Last Leap 1

https://neetforsure.blogspot.
com/
https://neetforsure.blogspot.com/
!"#$%#$&
S. NO. PARTICULARS PAGE NO.
1. Preface ................................................................................................. (i) – (i)
2. Physics ............................................................................................... 01 – 354
3. Zoology ............................................................................................ 355 – 486
4. Answers........................................................................................... 487 – 510
Preface
Dear NEET Aspirants,
I am pleased to release this package “Last Leap” for NEET 2020. This package
contains selected and important questions which have been prepared and
compiled by our expert faculties who have been teaching AIPMT/NEET since
decades. This package is available in 2 parts viz. Part (I) and Part (II).
When a student will try to solve these questions, he/she can have a real feel
of the examination. These questions will open the different layers of the brain
and will stimulate the deepest nervous tissue to think and recall as well as
analyze the trick in the questions. I am very confident that if a student
sincerely solves these questions independently, there is no reason why he/she
cannot be among the top rankers in the country in the NEET. The “Last Leap”
is going to be the winning Leap for every student who puts his heart and mind
on the questions given in this package.
Wishing you a brighter career.
J.C. CHAUDHRY
Chairman
Aakash Educational Services Limited
(i)
PHYSICS
CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. Units and Measurement ............................................................. 01 – 14

2. Motion in a Straight Line .............................................................. 15 – 40
3. Motion in a Plane ........................................................................ 41 – 62
4. Laws of Motion ............................................................................ 63 – 96
5. Work, Energy and Power ......................................................... 97 – 124
6. Gravitation ............................................................................... 125 – 140
7. Mechanical Properties of Solids ............................................. 141 – 148
8. Mechanical Properties of Fluids ............................................. 149 – 164
9. Oscillations ............................................................................. 165 – 184
10. Waves ..................................................................................... 185 – 202
11. Thermal Properties of Matter .................................................. 203 – 220
12. Thermodynamics ................................................................... 221 – 238
13. Kinetic Theory of Gases ......................................................... 239 – 246
14. Electric Charges and Field ..................................................... 247 – 258
15. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance ................................ 259 – 274
16. Moving Charges and Magnetism ............................................ 275 – 290
17. Magnetism and Matter ............................................................ 291 – 298
18. Electromagnetic Induction ...................................................... 299 – 310
19. Alternating Current ................................................................... 311 – 320
20. Electromagnetic Waves ......................................................... 321 – 324
21. Wave Optics ........................................................................... 325 – 332
22. Atoms ..................................................................................... 333 – 340
23. Nuclei ...................................................................................... 341 – 350
24. Communication System ......................................................... 351 – 354
Answers …….487
ZOOLOGY
1. Structural Organization in Animals ................................................... 355 – 378
2. Digestion and Absorption ................................................................. 379 – 392
3. Breathing and Exchange of Gases .................................................. 393 – 404
4. Excretory Products and their Elimination ........................................ 405 – 420
5. Locomotion and Movement .............................................................. 421 – 434
6. Neural Control and Coordination ...................................................... 435 – 452
7. Chemical Coordination and Integration ............................................ 453 – 466
8. Reproductive Health ......................................................................... 467 – 474
9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

-Animal Husbandry ........................................................................... 475 – 480
10. Biotechnology and Its Applications ................................................... 481 – 486
Answers …….504
Chapter 1
Units and Measurement
5. In an experiment, following fractional errors were

SECTION - A obtained on observation, in mass (M) 0.8% ,in
Objective Type Questions length (L) 0.4% and diameter (D) 0.5%. Using the
1. The number of significant figure in the difference of !"#!
formula $ , the maximum permissible error
15.45 and 14.7 is/are %!
(1) 1 in Y is
(2) 2 (1) 0.6% (2) 2.6%
(3) 3 (3) 1.6% (4) 3.4%
(4) 4 6. The power generated in a circuit is given by P =
2. Dimensions of which of the following pairs are not i2R, where i is current and R is resistance. The
same? percentage error in measuring i and R are 0.3 and
0.5 respectively. The maximum error in measuring
(1) Torque and work
power is
(2) Young’s modulus and pressure
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.5%
(3) Impulse and momentum
(4) Angular momentum and energy (3) 0.8% (4) 1.1%
7. Assume that energy E, angular momentum J,
! "
3. A physical quantity x is represented by # mass M and universal gravitational constant G are
$ the fundamental quantities in a system, then the
where F, , v and S are force, density, velocity and
surface tension respectively. Then the dimensions !" !
dimension of is similar to
of x is same as # "$ !
(1) Angular momentum
(1) Energy
(2) Coefficient of viscosity
(2) Momentum
(3) Modulus of elasticity
(4) Boltzmann’s constant (3) Power
(4) Angle
!
! !""
4. A quantity P is calculated by # , which !" "
# 8. If ! # ! !"# !" is dimensionally correct,
!
$" % ## "# #
quantity should be measured with best care to then value of n is

minimize error in P?
(1) 1
(1) x
(2) Zero
(2) y
(3) c (3) – 1
(4) d (4) 2
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
2 Units and Measurement Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. Number of significant digit in 2000 kg is 17. Dimensionally wavelength is equal to

(1) 1 ! !
(1) "# (2) "#
(2) 3 $ $
(3) 4 ! ! !
(3) " (4) "#
(4) 2 #$ $
10. Two physical quantities having same dimension 18. Which of the following physical quantity is unitless
then their magnitude as well as dimensionless?
(1) Cannot be multiplied (1) Angle (2) Length
(2) Can be added (3) Velocity gradient (4) Strain
(3) Cannot be added 19. The value of 1 Pa in CGS unit (dyne/cm2) is
(4) Cannot be added or subtracted (1) 105 (2) 102

(3) 10 (4) 10–2
!
11. Dimension of is 20. Which of the following is a derived unit?
! !
(1) kilogram (2) ampere
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L1T1] (3) candela (4) newton
(3) [M0L1T–1] (4) [M0L2T–1] 21. Which of the following is largest length?
12. The Vernier scale of a micrometer has 30 divisions, (1) 103 angstrom (2) 106 fermi
and its main scale is divided upto 0.5 degrees. The
(3) 0.5 parsec (4) 10 light year
L.C. of the instrument is
22. Which of the following pair have the same
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5
dimensions?
(3) 1 (4) 10
(1) Angle and strain
13. The vernier scale of a vernier callipers has 20 (2) Energy density and Young’s modulus
divisions, and total length of the vernier scale is
equal to 18 divisions of the main scale. If one (3) Energy density and pressure
division of the main scale is 1 mm, the least count (4) All of these
of the instrument is
23. The error associated with resolution of an
(1) 0.05 mm (2) 0.10 mm instrument is known as
(3) 0.20 mm (4) 0.40 mm (1) Relative error (2) Personal error
14. When units of mass, length and time are taken as (3) Zero error (4) Least count error
10 kg, 60 m and 60 s, the new unit of energy
24. Surface area of a cube is 7.34 cm2. The surface
becomes x times the initial SI unit of energy. The
area of 8 such cubes will be [Taking significant
value of x is
figure in account]
(1) 10 (2) 20
(1) 58.7 cm2 (2) 58.72 cm2
(3) 60 (4) 120
(3) 58.8 cm2 (4) 58.720 cm2
15. The unit of magnetic dipole moment is 25. On subtracting 1.5 × 10–8 from 4.8 × 10–7, the
(1) ampere metre (2) ampere metre2 result so obtained taking significant figure in
account is
(3) ampere/metre (4) ampere/metre2
(1) 4.6 × 10–7 (2) 4.65 × 10–7
16. The measured values of mass and radius of a
sphere are given as (10.0 ± 0.1) kg and (10.0 ± (3) 46.5 × 10–7 (4) 4.70 × 10–7
0.1) cm. The percentage error in the density is 26. The number of significant figures in 12500.40 is
(1) 1% (2) 2% (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3% (4) 4% (3) 6 (4) 7
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Units and Measurement 3
27. The percentage error in the measurement of time 34. Mass of a block is 0.013 kg and its volume is
period of a pendulum, if maximum errors in the 0.03 m3. The density of the material of block is
measurement of ! and g are 3% and 7% (answer should be according to significant digit)
respectively
(1) 0.00043 kg/m3 (2) 0.004 kg/m3
(1) 2% (2) 3%
(3) 4.33 × 10–1 kg/m3 (4) 4 × 10–1 kg/m3
(3) 5% (4) 7%
35. Which of the following is different from the others?
28. Dimensional formula of Stefan’s constant is
(1) Parallactic second (2) Light year
(1) [ML0 T–3K–4]
(3) Kilosecond (4) Micron
(2) [M1L1T1K–4]
36. Moon was observed at the same time from two
(3) [M0L1T0K–4] observatories, situated at two diametrically opposite
points on the earth’s surface. The parallax angle
(4) [ML1T–2K–4]
subtended by the moon was measured to be
3.2 × 10 –2 rad. If the radius of the earth is
$
29. What are the units of $ ? 6400 km then the distance of the moon from the
% ! earth is
(1) C2N–1m–2 (1) 4 × 105 m (2) 4 × 108 m
(2) Nm2C–2 (3) 2 × 105 m (4) 2 × 108 m
(3) Nm2C2 37. Which of the following has its unit different from the
other three? (R = Resistance, C = Capacitance,
(4) Unitless L = Inductance)
30. The radius of a uniform plate is 1.5 cm. Its area on
taking significant figure in account is given by "
(1) RC (2)
!
(1) 7.065 cm2 (2) 7.06 cm2
(3) 7.0 cm2 (4) 7.1 cm2 "
(3) !" (4)
!
31. If a wire is stretched to decrease its radius by 2%,
then the percentage change in its resistance will be 38. The S.I. unit of solar constant is
(1) 1% (2) 2% (1) Wm–2K–4 (2) Js–1m–2
(3) 4% (4) 8% (3) Wm–2K–1 (4) Js–1
32. If error in measuring the distance of a planet from 39. The dimensional formula of universal gravitational
sun is 0.4% and in measuring the mass of sun is constant is
0.6%, then error in measuring the time period of (1) [M–1L3T2 ]
planet around the sun is
(2) [ML–3T–2]
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.6% (3) [M–1L3T–2]
(3) 1% (4) 0.9% (4) [M–1L–2T–3]
33. Which of the following relation is dimensionally 40. The magnitude of measurement of a physical
incorrect? quantity is expressed in terms of numerical value
( -frequency, v-velocity, -wavelength, E-elastic n and unit u. Which of the following graphs best
constant, -density, R-radius of earth, T-tension, represents the variation of n with u?
-mass per unit length, !-length, g-acceleration due " "
to gravity)
(1) (2)
% ! !
(1) (2) ! !
"!
" "
! ! ! !! !" !
#! (3) (4)
! $& "
(3) (4)
"! " %
! !
49. Accuracy of a measurement tells

& % #
41. In the equation
$& ! "$ #! !" ,
% $! " (1) The closeness of a measured value to the true
value
P = Pressure, V = Volume, T = absolute
(2) Upto what resolution or limit the given quantity
"
temperature. The dimensional formula of is is measured
!
(3) The number of readings taken for the
(1) [ML5T–3] (2) [ML2T–2] measurement
(3) [M–1L3T–4] (4) [ML–2T2] (4) All of these
42. If velocity V = A + Bt + Ct2 (where t is time) then
dimensional formula of C is $" #
50. A physical quantity Z is given by % "
. The
" !! !
(1) [M0LT–1] (2) [M0LT–2]
quantity which brings in the maximum percentage
(3) [M0LT–3] (4) [M0L–1T–2] error in Z is (assume percentage errors in the
measurements of A, B, C and D are equal)
43. Which of the following relations is dimensionally
wrong? [The symbols have their usual meanings] (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
" ! &#& #
(1) $ #" !" (2) % # '# 51. If P = 2.348 cm and Q = 2.1 cm then P – Q
!
equals
(3) v = u – 2at (4) All of these (1) 0.248 cm (2) 0.25 cm
44. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken as (3) 0.2 cm (4) 0.3 cm
fundamental quantities then the dimensional 52. If the measured mass and volume of a body are
formula of mass will be 5.00 ± 0.05 kg and 10.0 ± 0.1 m3 respectively then
(1) [FL–1T2] (2) [FLT–2] the percentage error in the measurement of its
density will be
(3) [F–1L–1T2] (4) [FL–2T–1]
(1) 2% (2) 4%
45. Two quantities P and Q have different dimensions.
(3) 1% (4) Zero
Which of the following mathematical operations
given below is physically meaningful? 53. Dimensional formula of torque is
(1) P + Q (2) P – Q (1) M1L2T–1 (2) M1L2T–2
(3) P × Q (4) All of these (3) M1L1T–1 (4) M1L1T–2
46. Position x of a body moving with acceleration a is 54. If the units of mass, length and time each is
related to time t as x = Ka mt n , where K is doubled then the unit of acceleration will be
dimensionless. The values of m and n are (1) Doubled (2) Halved
respectively
(3) Tripled (4) Quadrupled
(1) m = 1, n = 2 (2) m = 2, n = 1 55. The length l of a cube is measured to be l = 4.0
(3) m = –1, n = 2 (4) m = –2, n = 1 ± 0.1 m. The volume of the cube will be
(1) 64 ± 4.8 m3
47. In which of the following, the number of significant
figures is different from that in the others? (2) 64 ± 0.3 m3
(1) 2.003 kg (2) 12.23 m (3) 64 ± 2.4 m3
(3) 0.002 × 105 m (4) 2.001 × 10–3 kg (4) 64 ± 1.6 m3

56. The dimensional formula of viscosity is
48. The true value of the measurement of a physical
quantity is 13.5 m 2 . Which of the following (1) ML–1T –1
measured values of this quantity is most precise? (2) ML–2 T –2
(1) 13.4 m2 (2) 13.230 m2 (3) M2 L–1T –3
(3) 13.30 m2 (4) 13.8 m2 (4) L2 T –1
57. The velocity v of a particle depends on time t as (1) Dimensionally correct
# (2) Dimensionally incorrect
per the equation % $! ! The physical
" !
(3) Dimensionally correct in some conditions and
quantities represented by A, B and C are in the incorrect in some other conditions
following order
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Distance, velocity, time
63. A satellite in a circular orbit near the surface of
(2) Acceleration, distance, time earth has period of revolution T. If is the density
(3) Distance, time, velocity of earth’s material then the entity T 2 is
dimensionally equal to
(4) Acceleration, velocity, time
(1) [ML–3 T2]
58. The diameter of a coin is measured by a vernier
callipers. The five observations that were taken are (2) [ML–3 T–2]
given as 2.53 cm, 2.50 cm, 2.51 cm, 2.47 cm and
(3) [M2L–1 T2]
2.49 cm. The percentage error in the measurement is
(4) [MLT–3]
(1) 0.6% (2) 0.8%
64. P varies with position x as P = sinx, what is mean
(3) 1.0% (4) 4.12%
error in P if mean error in the x is x?
& "#
59. The dimensions of the group $$ !! , (where is (1) $ )! " (2) $ )! "
%! "
linear mass density, p is presure, T is tension and (3) ! ! " (4) (1 + P2) x
is mass per unit volume) are same as that of
65. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity is same
(1) Angle (2) Force to that of
(3) (Velocity)2 (4) Planck’s constant (1) Force per unit area
(2) Kinetic energy per unit area
60. The dimensions of the pole strength of a
magnet are (3) Volume per unit time
(1) [M0L0TA] (2) [M0LT0A] (4) Impulse per unit area

66. The force (F) and density (d) are related as
(3) [ML2T–2A] (4) [MLT–2A2]
!
61. The radius of curvature of the curved face of a " ! The dimensions of a and b are
# $!
!# respectively
plano-convex lens is calculated as R = ,
'( (1) [M3L–5T–2] and [M4L–12]
where d (diameter of the aperture) is measured as
(5.0 ± 0.1) cm and t (thickness of the lens in (2) [M–1L5T–2] and [M2T–3]
middle) is measured as (0.40 ± 0.02) cm. The (3) [M2L5T–2] and [M3T–4]
maximum error in R is
(4) [ML4T–2] and [ML2]
(1) 4% (2) 5% 67. If the power (P), length (L) and time (T) are taken
(3) 7% (4) 9% as fundamental quantities, then the dimensions of
mass are
62. A particle of mass (m) is located in a space where (1) [PLT2] (2) [P–1L–2T3]
potential energy varies with position (x) as
(3) [PL–2T3] (4) [P–1L–1T]
! , where and are positive constants. 68. The principal thrust(s) in the study of physics is
"! "
A particle is performing oscillation in this region and (1) Reductionism
! (2) Unification
time period is recorded as " ! !
. This
(3) Both unification and reductionism
formula is (4) Neither unification nor reductionism
69. Exchange particle between Quark-Quark interaction 75. Which of the following error can be removed
is completely?
(1) Photon (1) Zero error (2) Random error
(2) Vector Boson (3) Least count error (4) Gross error
(3) Gluon 76. The angular diameter of Sun as measured from the
earth is 0.001 radian. Then the diameter of the Sun
(4) Graviton in meters is
70. If and have dimension of time, then the given (1) 1.5 × 108 m
relation
(2) 1.5 × 1010 m
! ! " ! (3) 1.5 × 105 m

"#$ ! # $ ! is
% & " " (4) 1.5 × 1012 m
77. The unit ‘barn’ relates to
(1) Dimensionally and physically both correct
(1) Astronomical lengths
(2) Dimensionally correct but physically incorrect (2) Nuclear cross-sectional area
(3) Dimensionally as well as physically incorrect (3) Small volume
(4) Dimensionally incorrect but physically correct (4) Large mass
71. Choose the correct statement 78. The pressure P depends on time t according to
! "
(1) Round off of 18.65 to 3 significant figure is 18.6 # $% . Then dimensional formula of d is
%
(2) Round off of 18.55 to 3 significant figure is 18.6
(1) [ML–1T–1] (2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) Round off of 18.75 to 3 significant figure is 18.7 (3) [ML2T–1] (4) [ML–1T2]
(4) Both (1) & (2) 79. The external and internal diameters of a hollow
72. The position (x) of a particle varies with time as cylinder are (4.23 0.01) cm and (3.89 0.01) cm
then thickness of cylindrical wall (in cm) is
!! !
"" ! # !" # # where V is a positive constant (1) (0.34 0.02) (2) (0.17 0.02)
0
and > 0. Dimensions of V 0 and are (3) (0.17 0.01) (4) (0.34 0.01)
respectively
80. Which of the following particles pair do not
(1) [M0LT–1] and [T–1] (2) [M0LT–1] and [T] experience strong force?
(3) [M0LT0] and [T–1] (4) [M–1L–1T] and [T–2] (1) Neutron-Neutron (2) Neutron-Proton
73. The time taken by a metrorail from a station A to (3) Proton-Proton (4) Electron-Electron
station B is 205 second. If time is measured by a 81. Which of the following quantities is not
stopwatch of resolution one second, then dimensionless?
significant figure in 205 second is
(1) Refractive index of water
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Solid angle subtended by a sphere at its
(3) 3 (4) 4 centre
74. Which of the following is not unit of time? (3) Slope of position time graph
I. Parallactic second (4) Relative density of mercury
II. Shake 82. Unification of electricity and magnetism into a
single subject “electromagnetism” was done by
III. Barn
(1) Faraday (2) Maxwell
(1) I & II
(3) Oersted (4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) I & III 83. Number of significant figures in 0.0006032 m2 is
(3) II & III (1) 3 (2) 6
(4) All of these (3) 4 (4) 7
84. N divisions on main scale of a vernier callipers 89. If velocity (V), force (F) and energy (E) are taken
coincide with (N + 1) divisions on the vernier scale. as fundamental units, then dimensional formula for
If each division on the main scale is of a units, mass will be
then least count of instrument is
(1) [V 0 FE 2 ] (2) [VF –2E 0 ]
! !
(1) (2) (3) [V –2F 0E ] (4) [VF –2E ]
" " !
90. Displacement of a particle is given as
! ! !
(3) (4)
" " *
" ($ + "# ) . Here, A is constant and B > 0.
85. When fundamental unit of mass, length and time ,
are taken as 10 kg, 60 m and x s, then new unit The dimensions of A and B are, respectively
of energy becomes 10 times the S.I. unit of
(1) [M0 L T0] and [T] (2) [M0 L T–1] and [LT–2]
energy. The value of x is
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) [M0 L T–2] and [T] (4) [M0 L T–1] and [T–1]
(3) 60 (4) 100 91. The dimensional formula of coefficient of thermal

conductivity is
86. Which of the following pairs does not have same
dimensional formula? (1) [M1 L1 T–3 K–1] (2) [M3 L–1 T–1 K]
(1) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant (3) [M1 L–3 T–1 K–1] (4) [M1 L–1 T–3 K]
(2) Work and energy 92. In the following four different measurement of
masses 10.52 kg, 1.54 g, 10.23 g and 25.1 g,
(3) Angular impulse and Planck’s constant which is most accurate?
(4) Modulus of rigidity and impulse (1) 10.52 kg (2) 1.54 g
87. Maximum percentage error in the measurement of
(3) 10.23 g (4) 25.1 g
25.00 m is
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.03% 93. A student measures the value of g with the help
of a simple pendulum using the formula
(3) 0.04% (4) 0.02%
!
88. If n is the numerical value and u is the unit of ! !
" . L and T are measured to be 2.0 m and
!
measurement of a physical quantity, then which of #
the following is correct? 2.0 second.
" The errors in the measurement of L and T are L
and T respectively. In which of the following
cases is the error in the value of g, the minimum?
(1) (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) L = 0.5 cm, T = 0.5 s
!
(2) L = 0.1 cm, T = 0.1 s
"!
(3) L = 0.2 cm, T = 0.2 s
(4) L = 0.1 cm, T = 1.0 s
(2)
94. Dimensions of solar constant are
!
(1) [ M0 L1 T –3 ] (2) [ M1 L0 T–3 ]
!
(3) [ M0 L0 T 0 ] (4) [ M0 L0 T –2 ]
95. If 0 is the permittivity of free space and E is
the electric field, then dimension of 0E 2 is same
(3) as that of
!
" (1) Pressure (2) Force
(4) All of these (3) Energy (4) Intensity
96. In a new system of units mass is measured in

multiple of 100 kg, length in multiple of 1 km and !! ""#$
103. A physical quantity Q is given by # .
time in mulpitple of 100 s. What is value of 1 $ $ %%
joule in the new system of units? Which one of the following quantity contribute
maximum percentage error in Q?
(1) 10–1 (2) 10–2
(1) A (2) B
(3) 10–3 (4) 10–4
(3) C (4) D
97. If velocity v, force F and acceleration a are taken
as fundamental unit, then unit of angular 104. Dimensional formula of entropy is same that of
momentum is given by
(1) Thermal capacity
(1) F–1 v2 a3 (2) F2 v3 a–1 (2) Specific heat
(3) F v3 a–2 (4) F–2 v–3 a–2 (3) Gas constant
98. If A and B have same dimensions, then which of (4) Gravitational constant
the following operations must be correct?
105. If 50th division of vernier scale coincide with 48th
(1) A + B division of main scale and value of one main scale
(2) A – B division is 1 mm then the least count of vernier
calliperse is
* (1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.02 mm
(3)
,
(3) 0.03 mm (4) 0.04 mm
(4) Both (1) & (2)
106. If , and are physical quantities, having different
99. Time period of a liquid drop is given by dimensions which of the following combination(s)
may be a meaningful quantity?
! "# ! $ " # , where d is density of liquid, r is
radius of liquid drop and is surface tension of !
liquid, then the value of x, y and z are (k is (1)
dimensionless constant)
" " # ! " ! (2) –

(1) $ $ (2) # #
# % % $ $ $
(3)
* $ $ * $
(3) + + (4) + $+ (4) Both (1) & (2)
& & & & &
100. The mass of a box is 2.3 kg. Two wooden ball of 107. In an operation R = A × B–2, if maximum error in
masses 120 g and 150 g are added in the box. A is a and that in B is b. The maximum error in
The total mass of the box upto correct significant R will be (where R is maximum error in R)
figures is
!! "" !! #% "
(1) # ! $# (2) & &
(1) 2.3 kg (2) 2.5 kg %# $ %& %# ' ( &$
(3) 2.6 kg (4) 2.57 kg
!! "" !! ""
(3) # #% $ # (4) # #
101. What is value of (9.99 + 0.0099) cm, taking % $& #% $ % $&
significant figure into account?
108. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) 10 cm (2) 10.0 cm
(a) Strong nuclear force – Gluon
(3) 10.00 cm (4) 10.0000 cm
(b) Electrostatic force – Meson
102. A body weights (5.00 ± 0.05) N in air and (4.00 ±
0.05) N in water. What is relative density of body (c) Gravitational force – Graviton
with maximum percentage error? (d) Weak nuclear force – Boson
(1) (5.0 ± 6%) (2) (5.0 ± 8%) (1) b & c (2) a & b
(3) (5.0 ± 12%) (4) (5.0 ± 11%) (3) c & d (4) a & d
109. If B represents magnetic field and 0 represents 115. A student performs an experiment and takes 100
observations. He repeats the same experiment and
!! now takes 500 observations by doing so
permeability of free space, then has the
! "
(1) The probable error becomes half
dimension of
(2) The probable error becomes two times
(1) [M1L–1T–2] (2) [M1L2T–2]
!
(3) [M1L0T–3] (4) [M1L0T–2] (3) The probable error is reduced by a factor of
"
110. In which of the following net force between
nucleons except gravitational force is correctly (4) The probable error increases by a factor of 5
represented?
!
(1) (P = P) = (P = N) = (N = N) 116. The least count of a stop watch is s. The time
"
(2) (P = P) > (P = N) = (N = N) of 200 oscillations is found to be 50 s. The
maximum error in measurement is
(3) (P = P) < (P = N) = (N = N)
(1) 0.2% (2) 0.3%
(4) (P = P) (P = N) (N = N)
(3) 0.4% (4) 0.8%
111. In which cases link between technology and
physics is correctly matched? 117. What is the dimension of energy density?
! ! "
Technology Physics (1) !" # $ % (2) !"!# " $ # %
(I) Production of ultra high magnetic field
(3) !"!# " $ !% (4) !"!#! $ " % #&
Superconductivity
(II) Optical fibres 118. The mass of a spherical body depends on density
P of material, its diameter D and surface area A
Total internal reflection
as M Px Dy Az. If percentage change in calculation
(III) Electron microscope of density, diameter and surface area are %; d%
Photoelectric effect and a% respectively then % change in mass is
(where x, y, z are positive and can be zero)
(1) I & III (2) II & III
(3) I & II (4) I, II & III (1) ! ! " "# (2) (x + yd + za)%
112. Classical physics mainly deals with macroscopic

! ! ""
phenomena which includes (4) #% # !
(3) (x – yd + za)% $ % $&
(1) Electrodynamics (2) Optics
119. Tension in a string is example of
(3) Thermodynamics (4) All of these
(1) Contact force
113. Time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is
found to be 2.62 second in as experiment and the (2) Electromagnetic force
mean error calculated is 0.11 s. Which one of (3) Gravitational force
following is correctly representing result of the
experiment? (4) Nuclear force
(1) (2.6 ± 0.11) s (2) (2.6 ± 0.1) s 120. Weak nuclear force is responsible for the decay of
(1) + and – particle (2) Antineutrino
(3) (2.60 ± 0.11) s (4) (2.62 ± 0.1) s
(3) Neutrino (4) All of these
!
114. Which of the following is dimension formula of
? 121. Quantum physics deals with
"# !
(1) Microscopic phenomenon
(L = self inductance, C = capacitance,
R = resistance) (2) Macroscopic phenomenon
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML2T–1] (3) Mesoscopic phenomenon
(3) [M–1 L2 T–2] (4) [M0 L0 T0] (4) All of these
122. Which of the following is correct? 131. Which one of the following is largest unit of
(1) Unit of volume may be barrel length?
(2) Unit of area may be barn (1) A.U. (2) light year
(3) Unit of length may be parallactic second (3) parsec (4) fermi
(4) All of these 132. In a hypothetical system of units, if force (A),

velocity (B) and length (C) are taken as
123. If y = a sin (bt – cx), where y and x represent fundamental units then mass represented in this
length; t represents time, then which of the system will be
!"! !" !"
following has same dimension as that of ? (1) (2)
# #! #!
(1) (Speed)2 (2) Momentum
!
(3) Angle (4) Acceleration (3) ABC (4)
"#
124. Two instruments A and B calculate diameter of a 133. The diameter of a wire is measured to be
wire as A = 5.00 m and B = 5.000 m then 2.050 101 cm. The number of significant figures
(1) A is more accurate in the measurement is
(2) B has more percentage error (1) Four (2) Three
(3) B has less percentage error (3) Five (4) Six
(4) A has less percentage error 134. Which of the following formulas cannot be derived
125. The most appropriate value of (1 – 0.001)10 is by using the concept of dimension? (Symbols have
their usual meaning)
(1) 1.01 (2) 0.99
(1) y = A0 sin( t – ) (2) y = A0 e(– t+ )
(3) 0.099 (4) 10.1
(3) y = A0 log( t + ) (4) All of these
126. Which is the mediating particle for weak nuclear
force? 135. Dimensional formula of compressibility is
(1) Gluon (2) Photon (1) [M0 L0 T0 ] (2) [M1 L –1 T–2 ]
(3) Boson (4) Graviton (3) [MLT–2 ] (4) [M–1 LT2 ]
127. Which of the following is the unit of time? 136. Dimensional formula of universal gravitational
constant is
(1) Light year (2) Angstrom
(1) [M1L–1T–2] (2) [M1L2T–2]
(3) Chandrashekhar limit (4) Shake
(3) [M1L3T–2] (4) [M–1L3T–2]
128. The dimensional formula for modulus of elasticity is
137. The dimensional formula of Reynold’s number is
(1) [ML–1 T–2] (2) [ML T–2]
(1) [ML–1T–1] (2) [M0L0T0]
(3) [M–1L–1 T–2] (4) [M–1L–1 T2]
(3) [ML0T–1] (4) [M–1L–1T]
129. If the maximum percentage error in the
measurement of mass and radius of a solid sphere 138. The dimensional formula for change in momentum
are 0.5% and 0.2% respectively, then the is
maximum percentage error in the measurement of
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MLT–3]
its density is
(3) [MLT–1] (4) [MLT]
(1) 0.7% (2) 0.6%
(3) 1.1% (4) 3% ! $% "
# #% & $&
130. The numbers 6.845 and 6.835 on rounding off to 3 139. Pressure P is given by ) + where, x is
-
significant figures will be
distance, K is Boltzmann’s constant, is
(1) 6.85 and 6.84 temperature, a and b are constants. The
(2) 6.84 and 6.84 dimensions of a is
(3) 6.84 and 6.83 (1) [M1 L2 T] (2) [M1 L1 T–2 ]

(4) 6.85 and 6.83 (3) [M1 L2 T0] (4) [M0 L0 T0]
140. Percentage error in measurements of mass and 148. A public park in the form of a square has an area
speed of a particle are 0.1% and 0.2% of (100 ± 0.2) m2. The side of park is
respectively. Percentage error in the measurement (1) (10 ± 0.01) m (2) (100 ± 0.1) m
of kinetic energy of the particle is
(3) (10.0 ± 0.1) m (4) (10.0 ± 0.2) m
(1) 0.1% (2) 0.2%
149. If R is the resistance of a conductor and C is the
(3) 0.5% (4) 0.3% capacity of a capacitor, then the dimensional
formula of RC is
141. Which of the following has same dimensions as
that of viscosity? (1) [M1L0T0] (2) [M0L0T1]
(1) Impulse (3) [M1L1T–1] (4) [M1L1T–2]
(2) Pressure per unit volume 150. A cube has a side of length 1.2 × 10 –2 m.
Calculate its volume
(3) Impulse per unit area
(1) 1.7 × 10–6 m3 (2) 1.73 × 10–6 m3
(4) Pressure (3) 1.70 × 10–6 m3 (4) 1.732 × 10–6 m3
142. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path 151. In a new system of unit, five times speed of light in
of radius r with speed v. If percentage error in vacuum is taken as unit of distance. If light takes
measurement of m, v and r are 0.1%, 0.3% and 8 minute 20 s to reach to earth from sun, then
0.2% respectively, then percentage error in distance between earth and sun in terms of new
measurement of centripetal force is unit is equal to
(1) 0.5% (2) 0.9% (1) 25 new units (2) 50 new units
(3) 1.0% (4) 0.7% (3) 100 new units (4) 500 new units
143. Dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is 152. A calorie is an unit of heat and equals 4.2 J.
Suppose we employ a system of units in which
(1) [M1L1T–1] (2) [M1L–1T–1] the unit of mass is kg, the unit of length is m
(3) [M1L1T2] (4) [M1L2T–2] and the unit of time is second. In this new
system, 1 calorie =
144. Force acting on a body is represented by –1 –2 –2 2 2
(1) (2) 4.2
!" 2 2 –1 –2 2
# $ , where A and B are constants. If x (3) (4) 4.2
%
and t are distance and time respectively then SI 153. There are four data given A = 5.00 m, B = 5.00 cm,
unit of B is C = 50.00 m and D = 5.00 mm. Select the most
precise and most accurate data
(1) watt (2) joule
(1) C and D respectively
(3) newton (4) J s
(2) D and C respectively
145. Dimension of momentum is
(3) A and C respectively
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML4] (4) B and D respectively
(3) [M1L3] (4) [M2L2] 154. The volume of a sphere is 1.62 m3. The volume of 22
146. The physical quantity denoted by such spheres, taking into account of significant figure,
will be
!"## $%&##'%&
is (1) 36 m3 (2) 35.6 m3
(&)#*+,
(3) 35.64 m3 (4) 35 m3
(1) Force (2) Work
155. If P represents radiation pressure, C represents
(3) Momentum (4) Angular momentum speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero
147. What is the number of significant figures in integers x, y and z such that P x Q y C z is
(3.20+4.80) × 105 ? dimensionless are
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 (4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
156. The volume V of a liquid crossing through a tube 164. A vernier callipers has its main scale of 1 cm
is related to the area of cross-section A, velocity equally divided into 10 equal parts. Its vernier scale
of 20 divisions coincides with 19 divisions of main
v and time t as: ! " # $ . Choose the correct
scale. Least count of the instrument is
alternative
(1) 5 × 10–2 cm (2) 5 × 10–3 mm
(1) (2)
(3) 5 × 10–3 cm (4) 0.1 mm
(3) (4) 165. Dimension of in terms of M, L, T and I is
0
157. The dimensional formula of rate of change of (1) M–1L2T–2I–2 (2) M LT–2I–2
angular momentum is (3) M–1L–2T–2I–2 (4) M L–2T–2I–2
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MLT–2] 166. Potential energy of a particle at position x and at
(3) [MLT–1] (4) [ML2T–1] !"
time t is given by # $" . Dimensional
158. The respective number of significant figures for the % &!
numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2 1 × 10–3 are
(
(1) 5, 1, 2 (2) 5, 1, 5 formula of is same that of
)
(3) 5, 5, 2 (4) 4, 4, 2
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Force
159. The dimensional formula for ! !

is (v = speed) (3) Tension (4) Pressure
%
167. The ratio of universal gravitational constant and
(1) [LT–1] (2) [L3T–3]
!
(3) [L–3T3] (4) [M0L0T0] acceleration is represented by
"
160. If we select unit of acceleration as 9.8 m/s2 and
(1) [M1L2T–1] (2) [M–1L2T0]
unit of velocity as 3 × 108 m/s, then what will be
unit of time? (3) [M1L–2T0] (4) [M–1L2T–1]
(1) 3.06 × 107 s 168. The equivalent capacitance for two capacitors
connected in parallel is given by Ceq = C1 + C2.
(2) 4.06 × 107 s
If C1 = (30 ± 2) F and C2 = (60 ± 4) F, then the
(3) 5.06 × 107 s equivalent capacitance can be written as
(4) 6.06 × 107 s (1) (90 ± 6) F
161. The linear momentum of a particle in time t and (2) (20 ± 6) F
position x is given by P = (A cos Bx)(C sin Dt).
(3) (20 ± 1) F
The dimensions of AC and BD respectively, are
(4) (90 ± 2) F
(1) MLT–1, M0L–1T1
(2) MLT–1, ML–1T–1 169. Which of the following is not responsible for strong
nuclear force?
(3) ML2T–2, M0L–1T–2
(1) Bosons (2) Pions
(4) MLT–1, M0L–1T–1
(3) Quarks (4) Gluons
162. Acceleration due to gravity g is measured with the
help of simple pendulum T = 2.00 s, l = 50.0 cm. 170. Which of the following does not represent the
The maximum possible error in measurement of dimension of viscosity?
g is
!"#$$%"#
(1) 1.2% (2) 1.4% (1) &#'()*+,-."/0*#1+
(3) 1.5% (4) 1.1%
(2) Energy density × time
163. Dimensional formula of magnetic permeability is
(1) [MLTA–2] !"#$%%
(3)
(2) [MLT–2A–2] !"#&'()#&"$
(3) [M–1L–3T4A2] !"#$%&'()"*#+#'

(4) ,-./-012#0-(%01*3-$2
(4) [ML2T–2A–1]
171. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 177. If , v, d and represent density, speed, diameter
and coefficient of viscosity, then the physical
(1) A unitless quantity is always dimensionless
!"
(2) A dimensionless quantity may be unitless quantity has the dimension of
(3) Dimensional analysis can be always used to
determine an incorrect equation (1) [M0L1T0]
(4) Dimensional analysis is based on principle of (2) [M1L0T0]
homogeneity
(3) [M0L0T1]
172. Domains covered by physics is/are
(4) [M0L0T0]
(1) Microscopic domain
(2) Mesoscopic domain SECTION - B
(3) Macroscopic domain Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(4) All of these In the following questions, a statement of assertion

(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
173. Which of the following is not an application of
dimensional analysis? (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) Conversion of units assertion, then mark (1).
(2) Deduction of numerical constants (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) Express basic quantities in terms of derived reason is not the correct explanation of the
quantities assertion, then mark (2).
(4) Choosing a new system of units (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
174. If force, velocity and time have new units as 1 kN,
72 km/hr and 2 hrs, then new unit of mass in (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
terms of given force, velocity and time will be statements, then mark (4).
(1) 3.6 × 106 kg (2) 3.6 × 105 kg 1. A : If a measurement is more accurate, then it
must be more precise.
(3) 1.44 × 106 kg (4) 1.44 × 105 kg
R : The accuracy of a measurement is the
175. In the given formula F = kx0 sin( t), the terms F, measure of how far the measured value is from
k, x0, and t stands for force, force constant, true value.
displacement, angular frequency and time, then the
2. A : Dimensionally incorrect equation can not ever
!
dimension of is be correct.
"
R : Physically correct equations must be
(1) [M0LT1]
dimensionally correct.
(2) [ML–1T–2] 3. A : The emissivity of a body is dimensionless
(3) [M0LT–2] quantity.
(4) [M0LT–1] R : Emissive power of a body is a dimensionless
quantity.
176. Which of the following is correct?
4. A: All physically correct equations are
(1) Two physical quantities having the same dimensionally correct.
dimension can always be added
R: Physical correctness depends on dimensional
(2) Precision always leads to accuracy correctness and the numerical values of
(3) A dimensionally correct equation is always dimensionless constants used.
correct 5. A: If a, b and c are the percentage errors in the
measurements of A, B and C respectively then
! the percentage error in the measurement of Z
(4) If z = A aBb, then may not be equal to
! = AaBbCc must be a + b + c
! " $ # " !
# $
! " R: If Z = A aB b C c then
$ # " !
6. A : Each one of the fundamental units are 9. A : Out of measurements l1 = 0.3 m and l2 = 0.30
independent. m, l2 is most accurate.
R : None of the fundamental units can be R : In every measurement, only the last significant
digit is not accurately known.
expressed in terms of the remaining
fundamental units. 10. A : A constant may not be unitless.
R : A physical quantity may have unit but it is
7. A : Strong nuclear force do not acts between
dimensionless.
Leptons.
11. A : Solid angle has unit steradian.
R : Strong nuclear force acts between Baryons and
R : Solid angle has no dimension.
Leptons.
12. A : If A and B has same dimension, then A + B
8. A : Quark-Quark interaction is more fundamental is a valid relation.
than strong nuclear force.
R : If A and B has same dimensions, they are
R : Strong nuclear force is spin dependent. same physical quantities.
!" !" !
Chapter 2
Motion in a Straight Line
5. For the given acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph

SECTION - A
of a body. The body is initially at rest. The velocity
Objective Type Questions (v) versus time (t) graph will be
!
!
1. A car covers "# of a distance at a speed of
$
%
80 km/h and "# of the distance at a speed of
$
"
60 km/h. Average speed of car for complete journey is
"
(1) 65 km/h (2) 70.5 km/h "
(3) 66.67 km/h (4) 77.5 km/h
# !
2. A body starting from rest moves with uniform
acceleration on a horizontal surface. The body (1) (2)
covers 3 consecutive equal distances from beginning !
in time t1, t2 and t3 seconds. The ratio of t1 : t2 : t3 #
is ! !
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) !" # " $

" !
(3) !"# $ !%"# & $% (4) ! " # "$ (3) (4)
" !
3. A bird is flying due North at a speed of 10 m/s. A
train 250 m long is also travelling due North at a
speed of 20 m/s. Bird and train are moving in the 6. A ball is dropped from the roof of a lift. At this
same vertical plane. How long will the train take to moment the lift is moving downward with an
overtake the bird completely? acceleration ‘a’ (a < g). The ratio of acceleration of
the ball for an observer inside the lift to the
(1) 25 s acceleration of ball for an observer on the ground
(2) 50 s will be
(3) 20 s (1) (g + a) : g (2) g : (g + a)
(4) 8.33 s (3) (g – a) : g (4) (g – a) : (g – a)
4. A stone is dropped into water from a bridge 7. A particle moves with a velocity v = t3 along a
44.1 m above the water. Time taken by the stone straight line. The average speed in time interval
to reach water is t = 0 to t = T is
(1) 1 s !!
(2) 3 s (1) T3 (2)
!
(3) 2 s !! !!
(4) 4 s (3) (4)
! "
16 Motion in a Straight Line Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
8. The position (x) of a particle on a straight line 12. A body having initial velocity u is uniformly
motion is given by x = 2 + 10t – 5t 2 (m). Its accelerated with an acceleration a for time t, then
velocity (v) is best represented by the average velocity over the time t is
!!"#$% ! "#
(1) u + at (2)
'( !
(1) & !! "# ! "# !
(3) (4)
! !
' "!$%
13. A particle dropped from some height H from ground.
!!"#$% After 3 seconds the particle is stopped and again
(' dropped and it takes further 4 seconds to reach
(2) the ground. The total time of fall if the particle were
&'
not stopped would be
& "!$% (1) 5 s (2) 6 s
!!"#$% (3) 7 s (4) 10 s

&' 14. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-axis
(3) varies with time (t) as x = t2 – 4t + 5. The particle
turns around at
& "!$% (1) t = 1 s (2) t = 2 s
!!"#$% (3) t = 3 s (4) t = 4 s
)(
15. The velocity (v) varies with displacement (x) as
(4)
shown in the graph. The acceleration
' ) "!$% "!"#%&$
9. A car travel A to B with speed V1 and returns to

A with speed V2, the average speed of the car V
is
!! !" # !!"#$
(1) Zero (2)
! (1) Is constant
!!!!" !!!" (2) Increases with time
(3) (4)
!! !" !"!! !" # (3) Decreases with time
10. A boy fallen freely from a building of height 320 m.
(4) Information is insufficient to predict
After 5 second superman jumps downward with
initial speed u. Such that the boy can be saved. 16. A particle projected vertically up attains height h at
The minimum value of u is (assume g = 10 m/s2) 2 seconds and 6 seconds. The maximum height
attained by the particle is
(1) 95.1 m/s (2) 98.3 m/s
(1) 120 m (2) 80 m
(3) 91.6 m/s (4) 85.6 m/s
(3) 75 m (4) 60 m
11. The displacement x of a body having relation with
time as x = 3t2 – 6t + 7, then distance covered by 17. If position (x) varies with time (t) as x = 2t2 – 4t +
8, and mass is 1 unit, then force acting on the
body in first two second is [where x is in metre
body is
and t is in second]
(1) 8 units
(1) Zero
(2) 6 m (2) 6 units
(3) 3 m (3) 4 units
(4) 9 m (4) 7 units
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Motion in a Straight Line 17
18. An elevator whose floor to ceiling height is 12 m.
Moves upward with an acceleration of 2.2 m/s2. "
After 1.5 seconds of start a bolt falls from its
ceiling. The time taken by the bolt to reach the (3) (4)
floor is [Take g = 9.8 m/s2] !! !" !# !
!! !" !# !
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
22. A particle is thrown vertically such that it passes
(3) !" (4) #" same height 1 s and 5 s. Its speed of projection
19. The velocity (v) of a particle varies with position (x) is (g = 10 m/s2)
as shown in the graph. Its acceleration when
(1) 80 m/s (2) 50 m/s
x = 4 m will be
"&')*( (3) 30 m/s (4) 10 m/s
23. A body is thrown vertically upward, such that the

% distance travelled by it in fifth and sixth seconds
# are equal. The maximum height reached by the
body is
!
(1) 30 m
! " # $ !&'( (2) 60 m
(1) – 8 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2 (3) 125 m
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) –2 m/s2
(4) 120 m
20. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving
24. Velocity (v) versus displacement (s) graph of a
along a straight line as shown in figure. The time
body moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
taken by the particle to acquire its initial velocity is
Its corresponding acceleration (a) versus
! displacement (s) is
!
!"#$%
!
"&%' "
)% (%
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s
(3) 10 s (4) 5 s #
#
(1) (2)
21. A particle moves along x-axis whose velocity (v)-
time (t) graph is as shown in the figure. Its " "
corresponding position (s) - time (t) graph is best
shown by
# #
! (3) (4)
" "
" 25. Position of a particle moving on a straight line is
"! "" "#
given by x = 2t2 – 6t. The distance travelled by the
particle in first four seconds is
" " (1) 3 m

(2) 17 m
(1) (2)
(3) 22 m
!! !" !# ! !! !" !# !
(4) 28 m
26. A ball is dropped from a height on the floor. On 30. A bird flies for 4 s with a velocity of |t – 2| m/s in
colliding with floor it loses some of its energy. a straight line, where t is time in seconds. It covers
Which speed-time graph best represents the a distance of
motion of the ball? (1) 2 m (2) 4 m
! ! (3) 6 m (4) 8 m
31. From the velocity-time graph of a particle moving in
(1) (2) a straight line. The ratio of average velocity for
" "
interval 3 s and instantaneous velocity at 3 s.
! ! $"(*+,)
!
(3) (4)
" " "
#
27. A body is moving towards north with initial velocity $
of 13 ms–1. It is subjected to a retardation of 2 !"(#)
ms–2 towards south. The distance travelled by it in %&&&$&&&'&&&#&&
7th second is (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) Zero (2) 0.75 m (3) 7 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(3) 0.25 m (4) 0.5 m 32. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving
along straight line is given. At what time velocity of
28. The acceleration versus time graph for a body particle becomes equal to its initial velocity?
moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. !
If at t = 0 the body starts from rest, then select #"#&'$ %
correct statement !"
"#)*+!" ,
+ !"
$ !"#$%
#"()"% *
& '(
!
! # " ,!"
%$ (1) 10 s (2) 8 s
(3) 6 s (4) 4 s
(1) Body has same velocity at t = 6 s and
33. The velocity of a particle along a straight line with
t = 10 s
!
a constant acceleration ‘a’ reduces to of its
(2) Body has maximum speed at t = 8 s "
initial velocity in time ‘ ’. The total time taken by
(3) Motion is uniformly accelerated between the body, till its velocity becomes zero
t = 2 s and t = 6 s
! !
(4) All of these (1) (2)
" $
29. A car travels a distance s km on a straight road
in two hours and then returns to the starting point ! %
(3) (4)
in the next three hours. Its average speed in four # $
hours (in km/h) 34. Two balls are projected from a tower such that one
is vertically upward with a velocity of 9 m/s and
! !!
(1) (2) other horizontally with same speed. The relative
! "# acceleration of one ball w.r.t. other is (g = 10 m/s2)
#! (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 20 m/s2
(3) (4) Zero
!
(3) 18 m/s2 (4) Zero
35. The displacement (x) of a point moving in a 40. Two trains are moving on the same track. The
straight line is given by x = 8t2 – 4t. Then velocity velocities of first train is 72 km/h and the second
of particle is zero at is 36 km/h. If the first train behind the second train,
then the minimum distance between the trains
(1) 0.4 s
such that they will not collide (retardation of brakes
(2) 0.25 s of first trains is 0.05 m/s2)
(3) 0.5 s (1) 1000 m
(4) 0.3 s (2) 500 m
36. Two balls are projected vertically upward direction (3) 100 m
with same speed 60 m/s at an interval of 2 s. The (4) 3000 m
time from the projection of the second body after
41. From the given position (x) versus time (t) graph,
they will meet is [take g = 10 m/s2] average velocity of which part is maximum?
(1) 5 s (2) 6 s '
(3) 7 s (4) 8 s !
"
37. A body is projected vertically upward with speed u.
The velocity v versus position x is best represented #
by $
# %
" ! &
! !
# $ (1) AB
(1) !! (2) !
!
$! !% !% (2) AC
"!
(3) BD
" "
# # (4) AE
!
# 42. For given acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph,
!% ! velocity (v) versus time (t) graph is
(3) ! (4)
!! "
$!# $#
!
38. In the equation ! "# "$ ! # the dimension
" !
of s is (where s is the displacement in t th second) " "
(1) [L] (2) [LT –1]

(1) (2)
(3) [LT ] (4) [LT –2]
! !
39. A car is moving on a straight road with uniform
" "
velocity 72 kmh–1. Suddenly the driver saw a child
in the middle of road and applies brakes. If he just
able to save the child, then reaction time of the (3) (4)
driver is (initial distance between car and child is
5 m and due to application of brakes uniform ! !
retardation of 50 ms–2 is developed) 43. If velocity of the particle v = kx 3/2 , then the
acceleration versus displacement graph is
(1) 0.04 s
(1) Parabola
(2) 0.4 s (2) Circle
(3) 0.05 s (3) Straight line
(4) 0.45 s (4) Rectangular hyperbola
44. Which of the following graph is not possible? 48. If acceleration of a particle is negative, then its
!!"#$%&'()* speed is
!!"#$%&'()*
(1) Increasing
(2) Decreasing
(1) (2)
! (3) Remains same
! +',-$.&#/#0(
(4) May be increasing or decreasing
!!"#$%&'()* !!"#$%&'()*
49. A ball of mass m is pushed from origin O towards
right direction with the velocity v and it collide with
(3) (4)
! the walls (normally). If their is no loss of kinetic
+',-$.&#/#0( ! energy due to collision, then the position time
45. If velocity of a particle is given by the equation graph of ball is best represented by
v = k|x|, then the graph between acceleration and
displacement is
! !
(1) (2) !
" "
"
" "
! ! #$
(1) !
(3) (4) !$
" " "

46. Which of the following is not true? #
(2)
(1) All the kinematic equations of motion are valid !
for uniformly accelerated motion
! ! "
(2) In equation ! "# $# , S is distance
" #
travelled by the body
(3) !
(3) In equation v 2 = u 2 + 2aS, v 2 and u 2 are
scalars $#
! "
(4) In equation !! !" " # "$ ! dimension of #
"
S is [L1]
(4) !
47. Two objects are moving in a straight line. Their
position (x) versus time (t) graphs are as in figure. $#
The relative velocity of A with respect to B is 50. A body lying at rest on x-axis starts moving at
! ! !" time t = 0 with a constant acceleration of 3 ms–2
# "#$!% $ along positive x-axis. Its position at t = 4 s
% &&
$
(1) Must be at x = 24 m (2) May be at x = 30 m
!"# (3) Must be at x = 20 m (4) Must be at x = 0

#
51. A body covers first half distance with speed v1 and
remaining half distance with speed v2. Its average
" speed during the whole journey is
"$#
! !! "! ! ! "! !
(1) ! ! (2) #"! ! !
# ( " ! " !
(1) $%& (2) $%&
' ) ! "! !
!" ! !
( (3) (4) ! !
(3) $%& (4) Zero ! " !
"
52. If a body travels some distance in a given time 56. The velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a particle
interval then for that time interval, its moving along a straight line is as shown in the
given figure. During time interval t = 0 to t = 6 s,
(1) Average speed |average velocity|
the magnitude of displacement and the distance
(2) |Average velocity| average speed travelled are in the ratio of
(3) Average speed < |average velocity| "'(+) *
!"
(4) |Average velocity| must be equal to average

speed !"
53. The position x of a particle moving along x-axis
varies with time t as x = 3 + 4t – 5t2, where x is
in metre and t is in second. The acceleration of the " !'()*
$ % & !"
particle is
(1) Constant and positive #!"
(2) Constant and negative
(3) Variable and positive (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(4) Variable and negative (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
54. The velocity v of a particle varies with time t as 57. The acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph of a
v = t2, where v is in ms–1 and t is in second. The particle moving along a straight line is as shown in
displacement of the particle during t = 0 to the given figure. The particle starts from rest at
t = 2 s will be t = 0. The velocity of the particle is maximum at
!"
$ "$'*( )
(1) m
#
!
#
(2) m
$
" & !$'()
"# % !
(3) m
!
#$!
"!
(4) m
# (1) t = 2 s (2) t = 4 s
55. The position-time graph of two particles P and Q (3) t = 6 s (4) t = 3 s
are as shown in figure. The ratio of their velocities
58. A particle starts moving from rest with constant
!"
acceleration. Which of the following graphs best
!! is
shows the variation of its speed v with distance S
$%&'('%) moved by it?
!
" "
"
!"#
(1) (2)
!"#
*'+,
! !
(1) 1 : 3 " "
(2) # "!
(3) 3 : 1 (3) (4)
(4) # " ! ! !
59. If a particle is at rest at an instant then at that 63. Two particles A and B are moving along the same
instant its acceleration straight line in mutually opposite directions with
speed 10 ms–1 and 20 ms–1 respectively. At t = 0,
(1) Must be zero their separation is shown in the given figure. They
(2) May be zero will meet at
(3) May be positive but not zero

! "
(4) May be negative but not zero
60. The velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a particle !""#$
(1) t = 30 s (2) t = 15 s
moving in a straight line is as shown below
!!"#$%&'()*+ (3) t = 10 s (4) t = 12.5 s
64. The position x of a particle moving along x-axis
varies with time t as x = 20t – 5t2, where x is in
metre and t is in second. The particle reverses its
"#")(,$+ direction of motion at
- $ .$
(1) x = 40 m (2) x = 20 m
(3) x = 10 m (4) x = 30 m
The corresponding position time graph is best
65. Water drops are falling at a regular interval of time
represented by from a certain height H above the ground. At the
!! !! instant the fourth drop is released, the first one just
reaches the ground. The height of the third drop
from the ground is
(1) (2) ! !
(1) (2)
" $ #$ "# " $ #$ "# ! !
!! !! "! "!
(3) (4)
! !
66. Two solid balls of identical size, one of iron and
(3) (4) another of wood are released simultaneously from
rest from the same height. If equal force of air
" $ #$ "# " $ #$ "#
resistance acts on each of them, then
61. A ball is projected in vertically upward direction at (1) Both will reach the ground simultaneously
time t = 0 from the ground. During its flight, it is
at the same height at t = 2 s and t = 6 s. The (2) Iron ball will reach the ground first
maximum height reached by it is (g = 10 ms–2) (3) Wooden ball will reach the ground first
(1) 80 m (4) They will never reach the ground
(2) 60 m 67. The figure shows position (x) versus time (t) graph
(3) 40 m of a particle moving along x-axis. During time
interval t = 0 to t = 4 s, how many times the
(4) 100 m particle comes to rest?
62. From the top of a tower, a small stone is projected #+',)
vertically upward with 30 ms –1. It strikes the
ground near the foot of the tower after 8 s. The
height of the tower is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 80 m
!"'()
* ! " # $ % &
(2) 110 m
(3) 55 m (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5
(4) 100 m
68. A particle moving with uniform acceleration along x- (1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2
axis crosses the points x = 10 m and x = 50 m
with velocity 10 ms–1 and 30 ms–1 respectively. The %
(3) !"# ! (4) 1 m/s2
velocity with which it crosses point x = 30 m is $
(1) 20 ms–1 (2) "# ! ms–1 75. Two objects A and B are projected vertically upward
with velocities 20 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. The
(3) # !" ms–1 (4) "# ! ms–1 ratio of distance travelled by them during last
second of their upward journey will be
69. The driver of a car which is moving on a straight
horizontal road with a speed of 72 kmh–1 applies (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3
brakes. If the retardation produced is 20 ms–2, the (3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 9
distance moved by the car before coming to rest
will be 76. The x-coordinate of a particle moving along x-axis
varies with speed v as x = a – bv2. The maximum
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m possible speed of the particle is
(3) 6 m (4) 2 m
!" "
70. Two balls P and Q are projected in vertically (1) (2)
! !
upward direction with velocities 40 ms–1 and 80
ms–1 respectively. The ratio of distances moved by " "
(3) (4)
them during first second of their downward journey ! !
will be
77. A particle thrown vertically up reaches at half of the
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 maximum height in ( ! – 1) second. The speed
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 of projection of the particle is (g = 10 m/s2)
71. A small stone is released from rest from the top of (1) 10 m/s (2) $% # &'()
a multi-storey building. During its free fall the ratio
of the distances moved by it during 1st, 2nd and (3) *% # &'() (4) 40 m/s
3rd second of its journey will be 78. A particle thrown with speed 30 m/s from a height
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 h reaches the ground with a speed of 50 m/s.
(3) 12 : 22 : 32 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 If g = 10 m/s2, the value h is

72. When a particle is moving with constant (1) 40 m
acceleration, its speed
(2) 60 m
(1) Must be increasing
(3) 80 m
(2) Must be decreasing
(4) Depends on the direction of projection
(3) May be increasing or decreasing
79. A particle is thrown vertically up with a speed of
(4) Must be constant
45 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the displacement of the
73. A stone is released from a balloon going up with particle during 5th second is
acceleration 2g. Acceleration of the stone after the (1) 10 m (2) 5 m
release is (g is Acceleration due to gravity)
(3) 2.5 m (4) Zero
(1) g downward
80. A particle released on a horizontal surface with
(2) g upward speed of 20 m/s, comes to rest in 5 seconds. The
retardation (assume uniform) of the particle during
(3) 2g upward
its motion is
(4) Any value between g and 3g (1) 10 ms–2
74. A particle is moving along a straight line according (2) 6 ms–2
to the equation of motion X = t 2 – 3t + 4, where
X is in metre and t is in second. What is the (3) 4 ms–2
acceleration of the body when it comes to rest? (4) 2 ms–2
81. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-axis 87. The variation of y with x is shown in the figure.
varies with time (t) as x = at2 – bt + c, where a, Slope of the graph is
b and c are positive constants. The particle !
reverses its direction at
!!!
" !"
(1) t = (2) t =
! !
!!
! ! "! "
(3) t = (4) t = !"!
" !"
%! !!
82. The displacement of a body as function of time is (1) & (2)
! "!
given as x = t3 – 3t2 + 6, where x is in m and t in s.
The displacement of particle is minimum at time t !! !!
then t is equal to (3) " (4)
! "!
(1) Zero (2) 2 s
88. An open lift is coming down from the top of a
(3) 6 s (4) 8 s building at a constant speed v = 10 m/s. A boy
standing in the lift throws a stone vertically
83. A ball is projected vertically upward with speed
upwards at a speed of 30 m/s w.r.t. lift. The time
20 m/s. The average speed of the ball, during its
after which he will catch the stone is
complete journey will be
(1) 2.5 s (2) 4 s
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 6 s (4) 8 s
(3) 15 m/s (4) Zero
89. A stone is kept on the floor of an elevator. The
84. The acceleration of a body as measured by two elevator starts descending with an acceleration of
frames s1 and s2 have equal magnitude of 6 m/s2. 15 m/s2. The displacement of stone with respect
Select the correct statement to elevator floor in first second is equal to
(1) Acceleration of s1 relative to s2 may be 6 m/s2 (1) 7.5 m upward (2) 7.5 m downward
(2) Acceleration of s1 relative to s2 may be 3 m/s2 (3) 2.5 m upward (4) 2.5 m downward
(3) Acceleration of s1 relative to s2 may be 9 m/s2 90. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(4) All of these (1) The average velocity of a particle is zero in a
time interval. It is possible that the
85. A graph between square of speed with time t for a instantaneous velocity is never zero in the
particle moving on a straight line. The acceleration interval
of the particle at t = 1 s is
(2) It is possible to have a situations in which
! ! !
" !" ! !" !
"#$%&# "
" !# !#
(3) It is possible to have a situations in which
! !
! ! !" ! !"
! "#$%&# "
!# !#
(1) 1 m/s2
(4) The average speed of a particle in a given
(2) 1.5 m/s2 period is never less than the magnitude of
(3) 2.0 m/s2 average velocity
91. A bullet is fired on a mud wall, it loses half of its
(4) 2.5 m/s2
speed after penetrating 3 cm into the wall. How
86. If z = sin + cos , where and are positive much further it will penetrate before coming to
constants. The maximum value of z is rest? Assume that mud wall offers uniform
retardation
(1) (2)
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.5 cm
(3) ! ! (4) ( ) (3) 1.0 cm (4) 2.0 cm
92. The position of a particle moving along straight line 96. A particle is moving along positive x-axis with
is given by x = 2 + t – t2, the distance travelled by some initial velocity. The acceleration time graphs
the particle in time interval 0 to 2 second is are shown. In which case velocity of particle will
increased for entire time between t1 to t2?
(1) 0.5 m (2) –1.0 m
% %
(3) 1.0 m (4) 2.5 m %
93. If length of the cylinder starts changing with time

as l = (2t2 + 2) keeping radius constant, then rate
of change of its volume at t = 1 s is
" " "
"! "" "! "! "" ""
(1) 1 unit (2) 2 unit
$ $$ $$$
(3) 3 unit (4) 4 unit (1) Only in II (2) In I and III
94. A particle is allowed to fall from the rest from height (3) In I and II (4) In I, II and III
h. Which of the following represents its velocity 97. The value of cos75° + cos15° is equal to
versus time graph?
" (
# (1) (2)
( "
!!"
! !
(3) (4)
( "
(1)
$
!
!" 98. If " , where is a constant, then for
! ! ! "#!
!! "
# what value of q, P will be maximum?
!!" (1) (2)

! !
(3) $ (4) 2
(2)
$
!" 99. A bullet losses half its speed while travelling
! through the wooden block by 10 cm. How much
further it will enter into wooden block?
#
(1) 10 cm (2) 5 cm
!!" (3) 3.33 cm (4) 12 cm
100. Position of a moving particle is given by
!!
(3) ! !"# " $ . Initial velocity of the particle is
$
!" (1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s
! (3) 10 m/s (4) Zero
# 101. Displacement-time (x-t) graph of a particle moving
along a straight line path is shown in figure.
!!" Average speed of particle in the time interval
0 to 5 second is
!"'()
(4)
$ !"
!"
#"
!
$"
95. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground.
It crosses a point at height of 25 m twice at an %"
interval of 4 second. The velocity with which ball #"'*)
is thrown up is " % $ # ! &
(1) 25 m/s (2) 30 m/s (1) 2 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 40 m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) 14 m/s
102. Two balls are thrown vertically upward with the

same initial velocity of 98 m/s but 4 s apart. How !
108. Value of ! & " )& is
long after the first one is thrown will they meet? "
(1) 12 s (2) 10 s
! !
(3) 7 s (4) 16 s (1) (2)
" $
103. A bullet loses half of its speed while travelling 45 ! !
cm inside a wooden block. Further distance (3) (4)
" "
travelled by the bullet before stopping is
109. Two equations are given as
(1) 45 cm (2) 15 cm
! !
(3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm ! "# $# ... (i)
104. A conveyor belt is moving horizontally at a speed "
of 6 m/s. If a box of mass 10 kg is gently laid on !
it, it takes 0.2 second for the box to come to rest "!!" # !"$ #$ ... (ii)
"
on the belt. The distance moved by the box on the
conveyor belt (in metre) is then in accordance with dimensional analysis
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.6 (1) (i) and (ii), both are wrong
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.4 (2) (ii) is wrong but (i) is correct
105. The velocity versus time graph of a body is shown (3) (i) is wrong but (ii) is correct
in figure. If the slope of line is K then distance (4) (i) and (ii), both are correct
travelled by the body in time T is
! 110. Area under the curve y = 3x 2 between the
ordinates x = 0 to x = 2 is
(1) 8 m2 (2) 3 m2
(3) 2 m2 (4) 9 m2
" 111. A particle is thrown vertically upward from ground

# with an unknown speed. Distance travelled by it in
! !" #$ " last 2 seconds of upward motion is
(1) (2)
! ! (1) 15 m (2) 5 m
# ' (3) 10 m (4) 20 m

(3) (4)
!$ "( 112. A man travelled from his house to market on a
straight road at 10 km/h and immediately returned
106. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
at 15 km/h. Average speed of the man is
(1) A body can round a curve with constant
acceleration (1) 12.5 km/h (2) 6 km/h
(2) In a straight line motion, it is impossible to (3) 12 km/h (4) 13 km/h

revert the velocity with constant acceleration 113. Acceleration (a) versus (t ) graph of a particle
(3) It is possible in a straight line motion that moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
speed increases while acceleration decreases Velocity of the particle are equal at
(4) Instantaneous velocity and instantaneous "
acceleration can make any angle between
each other. $!"#
%"# !"# $%"# &%"# !
!
107. Value of !"#$ " % is
!"
(1) – cos x (1) 0 s and 20 s
(2) cos x (2) 10 s and 15 s
(3) tan x (3) 0 s and 15 s
(4) sec x (4) 0 s and 10 s
114. A particle is thrown vertically upward from ground
such that it is at the same point at 4 s and 9 s.
"
Height of the point from ground is (g = 10 m/s2) "
(1) 450 m (2) 180 m
(3) (4)
(3) 250 m (4) 300 m
115. Position x of a particle moving on a straight line as !
!
a function of time t is x = (2t 2 – 12t + 5) m.
Particle will come to rest at time t equal to 120. A body thrown vertically up from the ground
passes the height 5.05 m twice, at an interval of
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s 10 s. What was its initial speed (g = 10 m/s2)?
(3) 4 s (4) 3 s (1) 26 m/s (2) 51 m/s
116. The position (x) of a particle varies with time (t) as
(3) 50 m/s (4) 25 m/s
!
! " . Then the particle is 121. Which of the following position-time (x-t) graphs
"! shown can possibly represent one-dimensional
(1) Slowing down motion of a particle?
(2) Always moving towards +x-axis
" "
(3) Speeding up
(4) Moving with constant speed
117. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u It (1) (2)
passes three points A, B and C in its upward
# ! # !
! ! !
journey with velocities , and respectively.
! " # " "
!"
The ratio is
"#
!" (3) (4)
(1) (2) 2
# # ! # !
!" 122. A particle moves with an initial velocity v0 = 5 m/
(3) (4) 1
# s in a straight line. If its acceleration a varies with
118. A ball is thrown upward with certain speed. It passes time t as shown in a-t graph, then velocity of the
through the same point at 3 second and 7 second particle at t = 7 s is
from the start. The maximum height achieved by !
!*+,-. /
the ball is
(1) 500 m (2) 250 m %
(3) 125 m (4) 450 m
0 ! "#$ %& '
119. For the following acceleration versus time graph "*+./
the corresponding velocity versus displacement
graph is ()
" (1) 10 m/s (2) –10 m/s
(3) –14 m/s (4) 24 m/s
123. A person is dropping a number of balls from a
tower of height 25 m at regular interval of time.
!
When 1st ball just reaches the ground, he drops
the 6th ball. At what height from the ground is the
" 3rd ball at that instant?
"
(1) 16 m
(1) (2) (2) 14 m

(3) 11 m
!
! (4) 8 m
124. Car A and car B are separated by a distance of 130. A particle starts from rest and is acted upon by a
75 m. Car B is ahead of Car A. Car A is moving variable acceleration as shown. Velocity of the
with constant speed of 20 m/s and car B starts particle is maximum at time t is equal to
with acceleration of 2 m/s2. The time at which car !
B will overtake car A is !)'+,- *
(1) 5 s (2) 10 s &!$

(3) 15 s (4) 20 s !"!#
'%()%*
125. A particle is thrown from ground at an angle of 90° $ !% ")'-*
with horizontal. During its motion from ground to
.!%
the highest point, radius of curvature of path
(1) Remains constant
(1) 5 s (2) 10 s
(2) Decreases gradually
(3) 12 s (4) 18 s
(3) Increases gradually
131. Velocity of a particle moving along x-axis changes
(4) First increases then decreases with displacement x as shown in the diagram.
126. If velocity of a particle varies with time as v = t2 What is acceleration of particle at x = 8 m?
– 3t + 1. The initial acceleration of the particle is "$*'()+
(
(1) m/s2 (2) –3 m/s2
"
"
(3) –1 m/s2 (4) m/s2 &$'()
!
127. A steamer takes 10 minute to travel a distance d !"#
downstream and 15 minute in upstream for same !
!$%$&$' $!$*'+
distance. The steamer can travel the same
distance in still water is
" !
(1) 12 minute (2) 10 minute (1) m/s2 (2) m/s2
# "
(3) 6 minute (4) 15 minute
!" !"
128. Displacement of a particle moving along x-axis (3) m/s2 (4) m/s2
! "
# #
depends on time as ! " " " . The
ratio of initial velocity and initial acceleration 132. A particle accelerates from rest with constant
depends on acceleration a for m seconds. Its velocity at the
end of m seconds is v. The displacement of the
(1) and (2) and particle in last 3 seconds is
(3) and (4) and
! !"" #$ ! "*" +!
(1) (2)
129. Two balls (A and B) are thrown from the top of a %" #"
building simultaneously one (A) vertically upward
and other (B) vertically downward with same ! !#" "$ ! !"" #$
(3) (4)
speed. Select the correct statement(s) %" ""
(1) Velocity of ball A is greater than velocity B at 133. Acceleration-time graph for a particle is given
time of colliding with the ground below.
(2) Both balls A and B have same speed but not !
"&#+,* '
same velocity at time of colliding with the
ground )
(3) Both balls (A and B) have same speed as well "

as same velocity at time of colliding with the #$%&$'
! !&#*'
ground
(4) Velocity of ball B is greater than velocity of A, ()
at the time of colliding with the ground
Select correct velocity-time graph for a time interval 136. The position of a particle moving along x-axis is
4s defined as x = t2 – 6t, when x is in metre and t
"$+,*' in second. What is distance travelled by the
) particle in 4 second?
(1) 2 m (2) 5 m
!" #"
$%&"%' !"$*' (3) 10 m (4) 8 m
(1)
() 137. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity v0,
taking point of projection as origin, which of the
following graph correctly represent graph between
!!()*%
displacement and time throughout whole motion?
+
#
!!"
(2) "
(1)
!"#$"% &$ '$ "$!*% $
"#$%#& !! !!!
"#*+)& " "
(
#
#$%"$& !!"
(3) , !" !"#)& "
'( (2)
"#$%#& !! !!! $
"$,-+'
" "
*)
#
!" #"
$&%"&'
(4) !"$+' !!"
"
()
(3)
"#$%#& !! !!! $
134. A particle is moving along x-axis such that
x = 2 – 5t + 6t 2. What is acceleration of the " "
particle when its velocity is zero? #
(1) Zero (2) 12 m/s2
!!"
! !"
(3) –5 m/s2 m/s2 (4)
"#
(4)
135. A body is thrown up from a lift with velocity u $
"#$%#& !! !!!
relative to lift. After t second body again reaches
" "
to lift, then the acceleration of lift with respect to
ground is 138. A car is travelling with a speed of 80 km/h.
#! "# Suddenly the brakes are applied and it stops within
(1) upward 40 m distance. if the speed of car on another day
#
is 60 km/h then it will stop within a distance (if the
!"! ""# # same breaking force is applied)
(2) downward
#
(1) 20 m
!"! ""# #
(3) upward (2) 25 m
#
(3) 30 m
$#! "# %
(4) upward (4) 22.5 m
#
139. A car moving at speed u applied brakes with 146. A scooter moves in a straight line. It covers one
constant retardation. If the speed of the car fourth distance with v1, two fourth with v2 and
! remaining with speed v3. The average speed of
reduces to in 30 m, then total distance scooter is
!
travelled by the car before coming to rest is )*!* "* # *!* "* #
(1) 30 m (2) 10 m (1) * * * "* # "*!* # (2) * * *#
! " ! "
(3) 40 m (4) 60 m
*!* "* # *! "* " *#
140. Which of the following options is correct if a (3) * "* " * # (4)
! )
particle is moving along x-axis according to
equation 147. A bullet fired with speed v enters a wall upto
distance y metre. If speed of bullet is increased to
2x2 – 4ax + 2 = 0 where, x is position? (Where a
n times the previous value then distance travelled
is positive constant)
inside wall becomes (Assume constant retardation)
(1) a must be 1
(1) ny (2) n3y
(2) a may be 0
(3) n2y (4) n4y
(3) a is greater than or equal to 1
(4) a is less then or equal to 1 148. A body of mass 2 kg and radius 5 cm is moving
with constant velocity. If it starts accelerating with
141. The value of
–2 m/s2 then its kinetic energy
sin2 + sec2 + cosec2 + cos2 – cot2 – tan2 is
(1) Must decrease (2) May decrease
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) May increase (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) 2 (4) 3
149. A body is moving with some speed in a straight line.
!" Now a constant acceleration a acts on it in a
142. At what point slope of graph is greatest in
!# direction opposite to velocity. If body stops in 12 s
given graph? then the ratio of distance travelled in 12th s; 11th s,
% 10th s and 9th s is
# (1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
"
! (3) 1 : 5 : 25 : 125 (4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
$ 150. Water drops are falling regularly at constant interval
(1) P of 1s from a tap. If total time taken by a drop to
strike ground is 5 s, then distance between 2nd and
(2) Q 3rd drop when 1st drop just hits the ground is
(3) R
(1) 5 m (2) 15 m
(4) At all points it will be same
(3) 25 m (4) 35 m
!"" !"
143. The value of !!" is 151. A juggler has 7 balls in air at a time and balls are
" thrown at an interval of 1 s. Find maximum speed
(1) 2.303 (2) 1 with which a ball comes to juggler’s hand (assume
(3) 4.606 (4) Zero air friction negligible; and g = 10 m/s2)
144. At what time, the speed of body describing path (1) 15 m/s (2) 35 m/s
!! (3) 55 m/s (4) 75 m/s
" ! ! " is minimum?
! 152. Which of the following position-time (x-t) graph
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s may be possible corresponding to given velocity-
(3) 3 s (4) 1 s time (v-t) graph?
145. A body moved in a straight line according to "
equation x = 30 t – 5 t 2 . The value of
! "#$%&'()*)+, !
between t = 2 s to t = 5 s is
"#$,'+()
(1) > 1 (2) = 1
(3) < 1 (4) = 2 ! " # !
" " 156. A body is thrown into air vertically upward with
speed u. If air friction is considered then which of
the following graphs is best representation of speed
(1) (2) versus time?
! '(&&) '(&&)
! " # ! " # !
! !
" "
(1) (2)
#$%& #$%&
" !"" " !""
(3) (4)
)*((+ %&$$'
! " # ! ! " # !
!
153. An ant moving on a straight line has relation
(3) (4)
between position x and time t as t = 3x2 + 2x. %&'( !"#$
Reciprocal of its velocity is
" !"#$" ! ()*+!
! 157. A car moves from P to Q; (first half distance with
(1) (2) 6x speed v1 then next half with speed v2) then returns
&$ #
from Q to P (in first half time he moves with speed
! v1 and second half time with speed v2). The ratio of
(3) 6x + 2 (4) average speed from P to Q and Q to P journey is
"!
!! ! " !!!! "
154. Which of the following is correct regarding the
(1) ! ! (2)
graph, in which motion of two persons ! " "!! ! " #"
A and B is shown from home to their office?
(Home of A is taken as origin. x is position, t is !!! ! " " #! # #
(3) #!!! " (4)
time) !
158. A man starts running with constant speed v0 towards
# *+,
! a bus which is 100 m ahead him. The bus starts
#(! from rest with constant acceleration a = 2 m/s2 (away
")( " from man) at same time when man starts running
"(! towards it. For what value of v0 man is able to catch
the bus?
"!!
(1) 18 m/s
! "! "# "$ "% "& "' $ *-, (2) 16 m/s
(1) A starts earlier than B (3) 15 m/s
(2) B moves faster than A (4) 21 m/s

(3) Both meet at 150 m from house of A 159. If speed v varies with time ‘t ’ as v = 3t2 then the
(4) Both (1) & (3) plot between $ and t will be shown as
155. A train moves from one station to another. First it

accelerates continuously with x to maximum
speed then decelerates continuously with y till rest ! !
at another station. If distance travelled during (1) (2)
acceleration and deceleration are A and B
respectively, then ratio x : y is " "
(1) A : B
(2) B : A
! !
(3) (A + B) : (A – B) (3) (4)
(4) (A – B) : (A + B) " "
! ! 166. For the acceleration a versus time t graph shown

160. The value of the definite integral ! !" will be in figure, the speed of particle starting from rest is
" "
maximum at
! !
(1) (2) $
" "
(
(3) (4) loge2 &"'(#!
)
161. A bullet after entering a wooden block covers
$%"# $!"#
10 cm inside it and loses half of its velocity. After #
how much further distance will it come to stop? % !"#
(1) 3.3 m (2) 33 cm )&"'(#

!
(3) 6.6 cm (4) 3.3 cm (1) 5 s (2) 10 s

162. A ball is thrown up with initial speed of 50 m/s. (3) 15 s (4) 4 s
The distance covered in 6th second of motion is
167. A body moves with velocity v = – 3 + 5t. The
(1) 5 m (2) 15 m graphical variation of v with time t is shown by
(3) 25 m (4) 35 m
163. Which of the following velocity (v) versus "
"
distance(s) graphs represents uniformly
acceleration motion? (1) (2)
! !
" " " "

(1) (2)
(3) (4) !
! !
!
! !
168. The value of ! !" is
" "
" "!
(3) (4) !! !" !! !"
(1) #
" $&
(2) #
! ! %! %! " $&
164. The position ‘x’ of a particle along a straight line ! ! ! !
at time t is given by x = 5 + 10t + 20t 2. The (3) (4)
% & ! "
acceleration of the particle is
169. The velocity (v) of a particle moving along positive
(1) 5 unit x-axis varies with its position as shown in the figure.
Acceleration of the particle when it is at x = 6 m is
(2) 10 unit
(3) 20 unit !"'#$%(
(4) 40 unit
&"#$%
165. The two ends of a train moving with constant
acceleration pass a certain point with velocity !"#$%
10 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. The velocity with
which the middle point of the train passes the
""'#(
same point is &"# )"#
(1) 20 m/s
(1) –0.5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s
(2) –1.0 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s
(3) –1.5 m/s2
(4) !" # $%& (4) –2.0 m/s2
170. A particle starts from origin with velocity 3 m/s along 175. A particle at rest starts with constant acceleration.
positive x-axis and acceleration 1 m/s2 along positive Distance travelled by the body in first two second
y-axis. Speed of the body after 4 second is is S. Distance travelled in next two second is
(1) 7 m/s (2) 3.5 m/s (1) S (2) 2S
(3) 3S (4) 5S
(3) 5 m/s (4) ! " #$%
176. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by
171. A stone is dropped from the top of a building. If it x = (2t2 + 3t + 4) m. Acceleration of the particle at
time t = 4 s is (here x is in metre and t is in second)
"
covers th of its total height in the last second of (1) 12 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
#
its journey, then the total time of fall is (3) 2 m/s2 (4) 1 m/s2
(1) 1.5 s (2) 2 s 177. Acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph of a particle
moving along x-axis is as shown in the figure.
(3) 2.5 s (4) 3 s
Change in velocity of the body in the interval
172. Variation of acceleration (a) with time (t) for a 0 to 15 s is
particle starting from rest and moving along x-axis !
is shown in the figure. If the particle starts from
!
rest, then the distance covered by the particle in $"%&#
time t1 = 10 s to t2 = 20 s, is
()"# (!"#
! ) !"# "
!!"#$% &
!"#$%
!
'$"%&#!
(')"'*
"!"%&
&'"% !'"% (1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 10 m/s
(1) 50 m (2) 100 m
178. If acceleration of a body moving in a straight line
(3) 150 m (4) 200 m is positive, then its
173. When a particle is thrown vertically upward from (1) Speed must increase
the top of a tower, it reaches the ground in 9 s. (2) Speed must decrease
When the particle is thrown vertically downward
from the top of the tower with same speed, it (3) Speed may increase
reaches the ground in 4 s. Height of the tower is (4) Speed must remain constant
(1) 90 m (2) 360 m 179. Acceleration time (a-t) graph of a body moving on
a straight line is given by the following diagram.
(3) 180 m (4) 60 m
!
174. Two stones are thrown vertically up simultaneously
with different velocities. Which of the following $"%&#!
graphs represents relative separation ( y) between
them as a function of time(t) ? ()"# (!"#
) "
!"#
% "
'$"%&#!
(1) (2)
Corresponding velocity time (v-t) graph is
!"#$"% # !"#$"% !
!
" %
$%"&'#
(3) (4) (1)
! !"#$"% # % !"# $%"# $!"# "

!"#$"%
! 184. A body starts from rest and moves with a constant

(%"&'# acceleration. The ratio of distance covered in the
nth second to the distance covered in n second is
$%"&'#
(2) # ! ! !
(1) (2)
' '! '! '
% !"# $%"# $!"# "
! " ! "
! (3) ! (4)
! ! ! !!
!"#&'$
(3) 185.
!! ! !"# "$#" = _____; where A is a constant
" !"#$ !%#$ "
! "!
(1) 0 (2)
"!#$%&
(4) !
(3) A (4)
! "
186. A particle returns to the starting point after 10 s.
180. A particle of mass 1 kg starts from origin under the If the rate of change of velocity during the motion
force as shown by graph. The velocity of the is constant, then its location after 7 s will be same
particle at x = 2 m is as that after
!"%&'
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
!"
187. A particle moves along x-axis as:
x = 4(t – 2) + a(t – 2)2
#%('
! # $ Which of the following is true?
(1) '( )*+, (2) #( )*+, (1) The initial velocity of particle is 4
(2) The acceleration of particle is 2a
(3) !" #$%& (4) 40 m/s
(3) The particle is at origin at t = 0
181. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It was observed
(4) All of these
at a height h twice at time 2 s and 8 s. The initial
velocity of the ball is 188. A body is thrown vertically upward with an
unknown speed. Distance travelled by the body in
(1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
last 3 second of upward motion is (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 50 m/s (4) 100 m/s
(1) 45 m (2) 20 m
182. Two cars are moving in the same direction with the
(3) 5 m (4) 25 m
same velocity of 30 km/h. They are separated by
a distance of 5 km. A truck moving in the opposite 189. If a particle is accelerated for a time t 1 with
direction meets two cars at an interval of 4 acceleration a1 and for time t2 with acceleration a2
minute. What is the velocity of the truck? then average acceleration is
(1) 30 km/h (2) 45 km/h $! $# !!"! !" ""
(1) (2) " " "!
(3) 60 km/h (4) 65 km/h !
183. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration along !!"! !" " " *"! "" +*#! # " +
a straight line covers distances a and b in time p (3) "! "" (4) # " #!
and q second. The acceleration of the particle is
190. A particle is moving with a velocity of
!"! ! " " !"!" #$ # v = (3 + 6t) cms –1 . The displacement of the
(1) (2)
#!#! $" " $"" $ " # particle in the interval t = 0 s to t = 5 s is
!" #$ !"#$ !" # (1) 75 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) (4)
"$! " $ " $"" $ " # (3) 50 cm (4) 90 cm
191. A body is thrown vertically upward with 62 m/s. (1) 0.2 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s
Distance travelled by the body in 7th second is (3) 0.75 m/s (4) 1.0 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2)
198. A car is moving on a straight line whose velocity
(1) 3.2 m (2) 3.4 m
varies with time as shown. If car starts from origin
(3) 3 m (4) 3.6 m at t = 0. The displacement of car with time is
roughly represented by
192. Two bodies are held separated by 9.8 m vertically
one above the other. They are released
")./*+
simultaneously to fall freely under gravity from a
large height. After 2 s the relative distance between 1
them is
%
(1) 4.9 m (2) 19.6 m
&" '" ("
!)*+
(3) 9.8 m (4) 27.2 m )",-"+ !" #" $" %"
0-%-
193. A body is fired upwards. At half the maximum
height, the velocity of the body is 10 m/s. The
maximum height attained by body is (g = 10 m/s2) ").+
(1) 100 m (2) 10 m

(3) 15 m (4) 20 m (1)
194. A biker at rest sees a bus 1 km ahead of him !)*+
)",-"+ !" #" $" %" &" '" ("
moving with a speed of 10 m/s. With what
").+
constant speed should he move so as to overtake
the bus in 100 s?
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(2)
(3) 50 m/s (4) 30 m/s !)*+
)",-"+ !" #" $" %" &" '" ("
195. A body is projected vertically upwards from ground.
").+
The times corresponding to height h while
ascending and descending are t 1 and t 2
respectively. Then the velocity of projection is
(3)
$ #!#" $ *#! # " + !)*+
(1) (2) )",-"+ !" #" $" %" &" '" ("
" "
").+
!"!""
(3) ! "!" " (4) " "
! "
(4)
196. Acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph of a particle
!)*+
started from rest is as shown in figure )",-"+ !" #" $" %" &" '" ("
! 199. The velocity v of an object varies with its position

x on a straight line as % ( & . Its acceleration
$
versus time (a-t) graph is best represented by
%
! !
#
"
Which point velocity of the particle is maximum? (1) (2)
(1) A (2) B " "
(3) C (4) All of these
! !
197. A car moving along a straight line (without
returning) travels distance in every second equal to
the numerical value of time elapsed. If car starts
(3) (4)
at t = 0 with constant acceleration, the magnitude
of initial velocity of the car is " "
200. A train can accelerate and retard at 3 m/s2 and 205. Starting from rest, a particle accelerates at the rate
6 m/s2 respectively. Shortest time interval in which of 6 m/s 2 and then decelerates at the rate of
train can make a journey between two stations 3 m/s2 and finally comes to rest after travelling a
1600 m apart is distance of 16 m along a straight path. The
maximum possible speed of the particle during its
(1) 10 s
journey can be
(2) 20 s (1) 8 m/s (2) 16 m/s
(3) 30 s (3) 12 m/s (4) 14 m/s
(4) 40 s 206. A uniformly accelerating train crosses a signal. If
the engine passes the signal with velocity v and
201. Two trains P and Q each of length 100 m are
the middle of the train passes with a velocity 3v,
moving on parallel tracks at 72 kmph and 90 kmph
then the velocity with which end of the train will
respectively in the same direction. Initially Q is 1
pass the signal is given by
km behind P. Time after which Q completely
overtakes P is (1) !" #! (2) $ %#!
(1) 245 minute
(3) 9 v (4) !& #!
(2) 4 minute
207. The equation of motion of a particle initially at rest
(3) 4 second is given as x3 = 8t. The velocity of the particle at
(4) 4 hour t=8s
202. A man covers one third of a distance with 60 ! !

kmph, next one-third distance with 20 kmph and (1) "#$% (2) $%&
& ,"
last one-third distance with 10 kmph. His average
speed of the entire journey is !
!
(3) "#$ (4) "#$
(1) 30 kmph %& %
(2) 26 kmph 208. The motion of a particle is described as a = 4v.
(3) 22 kmph The x-t graph for this motion is given by
(4) 18 kmph ! !
203. A particle is thrown vertically upward from ground
at 55 m/s. Distance travelled by the body in 6th
(1) (2)
second is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.5 m " "
(2) 5 m
! !
(3) 10 m
(4) 1.25 m
(3) (4)
204. In the graph given below, the rate of change of y
w.r.t. x is " "
! 209. From the top of a tower, if a ball is thrown upward
with some speed, it reaches the ground in 9 s. If
the ball is thrown vertically downward with same
speed, it takes 4 s to reach the ground. What is
the speed of ball just before touching the ground
" when dropped from the top of this tower?
(1) Increases continuously (1) 44.2 m/s
(2) Decreases continuously (2) 38.8 m/s
(3) Decreases and then becomes zero (3) 59.2 m/s
(4) Increases and then becomes zero (4) 58.8 m/s
210. Which of the following graphs correctly represents 216. Which of the following is incorrect about the
motion of a particle along x-axis?
the equation ! !" ?
! !" !"
!
!
!
! (1) !" # !"# " !
!# ! !#
(1) (2) ! !" !"

(2) !"# !"# " !
" !# ! !#
"
! !
! !" !"
! ! (3) !
!" # !"# " !
!# !#
(3) (4) ! !" !"

(4) !" # !"# " !
" " !# ! !#
217. The equation for velocity - time graph shown below

211. The mean value of !"# ! is is
!!
!"!"#$%
(1) 1 (2) 2 &'
! #"!$%
(3) (4)
(
212. The velocity of a particle moving along y-axis is
given by ! ! !" ! . The time after which the (1) 2v + t = 5
particle starts retracing its own path is
(2) v + 2t = 5
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 2v + t = 10
! ! (4) v + 2t = 10
(3) " (4) "
# $
!" ! !"
! 218. The value of and at A is given by
" !# !# !
213. !# !"#$% ! #$%" ! &'"! is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2 !
(3) 3 (4) 0 #
214. The minimum value of 2sinx + cosx is

(1) –2 (2) 0
"
(3) –3 (4) ! "
!" !#
() (1) !" # !
215. At which point (s) the value of (? !$ !$
($
& !" !#
" (2) !"# !
!$ !$
%
! '
# !" !#
(3) !"# !
$ !$ !$
(1) A (2) B
!" !#
(4) !"# !
(3) C (4) Both (1) & (3) !$ !$
219. Starting from rest, if a car accelerates uniformly at 224. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its velocity
the rate of 1 m/s 2 for some time and then
! !"
decelerates uniformly at the rate of 2 m/s2 and varies with time t as " !" # # $ . At t = 0 particle
finally comes to rest after a journey of 1 minute. % !&
The maximum possible speed of the car during is at origin. Select correct position (x) - time (t) plot
this journey is for the particle
(1) 10 m/s #
(2) 20 m/s
"
(1) !"#$%
(3) 30 m/s !
(4) 40 m/s
220. A bullet comes out of the barrel of gun of length #
2 m with a speed of 600 m/s. The average
acceleration of the bullet is
(2)
(1) 90 km/s2 !"#$%
! "
(2) 180 km/s2
#
(3) 60 km/s2
(4) 30 km/s2
221. A particle is moving along a straight line such that (3)
its position varies with time t as !"#$%
! "
! # ! $" #
" ! '! "#$ % & ( (where x is its position in
+ ) *,
metre, t is time in s, and is a positive constant). (4)
The particle comes to rest at !"#$%
! "
(1) # 225. The position of a particle moving along x-axis varies
" with time as x = t – sin t, where x is in metre and t
in second. Which of the following value of velocity of
the particle is not possible?
(2) #
) (1) 1.6 m/s (2) 0.86 m/s
(3) t = (3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.4 m/s
(4) t = 0 226. A particle is thrown vertically upward with initial
222. A particle is moving along x-axis so that its velocity velocity v0. A second particle is also thrown vertically
is given as v = (x2 + x + 4) m/s, where x is in m. The upwards with velocity v0, T second later the first
acceleration of the particle at x = 1.5 m is particle. They will meet at time t (from the projection
of first particle) which is equal to
(1) 21 m/s2
!!
(2) 26 m/s2 (1) "
#
(3) 28 m/s2
(4) 31 m/s2 ! !! "
(2) #% # !" $
223. A body is thrown vertically upward with a unknown &
velocity. Distance travelled by it in its last second of
upward motion is (g = 10 m/s2) ! !! "
(3) #% # !" $
(1) 10 m &
(2) 5 m
! !! ""
(3) 15 m (4) #% # ! $&
(4) 20 m
227. A projectile is thrown vertically upward with some
initial speed such that it is at height h (< hmax) at
SECTION - B
time t1 and t2, then the height h is given by Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) ' "*#! # " + $ In the following questions, a statement of assertion
! !!!"
(2) " "!! ! " #
#
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
!!!" assertion, then mark (1).
(3) " #
!
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
! !!! "
(4) " # assertion, then mark (2).
!! !"
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
228. A body is projected with speed 55 m/s vertically false, then mark (3).
upward. The distance travelled by the body in time
interval t1 = 4 s to t2 = 8 s is (g = 10 m/s2) (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
(1) 20 m (2) 31.25 m
(3) 11.25 m (4) 42.50 m 1. A : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity
is zero.
229. Speed-time graph of a particle is given below
R : A body may have non-zero acceleration while
!"##$ having a constant velocity.
2. A : Average speed cannot be negative.
R : The average speed is the ratio of distance
covered and the time taken.
!
3. A : If a body is projected vertically upward then the
then velocity-time graph will be rate of change of its velocity is constant during
! its flight.
R : The average acceleration of the body during its
(1) total journey is zero.
!
4. A : If the relative velocity of A with respect to B is
zero then both A and B must be at rest.
R : Two bodies having different speeds may have
! zero relative velocity.
5. A : A body may have non-zero acceleration, even
(2) ! if its velocity is zero.
R : Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
6. A : A body is moving along positive x-axis with an
acceleration which is directed along positive x-
! axis but whose magnitude is decreasing with
time then speed of particle must decrease.
R : When magnitude of acceleration decreases it
(3) ! behaves like retardation.
7. A : Without mentioning the observer, there is no
meaning of rest or motion.
R : Motion of a body is defined only with respect
(4) All of these to an observer.
8. A : A moving body may have zero distance 9. A : Average speed is greater than or equal to
covered during a time interval. magnitude of average velocity.
R : If body returns to original position then R : Distance is greater than or equal to
distance covered by the body becomes zero. magnitude of displacement.
!" !" !
Chapter 3
Motion in a Plane
4. An oblique projectile is projected with a speed u.

SECTION - A
It takes time t1 to reach maximum height and time
Objective Type Questions t2 to come back to the ground. Air resistance is not
1. A man start from point ‘P’ and goes 20 m due east !
neglected then ! is
then 5 m due North, then 35 m due west and finally !"
25 m due South. His displacement from point ‘P’ (1) > 1
is (2) < 1
!!" (3) = 1
(1) 25 m at "#$ ! # $ South of West
%%& (4) Depends on angle of projection
(2) 85 m at South West
5. A ladder rests against a smooth vertical wall as
!! %"
shown in figure. The floor is also smooth. Mass of
(3) 25 m at "#$ # $ South of West ladder is 75 kg. If upper end A is moving with
%!&
velocity v vertically downward, then the horizontal
!! %" velocity of lower end B is
(4) 25 m at "#$ # $ West of South
%!& "
2. An aircraft is flying horizontally at a height of 1 km
from the ground with a speed of 200 m/s. An anticraft !"# !
missile launcher kept at a point on the ground which
is in the vertical plane of the motion of aircraft. #
Muzzle velocity of missile is 600 m/s. The missile
$"#
is fired at a time when the aircraft was vertically
above the anticraft missile launcher. At what angle !
(1) v (2) !
with horizontal should it be fired so as to hit the "
aircraft? ! !!
(3) ! (4)
" "
!!"
(1) "#$ ! # $ 6. Two forces f1 and f2 are such that their vector sum
%%&
and difference are at right angle. The angle between
! !" the forces may be
(2) "#$ ! # $
%%& (1) 0º (2) 360º
(3) tan–1(3)
(3) 90º (4) 180º
(4) Just vertically upward
7. Which of the following sets of concurrent forces
3. A man can throw a stone to a maximum height ‘h’. may be in equilibrium?
The greatest horizontal distance upto which he can (1) F1 = 2 N, F2 = 5 N, F3 = 9 N
throw the stone is
(2) F1= 3 N, F2 = 6 N, F3 = 8 N
(1) h (2) 2h
(3) F1 = 4 N, F2 = 6 N, F3 = 12 N
!
(3) (4) 4h (4) F1 = 5 N, F2 = 10 N, F3 = 4 N
!
42 Motion in a Plane Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
8. The speed of a projectile projected from a level 11. A projectile thrown at an angle 30° with horizontal
ground at its maximum height is found to be half of from level ground reaches to maximum height 20
its speed of projection (u). Its maximum height is m. What will be the maximum height if it is thrown
at an angle 60° with same speed?
!! ! !! !
(1) (2) (1) 20 m (2) 30 m
"" #"
(3) 50 m (4) 60 m
!! ! !! !
(3) (4) 12. A body moving in uniform circular motion with
"" $" speed v, the magnitude of change in its velocity
9. A body moved along x axis and y-axis according after it rotate by an angle 120° is
to equation
(1) 2v (2) !!
x = 2 sin
y = 3 cos ! !
(3) v (4)
What is the trajectory followed by the body? "
" " 13. A car moves on a circular path such that its speed
! is given by v = Kt, where K = constant and t is
!" time, the radius of circular path is r, then net
(1) ! (2) ! acceleration of the car at time t is
"# # #$ !$
#" !
"! ! ! !" ! "
(1) !! ## $$ (2) 2K
"
"
% # &
" !
(3) K (4) !! ! !" !
(3) ! (4) !
!" " #" $ " 14. An object of mass 10 kg is projected from level
ground with speed 40 m/s at angle 30° with
!" horizontal. The rate of change of momentum of
10. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity at object [in SI units] 1 second after the projection is
an angle with the horizontal into a uniform [neglect air resistance]
gravitational field. The slope of the trajectory varies (1) 100 (2) 50
with horizontal distance x as
(3) 25 (4) 75
!"#$%
15. A particle is projected horizontally with speed
20 m/s from a cliff of height 20 m. The magnitude
(1) of velocity of particle when it reaches ground
! (1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
!"#$% (3) !" ! m/s (4) Zero

16. Which is true for given figure?
(2) #
! "
!"#$% !
! ! ! ! ! !
(1) ! " # (2) ! " #
(3) !" !" !"
(3) ! " # (4) All of these
!
17. A unit vector found which is perpendicular to both
!"#$% ! "! " #! #$! and ! "! " !# #$! is
!! "! "#! # "! $#!
(4) (1) (2)
# %"
!
" !! #"! "!! !"
(3) (4)
$% #
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Motion in a Plane 43
18. A projectile thrown with initial velocity 20 m/s at an 24. Rain drops are falling with speed v vertically down
angle 60° with horizontal, then angle of velocity of and a man is running on a horizontal road with
projectile with horizontal after time 0.732 s is speed u. The magnitude of velocity of the rain
(1) 45° (2) 30° drops with respect to the man is
(1) v – u (2) v + u
(3) 0° (4) 15°
19. If a r and a t represent radial and tangential !! "!
accelerations, then the motion of particle will be
(3)
!
(4) ! ! "!
uniformly circular for 25. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane flying
(1) ar = 0, at = 0 horizontally. The path of the bomb as seen by the
pilot will be (neglect air friction)
(2) ar = 0, at 0
(1) A straight line (2) A parabola
(3) ar 0, at = 0
(3) An ellipse (4) A hyperbola
(4) ar 0, at 0
26. The range of a bullet fired from a gun at an angle
20. A helicopter flies from a city A to B. The line joining
! "
A and B is along north-south and its length is 100 ## $ with the horizontal is same as the range
km. The speed of the helicopter is kept 100 km/h % &
of another bullet fired from that gun at angle with
and wind blows from west to east with a speed of
the horizontal. Then,
60 km/h. The time taken by the helicopter is
(1) 0.75 h (2) 1.0 h (1) = (2)
#
(3) 1.25 h (4) 1.33 h
21. Four particles lie initially at the corners of a square (3) (4)
" "
of side length L. All the particles start to move with 27. A projectile is projected with speed 20 m/s making
speed v. A moves towards B, B moves towards C, an angle 60° with the horizontal. The speed when
C moves towards D and D moves towards A. The
its direction of motion makes an angle 30° with the
distance covered by a particle till they meet, is
horizontal is (g = 10 m/s2)
! #
!"
(1) #$% (2) !" # $%&
% &
!"
" $ (3) '" # $%& (4) #$%
&
! 28. Two particles are thrown from ground with same
(1) (2) L
! speed for same horizontal range R on different
paths. If T1 and T2 are their time of flight, then
(3) !! (4) 2L T1T2 is
22. A boat can move with maximum speed of 10 m/s ! !!
in still water. If speed of river water is 5 m/s, then (1) (2)
" "
in how much minimum time the boat can cross the
river of width 500 m?
#! !! !
&'' (3) (4)
(" $! "!
(1) (2) 50 s
)
29. A ball is projected with velocity 5 m/s at an angle
(3) 100 s (4) 150 s
of 60° with horizontal from ground. The speed of
23. A particle is thrown at an angle of projection the ball at the instant when its velocity is
= 45°, with speed u. The average velocity of the perpendicular to its initial direction of motion is
particle during its ground to ground flight is
(g = 10 m/s2)
!
(1) !! (2) )
! (1) m/s (2) 5 m/s
*
"
(3) (4) Zero (3) " ! m/s (4) 10 m/s
!
30. A boy runs on a circular track of radius R (in km) 36. A particle is revolving in a circular path of radius
! 200 m at a speed of 20 m/s. Its speed is
with speed of km/h in clockwise sense for 3 h increasing at the rate of 2
! " m/s . Its
acceleration is
and then R km/h in anticlockwise sense for 1 h.
The magnitude of his displacement will be (1) 2 m/s2 (2) # m/s
2
! ! (3) 3 m/s2 (4) " m/s

2
(1) (2)
! ! 37. Ratio of maximum height attained by two
projectiles of same mass is 25 : 9. The ratio of
! " their minimum kinetic energy is 4 : 9. The ratio of
(3) (4) !!
# their ranges is
31. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by (1) 25 : 4 (2) 10 : 9
y = x – 10x 2 . Its speed of projection is
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
[g = 10 m/s2]
38. If a particle moving in a circular orbit with constant
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
speed, then
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(1) Its velocity is variable
32. Two projectiles P and Q are projected with same
(2) Its acceleration is variable
speed at angles 60° and 30° with horizontal on
level ground then [R = Range, T = Time of flight, (3) Its angular momentum is constant
H = Maximum height] (4) All of these
(1) RP = 2 RQ (2) TP = ! !
! TQ 39. If is the angle between vectors ! and ! , then
(3) HQ = 3 HP (4) All of these which of the following is the unit vector
! !
33. A body is projected with same speed at two perpendicular to ! and " ?
different angles covers the same horizontal
distance R. If T1 and T2 are two time of flights, then #+ $+ #+ $+
(1) (2)
R is equal to #$ "#$ #$ ,-"
!"!"" ! ! ! !
(1) (2) 2 gT1T2 " # " #
! (3) (4)
"# #$% "# &'#
! !
!" " !
" " ! 40. Which of the following is not true, if " "$! # !%
(3) (4) ! !"!""
"" "! !
and ! $$! % %! where A and B are the magnitude
34. A body starts moving from rest on a horizontal ! !
of ! !"#$!" ?
ground such that the position vector of the body
with respect to its starting point is given by ! !
(1) # $
!
$
! !" #! "" !$ . The equation of trajectory of
! !
! !
body is (2)
" "
(1) y = 1.5 x (2) y = 0.75 x2
! !
(3) y = 1.5 x2 (4) y = 0.45 x2 (3) #%$ "&
35. A particle starts moving with constant acceleration (4) A = 5
with initial velocity !! ! !" "#$ . After 4 second 41. In a uniform circular motion
(1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant
its velocity becomes ! !! " !" m/s. The (2) Acceleration and speed are constant but
magnitude of its displacement in 4 second is velocity change
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) Both acceleration and velocity changes
(3) 15 m (4) 20 m (4) Both acceleration and speed are constant
42. The relative velocity of a car P with respect to Q 50. A body is projected horizontally with speed u from
is !" ! m/s North-East. The velocity of car Q is a tower of height h. The magnitude of velocity with
which it will collide with ground will be
40 m/s due south. The velocity of car P is
[g is acceleration due to gravity]
(1) 20 m/s East
(1) !!" (2) ! !"#
(2) !" ! m/s South-East
(3) 20 m/s West (3) ! ! !"# (4) !
!
!"#
(4) !" ! m/s North-West 51. Two persons starts moving along two cross roads
43. A projectile is projected with initial kinetic energy with same speed 5 m/s. One in the direction of
k. If it has kinetic energy 0.25 k at its highest north and other is in the direction of east as in
point, then angle of projection is figure. Angular velocity of A with respect to B is
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 75°
44. A body is projected from ground at an angle 30°
with horizontal. The instantaneous velocity of the ! "
body becomes perpendicular to initial velocity
during its motion !"#$
(1) Once (2) Twice
(3) Thrice (4) Never (1) 0.5 m/s (2) Zero
45. Which of the following quantity is not a vector (3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2 m/s
quantity?
52. Two ball are projected along the same initial line
(1) Tension (2) Angular momentum from a height h = 20 m. The direction of
(3) Speed (4) Linear momentum projections are horizontal. If initial speeds are
!"
! #" ! ## " $!
20 m/s and 25 m/s, the maximum separation
46. The angle made by the vector !
between the balls when they will hit the ground is
with y-axis is
(1) 40 m (2) 50 m
! * ! !
(1) "#$ (2) "#$ (3) 10 m (4) 90 m
&. %
53. When a projectile of mass 2 kg projected from the
!! !!
top of a tower of height 20 m with velocity 10 m/s
(3) "#$ (4) "#$
% % in horizontal direction, then angular momentum
47. A particle moving towards east with a velocity of about the lowermost point of tower when it touches
20 m/s. In 20 s it changes its velocity to 60° north the ground
of east, its average acceleration will be (1) 600 kg m2/s (2) 400 kg m2/s
(1) ! m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 800 kg m2/s (4) Zero
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2 54. Position of the particle varies according to the
48. In uniform circular motion which of the following equation x = 3t 2, y = 2t and z = 4t + 4, then
physical quantity remains constant? which of the following is incorrect
(1) Angular velocity (2) Angular momentum (1) Velocity in y and z direction are constant
(3) Angular speed (4) All of these (2) Acceleration in x direction is non-uniform
"! !# m/
! (3) Acceleration in x direction is uniform
49. A body is projected with velocity !
s. The time of flight of body is [considering x as (4) Motion is not in a straight line
horizontal and y as vertical axis and g is 55. The three coordinates of a particle changes
acceleration due to gravity] according to the equations x = 3t2, y = 2t, z = 4,
then magnitude of velocity of the particle at time
! !
(1) (2) t = 1 second is
! !
(1) ! "" #$%& (2) '( #$%&
! !
(3) (4)
! ! (3) 40 unit (4) ! "# $%&'
56. In the space, if sum of vectors of unequal 62. In projectile motion, accelerations of the projectile
magnitude is zero, then minimum number of when it is gaining height and losing height
vectors are respectively are
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) g upward, g upward
(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) g upward, g downward
57. Two bodies of equal masses are projected, one from (3) g downward, g downward
top of tower in horizontal direction and other from (4) g downward, g upward
foot of tower at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, 63. A person, who can swim with speed u relative to
then acceleration of their centre of mass is water, wants to cross a river (of width d and water
is flowing with speed v). Minimum time in which
$
(1) downward (2) g downward the person can do so is
"
% "
(1) (2)
! ! " ! !
! ! "
(3) downward (4) upward # #
! !
(3) ! ! (4) !
" ! " !!
58. In uniform circular motion speed of particle is !
2 m/s and radius of circle is 2 m, then the value of 64. Position vector of a particle ! as function of time
centripetal and tangential acceleration are !
t (in second) is % $## " " $! $## ! " " !! . The initial
respectively acceleration of the particle is
(1) 2 m/s2, 2 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2, 1 m/s2 (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
2
(3) 0, 2 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2 , 0 (3) 4 m/s (4) Zero
59. A projectile is projected at an angle of 60° from 65. A particle is projected on a horizontal surface with
horizontal. At an instant it is moving at an angle of kinetic energy K at an angle with the vertical.
30° with horizontal with velocity 10 m/s. The radial Kinetic energy of the particle at the highest point
acceleration of particle at that instant is of trajectory is
(1) K (2) Zero
!" ! &' ! (3) K cos 2 (4) K sin2
(1) #$% (2) /0"
& * 66. Velocity and acceleration vectors of a particle
moving on a circular path are shown here. At the
(3) !" # $%&! (4) ! " #$%! instant shown
60. Initial velocity of a projectile is given by

!
!
! "#$"! %$ #! &$$! '()*+ . If acceleration due to "
!
gravity is g = 10 !! m/s 2, then the time after
which projectile return to the same horizontal level (1) The speed of the particle must be decreasing
is (axis system is
(2) Acceleration of particle must be increasing in
"
magnitude
! !
(3) Dot product of " and ! is positive
! (4) Magnitude of momentum of the particle must
be increasing in magnitude
#
67. Two blocks A and B are connected by a light string
(1) 4 s (2) 10 s
as shown in figure. The force exerted by the string
(3) 14 s (4) 12 s on the block B is
61. Two cars A and B are moving with constant " #
velocities 10 m/s east and 40 m/s west !!"!#$!%
&'( #'(
respectively. The acceleration of A with respect to
B is
)*++,-
(1) 20 ms–2 west (2) 50 ms–2 west (1) 20 N (2) 15 N
(3) 50 ms–2 east (4) Zero (3) 12 N (4) 8 N
68. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum 75. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect
horizontal distance of 50 m. How much high above regarding the motion in a plane?
the ground can he throw the same ball? (1) A body can’t move on a curved path with
(1) 50 m (2) 25 m constant acceleration
(3) 75 m (4) 100 m (2) The angle between acceleration and velocity
69. Coordinates of a particle as a function of time t are can be 90°
x = 2t, y = 4t. Path of the particle is a/an (3) The angle between acceleration and velocity
(1) Straight line (2) Ellipse can be other than 90°
(3) Parabola (4) Hyperbola (4) All of the above
70. A particle is moving with speed v on a circle (of 76. A body started moving with initial velocity 4 m/s
radius r and centered at origin) as shown in the along east and acceleration 1 m/s2 along north.
given figure, in anticlockwise fashion. Average Velocity of the body just after 4 s is
acceleration of the particle during its motion from
point A to point B is (1) 8 m/s along East
" (2) " # m/s along North-East
" (3) 8 m/s along North
(4) " # m/s along South-East

# !
! 77. Radius vector of a particle moving on a circle is given
# !
by & $ %&" # " %! $ "#$ # " !! (A and B are
constants). Radius of the circle and speed of the
particle, respectively, are
"!
$$ ! " $$ ! " (1) A, AB (2) "1
(1) #" "! ! (2) #" !"! !
# #
"!
$$ ! " " !' ! $ $ (3) B, AB (4) !1
!
(3) #" ! ! (4) %% $ #
# & 78. For a particle projected on horizontal surface, the
71. When a man walks on a horizontal road with ratio of range to maximum height is ( is Angle of
velocity 1 km/h, the rain appears to him coming projection with respect to horizontal)
vertical at a speed of 2 km/h. The actual speed of
(1) 4 cot (2) 4 tan
the rain w.r.t ground is
(3) 0.25 cot (4) 0.25 sin
(1) ! km/h (2) " km/h 79. A particle is projected on an incline of inclination
(3) 1 km/h (4) 3 km/h 45º as shown in the given figure. Acceleration of
! ! ! !
72. If # $ is perpendicular to # $ the particle at its highest point is
! ! ! !
(1) ' # ' ' $ ' (2) " !
! ! ! ! ! ! *+#
(3) # %$ zero (4) # " ! "$# " ! " !
73. Path of a projectile as seen from another projectile !"#
is
$%&'()
(1) Straight (2) Circular
(
(3) Hyperbolic (4) Parabolic (1) g (2)
#
74. At an instant velocity and acceleration of a
! "!
particle moving in x – y plane are #'( ! (& m/s and (3) (4)
! !
#"! " !! m/s2. Rate of change of speed of the 80. The angle between the two vectors $ ##! " "! !!
particle at this instant is and '( # (& ) ")( is
(1) !" m/s2 (2) –1 m/s2 (1) 0° (2) 90°
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) Zero (3) 180° (4) 45°
81. Two projectiles, one fired from the surface of the 87. For a particle moving in a plane which of the following
earth with speed 5 m/s and the other fired from the
surface of a planet with initial speed 3 m/s with is always correct? (The vectors ! , ! and !
some angle of project, trace identical trajectories. respectively represent velocity, acceleration and
Neglecting friction effect the value of acceleration force.)
due to gravity on the planet is
(1) ! . ! > 0 (2) ! . ! > 0
(1) 5.9 m/s2 (2) 3.5 m/s2
(3) ! . ! > 0 (4) All of these
(3) 16.3 m/s2 (4) 8.5 m/s2
88. The position vector of a particle is
82. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of
radius 10 m with a constant speed 10 m/s. A
" = (a sin t) !! – (a cos t) &( . The velocity of
plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car
by a light rigid rod of length 1 metre. The angle the particle is
made by the rod with the track is (1) Parallel to position vector
(1) Zero (2) 30° (2) At 60° with position vector
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) Parallel to acceleration vector
83. A projectile is projected from origin of a co-ordinate (4) Perpendicular to position vector
system with initial velocity of &"$ % $! !"# 89. Which of the following angles of projections will
provide maximum range to a projectile when
considering y-axis along vertical. The equation of projected with same speed in all cases?
its trajectory is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 37° (2) 54°
(1) 6y = 4x – 5x2
(3) 42° (4) 49°
(2) 5y = 6x – 4x2
90. If a body is projected from the surface of earth for
(3) 4y = 6x – 5x2 maximum range R, then the maximum height
(4) 6y = 5x – 4x2 attained by body is
84. During the downward motion of an oblique projectile !

(1) R (2)
from top point of its trajectory, the radius of !
curvature of its trajectory will !
(3) 4R (4)
(1) Remain constant !
(2) Increase 91. A projectile is projected from ground with velocity
v 0 at an angle with horizontal. What is the
(3) Decrease vertical component of velocity of projectile when its
(4) May increase or decrease vertical displacement is equal to half of the
maximum height attained?
85. A particle is thrown obliquely at t = 0. The particle
has same K.E. at t = 5 second and at t = 9 (1) !!! "#$
second. The particle attains maximum altitude at
!!
(1) t = 6 s (2) t = 7 s (2) !"#
$
(3) t = 8 s (4) t = 14 s !!
(3) !"#
86. A particle of mass m is thrown at t = 0 with kinetic $
energy K0 at an angle 30° with the horizontal from
the top of a tower of height 80 m. The particle (4) ! "!
again has kinetic energy K0 after time t0. The t0 is 92. A projectile is projected with speed 60 m/s at an
equal to angle 60° from the horizontal. After some time
projectile is moving at angle 30° with horizontal, what
!# " #" ! !
(1) (2) is value of ! " ! at this instant? (Given g = 10 m/s2)
!" !
!" ! !#
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) ! " m/s2
+" +"
(3) (4) )
#*( ! "*( ! (3) m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
*
93. A particle is rotating with increasing speed on a 99. A body is projected from ground at speed v at an
circular track. The angle between its radius vector angle above horizontal. Radius of curvature of its
and acceleration is , then path at the highest point is
(1) 0° < < 90° (2) 45° < < 90°
! ! !"#!
(3) 90° < < 180° (4) = 90° (1)
$$
94. A particle starts moving on a circular path from the
rest, such that its tangential acceleration varies
! !"#
(2)
with time as at = kt. Distance travelled by particle "
on the circular path in time t is
! !"#!
! ! (3)
"# !" $
(1) (2)
" !
! ! !"#!
"#! !
!" (4)
(3) (4) $
# ! 100. A particle is projected from the origin with velocity
95. A projectile is thrown from the ground has "#!! $ "!% m/s. The acceleration in the region is
horizontal range R. If velocity at highest point is
doubled somehow the new range will be constant and "# !! m/s 2 . The magnitude of
velocity after one second is
(1) 3 R (2) 1.5 R
(1) 8 m/s
(3) !" (4) 2 R
(2) !" m/s
96. Time of flights for a particle thrown for equal range
at different angles are 4 s and 3 s. Speed of (3) !# m/s
projection is
(4) #$ m/s
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
101. Speed of a boat in still water is half of velocity of
(3) 25 m/s (4) 50 m/s flow of water(v). At what angle boat should steer
97. Speed of water in a river is 4 km/h and man can with direction of flow of water, so that drift of boat
swim at 5 km/h. Minimum time taken by the man is minimum?
to cross the river of width 200 m is (1) 30° (2) 60°
! (3) 90° (4) 120°
(1) "#
$ 102. A sports car is moving with constant speed
20 m/s on a horizontal road. Its motion is recorded
! by a camera, which is at 40 m from the road as
(2) "#
$% shown. In order to focus the car, camera is to be
! rotated at angular speed equal to
(3) "#
!$ !"#$%&
!
(4) "#
$%
'"#$
98. A rod of mass m length l is moving between ',-
perpendicular smooth walls as shown. When rod is
at angle with horizontal its end A is moving right
with speed v. The speed of end B is ()$*+)
! (1) 1.000 rad/s (2) 0.500 rad/s
(3) 0.250 rad/s (4) 0.125 rad/s
% !
103. The magnitude of a vector ! is constant but it is
changing its direction continuously. The angle
!
! !"
" between ! and is
$ # !#
(1) v cot (2) v tan (1) 180° (2) 120°
(3) v cos (4) v sin (3) 90° (4) 0°
104. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius R. 108. A ball is projected at an angle with horizontal.
When particle moves from point A to B (angle ), Angle of elevation of ball when it is at highest point
the ratio of distance to that of magnitude of is
displacement is
!"# ./,
" (1) (2)
$ #
#
%&'
(3) (4) 2 tan
! $
109. When a force (of magnitude) F acts on a body of
mass m the acceleration produced in the body is
a. If three coplaner forces of equal magnitude F
acts on the same body as shown in figure, then
(1) (2) acceleration produced is
!"# !"#$
$ ! ! !
!"#$
!"#$
(3) (4)
!"#$ !"#
! $
!
105. Two particles move from A to C and A to D on a (1) Zero (2) ! " #$!
circle of radius R and diameter AB. If time taken
by both particles are same then ratio of (3) ! " #$! (4) & "!
magnitudes of their average velocity is
110. A particle is moving along a curve. Select the
# correct statement
(1) If its speed is constant, then it has no
!
$"#
"
acceleration
!"#
(2) If its speed is increasing, then the acceleration
of the particle is along its direction of motion
$ (3) If its speed is decreasing, then the
(1) 2 (2) # " acceleration of the particle is opposite to its
direction of motion
* (4) If its speed is constant its acceleration is
(3) ! (4)
! perpendicular to its velocity
! ! ! ! 111. Figure shows a rod of length 5 m. Its ends A and
106. If ! # $ "# then which of the following B are restrained to move in horizontal and vertical
statements is incorrect? guides. When the end A is 3 m above O, it moves
! ! ! at 4 m/s. Velocity of end B at that instant is
(1) !!"" "#$%"# must each be a null vector
#
! !
(2) The magnitude of ! " equals to the !"
! $"#"
magnitude of ! !"#"
!
(3) The magnitude of ! can never be greater than
!!
! ! $ "
the sum of the magnitudes of , *+,-*-
(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s
! ! !
(4) ! must lie in the plane of , *+,-*- (3) 4 m/s (4) 0.20 m/s
112. A man can row a boat with 8 km/h in still water.
107. A particle moves on the curve x2 = 2y. Angle of its
He is crossing a river of width 8 km, where the
! &" speed of water flow is 4 km/h. What direction
velocity vector with x-axis at the point # &1 $ will
% !& should he head the boat to cross the river in
be shortest time?
(1) 30° (2) 60° (1) 30° with the current (2) 60° with the current
(3) 90° with the current (4) 120° with the current
(3) 45° (4) 75°
113. Horizontal range of a particle thrown from ground 118. Three forces each of magnitude 1 N act along the
is four times the maximum height. Angle of sides AB, BC and CD of a regular hexagon.
projection with vertical is Magnitude of their resultant is
(1) 60° (2) 30° & $
(3) 45° (4) 90°

114. A particle is moving 30° north of east with speed ! %
6 m/s. After 3 s the particle is found to be moving
along north with same speed. The magnitude of
average acceleration in this interval of time is
" #
#$ (1) 4 N (2) Zero
!
(3) 2 N (4) 1 N
!
119. If unit vector $% is rotated through an angle of 45°
!"#
#% anticlockwise, then new vector obtained is
" (1) "#!! #$# "#"! (2) "!! "#"""!
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2
(3) Zero (4) 2 m/s2 ! " ! " & + & +
(3) #! #$ #" (4) (! (2 ("
% % ! !
115. A particle is thrown with a velocity 40 m/s.
If it passes A and B as shown in figure at time 120. A particle is thrown from ground with a speed
t1 = 1 s and t2 = 3 s. The value of h is 20 m/s at an angle 60° above horizontal. Average
% velocity over its entire journey just before hitting
the ground is
$ # (1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
"
(3) Zero (4) 15 m/s
! !
!"# 121. A person can throw a ball upto a maximum
&
horizontal range of 400 m. Maximum height to
(1) 15 m (2) 10 m
which he can throw the ball is
(3) 30 m (4) 20 m (1) 200 m (2) 100 m
116. At a certain moment, the angle between velocity (3) 150 m (4) 250 m
! !
vector ! and the acceleration ! of a particle is 122. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius
greater than 90°. What can be inferred about its 1 m with a speed 10 m/s. Magnitude of change in
motion at that moment? its velocity in the interval it subtends an angle 60°
(1) It moves along a curve and its speed is at the centre is
decreasing (1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(2) It moves along a straight line and accelerated (3) !" ! m/s (4) Zero
(3) It moves along a curve and its speed is 123. A car is moving along east at 10 m/s and a bus
increasing is moving along north at 10 m/s. Velocity of car
(4) It moves along a straight line and it is with respect to the bus is along
decelerated (1) North east (2) South east
117. To a stationary man rain is falling on his back with (3) North west (4) South west
a velocity v at an angle with vertical. To make 124. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius 1m
the rain velocity perpendicular to the man, he with a constant speed of 1 m/s. Acceleration of
(1) Must move forward with a velocity vsin the particle is
(2) Must move forward with a velocity vtan &

(1) ! m/s2 (2) m/s2
(3) Must move forward with a velocity vcos !
(4) Should move in the backward direction (3) 1 m/s2 (4) Zero
125. A particle is thrown from ground at an angle with (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
horizontal. If acceleration of the particle at the
point of projection is a, then its acceleration at the )
(3) ! " m/s (4) m/s
highest point is *
(1) a sin (2) a cos 131. Rain is pouring vertically downward at a velocity of
(3) a tan (4) a 4 km/h magnitude of velocity of rain with respect to
a man running along north on a horizontal road at
126. A particle starts moving from origin in xy plane and 3 km/h is
!
its velocity after time t is given by ! ""! ##$! .
(1) 7 km/h (2) 5 km/h
The trajectory of particle is correctly shown in
figure (3) 1 km/h (4) 3 km/h
! ! !
132. Particles P and Q are at "! "#% & %$ and
!
!! ""! !# . Their velocities at these positions are
! !
(1) (2) # ! "!! % "! and !! !'( -&( respectively. If they
" " collide after one second then the value of c is
! ! (1) 1 (2) 2
" (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) (4) 133. If the block is pulled by the rope moving with
" speed v as shown, then the horizontal velocity of
the block is
127. A body A is projected vertically upwards. Another !
body B of same mass is projected at an angle of
60° with the horizontal. If both the bodies attain
same maximum height, then ratio of initial kinetic
energy of body A to that of body B is
! !
(1) (2) "
" "
& ! (1) v (2) v cos
(3) (4)
! " ! !
! ! ! ! (3) (4)
128. If ! ""! #! and ! ""! # !# , then . , = !"# #$%
134. Two projectiles are thrown at different angles but
(1) 1 %& (2) their ranges R are same. If their times of flight are
(3) 8 (4) 4 t1 and t2, then product of their times of flight t1t2
129. A particle is moving in the x-y plane such that is proportional to
x = (t2 – 2t) m and y = (2t2 – t) m, then ! &
(1) Acceleration is zero at t = 1 s (1) (2)
! "!
(2) Speed is zero at t = 0 (3) R2 (4) R
(3) Acceleration is always zero 135. A particle is projected at an angle with horizontal
(4) Speed is 3 m/s at t = 1 s with an initial speed u. When it makes an angle
130. A rod supported on the wall starts slipping down. with horizontal, its speed is
If speed vA of upper end A is 5 m/s, then the speed (1) u cos (2) u cos cos
vB with which end B will move to the left, as
shown in figure, is ! !"# ! !"#
(3) (4)
!"# !"#
136. A particle is moving with an acceleration of
" !
! "" ! #! #"$! m/s 2 . If at t = 0 its velocity is
$!
"!! !" # m/s then its velocity (in m/s) at time t = 2 s is
$%&
(1) %&$ ! %$ (2) "!! # "!
$" ! !"#
(3) '#% ( %$ (4) )#% * %$
#
! ! !
137. ! and ! are two vectors given by ! ""! # #! 144. Which of the following is not a unit vector?
! !
and ! "! #! . The component of ! parallel !! !" !! !" #!
! (1) (2)
to " is " "
! " " ! " " !! "! #!
(1) #$! % " & (2) #! $ " % (3) !! "! #! (4)
$ & "
! " " $!!# % " #" & 145. A particle is thrown from ground with a speed u at
(3) #! " $ (4) an angle above horizontal. Rate of change of
% "
velocity of the particle at the highest point of
138. It is raining at 20 m/s in still air. Now a wind starts
the path is
blowing with speed 10 m/s in north direction. If a
cyclist starts moving at 10 m/s in south direction, (1) gsin (2) gcos
then the apparent velocity of rain with respect to (3) g (4) Zero
cyclist is
146. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial
(1) 20 m/s (2) !" ! #$% velocity of 20 m/s, then the maximum height of
missile is
(3) !" # $%& (4) 30 m/s
(1) 20 m (2) 30 m
139. River of width 500 m is flowing at a speed of
(3) 10 m (4) 40 m
10 m/s. A swimmer can swim at a speed of
10 m/s in still water. If he starts swimming at an 147. Rain is pouring vertically downward with a speed
angle of 120° with flow direction, then the distance of 3 km/h. A man is running towards north with
it travels along the river while crossing the river is 4 km/h. Magnitude of velocity of rain with respect
to the man is
(1) 250 m (2) !"" # $
(1) 5 km/h (2) 7 km/h
)''
(3) / (4) 500 m (3) 1 km/h (4) 6 km/h
*
148. A vector is inclined at angles and with x, y and
140. A body of mass 2 kg is projected at a speed z axis respectively, then the value of sin2 + sin2 +
of 20 m/s from a pillar of height 40 m at an angle sin2 is equal to
of 30° with the horizontal in upward direction.
Speed with which it will hit the ground is (1) 0 (2) 1
!
(1) 30 m/s (2) !" # $%& (3) 2 (4)
"
(3) 25 m/s (4) 40 m/s !
141. Path of a projectile with respect to another 149. If !! is the unit vector in the direction ! , then
projectile so long as both remain in air is !
'#' ! !
(1) Circular (2) Parabolic (1) $" ! (2) !! " " " "
#
(3) Straight (4) Hyperbolic ! !
! !
142. A particle is thrown with velocity u making an angle (3) !
" ! !
(4) " !
"!" !
with the horizontal. It just crosses the top of two
poles each of height h after 1 s and 3 s respectively. 150. A particle is moving along a circle of radius R with
The time of flight of the particle is constant speed v0. What is magnitude of change
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s in velocity when particle goes from point A to B as
shown?
(3) 8 s (4) 6 s
143. A projectile is moving on xy plane such that
horizontal and vertical direction are along x-axis and
y-axis respectively. The projectile is fired from the !
origin at a large height with initial velocity
" #
01$"' #$ "& 2 34.5 The time after which instantaneous
velocity of the projectile becomes perpendicular to (1) $# ! '() (2) ! ! !"#
its initial velocity is $ $
(1) 7.5 s (2) 14.5 s
(3) !! ! "#$ (4) $ ! "#$
(3) 5.5 s (4) 10.5 s ! %
151. An open trolley is moving on a horizontal road with !!

constant velocity v1. A man on the trolley throws (1) vB = vP (2) ! "
!
a ball vertically upward (with respect to trolley) with
velocity v2. Select the correct statement !! !
(3) vB = 2vP (4) ! "
(1) Time of flight of the ball to a man on the *
ground and the man on the trolley will be
156. A projectile is projected from the ground with speed
different
20 m/s at an angle 30° with vertical. The radius of
(2) Maximum height attained by the ball for both curvature of the path of projectile, when velocity
men will be different makes 30° with horizontal is (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) Horizontal range of the ball for both men will be (1) 8.5 m (2) 15.4 m
different
(3) 26.2 m (4) 32.6 m
(4) Horizontal range of the ball for both men will be
same 157. A projectile is projected with speed u at an angle
152. A man rows a boat with speed 24 km/h 30° north 30° from vertical from the ground. The angle
of west direction. The shoreline makes an angle of between acceleration of projectile and its velocity
15° south of west. The component of boat velocity at time of striking the horizontal ground is
along the shoreline is (1) 30° (2) 60°
(1) $ # km/h (2) 24 cos15° km/h (3) 45° (4) 0°
(3) 24 sin15° km/h (4) 6# # km/h 158. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
153. Two stones are thrown simultaneously from the top (1) Average speed of a particle in given time
of a building horizontally but in opposite directions interval cannot be less than magnitude of
they will be moving perpendicular to each other average velocity
say after time t, then t is equal to ________ (initial
(2) It is possible to have a situation
speed of stones are u1 and u2 respectively and ! !
acceleration due to gravity is g) !" ! !" !
"#$%&# "
!# !#
/!/" !!!"
(1) (2)
(" " (3) The average velocity of a particle is zero in a
time interval, it is possible that instantaneous
!!!" !!!!" velocity is never zero in that interval
(3) " (4)
" "" (4) It is possible to have a situation in which
! !
154. Two projectile projected with same speed at angle ! !" ! !"
"#$%&'$ "
and (90 – ) from same point, then H1 × H2 is !# !#
equal to ______ (where symbols have their usual
meanings) 159. A man is walking on a horizontal road with speed
4 km/h. Suddenly rain starts vertically downward
"" "" with speed 7 km/h. The magnitude of relative
(1) (2) velocity of rain with respect to man is
67 &
(1) "" km/h (2) !" km/h
#!
(3) (4) R2
' (3) 8 km/h (4) 4 km/h
155. What is velocity of block when angle between 160. A particle of mass 6 kg moves with an initial velocity
string and horizontal is 30° as shown in the !
of ! "#"! # !# $%&'( . A constant force of
diagram?
!
" # #$ !$ %& is applied on the particle. Initially the
2/++31++!+)-456
#" particle was at (0, 0). The x-coordinate of the particle,
when its y-coordinate again becomes zero is given
by
73(08 !"!#$%
(1) 6.0 m (2) 12.8 m
!! &'(()*!+,-./01 (3) 8 m (4) 25.6 m
161. In a uniform circular motion ! !
168. If two force vectors ! !"#$!" of same magnitude
(1) Velocity and acceleration remain constant are arranged in following manner, then magnitude
of resultant is maximum for
(2) Kinetic energy remains constant
(3) Speed and acceleration changes
(I) ! (II)
!
(4) Only velocity changes, acceleration remain
constant
162. If a body is accelerating, then
!"#
(1) It must speed up " "
(2) It may move with same speed
(3) It may move with same velocity (III) !
!"#$
(4) It must speed down
"
163. How many times does a particle cross x axis if
(1) (I) (2) (II)
trajectory of particle is described by y = x2 – 2x + 1?
(3) Both (II) & (III ) (4) Both (I) & (II)
(1) 1 (2) 2
169. 5 person are standing at the vertices of a regular
(3) 3 (4) 0 pentagon of side a. Each person moves towards
164. Compared to ideal projectile motion under gravity, the person standing at the adjacent corner with
which of the following is incorrect regarding another same speed v. Then the persons
projectile motion in which air-friction is also (1) Meet at the centre of pentagon at time
considered?
!
"
(1) Time of flight decreases # !" #$%&' (
(2) Decrease in horizontal component of velocity (2) Meet at the centre of pentagon after covering
continuously !
distance
(3) Angle with horizontal is less at the time of ! "#$%&
striking the ground compared to angle of (3) Never meet
projection with horizontal
!
(4) Angle with vertical is less at the time of (4) Meet at the centre of pentagon after time
"
striking the ground with respect to angle of
170. A particle revolves in a horizontal circle with
projection with vertical
decreasing velocity. The angle between
165. Two balls are projected to acquire same range with instantaneous velocity and instantaneous
same initial speed u. If maximum height acquired acceleration of particle at an instant is
by balls are H1 and H2 then (H1 + H2) is (angle of
(1) < 90° (2) > 90°
projection of one projectile is )
(3) = 90° (4) 90°
(1) tan2 (2) cot2
171. A particle is thrown horizontally from a pole of
!! height 500 m with initial speed of 50 m/s. The
(3) (4) tan distance between foot of pole and striking point of
!"
particle on ground is (g = 10 m/s2)
166. At the highest point of trajectory in ground to
ground projectile the angle between gravitational (1) 100 m (2) 250 m
acceleration and momentum is (3) 500 m (4) 1000 m
(1) 30° (2) 45° 172. Two projectiles are thrown horizontally from a high
(3) 90° (4) Data insufficient cliff in opposite direction with same speed 20 m/
s simultaneously. At what time velocities of both
167. Which of the following sets of forces cannot give particles become perpendicular?
zero resultant?
(1) ! ! " (2) 2 s
(1) 3 N, 4 N, 5 N (2) 9 N, 8 N, 7 N
(3) 16 N, 2 N, 17 N (4) 30 N, 5 N, 24 N (3) 4 s (4) " # $
173. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given as 181. A shell is fired vertically upward with a velocity
20 m/s from a trolley moving horizontally with
! !
! "" " . The range of projectile is velocity 10 m/s. A person on the ground observes
" the motion of the shell like a parabola whose
(1) 1 m (2) 32 m horizontal range is (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 16 m (4) 48 m (1) 20 m (2) 10 m
174. A cannon can give maximum speed of 70 m/s to (3) 40 m (4) 400 m
bombs. The maximum distance up to which
cannon projects a bomb is (g = 10 m/s2) 182. Two particles are moving in circular path of radii r1
and r2 with same linear speed then the ratio of
(1) 490 m (2) 245 m their centripetal acceleration is
(3) 100 m (4) 300 m
(1) 1 : 1 (2) r1 : r2
175. A man is running horizontally at a velocity of
6 m/s while rain is falling vertically at 6 m/s. The (3) r2 : r1 (4) !!! ! !"!
rain strikes the man with a speed of
183. A car is moving at a speed of 30 m/s on a
(1) $ # m/s (2) " " m/s horizontal circular track of radius 300 m. This
(3) 6 m/s (4) 18 m/s speed is increasing at rate of 4 m/s 2 . Total
acceleration of the car is
176. A man wants to cross a river 600 m wide flowing
at 8 m/s in shortest time. Man has a speed of 6 m/ (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 7 m/s2
s in still water. What is the path length covered by (3) 1 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
man in the river?
184. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius
(1) Infinite (2) 1 km a with constant angular velocity . Magnitude of
(3) 100 m (4) 1000 cm displacement of the particle as a function of time
t is
177. Minimum number of non-coplaner vectors whose
vector sum can be zero is 0
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) a cos t (2) . 89.
#
(3) 4 (4) 5
178. The trajectory of a projectile in vertical plane is !
(3) a sin t (4) !" "#$
y = ax – bx2 where a and b are constants, x and y !
are horizontal and vertical displacements from point 185. A projectile starts with speed u at an angle from
of projection. The angle of projection from horizontal horizontal ground. Average velocity of the projectile
are between the point of projection and the point of
!!" arrival on the ground is
(1) !"# ! # $ (2) tan–1 (b)
%"& (1) u sin (2) 2u sin
!"" (3) u cos (4) 2u cos

(3) !"# ! # $ (4) tan–1 (a)
%!& 186. A projectile is thrown with speed 50 m/s at an
179. The magnitude of the vector sum of two vectors of angle 53° with the horizontal. Taking horizontal as
equal magnitude is same as the magnitude of each x-axis and vertical as y-axis, the equation of
of the two given vectors. Then the angle between trajectory of the projectile is
them is (1) 180y = 140x – x2 (2) 180y = 240x – x2
(1) 60° (2) 90° (3) 180y = 90x – 2x2 (4) 180y = 80x – 3x2
(3) 120° (4) 150° 187. Time of flight of a body dropped from a height is
180. A point is moving on X-Y plane such that its x and T. If another body is projected horizontally with
y co-ordinates varies with time as x = sin t, speed v from the same height, then its time of
y = (1 – cos t) where and are positive flight will be
constants. Velocity of the particle is
1
(1) T (2) 2
(1) (2) ! !
! 1"
(3) (4) (3) " (4) 2"
! ! # !"
188. Vertical component of velocity of a projectile from 194. A particle started revolving from rest with a constant
ground is 40 m/s and its velocity at highest point angular acceleration a in a circular path of radius r.
is 30 m/s. Horizontal range of the projectile is If centripetal acceleration becomes numerically
equal to tangential acceleration at time t, then t is
(1) 120 m (2) 1200 m
equal to
(3) 240 m (4) 2400 m
! !
189. Two particles are thrown for same horizontal range (1) ! (2) !
R with same initial speed (u), however, their times " "!
of flight are T1 and T2 respectively. Which of the
following is correct if maximum heights attained by &
them are H1 and H2 respectively? (3) " (4) ! "
#
!! !! 195. An object of mass m is projected from ground with

(1) ""! "!! (2) "!"" a momentum P at such an angle that its
# #
maximum height is 1/4th of its horizontal range. Its
!
minimum kinetic energy in its path will be
!" ! "" "
(3) # $ (4) All of these
!! % "! & !! !!
(1) (2)
!" !"
190. In the given diagram shown for a projectile, what
is the angle of projection?
!! ! $!
" (3) (4)
"" %
196. Balls A and B are thrown simultaneously from two
points lying on the same horizontal plane
%"#$ separated by a distance 120 m. Path of A w.r.t.
! B is
!"#$ &"#$
'"#$%&
!! !" !"#$%&
(1) tan–1(1) (2) "#$ # $
%%&
!()
!! !" !! !"
! "
(3) "#$ # $ (4) "#$ # $
%%& %%& (1) Parabola (2) Hyperbola
191. A ball of mass 1 kg projected with velocity (3) Circle (4) Straight line
20 m/s from origin of a xy coordinate axes at an
angle 30° with horizontal. Change in momentum in 197. Which of the following is angle between velocity
1 s is and acceleration of a body in uniform circular
motion?
(1) "# $ %&'%()*%!! (2) "# $ %&'%()*%!! (1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) –10 kg m/s (& (4) –20 kg m/s (& (3) 60° (4) 90°
198. A man wants to cross a river of width 500 m in
192. Which of the following can be angle between
minimum distance. The rowing speed of man
velocity and acceleration of a particle in circular
relative to water is 3 km/h and river flows with speed
motion with increasing speed?
2 km/h. The time taken by man to cross the river
(1) 30° (2) 90° is
(3) 120° (4) 0°
(1) ! " minute
193. A body is executing uniform circular motion in a
circle of radius 100 m at speed 10 m/s. (2) " # minute
Acceleration of the body is
(3) ! $ minute
(1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 (4) " $ minute
199. A particle is moving on a curved path possesses a 204. Figure shows ABCDEF as a regular hexagon.
velocity of 3 m/s towards north at an instant. After !!!" !!!" !!!" !!!" !!!"
What is the value of !" !# !$ !% !& ?
10 s it is moving with speed 4 m/s towards west.
The average acceleration of the particle is ' &
(1) 0.25 m/s2, 37º south to east
!
(2) 0.25 m/s2, 37º west to north " %
(3) 0.5 m/s2, 37º east to north
(4) 0.5 m/s2, 37º south to west
# $
200. A ground to ground projectile is projected with speed !!!" !!!"
v0 at angle from the horizontal from ground. The (1) !" (2) ##3
radius of curvature of the trajectory of the projectile !!!" !!!"
(3) !!" (4) "!"
is maximum at
205. The acceleration of a particle which completes a
(1) Highest point (2) Point of landing revolution in a circle of radius 10 cm with constant
(3) Point of projection (4) Both (2) & (3) speed in 4 s is
(1) 2 cm s–2 (2) 1.5 2 cm s–2
! !
201. The resultant vector of ! !"#$!" makes angle 2
!
1 (3) 2 cm s–2 (4) 2.5 2 cm s–2
!
with ! !"#$! ! with ! . Then 206. A person is rotated in a horizontal circle of radius
7 m. Find the period of rotation for which the
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 < 2 if P > Q acceleration is equal to 3 g
(3) 1 < 2 if P < Q (4) 1 > 2 if P = Q (1) 2.6 s (2) 2.8 s
202. The acceleration of particle for which the v2 versus (3) 3.1 s (4) 4.3 s
s graph is shown is 207. The position of an particle at time t are given by
x = 3t3, y = 2t2 + 8t and z = 6t – 5. The initial
!" ! !
! #$ %& ' velocity of the particle is
!" (1) 20 unit (2) 10 unit
(3) 5 unit (4) 13 unit
( 208. A man can row a boat with a speed of 10 kmph

in still water. River flows at 6 kmph. If he crosses
"##$' the river from one bank to the other along the
) !
shortest possible path, time taken to cross the
(1) – 8 m/s2 river of width 1 km is
(2) 4 m/s2 (1) 1/8 h (2) 1/4 h
(3) – 4 m/s2 (3) 1/2 h (4) 1 h
(4) –16 m/s2 209. A bus is going to North at a speed of 30 kmph.
It makes a 90° left turn without changing the
203. A projectile is projected at an angle (> 45º) with speed. The change in the velocity of the bus is
initial speed u. The time t at which magnitude of
(1) 30 kph towards W
vertical component of its velocity is equal to
magnitude of horizontal component of its velocity, is (2) 30 kph towards S-W
(3) 42.4 kph towards S-W
!
(1) t = !"#$! %&"! ' (4) 42.4 kph towards N-W
"
210. Two bullets are fired simultaneously, horizontally
! and with different speeds from the same place.
(2) " !"#$ %&" '
# Which bullet will hit the ground first? (Air
resistance is neglected)
& (1) The faster one
(3) " 3,-" "#$ 4
' (2) The slower one
& (3) Depends on masses
(4) " 3,-" "#$ 4
' (4) Both will reach simultaneously
211. A pilot is supposed to fly east from A to B and 216. A swimmer swims a distance d upstream in
back again A due west. If wind is blowing due 4 s and swims equal distance down stream in
south, find time for round trip, if AB = l, velocity 2 s. The ratio of swimmer’s speed in still water
of plane in air is v and velocity of wind is u to the speed of river water will be
! !! ! !
(1) (2) (1) (2)
!
" !
# !
" #! " "
! !! " $
(3) (4) (3) (4)
! ! " # # #
" #
! !
212. A spot light (source) is fixed 4 m from the vertical 217. If ! ""! # !# $$! and !
""! # !# $! then the
wall and is rotating at rate 1 rad/s. The spot ! !
(image) moves horizontally on the wall. The speed unit vector in the direction of ! " is
of the spot on the wall, when spot light makes
angle of 45º with the wall, is (The line joining spot "!! "! #! # "!! !" #! #
source and image is in horizontal plane) (1) (2)
$ $
(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 1 m/s "!! "! #! # "!! "! #! #
! (3) (4)
213. A vector ! , which has magnitude 8.0 is added to a $ $
!
vector ! which lies on x-axis. The sum of these 218. The forces 4! *+,-*4" are acting perpendicular to
two vectors, lies on y-axis and has a magnitude twice
! ! each other at a point and have resultant R. If force
of the magnitude of ! . The magnitude of vector !
!! ""!
is F2 is replaced by acting in the direction
"!
(1) 8 (2) ! " opposite to that of F2, the magnitude of resultant
( (1) Becomes half (2) Becomes double

(3) (4) ! "
) (3) Becomes one third (4) Remains same
214. A projectile is projected from ground, such that 219. A particle starts from (–1, 0) in the x-y plane along
2 second before it reaches the highest point, it a straight path making an angle of 60º with the
makes an angle 37° with vertical, then the velocity x-axis. Which of the following will not be the
of projectile at highest point is coordinate through which the particles will pass?
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(1) !"# $% (2) !"# $ %&
(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
215. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of wall (3) !$#% %& (4) !"#" $%
A of height 80 m with speed 10 m/s. At what
distance from wall ball hits the ground? 220. A force of 20 N acts on a particle along a direction
making an angle of 60° with the vertical. The
'())#!
!"#$%& component of the force along the vertical direction
will be
!"#$
(1) 2 N (2) 5 N
(3) 10 N (4) 20 N
221. A particle is fired from ground with 50 m/s at an
(1) 20 m angle 60° above horizontal. Its acceleration at
ground is a1 and at highest point is a2, then
(2) 50 m
(3) 60 m (1) a1 > a2 (2) a1 = a2
(4) 40 m (3) a1 < a2 (4) a1 = 2a2
222. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and then 300 m 228. Which of the following is an appropriate expression
west and then flies 1200 m upwards. Its net for radius of curvature of a projectile at the highest
displacement is point? (R Range of projectile)
(1) 1200 m (2) 1300 m ! !
(1) !"# (2) #%&
(3) 1400 m (4) 1500 m $ $
223. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity (3) 2R cot (4) 2R tan
"! ! "! ! " #!#$%& . Consider horizontal direction and ! !
229. If ! !"#$!" are two vectors inclined to each other
vertical direction as x and y axes respectively. If !
the range of the projectile is double the maximum at angle then component of " perpendicular to
!! ! ! !
height, then is ! and lying in the plane containing ! !"#$!" is
!"
" " ! !
(1) 4 (2) 3 #5$ " ! !!" !
(1) $ (2) ! "
$" "!
(3) 2 (4) 1
! ! ! !
224. A car is moving on a circular track at a speed of (3) ! " (4) ! "
20 m/s having radius 100 m. If it starts decelerating " " ! ! ! !
uniformly at the rate of 3 m/s2, the angle made by 230. If # $ and ! " ! !"!" , then
the resultant acceleration with the direction of its
instantaneous velocity is ! !
(1) ! "
(1) 37° (2) 127° ! !
(2) ! && "
(3) 53° (4) 143°
! !
225. An object is moving on a circular path of radius r (3) ! is antiparallel to !
with constant speed v. The average acceleration of ! !
the object, after it has travelled three and half (4) ! is inclined to ! at an angle of 45°
rounds, is
231. The coordinates of a particle moving in x-y plane
! !
#! $! !
(1) (2) vary with time following relation # ! $, " .
" % " #
$! ! #! ! The locus of the particle is
(3) (4)
& " & " (1) Parabola (2) Circle
226. A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of (3) Ellipse (4) Hyperbola
5 m/s and takes t1 and t2 time to cross a river in
shortest time and shortest path respectively. If the 232. If t 1 represents the instant at which the
speed of river increases, then time taken to cross instantaneous velocity becomes perpendicular to
the river in shortest time and shortest path be the direction of initial velocity during a projectile and
t2 represents the time after which the particle
!! !"#$!! " respectively. Then
attains maximum height then #!# " is
(1) 0! 0! , ! ! !! (2) 0! 0! , 0" 0"
!
(3) 0! 0! , ! ! !! (4) 0! 0! , 0" 0" (1)
"
227. A sprinkler is deployed to irrigate garden. The
speed of water-jet from the sprinkler is u. The !!
maximum area which can be irrigated by the (2)
sprinkler is
"
! !
! !! !
(1) (2) (3)
" " !"
!! !" ! !"#!
(3) ! (4) (4)
" "! "
233. A park is in the shape of a regular hexagon. Six 238. Two forces of same magnitude are acting on a body
friends standing at each corner of the park start in East and North direction respectively. If body
moving towards each other with same speed remains in equilibrium, then third force should be
2 m/s and meet each other after 60 s. The side applied in the direction of
of the park is
(1) North-East
(1) 120 m (2) 30 m
(2) North-West
(3) 240 m (4) 60 m
(3) South-West
234. A ball is projected horizontally from a cliff 40 m
high at a speed of 40 m/s and simultaneously a (4) South-East
ball is dropped. If time taken by the two balls to !
reach the ground are t1 and t2 respectively (taking 239. Two vectors are as given ! "#"! $ #! #$! % and
air friction into consideration), then !
" !"%' () &' '(' % . What should be value of c so
(1) t1 > t2 ! !
(2) t1 < t2 that vector ! !"#$!" be parallel to each other?
(3) t1 = t2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(4) Depending on air friction t1 may be less or (3) 3 (4) 4
more than t2
240. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving in circular path
235. Select the incorrect statement with constant speed 10 m/s. The change is
! ! magnitude of velocity, when particle travels from P
!" !"
(1) It is possible to have !"#$%" ! to Q will be [assume radius of circle is 10/ 2]
!# !#
! ! !
#$ #$
(2) It is possible to have $%&'(% $
#% #%
! !
#$ #$ "
(3) It is possible to have $%)#*% $
#% #%
!"#
!
!"
! #
!"
(4) It is possible to have !"&'(" ! !
!# !#
! ! !
236. If " is the resultant of two vectors ! !"#$!" and
! ! ! (1) 6$ ! (2) !" #
! is the difference in them, and ! ! , then
! ! (3) 10 (4) 0
(1) ! && "
! ! 241. Uniform circular motion is an example of
(2) ! "
! ! (1) Uniform motion
(3) " is antiparallel to !
! ! (2) Uniform speed
(4) " makes an angle of 120° with "
(3) Uniform acceleration
237. A projectile is fired horizontally from the top of a
tower. The time after which the instantaneous (4) Non-uniform speed
velocity will be perpendicular to the initial velocity
(neglect air resistance) 242. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 2 kg moving in
concentric orbits of radius r1 and r2 such that their
! !"# periods are the same. Then the ratio between their
(1) " centripetal acceleration is
#
! !! !!
(2) " (1) ! (2) !
# !"# " "
!
(3) " ! !" "
!
! !! "
!
# !"#
(3) # $ (4) # $
(4) It will never be perpendicular at any instant % !! & % !" &
6. A : A safe turn by a cyclist should neither be too

SECTION - B
fast nor too sharp.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
R : This is so because it increases the chances of
In the following questions, a statement of assertion skidding.
7. A : Uniform circular motion is an unaccelerated
reason is the correct explanation of the motion.
assertion, then mark (1). R : Velocity remains constant in uniform circular
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the motion.
8. A : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses
assertion, then mark (2).
the direction of motion.
false, then mark (3). R : A body cannot have acceleration if its velocity
is zero at a given instant of time.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4). 9. A : A food packet is droped from an aeroplane
1. A : The path of a projectile with respect to another flying horizontally. The path of food packet is
projectile is a straight line. straight line for the pilot.
R : The acceleration of one projectile with respect R : Horizontal velocity of plane and food packet is
to the other is zero. same.
2. A : During projectile motion of a particle near 10. A : Instantaneous velocity of a particle is always
earth’s surface, only vertical component of its along the tangent on the path.
velocity changes.
!
R : Acceleration due to gravity near earth’s surface ! !" !
is in vertically downward direction. R: is an component of acceleration which
!#
3. A : Force acting on a particle in uniform circular is at 90° from the velocity vector.
motion is constant.
11. A : Three vectors equal in magnitude cannot
R : Acceleration of a particle in uniform circular produce zero resultant.
motion is constant.
R : Minimum four vectors required to produce zero
4. A : Range for projectile motion on a horizontal
resultant.
plane is maximum for angle of projection equal
to 45º. 12. A : A vector must have, magnitude and direction.
R : Time of flight of a projectile on a horizontal R : A physical quantity cannot be called as a
plane does not depend on the horizontal vector if its magnitude is zero.
component of velocity.
13. A : Path of a projected ball is parabolic in uniform
5. A : A body either dropped or thrown horizontally
gravitational field for oblique projection in
from same height, reach the ground in same
time interval. absence of air resistance.
R : The horizontal velocity of a particle has no R : Gravitational force always acts perpendicular to
effect on its vertical motion. velocity during the motion of a projectile.
!" !" !
Chapter 4
Laws of Motion
(3) Both inner and outer wheels leave the ground

SECTION - A
together
Objective Type Questions
(4) Truck cross the turn safely
1. A small block of mass 1 kg is placed initially at
rest on the top of an inclined wedge as shown in 4. A bucket full of water is tied with the help of a
figure. Height of vertical side of wedge is 5 m. Now 2 m long string. The minimum angular velocity of
bucket at the uppermost point so that water will not
wedge is pulled with a force of !" # N fall is
horizontally. The normal reaction on the block is
(Take g = 10 m/s2) (1) ! " rad/s (2) " rad/s
(3) 5 rad/s (4) 10 rad/s

#!$%
5. A mass of 4 kg is suspended as shown in figure
with the help of massless inextensible string A.
$%& Another identical string B is connected at the lower
!!"!#!$% !
end of the block. When a sudden pulling downward
!"# jerk slightly greater than breaking strength of A and
B is given to string B, then
(1) Zero (2) 2 N
(3) 1.5 N (4) ! N !
2. A motorcyclist is maintaining constant speed while !"#$

going on an overbridge of radius R. When the
motorcycle is ascending on the overbridge, the "
normal reaction on it
(1) String A will break
(1) Increases
(2) Remains same (2) String B will break
(3) Decreases (3) Both A and B will break simultaneously

(4) Initially increases upto 45º with vertical and (4) Both A and B will never break
then decreases
6. A body of mass 0.5 kg experience a force
3. An unbanked curve has a radius of 60 m.
F = (2 + 3x 2 ) N where x (in metre) is the
Coefficient of friction between the tyre of truck and
displacement from origin. It is released to move
road is 0.75. The distance between two front wheel
along x-axis from origin then its initial acceleration
of truck is 2 m. If the truck exceeds the speed of
safe limit, then their is
(1) Inner wheels leave the ground first (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(2) Outer wheels leave the ground first (3) 4 m/s2 (4) Zero
64 Laws of Motion Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. When a body of mass m raised by a string with 12. A body is moving with the speed 20 m/s on a rough
an acceleration a = g in upward direction, then surface. If coefficient of friction is 0.5, then the
tension in the string is distance after which velocity becomes zero is
(1) 2 mg (2) mg (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(3) 40 m (4) 80 m
!"
(3) (4) Zero 13. A mass of 5 kg is placed on a horizontal rough
! surface. Coefficient of friction between body and
8. A sphere of mass 500 g starts moving with an surface is 0.5. The minimum horizontal force with
acceleration of 10 m/s 2, on application of an which the block can just able to move is
impulsive force. The force acts on it for 0.5 s. Gain [Take g = 10 m/s2]
in momentum of sphere is
!"#$
(1) 2.5 kg m/s (2) 5 kg m/s
(3) 0.05 kg m/s (4) 25 kg m/s "%"&'!
9. Three identical masses each of mass 4 kg are (1) 25 N (2) !"#$! !%"$! N
connected by massless inextensible strings. The (3) 50 N (4) 22.5 N
string joining A and B passes over a massless
14. A monkey slides down a rope. The breaking load
frictionless pully as shown in figure. The tension in
the string connecting mass B and C is !
for the rope is th of the weight of the monkey.
"
The minimum acceleration with the monkey should
slide so that the rope does not break, is
!! !
(1) (2)
" !
!"#$ " ! !!
(3) (4)
!"#$ ! "
!
15. A block of mass m is moving with initial velocity v
on horizontal frictionless surface. Find the
minimum value of velocity v so that the block will
!"#$ # complete the vertical circle
(1) 40 N (2) 20 N #
(3) 26.67 N (4) 13.33 N
! "
10. Law of conservation of angular momentum is valid,
when (1) !!" (2) "!"
(1) Net force is zero and net torque is non-zero (3) #!" (4) !"!"
(2) Net force is non-zero and net torque is non- 16. In the given figure, a block always be in
zero equilibrium. If the wall moved towards right with
acceleration a, if is the coefficient of friction,
(3) Net force may or may not be zero and net
then minimum value of a is
torque is zero
(4) Both force and torque must be zero ! !"#$%
11. Two masses A and B of mass 4 kg and 1 kg
respectively are connected with the help of "
massless inextensible string. Mass A is placed on
a rough horizontal table and mass B is hanging
with the help of string passing through a smooth
hole at the centre of table. For the system to be &'""
in equilibrium what can be the minimum value of !
coefficient of friction? (1) g (2)
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 !

(3) (4) mg
(3) 2.5 (4) 0.125 "
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Laws of Motion 65
17. A lift is moving vertically upward with an (1) 20 N (2) 16 N
acceleration a. The acceleration of a body dropped
(3) 12 N (4) Zero
freely by a man moving with lift with respect to
ground is 24. What is acceleration of the block A, if acceleration
of B is 4 m/s2 towards right at the instant shown?
(1) g + a (2) g – a
(3) g (4) Zero %"#$ !"#$
18. A man standing on an ice pond want to move on " ! &%"'
it, then
(1) He has to crawl on it (1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(2) He has to sneeze and pit (3) 5 m/s2 (4) Zero
(3) He can walk easily on it 25. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rotating
(4) He has to roll on it horizontal turn table with angular velocity of 2 rad/
s. If distance of the block from the centre of the
19. A rough vertical board has horizontal acceleration table is 0.5 m, the net force on the block is
a, so that 2 kg block pressing against it does not
fall. The coefficient of friction between the block and (1) 40 N (2) 20 N
the board should be (3) 10 N (4) Zero
! ! 26. Two blocks A and B, kept on a horizontal smooth
(1) Greater than (2) Less than surface is connected with a spring. At the instant
" "
shown the acceleration of the block B is 6 m/s2 in
!! ! the right side. Then
(3) Equal to !
(4) Greater than
" " &!'( $!'(
20. A stationary boat having mass 4 m at the surface of !!"!#$!%
a pond. If a man of mass m jumps out from the boat
with velocity V, then velocity of boat after jumping is
(1) The spring is compressed
" #
(1) (2) (2) The spring is elongated
" "
(3) The spring is in natural length
# !!
(3) (4) (4) Data is insufficient to predict
" "
21. A body of mass 3 kg experiences a force 27. The force (F) acting on a particle varies with the
!" ! time (t) as shown in figure. The change in
# #$! #$ ! #% % & . If its initial velocity ! !"#$ "" % "# & m/s, momentum during t = 0 to t = 6 s is
then the time at which it will have a velocity just along #"&)(
the y-axis is
(1) 12 s (2) 10 s
*!
(3) 8 s (4) 4 s
22. A block of mass m slides down with constant !"&'(
!" #" $" %
velocity on an inclined plane of inclination . The
coefficient of friction is . The force exerted on the (1) 80 Ns (2) 40 Ns
body by the incline is (3) 20 Ns (4) Zero
(1) mg cos (2) mg sin 28. A man of mass 60 kg stands at one end of a 20
(3) mg (4) Zero m long boat of mass 440 kg. When the man walks
to the other end, the displacement of the boat is
23. What is the friction force acting on the upper block
when the system of two blocks moves with an (1) 10 m
acceleration of 4 m/s2? (2) 5.0 m
"&"*+, " !"#$ (3) 2.4 m
#"&"!"'()!
! %"#$ (4) Zero
29. What is the maximum length of a uniform chain of

length 1 m that can over hang from a table if !"#
$%&
$
coefficient of friction is 0.25? '
!"#
(1) 20 cm (2) 25 cm !
"
(3) 35 cm (4) 50 cm
!"# $"#
30. What is the value of friction acting on the block
kept at rest on the inclined surface?
(1) System is in equilibrium
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(2) Block of mass 1 kg moves upward with
!"#$% acceleration 3.14 m/s2
(3) Block of mass 1 kg moves downward with
acceleration 3.13 m/s2
#)#"*+
(4) Both block moves with same acceleration
&'( 3 m/s2
35. Two plates of same mass are attached rigidly to
(1) 60 N (2) 64 N the two ends of a spring. One of the plates rests
(3) 80 N (4) 100 N on a horizontal surface and the other results a
31. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 3 kg placed on a compression X of the spring when it is in steady
horizontal surface are connected by a massless state. To lift off the lowest plate after removing the
force. What further compression is required?
string. If 3 kg is pulled by 10 N as shown in figure,
then force of friction acting on 2 kg is
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
!"#$ %"#$ &'"(
! ")"'*% " ")"'*!

(1) 6 N (2) 4 N
(3) 8 N (4) 12 N
32. A bob of mass m of a pendulum of length l is given (1) 0.5X
a horizontal velocity ! !" at bottommost point.
(2) 3X
When the string is horizontal. The net force on the
(3) 2X
bob is
(4) X
(1) 2 mg (2) $ #"
36. A particle of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth
(3) ! !" (4) !" !" wedge of angle inclination 45° as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given an acceleration a. The
33. A cart loaded with water having total mass
minimum value of ‘a’ for which the mass falls freely
m = 1000 kg moves on a straight horizontal road
is
starting from rest under the action of a force of
100 N. The water spills through a small hole in "
the bottom at a rate of 0.1 kg/s. The velocity of cart !
after 300 s is !"!# !"#
(1) 11 m/s (2) 21 m/s
(1) g
(3) 31 m/s (4) 41 m/s
!
34. Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 0.75 kg are (2)
!
attached through a massless string fixed on a
!
! ! (3)
triangular wedge. "! and "! . Which of !
# #
the following is correct? (4) ""
37. A body of mass 10 kg is suspended by two 41. An ideal system of pulley string & spring is at rest
massless strings making angles 45° and 30° with as shown in the figure. Acceleration of 5 kg block
horizontal as shown in the figure then at the instant when the thread QR is burnt (Spring
constant k = 200 N/m)
!!
!"
)!* +&*
(&"#$ !"#$"
"
(1) ! !! "!" # (2) !!! " !" # !
(3) ! !! " !" # (4) ! !! " !" # %"#$"
38. A block is resting on a rough horizontal surface. A

(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
sharp horizontal impulse is applied on the block at
t = 0. The graph between velocity (v) and (3) 1 m/s2 (4) Zero
displacement (s) for the motion of block is best
shown by 42. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Pseudo force is acting in the direction of
! ! motion of reference frame
(1) (2)
(2) Centripetal force is a pseudo force
" "
(3) Pseudo force acts in pair
! !
(4) None of these
(3) (4)
" " 43. A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a massless
39. A block is kept on the rough inclined plane as plank and holding a string passing over a system
shown in the figure. The tension in the string just of ideal pulleys. A mass of 10 kg hanging over a
light pulley such that the system is in equilibrium.
to prevent it from sliding down is (g = 10 m/s2)
The force exerted by the plank on the man is
(g = acceleration due to gravity)
$%& '('")*
!"#
(1) 3.12 N
(2) 10 N &"#$%
!"#$%
(3) 2.52 N
(4) Zero
(1) 20 g (2) 40 g
40. Mark the correct statement
(3) 45 g (4) 60 g
(1) The value of coefficient of friction is always
smaller than 1 44. A pendulum is suspended in a container is
(2) A body slides on a surface, the force of friction subjected to an acceleration a0 along a horizontal
plane. The angle subtended by string with vertical
always acts in the opposite direction of applied
at equilibrium is
force
(3) Force of friction is zero for a block kept on an !! " !! "
(1) = !"# ! # $ (2) = !"# ! # " $
rough inclined plane % "" & %" &
(4) The frictional force can never be more than the
!! " !! "
contact force on the body from the surface on (3) = !"# ! # " $ (4) = !"# ! # " $
which it is kept %" & %" &
45. Tension in the massless string joining A and B is (1) aA = aB = 0 (2) aA = 0, aB = g

! " (3) aA = g, aB = 0 (4) aA 0, aB = 0
%"#$ !"#$% &"#$% !"#$
51. A body of mass m travelling with velocity ! ! !"
&'()*(+,-.//
(1) 20 N (2) 15 N
is given an impulse ! ! !" . The final velocity of the
(3) 25 N (4) 10 N
body will become
46. A shell is fired from a cannon with velocity 20 ms–1
at an angle 60º with horizontal. It explodes at the (1) $! ' #% (2) $! ' #%
highest point into two pieces of equal masses. One of
the piece retraces its path to the canon. The speed of (3) $! ' #% (4) ! !! !"
the other piece just after explosion is
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 30 ms–1 52. A smooth wedge of angle with horizontal is fixed
to an elevator moving downward with acceleration
(3) 5 ms–1 (4) 50 ms–1
47. Two masses M and m are connected by !
. The acceleration of a block kept on the wedge
weightless string. They are pulled by a force F on !
a frictionless horizontal surface. The tension T in with respect to the elevator is
the string will be
# !
!$ $ (1) !"# (2) g
" ! $
! ! " "# # #
(1) (2) !! !
# " & ' (3) "#$ (4)
% !
!" #'
(3) (4) 53. A spring of force constant k is cut in two parts
# & '
such that one part is four times the other. The
48. A force of 19.6 N applied parallel to the surface
spring constant of smaller piece will be
just moves 10 kg kept on that horizontal surface.
If a 5 kg mass is kept on the first mass, the force !
applied parallel to the surface to just moves the (1)
!
combined body is
!
(1) 29.4 N (2) 39.2 N (2)
!
(3) 18.6 N (4) 42.6 N
(3) 4k
49. The system shown in figure is in equilibrium. Then
reading of spring balance is (in kg-f) (4) 5k
54. A particle of mass m is moving on a circular path
of radius r with constant speed v. The average
value of force acting on particle in half rotation of
particle will be
!
!"
(1) Zero (2)
!"#$% !#
(1) 10 (2) 20
! !
(3) 100 (4) Zero !'( !"
(3) (4)
50. The system of block and pulley is held at rest by ) #
thread AO. Just after AO is burnt. If aA and aB are 55. According to Newton’s second law of motion force
acceleration of A and B then acting on the body is [where symbols have their
usual meaning]
! " #!
(1) !" (2) $
#%
!
"! !"
# !"
"" (3) (4) All of these
!
!#
56. A block of mass 10 kg is at rest on a rough 60. Which of the following statement is false?
inclined surface of angle of inclination 30°. If
(1) Friction force is a contact force
coefficient of friction between block and inclined
surface is 0.8, then the force applied by inclined (2) Friction force is non conservative
surface on block is [g = 10 m/s2]
(3) Friction accelerates any body on the plane
surface
(1) 100 N (2) !" # $
(4) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction
(3) $% & (4) 50 N
61. If a horizontal smooth table with a mass on it starts
57. Two blocks each of mass M are joined to each its circular motion, then mass
other by a rope of mass M. A force F > 3 Mg is (1) Remains at rest in the same position
applied to system to pull it vertically upwards as
shown in figure. The force applied by rope on lower (2) Moves making an acute angle with the radius
block is and outward
" (3) Moves making an obtuse angle with the radius

and outward
!
(4) Moves making an obtuse angle with the radius
! and inward
62. Which of the following force/s are valid for all
! ranges?
(1) Gravitational forces
# # &! (2) Nuclear forces

(1) (2)
( (& (3) Electromagnetic forces
(4) Both (1) & (3)
!# &! # !&!
(3) (4)
(& (& 63. Parachutist falls downward with acceleration of
2 m/s2 at the height of 200 m from the ground.
58. A body is moving with the velocity ! !! m/s. If force Calculate upthrust of air if mass of parachutist is
60 kg (g = 10 m/s2)
acting on the body is !" !! # !" # #! $%& , then the
(1) 480 N (2) 620 N
momentum of the body is changing in
(3) 720 N (4) 600 N
(1) x-direction only
64. What is the minimum value of force F such that at
(2) x-y directions least one block leaves the ground in the given
(3) y-z directions figure? (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) In all x-y-z directions
!
59. For what value of force F, the mass 2 kg starts its
motion in left direction relative to 5 kg
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
"&"'(% %"#$" (massless pulley)

!"#$" !
!"#$" %"#$"
!"##$%
"&"'
(1) 4 N (1) 20 N, 2 kg leaves the ground first

65. The contact force between surface and mass in the 71. Forces acting on 10 kg block are as shown in
given figure is (g = 10 m/s2) figure. The speed of block after 5 seconds of the
journey starting from rest (neglect gravity)
!%"& !"#$ !"#$
"'"()%
(1) 20 N (2) !" ! # ("#$

%"#&'
(3) 30 N (4) Zero (1) 20 m/s (2) 10 m/s
66. In Metro station, an escalator is moving with a
constant speed of 1 m/s in upward direction. If two (3) )* + m/s (4) ! # m/s
persons use the escalator every second and 72. A car take turn in a circle of radius 50 m. If velocity
average mass of each person is 60 kg, then force of car is 25 m/s, then the angle made by
applied by escalator is (the hall is gravity free) massless rod of pendulum suspended from the
(1) 240 N (2) 60 N ceiling of car with vertical is (mass of perpendicular
bob is 50 g, g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 120 N (4) Zero
67. The parallel component of contact force is called !!" !! ! "
(1) #$% ! # $ (2) "#$ # $
(1) Normal reaction (2) Weight %&& %%&
(3) Mechanical force (4) Friction
! '"
68. A projectile of mass 500 g is projected with the (3) !"# !
$ (4) #$% ! # $
speed 50 m/s from the height of 50 m from the %&&
ground at an angle of 60° with vertical. If constant 73. The block of mass m (shown in the figure) does
horizontal opposite force 5 N is acting on the not move on applying the inclined force F. Friction
projectile then time after which the projectile, force acting on the block is
returns to the same horizontal level is
[Take g = 10 m/s2] "
! !
(1) 2.5 s (2) s
"
(3) 5 s (4) ! " s
!"#$%&%"'()"*+,-&.#'/,01
69. Which of the following is/are example/s of 23"1//(0(1*+&"/&/'(0+("*&4& 5
impulse?
(1) Hitting of ball on the ground and bounces back (1) F cos
(2) When batsman hits the ball (2) F sin
(3) When a ball falls into the net (3) (mg – F sin )
(4) All of these (4) mg
70. The friction force acting between 10 kg block and
74. In the given figure, the acceleration of block A
surface is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(of mass 2 kg) is
!"#$%# )#* 2&34

#'#"(& :&34
5 6 78&9
&"#$%#
#'#"(! !"##$%&%#'()#*$+,&-.'/+01
(1) 60 N (1) 2 m/s2

(2) 5 N (2) 15 m/s2
(3) 20 N (3) 10 m/s2
(4) 30 N (4) 0.1 m/s2
75. Which of the following is the correct relation 79. Normal force acting between two surfaces in
! contact is fundamentally
between force "! ! acting on a particle and
! (1) Electromagnetic (2) Gravitational
momentum "! ! of the particle? (Here m is mass of (3) Weak nuclear force (4) Strong nuclear force
the particle)
80. A lift moving vertically up, is experiencing decrease
! ! ! !#! in speed at the rate 2 m/s2. Normal force exerted
$ # !" $ on the floor of the lift by a person of mass 60 kg,
(1) ! (2)
!" standing in the lift is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
" ! (1) Equal to 600 N (2) More than 600 N
" *# ! $!#
(3) , (4) % (3) Less then 600 N (4) Zero
*+ !"
! ! !
81. A particle acted upon by forces $""$! and !! , is
76. An sphere weighs 10 N and rest in V shaped
" !
trough whose sides form an angle 30º. Normal in equilibrium. Angle between #! and !" is 85º,
reaction excerted by wall B on sphere is " !
angle between #! and !! is 175º. Angle between
! !
! !" and !! is
(1) 100º
(2) 120º
!"#
" (3) 130º
(4) Depends on magnitudes of the forces
(1) 10 N (2) ! $ N
82. A block of mass m (attached to a light inextensible
(3) 5 N (4) Zero string) is being pulled vertically upwards by a force
77. Change in momentum of a particle, for which F. Breaking strength of the string is three times the
force F versus time t graph is shown here, weight of the block. Maximum F, which can be
between t = 0 and t = 4 s is applied without breaking the string, is
!
,'(-*
!"#$%&
"
! &'()* '()*+
" # $ %
+" (1) mg (2) 2mg
(3) 3mg (4) 4mg
83. If angle of repose for an incline is 30°, then the
(1) 1.5 N s (2) 2 N s
coefficient of static friction will be
(3) 2.5 N s (4) 3 N s '
78. For the system shown, string and pulley are (1) (2) 1
(
massless. The pulley is smooth. Acceleration of
"
the lighter block is (g is acceleration due to gravity) (3) 2 (4)
!
84. A block of mass 1 kg, placed on a rough inclined
plane (of inclination 30º) is in equilibrium. Contact
force by inclined plane on the block is (Take g = 10
m/s2)
(1) 10 N
! !! (2) 5 N
! (3) " ! N
(1) g (2)
! (4) Indeterminate, as coefficient of friction between
! the surfaces of block and inclined plane is not
(3) (4) Zero given
"
85. A particle of mass m is suspended from a ceiling 89. All the surfaces in the system shown in the given
through a massless string. The particle moves in figure are smooth. The value of F is such that the
a horizontal circle as shown in the given figure. block does not slide on the wedge. Normal force
Tension in the string is acting on the block is
!
"
!"#
!"#
"
(1) !" (2) !!"
!
(1) mg (2) 2mg
(3) 3mg (4) 4mg !"
(3) (4) 2mg
!
86. The system of three blocks shown here are in
equilibrium. The friction force acting on block A is 90. A rocket moves with
(take g = 10 m/s2) (1) Variable acceleration
(2) Constant velocity
& (3) Constant speed
(4) Constant acceleration
- 91. A ladder of mass m is resting against a smooth
!"#$% wall as shown. N 1, N 2, f and represent the
normal force between wall and ladder, the normal
force between horizontal surface and ladder, the
'()*(+$, friction force acting on ladder and the coefficient of
friction between horizontal surface and ladder.
(1) 20 N Choose the incorrect alternative
(2) 10 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 5 N !"##$%
87. Which of the given forces is a pseudo force?
(1) Normal force
(2) Friction force (1) N1 = f
(3) Gravitational force (2) N2 = mg
(4) Centrifugal force (3) f = N2
88. A truck has to move on a levelled circular turn of (4) N1 – f = N2 – mg
radius r. Coefficient of friction between the tyre of 92. A particle of mass m is attached to a string is
the truck and the road is . Maximum speed at moving in a vertical circle. Tension in string when
which the truck can turn, without skidding, is the particle is at its highest and lowest point are
T1 and T2 respectively. Here T2 – T1 is equals to
!"
(1) (2) !" (1) mg
(2) 2mg
!" (3) 4mg
(3) !" (4)
(4) 6mg
93. A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string as 98. A block slides down a 45° incline in thrice the time
shown. The force applied by the string on the bob it takes to slide down a frictionless 45° incline of
! !
is ! and weight of the bob is ! then which of same length. The coefficient of friction between the
block and the incline is
the following expressions is correct?
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.7
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.9
99. A balloon of total mass 1000 kg floats motionless
over the earth's surface. If 100 kg of sand is thrown
! out. The balloon starts rising with an acceleration
! !
(1) " " " " ! " ! of
!
(2) ! " ! !
! (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 9.8 m/s2
! ! (3) 1.09 m/s2 (4) Zero
(3) " " ! " !
100. A uniform bar of mass M and length l is carried
(4) All of these
upward by applying force F on its upper end. What
94. Choose the incorrect alternative is force at a distance x from its lower end?
(1) Newton’s first law is law of inertia
#
(2) Newton’s first law states if net force on a
system is zero, acceleration of any particle of "
the system is zero.
(3) Action and reaction act simultaneously
(4) Area under force-time graph is equal to the
change in momentum
!
95. A stone tied to a massless string having length l
is moving in a vertical circle and the other end of
the string is fixed to a rigid support. If the ratio of !# # "! "!
maximum to minimum tension in the string is 7, (1) (2)
" !
then the velocity of stone at the lowest position of
the stone will be
"% #$ !" "% #$ !"! "!
(3) (4)
(1) !!" (2) !" ! !
101. The earth revolves around the sun with an angular

(3) "!" (4) #!"
velocity of 2 × 10–7 radian/s in a circular orbit of
96. A spring is having spring constant K. It is cut into radius 1.5 × 1011 m. The force exerted by the sun,
two parts A and B whose lengths are in the ratio on the earth is (mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg)
of m : 1. The spring constant of part A is
(1) 7.2 × 1022 N (2) 3.6 × 1022 N
# -
(1) (2) (3) 1.8 × 1022 N (4) 36 × 1022 N
" ' )
- $' )% 102. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving in a
(3) K (4) circular path varies with the distance covered S as
'
K = aS 2 , where a is a constant. The angle
97. A body of mass m is connected to one end of a between tangential force and the net force acting
massless string and is rotated about its other end on the particle is (R is radius of the circular path)
in a vertical circle. Difference of tension in the
string at lowest position to the highest position is
&"# &" #
(1) 3mg (1) tan–1 $ ! (2) tan–1 $ !
%!" %! "
(2) 5mg
(3) 2mg &## &" #
(3) tan–1 $ ! (4) tan–1 $ !
(4) 6mg %!" %#"
103. In the arrangement shown in the diagram the string 108. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a truck moving
is light, pulley is frictionless and the coefficient of with constant acceleration of 10 m/s2. If coefficient
friction between the block A and the inclined plane of friction between surface of block and truck is
is 0.5. The maximum mass of the block B so that 0.4, then frictional force acting on the block will be
the block B does not accelerate downwards is (1) 10 N (2) 40 N
(g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 80 N (4) 100 N
109. Gravitational force of a projectile of mass m thrown
at an angle above horizontal is
#$%
!" % (1) mgsin (2) mgcos
$
(3) mgtan (4) mg
!"#
110. In the figure shown, string is massless and pulley
(1) 10 kg (2) 8 kg is smooth, then what is the tension T in the
(3) 15 kg (4) 2 kg string?
104. A particle of mass 1 kg is whirled in a horizontal

circle of radius 1 m with the help of a light string.
What is the magnitude of the vector sum of all the
forces acting on the particle when speed of the !
particle is 5 m/s? (g = 10 m/s )
(1) 10 N (2) 15 N "
(3) 25 N (4) 35 N
!" #$%$"&
105. What is the tension in the string connecting the
blocks, B and C in the following diagram? The
horizontal surface is smooth. ! !"
(1) mg (2) mg
" #
$%&' (%&' )%&'
*%+%$,%- #
! " # (3) mg (4) 2 mg
$
111. In the figure shown, surface is frictionless. Forces
(1) 25 N (2) 30 N
are applied as shown in figure, then find tension T2.
(3) 32.5 N (4) 37.5 N
%&"' !! !" *&"'
106. For what minimum value of the horizontal force F, !"#$ ("#$ )"#$
the block kept on the rough horizontal surface will
start moving? (g = 10 m/s2)
!"#
(1) N
!%"& $
!"#
!"#$ (2) N
' $
(3) 90 N
"("%)* (4) 50 N
(1) 20 N (2) 30 N 112. A football of mass 0.5 kg is moving towards east
with a speed of 20 m/s. Now a player kicks the
(3) 40 N (4) 60 N
moving football with a force of 1000 N in north
107. If a constant force is applied on a body at rest, direction and football remains in contact with his
then feet for 0.01 s, then find new speed of football.
(1) Velocity of body will be constant (1) 60 m/s
(2) Rate of change of velocity will be constant (2) 30 m/s
(3) Momentum will be constant (3) !" ! m/s
(4) Kinetic energy will be constant (4) 20 m/s
113. In the given figure spring balance is massless, find (1) Zero (2) 2 g/11
the reading of spring balance. (3) g/22 (4) g/11
118. A man standing on horizontal smooth surface
(consider air is absent but gravity is present).
Choose the correct statement
(1) He can jump in vertical direction
(2) He can move in horizontal direction
(3) He can fall in forward or backward direction
%"#$
(4) All of these
!"#$
(1) 2 kg (2) 3.5 kg 119. In the given figure suspended from ceiling of lift
pulley, spring balance and string are massless and
(3) 2.9 kg (4) 3.1 kg the lift is accelerating downward with acceleration
114. A body of mass m is placed on a fixed smooth g/2, then find the reading of spring balance.
inclined plane of inclination , then how much
horizontal force F is required on the block to make
it static?
!
!
!
(1) mg sin (2) mg cos
"!
(3) (4) mg tan %"#$
#$%
!"#$
115. Two forces "#!! $ "!% N and "#!! # "!$ N are acting
on a body of mass 2 kg, then acceleration # $
produced in the body in m/s2 will be (1) kg (2) kg
! !
(1) "#!! $ "!% (2) "#$!! #% "!& (3) 4 kg (4) 3 kg
120. A body of mass 4 kg is accelerating on a
(3) "#!! $% "!& (4) "&!! ' "!%
horizontal plane with acceleration of 5 m/s2, then
116. In a horizontal turning a vehicle turns with a speed net force acting on the block is
of #$ . If is the coefficient of friction and m (1) )* ( N (2) 20 N

is the mass of the vehicle, then what is the friction (3) 40 N (4) 30 N
acting on the vehicle?
121. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough
(1) 4 mg (2) 2 mg horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal force
F = (t2 + 2t) N acts on the block. The friction force
!%
(3) mg (4) between the block and the plane at t = 3 s is
!
( = 0.4)
117. In the given figure, strings and pulleys are
(1) 8 N (2) 15 N
massless. Find the acceleration of 4 kg block.
(3) 20 N (4) Zero
!"#$ 122. A man of weight 60 kg is standing in an elevator
which is moving upward with a retardation of
!"!#$%
4 m/s2. The apparent weight of the man will be
(g = 10 m/s2)
%"#$ (1) 36 kg (2) 84 kg
&"#$ (3) 60 kg (4) 30 kg
123. When we are walking on a horizontal road, then 128. A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a
friction acting on front foot and backward foot are velocity of 15 m/s at an angle of 30° with the
respectively horizontal and is hit by a bat normally so that the
(1) Forward, forward (2) Backward, backward ball is turned back with a velocity of 25 m/s. The
force of the bat acts on the ball for 0.01 s. Find the
(3) Forward, backward (4) Backward, forward average force exerted on the ball by the bat
124. In the given figure the block tends to slide on the (1) 400 N (2) 600 N
surface, then the value of force by the surface on
the body is (g = 10 m/s2) (3) !"" # N (4) $"" # N
!"#$ ! 129. Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Mass is the measure of inertia
"%"&'(
(2) Action and Reaction pair cannot be
(1) 20 N (2) 25 N
distinguished
(3) 30 N (4) !" # N (3) In a circular motion centripetal force acts on
125. In the given figure a boy of mass 40 kg is just the body
pulling a mass of 5 kg at an angle of 30° with the (4) All of these
horizontal. While the boy is standing on a
130. In the given figure a force of 24 N acts on the
weighing machine, what would be its reading?
upper block, then find friction acting on 4 kg block.
(g = 10 m/s2)
*)"+ )"#$ "%"&'(
!"#$
%&' ,-../0
(1) 20 N (2) 16 N
!"#$ (3) 12 N (4) 14.5 N

131. In the given figure pulley and string are massless,
(1) 37.5 kg find the friction acting on 5 kg mass. (g = 10 m/s2)
(2) 40 kg !"#$
(3) 42.5 kg
"%"&'(
(4) 38.5 kg
126. In the given figure, F = 200 N, m1 = 20 kg, m2 = 25 kg,
g = 10 m/s2. Find the friction acting on the block of
mass m2 [Take g = 10 m/s2]
*#$
&%!()! &#!()!
!! !" "#"!&##!' )#$
!"
!"!#$% !"!#$% (1) 30 N (2) N
#
(1) 125 N (2) 120.5 N
!"
(3) 100 N (4) 123.2 N (3) N (4) 25 N
#
127. A cart and a block of mass m kept on the cart are 132. Initially a toy train loaded with sand was moving
accelerating with an acceleration a, then what is with constant velocity on a smooth surface. Now a
the pseudo force acting on the block with respect sand leakage start from its bottom, then velocity of
to the cart frame? train will
(1) ma (1) Remains unchanged
(2) 2ma (2) Decrease
(3) Zero (3) Increases
(4) Insufficient information (4) May increase or decrease
133. A jet of water is having cross-sectional area a 139. A block of mass 3 kg is placed on a rough surface
strike a wall making an angle with the normal and ( = 0.2) and a variable force acts on it. Variation
elastically rebounds. The velocity of water is v and of acceleration of block with time is correctly
its density is d. Force exerted by the jet on the shown by the graph
wall is
(1) 2av2d cos (2) 2av2d sin !"#$ !"#"$%
(3) 2a2vd cos (4) 2a2vd sin

! "
134. The maximum angular displacement of an
oscillating bob from mean position of simple
pendulum of length l is The tension at mean (1) (2)
position is " !
(1) mgcos (2) mgsin
! !
(3) mg(3 – 2cos ) (4) 3mg(3 – 2cos )
135. A force F stops a body of mass m moving with a
(3) (4)
velocity u in a distance s. The force required to
stop a body of double the mass moving with " "
double the velocity in the same distance is
140. A student holds a book of mass 2 kg between his
(1) 2 F (2) 4 F hands. Each hand exerts horizontally a force of
(3) 6 F (4) 8 F 50 N. The coefficient of static friction between
hands and book is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
136. A small block of mass m is kept stationary on a
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
rough incline of inclination . Total contact force
applied by the incline on the mass m is (3) 0.4 (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) mg sin (2) mg cos 141. Two blocks of mass 6 kg and 4 kg are connected
by a string as shown. Acceleration of both blocks
(3) mg (4) mg tan
when F = 100 N is applied on the pulley
137. Acceleration of two blocks are shown in figure.
Relation between acceleration is
!
!"
!"#$ %"#$
!!
(1) a2 = 2a1 (2) a1 = 2a2
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 2.5 m/s2
(3) a1 = a2 (4) a2 = 4a1
(3) 0, 15 m/s2 (4) 6 m/s2, 15 m/s2
138. Two blocks of mass 6 kg and 4 kg are kept on
smooth surface. If the coefficient of friction between 142. Friction force on 2 kg block as shown in figure is
the two blocks is 0.5, then maximum acceleration
of two blocks so that they move together is
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
#$
!"
&'() $%
!#
!"
*'() ! !"#$
%&'
!"##$%
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (1) 10 N (2) 0

(3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 1.5 m/s2 (3) 30 N (4) 5 N
143. Direction of force is along the direction of

$
(1) Acceleration 149. A body of mass kg moving along x-axis at
%
(2) Change in velocity 4 m/s, suddenly takes a right turn and starts
(3) Change in momentum moving along y-axis at the same speed. The
magnitude of change in momentum of the body is
(4) All of these
(1) 4 m/s (2) ! " m/s
144. A small coin is kept at distance r from the centre
of a gramophone disc rotating at angular speed .
Minimum coefficient of friction for which coin will (3) 4 kg m/s (4) ! ! kg m/s
not slip is 150. If no net external force is acting on a system,
then which of the following is incorrect?
!
) !
(1) (2) !
(1) Velocity of centre of mass remains constant
! #
(2) Velocity of centre of mass is not constant
#! !
! (3) Velocity of centre of mass may be zero
(3) (4)
% " (4) Acceleration of centre of mass is zero
145. Two identical blocks each of mass m are shown 151. A body of mass m is kept on a rough inclined
in figure. Force exerted by clamp on the pulley is plane of inclination 45° with horizontal. If the body
remains at rest on the inclined plane, then reaction
force by the plane on the body is
(1) mg sin45° (2) mg cos60°
!
!
(3) mg (4) !" !
!"# 152. Strings and pulleys shown in figure are massless.
The reading shown by the light spring balance S is
! "!" !"!" !
(1) (2)
# #
! ! "!" !"
(3) (4)
# !
146. A mass m with velocity u strikes a wall normally
and returns normally with the same speed.
Magnitude of change in momentum of the body,
when it returns is !"#$ %"#$
(1) 4 mu (2) mu
(3) 2 mu (4) Zero (1) 2.4 kg (2) 5 kg
147. A canon shell moving along a straight line bursts (3) 2.5 kg (4) 3 kg
into two parts. Just after the burst one part moves 153. A body is moving at 10 m/s on a flat horizontal
with momentum 20 Ns making an angle 30° with circular road of radius of curvature 20 m. Minimum
the original line of motion. The minimum coefficient of friction between the road and body
momentum of the other part of the shell just after will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
the burst is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5
(1) Zero (2) 5 Ns (3) 0.4 (4) 0.25
(3) 17.32 Ns (4) 10 Ns 154. A particle is thrown vertically upward with speed u,
148. The speed of a 5 kg body is reduced from 65 m/s to then change in magnitude of momentum during its
15 m/s in 2 s. The average resisting force acting is ground to ground flight is
(1) 125 N (2) 1250 N (1) 2mu (2) mu
(3) 12.5 N (4) 200 N (3) Zero (4) –2mu
155. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a rough surface 159. A block of mass m is connected to a block of
( = 0.4) as shown in figure. Net force on the block is mass M by means of a massless spring. The
blocks are pressed so that the spring is
!"#$ !"%"&'"(
compressed. When released, the block of mass m
moves with initial acceleration a. Magnitude of
initial acceleration of mass M will be
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
'. &.
(3) Zero (4) 40 N (1) (2)
& ' & '
156. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough table
( = 0.6). Maximum value of m for which system !" !"
(3) (4)
will remain in equilibrium, as shown in figure, is # #
160. Two blocks shown are connected by a heavy rope
!"#$ of mass 4 kg. An upward force of 200 N is applied.
The tension at the top of the heavy rope is
(g = 10 m/s2)
%&&"'
%"#$
!
!"#$
!"#$
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg
(3) 1.5 kg (4) 1 kg (1) 125 N (2) 137.5 N
(3) 147.5 N (4) 160 N
157. Figure shows a block of mass m moving without
friction along three tracks with same speed v. !
161. A force ! "" ! #! ""$! is applied on a body of
Normal reactions N1, N2 and N3 are related as
mass 2 kg at rest. If the body starts its motion at
!" !" !" t = 0 then velocity of the body at t = 3 s is
$ $
$
(1) "!! #$% !"
#! #" ##
(2) #$%!! " !"
(1) N3 > N1 > N2 (2) N1 = N2 = N3
(3) "!! " !"
(3) N2 > N1 > N3 (4) N2 = N3 > N1
158. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough (4) &'!! " "!
horizontal surface on which a force F is acting as
162. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 20 g with a
shown. Coefficient of friction between the block and
velocity of 1200 m/s. Maximum force of 144 N can
the ground is 0.2 and the block is at rest. Friction
be applied by the man holding it. Maximum
force acting on the block is
number of bullets that he can fire per second is
# (1) Three (2) Four
&'( (3) Six (4) Ten
!"#$% 163. A simple pendulum hangs from the roof of a train
moving on horizontal rails. If the string is inclined
towards the front of the train, then train is
#
(1) # ! (2) (1) Moving with constant velocity
%
(2) In accelerated motion
! ! " (3) In retarded motion

(3) 20 N (4) !"# # $!! $
% #& (4) At rest
164. A soldier is firing 20 bullets per second from his 169. Force F applied to mass m 1 gives it an
gun having muzzle speed of 150 m/s. The mass acceleration of 15 m/s2. The same force F applied
of each bullet is 50 g. If they strike the wall and to m2 gives it an acceleration of 10 m/s2. If the two
rebound with same speed, then the force on the masses are joined together and a force 2F is
wall is applied to the combination, then acceleration of
(1) 75 N (2) 150 N the combination of masses is
(3) 300 N (4) 600 N (1) 6 m/s2 (2) 12.5 m/s2
165. The length of a spring is l1 and l2 when stretched (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
with a force of 4 N and 5 N respectively. Its natural
length is 170. A block of mass M is pulled by a force F making
angle with horizontal on a smooth horizontal
(1) l2 + l1 (2) 2(l2 – l1)
surface as shown. If a is the acceleration of block
(3) 5l1 – 4l2 (4) 5l2 – 4l1 on the surface, then contact force between the
166. A projectile is fired at angle with horizontal with block and the surface is
initial speed u. If it breaks into two halves such
that one half retraces its path, then the distance "
of hitting point of the other half from starting point is
!
" ! %&' # !! ! "#$ !
(1) (2)
# "
(1) Mg + Ma cos (2) Mg – Ma cos
" ! %&' # " ! %&'
(3) (4) (3) Mg + Ma tan (4) Mg – Ma tan
## ##
167. In the figure, if the lower end of system of springs 171. On an inclined plane of inclination 30°, a smooth
is stretched by length x, then extension in upper groove of length 5 m is made as shown in the
spring is figure. The time taken by a ball released from top
of the plane to reach the bottom of the plane in
the groove is
!!
!" !"#
!"#
(1) 2 s (2) !"

&! &"
(1) ' (2) '
&" &! (3) 3 s (4) !"
!! !" 172. A body of mass m1 is connected to a vertical
(3) " (4) "
!! ! " !! ! " spring of force constant K. Another mass m2 is
168. The 10 kg body is suspended from two points A kept on m1. The maximum amplitude of vertical
and C on a horizontal line AC. Tension in the vibration of the two block system such that m2 will
string AB is (g = 10 m/s2) not be separated from m1 is
"!
! &"' &"' " ""
!
#
!"#$% ! ! !"" "! " ! $'! '" %

(1) (2)
# -
(1) 50 N (2) !"" # $%
!"" ! ! ""! "" # $ ! ""! "" #
(3) #$ (4) 100 N (3) (4)
% # #
173. If a body of mass 10 kg is at equilibrium on the 176. Block A, B and C are kept at smooth horizontal
inclined plane as shown in figure, then minimum surface as shown in the figure. Force applied by
force F acting on the body parallel and up the plane block A on C is
is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
! $!
%
#$ $"
!" "
# $#
$%$&'(
!
!"# (1) Zero (2) mAg

(3) (mA + mB) g (4) (mA – mB) g
(1) 60 N (2) 40 N
177. In the given figure string is massless and pulley is
(3) 10 N (4) 20 N smooth. Find force applied by 3 kg block on the
174. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m string
connected by a massless spring are kept on a
smooth horizontal floor as shown. An impulse
imparts block A, a velocity v to the right. Velocity
of B at the time of maximum compression of
spring is
! "
!"#$
!"##$%
(1) v
%"#$
!
(2)
! (1) 3 g
! (2) > 3 g
(3)
! (3) < 3g
! (4) 5 g
(4)
" 178. Newton’s laws of motion are invalid in
175. A boy is rotating with angular velocity on a (1) Inertial frame of reference
horizontal circular path of radius R as shown in
the figure, then centrifugal force experienced by the (2) Non-inertial frame of reference
boy (at the instant shown in figure) is (3) Both inertial and non-inertial frame of reference
" (4) Neither inertial nor non-inertial frame of
reference
179. In the figure shown strings are massless and floor
is smooth. The values of T 1 and T 2 are
respectively
!
!'"( !! !"
!"#$ %"#$ &"#$
#
(1) Zero (1) 10 N, 16 N
(2) mR 2 in negative x direction (2) 16 N, 10 N
(3) mR 2 in positive x direction (3) 15 N, 5 N
(4) mR 2 in positive y-direction (4) 12 N, 6 N
180. Consider string, spring balance and pulley to be 184. In the figure shown string B is pulled with a speed
massless (g = 10 m/s2) in the given figure. What of 6 m/s, then find upward speed of block C is
is the reading of spring balance? !
!"#$%
!
%"&'(
%"#$ " #
!"#$ (1) 1.5 m/s (2) 3 m/s

(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 6 m/s
(1) 16 N
185. A ball is held in position A by two light strings.
(2) 32 N
The horizontal string is cut. The tension in string
(3) 26.6 N OA just after the horizontal string cut is
(4) 30 N #
181. A rocket of mass 5000 kg is set for vertical firing. If
the exhaust speed be 800 m/s, then how much gas
must be ejected to give the rocket an upward
acceleration of 10 m/s2 (Take g = 10 m/s2) !
"
(1) 50 kg/s
(2) 100 kg/s
(3) 125 kg/s
"!
(4) 150 kg/s (1) (2) mg cos
!"#
182. A truck is moving on a frictionless surface with
uniform velocity of 40 m/s. A leak occurs in the "!
bottom of water tank at the rate of 4 kg/s. What (3) mg sin (4)
#$%
is the speed of the truck after 250 s, if the mass
of the truck was initially 4000 kg? 186. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 50 g with a
velocity of 1000 m/s. The man holding it can exert
!"# a maximum force of 160 N on the gun. How many
(1) $%&'
( bullets can he fire per second at the most?
(2) 40 m/s (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 30 m/s (3) 2 (4) 5
(4) 50 m/s 187. A ball of mass m strikes a rough horizontal surface
183. In the given figure what is the friction acting with speed u at an angle with the normal and it
between 8 kg block and floor (Take g = 10 m/s2) rebounds with speed v at an angle with the normal.
If the contact time were t, then average normal
)*"+ force on the ball due to horizontal surface is
!"#$
"%"&'(
"
(1) 16 N
(2) 8 N
!
(3) 12 N
(4) 10 N
190. A body of mass 10 kg is pulled in vertically upward
! $ !"# % !"# "
(1) " # $ direction with the help of chain of mass 1 kg with
% & & an acceleration of 5 m/s2. Then find the force exerted
by the body on the chain (Take g = 10 m/s2)
! % !"# $ !"# "
(2) " # $ (1) 100 N (2) 125 N
% & &
(3) 150 N (4) 110 N
! "! #! !"# "#$% & 191. In the given figure surface CB is smooth but AC
(3)
$ is rough. The value of coefficient of friction on AC
surface is such that no block moves. Tension in
"&% #$% $ #$% ' the string is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(4)
&
!
188. If the block A as shown in figure is pushed
horizontally by a horizontal force 20 N, then force
exerted by A on B is '()* %&#
+()*
!
"
#
!'"( &"#$ %"#$ $!#
!"#$ !"#
#
"
)*+,,-./
(1) 8 N (2) 16 N
(1) 4 N
(3) 20 N (4) 12 N
(2) 8 N
192. A block is gently placed on a conveyor belt moving
(3) 10 N horizontally with constant speed. After t = 4 s the
(4) 20 N velocity of the block becomes equal to the velocity
of the belt. If the coefficient of friction between the
189. In the figure shown the horizontal surface is block and the belt is = 0.4, then the velocity of
smooth and the strings are inextensible and the conveyor belt is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
massless pulleys are light. If the acceleration of
block 1 kg is a, then acceleration of 3 kg is (1) 2 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) 64 m/s (4) 16 m/s
193. A block of mass m slides down an inclined plane
of slope with constant velocity. Force of friction
!"#$ acting on the body is
(1) mg sin (2) mg cos
"!
(3) mg (4)
#$%
194. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on an inclined plane
having inclination 37° and = 0.8 then find net
force acting on the block. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
%"#$
(1) Zero
$
(2) 2a !"#
$%$&'(
"
(3) !"#
!
" (1) Zero (2) 15 N

(4)
" (3) 20 N (4) 25 N
195. A massless string AB is loaded at its centre O by 199. If a spring of spring constant k is divided into three
mass m. If its ends A and B are on the same parts having ratio of there length as 2 : 3 : 5 then
horizontal line, then tension in the strings OA is find ratio of there spring constant
(1) 2 : 3 : 5 (2) 5:3:2
#
" (3) 10 : 6 : 15 (4) 15 : 10 : 6
200. A stationary bomb of mass m explodes in air at a
!"# !"# height h from the ground. Then sum of momentum of
its all the fragments, when they will strike the ground
! is
(1) Zero
!"
(1) (2) mg (2) ! !"#
!
%!" !" (3) ! "#

(3) (4)
& ! (4) Data is insufficient to decide
196. A body of mass m is moving on a concave bridge 201. Speed v of a particle of mass m moving on a
ABC of radius of curvature R at a speed v. The circular path of radius r depends on the distance
normal reaction by the bridge on the body at the travelled x as v = kx. The tangential force acting
instant it is at the lowest point of the bridge is on the particle when it travels a distance x, is
(k is a constant)
$ %
(1) mk2x (2) mx2
!( ! '/ ! 0
! (3) (4)
" #! )!
# 202. In the system shown, pulley is massless and
string is light and inextensible. Acceleration with
!" ! !" ! which 4 kg mass starts moving up is
(1) !# (2) !#
$ $ [Take g = 10 m/s2]
!" !
(3) mg (4)
#
197. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed
of 720 km/h with its wing banked at 45°. Find the
radius of the loop [Take g = 10 m/s2] !"#$%
(1) 5 km (2) 10 km
(3) 4 km (4) 30 km
&#$%
198. Force acting on a body is varying with time t as
shown in figure. Change in momentum of the body (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
in the interval 0 to 15 s is (3) 5 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
" 203. A block of mass m is kept on a smooth inclined
plane of height 1 m and slope length 2 m. The
horizontal acceleration of the plane so that the
&%"'
block may remain stationary relative to inclined
$%"# $!"# plane is
% !"# !
(&%"' $ !
(1) (2)
! !
(1) 50 Ns (2) 25 Ns
(3) – 50 Ns (4) –25 Ns (3) !! (4) !!
204. The powder of a substance is to be stored in a
#
conical heap on a horizontal circular area ) ! . If !!"
is the coefficient of static friction between the
powder particles of substance, then maximum $%$"&'
height of the conical heap is
(1) r (2) r !"#
! (1) 25 N (2) !" # $%

(3) r2 (4)
(3) 15 N (4) !" # $%
.
205. The ratio ! of acceleration of 1 kg masses in the 208. A car is moving on a horizontal flat circular road.
." If N1 and N2 are normal reactions produced on the
two systems shown in the figures is (Pulleys are inner wheels and outer wheels respectively, then
massless and the strings are ideal) (1) N1 = N2 (2) N1 < N2
[Take g = 10 m/s2] (3) N1 > N2 (4) N1 – N2 = Mg
209. A bullet of mass m strikes a wooden block of
mass M and gets embedded into it immediately.
If coefficient of friction between the block and
surface is , then the distance moved by the
embedded wooden block just after collision is
"! ""
!"# !"# "#$%
!
$"#
!%&%$'(
! !
! !" " ! ! #" " !
" (1) # $ (2) # $
(1) 1 (2) % # ! & "$ % # ! & "$
!
! !
# $ !# !" ! !# !" !
(3) # $ (4) # $
(3) (4) % #" & "$ % !" & "$
! !
206. A body of mass 1 kg is moving on a smooth 210. Two particles of mass m and 3m are attached
surface with speed 5 m/s. A force starts acting on respectively to the mid-point and one end of a light
the body which varies with time as shown in the string. Another end of the string is kept fixed. The
figure. The velocity of the body at t = 3 second is masses are thrown to move on circular paths on
a smooth horizontal table. During the motion string
remains straight. The ratio of T1 and T2 as shown
"
in figure is
!"#$
!! !"
" !"
'" !
%#&
(1) 25 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 15 m/s (4) 30 m/s
# %
207. On the fixed inclined plane of inclination 30° a (1) (2)
! &
block of mass 5 kg is placed as shown in the
figure. The frictional force acting on the block $ #
(3) (4)
5 kg is [Take g = 10 m/s2] % !
211. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on horizontal rough 216. The breaking strength of a uniform light string of
surface at rest as shown in the figure. A time length 1 m is 16 N. A ball of mass 100 g is tied
varying force F is applied on the block. The speed to one end of the string. The maximum number of
of the block at t = 10 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2] revolution that can be made per second in a
horizontal circle of radius 1 m without breaking the
!"#$ !"%"&" !
string is ! "#$
"%"'(&
(1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1.0 m/s
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s
217. A rocket develops initial thrust of 6.6 105 N and
212. A car is crossing over a bridge in the form of a has a lift-off mass of 1.4 105 kg. The initial
vertical circular arc of radius of curvature 20 m. acceleration is (g = 10 m/s2)
The maximum speed with which the car can cross
(1) 0 m/s2 (2) 4.7 m/s2
the bridge without leaving the ground is
(3) 2.7 m/s2 (4) 1.7 m/s2
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
218. Tension T in the block of mass M at the distance
(1) 20 m/s (2) !" ! m/s ‘x’ from left is given by
(3) )* ( m/s (4) )* ! m/s !

213. A block of mass m is placed over another block of # "
mass 2m as shown in figure. Coefficient of friction !"##$%
between the two blocks is 0.5. A force mg is applied
horizontally on the lower block as shown in figure. $
The force of friction between the two blocks is
!" #$
!"#$% (1) # (2) %
! $ &
&! !" ! !" # " ! !" # "

(3) $ (4) $
" #
'())*+",-./012
219. Minimum horizontal force F, so that ‘m1’ falls freely
!" !" is given by
(1) (2)
! !
!" !" !!
(3) (4) ! "
" !
!
214. A net force ! ""! # !# $%$! &' is applied on a
body to accelerate it by 2 m/s2. The mass of the !"##$%
body is [Take g = 10 m/s2] (1) F = mg tan (2) F = mg cos
(1) !" #$% (2) & !" #$% (3) F = mg cot (4) F = mg sin
(3) ! !" #$% (4) ' !" #$% 220. A block of mass 1 kg is projected from the lowest
point parallel up the inclined plane. If g = 10 m/s2
215. A block of mass 2 kg is lying on a rough then, the initial retardation experienced by the
horizontal surface. A force just sufficient to move block is
the block is applied to it. If coefficient of static
friction and kinetic friction is 0.5 and 0.3
respectively, then the acceleration of the block is
[Take g = 10 ms–2]
!
(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2 !"&'$
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2 !"#$%
225. A body of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough inclined
!" !
(1) #$%! (2) "#$! plane of angle 37° with horizontal. If coefficient of
& % friction between the body and the inclined plane is
0.5, then acceleration of the body down the
!' inclined plane is
(3) #$%! (4) Zero
&
!
(1) g (2)
221. Value of angle ‘ ’ in the diagram shown is !
! !
!/,0("/.".,'0+'/-"#.1 (3) (4)
( )
226. The relation between force and position of a body
of mass 1 kg is shown by graph. Velocity of body
at x = 0 is zero, then velocity at x = 4 is
!"#$%%&'()"(*+(,-$&"./,0(1
"#%('
(1) 30° (2) 45°
#$
(3) 60° (4) 75°
!%&'
222. A body of mass 2 kg is moving on a circular path ! " #$
of radius 2 m with constant speed 2 m/s. Force
acting on the body is (1) "* ,-./ (2) " + ,-./
(1) Zero (2) 4 N (3) ! + ,-./ (4) 20 m/s
(3) 8 N (4) 6 N
227. Velocity of hanging block, if end A and end B of
223. The string connecting blocks A and B is ideal and the string are moving with speed 5 m/s and
B is pulled horizontally to the right by a force of 3 m/s respectively, as shown, is (string and
10 N. Force of friction acting on A is given by pulleys are ideal)
+#)* (#)*
! " !"#$
#%#"&+
" #%#"&'
!
! "
(1) 4 N (2) 20 N !"#$%
(3) Zero (4) 5 N &"#$%
224. A block B of mass 3 kg is kept on block A of

mass 5 kg in a lift accelerating upward with an #
acceleration g. Reaction by A on B is (1) 2 m/s up (2) 2 m/s down
(3) 4 m/s up (4) 4 m/s down
#"&"$
228. A rope of mass 5 kg is in vertical position. A force
of 150 N is applied upward at upper end and a
70 N force downward at its lower end. The tension
in the rope at its mid-point is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
!
!"#$ (1) 102.8 N (2) 110 N
" (3) 67.5 N (4) 70 N
%"#$
229. A block of mass 2 kg is allowed to slide from rest
on a rough incline plane of coefficient of friction
(1) 10g 0.5. Angle of inclination is 30°. The contact force
(2) 16g acting between the block and the plane is
(3) 4g (1) ( )" * (2) ( )( *
(4) 6g (3) )" ! * (4) )" ( *
230. A particle of mass m moving at speed v collides (1) 5 N (2) 10 N

elastically with a wall at an angle of incidence .
(3) 20 N (4) 15 N
Magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball by the
wall is 237. The product of constant force acting on a body and
(1) 2mv cos (2) 2mv sin time interval is
(3) 2mv (4) 2mv tan (1) Momentum at the end of interval
231. If block B is pulled horizontally by a force of 20 N, (2) Impulse in that interval
as shown, then tension in the massless string
joining blocks A and B is (3) Energy at the end of interval
! " (4) Power in that interval
!"#$ %"#$ !&"' 238. A body of mass 10 kg is suspended from B of
string AC such that AB part of string is horizontal
()*++,-.
and BC is at an angle 30° with horizontal. If T1 and
(1) 2 N (2) 6 N
1"
(3) 8 N (4) 12 N T2 are tension in strings AB and BC, then 1 is
!
232. Force of friction acting on the body shown in the
figure is $
!"#$% &"'
&"#'
#(#")*
!#(#!"#+,-! # !"
(1) 80 N (2) 100 N

(3) 40 N (4) 60 N
233. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving in a circular path !"#$%
of radius 2 m at a speed of 4 m/s. Force acting (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
on the body is
(1) 40 N (2) 20 N (3) !"# (4) )0 !
(3) 60 N (4) 80 N 239. If force acting on a system is zero, the quantity
234. Friction can be minimised by which remains constant
(1) Lubrication (1) Force (2) Linear momentum
(2) Converting sliding to rolling (3) Speed (4) Kinetic energy
(3) Streamlining the shape of body
240. Tension in the string joining m1 and m2 as shown
(4) All of these in figure is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
235. Law of conservation of momentum for a system is
consequence of !"!"!(!$% !!!"!#!$%
(1) Newton’s first law (2) Newton’s second law )(!*
(3) Newton’s third law (4) None of these !"!&'# !"!&'(
" !
236. Momentum of a body varies with time as shown in
graph. Force acting on the body at time t = 1 s (1) Zero (2) 6 N
is
(3) 12 N (4) 3 N
!"'()"*+,-
241. Which of the following is correct about friction?
(1) Sliding friction is self adjusting
!&
(2) Static friction is self adjusting
(3) Kinetic friction is more than static friction
"#'$-
!" # $ % (4) Static friction is independent of driving force
242. Mass m is attached to the lower end of the ideal 246. A gun is firing n bullets per second. If mass of
spring of force constant K and is released from the each bullet is m and muzzle velocity is v, then
natural length of spring. Maximum elongation of force required to hold the gun at its position is
the spring is
(1) 2mnv
(2) mnv
!"#$%"&' !$%
&()*#+ (3)
!
(4) mv
!
247. A particle of mass m tied to a massless string is
moving in a complete vertical circle such that it
!" !!%
(1) (2) passes its highest point with critical speed.
# &
Tension in the string at the instant when velocity
!!" !" of mass becomes vertical is
(3) (4)
# !# (1) 6mg
243. Pulley and strings shown in figure are massless. (2) 3mg
Acceleration of 3 kg is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
(3) 2mg
(4) mg
248. A box of mass 2 kg is moved on a horizontal
surface under a force F which varies with speed v
as F = 5 – 0.2 v2. The maximum speed attained
by the box is
!"#$
(1) 10 m/s
%"#$
(2) 15 m/s
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 25 m/s
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s
244. A string of negligible mass going over a clamped
pulley of mass M supports a block of mass 2M as 249. A force F1 accelerates a particle from rest to a
shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the velocity v. Another force F2 decelerates the same
clamp is given by mass from v to rest then
(1) F1 > F2
! (2) F1 < F2
(3) F1 = F2
!!
(4) Any of these
(1) ! ! !" (2) )! !" 250. When a cannon shell explodes in mid air, then
momentum of the system is conserved because
(3) ! !" (4) !! !" (1) Gravity doesn’t affect the momentum of the
245. Select correct statement about Newton’s first law system
(1) It can be applied only in inertial frame (2) Gravity is not acting during collision
(2) Newton’s third law can be derived from first law (3) Impulsive force is very large compared to the
gravity
(3) It can be applied only in non-inertial frame
(4) It can be applied in inertial as well as in (4) Gravity is very large compared to impulsive
non-inertial frame force
251. In three trials a block is pushed by a horizontal

applied force on a floor which is half smooth and !!
half rough. The magnitude of applied force F and !#
speed of block after entering the rough surface are
!"
given in the table. Coefficient of friction is (1) !" (2)
!#
[Take g = 10 ms–2] !!
!#$#)*+(
"
! !!
!"##$% !" !#
&#'(%
(3) (4) !
" !#
,-./0 " !6778
!!
1 3*4 97:-7/;7 255. A racing car is moving on a banked horizontal
) 5*4 <#=;$/=$ circular path of radius of curvature 1000 m. When
the car moves with speed 100 m/s, force of friction
2 11*4 >=:-7/;7 acting on it becomes zero. Angle of banking of the
path is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.1
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.8 (1) 30° (2) 45°
252. In the given figure all the surfaces are smooth. If (3) 60° (4) 53°
wedge starts moving with an acceleration a = g 256. A stretching force of 15 N is applied at one end of
cot then time taken by the block to reach the a spring balance and an equal stretching force is
bottom of the wedge is applied at the other end at the same time. What
will be the reading of the balance?
#
(1) Zero (2) 15 N
" (3) 30 N (4) 7.5 N
! 257. Which of the following is incorrect about Newton’s
laws of motion?
(1) 2nd law of motion measures the force
(2) 3rd law of motion tells about nature of forces
!! "% (3) 3rd law of motion and conservation of linear
(1) (2)
" "#$ $ momentum are consequence of each other
!! !! (4) 1st law can be derived from 2nd law of motion

(3) (4) 258. A block of mass 1 kg rests on horizontal smooth
" "#$ "
surface. A force of 30 N acts on the block at angle
253. A heavy box is kept on the roof of a stationary
of 60° with vertical (shown in figure). Acceleration
bus. When the bus starts, force of friction between
of the block is (g = 10 m/s2)
the bus and the box
(1) Supports the motion of the box (&")
(2) Supports the motion of the bus %&'
(3) Neither opposes nor supports the motion of
!"#$
the box
(4) Neither opposes nor supports the motion of
the bus (1) )* 1 ,-./!
254. A bomb at rest explodes into three equal parts. If
(2) )* ( ,-./!
two parts move in mutually perpendicular directions
! ! !
with momentum #! , !! however !! is momentum (3) )* ! ,-./
!
of the third part then which of the following vector
diagrams is correct? (4) )* + ,-./!
259. A trolley of mass 300 kg carrying sand 200 kg (in 263. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are connected
it) is moving uniformly with speed of 40 km/h on to a massless string passing over an ideal pulley.
a frictionless track. After a while sand starts Tension in the string is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
leaking out of a hole on the track. What is the
speed of the trolley after entire sand is leaked out?
(1) 24 km/h (2) 30 km/h
(3) 66 km/h (4) 40 km/h
!"#$
260. Variation of force F acting on a body with time t
is as shown in figure. Change in momentum of the %"#$
body in the interval 0 to 20 s is
(1) 30 N
!
(2) 20 N
(3) 24 N
!"#$
(4) 48 N
264. A car is running on a horizontal rough (µ = 0.5)
"
" '#& %"#& circular track of radius 50 m. Maximum speed at
which car can run without sideways skidding is
approximately
(1) 100 kg m/s (1) 12 m/s
(2) 175 kg m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 350 kg m/s
(3) 16 m/s
(4) 400 kg m/s
(4) 25 m/s
261. A disc having a groove is moving in a vertical
plane. There is a particle of mass 1 kg kept in the 265. A mass of 1 kg is put on a pan and spring is
groove at some distance from the centre of the stretched from its equilibrium position by 10 cm.
disc. If disc accelerates horizontally as shown, then When pan is released, the block just gets
the value to for which particle will be freely falling detached for a moment. What should be the
minimum value of spring constant for which this
&'"()*+% can happen? [Take g = 10 ms–2]
!
!
!,-,./,012 !"##$%
(1) 37° (2) 53°

(1) 10 N/m
(3) 60° (4) 45°
(2) 100 N/m
262. The maximum value of force F so that block does
not move [Take g = 10 ms–2] (3) 1000 N/m
! (4) 1 N/m
"#" ' 266. A bucket full of water is revolved in vertical circle

!"# ())& of radius 5 m. What should be the minimum
speed at highest point so that the water does not
& $% fall off the bucket? [Take g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 10 N (1) 2 m/s
(2) 20 N (2) 3 m/s
(3) 30 N (3) 7 m/s
(4) 40 N (4) 4 m/s
267. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and 4m are 270. In a pulley-mass system, two bodies of different
connected by a string. The block of mass 4m is mass suspended over a pulley through massless
connected by a spring (massless). The string is string. If masses are interchanged, then what
suddenly cut. The ratio of magnitude of accelerations happens to magnitude of acceleration (a) and
of masses 2m and 4m at that instant are tension (T) in the string?
(1) a and T both changes
(2) a and T both remains same
(3) a change but T remains same
(4) T change but a remains same
!! " 271. A body of mass 10 kg is moving according to
equation of x = 3t2 – t3. Force on body becomes
"! # zero after a time interval of
(1) 0.1 s (2) 1 s
(1) 1 : 2
(3) 2 s (4) 0.5 s
(2) 2 : 1
272. In given figure, reading of spring balance is
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1 !"#$ !"#$
268. A body of mass 2 kg is moving, its v-t graph as
shown in figure. Then magnitude of maximum force (1) 0 N
on body will be (2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
$
%' (4) 5 N
%& " # 273. Incorrect statement is

!!"#$%
(1) Spring force is due to electromagnetic force

between atoms of the material
(2) If string is in equilibrium, then tension in string
4 will be uniform
! ! " # $ %& (3) Normal reaction may act parallel to the surface
()*+,-).,/+01.23 in contact
(1) 10 N (2) 15 N (4) Static friction is self adjusting force
(3) 5 N (4) 2.5 N 274. In the given figure, the force on the clamp by the
269. In given figure, a body of mass 30 kg suspended pulley is
by two string as shown in figure, then tension in
string OA will be [Take g = 10 ms–2] !
!
&'()*(+,"-..
!&' !"#$%
" !
#
!"#$%
(1) 300 N !"
(1) !"!" (2)
(2) 400 N !
(3) 500 N !"
(4) 100 N (3) (4) 2mg
!
275. A force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown 281. A chain of length L and mass M is allowed to fall
in figure. Change in momentum between 0 to 4 s is on a table such that the part falling on the table
comes to rest instantaneously. The force acting on
!)*+ the table when x part of it has lied on the table is
(' !&0!
(1)
2
"),+ (&0!
! " # $ % (2)
2
&' &'"
(3)
(
(1) 20 N-s (2) 10 N-s
(&0!
(3) Zero (4) 5 N-s (4)
!2
276. A body of mass m is in elevator, if elevator is 282. A car start from rest to cover distance x. The
! coefficient of kinetic friction between road and tyre
retarding upward with , then reading of weighing is . The minimum time in which the car can cover
(
the distance x is proportional to
machine is (in kgf)
(1)
!!" "!
(1) (2) (2)
" #
!! !
(3) (4) Zero (3)
"
277. Rain drop of mass 0.2 g is falling freely. Then !
apparent weight of the drop is (4)
(1) Zero (2) 10–3 N
283. A body of mass 20 kg is moving on inclined plane
(3) 10–2 N (4) 2 × 10–3 N with constant velocity 20 m/s. The coefficient of
278. When we kick a stone, we get hurt. Due to which kinetic friction between incline plane and block is
one of the following properties does it happens?
(1) Velocity (2) Momentum
(3) Inertia (4) Reaction
!"#$%&
279. A body is placed over an inclined plane of angle '()
( – ). The angle between normal reaction and
the weight of the body is (1) 0.6
(1) (2) 0.5
(2) More than (3) 0.75
(3) Less than (4) 1
(4) Equal to angle of friction 284. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ‘ ’
is frictionless while lower half is rough. A body
280. When we walk on ice, we should take small steps start to slip from top of inclined surface and come
to avoid slipping. This is because smaller step to rest at bottom. The coefficient of friction ( ) at
ensure lower half of plane is
(1) Smaller friction coefficient (1) 2 cot
(2) Larger friction coefficient (2) cot
(3) Larger normal force (3) tan
(4) Smaller normal force (4) 2 tan
285. In the given figure what will be the minimum value 290. A body of mass 10 kg is kept on a horizontal floor
of m such that system remains in equilibrium having coefficient of static friction s = 0.5 and
coefficient of kinetic friction k = 0.45. The force of
! friction acting on the body is (g = 10 m/s2)
"&'!
%"#$
!"#$%
!# #"&'
"# #"&('
!"#$ (1) Zero (2) 50 N
(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 45 N (4) 100 N
(3) 6 kg (4) 8 kg 291. A body of mass 2 kg is released on an inclined
plane as shown in figure. Acceleration of the body
286. If conical pendulum of length L makes an angle down the plane is
with the horizontal, then its time period is
proportional to
$
(1) sin !"#
(2) (sin )1/2 $ $%&'
(3) cos
(4) (cos )1/2 !"#
! (1) 6 m/s2
287. For uniform circular motion, if ! = centripetal
! ! (2) 2.3 m/s2
acceleration, ! = centepital force, ) = position
! (3) 3.8 m/s2
vector and ( = velocity, then incorrect statement is
! ! (4) Zero
(1) ! " !
292. A conical pendulum has a bob of mass m and
! !
(2) # ( * semivertex of the cone is . Tension in the
massless string of the conical pendulum is
! !
(3) . # *
(1) mg (2) mg cos
! !
(4) ! " !
'!
288. In two systems of units the relation between (3) (4) mg sin
23/
!! 293. Coefficient of friction between a block and floor of
acceleration and force is a2 = a1 and !"
truck is 0.5. The maximum acceleration with which
where and are constants. The relation between truck can accelerate on the horizontal road such
mass in the two system is that block will not slip is (g = 10 m/s2)
! ! (1) 2 m/s2
" "
(1) !" !! (2) !! (2) 5 m/s2
!"
(3) 3 m/s2
!! !! (4) 4 m/s2
(3) ! " (4) !" " "
294. Velocity of the body of mass 10 kg changed from
289. The angle of banking for a cyclist taking a turn at 2 m/s along east to 3 m/s along west in 5 s.
Force acting on the body is
!!
a curve is given by !"# where symbols have (1) 10 N along east
"#
their usual meaning. The value of n is (2) 10 N along north
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 10 N along west
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) 10 N along south
295. Maximum constant speed with which a car can 3. A : Static friction is self-adjustable.
move on a flat horizontal circular road of radius of R : Value of static friction lies between zero and a
curvature 20 m and coefficient of static friction 0.5 maximum value (called limiting friction)
is (g = 10 m/s2)
4. A : Normal contact force by a horizontal surface on
(1) 36 km/h (2) 54 km/h
a block placed on the surface does not always
(3) 72 km/h (4) 90 km/h form action-reaction pair with weight of the
block.
296. All pulleys and string are massless and
frictionless. Reading shown by the spring balance R : Weight is fundamentally electromagnetic while
S is normal force is nuclear force.
! 5. A : The potential energy of a body subjected to a
conservative force is always undetermined upto
a constant.
R : Every force encountered in mechanics doesn't
have an associated potential energy.
!"#$ !"#$ 6. A : In a gravity free space where even air is absent

a man which was initially at rest cannot move
(1) 2 kg (2) 8 kg in any condition.
(3) Zero (4) 4 kg R : Action forces are not possible, if there exist no
source of reaction.
297. A rocket is set to fire from ground such that hot
gases are ejected from it at 10 kg/s at 5 km/s. 7. A : Kinetic friction may be greater than static
The accelerating force on the rocket is friction.
(1) 30 kN R : Static friction is a self adjustable force.
(2) 40 kN 8. A : By pressing a block against a rough wall, one
can balance it.
(3) 50 kN
R : Smooth walls can’t hold the block by pressing
(4) 20 kN the block against the wall whatever high the
force may be.
9. A : A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height
SECTION - B h with a speed v. The stone will hit the ground
Assertion - Reason Type Questions with same speed, independent of its initial
direction in the absence of air resistance.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : In the presence of air resistance the
momentum of the stone remains conserved in
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the the horizontal direction.
assertion, then mark (1). 10. A : Real forces are always produced in pairs.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the R : To every action there is an equal and opposite
reason is not the correct explanation of the reaction.
assertion, then mark (2). 11. A : Newton’s law is applicable on earth as
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is reference frame.
false, then mark (3). R : Earth is an inertial frame.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 12. A : A man pushes against a rigid fixed vertical wall
statements, then mark (4). but wall remains static.
1. A : Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it. R : Whatever force the man exerts on the wall, the
R : Pushing increases the apparent weight. wall also exerts an equal and opposite force on
the man.
2. A : Newton’s third law is consequence of
conservation of linear momentum. 13. A : More external force is required to start motion
than to maintain it.
R : Linear momentum of a system of particles is
always not conserved. R : Kinetic friction is less than the limiting friction.
14. A : It is difficult to move a cycle along a road with 16. A : Single isolated force without reaction force is
its brakes on. not possible.
R : Limiting friction is greater than rolling friction. R : Newton’s third law is a universal law.
15. A : Magnitude of acceleration of a body is 17. A : During free fall, an object experiences a
independent from the direction of force on the pseudo force equal to its weight but in
body. opposite direction.
R : Momentum is maximum, when force is along R : During free fall, an object experience no
the line of motion. gravitational force.
!" !" !
Chapter 5
Work, Energy and Power
6. A body of mass 0.5 kg thrown vertically upward

SECTION - A with 20 m/s reaches a maximum height of 16 m.
Objective Type Questions The amount of energy dissipated by the air drag
acting on the ball during the ascent is
1. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a velocity of
10 m/s. Now a force which delivers a constant (1) 20 J (2) 10 J
power of 75 watt is applied on it for 10 s in the (3) 4 J (4) 8 J
same direction. The velocity of body after 10 s will
7. A mass of 4 kg falls from a height h on the pan.
be
Initially the spring is in its natural length and mass
(1) !" # $%& (2) 20 m/s of spring and pan are negligible. Spring constant of
(3) 40 m/s (4) !" ! #$% the spring is 1000 N/m. Mass compresses the
spring by 0.5 m. Then the height ‘h’ is
2. When a body moves non-uniformly on a circular
path !"#$
(1) No work is done by tangential force
!
(2) No work is done by centripetal force
(3) Work done by tangential force is always
positive
(4) Work done by centripetal force is non-negative
3. A man standing near a well is supporting a bucket
full of water with the help of a massless rope. The (1) 2.00 m (2) 1.56 m
mass of bucket and water together is 20 kg.
Length of rope in the well is 5 m. The amount of (3) 4.0 m (4) 2.625 m
work done in pulling the bucket up onto the top of 8. A motor pulls a block by giving a force of 50 N at
well is a speed of 36 km/h. The power supplied by the
motor to the block is
(1) 1000 J (2) 1125 J
(1) 500 watt
(3) 1062.5 J (4) 562.5 J
(2) 1800 watt
4. Two spring of spring constant k and 3k are
stretched separately by same force. The ratio of (3) 250 watt
potential energy stored in them respectively will be (4) 200 watt
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1 9. Human heart beats 72 times per minute. It pumps
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 9 1cc blood in each pulse under a pressure of
2 × 104 N/m2. The power of heart is
5. Two masses 100 g and 500 g are moving on a
smooth surface with equal K.E. The ratio of their (1) 0.2 watt
momenta is (2) 0.02 watt
(1) 5 : 1 (2) !" # (3) 0.024 watt
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 25 : 1 (4) 2.2 × 10–1 watt
98 Work, Energy and Power Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Force (F) acting on a particle kept at origin varies 15. What is the work done by gravity on block A in
with position(x) as F = kx, where k is positive 2 seconds after the blocks are released? (Pulley is
constant. If potential energy at origin U(0) is zero, light)
then graph between potential energy U(x) versus x
is
!!"% !!"%
!"#$"%
" " %"#$ "
(1) !"#$"% (2)
! !"#$
(1) 240 J
!!"% !!"%
(2) 200 J
(3) 120 J
" " (4) 24 J
(3) !"#$"% (4) !"#$"%
16. A 2 kg particle moves along x-axis such that its
position (x) varies with time (t) as x = 2t2 + 3.
During the initial 5 seconds, the work done by all
11. Mark the correct statement the forces acting on the particle is
(1) Internal forces cannot increase the kinetic (1) 400 J
energy of a system
(2) 500 J
(2) Internal forces may increase the kinetic energy
of a system (3) 600 J
(3) Work done by kinetic friction always negative (4) 900 J
(4) Both (2) & (3) 17. A ball falls from height H and loses 36% of energy
during impact with the ground. The height upto
12. A bullet fired towards a wall reduces its half kinetic
which the ball rises is
energy after the penetration of 6 cm. The further
penetration of bullet in the block is (1) 0.64 H (2) 0.8 H
(1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm (3) 8.36 H (4) 0.5 H
(3) 6 cm (4) 3 cm 18. What is the work done by friction when the body
13. A body having initial kinetic energy 2 J collide with slides down the inclined surface from A to B?
identical body at rest. The maximum loss of kinetic
energy found in the collision is '"() "
(1) 2 J "$"%&'
(2) Zero
(3) 1 J
(4) 1.5 J !
!"#
14. A particle is thrown at an acute angle with the
horizontal. Select the incorrect statement. (1) 32 J (2) 16 J
(1) Power delivered by gravity is zero at all the (3) 8 J (4) Zero
point on the trajectory !"
(2) Power delivered by gravity is zero only at one 19. Due to the force ! "#"! # !# $ % a body shifted
point. from origin to the point (5 m, 6 m). The work done
by the force is
(3) Average power of gravity is zero
(1) 44 J (2) 22 J
(4) During one half journey, the power is negative
and during the other half the power is positive (3) 4 J (4) Zero
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Work, Energy and Power 99
20. Block A moves on smooth surface and collides 26. A constant horizontal force is applied on a block
with the block B at rest. The maximum energy kept at rest on a smooth horizontal surface its
stored in the spring will be power (P) versus time (t) graph is best shown by
" ! " ! !
# $
(1) (2)
" "
! !
(1) !" ! (2) !" !
" " ! !
! ! (3) (4)
(3) !" ! (4) !" !
# " " "
21. A 40 kg boy swinging on a swing, the power delivered 27. A block slides down an inclined plane of inclination
by gravity force is, when the swing is making an angle 30° with a constant velocity. It then projected up
30° with horizontal and the boy moving with a velocity with an initial speed of 6 m/s the distance moved
of 8 m/s upward (g = 10 m/s2) by it on the inclined before coming to rest is
(1) – 1000 W (2) – 500 W (1) 1.5 m

(2) 1.8 m
(3) – 1600 W (4) –1600 ! W
(3) 2.0 m
22. An object of mass 2 kg falls from rest through a
vertical distance 10 m and aquires a velocity of (4) 2.4 m
10 m/s. The work done by the resistive force of air 28. Mark the correct statement
on the object is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) A system cannot have kinetic energy without
(1) 200 J (2) –200 J having momentum
(3) 150 J (4) –100 J (2) A system cannot have momentum without
23. A body of 10 kg is subjected to a force as shown having kinetic energy
in the figure. The block moves along a straight line (3) A system may have momentum without having
under the influence of this force. The change in kinetic energy
kinetic energy when body moves from x = 0 to
x = 4 m will be (4) All of these
29. When work done by a conservative force is positive
!$%&
"# (1) Potential energy remains same as initial
! (2) Potential energy decreases
(3) Kinetic energy may increases
" ' ( ) "$*& (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) 15 J (2) 12.5 J 30. The potential energy of a particle of mass 0.5 kg
moving along x axis is given by U = 2x (x – 3).
(3) 17.5 J (4) 19.2 J The speed of the particle is maximum at
24. A truck of mass M accelerates from rest while the (1) x = 1 m
engine supplies a constant power P. The velocity
attained after time t is proportional to (2) x = 1.5 m
(1) t1/2 (2) t5/2 (3) x = 2 m
(3) t –1/2 (4) t2 (4) x = 3 m
25. The ratio of work required to accelerate car from 31. A motor can pump the water upto maximum
v(m/s) to 2v(m/s) to the work required to height of 10 m at the rate of 10 kg s –1 . If
acceleration it from 0 to v (m/s) is efficiency of the motor is 0.8 then power of motor is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 5000 W (2) 1250 W
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 100 W (4) 2400 W
32. Work done in time t on a body of mass m, when 38. A block of mass m is projected with speed v along
it is accelerated from rest with constant the rough surface of an inclined plane of height h.
acceleration to a speed v in time t1 as a function If block comes to rest at the top of surface then
of time t is given by work done by friction force is
! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! !"
(1) !" (2) ! #"# $
(1) " " # # (2) " # # " % " $&
" "
! ! !"
(3) – mgh (4) ! #"# $
!
! ! !" " ! ! ! ! ! % " $&
(3) # $ # (4) " #
" % #" & " #"! 39. A body of mass m moving with speed v collides
head on elastically with another identical body at
33. A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the rest. The percentage loss in kinetic energy of first
energy stored in the spring is U. The elongation in body will be
the spring is (1) 0% (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 100%
!! !
(1) (2) 40. Two balls P and Q of mass m and 2m move with
"# "#
!
velocity v and respectively as shown in the
! !
!!
(3) (4) !
"# ! "# figure. After collision, the velocity of P becomes .
!
The coefficient of restitution is
34. A ball strikes floor at an angle of 45° with vertical
and rebounds of an angle of 60° with the vertical. " ""
! # % #$!
Assuming the contact to be smooth the coefficient
of restitution is
"
! (1) 1 (2)
#
(1) 1 (2)
" "
(3) (4) Zero
!
! ! 41. A body is projected obliquely from horizontal
(3) (4)
" # ground. The magnitude of power delivered by
gravity during its motion from ground to topmost
35. The energy required to accelerate a car from rest
point is
to 30 m/s is E. The energy required to accelerate
the car from 30 m/s to 60 m/s is (1) Constant
(1) E (2) 2 E (2) Increases continuously

(3) Decreases continuously
(3) 3 E (4) 4 E
(4) May increase or decrease depending on angle
36. Work energy theorem is valid in of projection
(1) Only inertial frame of reference 42. If a body starts its motion along the smooth track
from P as shown in figure, then its velocity at the
(2) Only non-inertial frame of reference
instant of leaving R is
(3) Both inertial and non-inertial frame of reference
(4) Does not depend on any frame of reference !
!
37. The speed of a particle moving in circular path is
decreasing with time. The instantaneous power due #
to the force acting on it will be "#"!
(1) Positive $!
(2) Negative
(3) Zero (1) 5 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(4) May be positive or negative (3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s
43. A ball of mass 2 kg is moving with speed 48. A ball of mass 2 kg is at rest on a horizontal
100 m/s along a straight line making an angle of smooth surface. Another ball of same mass hit the
60° with normal to a wall. If collision between ball first ball at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At
and wall is perfectly elastic, then the minimum the time of collision velocity of second ball is
strength of wall is (time of contact is 0.01 s) 20 m/s. If collision is perfectly inelastic and after
collision both the balls will stick together, then the
(1) 1 × 104 N
speed of combined ball is
(2) 2 × 104 N
(1) Zero (2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 400 N (3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s
! 49. A particle of mass m is moving in a vertical circle
(4) ! "# $
of radius r. If velocity of the particle at uppermost
44. At the time of supernova explosion point is !!" , then its velocity at lowermost point
(1) Total mechanical energy remains conserved is
(2) Total kinetic energy remains conserved
(1) "!" (2) #!"
(3) Total energy remains conserved
(4) Both (2) & (3) (3) !!" (4) " !"
45. The principle of conservation of energy and 50. A ball strikes a rigid and smooth horizontal surface
conservation of mechanical energy applicable with speed u, at an angle , and It rebounds at an
respectively for angle as shown in the given figure. Speed with
which the ball rebounds is
(1) Conservative and non-conservative forces
(2) Conservative and conservative force
!
(3) Non-conservative and conservative forces
(4) All forces and conservative forces
46. In the case of collision (one dimension or two
dimension)
! !"# ! !"#
(1) Momentum remains conserved and total energy (1) (2)
!"# !"#
not
(2) Momentum and total energy both are ! !"# ! $%!
(3) (4)
conserved !"# $%!
(3) Momentum is not conserved and total energy 51. A bullet is fired from a gun. Assuming that the gun
remains conserved recoils freely, the kinetic energy of the bullet is
(4) Momentum and total energy both are not (1) Less than kinetic energy of the gun
conserved
(2) Equal to kinetic energy of the gun
47. In the given figure, a man pulls the mass m with
(3) More than kinetic energy of the gun
the help of a rope. Work done by the man against
the gravity, when mass is lifted by 0.5 m is (4) Equal to or less than kinetic energy of the gun
(g = 10 m/s2)
52. A particle is suspended by a light rod of length l.
Minimum speed with which the particle should be
projected, so that it moves in a vertical circle is
"()%*
!"# (1) ! !"
!"#"$"%&'
(2) !!"
(3) ! !"
(1) 50 J (2) 100 J
(3) 25 J (4) Zero (4) "!"
!
53. A person applies a force " on a box inside a 58. If U is the potential energy of a particle and x is its
displacement, then in the position of stable
moving train. If S1 is the displacement of box w.r.t.
equilibrium
train and S2 is the displacement of train w.r.t.
ground, then the work done by the person in the
"$ ! !#
frame of earth will be (1) & and !
! ! "# !" !
(1) $ ##"
! ! "$ ! !#
(2) " !!! (2) & and !
"# !" !
! ! !
(3) " # "!" !! !
! ! ! "$ ! !#
(4) " # "!" !! ! (3) & and !
"# !" !
54. If the work done by a force on an object is
(4) All of these
negative, then it means !
(1) No transfer of energy 59. A force # "$# $ ! %# %&# &'( acts on a particle
!
(2) Energy is transferred to the object along with other forces. The work done by "
during the displacement of the particle from initial
(3) Energy is transferred from the object
(4) All of these
position "!! #"! $%& to final position
55. According to work energy theorem, the change in "!! # !" $#! %&'( will be
kinetic energy of a body is equal to work done by (1) 6 J
(1) Non-conservative force on the particle (2) Zero
(2) Conservative force on the particle (3) 1 J
(3) External force on the particle (4) – 6 J
(4) All the forces on the particle 60. A particle is moving with kinetic energy E and
56. A block having mass m is hanging by a string of momentum p. Which of the following graphs is
length l. A variable horizontal force is applied on the !
block, which displaces the block slowly till the possible between ! and ?
!
string makes an angle with the vertical. Find the
work done by the force " "
" (1) (2)
! !
! !
!
" "
(1) mgl (2) mgl (1 – cos )
(3) mgl cos (4) mgl (1 + cos )
57. A block is carried slowly up an inclined plane. If Wf (3) (4)
is work done by the friction, WN is work done by
! !
the reaction force, W g is work done by the ! !
gravitational force and Wx is the work done by
external force then choose the correct relation/s 61. The position of a particle (x) varies with time (t) as
x = (t – 2) 2 , where x is in meters and t is in
(1) WN + Wf + Wg + Wx = 0 seconds. Calculate the work done during t = 0 to
(2) WN = 0 t = 4 s, if mass of the particle is 100 g
(3) Wx + Wf = – Wg (1) 0.4 J (2) 0.2 J
(4) All of these (3) 0.8 J (4) Zero
62. Two vehicles are moving with same kinetic energy. 67. If pulley system with ideal mechanical advantage of
If the ratio of their masses is 1 : 3 then find the 4 requires a force of 15 N to lift a load of 45 N,
ratio of their stopping distances when both vehicles then the efficiency of the pulley is
stop with same retardation
(1) 25%
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (2) 30%
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9 (3) 40%
63. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path (4) 75%
with speed v = kt, where k is constant and t is
time. The instantaneous power delivered to the 68. A spring is attached to the ceiling of a room.
particle is A block of mass m is hooked to the spring and
released. In static condition (when block stops
(1) Zero after a long time) if U is the loss of potential
(2) mkt energy of the block then the elastic potential
energy stored in the spring will be
(3) mk 2 t
(1) – U (2) U
(4) mk 2t 2
64. Two blocks having equal masses stick together !
(3) (4) 4U
after collision. If their combined velocity after !
collision is equal to the arithmetic mean velocity of 69. A sphere collides elastically and obliquely to an
them before collision, then the coefficient of ! !
restitution is another stationary identical sphere. If ! ! and ! !
! !
(1) Zero are their velocities after collision then ! " !! ! is
(2) 0.5 (1) Zero

(3) 0.8 (2) Positive
(4) 1 (3) Negative
65. If the work done by the string on block A is W, (4) Depends on impact parameter
then work done by the string on the block B will 70. A moving particle of mass m makes a head - on
be elastic collision with a stationary particle of mass
2m. The fraction of kinetic energy lost by the first
! particle is
"
(1)
!
"
(2)
#
"
"
(3)
!
%
(1) –W (2) %
$ $
(4)
(3) 2W (4) Zero #
71. Choose incorrect statement about oblique collision
66. Choose the incorrect statement
of two bodies
(1) Physical contact is not necessary for a
(1) Momentum of each body is conserved along
collision
the tangent
(2) Heat is a form of energy that resides in a (2) Momentum of the system is conserved
system
(3) Momentum of each body is conserved along
(3) Kinetic energy of a system may increase due common normal
to collision
(4) Coefficient of restitution is considered along the
(4) Work done by internal forces may not be zero common normal
72. A small block of mass m is pulled by a light rope 76. An ideal horizontal spring has been compressed by
on a quater circular track, having radius R. If force two masses of 1 kg and 4 kg at its ends placed
applied on the rope is F then the work done by on a frictionless table. The stored energy is
the force till the block reaches from A to B is 40 joule. If the spring is released, the lighter mass
will acquire a speed of
% $ (1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
&
(3) 8 m/s (4) 16 m/s
# $ 77. A position dependent force F = 6 + 8x – 3x2 N
acts on a small body of mass 3 kg displacing it
from x = 0 to x = 2 m. The work done in joule is
! (1) 20 J (2) 40 J
"
(3) 10 J (4) 12 J
(1) FR (2) !" ! 78. A car of mass 100 kg and travelling at 20 m/s
collides with a truck of mass 1 ton travelling at
(3) " ! ! (4) Zero 9 km/h in the same direction. The car bounces
73. If a particle moves in potential energy field back at a speed 5 m/s. The speed of the truck
U = A – Bx + Cx2, where A, B and C are positive after the impact is
constant, then the point where force disappears (1) 11.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
and the nature of equilibrium of that point is
(3) 18 m/s (4) 12 m/s
& 79. If work done by string on block A is W, shown in
(1) # ' unstable equilibrium
% the given arrangement, then the work done by the
string on block B is
&
(2) # ' stable equilibrium
% #
! "
"
(3) # ! unstable equilibrium
"!
"!
(1) –W (2)
" !
(4) # ! stable equilibrium
"!
"! "!
(3) (4)
74. A stone of mass m is thrown from earth's surface ! !
at an angle to the horizontal with an initial 80. Which of the following remains unchanged (for the
velocity v 0 . Ignoring the air drag, the power system) during an inelastic collision?
developed by gravitational force t second after the
beginning of motion is (1) Mechanical energy (2) Kinetic energy
(1) mg(gt – v0 sin ) (3) Momentum (4) All of these
(2) mgv0sin ·t 81. The position (in metre) of a particle of mass 1 kg

confined to move along y-axis varies with time
(3) mg(g – vsin ·t) (in second) as y = t2 – 4t + 5. The work done by
(4) Zero all the forces acting on the particle during t = 0 to
t = 4 s is
75. Two identical balls are in contact on a table are in
equilibrium. A third identical ball collides with them (1) 8 J (2) 16 J
simultaneously, symmetrically and comes to rest (3) 32 J (4) Zero
after impact. The coefficient of restitution is
82. A particle is dropped from a height of 50 m. If the
particle loses its 20% mechanical energy during
" #
(1) (2) the impact with the ground, upto what height will
! " it rebound after the second impact?
! $ (1) 40 m (2) 36 m
(3) (4)
" " (3) 32 m (4) 28 m
90. A particle suspended by a light inextensible thread
83. A constant force ! = $(& ' '& % && N acts on a
of length l is projected horizontally from its lowest
particle. At a certain instant when velocity of the
position with velocity
!!" . The particle will leave
particle is ! = )*(& )'& && ( ms–1. The power of the the circular path at a height from its lowest
force is zero, then position.
(1) 2a + 3b = 1 (2) a + b = 1
!! !!
(3) 2a = 3b (4) a + b + 1 = 0 (1) (2)
" "
84. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating in a vertical circle
of radius 4 m. The difference in its kinetic energy #!
at the top and bottom of the circle is (3) (4) 2l
"
(1) 40 J (2) 80 J
91. A mass M is suspended by a spring having a
(3) 120 J (4) 160 J spring constant K. In equilibrium position mass M
85. Work done by external forces, including friction on is given a speed u. Find the further extension in the
a system is equal to spring
(1) Change in kinetic energy of the system

(2) Change in potential energy of the system
!
(3) Change in total mechanical energy of the
system
"
(4) Double the change of kinetic energy of the
system
!
86. A spring of force constant 100 N/m has an (1) !"
#
extension 10 cm. The change in potential energy
of spring, if it is extended to 20 cm from 10 cm is
!!
(1) 1 J (2) 1.5 J (2) ""
#
(3) 2 J (4) 3 J
, ,-
87. If a stone is projected vertically upward from ground (3) *+
with speed 10 m/s, then its (g = 10 m/s2) . .
(1) Potential energy will be maximum after 0.5 s !! !"

(4) "#
(2) Kinetic energy will be maximum again after $ $
1s
92. An object of mass m = 1.5 kg is acted by the
(3) Kinetic energy = potential energy at a height force as shown in figure that varies with the
of 2.5 m from ground position of the object as shown. If the object starts
(4) Potential energy will be minimum after 1 s from rest at a point x = 0. What is its speed at
x = 50 m?
88. A ball of mass 1 kg is dropped from height of 10
m on a surface of coefficient of restitution 0.4. The
#
maximum value of potential energy of the ball after
first rebounce will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J !"#$
(3) 25 J (4) 50 J
89. A body of mass m strikes with the ground with !"()*#+,
" %" &" '"
speed u and coefficient of restitution is e, then find
the work done by normal reaction force on the body
(1) 20 m/s
!
(1) Zero (2) !" ! "# ! !# (2) 25 m/s
$
(3) 15 m/s
! !
(3) !" ! "! # ! # (4) !+ !
$ $ (4) 17 m/s
93. A ball ‘P’ strikes elastically with another identical 99. Internal forces cannot change
ball Q resting on a smooth surface with velocity v.
The ratio of the speeds of vP : vQ two balls after (1) Kinetic energy of a system
collision is (2) Mechanical energy of a system
" (3) Momentum of a system

#
!"# (4) All of these
100. A particle is projected at a time t = 0 with a speed
! v 0 and at an angle with the horizontal in a
uniform gravitational field. Then which of the
(1) !+ ' (2) ' +! following graph represents power delivered by
(3) 1 : 2 (4) gravitational force against time (t)?
!"#
94. A block of mass 20 kg is being brought down by !
a chain. If block acquires a speed of 2 m/s in
dropping down 2 m. Find work done by the chain (1)
during the process. (g = 10 m/s2) "
(1) –360 J (2) 400 J
!
(3) 360 J (4) –280 J
95. The work done by a person is carrying a box of (2)
mass 10 kg through a vertical height of 10 m is
"
4900 J. The mass of the person is
(1) 40 kg (2) 60 kg !
(3) 50 kg (4) 55 kg
96. A ball is dropped from a height h on a stationary (3) "
floor and rebounds. If the coefficient of restitution is
0.5 then the total distance covered by the ball
before it strikes floor for 3rd time is
!
!"!
(1) 2 h (2)
#
(4) "
!! !!
(3) (4)
" "
101. A chain of mass m and length l is kept on smooth
97. A body of mass 2 kg moving with velocity of
horizontal table with one forth of the chain is
3 m/s collides with a body of mass 1 kg
approaching with velocity 6 m/s. If collision is one overhanging from the table edge. Minimum work
dimensional and perfect inelastic, then velocity of done in bringing the hanging part on to the table is
combined mass after collision is
(1) 4 m/s (2) 3 m/s ""
!
(3) 12 m/s (4) Zero !
98. When a bullet is fired from a gun. Which of the "

following statement is incorrect? !
(1) Kinetic energy of bullet is more than that

of gun "#$
!"#
(1) (2)
(2) Acceleration of bullet is more than that of gun ! #
(3) Momentum of bullet is more than that of gun !"# "#$

(3) (4)
(4) Velocity of bullet is more than that of gun "! !"
102. Two balls having different masses are moving 107. The potential energy U of a system is given by
towards each other with speed 30 m/s and U = A – Bx2 (where x is the position of its particle
20 m/s as shown in the figure (i). Their velocities and A, B are constants). The magnitude of force
after collision become 20 m/s and 30 m/s as acting on the particle is
shown in the figure (ii), then coefficient of (1) Constant (2) Proportional to x
restitution is
"#$%&' (#$%&' ! ("
(3) Proportional to x2 (4) Proportional to # $
%#&
Figure (i)
108. If the force is conservative and workdone from a to
! !! b along path 1 be represented as Wab,1. Then the
"#$%&' (#$%&' incorrect statement is
Figure (ii)
! !! !
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.2 ! "
103. Which of the following is not correct?
(1) Force of friction is non-conservative
"
(2) If R is the horizontal range of an oblique
projectile, then the kinetic energy of the (1) Wab,1 + Wba,2 = 0 (2) Wab,1 = Wba,2
projectile is minimum after covering a horizontal
distance of R/2 considering air resistance (3) Wab,1 = Wab,2 (4) Wab,1 + Wab,2 = 0
(3) Viscous force is a non-conservative force 109. A person-1 stands on an elevator moving with an
initial velocity v & upward acceleration a. Another
(4) Work done in stretching a spring successively person-2 of same mass m as person-1 is standing
by length x from natural length are in the ratio on the same elevator. The net work done on the
1:3 person-1 as observed by person-2 within time t is
104. One sphere collides with another sphere of double
it mass. While heavier mass were at rest initially. ! ( !" ! ( !"
(1) ')( ) * # *+ )+ $ (2) , '( # *+ )+ $
The ratio of there respective speeds after collision % + & % + &
will be (Coefficient of restitution = e)
! ! !"
!! ! "! (3) Zero (4) !" # #$ "$ $
(1) (2) % " &
" ! ! !
110. The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21%.
# " # "" The percentage increase in the magnitude of linear
(3) (4)
# "" # " momentum of the body is
105. The principle of conservation of energy implies that (1) 10%
(1) The total mechanical energy is conserved (2) 20%
(2) The total kinetic energy is conserved (3) Zero
(3) The total potential energy is conserved (4) 11.5%
(4) Sum of all types of energies is conserved 111. A particle is displaced from point P(1, 1)m to
!
106. A particle of mass m1 makes an elastic, one Q(4, 3)m by applying force ! ""! # !# $ . The
dimensional collision with another stationary !
particle of mass m2. Fraction of kinetic energy of work done by ! to move the particle from point
m1 carried away by m2 is A to B is
! (1) 25 J
!"! ! !" "
(1) (2) # $ (2) 20 J
!!! % !! &
(3) 17 J
!! !" !!!!"
(3) (4)
!!! !" "" "!! !" #" (4) , !' J
112. A rigid body of mass m is moving in a circle of ! !

(1) ! !! ! ! !" !
radius r with a constant speed v. The force on the
! !
(2) !! ! ! " only if the two are of equal mass
!" !
body is and is always directed towards the
# ! ! !
(3) !" !! ! " # !" #!
centre. The work done by this force in moving the
body over half the circumference of circle is ! ! !
(4) ! ! ! !" " ! ! "!
!" ! 117. A clamped neutral spring is pulled by applying a
(1) (2) mv2 variable force F. Then work done by F to stretch
#
it slowly by an elongation x is
(3) Zero (4) 2mv2
113. A body of mass m at rest when released from a !" !
(1)
!
height h, hits the ground with speed !" . The
work done by resistive forces is
!" !
(2)
!"# !$% !
(1) (2)
! ! (3) kx2
(3) Zero (4) mgh (4) –(kx).x
114. If a body of mass 2 kg is moved in conservative 118. A particle is moving along x-axis under conservative
field from point A to B in three different path, then force and its potential energy U varies with
work done will be x co-ordinate as shown in figure. Then force is
positive at
!
!!!
'
# !
!! " #
&
" ! $
# %
(1) WI < WII < WIII (2) WI > WII > WIII
(3) WI = WII = WIII (4) WI > WII = WIII
(1) A (2) C, D
115. Two pendulum bobs A and B of mass m and 2m (3) B (4) D, E
respectively are simultaneously released from a
height H above the lowest point, making an elastic 119. The figure shows the potential energy function
collision at the lowest point. If after the first U(x) for a system in which a particle is in one
collision A and B rise to heights h 1 and h 2 dimensional motion. What is the direction of the
respectively, then h1 + 2h2 is force when the particle is in region AB?
(symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) 3H
(2) H %$$%
#
!
(3) "
!
!
!!
(4) ! " # $
"
116. Two particles moving initially in the same direction (1) Positive direction of x
undergo a one dimensional elastic collision. Their (2) Negative direction of x
relative velocities before and after the collision are
! ! (3) Force is zero, so direction not defined
!! !"# ! " . Which of the following is not correct?
(4) Negative direction of y
120. The following are three graphs of magnitude of force 124. Two blocks A and B of mass m and 4m are
F versus time t for a body involved in a collision. displaced through identical paths due to identical
" net forces, then
"
!! !
""! (1) Their speeds are in the ratio
""! !" !
(2) Work done on the blocks is in the ratio
!!! ! !!! ! "! !
#$% #$% "" !
"
!! !
""! (3) Their kinetic energies are in the ratio ! "
"
(4) All of these
!!! 125. For the path wxyz in a conservative force field, the
!
amount of work done in carrying a body from w to
#$% x and from x to y and from y to z are 2 J, 4 J and
Then the relation between the magnitude of 6 J respectively. The work done in carrying the
impulse on the body in these cases is best body from w to z will be
represented by
(1) a > b > c (2) a = b = c ! "
(3) b > a > c (4) c > a < b
121. If the position x of a particle as a function of time
t is given by, x = 4t2 – 2, then the kinetic energy # $
of the particle with time for t > 0 is
(1) 12 J (2) 2 J
(1) Decreasing (2) Constant
(3) 4 J (4) 6 J
(3) Increasing (4) Unpredictable
126. A body is moving with uniform velocity 2 m/s under
122. Particle A makes a head-on elastic collision with
the action of horizontal force 50 N on a horizontal
another stationary particle B. They fly apart in
surface. The power of friction is
!!
opposite directions with equal speeds. Then is !#%#&#'()
!"
*+,-.
!"#$
! !
(1) (2)
" "
(1) –100 W (2) –50 W
! #
(3) (4) (3) Zero (4) 50 W
# "
123. A block of mass m is connected to a spring of force 127. A cord is used to vertically lower a block of mass
constant k. Initially the block is at rest and spring m by a distance d at a constant downward
is relaxed. A constant force F is appplied !! !
horizontally towards right. The maximum speed of acceleration of . The work done by the cord
"
the block will be on the block is
!
(1) !"#
"
! "
!
(2) !"#
!"##$% "
# !!
(1) (2) #
!$! "# (3) !"#
"
! !!
(3) (4) !
"# "# (4) #$%
"
128. An engine pumps liquid of density d continuously 135. A pendulum bob is made to move along a vertical
through a pipe of cross-sectional area A. If the circle such that it passes the highest point with
speed with which liquid passes through the pipe is critical speed. Ratio of centripetal and tangential
v, then the rate at which kinetic energy is being acceleration when string becomes horizontal is
imparted to the liquid by the pump is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
! (3) ! "# (4) 9 : 1
(1) Adv2 (2) &%! !
$
136. A block of mass m is given a speed v when spring
of constant k is in its natural length as shown in
! !
(3) &%! " (4) !"# figure. Remaining kinetic energy of the block when
$ " spring is compressed by half of maximum
129. Which of the following is conservative force? compression is
(1) Friction force
#
(2) Spring force !
"
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Both (2) & (3) !"#$%#&'()**
130. 20 J of work is done to increase the length of a (1) 25%
light spring by 1 cm from its natural length. Work
(2) 50%
done in increasing its length further by 1 cm is
(3) 75%
(1) 20 J (2) 40 J
(4) Any value less than 50%
(3) 30 J (4) 60 J
137. A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 (N)
131. A body of mass 5 kg at rest is dropped from the acts on a body of mass 2 kg and displaces it
top of a 20 m tower. If the body reaches the from x = 0 to x = 5 m. The work done (in joules)
ground at 10 m/s, then work done by air is
resistance is
(1) 70 (2) 270
(1) 750 J (2) 250 J
(3) 35 (4) 135
(3) –750 J (4) –250 J
138. A body of mass m moving with a certain speed
132. If work done by internal conservative force on a suffers a perfect inelastic collision with a body of
body is positive, then mass M at rest. The ratio of final kinetic energy of
the system to the initial kinetic energy is
(1) Kinetic energy of the body must increase
(2) Kinetic energy of the body must decrease #
(1)
# '
(3) Potential energy of the body must decrease
(4) Potential energy of the body must increase '
(2)
# '
133. Work done in increasing the length of a massless
spring from natural length 15 cm to 15.1 cm is # '
20 J. Work done in increasing the length from (3)
#
15.1 cm to 15.2 cm is
# '
(1) 20 J (2) 40 J (4)
'
(3) 60 J (4) 80 J
139. If an ideal helical spring of constant k extends by
134. Work-energy theorem is the scalar form of x on loading through tension T, then the energy
Newton’s stored in the spring is
(1) First law of motion
"! !!
(1) (2)
(2) Second law of motion ## !"
(3) Third law of motion !! !! !
(3) ! (4)
(4) All of these " "
140. A shell fired from a cannon explodes in mid air. Its 146. Two springs with spring constants k1 = 1500 N/m
total and k2 = 3000 N/m are stretched by the same
force. The ratio of potential energy stored in the
(1) Linear momentum is not conserved
springs will be
(2) Linear momentum is conserved (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) Kinetic energy is conserved (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(4) Potential energy is conserved 147. Two bodies A and B of mass m and 2m respectively
141. A body is free to move in y-direction. Force are placed on a smooth floor as shown. They are
! connected by a spring of constant k. If a third body
! " "! #$ #! %$! & ' is applied on it and the C of mass m moves with a velocity v0 along the line
body is displaced 10 m along y-axis. Work done joining A and B and collides head on elastically with
by the agent applying force is A, then speed of A at the instant of maximum
compression is
(1) Zero
(2) 50 J & & !&
$! %
# ! "
(3) 10 J
(4) 100 J
!!
142. A constant force is applied on a body of mass 2 (1) v0 (2)
!
! !
kg to give it a displacement ! " . Work done "! !!
" (3) (4)
by agent applying the force upto time t = 3 s is # "
(1) 3 J (2) 9 J 148. The masses m 1 and m 2 (with m 1 < m 2 ) are

connected to the two ends of a compressed
(3) 18 J (4) 2 J spring. Now, when the masses are released on a
143. A block of mass 2 kg moving with velocity of smooth surface, they will move away with
10 m/s on a smooth surface hits a spring of force (1) Same magnitude of force
constant 80 × 103 N/m as shown. The maximum
(2) Equal magnitude of linear momentum
compression in the spring is
(3) Greater kinetic energy of first body than that of
second body
(4) All of these
!"#$%&
149. Work done by an agent applying a force
!
! ! ""! # !# $$! % on a particle in taking it from
A(2, 3, 4) to B(3, 7, 2) is
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (1) 3 unit
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm (2) 15 unit
144. A particle of mass 10 kg is moving with velocity of (3) 20 unit
!" ! m/s, where x is displacement. The work (4) 23 unit

done by net force during the displacement of 150. A block of mass m is allowed to slide down a
particle from x = 4 m to x = 9 m is fixed smooth inclined plane of inclination and
(1) 1250 J (2) 1000 J slope length L. What is the power developed by
the force of gravity, when the block reaches the
(3) 3500 J (4) 2500 J bottom?
145. A body starts moving from rest in straight line
! ! "
under a constant power source. Its displacement (1) !!!""# #$% &" (2)
%
! "# "#$
in time t is proportional to
(1) t1/2 (2) t ! ! "
(3) ! "# (4) !" !"# "#$
(3) t3/2 (4) t2 "
151. A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m. If it 157. A rope is used to lower vertically a block of mass
rebound upto height of 1 m after N collisions and
!
the coefficient of restitution of collision is 1/2, then M with a constant downward acceleration of .
N is !
(1) 1 (2) 3 Then power delivered by the rope at any time t
(3) 4 (4) 2
'$ ! !" !
152. Which of the following statement is correct (1) ) (2) #
0 !
regarding potential energy?
(1) Change in potential energy depends upon ! !
reference point (3) !" !# (4) !" !#
" #
(2) Potential energy does not depend upon
reference point 158. A particle while moving along x-axis collides with
another particle moving along y-axis. The linear
(3) Potential energy can be defined for any field
momentum of system consisting of two particles
(4) Change in potential energy of any particle is is conserved along
equal to work done by external force for moving
the particle in equilibrium in a conservative field (1) x axis only (2) y axis only
153. If percentage change in velocity of a body of constant (3) z axis only (4) All directions
mass is 100%, then percentage change in kinetic 159. A particle of mass m is pressed against a spring
energy of the body will be of spring constant k, through a compression x. It
(1) 200% (2) 300% is released suddenly speed of the particle, when
it separates from the spring is
(3) 400% (4) 500%
154. A body A of mass 10 kg at rest starts slipping
from the top of the inclined plane of height 10 m
as shown. If it reaches the ground at 10 m/s, then "
work done by friction is !
!"#$$%&'
!
* ! !
!"#$
(1) + (2) "

# #
# $
(3) ! (4) !
$ #
(1) 500 J (2) –500 J
160. An automobile of mass m accelerates from rest,
(3) 1000 J (4) –1000 J
while the engine supplies constant power P. The
155. A body is released from the top of an inclined speed of the automobile as a function of time is
smooth plane of inclination . It reaches the given by
bottom with speed u. If the angle of inclination is
!"#
doubled keeping height unchanged, then be the ! !!" "
speed of the object on reaching on the ground is (1) # # $ (2) v = (2Ptm)1/3
% $ &
(1) u (2) 2 u
!"#
!! ! $ "
! (3) " # # $ (4) v = (2Pt3m)1/2
(3) ( $-./ (4) %" $ &
!"#$
156. Work energy theorem is applicable to a system 161. Select the correct statement. Work done by internal
when the force acting on the system is/are forces on the system
(1) Conservative only (1) May be zero
(2) Non-conservative only (2) Must be greater than zero
(3) Internal only (3) Must be less than zero
(4) All forces (4) Must be zero
162. Select the correct statement. In case of inelastic 168. Potential energy of a particle of mass m varies as
collision U = ax2 + by. The magnitude of acceleration of the
particle at (0, 3) is (symbols have their usual
(1) The linear momentum is conserved
meaning)
(2) Total energy is conserved
! !!
(3) Kinetic energy is not conserved (1) (2)
" "
(4) All of these
!
163. If momentum of a body increases by 20%, its (3) (4) Zero
"
kinetic energy will increase by
169. A ball of mass 100 g at rest is thrown on a
(1) 40% horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The
(2) 20% acceleration-displacement graph for the motion is
given. The maximum height attained by the ball on
(3) 44% the smooth inclined plane is
(4) 10% !
!"*+,- .
164. The potential energy of particle of mass 1 kg is free (
to move along x-axis is given by U(x) = (3x2 – 4x + #
6) J. Force acting on the particle at x = 0 is )
!
&
(1) "!! # (2) "!! # #"*+.
#"/"' #"/"&'"+ !" #" $" %" &'
(3) $!! # (4) "!! #
(1) 10 m (2) 4 m
165. Mechanical energy of the system is conserved
when work done by (3) 2 m (4) 1 m
(1) Conservative force is zero 170. A body of mass M initially at rest explodes into
two parts having masses in the ratio 2 : 3. If energy
(2) Non-conservative force is zero of first part is E, then energy of second part will be
(3) Non-conservative force is non-zero
! !
(4) Conservative force is equal to work done by (1) ! (2) !
" "
non-conservative force
166. A block of mass m is attached with a spring of ! #
(3) ! (4) !
spring constant k as shown in the figure. Another " "
block of mass 2m moving with speed v hits the
spring. Speed of blocks at the instant of maximum 171. A body moving with speed 10 m/s is stopped by
compression of spring is applying constant braking power in 5 second. If
speed of the body is 30 m/s, then time in which
" the body can be stopped by applying same
!! ! retarding power is
"#$$%&'()*+,-. (1) 10 s (2) 15 s
! ! (3) 30 s (4) 45 s
(1) (2)
" " 172. Two meter of a uniform rope of length 3 m is
hanging over the edge of a smooth table. On
!! "! releasing the rope, velocity with which it just leaves
(3) (4) the table completely is
" !
167. A stone of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of !"" !""
10 m. After covering 5 m velocity of the stone is (1) #$%& (2) #$%&
' '
8 m/s. Work done by air friction on the stone is
(1) –82 J (2) –18 J !" !"
(3) #$%& (4) #$%&
(3) –50 J (4) –32 J ' '
173. A 50 kg straight uniform rod of length 2 m is lying !" ! !" !

on a horizontal floor. If a man successfully tries to (1) (2)
!#$ #$
erect the rod at 60° with vertical, then amount of
work done by the man is !" ! !%& #
(3) (4)
(1) 250 J (2) 200 J !#$ $'
(3) 150 J (4) 500 J 178. A particle of mass m resting on a frictionless
surface moves under the effect of a constant force
174. Work done by friction force during walking of a
man is ! !" !
F. The work done by the force in time t is .
(1) Positive !#
The instantaneous power of the particle is
(2) Negative
(3) Zero ! !" " !#
(1) (2)
# #$
(4) May be positive or negative
,) ,)
(3) (4)
175. A small ball is given a velocity !!" on the # #!
smooth horizontal floor which leads to a smooth 179. Work done the spring force in a time interval may be
vertical circular path. The ball will (1) Positive (2) Negative
" (3) Zero (4) All of these
180. A particle is moving such that potential
energy U varies with position x (in metre) as
!
! U = 4x 2 – 2x + 50 J. The particle will be in
! equilibrium at
#
(1) x = 25 cm (2) x = 2.5 cm
"#$$%&
(3) x = 25 m (4) x = 2.5 m
(1) Complete the loop
181. A body of mass m moving with velocity v in
(2) Reach only upto point P x-direction collides with another identical body
(3) Reach to point Q moving with same speed in y-direction. They
coalesce into one body during collision. The
(4) Leave the contact somewhere between P direction of motion of composite body after
and Q collision is
176. A ball of mass m is accelerated on a horizontal (1) 30° with x-axis
frictionless surface changing its speed from u to v.
Work done by net force on the body is (2) 45° with x-axis
(3) 60° with x-axis
""# ! # $ ! $
(1) m(v2 – u2) (2) (4) Along y-axis
%
182. A ball of mass m at rest starts moving from point
""# ! # $ ! $ ""# ! $ ! $ A. The irregular surface is frictionless. The speed
(3) (4)
& & of ball at point C on the track is
177. A vertically compressed spring of constant k "
releases a ball of mass m as shown in figure. The #
maximum height attained by the ball from the $
compressed point is (x is the initial compression !
in the spring) ! !
! "
! !!" #!"
(1) (2)
" "
"
(3) #$ (4) Zero
183. A ball strikes the floor and rebounds after an $
!
inelastic collision. Which of the following is
correct? " #
(1) The total momentum of earth and ball system
is conserved
(2) Total mechanical energy of ball and earth
! !
system is conserved (1) ! "#"! $ #!% m/s (2) ! "#"! $ #!% m/s
(3) Momentum of the ball is conserved ! !
(3) ! "&"! $ #!% m/s (4) ! "&"! $ #!% m/s
(4) Both (1) & (2)
189. The correct statement regarding internal force is
184. A particle is displaced from a position )-& &. *& ( that it
metre to another position "#!! $ !" %#! & metre (1) Cannot change linear momentum of a body
(2) Cannot change kinetic energy of an isolated
under the action of force "!! # !" #! $ N. Work system
done by the force is (3) Can change net linear momentum of an
(1) 16 J (2) 8 J isolated system
(3) 4 J (4) 22 J (4) Can change kinetic energy of an isolated
system
185. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are moving with
same momentum. If K1 and K2 are their respective 190. A sphere moving with speed u collides elastically
with another identical sphere at rest. If the
/# collision is not head-on, then angle between their
kinetic energy, then the ratio is equal to
/! final velocities is
(1) 0° (2) 60°
!"! !!!
(1) (2) (3) 90° (4) 45°
!!! !"!
191. A particle of mass m at rest starts moving with
constant power P at t = 0. Its velocity at time t is
!! !"
(3) (4)
!" !! !!" $1)
(1) (2)
# #
186. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m.
If there is 40% loss of energy due to impact, then
after one impact ball will go up by $#) !!
(3) (4) "
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m 1 !#
(3) 4 m (4) 6 m 192. In a conservative field work is done on a body by

the field, then
187. Two balls of equal mass undergo head on collision
while each was moving with speed of 8 m/s. If the (1) Kinetic energy of the body definitely increases
! (2) Kinetic energy of the body decreases

coefficient of restitution is , the speed of each
" (3) Potential energy of the body increases
ball after the impact will be
(4) Potential energy of the body decreases
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s 193. Work done in increasing the length of an ideal
(3) 16 m/s (4) 8 m/s spring by 1 cm from its natural length is 20 J.
Work done in increasing its length further by 2
188. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity cm is
!
! "#"! $ !# % m/s and collides on a horizontal (1) 80 J
smooth surface as shown. If coefficient of restitution
(2) 160 J
!
is 0 , then velocity of the particle after collision (3) 40 J
$
is (4) 120 J
! 201. A bob of a simple pendulum is released from

194. Force ! "#"! $ !# %$! & ' moves a body by
position A. Velocity of the bob when it is at lowest
!
displacement % "#"! &#! $$! & ( . If the work position A is
done by the force is zero, then p is equal to
(1) 4
!"#
!"
#
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1 !
195. Kinetic energy of any moving particle is !
(1) Scalar, positive (1) !" #$% (2) 10 m/s
(2) Scalar, may be negative
(3) 5 m/s (4) ! " #$%
(3) May be vector, positive
202. Which of the following is correct in an elastic
(4) Vector, negative collision?
196. Work is done by an agent applying force when (1) Momentum and kinetic energy and total
(1) Applied force is variable energy are conserved
(2) Applied force is perpendicular to motion (2) Momentum and total energy are conserved
(3) Applied force generate motion (3) Kinetic energy is conserved
(4) Applied force is constant (4) Momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
but not the total energy
197. A body is moved along a straight line by a
machine delivering power proportional to time. 203. The graph between kinetic energy and momentum
Distance moved by the body in time t is of a body of given mass is a
proportional to (1) Parabola (2) Straight line
(1) t 3/2 (2) t 2 (3) Circle (4) Hyperbola
(3) t (4) t 3/4 204. A system is consisting of masses 10 kg and 5 kg,
198. The displacement x in metre of a particle of mass1 which are at speed 1 m/s and 2 m/s respectively.
kg moving in one dimension under action of a The total kinetic energy of system is
force is related to the time t in seconds by (1) 10 J (2) 15 J
equation ! " ! . Work done by this force in (3) 25 J (4) 5 J
first 4 second is
205. Work done is increasing the length of massless
(1) 32 J (2) 3 J spring by 1 cm from natural length is 10 J. Work
(3) 16 J (4) 8 J done in increasing the length further by 1 cm, is
199. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius R (1) 10 J
with a constant speed v. Work done by centripetal (2) 30 J
force, when it completes half revolution is
(3) 50 J
!" !
(1) Zero (2) (4) 80 J
!#
206. Work energy theorem is mathematically written as
(3) mv 2 (4) 4mv 2
!
200. A ball is let to fall from a height of 32 m on the " # )! ! ( ! ( . Here the work W is by
$
!
ground. Coefficient of restitution is 0 . Height (1) Conservative forces only
$
raised by the ball after second rebound is (2) Non-conservative forces only
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m (3) Internal forces only
(3) 8 m (4) 16 m (4) All forces
207. The correct representation of power is (Symbols 214. A graph is plotted by taking kinetic energy along
have their usual meaning) y-axis and speed along x-axis for a constant
""! "! "! ! mass. Slope of the graph at an instant represents
(1) $ % ! (2) $ & % ! & (1) Mass
! (2) Velocity
!" ! ! !
(3) # ! (4) $ ' % '('! ' (3) Momentum
!! !
(4) Acceleration
208. If a body of mass m is raised through height h by
215. A body is under uniform circular motion, its kinetic
an agent, then
energy
(1) Its potential energy increases
(1) Depends on mass
(2) Its potential energy decreases
(2) Depends on speed
(3) Its kinetic energy increases (3) Remains unchanged
(4) Its kinetic energy decreases (4) All of these
209. A bob is suspended from a peg on a wall by a !!"
216. An engine exerts a force , )!1-& ' &. ,*& (* 2
massless string of length L. If it is given a velocity !"
and moves with velocity ! "#"! $% !# &$! ' m/s.
$"# at the lowest point, then angular amplitude
The power of engine is
with which body will oscillate is
(1) 15 watt
(1) 60° (2) 90°
(2) 30 watt
(3) 75° (4) 30°
(3) 60 watt
210. A particle of mass m is moving with speed v along
(4) 20 watt
+ve x-axis collide with a wall parallel to yz plane
elastically. Change in momentum of the body is 217. When a long spring is stretched by 4 cm from
natural length, its potential energy is U. If spring
(1) "!"#! (2) "!"#! is stretched by 2 cm from natural length, then
energy stored in it will be
(3) !"#! (4) !"#!
!
211. Ratio of kinetic energy of a particle projected from (1) (2) 4U
ground at highest point to point of projection is !
1/4. Angle of projection with horizontal is
!
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 2U (4)
!
(3) 45° (4) 53° 218. For perfect inelastic collision coefficient of
212. A particle A of mass m moving with speed u restitution is
collide elastically headon with another identical (1) e = 0
particle B at rest. Velocity of B after collision is
(2) e < 1
" (3) e 0
(1) u (2)
"
(4) e = 1
" 219. Two identical balls of mass 1 kg each moving
(3) 2u (4) towards each other with velocity of 3 m/s and 5
#
m/s respectively. Magnitude of velocity of
213. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path respective balls after perfectly elastic headon
of constant radius r such that its centripetal collision is
acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = krt2,
(1) 3 m/s, 5 m/s
where k is constant. The power delivered to the
particle by the force acting on it is (2) 5 m/s, 3 m/s
(1) 2 kmr2 (2) kmr2t (3) 4 m/s, 4 m/s
(3) kmr2t5 (4) Zero (4) 6 m/s, 2 m/s
220. A particle is in conservative field whose potential 224. Select incorrect statement about potential energy
energy (U) varies with position x as shown in (1) Change in potential energy is equal to work
figure. The particle is in stable equilibrium at done against internal conservative force
" (2) Change in potential energy is independent of
%
reference point
#
(3) Change in potential energy depends on
reference frame
(4) Potential energy at a point is not unique
!
225. The net work done by static friction on the two
bodies in contact is always
$ (1) Positive
(1) A (2) B (2) Negative
(3) C (4) A & C (3) Zero
221. A particle is in conservative field whose potential (4) Any of these, depending on situation
energy (U) is varies as shown in figure. The net 226. Three smooth tracks in vertical plane is shown. If
force on the particle is zero during a particle is released on these tracks in turn then
! after leaving the track it follows a parabolic path.
If horizontal range in three cases is R1, R2 and R3
# $ then
" !#&#"
"
%
(1) O to A (2) A to B #
(3) O to B (4) All of these !"#$

"
222. A ball rebound from floor as shown in figure. '#$

!
Coefficient of restitution is %#$
(#$
!"#$% '"#$%
!"#$%
&"#$% (1) R1 > R2 > R3
(2) R1 < R2 < R3
(3) R2 > R1 = R3
! ! (4) R2 < R1 = R3
(1) (2)
" " 227. A ball is dropped from certain height. It goes upto
a height 8 m after first collision from a surface and
! 4 m after second collision. Coefficient of restitution
(3) 1 (4) is
$
223. Which of the following statements is correct about !

(1)
elastic collision between two objects? "
(1) Their individual KE are conserved !

(2)
#
(2) Kinetic energy of the system is conserved
(3) Kinetic energy and momentum both are !
(3)
conserved "
(4) Kinetic energy before collision is equal to !

(4)
kinetic energy after collision " "
228. A block of mass m is moving with speed v !!" !"
towards a spring block system. If collision is (1) #! (2) #!
perfectly inelastic then maximum compression in
the spring will be "!" !"
(3) #! (4) !#
!
233. Figure shows potential energy function U of a

# !
system in which a particle is in one-dimensional
" "
motion. In which region the magnitude of the force
on the particle is greatest? (x : position)
# $# !
(1) ! (2) !
* *
! #
(3) # (4) !
$* $*
229. Water in a tank is frozen completely. The height '
" # $ % &
and mass of frozen water is 10 cm and 1 kg (1) OA (2) CD
respectively. When the entire ice melts, the work
done by gravity is (Take specific gravity of (3) AB (4) BC
ice = 0.9) 234. The force required to move a boat at constant
(1) 0.1 J (2) 0.05 J speed is proportional to its speed. If a speed of
4 km/h requires 7.5 kW, then a speed of
(3) –0.1 J (4) –0.05 J 12 km/h requires
230. Time taken by a body to slide down a rough 45° (1) 22.5 kW (2) 82 kW
incline plane is twice that required to slide down
(3) 25 kW (4) 67.5 kW
a smooth 45° incline plane of identical geometry.
The coefficient of kinetic friction between object and 235. The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21%.
rough plane is The percentage increase in the magnitude of linear
momentum of the body is
! % (1) 42% (2) 11.5%
(1) (2)
" # (3) 10% (4) 20.5%
236. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
! '
(3) (4) (1) watt hour (2) joule
% $
(3) eV (4) N m–1
231. A spring is stretched from its natural length and
released. Its potential energy 237. A body of mass m moving with speed v
compresses a spring of force constant k as shown
(1) Remains stored in the spring in another form
in figure. Maximum compression of the spring is
(2) Is converted into heat equal to
(3) Is transferred to air molecules
"
(4) Both (2) & (3)
#
232. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v !
collides elastically with a wall. Variation of force F
acting on the particle during collision as a function !"#$%#&'()**
of time t is shown in figure. Magnitude of F0 is
!
# #
(1) ! (2) $!
!! * *
$# #
" (3) ! (4) !
"!!" "! * $*
238. Mark the correct option 243. A block of mass m is placed in an elevator moving
(1) When a conservative force does positive work !
on a body, the kinetic energy of body down with an acceleration . The work done by
!
decreases
the normal reaction on the block as the elevator
(2) Work done by body against friction always moves down through a height h is
results in loss of its kinetic energy
(3) Work done in the motion of a body over a ""!#
(1)
closed loop is zero for every force in nature !
(4) All of these
!"#
239. Four situations are shown in following options. In (2)
!
each situation planes are equally rough and block
begins with same speed and slides until the
""!#
kinetic frictional force has stopped it. In which of (3)
the following cases increase in thermal energy due !
to sliding is least?
!"#
(4)
" !
! 244. Which of the following is/are not universal law(s)?
! "
(1) (2) !"#
(1) Conservation of mechanical energy
! (2) Conservation of mass

" " (3) Conservation of charge
!
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) $%# (4) !"#
245. A body of mass 2 kg strikes elastically on a wall
240. A body is dropped from height 10 m on a with velocity 5 m/s at an angle 60º, then change
in momentum along the wall (in kg m/s)
horizontal floor. If coefficient of restitution between
(1) –10
!
body and floor is , then maximum height
" (2) !" #
attained by the body after 1st collision is
(3) 0
(1) 10 m
(4) –2.5
(2) 5 m
246. When body moves in uniform circular motion, then
(3) 2.5 m (1) No force acts on the body
(4) 1 m (2) No work is done on it
241. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 cm. Ball (3) No acceleration is produced
rebounds to a height of 10 cm. Loss of energy is
(4) Its velocity remains constant
(1) 25% (2) 75%
247. A cubical vessel of height x is full of liquid of
(3) 50% (4) 100% density . The minimum workdone in taking water
242. A stone tied to a string of length 3.2 m is whirled out from vessel will be
in a vertical circle with the other end of the string (1) gx4
at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the
stone is at its lowest position and has a speed 8 !
m/s. The magnitude of the change in its velocity (2) $+ $
$
as it reaches a position, where the string becomes
horizontal is (3) gx3
(1) 8 m/s (2) 6 m/s !

(4) !" !
(3) 12 m/s (4) Zero "
248. A fruit of mass m dropped from height h of a tree. 253. A particle of mass 1 kg moving with 30 m/s
If it hits the ground with a speed of v m/s, then collides head on with another body of mass 2 kg
workdone by resistive force is at rest. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, then
their velocities after collision is
(1) 30 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 10 m/s
! 254. Two spring A and B (KA = 2KB) are stretched by
applying force of equal magnitude at the four ends.
If the energy stored in A is E, then in B is
"
(1) E (2)
!
"
(3) 2E (4)
"
255. A car of mass m is driven with acceleration a
along a straight level road against a constant
!
(1) –mgh (2) !" ! external resistive force R. When the velocity of
" car is v. The rate at which the engine of the car
is doing work will be
!
(3) mv2 + 2mgh (4) !""# $ ! # (1) mav (2) Rv
"
249. Correct statement is (3) (ma – R)v (4) (ma + R)v
(1) If net force on system is zero, then net 256. The potential energy of a particle varies with
workdone by different forces acting on the distance r as shown in the graph. The force acting
system must be zero on the particle is zero at
(2) The change in kinetic energy of a system is %!&"
equal to the sum of the works done on the "
system by the external forces
(3) Work energy theorem holds in all inertial and #
non inertial frames !
(4) Both (1) & (2)
250. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio $
of work done by force of gravity in first, second &
and third second of the motion of the ball is
(1) P (2) S
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 12 : 22 : 32
(3) Q and R (4) Both P and S
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 5 : 3
257. A toy car slips down the smooth inclined plane as
251. If v, P and E denote the velocity, momentum and
shown in figure. It goes around the vertical smooth
kinetic energy of the particle, then
circle at the bottom, the relation between H and
!" !" h is
(1) # (2) #
!$ !$
#"
(3) $ (4) ! ! " #$
#% "
252. A body moving at 2 m/s can be stopped over a #
distance d. If its kinetic energy is doubled and the !
retarding force remains unchanged, then how long
will it go before coming to rest?
(1) d (2) 2d (1) H = 2h (2) H = 3h
(3) 4d (4) 8d (3) H = 4h (4) H = 5h
258. The ratio of velocities of a body connected to string 263. A ball moving at velocity 4 m/s collides with
at points A, B and C to just complete vertical another similar stationary ball. After the collision
circular motion is the two bodies moves in directions making an
! angle of 30º with the initial direction. The ratio of
the speeds of bodies after the collision will be
(If V 1 and V 2 are the speed of bodies after
collision)
# $
" !"#
!"#
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 12 : 32 : 52
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
!# !#
(1) ! ! (2) ! !
(4) !"#" $ "#" % ! !
259. A smooth sphere of mass M moving with velocity

u directly collides elastically with another sphere !# !!
(3) ! ! (4) ! !
of mass m at rest. After collision their final ! "
velocities are V and v respectively. The value of v
is 264. Work done by tension in a string
(1) May be positive (2) May be negative
!!" !!#
(1) (2) (3) May be zero (4) All of these
# "
265. Speed of a body of mass 10 kg is changed from
!! !! 5 m/s to 10 m/s. Work done on the body by all
(3) (4)
" " forces is
" "
# #
(1) 375 J (2) 187.5 J
260. Which of the following is not a perfectly inelastic
(3) 750 J (4) Zero
collision?
266. A particle moving with speed v collides elastically
(1) A man jumping on to a moving cart
with another particle at rest. When the first particle
(2) A bullet striking a bag of sand moves at an angle 30º with initial direction of
motion, second particle will move at angle with
(3) An electron captured by a proton initial direction of motion of first particle is equal
(4) Striking of two glass balls to
261. A bullet of mass x is fired with velocity y in a large (1) 30º (2) 45º
block of mass z and get embedded in it. The final (3) 60º (4) 90º
velocity of the system will be
267. Work done by the external agent in increasing the
length of spring from natural length 10 cm to
!! "" # ! ! ""
(1) (2) #% $ 10.1 cm is 20 J. Work done by the agent in
! # & increasing the length from 10.1 cm to 10.2 cm is
(1) 20 J (2) 40 J
+2 ! ! "
(3) (4) %# $ (3) 60 J (4) 100 J
+ 3 " !&
268. A body is kept in a conservative force/field, then
262. A inelastically billiard ball A of kinetic energy K its
collides with another similar ball B at rest. After the
collision the kinetic energy of the ball A becomes (1) Kinetic energy is conserved
K then (2) Potential energy is conserved
(1) K = K (2) K > K (3) Mechanical energy is conserved
(3) K < K (4) K = 2K (4) Momentum is conserved
269. Potential energy of a particle at position x is given 2. A : Work done by a force on object is zero, if the
by U = (–x2 + 2x) J. Force on the particle at force is perpendicular to its velocity.
x = 1 m is
R : Work done by a force on object is zero, if it
(1) #! "# (2) "!! #$ moves in such a way that point of application
(3) "!! #$ (4) Zero of force on body does not move.
270. A body at rest is released from height h on a 3. A : In the absence of friction the mechanical
frictionless track which leads to a vertical circle as energy of a system is conserved if there is no
shown in figure. If the body just completes the external force acting on the system.
vertical circle, then relation between R and h is
R : The work done by a conservative force in a
system is equal to loss of potential energy of
the system.
! 4. A : When a particle is rotated in a vertical circle

" with the help of a string, the minimum velocity
of the particle at topmost point may be equal
to zero.
#& R : Tension in the string at the top most point is

(1) ' (2) h = 2R always zero.
"
5. A : A system of mass can have kinetic energy
$& 4
(3) ' (4) 5 even without having momentum but it cannot
" $
have momentum without having kinetic energy.
271. Linear momentum of a body is decreased by 50%.
R : Momentum is a vector quantity, while kinetic
Percentage decrease in its translational kinetic
energy is energy is scalar.
(1) 75% (2) 125% 6. A : For a body in neutral equilibrium, net force is
zero which is not the condition for a body in
(3) 100% (4) 50%
unstable equilibrium.
SECTION - B R : In an unstable equilibrium as a body is
Assertion - Reason Type Questions displaced from its equilibrium position a net
force starts acting on the body trying to bring
the body back to its equilibrium position.
7. A : In an elastic collision of two bodies the
momentum and energy of each body is
conserved.
R : If two bodies stick to each other after collision,
reason is not the correct explanation of the the collision is said to be perfectly elastic.
assertion, then mark (2). 8. A : The energy of an object changes if an
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is exchange of energy occurs between the object
false, then mark (3). and its environment.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Energy transfer can occur only due to a force
statements, then mark (4). doing some work on the object.
1. A : Work done by frictional force is always 9. A : Work done against the spring force is stored
negative. as elastic potential energy.
R : Direction of frictional force is always opposite R : Spring force is considered to be conservative
to motion of the body. force.
10. A : Work done by the friction may be positive. R : Tension in the wire is equal to the centripetal
force acting on the body doing vertical circular
R : When the displacement of the body is in the
motion.
direction of frictional force.
15. A : During collision of two masses momentum is
11. A : Potential energy do not have unique value. conserved.
R : Work done by conservative force depends on R : During collision external force is absent.
path followed.
16. A : A body is initially at rest is acted upon by a
12. A : At a location potential energy of body may constant force. The rate of change of its
have different values. kinetic energy varies linearly with time.
R : Potential energy of a body depends on the R : When a body is at rest it must be in

equilibrium.
reference level.
17. A : In a conservative field, power delivered to an
13. A : At equilibrium, potential energy of a body may
object is equal to rate of change of potential
be maximum. energy of the system.
R : At stable equilibrium, potential energy is R : Power delivered to an object is rate of doing
maximum. work on the object.
14. A : Power delivered by the tension in the rotating 18. A : Work is a scalar quantity.
wire to a connected body in vertical circle is R : All quantities with dimensional formula
always zero. [ML 2 T–2] are scalar.
!" !" !
Chapter 6
Gravitation
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
SECTION - A
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
6. If gravitational force between two point objects is
1. The exchange particles which are considered to be inversely proportional to their distance of separation
responsible for gravitational attraction are (r), then orbital speed (v 0 ) in that system is
(1) -meson (2) Graviton proportional to
(3) Photon (4) Gluon (1) r (2) r–1
2. Radii and densities of two planets are R1, R2 and (3) r0 (4) r1/2
1, 2 respectively. The ratio of accelerations due 7. A particle of mass m is released from a height R
to gravity on their surfaces is (radius of earth) from the surface of earth. When it
reaches the earth’s surface, it enters a tunnel
! " ! "
(1) ! ! ! (2) ! leading to its centre. Its speed at the centre is
! " ! !" !"" [g = acceleration due to gravity on surface of earth]
! ! (1) !" (2) !!"

(3) "
1R1 : 2R2 (4) ! !
"!" ! !!
(3) "!" (4) #!"
3. The escape velocity for an object on the surface of
moon is Ve. If a narrow tunnel is dug along the 8. A particle of mass M is placed at the centre of a
diameter of moon, then the escape velocity for an !
object from the centre of moon will be uniform shell of mass and radius R. Gravitational
!
!
! potential at a point from the centre is
(1) Ve (2) !! !
"
!" # $%
!! (1) (2)
! # $ !
(3) (4) " !!
! #
! !"
4. Potential energy (U) and time period (T) of a (3) (4) Zero
" #
satellite are related to each other as
9. 1 kg sugar have maximum weight
! ! !
(1) ! (2) ! (1) At pole (2) At equator
"" "!
(3) At latitude 45° (4) In India
! " " " 10. A man have maximum weight at
(3) ! " (4) "
##
(1) Poles
5. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 on the
(2) Depth equal to half of radius of earth
surface of earth and it has time period T2 at a
height h = R (R-radius of earth) from the surface (3) Equator
of earth The ratio of T2 : T1 is (4) Altitude equal to half of radius of earth
126 Gravitation Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. A body thrown vertically upward with initial speed 17. Three identical particles each of mass M are
!" , where R is the radius of earth. Then located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side a. The escape speed of one particle will be
maximum height reached by the body from the
surface of earth is
!!" !!"
(1) (2)
! !# # #
(1) (2)
! "
!!" !"
! (3) (4)
(3) R (4) # #
"
18. A particle is dropped from a height h = 3R above
12. At what minimum value of angular velocity of earth surface, where R is the radius of earth. If g
rotation, the bodies on equator will become is the acceleration due to gravity on earth surface,
weightless? then speed with which the particle strikes the earth
! ! surface is
(1) "#$%&' (2) "#$%&'
( () (1) !%#
! ! (2) "%#
(3) "#$%&' (4) "#$%&'
()) ()))
(3) !"#!"
13. A satellite around earth is moving in elliptical orbit.
The sum of potential energy and kinetic energy of (4) !"
the satellite is
19. Gravitational potential at the centre of a solid
(1) Positive sphere is V. Now radius of this sphere is made
(2) Negative double its present value without changing its
(3) Zero mass. Then the potential on the surface of this
new sphere will be
(4) Positive at perigee and negative at apogee
&
14. The orbital radius of a satellite is one fourth that of (1) 2V (2)
"
a geostationary satellite. The period of revolution of
the satellite is #
(3) 3V (4)
(1) 2 h "
(2) 3 h 20. The factors on which the escape speed from earth
depends
(3) 6 h
(1) Direction of projection
(4) 12 h
(2) Mass of the body projected
15. A particle is located midway between two point
masses each of mass M kept at a separation 2d. (3) The location of projection on the earth surface
The escape speed of the particle is (neglect the (4) The height of projection from the earth’s surface
effect of any other gravitational effect) 21. The variation of gravitational potential (V) for a
"!" !" uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R, with
(1) (2) " distance (r) from its centre
$ $
! !
!!" !"
(3) (4)
$ "$
16. A satellite moving in a circular orbit has binding (1) (2)
energy E1. When its orbit radius increases, the !
binding energy becomes E 2 . The change in " ! "
gravitational potential energy is
! !
(1) (E1 – E2)
(2) 2(E1 – E2)
(3) (E2 – E1) (3) (4)
(4) 2(E2 – E1) ! " ! "
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Gravitation 127
22. If universal gravitational constant starts increasing 28. Two identical hollow spheres of negligible thickness
gradually then are placed in contact with each other. The force of
gravitation between the spheres will be proportional
(1) Period of revolution of earth around sun will
to (R = radius of each sphere)
decrease
(1) R (2) R2
(2) Earth will follow a spiral path of decreasing
radius (3) R 4 (4) R 3
(3) PE of earth will change 29. A planet is revolving around a massive star in a
circular orbit of radius R. If the gravitational force of
(4) All of these
attraction between the planet and the star is
23. The escape velocities from the surface of two inversely proportional to R3, then time period of
planets of same masses is in the ratio of #$ " . revolution T is proportional to
Then ratio of their densities is (1) R5 (2) R3
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) R2 (4) R
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16 30. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at a
depth h below the surface of earth and at a
24. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit
height h above the earth surface of earth
around earth has a kinetic energy E. Its total
(h << radius of earth) is
energy is
! !" ! !! "
(1) # ! $ (2) # "
(1) – E (2)
! % "& % " $&
!
! !"
(3) – 2E (4) 2E (3) # ! $ (4) 1
% " &
25. Two particles having masses 1 kg and 7 kg 31. The ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto
respectively attract each other. Initially they are at a height 2R above the earth surface (R = radius of
rest and infinite separation. The velocity of earth) to the magnitude of total energy of satellite
approach of the particles are at a separation of 1m revolving in that orbit is
is (G = universal gravitational constant)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(1) ! ! "#$ (2) ! ! "#$
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 5 : 2
! ! 32. By what percent the energy of a satellite has to be
(3) !"# (4) !"#
$ $ increased to shift it from an orbit of 2R to 4R
(R = radius of earth)
26. Two concentric shells of uniform density of mass
M and 2M are situated as shown in the figure. The (1) 10% (2) 30%
ratio of forces experienced by a particle of mass m (3) 50% (4) 70%
at position A and B is
33. A satellite of mass 1000 kg revolves in a circular
!! orbit around the earth with constant speed 100 m/
! s. The total mechanical energy of satellite is
!#
" (1) – 0.5 MJ
#
(2) – 25 MJ
!
(3) – 5 MJ
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (4) – 2.5 MJ
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 34. If gravitational potential is taken as zero at the
27. If the speed of a satellite orbiting near the surface surface of earth, then kinetic energy of a satellite
of the earth is changed from v0 to 0.9 v0, then of mass m revolving in a circular orbit of radius r
will be [M is mass of earth]
(1) It will revolve in a circular orbit of smaller radius
!"# !"#
(2) It will revolve in a circular orbit of larger radius (1) (2)
!$ $
(3) It will revolve in an elliptical orbit
!!"# "!"'
(3) (4)
(4) It will follow a parabolic path "$ (
35. A point mass M is placed at distance x from the 40. In a new system, the force between the masses
center of a spherical shell of mass m and radius given by F r 2, then time period of revolution T is
R. The net force on mass M due to shell and point proportional to
mass m is
(1) r –1/2 (2) r 1/2
$ (3) r (4) r 3/2
! #
! 41. If magnitude of centripetal acceleration of all the
" planets taken to be same, then the force of
attraction between the sun and planet is maximum
!"#$ for
(1) !
% (1) Earth (2) Venus
!"' (3) Jupiter (4) Saturn
(2) ! !
) %# 42. In the case of stable equilibrium in gravitational field
!"# !"# (1) Force on the body is zero and potential energy
(3) ! ! !
$ % $ is always negative
(4) Zero (2) Force on the body is non-zero and potential
36. A point mass m is placed at a distance R from the energy is always zero
surface of a solid sphere of mass m and radius R. (3) Force on the body is zero and potential energy
The gravitational potential energy of this system of
is always positive
point mass and sphere is
(4) Force on the body is non-zero and potential
! !
!" !' energy is always positive
(1) (2)
!# # 43. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a point
! ! at a height of 800 km from the surface of earth
$#$ !!!"
(3) (4) (radius of earth is 6400 km and value of
" !"#
acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface is
37. The position vector of a planet w.r.t. the sun 981 g/cm2) is
sweeps area A during the first week of January
2001. The area swept by it during the month of (1) 775 g/cm2
February, 2004 is (2) 872 g/cm2
(1) 28 A (2) 4 A (3) 981 g/cm2
!" # (4) Zero
(3) 7 A (4)
# 44. When a planet revolve around the sun in an
38. Two satellites of equal mass are moving around the elliptical path, then number of points at which
earth in a circular orbit at height 5R and 7R velocity equal in magnitude and opposite in
respectively from earth surface, where R is radius direction
of earth. The ratio of their kinetic energy is
(1) 2 (2) 3
! !
(1) (2) (3) 4 (4) Infinite
" "
45. If the magnitude of gravitational potential energy of
!" #
(3) (4) a system is varies according to the relation
# $
39. If a body is projected horizontally with speed !
! , then time period of revolution is
!
$ !" from the top of a tower of height 0.5 R, "
then it will [R is radius of earth] proportional to
(1) Fall back on the surface of earth (1) r 3/2
(2) Start rotating around the earth in elliptical orbit (2) r 2
(3) Start rotating around the earth in a circular orbit (3) r
(4) Escape from earth (4) r 0
46. Binding energy of a planet and star is increased 51. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R has to be
then disintegrated into infinite point masses at infinite
(1) Potential energy increased separation. The work done for this process will be
(G - universal gravitational constant)
(2) Potential energy decreased
!" "#
(3) Kinetic energy decreased (1) (2)
# !!
(4) Kinetic and potential energy both remains
constant "!" ! !!" !
(3) (4)
47. Two masses m1 and m2 are inside the spherical !# &#
shell of mass m3. Then which of the following is 52. An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from height 10
not true? m on the surface of earth. The acceleration produced
in the motion of earth by the object will be
!!
(1) 9.8 m/s2
" (2) Less than 9.8 m/s2

!! !"
(3) Greater than 9.8 m/s2
! !!
(4) Zero
53. According to Kepler’s 3rd law T2 = Ka3, where K
is proportionality constant which depends on
(1) Force between m1 and m2 is non-zero
(1) Mass of sun
(2) Force between m1 and m3 is zero
(2) Mass of planet
(3) Force between m2 and m3 is zero (3) Radius of sun
(4) At the centre O gravitational field is zero (4) Both (1) & (2)
48. Two planets are at the distances 2r and 3r from the 54. A point mass of 2 kg experiences a gravitational
sun then the ratio of their time periods force of 14.2 N in gravitational field of a planet. The
field intensity at that point is
!"# #"!
!"" !"" (1) 7.1 N/kg (2) 28.4 N/kg
(1) # $ (2) # $
%!& %&& (3) 8.6 N/m (4) 21.2 N/kg
55. A man of mass 100 kg in a satellite revolves around
#"!
!"" earth at height R from the surface of earth. The
(3) # $ (4) 1
%!& true weight of man will be [R radius of earth,
take
49. If the orbital radius of the earth around the sun
g = 10 m/s2 on the surface of earth]
becomes one fourth of the present value, then the
duration of the year will be (1) Zero (2) 250 N
(1) 22.8 days (2) 32.5 days (3) 490 N (4) 980 N
(3) 45.63 days (4) 91.25 days 56. The maximum value of gravitational potential energy
can be
50. A satellite of mass m at rest on the surface of earth
(1) Zero (2) – 1
is to be launched into the parking orbit. The
energy required for this process is [R - radius of (3) + 1 (4) Infinity
earth, g - acceleration due to gravity on earth’s
57. If ge and gp are magnitude of acceleration due to
surface]
gravity at equator and poles respectively, then
!%'# $$%& gravity at a place where latitude is 45º will be
(1) (2)
% # (1) ge + gp (2) gp – ge
!#!"# &$%& $" $! $! $"

(3) (4) (3) (4)
!" % ' '
58. At what angular speed of earth, the object on 63. A body of mass m is at the centre of the earth.
equator of earth will escape to infinity from its The work which should be done to bring the body
surface? [R radius of earth] at the surface of earth will be [M = mass of earth,
R = radius of earth]
(1) !"
""#$
(1) Zero (2)
(2) !!" !!
%# !"' !"'
(3) (3) (4)
# # "#
64. The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular
!! speed about its own axis and the acceleration
(4)
" due to gravity at earth surface is g. The cube of
radius of orbit of a 'geostationary satellite' will be
59. An object of mass m has potential energy U1 on
the surface of earth. The object has potential (1) R2g/ (2) R2 /g
energy U2 on the surface of another planet of
(3) Rg/ 2 (4) R2g/ 2
!
density 4 and radius , then [R radius of 65. If the radius of the earth's orbit around the sun is
!
earth, density of earth] R and the time period of revolution of earth around
the sun is T, the mass of the sun is
(1) U1 = U2
! !
#" !* !
(2) U1 < U2 (1) (2) !
!" !
% #"
(3) U1 > U2
"# " ! !
#"
(4) U1U2 < 0 (3) ! !
(4)
! ! !" !
60. A satellite of mass 100 kg moves around the earth 66. Two point masses M and 4M are kept at a
in a circular orbit with speed 100 m/s. The potential separation of 12 meter. At what distance from the
energy of satellite is smaller mass, The gravitational potential has a
minimum magnitude?
(1) 0.5 MJ (2) – 1.0 MJ
(1) 3 m (2) 4 m
(3) – 0.5 MJ (4) – 0.40 MJ
(3) 2.4 m (4) 6 m
61. A satellite of mass m revolving round the earth in 67. Two solid spheres each of radius R and mass m
a circular orbit of radius r has its angular are initially at rest with respect to a stationary
momentum equal to L about the centre of the reference frame S. The initial separation between
earth. The potential energy of the satellite is the spheres is very large. If the two move due to
mutual gravitational pull, with what speed w.r.t. the
#! !#! frame S will they strike each other?
(1) (2)
!!" !" !
"# !#
(1) (2)
! ! !! %
!# #
(3) ! ! (4)
" ! !" ! !"# "$
(3) (4) !
62. Which of the following pair/s have maximum ! !
binding energy? 68. The escape speed from earth surface is 11.2 kms–1.
If radius of earth is doubled and the density
(1) Two point masses each of mass m at distance d remaining the same, the escape speed from earth
(2) Two solid spheres each of mass m with their surface will become/remain
centres at distance d (1) 5.6 km/s
(3) A point mass and a solid sphere each of mass m (2) 11.2 km/s
at distance d
(3) 22.4 km/s
(4) All above pairs have same potential energy (4) 33.6 km/s
69. The mass of moon is about 1.5% of the mass of 75. At what angle with the horizontal should a body
the Earth. If the gravitational pull that the Earth be projected upwards from earth surface to
exerts on the moon is F, then the pull exerted by escape from gravitational pull?
moon on the Earth (1) 45°
(1) > F (2) Less than 45°
(2) = F (3) More than 45°
(3) < F (4) Any angle
(4) Information is insufficient to predict 76. Which of the following graphs correctly represents
70. A small ball of mass m is dropped from a the variation of acceleration due to gravity g with
geostationary spacecraft revolving around the earth. distance r from centre of the earth? (where R is the
The total energy of the ball after it is dropped from radius of earth)
the spacecraft will be [M mass of earth; R
radius of earth and height of the satellite from earth
surface is 6R] $ $
$%" (1) (2)
(1) Zero (2) $
!"#
! " # ! " #
"#$ "#$
(3) " (4) "
!! #$!
$ #
71. When a body of mass m is lifted from surface of
the earth to a height equal to radius R of the earth, (3) (4)
the change in gravitational potential energy of the
body is (g : acceleration due to gravity at the ! " # ! $ "
surface of the earth) 77. Work done by a person on a mass of 3 kg in
bringing it from infinity to a point A is –9 joule. If
! the mass was initially at rest and its final velocity
(1) !"# (2) mgR
" at point A is 6 m/s, then gravitational potential at
(3) 3 mgR (4) 2 mgR point A is (assume gravitational potential at infinity
is zero)
72. Mechanical energy of a body of mass m thrown
from surface of the earth (mass M, radius R ) at (1) 21 J/kg (2) –21 J/kg
escape velocity is (3) 54 J/kg (4) –54 J/kg
78. If a body is dropped from an artificial satellite
!"' !"'
(1) (2) revolving around the earth at an altitude of 120 km,
"# # the body will
(3) Less than zero (4) Zero (1) Fall down to earth gradually
73. Suppose the earth of radius R starts rotating (2) Go far away in space
about its polar axis at such an angular velocity that
a person on equator feels weightless. In this (3) Continue to move with same speed along the
situation the duration of one day is equal to original orbit of satellite
(4) Continue to move tangentially in a straight line
# ! ! to the satellite orbit with same speed
(1) !% (2)
% " " 79. If the speed of an artificial satellite revolving around
! !
(3) ! !" (4) ! the earth in circular orbit be of escape velocity
" "
from the surface of the earth then its altitude above
74. At a point inside a uniform spherical shell the surface of earth is
(1) Gravitational potential is constant ! !
(1) ! (2) !
(2) Gravitational field is non-zero " "
(3) Gravitational potential is zero ! #
(3) ! (4) !
(4) All of these " "
80. The distance of geostationary satellite from the 87. If radius of the earth shrinks by 1% and its mass
centre of earth (R = 6400 km) is nearest to remains same then acceleration due to gravity
(1) 18 R (2) 10 R experiences
(3) 7 R (4) 5 R (1) 1% decrease
81. If radius of the earth is reduced by 1% without (2) 1% increase

changing its mass, then the change in (3) 2% decrease
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the
(4) 2% increase
earth will be
88. An astronaut on a satellite drops a stone out of
(1) Decreased by 1% (2) Decreased by 1.5%
the satellite into the space. The stone will
(3) Increased by 2% (4) Increased by 1%
(1) Fall on the earth
82. Orbital speed of the polar satellite around earth is
(2) Stick to the satellite
approximately
(3) Become a satellite of the earth
(1) 2 km/s (2) 11.2 km/s
(4) Slowly fall on the earth making rounds
(3) 8 km/s (4) 3 km/s
89. The change in gravitational potential energy when
83. Potential energy of a satellite orbiting around earth
a body of mass m is raised to a height nR from
in a certain orbit is –U. Extra energy required for
the earth’s surface is (R = radius of earth)
the satellite to just escape from the orbit is
(1) U (2) 2U ! !
(1) "#$ (2) "#$
! ! ! !
% !
(3) # (4) #!
! ! (3) nmgR (4) $%!
84. A body is projected from the centre of a spherical #! "
shell of mass m and radius R. Its escape speed 90. If the gravitational potential on the surface of a
from the centre is uniform solid sphere is P, then the potential at its
center is
!!" !#
(1) (2) ! $
# % (1) " (2) "
# #
"!" " $"
(3) (4) ! #
# ! % (3) ! (4) !
" "
85. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit
around the earth has a total (kinetic plus potential) 91. If speed of a satellite of earth is raised by 41.4%,
energy equal to –106 J. Its potential energy is then the satellite
(1) –106 J (1) Escapes the earth’s field
(2) –1.5 × 106 J (2) Moves in elliptical orbit about earth
(3) –2 × 106 J (3) Moves in circular orbit about earth
(4) 106 J (4) Will fall into earth
86. A person can jump upto a height h (<< RE) on the
92. If we start moving away from the centre of the
earth. Radius RP of a planet on which the man
earth, then gravitational potential
escapes through jumping can be given by
(1) Decreases continuously
(Density of planet is same as that of the earth and
RE is radius of earth) (2) Increases continuously
(1) RP = (REh2)1/3 (3) First increases then decreases
(2) RP = #! + (4) First decreases then increases

93. Time period of the polar satellite around the earth
(3) !!! !!" " is about
(1) 24 h (2) 12 h
!!!
(4) !"
$ (3) 6 h (4) 100 minute
94. If R is the radius of orbit of a planet and T is time 99. The scientific principle involved in orbital motion of
period of the planet, then which of the following a satellite is
graphs correctly shows the motion of a planet
revolving around the sun? (1) Laws of thermodynamics
(2) Newton’s laws of motion
! "
" " (3) Kepler’s laws of planetary motion
(1) (2) (4) Bernoulli’s principle of fluid dynamics

! 100. A vertical stick of mass 1 kg and length 4 m is
! !
pivoted at top end and is displaced through an
"
angle 60° from its initial vertical position. The
" " increase in its gravitational potential energy is
(3) (4) (1) 5 J (2) 20 J
!
! ! (3) 15 J (4) 10 J
95. A satellite is launched to orbit around the earth at 101. Figure shows two concentric shells of masses m1
a height h (<< R = radius of earth). Time period and m2. At which point a particle of mass m shall
of revolution of satellite around the earth is nearly experience zero gravitational force because of them?
(1) 24 h %"
(2) 6 h %!
(3) 2.8 h
(4) 1.4 h ! " # $
96. A body of mass m is taken to an altitude equal to
the radius of earth (R). If acceleration due to gravity
at the surface of earth is g, then gain in potential (1) A (2) C
energy of the body is
(3) D (4) B
(1) mgR
102. If a particle is given escape velocity on the surface
'%# of earth, then its mechanical energy is
(2) (1) Zero (2) Greater than zero
"
'%# $&"
(3) (3) Less than zero (4) #
% !%
103. The gravitational field in a region is given by
%$& !"
(4)
" ! ""! " #!# Work done by this field is zero, when
a particle is moved along the line
97. Time period of revolution of a satellite very close to
earth surface is T. If an imaginary straight (1) 3x + 4y = 2 (2) 3x + 3y = 5
bottomless tunnel is dug through earth and a body
(3) x + 3y = 2 (4) 3y + x = 1
is dropped into it, then its time period of oscillation
will be 104. A straight hole is drilled from surface of the earth
to its centre. If a particle at rest is dropped
(1) 2 T (2) 3 T from surface of the earth then speed of the
(3) 4 T (4) T particle when it reaches the centre of the earth is
(M = mass of earth, R = radius)
98. What should be the length of a day on earth, if a
man standing on the equator experience !"# "#
weightlessness? (1) (2) !
! !
(1) 48 hours (2) 84.6 minute
!" !"
(3) (4)
(3) Infinite (4) 42.3 minute % !%
105. A tunnel has been dug through a diameter of a 109. A particle has been thrown up with double the
solid sphere of uniform mass density. Which graph escape speed Ve from the surface of the earth. Its
best represents the variation of gravitational field speed when it reaches the interstellar space far
intensity E with position r as one moves from A to away from the earth’s gravity, is
B?
&!
! (1) (2) Ve
"
(3) !!! (4) Zero
110. The gravitational potential energy of an isolated

system of three particles each of mass m at the
three corners of an equilateral triangle of side l is
"
" " !" ! "!" !
(1) ! (2) !
# #
''% ! '% !
(3) ( (4) (
(1) (2) ( '(
111. The value of g at a certain height h above the free
! !
!
" " surface of earth is , where x is value of g at the
!
surface of earth. The height h is
(1) R (2) 2R
(3) (4)
(3) 3R (4) 4R
! ! 112. Two satellites each of mass m are revolving around
106. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit earth of mass M. The ratio of maximum and
around earth has a kinetic energy E. Its potential minimum force on earth due to two satellites is
energy is
"
!
(1) –2E (2) !
" !
(3) –E (4) 2E "
107. Figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit around the !!
sun (S). Ratio of momentum of planet at point A !
to that at point B is
""
# !
# (1) (2)
$ % " "
!! !"
"! ! !
(3) (4)
" "
"! !"!
(1) " (2) 113. The slope of a graph plotted between squaring time
" !!!
period of revolution (T 2) and cube of semi major
"" !!! axis (a3) for a planet around the sun of mass M
(3) " (4)
! !"! will be (G : Universal gravitational constant)
108. If orbital speed of a satellite orbiting near surface (1) Zero
of the earth in circular orbit is changed from V0 to (2) 4 GM
1.1V0 then it will
(1) Revolve in a circular orbit of larger radius !"
(3)
(2) Follow a parabolic path ! !
(3) Revolve in an elliptical orbit ! !
(4) Follow hyperbolic path (4)
!"
114. Which of the following statements is correct about 120. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the
gravitational force? surface of the earth, then increase in potential
energy of a body of mass m raised to a height
(1) It depends upon the product of two masses
equal to half of the radius R of the earth, from the
(2) It depends upon the medium between the earth surface is
masses
(3) It depends upon the separation between the !
(1) !"# (2) !!"#
two masses "
(4) Both (1) & (3)
! !
(3) !"# (4) "$#
115. A body is projected at an angle of 60° upwards # #
from the surface of the earth. The escape speed
in this case would be (symbols have their usual 121. A satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit
meaning) with a speed v and orbital radius r. If it loses some
energy, then
! "!" ! "!" (1) v decreases and r increases
(1) (2)
" # " #
(2) Both v and r decrease
!"# ""# (3) v increases and r decreases
(3) (4)
! !!
(4) Both v and r increase
116. Kepler’s second law states that, areal velocity of 122. If the law of gravitation, instead of being inverse
a planet is constant. It is a consequence of square law, becomes an inverse cube law, then
conservation of the true statement is?
(1) Linear momentum (2) Angular momentum (1) Circular orbits of planet is not possible
(3) Energy (4) Mass (2) Projectile motion on the earth’s surface will be
117. If the earth suddenly stops rotating, then the value circular
of acceleration due to gravity g at equator and pole (3) Planets will not have elliptical orbits
respectively (4) All of these
(1) Decreases, decreases 123. Work done by gravitational field of earth of mass
(2) Increases, remains constant M and radius R on an orbiting satellite of mass m
at an altitude h in one revolution is
(3) Decreases, remains constant
!"' !"#
(4) Remains constant, decreases (1) (2)
# + !"$ %#
118. If a body is projected with a speed equal to half
of escape speed from the surface of the earth, "!"'
(3) (4) Zero
then the maximum height attained by it is # +
(R = radius of the earth) 124. Two satellites are orbiting in circular orbits around
the earth at different altitude of 2R and 3R, where
! # R is radius of the earth. The ratio of their time
(1) (2)
! " period is
! "# '
(3) (4) (1)
" ! "(
119. Which of the following cannot be used to measure "(

time in a spaceship orbiting around the earth? (2)
)%
(1) Atomic watch
!
(3)
(2) A watch using electric oscillation "
(3) A watch using elastic vibrations "#
(4)
(4) Pendulum clock $!%
125. The ratio of total mechanical energy to the 130. A satellite is revolving around the earth with speed
potential energy of an orbiting satellite around the v0. If it is stopped suddenly, then with what velocity
earth is will the satellite hit the ground (ve = escape velocity
from earth surface.)?
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1 (1) , !! , "! (2) , !! ", "!
(3) 1 : 1
(4) Zero ! "!
(3) , !! !, "! (4) ! !!
126. A particle of mass m is projected with a speed !
thrice the escape speed Ve from the surface of the 131. Assuming the earth as a uniform solid sphere of
earth. Its speed at infinity is radius R, the gravitational field on its surface is x.
(1) 2Ve !
The gravitational field inside at a distance from
#
(2) ! ! Ve
its surface is
(3) 3Ve !
(4) Zero (1) x (2)
!
127. Three identical point masses each of mass 1 kg !
lie at three points (0, 0), (0, 0.2 m), (0.2 m, 0). (3) 2x (4)
"
The net gravitational force on the mass at the
132. A body of mass m is raised by an altitude equal
origin is
to radius of the earth R. If acceleration due to
(1) "#"$ %& !
'!! "!( ) gravity on the surface of the earth is g, then gain
in potential energy of the body is
!
(2) "#$% "& '!! "!( ) '%#
(1) mgR (2)
!
"
(3) "#$% "& '!! "!( )
!!"#
! (3) (4) 2mgR
(4) "#$% "& ' !! "!( ) "
128. Four particles of equal mass m are placed at the 133. Two particles of mass m and 4m are separated by
four corners of a square ABCD as shown in the a distance r. Their neutral point is at
figure. Gravitational force on C is along
! !
! " (1) from m (2) from 4m
! #
% %
! "
(3) from m (4) from 4m
" !
134. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown horizontally from the
% % !
top of a tall tower with velocity ! ""! #$%& . The
# $
change in gravitational potential energy of the ball-
(1) CB (2) CD earth system in 4 s will be
(3) CA (4) AB (1) 800 J (2) 320 J

129. A body of mass m is at an altitude 5 R. Energy (3) 160 J (4) 200 J
required to make it escape is (R = radius of the
earth) 135. The SI unit of universal gravitational constant is
(1) Nm2/kg2
"$%
(1) 2 mgR (2) (2) Nm/kg2
#
(3) Nm–2/kg2
! "
(3) !"# (4) !"# (4) Nkg2 /m2
" !
136. Value of escape speed at the moon is 142. Kepler’s second law is based on
(approximately) (1) Newton’s 2nd law
(1) 2.38 km/s (2) Energy conservation
(2) 5.02 km/s (3) Newton’s 1st law
(3) 11.2 km/s (4) Angular momentum conservation
(4) 16.02 km/s 143. Pendulum watch deep inside earth surface
(1) Runs slow (2) Runs fast
137. Variation of gravitational field due to a uniform solid
sphere of radius R with distance r from centre is (3) Runs as usual (4) Stops
(1) Straight line, for R > r 144. For weather information most preferred satellite type
is
(2) Hyperbolic, for R < r
(1) Polar (2) Geostationary
(3) Parabolic for R < r (3) Geosynchronous (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Both (1) & (2) 145. The escape speed for a rocket on the earth is
138. Gravitational field intensity (I) of uniform solid 11.2 km/s. Its value on a planet where acceleration
sphere at distance r from centre is due to gravity is double just on the earth and
diameter of the planet is twice that of the earth will
!"# be in (km/s)
(1) !"#$ $ #
$! (1) 11.2
(2) 5.6
!"( ! (3) 22.4
(2) *+,-# (
## (4) 33.6
') 146. A body is dropped from a height equal to the

(3) !
)*+,,& * radius R of earth. Maximum speed at which it will
* hit the ground is
(4) Both (1) & (3) (1) (2)
*#$ !"
139. Ratio of binding energy of a satellite revolving few
metre above the earth’s surface and same satellite !"
(3) !"#!" (4)
rest on earth is !
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 147. At what altitude would the gravitational
acceleration be 4.9 m/s2? [R = Radius of earth]
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
(1) 0.5 R (2) 0.4 R
140. A satellite is moving in circular orbit with speed of
(3) 1.4 R (4) 1.5 R
!" !
#! , then which statement is false inside 148. A body is projected vertically up from the surface
$ of earth with a speed bve, where b is constant
satellite? (b < 1) and ve is escape speed from the surface
(1) Heat transfer in fluid is done by convection of the earth. If R is radius of the earth, then
maximum altitude to which the body goes is
(2) Candle would quickly burn itself
(3) Astronaut feels weightless !
(1)
! "!
(4) Liquid do indeed coalesce into spheres
141. Gravitational acceleration (g) inside earth at &
(2)
r form centre distance is ! +
! !"
(1) ! (2) g r (3)
" ! ! "!
$ !" !
(3) ! (4) g r2 (4)
" ! "!
149. From the centre of earth an object is fired upward 156. A body of mass m is lifted up from the surface of
the earth to an altitude twice the radius of the
"!" earth R. The increase in the potential energy of the
with a speed . The object will obtain a
# body is
maximum altitude of (1) mgR
(1) (2) R
!%&'
(3) 2R (4) 3R (2)
"
150. If w1, w2 and w3 represent the work done in moving
a particle from A to B along three different paths '%#
1, 2 and 3 in gravitational field of a point mass m, (3)
!
the correct relation between w1, w2 and w3 is
(4) 2mgR
" 157. A particle is projected from the surface of the earth
" ! at very large speed !" , where g is acceleration
#
due to gravity on the surface and R is radius of the
earth. Neglecting air friction, the maximum altitude
!
upto which it can go is
(1) w1 = w2 = w3 (2) w1 > w2 > w3 #
(3) w1 < w2 < w3 (4) w1 > w2 < w3 (1)
!
151. If density of two planets are same and ratio of their (2) R
radius is 1 : 2, then ratio of acceleration due to
(3) 2R
gravity at their surface is
(4) 4R
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8 158. A satellite is rotating very close to the surface of
the earth. Percentage increase in its kinetic energy
152. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform so that it just escapes from the orbit is
density, the weight of a body half way towards the
centre of the earth, if it weighed 200 N on the (1) 41.4% (2) 50%
surface, is (3) 100% (4) 200%
(1) 50 N 159. A body is released from very large height from the
(2) 100 N surface of the earth. Its speed just before striking
the ground is approximately [Neglecting air
(3) 150 N resistance]
(4) 200 N
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 5.6 km/s
153. The time period of rotation of the earth so that a
(3) 3 km/s (4) Infinity
body kept on equator feels weightless is
approximately 160. Two satellites A and B of the same mass are
orbiting the earth at altitudes R and 3R
(1) 85 minute (2) 4 hour
respectively. (R : Radius of the earth) Ratio of their
(3) 6 hour (4) 12 hour respective kinetic energy is
154. The altitude at which the value of acceleration due (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
to gravity ‘g’ be reduced by 36% from the value at
the surface of the earth is (R = 6400 km) (3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
161. A planet has twice the density of the earth but the
(1) 6400 km (2) 3200 km
acceleration due to gravity on its surface is same
(3) 1600 km (4) 800 km as that on the surface of the earth. If radius of the
155. Three masses of 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are placed at earth is R then the radius of the planet is
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
1 m. The gravitational potential energy of the system #
(1) R (2)
is approximately (G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2) !
(1) –7.3 × 10–9 J (2) –7.3 × 10–10 J # #
–11 –12 (3) (4)
(3) –7.3 × 10 J (4) –7.3 × 10 J " #
162. A satellite orbiting close to the surface of the earth 2. A : Binding energy of a satellite doesn’t depend
does not fall down because the gravitational pull of upon the mass of the satellite.
the earth
R : Binding energy is equal to the negative value
(1) Keeps it weightless of potential energy of satellite.
(2) Balances the gravitational pull of the sun 3. A : When a pendulum clock giving correct time on
(3) Balances the gravitational pull of the moon arth surface is brought into a deep mine, the
clock will lose the time.
(4) Provides the necessary acceleration for its
circular motion R : The value of acceleration due to gravity inside
a mine is smaller than that on earth surface.
163. For a planet revolving around the sun, its semi-
major and semi-minor axis are ‘a’ and ‘b’ 4. A : Kepler’s second law is a consequence of
respectively. Then the square of its time period is conservation of linear momentum.
proportional to R : The linear momentum of a planet revolving
! around sun remains constant.
! ! ""
(1) # (2) a3
% ! $& 5. A : The principle of superposition is valid for
gravitational force.
(3) (a – b)3 (4) b 3 R : Gravitational force is a central force.
164. If the earth stops rotating about its axis, then the 6. A : The gravitational field due to earth is zero both
acceleration due to gravity at the centre of earth and at infinite distance.
(1) Changes everywhere on the surface of the R : The acceleration due to gravity of earth is zero
earth
at the centre of earth and at infinity.
(2) Decreases at the equator 7. A : The gravitational force on a particle inside a
(3) Does not change at the poles spherical shell is zero.
(4) Increases at the poles R : The shell shields other bodies outside it from
165. If the distance between the earth and the sun were exerting gravitational forces on a particle
reduced to half of its present value, then the inside.
number of days in a year would have been 8. A : Space crafts are usually launched in the
approximately equatorial line from west to east.
(1) 40 (2) 700 R : Acceleration due to gravity is minimum at
(3) 400 (4) 129 equator.
9. A : When a body is raised from the surface of
SECTION - B earth, its potential energy increases.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Potential energy of a body on the surface of
earth is zero.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 10. A : The value of escape velocity from surface of the
earth at angle of projection 30° and 60° with
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the horizontal are equal.
assertion, then mark (1). R : The value of escape velocity depends on height
of projection from earth’s surface.
11. A : Gravitational force is conservative force.
assertion, then mark (2). R : The gravitational force is negative gradient of
gravitational potential energy.
false, then mark (3). 12. A : Escape speed from a point on the surface of
earth depends on its location on the earth.
statements, then mark (4). R : Shape of earth is not perfect spherical.
1. A : During the fall of an apple event the earth is 13. A : The total mechanical energy of a planet
also attracted towards apple. revolving around the sun remains conserved.
R : Acceleration is inversely proportional to mass R : The gravitational force acting on the planet
for a given magnitude of force. remains perpendicular to its velocity.
14. A : Work done in moving a system of four particles 16. A : Work done by the gravitational force on a
arranged on a square to infinity by gravitational
force is negative. planet by the Sun during its motion from
R : Work done by gravitational force is equal to perigee to apogee is negative.

initial potential energy minus final potential
R : During the motion of a planet from perigee to
energy.
apogee work is done by the tangential force.
15. A : Acceleration due to gravity at poles is
independent of angular velocity of earth. 17. A : Football bounces higher on hills than in planes.
')
R : Acceleration due to gravity $ at the R : Acceleration due to gravity on hills is less than
&!
poles. that on the earth’s surface.
!" !" !
Chapter 7
Mechanical Properties of Solids
7. If Poisson ratio of a material is 0.5, then its bulk

SECTION - A modulus is equal to
Objective Type Questions (1) Zero
1. Bridges are declared unsafe after a long time of (2) Young’s modulus
their use due to (3) Infinite
(1) Elastic after effect (2) Elastic fatigue (4) Three times Young’s modulus
(3) Plasticity (4) Both (1) & (2) 8. A rod of length 40 cm is stretched between two
2. A steel wire is fixed at its one end on the roof. At rigid supports at zero tension. If the temperature is
other end of wire 1 kg mass is hanged so that the increased by 10°C, the stress produced in it is
energy stored in the wire becomes E. The energy (Young’s modulus Y = 1.2 × 1012 N/m2, coefficient
stored in the same wire if we hang 2 kg mass of linear expansion of rod = 2 × 10–5/°C)
instead of 1 kg is (1) 2.4 × 108 N/m2
(1) 2E (2) 4E (2) 1.2 × 108 N/m2
(3) 8E (4) E (3) 3.6 × 108 N/m2
3. Bulk modulus of rubber is 9 × 108 N/m2. To what
(4) 4.8 × 108 N/m2
depth below the surface of sea should the ball be
taken so as to decrease its volume by 0.1%? 9. A uniform wire of cross-sectional area A is
stretched by certain force, so that its length is
(1) 1 m (2) 10 m
elongated by x. What should be the cross-
(3) 90 m (4) 1 km sectional area of the wire, so that elongation
4. The relationship between, Young’s modulus Y, Bulk !
modulus K and modulus of rigidity is becomes on applying same force ?
"
! ! !!" (1) A (2) 2 A
(1) Y = (2)
"! ! "" (3) 4 A (4) 8 A
! ! ! ! 10. A wire suspended vertically from one of its end is

(3) Y = (4) Y = stretched by attaching a weight of 100 N. If the
" ! " !
elastic energy stored in the wire is 0.1 J. The
5. x is the elongation or compression in a rod. elongation in the wire is
Hooke’s law is valid when restoring force (F) is (1) 1 mm (2) 2 mm
proportional to
(3) 3 mm (4) 4 mm
! ! 11. Breaking stress of a wire of length L and radius r
(1) (2)
! !! is B. If another wire made from same material
has length 2L and radius 2r, its breaking stress
(3) x (4) x2
will be
6. What is the value of Poisson’s ratio for an
incompressible material? "
(1) 2B (2)
(1) Zero (2) 0.2 #
(3) 0.5 (4) Infinite (3) B (4) 4B
142 Mechanical Properties of Solids Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. If E is the energy stored per unit volume in a wire 20. The curve between potential energy (U) and
having Y Young’s modulus of material, then stress distance (r) between atoms of a diatomic molecule
! ! ! ! !
applied is is shown in figure. If #% ) #$ ) ## ) #" &'( #! are
forces of interaction between atoms of molecule
(1) ! !" (2) ! !"
corresponding to points shown on curve, then
&
! !
(3) !" (4) !"
" "
13. Two wires of same material have length in the ratio !
1 : 2. If they are stretched by applying equal forces,
the increase in length is same. The ratio of their !
"
respective radii is
# %
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
$
(3) 1 : ! (4) 2 : 1 ! ! ! !
(1) ! !# ! ! !" ! ! !! ! (2) + #$ + *
14. For a perfectly elastic rigid material Young’s
! ! ! !
modulus of elasticity is (3) ## , #! * (4) #" , ## *
(1) 0.5 (2) Zero 21. An aluminium rod of length 2m held fixed in
(3) 1 (4) Infinite horizontal position from its one end has the other
end free. When the temperature of rod increases
15. The value of Poisson's ratio cannot be by 100ºC, the thermal strain produced in rod will
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.32 be ( = 1.6 × 10–6/ ºC)
(3) 0.63 (4) 0.49 (1) Zero (2) 0.08
16. The breaking stress of a wire depends on (3) 0.1 (4) 0.4
(1) Length of the wire 22. The increase in length of a wire on stretching is
0.04%. If Poisson’s ratio for material of wire is 0.5,
(2) Applied force then the diameter of wire will
(3) Material of the wire (1) Decrease by 0.02% (2) Decrease by 0.01%
(4) Area of cross-section of the wire (3) Decrease by 0.04% (4) Increase by 0.03%
17. A steel wire of cross-sectional area 3 × 10–6
can m2 23. The adiabatic elasticity of helium gas at STP will be
withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. If Young’s (1) 1.13 × 105 Pa (2) 1.25 × 105 Pa
modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 Nm–2 then maximum
mass which the wire can hold is [Take g = 10 ms–2] (3) 1.33 × 105 Pa (4) 1.67 × 105 Pa
(1) 40 kg (2) 100 kg 24. A force applied on a brass wire of uniform cross
section area creates change in its length and
(3) 80 kg (4) 60 kg cross section area. If lateral strain produced in wire
$ is 3 × 10–2, then energy stored in per unit volume
18. If Poisson’s ratio is for a material, then the of wire will be [Ybrass = 9 × 1010 N/m2, brass = 0.3]
%
material is (1) 275 MJ/m3 (2) 315 MJ/m3
(1) Incompressible (2) Elastic fatigue (3) 450 MJ/m3 (4) 175 GJ/m3
(3) Compressible (4) Plastic 25. A uniform wire of length 3 m and mass 10 kg is
suspended vertically from one end and loaded at
19. A wire can bear maximum force F. A wire of same other end by a block of mass 10 kg. The radius of
material but triple radius can bear maximum force cross section of wire is 0.1 m. The stress in the
of middle of wire is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) F (1) 1.4 × 104 N/m2
(2) 3 F (2) 4.8 × 103 N/m2
(3) 9 F (3) 96 × 104 N/m2
(4) 27 F (4) 3.5 × 103 N/m2
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Mechanical Properties of Solids 143
26. A uniform wire is held at one end and stretched by (1) 2.4 × 108 dyne/sq. cm
applying force at other end. If product of length of wire (2) 3.2 × 108 dyne/sq. cm
and area of cross section of wire remains unchanged,
then Poisson’s ratio of material of wire is (3) 6.4 × 108 dyne/sq. cm
(1) 0 (2) 0.50 (4) 1.6 × 108 dyne/sq. cm
(3) – 0.5 (4) Infinity 34. One end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight
W0 is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a
27. The density of material of a wire is 6 g/cc. If to weight W1 is suspended from its lower end. If S is
break the wire a stress of 107 N/m2 is required, the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in
then the length of the wire which will break by its the wire at a height L/4 from its lower end is
own weight will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) W1/S (2) [W1 + (W0/4)]/S
(1) 121 m (2) 185 m
(3) [W1 + (3W0/4)]/S (4) (W1 + W0)/S
(3) 133 m (4) 167 m 35. An elongation of 0.1% in a wire of cross-sectional
28. A wire is loaded by a block of mass 10 kg which area 10 –6 m 2 causes a tension of 100 N. The
results in increase in its length by 10 cm. The Young's modulus is
work done by gravitational force which increases (1) 1012 N/m2 (2) 1011 N/m2
temperature of wire is
(3) 1010 N/m2 (4) 102 N/m2
(1) 2.5 J (2) 5 J
36. The elongation (x) of a steel wire varies with the
(3) 10 J (4) 20 J elongating force (F) according to the graph (within
elastic limit)
29. Three identical balls of rubber, aluminium and steel
are dropped from same height on a horizontal rigid ! !
surface. If Vrubber, VAl and Vsteel are their speeds
just after collision, then
(1) Vrubber = VAl = Vsteel (2) Vrubber > VAl > Vsteel (1) (2)
(3) Vsteel > VAl > Vrubber (4) Vsteel = VAl < Vrubber " "
30. A solid cylinder of radius 10 cm and length 1m ! !
clamped from its one end is twisted through angle
0.4 rad by applying torque at other free end. The
shear strain developed in cylinder will be (3) (4)
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.8
" "
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.04
37. A metal rod has a length of 100 cm and cross-
31. A uniform wire of cross section 0.4 cm2 has length section area of 1 cm2. By raising its temperature
1 m. The force required to stretch it into a wire of from 0°C to 100°C so that it is not permitted to
length 2 m is [Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2] expand or bend, the tension developed in the rod
is (Y = 1012 dyne/cm2 and = 10–5/°C)
(1) 2 × 10–11 N (2) 8 × 106 N
(1) 108 dyne
(3) 4 × 107 N (4) 1.6 × 107 N
(2) 109 dyne
32. If two wires of same material and of same length
have ratio of their radii 1 : 2, then under the effect (3) 1010 dyne
of same stretching force their respective elongation (4) 1014 dyne
will be in ratio
38. A steel ring of radius r and cross-section area A
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius R (R > r).
If y is Young’s modulus of elasticity, then tension
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
with which the steel ring is expanded is
33. The metal rod (Y = 2 × 10 12 dyne/sq. cm) of
coefficient of linear expansion 1.6 × 10–5 per °C !"# !" !# $"
(1) (2)
has its temperature raised by 20°C. The linear $ $
compressive stress to prevent the expansion of the ! !" # " !"
rod is (3) (4)
$# #$
39. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a 47. Given that breaking stress of a wire is 7.2 × 107 N/
substance? m2 and its density is 7.2 g/cc, then the maximum
(1) Impurity in substance length of wire which can hang without breaking is
(g = 10 m/s2)
(2) Hammering and annealing
(1) 1000 m (2) 100 m
(3) Change in temperature
(3) 200 m (4) 50 m
(4) All of these
48. Work done in increasing the length of a 1 m long
40. A ball falling in the lake of depth 200 m
wire by 1 mm is 10 J. Work done in increasing
experiences a decrease of 0.1% in its volume at
the length further by 1 mm is
the bottom. The bulk modulus of the material of
the ball is (1) 10 J (2) 20 J
(1) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2 (2) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (3) 30 J (4) 40 J
(3) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2 (4) 19.6 × 108 N/m2 49. If the pressure of a gas is increased from
41. The bulk modulus of an incompressible liquid is 1.04 × 105 Pa to 1.045 × 105 Pa and volume is
decreased by 5% at constant temperature, then
(1) Zero the Bulk modulus of the gas is
(2) Unity (1) 1.0425 × 105 Pa (2) 1.045 × 105 Pa
(3) Infinity (3) 104 Pa (4) 2.5 × 104 Pa
(4) Between zero and one
50. Breaking strength of an iron wire of radius r and
42. Young’s modulus of a material is 2.4 times that of length l is 2 × 106 N/m2. Breaking strength of
its modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio is another iron wire of radius r, and length l at same
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.4 temperature will be
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.4 (1) 0.5 × 106 Nm–2 (2) 1 × 106 N/m2
43. A wire of length L and area of cross section A is (3) 2 × 106 N/m2 (4) 8 × 106 N/m2
made of material of Young’s modulus Y. If its 51. Bulk modulus of elasticity for a perfectly rigid body is
length is stretched by x, the work done is
(1) 0.5 (2) Infinite
!"# ! !"# ! (3) Zero (4) 1
(1) (2)
$ !$
52. The stress strain curve for two materials A and B
!!"# ! !"# are shown in figure. Select correct statement
(3) (4)
$ !$ !"#'(( "
44. Longitudinal strain of a string is equal to twice the
magnitude of lateral strain. Poisson’s ratio of the !
material of string is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.2 !"#$%&
45. Equilibrium elongation of a steel wire of length L
and radius r is x. Equilibrium elongation of another (1) Material A is less brittle and less elastic as
steel wire of length L and radius 2r is compared to B
! (2) Material A is more ductile and less elastic as

(1) x (2) compared to B
#
(3) 4x (4) 2x (3) Material A is less brittle and more elastic than B
46. When a mass M is suspended through a wire, it (4) Material B is more brittle and more elastic than A
elongates the wire by length l. The work done 53. The relation connecting Young’s modulus (Y),
during this elongation process is modulus of rigidity ( ) and Poisson’s ratio ( ) is
! (1) Y = 2 (1 + ) (2) = 2Y(1 + )

(1) Zero (2) !"#
" ! !
(3) Y = (2 + ) (4)
(3) Mgl (4) 2 Mgl "
54. Potential energy U between two molecules as a 60. The Young’s modulus of a wire is numerically
function of their intermolecular distance r has been equal to the stress at which
shown in figure. The two molecules are (1) Strain produced in the wire is unity
! (2) Length of wire gets doubled
(3) Length increases by 100%
(4) All of these
"! "# ""
" 61. Practical value of Poisson’s ratio lies between
(1) –1 to 0.5 (2) –0.5 to 1
(1) Attracted when r1 < r < r0 and repelled when (3) 0 to 0.5 (4) 0 to 1
r0 < r < r2 62. Young’s modulus for perfectly rigid body is
(2) Attracted when r0 < r < r2 and repelled when
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
r1 < r < r0
(3) Zero (4) Infinity
(3) Attracted when r = r0
(4) Repelled when r = r0 63. Which of the following has maximum elasticity?
55. If Y represents Young’s modulus of elasticity and (1) Rubber (2) Steel
represents the longitudinal strain, the energy (3) Wood (4) Mud
stored per unit volume of a stretched wire is
64. Figure below shows the stress-strain curve for
" $ ! two bodies A and B.
(1) ! (2) $
! %
"
$ ! ! ! !
(3) $ (4) ! !
!"#$%%
% "
56. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5 and Young’s
modulus 2 × 1011 Pa. If a uniform rod of it suffers
a lateral strain of 4 × 10 –6, then percentage !"#$%&
change in its density will be
Choose the correct option
(1) 2% (2) 8%
(1) A is having greater elasticity than B
(3) 0% (4) 4%
(2) B is having greater elasticity than A
57. Select the incorrect statement about Bulk modulus
of elasticity (3) Both A and B have same elasticity
(1) It is defined for solid, liquid and gas (4) A and B both show plasticity
(2) Bsolid > Bliquid > Bgas 65. A rod of uniform cross-sectional area 10 mm2,
(3) Bulk modulus of a gas is different for different weighing 5 kg and length 2 m is suspended
processes vertically from a fixed support. What is the
elongation produced in the rod?
(4) Almost for all materials the Bulk modulus
increases with rise in temperature (Young’s modulus for rod = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
58. Breaking stress of a wire depends on (1) 50 × 10–6 m (2) 10–4 m
(1) Applied force (3) 15 × 10–6 m (4) 25 × 10–6 m
(2) Area of cross-section of wire 66. Two rods of different material but identical geometry
(3) Length of wire have thermal coefficient of linear expansion as
(4) Material of wire and 5 The rods are fixed between two rigid and
massive walls, and are heated to same
!! " temperature. If there is no bending of the rods and
59. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5, then # $
%"& the thermal stresses developed in them are equal,
is (Y is Young’s modulus, B is Bulk modulus) then the ratio of their Young’s modulii is
(1) 5 (2) 3 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 25
(3) Zero (4) Infinite (3) 1 : 10 (4) 5 : 1
67. Unit of tensile strain is 74. Breaking stress of a steel wire of length L and
radius r is F. If its radius is doubled and length is
(1) metre (2) newton-metre
halved, its new breaking stress will be
(3) (metre)2 (4) Unitless
(1) 2F (2) F
68. Stress is a
(3) F/2 (4) 4F
(1) Scalar quantity
75. Compressed rubber ball has
(2) Vector quantity (1) Decreased potential energy
(3) Unitless quantity (2) Increased potential energy
(4) Dimensional constant (3) Decreased kinetic energy
69. Compressibility of a substance is equal to (4) Increased kinetic energy
reciprocal of
76. Stress vs strain graph for two different wires A and B is
(1) Bulk modulus (2) Young’s modulus given. If YA and YB are Young’s modulus of material
(3) Rigidity modulus (4) Poisson’s ratio then
70. For two different material wires of same dimension
!"#$%%
but, Young’s modulus is "
!
!"#$%
!
*+)
" '()
!"#$%&
(1) !! ! !" (2) ! !! !"

!"#$%&'($')&$%*"
(3) YA = 3YB (4) 3YA = YB
(1) Higher for A (2) Higher for B
77. If longitudinal strain X is produced in a wire of
(3) Same for both (4) Infinite for both Young’s modulus Y, then potential energy stored
in it per unit volume is
71. When a load of 1 kg is hung from the wire, then
extension of 2 mm is produced. Then work done $
by restoring force is (1) 2 YX2 (2) $% !
#
(1) 200 mJ (2) 400 mJ (3) 0.5 YX2 (4) YX2
(3) 10 mJ (4) 20 mJ 78. Hooke’s Law is obeyed within
72. Longitudinal strain is possible in (1) Elastic limit (2) Proportionality limit
(1) Liquid (2) Solid (3) Breaking point (4) Freezing point
79. The length of wire is 2.01 m when 5 kg is hanging
(3) Gasses (4) All of these
from it and 2.02 m when 10 kg hanging, then
73. The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L and natural length of wire is
" (1) 2 m (2) 1.95 m
redius r is Y. If length is reduced to and radius
# (3) 1.9 m (4) 2.005 m
# 80. Elongation in wire of length L and Young’s modulus
to , then Young’s modulus will be of Y, when blocks of weight W each are hung as
"
shown position
!
(1)
!
"!"!#$%&&'&(#)*%+!,$(,!%-!.*$(
(2) Y
(3) 2Y
! !
(4) 4Y
85. The diagrams represent the potential energy U of
&' !!"
(1) (2) a function of interatomic separation r. Which of the
($ #$ following diagrams corresponds to stable molecules
found in nature?
!" ! ! !" "
! !
" #% #$ $&
(3) (4)
! #$
81. A uniform beam of Youngs modulus Y is supported
at both ends to keep it horizontal. The depression (1) (2)
produced at the middle of beam is proportional to " "
!"#"$ !"#"$
! !
$
(1) (2) Y
$
(3) (4) "
!
(3) Y2 (4) ! !"#"$
"
!"#"$
!
86. The bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 N/m2. The
82. A uniform bar of mass 2 kg cross-sectional area
pressure change required to increase the density
A = 0.2 m2 and l = 1 m is suspended so that is
of water by 0.1% is
hangs vertically the stress at middle point of bar to
(1) 2 × 105 N/m2 (2) 2 × 106 N/m2
(1) 50 N/m2 (2) 25 N/m2
(3) 2 × 107 N/m2 (4) 2 × 108 N/m2
(3) 100 N/m2 (4) 12.5 N/m2
87. The maximum load that a wire can bear is W. If
83. Aluminium and iron rods of same length and
the wire is cut to half of its length then the
diameter are combined together as shown in
maximum load it can sustain is
figure. Force F is applied at one of the ends. The
combined length is increased by 2 cm. The rods ! !
will have (1) (2)
! !
!
!" #$ (3) (4) W
! "
88. Two wires X and Y of same length are made of
same material. The figure represents the load F
(1) Same stress and strain versus extension x graph for the two wires.
(2) Different stress and strain Hence
(3) Same stress and different strain #

!
(4) Same strain and different stress
84. An uniform rod suspended from ceiling gets "
elongated by its own weight. Which one of the
following graphs represents the variation of % $
elongation with L length? (1) Modulus of elasticity of Y is greater than that
of X
!"#$%&'(#$
!"#$%&'(#$
(2) Stiffness of Y is more than that of X

(3) The cross-sectional area of Y is less than that
(1) (2) of X
(4) All of these
!"#$%&'! !"#$%&'!
89. If the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a beam
!"#$%&'(#$
!"#$%&'(#$
material is E then the bending of the beam is

(1) Proportional to E
(3) (4) (2) Inversely proportional to E

(3) Proportional to E2
!"#$%&'! !"#$%&'!
(4) Inversely proportional to E2
90. When a helical spring is stretched then the kind 95. Ratio of Young’s modulus of wire A to wire B
of strain produced in it is !"#$%&
(1) Longitudinal !
(2) Lateral
(3) Volumetric "
*()
(4) Shear '()
!"#+,,
91. If Y, K, G are Young’s modulus, bulk modulus and
shear modulus of elasticity respectively and is (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
Poisson’s ratio then which of the following relations
(3) " -$ (4) $- "
is correct?
96. The length of a string is when mass of 40 kg is
! " # suspended from it and when 50 kg mass is
(1) (2) Y = 3K(1 – 2 ) suspended. Its length when 100 kg mass is
! " #
suspended is
(3) Y = 2G (1 + ) (4) All of these
(1) 6 – 5 (2) 5 – 6
92. If stress versus strain plot for a metal at two (3) 5 – (4) –6
different temperature T1 and T2 are shown below
then SECTION - B
!"
!"#$%%

!! (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
!"#$%& assertion, then mark (1).
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 < T2
!
(3) T1 = T2 (4) !! assertion, then mark (2).
!"
93. A metallic rope of diameter 1 mm breaks at 10 N
force. If wire of same material has diameter 2 mm (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
then breaking force is statements, then mark (4).
(1) 2.5 N 1. A : Steel is more elastic than rubber.

R : Deformation in steel is less than rubber for
(2) 5 N equal forces.
(3) 20 N 2. A : Hooke’s law is applicable up to the elastic
limit.
(4) 40 N
R : Up to the elastic limit stress is directly
94. In which of the following cases, an elastic metal proportional to strain.
rod will not undergo elongation?
3. A : Air is more elastic than iron.
(1) The rod falls freely R : Elasticity is directly proportional to Bulk modu-
(2) It is pulled with constant acceleration on a lus and Bulk modulus of air is more than that
smooth surface of steel.
4. A : Almost for all matals, the modulus of elasticity
(3) It is pulled with constant velocity on a rough decreases with rise in temperature.
surface
R : By increasing temperature intermolecular force
(4) All of these decreases.
!" !" !
Chapter 8
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
5. A small tiny water droplet is falling towards earth

SECTION - A at a uniform speed of 1 cm/s. When 27 such
Objective Type Questions identical droplets combine together to form a bigger
drop, then with what uniform velocity will this
1. On dissolving soluble solids in water the surface bigger drop falls?
tension
(1) 27 cm/s (2) 9 cm/s
(1) Increases
(3) 3 cm/s (4) 81 cm/s
(2) Decreases
6. In making of an alloy, a metal of density n1 and
(3) Remains same another metal of density n 2 are used. If the
(4) May increases or decreases masses of two metals used are m 1 and m 2
respectively, then the density of the alloy is
2. Surface tension of soap solution is 2 × 10–2 N/m.
If a soap bubble of radii 4 cm is blown, then the !! !"
amount of work done is !! !" "
(1) # ! $ (2) ! !! !" "
(1) 4 × 10–6 J (2) 2.56 × 10–4 J % "! "" & # $
% "! "" &
(3) 16 × 10–5 J (4) 16 × 10–6 J
3. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and !! !"
1.02 atm. Ratio of their free surface area is ! !! !" " ! !! !" "
(3) # $ (4) # $
% "" "! & % ! &
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 101 : 102 7. There is an orifice at some depth of water tank.
(3) 4 : 1 Absolute pressure at the level of orifice in water
tank is 4 atmospheric pressure. Density of
(4) 2 : 1 water is 103 kg/m3 and 1 atm pressure = 105 N/
4. Which of the following graph represent the variation m2. The speed of water coming out of orifice is
of height capillarity of liquid with radius of capillary (1) 10 m/s
tube?
(2) 20 m/s
! !
(3) !" # $%&
(1) (2) (4) !" ' $%&
" " 8. When 106 small drops coalesce adiabatically to

make a new larger drop, the drop’s
! ! (1) Density increases
(2) Density remain constant
(3) (4) (3) Temperature increases
" " (4) Temperature decreases
150 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. A mercury drop does not spread on a glass plate 15. A body with air cavity loses one third of weight
because the angle of contact between glass and when immersed in water. If relative density of the
mercury is material of body is 6, then the ratio of the volume
(1) Acute (2) Obtuse of cavity to the volume of the body is
(3) Zero (4) 90° ! !

(1) (2)
" "
10. Velocity of water in a river is
# #
(1) Same everywhere (3) (4)
$ $
(2) More in the middle and less near its banks
16. An incompressible liquid is flowing through
(3) Less in middle and more at banks horizontal pipe having branches of area A, 0.4 A
(4) Increases from one bank to other and 0.5 A as shown in figure. Then value of v is
11. A body of density 800 kg/m3 is floating on water &"#$%

surface. If the system is accelerated upward, then !
#$
the fraction of volume immersed will !"
(1) Increase (2) Decrease !
!"#$%
(3) Remain the same (4) Become zero !"#
$!
12. A steel ball is dropped on water surface from zero
"
height. The variation of the viscous force with time
on the ball can be represented as (1) 3.2 m/s (2) 6.4 m/s
(3) 1.6 m/s (4) 0.8 m/s
! !
17. A rain drop started falling in static air. Which of
(1) (2) the following represents its acceleration a versus
time t graph?
" # " # " "
# #
! !
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
! !
$
" # " # "
"
#
13. The 15% volume of a cubical block is outside
water. The relative density of the block is
(3) # (4)
(1) 0.15 (2) 0.30 !
! $
(3) 0.60 (4) 0.85
18. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii 3 cm and 4 cm
14. A small metal sphere is dropped on water surface. came in contact externally. Radius of curvature of
The velocity (v) of the sphere varies with time as the common surface is
(1) 12 cm (2) 7 cm
" "
!"
(3) 5 cm (4) cm
#
(1) (2)
19. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the
# # variation in kinetic energy (KE) of a metal sphere
! ! falling freely in a lake? Assume sufficient depth of
the lake to impart terminal velocity to the sphere
" " (d : depth)
!" !"
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
! # ! #
! !
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Mechanical Properties of Fluids 151
!" !" (1) 2 × 103 kg (2) 3 × 104 kg
(3) 5 × 104 kg (4) 6 × 107 kg
(3) (4)
27. An air bubble of radius r in water is at certain depth
! below the water surface. If P is the pressure inside
!
the bubble, then the depth below the water surface
20. A sphere of mass 40 g in air has a cavity of volume
is [P0 = Atmospheric pressure, = Density of
35 cm3. It just floats in water. The specific gravity
water, T = surface tension of water]
of material of the sphere is
(1) 2 (2) 4 ! !! !" ! !! !"
(3) 6 (4) 8 (1) (2)
# $ # # $ #
21. The amount of work done to form a soap bubble of
radius R is [S = surface tension of soap bubble] ! !! !" ! !! "
(3) (4)
! # $ # # !$ #
!
(1) 8 R2S (2) ! "
" 28. A block weighs 5 N in air, 4.5 N in a liquid of
(3) 24 R2S (4) 4 R2S specific gravity 0.5. Its weight in water will be
(1) 3.5 N (2) 4.0 N
$
22. A block of density floats in a liquid of density (3) 2.5 N (4) 3.0 N
%
. The percent of volume which is outside the liquid 29. Water flows steadily through a capillary tube of
is radius r. The pressure difference across the tube is
(1) 20% (2) 30% P. If radius is reduced to half and pressure
difference is increased to P , then the rate of flow
(3) 40% (4) 50%
become one fourth to its initial value. Then
23. A liquid is filled in a container as shown in the
figure. The force exerted by the liquid on the base (1) P = 4 P (2) P = 8 P
of the container must be (3) P = 10 P (4) P = 16 P
30. A liquid is poured in the three vessels of same
base area to equal heights as shown in the figure
then
(1) Equal to weight of the liquid

(2) More than the weight of the liquid ! " #
(3) Less than the weight of the liquid (1) Maximum force on the base will be for vessel C
(4) More or less than the weight of the liquid
(2) Maximum force on the base will be for vessel B
24. When two water droplets coalesce to form a large
droplet (3) Maximum force on the base will be for vessel A
(1) Energy is absorbed (4) Force on the base will be equal for all the
vessels
(2) Energy is released
(3) No change in energy takes place 31. The figure shows an L shaped tube filled with water
(4) Energy may be absorbed or released #
to a length x. If a horizontal acceleration of is
25. A U tube is partially filled with water. Oil which is !
immiscible with water is poured into one side, until given to the tube, then the ratio of pressure at P and
the water rises by 25 cm on the other side. If the Q is
oil level is 12.5 cm higher than the water level,
#
then the relative density of oil is ""!
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.5 !
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.2
$
26. An aeroplane of total wing area of 120 m2 is in a !!
level flight at some height. If pressure difference in
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
upper and lower surface is 2.5 kPa, then the mass
of the aeroplane is [Take g = 10 ms–2] (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
32. The variation of horizontal range (X) of ideal liquid 38. The relative velocity of two adjacent layers of a
coming out of the orifice O with h in adjoining graph liquid is 6 cm/s and perpendicular distance
is best represented by between layers is 0.1 mm. The velocity gradient for
liquid (in per second) is
# (1) 6 (2) 0.6
$
" (3) 0.06 (4) 600
! 39. An air filled spherical balloon of radius 10 cm is at
!!"#
a depth of 100 m below the water surface in an
!!"# ocean. The normal stress on the surface of balloon
is (Neglect surface tension), [Take g = 10 ms–2
(1) (2) and 1 atm =105 Pa]
! ! ! ! (1) 10 × 105 N/m2 (2) 5 × 104 N/m2
! !
(3) 11 × 105 N/m2 (4) 1.5 × 106 N/m2
!!"# !!"#
40. The surface tension of a liquid is 10 N/m. If a thin
(3) (4) film of liquid is developed in a ring of wire of radius
!! ! 0.1 m, then surface energy of liquid film will be
! !
! (1) 0.314 J (2) 0.48 J
33. –1
The surface tension of a liquid is 5 Nm . If a film
is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2, then its total (3) 0.56 J (4) 0.63 J
surface energy is about 41. At which of the following temperatures the surface
(1) 3 × 10–2 J (2) 2 × 10–1 J tension of water becomes zero?
(3) 3 × 10–3 J (4) 10–1 J (1) 0 K (2) 273 K
34. When flat disc is thrown from a height in such a (3) 373 K (4) 1327 K
manner that it is rotating in horizontal plane. The 42. A large open tank with a square hole of side 0.1
range of disc is maximum due to cm in the wall at a depth of 0.2 m from the top is
(1) Air drag completely filled with a liquid. The rate of flow of
(2) Initial rotational kinetic energy liquid (in cm3/s) through the hole will be
(3) Loss in weight due to rotation (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Upward force due to air (3) 3 (4) 4
35. A liquid filled in a container has plane meniscus. 43. A spherical ball of radius 0.05 m and density 0.5 g/
If is angle of contact, then cc floats in water filled in a container accelerating
vertically upward with acceleration 4.9 m/s2. The
(1) = 0º (2) = 90º
fraction of volume of ball immersed in liquid will be
(3) < 90º (4) = 180º
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50
36. It is not possible to drink water on the surface of
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.85
moon with a straw because
(1) Gravity is less on the surface of moon than 44. The property of surface tension of liquid is due to
earth (1) Gravitational force of attraction between
(2) Moon has no atmosphere molecules
(3) Surface tension of water decreases on moon’s (2) Cohesive forces between molecules
surface (3) Adhesive force between molecules
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Formation of ionic bonds among molecules
37. A solid is suspended from an independent support 45. When a man sits on a boat of length 2 m and
in a liquid placed on a weighing machine, due to breadth 1 m floating on a lake, the boat sinks by
which the weight of liquid 2 cm. The mass of man is
(1) Increases (1) 25 kg
(2) Decreases (2) 40 kg
(3) Remain unchanged (3) 60 kg
(4) May increase or decrease (4) 80 kg
46. The speed of water stream at which velocity head 52. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a
is 10 cm of water will be [Tage g = 1000 cm/s2] lake to the surface, its radius doublets. The
(1) 121.2 cm/s (2) 173.1 cm/s atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a column
of water of height H. The depth of lake is
(3) 141.4 cm/s (4) 135.5 cm/s
(1) H (2) 2H
47. Two iron balls when immersed in water experience
(3) 7H (4) 8H
thrust in ratio 1 : 2, then ratio of mass of balls will
be 53. The reading of a spring balance when a block is
suspended from it air is 60 N. This reading is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
changed to 40 N when the block is submerged in
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 water. The specific gravity of the block must
48. An ideal fluid flows through a horizontal pipe of therefore be
uniform cross section as shown in figure. The liquid (1) 3 (2) 2
has velocities VA, VB and VC and pressure PA, PB (3) 6 (4) 3/2
and PC at points A, B and C respectively, then
54. The continuity equation for a fluid flow is based on
! the principle of the
(1) Conservation of mass
" (2) Conservation of energy
(3) Conservation of momentum
# (4) Conservation of angular momentum
(1) VA < VB < VC (2) VA > VB > VC 55. What will be the height of liquid of density
4.53 g/cm3 in the barometer at a place where it is
(3) PA = PB = PC (4) PC > PB > PA
75 cm of mercury barometer?
49. Four liquids of densities 1 g/cc, 2 g/cc, 3 g/cc and
(1) 25 cm (2) 75 cm
4 g/cc are mixed in equal volumes. The density of
the mixture is (3) 225 cm (4) 150 cm
(1) 2.5 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 2.5 × 10–3 kg/m3 56. Blood flows in an artery of radius R in Laminar
manner under pressure P with a flow rate Q. If the
(3) 104 kg/m3 (4) 5 × 103 kg/m3 radius gets halved and the pressure quadruples,
50. There are four cylindrical vessels identical in the new rate of flow will be
dimensions. If these are filled with equal masses
!
of four different liquids P, Q, R and S such that (1) 4Q (2)
their densities are P > Q > R > S , then !
pressure at the base of vessels is !
(3) Q (4)
(1) PP = PQ = PR = PS !
(2) PP > PQ > PR > PS 57. A beaker full of water is placed on a spring
balance. If we put our finger in water without
(3) PP < PQ < PR < PS touching the beaker, how will the reading of
(4) Data is insufficient to predict relation balance change? [Take finger > water]
51. Consider the following statements (1) Increase (2) Decrease
I. Two bodies of different masses, shapes and (3) Remain same (4) Will be halved
size may experience same thrust when their 58. The radius of an air bubble is double that of
volumes inside a fluid are equal another. The ratio of the excess pressures in the
II. A soft plastic bag weights the same when bubbles will be
empty or when filled with air at atmospheric (1) 1 : ! (2) 1 : 2
pressure
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8
(1) Only I is true
59. Liquid disturbed by stirring comes to rest after
(2) Only II is true some time due to
(3) Both are true (1) Surface tension (2) Viscosity
(4) Both are wrong (3) Buoyancy (4) Stability
60. A liquid wets a solid. The meniscus of the liquid 68. Water is filled in a container upto height h. A
in a long vertical capillary of that solid is narrow hole is made in the bottom. The velocity
with which water will come out through hole is
(1) Flat (2) Concave upward
proportional to
(3) Convex upward (4) Cylindrical upward !
(1) h3 (2) ! "
61. A sphere of mass M and radius R is falling in a
viscous liquid. The terminal velocity attained by the (3) h2 (4) h0
sphere will be proportional to 69. If an ice cube melts on a tray in a gravity free
(1) R2 (2) R space, then it
(1) Will spread over the tray
" ! (2) Remains cubical
(3) (4)
" !! (3) Becomes elliptical
62. The pressure inside the two soap bubbles is 1.01 (4) Becomes spherical
and 1.02 atmosphere. The ratio of their respective 70. A balloon has volume of 1000 m3. It is filled with
volume is hydrogen of density 0.09 g/L. If density of air is
(1) 8 (2) 4 1.29 g/L then it can lift a total weight of
(1) 600 kg (2) 1200 kg
(3) 16 (4) 2
(3) 300 kg (4) 1800 kg
63. Two water droplets merge with each other to form
71. If density of ice and water be x and y respectively
a larger droplet isothermally. In this process
then the change in volume of water when m mass
(1) Energy is absorbed of ice completely melts inside water, is
(2) Energy is liberated %&
(1) my(x – y) (2)
(3) Energy is neither liberated nor absorbed '
! !
(4) Some mass is converted into energy (3) m(y – x) (4)
" #
64. An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total area
72. A ball of specific gravity 0.8 falls into water from a
of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some altitude. The
height of 2 m. The depth to which ball will sink is
difference in pressure between the upper and lower
surfaces of its wings is [Take g = 10 m/s2] (1) 2 m (2) 4 m
(3) 8 m (4) 10 m
(1) 5 × 103 Pa (2) 10 × 103 Pa
73. With the rise in temperature of water from 20°C,
(3) 2.5 × 103 Pa (4) 12.5 × 103 Pa surface tension of water
65. What will be the fraction of total volume of iceberg (1) Decreases
above the level of sea water if density of sea water (2) Increases
is 1.03 g/cm3 and that of ice is 0.92 g/cm3?
(3) Remains same
(1) 0.8% (2) 10.67% (4) Sometimes increases and sometimes
(3) 34% (4) 8.1% decreases
66. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the conservation of 74. If a capillary tube is partially dipped vertically into
liquid and the levels of the liquid inside and outside
(1) Energy (2) Mass are same, then the angle of contact is
(3) Momentum (4) All of these (1) 90° (2) 30°
67. The pressure difference between ends of a (3) 45° (4) 0°
cylindrical pipe in which liquid is flowing is made 75. From given diagram the velocity v3 is
half and radius is doubled. If the initial rate of flow
" "
of liquid was Q, then new rate of flow of liquid !!!"!#$%!& !"!"!#$%!&
will be
"!!"!)!&'( ""!"!%!&'(
(1) 4Q !
! !"!
#$% "#
(2) 32Q !& "
(3) 8Q (1) 4 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(4) 16Q (3) 1 m/s (4) 2 m/s
76. Some insects move and run on the surface of water 82. Which of the following is not based on Bernoulli’s
without sinking, because principle?
(1) Insects are lighter (1) Venturimeter (2) Pitot tube
(2) Insects can swim on water (3) Barometer (4) Magnus effect
(3) Insects experience upthrust 83. An iron sphere is dropped into a viscous liquid.
Which of the following represents its acceleration
(4) Due to surface tension elastic membrane is (a) versus time (t) graph?
formed " "
77. A wooden ball of density ‘ ’ is immersed in water
of density ‘ ’ to a depth ‘h’ and then released. The
height above the surface of water upto which the
ball will jump out of water is ( > ) (1) (2)
! " ! # ! #
(1) h (2) # !$ !
% &
" "
! " !
(3) # !$ ! (4)
% &
78. From given diagram the speed with which water
leaves the tube B of small diameter is (3) (4)
! # ! $! #
!!
84. Eight droplets of water each of radius 0.5 mm
" combine to form a bigger drop. The energy evolved
in this process is (surface tension = 7.2 × 10–2 N/m)
(1) 9 × 10–7 J (2) 3 × 10–7 J
!" (3) 1 × 10–7 J (4) 10 × 10–7 J
85. Reynold number for which flow of water through a
# pipe becomes turbulent is
(1) !!"! (2) !#(! (1) 500 (2) 900

(3) 750 (4) 3000
(3) !! ""! "" # (4) ! "! #"! "" $ 86. The diameter of a syringe is 4 mm and the diameter
of its nozzle (opening) is 1 mm. The syringe is placed
79. The surface tension of a liquid at critical on the table horizontally at a height of 1.25 m. If the
temperature is piston is moved at a speed of 0.5 m/s, then
(1) Infinite considering the liquid in syringe to be ideal, the
horizontal range of liquid is (g = 10 m/s2)
(2) Zero
(1) 4 m (2) 8 m
(3) Uncertain
(3) 0.4 m (4) 0.2 m
(4) Equal to that at any other temperature 87. Radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to
80. Which of the following is(are) application(s) of 2R. Work done in this process (T = surface
Bernoulli’s theorem? tension) is
(1) Magnus effect (2) Venturimeter (1) 24 R2T (2) 48 R2T

(3) 12 R2T (4) 36 R2T
(3) Lifting of aeroplane (4) All of these
88. If the surface tension of soap solution is 1.6 N/m,
81. Work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius r is then the difference of air pressure between the
W. The work done in increasing its radius from r inside and outside of a soap bubble of 4 mm in
to 2r is diameter is
(1) W (2) 3W (1) 3200 N/m2 (2) 1600 N/m2
(3) 4W (4) 6W (3) 6400 N/m2 (4) 800 N/m2
89. A wooden block is floating with some part 93. An ideal fluid is flowing in steady state from
immersed in water. If the vessel moves upward with section A to B through a pipe in vertical plane as
an acceleration a, then the fraction immersed in shown. Select incorrect statement
water will
"!
(1) Increase !
(2) Decrease
(3) First increase then decrease
(4) Remain same
""
90. A water tank is kept at a height H above the
ground and the tank contains depth H of water as #
shown. Find the maximum possible range of water (1) Total energy per unit volume is same at both
current, if there exists a small hole on the side sections A and B
wall of the tank. (2) Incoming rate at A is equal to outgoing rate at
B
(3) Loss in kinetic energy of the fluid is equal to
! gain in potential energy from section A to B
(4) Flow of fluid from A to B is laminar flow
! 94. A solid block of density 480 kg/m3, floats in a liquid

of density 800 kg/m3. The percent of volume which
is outside the liquid is
!! (1) 20% (2) 40%
(1) 2H (2)
"
(3) 50% (4) 30%
#!
(3) (4) H 95. When a large liquid drop breaks into several
" smaller liquid drops then the temperature of
91. If the temperature of a liquid rises, then its smaller drops is relatively
coefficient of viscosity (1) Same (2) More
(1) Increases (3) Less (4) May be less or more
(2) Decreases 96. A vessel is filled with two liquids of densities
3 3
(3) Remains constant 1 = 800 kg/m and 2 = 1000 kg/m as shown
in figure. The force that acts on the bottom of the
(4) May increase or decrease vessel is (Neglect atmospheric pressure)
92. Figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid [Take g = 10 m/s2]
! !" #
up to a height . Horizontal acceleration a of the !"#$%&%'( %)
!
tube so that pressure at A becomes equal to
atmospheric pressure, is (+*%)
'
#
*
(+*%)
!
!!"
!"! #
!"#$%&%*%,%'( )
"
(1) 3.6 N (2) 7.2 N
!
(3) 9 N (4) 12.6 N
#
(1) g (2) 97. A container filled with a liquid is accelerating with
! a as shown in figure. If P1, P2, P3 and P4 are
# !! pressure at points A, B, C and D respectively then
(3) (4) which is incorrect?
" "
101. A body floats in water on earth with 90% inside
! water. What fraction of body will be inside water at
%
$ "
an altitude # ? (R = Radius of the earth)
" !
(1) 80% (2) 60%
#
(3) 90% (4) 70%
102. A solid ball of density half that of water, falls freely
under gravity from a height 20 m and then enters
(1) P3 > P1 (2) P3 > P2 water. Total time taken by the ball to reach it’s
(3) P3 = P4 (4) P3 > P4 original position is (Neglect air resistance and
viscosity effect in water) [Take g = 10 m/s2]
98. A cube is floating in a liquid as shown in figure.
The incorrect statement is that if
!!"!#$!%
(1) 6 s (2) 8 s
(3) 4 s (4) 10 s
103. Water flows through a frictionless tube with a
varying cross-section as shown in figure. Variation
(1) Density of liquid decreases then x will of pressure P at point x along axis is roughly given
increase by
(2) Size of cube is increased then x will increase
(3) Cube is replaced by another cube of same
mass and size then x will remain same
" "
(4) Some material of cube is cut and taken out,
then x will remain same
99. Contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a
(1) (2)
property of
(1) Material of solid (2) Material of liquid ! !
(3) Shape of solid (4) Both (1) & (2) " "
100. Figure shows a large open tank. Water emerging
out from holes O1 and O3 strikes the ground at
same point but from O2 has maximum range. (3) (4)
Then height of O2 from ground
! !
!!
104. A liquid is filled in a container as shown in figure.
"! The force exerted by the liquid on the base of
container must be
!" ""
"#
(! (" (" # (!
(1) (2) (1) Equal to weight of the liquid
! !
(2) More than the weight of liquid
!! !" (3) Less than the weight of liquid
(3) (4) ! (! ("
! (4) More or less than weight of liquid
105. A cubical tank completely filled with a liquid of 110. Water flows steadily through a capillary tube of
density is accelerated horizontally with radius r. The pressure difference across the tube
acceleration a. The value of a at which pressure at is P. If radius is reduced to half and pressure
A becomes equal to pressure at D is difference is increased to P0 then rate of flow
becomes one fourth of initial value, hence
! "
(1) P0 = 4P (2) P0 = 16P
% (3) P0 = 10P (4) P0 = 8P
111. Surface tension of a liquid is due to
# $
(1) Gravitational force between molecules
(2) Electrical force between molecules
#
(1) g (2) (3) Adhesive force between molecules
!
" # (4) Cohesive force between molecules
(3) (4)
" " 112. A lead sphere of mass m falls in a viscous liquid
106. 64 rain-drops combine into a single drop. Ratio of with terminal velocity v0. Another lead sphere of
total surface energy of the 64 drops to that of a mass M falls through with terminal velocity 4v0.
single drop is (surface tension of water is !
The ratio is
T = 0.072 Nm–1) "
" (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 4 (2)
# (3) 8 (4) 16
! ! 113. A block is submerged in a vessel filled with water
(3) (4)
" " by a string attached to the bottom of the vessel.
107. If the work done in blowing a soap bubble of If vessel now moves upward with an acceleration
volume V is W, then work done in blowing a soap a (a < g) then the tension in string
bubble of volume 8V will be
!
(1) 8W (2)
!
(3) 64W (4) 4W
108. A solid sphere weighs 40 N in water and 45 N in
a liquid of relative density 0.75. Relative density of
sphere will be
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) Will decrease (2) Will increase
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) Will become zero (4) Remains constant
109. There is cylindrical vessel of radius R with a liquid 114. If a block is floating on water having its one fourth
filled in it upto a height H = R. Ratio of force volume just outside the surface of water, then its
exerted by liquid on the sides of vessel to the density is
force exerted on the bottom is (Neglect
atmospheric pressure) (1) 1 g/cm3 (2) 0.25 g/cm3
! (3) 0.75 g/cm3 (4) 0.5 g/cm3
115. A fine hole is made at the bottom of a 20 cm high
container. The maximum speed at which water
flows out of it is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
"!"!!
116. Bernoulli’s principle is an outcome of the principle
of conservation of
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (1) Mechanical energy (2) Potential energy
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3 (3) Kinetic energy (4) Energy
117. Two liquids of density 1 and 2 are adjusted in a 123. In the given figure, the velocity v3 of incompressible
tube as shown, then fluid flowing through the tube will be
"
!!!"#$%"& ""#!"%"&)*"
"!!"("&)* !"!"#$'"&
"
!! ! !$!"#$+"&
" !! "$!",
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4.5 m/s

(1) (! ! (" " (2) (! " (" ! (3) 3.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s
(3) !" "! !! !! (4) (! ! (" "
124. With the rise in temperature angle of contact of
water with glass
118. If few liquid drops are joined to form a bigger drop
(1) Increases
isothermally, then
(1) Some energy will be released in this process (2) Decreases
(2) Some energy will be absorbed in this process (3) Remains same
(3) Neither energy is absorbed nor released (4) First increases then decreases
(4) Amount of energy change is independent of 125. An orifice of radius r is present at the bottom of
number of drops joined a container. The maximum height to which the
container can be filled with a liquid of density for
119. Eight spherical rain drops of same mass and
radius are falling down with a terminal speed of 10 which liquid will not come out of the orifice is
cm/s. They coalesce to form one bigger drop, then
the terminal speed of bigger drop is (neglect !
(1)
buoyancy due to air) " #
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 24 cm/s
!!
(3) 40 cm/s (4) 64 cm/s (2)
" #
120. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) A liquid exerts pressure equally in all direction "!
at a point (3)
" #
(2) Pressure is a scalar quantity
(3) Specific gravity is dimensionless quantity #!
(4)
(4) Unit of pressure is pascal/m
" #
121. Which of the following statement regarding surface 126. For amongst the following curves which one shows
tension (S) is incorrect? the variation of velocity with time (t) for small sized
spherical body falling vertically in a long column of
(1) [S] = [MT–2]
viscous liquids
(2) Unit of surface tension is N/m
! !
(3) Surface tension arises due to inter molecular
cohesive force
(4) Surface tension is property by which liquid tends (1) (2)
to expand to occupy maximum surface area
122. Water droplets are spherical in free fall condition " "
due to ! !
(1) Gravity
(2) Viscosity
(3) (4)
(3) Intermolecular attraction
(4) Surface tension " "
127. Working of atomiser is based on 132. A sphere of mass m is dropped from a tall tower
when it falls by 10 m, it attains terminal velocity
(1) Pascal law
and continues to fall at that speed. The work
(2) Charle’s law done by air friction against the sphere during first
(3) Archimedes principle 10 m is w1 and during next 10 m is w2, then
(4) Bernoulli's law (1) w1 < w2 (2) w1 > w2
128. Bernoulli's equation is consequence of (3) w1 = w2 (4) w1 > w2

conservation of 133. The work done to break a spherical drop of radius
(1) Mass R to n drops of equal size is equal to
(2) Linear momentum
" ) !"
(3) Energy (1)
*! " $
(4) Angular momentum
129. The container is moving downwards with ! ! "
(2) # " # !$ " ! !"
acceleration g/2 and distance between A and B is %# &
h. If density of liquids is , then pressure
difference between A and B is (3) !!! " "#$ " ##
" (4) !! ! " "#$ " ##

$ !!"
134. Pressure inside a spherical bubble of water is P0.
# Find the force on half sphere of bubble due to air
pressure (P0) inside it (R is Radius of bubble)
(1) Zero
! " !!"
(1) (2)
! " (2) !" ! " !
(3) h g (4) 2h g
(3) !" "!
130. A container is accelerating towards right with
acceleration g. If density of liquid is , then
pressure difference between point A and B is (4) !" " " !
135. A very large container has dense liquid as shown

in figure. Velocity of efflux through orifice is
( = density of water)
#
" ! !
! $ "
(1) Zero (2) h g
! "
(3) 2 hg (4) (1) !!"
!
131. If surface tension of soap solution is T, then work (2) !!"
done in increasing diameter of soap bubble from r
to 2r is
(3) "!"
(1) 24 r2T (2) 32 r2T
(3) 4 r2T (4) 8 r2T (4) #!"
136. A uniform solid cylinder of density 8 g/cm3 floats 142. The mass of the tank and water of density as
in equilibrium in a combination of two non-mixing shown in the figure is m. As the valve is opened
liquids A and B with its vertical axis. The densities the tank moves backwards with an acceleration
of the liquids A and B are 0.7 g/cm3 and 1.2 g/cm3, [A is the area of cross-section of the orifice]
respectively. The height of liquid A is hA = 1.2 cm.
The length of the part of the cylinder immersed in
liquid B is hB = 0.8 cm. The net force exerted on !
the cylinder is
!"#
!"##$%
! #!
! !"# !"#
(1) (2)
#" $ $
"
!" ! !"#
(3) (4)
(1) 8.4 N (2) 18 N #$ $
(3) 20 N (4) Zero 143. Two cylindrical pipes of length L1, L2, radii R1, R2
respectively are connected in series with a source
137. The addition of soap changes the surface tension of water. The length and radius of equivalent pipe
of water to 1 and that of salt changes to 2, then is L and R respectively, then
(1) 1 > 2 ! !! !"
(2) < (1) " # "!# "" #
1 2
(3) =
1 2
!! !"! !#!
(4) 1 2
(2)
" "" "#
138. Hydraulic press is based on
! !! !"
(1) Archimedes’ principle (3) " " "!" """
(2) Bernoulli’s principle
!! !"! !!!
(3) Pascal’s law (4)
" "" "!
(4) Reynold’s law
144. Water is flowing from a source as shown in the
139. Poisson’s ratio cannot have the value figure. Let A be the cross-sectional area of the
(1) 0.1 liquid flow at the time when velocity is 5 m/s. The
cross-sectional area of the liquid flow when water
(2) 0.7
has descended by 10 metre is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.5
140. When a non-wetting liquid is placed in a capillary
tube of sufficient length, the shape of meniscus is
(1) Concave upward !
(1) 3A (2)
(2) Convex upward !
(3) Flat !
(3) (4) 2A
(4) Convex downward !
141. Pressure gradient has the same dimension as that 145. When two substances of specific gravities 1 and
of 2 are mixed in equal volume, the specific gravity
of mixture becomes 4. When they are mixed in
(1) Velocity gradient equal masses, the specific gravity of the mixture
(2) Potential gradient is 3. The values of 1 and 2 are
(3) Energy gradient (1) 1 = 6 and 2 =2 (2) 1 = 3 and 2 =5
(4) Force per unit volume (3) 1 = 12 and 2 =4 (4) 1 = 4 and 2 =4
146. A uniform cube of mass M floats in a liquid with 153. If S is surface tension of a liquid then the work
three fourth of its volume immersed in the liquid of done in splitting the spherical liquid drop of radius
density . The length of the side of the cube is R into n identical spherical drops is
equal to (1) 4 R2S(n1/3 – 1)
!"#
!! ! !! " (2) 4 R2S(n2/3 – 1)
(1) " (2) #
% " $& (3) 4 R2S(n – 1)
!"# !"# (4) 4 R2Sn
! !! " ! !! "
(3) # (4) #
% " $& % " $& 154. Two capillary tubes of same length but of internal
radius 2R and 3R are connected in series and
147. A human heart pumps 60 millilitre of blood per laminar flow of liquid exists through it. If pressure
heart beat at a pressure of 100 mm of Hg. If the difference across large capillary is 16 mm of Hg
heart beats at 72 per minute then average pumping then the pressure difference across smaller
power of the heart is capillary is [mm of Hg]
(1) 2 W (2) 4.5 W (1) 9 (2) 27
(3) 0.98 W (4) 6.3 W (3) 3 (4) 81
148. A piece of gold of density 19.3 g/cm3 weighs 155. A steel ball of mass M falls in a viscous liquid with
38.2 gram in air and 36.2 gram in water. The terminal velocity v. Now a steel ball of mass 8 M
volume of cavity in the gold is will fall in the same liquid with terminal velocity
(1) 0.02 cm3 (2) 0.2 cm3 (1) 4v
3
(3) 2 cm (4) 20 cm3 (2) 3v
149. A stone of relative density k is released from rest (3) 2v
on the surface of a lake. The acceleration by
(4) v
which stone sinks in water is (neglecting the
viscous force) 156. Behind a dam, water stands upto a height H. If
width of the dam is W then the average force
! !" pushing the dam is (density of water is )
(1) g(1 + k) (2) ! # ! $
% " & !
#+,
(1) gH2W (2)
! !" !
(3) ! # ! $ (4) ! ! "
% " & !
#+,
(3) (4) 2 gWH2
150. A piece of ice floats in a beaker containing salt "
solution of specific gravity 1.3. If ice melts, then
157. A water tank is kept on a table of height H. If a
total level of liquid
small orifice is pierced at the side of the tank near
(1) Increases its base, it is found that the water stream strikes
(2) Decreases the ground at a horizontal distance X from the
tank. The depth of water in the tank is
(3) Remains same
! !
(4) May increase or decrease ! !
(1) (2)
" !"
151. A body floats in water with its one-third volume
above the surface. The same body floats in a ! !
! !!
liquid with one-third volume immersed. The density (3) (4)
"" "
of the liquid (in kg/m3) is
(1) 9000 (2) 2000 158. A water jet comes with velocity 10 m/s from the
pipe cross-sectional area 2 cm2. The jet hits a
(3) 3000 (4) 1500 perpendicular plate and water drops dead after
152. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius hitting. The force experienced by the plate is
100 mm with surface tension 0.03 (Nm–1) is (Water density = 1000 kg/m3)
(1) 7.5 × 10–2 J (2) 7.5 × 10–3 J (1) 20 N (2) 40 N
(3) 7.5 J (4) 75 J (3) 80 N (4) 2 N
159. Eight identical spherical raindrops are falling down 1. A : Sudden fall of pressure at a place indicates
with terminal speed v each. If they coalesce to storm.
form single large spherical drop, then its terminal
speed will be R : Air of low pressure zone rushes away to high
pressure zone.
(1) v (2) 2v
2. A : If a simple barometer is brought to the surface
!
(3) 4v (4) of moon, the length of mercury column will
!
become zero.
160. The volume flow rate of a liquid flowing out of an
orifice at the bottom of a tank does not depend on R : There is no atmosphere on the moon.
(1) Density of the liquid 3. A : When an ice cube floats in kerosene, then the
(2) Height of liquid above orifice liquid level in the vessel will fall when ice
melts.
(3) Acceleration due to gravity
(4) Radius of the orifice R : Density of ice is smaller than that of water.
161. Pressure on a swimmer at depth H below free 4. A : When a piece of ice floating in water melts
surface of water is 3 atm. Then H is completely the levels remains same.
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
R : Ice has density lesser than water.
(1) 10 m (2) 30 m
5. A : Water is more elastic than air.
(3) 20 m (4) 50 m
R : Air is more compressible than water.
162. Two soap bubbles are connected by a tube as shown
in figure. Then which of the following statement is 6. A : The velocity of a liquid flowing in a broader pipe
true? increases, when it enters a narrow pipe.
!
R : According to equation of continuity, the product
of area and velocity is constant.
" # 7. A : Bernoulli’s theorem holds for non-viscous and

incompressible fluids.
(1) Volume of A will increase R : For the streamline flow of an ideal liquid, the
(2) Volume of A will remain constant total energy per unit mass remains constant.
(3) Volume of B will increase 8. A : Blood pressure in human being is greater at

the feet than at the brain.
(4) Volume of B will decrease
R : Pressure depends on height.
SECTION - B
9. A : Machine parts are jammed in winter.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : The viscosity of lubricant used in machine
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) parts decreases at low temperature.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 10. A : The shape of small liquid drop is spherical.
assertion, then mark (1). R : The pressure inside the drop is greater than
that outside.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 11. A : When liquid is flowing through a horizontal tube
assertion, then mark (2). of variable cross section, the pressure at the
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is narrow part is less than the pressure at wider
false, then mark (3). part.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Pressure is inversely proportional to area of
statements, then mark (4). cross section.
12. A : When temperature of a liquid increases, its 15. A : When air blows over the roof of a house, the
viscosity decreases. force on the roof is upward.
R : Increase of temperature of liquid decreases the R : Pressure below the roof is more than above the
surface tension.
roof.
13. A : If a barometer accelerates upwards the level of 16. A : When kerosene is sprinkled on water, water
mercury in the tube of barometer will surface may not support the weight of insects
decrease. and insects may sink into water sprinkled.
R : The effective value of g will increase, so R : On sprinkling kerosene on water, surface
upthrust will increase. tension of water decreases.
14. A : Viscosity of gases increase with the rise in 17. A : When eight identical drops of water each of
radius r coalesce to form a big drop, the
temperature.
energy released is 16 r2T, where T = Surface
R : On increasing temperature, there is diffusion of tension.
gases from one moving layer to the other due R : The surface energy of a drop of surface tension
to their random motion. T is directly proportional to the surface area.
!" !" !
Chapter 9
Oscillations
elastic. The frequency of vibration on disturbing the

SECTION - A masses symmetrically in the directions of arrows
Objective Type Questions and releasing them is
1. The maximum kinetic energy of a simple pendulum
is E. Then the maximum potential energy of " !! "
pendulum
(1) Is equal to E !"##$%&'()*+,-
(2) Is less than or E
! ! !
(3) May be equal to E (1) (2)
" " "
(4) Is greater than E
2. A smooth narrow tunnel is dug along the chord of ! ! ! !
(3) (4)
earth. The time period of vibration of a small ball # " "
dropped from one end of the tunnel is
5. A disc of mass ‘M’ and radii ‘R’ is attaced with
spring of spring constant ‘K’. The time period of
oscillation of disc spring system is
(1) 60 minute (2) 84.6 minute

(3) 42.3 minute (4) 30 minute ! !
" !"
3. The time period of vibration of a uniform disc of (1) ! #! (2) ! !# !
mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ about an axis $ $
perpendicular to the plane of disc and passing from
!
! ! ! "
(3) " (4) !
a point at a distance from the center of disc is # #$ !
! $!
6. Two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic
!! ! ! vibration of same frequency superimpose on each
(1) 2 (2) 2
"" " " other. The amplitude of two vibration is different and
they are differing each other in phase by . The

"! ! ! !
(3) 2 (4) 2 resultant of superposition is
!" " "
(1) Parabola
4. Two identical blocks each of mass ‘M’ are
connected with springs of spring constant ‘K’ and (2) Straight line
placed on smooth surface as shown in figure. (3) Elliptical
When the blocks are in contact the springs are in
its natural length. The collision between masses is (4) Circular
166 Oscillations Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. Two equation of S.H.M. are Y = a sin( t – ) and "

Y = b cos( t – ). The phase difference between (1) second (2) second
! !
the two is
(3) second (4) 1 second
(1) 0° (2) °
14. The equation of an SHM is given as
(3) 90° (4) 180°
# $ %&' $ #()% $ where y is in centimetres.
8. If a particle in S.H.M. has time period 0.1 s and
amplitude of 6 cm. Its maximum velocity is The amplitude of the SHM is
(1) 120 cm/s (2) 0.6 cm/s (1) 3 cm (2) 3.5 cm
(3) cm/s (4) 6 cm/s (3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm
9. A ring of radius R is hung by a hail on its periphery 15. The equation of an SHM is given as
such that it can freely rotate in its vertical plane.
The time period of ring for small oscillation is ! "
! ! "#$ # % " , where t is in seconds and x
% & $&
! ! in metres. During a complete cycle the average
(1) " ! (2) "
# # speed of the oscillator is
(1) Zero (2) 10 m/s
!! "! (3) 20 m/s (4) 40 m/s
(3) " ! (4) " !
# ## 16. The equation of a simple harmonic oscillator is
10. The potential energy U (in J) of a body executing ! "
given as ! " !"# # $% # , where t is in
S.H.M. is given by U = 20 + 10(sin2 100 t), then % & $&
the minimum potential energy of the body is
seconds. The frequency with which kinetic energy
(1) Zero (2) 30 J oscillates is
(3) 20 J (4) 40 J (1) 5 Hz (2) 10 Hz
11. The equation of S.H.M. is gives as x = A sin (3) 20 Hz (4) 40 Hz
(0.02 t), where t is in seconds. With what time-
17. What is the period of oscillation of the block shown
period the potential energy oscillates?
in figure?
(1) 200 s (2) 100 s
(3) 50 s (4) 10 s
!!
12. In a stationary lift a spring-block system oscillates
with a frequency f. When the lift accelerates up
the frequency becomes f , then ! !
(1) f > f
(2) f < f
(3) f = f
(4) Any of the above depending on the value of ! #"
(1) ! (2) "
acceleration of the lift " %
13. The kinetic energy (K) of a simple harmonic
oscillator varies with displacement (x) as shown. ! "
(3) (4) "
The period of oscillation is (mass of oscillator is 1 " "%
kg)
18. If a simple pendulum is brought deep inside a mine
!"!"# from earth surface, its time period of oscillation will
% (1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain the same
#"!$# (4) Any of the above depending on the length of
'&() & &() the pendulum
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Oscillations 167
19. The amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator is A 25. A particle is attached to a vertical spring and pulled
and speed at the mean position is v0. The speed down a distance 0.01 m below its mean position
and released. If its initial acceleration is 0.16 m/s2
&
of the oscillator at the position ' is then its time period in seconds will be
$
"( ! !# ! (1) (2)
(1) (2) !
$ "
(3) (4) 2
! !! ! #
(3) !! (4) 26. The phase difference between velocity and
" " displacement in a simple harmonic motion is
20. Initial phase of the particle executing SHM with
y = 4 sin t + 3 cos t is (1) (2)
!
(1) 53° (2) 37°
(3) 90° (4) 45° (3) (4) Zero
#
21. A spring-block system is brought from earth 27. A disc executes S.H.M. about the axis X X’ in the
surface to deep inside mine. Its period of plane of disc as shown in the figure. Its time period
oscillation will of oscillation is
(1) Increase " "’
!!"
(2) Decrease "
!
(3) Remain the same
(4) May increase or decrease depending on the !! !
mass of the block (1) (2) !
" "
22. A particle executes S.H.M with amplitude A. If the "!
!!
time taken by the particle to travel from –A to A/2 (3) ! (4)
is 4 seconds. Its time period is " !#
28. A spring block system shown in the figure
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s oscillates with certain time period. If charge q is
(3) 12 s (4) 18 s given to the block and a uniform field E is switched
on then its time period of oscillation is
23. The ratio of time periods for figure (a) and (b) is
T1 and T2 respectively, if all surfaces shown below "
!
"
are smooth, then the ratio ! is
"" (1) Increases
! (2) Decreases
" ! (3) May increase or decrease
"
(4) Remains same
!"# 29. The period of oscillation of spring block system
shown in the figure is (Assume pulley and spring to
(a) (b)
be ideal)
(1) ! " # (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) ! "# !" #"

24. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by
! "
y1 = 6 !"## $ ! and ! ! ! "#$% " &'"% " .
% % $&
The ratio of their amplitudes is !
! ! !!
(1) ! (2) (1) ! (2) "
" "" #"
" !! )
(3) (4) ! ! (3) " (4) "
! #" %
30. The graph between velocity and acceleration of a 37. Two simple harmonic motions ! ! " !"# # and
particle executing S.H.M. can be
! ! "
!! !" "#$ # #
% $& are superimposed on a
(1) A circle (2) An ellipse
%
(3) A straight line (4) Both (1) & (2) particle of mass m. The maximum kinetic energy
31. The potential energy of a particle of mass m of the particle is
executing SHM is given by U = A(1 – cos2x), ! !
where x is instantaneous displacement of the ! ! ! !! "
(1) ) + (2)
particle. Time period of oscillation is " "
) ) $ ! !
(1) (2) " (3) ) + (4) Zero
& & "
! ! 38. The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum

(3) (4) ! of length equal to half of the diameter of earth is
!" !"
about
32. The displacement of an object attached to a spring
and executing simple harmonic motion is given by (1) 60 minute (2) 84.6 minute
x = 4 cos t metre. The time at which the (3) 42.3 minute (4) 24 hour
maximum acceleration occurs first, after the
39. Displacement function of time is given as
start is
y = 2 sin t + 2 cos t. The amplitude of function
(1) 0.5 s (2) 1 s is
(3) 2 s (4) 1.5 s
(1) ! ! (2) 2
!
33. A uniform rod of length ! is suspended at from (3) 4 (4) 8
"
one end and made to undergo small oscillations. 40. All the surfaces are smooth and springs are ideal.
The time period of oscillation is If block of mass m is given the velocity v0 to the
right direction, then the time period of block shown
$! "! in figure is
(1) ! (2) !
%! # $#
!! $! ! !"!
(3) " (4) "
#! %! "!
34. A simple pendulum with a metalic bob has a time
period T. The bob is now immersed in a non # #
viscous liquid and time period is found to be !! . !"! !! " !
The ratio of density of metal to that of liquid is (1) ! (2) " ! #
! !
(1) 1/4 (2) 4/3
!! " ! # !
(3) 5/4 (4) 7/3 (3) " (4)
!
# # ! "
35. A particle executes S.H.M. with time period T. The
time period of oscillation of total energy is 41. Which of the following is not true for damped
oscillations with time period t and initial amplitude
(1) T (2) 2T
a?
*
(3) (4) Infinite (1) Angular frequency is slightly less than the
" natural frequency
36. A particle is executing linear simple harmonic
(2) Force remains constant in time interval t = 0
motion with amplitude a and angular frequency ‘ ’.
Its average speed for its motion from extreme to *
to t =
mean portion is *
!
! ! (3) If amplitude after time t is , then the
(1) (2) " "
! +
amplitude after time 2t is "
! ,
!!
(3) (4) (4) Total mechanical energy is exponentially
!
decreasing
42. Time period of given spring mass system is 47. Spring pendulum is on the rotating table. Initial
angular velocity of the table is 0 and time period
) of pendulum is T0. Now the angular velocity of
(1) " table becomes 2 0, then new time period will
% !"!
! !"! (1) 2T0 (2) !! !
(2) !
!" !
*!
!! (3) Remains same (4)
(3) ! "
""
!"#
48. Angular frequency of given spring mass system is
)
(4) (k = 6000 N/s, m = 30 kg)
%
43. For damped oscillator graph between energy and !
time is "
!
! !
!"##$%&'()*+,-
(1) (2)
!"
(1) rad/s
" "
!"
! ! (2) rad/s
(3) 20 rad/s
(3) (4)
(4) 400 rad/s
" " 49. If vertical spring mass system dipped in a non
44. In the spring pendulum, in the place of mass liquid viscous liquid, then
is used. If liquid leaks out continuously then time
(1) Only mean position is changed
period of spring pendulum
(1) Decreases continuously (2) Only time period is changed
(2) Increases continuously (3) Time period and mean position both are
changed
(3) First increased and then decreased
(4) First decreased then increased (4) Time period and mean position both remain
same
45. The equation of simple harmonic motion is given by
! & " 50. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t
$ ' () "#$ # *+!, #
% $&
then maximum
% &" #
velocity of the particle in simple harmonic motion as $ # #$%$ ! ! . Time taken by particle to
%" !"
are respectively & "
reach from ' to $ is
(1) 25.12 m/s (2) 25.12 cm/s " !
(3) 12.56 m/s (4) 12.56 cm/s *
(1)
46. Equation of simple harmonic motion is x = a sin "
t, then for which value of x kinetic energy equal
to the potential energy? !
(2)
!
#
(1) x = ± a (2) $ !
! (3)
!"
! !! !
(3) " (4) " (4)
! " !
51. Force on a particle F varies with time t as shown 56. A body of mass 20 g is executing S.H.M with
in the given graph. The displacement x versus time amplitude 5 cm. When it passes through equilibrium
t graph corresponding to force-time graph is position its speed is 20 cm/s. Find the distance from
! equilibrium when its speed becomes 10 cm/s
& %
(1) cm (2) " ! cm
" !
!& - & %
# # (3) cm (4) cm
! '
57. For a simple harmonic oscillator velocity-time
(1) (2) diagram is shown. The angular frequency of
" "
oscillation is
# # "%!"&#$
'!
(3) " (4) " &
!
"! #! %! $! !!"#$
52. Time period of a simple pendulum in a stationary (&
trolley is T1. If trolley is moving with a constant ('!
speed, then time period is T2, then
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 < T2 !" "#
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s
(3) T1 = T2 (4) T2 = ! !
53. A particle executes S.H.M with frequency 20 Hz. (3) 25 rad/s (4) 25 rad/s
The frequency with which its potential energy
58. In an S.H.M when displacement is one fourth of
oscillates is
the amplitude, the ratio of total energy to the
(1) 5 Hz (2) 20 Hz potential energy is
(3) 10 Hz (4) 40 Hz
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16
54. A particle is moving along the x-axis. The speed of
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
!! "!
particle v varies with position x as !. 59. A particle executing S.H.M is displacement x
!"" #
The time period of S.H.M is varies with time t as x = 8 sin 4t + 6 cos 4t,
" The maximum velocity of the particle will be

(1) unit (2) unit
! (1) 20 unit (2) 10 unit
(3) 40 unit (4) 5 unit
(3) unit (4) unit
! ! 60. The amplitude of oscillation for a particle executing
55. A block of mass m is attached to a massless S.H.M with angular frequency rad/s and
spring having spring constant K. The other end of maximum acceleration 5 2 m/s2 is
spring is fixed from the wall of a trolley, as shown
in figure. Spring is initially unstretched and trolley (1) 25 cm (2) 25 m
starts moving toward the direction shown. Its (3) 5 cm (4) 5 m
velocity-time graph is also shown.
# 61. Which of the following statements is true for ideal
simple pendulum?
"
+,""#- ! &'&()*
$ "
!"#$"% (1) The expression for time period # ! is
!
true only for oscillation of infinitely small
The energy of oscillation, as seen from trolley is amplitude
#!! ! "" ! (2) The motion of bob is rotatory
(1) (2)
"# !! (3) The buoyancy of air has appreciable effect on
! ! the motion of bob
"" $#
(3) (4)
#$! # " (4) All of these
62. A mass of 30 g is attached with two springs having 68. A particle is executing SHM with time period T.
spring constant 100 N/m and 200 N/m and other Time taken by it to travel from mean position to
ends of springs are attached to rigid walls as
.
shown in the given figure. The angular frequency of times its amplitude is equal to
oscillation is !
!" !"
!""#$% &""#$% ! !
(1) (2)
" !"
! *
"## !"" (3) (4)
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s " #
!
69. A simple pendulum is hanged in a cart and cart is
(3) 100 rad/s (4) 200 rad/s
sliding on inclined plane of inclination 60°, with
63. A simple pendulum of length l and bob of mass m horizontal. If friction has no role, then time period
is executing S.H.M with amplitude A. The of oscillation will be (here, l is length of simple
maximum tension in the string will be pendulum)
& " # ,- " &" + "
(1) #$ $ ! (2) ). " (1) !
%" !" - !
& !! # &" !#
#$ $ !
(3) $ "! ! ! ! (4) #$ $ ! ""
% " % " " (2)
!
64. If a bob of simple pendulum having negative charge
q is made to oscillate in a uniform electric field
acting vertically upward direction, then its time !"
(3)
period !
(1) Increases
""
(2) Decreases (4)
!!
(3) No effect of electric field
(4) Decreases or increases 70. A force F = –Kxn acted on a particle, where K is
positive constant. The value of n for which motion
65. Find the % change in time period if the length of can be oscillatory, is
simple pendulum is increased by 3%
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 3% (2) 6%
(3) 3 (4) 2
(3) 1.5% (4) 2.5%
71. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging with a massless
66. A disc is oscillating about a horizontal axis passing spring and spring is stretched by 40 cm. If the
through its rim and perpendicular to the plane of block is pulled down and released, then find the
disc. If radius of disc is R, then frequency of period of oscillation (here, g = 10 m/s2)
oscillation is
# &
(1) ! (2) %
"" "" " $
(1) ! (2) "
!! !! $ #
(3) ! (4) !
# "" # "" " "
(3) (4) 72. A spring is attached vertically to the ceiling of a lift
! !! " !!
and lower end of spring is connected with a block
67. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes one of mass 2 kg. If the lift starts accelerating upwards
! with an acceleration 2 m/s 2 , then find the
third in 10 minutes and it becomes times of the
/ amplitude of S.H.M, while spring constant is 100
original in 30 minutes. The value of n is N/m
(1) 81 (2) 3 (1) 8 cm (2) 1 cm
(3) 9 (4) 27 (3) 2 cm (4) 4 cm
73. The motion of particle is started at t = 0 and 78. A particle is subjected to two mutually
perpendicular SHM such that x = 2 sin t and
& #
equation of motion is given by " ( %&'$#$$! !! ! "
% " " ! !"#$ # " + The path of the particle will be
where, x is in cm and t is in seconds. When will % ! $&
the particle comes to rest for the first time? (1) An ellipse (2) A straight line
! ! (3) A parabola (4) A circle

(1) (2)
"## "##
79. Suppose that a pendulum clock is carried to a
depth of 32 km inside earth (Radius R = 6400
(3) # (4) ! km).To have correct time from the clock, by what
!"" "##
percentage the effective length of the pendulum
74. What will be frequency of oscillation of a simple should be changed?
pendulum, if the length of the pendulum is equal to
the radius of earth? (1) 0.5% (2) –0.5%
(3) 1% (4) –1.0%
" " ! .
(1) (2) 80. In damped harmonic oscillation, the amplitude of
! ! 0
oscillation becomes one third after 2 s. If A0 is
" !" " #" initial amplitude of oscillation, then amplitude after
(3) (4) 1 s from start will be
! ! ! !
75. Curve between the potential energy (u) and !! !!
(1) (2)
displacement (x) is shown. Which of the oscillation ! !"#
is about the mean position x = 0?
!! "!
! ! (3) (4)
! "
81. When a periodic force !! acts on a particle, the

(1) (2)
particle oscillates according to the equation
" " x = A sin t. Under the effect of another periodic
force !! , the particle oscillates according to the
! !
equation y = Bsin( t + /2). The amplitude of
oscillation when the force &" &! acts is
(3) (4)
" " (1) A + B (2) "! !!
76. The time period of a body under S.H.M. is T1 and
"! !!
T2 when restoring forces F1 and F2 respectively act (3) (4) !"
on it. What will be the time period of S.H.M. when !
both the forces act simultaneously on it? 82. A particle is executing SHM with amplitude A and
angular frequency . The time taken by the particle
%" %! to move from x = 0 to x = A/2 is
(1) (2) T1 + T2
%" %!
(1) '$ (2)
!"
!
!!
!
!" !! !
(3) (4)
!" !! ! !
!" !!
(3) ! (4)
77. A particle of mass 'm' is executing oscillations
about the origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy 83. A spring-block system oscillates with time-period T
is U(x) = k|x| where k is a positive constant. If the on earth surface. When the system is brought into
amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T a deep mine, The time period of oscillation
is directly proportional to becomes T . Then one can conclude that
(1) a–1/2 (2) a (1) T > T (2) T < T
(3) a1/2 (4) a0 (3) T = T (4) T = 2T
84. A particle executes harmonic oscillations under the 90. A particle is executing linear S.H.M. between
effect of a small damping. If the amplitude of x = ± A. The time taken to go from 0 to A/2 is
oscillation becomes half of the initial value 16 mm, T1 and to go from A/2 to A is T2, then
in five minutes, then what will be the amplitude (1) T1 < T2 (2) T1 > T2
after fifteen minutes?
(3) T1 = T2 (4) T1 = 2T2
(1) 8 mm (2) 4 mm
91. The position x (in centimeter) of a simple harmonic
(3) 2 mm (4) 1 mm
oscillator varies with time t(in second) as
85. Which of the following is incorrect about simple
harmonic oscillations of a particle? ! "
x = 2cos # !"# !
(1) Force and acceleration differ in phase by angle % $ $&
of 90° The magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the
particle in cm/s2 is
(2) Force varies linearly with displacement
(1) /2 (2) /4
(3) Velocity is 90° ahead in phase relative to
(3) 2/2 (4) 2/4
displacement from the mean position
(4) K.E. is zero at the extreme position(s) 92. A horizontal platform is executing simple harmonic
motion in the vertical direction with frequency f.
86. For a particle executing SHM, the graph between
A block of mass m is placed on the platform.
its momentum and displacement will be
What is the maximum amplitude of the SHM, so
(1) Straight line (2) Hyperbola that the block is not detached from it?
(3) Parabola (4) Ellipse !" !"
(1) (2)
87. A particle executes SHM of amplitude 10 m and ! !# ! ! !# !
period 4 s along straight line. The velocity of the
particle at a distance 6 m from mean position is " "
(3) ! !
(4)
! # ! !# !
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
93. A body at the end of a spring executes S.H.M.
(3) 6 m/s (4) 5.4 m/s with period T1, while the corresponding period for
88. A uniform rod of mass m and length L pivoted from another spring is T2. If the period of oscillation with
its one end is executing SHM with time period T. two springs in series is T, then
If rod suddenly breaks from middle while passing
through its mean position, then time period of (1) T = T1 + T2 (2) ! ! !"! !!!
oscillation of remaining half part will be
! ! ! ! ! !
* (3) (4) !
(1) 2T (2) ! !! !" ! !"! !!!
"
94. A body is executing linear S.H.M. At a body
# position x, its potential energy is E1 and at a
(3) !! (4)
! position y, its potential energy is E2. The potential
energy at the position (x + y) is
89. A pendulum oscillates about its mean position C.
The position where the speed of the bob becomes
maximum is (1) E1 + E2 (2) #"! #!!
(3) !! !" ! !!!" (4) 1!1"
95. Equation of a particle executing simple harmonic

$ ! "
motion is ! !"# $%& # ' " $ (where, t is in
! % (&
# second and y is in metre). Initial phase of the
"
(1) A particle is
(2) B
(1) ! ! (2)
(3) C " !
$ "
(4) D (3) (4)
% #
96. An ideal spring mass system has time period of 101. A simple pendulum of length L is suspended from
vibration T. If the spring is cut into 4 identical parts the ceiling of a cart which is sliding without friction
and same mass is oscillated with one of these on an inclined plane of inclination . The time
parts, then new time period of vibration will be period of the pendulum is
* # !
(1) (2) T (1) $ ! (2) " !
" % # "#$
*
(3) (4) 2T ! !
# (3) " ! (4) " !
# "#$ # %&'
97. Equation of a particle executing simple harmonic 102. A body is placed on a horizontal platform which is
motion is ! ! ! " #$ % & ' " . Displacement y undergoing vertical SHM. If the amplitude of
from mean position where acceleration becomes oscillation is 40 cm, then the least period of
zero is (y is in cm and t is in second) oscillation for which an object placed over the
platform is not detached from it is
(1) 2 cm (2) 0
(1) 1.256 s (2) 12.56 s
. (3) 0.1256 s (4) 125.6 s
(3) cm (4) ! ! cm
! 103. The variation of acceleration a of a particle
98. The equation of an S.H.M. is given as x = executing SHM with displacement x is
5 sin(4 t ), where symbols have their usual
!
! !"
meanings. During a half cycle # ! " ,
% " $&
average acceleration (in m/s2) of the oscillator is (1)
(x is in metre and time t is in second)
"
(1) 180 (2) Zero
(3) 120 (4) 160 !
99. The displacement (x) of an S.H.M. varies with time
(t ) as shown in figure. The frequency of variation
of potential energy is (2) "
"
!
!
# !"# !"$ !"%
(3)
"
(1) 5 Hz !
(2) 10 Hz
(3) 40 Hz (4) "
(4) 20 Hz
100. A simple pendulum bob is a hollow sphere full of 104. If a pendulum giving correct time on ground at a
sand suspended by means of a wire. If all the certain place is moved to the top of a tower
sand is drained out immediately, then time period 320 m high, then the loss in time (in second)
of the pendulum will measured by the pendulum clock in one week is
(1) Increase (1) 15.12
(2) Decrease (2) 7.72
(3) Remain same (3) 3.78
(4) Become erratic (4) 30.24
105. Instantaneous acceleration (in ms–2) of a particle
! !!
! " (1) " (2) !
executing S.H.M. is given by ! ! "#$# " ! $ . !" ""
% %% &&
The maximum speed of the particle will occur first "! !"
time at (3) ! (4) "
!" !
(1) 1.75 s (2) 1.4 s
110. A block of mass m attached to a spring of
(3) 1.2 s (4) 0.67 s constant k oscillates on a smooth surface. The
106. A particle moves according to the equation other end of the spring is fixed to a wall. When
spring is at its natural length, speed of the block
! " !"# # $ Distance covered by it in the time is v. Displacement of the block from its mean
% position before coming to instantaneous rest is
interval of t = 0 to t = 3 s, is (symbols have their
usual meanings) )( )
(1) (2) (
(1) A % %
(2) 4A
( ! )
(3) 3A (3) ) (4)
% % (
(4) 2A
111. A particle under SHM has a maximum speed of
107. Two simple pendulums of length 1 m and 16 m are 30 cm/s and a maximum acceleration of 60 cm/s2.
in same phase at the mean position at any The time period of oscillation (in second) is
instant. If T is the time period of smaller
pendulum, then minimum time after which they will
again be in same phase, is (1)
!
!! !!
(1) (2) (2) 2
" #
"! #* (3)
(3) (4)
! $ (4) 4
108. A particle executes SHM with a time period of 4
s. The time taken by the particle to go directly 112. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing SHM is
from its mean position to half of its amplitude is shown below. The acceleration of the particle at
! !
" ! is
(1) (2) 1 s "
#
! "'*+)
(3) " (4) 2 s
$ !
109. A body of mass m hanging with the help of three
springs, each of spring constant k as shown. If the " !'()
$ % !&
mass is slightly displaced and released, then the
system will oscillate with time period #!
" !
(1) #$%&"
! "'
(2) ()/"!
%!
! ! !
(3) !"#$!
%&
! !
" (4) "#$%!
!&
113. Position-time (y-t) graph of a particle executing 117. Graph between velocity (v) of a particle executing
S.H.M. is shown. Time period of particle is 4 S.H.M. and its displacement (x) is shown in the
second. Equation of particle executing S.H.M. is figure. The time period of oscillation is
!!"#$ "!"#%&$
&
'
"()!($ "!"%$ !!"#$
! " ! "
(1) ! ! "#$ # % " (2) ! ! "#$ # "
% ! $& %% & $& (1) (2) !
! " ! " ! " ! "

(3) ! ! "#$ # " (4) ! * "#$ # " 0 $
%% ! $& % ! * & (3) ! # $ (4) ! # $
% & % &
114. A particle starts executing SHM from extreme
118. The displacement of a body performing simple
position with time period T and amplitude A. The
harmonic motion is represented by
!"!
distance travelled by the particle in time is ! "
!# ! " !"# # $ # $ . After what approximate time
% %&
(1) 3.5 A (2) 2.5 A from t = 0, speed of particle becomes maximum for
(3) 0.5 A (4) 1.5 A the first time?
115. Two tunnels are dug across earth as shown in the (1) 0.12 s
figure. Balls A and B are dropped in the tunnels. (2) 0.24 s
If time period of oscillation of ball A is T, the time
(3) 0.33 s
period of oscillation of ball B is
(4) 0.42 s
!"## 119. A particle is performing S.H.M. with time period 8
!"## !
" s and starts from the origin. The ratio of distance
!"#
travelled by particle in 1st second and 2nd second
of its motion is
(1) !
(2) ! " #$
!
(1) T (2) !
" (3) ! " # $%
! ! (4) 2
(3) ! (4) !
" " 120. Two particles are executing S.H.M. about same
mean position, along same straight line, with same
116. Select the correct statement(s) regarding S.H.M. amplitude and time period. At any instant they meet
(1) The average speed of particle executing S.H.M. !
is zero in one complete oscillation each other at ! while moving in opposite direction.
"
(2) Graph between kinetic and potential energy of The phase difference between them is
a particle executing S.H.M. is a straight line
(3) Restoring force acting on particle is directed !
(1) (2)
towards a fixed point and is directly " !
proportional to displacement from the mean
position of the particle ## #
(3) (4)
(4) Both (2) & (3) $ $
121. A small block of mass m is kept on a wooden 124. Acceleration-time (a -t) graph for a particle
plank which is oscillating in vertical plane (as performing S.H.M. is shown in the figure. Select
shown), with time period T. The amplitude of the incorrect statement.
oscillation at which block leaves contact with the !
plank is "!"%&# $
$ #
!
"'(!'$ !!"#$
%
&'#$ !"#$%
&
(1) Displacement of particle at A is negative

(2) Potential energy of particle at C is minimum
!" ! !" !
(1) (2) ! (3) Velocity of particle at B is positive
! !
(4) Speed of particle at D is decreasing
!" ! !" ! 125. A particle is executing S.H.M. such that its
(3) (4) !
! " acceleration a is function of displacement x as
!
a = – (x – 6). The time period of the oscillation is
122. A particle performing S.H.M. is at rest at points
P and Q which are at a distance a and b from
point O. It has velocity v when it is half way (1)
between P and Q. The time period of oscillation is
& (2)
" ! # !
'
$
!
(3)
!
%
!
!! ! "" (4)
(1) # $#
%! "&
126. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is executing S.H.M. such
that its potential energy is 5 J at mean position.
,2 - + +
(2) If its total mechanical energy is 9 J and amplitude
( of oscillation is 1 cm, then the time period of
oscillation of the particle is
!!!""
(3) # !" $ # !
"
% & (1)
#$$
(4) Data is insufficient to answer
(2) !
123. The time period of a simple pendulum in a "##
stationary lift is T. If the lift moves upwards with an
acceleration g, then the new time period will be (3) !
"$
(1) Infinite (4) 2 s
127. The total mechanical energy of a linear harmonic
(2) %&'! oscillator is 600 J. At mean position its potential
energy is 100 J. The minimum potential energy of
oscillator is
(3) !"#$!
(1) 50 J (2) 500 J
(4) 0.707T (3) 0 J (4) 100 J
128. A general graph showing variation in potential 132. Select the correct statement regarding potential
energy (PE) of a particle with time while executing energy (u) in simple harmonic motion of a particle
S.H.M. is along x-axis
!" !" !"

(1) # for all position of particle performing
!#
! ! S.H.M
(1) #$%& (2) #$%&
!"
(2) # for all time
!#
!" !" (3) Potential energy is minimum at equilibrium
#$%& position of particle performing S.H.M
! !
(3) #$%& (4) (4) Potential energy increases linearly with position
as particle moves away from equilibrium
position
129. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg oscillate with 133. A simple pendulum is pushed slightly from its
a light spring of spring constant k = 300 N/m as equilibrium towards left and then set free to execute
shown. The time period of the oscillation is S.H.M. Select correct graph between its velocity(v)
'!%& $!%& and displacement (x)
! !
!"!# !"!# (1) "
(1) !"
#$
!" !
(2)
#$
$ (2) "
(3) !"
%
(4) !"
!
130. Two simple pendulum of lengths 1.44 m and 1 m
start S.H.M. together in same phase. They will be
in same phase again after (3)
!"#$"% "
(1) 6 vibrations of longer pendulum
(2) 6 vibrations of smaller pendulum
(3) 5 vibrations of smaller pendulum !
(4) 4 vibrations of longer pendulum

(4)
131. A spring has equilibrium elongation 0.1 m, when !"#$"% "
suspended vertically with a load. If the load is
slightly displaced vertically downward and released,
then time period of SHM of the system will be
approximately 134. Simple harmonic motion is an example of
(1) 0.1 s (1) Uniformly accelerated motion
(2) 0.4 s (2) Uniform motion
(3) 0.6 s (3) Nonuniform accelerated motion
(4) 0.3 s (4) All of these
135. A particle under SHM takes 1.2 s to complete one 141. A particle is performing SHM with amplitude A and
vibration. Minimum time taken by it to travel from angular frequency . The ratio of magnitude of
mean position to half of its amplitude is maximum velocity to maximum acceleration is
(1) 0.2 s
%
(2) 0.1 s (1) (2)
(3) 0.4 s
(3) 2 (4) A
(4) 0.3 s
142. The potential energy of a particle executing SHM
136. Potential energy of a particle executing SHM at
is 2.5 J, when its displacement is half of
extreme position and mean position are 20 J and
amplitude. The total energy of particle is
5 J respectively. Kinetic energy of the particle at
mean position is (1) 18 J
(1) 20 J (2) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J (4) 12.5 J
(3) 12 J
137. A particle moves in xy plane according to equation
! (4) 2.5 J
! #$" % # & "'( !$ . The motion of the particle is
along 143. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Straight line and periodic (1) All SHM’s have fixed time period.
(2) Circle and non-periodic (2) All motions having same time period are SHM.
(3) Ellipse and periodic (3) In SHM, total energy is proportional to square
(4) Parabola and non-periodic of amplitude
138. Equation of simple harmonic motion of a particle (4) Phase constant of SHM depends upon initial
is y = (0.4 m) sin 314 t, where, time t is in conditions
second. Frequency of vibration of the particle is
144. If a simple pendulum is suspended from the roof
(1) 100 Hz (2) 75 Hz of a trolley which moves in horizontal direction with
(3) 50 Hz (4) 25 Hz an acceleration a, then the time period is given by
139. A particle starts SHM from the mean position. Its !

" ! " where g is equal to
amplitude is A and time period is T. At the time #
when its speed is half of its maximum speed, its
displacement is (1) g (2) g – a
!
(1) (3) g + a (4) !! "!
!
! 145. In the given figure when two identical springs are
(2) attached with a body of mass m, then oscillation
! frequency is f. If one spring is removed, then the
frequency will become
! !
(3)
" " $
!
!! #! #"
(4)
"
(1) f
140. The acceleration of a particle in SHM is
(2) 2f
(1) Always zero
(3) "3
(2) Always constant
(3) Maximum at extreme position !
(4)
(4) Maximum at equilibrium position !
146. The function sin2( t) represents 150. A body of mass M is situated in potential field.
Potential energy of the body is given by
!
(1) An SHM with a period of U(x) = U0 [1+cos Kx]; where x = position, K and
U0 = constant. Period of small oscillations of the
body will be
(2) An SHM with a period of
(3) A periodic motion but not SHM with a period !

(1) ! !"" # ! (2) !
! "" # !
of
!" " ! !!
(4) A periodic motion but not SHM with a period of (3) ! (4) !
# "# "
151. A particle is executing SHM about origin along x-
axis, between points A( , 0) and B(– , 0). Its time
147. Values of the acceleration A of a particle moving period of oscillation is T. The magnitude of its
in simple harmonic motion as a function of its !
displacement x are given below acceleration second after the particle reaches
!"
A (mms–2) 16 8 0 –8 –16 point A will be
x (mm) –4 –2 0 2 4 !
The period of the motion is (1) " $ (2) ! !

* #!
! ! !
(1) "#
(3) ! " (4) $
!! *!
$ 152. A particle executes linear oscillation such that its
(2) "#
epoch is zero. The ratio of magnitude of its
displacement in 1 st second and 2 nd second is
(Time period = 12 second)
(3) "#
$
! !
(4) s (1) (2)
" ! " !
148. Acceleration-time graph of a particle undergoing
" ! !
SHM is shown in figure. (3) (4)
! # ! "
153. A block of mass 0.02 kg is connected with a
! spring and is free to oscillate on horizontal smooth
surface as shown. The angular frequency of
" oscillation is 2 rad s–1. The block is pulled by 4
" #
cm (from equilibrium position) and then pushed
$ towards the spring with a velocity of 8 cm/s. The
(1) Velocity of particle at point 2 is zero amplitude of oscillation is (Neglect any damping)
(2) Velocity at point 3 is zero
(3) Velocity at point 2 is +ve and maximum !"%"&"#$'(
(4) Both (2) & (3)
149. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, !"#$
the KE is given by K = K0 cos2 t. Then maximum
value of potential energy (for given particle) (1) ! " cm
(1) May be K0
(2) ! " cm
(2) Must be K0
(3) May be less than K0 (3) " " cm
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) 1 cm
154. A particle moves on a circular path with uniform 159. A particle moves according
speed about origin. The x-t graph will be (x : value
of x-coordinate; t-time) ! "
! !" #$% #&' # " $ ( Average velocity of the
" %) &
! particle in the time interval between t = 0 to
t = 3 s is
(1) " (2) ! (1) 1 cm/s
(2) 3.5 cm/s
(3) 2 cm/s
" "
(4) 6 cm/s
160. A particle performs S.H.M. with frequency f.
(3) (4) Frequency of its velocity and acceleration are
! ! respectively
(1) f, f
155. A simple pendulum has time period T. The bob is
"
given negative charge and surface below it is given (2) #"
positive charge. The new time period will be !
(3) 2f, f
(1) Less than T
(4) f, 2f
(2) Greater than T
161. In the figure shown if elongation in the spring at
(3) Equal to T any instant is x then differential equation of S.H.M.
(4) Infinite of the block can be given by
156. A simple pendulum attached to the ceiling of a

stationary lift has a time period 1 s. The distance
y covered by the lift moving downward varies with "
time as y = 3.75 t2, where y in meter and t in
second. If g = 10 m/s2, then the time period of the
pendulum will be
(1) 4 s
!
(2) 6 s
(3) 2 s
(4) 12 s $"% !&"
157. Which of the following may represent the potential
(1) " #'$% "
$( % &
energy of a body in S.H.M.? (Symbols have usual
meaning) $"% ! & "
(2) # #' $ % "
2A2
! ! ! $( " % &
(1) m (2) ) '
"
$"% ! !& "
! ! ! " (3) # ' $% "
(3) # "! (4) Both (2) & (3) $( " % &
% " ! $&
158. If a physical quantity is given by $"% ! & "

(4) " # !' $ % "
! " !"#$#$ % % & where symbols have usual $( % &
!
! 162. Force acting on a body free to move on x-axis is
meaning, then the dimensional formula for ! is given by F = –kxn where k is a positive constant.
" For which value of n motion of the body is not
best described by oscillatory?
(1) [M0L0T–1] (2) [M–1L0T–1] (1) 3 (2) 7
(3) [M0L1T0] (4) [M0L–1T0] (3) 2 (4) 5
163. In forced oscillation when system oscillates under 167. A uniform spring has a force constant K. It is cut
the action of driving force F = F0 sin t in addition into two pieces of lengths l 1 and l 2 such that
to its internal restoring force, then the particle l1 = nl2. Time period of oscillation of a mass m with
oscillates with a frequency equal to spring of length l1 is
(1) Natural frequency of the body
!!" "#
(2) Frequency of driving force (1) $
"#
(3) Difference of frequency of driving force and
natural frequency ! ,/ !+
(2) "
(4) Mean of frequency of driving frequency and )
natural frequency
164. Potential energy of a harmonic oscillator at $
equilibrium is 15 J and average kinetic energy is (3) !
" "% #$
5 J. Total energy at any instant is
(1) 25 J !"
(4) !
(2) 5 J # "" #$
(3) 15 J 168. A body executes oscillations under the effect of a
(4) 40 J small damping force. If the amplitude of the body
reduces by 50% in 6 minute, then amplitude after
165. The displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. is next 12, minute will be (initial amplitude is A0)
! "
given by ! !"!# $%& # '!" !!
# $&
, where y is in
% (1)
!
metre and t is in second. Maximum speed of the
particle will be !!
(2)
(1) 4 cms–1 !
(2) 10 cms–1 !!
(3)
(3) 40 cms–1 "#
(4) 30 cms–1 !!
(4)
166. A particle is executing S.H.M. Graph of its #
displacement with position is shown in the figure. 169. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line
Maximum acceleration of the particle is path. Then which of the following statement is
!"!"# correct?
$% (1) Acceleration always decreases speed of
particle
) (2) Acceleration is constant with time
#"!*#
% ' (
(3) Acceleration is constant with position
&% (4) Acceleration is maximum when particle is at

rest
!
170. Two pendulums A and B of length 144 cm and
(1) !"#!
$ 100 cm are initially in same phase at their
equilibrium positions. After how many complete
! oscillation of B they come in same phase?
(2) !"#!
% (1) 4
(3) 4 2 m/s2 (2) 6
! (3) 8
(4) !"#!
$ (4) 10
171. Time period of spring mass system depends upon '
2. A : The root mean square velocity is times of
(1) Gravity of earth (
its maximum velocity for a particle executing
(2) Mass of block
simple harmonic motion.
(3) Mass of spring
R : The velocity of a particle executing simple
(4) Both (2) & (3) harmonic motion varies according to sine rule.
172. The displacements of the particle from extreme 3. A : When angular amplitude of simple pendulum is
! "
position when its kinetic energy is ./ of the large, then # ! is not valid.
# !
$ R : Time period of simple pendulum depends on
maximum value and ./ of the maximum value
# angular amplitude for large magnitude of
angular displacement.
!!
are xA and xB respectively. The ratio ! is 4. A : If the elevator goes down with constant
"
acceleration, then frequency of oscillation of
(1) $ 0! spring block system in elevator will be
independent of acceleration of elevator.
(2) 1 : 2
R : If the given elevator goes with uniform velocity,
(3) !0 $
then the frequency of oscillation will change.
(4) !" #$ % & 5. A : When the damping force acting on the

oscillating particle is proportional to its velocity,
173. A particle is moving along x-axis (x in metre) and
mechanical energy decreases exponentially
force acting on particle varies as F = –5x + 5N,
then with time.
(1) Motion of particle will be circular R : During damped vibration, amplitude of vibration
decreases exponentially with time.
(2) Motion of particle will be periodic having mean
position at x = 1 m 6. A : Resonance is a special case of forced
(3) Equilibrium position of particle will be at x = 4m vibration in which the natural frequency of
vibration of the body is same as the
(4) Both (1) & (2)
impressed frequency and the amplitude of
SECTION - B forced vibration is maximum.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : The amplitude of forced vibration of a body

increases with an increase in the frequency of
the externally impressed periodic force.
7. A : In simple harmonic motion, the velocity is
reason is the correct explanation of the maximum when the acceleration is minimum.
assertion, then mark (1). R : Displacement and velocity in simple harmonic
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the motion differ in phase by 90°.
8. A : Oscillatory motions are necessarily periodic,
but all periodic motions are not oscillatory.
false, then mark (3). R : Simple pendulum is an example of oscillatory
motion.
statements, then mark (4). 9. A : The amplitude of oscillation can never be
1. A : The periodic time of a hard spring is more as infinity.
compared to the soft spring. R : The energy of oscillator is continuously
R : The spring constant of hard spring is less. dissipated.
R : The phase difference between two points is

10. A : In SHM, velocity leads the acceleration by proportional to the distance between them in
SHM.
.
! 12. A : The time period of a simple pendulum is
R : In SHM, displacement leads the velocity by minimum at the surface of earth.
R : g is maximum at the surface of earth.
.
! 13. A : In an S.H.M. kinetic energy is equal to potential
11. A : In SHM the phase difference between any two energy when the displacement is half of
points separated by a distance of A (amplitude) amplitude.
R : Kinetic energy and potential energy of an
is .
" S.H.M. is independent of displacement.
!" !" !
Chapter 10
Waves
5. A travelling wave pulse is given by

SECTION - A
!"
Objective Type Questions y= (m), then
# $! #" %!
1. Two progressive waves are represented by y1 = 5 (1) The pulse is travelling along negative x axis
! " (2) The speed of pulse is 4 m/s
sin (200t – 3.14x) and ! ! !"#$%# &""" '(!) # $
% ' & (3) The amplitude of pulse is 5 m
(x is in metre and t is in second). Path difference
between two waves is (4) All of these
!"" ! 6. Two wires A and B of a musical instrument ‘Sitar’

(1) # (2) m produce 3 beats per second. If the tension of B is
"
raised, the number of beats becomes 1 beat per
! second. If the frequency of A is 450 Hz, then
(3) !"#$ m (4) m frequency of B is
! !
(1) 447 Hz (2) 453 Hz
2. Standing waves can be produced
(3) 449 Hz (4) 451 Hz
(1) On a string clamped at both ends
7. A train moves towards a stationary observer with
(2) On a string clamped at one end and other end 50 m/s. The train sounds whistle and its frequency
is free is registered by observer as f1. If the train’s speed
is increased by 25 m/s, the frequency registered is
(3) When a wave is reflected from a wall
f2. If the speed of sound is 300 m/s, then f1 : f2 is
(4) In all of the above conditions (1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 7
3. Two organ pipes closed at one end produces 5 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 9 : 10
beats per second at fundamental nodes. If the
8. A train whistling at constant frequency is moving
ratio of their lengths is 10 : 11, then their
towards a station at a constant speed. The train
frequencies are
goes past a stationary observer on the station.
(1) 55, 50 The variation of frequency f of the sound as heard
by the observer as a function of time t is best
(2) 105, 100 represented by
(3) 75, 70 ! !
(4) 100, 95
4. When a source of sound is moving away from a (1) (2)
stationary observer at a speed 25% of the speed " "
of sound. The percentage change in the apparent
! !
frequency observed by the observer is
(1) 20% (2) 25%
(3) (4)
(3) 33% (4) 50%
" "
186 Waves Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. The number of waves contained in unit length of 16. If moisture in hydrogen gas increases at a given
the medium is called temperature, the speed of sound in the gas will
(1) Angular wave number (1) Increase
(2) Wave number
(2) Decrease
(3) Mach number
(4) Propagation constant (3) Remain the same
10. A cylindrical tube open at both ends, has a (4) Any of the above depending on the temperature
fundamental frequency f0 in air. The tube is dipped of the gas
vertically in water such that half of its length is
17. The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe
inside water. The fundamental frequency of the air
is 200 Hz. When half length of the pipe is
column now is
immersed in water, the fundamental frequency of
!!! the air column in the pipe will be
(1) (2) f0
"
(1) 100 Hz
!!
(3) (4) 2f0 (2) 200 Hz
!
11. A dog is barking at a rate 4 W. Sound level at a (3) 400 Hz
point at distance 10 m from the dog is
(4) 800 Hz
(1) 20 dB (2) 30 dB
18. The equation of standing wave is given as
(3) 40 dB (4) 80 dB $ " %&'(#)) % *+,%()-). & * , where y and x are
12. The speed of a wave of time period T and in centimetres and t in seconds, then the incorrect
propagation constant K is statement is
(1) The amplitude of the component waves is 2 cm
# !"
(1) (2)
"# % (2) The frequency of the component waves is 100
Hz
$ "
(3) (4) (3) Distance between two successive nodes is 20
"# # cm
13. The maximum possible wavelength in an open (4) The speed of the particle at antinode is 8 m/s
organ pipe of length l is
19. The equation of a wave pulse is given as
(1) l (2) 2l
!
(3) 3l (4) 4l " , where t is in seconds and x in
! "## $%& $ '
14. Standing waves are formed on a stationary string. metres. The speed of the pulse is
The phase difference between the particles situated
between two consecutive nodes is (in radians) (1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(1) Zero (2)
! (3) 2 m/s
(4) 0.5 m/s
!
(3) (4) 20. The equation of a stationary wave is given as
"
15. What is the ratio of the frequencies emitted from ! " !"# $%& # '(!)$%* $ + , where t is in seconds
the organ pipes A and B shown below? and x in centimetres. Which of the following is
! ! correct?
(1) Wavelength of the component waves is 10 cm
(2) The separation between a node and nearest
!"# !$# antinode is 2.5 cm
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) Frequency at the component wave is 0.25 Hz
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 3
(4) All of these
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Waves 187
21. A car giving horn is moving towards a crossing as 27. If graph between fundamental frequency (f) and
shown in the figure. At the instant when the corresponding tension (T) in a sonometer wire is
observer O hears the same frequency as the plotted. Then it is best represented by
frequency of the horn, the car will be
" "
(1) (2)
$
! !
! # "
" "
% (3) (4)
(1) Between A and X (2) Between X and B ! !
(3) At X (4) Before A 28. Two waves travelling in a medium produce
interference such that the ratio of maximum to
22. The equation of a travelling wave is given as
minimum intensity is 4 : 1. The ratio of their
y = A sin (40 t – 0.2 x), where t is in seconds and
amplitude is
x in metres. Then minimum distance between two
particles oscillating in same phase is (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(1) 10 m (2) 5 m (3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
(3) 2 m (4) 1.5 m 29. Stationary waves are formed on stretched string. If
23. It is found that when a source emitting frequency the wavelength is , then the distance between two
approaches a stationary observer its apparent points having maximum displacement can be
frequency increases by 20%. Its apparent
(1) 3 /2 (2) 4
frequency when it recedes away with the same
speed will be (3) 5 /2 (4) All of these
! ! 30. The minimum distance between the medium

(1) (2) particles, which vibrate in same phase during
" "
propagation of a wave is
! #
(3) (4)
" "
(1) (2)
24. If the speed of sound in air is 320 m/s, then with ! "
what frequency of sound, the air column of 2 m (3) (4) 2
long pipe closed at one end will resonate?
31. When an empty vessel is filled under a tap at
(1) 120 Hz (2) 200 Hz
certain height, as water level rises then
(3) 280 Hz (4) All of these
(1) Intensity of sound increases
25. Two sound waves given by the equations
y = A sin 122 t and y = A sin 128 t pass through (2) Intensity of sound decreases
a point simultaneously . The number of beats per (3) Pitch of sound increases
second is
(4) Pitch of sound decreases
(1) 6 (2) 5
32. Two coherent sound sources are at distances
(3) 4 (4) 3
S1 = 0.3 m, S2 = 0.55 m from a point. Each wave
26. Two waves each of intensity i0 and wavelength produce intensity I0 at the point. If the frequency of
0.2 m starts from sources A and B and meet at each wave is = 1000 Hz and velocity in the
point P as shown in the figure. If AP = 0.5 m, medium is 500 m/s, then the intensity of the
BP = 0.8 m, then intensity at P is resultant wave at the point is
! # (1) Zero
!!
" (2)
!
(1) 2i0 (2) i0 (3) I0
(3) i0/2 (4) Zero (4) 2I0
33. Given the equation for a wave on a string y = 0.5 41. Select the correct statement
sin(5x – 3t). When y and x are in meters and t in
(1) In case of interference the energy is
seconds. The ratio of maximum speed of particle
redistributed
to speed of wave is
(2) In case of interference the sources emit waves
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 2 of nearly same frequency
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 5 (3) The production of beats is the result of
34. The fifth overtone of a closed pipe is observed to constructive interference only
be unision with third overtone of an open pipe. The (4) All of these
ratio of the lengths of the pipes is
42. If sound wave travelling through air is reflected from
(1) 9 : 7 (2) 11 : 8 a wall, then the phase difference between incident
(3) 12 : 9 (4) 13 : 10 and reflected pressure wave will be
35. An open tube is in resonance with a string. If tube (1) Zero (2)
is dipped in water, so that 75% of length of the !
tube is inside water, then ratio of frequency of tube
!
to string is (3) (4)
"
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 43. Two identical sonometers have frequency of
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 fundamental mode 200 Hz. If tension in one of the
sonometer is increased by 6% and they are
36. A source of sound moves towards a stationary sounded together, then number of beats observed
observer, with a velocity one-fifth the velocity of in two seconds will be
sound. Percentage increase in the apparent
frequency is (1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 24 (4) 3
(1) Zero (2) 20%
44. Car with siren moving towards a hill with the speed
(3) 5% (4) 25% 108 km/h. A person at the foot of hill. The frequency
37. The equation y = a sin( t – kx) represents a observed by person is (frequency of siren is 600 Hz
travelling wave. In this y represents velocity of sound is 330 m/s)
(1) Displacement (2) Pressure change (1) 720 Hz (2) 660 Hz
(3) Magnetic field (4) All of these (3) 600 Hz (4) 630 Hz
45. Closed organ pipe having length 48 cm and
38. An observer moves towards a stationary source of diameter 5 cm is sounded in its fundamental mode.
sound waves of frequency 1320 Hz with constant The wavelength of displacement wave produced in
speed 30 m/s. The wavelength observed by him will the pipe is
be [Speed of sound in air 330 m/s]
(1) 0.99 m (2) 1.92 m
(1) 25 cm (2) 37.5 cm
(3) 1.98 m (4) 0.495 m
(3) 18.7 cm (4) 22.3 cm
!
39. If the tension in sonometer wire is increased by 46. Find the acceleration of particle at ! s from the
"
69% keeping all other factors same, then the graph of wave motion
fundamental frequency of wire will #"$'(&
(1) Increase by 30% (2) Decrease by 30%
(3) Increase by 21% (4) Decrease by 21% !
! #
40. The wavelength of a standing wave in a string is !"$%&
)
40 cm. The phase difference between two particles
"!
separated by distance 10 cm will be
" "
(1) Zero (2) ! !
! (1) (2) –
" "
(3) (4) Either 0 or (3) – 2 (4) Zero
47. The transverse displacement of a string clamped at 52. A sound source is moving with speed of 40 m/s
both the ends is given by y(x, t) = 12 (cm) sin 6.28 towards a stationary observer then the frequency
x cos 3.14 t, where x is in cm and t is in second, observed by observer is (frequency of sound source
then which of the following is not true = 9000 Hz and velocity of sound = 340 m/s)
(1) Velocity of component wave is 0.5 cm/s (1) 10200 Hz (2) 8052 Hz
(2) Amplitude of one of the component wave is (3) 9000 Hz (4) 10020 Hz
6 cm 53. The ratio of amplitudes of two coherent waves are
(3) Distance between two consecutive nodes is 5 : 3 then the ratio of maximum to minimum
0.5 cm intensities in their interference pattern are
(4) x = 0.25 is a first node except the nodes at (1) 1 : 16 (2) 16 : 1

ends (3) 5 : 3 (4) 25 : 9
48. Read following statements carefully and mark the 54. A string of mass 5 kg is under a tension of 50 N.
correct option. The length of the stretched string is 10 m. If a
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string
Statement-1: With the displacement wave we can
then the disturbance will reach the other end in
produce a pressure wave.
(1) 1 s (2) 10 s
and
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.01 s
Statement-2 : Displacement and pressure wave
55. The equation of two waves are given by
both are having the phase difference . !! !"#$%&'(#!! " )
!
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; ! "
!! !"#$ %&' # (!! " $
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for % ( &
Statement-1 If they are superimpose at a point, then the
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; maximum amplitude is
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for (1) !"!# m (2) !"!# m
Statement-1
(3) !"!$ m (4) !"!$ m
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
56. A policeman buzz a whistle of frequency 420 Hz.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True A car with audio recorder is moving towards the
49. String of length l is fixed at one end and free at the policeman with a speed of 72 km/h record a
other. If it resonate at different mode, then the ratio frequency of 1 . After crossing it records the
of frequencies are frequency of 2, then 2 – 1 is (Velocity of sound
is 300 m/s)
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : ....... (2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : .........
(1) ! Hz (2) 20 Hz
(3) 1 : 2 : 4 : 8 : ........ (4) 1 : 3 : 9 : ........
(3) 28 Hz (4) 56 Hz
50. Which factor does not effect the velocity of sound
in a gas? 57. Velocity of sound in a gas does not depend on the
change of
(1) Pressure at any temperature
(1) Pressure at constant temperature
(2) Temperature
(2) Atomicity of gas
(3) Humidity (3) Molecular mass of gas
(4) Pressure only at constant temperature (4) Humidity
51. Which of the following is not possible for sound 58. Any equation y = f(t – bx) represent a harmonic
wave in air? wave if
(1) Beats !" !# ! !" ! !"
(1) $ (2) #!
(2) Interference !# !% !$ ! !% !
(3) Diffraction
! !" ! ! !" !" ! !#
(4) Polarisation (3) ! (4)
!# $ ! !% ! !# $ !%
59. A uniform rope of mass m and length l is hanged 65. A SONAR station observes 25% increase in
vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave frequency of wave. If C is the speed of sound in
pulse is produced at the lower end. The variation water then the speed of submarine is
of speed of wave pulse (v) with height h from lower
end will be '# !
(1) (2)
& !
(1) Straight line
$
(2) Parabolic (3) (4) C
"
(3) Rectangular hyperbolic
66. If the equation of moving pulse is represented is
(4) Elliptical
$-.
60. Sound wave is passed through a chamber. If the '
) - ! ( # & !% * "
r.m.s speed of molecules of the gas is v1 and
speed of sound is v2 in the gas, then Find the amplitude of wave
(1) v1 = v2 (1) 0.3 unit (2) 1.5 unit
(2) v1 > v2 (3) 5 unit (4) 6 unit
(3) v1 < v2 67. Two sources A and B are sounding notes of
(4) v1 v2 frequency 660 Hz. A listener moves from A to B
with a constant velocity u. If the speed of sound is
61. A string is fixed at both the ends and vibrating in 330 m/s, what must be the value of u so that he
the third harmonic. The equation of vibration is given hears 8 beats per second?
as Y = 0.05(m) sin(0.005 cm–1 x) cos[(200 s–1)t].
Find the length of the string (1) 2.8 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(1) 600 cm (2) 600 cm (3) 3 m/s (4) 3.5 m/s
(3) 200 cm (4) 200 cm 68. Which of the following wave needed medium to
propagate?
62. In an open organ pipe velocity of sound is 330 m/
s. The frequency of wave is 3300 Hz and length of (1) X-rays
tube is 20 cm. Find the harmonic to which this
(2) Radiowaves
frequency corresponds
(1) 4th (2) 2nd (3) -rays
(3) 6th (4) 8th (4) Sound wave
63. The equation of travelling wave is given by 69. If the equation of plane progressive wave in string
Y = 8 sin(100 t – 0.04 x) & #

is given by # #('$%&$ "# " ! ! . Here all
% !"
If all the quantities are in S.I. units, find the phase
difference between two points separated by the quantities are in S.I. Find the velocity of a point
distance of 2000 cm on the string located at x = 0, at t = 0
" (1) m/s (2) m/s

(1) (2) 2 ! "
!
(3) 2 m/s (4) m/s
"
(3) (4) 70. Sinusoidal wave having frequency 500 Hz and
! speed 800 m/s. If two point in the medium are
64. An open and a closed pipe have same length. The separated by distance x having phase difference
ratio of frequency of their 3rd overtone is ! then x is
"
# #
(1) (2) # !
" " (1) m (2) m
!" !"
$ ! $ %
(3) (4) (3) m (4) m
" " !" !"
71. If the speed of sound in a gaseous medium is v, 77. The intensity of a plane progressive wave of
while pressure in medium is P. If the pressure is frequency 1 kHz is 10–10 watt/m2. If the density of
becomes 4P, then speed of sound is keeping the air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the speed of sound is equal
temperature constant to 340 m/s, then the pressure amplitude of the
wave is about
(1) 2v (2) !! (1) 3 × 10–5 N/m2 (2) 3 × 10–4 N/m2
(3) v (4) 4v (3) 3 × 10–6 N/m2 (4) 3 × 10–3 N/m2
72. In a sound wave the pressure and displacement 78. A source x of unknown frequency produces 8 beats
are out of phase by with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a
source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source x is
(1) (2) (1) 258 Hz (2) 242 Hz
#
(3) 262 Hz (4) 282 Hz
79. Two tuning forks having frequencies 256 Hz and
(3) 2 (4)
! 260 Hz are sounded together. After hearing the
minimum sound, how long will it take to hear the
73. If the intensity of loudness of a source is increased maximum sound?
by 20 dB at a particular place, then intensity
increases by n time, the value of n is (1) 0.0625 s (2) 0.125 s
(1) 2 (2) 100 (3) 0.25 s (4) 0.5 s

80. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the
(3) 200 (4) 10
x-direction is given by
74. For a standing wave, if distance between two nodes
is 10 cm and frequency is 5000 Hz. Find speed of & #
# ' ,-.$ *++ " ) (%' ! ! !"#$"%
wave % &"
(1) 1000 m/s (2) 500 m/s where x is in metre and t in seconds. The speed
of the wave motion is
(3) 2000 m/s (4) 5000 m/s
(1) 200 m/s (2) 300 m/s
75. Four pendulums X, Y, Z and W are suspended
from the same elastic support. Pendulum W and (3) 450 m/s (4) 600 m/s
Y are of same length, while Z is smaller than W 81. Stationary waves can be obtained in air column
and X is larger than W. If W is given an oscillatory even if interfering waves are of different
motion then the maximum amplitude out of
pendulum X, Y, Z is that of (1) Amplitude (2) Wavelength
(3) Velocity (4) Frequency
82. Two sound sources drived by the same amplifier
" send the sound of wavelength 1m at point P as
# !
shown in the diagram. If the intensity of sound from
$ each source is I then the intensity at point P will
(1) X be (S1S2P is a right angled triangle)
(2) Y
!"
%&#$
(3) Z !
(4) All X, Y, Z have same amplitude

"#$
76. Ten bells each of intensity I0 are sounded together.
The resultant intensity will be
(1) I0
!!
(2) 100 I0
(3) 10 I0 (1) 4 I (2) 3 I
(4) 1000 I0 (3) 2 I (4) Zero
83. A sound source emitting the sound moves towards 89. A resonance tube partly filled with water is in
a stationary observer with speed 30 m/s. The resonance with a tuning fork when air column is of
frequency perceived by the observer is increased 0.15 m. The level of water is reduced and the
by (speed of sound = 330 m/s) resonance is once again observed at 0.47 m. The
end correction is
(1) 5% (2) 10%
(1) 0.04 m (2) 0.1 m
(3) 12.5% (4) 15%
(3) 0.01 m (4) 0.001 m
84. Which of the following factors determine the speed
of a mechanical wave in a medium? 90. Two sound waves P and Q propagating through a
medium are represented by following displacement
(1) Wavelength time graphs. The ratio of intensities I P : I Q of
(2) Frequency waves is equal to
(3) Properties of the medium
(4) All of these
!"#$%&'()(*+,-).
!"#$%&'()(*+,-).
! !
85. At 30 m from a line source the loudness of sound ! !
is 50 dB. At 15 m from the source, the loudness "#"#$
" "#%&' %
! $ & ! ' (
level is
)!
(1) 56 dB (2) 53 dB #!
(3) 50 dB (4) 47 dB
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
86. Two sound sources emit the sounds of same
frequency f. An observer is at the mid-way between (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 16
the sources on the line joining them. When he 91. A closed organ pipe of length 3 m is vibrating in
! first overtone mode with frequency f. If an open
starts moving towards one source with speed , organ pipe vibrating in first overtone mode has a
!"
frequency 2f, then its length will be
where v is speed of sound, he hears 10 beats per
second. The value of f is (1) 1 m (2) 1.5 m
(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 2 m (4) 4 m
(3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz 92. A tube closed at one end containing air produces
87. If sound travelling through air is reflected by a rigid the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the
wall, then its phase will change by same tube is open at both ends, then the
fundamental frequency produced is
(1) 1024 Hz (2) 512 Hz
(1) Zero (2)
!
(3) 256 Hz (4) 128 Hz
" 93. The travelling wave in a stretched string is
(3) (4) described by the equation y = Asin(kx – t). The
!
maximum particle velocity is (symbols have usual
88. Which of the following is correct regarding the meanings)
&" !# (1) A (2) /k
progressive wave y = 10 sin 2 $ ! , (where x
%" !"
is in metre and t in second)? ! #
(3) (4)
(1) Angular frequency is 2 and propagation !" $
constant is
94. The ratio of speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that
(2) Frequency is 4 Hz and wavelength is 8 metre in helium gas at 300 K is ideally
!
(3) Amplitude is 10 metre and wavelength is ! #
# (1) (2)
metre " $
$ ! "
(4) Wavelength is 8 metre and frequency is Hz (3) (4)
# " #
95. Which of the following statements is wrong?
!
(1) Sound travels faster in hot days than in cold 102. A car is moving at a speed th the speed of
#
days sound in air towards a vertical wall. If frequency
(2) Sound travels slower in dry air than in moist air emitted by it is f, then frequency perceived by its
driver is
(3) Sound changes its frequency when moves from
hot region to cold region # "
(1) " (2) !
(4) Speed of sound is unaffected by pressure $ #
change at constant temperature
$ #
96. Two tuning forks A and B produce 5 beats per (3) ! (4) !
second, when sounded together. On loading fork A # $
with a little wax, it was observed that 7 beats are 103. A car blowing horn is moving towards a crossing
heard per second. If the frequency of fork B is B as shown in figure. An observer O hears
480 Hz, what is the frequency of fork A before it frequency f1, f2 and f3 when car is at A, B and C
was loaded? respectively, then
(1) 465 Hz (2) 490 Hz %! %!
%!
(3) 495 Hz (4) 475 Hz ! " #
97. Equation of a progressive wave is given by

y = (0.4 m) sin(314t – 3.14x)
where, x is in metre and t is in second. Speed of
the wave is $
(1) f1 < f2 < f3 (2) f1 = f3 < f2
(1) 100 m/s (2) 314 m/s
(3) f1 = f3 > f2 (4) f1 > f2 > f3
(3) 3.14 m/s (4) 10 m/s
104. A point source of sound wave emits sound of
98. The phase difference between two particles
frequency 120 Hz. If there are two points of
situated on either sides of a node of standing wave
observation A and B at a distance of 2 m and 8
is
m respectively from it, then ratio of amplitude of
(1) 0° (2) 90° sound at A and B is
(3) 180° (4) 360° (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
99. A sound source is moving towards a stationary (3) 1 : 4 (4) ! ! " #
observer with 1/10 of the speed of sound. The ratio
of apparent to real frequency is 105. Equation of a transverse wave is
(1) 10/9 (2) 11/9
! ! " "
# ! "#$% # & $ , where distance x is in
(3) (11/10)2 (4) (9/10)2 % '(') )' &
100. A point source of power (4 )W and frequency cm and time t is in second. Distance between two
800 Hz is emitting sound waves. The intensity of consecutive particles vibrating in same phase will
waves at a distance 200 m from the source is be
(1) 2.5 10–5 W/m2 (2) 2 10–5 W/m2 (1) 20 cm
(3) 1 10–5 W/m2 (4) 2.5 W/m2 (2) 40 cm
101. If n, and v are frequency, wavelength and speed (3) 60 cm
of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum then which
(4) 10 cm
of the following is correct?
106. In standing wave, node is a point of
(1) v n
(1) Maximum strain
(2) v
(3) v is independent of n and (2) Maximum pressure
(3) Maximum density
!
(4) " (4) All of these
107. A uniform metal wire of density , cross-sectional 113. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the
area A and length L is stretched under tension T. frequency is reduced to half, then intensity of
The speed of transverse wave in the wire is given sound at the same point will
by
(1) Increase by a factor of 4
!" ! (2) Decrease by a factor of 4
(1) (2)
# "# (3) Increase by a factor of 2
! " (4) Remain unchanged
(3) (4)
# #
114. A stationary wave along a stretched string is given
108. The displacements of a particle located at x at
time t due to two waves are given by !
by " !"#$ %&"'( # ) where x and y are in
*
!! " !"#$ # $% % and !! " !"#$ # $% % metre and t is in s. Separation between first node
and third antinode is
If the amplitude of the resultant wave formed by the
superposition of these two waves is a, then the (1) 1.5 m (2) 7.5 m
phase constant is equal to (3) 6 m (4) 9.5 m
115. A sound source produces a sound level of 20 dB
(1) Zero (2) at a point. If the frequency of sound is increased
!
10 times keeping the amplitude constant, then
! " sound level at the same position is given by
(3) (4)
" % (1) 50 dB (2) 40 dB
109. A standing wave having 5 nodes and 4 antinodes
(3) 60 dB (4) 20 dB
is formed between two atoms having a distance of
2.3 Å. Wavelength of the standing wave is 116. For a sound wave travelling in air towards +x
(1) 2.25 Å (2) 1.15 Å direction, variation of pressure P with position x is
shown. Amplitude of the wave is
(3) 2.3 Å (4) 4.6 Å
[Bulk modulus of air = 5 × 105 Pa]
110. Two trains cross each other travelling in opposite
direction at 54 km/h. One engine sound whistle. !"%&'(
The apparent frequency heard by observer in the !
, )-)$!
other train before crossing is 770 Hz. The apparent
frequency after they cross each other is (speed of !"$
sound in air 335 m/s)
!"# #)%*(
(1) 844 Hz (2) 544 Hz !
+, )-)$!
(3) 644 Hz (4) 744 Hz
(1) 10–2 m (2) 10–4 m
111. An organ pipe of length 1 m is closed at one end.
The velocity of sound in air is 300 m/s. The air (3) 10 –1 m (4) 102 m
column in the pipe will not resonate for sound of
117. Nine tuning forks are arranged in order of
frequency
increasing frequency. Each tuning fork produces 4
(1) 75 Hz (2) 225 Hz beats per second when sounded with either of its
immediate neighbours. If frequency of the 9 th
(3) 300 Hz (4) 375 Hz
tuning fork is twice that of the first, then the
112. One mole nitrogen is mixed with three moles of frequency of the first tuning fork is
H2. The ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to (1) 32 Hz (2) 40 Hz
that in H2 at the same temperature is
(3) 48 Hz (4) 56 Hz
% * 118. An open pipe is vertically dipped half in water. Now
(1) (2)
! + frequency of third harmonic of the dipped pipe is
found to be higher by 100 Hz than fundamental
! !# frequency of the original open pipe. The
(3) (4) fundamental frequency of the open pipe is
"# $/
(1) 100 Hz (2) 50 Hz 124. A tuning fork is kept between two organ pipes
A and B. Organ pipe A is closed at one end and
(3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz
is of length 15 cm while organ pipe B is opened
119. Equation of a wave is given by at both ends as shown. If fourth overtone of pipe
y = 0.4 sin(314t – 3.14x), B and first overtone of pipe A are in resonance
with tuning fork then the length of open organ
where x and y in metre and time t is in second. pipe is
Velocity of the wave is 100 m/s along
! "
(1) Positive x axis (2) Negative x axis
(3) Positive y axis (4) Negative y axis
120. Two plane progressive waves are given by (1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 50 cm (4) 60 cm
! "
y1 = Asin(at – bx) and # ! $ ,-" # %" &! $. 125. A closed organ pipe of length 1.2 m vibrates in its
% / &
first overtone mode. The pressure variation is
where y1 and y2 are the displacement of medium maximum at
particle, t is time, a and b are positive constants
and other symbols have their usual meanings. (1) 0.4 m from the closed end
Both waves (2) 0.4 m from open end
(1) Have same phase (3) 1.0 m from the closed end
(2) Are moving in same direction (4) 0.8 m from the open end
(3) Have different wavelength 126. When an observer starts moving with uniform
acceleration towards a stationary sound source
(4) Have same speed
of frequency f0, then the apparent frequency f
121. An observer is moving towards a stationary sound varies with the time t, as
source. If speed of observer is increased by 20%,
! !
then percentage change in the wavelength of
sound as observed by observer is !!
!!
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(1) (2)
(3) 25% (4) Zero
" "
122. Tension in a stretched wire is increased by
56.25%. In order to keep frequency unchanged, ! !
length of the wire is to be increased by
(1) 15% (2) 25%
(3) 30% (4) 40% (3) !! (4) !!
123. y-x graph of a travelling wave along +x direction is " "
shown at any instant t. (Symbols have their usual
meanings). Velocity of particle at 127. A perfectly elastic uniform string is suspended
vertically with its upper end fixed to the ceiling.
A transverse wave pulse is setup at lower end.
"
Pulse travels upward with
(1) Decreasing speed
!$ !#
! (2) Increasing speed
!" !!
(3) Constant acceleration
(4) Both (2) & (3)
128. A small dog is barking at a power of 4 mW. Its
(1) x1 is downward intensity level of sound emitted at a distance of
(2) x2 is downward 1 m from the dog is
(3) x3 is upward (1) 90 dB (2) 10–3 dB
(4) x4 is downward (3) 120 dB (4) Zero
129. Which of the following confirms the transverse 135. A string is fixed at both ends and set to vibrate in
nature of waves? five loops. If the wavelength is 8 cm then the
(1) Diffraction (2) Polarisation length of the string is
(3) Interference (4) All of these (1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm
130. A train moves towards a stationary observer with (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
speed 34 m/s. The train sounds whistle and its
136. If maximum speed of a particle in a medium
frequency perceived by observer is f1. If the train’s
carrying a travelling wave is v0, then the speed of
speed is reduced to 17 m/s the frequency perceived
the particle when its displacement is half of the
!! maximum value is
is f2. The ratio of is (speed of sound is 340 m/s)
!"
!
(1) v0 (2) (!
!$ !% #
(1) (2)
!% !& #
!
(3) !! (4) %!
!" &' " $
(3) (4)
!# &$ 137. A progressive wave is travelling along x-axis so that
131. Which of the following statements is incorrect? its wavelength is 20 cm. The minimum distance
(1) In solids, longitudinal waves travel faster than between two particles in the medium which have
transverse waves same velocity is
(2) Reverberation time in an auditorium increases (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
if the volume of enclosure increases
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
(3) Phenomenon of beats can be observed
between sound sources of different nature 138. A transverse displacement of a string (fixed at
both ends) is given by
(4) Doppler’s effect in sound is symmetrical
132. Two identical point sources of sound A and B are !! "
kept at two points (2, 0) m and (–2, 0) m "#"$ %&' #
! ! !" " # " $ ()%*+!" # , where, y and
% - &
respectively. When both sources are switched on,
x are in metre and t is in second. The speed of
loudness at point (0, 4) m is L1 and when only one
constituent waves is
source is switched on, loudness is L2 . If L1 – L2 =
(in dB unit), then the value of n is (1) 120 m/s (2) 150 m/s
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 180 m/s (4) 200 m/s
(3) 9 (4) 2 139. The phase difference between two particles
133. A vehicle moving towards a cliff blows horn. The situated on either side of an antinode of a standing
driver observes that the reflected sound has its wave is
pitch one octave higher than the actual pitch of the
sound. If v is the velocity of sound wave, then the (1) 0° (2) 90°
velocity of vehicle is (3) 180° (4) 360°
! ! 140. Two tuning forks A and B produce 12 beats in two
(1) (2)
! # seconds when vibrated together. If tuning fork B is
loaded with some wax, it is observed that 6 beats
! !
(3) (4) per second is heard. If frequency of tuning fork A
! ! is 350 Hz then the frequency of B before it was
134. Length of a sonometer wire stretched between two loaded, is
points is 105 cm. Two bridges are kept between
two ends so that sonometer wire is divided into (1) 349 Hz (2) 356 Hz
three parts whose fundamental frequencies are in (3) 362 Hz (4) 348 Hz
ratio of 1 : 5 : 15. The lengths of three parts are
141. Two sound waves of wavelength 1 m and 1.01 m
(1) 5 cm, 20 cm, 80 cm in a gas produce 10 beats in 3 second. The
(2) 20 cm, 35 cm, 50 cm velocity of sound in the gas is nearly equal to
(3) 25 cm, 35 cm, 45 cm (1) 350 m/s (2) 337 m/s
(4) 75 cm, 25 cm, 5 cm (3) 307 m/s (4) 280 m/s
142. A uniform rope of length l is suspended from a (1) 8 Hz (2) 10 Hz
ceiling as shown. A particle is dropped from the
(3) 12 Hz (4) 15 Hz
ceiling at the instant a wave pulse is formed at the
lower end. Where will the particle meet the pulse? 148. A uniform string of length 60 cm is fixed at its both
ends. When excited, standing wave is formed in it,
$%&'()*+
"!"!# ,&-..+, ! !"
given by " ! "#$ # $ %&"'(! # ) where, x is in
% *+ &
! cm and t is in second. Distance between
consecutive nodes is
/%0+!.1*2+ (1) 30 cm (2) 50 cm
3+4+&%'+,!%'!"!"!#
(3) 15 cm (4) 100 cm
! 149. Two sound waves of wavelength 8 m and 7 m are
(1) distance from the top
" travelling along same line in same direction. On
superposition they produce 12 beats in 2 s. The
!
(2) distance from the bottom speed of sound wave in the medium is
"
(1) 300 m/s (2) 336 m/s
"
(3) distance from the bottom (3) 340 m/s (4) 350 m/s
#
150. Length of a closed organ pipe is 20 cm. When air
(4) At mid point of the rope column in it is excited by a source of frequency
143. The longitudinal waves whose frequencies are 1275 Hz, it resonates in (Given speed of sound in
above 20 kHz are called air is 340 m/s)
(1) Ultrasonic waves (2) Shock waves (1) First harmonic (2) First overtone
(3) Second harmonic (4) Second overtone
(3) Infrasonic waves (4) Audible waves
151. Distance between consecutive antinodes in the
144. A tuning fork has frequency 200 Hz. If velocity of
vibration of an organ pipe is 10 cm frequency of
sound in air is 330 m/s, then the distance, sound
the vibration of the pipe is (V = 330 m/s)
wave traversed while tuning fork completed 20
vibrations is (1) 825 Hz (2) 1650 Hz
(1) 11 m (2) 22 m (3) 3300 Hz (4) 4950 Hz
(3) 33 m (4) 44 m 152. Which of the following equations represents a

stationary wave?
145. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is
200 Hz. If its tension becomes twice and diameter (1) y = a sin t coskx (2) y = a cos t sinkx
becomes half without changing material and its (3) y = a sin t sinkx (4) All of these
length, then its new fundamental frequency will be
153. If amplitude of a wave at distance r from a point
(1) !"" # $% (2) !"" # $% source is A, then its amplitude at distance 2r from
the source is
(3) $%% ! &' (4) !%% ! &'
$
146. The mechanical waves in a gaseous medium are (1) A (2)
%
(1) Always transverse
(2) Always longitudinal ) )
(3) (4)
" #
(3) Either transverse or longitudinal
154. Fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal 200 Hz. If one end of the pipe is closed, its
147. A sonometer wire of length L is vibrating with fundamental frequency becomes
fundamental frequency 60 Hz. If length of the wire (1) 100 Hz (2) 200 Hz
is increased by 20%, then change in frequency of
the sonometer wire is (3) 50 Hz (4) 400 Hz
155. Light from a distance galaxy shows red shift. It ! "! !! " !! "
indicates 162. The equation " !# " $ # %&' # $" $ ()% # !$
% & % &
(1) Galaxy is stationary w.r.t. the earth represents
(2) Galaxy is moving away from the earth (1) Transverse progressive wave
(3) Galaxy is approaching the earth (2) Longitudinal progressive wave

(3) Longitudinal stationary wave
(4) That nothing can be concluded
(4) Transverse stationary wave
156. Speed of sound is maximum in
163. The tension of a stretched string is increased by
(1) Vacuum (2) Water 69%. In order to keep its frequency of vibration
(3) Air (4) Steel constant, its length must be increased by
(1) 20% (2) 30%
157. A stretched string under certain load has
fundamental frequency f. When the string is (3) !"# (4) 69%
divided into two parts, fundamental frequencies of
both parts are f 1 and f 2 under same tension. 164. When a tuning fork vibrates, the wave produced in
Which of the following relation is correct? it are
(1) Longitudinal (2) Transverse
!!!" !"! !!! (3) Electromagnetic (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) ! (2) !
!! !" ! 165. How many times more intense is a 60 dB sound
compared to a 30 dB sound?
!!!" !! !"
(3) ! (4) ! (1) 100 (2) 4
!! !" !
(3) 1000 (4) 2
158. When sound wave travels from air to water, which 166. What should be velocity of sound source moving
of the following quantities remains constant? towards a stationary observer so that apparent
(1) Velocity (2) Frequency frequency is double the actual frequency (velocity
of sound is v)?
(3) Wavelength (4) All of these
(1) v (2) 2v
159. The phase difference between two points separated
(3) v/2 (4) v/4
by 1 m in a progressive wave of frequency 120 Hz
is 90°. The wave velocity is 167. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end, with
the result the frequency of third harmonic of the
(1) 180 m/s (2) 240 m/s closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than
(3) 480 m/s (4) 720 m/s fundamental frequency of open pipe. Frequency of
open pipe is
160. Equations of two waves are given by y1 = asin( t –
(1) 200 Hz (2) 300 Hz
kx) and y2 = asin(kx + t) then
(3) 240 Hz (4) 480 Hz
(1) They are moving in opposite direction
168. Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes
(2) Phase between them is 90° 8 m, 4 m and 5 m arrive at a given point with
(3) Phase between them is 180° successive phase difference of /2. The amplitude
of the resulting wave in m is
(4) Phase between them is 0°
(1) 7 (2) 4
161. The equation of a progressive wave is (3) 5 (4) 8
y = 25 sin(20t + 5x), where y is displacement, hence
the incorrect statement is that the $)
169. A travelling wave pulse is $ . In
" (& #% *!
(1) Amplitude of the wave is 25 units
which direction and with what velocity is pulse
(2) Wave is propagating in positive x-direction propagating?
(3) Velocity of wave is 4 units (1) +x, 9 m/s (2) –x, 2 m/s
(4) Maximum velocity of particle is 500 units (3) +x, 3 m/s (4) –x, 3 m/s
170. Slope of a transverse vibrating string is numerically Select incorrect statement(s)
equal to
(1) It is a travelling wave along –ve x-axis
01234235,+&67 (2) It is a travelling wave along positive x-axis
(1) 8196&+534235,+&67
(3) It is travelling with frequency 100 Hz
(2) Wave velocity × Particle velocity (4) It is travelling with wavelength 1 m
8196&+534235,+&67 176. Two sound waves given by x1 = 0.2 m sin100 t and

(3) x2 = 0.2 m sin110 t superpose to produce beats.
01234235,+&67
The time interval between two consecutive minima
is
! "#$%&$%'()*+,
(4) -#.+*)'%&$%'()*+, (1) 0.1 second (2) 0.2 second
(3) 0.3 second (4) 0.4 second
171. A sound wave of wavelength 0.31 m is travelling in
air. The pressure at a point varied from (105 – 14) 177. Which one of the following graphs represents
pascal to (105 + 14) pascal and particles vibrate in correctly the given wave equation at origin?
SHM with amplitude 5.5 × 10–6 m. Bulk modulus of
! "
air is ! ! " #$% # ! " " #
% " $&
(1) 1.1 × 102 N/m2 (2) 1.2 × 103 N/m2
!
(3) 1.3 × 104 N/m2 (4) 1.4 × 105 N/m2
"##!
!
172. What is minimum distance of a sound reflector from
a person for hearing echo of his own bisyllabic sound !"#"$
"
(1)
if he utters 5 syllables per second (vs = 330 m/s)?
$"##!
(1) 66 m (2) 33 m
(3) 17 m (4) 165 m !
173. Mark correct option !""#

!"#"$
(1) At antinodes pressure is maximum "
(2)
(2) At antinodes pressure is minimum $"#
$!""#
(3) At antinodes particle speed is minimum
!
(4) Both (2) & (3)
!""#
174. Two stereo speakers are separated by a distance of #
2.4 m. A man is standing at a distance of 3.2 m "
directly infront of one speaker as shown. The (3) !"#"$
frequency for which man will hear minimum sound $!""#
intensity, is [Given, speed of sound = 320 m/s)
!"#$% !
!""#
(4)
!"#$%
"
!"#"$
$!""#
178. Velocity of sound wave in a medium is 350 m/s.

The energy density in the medium is
(1) 600 Hz (2) 1000 Hz
!
(3) 1400 Hz (4) All of these !" ! J/m3. The intensity of sound at a point
#$%
175. A wave equation is given by in the medium is
! ! !"#" $ "&'()(*+,(-.!'" .&!' # / (1) 1 W/m2 (2) 0.1 W/m2
where y(x, t) and x are in metre and t is in second. (3) 0.01 W/m2 (4) 0.001 W/m2
179. Two identical sonometer wires oscillate in unison. 186. A wave is represented by equation
When tension in one wire is increased by 1%,
then four beats per second are heard. The original y = A sin(kx – t), then velocity of particle at any
frequency of the wires is instant t is
(1) 800 Hz (2) 600 Hz (1) /k (2) – A cos(kx – t)
(3) 400 Hz (4) 200 Hz (3) Ak cos(kx – t) (4) A sin(kx – t)

180. A sonometer wire of length 50 cm vibrates at 187. If the distance between the source and listener is
100 Hz. If the length is shortened to 40 cm and halved, then the loudness will
the tension is quadrupled then the new frequency
of vibration will be (1) Increase by 3 dB (2) Increase by 6 dB
(1) 125 Hz (2) 250 Hz (3) Decrease by 3 dB (4) Decrease by 6 dB

(3) 200 Hz (4) 325 Hz 188. Two wires x and y are in unison. If tension in wire
181. The third overtone of a closed pipe is resonating x is increased by 4% then 3 beats are produced.
with the first overtone of an open pipe. Ratio of the The frequency of wire y is
lengths of the pipes is (1) 300 Hz (2) 100 Hz
" ! (3) 250 Hz (4) 150 Hz
(1) (2)
! $
189. If fundamental frequency of closed pipe is 50 Hz,
$ " then frequency of second overtone is
(3) (4)
! #
(1) 100 Hz (2) 50 Hz
182. The wavelength of the spectral line coming from a
star is changed from 6000 Å to 6001 Å. The (3) 250 Hz (4) 150 Hz
receding velocity of the star with respect to the 190. If the temperature of atmosphere is increased,
earth is then the characteristics of sound not affected is
(1) 2.5 × 104 m/s (2) 5 × 104 m/s
(1) Wave number (2) Frequency
(3) 7.5 × 104 m/s (4) 2 × 104 m/s
(3) Velocity (4) Wavelength
183. At a distance 20 m from an isotropic point source
of sound, the loudness level is 30 dB. Neglecting 191. Two tuning forks A and B when sounded together
the damping of the sound source, the loudness produces 8 beats/second. B is loaded with wax
level at a distance 10 m from the source is again sounded with A and beat frequency remains
unchanged. If frequency of A is 250 Hz, then
(1) 33 dB (2) 60 dB
frequency of B is
(3) 120 dB (4) 36 dB
(1) 256 (2) 242
184. The displacement of particles in a string stretched
in the x-direction is represented by y. Among the (3) 258 (4) 262
following expression for y, those describing wave 192. If a string fixed at both ends vibrates in four loops,
motion is (are) the wavelength is 10 cm. Length of the string is
(1) k2x2 – 2t2 (2) coskxsin t
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) cos2(kx + t) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) 25 cm (4) 2 cm
185. In Doppler’s effect of sound, the apparent
wavelength is 193. A travelling wave passes through a string with a
speed of 24 ms–1. Two points on the string are
(1) More than real wavelength when listener goes observed. The points are at x1 = 0 and x2 = 1m.
away If transverse motion of one point is y1 = A sin(3 t)
(2) More than real wavelength when source comes then equation of motion of other point will be
closer
! "
(3) Same as real wavelength when listener goes (1) y2 = A sin (3 t) (2) ! ! " !"# # $ #
% % $&
away
(4) Less than real wavelength when source goes ! " ! "
(3) ! ! " !"# # $ # (4) ! ! " !"# # $ #
away % % $& % & $&
194. The smallest sound level can be detected by 199. Equation of a stationary wave is
human ear is y = 0.6 sin(314t) cos(3.14x), where x is in metre
(1) 0.5 dB (2) 0.2 dB and t is in second. Distance between two
consecutive nodes is
(3) 0 dB (4) 1 dB
(1) 2 m (2) 1.5 m
195. A source of sound and a detector is shown in the
figure. Detector is moving along a circle with (3) 1 m (4) 0.5 m
constant angular speed . It starts from shown 200. Two wires made of same material having same
location at t = 0. Time after which detector will length and of radii r and 2r respectively are welded
hear maximum frequency for first time, is together end to end. The combination is used as
!"#"$#%& a sonometer wire and is kept under a tension T.
'!()(*+ When stationary waves are set up in the wires
then joint is a node. The ratio of number of loops
" formed in the wires, is
,%-&$" (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

" ."
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
201. Velocity of sound in air is 330 ms–1. Distance
travelled by sound while a tuning fork of frequency
! # 250 Hz makes 100 vibrations, is
(1) (2)
" " (1) 3.30 m (2) 2.50 m
! # (3) 1.32 m (4) 132 m
(3) (4)
"
SECTION - B
196. A metal rod of length 80 cm is clamped at one of
its end and set into longitudinal vibrations. Density Assertion - Reason Type Questions
of metal is 3000 kg m–3 and its Young’s modulus
is 12 × 109 Nm–2. If rod vibrates with fundamental
mode, then frequency of sound produced is (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) 240 Hz (2) 625 Hz (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) 1250 Hz (4) 120 Hz assertion, then mark (1).
197. Which of the following is not the property of
standing wave?
(1) Particles on the opposite side of a node in two assertion, then mark (2).
consecutive loops vibrates in same phase
(2) Distance between consecutive node and
antinode is equal to one fourth of the
wavelength (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Particles at nodes are at rest and there is no statements, then mark (4).
transfer of energy across a node 1. A : In case of a stationary wave, a person hear a
(4) All the particles of medium pass through their loud sound at the nodes as compared to the
mean position simultaneously twice in each antinodes.
time period
R : Pressure variation is highest at nodes and
198. When a closed pipe produces fifth harmonic, then sound travells as pressure wave in air.
number of displacement antinodes is
2. A : During propagation of a mechanical wave
(1) 5
intensity at a point is equal to net oscillation
(2) 3 energy of medium per unit volume.
(3) 2 R : Intensity at a point depends on the pressure of
(4) 7 the medium in which the wave propagates.
3. A : The standing wave does not transmit energy 10. A : Wavelength of sound wave does not change
through medium. when observer moves away or towards source
at rest.
R : When a wave undergoes a reflection from a
highly rigid medium, the phase of occur R : Doppler effect in sound is not symmetrical.
between reflected and incident wave.
11. A : There is no effect of change in pressure on
4. A : When a point source approaches a stationary velocity of sound in air, provided temperature
observer at rest, loudness of sound increases remain constant.
as observed by the observer.
R : Change in gas pressure also causes change in
R : Intensity of sound is inversely proportional to
gas volume in isothermal process.
the square of distance from the source.
5. A : Pitch of narrow open organ pipe is more than 12. A : Both closed and open organ pipe of same
the pitch of wider open organ pipe of same length cannot resonance at some common
length. frequency.
R : Open organ pipe produces all harmonics. R : An open pipe and a closed pipe of equal
6. A : Sound travels slower in humid air than in dry length cannot have the same frequency at any
air. harmonic.
R : Humidity increases the density of air. 13. A : When a wave travels from one medium to
another its frequency does not change.
7. A : The fundamental frequency of an open organ
pipe increases as temperature of air inside is R : When the wave travels from one medium to
increased. another its propagation constant changes
alongwith velocity.
R : As temperature increases the velocity of sound
increases. 14. A : Velocity of sound in humid air is more than that
8. A : When a sound source moves away from an in dry air.
stationary observer, the apparent frequency of
sound decreases. !
R : Velocity of sound .
"#$%&'(
R : Wavelength of sound in medium towards
observer increases.
15. A : The speed of sound in solids is maximum.
9. A : Transverse waves are not produced in gases.
R : The coefficient of elasticity of solid is large and
R : Light waves are transverse waves. is dominant over density.
!" !" !
Chapter 11
Thermal Properties of Matter
6. Thermal radiation are

SECTION - A
(1) Electromagnetic waves
(2) Mechanical transverse waves
1. Recently, the phenomenon of super conductivity
has been observed at 73 K. This temperature is (3) Mechanical longitudinal waves
nearly equal to (4) All of these
(1) – 288°F (2) – 146°F 7. 40 g water at 60°C is mixed with 30 g ice at 0°C.
(3) – 328°F (4) + 178°F The final temperature of the mixture is (latent heat
of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g and specific heat of
2. When the pressure on surface of water is water is 1 cal/g°C)
increased its boiling point will
(1) 0°C (2) 60°C
(1) Decrease (2) Increase
(3) 30°C (4) 50°C
(3) Remain same (4) Increase or decrease
8. What is the ratio of the temperature T1 and T2 in
3. 50 g ice at 0°C is dropped in a calorimeter of following graph?
negligible heat capacity containing 50 g water at
"
100°C, then final temperature (Tm) of the mixture is
(neglect the heat loss)
(1) 10°C (2) Below 0°
(3) 20°C (4) Above 20°C !!
4. Pressure of a gas at absolute zero temperature will !"

be [where P0 is 1 atm]
# # !"# #
(1) Zero (2) P0
(1) 3 : 2
(3) P0 × 273 (4) P0 × 76
(2) 2 : 1
5. Three rods of same dimension have thermal
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as (3) 4 : 3
shown in figure given below. Temperature of junction (4) 1 : 1
is
9. A room has double layered wall. The thickness of
&"#$ each layer is the same and the ratio of the thermal
'!
conductivity of inner layer and outer layer is 1 : 2.
!""#$ If room temperature is 24°C and the outside
%! temperature is 0°C, the temperature at the junction
! of the two layers is
'"#$
(1) 60°C (2) 70°C (1) 8°C (2) 12°C
(3) 50°C (4) 35°C (3) 15°C (4) 18°C
204 Thermal Properties of Matter Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. The temperature of a body falls from 75°C to 65°C 16. Water is heated from 0°C to 6°C. Its density
in ten minutes. If the surrounding temperature is
(1) Decreases
25°C, the temperature of the body after the next ten
minutes will be (2) First decreases and then increases
(1) 61.5°C (2) 57°C (3) First increases and then decreases
(3) 55°C (4) 51.5°C (4) Remains constant
11. Two rods P and Q are of equal length having 17. A thermostat cannot work properly. If the metal
cross-sections AP and AQ respectively. If kP and strips constituting it have
k Q are their thermal conductivities, then the
(1) Same length
condition for their equal rate of conduction of heat
will be (2) Same mass
!" !! (3) Same temperature

(1) kPAP = kQAQ (2) "" "! (4) Same coefficient of thermal expansion
! !
18. An anisotropic material has coefficient of linear
(3) kPAQ = kQAP (4) ! ! "! !" "" expansion 1, 2 and 1 along x, y and z-axis.
The coefficient of cubical expansion is
12. Three identical rods are joined together as shown
in the figure. The temperature of the junction O is ! "
(1)
"#$ !
!
%&"#$ ! " ! "
(2)
!
!"#$ (3) 2 1 + 2
(1) 50°C (2) 70°C (4) 2 +
2 1
(3) 100°C (4) 125°C 19. 200 g of water at 50°C is poured on a block of ice
13. The temperature of surface of sun is nearly 6000 at 0°C. The amount of ice that melts is
K and the amount of total energy emitted by sun
(1) 50 g (2) 75 g
per second is 4 × 10 26J. If the temperature of
surface of sun were 18000 K, then the amount of (3) 125 g (4) 250 g
thermal radiation emitted by same will be 20. The approximate measured value of solar constant
(1) 3.24 × 1028 W is
(2) 2.52 × 1028 W (1) 620 watt/m2 (2) 1360 watt/m2

(3) 1880 watt/m2 (4) 2420 watt/m2
(3) 8 × 1026 W
21. A black body at 727°C radiates heat at the rate of
(4) 16 × 1027 W 112 cal/cm 2 s. If its temperature is lowered to
14. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. The 227°C, the rate of heat radiated will be
time taken by it to cool from 60°C to 50°C will be
(1) 5 cal/cm2s
(temperature of surrounding is 40°C)
(2) 7 cal/cm2s
(3) 9 cal/cm2s
15. Four rods of same material with different radii r and (4) 11 cal/cm2s
length ! are used to connect to heat reservoirs at 22. On adding impurity to a liquid, its boiling point
different temperatures. In which of following case
(1) Increases
heat conduction is fastest?
(2) Decreases
! !
(1) ! "# ! "# (2) r = 3 cm, ! = 9 cm
$ $ (3) Remains same
(3) r = 4 cm ! = 8 cm (4) r = 1 cm ! = 1 cm (4) May increase or decrease
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Thermal Properties of Matter 205
23. If a graph is plotted between temperature of a body 30. Net rate of loss of heat of a body is given by
on degree celsius (along y-axis) and degree !" ! !
fahrenheit [along x-axis] at different temperature, # $ $" .
!%
then slope of graph will be
This relation is valid for
! " (1) All bodies and all temperature range
(1) (2)
" ! (2) Only for small difference between T and T0
(3) Only in cooling of solids
# !
(3) (4) (4) Only for the surface of black body
! #
31. Temperature of a body is raised by 360°C. Rise in
24. A good emitter of heat is a temperature of the body in absolute scale is
(1) Good absorber (2) Bad absorber (1) 50 K (2) 200 K
(3) 550 K (4) 360 K
(3) Good reflector (4) Good conductor
32. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the
25. Unit of Stefan’s constant is combination is
(1) watt m2/K4 (2) watt m2K4 " "
(3) watt / m2K4 (4) watt m2/K #$
! # ! !"!
26. Two metallic spheres of copper have same radii, "
#$
one sphere is solid and other is hollow. If same % !"&" "'
amount of heat is given to both spheres, then # !"!
(1) Solid sphere will expand more than hollow
sphere !!
(1) 2 k (2)
"
(2) Hollow sphere will expand more than solid
!!
sphere (3) 3 k (4)
"
(3) Both will expand equally 33. Solid floating in a liquid. On decreasing the
(4) Both may expand equally temperature solid sinks into the liquid. If ! and s
are volume expansion coefficient of liquid and linear
27. If a uniform metallic rod heated from one end is in
steady state, then temperature of every cross expansion coefficient of solid, then
section of rod is (1) ! >3 s (2) ! <3 s
(1) Equal and constant (3) ! =3 s (4) ! =2 s

34. In the given heat and temperature graph of a
(2) Equal and vary with time
substance. Choose the correct statement
(3) Different and constant
!"#$"%&!'%"
(4) Different and vary with time
)
28. A body floats in a liquid completely immersed. The
$"%
coefficient of linear expansion of body is and

!"#
coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is . If on

#$%
heating the system some part of body comes !"
outside the liquid, then the value of may be ("&!
" ! )! )*+! ,*+!
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Latent heat of fusion is more than latent heat
(3) 4 (4) All of these of vapourisation
29. Thermal conductivity of a material depend on (2) Latent heat of vapourisation is more than latent
heat of fusion
(1) Temperature
(3) Specific heat in solid state is more than the
(2) Amount of substance
specific heat in liquid state
(3) State of material (4) Specific heat in liquid state is more than the
(4) Area of cross-section specific heat is solid state
35. Which of the following is true in modern 39. Thermal conductivities of two identical rods are k
thermometry? and 2k respectively. If they are joined is parallel,
then the ratio of heat flowing through them per
(1) Triple point of water is fixed second will be
(2) Boiling point of water is fixed (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) Melting point of ice is fixed (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

40. The ratio of emissive power to the absorptive power is
(4) Dew point is fixed a
36. If e denotes emissivity of a black body and a (1) Fixed dimensional constant
denotes absorbing power of a black body at the
(2) Fixed nondimensional constant
same temperature then
(3) Constant and depend on the temperature of the
! body
(1) !
" (4) Constant and depend on the temperature of
! surrounding
(2) !
" 41. Area below graphs 1 and 2 showing variation of
spectral emissive power versus wavelength as in
!
(3) ! the figure are A and 81A respectively. If
"
temperature of 1 is 1000 K, then temperature of 2
! is
(4) !
"
!
37. The wavelength corresponding to maximum emitted
energy is 4000 Å at 4000 K. If temperature is
decreased by 1000 K then emitted wavelength
"
becomes !
(1) 3000 Å (2) 5333 Å
(1) 1000 K
(3) 6000 Å (4) 5000 Å
(2) 2000 K
38. The ends of given conductor are at fixed
temperature 1 and 2 the graph of rate of heat flow (3) 3000 K
at steady state through sections along the length (4) 9000 K
is best represented by
42. A metallic scale is accurate at 18ºC. It is used to
measure length of a paper sheet at 28ºC. The
measured length is
!!
! ! "
(1) More than the actual length
! "
""#"$ (2) Less than the actual length
(3) Equal to actual length
! ! (4) May be less or more than actual length
43. The resistance of platinum resistance thermometer
(1) (2) is found to be 13.658 ohm at triple point of water.
When dipped in a bath, its resistance is found to
" " be 25.000. The temperature of bath is
! ! (1) 300 K
(2) 500 K
(3) (4)
(3) 200 K
" " (4) 100 K
44. Three rods A, B and C of same material have same 50. When temperature increases, the pendulum clock
cross sectional area but have length in the ratio 1
(1) Gains time
: 2 : 2 respectively. The left and right ends are at
30ºC and 80ºC. The temperature of junction of the (2) Loses time
rods will be
(3) May lose or gain
!"#$
(4) Its time period is independent of temperature
% 51. The radiation intensity emitted by a perfectly black
&"#$ body does not depend on
' (1) Its temperature

$ (2) Its surface area
!"#$ (3) Temperature of surrounding

(1) 20ºC (2) 55ºC (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) 45ºC (4) 10ºC 52. The rate of fall of temperature of two identical solid
45. A pond of area 50 m2 freezes to a thickness of spheres of different material are equal initially at a
20 cm in 1hr. Another pond of area 200 m2 will certain temperature then [Take emissivity to be
freeze to same thickness in equal]
(1) 4 hr (2) 3 hr (1) Their heat capacities must be equal
(3) 2 hr (4) 1 hr (2) Their specific heat capacities are proportional
46. The 100 parts of kelvin scale is equal to ‘X’ parts to their mass
of Fahrenheit scale, where ‘X’ is (3) Their specific heat are equal
(1) 100 (2) 90 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 180 (4) 75
53. In case of Wein’s displacement law, when
47. Which of the following is incorrect? temperature of perfectly black body is doubled
(1) A gas has infinite number of specific heats (1) Wavelength corresponding to maximum
(2) A thermometer should have small heat capacity intensity is halved
(3) Bulb of thermometer is made of conducting (2) Area under the graph spectral radiation
material intensity and becomes 16 times
(4) Coefficient of cubical expansion of the liquid (3) Wavelength corresponding to maximum
should be equal to that of bulb material of the intensity is also doubled
thermometer
(4) Both (1) & (2)
48. The amount of steam at 100°C required to raise the
temperature of 56.5 g of water from 15ºC to 75ºC 54. Eleven identical conducting rods are joined as
is shown in the figure. Points A and F are maintained
at temperature 100ºC and 0ºC respectively. The
(1) 6 g (2) 10 g
temperature at B and D respectively are
(3) 15 g (4) 20 g
49. When a solid body of thermal coefficient of volume
expansion ( S) is completely immersed in a liquid !""#$ "#$
% )
of coefficient of volume expansion ( L), its apparent & $ ' (
weight decreases on raising temperature. This is
possible when
(1) > (1) 80ºC, 40ºC
S L
(2) < (2) 70ºC, 60ºC
S L
(3) = (3) 70ºC, 50ºC
S L
(4) =4 (4) 90ºC, 30ºC
S L
55. # # 58. Temperature of surface of sun is given by

[r = distance between sun and earth, R = Radius
of sun, S = solar constant, = Stefen’s constant]
"! "#
!! !# " "
! !
&, # ) ! ! # &, " ) ! ! #
(1) $* ' ! (2) $* ' !
$%+ " ( !" $%+ # ( !"
" ! "
"
" "
&, # ) ! # ! & # !# !
Figure shows the graphs of spectral emissive (3) $* ' ! (4) $ !
" !! %$ "
power of a black body at two different temperatures %$+ ( " "!
T1 and T2. The ratio of area under the graphs 59. The length of two rods joined together longitudinally
is in the ratio 2 : 3 and their thermal coefficient of
! #! "
# $ is linear expansion are and 3 respectively. If their
% #" & thickness is same, then their effective coefficient of
linear expansion is
! # (1) 1.1 (2) 2.2
(1) (2)
"# $ (3) 3.3 (4) 4.4
60. An object cools from 80ºC to 70ºC in 2 min. The
! $"
(3) (4) time taken by the same object to cool from 50ºC
" "# to 40ºC [Take temperature of surrounding to be 30º]
56. A perfectly black body emits radiation at will be
temperature T1 K. If it is to radiate 81 times its (1) 2 min (2) 3 min
present thermal power, its temperature T2 should (3) 5 min (4) 6 min
be
61. The triple point of water
(1) T2 = 81 T1 (1) Has been arbitrarily assigned the value 273.16
(2) T2 = 27 T1 K
(3) T2 = 9 T1 (2) Is a point where water, ice and steam can

exist in equilibrium
(4) T2 = 3 T1
(3) Is a fixed point
57. A bimetallic strip is shown in the figure. On (4) All of these
cooling, its shape will become ( brass > steel)
62. A heated metallic sphere is allowed to cool at room
temperature. The graph which correctly represents
its cooling is
!"#$"%&'(%"
!"#$"%&'(%"
%&''(
!"#$$ (1) (2)
!"#$ !"#$
!"#$"%&'(%"
!"#$"%&'(%"
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
!"#$ !"#$
63. The dimension of thermal resistance is
(1) [MT–3 K–4]
(2) [M–1 L–2 T3 K]
(3) (4)
(3) [ML2 T–3]
(4) [LK]
64. The thermal coefficient of volume expansion of an 70. The spectral energy distribution of the sun at
ideal gas at constant pressure is temperature 6050 K has a maximum at 4753 Å.
The temperature of a star for which this maximum
" !
(1) (2) is at 9506 Å is
$ !
(1) 6050 K (2) 3025 K
# # (3) 12100 K (4) 24200 K
(3) (4)
$ " 71. 5 g of ice at 0ºC is dropped in a beaker containing
65. A faulty thermometer reads freezing point and 20 g of water at 40ºC. The final temperature of the
boiling point of water as 10ºC and 90ºC mixture will be
respectively, the correct value of temperature as it (1) 0ºC (2) 18ºC
reads 50ºC is (3) 16ºC (4) 38ºC
(1) 20ºC (2) 30ºC 72. If at temperature T1 =1000 K, the wavelength
(3) 40ºC (4) 50ºC corresponding to maximum emissive power of black
body is 3 × 10–6 m, then at what temperature the
66. A cube and a sphere of same material, same total
wavelength corresponding to maximum emissive
surface area, at same temperature are placed in
power will be 2 × 10–6 m?
same evacuated space one by one. The ratio of
(1) 2000 K (2) 1500 K
their initial rate of cooling is
(3) 1250 K (4) 3000 K
73. Given arrangement consists of inner solid cylinder
(1) # $ (2) # $ of radius R and thermal conductivity K1 and outer
! %
hollow cylinder of inner radius R, outer radius 2R
and thermal conductivity K2. Equivalent thermal
(3) # $ (4) # " conductivity of arrangement between A and B is
! ! $" $!
!!
67. An iron tyre is to be fitted onto a wooden wheel
!
1 metre in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is " !! #
!!
6 mm smaller than that of the wheel. The tyre

should be heated so that its temperature increases %! "% "
by a minimum of (coefficient of volume expansion (1) K1 + K2 (2)
&
of iron is 3.6 × 10–5 /°C) !!! " "% ! % "
(1) 167°C (2) 334°C (3) ! ! (4)
! " &
(3) 500°C (4) 1000°C 74. Two boxes containing different ideal gases at
!
68. Steam is passed into 54 g of water at 30°C till the temperature T 0 and !! are put into thermal
"
temperature of the mixture becomes 90°C. If the
contact with each other as shown in the figure.
latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g, the mass of the Heat flows between them until the gases reach a
mixture will be nearly common final temperature. Final temperature of the
(1) 80 g (2) 60 g gases will be [Ignore the heat capacity of boxes]
&!"'() &*"'()
(3) 50 g (4) 24 g
69. Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0°C when
the atmospheric temperature is –10°C. If the time
taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minute, !"#$% !"#$%
the time taken for the thickness of the ice to !" +!
change from 1 cm to 2 cm will be , "
(1) 12 minute
! !
(2) Less than 12 minute (1) !! (2) !!
" #
(3) More than 12 minute but less than 24 minute "
"
(3) $# (4) !!
(4) More than 24 minute ! #
75. Two identical rods of a metal are welded as shown 81. A cup of tea cools from 70°C to 60°C in 5 minutes.
in figure (1). A certain amount of heat flows through How much time will it take to cool from 60°C to
them is 16 minute. If the rods are welded as shown 50°C, if the temperature of surroundings is 30°C?
in figure (2) then the same amount of heat will
(1) 5 minute
flow in
!"# $!!"# (2) 7 minute
!"# $!!"#
(3) 3 minute
%&'()*+,$-
%&'()*+,.- (4) 9 minute
(1) 1 minute (2) 4 minutes 82. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals
(3) 16 minutes (4) 2 minutes
(1) Dew point of the surrounding
76. In the spectrum of a black body at two temperature
27ºC and 327ºC, let A1 and A2 be the areas under (2) Critical pressure
!! (3) 760 mm of Hg pressure
the two curves respectively. The value of ! is
"
(4) The atmospheric pressure
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 4 : 1
83. For a perfect black body the emissivity
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
(1) Is always equal to one
77. Water cools from 80°C to 60°C in 20 minute. What
will be the temperature of water after the next 20 (2) Depends on temperature of body
minute if surrounding temperature is 40°C?
(3) Is independent of temperature of body
(1) 50°C (2) 52°C
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) 48°C (4) 45°C
84. The energy radiated (E) per unit time per unit area
78. A celsius scale and a Fahrenheit scale are
arranged to measure the temperature of a water by an object at temperature T (in kelvin) is related
bath. If the temperature change recorded by celsius to its temperature as
scale is 10°C, then the change recorded by (1) E T (2) E T2
Fahrenheit scale is
(3) E T4 (4) E T3
(1) 50° F
85. If a solid is floating on a liquid, then which of the
(2) 32° F
following statements is wrong? ( = thermal
(3) 18° F coefficient of linear expansion of solid, = thermal
(4) 10° F coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid)
79. A uniform steel rod is used as a bar compound (1) If > 3 , then upon heating the solid will float
pendulum. If the temperature rises by 5°C, the with more fraction of volume in the liquid
percentage change in time period of pendulum will
(2) If > 3 , then upon heating the solid will float
be (take thermal coefficient of linear expansion for
with lesser volume in the liquid
steel as 4 × 10–6 per °C)
(1) 0.5×10–3 (3) If > 3 , then upon heating the fraction of
volume of solid in liquid remains constant
(2) 0.25×10–3
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) 1×10–3
(4) 2×10–3 86. There are two holes in a metal sheet. If the sheet
is heated, then the distance between the holes will
80. For the measurement of temperature of the order
of 4500°C, we will prefer (1) Increase
(1) Mercury Thermometer (2) Decrease
(2) Alcohol Thermometer (3) Remain constant
(3) Radiation Thermometer (4) May either increase or decrease depending on
(4) Thermocouple the positions of the holes on the sheet
87. A metal wire of length l and area of cross-section 94. Three solid substances A, B and C of equal mass
A is fixed at its ends by rigid supports at negligible are heated with constant thermal power. Their
tension. If this wire is cooled, then the tension in temperature versus time graph is shown. Which of
it will be the following is correct?
(1) Proportional to l
!"#$"%&'(%"
$
(2) Inversely proportional to l #
(3) Independent of l "

(4) Independent of A
!"#$%&!'
88. Which temperature on Fahrenheit scale is same
as that on Celsius scale? (1) Specific heat of A is greatest
(1) – 40°F (2) – 42°F (2) Specific heat of C is greatest
(3) – 70°F (4) – 72°F (3) Specific heat of B is greatest

(4) All of them have same specific heat
89. Which of the following substances has highest
specific heat capacity among others? 95. Which of the following modes of heat transmission
does not require medium?
(1) Aluminium (2) Copper
(1) Conduction (2) Convection
(3) Water (4) Tungsten
(3) Radiation (4) All of these
90. Water has maximum density at the temperature
96. Water is falling from a height of 420 m. What is the
(1) 273 K (2) 277 K rise in its temperature? (Assuming whole of its
(3) 300 K (4) 373 K potential energy is converted into heat)
91. Density of a substance (having positive thermal (1) 0.1°C (2) 0.5°C
coefficient of linear expansion) at 10°C is 2 g/cm3. (3) 1°C (4) 0°C
Its density at 30°C may be
97. The absolute zero temperature on Fahrenheit scale
(1) 2 g/cm3 (2) 3 g/cm3 is (approximately)
(3) 1.5 g/cm3 (4) 5 g/cm3 (1) –273°F
92. 100 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g of water (2) –32°F
at 100°C. What will be the final temperature of the (3) –460°F
mixture? (Assume no heat loss)
(4) –132°F
(1) 20°C (2) 40°C
98. The triple point of water has its value of temperature
(3) 30°C (4) 10°C and pressure as
93. The variation of density of water with temperature (1) 273.16 K, 0.006 atm
is correctly represented by the graph
(2) 273.16 K, 0.06 atm
(3) 373.16 K, 0.006 atm
!"#$%&'
!"#$%&'
(4) 373.16 K, 0.06 atm

(1) (2) 99. A black body is heated to a temperature of 300 K.
The wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral
!"#$"%&'(%" !"#$"%&'(%"
emissive power is nearly
(1) 10–5 m
!"#$%&'
!"#$%&'
(2) 10–4 m
(3) (4) (3) 10–10 m
!"#$"%&'(%" !"#$"%&'(%" (4) 10–8 m
100. The plots of spectral intensity I versus wavelength 105. 100 g ice at 0°C is dropped into a calorimeter of
of radiation emitted from three black bodies at water equivalent 100 g containing 100 g water at
temperature T1, T2 and T3 respectively are shown. 40°C. Resulting temperature of the mixture at
Their temperature are such that equilibrium is
(1) 0°C
!# (2) 20°C
!"
!! (3) –5°C
!
(4) 10°C
106. A sphere, a disc and a ring of same metal and
radius are given same amount of heat, then
increase in radius
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 > T3 > T2
(1) Of sphere will be largest
(3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T3 > T2 > T1
(2) Is maximum for ring
101. If the temperature of a black body increases from
(3) Is maximum for disc
7°C to 287°C, then the rate of energy radiation
increases to x times its initial value. Here x is (4) Is minimum for ring
equal to 107. Three rods of identical cross-section and of same
! material form the sides of right angled isosceles
! !"# "
(1) # $ (2) 16 triangle. The points A and B are maintained at
% # & 100°C and 20°C, then in steady state temperature
(3) 4 (4) 2 of point C, as shown, will be
102. Two different metal rods of same length have their #
ends kept at the same set of temperatures 1 and
2 with 2 > 1. If A 1 and A2 are their cross-
&"#
sectional areas and k 1 and k 2 their thermal
conductivities respectively, then the rate of flow of
heat in the two rods will be same if %""#$ !"#$
! "
!! "" !! "! (1) 60°C (2) 90°C
(1) (2)
!" "! !" "" (3) 30°C (4) 10°C
108. A black body radiates energy at the rate of
!! "! !! ""
(3)
!
(4)
" 81 cal m –2 s –1 at temperature 927ºC. If the
!" "" " !" "! ! temperature is lowered to 127ºC, the rate of
103. A body is cooling under Newton’s law of cooling in energy radiation (in cal m–2 s–1) will be
a room at 20°C. If temperature of body falls from (1) 24 (2) 6
60°C to 50°C in 5 minute, then its temperature will
fall from 50°C to 40°C in (3) 18 (4) 1
(1) 5 minute 109. A solid sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate
have same mass and are made of same material.
(2) Less than 5 minute
All of them are heated to same temperature. The
(3) More than 5 minute rate of cooling is
(4) 10 minute (1) Maximum for the sphere and minimum for the
104. A uniform metallic scale of length 1 m undergoing plate
one dimensional heat conduction is maintained at (2) Maximum for the sphere and minimum for the
steady state such that 0 cm mark is at 80°C and cube
100 cm mark is at 0°C. Temperature of 60 cm
(3) Maximum for the plate and minimum for the
mark is
sphere
(1) 48°C (2) 32°C
(4) Same for sphere and plate and minimum for
(3) 40°C (4) 16°C the cube
110. It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a 117. If two spherical black bodies of radii r and 2r and
fire, than it is on the side of it because surface temperature T1 and T2 respectively radiate
(1) Air conducts heat upwards $!
same power, then is
(2) Heat is radiated upwards $"
(3) Convection takes more heat upwards (1) ! "# (2) 2 : 1
(4) Heat is transferred upwards by conduction,
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
convection and radiation
111. The density of a substance at 0°C is 10 g/cm3 and 118. A brass disc just fits in a hole of a steel plate.
at 100°C its density is 9.7 g/cm 3 . Thermal The disc from the hole can be loosened, if the
coefficient of linear expansion of the substance is system : [ brass > steel ]
of order. (1) Is cooled
(1) 10–3/°C (2) 10–4/°C (2) Is heated
(3) 10–2/°C (4) 10–5/°C
(3) Remains at constant temperature
112. The temperature whose value is same on Celsius
and Fahrenheit scales is (4) All of these
(1) 40°C (2) 20°C 119. The coefficient of linear expansion of glass is
(3) –40°C (4) –20°C 8 × 10–6 ºC–1 and coefficient of cubical expansion
of mercury is 18 × 10 –5 ºC –1. The volume of
113. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 2 minute. Time
mercury placed inside a flask of 300 cc, so that
in which it will cool from 60°C to 40°C is
(Temperature of surroundings is 10°C) the volume of the flask not occupied by mercury
may remain same at all temperature, is
(1) 50 cc (2) 60 cc
114. 80 g of water at 30°C is poured on a large block (3) 40 cc (4) 20 cc
of ice at 0°C. The mass of ice that melts is 120. Two copper metallic solid spheres of radii R1 and
(1) 15 g (2) 30 g R2 are heated to same temperature and kept in
(3) 50 g (4) 60 g identical surroundings. The ratio of their initial rate
of cooling is
115. A faulty thermometer reads the temperature of
melting ice and boiling water as 40 °F and 200 °F (1) 1 : 1
respectively. What will be its reading when actual
(2) R1 : R2
temperature is 41 °F?
(1) 43 °F (2) 40 °F (3) R2 : R1
(3) 42 °F (4) 48 °F (4) R12 : R22

116. In a metal sheet there are two holes of radius a 121. A cube of a substance of coefficient of cubical
and b as shown. How the parameters a, b, c and expansion 1 is floating in a liquid of coefficient of
d change with the increase in temperature of metal cubical expansion 2 > 1, such that 50% of its
sheet? volume is inside the liquid. If temperature of the
system is increased, then percentage of volume of
cube inside the liquid can be
! "
$ # (1) 45% (2) 50%
(3) 55% (4) 25%
(1) a, b, c and d, all will increase 122. Difference of temperature between a body and its
surroundings, cooling under Newton’s law of cooling
(2) a and b will decrease while c and d will
falls from 40°C to 20°C in 20 minute. Time taken
increase
by the body to decrease the difference from 20°C
(3) a and b will increase while c and d will to 5°C is
decrease
(4) a and c will increase while b and d will
decrease (3) 30 minute (4) 10 minute
123. Heat is flowing through a conductor of length L 128. For the following graph, area under the curve
from x = 0 to x = L. If its thermal resistance is represents the total energy emitted by the perfect
uniform and is at steady state, then which of the black body per second per unit area (E) over the
following graphs is/are correct? (T : temperature at complete wavelength range at that temperature (T).
X) Thus, area below the graph is in accordance with
" " (Symbols have usual meanings)
!
(1) (2)
! ! !
# #
" "
!
(3) (4) (1) Wien’s displacement law
! !
# # (2) Stefan’s law
124. 1 g water at 100°C is heated to convert into steam
(3) Kirchhoff’s law
at 100°C at 1 atm. Find out approximate change
in internal energy of water. It is given that (4) Newton’s law of cooling
Volume of 1 g water at 100°C = 1 cc ! !
129. If # !# "$ " !# "$ # is the expression for surface

! "
Volume of 1 g steam at 100°C = 1671 cc
%$ & % &
Latent heat of vaporisation = 540 cal/g temperature of the sun then which of the following
(Mechanical equivalent of heat J = 4.2 J/cal) statement is incorrect?
(1) U = 540 J (2) U = 500 cal (1) is the Stefan’s constant with value
(3) U= 0 (4) U = 40 cal 5.67 × 10–8 J s–1 m–2K–4
125. The temperature at which solid, liquid and vapour (2) S is the solar constant
phase of a substance coexist is (3) r is the radius of the circular orbit in which
(1) Critical temperature (2) Triple point earth revolves around the sun
(3) Melting point (4) Boiling point (4) r is the radius of the earth
126. Q heat flows per second through the rod of length 130. Material A, B and C are solids at their melting
L and area of cross-section A. If it is stretched to temperatures. Material A requires 200 J to melt 4
double its length then what will be the heat flow kg. Material B requires 300 J to melt 5 kg. And
per second keeping temperature difference same? material C requires 300 J to melt 6 kg. Rank the
! materials according to their latent heats of fusion
(1) 2Q (2)
! (1) C = B > A (2) C > B > A
! (3) B > A > C (4) B > A = C
(3) (4) Q
"
131. The given figure shows a composite slab of three
127. The figure shows three temperature scales with the
different materials a, b and c with identical
freezing and boiling points of water indicated at
thickness and with thermal conductivities
atmospheric pressure. Which of the following gives
the correct order of the three temperatures? !! !" ! # . The heat transfer through them is
!"#$ %&"#' ("#) nonzero and steady. Rank the materials according
to the temperature difference T across them.
! " #
&"#$ *"#' "#)
(1) 50°X > 50°Y > 50°W (2) 50°X = 50°Y = 50°W (1) a = b = c (2) a < b < c
(3) 50°X < 50°W < 50°Y (4) 50°W > 50°X > 50°Y (3) b < a < c (4) b > a > c
132. Which of the following can be approximated to be 138. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and
a black body? converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the
(1) The Sun following curves represents the phenomenon
qualitatively? (T : Temperature)
(2) Ferry’s Black Body
! !
(3) Metal ball rolled in carbon powder
(4) All of these
133. When a copper ball is heated, the largest (1) (2)
percentage increase will occur in its
(1) Diameter (2) Area " !"#$%&'(()*"+ " !"#$%&'(()*"+
(3) Volume (4) All of these ! !
134. A bimetallic strip consisting of two metals A and B

is straight at t°C as shown in figure. Coefficient of
linear expansion of A is greater than coefficient of (3) (4)
linear expansion of B. When the temperature is
increased to t + t °C, the strip will " !"#$%&'(()*"+ " !"#$%&'(()*"+
139. A cylindrical metal rod of length L0 is shaped into
a ring with a small gap x as shown. On heating the
system (r : radius of the ring, d : diameter of rod)
! " !
"
(1) Bend to left

(2) Not bend at all #
(1) x decreases, r and d increase
(3) Bend to right (2) x and r increase, d decreases
(4) Become smaller than initial length (3) x, r and d all increase
135. Which of the following processes will take greatest (4) x, r and d all decrease
time? 140. Two conducting rods of identical dimensions having
(1) Cooling down of water from 75°C to 70°C coefficient of thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are
connected in series between ice point and steam
(2) Cooling down of water from 85°C to 80°C
point. Effective thermal conductivity of the
(3) Cooling down of water from 45°C to 40°C arrangement is
(4) All will take equal time !! ! " !!! "
136. A cylindrical steel rod of length L, Young’s modulus (1) (2)
! !! ! "
Y, radius r and coefficient of linear expansion is !!!! "
stretched horizontally without tension between two (3) %"! % !! (4) ! !
rigid supports at t°C. When the temperature is ! "
increased to t + t°C, the tension developed in the 141. 1 kg of ice at 0°C is mixed with 2 kg of water at
40°C. The final temperature of the mixture will be
wire will become
(assume no energy loss)
! "! # (1) 10°C (2) 25°C
(1) Y r2 t (2)
! # (3) 5°C (4) 0°C
142. A bimetallic strip is made of two metals with
! "! #
(3) Zero (4) different thermal coefficient of linear expansion.
! # Now choose the correct statement.
137. 100 g ice at 0°C is dropped into a calorimeter (1) On heating, metal having high coefficient is at
(water equivalent 50 g) containing 100 g water at concave side
40°C. Resulting temperature of mixture at (2) On heating, metal having low coefficient is at
equilibrium is concave side
(1) 40°C (2) 0°C (3) On heating, it remains straight
(3) 20°C (4) –5°C (4) On cooling, it remains straight
143. A simple pendulum consists of wire of negligible 149. Liquid A is at a temperature of 20°C and liquid B
mass but has thermal coefficient of linear is at a temperature of 40°C. If same mass of both
expansion . If a small temperature change the liquids are mixed, the temperature of mixture
takes place, then relative change in time period of becomes 35°C. Ratio of specific heats of liquid A
the pendulum will be and B is
(1) (2) 2 (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
! ! (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(3) (4) 150. A metallic scale gives correct reading at 15ºC.
" "
144. A spherical black body of radius r radiates thermal A piece of wood is being measured by this scale
power P at temperature T, when placed in at 20°C and reading of the scale is 40 cm. The
surroundings at temperature T0 ( T). If R is its real length of wood piece must be
rate of cooling, then (1) 40 cm (2) > 40 cm
! (3) < 40 cm (4) Between 30-40 cm
!! "
(1) & '$ $# ( (2) " # $ 151. Temperature of a body is raised from 20°C to 45°C.
% !" & The rise in temperature of the body in Fahrenheit
scale is
'! !!
(3) & (4) " (1) 25º F (2) 77º F
$# #
(3) 45º F (4) 207º F
145. Solar constant is proportional to (R = radius of sun,
r = distance between Earth and Sun) 152. Thermal coefficient of linear expansion along two
sides of a square face are 2 × 10 –5 /°C and
! 1 × 10 –5 /°C. Thermal coefficient of superficial
" !' "
(1) (2) # $ expansion of the square face is
# %& &
!
(1) 4 × 10–5/°C (2) 2 × 10–5/°C
# !& "
(3) (4) # $ (3) 3 × 10–5/°C (4) 1.5 × 10–5/°C
" %' &
153. Energy emitted per unit area per unit time by a
146. The measure of the degree of disorderliness of a
black body is I watt m –2. The wavelength at
system is known as
which power radiated by the black body be
(1) Calorimetry (2) Enthalpy maximum, will be [ = stefan’s constant, b =
(3) Entropy (4) Thermometry Wien’s constant]
147. Which of the following statements is correct? !" # !"#
! " !!"
(1) Natural convection can occur in space having (1) ! # $ (2) # $
%" & %" &
gravity as well as in gravity free space
(2) Forced convection occurs in space having !" # !" #
gravity only ! !" " !! "
(3) # $ (4) # $
% & % " &
(3) Forced convection can occur in gravity free
space 154. Three identical conductors are fixed at O as shown
(4) Natural convection occurs only in gravity free in figure. The conductor through which no flow of
space heat is taking place, is
%"#$ !"#$
148. A liquid is contained in a graduated container such
!
that reading of level of liquid is observed to be "
500 ml at 20°C. When their temperature is
#
increased to 70°C, reading obtained is 500 ml
again. If is the thermal coefficient of cubical $
expansion of the liquid and is the thermal
coefficient of linear expansion of container, then
&"#$
(1) >3 (2) =3 (1) A (2) B
(3) <3 (4) =2 (3) C (4) All of these
155. The temperature on Celsius scale is 45°C, then 161. Two rods of same length and cross-sectional area
corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale are joined in series. Thermal conductivity of the
is rods are in the ratio 1 : 2. The ends are maintained
at temperature T1 and T2 as shown in the figure.
(1) 113°F The sides are thermally insulated. If T1 > T2 then
which of the following graphs represents variation of
(2) 77°F
! !" "
(3) 100°F temperature gradient # $ with x in steady state?
% !# &
(4) 131°F "! ""
! !!
156. Expansion during heating
#"#"$ #"#"$ #"#"!$
(1) Occurs only in solids $ #
(2) Increases the weight of material

(3) Decreases the density of a material (1) (2)
(4) Occurs at the same rate for all liquids or solids # "
! " !" ! !!
157. If the length of a cylinder on heating increases by " "
2%, the area of its base will increase by # !# # !#
! !
(1) 0.5%
(2) 2% (3) (4)
(3) 1%
(4) 4% 162. In order to flow heat from one part of a solid to
another part, what is required?
158. Ratio among thermal linear expansion coefficient
(1) Uniform density
( ), thermal areal expansion coefficient ( ) and
thermal volume expansion coefficient ( ) for (2) Density gradient
isotropic substance is (3) Temperature gradient
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) Uniform temperature
(2) 3 : 2 : 1 163. Two identical plates of different metals are joined to
form a single plate whose thickness is double the
(3) 4 : 3 : 2
thickness of each plates. If the co-efficient of
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 conductivity of each plate are 2 unit and 3 unit
respectively, then the conductivity of composite
159. 100 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g water at
plate (in same units) will be
80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is
(1) 5 (2) 2.4
(1) 40°C
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.2
(2) 25°C
164. If a black body is heated at very high temperature,
(3) 0°C it appears to be
(4) 47.14°C (1) Blue (2) White
160. At what temperature, volume of fixed mass of an (3) Red (4) Black
ideal gas at 0°C becomes triple? 165. An object is at a temperature of 400 K. At what
(1) 546°C temperature would it radiate energy twice as fast,
while surrounding temperature is assumed to be
(2) 182°C negligible?
(3) 819°C (1) 200°C (2) 200 K
(4) 646°C (3) 800°C (4) 800 K
166. The tungsten filament of an electric lamp has a 173. A 42 kg block of ice moving on rough horizontal
surface area A and a power rating P. If the emissivity surface stops due to friction, after some time. If
of the filament is and is Stefan’s constant, then initial velocity of block is 4 m/s, the mass of ice
the steady temperature of the filament will be that has melted due to heat generated by friction
! is (Latent heat of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg)
! ! " ! ! "
(1) " ## $ (2) " ## $ (1) 1.5 × 10–3 kg (2) 10–3 kg
% & % &
! !
(3) 2 × 10–3 kg (4) 2.5 × 10–3 kg
!! "" ! ! "" 174. A uniform cylindrical rod of mass M and length L
(3) " # # $ (4) " ## $
% & % & is rotating with an angular speed . The axis of
167. If the temperature of hot body is increased by 50% rotation is perpendicular to axis of symmetry of rod
then the increase in the quantity of emitted heat and passing through one end of the rod. If the
radiation will be approximately room temperature is increased by and coefficient
of linear expansion of the rod is , the magnitude
(1) 125% (2) 200%
of the change in angular speed is
(3) 300% (4) 400%
" #
168. A hot metallic solid sphere of radius r radiates (1) (2)
! !
heat. Its rate of cooling is
(3) (4) 2
(1) Independent of r (2) Proportional to r
175. Steam at 100°C is passed into 54 g of water at
(3) Proportional to r2 (4) Proportional to 1/r
30°C till the temperature of mixture becomes 90°C.
169. The spectral energy distribution of the sun is The latent heat is 540 cal/g. The mass of the
maximum at 4753 Å. If the temperature of a star mixture will be nearly
is 2755.4 K then its spectral distribution is
(1) 70 g (2) 60 g
maximum at equals to (Temperature of sun is
6000 K) (3) 80 g (4) 24 g
(1) 10850 Å (2) 10350 Å 176. Change in entropy when 5 g of pure ice melts to
(3) 20700 Å (4) 5175 Å form water at 0°C is (Lice = 80 cal/g)
170. Assuming the sun to be a spherical black body of (1) 1.46 cal/K (2)
radius R at a temperature T K, the total radiant (3) 7.8 cal/K (4) 1.46 J/K
power incident on earth at a distance r from the
177. A metallic scale is to be calibrated so that its
sun is (r0 : radius of the earth)
millimetre intervals are accurate within 5 × 10–5
'#" & " $ $ !#! " ! # " mm at a given temperature. Maximum temperature
(1) (2) variation allowed during calibration is approximately
' "
! !!
( metal = 10 × 10–6 °C–1)
!" " ! & '#" & " $ $
(3) (4) (1) 5°C (2) 10°C
#" '"
171. A metal rod is placed on smooth horizontal surface (3) 0.5°C (4) 50°C
at temperature 25°C. Now temperature of 178. Temperature difference between body and
surroundings is increased up to 100°C, then during surroundings fall from 10°C to 5°C in 10 minutes.
heating of rod Temperature difference between body and
(1) Mechanical strain developed in rod is nonzero surroundings will fall from 5°C to 2.5°C in (Use
Newton’s law of cooling)
(2) Mechanical stress developed in rod is nonzero
(1) 5 minutes (2) 20 minutes
(3) Length of rod will increase
(3) 10 minutes (4) Infinite
(4) All of these
172. The radiation emitted by a star (S ) is 10000 times 179. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as
that of Sun (S). If surface temperatures of the sun 20°C and boiling point as 150°C, then how much
and stars are 6000 K and 2000 K respectively, the will the thermometer read when the actual
ratio of the radii of the star (S ) and Sun (S) is temperature is 60°C?
(1) 300 : 1 (2) 600 : 1 (1) 98°C (2) 110°C
(3) 900 : 1 (4) 1200 : 1 (3) 40°C (4) 60°C
180. Two solid spheres having area A1 and A2 and 184. The graph shown in the figure represents variation
temperature T1 and T2 respectively are placed in of temperature (T) of two bodies A and B having
vacuum. For emitting same power [both have same surface area, with time (t) due to emission
same surface finish] of radiation. Correct relation between absorptivity (a)
"
and reflectivity (r) of the two bodies is
#! $!$ #! ! "# " !
(1) # (2) # $
$"$ ## #" $
" % ! &
! !
!" ! "" " !" ! "! " #
(3) # $ (4) # $
!! #" $ !! #% "" $&
% ! & $
181. Let represent the ratio of mass of ice at 0°C and
"
mass of steam at 100°C. The temperature of the
mixture when these are mixed together (for 3 < < (1) aB > aA and rB < rA (2) aB < aA and rB < rA
8) is (3) aB < aA and rB > rA (4) aB > aA and rB > rA
!! " !! " 185. Fraunhoffer’s lines in the spectrum of sun are
(1) !" # (2) !" #
% # $& % # $& explained by
! !" ! !" (1) Stefan’s law
(3) "# # $ (4) !" #
% " & % # $& (2) Wien’s displacement law
182. The spectral emissive power e versus wavelength (3) Newton’s law of cooling
curve for the radiations coming out of a black (4) Kirchhoff’s law
body is as shown in the figure. If ! ! represents 186. Amount of heat required to convert 20 g of ice into
water at 20ºC is
maximum spectral emissive power at 1 for
temperature T1 then on increasing the temperature, (1) 80 cal (2) 2000 cal
1
(3) 500 cal (4) 1000 cal
! 187. In a room where temperature is 30ºC, a body cools
! from 61ºC to 59ºC in 4 minute. Time taken by the
! !! body to cool from 51ºC to 49ºC will be
SECTION - B
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains same (4) Becomes twice
183. Two rods of same material recasts into different (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
shape as shown in the figure. If temperature of
both rods are increased then (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
! " reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) x will increase but y will decrease
1. A : The emissivity of a body is dimensionless
(2) x will decrease but y will increase quantity.
(3) Both x and y will increase R : Emissive power of a body is a dimensionless
(4) Both x and y will decrease quantity.
2. A : During heating of a conductor, when steady 6. A : A green glass heated in a furnace, when seen
state is achieved the temperature of any of its in dark, glows with red light.
transverse cross-section does not change with R : A green glass is a good absorber of red light
time. and hence it becomes good radiator of red
R : All parts of the conductor attain same colour.
temperature.
7. A : Iron ball experiences greater viscous force than
3. A : Blue star is at higher temperature than red the plastic ball of same radius.
star. R : High density objects experience greater
R : Wein’s displacement law states that the viscous force than low density objects.
wavelength corresponding to maximum 8. A : Snow is better insulator than ice.
spectral emissive power is inversely
R : Snow contains air packets and air is good
proportional to absolute temperature of hot
insulator of heat.
body.
9. A : If temperature of a radiating body increases by
4. A : On a cold winter day an iron railing feels much
20%, the rate of emission of radiation increases
colder to the touch than a wooden railing,
by more than 100%.
though both are at the same temperature.
R : Rate of emission, H T 4, where T is the
R : Wood removes thermal energy from our fingers absolute temperature.
much slower than iron does.
10. A : From the earth, heat transfer takes place
5. A : Water in lakes and ponds freezes from the top mainly due to convection.
down to bottom rather than from the bottom to
top in peak winter. R : Heat from sun is obtained in the form of IR
rays of longer wavelength, which penetrates
R : Bottom of lakes and ponds are at 4°C and the atmosphere but heat radiated by earth is
water radiates heat to surrounding atmosphere IR rays of shorter wavelength, which is trapped
at sub-zero temperature. by the atmosphere.
!" !" !
Chapter 12
Thermodynamics
4. An ideal gas expand from initial state of volume V1

SECTION - A
to final state of volume V2, work done is maximum
Objective Type Questions in
1. A diatomic ideal gas initially at temperature T1 is (1) Isothermal process (2) Isobaric process
enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically (3) Adiabatic process (4) Isentropic process
to a temperature T2. If the lengths of gas column 5. The isothermal bulk modulus of perfect gas at
!! pressure P is given by
in cylinder are L1 and L2 respectively, then is
!" (1) P (2) 2P
"#$ $#" !
! "" " ! "" " (3) (4) P
(1) # $ (2) # $ !
% "! & % "! &
6. For free expansion of an ideal gas
"#% %#"
! "! " ! "" "
(3) # $ (4) # $ (1) W = 0
% "" & % "! &
(2) U=0
2. The pressure in a diatomic gas, increase from P0
to 3P0, when its volume increases from V0 to 2V0. (3) Q=0
The increase in internal energy is (4) All of these
7. What is the ratio of temperatures T1 and T2?
!
!!! # "
"!!
!! $#
$ $"
!
# !! !!!
"! #$%"! ""! "
(1) ! "# (2) 3 : 1
(1) 6P0V0 (2) 8.5P0V0
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1
(3) 12.5P0V0 (4) 14.5P0V0
8. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine is less than
3. First law of thermodynamics is based on 100% because of
(1) Concept of temperature (1) The presence of friction
(2) Concept of conservation of energy (2) The leakage of heat energy
(3) Concept of working of heat engine (3) Unavailability of the sink at zero kelvin
(4) Concept of entropy (4) All of these
222 Thermodynamics Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. How does the pressure of an ideal gas change 13. An ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process a to
during the process shown in the diagram? b as shown. If the heat supplied to the gas is
20p0V0, then the shaded area is equal to
!
!
!!! %
# $
$
!!
"
# "
(1) Pressure increases continuously "! !"!
(2) Pressure decreases continuously (1) 12p0V0
(3) Pressure first increases and then decreases (2) 8p0V0
(4) Pressure first decreases and then increases (3) 4p0V0
10. An ideal gas obeys the law P = aV 3,
where a is (4) p0V0
a constant. If the gas is monatomic, then molar
14. A heat engine operates between the temperatures
heat capacity for the process is
of 300 K and 500 K. If it extracts 1200 J of heat
$ energy from the source, then the maximum amount
(1) !
! of work that can be done by the engine is
! (1) 720 J
(2) #
"
(2) 520 J
#
(3) # (3) 480 J
"
!! (4) 200 J
(4) !
" 15. Let P, V and T denote respectively the pressure,
11. How does the temperature change when the state volume and temperature of an ideal gas. The
of an ideal gas is changed according to the correct graph for adiabatic process is
process shown in figure?
! !"
$%&
!#
(1)
"!
$
%
!"
" $%&
# !#
(1) Temperature increases continuously (2)
(2) Temperature decreases continuously "!
(3) Temperature first increases and then

decreases !"
$%&
!#
(4) Temperature first decreases and then
(3)
increases
"!
12. A practical heat engine operates between the
temperatures 27°C and 627°C. The efficiency of the
!"
engine may be $%&
!#
(1) 75% (2) 70% (4)
(3) 68% (4) 50% "!
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Thermodynamics 223
16. The pressure and volume of an ideal monoatomic 20. The figure shows two paths for change of
! thermodynamic state from A to B. If C1 and C2 are
gas are related as !" " !"#$%&#% for a process molar heat capacities for path AQB and APB
A B. The change in internal energy in the respectively, then
process AB is ! $
!"#$%%&#$'
" #
""! % !"
!!
# !
$ !"#$%&'( "
"!
(1) C1 > C2 (2) C2 > C1
! (3) C1 = C2 (4) C2 2C1
!!!
21. A Carnot engine works between 900 K and 600 K.
(1) 12 P0V0 (2) 8 P0V0 If heat drawn by the engine per cycle is 3000 J,
(3) 4 P0V0 (4) 2 P0V0 the useful work done by the engine is
(1) 500 J (2) 1000 J
17. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes
(3) 2000 J (4) 2500 J
a thermodynamic cycle as shown in the figure. If
22. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as
U a and U c are internal energies at a and c
shown in the graph between pressure (P) and
respectively. Then Ua – Uc is [T0 = temperature at temperature (T). The part of the graph which
a] represents absorbtion of heat from surrounding are
&
!!! %
&! $
# $
!! #
&" %
"
"! "#!
!" !! !
(1) 21 R0T0 (1) AB, CD (2) DA, BC
(2) 10.5 R0T0 (3) DA, AB (4) BC, AB
23. Volume versus temperature graph for two moles of
(3) –10.5 R0T0 monoatomic gas is as shown. The ratio of work
(4) –21 R0T0 done by the gas to heat absorbed by it in the
process A to B is
18. 3 moles of a monoatomic gas does 150 J work $ "
when it expands isobarically. Then change in its
internal energy will be
!
(1) 100 J #
(2) 225 J ! !
(1) (2)
" "
(3) 400 J
# #
(4) 450 J (3) (4)
$ "
19. A diatomic gas is at temperature 1727°C. If it 24. In case of free expansion, when a sample of gas
expands suddenly. The change in internal energy
expands such that its final volume becomes 32
of the gas is
times its initial value without exchange of heat then
(1) Positive
its final temperature will become
(2) Negative
(1) 100°C (2) 227°C (3) Zero
(3) 373°C (4) 527°C (4) May be positive or negative
25. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with 30. An ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant
source at 327ºC and sink at 27ºC is pressure. The fraction of energy supplied used in
work done by the gas is
(1) 25% (2) 50%
! "
(3) 75% (4) 90% (1) (2)
" #
26. The adiabatic exponent for a mixture of 20 g of
Neon and 28 g Nitrogen gas is " "
(3) (4)
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.5 # %
(3) 1.7 (4) 1.9 31. The figure shows a process on a gas in which
pressure (P) and volume (V) of gas changes. If C1
27. Ideal gas is taken through cycle P Q R
P as shown in the figure. If net heat supplied to and C2 are the molar heat capacities of gas during
the gas in the cycle is 15 J, the work done by the process AB and BC respectively, then
gas in the process R P is !
$ %
"
%"#! !
$"#!
!
$ #
!"# "
# !
"
!& '()# * (1) C1 = C2 (2) C1 > C2
(1) 5 J (2) –15 J (3) C1 < C2 (4) C1 C2
(3) –20 J (4) –12 J 32. During which of the following thermodynamic
28. In the PV graph shown for an ideal diatomic gas process elasticity of gas is minimum?
change in the internal energy is
(1) Adiabatic process (2) Isothermal process
%
! " (3) Isobaric process (4) Isochoric process
$
33. During isobaric process the thermal coefficient of
# volume expansion of an ideal gas at temperature T
#! #" (in K) is
! !
(1) ! "! "" (2) ! "! "" (1) Zero (2) T –1
" "
(3) 2T –2 (4) Infinite
! #
(3) ! "" "! (4) ! "" "! 34. Molar specific heat capacity of a gas C
" "
29. The figure shows PV diagram of a thermodynamic (1) Always equal to Cv
cycle. Which of the following curve is correct? (2) Always greater than Cv
$ # (3) Always equal to Cp
(4) May be greater or less than Cv
! "
35. The workdone for given process AB is
% "
# "
!"! $
(1) (2)
! #
$ """!
!
""!! ""#!!
(3) (4) (1) 6 P0V0 (2) 5 P0V0

(3) 3 P0V0 (4) 2 P0V0
36. Efficiency of a Carnot heat engine working between 41. Without external heat work done possible in
the temperature 27°C and 227°C
(1) Adiabatic process
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.6
(2) Isochoric process
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.4
(3) Isothermal process
37. Internal energy remains same throughout the
process along the path in (4) Isobaric process
(1) Adiabatic process (2) Isothermal process 42. Adiabatic graphs 1 and 2 of two different gases are
shown in figure, then which of the following is true?
(3) Cyclic process (4) Both (2) & (3)
!
38. Adiabatic process for the gases (O2, He) are given
!
then
! "
"
!
"
(1) 1 for He and 2 for O2
"
(2) In both the process temperature decreased
(1) 1 for He and 2 for O2
(2) 1 for O2 and 2 for He (3) Magnitude of work done by the gas is
maximum for process 2
(3) In both the process temperature decreases
(4) All of these
(4) Both (2) & (3)
43. An ideal heat engine absorbs the certain amount
39. Work done during the given cycle is
$
! of heat. If heat rejected by the system is rd of
!!!"! #
the total heat absorbed, then efficiency of heat
engine is approximately
(1) 33% (2) 66%
!!"! !!"!"!
" (3) 50% (4) 60%
(1) 4P0V0 (2) 2P0V0 44. The thermodynamic state of an ideal gas is varied
through different processes as shown in the figure.
!
(3) !" (4) P0V0 The change in internal energy of the process A, B
" ! !
and C respectively will be
40. Cyclic process of 2 mol of diatomic gas is shown
in figure then which of the following statement is #
!"#$%&'(
correct? !
! $
!"#)*+&,%-
" %
!!! ./'%$%)'(
"
%
!! #
(1) +, –, + (2) 0, +, –
(3) +, 0, – (4) –, +, 0
$
$! !$! 45. A monoatomic ideal gas is given heat at constant
(1) Process BC is isothermal compression pressure. The ratio of heat given and work done will
(2) Work done in the process CA is 4RT0 be
(3) Work done in the process AB is zero (1) 5 : 2 (2) 5 : 3

(4) All of these (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 5
46. An ideal gas is enclosed in an insulated cylinder. 50. The temperature of sink and source of an ideal
The piston is frictionless and attached with ideal engine is 500ºC and 1000ºC respectively. In which
spring. When the gas is heated then of the following cases the increase in efficiency will
be maximum?
(1) Temperature of the sink is lowered by 100ºC
(2) Temperature of source is increased by 100ºC
(3) Temperature of sink is lowered by 50°C
(4) Temperature of source is increased by 50°C
(1) The work is done against the spring only 51. The coefficient of performance of an ideal
(2) The work is done against the atmospheric refrigerator is 3 which extracts heat from the sink
pressure only at the rate of 399 J per cycle. The amount of heat
it gives to the room per cycle is
(3) The internal energy of gas increases
(1) 532 J (2) 250 J
(4) Work is equal to heat supplied (3) 300 J (4) 496 J
47. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process abc as 52. 25 calorie of heat is required to raise the
shown below on volume (V) versus temperature (T) temperature of 1 mole of an ideal gas from 40ºC to
diagram. Which of the following graphs represents 45ºC. The gas may be
the same cyclic process on pressure (p) volume (v) (1) O2 (2) He
diagram? (3) H2O (4) NO2
$ 53. A gas undergoes the change in its thermodynamic
" %
state from A to B via two different paths as shown
in given pressure (P) versus volume (V) graph, then
# #
! !
" # % " % ! "

"
$
(1) $ (2) #
$ (1) The temperature of gas decreases in path ‘1’
! ! from A to B
" # " $ (2) The heat absorbed by gas in ‘1’ is greater than
$ that in ‘2’
(3) The heat absorbed by gas in ‘2’ is greater than
(3) % (4) # that in ‘1’
%
(4) Change in internal energy in path ‘1’ is greater
! !
than that in path ‘2’
48. A liquid boils at 77ºC, whose enthalpy of
54. PV diagram of an ideal gas is shown in the figure.
vaporisation is 40 kJ/mol. Its entropy of vaporisation Work done by the gas in the process 1 2 3
is 4 will be
(1) 114.3 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 50.3 JK–1 mol–1 !!! ! $
(3) 140.3 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 85.3 JK–1 mol–1
"!! #
49. The change in internal energy of an ideal gas does
not depend on !!
"
(1) Number of moles
(2) Change in temperature "! ""! !"!
" "!!! "#
(3) Specific heat at constant pressure CP of the (1) (2) "!!!
! !
gas
"# "!!! " "!!!
(4) Specific heat at constant volume CV of the gas (3) (4)
! !
55. P-V graph of an ideal monoatomic gas is as 60. When the sink temperature is kept at 400 K, the
shown. Molar heat capacity of gas will be efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50%. While
keeping the source temperature constant, by how
much will the sink temperature be reduced to
! increase the efficiency to 60%?
(1) 80°C (2) 320°C
(3) 320 K (4) 240 K
"
61. The rise in temperature when an ideal monoatomic
(1) 2 R (2) 3 R
& # #
(3) 5 R (4) 7 R gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to $ !
% !" "
56. In a thermodynamic process of an ideal gas, if W of its original volume is
= 0 and Q is –ve then its
(1) 450°C (2) 375°C
(1) Volume will increase
(3) 225°C (4) 402°C
(2) Pressure will remain constant 62. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and
(3) Volume will decrease 600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. The
(4) Temperature will decrease amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from
the source in each cycle is
57. The adiabatic expansion of two different ideal gases
(having specific heats ratio 1 and 2 respectively) (1) 800 J (2) 1600 J
is shown. Which of the following is correct? (3) 3500 J (4) 6400 J
(1) 1 > 2 63. An ideal gas expands isothermally along AB and
(2) > " ! does 500 J of work and then expands adiabatically
2 1
" along BC and does 200 J of work. When the gas
(3) 1 = 2 returns to A along CA, it rejects 200 J of heat to
(4) 22 1 = its surroundings. Work done on the gas along the
!
58. A pressure (P ) versus volume (V ) diagram is path CA is
obtained for an ideal gas from state A to B ! %
"
$
#
"
$
# (1) 600 J (2) 800 J
! (3) 400 J (4) 500 J
(1) The temperature of gas increases continuously 64. A Carnot heat engine working between 450 K and
(2) The temperature of gas decreases continuously 600 K has a work output of 300 J/cycle. The
(3) The temperature first increases, then amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from
decreases the source in each cycle is
(4) The temperature first decreases then increases (1) 600 J (2) 1200 J
59. In the first stage of a two stage Carnot engine, (3) 900 J (4) 1600 J
energy Q 1 is absorbed at temperature T 1 and 65. From the following V–T diagram, we can conclude
energy Q2 is expelled as heat at intermediate #
temperature T2 . The second stage absorbs the
energy Q2 and expels energy Q3 at a still lower !!
temperature T3 . If the work output of both the
stages is same then T2 is equal to !"
!" !! ## $ #"
(1) (2)
! ! "
"" "!
!" !! (1) P1 = P2 (2) P1 > P2
(3) !" !! (4)
! (3) P1 < P2 (4) P1 P2
66. If a Carnot’s engine functions at source 71. If the internal energy of an ideal gas in state A and
temperature 127°C and at sink temperature 87°C, state B are 40 J and 60 J, what is the heat energy
what is its efficiency? supplied to the gas during the process A to B?
!"!"#$%
(1) 10% (2) 25% -
%+
(3) 40% (4) 50%
$+
67. The pressure P of an ideal monatomic gas varies
with volume V as P = kV3, where k is a constant. !+
,
The molar heat capacity for the process is
+ #"!&'()*%
! $ %
!# !!!
(1) (2) (1) 40 J (2) 60 J
" "
(3) 80 J (4) 100 J
!" ! $% #
(3) (4) 72. The isochoric bulk modulus of helium gas at NTP
# "
is
68. Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas is expanded
isobarically so that its temperature rises by 50 K. (1) Zero (2) 1.01 × 105 Pa
The work done by the gas is (where R is universal (3) 1.67 × 105 Pa (4) Infinite
gas constant) 73. The critical volume of a gas obeying van der
(1) 250 R (2) 150 R Waal’s equation is [where symbols have their usual
meanings]
(3) 100 R (4) 50 R
% #
(1) "# #$ (2)
69. Two isotherms of an ideal gas are drawn at !" " ! !
temperatures T1 and T2 as shown below. If Oa =
$%
ab then the ratio of rms speed of gas molecules (3) "# #$ (4) 3b
at temperature T1 and T2 is
74. Which of the following ratio is correct for isobaric
process?
"
(1) Q : U = 1 : 1 (2) Q : W = : –1
$
(3) Q : U = :1 (4) Q : W = 1 :
"" 75. The isothermal, adiabatic and isochoric Bulk
#
modulus of an ideal gas at atmospheric pressure
!"# "! are KI, KA and KB respectively. Select the correct
! ! relationship between them
(1) KA < KB < KI (2) KB < KI < KA
(1) # " ! (2) 1 : 2 (3) KI < KA < KB (4) KA = KI > KB

76. Which of the following graphs shows the variation
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 of pressure P with volume V for an ideal gas at
70. An ideal gas undergoes adiabatic process constant temperature?
according to the law TV1/2 = constant. If the gas
is at pressure P and temperature T at a certain ! !
instant, the value of the adiabatic modulus of
elasticity is (1) (2)
" "
"
(1) P (2) !
! ! !
" " (3) (4)

(3) " (4) !
! ! " "
77. An ideal heat engine rejecting heat at 27°C is to 83. An ideal heat engine is working between source at
have 25% efficiency. It must take heat at 727°C and sink at 227°C. If heat absorbed by it
(1) 127°C (2) 227°C from source is 1000 cal then heat rejected to the
sink is
(3) 327°C (4) 673°C
(1) 0 cal (2) 500 cal
78. An ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABCA as
shown in figure. The work done during the cycle is (3) 1000 cal (4) 750 cal
(P : pressure, V : Volume)
! !"
%!%"#$#" 84. An ideal monatomic gas # $ absorbed 50 cal
$!%"#$&#" % "&
" in an isochoric process. Increase in internal energy
of the gas is
(1) 20 cal (2) Zero
!!"#$#"
# (3) 50 cal (4) 30 cal
$ 85. If Q, W and U are heat supplied to an ideal gas,

(1) $% (2) 2PV
& work done by the gas and increase in internal
(3) 4PV (4) PV energy of the gas then first law of thermodynamics
states that
79. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of an
ideal gas is found to be proportional to the fourth (1) Q = U – W (2) W = U + Q
power of its absolute temperature. The ratio of its
(3) Q = U + W (4) All of these
specific heats. Cp/Cv is
86. The pressure-volume (P-V) diagram of n moles of
(1) 3/2 (2) 4/3
He gas for a certain process AB is shown in
(3) 5/3 (4) 7/3 figure. During the process AB, change in internal
80. An ideal gas having ratio of specific heats = 3/2 energy is
has initial volume of 400 cc. It is suddenly "
compressed to 25 cc. If the initial pressure was P, !"! #
then the final pressure will be
"! $
(1) 8 P (2) 16 P
(3) 32 P (4) 64 P
!
81. A gas performs minimum work, when it expands !! !"!
(1) Isochorically (2) Isobarically (1) 6P0V0 (2) 1.5P0V0
(3) Adiabatically (4) Isothermally (3) 3P0V0 (4) 4.5P0V0
82. An ideal gas goes from A to B via two processes 87. Pressure temperature (P-T) graph for two
I and II as shown. If u1 and u2 are the changes processes A and B on a system is shown in
in internal energies in the process I and II figure. If W1 and W2 are work done by the gas in
respectively, then (P : pressure, V : volume)
process A and B respectively, then
! " #
#
$
" !
!!
!
$
(1) u1 > u2 (2) u1 < u2 (1) W1 = W2 (2) W1 < W2
(3) u1 = u2 (4) u1 u2 (3) W1 > W2 (4) W1 = –W2
88. Variation of molar heat capacity at constant volume 92. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure
CV with temperature T for a monatomic gas is P and volume V are related as VP n = constant.
The bulk modulus for the gas in this process is
!! !!
!
(1) (2) P1/n
(1) (2) "
" " (3) nP (4) Pn
# #
!! !! 93. Pressure P versus volume V diagram for a
monatomic gas is a straight line passing through
(3) (4) origin. Molar heat capacity of the gas in the
" " process is
# #
%#
89. Pressure-temperature (P-T ) curve of a cyclic (1) 3R (2)
&
process is shown. Work done by the gas in the
given process for n moles of the gas is (symbols !#
(3) 2R (4)
have their usual meanings) &
! 94. An ideal monatomic gas is taken through a
!!"!" thermodynamic process from A to B as shown.
!" #!"""
Heat supplied to the gas in the process is
"
!"$" #
%& !"!
!! $!"#"
$
" "!
(1) !" !#! #" ## #$ "
!
!! !!!
(2) !" !#! #" "
(1) 3P0V0 (2) 5P0V0
!! " %$!%! '$!%!

(3) "# !!" !# "#$ # ! $ (3) (4)
% !$ & & &
(4) !" !## #! #" #$ " 95. Internal energy of an ideal gas changes with
change in its
! (1) Pressure only
90. An ideal gas is suddenly compressed to th of
" (2) Volume only
its original volume. If original temperature of the
(3) Temperature only
gas is 27°C and ratio of its specific heats = 1.5,
then rise in the gas temperature is
(4) Temperature and pressure
(1) 200°C (2) 100°C
96. Two Carnot engines x and y are working between
(3) 150°C (4) 300 K same source temperature T 1 and same sink
91. A system is taken from state A to state B along temperature T2. If temperature of source in Carnot
two different paths 1 and 2. If the heat absorbed engine x is increased by T, and in Carnot engine
and work done by the system along these two y temperature of sink is increased by T, then
paths are Q1, Q2 and W1, W2 respectively, then efficiency of x and y becomes x and y. Now
(1) x = y
(1) Q1 = Q2
(2) x < y
(2) W1 = W2
(3) x > y
(3) Q1 – W1 = Q2 – W2
(4) Relation between x and y depends on nature
(4) Q1 + W1 = Q2 + W2 of working substance
97. An ideal gas ( = 1.4) absorbs 70 cal of heat at 104. Let U1 and U2 be the changes in internal energy
constant pressure. Change in internal energy of the of an ideal gas system in the processes A and B
gas during this process is as shown in figure, then (P : pressure, V : Volume)
(1) 70 cal (2) 40 cal "

#
(3) 20 cal (4) 50 cal
98. A Carnot engine is operated between source at $
327°C and sink at 27°C. If 600 J heat is absorbed !
per cycle from the hot junction, then heat rejected (1) U1 > U2
to the sink per cycle is
(2) U1 = U2
(1) 300 cal (2) 300 J
(3) U1 < U2
(3) 600 cal (4) 600 J
(4) U1 U2
99. One mole of an ideal gas expands from volume V
105. In the given pressure-volume (P-V) diagram, the
to 2V at a constant temperature T K. Heat
gas does 5 J of work along isotherm cb and 4 J
absorbed by the gas is
along adiabatic ba. What is the change in the
(1) RT ln 2 (2) RT ln 0.5 internal energy of the gas if the gas traverses the
straight path from a to c?
"#
(3) RT (4) "
!
$
100. The temperature of n moles of an ideal gas is #
increased from T0 to 2T0 through a process P =
T. The work done by the gas is given by ( is a %
!
constant and P0 is initial pressure)
(1) Zero
! !"
(1) (2) Zero (2) 4 J
#!
(3) 1 J
(3) &#!! (4) &#!!
(4) 5 J
101. Carnot’s engine takes in a thousand calorie of heat
from a reservoir at 827°C and exhausts it to a sink
at 27°C. What is the efficiency of the engine? (1) A gas in a given state has a certain amount of
internal energy
(1) 72.72% (2) 27.27%
(2) A gas in a given state has a certain amount of
(3) 30.62% (4) 96.73% heat
102. First law of thermodynamics corresponds to (3) A certain amount of heat may be supplied to
(1) Conservation of energy the system in a process
(2) Heat flow from hotter to cooler body (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Law of conservation of angular momentum 107. Which of the following is not a condition required
for reversible process?
(4) Newton’s law of cooling
(1) The friction, viscosity, electric resistance etc.
103. A system M is neither in thermal equilibrium with
should not be there
N nor with C. The system N and C
(2) Changes should be rapid
(1) Must be in thermal equilibrium
(3) Energy losses by conduction, convection and
(2) Can’t be in thermal equilibrium
radiation should not take place
(3) May be in thermal equilibrium
(4) The system should not be deviated much from
(4) Cannot be concluded its equilibrium state
108. For an ideal gas a process xy is shown on 112. If CP and CV are two specific heats of an ideal gas
pressure-temperature (P-T ) diagram. Which of the at constant pressure and constant volume
following is correct for the process? respectively, then the specific heat for isothermal
expansion is
"
(1) Zero (2) Infinite
(3) CP – CV (4) CP
113. 70 kcal heat is absorbed by an ideal diatomic gas
! heated at constant pressure. Change in internal
(1) Internal energy decreases energy of the gas is
(2) Work done by the gas is zero (1) 50 kcal (2) 70 kcal
(3) Volume of the gas increases (3) 20 kcal (4) 42.5 kcal
(4) Volume of the gas decreases 114. If a refrigerator extracts heat a from cold reservoir
109. The sink temperature of a Carnot engine of 40% and b is the heat released to the hot reservoir
efficiency is at 300 K. For increasing the efficiency then work done on the refrigerant (system) is
to 60%, the increase in the temperature of source (1) a + b (2) a – b
temperature will be
(3) a (4) b – a
(1) 200 K (2) 300 K
115. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas in an isochoric
(3) 350 K (4) 250 K
process. The ratio of Q : U is (Symbols have
110. In the pressure-volume (P-V) diagram shown ABC usual meanings)
is a semicircle. The work done by the ideal gas in
the process ABC is (1) 5 : 3 (2) 5 : 2
#"!($)' (3) 1 : 1 (4) 5 : 7

+ $ 116. In the cyclic process shown in the pressure-volume
% (P-V) diagram the change in internal energy is
* & !
! !! !" "
!"!"#$%&' (1) # ! $ "
* , % &
! "!
(1) Zero (2) atm litre ! !! !" "
! (2) # ! $
% & ""
(3) – atm litre (4) 4 atm litre
! (3) ($" $#)(%" %#) !
" # !" !!
111. When a system is taken from state a to state b
(4) Zero
along the path acb, it is found that a quantity of
heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system and a 117. In a thermodynamic process when the amount of
work W = 80 J is done by it. Along the path adb, work done by the gas is 1000 J and change in its
heat absorbed Q = 144 J. The work done along the internal energy is 400 J, then heat supplied to the
path adb is gas is
" (1) 600 J (2) 400 J
% &
(3) 800 J (4) 1400 J
118. An ideal Carnot engine is operating at source
# $ temperature of 127°C and sink temperature of
! 27°C, then its efficiency is
(1) 6 J (2) 12 J (1) 25% (2) 30%
(3) 18 J (4) 24 J (3) 33% (4) 75%
119. An ideal diatomic gas is supplied the heat Q very 123. When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally, it’s
slowly keeping pressure constant. The work done pressure increases because
by the gas is (1) Average translatory K.E. of gas molecules
increases
! !
(1) ! (2) !
" " (2) Average rotational K.E. of gas molecules
! # increases
(3) ! (4) !
# " (3) Potential energy of gas increases
120. An ideal gas is taken around ABCA as shown in (4) Number of collisions per unit area with walls of
the pressure-volume (P-V) diagram. The work done container increases
during a cycle is 124. An ideal gas undergoes two processes AB and
! AC as shown in figure. If W1 and W2 are work
&"!% #"#%$$ done by the gas in these two processes
respectively, then
!
!"!#"#$$ %"!#"#% $$ %
$
" #
(1) 2PV (2) PV
"
"! ""
$
(3) $% (4) Zero (1) W1 > W2 (2) W1 < W2
&
(3) W1 = W2 (4) |W1| > |W2 |
121. In the following indicator diagram, the net amount
125. An ideal monatomic gas at pressure P0, volume V0
of work done by the gas will be
and temperature T0 is compressed suddenly so
(P : pressure, V : volume)
"
that its final volume becomes ! . The final
$
! " pressure of the gas is
! (1) P = 8P0 (2) P = 16P0
(3) P = 24P0 (4) P = 32P0
126. Four processes, viz., isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric
" and isochoric expansion have been shown on a
(1) Positive (2) Infinity pressure-volume (P-V) diagram. The isothermal
process is
(3) Zero (4) Negative
!
$
122. Which of the following is correct at a constant
%
temperature reversible process?
# &
(1) Change in Entropy = Heat supplied ×
"
temperature
(1) a (2) b
(2) Change in Entropy = Heat supplied ×
(3) c (4) d
(temperature)2
127. Work done by an ideal diatomic gas in its sudden
!"#$%&'(()*"+ expansion is 20 J. Change in internal energy of the
(3) Change in ,-$./(0
1"2(".#$'." gas is
!"#$%&'(()*"+ (1) 20 J (2) 0 J

(4) Change in ,-$./(0
12"3(".#$'."4! (3) –20 J (4) – 15 J
128. A heat engine is working between 200 K and 133. Dry ice is
400 K. Efficiency of the heat engine may be (1) Ice cube (2) Sodium chloride
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) Liquid nitrogen (4) Solid carbon dioxide
(3) 50% (4) All of these
134. First law of thermodynamics is concerned with the
129. Pressure-Volume (P-V) indicator diagram of an conservation of
ideal gas undergoing a cyclic process is as shown
in figure. Net heat absorbed in one cycle is (1) Momentum (2) Energy
(3) Mass (4) Temperature

"
135. Which of the following statements is true?
!""#$%&
(1) Internal energy of a gas depends only on the
state of the gas
'""#$%&
(2) In an isothermal process change in internal
'""#(( !""#(( !
energy is maximum
(1) Zero (2) 10 J (3) Area under pressure volume graph equals heat
(3) 20 J (4) 40 J supplied in any process
130. Which of the following is not state function of (4) Work done is state dependent but not path
thermodynamic process? dependent
(1) Temperature 136. If the P-V diagram of a cyclic process ABCA is as
(2) Pressure shown in figure, then the correct statement is
(3) Volume $ #
(4) Work
131. An ideal gas undergoes two processes at
! "
constant volume V1 and V2 as shown in pressure-
temperature (P-T ) diagram, then
" %
!! (1) QA B = negative
!" (2) U B C = positive
(3) W CAB = negative
# (4) All of these
(1) V1 = V2 137. P - V plots for two gases during adiabatic process

are shown in figure. Plot 1 and 2 should correspond
(2) V1 > V2
respectively to
(3) V1 < V2
!
(4) V1 V2
132. Change in entropy of an ideal gas during an
adiabatic process is
!
(1) Equal to zero "
(2) Less than zero "
(3) More than zero (1) He and O2 (2) O2 and He
(4) Non-negative (3) He and Ar (4) O2 and N2
138. The internal energy of ideal gas increases in !!"!
(1) (2) P0V0
!
(1) Adiabatic expansion
(2) Adiabatic compression $!%! !"!

(3) &$!%! (4)
& 3
(3) Isothermal expansion
(4) Isothermal compression 144. 0.4 mole of an ideal monatomic gas is allowed to
expand adiabatically so that its temperature
139. 5 moles of N2 gas is heated from 30ºC to 60ºC at changes from 800 K to 500 K. The work done
constant pressure. Change in internal energy of the during expansion is nearly equal to
gas is
!
!"!"##$%&
(1) Zero (2) 375 R
(3) 750 R (4) 225 R

!'##$%&
140. A refrigerator whose coefficient of performance is #
!#(#& "
5 extracts heat from cooling chamber at a rate
250 J per cycle. For refrigeration, work done (1) 129.6 J
required per cycle is
(2) –129.6 J
(1) 150 J
(3) 149.6 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 100 J (4) –149.6 J
(4) 50 J 145. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T 1
141. A diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure !

expands according to the law = constant.
such that it performs 4 J of work. Heat supplied to "
the gas is Work done by the gas, when its final temperature
(1) 14 J (2) 12 J becomes T2 is
(3) 16 J (4) 18 J (1) R (T2 – T1)
142. The temperature of 5 moles of a gas at constant

! !"! "" "
volume is changed from 100°C to 120°C. The change (2)
#
in internal energy is 80 J. The total heat capacity of
gas at constant volume will be (in joule/kelvin)
! !"! "" "
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3)
$
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4
(4) 2R (T2 – T1)
143. Indicator diagram is shown in figure for a
thermodynamic process (ACB) (ACB 146. A heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between
Semicircular arc). Work done by gas in this 627ºC and 427ºC. It absorbs 27 kcal from the
process is source. The amount of heat that is converted into
work is equal to
!
!!! % (1) 4 kcal
(2) 12 kcal
!!
# $
(3) 18 kcal
"
"! ""! (4) 6 kcal
147. A Carnot engine working as a refrigerator between !!! "

250 K and 300 K receives 500 cal of heat from the (1) # $
"% #&
cold reservoir. Heat rejected by it to the hot
reservoir is !!! "
(2) # $
(1) 400 cal "% #&
(2) 450 cal

!! !"
(3) 550 cal (3) # $
"% #&
(4) 600 cal
!! !"
148. Efficiency of a heat engine working between 127°C (4) # $
" %# &
and 327°C may be
152. If the temperature of sink as well as source is
(1) 20%
increased by 20°C each, then the efficiency of the
(2) 25% heat engine will
(3) 33% (1) Increase
(4) All of these (2) Decrease
149. If an ideal gas undergoes the cyclic process ABCD (3) Remain same
once, then heat absorbed by the gas is
(4) Become half
'
$ # 153. P-V diagram of an ideal gas is shown in the figure.
!""#$%&
Net work done in the process ABCD is
&
'""#$%& " %
! !&! $
%
& ("#)) '("#)) !
&! "
(1) 20 J
(2) 10 J #
#! !#! "#!
(3) 30 J (1) P0V0
(4) Zero (2) – 4P0V0
150. Efficiency of heat engine working between 300 K (3) –3P0V0

and 600 K cannot be (4) 3 P0V0
(1) 0.3 154. Two moles of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature
(2) 0.4 !
T expands slowly according to the law =
#
(3) 0.5
constant. If the final temperature is 2T then heat
(4) 0.6 supplied to the gas is
151. The pressure P of an ideal gas varies with volume (1) 4 RT
V as P = KV3, where K is a constant. The molar
(2) 2 RT
! '! " (3) 3 RT
heat capacity for the process is # $
'" &
% (4) RT
155. Two isotherms at temperatures T0 and 2T0 are 4. A : Internal energy of a gas must increase when its
shown in the figure. A gas takes part in two temperature is raised.
processes A B and A C. If Q1 and Q2 are heat R : Whenever heat is supplied to the gas its
supplied in two processes respectively, then internal energy always increases.
! 5. A : Whole of the heat cannot be converted into
% work.
$ R : Temperature of a body can be raised without
!&!
supplying heat to it.
# &!
6. A : Carnot engine is most efficient among all heat
" engines working between same source and
(1) Q1 > Q2 (2) Q1 < Q2 sink.
R : Efficiency of heat engine is independent of
(3) Q1 = Q2 (4) Q1 = 2Q2
nature of working substance.
7. A : Water in an earthen pot is colder than water in
SECTION - B
a similar glass pot.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Evaporation causes cooling.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 8. A : If an ideal gas expands in vacuum in an
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) insulated chamber then Q, U and W are
all zero.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : Temperature of gas remains constant in free
assertion, then mark (1). expansion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 9. A : If V versus T graph in a process is rectangular
reason is not the correct explanation of the hyperbola, then P versus T graph in the same
assertion, then mark (2). process will be a parabola.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is R : When V versus T graph is a rectangular
hyperbola with increase in T, volume will
increase and hence pressure will decrease.
10. A : Specific heat of an ideal gas in an adiabatic
process is infinite.
1. A : In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas,
R : In adiabatic process, huge amount of energy is
there is no change in the internal energy of the required to do work.
gas.
11. A : Zeroth law of thermodynamics explains the
R : During isothermal expansion, the work done concept of energy.
by the ideal gas is equal to the heat supplied
R : Energy is independent of temperature.
to the ideal gas.
12. A : Cp is greater than Cv for an ideal gas.
2. A : Isothermal process for a gas is impossible.
R : At constant pressure, some heat is spent in
R : Isothermal process is quasi-static process.
expansion of the gas.
3. A : If final volume is equal to initial volume in a 13. A : Second law of thermodynamics states that
certain thermodynamic process, then the work heat always flows from hot body to cold body
done is zero. by itself.
R : The ratio of final pressure to initial pressure is R : First law of thermodynamics indicates the
not equal to ratio of final temperature to initial condition under which a body can use its heat
temperature in an isochoric process. (supplied) energy to produce work.
14. A : Reversible adiabatic process is isoentropic. 15. A : It is impossible to draw an adiabatic and an
isothermal curve with same initial and final
! (" states.
R : Entropy change # $ and Q = 0 in
% ! &!"#"!$%&'" R : Magnitude of slope of an adiabatic curve is
always greater than the magnitude of slope of
adiabatic process.
an isothermal curve.
!" !" !
Chapter 13
Kinetic Theory of Gases
5. Two isotherms are drawn at temperatures T1 and

SECTION - A
T2 as shown. The ratio of mean speed at T1 and
Objective Type Questions T2 is
1. At 27°C temperature, the kinetic energy of an !
ideal gas is E. If the temperature is increased to
327°C, then kinetic energy would be
(1) 2E $!
! $"
(2) "
! # "# !"#
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) !!
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
!
(4) E 6. An ideal gas kept in a closed container is heated.
"
The collision frequency of the gas molecules will
2. When a gas in an open container is heated, the
mean free path (1) Increase
(1) Increases (2) Decrease
(2) Decreases (3) Remain the same
(3) Remains the same (4) Depend on the volume of the container
(4) Any of the above depending on the molar mass 7. Two bulbs A and B of same volume contain an ideal
gas at temperature T and pressure p. When the
3. Translational kinetic energy of oxygen molecules at
temperature of the bulb B is doubled and that of A
room temperature is 60 J. Their rotational kinetic
remains unchanged, the pressure of the gas will
energy is
be (Neglect the volume of the tube connecting the
(1) 40 J (2) 60 J two bulbs)
(3) 50 J (4) 20 J
4. An ideal gas kept in a container with a hole is
! "
heated. The mean free path will
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease !
(1) 2p (2) !
(3) Remain the same "
(4) Any of the above depending on the molar mass (3) 1.5p (4) 1.2p
240 Kinetic Theory of Gases Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
8. The translational kinetic energy of n moles of a 13. The value of x in the given graph with usual
diatomic gas at absolute temperature T is given by symbols is
#$
!
(1) !"# %"
" "! "
!" !" "
#$"%&' "( ) !
#
(2) !"#
"
(3) 5nRT ""#!""!
$ #
(4) !"#
" (1) 0.26 J mol–1 K–1 (2) 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
9. At what temperature will the oxygen molecule have (3) 8.2 J mol–1 K–1 (4) 8.2 × 102 J mol–1 K–1
the same root mean square speed as hydrogen
molecule have at 100 K?
(1) Entropy of the Universe is increasing
(1) 400 K
(2) Entropy of the Universe is constant
(2) 800 K
(3) Entropy of the Universe may decrease
(3) 1000 K (4) All of these
(4) 1600 K 15. Average velocity of oxygen molecules at 27°C in a
10. If pressure of a gas is doubled, then of the average container at rest is
kinetic energy per unit volume of the gas will be (1) 980 m/s (2) Zero
(1) Half of its initial value (3) 370 m/s (4) 863 m/s
(2) Double of its initial value 16. At temperature 127°C the r.m.s. speed of the
molecules of certain gas is found to be 600 m/s.
(3) One fourth of its initial value The gas is (R = 8.4 J/k mol)
(4) Four times of its initial value (1) He (2) H2
11. An ideal gas undergoes change in its (3) Cl2 (4) N2
thermodynamic state from a to b at constant 17. The kinetic energy of one mole of an ideal gas is
pressure as shown in the figure. The mass of the
gas !
!" at absolute temperature T. The molar heat
"
" # capacity at constant volume for gas is
(1) 3.2 R (2) 0.5 R
$ (3) 1.5 R (4) 2.5 R
!
18. The ratio of Vav : Vmp : Vrms is [symbols have their
(1) Increases usual meaning]
(2) Decreases $ $
(1) " #" ! (2) #" " !
(3) May increase or decrease
(4) Remains constant # !

(3) $" " ! (4) $" #"
12. If Vr m s, ! and ! ! represent rms speed, average 19. Which of the following is true for molar heat
speed and most probable speed of the molecules capacity of an ideal gas?
of a gas at a given temperature respectively, then (1) It cannot be negative
(2) It has only two values (CP and CV )
(1) ! ! ! !! " # (2) ! ! "# !! !
(3) It can have any value
(3) ! ! " # ! !! (4) ! ! " # ! !! (4) It cannot be zero
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Kinetic Theory of Gases 241
20. A vessel contains 2 moles of N 2 gas at 26. Maxwell’s speed distribution graph is drawn as
temperature T. An identical vessel contains 2 shown below. The most probable speed of the gas
moles of Helium gas at temperature 3T. The ratio molecules is
of their pressure is (Take gases to be ideal) !!
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 27 (4) 27 : 1
21. Gas equation PV = nRT is valid for
(1) Real gases
!)*+,-./
" # $ % & '(
(2) Ideal gases
(1) 4 km/s
(3) Real gases at low pressure and high
temperature (2) Between 2 km/s and 1 km/s
(3) Any value between 2 km/s and 6 km/s
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) More than 4 km/s
22. For the process A B of an ideal gas of fixed
mass, the density of gas 27. A rigid container containing an ideal gas with a
small hole is gradually heated and the amount of
$ the gas (in moles) is plotted with temperature (in
! kelvin). The correct graph is
! !
#
"
(1) Increases (1) (2)
(2) Decreases " "

(3) Remains constant ! !
(4) First increases then decreases

23. The root mean square velocity of the molecules in
(3) (4)
&"#
a sample of helium is $ ! th that of the molecules
%!" " "
in a sample of hydrogen. If the temperature of the 28. The density of a gas is 9×10–2 kg/m 3 and the
hydrogen sample is 0°C, that of helium samples is root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is
about 500 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas on the
(1) 0°C (2) 0 K walls of the vessel is
(3) 273°C (4) 100°C (1) 9112.5 N/m2 (2) 18225 N/m2
24. If temperature of an ideal gas is increased at (3) 4556 N/m2 (4) 7500 N/m2
constant volume, then select correct statement 29. A closed container having an ideal gas is heated
(1) The average kinetic energy of gas molecules gradually to increase the temperature by 20%. The
will increase mean free path will become/remain
(2) The average speed of gas molecules will (1) 20% more (2) Same
increase (3) 20% less (4) 33% less
(3) The collision frequency will increase 30. If f T, fR and fv are translational, rotational and
(4) Both (1) & (3) vibrational degrees of freedom of an atom in a
solid, then
25. At temperature 127ºC the r.m.s. speed of the
molecules of certain gas is found to be 600 ms–1. (1) fT = 3, fR = 0, fV = 0
The gas is [R = 8.4 J K–1mol–1] (2) fT = 0, fR = 0, fV = 6
(1) He (2) H2 (3) fT = 3, fR = 0, fV = 1
(3) Cl2 (4) N2 (4) fT = 3, fR = 0, fV = 3
31. A flask contains neon and oxygen in the ratio 37. Mean free path of N2 gas molecules in a rigid
4 : 5 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is container is . If the temperature of the gas is
50°C. The ratio of their mean translational kinetic doubled, then the new mean free path of N2 gas is
energy is (assume ideal gas behaviour)
(1) (2) 3
(1) 1 : 1 (2) ! " # !
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 16 : 25
(3) (4)
32. Degrees of freedom of carbon monoxide ideal gas "
at room temperature is 38. Ratio of mean translational kinetic energy of He
(1) 3 (2) 8 and O2 gas molecules at a temperature will be
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2
33. The molar specific heat at constant pressure for a (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 5
monatomic ideal gas is (R : Universal Gas
39. The pressure and density of an ideal diatomic
Constant)
gas change adiabatically from (p1, d1) to (p2, d2).
! ! !! "
(1) ! (2) ! If = 32, then ! is
" " !" ""
# #
(3) ! (4) 4 R (1) (2) 128
" #"$
34. Which of the following relations for an ideal gas is (3) 32 (4) 256
wrong? (Symbols have their usual meaning) 40. According to kinetic theory of gases, at 0 K
! ! (1) Internal energy of an ideal gas is zero
(1) "! (2) " !
! !
(2) Pressure of an ideal gas is zero
!!
(3) (4) Cp – Cv = 2R (3) Volume of an ideal gas is zero
!"
(4) All of these
35. At a given temperature, the pressure of an ideal
gas of density is proportional to 41. The root mean square speed of oxygen molecules
(O2) at a certain absolute temperature is v. If the
! ! temperature is doubled and oxygen gas
(1) !
(2)
dissociates into oxygen, the rms speed would be
(3) 2 (4) (1) v (2) !!

36. Which of the following graphs shows the variation
of mean kinetic energy E of an ideal gas (3) 2 v (4) ! ! !
molecules with temperature t°C?
42. A vessel of volume V contains an ideal gas at
absolute temperature T and pressure P. The gas is
allowed to leak till its pressure falls to P .
! !
Assuming that the temperature remains constant
(1) (2) during leakage, the number of moles of the gas
" " that has leaked is
# #
(1) %$ $& (2) %$ $&
!" "!"
! !
(3) (4) # #
(3) %$ $& (4) %$ $&
" " !" "!"
43. For a gas, if the ratio of molar heat capacities at 49. Figure shows graphs of pressure P versus density
constant pressure P and constant volume V is , for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2.
then the value of degree of freedom is Then
! ! !
(1) (2) "!
! !
""
# "
(3) % #& (4)
" !
44. Two gases A and B having the same temperature
T, same pressure P and same volume V are (1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 = T2
mixed. If the mixture is at the same temperature
and occupies a volume V, the pressure of the (3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 T2
mixture is
50. When n moles of a polyatomic gas is mixed with
(1) 2P (2) P five moles of monoatomic gas at low temperature,
" the mixture behaves as a diatomic gas, the value
(3) (4) 4P of n is
!
45. Boyle’s law and Charles’ law are given respectively (1) 5 (2) 8
by (Symbols have usual meanings)
(3) 10 (4) 12
!
(1) " ! !!"#$! %&#'("#(
# 51. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from
! 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K the root mean square
(2) "! !"#$%&#%'&#(' !"#$%&#%
# velocity of the gas molecules is v, then at 480 K
! it becomes
(3) ! " "#$%"#
! (1) 4v (2) 2v
!
(4) ! "#$%"!" &'$()#$) ! !
# (3) (4)
46. An ideal gas has an initial pressure of 3 pressure ! "
units and an initial volume of 4 volume units. The 52. Which of the following quantities is zero on an
following options give the final pressure and volume average for the molecules of an ideal gas in
of the gas (in those same units) in four thermal equilibrium?
processes. Which process starts and ends on
different isotherm? (1) Kinetic energy (2) Momentum
(1) P = 12, V = 1 (2) P = 6, V = 2 (3) Density (4) Speed

(3) P = 5, V = 7 (4) P = 4, V = 3
53. Molar heat capacity at constant volume of He gas
47. Five molecules have speed 4, 3, 5, 7 and 9 m/s. is ideally (R : Universal gas constant)
What is the rms speed of these molecules (in m/
s)? ! !
(1) ! (2) !
" "
(1) 5 (2) 5.2
(3) 6 (4) 36 # #
(3) ! (4) !
" "
48. If the temperature of an ideal gas is changed from
20°C to 40°C while the volume is unchanged, then 54. Two ideal gases have same number of molecules
the pressure of the gas is per unit volume and radii of their molecules are r
and 3r respectively. The ratio of their mean free path
(1) Doubled
in an identical container will be
(2) Increased to less than double
(3) Increased to more than double (1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(4) Decreased (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
55. Ratio of molar heat capacity at constant volume to 61. In thermal equilibrium, the average velocity of gas
its specific heat capacity at constant volume for molecules is (T : absolute temperature)
hydrogen is equal to
(1) Proportional to " (2) Proportional to T2
!
(1) 1 g (2) "# (3) Proportional to T3 (4) Zero
$
# 62. At what temperature the rms velocity of O 2
(3) 2 g (4) $%
" molecule will be equal to rms velocity of N 2
56. The ratio of average translatory kinetic energy to molecule at 0°C?
average rotational K.E. of a diatomic gas molecule (1) 20°C
is
(2) 93°C
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 39°C
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
(4) 53°C
57. A diatomic gas of molecular mass 30 g/mol is
63. Volume-temperature graph at atmospheric pressure
filled in a rigid container at temperature 20°C.
for a monatomic gas ( V in m3 and T in °C) is
Container is fixed with a moving trolley whose
velocity is 60 m/s. If trolley suddenly stops, then
the rise in temperature of the gas is (R : universal ! !
gas constant)
!!" (1) (2)

(1) #
$!
# " # "
!"#
(2) $
%!
! !
%&
(3) #
$!
&# (3) (4)

(4) $
%!
# " # "
58. For nitrogen Cp – Cv = a and for oxygen, Cp – Cv
= b. The relation between a and b is
64. The average translational kinetic energy of O2
(1) a = b (2) a = 7b (molar mass 32) at particular temperature is
0.50 eV. The average translational KE of O3 (molar
! ! mass 48) at same temperature is
(3) ! (4) "
" !
(1) 0.75 eV
59. For a gas R/C v =0.67. This gas consists of
(2) 1.5 eV
molecules which are
(3) 0.50 eV
(1) Diatomic (2) Monatomic
(4) 3.0 eV
(3) Triatomic (4) All of these
65. At constant pressure, the ratio of increase in
60. The relation among P, V, T for an ideal gas is
volume of an ideal gas per degree rise in kelvin
PV = aT, where a is a constant. The value of a
temperature to its original volume is (T = absolute
depends on
temperature of gas)
(1) P, V and T
#
(2) Mass of a gas molecule (1) T2 (2)
"
(3) Average K.E. of gas !
(3) (4) T
(4) Number of molecules in volume V !!
66. The number of degree of freedom for a diatomic 72. A vessel contains 1 mole of O 2 gas at a
gas, taking into account vibrational mode is temperature T . The pressure of the gas is P. An
(1) 2 (2) 5 identical vessel containing 2 mole of He gas at a
temperature 2T has a pressure of
(3) 7 (4) 6
(1) 2P (2) P
67. A gas is at temperature 137ºC. It is cooled down
(3) 4P (4) 8P
upto temperature tºC so that average kinetic
energy (Translational) of molecule is half then t is 73. The rms speed of an ideal diatomic gas is V at a
certain temperature. When temperature of the gas
(1) 68ºC
is doubled the gas dissociates into atoms. New
(2) 167ºC rms speed of the gas is
(3) 205ºC (1) V (2) 2V
(4) –68ºC
#
68. An ideal gas follows a law according to that its (3) (4) 4V
"
pressure varies with volume as $ ! , 74. The number of rotational degree of freedom for a
# #'
diatomic gas molecules is
where and are constants. The temperature of
the gas at volume V = is equal to (No. of moles (1) 5
= 1)
(2) 3
! ! !
(1) (2) (3) 7
!! !!
!
(4) 2
(3) (4) 75. As temperature increases for a given sample of
"! !!
gas, the most probable speed
69. A container containing hydrogen gas at 27°C is at
rest. Average velocity of gas molecules is (1) Increases
(1) 1934 m/s (2) 967 m/s (2) Decreases
(3) 483 m/s (4) Zero (3) Remains same
70. Degrees of freedom of an ideal gas is 4. Ratio of (4) Depends on atomicity of the gas
!!
molar heat capacities is equal to
!" SECTION - B
(1) 1.5 Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) 1.4 In the following questions, a statement of assertion

(3) 1.67
(4) 1.33 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
71. RMS speed of a monatomic gas is increased to assertion, then mark (1).
two times of its initial value. If the process is done
adiabatically, then the ratio of final volume to initial (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
volume will be reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 8 false, then mark (3).
(3) 1 : 23/2 (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) 1 : 42/3 statements, then mark (4).
1. A : If the temperature of gas filled in a closed 3. A : For monatomic gas atom, the number of
container is halved, the mean free path of the degrees of freedom is 3.
gas is also halved.
!! !
R : The mean free path of gas is directly R : For monatomic gas, .
!" "
proportional to temperature at constant volume
4. A : At very high temperature, diatomic gas have
2. A : If an electric fan be switched on in a closed two additional degrees of freedom.
room, air of the room will be cooled.
R : Number of molecules of gas decreases at high
R : Fan air decreases the temperature of the room. temperature.
!" !" !
Chapter 14
Electric Charges and Field
5. Two short dipoles are placed at a certain distance

SECTION - A
exert a force ‘F’ on each other. If distance between
Objective Type Questions them is doubled then the force will become
1. Two charges placed in air at a distance 1 m exert
#
force ‘F ’ on each other. If these charges placed (1) F (2)
inside mica at same distance, then the new net !
force between charges is !
(3) 4F (4)
(1) > F !"
(2) < F 6. The new dipole moment of the system is of the
magnitude
(3) = F
""!
(4) Depends on area of slab
2. A ring of radius R is having uniform line charge #$%& $#
density ‘ ’. The electric field at the center of ring
is
!! !!
(1) Zero (2) ! (1) q × 2a (2) 2q × 2a
! !
(3) q × a (4) 2 × (2q × 2a)
(3) (4) ! 7. Electric field calculated by Gauss law is the field
! " !! ! ! due to the charges which
3. Four charge of +1 C, +1 C, –1 C and +1 C are (1) Lie inside the Guassian surface
placed at the vertices of a square of side
! cm, (2) Lie outside the Guassian surface
in sequence. Net force experienced by 0.1 C
(3) Lie on the surface of the Guassian surface
charge at the centre of square
(1) 9 N (2) 18 N (4) Lie whether inside, outside or on the Guassian
surface
(3) 36 N (4) Zero
8. A small sphere of mass m and having charge q is
4. Two identical charges +‘q’ each are placed at a
suspended by a silk thread of length l in a uniform
distance ‘2d’. A test charge free to move on
horizontal electric field. If it stands at a distance x
perpendicular bisector of the line joining the two from the vertical line from point of suspension, then
charges. The test charge will feel maximum force magnitude of electric field is
when it is at distance; from mid point of line joining
of charges !" !" #
(1) (2)
(1) d (2) 2d # $ !
! !"# !" !
" (3) (4)
(3) (4) $ ! !
# !
# $! !!
! "
248 Electric Charges and Field Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 14. The ratio of the electric flux linked with the shell A
1 C are placed on the X-axis with co-ordinates and shell B in the diagram shown below is
x = 1, 2, 4, 8, ......, . If a charge 1 C is kept at
the origin, then net force acting on 1 C charge
(1) 9000 N (2) 12000 N
!
(3) 24000 N (4) 36000 N " #
10. A pendulum oscillates with the time period T. The
string, used in the pendulum, is stretchable. The
point to which it is attached is given positive (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
charge and the bob is also given positive charge q. (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 2
The time period of the pendulum will
15. At what distance from the larger point charge the
!"" electric field is zero?
! !""!
##$%&
(1) 4 cm (2) 11 cm
!! (3) 22 cm (4) 40 cm
(1) Increase 16. A point charge q is kept at the centre of the circle
formed by cutting a spherical shell by a plane as
(2) Decrease shown. The electric flux linked with the remaining
(3) Remain same surface of the shell is , then
(4) May increase or decrease !

11. Two identical small metal spheres having charges
q and –3q exert force F on each other. The
spheres are touched with each other and then kept
at the same separation. The magnitude of the new
force between the spheres will be ! !
(1) (2)
! ! ! !
!
(1) ! (2) 4F
" ! "
(3) (4)
! ! !
!
(3) 2F (4)
! 17. Electric field due to a uniform positively charged arc
AB of radius R at O is
12. Two charges 2 C and 8 C are separated by 6
cm. Neutral point is "
!!
(1) 4 cm from 2 C
!!!
%
!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!
(2) 2 cm from 2 C !
(3) 2 cm from 8 C
!!
# !"#
(4) 3 cm from 8 C
13. A point charge q is kept at a vertex of a cube. The
!
total electric flux linked with the cube is $

! ! ! !!
(1) !" (2) ! (1) ! " " ! (2)
! ! " " # "" !
! ! #! !!
(3) ! (4) (3) ! " " ! (4) " !# " !
! ! " "
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Electric Charges and Field 249
18. In the diagram shown below the block has charge 21. An electric dipole is kept at origin as shown in the
q and is attached at one end of the light spring. diagram. The point A, B, C are on a circular arc
The surface is smooth and horizontal and the with centre of curvature at origin. If the electric
spring is in its natural length. If the electric field E fields at A, B and C respectively are !#! ! " ! ! !
is switched on, the maximum elongation in the
then which of the following is incorrect? (d >> l )
spring will be
%
#
"
!
$
#
"# "# $ "
(1) (2) !
!! ! &
(1) !" ! !! (2) !" " !! !
! "# ! "#
(3) (4)
! ! (3) !" !! (4) ! " " !! !
19. A point charge +q is kept at the centre of curvature 22. A conducting body has a cavity in it as shown in
of thin semicircular wire of length l as shown. The the diagram below. A point charge q is held at the
wire has uniformly distributed charge –q on it. The centre of the cavity. The electric flux linked with the
dipole moment of the system is closed surface S (shown dotted) is
!
! !
! !
" !
! !
! ! !
!
! !
!!" !!" (1) (2)
! # !
(1) ! (2)
!
(3) (4) Zero
" !
(3) $% (4) Zero
" 23. A neutral bubble made of soap solution has radius
20. A point charge q is kept at the vertex B of the R. If some negative charge is given which gets
cube shown in the diagram. The electric flux linked distributed uniformly on the surface of the bubble,
with the face BCGH is radius of the bubble becomes R then
(1) R > R (2) R = R
" #
(3) R < R (4) R = 0.5 R
& 24. A large non-conducting sheet S is given a uniform
%
charge density. Two uncharged small metal rods A
and B are placed near the sheet as shown in the
! $ following diagram. Then the incorrect option is
( ' ! "
#
! !
(1) (2)
! ! " !
(1) S attracts A (2) S attracts B

$
(3) (4) Zero
#" " (3) A attracts B (4) S repels A
25. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a 29. Which of the following is incorrect about the
sphere. Which of the following is correct? electrostatic field lines?
(1) These can never be closed curves
(1) The electric flux through the sphere is zero
(2) On a conducting surface the lines are
(2) The electric field is zero at every point on the perpendicular
sphere (3) They can pass through a conductor
(3) The electric field is zero at every point inside (4) If the lines are equispaced and parallel to one
the sphere another, then the field is uniform
30. A particle of mass m has charge q0 when it is at
(4) The electric field is uniform inside the sphere rest. When the particle moves with speed v, charge
26. A particle with charge +q and mass m is projected on the particle will become (c is velocity of light in
with velocity v in opposite direction of a uniform vacuum)
electric field E as shown in figure in a gravity free # !" $"'
space. After what time the velocity will (1) (2)
! &
become –v?
"!
(3) # " "! (4) q0
!!
! 31. Starting from rest an electron moves through a
#
" small distance in an uniform electric field of
magnitude 2 × 104 NC–1. The direction of the field
is reversed keeping the magnitude unchanged and
a proton moves through the same distance. The
#$ $% time of motion will be
(1) (2)
! !" !# (1) Same in both cases
(2) More in the case of an electron
! #$ ! #$
(3) (4) (3) More in the case of proton
!" !"
(4) Independent of charge
27. Which of the following statements is correct about
32. The conducting shells A and B are arranged as
a dipole in a non-uniform field?
shown below. If charge on the shell B is q then
(1) Torque is always nonzero electric flux linked with the spherical gaussian
surface S is
(2) Net force may be nonzero
(3) Torque is always zero "
(4) Net force is always zero !

#
!#
28. In the following diagram the shell A is given a
charge q and B is earthed. The electric flux linked "
with the gaussian surface S is
#$
! !
# (1) (2) " !
! ! " ! !
! ! $ $
! ! (3) $ (4) "
! " "
$
33. A source charge Q is kept at a distance of 3 km
from a test charge q0. If Q is displaced slightly,
! ! then the change in the electric field detected by q0
(1) (2)
! # ! will be after
(1) 10 s (2) 10 ms
"$
(3) (4) Zero (3) 10 s (4) 10 ns
"
34. Two point charges –q and + 9q are kept at r = 12 cm 40. A cube of side a has a charge q at each of its
apart as shown. The electric field is zero at vertices. The net electric field intensity at its centre
is (r is the distance between a corner and the
#" $"
! ! " #
centre and k = )
! !
(1) 6 cm from the point A toward B
(2) 3 cm from the point A opposite to B !
(1) Zero (2) "
#!
(3) 9 cm from the point B towards A
!"! %$
(4) 18 cm from the point B towards A (3) " (4) (
#! )
35. Two point charges +2 C and +6 C repel each 41. The torque acting on an electric dipole of dipole
other with a force of 60 N. If a charge –4 C is ! !
moment ! in a uniform electric field ! is
added to each of them, the force between them will
! ! ! !
become (1) !! " (2) ! "
(1) 60 N (2) 360 N ! !
(3) Zero (4) ! "
(3) 20 N (4) 40 N 42. The unit of electric permittivity is
36. A cone of radius of base 1 m and height 2 m is (1) joule/coulomb (2) volt/metre2
placed with its base in the xz plane in a region
(3) farad/metre (4) henry/metre
with uniform electric field ! = 20 !! V/m as
43. Two equal positive charges are kept at (3, 0) m and
shown in figure. The magnitude of electric flux (–3, 0) m. A negative charge is then left from a position
linked with the cone is (0, 6) m. The negative charge will
"
(1) Undergo simple harmonic motion
(2) Undergo oscillatory motion
(3) Come to rest at (0, 0) m
! (4) Escape to infinity
# 44. A pendulum bob carries a positive charge q.

Another positive charge q is held at the point of
(1) Zero (2) 10 Vm support, then the time period of bob is (L : length
(3) 20 Vm (4) 40 Vm of the simple pendulum)
37. There are two charges 1 C and 2 C. The ratio of !

magnitude of forces acting on them due to their (1) Greater than !
"
interaction will be
!
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (2) Less than !
"
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
!
38. When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral (3) Equal to !
"
metal sphere, the charge on the sphere will be
(1) –1.6 C (2) –3.2 C !!
(4) Equal to !
"
(3) 1.6 C (4) 0.8 C
45. Electric field due to an infinite uniformly charged
39. Dielectric constant for the metal in electrostatics is straight wire at a perpendicular distance r is
proportional to
(1) 1
(2) 0 !
(1) (2) r
$"
(3) 81
! !
(3) (4)
(4) Infinite ! !!
46. 24 electric dipoles each of dipole moment 2 Cm 51. The electric field at a point A is! perpendicular to the
are packed inside a hollow sphere. Net electric flux direction of dipole moment ! of a short electric
through the sphere is dipole. The angle is equal to
"
!"!
(1) 28 Cm2 (2) #$
! !
(3) Zero (4) Infinity
47. A charge q is present at the corner of a cube. Total

electric flux through the cube is
(1) 0° (2) 90°
$ $
(1) (2) (3) tan–1 2 (4) "#$!"% &'
" ! "
52. A point charge q is placed over a horizontal square
! !
(3) (4) "
! ! "# ! of side L at a normal distance of from its
!
48. Which of the following is not the property of centre. Electric flux through the square is
charge?
! !
(1) (2)
(1) Like point charges repel each other ! ! ! !
(2) For an isolated system net charge is $ $ !

conserved (3) (4)
% ! ! !
(3) Specific charge is invariant 53. Two charges are arranged as shown in the figure.
If electric field at the centre of the circle is along
(4) Charge is quantised
!!
49. Three charges q, q and –2q are kept at three negative y-axis, then is
!"
corners of an equilateral triangle of side a.
Magnitude of electric dipole moment of the $
arrangement is
"" "!
!"# $"#
(1) 2qa (2) !" !
#
(3) !" ! (4) qa !! !"
50. Charge Q is distributed uniformly in a spherical

"
region of radius R. Which of the following roughly (1) ! (2)
represents the variation of electric field (E) versus #
distance (r) from the centre of sphere?
! #
(3) (4)
# # " $
54. A square of side a is lying in xy-plane such that its
two adjacent sides are lying on the x and y axes.
(1) (2) !
If an electric field " " #( is applied on the
!
" $ ! " $ ! square, then the flux passing through the square is
# # !" " !
(1) E0a3 (2)
!
(3) (4)
!" " !
(3) (4) E0a2
" $ ! " $ ! "
55. The electric field intensity which would be just
!
sufficient to balance the weight of a particle of 62. A charge Q is kept at a perpendicular distance
charge –10 C and mass 10 mg, is !
from the centre of a square plate of sides a. The
(Take g = 10 m/s2) electric flux through the square surface is
(1) 10 N/C, in upward direction
* *
(1) (2)
(2) 103 N/C, in downward direction ! " !
(3) 10 N/C, in downward direction
* *
(4) 104 N/C, in upward direction (3) (4)
! ! % !
56. A particle of mass 2 g and charge 1 C is held at
63. On the axis of uniformly charged ring of radius R,
a distance of 1 m from a fixed charge of 1 mC. If
as shown, the electric field is maximum at
the particle is released then its speed, when it is
at a distance of 10 m from the fixed charge, is #
(1) 55 m/s (2) 100 m/s

"
(3) 45 m/s (4) 90 m/s
!
57. Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart
in air. If a glass slab is introduced between them,
then the force between the two charges will
(1) Become zero (2) Decrease !
(1) x = 0 (2) +
"
(3) Increase (4) Remain same
!
58. The insulation property of air breaks down at (3) ! " ! (4) "
E = 3 × 106 V/m. The maximum charge that can !
be given to a sphere of diameter 5 m is 64. At the three corners of an equilateral triangle
approximately charges are placed as shown in figure. The
(1) 2 × 10–5 C (2) 2 × 10–4 C magnitude of electric field at point O is
(3) 2 × 10–3 C (4) 3 × 10–3 C #
59. An electric dipole is in unstable equilibrium in

external uniform electric field. Angle between its "
dipole moment and the external electric field is
" ! "
(1) 90° (2) 120°
(3) 0° (4) 180° !# !#
60. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest # "* ! !

(1) (2)
in a uniform electric field E and then released. The ! ! )" " " "!
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving
a distance y is ! ! " ! ! $
(3) ! (4)
# " " # " "!
(1) qEy (2) qEy2
65. Two symmetrical parallel metal plates each of one
(3) qE2y (4) q2Ey
side plate area A having charges Q1 and –Q2 are
61. Force of interaction between two bodies of same placed at small separation. What will be the
nature of charge electric field at a point in between the plates?
(1) Must be repulsive !! !" !! !"

(1) (2)
(2) May be attractive !" # "" #
(3) Must be attractive !! # !" !! # !"

(3) (4)
(4) Zero !" # "" #
!
66. An electric dipole of moment! " is released in a 70. Semivertex of the conical surface (obtained by
uniform electric field ! from the position of taking dipole moment as axis) on which electric
maximum torque. Angular !speed of the dipole when field by dipole becomes normal to moment of the
!
" becomes parallel to ! will be [I = moment of dipole is equal to
inertia of dipole] (1) #$%!" & (2) tan–12
!!" ,- (3) #$%!" ' (4) tan–13
(1) (2)
# . !
71. Electric field at an axial point of short dipole is !! .
!,- ". If the electric field at the equatorial point of same
(3) (4) !
. ,-
dipole is !! , then which of the following is
67. A charge Q is given to a conducting sphere of correct?
radius R. Now if a charge –Q is placed, as shown, ! ! ! !
at a distance r from the centre, then magnitude of (1) !! ! !" " (2) !! ! !" "
force of attraction between charges is ! ! ! ! !
(3) !! ! !" " (4) !! !" !
"
72. If 0 is permittivity of free space and E is the
electric field in free space, then dimensional
#
!" formula of 0E2 is
! (1) [ML–1T–2 ] (2) [ ML2T–2 ]
(3) [ML0T–3 ] (4) [M1L–1T–1 ]
73. A long thin rod is charged such that charge per
! ! unit length of the rod is . The rod is inserted into
! ! " #
(1) (2) a hollow spherical surface of radius R. Maximum
" " "! # " $! electric flux coming out of the surface is
" #! " #! ! " "!

(3) (4) (1) (2)
# " $! # " $$ % %!
! "
68. If a point charge q is placed at one corner of the " ! " !"
cube, then flux linked with the surface shaded in (3) (4)
figure is ! !
74. Two charges q and 4q are separated by a
distance r. The neutral point is at a distance
!
! !"
(1) from q (2) from q
! "
(3) r from q (4) r from 4q
75. A positron and a proton are projected normally into
uniform electric field with equal kinetic energy.
! ! Trajectory followed by them are
(1) ! (2) !
! ! (1) Circular with equal radius
! ! (2) Elliptical with same major and minor axis
(3) !" (4) "!
! ! (3) Parabolic with identical trajectory
69. If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed (4) Hyperbolic with identical trajectory
surface are respectively of magnitude 1 and 2,
76. There are two charges of +1 C and +5 C. The
then the electric charge inside the surface will be
ratio of the forces acting on them due to their
(1) ( – interaction will be
0 2 1) (2) ( 1 – 2) 0
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 5
! "
(3) 0( 2 + 1) (4) (3) 5 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
#
77. The distance between two point charges is 83. A charge Q is kept at centre of a hollow cylinder
increased by 10%. The force of interaction as shown. is the electric flux passing through the
cylindrical surface. The flux passing through one
(1) Increases by 10% (2) Decreases by 10% plane surface A, is
(3) Decreases by 17% (4) Increases by 17%
78. Cm is the SI unit of
#
(1) Electric flux ! "
(2) Electric potential ! !!
(1) ! ! (2) "
(3) Electric dipole moment " !
(4) Electric field intensity !* " !!! "

(3) " # $ (4) " # $
79. A solid sphere of radius R has a uniform % ! & % ! &
distribution of electric charge in its volume. At a 84. Three identical plates are kept as shown. Plate 1
distance x from its centre (x < R), the electric field is given –5Q charge and plate 3 is given Q charge.
is directly proportional to Electric field intensity at point x, is
"!# "
! " !
(1) (2)
!! " #
(3) x (4) x2
# $
80. An insulated sphere of radius R has charge
density . The electric field at a distance r from the #! !!
centre of sphere (r < R) (1) " $%&' (2) & " "#$%
! !
! " !! "$
(1) ! (2) ! (3) ( " "#$%&' (4) % #$%&'(
! ! ! !
85. The equation of trajectory of a charged particle

!
(3) (4) ! moving in xy plane in uniform electric field may be
! !
(1) y = 2x + 8 (2) x = y2 + 4
81. The electric flux from a cube of edge l is . What
(3) y = 2x2 + 6 (4) All of these
will be its value if edge of cube is made 2l and
charge enclosed is halved?
86. A short electric dipole having dipole moment !"! is
! placed at origin and a point charge + q is placed
(1) (2) 2
" at point (0, r). The force on dipole due to charge
is in
(3) 4 (4)
(1) + x direction (2) – x direction
82. Electric charge density inside a nonconducting
sphere varies with distance from the centre of the (3) + y direction (4) – y direction
sphere as r = (R – r) for 0 < r < R. Total charge
given to the sphere is Q. Select correct statement 87. A charged particle q of mass m is released on y-
!
(R = radius of sphere) axis at y = a in an electric field ! ""#! . The
speed of particle on reaching origin will be
(1) Electric field inside sphere follows inverse
square law
!! !
(2) Electric field inside sphere is zero at every (1) (2)
"# "#
point
(3) Electric field outside the sphere follows inverse
law $ !
(3) "/ (4) !
0 "#
(4) Electric field at centre of sphere is zero
88. A point charge q is placed at the centre of open 94. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a
face of a hemispherical surface as shown in figure. square ABCD as shown in figure. The force on a
positive charge kept at the centre of the square is
The flux linked with the surface is
" !"! #"!
$ %
!
! " #
(1) Zero (2) #! !!
! !
$ (1) Zero
(3) (4) q r2
! (2) Along diagonal AC
89. Order of q/m ratio of proton, -particle and electron
(3) Along diagonal BD
is
(1) e > p > (2) p > >e (4) Perpendicular to the side AB
(3) e > >p (4) p > e > 95. When a positive charge inside a metallic shell of
thickness t is moved, then induced surface charge
90. Dielectric constant of pure water is 81. Its density
permittivity will be (in MKS units)
(1) On inner surface will same and on outer
(1) 1.02 × 10–13 (2) 8.86 × 10–12
surface will change
(3) 7.17 × 10–10 (4) 7.8 × 10–10
(2) On inner surface will change and on outer
91. A body can be negatively charged by surface will same
(1) Giving excess of electrons to it (3) On inner and outer surface will same
(2) Removing some electrons from it
(4) On inner and outer surface will change
(3) Giving some protons to it
96. Charge distribution at three vertices of an
(4) Removing some neutrons from it
equilateral triangle of side a is shown in the figure.
92. An electric field in space is given by The net electric dipole moment of the system is
( #$$! % #! "%! ) unit, then electric flux through a
!
surface of area 1 unit lying in yz plane is
!"#
(1) 10 units (2) 17 units
(3) 30 units (4) 40 units

"
93. Two identical small spheres A and B having charge #$# #$#
Q are placed at a distance r apart. The force
acting between them is F. An identical uncharged
(1) " # $!"#!
sphere C comes into contact with A. After that it
comes into contact with B and is then placed in
middle of A and B. The net force acting on the C (2) " #$!"#!
is
&#
(1) (2) F (3) & % '&'$! & % '&'#!
'
&#
(3) (4) 3F (4) " # $!"#! " # $!"$!
!
97. Figure shows A, B, C and D four conducting 100. A point charge is placed at the centre of spherical
plates and Q1 and Q2 are charges given to outer Gaussian surface. The electric flux through the
plates A and D respectively, then charges q1 and surface is changed if the
q2 on outer faces of B and C are respectively (1) Sphere is replaced by a cube of same volume
! # % " (2) Sphere is replaced by a cube of half volume
(3) Charge is moved off-centre in the original
sphere
$! $! (4) Charge is moved just outside the original
sphere
101. In a region volume charge density varies with radial
*! *" *" *! !
(1) () distance r as where K is positive constant.
" " "
*! *" *! *" The electric field E varies with the radial distance
(2) () in the region as
" "
(3) Q1, Q2 (1) E r
!! !" !
(4) ! "#$%& (2) !
' "!
98. A circular plate subtends a solid angle steradian
at a point where a point charge 2Q is kept. The (3) E r2
total electric flux passing through the circular plate (4) E r0
is
102. Which of the following is incorrect about
! electrostatic force?
(1)
! ! (1) It is conservative
! (2) It is a central force
(2)
! ! (3) Electrostatic field lines never intersect
!" (4) It also depends on mass content of body
(3)
" ! !
103. Two charges each equal to !"!! "# are
!!
(4) placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of
! side a. The electric field at the third corner is E3,
99. A uniform electric field of strength E exist in a
region. An electron is projected in the region ! ! "
where ## "! $
perpendicularly with speed v as shown in the % ! !# $&"
diagram. Electron exits at point B. The electric field

in the region is given by (1) E3 = E0
$ (2) E3 < E0
%
(3) E3 > E0
#!&""#$% (4) E3 E0
% 104. An electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field
" such that dipole moment is not collinear with
!!""#$% electric field. It experiences
!" !! "# ! # !" ! "# ! # (1) A force and a torque
(1) $ % (2) $ %
& '! & '! (2) A force but no torque
!" !
! "# # !" !! "# ! # (3) A torque but no force
(3) $ ! % (4) $ " %
& '! & '! (4) Neither a force nor a torque
4. A : If the separation between two small electric

SECTION - B dipoles is doubled without changing their
Assertion - Reason Type Questions relative orientation, the force between them
becomes one eighth of initial value.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : On equatorial position of an electric dipole the
potential is non zero.
reason is the correct explanation of the 5. A : Mass of a body is increased slightly, when it
assertion, then mark (1). is negatively charged.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the R : Charging is due to transfer of electrons.
6. A : A positive point charge initially at rest in a
uniform electric field starts moving along
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is electric lines of forces.
R : A point charge released from rest in an electric
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false field moves along the lines of forces.
7. A : Two dissimilar charges attract each other.
1. A : Electric field inside a conductor is zero in
electrostatic equilibrium. R : Electrostatic field lines between two dissimilar
R : Normal drawn to the electric field-lines at some charges produce lengthwise contraction.
point gives the direction of electric-field at that 8. A : Like charges may attract each other.
point.
R : Unlike charges always attract each other.
2. A : A sensitive electric equipment can be saved
from electric field by enclosing it inside a 9. A : Charge of electric dipole is zero.
metallic shell. R : An electric dipole consists of two equal and
R : Electric field inside a metallic shell is zero opposite charges separated by a very small
provided that the shell does not enclose any distance.
charge.
10. A : Two spherical conductors having same surface
3. A : The electric field lines are normal to a charge density will have same electric field
conducting surface. near their surfaces due to their own charge.
R : A conducting surface is an equipotential R : Surface charge density is charge per unit
surface in equilibrium. area.
!" !" !
Chapter 15
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
4. Equivalent capacitance of following arrangement

SECTION - A
!" # !" #
1. A solid conducting sphere of radius 1 cm having &'" # $" #
charge 2 mC is surrounded by a conducting ! "
spherical shell of inner radius 2 cm and outer $" #
$!" #
radius 3 cm having total charge –2 mC. Both
spheres are conected with conducting wire.
%" # %" #
Surface charge density on the outer surface of the
shell is (1) 18 F (2) 9 F
!" !
! (3) 6 F (4) 12 F
!
(1) (2) "#
# 5. Two capacitor of capacitance 6 F and 3 F are
!
connected in series with battery of 30 V. Charge
! "# on 3 F capacitor at steady state is
(3) (4) Zero
!" ! #" !
2. Eight identical drops of radii ‘r’; each having charge
‘q’ merge to form a single drop. Potential of new
drop is
!" ! #$"%
(1) (2) "
!# ! (1) 3 C (2) 1.5 C
!! ! (3) 60 C (4) 900 C

(3) " " (4) ! 6. If E and V are electric field and electric potential
! ! "#" $
respectively due to a point charge, then which of
3. The space between the plates of a parallel plate the following graph best represent their variation?
capacitor is filled with the help of three slabs of
same thickness and having dielectric constant k1, ! !
k2 and k 3 in series. The equivalent dielectric (1) (2)
constant of slabs is
(1) keq = k1 + k2 + k3
! ! ! ! " "
(2)
!!" !! !" !#
! !
(3) (4)
!!! ! " !#
(3) !!"
!!!" !" !# !!!#
!! !" !#
(4) !!" " "
!
260 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. Three charges – Q, q and – 2Q are placed along a 11. Potential (V) versus distance (r) graph is shown in
line as shown in the figure. The system of charges diagram, then value of electric field at an instant A
will have positive potential energy configuration, if is
! !
!"" !"#"
!
"!#
! !
(1) " (2) " "
! !
! !
(3) " (4) " ! $% #
! !
(1) 5 V/m (2) – 10 V/m
8. The circular ring carries a uniformly distributed
positive charge lies in y-z plane with centre at origin (3) – 5 V/m (4) 10 V/m
of the coordinate system. If at a point (x, 0, 0)
12. Eight identical charged spherical mercury droplets
electric potential is V, then which of the following
each of capacitance C merge to form a single
is correct?
drop. The capacitance of the single drop is
" "
(1) Equal to 2C
(2) < 2C
(1) (2)
! ! (3) Between C and 2C
" " (4) Less than C

13. Two equipotential surfaces are shown in diagram,
then magnitude and direction of electric field
(3) (4) between the surface is
! !
! "
9. Work done in carrying an -particle from one point

!"#$%
to another point is 3.2 × 10–10 J. The potential
difference between the two points is
(1) 106 V (2) 109 V
&"#' &!#'
(3) 1012 V (4) 1015 V
(1) 10 V/m, A to B
!
10. A point charge q is placed at a distance from (2) 10 V/m, B to A
!
the centre O of an uncharged, conducting hollow (3) 5 V/m, A to B
sphere of inner radius R and outer radius 3R. The
(4) 5 V/m, B to A
! ! "
potential at the centre is # ! $ 14. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides
% " !&
(1) In positive charge
! !"
(1) (2) Both in positive and negative charge
" #
(3) In the electric field between the plates
# !"
(2) (4) Around the edge of the capacitor plates
" #
15. A capacitor is charged to store 0.4 J of energy
!!" and then connected with an identical uncharged
(3)
# capacitor. The energy left with the first capacitor is
#! (1) 0.1 J (2) 0.2 J

(4)
$ (3) 0.3 J (4) Zero
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 261
16. A point charge of 0.5 C is taken from point A to B as 20. A capacitor ‘1’ with breakdown voltage 120 volt is
shown in the diagram, where some equipotential connected with two other capacitors ‘2’ and ‘3’ as
surfaces are drawn. The work done by the electric field is shown. The breakdown voltage of ‘2’ is 120 V but
that of ‘3’ is 150 V. The maximum potential
difference across the plates of ‘2’ so that all the
!"#$ capacitors remain safe is (All capacitors have
same capacity)
!
'"#$ "
!
"
%"#$
#
&"#$
(1) 150 V (2) 120 V
(1) 5 J (2) –10 J (3) 75 V (4) 60 V
(3) 10 J (4) 20 J 21. The equivalent capacitance between the point a and
b in the network shown below is
17. A capacitor is charged upto 0.4 J of energy with a
battery and after disconnecting it from the battery ! !
the capacitor is completely filled with dielectric of "
dielectric constant 4, then final energy in the
capacitor is !
(1) 0.4 J (2) 0.3 J
#
(3) 0.2 J (4) 0.1 J
! !
18. How much charge will flow through the battery (1) 5 C (2) 4 C
when the switch S is closed?
(3) 3 C (4) 2 C
$" #
!" # 22. A capacitor is charged to energy 2.0 J and after
removing the battery, it is connected to an identical
uncharged capacitor. The amount of heat produced
$" # in the process is
!
(1) Zero (2) 0.5 J
%&"'
(3) 1.0 J (4) 2.0 J
(1) 16 C (2) 40 C
23. How much charge is supplied by the battery when
(3) 80 C (4) 100 C
the switch is closed in the circuit?
19. In the given circuit, ratio of charge stored in the
capacitors C and 5C is
"
! !! #
!
"! #! "
"
$!
!
(1) !"
" "
(1) 3 : 25 (2) CV
(2) 3 : 4 !
(3) !"
(3) 3 : 9 "
(4) 4 : 9 (4) 3CV
24. Two concentric spheres of radii a and b as shown 29. The minimum amount of work done when a point
in figure are arranged such that outside sphere is charge 0.2 C is moved from infinity to a given point
charged +Q and inner sphere is earthed. Charge P, is 20 J. The potential at point P is (potential at
on outer surface of outer sphere is infinity is zero)
# (1) 20 V (2) 100 V

"
(3) 200 V (4) Zero
!
30. Work done to carry a negatively charged body in
direction of electric field (Assuming no other force
is acting on the body)
!" (1) Is always negative (2) May be negative

(1) Q (2) !
# (3) Is always positive (4) May be zero
!" !# 31. Three copper plates A, B, C shown below are kept
(3) ! (4)
# $ at very small separations. If the plate A is given 2
25. The equivalent capacitance of the given circuit is C of charge, then the charge on the outer surface
of the plate C will be
!
!
! !
"
! ! ! !
#
(1) 2 C (2) 1 C
(3) 0.5 C (4) Zero
!"#
32. What will be the direction of charge flow when the
%
(1) (2) C switch S is closed?
#
!# ! #
(3) 2C (4) 4C
26. When the separation between two point charges is
increased, the electric potential energy of the $
charges
(1) Increases "
## "#
(2) Decreases
% ' &
(3) First increases and then decreases
(1) From a to b
(4) May increase or decrease
(2) From b to a
27. The electric field intensity and the electric potential
at a point are E and V respectively. Which of the (3) The direction of charge flow will depend on the
following is correct ? value of emf E
(1) If E 0, V cannot be zero (4) No charge will flow across the switch
(2) If V 0, E cannot be zero
33. A parallel plate capacitor is connected across the
(3) If V is constant and non-zero, E must be zero terminals of a battery. While the battery remaining
(4) If V = 0, E must be zero connected, a dielectric slab is introduced between
the plates of the capacitor, then which of the
28. In a and non zero electric field equipotential
following will be the same?
surface is
(1) Parallel to the field direction (1) Potential difference across plates
(2) Perpendicular to the field direction (2) Capacitance of the capacitor
(3) At 45° to the field direction (3) Energy stored in the capacitor
(4) At 60° to the field direction (4) Charge on the capacitor
34. Which of the following graphs correctly represents 38. Five identical capacitors are shown below alongwith
the variation of charge q and energy stored U in a a battery. The potential at point A is
capacitor? !"#$
! !
" " " ! " "
# $
(1) (2)
" " (1) 10 V (2) 8 V

(3) 6 V (4) 4 V
! ! 39. Five plates each of area A are arranged as in the

diagram. If the spacing between any two
consecutive plates is d then equivalent capacitance
(3) (4) between a and b is
" "
!
35. The maximum potential difference that can be
applied across the plates of a capacitor of "
capacitance C is V0. What can be the maximum
potential difference between the points a and b in "" ! "" !
the following arrangement ? (1) (2)
!! !!
# !" ! "" !
! (3) (4)
! # " "! !!
# 40. A capacitor with energy 1 J is connected with an
" identical uncharged capacitor. The amount of heat
# developed in the process is
(1) V0 (2) 1.5 V0
(1) 1 J
(3) 2V0 (4) 3V0
(2) 0.5 J
36. Six point charges are kept on the circle of radius
(3) 0.25 J
R as shown below. The electric potential at the
centre of the circle is (4) Zero
! 41. The two spherical conductors shown below are
touched with each other and then separated. After
! ! the separation the potential on the shell A is
" !! !!
! !
"
! ""
# $
" &"#
(1) Zero (2) $ !
! ! %!" (1) Zero
& !" #
# # & !" #
(3) $ ! (4) $ ! "
" !%! " " !%! " (2)
! !!
37. The electric potential V is given as a function of
x (in metre) V = (x2 – 6x + 5). The electric field is (3)
""
zero at ! !!
(1) x = 1 m (2) x = 2 m #"
(4)
(3) x = 3 m (4) x = 6 m ! !!
42. What is the charge on 2 F capacitor in the circuit 47. If the switch S is closed, how much charge will be
diagram shown below? supplied by the battery?
&" # !" # !
"
# " " "
'" #
"
$"% (1) CE (2) 2CE
# (3) 4CE (4) 5CE
(1) ! (2) 3 C
" 48. What should be the capacitance of the capacitor
(3) 4 C (4) 8 C x in the following arrangement so that the potential
43. An air filled parallel plate capacitor has capacitance difference between P and Q is zero?
C. When a dielectric medium of dielectric constant " #
k is introduced to fill half of the space between the !
plates as shown, the capacitance becomes 2C.
$" #
The value of k is
!" # !
!
$
(1) 2 (2) 3 %&"'

(3) 4 (4) 6 (1) 3 F (2) 6 F
44. How many identical capacitors will be needed to (3) 9 F (4) 1.5 F
form a system that can withstand a potential 49. A slab of a dielectric material is kept in a uniform
difference of 1000 V and has equivalent capacitance electric field E0. If net electric field inside the slab
of 10 F ? If each capacitor has breakdown is E and induced electric field is E p then the
potential of 250 V and capacitance of 5 F dielectric constant of the material is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 16 #! &!
(3) 32 (4) 50 (1) (2)
#! &
45. Find the net capacitance of given circuit between !! #
points P and Q (3) (4)
!! ! ! #! # # !
50. In diagram shown below, the induced charge on
the left face of the dielectric slab of dielectric
! ! ! ! ! constant k is (Take area of the left face as A)
(1) 5 C (2) 3 C !!
"! "!
(3) (4) !
! !
46. The equivalent capacitance between the points 'a'
and 'b' in the following network is
& !# & !#
# (1) " # ! " ! $! " ! (2) # ! " ! $! " !
% !" % !"
!" # $" #
(3) –E0 A 0(k – 1) (4) E0 A 0(k – 1)
! "
'" # 51. If charge on a capacitor is increased, then which
of the following will not change?
&" # %" #
(1) Energy stored
$
(2) Capacitance
#$ %$
(1) ! (2) ! (3) Potential
" "
(3) 10 F (4) 20 F (4) All of these will increase
52. What is the work done by external force to carry 56. The electric potential at a point P(x,y,z) is given by
a point charge q0 from point A to B as shown in V = 4x – 3y + 8z. The electric field at that point
the diagram? The field intensity is E and distance is
AB = d
(1) –4 !! + 3 $' – 8 !!
"
!
(2) 4 !! – 3 $' + 8 !!
$%&
#
(3) –4 !! – 3 '$ – 8 !!
(1) q0 Ed (2) –q0 Ed
(4) 4 !! + 3 $' + 8 !!
" "
(3) # # ! !" (4) # ! !" 57. Select the correct statement
! !
(1) The electric field can exist only in a material
53. In the following circuit diagram, when the switch S
medium
is closed, no current flows through the ammeter.
The product of the capacitances C1 and C2 is (2) The electric field in the Gauss’s law is only due
to the enclosed charges
$! &" #
(3) The equatorial plane of an electric dipole is an
% equipotential surface
(4) The path traced by a positive charge in an
!" # $" ' electric field is a field line
58. 27 small spherical mercury drops each of radius
r and each having same charge q are combined to
(1) 1.5 pF2 (2) 3 pF2 form a big spherical drop. The ratio between the
(3) 6 pF2 (4) 6 F2 potential of the bigger drop to that of a small
drop is
54. In the diagram shown below some equipotential
surfaces are drawn. A point charge q0 = 0.5 C is (1) 9 (2) 3
brought from point A to B. The work done by the
(3) 27 (4) 18
electric field in the process is
59. Three capacitors of capacitance 3 F, 9 F and
#$$%& 18 F are connected once in series and then in
" parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance in the
##$%& !! "
! two cases # ! $ will be
#'$%& # !" $
% &
#($%& (1) 1 : 15 (2) 1 : 18
(1) 5 J (2) 10 J
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 3
(3) –5 J (4) –10 J
60. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the
55. The equivalent capacitance between the points A network below is
and B in the following network is (where each
capacitor is of capacitance 2 F) !" # !" #
! $" # "
!" # !" #
! "
! !
(1) F (2) F
" "
(1) 2 F (2) 6 F
#
(3) 6 F (4) F
(3) 12 F (4) 24 F $
61. In the figure, a capacitor is filled with dielectrics. 65. A capacitor of capacitance 1 F can withstand a
The resultant capacitance between X and Y is maximum voltage 10 V, while a capacitor of
(symbols have usual meanings) capacitance 5 F can withstand the maximum
" voltage 20 V. If the two capacitors are connected
!!" !!" in parallel, then the two capacitors combination
$ %! can take up the maximum voltage of
"
%# $ (1) 10 V
$ %" (2) 20 V
"
(3) 30 V
#
!"
! !! ! " " " " (4) V
(1) # $ #
" % #" ## #$ &
66. The net capacitance between A and B in the
!! !! ! ! " network shown is
(2) # $
" % #" ## #$ &
! !!
(3) "" " # "$ ! # # # # # # "
#
! ! ! !""" # """ $ " #"$ " !

(4) (1) ! (2) 6C
!# #% "" " # $
& "
62. At the centre of a uniform positively charged thin !

(3) (4) 4C
ring (E : electric field intensity, V : electric $
potential)
67. Two capacitors of capacitance C 1 and C 2 are
(1) E 0, V = 0 (2) E 0, V 0 charged to potentials V 1 and V 2 respectively.
When they are connected in parallel, the ratio of
(3) E 0, V = 0 (4) E 0, V 0 their respective charges at equilibrium is
63. Electric potential at an inside point r from the
!! !!
centre of a conducting sphere of radius R and (1) (2)
carrying charge Q is !" !"
! ! ! ! %#)# !"!
(1) " (2) " (3) (4)
# ! " # ! # %!)! !!!
68. Five capacitors each of capacitance C are
% "( connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of
(3) Zero (4) &
" " $! capacitance between P and R and the capacitance
between P and Q is
64. In the circuit shown in figure, the charge stored in
the capacitor of capacity 30 F is $
!"# $ %&# $ '&# $ ! !
" #
! !
!
"&#(
(1) 450 C (2) 1500 C (1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 2
(3) 150 C (4) 1350 C (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
69. The flow of charge through switch S, when it is 74. A and B are two concentric metallic shells. If A is
closed is positively charged and B is earthed, then electric
#$ % "
!" !
! !
!" " !"
&$ % '$ % (1) Field at common centre is nonzero
(2) Field outside B is nonzero

! !
(1) (2)
" " (3) Potential outside B is positive
!! (4) Potential at common centre is positive

(3) (4) Zero
"
75. The figure shows some of the equipotential
70. Electric potential at a point P(x,y,z) is (x+y+z) V. surfaces. Magnitude and direction of the electric
Electric field in that region is field is given by
"!"#$
#$
#$
#$
#$
(1) ! ! "! # ! !$ % ! &! "#$ (2) "!! "! #! # $%&
&"
%"
'"
!"
!"# !"# !"# !"#
(3) '"!! "! #! # $%& (4) "# !"! #$! %&! $ %&' ! $" %" !" &"
!!"#$
71. An air filled parallel plate capacitor is charged to

potential 20 V and then isolated from the battery. (1) 200 V/m, making an angle 120° with the x-axis
If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K = 4 is
filled to fill the space completely, then new potential (2) 100 V/m, pointing towards negative x-axis
difference across the plates is
(3) 200 V/m, making an angle –60° with the x-axis
(1) 20 V (2) 5 V
(3) 80 V (4) 4 V (4) 100 V/m, making an angle 30° with the x-axis
72. Two concentric metallic spherical shells A and B of 76. Two point charges –q and +q are located at points
radii a and b respectively (b > a) are arranged such (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a) respectively. The electric
that outer shell is earthed and inner shell is charged potential at point (0, 0, z) is (given z > a)
to Q. Charge on the outer surface of outer shell will be
!" !!
!" ! !" (1) ! (2)
(1) ! (2) " # !" $ ! "# " !"
# % #&
!!"
(3) –Q (4) Zero (3) (4) Zero
!
" " ## "! $
73. In the circuit shown in figure, energy stored in 6 F
capacitor will be 77. If n identical drops, each of capacitance C,
coalesce to form a single big drop, the capacitance
(" # of the big drop will be
(1) n3C (2) nC

'"& !" # (3) n1/2C (4) n1/3C
78. If an electron is brought towards another electron,

$%"& then electric potential energy of the system
(1) 48 × 10–6 J (2) 32 × 10–6 J (1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) 96 × 10–6 J (4) 24 × 10–6 J (3) Becomes zero (4) Remains same
79. The equivalent capacitance across A and B in the 82. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a definite
given figure is potential difference and then charging battery is
disconnected. Now if a dielectric is inserted
# between the plates, then choose the incorrect
" statement
!
! ! (1) Stored energy of the capacitor decreases
(2) Force of attraction between the plates
decreases
!
(3) Electric field between the plates decreases
(4) Net charge induced on the dielectric is zero
!
(1) ! (2) C !
# 83. Magnitude of the electric field ! depends only on
! # ! !"
(3) ! (4) ! the x-coordinate given by ! "# V/m. The
" " #!
potential difference between two points A(5 m, 0)
80. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric
and B(10 m, 0) i.e., (VB – VA) is
field produced by a point charge placed at P as
(1) +2 V
shown. Let VA, VB, VC be the potentials at points
A, B and C respectively. Then '
(2) ( V
#)
$
(3) –2 V
!
# (4) V
! " "
84. In the given arrangement of parallel plates each
plate has area A and distance between two
(1) VA < VB < VC (2) VA > VB > VC consecutive plates is d. The equivalent capacitance
of the system between x and y is given by
(3) VC > VB = VA (4) VA = VB = VC
#
"!"!$
81. In a hollow conducting sphere a charge q is placed $
away from the centre at position A as shown in the ! "!"!# #
figure. Then mark the incorrect statement from the "!"!% #
following
" !!
(1)
#
!
" !!
% $ (2)
# #
!" !!
(3)
"
(1) There exist radial electric field lines in empty !" ! !
space inside the hollow sphere (4)
# "
(2) Outside the conducting sphere, radial electric 85. Electric field in a region is increasing in magnitude
field lines will exist along x-direction. The equipotential surfaces
associated are
(3) Nonuniform distribution of charge on inner (1) Planes parallel to xy-plane
surface of conducting surface
(2) Planes parallel to yz-plane
(4) Potentials at inner surface and outer surface of (3) Co-axial cylinders around x-axis
conductor are same (4) All of these
86. Two plates (of area A each) of an air filled parallel
plate capacitor are charged with q and 2q as 90. An electric field is given by ! "! " #! $! N/C.
shown in figure. Electric field in the space between
The work done in moving a 1 coulomb charge from
the plates is
!! !!" !!# " to !! !!" !# " is
(1) 8 J (2) 4 J
(3) – 4 J (4) Zero
91. The electric field intensity at a point is !"#!! $#!" % N/C.

! !!
Considering potential at origin to be zero, the
! *! potential at P(2, 2) m is
(1) # * (2) " *
" " (1) –100 V (2) – 50 V
! "! (3) – 40 V (4) – 60 V
(3) (4) * * 92. Taking earth to be a metallic sphere, its capacity
!" "
will approximately be (Radius of earth R = 6.3 ×
87. Surface charge density on the positive plate of a
106 m)
charged parallel plate capacitor is . Energy
density in the electric field of the capacitor is (1) 700 F (2) 700 F
!
(3) 700 pF (4) 6.4 × 106 F
!
(1) (2) 93. A conducting sphere of radius R and carrying a
" ! "
charge q is joined to another conducting sphere of
2
radius 2R and carrying a charge –2q. The charge
(3) (4) 2 0
! flowing between them will be
88. Two capacitors of capacity 2 F and 3 F are
! !
charged to same potential difference 6 V. Now, (1) ! (2) !
they are connected with opposite polarity as " "
shown. After closing S1 and S2 their final potential
difference becomes #
(3) q (4) $
$
!" 94. If area of each plate be A then net capacitance of
% & arrangement is
!" # $" #
& %
! #
# "
#
!!
! ! ! ! !
! (1) (2)
(1) Zero (2) "# " "
$
% ! ! ! ! ! !
(3) 3 V (4) "# (3) (4)
& " "
89. 64 charged drops are put together to form a bigger 95. The equivalent capacity between points A and B will
drop. If charge on each drop is q, then the charge be
on bigger drop will be
(1) 16q ! ! " ! " ! " "
(2) 64q
(3) 4q (1) 1 F (2) 3 F
(4) q (3) 5 F (4) 9 F
96. How many capacitors each of 8 F and 250 V are 102. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and
required to form a composite capacitor of 16 F and disconnected from battery. If separation between the
1 kV? plates is now increased, then the wrong statement
is
(1) 16 (2) 8
(1) Capacitance decreases
(3) 64 (4) 32
(2) Charge on the capacitor increases
97. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to
V volt source, then energy stored in the system of (3) Potential difference across the plates increases
capacitors is equal to
(4) Potential energy stored in the capacitor
(1) CV increases
(2) CV2 103. Four identical capacitors have equivalent capacitance
C1 in series and C2 in parallel. The ratio of C1/C2 is
!
(3) !" !
#" (1) 1/2 (2) 1/8
! (3) 1/16 (4) 1
(4) !"" !
#
104. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is
98. Charge on 4 F capacitor in the given circuit is
$" #
%" # !" #
!" # !
(" # %" #
&" # &" #
$" #
"
'" #
%'"(
(1) 3.75 F (2) 2 F
(1) 24 C (3) 21 F (4) 16 F

(2) 12 C !
105. An electric field & %+ +,$ V/m exists in a space.
(3) 36 C
Take potential at (10 m, 20 m) to be zero, then
(4) 30 C the potential at the origin is
99. A charge Q is placed on a solid metallic object of
irregular shape. Q will distribute itself (1) 200 V (2) 300 V
(1) Uniformly inside the metal (3) 500 V (4) 400 V
(2) Uniformly on the surface of metal 106. A metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged to
potential 24 V. It is joined to another uncharged
(3) Such that potential energy is minimized
metal sphere and potential falls to 6 V. The radius
(4) Such that potential energy is maximized of the second sphere is
100. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to (1) 10 cm
another on an equipotential surface, then
(1) Work is done on the charge (2) 20 cm
(2) Work is done by the charge (3) 30 cm

(3) Potential energy of the charge is changed (4) 40 cm
(4) No work is done on the charge 107. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to potential V.
101. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends A dielectric slab of thickness 3 mm is inserted
on between the plates and it becomes necessary to
increase the distance between them by 2.4 mm to
(1) Material of plates
maintain the same potential difference. The
(2) Thickness of plates dielectric constant of the slab is
(3) Potential difference across plates (1) 3 (2) 4
(4) Separation between plates
(3) 5 (4) 6
108. The self potential energy of a uniformly charged non 114. An -particle and a proton are accelerated from
conducting solid sphere carrying charge q and rest through same potential difference. The ratio of
! their final kinetic energies are
radius R is [ ! ]
" ! (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
"
*-! (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
(1) Zero (2)
)$ 115. The work done in moving an electron of charge e
and mass m from A to B along the circular path
!" ! !" ! shown by arrow (in figure) in vertical plane in the
(3) (4)
!# $# field of charge Q is
#
109. The equivalent capacitance between point P and Q
in the circuit shown is
! ! !
" !!
! # !
"
#(.
(1) 2mgr (2)
"
(1) C (2) 2C !!"
(3) !#$% (4) Zero
%
(3) C/2 (4) 4C
116. A positive charge q and a negative charge –q are
110. An aluminium sheet is placed parallel to the plates
placed at x = –a and x = +a respectively. The
of a parallel plate capacitor. Its capacitance will
variation of V along x-axis is represented by the
(1) Increase (2) Decrease graph
(3) Remain same (4) Become infinite )
111. If the potential difference between the plates of a $! !!

capacitor is increased by 20%, then energy stored (1) ""
"%&%'# ( ""#"#
in the capacitor increases by exactly
(1) 20% (2) 22%
(3) 40% (4) 44% "
112. Potential V is varying with position (x, y) as

#$ "!$
! ! (2) !!
! "" # # $ volt. The electric field at the point #
#
(1, 1) is !!$!%
(1) !! "! (2) !! "! '
(3) !! !" (4) !! !"

&% ! $%
(3) "
113. Electrostatic potential on the surface of a metal "!"!## "!"!#
charged sphere of radius R is V. Its potential at
!
distance from centre is '
!
"!"!## "!"!$#
) (4) "
(1) (2) 3V &% ! $%
*
(3) V (4) Zero
117. An earthed conducting sphere 122. Two small metallic spheres with charge Q and 3Q
(1) Always have zero charge repel each other with a force F. If the two are joined
by a thin wire, then repulsive force between them
(2) Always have zero potential will be
(3) May have positive charge
#
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) %
$
118. Neutral metal sphere of radius R is connected to
earth through a switch S which is initially open. (2) 4F
Two charges +3Q and +2Q are kept at 9R and 3R (3) F
distances from the centre of the sphere as shown.
When switch is closed, the charge flown from the !
(4) %
sphere to the earth is $
123. Effective capacitance between A and B of the

network shown in the figure is
# !"
#! "
$ !! " "
"" " "
"
(1) – Q (2) + Q
! " " #
! #( #
(3) ! (4) ( &
" * (1)
$
119. A capacitor of capacity 10 F is charged by a (2) 7C
battery of emf 10 V. Energy stored in
!
(1) 0.5 mJ (2) 0.5 J (3) !
"#
(3) 0.5 J (4) 0.5 kJ
!!
120. Force between plates of an isolated, charged (4)
parallel plate capacitor separated by distance r is "
F. If the separation between the plates is doubled, 124. 27 small spherical mercury drops each of radius r
then force between the plates will become and each having same charge q are combined to
form a big spherical drop. The ratio between the
(1) F
potential of the bigger drop to that of a small drop
/ is
(2)
# (1) 3 (2) 9
/ (3) 27 (4) 18
(3)
"
125. Two identical geometry capacitors one with
(4) 4F dielectric and other with air between the plates are
121. Which of the following statements is correct shown in the figure. They are charged by a battery
regarding electrostatics of conductors? of emf V. The work done by battery in charging
both the capacitors fully is
(1) The interior of a conductor with no cavity can
have no excess charge in the static situation #!"!#
(2) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout

the volume of the conductor
(3) Electrostatic potential has same value inside "
as that on its surface
(4) All of these !
(1) 5CV2
SECTION - B
! Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) "#! $" !
%
!
(3) !" !
" (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) 3CV2 assertion, then mark (1).
126. A potential difference will not appear between two (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
thin concentric shells of radius R1 and R2 (R1 > reason is not the correct explanation of the
R2) by which of the following process? assertion, then mark (2).
(1) When a charge is given to inner shell (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) When a charge is given to outer shell
(3) When equal charge is given to both the shells statements, then mark (4).
(4) All of these 1. A : A charged capacitor is disconnected from a

battery. Now if its plates are separated farther,
127. Find equivalent capacitance between A and B the electric field between plates will remain the
same.
! " ! " #
R : The electric field between the plates is and

! ! !
!
charge density remains same on separation.
! ! 2. A : A negatively charged body can have zero

potential.
% R : The electric potential can be zero at a point

(1) where electric field is non-zero.
*
3. A : A capacitor can be given only a limited quantity
%+ of charge.
(2) %
%%
R : The capacity of a capacitor depends upon area
(3) 3C of overlapping of plates.
(4) 2C 4. A : Electron always moves from a region of higher

potential to a region of lower potential.
128. Uniform electric field of magnitude 100 V/m in space is
R : Electron is a positively charged particle.
directed along the line y = 3 + x. Find the potential
difference between point A(3, 1) and B(1, 3). 5. A : If a dielectric is inserted to fill the gap between
the plates of a capacitor connected to a
(1) 100 V
battery, then electric field inside the capacitor
decreases.
(2) !"" ! #
R : Magnitude of electric field inside a medium is
(3) 200 V !
times the potential gradient in that
!
(4) Zero medium.
6. A : Electrostatic potential at every point inside a rotating charge in one complete revolution
charged metal sphere is same as that on around that charge is zero.
surface. R : Work done will be zero in moving charge on
R : Work done in moving a test charge from an equipotential surface.
surface to any part inside is zero. 8. A : Corona discharge takes place readily at
7. A : A point charge q is rotated along a circle in the sharper points.
electric field generated by another point charge R : Electrical potential at sharp points is more than
q. The work done by the electric field on the that at the blunt points.
!" !" !
Chapter 16
Moving Charges and Magnetism
3. A charge is moving in a circular path of radius ‘r’

SECTION - A
with speed v in a transverse magnetic field B.
Objective Type Questions Specific charge of the particle is
1. In the given figure the current 2I is coming and ! $
passing through two semicircular loops. The (1) (2)
"# #"
magnetic induction at the centre ‘O’ is
#"
(3) Bvr (4)
$
" 4. Voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is
!#"
V s and current sensitivity is I s. Resistance of
$!
galvanometer is ‘G’. The relation between Vs and
! $" Is is
!!
!#" " (1) "! (2) Vs = Is.G
#
! !
(3) " # "! (4) # "!
! ! !
!!
(1) ! "" "# # 5. Two straight parallel thin wires carrying current i
"
each down in plane of paper are kept at !!

!!
! !!"
! ""
(2) ! "" ! #% "" "# $& distance apart as shown in the figure. If magnetic
field due to current in wire A at P is B. The
!" "" magnetic field at P by A is
! !! !!
(3) ! "" ! #% "" "# $&
$
" !
!! ! !" #
!
(4) # $
" % "" "# &
!$
2. A proton moving in a circular path inside a uniform
magnetic field with a speed v. The magnitude of " #
change in its velocity when the arc constructed by
proton makes an angle of 60º at the center ! $
(1) ! (2)
" !
(1) v (2) ! !
! # !!
(3) (4) # (3) !! (4)
! ! "
276 Moving Charges and Magnetism Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
6. Which of the following statement is wrong? 13. When a charged particle moves in a uniform
magnetic field, which of the following always
(1) Voltmeter should have high resistance
remains constant?
(2) Ammeter should have low resistance
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Force
(3) Ammeter is placed parallel across the (3) Momentum (4) All of these
resistance in a circuit
14. An -particle completes 40,000 revolutions in a
(4) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the cyclotron before exiting from it. If potential
resistance in a circuit difference between the Dees is 5000 V, then the
7. The magnetic field at the centre of circular coil is energy gained by the particle is
! (1) 8 MeV (2) 800 MeV
B0 than the distance on its axis where Bx = !
! (3) 4 MeV (4) 400 MeV
is (R = radius of coil)
15. A charge particle is projected in uniform magnetic
! field at an angle 45° with magnetic field. If
(1) (2) !! circumference of the helical path followed by it is
!
2 cm, then pitch of the helix is
" !
(3) (4) (1) 1 cm (2) ! cm
# !
(3) 2 cm (4) 4 cm
8. An electron is travelling horizontally towards east.
A magnetic field in vertically downward direction 16. A charged particle moves in a transverse magnetic
exerts a force on the electron along field. The quantities/quantity that will remain
unchanged are/is
(1) East (2) West
(1) Kinetic energy
(3) North (4) South
(2) Speed
9. When the speed of electron increases, then the
(3) Magnitude of momentum
value of its specific charge
(4) All of these
(1) Increases
17. A proton and an -particle move in circular paths
(2) Decreases in a transverse magnetic field. If speed of proton is
two times that of -particle, the ratio of their
(3) Remains same
periods of revolution is
(4) First increases to certain velocity and then (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
decreases
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
10. A current carrying loop is turned into a coil having
n identical concentric turns. Magnetic field at the 18. A wire of length l carrying current i is folded to form
centre becomes x times its initial value, then x = a circular coil of N turns. To have maximum value
of magnetic moment of the coil, the value of N will
(1) n (2) n2 be
! (1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2n (4)
!
(3) 9 (4) 10
11. A straight current carrying wire is placed along the
axis of a current carrying loop, then force between 19. Two wires of large length carry equal currents each
them is i. One wire is kept along x-axis and the other is
(1) Repulsive (2) Attractive kept along y-axis. The magnitude of magnetic field
at a point on z-axis at distance d from the origin
(3) Zero (4) Cannot be predicted is
12. A proton and an particle are thrown normally into
an uniform magnetic field with same momentum, !
! ! !
(1) (2)
then ratio of radii of their circular path is ! " ! "
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
!$
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 (3) (4) Zero
%
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Moving Charges and Magnetism 277
20. A straight magnetic wire of magnetic moment M is (1) 2000 (2) 1800
folded to form an arc that subtends an angle of 60° (3) 18000 (4) 8000
at the centre of curvature. The new value of
magnetic moment is 26. Current is flowing in a thick metal rod. The
magnetic field is associated with the current will be
!! "! (1) Only inside the rod
(1) (2)
(2) Only outside the rod
! ! (3) Both inside and outside the rod
(3) (4)
! (4) Neither inside nor outside the rod
21. To compensate the relativistic variation of mass at 27. The magnetic intensity near one end of a long
high speed of charge in cyclotron. Adjustments can solenoid of length L and having N turns and
be made is carrying current i is given as
(1) Frequency of a.c. is decreased ! &'

(1) 0Ni (2)
!%
(2) Magnetic field is increased
(3) Peak value of a.c. is increased %& ! &'

(3) (4)
!$ %
(4) Both (1) & (2)
28. The dimensional formula of magnetic intensity is
22. A wire of length l is folded to form double circular (1) [ML0T–2A–1] (2) [M0L–1T0A+1]
loop. If current in the wire is i, the magnetic field
(3) [M0L+1T0A–1] (4) [M2LT–2A–1]
at the centre is
29. What should be current in a circular coil formed by
!! !! a wire of length 31.4 cm to produce a magnetic
(1) (2)
!! ! field of 1 × 10–4 T ?
(1) 0.8 A (2) 8 A
! !$ " !$
(3) (4) (3) 2 A (4) 80 A
! !
23. A infinite straight wire carrying current 3 A and other 30. If magnetic induction at centre due to electron in first
carrying 6 A in the same direction produce a orbit of hydrogen atom is B, then the magnetic
magnetic field of 12 tesla at the mid point of line induction due to electron in 5th orbit of the atom is
joining them. When 6 ampere current wire is "
switched off, the magnetic field will be (1) 2B (2)
"#$!
! "
!"# $"# (3) (4)
!"#! "#$"
31. A charged particle enters a region of uniform
!
magnetic field at an angle (where 0 < < 90°)
to the field. The path of the particle will be
(1) 24 T (2) 3 T
(1) Straight line (2) Ellipse
(3) 6 T (4) 12 T
(3) Circle (4) Helix
24. When a 1 resistor is connected with a moving
32. A proton, an electron and an -particle after being
coil galvanometer, then its deflection reduces from
accelerated by the same potential difference, enters
50 division to 5 divisions. The resistance of the
perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field. The
galvanometer is
kinetic energy of the particle when they come out
(1) 9 (2) 10 of the field will be in the ratio
(3) 11 (4) 1 (1) 1 : 1 : 1
25. A voltmeter of resistance 2000 can measure a (2) 1 : 1 : 2
maximum potential difference of 2 V. If it is to be
(3) 2 : 2 : 1
converted into a voltmeter of range 20 V, the
required resistance in series will be (4) 1 : 2 : 1
33. A charge –Q is moving vertically upwards. If it 38. If number of turns in a moving coil galvanometer is
enters a magnetic field directed to south, then the doubled, then
force on the charged particle will be towards
(1) Voltage sensitivity becomes double
(1) North (2) South
(2) Current sensitivity becomes double
(3) East (4) West
(3) Voltage sensitivity becomes half
34. A particle of mass m and charge q is moving in a
magnetic field B with velocity v in a circular path (4) Current sensitivity remains same
of radius r. The time period of revolution does not
39. Three long straight wires A, B and C are shown in
depend on
figure. The resultant magnetic force on wire B is
(1) q (2) B
(3) v (4) m
35. The magnetic field at origin in the situation shown
in figure has magnitude (BCD is a semi-circular arc
of radius R in xz plane)
!"# $"# %"#
'
(
! # "
(1) Towards left
!
) # " (2) Towards right
&
% (3) Upwards (perpendicular to the plane of paper)
(4) Downwards (perpendicular to the plane of
$ paper)
!# "" ! 40. When the space within a current carrying toroid
(1) (2) !
! " " ! is filled with a substance having susceptibility
2 × 10 –5. Find the percentage change in the
""
# magnetic field
(3) !! !
(4) "
$ !
! ! % " (1) 0.001 (2) 0.003
36. In a region, a uniform electric field E and a uniform (3) 0.002 (4) 0.004
magnetic field B exist parallel to each other. If a 41. The energy density in the magnetic field B of a
charged particle enters perpendicular to the fields, solenoid is (where symbols stand for their usual
then the path of the particle will be meanings)
(1) Circle
" "
(1) ! (" (2) " !!
(2) Straight line ! !
(3) Helix of uniform pitch
" !" " !!
(4) Helix of non-uniform pitch (3) (4) ! !
! ! "
37. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
42. In modified ampere’s law
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at !
the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is $#"# ! "! !! !
!
i and id is conduction current and displacement
! "# ! "#
(1) (2) current respectively
! ! ! !
(1) i > id (2) i < id
"# "# !!
(3) (4) (3) i = id (4) !
! !! ! ! !
43. The Maxwells equations deals with 47. Two protons are projected with velocity v each, in
(1) Electricity the same direction as shown. At the instant of
projection the ratio of magnetic force and
(2) Electrostatics
electrostatic force between them is (c is the speed
(3) Magnetism of light)
(4) Both electrostatics and magnetism ! "
44. An electron is revolving around a nucleus (atomic
number Z) with angular velocity . If radius of the
orbit is r then magnetic moment of the electron is ! "
equal to
"! "
(1) (2)
! !! !
(1) e r2 (2) e r2
"
'! "
! (3) (4)
(3) Ze r2 (4) Ze r2 !! !
"
48. What is the magnetic moment of the current loop
45. A circular loop having radius r of uniform shown below ?
cross-section is connected with two straight wire
AB and CD of large lengths. The magnetic field at
the centre of the loop is
! )%& '%(
!"#
"
! $%&
(1) 24 Am2 (2) 12 Am2

(3) 6 Am2 (4) Zero
!
49. In a moving coil galvanometer the deflection of
!$ the coil is related to the electric current by the
(1)
! & relation
!" (1) I tan
(2)
!!
(2) I cos
!" & !#
(3) I
(3) $! !
"! % "
(4) I 2
(4) Zero
50. A half metre long wire is lying in a plane
46. The two parts of the loop are circles of radii 2a and perpendicular to the magnetic field. A force of 2 kg
a respectively and carrying same current i as wt is acting on it in a magnetic field of 0.98 tesla.
shown in the given figure. What is the magnitude The current flowing in it will be
of dipole moment of the current loop?
(1) 400 A
(2) 40 A
!" " (3) 4 A
(4) 1 A
51. A cyclotron cannot be used to accelerate
(1) 5 a2 i (1) Deutrons

(2) 4 a2 i (2) Protons
(3) 3 a2 i (3) Neutrons
(4) Zero (4) Both (1) & (3)
52. An electron and a proton are revolving around 56. A conductor AB of length l, carrying a current i2,
common centre O in two coplanar circular paths as is placed antiparallel to a long straight conductor
shown in figure with time period of rotation 1 s and XY carrying a current i1 as shown. The force on AB
2 s respectively. The net magnetic field at O will be
has magnitude
"!
"
!!
&
&
#$
$! $" !
%$
!!"
!! !! %
(1) tesla (2) tesla
" #
(3) 2 0 e tesla (4) Zero
! !"! #
53. A current element of strength 2 × 10–4 Am is (1) 0 i1i2 (2)
placed at the corner A of a square ABCD of side
10 cm. Magnetic field induction at the point which ! !"! #
is at diagonally opposite corner of the square due (3) (4) 2 0 i1i2
!
to the element is (The element lies along the side
AB) 57. A proton, a deuteron and an -particle with the
same kinetic energy are moving in circular
(1) 0.7 × 10–9 Wb/m2 trajectories in a uniform magnetic field. If rp, rd and
(2) 1.2 × 10–9 Wb/m2 r denote respectively the radii of the trajectories of
these particles, then
(3) 2 × 10–9 Wb/m2
(1) r = rp < rd (2) r > rd > rp
(4) Zero
54. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r (3) r = rd > rp (4) rp = rd = r
makes n rotations per second. The magnetic 58. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current
moment associated with this electron is along its length, then the magnetic field associated
with the current will be
(1) Zero
(1) Only inside the pipe
(2) r2ne
(2) Only outside the pipe
(3) r 2n2e
(3) Both inside and outside the pipe
(4)
"
!"# !
! (4) Zero everywhere
55. A point P lies on the axis of a flat coil carrying a 59. Two long straight conductors with currents I1 and
current. The magnetic moment of the coil is M. The I2 are placed along X and Y axes. The locus of
distance of P from the coil is d, which is large points of zero magnetic induction is
compared to the radius of the coil. The magnetic "
field at P has magnitude
!"
! ! $
(1) #
! "" !!
! !
(2)
! ""
(1) A parabola
! !
(3) (2) A rectangular hyperbola
! "#
(3) A straight line
! !
(4) (4) An ellipse
! ""
60. Cyclotron frequency does not depend upon 66. Two concentric circular current carrying loops of
(1) Specific charge radius r each are arranged such that their planes
are perpendicular to each other. If current through
(2) Speed of revolving particle them are I each, then magnetic moment of the
(3) Magnetic induction arrangement is
(4) Charge (1) Zero
61. A particle of mass m and charge q moving with
(2) 2 r2I
speed v describes a circular path of radius r when
subjected to a transverse uniform magnetic field of (3) r2I
induction B. The work done by the field, when the
particle completes one full circle is (4) ! !" !
(1) Zero (2) 2 mv2
67. If a current is passed through a circular loop of
(3) 2 rqBv (4) ! !"# $ radius R then magnetic flux through a coplanar
square loop of side ! as shown in the figure
62. A conducting arc of radius of curvature r carrying (! << R) is
current I is shown. Magnetic field intensity at its
centre of curvature O is
!
#
" !
! ! '!
" "! !!
(1) (2)
" ! ! !'
!! " ! '! " # !"

(1) (2) Zero (3) (4)
! " !! !
!! !! 68. Figure shows a particle of charge q and mass m
(3) (4)
" " " moving with velocity v along the x-axis enters a
63. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, region of uniform magnetic field. Minimum value of
kept in uniform magnetic field is v so that the charge q is deflected by an angle 30°
is
!
(1) Zero (2) "
!
! $
!
(3) 4 0 (4) !
#
64. Magnetic field at the centre of an infinite solenoid is
B. Magnetic field at its end will be &
%
$
(1) B (2)
! !)$$* % + &
(1)
(3) 2B (4) Zero ,
65. The maximum kinetic energy of an -particle )$$* + &

(2)
coming out of a cyclotron accelerator is 20 MeV. !,
The maximum kinetic energy of a proton that can
be obtained from this accelerator is !"!# " $ #
(3)
%
(1) 20 MeV (2) 40 MeV
#$%
(3) 10 MeV (4) 5 MeV (4)
"&
69. A semicircular wire is moving with uniform velocity 73. Magnetic field at the outer surface of long hollow
in a uniform magnetic field as shown in figure. cylindrical shell of radius R and carrying current I
Hence the wire becomes
#-
is B. Magnetic field at distance from the axis
" !
of the cylindrical shell is
$
! (1) (2) 2B
!
$ !$
# (3) (4)
' #
(1) Electrically charged
74. If only 1% of the main current is to be passed
(2) Positively charged at end B through a galvanometer of resistance G, then the
resistance of shunt will be
(3) Hot due to Joules heating
#
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) G (2)
"##
70. Two long parallel wires A and B carry current I1 and
I2(I1 > I2). When I1 and I2 are in same direction ## !
(3) # (4)
the magnetic field at a point mid way between the $%% !!
wires is 10 × 10–6 T. If I2 is reversed the field
75. A neutron of mass m enters a uniform magnetic
! field B with the velocity v perpendicular to it. The
becomes 30 × 10–6 T. The ratio ! is
!" radius of the circular path made by neutron is
(1) 1 (2) 3
!" !"
(3) 4 (4) 2 (1) (2)
# #!
71. The wire shown carries a current of 40 A. If radius
r = 1.57 cm, the magnetic field at point P will be (3) Infinity (4) Zero
76. In a moving coil galvanometer, magnetic field lines

by magnet are made
"
! (1) Uniform (2) Concentric
!"#
(3) Helical (4) Radial
77. A proton and an -particle started moving in uniform

magnetic field with same magnitude of momentum.
(1) 1.6 × 10–3 T (2) 3.2 × 10–3 T If their momenta are normal to the magnetic field,
(3) 1.2 × 10–3 T (4) 6.4 × 10–3 T then ratio of radii of path of proton to that of -particle
is
72. If current I flows through a closed loop as shown,
then the magnetic field at the centre O is (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
#
(3) !" # (4) ! ! " #
78. A long cylindrical shell of radius R is carrying

" -
current I. Magnetic field at distance " from the
! ! !
axis of the shell is
! ! ! ! !!
(1) ! "#$ % (2) ! "#$ % (1) Zero (2)
& " & " !"
! ! ! !
(3) ! "#$ % (4) ! "#$ % !! !!
& " & " (3) (4)
! - ' -
79. A square loop of side length a is shown in the 83. A proton started moving with speed v normal to a
diagram. Magnetic field at point P due to the uniform magnetic field. Time period of revolution of
configuration is (symbols have usual meanings) the proton is T. When another proton starts moving
with speed 2v normal to the same uniform
" magnetic field, its new time period of revolution will
! be
" " .
(1)
!
"
(2) 2T
! !! ! !!
(1) (2) (3) T
" " " "
(4) 4T
!!
(3) (4) Zero
! " 84. Magnetic field at the centre of the 1st orbit of an
80. A wire abcdef with each side of length L bent as electron in H atom is B. Magnetic field at the
shown and carrying a current I is placed in a centre of the 2nd orbit is
uniform magnetic field B parallel to the positive y-
$ $
direction. What is the magnitude and direction of (1) (2)
the force experienced by the wire? $ !
) ! "
' (3) (4)
!" "#
(
85. Two concentric and coplanar circular loops of radii
! & a1 and a2 (>> a1) are as shown in figure. If current
* I is flowing in the bigger loop then magnetic flux
% linked with smaller loop is
!
" # $
(1) BIL along +z-direction

(2) BIL along +y-direction ""
(3) BIL along –z-direction
(4) BIL along –y-direction "!
81. Two identical wires of same length l are bent in the
form of a circle of radius R and a square frame of
!! +" !! ""
side b. Ratio of magnetic induction at centre of (1) (2)
the circle and at centre of the square frame for ! !
same current is ! &$"$# "! "#!
! !
(3) $!$ $ # (4)
" # !"!
(1) (2)
( ! ' ! 86. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field and
! ! follows a circular path. Which of the following is false?
(3) (4)
! ! ! (1) Angular velocity of the electron remains
82. On connecting a shunt of 10 , the deflection in a constant
moving coil galvanometer falls from 40 divisions to 6 (2) Magnitude of velocity of the electron decrease
divisions. The resistance of the galvanometer is continuously
$!% #$ (3) Net force on the particle is always

(1) (2) perpendicular to its direction of motion
& %
$'% ")* (4) Time period of revolution of electron remains

(3) (4) constant
& +
87. Uniform magnetic field is present in an infinite region. 91. A conductor of length L and carrying current I is bent
A proton is started moving normal to the magnetic to form a coil of n turns. Magnetic field at the centre
field with speed 2v and another proton is started of the coil will be
moving with speed 5v normal to magnetic field. If T1
and T2 are their time periods of revolutions, then T1 :
! #! " !!"
T2 is (1) (2)
!$ #
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 5
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 5 : 2 ! 0! "! !"

(3) (4)
% !#
88. A semicircular wire of radius R is placed in uniform
! 92. Straight conductor AB is rigidly fixed on a horizontal
magnetic field ! directed towards right as shown in smooth floor and the rectangular loop PQRS is
figure. The resultant magnetic force on it is placed on the floor such that AB parallel to PS. If I1
and I2 are currents through them respectively, then
# !
$ '
!
! $ " #!
(1) IBR
" % &
(2) 2IBR (1) Loop moves to left
!"# (2) Loop moves to right
(3) (3) Loop starts rotating clockwise
!
(4) Loop starts rotating anticlockwise
(4) Zero
93. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is
1 rad A–1 and its resistance is 5 . Its voltage
89. A charge particle is moving with a constant velocity
! ! sensitivity is
# in a region having uniform electric field ! and (1) 0.2 rad V–1
!
uniform magnetic field " . Which of the following (2) 0.1 rad V–1
relation is correct? (3) 1 rad V–1
! ! ! (4) 2 rad V–1
(1) ! " # 94. Which of the following expression represents Biot
! ! ! Savart law? (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(2) ! "# !!" !!" "
! ! ! !!!" ! ! ""# $ #
! !!!" ! ! !"# $ "
(3) ! # " (1) "% "" (2) "% ""
$ $ # !!"$
! ! ! !!" " "
!! !"# $ "
(4) " ! # !!!"
! ! ""# $ #
!!!"
(3) "% (4) "% ""
"" # $
90. An insulating rod of length l carries a charge q $ $
95. Two thick wire and two thin wires, all of the same
distributed uniformly on it. The rod is pivoted at its
material and same length, form the square in three
mid point and is rotated at a frequency f about a
different ways; P, Q and R as shown below. With
fixed axis perpendicular to the rod and passing current connections as shown, the magnetic field at
through the pivot. The magnetic moment of the rod the centre of the square is zero in case(s)
system is
"
(1) )/ ! ! (2) !" ! !
"!
! !
(3) !" ! ! (4) !" ! !
" " !!"
99. A circular loop of radius R carrying current i lies in
x-y plane. The centre of the loop coincides with the
origin, then total magnetic flux passing through
x-y plane is
(1) R2 (2) R
!!"
(3) i (4) Zero
100. An ammeter of resistance 20 measures upto
50 mA. The value of shunt required in parallel to
measure current upto 5 A is nearly
(1) 0.1
!""
(2) 0.2
(1) P only (2) P and Q only
(3) 0.02
(3) Q and R only (4) P and R only
(4) 0.01
96. Torque on a current carrying coil is maximum in a
uniform magnetic field, when 101. In a hot wire galvanometer, if current I is passed
through it and is deflection produced in it, then
(1) Plane of the coil makes an angle 45° with the (1) I
field
(2) I2
(2) Plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field
(3) !
(3) Plane of the coil is parallel to the field
(4) I tan
(4) Plane of the coil makes an angle 60° with the
field 102. In which of the following situations will there be no
force?
97. A particle having mass m and charge q is
(1) A positive charge projected past a piece of soft
projected into a region having perpendicular
iron
magnetic field as shown. If the width of the field
!" (2) A positive charge sent along the axis of a
# , then the deviation of charge particle solenoid
!$%
as it comes out of field (3) Two parallel wires carrying current in the same
direction
!
(4) A positive charge projected between the poles
of a magnet
103. A straight wire of length ( 2) metre is carrying a
! current of 2 A and the magnetic field due to it is
measured at a point distance 1 cm from it. If the
" wire is to be bent into a circle and is to carry the
same current as before, the ratio of the magnetic
(1) (2) field at its centre to that obtained in the first case
!" ( would be
(1) 1 : 100 (2) 100 : 1
(3) (4) =
' (3) 1 : 50 (4) 50 : 1
98. A toroid having 500 turns of wire and a mean
104. Magnetic dipole moment is a
circumference of 50 cm carries a current of 0.3 A.
The relative permeability of core is 600. The (1) Scalar quantity
magnetic field in the core is (2) Vector quantity
(1) 0.126 T (2) 0.226 T (3) Constant for all magnets
(3) 0.125 T (4) 0.067 T (4) Temperature independent quantity
105. A charge particle at rest is forced to move in a 110. An -particle and a proton having same momentum
circular loop. The work done on charge particle is move through a magnetic field. The radius
described by them are in the ratio of
(1) Always non-zero
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(2) Always zero
(3) !" # "$ (4) 1 : 4
(3) May be zero or non-zero
111. A circular loop of radius r carrying a current I is
(4) Dependent on the type of charge given the shape of L such that the two semicircular
106. A beam of proton passes through a region of parts lie in xz plane and yz plane as shown. The
uniform magnetic field as shown. It crosses the magnetic field at O is
screen. In order to prevent it from crossing the #
screen, the beam is rotated by 30°. What is the
maximum speed of protons in the beam?
[Given: mass of proton = 1.66 × 10–27 kg]
$
"
!"
!
#
!"#$%&'%()&*&+,
!
! ! !"# ! !
!!"!#$ % "! , ,1 & "!
(1) $' (2) $ ', ,1 &
! ! ! ! #$!&' !" !"
! ! ! !
-.)""+ "! , ,1 & !! ! !# #
(3) $' (4) " "
(1) 1·11 × 106 m/s (2) 1·11 × 105 m/s '" $$
(3) 1·92 × 106 m/s (4) 1·92 × 105 m/s 112. The Bohr magneton is
107. A particle of charge q is accelerated through an %& %&
electric potential difference and then enters a region (1) (2)
" ' ! '
of uniform magnetic field B to describe a circular
path of radius R. If the potential difference is $% $%
doubled and magnetic field’s strength is halved, the (3) (4)
"& !&
new radius will be
113. A current carrying block of mass M is hanging as
(1) !- (2) 2R shown in the figure. The net extension in spring k3
is (symbols have usual meaning)
(3) ! !! (4) 4R
108. Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a ! ! !
$" %
circular coil at a distance of 1 m and 5 m from the
$!
centre are in the ratio 27:1. The radius of the coil
!$ ! !
is # & #
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m
! !
!"
!
(3) !" (4) " !" #$%
#
(1) & & &
! " #
109. A current carrying square shaped loop has edge
1m. The magnetic field at the centre of the square $23 $'4 &$5# 5! 5$ &
(2)
loop is given by $5# 5 ! &5$
! !" #$%
! ! ! !! (3)
(1) (2) &!& "
! &#
&! &"
! ! ! ! "! $23 $'4 &$5# 5! 5$ &
(3) (4) (4)
5#5! 5$
114. The voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer !
becomes K times when number of turns is tripled.
The value of K is
!"#
(1) 9 (2) 3
(3) 27 (4) 1 (1) 2 × 10–2 Wb (2) 3 × 10–4 Wb
115. A current carrying wire is placed in non-conducting (3) 5 × 10–5 Wb (4) 5 × 10–4 Wb
liquid medium of refractive index n and relative
electrical permittivity r . Then magnetic field at a 121. The resistance that should be used to shunt a
point r distance of the point from the element is galvanometer of resistance 1 k , to reduce its
given by !
! ! sensitivity to times of the initial value, is
"#
! !"# $! ! ! !"# $!
(1) "
(2) "
nearly
" $ " $
! !
(1) 5 (2) 53
" !64 ", ! 0 "
(3) ' # $ (4) Both (2) & (3)
"! % ! & (3) 503 (4) 208
116. Two beams of protons moving with velocity v1 and 122. A charged particle of mass m charge q is projected
v2 are allowed to enter parallel to each other in a along a negative x-axis from a point A (r0, 0, 0) in
"!
field free region. The ratio of magnetic force and a region having uniform magnetic field $ - -$! #1 .
electrostatic force exerted between the two beams
The maximum value of KE of the particle so that
is given by
particle does not collide with Y-Z plane, is
!!! " !!
(1) (2) !"!" !#"! !"! " !#"!
"" """ ! (1) (2)
!$ !$ !
## ### !
(3) #
!
(4)
7 !"!" !#"! "! )$!
(3) (4)
"$ !,
117. Magnetic field due to straight current carrying
conductor is 123. A positive charge particle having charge q enters a
(1) Radially inward region where magnetic flux density is B0, with
speed v0 as shown in the figure. The time after
(2) Radially outward which it will come out of the field is (symbol have
(3) Square shaped their usual meanings).
(4) Concentric and circular

"!
118. The primary functions of electric field in cyclotrons ! ! ! ! ! !
is to ! ! ! ! ! !
(1) Energize the charge particle ! ! ! ! ! !
(2) Bring the charge particle again and again in the ! ! ! ! ! !
field #!
! ! ! ! ! !
(3) Cancel the force due to magnetic field
! ! ! ! ! !
(4) Guide charged particles to the exit part
" ! ! ! ! !
119. Which of the following particles can be accelerated !!
in controlled manner in cyclotron?
(1) Neutron (2) Proton
, ! !
(3) Electron (4) Positron (1) ! ) $ (2) " #!
!
120. The radius of a loop as shown in figure is 10 cm.
If magnetic field is uniform and has value 10–2 T, # , ,
(3) ! ) $ (4) # ) $
then the flux through the loop is ! !
124. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 and 129. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area
it shows full deflection when 4 mA current flows of cross-section 1.6 cm2 carries a current of 4 A.
through. The value of shunt resistance needed to The magnetic moment associated with the solenoid
convert it into an ammeter which can read any (in Am2) is
current between 0 to 6 A, is nearly equal to
(1) 1.28 (2) 2.56
(1) 1
(3) 5.12 (4) 10.24
(2) 0.1
130. A neutron, a proton, an electron and an -particle
(3) 0.01 enter a region of uniform magnetic field with the
same velocity. The magnetic field is perpendicular
(4) 0.001
and directed into the plane of the paper. The
125. A conducting wire of length l is turned in the form tracks of the particle are labelled in the figure. -
of a circular coil and i current is passed through it. particle will follow the track
When this coil is kept in a uniform magnetic field $
B, the torque on it will be maximum, if number of #
turns (N) in the coil is
! "
(1) 1 (2) 100
(3) 1000 (4) 10000
(1) A (2) B
126. A charge particle is projected through a region in
(3) C (4) D
a gravity free space. If it passes through the region
with constant speed then the region may have 131. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of
!" !" !" !" radius R due to current I flowing through it is B0.
(1) ! !" " ! (2) ! !" " ! The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a
!" !" distance R from the centre is
(3) ! !" " ! (4) Both (1) and (2)
!!
127. Select the correct statement regarding cyclotron. (1) B0 (2)
$
(1) A charged particle accelerates only between !!
the dees because of magnetic field (3) (4) ! ! !!
#
(2) A charged particle accelerates only between 132. In the hydrogen atom, the electron is making
the dees because of electric field 6.6 × 10 15 rps. If the radius of the orbit is
(3) A charged particle slows down within the dees 0.53 × 10–10 m, then magnetic field produced at
and speeds up between dees the centre of the orbit is nearly
(1) 140 tesla
(4) A charged particle continuously accelerates all
the time (2) 12.5 tesla
128. Magnetic field at the centre O of semicircular arc (3) 1.4 tesla
of radius r carrying current I is (4) 0.14 tesla
133. In the figure shown, the magnetic induction at the
centre O will be
! "
# # ! !"
!
" !!
!! !! (1) (2) " %#
(1) (2) ! " $ $
!" ""
!! "! !!
(3) (4) Zero (3) $ "& (4) " %#
!" ' " $ $
134. Two parallel infinite length line charges of magnitude 137. In a gravity free chamber electric and magnetic
1 and 2 are at a distance b apart as shown in fields are applied perpendicular to each other.
the figure. The force per unit length is
Alpha-rays enter this chamber in such a way that
it passes undeflected through it. When magnetic
! "
field is switched off, the -rays will follow
! (1) A straight path (2) Elliptical path
(3) Circular path (4) Parabolic path
# ! # !
(1) ' * (2) ! * SECTION - B
" "

! " " ! "
(3) $ (4) " In the following questions, a statement of assertion
# #
135. An infinitely long current carrying wire having
current I1 is passed perpendicularly through the
centre of circular ring having current I2. Net force
experienced by the circular coil is
!" !! assertion, then mark (2).
"
1. A : The coil of moving coil galvanometer is wounded
!! "
! " #
on a metallic frame.
(1) (2) Zero
! R : Metallic frame provides larger moment of
inertia hence smooth oscillations are possible.
!! "
! " # !! "
! " #
(3) (4) 2. A : Work done by magnetic field on a moving
"
point charge is zero.
136. A voltmeter gives full scale deflection at 20 V. To R : The magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity.
convert it into a voltmeter which gives a full scale
3. A : The net force on a current carrying loop kept
deflection at 200 V, the voltmeter should be in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
connected (R v be the initial resistance of the
R : When the net magnetic force on a current
voltmeter) to a carrying loop is zero, torque on it cannot be
zero.
!!
(1) Shunt resistor of in parallel with the 4. A : For an electron moving in a circular orbit, the
!
magnetic moment and angular momentum are
voltmeter
in opposite directions.
!! R : Electron is a negatively charged particle.
(2) Shunt resistor of in parallel with the
"# 5. A : When kinetic energy of a proton circulating in
voltmeter uniform magnetic field becomes four times, its
frequency of revolution becomes two times.
(3) Resistor of 9Rv in series with the voltmeter
R : The frequency of a circulating particle in a
uniform magnetic field is directly proportional
(4) Resistor of 10Rv in series with the voltmeter
to the speed.
6. A : A charged particle cannot be accelerated R : Soft iron has a high magnetic permeability and
beyond a certain maximum speed. cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
R : At relativistic speeds the time period of !
11. A : Magnitude of ! is constant along a magnetic
charged particle in magnetic field becomes the
field line.
function of speed of the particle. !
7. A : A constant magnetic field can accelerate a R : ! is normal to a magnetic field line.
charged particle but cannot increase its 12. A : The magnetic field due to a wire placed in
speed.
X direction in the X-Y plane is everywhere
R : Magnetic force on a charged particle is always perpendicular to Z-axis.
perpendicular to the direction to the velocity.
R : Magnetic field due to a current carrying wire is
8. A : Tangential acceleration of charge thrown into perpendicular to the length and parallel to
transverse magnetic field is zero. position vector.
R : Velocity of charge particle may change by 13. A : Magnetic field due to a long thin current
magnetic field. carrying wire doubles on increasing distance
9. A : Magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform. twice.
R : Magnetic field outside the solenoid is zero. R : Magnetic field is directly proportional to the
distance from the wire.
10. A : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is
increased by using a suitable magnetic 14. A : We can accelerate neutrons by cyclotron.
material as a core inside the coil. R : Neutrons are heavy in comparison in deuteron.
!" !" !
Chapter 17
Magnetism and Matter
4. Two bar magnets are held together tightly in a

SECTION - A vibration magnetometer. When their like poles are
Objective Type Questions together, they make 20 oscillation per minute and
when their unlike poles are together, they make 8
1. Which of the following property of magnetic oscillation per minute. The ratio of magnetic
material is observed in all the materials? moment of two bar magnets is
(1) Ferromagnetism (1) 29 : 21 (2) 6 : 15
(2) Paramagnetism (3) 1 : 6 (4) 25 : 4
(3) Diamagnetism 5. The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic
(4) Electromagnetism material depends on absolute temperature T as
2. Two small bar magnets are placed in a plane. !

Direction of their dipole moments and the position (1) T (2)
!
of magnets are as shown in figure
!
" (3) T0 (4)
!
!
# " #
6. Force between two magnetic pole of strength unity
The appropriate direction of net magnetic field at at a separation of 1 m is
point ‘P’ will be indicated by which of the following
arrow? !
!"
(1) 1 N (2)
(1) #
(3) 10–7 N (4) 4 × 10–7 m

(2) 7. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
are
(1) From south to north pole
(3)
(2) From north to south pole
(4) (3) Not present
3. H is the horizontal component of earth and ‘V’ is (4) Intersecting each other
the vertical component of earth then at magnetic 8. The material which used to make permanent
equator magnet has
(1) V and H are equal (1) High retentivity, low coercivity
(2) Value of V and H are zero (2) Low retentivity, low coercivity
(3) Value of H is zero only (3) Low retentivity, high coercivity
(4) Value of V is zero only (4) High retentivity, high coercivity
292 Magnetism and Matter Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. On a magnetic map, the lines joining the points of 17. A magnet (primary) oscillates with frequency ! in
same value of horizontal component of earth’s
earth’s magnetic field (BH) alone. Now a secondary
magnetic field are called
magnet is placed near the primary magnet. If B is
(1) Aclinic lines (2) Isoclinic lines the magnetic field of secondary magnet on primary
magnet in the direction of BH, the primary magnet
(3) Isodynamic lines (4) Isogonic lines
!
10. What is the unit of pole strength of a bar magnet? oscillates with freqency ! , then the ratio of !
!
(1) ampere metre (2) ampere/metre is
(3) ampere/metre2 (4) ampere metre2
!
11. Magnetic dip at two perpendicular positions of a dip & !#
(1) $$ !!
circle are 45° and 30°. True dip at that place is % ""
(1) !"# !
$ (2) cot–1 2 !
& !#
(2) $$ !! " !
! ! " !! !" % ""
(3) "#$ ! # $ (4) "#$ # $
% %& % %&
!
12. The ratio of magnetic length and geometrical length & !#
(3) $$ !! !
of a bar magnet is about % ""
(1) 0.84 (2) 0.42

!
(3) 0.21 (4) 1 & "#
(4) $$ !! " !
13. Soft iron is used to make electromagnets as it has % !"
(1) High coercive force and high retentivity 18. Which of the following graphs represents the
correct variation of the intensity of magnetisation
(2) Low coercive force and low retentivity (I) with the intensity of magnetising field (H) in a
(3) High coercive force and low retentivity ferromagnetic substance?
(4) Low coercive force and high retentivity !
!
14. An electric cable is carrying current from north to
south. The position of null point from the cable is
(1) Vertically upward (1) (2) "
(2) Vertically downward "
(3) Eastward
! !
(4) No where
15. A substance is placed in external magnetic field.
If the direction of induced dipole moment is (3) (4)
opposite to the direction of applied magnetic field,
then the substance may be " "
(1) Paramagnetic (2) Diamagnetic 19. The angle of dip is 1 on a given meridian which is
at an angle with the magnetic meridian. If 2 is
(3) Ferro magnetic (4) Both (1) & (3)
the angle of dip on another meridian which is
16. If Bo is magnetic flux density in vacuum produced perpendicular to the first meridian, then , 1 and
by a magnetising force and magnetic flux density 2 are related as
produced by the magnetisation of a material due to (1) cot2 = cot2 + cot2
1 2
the same magnetising force is Bm, then the total
magnetic flux density in the material is (2) tan2 = tan2 1 tan2 2
(1) Bo + Bm (2) Bo – Bm !"# "

(3) !"# !"# !
!" !"
(3) ! (4) !! (4) tan = tan 1 + tan 2
!
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Magnetism and Matter 293
20. The magnetic susceptibility ( ) of a ferromagnetic 25. A magnet is oscillating with time period ‘T’ in a
material varies with temperature, as vertical plane. If angle of dip at that place is 60°
and the magnet is restricted to oscillate in
horizontal plane, then the time period of
oscillations will be
!
(1) (2) (1) T (2)
!
! !
(3) !! (4) !!
26. The magnetic susceptibility of a substance is
–0.0002 at room temperature. If this substance is
kept in a uniform external magnetic field B, the net
field inside the substance becomes B then
(3) (4)
(1) B > B (2) B < B
! !
(3) B = B (4) B = 0
21. Which of the following is not dimensionless? 27. The true value of the angle of dip at a place is .
(where symbols stand for their usual meanings in If the plane of the dip circle is at 30° with the
magnetism)? magnetic meridian, the angle of dip is , then one
concludes that
" "
(1) (2) (1) = (2) <
! "!
(3) > (4) = + 30°
!" 28. A diamagnetic substance is kept in a uniform
(3) ! (4)
! external magnetic field B. If the net magnetic field
22. The unit of intensity of magnetising field is inside the substance is B , then
(1) B < B (2) B = B
# !
(1) (2) (3) B > B (4) Any of the above
!" "! #$%&'
depending on the value of B
$ 29. At a place the angle of dip is 30°. If the horizontal
(3) (4) All of these
# !" component of earth’s magnetic field is B, the total
23. If at any place angle of dip is and magnetic intensity is
lattitude is , then
"! !"
(1) = (1) (2)
! "
(2) tan = cot
(3) tan cot = 2 (3) 2B (4) ! !
30. The lines joining the places of zero declination are
"
(4) %&' #$% called
!
(1) Isogonic lines (2) Agonic lines
24. If A is area of intensity of magnetisation in
ferromagnetic material versus magnetising field (3) Isoclinic lines (4) Aclinic lines
intensity, V is volume of the magnetic sample and 31. A magnetic needle makes n oscillations per minute
n is the frequency of alternating magnetic field, then in a horizontal plane where angle of dip is 45°. If
the rate of hysteresis loss in the substance is needle is made to oscillate in a vertical plane
(1) A coinciding with the magnetic meridian, then number
of oscillations per minute will become/remain
(2) AVn
(1) n
$%
(3) (2)
# !!
# (3) (2)1/4 n
(4)
!" (4) n/2
32. Two similar nature magnetic poles of strength 40. When plane of a dip circle is along magnetic
16 A-m and 64 A-m are placed at a distance of meridian, period of oscillation of dip needle is T1.
120 cm in air. At which point on the line joining the When plane of dip circle is perpendicular to the
two poles, the force on another unit north pole will magnetic meridian, the period of oscillation is T2
be zero?
&!
(1) 0.8 m from 64 Am (2) 0.8 m from 16 Am then is (Angle of dip = 30°)
&"
(3) 0.4 m from 64 Am (4) 0.6 from 64 Am
(1) ! (2) 1
33. Magnetic moment of a short dipole is 100 Am2. The
magnetic induction in vacuum at 1 m from the !
dipole on the axis of dipole is (3) 2 (4)
"
(1) 2 × 10–5 T (2) 10–5 T 41. A ferromagnetic material is placed in an external
(3) 2 T (4) 1 T magnetic field. The magnetic domains
34. A deflection magnetometer is placed in tan A (1) Must increase in size
position. The bar magnet is placed in (2) Must decrease in size
(1) East-west direction (2) North-south direction (3) May increase or decrease in size
(3) North-east direction (4) South-west direction (4) Disappear
35. Each of the two identical magnets when suspended 42. If a magnetic dipole of dipole moment is rotated
alone makes 30 oscillation per minute at a place. through an angle with respect to the direction of
The number of oscillation per minute, if they are the magnetic field B, then work done is
fixed at right angles and allowed to oscillate in the
same field will be approximately (1) Bsin (2) B(1 – sin )
(1) 25 oscillation/minute (3) Bcos (4) B(1 – cos )
(2) 30 oscillation/minute 43. In cosmic shower an electron is falling toward earth

near equator. In which direction will it be deflected?
(3) 60 oscillation/minute
(1) Eastward
(4) 15 oscillation/minute
(2) Westward
36. If the apparent value of dip at a place in two
perpendicular vertical planes are respectively 30° (3) Northward
and 45°, then the true angle of dip at that place is (4) Southward
(1) cot –1(2) (2) tan –1(2) 44. Magnetic permeability is maximum for
(3) "#$ % !&!"

(4) !"# $ %&!" (1) Diamagnetic substance
(2) Paramagnetic substance
37. The magnetic moment of a magnet (10 cm × 4 cm
× 1 cm) is 4 Am2. Its intensity of magnetisation is (3) Ferromagnetic substance
(1) 103 A/m (2) 102 A/m (4) Same for all three substances
(3) 105 A/m (4) 104 A/m 45. The area enclosed by hysteresis loop is a measure
of
38. If the magnetic field of earth at any point on the
magnetic equator is 0.4 × 10–4 T then the value of (1) Permeability
magnetic field at the magnetic pole of the earth is (2) Susceptibility
approximately
(3) Retentivity
(1) 0.4 × 10–4 T (2) 0.2 × 10–4 T
(4) Energy loss per cycle
(3) 0.8 × 10–4 T (4) 0.3 × 10–4 T
46. Susceptibility of a substance at 300 K is
39. S.I. unit of intensity of magnetisation is –0.00002. Its susceptibility at 600 K is
(1) ampere metre (1) –0.00001
(2) ampere metre2 (2) – 0.00004
(3) ampere/metre (3) – 0.00006
(4) ampere/metre2 (4) –0.00002
47. Line joining places of zero angle of dip on earth 52. Magnetic susceptibility of a substance at 27°C is
surface is called – 0.00025. Its magnetic susceptibility at 127°C is
(1) Isoclinic line (2) Aclinic line (1) –0.000125 (2) –0.0005
(3) Isogonic line (4) Agonic line (3) –0.00025 (4) –0.00001
48. When a dip circle is kept at a place, the angle of 53. Locus of all points having same dip on the magnetic
dip obtained is 45°. When the dip circle is rotated map of earth is known as
about its vertical axis by 90°, the angle of dip
obtained is 60°. True dip at that place is (1) Isodynamic line (2) Isogonic line
(3) Isothermal line (4) Isoclinic line
!" !
(1) "#$ 54. Magnetic induction at an axial point of a short magnet
% !
at a distance r from the centre of dipole is ! . Its
% value at the equatorial point of the short magnet at
(2) !"# #! same distance from centre of dipole is
&
!
!" ! ! !
(3) "#$ (1) ! (2)
% "
!
!" !
! !
(4) "#$ (3) ! (4)
% "
49. Magnetic moment of a bar magnet shown in 55. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a
figure (i) is M. horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It
will
$ $
(1) Stay in east-west direction only
! "# ! "#
(2) Stay in any position
!"#$%"& !"#$%""&
(3) Become rigid showing no movement
If a hole is drilled through the magnet as shown in
figure (ii), then new magnetic moment of the (4) Stay in north-south direction only
magnet will be 56. Consider a magnetic dipole kept in the east-west
(1) Equal to M (2) Less than M direction. Let P1, P2, Q1, Q2 be four points at the
same distance from the dipole towards north, south,
(3) More than M (4) Zero east and west of the dipole respectively. The
50. When a substance is kept in a magnetic field, it directions of the magnetic field due to the dipole only
gets repelled. Which of the following represents its are the same at
susceptibility ? (1) P1 and Q1
(1) –0.0004 (2) P2 and Q1
(2) 0.0004 (3) P1 and Q2
(3) 1.000
(4) Q1 and Q2
(4) –1.000
57. Due to a small magnet, intensity at a distance x
51. Time period of vibration of a bar-magnet in vibration in the end on position is 9 gauss. What will be the
magnetometer is T. If the magnet is cut into n !
identical parts such that length of each part is intensity at a distance on broad side on
!
equal to length of original magnet, then time period
of vibration of one part in the vibration position?
magnetometer is (1) 9 gauss
& (2) 4 gauss

(1) (2) nT
# (3) 36 gauss
(3) n2T (4) T (4) 4.5 gauss
58. Magnetic moment of a bar magnet of length L and 65. Apparent dip at a place is always greater than or
area of cross-section A is M. If the magnet is cut equal to the value of true dip at that place. This is
into four identical parts each of length L and area of due to
$ (1) Increase in apparent value of Bv
cross- section , then magnetic moment of each
% (2) Decrease in apparent value of BH
part is
(3) Increase in apparent value of BH
! # (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) (2)
! !
66. If a bar magnet is kept on a horizontal plane with
(3) M (4) 4M N-pole of bar magnet facing geographic N-pole and
S-pole of bar magnet facing geographic S-pole.
59. At magnetic equator, the angle of dip is
Then the number of neutral points is
(1) 0°
(1) 0 (2) 1
(2) 90°
(3) 2 (4) Infinite
(3) 45°
67. Magnetization of a piece of iron or steel
(4) 135°
(1) Depends on strength of magnetising field
60. The possible value of magnetic susceptibility of a
diamagnetic material can be (2) Depends on the external condition such as
temperature
(1) – 2.45 (2) 0.75
(3) Cannot be done beyond the saturation point
(3) – 0.5 (4) 1.67
(4) All of these
61. Unit of reduction factor of tangent galvanometer is
68. A Gaussian surface is drawn enclosing N-pole of a
(1) ampere bar magnet. The net magnetic flux through the
(2) ohm Gaussian surface will be (pole strength of N-pole is
treated as positive and S-pole as negative)
(3) tesla
(4) weber
62. The bar magnet A of magnetic moment MA is found
to oscillate at a frequency twice that of magnet B ! "
of magnetic moment MB and same moment of
!"#$$%"&
inertia when placed in a vibration magnetometer. $#'(")*
We may say that
(1) MB = 8MA (1) Positive (2) Negative
(2) MA = 4MB (3) Positive or negative (4) Zero
(3) MA = 8MB 69. A material when heated, suddenly changes its

magnetic property at a particular temperature and
(4) MA = 2MB above this temperature, its susceptibility is found
63. When a magnetic material is subjected to a very to be inversely proportional to the absolute
small magnetising force H. The intensity of temperature. The material may be
magnetisation is proportional to (1) Ferromagnetic
! (2) Diamagnetic
(1) (2) #
! (3) Paramagnetic
(3) H (4) H 2 (4) Ferromagnetic or Paramagnetic
64. Magnetic screening is 70. Elements of Earth’s magnetism is/are
(1) Not possible (1) Magnetic declination
(2) Possible using superconductors (2) Magnetic inclination (or dip)
(3) Possible using iron ring as cover (3) Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) All of these
76. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
! !
71. At angle #$% to the magnetic meridian, the field at a place is 3 × 10 –4 T and the dip is
&
! !"
apparent dip is 60°. The true dip at the place is "#$ ! # $ %
% &&
(1) 30°
A metal rod of length 0.25 m placed in the north-
(2) 45° south position and is moved at a constant speed of
(3) 0° 10 cm/s towards the east. The emf induced across
the length of rod will be
(4) 60°
(1) Zero
72. As we go from magnetic equator towards
geographic south pole, the angle of dip will (2) 1 V
become (3) 5 V
(1) More and more vertically downward and
(4) 10 V
perpendicular to the surface at magnetic pole
77. The material suitable for making electromagnets
(2) More and more vertically upward and become
should have
perpendicular to the surface at magnetic pole
(1) High retentivity and high coercivity
(3) Less and less vertically downward and become
horizontal at magnetic pole (2) High retentivity and low coercivity
(4) Less and less vertically upward and become (3) Low retentivity and high coercivity
horizontal at magnetic pole (4) Low retentivity and low coercivity
73. Soft iron is used to manufacture electromagnets 78. The work done in rotating a magnet of magnetic
because moment 100 Am2 through 90° from a direction
(1) It has high permeability parallel to uniform magnetic field of strength
0.4 × 10–4 tesla is
(2) Its retentivity and coercivity are small
(1) 4 mJ
(3) Its retentivity and coercivity are high
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Zero
74. A long solenoid has 1500 turns per metre and an (3) 6 mJ
iron core of r = 1100 is kept inside it. 2 A current (4) 8 mJ
flows in the coil of solenoid. If core is heated
beyond curie temperature then SECTION - B
(1) The H and B fields in the solenoid reduces to Assertion - Reason Type Questions
zero
(2) The H and B fields in the solenoid remains (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
unchanged
(3) The H field in the solenoid is nearly unchanged reason is the correct explanation of the
but B field decreases significantly assertion, then mark (1).
(4) The B field in the solenoid is nearly unchanged (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
but H field decreases significantly reason is not the correct explanation of the
75. Choose the correct statement regarding magnetism. assertion, then mark (2).
(1) Paramagnetic sample display greater (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
magnetisation when cooled false, then mark (3).
(2) Diamagnetism is almost independent of (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
temperature statements, then mark (4).
(3) Ferromagnetic substances show hysteresis 1. A : Magnetic dip at pole is 0°.
(4) All of these R : Magnetic field at pole is directed horizontal.
2. A : An magnetic dipole may have non-zero torque

" !!"
and zero force in non-uniform magnetic field.
3. A: ! !!"# " because magnetic monopoles do
not exist.
R : In uniform magnetic field the net force on
" !!"
magnetic dipole is always zero and torque may R : ! !!"# " means magnetic field is zero.
or may not be zero.
!" !" !
Chapter 18
Electromagnetic Induction
4. When the length of a solenoid and number of turns

SECTION - A
per unit length are doubled, then the self
Objective Type Questions inductance of solenoid becomes/remains
1. A proton is moving with constant speed towards a (1) 4 times (2) 2 times
conducting ring placed in the same plane along the
(3) Unchanged (4) 8 times
path OP. The direction of path of proton ahead of
‘P’ is 5. When the current through a solenoid increases at
a constant rate, the induced current
! " # (1) Is constant and is in the direction of inducing
current
(2) Is constant and is in the direction opposite to

% the inducing current
(3) Is increasing and is in the direction of inducing

$ current
(1) Along A (4) Is increasing and is in the direction opposite to
inducting current
(2) Along B
6. A non conducting ring having a uniformly distributed
(3) Along C
negative charge is placed in the plane of smooth
(4) Along any path depending upon speed of paper. A uniformly decreasing inward magnetic field
proton is passing through the ring. Then
2. A coil has 500 turns and the flux through the coil (1) Ring will start rotating anticlockwise
is = 3t2 + 4t + 9 milliweber. The magnitude of (2) Ring will start rotating clockwise
induced emf between the ends of coil at t = 5 s is
(3) Ring will jump and becomes floating above the
(1) 34 milivolt (2) 17 volt paper
(3) 17 milivolt (4) 34 volt (4) No change will be observed in the position of
ring
3. A circular wheel of 24 spokes is rotated at 300 rpm
in a uniform magnetic field of 2 × 10–3 tesla. Length 7. A motor having an armature resistance 2 is
of each spoke is 25 cm and magnetic field is along operating at 220 volt. At full speed back emf of
the axis of wheel, then the value of induced emf motor is 200 volt. Then the value of current in the
between rim and center of wheel is armature at full speed is
(1) 1.96 mV (2) 19.6 V (1) 100 A (2) 10 A
(3) 47.1 mV (4) 19.6 mV (3) 110 A (4) 0.55 A
300 Electromagnetic Induction Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
8. The current in an inductance coil varies with time 10. The figure shows a current carrying wire whose
‘t’ according to given graph. Which of the following current increasing continuously, then direction of
represents the variation of induced emf in the coil? induced current in the loop conducting placed in
the plane of paper is
!
!
"
!"#$"%
(1) Anticlockwise
!"#$ (2) Clockwise

! !
!"#$% !"#$%
(3) Zero
(1) !
(2) !
(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise
11. A bar magnet is released along the vertical axis of

! ! the conducting coil. The acceleration of the bar
!"#$% !"#$% magnet is
(3) ! (4) !&'(&% !
!
9. A square loop enters into a uniform magnetic field.

The sides of square are 5 cm and its speed is "
1 cm/s. Its front edge enters into magnetic field at
t = 0 then which curve represents variation of #$%&
induced emf V
!"#"$%&"'
!!!!!!! (1) Greater than g (2) Less than g
!"#$ !!!!!!!
!!!!!!! (3) Equal g (4) Zero
!!!!!!!
!!!!!!!
!!!!!!! 12. Work done in increasing the current through a
%&"#$ solenoid from 0 to 2 A is 20 J. Work done in
! increasing the current from 4 to 6 A is
!"
!"#"$%
(1) 100 J (2) 60 J
(1)
! "# "! !!"# (3) 80 J (4) 120 J
!
13. The end points of a current carrying wire lie on the
!"#"$%
!" x-axis and y-axis as shown. The magnetic force on
(2) the wire is
$%&'()
! "# "! !!"#
! !
!"#"$%!"
$%&'() !#
(3) !" ! "# "! !!"# % "
&!"#"$%
$%&'()
"#$$%&'
"&$%($'
!
&%)%*+&%,
!"#"$%!"
!
(4) ! "# "! !!"#
(1) Zero (2) 6 N
&!"#"$%!" (3) 8 N (4) 10 N
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Electromagnetic Induction 301
14. A wire of length 6 m is rotated about the axis 20. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 placed so
passing through the point C and parallel to close together that they completely link the
the magnetic field lines with angular velocity magnetic flux of each other. If M be their mutual
4 radian/second. If B = 0.5 T, the potential inductance then, the correct relation is
difference across the ends of the wire is
$ !!
(1) " (2) " !" !!
! # !"
"
!"#" $"#
(1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) M = L1 L2 (4) " !" !!
(3) 12 V (4) Zero
21. Calculate the self inductance of solenoid having
15. The current flowing in an inductor of inductance 1000 turns and length 1 m. The area of cross-
! " section is 7 cm2 and r = 1000
2.0 H varies as ! ! "#$ # %&" , where i in
% ' $&
amperes and t in seconds. The maximum value of (1) 888 H (2) 0.88 H
the emf induced in the inductor is (3) 0.088 H (4) 88.8 H
(1) 320 V (2) 160 V
22. Two discs of radii R and 2R are moving with
(3) 80 V (4) 4 V
velocities v and 2v in opposite directions on a
16. If a magnet is allowed to fall through a long conducting platform, as shown in the figure. If
conducting pipe, then the final acceleration of the magnetic field B is applied on the plane
magnet will be perpendicular to the discs, then the potential
difference between two points P and Q which are
(1) = g (2) > g
the topmost points of the discs is
(3) Zero (4) !
%
17. In a uniform magnetic field, a ring is rotating about $
# "
its axis which is parallel to the magnetic field and !!
magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of ring. ! !"
"
The induced electric field in the ring
(1) Is zero
(1) 8 BRv (2) 4 BRv
(2) Depends on the radius of ring
(3) Depends on the nature of the material of ring (3) 10 BRv (4) 2 BRv
(4) Depends on the product of magnetic field and 23. A rod having length l and resistance R0 is moving
speed with speed v as shown in the figure. Find the
current through the rod
18. Which of the following is not based on the
application of eddy current?
! !! !
(1) Speedometer #
!" !!
(2) Dead-beat galvanometer " $
! !
(3) Energy meter
(4) Tangent galvanometer
19. A railway track running north-south has two parallel "#$ "#$
(1) (2) !
rails l distance apart. If H is the horizontal !#!" & ! #
!! $$ ! ! !!
component of earth’s field, angle of dip is , then !# ! "
% !# !! !" "
the induced emf between the rails when a train
passes with velocity v, is
"#$ "#$
(1) Hlv tan (2) Hlv (3) (4)
!# ! " !! ! ! !
(3) Hlv cos (4) Hlv sin !# !" !!
24. What is the effective self inductance of two 27. If a semicircular conducting loop ACB is rotating in
solenoids in series wound on a core as shown in the plane of paper with constant angular velocity
the figure, if L is the self inductance of each about O, then which of the following graphs shows
solenoid? the variation of induced current (I) with time (t) .
The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of
loop as shown in the figure
"
! $
(1) L
(2) 2L ! !
!
(3) "
! (1) (2)
!
(4) Zero "
25. A uniform conductor having length l is moving in
uniform magnetic field B with speed v. If B, l and
v are mutually perpendicular and R is the ! !
resistance of conductor, then the power delivered
by the external source is
" "
(3) ! (4) !
$ !# !" !
(1)
!!
28. A current carrying cable is penetrating a loop as
!$ ! # !" ! shown in the figure. If magnitude of current is
(2)
! decreasing with time, then the current induced in
the loop is
$ !# !" !
(3)
!
!
(4) Zero
26. A circular ring of radius r is at the centre of a (1) Zero
square having side a (a >>r). The mutual
inductance of the system is (2) Clockwise
! (3) Anticlockwise
""
(1)
! (4) Depends on the magnitude of current
! 29. A square loop of side a is rotating in unifrom

"!
(2) ! magnetic field B with angular frequency f such that
the direction of angular velocity is perpendicular to
the magnetic field and along the plane of loop. The
! ! "" ! average emf produced during half cycle is
(3)
!
(1) 2 f a2 B (2) 2 fa2 B
!
"" # $! ! #
(4) ! ! (3) (4) 4 fa2 B
! "
30. The slotting processes in a metallic sheet causes 34. If N is the total number of turns in a coil, then the
value of self inductance varies as
(1) The increase of the resistance in the path for
circulation of current (1) N0 (2) N
(2) Decrease in the strength of eddy current (3) N2 (4) !
(3) Feeble the electromagnetic damping 35. Eddy currents are produced in a material, when it
is
(4) All of these
(1) Heated
31. The square loop shown below is rotated about the
axis PQ and magnetic field is perpendicular to the (2) Placed in an electric field
plane of paper. The magnitude of induced emf in (3) Placed in a uniform constant magnetic field
the loop is minimum when plane of the loop
(4) Placed in a time varying magnetic field
! ! ! ! 36. The coefficient of mutual inductance between two

! coils depends upon
(1) Medium between coils
(2) Separation between coils
! ! ! !
(3) Orientation of coils
(4) All of these
"
! ! ! ! 37. Long’s law associated with Faraday’s laws of
electromagnetic induction are consequence of the
(1) Is perpendicular to the plane of paper conservation of
(2) Is parallel to the plane of paper (1) Charge (2) Energy
(3) Makes 45° angle with the plane of paper (3) Magnetic field (4) Mass
(4) Makes 60° angle with the plane of paper 38. The average e.m.f. induced in a coil, when a
32. A small square shaped loop of edge length l is current changes from 0 to 2 A in 0.5 second is 0.8
placed at the centre of a circular loop A of radius V. The self inductance of the coil is
r with its plane perpendicular to plane of the
circular loop. The coefficient of mutual induction of (1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H
this combination is (3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H
! 39. A small square loop of wire of side ‘l’ is placed

inside a large square loop of side ‘L’ (L >> l). If the
loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the
mutual inductance of the system is directly
proportional to
! "
(1) (2)
" !
" !%" !
(1) Zero (2) !! !!
" (3) (4)
" "
!% ! " "" ! 40. Self inductances of two uncoupled coils are 40 mH
" "
(3) (4) and 90 mH. Their mutual inductance is
" !!
(1) 60 mH (2) 130 mH
33. A horizontal ring of radius r spins about its vertical
axis with an angular velocity in a uniform vertical (3) 50 mH (4) Zero
magnetic field of magnitude B. The emf induced in 41. Magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance 20
the ring is is changed from 20 Wb to 40 Wb in 5 ms. Charge
(1) Zero (2) r2B passed through the circuit during this time is
(1) 1 C (2) 2 C
!
(3) ! "! (4) B r 2
" (3) Zero (4) 0.5 C
42. A long straight conductor carrying current I is fixed 47. Self inductance of primary and secondary of a
on a smooth plane. A circular loop is placed on perfectly coupled coil are 40 mH and 90 mH
the same plane as shown in figure. If current I respectively. Coefficient of mutual induction between
them is
through the wire is increasing, then the loop will
move to (1) 65 mH
(2) 50 mH
(3) 130 mH
! (4) 60 mH
48. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance

R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
perpendicular to one of its sides. A constant
(1) Right (2) Left magnetic field B exists as shown in the figure.
Mechanical power required to maintain its uniform
(3) Up (4) Down
velocity is
43. Two coils have a mutual inductance of 5 mH.
Current changes in the first coil according to the !
equation I = I0cos t, where I0 = 10 A and =
100 rad/s. Maximum value of e.m.f. induced in "
the second coil is #
(1) 5 volt (2) 2 volt

(3) 4 volt (4) volt
44. A circular loop is placed near a current carrying
conductor as shown. If the current in the straight ! !"!# ! ! !"!# !
(1) (2)
conductor is decreasing then the direction of $ !$
induced current in the loop is
! !"!# !
(3) (4) Zero
"$
49. A conducting disc of radius r rotates about its axis
! with an angular speed in a uniform magnetic field
!"#$%#&'()*+ B perpendicular to the plane of the disc as shown.
A resistance R is connected between centre and
rim of the disc then
(1) Clockwise (2) Anticlockwise
(3) Into the page (4) Out of the page
45. Two rails of a railway track insulated from each "
other on the ground are connected to a # !
!
millivoltmeter. The reading of millivoltmeter when
train travels at a speed of 20 m/s along the track
is (Given Bv = 0.2 × 10–4 Wb/m2 and distance %
$
between the rails is 1 m)
(1) 10 mV (2) 0.4 mV
(3) 40 mV (4) 4 mV
(1) No e.m.f. will induce across resistance
46. The current through a choke coil increases from
zero to 6 A in 0.3 seconds and an induced emf of (2) E.m.f. will induce and A is at high potential
30 V is produced. The inductance of the coil is (3) Current in resistance will flow from A to B
(1) 5 H (2) 2.5 H (4) Resistance becomes hot due to Joule’s
(3) 1.5 H (4) 2 H heating
50. A train is moving on a straight horizontal track. !
Induced emf across the axle is maximum, when it
moves (3)
(1) At poles "
(2) At equator !
(3) Along the direction where angle of dip is 45°
(4) emf is not induced (4) # "
51. A square loop enters a magnetic field with velocity

v as shown in figure. The front edge enters the
magnetic field at time t = 0. Which of the following 53. Self inductance of a solenoid is 5 mH. If current is
decreasing through it at the rate 10+3 A/s, then emf
graphs gives the correct variation of emf induced
induced in the solenoid is
in the loop with time t for its constant velocity in
the magnetic field? [Take anticlockwise current as (1) – 5 V
negative and vice versa]
(2) 5 V
(3) 2.5 V
!
(4) – 2.5 V
54. Keeping number of turns constant self inductance L

of a solenoid varies with its length l as
!!"#$ (1) L l
(1) (2)
!!"#$
$
(2) &
%
(3) L l2
!!"#$
(3) (4) !
!!"#$ (4) !
"!
55. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated with

52. A rectangular metal loop ABCD of is passed angular velocity about a point O in a uniform
through the magnetic field with a constant velocity !
v. Which of the following represents power (P) magnetic field ! directed into the plane of the paper.
dissipated vs time (t) graph? If AO = l and OC = 3l, then potential difference
between A and C, VA – VC is
! $
&
"# %#
! " ! #
(1)
(1) 2B l 2
"
! (2) B l 2
(3) 3B l 2
(2)
" (4) 4B l 2
56. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in 59. A long conducting wire AH is moved over a conducting
a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane triangular wire CDE with a constant v in a uniform
of the circle. The radius r of the circle changes with !
magnetic field ! directed into the plane of the paper.
time t as shown in figure. The graph of magnitude of
Resistance per unit length of each wire is r. Then
induced emf |e| versus time t in the circle is
represented by '
" !
& '
! % " (
# $
)
# $!"#
$ %
% &
### ###
(1) A clockwise induced current will flow in the
closed loop
(1) (2) (2) No induced current will flow in the closed loop
! " ! "
! " ! " (3) Induced current in the closed loop alternately
### ### changes its direction
(4) An anticlockwise induced current will flow in

the closed loop
(3) (4)
" " 60. Figure below shows a square loop of side 0.5 m and
! ! " ! ! " resistance 10 . The magnetic field has a magnitude
57. A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform B = 1.0 T. The work done in pulling the loop out of
magnetic induction B parallel to the axes of the the field slowly and uniformly in 2 second is
cylinder. If B changes at a constant rate, the graph
showing the variation of induced electric field with
distance r from the axis of cylinder is !
!
(1) 3.125 × 10–3 J
(2) 6.25 × 10–4 J

! ! (3) 1.25 × 10–2 J
(1) (2) (4) 5.0 × 10–4 J
" " 61. The wires P1Q1 and P2Q2 are made to slide on the
! rails with the same speed 10 m/s. If P1Q1 moves
!
towards left and P2Q2 moves towards right, then the
(3) (4) electric current in the 19 resistor is
" "
#! #"
58. A small circular loop of radius r is placed inside a
circular loop of radius R (R >> r). The loops are
%"&' !" !" #$" !"(#)*"+,-./
coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual
inductance of the system is proportional to
$! $"
! #!
(1) (2)
" $
(1) Zero (2) 10 m A
! %!
(3) (4)
"! !! (3) 0.1 mA (4) 1 mA
62. The triangular circuit ABC shown in figure is in a 65. A field of 0.2 T acts perpendicular to a coil of area
very long solenoid of radius R such that plane of 100 cm2 with 50 turns. If the coil is removed within
triangular circuit is normal to length of solenoid. If 0.1 s from the field then the minimum emf induced
the magnetic field changes at the rate dB/dt, then in the coil is
the induced emf in the triangular circuit is
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V
(3) 3 V (4) 4 V
! ! 66. Which of the following devices is not based on
" #
!"# !"# Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction?
(1) AC generator (2) Speedometer
$
(3) Induction motor (4) DC motor
!" ! !" !
(1) # (2) # 67. If by keeping number of turns per unit length
!$ !$ constant, the volume of an air core inductor is
doubled, then its self inductance will become/
#$ !" remain
(3) " (4) #
#% !$
(1) Two times (2) Half
63. If conducting triangle is pulled out with a uniform (3) Same (4) Four times
velocity from the uniform magnetic field, as shown in
figure, then which graph of induced current versus 68. Eddy currents are used in
time is possible?
(1) Induction furnace
(2) Electromagnetic brakes
#
" (3) Speedometers
(4) All of these
69. A square loop of sides 4 cm having resistance of
" $ 2 is placed normal to a magnetic field. If
!
magnetic field is gradually reduced at the rate of
0.02 T/s. The induced current in the loop is
" " (1) 8 A (2) 2 A
(3) 16 A (4) 6 A
(1) (2)
70. The direction of runway on airport should be
# #
(1) Along N-S (2) Along E-W
" " (3) Along NW-SE (4) Along NE-SW
71. A metallic wheel (of radius l and 8 spokes) is
(3) (4) rotated in a uniform magnetic field B as shown.
The motional EMF across centre and rim is given
# # by
64. Two circular coils of different radii lie in same plane ! ! ! !
with their centers at same point i.e. inner coil is "
surrounded by bigger outer coil. If current in the outer ! !
! ! ! !
coil is clockwise and increasing with time, then !
induced current in the inner loop is !
! ! ! !
(1) Anticlockwise
! ! ! !
(2) Zero (1) 4Bl2 (2) 2Bl2
(3) Clockwise
$ !
(3) 8Bl2 (4) #%
(4) Depends on resistances !
72. Charged pollen grains are lying on a frictionless

! !
table. These are now subjected to certain field and (1) "#$%&'()*
are found to be moving by these fields. The field
cannot be
! !
(1) Time dependent electric field (2) "#$%&'(&)*%+,
(2) Position dependent electric field
(3) Time dependent magnetic field !
(3) !"#$%&'()
(4) Position dependent magnetic field *
73. The given figure shows a semicircular loop of
!
radius R carrying current I and is placed in a (4) !"#$%&'(&)*%+,
-
unform magnetic field B. The force acting on the
semicircular part of the loop is 76. Two inductor coils of self inductance L1 = 10 H
! ! ! ! and L2 = 20 H are placed as shown in the figure.
The mutual inductance of the coil is 3 H. The
# equivalent inductance between AB of the system of
! ! ! !
coils is
! ! ! !
! ! ! !
(1) B0 IR (2) 2 IRB
(3) IRB (4) 2IRB "
!
74. A non-conducting rod AB of length L has positive (1) 36 H (2) 24 H
linear charge density . This rod is rotated about
its one end with an angular speed as shown. The !" !"
(3) # (4) #
magnetic moment associated with this rod is $ !
77. There is a solenoid of length 1.5 m having
! " 1000 turns per metre, kept in a region where magnetic
! field is increased with time as 0.2 T s–1. (radius of
!
! "$
solenoid is %& ). The current through resistance 10
!
!
! is
#
!! !! #
(1) (2)
! "
&" &"
(3) (4)
"! !#
" !!"!#$! #
75. The magnetic field in the region is decreasing in
(1) 30 A (2) 3 A
!"
such a way that . If resistance per unit (3) 0.3 A (4) 0.03 A
!#
78. A one metre long metallic rod is rotated with an
length of the loop shown is , then current flowing
in the loop is given by angular frequency of 400 radian/s about an axis
! ! ! ! ! ! !
normal to the rod passing through its one end. The
! ! ! ! ! ! !
other end of the rod is in contact with a circular
! ! ! ! ! !
metallic ring. A constant uniform magnetic field of
! ! ! ! ! !
0.5 tesla parallel to the axis exists everywhere. The
! ! ! ! ! ! !
emf developed between the centre and the ring is
! ! ! ! ! ! ! (1) 200 V (2) 100 V
! ! ! ! ! ! ! (3) 50 V (4) 1000 V
79. Self inductances of primary and secondary of an ideal 83. If the instantaneous charge in the capacitor is
transformer are 90 mH and 40 mH. If the current in the 400 C and current through the circuit is
primary decreases at the rate 103 As–1, then emf across decreasing at the rate 10 3 A/s then potential
the secondary is difference VA – VB is equal to
(1) 40 V (2) 90 V !"#& +#, )"# *

'"#(
(3) 60 V (4) 20 V ! "
!# !"#$%
80. A short magnet is allowed to fall along the axis of
a horizontal metallic ring. Starting from rest, the (1) 30 V (2) Zero
distance fallen by the magnet in one second may (3) 10 V (4) 70 V
be
84. A uniform rod rotates in a uniform magnetic field B
(1) 4 m (2) 5 m (perpendicular to its length) about its one of end
(3) 6 m (4) 7 m with constant angular velocity. The electric field
produced is
81. In the figure as shown, a straight wire carries a
constant current. The direction of induced current (1) Uniform along its length
in the rotating loop about an axis xx at the instant (2) Non-uniform along its length
shown
(3) May be uniform or non-uniform
(4) Cannot be predicted
! !! 85. When the current in a coil changes from 0 to 5 A,
"
in 0.5 s, the average induced emf in the coil is 1
volt. The self-inductance of the coil is
(1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H
(1) Is anticlockwise
(3) 0.4 H (4) 1.5 H
(2) Is clockwise 86. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies with time
(3) There is no current in the loop as = 2t2 – 6t + 5, where is in weber and t in
second. The induced current is zero at
(4) May be clockwise or anticlockwise
(1) t = 0 (2) t = 1.5 s
82 Figure shows a circular region of radius R in which
(3) t = 3 s (4) t = 5 s
uniform magnetic field increasing at a constant rate
#$ 87. Choke coil works on the principle of
. The induced electric field at a distance r
#% (1) Kirchhoff’s laws (2) Self induction
from the centre is
(3) Mutual induction (4) All of these
! ! !! SECTION - B
! ! !! ! ! !
! ! !!
! ! ! ! !!" ! Assertion - Reason Type Questions
!
! ! ! ! ! ! !!
! ! !! ! !! ! ! In the following questions, a statement of assertion
! !! ! ! ! ! (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
! ! ! ! !! !
! !! ! (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
!
(1) for all values of r assertion, then mark (1).
!
"!
(2) for all values of r reason is not the correct explanation of the
!! assertion, then mark (2).
! "! (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) for r > R and for r < R
! !! false, then mark (3).
! "! (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) for r < R and for r > R
! !! statements, then mark (4).
1. A : Self inductance is called the inertia of R : The amount of mechanical energy lost against
electricity. the induced emf or current is equal to the
R : It is on account of self inductance that the coil electrical energy reappearing in the circuit.
opposes any change in current passing 6. A : Time dependent magnetic field generates
through it. electric field.
2. A : When a piece of non-metal and a metal are R : Direction of electric field generated from time
dropped from the same height near the surface variable magnetic field does not obey Lenz’s
of the earth the non-metallic piece will reach law.
the ground first.
7. A : If the current passing through an inductor
R : Induced current in metal will decrease the varies with time (t) as t2, the induced emf will
acceleration. vary as a straight line.
3. A : Iron loss is minimised by using laminated R : EMF through an inductor is given by
core.
!"
R : Lamination of core restricts eddy current. # $ .
!%
4. A : Induced electric field is non-conservative.
8. A : Group of inductors behave in the same way as
R : Work done in a closed path in induced electric group of capacitors.
field is nonzero.
!! !" !# !
5. A : Lenz’s law is in accordance with conservation R : !$%&'%$ ! !()&)**%* !!! !"! !#!
"
of energy.
!" !" !
Chapter 19
Alternating Current
4. The phase difference ( ) between emf and current

SECTION - A in LCR series a.c. circuit is
Objective Type Questions (1) =0
1. For the circuit shown in the figure, the time
constant is
(2) 0 <
$"% %
$"
(3) < <

%
#" !"
(4) =
5. The primary and secondary coils of an ideal
&'"( transformer have 100 and 5000 turns respectively.
The magnetic flux linking the primary coil is given
!" ! by = 20t + 10. The output voltage across the
(1) s (2) s
!! "# secondary coil is
! # (1) 20 V
(3) s (4) s
" $ (2) 500 V
2. If I = 2t, then the R.M.S. value of current between (3) 1000 V
zero to 2 second is
(4) 10000 V
! ! 6. In the LCR-circuit shown below, if readings of the
(1) (2)
" " voltmeters V1 and V2 are the same, then
# "! "" "
(3) (4) Zero
"
3. L, C and R denote inductance, capacitance and $ !"#
#
resistance respectively. Pick out the combination
which does not have the dimension of frequency. !
!
(1)
!" "#$#%"##&#'()# %
!
(2) ! !
" (1)
!"
!
(3) (2) Reading of the voltmeter V is 50 V
!"
(3) Reading of the ammeter A is 5 A
!
(4)
" (4) All of these
312 Alternating Current Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. If R and L are resistance and inductance of a 13. The power factor of the given circuit is
choke coil and f is the frequency of current through " # $
it, then average power of the choke coil is !
proportional to !" #" $"
!
(1) R (2) !
!
! !
(3) (4) All of these !
!! (1) (2)
" "
8. The current in the branch of a circuit shown below
increases at a rate of 3 A/s. At the instant when
#
current in the wire is 2A, the potential drop from a (3) (4) 0
to b is "
# !"# 14. In LC oscillation, the current in the circuit when

total energy stored is in the form of magnetic
! $" " energy (where q0 is maximum charge stored by
%&"'
(1) 26 V (2) 14 V capacitor)
(3) 16 V (4) 6 V #!
(1) Zero (2)
9. Which of the following is/are copper loss/losses in "!
a transformer?
(1) Hysteresis loss #!
(3) (4) #! "!
(2) Eddy current loss !"
(3) Heat loss in the primary and secondary coils 15. The variation of alternating current (I) with time (t)
is shown in the given graph. Find the average value
(4) Both (1) & (2)
of current for half cycle
10. Half power frequencies for the circuit shown below
!
are 200 rad/s and 800 rad/s. The value of the
!!
product LC is (in second2/radian2)
"
#
! # "
!$ ! !!
(1) (2)
!
(1) 6.25 × 10–3 (2) 6.25 × 10–6
(3) 1.25 × 10–3 (4) 1.25 × 10–5 "!
(3) (4) Zero
11. Laminated iron core is used in a transformer to "
minimize
16. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series
(1) Hysteresis loss (2) Eddy current loss across a.c. supply. Which of the following phasor
(3) Copper loss (4) All of these diagram may be correct?
12. What is the reading of the a.c. voltmeter in the !
network shown below? ! !" " "
! # #
(1) (2)
!"#
""#$#%"# "!#$#%"#
!
" !
!#$#!""##&#'()# # # "
(3) (4) #
(1) Zero (2) 100 V
(3) 200 V (4) 500 V !
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Alternating Current 313
17. An inductor of inductance (L), a capacitor of 23. The quality factor of series resonant circuit is
capacitance (C) and a resistor of resistance (R) are
1+2)1310$'$&/"0 *,-&$(
$ (1) 4
connected in series across % % ! $%& . The .'$&/"0 ()**)%+,)- ' %$& !"!#$
"!
reading of hot wire voltmeter connected across
resistor is 1,23)()%!*+,-.,)/0
(2)
"! '()$!"#$%&
(1) E0 (2)
! -&%",%$(. *$++"!",)"' ()!&## ')(/()$%&!
%! (3) -&%",%$(.' *$++"!",)"''()!&##''!"#$#%&!
(3) (4) Zero
!
(4) All of these
18. The power factor of a series LCR circuit in
resonance condition is 24. When alternating current flows through a conductor,
the rate of flux change
&
(1) Zero (2) (1) Is higher in the inner part of the conductor
%
(2) Is lower in the inner part of the conductor
"
(3) (4) 1 (3) Is uniform throughout the conductor
!
(4) Depends on the resistivity of the conductor
19. The instantaneous power of resistor having
25. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with
resistance R across ac supply of E = E0 sin t is
an alternating source of frequency f. Find the value
! !
#" #" of L for with the current leads the voltage by
(1) !"# ! ! (2) !"#! ! $
" "
!
# & # # " & " #
"" (1) $ ! !! (2) $ !!
(3) (4) Zero " " % " "# " ! " % ! "# "
!
20. The ratio of resonant angular frequency and # & # # & # #
band width of a given series LCR circuit is (3) $! ! ! (4) " " $ ! !!
" "% " "# " % " "# "
(1) Inversely proportional to angular frequency of ac
26. In a step-up transformer the turn ratio is 1 : 20.
(2) Directly proportional to angular frequency of ac A resistance of 100 connected across the
(3) Independent of angular frequency of ac secondary is drawing a current of 2 A. The primary
(4) Directly proportional to the square of angular voltage and the current respectively are
frequency of a.c (1) 100 V, 0.5 A
21. An electric bulb rated 100 W, 40 V has to be (2) 200 V, 10 A
operated across 50 V, 50 Hz a.c supply. The
capacitance of the capacitor which has to be (3) 10 V, 40 A
connected in series with the bulb is (4) 10 V, 20 A
(1) 12 F (2) 24 F 27. An ideal inductor of 20 henry is joined in series
with a resistance of 5 ohm and a battery of 5V.
! ! The current flowing in the circuit after 4 s is (in
(3) ! (4) !
!"## amperes)
22. An electric bulb is connected in series with an
inductor across a.c. supply. When an iron rod is !
(1)
inserted in the inductor, the brightness of bulb !
(1) Increases (2) e
(2) Decreases
!
(3) First increases then decreases (3) ! "
!
(4) Remains the same
(4) 1 – e
28. The rms value of the current in a series LCR circuit (1) A1 > A2 ; A1 < A2
is plotted with angular frequency as shown below. (2) A1 > A2 ; A2 = A1
The ohmic resistance is R, inductance is L and
capacitance is C in the circuit. The value of the (3) A1 < A2 ; A1 < A2
difference ( 2 – 1) is (4) A1 < A2 ; A1 = A2
!!"# 33. The power dissipated in following circuit will be

about half of its maximum value at approximately
!
!# $
"#$"$%!
!#% !""#
" $ %
&
'"#()* !
" !
(1) (2) (1) = 1050 rad/s (2) = 1000 rad/s
! "
(3) = 950 rad/s (4) Both (1) & (3)
' "
(3) (4) 34. An ac source of emf e = 50 sin 100 t is connected
"! !!"
across a circuit for which phasor diagram is shown
29. In the circuit diagram shown below, the reading of in figure. The time difference between current and
the a.c. voltmeter is voltage applied across circuit is
$#%#&""# ' (#%#&#) "
!"# +!
*
!"#
!
(1) 1.25 ms (2) 1.33 ms
*#%#!""#!#,-.#&""!
(3) 1.67 ms (4) 1.85 ms
(1) 200 V (2) 100 V
35. The instantaneous values of current (in ampere) and
(3) 50 ! V (4) Zero potential (in volt) in an A.C. circuit are i = 4 sin t
30. In a series RLC alternating current circuit, the ! "
r.m.s. value of current is I, the average power loss and ! !""#$% # " & $ respectively. The power
% '&
in the circuit is factor of the circuit is
(1) I2 R (2) I2 L
! !
(1) (2)
! " "
(3) I2 C (4) I2 ( L – )
! #
(3) 1 (4)
31. A step down transformer transforms 220 V to "
110 volt. If the current in primary and secondary 36. In the given A.C. circuit, the instantaneous current
coils are 6 A and 9.6 A respectively, the efficiency through inductor and capacitor are 0.8 A and 0.4 A
of transformer is respectively. The instantaneous current through
(1) 60% (2) 70% resistor is
(3) 80% (4) 90%
32. An ideal inductor connected to a cell is shown in "
figure. Select the correct relations between readings
of ammeters A1 and A2, just after the switch is closed #
and a long time after closing the switch !
!! !
"
% !" $ (1) 1.2 A (2) 0.6 A
# "
(3) 0.4 A (4) !"# $
37. In LCR series A.C. circuit, as we vary the 43. A series LCR circuit has resistance 20 and self
frequency of A.C. source, a peak current is inductance 20 mH. Bandwidth of the circuit is
obtained. The value of this peak current, apart from (in radian/s)
the supply voltage, depends upon (symbols have (1) 1000 (2) 100
their usual meaning)
!
(1) L and R (2) L and C (3) 10 (4)
!"""
(3) R and C (4) R only
44. Voltage across the resistor, inductor and capacitor
38. A direct current of 2 A and an alternating current in series LCR circuit are 20 V, 50 V and 50 V
having peak value 2 A flow through two identical respectively. Peak value of the applied source is
resistance for same time. The ratio of heat
produced in the two resistance will be (1) 20 V (2) !" ! #
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) !"# " $ (4) 120 V
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
45. A solenoid has an inductance of 20 henry and a
39. The inductive reactance and resistance of L-R resistance of 5 ohm. It is connected to a battery
circuit are respectively 30 ohm and 40 ohm. The of 20 volt. Maximum magnetic energy stored in the
impedance of the circuit is magnetic field of solenoid is
(1) 50 ohm (2) 10 ohm (1) 40 J (2) 160 J
" (3) 320 J (4) 80 J
(3) 70 ohm (4) ohm
# 46. The r.m.s. value of current for
40. A bulb and a capacitor are in series with an A.C. I = 3sin t + 4 cos t is
source. On increasing frequency, how will glow of
the bulb change? (1) 5 A (2) ! " #
(1) The glow decreases ! $

(3) " (4) "
(2) The glow increases # #
(3) The glow remain the same 47. If 1 and 2 are half power frequencies of a series
LCR circuit, then resonant frequency r can be
(4) The glow first decreases then increases expressed as
41. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long
! "
time, and then X is joined to Z. The total heat (1) ! (2) ! ! "
produced in R 2 is (Symbols have their usual !
meaning) ! !
" ! ! "
%! (3) ! (4) !
! ! "
48. A solenoid of inductance L and resistance R is
$ # " connected to a battery of e.m.f. E. Maximum value
of magnetic energy stored in the inductor is
!
%"
%" ! !"
! " (1) (2)
& !& !# !
!" ! !" ! ! !" ! !"

(1) (2) (3) (4)
!#"! !#!! # !#
49. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by
!" ! !" !#! ! " ! "
(3) (4) ! ! "#$ # %&& " $ ! and ! ! "#$ # %&& " $ #'
!#"#! !##" % '& % (&
hence
42. A transformer has turn ratio 1 : 5. A DC source of (1) Voltage leads the current by 30°
EMF 10 V is applied across its primary. EMF
across the secondary will be (2) Current leads the voltage by 30°
(1) 50 V (2) 2 V (3) Current leads the voltage by 60°
(3) Zero (4) 100 V (4) Voltage leads the current by 60°
50. The r.m.s. voltage of the waveform shown is 55. Current I through an inductor is increasing
" according to I = 2t. Variation of rate of increment
$"# ! !" "

of its energy # $ with time t is correctly shown
% !# &
! # in the graph
!"# # !"
!!" "
" !# ! !#
#
(1) 10 V (2) 6.37 V (1) (2)
(3) 7 V (4) 10.5 V # #
51. An alternating voltage (in volts) given by
#
!!" " !"
! !"" ! #$%&""" is connected to 1 F " !# ! !#
capacitor through an ac ammeter. The reading of #
the ammeter will be (3) (4)
(1) 10 mA # #
(2) 20 mA
! "
(3) 40 mA 56. A time varying current is given by ! !"#$# " $%
% &&
(4) 80 mA Its r.m.s. value is (symbols have usual meanings)
52. In the circuit given below, the reading of the (1) ! ! " (2) 10 A
voltmeter V will be
! $!
(3) " (4) "
! (%"#$ (%"#$ # #
57. A series LCR circuit consists of a variable
inductance L, variable capacitance C and variable
resistance R. For a given set of values of L, C and
R, the supply voltage lags the current. The power
factor of the circuit can be increased by
(1) Decreasing L
%"#&'
!""#$# (2) Decreasing C
(1) Zero (2) 100 V (3) Decreasing R
(3) 200 V (4) 300 V (4) Increasing R, L or C
53. If potential differences measured in ac voltmeters
across inductor, capacitor and resistor in series 58. An alternating voltage ) ! $%& $ at different
LCR ac circuit are 100 V, 100 V and 50 V frequencies is applied across a capacitor C as
respectively, then peak value of the applied ac shown in the figure. Which of the following graphs
voltage to the circuit is between rms current (I ) observed by ammeter and
angular frequency of voltage is correct ?
(1) 50 V (2) $" ! # "
!" "##
(3) # (4) $ #
$
54. Voltage and current in an a.c. circuit is given by
!!
! "
V = 20 sin(314t )V and ' '($%& # "')$ $ (*
% "&
Wattful current in the circuit is ! !
(1) 10 A (2) 5 A
(1) (2)
! $%
(3) " (4) "
# #
63. If the readings of V1 and V3 are 100 V each, the
! !
reading of V2 is
(3) (4) #
" !
!" !! !#
59. It is found that current through LCR series circuit
is maximum. If V R , V C and V L are potential
differences across resistance, capacitor and
inductor respectively, then which of the following
is correct? (1) 0 V
(1) VR = VL > VC (2) VR VL = VC (2) 100 V
(3) VR VL VC (4) VR = VC VL (3) 200 V
60. In a series L-C-R circuit, different physical quantities (4) Cannot be determined by given information
vary with frequency . Which of the following curves
represent correct frequency variation of the 64. If current i1 = 3A sin t and current i2 = 4A cos t,
corresponding quantity? then i3 is
! !! !"
!"#
!"""# !#
(1) ! ! "#$% " !&' ( (2) ! ! "#$% " &)' (
!""# (3) ! ! "#$% " *!' ( (4) ! ! "#$% " &+' (

"
(1) Curve (I) for R (2) Curve (II) for XC 65. A capacitor of capacitance 1 F is charged to a
potential of 1 V. It is connected in parallel to an
(3) Curve (III) for XL (4) All of these
inductor of inductance 10–3 H. The maximum current
61. For the circuit shown in figure below, the ammeter that will flow in the circuit has the value
A2 reads 1.6 A and ammeter A3 reads 0.4 A. If 0
is angular frequency and f is frequency of ac, then (1) $%%% &#
" (2) 1 mA
!!
# (3) " #
!#
(4) 1000 mA
!" 66. In a box Z of unknown elements (L or R or any other
$%
combination, an ac voltage ! !! !"#$ " % is
! applied and current in the circuit was found to be
(1) !
!"
! !! !"#$ " % . Then the unknown elements in
&
(2) ! ! the box may be
"#
N
(3) The ammeter A1 reads 1.2 A

(4) The ammeter A1 reads 2 A
62. In a series L-C-R circuit current through the ac source
is 2 A. If resistor R used has resistance 10 .
Average power dissipated in the circuit is (1) Only capacitor
(1) 20 W (2) Inductor and resistor both
(2) 30 W (3) Either capacitor, resistor and inductor or only
(3) 10 W capacitor and resistor
(4) 40 W (4) Only resistor
67. In the transformer shown in figure, ratio of number (2) In both circuits, ratio of L and C will be same
!! ! (3) For both the circuits, resistance must be same
of turns of primary to the secondary is "
!" #$ (4) Both circuits should have same impedance at
If a battery of emf 10 V is connected across primary, all frequencies
then induced current through the load of 10 k in
secondary is 73. An ideal transformer is made to step down the
power line voltage of 2200 V for distribution to a
!! !" city at 220 V. If the full load impedance of the
city is 4 then the primary current is
!"#$ !"#% (1) 45 A
(2) 5.5 A
(3) 55 A
!
(1) "# (2) Zero (4) 0.55 A
$%
74. What is the phase difference between potential
! ! difference across inductor and potential difference
(3) "# (4) "# across capacitor in a series LCR circuit?
!$ $
(1) Zero
68. In an ac current i = 100sin100t A and
! !$$ %&'(!$$" )*+,- . Then the average power (2)
. !
dissipated in the ac circuit is
(1) 2500 W (2) 250 W (3)
"
(3) 5000 W (4) 4000 W (4)
69. EMF induced in the secondary coil of an ideal 75. For a series LCR circuit quality factor is and
transformer does not depend upon potential difference across circuit is . The potential
(1) EMF in primary coil difference across inductor in resonance state will
be
(2) Frequency of source
(1) Zero
(3) Ratio of number of turns
(2)
(4) Both (1) & (3)
70. Phase difference between emf and current through
(3)
choke coil may be
(1) 0° (2) 85°
(3) 45° (4) 30° (4)
71. A bulb is rated at 100 V, 100 W, and is treated as
a resistor. The inductance of an inductor (choke 76. The ratio of current delivered by battery just after the
coil) that should be connected in series with the switch is closed to a long time after switch closed is
bulb to operate the bulb at its rated power with the
help of an ac source of 200 V and 50 Hz is " #
(1) ! (2) 100 H !

"
" !"
! !
(3) " (4) "
72. The value of current in two series LCR circuits at

! !
resonance is same when connected across a (1) (2)
sinusoidal voltage source. Then " "
(1) Both circuits should have same value of # !
capacitance and inductor (3) (4)
" "
77. What is the reading of the A.C voltmeter in the 84. Dimension of inductance is
network as shown in the figure?
(1) [MLT–2A–2] (2) [ML2T–2A2]
! (3) [ML2T–2A–1] (4) [ML2T–2A–2]
""$"!#$!
85. In the given circuit, switch S is closed at t = 0.
"!!"!#$! #!"!%$! After a long time the iron rod is withdrawn from the
inductor L. Then, the bulb
!"#$%&#'
!!"!%$$!#!&'( % ! $
(1) Zero (2) 100 V
#
(3) 200 V (4) 400 V
78. The value of power factor for a parallel LC circuit at "
frequency less than resonance frequency is
(1) Glows with same brightness
(1) Zero (2) 1
(2) Glows more brightly
(3) > 1 (4) < 1
(3) Gets dimmer
79. The rms value of an alternating voltage given by
(4) Stops glowing
= (6 sin t – 2 cos t) volt is
86. The circuit is in steady state when the key is at
(1) ! " # (2) ! " # position 1. If the switch is changed from position 1
to position 2, then the steady current in the circuit
(3) ! " # (4) 4 V is
" !
80. Current through an element in ac circuit is said to
#
be wattless, when the element is
(1) Pure inductor (L) (2) Pure capacitor (C) !! #!
(3) Series L-C circuit (4) All of these

81. An LC circuit contains inductor (L = 25 mH) and "
capacitor (C = 25 mF) with an initial charge Q0. !! %!
After what time will the circuit have equal amount (1) (2)
" "&
of electrical and magnetic energy?
%! !!
" (3) (4)
(1) $ (2) $ !& !"
'+( '+(
87. LCR series circuit is connected with an alternating
#
(3) $ (4) All of these emf source. If peak current and voltage are I0 and
'+( V0 respectively then at resonance the value of
82. In which of the following circuits, power factor can wattless current is
be zero?
!!
(1) LC circuit (1) I0 (2)
!
(2) LCR circuit
(3) Purely resistive circuit (3) !!! (4) Zero
(4) Both (1) & (2) 88. The value of quality factor (Q-value) of the series
resonant circuit with inductance L = 2.0 H,
83. Quality factor of resonance circuit is given by
capacitance C = 32 F and resistance R = 10 ,
(symbols have usual meanings)
is
!! ! (1) 25
(1) (2)
" ! !" (2) 250
$ (3) 0.25
!
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
# (4) 2.5
4. A : In any LCR circuit, total energy stored is

SECTION - B
constant at resonance.
R : Resistance of LCR circuit doesn’t affect the
In the following questions, a statement of assertion total energy stored in the circuit at resonance.
5. A : Average value of AC is always zero in one time
reason is the correct explanation of the period.
assertion, then mark (1). R : Net charge transferred in one time period of AC
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the is zero.
6. A : Average power in series LCR ac circuit is
maximum at resonance.
false, then mark (3). R : At resonance circuit is purely resistive.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 7. A : Current through a pure inductor is wattless.
R : Phase difference between emf across a pure
1. A : When a current i = (3 + 4 sin t) flows in a
wire, then reading of a d.c. ammeter connected
inductor and current through it is 90° or .
in series is 4 units. #
R : A d.c. ammeter measures only the value of 8. A : DC and AC both can be measured by a hot
current amplitude.
wire instrument.
2. A : A capacitor can replace choke coil in a.c
circuit. R : A hot wire instrument works on the principle of
magnetic effect of current.
R : A capacitor can reduce the current in a.c.
circuit like an inductor. 9. A : When the frequency of the AC source in a
series LCR circuit equals to the resonant
3. A : On increasing frequency of a.c. through a
conductor resistance of circuit may increase. frequency, the reactance of the circuit is zero.
R : Resistance of a conductor is directly R : There is maximum current through the inductor

proportional to the frequency of the a.c. input. as well as capacitor at resonance.
!" !" !
Chapter 20
Electromagnetic Waves
5. The phase difference between electric field and

SECTION - A
magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave is always
1. What is the energy density of electric field at a (1) 0 (2)
!
distance of 5 m from a point source of EM wave,
if the electric field strength at that point be
100 V/m? (3) (4)
"
(1) 44 × 10–9 J/m3 (2) 11 × 10–9 J/m3
6. The ratio of magnitudes of magnetic field vector and
(3) 22 × 10–9 J/m3 (4) 88 × 10–9 J/m3 electric field vector in free space for an
electromagnetic [in SI units] is equal to
2. The energy of EM wave is of the order of 15 keV.
Then this wave belongs to (1) 1 (2) 3 × 108
(1) -rays spectrum (2) X-rays spectrum (3) 3.33 × 10–9 (4) 376.7
7. For an electromagnetic wave propagating through
(3) Infra-red spectrum (4) Ultraviolet spectrum
vacuum the amplitude of electric field vector is
3. Electromagnetic wave is deflected by 30 V/m. The maximum rate of energy flow per unit
area due to electromagnetic wave through medium
(1) Electric field
is
(2) Magnetic field (1) 0.33 mW/m2 (2) 3 W/m2
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) 3.33 mW/m2 (4) 10 W/m2
(4) Neither electric nor magnetic field 8. Electromagnetic radiations of intensity 1 W/m2
strikes on the surface of a substance, which
4. If U is the energy density of electromagnetic wave reflect 80% incident radiation back into same
in vacuum and c is the speed of light in vacuum, medium. The radiation pressure on the surface of
then intensity of electromagnetic wave in the substance is
vacuum is
(1) 4 × 10–8 N/m2 (2) 2.5 × 10–7 N/m2
! (3) 8 × 10–8 N/m2 (4) 6 × 10–9 N/m2
(1) "
# 9. The laser beam from a source which radiates
energy at the rate of 25 W and wavelength 5000 Å
!! is focus on a perfect absorbing surface having area
(2) " equal to square of wavelength of beam. The
#!
radiation pressure on surface is
(3) I = Uc (1) 0.33 N/m2 (2) 1.44 N/m2
(4) I = U2c2 (3) 1.33 N/m2 (4) 1.67 N/m2
322 Electromagnetic Waves Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Which one of the following rays (or waves) has 17. Direction of Poynting vector is along (symbols have
maximum speed in air? their usual meaning)
(1) -rays (2) Heat radiations ! ! ! !
(1) ! " (2) ! "
(3) Cosmic rays (4) Ultrasonic waves ! !
(3) ! (4) !
11. Which of the following phenomenon proves the
transverse nature of electromagnetic waves? 18. Average magnetic energy density in plane
electromagnetic wave is x. The average electric
(1) Polarisation (2) Interference
energy density is
(3) Diffraction (4) Reflection (1) x (2) 2x
12. If the amplitudes of electric field and magnetic field
in an electromagnetic wave are E 0 and B 0 "
(3) (4) !
respectively and speed of light is c, then which of !
the following is incorrect? 19. Instantaneous direction of magnetic and electric
field of an electromagnetic wave are along +ve x-
"
(1) Intensity of the wave is E02 c axis and +ve y-axis respectively. Direction of
! 0
propagation of the electromagnetic wave is
(1) +ve x-axis (2) +ve y-axis
" & "! " #
(2) Intensity of the wave is $ !! (3) +ve z-axis (4) –ve z-axis
! $ ! !
% "
20. Frequency of oscillation of the energy density of an
electromagnetic wave is equal to
" &
$ !! "! "!" #!
(3) Intensity of the wave is ! (1) Frequency of wave
# $ !
% ! "
(2) Half the frequency of wave
(4) cE0 = B0 (3) Double the frequency of wave
13. The impulse imparted by an electromagnetic pulse (4) Zero
of energy 1.5 × 10–2 joule when it falls normally on
21. X-rays cannot be deflected by
a perfectly reflecting surface is
(1) An electric field (2) A magnetic field
(1) 4×10–10 kg-m/s (2) 2×10–10 kg-m/s
(3) A gravitational field (4) Any of these
(3) 10–10 kg-m/s (4) 0.5 × 10–10 kg-m/s
! !
14. The speed of the electromagnetic wave in a 22. If ! and ! are instantaneous electric field and
medium which has relative permittivity and magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave, then
permeability 4.5 and 2 respectively, is direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is
along
(1) 1.5 × 107 m/s (2) 1.0 × 108 m/s
! !
(3) 2.2 × 108 m/s (4) 6.5 × 107 m/s (1) ! "
! !
15. Which of the following pairs of space and time (2) ! "
varying electric field and magnetic field would
! !
generate a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in (3) " !
the z-direction? ! !
(4) ! "
(1) !"!" #$! (2) !"!" #"!
23. If v, x and m represent the wavelengths of visible
(3) !"!" #$! (4) !"!" #$! light, X-rays and microwaves respectively, then
16. Angle between electric field and magnetic field at (1) ! " #
any instant is 90° in electromagnetic wave. Phase
difference between them is (2) # ! "
(1) Zero (2) 180° (3) # " !
(3) 90° (4) 60° (4) ! # "
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Electromagnetic Waves 323
24. The speed of electromagnetic wave in a medium of 29. Average energy density of electromagnetic wave
dielectric constant 2.25 and relative permeability 4 Ey = E0 sin (kx – t) and Bz = B0 sin(kx – t) is
is approximately given by
(1) 1 × 108 m/s ! !

!"!
(1) " !" (2)
" ! "
(2) 2.5 × 108 m/s
(3) 3 × 108 m/s "!"! ""!

! ! "
(4) 2 × 108 m/s
30. Displacement current through a capacitor at steady
25. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming state is
from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy
density of the electromagnetic wave is (1) Infinite (2) Zero
(1) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3 !! ! !! !

(3) (4)
!" !"
(2) 4.59 × 10–6 J/m3
31. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor being
(3) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
charged by a battery. If X and Y are two closed
! !
(4) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 curves then during charging ! ! !"# is zero along
26. The electric field vector of an electromagnetic wave the curve
!
is given by, ! !! #$%& $ %& ' '!
" !
The corresponding expression for magnetic field is
!
(1) # #! #$%& $ %& '%!
!
(2) # #! #$%& $ %& '%!
(1) X only
!
(3) ! !! "#$% " #$ &#!
(2) Y only
!
(4) # #! #$%& $ %& '%! (3) Both X & Y
27. Electromagnetic waves are produced by (4) Neither X nor Y
(1) Static charges

SECTION - B
(2) Charges in uniform motion
(3) An oscillating charge
(4) Both (2) & (3) (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
! ! (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
28. Electric field " and magnetic field ! of an reason is the correct explanation of the
electromagnetic wave are at angles 1 and 2 assertion, then mark (1).
respectively with direction of propagation of
electromagnetic wave, then (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) 1 = 2 = 90° assertion, then mark (2).
(2) 1 = 90°, 2 90° (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) 1 90°, 2 = 90°
(4) 1 and 2 both are zero statements, then mark (4).
324 Electromagnetic Waves Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
1. A : The energy in an em wave is divided equally 3. A : Electric energy density in electric field of
between the electric and magnetic field. electromagnetic wave is c2 times the magnetic
R : The magnitude of electric field vector is energy density in its magnetic field.
3 × 108 times the magnitude of magnetic field "
vector in vacuum. R : Amplitude of electric field is times the
#
2. A : Electromagnetic waves produced by vertical amplitude of magnetic field.
antenna are vertically polarised. 4. A : Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum but light
R : Electric vibrations present in the waves can travel in vacuum.
electromagnetic waves are collinear with the R : Sound waves are non-mechanical waves but
antenna. electromagnetic waves are mechanical waves.
!" !" !
Chapter 21
Wave Optics
6. The geometrical path of ray of light in a medium of

SECTION - A refractive index 2 is 8 m. The optical path is
Objective Type Questions (1) 16 m (2) 4 m
1. Which of the following property of light is a sure (3) 2 m (4) 1 m
proof of wave nature of light? 7. In Young’s double slit experiment if separation of the
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction screen is increased from slits, the fringe width will
(3) Photoelectric effect (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Decrease
2. On superposition of two waves y1 = 3 sin ( t – kx)
(2) Increase
! "
and y 2 = 4 sin # ! "# at a point, the (3) Remain the same
% ! $&
(4) Any of the above depending on the wavelength
amplitude of resulting wave will be
of the light used
(1) 7 (2) 5
8. Five identical polaroids are placed coaxially with
(3) ! (4) 6.5 45º angular separation from adjacent one as shown
in figure (I0 : Intensity of unpolarised light)
3. In Young’s double slit experiment a slit is covered
with thin film so that the optical path difference !"# !$# !%# !&# !'#
introduced between coherent waves is 5 . Then the
new position of central maxima will be at !!
!
(1) The initial position of 5th maxima
The intensity I of light emerging out of 5th polaroid is
(2) The initial position of 3rd minima
!! !!
(3) The initial position of 2nd minima (1) (2)
! !
(4) The initial position of 3rd maxima !! !!
(3) (4)
4. In Young’s double slit experiment using a light of !" !"
wavelength ‘ ’, 60 fringes are seen on a screen. If 9. In Young double slit experiment, how many
the wavelength of light is decreased by 50% then minimas can be obtained on a screen, if
the number of fringes on the same screen will be wavelength of light used is 2000 Å and slit width
(1) 30 (2) 60 is 0.0008 mm
(3) 120 (4) 90 (1) 6 (2) 7
5. The polarising angle for a material is 60º then the (3) 8 (4) 9
refractive index of material is 10. When YDSE is carried out in liquid, 5th bright
fringe lies at a point on the screen where 3rd dark
! !
(1) (2) fringe was lying in air. The refractive index of the
" " medium is
! (1) 1.5 (2) 3
(3) " (4) (3) 2 (4) 1.2
"
326 Wave Optics Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. In Y.D.S.E., the ratio of maximum intensity at a 17. Which statements is true for interference?
point to the intensity at same point when one slit
(1) Two independent source of light can produce
is closed
interference
(1) 2 (2) 3
(2) There is no violation of conservation of energy
(3) 4 (4) 1
(3) White light cannot produce interference
12. Two light sources are said to be coherent when,
their (4) Interference pattern can be obtained even if
coherent sources are widely apart
(1) Amplitude are equal and have constant phase
difference 18. In Y.D.S.E., if the intensity ratio of bright and dark
(2) Wavelengths are equal fringes is 81 : 25. The ratio intensity of two waves is
(3) Intensities are equal (1) 1 : 49 (2) 49 : 4

(4) Frequencies are equal and have constant (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 40
phase difference
19. Two monochromatic waves each of amplitude A
13. Two light waves given below superimpose at a point
have a phase difference between them is .
& # "
y1 = asin 2 t, y2 = #" $%& $ # ! !! When they superimpose then the amplitude of the
% "" resultant wave is
The resultant amplitude of the wave is
(1) 2A (2) Zero
(1) ! ! (2) ! !
(3) 4A (4) ! !
(3) ! " (4) ! !
20. Which one of the followings is correct regarding
14. When a transparent sheet of thickness t and refractive scattering of light?
index is introduced in one of the paths in YDSE
having slit width d and distance between slit and (1) The light of shorter wavelengths is scattered
screen is D, then the fringe pattern shifts by much more than that of large wavelengths if
size of scatterer a >>
# $
(1) $ # "!! (2) (2) The light of longer wavelengths is scattered
" #% $ #""
much more than that of shorter wavelengths if
# "# size of scatterer a >>
(3) $ # "!! (4)
" $ # "!! (3) All wavelength scattered equally if size of
15. Which statement is not true for polarisation of scatterer a <<
light?
(4) All wavelengths scattered equally if size of
(1) Light vibrations are restrained only in one plane scatterer a >>
(2) Establishes longitudinal nature of light 21. A screen is placed 100 cm from a single slit which
(3) Intensity of light decreases is illuminated with 5000 Å light. If distance between
the first and third minima in the diffraction pattern
(4) Both (2) & (3)
is 5 mm. The width of the slit is
16. The intensity of the polarized light becomes
(1) 2 mm (2) 0.2 m
!
times its initial intensity. The angle between (3) 2 × 10 –4 m (4) 4 × 10 –5 m
!
the axis of analyser and polarizer is 22. When a light of certain wavelength is incident on
a plane surface of a material of a glancing angle
& ! # 30°, the reflected light is polarised. The angle of
(1) #$% "! ! " ! (2) "#$ "!$$ !
!
% !" refraction is
& ! # (1) 60° (2) 30°

(3) %&' "!$ ! # "! (4) "#$ "!$$ !
!
% !" (3) 45° (4) 40°
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Wave Optics 327
23. In a double slit experiment, the distance between 27. In YDSE, two thin transparent film of mica and
the slit is d. The screen is at a distance D from the glass are put in the path of two waves from
slits and is the wavelength of light used. If a dark coherent sources S1 and S2. If their thickness are
fringe is formed opposite to a slit on the screen, 3t and 2t respectively, what should be refractive
the order of fringe is index of mica so that central maxima is found at
O ( glass = 1.5)?
"! !
(1) !!
! !
""
#" !"
(2) $
!
#
" !
(3)
!!
"!
"!
#! $
(4) $
&
(1) 1.25
24. In Y.D.S.E., if a liquid is filled between the space (2) 1.5
of screen and slit, then
(3) 1.75
(1) Central bright fringe will shift upward
(4) 1.33
(2) Central bright fringe will not shift
28. In a Young’s double slit experiment sources of
(3) Central bright fringe will shift downward
equal intensities are used. Distance between slits
(4) Central fringe may shift downward or upward is d and wavelength of light used is ( << d).
Angular separation of nearest points on either side
25. In Y.D.S.E. if the width of the slits are gradually
of central maximum where intensities become half
decreased, then
of the maximum value is
(1) Bright fringe will become brighter and dark fringe
become darker
(1)
$
(2) Bright fringe become less bright and dark fringe
become less dark
(3) Bright fringe become brighter and dark fringe (2)
#!
become lighter
(4) Bright fringe become less bright and dark fringe
(3)
become darker $!
26. Light waves of intensities I and 9I interfere to
produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase (4)
%!
"
difference between the wave at a point P is
# 29. Angular width of principal maximum in Fraunhoffer
and 2 at other point Q. Then the ratio of single slit diffraction is 0.1 radian. Angular width of
intensities at P and Q is second order secondary maxima is
(1) 8 : 5 (1) 0.05 radian
(2) 5 : 8 (2) 0.1 radian
(3) 1 : 4 (3) 0.5 radian
(4) 9 : 1 (4) 0.25 radian
30. The slit in a double slit interference experiment are 34. Two coherent light sources S1 and S2 are kept at
illuminated by a light of wavelength = 600 nm. equal distances from the centre of circle on the
A thin transparent sheet of thickness t is placed in same plane of the circle as shown in figure. In one
front of one of the slits. The number of fringe complete revolution on the circular path, number of
shifting is plotted across the refractive index of maxima observed is ( = wavelength of light used)
the sheet as given. The value of t is
!!"#$%!$&!&'()*+!,-(&.+/0
)!
$! !! " !"
(!
'!
(1) 4 (2) 6
#!
(3) 8 (4) 12
&!
35. The ratio of intensities in consecutive maxima in a
!"#$ !"$! !"%$ &"!! &"#$ &"$! &"%$ #"!! diffraction pattern due to a single slit is
(1) 2.4 m # # ! !
(1) !$ !
$
! (2) "# #
% &' $ %&
(2) 24 m
! "
(3) #$ ! $ ! (4) !" # " $
(3) 4.8 m
36. In an interference pattern, position of central
(4) 48 m
maxima is 5 mm from a certain point P on the
31. In Young’s double slit experiment, distance screen. The fringe width is 0.6 mm. The distance
between the slits is 1 mm. Wavelength of the light of third minima from point P is
used is 600 nm. Fringe width of interference (1) 3.2 mm (2) 3.3 mm
pattern (as shown in figure) is (3) 3.5 mm (4) 3.8 mm
37. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
# between the slits is 4 ( is the wavelength of the
!! light used). The maximum number of maxima formed
!"## $ on the screen placed at a distance of 1 m from the
!" slits, is
(1) 6 (2) 7
$%&"# "
(3) 9 (4) 11
(1) 0.6 mm (2) 0.3 mm 38. In Young’s double slit experiment, separation
between the slits is 0.5 mm. Source of light S is
(3) 0.4 mm (4) 0.2 mm placed at a distance of 0.5 mm from the slit S1 as
32. Four coherent sources of intensity I are shown in the figure. To have central maxima at
superimposed constructively at a point. The mid-point O the glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is
intensity at that point is placed in front of S1. The thickness of the plate is
(1) 4I (2) 8I
! !"#$%%
"!
(3) 16I (4) 24I
! "# $ $
33. In Young’s double slit experiment, intensity at the !

point of maxima and minima are I 0 and zero ""
respectively. Intensities of individual sources are
!!
(1) 4I0 (2) (1) ! " #$ mm (2) ! " #$ mm
!
!! #
(3) 2I0 (4) (3) ! mm (4) mm
" "
39. A plano-convex lens is placed on a plane glass 45. Two coherent sources are 0.3 mm apart. They are
plate such that convex surface is in contact with 1 m away from the screen. The second dark fringe
the plate. The thin air film between glass plate and is at a distance of 0.3 cm from the centre.
lens is illuminated by monochromatic light source Distance of fourth bright fringe from the centre is
above the lens. The interference pattern from the (1) 0.16 cm
thin film are (2) 1.6 cm
(1) Concentric circular rings (3) 0.8 cm
(2) Parallel equispaced straight lines (4) 8 cm
(3) Elliptical lines 46. Assume that light of wavelength 7000 Å is coming
from a star. The limit of resolution (in radian) of a
(4) Hyperbolic lines
telescope whose objective has a diameter of
40. If 5 th order maxima of wavelength 4000 Å in 244 cm, will be
Young’s double slit experiment, coincides with n th
(1) 2.5 × 10–7
order maxima of wavelength 5000 Å, then n is
equal to (2) 5.0 × 10–7
(1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 3.5 × 10–7
(3) 4 (4) 10 (4) 4.5 × 10–7
41. A light of wavelength 6000 Å in air enters a 47. Light of wavelength 5000 Å travelling at a speed of
medium of refractive index 1.5. Frequency and 2 × 108 m/s in medium 1 is incident on a boundary
wavelength of light in the medium respectively are and gets refracted into medium 2. Its wavelength
after refraction is found to be 5500 Å. Which of the
(1) 5 × 1014 Hz, 6000 Å
following is incorrect?
(2) 5 × 1014 Hz, 4000 Å
##
(1) Refractive index of medium 2 is
!" #$
(3) × 1014 Hz, 4000 Å
# (2) On entering medium 2, light bends away from
normal
!"
(4) × 1014 Hz, 6000 Å (3) Speed of light is more in medium 2 than in
#
medium 1
42. Ratio of angular width of principal maximum to the (4) Its frequency remains unchanged
angular width of second secondary maximum in
single slit diffraction is 48. Two coherent light sources A and B with separation
2 are placed on x-axis symmetrically about the
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
origin. They emit light of wavelength . Find the
(3) 5 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 number of positions of maxima on a circle of large
43. Resolving power of a microscope can be increased radius, lying on the x-y plane with centre at the
by using origin
(1) Red light (1) 2 (2) 4
(2) Blue light (3) 6 (4) 8
(3) Oil between objective lens and object
49. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction
(4) Both (2) & (3) pattern with slit width of 0.5 mm. If yellow light is
44. Monochromatic light of wavelength in air is replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will
refracted into a glass slab of refractive index . reveal
The wavelength of light in glass is (1) No diffraction pattern
(1) (2) (2) More narrow central maximum
(3) More number of fringes
(3) (4) !
(4) Less number of fringes
50. Young’s double slit experiment is performed in a 57. Which of the following is not based on interference
liquid. The 10th bright fringe in the liquid lies where of light?
the 8th dark fringe lies in vacuum. Refractive index (1) Newton’s rings
of the liquid is approximately
(2) Colours of soap bubble
(1) 1.81 (2) 1.67
(3) Optical activity
(3) 1.54 (4) 1.33
(4) Colors on the wings of a tropical butterfly
51. In Young’s double hole (slit) experiment using light
58. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slit
of wavelength 6000 Å, the angular width of fringe
separation is made 3 fold. The fringe width
formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. The slit
becomes
separation is approximately
(1) 0.34 mm (2) 0.34 cm !
(1) times
"
(3) 0.34 m (4) 0.034 mm
52. Intensity at the centre in YDSE is I0. If one of the !
slits is covered then, intensity at centre will be (2) times
#
(1) I0 (2) 2I0 (3) 9 times
(3) !! ! (4) !! " (4) 3 times
53. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam 59. The condition of observing Fraunhoffer’s diffraction
of red light. What will happen, if the red light is from single slit is that the light wave front incident
replaced by blue light? on slit should be
(1) Bands will become narrower
(1) Elliptical
(2) Bands become broader
(2) Spherical
(3) No change will take place
(3) Planar
(4) Bands disappear
(4) Cylindrical
54. When a thin transparent plate of thickness t and
refractive index is placed in the path of one of 60. Huygens wave theory allows us to know the
the two interfering waves of light, then the extra
path difference created between two waves due to (1) Wavelength of the wave
the plate is (2) Velocity of the wave
(1) ( + 1)t (2) ( – 1)t
(3) Amplitude of the wave
! !" (4) Propagation of wavefronts

(3) # $ (4) t
% ! &
61. The graph between resolving power and
55. If ratio of amplitudes of two coherent sources accelerating potential V for an electron microscope
producing an interference pattern is 3 : 4, then ratio is (P is resolving power)
of intensities at maxima and minima is
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 9 : 16 ! !
(3) 49 : 1 (4) 25 : 7 (1) (2)

56. Two coherent sources are 0.3 mm apart. They are
" "
1 m away from the screen. The second dark fringe
is at a distance of 0.3 cm from the centre.
Distance of fourth bright fringe from the centre is ! !
(1) 0.6 cm (2) 0.8 cm (3) (4)
(3) 1.2 cm (4) 0.12 cm " "

62. In YDSE, an electron beam is used to obtain
SECTION - B
interference pattern. If speed of electrons is
increased Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) No interference pattern will be observed In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(2) Distance between two consecutive fringes
remains same (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) Distance between two consecutive fringes will
decrease
(4) Distance between two consecutive fringes will
increase
63. Huygen’s principle of secondary wavelets may be
used to
(1) Explain Snell’s law
(2) Find velocity of light in vacuum statements, then mark (4).
(3) Find new position of a wavefront 1. A : The maximum intensity in YDSE is four times
the intensity due to each slit when slits are
(4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
identical.
64. In a YDSE, let X and Y be the upper and lower R : The phase difference between the interfering
slits. A thin film of thickness t and refractive index
waves is 2n at the position of maxima where
is placed infront of X. Let = fringe width. The
n = 0, 1, 2, ........
central maximum will shift
2. A : No sustained interference pattern is obtained
(1) Downward
when two electric bulbs of same power are
(2) Upward taken.
R : Phase difference between waves coming out of

(3) By ! ! "#
electric bulbs is not constant.
(4) Both (2) & (3) 3. A : When a thin transparent sheet is placed in
front of one of the slits in YDSE, the fringe of
65. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I 0 is zero order shifts to some other position.
passed first through a tourmaline crystal A and
then through another tourmaline crystal B oriented R : On placing thin transparent sheet in front of a
so that its principal plane is parallel to that of A. slit, the position of zero path difference on the
The intensity of final emergent light is I. The value screen changes.
of I is
4. A : Light of different colours travel with different
(1) I0
speeds in vacuum.
!! R : Speed of light depends on mechanical
(2)
! properties of the medium.
!! 5. A : Nicol prism is used to produce and analyse

(3) plane polarised light.
"
!! R : Nicol prism reduces the intensity of light to

(4) zero.
!
6. A : If the background of two microscopic objects

is blue, then they are resolved well by R: ! !!" "#$! with usual symbol meanings.
%
mircroscope.
R : Resolving power is inversely proportional to 8. A : If complete YDSE is dipped in liquid from air
wavelegnth of light used. then fringe width decreases.
7. A : On increasing the phase difference from R : Wavelength of light decreases, when we move
from air to liquid.
!"#! in YDSE, the intensity decreases by
$ % 9. A : Light waves can be polarised.
!
rd.
" R : Light waves are transverse.
!" !" !
Chapter 22
Atoms
6. An electron in Bohr’s hydrogen atom has angular

SECTION - A
!#
Objective Type Questions momentum . The energy of the electron is
1. According to Bohr’s theory the radius of electron in (1) – 3.4 eV (2) – 0.64 eV
an orbit described by principal quantum number n
and atomic number Z is proportional to (3) – 0.85 eV (4) – 10.25 eV
!! 7. Ratio of speed of electron in first orbit of H-atom to

(1) Z2n2 (2) the speed of light is equal to
"!
!! !! !
(3) (4) (1) (2) 137
" " !"#
2. If the potential energy of electron in Bohr’s atomic ! !
model of hydrogen is taken as zero in its first orbit (3) (4)
"# "#
then the P.E. of electron in the 2nd orbit of same
hydrogen atom will be 8. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of H-atom
is (Symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) + 6.8 eV (2) 20.4 eV
(3) –3.4 eV (4) 27.2 eV !" !"
(1) (2)
3. In case of a hydrogen like atom when an electron # #
jumps from n = 4 to n = 3 it gives ultraviolet
radiation. The radiation of visible spectrum region !"
(3) – Rch (4)
may be obtained when transition of electron is from #
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 3 to n = 2 9. If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x, then de-Broglie
(3) n = 5 to n = 3 (4) n = 5 to n = 4 wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is nearly
4. When a hydrogen atom is excited from ground (1) 2 x (2) 6 x
state to first excited state its potential energy
(1) Increases by 10.4 eV !
(3) 9x (4)
!
(2) Decreases by 10.4 eV
(3) Increases by 20.4 eV 10. The angular momentum of an electron in H-atom is
(4) Decreases by 20.4 eV !
, where h is Planck’s constant. The kinetic
5. The ratio of energy of electron in hydrogen atom energy of the electron is
and hydrogen like helium ion in first orbit is
(1) 13.6 eV
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3.4 eV
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (3) 6.8 eV
(4) 1 : 8 (4) 27.2 eV
334 Atoms Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. A stationary atom of mass m emits a photon of 17. The ionization potential of H atom is –13.6 V.
wavelength . The recoil speed of the atom is Photons of energy 12.75 eV are made to incident
on sample of H atoms at ground state. How many
! spectral lines are expected in emitted radiation?
(1) (2)
" !" (1) 2 (2) 6
"! ! (3) 4 (4) 1

(3) (4)
18. The ratio of maximum wavelength of Lyman series
in hydrogen spectrum to maximum wavelength in
12. The electron in H-atom undergoes a transition from Balmer series is
4th state to ground state. The maximum number of
emission lines will be (1) 27 : 5 (2) 5 : 27
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 : 7 (4) 15 : 17
(3) 6 (4) 12 19. Which of the following is not true for Bohr model
of hydrogen atom?
13. When the electron in a H-atom jumps from 6th
excited state to 2nd excited state, the maximum (1) Radius of nth orbit is proportional to n2
number of emission lines will be (2) Total energy of electron in n th orbit is
(1) 20 (2) 12 !
proportional to
(3) 10 (4) 5 !!
(3) Angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is
14. In the diagram shown below two atomic transitions proportional to n
are shown. If 1 = 3000 Å and 2 = 6000 Å, then
will be (4) Total energy of electron is equal to its kinetic
energy
!
20. In the figure shown, the wavelength and frequency
of photons in transition a, b and c for hydrogen
" atoms are a, b, c and a, b and c respectively
then
(1) 2000 Å (2) 4000 Å
!
(3) 4500 Å (4) 9000 Å
15. If energy of the electron in an H-atom in ground
state is taken to be zero, then kinetic energy of
"
the electron in the first excited state will be #
(1) 3.4 eV (1) = +

b a c
(2) 6.8 eV (2) = +
c a b
(3) 10.2 eV
" " # #
(4) 13.6 eV (3) !
" !
16. A metal of atomic number (Z) is used as target in
" !
a Coolidge tube. Let f be frequency of the K (4) #
Corresponding value of Z and f are known for a " !
number of metals. Which of the following plots will 21. Let f1 be the maximum frequency of Lyman series,
give a straight line? f2 be the frequency of first line of Lyman series
and f 3 the frequency of series limit of Balmer
(1) f against Z
series. Then which of following is correct?
(2) ! against Z (1) f1 – f2 = f3
! (2) f2 – f1 = f3
(3) against Z
! (3) f1 + f2 = f3
(4) f against ! (4) 2f1 = f2 + f3
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Atoms 335
22. When an electron of hydrogen like atom jumps from 28. Wavelength of first line in Balmer Series of
a lower energy level to a higher energy level. Its hydrogen specturm is , then wavelength of
second line in this series is
(1) Kinetic energy increases
(2) Angular momentum decreases !# $#
(1) (2)
!" $'
(3) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron
increases !$ $#
(3) (4)
(4) Angular momentum remains constant !" $%
23. The angular momentum of an electron in the 29. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the force on the
"! electron depends on the principle quantum numbers
hydrogen atom is , where h is Planck constant, as
!
its kinetic energy is !
(1) !
(1) 0.549 eV (2) 4 eV "!
!
(3) 1 eV (4) 13.6 eV (2) !
""
24. If velocity of an electron in third energy level of a
!
hydrogen like atom is v, then velocity of electron in (3) !
fifth energy level is "#
(4) Does not depend on n
!! & 30. Which of the following transitions in H-atom will
(1) (2) !
" $% give the same line as the transitions 4 2 in He+
gives?
$% " (1) 2 1 (2) 3 2
(3) ! (4) !
& & (3) 4 3 (4) 4 1
25. Which of the following statement is correct? 31. An electron in an atom makes transition from the
energy state E 1 = –E to E 2 = –1.5 E. The
(1) Bohr’s theory is applicable to hydrogen atom
wavelength of the emitted photon is
only
(2) Circumference of orbit of an electron in Bohr’s !"# "#
(1) (2)
model is equal to an integral multiple of ! !
de-Broglie wavelength of electron
""# "#
(3) All the lines of Bohr series lie in visible (3) (4)
!! !!
spectrum
32. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition
(4) When photons is emitted from an atom only
from n = N 1 to n = N 2 . The frequency of the
energy is conserved
electron in the final state is eight times that in
26. According to Bohr’s atomic model initial state. The possible values of N1 and N2 are
(1) Mass of electron remains constant (1) N1 = 6, N2 = 2

(2) N1 = 8, N2 = 1
(2) The nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest
(3) N1 = 8, N2 = 2
(3) Electron in a quantized orbit will not radiate
(4) N1 = 4, N2 = 2
energy
33. Which of the following represents the ratio of
(4) All of these maximum wavelength of Paschen series to that of
27. The recoil speed of hydrogen atom when it emits minimum wavelength of Lyman series?
a photon during transition from n = 3 to n = 1 is %&" !"!
approximately (1) (2)
" #
(1) 38.6 m/s (2) 3.86 m/s
%'' %#(
(3) (4)
(3) 0.38 m/s (4) 24 m/s " "
34. E1, E 2 and E3 are energy of electron in three 39. In order to remove one electron from neutral helium
consecutive energy levels of hydrogen like atom, atom let x0 (eV) energy is needed. What is energy
such that E1 < E2 < E3. Wavelength emitted in required (in eV) to remove both electrons from the
transition from E2 to E1 is 1 and from E3 to E2 is helium atom?
2. Wavelength emitted in transition from E3 to E1 (1) (x0 + 50.4) eV
is
(2) (x0 – 54.4) eV
! "
(1) (3) (x0 + 54.4) eV
!! "
!
(4) ! !" "#$%& '(
! "
(2)
! 40. What is the recoil momentum of a hydrogen atom,
! ! when it returns to ground state from n = 5?
(3) " ! (R = Rydberg constant for hydrogen)
! " !"!" !!"
(4) (1) (2)
! " !# "
35. The angular momentum of an electron in Bohr’s ("# !"!"
(3) (4)
"" % !#
hydrogen atom is . The energy of the electron
41. An electron having kinetic energy k0, collides with
is a hydrogen atom in the ground state. This collision
(1) –0.48 eV will be elastic if
(2) –0.38 eV (1) 3.4 eV < k0 < 10.2 eV
(3) –0.28 eV (2) k0 > 10.2 eV
(4) –0.18 eV (3) k0 = 10.2 eV

36. The magnitude of magnetic moment of the electron (4) k0 < 10.2 eV
in the n th energy state of hydrogen atom is 42. If radiations ranging from ultraviolet to infrared are
proportional to passed through hydrogen gas at room temperature,
(1) n then the absorption lines will be observed in the
(2) (1) Lyman series

!
(2) Balmer series
(3) ! !
(3) Paschen series
(4) n –1
(4) All of these
37. The difference between (n + 1)th Bohr radius and
n th Bohr radius is equal to the (n – 1) th Bohr 43. Speed of the electron of hydrogen atom in 1st orbit
radius. The value of n is is 2 × 106 m/s. The velocity of an electron in 3rd
orbit of doubly ionized lithium is
(1) 3
(1) 2 × 106 m/s
(2) 4
(2) 3 × 106 m/s
(3) 5
(3) 5 × 106 m/s
(4) 6
(4) 1.5 × 106 m/s
38. If the potential energy of second orbit in hydrogen
atom is taken to be zero, then 44. If D and H be the wavelength of first Balmer line
of deuterium and hydrogen respectively, then
(1) Potential energy of all other orbits remain
unchanged (1) D< H
(2) Kinetic energy of second orbit is increased (2) D> H
(3) Kinetic energy of all orbits remain unchanged (3) D= H
(4) Potential energy of all orbits will decrease (4) D= 2 H
45. Frequency of revolution of electron in the first orbit 51. In which of the following transitions will the
of a hydrogen like atom is f. Frequency of revolution wavelength be minimum in hydrogen spectra?
in its second orbit will be
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
! (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 5 to n = 4
(1) f (2)
!
52. Characteristics X-rays are produced by jumping of
! "
(3) (4) (1) Electrons from higher to lower energy level
" !
46. Deuterium atom in the ground state, are radiated (2) Electrons from lower to higher energy level
by photon of energy 12.8 eV. What will be the (3) Protons from lower to higher energy orbit
energy of induced radiation of longest wavelength?
(Ionisation energy of deuterium is 14.4 eV) (4) Protons from higher to lower energy orbit
(1) 12.8 eV 53. Longest and shortest wavelength of the lyman

series are (respectively)
(2) 10.8 eV
(1) 1215 Å, 500 Å
(3) 1.6 eV
(2) 1215 Å, 912 Å
(4) 2.00 eV
(3) 912 Å, 500 Å
47. Wavelength of photon emitted from an excited
hydrogen atom at rest is . Recoil momentum of (4) 912 Å, 700 Å
the atom is
54. Which of the following is accompanied by the
!# ! characteristic X-ray emission?
(1) (2)
! (1) -particle emission
! ! (2) Electron emission
(3) (4)
!
(3) Positron emission
48. The frequency of radiation emitted during transition
of electron from second excited state to first (4) k electron capture
excited state in H-atom is f0. The frequency of 55. If a beam of X-rays of intensity I0 is incident on a
same transition emitted by a singly ionised He ion material of thickness x and absorption coefficient ,
is then intensity I of emergent X-rays is
(1) 2f0 (2) 4f0
(1) I = I0(1 – e – x ) (2) I = I0e – x
!! !!
(3) (4) #!
! ! (3) # (4) I = I0
$
49. Spectrum of hydrogen atom partly lying in ultra-
56. In a hydrogen atom, if reference level of potential
violet region is
energy is assumed to be zero at ground state, then
(1) Lyman select the correct statement.
(2) Balmer (1) Total energy of each level increases
(3) Paschen (2) The difference in total energy of any two level
(4) Pfund remains same
50. When the electron of a hydrogen-like atom jumps (3) Kinetic energy in each level remains same
from a higher energy level to a lower energy level, (4) All of these
then
57. Wavelength of first line of Lyman series will be
(1) Angular momentum of the electron remains maximum for
constant
(1) Hydrogen atom
(2) Kinetic energy of the electron increases
(2) Deuterium atom
(3) Wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with
motion of the electron increases (3) Helium ion (He+)
(4) Potential energy increases (4) Lithium ion (Li2+)
58. In an atom if transition from n = 4 to n = 3 gives " %

ultraviolet radiation, then to obtain infrared radiation (3)
"
transition should be
(1) 5 4 !
(4)
!" ! !#
(2) 3 2
63. Balmer series of hydrogen atom is
(3) 2 1
(1) Completely in visible region
(4) 3 1
(2) Completely in ultraviolet region
59. Like angular momentum, which other physical (3) Mostly in visible region
quantity is quantised in Bohr’s model of hydrogen
atom? (4) Mostly in I.R. region
64. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelengths of
(1) Kinetic energy
radiation in Lyman series that an excited electron
(2) Magnetic moment in a hydrogen atom can emit while going to the
ground state, is
(3) Potential energy
#
(4) Mechanical energy (1)
$%
60. The number of revolutions per seconds made by an
electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is #
of the order of (2)
$
(1) 1020
!
(2) 1015 (3)
"
(3) 1017
$&
(4) 1019 (4)
"$
61. Ratio of the speed of the electron in the ground 65. Binding energy of electron in the ground state of
state of hydrogen to the speed of light in vacuum He+ ion is
is (1) 13.6 eV
! (2) 27.2 eV
(1)
"#$ (3) 54.4 eV
(4) 40.8 eV
!
(2) 66. The wavelength of radiation emitted, when an
!"#
electron jumps from the third to second orbit of
$ hydrogen atom is . The wavelength of radiation
(3) emitted for the electron jumps from the fourth to
!"#
second orbit of hydrogen atom will be
!
(4) !"
" (1)
!#
62. An excited H-atom emits a photon of wavelength
in returning to the ground state. The quantum
!#
number n of excited state is given by (2)
!"
(R = Rydberg constant)
"
(1) !! ! "# (3)
#
! "
(2) (4)
! ! "# #
67. If is frequency of characteristic X-rays produced
SECTION - B
in a Coolidge tube operating on potential difference
V, then Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) V0
(2) V2
(3) V–1
(4) V–2 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
68. A positive ion having only one electron ejects it if reason is the correct explanation of the
a photon of 228 Å is absorbed by it. The ion assertion, then mark (1).
is
(1) B+4 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(2) Li+2 reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) He+ assertion, then mark (2).
(4) Be+3
69. The maximum frequency of continuous x-rays is
related to the applied potential difference V as
(1) V2 (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) V 3/2 statements, then mark (4).
(3) V
1. A : It is not essential that all the lines available in
(4) #
the emission spectrum will also be available in
70. Let R represents the orbital radius of an electron the absorption spectrum.
moving in an orbit and K represents its kinetic
energy. Then the quantity KR varies with principal R : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only
quantum number n as
absorption spectrum.
!" 2. A : If electron in a hydrogen atom falls from 6th

orbit to 3 rd orbit, the maximum number of
(1)
emission lines is six.
#
R : When an electron jumps from a higher orbit to
lower orbit, its kinetic energy increases.
!"
(2) 3. A : If an electron in helium atom is in fourth
excited state then another electron may be
#
present in second excited state.
!" R : Two photons may excite two different electrons
(3) of same atom simultaneously.
# 4. A : Balmer spectral lines may lie in ultraviolet

regions
!"
R : When an electron is excited from lower energy
(4)
to higher energy state, its kinetic energy
# decreases.
5. A : Balmer series lies in the visible region of 6. A : Kinetic energy of an electron moving in an
electromagnetic spectrum. orbit decreases with increase in radius of the
orbit.
! !! !"
R : For Balmer series, !# ! " n = 4, 5, R : Kinetic energy of the electron is given by
%# " ! $&
$%!%"
.
6, 7...... . &
!" !" !
Chapter 23
Nuclei
6. The density of nucleus varies with nucleon

SECTION - A number A as
Objective Type Questions (1) A1/2 (2) A
1. A radioactive sample decays by two processes (3) A3/2 (4) A0
with half lives 600 s and 30 days. The effective
half-life of the sample is 7. The order of magnitude of density of a nucleus is
(1) 30 days (2) 30.007 days (1) 1014 kg/m3 (2) 1017 kg/m3
(3) 600 s (4) Less than 600 s (3) 1021 kg/m3 (4) 1025 kg/m3
2. During an ‘ ’ particle decay from a nuclei at rest 8. The binding energy of an electron in ground state
of atomic mass 284, the wavelength of the wave of He is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy that must
associated with the ‘ ’ particle is ‘ ’. Then the be given to the atom so that second electron can
wavelength of the wave associated with the be removed is
daughter nuclei must be (1) 49.2 eV (2) 54.4 eV
(3) 79 eV (4) 84 eV
(1) (2)
!
9. Which of the following has the mass closest to
(3) 2 (4) 280 that of positron?
3. The nuclear density of a material of atomic number (1) Proton (2) Electron
27 is “3 0”. Then the nuclear density of material of
atomic number 125 is (3) Photon (4) Neutrino
(1) 5 (2) 3 10. What was the fissionable material used in bomb
0 0
dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in 1945?
!
(3) ! (4) 0 (1) Uranium (2) Nepturium
"
4. A nucleus at rest ruptures into two nuclear parts (3) Berkalium (4) Plutonium
which have ratio of magnitude of their velocities 11. If half life of a radioactive substance is 10 hours,
1 : 2. Then what is the ratio of their nuclear radius? then its mean life is
! ! (1) 14.4 h (2) 7.2 h
(1) ! " " # (2) ! # " #
(3) 20 h (4) 6.93 h
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 12. Average binding energy per nucleon is constant
5. A radioactive sample has a half-life of 1770 years. and is equal to 8 MeV per nucleon for most of the
nuclei. This is because nuclear force
At some instant 20% of the sample has decayed.
Taking this instant as t = t1, it is found that at (1) Is a short range force
t = t2, 20% of the sample is left. Then, t2 – t1 is (2) Is charge independent
(1) 1770 years (2) 885 years (3) Is non-central
(3) 2655 years (4) 3540 years (4) Show saturation property
342 Nuclei Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
13. In which of the following, controlled fusion reaction 18. Which of the following graph correctly represents
takes place? the variation of the term log (A/A0), where A is
activity at time t and A0 is initial activity?
(1) Tokamak
(2) Stellar energy !"# !

!!
(3) Hydrogen bomb " #
(1)
(4) All of these
!" !"
14. #! "" # $
!"# !
In the given decay equation, A and B indicate !!
(1) Electron and antineutrino (2)
(2) Positron and antineutrino " #
(3) Positron and neutrino

!"# !
!!
(4) Electron and positron
15. A radionuclide decays 50% in 1 h. If the activity of (3)

the radionuclide is A0 at a certain instant, then " #
after two hours, the activity will become
!! !"# !
(1) !!
!
(4)
!!
(2) " #
"
!! 19. A stationary nucleus of mass number A emits an

(3) -particle. The de-Broglie wavelength of the
! daughter nucleus is 1 and that of the -particle is
!! !
(4) 2, then the ratio is
"# "
! ! !
16. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay (1) (2)
constants such that A = 2 B. At t = 0, number of ! ! !
nuclei of B is twice of that of A. Then after what ! !
time, the ratio of number of nuclei of A to that of (3) 1 (4)
!
! 20. If the half-life of a radio-nuclide is two hours, the
number of nuclei of B is "
#! fraction decayed in four hours will be
! ! ! "
(1) " (2) (1) (2)
! !
" !
# !
! " (3) (4)
(3) (4) " "
! !
21. After two alpha decays and four beta(–ve) decays,
17. A freshly prepared radio-isotope has activity 64 the atomic number
times the allowed level. If half life is 3 h, then how
long one must wait before using the isotope in (1) Decreases by 4 and mass number remains same
radio-diagnosis? (2) Remains same but mass number increases by 4
(1) 24 h (2) 18 h (3) Remains same but mass number decreases by 8
(3) 12 h (4) 6 h (4) Increases but mass number remains same
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Nuclei 343
22. The atomic weight of boron is 10.81 g/mole and it 29. The Q-value for a fission process is
has two isotopes !" !! (1) Always positive

# ! " # !. The ratio (by number)
(2) Always negative
!" !!
of # ! " # ! in nature would be
(3) Always zero
(1) 19 : 81 (2) 10 : 11
(4) Any of the above depending on the mass ratio
(3) 15 : 16 (4) 81 : 19 of the fission fragments
23. Mark out the correct statement(s) !
30. If mass of " !"
is 4.0026 amu, mass of a proton
(1) Higher binding energy per nucleon means the
is 1.0073 amu and mass of a neutron is 1.0087
nucleus is more stable amu, then the binding energy of 2He4 is equivalent
(2) If the binding energy of nucleus were zero, to
then it would spontaneously break apart (1) 0.0294 amu (2) 0.0588 amu
(3) Binding energy of a nucleus is always +ve (3) 0.1176 amu (4) 0.0147 amu
(4) All of these 31. Two protons each having kinetic energy K move
towards each other from infinitely large separation.
24. Binding energy per nucleon of a fixed nucleus XA Assuming a proton to be a sphere having radius
is 8 MeV. It absorbs a neutron moving with kinetic equal to 1 fermi, the minimum value of K for which
energy K.E. = 4 MeV. and converts into Y. Emitting the protons are able to touch each other is
a photon of energy 2 MeV. The binding energy per
(1) 360 keV (2) 180 keV
nucleon of Y (in MeV) is
(3) 720 keV (4) 1440 keV
!! " !! "
(1) (2) 32. If a luminous watch dial contains 10 micro curies
! # ! # !!"
of radium isotope #$ "# !
then the number of
!! " !! decays per second that occur in it, is
(3) (4)
! " ! " (1) 1.81 × 105 decays s–1
25. If the binding energy of the electron in the ground (2) 3.62 × 105 decays s–1
state of a hydrogen atom is E, then the frequency
of electron in the n th orbit is (3) 0.9 × 105 decays s–1
(4) 7.24 × 105 decays s–1
!# "#" ! !#
(1) (2) 33. A beta plus decay is shown below. Assuming that
! "!!
X and Y both are neutral atoms and energy carried
!# # $ by is negligible, the Q value of the process is
(3) (4)
!" # !"
! !
26. Which of the following pair of nuclei are isotones? " # " " !" !
$ !" & $
(1) %
!# " # ! (2) % %& ' %%&
" "
(1) &" % # $ $ # " % # # "# $ # ""! ! !
!
!" !" ' '

(3) $
#" # ! (4) & ()' $$& ! ! !
(2) %# # " $ ! $ # # " # "" !" !
27. The statement which is incorrect about nuclear
force between to protons is " " !
(3) %" $ # $ # " " $ # # "# # " "! ! !
(1) These are always attractive forces
" "
(2) These are non-central forces (4) %" # # $ " $ " # # # "# " "! ! ! !
(3) These are charge independent
34. If a nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts which
(4) These are short range forces have their velocity ratio equal to 8 : 1, then the
28. The rest mass energy of a positron is ratio of their nuclear radii is
(1) 0.51 MeV (2) 1.02 MeV (1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 0.25 MeV (4) Zero (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 2
35. A radioactive nucleus having mass number 198 and 41. The half life of a radioactive substances X is T.
atomic number 83 undergoes a series of decays as When this substance makes a chemical
!
compound XY after reacting with the substance Y
!! !" !# !$ !% which is stable, the half life of X becomes T , then
Find the mass number and atomic number for X4 (1) T = T (2) T > T
(1) 190, 80 (2) 196, 82 (3) T < T (4) T =
(3) 194, 81 (4) 192, 80 42. A freshly, prepared radioisotope has rate of
disintegration 64 times higher than the safe limit.
36. A radioactive element A disintegrates to form
Half life of the radioisotope is 1.5 hr. How long a
another radioactive element B having decay
radiologist must wait before he uses this isotope in
constant 1 and the element B further disintegrates diagnosis?
with decay constant 2 into element C. If element
B is in radioactive equilibrium, then the ratio of the (1) 6 hour (2) 7 hour
half life periods in two decays is (3) 9 hour (4) 12 hour
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 43. Two nuclei fuse together to form a single nucleus
2 2 as # " " #" " !

"! . If binding energy per
(3) 1 : 2 (4) "
! !
nucleon of A and B are respectively x and y, then
37. If E is the amount of energy released when a the energy released in the process is
radioactive element having mass number A (1) 4x + 4y (2) 4x – 4y
undergoes alpha decay, then the velocity of alpha
particle is (3) 4y – 4x (4) y – x
44. The S.I. Unit of activity of a radioactive material is
"" %$ ! # "!# ‘becquerel’. 1 becquerel is equal to
(1) (2) !"
!%$
(1) 106 disintegrations/s
% ! $ #"# " !#
(3) (4) (2) 3.7×1010 disintegrations/s
! !" !%$
(3) 1010 disintegrations/s
38. In a given time interval t a radioactive sample
emits n beta particles and in next time interval t it (4) 1 disintegration/s
emits 0.75 n beta particles. The mean life of the 45. When a radioactive nucleus is too heavy, it will,
sample is most likely, emit
"$ # +* $ (1) -particle (2) –-particle
(1) () $ ' & (2) () $ ' &
(3) +-particle (4) -photon
$ $
(3) () & ' $ (4) () $ ' & 46. The volume (V) of a nucleus is related to its mass
(M) as
39. When a radioactive nucleus undergoes negative
#
beta decay, the ejected electron is (1) V M (2) V
%
(1) Electron already present in the nucleus
!
(2) Valance electron (3) V M3 (4) V
!!
(3) Emitted by a neutron in the nucleus
47. A sample of radioactive material has initial mass A,
(4) Emitted by a proton in the nucleus decay constant B, molecular weight C and
Avogadro’s constant D. The activity of the sample
40. If t1/2 is the half life of a substance, then in 2(t1/2) after time t will be
time substance
& &' # " !" & &' # " !"
&
,-
&
,- (1) $ !$ (2) $ !$
(1) Decays by (2) Remains % % " % %( "
$ $
! " & #$% # ! !" & #$% # ! !"
(3) Decays by (4) Remains (3) $ !! (4) $ !!
$ # % " " % " "
48. A U235 nucleus at rest emits an alpha ( ) particle. 54. Select correct statement regarding mass number
During this process and atomic number. Mass number of a nucleus
(1) The nucleus remains at rest while -particle (1) Is always more than atomic number
comes out with a large speed (2) Is always less than atomic number
(2) Nucleus as well as -particle move with equal (3) Is always equal to its atomic number
and opposite speeds (4) May be more than or equal to its atomic
number
(3) -particle moves with lesser speed compared
to the nucleus 55. On decay a neutron produces a proton, an electron
and
(4) Both will move with same magnitude of
(1) A neutrino (2) An antielectron
momentum
(3) An antineutrino (4) -Meson
49. In an -particle scattering experiment, the number
of particles scattering per minute in a direction 56. Half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 16 days. Select
perpendicular to direction of incident particles is 40. the correct statement for a given sample of this
The number of particles scattered at an angle radioactive material.
60° per minute will be (1) No nucleus will decay before 8 days
(1) 145 (2) 160 (2) No nucleus will decay before 16 days
(3) 172 (4) 157 (3) All nuclei will decay before 33 days
50. In a nuclear reaction an electron and positron join (4) A nucleus may decay any time after t = 0
to liberate two -ray photons. The momentum of 57. The half-lives of a radioactive substance are
each photon will be [m0 is rest mass of electron or 1600 year and 400 year for -emission and
positron and neglect initial speed of the electron -emission respectively. The time after which one
and position] fourth of the sample will remain undecayed is
&! ' (1) 640 Year (2) 4000 Year
(1) m0c (2)
" (3) 2000 Year (4) 320 Year
(3) 2m0c (4) 2m0c2 58. In the pair-production process a ray photon
51. The mass number of a nucleus is M which is at creates an electron-positron pair. If the total kinetic
rest initially. It emits an particle of kinetic energy energy of electron and positron is 0.78 MeV then
5.6 MeV, then the Q value of the reaction is the energy of ray photon is
(1) 1.80 MeV (2) 1.10 MeV
! " #$% ! !"
(1) (2) # " $ #$% &'( (3) 1.01 MeV (4) 1.27 MeV
! &" % ! &
#' $ 59. In the following nuclear reaction, the value of z is
% !&
&'( !"#$% !"#$%
)& ! " " #!
! !"# $%&
(3) "#$% &' ()* (4) (1) 84 (2) 86
! ! '"
#( $ (3) 90 (4) 88
% !&
60. Consider the following statements
52. Density of gold nucleus is X. Density of silver
nucleus will be A : Spectrum of energy of -particles in -decay is
line spectrum.
!
(1) 2X (2) B : Spectrum of energy of -particle in -decay is
!
continuous spectrum.
(3) 4X (4) X
Which of the following options is correct?
53. Activity of a radioactive substance decays from
8000 bequerel to 4000 bequerel in 5 days. Activity (1) Statement A is true and B is false
of the substance after next 10 days will be (2) Statement B is true and A is false
(1) 500 bequerel (2) 1500 bequerel (3) Both statements A and B false
(3) 2000 bequerel (4) 1000 bequerel (4) Both statements A and B true
68. A radioactive nuclei emits a -particle. The parent

!
61. If mass of electron is equal to times the and daughter nuclei are
!"#$
mass of proton, then energy of photon required (1) Isotopes (2) Isotones
for the pair-production of an electron and positron
is (3) Isomers (4) Isobars
(1) Less than 1.01 MeV 69. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 fm. The net
force between them is F1 if both are neutrons, F2
(2) Equal to 1.01 MeV
if both are protons and F3 if one is proton and the
(3) Greater than 1.01 MeV other is a neutron. Hence
(4) Less than or equal to 1.01 MeV
(1) F1 > F2 > F3 (2) F2 > F1 > F3
62. A radioactive substance can decay by two
individual decay processes of half lives 150 yrs and (3) F1 = F3 > F2 (4) F1 = F2 > F3
100 yrs. If the sample starts decaying by both 70. The activity of a sample of radioactive material is
processes simultaneously, then half life of the A1 at time t1 and A2 at time t2 (t2 > t1). Its mean
sample becomes
life is T. Which of the following relation is correct ?
(1) 125 yrs (2) 250 yrs
! !! ! " "
(3) 120 yrs (4) 60 yrs (1) !# !$" " (2) A1t1 = A2t2
63. Total mass of a radioactive sample is m, decay
constant is and molecular weight is M. If NA is !!
Avogadro’s number, then initial activity of the !! !"
(3) = constant (4) !! !"" !""
sample is "" "!
! 71. Mark the correct decreasing order of penetrating

(1) m (2)
" power of particle, particle and rays, each
!" ! having an energy of 0.4 MeV.
(3) (4) mMe
# (1) , , (2) , ,
64. Number of and –1 particles respectively, emitted
(3) , , (4) , ,
in the following radioactive decay, is
!"" #$%
72. Two lithium nuclei in a lithium vapour at room
&" ! %" " temperature do not combine to form a carbon
(1) 8 and 6 (2) 6 and 8 nucleus because
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 6 and 6 (1) A lithium nucleus is more tightly bound than a
carbon nucleus
65. The radius of a nucleus is
(1) Proportional to its mass number (2) Carbon nucleus is an unstable particle
(2) Inversely proportional to its mass number (3) Lithium nuclei are more stable than carbon nuclei
(3) Proportional to the cube root of its mass (4) Coulombic repulsion does not allow the nuclei
number to come very close
(4) Not related to its mass number 73. If only 25 percent of a radioactive material is left
66. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days, over after 24 h, then the half life of the material is
then amount of the original material left after 20 (1) 5 h (2) 10 h
days is approximately
(3) 8.46 h (4) 12 h
(1) 75% (2) 65%
74. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest
(3) 85% (4) 90% emits an -particle. If the Q value of the reaction
67. Out of the following, the most unstable particles are is 5.5 MeV, then the KE of -particle is
(1) Protons (2) Electrons (1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(3) Neutrons (4) -particles (3) 5.6 MeV (4) 6.5 MeV
75. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (1H2) 82. Radioactivity of a sample of radioactive nuclei
and helium nucleus (2He4) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV reduces from 4000 to 2000 becquerel in 2 h. Time
respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a taken by it to reduce its value from 2000 to
single helium nucleus, the energy released is 500 becquerel is
(1) 13.9 MeV (2) 26.9 MeV (1) 2 h (2) 4 h
(3) 23.6 MeV (4) 19.2 MeV
(3) 8 h (4) 1 h
76. Activity of a radioactive element decreased to one
third of initial value R0 in 9 years. After next 9 years 83. The graph between the instantaneous concentration
its activity will be (N) of a radioactive element and time (t) is
!!! !! ! !
(1) (2)
" !
!! !!
(3) (4) (1) (2)
" #$
77. If a stationary nucleus of mass m emits a photon " "
of energy E, then recoil energy of the nucleus is
! !
! !!
(1) (2)
"# " !# !
(3) (4)
#" !! !" !
(3) (4)
"&' " # " "
78. 16 g of radioactive Radon of half life 3.8 days is 84. The half life period of a radioactive element x is same
kept in a container. How much Radon will as the mean life time of another radioactive element y.
disintegrate in 19 days? Initially both of them have same number of atoms,
then
(1) 0.5 g (2) 5.5 g
(1) x and y have same decay rate initially
(3) 10.5 g (4) 15.5 g
79. If the binding energy of deuteron !"! "# is 1.15 MeV (2) x and y decay at the same rate always
per nucleon and an alpha particle ! "! "#$ has a (3) y will decay at a faster rate than x
binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon, then in the
(4) x will decay at a faster rate than y
reaction
" 85. A radioactive nucleus undergoes emission to
$. / $". #
".0 /1 form a stable element. What will be the recoil
the energy Q released is velocity of daughter nuclei, if v is the velocity of -
emission and A is the atomic mass of radioactive
(1) 4.6 MeV (2) 28.4 MeV nucleus?
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 33 MeV
!! !!
80. The binding energy per nucleon for -particle and (1) (2)
" ! " "
deuteron are x and y respectively. What will be the
energy released in the reaction? !! !!
(3) (4)
2 " ! " "
1H + 1H 2 2He
4 +Q
(1) 4(x – y) (2) 4(y + x) 86. If T is the half life of a radioactive material, then
the fraction of initial nuclei that would remain after
(3) 2(x + y) (4) 2(y – x) a time T/2 is
81. Density of potasium nucleus is . Density of
sodium nucleus will be " #
(1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 ! $
!! ! ! "#
(3) (4) (3) (4)
!" !" " !
87. The relationship between disintegration constant ( ) 95. Minimum energy that a -ray must have to give
and half life (T) will be rise to an electron-position pair is
!"#!" $ !"#! $ (1) 0.51 MeV (2) 1.02 MeV

(1) (2)
! ! (3) 2.04 MeV (4) 1.53 MeV
! !"#! ! 96. Which of the following is used as a moderator in

(3) (4) nuclear reactor?
!"#! $ "
88. The sun maintains its brightness due to which of (1) Plutonium (2) Cadmium
the following reactions in its core? (3) Thorium (4) Heavy water
(1) Conversion of Helium into Hydrogen 97. The binding energy per nucleon for a deuteron and
(2) Fusion of Hydrogen into Helium an -particle are E1 and E 2 respectively. The
energy Q released in the reaction
(3) Fusion of Helium into Nitrogen ! ! "
# ! # ! ! !" # is
(4) Fission of Carbon
(1) 4(E2 – E1) (2) 4(E1 + E2)
89. Momentum of an alpha particle emitted from a
! (3) 2(E1 + E2) (4) 2(E2 – E1)
stationary nucleus is ! . Momentum of the daughter
nucleus should be 98. The energy of thermal neutron is about
! (1) 25 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV
! (
(1) ! (2)
$ (3) 25 meV (4) 1.02 MeV
! !
(3) $ ( (4) ! 99. During fusion reaction, the device in which
magnetic field is used to confine the plasma is
90. Percentage of radioactive sample decayed in 2 half
called
lives is
(1) Breeder reactor
(1) 75% (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 100% (2) Moderator
91. In sun about 4 billion kg of matter is converted into (3) Tokamak
energy each second. Power output of Sun in (4) Geiger-Nuttal counter
watts, is
100. If only 25% of a radioactive material is leftover after
(1) 3.6 × 1026 (2) 36 × 1026 24 h, then the half life of the material is
(3) 0.36 × 1026 (4) 0.036 × 1026 (1) 5 h (2) 10 h
92. The rate of disintegration of a radioactive sample is (3) 12 h (4) 7.86 h
R1 at time t1 and R2 at time t2. The half-life of the
sample is proportional to 101. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (1H2)
and helium nucleus (2He4) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV
)# ) $ $)# )$ %!" *$ respectively. If two deutron nuclei react to form a
(1) !" * # * (2) !" *#
$ # single helium nucleus, then energy released is
$)# )$ % 2$$ $" 3 (1) 13.9 MeV (2) 26.9 MeV
(3) !" * # * (4) 4()2) 3 ()2) 35
$ # $ " (3) 23.6 MeV (4) 19.2 MeV
93. A nucleus of mass m emits photon of wavelength 102. Which of the following parameter of nucleus is
If the recoil energy of nucleus is E, then energy independent of its mass number?
of photon is equal to (1) Radius (2) Volume
(1) ! !" # (2) E (3) Density (4) All of these
103. A nucleus of mass M is at rest. An alpha particle
#$ !
(3) (4) of mass m is emitted from the nucleus with
!! !" # momentum P. Q value of the nuclear reaction is
94. The activity of a sample decreases by 30% in ! !" ! !"
10 days. Half life of the sample is approximately (1) (2)
!#"" # # !" " # " #
(1) 20 days (2) 40 days
! !" ! !"
(3) (4)
(3) 30 days (4) 50 days !#"" # # !" " # " #
104. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 days. 111. The half life of a radioactive substance as compared
The time spent between 40% decay to 85% decay to its mean life is approximately
of initial number of nuclei is (1) 30% (2) 60%
(3) 70% (4) 100%
(1) 20 days (2) 40 days
112. 10% of a radioactive sample has decayed in 1 day.
(3) 10 days (4) 30 days
After 2 days, the decayed percentage of nuclei will
105. Half life of a certain radioactive element is be
2 minutes. The amount of element that will
(1) 19% (2) 30%
decompose in 20 minutes is (A0 is the initial
amount) (3) 81% (4) 100%
!! !$%& 113. The graph shows the variation of the number of
(1) (2) !!
!$%# !$%# radioactive atoms left undecayed with time. The
!$%$ !! "!
(3) !! (4) time t corresponding to is
!$%# !" #
106. Let a nucleus N1 decomposed into N2 and N3 as !
shown in the figure
!! ! !! !
! !
" !
!#
! !! !!
!
!" #
The value of and Teffective is "
effective "! "
!!!!"
(1) + "" $! () 2*3 $! () 2*3
2, T1 + T2 (2) !
1 !! !" (1) $ (2) $
() 2"'&3 () 2&'"3
! " !!!"
(3) !!! !" (4) ! ""
! " !! !"
! !"
107. If the radius of 13Al27 is 6 fermi, then the radius of (3) t = t0 ln (5) (4) ! !! "# $%& "# # $
% '&
125 nucleus is
52Te
(1) 10 fermi (2) 8 fermi 114. A nucleus with atomic number Z = 92 emits the
(3) 6 fermi (4) 2 fermi following in sequence , –1, –1, , , , , ,
–1, –1 , , +1. The atomic number of the end
108. In which of following decays, atomic number
increases? product is
(1) (2) – (1) 83 (2) 86
(3) + (4) (3) 81 (4) 79
109. For the nuclei with mass number A > 100 115. Rutherford performed first artificial disintegration
(1) The nucleus essentially breaks up into two experiment with
nuclides of equal mass releasing energy
(1) Oxygen (2) Nitrogen
(2) The two nucleus fuse to form a bigger nuclide
releasing energy (3) Hydrogen (4) Chlorine
(3) Binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus 116. There are two radioactive materials A and B having
decreases on an average as A increases decay constants 5 and respectively. Initially
(4) Binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus both A and B have same number of nuclei. The
increases on an average as A increases ratio of the number of nuclei of A to that of B will
110. The fusion process is possible at high temperature "
because at high temperatures be after a time
!
(1) Atoms become ionized ! "
(2) Molecules disintegrate (1) (2)
" #
(3) The nucleus disintegrate
# $
(4) The nuclei get sufficient energy so as to (3) (4)
overcome the coulombic repulsive force " #
117. Ninety percent of radioactive sample is left after a (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
time t. The percentage of initial sample that will false, then mark (3).
disintegrate in time 2t is
(1) 38% (2) 19% statements, then mark (4).
(3) 9% (4) 62%
1. A : If half-life of a radionuclide is one hour, then
118. Activity of a radioactive sample decayed from activity of the radionuclide becomes one-fourth
10000/s to 5000/s in 10 hours. It will decay to after two hours.
2500/s in next
R : If half-life is one hour, then a given nucleus will
(1) 5 hrs (2) 10 hrs
certainly disintegrate in two hours.
(3) 15 hrs (4) 20 hrs
2. A : Energy is released in nuclear fission as well as
119. Stability of a nucleus can be confirmed from nuclear fusion
(1) Binding energy
R : In both processes the total binding energy of
(2) Binding energy per nucleon daughter nuclii is larger than the total binding
(3) Mass defect energy of parent nucleus
(4) All of these 3. A : A nucleus may be left excited after emission
120. The number (N) of scattered -particles detected of or particles, which then radiates -ray
versus scattering angle ( ) graph for -particle photons.
scattering experiment (obtained by Geiger and R : Nucleus have discrete energy levels as present
Marsden) is best represented by in the atom.
! ! 4. A : The mass of -particles when they are emitted
is higher than the mass of electrons obtained
(1) (2) by other means.
R : -particles and electron are identical particles.
5. A : Spectrum of energy in decay from a sample
! ! of nuclei is line spectrum.
R: -decay is one dimensional.
(3) (4)
6. A : Electron cannot reside inside nucleus.
R : Uncertainty in position of electron is greater
than the diameter of the nucleus.
SECTION - B
7. A : The ionising power of -particle is less
Assertion - Reason Type Questions compared to -particle but its penetrating
In the following questions, a statement of assertion power is more.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : The mass of -particle is less than the mass
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the of -particle.
8. A : When the atomic number increases to 2
times, the wave number of the photon emitted
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the for similar transition increases by 3 times.
assertion, then mark (2). R : Wave number z2 for similar transition.
!" !" !
Chapter 24
Communication System
6. The frequency band of satellite communication in

SECTION - A
down link is
(1) 3.7 to 4.2 GHz (2) 3.7 to 4.2 MHz
1. The frequency range of ground wave propagation is (3) 5.925 to 6.425 GHz (4) 5.925 to 6.425 MHz
(1) 500 kHz to 1500 kHz
7. If the transmitting antenna is at a height h and
(2) 2 MHz to 30 MHz receiving antenna is having same height h, and R
(3) 2500 kHz to 2 MHz is the radius of earth, the maximum distance
between them for satisfactory communication in
(4) Above 35 MHz line of sight mode is
2. Critical frequency [ fc ] of radio for reflection through
ionosphere depends on maximum electron density (1) !!" (2) ! !"
[Nmax] of ionosphere as
(1) fc Nmax (2) fc (Nmax)2 (3) !!" (4) !!"
(3) fc (Nmax)1/2 (4) fc (Nmax)–1/2 8. A message signal of frequency 100 kHz is used to
3. In a communication system, noise is most likely modulate a carrier of frequency 10 MHz. The side
to affect the signal bands produced are
(1) At the transmitter (1) 1010 kHz and 990 kHz
(2) In the channel of transmission (2) 10100 kHz and 9900 kHz
(3) At the receiver (3) 1010 kHz and 900 kHz
(4) In modulating system (4) 10100 kHz and 9990 kHz
4. Satellite communication is carried out for 9. A modulating sine wave of amplitude A 0 is
frequencies superimpossed on a carrier sine wave of amplitude
1.2A 0. The modulation index in the amplitude
(1) Above 30 MHz
modulation is
(2) Between 10 MHz to 30 MHz
"
(3) Below 10 MHz (1) 1 (2)
!
(4) Between 1 kHz to 1 MHz ! "
(3) (4)
5. Attenuation in the communication system is " !
(1) Modulation of signal 10. If transmission frequency of a signal is 1 MHz,
then the minimum length of antenna for proper
(2) Demodulation of signal transmission is
(3) Loss of strength of signal (1) 75 m (2) 300 m
(4) Amplification of signal (3) 1200 m (4) 900 m
352 Communication System Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. For same antenna length, the effective power 18. The maximum electron density in ionosphere is
radiated is directly proportional to (here is 1012 m–3. What is the frequency of signal which
wavelength) cannot be used in ionospheric communication?
(1) (2) 2
(1) 8 MHz
! ! (2) 8.5 MHz
(3) (4) !
(3) 9.0 MHz

12. Which of the following is not a component of block
diagram of a receiver? (4) 9.5 MHz
(1) Amplifier 19. Which of the following modulation index in
(2) IF stage amplitude modulated wave produces noise?
(3) Detector (1) 0.5
(4) Square law device (2) 0.8
13. On a day when the electron density per cubic (3) 1.2
metre of ionosphere is 6.4 × 1010 m–3. The critical
frequency for the sky wave propagation is (4) 0.7
(1) 0.8 MHz 20. The communication satellites are parked at an
(2) 7.2 MHz altitude of
(3) 1.6 MHz (1) 36000 km
(4) 12.4 MHz (2) 3600 km
14. In amplitude modulation (3) 360 km
(1) The amplitude of carrier wave is varied in (4) 36 km

accordance with the carrier wave 21. For a carrier frequency of 100 kHz and a
(2) The frequency of carrier wave is varied in modulating frequency of 5 kHz, what is the band
accordance with the information signal width of AM transmission?
(3) The amplitude of carrier wave is varied in (1) 5 kHz
accordance with the information signal
(2) 10 kHz
(4) The frequency of carrier wave is varried in
accordance with the carrier wave (3) 20 kHz
15. An amplitude modulated amplifier has radio (4) 200 kHz
frequency output of 70 watt at modulation index
equal to one. If the internal loss in the modulator 22. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate
is 20 watts, then the unmodulated carrier power is by means of
(1) 40 watt (2) 60 watt (1) Ground waves
(3) 135 watt (4) 90 watt (2) Sky waves
16. Line of sight communication uses
(3) Surface waves
(1) Ground waves
(4) Space waves
(2) Sky waves
23. Need for modulation is
(3) Frequency Modulated waves
(1) To achieve practicable antenna height
(4) All of these
17. The range of frequency which is not reflected by (2) To achieve high power transmission by
the ionospheric layer is antenna
(1) 3-6 MHz (2) 40-80 MHz (3) To achieve user friendly communication
(3) 3-30 kHz (4) 3-30 Hz (4) All of these
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Communication System 353
24. Line of sight propagation is otherwise named as 30. Which of the following is/are not transducer?
(1) Ground wave propagation (1) Loudspeaker
(2) Space wave propagation (2) Amplifier
(3) Sky wave propagation (3) Microphone
(4) Optical fibre propagation (4) All of these
25. Loss of strength of signal while propagating
31. FM broadcast is done using
through a medium is known as
(1) Attenuation (1) Short waves
(2) Noise (2) rays
(3) Modulation (3) Medium waves
(4) Demodulation
(4) VHF and UHF waves
26. The maximum distance up to which TV
transmission from a TV tower of height h can be 32. Sky wave propagation is suitable for radiowaves of
received is proportional to frequency
(1) h (1) Upto 2 MHz
(2) h1/2
(2) From 2 kHz to 10 kHz
(3) h3/2
(3) From 2 MHz to 30 MHz
(4) h2
(4) From 30 MHz to 100 MHz
27. If fa and ff represent the carrier wave frequencies for
amplitude and frequency modulations respectively, 33. A TV transmitting antenna is 6.4 m tall, then
then approximate maximum service range, upto which
(1) fa > ff the signal can be received (R = 6400 km) is
(2) fa < ff (1) 9 km
(3) fa ff
(2) 95 km
(4) fa = 2ff
(3) 900 km
28. How many 500 kHz waves can be adjusted on a
10 km transmission line? (4) 950 km
(1) 16.67
(2) 1.667
SECTION - B
(3) 166.7
(4) 1667
29. If for an AM wave, modulation factor is 0.5, then In the following questions, a statement of assertion
the fraction of total power carried by side bands is (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
#
(1) reason is the correct explanation of the
$
# (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the

(2) reason is not the correct explanation of the
$
# (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3)
! false, then mark (3).
% (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) statements, then mark (4).
&
354 Communication System Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
1. A : Frequency modulated wave is not used for long R : In amplitude modulation frequency varies in
distance communication. accordance with amplitude of signal wave.
R : Over long distance the FM wave becomes
highly distorted. 4. A : In analog communication modulating signal
should be sinusoidal or analog.
2. A: Electromagnetic waves of frequency 40 MHz
cannot be transmitted by sky wave
propagation. R : Analog communication uses both analog as
well as pulse carrier.
R: The ionosphere cannot reflect the waves of
frequencies more than 20 MHz.
5. A : TV signals are received using sky-wave
3. A : The amplitude of the modulated wave varies in propagation.
proportion to the instantaneous voltage of the
modulating signal in case of frequency R : The ionosphere reflects EM wave of frequency
modulation. greater than certain critical frequency.
!" !" !
ZOOLOGY
1. Structural Organization in Animals ................................................... 355 – 378
2. Digestion and Absorption ................................................................. 379 – 392
3. Breathing and Exchange of Gases .................................................. 393 – 404
4. Excretory Products and their Elimination ........................................ 405 – 420
5. Locomotion and Movement .............................................................. 421 – 434
6. Neural Control and Coordination ...................................................... 435 – 452
7. Chemical Coordination and Integration ............................................ 453 – 466
8. Reproductive Health ......................................................................... 467 – 474
9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

-Animal Husbandry ........................................................................... 475 – 480
10. Biotechnology and Its Applications ................................................... 481 – 486
Chapter 1
Structural Organization in Animals

SECTION - A
(1) Inside central nervous system, neurilemma is
Objective Type Questions absent
(2) Interneurons are neither sensory nor motor
1. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(3) Nissl bodies are absent in axon and axon
(1) Cuboidal epithelium – Proximal convoluted
hillock
tubules of kidneys
(4) Schwann cell form the myelin sheath in CNS
(2) Columnar epithelium – Intestine, stomach
7. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(3) Pseudostratified – Lining of trachea and
cockroach?
epithelium large
bronchi (1) The exoskeleton of each segment consists of
four plate like pieces called sclerites
(4) Stratified non- – Male urethra
keratinized squamous (2) Labium bears tactile and gustatory sensory
epithelium setae
2. Many years old ‘mummies’ still have their arteries (3) In cockroach, malpighian tubules, fat bodies,
intact due to well preserved nephrocytes, cuticle and uricose glands (in
some species) helps in excretion
(1) Collagen fibres (2) Elastic fibres
(4) Internally mesenteron is lined by cuticle and
(3) Reticulin fibres (4) Tunica interna covered by a very thin and transparent
3. The cartilage in which matrix is apparently fibreless peritrophic membrane
and glass-like but translucent occurs in the 8. Specialised junctions between epithelial cells which
(1) Larynx (2) Epiglottis help to stop substances from leaking across the
tissue is
(3) Ribs Cartilage (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Tight junction (2) Interdigitations
4. Bone is a solid, rigid connective tissue. If the bone
is put into KOH, then the bone will (3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes
(1) Become decalcified (2) Become soft 9. Long refractory period is found in
(3) Become flexible (4) Remain unchanged (1) White fibres of skeletal muscle
5. Muscles which occur at hair roots and on the wall (2) Red fibres of skeletal muscle
of large blood vessels are (3) Smooth muscle
(1) Skeletal muscles (4) Cardiac muscle
(2) Single unit smooth muscles 10. Mark the fluid which does not have an ability to clot
(3) Multi unit smooth muscles (1) Plasma (2) Lymph
(4) Cardiac muscles (3) Blood (4) Tissue fluid
356 Structural Organization in Animals Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. Sperms in cockroach are bounded together in a (1) Red skeletal muscle
bag/spermatophore. Which gland in their body
(2) White skeletal muscle
contributes to the formation of outermost layer of
spermatophore? (3) Smooth muscles
(1) Utriculi breviores (2) Utriculi majores (4) Cardiac muscles

(3) Phallic gland (4) Ejaculatory duct 17. Which type of neuroglia cells are phagocytic in
12. Anal cerci are paired, jointed outgrowth found in nature and mesodermal in origin?
cockroach. These arise from (1) Astrocytes
(1) 9th sternum (2) 10th tergum (2) Microglial cells
(3) 9th tergum (4) 8th tergum (3) Macroglial cells
13. Which of the following represents the correct
(4) Neurolemmocytes
direction of passage of an impulse in a multipolar
neuron? 18. Which of the following gland release neotinin
hormone in Periplaneta?
(1) Collaterals – Axon – Soma – Dendrite
(2) Dendrites – Soma – Axon – Terminal (1) Inter cerebral gland cells
arborisation (2) Corpora cardiaca
(3) Dendrites – Axon – Soma – Collaterals (3) Corpora allata
(4) Soma – Dendrite – Axon – Terminal (4) Prothoracic glands
arborisation
19. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. head of
14. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. cockroach?
cockroach
a. Internally mesenteron is lined with cuticle
(1) Head is triangular in shape and lies anteriorly
b. In abdomen eight pair of spiracles are present at right angle to the longitudinal body axis
c. All sperms of seminal vesicle are glued together (2) Formed by fusion by six segments and shows
into spermatophore great mobility in all directions due to flexible
d. Malphigian tubules are present at the junction neck
of midgut and hindgut
(3) First basal podomere of antennae is smallest
(1) a, b & c and is called pedicel which articulates with
(2) a & b antennae socket
(3) b & d (4) On each lateral side it bears a large and

blackish compound eye
(4) b, c & d
20. Mark the incorrect match
15. Which of the following type of muscle fibres are
supplied with both central and autonomic nervous (1) Pseudostratified – Urethra of male
system and are not under the control of the will of non-ciliated
the organism, have rich blood supply and have the columnar epithelium
property of contraction even when they are isolated
from the body temporarily? (2) Brush bordered – Proximal convoluted
cuboidal epithelium tubule of kidney
(1) Single unit smooth muscle
(3) Transitional – Inner surface of
(2) Multi unit smooth muscle epithelium urinary bladder and
(3) Involuntary striated muscle ureter
(4) All of these (4) Stratified cuboidal – Small salivary
16. Which of the following muscle fibres are supplied with epithelium and pancreatic
autonomic nervous system, have very rich blood ducts, parts of
supply and have the property of contraction, even membranous
when they are isolated from the body temporarily? labyrinth
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Structural Organization in Animals 357
21. Mucoid tissue, a special type of connective tissue 27. Which of the following sinus in cockroach is
characterised by jelly like matrix (Wharton’s jelly) considered to be on the dorsal side?
having some delicate collagen fibres and primitive
(1) Pericardial sinus (2) Perivisceral sinus
type of fibroblasts cells is found in
(1) Umblical cord (3) Perineural sinus (4) Head sinus
(2) Viterous humour of eye 28. On an average female cockroach produce ______
oothecae, each containing _______ eggs.
(3) Comb of cock
(1) 9 - 10, 14 - 16 (2) 14 - 16, 9 - 10
(4) All of these
(3) 2 - 4, 10 - 12 (4) 6 - 8, 8 - 10
22. Cockroach shows paurometabolous metamorphosis
in which gradual changes occur. Metamorphosis is 29. Tegmina arises from
regulated by two hormones i.e., ecdysone and
(1) Prothorax
juvenile secreted by
(1) Corpora cardiaca and corpora allata, (2) Mesothorax
respectively (3) Metathorax
(2) Prothoracic gland and corpora allata, (4) Neck region between head and thorax
respectively
30. Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts
(3) Corpora allata and prothoracic gland,
and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are oriented
respectively
irregularly found in
(4) Prothoracic and corpora cardiaca, respectively
(1) Tendon (2) Ligament
23. Haversian canal is present in all of the following
except (3) Dermis of skin (4) Blood
(1) Diaphysis (compact) bone of rabbit 31. Mark the statement that can’t be associated with
pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
(2) Epiphysis (spongy bone) of rabbit
(1) Cells are not of same height
(3) Diaphysis (compact) bone of frog
(4) Both (2) & (3) (2) Nuclei at different level, appears multilayered
24. Pseudo-unipolar neurons are found in (3) Found in lining of trachea and large bronchi
(1) Retina of eye (4) Shorter cells are ciliated and longer cells lack
cilia
(2) Brain and spinal cord
(3) Dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord 32. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. types of gland
based on mode of secretion
(4) Early embryos
(1) Axillary sweat gland - Apocrine
25. Z line (Krause’s membrane) has only actin
filaments and is bounded by (2) Sebaceous gland - Holocrine
(1) Isotropic band on both sides (3) Pancreas - Merocrine
(2) Anisotropic band on both sides (4) Mammary gland - Eccrine
(3) Isotropic band on one side and anisotropic 33. Which of the following statement is correct with
band on other sides reference to cockroach eye?
(4) H band on both sides (1) Both eyes together consist of about 2000
26. Superposition image can be formed in cockroach hexagonal ommatidia
under which condition?
(2) Its vision has more sensitivity but less
(1) Dark light resolution
(2) When pigment sheath present (3) Mosaic vision is not found due to diurnal habit
(3) Nearer object (4) Compound eyes are situated at vertex region
(4) If pigment sheath of ommatidia are destroyed of head
34. Mark the correct statement 40. Which of the following bone is/are formed by the
replacement of cartilage?
(1) Nucleus pulposus is supposed to be remnant
of notochord present between two intervertebral (1) Humerus (2) Scapula
discs
(3) Femur (4) All of these
(2) Clavicle is formed by ossification of cartilage
41. Which statement is correct w.r.t. single unit
i.e., endochondrial bone
smooth muscles?
(3) Spongy bone is also called cancellous bone
a. These have number of muscle fibres joined
found in epiphysis of long bone
together closely
(4) If the bone is put in KOH solution, the bone
b. These have number of muscle fibres not so
becomes decalcified
closely joined
35. Z-line or Krauze membrane is a dark membrane
which c. All the fibres contract together as a single unit
(1) Bisects the anisotrophic band d. The individual fibres contract as separate units
more or less as independent muscle fibre
(2) Bisects the isotrophic band
(1) a only (2) b & c
(3) Bisects anisotrophic and isotrophic band
(3) b & d (4) a & c
(4) Bisects the H-zone
36. In PNS, myelin sheath is formed by spiral wrapping
of (1) The axon terminals may form synapses with
dendrite terminals, cell bodies or even axons of
(1) Schwann cells other neurons
(2) Process of oligodendrocytes
(2) Nissl bodies are absent in axon and axonal
(3) Microglia hillock
(4) Astrocytes (3) Nervous tissue is made of neurons and
neuroglia cells
37. Pseudostratified nonciliated columnar epithelium
tissue is found in (4) The neurotransmitter is always released from
dendrite part of a neuron
(1) Urethra of male
(2) Linning of trachea 43. Neurons which connect the central nervous system
to the receptors are
(3) Epididymis
(1) Sensory neurons
(4) Proximal tubules of kidney
(2) Motor neurons
38. Which of the following is incorrect?
(3) Interneurons
(1) White adipose tissue - Adipocytes with single
(4) Both (2) & (3)
large fat droplet
(2) Areolar tissue - Loose connective cockroach?
tissue
(1) Head of cockroach is hypognathus and is
(3) Fibroblasts cell - Synthesis of collagen formed by the fusion of six segments
(4) Dense connective - Bone, cartilage, lymph (2) A pair of wings which arise from mesothorax
tissue are thick and leathery
39. Eustachian tube, epiglottis and pinna of ear
(3) Body of cockroach is covered with a thick,
consist of
hard, chitinous cuticle
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage
(4) The 9th segment of male and female cockroach
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) All of these bear anal style
45. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. (3) They form the wall of ootheca
cockroach?
(4) They are gonapophysis and act as ovipositor
(1) Midgut is short, tubular lined with glandular
50. The epithelium shown in the following figure is
endoderm
_________. They are mainly present in the inner
(2) Blood of cockroach is colourless surface of hollow organs like _________
(3) Nephrocytes present in lateral wall of heart
help in excretion and storage nitrogenous
waste
(4) The middle layer of spermatophore is secreted
by phallic gland
46. Sheets of cells are formed from which type of cell
junctions?
(1) Tight junctions
(1) Ciliated cuboidal, neck of nephron
(2) Anchoring junctions
(2) Ciliated columnar, trachea, loop of Henle
(3) Communication junctions
(3) Ciliated columnar, bronchioles and fallopian
(4) Desmosomes tubes
47. The peritoneum of the body cavity is lined with (4) Pseudostratified trachea columnar, trachea and
which epithelium? large bronchi
(1) Columnar epithelium 51. Periplaneta can move on smooth surface with the
(2) Cuboidal epithelium help of
(3) Squamous epithelium (1) Claws
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium (2) Arolium and plantulae
48. Which of the following is not correct statement (3) Elytra

regarding epithelial tissue? (4) Tegmina and plantulae
(1) They are arranged very close to each other 52. Which of the following statement is not true w.r.t
with very little extracellular substance and are Periplaneta?
held together by cell junctions
(1) The gizzard part of alimentary canal has an
(2) There is no blood vessel supplying to the outer layer of thick longitudinal muscles and
epithelial cells inner thin cuticle forming six highly chitinous
(3) They rest on a noncellular basement plates called teeth
membrane (2) The hindgut is broader than midgut and is
(4) They have no nerve supply differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum
49. What is the function of the structure marked ‘A’ in (3) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still
the following diagram live for as long as one week
(4) Each Malpighian tubule is lined by glandular
and ciliated cells. These are located at the
!
" junction between midgut and hindgut
*
# 53. Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres
$%& loosely arranged in a semifluid ground substance.
' Which of the following can be taken as an example
) ( of it?
(1) Contain a chain of developing ova (1) Areolar tissue (2) Cartilage
(2) Sperms transferred by males are stored here (3) Adipose tissue (4) Both (1) & (3)
54. Ground substance of cartilage consist of (1) Utricular gland

proteoglycans, some lipid, collagen. The (2) Spermathecae
carbohydrates are glycosaminoglycans and include
(3) Ampulla part of spermathecae
(1) Chondroitin sulphate (2) Hyaluronic acid
(4) Collaterial gland
(3) Keratan sulphate (4) All of these
62. Which of the following cells are involved in the
55. The slender, thin and the longest part of the leg of formation of myelin sheath around the axon that lie
cockroach is in brain?
(1) Coxa (2) Femur (1) Neurolemmocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes
(3) Tibia (4) Pretarsus (3) Schwann's cells (4) Astrocytes
56. Which of the following is produced backward into 63. Which type of neuron dominates in the CNS?
two large oval apical lobes or gynovalvular plates in
female cockroach? The latter enclose a large cavity (1) Sensory (2) Motor
known as oothecal chamber (3) Efferent (4) Interneurons
(1) 10th tergum (2) 9th sternum 64. The type of neuron having only two processes, an
(3) 9th tergum (4) 7th sternum axon at one end and a dendrite at other end, found
in cohlear and vestibular ganglia are
57. Which of the following statement is not true w.r.t.
Periplaneta? (1) Pseudounipolar (2) Unipolar
(1) A peritrophic membrane is formed around the (3) Bipolar (4) Multipolar
food in the midgut 65. Which of the following cells are mesodermal in
(2) Six thick longitudinal folds or rectal papillae are origin, probably derived from the monocytes that
present in the rectum part invade the brain during foetal life?
(3) The peritrophic membrane is impermeable to (1) Fibrous astrocytes

digestive enzymes and digested food (2) Protoplasmic astrocytes
(4) Mesenteron part of alimentary canal is not lined (3) Microglia cells
by cuticle
(4) Ependymal cells
58. In cockroach 10 pairs of spiracles or stigmata are
present. The 5th pair will be present in 66. Which of the following part of the neuron is the
most sensitive part or also called triggering zone of
(1) 5th abdominal segment it?
(2) Between 5th and 6th abdominal segment (1) Dendrite (2) Axonal hillock
(3) Between 4th and 5th abdominal segment (3) Terminal arborization (4) Telodendria
(4) Between 3rd and 4th abdominal segment 67. Which of the following type of muscle does not
59. Which of the following act as excretory structures have any regneration capacity?
in male cockroach only but not in female (1) Red skeletal muscle
cockroach?
(2) White skeletal muscle
(1) Fat body (2) Pericardial cells
(3) Smooth muscle
(3) Cuticle (4) Uricose glands
(4) Cardiac muscle
60. Which of the following part of the male reproductive
system of cockroach is meant for providing 68. Which of the following zone of sarcomere will show
nourishment to the sperms? the presence of only myosin filament during
relaxed condition?
(1) Utriculi majores (2) Utriculi breviores
(1) Anisotropic band (A-band)
(3) Conglobate glands (4) Phallomeres
(2) Isotropic band (I-band)
61. The secretion of which of the following gland is
(3) O-band
involved in the formation of oothecal case of the
ootheca in cockroach? (4) H-line
69. T.S. of skeletal muscle shows each fasciculus 75. The type of glands in which the entire glandular cell
surrounded by a layer of connective tissue known when filled with secretory products, is discharged
as as a part of secretion is
(1) Endomysium (2) Perimysium (1) Merocrine (2) Holocrine
(3) Epimysium (4) Tunica fibrosa (3) Eccrine (4) Apocrine
70. Which of the following character will not be 76. Axillary sweat gland in the human is of ______
applicable to red skeletal muscle fibre when type on the basis of their structure
compared to white? (1) Simple straight tubular
(1) Smaller in diameter (2) Simple coiled tubular
(2) More mitochondria (3) Simple branched tubular
(3) More blood capillaries (4) Compound branched tubular
(4) More developed sarcoplasmic reticulum 77. Which of the following character can't be attributed
71. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to to stereocilia?
thin filaments of a sarcomere? (1) Basal granules are absent
(1) Found in both A and I bands (2) May be covered by a coat of glycocalyx
(2) More numerous than thick filaments (3) Cylindrical
(3) Free at both ends (4) Having 9 + 2 ultrastructure
(4) Cross bridges absent, hence have smooth 78. Alimentary canal of cockroach consists of different
surface parts. Which of their parts is lined internally by the
72. Which of the following character will not be continuation of exoskeleton?
applicable to the reticular fibres of the connective (1) Stomodaeum only (2) Proctodaeum only
tissue?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Mesenteron
(1) Occur singly
79. Following are the organ which involve in excretion
(2) Branched and form network in different arthropods. Mark the correct choice
w.r.t. structure present in a female cockroach
(3) Tough and non-elastic
a. Malpighian tubule b. Antennary gland
(4) White fibres
c. Nephrocytes d. Fat body
73. Which of the following statement is not applicable
to the structure of cartilage? e. Uricose gland
(1) Free surface of hyaline cartilage is covered by (1) a, c & d only (2) a, c, d & e only
a fibrous cover called the perichondrium (3) a, d & e only (4) a, b, c, d & e
(2) Chondrocytes are metabolically more active 80. Mark the connective tissue which is without fibres
than chondroblasts and matrix is not secreted by its cellular
(3) The growth of cartilage always unidirectional component
(4) Hyaline cartilage forms the embryonic skeleton (1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue
in bony vertebrates (3) Blood (4) Cartilage
74. Which of the following is the strongest cartilage 81. Mark the incorrect match
and is found in the intervertebral disc and pubic
(1) White fibrous cartilage – Strongest cartilage
symphysis?
(2) Calcified cartilage – Hard and inelastic
(1) Hyaline cartilage
cartilage
(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage – Most prevalent
(3) Elastic cartilage cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage (4) Yellow elastic cartilage – Less flexible
82. Following are the correct statements w.r.t. brown 89. Cells responsible for repairing of damaged area of
fat except one. Mark the except one nervous tissue are
(1) Brown fat is multilocular (1) Oligodendrocytes (2) Astrocytes
(2) Brown colour is due to presence of iron (3) Ependymal cells (4) Microglial cells
containing cytochrome pigment 90. Mark the incorrect statement
(3) Loaded with less number of mitochondria (1) Ligamenta flava connect two adjacent vertebrae
(4) Found in newborn human babies and and is made up of yellow elastic connective
hibernating mammals tissue
83. Cells of epithelium is placed upon (2) Brown fat gives 20 times more energy because
brown fat cells are loaded with a large number
(1) Reticular lamina of basement membrane of mitochondria
(2) Basal lamina of basement membrane (3) Chondroblast are metabolically more active
(3) Lamina propria cells than chondrocytes
(4) Fibrous lamina (4) Growth of cartilage is always bi-directional
84. Select the correct match 91. What would happen if juvenile hormone is given to
larva of insect during last moulting?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Larva will moult into adult
a. Ciliated epithelium (i) Protection
(2) Larva will moult into pupa
b. Compound epithelium (ii) Secretion and
(3) Larva will develop into giant larva
absorption
(4) Larva will develop into underdeveloped larva
c. Columnar epithelium (iii) To maintain a flow
of mucus or liquid 92. Thoracic segment of cockroach is covered by
in one direction _______ on dorsal side.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (1) Three notum
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) Three sternites
85. Areolar tissue contains secretory cells which (3) Three pairs of pleurites
secrete the fibres and other components of matrix.
Such cells are (4) Three pleurites
(1) Fibroblasts 93. When the secretory granules leave the cell by
diffusion with no loss of any cellular part, the
(2) Macrophages glands are called
(3) Mast cells
(1) Holocrine (2) Merocrine
(4) Fibrocytes
(3) Apocrine (4) Sebaceous glands
86. Neuroglia make more than __________ the volume
of neural tissue in our body. 94. Mark the correct match
(1) 10% (2) 50% (a) Connective tissue – mesoderm – contraction

and movement
(3) 25% (4) 20%
(b) Muscular tissue – ectoderm – contraction and
87. Which among the following is a part of the antenna movement
of Periplaneta americana?
(c) Nervous tissue – ectoderm – conduction and
(1) Coxa (2) Trochanter control
(3) Glossa (4) Scape
(d) Connective tissue – mesoderm – support,
88. Larva of frog is binding, storage
(1) Ureotelic (2) Herbivorous (1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Carnivorous (4) Uricotelic (3) (c) & (d) (4) (c) only
95. Columnar epithelium is characterised by the (1) Axon terminals only (2) Dendrites
presence of polygonal columns of cells. It occurs in
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Myelin sheath
(1) Inner lining of intestine
102. Multipolar neurons are found in
(2) Inner lining of stomach (1) Early embryo
(3) Inner lining of gall bladder (2) Retina of eye
(4) All of these (3) Olfactory epithelium
96. Inner lining of some parts of the urethra of males (4) Adult brain and spinal cord
and parotid salivary glands is an example of
103. Myelin sheath is formed by the spiral wrapping of
(1) Ciliated epithelium Schwann cell membranes around the axon. This
(2) Pseudostratified non-ciliated columnar sheath is absent at certain points called
epithelium (1) Projections of Ranvier
(3) Columnar epithelium (2) Ampulla of Lorenzini
(4) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Nodes of Ranvier
97. Compact bone is composed of many parallel (4) Ampulla of Vater
longitudinal column like structures called Haversian
104. Microglial cells are small in size and phagocytic in
canals. These canals are interconnected by
nature and are
transverse canals called
(1) Ectodermal in origin
(1) Trabeculae
(2) Mesodermal in origin
(2) Canaliculi
(3) Endodermal in origin
(3) Volksmann canals
(4) Endomesodermal in origin
(4) Ring canals
105. Neurons which are present between the sensory
98. Suprascapula of the pectoral girdle of frog is an and motor neurons are called
example of
(1) Interneurons (2) Connectors
(1) Calcified cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Adjustors (4) All of these
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Nucleus pulposus
106. Mark the incorrect statement
99. Serum albumin, globulins and fibrinogen, the three
plasma proteins are major classes of proteins of (1) Malpighian tubules of cockroach help in
blood plasma. Which of the following is correct excretion
w.r.t. these proteins? (2) Fat bodies of cockroach do not help in
(1) They serve as source of proteins for tissue excretion
cells (3) Nephrocytes help in excretion
(2) They retain water in blood plasma (4) Cockroach has 13 chambered tubular and
(3) They help in transport of hormones dorsal heart
(4) All of these 107. Match the following
100. Bones which are formed by ossification of the Column-I Column-II

tendons are called sesamoid bones. Which of the a. Prothoracic glands (i) Spermatophore wall
following is an example of sesamoid bone?
b. Corpora allata (ii) Juvenile hormone
(1) Humerus (2) Patella
c. Conglobate gland (iii) Ecdysone hormone
(3) Clavicle (4) Skull bone
d. Collaterial gland (iv) Ootheca
101. Nerve impulses pass between the neurons at the
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
synapses with the help of neurotransmitters such
as acetylcholine which are secreted by (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
108. Which of the following is not a part of the leg of 113. Gelatinous marrow is
cockroach?
(1) Red bone marrow in epiphyses of long bones
(1) Coxa (2) Trochanter
(2) Yellow bone marrow in shaft of long bones
(3) Tibia (4) Pleuron
(3) Red bone marrow in the vertebrae, sternum and
109. Which of the following epithelium covers the dry ribs at the age of 20-25 years
surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal (4) Red bone marrow in cranial bones that
cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary undergoes degeneration in old age
glands and of pancreatic ducts?
114. In male cockroach, anal styles arise from
(1) Pseudostratified epithelium
(1) 7th abdominal segment
(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium
(4) 4th & 5th abdominal segment
110. Junctions between apical parts of the adjacent
epithelial cells which get fused to check the flow 115. Match the following
or leakage of material are known as Column-I Column-II
(1) Gap junctions (2) Tight junctions a. Tentorium (i) Arthrodial membrane
between 5th and 6th
(3) Macula adherens (4) Zonula adherens
abdominal terga
111. Match the following
b. Oenocytes (ii) Accessory excretory
Column-I Column-II structures
a. Brush bordered (i) Cornea of eye c. Stink glands (iii) Endoskeleton of head
cuboidal epithelium
d. Uricose glands (iv) Regulation of
b. Pseudostratified (ii) Mammary glands, metabolism at the
columnar ciliated Salivary glands time of ecdysis
epithelium
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
c. Non-keratinised (iii) PCT
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
stratified squamous
epithelium 116. Mark the statement that is incorrect for central
nervous system of cockroach
d. Myoepithelium (iv) Trachea and large
bronchi (1) In the head region, the brain is represented by
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) supraesophageal ganglia which supply nerves
to antennae and compound eyes
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) If the head of the cockroach is cut off, it will
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) die immediately as the head holds a large part
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) of the nervous system
112. Which of the following is an example of loose (3) The sub oesophageal ganglion supplies nerves
connective tissues having cells and fibres loosely to labium, maxilla and mandibles
arranged in a semifluid ground substance and (4) Double ventral nerve cord of cockroach contains
present beneath skin, often serving as support three thoracic and six abdominal ganglia
framework for epithelium?
117. Which type of junctions allow the spread of
(1) Fibrous connective tissue
electrical and chemical signals between adjacent
(2) Areolar connective tissue cells?
(3) Adipose connective tissue (1) Gap junctions (2) Tight junctions
(4) Mucoid connective tissue (3) Desmosomes (4) Hemidesmosomes
118. The types of cells present in various connective 122. Match the following
tissues depend on the type of tissues. Which
Column I Column II
category of cells are present in all connective
tissues and are called principal connective tissue a. Squamous (i) Protection against
cells? epithelium chemical and
mechanical
(1) Macrophages (2) Mast cells
stresses
(3) Fibroblasts (4) Plasma cells
b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Movement of
119. Find the incorrect statement particles in a
(1) The lower part of truncus arteriosus is called specific direction
pylangium c. Compound (iii) Formation of
(2) Phallic gland secretions make the outermost epithelium diffusion boundary
layer of spermatophore in cockroach d. Ciliated epithelium (iv) Secretion and
(3) Prothoracic gland degenerates after absorption
metamorphosis in insects (1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Cockroach’s respiratory system is highly (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
efficient as its blood has high oxygen affinity
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
120. Periplaneta is a common household pest.
Anatomical study shows that all of the following (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
are correct w.r.t. its structure and functions except 123. Find the incorrect combination w.r.t. type of tissue
one. Mark the odd one and related region where it exists.
(1) Ommatidia – Completely (1) White fibrous – Tendons,
covered by iris and connective tissue duramater
retinular pigmented
sheath and form (2) White fibrous – Pubic symphysis,
apposition image cartilage intervertebral disc
(2) Corpora allata – Secrete ‘Juvenile (3) Yellow fibrous – Ligament, Wall of
hormone’ that connective tissue blood vessels
regulates growth (4) Yellow fibrous cartilage – Nasal septum,
and Part of larynx
metamorphosis
124. Parotid salivary glands, Cowper’s glands and
(3) Tergo-sternal muscles – When they Bartholin’s glands are examples of
contract, air is
expired out (1) Branched alveolar glands
(4) Mushroom gland – Secretes highly (2) Compound tubulo alveolar glands
viscous fluid that (3) Coiled tubular glands
forms oothecal
case in females (4) Simple alveolar glands
121. Find out the wrongly matched pair 125. Digestive system of cockroach is not characterised
by
(1) Pavement – Lung alveoli and
epithelium endothelium membrane (1) A muscular gizzard provided with six cuticular
of blood vessels teeth in armarium
(2) Merocrine glands – Pancreas and salivary (2) Presence of twenty blind glandular hepatic
glands caecae at posterior end of mesenteron
(3) White adipose – Blubber of whale and (3) Presence of six rectal papillae helping in
hump tissue of camel absorption of water and salts
(4) Elastic cartilage – Nasal septum and all (4) Presence of cuticular lining in foregut and hind
laryngeal cartilages gut
126. The tergo-sternal muscles and abdominal muscles 131. Intervertebral disc is made up of
responsible for respiration in cockroach start
(1) Elastic cartilage
contracting under the stimulus of
(2) Fibrous cartilage
(1) High level of CO2 in abdominal cavity
(3) Calcified cartilage
(2) Withdrawal of tracheolar fluid from tracheoles
(4) Hyaline cartilage
(3) High content of O2 available in air
132. Neurilemma is the name for
(4) More availability of respiratory pigment in
haemocoel (1) Plasma membrane of axon
127. Following are four statements A to D. Choose the (2) Coating formed by myelin sheath
option which includes a set of correct statements (3) Covering formed by Schwann cells
A. In Periplaneta, males bear a pair of short, (4) Connective tissue covering of nerve fasciculus
thread like anal styles which are absent in
females 133. One pair of anal styles arises from which segment
of the abdomen of cockroach?
B. In both sexes of Periplaneta, the 10th segment
bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures (1) 9th segment of male
called anal cerci (2) 9th segment of female
C. In cockroach mesothoracic wings (fore wings) (3) 10th segment of male
are transparent, membranous and are used in
(4) 10th segment of both male and female
flight
134. In the following figure of loose connective tissue
D. In female cockroach, there is a pair of
mushroom glands #
Options:
"
(1) A & C (2) B & C
!
(3) A & B (4) C & D
128. Which of the following provides structural and
functional link between the individual cells in $
epithelial tissues?
Which the following labelled cells can release
(1) Extracellular fluid which binds the various cells heparin and histamine?
in the tissue together
(1) A
(2) Cell junctions
(2) B
(3) Connective tissue
(3) C
(4) Basement membrane
(4) D
129. The part of cockroach’s eye which is comparable
135. Which of the following is mismatched?
to the retina of vertebrate’s eye is
(1) Squamous epithelium : Walls of blood
(1) Rhabdome (2) Crystalline cone
capillaries and alveoli
(3) Corneal facet (4) Pigmented sheath of lungs
130. An example of merocrine gland is (2) Cuboidal epithelium : Tubular part of
nephrons
(1) Axillary sweat gland
(3) Ciliated epithelium : Bronchioles, fallopian
(2) Salivary gland
tubes
(3) Mammary gland
(4) Columnar epithelium : Walls of blood
(4) Sebaceous gland vessels
136. The following figures ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent two types 138. The following diagram shows blood vascular system
of connective tissue. Select the correct statement of cockroach with certain labelled parts a, b, & c.
regarding both of these. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
regarding this system?
!
(a) (b)
"
(1) In (a) matrix occurs in a homogenous mass

and in (b) matrix occurs in concentric lamellae
(2) In (a) lacunae are absent but present in (b) #
(3) The intercellular material in (a) is solid and
pliable whereas that of (b) is hard and non-
pliable
A. The blood vascular system of cockroach is of
(4) In (a) growth is bidirectional and in (b) growth open type with well developed blood vessels
is unidirectional which open into space (haemocoel).
137. Which of the following cellular elements of human B. The haemolymph is composed of colourless
blood are correctly matched with their description? plasma and haemocytes.
a. – N o n -n u c l e a t e d , C. The labelled part ‘a’ represents anterior aorta
biconcave and emerging from first chamber of heart of
circular. Measure 7-8 cockroach.
m in diameter and 2
m thickness near D. The labelled part ‘b’ are 12 in number.
rim. Spleen acts as E. The labelled part ‘c’ represents chambers of
a reservoir of it. heart bearing ostia on either side.
b. – Occur only in (1) E only
mammals, Nucleus
absent. These are (2) B & C
fragments which (3) A & D
form as buds and
(4) All of the above statements are correct
pinch off from
certain large cells 139. Consider the following statements A, B, C & D with
called certain blanks. Find the option which correctly fills
megakaryocytes in up these blanks
bone marrow.
A. The ootheca of cockroach is dark reddish to
c. – Colourless, blackish brown capsule about !!!!"#$!!!! long.
nucleated and
motile cells of B. The development of P.americana is !!!!"##$!!!! ,
blood. They meaning there is development through
regularly leave the !!!!"###$!!!! stage.
blood through walls
C. In the head region of cockroach, the brain is
of capillaries and
enter into the represented by !!!!"#$%!!!! ganglion, which
connective tissue. supplies nerves to antennae and !!!!"#$!!!! .
Shape of nucleus
D. The respiratory system of cockroach consists
vary among them.
of a network of trachea, that opens through
(1) a, b & c (2) a & c !!!!"#$%!!!! of small holes called spiracles
(3) a & b (4) c only present on the !!!!"#$$%!!!! side of the body.
(1) A – (i) 3 mm 142. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of

B – (ii) Paurometabolous alimentary canal of cockroach.
(iii) Nymphal
C – (iv) Supra-oesophageal
(v) Compound eyes !
(2) B – (ii) Paurometabolous #
(iii) Nymphal "
C – (iv) Supra-oesophageal
(v) Wings $
D – (vi) 10 pairs
(vii) Lateral Choose the option which is not correct w.r.t. the
(3) A – (i) 8 mm function of labelled structure A, B, C and D
C – (iv) Sub-oesophageal (1) Oesophagus opens into a sac like structure
labelled as A used for storing of food.
(v) Compound eyes
(2) B helps in grinding of food because it have an
D – (vi) 10 pairs
outer thick cuticular layer and inner muscular
(vii) Dorsal layer.
(4) A – (i) 8 mm (3) C is present at the junction of foregut and
B – (ii) Paurometabolous midgut and secretes digestive juice.
(iii) Nymphal (4) D helps in removal of excretory product from

haemolymph.
D – (vi) 10 pairs
143. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a
(vii) Lateral
network of trachea, that opens through % of
140. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a
glandular tissue small holes called ! present on &
side of body
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks
labelled as A, B and C
!
Blank A Blank B Blank C
(1) 10 pairs Spiracles Dorsal
Identify the structure labelled as ‘A’ and choose the (2) 8 pairs Stigmata Lateral
correct option w.r.t. its example. (3) 10 pairs Spiracles Lateral
(1) Gastric gland (2) Goblet cells (4) 8 pairs Spiracles Ventral
(3) Oxyntic cells (4) Sebaceous gland 144. Give below are two series A and B
Series A – Maxilla, mandible, labrum, antenna
141. Which of the following is not a correct statement
for neuroglial cell? Series B – Blood, bone, tendon, ependyma
(1) Neuroglial makes up more than one half the Choose the correct option which includes one odd
volume of neural tissue in our body one structure in series A and B
Series A Series B
(2) It protects and supports the neurons.
(1) Maxilla Bone
(3) When this cell is suitably stimulated, an
electrical disturbance is generated which (2) Mandible Blood
swiftly travels along its plasma membrane. (3) Antenna Ependyma
(4) All the given options are correct. (4) Labrum Tendon
145. Which type of junctions in the epithelial tissues 152. Transitional Epithelium or Urothelium consists of 4 –
facilitate the cells to communicate with each other 6 layers of cells. Mark the statement that is
by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for incorrect about it
rapid transfer of ions or small molecules?
(1) The cells of its surface layer are large and
(1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions globular or umbrella shaped.
(3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes (2) There is no germinative layer or basement
membrane in it
146. Which of the following types of glial cells are
involved in the formation of myelin sheath in CNS? (3) The cells of its deepest layer are squamous in
(1) Oligodendrocytes (2) Astrocytes nature
(3) Neurolemmocytes (4) Schwann cells (4) This epithelium is found in renal calyces, renal
pelvis, parts of urethra etc
147. Which of the following structures is responsible for
the formation of middle layer of spermatophore in 153. If cells of a gland disintegrate completely to
Periplaneta? discharge their secretory products, the gland will
be known as ________ gland.
(1) Utriculi majores (2) Utriculi breviores
(1) Merocrine gland (2) Apocrine gland
(3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Conglobate gland
(3) Holocrine gland (4) Epicrine gland
148. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in
154. A compact bone is not known for possessing
(1) Proximal convoluted tubules
(1) Regularly arranged Haversian system
(2) Small intestine
(2) Yellow bone marrow that stores fat
(3) Lining of stomach
(3) Trabeculae and scattered bone marrow cavity
(4) Smaller ducts of pancreas
(4) A hard and compact texture
149. Which of the following statements is incorrect
w.r.t. cockroach? 155. During contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre, the
band that increases within a sarcomere is
(1) In both sexes, the 10th segment of abdomen
bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures (1) H band (2) A band
called anal cerci (3) I band (4) O band
(2) Hind wings are transparent and are used in 156. One amongst the following is not a property of
flight cardiac muscle fibres
(3) Gizzard has inner layer of thick circular (1) Their T-tubules occur at the level of Z-discs
muscles and thick outer layer of cuticle which
forms six chitinous plates called teeth (2) They are innervated by branches from cranial
and spinal nerves
(4) Haemolymph is composed of colourless
plasma and haemocytes (3) Striated in appearance
150. The joining of epithelial cells to basal lamina i.e., (4) Their refractory period is longest
outer layer of basement membrane, is brought 157. Non-neural cells of central nervous system that
about by form blood brain barrier is
(1) Gap junctions (2) Hemidesmosomes (1) Astrocytes (2) Microglia
(3) Tight junctions (4) Desmosomes (3) Oligodendrocytes (4) Ependyma
151. The glandular epithelium of stomach is of ______ 158. Bipolar neurons occur in all except one. Mark it
(1) Simple squamous type (1) Retina
(2) Simple columnar type (2) Taste buds
(3) Transitional type (3) Cristae and maculae
(4) Brush bordered cuboidal type (4) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves
159. Junction between two adjacent neurons is known 165. With respect to respiratory system of cockroach,
as one amongst the following statements is wrong
(1) Terminal arborisation (2) Synapse (1) First and second thoracic spiracles always
remain open
(3) Collateral (4) Bouton terminaux
(2) Tergo-sternal muscles bring about expiration of
160. Coordination, homeostasis and response to stimuli cockroach
is the function of
(3) Tracheal tubes are supported by chitinous rings
(1) Epithelial tissue called taenidia
(2) Muscular tissue (4) Respiratory pigment is not involved in transfer
of gases to tissues
(3) Connective tissue
166. In distal portion of a Malpighian tubule of
(4) Nervous tissue
cockroach
161. Muscle fibres that occur in small groups which are (1) Secretion of H2O, CO2, Na and K urates occur
innervated separately and contract independently
are found in all except one (2) Reabsortion of water and bicarbonates occur
(3) Reabsortion of uric acid occurs
(1) Skin
(4) Secretion of glucose occurs
(2) Iris
167. The nerves that innervate eyes and antenna of
(3) Walls of large blood vessels cockroach arise from
(4) In wall of uterus (1) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
162. Ventricular valve in heart of cockroach is (2) Suboesophageal ganglion
(1) The incurrent pore in the wall of a chamber of (3) Last abdominal ganglion
heart through which blood enters (4) Prothoracic ganglion
(2) The passage that connects one chamber of 168. The function of corneagen cells in an ommatidium
heart with another of cockroach is
(3) The valve that controls flow of blood from heart (1) To secrete crystalline cone
into aorta (2) To converge light on rhabdome
(4) Name of muscles attached with dorsal (3) To secrete cornea again after ecdysis
diaphragm and body wall
(4) To separate pieces of image
163. Digestive enzymes for digestion of carbohydrates,
169. Which one is a group of analogous organs of
proteins and lipids are mainly secreted by ______
earthworm, cockroach and frog respectively?
of cockroach
(1) Nephridia, malpighian tubules and uriniferous
(1) Crop tubules
(2) Midgut and Hepatic caecae (2) Chloragogen cells, fat bodies and nephridia
(3) Gizzard (3) Typhlosole, hepatic caecae and villi
(4) Salivary glands (4) Skin, nephrocytes, gills
164. Contraction of Alary muscles in cockroach brings 170. Which of the following is not a correct statement
about w.r.t. cockroach?
(1) During resting stage when O2 requirement is
(1) Release of blood from heart that enters head
less, tracheoles are filled with tissue fluid
sinus
(2) During active state, tracheolar fluid is withdrawn
(2) Movement of blood from perivisceral sinus to out of the tracheoles
perineural sinus
(3) There are 10 pairs of spiracles present on the
(3) Return of blood from perineural sinus to body
perivisceral sinus
(4) Haemolymph helps in transportation of
(4) Return of blood from perivisceral sinus to nutrients, waste products and respiratory
pericardial sinus gases within the body
171. All the following are made of a cartilage that 177. Which of the following statements is true?
contains clear, translucent matrix without fibres
(1) Endoneurium is a thin layer of connective
except
tissue and covers the neurilemma
(1) Costal cartilage
(2) Neurilemma is a thin layer of connective tissue
(2) Ear pinna and covers the endoneurium
(3) Articular cartilage (3) Each segment of the myelin sheath is formed
(4) Laryngeal thyroid cartilage by the astrocytes
172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. life cycle of (4) Interneurons are present in simple reflexes like
cockroach knee jerk reflex
(1) Paurometabolous development 178. The part of gut of the cockroach in which armarium
and stomodeal valves are present in
(2) Eggs are centrolecithal, macrolecithal and
cleidoic (1) Crop (2) Hepatic caeca
(3) The nymphs moult 13 times to reach adult (3) Gizzard (4) Ileum
stage
179. This epithelial tissue is found in ducts of glands
(4) Moulting is stimulated by ecdysone hormone and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys. Its main
secreted by corpora allata functions are secretion and absorption. Choose the
173. ________, a granulocyte, can be stained with basic correct option
dyes, contains S-shaped nucleus and has a (1) Simple epithelium
function similar to the ________ of connective
tissues? (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(1) Neutrophil, macrophages (3) Simple columnar epithelium
(2) Monocyte, histiocytes (4) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Basophil, mast cells 180. Which of the following glands release their
secretory substances by simple diffusion without
(4) Basophil, plasma cells
loss of any cellular material?
174. The smallest segment in the leg of cockroach is
(1) Holocrine like sebaceous glands
(1) Coxa
(2) Merocrine like sweat glands
(2) Trochanter
(3) Apocrine like mammary glands
(3) Femur
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Tibia
181. A cartilage, apparently fibreless and glass like but
175. Which of the following glial cells are of mesodermal
having transluscent matrix is found in all except
origin and are called phagocytic/scavanger cells of
brain? (1) Nasal septum (2) Laryngeal cartilages
(1) Oligodendrocytes (2) Macroglial cells (3) Articular cartilages (4) Eustachian tube
(3) Neurolemmocytes (4) Microglial cells 182. Which of the following is not a correct statement
176. When the blood is taken out, anticoagulants like w.r.t. fluid connective tissues?
sodium oxalate/sodium citrate can be added to (1) Myeloblasts give rise to all granulocytes
prevent blood clotting. These anticoagulants work
by (2) Basophils release heparin and histamine and
have a function similar to the mast cells
(1) Preventing action of blood clotting factor III
(3) Monocytes and neutrophils can squeeze out
(2) Preventing action of heparin through thin capillary walls
(3) Preventing action of blood clotting factor IV (4) Deficiency of iron (Fe2+) causes pernicious
(4) Promoting the action of heparin anaemia
183. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. nervous Which of the following is correct identification
tissues location and function of structure marked as ‘X’?
(1) Nissl’s granules are fragments of rough ER X Location Function
and are absent in dendrons and axon (1) Phallic gland 4th-6th Accessory
(2) Neurons are of 3 types – Sensory, motor and abdominal reproductive
mixed segment gland
(3) Astrocytes along with blood capillaries form (2) Mushroom 6th-7th Accessory
blood-brain barrier gland abdominal reproductive
segment gland
(4) Nodes of Ranvier are without myelin sheath
(3) Collaterial 6th abdominal Forms
and neurilemma
gland segment wall of
184. In cockroach, which type of symbiotic microbes spermato-
help in digestion of cellulose? phore
(1) Trichonympha (2) Lophomonas (4) Conglobate 6th abdominal Forms wall
gland segment of ootheca
(3) Eimeria (4) Giardia
187. Cockroach is
185. Following is a diagram of alimentary canal of
cockroach. (1) Ureotelic only
(2) In summer it is uricotelic while in rainy season
it is ureotelic
(3) Uricotelic only
(4) May be ureotelic or uricotelic depend upon the
food intake
188. Following is the diagram of mouth parts of
cockroach
!
"#$%&'
Which of the following is not a correct statement !

for the structure marked as X?
(1) These are structures at the junction of mid-gut " $
and ileum
#
(2) These help in the removal of excretory products
from haemolymph
(3) They are present at the junction of midgut and
hind-gut
(4) These are thin filamentous structures which ' %
secrete digestive juices into alimentary canal &
186. Following is a diagram of reproductive system of Which of the following labelled structures will help
male cockroach. in grinding and chewing of food?
(1) A & D (2) B & C
(3) A & C (4) D & E
! 189. In cockroach, the wings which are used in flight are
________
(1) Fore wings (2) Mesothoracic wings
(3) Tegmina (4) Hind wings
190. Following is the diagram of different types of 193. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. neural tissue
muscle tissue
(1) Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over
the body’s responsiveness
(2) Neurons, the unit of neural system are
excitable cells
A. B. C. (3) Neuroglia make up more than one half of the
volume of neural system in our body
(4) When a neuroglial is suitably stimulated a
Select the option which is correct identification of
chemical disturbance is generated which swiftly
muscle tissue and its location
travels along its plasma membrane
A B C 194. Which of the following epithelium is found in the
ducts of glands and tubular parts of the nephrons
(1) !"#$%"&' 0(11/.'()*&+,' 06,+,/"+'
()*&+,' %-'2"++'13' ()*&+,' in kidneys and its main functions are secretion and
%-'.,"#/ 4+11$'5,**,+* %-'"#( absorption?
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) !"#$#%&$ !'//%0+ 2&.3,&*
'()*$#+ '()*$#+ '()*$#+ (2) Cuboidal epithelium
,-+&.' ,-+%0,10 ,-+0#&.% (3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium
(3) !"#$#%&$ !'00%.+'()*$#+ 3&45,&*
'()*$#+ ,-+1&$$+02+ '()*$#+ 195. All the following statements are correct about
,-+%.,/. )%0'&*. ,-+.#&4% bones, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
(4) !"#$%"& 0'11/., 03+*+/"*, substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
'()&*+, '()&*+, '()&*+, fibres which give bone its strength
%-,.+"#/ %-,/.%2. %-,"#'
(2) Red bone marrow present in diaphysis is the
191. Which of the following structures are also site of production of blood cells
associated with excretion in cockroach?
(3) One osteocyte is present in one lacuna
(1) Fat bodies (2) Uricose glands
(4) Haversian canals contain nerves and blood
(3) Nephrocytes (4) All of these vessels
192. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the location of this 196. Cardiac muscle fibres are not known for
tissue (1) Maximum refractory period
(2) Aerobic breakdown of lactic acid
(3) Possessing calcium channels which remain
open for a longer period of time as compared
to any other muscle fibre
(4) Absence of light band and dark band
197. Which of the following characteristic is typical for
all kinds of compound epithelia?
a. Presence of basement membrane
(1) In ducts of glands b. Presence of germinativum layer of columnar
cells
(2) In tubular part of kidney
c. Multilayer of cells
(3) In the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes d. Basal layer of squamous cells
(4) In the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of (1) b & c (2) c only
lung (3) a, b & c (4) a & c
198. In the given diagram a, b, c and d are correctly Find the right marking and function performed by
represented as that part
! (1) A - Conglobate gland – Covering of sperm
" B - Spermatheca – Storage of sperm
# (2) A - Phallomere – Covering around egg
B - Titillator – Opening of spermatophore
$ (3) A - Vestibule – Place to store fertilized eggs
(1) Macrophage, fibroblast, collagen fibres, mast
B - Spermatophore – Storage of sperms
cells
(4) A - Collaterial gland – Form the wall of ootheca
(2) Adipocytes, fibroblast, collagen fibres, mast
cells B - Spermatheca – Storage of sperms in female
(3) Macrophage, fibroblast, collagen fibres, plasma 203. Match the following w.r.t. cockroach
cells
Column I Column II
(4) Plasma cells, fibroblast, collagen fibres, mast
cells a. Ovaries (i) 4th - 6th segment
199. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. cockroach b. Mushroom gland (ii) 2nd - 6th segment
(1) Haemolymph is composed of colourless c. Testis (iii) 14th - 16th segment
plasma and erythrocytes
d. Ootheca number (iv) 6th - 7th segment
(2) All the spiracles are always open in cockroach
(3) Haemolymph enters heart through ostia and is (v) 9 - 10
pumped from posterior to anterior direction (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Haemolymph has no role in transportation of (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
nutrients and metabolic wastes
204. All the following organs in mammals except one
200. Which of the following structures are common in
consists of a central medullary region surrounded
male and female cockroach?
by cortical region. Mark the wrong entry
(1) Anal cerci and anal style
(1) Ovary
(2) Anal style and gonapophysis
(2) Adrenal
(3) Anal cerci and elytra
(4) Anal style and brood pouch (3) Liver
201. Which one is a group of analogous organs of (4) Kidney
earthworm, cockroach and frog respectively?
205. Brood or genital pouch in female cockroach is
(1) Chloragogen cells, fat bodies, uriniferous made by
tubules
(1) 8th, 9th and 10th tergum
(2) Nephridia, chloragogen cells, uriniferous
tubules (2) 7th sternum only
(3) Typhlosole, Malpighian tubules, nephrocytes (3) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum
(4) Skin, nephrocytes, hepatic caecae. (4) 7th sternum, 8th and 9th tergum
202. Following is diagrammatic representation of female 206. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
reproductive system of cockroach.
cockroach?
(1) It is uricotelic
(2) The development is paurometabolous
! (3) Gizzard is used for storing food
" (4) Gizzard or proventriculus has six highly
chitinous plates called teeth
207. All the statement about Periplaneta americana are 213. The mushroom gland of cockroach is present in
correct but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) 6th – 7th abdominal segments
(1) It has mosaic vision with more sensitivity but
less resolution, being common during night
(3) 2nd – 6th abdominal segments
(2) It is paurometabolous
(3) It has dorsal nerve cord
214. The epithelium that covers the dry surface of skin,
(4) Sclerites are joined to each other by a thin and
the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner
flexible arthrodial membrane
lining of large ducts of salivary glands and of
208. Which of the following type of epithelium is pancreatic ducts is
sensory in nature and occurs in taste buds of
tongue? (1) More stretchable
(1) Simple squamous ciliated epithelium (2) Involved in formation of a diffusion barrier
(2) Simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium (3) Found in the walls of blood vessels also
(3) Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium (4) To provide protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses
(4) Neuroepithelium
215. Hormone responsible for maintaining larval life of
209. Ecdysone involved in metamorphosis of non- insects is
chordates is secreted by
(1) Ecdysone
(1) Corpora cardiaca
(2) Neotenin/Juvenile
(2) Prothoracic glands
(3) Growth hormone
(3) Corpora allata
(4) Bombykol
(4) Mehlis glands
216. Visual units that compose the compound eyes of
210. Total number of spiracles which are present in the
insects are called
abdominal region of cockroach
(1) Osphradia (2) Ommatidia
(1) Eight pairs
(3) Onchospheres (4) Odontophore
(2) One pair
217. Anal cerci of cockroach bear
(3) Two pairs
(4) Four pairs (1) Jhonston’s organs
211. Ecdysone is released from (2) Sound and vibration receptors
(1) Corpora allata and promotes moulting (3) Neuromast organs
(2) Prothoracic gland and inhibits moulting (4) Ampullae of lorenzini
(3) Prothoracic gland and promotes moulting 218. Zooflagellates are common in the gut fauna in
many animals. In termites and wood cockroaches
(4) Corpora allata and promotes juvenile they breakdown cellulose in wood, which these
characters
insects otherwise cannot digest. They are !"!
212. The gizzard of cockroach is
and !"! respectively. Which of the following option
(1) Followed by crop
correctly fills up the blanks?
(2) Having an outer layer of thick circular muscles
(1) A – Trichonympha B – Trichomonas
with six highly chitinous teeth on inside
(2) A – Lophomonas B – Trichomonas
(3) Provided with a ring of 6-8 blind tubules called
hepatic caecae (3) A – Trichonympha B – Lophomonas
(4) Present at the junction of midgut and hindgut (4) A – Trichonympha B – Noctiluca
219. Fusiform muscle fibres, that do not show striations 226. On the basis of mode of secretion, the sebaceous
and are involuntary will be found in glands are
(1) Limbs (1) Merocrine (2) Apocrine
(2) Wall of stomach (3) Holocrine (4) Eccrine
(3) Wall of heart 227. The mast cells produce the following secretions,
(4) Eyelids except
220. The epithelia that is commonly found in testis and (1) Heparin (2) Histamine
ovary is (3) Somatostatin (4) Serotonin
(1) Squamous
228. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. life cycle of
(2) Cuboidal cockroach
(3) Columnar (1) They have paurometabolous development
(4) Glandular (2) The female produces 9–10 oothecae, each
221. The specialized connective tissue in which fibres containing 14–16 eggs
are absent, is (3) The eggs are centrolecithal, microlecithal and
(1) Blood cleidoic
(2) Bone (4) The nymphs undergo 13 moultings to reach
(3) Cartilage adult stage
(4) All of these 229. The following are excretory structures in cockroach,
except
222. The brain of earthworm is represented by
(1) Nephrocytes (2) Urecose glands
(1) Corpora cardiaca
(3) Fat body (4) Conglobate gland
(2) Cerebral ganglion
230. Six highly chitinous plate like teeth are found in
(3) Sub oesophageal ganglia
_________ of cockroach
(4) Corpora allata
(1) Mandible
223. The night vision of cockroach is
(2) Gizzard
(1) More sensitivity but less resolution
(3) Maxilla
(2) Less sensitivity but more resolution
(4) Rectum
(3) Both sensitivity and resolution are high
231. Cavity of brain is lined by
(4) Both sensitivity and resolution are low
224. Choose the correct option, pairing the principal cell (1) Schwann cells
with the tissue (2) Oligodendrocytes
(1) Mast cell – Adipose tissue (3) Ependymal cells
(2) Fibroblasts – Areolar tissue (4) Astrocytes
(3) Macrophages – Tendon
232. If we scrap inner lining of buccal cavity with
(4) Chondroclasts – Bone sterlised forcep, what type of tissue is likely to be
225. Which of the following cells are not phagocytic? observed under microscope?
(1) Microglial cells (1) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(2) Kupffer cells (2) Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(3) Monocytes (3) Stratified columnar epithelium

(4) Macroglial cells (4) Simple squamous epithelium
233. Following is the diagrammatic representation of
SECTION - B
dense connective tissue, with irregular arrangement
of fibres
Mark the option in which this category does not
exist? 1. A : Malpighian tubules are homologous to
mammalian kidneys.
(1) Skin
R : Malpighian tubule helps in excretion by forming
(2) Perichondrium
urea.
(3) Tendons
2. A : Spongy bone consists of a network of thin and
(4) Periosteum irregularly longitudinal and transverse bony bars
called trabeculae covered by endosteum.
234. Which part of alimentary canal of cockroach is not
lined by cuticle? R : Spongy bone contains red bone marrow but it
(1) Stomodaeum is without Haversian system.
(2) Mesenteron 3. A : Cockroach is uricotelic.

R : In addition to malpighian tubules fat body,
(3) Hepatic caeca
nephrocytes and uricose glands also help in
(4) Both (2) & (3) excretion.
! 4. A : Three pairs of gonapophyses are present in

235. On an average female cockroach produces
male cockraoch.
number of ootheca, each containing ! eggs. R : Male gonopore is present on the right
% phallomere.
Wall of ootheca is made up of secreted by
! 5. A : Intercalated discs are specialized regions of
glands
cell membrane of two adjacent fibres.
(1) A – 9-10, B – 14-16, R : The intercalated disc function as boosters of
C – Scleroprotein, D – Collaterial contraction wave and permit the wave of
muscle contraction to be transmitted from one
(2) A – 7-9, B – 9-10,
cardiac fibre to another.
C – Chitin, D – Collaterial
6. A : The haversian canals, a characteristic feature
(3) A – 9-10, B – 14-16 of the mammalian bones, are present in the
matrix.
C – Cellulose D – Conglobate
R : Each haversian canal contains an artery, a
(4) A – 14-16, B – 9-10
vein, a lymph vessel, a nerve and some bone
C – Scleroprotein, D – Phallic cells, all packed in with connective tissue.
7. A : Insects can fly by the development of rapidly 13. A : Compound epithelium covers the surface where
acting flight muscles. constant wear and tear takes place.
R : The cuticle lined tracheae, carry oxygen
directly to cells and tissues in insects. R : It is mainly protective since composed of more
than one layers of cells.
8. A : Ecdysone hormone helps in growth.
R : For growth arthropods have to shed their 14. A : In cockroach, corpora allata secrete neotenin
chitinous covering by ecdysis. (JH) which retains the nymphal characters and
9. A : Respiration in insects is indirect. checks metamorphosis.
R : Tracheal tubes exchange O2/CO2 directly with R : When secretion of the juvenile hormone
the haemocoel which then exchange with decreases, it permits metamorphosis i.e.,
tissues.
appearance of the adult characters.
10. A : Nissl’s granules are found in dendrites and
cyton. 15. A : Nerve fibres of the brain and spinal cord do not
R : They are made of ribosomes, ER and m-RNA. regenerate after injury.
11. A : Metamorphosis in cockroach is regulated by R : There is no neurilemma inside the central
ecdysone and juvenile hormones. nervous system.
R : They are secreted by prothoracic gland and
16. A : A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is
corpora allata respectively.
present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments in
12. A : Desmosomes are also called adhering
male cockroach.
junctions.
R : They prevent the leakage of substances R : The external genitalia are represented by three
between them. phallomeres in male cockroach.
!" !" !
Chapter 2
Digestion and Absorption
(3) Subcutaneous fat is well preserved

SECTION - A
(4) Oedema is absent
6. Which of the following enzyme acts upon the
1. How many of the enzymes given below in block monoglycerides changing it into fatty acids and
belong to brush border enzymes? glycerol?
Maltase, Nucleosidase, Enterokinase, Amylopsin, (1) Steapsin (2) Trypsin
Steapsin, Nucleases, Erepsin, Carboxypeptidase,
Lactase, Aminopeptidase (3) Bile (4) Erepsin
(1) Six (2) Seven 7. Achlorhydria (lack of HCl secretion in stomach) or

gastrectomy can lead to
(3) Five (4) Four
(1) Indigestion of fat
2. Which of the following chemical substance is
absorbed by passive transport in intestine? (2) Iron deficiency anaemia
(1) Glucose (2) Galactose (3) Unable to digest lactose
(3) Amino acids (4) Fructose (4) Galactosemia
3. Select the symptoms of a disease in which diet of 8. Bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together
the patient must contain adequate proteins, fats into the duodenum as the common hepato-
and carbohydrates pancreatic duct which is guarded by a sphincter
called
(1) Subcutaneous fat is preserved
(1) Sphincter of Boyden
(2) Deficiency of proteins and calories
(2) Pyrolic sphincter
(3) Appetite is poor
(3) Sphincter of Oddi
(4) Enlarged fatty liver
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(1) Fangs are certain specialised teeth attached to
maxillary bones in poisonous snakes (1) Galactosemia is a metabolic genetic disorder
in which galactose is not metabolised into
(2) Niacin is also known as pellagra preventing
glucose
vitamin
(2) Sea faring fisherman sometimes eat raw fish
(3) Choleretic are substances which increases
from their catch. They suffer with paralysis due
secretion of HCl from stomach
to vitamin B1 deficiency
(4) Hormone villikinin is released from intestinal villi
(3) Some nutrients such as fructose and mannose
5. Kwashiorkar and Marasmus are disorders due to are absorbed from the intestine by facilitated
malnutrition. Which of the following is not a diffusion
character of Marasmus?
(4) If we drink sea water, Mg 2+ ions present will
(1) Common in infants under 1 year of age increase the solute concentration inside the
(2) Ribs become prominent cell, leading to excessive absorption
380 Digestion and Absorption Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s (1) Blood glucose level
milk which is white in colour but the stools which (2) Digestion of fat
the infant passes out are quite yellowish, due to
(3) Digestion of cellulose
(1) Undigested milk protein casein of milk
(4) No function will be affected as sufficient
(2) Bile pigments passed through bile juice of amount pancreatic juice is poured into
infant duodenum through duct of Santorini
(3) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum of infant 16. Mark the incorrect statement
(4) Mucus secreted by goblet cells of alimentary (1) Fructose, mannose and some amino acids are
canal of infant absorbed by facilitated diffusion
11. Mark the correct pair of food components in human (2) Various nutrients like amino acids, fatty acid,
which reach the stomach in undigested form monosaccharides like glucose, electrolytes like
Na+ are absorbed by active transport only
(1) Starch and Fat (2) Starch and Protein
(3) Fatty acid and glycerol are first incorporated
(3) Starch and Cellulose (4) Cellulose and Fat into small droplets called micelles which move
12. Oesophagus is a long, thin tube 25 cm long that into intestinal cell of mucosa
pierces through the diaphragm and enters the (4) Transport of water depends upon osmotic
abdominal cavity. Oesophagus is characterized by gradient
the following, except
17. Principal enzyme for digestion of fat is
(1) Absence of visceral peritoneum
(1) Steapsin (2) Amylopsin
(2) Absence of Auerbach’s and Meissner’s plexus (3) Intestinal lipase (4) Gastric lipase
i.e. presence of voluntary muscles through out
18. Which of the following hormone is secreted by
(3) Absence of digestive glands ‘Gastrointestinal Tract’ and is both, stimulatory and
(4) Presence of mucus secreting goblet cells inhibitory nature?
13. Mark the incorrect match (1) GIP (2) Gastrin

! !"#$%&'%( )*+,-$+.( /13#'( (3) Secretin (4) Duocrinin
/01%12-'%"#-"2(
19. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. deficiency diseases
!"#$ !"#$%$&'$( !""#$#%&'()*+),+ 3&(%#4.+),+
"$)*'$( ,))-+(*+)./)01&2#/++ "&4-(&"++ (1) Niacin – Pellagra
/01(*"'.4+')+
4.%&5+ (2) Cyanocobalamin – Pernicious anaemia
!%#$ 6.&4'+7#4*+ 8#4*(*2+/.*/&'()*+(*+ 9&4-(&"+
)./)01&2#/+ /01(*"'.4+ (3) Thymine – Beriberi
4.$&(*/+)0.*+
(4) Folic acid – Sprue
!&#$ :&%&"')/.$(&+ !""#$#%&'()*+),+ !7/.*".+),+
2&%)"')/.+%.&-(*2+')+ ;&"'&/.+ 20. In acute constipation purgatives containing
$.*'&%+4.'&4-&'()*+
magnesium salts are generally used;
!'#$ <%".4+ 94&'.4+%(=.+%./()*+)4+ 6?0.4+&"(-("+
.4)/()*+(*+$#")#/+ !/0(4(*@+ Mark the most appropriate reason
$.$74&*.+-.>.%)0/+ &%")1)%@+
(*+&%($.*'&4?+"&*&%+ .5".//(>.+ (a) Mg2+ ions are absorbed fast which facilitates
>&2#/+ water absorption from the intestine
/'($#%&'()*+
14. Which of the following is true w.r.t. dentition in (b) Mg2+ ions are absorbed slowly, which prevents
human? the water absorption from the intestine
(1) Thecodont, heterodont (c) Magnesium salts are easily available
(2) Heterodont, acrodont (d) Osmotic effect of Mg2+ ions rather draws water
from the blood to intestinal lumen by osmosis
(3) Thecodont, homodont and consequently stimulates intestinal
(4) Acrodont, bunodont peristalsis and evacuation of faeces
15. If the main pancreatic duct is blocked which of the (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
following function will be affected? (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Digestion and Absorption 381
21. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 2
(1) Bile produced from liver is rich in lipases
!"#$%&
3
(2) Alcholics are short of vitamin C '()*&+,-.(&
(3) Vitamins are essential for normal metabolism 1

growth and sound health !
(4) Excess of glucose, fructose and galactose are
usually stored in the liver and muscle cells
22. All the following conditions are observed in !")/.0"*
Marasmus, except
(i) The endocrine function of pancreas, secretion
(1) It is found in infants less than a year in age, of insulin and glucagon hormone will be
if the mothers milk is replaced too early by blocked
other foods which are poor in both proteins and
(ii) Exocrine function of pancreas will be blocked
caloric value
(iii) Contraction of gall bladder will cause pain
(2) The layer of fat beneath the skin disappears generally felt under the right scapular region
(3) Hands and other body parts show fluid (iv) The bile pigments will accumulate in the blood
accumulation (oedema) and swelling and cause obstructive jaundice
(4) Thinning of limbs and ribs become very (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
prominent (3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (iv) only
23. How many of the following statements are wrong? 25. Which of the following enzyme is not included in
a. The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open the secretions of the brush border cells of
mucosa?
together into the duodenum as the common
hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by (1) Maltase (2) Dipeptidase
sphincter of Boyden. (3) Nucleosidase (4) Carboxypeptidase
b. The parotid, sub-maxillary and sub-lingual 26. Out of the following digestive juices arrange them
salivary glands are located just outside the in the order of decreasing pH?
buccal cavity and secrete salivary juice into
a. Intestinal juice b. Saliva
the buccal cavity.
c. Hepatic bile d. Gastric juice
c. In duodenum, glands are only found in
(1) a, b, c, d (2) c, a, b, d
submucosa which are Brunner’s glands, a
type of simple branched tubular glands. (3) d, b, a, c (4) c, b, a, d
d. There is no modification of the four layers 27. The absorption of nutrients, like amino acids,
namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and occurs via co-transport channels, which couple with
mucosa in different parts of alimentary canal. the movement of Na +. Which of the following
statement is true for this type of co-transport?
e. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric
(1) In this both amino acids and Na+ move down
glands.
a electrochemical gradient
(1) One
(2) Both amino acids and Na + are absorbed
(2) Two against the electrochemical gradient
(3) Three (3) Amino acids are absorbed against the

electrochemical gradient and Na + moves
(4) Four towards the electrochemical gradient
24. The following diagram depicts the duct systems of (4) Amino acids move towards the electrochemical
liver, gall bladder and pancreas. What would happen gradient and Na+ against the electrochemical
if the duct A in the figure is blocked by gall stone? gradient
28. Why hands and feet get swollen with accumulated 34. All the following statements are correct but one is
fluid (oedema) in persons suffering from dietary wrong. Which one is wrong?
deficiency of proteins in kwashiorkor? (1) Avidin a protein of raw egg white inhibits
(1) Plasma proteins serve as a source of proteins intestinal absorption of biotin
for tissue cells (2) Vitamins A, C and E are anti-oxidants
(2) Albumin and globulins retain water in the blood (3) Fluorine maintains normal dental enamel and
plasma by their osmotic effects prevents dental caries
(3) Albumin and globulins transport many (4) Ameloblasts are mesodermal in origin and
substances such as thyroxine and Fe 3+ in secrete enamel
combination with them
35. Brunner's glands are
(4) Tissue cells utilise plasma proteins for forming
their cellular proteins (1) Simple tubular (2) Simple coiled tubular
29. Which of the following hormone is secreted from (3) Compound alveolar (4) Compound tubular
the intestinal mucosa and stimulates the release of 36. Taste buds for tasting chillies, black pepper and
enzymes in the pancreatic juice? hot sauces are present in
(1) Secretin (2) Cholecystokinin (1) Vallate papillae
(3) Enterocrinin (4) Duocrinin (2) Fungiform on the upper side
30. Which of the following hormone inhibits the (3) Filiform
secretion of gastric juice?
(4) No taste buds for chillies, black pepper and hot
(1) Enterogastrone (2) Secretin sauces
(3) Cholecystokinin (4) All of these 37. Which of the following is present in the saliva of all
mammals?
31. Constipation is a condition in which defecation
occurs only at prolonged intervals. It is irregular or (1) Mucin (2) Salivary amylase
inadequate defecation. Which of the following (3) Amylopsin (4) Diastase
condition is not responsible for constipation?
38. What is the gross energy value of proteins?
(1) Decreased colon motility
(1) 4.1 kcal/g (2) 5.65 kcal/g
(2) A diet containing too little fluid and fibre
(3) 9.45 kcal/g (4) 4.0 kcal/g
(3) Haemorrhoids
39. Salivary -amylase becomes inactive in the
(4) Too much absorption of water by colon stomach primarily due to
32. The microvilli participate in absorption and also in
(1) Degradation by gastric pepsin
digestion because a number of digestive enzymes
are embedded within the epithelial cells plasma (2) Inhibition by Cl–
membrane. Which of the following is not an brush- (3) Inhibition by peptides
bordered enzyme?
(4) Inactivation by low pH
(1) Lactase
40. Which of the following enzyme is not a
(2) Aminopeptidase disaccharidase?
(3) Carboxypeptidase (1) Sucrase (2) Lactase
(4) Erepsin
(3) Maltase (4) Dextrinase
33. Myenteric nerve plexus is located in
41. Crypts in between the bases of villi in the intestine
(1) Sub-mucosa are crypts of Lieberkuhn. Which of the following
(2) Muscularis mucosa cells in these crypts secrete digestive enzymes?
(3) Muscularis externa (1) Parietal cells (2) Paneth cells

(4) Mucosa (3) Zymogen cells (4) Argentaffin cells
42. All the following statement are correct but one is 48. Chymotrypsinogen and pro-carboxypeptidase of
wrong. Which one is wrong? pancreatic juice are activated by
(1) Liver is the largest gland of the body weighing (1) Enterokinase (2) Exopeptidase
about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult human (3) Trypsin (4) Enteropeptidase
(2) Liver is situated in the abdominal cavity, just 49. Which of the following type of cells are a part of
below the diaphragm and has two lobes the oxyntic tubular glands of stomach epithelium?
(3) If the concentration of plasma proteins is too (1) The parietal cells located in stomach's gastric
low as a result of liver disease such as pits
cirrhosis, fluid accumulates in the tissues, a
condition called oedema (2) The peptic cells which secrete a large quantity
of pepsinogen
(4) Liver produces most of the proteins found in
blood plasma such as , and -globulins (3) Goblet cells
43. Which of the following is not the correctly matched (4) All of these
pair of salivary gland and its secretory duct? 50. Sea-faring fisherman sometimes eat raw fish from
their catch. They suffer from
Salivary gland Secretory duct
(1) Paralysis due to vitamin B1 deficiency
(1) Parotid : Stensen's duct
(2) Hypercholesterolemia
(2) Sub-mandibular : Wharton's duct
(3) Pellagra
(3) Sub-lingual : Duct of Rivinus
(4) Obesity
(4) Sub-maxillary : Stensen's duct
51. Which of the following hormone acts on pancreas,
44. Cholic acid giving rise to bile salts is chemically
secretory cells and muscles of stomach? It
(1) Amino acid (2) Organic acid stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonates
in the bile and pancreatic juice and inhibits gastric
(3) Steroid (4) Fatty acid
motility
45. Micelle formation is necessary for the intestinal
(1) Enterogastrene
absorption of
(2) Gastric inhibitory peptide
(1) Glycerol (2) Galactose
(3) Gastrin
(3) Vitamin D (4) Bile pigments
(4) Secretin
46. One amongst the following is not associated with
pancreatic juice 52. The substrate of invertase enzyme is
(1) Amylopsin (2) Steapsin (1) Starch (2) Glucose
(3) Nucleases (4) Nucleotidase (3) Cane sugar (4) Maltose
47. Many human adults, especially senior citizens 53. A person is suffering from macrocytic/megaloblastic
cannot digest milk and results in intestinal cramps, anaemia. This anaemia can be due to degenerative
diarrhoea and flatulence because of action of
(1) Lactose intolerance which is due to deficiency (1) Chief cells (2) Oxyntic cells
of enzyme uridyl transferase (3) Peptic cells (4) Zymogen cells
(2) Many adult humans lose the ability to produce 54. Chylomicrons are protein coated small fat globules
the brush border enzyme lactase and therefore formed in
cannot digest milk sugar
(1) Lumen of intestine
(3) Undigested lactose in chyme retains fluid and
bacterial fermentation of lactose results in the (2) Lacteals of villi
production of gases (3) Cells of mucosa
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct (4) Blood vessels of villi
55. Which one of the following organ secretes brush 62. Tooth enamel is
border enzymes?
(1) Ectodermal, secreted by Ameloblast
(1) Pancreas (2) Stomach
(2) Mesodermal, secreted by Odontoblast
(3) Intestine (4) Buccal cavity
(3) Mesodermal, secreted by Ameloblast
56. Which of the following papillae do not contain taste
(4) Ectodermal, secreted by Odontoblast
buds in humans?
63. Mark the odd one with reference to its ability to
(1) Circumvallate (2) Foliate
digest proteins
(3) Filiform (4) Fungiform
(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin
57. Find the incorrect statement
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Carboxypeptidase
(1) Salivary amylase is contributed by all the
64. Dental formula of milk teeth in humans is
salivary glands, mainly by parotid glands
(2) Waldeyer’s ring consists of pharyngeal tonsils !"#! !#"!
(1) ! (2) !
and adenoid tonsils only !"#! !#"!
(3) Uvula closes the internal nares at the time of
!"#$ !"!$
swallowing of food (3) ! (4) !
!"#$ !"!$
(4) Maximum number of teeth amongst heterodont
mammals are found in pig and horse 65. Choose the correct sequence of digestion
!"#$%&'
58. The food in stomach is called (1) Protein Dipeptide !"#$%&'#()*+
(1) Bolus (2) Chyme !"#$%&%'(#)*&
oligopeptide Amino acid
(3) Chyle (4) Food vacuole
!"#$%
59. Physiologically, vitamin E is known to be (2) Thymidylic acid Thymidine + Pi
!"#$%&'()*+%
(1) Anti-inflammatory Thymine + Uridine
(2) A powerful antioxidant &"#$% "'()%*+,-.$%
(3) RNA Cytidylic acid
(3) An important coenzyme
!"#$%&'()*'%
Cytidine + Pi Cytosine +
(4) Anti-hypertensive factor
Ribose
60. Which statement is correct with reference to
chylomicron? !"#$%#$& !"#$%&'
(4) Triglyceride Diglyceride
(1) They are end products of fat digestion /+%.0$,1
Monoglyceride Fatty acid +
(2) The reconstructed triglycerides in the intestinal Glycerol
cells combine with phospholipids and
cholesterol and are released into lymph in the 66. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, _____,
form of protein coated fat droplets called secreted by the intestinal mucosa
chylomicrons
(1) Enterogastron (2) Enterokinase
(3) This is the form in which digested fats are
absorbed into intestinal cells (3) Carboxypeptidase (4) Erepsin
(4) These are short chains of fatty acids absorbed 67. Select the correct statement
directly into blood by diffusion
(1) The roof of buccal cavity is called palate
61. Following are enzymes present in the intestinal
juice. Which among these is considered as (2) Internal nares open into buccal cavity
non-digestive enzyme? (3) The transverse ridges called palatine rugae are
(1) Nucleotidase (2) Aminopeptidase 2 parts of soft palate
(3) Enterokinase (4) Lipase (4) Soft palate has bony support
68. Match the following disorders with their characters !"#$%& !"#$%&
(3) Triglycerides Diglycerides
Column I Column II Monoglycerides
!"#$%&'
a. Constipation (i) Abnormal frequency of bowel (4) Peptones / Proteoses Dipeptides
movement and increased !"#$%&'(")*$
Amino-acids
liquidity of the faecal
discharge 73. Which of the following is not a correctly matched
b. Indigestion (ii) A reflex action having feeling pair?
of nausea (1) Microcytic anaemia – Achlorhydria
c. Vomiting (iii) Faeces are retained within (2) Pernicious anaemia – Deficiency of
the rectum as the bowl
Castle’s intrinsic
movements occur irregularly
factor
d. Diarrhoea (iv) Feeling of fullness due to
anxiety, food poisoning and (3) Korsakoff’s syndrome – Deficiency of B1 in
over eating alcoholics
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) Megaloblastic anaemia – Deficiency of iron
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 74. Which of the following enzyme present in saliva
acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents
69. Identify the enzyme that causes curdling of milk
protein into calcium paracaesinate in acidic infection?
medium (1) Salivary amylase (2) Thiocyanate
(1) Rennin (2) Steapsin (3) Lysozyme (4) Chitinase
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Enterokinase
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic
70. Select the correct answer using codes given feature regarding protein energy malnutrition,
below marasmus?
Column-I Column-II (1) It is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of
a. Biotin (i) Ricket proteins and calories
b. Thiamine (ii) Pellagra (2) It is found in infant less than a year of age
c. Nicotinic acid (iii) Dermatitis (3) Patient shows wasting of muscles, thinning of
d. Calciferol (iv) Beri-beri limbs, failure of growth and brain development
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) Some fat is left under the skin of patient,
extensive oedema and swelling of body parts
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
are seen
71. Which of the following is not present in mucosa of
intestine? 76. Which amongst the following is not a component
of pancreatic juice?
(1) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(1) Sodium bicarbonate
(2) Brunner’s gland
(2) Procarboxypeptidase
(3) Intestinal gland
(3) Elastase
(4) All are present in mucosa of intestine
72. Which of the following is not a correct match of (4) Dextrinase
the substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the 77. Stomach is the site of absorption of
end product?
(1) Simple sugars
!"#$%&' !"#$"%&
(1) Starch Maltose Glucose
(2) Water
!"#$%&
(2) Protein Peptones / Proteoses (3) Alcohol
!"#$%&'()(*+,"-)
Dipeptides (4) All of these
78. A person consumed a poisonous substance 82. Which of the following is true about digestion and
against which digestive tract gave a vomiting absorption of food?
response. The centres responsible for this (1) Trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase
response possibly can be are brush border enzymes
(1) Myenteric plexus and medulla (2) The chemical process of digestion is initiated
(2) Medulla and Meissner’s plexus in the oral cavity. About 60% starch is
hydrolysed here by salivary amylase to form
(3) PNS maltose
(4) Auerbach’s plexus and Remaks plexus (3) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric
79. Study the following reactions involved in digestion juice of infants. Small amounts of lipases are
of food. also secreted by the gastric glands
!"#$%&'()(*+,"-)
(4) If breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive
A. !"#$%&"' (%#"#$%&"' food low in proteins and calories, the infants
below the age of one year will suffer from
!"#$%&'%'
B. !"#$%&#'(#&) !"#$%*+&)%, Kwashiorkar
."/*"-)
83. What will happen if bile duct gets blocked?
C. )*+$,'" -+./,'" -+./,'"
(1) Faeces become dry
!"#$%&'()*+%
D. !"#$%&'()%* !"#$%&*()%* (2) Acidic chyme will not be neutralised
(3) There will be little digestion in intestine
!"#$%&'()*'%
!"#$% & '$()(
(4) Little absorption of fats will occur
Mark the option which includes reactions not
84. Vitamin B12 is absorbed by the help of secretions
catalysed by brush bordered enzymes of which cells of stomach?
(1) A only (2) A & C (1) Goblet cells
(3) A & D (4) A & B (2) Parietal cells
80. All the given statements are correct except one (3) Peptic cells
choose the incorrect statement
(4) Chief cells
(1) Significant digestive activity occurs in large
intestine 85. Removal of stool from anus is called defaecation.
It is mainly a
(2) The activities of gastrointestinal tract are under
(1) Voluntary process
neural and hormonal control for proper
coordination of different parts (2) Involuntary process
(3) Fructose and some amino acids are absorbed (3) Reflex action
with the help of carrier ions like Na+ called as
(4) Provoked process
facilitated transport
86. When skin and eyes turn yellow, it is the symptom
(4) The egestion of faeces to the outside through of
the anal opening is a voluntary process and is
carried out by a mass peristaltic movement (1) Vomiting (2) Diarrhoea
81. Cholecystokinin is the secretion of (3) Jaundice (4) Constipation
(1) Duodenum that causes contraction of gall 87. Succus entericus is the term used for which of the
bladder following?
(2) Goblet cells of ileum, stimulates secretion of (1) A junction present between ileum and large
succus entericus intestine
(2) Foramen present in the heart
(3) Liver and controls bile synthesis
(3) Swelling in throat
(4) Stomach that stimulates pancreas to release
pancreatic juices (4) Intestinal juice
88. Match the Column I with Column II 96. In the man, teeth which grow at late adult stage
are called wisdom teeth. Their number is
Column I Column II
(1) 2 (2) 8
a. Bilirubin and (i) Sub-lingual
(3) 4 (4) 6
biliverdin
b. Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Bile pigments
(1) About 30% of starch is hydrolysed in the
c. Digestion of proteins (iii) Trypsin
buccal cavity
d. Salivary glands (iv) Amylase
(2) Small amounts of lipases are also secreted by
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) gastric glands
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) Chymotrypsinogen is activated by trypsin
89. Which of the following structures prevents the back (4) Brunner’s glands secrete enzymes and mucus
flow of faecal matter? 98. Which of the following sets represents the brush
(1) Cardiac sphincter (2) Pyloric sphincter border enzymes?
(3) Ileo-caecal valve (4) Sphincter of Oddi a. Maltase b. Sucrase
90. HCl provides the pH which is about c. Dipeptidase d. Amylopsin
(1) 1.8 (2) 3.2 e. Trypsin
(3) 5.0 (4) 6.8 (1) a, b, c, d & e (2) a & e only
91. Which of the following reactions is not catalysed (3) a, b & c only (4) c & d only
by a brush border enzyme? 99. Transverse section of gut shows four layers of the wall
(1) Maltose !"#$"%&
glucose + glucose i.e. serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa.
Which of the following statements is not correct
!"#$"%&
(2) Lactose glucose + galactose regarding its arrangement and modifications?
!"#$%&'
(3) Starch Disaccharide (1) Serosa is the outermost layer which is made
(4) Nucleotides !"#$%&'()*+%
Nucleoside of thin mesothelium
92. The vitamin which is commonly known as (2) Oblique muscle layer is present in stomach
antihaemorrhagic factor is (3) All the four layers show modifications in
(1) Vit-A (2) Vit-C different parts of alimentary canal
(4) Villi and rugae are modified mucosal and
(3) Vit-K (4) Vit-B2
submucosal layers respectively
93. Which of the following is a zinc-containing
100. Common bile duct includes
exopeptidase enzyme?
(1) Right and left hepatic ducts only
(1) Carboxypeptidase (2) Steapsin
(2) Common hepatic duct and cystic duct
(3) Trypsinogen (4) Chymotrypsinogen
(3) Cystic duct and pancreatic duct
94. Excessive stratification and keratinization and
drying of cornea is due to deficiency of which of (4) Common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct
the following vitamins? 101. The population of Escherichia coli, which is a
(1) Vit-A (2) Vit-B resident of the colon, lives on undigested food. The
bacteria in turn produce which of the following
(3) Vit-C (4) Vit-D vitamins that are absorbed across the wall of
95. The papillae which are largest and knob like are colon?
(1) Circumvallate papillae A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin K
(2) Filiform papillae C. Thiamine D. Riboflavin
(3) Fungiform papillae (1) A & B only (2) B & D only
(4) Foliate papillae (3) A, B & D only (4) A, B, C & D
102. Which of the following statements is not correct (3) Gastric ulcers can be due to intake of alcohol,
about lactose intolerance? aspirin, smoking and excessive vagus
(1) Deficiency of lactase enzyme is associated stimulation etc.
with intolerance of milk (4) Fatty acids are transported in intestinal
(2) It leads to flatulence epithelial cells by Na+ dependent co-transport
(3) Curd is better tolerated than milk in intolerant 109. Digestion of which food substance will be affected
individuals if stomach of a person is removed surgically?
(4) It is due to the deficiency of enzyme which (1) Proteins (2) Fats only
converts galactose into glucose
(3) Fats and starch (4) Starch and vitamins
103. Which type of cells are the part of tubular glands
of the stomach epithelium? 110. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
transverse section of gut
A. Parietal cells B. Peptic cells
C. Zymogen cells D. Oxyntic cells
(1) D only (2) A & D !
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
"
104. Digestion of fats starts in $
(1) Mouth (2) Stomach #
%
(3) Small intestine (4) Pharynx
105. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(1) Filiform papillae : Smallest and most
numerous, found
mainly in the centre of Choose the option which is correct for the layers
tongue labelled as A, B, C, D and E
(2) Fungiform papillae : Most numerous, near (1) A – Serosa
the base of tongue
B – Longitudinal muscle layer
(3) Foliate papillae : Not developed in the
C – Circular muscle layer
adult human tongue
(4) Vallate papillae : Largest papillae,each D – Mucosa
surrounded by a E – Submucosa
circular groove
(2) A – Mucosa
106. Which of the following cells are present at the
bottom of crypts of lieberkuhn, particularly in the B – Circular muscle layer
small intestine and secrete enzymes? C – Longitudinal muscle layer
(1) Paneth cells (2) Kupffer’s cells D – Submucosa
(3) Argentaffin cells (4) Glial cells E – Serosa
107. Which of the following gastro-intestinal hormones (3) A – Serosa
stimulates the Brunner’s glands to release mucus
in the intestine? B – Circular muscle layer
(1) Enterocrinin C – Longitudinal muscle layer
(2) Duocrinin D – Submucosa
(3) Secretin E – Mucosa
(4) Enterokinase (4) A – Serosa
108. Mark the incorrect statement? B – Longitudinal muscle layer
(1) Oxyntic tubular glands of the stomach
C – Circular muscle layer
epithelium include oxynctic cells, zymogen
cells and goblet cells D – Submucosa
(2) Oxyntic cells in stomach secrete HCl E – Mucosa
111. Gastric glands are found in 117. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. saliva/salivary
(1) Mucosa and submucosa glands
(1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial
(2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary
(3) Mucosa
glands
(4) Muscularis externa (3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glands
112. All of the following hormones are secreted by secrete maximum amount of saliva and
duodenum except provide their secretion by means of Wharton’s
duct
(1) Gastrin
(4) Secretion of saliva is stimulated by
(2) Secretin sympathetic nervous system
(3) GIP 118. Which of the following functions as true stomach
(4) Duocrinin in ruminants?
113. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. composition of (1) Abomasum (2) Rumen
digestive juices (3) Omasum (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Gastric juice – Pepsin, erepsin, gastric 119. Consider the following
lipase a. Trypsin b. Carboxypeptidase
(2) Pancreatic juice – Trypsin, c. Steapsin d. Amylopsin
carboxypeptidases,
The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogen
ribonuclease
is/are
(3) Succus entericus – Enterokinase, (1) a only (2) a & b
dipeptidase, sucrase
(3) c & d (4) d only
(4) All are correct
120. Select the incorrect statement
114. Cardia achalasia is due to
(1) Pepsinogen has no proteolytic activity, unless
(1) Relaxation of cardiac sphincter activated into pepsin
(2) Relaxation of pyloric sphincter (2) Bile is a watery greenish fluid containing bile
pigments, bile salts, cholesterol and
(3) Failure of cardiac sphincter to relax completely
phospholipids
(4) Failure of pyloric sphincter to relax completely
(3) In stomach, hydrochloric acid denatures the
115. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus? salivary amylase and prevents further
(1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved breakdown of carbohydrates (disaccharides)
(4) Bilirubin and biliverdin are formed from the
(2) Oedema is absent
breakdown of globin protein of haemoglobin
(3) Ribs become very prominent molecule
(4) Enlarged fatty liver 121. Which salivary gland is mainly infected in mumps?
116. Mark the incorrect match (1) Parotid gland (2) Submaxillary gland
! !"#$%$"&%'( !"#$%$"&+( .'/0+1/)( (3) Sublingual gland (4) Submandibular
!$)"*)"( &,+-$"&+(
122. Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed to
!"#$ "#$%!&#$%! '%()*%+!"!! 0+12)**)(%3+! 31! disaccharide by amylase of
,-.%)*%+#/! 4#$%4.#$)2! +#$5#67!
8#)9+#66! 31! 2%*&! (1) Pancreatic juice (2) Gastric juice
*:6;2#67!4)$)2<6%6!
(3) Brunners gland (4) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
!%#$ =.#%236%6! '%()*%+!""! "2##?%+@! 31! @:*67!
,>%&312)5%+/! 1)22%+@!31!(##(.!! 123. Gastric juice contains
!&#$ A#22)@$)! B%;3(%+)*%?#! =)+%+#! 3$! &2);9! (1) Trypsin, lipase, renin
(3+@:#! ?%6#)6#! %+!
?3@6! (2) Pepsin, lipase, rennin
!'#$ B<;()234%)! '%()*%+!C! D#66! $.3?346%+! %+! (3) Trypsin, pepsin, lipase
,>#(%+32/! $3?!;#2267!+3!5%6%3+!
%+!?%*!2%@.(! (4) Pepsin, renin, amylase
124. Choose the correct sequence of digestion 129. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. gastrointestinal
!"#$%&' ()#*$%&' hormone and its action.
(1) !"#$%&'("#)(* +#$%&'("#)(*
Gastrointestinal Action
!+*%)*%#
,-.-$%&'("#)(* /011&*0'#)*2*3%&'("-% hormone
()$*'+, (1) Gastrin – Stimulates gastric glands
!"#$%&' &#-%&'
(2) !"#$%&#'()'#$ !"#$#*+(,(#- to secrete and release
the gastric juice
!")'#&(,(.#/01+
!"#$%&'
(2) Secretin – Release bicarbonates in
()&'*$+$,&-.%+
(3) !"#$%&' !%($#'% the pancreatic juice.
Promotes gastric
)&(%($&*%+,'*+-.&'#+,/&*
secretion and motility
!"#$%&' ()#%*+,&'
(4) !"#$%& '#(")*+ ,(-%)*+ (3) Enterocrinin – Stimulates the crypts of
125. Deficiency of which of the following results in Leiberkuhn to release
formation of large, immature and nucleated RBC enzymes in the intestinal
devoid of haemoglobin? juice
(1) Cyanocobalamine (B12) (4) CCK-PZ – Contracts gall bladder.
Stimulates pancreas to
(2) Folic acid (B9) secrete and release
(3) Iron digestive enzymes in the
(4) Both (1) & (2) pancreatic juice.
126. The wall of the alimentary canal from oesophagus 130. Following are certain enzymatic reactions taking
to rectum possesses four layers namely serosa, place in the human alimentary canal. Each
mucosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa. What is the reaction is depicted it with suitable enzyme A, B,
correct sequence of layers from inside to C and D. Find from the options the correct set of
outside? enzymes required to carry out these reactions
(1) Mucosa, Sub-mucosa, Inner circular and Outer Starch ! Maltose

longitudinal muscles in Muscularis, Serosa !
Nucleosides Sugars + Bases
(2) Mucosa, Sub-mucosa, Inner longitudinal,
Outer circular muscle in Muscularis, Serosa Di and monoglycerides + Fatty acids +
(3) Serosa, Outer longitudinal and Inner circular Glycerol
muscles in Muscularis, Submucosa and -
Mucosa Trypsinogen Trypsin
(4) Serosa, Outer circular and Inner longitudinal (1) A – Pancreatic amylase
muscles in Muscularis, Submucosa and B – Nucleotidase
Mucosa
C – Lipase
127. The saliva secreted by salivary glands does not
D – Trypsin
(1) Contain electrolytes like Na +, K +, Cl – and
(2) A – Salivary amylase
*+,!
B – Nucleases
(2) Give safety against dental carries
C – Dipeptidases
(3) Bring about hydrolysis of starch upto 90%
D – Enterokinase
(4) Initiate the process of digestion
(3) A – Dipeptidases
128. Find the incorrect statement with respect to
B – Nucleotidase
kwashiorkor
C – Lipase
(1) It occurs in children whose diets are deficient
in protein D – Trypsin
(2) It occurs in children more than one year of (4) A – Salivary amylase
age B – Nucleosidase
(3) Subcutaneous fat is preserved C – Lipase
(4) Oedema is absent D – Enterokinase
131. Select the wrong statement (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Teeth of humans are bunodont (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Dentine forms the main part of tooth which is 135. Consider the following statements with certain
ectodermal in origin blanks (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) and select the option
(3) Lingual frenulum is a fold which attaches which correctly fills up these blanks.
tongue with the floor of buccal cavity A. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of enzyme
(4) Smallest and most abundant papillae present !!!!!!"#$!!!!! .
on human tongue is filiform papillae having no
taste buds B. The failure in opening of gastro-oesophageal
132. Consider the following statements sphincter leads to !!!!!!"##$!!!!! .
a. The mucous membrane of oesophagus is

formed of stratified squamous non-keratinised C. !!!!!!"###$!!!!! deficiency causes xerophthalmia.
epithelium.
D. !!!!!!"#$%!!!!! ions are antimicrobial components
b. HCl of gastric juice converts Fe+2 into Fe+3
of saliva.
making the absorption of iron possible.
c. Glisson’s capsule is the characteristic feature (1) A – Lactase
of mammalian liver. B – Heart burn
d. Wall of colon has three bands of longitudinal C – Retinol
muscles called epiploic appendages.
D – Thiocyanate
(1) Statement a, b & c are correct; d is wrong
(2) A – Uridyl transferase
(2) Statement a & c are correct; b & d are wrong
B – Cardia achalasia
(3) Statement c is correct; a, b & d are wrong
C – Cyanocobalamin
(4) Statement a, c & d are correct; b is wrong
133. Which of the following is accessory or D – Lysozyme
nonfunctional duct of pancreas, opening directly (3) A – Lactase
into duodenum?
(1) Duct of Santorini
C – Thiamine
(2) Duct of Wirsung
D – Na+ and Cl–
(3) Cystic duct
(4) A – Uridyl transferase
(4) Hepatopancreatic duct
C – Retinol
Column I Column II
D – Thiocyanate
a. Sphincter of Boyden (i) Regulates opening of
oesophagus into 136. Select the incorrect match
stomach
(1) Antihemorrhagic vitamin – Vitamin K
b. Sphincter of Oddi (ii) Surrounds the
(2) Renin – Curdling of milk
opening of bile duct
into pancreatic duct (3) Deficiency of vitamin B1 – Wernicke's
c. Cardiac sphincter (iii) Regulates the Korsakoff
opening of stomach Syndrome
into small intestine (4) Facilitated transport – Fructose and
d. Pyloric sphincter (iv) Surrounds ampulla of some amino
vater acids
137. Which of the following is not a disease due to R : Glycogen is rapidly degraded to lactic acid by
nutritional deficiency? the enzymes of the liver and muscles after an
animal is killed.
(1) Anaemia (2) Scurvy
4. A : Water is not gained, but is lost from blood on
(3) Diabetes (4) Goitre
drinking sea water.
138. Mark the condition where food is not properly
R : Mg2+ ions in sea water increase the solute
digested leading to feeling of fullness. This can be
concentration in the intestinal lumen because
caused due to inadequate secretion, food
Mg2+ is absorbed slowly.
poisoning, over eating etc.
5. A : Consumption of raw egg is injurious to health.
(1) Vomiting (2) Constipation
R : Raw egg has avidin which binds to biotin and
(3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
prevents its uptake.
139. Which cells are not associated with gastric
6. A : Heart burn occurs when acidic chyme enters
glands?
into oesophagus.
(1) Mucus neck cells (2) Peptic cells
R : A muscular gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(3) Paneth cells (4) Parietal cells regulates the opening of oesophagus into the
stomach.
SECTION - B 7. A : Serosa is the outer most layer of intestinal
wall.
R : Serosa is absent in oesophagus.
8. A : Food provides energy and organic materials for
growth and repair of tissues.
R : Biomacromolecules in food can be utilized by
our body in their original form.
9. A : A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents
reason is not the correct explanation of the the entry of food into gullet during swallowing.
assertion, then mark (2). R : The oesophagus is a thin long tube which
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is extends posteriorly passing through neck,
false, then mark (3). thorax and diaphragm and open in fundus
region of stomach.
statements, then mark (4). 10. A : Aminopeptidase is exopeptidase.
1. A : In predatory animals trypsin acts like thrombin R : It cleaves the peptide bond at N-terminal end
and helps to digests the blood proteins. of polypeptide chain.
R : Pepsin is absent in case of invertebrate. 11. A : Bile helps in emulsification of fats.

2. A : Cattle fed with sploit hay of sweet clover may R : Bile lacks digestive enzymes but its bile salts
suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged help in micelle action.
uncontrollable bleeding.
12. A : Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin
R : Dicumarol prevents the action of vitamin K. and hydrochloric acid in the stomach. It is also
released during allergic reactions.
3. A : The animal polysaccharide glycogen is present
in the liver and flesh, but ordinarily very little R : Anti-histamine tablets given during the allergic
glycogen can be utilised from food. reactions affect the secretion of acid in stomach.
!" !" !
Chapter 3
Breathing and Exchange of Gases
5. Respiratory rhythm centre is present in the medulla

SECTION - A
and is primarily responsible for regulation of
Objective Type Questions respiration as per demands of the body tissues.
This centre is regulated by
(1) Pneumotaxic centre present pons region
(1) Effect of oxyhaemoglobin formation on
dissociation of CO2 transported is called as (2) Central chemoreceptor adjacent to rhythm
Haldane effect centre
(2) During strong pneumotaxic signal, complete (3) Peripheral chemoreceptor present in aortic
filling of lungs occurs arch and carotid artery
(3) VC = IRV + TV + ERV (4) All of these

(4) Arytenoid cartilage are two roughly pyramidal 6. Maximum volume of air a person can breathe after
shaped cartilage forceful expiration is termed as
2. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a (1) Inspiratory capacity
normal expiration is (2) Vital capacity
(1) Inspiratory capacity (3) Expiratory capacity
(2) Functional residual capacity (4) Functional residual capacity
(3) Vital capacity 7. When oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve gets
(4) Expiratory reserve volume shifted towards the right side, it reflects the
following features, except
3. Dorsal respiratory centre receives the chemical
signal from carotid and aortic bodies (peripheral (1) Decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen
chemoreceptor) by means of (2) Facilitates dissociation of oxygen
(1) Glossopharyngeal and Vagus cranial nerves (3) Decrease in P50 value
respectively
(4) Less percentage saturation of haemoglobin
(2) Vagus and Glossopharyngeal cranial nerves
respectively 8. The amount of oxygen that can be transported by 500
ml of blood dissolved in plasma during normal
(3) Facial and Glossopharyngeal cranial nerves
physiological condition is
respectively
(1) 75 ml (2) 25 ml
(4) Vagus and Facial cranial nerves respectively
(3) 15 ml (4) 1.5 ml
4. Major part of carbondioxide is transported in the
form of 9. Cardiac notch is associated with _____ in human
(1) Dissolve state (1) Superior lobe of right lung
(2) Sodium bicarbonate (2) Superior lobe of left lung
(3) Potassium bicarbonate (3) Middle lobe of right lung
(4) Carbamino haemoglobin (4) Inferior lobe of left lung
394 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Pneumotaxic centre located dorsally in upper pons (3) Haldane’s effect can be termed as reverse of
control the rate and pattern of respiration. When it Bohr’s effect
sends a strong signal to inspiratory area which of
(4) Weak signal from respiratory centre cause
the following will not occur?
complete filling of lungs and rate of breathing
(1) Increase in rate of respiration increases.
(2) Partial filling of lungs 15. During holding of the breath by closing the nose
(3) Decrease in inspiration time with fingers, CO2 build up, so that when the nose
(4) Increase in expiration time opens again rate and depth is
11. Mark the incorrect statement (1) Slowed down
(1) Silicosis and asbestosis are common (2) Accelerated

occupational lung diseases characterised by (3) No effect on breathing rate
proliferation of fibrous connective tissue in
upper part of lung causing inflammation (4) Stopped due to the formation of carbamino-
haemoglobin
(2) Carbon monoxide poisoning is characterized by
headache, dizziness, nausea, paralysis and 16. Under which of the following conditions red blood
even death cell count increases?
(3) Sea diving mammals (like seals, whales) stay A. During regular muscular exercise
under water for a long time because they can
B. At high altitude due to low oxygen tension of
store oxygen in the blood and muscles
air
(4) Bronchial asthma characterised by the dilation
of the smooth muscles present in the walls of C. As a result of rise in environmental
the bronchiole symptomized by coughing or temperature
difficulty in breathing mainly during inspiration D. Increase in cortisol hormone
12. Mark the incorrect statement (1) A and B (2) A, B and D
(1) Rate of breathing is much faster in terrestrial
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
organism w.r.t. aquatic organism
17. If pulmonary volumes/capacities of a person are as
(2) Mammals have negative pressure breathing as
it allows them to eat and breathe at the same given below
time Vital capacity = 4600 ml
(3) Functional residual capacity, residual volume Total capacity = 6000 ml
and total lung capacity measured by indirect
method i.e. Helium dilution method Tidal volume = 400 ml
(4) Lungs are placed above diaphragm Expiratory capacity = 1300 ml

13. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume + Find the functional residual capacity (FRC) of the
residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume is person
(1) Inspiratory capacity (1) 1800 ml (2) 2300 ml
(2) Vital capacity (3) 3300 ml (4) 900 ml
(3) Total lung capacity 18. Excess of carbon-dioxide with a simultaneous lack
(4) Functional residual capacity of oxygen produces _________ which is the cause
14. Which of the following statement is incorrect? of respiratory and circulatory failures and death in
case of suffocation
(1) The exchange of gases between the alveoli and
blood in the lungs is due to differences in (1) Histotoxic hypoxia
partial pressure (2) Asphyxia
(2) HCO3– ions diffuse out into plasma and Cl–
(3) Anaemic hypoxia
ions enter into the RBC at the level of tissue
is known as chloride shift (4) Emphysema
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Breathing and Exchange of Gases 395
19. Breathing becomes accelerated when the person (1) Hypoxic hypoxia (2) Anaemic hypoxia
opens his nose after holding of the breath by
(3) Stagnant hypoxia (4) Histotoxic hypoxia
closing the nose with fingers. This is due to
25. In the haemoglobin-O2 dissociation curves the shift
(1) Decrease in the concentration of H+ ions in the
of the curve towards the right could be caused by
body
(2) Carbon-monoxide build up in arterial blood (1) Increased pH
(3) Decrease in carbon-dioxide concentration in (2) Carbon monoxide (CO)

arterial blood (3) Strenous exercise
(4) Carbon-dioxide build up in the body (4) Foetal haemoglobin
20. Minute volume is 26. Which of the following is not a character of
(1) Dead space volume respiratory bronchioles and terminal bronchioles?
(2) (Tidal volume) × (breathing rate) (1) Cartilaginous rings are absent
(3) Residual volume (2) Lined with cuboidal epithelium

(4) (Tidal volume – Dead space volume) × (3) Cilia present
Breathing rate (4) Mucous secreting glands present
21. CO2 generated in the tissues is carried in venous
27. Amount of oxygen carried by one gram of
blood primarily as
haemoglobin is
(1) CO2 in plasma
(1) 1.34 ml (2) 13.4 ml
(2) H2CO3 in plasma
(3) 19.8 ml (4) 20 ml
(3) Sodium bicarbonate in plasma
28. Which of the following is likely to occur in the
(4) Potassium bicarbonate in venous blood blood entering pulmonary capillaries?
22. The avian respiratory system is most efficient (1) Formation of carbamino-haemoglobin
among terrestrial vertebrates because
(2) Movement of chloride from RBC into plasma
(1) It is achieved through the action of air sacs and that of bicarbonate into RBC from plasma
which are unique to birds, where exchange of
gases occur (3) Dissociation of carbonic anhydrase
(2) It has unidirectional flow of air through (4) Diffusion of carbondioxide from alveoli into
parabronchi and cross-current blood flow through blood
lungs 29. In the given figure, identify the muscles involved in
(3) Exchange of gases occur in blind ended alveoli raising the rib cage
(4) They have counter-current flow of blood in lungs !"#$%&'%#"&($)*&(+
23. Under enhanced respiratory drive, the respiratory

signal from which group contributes to fulfil the
7"8+$1&4$
demand by regulating both inspiration and
+'%#&*.
expiration? #1"+%4 ,-)*.%$-/
(1) Pneumotaxic centre '0-#12$
"&3#%1+%4
(2) Dorsal respiratory group
7"8$31(%
(3) Ventral respiratory group
(4) Apneustic centre 5"160#1(.
3-&'#13'%4
24. The condition in which the blood flow to the tissue
is so low that adequate O2 is not delivered to it
even though !!! and oxyhaemoglobin is normal, (1) External intercostals (2) Internal intercostals
is called as (3) Internal intercostals (4) Abdominal recti
30. Which of the following diseases is not included in 37. Exchange between Cl– and HCO3– involving RBC
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? and plasma occurs at
(1) Emphysema (2) Bronchitis (1) Tissue level of respiration
(3) Asthma (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) External respiration
31. Maximum amount of oxygen transported to tissues (3) Superior and inferior venacava
by one litre of the blood in a adult human during
(4) Both (1) & (2)
heavy physical activity is
38. What will be the effect of increased level of
(1) 200 ml (2) 150 ml
2, 3 DPG at oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve?
(3) 750 ml (4) 50 ml
(1) No effect (2) Right sided shift
32. Pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons and
(3) Left sided shift (4) Becomes hyperbolic
controls the switch off point of inspiration. When
sending a strong signal, which of the following will 39. Squamous epithelium is made up of a single thin
not occur? layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries
found in the walls of blood vessels and alveoli of
(1) Increase in rate of breathing
lungs. They are mainly involved in a function like
(2) Partial filling of lung
(1) Forming a protective covering
(3) Increase in duration of inspiration and expiration
(2) Forming a secretory layer
(4) Inspiration lasts for only 0.5 s
(3) Forming a diffusion boundary
33. Total lung capacity of a person is 7000 ml,
functional residual capacity is 3500 ml. Inspiratory (4) Forming a absorptive layer
capacity of that person will be (Residual vol. is 40. Dissociation of oxygen from blood to tissue is
2100 ml) facilitated by
(1) 2000 ml (2) 3500 ml (1) Low pO2 at the level of tissue
(3) 4900 ml (4) 4300 ml (2) Metabolic activities of the tissue
34. Haldane effect is related with (3) High pCO2 at the level of tissue
(1) Loading of oxygen will cause unloading of CO2 (4) All of these
(2) It is the effect of oxyhaemoglobin formation or 41. Select the incorrectly matched pair
dissociation of CO2
(1) Additional volume of air – Expiratory
(3) It is the phenomenon of unloading of oxygen at person can expire by reserve
tissue level and loading at lung level a forceful expiration volume
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Maximum amount of – Vital capacity
35. Which of the following is the most common air expelled forcefully
symptom of silicosis? from lungs after maximum
forceful inspiration
(1) Inflammation of bronchi
(3) Volume of air inspired – Tidal volume
(2) Increase in thickening of mucus in lungs and expired during a
(3) Fibrosis of upper part of lungs normal respiration
(4) Collapsing of alveoli (4) When a person breathes – Residual

normally, the amount of air volume
36. A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately which remains in the lungs
________ air per minute under normal conditions after normal expiration
(1) 3500-4000 ml 42. What happens to O2-Hb dissociation curve if CO2
(2) 5000-6000 ml level of blood rises at 37°C?
(3) 2500-3000 ml (1) No change occurs (2) Becomes hyperbolic
(4) 1100-2300 ml (3) Shifts towards right (4) Shift towards left
43. Bohr’s effect is (2) Rate of respiration remains unaffected
(1) Increase in CO2 levels results in rise of p50 (3) Respiration will stop for some time
value
(4) Rate of respiration decreases
(2) Decrease in p50 value is related to decrease in
pH 50. Conditions like low pCO2 and low H+ concentration
will have ________ on binding of O2 with Hb
(3) Increase in pH and decrease in pCO2 result in
rise of p50 value (1) Adverse effect (2) Enhancing effect
(4) Decrease in pO 2 results in dissociation of (3) No effect (4) Variable effect
carbamino haemoglobin
51. The pO2 in systemic arteries and systemic veins
44. The number of oxygen molecules (O2) that can is respectively
conjugate with one molecule of haemoglobin are
(1) 95, 40 mmHg (2) 95, 45 mmHg
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 40, 95 mmHg (4) 104, 40 mmHg
(3) 8 (4) 6
52. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will shift
45. Central chemoreceptors in the brain respond to
changes in the to right of normal curve if
(1) Oxygen concentration in blood (1) Temperature decreases
(2) Carbon dioxide concentration in CSF (2) CO2 decreases

(3) Oxygen concentration in CSF (3) pH decreases
(4) Rate of oxidation of food content in the cell (4) BPG is low
46. In which of the following disorders alveolar walls are 53. Mark the incorrect combination w.r.t. pulmonary
damaged, surface area for gaseous exchange is capacities
reduced and the air sacs remain filled with air even
after expiration? (1) IC = TV + IRV (2) FRC = RV + ERV
(1) Pneumonia (2) Coryza (3) VC = TLC + RV (4) EC = TV + ERV

(3) Emphysema (4) SARS 54. What will happen if the stretch receptors present
in the wall of bronchioles and alveoli are removed?
47. Dorsal respiratory group is located in ________
and mainly causes ________ (1) Breathing will continue normally
(1) Pons Varolii, expiration (2) Breathing will stop immediately
(2) Medulla, inspiration (3) Inspiration can continue until the alveoli get
(3) Medulla, either expiration or inspiration ruptured
(4) Pons Varolii, inspiration (4) Inhibition of inspiratory area will slow down the
48. Which of the following condition does not result in breathing rate
shifting of oxy-Hb dissociation curve to the right? 55. Which of the following statements are correct
a. Increase in pCO2 w.r.t. transportation of gases?
b. Increase in pH A. Blood transports CO2 comparatively easily
because of its higher solubility
c. Increase in body temperature
d. Excess of 2, 3 DPG B. CO2 diffuses into blood, passes into RBCs and
reacts with water to form H2CO3
Choose the correct option
C. 20-25 percent CO2 is carried by haemoglobin
(1) a only (2) b only
as carbamino-haemoglobin
(3) b and c only (4) c and d only
D. Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is basic in
49. If high quantity of oxygen is inhaled by our body, nature and it increases pH of blood
then
(1) A only (2) A & B only
(1) It over stimulates our respiratory centre so that
rate of inspiration increases (3) A, B & C only (4) A, B, C & D
56. How much ml of CO2 will be delivered by one litre 60. If a person exhales out air forcefully and then
of blood to the alveoli inhales without any extra effort, the volume of air
inhaled will be
(1) 4 ml (2) 40 ml
(1) Tidal volume
(3) 75 ml (4) 23 ml
(2) Inspiratory capacity
57. Given below are four statements A to D, each with
one or two blanks. Select the option which (3) Expiratory capacity
correctly fills up the blanks in any two statements (4) Inspiratory reserve volume
A. Total amount of air accommodated in lungs at 61. Total volume of air a person can expire after a
the end of a forced inspiration is !"# normal inspiration is
B. The maximum volume of air a person can A. Tidal volume B. TV + ERV
breathe in after a forced expiration is !"# . C. Expiratory capacity D. ERV + RV
The maximum volume of air a person can
(1) A only (2) B & C only
breathe out after a forced inspiration is !""#
(3) A, B & C only (4) A, B, C & D
C. Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after
62. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe
a maximum forceful expiration is !"# . This is
in after a forced expiration includes
about !""#
(1) ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume)
D. A healthy man can inspire approximately !"# (2) TV (Tidal Volume)
ml of air per minute
(3) IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)
(1) A (i) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) All of these
B (i) Vital capacity
63. Trachea divides into bronchi at the level of which
(ii) Expiratory capacity thoracic vertebra ?
(2) B (i) Vital capacity (1) 5 (2) 7
(ii) Vital capacity (3) 3 (4) 1
C (i) Functional residual volume 64. Which of the following factors does not occur in
alveoli and is favourable for dissociation of oxygen
(ii) 1000 - 1100 ml
from oxyhaemoglobin?
(3) C (i) Residual volume
A. High pO2
(ii) 1100 ml - 1200 ml B. Low pCO2
D (i) 6000 to 8000 ml C. Less H+ concentration and low temperature
(4) B (i) Vital capacity D. High temperature
(ii) Vital Capacity (1) A only (2) A & B only
D (i) 500 ml (3) A, B & C (4) D only
58. Which structure is not related with respiration in 65. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing is due to
frog?
(1) Emphysema (2) Asthma
(1) Lungs (2) Skin
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Atelectasis
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Diaphragm
66. Which of the following cartilages does not take
59. Collapsing of lungs may be due to the presence of part in the formation of sound producing structure,
which condition in lungs? the larynx?
(1) Atelectasis (2) Pneumothorax (1) Cuneiform cartilage (2) Corniculate cartilage
(3) Hydrothorax (4) All of these (3) Epiglottis (4) Articular cartilage
67. Which of the following statements is not correct? 74. Hiccoughs (Hiccups) occur during respiration due
to abnormal activity of / presence of
(1) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after
a normal expiration is about 2200 ml (1) Intercostal muscles
(2) Partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in alveoli is (2) Food in the air tract
40 mm Hg and 104 mm Hg respectively
(3) Diaphragm
(3) Alveoli of lungs are lined by thin squamous
epithelium (4) Inadequate O2 in the environment
(4) High amount of carbonic anhydrase is found in 75. Myoglobin binds with how many molecule of O2?
RBCs
(1) One (2) Two
68. On an average, a healthy human breathes
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) 12-16 times/min (2) 70-80 times/min
76. A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately
(3) 80-120 times/min (4) 3-5 times/min ________ of air per breath normaly
69. The movement of air into the lungs occurs due to (1) 500 ml (2) 1000 ml to 1100 ml
a pressure gradient between the lungs and the
atmosphere. So, inspiration occurs when/due to (3) 1100 ml to 1200 ml (4) 6000 ml to 8000 ml
(1) Intra pulmonary pressure is less than the 77. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at
atmospheric pressure the end of maximum forceful inspiration includes
(2) Increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber A. ERV + RV
in the dorso-ventral axis
B. IRV + ERV
(3) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles and
phrenic muscles C. TV + IRV + ERV + RV
(4) All of these D. VC + RV
70. The diffusion membrane or respiratory membrane (1) A only (2) A & B only
does not include
(3) C only (4) C & D only
(1) Thin squamous epithelium
78. In both Cockroach and humans, tracheal rings are
(2) Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium present around trachea. They are responsible for
(3) Endothelium (1) Liberation of mucous to outside
(4) Basement membrane (2) Liberation of surfactant which is trapped in the
71. How much percentage of O2 is transported through alveoli
plasma in dissolved form ?
(3) Preventing collapsing of the tracheal wall
(1) 97% (2) 3%
(4) Generation of pressure gradient
(3) 20-25% (4) 7%
79. What percentage of haemoglobin is saturated with
72. Human beings have a significant ability to maintain oxygen in the blood at pO2 30 mm Hg and pCO2
and moderate the respiratory rhythm. This is done 40 mm Hg?
by neural control. Which of the following is not
related with respiration? (1) 50% (2) 85%
(1) Pneumotaxic centre (3) 90% (4) 98%

(2) Respiratory rhythm centre 80. Incomplete cartilaginous rings are not present
around
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Aortic and carotid body receptors (1) Trachea
73. During inspiration, the diaphragm (2) Primary bronchi
(1) Contracts (2) Expands (3) Secondary bronchi
(3) Does not move (4) Relaxes (4) Respiratory bronchioles
81. Conducting part of respiratory system extends from 87. Pneumotaxic centre is located in the dorsal part of
pons varolii and suppresses impulses from
(1) Trachea to bronchi
(1) Dorsal respiratory group
(2) External nostrils to trachea
(2) Apneustic area
(3) External nostrils to terminal bronchioles
(4) External nostrils to alveolar ducts (3) Carotid bodies
82. In case of decrease in carbon dioxide (4) Aortic bodies

concentration of blood, the Hb– O2 saturation curve 88. What volume of carbon dioxide is carried as
will shift towards dissolved gas by 100 ml of oxygenated blood?
(1) Right side (1) Nil (2) 2.4 ml
(2) Left side (3) 2.7 ml (4) 1.5 ml
(3) No change in the position of saturation curve 89. In lungs, exchange of ions between RBCs and
(4) First right and then left plasma and removal of CO2 from blood involves all
except
83. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the
diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial (1) Influx of HCO3– ions into RBCs
pressure is much higher as compared to that of O2. (2) Buffering of H + ions inside the RBCs by
This is because bicarbonates and formation of carbonic acid
(1) Solubility coefficient of CO2 is higher (3) Influx of Cl – ions in RBCs and efflux of HCO3–
(2) Solubility coefficient of CO2 is lesser ions from RBCs
(3) Amount of gases in blood is independent of (4) Partial pressure gradient of CO2 across the
partial pressures of the gases in the respiratory membrane
atmosphere
90. All of the following stimuli can stimulate respiration
(4) Arterial blood contains more O2 than CO2 through chemoreceptor mechanism except
84. Which of the following statements is correct (1) Increase in acidity
regarding CO2 and O2 transport in blood?
(2) Increase in arterial pCO2
(1) 100 ml of oxygenated blood carries 53 ml of O2
(3) Decrease in pH
(2) 100 ml of blood always transports equal
(4) Decrease in H+ concentration
amounts of O2 and CO2
(3) 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers more O2 91. The maximum amount of O 2 that can be
than CO2 to the tissues transported to the tissues by 500 ml of blood
during strenuous exercise is
(4) O2 and CO2 are both maximally transported
through the blood plasma (1) 5 ml (2) 15 ml
85. Medullary chemosensitive area is more sensitive to (3) 25 ml (4) 75 ml

fluctuations in concentration of 92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Emphysema
a. CO2 b. H+ (1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs,
c. O2 d. CO causing irreversible, distension and loss of
elasticity of alveoli
(1) a, b, c & d (2) a & b only
(2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even
(3) a, b & c only (4) d only after expiration
86. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages is paired
(3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy
and consist largely of hyaline cartilage with only
are used to treat emphysema. It can be cured
the upper end made of elastic cartilage?
permanently
(1) Thyroid cartilage (2) Cricoid cartilage
(4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due to
(3) Arytenoid cartilage (4) Cuneiform cartilage cigarette smoking
93. Match the following 97. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of
the human larynx?
Column I Column II
(1) Cartilage of santorini
a. Apnea (i) Rapid shallow breathing
(2) Cricoid cartilage
b. Dyspnea (ii) Normal breathing
(3) Corniculate cartilage
c. Tachypnea (iii) No breathing
(4) Cuneiform cartilage
d. Eupnea (iv) Painful breathing except
in upright position 98. Find the correct statement
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) Ventral respiratory group is located in medulla
and controls the switch off point of inspiration
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Dead space is the amount of air left in lungs
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) after normal expiration
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Mountain sickness is due to decreased partial
94. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types pressure of oxygen at high altitude
of cells called as pneumocyte type - I and (4) Hering-Breuer’s reflex is mainly a protective
pneumocyte type - II. Type II pneumocytes mechanism for preventing excessive deflation of
(1) Are transitional epithelial cells lungs
(2) Form the site of gaseous exchange between 99. Which of the following can be measured with the
alveolus and blood help of simple spirometer?
a. FRC b. RV
(3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells
c. TLC d. VC
(4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant
(1) c only (2) d only
95. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of
oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved (3) a & b only (4) c & d only
in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere. 100. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi
!"#$%&'()&*+ -(.)#$/"&%0 -12")1% 3)4*+ 31))4 ;%##<"# at the level of
,'# '%& 54")6*,"7 5:6*,"8'("49
8'("49 (1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae
!! #$% " &' $ &' (2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
"! ! ! &' # &' &$ (3) 7th thoracic vertebrae
Choose the correct option w.r.t. the values of (4) 10th thoracic vertebrae
partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C
and D 101. During normal expiration which centre remains
almost dormant and does not play any major role
A B C D in the basic respiratory rhythm?
(1) 0.3 104 40 52 (1) Pneumotaxic
(2) 32 116 45 45 (2) Dorsal respiratory group
(3) 0.3 104 45 95 (3) Ventral respiratory group
(4) 32 116 45 95 (4) Chemosensitive area
96. At 40 mmHg of partial pressure of oxygen 102. Carbon dioxide generated in the tissues is carried
haemoglobin is _____ saturated in venous blood primarily as
(1) 50% (1) Dissolved gas in plasma
(2) 75% (2) Carbamino haemoglobin
(3) 85% (3) Sodium bicarbonate in venous blood
(4) 35% (4) Potassium bicarbonate in venous blood
103. Given below are four statements A–D each with (1) Left side
one or two blanks. Select the option which
(2) Right side
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements.
(3) Remain as such, neither shift towards left nor
A. Healthy man can inspire or expire
towards right
approximately !!!"#$!!! ml of air per minute.
(4) First left and then right
B. Inspiratory reserve volume average !!!"#$!!! ml.
107. What happens when pneumotaxic centre sends
C. Residual volume averages !!!"#$!!! ml. weak signal?
D. Volume of air accumulated in the lungs at the (1) Complete filling of lungs
end of forced inspiration is !!!"#$!!! .
(2) Inspiration is of 5 s
Options :
(3) Breathing rate is not fast
(1) A – (i) 500 ml,
(4) All of these
B – (i) 2500 to 3000 ml
108. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(2) B – (i) 2500 to 3000 ml,
w.r.t. transport of carbon dioxide in blood?
C – (i) 1000 ml to 1100 ml
(1) About 20-25 percent of carbon dioxide is
(3) C – (i) 1000 ml to 1100 ml
D – (i) Vital capacity carried by haemoglobin in the form of
carbaminohaemoglobin
(4) A – (i) 6000 to 8000 ml
D – (i) Vital capacity + residual volume (2) 70 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved
states through plasma
104. Presence of large number of alveoli around
alveolar ducts in mammlian lungs is (3) As the blood picks up carbon dioxide from
tissue, HCO3– accumulates inside RBCs of
(1) Inefficient system of ventilation with little which some move out into the blood plasma
residual air and in exchange chloride ions move from
(2) Inefficient system of ventilation with high plasma into RBCs
amount of residual air
(4) The greatest percentage of carbon dioxide is
(3) Efficient system of ventilation with high transported in blood plasma as bicarbonate
residual air ions
(4) Efficient system of ventilation with little amount 109. How much carbon dioxide is delivered by 5 L of
of residual air deoxygenated blood to the alveoli?
105. All the following statements are correct, but one (1) 200 ml (2) 400 ml
is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(3) 100 ml (4) 300 ml
(1) In fishes, countercurrent exchange is a
110. Which of the following cells release lecithin?
process that allows for the most efficient
blood oxygenation in nature a. Type I pneumocytes.
(2) As we move towards higher altitudes, hypoxia, b. Type II pneumocytes.
leads to polycythemia
c. Dust cells.
(3) Amphibians force air into the lungs by creating
d. Clara cells, respiratory bronchiole.
a greater than atmospheric pressure in air
outside the lungs e. Clara cells, bronchi.
(4) In insects the blood helps in the transportation (1) a, c, e
of oxygen to the tissues
(2) b, d
106. In case of increase in concentration of hydrogen
(3) b, e
ion, the Hb - O 2 dissociation curve will shift
towards (4) b, d, e
111. The most important primary factor in determining 116. After hyperventilation the person can hold his
the percent saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen breath for sometime due to
is
(1) Low pO2 in blood (2) High pCO2 in blood
(1) Partial pressure of oxygen
(3) High pO2 in blood (4) Low pCO2 in blood
(2) Acidity
117. At 45 mm pCO 2 , volume of CO 2 present in
(3) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved form in venous blood is
(4) Temperature (1) 14.5 ml / 100 ml
112. How many of the following statements are (2) 2.7 ml / 100 ml
correct?
(3) 2.4 ml / 100 ml
a. Normal exhalation during quiet breathing is an
active process involving intensive muscle (4) 52 ml / 100 ml
contraction.
b. Air flow during breathing is due to a pressure SECTION - B
gradient between the lungs and atmospheric
air. Assertion - Reason Type Questions
c. A specialised centre present in the medulla In the following questions, a statement of assertion
region of the brain called respiratory rhythm (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
centre is primarily responsible for regulation of
respiration.
d. Respiratory rate decreases during fever. assertion, then mark (1).
(1) One (2) Two (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) Three (4) Four reason is not the correct explanation of the
113. During normal expiration/at the end of expiration
(1) Diaphragm contract false, then mark (3).
(2) Inter-intercostal muscle contract (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Negative pressure remains in thorax statements, then mark (4).
(4) Positive pressure remains in the thorax 1. A : A film of lecithin lines the alveoli of the lungs
that lowers the surface tension and keeps the
114. Which of the following are correct differences
alveoli inflated.
between foetal haemoglobin (Hb-F) and maternal
haemoglobin (Hb-A)? R: Lecithin is a phospholipid secreted by
a. Hb-F and Hb-A differ in structure. pneumocyte cells type-II.
b. Hb-F has higher affinity for oxygen as 2. A : Breathing and eating can occur simultaneously
compared to Hb-A. in mammals.
c. The curve of foetal haemoglobin remains R : Cerebral cortex influences the contraction of
towards the left of maternal haemoglobin breathing muscles.
(Hb-A). 3. A : Methaemoglobin when present in large
d. Hb-F binds with BPG more strongly as quantities causes cyanosis.
compared to Hb-A. R : In methaemoglobin Fe2+ ions are oxidised to
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d ferric ions and bind with oxygen irreversibly.
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d 4. A : Patchy Atelectasis is seen in patients who
have undergone cardiac surgery during which a
115. Vital capacity (VC) can be stated as
pump oxygenator is used and pulmonary
(1) TV + IRV (2) TV + FRC circulation is interrupted.
(3) IRV + FRC (4) IC + ERV R : This is due to the deficiency of surfactant.
5. A : P 50 indicates the oxygen concentration at 9. A : Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the

which 50% haemoglobin of blood is saturated functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.
with O2. R : Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can
R : The haemoglobin gets saturated to about 50% reduce the duration of inspiration and alter the
when partial pressure of oxygen is 25 - 30 respiratory rate.
mm of Hg 10. A : Carbonic anhydrase enzyme facilitates the
6. A : In carbon monoxide poisoning death occurs following reaction in both directions.
due to non availability of oxygen. !"#"
!!!!"
!"$ #$ " #!!!! #$!"%
R : It is due to absence of free haemoglobin.
R : Carbonic anhydrase is found in very high
7. A : CO2 is transported in the blood mainly in the concentration in RBCs and minute quantities of
form of bicarbonate ions. it are present in the plasma too.
R : RBCs contain a very high concentration of the 11. A : During holding of breath by closing the nose
enzyme carbonic anhydrase. with fingers, CO2 builds up so that when nose
opens again, the breathing becomes
8. A : CO 2 can diffuse through the diffusion accelerated.
membrane more rapidly than O 2 per unit
R : The regulatory centre for respiration lies in the
difference in partial pressure.
medulla of the brain and is sensitive to
R : Solubility of CO2 in plasma is 20-25 times increase in concentration of CO2 in arterial
higher than that of O2. blood.
!" !" !
Chapter 4
Excretory Products and their Elimination
(1) Juxtamedullary nephrons have the renal

SECTION - A corpuscles in the inner cortex near the
corticomedullary junction
(2) These nephrons have long loop of Henle
1. In interstitial fluid of the kidney increases in (3) The tubular portion of juxtamedullary nephrons
osmolarity from the cortex to the inner medulla. is supplied by the straight capillaries called
Select the set of solutes, that contribute to the vasa recta
gradient of osmolarity
(4) Loop of Henle of juxtamedullry nephron is
(1) Na+ and K+ smaller than that of cortical nephron
(2) Na+ only 6. Which of the following is incorrect?
(3) Na+, Cl– and urea (1) Bowman’s capsule - Simple squamous
(4) Na+, K+, HCO3– and urea epithelium
2. Find the incorrect statement (2) Proximal convoluted - Brush border cuboidal
(1) Accumulation of nitrogenous waste in blood is tubule epithelium
called azotemia (3) Distal convoluted - Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Birds, insects, tadpole larva etc. are uricotelic tubule with brush border
(3) Fresh water animals pass out hypotonic urine (4) Loop of Henle - Flattened epithelium
(4) In insects, urate cells help in excretion 7. Secretion of renin is stimulated by which of the
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect? following factor?
(1) Henle’s loop plays a significant role in the (1) Fall in arterial blood pressure
maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary (2) Reduction in the volume of extracellular fluid
interstitial fluid
(3) Decreased load of sodium detected by macula
(2) In Kangaroo rat, metabolic water is derived densa
from dry seeds of castor
(4) All of these
(3) PCT is lined by simple brush border cuboidal
epithelium 8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(4) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to (1) Secretion of H+ into the renal tubules occurs
water but do not allow transport of electrolyte with the formation of carbonic acid
4. Which of the following change will result in the (2) The counter current multiplier system is formed
decline of glomerular filtrate formation? by vasa recta
(1) Increase of renal plasma flow (3) The major cause for the hyperosmolarity of
medullary interstitial fluid is the active
(2) Increase in capsular hydrostatic pressure
reabsorption of sodium, chloride and other
(3) Increase in glomerular hydrostatic pressure solutes from thick ascending segment into the
(4) Decrease in blood colloid osmotic pressure medullary interstitium
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. (4) Antidiuretic hormone helps in the concentration
juxtamedullary nephrons? of urine
406 Excretory Products and their Elimination Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. If renal plasma flow is 660 ml/min and amount of 15. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
plasma in blood is 55% then calculate renal blood (1) Guanine - Spiders and Penguins
flow
(2) Hippuric acid - Mammals
(1) 1300 ml/min (2) 1200 ml/min
(3) Ammonia - Hydra, Shark, Lizard
(3) 1100 ml/min (4) 1400 ml/min (4) Uric acid - Reptiles, Birds
10. Which of the following part of nephron can be 16. Study the diagram given below and match the
termed as the concentrating segment of loop of hormones given in column I with areas of the
Henle? nephron that the following hormones target and
their actions given in column II
(1) PCT
:77$3$(&* 677$3$(&*
(2) DCT /3&$3'"#$ /3&$3'"#$
************;<:
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle <#"5$3,#,.
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle =">5/(?.

!/8.,#$ 23"4'5/#
11. Which of the following is incorrect? %"(0"#,&$+
&,1,#$
(1) Azotemia - Accumulation of nitrogenous wastes
in the blood -'.&/#
%"(0"#,&$+
(2) Nephrology - The branch of medicine that deals -$.%$(+'() &,1,#$
#'51*"7*#""8
with the male and female urinary systems and 9$(#$?.* "7*9$(#$
the male reproductive system #""8
:.%$(+'()*
(3) Shock wave lithotripsy - A technique to #'51*"7*#""8
"7*9$(#$
remove kidney stones with high intensity
sound waves !"##$%&'()*+,%&*
!"#"$%&'("
(4) Gout - High level of uric acid in the blood
Column I Column II
12. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
ornithine cycle? a. Antidiuretic (i) Inhibits the release of renin
(1) Carbamoyl phosphate is formed by hormone from JGA and there by,
combination of ammonia, CO2 and ATP inhibits NaCl absorption by
collecting duct and reduces
(2) Carbamoyl phosphate combines with ornithine aldosterone
to form citrulline
b. Aldosterone (ii) It causes the walls of distal
(3) Arginine is hydrolysed to urea and ornithine in convoluted tubules and
presence of enzyme arginase collecting ducts in the
kidneys to become more
(4) All of these
permeable to water
13. Which of the given members are Ammonotelic? c. Atrial (iii) Induces distal convoluted
(1) Starfish, tadpole larva of frog, cartilaginous fish natriuretic tubule to absorb more Na+
(2) Amoeba, sponge, Hydra factor and water
(3) Crow, frog, Jelly fish (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) Sponge, cartilaginous fish, starfish (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
14. Which of the following is incorrect? 17. Angiotensinogen (an inactive peptide) is
synthesized by
(1) Xanthine - spider and penguins
(1) Juxtaglomerular cells
(2) Trimethylamine oxide - Marine bony fish (2) Liver
(3) Hippuric acid - Birds (3) Kidney
(4) All of these (4) The walls of atria
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Excretory Products and their Elimination 407
18. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. part of the nephron 22. Angiotensinogen, an inactive plasma protein is
and the function associated with it. synthesized in _________
(1) Proximal convoluted – Reabsorption of (1) Liver
tubule HCO3– and
(2) Kidneys
selective secretion
of hydrogen ions, (3) Juxtaglomerular cells
ammonia and (4) Adrenal cortex
potassium ions
23. The embryo of chick removes the nitrogenous
(2) Ascending limb of – Impermeable to waste material in the form of
loop of Henle water but allows the
(1) Ammonia
transport of electrolytes
(2) Uric acid
(3) Descending limb of – Permeable to water
loop of Henle but impermeable to (3) Urea
electrolytes (4) Ammonia and uric acid
(4) Distal convoluted – Reabsorption of
24. Which of the following is not the accessary
tubule HCO3– and selective excretory function of skin in human beings?
secretion of Na+ in
the presence of (1) Sweat is an aqueous fluid with 99.5%
aldosterone containing NaCl, lactic acid, urea, amino acids
and glucose
19. What would happen to some patients in whom the
formation of uric acid is abnormally enhanced by (2) The principal function of sweat is the
metabolic defects or its urinary elimination evaporative cooling of the body surface
becomes defective? (3) Sebum keeps the skin oily and eliminates
A. The patient can develop gouty arthritis some lipids, waxes, sterols, hydrocarbons and
fatty acids
B. Uric acid can get deposited in the renal
tubules and lead to kidney failure (4) Some amount of ammonia is excreted into the
surrounding medium by diffusion
C. It will cause a condition called as uraemia and
haemodialysis would be required 25. The cells of renal tubule excrete additional wastes
from the blood stream into the filtrate by the
D. It can get deposited in joints and cartilages
process of secretion - tubular secretion. Which of
(1) A only (2) A and B the following statement is not true w.r.t tubular
(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D secretion?
20. Birds cannot excrete urine as hypertonic as the (1) Plays a minor role in human kidneys
mammalian urine. Reptiles like snakes cannot form (2) Removal of selected materials from the blood
hypertonic urine. Still, these animals can of peritubular blood capillaries into the nephric
considerably reduce water loss in urine. Why? filtrate
(A) This is because their principal nitrogenous (3) It takes place by diffusion only
waste is uric acid
(4) Removal of ammonia, urea, uric acid
(B) Uric acid does not osmotically hold back any
creatinine, hippuric acid takes place by tubular
water from reabsorption
secretion
(C) Their urine is stored in the urinary bladder, and
urine volume becomes very little 26. Urea is produced in the liver by a metabolic cycle
called ornithine cycle that removes two waste
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) products from blood in liver which are
(3) (A) and (B) (4) (A), (B) and (C)
(1) Urea and carbon-dioxide
21. JGA operates a multi-hormonal RAAS. RAAS
stimulates the release of (2) Carbon-dioxide and ammonia
(1) Mineralocorticoids (2) Glucocorticoids (3) Ammonia and urea

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Atrial natriuretic factor (4) Ammonia and uric acid
27. After consuming beer and alcohol there is increase 33. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. shark and
in the rate of urine flow because coelacanth
(1) They inhibit Na+ reabsorption (1) They reduce osmoregulatory challenges by
(2) They inhibit secretion of ADH accumulation of urea and osmolytes
(3) They inhibit the action of aldosterone (2) They are slightly hyperosmotic to sea water
due to retention of urea and TMAO
(4) They inhibit the absorption of potassium
28. Marine water teleosts remove the nitrogenous (3) They maintain far higher concentration of
waste mainly in the form of inorganic ions in the body fluid
(1) Ammonia (4) Urea and TMAO act as osmolytes

(2) TMAO (Trimethyl amino oxide) 34. Which of the following character is not applicable
to cortical nephron in human kidney?
(3) Urea and TMAO
(4) Uric acid (1) More common (85 percent)
29. Which of the following statements is not true? (2) Short loop of Henle
(1) The primary stimulus for ADH secretion is an (3) Glomeruli in outer cortex
increase in the osmolality of the blood plasma (4) Very well developed vasa recta
(2) Guano contains high concentration of urate
35. Which of the following character can't be related to
crystals and uric acid
juxtamedullary nephron in human kidney?
(3) Loop of Henle is mainly responsible for
(1) About 15 percent of total nephrons
concentration of urine
(4) Aldosterone is produced by the hypothalamus (2) Glomeruli lie close to inner margin of cortex
in response to high levels of sodium ions in the (3) Smaller in size
blood
(4) Have vasa-recta
30. Which of the following is correct about juxta
medullary nephrons? 36. In which part of nephron obligatory reabsorption of
water takes place?
(1) They lack vasa recta
(1) PCT
(2) They are about 85% of the nephrons
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Their glomeruli is in outer cortex
(4) They have long loops of Henle and are placed (3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
deep into the medulla (4) DCT
31. All the following statements about micturition are 37. Which of the following is released in response to
correct but one is wrong, which one is wrong? an increase in blood volume and pressure?
(1) Micturition is under the control of (1) Renin
parasympathetic nervous system
(2) Angiotensin II
(2) During this process detrusor muscles of the
bladder contract and internal sphincter (3) Aldosterone
muscles relax (4) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) During micturition external sphincter muscles
38. Ionocytes in the gill membrane of fresh water fish
also relax to void out urine
are meant for
(4) During micturition the sympathetic nervous
(1) Actively eliminating excess of monovalent ions
system causes relaxation of detrusor muscles
and constriction of internal sphincter (2) Actively import Na+ and Cl– from surrounding
32. During the course of urine formation filtrate move water
how many times between cortex and medulla? (3) Passively absorb Na+ and Cl– from surrounding
(1) One time (2) Two times water
(3) Three times (4) Four times (4) Passively eliminate Na+ and Cl– ions
39. Which of the following correctly defines the net 44. About 125 ml of glomerular filtrate is formed by the
filtration pressure in the glomerulus / kidney? kidneys per minute. Out of this, approximately how
(1) GHP + CHP – BCOP much volume goes out as urine?
(2) GHP – (CHP + BCOP) (1) 0.5 ml (2) 1 ml
(3) GHP + BCOP – CHP (3) 12 ml (4) 120 ml
(4) BCOP – (GHP + CHP) 45. Cells of PCT are provided with microvilli for the
absorption of most of the contents of glomerular
40. Which of the following labelled parts of nephron
filtrate. Which of these contents is not at all
called as the diluting segment?
reabsorbed in PCT?
(1) Amino acids (2) Vitamin C
(3) Urea (4) Creatinine
!
46. Volume of urine is regulated by
(1) ADH (2) Aldosterone
$ (3) RAAS (4) All of these
" 47. Animals which retain urea in their body fluids to
prevent the loss of water from the body are
# (1) Elasmobranch fishes (2) Teleosts
(3) Tadpoles (4) Adult amphibians
48. Benzoic acid found in the food of the mammals is
excreted out in the form of
(1) A (2) B (1) Ornithuric acid
(3) C (4) D (2) Hippuric acid
41. Urea is produced in the liver by ornithine cycle, (3) Glutamic acid
completed into different steps like (4) Uric acid
a. Formation of citrulline 49. Malfunctioning of the kidneys can lead to
b. Formation of arginosuccinic acid accumulation of urea in blood, a condition
called ______
c. Formation of carbamoyl phosphate
d. Formation of fumaric acid (1) Dysuria (2) Renal calculi
e. Hydrolysis of arginine by the enzyme arginase (3) Anuria (4) Uremia
Mark the correct sequence 50. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) c, b, a, d, ex (2) c, a, d, b, e (1) Angiotensin II is involved in enhancing
(3) c, a, b, d, e (4) b, a, c, d, e reabsorption of Na+ in DCT of the nephron.
42. Osmoconformers are those animals which (2) Loop of Henle is largely responsible for
(1) Change the osmolarity of their body fluids concentrating urine
according to the osmolarity of the medium in (3) Ionocytes are main structures for elimination of
which they live monovalent ions from the body fluids of an
(2) Do not actively control osmotic concentration osmoregulatory marine fish
of their body fluids (4) Arginase enzyme catalyzes the step involving
(3) Include all marine invertebrates, some conversion of ornithine to urea
freshwater invertebrates and Hagfish 51. Which of the following parts of the nephric tubule
(4) All of these are correct is incorrectly matched regarding osmotic
concentration of filtrate in it?
43. Ornithine cycle removes two waste products from
the blood in liver. These are (1) PCT - Isotonic
(1) CO2, urea (2) Bowman’s capsule - Hypotonic
(2) NH3, urea (3) Thick part of ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) CO2, NH3 - Hypotonic
(4) Urea, uric acid (4) Descending limb of loop of Henle - Hypertonic
52. Podocytes are cells of !

(1) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
(2) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule !%1&-.$%2&%-1$%
(3) Endothelial lining of glomerulus #$%&% "
(4) Cortex part of kidneys !%1&-.$%2&%
53. What will happen if stretch receptors of urinary 3.&45*).&-%
bladder stop functioning?
!'($%)*+,-(.$/
(1) Urine formation in nephrons decreases
(2) Urinary bladder stops collecting urine
+0
(3) Micturition will continue
(1) A – Kidney, B – Liver, C – Aldosterone
(4) Micturition will stop
(2) A – Kidney, B – Prorennin, C – Adrenaline
54. Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation
(3) A – Liver, B – Prorennin C – ANF
of urea in blood, a condition called " . In
such patient urea can be removed by a process (4) A – Liver, B – Kidney, C – Aldosterone
called # . During the process of $ , 59. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option from choices given below
the blood drained from a convenient artery is
A. Angiotensin II reduces GFR
pumped into a dialysing unit called % .
B. Atrial natriuretic factor increases GFR
In the given paragraph, which of the following two
blanks correctly fill with same word? (1) Only A is correct
(1) a and b (2) b and c (2) Only B is correct
(3) a and c (4) a and d (3) Both A and B are correct

55. The maintenance of concentration gradient in the (4) Both A and B are incorrect
medullary interstitium is mainly done by 60. The table given below shows the salinity of fresh
(1) Glucose and Na+ water, salt water, and the body fluids of fish. Use
(2) NaCl and Urea the table to answer the questions that follows
(3) Amino acids and creatinine !"#$%$&'()*(+"&,-("%.(/$01(2).'(/#3$.0

!"#$%$&'()* !"#$%$&'()* !"#$%$&'()*
(4) Na+ and Ca2+
*-,01(4"&,- 0,"(4"&,- 5).'(*#3$.0
56. ADH, apart from facilitating water reabsorption from
/-,01(4"&,- 6(789: ; 78<=9:
DCT and collecting tubules, also *$01
(1) Constrict the walls of blood vessels !"#&(4"&,- ; ?8@: 78<(&)(98>:
(2) Promotes diuresis *$01
(3) Stimulates dilation of arterioles What tendency will the osmoregulatory fresh water
(4) Stops RAAS fish and the salt water fish have in a fresh water
environment and salt water environment
57. If an osmoconformer is placed in sea water respectively?
(1) It will develop ionocytes to actively absorb (1) Lose water and salts, lose water and salts
salts from outside
(2) Take in water and salts, take in water and
(2) It will develop thick body cover to prevent entry salts
of excess of water
(3) Take in water and lose salts, lose water and
(3) It will start passing dilute urine take in salts
(4) It will change osmolarity of its body (4) Decrease and increase the salinity of body
58. Identify the organs/chemicals labelled as A, B and fluids respectively to make it equal to
C in the given flow chart surrounding water
61. Given below are four statements A–D, each with a !
blank. Select the option which correctly fills up the
blanks in any two statements
A. The narrower diameter of efferent renal arteriole "
compared to the afferent arteriole contributes to
generation of !!!"#$!!! .
B. A comparison of the volume of the filtrate #

formed per day with the amount of urine
released suggests that nearly !!!"#$!!! of the
filtrate has to be reabsorbed from the renal
tubules
C. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the
$
heart can cause the release of !!!"#$!!!
D. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to
release !!!"#$!!! which can increase the p q r s
glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR (1) NH3 NaCl H+ Urea
back to normal
(2) H+ NaCl Water NaCl
(1) A (i) – Blood colloidal osmotic pressure
(3) H+ NaCl Water Urea
B (i) – 90%
(2) B (i) – 99% (4) NH3 Water NaCl !"#!
C (i) – Renin 65. The kidneys have built in mechanism for the
(3) A (i) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure regulation of glomerular filtration rate. One such
efficient mechanism is carried out by
C (i) – ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). JGA is a special
(4) C (i) – Renin sensitive region formed by
D (i) – ANF A. Afferent arteriole before it divides to form

glomerulus
62. Renal portal system is very well developed in
(1) Vertebrates B. Cellular modifications in distal convoluted
tubule where it is in contact with afferent
(2) Tetrapods arteriole
(3) Anamniotes C. Macula densa cells
(4) Amniotes
D. Glomerulus
63. What is the osmolarity of blood in the hair pin loop
(1) A only
of vasa recta?
(1) 300 mosmL–1 (2) A & B
(2) 600 mosmL–1 (3) A, B & C
(3) 800 mosmL–1 (4) A, B, C & D

(4) 1200 mosmL–1 66. Study the diagram given below which represents
reabsorption and secretion of major substances at
64. Following figure represents reabsorption and
secretion of major substances at different parts of different parts of the nephron. Which of the
the nephron. Certain substances have been following labelled parts plays a role in the
labelled as p, q, r, s. Select from the options the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of the blood
correct set of these substances. by the selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions?
!"#$%&'()*#+,#(-./0).-1-(/ 2%3.'()*#+,#(-./0).-1-(/ (3) Atrial SA node Causes

Natriuretic vasodilation
4
Factor (ANF) and thereby
! decreases
blood
6-94";
pressure
!"#$"%&'%( 12'$3,#"(*"%4
)'*+,-.,)--/ -.,5#$"%&'%( 5 (4) Angiotensin JG-Cells Powerful
-.,0"%)" )'*+
6 (II) Vasoconstrictor,
7
6-))"$4'%( increases
&7$4
glomerular
12'%,#"(*"%4 blood
-.,5#$"%&'%(,)'*+
<"&7))5 pressure and
thereby GFR
89"5
0 !: 69. Which of the following events occurs in the
descending limb of loop of Henle?
(1) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are
Choose the correct options reabsorbed by this segment
(1) P and Q (2) It is permeable to water but almost
(2) Q and R impermeable to electrolytes. This concentrates
the filtrate as it moves down
(3) P and R
(3) Reabsorption of HCO3– and selective secretion
(4) P and S
of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to
67. Which of the following statements is not correct maintain the pH
about vasa recta?
(4) It is impermeable to water but allows the
(1) It is the branch of efferent arteriole present transport of electrolytes actively or passively
along juxtamedullary nephrons 70. In which of the following, protonephridia or flame
(2) It acts like a counter current multiplier during cells are the excretory structures?
osmoregulation process A : Platyhelminthes, Planaria
(3) NaCl and urea enter vasa recta passively B : Cephalochordates, Amphioxus
(4) Vasa recta maintain the medullary C : Aschelminthes - Ascaris
hyperosmolarity
(1) Only A (2) A & B
68. Regarding regulation of kidney function, select the
correct matching of a hormone, its source and (3) A, B & C (4) Only C
functions 71. Given below are four statements (A-D), each with
Hormone Source Functions one or two blanks. Select the option which
correctly fills up the blanks
(1) Vasopressin Neurohypophysis Facilitates
water A. !"# are insoluble masses of crystallised
reabsorption salts formed within the kidneys
and causes B. !"# in the visceral layer of the Bowman’s
diuresis capsule are modified simple squamous cells
(2) Aldosterone Adrenal cortex Causes C. !"# is the site for obligatory reabsorption
reabsorption of
of water and !""# is the site for facultative
Na+ and water
from DCT, reabsorption of water
increases D. On an average, !"# g of urea is excreted
blood
out per day and !""# in urine is/are
pressure and
GFR. indicative of diabetes mellitus
(1) A (i) - renal calculi 75. Which of the following is the incorrectly matched
B (i) - Ependyma set of the organisms and type of their excretory
waste?
(2) A (i) - Renal calculi
Organisms Excretory waste
D (i) - 25-30, (ii) - Ketone bodies
(1) Bony fishes, aquatic Ammonia
(3) B (i) - Podocytes
amphibians, aquatic
C (i) - DCT (Distal convoluted tubule), (ii) PCT
(Proximal convoluted tubule) insects
(4) C (i) - PCT, (ii) - DCT (2) Terrestrial amphibians, Urea
D (i) - 17 - 40, (ii) - Albumin cartilaginous fishes
72. Given below are four statements (A-D) regarding (3) Land snails Urea
the function of the kidneys:
(4) Reptiles, birds and Uric acid
A. Kidneys help in the maintenance of ionic and
insects
acid base balance of body fluids
76. In which of the following organisms, kidneys do not
B. They help in regulation of blood pH
play any significant role in the removal of
C. They help in erythropoiesis, i.e. production of nitrogenous waste?
RBCs
(1) Amphibians (2) Cartilaginous fishes
D. They help in regulation of blood pressure and
the blood volume (3) Land snails (4) Bony fishes
Which of the above statements are correct? 77. A survey of animal kingdom presents a variety of
excretory sturctures. Which of the following is
(1) Only A (2) A & B only
matching set of organism and its excretory
(3) A, B & C only (4) A, B, C & D structure?
73. A comparison of the volume of filtrate formed per Organism Excretory structure
day (180 litres) with that of the urine released
suggests that ________ (1) Scorpions and Antennal glands
Spiders
(1) 75% of the filtrate is reabsorbed per day
(2) Cockroach Protonephridial
(2) Roughly 1/5th of the filtrate is reabsorbed per
system
day
(3) Crustaceans like Green gland
(3) Nearly 99 percent of the filtrate has to be
reabsorbed per day prawns
(4) Nearly 80 percent of the filtrate is reabsorbed (4) Amphioxus Kidney
74. All the following statements are correct except 78. During ultrafiltration, which of the following
constituents of blood plasma is not filtered into the
(1) On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is
lumen of the Bowman’s capsule?
filtered by the kidneys per minute which
(1) Glucose
!
constitute roughly "# of the blood pumped (2) Urea
$
out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute (3) Proteins
(2) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy (4) Amino acids
individual is approximately 125 ml/minute 79. The extensions of cortex between the medullary
(3) Our lungs remove large quantities of CO 2 pyramids are called
(125 ml/day) and also significant quantities of (1) Renal columns of Bellini
water per day
(2) Renal columns of Bertini
(4) The urine formed by nephrons is a light yellow
(3) Renal papillae
coloured watery fluid which is slightly acidic
(pH 6.0) and has a characteristic odour (4) Minor calyces
80. Which of the following conditions will not activate (1) A and D (2) Only A and C
the JG cells to release renin so that glomerular (3) A, B and C (4) Only B and C
blood flow and GFR come back to normal?
84. In patients suffering from renal failure, the blood
(1) Decrease in blood volume urea level rises abnormally. Which of the following
(2) Fall in Na+ ion concentration in the blood dialysis methods uses the lining of the person’s
plasma own abdominal cavity as the dialysing membrane?
(3) Rise in GFR (1) Haemodialysis (2) CAPD
(4) Fall in blood pressure (3) Peritoneal dialysis (4) Both (2) & (3)
81. The tubular epithelial cells in different segments of 85. Following is a comprehensive list of excretory
nephrons perform reabsorption either by active or organs and the wastes they remove. Choose the
passive transport. Which of the following incorrect pair
substances in the filtrate are reabsorbed by
(1) Lungs – Remove CO2 and H2O
passive transport?
(2) Sebaceous glands – Sterols, bilrubin,
(1) Glucose and Na+
vitamins
(2) Glucose and amino acids
(3) Sweat – Water, urea, NaCl,
(3) Water and nitrogenous wastes lactic acid
(4) Amino acids and Na+ (4) Kidneys – Urea, uric acid,
82. Listed below are four abnormal conditions in urine creatinine, NH4+
(a-d) and the descriptions of the conditions 86. Camels are well known for their ability to withstand
Column-I Column-II water deprivation for long periods. Which of the
(Abnormal condition) (Description) following factors are responsible for their ability to
go without water for long periods?
a. Hematuria (i) Presence of
hemoglobin in urine A. They store water in the pouches of their rumen
b. Proteinuria (ii) Presence of pus B. They lose far less water in their sweat because
cells in urine they sweat only when their body temperature
rises by as much as 6°C
c. Ketonuria (iii) Presence of blood
C. They can tolerate high blood solute
cells in urine
concentration and can survive even after losing
d. Pyuria (iv) Presence of amino one-third of their body weight due to loss of
acids in urine body water
(v) Excess of protein D. When water is not available, the camels do not
level in urine produce urine but store urea in tissues and
(vi) Presence of calculi solely depend upon metabolic water
(vii) Presence of ketone (1) Only A and B
bodies in urine (2) Only B and C
Which of the following are the correct matchings of (3) B, C and D Only
the two? (4) A, B, C and D
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(vi), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(vi), d(ii) 87. What is the function of lonocytes or chloride cells
(3) a(iii), b(v), c(vi), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(v), c(vii), d(ii) in the gill membranes of fresh water fish?
83. Under which of the following conditions, appreciable (1) They help to eliminate excess monovalent ions
amount of glucose may appear in the urine? from the body fluids passively
A. Diabetes mellitus not controlled. (2) They can import Na+ and Cl– ions actively from
B. Glucose concentration in the blood plasma is the surrounding water
above 180 mg/dl (3) They help to eliminate the divalent cations like
C. Glucose concentration of the blood exceeds Mg2+
the renal threshold value of glucose
(4) They can import Na+ and Cl– ions passively
D. Diabetes insipidus from the surrounding water
88. Which of the following substances is normally not 93. When the parasympathetic system is activated, it
excreted during urine formation? results in
(1) K+ (2) H+ (1) Contraction of detrusor muscles and external
(3) Ammonia (4) Glucose sphincter muscles
89. During counter current mechanism, interstitial (2) Relaxation of detrusor muscles and external
medullary concentration can be increased upto sphincter muscles
4 times due to
(3) Contraction of detrusor muscles and relaxation
a. Active pumping of salts from the upper part of of internal sphincter
the ascending limb
(4) Relaxation of detrusor muscles and contraction
b. Passive diffusion of salts from the lower part of of external sphincter
the ascending limb
94. Which one of the following statements w.r.t.
c. Passive diffusion of Na+ and Cl– from thick excretion by human kidneys is incorrect?
segment of the ascending limb
(1) Reabsorption in Henle’s loop is minimum
d. Active secretion of Na+ and Cl– into the thin
segment of the tubule (2) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
takes place in DCT
(1) a, b, c & d
(2) a & b (3) Collecting duct plays a role in the maintenance
of pH and ionic balance of blood by the
(3) b & c selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions
(4) a only (4) An increase in blood flow to the atria of the
90. All the following statements about PCT (Proximal heart can cause the release of renin
Convoluted Tubule) are correct, except
95. Which of the following is the first compound to be
(1) PCT is lined by columnar brush bordered synthesized in the Kreb’s Hanseleit cycle?
epithelium
(1) Citrulline
(2) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by this segment (2) Carbamoyl phosphate
(3) PCT maintains the pH and ionic balance of (3) Arginosuccinate

body fluids (4) Fumarate
(4) In PCT, selective secretion of hydrogen ions,
96. Which of the following can produce urea and
ammonia and potassium ions takes place
retain a good amount of it in the blood as a major
91. Which of the following physiological changes is osmolyte to balance the osmolarity of body fluids
not associated with Renin – Angiotensin- with the surrounding water?
Aldosterone System?
(1) Fresh water teleosts
(1) Increase in GFR
(2) Coelocanth
(2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Marine sharks
(3) Increase in blood aldosterone level
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Increase in tubular secretion
97. Dehydration increases the plasma concentration of
92. If an osmoconformer animal is shifted from
freshwater to marine environment, it will result in all the following hormones except
(1) Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells (1) Aldosterone
(2) Increase in the level of Antidiuretic hormone (2) Renin
(3) Both (1) & (2) to regulate body osmolarity (3) Vasopressin
(4) Change in the osmolarity of body fluids (4) Atrial-natriuretic-factor
98. The processes of urea formation from excess amino 101. Which of the following is incorrect match w.r.t.
acids and bile pigments formation from Hb of animals and their main nitrogenous wastes?
degenerating RBCs occur in Animal Main
(1) Liver nitrogenous
waste
(2) Liver and Kidneys respectively
(1) Bony fish, aquatic amphibians – Ammonia
(3) Liver and Spleen respectively and aquatic insects
(4) Kidneys and Liver respectively (2) Marine fishes, terrestrial – Urea
amphibians and mammals
99. Why do we pass more urine during winters and
(3) Land snails – Urea
wet seasons?
(4) Reptiles, birds and insects – Uric acid
(1) Increased ADH secretion
102. All the following statements are correct, but one is
(2) Increased activity of kidneys wrong. Which one is wrong?
(3) Decreased H2O reabsorption by PCT (1) A comparison of the filtrate formed per day with
that of the urine released suggest that nearly
(4) Reduced sweating 99 percent of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the
renal tubules
100. Given below are four statements (A to D) with one
or two blanks. Select the option which correctly (2) An adult human excretes, on an average
fills up the blanks in the two statements. 180 litres of urine per day
(3) Reabsorption in loop of Henle is minimum
A. On an average, !!!!"#!!! of blood is filtered by
(4) The ascending limb is impermeable to water
kidneys per minute which constitute roughly but allows transport of electrolytes actively or
!!!!""#!!! of the blood pumped out by each passively
ventricle of the heart in a minute. 103. Reabsorption and secretion of substances occur in
different parts of nephron. So, selective secretion of
B. The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called K+ and H+ ions takes place in
!!!!"#!!! are arranged in an intricate manner so
a. PCT
as to leave some minute spaces called as
b. DCT
filtration slits.
c. Collecting duct
C. The descending limb of loop of Henle is !!!!"#!!! d. Loop of Henle
to water but almost !!!!""#!!! to electrolytes. (1) a & b
D. Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (2) a & c

like oxalates formed within the kidney as (3) a, b, c & d
!!!!"#!!! . (4) a, b & c
(1) A: (i) 700 ml, (ii) 1/5th 104. A survey of animal kingdom presents a variety of
excretory structures. Which of the following is an
B: (i) Podocytes incorrect match w.r.t. animals and their excretory
structures?
(2) C: (i) Impermeable, (ii) Permeable
Animal Excretory structure
D: (i) Renal calculi
(1) Amphioxus – Pronephric kidney
(3) A: (i) 1100 to 1200 ml, (ii) 1/5th
(2) Earthworm – Nephridia
C: (i) Permeable, (ii) Impermeable (3) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules
(4) B: (i) Podocyte (4) Crustacean – Antennal glands
D: (i) Glomerulonephritis e.g. prawn
105. Find the odd one out w.r.t. high threshold (3) Four times concentrated than the filtrate found
substances in PCT
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acids (4) Two times concentrated than the filtrate found
in DCT
(3) Creatinine (4) Both (1) & (2)
109. JGA in kidney operates a multihormonal Renin-
106. Fill in the blanks in different columns of the table Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) for
given below w.r.t. regulation of kidney function. regulation of Kidney function. Which of the following
!"#$"%& '()*"#+, '.%)*-"% is not the function of Angiotensin II?
+*-$./(*-%0,
-*+,#&/&(+& (1) Activation of adrenal cortex to release
!"# 1 $%&'()'**"+' 71'+'%3*&0"/1'*"*&
aldosterone
,-**&-.&.,/"0& 8%0&)8/*'*&
.1-2&34'&5-06 "%)1'8*'&
(2) Increase in glomerular blood pressure
"%&5,--0&91'**/1'
(3) Inhibition of NaCl reabsorption by PCT
!""# :'%"% 2 ;-%+'13*&
8%<"-3'%*"%-<'%& (4) Vasoconstriction
"%&5,--0&3-&
8%<"-3'%*"%&= 110. Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many
!"""# 3 $%&"%)1'8*'& ?8*-0",83"-%@& metabolic disorders as well as malfunctioning of
"%&5,--0&.,->& 0')1'8*'&"%& kidney. Given below are some disorders
3-&831"8 5,--0
91'**/1'& a. Glycosuria b. Ketonuria
!"+# $%<"-3'%*"%&== A8,,&"%&BC7C& 4
8%0&5,--0&
c. Haematuria d. Proteinuria
+-,/2'
Choose the correct option which indicates
disorders of diabetes mellitus if not controlled?
The correct option for all the four blanks is
(1) a only
A B C D
(2) a & b only
(1) !"#"$" %&'()*+),-&, !56 78-43/*8)+,
./001,20/34) ()/)*+),09 (3) a, b & c only
*/10+8)(0&)
(4) a, b, c & d
(2) !"#$ +*,'("#(-)*- 234 !"#$%
%&'(##)* ./$$0-&'(##1'( ,$*#5'),5$' 111. During micturition, the contraction of detrusor
muscles of urinary bladder is under the control of
(3) !"# $%&&'()' !3$ 4%5+6
*&+,-./&%.' 7+)58.(78+. (1) Sympathetic nerve
0121
(2) Parasympathetic nerve
(4) !"#$ +*,'("#(-)*- 456 !"#$%
%&'(##)* ./$$0-1$/23(- 0)"/"7$'
(3) Pudendal nerve upon stimulation
"*0-./$$0- (4) Pudendal nerve upon inhibition
&'(##2'(-
112. Glomerular filtration rate in a healthy individual is
107. Marine water teleosts remove the nitrogenous approximately 180 litres per day. How much is the
waste mainly in the form of GFR per minute?
(1) Ammonia (2) TMAO (1) 75 ml
(3) Urea (4) Uric acid (2) 1.5 litre
108. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa (3) 12.5 ml
recta, as well as counter current in them help in
(4) 125 ml
maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the
inner medullary interstitium from 300 mosmL–1 in 113. Which of the following inhibits the secretion of
cortex, the osmolarity of the glomerular filtrate in ADH?
the hair pin loop of Henle is about
(1) Reduced osmolarity of blood
(1) Two times concentrated than the filtrate found (2) ANF
in PCT
(3) Angiotensin II
(2) Four times concentrated than the filtrate found
in DCT (4) More than one option is correct
114. Select the feature not applicable to nephrons 118. In response to an increase in blood pressure,
(1) Each kidney has nearly 1 million complex Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is released to inhibit
tubular nephrons renin from JGA. ANF is released from
(2) Henle loop and vasa recta play important role (1) Kidney
as counter current mechanism (2) Ventricle of heart
(3) Reabsorption of water in Henle’s loop is (3) Atria of heart
minimum
(4) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
(4) During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete
substances like HCO 3 – , glucose, Cl – into 119. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with
filtrate one or two blanks. Select the option which
correctly fills up the blank
115. Find the incorrect statement
(1) Osmoreceptors are activated by changes in A. !!!!!!"#$!!!!! is a condition of accumulation of
blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic
urea in blood which is highly harmful and may
concentration
lead to kidney failure.
(2) A fall in GFR activate JG cells to release
B. Ultimate method in correction of acute renal
rennin enzyme
(3) ANF can cause vasodilation so can decrease failures is !!!!!!"##$!!!!! .
blood pressure
C. PCT is the site for !!!!!!"###$!!!!! water
(4) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and reabsorption where as DCT is the site for
water from distal parts of the tubule !!!!!!"#$%!!!!! water reabsorption.
116. Which of the following labelled parts in the given
figure is/are involved in pH and ionic balance of the D. The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called
body fluids by selective secretion of hydrogen !!!!!!"#$!!!!! are arranged in an intricate manner
ions, and potassium ions into the filtrate?
so as to leave some minute spaces called
!&#$% !!!!!!"$#%!!!!! .
!"#$% '
" (1) A – (i) Uremia
B – (ii) Haemodialysis
C – (iii) Conditional
( (iv) Facultative
)
(2) C – (iii) Facultative
(iv) Obligatory
D – (v) Podocytes
(1) P & R (2) P, Q & S (vi) Filtration slits
(3) Q only (4) P, R & S (3) B – (ii) Kidney transplantation
117. Regulation of kidney function of Juxtaglomerular C – (iii) Obligatory
Apparatus (JGA) involves certain steps given
(iv) Facultative
below. Arrange them in the correct order
D – (v) Podocytes
a. Release of enzyme renin.
b. Release of aldosterone from adrenal gland. (vi) Pedicels
c. Reabsorption of Na+ and water at DCT. (4) A – (i) Uremia
d. Decrease in blood pressure and blood volume. C – (iii) Obligatory

e. Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II. (iv) Facultative
(1) a, e, b, c, d (2) b, c, a, e, d D – (v) Podocytes
(3) c, d, a, e, b (4) d, a, e, b, c (vi) Filtration slits
120. If glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 50 mm Hg, b. Urinary bladder – Detrusor muscles
blood colloidal osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg and
c. Glomerulonephritis – Albuminuria and
capsular hydrostatic pressure is 10 mm Hg then
hematuria
net filtration pressure is
d. Ketonuria – Acetone and
(1) 20 mm Hg (2) –20 mm Hg
acetoacetate formed
(3) 60 mm Hg (4) 10 mm Hg due to breakdown of
fat will pass out in
121. Find out the incorrect match with respect to type
urine
of excretory matter and the animals associated
(1) a, d only
(1) Ammonia – Hydra, tapeworm, Rohu
(2) a, b only
(2) Urea – Shark, frog, turtles
(3) b, d only
(3) Uric acid – Cockroach, crocodile,
amphibian tadpole (4) a, b, c, d
(4) Guanine – Penguins 126. The abnormal condition which is related to
122. Following is a tabular representation of differences glomerulonephritis is
between Juxtamedullary and Cortical nephron. (1) Phenylketonuria
Find out the correct difference
(2) Uremia
!"#$%&" 0%1$#2"3%++#&4 '(&$)*#+,
-"./&(- -"./&(- (3) Glycosuria
!"# !"#$ !;4,,$. %4.5$.
(4) Albuminuria
!$# %&&'(&)( %&+5$. !6&.3
*$+,$ 127. If the filtration fraction is 10% and the GFR is
!%# -.$/$+0$ ?89(&)(3&34,( 789(&)(3&34,( 100 ml / min, what is the renal plasma flow?
+$'6.&+/ +$'6.&+/
(1) 10 ml / min
!&# 12+03"&+ :&+3.&,(',4/;4( :&+3.&,(',4/;4(
<&,2;$(=6$+( <&,2;$(=6$+( (2) 1000 ml / min
=43$.(/2'',>("/( =43$.(/2'',>("/(
+&.;4, /6&.3 (3) 1200 ml / min
123. Ornithuric acid is a specialised product in birds (4) 1800 ml / min
which is formed by combination of
128. In response to decrease in blood volume and blood
(1) Benzoic acid and ornithine pressure in the afferent arteriole of glomerulus,
(2) Ornithine and citrulline which of the following will not help in raising the
glomerular blood pressure and maintaining the
(3) Ornithine and glycine GFR?
(4) Arginine and ornithine (1) The constriction of efferent arteriole
124. In the retroperitoneal arrangement of kidney (2) Release of aldosterone hormone which induces
(1) Peritoneum cover is present only on the the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb more
ventral side Na+ and water
(2) Peritoneum cover is present only on the (3) Decreased resistance in afferent arterioles
dorsal side
(4) Decreased secretion of ADH
(3) Peritoneum cover is present on both dorsal
129. By-products of steroid hormones are removed
and ventral side
by ________ while elimination of hydrocarbons
(4) Peritoneum cover is neither on the dorsal side is done by ________
nor on the ventral side
(1) Kidneys, lungs
125. Which of the following match is/are correct?
(2) Liver, sebaceous glands
a. Renal columns of – Penetration of cortex into
Bertini medulla in the regions (3) Liver, sweat glands
between the pyramids (4) Saliva, Kidneys
7. A : Beer and alcohol are diuretic substances.

SECTION - B
R : They inhibit the release of ADH from the
Assertion - Reason Type Questions posterior lobe of pituitary.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 8. A : In hemodialysis, blood from radial artery is
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) connected into dialysing unit after adding
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the heparin.
R : Dialysing unit contains a coiled cellophane tube
surrounded by a fluid having the same
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the composition as that of plasma except
reason is not the correct explanation of the nitrogenous wastes.
9. A : Juxtamedullary nephrons are associated with
counter current mechanism.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Peritubular capillaries are not present around
statements, then mark (4). cortical nephrons.
1. A : We generally excrete more urine in winter than 10. A : Atrial wall of heart secretes an important
in summer. peptide hormone called Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(ANF) which increases blood pressure.
R : In winters loss of water from body surface
through sweat is reduced. R : It causes constriction of blood vessels which
2. A : Consumption of alcohol may induce polyuria in raises the blood pressure.
a normal person. 11. A : In liver, toxic ammonia is converted into much
R : Alcohol increases ultrafiltration from the less toxic urea which is excreted in urine.
Bowman's capsule. R : Urea is produced in the liver by a metabolic
3. A : RAAS mechanism is involved in Na + ion cycle called as ornithine cycle.
regulation of the body. 12. A : Chick embryo removes the nitrogenous waste
R : RAAS mechanism becomes active in in the form of uric acid, which precipitates out
conditions of less Na+ is blood plasma. of the solution and can be stored in the shell
4. A : A person taking large amount of proteins in his as solid waste.
diet excretes more urea. R : Highest concentration of urea is found in renal
R : A person on starvation will have more urea in vein.
his blood.
13. A : A number of drugs as well as alcohol suppress
5. A : PCT is the major site of obligatory water ADH secretion, resulting in increased urinary
reabsorption. flow.
R : PCT absorb maximum amount of water R : After deprivation of water, the blood becomes
passively.
hypertonic and the osmoreceptors stimulate
6. A : In some patients, if the formation of uric acid ADH secretion.
is abnormally enhanced by metabolic defects,
they consequently develop gout and kidney 14. A : Maximum water reabsorption is seen in distal
failure. convoluted tubule of nephron under the
presence of antidiuretic hormone.
R : Uric acid being insoluble in water gets
deposited in soft tissues including joints, R : ADH from the posterior pituitary enhances
cartilages and kidneys. uptake of Na+ in DCT.
!" !" !
Chapter 5
Locomotion and Movement
4. All the statements regarding muscle fibres are

SECTION - A correct except one. Select the wrong statement
(1) Tropomyosin is formed by the polymerisation of
1. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of globular protein and is wrapped around the
vertebral column F-actin
(2) During relaxation of muscle, the troponin
! component masks the active sites for the
myosin head
(3) The duration of twitch can vary in different
muscles fibres
"
(4) The globular head is an active Mg2+ dependent
ATPase enzyme
# 5. Following is a diagrammatic view of human skull

with certain labelled bones
!"#
$
!,# !$#
Which of the labelled structure forms thoracic !%#

!+#
cage? !&#
(1) A (2) B !*# !'#
(3) C (4) D !(#
2. Which one of the following disorder of bones is !)#

characterised by microarchitectural deterioration of Among these which of them are unpaired bones?
the bone, increased fragility and proneness to
fracture? (1) b, c, f, g, h (2) a, d, e, i, j
(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Gouty arthritis (3) c, d, e, f, g, j (4) a, b, c, d, i, j
(3) Osteoporosis (4) Rheumatoid arthritis 6. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
3. In rib case, which of the following set of ribs second class lever?
remain attached to each other? (1) Resistance is at one end and fulcrum in middle
(1) 2nd, 3rd and 4th pairs of the ribs (2) Resistance is in middle and fulcrum, effort on
(2) 4th, 5th and 6th pairs of the ribs different end
(3) 7th, 8th and 9th pairs of the ribs (3) Effort is in middle and resistance at one end
(4) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of the ribs (4) All of these
422 Locomotion and Movement Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. Find the incorrect match 14. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. muscle
contraction?
(1) Procoelous – Typical vertebrae of frog
(1) Sarcoplasmic membrane contains active
(2) Acoelous – IX vertebrae of frog
transport pump for Ca+2
(3) Amphicoelous – Vertebrae of mammals (2) Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Opisthocoelus – Vertebrae of urodela combines with tropomyosin
8. How many unpaired bones are present with the (3) Increase in Ca 2+ concentration in the
cranium? sarcoplasm causes increased contraction
(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) Muscle action potential travels along the
sarcolemma and into the transverse tubule
(3) 3 (4) 8
system
9. Arrange the events during muscle contraction in 15. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
correct order.
(1) Sarcomere are separated from each other by
a. Acto-myosin complex synthesis Krause line
b. Release of neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) at (2) I-band appears dark under the light microscope
the neuromuscular junction
(3) In isotonic contraction, tension remains the
c. Pumping of Ca2+ into sarcoplasmic cisternae same while change occurs in the length of the
d. Sliding of actin filaments over myosin muscle fibres
e. Release of Ca2+ into sarcoplasm (4) Masseter muscle is the strongest muscle in
human body
(1) b, c, e, a, d (2) e, b, a ,d, c
(3) b, e, a, d, c (4) a, b, e, d, c
(1) Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle leads to
10. Type of joint present between sternum and clavicle pain
is
(2) During Cori’s cycle, 4/5 of lactic acid is
(1) Gliding (2) Saddle converted back into glucose
(3) Pivot (4) Amphiarthroses (3) Tetany is hyperexcitability of muscles which
11. Atlanto-occipital joint is an example of results in cramps and convulsions
(4) As the nerve impulse reaches the skeletal
(1) Hinge joint (2) Condyloid
muscle fibre, the sarcolemma becomes
(3) Pivot (4) Gliding impermeable to Na+
12. Which of the following includes non-muscular 17. Which of the following bone is unpaired?
movement?
(1) Mandible (2) Zygomatic
(a) Protoplasmic streaming
(3) Nasal (4) Palatine
(b) Pseudopodial movements
18. Acromian process is related to
(c) Flagellar movements
(1) Scapula (2) Humerus
(d) Ciliary movement
(3) Femur (4) Tibia
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
19. In which type of lever, resistance is in middle and
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d) fulcrum and resistance are at ends?
13. Which of the following is mismatched? (1) First class lever (2) Second class lever
(1) Protractor muscle - Projects the lower jaw, (3) Third class lever (4) Fourth class lever
tongue and head forward
20. Which of the following joint is a type of saddle
(2) Flexor - Contracts to bring one articulating joint?
bone close to the other
(1) Joint between metacarpal of thumb and carpals
(3) Abductor - Contracts to draw a bone towards
(2) Joint between radio ulna and carpals
the body midline of body
(3) Metacarpophalangeal joints
(4) Supinator - Contracts to rotate the forearm to
turn the palm upwards and forwards (4) Between sternum and clavicle
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Locomotion and Movement 423
21. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. red 25. All the ribs are attached to
muscle fibre when compared to white muscle
(1) Sternum (2) Vertebral column
fibres?
(1) They are thin and dark red (3) Clavicle (4) Ilium
(2) They are rich in mitochondria and sarcoplasmic 26. Which of the following joint is present between the
reticulum tarsal bones in the ankle?
(3) They have slow rate of contraction (1) Hinge joint
(4) They can contract for a longer period without (2) Angular joint
fatigue
(3) Gliding joint
22. Which of the following muscle is associated with
urinary bladder? (4) Ball and socket joint
(1) Detrusor (2) Dartos 27. Which of the following is a correct match between
bones / their numbers / characteristics listed?
(3) Sartorius (4) Latissimus dorsi
(1) Pisciform : 2 bones of sesamoid type in lower
23. The following diagram represents right pectoral limb of appendicular skeleton
girdle and upper arm. The letters a, b, c and d
represent which bones? (2) Axis and Atlas: Ellipsoid joint where synovial
fluid acts as lubricating agent
!"#
(3) Femur and Tibia: Hinge joint as found between
humerus and ulna
(4) Floating / vertebral ribs : Two bones that
possibly protect the gall bladder ventrally
28. In the dig. of pectoral girdle given below, which part
'%"()*" has been labelled wrongly
!$#
!%#
!&#
+",("*-
./0"%",("*-
12"*"34/-
(1) a : Acromion process b : Humerus,

c : Radius, d : Ulna (1) Coracoid process
(2) a : Clavicle, b : Humerus, (2) Spine
c : Radius, d : Ulna (3) Glenoid cavity
(3) a : Clavicle, b : Humerus, (4) Supra spinous fossa

29. Which of the following is major inorganic
c : Ulna, d : Radius
component of muscle?
(4) a : Clavicle, b : Femur,
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium
c : Radius, d : Ulna (3) Sodium (4) Water
24. The upper ends of the forearm bones articulate with 30. Which of the following can be taken as an example
each other in a of endochondrial bone?
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Hinge joint (1) Humerus (2) Frontal
(3) A pivot joint (4) Ellipsoid joint (3) Patella (4) Nasals
31. Excessive metabolism of nucleic acids is not 39. The disorder associated with weakness of bones,
responsible for bowed tibia, 'rosary' condition in the ribs especially
(1) Gouty arthritis seen in children is known as
(2) Deposition of uric acid in cartilages (1) Rickets (2) Osteomalacia
(3) Deposition of urate crystals in renal tubules (3) Scurvy (4) Polio
leading to kidney failure 40. Amongst the following, mark the process which
(4) Deposition of urate crystals in gall bladder can be classified as a muscle twitch
32. Which vertebra in the human spine is characterized (1) Hiccup (2) Yawning
by the presence of odontoid process? (3) Cough (4) Sneezing
(1) Atlas (2) Axis 41. In the given graph of different stages of muscle
contraction a, b and c indicates?
(3) C-7 vertebra (4) T-1 vertebra
33. The Japanese population have a variable number of
'
floating ribs as compared to other populations.
Maximum how many floating ribs are observed in &
the Japanese?
(1) 6 (2) 8 !
(3) 10 (4) 12
34. Mark the unpaired bones of the skull amongst the
following bones "#$%
(1) Vomer (2) Mandible
(3) Ethmoid (4) All of these (1) Twitch, incomplete tetanus, complete tetanus
respectively
35. Which amongst the following can be considered as
an autoimmune disease leading to weakness of (2) Incomplete tetanus, twitch, complete tetanus
muscle contraction? respectively
(1) Poliomyelitis (3) Complete tetanus, twitch and incomplete
tetanus respectively
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Complete tetanus, incomplete tetanus and
(3) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
twitch respectively
(4) Tetany
42. Which bone is formed by ossification in the tendon
36. Which of the following is not a character of white of quadriceps femoris and hence classified as a
muscle fibres when compared to red muscle fibre? sesamoid bone?
(1) Larger diameter (1) Clavicle
(2) Less blood capillaries (2) Scapula
(3) Less number of mitochondria (3) Patella
(4) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) Humerus
37. Which amongst the following muscle is responsible 43. How many vertebrae are present in a child in case
for flexion of the arm? of human beings?
(1) Biceps (2) Triceps (1) 26 (2) 33
(3) Deltoid (4) Sartorius (3) 18 (4) 42
38. Mark amongst the following a horizontally placed 44. Scoliosis and Kyphosis are conditions associated
long bone which is very susceptible to fracture with abnormal structure of which part of the body?
(1) Sternum (2) Clavicle (1) Humerus (2) Mandible
(3) Ilium (4) Pubis (3) Vertebral column (4) Patella
45. In which case amongst the following will Rigor 52 Which of the following feature will not be true w.r.t.
mortis appear earlier? hypertrophy of muscles?
(1) Soldier in the battle field (1) Number of muscle fibres increase
(2) Polar bear which died of starvation in Arctic ice (2) Number of myofilaments increase
(3) A man who died a silent death after a (3) Number of mitochondria increase
prolonged illness
(4) More development of sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) All of them will show similar time period
53. Which of the following is the longest muscle in
46. The interchange between muscle and liver lactic human body?
acid and glycogen is studied under the name of
(1) Quadriceps femoris
(1) Cori's cycle
(2) Hamstring muscle
(2) Sliding filament theory
(3) Sartorius muscle
(3) Kreb's cycle
(4) Ornithine cycle (4) Gastrocnemius muscle
47. All the muscles have the following special 54. The type of joint present between zygapophysis of
properties, except two adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column is
(1) Excitability (2) Extensibility (1) Cartilagenous (2) Gliding
(3) Autorhythmicity (4) Contractility (3) Slightly movable (4) Both (1) & (3)
48. Which of following symptom / character can't be 55. Find the incorrect statement
related to rheumatoid arthritis?
(1) Proximally tibia articulates with femur and at
(1) Inflammation of synovial membrane the distal end both tibia and fibula together
(2) ESR-high, rheumatoid factor positive articulate with talus bone
(3) Synovial membrane secrete pannus (2) Female pelvis is wider and larger than male
(4) Affects large weight bearing joints, often single (3) Muscular dystrophy is the inborn abnormality
49. A single U-shaped bone in the skull which does of muscle
not articulate with any other bone is
(4) Tibia and fibula both contribute in the formation
(1) Mandible (2) Vomer of knee joint
(3) Sphenoid (4) Hyoid 56. Which of the following do not occur at the time of
50. The costal cartilage of vertebrochondral ribs are relaxation of striped muscle?
attached with
(1) Lengthening of A band
(1) Sternum
(2) Binding of Ca++ with Troponin C
(2) Vertebrosternal rib
(3) Shortening of H zone
(3) Thoracic vertebrae
(4) All of these
(4) Not attached they are free
57. Which of the following curve of vertebral column is
51. Which of the following combination of statement is
wrong about pectoral girdle? the first one to appear after birth?
a. Scapula is a large irregular flat bone situated (1) Thoracic curve (2) Lumbar curve
in the dorsal part of the thorax between the 1st (3) Cervical curve (4) Sacral curve
and 7th ribs
58. Manubrium (handle of malleus) is attached with
b. Glenoid cavity is involved in forming a shoulder _________ and the foot plate of stapes is attached
joint
by angular ligament to wall of _________.
c. Each clavicle is a flat bone with one curvature
(1) Tympanic membrane, fenestra rotunda
d. Each half of the pectoral girdle consists of a
pair of scapula and clavicle (2) Tympanic membrane, fenestra ovalis
(1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d (3) Tympanic membrane and vestibule
(3) a, c and d (4) a and c only (4) Vestibule and incus
59. Which of the following type of vertebrae are thick, 65. Find the odd one out w.r.t. smooth muscle fibres
strongest with their neural spine directed (1) Spindle shaped fibres without striations
downward?
(2) Calmodulin is the calcium binding protein
(1) Cervical (2) Thoracic
(3) T-tubules are present close to Z-line
(3) Lumbar (4) Sacral
(4) Iris and ciliary body muscles are multi-unit
60. Actomyosin + !!!!!!"!!!!! Actin + Myosin muscles
(1) cAMP (2) ATP 66. Globular protein which blocks active sites on F-
actin when the muscle fibre is relaxed is
(3) cGMP (4) Phosphocreatine
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Meromyosin
61. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. striated
muscle fibres? (3) TpT unit of troponin (4) TpI unit of troponin
(1) A-band consists of myosin filaments and parts 67. When a stimulus several times greater than
of actin filaments threshold stimulus is provided to a muscle fibre, the
muscle fibre will
(2) Each myosin filament is surrounded by 6 actin
filaments (1) Contract with same force
(3) The calcium binding protein is calmodulin (2) Contract more forcefully
(4) T-tubules are present at the junction of A-I (3) Contract slightly
bands and are invagination of sarcolemma (4) Undergo tetany
62. All of the following muscles are antagonistic to 68. Which of the following is a slightly movable joint?
each other except
(1) Intervertebral joint
(1) Biceps and triceps
(2) Atlas-axis joint
(2) Pronators and supinators
(3) Carpo-metacarpal joint of thumb
(3) Elevators and dilators
(4) Shoulder joint
(4) Adductors and abductors
69. Which of the following is a sesamoid bone?
63. When the length of muscle fibre remains the same
but the tension increases as when we push a wall (1) Humerus (2) Clavicle
but the wall is not displaced, the phenomenon is (3) Bones of skull (4) Patella
known as
70. Which one is anatomically incorrect?
(1) Isotonic contraction (2) Isometric contraction
(1) Cranial bones : 8 in number
(3) Muscle fatigue (4) Rigor mortis
(2) Vertebro-chondral ribs : 3 pairs
64. Select the correct sequence of events involved in
contraction of striated muscles (3) Phalanges in digits : 12 in number
a. An action potential passes from the motor end (4) Floating ribs : 2 pairs
plate finally reaching the SR via T-tubules and 71. Which of the following sets of bones belongs to
stimulate release of Ca2+ ions the same part of the body?
b. Binding of energized cross-bridges to myosin (1) Occipital, frontal and ethmoid
binding sites on actins (2) Humerus, carpals and metatarsals
c. Binding of Ca2+ with TpC-unit of troponin (3) Capitate, talus and calcaneum
d. Movement of troponin-tropomyosin complex (4) Tibia, fibula and metacarpals
away from the myosin binding sites on actin
72. Find out the mismatched pair
e. Movement of the energized cross-bridges
(power stroke) causing thin filaments to slide (1) Scapula : Glenoid cavity, acromian process
along the thick filaments (2) Humerus : Deltoid ridge, trochlea
(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) a, c, b, d & e (3) Carpals : Hamate, trapezoid, capitate
(3) a, c, d, b & e (4) a, d, c, e & b (4) Innominate : Sigmoid notch, obturator foramen
73. Which of the following is not a matching pair of a 79. Study the figure given below carefully and identify
joint and its example? the joints labelled as – A, B and C
(1) Pivot joint : Between radius and ulna
'&#()"&*
(2) Hinge joint : Interphalangeal joints
>&*2?)0
(3) Fibrous joint : Between teeth and jaw '#()5@
bone
(4) Ball and : Between glenoid cavity of
socket joint pectoral girdle and head
of the femur
!"#$%&#
74. Which of the following is a degenerative joint
+%,*-%.
disease that affects articular cartilages at the
synovial joints normally in old age? A
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis 1$$*-B*20.

/#0)%.
3 ?CB-#0)%.
(2) Osteoarthritis 1&2# #20B%&2#
(3) Gouty arthritis
(4) Paget’s disease '
'#-$#&.
75. Active transport of Ca2+ ions into the sarcoplasmic 4*5#"#-$#&.
reticulum will not be associated with 9
(1) Return of Z-lines to their original position 67#&#28*.
=
(2) Increase in the I-band of sarcomere : ; <
(3) Decreases in width of O-bands of a sarcomere (1) Ball – Socket, pivotal and condyloid joints
(4) Decreases in the width of H-zone of a (2) Synovial, pivotal and saddle joints
sarcomere (3) Hinge, gliding and saddle joints
76. An autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular junction, (4) Hinge, condyloid and rotary joints
treated by acetyl cholinesterase inhibitor, is 80. Which of the following is not an example of
(1) Duchenne’s dystrophy flagellar movement?
(2) Myasthenia gravis (1) Swimming of spermatozoa
(3) Polio (2) Maintenance of water current in the canal
system of sponges
(4) Agitan’s palsy
(3) Movement of ova in fallopian tube
77. Mark the incorrect statement
(4) Locomotion in Euglena
(1) Ca 2+ play key regulatory role in muscle
contraction 81. Vertebra prominens is the term used for which
vertebra/vertebrae?
(2) Simple bending of arm is isometric contraction
(1) Last cervical vertebra
(3) The last two pairs of ribs do not participate in
breathing (2) Thoracic vertebrae
(4) Carpometacarpal joint of thumb is an example (3) Sacral vertebrae

of saddle joint (4) First lumbar vertebra
78. Which of the following is not a correct pair of 82. Pannus granules are formed in which disorder of
antagonistic muscles? bones?
(1) Biceps and Triceps (1) Bursitis
(2) Latissimus dorsi and deltoideus (2) Osteomalacia
(3) Masseter and depressor mandibularis (3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Pronator and depressor (4) Osteoporosis
83. Which of the following is mismatched regarding (1) Amoeboid movement

disorders of muscular and skeletal system? (2) Ciliary movement
(1) Myasthenia : Autoimmune disorder (3) Muscular movement only
gravis affecting neuromuscular
junction, can cause (4) Pseudopodial movement
paralysis of skeletal 89. Flexing of the arm is an example of
muscles (1) First class lever system
(2) Muscular : Progressive degeneration of (2) Second class lever system
dystrophy skeletal muscles mostly
due to genetic disorder (3) Third class lever system
(3) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle (4) This event can’t be categorized as a lever
due to low Ca2+ in body fluid system
(4) Osteoporosis : Inflammation of joints due to 90. Each myosin is surrounded by _______ actin
accumulation of uric acid filaments on either side
crystals (1) Six (2) Four
84. During hypertrophy of the muscles which of the (3) Three (4) Eight
following will not increase? 91. At the time of muscle contraction, which of the
(1) Number of myofilaments following will not occur?
(2) Number of mitochondria (1) Shortening of isotropic band
(3) Number of myofibrils (2) Shortening of Hensen’s zone
(4) Number of muscle fibres (3) Dobie’s lines come closer to each other
85. Malleolus is the part of (4) Binding of Ca++ with calsequestrin
(1) Humerus (2) Femur 92. Mark the feature which is not associated with
(3) Ulna (4) Tibia white muscle fibres
86. Which of the following is an incorrect statement (1) Lighter in colour

w.r.t. axial skeleton of humans? (2) These muscles have a fast rate of contraction
(1) A single U-shaped bone called hyoid bone is but for a short period
present at the base of the buccal cavity and it (3) They depend mainly on glycolysis for energy
is included in the skull production and soon get fatigued
(2) The skull region articulates with the superior (4) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum compared to red
region of the vertebral column with the help of muscle fibres
one occipital condyle 93. In the figure given below, A, B, C and D are
(3) Sternum is a flat bone present on the ventral
!"#$%
midline of thorax +
&$'#( /0).$%
(4) Last 2 pairs (11th
and 12th)
of ribs are not !()*#$%
connected ventrally and are therefore called
floating ribs ,-%$.
(1) Saddle joint – Between carpal and 1
metacarpal of thumb
2
(2) Ball and socket – Between humerus and
3
pectoral girdle
(3) Gliding joint – Between carpals 40.(0"(
5-6060.(0"(
(4) Cartilaginous joint – Between &*0"078-(
prezygapophyses and (1) Coxal bone, patella, fibula and tibia
post zygapophyses of
two adjacent vertebrae (2) Coxal bone, patella, tibia and fibula
88. Passage of ova through female reproductive tract is (3) Sacrum, patella, fibula and tibia
facilitated mainly by (4) Pubis, calcaneum, tibia and fibula
94. Number of T tubules per sarcomere in case of Mark the correct sequence
cardiac muscle fibres is
(1) a, c, b, d, e (2) c, b, a, d, e
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) c, a, b, e, d (4) a, b, c, d, e
(3) 3 (4) 4
101. Bones of cranium which do not allow any
95. Autorhythmicity is exhibited by movement are attached to each other by
(1) Striped muscles (2) Unstriped muscles (1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(3) Cardiac muscles (4) Both (2) & (3) (2) White fibrous connective tissue
96. Which of the following curves are not present in (3) White fibro cartilage
vertebral column at the time of birth?
(4) Synovial joints
(1) Cervical and Lumbar
102. Joint between ear ossicles are
(2) Thoracic and Sacral
(1) Immovable (synarthroses)
(3) Cervical and Sacral
(2) Slightly movable (Amphiarthroses)
(4) Thoracic and Lumbar
(3) Movable (Diarthroses)
97. Costal cartilage of vertebrochondral ribs are
attached to (4) Gomphoses
(1) Thoracic vertebrae 103. Which of the following properties is not applicable
to the myosin filaments?
(2) Sternum
(1) Slide into H-zone during muscle contraction
(3) Cartilage of 7th vertebrosternal rib
(2) Cross bridges present, hence have rough
(4) Not attached to any other bone surface
98. Mark the correct statement with respect to Myosin (3) Fewer than actin filaments
(1) Globular head part has actin binding site (4) Found only in the A-band of sarcomere
(2) Has binding site for ATP 104. Which of the following is the unpaired bone present
(3) Has light meromyosin and heavy meromyosin in the cranium?
(4) All of these (1) Parietal bone (2) Mandible
99. Extra amount of oxygen consumed during recovery (3) Temporal (4) Sphenoid
from muscle fatigue is called oxygen debt of the 105. Which of the following properties does not describe
muscle. It is used in oxidizing what percentage of rheumatoid arthritis?
accumulated lactic acid aerobically and in restoring
the depleted creatine phosphate and ATP in (1) Affects larger joints first
muscle fibre? (2) Formation of rheumatoid factor (IgM)
(1) 80% (2) 20% (3) Formation of pannus granules
(3) 40% (4) 60% (4) It is an autoimmune disorder
100. During muscle contraction, the following events 106. The correct sequence of events at the
occur neuromuscular junction is
a. Release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum a. Uptake of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminals
b. Ca++expose actins which bind to the myosin b. Action potential in the motor nerve
heads to form cross bridges
c. Release of acetyl-choline (Ach)
c. A motor neuron carries signal to the muscle
fibre which generates an action potential in it d. Depolarisation in the muscle end plate
d. Cross bridges are broken and muscle relaxes e. Interaction between Ach and Ach-specific
receptors
e. These cross bridges pull the actin filaments,
causing them to slide over the myosin (1) a, b, c, d & e (2) a, b, d, c & e
filaments and thereby casing contraction. (3) b, a, c, d & e (4) b, a, c, e & d
107. Mark the correct statement 112. Which one of the following pair of structures is
correctly matched with their correct description?
(1) Myocardial contractility increases with the
increase in concentration of Ca2+ ions Structure Description
(2) Lifting the school bag is an example of (1) Tibia and Fibula Both form parts of
isometric contraction knee joint
(3) Number of secondary curvatures in the human (2) Cartilage and cornea No blood supply but
vertebral column are three do require oxygen
for respiratory need
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed by the
presence of IgM and mainly affects the larger (3) Shoulder and elbow Ball and socket
joints in its early stages joint joint
108. Match the type of joints given in column I with their (4) Thigh bone femur Articulates with the
location given in column II glenoid cavity
Column I Column II 113. The muscle which on contraction rotates the fore-
arm to make palm face upward or forward
a. Ball and socket joint (i) Between carpal and
(1) Supinator (2) Pronator
metacarpal of thumb
(3) Abductor (4) Adductor
b. Gliding joint (ii) Between the carpals
114. During muscle contraction, which of following is
c. Saddle joint (iii) Between atlas and
incorrect?
axis
(1) Size of A-band remains of same length
d. Pivot joint (iv) Between humerus
and pectoral girdle (2) Size of I-band decreases
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) Size of O-zone decreases
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) Size of H-zone decreases
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 115. Which one of the following is a bone of hind-limb?
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Ilium (2) Scaphoid
109. Choose an incorrect statement (3) Cuboid (4) Triquetrum

116. Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is
(1) Sternum is present on ventral side of body
made up of a number of muscle bundles held
(2) In a muscle fibre Ca ++ is stored in together by a common connective tissue
sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. This connective tissue membrane is
(3) Tropomyosin is present in thick filaments (1) Perimysium (2) Fasciculus
(4) H-zone of skeletal muscle fibre represents only (3) Endomysium (4) Epimysium
thick filaments
117. The thin filaments are firmly attached with Z-line
110. The contractile and regulatory protein of a muscle and are surrounded by myosin filaments. Which
are respectively membrane bisects I-band in the centre?
(1) Tubulin and troponin (1) A -band (2) Z-line
(2) Tropomyosin and actin (3) M-line (4) H-zone
(3) Actin and tropomyosin 118. There are 12 pairs of ribs in humans and each
pair is bicephalic. Which of the following
(4) Myosin and actin statement best describes this condition?
111. Which of the following bone/s is/are not a part of (1) Ribs have two sides which appears like head
axial skeleton?
(2) Ribs have two articulation surfaces on its
(1) Skull bones dorsal end to fix with vertebral column
(2) Bones of vertebral column (3) Ribs have two articulation surfaces one on
(3) Bones of sternum and ribs dorsal and other on ventral side
(4) Bones of pectoral and pelvic girdles (4) Ribs are mainly of two types : true and floating
119. Find the incorrect matching 125. What does the given graphical representation
Bone Joint show about the mechanism of skeletal muscle
contraction?
(1) Upper ends of radius - ulna – Hinge
!"#$%&"'()*(+,-./$-(.)%"#0."1)%
(2) Atlas - axis – Pivot
(3) Carpal - metacarpal – Gliding
(4) Humerus - pectoral girdle – Ball & Socket
120. Mark the type of lever system where body part
functions as exerting resistance in between the
fulcrum and effort
(1) Class I (2) Class II
! "# "! $# $! %# %! &# &! !# !!
(3) Class III (4) Class IV !"#$%&'%(#)*+,"#)&-%.#)*$(%/$0%($1&-23
121. Following are some events occurring during (1) Summation and fatigue
muscle contraction. Arrange them in a sequence
(2) Tetanization and fatigue
a. Action potential of muscle fibre occurs.
(3) Summation and tetanization
b. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases stored Ca+2
that binds with troponin component of thin (4) Summation and contracture
filament.
126. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
c. Neurotransmitter released at neuromuscular anatomy of a muscle fibre
junction.
! "
d. Ca+2 is pumped back into SR and troponin # $
mask the active site.
e. Actin molecules are exposed and cross
bridges are formed.
(1) c b a e d
(2) b a c e d Choose the correct option w.r.t. the labelled
(3) c a b e d structure
(4) a b c d e (1) ‘A’ consists of actin protein only
122. Which of the following is incorrect match (2) ‘B’ consists of myosin protein only
regarding the bones and their number?
(3) ‘C’ consists of actin and myosin protein only
(1) Vertebrosternal – Last 2 pairs (11th and ribs
12th) ribs (4) ‘D’ consists of myosin protein only
(2) False ribs – 8th, 9th
and 10th
pairs of 127. All the given statements are correct w.r.t. the
ribs, do not directly mechanism of muscle contraction except one.
articulate with sternum Choose the incorrect statement
(3) Each limb – 30 bones (1) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
(4) Tarsals – Ankle bones 7 in number by the central nervous system via sensory
123. Which of the following is a common cause of neuron
osteoporosis? (2) Action potential for contraction spreads
(1) Due to accumulation of uric acid crystals through the muscle fibre and causes the
(2) Decreased levels of estrogen release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm
(3) Decreased levels of PTH (3) Increase in calcium ions level leads to the
binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on
(4) Arthritis
actin filaments and thereby remove the
124. The slightly movable joint which is present masking of active sites of myosin
between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column is
(4) Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the
(1) Diarthrosis (2) Synarthrosis myosin head now binds to the exposed active
(3) Amphiarthrosis (4) Fibrous sites on actin to form a crossbridge
128. Which of the following bone is unpaired in human -%./0

body?
-$3*./0
(1) Parietal bone )/1.$
(2) Patella
2'0/#
(3) Occipital
(4) Lacrimal bone )"('%%"
129. Given below are matching pairs of category of
bone and their examples. Choose the incorrect !.1."
one 2.1/%"
Category Example !"#$"%$

&'("("#$"%$
(1) Wrist bones – Carpals )*"%"+,'$
(2) Palm bones – Metacarpals Choose the correct option w.r.t. wrongly labelled
(3) Ear ossicles – Malleus, incus and stapes bones
(4) Pelvic girdle – Ileum, ischium and pubis (1) Pubis and Ischium (2) Tibia and Tarsals
130. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of (3) Tibia and Fibula (4) Femur and Ilium
ribs and ribcage. 133. Which of the following muscle tissue has longest
refractory period and can use lactic acid produced
by skeletal muscle fibres to make ATP?
(1) Cardiac muscle (2) Smooth muscle
(3) Non-striated muscle (4) Both (2) & (3)
134. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. energy source
of muscle contraction in our body
! (1) Phosphocreatine donates its high energy and
phosphate to ADP, producing ATP
(2) Phosphocreatine is again formed in relaxing
muscle by using ATP produced by
carbohydrate oxidation
(3) During muscle contraction, glycogen is broken
Identify the structure labelled as ‘A’ and choose down into lactic acid and liberates energy and
the correct option w.r.t. its number in human body 1/5th of lactic acid is oxidised to water and
(1) 7 in number (cervical vertebrae) carbon dioxide in muscle and liver
(2) 12 in number (lumbar vertebrae) (4) Arginine phosphate is a phosphogen
(3) 5 in number (sacral vertebrae) 135. Read the following statements very carefully
(4) 12 in number (thoracic vertebrae) A. Muscle fibres carry out considerable aerobic
oxidation.
131. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
possessing Mg2+ dependent ATPase activity is B. Muscle fibres have slow rate of contraction.
(1) Troponin C. Muscle fibres poor in sarcoplasmic reticulum
and less mitochondria.
(2) Myosin head
D. Muscle fibres are lighter in colour and thicker.
(3) Actin
(4) All of these How many of the following statements are correct
for extensor muscle in the back of human?
right pelvic girdle and lower limb bones (frontal (1) One (2) Two
view) (3) Three (4) Four
136. In resting state a subunit of ______ masks the 141. Given below is an incomplete table about certain
active binding sites for myosin on actin filaments. joints and the involved bones
(1) Troponin (2) Calsequestrin Joints Involved bones
(3) Calmodullin (4) Meromyosin (i) !!!!"!!! – Flat skull bones
137. Which of the following cells in our body exhibit
(ii) Gliding joint – !!!!"!!!
amoeboid movement?
(1) Fibroblast and thrombocytes (iii) """"#""" – Atlas and Axis
(2) Macrophages and thrombocytes
(iv) Ball and Socket joint – !!!!#!!!
(3) Macrophages and leucocytes
Identify the correct option for the blanks A, B, C
(4) Leucocytes and thrombocytes and D.
138. Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is (1) A – Sutures
made of a number of !!!"!! held together by a B – Knee joint
common collagenous connective tissue layer
C – Pubic symphysis
called !!!"!! .
D – Shoulder joint
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks
(2) A – Fibrous joint
labelled as A and B
B – Carpals
A B
C – Pivot joint
(1) Fascicles Sarcolemma
D – Humerus and pectoral girdle
(2) Muscle bundles Endomysium
(3) A – Sutures
(3) Fascicles Fascia
B – Metacarpal
(4) Muscle bundles Sarcolemma
C – Fibrous joint
139. When bone is broken into more than two fragments
with some of the fragments losing the connection D – Humerus and ulna
with blood circulation then this type of fracture is (4) A – Fibrous joint
called
B – Metacarpal
(1) Simple fracture
C – Saddle joint
(2) Comminuted fracture
D – Humerus and pectoral girdle
(3) Green stick fracture
142. Axis vertebra is identified by
(4) Impacted fracture
(1) Sigmoid notch
140. A person is lifting a dumb-bell by flexion keeping
the elbow as the fulcrum. Which of the following (2) Odontoid fossa
statement is true regarding such movement? (3) Odontoid process
A. Flexion is caused by relaxation of biceps. (4) Olecranon process
B. Such movement is an example of class III 143. Which of the following is an age-dependent
lever. systemic disorder characterised by low bone mass,
C. Muscles participate in this movement are microarchitectural deterioration of bones and
increased fragility and susceptibility of bones to
striated, cylindrical, voluntary and
fracture?
multinucleated.
(1) Osteomyelitis
D. Continued exercise with dumb-bells will lead to
dystrophy of biceps. (2) Paget’s disease
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) Osteomyelodysplasia
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D (4) Osteoporosis
4. A : Athletes engaged in activities requiring

SECTION - B
prolonged action have abundant red muscle
Assertion - Reason Type Questions fibres.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : Red muscle fibres can perform slow sustained
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) work over long periods without getting fatigued.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 5. A : Flat skull bones fuse end to end with the help
reason is the correct explanation of the of dense white fibrous tissues.
assertion, then mark (1). R : At the time of birth, there are some unossified
areas in the skull called fontanels.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 6. A : Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
assertion, then mark (2). affecting the neuromuscular junction.
R : It leads to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscle.
7. A : Myasthenia gravis, auto immune disorder
affecting neuromuscular junction, leads to
statements, then mark (4). fatigue, weakning and paralysis of skeletal
1. A : Rest is necessary after heavy exercise. muscles.
R : During rest, glucose is converted into lactic R : Use of acetylocholinestrase inhibitors may
acid and creatine phosphate breaks down into help.
creatinine. 8. A : Muscles possess excitability, contractility,
extensibility and elasticity.
2. A : The ear ossicles are infact formed by the
modification of jaw suspension bones. R : Cardiac muscles are striated, branched and
show autorhythmicity.
R : Articular forms malleus, quadrate form incus
and hyomandibular forms stapes. 9. A : All locomotions are movements but all
movements are not locomotions.
3. A : Fracture in children usually does not break the
R : Locomotion is generally for search of food,
bone into individual parts.
shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds
R : Bending type of fractures in children is known favourable climatic conditions or to escape
as greenstick fracture. from enemies or predators.
!" !" !
Chapter 6
Neural Control and Coordination
SECTION - A
1. Optic nerve is directly concerned with

(1) Sensory cells
!
(2) Bipolar neurons
"
(3) Ganglion cells
#
(4) Amacrine cells $
2. The part of membranous labyrinth concerned with
a. A is a major coordinating centre for sensory
static equilibrium is
and motor signalling.
(1) Semicircular canals and utricle
b. B controls body temperature, urge for eating
(2) Semicircular canals and saccule and drinking.
(3) Utricle and saccule c. C along with amygdala and hippocampus
(4) Semicircular canals and cochlea involved in regulation of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reaction.
3. Which of the following organ is stimulated by
acetylcholine neurotransmitter released by post- d. D converts short term memories into long term
ganglionic sympathetic fibres? memories.
(1) Ciliary body How many statements are correct?
(2) Heart (1) One
(3) Sweat gland (2) Two
(4) Salivary gland (3) Three
4. Which of the following is the gatekeeper to (4) Four
consciousness?
(1) Thalamus
(1) Vagus – Peristaltic movement,
(2) Reticular activating system inhibition of heart-beat,
respiratory reflex
(3) Hypothalamus
(2) Trochlear – Rotation of eye ball
(4) Mid brain
(3) Auditory – Chewing, facial
5. Given below are the statements related with the
expression
functioning of different parts of human brain w.r.t.
the labelled structure in the diagram showing (4) Glossopharyngeal – Taste, salivation and
sagital section of human brain swallowing
436 Neural Control and Coordination Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
7. Gut peristalsis, involuntary breathing, respiratory 15. Injury to which of the following nerves can cause
centre, blood pressure, regulation of heart beat is ‘foot drop’?
under control of
(1) Femoral nerve (2) Sciatic nerve
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebellum
(3) Radial nerve (4) Gluteal nerve
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum
8. Destruction of dopamine secreting pars compacta eye?
part of basal nucleus called substantia nigra leads
to (1) Central fovea is the area of highest visual acuity
(1) Multiple sclerosis (2) Huntingtons chorea (2) Tritanopia is related to night blindness
(3) Parkinsons disease (4) Ataxia (3) Presbyopia is defect caused due to the loss of
9. Primary function of basal ganglia is elasticity of lens and reduced power of
accommodation
(1) Planning and stereotyped movements
(4) Gland of Zeis are modified sebaceous glands
(2) Neuroendocrine control
which are associated with the follicles of eye
(3) Control body temperature lashes
(4) Control respiration 17. Which of the following is not the function of
10. Major part of saliva is secreted by _______ and sympathetic nervous system?
is innervated by _______ (1) Inhibits secretion of saliva
(1) Parotid, IXth cranial nerve (2) Stimulates secretion of gastric juice
(2) Sub-mandibular, VIIth cranial nerve
(3) Inhibits secretion of pancreatic juice
(3) Sub-lingual, VIIth cranial nerve
(4) Reduce bile secretion
(4) Sub-mandibular, IXth cranial nerve
18. Receptors which are not in direct contact with
11. Which part of the brain plays role in maintaining environment but are affected by the changes in the
balance and also related to having flask shaped environment and are present in joints, skeletal
Purkinje’s cell? muscles, tendons etc are
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(1) Visceroreceptor (2) Proprioreceptors
(3) Pons (4) Medulla oblongata
(3) Statoreceptor (4) Exteroreceptors
12. Mark the cranial nerve connected with taste buds
present on tongue sending the signal to taste area 19. Which of the following is incorrect?
for sense of taste (1) Abducens - Movement of eyeball
(1) Facial (2) Glossopharyngeal (2) Auditory - Hearing, equilibrium
(3) Vagus (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Vagus - Peristaltic movements
13. If there is blockage in canal of Schlemm, it can
(4) Trigeminal - Movement of tongue, rotation
lead to
of eyeball
(1) Presbyopia
20. Functions like laughing, weeping, micturition,
(2) Glaucoma (Kala motia) defecation are controlled by
(3) Astigmatism (1) Cerebrum (2) Hypothalamus
(4) Cataract (safaid motia)
(3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata
14. On repeated transmission of nerve impulses
21. Which of the following part of brain plays important
through a synapse, there occurs a temporary
role in co-ordination between different muscular
suspension of impulse transmission at the
contractions?
synapse. This is called as
(1) Unidirectional flow of impulse (1) Cerebrum
(2) Synaptic fatigue (2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Synaptic delay (3) Cerebellum

(4) Divergence of impulse (4) Hypothalamus
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Neural Control and Coordination 437
22. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 28. Flared like a wish bone a ring or fork, through
(1) Chemical transmission of synapse was extensive neural links with the cerebrum and the
discovered by Henery Dale brain stem below constitute
(2) Chemical synapses involves chemical (1) Amygdala (2) Limbic system
neurotransmitters (3) Hippocampus (4) Basal ganglia
(3) When a wave of depolarisation reaches 29. Which of the following is the partition between
postsynaptic membrane, voltage gated calcium vestibular canal and median canal of internal ear of
channels open up man
(4) At an electrical synapse, ionic current spreads (1) Tectorial membrane
directly from one cell to another through gap
(2) Reissner’s membrane
junctions
(3) Basilar membrane
23. The Meninx which is very thin, highly vascular and
closely invests the brain is (4) Schneiderian membrane
(1) Arachnoid mater (2) Piamater 30. If we cut the vagus nerve supplying the heart of frog
the heat beat will
(3) Duramater (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Be normalised soon
24. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(2) Increase
(1) Frigidoreceptor - End bulb of Krause
(3) Decrease
(2) Phonoreceptor - organ of Corti
(4) No affect on heart beat
(3) Thermoreceptor - Merkels disc
31. In which of the following disease the toxins
(4) Rheoreceptor - Lateral line sense organ in
released block the release of acetylcholine from the
fishes
pre-synaptic terminals?
(1) Myasthenia gravis
eye?
(2) Botulism
(1) Choroid is delicate highly vascular and
pigmented part which lies in contact with sclera (3) Curare
(2) Choroid provide dark colour to interior of the (4) Alzheimer
eyeball and prevents internally reflected light 32. The following diagram represents which type of
within the eye reflex? When the doctor taps the knee with rubber
(3) Ciliary body is thicker, non-muscular and more headed hammer. Which of the following is absent
vascular than choroid in this reflex (Muscle spindle, Interneuron, Afferent
pathway, Efferent pathway)?
(4) Size of Iris is regulated by the iridial muscles
26. A person can see distant objects clearly but not 011%)%/$& *+),(-&)++$ !"#$%&
56,7-%&,2#/8-%& 2($"3(4 .(/.-#+/
near objects should use _______ as conective 9)%7%2$+):
'($$%)
measure
(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens =)(4&
'($$%)
(3) Concave convex lens (4) Plain glass
!"#$%&%'( 5+$+)& ;11%)%/$& 5+$+)& </$%)/%6)+/
27. Which of the following is incorrect? %/82-($%& 2($"3(4 /%6)+/
9%11%7$+):
(1) Frontal lobe - Reasoning, decision making,
will power
(2) Parietal lobe - Touch, pain, heat, cold
(1) Simple reflex, muscle spindle
(3) Temporal lobe - Smell, memory, emotion
(2) Knee jerk reflex, interneuron
(4) Occipital lobe - Creative idea, judgement
(3) Monosynaptic reflex, muscle spindle
decoding interpretation of visual information
shape and colour (4) Polysynaptic, interneuron
33. Alzheimer’s disease is caused due to the which of (3) Parasympathetic nervous system
the following? (4) Autonomic nervous system
(1) Deficiency of dopamine 38. In internal ear, otolith organ consists of
(2) Increase in secretion of dopamine a. Semicircular canal b. Saccule
(3) Deficiency of acetylcholine c. Utriculus d. Cochlea
(4) Deficiency of glycine e. Ampulla
34. All the following statements are correct about Choose the correct option
accommodation reflex, except
(1) a, b & c only (2) b & c only
(1) The parasympathetic fibres of the third cranial
nerve cause contraction of the ciliary muscles (3) b, c & e only (4) a, b & e only
39. A male moth can smell a female several miles
(2) The suspensory ligaments tighten and increase
away and fly unerringly to meet her. Why?
their stretching action on lens
(1) They possess olfactory receptors located on
(3) Radius of curvature of the lens decreases
their feet
(4) Focal length decreases and the power
(2) Moths and butterflies possess olfactory
increases
chemoreceptors on their antennae
35. Which of the following disease is due to deficiency
(3) They secrete trail pheromones
of dopamine?
(4) They secrete sex attractants like bombycol
(1) Schizophrenia (2) Parkinson’s disease
40. Which of the following is correct matching of the
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Curare poisoning
E, labelled step on the figure?
36. Following is the diagrammatic view of ear. What is
the name and function of the structure marked ‘A’ !"#$%&'"()*+"'+,&-(.#,--,/*-+01
in the diagram? , !"#$%&'(%#)&#$*+'
-./
!"##$
/
%
5 6
0./
& ! 2)3#$&4'(%#)&#$*+'
01/
&7-9:/$1.
#/15/
2 )*+,$#"-. '
+/+01$#/ (1) Na+ channels are closed and some K+ leaks
out to maintain a resting potential
(
'"$31$++$4"-.5"/6.78./$1 (2) K+ channels open, and K+ flows out of the cell,
(1) It’s external auditory meatus, collects the causing rapid repolarisation
vibrations in air which produce sound (3) K+ continues to flow out of the producing a
(2) It’s incus, which increases the efficiency of hyperpolarisation of the membrane
transmission of sound waves to the inner ear (4) Na+ channels close and K+ channels begin to
(3) It is eustachian tube, which helps in equalising open
the pressure on either sides of the ear drum 41. Which of the following disease is caused due to an
(4) It's tympanic bone, encloses the middle ear increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the
membranous labyrinth and the symptoms are
37. Neural signals from which division of PNS, fluctuating hearing loss and roaring tinnitus?
decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of
conduction of action potential and thereby, the (1) Otitis media
cardiac output (2) Myringitis
(1) Somatic neural system (3) Vertigo
(2) Sympathetic nervous system (4) Meniere’s disease
42. Which of the following event can be related to 49. The neurological disorder called aphasia is
repolarisation of nerve fiber? concerned with which of the following inability of
(1) Opening up of K+ gated channel the patient?
(2) Opening up of Cl– gated channel (1) To speak (2) To write
(3) Closure of Na+ gated channel (3) To balance (4) To read
(4) Both (1) & (3) 50. Which type of EEG waves will be observed in a
person engrossed in meditation?
43. Mary is about to face an interview. But during first
five minutes before the interview, she experiences (1) -waves (2) -waves
sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration (3) -waves (4) -waves
etc. Which hormone is responsible for her
restlessness? 51. Which scientist is honoured with the title of father
of conditioned reflex?
(1) Prostaglandins and Vasopressin
(1) Sherrington (2) Pavlov
(2) Epinephrine and Cortisol
(3) Harvey (4) Malphigi
(3) Adrenaline and Norepinephrine
52. Mark the group of cranial nerves which are pure
(4) Insulin and Thyroxine sensory in nature amongst the following
44. Vomiting is generally preceded by increased (1) Olfactory, Optic, Oculomoter
salivation, sweating, faster heart beat and a feeling
of nausea. It is a complex reflex coordinated by the (2) Trochlear, Trigeminal, Abducens
vomiting centre in the (3) Facial, Auditory, Glossopharyngeal
(1) Hypothalamus (4) Olfactory, Optic, Auditory
(2) Medulla of the brain 53. Which part of the body is supplied by the
(3) Somatosensory area cholinergic post-ganglionic neurons of sympathetic
nervous system?
(4) Motor area of the brain
(1) Pupil (2) Heart
45. Which amongst the following term is alternate term
for the hind brain? (3) Sweat gland (4) Branchi
(1) Rhinencephalon (2) Telencephalon 54. Continued stimulation of neurons of the same part
(3) Rhombencephalon (4) Diencephalon will not cause perception by the nervous system
due to the phenomenon of
46. Which amongst the following is the thick dorsal
wall of the cerebrum and is more developed in (1) Tetany (2) Saltatory conduction
primates? (3) Synaptic fatigue (4) Synaptic delay
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Pallium 55. Which cranial nerve is responsible to control the
(3) Crura cerebri (4) Duramater movement of the muscles of the tongue in
humans?
47. Highly vascular part in the roof of the lining of
diencephalon known to secrete CSF is known as (1) II (2) III
(1) Anterior choroid plexus (3) X (4) XII
(2) Posterior choroid plexus 56. How many pairs of spinal nerves are found in
human beings?
(3) Optic chiasma
(1) 5 pairs (2) 10 pairs
(4) Pineal gland
(3) 12 pairs (4) 31 pairs
48. The branching radiation called arbor vitae is
composed of which of the following types of 57. Inability to write sensibly due to damage to
nervous tissue? specialized centers of brain is known as
(1) Grey matter (2) White matter (1) Alexia (2) Agraphia
(3) Non-nervous (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Aphasia (4) Agnosia
58. Which part of nervous system is described as (1) Blind spot (2) Macula lutea
cranio-sacral outflow? (3) Fovea centralis (4) Limbus
(1) Sympathetic nervous system
67. The indication 6/6 is used to indicate the normal
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system acuity of vision. This ratio is obtained by study on
(3) Basal ganglia (1) Snellen's chart (2) Isihara's chart
(4) Limbic system (3) Retinoscope (4) Both (2) & (3)
59. The disease associated with increased intra-ocular 68. Decrease in elasticity of lens leads to a refractory
pressure, which may damage the optic nerve is error in old age. This error is known as
known as
(1) Astigmatism (2) Presbyopia
(1) Glaucoma (2) Cataract
(3) Squint (4) Myopia
(3) Squint (4) Retinitis
69. The probability of middle ear infections is high in
60. Which extraocular muscle is supplied by the VIth children as compared to adults due to shorter
cranial nerve i.e., Abducens nerve in human? length of
(1) Superior rectus (2) Superior oblique (1) Ear pinna (2) Tympanic membrane
(3) Lateral rectus (4) Medial rectus
(3) Eustachian tube (4) Cochlea
61. Which type of refractory error will you find in a
70. What term is associated with the sensory structure
newborn infant which in fact is a physiological
of the semicircular canal of the internal ear?
defect?
(1) Macula (2) Ampulla
(1) Myopia (2) Hypermetropia
(3) Crista (4) Cupula
(3) Astigmatism (4) Cataract
71. Which amongst the following ear ossicle is stirrup
62. Which part of the eye deals with the drainage of
excess aqueous humor from the anterior chamber shaped and is connected to fenestra ovalis?
of the eye? (1) Malleus (2) Incus
(1) Ciliary body (2) Macula lutea (3) Stapes (4) Periotic
(3) Blind spot (4) Canal of schlemm 72. Which amongst the following type of glands are
63. The contraction of which of the following muscles responsible to secrete ear wax as a defence
will cause constriction of pupil in the presence of mechanism?
bright light? (1) Sweat glands (2) Sebaceous glands
(1) Radial iris muscles (3) Ceruminous glands (4) Goblet cells
(2) Circular iris muscles 73. During absolute refractory period
(3) Suspensory ligaments (1) Impulse transmissions bidirection
(4) Superior rectus (2) Another can be generated by impulse nerves
64. Which chemical is used during ophthalmic (3) Another impulse can not be generated by
examination causes dilation of pupil to facilitate nerves
examination of eye?
(4) There is saltatory conduction of nerve impulse
(1) Adrenaline (2) Cyanide
74. In a refractory error called myopia where will light
(3) Nor-adrenaline (4) Atropine
coming from infinity be focussed?
65. A layer in the eye ball which is responsible to
(1) On the retina (2) Beyond the retina
prevent internal reflection of light is
(3) Before the retina (4) On the blind spot
(1) Conjunctiva (2) Sclera
75. Which layers of the eye is not considered to be a
(3) Cornea (4) Choroid
part of the nutritive layer of the eye called uvea?
66. The point of most distinct vision in case of human
eye has a high number of cone cells. This point is (1) Iris (2) Choroid
known as (3) Sclera (4) Ciliary body
76. Which type of receptors are sensitive to current of 85. G-proteins are related with hormonal action of
water and is especially well developed in lateral line those hormones requiring second messenger like
sense organs?
(1) C-AMP (2) CGMP
(1) Caloreceptors (3) Na+ (4) K+
(2) Rheoreceptors
86. Which enzyme is most affected under the influence
(3) Meissner's corpuscles of nerve gases like DFP or Diisopropylfluoro
phasphate?
(4) Tangoreceptors
(1) Cytochrome oxidase (2) Carbonic anhydrase
77. The communication between the paracoel and the
diocoel in human brain is represented by (3) Cholinesterase (4) Catalase
(1) Aqueduct of Sylvius (2) Foramen of Monro 87. Which parts of the spinal cord will show the
(3) Aqueduct of Iter (4) Foramen of Magendie presence of lateral grey horns in humans?
(1) Thoracic (2) Upper lumbar
78. There are five nerve plexi of spinal nerves in man.
Which one supplies the legs? (3) Sacral part (4) All of these
(1) Brachial plexus (2) Lumbar plexus 88. Which amongst the following actions cannot be
classified as simple reflex actions?
(3) Sacral plexus (4) Coccygeal plexus
79. Which portion of internal ear is responsible for (1) Dancing (2) Knee jerk
maintaining static equilibrium? (3) Blinking (4) Coughing
(1) Cristae (2) Maculae 89. Hyperpolarisation of nerve fibre means
(3) Cochlea (4) Organ of corti (1) Decrease in membrane potential from –70 to
–80 mV
80. The sensation of rotation or movement of one's self
or of one's surroundings in any plane is called (2) It is the prolonged opening of K+ ion channels
of nerve fibres causing efflux of K + ions in
(1) Strabismus (2) Vertigo
excess
(3) Deafness (4) Tinnitus
(3) It is the closing of K + ion channels and
81. Which cranial nerve plays no role in movement of opening of Na+ ion channels
eye ball as it does not innervate muscles attaching
(4) Both (1) & (2)
eye ball to orbit?
(1) Oculomotor (2) Optic 90. Which of the following receptors will perceive very
low temperature on the surface of the body?
(3) Trochlear (4) Abducens
(1) Ruffini's organ (2) Krause's bulbs
82. Due to rapid inflow of Na+,
the potential increases
(3) Pacinian corpuscles (4) Merkel's disc
first to zero, then rises to +20 to +30 mv and this
newly developed potential difference is called 91. The salivary glands in humans are supplied by
which nerves of parasympathetic nervous system?
(1) Repolarization
(1) III and V (2) V and VII
(2) Resting potential
(3) Absolute refractory period (3) VII and IX (4) IX and X
92. If in a resting nerve fibre efflux of more K+ out of
(4) Action potential
the membrane will result in
83. The contraction of which of the following muscle
(1) Depolarisation
causes goose bumps during fear response?
(2) Generation of action potential
(1) Gastrocnemius (2) Erector pili
(3) Detrusor (4) Sartorius (3) Hyperpolarisation
(4) Both (1) & (2)
84. The diameter of synaptic vesicles present in the
synaptic knobs is about 50 nm. How many 93. Mark the cranial nerve associated with movement
molecules of neurotransmitters reported in it? of eye ball along with accomodation reflex
(1) 25000 (2) 100 billion (1) Occulomotor (2) Trochlear
(3) 5000 (4) 10000 (3) Abducens (4) All of these
94. Which of the following part of brain does not initiate 101. Which of the following part of the limbic system
any muscle contraction but co-ordinate various can be related to rage and aggression?
muscular contractions for maintaining equilibrium of (1) Silent areas (2) Somaesthetic area
the body?
(3) Mamillary body (4) Amygdala
(1) Cerebrum
102. If a person consumes Khesri dal over a prolonged
(2) Pre motor area of frontal lobe of cerebrum period of time, which neurological disorder, he may
(3) Occipital lobe of cerebrum suffer from?
(4) Cerebellum (1) Parkinson’s disease (2) Botulism
95. If the Bowman's gland is removed from olfactory (3) Lathyrism (4) Multiple sclerosis
epithelium the person suffers from 103. Mark amongst the name of neurotransmitters
(1) Amnesia (2) Agraphia which is deficient in Parkinson’s disease
(3) Agnosia (4) Aphasia (1) Acetylcholine (2) Dopamine
96. Hypothalmo hypophyseal portal vein transports the (3) Adrenaline (4) Serotonin
following hormones except 104. In which of the following period, a second stimulus
(1) Somatotrophin will be capable of exciting the membrane only if it
is higher than the first one?
(2) Somatostatin
(1) Absolute refractory period
(3) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
(2) Relative refractory period
(4) Prolactin inhibiting hormone
(3) General refractory period
97. The major coordinating centre for sensory and
(4) Latent period
motor signaling is !!!!!!"!!!!! and centre for 105. Oxytocin and vasopressin synthesised in
controlling respiration, cardiovascular reflex and hypothalamus and reach to posterior pituitary by
gastric secretion is !!!!!!"!!!!! . the way of
X Y (1) Anterior pituitary gland
(1) Medulla oblongata Cerebrum (2) Portal circulation
(2) Cerebrum Pons (3) Blood vessels
(3) Thalamus Medulla oblongata (4) Axons of hypothalamic neuron
(4) Hypothalamus Pons 106. Which of the following structures is present in

human brain but absent in frog’s?
98. Limbic system is concerned with
a. Arachnoid mater b. Corpus callosum
(1) Components of cerebrum and diencephalon
c. Optocoel d. Optic lobes
(2) Regulation of sexual behaviour
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only
(3) Emotional behaviour
(3) a, b & d only (4) a, b, c & d
(4) All of these
107. Which of the following is not a part of brain stem?
99. _________ is the point where the visual acuity is
(1) Corpora quadrigemina
the greatest.
(2) Medulla
(1) Fovea centralis
(3) Cerebellum
(2) Corpus luteum
(4) Pons varolii
(3) Blind spot
108. Dogs are used in crime detection because
(4) Ora serrata
(1) They have acute vision
100. The time taken for an impulse to cross a synapse
is 0.3-0.5 millisecond. It is called (2) They can run faster than man
(1) Synaptic fatigue (2) Refractory period (3) They have an acute olfactory sense
(3) Synaptic delay (4) All or None law (4) They sleep for a very little time
109. Which of the following chemical changes is 114. Match the following
responsible for repolarisation of the membrane of Column-I Column-II
axons?
a. Hippocampus lobe (i) Gatekeeper to
(1) Opening of Na+ channels and rapid influx of consciousness
Na+ ions
b. Septum (ii) Emotion centre for
(2) Opening of K+ channels and rapid influx of K+ sexual arousal
ions c. Corpus striatum (iii) Regulates planning
(3) Opening of Na+ channels and closing of K+ and execution of
channels stereotyped
movements
(4) Closing of Na+ channels and opening of K+
d. Reticular formation (iv) Converts short term
channels
memory into long
110. Which of the following is not correct for a nerve term memory
fibre when a threshold stimulus is provided? (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Voltage gated Na+ channels open which cause (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
a rapid influx of Na+ ions into the fibre
115. When we move from bright light to dark, we fail to
(2) Na+- K + ATPase pump stops working see for some time but soon we become able to do
that. It is
(3) Influx of Na+ creates an action potential of
–55 mV to –60 mV (1) Accommodation
(4) In myelinated fibres, these ionic changes (2) Adaptation
occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier (3) Due to the time required for resynthesis of
111. Destruction of dopamine secreting basal nuclei rhodopsin from its components
(substantia-nigra) causes a disease characterised (4) Both (2) & (3)
by shaking of hands, bradykinesia and akinesia.
116. The defective condition of eye in which distant
The disease is
objects are seen clearly but near objects are not
(1) Huntington’s chorea is called ______, it can be corrected by using
______ lenses in glasses?
(2) Alzheimer’s disease
(1) Presbyopia, concave
(3) Parkinson’s disease
(2) Myopia, concave
(4) Schizophrenia
(3) Hypermetropia, convex
112. The parts of neuron that receives nerve impulse
(4) Astigmatism, cylindrical
and pass on graded electric potential towards the
soma are 117. Which of the following event increases when there
is depolarisation of a nerve fibre?
(1) Myelin sheath
(1) Diffusion of sodium ions into the neuron
(2) Axon
(2) Diffusion of sodium ions out of the neuron
(3) Axon hillock
(3) Diffusion of potassium ion into the neuron
(4) Dendrites
(4) Both (1) & (3)
113. Choroid plexus consists of 118. When stimulated, sympathetic nervous system
a. Blood capillaries causes all except
b. Lymph capillaries (1) Vasoconstriction in general and vasodilation in
skeletal muscles
c. Piamater
(2) Dilation of pupil
d. Arachnoid membrane
(3) Erection of body hair by contraction of arrector
(1) a only (2) a & b only pili muscles
(3) a & c only (4) a, b, c & d (4) Contraction of urinary bladder
119. Which of the following does not occur during (1) A & B only (2) A & C only
accommodation reflex w.r.t. near vision?
(3) A, B & C only (4) A, B, C & D
(1) Contraction of circular ciliary muscles
125. As a person grows older, the lens of the eye grows
(2) Relaxation in suspensory ligaments larger and thicker and becomes far less elastic,
(3) Lens becomes more spherical partly because of progressive denaturation of the
(4) Relaxation of circular ciliary muscles lens proteins, affecting accommodation power of
the eye. The disorder is known as
120. When moving in a car that is speeding up or
slowing down, the sense of linear acceleration is (1) Astigmatism (2) Presbyopia
provided by (3) Hypermetropia (4) Glaucoma
(1) Organ of corti (2) Cristae 126. Stimulation by parasympathetic nervous system is
(3) Macula (4) Semicircular canals likely to cause all the following except
121. Find out the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. (1) Increased pancreatic exocrine secretion
structure and its function as mentioned below
(2) Increased bile synthesis
(1) Eustachian – Maintains air pressure in
tube tympanic cavity (3) Decreased insulin secretion
(2) Cornea – Controls amount of light (4) Increased gastric secretion

entering into eye ball, called 127. Limbic system controls all the functions except
the diaphragm of eye
(1) Emotional behaviours expressed as joy, sorrow,
(3) Cristae in – Detect rotational motion liking, disliking
ampulla
(2) Control of food habits necessary for survival of
(4) Semicircular – Help in maintaining dynamic individual
canals equilibrium, not in hearing
(3) Control of sexual behaviour necessary for
122. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. reflex action
survival of species
(1) Response in the form of reflex action
immediately protects the animal from harmful (4) Regulation of reflexes like coughing, sneezing,
situations swallowing
(2) It relieves the brain from too much strain 128. Which of the following parts of brain participate in
the formation of brain stem?
(3) Opening of mouth on hearing a loud sound is
an example of conditioned reflex A. Midbrain B. Pons
(4) Interneurons are absent from the monosynaptic C. Cerebellum D. Medulla
reflexes (1) A only (2) A & B only
123. When compared to cones of the retina, the rods
(3) A, B & D only (4) A, B, C & D
(1) Are more sensitive to low intensity of light
129. Trochlear is the thinnest and smallest cranial nerve
(2) Are most concentrated in the fovea originating from the floor of mid brain. What type of
(3) Are primarily involved in colour vision nerve is it and which eye ball muscle does it
(4) Have higher visual acuity innervate?
124. Which of the following is not likely to happen in his (1) Motor, lateral rectus
neurohormonal control system, in response to (2) Sensory, superior rectus
stress of any kind?
(3) Motor, superior oblique
A. Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic
division of brain. (4) Sensory, median rectus
B. Sympathetic nervous system is activated 130. During nerve impulse conduction, action potential
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from results from the movement of
adrenal cortex. (1) K+ ions from inner to outer fluid
C. Craniosacral outflow is stimulated.
(2) Na+ ions from outer to inner fluid
D. Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(3) Ca+2 ions from inner to outer fluid
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from
adrenal medulla. (4) Na+ ions from inner to outer fluid
131. Which layer of eye ball becomes thick in anterior 136. Which part of brain helps in decoding and
part to form ciliary body? interpretation of sound, language comprehension,
smell, memory and emotions?
A. Sclera B. Choroid
(1) Frontal lobe
C. Retina D. Conjunctiva
(2) Parietal lobe
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Temporal lobe
(3) C only (4) Both A & B (4) Limbic system
132. Which receptors are located deep in the dermis 137. Visuo-psychic association area for interpretation
and respond to strong pressure and are also and decoding of visual information including written
sensitive to vibrations? language, shape and colour is located in
(1) Merkel’s discs (1) Frontal lobe
(2) Meissner’s corpuscles (2) Parietal lobe
(3) Pacinian corpuscles (3) Temporal lobe
(4) Occipital lobe
(4) Ruffini’s corpuscles
138. If the sodium potassium pump of a neuron fails, what
133. Which of the following is not a correct match of a
effect would this have on the neuron’s function?
nervous structure and its function?
(1) The concentration of negative ions would
(1) Corpus striatum – Regulates planning and increase inside the neuron
execution of stereotyped
(2) Voltage gated sodium and potassium ion
movements
channels would no longer function
(2) Amygdala – Controls emotional (3) The neuron can not conduct another action
behaviour like aggression potential unless the resting potential is fully
and fear restored
(3) Cerebellum – Controls rapid muscular (4) The concentration of sodium ions would be
activities like running, higher outside the cell and that of potassium
typing talking etc. ions would be higher inside the cell
(4) Medulla – Controls stretch reflexes 139. Which of the following statement is wrong?
134. Which of the following is not a correct statement (1) The dorsal root ganglion consists of
with respect to the human eyes? pseudounipolar neuron
(1) When all cones are stimulated equally, a (2) In eye, lateral to the blind spot is a yellowish
sensation of white light is produced. The pigmented spot called fovea with a central pit
called macula lutea having greatest visual
sensations of different colours are produced by
acuity
various combinations of these cones and their
photopigments (3) The otolith organ of vestibular apparatus of
inner ear consists of the utricle and saccule
(2) Fovea of macula lutea has the greatest visual
acuity and resolution (4) The association areas in cerebral cortex are
large regions that are neither clearly sensory
(3) Cones produces daylight (Photopic) vision and nor motor in function.
rods produces twilight (Scotopic) vision
140. Which of the following nervous system is called
(4) Ciliary muscles contract when we focus our cranio – sacral outflow?
eyes on a far-placed object
(1) Sympathetic nervous system and it is
135. Which of the following structures of ear provides adrenergic
sensory information on the position of the head in (2) Parasympathetic nervous system and it is
space, is essential for maintaining posture and adrenergic
balances and also detects linear acceleration and
(3) Sympathetic nervous system and it is
deceleration?
cholinergic
(1) Maculae (2) Cristae (4) Parasympathetic nervous system and it is
(3) Semicircular canals (4) Organ of Corti cholinergic
141. The somatic neural system of the peripheral (1) a(ii), b(vi), c(v), d(iii), e(i), f(iv)
nervous system (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v), f(iv)
(1) Relays impulses from CNS to smooth muscles (3) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(vi), e(iv), f(ii)
of body
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(vi), d(i), e(v), f(iii)
(2) Relays impulses from organs to the CNS
146. If a chemical causing blockage of Ca2+ voltage
(3) Regulates the movement of substances in gated channels is injected into a person, it will
hollow visceral organs of body (1) Not interfere in conduction of nerve impulses
(4) Relays impulses from CNS to skeletal (2) Result in post synaptic inhibition
muscles
(3) Result in pre-synaptic inhibition
142. End bulbs of Krause work as
(4) Result in slow conduction of impulses
(1) Photoreceptors (2) Chemoreceptors
147. Which of the following is the partition between
(3) Mechanoreceptors (4) Thermoreceptors scala vestibuli and scala media?
143. Which of the following disorder of eye is known as (1) Tectorial membrane
“Kala Motia”? (2) Reissner’s membrane
(1) Cataract (2) Myopia (3) Basilar membrane
(3) Glaucoma (4) Astigmatism (4) Schneiderian membrane
144. Helicotrema is a narrow opening which connects 148. A nerve fibre is depolarised when it acquires
(1) External auditory meatus and middle ear (1) A negative charge in the intracellular fluid and
positive charge outside
(2) Middle ear and internal ear
(2) A positive charge in the intracellular fluid and
(3) Middle ear and pharynx
negative charge outside
(4) Scala vestibuli and scala tympani (3) Negative charge on both sides
145. Match the following descriptions with the (4) Positive charge on both sides
appropriately numbered steps on the figure
149. Which of the following functions is not associated
1*+,- !"$# with sympathetic nervous system?
2*+,-
(1) Inhibits the secretion of gastric juice
3*+,-
4*+,- (2) Inhibits the secretion of pancreatic juice
!"#$%&'"()*+"'+,&-
*+,- (3) Inhibits the secretion of saliva

(4*+,- !"""# !$#
(4) Inhibits the secretion of sweat gland
(3*+,-
(2*+,- 150. If sodium potassium pump is blocked in a nerve,
(1*+,- which of the following is most likely to happen?
(0*+,- 567"#689: (1) More Na+ outside the nerve
(/*+,- !""#
(.*+,-
(2) More Na+ inside the nerve
!"# !$"# !"#$%&'
()*+,- (3) More K+ inside the nerve
a. Na+ channels open and flows into the cell, Na+ (4) Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ outside the nerve
causing rapid depolarisation
151. Which of the following is responsible for achieving
b. K+ channels open and K+ flows out of the cell, the ‘D’ phase in the figure below?
causing rapid repolarisation %
/.5!'+(.$'+.2
Na+ K+
!"!#$%&"'()*"&*+%,'+&
c. channels are closed and some leaks )*( #

out to maintain a resting potential !"#"!$%&'()'*(&%!+,%-+(.
(
d. K+ continues to flow out of the cell, producing $
!
-.//.01/23'4-56
/0 '+(.$'(1-2
hyperpolarisation of the membrane
!
e. Na+ channels close and K+ channels begin to &'( "
open -3!"$3(&4
/*(&%!+,"4'$-%-"2
( 678'9#
+ , * - .
f. A stimulus initiates depolarisation of the /01#203245665789:;<2=47>
membrane ?89:@<2:A2B:C8;C5D629ED;F872:A2D2;8@G8254BH678
(1) Na+ ion channels remain open for longer period 157. If there is inability to speak in fluent sentences
(2) K+ ion channels remain open for longer period although the person has no problem in understanding
written or spoken words, it can be due to damage
(3) Na+ – K+ pump is blocked to the
(4) Ca++ ion channels are blocked (1) Broca’s area in Frontal lobe
152. Pre ganglionic fibres of sympathetic nervous (2) Wernick’s area in temporal lobe
system secrete
(3) Portions of thalamus and hypothalamus of
(1) Adrenaline (2) Acetylcholine brain
(3) Nor adrenaline (4) Both (1) & (3) (4) Broca’s area in parietal lobe
153. Following centres are present in hypothalamus 158. At the time of seeing the near objects, which of
except the following does not occur?
(1) Vomiting centre (1) Contraction in ciliary muscles
(2) Satiety centre (2) Slackening of suspensory ligaments
(3) Thermoregulatory centre (3) Increase in curvature of lens
(4) Hunger centre (4) Decrease in refraction
154. Mark the incorrect match 159. The fovea is a thin portion of the retina where only
Nerve Nature Function _____ cells are densely packed. It is the point
where visual acuity (resolution) is the ______
(1) Trigeminal Mixed Warning signals
(Dentist’s about harmful (1) Cone, Lowest (2) Cone, Highest
nerve) chemicals in the air (3) Rod, Lowest (4) Rod, Highest
(2) Occulomotor Motor Perception of image 160. Iter (aqueduct of sylvius) connects
(3) Facial Mixed Sense of taste, (1) Paracoel and diacoel
facial expression (2) Diacoel and metacoel
(4) Glossopharyn- Mixed Taste sensation, (3) Metacoel and sub arachnoid space
geal swallowing of
food (4) Metacoel and central canal of spinal cord
155. Which part of brain is responsible for sensory 161. Mark the incorrect statement
perceptions of touch, pain, heat and cold, (1) Bipolar neurons (with one axon and one
knowledge about position in space and gathers dendrite) are found in the retina of eye
taking information from environment, organising it
(2) The gaps between two adjacent internodes are
and communicating to the rest of brain?
called nodes of Ranvier
(1) Frontal lobe
(3) Unmyelinated nerve fibres do not have myelin
(2) Parietal lobe sheath around the axon
(3) Temporal lobe (4) Nissl’s granules are found in cyton and are
(4) Occipital lobe absent in dendrites
156. Mark the incorrect match 162. Tympanic cavity is filled by
(1) Parkinson’s – Destruction in the neurons (1) Air (2) Perilymph

of disease basal ganglia (3) Endolymph (4) Aqueous humour
that produce 163. Which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related
neurotransmitter dopamine to decoding and interpretation of sound, language
(2) Alzheimer’s – Loss of neurons secreting comprehension, smell, memory and emotion?
disease neuro transmitter (1) Frontal lobe
acetylcholine
(2) Temporal lobe
(3) Schizophrenia – Excess of dopamine
(3) Parietal lobe
(4) Wilson’s – Progressive degeneration of
disease Myelin sheath (4) Occipital lobe
164. Which of the following cranial nerve innervates the 171. Mark the incorrect statement
lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball and turns the (1) Hearing becomes less acute in old age due to
eyeball laterally? calcification of basilar membrane
(1) Opthalmic nerve (2) Occulomotor nerve
(2) Bowman’s glands inside the nose release
(3) Optic nerve (4) Abducens nerve fluids to get rid of the irritating substances
165. If the eyeball has become too short and light rays (3) When moving in a car that is speeding up or
converge at a point behind the retina resulting in slowing down, the sense of linear acceleration
blurred image, this condition is called is provided by macula
(1) Hypermetropia (2) Astigmatism (4) Cochlea helps in both hearing and body
(3) Myopia (4) Glaucoma balancing
166. Which of the following events is/are responsible for 172. Hypothalamus contains a number of centres which
depolarisation of a nerve fibre on stimulation? control
(1) Opening of Na+ channels and K+ channels (1) Hunger and satiety (2) Thermoregulation
simultaneously (3) Libido (4) All of these
(2) Opening of Na+ channels and rapid influx of
173. Which one of these statement is correct?
Na+ ions
(1) Motor fibres leave spinal cord via ventral root
(3) Opening of K+ channels and rapid efflux of K+
ions only (2) Arbor vitae is a part of cerebrum
(4) Movement of Na + and K+
ions by active (3) Activity of brain is recorded by ECG
transport through Na-K-ATPase pump
(4) Part of brain affected first in a drunk person is
167. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. reflex actions medulla oblongata
(1) Salivation on tasting delicious food is an 174. In a man if the vagus nerve is injured, then which
example of conditioned reflex of the following function will be affected?
(2) Obeying the order is an example of (1) Eye ball movements
unconditioned reflex
(2) Movement of neck
(3) Interneurons are absent in monosynaptic
reflexes (3) Peristalsis of intestine
(4) Polysynaptic reflexes are rare in human body (4) Tongue movements
168. Which of the following cranial nerves is/are 175. Which of the following is the incorrect match?
associated with movement of eye ball along with (1) Telencephalon – Cerebrum
accommodation reflex?
(2) Diencephalon – Hypothalamus
(1) Occulomotor (2) Trochlear
(3) Metencephalon – Cerebellum
(3) Abducens (4) Auditory
(4) Rhombencephalon – Olfactory lobes
169. Cerebrospinal fluid secreted by anterior and
posterior choroid plexus performs the following 176. Which part of brain regulates heart rate, involuntary
functions except breathing, blood pressure, gut-peristalsis, vomiting,
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions?
(1) Protection of delicate brain and spinal cord
(1) Cerebrum (2) Hypothalamus
(2) Reducing the effective weight of brain
(3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata
(3) Acting as tissue fluid of brain
(4) Causing hydrocephalus condition in case of its 177. i.e. inability of an individual to
loss comprehend written language is called
170. If circular ciliary muscles of eye are unable to (1) Ataxia (2) Dyslexia
contract, it will result in (3) Amnesia (4) Agraphia
(1) Increasing the curvature of lens 178. Which of the following nerves control the
(2) Lens remaining thin and stretched movement of the eyeball?
(3) Decreasing the focal length of lens (1) III, IV & VI (2) III, V & VII
(4) Increasing the power of lens (3) II, III & IV (4) III, IV & V
179. Choose the incorrect statement 186. Cerebral aqueduct is the canal which passes
through which of the following?
(1) To maintain resting potential, sodium
potassium metabolic pump operates (1) Diencephalon (2) Medulla oblongata
(2) Resting potential is about –70 mV (3) Mid brain (4) Spinal cord
(3) Fibre with lesser diameter conducts impulse 187. After rise of stimulus for short duration, diffusion
faster of which ions restore resting potential of the
membrane at the site of excitation and fibre
(4) The travelling of an action potential is a nerve becomes once more responsive to further
impulse stimulation
180. Rapid influx of which of the following ion produces (1) Na+ (2) K+
action potential?
(3) Cl– (4) HCO3–
(1) Na+ (2) K+ 188. Mark the part of brain where neural impulses
(3) Mg2+ (4) Ca2+ transmitted by optic nerve are analysed and image
formed on the retina is recognized based on earlier
181. Deiter’s cells and cells of Hensen are located in
memory and experience
(1) Eyes (2) Ears (1) Optocoel
(3) Nose (4) Skin (2) Optic lobe
182. In cochlea of mammals, the thin walled roof of (3) Visual cortex area
scala media is called as
(4) Frontal lobe in occipital lobe
(1) Basilar membrane 189. The part of brain involved in regulation of heart rate,
(2) Tectorial membrane B.P., swallowing and vomiting is
(3) Organ of corti (1) Cerebellum (2) Pons varolii
(4) Reissner’s membrane (3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla oblongata
183. Pseudounipolar neurons are present in which of the 190. Which of the following functions as a kind of
following part? index for recall of an event with its associated
memory? It also converts information from short
(1) Grey matter of brain term to long term memory, essential in learning
(2) Ventral root ganglion of spinal cord (1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampus
(3) Dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord (3) Septum (4) Limbic system
(4) Do not exist anywhere in our body 191. Which of the following statements are suitable to
vestibular apparatus?
184. Limbic system comprises
I. It is responsible for maintenance of balance of
(1) Hypothalamus and optic lobes the body and posture.
(2) Hippocampus and amygdala II. It includes semi-circular canals and otolith
(3) Hippocampus and cerebellum organ.
(4) Brain stem III. It is part of inner ear.
185. Which is correct? IV. Cristae and maculae are specific receptors of
this apparatus.
(1) Impulse transmission is always faster across
(1) I & III only (2) I & II only
an electrical synapse than across a chemical
synapse (3) II & IV only (4) I, II, III & IV
(2) Impulse transmission is sometimes faster 192. If we cut dorsal root of spinal nerve and stimulate
across an electrical synapse than across a the associated receptor in skin, that person would
chemical synapse (1) Show no response
(3) Impulse transmission is faster across chemical (2) Show slow response
synapse than electrical synapse (3) Will feel stimulus but will not be able to
(4) Both synapses have equal impulse respond
transmission speed (4) Show normal response
193. Which of the following is/are specific receptor/s of e. Voltage gated Na+ ion channels are closed
vestibular apparatus responsible for maintenance and some K+ leak out to maintain a resting
of balance of the body and posture? potential.
(1) Organ of corti f. At the top of the spike, Na+ channels close,
and voltage gated potassium channels that
(2) Sensory hair cells were previously closed begin to open.
(3) Crista ampullaris and organ of Corti (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v), f(vi)
(4) Crista and macula (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv), e(v), f(vi)
194. The lobe of cerebrum which is involved in sensing (3) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(vi), e(ii), f(iii)
touch, pain, heat and cold etc and contains (4) a(ii), b(v), c(vi), d(iii), e(i), f(iv)
general somatosensory association areas is
197. Which of the following neural system relays the
(1) Occipital lobe (2) Temporal lobe impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?
(3) Parietal lobe (4) Frontal lobe (1) Somatic neural system
195. During repolarization of a nerve fibre, the (2) Sympathetic neural system
repolarization potential goes below the normal (3) Parasympathetic neural system
resting potential of –70 mV to around –90 mV.
(4) Autonomic neural system
This event is called hyperpolarization and occurs
due to 198. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
structure of a neuron.
(1) Opening of Na+ channels
(2) Delayed closure of Na+ channels
"
(3) Opening of K+ channels
(4) Delayed closure of K+ channels !
196. Match the following descriptions with the
appropriate numbered steps in the figure
)#$%& ./&0 #
(#$%&
'#$%&
"#$%&
#$%&
!"#$%&'"()*+"'+,&-
!"#$%& .///0 .&0

!'#$%& $
!(#$%&
!)#$%& Choose the correct option indicating the labelled
.//0
!*#$%& 123452678 structures in which Nissl’s granules are present
!+#$%&
./0 (1) A & B
!,#$%&
.&/0
!-#$%& (2) A, B & C
(3) A, B & D
a. A stimulus causes depolarisation of
membrane. (4) A, B, C & D
b. K+ channels are open, K+ flows out of the cell, 199. Which of the following type of neurons are present
causing rapid repolarisation. in embryonic stage?
c. K+ continues to flow out of the cell, producing (1) Unipolar

a hyperpolarisation of the membrane. (2) Bipolar
d. Rapid depolarisation occurs, because voltage
(3) Nonpolar
gated sodium channels open, allowing Na+ to
diffuse into the axon. (4) Multipolar
200. Following structures are responsible for the (3) C. Efferent pathway – It carries the
formation of autonomic nervous system impulse towards
a. Collateral ganglia nervous system
b. Autonomic ganglia (4) D. Dorsal root – Pseudounipolar

ganglion neuron
c. Pre and post ganglionic fibres
204. Which of the following is correct option w.r.t. step
d. Sympathetic ganglion chain
labelled as C on the given graph?
e. Sympathetic trunk
!"#$%&'"()*+"'+,&-
Out of these structures how many structures '
participate in the formation of sympathetic nervous $!
(.#,--,/*-+01
system? % &
!
(1) Two (2) Three
"$! 5+/6)27,
(3) Four (4) Five 816+26)9.
"#!
impulse conduction through an axon.
()*+,-*)..)/+01234
!
!" (1) Na+ channels are opened and Na+ leak out to
- + + + + + + + + + +
-
- - - - - - - - maintain a resting potential
+ + -
+
-
+
-
- - - - - - - - (2) K+ channels open, and K+ flows out causing
+ + + + + + + + +
+
!"
rapid repolarisation
The electric potential differences across the (3) K + continues to flow out, producing a
plasma membrane at the site A is called as hyperpolarisation of membrane
(1) Action potential (2) Resting potential (4) Negatively charged protein molecule inside
neuron responsible for this
(3) Nerve impulse (4) Both (1) & (3)
205. Which of the following cranial nerve reacts to
202. The third ventricle is filled with CSF. Its CSF is in message of pain and also protects us by warning
contact with all of the following structures of brain, about harmful chemicals in air?
except
(1) Olfactory (2) Hypoglossal
(1) Pineal body
(3) Vagus (4) Trigeminal
(2) Thalamus
(3) Epithalamus human eye showing various parts as labelled
structures, A to E.
(4) Posterior choroid plexus
reflex action showing knee jerk. 12*")*$ %&'(")*$+
,-./0"( ,-./0"(
$
$ 23#")
!"#$
$/"").
# #
-./01
$/"").
!"#$%&%' !
! " %
()'*+,') "
Which option includes set of two parts with
correct identification along with their description?
Identify the structures labelled as A, B, C & D and (1) A. Cornea – Composed of dense
connective tissue.
choose the incorrect option w.r.t. their function
B. Choroid – Contains many blood
(1) A. Muscle spindles – Receptors
vessels and looks
(2) B. Motor end plate – Effector bluish in colour.
(2) C. Sclera – External white layer of 1. A : Opthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve controls
eye. the extrinsic muscle of the eye.
R : It is motor nerve and controls the movement of
D. Blind spot – Photoreceptors are
the eye ball.
absent in this region.
2. A : Removal of the motor area of the cerebrum will
(3) E. Retina – Contains three layers make it impossible for a person to pick up a
from outside to inside glass on the table.
– ganglionic cells, R : Motor area is responsible for coordinated
bipolar cells and movements of the body.
photoreceptors
3. A : Loss of the secretory activity of substantia
B. Ciliary body – Involved in nigra is associated with Parkinson's disease.
accommodation reflex R : Substantia nigra is associated with the
(4) D. Fovea – Thinned out portion of secretion of acetylcholine.
retina where only 4. A : Hypothalamus is known as real master gland.
cones are densely
R : It maintains homeostasis, controls involuntary
packed
behaviour and emotional reactions and also
C. Choroid – Contains many blood secretes neurohormones.
vessels and looks 5. A : Refractory period limits the rate at which nerve
bluish in colour
impulse can be conducted.
207. Eustachian tube connects !!!!"!!! with the !!!!"!!! R : A nerve fibre cannot be stimulated again during
helps in equalising the pressure on either sides of relative refractory period if the threshold
ear drum. Choose the correct option w.r.t. blanks stimulus is of the same strength as earlier.
labelled as A and B.
6. A : Impulse transmission across an electrical
A B synapse is always faster than that across a
(1) Internal ear Larynx chemical synapse.
(2) Middle ear Pharynx R : Electrical impulses can flow directly from one
neuron into the other across electrical
(3) External ear Pharynx synapse.
(4) Middle ear Larynx 7. A : Light rays in visible wavelengths focussed on
208. Mark the disease associated with increased intra- the retina through cornea and lens generate
ocular pressure leading to compression, damage of potentials (impulses) in rods and cones.
the optic nerve, causing blindness R : Maximum refraction takes place because of
(1) Strabismus (2) Cataract lens.
(3) Glaucoma (4) Colour blindness 8. A : A nerve fibre can transmit about 1000
impulses per second.
R : Refractory period is very short, being only
SECTION - B about one millisecond.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 9. A : Hair cells on basilar membrane are responsible
for hearing.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : Tectorial membrane is a thin membrane which
overhangs the hair cells of basilar membrane.
reason is the correct explanation of the 10. A : Conduction of nerve impulse through neurons is
assertion, then mark (1). unidirectional.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the R : Neurotransmitters are released from axon
reason is not the correct explanation of the terminals, never from dendrons.
assertion, then mark (2). 11. A : Human brain reaches the adult size by six
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is years of age.
false, then mark (3). R : In evolution the size of human brain is
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false increasing so gestation period is slightly
statements, then mark (4). decreasing.
!" !" !
Chapter 7
Chemical Coordination and Integration

SECTION - A
(1) Insulin stimulates transport of glucose from
Objective Type Questions blood to muscle
(2) Somatostatin released from anterior pituitary
1. Which of the following statement is wrong?
inhibits functioning of growth hormone
a. ADH is produced mainly by the supraoptic
nucleus and stimulates absorption of water (3) Estrogen is responsible for the development of
and decreases urine production growing follicles
b. Grave’s disease is characterised by the (4) In sexual pseudoprecocity in girls discharge of

production of antibodies in response to thyroid ova do not occur
antigens 6. Which of the following function cannot be related to
c. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine the glucocorticoids?
muscles during pregnancy (1) Stimulates the liver to synthesize
d. Parathormone regulates calcium and carbohydrates from non-carbohydrates such as
phosphate balance between the blood and amino acid and glycerol
other tissues
(2) Stimulates the synthesis of protein from amino
(1) a and b (2) a and d acids within the cells
(3) b and c (4) b only (3) Retards phagocytic activities of WBCs and
2. Adrenal cortex is mainly concerned with thus suppresses ‘inflammation reaction’
(1) Regulation of body growth (4) Suppresses synthesis of antibodies by

inhibiting the production of lymphocytes in the
(2) Regulation of body temperature lymphoid tissue
(3) Conservation of Na+ and water
7. Which of the following condition can be related to
(4) Conservation of K+ and water be the cause of hypocalcemic tetany?
3. Secondary messenger of which of the following (1) Hypoparathyroidism
hormone activates the enzyme protein kinase-A?
(2) Hyperparathyroidism
(1) Nitric oxide (2) Acetylcholine
(3) Cushing’s syndrome
(3) Insulin (4) Adrenaline
(4) Hyperthyroidism
(1) Collip’s hormone increases blood calcium level
(1) Pineal gland – Biological clock
(2) Insulin and glucagon are polypeptide hormone
(2) Thymus – Throne of immunity
(3) Pineal gland is related with diurnal rhythm
(4) Testosterone is secreted by Sertoli cells of (3) Oxytocin – Pregnancy hormone
testis (4) Erythropoietin – Haemoeiopoeisis
454 Chemical Coordination and Integration Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. Mark the incorrect match 15. The hormone which reduces volume of urine by
(1) Albuminuria – Glomerulonephritis increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine
in the distal convoluted tubules in the kidney is
(2) Glycosuria – Diabetes mellitus
(1) Vasopressin released from supraoptic nuclei
(3) Ketonuria – Diabetes mellitus
(2) Oxytocin released from paraventricular nuclei
(4) Haemoglobinuria – Mild tertian malaria
(3) Vasopressin released from Paraventricular
10. Mark the protein which enables glucose transport
nuclei
into cells
(1) Collagen (4) Pitocin released from supraoptic nuclei
(2) Antibody 16. Which of the following given function of thyroid

gland is correct?
(3) GLUT-4
(1) Thyroid hormone increases the metabolic rate
(4) Ribulose-biphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase
of the body
(2) Thyroid hormone promotes growth of body
endocrine gland?
tissues
(1) Hormones are also known as chemical
messengers of the body (3) Thyroid hormone stimulate tissue differentiation
(2) Part of body where a hormone produces its (4) All of these
effect is called the target organ 17. The patient has a puffy appearance and lacks
(3) Paracrine action involves the hormone acting alertness, intelligence and initiative. These
on the same cell which secretes it symptoms are related to which of the following
disease?
(4) Hormones are released in very less amount
12. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Cretinism (2) Gulls disease
(1) Hormone concerned with - Thyroxine (3) Simple goitre (4) Graves disease
metabolism 18. The hormone which increases the concentration of

calcium ions in the blood plasma and reduce
(2) Hormone for growth and - Somatotropin
urinary elimination of calcium is
development
(1) Collips hormone (2) Calcitonin
(3) Hormones of digestion - Thyrotropin
(3) Insulin (4) Thyroxine
(4) Hormones for reproduction - Gonadotropin
19. Symptoms like bronze pigmentation of skin low
13. Hormones having its receptors located in the
blood sugar, low plasma Na+, high plasma K+,
cytoplasm are
increased urinary Na+, nausea, vomiting are related
(1) Oxytocin (2) Cortisone
(1) Conn's syndrome (2) Cushing syndrome
(3) Adrenaline (4) Relaxin
(3) Addison's disease (4) Adrenal virilism
20. Which of the following function is not related to
(1) Thyroid stimulating - Controls secretion of
hormone insulin?
Hormone thyroid hormone
(1) Insulin stimulates transport of glucose from
(2) Melanocyte - Stimulates cutaneous blood to muscle and adipose cell
stimulating pigmentation by
Hormone dispersion of melanin (2) Insulin promotes both oxidation of glucose and
granules conversion of glucose into glycogen in muscles
as well as liver
(3) Prolactin - Stimulates secretion and
ejection of milk (3) Insulin inhibits synthesis of fats from glucose
in adipose tissue
(4) Follicle stimulating - Stimulates
Hormone spermatogenesis in (4) Insulin promote uptake of amino acids by liver
males and muscle cells
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Chemical Coordination and Integration 455
21. Which statement correct w.r.t. Thymus gland? 27. Which of the following hormone is secreted when
the concentration of Ca2+ ions rises in the blood
(1) Thymus is bilobed gland
plasma?
(2) The outer cortex has thymocytes and inner
(1) Parathormone (2) Calcitonin
medulla has Hassals corpuscles
(3) Hormone produced by the thymus gland is (3) Thyroxine (4) Aldosterone
called thymosin 28. The hormone that increases the blood calcium level
(4) All of these and decreases its excretion by kidney is
22. High blood sugar, appearance of sugar in the urine, (1) Calcitonin (2) Parathormone
obesity, rise in plasma Na+, fall in plasma K+ are (3) Cortisol (4) Thyroxide
related to
29. Which of the following is not a basic difference
(1) Addisons disease
between the action of hormones and those of
(2) Cushing’s syndrome nerves?
(3) Conns syndrome (1) Hormones transmit the information much more
(4) Adrenal virilism slowly than nerve impulses
23. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (2) Hormone, takes many seconds or minutes to
produce a tissue response, whereas, a neuron
(1) Calcitonin promotes deposition of blood Ca2+
elicits responses in tissues within milliseconds
into the matrix of bone tissue
(3) Synthesis and release of some hormones are
(2) Parathormone promotes release of Ca2+ from
bone matrix into the blood regulated by nerves and not vice - versa
(3) Parathormone promote loss of Ca2+ in the urine (4) Hormonal action is generally less specific or
precise, and more diffuse or widespread,
(4) Calcitriol stimulates increased absorption of whereas action of neuron is often limited to
Ca2+ from food in gastrointestinal tract
one or few specific muscles
24. The maintenance of blood sugar homeostasis by
30. Besides, the feedback controls by other hormones
insulin is an example of
and metabolites, secretions of some hormones are
(1) Feedback control of a stimulating (tropic) controlled by nerves, example is
hormone by the hormone of the target
endocrine gland (1) Maintenance of level of thyroxine in our body
(2) Feedback control by a metabolite (2) Maintenance of blood sugar homeostasis
(3) Control by sympathetic nervous system (3) Secretion of epinephrine by adrenal medulla
(4) Control by nerves (4) Secretion of pituitary gonadotropins
25. Melatonin hormone secreted by pituitary is 31. Which of the following is the first hormone to be
synthesised from an amino acid which helps to discovered?
decrease the diameter of blood vessels. It is
(1) Insulin
(1) Tryptophan (2) Serotonin
(2) Secretin
(3) Epinephrine (4) Dopamine
(3) Gastrin
26. Hormones produce their effects on large tissues by
binding to specific proteins called hormone (4) Cholecystokinin
receptors located in the target tissue only. Which 32. Insulin receptor is
of the following hormone interacts with intracellular
receptors in the cytoplasm? (1) Trimeric protein
(1) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) (2) Membrane bound protein
(2) Thyroxine (3) Intrinsic protein
(3) Epinephrine (4) Intracellular receptor protein present in the
(4) Glucagon hormone cytoplasm
33. Find out the correct match (1) Acromegaly (2) Gigantism
(1) Thyroid Hyperthyroidism causes (3) Nanism (4) Dwarfism
cretinism in children
38. Adrenaline is released from adrenal medulla under
(2) Parathyroid Secretes parathormone which stress. Which of the following can’t be taken as
stimulates the movement of its character?
Ca2+ from the blood into bone (1) Elevate blood glucose by converting glycogen
(3) Pancreas Delta cells of islets of of liver to glucose
Langerhans secrete, (2) Accelerate rate and force of heart beat
somatostatin hormone which
stimulates the secretion of (3) Increase in breakdown of lipids
insulin and glucagon (4) Constriction of arterioles of skeletal muscle
(4) Adrenal gland It secretes adrenaline which 39. Which hormone is responsible to regulate Ca+2 and
causes dilation of arterioles of PO43– balance in the body?
heart and skeletal muscles;
increase in breakdown of lipids; (1) Thyroxine (2) Parathormone
increase in oxygen (3) Thyrocalcitonin (4) Both (2) & (3)
consumption and erection of
40. Which of the following parts of the adrenal cortex
hair
gland is responsible to secrete mineralocorticoids?
34. After an animal is killed, very little glycogen can be
(1) Zona glomerulosa (2) Zona fasciculata
utilised from food. Why?
(3) Zona reticularis (4) All corticotroph cells
(1) Glycogen is hydrolysed by the enzymes into
glucose 41. Amongst the following, one is not a valid statement
w.r.t. insulin hormone. Mark the invalid statement
(2) Glycogen is rapidly degraded to lactic acid by
enzymes (1) One molecule of insulin is made of 51 amino
acids
(3) Glycogen is immediately converted into carbon
dioxide and water (2) Insulin is antagonistic to glucagon
(4) Glycogen in converted into ethyl alcohol (3) - and -polypeptide chains of insulin are
joined by disulphide bonds
35. Which of the following hormone stimulates
progesterone secretion from ovary during (4) Insulin acts on intra-cellular receptors and
pregnancy? alters the protein synthesized by the DNA
(1) Oestradiol 42. Which of the following disease is caused due to

deficiency of Collip's hormone as a result of which
(2) Luteinising hormone (LH) phosphate level in blood decreases and Ca2+ level
(3) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) increases?
(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) (1) Rickling Henson disorder
36. A person is showing demineralisation resulting in (2) Conn's syndrome

softening and bending of the bones and some of the (3) Progeria
bone substance is replaced by cavities that are
filled with fibrous tissue. This condition is (4) Hashimoto's disease
(1) Osteitis fibrosa cystica due to hyposecretion of 43. Which germinal layer is associated with the origin
PTH of the thymus gland?
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm
(2) Parathyroid tetany due to hypersecretion of
PTH (3) Endoderm (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Hyperparathyroidism 44. Name the organ which shows the development of
a cancer called phaeochromocytoma leading to
(4) Tumor of the C-cells of thyroid
very high B.P. and possible death
37. The hyperproduction of growth hormone during
(1) Adrenal cortex (2) Adrenal medulla
growing stage in mammals results in a condition
known as (3) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
45. With the process of ageing, brain sand is known 53. Appearance of some male secondary sexual
to accumulate in which of the following glands of characters in a female due to hormonal imbalance
the body? is seen in
(1) Pituitary (2) Thyroid (1) Cushing's syndrome
(3) Pancreas (4) Pineal (2) Adrenal virilism
46. Addition of thiourea in water around tadpoles will (3) Gynaecomastia

have an effect on their development. Which (4) Phaeochromocytoma
amongst the following will be an effect of this
addition? 54. Which gland of the body will be effected by a
disease called Simmond's disease?
(1) Metamorphosis will be enhanced
(1) Thyroid (2) Pancreas
(2) Tadpole will become a giant tadpole
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Thymus
(3) Metamorphosis will be halted 55. Over secretion of aldosterone due to adrenocortical
(4) Both (2) & (3) tumour in the region of zona glomerulosa causes
which of the following disorder?
47. Which hormone is used as an immunosuppressant
especially in transplant rejection reactions in (1) Aldosteronism
humans? (2) Cushing's syndrome
(1) Corticosteroids (2) Thyroxine (3) Conn's syndrome
(3) Melatonin (4) Testosterone (4) More than one option are correct
48. Mark the second messenger amongst the following 56. Location of which gland is different in human male
set of molecules and in female?
(1) ATP (2) ADP (1) Pancreas (2) Adrenal gland
(3) cGMP (4) DNA (3) Gonads (4) Thymus gland
49. Which endodermal organ is a gland as well as vital 57. Receptors for thyroxine hormone are
in defence mechanisms of the body hence known (1) Extracellular (2) Intracellular
as 'throne of immunity'?
(3) G-protein only (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Thyroid (2) Thymus
58. Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. the term
(3) Adrenal cortex (4) Pancreas and its related explanation
50. Of all the glands, only one has the ability to store (1) Menarche – Start of menstruation
its hormonal secretion over a prolonged period of
(2) Menorrhagia – Excessive bleeding
time. Which one?
(3) Dysmenorrhea – Irregular menstruation
(1) Ovary (2) Thyroid
(4) Amenorrhea – Absence of menstruation
(3) Parathyroid (4) Pancreas
59. Blood calcium level is a resultant of how much
51. Which amongst the following diseases are caused dietary calcium is absorbed, how much is lost in
by hyperparathyroidism? urine, how much bone dissolves releasing calcium
(1) Osteitis fibrosa cystica into blood and how much calcium from blood enters
tissues. A number of factors play an important role
(2) Osteoporosis in these processes. Mark the one which has no
(3) Osteomalacia role.
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Vitamin D (2) Parathyroid hormone
52. People living in mountainous regions have 'rosy' (3) Thyrocalcitonin (4) Thymosin
cheek due to relatively higher secretion of the 60. Bronze like pigmentation of skin, low blood sugar,
hormone high plasma K+ are related to
(1) Renin (2) Rennin (1) Conn’s syndrome (2) Addison’s disease
(3) Erythropoietin (4) Thyroxine (3) Cushing’s syndrome (4) Adrenal virilism
61. In which of the following endocrine disorder will you (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)
notice the features of protruding eyes, very high
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv), e(v)
B.P., muscle spasms and very high BMR?
(3) a(ii), b(v), c(iii), d(iv), e(i)
(1) Exophthalmic goitre (2) Parry’s disease
(3) Grave’s disease (4) All of these (4) a(ii), b(v), c(i), d(iii), e(iv)
62. Which of the following set shows antagonistic 67. Which of the following is a powerful vasodilator and
effect? decreases the blood pressure?
(1) Prolactin and oxytocin (1) Adrenaline

(2) Oxytocin and prostaglandins (2) Aldosterone
(3) Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin (3) Thyroxine
(4) Thyroxine and GH (4) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
63. Collip’s hormone of parathyroid glands maintains 68. Name the chemical /structures labelled a, b and c
normal blood Ca2+ level by all the following ways in the following flow chart
except
(1) Increased mobilisation of Ca2+ from bones !"#$%&'(')*+
(2) Increased reabsorption of Ca2+ from nephrons ,'-

;/&242%$1"30::08%
(3) Increased absorption of Ca2+ from the intestine ./%012$13#2%*2%'1"
(4) PTH is secreted in response to increase in the
,4-
level of Ca2+ ions in blood plasma
64. Which hormone increases cardiac output by 5&"1$2637('/6
increasing heart rate, dialates blood vessels of
,8-
heart and skeletal muscles, increases O 2
consumption and converts liver glycogen into
907*('%2$/3$:3)0%'4$(2+)
glucose?
(1) Insulin (2) Glucagon (1) Somatostatin, GH, T4
(3) Adrenaline (4) Aldosterone (2) TSH, TRH, Thyroxine
65. Which of the following endocrine glands work (3) TRH, TSH, Thyroxine
directly under nervous control with involvement of (4) GnRH, FSH, Testesterone
neurons?
69. Which of the following diseases is not associated
a. Adenohypophysis b. Neurohypophysis with hypersecretion of a hormone?
c. Adrenal medulla d. Pineal gland (1) Acromegaly
(1) a & b only (2) a, b & c
(2) Cushing’s disease
(3) b, c & d (4) a, b, c & d
(3) Addison’s disease
66. Select the correctly matched pair of the hormones
(4) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
given in Column-I and their target organs or glands
in Column-II 70. Which of the following is a local hormone?
Column-I Column-II (1) Thyroxine (2) Growth hormone
(Hormones) (Target organs)
(3) Gastrin (4) Oxytocin
a. Hypothalamic hormones (i) Adrenal cortex
71. Which of the following is not a neurohormone?
b. Thyrotropin (TSH) (ii) Pituitary
(1) Somatostatin (GHIH)
c. Corticotropin (ACTH) (iii) Testes
(2) Adrenaline
d. Gonadotropins (iv) Skin
(LH, FSH) (3) Vasopressin
e. MSH (v) Thyroid (4) Prolactin
72. Deficiency of which hormone causes physical and 78. Which of the following hormones stimulates milk
mental deficiencies, infantile facial expression, pug production and secretion, participates in control of
nose, thick legs, pot-belly, pigeon chest, thick reproduction, growth and metabolism?
tongue and lethargy etc.? (1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin
(1) GH in adulthood (3) hCG (4) Dopamine
(2) GH in childhood 79. Find out the incorrect statement with respect to
(3) Thyroxine in adulthood metabolism of calcium in human body
(4) Thyroxine in childhood (1) High level of Ca2+ in blood stimulates thyroid
gland’s parafollicular cells to release calcitonin
73. Which of the following statements is not correct
w.r.t. cortisol? (2) Calcitonin promotes deposition of Ca2+ into
bone matrix to reduce blood Ca2+ level
(1) Involved in metabolism of carbohydrates,
proteins and fats with an effect opposite to (3) Hyper secretion of PTH causes deficiency of
that of insulin Ca2+ in blood which increases the excitability
of nerves and muscles and causes sustained
(2) Involved in inflammatory reactions, allergic
muscular contractions (Tetany)
responses and coping with stress conditions
(4) Calcitriol hormone released from kidneys
(3) Induces protein synthesis in liver from amino
stimulates absorption of Ca 2+ in gastro-
acids
intestinal tract
(4) Induces synthesis of glucose from sources
80. Which of the following is not secreted by
other than carbohydrates (gluconeogenesis)
hypothalamus?
74. One amongst the following is not a property of
(1) Somatostatin (2) Somatotropin
thyroid hormones
(3) Dopamine (4) Oxytocin
(1) Stimulation of RBC formation
81. Find out the correct matching
(2) Regulation of metabolic rate
(1) Parathyroids – Secrete parathormone which
(3) Maintenance of normal body temperature
stimulates the movement of
(4) Rise in Ca2+ level of the blood Ca2+ from blood into bone
75. Somatostatin is secreted by all, except (2) Adrenal – Zone fasciculata secretes
gland glucocorticoids which
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Kidney
stimulate gluconeogenesis,
(3) Pancreas (4) Digestive tract lipolysis and proteolysis
76. Gull’s disease is due to (3) Pancreas – –cells secrete insulin
(1) Deficiency of thyroid hormone hormone which acts mainly on
hepatocytes and adipocytes
(2) Hypersecretion of thyroxine and enhances cellular glucose
(3) Hyposecretion of glucocorticoid uptake
(4) Hypersecretion of mineralocorticoid (4) Thyroid – It secretes a protein hormone

called thyrocalcitonin which
77. Which of the following secretions is correctly increases the level of Ca 2+
matched with its source and nature of action? ions in blood plasma
(1) ANF – JG apparatus – Inhibition of release of 82. Glucocorticoids are involved in all the following,
renin except
(2) Vasopressin – Hypothalamus – Reabsorption (1) Produce anti-inflammatory reactions
of H2O in DCT and collecting duct
(2) Immunosuppressive function
(3) Angiotensinogen – Kidney – Contraction of
blood vessels (3) Inhibit gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and
proteolysis
(4) Aldosterone – JG Apparatus – Retention of
NaCl and H2O in body (4) Stimulate RBC production
83. All of the following are effects of hypothyroidism, 90. Hassal’s corpuscles are found in
except
(1) Pituitary gland
(1) Cretinism
(2) Pineal gland
(2) Low intelligence quotient (3) Thymus gland
(3) Tachycardia (4) Thyroid gland
(4) Irregular menstrual cycle 91. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the
84. Besides the feedback control by other hormones hormones, its source and its functions?
and metabolites, secretions of some hormones are Hormone Source Functions
controlled by nerves also. Example is
(1) LH (luteinizing Pars distalis Maintains
(1) Maintenance of level of thyroxine in our body hormone) corpus luteum
(2) Maintenance of blood sugar homeostasis formed from
the remnants
(3) Secretion of epinephrine by adrenal medulla of Graafian follicle
(4) Secretion of pituitary gonadotropins after ovulation
85. Which of the following hormones acts on its target (2) TCT (Thyro- Parathyroid Regulates
tissues by a steroid hormone like mechanism of calcitonin) gland blood calcium
levels
action?
(3) Oxytocin Hypothala- Acts on the
(1) Thyroid hormone
mus smooth muscles
(2) FSH of our body and
stimulates their
(3) Glucagon
contraction
(4) ADH (4) Glucocorti- Zona fasci- Stimulate
86. Adrenaline or epinephrine hormone is formed from coids culata gluconeogenesis,
which amino acid? lipolysis and
proteolysis
(1) Tyrosine (2) Glycine
92. Which of the following endocrine glands is related
(3) Tryptophan (4) Alanine to maintenance of normal rhythms of sleep-wake
87. A person passes out excessive urine and drinks much cycle?
water but his glucose level is normal. It is due to (1) Thyroid
(1) Increased secretion of glucagon (2) Hypophysis
(2) Fall in glucose concentration released in urine (3) Pineal
(3) Reduction in insulin secretion (4) Thymus
(4) Reduction in ADH secretion 93. Which of the following is not a derivative of
tyrosine?
88. Which thyroid hormone is not stored as colloidal
material in the thyroid follicles? (1) Epinephrine
(1) Calcitonin (2) Thyroxine (2) Norepinephrine
(3) Triiodothyronine (4) T3 (3) Dopamine
89. Conn’s syndrome is due to (4) Serotonin
(1) Excess secretion of cortisol from adrenal cortex 94. Which of the following hormone binds with
membrane bound receptors?
(2) Excess secretion of aldosterone from adrenal
cortex (1) Thyroxine
(2) FSH
(3) Less secretion of parathyroid hormone from
parathyroid glands (3) Estrogen
(4) Deficiency of thyroid hormones (4) Cortisone
95. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hormones and (1) Increased co-ordination time, pupilary
their functions constriction
(1) Parathyroid – Hypercalcemic hormone, (2) Piloerection (raising of hair), sweating etc.
hormone (PTH) it increases the blood
calcium level by increasing (3) Increased heart beat, the strength of heart
the bone resorption/ contraction and rate of respiration
demineralisation
(4) Glycogenolysis resulting in increased
(2) Glucocorticoids – Stimulates lipolysis, concentration of glucose in blood
proteolysis, and
gluconeogenesis and also 98. Hypophyseal portal vein enables the transport of
stimulates R.B.C. following hormones except
production (1) Somatostatin
(3) Atrial natriuretic – Cause vasodilation and (2) Thyrotropin releasing hormone
factor decreases the blood
pressure (3) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
(4) Somatostatin – Increases the release of (4) Somatotropic hormone

growth hormone and thus 99. Mark the hormone which is lipid soluble, readily
increases the growth of the passes through the plasma membrane of target cell
body into the cytoplasm and alters the pattern of gene
96. Match column I with column II expression initiating the transcription of some
genes while repressing the transcription of others
Column I Column II
(1) Adrenaline
a. Cushing‘s syndrome (i) High plasma Na+, low
plasma K + , rise in (2) Insulin
blood volume and (3) Thyroxine
high blood pressure
(4) Thyrotropin
b. Cretinism (ii) High blood sugar
level, rise in blood 100. Mark the incorrect statement with respect to thyroid
volume, high blood gland
pressure, obesity (1) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
and wasting of defective development and maturation of
muscles of thighs growing foetus leading to stunted growth
and pectoral/pelvic
(cretinism), mental retardation, low intelligence
girdles
quotient, abnormal skin, deaf mutism etc.
c. Dwarfism (iii) Slow body growth,
(2) In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause
retarded mental
menstrual cycle to become irregular
development due to
reduced metabolic (3) Tuberculosis of the thyroid gland leads to
rate in infants hyperthyroidism which adversely affects the
d. Conn’s syndrome (iv) Small but well body physiology
proportioned body, (4) Iodine is essential for the normal rate of
sexual immaturity hormone synthesis in the thyroid
and having normal
intelligence. 101. Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) increases the Ca++
levels in the blood by
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Stimulating reabsorption of Ca++ by the renal
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) tubules
97. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are rapidly secreted in (2) Increasing Ca2+ absorption from digested food
response to stress and during emergency situations
and are called emergency hormones or hormones (3) Stimulating the bone resorption (dissolution/
of fight or flight. These hormones are involved in demineralisation)
following functions except (4) All of these
102. Mark the correct match 108. Which of the following endocrine structures
Hormones Source of Functions secretes both proteinaceous and steroid hormones?
secretion (1) Pituitary gland (2) Ovaries
(1) Melatonin Hypophysis Act as a kind of (3) Placenta (4) Both (2) & (3)
biological clock
109. Which of the following hormones is correctly
(2) Thymosin Thymus Throne of matched with its source and action?
immunity
(1) Prolactin – Lactotrophs – Growth and
(3) Erythropoietin Kidney cells Decreases metabolism, stimulates milk production
production of
(2) Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) – Stomach
RBCs
lining – Inhibition of gastric motility
(4) LTH Gonadotroph Inhibits milk
(3) ANF – Juxtaglomerular cells – Inhibition of
(Luteotrophic production and
release of renin to decrease BP
hormone) secretion,
participates in (4) TSH – Thyroid follicles – Heat production and
control of regulation of basal metabolic rate
reproduction,
110. Oxytocin and vasopressin are transported
osmoregulation
and growth (1) From hypothalamus to adenohypophysis
through blood
103. Which of the following can’t be considered as
hyperactivity disorder? (2) From hypothalamus to neurohypophysis
through blood
(1) Cushing’s syndrome
(3) From hypothalamus to adenohypophysis
(2) Conn’s syndrome through axon
(3) Gull’s diseases (4) From hypothalamus to neurohypophysis
(4) Osteitis fibrosa cystica through axon
104. Mark the endocrine gland which secretes both 111. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex
steroid and proteinaceous hormone disorder called diabetes mellitus which is
associated with
(1) Pancreas (2) Placenta
(1) Glucosuria (2) Ketoacidosis
(3) Testes (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Renal calculi
105. Most abundant glucocorticoid is
112. Which of the following is called integration system
(1) Cortisol of the body?
(2) Corticosterone (1) Endocrine system
(3) Cortisone (2) Nervous system
(4) Dehydroepiandrosterone (3) Neuroendocrine system
106. Which of the following is not a function of thyroid (4) Circulatory system
hormones?
113. Match the hormones given in column I with their
(1) Maintenance of basal metabolic rate functions in column II
(2) Stimulation of protein breakdown Column I Column II
(3) Increased heat production a. Adrenaline (i) Child birth
(4) Metamorphosis of tadpole into adult frog b. Aldosterone (ii) Accelerates heart
107. Which of the following hormones affects the heart beat
beat? c. Oxytocin (iii) Salt water balance
(1) Thyroxine (2) Adrenaline (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(3) Nor-adrenaline (4) All of these (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
114. Hormone responsible for increase in blood calcium (1) Neurosensory and neuromotor cells
level in the body is (2) Nuclei
(1) Adrenaline (2) Calcitonin (3) Neurosecretory cells
(3) Collip’s hormone (4) Thyroxine (4) Both (2) & (3)
115. Hyperactivity of thyroid gland leads to 122. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective
(1) Cretinism (2) Grave’s disease development and maturation of growing baby,
leading to all the following defects except
(3) Cushing syndrome (4) Myxoedema
(1) Deaf mutism (2) Stunted growth
116. Which gland undergoes atrophy in response to
adrenal glucocorticoids? (3) Low IQ (4) Exopthalmic goitre
(1) Pineal gland (2) Thymus gland 123. Hormones which interact with membrane bound
receptors generate following second messengers
(3) Thyroid gland (4) Pituitary gland except
117. The hormone/s which interact with a surface (1) cAMP (2) IP3
receptor, usually a glycoprotein and thus initiates
(3) Ca+2 (4) Na+
a chain of events within it is/are
124. Steroid hormones
(1) Catecholamines (2) Peptide hormones
(1) Have only cell surface receptors
(3) Protein hormones (4) All of these
(2) Are lipophobic
118. Correctly matched pair w.r.t. hormone and its
(3) Interact with intracellular receptors and
deficiency disorder is
regulate gene expression or chromosome
(1) Somatotropin – Goitre function by the interaction of hormone -
receptor complex with genome
(2) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(4) Are produced by only adrenal cortex in the
(3) PTH – Tetany
body
(4) Prolactin – Cretinism 125. Which of the following is incorrect match the
119. Which gland is also known as 4S gland? source gland with its respective hormone as well
as the function.
"#$%&'()*%+,-./( Source gland Hormone Function
"%-*'&)*%.0.0$ (1) Pineal gland Melatonin Regulation of a
!"
")1'2,&(,0) 24 hour diurnal
",#&3)',4')0)&$5 rhythm of our
body
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Adrenal gland (2) Hypothalamus Oxytocin Vigorous
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Pancreas contraction of
uterus at the
120. Match the following time of
Column I Column II childbirth, and
milk ejection
a. T4 (i) Hypothalamus
(3) Pars distalis Prolactin Growth of
b. PTH (ii) Thyroid mammary
c. GnRH (iii) Pituitary glands and
synthesis of
d. LH (iv) Parathyroid milk in them
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) Neuro- ACTH Stimulates the
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) hypophysis synthesis and
the secretion of
121. Hypothalamus regulates wide spectrum of body steroid
functions through hormones. Which category of hormones,
the cells are responsible for this regulation? gluco-corticoids
126. What is the mechanism of action of FSH (2) It binds with extracellular receptors
hormone?
(3) It interacts with membrane bound receptors
(1) It regulates gene expression or chromosome
(4) It interacts with the intracellular receptors in
function by the interaction of hormone receptor
nucleus and regulates gene expression by
complex with the genome
interaction of hormone receptor complex with
(2) It binds with membrane bound receptors and the genome
produces cyclic AMP or Ca2+ as the second
messenger 130. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the gland, its
hormone and principal action
(3) It binds with extracellular receptors and
produces cyclic GMP as the second -('$. /,"0,$1 !"#$%#&'()*%+#,$
messenger !"# !"#$%&'( !"#$%&'(%$ 5%)#$&.$.6(+0$(7#$&8"*9%(
(4) It binds with intracellular receptors in nucleus )*#+$, *:('4;4".6(4%)#$&.$.(<!"
not cytoplasm )*%.32;+4*%(&%"("4'&+4*%(
*:(;3;4'
127. A person has symptoms like frequent urination, !$# -&%)#$&. 5%.3'4% =+423'&+$.(+#&%.;*#+(*:(
glucose absent in urine, and enhanced thirst due >'3)*.$(:#*2(7'**"(+*(
to urinary loss of water, this person is suffering 23.)'$.(&%"(&"4;*.$()$''
from !%# /0123. /012*.4% =+423'&+4%>($::$)+(*%(
$%+4#$(4223%$(.1.+$2(
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Diabetes insipidus &%"(;#*2*+$.(;#*'4:$#&+4*%(
(3) Gull’s disease (4) Grave’s disease &%"(2&+3#&+4*%(*:(
/?'12;0*)1+$.
128. Given below are four statements (A - D) each with A&')4+*%4% 5+(4.(4%@*'@$"(4%()&')432(
!&# /01#*4"
two blanks. Select the options which correctly fills 0*2$*.+&.4.(&%"(4.(
up the blanks in two statements 01;*)&')$24)(0*#2*%$
A. Thymus secretes !!!!"#$!!! which helps in 131. Read the given paragraph carefully
differentiation of !!!!"##$!!! .
Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
B. The adrenal medulla secretes
!!!!"%$!!! which especially in middle age can result in severe
disfigurement called ____, which may lead to
stimulates the breakdown of !!!!"##$!!! to
serious complications and premature death if
increase the blood glucose concentration
unchecked. Choose the option which correctly
during emergency situations.
fills the blank in given paragraph
C. The !!!!"#$!!! cells, which are present in the
(1) Dwarfism (2) Gigantism
intertubular spaces produce a group of
hormones called !!!!"##$!!! . (3) Simmond’s disease (4) Acromegaly
132. An impairment affecting synthesis or release of
D. Thyroid gland secretes !!!!"#$!!! and tri-
ADH results in a diminished ability of the kidney
iodothyronine. !!!!"##$!!! is essential for the to conserve water leading to water loss and
hormone synthesis in the thyroid. dehydration. This hormone released in blood by
(1) A. (i) Melatonin; (ii) Lymphocytes which of the following labelled structure in the
given diagram?
B. (i) Adrenaline; (ii) Fat
(2) A. (i) Catecholamine; (ii) Glycogen !
C. (i) Interstitial cells; (ii) Testosterone
(3) B. (i) Catecholamine; (ii) Glycogen
D. (i) Thyroxine; (ii) Iodine
(4) D. (i) Parathyroid hormones; (ii) Calcium
$
A. (i) Thymosin; (ii) Lymphocytes
129. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. #
mechanism of action of testosterone hormone?
"
(1) It does not enter inside the target cell but
(1) A (2) B
generates second messenger like cAMP and
Ca++ (3) C (4) D & A
133. Which of the following hormone controls other (4) D – Iodine is essential for the normal rate of
endocrine gland? hormone synthesis in this gland and its
hormones play important role in
(1) Gastrin (2) Thyrotropin regulation of basal metabolic rate and
(3) Somatotropin (4) Growth hormone blood calcium level.
134. Given below is a list of certain endocrine gland 137. Given below is a table about endocrine glands
disorders their hormone and disorder
a. Gigantism b. Dwarfism !"#$% &'()'*+,$ -+.,)%')

!" !"#$"#%&' 9&*3#)0)*&6*.- 23%&4"56
c. Diabetes mellitus d. Diabetes insipidus
#" ()'&*"+ ()'&*:". 7&-#"."56
e. Exopthalmic goitre f. Grave’s disease
$" !%&%#)'&*"+ !%&%#)'&*"+0 (-#%.'
Which of the following option includes disease )*&6*.-
that are due to hypersecretion of a single %" ,+&-.%/0 ,/+*5#-&*.- 7*..850
endocrine gland? 1/%.+ 5'.+&*6-
(1) a & b (2) c & d Mark the odd one in comparison to other
categories of given disorders.
(3) e & f (4) b & d
(1) A (2) B
135. Leydig cells found in human body are secretory
source of (3) C (4) D
(1) Glucagon (2) Progesterone 138. Which of the following option does not include the
antagonistic hormones?
(3) Androgens (4) Insulin
(1) Insulin and glucagon
136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation
regarding the location of various endocrine gland (2) PTH and calcitonin
labelled as A, B, C and D. (3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
(4) All are antagonistic hormones
139. Which of the following sex hormones produces
! anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and
carbohydrate metabolism?
"
(1) Testosterone
#
$ (2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Relaxin
140. Given below is a list of hormones secreted by
Choose the correct option regarding the labelled various endocrine gland?
glands.
a. Erythropoietin
(1) A – It helps in maintaining the normal
b. Cortisol
rhythms of sleep wake cycle, body
temperature and also influences c. Thymosin
metabolism. d. Melatonin
(2) B – Over secretion of this gland always e. Somatostatin
leads to hyperglycemia which is
associated with loss of glucose through Which of the following hormone/s stimulate/s
erythropoiesis?
urine and formation of harmful product
known as ketone bodies. (1) a only
(3) C – It secretes PTH, which increases the (2) a & b only
Ca2+ levels in the blood. It stimulates (3) b & c only
reabsorption of Ca 2+ by the renal
tubules. (4) d & e only
8. A : Diabetes is characterised by hyperglycemia,

SECTION - B
glycosuria, polyurea, polydipsia, dehydration
Assertion - Reason Type Questions etc.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : Type-II diabetes occurs due to deficiency of
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) insulin hormone as beta cells of pancreas are
destroyed.
9. A : Prolactin is called maternity hormone.
assertion, then mark (1). R : It stimulates development of mammary glands
during pregnancy and lactation after birth.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 10. A : Insulin dependent diabetes is characterised by
assertion, then mark (2). appearance of ketone bodies in urine.
R : Ketone bodies are formed due to breakdown of
fats.
11. A : Cortisol, testosterone, estradiol and
progesterone bind to cytoplasmic receptors.
R : Cortisol, testosterone, estradiol and
1. A : Excess of growth hormone can have progesterone are steroid hormones.
diabetogenic action.
12. A : Low secretion of parathyroid hormone leads to
R : Growth hormone acts through insulin like Hypocalcaemic tetany.
growth factors (IGFs).
R : Low Ca2+ conc. in the extracellular medium of
2. A : Absence of iodine containing food in a muscle fibres makes them more excitable.
previously normal person will induce goitre only 13. A : Growth hormone and thyroxine are synergistic
after a prolonged period of time. hormones.
R : Thyroid gland stores its secretions. R : Both growth hormone and thyroxine increase
3. A : The effect of insulin, on glucose level of blood blood glucose level.
is very rapid but transient in nature. 14. A : Calcitonin hormone increases the blood
R : Insulin acts on extracellular receptors of the calcium level by stimulating the process of
target cell. bone resorption.
R : Calcitonin hormone is a hypercalcemic
4. A : Tumour of adrenal medulla may lead to
hormone.
haemorrhagic B.P. followed by death.
15. A : Catecholamines refer to dopamine, epinephrine
R : Catecholamines are sympathomimetic.
and nor-epinephrine.
5. A : Oxytocin and vasopressin are secreted by R : The secretion of epinephrine is under control of
supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of pituitary hormones.
hypothalamus
16. A : The Leydig cells which are present in inter
R : They remain stored in axon terminals inside the tubular spaces produce a group of hormones
posterior lobe of pituitary called Herring called testosterone.
bodies.
R : Testosterone hormone does not influence
6. A : Glaucoma may result in permanent blindness. libido.
R : It is due to increase in intraocular pressure 17. A : Castration changes an aggressive bull into a
which damages the optic nerve leading to docile ox.
permanent blindness. R : This is due to deficiency of testosterone.
7. A : In frog’s tadpole, if thyroid gland is removed 18. A : Thyroid regulates basal metabolic rate.
surgically, metamorphosis stops. R : Thyroid initiates, regulates and play a key role
R : TSH is not secreted. in metamorphosis of frog’s tadpole.
!" !" !
Chapter 8
Reproductive Health
(3) Where pregnancy can be harmful or even fatal

SECTION - A
to the mother or to the foetus or both
Objective Type Questions (4) Unwanted pregnancy
1. Which of the following embryonic stage is 6. Copper releasing IUDs, like CuT, Cu7, Multiload
transferred into uterus in the intrauterine transfer 375 act by
(IUT) to complete its further development?
(1) Decreasing phagocytosis of sperms within the
(1) Zygote uterus
(2) Upto 8 blastomeres
(2) Suppressing the sperm motility and fertilising
(3) More than 8 blastomeres capacity of sperms
(4) Transient 3 celled stage (3) Making the uterus unsuitable for implantation
2. Mark the incorrect statement and cervix hostile to the sperms
(1) Norplant implanted subdermally for providing (4) Inhibition of motility and secretory activity of
short term contraception fallopian tube
(2) An injectable can inhibit ovulation and make 7. Mark the incorrect detection technique w.r.t. STDs
uterus unsuitable for implantation (1) Chancroid – Clinical, gram staining of
(3) Saheli, non-steroidal preparation, is taken once discharge, antigen detection,
a week after initial intake of twice a week dose nucleic acid hybridisation
for 3 months (2) Syphilis – Antibody detection, for
(4) Copper-T, has ionised copper which slowly example, VDRL
diffuses at the rate of some 50 g/day (3) Trichomoniasis – Microscopic
3. Which of the sexually transmitted disease cannot examination, culture
be treated by antibiotics?
(4) Genital herpes – Clinical, antigen test, PCR
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) French pox
8. Which of the following is a specialised technique
(3) Genital warts (4) Chlamydiasis to form an embryo in laboratory in which the
4. Which of the following is considered as ideal sperm is directly injected into the ovum?
contraceptives well accepted by the female who a. ICSI b. IUI
want to delay pregnancy and/or space children?
c. IUT d. IVF
(1) Tubectomy
(1) a only (2) a & b only
(2) IUDs
(3) a, b & c only (4) a, b, c & d only
(3) IUT
9. Which of the following barrier method has
(4) Fem shield (female condom)
additional advantage of protecting the user from
5. MTPs are not meant for STDs and AIDS?
(1) Female foeticide (1) Condoms (2) Vaults
(2) Removing unsustainable pregnancies (3) Cervical caps (4) Diaphragm
468 Reproductive Health Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Which of the following is Cu++ releasing IUD? (3) The use of Saheli is suggested twice a week
(1) Multiload-375 (2) LNG-20 initially for first 3 month and once in a week
after that
(3) Norplant (4) Saheli
11. Find the incorrect statement (4) The use of gossypol is suggested daily for first
three month and after that twice weekly
(1) Except AIDS and syphilis, all other STDs are
completely curable 18. Which of the following was not related with birth of
Louise Joy Brown, who was the first test tube
(2) Misoprostol and mifepristone is an effective
baby?
combination for MTP performed upto 1st
trimester (1) Gilbert Brown (2) Lesley Brown
(3) Infertility is the failure to conceive even after (3) Dr. Robert Edwards (4) Dr. Indra Hinduja
1-2 years of regular unprotected sex
(4) Chlamydia is obligate intracellular parasite
Column I Column II
a. Vasectomy (i) Test of safe period
(1) Copper releasing IUDs prevent the conception
by making the uterus unsuitable for b. Gravidex test (ii) Pregnancy test
implantation c. Saheli (iii) Centchroman
(2) Action of mifepristone is antagonistic to d. Norplant (iv) Castration
progesterone
(v) Sterilisation
(3) Saheli is steroidal contraceptive pill with
minimum side effect (vi) Progestin
(4) Withdrawal method of contraception has more (1) a(v), b(i), c(iii), d(vi) (2) a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(vi)
failure rate (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(vi) (4) a(vi), b(v), c(iii), d(ii)
13. Which of the following is a method of 20. Home use kits can be used for determining the
contraception and can be considered as most cost woman’s fertile period. This depends upon the
effective and reversible type contraceptive? detection of which hormone in the urine?
(1) Tubectomy (2) Ovariectomy
(1) FSH (2) Progesterone
(3) Vasectomy (4) Cu-T
(3) hCG (4) LH
14. Which of the following cannot be included along
with barrier type of contraceptives? 21. The widespread use of contraceptive methods have
a significant role in checking uncontrolled growth of
(1) Condoms (2) Diaphragm
population. However, their possible ill effects
(3) Vault cap (4) Coitus interruptus include
15. Which of the following IUD is not a hormone (1) Breast cancer
releasing IUD?
(2) Abdominal pain
(1) Progestasert (2) LNG-20
(3) Irregular menstrual bleeding
(3) Levonorgestrol IUD (4) Nonoxynol-9
(4) All of these
16. Mark the sexually transmitted disease (STD) which
is caused by a protozoan 22. Match the following
(1) Trichomoniasis (2) Chancroid Column I Column II
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Genital warts a. Syphilis (i) Human papilloma virus
17. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. b. Chancroid (ii) Chlamydia trachomatis
the name of contraceptives and the methods of
their use? c. Genital warts (iii) Herpes simplex virus
(1) The Mala-D is taken once only between 1st to d. Trichomoniasis (iv) Haemophilus ducrei
5th day of menstruation (v) Trichomonas vaginalis
(2) The use of oral pills generally started between (vi) Treponema pallidum
5 th day of menstruation and should be
continued upto 21st day and then repeated after (1) a(vi), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
a gap of 7 days (3) a(vi), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(vi), b(iv), c(i), d(v)
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Reproductive Health 469
23. Match the following 29. The method of directly injecting a sperm into the
Column I Column II ovum by microscopic assisted technology is called
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
a. Hepatitis B (i) VDRL
(3) ICSI (4) ET
b. Syphilis (ii) Wayson stain test
30. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
c. Gonorrhoea (iii) Lepromin test within
(iv) Mantoux test (1) 72 hours of coitus
d. AIDS (v) ELISA (2) 72 hours of ovulation
(vi) Gram staining of (3) 72 hours of menstruation
discharge, culture (4) 72 hours of implantation
(1) a(v), b(i), c(vi), d(v) (2) a(i), b(vi), c(v), d(ii) 31. According to the last census report, the doubling
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v) (4) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(v) time for Indian population is
24. Which venereal disease is caused by a virus? (1) 36 years (2) 37 years
(1) Trichomoniasis (2) Genital herpes (3) 33 years (4) 30 years
32. Which of the following is a traditional contraceptive
(3) Syphilis (4) Gonorrhoea
method?
(1) Natural method (2) Barrier method
Column I Column II (3) Oral contraceptives (4) Surgical method
a. Hepatitis B (i) Chlamydia trachomatis 33. The contraceptive method with almost no side
b. Genital herpes (ii) Trichomonas vaginalis effects is
c. Genital warts (iii) Herpes Simplex virus (1) Periodic abstinence
d. Chlamydiasis (iv) Human papilloma virus (2) Coitus interruptus
(v) Treponema pallidum (3) Lactational amenorrhoea

(4) All of these
(vi) Hepatitis B - virus
34. Mark the wrong statement w.r.t. condoms
(1) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(vi), b(iii), c(v), d(i)
(1) Provide protection against STDs and AIDS
(3) a(vi), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(vi), b(iii), c(iv), d(v)
(2) Used by both male and females
26. Which of the following is non-steroidal contraceptive
(3) Provide privacy to the user
pill?
(4) Self inserted and reusable
(1) Saheli (2) Mala-D
35. Additional effect of the hormone releasing IUDs
(3) i pill (4) Mala - N compared to copper releasing IUDs is
27. Which of the following is termed as abortion drug? (1) Suppressing the sperm motility
(1) Estrogen + FSH (2) Reducing the fertilising capacity of the sperms
(2) Progesterone + Estrogen (3) Making the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Mife-pristone and the cervix hostile to the sperms
(4) Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the
(4) Prednisolone
uterus
36. Which of the following is the most widely accepted
(1) Castration (removal of gonads) can be method of contraception in India?
considered as reversible contraception option (1) Surgical methods (2) IUDs
(2) Sterilisation is an ideal contraceptive device for (3) Implants (4) Injectables
female/male who want to delay pregnancy and
37. Oral contraceptives
or space children
(1) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(3) MTP are considered relatively safe upto 20th
week of pregnancy and is primarily meant for (2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/
decreasing the population retard entry of sperms
(4) Saheli (centchroman) is a non-steroidal drug (3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms

developed by CDRI and prevents implantation (4) Both (1) & (2)
38. Injectables and implants differ from oral (1) AIDS and hepatitis-B
contraceptives in (2) AIDS and genital herpes
(1) Chemical composition (3) Hepatitis-B and genital herpes
(2) Mode of action
(4) All of these
(3) Having much longer effective periods
46. Prevention of transmission of STDs is possible by
(4) Inhibiting ovulation and implantation
(1) Avoiding sex with unknown persons/multiple
39. Which of the following can be used as emergency partners
contraceptive within 72 hours of coitus to avoid
(2) Using condoms during coitus
possible pregnancy due to rape or casual
unprotected intercourse? (3) Consulting a qualified doctor for early detection
(1) Progestogens and getting complete treatment if diagnosed
with disease
(2) Progestogen-estrogen combinations
(4) All of these
(3) IUDs
47. In ZIFT (Zygote Intra-fallopian Transfer) and IUT
(4) Any one of the above (Intra uterine transfer)
40. Surgical methods, also called sterilization, are
(1) Embryo formed by using only donor’s ovum
used as terminal contraception methods to
can be transferred
prevent any more pregnancies. Surgical intervention
(2) Embryo formed by in vitro fertilisation can be
(1) Inhibits gamete release from gonads
transferred
(2) Inhibits gamete formation
(3) Embryo formed by in vivo fertilisation can be
(3) Blocks gamete transport transferred
(4) All of these (4) Both (2) & (3)
41. Which contraceptive method is highly effective but 48. In artificial insemination technique, the semen is
has very poor reversibility? collected
(1) IUDs (2) Implants (1) Only from the husband and is artificially
(3) Injectables (4) Sterilization introduced into vagina
42. One should use contraceptive methods (2) Only from healthy donor and is artificially
(1) To prevent pregnancy introduced into vagina
(2) To delay or space pregnancy (3) Either from the husband or from a healthy
donor and is artificially introduced only into
(3) For the maintenance of reproductive health
vagina
(4) All of these
(4) Either from the husband or a healthy donor is
43. Mark the wrong statement w.r.t. medical artificially introduced into the vagina or into the
termination of pregnancy (MTP) uterus
(1) 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed each year 49. Infertility cases like inability of the male partner to
all over the world inseminate the female or very low sperm count in
! the ejaculate could be corrected by
(2) It accounts for termination of th of total
" (1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
number of conceived pregnancies per year
(2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
(3) It is mainly performed for the purpose of
decreasing the population size (3) Intra uterine transfer
(4) MTPs are relatively safe during first trimester of (4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
pregnancy
50. Which of the following statements is not correct
44. Which one is the most dangerous sexually about the contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’?
transmitted disease?
(1) High contraceptive value with few side effects
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Genital warts
(2) Developed by scientists at CDRI, Lucknow
(3) Genital herpes (4) AIDS
(3) Daily pill
45. Which of the following are not completely curable
STDs? (4) Non steroidal preparation
51. Which of the following is the specific function of (1) Ovary (2) Oviduct
copper ions in copper releasing IUDs?
(3) Uterus (4) Nutrient broth
(1) Suppressing sperm motility
60. The birth control device not used by women is
(2) Making the cervix hostile to the sperms
(1) Diaphragm (2) Oral pills
(3) Reducing fertilising capacity of the sperms
(3) Nirodh (4) Copper T
(4) Both (1) & (3)
61. All the following are correct about Saheli but one
52. Which of the following contraceptive devices is is wrong. Which one is wrong?
inserted by doctor or trained nurse in the uterus
through the vagina? (1) New oral contraceptive pill for females
(1) Diaphragm (2) Vault (2) Contains non-steroidal preparation
(3) Cu-T (4) Both (2) & (3) (3) It is ‘once a weak pill’
53. Which of the following is incorrect match? (4) It increases the phagocytosis of the sperm
within the uterus
(1) Non medicated IUD – Lippes loop
62. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t.
(2) Saheli – Once a week
Norplant (subcutaneous implant)?
contraceptive pill
(1) It is safe, convenient and effective for 5 years
(3) Hormone releasing IUD – Progestasert
(2) It blocks ovulation
(4) Copper releasing IUD – LNG-20
54. Which of the following agents of STDs can cross (3) It increases thickness of cervical mucus to
the placenta? prevent sperm movement
(1) Trichomonas (2) HIV (4) It is non-hormonal and non-steroidal implant
(3) Treponema (4) Both (2) & (3) 63. Following are the methods to assist infertile
couples to have children except
55. Which of the following is a terminal method of
contraception? (1) GIFT (2) ICSI
(1) Sterilisation method (2) Barrier method (3) AI (4) MTP
(3) Oral contraceptive (4) Natural method 64. In which of the following diseases, patient develops
characteristic points on teeth called ‘Hutchinson’s
56. A disposable method of birth control, which can be
teeth’ and the disease can be diagnosed by VDRL
used by females and provides protection against
and Wassermann test?
STDs and AIDS is
(1) Gonorrhea
(1) Diaphragm
(2) Femidom (female condom) (2) Syphilis
(3) Vault (3) Genital herpes
(4) Spermicidal jelly (4) Chancroid
57. Contraception with maximum chances of failure is 65. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?
(1) IUD (2) Condoms (1) Multiload 375
(3) Oral contraceptives (4) Rhythm method (2) LNG-20
58. In vasectomy, a small part of the _________ is (3) Progestasert
removed or tied up through a small incision on the (4) Saheli
scrotum
66. Which of the following is a method of birth control?
(1) Epididymis (2) Vasa efferentia
(1) GIFT
(3) Vas deferens (4) Fallopian tubes
(2) IVF – ET
59. In intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), a sperm
is directly injected into the ovum which is placed (3) IUDs
in (4) ZIFT
67. Examine the table given below and find out in (1) a(iii), b(i, iv), c(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii, iv), c(i)
which of the following four options, all the items A, (3) a(ii, iii), b(i), c(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii, iv)
B, C and D are correctly filled?
72. In-vitro embryo formation is not possible during
!"#$%&'%(')*+#$',%-#+%. /"0*," 1,#*%-
(1) ICSI (2) ZIFT
!"#$$$%&''"(' : 361A$&.<$-+('A-$&'(
+'(6(.5(<$C'*A (3) GIFT (4) IUT
+8B-"4&,,B$A((5"./
!""#$$)*++('$'(,(&-"./$012 ;1,5",*&<$=>? % 73. Mode of action of IUD’s excludes
!"""#$3'&,$4*.5'&4(+5"6($+",, ) D*.E-5('*"<&,$*.4( (1) Blocking the entry of sperms through cervix
&$F((G$+",,
!"6#$71'/"4&,$5(48."91( @&-(45*AB 2 (2) Phagocytosis of sperms within uterus
A B C D (3) Suppressing sperm motility
(1) Lippes Inhibit Mala D Blocks (4) Making the uterus unsuitable for implantation
formation ovulation of gametes
loop 74. Which of the following STDs is usually completely
(2) Diaphragm Inhibit Mala N Blocks curable if detected early and treated properly?
implantation gamete (1) Hepatitis B (2) Genial herpes
transport
(3) HIV (4) Syphilis
(3) Condom Cu++ ions Saheli Blocks
released gamete 75. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t
suppress transport category of contraceptive method, its type and the
sperm motility principle behind its contraception?
(4) Cervical cap Inhibit Saheli Blocks
ovulation gamete
(1) Category : Natural method
transpor Type : Periodic abstinence
68. Sometimes women wish to postpone the menstrual Principle : Avoid chances of ovum and
bleeding for few days to participate in some sperm meeting
competitive sports or religious functions. Which of
(2) Category : Barrier method
the following pills should be taken by her?
Type : Condoms
(1) She should take pills containing FSH and LH
(2) Progesterone like drugs can be started 3-4 Principle : Prevent ovum and sperms to
days before the expected date meet physically
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), must be (3) Category : Intrauterine device
taken till 3-4 days after the expected date Type : Multiload 375
(4) She should take only estrogen pills for 14 days Principle : Inhibits ovulation
after the expected date (4) Category : Implants
69. Which of the following methods of contraception
Type : Norplant
can’t be included under barrier methods?
Principle : Inhibit ovulation
(1) Cervical cap (2) Multiload 375
76. Which drug can induce nonsurgical abortion?
(3) Vaults (4) Diaphragms
70. Pills are very effective oral contraceptive method (1) RU-486 (2) LNG-20
because (3) Saheli (4) Norplant
(1) It inhibit ovulation 77. Which of the following diseases is caused by a
(2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to bacteria and is characterised by painful ulcers with
prevent/retard entry of sperms necrotic base formed on the surface of external
genitals?
(3) Inhibit implantation
(1) Syphilis (2) Chancroid
(4) All of these
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) Chlamydia
Column I Column II 78. Which of the following will be included under barrier
methods of contraception and also has an added
a. Non-medicated IUD (i) LNG-20 advantage of protecting the user from sexually
b. Hormone releasing IUDs (ii) Multiload 375 transmitted diseases?
c. Copper releasing IUDs (iii) Lippes loop (1) Cervical cap (2) Condom
(iv) Progestasert (3) Copper T (4) Lippes loop
79. Saheli is the first non-steroidal contraceptive pill, (4) A – Lactational amenorrhea
developed in CDRI Lucknow, Saheli contains B – Avoiding chances of ovum and sperm
(1) Mifepristone (2) Centchroman meeting
(3) 3 Keto-desogestrel (4) Progestin C – Saheli
80. An ideal contraceptive should not D – Implanon
(1) Be having least side effects 82. Which of the following family planning method
(2) Be easily available provides additional benefit of protecting the user
(3) Be interfering with sexual drive from contacting STDs and AIDS?
(4) Be effective in covering the risk of conception
81. Examine the table given below regarding methods
of birth control device and action. In which of the
following four options all the items A, B, C and D
are correctly filled? (1) (2)
Method of birth Device Action
control
i. Natural method A No menstruation
and ovulation
during intense
period of 83. Inability to conceive or produce children even after
lactation due to two years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
high prolactin called
level
(1) Venereal disease (2) Genital warts
ii. Barrier Vaults B
(3) Genital herpes (4) Infertility
iii. Oral pill C Non-steroidal
preparation once 84. Examine the table given below regarding methods
a week pill of birth control device and action. In which one of
iv. Implant D Six capsules the following all the four items A, B, C and D are
containing correctly identified and filled?
progestogens Device Method of Action
birth control
alone or in
combination with (i) Copper T (Cu-T) A
estrogen are
implanted under
the skin
Options
(1) A – Periodic abstinence
B – Ovum and sperms are prevented from
physically meeting (ii) B Ovum and
C – Mala D sperms are
prevented from
D – Depoprovera physically
meeting
(2) A – Lactational amenorrhea
!"#$
B – Ovum and sperms are prevented from (iii) %"&'()*'&+$* Sterilisation C
tubectomy
physically meeting
C – Saheli
D – Norplant
(3) A – Rhythm method
B – Avoiding chances of ovum and sperm (iv) D Progesterone
alone or in
meeting
combination of
C – Saheli estrogen used
D – Norplant
Options (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)

(1) A – Make uterus unsuitable for implantation (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii), e(i)
B – Nirodh (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(v), d(ii), e(i)
C – Blocks gamete transport (4) a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(i), e(iv)
D – Injectable
SECTION - B
(2) A – Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
B – Condom for female
C – Blocks gamete transport (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
D – Implant (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) A – Cu ions released suppress sperm motility reason is the correct explanation of the
and fertilizing capacity of sperm assertion, then mark (1).
B – Natural method of contraception Nirodh (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
C – Blocks gamete transport reason is not the correct explanation of the
D – Implant
(4) A – Cu ions released suppress sperm motility false, then mark (3).
and fertilizing capacity of sperm
B – Barrier method- Condom for male, Nirodh statements, then mark (4).
C – Blocks gamete transport 1. A : Coitus interruptus is one of the natural methods
D – Implant of contraception and has high failure rate.
85. Given below are the various methods of ART R : Pre-ejaculatory emission containing few
(Assisted Reproductive Technology) in Column I number of sperms or failure to withdraw penis
and Column II includes the description of these before ejaculation may happen during coitus
methods interruptus.
Column I Column II 2. A : Government has enacted a law, Prenatal
a. IVF (i) Sperm is directly injected diagnostic technique (regulation and prevention
into the ovum of misuse) Act, 1994 with amendments in
2003.
b. ZIFT (ii) Transfer of an ovum
collected from a donor into R : It prohibits prenatal sex determination.
the fallopian tube of another 3. A : Saheli has high contraceptive value with very
female, who cannot little side effects.
produce one but provide R : It contains a steroidal preparation called
suitable environment for centchroman.
fertilization and further
development 4. A : IUD is an effective contraceptive device.
c. IUT (iii) Zygote or early embryos up R : It prevents passage of sperms from vagina into
to eight blastomeres, the uterus.
transferred into the fallopian 5. A : Removal of gonads cannot be considered as
tube contraceptive option.
d. GIFT (iv) Fertilization outside the R : It will deprive the person of sexual act or
body but in similar desire.
conditions as that in the 6. A : Abortion can be induced by mifepristone drug.
body
R : Mifepristone is progesterone antagonist.
e. ICSI (v) Embryo’s with more than
eight blastomeres 7. A : Trichomoniasis is an STD.
transferred into uterus R : It is caused by a protozoan.
!" !" !
Chapter 9
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
–Animal Husbandry
4. Match the column I with column II

SECTION - A
Column I Column II
a. Hisardale (i) Shahtoosh
1. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. inbreeding
depression b. Pantholops hodgson (ii) Rabbit
(1) It reduces fertility and even productivity c. Aseel (iii) Cross breeding
d. Angoora (iv) Cock fighting
(2) It can be overcome by interspecific breeding
only (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) It is due to continued inbreeding, especially (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
close inbreeding 5. Shahtoosh, is one of the finest wools made from
(4) Whenever it becomes a problem, selected (1) Hair of rabbit
animals of the breeding population should be (2) Hair of Tibetian antelopes
mated with unrelated superior animals of the
same breed to restore fertility and yield (3) Fur of Kashmiri goat
2. Three types of ponds are required for culture of (4) Fur of Bhakarwal
Indian major carps nursery, rearing and stocking 6. Which of the following breeds is called the “Jersy
pond. Fingerlings are transferred from cow” of the goat world?
to . (1) Jamunapari breed (2) Nubian breed
(1) Nursery pond to rearing pond (3) Anglo-Nubian breed (4) Alpine breed
(2) Rearing pond to stocking pond 7. The silkworm feeds on castor leaves and can be
(3) Hatchery pond to nursery pond reared indoors ; the cocoons are soft and white
and the filaments are very delicate. All these
(4) Stocking pond to market features are related to which of the following types
3. MOET is one such programme for herd of silk?
improvement. Which of the following is/are (1) Mulberry silk (2) Tasar silk
considered as benefit of MOET? (3) Muga silk (4) Arundi silk
(1) Administration of FSH like hormones induce 8. The larva of eri silk moth mainly feeds on the
follicular maturation and super ovulation instead leaves of
of one egg they produce 6 to 8 eggs per cycle
(1) Castor (2) Sal
(2) After the embryo transfer, the genetic mother
is available for another round of super ovulation (3) Champa (4) Mulberry
9. The type of breed from which more flesh is
(3) Helps in producing high milk yielding breeds of
available but produce less number of eggs per
females and high quality meat yielding bulls
annum are called as
have been bred successfully to increase herd
size in a short time (1) Laying breed (2) Dual breed
(4) All of these (3) Table breed (4) Heavy breed
476 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production-Animal Husbandry Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. The practice of mating of animals within the same 18. Which of the following disease is caused by a
breed, but having no common ancestors on either virus?
side of their pedigree for 4-6 generation is called (1) Anthrax (2) Rinderpest
(1) Inbreeding (3) Tick fever (4) Coccidiosis
(2) Outcrossing 19. Objective of animal breeding is/are
(3) Cross-breeding (1) Improve growth rate
(4) Interspecific hybridisation (2) Increase production of milk, eggs and wool
11. Which of the following is not the American breed (3) Increase resistance to various diseases
of chickens? (4) All of these
(1) Plymouth rock (2) Leghorn 20. Three carp fishes Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina can be
(3) Rhode Island red (4) Both (1) & (3) grown together in the same pond more
economically as they have
12. Capture fishery can be defined as
(1) Positive interactions
(1) Capturing healthy fingerlings or young fish from
breeding hapas and culturing them under (2) Symbiosis
favourable conditions for optimum growth (3) Commensalism
(2) Culturing fish seeds in fresh water and then (4) No competition for food
capturing them 21. MOET is one of the programmes for herd
(3) Rearing and harvesting of fish improvement, in which a cow has been
(4) Catching the fish from the sea water without administered hormones with FSH like activity.
any culturing Arrange steps A to D in their correct sequence.
13. ‘Hisardale’ a new breed of sheep has been A – Transferred to a surrogate mother
developed by cross between Bikaneri ewe and B – It is either mated with an elite bull or artificially
Merino rams. This is an example of inseminated
(1) Inbreeding C – Fertilised eggs at 32 cell stage are recovered
(2) Cross-breeding non-surgically
(3) Interspecific hybridisation D – It produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg which
they normally yield per cycle
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) B, D, C, A (2) D, B, C, A
14. Which of the following animal is cloned by using
somatic cells from the donor’s udder? (3) C, D, B, A (4) B, C, B, A
(1) ANDi (2) Rosie 22. Food plant of the silk worm Attacus ricini is
(3) Dolly (4) Mehsana (1) Terminalia arjuna
15. Mohair wool is obtained from (2) Machilus bomsycina
(1) Goat (2) Chiru (3) Ricinus communis
(3) Rabbit (4) Sheep (4) Euphorbia pulcherima
16. Carp fishes such as Catla, rohu and mrigal are
23. Which of the following is viral disease of silk
commonly cultured together called polyculture and
worm?
gives better yield because
(1) Pebrine (2) Muscardine
(1) They are different in their feeding habit
(2) They are least / no competitive (3) Flacherie (4) Coccidiosis
(3) They are different in reproductive habit 24. Pashmina wool is obtained from
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Chiru (2) Tibetian antelope
17. Mark the viral diseases in poultry (3) Goat (4) Sheep
(1) Coccidiosis 25. Which of the following disease is called as cattle
(2) Flacherie plague?
(3) Mastitis (1) Anthrax (2) Mastitis
(4) Ranikhet (New Castle’s diseases) (3) Bovine Brucellosis (4) Rhinderpest
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production-Animal Husbandry 477
26. Which of the following is exotic breed of the poultry (1) Increases honey yield
birds? (2) Increases crop yield
(1) Aseel (2) Bursa (3) Makes honey bee disease resistant
(3) Ghagus (4) Plymouth Rock (4) More than one option is correct
27. Mule obtained by cross between 35. Consider the following statements with blanks A &
(1) Male ass and female horse B. Select the option which correctly fills up these
blanks.
(2) Male horse and female ass
The method of animal breeding in which superior
(3) Male ass and female ass males of one breed are mated with superior
(4) Male horse and female horse females of another breed is known as !!!!"!!!! . By
28. India is centre of origin and natural home of ______ this approach a new breed !!!!#!!!! has been
cultivated species and ______ wild relatives of crop developed
plants
A B
(1) 320 and 167 respectively
(1) Out-crossing Jersey
(2) 167 and 320 respectively
(2) Cross-breeding Hisardale
(3) 152 and 167 respectively (3) Inter-specific hybridization Mule
(4) 64 and 1100 respectively (4) Inbreeding Leghorn
29. Blue revolution is associated with increased 36. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Production of milk (2) Production of fish (1) Mule and hinny are examples of interspecific
(3) Production of eggs (4) Production of wheat hybridisation
30. Select incorect statement w.r.t. inbreeding (2) Hisardale is an example of cross breed of
depression sheep developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes
with Merino rams
(1) It is associated with loss of vigour
(3) A single out cross often helps to overcome
(2) Appearance of a number of defective traits in inbreeding depression
normally self pollinated plants
(4) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity
(3) It occurs due to increase in homozygosity in
recessive alleles 37. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. culture
fishery?
(4) A majority of cross pollinated crops and all
animals show inbreeding depression (1) Breeder fish are given hypothalamic extracts
through injection
31. Culturing fish in fresh water is known as
(2) Two males and one female breeder are kept in
(1) Agriculture (2) Inland fisheries breeding happa
(3) Capture fishery (4) Sericulture (3) Fingerlings are kept in nursery ponds for
32. Wool obtained from which of the following breed of growth
sheep, is used to manufacture super quality (4) Fingerlings are the first stage of life cycle of
carpet? fish to develop a mouth
(1) Nali (2) Patanwadi 38. In composite fish culture, different species of fish
(3) Pashmina (4) Sahtoosh are cultured together because
33. In which of the following cities will you find NDRI (1) They are different habitate
(National Dairy Research Institute) that develops (2) They shows isometric growth
Karan Swiss?
(3) There is no competition for food among them
(1) Lucknow (2) Delhi
(4) All are shows commensalism
(3) Karnal (4) Bareilly
39. Tasar silk is produced by
34. Selection of suitable location for keeping the
beehives is important for successful bee keeping as (1) Bombyx mori (2) Antheraea assama
it (3) Antheraea roylei (4) Attacus ricini
40. Mark the incorrect match (3) Isinglass – Gelatinous substance, obtained
(1) Pashmina - Kashmiri goat - Cashmere from air bladder of bony fishes
shawls (4) Fish glue – Sticky product obtained from
silvery bony scales of fishes
(2) Shahtoosh - Tibetian antelope - King of wools
(Pantholops 45. Karan Swiss breed has been produced at the
hodgson) National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal in
Haryana by breeding
(3) Angoora - Sheep - Superior
carpet wool (1) Tharparkar and Holstein Friesian
(4) Merino - Exotic breed - Most popular (2) Local non descript cattle with Jersey / Brown
of sheep fine wool Swiss / Holstein-Friesian etc
breed (3) Sahiwal cows with Brown Swiss bulls
41. Bee wax is the natural product of honey bee (4) Murrah with Jersey
secreted by 46. Match the Column-I with Column-II
(1) Abdominal glands of queen Column-I Column-II
(2) Abdominal glands of worker bees a. Aseel (i) Poor man’s cow
(3) Abdominal glands of drones b. Goat (ii) Most economical meat
(4) Salivary glands of nurses making machine
42. Mark the incorrect statement c. Pig (iii)Cock fighting
(1) After weaving, the silk cloth is boiled to remove d. Camel (iv) Ship of desert
the excess of natural gum, the process is (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
called degumming of silk (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Univoltine moths give only one crop of silk 47. Following fishes can be cultured in inland fisheries
during one year. Eggs require a comparatively except
low temperature for hatching, such conditions
are found in Kashmir (1) Rohu (2) Magur
(3) Pomphret (4) Singhi
(3) Pebrine is common disease of silk worms and
is caused by virus 48. Mark the odd one w.r.t. cross breed?
(4) Developing queen secretes anti queen (1) Hisardale (2) Sunandini
substance that inhibits the development of (3) Karan Fries (4) Jaffarabadi
another queen
49. Wool for army hoisery is obtained from which of the
43. Which of the following is incorrect for one word following breeds of sheep?
scientific term and its description? (1) Marwari (2) Patanwadi
(1) Aquaculture – Involves the production of (3) Nali (4) Lohi
useful aquatic plants and
animals by proper 50. Which type of silk is coppery in colour and is
utilisation of small and popularly known as royal silk?
large water bodies (1) Muga silk (2) Tassar silk
(2) Pisciculture – Production of fishes (3) Mulberry silk (4) Eri silk
(3) Blue revolution – Increase in fish production 51. King of wools is obtained from
(4) Fishery – Is an industry devoted to (1) Kashmiri goat (2) Angoora
catching processing or (3) Pashmina (4) Chiru
selling of fish, shellfish or
other aquatic plants and 52. Killing of pupa for the formation of silk thread is
animals known as
44. Mark the correct match w.r.t. fish products (1) Stifling
(1) Fish meal – Extracted from skin of shark and (2) Degumming
rays (3) Reeling
(2) Shagreen – Extracted from liver of shark (4) Spinning
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production-Animal Husbandry 479
53. Mark the odd one out with respect to habitat. (1) Shagreen (2) Isinglass
(1) Hilsa (2) Sardines (3) Fish meal (4) Fish glue
(3) Common carp (4) Mackerel 64. The king of wools is
54. Exotic breed of poultry are all except (1) Shahtoosh (2) Pashmina
(1) White leghorn (2) Rhode island red (3) Angoora (4) Mohair
(3) Aseel (4) New hampshire 65. Central Bee Research Institute is located at
55. Which of the following is not a new breed of live (1) Pune (2) Mysore
stock produced by cross-breeding of an indigenous
(3) Allahabad (4) Himachal Pradesh
breed with exotic breed?
66. Shark liver oil and cod liver oil are natural sources
(1) Hisardale sheep
of
(2) Karan-Swiss cow
(1) Vit A and vit D only (2) Vit B and vit K only
(3) Kashmiri Pashmina goat
(3) Vit A, C and D (4) Vit E and vit K only
(4) Anglo-Nubian goat
67. India ranks _____ among the mulberry silk
56. Which of the following is a disease resistant breed producing countries of the world
of cock also used in cock fighting in Karnataka?
(1) 120th (2) 15th
(1) Brahma (2) Chittagong
(3) 35th (4) 3rd
(3) Aseel (4) Karaknath
68. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer is a programme
57. One amongst the following is a fungal disease of aimed at
poultry
(1) Improvement of breeds of cattle and increase
(1) Coccidosis (2) Candidiasis herd size in a short time
(3) Pullorum (4) Ranikhet disease (2) Overcoming several problems of normal mating
58. In composite fish farming, the surface feeder fish is (3) Creation of embryo banks
(1) Labeo rohita (2) Catla catla (4) Decreasing disease susceptibility of Indian
(3) Cirrhina mrigala (4) Hilsa cattle
59. Term “Lard” is associated with 69. Nosema bombycis, protozoan attacks ______ and
(1) Pigs (2) Buffalo causes ______ disease in them.
(3) Fish (4) Goats (1) Cattle, rinderpest (2) Poultry birds, diptheria
60. Which of the following species of honeybee is (3) Fish, VHS (4) Silkworms, pebrine
most commonly reared in India? 70. Match the following
(1) Apis dorsata (2) Apis mellifera Column I Column II
(3) Apis indica (4) Apis florea a. Red sindhi (i) Cross breed of
61. Which of the following is not marine fish? Tharparkar and
Holstein
(1) Hilsa (2) Common carp
b. Murrah (ii) Originated in Kerala
(3) Sardines (4) Pomfrets
c. Karan-fries (iii) Best breed of
62. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
buffaloes
about inbreeding?
d. Sunandini (iv) Milch breed of cattle
(1) It is necessary to develop pureline in any
animal (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) It exposes recessive genes (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) It helps in accumulation of superior genes and 71. The development and flourishing of the fishery
elimination of less desirable genes industry has brought lot of income to the farmers
(4) It increases heterozygosity in the country. This is due to_______
63. Non-edible parts of fish such as tails, fins and (1) White revolution (2) Silver revolution
bones are used to prepare (3) Green revolution (4) Blue revolution
72. An innovation to overcome inbreeding depression of 1. A : Outcrossing is the practice of mating of

the breed is animals within the same breed but having no
(1) Interspecific hybridisation common ancestors on either side of their
pedigree upto 4–6 generation.
(2) Outbreeding
(3) Artificial insemination R : It is the best breeding method for animals that
are below average in productivity in milk
(4) MOET production, growth rate in beef, cattle, etc.
73. Match the animals list under column I with their
2. A : In confusion technique the pheromone
products in column II and choose correct answer
containing papers are placed at one point in
Column I Column II the field.
a. Angoora goat (i) Shahtoosh
R : Pheromone containing papers attract the
b. Tibetian antelope (ii) Angoora females.
c. Kashmiri goat (iii) Mohair 3. A : Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering
d. Rabbit (iv) Pashmina period improves yield.
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) R : Bees are the pollinators of many our crop
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) species.
74. Which of the following is incorrect match about 4. A : Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
the diseases of the poultry birds?
R : Inbreeding exposes harmful genes that are
Disease Pathogen eliminated by selection.
(1) New castles disease Virus 5. A : Artificial insemination helps us to overcome
(2) Pullorum Bacteria several problems of normal mating.
(3) Coryza Virus R : The semen collected from the male that is
(4) Bird flu Virus chosen as a parent is injected into the
reproductive tract of the selected female only
75. Pebrine is the most common disease of silk worm
caused by by the breeder, this will improve chances of
successful production of hybrids.
(1) Spicaria (2) Nosema bombycis
6. A : Elephant is a source of ivory which is made up
(3) Noctiluca (4) Virus
of dentine.
R : Ivory is obtained from tusks of elephants which
SECTION - B are modified upper incisors.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 7. A : Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering
period improves crop yield as well as honey
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). yield.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the R : It increases pollination efficiency and honey
reason is the correct explanation of the production as bees gather pollen and nectar.
assertion, then mark (1). 8. A : For round-up-resistant soybeans, genes have
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the been added to this crop to render it resistant
reason is not the correct explanation of the to herbicides.
R : This is to lessen the use of herbicides.
false, then mark (3). 9. A : One of the product of apiculture is bee wax.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Pollen is collected by sterile female
statements, then mark (4). honeybees.
!" !" !
Chapter 10
Biotechnology and Its Applications
(1) ssDNA (2) dsDNA

SECTION - A
(3) tRNA (4) dsRNA
7. Amongst the following, which is not a transgenic
1. An example of gene therapy is organism?
(1) Preparation of two DNA sequences (1) Polly (2) Molly
corresponding to A and B chains of human
(3) Rosie (4) Dolly
insulin and introducing them in the plasmids of
E. coli to produce insulin chains 8. All of the following statements are correct in
respect of gene therapy, except
(2) Introduction of a functional ADA c-DNA (using
retroviral vector) in the lymphocytes which are (1) It allows correction of genetic defect in
subsequently returned to the patient embryonic stage only
(3) Bt–toxin gene transferred from the bacteria into (2) The genes are inserted into cells and tissues
the host plant to treat a disease
(4) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode (3) Delivery of a normal gene into cell takes over
specific genes are introduced into host plant for the function of and compensate for the non-
RNA interference functional gene
2. Which of the following enzyme cannot be used in (4) As a step towards gene therapy to treat ADA
ELISA? deficiency, ADAcDNA is introduced into
cultured lymphocytes of the patient and
(1) Catalase (2) Peroxidase subsequently returned to him/her.
(3) -galactosidase (4) Glucose oxidase 9. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
3. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a (1) Golden rice is rich in vitamin A
method of cellular defence. This method involves
(2) Human protein ( -1 antitrypsin) obtained from
silencing of specific mRNA by forming
transgenic animals is used to treat
(1) ssDNA (2) tRNA emphysema
(3) dsRNA (4) dsDNA (3) Human protein enriched milk, which contained
4. Which of the following enzymes is used in ELISA? the human alpha-lactalbumin was produced by
transgenic cow, Molly
(1) Sucrase
(4) TPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator) is used by
(2) Catalase
the doctors to dissolve clots after heart attack
(3) EcoRI in patients
(4) Enzyme -galactosidase 10. Silencing of polygalactouronase gene in Flavr Savr
5. Father of genetic engineering is variety of tomato did not promote
(1) Alec Jeffrey (2) Paul Berg (1) Delayed ripening of tomato
(3) Kary Mullis (4) Smith (2) Superior taste in the tomato
6. Which of the following is used in RNAi to silence (3) Retention of flavour of tomato for much longer
the mRNA of Meloidogyne incogonita infecting time than that of normal tomato variety
tobacco plant? (4) Nematode resistance in crop
482 Biotechnology and Its Applications Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. Match the Column-I with Column-II C. Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA
Column-I Column-II is introduced into the cells at an early
embryonic stage
a. TPA (i) Dissolves blood clots in
heart patients (1) A only (2) Both A & B
b. PDGF (ii) Increases fertility (3) C only (4) A, B & C
c. OKT-3 (iii) Prevents kidney 17. Golden rice was created by introducing
transplant rejection (1) RNA interference gene in rice
d. hCG (iv) Stimulates wound healing
(2) Carotene synthesising gene in rice
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Cry gene in rice
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Antisense RNA synthesising gene in rice
12. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
method of cellular defence. This method involves 18. Which of the following recombinant proteins has
silencing of specific mRNA. The source of the been used for the prevention of blood clots?
insert RNA could be (1) OKT-3 (2) Reo Pro
(1) From an infection by virus having RNA genome (3) DNase (4) PDGF
(2) Mobile genetic elements (transposons) that 19. -1 antitrypsin is used to treat
replicate via an RNA intermediate
(1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Alzheimer’s disease (4) Emphysema
(4) Tobacco plant
20. First time gene therapy was done to cure
13. Indian government has set up an organisation
which makes decisions regarding validity of GM (1) ADA deficiency (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
research and safety of introducing GM organisms (3) Multiple sclerosis (4) Lung cancer
for public services. Mark the organisation
21. Human insulin is made in
(1) GEAC (2) IBC
(1) E.coli (2) Yeast
(3) MOEF (4) FDA
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Thermus
14. The use of RNA interference against Meloidogyne
incognita infection in roots of tobacco plants 22. Which of the following is related to RNAi and
involves belongs to same phylum as that of Ascaris?
(1) Prevention of translation by parasite in host (1) Agrobacterium (2) Meloidegyne
plant (3) Trichoderma (4) Rhabditis
(2) Prevention of mRNA synthesis by host plant 23. Which of the following structure is not present in
(3) Use of ssDNA to destroy mRNA synthesised mature insulin?
by parasite
(1) A-chain (2) B-chain
(4) Introduction of nematode specific proteins into
(3) C-chain (4) Both (1) & (3)
the host plant using cosmid vectors
15. The technique of replacing a defective mutant allele 24. In Flavr savr variety of tomato expression of gene
with a functional one in an individual’s cells to treat for the production of an enzyme ‘X’ is blocked for
hereditary diseases is known as keeping the fruit fresh for long. Enzyme referred as
‘X’ is
(1) Molecular diagnostics (2) Genetic modification
(1) Cellulase (2) Chitinase
(3) Gene therapy (4) Gene cloning
16. The first gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4- (3) Lysozyme (4) Polygalacturonase
year old girl child with adenosine deaminase (ADA) 25. The protein Hirudin prevents blood clotting and its
deficiency. What could be a permanent cure for gene was introduced into a plant to obtain it from
this disorder? the seeds of this plant. The source of Hirudin gene
A. Enzyme replacement therapy was
B. Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are (1) Hirudinaria (common leech)
grown in a culture outside the body. A functional (2) Brassica napus
ADA cDNA is then introduced into these
(3) Artificially synthesized
lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned
to the patient (4) Transformed by gene heparin
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Biotechnology and Its Applications 483
26. Periodic infusion of genetically engineered (3) ELISA
lymphocytes is required in a patient suffering from
(4) All of these
SCID because of
33. If cotton bollworms are to be controlled effectively,
(1) Insertional inactivation of recombinant gene
which of the following gene can be used to make
(2) Depletion of nutrients the plant genetically modified and resistant to
(3) Limited life span of cells cotton bollworm?
(4) Packing up of transferred gene (1) Cry I Ab
27. Mark the incorrect statement (2) Cry I Ac
(1) There are 27 documented varieties of Basmati (3) Cry II Ab
rice are grown in India (4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics
34. Thurioside toxin produced by the bacterium
have been approved for human use in the world.
Bacillus thuringiensis can kill certain harmful
In India, 12 of these are presently being
insects by
marketed
(1) Inhibiting the action of the enzyme
(3) First transgenic cow, Rosie produced human
acetylcholinesterase by competitive inhibition
protein enriched milk (2.4 gms per litre),
containing human alpha lactalbumin and was (2) Forming pores in the cell membrane of midgut
nutritionally a more balanced product for walls, leading to osmotic imbalance and cell
human babies than natural cow lysis.
(4) Golden rice a transgenic variety of rice which (3) Inhibiting the calcium pump in the cell
contains keratin on active state of vitamin A membranes
28. Which of the following recombinant product has (4) Attacking the respiratory system
been produced by transgenic goat for treating
35. The first genetically modified non-human primate is
emphysema?
(1) Frosty (2) ANDi
(1) Tissue plasmogen activator
(2) -1 antitrypsin (3) Prometea (4) Dolly
(3) Lactoferrin 36. In 1980 __________ was granted a patent on the

first living form of a micro-organism ‘super bug’
(4) -Lactoalbumin that had been modified to/for __________
29. The first gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 (1) Dr. Ananda Chakravarti, clear oil spills
year old girl. This girl was suffering from
(2) Dr. Newman, prevention of frost damages
(1) Huntington chorea (2) SCID
(3) H. Khorana, endotoxins used for insect control
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Dr. Lalji Singh, chitinase enzymes
30. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(1) Bt Cotton – Resistant to boll worm 37. Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at the Roslin
infestation Research Institute in Scotland made Dolly clone,
they took _________ cells from eve/mother sheep
(2) Golden Rice – Vitamin B rich because they were made _________
(3) Flavr Savr tomato – Better nutrient quality, (1) Skin cells, totipotent
increased shelf life
(2) Muscle cells, pluripotent
(4) GR Soyabean _ Herbicide resistance
(3) Udder cells, pluripotent
31. Which of the following is the advantage of
transgenic animals? (4) Udder cells, differentiated
(1) Vaccine safety (2) Study of disease 38. Which of the following is an invalid statement
w.r.t. ‘Rosie’?
(3) Biological products (4) All of these
32. Technique that can be used for early diagnosis (1) Transgenic cow
includes (2) Milk contains human –lactalbumin protein
(1) Recombinant DNA technology (3) Protein content is 2-4 g/litre
(2) PCR (4) Milk is not suitable for human use
39. A west African plant, Pentadiplandra brazzeana 45. Bt cotton is often in news as
producing brazzein, was patented in USA which (1) Bt cotton contains cryIAc gene that makes it
proposed to transfer the brazzein gene into maize resistant to corn borer pest
and express it in maize kernels. Mark the
incorrect statement about this plant (2) High yielding, pest resistant variety of cotton,
having resistance to pest bollworms,
(1) Brazzein, a protein, is approximately 2000
Helicoverpa armigera
times as sweet as sugar
(3) Drought resistant variety of cotton developed by
(2) It is a high calorie sweetener
genetic engineering
(3) The development of brazzein could have serious
implications for countries exporting large (4) Hybrid of long staple cotton from America with
quantities of sugar native variety
(4) Local people have known and used super 46. Production of Humulin by Eli Lilly company was
sweet berries of this plant for centuries done in
40. Genetically modified food (GM food) which is (1) 1990 (2) 1983
produced by genetically modified crops is (3) 2004 (4) 2001
considered to be harmful because
47. Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) It causes toxicity/allergies since it is a foreign
protein (1) Provides resistance in plants like Bt cotton, Bt
corn, rice etc. against abiotic stresses
(2) Enzymes produced by antibiotic resistance
genes of vectors make bacteria present in (2) Increases efficiency of Bt toxin in alkaline
alimentary canal resistant to antibiotic which medium
could become difficult to manage (3) Possesses cry gene that confers ability to
(3) It is poor in nutritive value synthesise an inactive crystalline protein
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Creates pores in the foregut of insects
41. Which of the following was the first transgenic 48. The main objective of production of herbicide
animal produced for food production? resistant GM crops is to
(1) Transgenic pig (2) Transgenic goat (1) Reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles
(3) Transgenic salmon (4) Transgenic cow for health safety
42. Indian government has set up an organisation, (2) Eliminate weeds from the field without the use
_________, which will make decisions regarding of manual labour
the validity of GM research and the safety of (3) Eliminate weeds from the field without use of
introducing GM-organisms for public use herbicide
(1) GEAC (4) Encourage eco friendly herbicides
(2) Indian Patents Authority 49. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(3) Ministry of Forestry (1) ‘Bt’ in ‘Bt-cotton’ indicates that it is a
(4) Intellectual Properties Authority genetically modified organism produced through
43. The introduction of ‘nif’ gene into the cereal crops biotechnology
was done to (2) Bt - proteins kill certain insects such as
(1) Prevent frost damage to the crops lepidopterans, coleopterans and dipterans
(2) Bring about nutrient enrichment of soil (3) Inactive Bt-prototoxins are converted into active
(3) Prevent attack of army worms toxins in alkaline medium in gut of insect
(4) Ensure increase in pro vit A content in cereals (4) Bt - toxin is coded by a gene named cry
44. Which of the following is not an advantage of 50. The main challenge for production of insulin using
transgenic plants? rDNA techniques was
(1) Pest resistant (1) Recognition of insulin gene
(2) Production of superweeds tolerant to herbicides (2) Separation of insulin gene from human genome
(3) More tolerant to abiotic stress (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Prevent early exhaustion of soil fertility (4) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Biotechnology and Its Applications 485
51. When transgene is introduced into genome of an (1) Mutated gene
organism, we can achieve the required results if (2) Normal gene
(1) It produces a protein that is the product in (3) Non-complementary gene
which we are interested
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) It should modify an existing biosynthetic
pathway so that a new end product is obtained 58. Which of the following can’t be produced by
recombinant DNA technology?
(3) It should prevent the expression of an existing
native gene (1) interferon
(4) All of these (2) antitrypsin
52. The aim behind introduction of human - (3) Insulin
lactalbumin gene in cow was (4) Haemoglobin
(1) To create a transgenic cow Rosie 59. Which of the following statement is correct about
(2) To bring about protein enrichment of cow milk, the transgenic ‘golden’ rice?
which forms a more balanced diet for human A. Transgenic ‘golden’ rice was developed by
babies Swiss bioengineer Ingo Potrykus
(3) To disapprove concept of molecular pharming
B. Transgenic rice was developed to overcome the
(4) To create a transgenic model for treating deficiency of iron and vitamin A
emphysema
C. Genes have been added to rice to enhance its
53. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice -carotene content and thus combat vitamin A
(1) Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A deficiency
(2) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and D. Rice has too little sulphur for iron absorption,
diseases of paddy so gene encoding a particular sulphur-rich
metallothionin protein was transferred into rice
(3) Gives high yield but has no characteristic
from wild rice
aroma
(1) A only (2) A & B
(4) Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth
hormones (3) A & C (4) A, B, C & D
54. Which of the following is the transgenic protein 60. Which of the following is not a use of Bt toxin?
used for treat emphysema? (1) They do not wash off the plant, as they are
(1) Alpha lactalbumin (2) Alpha IFN produced inside the crop
(3) Alpha 1-antitrypsin (4) Gamma IFN (2) They are active against the target insects.
55. Genetic modification of rice has led to its Other insects are non-harmed
(1) Reduced post harvest loss (3) They are not fully biodegradable
(2) Enhanced nutritional value (4) They would allow reductions in the doses of
chemical insecticides that are applied to cotton
(3) Increased protein content
fields and that negatively affect a number of
(4) Resistance against pest attack organisms other than those they are intended
56. Insulin cannot be synthesized by introducing to control
natural human gene in bacteria because 61. Bt toxin produced by the bacteria Bacillus
(1) Natural human genes are split genes, they do thuringiensis is
not express their effects in bacteria (1) Exotoxin (2) Endotoxin
(2) Prokaryotes are not able to remove intron (3) Non-biodegradable (4) Herbicide
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form 62. Small oligonucleotides capable of recognizing
(4) All of these complementary sequences are known as
57. A single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with (1) cDNA
radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise (2) Hybridoma
to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells
followed by detection using radiography. Clone (3) Repetitive DNA
appears on photographic film is (4) Molecular probe
63. Which of the following is not a function or R : DNA is a hydrophilic molecule and cannot pass
characteristic feature of probe? through cell membrane easily.
(1) A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a 2. A : RNAi is the phenomenon of inhibiting activity of
radioactive molecule, is probe, is allowed to a gene through production of sense and
hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone antisense RNAs.
of cells followed by detection using R : RNA interference (RNAi) involves silencing of a
autoradiography specific m-RNA due to complementary ds RNA
(2) The clone having the mutated gene will not that binds to and prevents translation of the
appear on the photographic film because the m-RNA.
probe has no complementarity with mutated 3. A : The transgenic GMO tomato called Flavr-Savr
gene has much longer and more flavourful shelf life.
(3) In PCR technique, probe is used to detect HIV R : This is achieved by reducing the amount of
in suspect AIDS patients cell wall degrading enzyme ‘polygalacturonase’
responsible for fruit softening.
(4) Detection of a pathogen by probe is based on
the principle of antigen-antibody interaction 4. A : Human protein ( -1 antitrypsin) is used to treat
emphysema.
64. The genetically modified brinjal in India has been
R : Cigarette smoking inhibits the action -1
developed for
antitrypsin.
(1) Insect resistant
5. A : RNA interference involves silencing of an mRNA
(2) Enhancing shelf life due to complementary RNA molecule that
(3) Enhancing mineral content binds to and prevents translation of it.
R : The source of this complementary RNA could
(4) Making it enriched with vitamin A
be an infection by viruses having RNA genome
or transposons.
SECTION - B 6. A : Human protein ( -1-antitrypsin), a biological

product formed by r-DNA technique, is used to
Assertion - Reason Type Question treat emphysema.
R : Human gene for -1-antitrypsin has been
transferred in sheep and expressed in
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). mammary tissues.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 7. A : Transgenic animals are useful for production of
reason is the correct explanation of the biological products for human welfare.
assertion, then mark (1). R: -1-antitrypsin produced by recombinant DNA
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the technology is used to treat cystic fibrosis.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 8. A : Transgenic animals used for testing toxicity of
assertion, then mark (2). drugs are made more sensitive to those toxic
drugs.
false, then mark (3). R : Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to
obtain results in less time.
9. A : In nucleic acid hybridization, the clone having
statements, then mark (4). the mutated gene will not appear on the
1. A : In order to force bacteria to take up the photographic film.
plasmid, the bacterial cell must first be made R : The probe has no complementarity with the
‘competent’ to take up DNA. mutated gene.
!" !" !
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Answers 487
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
Chapter 1 : Units and Measurement
Section A : Objective Type Questions
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (2)
78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (3) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (1)
92. (1) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (1) 105. (4)
106. (4) 107. (1) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (4)
113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (2)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (4) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (1) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (4) 136. (4) 137. (2) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (1) 145. (1) 146. (2) 147. (3)
148. (1) 149. (2) 150. (1) 151. (3) 152. (4) 153. (2) 154. (2)
155. (2) 156. (4) 157. (1) 158. (1) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (4)
162. (1) 163. (2) 164. (3) 165. (2) 166. (2) 167. (2) 168. (1)
169. (1) 170. (4) 171. (3) 172. (4) 173. (2) 174. (2) 175. (4)
176. (4) 177. (4)
Section B : Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3)
488 Answers Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
Chapter 2 : Motion in a Straight Line

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (3)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (2)
99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (4) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (3)
120. (2) 121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (2)
127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (2) 132. (3) 133. (2)
134. (2) 135. (4) 136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (3)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (3)
148. (4) 149. (2) 150. (4) 151. (2) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (3)
155. (2) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (4) 161. (4)
162. (1) 163. (3) 164. (4) 165. (4) 166. (2) 167. (4) 168. (3)
169. (3) 170. (3) 171. (2) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (4) 175. (3)
176. (2) 177. (4) 178. (3) 179. (1) 180. (1) 181. (3) 182. (2)
183. (2) 184. (1) 185. (2) 186. (3) 187. (2) 188. (1) 189. (3)
190. (4) 191. (2) 192. (3) 193. (2) 194. (2) 195. (2) 196. (3)
197. (2) 198. (3) 199. (3) 200. (4) 201. (2) 202. (4) 203. (1)
204. (3) 205. (1) 206. (4) 207. (4) 208. (1) 209. (4) 210. (3)
211. (4) 212. (2) 213. (2) 214. (4) 215. (4) 216. (3) 217. (4)
218. (4) 219. (4) 220. (1) 221. (3) 222. (4) 223. (2) 224. (4)
225. (4) 226. (4) 227. (3) 228. (4) 229. (4)

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (1)
Chapter 3 : Motion in a Plane
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (1)
78. (1) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (2)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (1)
99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (2) 112. (3)
113. (3) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (4)
120. (1) 121. (1) 122. (1) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (3)
127. (1) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (3) 131. (2) 132. (4) 133. (4)
134. (4) 135. (4) 136. (1) 137. (3) 138. (2) 139. (3) 140. (2)
141. (3) 142. (1) 143. (2) 144. (3) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (1)
148. (3) 149. (3) 150. (1) 151. (3) 152. (4) 153. (3) 154. (1)
155. (4) 156. (2) 157. (1) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (4) 161. (2)
162. (2) 163. (1) 164. (3) 165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (4) 168. (2)
169. (2) 170. (2) 171. (3) 172. (2) 173. (3) 174. (1) 175. (1)
176. (2) 177. (3) 178. (4) 179. (3) 180. (1) 181. (3) 182. (3)
183. (1) 184. (4) 185. (3) 186. (2) 187. (1) 188. (3) 189. (4)
190. (2) 191. (3) 192. (1) 193. (3) 194. (3) 195. (2) 196. (4)
197. (4) 198. (4) 199. (4) 200. (4) 201. (2) 202. (3) 203. (2)
204. (4) 205. (4) 206. (3) 207. (2) 208. (1) 209. (3) 210. (4)
211. (2) 212. (3) 213. (3) 214. (3) 215. (4) 216. (2) 217. (3)
218. (4) 219. (4) 220. (3) 221. (2) 222. (2) 223. (3) 224. (2)
225. (3) 226. (3) 227. (4) 228. (1) 229. (2) 230. (4) 231. (4)
232. (1) 233. (4) 234. (3) 235. (1) 236. (2) 237. (4) 238. (3)
239. (4) 240. (4) 241. (2) 242. (1)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3)
Chapter 4 : Laws of Motion

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (1)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (1)
85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (4)
99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (4) 110. (1) 111. (1) 112. (3)
113. (3) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (1)
120. (2) 121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (1) 126. (3)
127. (1) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (1)
134. (3) 135. (4) 136. (3) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (3) 140. (4)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (4)
148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (2) 151. (3) 152. (1) 153. (2) 154. (3)
155. (1) 156. (3) 157. (1) 158. (2) 159. (3) 160. (2) 161. (1)
162. (3) 163. (3) 164. (3) 165. (3) 166. (2) 167. (4) 168. (4)
169. (3) 170. (4) 171. (1) 172. (2) 173. (4) 174. (3) 175. (3)
176. (1) 177. (2) 178. (2) 179. (2) 180. (2) 181. (3) 182. (1)
183. (1) 184. (1) 185. (2) 186. (1) 187. (1) 188. (3) 189. (2)
190. (3) 191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (1) 194. (1) 195. (2) 196. (2)
197. (3) 198. (1) 199. (4) 200. (2) 201. (1) 202. (3) 203. (1)
204. (1) 205. (2) 206. (2) 207. (1) 208. (2) 209. (1) 210. (3)
211. (4) 212. (4) 213. (2) 214. (1) 215. (3) 216. (3) 217. (1)
218. (1) 219. (3) 220. (1) 221. (2) 222. (2) 223. (3) 224. (4)
225. (3) 226. (1) 227. (3) 228. (2) 229. (2) 230. (1) 231. (3)
232. (4) 233. (1) 234. (4) 235. (3) 236. (1) 237. (2) 238. (3)
239. (2) 240. (2) 241. (2) 242. (3) 243. (2) 244. (2) 245. (1)
246. (2) 247. (2) 248. (4) 249. (4) 250. (3) 251. (3) 252. (2)
253. (1) 254. (4) 255. (2) 256. (2) 257. (4) 258. (1) 259. (3)
260. (2) 261. (4) 262. (2) 263. (3) 264. (3) 265. (2) 266. (3)
267. (2) 268. (2) 269. (3) 270. (2) 271. (2) 272. (3) 273. (3)
274. (3) 275. (3) 276. (3) 277. (1) 278. (4) 279. (1) 280. (3)
281. (2) 282. (3) 283. (3) 284. (4) 285. (1) 286. (2) 287. (3)
288. (4) 289. (2) 290. (1) 291. (4) 292. (3) 293. (2) 294. (3)
295. (1) 296. (4) 297. (3)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (3)
Chapter 5 : Work, Energy and Power

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (4)
85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (2) 91. (1)
92. (1) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (4)
106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (1)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (1) 126. (1)
127. (2) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (3) 133. (3)
134. (2) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (1) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (4)
148. (4) 149. (1) 150. (1) 151. (4) 152. (4) 153. (2) 154. (2)
155. (1) 156. (4) 157. (4) 158. (4) 159. (4) 160. (1) 161. (1)
162. (4) 163. (3) 164. (4) 165. (2) 166. (3) 167. (2) 168. (3)
169. (2) 170. (1) 171. (4) 172. (3) 173. (1) 174. (3) 175. (4)
176. (3) 177. (1) 178. (1) 179. (4) 180. (1) 181. (2) 182. (1)
183. (1) 184. (2) 185. (3) 186. (4) 187. (1) 188. (2) 189. (4)
190. (3) 191. (1) 192. (4) 193. (2) 194. (1) 195. (1) 196. (3)
197. (2) 198. (1) 199. (1) 200. (1) 201. (1) 202. (2) 203. (1)
204. (2) 205. (2) 206. (4) 207. (1) 208. (1) 209. (2) 210. (1)
211. (2) 212. (1) 213. (2) 214. (3) 215. (4) 216. (1) 217. (1)
218. (1) 219. (2) 220. (2) 221. (2) 222. (1) 223. (4) 224. (3)
225. (3) 226. (3) 227. (1) 228. (4) 229. (2) 230. (2) 231. (4)
232. (3) 233. (4) 234. (4) 235. (3) 236. (4) 237. (1) 238. (2)
239. (4) 240. (2) 241. (3) 242. (1) 243. (1) 244. (4) 245. (3)
246. (2) 247. (2) 248. (4) 249. (3) 250. (3) 251. (1) 252. (2)
253. (4) 254. (3) 255. (4) 256. (3) 257. (4) 258. (4) 259. (3)
260. (4) 261. (3) 262. (3) 263. (1) 264. (4) 265. (1) 266. (3)
267. (3) 268. (3) 269. (4) 270. (1) 271. (1)
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3)
Chapter 6 : Gravitation
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (1)
85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (2)
99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (3) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (3)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (1)
113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (1) 119. (4)
120. (3) 121. (3) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (1) 126. (2)
127. (2) 128. (3) 129. (2) 130. (2) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (3)
134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (4) 139. (1) 140. (1)
141. (2) 142. (4) 143. (1) 144. (1) 145. (3) 146. (2) 147. (2)
148. (4) 149. (2) 150. (1) 151. (1) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (3)
155. (2) 156. (2) 157. (2) 158. (3) 159. (1) 160. (2) 161. (2)
162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (3) 165. (4)
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1)
Chapter 7 : Mechanical Properties of Solids

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (4)
92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (1)
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1)
Chapter 8 : Mechanical Properties of Fluids

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (3)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (1)
85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (1) 89. (1) 90. (1) 91. (2)
92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (4)
99. (4) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (1)
106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (2) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (3)
113. (2) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (3)
120. (4) 121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (4)
127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (1) 130. (1) 131. (1) 132. (1) 133. (3)
134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (4) 137. (2) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (1) 143. (1) 144. (2) 145. (1) 146. (2) 147. (3)
148. (1) 149. (2) 150. (1) 151. (2) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (4)
155. (1) 156. (2) 157. (3) 158. (1) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (3)
162. (3)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1)
Chapter 9 : Oscillations
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (4) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (4)
99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (4)
113. (3) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (4) 117. (4) 118. (3) 119. (2)
120. (1) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (4) 126. (2)
127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (2) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (3) 133. (3)
134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (3) 140. (3)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (4) 145. (4) 146. (4) 147. (4)
148. (4) 149. (4) 150. (2) 151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (2) 154. (1)
155. (1) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (2)
162. (3) 163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (4) 166. (1) 167. (4) 168. (2)
169. (4) 170. (2) 171. (4) 172. (4) 173. (2)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4)
Chapter 10 : Waves
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (2)
50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (2)
78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)
99. (1) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (1) 105. (2)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (2) 116. (2) 117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (1)
120. (4) 121. (4) 122. (2) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (4)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (2) 130. (3) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (3) 136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (1) 140. (2)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (2) 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (2) 151. (2) 152. (4) 153. (4) 154. (1)
155. (2) 156. (4) 157. (3) 158. (2) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (2)
162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (4) 165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (1) 168. (3)
169. (2) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (2) 173. (2) 174. (4) 175. (2)
176. (2) 177. (1) 178. (4) 179. (1) 180. (2) 181. (4) 182. (2)
183. (4) 184. (4) 185. (3) 186. (2) 187. (2) 188. (4) 189. (3)
190. (2) 191. (3) 192. (1) 193. (4) 194. (3) 195. (3) 196. (3)
197. (1) 198. (2) 199. (3) 200. (3) 201. (4)
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (1)
Chapter 11 : Thermal Properties of Matter

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (3)
85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (1)
99. (1) 100. (2) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (1)
106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (2) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (3)
120. (3) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (1) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (3)
134. (3) 135. (3) 136. (3) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (3) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (3) 144. (1) 145. (4) 146. (3) 147. (3)
148. (2) 149. (2) 150. (2) 151. (3) 152. (3) 153. (1) 154. (3)
155. (1) 156. (3) 157. (4) 158. (1) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (4)
162. (3) 163. (2) 164. (2) 165. (1) 166. (4) 167. (4) 168. (4)
169. (2) 170. (1) 171. (3) 172. (3) 173. (2) 174. (4) 175. (2)
176. (1) 177. (1) 178. (3) 179. (1) 180. (2) 181. (1) 182. (1)
183. (3) 184. (1) 185. (4) 186. (2) 187. (3)
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (3)
Chapter 12 : Thermodynamics
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (4) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (4) 95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (2)
99. (1) 100. (2) 101. (1) 102. (1) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (4) 109. (4) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (4) 117. (4) 118. (1) 119. (2)
120. (1) 121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (4) 126. (2)
127. (3) 128. (4) 129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (1) 133. (4)
134. (2) 135. (1) 136. (4) 137. (2) 138. (2) 139. (2) 140. (4)
141. (1) 142. (1) 143. (3) 144. (3) 145. (2) 146. (4) 147. (4)
148. (4) 149. (1) 150. (4) 151. (1) 152. (2) 153. (3) 154. (1)
155. (2)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (2)
Chapter 13 : Kinetic Theory of Gases

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (1)
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3)
Chapter 14 : Electric Charges and Field

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (1)
71. (1) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (1)
92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (1) 98. (2)
99. (4) 100. (4) 101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (3)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
Chapter 15 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (4) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (1)
85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (1)
99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (4)
113. (3) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (2) 119. (1)
120. (1) 121. (4) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (1) 126. (2)
127. (4) 128. (4)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (3)
Chapter 16 : Moving Charges and Magnetism

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (1) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (2)
92. (1) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (2)
99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (1)
113. (3) 114. (4) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (1) 119. (2)
120. (3) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (4)
127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (1) 130. (3) 131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (2)
134. (2) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (4)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (4)
Chapter 17 : Magnetism and Matter

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (1)
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3)
Chapter 18 : Electromagnetic Induction
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (2)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (4)
Chapter 19 : Alternating Current

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (1)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (2)
Chapter 20 : Electromagnetic Waves

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (4)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3)
Chapter 21 : Wave Optics

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (4) 65. (2)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (1)
Chapter 22 : Atoms
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (2)
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3)
Chapter 23 : Nuclei
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (4)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (4) 107. (1) 108. (2) 109. (3) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (2) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (2)
120. (4)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (1)
Chapter 24 : Communication System

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (1)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4)
Zoology
Chapter 1 : Structural Organization in Animals
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (3) 98. (1)
99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (2)
113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (2) 116. (2) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (4)
120. (4) 121. (4) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (1)
127. (3) 128. (2) 129. (1) 130. (2) 131. (2) 132. (3) 133. (1)
134. (2) 135. (4) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (2)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (3) 144. (3) 145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (3)
148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (2) 151. (2) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (3)
155. (4) 156. (2) 157. (1) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (4) 161. (4)
162. (2) 163. (2) 164. (4) 165. (1) 166. (1) 167. (1) 168. (3)
169. (1) 170. (4) 171. (2) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (2) 175. (4)
176. (3) 177. (1) 178. (3) 179. (2) 180. (2) 181. (4) 182. (4)
183. (3) 184. (2) 185. (4) 186. (2) 187. (3) 188. (2) 189. (4)
190. (3) 191. (4) 192. (3) 193. (4) 194. (2) 195. (2) 196. (4)
197. (2) 198. (1) 199. (3) 200. (3) 201. (1) 202. (4) 203. (1)
204. (3) 205. (3) 206. (3) 207. (3) 208. (4) 209. (2) 210. (1)
211. (3) 212. (2) 213. (1) 214. (4) 215. (2) 216. (2) 217. (2)
218. (3) 219. (2) 220. (2) 221. (1) 222. (2) 223. (1) 224. (2)
225. (4) 226. (3) 227. (3) 228. (3) 229. (4) 230. (2) 231. (3)
232. (2) 233. (3) 234. (4) 235. (1)
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2)
Chapter 2 : Digestion and Absorption
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (1) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (4) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (1) 119. (3)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (1) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (1)
127. (3) 128. (4) 129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (4) 136. (2) 137. (3) 138. (3) 139. (3)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (4)
Chapter 3 : Breathing and Exchange of Gases
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (1)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (4)
78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (3)
85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (4)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (3) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (2) 101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (2)
113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1)
Chapter 4 : Excretory Products and their Elimination
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (4) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (3)
78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (4)
85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (4)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (1)
99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (1) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (3) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (2) 112. (4)
113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (2) 116. (4) 117. (4) 118. (3) 119. (4)
120. (4) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (1) 125. (4) 126. (4)
127. (2) 128. (4) 129. (2)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)
Chapter 5 : Locomotion and Movement
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (4) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (4) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (4)
92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (4) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (4)
99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (4) 105. (1)
106. (4) 107. (1) 108. (3) 109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (4) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (3) 116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (1)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (3) 126. (4)
127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (2) 136. (1) 137. (3) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (2) 142. (3) 143. (4)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (2)
Chapter 6 : Neural Control and Coordination
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (2)
64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (4)
99. (1) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (4)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (4) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (4)
113. (3) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (3) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131. (2) 132. (3) 133. (4)
134. (4) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (4) 143. (3) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (2)
148. (2) 149. (4) 150. (2) 151. (2) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (2)
155. (2) 156. (4) 157. (1) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (2) 161. (4)
162. (1) 163. (2) 164. (4) 165. (1) 166. (2) 167. (3) 168. (1)
169. (4) 170. (2) 171. (4) 172. (4) 173. (1) 174. (3) 175. (4)
176. (4) 177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (3) 180. (1) 181. (2) 182. (4)
183. (3) 184. (2) 185. (1) 186. (3) 187. (2) 188. (3) 189. (4)
190. (2) 191. (4) 192. (1) 193. (4) 194. (3) 195. (4) 196. (4)
197. (1) 198. (1) 199. (1) 200. (4) 201. (4) 202. (4) 203. (3)
204. (2) 205. (4) 206. (4) 207. (2) 208. (3)
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2)
Chapter 7 : Chemical Coordination and Integration
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (2) 90. (3) 91. (2)
92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (1) 97. (1) 98. (4)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (4) 105. (1)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (4) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (3) 119. (2)
120. (1) 121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (2)
127. (2) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (2)
134. (3) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (1) 140. (2)

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (2)
Chapter 8 : Reproductive Health

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (3)

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)
Chapter 9 : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production-Animal Husbandry
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2)
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (2)
Chapter 10 : Biotechnology and Its Applications
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (1)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (1)
!" !" !

Last Leap 1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Last Leap 1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

https://neetforsure.blogspot.

1. Preface ................................................................................................. (i) – (i)

2. Physics ............................................................................................... 01 – 354

3. Zoology ............................................................................................ 355 – 486

4. Answers........................................................................................... 487 – 510

1. Units and Measurement ............................................................. 01 – 14

1. Structural Organization in Animals ................................................... 355 – 378

2. Digestion and Absorption ................................................................. 379 – 392

3. Breathing and Exchange of Gases .................................................. 393 – 404

4. Excretory Products and their Elimination ........................................ 405 – 420

5. Locomotion and Movement .............................................................. 421 – 434

6. Neural Control and Coordination ...................................................... 435 – 452

7. Chemical Coordination and Integration ............................................ 453 – 466

8. Reproductive Health ......................................................................... 467 – 474

9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

10. Biotechnology and Its Applications ................................................... 481 – 486

Units and Measurement

5. In an experiment, following fractional errors were

quantity should be measured with best care to then value of n is

9. Number of significant digit in 2000 kg is 17. Dimensionally wavelength is equal to

(2) Can be added (3) Velocity gradient (4) Strain

(3) Cannot be added 19. The value of 1 Pa in CGS unit (dyne/cm2) is

(4) Cannot be added or subtracted (1) 105 (2) 102

(3) 4% (4) 8% (3) Wm–2K–1 (4) Js–1

49. Accuracy of a measurement tells

(3) P × Q (4) All of these (3) M1L1T–1 (4) M1L1T–2

(3) 0.002 × 105 m (4) 2.001 × 10–3 kg (4) 64 ± 1.6 m3

(1) [M0L0TA] (2) [M0LT0A] (4) Impulse per unit area

! ! " ! (3) 1.5 × 105 m

(3) 60 (4) 100 91. The dimensional formula of coefficient of thermal

96. In a new system of units mass is measured in

" " # ! " ! (2) –

112. Classical physics mainly deals with macroscopic

(4) All of these 132. In a hypothetical system of units, if force (A),

(1) Gluon (2) Photon (1) [M0 L0 T0 ] (2) [M1 L –1 T–2 ]

(3) Boson (4) Graviton (3) [MLT–2 ] (4) [M–1 LT2 ]

(3) 6.84 and 6.83 (1) [M1 L2 T] (2) [M1 L1 T–2 ]

159. The dimensional formula for ! !

(3) [M–1L–3T4A2] !"#$%&'()"*#+#'

(4) All of these In the following questions, a statement of assertion

Motion in a Straight Line

5. For the given acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) !" # " $

!!"#$% (3) 7 s (4) 10 s

' ) "!$% "!"#%&$

9. A car travel A to B with speed V1 and returns to

(3) 3 m (3) 4 units

(4) 9 m (4) 7 units

23. A body is thrown vertically upward, such that the

" " (1) 3 m

(1) Zero (2) 0.75 m (3) 7 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

(4) 0.3 s (2) 500 m

(1) [L] (2) [LT –1]

" " "

!"# (3) Must be at x = 20 m (4) Must be at x = 0

(4) |Average velocity| must be equal to average

(4) Variable and negative (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (3) (4)

(3) May be positive but not zero

(3) 12 : 22 : 32 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 If g = 10 m/s2, the value h is

93. If length of the cylinder starts changing with time

!!" (1) (2)

! ")"'% " ")"'!