A

18-10-2020

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST No. 1

(XI Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ballpoint PEN to darken
the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page is
missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
the answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part
has two sections
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 questions. The
answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off
to the second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00,
–00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the mouse
and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

 Test No. 1

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Units and Measurement, Motion in a Straight Line

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of

Chemistry Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Basics of Mathematics (Sets, Wavy Curve Method and Inequalities),

Mathematics Relations and Functions (XI Syllabus) (Including Transformation of Graphs)
Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 300

TEST - 1
PART – A : (PHYSICS)

SECTION - I 7. You are to drive for an exam in another town, at

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains a distance of 300 km on an expressway. The
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 exam begins at 11:15 am. You plan to drive at
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
100 km/h, so you leave at 8:00 am to allow for
is correct.
some extra time. You drive at that speed for
1. The radius of a sphere is measured as first 100 km but due to some construction work
(5.2 ± 0.2) cm, the percentage error in you have to move with 40 km/h for 40 km. What
measurement of volume of the sphere is is the least speed needed for the rest of the trip
closest to
to arrive in time for the exam?
(1) 11% (2) 4%
(1) 90 km/h (2) 100 km/h
(3) 7% (4) 9%
(3) 128 km/h (4) 140 km/h
2. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ±
8. When a body is projected vertically upward with
0.2) m in a time (4.00 ± 0.3) s, the velocity of
the body is (in m/s) a certain velocity, the distance travelled during

(1) 3.45 ± 0.2 (2) 3.45 ± 0.3 last second of the upward journey is d. If the
(3) 3.45 ± 0.4 (4) 3.45 ± 0.5 velocity of projection is doubled, the distance
3. The number of significant figures in 0.0006032 travelled in the last second of its upwards
is journey is
(1) 7 (2) 4 (1) 2d (2) 4d
(3) 5 (4) 2 (3) d/2 (4) d
4. The velocity of the waves on the surface of 9. From a certain point above the ground, an
water is proportional to λα ρβ gγ where λ = object is projected vertically upward. It reaches
wavelength, ρ = density and g = acceleration
the ground in a time t1. From the same point,
due to gravity. Which of the following relations
the object is then projected vertically downward
is correct?
with the same initial speed. It reaches the
(1) α = β ≠ γ (2) β = γ ≠ α
ground in a time t2. If the same object is
(3) γ = α ≠ β (4) α ≠ β ≠ γ
dropped from the same point, it will reach the
5. A particle moving with initial velocity 4 m/s
deaccelerate at a constant rate of 2 m/s2. Time ground in a time
after which its velocity becomes zero is t1 + t 2
(1) (2) t1t 2
(1) 4 s (2) 3 s 2
(3) 5 s (4) 2 s 2t1t 2 t1 − t 2
(3) (4)
6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from a point t1t 2 2
on the ground. It was observed at a height h 10. A point moves in a straight line so that its
twice with a time interval ∆t. The initial velocity displacement x at time t is given by x2 = 1 + t2.
of the ball is Its acceleration at time t is
2 −t
 g ∆t  (1) x 2/3 (2)
(1) 8gh + (g ∆t )2 (2) 8gh +   x3
 2 
1 t2 1 1
1 (3) − (4) −
(3) 8gh + (g ∆t )2 (4) 2
8gh + 4g ( ∆t ) 2
x x3 x x2
2
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

11. A train stops at two stations s distance apart 15. A car moves rectilinearly from station A to B
and takes time t on the journey from one to (rest to rest) with an acceleration a varying with
another. Its motion is first of uniform distance X from station A as a = C – DX where
acceleration a and then immediately of uniform C and D are constants. The distance between
retardation b, then two stations and maximum velocity are
1 1 t2 2C C
(1) − = (1) ,
a b s D D
1 1 t2
(2) + = D C
a b s (2) ,
2C D
1 1 t2
(3) + =
a b 2s C D
(3) ,
1 1 t 2
2D C
(4) − =
a b 2s
12. A body moving along a straight line travels one 2C C
(4) ,
third of the total distance with a velocity 4 m/s. D D
The remaining distance is covered with velocity 16. A particle is moving along a straight line whose
2 m/s for some time t0 and with 4 m/s for the v-s graph is shown, the dashed line is tangent
remaining time. If the average velocity is 3 m/s, to the curve. The magnitude of acceleration is
then the time for which the body moves with
(in m/s2)
velocity 4 m/s in second stretch is
3
(1) t0 (2) t0
2
t0
(3) 2t0 (4)
2
13. A, B, C and D are four different physical
quantities having different dimensions and none
of them is dimensionless. The relation AD = C (1) 3 3 (2) 3
ln (BD) holds true. Which of the following
4
combination is not a meaningful quantity? (3) (4) 4 3
3
A
(1) A2 – B2C2 (2) −C
B 17. A train is moving on a straight line with constant
A C C AD 2 velocity v1. A bird starts flying from the rear end
(3) − (4) −
BD D BD C of the train in the direction of motion of train
14. A particle starts moving in a straight line with a with speed v2 and goes upto the front and then
constant acceleration. At a time t0 after the back to the rear end with same speed. Select
beginning of motion the acceleration suddenly the correct statement.
becomes retardation of the same magnitude.
(1) Average velocity of bird with respect to train
The time (from the start) in which the particle
is zero
returns to its initial point is
(2) Average velocity of bird with respect to
(1) 2t0 ground is 3v1.
(2) (2 + 2 ) t0 (3) Average speed of bird with respect to
t0 ground is 2v2
(3)
2
(4) Average speed of bird with respect to train
(4) Cannot be found unless acceleration is
3v1v 2
given is
v1 + v 2

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

18. The acceleration-time graph of a particle SECTION - II

moving along a straight line is as shown. The Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
time at which the particle will have the velocity contains 5 questions. The answer to each question

same as initial velocity (in s) is
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

21. A lift ascends with a constant acceleration of

(1) 10 2 m/s2. A man throws a ball vertically upward
(2) 10 + 3 with a velocity of 12 m/s relative to lift. The
ball will come back to man after a time of___ s.
(3) 10 + 5 3
(g = 10 m/s2)
(4) 10 + 2 3
22. The adjoining figure shows the velocity of rocket
19. Velocity-displacement graph of a particle launched from ground with time. The maximum
moving along a straight line is as shown. Line height attained by the rocket (in km) is _____.
PB is normal to the curve and line PA is
perpendicular to s-axis. The acceleration of the
particle at P is
v
(m/s)
P
4
23. A tennis ball dropped from a height of 20 m
A B rebounds to a height of 5.00 m. If the ball was
s(m)
0 1 2
in contact with the floor for a time of 0.03
(1) Zero seconds, then its average acceleration during
(2) 1 m/s2 the contact is n km/s2. Value of n is ____.
g = 10 m/s2.
(3) 2 m/s2
24. In a car race, car A takes 4 s less than car B at
(4) 3 m/s2
the finish and passes the finishing line with a
20. A stone is dropped from a height h.
velocity v more than the car B. Assuming that
Simultaneously another stone is thrown up from
the cars start from rest and travel with constant
the ground so as to reach the maximum height
accelerations of 4 m/s2 and 1 m/s2 respectively,
of 4h. The time at which the stones cross is
then the value of v in m/s is_____.

2h h 25. A helicopter takes-off with zero initial velocity

(1) (2)
g 6g
along the vertical with an acceleration of 3 m/s2.
Displacement of helicopter in first 2 seconds
8h h
(3) (4)
g 8g is_____ m.

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I 30. A polymeric organic compound has formula
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
(C6H3)(C8H8)nBr3. If it contains 7.68% bromine,
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
then the value of n will be [approximate]
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
(Atomic mass of Br = 80 u)
is correct.
(1) 19 (2) 27
26. An oleum sample labelled as 104.5%. In 10 g of (3) 8 (4) 13
this sample 90 mg water is added then resulting
31. Find incorrect relation.
solution contains
n1, z1 ⇒ Orbit Number and atomic number of an
(1) 10.09 g H2SO4 and 20% free SO3
atom (1)
(2) 8.49 g H2SO4 and 15.86% free SO3
(3) 7.60 g H2SO4 and 18.4% free SO3 n2, z2 ⇒ Orbit number and atomic number atom
of another atom (2)
(4) 9.80 g H2SO4 and 20% free SO3
27. 1.13 g of an ammonium salt was boiled with P ⇒ Linear momentum of revolving electron.

100 mL of 1N NaOH solution till the evolution of L ⇒ Angular momentum of revolving electron.
ammonia gas stopped. 60 mL of 1N H2SO4 f ⇒ Frequency of revolution of revolving
were required to neutralize the excess of NaOH
electron.
present in remaining solution. The percentage
K.E ⇒ Kinetic Energy of revolving electron.
NH3 in salt will be (approximate)
L1 n1 P1 z1 n2
(1) 40% (2) 60% (1) = (2) =
L 2 n2 P2 z 2 n1
(3) 30% (4) 27%
2 3 2
28. If the atomic masses of X and Y are 10 and 30 f1  z 2   n1  K.E1  z1 n2 
(3) = (4) =
u respectively, then the mass of XY3 formed f2  z1   n2  K.E2  z 2 n1 

when 120 g of Y2 reacts completely with X is 32. In Photoelectric effect, the photo current:
Reaction X + Y2 → XY3 (unbalanced) (1) Increases with increase of frequency of
incident photon
(1) 133.3 g (2) 200 g
(2) Decreases with increase of frequency of
(3) 266.6 g (4) 167.7 g
incident photon
29. There are two sample of HCI having molarity (3) Does not depends on the frequency of
1 M and 0.25 M. Which of the following photon but depends only on the intensity of
combination of volume of these sample taken incident light.
respectively will not prepare 0.75 M HCl (4) Depends both on intensity and frequency of
solution? the incident photon
(1) 20 mL, 10 mL 33. The molality of 1 litre solution of 93% (W/V%)
(2) 100 mL, 50 mL H2SO4 will be [dsolution = 1.84 g/mL]

(3) 40 mL, 20 mL (1) 8.7 (2) 3.67

(4) 30 mL, 10 mL (3) 10.42 (4) 4.82

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

34. Which of the following has incorrect matching of 38. If the wave number of 1st line of Balmer series of
curve and orbital qualitatively ? H-atom is ‘x’ then the wave number of 1st line of

(P) Lyman series of the He+ ion will be

(Q)
4π r2Ψ 2 5x
4π r2Ψ 2 (1)
108

5
(2)
r r 32 x
(R)
20
(3)
4πr Ψ
2 2
27 x

108 x
(4)
5
r
39. If proton, electron and α-particle are moving with
(1) P(2p) Q(1s) R(4p)
same kinetic energy then the order of their
(2) P(3p) Q(3d) R(3s)
de-Broglie’s wavelength is
(3) P(4d) Q(2p) R(5d)
(1) λp > λ e > λ α
(4) P(5f) Q(2p) R(5d)
(2) λα > λp > λe
35. The radii of maximum probability for 3s, 3p and
(3) λα < λp < λe
3d electrons are in the order:
(4) λe = λp < λα
(1) (rmax)3d > (rmax)3p > (rmax)3s
40. The Schrodinger wave equation for 2s orbital in
(2) (rmax)3d > (rmax)3s > (rmax)3p
hydrogen atom is
(3) (rmax)3s > (rmax)3p > (rmax)3d
3/ 2
1  1  r  − r/a0
(4) All have same value =Ψ 2s  a   2 − a  e
4 2π 0 0
36. Which of the following is the incorrect match for
atom of element? where, a0 is Bohr’s radius. If the radial node in
2s be at r0, then r0 would be equal to
(1) [Ar]3d5 4s1 ⇒ 4th period, 6th group
a0
(1) (2) 2a0
(2) [Kr]4d10 ⇒ 5th period, 12th group 2

(3) [Rn]6d2 7s2 ⇒ 7th period, 3rd group a0

(3) 2a0 (4)
2
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 ⇒ 6th period, 4th group
41. Select the incorrect statement:
37. Which of the following represent the correct
(1) Cathode rays has charge only and no mass
order of electron affinities?
(2) Anode rays are deflected by electrical and
(1) F > Cl > Br > I
magnetic field
(2) C < N < Cl < F
(3) Canal rays is a beam of positively charged
(3) N<C<O<F particles

(4) C > N > P > Si (4) Anode rays particles carry positive charge

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

42. Incorrect order of ionic size is SECTION - II

(1) B < Al < Ga < Tl Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

(2) V2+ > V3+ > V4+ > V5+ contains 5 questions. The answer to each question

(3) Tl+ > In+ > Sn+2 > Sb+3 is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter

the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,

(4) K+ > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn7+
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
43. Which of the following order is incorrect?
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
(1) Charge density : Al+3 > Mg2+ > Na+
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
– –
(2) Ionic size : F > Cl > S–2
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
(3) Electronegativity : F > O > N
46. Consider the following sequence of reactions:
(4) Atomic radius : C < Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H2O
44. Correctly match the following:
Column-I Column-II 3NaClO → 2NaCl + NaClO3

∆H1 ∆H2 ∆Heg (kJ/mol) 4NaClO3 → 3NaClO4 + NaCl

I. 2372 5251 +48 (p) Element which act
How many moles of Cl2 are required to prepare
as a strong
tendency to lose e– 122.5 g NaClO4 by above sequential reactions?

II. 419 3051 –48 (q) Element which [MW of NaClO4 = 122.5]
exists as a mono-
47. On heating 4.9 g KClO3, its mass is reduced by
atomic molecule
0.384 g. Calculate the percentage of original
III. 1681 3374 –333 (r) Less reactive
non-metal among KClO3 sample, that has been decomposed.

these 48. A student performs a titration with different

IV. 1008 1846 –295 (s) More reactive non burettes and finds titre values of 25.2 mL,
metal among these 25.25 mL and 25.0 mL. If the number of
(1) I-p, II-r, III-s, IV-q (2) I-q, II-p, III-s, IV-r significant figures in the average titre value is x

(3) I-r, II-q, III-p, IV-s (4) I-q, II-s, III-p, IV-r x
then the value of is?
2
45. Which of the given statement is correct?

(1) f-orbitals are more penetrated towards the 49. Maximum number of electrons having l + m

nucleus than s-orbitals value equal to zero in 26Fe will be

(2) In general, increasing nuclear charge 50. A photon of energy 4.5 eV strikes on a metal
outweighs shielding across a period
surface of work function 3.0 eV. Find the value
(3) In general, increasing nuclear charge
of de-Broglie wavelength (in Å) of the ejected
outweighs shielding down the group
 h 
(4) In general, increasing nuclear charge is out photoelectron use = 150 Å
 2me 
weighted by shielding across a period

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PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
56. If
 1
3f ( x ) − f= ( )
4
 x  log10 x , x > 0 ,
 
then

20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
( )
f 10 −x is equal to

ONE is correct. 1
(1) (2) –x
x
51. Let N be the set of Natural numbers and
(3) x (4) (1 – x)
=
A { (a, b ) : a 2 + 3b=
2
28, a, b ∈ N }
2 3
57. The range of f (n )= 2 {n} − {n} − , (where
B= {(a, b) : a > b, a, b ∈ N} then n(AkB) is 4

equal to {·} is fractional part function) is

(1) 6 (2) 8  −1 1   1
(1)  ,  (2) 0, 
 4 4  2
(3) 2 (4) 1

52. If A = {1, 2}, P ( A ) denotes power set of A,

 1  1 1
(3) 0,  (4)  , 
 2 4 2
then the number of elements in
58. Number of solution(s) of the equation
( (
P P P (P ( A)) ) ) is
e x − ln x =
0 is
(1) 2256 (2) 21024
(1) 0 (2) 2
512 216
(3) 2 (4) 2
(3) 1 (4) 3

53. If −2 <  x 2 − 5  ≤ 3 then the range of x is, 59. f (n ) = {n} + {n + 1} + {n + 2} + ......{n + 99},
 

where [.] represents greatest integer function. then f ( 2) (where {·} denotes fractional
 
(1) [2, 2 2] (2) [–2, 3] part function and [·] denotes greatest integer

(3) [4, 8] (4) (–3, –2] ∪ [2,3) function) is equal to

54. The maximum integral value of x for which (1) 5050 (2) 4950

= (
f ( x ) log10 log1/3 ( log4 ( x − 5 ) ) is defined is) (3) 14 (4) 41

x 2 – 7 x + 10
(1) 8 (2) 7 60. The domain of function f(x) =
x 2 – 5x + 6
(3) 9 (4) 5
is
55. If log12 27 = a then log6 64 equal to
(1) (–∞, 3] ∪ [5, ∞)

3 +a 3−a (2) (–∞, 3) ∪ (5, ∞)

(1) 6   (2) 4  
3−a 3 +a
(3) (–∞, 3) ∪ [5, ∞) – {2}
3−a 3 +a
(3) 6   (4) 4   (4) (–∞, 3] ∪ (5, ∞) – {2}
3 +a 3−a

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61. Let {x} and [x] denote the fractional part and 99
3n  r 
66. If f (n ) = n then ∑ f   is
integral part of a real number x respectively. 3 + 3 r =1  100 
Then number of values of x which satisfy 4{x}
(1) 99 (2) 100
= x + [x]
(3) 49.5 (4) 50
(1) 0 (2) 1
67. If domain of f(x) is [1, 3], then the domain of
(3) 2 (4) 3
f(log2(x2 + 3x – 2)) is
62. The range of
(1) [–3, 2]
f(x) = e2x + 2ex + 3 is
3 
(2) [–13, –2] ∪  , 5 
(1) (2, ∞ ) (2) [2, ∞ ) 5 

(3) (3, ∞ ) (4) [3, ∞ ) (3) [–5, –4] ∪ [1, 2]

63. The graph of curve | y | = x is (4) [ 4, 10]

68. The solution set of the equation [n]2 + [n + 1] –
3 = 0 (where [·] denotes greatest integer
(1) (2)
function) is

(1) [–1, 0] ∪ [1, 2] (2) [–2, –1) ∪ [1, 2)

(3) [1, 2] (4) (–3, –2) ∪ [2, 3)

(3) (4) 69. The number of real solution(s) of the equation

log3 ( loge x ) 2
9 loge x − ( loge x ) + 1 is
=

(1) Zero (2) 1

64. Complete solution set of the inequation {n}
(3) 2 (4) 3
({n} – 1) ({n} + 2) ≥ 0 (where {·} denotes
fractional part function) is 70. If x, y satisfy the equation y x = x y and

(1) n d N(Natural Numbers) x = 2y then x2 + y2 is

(2) n d I (set of integers) (1) 37 (2) 25

 1 (3) 2 (4) 20
(3) n d 0,  ∪ I
 2 SECTION - II

(4) n d (– 2, 0) ∪ N Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

1 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question

65. Let f (n ) =| n − 1 | + | n − 2 |; g (n ) = n 2 + ,
n2 is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
n ≠ 0. if m1 = min ( f ( n ) ) and m2 = min ( g ( n ) )
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
then (m1 – m2) is
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
(1) –1 (2) 1 using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric

(3) 5 (4) 2 keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

71. If domain of the function and {.} denotes the greatest integer function
 1 + ln { x}  and fractional part function respectively) is
f(x) = log is (n, n + a) ∪
( e 2 { x} )  – {x}  1
73. If φ(x) = and S = φ(5) + φ(4) + φ(3) +
1 + e– x
(n + a, n + b), ∀n ∈ Z where a and b are
φ(2) + φ(1) + φ(0) + φ(–1) + φ(–2) + φ(–3) +
 1  1
constants, then   –  b  is equal to (where
a    φ(–4) + φ(–5), then the value of S is

[.] and {.} denotes the greatest integer 74. Number of integral values of x that satisfies

( )
x
function and fractional part function xx x
= x x is
respectively)
75. Number of integral values of n that satisfies
72. Number of integers in the domain of function
3
f(x) = log x 2  ( 4 – x ) + log2
 
{ x} (where [.] n −1
> 1 is

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