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FEB - 33213/II

CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Paper II

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100

Note : This paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question

carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

om
1. An atom with a single electron has
2. The number of quantum numbers

.c
an atomic number of z. m and e
are the mass and charge of an
electron, respectively. n is the
BC
of a free electron (one that is not

bound to a nucleus) is :
A
principal quantum number of a
ry

circular orbit of the electron, around


the nucleus. Considering the (A) 0
ist

electrostatic attraction between the


electron and the nucleus to be (B) 1
m

balanced exactly by the centrifugal


he

(C) 2
force arising from the circular motion
of the electron, the radius of the
.C

(D) 4
orbit of n = 2 is :
w

4 (h / 2π )
2 3. The highest occupied molecular
w

(A)
mze2
w

orbital of O2 is (neglecting bonding/

2 ( h / 2 π)
2 antibonding character) :
(B)
mze2
(A) σ g
4 mze2
(C) (B) π g
( h / 2 π )2
(C) σ u
2mze2
(D)
( h / 2 π )2 (D) π u

[P.T.O.

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FEB - 33213/II

4. According to VSEPR, the geometry 6. Entropy, S, is defined as :

dw
of a AX7E0 molecule is : (A) ∫T
(A) Square antiprismatic dwrev
(B) ∫ T
(B) Pentagonal pyramidal
dq
(C) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(C) ∫ T

om
dqrev
(D) ∫

.c
(D) Octahedral T

5. An ideal gas is allowed to expand


7. BC
Osmotic pressure of a solution
A
depends upon :
ry

adiabatically against vacuum


(A) Atmospheric pressure
ist

(opposing pressure is zero). Which


(B) Solubility
m

of the following statements is


he

(C) Temperature
.C

false ? (D) Vapor pressure of solvent


w

(A) The equation PVγ = constant 8. The pH of an aqueous solution


w

1.0 M ammonium formate is


w

holds for this process


(Given : pKa of formic acid = 3.75,

(B) The expansion is isothermal pKb of NH3 = 4.75) :

(A) 9.75
(C) No work is done in this
(B) 13
expansion
(C) 3.25
(D) The process is irreversible (D) 6.5
2

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FEB - 33213/II

9. On increasing temperature of the 11. Which of the following statements

is true ?
solution, the Debye-Huckel

(A) An elementary reaction can be


reciprocal length will :
of zeroth order
(A) Increase
(B) Every chemical reaction must

om
(B) Decrease have a well-defined order

.c
(C) Not change (C) A third order reaction is more
BC
probable than a second order
A
(D) Change, depending on
ry

reaction
ist

concentration
(D) It is possible that the rate of
m
he

10. The oxidation numbers of Cr some reactions may decrease


.C

in K 2 CrO 4 and K 2 Cr 2 O 7 are, with increase in temperature


w

12. A tetrahedral molecule lacks the


w

respectively :
w

following symmetry element :


(A) 3 and 6
(A) Point of inversion
(B) 6 and 3
(B) Simple axis of symmetry

(C) 6 and 6
(C) Plane of symmetry

(D) 3 and 3 (D) Alternating axis of symmetry

3 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33213/II

13. Which of the following molecules


16. For 6.000 × 10 –5 M HCl, the
will exhibit a microwave rotational
spectrum ? rounded off value of pH is :
(A) CH4

(B) SF6 (A) 4.2218488

(C) CH3I
(B) 4.2218
(D) N2

om
14. Visible light cannot be used to obtain (C) 4.221

.c
crystal structures because :

(A) Its wavelengths are too large BC


(D) 4.22
A
(B) Its wavelengths are too small
17. The IUPAC name of the following
ry

(C) Its intensity is too high


ist

compound is :
(D) Its intensity is too low
m

15. The Nernst equation for the reaction


he

O + ne = R is best described as :
.C

RT c
w

(A) E = E0 − ln 0
nF cR
w
w

RT a (A) Threo-2-bromo-1, 2-diphenylpropane


(B) E = E0 + ln 0
nF aR

a0
( E − E0 ) n F (B) Erythro-1-bromo-1,2-diphenylpropane
(C) =e RT
aR
(C) Threo-1-bromo-1, 2-diphenylpropane

a0 −
( E − E0 ) n F
(D) =e RT
(D) Erythro-2-bromo-1,2-diphenylpropane
aR

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w
w
w
.C
he
m
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
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FEB - 33213/II

22. The product in the following


21. The correct molecule having the
reaction is :
absolute configuration as (S)-4-

bromo-cis-2-pentene is :

om
(A)

.c
BC
(A)
A
ry
ist

(B)
m
he
.C

(B)
w
w

(C)
w

(C)

(D)

(D)

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w
w
.C
he
m
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
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FEB - 33213/II

27. The following reaction is an example 29. Heating of isopropyl alcohol in the
of :
presence of sulphuric acid gives :

(A) 1-Propene

(B) Propane
(A) Clemmensen reduction

om
(C) Hexane
(B) Wolff-Kishner reduction

.c
(D) Diisopropyl ether
(C) Birch reduction BC
A
30. The major product formed in the
ry

(D) Meerwein-Ponndorf-Verley
following reaction is :
ist

reduction
m


KOH, Heat
he

28. Which of the following alkyne reacts → ?


.C

with the solution of silver nitrate in


w

(A)
w

alcohol ?
w

(A) H3C—C ≡ C—H


(B)

(B) H3C—C ≡ C—CH3

(C)
(C) H3CH2C—C ≡ C—CH3

(D)
(D) H3CH2C—C ≡ C—CH2CH3

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FEB - 33213/II

33. Hemoglobin (Hb) is an iron


31. The mass spectrum of a halogen
containing protein involved in
containing compound showed M+ binding and transport of O 2 in
blood. The O2 binding affinity of
and M + + 2 of equal intensity.
Hb depends on pressure and pH
under physiological conditions. The
Therefore, the compound contains :
oxygen affinity of Hb :

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(A) Bromine (A) increases with increase in

.c
pressure and pH
(B) Chlorine BC
(B) decreases with increase in
A
pressure and pH
ry

(C) Iodine
(C) increases with increase in
ist

pressure but decreases with


m

(D) Fluorine
increase in pH
he

32. Acetylenic protons are shielded


.C

(D) decreases with increase in


w

pressure but independent


due to :
w

of pH
w

(A) Inductive effect 34. The copper containing protein


involved in oxygen transport is :
(B) Hybridisation effect (A) cytochrome c

(B) hemerythrin
(C) Resonance effect
(C) hemocyanin
(D) Diamagnetic anisotropic effect (D) myoglobin

9 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33213/II

35. In the redox reaction : 37. A straight line passing through

origin is observed in the absorption


2(MnO 4 ) – + 5(C 2 O 4 ) 2– + 16H +
spectra at different concentrations of
2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
a compound for (T = transmittance,

20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO 4 reacts C = concentration, λ = wavelength) :

om
quantitatively with : (A) T versus λ

.c
(A) 20 mL of 0.1 M oxalate BC
(B) log 1/T versus C
A
(C) %T versus C
ry

(B) 40 mL of 0.05 M oxalate


ist

(D) 1/T versus C


(C) 50 mL of 0.25 M oxalate
m

38. The reference compound used in


he

(D) 50 mL of 0.1 M oxalate


.C

ESR spectroscopy is :
w

36. Tollen’s reagent is : (A) diphenylpicrylhydrazyl radical


w
w

(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (B) diphenylpicryl hydrazine

(C) d i p h e n y l p i c r y l h y d r a z i n e
(B) Ag2O
dihydrate
(C) [Cu(OH)4]2–
(D) diphenylpicrylhydrazinium

(D) Cu2O iodine

10

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FEB - 33213/II

39. Active catalyst species for 42. Two compounds X and Y have the
same formula [Co(en)2Cl2]+. X can
hydrogenation is :
be converted to Y by boiling with dil.
(A) [RuCl2(PPh3)] HCl. A solution of X reacts with
oxalic acid to form [Co(en)2C2O4]
(B) [HCo(CO)3]
while Y does not react :
(C) [RhCl(PPh3)3] (A) X is cis isomer and Y is trans
(D) K2[PtCl6] isomer

om
(B) X and Y are two optical isomers
40. The Ni ion in the crystal lattice of
in cis geometry

.c
nickel arsenide (NiAs) is surrounded
(C) X is trans isomer and Y is cis
by : BC isomer
A
(A) 4 arsenic in a tetrahedral (D) X and Y are two optical isomers
ry

geometry in trans geometry


ist

43. Which of the following complex ion


(B) 6 arsenic in an octahedral
m

has a magnetic moment value same


geometry
he

as [Cr(H2O)6]3+ ?
(C) 6 arsenic in a trigonal prismatic (A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
.C
w

geometry (B) [Mn(H2O)6]3+


w

(D) 8 arsenic in a cubic geometry (C) [Fe(H2O)6]3+


w

41. The oxidation states of chlorine in (D) [Mn(H2O)6]4+

Cl2O, Cl2, (ClO3)– are respectively : 44. The electronic ground state of
tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– is :
(A) +5, 0, +1
(A) 4 T 2g
(B) +1, –1, +5
(B) 3 E
(C) –1, 0, +5 (C) 4 A 2

(D) +1, 0, +5 (D) 4 T 1g

11 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33213/II

− 48. A 50 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed


45. The H-B-H bond angle in BH 4

is : with a 50 mL solution of pH = 2.

The pH of the mixture will be :


(A) 180°
(A) 0.86
(B) 90°
(B) 1.26
(C) 120°
(C) 1.76

om
(D) 109°
(D) 2.26

.c
46. Beryl is a :

(A) beryllium containing group like


BC
49. Metallocenes are :
A
(A) metal complexes of halides
–BeH3, named in analogy with
ry

(B) metal complexes of aliphatic


ist

silyl, alkyl etc.


amines
m

(B) precious stone with diamond


he

(C) metal complexes of


like structure
.C

cyclopentadienyl anion
(C) cyclic silicate
w

(D) metal complexes of cyanide


w

(D) beryllium oxide


w

50. Which of the following will not form


47. Catena means :
clathrates ?

(A) special type dimeric structure (A) Ar

(B) a chain structure (B) He

(C) a tetrameric structure (C) Kr

(D) a trimeric structure (D) Xe

12

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FEB - 33213/II
ROUGH WORK

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

13 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33213/II

ROUGH WORK

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

14

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FEB - 33313/III

Chemical Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This Paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions, each
question carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. An electron of mass ‘m’ is confined to a 1-D box of length ‘L’. It makes a

radiative transition from second excited state to ground state. The wavenumber

om
of the photon emitted is :

.c
h 2h
(A)
mL c2 (B)BC mL2 c
A
9h 3h
(C) (D)
ry

2
mL c mL2 c
ist

2. The wave function of a 1-D harmonic oscillator between x = –∞ and


m

x = +∞ is given by :
he

 βx 2 
ψ ( x) = N exp  −
.C

.
 2 
w
w

 ∞ 1/ 2 
1  π
∫e
− ax2
 Given : dx =   
w

 2  a
0 

The value of N, that normalizes the function ψ(x), is :

1/ 2 1/ 4
β β
(A)   (B)  
π π

1/ 2 1/ 4
 β  π
 2π 
(C) (D)  β 

1 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

3. The molecular orbitals of 1, 3-butadiene (not in proper order) are given

below :

(f1, f2, f3, f4 are the 2pz orbitals on carbon atoms 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively).

ψ1 = 0.372f1 – 0.602f2 + 0.602f3 – 0.372f4.

om
ψ2 = 0.602f1 + 0.372f2 – 0.372f3 – 0.602f4.

.c
ψ3 = 0.372f1 + 0.602f2 + 0.602f3 + 0.372f4.
BC
A
ψ4 = 0.602f1 – 0.372f2 – 0.372f3 + 0.602f4.
ry
ist

The HOMO and LUMO in the ground state of 1, 3-butadiene are


m
he

respectively :
.C

(A) ψ2 and ψ3 (B) ψ3 and ψ2


w
w

(C) ψ2 and ψ4 (D) ψ2 and ψ1


w

4. The J = 0 → 1 rotational transition for H79Br occurs at 500.72 GHz. Assuming

the molecule to be a rigid rotor, the J = 4 → 5 transition occurs at :

(A) 50.1 cm–1 (B) 66.8 cm–1

(C) 16.7 cm–1 (D) 83.5 cm–1

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FEB - 33313/III
5. The following data are obtained for the vibration-rotation spectrum of a
diatomic molecule :

J ν  R ( J ) / cm –1 ν P ( J ) / cm –1

0 2642.60 —

1 2658.36 2609.67

2 — 2592.51

om
.c
The value of the rotational constant B0 in the ground vibrational state
is : BC
(A) 8.12 cm–1 (B) 8.35 cm–1
A
8.58 cm–1 7.88 cm–1
ry

(C) (D)
ist

6. Assuming H 2 and HD molecules having equal bond lengths, the


ratio of rotational partition functions of these molecules using high temperature
m

approximation is :
he

(A) 3/8 (B) 3/4


.C

(C) 1/2 (D) 2/3


w

7. Which of the following statements is not true for entropy production in a


w

system ?
w

(A) Rate of entropy production in a system is a product of flux and driving


force.
(B) Rate of entropy production is always positive for a spontaneous
process.
(C) Rate of entropy production is always negative for a spontaneous
process.
(D) Rate of entropy production is zero at equilibrium.

3 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

8. The Slater determinant (un-normalized) for the ground state of lithium atom

is :

1s (1) α (1) 1s (1) β (1) 2s (1) α (1)

(A) 1 s (2 ) α ( 2 ) 1 s (2 ) β ( 2 ) 2 s ( 2) α ( 2)

1 s (3 ) α (3 ) 1s (3) β (3) 2s (3) α (3)

om
1s (1) α (1) 1s (1) β (1) 1s (1) α (1)

.c
(B) 1 s ( 2 ) α (2 ) 1s ( 2) β ( 2) 1 s (2 ) α (2 )

1s (3) α (3) 1 s (3 ) β (3 )
BC
1 s (3 ) α (3 )
A
ry

1s (1) α (1) 1s (1) β (1) 1s (1) β (1)


ist

1 s (2 ) α ( 2 ) 1s ( 2) β ( 2) 1 s ( 2 ) β (2 )
m

(C)
he

1 s (3 ) α (3 ) 1 s (3 ) β (3 ) 1s (3) β (3)
.C
w

1s (1) α (1) 2s (1) α (1) 2s (1) β (1)


w

(D) 1s ( 2) α ( 2) 2 s (2 ) α (2 ) 2 s (2 ) β (2 )
w

1s (3) α (3) 2s (3) α (3) 2s (3) β (3)

9. If the t1/2 of a radioactive element is 10 d, the number of days required to

reduce it to 1/8th of its original value is :

(A) 10 d (B) 20 d

(C) 30 d (D) 80 d

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FEB - 33313/III

10. In the reaction N2O4(g) ↔ 2NO2(g) an increase in pressure would result

in :

(A) Increase in the amount of product

(B) Increase in the amount of reactant

(C) Have no effect on equilibrium

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(D) Initial increase and then decrease in the amount of product formed.

.c
11. The pressure just below the meniscus of water is :

(A) Greater than just above it.


BC
A
(B) Less than just above it.
ry
ist

(C) Same as just above it.


m

(D) Always equal to atmospheric pressure.


he

12. Bakelite is obtained by reaction between :


.C
w

(A) Phenol and formaldehyde (B) Benzene and formaldehyde


w
w

(C) Benzophenol and acetic acid (D) Phenol and acetic acid

13. The boiling temperature of ethyl benzene is 136°C. Use Trouton’s rule

to determine the enthalpy of vaporization of ethyl benzene at this

temperature :

(A) 35 kJ mol–1 (B) 12 kJ mol–1

(C) 23 kJ mol–1 (D) 4.8 kJ mol–1

5 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

14. The isotope used for diagnosing hyperthyroiditis is :


(A) 125I (B) 127I

(C) 130I (D) 128I

15. Reaction quotient for the reaction, 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
is given as :

Q=
4
pNO 6
· pH 2O
Q=
[NO]4 [ H2O]6
(A) (B)
 NH3  · [O2 ]
4 5 4 5
pNH3
· pO 2

om
4 6 4 6
aNO · aH 2O
mNO · mH 2O

.c
(C) Q= 4 5 (D) Q= 4 5
aNH · aO mNH · mO
3 2
BC 3 2

16. In the following phase diagram, phase of a substance marked as point A


A
will be :
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

(A) Solid (B) Liquid


(C) Gas (D) Supercritical fluid

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w
w
.C
he
m
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
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FEB - 33313/III
19. For the oscillating reaction having Lotka-Volterra mechanism,
k
A + X →
1
2X
k
X + Y →
2
2Y
k
3
Y → Z
The concentration of the reactant ‘A’ will :
(A) Oscillate with time.
(B) Increase exponentially with time and remain constant.
(C) Remain constant throughout the reaction.

om
(D) Decrease exponentially with time and will become zero.
20. Consider the equilibrium reaction,

.c
H+ (aq.) + OH− (aq.) ←

k
1k
BC
→ H2O (l)

−1
A
The rate constants k1 and k–1 are estimated by :
ry

(A) Laser flash photolysis (B) Fast acid-base titration


ist

(C) Temperature jump method (D) Time resolved pH metry


21. For the reaction X + Y + Z → P, the experimental data for the measured
m

initial rates are given below :


he
.C

Initial Rates
[ X ]0 , (M ) [ Y ]0 , (M ) [ Z ]0 , (M )
Run
(
R 0 Ms –1 )
w
w

1 0.2 0.5 0.4 8.0 × 10−5


w

2 0.4 0.5 0.4 3.2 × 10−4

3 0.4 2.0 0.4 1.28 × 10−3

4 0.2 0.5 1.6 3.2 × 10−4

Orders of the reaction w.r. to X, Y and Z are :


(A) 2, 2, 1 (B) 2, 1, 2
(C) 2, 1, 1 (D) 1, 1, 2
8

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FEB - 33313/III
22. According to the transition state theory for the elementary bi-molecular
reactions, the molar entropy of activation ∆S0≠ is :
(A) negative
(B) positive
(C) zero
(D) positive for endothermic and negative for exothermic reactions
23. For the chemical equilibrium,


A ←→ B

om
The plot of Gibbs free energy of the system (Gsys) vs. extent of reaction is
shown below :

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w

Point P, marked in the plot, corresponds to :


(A) µA > µB (B) µB > µA
w

(C) µA = µB (D) µA = µB = 0
w

24. 19
The F NMR spectrum of ClF3 exhibits a 1 : 1 doublet and a 1 : 2 : 1 triplet.
The structure of ClF3 will be :
(Natural abundance of 19F is 100%, ignore coupling with Cl nucleus.)

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (ClF2 )+ F−

9 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III
25. The Mössbauer spectrum of a foil of iron enriched with 57Fe exhibits a single
signal at zero velocity, when the spectrum is recorded in an applied magnetic
field, it changes to a ......................... ......................... spectrum.
(Given : I values of 57Fe is 1/2 and 3/2 in the ground and excited states
respectively.)
(A) Two lines (B) Three lines
(C) Four lines (D) Six lines
26. The formation of Schottky defects should result in :

om
(A) The contraction of crystal lattice

.c
(B) Decrease in the density of the crystal
(C) Decrease in electrical conductivity BC
A
(D) Increase in volume
ry

27. The addition of gallium impurity to silicon results in :


ist

(A) Decrease in the band gap


m

(B) Increase in the band gap


he

(C) Addition of a new intermediate band with electrons


.C

(D) Addition of a new intermediate band with holes


w

28. Which statement most correctly describes crystal field theory for a d-block
w

complex of unspecified geometry ?


w

(A) The theory considers covalent interaction between a metal centre and
the surrounding ligands.
(B) The theory considers electrostatic interaction between a metal ion and
the surrounding ligand which are taken to be point charges.
(C) The theory rationalizes the non-degeneracy of the metal-orbitals by
considering the electrostatic repulsions between point charge ligands
and electrons in the metal d-orbitals.
(D) The theory rationalizes the metal d-orbitals are split into two levels.

10

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FEB - 33313/III
29. For which pair of the complexes is the order of values of ∆oct correct ?
3+ 3+
(A)  Rh (NH3 )  > Co (NH3 )6 
 6

4− 3−
(B)  Fe (CN )  >  Fe (CN )6 
 6

2+ 3+
(C) Cr (H 2O )  > Cr (H 2O )6 
 6

3− 3−
(D) CrF6  > Cr (CN )6 

om
3−
30. Cr (CN)  is expected to be :
 6

.c
(A) Diamagnetic
(B)
(C)
Paramagnetic with µeff < 3.87 BM
Paramagnetic with µeff > 3.87 BM
BC
A
(D) Paramagnetic with µeff ≈ 3.87 BM
ry

31. The reaction of [PtCl4 ]2− with [NO2 ]− followed by NH3 gives :
ist

− −
(A) trans-  PtCl (NH3 ) (NO2 )2  (B) trans-  PtCl2 (NH3 ) (NO2 )
m
he

2− −
(C) cis-  PtCl (NH3 )2 (NO2 ) (D) cis-  PtCl2 (NH3 ) (NO2 )
.C

32. Which of the following complexes has the maximum number of unpaired
w

electrons ?
w

2+
(A) [FeCl4 ]− (B)  VO (H 2O ) 
 5
w

3+
(C) Hg Co (NCS)4  (D) Co (NH3 ) 
 6

+
33. The bright yellow colour of Cu (phen )2  (phen = 1, 10-phenanthroline) is
due to :
(A) d-d transitions
(B) intraligand charge transfer transition
(C) LMCT transition
(D) MLCT transition

11 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III
34. The rate of oxygen atom transfer from various oxyhalides follows the
order :

(A) ClO4− < ClO3− < ClO− (B) IO−4 < BrO4− < ClO4−

(C) ClO− < ClO3− < ClO4− (D) ClO− < ClO4− < BrO4−

35. Identify the following boranes with their class of boranes :


(a) closo (i) B6H12

(b) nido (ii) (B6 H6 )2 −

om
(c) arachno (iii) B6H10

.c
(A) (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii)
(B) (a)—(i), (b)—(iii), (c)—(ii)
BC
A
(C) (a)—(ii), (b)—(i), (c)—(iii)
ry

(D) (a)—(ii), (b)—(iii), (c)—(i)


ist


36. The structure of IF6  is best described as :
m
he

(A) trigonally distorted octahedron


(B) octahedron
.C

(C) square pyramid


w

(D) trigonal bipyramid


w

37. Among the following statements :


w

(a) Orthosilicates have general formula (SiO4 )4 −


(b) BaTiSi3O9 is an example for cyclosilicate

(c) Si2O76 − is an orthosilicate

(d) ZrSiO4 is a pyrosilicate


(A) (a), (b) are correct (B) (a), (c) are correct
(C) only (a) is correct (D) (c), (d) are correct
12

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FEB - 33313/III

38. The type of hybridisation of carbon in carbon nanotube is :

(A) sp and sp2 (B) sp2 and sp3

(C) sp and sp3 (D) sp, sp2 and sp3

39. Which one of the following pairs consists of the naturally occurring

actinides ?

(A) Am, Cf (B) Th, Po

om
(C) Th, U (D) U, Am

.c
40. BC
In the ion exchange separation of lanthanides :
A
(A) La(III) gets eluted first because of its larger size
ry

(B) La(III) gets eluted first because of the smaller size of its hydrated ions
ist
m

(C) Lu(III) gets eluted first because of the larger size of its hydrated ions
he

(D) Lu(III) gets eluted first because of its smaller size


.C

41. Identify the type of the reaction given below :


w
w
w

(A) Oxidative addition (B) Oxidative elimination

(C) Carboxylation (D) Reductive elimination

13 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

42. Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent ?

(A)
 (
 Mo η5 -C H 
5 5 
2
) (B)
 ( )
 Fe η5 -C H 
5 5 
2

(C)  (
Co η5 -C H 
5 5 
2
) (D)  ( )
 Ru η5 -C H 
5 5 
2

43. The correct order of the strength of M-C bond in the given carboxyls is :

− +
(A)  V (CO )  > Cr (CO )6  >  Mn (CO )6 
 6

om
+ −
(B) Cr (CO)  <  Mn (CO)  <  V (CO )6 
 6  6

.c
(C) Cr (CO)  >  Mn (CO) 
 6  6
+ BC
>  V (CO )6 

A
ry

− +
(D)  V (CO )  < Cr (CO )6  <  Mn (CO )6 
 6
ist

44. In deoxymyoglobin the iron centre is best described as :


m
he

(A) low-spin Fe(III) (B) low-spin Fe(II)


.C

(C) high-spin Fe(II) (D) high-spin Fe(III)


w

45. Which of the following copper biomolecules is EPR silent ?


w

(A) superoxide dismutase (B) oxyhemocyanin


w

(C) plastocyanin (D) nitrite reductase

46. The active site structure of Rieske protein can be best described as :

(cys = cysteine and his = histidine)

(A) {Fe (cys)4 } (B) {Fe2S2 (cys)4 }


(C) {Fe2S2 (cys)2 (his)2 } (D) {Fe4S4 (cys)4 }
14

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FEB - 33313/III

47. The separation between E1 and E3 in the following energy level diagram

will be :

om
.c
(A) 800 nm
BC
(B) 400 nm
A
ry

(C) 200 nm (D) 300 nm


ist

48. The amount of Na2SO4 · 4H2O (MW = 214.14) required to prepare a litre
m
he

of one molar Na solution is :


.C
w

(A) 214.14 g (B) 107.07 g


w

(C) 21.414 g (D) 10.707 g


w

49. Which of the following molecules contains the highest % of nitrogen by

mass ?

(A) HNO3 (B) LiNO3

(C) NaNO3 (D) KNO3

15 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

50. A 10 mg sample containing CaCO 3 and α-Al 2 O 3 was analysed by

thermogravimetry between 30-800°C. A weight loss of 2.2 mg was observed.

The % of α-Al2O3 in the mixture is ............................ .

(Given : M.W. CaCO3 = 100.0)

(A) 75% (B) 45%

om
(C) 55% (D) 50%

.c
51. BC
On a 30 cm column, the retention times tr of A and B are 16.40 and 17.63
A
minutes respectively. The average number of plates in the column are 3000.
ry
ist

The plate height will be :


m

(A) 1.00 (B) 0.01


he
.C

(C) 100 (D) 30


w

52. Twenty ml of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M benzoic acid is mixed with


w
w

10 ml ether. After the layers are separated it is determined by titration

that 0.5 M benzoic acid remains in the aqueous layer. The distribution

ration and % E are :

(A) 3, 50% (B) 4, 60%

(C) 6, 75% (D) 10, 25%

16

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FEB - 33313/III

53. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic in nature ?

(A) Cyclopentadienyl anion (B) Pyrrole

(C) Fullerene C60 (D) Azulene

54. Choose the correct option as indicated in series given below :

om
.c
(a) Homoaromatic
BC
A
ry
ist

(b) Aromatic
m
he
.C
w
w

(c) Non-aromatic
w

(A) Homoaromatic-i, Aromatic-ii, Non-aromatic-iii

(B) Homoaromatic-ii, Aromatic-iii, Non-aromatic-iii

(C) Homoaromatic-ii, Aromatic-ii, Non-aromatic-ii

(D) Homoaromatic-ii, Aromatic-ii, Non-aromatic-iii

17 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

55. Predict the stereochemical outcome of the following reaction :

om
(A)

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m

(B)
he
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

18

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FEB - 33313/III
56. Study the following reaction sequence involved in the synthesis of (–)-menthol
and choose the correct description for the same :

+
HNEt2  Rh (S) -BINAP  BF4−
→ A  →
BuLi

Myrcene Enamine intermediate

om
.c
(A) Both the steps are non-stereoselective and A is
BC
A
ry
ist

(B) The second step is enantioselective and A is


m
he
.C
w
w

(C) The second step is enantioselective and A is


w

(D) Both the steps are enantioselective and A is

19 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

57. In a Shapiro reaction, using 2-octanone, [p-tolunesulfonylhydrazone of

2-octanone treated with CH3Li], the product obtained is :

(A) 1-octene (B) (E)-2-octene

om
(C) (Z)-2-octene (D) (Z)-3-octene

.c
58. Study the following chemical conversion :
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w

(A) Michael addition followed by cyclization


w
w

(B) First aldol reaction followed by Michael addition

(C) Two intramolecular aldol condensations

(D) First Michael addition followed by intramolecular aldol

condensation

20

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FEB - 33313/III

59. Hammett plots provide useful information about several aspects of a reaction.

Match the following aspects regarding reaction constant, ρ and substituent

constant, σ, and reactions given.

(L) Acid catalyzed hydrolysis of (1) Reaction proceeds by S N 1

ethyl benzoates (ρ = 0.03) pathway

om
(M) Base catalyzed hydrolysis of (2) Rate accelerated by meta-

.c
ethyl benzoates (ρ = 2.51) BC
methoxy substituent and rate
A
retarded by para-methoxy
ry

substituent
ist
m

(N) Solvolysis of benzyl tosylates (3) Indication of two different RDS


he

(ρ = –5.6) for EDG and EWG


.C
w

(O) Reaction with different signs (4) Reaction largely unaffected by


w

for ρ for EDG and EWG polar effects of substituents


w

(A) (L)-(1), (M)-(2), (N)-(3), (O)-(4)

(B) (L)-(1), (M)-(4), (N)-(3), (O)-(2)

(C) (L)-(4), (M)-(2), (N)-(1), (O)-(3)

(D) (L)-(2), (M)-(1), (N)-(3), (O)-(4)

21 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

60. Study the following reaction :

(I) The exo norbornyl brosylate reacts 350 times faster than the endo nor

om
bornyl brosylate.

(II) Both exo and endo brosylates produce exclusively exo norbornyl acetate.

.c
(III) BC
Enantiomerically pure exo norbornyl brosylate produces 100% racemic
product.
A
ry

(IV) Enantiomerically pure endo norbornyl brosylate produces which is


ist

slightly non-racemic [%ee < 10%].


m

Based on these observations, state which of the following statements


he

correctly summarized the above.


.C

(A) Exo-norbornyl brosylate undergoes the reaction with formation of


w

non-classical carbocation and endo norbornyl brosylate reacts entirely


w

by SN2 mechanism.
w

(B) Both exo and endo isomers entirely react by formation of classical
carbocation.

(C) Exo-isomer undergoes reaction entirely by SN1 and endo-isomer


undergoes reaction by entirely SN2 mechanism.

(D) Exo-isomer undergoes reaction entirely via formation of non-classical


carbocation and endo-isomer undergoes reaction partially by SN2
mechanism and mostly via formation of classical carbocation.
22

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FEB - 33313/III
61. Study the following reaction and identify the processes involved :

(A) 4 pi electron thermal con-rotatory elecrocyclic reaction.


(B) 4 pi electron photochemical dis-rotatory electrocyclic reaction.
(C) (2 pi + 2 pi) photochemical cycloaddition reaction.
(D) (2 pi + 2 pi) thermal cycloaddition reaction.

om
62. Identify the structures of missing X and Y components in the following
Diels-Alder reaction :

.c
Heat
BC
X + Y →
A
ry
ist
m

(A) X= and Y =
he
.C
w
w

(B) X= and Y =
w

(C) X= and Y =

(D) X= and Y =

23 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

63. The order of increasing reactivity towards nitration is :

(A) Pyridine < quinoline < quinoline-N-oxide

(B) Quinoline < pyridine < quinoline-N-oxide

(C) Quinoline-N-oxide < pyridine < quinoline

om
(D) Quinoline < quinoline-N-oxide < pyridine

.c
64.
BC
Bischler-Napieraski reaction is used for the synthesis of :
A
ry

(A) Quinoline (B) Isoquinoline


ist
m

(C) Substituted pyrrole (D) 2-Methyl quinoline


he

65. In the synthesis of Ph—CO—CH2—CH2—CHO using diathiane following


.C
w

reagents are used :


w
w

(A) (i) NaOMe, (ii) CH2 = CH—CO—Ph, (iii) H+, (iv) HgCl2/H+

(B) (i) n-BuLi, (ii) CH2 = CH—CO—Ph, (iii) H+, (iv) HgCl2/H+

(C) (i) NaOMe, (ii) Ph—CH = CH—CHO, (iii) H+, (iv) HgCl2/H+

(D) (i) n-BuLi, (ii) CH2 = CH—CO—Ph, (iii) H+

24

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FEB - 33313/III

66. Prevost and Woodward reactions are useful for formation of 1, 2-diols with

opposite stereoselectivities. Which of the following statements is correct

regarding these reactions ?

(A) Prevost and Woodward reactions both employ iodine and silver

carboxylate. In Prevost dry conditions yield trans-1, 2-diol whereas in

om
Woodward reaction cis-1, 2-diol is formed in presence of moisture.

.c
(B) BC
Prevost and Woodward reactions both employ iodine and silver
A
carboxylate. In Woodward reaction dry conditions yield cis-1, 2-diol
ry
ist

whereas in Prevost reaction trans-1, 2-diol is formed in presence of


m

moisture.
he
.C

(C) Prevost and Woodward reactions both employ iodine and silver
w

carboxylate. In Prevost reaction dry conditions yield cis-1, 2-diol


w
w

whereas in Woodward reaction trans-1, 2-diol is formed in presence of

moisture.

(D) Prevost and Woodward reactions both employ iodine and silver

carboxylate. In Prevost reaction cis-1, 2-diol in presence of moisture

whereas in Woodward reaction dry conditions yield trans-1, 2-diol.

25 [P.T.O.

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67. The major conformer of 2, 3, 4-tri-O-acetyl-β-D-xylopyranosyl chloride in CHCl3

is Y with all four groups ‘axial’. This is due to the,

om
(A) Mutarotation (B) Steric crowding

.c
(C) Hydrogen bonding (D) Anomeric effect
BC
68. Many of the natural product biosyntheses involve shikimic acid pathway.
A
ry

Biosynthesis of one of the following compounds does not involve the shikimic
ist

acid pathway. Identify the compound :


m
he

(A) (B)
.C
w
w
w

(C) (D)

26

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FEB - 33313/III
69. The structure of starting material A in the following photochemical Norrish
type reaction is :


A  →

om
(A) (B)

.c
BC
A
(C) (D)
ry
ist

70. Match the following photo-chemical reactions with their products :


m

(1) CH3CH2—CO—CHMe2 (a)


he

(2) (b)
.C
w
w

(3) (c)
w

(4) MeCH2CH2COMe (d)

(A) (1)—(a), (2)—(b), (3)—(c), (4)—(d)


(B) (1)—(c), (2)—(d), (3)—(a), (4)—(b)
(C) (1)—(c), (2)—(b), (3)—(d), (4)—(a)
(D) (1)—(b), (2)—(c), (3)—(d), (4)—(a)
27 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

71. Protection–deprotection and coupling between two amino acids components

are important steps in peptide synthesis. One of the following is not used

as a protecting group in the peptide synthesis. Identify which :

(A) Benzoyloxycarbonyl

om
(B) N, N’-dicyclohexylcarbodiimide (DCC)

.c
(C) 9-Flourenylmethoxycarbonyl (FMOC)
BC
A
ry

(D) tert-Butoxycarbonyl (BOC)


ist
m

72. The structure of the dipeptide Ala-Pro derived from the natural amino
he
.C

acids is :
w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

28

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FEB - 33313/III

73. The proton NMR of 2-bromo-2-methyl propane will show :

(A) Three quartets and a singlet

(B) Two doublets and a singlet

(C) Two singlets

om
(D) One singlet

.c
74. BC
The ratio of relative intensities of three molecular ion peaks of CH2Br2 in
A
the mass spectrum is :
ry
ist

(A) M+ : (M + 2)+ : (M + 4)+ = 1 : 4 : 1


m

M+ : (M + 2)+ : (M + 4)+ = 1 : 3 : 1
he

(B)
.C

(C) M+ : (M + 2)+ : (M + 4)+ = 1 : 2 : 1


w
w

(D) M+ : (M + 2)+ : (M + 4)+ = 1 : 1 : 1


w

75. The number of signals that appear in the PND spectrum of phenanthrene

and anthracene respectively are :

(A) Ten and four (B) Ten and ten

(C) Seven and four (D) Seven and seven

29 [P.T.O.

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FEB - 33313/III

ROUGH WORK

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

30

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Test Booklet No.


iz'uif=dk ÿ- F
Paper-II
CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

DEC - 33213 (To be filled by the Candidate)


Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

om
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr fygkok-

.c
1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-

3.
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
2.
BC
lnj iz'uif=dsr 50 cgqi;kZ; iz'u vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukl nksu xq.k
vkgsr- ;k iz'uif=dsrhy loZ iz'u lksMfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs- lnjps iz'u
gs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgsr-
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
A
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5
follows : feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwu
ry

(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the igkO;kr-
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-
ist

a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.


(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s-
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs
rlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrkˇwu igkoh-
m

cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/


questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discrepancy should not be
i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpk
ÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk
he

accepted and correct booklet should be obtained


from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljh
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be iz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu
.C

replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same


may please be noted.
feˇ.kkj ukgh rlsp osˇgh ok<owu feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;k
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number fo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh-
w

should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii) ojhyiz e k.ks loZ iMrkˇw u ifgY;kua r jp iz ' uif=ds o j
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
w

the correct response against each item. 4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh
Example : where (C) is the correct response. vkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks
w

dkˇk@fuˇk djkok-
A B D
mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. brj fBdk.kh fyghysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr-
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vksˇ[k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.k
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. dsyys h vk<ˇwu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pk
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end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zo{s kdkadMs
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to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
f}rh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs-
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DEC - 33213/II
Chemical Sciences
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question
carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Which of the folloiwng is not a Lewis 3. For the concentration cell


Ag|Ag+ (aq., 0.01 mol dm–3) || Ag+

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base ?
(aq, 0.1 mol dm–3)|Ag
the EMF of the cell, E at a

.c
(A) CN–
BC
temperature T equals :

(B) C2H5OH RT
A
(A) 2.303
F
ry

RT
ist

(C) AlCl3
(B) − 2.303
F
m

(D) (CH3)3N 0 RT
(C) EAg+ , Ag + 2.303
he

F
.C

2. The bond orders of the O2 , O2+ and 0 RT


(D) EAg+ , Ag − 2.303
w

F
O−2 are respectively :
w

4. The pH of a 1.0 × 10–3 mol dm–3


w

solution of a weak acid HA is


(A) 2.5, 2.0, 1.5
4.0. The dissociation constant of the
acid is :
(B) 2.0, 2.5, 1.5
(A) 1.0 × 10–3

(C) 2.0, 1.5, 2.5 (B) 1.0 × 10–4


(C) 1.0 × 10–5
(D) 2.0, 2.5, 2.5 (D) 2.0 × 10–5

3 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33213/II

5. The point groups of 1, 2-dichloro- 8. Which of the following molecules


benzene, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene does not possess a centre of
symmetry ?
and 1, 4-dichlorobenzene are
respectively : (A) trans-dichloroethene
(B) naphthalene
(A) C2V, C2V, D2h
(C) eclipsed ethane
(B) D2h, D2h, C2V
(D) staggered ethane
(C) C2h, C2h, D2h
9. An ideal gas in a thermally

om
(D) C2V, D2h, C2V insulated vessel expands, quickly
against vacuum. For this

.c
6. The term symbol for a particular
process :
state of an atom is 3D3. The values
of L, S and J for this term are
BC
(A) the temperature remains
A
constant
respectively :
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(B) a finite, non-zero amount of work


(A) 3, 1, 3
ist

is done by the gas


m

(B) 2, 1, 3 (C) heat flows into the gas


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(C) 2, 0, 3 (D) intermolecular interactions


decrease upon expansion
.C

(D) 3, 2, 3
10. Standard enthalpies of formation
w

7. Given that the standard potentials


(in kJ mol–1) of four compounds
w

of the Cu2+/Cu and Cu+/Cu couples A, B, C and D are – 200, – 50,


w

are + 0.340 V and 0.522 V + 10 and – 100 respectively. For the


respectively, the standard potential reaction : A + 2C = 3B + 4D. The
of Cu2+/Cu+ couple is : standard enthalpy of reaction, in
kJ mol–1, is :
(A) 0.182 V
(A) 40
(B) 0.862 V
(B) 0
(C) + 0.158 V (C) –340
(D) – 0.158 V (D) –370

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11. The efficiency of a reversible heat


13. The reaction A + B → P is first
engine, operating between absolute

temperatures of T1 and T2 (where


order with respect to each of
T2 < T1) is :

T1 the two reactants. a 0 , b 0 are


(A) 1 + T
2

T1

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the initial concentrations of A and
(B) 1 − T
2

.c
T2 B, respectively. x is the
(C) 1 −
T1 BC
A
T2 concentration of P at time t. The
(D) 1 + T
ry

1
ist

12. The osmotic pressure (π) of a solution appropriate rate equation for this
m

of a polymer with molecular weight


he

of M is recorded at different reaction is :


.C

concentrations (C, in gl–1) of the


 b (a − x) 
w

1
polymer and at different absolute (A) k = ln  0 0 
t(a0 − b0 )  a0 (b0 − x) 
w

temperatures (T). The plot of π/C


w

1  b0 (a0 − x) 
against T is a straight line, in (B) k = t(2a − b ) ln  a (b − x) 
0 0  0 0 
which :

(A) The intercept is R/M 1  b0 (a0 − x) 


(C) k = t(2a − b ) ln  a (b − x) 
0 0  0 0 
(B) The intercept is M/R

(C) The slope is M/R 1  b0 (a0 − x) 


(D) k = t ln  a (b − x) 
 0 0 
(D) The slope is R/M

5 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33213/II
14. k is the rate constant of a reaction
15. A catalyst lowers the energy of
and T is the absolute temperature.
the :
The correct plot among the following
is : (A) reactant

(B) product

(A) ln k (C) transition state

(D) intermediate

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16. A solid, MX, is formed of a metal ion
T
M + and a halide ion X – . The

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BC
following data are available :
(B) k
A
Process ∆
∆H/kJ mol –1
ry

Decomposition of MX(g) + 500


ist
m

Ionization of M(g) + 400


1/T
he

Sublimation of M(s) + 100


.C

1
ln k Dissociation of X2(g) + 150
2
w

(C)
Electron attachment to X(g) – 400
w
w

The lattice energy for MX


1/T (in kJ mol–1) is :

(A) 1150

(D) k (B) 750

(C) –1150

(D) –750
T
6

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DEC - 33213/II

32. Identify the compound that displays 34. The acidic character in the following
the following signals in the 1H-NMR hydroxides of trivalent cations
spectrum : δ 1.21 (t, 3H), 2.2 (s, 3H), changes as :
3.6 (q, 3H), 4.2 (s, 2H) : (A) Al(OH)3 > B(OH)3 > Tl(OH)3 >
Fe(OH)3
O (B) B(OH)3 > Tl(OH)3 > Al(OH)3 >
|| O
(A) Fe(OH)3
H 3C CH2 CH2CH3

om
(C) Tl(OH)3 > Fe(OH)3 > Al(OH)3
> B(OH)3

.c
(D) B(OH)3 > Al(OH)3 > Fe(OH)3 >
(B) BC Tl(OH)3 >
A
35. According to VSEPR theory, the
ry

shape of XeOF4 is predicted to


ist

be :
m

(C) (A) Octahedral


he

(B) Trigonal bipyramidal


.C

(C) Square pyramidal


w

(D)
(D) distorted octahedral
w
w

36. The spin moment of a system


can be calculated using the
33. Which of the following molecules expression :
has the highest bond order ?
(A) [S(S + 1)]1/2
(A) CO
(B) NO (B) [2S(S + 2)]1/2

(C) O2 (C) [4S(S + 1)]1/2

(D) Cl 2 (D) [n(n + 1)]1/2

12

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DEC - 33213/II

37. Which of the following complex ions 40. The complex ion with CFSE equal
to – 12 Dq is :
has magnetic moment value same
(A) [Fe(CN)6]4–
as [Ti(H2O)6]3+ ?
(B) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(A) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(D) [Co(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Co(NH3)6]2+ 41. Which of the following is ESR

om
active ?
(D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(A) [Fe(CN)6]4–

.c
38. Which of the following is a

Mossbauer active nucleus ?


BC
(B) [Co(CN)6]3–
A
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2–
ry

(A) 2D
(D) [Cu(CN)4]2–
ist

(B) 12 C 42. The term symbol for the ground state


m

in V2+ ion is :
(C) 78Se
he

(A) 4D3/2
(D) 119Sn
.C

(B) 3F 9/2
w

39. Which of the following orbitals is


(C) 4F 3/2
w

most destabilized in trigonal


(D) 4D9/2
w

bipyramidal geometry ?
43. The hybridization involved in TiCl4
(A) dxz is :

(A) sp3
(B) dxy
(B) dsp2
(C) dx 2 – y2
(C) sd3
(D) dz2
(D) sp3d

13 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33213/II

44. The total number of isomers 47. The oxidation of oxalate with
possessed by trans- permanganate in basic solution
Na3[Co(OX)2Cl(SCN)] is : involves the change in oxidation

(A) 1 state of manganese from :


(A) Mn7+ to Mn2+
(B) 2
(B) Mn7+ to Mn4+
(C) 3
(C) Mn4+ to Mn2+
(D) 4 (D) Mn4+ to Mn0

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45. Which of the following molecules 48. Fe+ and NO+ can be classified,

.c
has a Cn axis and n number of C2 respectively, as :
axes ? BC
(A) soft acid and soft base
(B) hard acid and hard base
A
(A) SO2Cl2
ry

(C) soft acid and hard base


(B) B(OH)3
ist

(D) hard acid and soft base


(C) NH3
m

49. Which of the following can act as an


(D) PCl3
he

oxidizing agent ?
46. The colour change of a pH indicator (A) [Mn(η5—C5H5)2]
.C

used for a volumetric experiment (B) [Fe(η5—C5H5)2]


w

requires an overtitration of 0.03 ml. (C) [Co(η5—C5H5)2]


w

If the required volume of titrant is (D) [Fe(η5—C5H5)(CO)3]


w

25.0 ml, the percent relative error 50. Which of the following carbonyl
in the measurement will be : clusters should possess bridging
(A) + 0.12% carbonyls ?

(B) + 0.06% (A) [Os3(CO)12]


(B) [Co4(CO)12]
(C) + 0.03%
(C) [Ir4(CO)12]
(D) – 0.03%
(D) [Os4(CO)16]

14

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ROUGH WORK

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A
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15 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33213/II

ROUGH WORK

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A
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16

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DEC - 33313/III

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DEC - 33313/III

Chemical Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This Paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions, each
question carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The Bromination of phenol to form tribromophenol :

Phenol(aq.) + 3Br(aq.) → 3HBr(aq.) + 3-bromophenol(aq.)

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Change in standard free energy of the system (∆G0) is given as :

.c
1 0 1
(A) ∆G 0 =
3 2 6 5 3
BC
µBr + µ0C H OH − µ0HBr − µ0TBP
A
1 0 1
ry

(B) ∆G 0 = µHBr + µ0TBP − µ0Br − µ0C H OH


3 3 2 6 5
ist

(C) ∆G 0 = 3µ0Br + µ0C − 3µ0HBr − µ0TBP


6H5OH
m

2
he

(D) ∆G 0 = 3µ0HBr + µ0TBP − 3µ0Br − µ0C


2 6H5OH
.C

2. Consider the equation below :


w


AgCl(s) + 2NH3(aq.) ←→ Ag(NH ) +(aq.) + Cl–(aq.)

w

3 2
w

Increase in Cl– concentration causes equilibrium concentration to change

favoring :

(A) the formation of Ag(NH3)2+(aq.)

(B) a decrease in NH3(aq.) concentration

(C) the formation of AgCl(s)

(D) the decrease in amount of AgCl(s)

3 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

6. For the reaction given below, the relaxation time (τ) is found to be 10–9 s.

If 10% of cis-dichloroethene remains at equilibrium, then the value of

k1(s–1) is :

Cl
Cl Cl
Cl

(A) –9 × 10–8 (B) 10–8

om
(C) 10 8 (D) 9 × 10–8

.c
7. The following are the comparison between bimolecular rate constants predicated
BC
from Collision Theory (CT) and the corresponding experimental values, for
A
the various gaseous phase reactions :
ry
ist

k(Expt.), k(Collision Theory),


k1

← →


m

k
−1 L mol–1 s–1 L mol–1 s–1
he

2NaCl → 2Na + 2Cl 9.4 × 109 5.9 × 1010


.C

2ClO → Cl2 + O2 6.3 × 107 2.5 × 1010


w

1.24 × 106 7.3 × 1011


w

H2 + C2H4 → C2H6
w

These results suggest that CT over-estimates the rate constants. This limitation

of CT is due to :

(A) favorable orientation is needed to be considered for the successful reaction

(B) experimental errors in the measurements

(C) activation energy is involved in the reaction

(D) molecules are assumed as hard sphere

5 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

8. Which of the answers below is the correct short hand representation for the
galvanic cell having the following over all reaction ?

2Fe3+(aq.) + 3Ni(s) ←→ 2Fe(s) + 3Ni2+(aq.)

(A) Fe3+(aq.)|Fe(s) || Ni(s)|Ni2+(aq.)

(B) Fe3+(aq.)|Ni(s) || Fe(s)|Ni2+(aq.)

(C) Ni(s)|Ni2+(aq.) || Fe(s)|Fe3+(aq.)

(D) Ni(s)|Ni2+(aq.) || Fe3+(aq.)|Fe(s)

om
9. What would happen to the state of a substance represented by this phase

.c
diagram, if the pressure changed from Point ‘A’ to Point ‘B’ (holding temperature
constant) ? BC
A
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(A) Melting (B) Deposition


(C) Sublimation (D) Freezing
6

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10. What will be the number of possible arrangements for a hypothetical system
consisting of 5 molecules and 2 quanta ?

(A) 21 (B) 3

(C) 15 (D) 2

11. Nylon is not a :

(A) Co-polymer (B) Condensation polymer

(C) Polyamine (D) Homopolymer

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12. A liquid does not wet the surface of a solid if the angle of contact is :

.c
(A) Zero (B) 90°

(C) 30°
BC
(D) 120°
A
13. Radioactive disintegration differs from a chemical change in being :
ry
ist

(A) A unimolecular first order reaction


m

(B) A spontaneous process


he

(C) A bimolecular process


.C

(D) A nuclear process


w

14. Predict the value for the standard constant volume heat capacity (C°v ) of a
w

closed shell heteronuclear diatomic molecule at high temperature :


w

5 7
(A) R (B) R
2 2

3 9
(C) R (D) R
2 2
15. The radio carbon dating method was developed by :

(A) A. Yukawa (B) J.J. Thomson

(C) Willard Libby (D) Enrico Fermi

7 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

20. The molecular orbitals of 1, 3-butadiene (not in proper order) are given
below :
(f1, f2, f3, f4 are the 2pz orbitals on carbon atoms.)
ψ1 = 0.372f1 – 0.602f2 + 0.602f3 – 0.372f4
ψ2 = 0.602f1 + 0.372f2 – 0.372f3 – 0.602f4
ψ3 = 0.372f1 + 0.602f2 + 0.602f3 + 0.372f4
ψ4 = 0.602f1 – 0.372f2 – 0.372f3 + 0.602f4

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The correct order of the orbitals with increasing energy is :
ψ1 < ψ2 < ψ3 < ψ4 ψ3 < ψ2 < ψ4 < ψ1

.c
(A) (B)
(C) ψ3 < ψ4 < ψ1 < ψ2 BC
(D) ψ4 < ψ3 < ψ2 < ψ1
A
21. The infrared spectrum of a diatomic molecule exhibits transitions at
ry

2143.0 cm–1 and 4260.0 cm–1 corresponding to excitations from the ground
ist

state to first and second vibrational states respectively. The value of the
fundamental frequency, ω e (cm–1) for the molecule is :
m
he

(A) 2156 (B) 2169

(C) 2182 (D) 2195


.C
w

22. The ratio of the translational partition functions of D2 and H2 at the same
w

temperature and pressure is :


w

(A) 1.59 (B) 2.83

(C) 2.00 (D) 0.35

23. The Td point group has 24 elements and 5 classes. Given that it has two
three-dimensional irreducible representations, the number of one-dimensional
irreducible representations is :

(A) 1 (B) 6

(C) 2 (D) 3

9 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

24. In which of the following will the energy level separation be maximum ?

(A) A 13C nucleus in a 400 MHz NMR instrument

(B) A 95Mo nucleus in a 600 MHz NMR instrument

(C) A 31P nucleus in a 600 MHz NMR instrument

(D) An unpaired electron in a magnetic field of 0.33 T

25. The 129I Mössbauer spectral data for the compounds I2Cl6 and I2Br2Cl4 are

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given below :

.c
Compound Isomer Shift Quadrupole Splitting

(mm/s)
BC (MHz)
A
I2Cl 6 3.50 3060
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ist

I2Br2Cl4 2.82 2920


m

3.49 3055
he

The structure of I2Br2Cl4 can be represented as :


.C
w

(A) (B)
w
w

(C) (D)

26. When a KCl crystal is strongly heated, it loses some chlorine. The resulting
structure then has :

(A) F centers (B) Schottky defects

(C) Frenkel defects (D) Metal deficiency defects


10

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27. PbTiO3 and YBa2Cu3O7 both are having :

(A) Semiconducting property

(B) Superconducting property

(C) Piezoelectric property

(D) Common structural features


2+
28. Magnetic measurements indicate that Co (H 2O)6  has 3 unpaired electrons.

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2+
Therefore, the hybridization of the metal orbitals in Co (H 2O)  is :
 6

.c
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3d2

(C) dsp2
BC
(D) sp2d
A
29. Which of the statements is false ?
ry
ist

(A) In an octahedral crystal field, the electrons fill the eg level first, followed
m

by t2g level.
he

(B) Diamagnetic metal ions cannot have an odd number of electrons.


.C

(C) Low-spin complexes can be paramagnetic.


w

(D) In high-spin octahedral complexes ∆oct is less than the electron pairing
w
w

energy, and is relatively every small.

3+
30. The complex  Ti (H 2O)  shows an absorption band at 20,000 cm–1. Therefore,
 6

the CFSE of this complex is :

(A) 8,000 cm–1 (B) 12,000 cm–1

(C) –8,000 cm–1 (D) –12,000 cm–1

11 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III
31. The first excited state configuration of low-spin octahedral d4 system is :
(A) 2E (B) 5T
g 2g
(C) 5E (D) 3T
g 2g
32. Coordinated water molecules of Cd(11) complex can be successively replaced
2−
by Br– finally to result in CdBr4  . In this process, the fourth equilibrium
constant (K4) is observed to be higher than the third one, because :
(A) Equilibrium constant for the last step is always the highest
(B) Three molecules of H2O are released during the fourth step
(C) The aqua Cd2+ complex is octahedral

om
(D) A Br– anion replaces a neutral (H2O) molecule from the coordination
sphere

.c
33. The reaction :
2+ 2+
BC 2+ 2+
Co (H O) Cl  + Cr (H 2O)6  → Co (H 2O)6  + Cr (H 2O)5 Cl 
A
 2 5 
ry

is an example of :
ist

(A) isomerization
(B) nucleophilic substitution
m

(C) inner-sphere electron transfer


he

(D) outer-sphere electron transfer


.C

34. Reducing ability of the oxyanions of sulphur change as :


w

(A) S2O32− > SO32− > S2O82− (B) SO32− > S2O82− > S2O32−
w

(C) SO32− > S2O32− > S2O82− (D) S2O82− > S2O32− > SO32−
w

35. Match the following class of boranes with their examples :


(a) closo (i) B8H14
(b) nido (ii) (B10H10)2–
(c) arachno (iii) B9H13
(A) (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii)
(B) (a)—(i), (b)—(iii), (c)—(ii)
(C) (a)—(ii), (b)—(i), (c)—(iii)
(D) (a)—(ii), (b)—(iii), (c)—(i)

12

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DEC - 33313/III

36. The molecule BrF5, interconverts between :

(A) trigonal-bipyramidal and tetrahedral structure

(B) square pyramidal and pentagonal structure

(C) trigonal-bipyramidal and square planar structure

(D) square pyramidal and trigonal-bipyramidal structure

om
37. Among the following statements :

.c
2n−
(a) Sheet silicates have general formula Si2O5  n
BC
(b) ZrSiO4 is an example for orthosilicate
A
ry

(c) Si2O76− is a cyclosilicate


ist

(d) BaTiSi3O9 is a pyrosilicate


m
he

(A) Only (a) is correct (B) (a), (c) are correct


.C

(C) (a), (b) are correct (D) (b), (c) are correct
w
w

38. The type of hybridisation of carbon atoms in graphene sheets is :


w

(A) only sp2 (B) sp2 and sp3

(C) only sp3 (D) sp and sp2

39. Which of the following ligands will form a stable complex with Ln3+ ions ?

(A) H2O (B) CO

(C) C2 H 4 (D) PPh3

13 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

40. The ligand field bands of lanthanide complexes are generally sharper than
those of transition metal complexes because :

(A) The corresponding transitions are allowed

(B) The bands are more intense

(C) f-orbitals have higher energy than d-orbitals

(D) The interaction of ligands with f-orbitals is less effective than with

om
d-orbitals

41. The reaction of an alkylbromide with IrCl (CO) (PMe3 )2  is :

.c
(A) oxidative addition BC
(B) substitution

(C) alkylation (D) halogenation


A
ry

42. M4 carbonyl clusters A and B have CVE count of 60 and 62, respectively.
ist

Therefore the cluster geometrices should be, respectively :


m

(A) square planar and tetrahedral


he

(B) tetrahedral and butterfly


.C

(C) square planar and butterfly


w
w

(D) tetrahedral and square planar


w

43. The correct order νCO in the given compounds is :

(A)  ( ) 2  (  2 ) (
 Rh η5 —C5H5 (CO)  <  Rh η5 —C5 F5  (CO) <  Rh η5 —C5 Me5 (CO) 
2 )
(B)  ( )2  ( 2  )
 Rh η5 —C5Me5 (CO)  <  Rh η5 —C5H5 (CO)  <  Rh η5 —C5F5 (CO) 
2 ( )
(C)  ( ) 2  ( 2 ) (
 Rh η5 —C5F5 (CO)  <  Rh η5 —C5 H5 (CO)  < Rh η5 —C5 Me5 (CO) 
2 )
(D) ( ) ( ) (
 Rh η5 —C5F5 (CO)  <  Rh η5 —C5 Me5 (CO) <  Rh η5 —C5H5 (CO) 
 2    2 )
14

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DEC - 33313/III

44. In oxyhaemoglobin, the iron centre is best described as :

(A) high-spin Fe(III) (B) high-spin Fe(II)

(C) low-spin Fe(III) (D) low-spin Fe(II)

45. Iron is stored in the body as :

(A) transferrin (B) haemoglobin

(C) ferritin (D) siderophore

om
46. In zinc enzymes binding of water to zinc ion induces :

.c
(A) formation of hydronium ion

(B) conformational change in the binding site BC


A
(C) ionization of a histidine residue
ry

(D) formation of a zinc bound hydroxide ion


ist

47. Identify the correct response given in column 2 to analyte concentration


m

measured in the following electroanalytical techniques given in column 1 :


he

Column 1 Column 2
.C
w

(a) Coulometry (i) Cathodic current


w

(b) Polarography (ii) Coulombs


w

(c) Voltammetry (iii) Conductivity

(d) Conductometry (iv) Cathodic or anodic current

(A) (a)—(i), (b)—(ii), (c)—(iii), (d)—(iv)

(B) (a)—(ii), (b)—(i), (c)—(iv), (d)—(iii)

(C) (a)—(iv), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iii)

(D) (a)—(ii), (b)—(iv), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iii)

15 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

48. The amount of  Al2 (SO4 )3  ·18H2O(MW = 662.42) required to prepare a litre

of 1 M Al solution is :

(A) 331.21 g (B) 662.42 g

(C) 33.121 g (D) 66.42 g

49. Which of the following molecules contains the highest % of sulphur by

om
mass ?

.c
(A) Na2SO4 (B) Li2SO4

(C) H2SO4 (D)


BC PbSO4
A
ry

50. On a 20 cm column, the retention times tR of A and B are 16.40 and


ist

17.63 minutes, respectively. The peak width at base lines for A and B are
m

1.15 and 1.31 minutes, respectively. The column resolution RS is :


he

(A) 0.10 (B) 0.50


.C
w

(C) 1.00 (D) 1.50


w

51. A 10 mg sample containing CaCO 3 and α-Al 2 O 3 was analysed by


w

thermogravimetry between 30—800°C. A weight loss of 2.2 mg was observed.

The % CaCO3 in the mixture is ................................... .

(Given : M.W. CaCO3 = 100.0)

(A) 50% (B) 45%

(C) 55% (D) 75%

16

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DEC - 33313/III

52. The extraction of uranyl (VI) ion (UO2)2+ from an aqueous solution in

concentrated HCl using ether as solvent is an example of :

(A) neutral metal-chelate extraction

(B) ion-pair association

(C) supercritical fluid extraction

om
(D) fractional extraction

.c
53. BC
Which of the following is not a criteria for aromaticity ?
A
(A) Presence of (4n + 2) delocalizable electrons
ry
ist

(B) Diamagnetic character


m

(C) Strong shielding-de-shielding pattern as a result of induced ring current


he
.C

(D) Paramagnetic character


w

54. Which of the following statements is correct regarding fullerene C60 ?


w
w

(A) 12,500 Resonating structures are possible for C60

(B) Fullerene C60 is a super aromatic compound

(C) Unsubstituted fullerene C60 can be acylated using Friedel-Crafts

acylation

(D) Fullerene C60 is susceptible to attack by nucleophilic reagents

17 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

55. Predict the stereochemical outcome of the following reaction :

om
.c
(A)
BC
A
ry
ist
m

(B)
he
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

18

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DEC - 33313/III
56. Study the following reaction sequence, predict the structure of X and choose
the correct description for the same :

om
(A) Both the steps are non-stereoselective and X is

.c
BC
A
ry
ist

(B) Both the steps are enantiostereoselective and X is


m
he
.C
w
w

(C) The first step is diastereoselective as well as


w

enantioselective and X is

(D) Both the steps are diastereoselective as well as


enantioselective and X is

19 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

57. 2-Bromocyclohexanone on reaction with methoxide gives methyl ester of

cyclopentane carboxylic acid. Give the name of the reaction and the key

intermediate involved in this reaction :

(A) Favorskii rearrangement with a derivative of cyclopropanone

intermediate.

om
(B) Favorskii rearrangement with a carbocation as an intermediate.

.c
(C) BC
Benzyllic acid rearrangement with carbocation as an intermediate.
A
(D) Baeyer-Villiger reaction with carbocation as an intermediate.
ry
ist

58. Study the following chemical transformation :


m
he
.C
w
w
w

The correct reagents for the above reaction are :

(A) t-BuOOH, Ti(O-i-Pr)4, (–)-DET

(B) t-BuOOH, Ti(O-i-Pr)4, (+)-DET

(C) H2O2

(D) MCPBA
20

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DEC - 33313/III

59. Hammett plot for hydrolysis of ethyl benzoates in 99.9% H2SO4, has two

separate reaction constants, ρ = –3.25 and ρ = 2.0, for electron donating groups

(EDG) and electron withdrawing groups (EWG) respectively.

Which of the following statements correctly summarizes the above

om
.c
observation ?
BC
A
(A) For EDG, reaction proceeds by AAC1 and for EWG, reaction proceeds
ry
ist

by AAC2 mechanism
m
he

(B) For EDG, reaction proceeds by AAC1 and for EWG, reaction proceeds
.C

by AAL1 mechanism
w
w
w

(C) For EDG, reaction proceeds by AAC1 and for EWG, reaction proceeds

by AAC1 mechanism

(D) For EDG, reaction proceeds by AAL1 and for EWG, reaction proceeds

by AAC1 mechanism

21 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

60. The following are some of the processes used for studying reaction mechanism.

Match them with their specific applications :

(M) Primary Kinetic isotope effect (1) Largely gives information about

RDS

om
(N) Cross-over experiments (2) Detection of non-isolable sus-

pected intermediate

.c
(O) Trapping of intermediates (3)
BC
Helps in distinguishing between
A
ry

intramolecular and intermole-


ist

cular mechanisms
m
he

(P) Kinetic studies (4) Helps to find out whether a


.C

particular bond is cleaved in


w
w

the RDS
w

(A) (M)—(1), (N)—(2), (O)—(3), (P)—(4)

(B) (M)—(2), (N)—(4), (O)—(1), (P)—(3)

(C) (M)—(4), (N)—(3), (O)—(2), (P)—(1)

(D) (M)—(3), (N)—(2), (O)—(1), (P)—(4)

22

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DEC - 33313/III

61. Study the following reaction and identify the process involved :

om
.c
(A) Thermal 6 pi electron electrocyclic reaction

(B)
BC
Photochemical 6 pi electron electrocyclic reaction
A
ry

(C) (4 pi + 2 pi) electron photochemical cycloaddition reaction


ist

(D) (4 pi + 2 pi) electron thermal cycloaddition reaction


m

62. Study the following reaction and identify the processes involved :
he
.C
w
w
w

(A) Claisen rearrangement followed by keto-enol tautomerism

(B) [3, 3] Sigmatropic rearrangement followed by [1, 5]-H-shift

(C) [3, 3] Sigmatropic rearrangement followed by keto-enol tautomerism

(D) [1, 3] Sigmatropic rearrangement followed by keto-enol tautomerism

23 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

63. In Fischer-indole synthesis of 2-phenylindole, starting materials used are :

(A) Phenyl hydrazine and acetophenone

(B) Phenyl hydrazine and benzaldehyde

(C) Phenyl hydrazine and acetone

(D) Phenyl hydrazine and acetaldehyde

64. Match the structures in List I with their correct names in List II :

om
List I List II

.c
(L) (1) BC
5-hydroxybenzothiazole
A
ry
ist

(M) (2) 2-amino pyridine


m
he
.C

(N) (3) 2-methyl furan


w
w
w

(O) (4) 2-amino piperidine

(A) (L)—(1), (M)—(2), (N)—(3), (O)—(4)

(B) (L)—(3), (M)—(2), (N)—(4), (O)—(1)

(C) (L)—(3), (M)—(2), (N)—(1), (O)—(4)

(D) (L)—(2), (M)—(3), (N)—(4), (O)—(1)

24

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DEC - 33313/III
65. Lithium isopropylamide (LDA) is a :
(A) Conjugate base of diisopropylamine which is strongly basic and bulky.
(B) Conjugate base of diisopropylamine which is weakly basic and bulky.
(C) Conjugate acid of diisopropylamine which is strongly basic and bulky.
(D) Conjugate base of diisopropylamine which is strongly basic and small
in size.
66. The products formed as X and Y respectively in the following reactions
are :

om
.c
(A) BC
A
ry
ist
m

(B)
he
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

25 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III
67. Dehydrocholesterol is present in the tissues of the skin, where it is transformed
to vitamin D3 by a sun-light induced photochemical reaction :

Choose the correct structure of vit. D3 :

om
.c
(A)
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he

(B)
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

26

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DEC - 33313/III

68. Which of the following structures is the correct representation of

β-D-glucopyranose ?

(A)

om
.c
BC
A
ry

(B)
ist
m
he
.C
w
w

(C)
w

(D)

27 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

69. The correct stereochemical structure of the tetrapeptide, Try-Gly-Gly-Phe,

derived from the natural amino acids is :

(A)

om
.c
BC
A
ry

(B)
ist
m
he
.C
w
w

(C)
w

(D)

28

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DEC - 33313/III

70. The following rearrangement occurs when 2, 5-cyclohexadienone [X] is

irradiated. The name of the rearrangement is :

om
.c
(A) Barton rearrangement

(B) Photo Fries rearrangement


BC
A
ry

(C) Dienone-phenol rearrangement


ist

(D) Di-pi-methane rearrangement


m

71. The following photochemical reaction is :


he
.C
w
w
w

(A) Norrish type I reaction (B) Photochemical reduction

(C) Paterno-Buchi reaction (D) Norrish type II reaction

29 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

72. Chymotrypsin preferentially cleaves the carbon side of the peptide bond of :

(A) Methionine (B) Proline

(C) Phenyl alanine (D) Alanine

Linked Problem Q. No. 73 and Q. No. 74 :

om
A ketone on treatment with bromine in methanol gives the corresponding

.c
BC
monobromo compound X having molecular formula C5H9BrO. The compound
A
ry

X when treated with NaOMe in MeOH produces Y as the major product. The
ist

spectral data for the compound X are 1H NMR δ 1.17(d, 6H), 3.02(m, 1H),
m
he

4.10(s, 2H); 13C NMR δ 17, 37, 39, 210.


.C

73. The compound [X] is :


w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

30

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DEC - 33313/III

74. The major product Y is :

(A) (B)

om
(C) (D)

.c
75.
BC
Compound X and Y exhibit two singlets each in 1H NMR. The expected chemical
A
shifts are at δ :
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

(A) 6.9 and 2.1 for X, 7.7 and 3.9 for Y

(B) 6.9 and 3.9 for X, 7.7 and 2.1 for Y

(C) 7.7 and 3.9 for X, 6.9 and 2.1 for Y

(D) 7.7 and 2.1 for X, 6.9 and 3.9 for Y

31 [P.T.O.

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DEC - 33313/III

ROUGH WORK

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
m
he
.C
w
w
w

32

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Test Booklet No.


F
CHEMICAL
CH SCIENCE
Signature
a r andn Name N e of Invigilator
n Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

AUG - 33215
3 2 5 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time
e Allowed : 1¼¼ Hours]
o s [Maximum u Marks
M : 1000

om
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20
20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
0
Instructions
u o for
f r thee Candidates
C
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

.c
1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question

BC
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are A
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
ry
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
ist

(ii) Tally
a the number
n be of pages and number m r of questions
qu i n
in thee booklet
o e with i the information
f r printed
n on
o thee (ii)
cover
ve page.
p Faulty
F l booklets
o l t due to missing
s n pages/
em

questions or questionss on repeated


e t or not in n serial
order
d or any
ny otherh discre
s e pancy
n should notno bee
accepted d and correct
r booklet
k should
ou d be obtained
from theh invigilator
v i r within
n thee period
i d off 5 minutes.
n
h

Afterwards,
te w d neither
n e thee Question n Booklet e willl be
replaced
pl d nor any y extra
e time
m will
w l be given.n The samee
.C

may pleasee be noted. e


(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
w

should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)


4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
w

the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Examplee : where (C) is the correct response.
w

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet
h e given n inside the Booklet le only.
y If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only
o l Blue/Black
B k Ball
B point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator
c a or log
o table,, etc.,
t , is pr
prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking g ffor incorrect aanswers.
r 12.

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AUG - 33215/II
3
ROUGH
H WORK
O K

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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AUG - 33215/II
3
Chemical Science
ie
Paperr III
Time
i Allowed
l w : 75
5 Minutes] [Maximum
Ma m Marks : 100 0
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50)
(5 multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Twoo (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding

is :

om
.c
(A) PH3 (B) NH3

BC
(C) BCl 3 A (D) SbH3
ry
2. Which of the following is a Lewis acid ?
ist
em

(A) Br– (B) Cl –


h

(C) S– (D) Ag+


.C
w

3. The strength of hydrogen bonds follow the order :


w
w

(A) ClH .... Cl > NH .... N > OH .... O > FH .... F

(B) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N < OH .... O < FH .... F

(C) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N > OH .... O > FH .... F

(D) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N < OH .... O > FH .... F

3 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33215/II
3

4. A student pipetted out five 25.00 ml samples of HCl solution, transferred


each sample to a conical flask, diluted them with distilled water and
titrated against NaOH solution, having phenolphthalein indicator. The
following burette reading were noted :
SET Burette reading (mL)

(I) 35.22

(II) 36.14

om
(III) 36.13
(IV) 36.15

.c
(V) 36.13

BC
Which of the probable explanation for the variations in the results ?
A
(A) The burette was not rinsed with the NaOH solution
ry
ist

(B) Student misread the first set reading

(C) A different amount of water was added to the first sample


em

(D) The pipette was not rinsed with HCl


h

5. Based on the VSEPR theory, the molecule IF5 has a shape of :


.C
w

(A) Trigonal bipyramid (B) Square pyramid


w

(C) Octahedral (D) Pentagonal bipyramid


w

6. A solution with pH = 2 is more acidic than one with pH = 6 by the factor


of :
(A) 4000 (B) 4

(C) 8000 (D) 10,000

7. The bond order for NO+ species is :


(A) 2 (B) 2.5

(C) 3 (D) 1.5


4

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AUG - 33215/II
3
8. Which of the following statements describes the following titration
curve ?

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

(A) A strong base is added to a strong acid

(B) A strong base is added to a weak acid


h
.C

(C) A strong acid is added to a strong base


w

(D) A strong acid is added to a weak base


w
w

9. A gas ‘Z’ is bubbled through a solution containing ‘X’ and ‘Y’. If the reduction
potentials are in the order of X > Y > Z, then :

(A) Y will oxidize X and Z

(B) Y will oxidize Z but not X

(C) Y will oxidize both X and Y

(D) Y will reduce both X and Z

5 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33215/II
3

10. The depression of freezing point for 1 M Urea, 1 M glucose and 1 M NaCl

are in the ratio :

(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 2

(C) 1 : 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 3

om
11. Consider the following three set of experiments :

.c
(I) (II) (III)

BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

Colorless solution changes to blue colored solution in :

(A) II (B) III

(C) I (D) I and III

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AUG - 33215/II
3

12. A graph of concentration of the product (x) as a function of time t for the

reaction A B is shown :

om
.c
BC
A
Then which of the following represents the
d A
Vs. time plot correctly ?
ry
dt
ist
em

d A d A
(A) (B)
h

dt dt
.C
w
w
w

d A d A
(C) (D)
dt dt

7 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33215/II
3

13. Consider the half cell reaction :

Mn O 4 8H + 5e Mn 2 4H 2 O; E 0 1.51 V

Mn O 2 4H + 2e Mn 2 2H 2 O; E 0 1.23 V

For the reaction

om
Mn O 4 4H + 3e Mn O 2 2H 2 O;

.c
E0 is :

BC
(A) 1.70 V
A (B) 5.09 V
ry
ist

(C) 0.27 V (D) 0.84 V


em

14. The point group symmetry of cis ML4X2 is :


h

(A) C 4v (B) D 4h
.C
w

(C) C 2h (D) C 2v
w

15. When acidic K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Na2S solution, green Cr3+ ions
w

and free S are formed. When same acidic K2Cr2O7 solution is added to NaCl

solution, no change is noted. Among the substances involved in these reactions

which one is the best reducing agent ?

(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) Na2S

(C) Cr3+ (D) S

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16. During the adiabatic process the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional

to the cube of its absolute temperature. The value of for the gas is :

3 7
(A) (B)
2 2

5 9
(C) (D)
3 7

om
.c
17. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is :

BC
A
ry
ist
h em

(A) (E) Pent-2-en-4-yne (B) (E) Pent-1-yne-3-ene


.C
w

(C) (E) Pent-4-yne-2-ene (D) (E) Pent-3-en-1-yne


w
w

18. The number of stereoisomers in (2S, 3R) tartaric acid are :

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) One (D) Four

9 [P.T.O.

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19. (2R, 3R)-D-Erythrose on oxidation with nitric acid gives tartaric acid. The
correct stereochemical structure of the product in this case is :

(A) (B)

om
.c
BC
(C)
A (D)
ry
ist

20. Consider the following compounds A, B and C.


h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) (B) (C)

The order of carbonyl stretching frequencies in the IR spectrum of the above


is :

(A) A < B < C (B) A > B > C

(C) C > B > A (D) A > C > B

10

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21. Consider the molecules I and II.

om
(I) (II)

.c
Which one of the following represents their correct configurational notation

in terms of Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system ?


BC
A
ry
(I) (II)
ist
em

(A) R S
h

(B) S E
.C
w

(C) R Z
w
w

(D) S Z

22. 2,2'-bis (diphenylphosphino)-1,1'-binaphthalene (BINAP) contains .................

stereogenic centers and is a .................... molecule.

(A) Zero, prochiral (B) Zero, chiral

(C) Zero, achiral (D) One, chiral

11 [P.T.O.

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23. The two compounds given below are :

om
(A) Diastereomers of each other

.c
BC
(B) Identical A
ry
(C) Enantiomers of each other
ist
em

(D) Regioisomers of each other


h

24. Diels-Alder reaction proceed via concerted cycloaddition [4 + 2] path, hence


.C
w

they exhibited :
w
w

(A) Regiospecificity

(B) Stereospecificity

(C) Regioselectivity

(D) Stereoselectivity

12

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3

25. Identify the X and Y reagents used in the following reaction :

+ (X) + (Y) Sh a kin g

om
(A) Alkali and CCl4 (B) Alkali and CHCl3

.c
(C) Alkali and CH2Cl2 (D) Alkali and CH3Cl

BC
26. Chlorobenzene substrate does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction
A
under NTP with base/nucleophile, because it possess :
ry
(A) (4n) delocalized electron cloud
ist
em

(B) Strong electronegative chlorine atom


h

(C) (4n + 2) delocalized electron cloud


.C

(D) Partial (C–Cl) double bond character


w
w

27. Identify the reacting compounds (X) and (Y) which on condensation forms the
w

following product :

St r on g Ba se
(X) + (Y) 1, 5-diphenylpentan-1,4-dien-3-one

(A) Acetone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(B) Acetaldehyde and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(C) Acetophenone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(D) Benzophenone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction


13 [P.T.O.

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28. Identify the mole ratio of the substrate and the reaction condition for the
formation of the following product :

Z = Con dit ion Dibenzalacetone

(x) (y)

om
(A) [x = 2 and y = 1] under z = acidic conditions

.c
(B) [x = 1 and y = 2] under z = acidic conditions

BC
(C) [x = 2 and y = 1] under z = basic conditions
A
ry
(D) [x = 1 and y = 2] under z = basic conditions
ist

29. Identify the product of reaction between diphenyl amine, sodium nitrite and
em

hydrochloric acid (C6H5)2 – NH + NaNO2 + HCl (X) product :

(A) X = (C6H5)2—N—N=O
h
.C

(B) X = (C6H5)2— N —C6H4N=O


w

|
H
w
w

(C) X = (C6H5)2—N O

(D) X = (C6H5)2—N—N—(C6H5)2

30. The spin multiplicity of singlet carbene and triplet nitrene are respectively :

(A) 0, 1 (B) 1, 0

(C) 1, 1 (D) 0, 0

14

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31. Predict the pair of product corresponding to path (x) and path (y) respectively
in the given transformations :

om
(A) and

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

(B) and
h
.C
w
w
w

(C) and

(D) and

15 [P.T.O.

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3

32. The chemical abbreviation of DDT is one of the following :

(A) p-dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane

(B) p-dichlorodiphenyl tetrachloroethane

(C) p-dichlorodiphenyl trichloropropane

(D) p-dichlorodiphenyl tetrachlorobutane

om
33. The commercially important ore of lead is :

.c
(A) Bauxite (B) Galena

(C) Haematite (D)


BC
Cinnabar
A
ry
34. Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by the electrolysis of their
ist

aqueous solution ?
em

(A) Iron (B) Lead


h
.C

(C) Silver (D) Sodium


w
w

35. Aluminothermic reaction is :


w

(A) Oxidation reaction (B) Reduction reaction

(C) Redox reaction (D) Neutralization reaction

36. The ionization potentials of the given elements/ions change in the order :

(A) Mg+ > Na > Mg2+ (B) Mg2+ > Mg+ > Na

(C) Na > Mg+ > Mg2+ (D) Mg2+ > Na > Mg+

16

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3

37. The geometry and shape of XeO3 is, respectively :

(A) triangular and trigonal pyramidal

(B) tetrahedral and trigonal pyramidal

(C) tetrahedral and triangular planar

(D) trigonal pyramidal and triangular

38. A polynuclear metal carbonyl which contains only one bridging carbonyl group

om
is :

(A) Fe2(CO)9 (B) Tc2(CO)10

.c
BC
(C) Os2(CO)9 (D) Fe3(CO)12

39.
A
The octahedral complexes are .......... times stabilized as compared to the
ry
tetrahedral complexes when all other parameters except the geometry are
ist

same.
em

4 2
(A) (B)
9 3
h

9
(C) 2 (D)
.C

4
w

40. The number of types of isomerism possible in [Rh(en)2 Cl(NO2)]Cl and the
w

number of isomers is, respectively :


w

(A) 3 and 6 (B) 3 and 9

(C) 4 and 9 (D) 4 and 12

41. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest (Halogen-S-Halogen)
bond angle ?

(A) SOF2 (B) SOCl2

(C) SOBr2 (D) SOI2


17 [P.T.O.

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42. Which of the following two are isostructural ?

(A) XeF2 and IF2 (B) NH3 and BF3

(C) CO 32 a nd SO 32 (D) PCl5 and ICl5

43. The acidic character of the given hydroxides increases in the order :

(A) B(OH)3 < Mg(OH)2 < Al(OH)3

om
(B) Mg(OH)2 < B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3

.c
(C) B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3 < Mg(OH)2

BC
(D) Mg(OH)2 < Al(OH)3 < B(OH)3 A
ry
44. Which of the following statements is false ?
ist

(A) The –1
C–O of free CO ligand is 2143 cm
em

(B) The C–O band in [Ti(CO)6]2– is higher in energy than those in free
h

CO
.C
w

(C) The 2+ is even higher in energy than those


C–O band in [Fe(CO)6]
w

in free CO
w

k
(D) In IR spectroscopy is proportional to

45. The electron paramagnetic resonance spectroscopy is well suited for

distinguishing between :

(A) Cu(I) and Ti(IV) complexes (B) Cu(I) and Zn(II) complexes

(C) Cu(I) and Cu(II) complexes (D) Cu(I) and Sc(III) complexes

18

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46. Precision of a set of replicate data is described by the term :

(A) Absolute error (B) Determinant error

(C) Percent relative error (D) Coefficient of variation

47. An analytical method for the determination of calcium in limestone was tested
by analysis of a NIST limestone containing 30.35% CaO. The mean result
of five determinations was 30.41% with a standard deviation of 0.098%. What
is the percent relative standard deviation ?

om
(A) 0.06 (B) 0.32

(C) 0.12 (D) 0.24

.c
48. The standard deviation in an analytical method for the determination of Pb

BC
in automotive exhaust was found to be 1.0 ppm. What is 90% confidence interval
A
(Z = 1.64) for four replicate analysis ?
ry
(A) ±0.041 (B) ±0.123
ist

(C) ±0.164 (D) ±0.082


em

49. Which one of the following properties is shown by normal error curve ?
h

(A) Zero deviation from the mean occurring with minimum frequency
.C

(B) Zero deviation from the mean occurring with maximum frequency
w

(C) Asymmetrical distribution of positive and negative deviations about


w

this maximum
w

(D) Exponential increase in frequency as the magnitude of deviations


increases

50. Chlorinated hydrocarbon in air sample was determined repeatedly for four
times. The standard deviation was found to be 0.04 ppm. What is the standard
error of mean ?

(A) 0.04 (B) 0.02

(C) 0.01 (D) 0.16


19 [P.T.O.

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3
ROUGH WORK
K

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

20

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Test Booklet No.


M
CHEMICAL
EM L SCIENCE
I C
Signature
S n e and d Name m of Invigilator a Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

AUG
A - 33315 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time
im Allowed : 2½ Hours] [[Maximum Marks : 150

om
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
75
Instructions
n t n for the Candidates
di
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

.c
1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question

BC
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are A
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
ry
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
ist

(ii) Tally the


t number off pagess and number u of questions
s
in the
th booklet
kl t with thee information o printed
i d on the
t (ii)
coverr page.. Faulty
au booklets
k s duee to t missing i pages/
g
em

questions
es o or questions
ti repeated
p a d or not in i serial
s i
o rder or any
a other
er discre
d c pancya c should ou not be
accepted
c and
n correct
c ec booklett should
h be obtained
o a e
from
r the invigilator
n within
w i the h period of 5 minutes.
i te
h

Afterwards,
r ar , neither the Question e ti Bookletl t willi be
replaced
e noro any
an extra
x a time
ti will
l be given. The same am
.C

may please be noted. d.


(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
w

should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)


4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
w

the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Examplepl : where (C) is the correct response.
w

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside
s the
th Booklet
Bo k t only.
o l . If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Usee only Blue/Black
e ac Ball point o pen.
pe . 10.
11. Use e off anyy calculator
al l o oor llog table, etc.,
etcc , is prohibited.
h te 11.
12. There
e iss no
o negative
e v marking
arr for incorrect
n e t answers.
w . 12.

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

Chemical Science
ie
Paper
pe IIII
Time
i Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum
Ma m Marks : 150
0
Note : This paper contains Seventy
S y Five
iv (75) multiple choice questions, each
Tw (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
question carrying Two

1. The contribution of rotation to heat capacity is :

om
(A) R (B)
2

.c
3R
(C) 2R (D)

BC
2
2. The following Lineweaver-Burk plot is for :
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) uncompetitive inhibition

(B) competitive inhibition

(C) non-competitive inhibition

(D) mega-competitive inhibition


3 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

P
3. The quantity lim equals to :
T 0 T V

(A) 1 (B) 1/2

(C) 0 (D) 2

4. The symmetric deformation ( 2) vibration in NO 3 anion is :

(A) IR active, Raman inactive

(B) Raman active, IR inactive

om
(C) Active in the IR and Raman

.c
(D) Neither observed in IR nor in Raman

BC
5. For the reaction :
A
Br O 3 a q. 5Br a q. 6H a q. 3Br 2 l 2H 2 O l
ry
the following initial rate laws were obtained :
ist

S et B rO 3 Br H R0
em

0 0 0

1 0.10M 0.10M 0.10M 1


h

2 0.20M 0.10M 0.10M 2


.C
w

3 0.20M 0.20M 0.10M 4


w

4 0.10M 0.10M 0.20M 4


w

Which of the following rate laws is correct ?


2 1
(A) R = K BrO 3 Br H
1 2
(B) R = K BrO 3 Br H
2 1 1
(C) R = K Br O 3 Br H
1 5 6
(D) R = K BrO 3 Br H

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3 I

6. The term symbol of Ni2+ ion representing its lowest energy state is :

(A) 3F (B) 3P

(C) 1S (D) 1G

7. For the first order consecutive reaction :

om
k1 k2
A B C

.c
BC
Rate of change of concentration of [B] with time can be expressed as :
A
ry
d B
(A) k1 A k2 B
dt
ist

d B
em

(B) k1 A k2 B
dt
h

d B k1 t
(C) k1 A e k2 B
.C

dt 0
w

d B k2 t
(D) k1 A e k2 B
w

dt 0
w

2
19
8. The degeneracy of the energy level that corresponds to energy of
m a

a particle in a cubic box of length ‘a’ is :

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 9 (D) 1

5 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

9. The reaction between O and O2 is found to be third order. The possible units

for the rate constant is :

(A) cm6 mol–2 s–1 (B) cm–3 mol–1 s–1

(C) (L/molecule)2 s–2 (D) (L/molecule)2 s

om
10. The rotational constant of CO molecule is 1.8 cm–1. The wave number of incident

.c
radiation in a Raman spectrophotometer is 20487 cm –1. What is the wave

BC
number of second Stokes line ?
A
ry

20505 cm–1 20479 cm–1


ist

(A) (B)
em

(C) 20469 cm–1 (D) None of these


h
.C

11. Consider the following cells :


w
w

Pt/H2(g)/HCl(aq.)/Hg2Cl2(s)/Hg(l)
w

The EMF at 293 K and 303 K were found to be +0.2699 V and +0.2669 V,

respectively. The change in entropy is :

(A) –38 J K–1 mol–1 (B) –58 J K–1 mol–1

(C) –68 J K–1 mol–1 (D) –48 J K–1 mol–1

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3 I

12. The energy of 1 kJ mol–1 equals :

(A) 96.48 cm–1 (B) 27.21 cm–1

(C) 83.59 cm–1 (D) 13.6 cm–1

13. The cell with the following reaction,

Zn(s) + 2H+(aq.) Zn2+(aq.) + H2(g)

om
An addition of H2SO4 in the Cathode compartment will :

.c
BC
(A) Increase Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the left

(B)
A
Lower Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the right
ry
ist

(C) Increase Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the right


em

(D) Lower Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the left


h

14. The matrix for C 2n z operator (rotation angle 2 ) is given by :


.C
w

cos 2 sin 2 0
w
w

C 2n z sin 2 cos 2 0

0 0 x

The value of x is :

(A) 2 (B) 1

(C) cos 2 (D) 0

7 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

15. An AgNO3 solution containing Ag electrode is connected by means of salt

bridge to PbCl2 solution containing Pb electrode.

Which of the correct representation of Galvanic cell ?

om
(A) (B)
– – – –

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em

(C) (D)
.C

– – – –
w
w
w

16. Zeta potential or electrokinetic potential depends on :

(A) viscosity

(B) dielectric constant

(C) velocity of colloidal particles when electric field is applied

(D) all three i.e. viscosity, dielectric constant and mobility

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

17. The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of proton to that of deuterium having


the same kinetic energies is :

(A) 2 (B) 1/2

(C) 2 (D) 1 2

18. From the temperature jump method, the relaxation time for the reaction :
k1
A B

om
k2

is determined to be 10 s. The corresponding equilibrium constant is

.c
10–3. The rate constant for the backward reaction (k2) is :

BC
(A) 105 s–1 A (B) 108 s–1
ry
(C) 106 s–1 (D) 103 s–1
ist

19. If the residual entropy of a crystal was observed to be 13.38 J K –1 mol–1


em

the molecule adopts how many configurations (close lying in energies)


h

at 0 K :
.C

(A) 3 (B) 5
w
w

(C) 6 (D) 2
w

20. A packet of colloidal system is held stationary by means of membrane.


The two electrodes are immersed in the medium and voltage is applied. The
liquid medium moves under the influence of electric field, this phenomenon
is called :

(A) Tyndal effect (B) Electrophoresis

(C) Electrodialysis (D) Electro-osmosis

9 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I
21. The delocalization energy of butadiene molecule within the HMO framework
of theory ( being the empirical parameter therein) is given by :
(A) (B) 0.472
(C) 2 (D) 4
22. Consider the following plots for three electrolytes NaCl, MgCl 2 and MgSO4.
Base on the trend :

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) (I), (II) and (III) correspond to MgSO 4, MgCl2 and NaCl respectively
(B) (I), (II) and (III) belong to NaCl, MgCl2 and MgSO4 respectively
(C) (I), (II) and (III) belong to MgCl2, NaCl and MgSO4 respectively
(D) (I), (II) and (III) belong to MgSO4, NaCl and MgCl2 respectively
10

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

23. If we ‘hypothetically’ switch of the charges on ions, the chemical potential

expression will take a form :

(A) j j
RT ln a j (B) j j
RT ln x j

(C) j j
RT ln j (D) j
RT ln j

The most probable distance of 2 s electron (in Å) in the ground state of H

om
24.

atom is :

.c
BC
(A) 1.058 (B) 2.116
A
ry
(C) 0.529 (D) 0.794
ist

25. Cycloheptatrienyl bromide has structure :


h em
.C

Br
w
w
w

This compound is to :

(A) behave like covalent compound and dissolves in non-polar solvents

(B) behave like ionic compound and dissolves in polar solvents like water

(C) behave like coordination compounds

(D) behave like ionic compound but dissolves in non-polar solvent

11 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

LiClO 4 Ca ta lyst
26.
5 h , 20°C

The above reaction is an example of :

om
(A) Claisen rearrangement

.c
BC
(B) Diels-Alder reaction
A
ry
(C) Ene reaction
ist
em

(D) Sommelet-Hauser rearrangement


h

27. The reagents X and Y that convert acetaldehyde and isobutyraldehyde


.C
w

respectively, (after an acidic work-up) into 3-methylbutan-2-ol are :


w
w

(A) X = iso-PrMgCl Y = MeMgCl

(B) X = MeMgCl Y = iso-PrMgCl

(C) X = n-PrMgCl Y = EtMgCl

(D) X = EtMgCl Y = n-PrMgCl

12

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

28. Trans-3, 4-dimethylcyclobut-1-ene on heating undergoes ring opening. The

statement which best describes the process is :

(A) Two conrotatory modes are enantiomeric and lead to the same product

(B) Two conrotatory modes of opening are possible but lead to two different

om
products

.c
BC
(C) Two products corresponding to the two conrotatory modes of opening
A
ry
are possible but one of them is formed exclusively
ist

(D) The ring opening occurs by disrotatory mode and gives two products
h em

29. Polydispersity index of a polymer is ratio of its :


.C
w

(A) Weight average molecular weight to number average molecular weight


w
w

(B) Number average molecular weight to weight average molecular weight

(C) Weight average molecular weight to viscosity average molecular weight

(D) Weight average molecular weight to sedimentation average molecular

weight

13 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

h 1
30.
a cet on e

The above reaction is an example of :

om
.c
(A) Cope rearrangement

BC
(B) [2 + 2] cycloaddition
A
ry
ist

(C) [4 + 2] cycloaddition
em

(D) Di-Pi-methane rearrangement


h
.C
w

31. In the diacetal (X), protons Ha and Hb are :


w
w

(A) Enantiotopic (B) Diastereotopic

(C) Homotopic (D) Heterotopic

14

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

32. Consider four isomeric ketones P, Q, R and S :

Two of these show a peak in the mass spectrum at m/e 86. These are :

om
(A) P and S (B) Q and R

.c
(C) R and S (D) P and R

BC
33.
A
The correct structure which corresponds to the spectral data given below
ry
is :
ist

IR : 1760 cm–1
em

PMR : 7.28, dd, 1H; 4.88, dd, 1H; 4.56, dd, 1H, 2.08, s, 3H
h
.C

CMR : 141.7, d; 96.6, t; 17.4, q; 167.0, s.


w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

34. In free radical polymerization, the degree of polymerization is :

(A) directly proportional to concentration of initiator used

(B) directly proportional to square root of concentration of initiator used

(C) inversely proportional to concentration of the initiator used

(D) inversely proportional to square root of the concentration of initiator


used

om
35. The major product in the following reaction, (X) is :

.c
Ac 2 O

BC
H 3P O4 X
A
ry
ist

(A)
h em
.C

(B)
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

16

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

36. Find out the correct statement :

(A) Pyridine is a weak base and Pyridine-N-oxide is a strong base

(B) Pyridine is a strong base and Pyridine-N-oxide is a strong acid

om
(C) Pyridine is a weak base and Pyridine-N-oxide is a salt like nature

.c
BC
(neutral in nature) A
ry
ist

(D) Both, Pyridine and Pyridine-N-oxides are weak bases


em

37. The reaction that amino acid undergoes in the living system are :
h
.C
w

(A) Trans-amination and Decarboxylation


w
w

(B) Trans-esterification and Deamination

(C) Trans-esterification and Decarboxylation

(D) Trans-amination and Dehydration

17 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I
38. The major product of the following reaction is :

+ Bromine water (A)

om
.c
(B)

BC
A
ry
ist
em

(C)
h
.C
w
w
w

(D)

(A) Only (A)


(B) Only (B)
(C) Only (D)
(D) All of the above products
18

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

39. Aldol reaction if carried out in the strong basic conditions, then it undergoes

elimination path :

(A) of E 1cb elimination (B) of E1 elimination

(C) of E2 elimination (D) of Ei elimination

om
40. The possible products of the following reaction are :

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) (x) and (y) only

(B) (x) and (z) only

(C) (y) and (z) only

(D) (x), (y) and (z) all products

19 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

41. Identify the kind of IPSO substitution product in the following reaction :

om
.c
BC
(A) X only

(B) Y only
A
ry
ist

(C) X and Y both


em

(D) Neither X nor Y but any other


h

42. Identify the following chemical conversion :


.C
w
w
w

(A) Barton Reaction

(B) Bayer Villiger Reaction

(C) Hofmann Reaction

(D) Hofmann Loffler-Freytag Reaction

20

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

43. Identify the product of reaction of acetone with Hydroxylamine :

CH 3COCH3 + NH2OH ?

(A) Ethanal oxime (B) Ethanol oxime

(C) Ethyl amine (D) No reaction

om
44. Gilman reagent has one of the following names :

.c
BC
(A) Lithium dimethyl cuperate
A
ry
(B) Lithium diethyl cuperate
ist
em

(C) Lithium methyl


h

(D) Lithium isopropylamide


.C
w

45. Which of the following statements is not correct for Benzene ?


w
w

(A) It is a (4n + 2) = 6 -electron Annulene

(B) It doesn’t represented by a real cyclic structure

(C) It doesn’t show resonance phenomenon

(D) It is entirely different than Annulene skeleton

21 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

46. The organic reaction occurs when the HOMO of nucleophile overlaps with

the LUMO of electrophile to form :

(A) A new -bond

(B) A new -bond

(C) A new coordinate covalent bond

om
(D) A new lone pair/non-bonding electron pair

.c
BC
Directions
ec s : Linked problem Q. No. 47 and Q. No. 48.
48
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

47. Reagents X and Y are respectively :

(A) 25% KOH and 75% H2SO4

(B) 75% H2SO4 and 25% KOH

(C) Pd, H2 and dil. HNO3

(D) dil. HNO3 and Pd, H2

22

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

48. The reaction involved in step 2 in the above sequence is :

(A) Benzilic acid rearrangement

(B) Michael addition

(C) Favorskii reaction

om
(D) Baeyer-Villiger reaction

.c
49. The gamma rays are produced by :

(A) electronic relaxation


BC
A
ry
(B) nuclear relaxation
ist
em

(C) photoelectric effect


h

(D) both photoelectric effect and electronic relaxation


.C
w

50. For a particular radioactive sample, the total counting rate was 450 cpm and
w
w

the value was obtained over 15.0 minutes counting period. The background

was counted for 2.0 minutes and gave 12 cpm. What is the standard deviation

associated with the corrected counting rate ?

(A) 4.0 (B) 5.0

(C) 6.0 (D) 5.5

23 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

51. In neutron activation analysis, a neutron is captured by the analyte nucleus

to give an isotope which has :

(A) same atomic number but mass number is greater by one

(B) same atomic number but mass number is less by one

(C) same mass number but atomic number is greater by one

om
(D) same mass number but atomic number is less by one

.c
BC
52. The number of tetrahedral sites occupied by 2n++ ions in zinc blende is :

(A) 1
A (B) 1/2
ry
ist

(C) 2/3 (D) 1/4


em

53. Which one of the following ions is linear ?


h

(A) NH 2 (B) NH 4
.C
w

(C) I3 (D) NO 2
w
w

54. Borazine is commonly called as Inorganic benzene, because :

(A) It is isoelectronic with benzene

(B) It appears like benzene

(C) It has same number of bonds with that of benzene

(D) It undergoes similar type of reactions as that of benzene

24

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

55. The common property possessed by CaTiO 3 and LaBa2Cu3O7 is :

(A) Superconductivity (B) Ferroelectric property

(C) Piezoelectric property (D) Common structural features

56. “Actinide hypothesis” was useful in :

om
(A) elucidating the properties of the heavier actinides

.c
BC
(B) elucidating the properties of lighter actinides
A
(C) elucidating the properties of the heavier lanthanides and actinides
ry
ist

(D) elucidating the properties of the lighter lanthanides and actinides


em

57. Pu3+ and lighter actinides have absorption spectra similar to those of
h
.C

the lanthanides but exhibit broadening identical to transition metal ions,


w
w

because of :
w

(A) greater ligand-metal orbital interaction

(B) smaller ligand-metal orbital interaction

(C) lesser exposure of the 5f orbitals

(D) moderate exposure of the 5f orbitals

25 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

58. The following combination of metal ion and ligands is preferred and is expected

to lead to the formation of a more stable complex :

(A) Ti4+ and CN– (B) Cu2+ and F–

(C) Co2+ and SCN– (D) Ti4+ and NCS–


4
59. The value of spin only magnetic moment in the complex, Co NO 2 in
6

om
BM units is :

.c
(A) 0 (B) 1.73

BC
(C) 3.87 (D) 4.9
A
60. The covalent compounds formed by the combination of two different halogens
ry
ist

are called :
em

(A) Polyhalide (B) Inter-halogen compound


h

(C) Pseudo-halogens (D) Halogen compounds


.C
w

61. Which of the following is true about the number of bands corresponding
w

to CO in the IR spectra of cis-[M(CO)4Cl2] and trans-[M(CO)4Cl2] ?


w

(A) The number of bands in both is equal

(B) cis-isomer has more number of bands than the trans

(C) The bands in both isomers appear at the same frequencies

(D) The trans isomer does not have any significant band in the carbonyl

stretching region
26

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

62. The synthetic attempts to obtain transition metal alkyls were failed for many

years, because :

(A) metal-carbon bond is less strong than main group metal-carbon bond

(B) metal-carbon bond is thermodynamically stable

om
(C) transition metal-alkyls undergo decomposition due to less kinetic stability

.c
(D) metal-carbon bond is not thermodynamically stable

63.
BC
Which of the following can act as a reducing agent ?
A
ry
(A) Fe( 5—C5H5)2 (B) Mn( 5—C5H5)2
ist
em

(C) Re( 5—C5H5)2 (D) Rh( 5—C5H5)2


h

64. The reaction of 3-octene with Zr(cp)2HCl (cp = 5—C H ) should yield :
.C

5 5
w

(A) Zr(cp)2Cl
w
w

(B)

(C)

(D) A mixture of B and C

27 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

65. Fe(COT) (CO)3 (COT = Cyclooctatetraene) is a stable species having a

dynamic proton NMR with a single sharp line at ambient temperatures

becoming broad and splitting into four multiplets at lower temperature. This

indicates that :

om
(A) COT is bound to Fe as ( 2—COT)

.c
(B) COT is bound to Fe as ( 4—COT)

BC
(C)
A
COT changes the binding mode from 8 at ambient temperature to
ry
2 or 4 at lower temperature
ist
em

(D) The molecule is fluxional


h
.C

66. Dissociation mechanism of ligand substitution can be identified by the ligand


w
w

field transition generally shifting during the reaction to :


w

(A) higher energy and negative S

(B) lower energy and positive S

(C) higher energy and positive S

(D) lower energy and negative S

28

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

67. The reaction :


2 2
Rh H 2 O SCN Cr H 2 O
5 6
2 2
Rh H 2 O Cr H 2 O SCN
6 5

is an example of :

(A) Aquation

om
(B) Ligand exchange

(C) Outer sphere electron transfer

.c
BC
(D) Inner sphere electron transfer

68.
A
In photocatalytic water splitting by ruthenium bipy complexes, (bipy =
ry
2, 2 -bipyridine), the following acts as a reducing species :
ist

2 2 *
(A) Ru bipy (B) Ru bipy
em

3 3
3 3 *
(C) Ru bipy 3
(D) Ru bipy 3
h
.C

69. The geometry of the active site in plastocyanins can be best described as :
w

(A) Tetrahedral (B) Tetragonal


w

(C) Square planar (D) Pseudotetrahedral


w

70. The resting form of the water splitting Mn4 cluster in PS II has :

(A) Cubane type structure and all Mn ions in 2+ oxidation state

(B) Cubane type structure and all Mn ions in 3+ oxidation state

(C) Tetrahedral structure will all Mn ions in 2+ oxidation state

(D) Cyclic structure will all Mn ions in 3+ oxidation state

29 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

71. The intense colour of [Re2Cl8]2– anion can be attributed to the following :

(A) Ligand field transition (B) * transition

(C) * transition (D) Charge transfer transition

72. Copper (II) and Nickel (II) form complexes of [M(en)x]2+ formulae where

om
x = 1 – 3. Which of the following is not true about the respective stability

.c
constants ? [en = 1, 2-ethane diamine]

BC
(A) K 2 < K1 A
ry
(B) K 3 < K2
ist
em

(C) K1 and K2 in Cu2+ complexes are higher than those in Ni2+ complexes
h

(D) K3 in Cu2+ complexes is higher than that in Ni2+ complexes


.C
w

73. In a reversed-phase column, a solute was found to have a retention time of


w
w

31.0 min. and an unretained species required 0.5 min. for elution when the

mobile phase was 30% (by volume) methanol and 70% water. What is the

retention factor ?

(A) 61.0 (B) 62.0

(C) 60.0 (D) 54.0

30

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

74. In a hydrogen-oxygen flame, the atomic absorption signal for calcium was

found to decrease in the presence of :

(A) EDTA

(B) 8-hydroxyquinoline

om
(C) ammonium salt of 1-pyrrolidinecarbodithioic acid

.c
(D) sulphate

75.
BC
Styrene-divinyl benzene copolymers, when completely monosulphonated and
A
ry
in H+-form, consist predominantly of units :
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

Each unit has the formula weight 184.2 and carries one fixed ionic group.

The theoretical scientific weight capacity of this resin is :

(A) 4.45 meq/g (B) 4.85 meq/g

(C) 5.43 meq/g (D) 4.20 meq/g

31 [P.T.O.

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AUG - 33315/III
3 I

ROUGH
H WORK
O K

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

32

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
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Cv
V T

om
R V
V P

.c
V

BC
R
A
Mn O 24
ry
ist

2 1
Mn O 4
3 3
em

1 2
h

MnO 4
3 3
.C

1 2
w

3 3
w
w

2 1
3 3

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
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O4

O4

om
O 24

.c
O4

BC
A
ry
ist
em

O 22
h
.C
w
w
w

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
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NH 3

om
d x2 y2 d z2

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
hem
.C
w
w
w

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
SET PAPERS www.ChemistryABC.com

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist

A sol u t i on of sodi u m m et al i n l i qu i d am m on i a gen er at es [N a(N H


h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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1 7
2 2

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
Zn (s)| Zn 2+ (1.0M) Cu 2+ (0.1M)| Cu (s) cell I
ry
| |
Zn (s)| Zn 2+ (0.1M) Cu 2+ (1.0M)| Cu (s) cell II
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

0
E cell = E Cell

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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x
x a x sin
a

om
2
x2 a x

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em
h
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

H H H H
R
T p
T v
T p
T v

U H H
0 R
V T
T p
T v

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

K1 K2
K 1
h
.C
w

K 1 E 0S 0
K 1S 0 + K + K2
w

1
w

K 2S 0 Vm
0 0
K 1
K2 1 Km
1 1
K1 E0 E 0S 0

K 2E0 Vm
0 0
K 1
K2 1 Km
1 1
K1 S0 E0

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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

xˆ , pˆ x

pˆ z

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K1

K 1

K2

K 1 K 2 [M]

om
K obs
K 2 + K 1 [M]

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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W h i ch of t h e fol l ow i n g st at em en t s i s

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
ry
A
BC
.c
om
w
w
w
.C
hem
ist
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48 Cr + 01 e 48 V + X-r a ys
24 23
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2 2
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Cl (a q ) 4 (a q )

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O4 SO 32 O 24 SO 24

O4 SO 32 O 24 SO 24

O4 SO 32 O 24 SO 24

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A ensem ble
A tim e

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K1
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K –1

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1
[A]0 /M [B]0 /M Ra t e/M.s
3
0.1 0.1 1.2 × 10
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0.1 0.2 1.2 × 10
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Ag Ag + N O 3– ,N O ,P t

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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.


A
CHEMICAL
CH SCIENCE
N
Signature
a r andn Name N e of Invigilator
n Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

JAN - 33218 (To be filled by the Candidate)


Time
e Allowed : 1¼¼ Hours]
o s [Maximum u M Marks : 100 0

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Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20
20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
0
Instructions
u o for
f r thee Candidates
C

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1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question

BC
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
A
3.
ry
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
ist

a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.


(ii) Tally
a the number
n be of pages and number m r of questions
qu i n
in thee booklet
o e with i the information
f r printed
n on
o thee (ii)
cover
ve page.
p e Faulty l booklets
o l t due to missing
s n pages/
em

questions or questionss on repeated


e t or not in n serial
order
d or any
ny otherh discre
s e pancy
n should notno bee
accepted d and correct
r booklet
k should
ou d be obtained
from theh invigilator
v i r within
n thee period
i d off 5 minutes.
n
h

Afterwards,
te w d neither
n e the Question n Booklet e willl be
replaced
pl d nor anyy extra
e time
m will
w l be given.n The samee
.C

may pleasee be noted. e


(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
w

should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)


4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
w

the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example le : where (C) is the correct response.
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A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet
h e given n inside the Booklet le only.
y If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only
o l Blue/Black
B k Ball
B point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator
c a or log
o table,, etc.,
t ., is p
prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking g for
f incorrect answers.
a r 12.

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I
Chemical Science
ie
Paperr III
Time
i Allowed
e : 755 Minutes] [Maximum
Ma um Marks : 100 0
Note
t : This Paper contains Fifty (50)
5 multiple choice questions. Each question
2 marks. Attempt All questions.
carrying Two (2)
1. The number of Metal-Metal bonds in [Re2Cl8]2– is/are :
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four

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2. The structure of (NH3)3CrO4 is :
(A) Trigonal bipyramid (B) Pentagonal bipyramid

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(C) Square Pyramid (D) Pentagonal Pyramid
3. In gas chromatography, the basis of separation of the components is the
A
difference in :
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(C) Molarity (D) Partition Coefficient


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4. The normality of a solution is determined by four separate titrations, the results


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being 0·2041, 0·2049, 0·2039 and 0·2043. The average deviation for the results
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is :
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(A) 0·0003 (B) 0·2043


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(C) 0·0006 (D) 0·0009


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5. In the Kroll process Titanium is extracted by reducing TiCl4 with..............


metal.
(A) Barium (B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminum (D) Zinc
6. The X-band EPR spectra of phenyl radical will exhibit.................lines.
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 18 (D) 28

3 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

7. The staggered configuration of ferrocene [Fe( 5-C5H5)2] belong to................


symmetry group.

(A) C 5v (B) C 5h

(C) D5d (D) D5h

8. The spin only magnetic moment for a first row transition metal ion with 3F 4
ground state term is :

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(A) 3·87 B.M. (B) 4·90 B.M.

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(C) 2·83 B.M. (D) 5·92 B.M.

9. Crystal Field Stabilization Energy for a d3 ion in tetrahedral geometry is :


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(A) –1·2 (B) –0·8
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(C) –0·4 (D) 0·0


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10. Which of the following statements is true with respect to 57Fe Mossbauer
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spectra of (i) FeSO4·7H2O, (ii) K4[Fe(CN)6], (iii) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]·2H2O ?


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(A) singlet in (i), doublet in (ii) and (iii)


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(B) singlet in (ii), doublet in (i) and (iii)


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(C) singlet in (i), and (iii), doublet in (ii)

(D) doublet in (i), (ii) and (iii)

11. The geometry of the interhalogen compound BrF 3 is :

(A) Square planar (B) Tetrahedral

(C) Octahedron (D) Trigonal bipyramid

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

12. The IUPAC nomenclature of [Co·Cl·CN·NO2·(NH3)3] is :

(A) Triamminechloridocyanidonitrocobalt (III)

(B) Chloridocyanidonitrotriamminecobalt (III)

(C) Cyanidochloridonitrotriamminecobalt (III)

(D) Triamminechloridonitrocyanidocobalt (III)

13. The cation of dichloro bis(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) belongs to D3 symmetry

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is an example of :

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(A) Coordination isomerism (B) Optical isomerism

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(C) Linkage isomerism (D) Ionization isomerism
A
14. The 1G term of nd2 configuration can be assigned to :
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(A) 45 microstates (B) 9 microstates


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(C) 21 microstates (D) 15 microstates


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15. The F—N—F bond angle in NF3 is :


.C

(A) 109° 28 (B) 107° 48


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(C) 102° 30 (D) 104° 27


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16. The correct order of First Ionization energy of group 13 elements is :

(A) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In (B) B > Tl > Al > Ga > In

(C) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (D) B > Ga > Tl > In > Al

17. The ionophore valinomycin is highly selective for :

(A) K+ (B) Na+

(C) Mg2+ (D) Ca2+


5 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

18. Common feature of CO, CN– and NO+ ligands is :

(A) They have empty orbitals

(B) They act as donor ligands

(C) They are all weak field ligands

(D) They decrease the value of 0

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19. Number of stereoisomers possible for the compound, CH3CH = CH—CH(OH)CH

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(A) 4 A (B) 6
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20. The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is :


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(A) III > I > II > IV (B) II > III > I > IV

(C) IV > II > I > III (D) III > II > I > IV

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I
21. Number of signals observed in the 1H NMR and proton decoupled 13C NMR
spectrum of the following compound, respectively, are :

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(A) 4, 4 (B) 5, 4
(C) 8, 7 (D) 8, 4
22. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

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BC
A
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(A) (B)
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(C) (D)

7 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

23. Amongst the following, the compound that will show IR absorption band at
1780 cm–1 is :

(A) (B)

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BC
(C) (D)

A
24. Major product of the following reaction is :
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(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

25. The correct IUPAC nomenclature of the following compound is :

(A) 5-Bromo-2-chloroheptane (B) 2-Chloro-5-bromoheptane

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(C) 3-Bromo-6-chloroheptane (D) 6-Chloro-3-bromoheptane

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26. Number of signals observed in the 1H NMR spectrum is p-tolualdehyde is :

(A) 3
A (B) 4
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27. The correct absolute configuration for the chiral centers in the following
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(A) 1S, 4S (B) 1S, 4R

(C) 1R, 4R (D) 1R, 4S

9 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

28. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

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(A)

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A
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(B)
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(C)
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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

29. Multiplicity of the signal expected in the 1H NMR spectrum of the following

compound is :

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(A) singlet (B) doublet

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(C) triplet A (D) AB quartet
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30. The correct IUPAC nomenclature of the following compound is :
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(A) 2-Nitro-5-carbaldehydo anisole

(B) 2-Methoxy-4-carbaldehydo nitrobenzene

(C) 4-Nitro-5-methoxy benzaldehyde

(D) 3-Methoxy-4-nitro benzaldehyde

11 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

31. The least stable conformation of 2-methylbutane is :

(A)

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(B)

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.C
w
w
w

(D)

12

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I
32. The major product formed in the following reactions is :

om
.c
(A)

BC
A
ry
ist
em

(B)
h
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

13 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

33. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
BC
(A) (B)
A
ry
ist
em

(C) (D)
h
.C
w

34. Chiral compound amongst the following is :


w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

14

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

35. The freezing point of a mixture containing 1·60 g of naphthalene (molar

mass = 128 g mol–1) and 20 g of benzene (molar mass = 78 g mol–1) is 2·8°C

and that of pure benzene is 5·5°C. The value of the molal freezing point

depression constant of benzene is :

(A) 4·3°C kg mol–1 (B) 4·3°C g mol–1

om
(C) 4·3°C mol kg–1 (D) 5·1°C mol g–1

.c
BC
36. T h e vapou r pr essu r e of 0·5 M aqu eou s K N O 3 solution is 749·7 torr at 100°C.
A
ry
The activity of water in this solution at 100°C is :
ist

(A) 0·9218 (B) 1·0023


em

(C) 1·0230 (D) 0·9864


h
.C

37. When an ideal kept in a closed container at constant volume was cooled from
w
w

50°C to 25°C, it will lead to :


w

(A) Increase in the numbers of collisions per unit time

(B) Increase in the mean free path of the gas

(C) Increase in the average velocity of the gas

(D) Decrease in the average velocity of the gas

15 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

38. For the decomposition reaction


A3 3/2A2
The following concentration Vs. time profiles were obtained. At time tA,
percentage of A3 decomposed is :

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

(A) 75 (B) 50
(C) 25 (D) 10
h

39. In the reaction :


.C

Cl 2(g) + 3F2(g) 2ClF3; Hr = – 329 kJ


When the reaction is in equilibrium, which of the following will increase the
w

amount of ClF3 ?
w

(I) Increasing the temperature


w

(II) Increasing the volume of the reactor


(III) Removing Cl2
(IV) Adding F2
(A) I, II and III (B) IV only
(C) I and IV (D) II and IV
40. In the reaction :
ZnO + X + heat Zn + XO
Which element represented by X is industrially used to produce Zn metal ?
(A) Cu (B) C
(C) Hg (D) Pb
16

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

41. Which of the following is not a redox reaction ?

(A) CuO + H2 — Cu + H2O

(B) Fe2O3 + 3CO — 2Fe + 3CO2

(C) 2K + F2 — 2KF

(D) BaCl2 + H2SO4 — BaSO4 + 2HCl

om
42.

.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em

Which of the following statements best describes the flow of electrons in the
.C

above electrochemical cell ?


w

(A) From Pb electrode to Zn electrode through the Cu wire


w

(B) From Pb electrode to Zn electrode through the salt bridge


w

(C) From the Zn electrode to Pb electrode through the salt bridge

(D) From Zn electrode to Pb electrode through Cu wire

43. A radioactive substances has half life of 140 days. The fraction of the substance
that will remain after 2 years and 250 days is :

(A) 1/7 (B) 1/14

(C) 127/128 (D) 1/128

17 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

44. To balance the following reaction :


2– 2–
SO3(aq.) H2O SO4(aq.) 2H (aq.)

one needs to :
(A) Add 2H2O to the left side
(B) Add 2e– to the right side
(C) Add 2e– to the left side
(D) Multiply both sides by a factor of 2

om
45. When a small amount of copper powder is added to ZnSO 4 solution, what
would be the observation ?

.c
(A) Effervesence (B) Precipitation of a white solid

BC
(C) Formation of a blue solution (D) No reaction
46. General acid (A) Base (B) titration curve is represented as follows :
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

What should be the equation for estimation of pH at point (L) :


1 1
(A) pH = pKw + log [B] (B) pH = pKa + pKw
2 2
1 1
(C) pH = pKa – log [A]initial (D) pH = pKa
2 2
18

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I

47. The stoichiometric point of the titration of 25·0 mL, 0·100 M HClO with 0·10 M

NaOH(aq) occurs when the molar concentration of NaClO is 0·050 M. The

pH of this solution is about (given pKa of HClO = 7·43; log 0·05 = – 1·301)

(A) 2·63 (B) 3·94

om
(C) 10·10 (D) 11·36

.c
48. Hydride ion (H–) is :

BC
(A) Not isoelectric with He
A (B) Bronsted-Lowrry base of H2
ry
ist

(C) Bronsted acid of OH– (D) A Lewis acid


em

49. The pH of 0·2M HCN(aq.) is (pKa of HCN = 9·31; log10 2 = 0·3010 and
h
.C

log10 0·2 = – 0·6990) :


w
w

(A) 5·0 (B) 9·6


w

(C) 8·6 (D) 4·3

50. Which of the following is the strongest conjugate base ?

(A) ClCH2COO– (B) Cl·CH2·CH2COO–

(C) CH3COO– (D) Cl2CHCOO–

19 [P.T.O.
. .

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JAN
N - 33218/II—A
21 I
ROUGH WORK
K

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

20

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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.


A
Paper-III
a I
CHEMICAL
EM L SCIENCE
I CE
Signature
S n e and d Name m of Invigilator a Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.


JAN
JA - 33318 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time
im Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum
[ Marks : 150

om
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
75
Instructions
n t n for the Candidates
di

.c
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question

BC
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
3.
A
ry
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
ist

a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.


(ii) Tally the
t number off pagess and number u of
o questions
s
in the
th booklet
kl t with thee information o printed
i d on the
th (ii)
coverr page.. Faulty
au booklets
k s duee to t missing i pages/
g
em

questions
es o or questions
ti repeated
p a d or not in i serial
s i
o rder or any
a other
er discre
d c pancya c should ou not be
accepted
c and
n correct
c ec booklett should
h be obtained
o a e
from
r the invigilator
n within
w i the h period of 5 minutes.
i te
h

Afterwards,
r ar , neither thee Question
Q e ti Bookletl t willi be
replaced
e noro any
an extra
x a time
ti will
l be given. The same am
.C

may please be noted. d.


(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
w

should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)


4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
w

the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Examplep : where (C) is the correct response.
w

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside
s the
th Booklet
Bo k t only.
o l . If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Usee only Blue/Black
e ac Ball point o pen.
pe . 10.
11. Use e off any calculator
y cal l o oor llog table, etc.,
c is prohibited.
h tte 11.
12. There
e iss no o negative
e v marking
ar for incorrect
n e t answers.
w . 12.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8
Chemical Science
ie
Paper
pe IIII
Time
i Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum
Ma um Marks : 150 0
Note
t : This paper contains seventy five (75)
(7 multiple choice questions, each
Tw (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
question carrying Two

1. The correct statement for atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) from the
following :
(A) Non-metals are determined by direct methods

om
(B) Beer’s law is not obeyed over wide concentration range
(C) Separate lamp for each element to be determined is required

.c
(D) Al, Ti, W, Mo and Si can be detected by AAS

BC
2. The capacity to undergo exchange reaction by the hydrated metal ions of the
A
same size in ion exchange chromatography follows the order :
ry
(A) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Th4+ > Na+
ist

(B) Th4+ > Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+


em

(C) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+ > Th4+


(D) Ca2+ > Al3+ > Th4+ > Na+
h

3. The thermal methods (I) and their parameters (II) are given below :
.C

I II
w

(a) TG (e) T
w

(b) DTG (f) dm/dt


w

(c) DTA (g) dH/dt


(d) DSC (h) Mass
The correct match is :
(A) (a)-(e), (b)-(f), (c)-(g), (d)-(h)
(B) (a)-(f), (b)-(g), (c)-(h), (d)-(e)
(C) (a)-(h), (b)-(f), (c)-(e), (d)-(g)
(D) (a)-(g), (b)-(e), (c)-(f), (d)-(h)

3 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

4. The intervalence band in Mixed-valent compounds usually occurs in the ..........

region.

(A) Ultra-violet (B) Visible

(C) Near infrared (D) Far infrared

5. In the base-catalysed substitution of Cl– by OH– in [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ under

strongly basic conditions, the first step in the mechanism is :

om
(A) Conversion of an ammine to amido ligand

(B) Substitution of Cl– by OH–

.c
BC
(C) Dissociation of Cl– to give 5-coordinate intermediate
A
(D) Assocaition of OH– to give 7 coordinate intermediate
ry
6. To satisfy the 18 electron rule the value of n in the complex [Rh( 5—C5h5)(CO)n]
ist

should be :
em

(A) 2 (B) 3
h

(C) 1 (D) 4
.C
w

7. The correct order of Nephelauxetic parameter ( ) of the ligands is :


w

(A) CN > NCS > en > NH3 H2O


w

(B) H2O > NH3 > en > NCS > CN

(C) en CN > NCS > NH3 > H2O

(D) H2O > NH3 > NCS > CN > en

8. Jahn-Teller distortion will be exhibited by :

(A) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Cr(H2O)6]3+

(C) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Cu(H2O)6]2+

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

9. Rieske protein is a [2Fe-2S] cluster wherein :


(A) One Fe atom is coordinated to two terminal imidazole ligands and the other
Fe atom is coordinated to two terminal cystine ligands
(B) Both Fe atoms are coordianted to two terminal imidazole groups each
(C) Both Fe atoms are coordianted to two terminal cystine groups each
(D) Both Fe atoms are coordianted to one terminal imidazole and one cystine
each
10. [Ni(dipyridyl)3]SO4 records three transitions in electronic spectra at 12,650 cm –1,

om
19,200 cm–1 and 26,000 cm–1. The 10 Dq of the complex is :

.c
(A) 12650 cm–1 (B) 15180 cm–1

BC
(C) 10120 cm–1 (D) 26000 cm–1
A
11. In which of the following organometallic complexes, the carbon based ligands
ry
is both and bonded.
ist

(A) [Fe( 5-C5H5)2] (B) [PtCl3( 2-C2H4)]–


(C) [Co(CO)5NH3]2+
em

(D) [Al(CH3)3]
12. The EPR spectra of [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (55Mn=I=5/2) with zero field splitting show
h

five set of lines. Each set further consist of ........... ...hyperfine lines (At. No.
.C

Mn = 25)
w

(A) 5 (B) 6
w

(C) 30 (D) 1
w

13. In the Wacker catalystic cycle if methanol is used in place of water as nucleophile
the product will be :
(A) Ethanol (B) Methyl vinyl ether
(C) Acetaldehyde (D) Acetone
14. ‘A’ type of ground Mülliken symbol in complex having oh symmetry is :
(A) t2g3 eg2 (B) t2g1 eg0
(C) t2g3 eg1 (D) t2g6 eg3

5 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

15. Which of the following pairs of coordination complexes do not undergo inner
sphere electron transfer reaction ?
(A) [Co(NH3)5NO3]2+/[V(OH2)6]2+
(B) [Co(NH3)5I]2+/[V(OH2)6]2+
(C) [Co(en)3]3+/[V(OH2)6]2+
(D) [Co(NH3)5Br]2+/[V(OH2)6]2+
16. The dn electron configuration of the first row transition metal ions that show
‘high-spin’—‘low-spin’ transition are :

om
(A) d4 and d5 (B) d5 and d6
(C) d4, d5, d6 and d7 (D) d4, d5 and d6

.c
17. The measurement of the intensity of the scattered light as a function of the

BC
concentration of the dispersed phase form is the principle of :
(A) Colorimetry A (B) Turbidimetry
(C) Nephelometry (D) Phosphorimetry
ry
18. Racemization of octahedral complexes containing three bidentate rings by the
ist

Ray-Dutt twist mechanism forms intermediates of .............. point group.


em

(A) D3h (B) C 2v


(C) C 3v (D) D 2h
h

19. The 31P{OH} NMR spectra of HPO(OH)2 and H2PO(OH) (I = 3p, 1H = 1/2) shows
.C

respectively :
w

(A) doublet and triplet (B) triplet and triplet


w

(C) triplet and doublet (D) doublet and doublet


w

20. The following statement is incorrect with respect to 57Fe Mössbauer spectra
of FeCl3.6H2O and FeCl2.4H2O :
(A) Both the compounds show doublet with equal quadrupole splitting
(B) Both are compounds show doublet with unequal quadrupole splitting
(C) Both the compounds are high spin complexes of Fe(II) and Fe(III)
respectively
(D) Valence contribution is present in FeCl2.4H2O while lattice contribution
is present in FeCl3.6H2O

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

21. Which of the following pairs of elements have (n 2) f 7 (n 1) d 1 ns2 electronic


configuration ?

(A) Sm, Cm (B) Gd, Cm

(C) Eu, Cm (D) Er, Cm

22. Which of the following statements with respect to ‘trans effect’ is true ?

(A) Ammonia > Chloride (B) Water > Chloride

om
(C) Pyridine > Chloride (D) Chloride > Ammonia

23. In the layered structure of CdI2, Cd2+ occupies ........... octahedral sites.

.c
BC
1 1
(A) (B)
2 A 3
ry
1
(C) (D) 1
ist

4
em

24. A dimeric Ruthenium (IV) complex [K4(Cl5Ru—O—RuCl5] is diamagnetic at


h

room temperature (26°C) althrough there are two unpaired electrons per Ru(IV)
.C
w

ion, the magnetic behaviour can be best explained by :


w
w

(A) Antiferromagnetic coupling (B) Ferromagnetic coupling

(C) Ferrimagnetic coupling (D) Antiferrimagnetic coupling

25. Tetragonal distorted complexes will be exhibited by :

(A) Low spin Fe2+ (B) High spin Cr2+

(C) High spin Mn2+ (D) Ni2+

7 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

26. The major products P and Q formed in the following reaction sequence

are :

(A)

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist

(B)
h em
.C
w
w

(C)
w

(D)

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

27. The following reaction is an example of :

Benzophenone + Isobutene h

om
(A) Norrish type I reaction (B) Norrish type II reaction

.c
(C) Borton reaction (D) Paterno-Buchi reaction

BC
28. The major product formed in the following reaction is :
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w

(A) (B)
w
w

(C) (D)

9 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

29. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

om
.c
BC
(C) (D)
A
ry
ist

30. Find out the correct structure of L-Ribose if the structure of D-Ribose is :
h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

31. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
(A) (B)

.c
BC
A
ry
(C) (D)
ist
em

32. The major product formed in the following reaction is :


h
.C
w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

11 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

33. Structure of the ‘tagged’ amino acid formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

(A) (B)
h
.C
w
w
w

(C) (D)

12

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

34. The correct reagents to effect the following conversion are :

om
(A) (i) N aB H 4, CeCl3, MeOH

.c
BC
(ii) m—CPBA, CH2Cl2, 0°C
A
ry
(B) (i) NaBH4, CeCl3, MeOH
ist
em

(ii) H2O2, NaOH, 0°C


h
.C
w

(C) (i) m—CPBA, CH2Cl2, 0°C


w
w

(ii) LiAlH4, THF, 0°C rt

(D) (i) H2O2, NaOH, 0°C rt

(ii) LiAlH4, THF, 0°C reflux

13 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

35. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

om
.c
BC
A
(C) (D)
ry
ist
em

36. The major product formed in the following reaction is :


h
.C
w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

14

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

37. The correct match of natural products in Column-I with class in Column-II

is :

Column-I Column-II

(P) Cholesterol (i) Polysaccharide

(Q) Cellulose (ii) Steroid

om
(R) Quinine (iii) Vitamin

(iv) Alkaloid

.c
BC
(A) (P)—(iii), (Q)—(i), (R)—(iv)

(B) (P)—(ii), (Q)—(iv), (R)—(i)


A
ry
(C) (P)—(ii), (Q)—(i), (R)—(iv)
ist
em

(D) (P)—(i), (Q)—(iii), (R)—(iv)

38. Amongst the following the rate of cis-trans isomerisation is expected to be


h
.C

highest in :
w
w

(A) (B)
w

(C) (D)

15 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

39. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
BC
(A) (B)
A
ry
ist

(C) (D)
h em
.C

40. T h e pr ot on decou pl ed 13C NMR spectrum of HF2C—CH2Cl will show :


w
w

(A) C1 as singlet and C2 as singlet


w

(B) C1 as triplet and C2 as triplet

(C) C1 as triplet and C2 as singlet

(D) C1 as doublet and C2 as singlet

16

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8
41. The correct structure of a compound that exhibits the following 1H-NMR spectral
data is :
3.8(S, 3H), 3.9 (S, 3H) 6.82 (dd, J = 8 and 2 H2, 1H), 7.06 (t, J = 8 H2, 1H),
7.15 (dd, J = 8 and 2 H2, 1H)

(A) (B)

om
.c
BC
(C) (D)

A
ry
ist

42. Major product formed in the following reaction is :


h em
.C
w
w
w

(A) (B)
3

(C) (D)

17 [P.T.O.

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JAN
A - 33318/III—A
31 II

43. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
em

(A) (B)
h
.C
w
w
w

(C) (D)

18

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JAN
N - 33318/III—A
8

44. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
(A) (B)

.c
BC
A
ry
(C) (D)
ist
em

45. Major product formed in the following reaction is :


h
.C
w
w
w

(A) P = ; Q = (B) P = ; Q =

(C) P = Q = (D) P = Q =

19 [P.T.O.

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46. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
(A) (B)

.c
BC
A
ry
ist

(C) (D)
h em
.C

47. Major product formed in the following reaction is :


w
w
w

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20

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48. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
(A)

BC
A
ry
ist
em

(B)
h
.C
w
w

(C)
w

(D)

21 [P.T.O.

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49. Major product formed in the following reaction is :

om
.c
BC
A
(A)
ry
(B)
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

(C) (D)

22

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50. The major product P and Q formed in the following reactions are :

om
.c
BC
(A) A
ry
ist
em

(B)
h
.C
w
w
w

(C)

(D)

23 [P.T.O.

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51. One of the most widely used functions for the van der Waals potential is the

Lennard-Jones expressed as :

A ik Cik A ik Cik
(A) ELJ 6 12 (B) ELJ 12
nonbonded rik rik nonbonded rik rik6
pairs pairs

A ik Cik A ik Cik
(C) ELJ (D) ELJ 6
nonbonded
12
rik 6
rik nonbonded rik rik12

om
pairs pairs

52. Coeffi ci en t of t h er m al ex pan si on ( ) is given by :

.c
BC
1 V 1 V
(A) (B)
V T P V T P
A
1 V 1 V
ry
(C) (D)
V2 T P V2 T P
ist

53. The distribution function for identical indistinguishable particles can be


em

gj
represented by the equation N j , which of the following statements
h

( j )/ kT
e a
.C

is correct ?
w
w

(A) a = +1 for Bose-Einstein statistics


w

(B) a = –1 for Fermi-Dirac statistics

(C) a = +1 for Fermi-Dirac statistics

(D) a = 1/2 for Bose-Einstein statistics

54. For an isolated system :

(A) dS = deS (B) dS = diS

(C) deS > 0 (D) deS < 0

24

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55. If there is no net flow of electrical current, then generation of potential difference
per unit change of pressure and generation of potential difference per unit change
of temperature is termed as .......... respectively.
(A) Thermoelectric power and osmotic pressure
(B) Osmotic pressure and thermoelectric power
(C) Streaming potential and thermoelectric power
(D) Thermoelectric power and streaming potential

om
56. For any polydispersed system, which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Number average relative molar mass is greater than mass average relative

.c
molar mass

BC
(B) Number average relative molar mass is less than mass average relative
molar mass A
ry
(C) Number average relative molar mass coincide with mass average relative
ist

molar mass
(D) None of the above
em

57. A particle in a one-dimensional box of length L can be excited from n = 1


h

to n = 2 state with frequency . If the box length is doubled, the frequency


.C

needed to achieve this transition is :


w

(A) /4 (B) /2
w

(C) 2 (D) 4
w

58. If operator D̂n (n times differentiate with respect to x) operates on eigenfunction


eax, the eigenvalue would be :
(A) n (B) n
(C) n (D) n !
59. The eigenfunctions of a rigid rotator are :
(A) Spherical harmonics (B) Laguerre polynomials
(C) Hermite polynomials (D) Legendre transformers

25 [P.T.O.

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60. A ccor di n g t o H u n d’s r u l e, m ost st abl e st at e for np2 configuration is ..........
(A) 1S 0 (B) 3P 0
(C) 3P 1 (D) 3P 2
61. According to simple HMO theory, which one of the following statements about
butadiene is true ?
(A) It has a non-bonding MO
(B) Exciting an electron from the HOMO to the LUMO will not change the
bond orders
(C) Exciting an electron from the HOMO to the LUMO will not change the

om
charge densities
(D) It is most likely to undergo electrophilic substitution at one of the two inner

.c
carbons

BC
62. In the hydrogenation of C2H4 on a Ni surface both the alkene and H2 are
A
adsorbed on similar active sites of the catalyst surface. Which of the following
ry
figures depict the reaction ?
ist
h em

(A ) (B)
.C
w
w
w

(C) (D)

26

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63. In case of heterogeneous catalysis which of the following is correct ?


(A) At least one reactant must be physisorbed on the catalyst
(B) At least one reactant must be chemisorbed on the catalyst
(C) The number of active sites decrease with increase in surface area
(D) Surface area can be determined by spectroscopic studies
64. A surface of Li metal (sample X) was suspected to be completely coated with
a thin layer of Li2O (sample Y). When X and Y are analysed by X-ray

om
photoelectron spectroscopy :
(A) Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons from X will be higher than that

.c
BC
from Y
(B) Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons from Y will be higher than that
A
ry
from Y
ist

(C) Binding energy of the photoelectrons from Y will be lower than that
from X
em

(D) Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons from both X and Y will be the same
h

65. A reactor vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 at a pressure of 0.5 atm. Part of the
.C

CO2 is converted into CO by the addition of graphite. If the total pressure


w

in the reactor vessel at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K P for the reaction
w
w

of CO2 with graphite is :


(A) 1.8 (B) 3.24
(C) 0.324 (D) 09
66. For the equilibrium Fe(s) + H2O(g) FeO(s) + H2(g), the number of components,
phases and degrees of freedom are respectively :
(A) 3, 3, 2 (B) 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 3, 3 (D) 3, 2, 1

27 [P.T.O.

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67. Given below is the wave function of a particle :

om
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) The particle is more likely to be found near B

.c
(B) The particle is more likely to be found near A

BC
(C) The shaded area represents the energy of the particle when it travels through
a distance dx A
ry
(D) The shaded area represents the amplitude of the particle in an area dx
ist

68. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with 1% speed of light


is about :
em

(mass of electron and speed of light are 9.109 × 10–31 kg and 2.998 ×
h

108 ms–1 respectively) :


.C

(A) 243 m (B) 243 cm


w

(C) 243 Å (D) 243 pm


w

69. Surface tension of Br2(I) water and mercury are 41.0 mNm–1, 72.0 mN/m and
w

486.2 mNm–1 respectively at 25°C. These values imply that :


(i) Metallic bonding is weaker than covalent bonding
(ii) Hydrogen bonding is stronger than van der Waals bonding
(iii) Metallic bonding is stronger than hydrogen bonding
(iv) All types of intermolecular forces are of similar strength
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv), (ii) only

28

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70. In case of radical polymerization, the kinetic chain length is given by

expression :
kp[M][I] 1/ 2
1/ 2
1/2 kd
2kt f
kt
increase in the initiator concentration eventually leads to :
(A) Higher molecular weight polymer

om
(B) Low molecular weight polymer
(C) Rate of reaction and thus the extent polymerization does not depend on

.c
the concentration of initiator

BC
(D) Fast polymerization reaction
A
71. Consider the following reaction in an aqueous solution :
ry
I–(aq) + OCl–(aq) IO–(aq) + Cl–(aq)
ist

and the following initial concentration and initial rate data for this
em

reaction :

[I 1 ], M [OCl ], M Initial Rate, Ms 1


h
.C

4
w

0.1 0.05 3.05 *10


w

4
0.2 0.05 6.10 *10
w

4
0.3 0.01 1.83 *10

4
0.4 0.02 6.12 *10

Which of the following is the correct rate law for this reaction ?
(A) Rate = k[I–]2[OCl–] (B) Rate = k[OCl–]
(C) Rate = k[I–]2 (D) Rate = k[I–][OCl–]

29 [P.T.O.

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72. Consider the following electrochemical cell, connected to the potential source

(Potentiostat) with Hg as a working electrode :

Hg/Cd2+(0.01M), Zn2+ (0.01M), HCl(1.0M) HCl(1.0M) H2(g)|Pt

when the potential is change towards (i) more negative direction and (ii) change

towards the more positive direction from the equilibrium potential value, the

om
following observations are expected :

.c
BC
Given :

E°(Cd2+/Cd°) = – 0.351 V,
A
ry

E°(Zn2+/Zn°) = – 0.762 V, E°(Hg2+/Hg°) = + 0.855 V


ist
em

(A) (i) H2 evolution will start.


h

(ii) O2 evolution will start.


.C
w

(B) (i) Cd will deposit first followed by Zn.


w

(ii) Hg will start oxidizing.


w

(C) (i) Zn will deposit.

(ii) O2 evolution will be observed.

(D) (i) Cd will deposit.

(ii) Hg will start oxidizing.

30

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73. The ideal solution made up of 5.00 mol (mole fraction = 0.606) benzene and
3.25 mol (mole fraction = 0.394) toluene, the free energy of mixing ( Gmix)
is equal to –13 kJ mol–1. The corresponding values for the their equimolar
solution will be ;
(A) Unity
(B) ( Gmix) does not depend on mole fraction, thus equal to –13 kJ mol–1
(C) Less negative than that of –13 kJ mol –1

om
(D) More negative than that of –13 kJ mol–1
74. The ideal solution made up of 5.00 mol (mole fraction = 0.606) benzene and

.c
3.25 mol (mole fraction = 0.394) toluene, the change in enthalpy during mixing

BC
( Hmix) would be :
(A) zero
A (B) 1.0 kJ mol–1
ry
(C) positive (D) negative
ist

75. An electrochemical cell is constructed using half cell for the reduction reaction
em

is given by :
Fe(OH2)(s) + 2e Fe(s) + 2OH–(aq); E° = –0.877 V
h
.C

It is combined with another half cell for which the cell reaction is given
w

by :
w

Al3+(aq) + 3e Al(s); E° = –1.66 V


w

Activities of all the components are assumed to be unity.


The overall reaction for the cell in the direction of spontaneous change
is :
(A) (Fe(OH)2(s) + Al(s) Fe(s) + OH–(aq.) + Al3+ (aq.)
(B) 2(Fe(OH)2(s) + 3Al(s) 2Fe(s) + 6OH–(aq.) + 3Al3+ (aq.)
(C) 3(Fe(OH)2(s) + 2Al(s) 3Fe(s) + 6OH–(aq.) + 2Al3+ (aq.)
(D) Fe(s) + OH–(aq.) + Al3+(aq.) (Fe(OH)2(s) + Al(s)

31 [P.T.O.

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ROUG GH WORK
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om
.c
BC
A
ry
ist
h em
.C
w
w
w

32

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