01/10/2022

Time : 3:00 Hrs. JEE Dropper (Prayas) P - 2 Max. Marks : 300

General instruction :
 This test contains total 90 questions, 30 physics, 30 Chemistry and 30 Mathematics (20 single correct and 10 numerical answer
type questions (+, –, Decimal Number).
 Students need to attempt total 75 questions. 25 Physics (20 + 5), 25 in Chemistry (25 + 5), and 25 Mathematics (20 + 5)
 For each correct answer 4 marks will be awarded and –1 for each incorrect answer.

PHYSICS

1. The unit of percentage error is 5. A bullet travelling horizontally loses 1/20th of its
(1) Same as that of physical quantity velocity while piercing a wooden plank. Then the
(2) Different from that of physical quantity number of such planks required to stop the bullet is
(3) Percentage error is unit less (1) 6 (2) 9
(4) Errors have got their own units which are (3) 11 (4) 13
different from that of physical quantity
measured 6. A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall 3 m
high at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m away from
2. If A and B are two physical quantities having the wall, the angle of projection of ball is:
different dimensions. Then which of the following 3
operations might be possible? (1) tan 1
2
(1) A + 3B (2) 3A – B
(3) A3 + (3B)3 (4) A(1/3) × (3B)3 2
(2) tan 1
3
3. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 1
24.5 m in the last second of its journey. The height of (3) tan 1
2
the tower is
(1) 44.1 m (2) 49 m 3
(4) tan 1
(3) 78.4 m (4) 72 m 4

4. A particle starts moving from rest on a straight line. 7. Figure shows the displacement-time (x – t) graph of a
Its acceleration a verses time t is shown in the figure. body moving in a straight line. Which one of the
The speed of the particle is maximum at the instant graphs shown in figure represents the velocity-time
(v-t) graph of the motion of the body.

(1) t1 (2) t2
(3) t3 (4) t4

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Test - 03 ...............................................................................................................................................................JEE - Dropper (Prayas)
12. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in
figure, then the distance from the foot of the tower
where it will strike the ground will be :
(1) (2) (take g = 10 m/s2)

(3) (4)

(1) 4000/3 m (2) 5000/3 m

8. The velocity - time graph of a linear motion is shown (3) 2000 m (4) 3000 m
in figure. The displacement & distance from the
origin after 8 sec. is : 13. If the radii of circular path of two particles are in the
ratio of 1 : 2, then in order to have same centripetal
acceleration, their speeds should be in the ratio of :
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1

14. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at an

angle of 45° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of
the ball at the highest point of its flight will be:
E
(1) 5 m, 19 m (2) 16 m, 22 m (1) E (2)
(3) 8 m, 19 m (4) 6 m, 5 m 2
E
(3) (4) zero
9. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity 2
10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the rain
drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. 15. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all
The velocity of cyclist is : around it. If the speed of water coming out of the
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s fountain is v, the total area around the fountain that
gets wet is :
(3) 20 m/s (4) 20 3 m/s
v4 v2
(1) 2
(2)
10. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 2g g2
meters per minute. A man on the south bank of the v2 v4
river, capable of swimming at 10 meters per minute (3) (4)
g g2
in still water, wants to swim across the river in the
shortest time. He should swim in a direction :
16. An object in projected up the inclined at the angle
(1) Due north
shown in the figure with an initial velocity of
(2) 30 east of north
30 ms–1. The distance x up the incline at which the
(3) 30 north of west
object lands is
(4) 60 east of north

11. The total speed of a projectile at its greatest height is 30ms  1 A

6
of its speed when it is at half of its greatest
30 o X
7 30 o
height. The angle of projection will be: (1) 600 m (2) 104 m
(1) 60 (2) 45 (3) 60 m (4) 208 m
(3) 30 (4) 50

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JEE - Dropper ............................................................................................................................................................................. Test - 03
17. Two particles start simultaneously from the same 22. Balls are thrown vertically upward in such a way that
point and move along two straight lines, one with the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the
uniform velocity v and other with a uniform maximum height. If the maximum height is 5 m, the
acceleration A If α is the angle between the lines of number of balls thrown per minute will be :
motion of two particles then the least value of relative
velocity will be at a time given by 23. If angular velocity of a disc depends on angle rotate 
v v as 2 = 2 + 2, then its angular acceleration  at
(1) sin  (2) cos 
a a  = 1 radian is ______.
v v
(3) tan  (4) cot  24. With what speed should a body be thrown upwards so
a a
that the distances traversed in 5th second and 6th
18. If velocity [V], time [T] and force [F] are chosen as second are equal?
the base quantities, the dimensions of the mass will
be: 25. A body is projected with initial velocity (5iˆ 12j)
ˆ m/s
(1) [FT–1 V–1] (2) [FTV–1] from origin. Gravity acts in negative y direction. The
(3) [FT V]2
(4) [FVT–1] horizontal range is (Take g = 10 m/s2).

19. A particle moves from the point (2.0iˆ 4.0j)m ˆ at 26. A body starts from rest with an acceleration 2 m/s2 till
it attains the maximum velocity then retards to rest
t = 0 with an initial velocity (5.0iˆ 4.0j)ms
ˆ 1
. It is with 3 m/s2. If total time taken is 5 second, then
acted upon by a constant force which produces a maximum speed (in m/s) attained is _____.
constant acceleration (4.0iˆ 4.0j)ms
ˆ 2
. What is the
distance of the particle from the origin at time 2s? 27. For the given velocity-time graph the displacement
(1) 5 m (2) 20 2 m (in m) of the object between t = 2s to t = 4s is_____.
(3) 10 2 m (4) 15 m

20. The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of

2 km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4 km/h.
What should be the direction of the swimmer with
respect to the flow of the river to cross the river
straight?
(1) 60° (2) 120° 28. The velocity of a particle moving along x-axis is
(3) 90° (4) 150° given as v = x2 – 5x + 4 (in m/s) where x denotes the
x-coordinate of the particle in metres. Find the
Q. No. 21 to 30 are integer type questions. magnitude of acceleration (in m/s2) of the particle
21. Two particles are projected from the two towers when the velocity of particle is zero?
simultaneously, as shown in the figure. What should
be value of 'd' for their collision. 29. The position vector of a particle is given as
r (t 2 4t 6)iˆ (t 2 )ˆj . The time (in second) after
10 2 which the velocity vector and acceleration vector
becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to ____.

30. A particle is projected in such a way that its position

coordinates vary with time as y = 8t – 5t2 and x = 5t
(taking point of projection as origin). What is the
range of projectile?

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Test - 02 ............................................................................................................................................................... JEE - Dropper (Prayas)

CHEMISTRY

31. The equivalent mass of H3BO3 (M = Molar mass of 38. Three gases A, B and C are at same temperature if
H3BO3) in its reaction with NaOH to from Na2B4O7 is 1 1
equal to: their r.m.s speed are in the ratio 1 : : then
2 3
M their molar masses will be in the ratio
(1) M (2)
2 (1) 1 : 2 : 3
M M (2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) (4)
4 6 (3) 1: 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2 :1
32. x gram of pure As2S3 is completely oxidised to
respective highest oxidation states by 50 ml of 0.1 M
39. The number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of
hot acidified KMnO4 then x mass of As2S3 taken is:
Na2CO3 will be:
(Molar mass of As2S3 = 246)
(1) 22.4 g (2) 43.92 g (1) 6.02  1022 (2) 12.04  1022
(3) 64.23 g (4) None (3) 1.806  10 23
(4) 31.8

33. How many moles of KMnO4 are needed to oxidize a 40. The mass of one atom of hydrogen is approximately
mixture of 1 mole of each FeSO4 & FeC2O4 in acidic (1) 1 g (2) 0.5 g
medium (3) 1.6  10–24 g (4) 3.2  10–24 g
4 5
(1) (2) 41. A mixture of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide is
5 4 found to have a density of 1.7 g/lit at S.T.P. The mole
3 5 fraction of carbon monoxide is:
(3) (4)
4 3 (1) 0.37 (2) 0.40
(3) 0.30 (4) 0.50
34. The following equations are balanced atom wise and
charge wise. 42. Correct order of molar mass is :
(i) Cr2O72– + 8H+ + 2H2O2  2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 2O2 (1) CH4 < O2 < N2 < Cl2
(ii) Cr2O72– + 8H+ + 5H2O2  2Cr3+ + 9H2O + 4O2 (2) N2 < CH4 < O2 < Cl2
(3) CH4 < N2 < O2 < Cl2
(iii) Cr2O72– + 8H+ + 7H2O2  2Cr+ + 11H2O + 5O2
The precise equation/equations representing the (4) Cl2 < N2 < Kr < CH4
oxidation of H2O2 is/are
43. Sulphuryl chloride SO2Cl2 reacts with water to give a
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only (4) All the three mixture of H2SO4 and HCl. Moles of NaOH required
to neutralise the solution formed by adding 1 mol of
SO2Cl2 to excess water is are:
35. 1.0 mol of Fe reacts completely with 0.65 mole of O2
(1) 1 (2) 2
to given a mixture of only FeO and Fe2O3. The mole
(3) 3 (4) 4
ratio of ferrous oxide to ferric oxide is
(1) 2 : 2 (2) 4 : 3
44. What volume of 0.05 M K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium is
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 7
needed for complete oxidation of 200mL of 0.6 M
FeC2O4 solution?
36. Which of the following has configuration of [Ar] 3d2?
(1) K (2) Sc2+ (1) 1.2 mL (2) 1.2 L
(3) Ti 2+
(4) Cr2+ (3) 120 mL (4) 800 mL

37. The number of molecules present in a drop of water 45. The number of photons of wavelength 6000 Å
emitted in 10 hours by a 60W sodium lamp
weighing 0.06 g is approximately
(1) 6.50 × 1024 (2) 6.40 × 1023
(1) 1021 (2) 2  1021 23
(3) 8.40 × 10 (4) 3.40 × 1023
(3) 3.33  10 22
(4) 4  1022

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JEE - Dropper ..............................................................................................................................................................................Test - 03
46. Radius of 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion is ‘x’ cm then de-broglie Q. No. 51 to 60 are integer type questions.
wavelength of electrons in the 1st orbit is 51. 50 ml of water sample, containing temporary
2x hardness only, required 0.1 ml of M/50 HCl for
(1) cm (2) 6 x cm complete neutralisation. Calculate the temporary
3
2x hardness of water in ppm.
(3) 3 x cm (4) cm
6 52. The density of 3M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g/mL. The
molality of the solution is xm then x is:
47. Ratio of frequency of revolution of electron in the 2nd (NaCl = 58.5)
excited state of He+ and 2nd excited state of hydrogen
atom is: 53. Maximum electrons for subshell l = 5 will be _____
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 54. Total unpaired electrons in Zn are ______.
48. In any subshell, the maximum number of electrons 55. A moist gas sample exerts pressure of 20 atm, while
having same value of spin quantum number is: dry gas exerts 12 atm. Aqueous tension is ______
(1) l  l  1 (2) l + 2 atm.
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 2l
56. Find out the number of waves made by a Bohr
49. A proton accelerated from rest through a potential electron in one complete revolution in its 3rd orbit.
difference of ‘V’ volts has a wavelength  associated
with it. An alpha particle in order to have the same 57. Find kinetic energy (eV) of an electron in Bohr’s orbit
wavelength must be accelerated from rest through a if it has total energy –10eV.
potential difference of
(1) V volt (2) 4V volt 58. Density of CO at 300 K, 25 atm is ____ g/L.
V
(3) 2V volt (4) volt 59. Find the number of electrons in chromium (24Cr)
8
h 6
which have orbital angular momentum equal to
50. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The 2
numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum
number, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively: 60. Calculate the sum of number of radial nodes and
(1) 16 and 5 (2) 12 and 5 angular nodes in 4d orbital.
(3) 16 and 4 (4) 12 and 4

MATHEMATICS

1  tan 2 15 34 2 13
61. The value of is (3) (4)
1  tan 2 15 9 9
(1) 1 (2) 3
63. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0
3
(3) (4) 2 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of
2 2 + q – p is:
(1) 3 (2) 0
62. Let  and  be the roots of equation px2 + qx + r = 0, (3) 1 (4) 2
1 1
p  0. If p, q and r are in AP and   4, then the
α β 64. If    and 2 = 5 – 3, 2 = 5 – 3, then the equation
value of | – | is having / and / as its roots, is :
(1) 3x2 + 19x + 3 = 0 (2) 3x2 – 19x + 3 = 0
61 2 17 (3) 3x2 – 19x – 3 = 0 (4) x2 – 16x + 1 = 0
(1) (2)
9 9
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Test - 03 ...............................................................................................................................................................JEE - Dropper (Prayas)
3 13 5  (13  23) 49
65. The sum of series  (1) (2) 12
12 12  22 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
7  (13  23  33 )
  ...  upto 10th term is,
1 2 3
2 2 2
74. The sum of the series 1 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 5 + 4 × 7 + …
(1) 680 (2) 600 upto 11th term is
(3) 660 (4) 620 (1) 915 (2) 946
(3) 916 (4) 945
66. If the sum of the first 15 terms of the series
3 3 3 3
 3  1  1  3 a3 a
 25, then 9 equals
 4   1 2    2 4   3   3 4   ... is equal to Let a1, a2, …, a10 be a G.P. If
3
75.
        a1 a5
225 k, then k is equal to : (1) 53 (2) 2 (52)
(1) 108 (2) 27 (3) 4(52) (4) 54
(3) 54 (4) 9
76. For any three positive real numbers a, b and c, if
67. The sum of first 20 terms of the sequence 0.7, 0.77, 9(25a2 + b2) + 25 (c2 – 3ac) = 15b (3a + c)
0.777…, is: (1) b, c and a are in GP
7 7 (2) b, c and a are in AP
(1) (179  1020 ) (2) (99  1020 ) (3) a, b and c are in AP
81 9
(4) a, b and c are in GP
7 7
(3) (179  1020 ) (4) (99  1020 )
81 9 3 5 π
77. If cos ( + ) = , sin (  β)  0  α,β  , then
68. If y = sin2 + cosec2,   0 then: 5 13 4
(1) y = 0 (2) y  2 tan (2) is equal to:
(3) y  –2 (4) y  2 63 63
(1) (2)
52 16
tan A cot A 21 33
69. The expression  can be written (3) (4)
1  cot A 1  tan A 16 52
as:
78. The value of sin 10° sin 30° sin 50° sin 70° is :
(1) sin A cos A + 1 (2) sec A cosec A +1
(3) tan A + cot A (4) sec A + cosec A 1 1
(1) (2)
36 32
70. The number of values of x in the interval [0, 3 ] 1 1
(3) (4)
satisfying the equation 2 sin2 x + 5 sin x – 3 = 0 is 16 18
(1) 6 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 4 79. If A = sin2 x + cos4 x, then for all real x.
13
71. The number of integral values of m for which the (1)  A 1 (2) 1  A  2
16
equation (1 + m2) x2 – 2 (1 + 3m) x + (1+ 8m) = 0, has
3 13 3
no real root is: (3)  A (4)  A 1
(1) 3 (2) infinitely many 4 16 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
4
80. If tan  = – , then sin  is:
72. If the equations x2 + 2x + 3 = 0 and ax2 + bx + c = 0; 3
a, b, c, R, have a common root, then a : b : c is equal 4 4
to: (1)  but not
5 5
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1
4 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 1 : 2 (2)  or
5 5
73. If one root of the equation x2 + px + 12 = 0 is 4, while 4 4
(3) but not 
the equation x2 + px + q = 0 has equal roots, then the 5 5
value of q is: (4) None of the above
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JEE - Dropper ............................................................................................................................................................................. Test - 03
Q. No. 81 to 90 are integer type questions. 86. Let P (x) = x2 + bx + c, where b and c are integers. If
81. The sum of all the real roots of the equations |x –2|2 + P(x) is a factor of both x4 + 6x2 + 25 and 3x4 + 4x2 +
|x – 2| – 2 = 0 is _______. 28x + 5, then the value of P (1) is _______.

82. The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation 87. The sum of the roots of the equation |x2 – x – 6| = x +
( x2  5x  5)x 4 x60  1 is _______.
2
2 is _______.

88. If logb n =2 and logn (2b) = 2, then nb =

83. The number of the real solutions of the equation x2 –
3 |x| + 2 = 0 _______. 
ar
89. Let a1, a2, a3,… be an A.P. If 2
r 1
r
 4, then 4a2 is
84. The sum to the infinity of the series
2 6 10 14 equal to _______.
1   2  3  4  ... is _______.
3 3 3 3
5
90. Let P  and (120)P
85. Let a1, a2, a3 ,….. be in arithmetic progression and g1, 1 1 1 1
  
g2, g3 …. be in geometric progression. If a1 = 2 = g1 log2 x log3 x log 4 x log5 x
and a10 = 3 = g10, then the value of (a7g19 + a19 g28) = 32, then the value of x be_______.
equals:

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