Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant

ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr. Elite & Target(C-120, C-IPL & IPL-IC) JEE-MAIN Date: 02-12-2023
Time: 09.30Am to 12.30Pm RPTM-15 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/ Answer
Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each
subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5 questions attempted,
First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If
answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron device etc,
except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall. However, the
candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
02-Dec-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Test Syllabus
PHYSICS : Electro magnetism & EMI.
CHEMISTRY : f-Block elements Quantitative analysis & Coordination
Compounds (upto V.B.T)
MATHEMATICS : Probability, Random variables & Distributions
 Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA
PHYSICS
02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. A proton of mass 1.67 1027 kg and charge 1.6 1019 C is projected with speed 2 106 m / Sec
at an angle of 600 to the x-axis. If a uniform magnetic field of 0.104 T is applied along y-
axis. The path of the proton is

1) A circle of radius = 0.2m and Time period   10 Sec.

7

2) A circle of radius =0.1m and Time period 2  107 Sec.

3) A helix of radius =0.1m and Time period 2  107 Sec.
4) A helix of radius = 0.2m and Time period 4  107 Sec.
2. A circular current carrying loop of a radius R. Carries a current I. The magnetic field at a
1
point on the axis of coil is times the value of the magnetic field at the centre. Distance of
8
point from centre is
1) R / 2 2) R 3) R 2 4) R / 3
3. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper
carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction as shown in figure. Magnitude of force
per unit length on the middle wire “B” is given by.
B d
C
0
90
d

2 0 I 2  I2 0 I 2 2 0 I 2
1) 2) 0 3) 4)
d 2 d 2 d d

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Two wires AO and OC carry equal currents “I” as shown in the figure where angle of AOC=
600 .Find the magnitude of the magnetic field at the point P on the bisector of angle 600 at a
distance ‘r’ from O. Assume that the other ends of both wires extended to infinity:-
Infinity
A

P
 r
/ 2
d
O Infinity
C

30i  0i 0i 3 0 I
1)
2 r
2)
2 r

2 3  3)
4 r
4)
12r
5. A Considerably large number of very long wires are placed parallel to the Y-axis at location
with X- values given by 1m,2m,4m,8m and so on. Each wires having current of 1 A in
opposite direction. The magnetic field at Origin (in tesla) is
Y

1 2
I I
I

X
O 1 2 4

1) 1.33  107 k 2) 2.67  10 7 k 3) 1.33  10 7 k 4) 2.67  10 7 k

6. As shown in the figure, a current of 3A flowing in an equilateral triangle of side 4 3 cm.
The magnetic field at the centroid O of the triangle is:-

3A 3A

3A

1) 4.5 109 T  2) 3 3  10 7 T  3) 4.5  105 T  4) 1.5 3  105 T 

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Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Two concentric circular loops of radii r1  30cm and r2  40cm are placed in x-y plane as
shown in the figure. A current I  9 A is flowing through then in the direction as shown in
the fig. The net magnetic moment of this system of two circular loops is approximately.

40cm

30cm
I

ˆ 2
1) 1.96kAm ˆ 2
2) 196kAm ˆ 2
3) 1960JAm 4) None
8.
LIST-I (Current Configuration) LIST-II (Magnetic field at point ‘O’)
A O 2A
I B  2   1  105 T
2cm

B 2cm
II B    2   105 T
O

2A

C 2cm O III B    1  105 T

2A

D IV B    105 T

O 2cm

1) A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 2) A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III
3) A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV 4) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II

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9.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA
Given below are two statements.
02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper

Statement I : The magnetic field of circular current loop at very far away point on the axial
line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.
Statement II : The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of
the distance from the centre on the axial line.
In light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
10. Assertion(A):- In a uniform magnetic field , Speed and energy remains the same for a
moving charged particle.
Reason(R):- Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its
direction of motion.
1) If both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A)
2) If both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion(A)
3) If Assertion(A)is TRUE and Reason(R) is FALSE
4) If Assertion(A)is FALSE and Reason(R) is TRUE
11. A proton and an α-particle are projected with the same kinetic energy at right angles to the
uniform magnetic field. Which one of the following statements will be true.
1) The α-particle will bent in a circular path with a small radius than that for the proton
2) The radius of the path of the α-particle will be greater than that of the proton
3) The α-particle and the proton will be bent in a circular path with the same radius
4) The α-particle and the proton will go through the field in a straight line
12. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying according to the
relation    5t 4  4t 3  2t 2  6t  1 Weber. If the resistance of the coil is 6 ohm’s. then the
current through the coil is at t=2 sec. will be.
1)37A 2)16.6A 3)17.6A 4) 18.6A
13. A coil is placed in a transverse magnetic field of 0.02T. If this coil starts shrinking at a rate
of 1mm/sec. While its radius remains 4 cm, then the value of induced emf is.
1) 2V 2) 5V 3) 8V 4) 50V

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14.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
In an a.c. generator a rectangular coil of 200 turns having area 14  102 m2 is rotated at 360
rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 6.0T .The
maximum value of the e.m.f. produced will be
1)1584V 2)6336V 3)528V 4)4200V
15. An emf of 0.16V is Induced in a metal rod 10cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of
0.8T. When moves with a velocity of
1)3.2m/s 2)0.5m/s 3)20m/s 4)2m/s
16. Two concentric circular coils with radii 2cm and 1000 cm and number of turns 20 and 200
respectively are placed co-axially with center’s coinciding .The mutual inductance of this
arrangement will be….(approximately)
1) 8  108 H 2) 16  108 H 3) 32 108 H 4) 64 108 H
17. A 0.1 m long conductor carrying a current of 50 A is perpendicular to a magnetic field of
1.25mT.The mechanical power to move the conductor with a speed of 1 ms -1 is
1)0.25mW 2)6.25mW 3)0.625W 4)1W
18. Two coils are at fixed locations. When coil-1 has no current and the current in coil-2
increases at the rate of 15.0 As-1, the emf in coil-1 is 25mV, when coil-2 has no current and
coil-1 has current of 3.6 A, the flux linkage in coil-2 is
1)16mWb 2)10mWb 3)4.00mWb 4)6.00mWb
19. Statement-1: The induced e.m.f in a conducting loop of a wire will be non-zero when it
rotates in a uniform magnetic field.
Statement-2: The e.m.f may be induced due to change in magnetic filed.
1) If both statements are true and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement -I
2) If both statements are true and statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement –I
3) If statement –I is True and statement-II is FALSE
4) If statement –I is FALSE and statement-II is True
20. Statement-1: The nature of induced e.m.f. is always such, so that it always opposes the
change that causes it.
Statement-2: The direction of induced e.m.f is given by Lenz’s law.
1) If both statements are true and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement -I
2) If both statements are true and statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement –I
3) If statement –I is True and statement-II is FALSE
4) If statement –I is FALSE and statement-II is True
Sec: Sr. Elite & Target (C-120, C-IPL & IPL-IC) Page 6
 Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.

21. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field  4iˆ  5 ˆj  T . If it has an acceleration
8
of  2iˆ  xjˆ  m / sec 2 . Then the value of x  then “N” will be
N
22. Magnitude of magnetic field at the center of a hexagonal shape coil of side 5 cm,100 turn’s
I
and carrying current I(ampere) in units of 2000 x 0 Find ‘x’

23. As shown in the figure a metallic rod of linear density 0.15 3kg / m is lying horizontally on
a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle  with horizontal. The minimum current
30A flowing in the rod required to keep it, stationary, when 0.15T magnetic field is acting

on it in the vertical upward direction then  is then x will be…………..  g  10m / sec2 
x

24. A moving coil galvanometer has a coil with 200 turns and area 2cm2 , it uses a torsion
band of torsion constant 106 N  m / rad . The coil is placed in a magnetic field B parallel to

its plane. The coil deflects by 2 0 for a current 1mA. Then the value of B   10  x Tesla 
36
then the value of x is
25. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B 1 along its axis. If the
current is four times and number of turn’s per cm is halved, the new value of magnetic
field will be equal to B2  xB1 then x is

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26.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
The figure shows a square loop of wire with sides of length l =2cm. A magnetic field points
into the page and its magnitude is given by B  at 2 y where a  4Tm1s 2 , B is in tesla, t is in
second and y is in meter. Determine the emf induced in the loop at t =2.5sec is ……… V
y

B
l

O x
l

27. A wire bent as a parabola y  kx 2 is located in a uniform magnetic field of induction B, the
vector B being perpendicular to the plane x,y . At the moment t=0 a connector starts sliding
translation wise from the parabola apex with a constant acceleration a. The induced EMF as
xa
a function of y is given by By . The value of ‘x’ is ____
k

28. The network shown in the figure is part of a complete circuit. If at certain instant the current
I is 5A and it is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s, then VB−VA equals__ volt

29. When current in a coil change’s from 8A to 5A in 0.2 Sec average voltage of 60V is
produced. The self – Inductance(in H) of coil is
30. A solid metal cube of edge length 3 cm is moving in a positive y-direction at a constant
speed 5 m/s. There is a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T in the positive z- Direction. The
potential difference between the two face of the cube perpendicular to the x-axis is…….mV

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 Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA
CHEMISTRY
02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Max Marks: 100

(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
31. Which of the following is / are correct
A) Lanthanides forms type M 2O3 oxides and M  OH 3 hydroxides

B) Lanthanides forms LnC3 , LnC2 , LnC type carbides

C) All lanthanide ions are paramagnetic.
D) Misch metal is used in making of bullets, shells
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and D 4) All
32. Which of the following have no 6d electrons in their configuration?
A) Plutonium B) Neptunium C) Curium D) Einsteinium
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) A and D
33. How much amount of white precipitate formed by treating 0.1 moles of PtCl2 .2 NH 3 with
excess of AgNO3 ?
1)143.5 gram 2)287 gram 3) Zero gram 4) 28.7 gram
34. Which of the following match is correct
A) Co  NH 3 6 
3
d 2 SP 3 Inner orbital complex

B)  NiCl4 
2
SP 3 High spin complex

C) CoF6 
3
SP 3 d 2 Outer orbital complex

D)  Ni  CN 4 
2
dSP 2 Low spin complex

1) A and B 2) B and C 3) AB and C 4) ABC and D

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4
35. Spin only magnetic moment of  Fe  CN 6  is zero. what is the geometry of the complex
ion?
1) d 2 SP 3 octahedral 2) SP 3d 2 octahedral
3) SP 3 tetrahedral 4) dSP 2 square planar
36. Assertion:-In CuSO4 .5H 2O five hydrogen bonded water molecules are present
Reason:- Its primary valency is two and secondary valency is four
1) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect but R is correct
37. Assertion:- Potassium ferrocyanide is paramagnetic and potassium ferricyanide is
diamagnetic.
Reason :- In Potassium ferrocyanide Fe has unpaired electron and in Potassium ferricyanide
Fe has no unpaired electron
1) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) Both A and R are not correct
38. Assertion :- Geometrical isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes having 2
different types of unidentate ligands coordinated with the central metal ion
Reason:-The relative positions of the unidentate ligands attached to the central metal atom
are the same with respect to each other
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct
39. Oxidation numbers of central metal in Nessler’s reagent K 2 HgI 4 and brown ring complex

 

 Fe  H 2O 5 NO  SO4 of nitrate ion respectively are……...
 
1)1 and 2 2)2 and 1 3)1 and 3 4) 4 and 3
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40.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA
Which of the following is heteroleptic complex
02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper

A) CoCl3 .3NH 3 B) CoCl3 .4 NH 3 C) CoCl3 .5 NH 3 D) CoCl3 .6 NH 3

1) A and B 2) B and C 3) AB and C 4) A,B,C and D
41. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly
same atomic radii? (Numbers in the brackets are atomic numbers).
1) Zr (40) and Nb (41) 2) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
3) Zr (40) and Ta(73) 4) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
42. The correct order of ionic radii of Y 3 , La3 , Eu 3 and Lu 3 is
1) La3  Eu 3  Lu 3  Y 3 2) Y 3  La3  Eu 3  Lu 3
3) Y 3  Lu 3  Eu 3  La 3 4) Lu 3  Eu 3  La 3  Y 3
43. Co  NH 3 4  NO2 2  CI exhibits
1) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism
2) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
3) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
4) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism
44. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as
1) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate(III) 2) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
3) Sodium nitroferricyanide 4) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate(II)
45. Assertion :- Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to aniline
Reason:- Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to compounds containing N in nitro, azo
groups and N in ring, as nitrogen of these compounds does not changes to ammonium
sulphate
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct

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Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Statement-I:- Dumas method is used for the estimation of nitrogen , halogens, sulphur.
Statement-II:-In Dumas method, sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is
passed through copper gauze.
1) Both I and II are incorrect. 2) Both I and II are correct.
3) I is correct but II is incorrect 4) I is incorrect but II is correct
47. The number of moles of CuO, that will be utilized in Dumas method for estimation of
nitrogen in a sample of 230 gm of N,N- dimethyl amino pentane is ………
1)11.25 2)22.5 3)45 4)90
48. For the estimation of nitrogen, 2.8g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl
method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 80 ml of 0.2M sulphuric acid. The
unreacted acid required 40 ml of 0.4M sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The
percentage of the nitrogen in the compound is:
1)8% 2)80% 3)16% 4)1.6%
49. In the estimation of halogen by Carius method, which of the following is carried out
1) Oxidation of compound by conc.H2SO4
2) Heating of the compound with fuming nitric acid and AgNO3
3) Combustion of the compound
4) Dissolving of compound directly into aq. AgNO3
50. If 0.2 grams of an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen on
Combustion, yielded 0.147 grams carbon dioxide and 0.12 grams water. What will be the
Content of oxygen in the substance?
1)7.34% 2)73.4% 3)37.4% 4)3.74%
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5 questions
attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above
10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
51. Sum of the oxidation numbers of the metals present in the catalyst which is used in the
manufacturing of high-density polythene is ………….
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 Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
y
52. Primary valency is x and secondary valency is y for CoCl3 .4 NH 3 .then - x is …..
2
53. The number of elements present in the longest group of the periodic table is …….
54. The total number of moles of ions produced when one mole of potash alum is dissolved in
water is …………..
55. Calculate EAN of central atom/ion in K 4  Fe  CN 6 

56. In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.71 g an organic compound gave 0.287 of
AgCl. The percentage of chlorine in the compound is……….
57. In the sulphur estimation 1.28g of an organic compound gave 0.466g of barium sulphate .
The percentage of sulphur in the compound is ………%
58. If 0.1gr of an organic compound containing Phosphorus gave 0.222gr of Mg 2P2O7 then the
percentage of phosphorus in the compound is?
59. The transformation occurring in Duma’s method given below:
 y y z  y
C2 H 7 N   2 x   CuO  xCO2  H 2O  N 2   2 x   Cu
 2 2 2  2
The value of x is………..
60. How many of the following are correct statements?
1) Leibig method is used for the estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound.
2) Carius method is used for the estimation of halogens in an organic compound
3) Kjeldahl’s method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound
4) Carius method is not used in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound
5) Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of phosphorus present in an organic compound is
precipitated as Mg 2 P2O7 by adding magnesia mixture

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 Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA
MATHEMATICS
02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
61. A die is thrown. Then the probability of the event obtained is greater than 3, given that the
number obtain is less than 5.
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 5
62. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and bag II contains 4 red and 4 black balls. Two balls
are transferred at random from bag I to bag II and then a ball is drawn from bag II. The ball
so drawn is found to be red colour, then what is the probability that the transferred balls were
both black.
4 5 16 15
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 17 17 17
63. A and B throw a pair of dice alternately. A wins the game if he gets a total of 7 and B wins
the game if he gets a total of 10. If A starts the game, then what is the probability of B wins
the game.
6 7 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 17 17 17
64. A biased die is marked with numbers 2,4,8,16,32,64 on its faces and the probability of
1 2
getting a face with mark n is , if n=2,4,8,16,32 and for n=64. The die is thrown four
n n
2k  1
times. Then the probability of the sum of the numbers obtained is 72 is 2 k 1
then k is
2
1)5 2)6 3)7 4)9
65. Words with or without meaning are to be formed using all the letters of the word
SRICHAITANYA. The probability that the letter S appears at beginning place and ‘C ‘ at
ending place in any such word is
5 1 13 17
1) 2) 3) 4)
132 132 132 132

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66.
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
A machine operates if all of its three components function, the probability that the first
component fails during the year is 0.14, the second component fails is 0.10 and the third
component fails is 0.05. What is the probability that the machine will fail during the year?
1) 0.2647 2) 0.2467 3) 0.2746 4) 0.2674
67. Let A denote the set of all 4-distinct natural numbers with no digit being 0. Let B  A
consist of all numbers X such that no permutation of the digits of X gives a number that is
divisible by 4. Then the probability of drawing a number from B with all even digits is
1) 2) 3) 4)
68. A fair coin in tossed until a head or five tails occur. If X denotes the number of tosses of the
coin, then mean of X is
1)1.9999 2)1.999 3)1.99 4)1.9
x
1
69. A random variable X takes values 0,1,2,….with probability proportional to  x  1   then
5

5  P  x  1  is
1/2
 
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
3 2
70. The probability that A speaks truth is , while this probability for B is , the probability that
5 3
they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact is
7 11 4 8
1) 2) 3) 4)
15 15 15 15
71. If E1 and E2 are two events such that E1  E2 and P  E2   0 then the correct statement among
the following is
P  E1 
1) P  E1 / E2   P  E1  2) P  E1 / E2  
P  E2 
3) P  E1 / E2   P  E1  4) P  E1 / E2   P  E1 
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72.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
Assertion:-A coin is tossed 12 times, then the probability of getting exactly 8 consecutive
7
heads is
1024
Reason :- A coin is tossed (m+n) times (m>n), then the probability of getting exactly ‘m’
n3
consecutive heads is
2n  2
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct
73. Let E1 and E2 be two independent events of a random experiment

Statement-I: P  A  B1   P  A P  B1 

Statement-II: P  A1  B1   1  P  A   1  P  B  

1) Both I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation of I.

2) Both I and II are correct and II is not the correct explanation of I.
3) I is correct but II is not correct
4) I is not correct but II is correct
3 2
74. Let A and B are two events such that P  A  and P  B   then
5 3
4 3
Statement-I:  P  A  B 
15 5
2 A 9
Statement-II:  P   
5  B  10
1) Both I and II are correct and II is the not correct explanation of I.
2) Both I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation of I.
3) I is correct but II is not correct
4) I is not correct but II is correct

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75.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
A bag contains 3 white, 4 black, and 5 red balls. One by one 3 balls are drawn without
replacement. For only 3rd ball to be red ball, the probability is
21 31 23 33
1) 2) 3) 4)
132 132 132 132
76. Out of “n” pairs of shoes if r (<n) shoes are selected at random then what is the probability
that, there is no pair is

nC r nC r .2r nC r 2r nC k  n  k C 2r  2 k
1) 2) 3) 1  4) r 2k 

2nC r 2nC r 2nC r 2nC r

77. Assertion: If 20 persons are to sit around a table. The odds against two specified persons
together, is 17:2
Reason: If ‘n’ men among whom A and B sit along a circle then the odds against A and B
sitting together, is n-3:2
1) A is correct but R is not correct
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4) A is not correct but R is not correct
78. Assertion:- Two events A and B have probabilities 0.25 and 0.5 respectively. The probability
that both A and B occurs simultaneously is 0.14. Then the probability that neither A nor B
occurs is 0.39.
Reason :-A and B are any two events then P  A  B   1  P  A  B 

1) A is correct but R is not correct

2) A is not correct but R is correct
3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
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79.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
If three numbers are choosen randomly from the first 100 natural numbers, then the
probability that all the three of them are divisible by both 2 and 3 is
4 4 4 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
25 35 33 1155
80. A bag contains 12 red balls and 6 white balls, six balls are drawn one by one without
replacement of which atleast 4 balls are white. Find the probability that in the next two
draws exactly one white ball is drawn
3 1 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 119 5

(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)

Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
81. Assume that each born child is equally likely to be either a boy or a girl. If a family has two
children, What is the conditional probability that both are girls given that the youngest
is a girl is  then 12 =------------

82. A bag contains 5 Red balls, 15 Black balls and 10 green balls. Three balls are randomly

drawn, one-by-one, with replacement, the probability of the event that “all are different

coloured balls” is p, then 36p is.

83. 11 apples are distributed at random among 7 persons. The probability that atleast one of

m
them will receive none is then m  n is
n

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84.
Yashpatil TG~ @bohring_bot
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper
If three squares are chosen at random on a chess board. The probability that they lie on a

m
diagonal line is 64
then m is
C3

85. 10 letter are to be placed in 10 addressed envelopes. If the letters are placed at random the

probability that exactly one letter will be placed in wrong envelopes is

86. A box contains 4 nails and 6 nuts. Half of the nails and half of the nuts are rusted. If one

p
item is choosen at random. The probability that it is rusted or is nail is then p  q is
q

87. All the club cards are taken out from a pack of playing cards. From these cards, cards are

drawn one by one without replacement till the ace of club comes. The probability that ace

1
comes in the 5th drawn is then K 2 is
K

88. The probability of events A occurring is 0.4 and B occurring 0.2. If A and B are mutually

exclusive events, then the probability of neither A nor B occurring is p then 10p is

89. The probability that in a year of 22nd century chosen at random, there will be 53 Sundays is

r
then r  s is
s

90. For a party 10 guests are invited by a husband and his wife. They sit in row for dinner. The

probability that the husband and his wife sit together is K then 36K is

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 02-12-23_Sr.Elite & Target_Jee-Main_RPTM-15_Q.Paper

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