a second metal is k
(2)
known as anodic protection. 2.303
(4) It is an oxidation deterioration of a metal. k
(3) −
2.303
74. Which of the following represents the correct
(4) log [A]0
increasing order of acidic behaviour of the
molecules given below ethyne, benzene and
77.
hexane?
(1) Benzene < Hexane < Ethyne Column-I Column-II
(2) Hexane < Benzene < Ethyne Distinguish By
(3) Hexane < Benzene > Ethyne A Methanol and p Lucas regent
(4) Ethyne < Hexane < Benzene ethanol
B Phenol and q Sodium metal
75. Which of the following curve show Freundlich cyclohexanol
adsorption isotherm? C n-Butyl alcohol and r Iodoform test
tert-butyl alcohol
(1) D Methanol and s Ferric chloride
diethyl ether

(1) A – q, B – s, C – p, D – r
(2) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r
(2)
(3) A – p, B – q, C – r, D – s
(4) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[11]
78. Which of the following is the most stable free 81. Which of the following statements regarding
radical? actinides is correct?
(1) Pu4+ disproportionates to Pu3+ and PuO22+ in
strongly acidic medium.
(1) (2) Maximum oxidation state of Np is +7.
(3) UO22+ is stable.
(2) (4) All of the above statements are correct.

82. Count the total number of S – O bonds, which are

having equal length in bisulphate ion?
(3) (1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4)
(4) 6

79. The correct order of reactivity for the addition 83. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best
reaction of the following carbonyl compounds with accomplished by:
ethyl magnesium iodide is: (1) Swarts reaction
(2) Free radical fluorination
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Sandmeyer reaction

84. In dichromate ion (Cr2O72–), each Cr is linked to:

(1) I > III > II > IV (1) Two O-atoms
(2) IV > III > II > I (2) Three O-atoms
(3) I > II > IV > III (3) Four O-atoms
(4) III > II > I > IV
(4) Five O-atoms
80. Solids are attracted by magnetic field due to the
presence of atoms, ions or molecules with unpaired 85. The coordination entity formed when excess of
electron, called paramagnetic. Which among the KCN is added to an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is:
following is paramagnetic? (1) [Cu(CN)2]+
(1) Cl2O7 (2) [Cu(CN)6]4–
(2) Cl2O
(3) [Cu(CN)4]2–
(3) ClO2
(4) Cl2O5 (4) [Cu(CN)4]3+

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[12]
 SECTION – B 89. The major product of the following reaction is:

86. In the reaction the products

are:

(1) (1) Propan-2-ol

(2) Propanal
(2) (3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Propan-1-ol
(3)
90. Which one of the following pairs of pyrimidine
bases are present in DNA?
(4)
(1) Cytosine and uracil
(2) Cytosine and guanine
87. A solution containing 2.665 g of CrCl3.6H2O is (3) Cytosine and adenine
passed through a cation exchanger. The chloride (4) Cytosine and thymine
ions obtained in solution were treated with excess
of AgNO3 to give 2.87 g of AgCl. The structure of HNO HF 
compound is: 91. Ph − NH 2 ⎯⎯⎯→
0C
2
A ⎯⎯⎯
BF
→ B ⎯⎯
→ C,C is :
3

(1) [CrCl . (H2O)5]Cl2 . H2O +

(2) [CrCl2. (H2O)4]Cl . H2O (1) Ph − N  NBF4−
(3) [CrCl . (H2O)5]Cl . H2O
(4) [CrCl2. (H2O)5] Cl2 . H2O (2)

88. Match the column I with column II and choose the (3)
correct option using the codes below.
Column-I Column-II (4) Ph – F
A O2– I Paramagnetic
B CN– II Diamagnetic 92. For the heterogenous reaction,
C CO III Diamagnetic A (s) + 2B (g)  3D(s) + 2Y (g), the
D + IV Diamagnetic
NO relationship between equilibrium constants, KP
and KC is:
A B C D (1) KP = KC [RT]2
(1) II III IV I (2) KP = KC [RT]0
(2) III IV II I (3) KP = KC [RT]–2
(3) I II III IV (4) KP = KC [RT]–1
(4) IV III II I

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[13]
93. Which of the following will undergo Cannizzaro (3) NaNO2/HCl and benzonitrile
reaction? (4) HNO2/H+ and methyl cyanide
(1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Acetaldehyde
97. When CH3Cl and AlCl3 are used in Friedel-Crafts
(3) Acetone
(4) Pentanone reaction, the electrophile is:
(1) Cl+
94. Among the following, the biodegradable polymer (2) AlCl4–
(3) CH3+
is:
(4) AlCl2+
(1) Cellulose
(2) Polyethene 98. In the following reaction ‘A’ is:
(3) PVC
(4) Nylon-6
(1) C2H5CH2CHO
(2) C2H5CH2CH2OH
95. CH3CONH2 and CH3CH2NH2 are distinguished by
(3) C2H5CH2OH
reacting with:
(4) C2H5CHO
(1) aq. NaOH and heat
(2) aq. HCl and heat 99. H2S(g) → HS– (g) + H+ (g), H° = x1, Hf° (H2S
(3) Br2 water (g)) = x2, Hf° (H+(g)) = x3
(4) acidic KMnO4 Hence, Hf° (HS–) is:
(1) x1 + x2 – x3
(2) x3 – x1 – x2
96. A and B respectively are:
(3) x1 – x2 – x3
(4) x3 – x1 – x2

100. Alkyl halide on heating with dry Ag2O produces:

(1) Ether
(2) Ester
(1) Phenol and methyl nitrile (3) Ketone
(2) HNO3 and benzonitrile (4) Hydrocarbon

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 102. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to raise
101. Secondary succession takes place on/in in plants by
(1) Degraded forest (1) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
(2) Newly created pond (2) Pushing it upward only
(3) Newly cooled lava (3) Pushing and pulling it, respectively
(4) Bare rock (4) Pulling it upward

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[14]
103. Cytochromes are found in 110. Which of the following statements is true for
(1) Outer wall of mitochondria virus?
(2) Cristae of mitochondria (1) They form plasmodium stage after aggregation
(3) Lysosomes in favourable condition
(4) Matrix of mitochondria (2) They are nucleo-proteins monerans
(3) Obligate intercellular parasites
104. Typical growth curve in plants is (4) They only posses only one type of nucleic acid
(1) Linear either DNA or RNA which is infectious in
(2) Sigmoid nature
(3) Parabolic
(4) Curve 111. Porphyra differs from Fucus in
105. Perigynous flowers are found in
(1) Having advanced type of asexual reproduction
(1) Cucumber
(2) Absence of cellulose in cell wall
(2) China rose
(3) Photosynthetic pigment of reaction centre in
(3) Rose
photosystem
(4) Guava
(4) Nature of male gametes and spores
106. Alleles are
(1) Genes that code a pair of contrasting traits 112. Select correct match.
(2) True breeding homozygotes only
(3) Heterozygotes only Column I Column II
(4) Slightly same forms of the same genes P. Steroidal I. Mitochondria
hormones
107. In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through Q. Hydrolases II. SER
(1) Offsets R. Oxidative III. Lysosomes
(2) Bulbils Phosphorylation
(3) Runners S. Storage of IV. Ribosomes
(4) Rhizome proteins
Aleuoplast
108. In a ring, girdled plant
(1) Shoot dies first P Q R S
(2) Root dies first (1) II III I V
(3) Shoot and root die together
(2) II III I IV
(4) Neither shoot nor root will die
(3) III II I V
(4) I III II IV
109. How many taxa mentioned given below are Genus?
Felis, Petunia, Lion, Mangifera, Brinjal, Dicots,
113. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in
Dog, Monocots, Mosses, Muscidae, Angiosperm,
(1) Requirement of special membrane protein
Grasses
(2) Direction of transport
(1) Four
(3) Highly selective nature
(2) Seven
(4) Showing transport saturates
(3) Three
(4) Six
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[15]
114. Match the functions given in column I with their 117. The adapter molecules for tryptophan and
respective PGRs in column II and select the methionine during polypeptide synthesis are
correct option .

Column I Column II (1)

P. Promotes the I. ABA
abscission of
older, mature
leaves (2)
and fruits
Q. Increases the II. Cytokinin
length of grape
stalk
(3)
R. Adventitious III. Gibberellin
shoot formation
S. Storage of IV. Auxins
Increases the
tolerance of (4)
plants to
various kinds of
stresses
118. Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery of
P Q R S healthy plants from diseased plants is
(1) IV III II I (1) Somatic hybridisation
(2) IV III I II (2) Embryo culture
(3) III IV II I (3) Androgenic culture
(4) I III IV II (4) Meristem culture
115. Select the incorrectly matched pair
(1) Pollen grain - Gametophyte 119. The ecological pyramid of number for predator
(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo food chain on a tree is
(3) False fruits - Unfertilised ovary (1) Straight
(4) Perispermic seed-Blackpepper (2) Inverted
(3) Spindle-shaped
116. What is false for Morgan's dihybrid cross (4) Bell-shaped
considering body colour and eye colour in fruit fly?
(1) Parental line had yellow body and white eyed 120. Phytochemistry is not the basis of classification in
female (1) Artificial system
(2) All F1 male progeny were wild type
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Parental type F2 progeny were 98.7%
(3) Natural system
(4) The recombinant percentage in F2 generation
(4) More than one option is correct
is 1.3%

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[16]
121. Kinetochore is disc-shaped proteinaceous structure 125. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
(1) Present on outer surface and inner surface of DNA fragments joining?
centromere (1) DNA ligase
(2) Present on outer surface of centriole (2) DNase
(3) As the site of the attachment of spindle fibres (3) Helicase
(4) More than one option is correct (4) RNA ligase

122. Select false statement w.r.t pollen grain 126. Which of the following is wrong matched w.rt
(1) Intine is pectocellulosic in nature improved crop varieties for disease and insect pest
(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical resistance?
(3) The vegetative cell has abundant food reserve (1) Pusa Shubhra - Black rot
and a small spindle shaped nucleus (2) Pusa sadabahar - TMV
(4) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of (3) Pusa Gaurav - Fruit borer
vegetative cell (4) Pusa sem 2 - Jassids

123. In grasshopper, male sex is determined by 127. Select an wrong match.

(1) Ova with X-chromosome (1) Salty areas - Halophiles
(2) Ova without sex chromosome (2) Marshy areas - Methanogens
(3) Sperm with X-chromosome (3) Heterocysts - Nostoc
(4) Sperm with autosomes only (4) Chemosynthesis - Anabaena

124. Find correct match w.r.t. features/chromosome 128. Select wrong statement.
composition of genetic disorders. (1) ψs is always negative
(2) Saturation of transport is shown by all simple
Column I Column II diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active
P. Gynaecomastia I. AA+1+XX/XY transport
Q. Sterile female II. AA + XXY (3) Most of the water flow in the root occurs
with rudimentary through apoplast
ovaries (4) Water loss in liquid phase is called guttation
R. Short statured III. Mendelian and is due to root pressure
with small round disorder
129. Splitting of water during light reaction takes place
head.
(1) On inner face of inner chloroplast membrane
S. Increased level of IV. AA + XO
(2) On outer face of inner chloroplast membrane
phenyl pyruvic
(3) On inner face of thylakoid membrane
acid
(4) On outer face of thylakoid membrane
P Q R S
130. Majority of insect pollinated flowers are
(1) II IV I III
(1) Nectarless, odourless and coloured
(2) III IV II I
(2) Colourful, fragrant and nectar rich
(3) IV II I III
(3) Coloured, fragrant and nectarless
(4) I IV II III
(4) Coated by a waxy layer

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[17]
131. Read the statements carefully and find the set of 135. Industrial waste water are rich in
true statements. (1) Heavy metals
P. λ-phage has 48502bp (2) Uranium
(3) Radioactive waste
Q. The feature of base pairing was one of the
(4) More than one option is correct
hallmarks of Watson and Crick model
R. Two chains in DNA are parallel to each other SECTION-B
S. Sugar and base form the backbone of DNA 136. Select the true match for the given diagram.
(1) Q, S
(2) Q, R
(3) P, R
(4) P, Q

132. What would be DNA content (x), number of (1) A. Plasmolysis

chromosomes (y) in the microspore if at G2 phase, (2) B. Deplasmolysis
meiocyte possess 20pg of DNA and 20 (3) C. Plasmolysis
chromosomes? (4) A. Deplasmolysis
(1) x = 5, y = 10
(2) x = 10, y = 20 137. Who used the frequency of recombination between
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure
(3) x = 5, y = 20
of the distance between genes?
(4) x = 10, y = 10 (1) T. H Morgan
(2) Alfred Sturtevant
133. Choose the true fate of the first carboxylation (3) E.V Tschermak
product in C4 plants during photosynthesis. (4) Sutton and Boveri
(1) C3 acid → C4 acid → PEP
(2) C4 acid → C3 acid → PEP 138. DNA Fingerprinting involves identifying
differences in some specific regions in DNA
(3) C4 acid → PEP → C3 acid
sequence called
(4) C3 acid → C6 acid → PEP
(1) Palindromic DNA
(2) Repetitive DNA
134. Few species have evolved adaptations to avoid (3) Satellite DNA
unfavourable conditions in time. Choose odd one (4) All of the above.
out w.r.t. it.
(1) Aestivation 139. The type of leaves in silk cotton tree is
(1) Simple leaf
(2) Hibernation
(2) Unipinnate compound
(3) Diapause (3) Palmate compound
(4) Migration (4) Bipinnate compound

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[18]
140. Identify the given diagram and choose wrong 144. The relationship between species richness and area
statement. explored on a logarithmic scale is represented as
logS = logC + ZlogA, where the value of Z lies in
the range of regardless of the taxonomic group or
the region. The value of Z lies between the range
of-
(1) 0.6 to 12
(2) 0.1 to 0.2
(3) 11.15
(4) 0.015
(1) Heterosporous form
(2) Female gametophytes are retained on the 145. Which is not a feature of family Lillaceae?
parent sporophytes permanently. (1) Cymose infloressence often umbeliate cluster
(3) Leaves are microphylls (2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, bilocular, superior
(4) Gametophytes require cool, damp, shady ovary
places to grow (3) Perennial herbs with underground bulb/corms/
rhizomes
141. Delay in flowering in plants is generally due to (4) Bisexual, actinomorphic flower with six tepals
deficiency of
(1) Fe, Mn, Zn 146. Consider the following statements and choose the
(2) Ca, Cu correct option
(3) Mo, S, N Statement-I: Pinus is monoecious whereas Cycas
(4) Mo, K, S, N is dioecious.
Statement-II: Gymnosperms have haploid
142. Lichens are sensitive to endosperm.
(1) NO2 (1) Only statement I is correct
(2) CO2 (2) Only statement II is correct
(3) SO2 (3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) NO (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

143. Pollutants from man's activities like effluents from 147. If a pollen grain contains 20 pg of DNA and 8
the homes and industries can radically accelerate chromosomes, what would have been the number
the aging process of lakes. This phenomenon has of chromosomes and DNA content in its
been called microspore mother cell?
(1) Biomagnification (1) 20 pg and 16 chromosomes
(2) Waste water treatment (2) 10 pg and 8 chromosomes
(3) Cultural eutrophication (3) 40 pg and 16 chromosomes
(4) Friends of arcata marsh (4) 20 pg and 8 chromosomes

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[19]
148. The compound which is common in aerobic and 50. Riya is suffering from a chromosomal disorder.
anaerobic respiration is She has broad flat face, big and wrinkled tongue,
(1) Oxaloacetic acid congential heart disease and many 'loops' on finger
(2) Pyruvic acid tips. Identify the disorder.
(3) Succinyl Co (1) Down's syndrome
(4) Acetyl CoA (2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter syndrome
149. Which of the following type of RNA plays both (4) None of the above
structural and catalytic role during translation?
(1) tRNA
(2) rRNAs
(3) mRNA
(4) hnRNA

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 153. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
151. Which of the given factors favours the (1) juxta glomerular cells to release renin
dissociation of CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin?
(2) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(1) High pCO2, low pO2 - In tissue
(2) Low pCO2, high pO2 - In alveoli (3) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(3) Low pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli (4) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
(4) High pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli
154. Hormones stored and released from
152. Match the column-I with column-II and select the neurohypophysis are
correct option.
(1) Thyroid stimulating hormone and oxytocin
Column-I Column-II
(2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(a) Gout (i) decreased levels
of estrogen (3) Follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing
hormone
(b) Osteoporosis (ii) low Ca++ ions in
(4) Prolactin and vasopressin
the blood
(c) Tetany (iii) accumulation of
uric acid crystals 155. Hepatitis B is transmitted through

(d) Muscular (iv) auto immune (1) Blood transfusion

dystrophy disorder (2) Intimate physical contact
(v) genetic disorder (3) Sexual contact
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) All of these
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[20]
156. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 160. When body can not differentiate between its own
correct option. cells and foreign cells, all it is referred to as
Column-I Column-I (1) passive immunity
(A) Fertilisation (I) Mitotic division (2) active immunity
(B) Implantation (II) Embryo with 8 to 16 (3) autoimmunity
blastomeres (4) immunodeficiency
(C) Cleavage (III) Ampullary-isthmic
junction 161. Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays),
(D) Morula (IV) Structure formed by CT scanning and MRI are very useful to detect
the continuous (1) autoimmune disorders
division of 8 to 16 (2) disease caused by viral infection
blastomeres (3) disease caused by bacterial infection
(E) Blastocysts (V) Embedding of (4) disease caused by an uncontrolled division of
blastocysts in the abnormal cells of internal organs
endometrium
162. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme
(1) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-V; E-III
activity
(2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II; E-V
(1) Enzymes generally function in a narrow
(3) A- III; B-V; C-I; D-IV; E-II
range of temperature and pH
(4) A-III; B-V; C-I; D-II; E-IV (2) Low temperature preserves enzymes in a
temporarily inactive state
157. Which of the following sphincter regulates the (3) Activity of enzymes increases both below
opening of oesophagus into stomach? and above optimum value
(1) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (4) Usually high temperature above 60°C
(2) Cardiac sphincter destroys enzymatic activity
(3) Pyloric sphincter
(4) Both (1) and (2) 163. Which of the following enzyme is used in case of
fungus to cause release of DNA along with other
macromolecules?
158. What is meant by the term ‘Darwin fitness’?
(1) Lysozyme
(1) The ability to survive and reproduce (2) Cellulase
(2) High aggressiveness (3) Chitinase
(3) Healthy appearance (4) Amylase
(4) Physical strength
164. Cry protein is obtained from
159. The exaggerated response of the immune system (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
to certain antigens is called
(2) Bacillus subtilis
(1) primary response
(2) secondary response (3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(3) immune suppression response (4) E. coli
(4) allergy

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[21]
165. The placenta is formed from the ______of the 170. The figure given below shows the structure of
embryo and the ________of the mother. sperm. Identify the correct feature corresponding
(1) uterus, trophoblast to the marked structures A, B, C and D.
(2) chorion, endometrium
(3) endometrium, chorion
(4) inner cell mass, endometrium

166. Which of the following is not observed during

contraction of a muscle fibre?
(1) A band retain the length
(2) Shortening of sarcomere
(3) I band gets reduced
(4) H zone retains the length

167. Which hominid among the following has a brain

size of 1400 cc?
(1) Neanderthal man
(2) Cro-Magnon man
(3) Homo erectus
(1) A - Head: Its anterior portion is covered by a
(4) Homo habilis
structure filled with enzymes that helps in the
fusion of male and female gametes.
168. Complete the analogy and choose the correct (2) B - Middle piece: It contains a haploid
option
nucleus.
Water canal system : Bath sponge :: Water
(3) C - Neck: It possess few ribosomes which
vascular system :
produces energy for the process of
(1) Sea hare fertilisation.
(2) Sea lily (4) D - Tail: It releases energy source for
(3) Sea pen swimming of sperm.
(4) Sea fan
171. Which technique would to be completely curative
169. Two types of cells present in the lining of in SCID?
seminiferous tubules are _________ and _______. (1) Gene therapy in adult stage.
(1) Leydig cells, sertoli cells
(2) Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
(2) Male germ cells, sertoli cells
(3) Bone marrow transplantation.
(3) Spermatogonium, spermatids
(4) Enzyme replacement therapy.
(4) Primary oocyte, leydig cells

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[22]
172. Read the following three statements (i - iii) and
choose the correct option.
(i) The thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils in
Cucurbita represent divergent evolution.
(ii) The similarity in the eyes of Octopus and
monkey is the result of convergent evolution.
(iii) The potato and sweet potato are the example A B C D
of homology. (1) Macrophage Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct fibres
(2) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macrophage
(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
fibres
(3) (i) and (iii) are correct (3) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell
(4) All are correct. fibres
(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen
173. Which of the following is a hypercalcemic fibres
hormone?
(1) Thyroxine 177. Which of the following is not the function of
(2) Parathyroid hormone conducting part of respiratory passage?
(3) Insulin (1) Humidify the inhaled air
(4) Glucagon (2) Clean the inspired air
(3) Perform gaseous exchange
174. Percentage of oxygen transported by haemoglobin (4) Warm up the air
is
(1) 93 178. Co-enzyme is
(2) 95 (1) always a protein.
(3) 97 (2) often a metal.
(4) 99 (3) always an inorganic compound.
(4) often a vitamin.
175. Expiration involves:
(1) relaxation of diaphragm and external inter- 179. Which of the following graph represents correctly
costal muscles the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical
(2) contraction of diaphragm and external inter- enzymatic reaction?
costal muscles
(3) contraction of diaphragm muscles only
(4) contraction of external inter-costal muscles (1) (2)
only

176. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a

certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts (3) (4)
labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option
about them.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[23]
180. What would be the correct sequence of path 184. Assertion: DNA is cleaved at specific site by
followed by light when it falls on eye and the endonucleases.
impulse generated? Reason: Endonucleases are found in viruses.
(a) Visual cortex (b) Cornea (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(c) Vitreous humor (d) Lens reason is the correct explanation of the
(e) Aqueous humor (f) Retina assertion.
(1) b-c-d-e-f-a (2) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(2) b-e-d-c-f-a reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) a-f-b-e-d-c assertion.
(4) d-b-a-c-e-f (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
181. Secondary messengers are required for the activity
of
185. Removal of the co-factor from an enzyme will
(1) Protein hormones result in
(2) Amino acid derivative hormones
(1) increase of catalytic activity
(3) Steroidal hormones
(2) initial decrease of catalytic activity followed
(4) Both (1) and (2) by increase
(3) loss of catalytic activity
182. Which of the following statements is not correct
(4) no effect on catalytic activity
about the dendrites?
(1) These are the short fibres which branch
repeatedly and project out of the cell body. SECTION–B
(2) These contain the granular bodies called 186. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal
Nissl’s granules. parts are correctly matched with their respective
(3) These fibres transmit the impulses towards inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not
the cell body. matched. Identify the non-matching pair.
(4) These contain neurotransmitters. Pairs of skeletal parts Category

183. Which of the following pairs is correct match of a (1) Humerus and ulna Appendicular
hormone with a disease resulting from its skeleton
deficiency?
Hormone Disease
(2) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(1) Relaxin – Gigantism
(2) Prolactin – Cretinism (3) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(3) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(4) Clavicle and Scapula Pelvic girdle
(4) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[24]
187. Dialysing fluid have the same composition as that 192. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the
of body can be divided into identical left and right
(1) Plasma - nitrogenous wastes halves in only one plane are –
(2) Serum - urea (1) radially symmetrical
(3) Lymph - proteins (2) bilaterally symmetrical
(4) Plasma + electrolytes + heparin (3) asymmetrical
(4) both (1) and (2)
188. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes
(1) ACTH, TSH and oxytocin 193. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(2) LH, GH and ADH correct option.
(3) TSH, ADH and prolactin Column I Column II
(4) FSH, GH and LH (A) Golden (I) Cry protein
Rice
189. Assertion (A): SAN is called the pacemaker of (B) Bt toxin (II) Rich in vitamin A
heart. (C) RNAi (III) First transgenic cow
Reason (R): The SAN can generate the maximum (D) Rosie (IV) Gene silencing
number of action potentials and is responsible for
initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile (1) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
activity of the heart. (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
(3) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(4) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
194. The following figures A, B and C are types of
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the
muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C.
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

190. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called

radula, present in the phylum
(1) arthropoda
(2) mollusca
(3) echinodermata (1) A-Smooth muscles, B-Cardiac muscles,
(4) chordata C-Skeletal muscle
(2) A-Skeletal muscles, B-Smooth muscles,
191. The function of GLUT-4 is C-Cardiac muscle
(1) to act as intercellular ground substance (3) A-Cardiac muscles, B-Smooth muscles,
(2) to fight against infectious agents C-Skeletal muscle
(3) to enable glucose transport into the cells (4) A-Smooth muscles, B-Skeletal muscles,
(4) to help in sensory reception. C-Cardiac muscle

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[25]
195. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct 199. The given figure shows the cloning vector
regarding inbreeding? pBR322, some parts of its are labelled as A, B, C
(i) It is the mating of more closely related & D. Choose the option showing the correct
individuals within the same breed for 4-6 labelling.
generations.
(ii) It decreases homozygosity.
(iii) It exposes harmful recessive genes that are
eliminated by selection.
(iv) Inbreeding depression results due to
continued inbreeding, especially close-
inbreeding, may reduce fertility and
productivity. A B C D
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (1) Hind I EcoR I ampR ori
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) Hind I BamH kanR ampR
I
196. Hardy-Weinberg principle is based on which of (3) BamH Pst I ori ampR
the following equations? I
(1) p + pq + q = 1 (4) EcoR I BamH ampR ori
I
(2) p + 2pq + q = 1
(3) p + p2q2 + q = 1
200. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) p2 + 2pq +q2 = 1
correct option.
Statement A: Plasmid is a double stranded
197. Select the mismatch structure.
(1) Bufo – Toad Statement B: Plasmid is an extra chromosomal
(2) Hyla – Tree frog genetic material in bacteria.
(3) Rana – Midwife toad (1) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Ichthyophis – Limbless amphibia (2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
198. The amino acid represented by the structure given (4) Both statements are correct
below is

(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Serine
(4) Valine

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

[26]
Rough Work
Rough Work
Rough Work