JEE Main 2024

JEE MAIN 2024
10 Full
Mock Tests
and Explanations
(As per Latest NTA Syllabus)
Contents
Note For the Students 3
Mock Test 1 5
Mock Test 2 79
Mock Test 3 153
Mock Test 4 226
Mock Test 5 298
Mock Test 6 381
Mock Test 7 468
Mock Test 8 548
Mock Test 9 627
Mock Test 10 714
Other Useful Resource - 795

JEE Main Exam’s High Scoring Chapters and Topics
JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Important Formulas
JEE Main 2024 Important Formulas for Physics
JEE Main Previous 10-Year Questions with Detailed Solutions
2
A Note to the
STUDENTS
Dear JEE Main Aspirant,
C ongratulations on taking the first step towards your dream of cracking the JEE Main! Your dedication
and determination to excel in this competitive exam are truly commendable. With the guidance of
experienced teachers, we will help you navigate this challenging journey successfully.
1. Understand the Exam Pattern

JEE Main comprises three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each subject is equally
important, so allocate your study time accordingly.
2. Master the Basics

Build a strong foundation in each subject by thoroughly understanding the fundamental concepts. Pay
close attention to the chapters that have been historically emphasized in the JEE Main.
3. Prioritize Important Chapters

• In Physics, focus on Mechanics, Electrodynamics, and Modern Physics.
• In Chemistry, pay special attention to Organic Chemistry and Physical Chemistry.
• In Mathematics, practice extensively in Algebra, Calculus, and Coordinate Geometry.
4. Create a Study Plan

Develop a well-structured study plan that allocates time for each subject and topic. Consistency is the
key, so stick to your schedule.
5. Quality Study Material

Use trusted study material and textbooks recommended for JEE Main preparation. It’s important to
study from reliable sources.
6. Practice Regularly
Solve a variety of problems and questions to enhance your problem-solving skills. Practice is essential
to succeed in JEE Main.
7. Take Mock Tests

Now, let’s talk about the importance of mock tests. They are invaluable tools in your preparation jour-
ney. The 10 mock tests you have in your eBook are a treasure trove of invaluable insights. Mock tests
provide you with a real-time exam experience, helping you manage your time effectively and reduce
exam anxiety. They help you identify your strengths and weaknesses, allowing you to focus on the areas
3
that need improvement. Detailed solutions and answer keys in your eBook will provide you with a deep
understanding of the exam pattern and the approach required to solve different types of questions.
8. Analyze Your Performance

After taking each mock test, analyze your performance meticulously. Identify the types of questions
where you made mistakes and work on improving those areas.
9. Stay Healthy and Stay Positive

Don’t neglect your physical and mental health. Have a balanced diet, get enough sleep, and take short
breaks during your study sessions. A healthy mind and body are essential for peak performance.
10. Stay Motivated

Keep your long-term goal in mind and stay motivated throughout your preparation.
Surround yourself with a supportive network of peers and mentors.
Remember, the journey to cracking JEE Main is not easy, but with dedication and smart preparation, you
can achieve your goal. The mock tests in your eBook are your secret weapon – use them wisely to fine-tune
your skills and approach.
Best of luck on your JEE Main journey.

Keep striving for excellence, and success will undoubtedly be yours!
Warm regards
Team Careers360
4
MOCK TEST - 1
Physics
Q. 1 A body weighs 49 N on a spring balance at the north pole. What will be its weight recorded
on the same weighing machine, if it is shifted to the equator ?
[use and radius of earth, R = 6400 km.]
Option 1:
49.17 N
Option 2:
49.83 N
Option 3:
49 N
Option 4:
48.83 N
Correct Answer:
48.83 N
Solution:
Q. 2 According to Bohr atom model, in which of the following transition will the frequency be
maximum ?
5
Option 1:
n = 5 to n = 4
Option 2:
n = 2 to n = 1
Option 3:
n = 3 to n = 2
Option 4:
n = 4 to n = 3
Correct Answer:
n = 2 to n = 1
Solution:
Q. 3 Which of the following equations represents a travelling wave ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
6
Q. 4 Zener breakdown occurs in a p - n junction having p and n both :
Option 1:
heavily doped and have a narrow depletion layer
'
Option 2:
lightly doped and have wide depletion layer
'
Option 3:
heavily doped and have a wide depletion layer
'
Option 4:
lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer
'
Correct Answer:
heavily doped and have a narrow depletion layer
'
Solution:
The basic principle of zener diode is the zener break down. When a diode is heavily doped, it's depletion
region will be narrow. When a high reverse voltage is applied across the junction, there will be very strong
electric field at the junction. And the electron hole pair generation takes place . Thus heavy current flows.
This is known as zener breakdown.
Q. 5 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : PN junction diodes can be used to function as transistor, simply by connecting

two diodes, back to back, which acts as the base terminal.
Statement II : In the study of transistor, the amplification factor indicates ratio of the
collector current to the base current.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
7
Option 1:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Option 2:
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are false
Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are true
Correct Answer:
Solution:
A transistor is device which makes current flow from a region of lower resistance (E-B junction which is
forward biased) to a region of higher resistance (C-B junction which is reversed biased), which is
controlled by middle region i.e. Base. Base is a very thin lightly doped region.
If we join two p-n junction diodes back to back, there will two things:
1. Doping: Usually p-n junction diodes have equal doping concentration in both regions. But for transistor
action, doping level should be in following order:
Emitter > Collector > Base
2. Size: Size of the different regions is different in a transistor with following order:
Collector > Emitter > Base
Collector is kept wider in order to dissipate heat generated during recombination. But joining two diodes
will make the base double the emitter size and also, the collector size will be same as emitter.
So, the two diodes can’t be joined as such.
So Statement I is false and Statement II is true
Q. 6
The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is Measured value of 'L' is 1.0
m from meter scale having a minimum division of 1 mm and time of one complete
oscillation is 1.95 s measured from stop watch of 0.01s resolution. The percentage error in
the determination of 'g' will be :
Option 1:
1.30 %
Option 2:
1.03 %
8
Option 3:
1.13 %
Option 4:
1.33 %
Correct Answer:
1.13 %
Solution:
Q. 7 An X - ray tube is operated at 1.24 million volt. The shortest wavelength of the produced
photon will be :
Option 1:
10 -2 nm
Option 2:
10 - 1 nm
Option 3:
10 -4 nm
'
Option 4:
10 -3 nm
Correct Answer:
10 -3 nm
Solution:
9
Q. 8 Figure shows a circuit that contains four identical resistors with resistance two
identical inductors with inductance and an ideal battery with emf
The current 'i' just after the switch 's' is closed will be :
Option 1:
9A
Option 2:
2.25 A
Option 3:
3.0 A
Option 4:
3.37 A
Correct Answer:
2.25 A
Solution:
Just when switch S is closed, inductor will behave like an infinite resistance. Hence, the circuit will be like
Given: V = 9 V
10
From V = IR
I = V/R
Req. = 2 + 2 = 4 Ω
i = 9/4 = 2.25 A
Q. 9 If one mole of an ideal gas at ( P1, V1) is allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally (A to B
), its pressure is reduced to one-half of the original pressure (see figure). This is followed by a
constant volume cooling till its pressure is reduced to one-fourth of the initial value
. Then it is restored to its initial state by a reversible adiabatic compression (C to
A). The net work done by the gas is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
11
Q. 10 In the given figure, a body of mass M is held between two massless springs, on a smooth
inclined plane. The free ends of the springs are attached to firm supports. If each spring has
spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation of given body is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Since the springs are in parallel, so the equivalent spring constant will be
Q. 11 Two electrons each are fixed at a distance '2d'. A third charge proton placed at the midpoint
is displaced slightly by a distance x (x << d) perpendicular to the line joining the two fixed
charges. Proton will execute simple harmonic motion having angular frequency : (m = mass
of charged particle)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
13
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
And we know that restoring force in SHM is given as
on comparing we get
Q. 12 A particle is projected with velocity along the x-axis. A damping force is acting on the
particle which is proportional to the square of the distance from the origin i.e. The distance
at which the particle stops:
14
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution :
Q. 13 If the source of light used in a Young's double slit experiment is changed from red to violet :
15
Option 1:
the fringes will become brighter.
Option 2:
the intensity of minima will increase.
Option 3:
the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.
Option 4:
consecutive fringe lines will come closer.
Correct Answer:
consecutive fringe lines will come closer.
Solution:
The options (1), (2) and (3) are related to the intensity changes. Since the intensity of light incident on the
slits is not changed hence there will be no change in the intensity of the fringes. These options are not
true.
And the fringe width is given as . In this experiment D and d are not changed only λ is changed.
Since the violet has smaller λ than the red light
(As λv<λR, so, βv< βR), so the fringe width will decrease. Hence the consecutive fringes will come closer.
Q. 14 When particle executes SHM, the nature of graphical representation of velocity as a function
of displacement is :
Option 1:
parabolic
Option 2:
circular
Option 3:
elliptical
Option 4:
straight line
Correct Answer:
elliptical
16
Solution:
When particle executes SHM, the velocity as a function of displacement is given as
This is an equation of an ellipse.
Q. 15 Match list - I with List - II
List - I List - II
(a) Source of microwave frequency (i) Radioactive decay of nucleus
(b) Source of infrared frequency (ii) Magnetron
(c) Source of Gamma Rays (iii) Inner shell electrons
(d) Source of X-rays (iv) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(v) LASER
(vi) RC circuit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (vi), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (vi), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (vi), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (v)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
17
(a) Source of microwave frequency – (ii) Magnetron
(b) Source of infrared frequency – (iv) Vibration of atom and molecules
(c) Source of gamma-ray – (i) Radioactive decay of the nucleus
(d) Source of X-ray – (iii) inner shell electron
Q. 16 A circular hole of radius is cut out of a circular disc of radius 'a' as shown in figure. The
centroid of the remaining circular portion with respect to point 'O' will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
18
Let be the surface mass density of the disc
then
As
Q. 17
The logic circuit shown above is equivalent to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
19
For above circuit
and
For above circuit
Q. 18 A soft ferromagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field. The magnetic domains:
Option 1:
increase in size but no change in orientation.
Option 2:
have no relation with external magnetic field.
Option 3:
decrease in size and changes orientation.
Option 4:
may increase or decrease in size and change its orientation.
Correct Answer:
may increase or decrease in size and change its orientation.
Solution:
Atoms of ferromagnetic material in unmagnetized state form domains inside the ferromagnetic material.
These domains have large magnetic moments of atoms. In the absence of a magnetic field, these
domains have magnetic moments in different directions. But when the magnetic field is applied, domains
aligned in the direction of the field grow in size, and those aligned in the direction opposite to the field
reduce in size, and also its orientation changes.
20
Q. 19 On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the gas exerts pressure because its molecules:
Option 1:
Continuously lose their energy till it reaches wall.
Option 2:
Suffer change in momentum when impinge on the walls of container.
Option 3:
are attracted by the walls of container.
Option 4:
Continuously stick to the walls of container.
Correct Answer:
Suffer change in momentum when impinge on the walls of container.
Solution:
Based on the kinetic theory of gases, molecules suffer a change in momentum when impinging on the
walls of the container. Due to this, they exert a force resulting in exerting pressure on the walls of the
container.
Q. 20 The de Broglie wavelength of a proton and - particle are equal. The ratio of their velocities
is :
Option 1:
4:1
Option 2:
4:2
Option 3:
1:4
Option 4:
4:3
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
21
The de-Broglie equation is given by:
So, If the de-Broglie wavelength for both the proton and alpha particle is the same then
And using
Q. 21 Two solids A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are moving with equal linear
momentum. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be So the value
of A will be ___________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 22 The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27o C and 1
atmosphere pressure is 200 ms -1. The root mean sqaure speed of molecules of the gas at
127o C and 2 atmosphere pressure is ms -1. The value of x will be ______.
Correct Answer:
400
Solution:
The rms velocity of gas molecules,
So
22
So
x=400
Q. 23 A uniform metallic wire is elongated by 0.04 m when subjected to a linear force F. The
elongation, if its length and diameter is doubled and subjected to the same force will be
_______cm.
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 24 A series LCR circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency The

circuit draws 16 W power from 120 V source at resonance. The value of resistance 'R' in the
circuit is ________ .
23
Correct Answer:
900
Solution:
Q. 25 A signal of 0.1 kW is transmitted in a cable. The Attenuation of cable is -5 dB per km and

cable length is 20 km. The power received at receiver is 10 -x W. The value of x is ______.
[Gain in ]
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Power of signal transmitted:
Rate of attenuation =-
The total length of path =20 Km
Total loss suffered =
Q. 26 A cylindrical wire of a radius 0.5 mm and conductivity is subjected to an

electric field of 10 mV/m. The expected value of current in the wire will be The
value of x is _________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
24
Q. 27 Two cars are approaching each other at an equal speed of 7.2 km/hr. When they see each
other, both blow horns having frequency of 676 Hz. The beat frequency heard by each driver
will be ______Hz. [ Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.]
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Speed of each car= 7.2 km/h = 2 m/s
Frequency of sound heard by car-1, which comes by reflection from car-2
Frequency of sound coming directly from car-2
Q. 28 An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative electric

permittivity 2.25 from vacuum. The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be _______
Correct Answer:
667
Solution:
25
wavelength ( )in vacuum
Where refractive index=
Assuming non-magnetic material
Q. 29 A point charge of is at a distance 6 cm vertically above the center of a square of

side 12 cm as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric flux through the square will
be _______
Correct Answer:
226
Solution:
The above figure is a part of cube of side 12 cm and a charge at the centre,
Using Gauss law and due to symmetry
26
Q. 30 A uniform thin bar of mass 6 kg and length 2.4 meter is bent to make an equilateral
hexagon. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and
perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is ______
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
As total mass =6 kg
So m = mass of one side of hexagon = 1 kg
and total length=2.4 meter
So
Chemistry
Q. 1 The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species
and respectively are :
Option 1:
27
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
as Cl– in a weak field liquid.
is strong field ligand & causes pairing & hence no. unpaired electron.
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
Q. 2 What is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
28
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The decrease in metallic radius coupled with the increase in atomic mass results in a general increase in
the density of these elements. Thus, from titanium (Z = 22) to copper (Z = 29) the a significant increase in
the density.
Given data in NCERT.
From the above data, the order will be-
Q. 3
Which of the following reagent is suitable for the preparation of the product in the above
reaction ?
Option 1:
NaBH4
Option 2:
Option 3:
Red P + Cl2
Option 4:
Ni/H2
Correct Answer:
Solution:
29
In the given reaction, only the carbonyl group has been reduced while the carbon- carbon double bonds
are unaltered.
This is possible with the help of Wolf Kishner Reduction whose reagent set is given in Opiton (2)
Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 4 The correct shape and I-I-I bond angles respectively in ion are :
Option 1:
Trigonal planar ; 120o
Option 2:
Distorted trigonal planar; 135o and 90o
Option 3:
T- shaped; 180o and 90o
Option 4:
Linear ; 180o
Correct Answer:
Linear ; 180o
Solution:
The structure of the tri-iodide ion is given as
It is linear having and I-I-I bond angle of
Q. 5 The incorrect statement among the following is :
Option 1:
is an oxidizing agent
Option 2:
is an amphoteric oxide
30
Option 3:
Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of
Option 4:
is a reducing agent
Correct Answer:
Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of
Solution:
The red colour of Ruby is due to the presence of and not .
is an oxidizing agent due to +8 oxidation state of Ru
is an amphoteric oxide, is basic oxide while is acidic oxide
is a reducing agent
Hence, the incorrect statement is given in Option (3)
Q. 6 Match List - I with List - II
List - I List - II
(Salt) (Flame colour wavelength)
(a) (i) 455.5 nm
(b) (ii) 670.8 nm
(c) (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) (iv) 589.2 nm
Option 1:
(a) - (i) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
31
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Solution:
The combination of Metals along with the wavelength of the light involved in flame test is given as:
The correct combination is
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
List - I List - II
(Metal) (Ores)
(a) Aluminium (i) Siderite
(b) Iron (ii) Calamine
(c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite
(d) Zinc (iv) Malachite
Option 1:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
Option 3:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Solution:
32
The principal ores of aluminum, iron, copper, and zinc have been given below:
From above table, this matching is correct (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3).
Q. 8 Match List-I and List-II.
List I List II
(a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug
(b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia
(c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic
(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer
Option 1:
(a) - (i) , (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 2:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
33
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Solution:
Substances used as tranquillizers are valium and serotonin.
Norethindrone is an Antifertility drug.
Morphine is an Analgesic.
Deficiency of Vitamin B12 cause the disease Pernicious anaemia (RBC deficiency in haemoglobin)
The correct matching is (a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Q. 9 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other os labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most
abundant gas in the troposphere.
Reason R : Hydrogen is the lightest element.
below :
Option 1:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
A is false but R is true
Option 3:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Option 4:
A is true but R is false
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It is fact.
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most abundant gas in the
troposphere because hydrogen is the lightest element.
34
Hence, the correct answer is Option (1).
Q. 10 Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water on
an alkyne in the presence of and ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of Alkyne with HgSO4 and H2SO4 occur as
Hydration of Alkynes proceed by the Markovnikov addition in which the carbonyl group is added at that
carbon which has more number of Hydrogens. So usually we will obtain a ketone as a major product.
It is only acetylene which can lead to the formation of an aldehyde due to hydration.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (3).
35
Q. 11 Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient clotting of blood will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Blood is a colloidal solution of an albuminoid substance. The styptic action of alum and ferric chloride
solution is due to coagulation of blood-forming a clot which stops further bleeding.
Blood is a negative sol. According to hardy-Schulz's rule, the cation with high charge has high coagulation
power. Hence, FeCl3 can be used for clotting blood.
Q. 12 Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Cyclic and completely conjugated compounds may be aromatic or anti-aromatic compounds.
It is not completely in cyclic conjugation , so it is non-aromatic compound.
Statement I : The value of the parameter " Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)" is important
for survival of aquatic life.
Statement II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
37
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both Statement I and statement II are true
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I is correct.
Statement II is incorrect.
If too much of organic matter is added to water, all the available oxygen is used up. This causes oxygen-
dependent aquatic life to die. The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic
matter present in a certain volume of a sample of water, is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the water, in terms of
how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have BOD value of
less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more.
Q. 14 The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction is :
Option 1:
(iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
Option 2:
(i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
Option 3:
(iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)
Option 4:
(iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
38
Correct Answer:
(i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
Solution:
Reactivity -M group present at O/P position.
As the number of -M group increases the reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction increases.
Correct order: (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
Q. 15 The diazonium salt of which of the following compounds will form a coloured dye on
reaction with - Naphthol in ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
39
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Aniline will form a coloured dye.
Q. 16 According to Bohr's atomic theory :
(A) Kinetic energy of electron is
(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n), 'vn'
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit is
(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
40
Option 1:
(C) only
Option 2:
(A) and (D) only
Option 3:
(A) only
Option 4:
(A), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer:
(A) and (D) only
Solution:
Statements (A) and (D) are correct.
41
Q. 17 Match List -I and List -II.
Option 1:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -(iv), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) -(i), (d) - (iii)
Option 3:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) -(iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) -(i), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
42
Q. 18 The correct set from the following in which both pairs are in correct order of melting point is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Generally
43
Due to ion size is small of Li and Mg.
They will have higher melting points.
Q. 19 What is the correct sequence of reagents used for converting nitrobenzene into m-
dibromobenzene ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
44
Q. 20 In Polymer Buna - S : 'S' stands for :
Option 1:
Styrene
Option 2:
Sulphonation
Option 3:
Sulphur
Option 4:
Strength
Correct Answer:
Styrene
Solution:
Buna-S is the co-polymer of Buna- 1, 3 diene & styrene.
So, In polymer Buna-S, 'S' stands for styrene.
45
Q. 21 The total number of amines among the following which can be synthesized by Gabriel
synthesis is _______.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Only primary aliphatic amines can be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis while Aromatic amines
cannot.
Out, of the given compounds, (A), (B), and (C) are primary aliphatic amines while only (D) is an aromatic
amine.
Hence (A), (B), and (C) can be prepared by Gabriel synthesis.
The total number of amines will be 3.
Answer : 3
Q. 22 Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K for the following reaction at 25oC is
The value of x is ______(Integer answer)
[Given :
Correct Answer:
855
Solution:
46
Answer : 855
Q. 23 The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which requires 6 times of its own volume of for
complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own volume of is The value of y is
__________.
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Answer : 8
Q. 24 1.86 g of aniline completely reacts to form acetanilide. 10% of the product is lost during
purification. Amount of acetanilide obtained after purification (in g) is _______ .
Correct Answer:
243
Solution:
Given,
47
Answer : 243
Q. 25 Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate law
with a half life of 3.33 h at 25o C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The value
of is ____________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Assume : In 10 = 2.303, In 2 = 0.693]
Correct Answer:
81
Solution:
Answer : 81
48
Q. 26 Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which will
show para magnetism is ______
(A) - sulphur (B) - sulphur (C) S2 - form
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
S2 is like O2 i;e paramagnetic as per molecular orbital theory.
both are diamagnetic.
So, only S2-form is paramagnetic.
Answer : 1
Q. 27 The magnitude of the change in oxidising power of the couple is

if the concentration is decreased from 1 M to 10 M at 25oC. (Assume
-4
concentration of and to be same on change in concentration). The value

of x is _________(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
3776
Solution:
Answer : 3776
49
Q. 28 freezes at 5.5o C. The temperature at which a solution of 10 g of in 200 g of
freeze is ______oC. (The molal freezing point depression constant of is
5.12oC/m.)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Answer : 1
Q. 29 The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas at 50oC and 740 mmHg pressure is _______L.
(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Given R = 0.0826 L atm K-1 mol -1]
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
50
Answer ; 5
Q. 30 The solubility product of is The solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar

solution of lead nitrate is The value of x is ______. (Rounded off to the
nearest integer)
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
141
Solution:
Answer : 141
51
Maths
Q. 1 If P is a point on the perabola which is closest to the straight line ,
then the co-ordinates of P are:
Option 1:
(3,13)
Option 2:
(2,8)
Option 3:
(-2,8)
Option 4:
(1,5)
Correct Answer:
(2,8)
Solution:
Point P lies on the parabola
If tangent drawn at point P then the distance between P and the given line is the shotest only when the
tangent is parallel to the line
Hence slope of the tangent and line is same.
Slope of the line is
52
Q. 2 For the system of linear equation :
consider the following statement
(A) The system has unique solution if
(B) The system has unique solution if
(C) The system has unique solution if
(D) The system has no-solution if
(E) The system has infinite number of solutions if
Which of the following statement are correct ?
Option 1:
(B) and (E) only
Option 2:
(A) and (E) only
Option 3:
(A) and (D) only
Option 4:
(C) and (D) only
Correct Answer:
(A) and (D) only
Solution:
so, A is correct and B, C, E are incorrect.
If K=2
So no solution D is correct.
53
Q. 3 Let a, b,c be in arithmetic progression. Let the centroid of the triangle with vertices
and be If are the roots of the equation
then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
54
Q. 4
The value of the integral where denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to x, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
55
Q. 5 For which of the following curves, the line is the tangent at the point
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of tangent at point form is
Q. 6 Let A and B be real matrices such that A is symmetric matrix and B is skew -
symmetric matrix. Then the system of linear equations , where X
is a column matrix of unknown variables and O is a null matrix, has :
56
Option 1:
infinitely many solutions
Option 2:
no solution
Option 3:
a unique solution
Option 4:
exactly two solutions
Correct Answer:
infinitely many solutions
Solution:
C is skew symmetric.
So
so system have infinite solutions.
Q. 7
A possible value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
57
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 The vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes
and and the point is :
Option 1:
58
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 The negation of the statement is :
Option 1:
59
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 Let f be a twice differentiable function defined on R such that and

for all If , for all then the value of lies
in the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
60
Q. 11 Let be a differentiable function defined on such that for all
and Then the value of dx is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
61
Q. 12 If is a positive integer, then the sum of the series
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
62
Solution:
Q. 13 The probability that two randomly selected subsets of the set {1,2,3,4,5} have exactly two
elements in their intersection, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
63
Q. 14 The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A on the ground is 60o. After a flight of 20
seconds at the speed of 432 km/hour, the angle of elevation changes to 30o. If the jet plane
is flying at a constant height, then its height is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
64
From (1)
Q. 15 Let be defined as
Let . Then A is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
65
Q. 16 For the statements p and q, consider the following compound statements :
(a)
(b)
Then which of the following statements is correct ?
Option 1:
(b) is a tautology but not (a).
Option 2:
(a) is a tautology but not (b).
Option 3:
(a) and (b) both are not tautologies.
Option 4:
(a) and (b) both are tautologies.
Correct Answer:
(a) and (b) both are tautologies.
Solution:
66
Q. 17 If the curve passes through the point and the tangent line
to this curve at origin is then the possible values of a , b, c are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
67
Q. 18 The area of the region : is :
Option 1:
square units
Option 2:
square units
Option 3:
square units
Option 4:
square units
Correct Answer:
square units
Solution:
Q. 19
If a curve passes through the point and satisfies then
for what value of b,
Option 1:
68
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Let If the mirror image of the point with respect to the line
is then is equal to :
Option 1:
69
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here Q is the mirror image of Point P
Therefore midpoint of P and Q lies on the given line
Midpoint of PQ is
Q. 21
Let If and be the greatest
integral part of Then is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
310
Solution:
70
Q. 22 If the area of the triangle formed by the x-axis, the normal and the tangent to the circle
at the point is A, then 24 A is equal to _______.
Correct Answer:
1225
Solution:
71
Equation of normal
and equation of tangents
Q. 23 Let a point P be such that its distance from the point is thrice the distance of P from
the point . If the locus of the point P is a circle of radius r, then is equal to
________.
Correct Answer:
56.25
Solution:
72
Q. 24
For integers n and r, let
The maximum value of k for which the sum
exists, is equal to _____
Option 1:
Not defined
Option 2:
25
Option 3:
26
Option 4:
15
Correct Answer:
Not defined
Solution:
Similarly,
73
So,
As per the question, is defined for all integral values of n as well as r
so always exists
Now k is unbounded so maximum value is not defined.
Q. 25
If and then the value of
the expression is ________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
74
Q. 26 The students are to be divided into 3 groups A, B and C such that each
group has at least one student and the group C has at most 3 students. Then the total
number of possibilities of forming such groups is _______.
Correct Answer:
31650
Solution:
If group C has one student then number of groups
If group C has two students then number of groups
If group C has three students then number of groups
So total groups =31650
Q. 27
The sum of first four terms of a geometric progression (G.P.) is and the sum of their
respective reciprocals is . If the product of first three terms of the G.P. is 1, and the third
term is , then is ________
Solution:
Sum of n-term of a GP
Let Sn be the sum of n terms of the G.P. with the first term ‘a’ and common ratio ‘r’. Then
The above formula does not hold for r = 1, For r = 1 the sum of n terms of the G.P. is .
Now,
75
Q. 28 If the variance of 10 natural numbers {1,1,1.......1, k} is less than 10, then the maximum
possible value of k is _______.
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
76
Q. 29 Let be an integer. If the shortest distance between the lines
and is then the value of is ________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
77
Q. 30
The number of the real roots of the equation is _________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
CASE 1:
CASE 2:
78
MOCK TEST - 2
Physics
Q. 1 The pitch of the screw gauge is 1mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. When
nothing is put between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 8 divisions below the
reference line. When a wire is placed between the jaws, the first linear scale divisions is
clearly visible while 72nd divisions on circular scale coincides with the reference line. The
radius of wire is:
Option 1:
0.82 mm
Option 2:
1.80 mm
Option 3:
1.64 mm
Option 4:
0.90mm
Correct Answer:
0.82 mm
Solution:
79
Q. 2 The angular frequency of alterating current in a L-C-R circuit is 100rad/s. The components
connected are shown in the figure. Find the value of inductance of coil and capacity of
condenser.
Option 1:
1.33 H and 250
Option 2:
0,8 H and 250
Option 3:
1,33 H and 150
Option 4:
0.8 H and 150
Correct Answer:
0,8 H and 250
Solution:
Since the key is open So the new circuit will be as given below
Now
80
Q. 3
A diatomuc gas, having and , is heated at constant pressure. The
ratio dU : dQ : dW:
Option 1:
3:7:2
Option 2:
5:7:2
Option 3:
5:7:3
Option 4:
3:5:2
Correct Answer:
5:7:2
Solution:
81
Q. 4 A solid sphere of radius R gavitationally attracts a particle placed at 3R from its centre with a
force F1. Now a spherical cavity radius is made in the sphere (as shown in the image)
and the force becomes F2. The value F1 :F2 is:
Option 1:
41 :50
Option 2:
36:25
Option 3:
50:41
Option 4:
25 :36
Correct Answer:
50:41
Solution:
Let the initial mass of the sphere is M.
If a spherical part of radius is taken out from the big sphere, then the mass of the remaining sphere is
Hence mass of removed portion will be
82
From the figure it is clear that
From superposition principle,
Here force due to remaining part

force due to mass on the cavity
As
Q. 5 Two coherent light sources having intensity in the ratio 2x product interference pattern. The
ratio will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
83
Q. 6 Two radioactive substances X and Y originally have N1 and N2 nuclei respectively. Half-life of
X is half of the half-life of Y. After three half lives of Y, the number of nuclei of both is equal.
The ratio will be equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
84
Q. 7 The current (i) at time t=0 and t= respectively for the given circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At t = 0, inductor is open
So the corresponding equivalent circuit is given below
85
At , For steady state inductor is replaced by plane wire
So the corresponding equivalent circuit is given below
We can reduce the above circuit to the below circuit.
Q. 8 In an octagon ABCDEFGH of equal side, what is the sum of
if
86
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know
By triangle law of vector addition, we can write
After adding them and using equation (1)
87
Q. 9 A 5V battery is connected across the points X and Y. Assume and to be normal silicon
diodes. Find the current supplied by the battery if the +ve terminal of the battery is
connected to point X.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For above figure is in forward bias and is in reverse bias.
So only will work
88
and we know for silicon diode, potential drop on will be 0.7 V
Q. 10 A proton, a deuteron, and an particle are moving with the same momentum in a uniform
magnetic field. The ratio of magnetic forces acting on them is _____ and their speed is
________ in the ratio.
Option 1:
4:2:1 and 2:1:1
Option 2:
2:1:1 and 4:2:1
Option 3:
1:2:4 and 2:1:1
Option 4:
1:2:4 and 1:1:2
Correct Answer:
2:1:1 and 4:2:1
Solution:
The magnetic force is given as
89
Q. 11 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Asseration A and other labelled as Reason
R.
Asseration A: When a rod lying freely is heated, no thermal stress is developed in it.
Reason R: On heating, the length of the rod increases.
In the light of the above sentaences , choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If a rod is free and is heated then there is no thermal stress produced in it.
and The rod will expand due to an increase in temperature.
So, both A & R are true.
But R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Q. 12 Given below are the two statements;
Statement I: A speed signal of 2kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of 1MHz. The
bandwidth requirement for the signal is 4kHz.
Statement II: The side band frequiences are 1002 kHz and 998 kHz.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option.
Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
90
Option 2:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Option 4:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So statement-I and statement-II both are correct.
Q. 13 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Asseration A and other labelled as Reason
R.
Asseration A: The escape velocities of planet A and b are same. But A and B are unequal
mass.
Reason R: The product of their mass and radius must be same. M1R1 = M2R2
In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Option 1:
Both A and R are true and R is corrcet explanation of A
Option 2:
A is correct but R is not correct
Option 3:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the corrcet explanation of A
Option 4:
A is not correct but R is correct
Correct Answer:
Solution:
91
For the same escape velocities
So
The escape velocities of planet A and b are same. But A and B are unequal mass. if they satisfy the
condition
So A is correct but R is not correct
Q. 14 An particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200V. After
this, their de Brogile wavelengths are respectively. The ratio is:
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
7.8
Option 3:
3.8
Option 4:
2.8
Correct Answer:
2.8
Solution:
Q. 15 If the time period of two meter long simple pendulum is 2s, the acceleration due to gravity at
the place where pendulum is executing S.H.M is:
92
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 Two statellites A and B of masses 200kg and 400kg are revolving round the earth at height of
600km and 1600km respectively.
If TA and TB are the time periods of A and B respectively then the value of TB - TA
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
93
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So
Q. 17 An engine of train, moving with uniform acceleration, passes the signal -post with velocity u
and last compartment with velocity v. The velocity with which the middle point of the train
passes the signal post is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
94
a = uniform acceleration
u = velocity of first compartment
v = velocity of last compartment
2d= length of the train
C= middle point of the train
Now using 3rd equation of motion
we get
and
On solving both, we get
Q. 18 Magnetic field at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of 0.005m and 0.2m
from the centre are in the ratio 8:1. The radius of coil is ___
Option 1:
0.2 m
Option 2:
0.15 m
Option 3:
0.1 m
Option 4:
1m
Correct Answer:
0.1 m
95
Solution:
We know, the magnetic field on the axis of a current-carrying circular ring is given by
Q. 19 Match List I with List II.
List I List II
a. h(Plank's constant) i.
b. E(kinetic energy) ii.
c. V (electric potential) iii.
d. P (linear momentum) iv.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Option 2:
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Option 3:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Option 4:
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
96
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 A student is performing the experiment of resonance column. The diameter of the column
tube is 6cm. The frequency of the tuning fork is 504Hz.. Speed of the sound at the given
temperature is 336m/s. The zero of the meter scale coincides with the top end of the
resonance column tube. The reading of the water level in the column when the first
resonance occurs is:
Option 1:
13 cm
Option 2:
14.8 cm
Option 3:
18.4 cm
Option 4:
16.6 cm
Correct Answer:
14.8 cm
Solution:
Q. 21 A small bob tied at one end of a string of the length 1m is describing vertical circle so that
the maximum and minimum tension in the string is in the ratio 5:1. The velocity of the bob
at the highest position is __________m/s (take g= 10 m/s2)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
97
Let the speed of bob at the lowest position be and at the highest position be . Maximum tension is
at the lowest position and minimum tension is at the highest position.
Now, using, conservation of mechanical energy,
So
Thus, the velocity of the bob at the highest position is 5 m/s.
Q. 22 A monoatomic gas of mass 4.0u is kept in an isulated container. Container is moving with
velocity 30m/s. If container is suddenly stopped then change in temperature of the gas (R=
gas constant) is . Value of x is________
98
Correct Answer:
3600
Solution:
Q. 23
The electric field in a region is given by . The ratio of flux of
reported field through the rectangular surface of area 0.2m2 (parallel by y-z plane) to that of
the surface of area 0.3m2 (parallel by x-z plane) is a:b , where a =________
[Here are unit vectors along x,y and z respectively]
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 24 In a certain thermodynamical process, the pressure of a gas depends on the volume as .

The work done when the temperature changes from to will be __________nR,
where n denotes the number of moles of a gas.
99
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 25 512 identical drops of mercury are charged to potential of 2V each. The drops are joined to
form a single drop. The potential of this drop is _______V.
Correct Answer:
128
Solution:
Let charge on small drop=q
and charge on big drop=Q
then
Q. 26 The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or at
10cm from the lens. The focal length convex lens is_____cm.
100
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
After doing
we get
Q. 27 A coil of inductance 2H having negligible resistance is connected to source of supply whose

voltage is given by V=3t volt. (where t is second). If the voltage is applied when t=0, then the
energy stored in the coil after 4s is _______
Correct Answer:
144
Solution:
for t=4 sec
i= 12 A
101
Q. 28 In the given circuit of the potentiometer, the potential difference E across AB (10 m length) is
larger than E1 and E2 as well. For key K1 (closed), the jockey is adjusted to touch the wire at
J1 so that there is no deflection in the galavanometer. Now the first battery (E1) is replaced by
the second battery (E2) for working by making K1 open and K2 closed. The galvanometer
gives then null deflection at J2. The value of is where a = ______
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Length of AB=10 m
For battery , balancing length is and [from end A]
For battery , balancing length is and [from end A]
Now, we know that
Q. 29 A transmitting station releases wavelength 960m. A capacitor of 256 is used in the

resonant circuit. The self-inductance of the coil is necessary for resonance is ________
102
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given
Now at resonance,
[where =Resoant frequency]
Q. 30 The potential energy (U) of diatomic molecule is a function dependent on r (interatomic

distance) as
where, are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between two atoms will be
, where a = _______
Correct Answer:
1
103
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: can be used for the oxidation of aldehydes and ketones.
Statement II: Aqueous solution of is the strong reducing agent.
below.
Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
CeO2 can be used as oxidizing agent like SeO2.
Similarly, EuSO4 used as a reducing agent.
104
Q. 2 Compound(s) which will liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate solution is /are:
Option 1:
B and C only
Option 2:
C only
Option 3:
B only
Option 4:
A and B only
Correct Answer:
B and C only
Solution:
Compounds that are more acidic then H2CO3, gives CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3.
Compound B i.e. Benzoic acid and compound C i.e. picric acid both are more acidic than H2CO3.
So, B and C only will liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate solution.
105
Q. 3 Which of the following reaction/s will not give p-Aminoazobenzene ?
Option 1:
A and B only
Option 2:
A only
Option 3:
B only
Option 4:
C only
Correct Answer:
B only
Solution:
As we have learnt,
p- Aminoazobenzene is obtained as a result of electrophilic aromatic substitution of Benzene diazonium

cation on Aniline.
Therefore, reactions (A) and (C) form p-Aminoazobenzene as shown below
106
B will not give p-Aminoazobenzene.
Statement I : An allotrope of oxygen is an important intermediate in the formation of

reducing smog.
Statement II: Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur present in troposphere
contribute to the formation of photochemical smog.
below.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Statement I and Statement II are false
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Statement I and Statement II are false
Solution:
Classical smog is called as reducing smog. The reducing character is due to the presence of sulphur
dioxide.
Ozone is a component of Photochemical Smog. Other components of Photochemical smog include

Nitrogen oxides, Acrolein and Peroxy acetyl nitrate.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

107
Q. 5 In which of the following pairs, the outer most electronic configuration will be same?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The outer most electronic configurations-
In , the outer most electronic configuration is same.
108
Q. 6 The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH= 3 is x. The value of x is:
[Assume : no cyano complex is formed ; and

]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 Which statement is correct?
Option 1:
Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen
Option 2:
Buna -S is a synthetic and linear thermosetting polymer
109
Option 3:
Buna -N is a natural polymer
Option 4:
Neoprene is an addition copolymer used in plastic bucket manufacturing
Correct Answer:
Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen
Solution:
Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen.
Buna -S is a synthetic and Elastomers.
Buna -N is a Synthetic polymer
Neoprene is an addition copolymer used for manufacturing conveyor belts, gaskets and hoses.
Therefore, option 1 is correct.
Q. 8 The plots of radial distribution functions for various orbitals of hydrogen atom against 'r' are
given below:
The correct plot for 3s orbital is:
Option 1:
B
110
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
D
Correct Answer:
D
Solution:
3s orbital Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1
For 3s orbital n = 3 , l = 0
Number of radial nodes = 3 – 0 – 1 = 2
It is correctly represented in graph of option D
Q. 9 Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in lactose?
Option 1:
C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose
Option 2:
C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose
Option 3:
Option 4:
C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Lactose is given below:
111
C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose form the glycosidic linkage.
Q. 10 According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The bond order of Be2 is zero,
So it does not exist.
Q. 11 Complete combustion of 1.80g of an oxygen containing compound gave 2.64 g

of CO2 and 1.08 g of . The percentage of oxygen in the organic compound is:
Option 1:
50.33
Option 2:
63.53
112
Option 3:
53.33
Option 4:
53.63
Correct Answer:
53.33
Solution:
Q. 12 Which of the following equation depicts the oxidizing nature of ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
113
Oxygen reduces from –1 to –2 So, its reduction will takes place.
Hence it will behave as oxidising agent or it shows oxidising nature. While in other option it change from
(–1) to 0.
Q. 13 Identify A and B in the chemical reation.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
114
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 In Freundlich adsorption isotherm at moderate pressure, the extent of adsorption is

directly proportional to Px. The value of x is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
115
Q. 15 Identify A in the given chemical reaction:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction is an example of Aromatisation and occurs as
116
Q. 16 The major product of the following chemical reaction is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Which of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde?
117
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The hybridization and magnetic nature of and , respectively

are:
Option 1:
and diamagnetic
Option 2:
and diamagnetic
Option 3:
and paramagentic
Option 4:
and paramagentic
Correct Answer:
and paramagentic
Solution:
118
hybridization is d2sp3
and magnetic nature is paramagnetic due to
Q. 19 Ellingham diagram is a graphical representation of:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ellingham diagram tells us about the spontanity of a reaction with temperature.
Q. 20 The correct statement about is:
119
Option 1:
Its fragment, behaves as a Lewis base
Option 2:
Terminal B-H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridge bonds.
Option 3:
Two B-H-B bonds are not same length
Option 4:
All B-H-B angles are of
Correct Answer:
Terminal B-H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridge bonds.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
behaves as a Lewis acid.
The two B-H-B bonds are not of the same length.
Terminal B-H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridged bonds and hence the bridged
bonds are longer.
All B-H-B angles are not
The terminal bond angle is greater than that of the bridged bond angle.
The structure of diborane is given below :
120
Q. 21 Using the provided information in the following paper chromatogram:
the calculated value of A ______
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
On chromatogram distance travelled by the compound is = 2 cm
Distance travelled by solvent = 5 cm
So,
Q. 22 The reaction of cyanamide, with oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter and
was found to be -724.24kJmol-1 for the reaction
is _______kJ. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Assume ideal gases and R =8.314J mol-1 K-1]
Correct Answer:
-741
Solution:
121
Answer : 741
Q. 23 A car tyre is filled with nitrogen gas as 35 psi and . It will brust of pressure exceeds 40
psi. The temperature in at which the car tyre will burst is ______ (Rounded off to the
nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
70
Solution:
T1 = 27oC = 273 + 27 K = 300 K
Q. 24 In basic medium oxidizes to form and itself changes into .

The volume of 0.154 M required to react with 40mL of 0.25 M is _____ mL .
Correct Answer:
173
Solution:
122
Applying mole-mole analysis
Answer : 173
Q. 25 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the
solution at 1 atm is _____ K (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
375
Solution:
Now, we know
And
Answer : 375 K
Q. 26 The ionization enthalpy of Na+ formation from Na is 495.8 kJ mol-1 , while the electron gain
enthalpy of Br is -325.0 kJ mol-1 . Given the lattice enthaply of NaBr is -728.4 kJ mol-1 . The
energy for the formation of NaBr ionic solid is (-) _________
123
Correct Answer:
5576
Solution:
Answer : 5576
Q. 27 Among the following the number of halide(s) which is /are inert to hydrolysis is___
(A) BF3
(B) SiCl4
(C) PCl5
(D) SF6
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
SF6 is inert to hydrolysis due to the presence of sterically protected sulphur atom by six F atoms which
does not permit the reactions like hydrolysis to take place.
Only 1 halide is inert to hydrolysis.
Q. 28 Consider the following chemical reaction
The number of hybridized carbon atom(s) present in the product is ____
124
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
There are total 7 carbon atoms in benzaldehyde and all are sp2 .
Q. 29
For the reaction, , the plot of is given below :
The temperature at which the rate constant of reaction is is ______(Rounded off to

the nearest integer)
[Given: The constants of the reaction is at 500kJ]
Correct Answer:
526
Solution:
125
Answer : 526
Q. 30
0.4 g mixture of NaOH , and some inert impurities was first tirated with HCl
using phenolpthalein as indicator, 17.5mL of HCl was required at the end point. After this
methyl orange was added and tritated 1.5mL of same HCl was required for the next end
point. The weight percentage of in the mixture is __________ ______ (Rounded off
to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
0.4 g mixture of NaOH and some inert impurities was first titrated with HCl using phenolphthalein as
an indicator, 17.5mL of HCl was required at the endpoint.
We know this formula of Quantitative volumetric analysis
N1V1 + N2V2 = NV
NV = M X nf X V = mole X nf
Now,
1st endpoint reaction
126
n-factor = 1 of NaOH
n-factor = 1 of Na2CO3
So,
Now,
Methyl orange was added and titrated 1.5mL of the same HCl was required for the next end point.
2nd endpoint reaction,
NaOH is neutralized by HCl before.
Left NaHCO3
n-factor = 1 of NaHCO3
So,
n-factor of Na2CO3 and n-factor of NaHCO3 same so,
Used moles will be also same,
Now,
Mass of Na2CO3 = mole X molar mass
Mass of Na2CO3 = 0.5 mmol X 106
Then,
127
The weight percentage of Na2CO3 in 4.0 g mixture is
% Na2CO3 = 3.975 = 4 (Nearest Ineger.)
Answer : 4
Maths
Q. 1 If a curve passes through the origin and the slope of the tangent to it at any point (x.y) is
, then this curve also passes through the point
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
128
Q. 2 The image of the point (3,5) in the line , lies on :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
129
Q. 3 All posible value of for which lie in :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
130
Q. 4 The statement is equivalent to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5
If the curves, and intersect each other at an angle of 90o, then
which of the following relations is TRUE?
Option 1:
131
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
If two curves intersect each other orthogonally, then
Q. 6
When a missile is fired from the ship, the probability that it is intercepted is and the
probability that the missile hits the target, given that it is not intercepted, is . If three
missiles are fired independently from the ship, then the probability that three hit the target,
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
132
Q. 7 The equation of the line through the point and perpendicular to the line
is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
133
Q. 8 Let be the angle between the lines whose direction cosines satisfy the equations
and . Then the value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
134
Q. 9 The coefficient a, b and c of the quadratic equation, are obtained by
throwing a dice three times. The probability that this equation has equal roots is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
135
Q. 10 A tangent is drawn to the parabola which is perpendicular to the line .
Which of the following point does NOT lie on it?
Option 1:
(4,5)
Option 2:
(-6,0)
Option 3:
(0,3)
Option 4:
(5,4)
Correct Answer:
(5,4)
Solution:
Q. 11 The integer 'k' , for which the inequality is valid for every
real value of x, is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
3
136
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Condition for a quadratic expression to be always positive is
a (coefficient of x2) > 0 and D < 0
Now,
Coefficient of x2 = 1 (>0)
So we have to apply only D < 0
So only one integer in this interval: K = 3
Q. 12 The total number of positive integral solutions (x, y, z) such that xyz = 24 is:
Option 1:
45
Option 2:
24
Option 3:
30
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
137
Q. 13
is equal to:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
138
Q. 14 Let the lines be normal to a circle C. if
the line is tangent to the circle C, then its radius is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
139
Q. 15
If and then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
140
Q. 16 A man is observing, from the top of a tower, a boat speeding towards the tower from a
certain point A, with uniform speed. At that point, angle of depression of the boat with the
man's eye is 30o (Ignore man's height). After sailing for 20 second, towards the base of the
tower (which is at the level of water), the boat has reched a point B, where the angle of
depression is 45o. Then the time taken (in second)by the boat from B to reach the base of
the tower is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let speed of boat is and height of tower is meter and distance metre
141
Q. 17
The value of where denotes the greatest integer , is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
142
Q. 18 If Rolle's theorem holds for the function with
,then ordered pair (a,b) is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 The value of integral
is (Where c is a
constant of integration)
143
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
144
Q. 20 Let such that and g be any
arbitrary function. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
Option 1:
If f is onto, then
Option 2:
If fog is one-one, then g is one-one
Option 3:
f is one-one
Option 4:
if g is onto, then fog is one-one
Correct Answer:
if g is onto, then fog is one-one
Solution:
Using 1st derivative property
Integrating both side
145
Now, f(g(n))=g(n) f(1)
may be many-one if
is many-one
Q. 21 Let and be three given vectors. If is a

vector such that is a vector such that and then is
equal to______________.
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Q. 22 The graph of sine and cosine functions, intersect each other at a number of points and
between two consecutive points of intersection, the two graphs enclose the same area A.
Then A4 is equal to ____
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
146
Q. 23 If the system of equations , and
has infinitely many solutions, then k is equal to__________.
Correct Answer:
21
Solution:
Q. 24
If and then
is equal to_______
147
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
and
Q. 25 The locus of the point of intersection of the lines and

is a conic, whose eccentricity is_____
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
and
148
Q. 26 Let A1, A2, A3......be squares such that for each , the length of the side An equals the
length of diagonal of An+1. If the length of A1 is 12 cm, then the smallest value of n for which
area of An is less one, is _______
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 27
Let , where x,y and z are real numbers such that
If then the value of is______
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
149
Thus,
Q. 28 The number of points, at which the function

is not differentiable, is _______
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
but x = -2 is making a zero. twice in product
So, points of non differentability are and x = -1
Q. 29 The total numbers of number, lying between 100 and 1000 that can be formed with the
digits 1,2,3,4,5, if the repetition of digits is not allowed and numbers are divisible by either 3
or 5, is________
Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
We need three digits numbers.
Since 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15
Numbers divisible by 3 are (1,3,5), (1,2,3), (2,3,4) and (3,4,5)
150
Total permutation is
Numbers divisible by 5 are (x,x,5)
Numbers divisible by both 3 and 5 are (1,3,5) and (3,4,5)
Hence required permutation is
Q. 30 Let be a polynomial of degree 6 in x, in which the coefficient of x6 is unity and it has

extrema at If then 5f(2) is equal to________
Solution:
Let
as non-zero finite
So, d = e = f = 0
and
Now, as
and
151
152
MOCK TEST - 3
Physics
Q. 1 For extrinsic semiconductors; when doping level is increased;
Option 1:
Fermi-level of p-type semiconductor will go upward and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductors will go
downward.
Option 2:
Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will go downward and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will
go upward.
Option 3:
Fermi-level of both p-type and n-type semiconductros will go upward for and downward
for , where is Fermi temperature.
Option 4:
Fermi-level of p and n-type semiconductors will not be affected.
Correct Answer:
Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will go downward and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will
go upward.
Solution:
For extrinsic semiconductors;
when doping level is increased then

Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will go downward and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will go
upward.
Q. 2 In a ferromagnetic material, below the curie temperature, a domain is defined as :
Option 1:
a macroscopic region with zero magnetization.
153
Option 2:
a macroscopic region with consecutive magnetic dipoles oriented in opposite direction.
Option 3:
a macroscopic region with randomly oriented magnetic dipoles.
Option 4:
a macroscopic region with saturation magnetization.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Curie Temperature or Curie Point-
It is the temperature above which increasing the temperature the susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials decreases.
i.e At a temperature above the Curie Point a ferromagnetic becomes an ordinary Paramagnetic
It is denoted by Tc.
In a ferromagnetic material, below the curie temperature, a domain is defined as
Q. 3 Thermodynamic process is shown below on a diagram for one mole of an ideal gas.
If then the ratio of temperature is :
Option 1:
154
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 A stone is dropped from the top of a building. When it crosses a point 5 m below the top,
another stone starts to fall from a point 25 m below the top. Both stones reach the bottom
of the building simultaneously. The height of the building is :
Option 1:
35 m
Option 2:
45 m
Option 3:
50 m
155
Option 4:
25 m
Correct Answer:
45 m
Solution:
let the height of the tower is h
and time is taken to fall a distance 5 m by first stone is 1 sec
as
Now, for the motion of the first stone
and For the motion of the second stone
From equations (1) and (2)
we get t=3 sec
So

Statement I : In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature obeys
Maxwell's distribution.
Statement II : In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature equals
the translational kinetic energy for each
molecule.
below :
Option 1:
156
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I is true as
In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature obeys Maxwell's distribution.
Statement II is false as
For diatomic molecule

Translational degree of freedom =3
Rotational degree of freedom =2
So
molecule. Translation kinetic energy of each molecule,
where k is constant
and Rotational kinetic energy,
i.e
Q. 6 Two identical springs of spring constant '2k' are attached to a block of mass m and to fixed
support (see figure).When the mass is
displaced from equilibrium position on either side, it executes simple harmonic motion. The
time period of oscillations of this sytem is :
157
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From the above figure
It is a parallel combination of spring
So
Q. 7 If a message signal of frequency is amplitude modulated with a carrier signal of

frequency and radiated through an antenna,
the wavelength of the corresponding signal in air is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
158
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A chrge 'q' is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in figure. The flux of electrostatic field
through the shaded area is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
159
Solution:
flux through surfaces ABEH, ADGH, ABCD will be zero
And the shaded region is =
So
The flux of electrostatic field through the shaded area is=
Q. 9 The wavelength of the photon emitted by a hydrogen atom when an electron makes a
transition from n = 2 to n = 1 state is :
Option 1:
194.8 nm
Option 2:
913.3 nm
Option 3:
490.7 nm
Option 4:
121.8 nm
Correct Answer:
121.8 nm
Solution:
160
As
So
Q. 10 An LCR circuit contains resistance of 110 and a supply of 220 V at 300 rad/s angular
frequency. If only capacitance is removed from the circuit, current lags behind the voltage by
45°. If on the other hand, only inductor is removed the current leads by 45° with the applied
voltage. The rms current flowing in the circuit will be :
Option 1:
1A
Option 2:
2.5 A
Option 3:
1.5 A
Option 4:
2A
Correct Answer:
2A
Solution:
According to the given question
So this satisfies the condition of resonance.

161
So
Q. 11 A sphere of radius 'a' and mass 'm' rolls along a horizontal plane with constant speed . It
encounters an inclined plane at angle and climbs upward. Assuming that it rolls without
slipping, how far up the sphere will travel ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
162
Q. 12 An electron of mass and a proton of mass are moving with the same
speed. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelength will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
163
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 is the time-displacement equation of a SHM. At t = 0 the

displacement of the particle is and it is moving along negative x-direction. Then the
initial phase angle will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
at t=0,
So
164
Now as given in the question at t=0, it is moving along negative x-direction
So
Q. 14 If e is the electronic charge, c is the speed of light in free space and h is Planck's constant,
the quantity
has dimensions of :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
165
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 An electron with kinetic energy enters between parallel plates of a capacitor at an angle '
' with the plates. It leaves the plates at angle ' ' with kinetic energy . Then the ratio of
kinetic energies will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
166
Q. 16 The point A moves with a uniform speed along the circumference of a circle of radius 0.36 m
and covers 30° in 0.1 s. The perpendicular projection 'P' from 'A' on the diameter MN
represents the simple harmonic motion of 'P'. The restoration force per unit mass when P
touches M will be :
Option 1:
100 N
Option 2:
0.49 N
Option 3:
50 N
Option 4:
9.87 N
Correct Answer:
9.87 N
Solution:
167
At M
Q. 17 The truth table for the followng logic circuit is :
Option 1:
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
Option 2:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
168
Option 3:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
Option 4:
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
Correct Answer:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
Solution:
169
Q. 18 The stopping potential for electrons emitted from a photosensitive surface illuminated by
light of wavelength 491 nm is 0.710 V. When the incident wavelength is changed to a new
value, the stopping potential is 1.43 V. The new wavelength is :
Option 1:
329 nm
Option 2:
382 nm
Option 3:
309 nm
Option 4:
400 nm
Correct Answer:
382 nm
Solution:
Using
and hc = 1240 eV nm
From equation (1) and (2)
we get
170
List I List II
(a) Rectifier (i) Used either for stepping up or stepping down the a.c. voltage
(b) Stabilizer (ii) Used to convert a.c. voltage into d.c. voltage
(c) Transformer (iii) Used to remove any ripple in the rectified output voltage
(d) Filter (iv) Used for constant output voltage even when the input
voltage or load current change
Option 1:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i), (d) -(iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i) , (d) - (ii)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (i), (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a)-(ii) , (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i), (d) -(iii)
Solution:
(a) Rectifier:- used to convert A.C voltage into D.C. Voltage.
(b) Stabilizer:- used for constant output voltage even when the input voltage or load current change
(c) Transformer:- used either for stepping up or stepping down the A.C. voltage.
(d) Filter:- used to remove any ripple in the rectified output voltage.
Q. 20 Consider the diffraction pattern obtained from the sunlight incident on a pinhole of
diameter . If the diameter of the pinhole is slightly increased, it will affect the
diffraction pattern such thtat :
171
Option 1:
its size decreases, and intensity decreases
Option 2:
its size increases, and intensity increases
Option 3:
its size increases, but intensity decreases
Option 4:
its size decreases, but intensity increases
Correct Answer:
its size decreases, but intensity increases
Solution:
For diffraction through a single slit, for the first minimum
If D is increased, then will decrease i.e will decrease
∴ size of circular fringe will decrease.
i.e the size of the diffraction pattern will decrease.
And as decreases, the width decreases, and as width decreases so the intensity will increases.
Q. 21 The peak electric field produced by the radiation coming from the 8 W bulb at a distance of
10 m is The efficiency of the bulb is 10% and it is a point source. The value of
x is ______.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
172
Q. 22 Two small spheres each of mass 10 mg are suspended from a point by threads 0.5 m long.
They are equally charged and repel each other to a distance of 0.20 m. The charge on each
of the sphere is The value of 'a' will be ______.
[Given g = 10 ms–2]
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
173
Q. 23 The initial velocity required to project a body vertically upward from the surface of the
earth to reach a height of 10R, where R is the radius of the earth, may be described in terms
of escape velocity such that The value of x will be ________.
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Here R = radius of the earth
From energy conservation (For point A and point B)
As
So
So x=20
Q. 24 The wavelength of an X-ray beam is . The mass of a fictitious particle having the same
energy as that of the X-ray photons is
The value of x is_________. (h = Planck's constant)
174
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given wavelength of an X -ray beam =
will be the mass of a particle having the same energy

The mass of a fictitious particle having the same energy as that of the X-ray photons =
On comparing we get
So x=10
Q. 25 A reversible heat engine converts one-fourth of the heat input into work. When the
temperature of the sink is reduced by 52 K, its
efficiency is doubled. The temperature in Kelvin of the source will be _________.
Correct Answer:
208 K
Solution:
175
Q. 26 The percentage increase in the speed of transverse waves produced in a stretched string if
the tension is increased by 4%, will be
__________%.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 27 If the angle between and is The value of

will be _______
Correct Answer:
180
Solution:
Q. 28 Two identical conducting spheres with negligible volume have 2.1 nC and –0.1 nC charges,
respectively. They are brought into contact and then separated by a distance of 0.5 m. The
electrostatic force acting between the spheres is__________
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
Initially, charge distribution will be
176
When they are brought into contact & then separated by a distance = 0.5 m. Then charge distribution will
be
The electrostatic force acting between the sphere is
Q. 29 A current of 6 A enters one corner P of an equilateral triangle PQR having 3 wires of

resistance each and leaves by the corner R. The currents in ampere is __________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
From KCL
177
From KVL
Q. 30 Two particles having masses 4 g and 16 g respectively are moving with equal kinetic
energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their
linear momentum is n : 2. The value of n will be ___________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Relation b/w kinetic energy & momentum is given by
Where and
So
Both are moving with equal kinetic energies so
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which among the following species has unequal bond lengths ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
178
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
SF6 - sp3d Hybridisation - Sea-saw shape
The axial bond length is more than the equatorial bond length.
Therefore, option(3) is correct.
Q. 2 Carbylamine test is used to detect the presence of primary amino group in an organic
compound. Which of the following compound is formed when this test is performed with
aniline?
Option 1:
179
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 Which of the following is correct structure of -anomer of maltose?
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 The major product of the following reaction is:
181
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 The correct sequence of reagents used in the preparation of 4-bromo-2-nitroethyl benzene

from benzene is :
182
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
Q. 6 Water does not produce on reacting with:
Option 1:
183
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Water does not produce CO on reacting with CO2
Q. 7 The correct order of acid character of the following compounds is :
Option 1:
III > II > I > IV
Option 2:
IV > III > II > I
Option 3:
I > II > III > IV
Option 4:
II > III > IV > I
Correct Answer:
II > III > IV > I
Solution:
184
Q. 8
Correct statement about the given chemical reaction is :
Option 1:
group is ortho and para directive, so product (B) is not possible.
Option 2:
Reaction is possible and compound (B) will be the major product.
Option 3:
The reaction will form sulphonated product instead of nitration.
Option 4:
Reaction is possible and compound (A) will be major product.
Correct Answer:
Reaction is possible and compound (A) will be major product.
Solution:
185
The reaction is possible and compound (A) will be a major product. This statement is correct.
All other statements are wrong.
Q. 9 The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Due to its small size, involves repulsion of non-bonding electrons (lone pair-lone pair repulsions) and
as a result, its bond dissociation energy is lower than that of and but not less than
So, correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens is
Therefore, option(3) is correct

Statement I : The pH of rain water is normally
Statement II : If the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
below:
186
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The pH of normal rain is 5.6. This is due to dissolution of in rain which forms
Due to the presence of oxides of Sulphur or Nitrogen, The pH of rainwater drops below 5.6. It is called
acid rain.
Q. 11 The major components of German Silver are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
German silver is an alloy that does not have silver.
Cu-50%; Ni-30%; Zn-20%
187
Q. 12 In which of the following order the given complex ions are arranged correctly with respect to
their decreasing spin only magnetic
moment ?
Option 1:
(i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
Option 2:
(ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
Option 3:
(iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
Option 4:
(ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
Solution:
more number of unpaired electrons more will be spin only magnetic moment.
So, order will be (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
Q. 13 Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver
nitrate for testing of halogens?
188
Option 1:
Nitric acid
Option 2:
Ammonia
Option 3:
Hydrochloric acid
Option 4:
Sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer:
Nitric acid
Solution:
Nitric acid decomposed NaCN & Na2S, else they precipitate in the test of halogen.
Q. 14 Which one of the following statements is FALSE for hydrophilic sols ?
Option 1:
Their viscosity is of the order of that of .
Option 2:
The sols cannot be easily coagulated.
Option 3:
They do not require electrolytes for stability.
Option 4:
These sols are reversible in nature.
Correct Answer:
Their viscosity is of the order of that of .
Solution:
189
The viscosity of hydrophilic sol > viscosity of H2O.
Hydrophilic sol is more stable so can't be easily coagulated.
Hydrophilic sols are reversible sols.
No electrolytes are required to stabilise hydrophilic sol.
Q. 15 The solubility of in water is :
[Given: The solubility product of in water ]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
190
Statement I : The identification of is carried out by dimethyl glyoxime in the presence
of .
Statement II : The dimethyl glyoxime is a bidentate neutral ligand.
below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Dimethyl glyoxime is a negative bidentate legend.
191
Q. 17 The major product of the following reaction is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The method used for the purification of Indium is :
Option 1:
van Arkel method
Option 2:
liquation
Option 3:
zone refining
192
Option 4:
vapour phase refining
Correct Answer:
zone refining
Solution:
Ga, In, Si, Ge are refined by zone refining or vacuum refining.
Q. 19 What is 'X' in the given reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The major product will be Ethene.
193
Statement-I : and forms of sulphur can change reversibly between themselves with
slow heating or slow cooling.
Statement-II : At room temperature the stable crystalline form of sulphur is monoclinic

sulphur.
below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At room temperature is most stable form.
Q. 21 If a compound AB dissociates to the extent of 75% in an aqueous solution, the molality of

the solution which shows a 2.5 K rise in the boiling point of the solution is ______ molal.
(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
3
194
Solution:
Answer : 3
Q. 22 The number of compound/s given below which contain/s group is _______.

(A) Sulphanilic acid
(B) Picric acid
(C) Aspirin
(D) Ascorbic acid
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Only 1 compound Aspirin contains -COOH group.
ANswer : 1
Q. 23 The rate constant of a reaction increases by five times on increase in temperature from 27°C
to 52°C. The value of activation energy in kJ mol–1 is _______ (Rounded-off to the nearest
integer)
195
Correct Answer:
52
Solution:
Answer : 52
Q. 24 Among the following, number of metal/s which can be used as electrodes in the
photoelectric cell is _______ (Integer answer)
(A) Li
(B) Na
(C) Rb
(D) Cs
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Only Cs is used in photoelectric cell due to its very low ionization potential.
Answer : 1
Q. 25 The spin only magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution (atomic number 29) is
_______ BM.
Correct Answer:
2
196
Solution:
Near integer value = 2.
Q. 26 Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 nm is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal
A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol–1 is _______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
181
Solution:
197
Q. 27 Consider titration of solution versus 1.25M oxalic acid solution. At the end point
following burette readings were obtained.
(i) 4.5 mL
(ii) 4.5 mL
(iii) 4.4 mL
(iv) 4.4 mL
(v) 4.4 mL
If the volume of oxalic acid taken was 10.0 mL then the molarity of the solution is
_______M. (Rounded-off to the nearest
integer)
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Nearest integer = 6M
Q. 28 Five moles of an ideal gas at 293 K is expanded isothermally from an initial pressure of 2.1
MPa to 1.3 MPa against at constant external pressure 4.3 MPa. The heat transferred in this
process is _______ kJ mol–1. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given,
198
Q. 29 Copper reduces into and depending upon the concentration of in
solution. (Assuming fixed and ), the concentration at which
the thermodynamic tendency for reduction of into and by copper is same
x
is 10 M. The value of 2x is _______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
199
200
Q. 30 The unit cell of copper corresponds to a face centered cube of edge length with
3
one copper atom at each lattice point. The calculated density of copper in kg/m is _______.
[Molar mass of ; Avogadro Number ]
Correct Answer:
9077
Solution:
Given,
a = 3.596 Å = 3.596 x 10-10
M = 63.54 g = 63.54/1000 kg
In FCC,
Z= 4,
Maths
Q. 1 Let A be a matrix with det(A) = 4. Let Ri denote the ith row of A. If a matrix B is
obtained by performing the operation on 2A, then det(B) is equal to :
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
80
Option 3:
128
Option 4:
64
201
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
As, |A| = 4 (Given)
Q. 2
The integral
is equal to : (where c is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
202
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 The shortest distance between the line and the curve is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The shortest distance between curves is always along common normal.
the slope of the line
203
P is any point on the parabola, and also tangent pass through point P
slope of the tangent to the parabola
Q. 4 If are such that 1 - 2i (here ) is root of , then is

equal to :
Option 1:
-3
Option 2:
-7
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
-7
204
Solution:
Q. 5
A hyperbola passes through the foci of the ellipse and its transverse and
conjugate axes coincide with major and minor axes of the ellipse, respectively. If the product
of their eccentricities is one, then the equation of the hyperbola is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation of an ellipse is
Since, transverse and conjugate axes coincide with major and minor axes of the ellipse, so
205
These pass-through foci of the ellipse
So, the equation of the hyperbola is
Q. 6
If and , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is
You can think of
for this to be true
206
So,
OR
Q. 7 A plane passes through the points A(1, 2, 3), B(2, 3, 1) and C(2, 4, 2). If O is the origin and P is
(2, -1, 1), then the projection of on this plane is of length :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of the plane passing through the point A(1, 2, 3), B(2, 3, 1) and C(2, 4, 2) is
207
Q. 8 In a group of 400 people, 160 are smokers and non- vegetarian; 100 are smokers and
vegetarian and the remaining 140 are non-smokers and vegetarian.Their chances of getting
a particular chest disorder are 35%, 20% and 10% respectively. A person is
chosen from the group at random and is found to be suffering from the chest disorder.
The probability that the selected person is a smoker and non-vegetarian is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Consider following events
A : Person chosen is a smoker and non-vegetarian.
B : Person chosen is a smoker and vegetarian.
C : Person chosen is a non-smoker and vegetarian.
E : Person chosen has a chest disorder
Given
208
We need to find the probability that the selected person is a smoker and non-vegetarian, that is
Q. 9
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
209
Q. 10 If the curve intersects the line x + y = 1 at two points P and Q, then the
angle subtended by the line segment PQ at the origin is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation of the curves are
Homogenising above two equation
These are the equation of the line
Q. 11 The contrapositive of the statement "If you will work, you will earn money" is :
210
Option 1:
You will earn money, if you will not work
Option 2:
If you will earn money, you will work
Option 3:
If you will not earn money, you will not work
Option 4:
To earn money, you need to work
Correct Answer:
If you will not earn money, you will not work
Solution:
If you will not earn money, you will not work.
Q. 12
A function f(x) is given by , then the sum of the series
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
211
Solution:
Q. 13
If for the matrix, , , then the value of is :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
212
Q. 14 The minimum value of , where a, x R and a > 0, is equal to :
Option 1:
2a
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
a +1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15
If , then
Option 1:
are in G.P
Option 2:
are in A.P
213
Option 3:
are in G.P
Option 4:
are in A.P
Correct Answer:
are in A.P
Solution:
Given
Let us first solve
Or
214
Q. 16
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Let A be a set of all 4-digit natural numbers whose exactly one digit is 7. Then the probability
that a randomly chosen element of A leaves remainder 2 when divided by 5 is :
Option 1:
215
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Sample space
n(s) = n(when 7 appears on thousands place) + n(7 doesn't appear on thousands place)
= 1× 9× 9× 9 + 3C1 × 9 × 9 = 729 + 1944 = 2673
Events
n(E) = n(last digit 7 & 7 appears once) + n(last digit 2 when 7 appears once)
= 8 × 9 × 9 × 1 + ((1 × 9 × 9 × 1) + (9 × 8 × 2C1 ×1)) = 873
Q. 18 Let and be the roots of . If for , then the

value of is :
216
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 19 Let x denote the total number of one-one functions from a set A with 3 elements to a set B
with 5 elements and y denote the total number of one-one functions from the set A to
the set A B. Then :
Option 1:
y = 273x
Option 2:
2y = 91x
Option 3:
y = 91x
Option 4:
2y = 273x
Correct Answer:
2y = 91x
Solution:
x = number of one one function from A → B
217
Number of the element in A × B is 3 × 5 = 15
y = number of one one function from A → A × B
Therefore, 2y = 91x
Q. 20 The following system of linear equations

2x + 3y + 2z = 9
3x + 2y + 2z = 9
x - y + 4z = 8
Option 1:
has a solution satisfying
Option 2:
has infinitely many solutions
Option 3:
does not have any solution
Option 4:
has a unique solution
Correct Answer:
has a unique solution
Solution:
(1) – (2)
⇒ –x + y = 0
⇒x–y=0
from (3)
4z = 8
218
⇒z=2
from (1)
2x + 3y = 5
⇒x=y=1
therefore, system has unique solution
Q. 21 The total number of two digit numbers 'n', such that is a multiple of 10, is ______.
Correct Answer:
45
Solution:
Q. 22 A function f is defined on [-3, 3] as
where [x] denotes the greatest integer x. The number of points, where f is not
differentiable in (-3, 3) is ______.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
plot the graph
The number of point of non-differentiability in (-3, 3) is 5
219
Q. 23 Let and . If the area of the parallelogram whose
adjacent sides are represented by the vectors and is square units, then is
equal to ______:
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 24 If the remainder when x is divided by 4 is 3, then the remainder when is

divided by 8 is _______.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Hence, remainder is 1.
Q. 25 If the curves x = y4 and xy = k cut at right angles, then is equal to ______.
220
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Given the equation of curves are
x = y4 and xy = k
because Curve cut orthogonally
Q. 26 A line is a common tangent to the circle and the parabola . If

the two points of contact (a, b) and (c, d) are distinct and lie in the first quadrant, then 2(a +
c) is equal to ______.
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
equation of the tangent at point A
center of the circle is (3,0) and radius is 3
221
the perpendicular distance from center to tangent is 3 unit, so
since, point lies on first quadrant
Q. 27
If exists and is equal to b, then the value of a - 2b is ______.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Apply L'Hopital rule
for the limit to exist, a = 4

222
Q. 28 If the curve, y = y(x) represented by the solution of the differential equation
, passes through the
intersection of the lines, 2x - 3y = 1 and 3x + 2y = 8, then is equal to ______.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
now integrate
Now the point of intersection of lines are (2, 1)
Q. 29
The value of is ______.
Correct Answer:
19
223
Solution:
Q. 30 A line 'l' passing through origin is perpendicular to the lines
If the co-ordinates of the point in the first octant on 'l2' at a distance of from the point
of intersection of 'l' and 'l1' are (a, b, c), then 18(a + b + c) is equal to ______.
Correct Answer:
44
Solution:
Let equation of line l is
since the line, l pass via origin so,
or
And also line l is perpendicular to l1 and 12
224
Point A lies on lie on the line l1
225
MOCK TEST - 4
Physics
Q. 1 The temperature at the junction of two insulting sheets, having thermal resistances
and as well as top and bottom temperatures (as shown in figure) is given by :
Option 1:
'
Option 2:
'
Option 3:
'
Option 4:
'
Correct Answer:
'
Solution:
226
Q. 2 Five equal resistances are connected in a network as shown in figure. The net resistance
between the points A and B is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The circuit will look like -
227
Q. 3 An alternating current is given by the equation The rms current
will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
'
Option 3:
'
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
'
Solution:
228
Q. 4 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the others is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : An electron microscope can achieve better resolving power than an optical
microscope.
Reason R : The de Broglie's wavelength of the electrons emitted from an electron gun is
much less than wavelength of visible light.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from, the options given below :
Option 1:
A is true but R is false .
'
Option 2:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
'
Option 3:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
'
Option 4:
'
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
'
Solution:
Q. 5 LED is constructed from Ga-As-P semiconducting material. The energy gap of this LED is 1.9
eV. Calculated the wavelength of light emitted and its colour.
229
Option 1:
1046 nm and red colour
'
Option 2:
654 nm and orange colour
Option 3:
1046 nm and blue colour
'
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 In a young's double slit experiment two slits are separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed
one meter away. When a light of wavelength 5 nm is used, the fringe separation will be :
Option 1: b'
0.50 mm
'
Option 2: b'
0.75 mm
'
Option 3: b'
0.25 mm
\r\n\r\n
'
Option 4: b'
1 mm
'
230
Correct Answer: b'
0.25 mm
\r\n\r\n
'
Solution:
Q. 7 If two similar springs each of spring constant are joined in series, the new spring
constant and time period would be changed by a factor :
Option 1:
'
Option 2:
'
Option 3:
'
Option 4:
'
Correct Answer:
'
Solution:
231
Q. 8 Consider the combination of 2 capacitors with when connected in
parallel, the equivalent capacitance is time the equivalent capacitance of the same
connected in series. Calculate the ratio of capacitors, .
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
'
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
None of the above
Solution:
232
Q. 9 A short straight object of height 100 cm lies before the central axis of a spherical mirror
whoes focal length has absolute value cm. The image of object produced by the
mirror is of height 25 cm and has the same orientation of the object. One may conclude
from the information :
Option 1:
Image is virtual, opposite side of convex mirror.
'
Option 2:
Image is real, same side of concave mirror
'
Option 3:
Image is real, same side of convex mirror.
'
Option 4:
Image is virtual, opposite side of concave mirror.
'
Correct Answer:
Image is virtual, opposite side of convex mirror.
'
Solution:
233
Since orientation is same image is virtual. Since image is smaller the mirror has to be convex.
Q. 10 Four identical solid spheres each of mass 'm' and radius 'a' are placed with their centres on
the four corners of a square of side 'b'. The moment of inertia of the system about one side
of square where the axis of rotation is parallel to the plane of the square is :
Option 1:
b'
'
Option 2:
b'
'
Option 3:
b'
\r\n\r\n
'
Option 4:
b'
'
Correct Answer:
b'
'
Solution:
234
Q. 11 Find the gravitational force of attraction between the ring and sphere as shown in the
diagram, where the plane of the ring is perpendicular to the line joining the centres. If
is the distance between the centres of a ring (of mass 'm') and sphere (mass 'M') where both
have equal radius 'R'.
Option 1:
'
Option 2:
'
Option 3:
'
235
Option 4:
'
Correct Answer:
'
Solution:
Q. 12 Find the electric field at point P (as shown in figure) on the perpendicular bisector of a
uniformly charged thin wire of length L carrying a charge Q. The distance of the point P from
the centre of the rod is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
236
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 A large number of water drops, each of radius r, combine to have a drop of radius R. If the
surface tension is T and mechanical equivalent of heat is J, the rise in heat energy per unit
volume will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
237
Q. 14 Assume that a tunnel is dug along a chord of the earth, at a perpendicular distance (R/2)
from the earth's centre, where 'R' is the radius of the Earth. The wall of the tunnel is
frictionless. If a particle is released in this tunnel, it will execute a simple harminic motion
with a time period :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
238
Q. 15 A particle is moving with uniform speed along the circumference of a circle of radius R under
the action of a central fictitious force F which is inversely proportional to Its time period
of revolution will be given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
239
Q. 16 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Body 'P' having mass M moving with speed 'u' has head- on collision elastically
with another body 'Q' having mass 'm' initially at rest. If m << M body 'Q' will have a
maximum speed equal to '2u' after collision.
Reason R : During elastic collision, the momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most approprite answer from the options
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Option 4:
Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution:
240
Q. 17 In a typical combustion engine the workdone by a gas molecule is given by
where x is the displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the
temperature. If and are constants, dimensions of will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 A planet revolving in elliptical orbit has :
A. a constant velocity of revolution
B. has the least velocity when it is nearest to the sun.
C. its areal velocity is directly proportional to its velocity.
D. areal velocity is inversely proportional to its velocity.
E. to follow a trajectory such that the areal velocity is constant.
Option 1:
D only
241
Option 2:
A only
Option 3:
C only
Option 4:
E only
Correct Answer:
E only
Solution:
Q. 19 The normal density of a material is and its bulk modulus of elasticity is K. The magnitude of
increase in density of material, when a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides, will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
242
Q. 20 If and are the wavelengths of the third member of Lyman and first member of the
Paschen series respectively, then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 A person standing on a spring balance inside a stationary lift measures 60 kg. The weight of
that person if the lift descends with uniform downward acceleration of 1.8 m/s2 will be
_______N. [g = 10 m/s2]
243
Correct Answer:
492
Solution:
Q. 22 A radiation is emitted by 1000 W bulb and it generates an electric field and magnetic field at
P, placed at a distance of 2 m. The efficiency of the bulb is 1.25 %. The value of peak electric
field at P is Value of x is ________.(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Take ]
Correct Answer:
137
Solution:
244
Q. 23 The circuit contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of and with infinite
reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through the resistance is
__________mA.
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
In this circuit D1 will be forward bias and D2 will be revers bias
245
Q. 24 As shown in the figure, a block of mass kg is kept on a horizontal rough surface of
coefficient of friction The critical force to be applied on the vertical surface as shown
at an angle 60o with horizontal such that it does not move, will be 3x. The value of x will be
_______.
Solution :
246
Q. 25 In a series LCR resonant circuit, the quality factor is measured as 100. If the inductance is
increased by two fold and resistance is decreased by two fold, then the quality factor after
this change will be ______.
Correct Answer:
282.84
Solution:
Q. 26 A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force on a frictionless

surface. If the box was initially at rest, then_______ m is displacement along the x-axis after 10
s.
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
247
Q. 27 In an electrical circuit, a battery is connected to pass 20 C of charge through it in a certain
given time. The potential difference between two plates of the battery is maintained at 15 V.
The workdone by the battery is ______ J.
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Q. 28 The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is 0.135 g /cm. A transverse wave of the form
is produced in it, where x is in meter and t is in second. Then,
the expected value of tension in the wire is Value of x is ______. (Round -off to
Correct Answer:
1215
Solution:
248
Q. 29 The maximum and minimum amplitude of an amplitude modulated wave is 16 V and 8 V
respectively. The modulation index for this amplitude modulated wave is The
value of x is _______.
Correct Answer:
33
Solution:
Q. 30 A container is divided into two chambers by a partition. The volume of first chamber is 4.5
litre and second chamber is 5.5 litre. The first chamber contain 3.0 moles of gas at pressure
2.0 atm and second chamber contain 4.0 moles of gas at pressure 3.0 atm. After the
partition is removed and the mixture attains equilibrium, then, the common equilibrium
pressure existing in the mixture is Value of x is ________.
Solution:
249
Chemistry
Q. 1 On treating a compound with warm dil. gas X is evolved which turns
paper acidified with dil. to a green compound Y. X and Y respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4, gas SO2 is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper acidified
with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Cr2(SO4)3
Q. 2 Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead
storage batteries. Compound A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
250
Correct Answer:
Solution:
PbO2 is amphoteric and strong oxidizing agent and also a component of lead storage batteries in the
cathode
Hence, the answer is Option (3)
Q. 3 Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following reactions of phenol :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
251
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be -
Therefore, Option(3) is correct
Q. 4 Find A, B and C in the following reactions :
Option 1:
Option 2:
252
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reactions are:-
Q. 5 The presence of ozone in troposphere :
Option 1:
generates photochemical smog
Option 2:
protects us from the UV radiation
Option 3:
protects us from the X-ray radiation
Option 4:
protects us from greenhouse effect
Correct Answer:
generates photochemical smog
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The presence of ozone in the troposphere generates photochemical smog.
It is Stratospheric Ozone which protects us from the harmful Ultraviolet radiation in sunlight.
253
List - I List - II
(Salt) (Flame colour wavelength)
(a) (i) 455.5 nm
(b) (ii) 670.8 nm
(c) (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) (iv) 589.2 nm
Option 1:
(a) - (i) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Solution:
The combination of Metals along with the wavelength of the light involved in flame test is given as:
The correct combination is
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
254
Q. 7 The structure of Neoprene is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Neoprene is :
255
Q. 8 An amine on reaction with benzenesulphonyl chloride produces a compound insoluble in
alkaline solution. This amine can be prepared by ammonolysis of ethyl chloride. The correct
structure of amine is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the question, the amine should be secondary amine as the benzene sulphonyl chloride
adduct is not soluble in NaOH. Also in the secondary amine, one of the alkyl group should be ethyl,
because it can be formed by ammonolysis of ethyl chloride
256
Q. 9 Deficiency of which of the following Vitamin causes delay in the blood clotting?
Option 1:
Vitamin K
Option 2:
Vitamin B
Option 3:
Vitamin C
Option 4:
Vitamin E
Correct Answer:
Vitamin K
Solution:
Vitamin K is used by the body to help blood clots.
Thus, deficiency of Vitamin K increases the time required for clotting of blood.
Q. 10 For the given reaction :
What is 'A' ?
257
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction:
Q. 11 The orbital having two radial as well as two angular nodes is :
258
Option 1:
3p
Option 2:
4d
Option 3:
4f
Option 4:
5d
Correct Answer:
5d
Solution:
A.N. = l
R.N = n – l – 1
Q. 12 Match List -I with List - II
List - I List - II
(Ore) (Element Present)
(a) Kernite (i) Tin
(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron
(c) Calamine (iii) Fluorine
(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc
259
Option 1:
(a) (ii) , (b) (iv), (c) (i) , (d) (iii)
Option 2:
(a) (i) , (b) (iii), (c) (iv) , (d) (ii)
Option 3:
(a) (iii) , (b) (i), (c) (ii) , (d) (iv)
Option 4:
(a) (ii) , (b) (i), (c) (iv) , (d) (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) (ii) , (b) (i), (c) (iv) , (d) (iii)
Solution:
It is fact.
Q. 13 For the given reaction :
What is 'A' ?
Option 1:
260
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Hydrogens attached to alkyl groups are more easily substituted in free radical halogenation as compared
to phenylic hydrogens. The rate of free radical substitution follows the order:
Therefore, the reaction will be
261
Option 4 is correct.
Q. 14 Which of the following is 'a' FALSE statement ?
Option 1:
Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Option 2:
Carius tube is used in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound .
Option 3:
Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of phosphorus present in an organic compound is
precipitated as by adding magnesia mixture.
Option 4:
Kjeldahl's method i used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Correct Answer:
Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Solution:
It is fact. Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Q. 15
B reacts with Hydroxyl amine but does not give Tollen's test. Identify A and B.
Option 1:
2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butun -2-one
262
Option 2:
1,1-Dichlorobutane and Butanal
Option 3:
2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butanal
Option 4:
1,1 - Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone
Correct Answer:
2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butun -2-one
Solution:
Compound 'B' does not give Tollen's test due to the presence of the kenotic group but react with hydroxyl
amine.
Correct option is 1
Q. 16 Statements about heavy water are given below.
A. Heavy water is used in exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanisms.
B. Heavy wateris prepared by exhaustive electrolysis of water.
C. Heavy water has higher boiling point than ordinary water.
D. Viscosity of is greater than
Option 1:
A and C only
Option 2:
A, B and C only
263
Option 3:
A and B only
Option 4:
A and D only
Correct Answer:
A, B and C only
Solution:
Heavy water is used in exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanisms Heavy water is prepared
by exhaustive electrolysis of water.
B.P. of D2O = 374.4 K

B.P. of H2O = 373 K
Viscosity of H2O = 0.89 centipoise

Viscosity of D2O = 1.107 centipoise
List - I List - II
Electronic configuration of elements in kJ
(a) (i) 801
(b) (ii) 899
(c) (iii) 1314
(d) (iv) 1402
Option 1:
(a) (ii) , (b) (iii) , (c) (iv), (d) (i)
Option 2:
(a) (iv) , (b) (i) , (c) (ii), (d) (iii)
Option 3:
(a) (i) , (b) (iv) , (c) (iii), (d) (ii)
Option 4:
(a) (i) , (b) (iii) , (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
264
Correct Answer:
(a) (ii) , (b) (iii) , (c) (iv), (d) (i)
Solution:
The ionization enthalpy order is B < Be < O < N
Be has more IE compared to B due to extra stability & N has more IE compared to oxygen due to extra
stability
Hence,
Q. 18 Which one of the following lanthanoids does not form ?
[M is lanthanoid metal ]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Yb is the only element that does not form MO2 type oxide
265
Q. 19 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in

hydrogen bond formation.
Reason R : Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in HF are
symmetrical.
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The assertion is incorrect since, in hydrogen bonding, Dipole-dipole interactions are non-covalent but ion-
dipole interaction can also result in H-bond formation. The reason is correct since F is the most
electronegative element & structure is
Statement I : A mixture of chloroform and aniline can be separated by simple distillation.
Statement II : When separating aniline from a mixture of aniline and water by steam
distillation aniline boils below its boiling point.
given below :
266
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Boiling Point of Chloroform = 334 K and Boiling Point of Aniline = 457 K. Since, these compounds have a
significant difference in their boiling points, they can be separated by simple distillation.
A mixture of aniline and water is separated by steam distillation as Aniline is immiscible with water. In
such cases, the mixture will boil below 373 K.
Therefore, both statements I and II are true.
Q. 21 For a chemical reaction
the entropy change depends on the temperature T (in K)

as .
Minimum temperature at which it will become spontaneous is _______K. (Integer)
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
To make the process spontaneous
267
The minimum temperature to make it spontaneous is 200 K.
Q. 22 A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction is carried out in a 25 litre

flask at 27oC. The initial amount of was 1 mole and the equilibrium pressure was 19.
atm. The value of is . The value of x is ________ (Integer answer)
[R = 0.08206 atm ]
Correct Answer:
74
Solution:
On substituting the values
268
Q. 23
A certain gas obeys The value of is . The value of x is
________.
(Integer answer) (Z: compressibility factor)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
P(v – b) = RT
PV – Pb = RT
Q. 24 The number of significant figures in is _________.
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
50000.020 × 10-3
Number of significant figure = 7
Q. 25 Number of bridging ligands in is __________.
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
Zero bridging CO ligands are present
269
Mn2(CO)10 structure is
Q. 26 3.12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of platinum metal.The volume of oxygen adsorbed per
gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 300 k in L is _________. [R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol -1]
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 27 An exothermic reaction has anactivation energy 30 kJ mol -1. If energy change

during the reaction is -20 kJ, then the activation energy for the reverse reaction in kJ is
_________.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 28 Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is
_________.
270
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The oxidation number of Cr in is 6.
From charge balance,
Q. 29 224 mL of at 298 K and 1 atmis passed through 100 m L of 0.1 M solution.

The non-volatile solute produced is dissolved in 36 g of water. The lowering of vapour
pressure of solution (assuming the solution is dilute) is
of Hg, the value of x is _____. (Integer answer )
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
271
272
Q. 30 Consider the following reaction
The quantity of electricity required in Faraday to reduce five moles of is _________.

(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
1 mole of require 5 faraday charge

5 moles of will require 25 faraday charge.
Maths
Q. 1 If are coplanar, then the sum of all possible

values of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
273
Solution:
These points are collinear, then
Q. 2 The intersection of three lines is a :
Option 1:
None of the above
Option 2:
Equilateral triangle
Option 3:
Isosceles triangle
Option 4:
Right angled triangle
Correct Answer:
Isosceles triangle
Solution:
274
Let point A be the point of intersection of L1 and L2, point B be the point of intersection of L1 and L3, and
point C be the point of intersection of L3 and L2.
A = (1, 1)
B = (2, 2)
C = (3, 0)
so its an isosceles triangle
Q. 3
The value of where [x] is the greatest integer is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
275
Note that:
Q. 4
The value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
put a = 0, we get
OR
Given matrix is
276
Q. 5 The maximum value of the term independent of 't' in the expansion of
where is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The term independent of t will be the middle term due to exact same magnitude but opposite sign
powers of t in the binomial expression given
277
for maximum ƒ'(x) = 0
Q. 6 A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting 7 heads is equal to
probability of getting 9 heads, then the probability of getting 2 heads is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the coin tossed n times
278
Given that
P(7 Heads) = P(9 Heads)
Q. 7 The rate of growth of bacteria in a culture is proportional to the number of bacteria present
and the bacteria count is 1000 at initial time . The number of bacteria is increased by
20% in 2 hours. If the population of bacteria is 2000 after hours, then is
equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
16
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Initial bacteria count = 1000
20% bacteria increased in 2 hours = 1200
279
Q. 8 Let f be any function defined on R and let it satisfy the condition :
If then :
Option 1:
can take any value in R
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that
280
Q. 9
In an increasing geometric series, the sum of the second and the sixth term is and the
product of the third and fifth term is 25. Then, the sum of 4th, 6th and 8th terms is equal to :
Option 1:
32
Option 2:
26
Option 3:
30
Option 4:
35
Correct Answer:
35
Solution:
on dividing (1) by (2), we get
281
For an increasing GP
Q. 10 The number of seven digit integers with sum of the digits equal to 10 and formed by using
the digits 1,2 and 3 only is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
First possiblity is 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3
Second possiblity is 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2
Total = 42 + 35 = 77
282
Q. 11 In the circle given below,let unit, unit and . Then, the area
of the triangle (in square units ) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
To solve this concept, we will use two concepts that we have learnt in class 9 or 10.
The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to a chord bisects the chord.
If two chords of a circle intersect each other, then the products of the lengths of their segments are
equal.
PQ and OB are the chords of the circle
Given OA = 1 unit, OB = 13 unit, so, AB = 12 unit
283
Q. 12 If and are perpendicular, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that
284
Q. 13
The sum of the infinite series is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
This is an AGP isf we ignore the first term
We can still use the same method for calculating the sum
285
Q. 14 Let A be a symmetric matrix of order 2 with integer entries. If the sum of the diagonal
elements of is 1, then the possible number of such matrices is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Sum of all the diagonal element of
Q. 15 Let R = {(P,Q) | P and Q are at the same distance from the origin} be a relation, then the
equivalence class of (1,–1) is the set :
Option 1:
286
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equivalence class of (1, –1) is a circle with center at (0,0) and radius =
Q. 16 Consider the three planes
and
Then, which one of the following is true ?
Option 1:
and are parallel
Option 2:
are parallel
Option 3:
are parallel
Option 4:
all are parallel.
287
Correct Answer:
are parallel
Solution:
Given equation od planes are
P1 and P3 are parallel.
Q. 17
The value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
288
Q. 18
The maximum slope of the curve occurs at the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Since slope is maximum so
So, maximum
Q. 19
The value of is :
289
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By using the king's property
Q. 20
If then the value of is :
290
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21
The value of the integral is _______.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
291
Q. 22 Let be a point on the plane which passes through the point If the plane
is perpendicular to the line joining the points and then
is equal to _______.
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Let point A be (-2, -21, 29) and point B be (-1, -16, 23)
and let point P be and point Q be (4, -2, 2)
Point P and Q lies on the plane.
Q. 23 The number of solutions of the equation is
292
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
but x cant be 2, because in
So, there is only one solution
Q. 24 Let m, n and n is odd and

then is equal to
Correct Answer:
45
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now, given,
this can be written as
293
Q. 25 If is the solution of the equation then
is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Now, we have given equation is
Note that:
Q. 26 The number of integral values of 'k' for which the equation has
a solution, is _______.
294
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
Q. 27 The difference between degree and order of a differential equation that represents the
family of curves given by is _______.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Order = 1
Degree = 3
Q. 28 The sum of 162th power of the roots of the equation is ________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
295
Q. 29 If , the number of solutions of the given equation
when is _______.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 30 The area bounded by the lines and y = 2 is ______.
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Given the equation of curve are
y = ||x-1|-2|
and, y = 2
Plot the curve on the graph

296
We have to find area of triangle ACD and triangle BDE
297
MOCK TEST - 5
Physics
Q. 1 The internal energy (U). pressure (P) and volume (V) of an ideal gas are related as
. The gas is:
Option 1:
monoatomic only
Option 2:
polyatomic only
Option 3:
diatomic only
Option 4:
either monoatomic or diatomic
Correct Answer:
polyatomic only
Solution:
Since degree of freedom is more than 6 therefore gas is polyatomic
Q. 2 A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats /swith a fork of known

frequency 340Hz. When fork A is filled, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats /s.
What is the frquency of fork A?
Option 1:
338 Hz
Option 2:
345 Hz
298
Option 3:
335 Hz
Option 4:
342 Hz
Correct Answer:
335 Hz
Solution:
Now, beat frequency = 2Hz
Q. 3 An inclined plane making an angle of with the horizontal is placed in a uniform

horizontal electric field 200 N/C shown in the figure. A body of mass 1kg and charges
5mC is allowed to slide down from rest at a height of 1m. If the coefficient of friction is
0.2, find the time taken by the body to reach the bottom.
Option 1:
1.3 s
Option 2:
0.92 s
Option 3:
0.46 s
Option 4:
2.3 s
299
Correct Answer:
1.3 s
Solution:
Q. 4 A radioactive sample is undergoing decay. At any time t1, its activity is A and another
time t2 , the activity is . What is the average life time for the sample.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let initial activity be A0
Q. 5 An aeroplane, with its wings spread 10m, is flying at a speed of 180km/h in a

horizontal direction. The total intensity earth's field at that part is
and the angle of dip is . The emf induced the tips of the
plane wings will be_______
Option 1:
62.50 mV
Option 2:
54.125 mV
Option 3:
88.37 mV
Option 4:
108.25 mV
Correct Answer:
108.25 mV
Solution:
301
Q. 6 The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it emits a photon in going from n=5 state to
n=1 state will be:
Option 1:
3.25 m/s
Option 2:
4.17 m/s
Option 3:
4.34 m/s
Option 4:
2.19m/s
Correct Answer:
4.17 m/s
Solution:
302
Q. 7 The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is , where are
constants and x and y are repesctively the horizontal and vertical distances of the
projectile from the point of projection. The angle of projection and the maximum
height attained H are respectively given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given :
303
comparing with the trajectory equation
Maximum height: H
Q. 8 A wire of 1 has length of 1m. It is stretched till its length increases by 25%. The
percentage change in resistance to the nearest integer is:
Option 1:
25%
Option 2:
76%
Option 3:
12.5%
Option 4:
56%
Correct Answer:
56%
Solution:
304
So % change in resistance
Q. 9 The length of metallic wire is when tension in it is . It is when tension is . The

original length of the wire will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Assuming Hooke's law to be valid
305
Q. 10 Find the peak current and resonant frequency of the following circuit (as shown in the
figure).
Option 1:
0.2 A and 100Hz
Option 2:
2A and 100 Hz
Option 3:
2A and 50 Hz
Option 4:
0.2 A and 50Hz
Correct Answer:
0.2 A and 50Hz
Solution:
306
Q. 11 A particle excutes S.H.M, the graph of velocity as a function of displacement is:
Option 1:
a circle
Option 2:
an ellipse
Option 3:
a helix
Option 4:
a parabola
307
Correct Answer:
an ellipse
Solution:
This is an equation of an ellipse.
Statement I : A second's pendulum has a time period 1s
Statement II. It takes precisely one second to move between the two extreme
positions.
below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Second pendulum has a time period of 2 seconds. So, statement 1 is false but
from one extreme toother it takes only half the time period so statement 2 is
true
308
Statement I : An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of
eletric field through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the
sphere.
Statement II. If R is the radius of a soild metallic sphere and Q be the total charge on it.
The electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius r (<R) is zero but the
electric flux passing through this closed spherical surface of radius r is not zero.
below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So electric field will not be zero at any point on the sphere. We can apply the formula of electric
dipole at any point -
309
For statement 2 -
As change encloses within gaussian surface isequal to zero.
Q. 14 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Asseration A and other labelled as
Reason R.
Asseration A: For a simple microscope, the angular size of the object equals the
angular size of the image.
Reason R: Magnification is achieved as the small object kept much closer to the eye
than 25cm and hence it subtends a large angle.
In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both A and R are true but R is correct explantaion of A
Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explantaion of A
310
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explantaion of A
Solution:
Q. 15 A scooter accelartes from rest for time t1 at constants rate and then retards at
constant rate for time and comes to rest. The correct value of will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
311
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
312
Q. 16 Draw the output signal Y in the given combination of gates.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
313
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We can use this truth table to understand better -
A B Y
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 0
0 0 1 0
1 1 0 0
Q. 17 The incident ray, reflected ray and the outward draw normal are denoted by the unit
vectors respectively. The choose the correct relation for these vectors.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
314
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 Two masses A and B, each of mass M are fixed together by a massless spring. A force
acts on the mass B as shown in the figure. If the mass A starts moving away from mass
B with accelertaion 'a' then the accelertaion of mass B will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
315
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 If 'C' and 'V' represent capacity and voltage respectively then what are the dimensions
of when
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
316
Q. 20 A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is
horizontal and the moment of interia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the cord
at the end. The weight falls from the rest. After falling through distance 'h; the square
of angular velocity of wheel will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
2gh
Correct Answer:
Solution:
317
Q. 21 Two stream of photos, possesing energies equal to twice and ten times the work
function of metal are incident on the metal surface successively. The value of ratio of
maximum veleocities of the photoelectrons emitted in the two respective cases is x:y.
The value of x is________
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 22 If the highest modulating frequency of the wave is 5 kHz, the number of stations that
can be accommodated in a 150 kHz bandwidth are
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
318
Q. 23
Time period of a simple pendulum is T. The time taken to complete oscillations
starting from mean position is . The value of is ____________
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Total distance covered by the particle=4A.
we divide this whole path in 8 intervals of A/2.
so, 5/8 oscillations means, it has already completed1/2 oscillation(i.e. total dist. = 2A) and is half way
to the other side i.e. A/2.
so,
substitute to get t=T/12.
now, total time taken = time to complete previous one half(2A) + time taken to
completeA/2=t/2+t/12=7T/12.
So,
Q. 24 The zener diode has a . The current passing through the diode for the
following circuit is ________ mA.
319
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
Q. 25 The volume V of a given mass of monoatomic gas changes with temperature T

according to the relation . The workdone when temperature changes by
90K will be xR. The value of x is _______
[R = universal gas constant]
Correct Answer:
60
Solution:
320
Q. 26 27 similar drops of mercury are maintained at 10V each. All these spherical drops
combine into a single big drop. The potential energy of the bigger drop is _____ times
that of a smaller drop.
Correct Answer:
243
Solution:
321
Q. 27 In the reported figure of earth, the value of acceleration due to gravity is same at point
A and C but it is smaller than that of its value at point B (surface of the earth). The
value of OA:AB will be x;y. The value of x is________
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
322
Q. 28 A point source of light S, placed at a distance of 60 cm in front of the centre of a plane
mirror of width 50 cm, hangs vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror
along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance of 1.2 m from it (see in the figure). The
distance between the extreme points where he can see the image of the light source
in the mirror is _________cm.
Correct Answer:
150
Solution:
323
Q. 29 A particle executes S.H.M with amplitude 'a' and time period 'T'. The displacement of
the particle when its speed is half of the maximum speed is . The value of x is
_________
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
324
Q. 30
1 mole of rigid diatomic gas performs a work of when heat q is supplied to it. The
molar heat capacity of the gas during this transformation is . The value of x is
___________
[R = universal gas constant]
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
325
Chemistry
Q. 1 Match List I with List II
List I List II
a. Sodium carbonate i. Deacon
b. Titanium ii. Castner-Kellner
c. Chlorine iii. Van - Arkel
d. Sodium hydroxide iv. Solvay

Option 1:
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Option 2:
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Option 3:
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Option 4:
a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Correct Answer:
a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Solution:
(a) Sodium carbonate is prepared by Solvay process
(b) Titanium is refined by Van-Arkel process
(c) Chlorine is prepared by Deacon process
(d) Sodium hydroxide is prepared by CastnerKellner process
Q. 2 2,4-DNP test can be used to identify:
Option 1:
ether
326
Option 2:
aldehyde
Option 3:
halogens
Option 4:
amine
Correct Answer:
aldehyde
Solution:
2,4-DNP test is useful for the identification of carbonyl compounds
Correct option is 2
Q. 3 Identify A in the given chemical compound reaction.
Option 1:
327
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
328
Q. 4 Match List I with List II
List I List II
a. Sidertite i. Cu
b. Calamite ii. Ca
c. Malachite iii. Fe
d. Cryolite iv. Al
v. Zn
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Option 1:
a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv
Option 2:
a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-ii
329
Option 3:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii. d-iv
Option 4:
a-i, b-ii, c-v, d-iii
Correct Answer:
a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv
Solution:
Siderite - FeCO3
Calamine - ZnCO3
Malachite - CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
Cryolite - Na3AlF6
Q. 5 Identify A in the given reaction
Option 1:
330
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
331
Q. Match List I with List II

6
List I List II
i. Wurtz reaction
a.
ii. Sandmeyer reaction

b.
c. iii. Fittig reaction
d. iv. Gatterman reaction
Option 1:
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-i
Option 2:
a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Option 3:
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iv
Option 4:
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
332
Correct Answer:
a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Solution:
Q. 7 Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
333
The nature of the oxides are given below:
and are both oxides of non-metals and hence are acidic in nature.
Q. 8 The nature of charge on resulting collodial particles when is added to excess of

hot water is:
Option 1:
neutral
Option 2:
positive
Option 3:
sometimes positive sometimes negative
Option 4:
negative
Correct Answer:
positive
Solution:
If FeCl3 is added to hot water, a positively charged sol, the hydrated ferric oxide is formed due to
the adsorption of Fe3+ ions.
Fe2O3. xH2O/Fe3+
Positively charged.
334
Q. 9 Given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion A and other labeled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: In , isomorphous to , the metal is present in +1 oxidation state.
Reason R: TI metal has fourteen f electrons in its electronic configuration.
below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Option 4:
Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
Solution:
Both have the same crystalline structure is called isomorphous.
It is correct due to the presence of 14f electrons in Tl+ ion.
Q. 10 The correct order of electron gain enthaply is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
335
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
correct order of electron gain enthalpy is :-
O < S > Se > Te
in decreasing order:-
S > Se > Te > O
Oxygen shows the least electron gain enthalpy due to the small size of the atom.
Q. 11 A. Phenyl methanamine
B. N,N - Dimethylaniline
C. N- Methyl aniline
D. Benzenamine
Choose the correct order of basic nature of the above amines.
Option 1:
A>B>C>D
Option 2:
D> B> C> A
Option 3:
A> C> B > D
Option 4:
D > C> B> A
336
Correct Answer:
A>B>C>D
Solution:
The compounds along with their values are given below
Basic Strength order (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
Q. 12
Considering the above reaction, the major product among the following is:
Option 1:
337
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Correct option is 3.
338
Q. 13
In molecule, the hybridization of carbon 1,2,3 and 4
respectively are:
Option 1:
sp2, sp, sp2, sp3
Option 2:
sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3
Option 3:
sp3, sp, sp3, sp3
Option 4:
sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3
Correct Answer:
sp2, sp, sp2, sp3
Solution:
Q. 14 Ceric ammonium nitrate and are used for the identification of

functional groups present in _____ and ______ respectively
339
Option 1:
alcohol, phenol
Option 2:
alcohol,amine
Option 3:
amine , alcohol
Option 4:
amine , phenol
Correct Answer:
alcohol,amine
Solution:
Alcohol gives the positive test with ceric ammonium nitrate and primary amines give carbylamine
test with .
Q. 15 Match List-I and List _II
List -I List-II
(molecule) (Bond order)
a. i. 1
b. ii. 2
c. iii. 0
d. iv. 3
Option 1:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Option 2:
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
340
Option 3:
Option 4:
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As per molecular orbital theory
In short:
Q. 16 Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the following statement is NOT true
about calgon?
Option 1:
It does not remove ion by precipitation
Option 2:
Calgon contains the 2nd most abundunt element by weight in the earth's crust.
Option 3:
It also known as Graham's salt.
Option 4:
It is polymeric compound and is water soluble.
341
Correct Answer:
Calgon contains the 2nd most abundunt element by weight in the earth's crust.
Solution:
Order of abundance of element in earth crust is
O > Si > Al > Fe > Ca > Na > Mg > K
2nd most abundant element is "Si" and it is not present in Calgon.
Na6P6O18 = Calgon (Graham's salt) (Sodium hexametaphosphate)
It exists in a polymeric form as (NaPO3 )6 and water-soluble compound.
It removes ion from water by complexation and not by precipitation.
Hence, the incorrect statement is given in Option (2)
Q. 17 Which of the following forms of hydrogen emits low energy particle?
Option 1:
Tritium
Option 2:
proton
Option 3:
Protium
Option 4:
Deuterium
Correct Answer:
Tritium
Solution:
The tritium isotope of hydrogen is radioactive and emits low energy . It is because of
high n/p ratio of the tritium which makes nucleus unstable.
No. of neutron (n) = 2

No. of proton (p) = 1
342
Q. 18 Identify A in the following chemical reaction.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
343
Correct Answer:
Solution:
344
Q. 19 Match list -I and List -II
List - I List -II
a. Sucrose i.
b. Lactose ii.
c. Maltose iii.
Option 1:
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Option 2:
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
Option 3:
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
Option 4:
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
Correct Answer:
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
Solution:
Q. 20 Seliwanoff test and Xanthoproteic test are used for the identification of _________ and
__________ respectively.
345
Option 1:
aldose, ketoses
Option 2:
ketoses, aldoses
Option 3:
proteins, ketoses
Option 4:
ketoses, proteins
Correct Answer:
ketoses, proteins
Solution:
Seliwanoff test and Xanthaproteic test are used for identification of 'Ketoses' and proteins
respectively.
Q. 21 The average S-F bond energy in kJ mol-1 of ________ (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)
[Given : The values of standard enthalpy of formation of are -

1100, 275 and 80 kJmol-1 respectively]
Correct Answer:
309
Solution:
346
Q. 22 In mildly alkaline medium, thiosulpahte ion is oxidised by tp "A". The
oxidation state of sulphur in "A" is ________
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 23 Emf of the following cell at 298K in V is ,
The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
147
Solution:
347
Q. 24 The number of stereoisomers possible for is ______
[ox = oxlate]
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
cis is optically active isomers and trans is an optically inactive isomer.
Hence total isomers are = 3
348
Q. 25 The weighed out to make 50mL of an aqueous solution containing 70mg
per mL is _____g.
[Given: Atomic weight in g mol-1 - Na:23, N:14, O:16]
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
Q. 26 The pH of ammonium phosphate solution, if of phosphoric acid and of

ammonium hydroxide are 5.23 and 4.75 respectively, is_____
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Since (NH4)3PO4 is salt of a weak acid (H3PO4) & weak base (NH4OH).
349
Q. 27 When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100g of water , the freezing frequency point
of solution was found to be . The number
of benzoic acid molecukes associated (assuming 100% association) is _______
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 28 A ball weighing 10g is moving with velocity of 90ms-1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is
5%, the uncertainty in its position is _______ . (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
350
Q. 29 If the activation energy of reaction is 80.9 kJ mol-1, the fraction of molecules at 700K,
having enough energy to react to form produces is . The value of x is _________
[Given R= 8.31 J K-1 mol-1]
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Q. 30 The number of octahedral voids per lattice site in lattice is __________(Rounded off to
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Assuming FCC
No of lattice sites = 6 face centre + 8 corner = 14
No. of octahedral voids = 13 (only lattice side not centre)
351
Maths
Q. 1
For x>0 , if then is equal to
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence,
352
Q. 2
Let be a differentiable function for all . Then f(x)
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
differentiating with respect to x
353
Q. 3 A seven digit number is formed using digits 3,3,4,4,4,5,5. The probability that number
so formed is divisible by 2, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Digits = 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5
Number of 7 digit number divisible by 2, so the last digit must be even
last digit = 4
Now 7 digit numbers which is divisible by 2
354
Q. 4 Let f: be defined as
If f(x) is continous on R, then a +b equals:
Option 1:
-1
Option 2:
-3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
-1
Solution:
Either a– 1 + b = 2 or a – 1 + b = –2
a+b=3 ...(2) or a + b = –1 ...(3)
355
from (1) and (2)
a + b = 3 = – 1(reject)
from (1) and (3)
a + b = –1
Q. 5
Let and . If , then the
domain of the function fog is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
356
Q. 6 Let f(x) be a differntiable function at x = a with and . Then
equals to:
Option 1:
2a +4
Option 2:
4-2a
Option 3:
a+4
Option 4:
2a-4
Correct Answer:
4-2a
Solution:
357
Q. 7 Consider the following system of equations:
where a,b and c are real constants. Then the system of equations :
Option 1:
has no solution for all a,b and c.
Option 2:
has a unque solution when
Option 3:
has unique solution for all a,b and c
Option 4:
has infinite number of solutions when
Correct Answer:
has infinite number of solutions when
Solution:
⇒ All the planes sharing a line of intersection
⇒ infinite solutions
Q. 8 Let L be line obtained from the intersection of two planes and

. If point P is the force of perpendicular from (3,2,1) on L, then
the value of equals:
358
Option 1:
102
Option 2:
136
Option 3:
68
Option 4:
142
Correct Answer:
102
Solution:
Given the equation of two plane
x + 2y + z = 6
y + 2z = 4
solving above equation, we get
⇒ The line of intersection of two planes is
359
Q. 9 Let and be defined as
Then the number of possible functions such that gof =f is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If x is even
If x is odd
Now,
360
g(x) will always give even number irrespective of value of x
{2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
Q. 10 If , and , then the value of
is:
Option 1:
e
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
361
Q. 11 If vectors and are collinear, then a possible
unit vector parallel to the vector is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
362
Q. 12 Let and
be two respective logical expressions. Then:
Option 1:
is not a tautology but is a tautology
Option 2:
is a tautology but is not a tautology
Option 3:
Both are not tautologies
Option 4:
both are tautologies
Correct Answer:
is not a tautology but is a tautology
Solution:
Q. 13 Let A1 be the area of the region bounded by the curves and y-

axis in the first quadrant. AAlso, let A2 br the area of the region bounded by the
curves x-axis and in the first quadrant. Then,
Option 1:
Option 2:
363
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14
The sum of the series is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
364
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Note That:
365
Q. 15 A natural number has prime factorization given by , where y and z are
such that y+z=5 and . Then the number of odd divisons of n,
including 1, is:
Option 1:
6x
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
11
Option 4:
12
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Given that
for calculating odd divisor of n = 2x3y5z
x must be zero
366
Q. 16 If the mirror image of the point (1,3,5) with respect to the plane
is then equals:
Option 1:
47
Option 2:
39
Option 3:
41
Option 4:
43
Correct Answer:
47
Solution:
Point Q is image of point P with respect to the plane, M is the midpoint of P and Q, lies in plane
this point lies in the plane 4x – 5y + 2z = 8
So,
Also PQ perpendicualr to the plane
367
Q. 17 Let A(1,4) and B(1, -5) be two points. Let P be a point on the circle
such that have maximum value, then
the points, P,A and B lie on:
Option 1:
a parabola
Option 2:
a straight line
Option 3:
a hyperbola
Option 4:
an ellipse
Correct Answer:
a straight line
Solution:
P, A and B lies in a straight line.
Q. 18
Let slope of the tangent line to curve any point P(x,y) be given by . if the curve
intersects theline x+2y=4 at x =-2, then the value of y, for which the point (3,y) lies on
368
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
369
Q. 19 The triangle of maximum area that can be inscribed in a given circle of radius 'r' is:
Option 1:
An isosceles triangle with base equal to 2r.
Option 2:
A right angle triangle having two of its sides of length 2r and r
Option 3:
n equilateral triangle having each of its side of length
Option 4:
An equilateral triangle of height
Correct Answer:
n equilateral triangle having each of its side of length
Solution:
AP is the height (h) of the triangle ABC
370
Q. 20 If the locus of the mid-point of the line segment from the point (3,2) to a point on the
circle, is a circle of radius r, then r is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
371
Q. 21 Let the normals at all the points on a given curve pass through a fixed point (a,b). If the
curve passes through (3,-3) and and given that , then
is equal to ________
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
All normals of a circle pass through center Radius = CA = CB
Q. 22 If the arithmetic mean and geometric mean of the pth and qth terms of the sequence
-16,8,-4,2..... satisfy the equation , then p+q is equal to ________
372
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given sequence is,
-16, 8, -4, 2 ...
a = -16, r = -½
Q. 23 The total number of 4-digit numbers whose greatest common divisor with 18 is 3,
is________
Correct Answer:
1000
Solution:
Let N be the four-digit number gcd(N,18) = 3
Hence N is an ODD integer that is divisible by 3 but not by 9.
373
4 digit odd multiples of 3 are 1005, 1011,......., 9999
4 digit odd multiples of 9 are 1017, 1035,......., 9999
Hence the number of such N = 1000
Q. 24 Let z be those complex numbers which satisfy
If the maximum value of , then the value of is ________
Correct Answer:
48
Solution:
Let z = x + iy
374
Let P = (-1,0)
For the point of intersection, solve
we get
Q. 25
Let be eighteen observation such that and
, where are distinct real numbers. If the standard
deviation of these observation is 1, then the value of is ________
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
375
Q. 26
If the matrix A = satisfy the equation
for some real numbers , then is equal to _______
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Given that
Hence,
376
Q. 27 Let a be an integer such that all real roots the polynomial
lie in the interval (a,a+1). Then, is equal
to ____
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
So, a = -2, |a| = 2.
Q. 28 Let be two real numbers such that . Let

, for some integer . Then, the
value of is ________
377
Correct Answer:
324
Solution:
Given that
Q. 29
If for m,n and
, then equals _______
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
similarly,
378
First, solve
Q. 30 Let L be common tangent line to the curves

. Then the square of the slope of the line
L is _________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Let slope of common tangent be m
379
380
MOCK TEST - 6
Physics
Q. 1 The velocity - displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the
figure.
The acceleration - displacement graph of the bicycle's motion is best described by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
381
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So the correct graph is
382
Q. 2 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is traveling in a vacuum along y-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, The value of
electric fields at this point is :
(Speed of light )
are unit vectors along x,y and z directions.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
EM wave is traveling towards
383
Q. 3 In thermodynamics, heat and work are :
Option 1:
Intensive thermodynamic state variables
Option 2:
Point functions
Option 3:
Path functions
Option 4:
Extensive thermodynamic state variables
Correct Answer:
Path functions
Solution:
Heat and work are path-dependent quantities and Internal energy is the point function.
Q. 4 The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g

of nitrogen and 44 g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. Consider R as
universal gas constant. The pressure of the mixture of gases is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
384
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 A 25 m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna

tower is 75 m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna
would be :
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
400
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
200
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
385
Q. 6 Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift
moves upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of pendulum will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When the lift is stationary
When the lift is moving upwards \Rightarrow Pseudo force acts downwards
So New time period
386
Q. 7 An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by a AC source generating a square wave.
The output wave pattern monitored by CRO would look close to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For
Charging graph
For
Discharging graph
387
So the correct graph is
Q. 8 For changing the capacitance of a given parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K is used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor.
The thickness of the dielectric slab is where 'd' is the separation between the
plates of parallel plate capacitor. The new capacitance (C') in terms of original
capacitance is given by the following relation :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
388
Q. 9 One main scale division of a vernier callipers is 'a' cm and nth division of the vernier
scale coincide with division of the main scale. The least count of the
callipers in mm is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As nth division of the vernier scale coincide with division of the main scale
So
389
Where is the One main scale division of vernier calipers.
S0
So
Q. 10 A conducting wire of length 'l', area of cross-section A and electric resistivity is

connected between the terminals of a battery. A potential difference V is developed
between its ends, causing an electric current.
If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and the area of cross-section
is halved, the resultant current would be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
390
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Initial resistance=
Q. 11 A block of 200 g mass moves with a uniform speed in a horizontal circular groove, with
vertical side walls of radius 20 cm. If the block takes 40 s to complete one round, the
normal force by the side walls of the groove is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Put the given values in equation (1)
391
Q. 12 A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole
pointing towards the geographic north pole. A neutral point is obtained at a distance
of 18 cm from the center of the magnet. If the magnetic moment of the
magnet is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From figure
392
Q. 13 For an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space, the relation between average
energy densities due to electric and magnetic fields is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using
and
We get
393
Q. 14 The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence
Option 1:
Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true
Option 2:
Only statement (D) is true
Option 3:
Statements (B) and (C) are true
Option 4:
Only statements (A) and (B) are true
Correct Answer:
Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true
Solution:
394
As shown in the above figure
The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
i.e
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
i.e i=e
Q. 15 A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as shown
in the figure
Two resistors and are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a uniform
magnetic field pointing into the page.An external agent pulls the bar to the left at a
constant speed v. The correct statement about the directions of induced currents
and flowing through and respectively is :
Option 1:
Both and are in anticlockwise direction
Option 2:
Both and are in clockwise direction
Option 3:
is in anticlockwise direction and is in clockwise direction
395
Option 4:
is in clockwise direction and is in anticlockwise direction
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As shown in the above figure
Q. 16 Four equal masses, m each are placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown
in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and
parallel to DB would be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
396
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we know
i.e
Q. 17 The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are
and respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest points is
the speed at the farthest point is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
397
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The pressure acting on a submarine is Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is

doubled, the percentage increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be :
(Assume that atmospheric pressure is Pa density of water is

)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
398
Now the depth is doubled
Q. 19 The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect depends on the following
property of incident electromagnetic radiation:
Option 1:
Phase
Option 2:
Intensity
Option 3:
Frequency
Option 4:
Amplitude
Correct Answer:
Frequency
Solution:
From Einstein's equation for the photoelectric effect
we get
where
and
So
Stopping potential changes linearly with the frequency of incident radiation.
399
Q. 20 A block mass m slides along a floor while a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an
angle as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is Then the block's
acceleration 'a' is given by :
(g is acceleration due to gravity)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
400
Q. 21 In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the
output at Y would be 'x'.
The value of x is ________.
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
So the answer is 0.
Q. 22 A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250 V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which
, and The value of power dissipated at resonant
condition is 'x' kW. The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.
Correct Answer:
4
401
Solution:
At resonance
Q. 23 Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m. It is pin supported at its center
and is at rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F = 20 N through a
massless string wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure.
Suppose the disk makes a number of revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad
s-1.
The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ____________.
[Given : In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
402
Q. 24 In the figure given, the electric current flowing through the resistor is 'x' mA.
The value of x to the nearest integer is ___________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 25 The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series are given
considering the Bohr atomic model, the wave lengths of first and third spectral lines
are related by a factor of approximately 'x' .
The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________.
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
For 1st line
403
For 3rd line
From equation (i) and (ii)
Q. 26 A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The
screen is placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light used is 'x' nm.
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is ________.
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:
Q. 27
The resistance where and The
percentage error in R is x %. The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
404
Q. 28 A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity along X-axis, hits another ball
of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After collision, the first ball comes to rest and the
second one disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along
Y-axis at a speed of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m/s at an
angle (degree) with respect to the X-axis .
The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure. The value of to the
nearest integer is _______.
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Before collision
After collision
405
Q. 29 The value of power dissipated across the zener diode connected in the
circuit as shown in the figure is x watt.
The value of x , to the nearest integer, is _______.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
406
Q. 30 Consider a frame that is made up of two thin massless rods AB and AC as shown in the
figure. A vertical force of magnitude 10 N is applied at point A of the frame.
Suppose the force is resolved parallel to the arms AB and AC of the frame. The
magnitude of the resolved component along the arm AC is xN. The value of x, to the
nearest integer, is ____________.
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
82
Solution:
407
Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:
Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion less than Np3+ion.
Reason R : The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
408
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Size of ion is less than that of due to lanthanoid contraction.
In a period from left to right ionic radius decreases and in actinide series it is due to
lanthanoid contraction.
Q. 2 Which among the following pairs of vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer
duration ?
Option 1:
Thiamine and Ascorbic acid
Option 2:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D
Option 3:
Ascorbic acid and vitamin D
Option 4:
Thiamine and Vitamin A
Correct Answer:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D
Solution:
Vitamin-A & Vitamin-D pairs of Vitamins are stored in our body relatively for a longer duration.
409
List-1 Industrial process List - II Application
(a) Haber's process (i) synthesis
(b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium extraction
(c) Contact process (iii) synthesis
(d) Hall - Heroult process (iv) synthesis

Option 1:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Solution:
1. Haber's process is used for NH3 synthesis.
2. Ostwald's process is used for HNO3 synthesis using Pt catalyst.
3. Contact process is used for H2SO4 synthesis using N2O5 catalyst.
4. In the Hall-Heroult process, electrolytic reduction of impure alumina can be done. (Aluminium
extraction).
410
Q. 4 Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?
Option 1:
Cold dilute solution of
Option 2:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal
Option 3:
Sodium and liquid
Option 4:
Zinc chloride and
Correct Answer:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal
Solution:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal (H2 /pd/CaCO3 ) is lindlar catalyst.
Q. 5 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : The H-O-H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.
Reason R : The lone pair - lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair
-bond pair repulsion.
below :
Option 1:
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
411
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution:
The hybridisation of oxygen is water molecule is sp3. So electron geometry of water molecule is
tetrahedral and the bond angle should be 109°28" but as we know that lone pair-lone pair
repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion because lone pair is
occupied more space around central atom than that of bond pair.
Q. 6 The functions of antihistamine are :
Option 1:
Antiallergic and Analgesic
Option 2:
Antiallergic and antidepressant
Option 3:
Antacid and antiallergic
Option 4:
Analgesic and antacid
Correct Answer:
Antacid and antiallergic
412
Solution:
The functions of Antihistamines are Antacid and Anti-allergic.
Q. 7
The products "A" and "B" formed in above reactions are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
413
Q. 8 Among the following, the aromatic compounds are :
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
Option 1:
(A), (B) and (C) only
Option 2:
(B), (C) and (D) only
Option 3:
(A) and (B) only
414
Option 4:
(B) and (C) only
Correct Answer:
(B) and (C) only
Solution:
(A) Non-Aromatic
(B) Aromatic -
(C) Aromatic -
(D) Anti-Aromatic -
The aromatic compounds are (B) and (C) only.
List - I List - II
Name of Oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P'
(a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
(v) +1
Option 1:
(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
415
Option 3:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
Q. 10
In the above chemical reaction, intermediate "X"and reagent/condition "A" are :
416
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
417
Therefore, option (1) is correct.
Q. 11 The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is :
Option 1:
Roasting
Option 2:
Leaching
Option 3:
Smelting
Option 4:
Refining
Correct Answer:
Roasting
Solution:
In the roasting process, metal sulphide (MS) ore are converted into metal oxide and sulphur is
removed in the form of SO2 gas
Q. 12 Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
Option 1:
418
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction given in Option (2) is not an example of Hoffman Bromamide degradation reaction. It
is an example of Haloform Reaction.
419
Statement I : Both CaCl2.6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydrationon heating.
Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same
group are acidic.
below :
420
Option 1:
Option 2:
Both statement I and Statement II are false
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer:
Both statement I and Statement II are false
Solution:
The dehydration of hydrated chloride of calcium can be achieved. The corresponding hydrated
chloride of magnesium on heating suffer hydrolysis.
MgO, CaO, SrO, BaO All are basic oxides.
So, Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q. 14 Assertion A : Enol form of acetone exists in <0.1 % quantity.

However, the enol form of acetyl acetone exists in
approximately 15% quantity.
Reason R : Enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen

bonding, which is not possible in enol form of acetone.
Choose the correct statement :
Option 1:
421
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
Q. 15 A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing
power among group 15 hydrides. The element is :
Option 1:
Bi
Option 2:
As
422
Option 3:
Sb
Option 4:
P
Correct Answer:
Bi
Solution:
N, P are Non-Metal
As, Sb are Metalloid
Bi is Metal
Hydrides of group 15 elements are
NH3 , PH3 , AsH3 , SbH3 , BiH3
In NH3, the hydrogen atom gets a partial positive charge due to less electronegativity. But in BiH3,
the hydrogen atom gets a partial negative charge because hydrogen is more electronegative than
bismuth.
BiH3 is a strong reducing agent than others because we know that H- is a strong reducing agent
and Bi – H bond dissociation energy is very less.
Statement I : The value for is
Statement II : is more stable in state than state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
423
Option 4:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Solution:
The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V because the most stable oxidation state of lanthanide series
elements is +3.
It means Ce3+ is more stable than Ce4+
Statement I : H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agent in basic medium.
Statement II : In the hydrogen economy, the energy is transmitted in the form of

dihydrogen.
In the light of above statments, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
Option 1:
Both statement I and II are true
Option 2:
Statement I is true and statement II is false
Option 3:
Both statement I and II are false
Option 4:
Statement I is false and but statement II is true
Correct Answer:
Both statement I and II are true
Solution:
(a) H2O2 can act as oxidizing & reducing agent in both acidic & basic mediums.
(b) The basic principle of the hydrogen economy is the transportation and storage of energy in the
form of liquids or gaseous dihydrogen. The advantage of hydrogen economy is that energy is
transmitted in the form of dihydrogen and not as electric power.
424
Q. 18 In chromotography technique, the purification of compound is independent of :
Option 1:
Physical state of the pure compound
Option 2:
Solubility of the compound
Option 3:
Length of the column of TLC plate
Option 4:
Mobility or flow of solvent system
Correct Answer:
Physical state of the pure compound
Solution:
In the chromatography technique, the purification of a compound is independent of the physical
state of the pure compound.
Q. 19 The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of
O3 is :
Option 1:
Reducing smog
Option 2:
Global warming
Option 3:
Oxidising smog
Option 4:
Acid rain
425
Correct Answer:
Oxidising smog
Solution:
In presence of ozone(O3), oxidizing smog gets increased during the daytime because automobiles
and factories produce the main components of the photochemical smog (oxidizing smog) results
from the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide.
Ozone is a strong oxidizing agent and can react with the unburnt hydrocarbons in the polluted air
to produce chemicals.
Example: NO is unburnt.
Q. 20
The product "P" in the above reaction is :
Option 1:
426
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
DIBAL-H can not reduce double bond It can reduce cyclic ester.
The correct option is 4.
427
Q. 21 The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate
constant at 300 K is and the activation energy
,the rate constant at 200 K is _______ . (Round off
to the Nearest Interger).
(Given : )
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 22 When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-
Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is _______ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
9
428
Solution:
Q. 23 is 10 % dissociated in water to and . The boiling point of a 10.0 molal

aqueous solution of is _____ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Molal elevation constant of water boiling point

pure water ]
429
Correct Answer:
106
Solution:
Q. 24 A 6.50 molal solution of has a density of 1.89 g cm -3. The molarity of the
solution is _____ mol dm -3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Atomic masses : ]
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
6.5 molal KOH = 1000g solvent has 6.5 moles KOH
so wt of solute = 6.5 × 56 = 364 g
wt of solution = 1000 + 364 = 1364
430
Q. 25 Two salts and have the same value of solubility product of .
The ratio of their molar solubilities i.e. _______(Round off to the Nearest
Integer).
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 26 A certain element crystallies in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length . If the same
element under the same conditions crystallies in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the
unit cell in will be ______.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]
[Assume ]
431
Correct Answer:
33
Solution:
Q. 27 Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of and

210 g of .The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic
compound is 15.3 and ______respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
432
Alternative Method:
Liebig's method:
Q. 28 The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of is _______. (Round off to
the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we know that ethylene diamine is a bidentate ligand and ammonia is a monodentate ligand. It
means overall two ethylene diamine is required to replace the all neutral ligands (four ammonia)
from the coordination sphere of this complex.
433
Q. 29 For the reaction at If we start
the reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B in
the equilibrium mixture is ______ millimoles. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Q. 30
If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients,the value of c is ____(Round

off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
434
Maths
Q. 1 If for and
then the value of n is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
435
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 If n is the number of irrational terms in the expansion of , then

is divisible by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
436
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
For rational terms
Total rational terms =8
Total terms =61
Therefore total Irrational terms (n) =53
and n - 1 = 53 - 1 = 52
52 is divisible by 26.
Q. 3 The number of roots of the equation, in the interval

is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
437
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4
Let a complex number satisfy Then, the
largest value of is equal to _________.
438
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the circle, which is tangent
to the hyperbola, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
439
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
440
Q. 6 Which of the following Boolean expression is a tautology ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 If for a>0, the feet of perpendiculars from the points A( a, -2a, 3) and B( 0, 4, 5) on the
plane lx + my + nz = 0 are points C( 0, -a, -1) and D respectively, then the length of line
segment CD is equal to :
441
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
442
Q. 8
Let P be a plane lx + my + nz = 0 containing the line, If
plane P divides the line segment AB joining points A(-3, -6, 1) and B(2, 4, -3) in ratio
K:1 then the value of k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
443
444
Q. 9
Let . Then, the system of linear equations
has :
Option 1:
No solution
Option 2:
A unique solution
Option 3:
Exactly two solutions
Option 4:
Infinitely many solutions
Correct Answer:
No solution
Solution:
445
Q. 10 The number of elements in the set is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
446
No. of solutions = 2
Q. 11 Consider three observations a, b and c such that If the standard deviation

of is d, then which of the following is true ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
447
Q. 12
Let Then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
448
Q. 13 Let a vector be obtained by rotating the vector by an angle 45o
about the origin in counterclockwise direction in the first quadrant. Then the area of
triangle having vertices and is equal to :
449
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
450
Q. 14 Let the position vectors of two points P and Q be and
respectively. Let R and S be two points such that the direction ratios of lines PR and QS
are ( 4, -1, 2 ) and ( -2, 1, -2 ), respectively. Let lines PR and QS intersect at T. If the
vector is perpendicular to both and and the length of vector is
units, then the modulus of a position vector of A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
dr's of normal to the plane containing P, T and Q will be proportional to :
451
Q. 15 If the normals drawn to the parabola, pass through the point
then 'a' must be greater than :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
452
For standard parabola
For more than 3 normals (on axis)
Q. 16 A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to
be spades. The probability that the missing card is not a spade, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
453
Q. 17 Let denote greatest integer less than or equal to x. If for
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
454
Q. 18 Let the functions and be defined as :
and
Then, the number of points in R where is NOT differentiable is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
455
At x = 0
L.H.L. is not equal to R.H.L. (Discontinuous)
At x = 1
L.H.L. = 6 = R.H.L.
Hence option (4)is correct
Q. 19
If is the solution of the differential equation,
then the maximum value of the function over R is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
456
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is linear differential equation
Now
Q. 20 The range of for which the function
has critical points, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
457
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case I:
Case II:
458
Q. 21
Let the curve be the solution of the differential equation,
If the numerical value of area bounded by the curve and x-axis is

thne the value of is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
459
Q. 22
Let z and w be two complex numbers such that
and Re has minimum value. Then, the minimum value of for which is
real, is equal to ___________________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
and
460
Q. 23
If then is equal to ______________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 24
If the normal to the curve at a point is
parallel to the line then the value of is equal to

___________.
Correct Answer:
406
Solution:
461
Hence
Q. 25
Let and where
and be the identity matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the

matrix is then the value of is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
462
Q. 26 Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Let a circle centered at A with unit
radius is drawn. Another circle which touches and the lines AD and AB are
tangent to it, is also drawn. Let a tangent line from the point C to the circle meet
the side AB at E. If the length of EB is where are integers, then
is equal to _______________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
463
Q. 27 The total number of matrices A having entries from the set such
that the sum of all the diagonal entries of is 9 , is equal to ___________.
Correct Answer:
766
Solution:
464
Total no. of ways = 1 + 9 + 8 X 63 + 63 X 4 = 766.
Q. 28 Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric series having four initial terms from the
set {11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of these series are the maximum possible
four digit numbers, then the number of common terms in these two series is equal to
_____________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
GP : 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2048, 4096, 8192
A P : 11,16,21,26,31,36
Common terms : 16, 256, 4096 only
465
Q. 29 Let be a continuous function such that for all
If and then the value of is equal
to __________.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Q. 30 Let be defined as
Then, is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
466
467
MOCK TEST - 7
Physics
Q. 1 For the given circuit, comment on the type of transformer used.
Option 1:
Step down transformer
Option 2:
Step - up transformer
Option 3:
Auxilliary transformer
Option 4:
Auto transformer
Correct Answer:
Step - up transformer
Solution:
Q. 2 Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67% decay if half-life of a
substance is 20 minutes.
468
Option 1:
60 minutes
Option 2:
20 minutes
Option 3:
13 minutes
Option 4:
40 minutes
Correct Answer:
20 minutes
Solution:
Q. 3 A mosquito is moving with a velocity and accelerating

in uniform conditions. What will be the direction of mosquito after 2s ?
469
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
470
Q. 4 The following logic gate is equivalent to :
Option 1:
NOR Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
AND Gate
Option 4:
NAND Gate
Correct Answer:
NOR Gate
Solution:
The truth table for the given logic gate is given below
And this is equivalent to NOR gate
Q. 5 What will be the nature of flow of water from a circular tap, when its flow rate
increased from 0.18 L/ min to 0.48 L/ min ? The radius of the tap and viscosity of water
are 0.5 cm and 10-3 Pa s, respectively.
(Density of water : 103 kg/m3)
471
Option 1:
Unsteady to steady flow
Option 2:
Remains steady flow
Option 3:
Steady flow to unsteady flow
Option 4:
Remains turbulents flow
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reynolds Number is given by
where
density of fluid ;
coefficient of viscocity
-velocity of flow
D- Diameter of pipe
So answer is
472
Q. 6 A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in 20 s when a current of 1.5A is passed
through it. If the current is increased from 1.5 A to 3 A, what will be the energy
developed in 20 s.
Option 1:
2000 J
Option 2:
1500 J
Option 3:
500 J
Option 4:
1000 J
Correct Answer:
2000 J
Solution:
Using
Q. 7 The refractive index of a converging lens is 1.4. What will be the focal length of this
lens if it is placed in a medium of same refractive index? Assume the radii of curvature
of the faces of lens are R1 and R2 respectively.
Option 1:
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Infinite
473
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Infinite
Solution:
Q. 8 The megnetic field in a region is given by A square loop of side d is

placed with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop is moved with a constant
velocity The emf induced in the loop is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
474
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is mounted rigidly as shown in the

figure The metal A has higher coefficient of expansion compared to that of metal B.
When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath it wll,
Option 1:
Neither bend nor shrink
Option 2:
Bend towards the right
Option 3:
Not bend but shrink
Option 4:
Bend towards the left
Correct Answer:
Bend towards the left
475
Solution:
therefore it Bend towards the left
Q. 10 The half life of is 2.7 days. The activity of 1.50mg of if its atomic weight is
198 g mol-1 is,
Option 1:
535 Ci
Option 2:
240 Ci
Option 3:
357 Ci
Option 4:
252 Ci
Correct Answer:
357 Ci
Solution:
Using
we get
Now using the relation
476
Q. 11 Two identical antenna mounted on the identical towers are seprated from each other
by a distance of 45km. What should nearly be the minimum height of receving
antenna to receive the signals in line of sight?
(assume radius of earth is 6400km)
Option 1:
158.2m
Option 2:
79.1 m
Option 3:
19.77 m
Option 4:
39.55 m
Correct Answer:
39.55 m
Solution:
Q. 12 Calculate the value of mean free path for oxygen molecules at temperature
and pressure . Assume the molecular diameter 0.3nm and the gas is
ideal.
Option 1:
102 nm
Option 2:
86 nm
Option 3:
58 nm
477
Option 4:
32 nm
Correct Answer:
102 nm
Solution:
Q. 13 A large block of wood of mass M = 5.99 kg is hanging from two long massless cords. A
bullet of mass m =10g is fired into the block and gets embedded in it. The (block +
bullet) then swing upwards, their centre of mass rising vertical distance h =9.8 cm
before the pendulum comes momentarily to rest at the end of it =s arc.The speed of
the bullet just before the collision is:
Option 1:
841.4 m/s
Option 2:
831. m/s
Option 3:
811.4 m/s
Option 4:
821.4 m/s
Correct Answer:
831. m/s
Solution:
478
From energy conservation,
Applying momentum conservation
Q. 14 Red light differs from blue light as they have:
Option 1:
different frequencies and same wavelengths
Option 2:
same frequencies and different wavelengths
Option 3:
different frequencies and different wavelength
Option 4:
same frequencies and same wavelenghts
Correct Answer:
different frequencies and different wavelength
Solution:
Red light and blue light have different wavelengths and different frequencies.
Q. 15 A charge Q is moving distance in the magnitude field . Find the value of

workdone by :
Option 1:
-1
479
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
infinite
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
zero
Solution:
Since the force on a point charge by the magnetic field is always perpendicular to V
therefore Work by magnetic force on the point charge is zero.
Q. 16 The de-Brogile wavelength associated with an electron and a proton were calculated
by accelerating them through same potential of 100V. What should nearly be the ratio
of their wavelength?
Option 1:
1860 :1
Option 2:
Option 3:
41.4 :1
Option 4:
43:1
Correct Answer:
43:1
Solution:
480
Q. 17 Find out the surface charge density at the intersection of point x=3 m plane and x-axis
in the region of uniform line charge of 8nC/m lying along the z-axis in free space.
Option 1:
47.88 C/m
Option 2:
0.424 nC m-2
Option 3:
0.07 nC m-2
Option 4:
4.0 nC m-2
Correct Answer:
0.424 nC m-2
Solution:
Q. 18 Statement I : A cyclist is moving on an unbanked road with the speed of 7 kmh-1 and
takes a sharp circular turn along the path of radius of 2m without reducing the speed.
The static friction coefficent is 0.2. The cyclist will not slip and pass the curev ( g= 9.8
m/s2)
Statement II : If the road is bnaked at an angle of , cyclist will not slip and pass the
-1
curve of 2m radius with the speed of 18.5 kmh without slipping.
Option 1:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Option 2:
both statement I and statement II are false
Option 3:
both statement I and statement II are true
481
Option 4:
statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For statement I
Speed is lower than , hence it can take safe

turn.
For statement II
Speed is lower than , hence it can take safe turn.
So
Q. 19 Amplitude of a mass-spring which is executing smiple harmonic motion decreases

with time. If the mass =500g, decay constant = 20g/s then how much time is required
for the amplitude of the system to drop to half of its initial value?
(ln 2= 0.693)
Option 1:
0.034 s
Option 2:
15.01 s
Option 3:
34.65 s
Option 4:
17.32 s
482
Correct Answer:
34.65 s
Solution:
Q. 20 In order to determine the Young's modulus of a wire of radius 0.2cm ( measured using
a scale of least count = 0.001cm) and length 1m (measured using a scale of least count
1mm), a weight of mass 1kg (measured using a scale of least count =1g) was hanged to
get enlogation of 0.5cm (measured using a scale of least count 0.001cm). What will be
the fractional error in the value of Young;s Modulus determined by this experiment?
Option 1:
9%
Option 2:
0.9 %
Option 3:
0.14 %
Option 4:
1.4 %
Correct Answer:
1.4 %
Solution:
483
Q. 21 A solid disc of radius 'a' and mass 'm' rolls down without slippingon an inclined plane
making an angle of with the horizontal. The acceleration of the disc will be
where b is _________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(g = accelertaion due to gravity)
( = angle shown in th =e diagram)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 22 If one wants to remove all the mass of earth to infinity in order to break it up
completely. The amount of energy that needs to be supplied will be where x
is __________
(Rounded off the nearest integer)
(M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth, G is graviational constant)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
484
Q. 23 A deviation of is produced in the yellow ray when prism of crown and flint glass are
achromatically combined. Taking dispresive powers of crown and flint glass as 0.02
and 0.03 respectively and refractive index for yellow light for these glasses are 1.5 and
1.6 respectively. The refracting angles for crown glass prism will be __________(in
degree)
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Given
For Achromatic combination
485
Q. 24 A force is applied on an intersection point x=2 plane and x-axis.
The magnitude of torque of this force about a point (2,3,4) is _______
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Q. 25 A body of mass 2kg moves under a force of . It starts from rest and
was at the origin initially. After 4s, its new coordination are (8,b,20). The value of b is
_________
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
486
Q. 26 A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities
respectively. The compressebility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both
the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the
open pipe is where x is ________
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
where B is the bulk modulus
So x=4
Q. 27 For an ideal heat engine,the temperature of the source is . In order to have

60% efficiency the temperature of the sink should be __________ (Rounded off to the
nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
-113
Solution:
487
Q. 28 A swimmer can swin with velocity of 12km/h in still water. Water flowing in a river has
velocity 6km/h. The direction with respect to the direction of flow of river water he
should swim in order to reach the point on the other bank just opposite to his starting
point is ____________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Q. 29 In a parallel plate capcitor set up, the plate area of capacitor is 2m2 and the plates are
separated by 1m. If the space between the plates are filled with a dielectric material of
thickness 0.5m and area 2m2 (see fig) the capacities of the set-up will be _____ .
(Dielectric constant of material =3.2)
Correct Answer:
3
488
Solution:
Q. 30 The energy dissipiated by a resistor is 10 mJ in 1s when an electric current of 2mA

flows through it. The resistance is _______
Correct Answer:
2500
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Statement I: Sodium hydride can be used as an oxdising agent.
Statement II: The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Statement I is true and statement II is false
Option 4:
Statement I is false and statement II is true
489
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false and statement II is true
Solution:
(1) NaH (sodium Hydride) is used as a reducing reagent
(2) In pyridine, due to free electron on N atom, it is basic in nature.
Hence statement I is false & II is true.
Q. 2 The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure of C60 is :
Option 1:
It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.
Option 2:
Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
Option 3:
The five-membered rings are fused only to six-membered rings.
Option 4:
The six-membered rings are fused to both six and five-membered rings.
Correct Answer:
It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.
Solution:
It contains 12 five-membered rings & 20 six-membered rings.
Q. 3 The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by:
490
Option 1:
Peptide bond
Option 2:
glycosidic bond
Option 3:
Hydrogen bonding
Option 4:
van der Waals forces
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
The secondary structure of protein includes two type :
(a) -Helix
(b) -pleated sheet
In -Helix structure, the polypeptide chain is coil around due to the presence of Intramolecular H-
Bonding.
Q. 4 An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozoonolysis gives A. Compound A when warmed

with ammonical sliver nitrate forms a bright sliver mirror along the sides of the test
tube. The unsaturated hydrocarbon X is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
491
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As (A) compound given positive tollen's test hence it may consist –CHO (aldehyde group). or it can
be HCOOH So for the given option :
Correct option is 4
Q. 5 The INCORRECT statements below regarding collodial solution is:
Option 1:
A collodial solution shows Brownian motion of collodial particles.
492
Option 2:
A floculating power of is more than that of
Option 3:
A collodial solution shows colligative properties
Option 4:
An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of collodial particles
Correct Answer:
An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of collodial particles
Solution:
The colloidal solution exhibits colligative properties.
An ordinary filter can not stop the flow of colloidal particles.
Flocculating power increases with an increase in the opposite charge of electrolyte.
Colloidal particles show Brownian motion.
The INCORRECT statement is "an ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of colloidal particles".
Q. 6 Which of the following reaction CANNOT be carried out with coke?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reduction of is carried out by electrolytic reduction of its fused salts.
ZnO, Fe2O3 & Cu2O can be reduced by carbon.
493
Q. 7
In the above reaction , the reagent "A" is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Alkaline
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Alkaline
Solution:
The reaction will be-
Correct option is 2
Q. 8 Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation energy values given below:
494
Option 1:
X=F, Y=Mg
Option 2:
X=Mg, Y= Na
Option 3:
X=Mg, Y=F
Option 4:
X=Na, Y=Mg
Correct Answer:
X=Na, Y=Mg
Solution:
2nd I.E. of Alkali metals is higher than their respective period.
IE1 is very low but IE2 is very high due to the stable noble gas configuration of Na+.
Q. 9 Match the List I with List -II
The correct match is:
Option 1:
a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Option 2:
a-i, b-iv. c-iii, d-ii
495
Option 3:
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Option 4:
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Correct Answer:
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Solution:
The correct match is :
So, Option-(a)-(iii) ; (b)-(i) ; (c)-(iv) ; (d)-(ii)
Q. 10 Which of the following polymer is used in the manufacture of wood laminates?
Option 1:
cis-poly isoprene
Option 2:
Phenol and formaldehyde resin
Option 3:
Melamine and formaldehyde
Option 4:
Urea and formaldehyde resin
Correct Answer:
Urea and formaldehyde resin
Solution:
Urea-formaldehyde resin is used in the manufacture of wood laminates.
496
Q. 11 The correct statement about H2O2 are:
A. used in the treatment of effluents.
B. used as both oxidizing and reducing agents.
C. the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane
D. miscible with water
Option 1:
B,C and D only
Option 2:
A,B and D only
Option 3:
A, C and D only
Option 4:
A,B,C and D
Correct Answer:
A,B and D only
Solution:
(1) In H2O2 oxidation of oxygen is -1 Therefore acts both as oxidising and reducing agents.
(2) H2O2 is miscible in water due to intermolecular H-Bonding.
(3) H2O2 has open book structure in which both –OH groups are not on the same plane.
(4) H2O2 is used in the treatment of effluents.
So, correct statements about H2O2 are (A), (B) and (D) only.
497
Q. 12 Arrange the following metal complex/compounds in the increasing order of spin only
magnetic moment. Presume all the three, high spins system.
(Atomic numbers Ce= 58, Gd= 64 and Eu = 63)
Answer is:
Option 1:
c < a< b
Option 2:
a<b<c
Option 3:
a<c<b
Option 4:
b<a<c
Correct Answer:
a<c<b
Solution:
498
Q. 13
The structure of X is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
499
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the treatment with NaOH solution can be
used to prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines. The purpose of NaOH in the
reaction is:
Option 1:
to remove basic impurities
Option 2:
to remove acidic impurities
500
Option 3:
to activate NH3 used in the reaction
Option 4:
to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide
Correct Answer:
to remove acidic impurities
Solution:
During the reaction, HX (acid) is formed.
Hence, we use NaOH to remove this acidic impurity
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2)
501
Q. 15 The green house gas/es is (are):
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. water vapour
D. methane
Option 1:
A and B only
Option 2:
A and C only
Option 3:
A,C, and D only
Option 4:
A only
Correct Answer:
A,C, and D only
Solution:
The greenhouse gases are CO2, CH4 & H2O vapor.
So, (A), (C) and (D) only is correct.
Q. 16
Identify the reagent(s) 'A' and condition(s) for the reaction
502
Option 1:
A = Cl2 ; dark , Anhydrous AlCl3
Option 2:
A = Cl2 ; UV light
Option 3:
A = HCl, Anhydrous AlCl3
Option 4:
A= HCl , ZnCl2
Correct Answer:
A = Cl2 ; UV light
Solution:
For substitution at the allylic position in the given compound, the reagent used is Cl2 /UV light. The
reaction is free radical halogenation.
Q. 17 are known when x and y are:
Option 1:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br, I
Option 2:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br
Option 3:
x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br, I
503
Option 4:
x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl , Br, I
Correct Answer:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br
Solution:
Due to strong reducing nature of , FeI3 is ustable.
So, FeI3 does not exist.
Therefore y can not be I.
But y can be F, Cl, Br because halides of Fe2+ and Fe3+are stable.
So, x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br
Q. 18 Which of the folllowing is least basic?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
504
Q. 19 The exact volumes 1M NaOH solution required to neutralise 50mL 1M

solution and 100 mL of 2M solution, respectively , are:
Option 1:
100 mL and 50 mL
Option 2:
100 mL and 200 mL
Option 3:
50 mL and 50 mL
Option 4:
100 mL and 100 mL
Correct Answer:
100 mL and 200 mL
Solution:
We know
Mole = Molarity X Volume.
Balanced Reaction will be-
505
Q. 20 The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with the atomic numbers, respectively, 33,53
and 83 are:
Option 1:
X, Y and Z are metals
Option 2:
X is metalloid , Y is non-metal and Z is a metal
Option 3:
X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal
Option 4:
X and Z are non - metals and Y is metalloid
Correct Answer:
506
Solution:
Correct option 2
Q. 21 A and B decomposes via first order kinetics with half - lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min
respectively.Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture of A and B, the time
taken for the concentration of A to become 16 times that of B _________min (Rounded
off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
Given:
Q. 22 When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20mL of 0.12 M chromic
sulpahte solution, ______ moles of lead sulpahte precipiatate out. (Rounded off
to the nearest integer)
507
Correct Answer:
525
Solution:
Balanced reaction is-
Moles will be -
Q. 23 A 5.0 m mol dm-3 aqueous solution of KCl has a conductance of 0.55 mS when
measured in a cell of cell constant 1.3cm-1. The molar conductivity of this solution is
_____ mSm2 mol-1
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
508
Ans = 14
Q. 24 In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen , 0.1840g of ogranic compound gave 30

mL of nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758nmn of Hg pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compund is _________
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
In Duma's method of estimation of Nitrogen. 0.1840 gm of an organic compound gave 30 mL of
nitrogen which is collected at 287 K & 758 mm of Hg.
Given ;
Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg.
Hence actual pressure = (758 – 14) = 744 mm of Hg
V = 27.935 mL
509
22400 mL of N2 at STP weighs = 28 gm.
27.94 mL of N2 at STP weighs
Rond off. Answer = 19 %
Q. 25 Sulphurous acid has . The

pH of 0.588 M is ________
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
510
Q. 26 At , 50g g of iron reacts with HCl to form FeCl2 . The evolved hydrogen gas
expands against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work done by the gas during this
expansion is ___________J.
[Given R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1. Assume , hydrogen is an ideal gas]
[Atomic mass of Fe is 55.85u]
511
Correct Answer:
2218
Solution:
Reaction:
Nearest integer = 2218
Q. 27 absorbs light of wavelength 498nm during a d-d transition. The

octahedral splitting energy for the above complex is _____ . (Round off to the
nearest integer)
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Given:
The octahedral splitting energy
Ans = 4
512
Q. 28 Ga (atomic mass 70u) crystalline in a hexagonal close-packed structure. The total
number of voids in 0.581 g of Ga is ______ .
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
HCP structure: Per atom, there will be one octahedral void (OV) and two tetrahedral voids (TV).
Therefore, a total of three voids per atom is present in the HCP structure.
Therefore total no of atoms of Ga will be
Now, total Number of voids = 3 × total no. of atoms
Ans = 15
Q. 29 The number of orbitals with n=5, is ______ (Round off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For, n = 5
513
l = (0, 1, 2, 3, 4)
If l = 0, m = 0
l = 1, m = {–1, 0, +1}
l = 2, m = {–2, –1, 0, +1, +2}
l = 3, m = {–3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3}
l = 4, m = {–4, –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4}
5d, 5f and 5g subshell contain one-one orbital having
ml = +2
Total no. of orbitals = 3.
Ans = 3
Q. 30 At 363K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and that B is 18kPa. One mole of A and
2moles of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is ideal, the vapour pressure of the
mixture is __________ kPa (round off to the integer)
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
An Ideal solution is prepared by mixing 1 mol A and 2 mol B.
According to Raoult's low
514
Maths
Q. 1 Let the length of intercepts on x-axis and y-axis made by the circle
, (a < 0) be and respectively. Then the
shortest distance from origin to a tangent to this circle which is perpendicular to the
line , is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
515
Q. 2
If the points of intersection of the ellipse and the circle
lie on the curve then b is equal to :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
12
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
516
Solve both we get
Q. 3 If (x,y,z) be an arbitary point lying on a plane P which passes through the points
(42,0,0), (0,42,0) and (0,0,42) the the value of expression
is equal to:
Option 1:
-45
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
39
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Plane passing through (42,0,0), (0,42,0), (0,0,42)
From intercept from, equation of plane is
517
Now, given expression is
Q. 4 Let where be twice differnetiable function such that

. If be defined as then the value
of is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
518
Add all the equation we get
Q. 5 Let C1 be the curve obtained by the solution of differential equation

. Let C2 be the solution of . If both the
curve pass along (1,1) then the area enclosed by the curves C1 and C2 is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
519
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Similarly
520
Q. 6 Let A = { 2,3,4,5 ...., 30} and be an equivalence relation on , defined by
, if only and only ad = bc. Then the number of ordered pairs which
satisfy this equivalence relation with ordered pair (4,3) is equal to:
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
521
Q. 7 Let A denote the event that a 6-digit integer formed by 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition
be divisible by 3. The probability of event A is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Favourable cases :
Number divisible by 3 = Sum of digits must be divisible by 3
522
Case - I
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 6 !
Case - II
0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 5·5!
Case - III
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Number of ways = 5·5!
n(favourable) = 6! + 2·5·5! = 5! (6+10)
Q. 8
If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation
, with then equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
523
Solution:
Q. 9
The maximum value of is
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
524
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10
Consider the integral where [x] denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to x. Then the value of I is equal to:
Option 1:
9 (e-1)
Option 2:
45 (e-1)
Option 3:
9 (e+1)
Option 4:
45 (e+1)
Correct Answer:
45 (e-1)
525
Solution:
Q. 11
Let be such that function is
continous at x =0, where {x} = x - {x}, is the greatest ineger less than or equal to to x.
Then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
no such exists
Option 4:
526
Correct Answer:
no such exists
Solution:
Function can't be continuous
Q. 12 Let and . If
and , then the value of
is equal to:
Option 1:
13
Option 2:
11
527
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
15
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
Q. 13 The least value of where z is complex number which satisfies the inequality
,is equal to:
Option 1:
528
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 14 Given that the inverse trignometric functiontake principal values only. Then , the
number of real values of x which satsify is
equal to:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
529
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Put x = 0, 1, –1 in the original equation We see that all values satisfy the original equation.
Number of solution = 3
Q. 15 Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5,7,6,9 points in the interior of the line segements
AB, CD, BC, DA respectively. Let be the number of triangles having these points from
different sides as vertices and be the number of quadrilaterals havings these points
from different sides as vertices. Then is equal to:
Option 1:
1890
530
Option 2:
795
Option 3:
717
Option 4:
1173
Correct Answer:
717
Solution:
Q. 16 If the foot of the perpendicular from point (4,3,8) on line

is (3,5,7) then the shortest distance between
the line L1 and line is equal to:
531
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
532
Q. 17 Let C be the locus of the mirror image of a point on the parabola with
respect to the line y=x. Then the equation of tangent to C at P (2,1) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
533
Q. 18 Let A (-1, 1), B ( 3,4) and C (2,0) be given three points. A line y = mx, m > 0, intersects
lines AC and BC at point P and Q respectively. Let A1 and A2 be the area of
and respectively, such that , then the value of m is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
534
535
Q. 19 Let be a quadratic polynomial with real coefficients such that
and leaves remainder 5 when it is divided by . Then
the value of is equal to :
Option 1:
11
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
9
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
536
Q. 20 Let f be a real valued function, defined on R - {-1, 1} and given by
Then in which of the following intervals, function f(x) is increasing?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
537
Q. 21 For real numbers , , and if
where C is an arbitrary constant , then the value of is equal to:
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
538
Now
Q. 22 Let n be a positive integer. Let
. If
then n is equal to :
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
539
Q. 23
Let , a, b be in a G.P and be in a A.P, where a,b >0. Then 72(a+b) is equal to
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
1/16, a, b are in G.P., so
540
Q. 24 If the distance of the point (1, -2, 3) from the plane measured
parallel to the line, is then the value of |m| is equal
to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
541
Q. 25 Let
upto n - terms, where a>1. If and , then the value of
a is equal to ______.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Let
542
Q. 26 Let be a vector perpendicular to the vectors and
. If then the value of is
equal to:
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
543
Q. 27
Let and be two matrices with real entities such that
, where and . If and
, then the value of k is ____
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
544
Q. 28 Consider the statistics of two sets of observations as follows:
If the variance of the combined set of these two obseravtion is , then the value of n
is equal to __________
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence n = 5.
545
Q. 29 Let and be defined as
and ,
where a,b are non-negative real numbers. If (gof) (x) is continous for all , then a +
b is equal to ____
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 30 In , the length of sides AC and AB are 12 cm and 5cm respectively. If the area
of is and R and r are respectively the radii of circumcircle and incircile
of , then the value of (in cm) is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
15
546
Solution:
547
MOCK TEST - 8
Physics
Q. 1 An AC current is given by . A hot wire ammeter will give a
reading :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
548
Q. 2 Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures and are mixed so that there is no
loss of energy. If and , and , and be the degrees of freedom,
masses, number of molecules of the first and second gas respectively, the
temperature of mixture of these two gases is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the final temperature of the mixture be T.
Since, there is no loss in energy.
549
Q. 3 When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius curvature of
common surface is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 A Carnot's engine working between 400 K and 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per
cycle. The amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle.
Option 1:
2400 J
550
Option 2:
1800 J
Option 3:
3200 J
Option 4:
1600 J
Correct Answer:
2400 J
Solution:
Q. 5 Two identical metal wires of thermal conductivities and respectively are

connected in series. The effective thermal conductivity of the combination is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
551
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 A current of 10 A exists in a wire of cross sectional area of 5 mm 2 with a drift velocity

of . The number of free electrons in each cubic meter of the wire is
_________.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
552
Q. 7 A modern grand - prix racing car of mass m is travelling on a flat track in a circular arc
of radius R with a speed v. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the
track is then the magnitude of negative lift acting downwards on the car is :
(Assume forces on the four tyres are identical and g = acceleration due to gravity)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
553
Q. 8 A polyatomic ideal gas has 24 vibrational modes. What is the value of ?
Option 1:
1.03
Option 2:
10.3
Option 3:
1.37
Option 4:
1.30
Correct Answer:
1.03
Solution:
Since each vibrational mode has 2 degrees of freedom hence total vibrational degrees of freedom
=48
554
Q. 9 A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l which rotates at a constant angular
frequency. The mass M moves with steady speed in a circular path of constant radius.
Assume that the system is in steady circular motion with constant angular velocity .
The angular momentum of M about points A is which lies in the positive z direction
and the angular momentum of M about point . The correct statement for this
system is :
Option 1:
and are both constant in magnitude and direction
Option 2:
is constant, both in magnitude and direction
Option 3:
is constant in direction with varying magnitude
Option 4:
is constant, both magnitude and direction
Correct Answer:
is constant, both in magnitude and direction
Solution:
We know,
Now with respect to A, we always get direction
of along +ve z -axis and also constant magnitude as mvr. But with respect to B, we get constant
magnitude but continuously changing direction.
555
Q. 10 A selenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core with relative permeability 500. Insulated
windings of the solenoid carry an electric current of 5 A. The magnetic flux density
produced by the solenoid is : (permeability of free space )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom, then its velocity for
the nth orbit is given as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
556
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know the velocity of the electron in the shell of
the hydrogen atom is given by
Q. 12 The thickness at the centre of a plano convex lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If
the speed of light in the material of the lens is . The focal length of the
lens is ________.
Option 1:
0.30 cm
Option 2:
1.5 cm
Option 3:
15 cm
Option 4:
30 cm
Correct Answer:
30 cm
Solution:
557
Q. 13 The output of the given combination gates represents :
Option 1:
NAND Gate
Option 2:
NOR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
AND Gate
558
Correct Answer:
NAND Gate
Solution:
Q. 14 For what value of displacement the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple
harmonic oscillation become equal ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
559
Q. 15 A triangular plate is shown. A force is applied at point P. The torque at
point P with respect to point 'O' and 'Q' are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Torque about 'O'
Torque about 'Q'
560
Q. 16 The varnier scale used for measurement has a positive zero error of 2.0 mm. If while
taking a measurement it was noted that '0' on the vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm
and 8.6 cm, vernier coincidence is 6, then the correct value of measurement is _______
cm.
(least count = 0.01 cm)
Option 1:
8.56 cm
Option 2:
8.54 cm
Option 3:
8.58 cm
Option 4:
8.36 cm
Correct Answer:
8.54 cm
Solution:
Positive zero error =0.2 mm
Main scale reading =8.5 cm
Vernier scale reading =
Final reading =8.5+0.06-0.02=8.54 cm
Q. 17 An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of wavelength of
electron to that of photon is : (c being the velocity of light)
561
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for sometime after which it
decelerates at a constant rate to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t seconds,
the total distance travelled is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
562
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the car accelerate for time traveling distance and acquire maximum velocity v.
Then, [from the equation, ]
and [from the equation, v=u+a t ]
After this car decelerates for time to come to rest

Hence, [from the equation, ]
and [from the equation, u=v-a t ]
Also, total distance traveled,
563
Q. 19 Which level of the single ionized carbon has the same energy as the ground state
energy of hydrogen atom ?
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The energy of H-atom is
for H-atom Z=1 for the ground state, n=1
Now for carbon atom (single ionized), Z=6
Q. 20 A boy is rolling a 0.5 kg ball on the frictionless floor with the speed of 20 ms -1 the ball
gets deflected by an obstacle on the way. After deflection it moves with 5% of its initial
kinetic energy. What is the speed of the ball now ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
564
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Initial kinetic energy
After deflection, it moves with 5 % of
Now, let the final speed be 'v' m/s, then :
Q. 21 If N average force is exerted by a light wave on a non - reflecting surface

2
of 30 cm area during 40 minutes of time span, the enrgy flux of light just before it falls
on the surface is ______ W/cm2 . (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(Assume complete absorption and normal incidence conditions are there)
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 22 The angular speed of truck wheel is increased from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26
seconds. The number of revolutions by the truck engine during this time is ______.
(Assuming the acceleration to be uniform).
565
Correct Answer:
728
Solution:
We know,
Let the number of revolutions be N
Q. 23 Consider two identical springs each of spring constant k and negligible mass
compared to the mass M as shown. Fig . 1 shows one of them and Fig. 2 shows their
series combination. The ratios of time period of oscillation of the two SHM is
where value of x is ___________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
566
Q. 24 Two blocks (m = 0.5 kg and M = 4.5 kg ) are arranged on a horizontal frictionless table
as shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is . Then
the maximum horizontal force that can be applied on the larger block so that the
blocks move together is ________N. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) [Take g as 9.8 ms
-2]
Correct Answer:
21
Solution:
Q. 25 The equivalent resistance of series combination of two resistors is 's'. When they are
connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 'p'. If s = np,then minimum value for
n is _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
567
Q. 26 The following bodies,
(1) a ring
(2) a disc
(3) a solid cylinder
(4) a solid sphere
of same mass 'm' and radius 'R' are allowed to roll down without slipping
simultaneously from the top of the inclined plane. The body which will reach first at
the bottom of the inclined plane is _______.
[Mark the body as per their respective numbering given in the question]
568
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
for least time, k should be the least
and k is least for the solid sphere.
Q. 27
Four identical rectangular plates with length, and breadth, are
arranged as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance between A and C is The

value of x is _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
569
Q. 28 For VHF signal broadcasting, _________km2 of maximum service area will be covered by
an antenna tower of height 30 m , if the receiving antenna is placed at ground. Let
radius of the earth be 6400 km. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) (Take as 3.14)
Correct Answer:
1206
Solution:
Q. 29 The radius in kilometer to which the present radius of earth (R=6400 km) to be
compressed so that the escape velocity is increased 10 times is ________.
Solution:
570
Q. 30 A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C is 14 pF is charged by a battery to a
potential difference V = 12 V between its plates. The charging battery is now
disconnected and a porcelin plate with k = 7 is inserted between the plates, then the
plate would oscillate back and forth between the plates with a constant mechanical
energy of ________pJ.
(Assume no friction)
Correct Answer:
864
Solution:
and
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base ?
Option 1:
571
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lewis base: Chemical species which has the capability to donate electron pairs.
In NF3 , SF4 , ClF3 central atom (i.e. N, S, Cl) having lone pair, therefore, act as lewis base.
In PCl5 central atom (P) does not have lone pair, therefore, does not act as a lewis base.
Therefore, the Correct option is (1)
Q. 2 With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, identify the wrong statement.
Option 1:
Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Option 2:
Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site
Option 3:
Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's active site
Option 4:
Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's active site
Correct Answer:
Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Solution:
Drugs compete with the natural substrate for their attachment on the active sites of enzymes. Such
drugs are called competitive inhibitors.
572
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s active site. These bind to a different site of enzyme which
is called allosteric site.
This binding of inhibitor at allosteric site changes the shape of the active site in such a way that
substrate cannot recognise it.
From above concept- Correct statement are-
2) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site.
3) Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's active site
4) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's active site.
So, incorrect will be -
1) Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Therefore, Correct option is (1)
Q. 3 A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a /an :
Option 1:
gel
573
Option 2:
aerosol
Option 3:
Solid sol
Option 4:
foam
Correct Answer:
Solid sol
Solution:
A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a solid sol.
Q. 4 The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of halogens satisfies :
Option 1:
Cl> F > Br > I
Option 2:
F >Cl> Br > I
Option 3:
Cl> Br > F > I
Option 4:
I > Br >Cl> F
Correct Answer:
Cl> F > Br > I
Solution:
Given order of electron gain enthalpy (Absolute value) in NCERT-
Cl > F > Br > I
Chlorine has a higher electron gain enthalpy than fluorine due to less electron density.
574
Q. 5 The INCORRECT statement (s) about heavy water is (are)
(A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry
(C) used for the study of reaction mechanism
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Option 1:
(C) only
Option 2:
(B) and (D) only
Option 3:
(D) only
Option 4:
(B) only
Correct Answer:
(D) only
Solution:
the correct statements about heavy water are
(A) used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor
(B) obtained as a by-product in the fertilizer industry
(C) used for the study of the reaction mechanism
But the incorrect statement about heavy water is
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water.
575
because the dielectric constant of H2O is greater than heavy water.
Q. 6 What is the spin - only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with
atomic number 25, in its aqueous solution?
Option 1:
5.26
Option 2:
5.0
Option 3:
zero
Option 4:
5.92
Correct Answer:
5.92
Solution:
Electronic configuration of the divalent metal ion having atomic number 25 is
Total number of unpaired electrons = 5
576
Q. 7
The product "A" in the above reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
577
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction will be-
Q. 8
Product "A" in the above chemical reaction is :
Option 1:
578
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
579
Statement I: Retardation factor can be measured in meter/centimeter.
Statement II: value of compound remains constant in all solvents.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Retardation factor is a dimensionless quantity.
It is to be noted that the value of different compounds are different and it also varies for a
compound when the solvent is changed.
So, Both statement I and statement II are false
Q. 10 Reducing smog is a mixture of :
580
Option 1:
Smoke, fog and
Option 2:
Smoke, fog and
Option 3:
Smoke, fog and
Option 4:
Smoke, fog and
Correct Answer:
Smoke, fog and
Solution:
Reducing or classical smog is the combination of smoke, fog, and SO2 .
Therefore, the Correct option is (4).
Q. 11 Which of the following reaction is an example of ammonolysis ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The process of cleavage of the C–X bond by the Ammonia molecule is known as ammonolysis.
581
So, only the following reaction is an example of Ammonolysis among the given options:
Q. 12 A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single
bonds. The shape of this molecule is :
Option 1:
trigonal pyramidal
Option 2:
planar triangular
Option 3:
see-saw
Option 4:
T-shaped
Correct Answer:
T-shaped
Solution:
A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds.
2 L.P + 3 B.P = 5 (Hybridised Orbitals)
From VSEPR theory the hybridization will be sp3d fro 5 Hybridised Orbitals.
The shape of this molecule is T-shaped.
Therefore, the Correct option is (4).
582
Q. 13 Hoffmann bromomide degradation of benzamide gives product A, which upon heating
with and gives product B.
The structures of A and B are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
583
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide gives product (A) which is Aniline. Aniline upon
heating with and gives a foul smelling Phenyl Isocyanide as the major product.
The reaction is represented below:
Therefore, the correct option is (3)
Q. 14 The correct order of conductivity of ions in water is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
has lower hydrated radius so its electrical conductivity is higher.
584
Therefore, the correct option is (3)
Q. 15 The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given
below, respectively, indicates:
Option 1:
and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide
Option 2:
and decomposition of the metal oxide
Option 3:
and decomposition of the metal oxide
Option 4:
and reduction of the metal oxide
Correct Answer:
and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide
585
Solution:
At intersection point and sudden increase in slope is due to melting or boiling point of
the metal.
Q. 16 Mesityl oxide is a common name of :
Option 1:
3- Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
Option 2:
2, 4 - Dimethyl pentan -3-one
Option 3:
2-Methyl cyclohexanone
Option 4:
4-Methyl pent -3-en-2-one
Correct Answer:
4-Methyl pent -3-en-2-one
Solution:
Mesityl oxide is a common name of 4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one.
586
Q. 17
The above reaction requires which of the following reaction conditions ?
Option 1:
623 K, 300 atm
Option 2:
623 K, Cu 300 atm
Option 3:
573 K, Cu, 300 atm
Option 4:
573 K, 300 atm
Correct Answer:
623 K, 300 atm
Solution:
Given in NCERT:
Chlorobenzene can be converted into phenol by heating in an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution
at a temperature of 623K and a pressure of 300 atmospheres.
587
Statement I : Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium

mangabate.
Statement II : Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are

tetrahedral and paramagnetic in nature.
options given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I: Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate.
The above reaction is correct.
Statement II : Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and
paramagnetic in nature.
But potassium permanganate is not paramagnetic.
588
So,
Statement-I is correct.
Statement-II is incorrect.
Q. 19 Which of the following is correct structure of tyrosine ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
589
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Tyrosine amino acid is
Q. 20 Which of the following is an aromatic compound ?
Option 1:
590
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the Huckel's rule,
If a cyclic, planar molecule has (4n+2) electrons, it is considered aromatic.
So, in the aromatic compounds, possible electrons are 2, 6,10...etc.
Now
1) 6 electrons are present, it is cyclic and planar.
2) 6 electrons are present, it is planar but not cyclic.
3) 4 electrons are present, it is planar but not cyclic.
4) 4 electrons are present, it is planar and cyclic.
So, Only option 1 following all conditions.
591
Q. 21 The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above
water. The moral solubility of oxygen in water is ___________ . (Round
off to the Nearest Integer)
[Given : Henry's law constant
Density of water with dissolved oxygen ]
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
The effect of pressure on the solubility of the gas in the liquid is given by Henry's law, which states
that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over
the solution at a definite temperature.
The solubility is taken as the mass of the gas dissolved per unit volume of the liquid. Thus, if m is
the mass of the gas dissolved per unit volume of the solvent and P is the pressure of the gas in
equilibrium with the solution, then
where K is the proportionality constant.
So,
Ans = 25
592
Q. 22 The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and CaO are and
respectively.
For the reaction
the standard reaction enthalpy

___________kJ.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
230
Solution:
Given reaction is:
We know the standard reaction enthalpy formula-
= – 1675 –3 (–635)
= 230 kJ
Ans = 230
Q. 23 15 mL of aqueous solution of in acidic medium completely reacted with 20 mL

of 0.03 M aqueous . The molarity of the solution is _________
Correct Answer:
24
Solution:
15 mL of aqueous solution of in acidic medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M
aqueous .
From the above statement we can understand by law of equivalence that
593
So,
M 1 x V 1 x n1 = M 2 x V 2 x n2
MFe x 15 x 1 = 0.03 x 20 x 6
M = 0.24 M = 24 x 10-2 M
Ans = 24
Q. 24
In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The
percentage yield of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is ______%. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
(Given atomic mass : )
Correct Answer:
80
Solution:
Given reaction:
Theoretically calculation:-
So, from 78 g of benzene on nitration gives 123 g of nitrobenzene.
1 g of Benzene on nitration gives 123/78 g of nitrobenzene.
3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 3.9 x(123/78) g of nitrobenzene.
3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 6.15 g of nitrobenzene.
594
But the actual amount of nitrobenzene formed is 4.92 g.
Ans = 80
Q. 25 The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal aqueous solution is _________ .

[Given : Atomic masses ]
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
100 molal aqueous solution means
there is 100 moles solute in 1 kg = 1000 gm water.
So,
moles of water = 1000/18 grams
Now,
Ans = 64
Q. 26 0.01 moles of a weak acid is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M

solution. The degree of dissociation of HA is ________ (Rounded off to the
Nearest Integer). [Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume degree of
dissociation <<1]
595
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
0.01 moles of a weak acid HA (Ka = 2.0 x 10-6 ) is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution.
Because 0.01 >> x , for weak acid.
Given [Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume degree of dissociation <<1]
Now,
After putting the value
Now,
Ans = 2
Q. 27 The reaction white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in inert atmosphere resulted
inthe formation of product 'A'. The reaction of 1 mol of 'A' with excess of in
aqueous medium gives ________mol (s) of . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
4
596
Solution:
The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in the inert atmosphere resulted in the
formation of the product 'A'.
The reaction 1 mol of 'A' with an excess of AgNO3 in an aqueous medium gives 4 moles of Ag.
Ans = 4
Q. 28 A certain orbital has n =4 and mL = -3. The number of radial nodes in this orbital is
____________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
We know a formula:
Number of radial nodes = (n -l-1)
given n = 4, m= -3
So, l = 0,1,2,3
Now, we know
for only l = 3
m = - 3 to + 3,
So,
Number of radial nodes = (4 -3 -1) = 0
Ans = 0
Q. 29 For a certain first order reaction 32 % of the reactant is left after 570 s. The rate
constant of this reaction is ________ (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given :
597
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
We know, For 1st order reaction,
Given
For a certain first order reaction 32% of the reactant is left after 570 s.
So, at t = 570 sec
After putting the values-
Ans = 2
Q. 30 The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g
of carbon dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27o C is _________kPa.
[Assume gases are ideal,
Atomic masses :
Correct Answer:
150
Solution:
Given,
598
V = 10 L, T = 27o C = 300 K
and
So, Convert Volume in cubic meter unit Because R in Pa unit has meter unit.
And
Asking about The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture -
So, we know the formula -
Here, the mixture of gases is also a gas and moles will be total moles.
Now,
Ans = 150
599
Maths
Q. 1 The sum of possible values of x for
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
600
(Not possible)
Hence, x = -8
Q. 2
The value of , where denotes the
gratest integer is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
601
Q. 3 In a school, there are three types of games to be played. Some of the students play
two types of games, but none play all the three games. Which Venn diagrams can
justify the above statement ?
Option 1:
None of these
Option 2:
P and Q
Option 3:
Q and R
Option 4:
P and R
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
is visible in all three venn diagram
Hence, Option (1)
Q. 4 Two dices are rolled. If both dices have six faces numbered 1,2,3,5,7 and 11, then the
probability that the sum of the numbers on the top faces is less than or equal to 8 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
602
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Dice I : 1 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5,7
Dice I : 2 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 3 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 5 and Dice II : 1,2,3
Dice I : 7 and Dice II : 1
Q. 5 The system of equations and

has no solution if k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
603
Correct Answer:
Solution:
But for k = -2, at least one out of are not zero
Hence for no solution, k = -2
Q. 6 Choose the incorrect statement about the two circles whose equations are given
below :
and .
Option 1:
Distance between two centres is the average of radii of both the circles.
Option 2:
Circles have two intersection points
Option 3:
Both circles pass through the centre of each other
Option 4:
Both circles centres lie inside intersection region of one another
Correct Answer:
Both circles centres lie inside intersection region of one another
Solution:
604
Q. 7 Let and .
If then is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
605
Q. 8 The equation of the plane which contains the y-axis and passes through the point
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
606
Alternate
Q. 9 In a triangle PQR, the co-ordinates of the points P and Q are and

respectively. If the equation of the perpendicular bisector of PR is
then the centre of the circumcircle of the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
607
Equation of line PQ is
Slope of perpendicular bisector of PQ is 1 and passes through the mid point of P and Q.
Equation of perpendicular bisector of PQ is
y=x
Solving with 2 x - y +2 = 0 will give circumcenter of triangle PQR
Hence Circumcentre of triangle is (-2,-2).
Q. 10
Find the value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
608
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 Which of the following statement is incorrect for the function for such
that
Option 1:
has an inflection point at
Option 2:
is a strictly decreasing function
609
Option 3:
is an even function
Option 4:
is a strictly increasing function
Correct Answer:
is an even function
Solution:
Using
Adding (1) and (2)
Constant and even function
Q. 12 If the Boolean expression is a tautology, then Boolean

expression is equivalent to :
Option 1:
610
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 The inverse of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
611
Solution:
Taking both side
Q. 14 Team 'A' consists of 7 boys and n girls and Team 'B' has 4 boys and 6 girls. If a total of
52 single matches can be arranged between these two teams when a boy plays against
a boy and a girl plays a against a girl, then n is equal to :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Total matches between boys of both team
Total matches between girls of both team
Now,
612
Q. 15 If the fourth term in the expansion of is 4480, then the value of x
where is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16
If and det then a possible value of is :
613
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 If upto 100 terms,

then is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
614
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The area of the triangle with vertices and is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
615
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 Which of the following is true for that satisfies the differential equation
Option 1:
616
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 The line is a tangent to the circle at the point and the centre
of the circle lies on Then the radius of the circle is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
617
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Slope of tangent is m1 = 2
Hence slope of normal from point A(2,5) to the centre of circle is
Tangent is perpendicuar to the normal
Q. 21 The maximum value of z in the following equation where

and for and is ______________.
Option 1:
904
618
Option 2:
905
Option 3:
906
Option 4:
907
Correct Answer:
904
Solution:
For maxima and minima
Hence maximum value of Z is
619
Q. 22 If is divided by 17 , then the remainder is _______________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Divide 2021 by 17 we get -2 as remainder
Q. 23
If and its first derivative with respect to x is
when x=1,where a and b are integers, then the minimum value of

is _________________.
Correct Answer:
481
Solution:
Let
620
Q. 24
If , then the value of is equal
to _______________.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Now, characteristic roots of A are 2 and -1.
621
So, characteristic roots of are and 1 .
Hence,
Q. 25 If represents the greatest integer function, then the value of
is ____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 26 If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
and the point is
then the value of is ___________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
622
Required plane is
which is satisfied by the point (-2,1,3).
Hence,
Thus, plane is
So,
Q. 27 If and such that

and then is equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
623
Q. 28 Let there be three independent events and . The probabolity that only
occurs is , only occurs is and only occurs is . Let 'p' denote the probability
of none of events occurs that satisfies the equation and
. All the given probabilities are assumed to lie in the interval
Then, is equal to _______________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
624
Q. 29 The minimum distance between any two points and while considering point
on one circle and point on the other circle for the given circles' equations
and is
______________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
625
Q. 30
If the function is continuous at each point in its domain
and then k is _________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
626
MOCK TEST - 9
Physics
Q. 1
Moment of inertia (M.I.) of four bodies, having same and radius, are reported as;
M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter,

M.I. of circular disc about an axis perpendicular to disc and going through the
centre,
M.i. of solid cylinder about its axis and
M.I. of solid sphere about its dimeter.
Then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
627
Q. 2 A cube of side 'a' has point charge +Q located at each of its vertices except at the
origin where the charge is -Q. The electric field at the centre of cube is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
628
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 In the given figure, the energy levels of hydrogen atom have been shown along with
some transitions marked A, B, C, D and E,
The transition A, B and C respectively represent:
Option 1:
The series limit of Lyman series, second member of Balmer series and second member of
Paschen series.
Option 2:
The series limit of Lyman series, second member of Balmer series and second member of
Paschen series.
629
Option 3:
The ionization potential of hydrogen, second member of Balmer series and third member of
Paschen series.
Option 4:
The series limit of the Lyman series, the third member of Balmer series, and the second
member of Paschen series.
Correct Answer:
The series limit of the Lyman series, the third member of Balmer series, and the second
member of Paschen series.
Solution:
If the transition is from n= to the lowest value of n for any series, then it is called as the series
limit of that series.
Q. 4 Consider two satellites S1 and S2 with periods of revolution 1 hr. and 8 hr. respectively
revolving around a planet in circular orbits. The ratio of angular velocity of satellite S1
to the angular velocity of satellite S2 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
630
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 Four identical particles of equal masses 1 kg made to move along the circumference of
a circle of radius 1 m under the action of their own mutual gravitational attraction. The
speed of each particle will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
631
Correct Answer:
Solution:
632
Q. 6 In the given figure, a mass M is attached to a horizontal spring which is fixed on one
side to a rigid support. The spring constant of the spring is k. The mass oscillates on a
frictionless surface with time period T and amplitude A. When the mass is in
equilibrium position, as shown in the figure, another mass m is gently fixed upon it.
The new amplitude of oscillation will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As there is no external force acting on the system, the momentum can be conserved.
At mean/equilibrium position, initial velocity, v=Aw and final velocity, v'=A'w'
633
So,
Statement 1: Two photons having equal linear momenta have equal wavelengths.
Statement 2: if the wave length of photon is decreased, then the momentum and
energy of a photon will also decrease.
below.
Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If linear momenta are equal, then wavelength will also be equal as
On decreasing the wavelength, momentum and energy of the photon will increase as
634
Q. 8 Two equal capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the
equivalent capacities in the two cases will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For series combination:
For parallel combination:
635
Q. 9 In Young's Double slit experiment, the width of the one of the slit is three times the
other slit. The amplitude of the light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit -
width. Find the ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity in the interference
pattern.
Option 1:
2:1
Option 2:
4:1
Option 3:
3:1
Option 4:
1:4
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
Q. 10 Each side of a box made of metal sheet in cubic shape is 'a' at room temperature 'T',
the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal sheet is ' '. The metal sheet is heated
uniformly, by a small temperature , so that its new temperature is .
Calculate the increase in the volume of the metal box.
636
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When a 3-Dimensional solid is heated and its volume increases, then the expansion is called
volume or cubical expansion.
Q. 11 The workdone by a gas molecule in an isolated system is given by ,

where x is the displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature,
are constants. Then the dimensions of will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
637
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 Match list I with list II
List I List II
a. isothermal i. Presssure constant
b. Isochoric ii. Temperature constant
c. Adiabatic iii. Volume constant
d. Isobaric iv. Heat content is constant

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
Option 1:
a-iii, b-ii, c- i, d-iv
Option 2:
Option 3:
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
638
Option 4:
a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 The focal length f is related to the radius of the curvature r of the spherical convex
mirror by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In the case of spherical mirrors, there are some sign conventions that we need to consider:-
1. All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror.
2. Distances measured in the direction of the incident ray are positive and the distances measured
in the direction opposite to that of the incident rays are negative.
For convex mirror, focus is behind the mirror and is taken to positive that is in the direction of
incident ray.
639
Q. 14 If Y, K and are the values of Young's modulus, bulk modulus and molculus of rigidity
of any material respectively. Choose the correct relation for these parameters.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
640
641
Q. 15 A cell E1 of emf 6V and internal resistance 2 is connected with another cell E2 of emf
4V and internal resistance 8 ( as shown in the figure). The potential difference across
points X and Y is:
Option 1:
3.6V
Option 2:
5.6V
Option 3:
10.0 V
Option 4:
2.0V
642
Correct Answer:
5.6V
Solution:
The figure given in the question can be redrawn as given below:-
Q. 16 A current through a wire depends on time as where
where and . Find the charge crossed through the section of

the wire in 15s.
Option 1:
2100 C
Option 2:
11250 C
643
Option 3:
260C
Option 4:
2250C
Correct Answer:
11250 C
Solution:
Q. 17 Two stars of masses m and 2m at distance of rotate about their common centre of
mass in free space. The period of revolution is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
644
Correct Answer:
Solution:
645
Q. 18 n mole of a perfect gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA (see figure) consisting of the
following process.
A → B : Isothermal expansion at tempertaure T so that the volume is doubled from

V1 to V2 = 2V1 and pressure from P1 and P2.
B → C : Isobaric compression at pressure P2 to initial volume V1.
C → A : Isochoric change leading to change of pressure from P2 to P1
Total workdone in the complete cycle ABCA is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
646
Q. 19 If an emitter current is changed by 4mA, the collector current changes by 3.5mA. The
value of will be:
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
0.5
Option 3:
0.875
Option 4:
3.5
647
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 20 If the velocity-time graph has the shape AMB, what would be the shape of the
corresponding acceleration -time graph??
Option 1:
Option 2:
648
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
649
Q. 21 An inclined plane is bent in such a way that the vertical cross-section is given by
where y is in vertical and x in horizontal direction. If the upper surface of this
curved plane is rough with coefficient of friction , the maximum height in cm
at which a stationary block will not slip downard is _________cm.
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 22 A common transistor radio set requires 12V (D.C.) for its operation. The D.C. source is
constructed by using a transfomer and rectifier circuit, which are operated at 220V
(A.C.) on standard domestic A.C. supply. The number of turns of secondary coil are 24,
then the number of turns of primary are ______
Correct Answer:
440
Solution:
650
Q. 23 An audio signal amplitude modulates a carrier
.
The value of percent modulation is ______
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 24 An unpolarized light beam is incident on the polarizer of polarization experiment and

intensity of light beam emerging from the analyser is measured as 100 Lumens. Now,
if the analyzer is rotated around the horizontal axis (direction of light) by the intensity
of emerging light will be ________ Lumens.
Correct Answer:
75
Solution:
Assuming initially axis of Polarizer and Analyzer are parallel
651
Q. 25 An electromagnetic wave frequency 5GHz, is travelling in a medium whose relative
electric permittivity and relative magnetic permeability both are 2. Its velocity in this
medium is ______
Option 1:
15
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
30
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
So ans is 15
652
Q. 26 The coefficent of static friction between a wooden block of mass 0.5kg and a vertical
rough wall is 0.2. The magnitude of horizontal force that should be applied on the
block to keep it adhere to the wall will be _____ N.
[g =10ms-2]
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 27 A resonance circuit having inductance and resistance

respectively oscillates at 10MHz frequency. The value of quality factor of this resonate
is_______-
Correct Answer:
2000
Solution:
653
Q. 28 In connection with the circuit drawn below, the value of current flowing through
resistor is ______ .
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 29 A hydraulic press can lift 100kg when a mass 'm' is placed on the smaller piston. It can
lift _______- kg when the diameter of the larger piston is increased by 4 times and that
of the smaller piston is decreased by 4 times keeping the same mass 'm' on the
smaller piston.
Correct Answer:
25600
Solution:
654
Q. 30 A ball with a speed of 9m/s collides with another identical ball at rest. After collision,
the direction of each ball makes an angle of with the original direction. The ratio of
the velocities of the ball after collisions is x:y, where x is _______
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
655
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which of the following ore is concentrated using group 1 cyanide salt?
Option 1:
siderite
Option 2:
Calamine
Option 3:
Sphalerite
Option 4:
Malachite
Correct Answer:
Sphalerite
Solution:
Sphalerite (ZnS or Zinc blende) ore is concentrated using group 1 cyanide salt (NaCN) as
a depressant by Froth floatation method.
Q. 2 Identify products A and B
Option 1:
656
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
dil. KmnO4 converts alkene to alcohol.
and CrO3 converts 1o -OH to -COOH and 2o -OH to Ketone but 3o -OH performs no reaction.
657
Q. 3 In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, slope of AB line is:
Option 1:
n with (n, 0.1 to 0.5)
Option 2:
with
Option 3:
with (n<1)
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
with
Solution:
We know,
The equation of a line is
y = mx+c , where m= slope.
After comparing the equation,
658
Slope m = 1/n.
So, the slope of AB line is 1/n.
Q. 4 Which of the following compound gives pink colour on reaction with phthalic
anhydride in conc. H2SO4 followed by treatment with NaOH?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
659
Only phenolic compound has hydrogen at the para position of
the phenolic group and the rest of the phenolic compounds have not hydrogen at the para position
of the phenolic group.
So, option 1compound gives pink colour on reaction with phthalic anhydride in conc.
H2SO4 followed by treatment with NaOH.
Reaction:
660
661
Q. 5 The product formed in the first step of the reaction of
with excess
is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
662
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As Mg is present in excess, both the bromides will be converted into their respective Grignard
Reagent.
Option 4 will be correct.
Q. 6 The gas released during anaerobic degradation of vegetation may lead to:
Option 1:
Acid rain
Option 2:
Global warming and cancer
Option 3:
Corrosion of metals
663
Option 4:
Ozone hole
Correct Answer:
Global warming and cancer
Solution:
If too much of organic matter is added to water, all the available oxygen is used up. This causes
oxygen dependent aquatic life to die. Thus, anaerobic bacteria (which do not require oxygen) begin
to break down the organic waste and produce chemicals that have a foul smell (gas) and are
harmful to human health. This gas leads to global warming and cancer for humans.
Q. 7
What is the major product formed by HI on reaction with ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
664
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It will follow Markovnikov's rule.
665
Q. 8 What is the final product (major) 'A' in the given reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
666
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It will follow the Markovnikov rule.
667
List I List II
(Monomer Unit) (Polymer)
a. Caprolactum i. Natural rubber
b. 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene ii. Buna-N
c. Isoprene iii. Nylon 6
d. Acrylonitrile iv. Neoprene

Option 1:
a-ii, b-i. c-iv, d-iii
Option 2:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Option 3:
Option 4:
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct matching of monomer units with their polymers.
Monomer Unit Polymer

a. Caprolactam iii. Nylon 6
b. 2-Chloro-1,3-butadieneiv. Neoprene
c. Isoprene i. Natural rubber
d. Acrylonitrile ii. Buna-N
668
Q. 10 (A)
Choose the correct option
Option 1:
acts as reducing agemt in equation A and B
Option 2:
acts as oxidizing agent in equation A and B
Option 3:
acts as reducing and oxidizing agent respectively in equation A and B
Option 4:
acts as oxidizing and reducing agent in equation A and B
Correct Answer:
acts as reducing agemt in equation A and B
Solution:
In both cases, H2O2 reducing other compounds. So, H2O2 acting as a reducing agent in both (A) and
(B).
669
Q. 11 Which of the following are isostructural pairs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Option 1:
C and D only
Option 2:
A and C only
Option 3:
A and B only
Option 4:
B and C only
Correct Answer:
A and B only
Solution:
670
So, A and B both have the same structure.
Q. 12 Out of the following which type of interaction is responsible for the stabilization of -
helix structure of proteins?
Option 1:
Hydrogen bonding
Option 2:
ionic bonding
Option 3:
Vander Waals forces
Option 4:
Covalent bonding
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
Hydrogen bonding is responsible for the stabilization of -helix structure of proteins as
represented below.
671
Statement I: Colourless cupric metaborate is reduced to cuprous metaborate in a

luminous flame.
Statement II: Cuprous metaborate is obtained by heating boric anhydride and copper
sulpahte in a non-luminous flame.
options given below.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Blue cupric metaborate is reduced to colourless cuprous metaborate in a luminous flame.
Cupric metaborate is obtained by heating boric anhydride and copper sulphate in a non-luminous
flame.
So, both statements are false.
672
Q. 14 Consider the element Mg, Al, S, P amd Si, the correct increasing order of their first
ionization enthalpy is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When we move left the first ionization enthalpy increases, then the order should be
Mg < Al < Si < P < S
but due stability of half-filled and fully filled orbitals, the order changes.
Mg has fully filled orbitals and P has half-filled electrons, so both have higher ionization enthalpies
compare to their successor element in the periodic table.
Now the correct order of ionisation enthalpy will be
Al < Mg < Si < S < P
Q. 15 'A' and 'B' in the following reaction are:
673
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be-
The correct option is 3
674
Q. 16 The electrode potential of of 3-d series elements shows positive value for:
Option 1:
Co
Option 2:
Fe
Option 3:
Cu
Option 4:
Zn
Correct Answer:
Cu
Solution:
The electrode potential of of 3-d series elements shows the positive value for Cu only
Positive for , Eo = 0.34
For the rest electrode potential is negative.
Q. 17 was leached with alkali to get X. The solution of X on passing gas Y, forms Z.
X,Y and Z respectively are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
675
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Al2O3 is leached out as sodium aluminate (and SiO2 too as sodium silicate) leaving the impurities
behind:
The aluminate in solution is

neutralised by passing CO2 gas and hydrated Al2O3 is precipitated. At this stage, the solution is
seeded with freshly prepared samples of hydrated Al2O3 which induces the precipitation:
Q. 18 The major component of "Gun Metal" are"
Option 1:
Al, Cu, Mg and Mn
Option 2:
Cu, Zn and Ni
Option 3:
Cu, Ni and Fe
Option 4:
Cu, Sn and Zn
Correct Answer:
Cu, Sn and Zn
Solution:
"Gun metal" is alloy of copper with tin and zinc.
It uses in machine parts, guns
676
Q. 19 In the following reaction the reason why meta-nitro products also formed is:
Option 1:
Formation of anilinium ion
Option 2:
-NO2 substitution always take place at meta-position
Option 3:
low temperature
Option 4:
-NH2 group is highly meta-directive
Correct Answer:
Formation of anilinium ion
Solution:
Direct nitration of aniline yields tarry oxidation products in addition to the nitro derivatives.
Moreover, in the strongly acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form the anilinium ion which is
meta directing. That is why besides the ortho and para derivatives, significant amount of meta
derivative is also formed.
677
Q. 20 Which of the following reagent is used for the following reaction?
Option 1:
Potassium permanganate
Option 2:
Copper at high temperature and pressure
Option 3:
Molybdenum oxide
Option 4:
Manganese acetate
Correct Answer:
Molybdenum oxide
Solution:
Molybdenum oxide - Mo2O3
Q. 21 At 1900K and 1 atm pressure there are equal numbers of Cl2 molecules and Cl atoms
in the reaction mixture. the value of KP for the reaction under the
above conditions is . The value of x is ______ (Rounded to the nearest
interger)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
678
Q. 22 The reaction of sulphur in alkaline medium is given below:
The value of 'a' is __________ (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Need to first find out the oxidation state of each S.
Then balance all S.
Then balance all O and H.
Q. 23 4.5g of compound (MW=90) was used to make 250mL of its aqueous solution. The
molarity of the soultion in M is . The value of x is________ (Rounded to
nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
679
Q. 24 When 9.45g of ClCH2COOH is added to 500mL of water, its freezing point drops by
. The dissociation constant of ClCH2COOH is . The value of x is
_____(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
35
Solution:
680
Q. 25 Number of atmospheric compounds among the following is ____________
a) BeO
b) BaO
c) Be(OH)2
d) Sr(OH)2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
681
BeO is amphoteric while oxides of other elements are ionic in nature.. All these oxides except BeO
are basic in nature and react with water to form sparingly soluble hydroxides.
Beryllium hydroxide is amphoteric in nature as it reacts with acid and alkali both.
amphoteric compounds- BeO, Be(OH)2
The total Number of amphoteric compounds among the following is 2.
Q. 26 The stepwise formation of is given below:
The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4 are

respectively. The overall equilibrium constants
for dissociation of is . The value if x is_______(Rounded to
nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
682
Q. 27 For reaction , the value of the equilibrium constant at 300K and 1 atm
is equal to 100.0. The value of for the reaction at 300K and 1 atm in Jmol-1 is -xR,
where x is ___________(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
1380
Solution:
We know,
683
= -R X 300 X ln(102)
= (-R) X 300 X 2 X ln(10)
= (-R) X 300 X 2 X 2.3
= -1380R
Now,
-xR = -1380R
So, x = 1380.
Q. 28 The coordination number of an atom in a body -centered cubic structure is _______
[assume that the lattice is made up of atoms]
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Coordination number – the number of nearest-neighbor atoms or ions surrounding an atom or ion.
As in BCC, it is 8.
as mentioned in the image.
Q. 29 Gaseous cyclobutene isomerizes to butadiene in a first order process which has a 'k'
value of at . The time in minutes it takes for the isomerization
to proceed 40% to completion at this temperature is __________
684
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Rounded to a nearest integer of 25.6 will be 26.
Q. 30 A proton and a nucleus are accelerated by the same potential. If and

denote the de Brogile wavelength of and proton respectively, then the value of
is . The value of x______ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Mass of = 8.3 mass of proton]
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
We know,
De Broglie wavelength
685
Given, Mass of = 8.3 mass of proton
Then,
Now,
So, x = 2
Maths
Q. 1 Two vertical poles are 150 m apart and the height of one is three times that of the
other. If from the middle point of the line joining their feet, an observer finds the
angles of elevation of their tops to be complementary, then the height of the shorter
pole (in meters) is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
686
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2
The function
Option 1:
Decreases in
Option 2:
Increases in
Option 3:
Increases in
Option 4:
Decreases in
687
Correct Answer:
Increases in
Solution:
Q. 3 A man is walking on a straight line. The arithmetic mean of the reciprocals of the
intercepts of this line on the coordinate axes . Three stone A,B and C are placed at
the points (1, 1), (2,2) and (4,4) respectively. Then which of these stones is/are on the
path of man?
Option 1:
B only
Option 2:
C only
Option 3:
A only
Option 4:
All of three
Correct Answer:
B only
Solution:
688
Q. 4 The area (in sq. units) of the part of the circle which is outside the
parabola is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
689
The curves intersect at points
Q. 5 Let p and q are two positive numbers such that and . Then
p and q are root of equation:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
690
Solution:
Q. 6 Let be defined as and be defined as

.Then the composition function is:
Option 1:
one-one but not onto
Option 2:
neither one-one nor onto
Option 3:
onto but not one-one
Option 4:
both one-one and onto
Correct Answer:
one-one but not onto
Solution:
691
Q. 7 If the tangent to the curve at the point meets the curve again at Q,
then the ordinate of the point which divides PQ internally in the ratio 1:2 is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
equation of tangent at
692
now solve the above equation with
Q. 8 The population P=P(t) at time 't' of acertain species follows the differential equation
. Then the time at which population become
zero:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
693
Solution:
Q. 9 The distance of the point ( 1,1,9) from the point of intersection of the line
and the plane is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
694
Which lies on given plane hence
Q. 10 The locus of the mid-point of the line segment joining the focus of the parabola
to a moving point of the parabola, is another parabola whose directrix is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
695
Q. 11 The ordinary dice is rolled for a certain number of times. If the probability of getting an
odd number 2 times is equal to the probability of getting an even number 3 times,
then the probability of getting an odd number for odd number of times is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
696
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 The equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 2, -3) and perpendicular to the
planes , is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
697
Q. 13
Let and k>0. If the curve represented by
intersects the y-axis at the point P and Q where PQ=5, then the
value of k is:
Option 1:
3/2
Option 2:
1/2
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Since Re(u) + Im(u) = 1
Since, the curve intersects the y-axis at the points P and Q
Let P = (0, y1) and Q = (0, y2)
698
Given, PQ = 5
Q. 14 The statement among the following that is tautology is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
699
Q. 15
If where c is a constant of
integration, then the ordered pair (a,b) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 A scientific committee is to be formed from 6 Indians and 8 foreigners, which includes

atleast 2 Indian and double the number of foreigners as Indians. Then the number of
ways, the committee can be formed, is :
Option 1:
1050
700
Option 2:
575
Option 3:
1625
Option 4:
560
Correct Answer:
1625
Solution:
Q. 17
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
701
Q. 18
If is a function defined by , where
denotes the greatese integer function, then is :
Option 1:
discontinuous at all integral values of x except a x=1
Option 2:
Continuous only at x=1
Option 3:
disontinuous only at x=1
Option 4:
Continuous for every real x
Correct Answer:
Continuous for every real x
Solution:
Doubtful points are x = n,
Hence f(x) is continous for all values of x
Q. 19 The system of linear equations
is inconsistent if:
702
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
703
Q. 20 If satisfies the equation , then the
value of is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 Let M be any matrix with entries from the set { 0,1, 2}. The maximum number of
such matrices, for which the sum of diagonal elements of MTM is seven, is_________
Correct Answer:
540
704
Solution:
Sum of diagonal matrix MTM
Total = 540
Q. 22
The minimum value of for which the equation has least
one solution in is ______
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
8
Option 3:
9
705
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
Let sin x = t when .
Q. 23
Let , where . Suppose is a matrix satisfying
for some non-zero .
If and then is equal to_________.
706
Correct Answer:
17
Solution:
Q. 24 Let three vector and be such that is coplanar with and , and
is perpendicular to , where and . Then the value of
is ___________
Correct Answer:
75
Solution:
707
Q. 25 If one of the diameter of the circle is a chord of
another circle 'C' whose center is at (2,1), then its radius is ___________
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 26
If , ( a > 2 ) and [x] denotes the greatest integer ,
then is equal to:
708
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 27
is equal to:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
709
Q. 28 If least and largest real value of , for which the equation
has a solution, are p and q
respectively ; then is equal to_____
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 29 Let be three independent events in a simple space. The probability

that only B1 occur is , only B2 occur is , and only B3 occurs is . Let p be the
probability that none of the events Bi occurs and these 4 probabilities satisfy the
equations (All the probabilities are
assumed to lie in the interval (0,1)). Then is equal to_____
710
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Let x, y, z be probability of respectively
The probability that only B1 occur is
P be the probability that none of the events Bi occurs
Hence,
711
Q. 30 Let
If the sum of all the element of the set then is equals

to:
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Sum of n terms of an AP -
Given,
Here A is the set of 3 digit number so we need to find the sum of 3-digit number of set B and set C.
3 digit number of the form are
Similarly,
3 digit number of the form are
712
713
MOCK TEST - 10
Physics
Q. 1 The power radiated by an electric dipole is proportional to the frequency by -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Angular distribution of radiated power is -
Ans.
Q. 2 If the distance of the earth from Sun is . Then the distance of an

imaginary planet from Sun, if its period of revolution is 2.83 years is :
Option 1:
714
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 An electromagnetic wave frequency 5GHz, is travelling in a medium whose relative

electric permittivity and relative magnetic permeability both are 2. Its velocity in this
medium is ______
Option 1:
15
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
30
715
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
So ans is 15
Q. 4 When forces F1,F2 , and F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are
mutually perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary If the force F1 is now
removed then the acceleration of the particle is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution :
716
Q. 5 A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of
wavelengths and . If the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the
first case, the work function of the surface is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
717
Solution:
As we have learned
Conservation of energy -
So
Q. 6 A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed u such that it hits the
target on the ground at a distance R from it. If and are the values of the time
taken by it to hit the target in two possible ways, the product is:
Option 1:
718
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 A small particle of mass moves in such a way that the potential energy of particle is
given as where is constant and is the distance of particle from
centre. If Bohr's model of quantization of angular momentum and circular orbit is valid
for the particle. ( Planck's constant). Total energy of particle in its orbit is
719
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solving equations (1) and (2)
Q. 8 Two perfect gases at absolute temperatures and are mixed. There is no loss of
energy. The temperature of the mixture if the masses of the molecules are and
and the number of molecules in the gases are and is
720
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the kinetic energy of an ideal gas molecule at temperature
is given by . And as there is no force of attraction among the molecules of a
perfect gas, of the molecule is zero. So the energy of a molecule of perfect gas,
Now if is the temperature of the mixture, by conservation of energy, i.e.
Q. 9 If the satellite revolves around the earth in spiral path then its speed:
Option 1:
is less than orbital velocity
721
Option 2:
is equal to orbital velocity
Option 3:
is greater than orbital velocity
Option 4:
is greater than escape velocity
Correct Answer:
is less than orbital velocity
Solution:
As we learn
Shape of orbit of satellite -
If , then satellite does not remain in it's circular path rather it traces a spiral path and falls
on earth
satellite move along parabolic path
- wherein
Satellite revolves in circular path
Satellite will move along a hyperbolic path
V < V0 then it will move in spiral path and falls on the earth.
722
Q. 10 This question has Statement I and Statment II. Of the four choices given after the
Statements, choose the one that best describes the two Statements.
Statement - I : A point particle of mass m moving with speed collides with stationary
point particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss possible is given as
.
Statement - II : Maximum energy loss occurs when the particles get stuck together as
a result of the collision.
Option 1:
Statement - I is false,Statement - II is true.
Option 2:
Statement - I is true,Statement - II is true,Statement - II is a correct explanation of Statement - I.
Option 3:
Statement - I is true,Statement - II is true,Statement - II is not a correct explanation of Statement
- I.
Option 4:
Statement - I is true,Statement - II is false.
Correct Answer:
Statement - I is false,Statement - II is true.
Solution:
Correct option (1) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
723
Explanation: Energy E = where p is momentum, m is the mass moving of the particle
Maximum energy loss occurs when the particles get stuck together as a result of the collision.
Q. 11 An observer moves towards a staionary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of

the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency
Option 1:
5%
Option 2:
20%
Option 3:
0%
Option 4:
0.5%
Correct Answer:
20%
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency when observer is stationary and source is moving away from observer -
724
- wherein
speed of sound
speed of source
original frequency
apparent frequency
Increament in frequency = 0.2
50% increament
Q. 12 As shown here, in the figure, a cart C with mass M moving with acceleration 'b'. If the
coefficient of friction between the block A having mass m and the cart is μ, then,
acceleration of cart and block system is independent of:
Option 1:
g
725
Option 2:
M
Option 3:
m
Option 4:
Both b) and c)
Correct Answer:
Both b) and c)
Solution:
If the cart is accelerated with 'b'
Pseudo force on mass
Force of friction = μN
For horizontal equilibrium F=N
f=μmb
The block will not fall as long as f ≥ mg
μmb ≥ mg
b ≥ g/μ
Hence d is the correct answer.
726
Q. 13 The process of heat transfer in solid is called as
Option 1:
convection
Option 2:
Radiation
Option 3:
conduction
Option 4:
none of the baove
Correct Answer:
conduction
Solution:
As we have learned
Conduction -
Transfer of heat by microscopic collisions of particle and movement within a body.
- wherein
Conduction takes place in solids only.
In this solid pair the heat transfers from one to another without themselves moving from their
position.
727
Q. 14 In the circuit shown here, the voltage across L and C are respectively 300 V and 400 V.
The voltage E of the ac source is :
Option 1:
400 Volt
Option 2:
500 Volt
Option 3:
100 Volt
Option 4:
700 Volt
Correct Answer:
100 Volt
Solution:
we know that the voltage of C & L are always in Opposite phase
So Net voltage i.e., VL& VC & resultant will be
V=100 V
Q. 15 Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1:4, while its area of
cross sections are in the ratio of 1:3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the
wires, the amount of elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
728
Option 1:
12:1
Option 2:
1:36
Option 3:
1:12
Option 4:
36:1
Correct Answer:
12:1
Solution:
Q. 16 Two parallel, long wires carry current i1 and i2 with i1 > i2. When the current is in the
same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wire is . If the
direction of i2 is reversed, the field becomes . The ratio of i1/ i2 is:
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
3
729
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Solving both equations, we get:
730
Q. 17 A beam of light travelling along is described by the electric field
The ratio of electric force to magnetic force on a charge
moving along with a speed of will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence 3 is correct option.
731
Q. 18 Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
Option 1:
Ground wave signals are more stable than sky wave signals.
Option 2:
The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer is the highest frequency that will be reflected back
by the layer when it is verticaly
Option 3:
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than about 30 MHz cannot penetrate the
ionosphere.
Option 4:
Skywave signals in the brodcast frequency range are stronger at night than in the day time
Correct Answer:
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than about 30 MHz cannot penetrate the
ionosphere.
Solution:
The radio frequencies above 30 MHz has the tendency to penetrate the ionosphere making them
unsuitable for long distance propagation.
So option C is correct answer.
732
Q. 19 A complex experiment is designed to determine the coefficient of viscosity (η) of a
highly viscous liquid by measuring the terminal velocity of a spherical body falling
through the liquid. The sphere used in the experiment has a radius (r) of 0.01 m and a
density (ρ) of 1500 kg/m³. The density of the liquid (ρ0) is 1800 kg/m³, and the
acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.81 m/s². The measured terminal velocity of the
sphere in the liquid is 0.02 m/s. The experiment is conducted at a temperature of
30°C, and the dynamic viscosity (µ) of the liquid at this temperature is 0.5 Ns/m².
Calculate the coefficient of viscosity (η) of the given viscous liquid, taking into account
the temperature-dependent dynamic viscosity relationship.
Option 1:
1.60Ns/m2
Option 2:
0.805Ns/m2
Option 3:
0.8Ns/m2
Option 4:
4.36Ns/m2
Correct Answer:
0.805Ns/m2
Solution:
The terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical body falling through a viscous liquid is given by the following
equation:
Where:
vt is the terminal velocity of the sphere
ρ is the density of the sphere
ρ0 is the density of the liquid
g is the acceleration due to gravity
r is the radius of the sphere
η is the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid
733
The dynamic viscosity (µ) of the liquid can be related to the coefficient of viscosity (η) using the
temperature-dependent relationship:
Where:
µ is the dynamic viscosity of the liquid
T is the absolute temperature of the liquid (in Kelvin)
T0 is a reference temperature (in Kelvin)
We are given:
Sphere radius (r) = 0.01 m
Sphere density (ρ) = 1500 kg/m³
Liquid density (ρ0) = 1800 kg/m³
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.81 m/s²
Terminal velocity (vt) = 0.02 m/s
Dynamic viscosity (µ) = 0.5 Ns/m²
Reference temperature (T0) = 273.15 K (0°C)
Let’s start by calculating the absolute temperature of the liquid (in Kelvin):
Next, we can use the dynamic viscosity relationship to find the coefficient of viscosity (η):
Substitute the values:
The coefficient of viscosity of the given viscous liquid at the experimental temperature of 30°C is
approximately 0.805 Ns/m².
734
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Q. 20 Number of molecules in a volume of of a perfect monoatomic gas at some

temperature and at pressure of of mercury is close to ?(Given, mean kinetic
energy of a molecule (at ) is density of mercury
)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
735
Q. 21 A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is divided into two unequal parts . The first
part has a mass of 7M/8 and is converted into a uniform disc of radius 2 R . The
second part is converted into a uniform solid sphere of radius r . let be the
moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and be the moment of inertia of the new
sphere about its axis
The ratio is given by :
Correct Answer: 140
Solution:
Q. 22 An object moving with a speed of is decelerated at a rate given by
where is the instantaneous speed. The time taken (in seconds) by the object, to
come to rest, would be
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
736
Q. 23 A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork
gives 4 beats with respect to the preceding fork and the frequency of the last fork is
twice the frequency of the first, then the frequency of last fork is ______ .
Correct Answer:
152
Solution:
For term in arithmetic progression,
The frequency of the last fork is
737
Q. 24 In Young's double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ' d ' distance apart and the
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs
of equal thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the
path of beam from and respectively. The central bright fringe
spot will shift by number of fringes.
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Shifting central maxima
738
Q. 25 For , where is a constant. If percentage error in measurement of
and are and respectively, then the percentage error for will be ________
.
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
The percentage error in measurement of is
Q. 26 A block rolled on rough surface with velocity of 8m/s comes to rest after travelling 4m.
Compute the coefficient of friction (g=10m/s2)
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
Solution
Given-
Initial velocity of block, u = 8 m/s,
739
Distance travelled before the block stops, s = 4 m
Let the coefficient of kinetic friction beetween block and surface be .
F.B.D of the block-
From F.B.D-
Assuming the acceleration of th block to be 'a'.
The block stops (v=0) after travelling displacement of 4m.
Applying 3rd euation of motion-
Q. 27 A thin uniform rod of length 2 m, cross sectional area ' A ' and density ' d ' is rotated
about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular
velocity . If value of in terms of its rotational kinetic energy E is then value of
α is
740
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
______________(1)
Q. 28 A physical quantity P depends on the other two physical quantities Q and R, as follows
P= Where a is constant. In an experiment, the quantity Q is determined by

measuring P and R and using the above expression. If the percentage of error in
measurement of P and R is 10 % and 12 % respectively, Then the percentage of error
in determining the value of Q is
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
741
Given P =
given, and
Q. 29 Two long, straight wires, each carrying a current of are kept parallel to
each other. If each wire experienced a force of , then separation between the
wires is ________ .
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
742
Q. 30 A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as shown in figure. The plane of the
circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of
the circuit is ,the force needed to move the rod in direction, as indicated, with a
constant speed of 4 m/s will be _______
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 The major product of the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
743
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Addition of Hydrogen halide on alkyne -
Reaction takes place according to Markovnikov's rule. There is addition of two equivalents of the
acid and a geminal dihalide is obtained.
Now, the given reaction occurs as
Hence, the option number (4) is correct.
Q. 2 In general, the correct rate of reaction when the reactants are present in their gaseous
state, liquid state and solid state is given in
Option 1:
Solid > Liquid > Gas
Option 2:
Gas > Liquid > Solid
Option 3:
Solid > Gas > Liquid
Option 4:
The rate of reaction is same irrespective of the physical state of the reactant
Correct Answer:
Solution:
744
In general, the rate of reaction depends upon the physical state of the reactants and the rate varies
as:
Q. 3 An ideal gas undergoes a reversible isochoric process. The initial pressure is ,

and the initial temperature is . During the process, of heat is added to
the gas. Calculate the final temperature of the gas. Given the heat capacity at constant
volume
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given data:
Initial pressure
Initial temperature
Heat added
Heat capacity at constant volume
The change in internal energy during an isochoric process is given by:
745
Solving for the change in temperature
Substitute the values and calculate
The final temperature can be calculated by adding to the initial temperature
Therefore, the final temperature of the gas is
So correct option is 4.
Q. 4 A catalyst is a substance which:
Option 1:
Increases the equilibrium constant of the reaction
Option 2:
Supplies energy to the reaction
Option 3:
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Option 4:
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product.
Correct Answer:
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Solution:
A catalyst chemically provides an alternate path for the reaction at an accelerated rate by lowering
the activation energy. So, it will take less time to reach equilibrium.
746
Therefore, option(3) is correct
Q. 5
What will be product?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
747
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Clemmenson's Reduction (Zn-Hg/HCl) is used to reduce C=O to CH2.
It also reacts with -OH group which is susceptible to protonation and substitution by Chloride ions.
Therefore, the correct option is (3).
Q. 6 Find out the molarity of the compounds present in the final solution obtained on
complete precipitation reaction between of and of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
748
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 Which of the following coordiantion compounds would exhibit optical isomerism
Option 1:
trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride
Option 2:
tris-(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
Option 3:
pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide
Option 4:
diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
Correct Answer:
tris-(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
Solution:
749
As we have learned
Chiral Complexes -
Complex that cannot be super imposed are called Chiral Complexes.
Dextro (d) = rotates the light in right
levo (l) = rotates the light in left
Q. 8 Choose the correct answer:
Statement I: is self-Indicator and is not.
Statement II: behaves as an oxidizing agent only in acidic medium
Option 1:
Both the statements are true and Statement II is not the correct reason for Statement I.
Option 2:
Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.
750
Option 3:
Both the statements are false.
Option 4:
Statement II is true and statement I is false.
Correct Answer:
Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.
Solution:
potassium dichomate behaves as an oxidizing agent only in acidic medium, therefore it cannot be
used self-indicator, as its reduction product gets itself blocked in the visual detection at the end of
reaction.
Q. 9 The mixture of benzene and toluene can be separated by -
Option 1:
Simple distillation
Option 2:
Fractional distillation
Option 3:
separation by funel method
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Fractional distillation
Solution:
As we learned
Distillation -
Method to separate out mixture of two liquids where the difference in boiling point is large.
- wherein
Boiling point increases as the liquid mixture gets enriched in less volatile liquid
751
Benzene and toluene are separated by fractional distillation because of a difference in their boiling
point is very less.
Q. 10 Which one of the following is the major product of the given reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
752
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
Hence, the correct answer is option (2)
Q. 11 Decomposition of an oxide by gold catalyst at at an initial pressure of 100 tor

was 50 % in 46.06 seconds and 99 % in 168.2 seconds. Then the velocity constant is?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using first order kinetics,
As both k are same, so the order of the
753
reaction is first order
and
Q. 12 A chromatography column, packed with silica gel as stationary phase, was used to
separate a mixture of compounds consisting of (A) benzanilide (B) aniline and (C)
acetophenone. When the column is eluted with a mixture of solvents, hexane: ethyl
acetate (20:80), the sequence of obtained compounds is:
Option 1:
(B), (A), and (C)
Option 2:
(C), (A) and (B)
Option 3:
(B), (C) and (A)
Option 4:
(A) , (B) and (C)
Correct Answer:
(C), (A) and (B)
Solution:
Since, the solvent mixture is 20:80 in hexane : ethylacetate, the compound having a larger polarity
will be obtained at the top.
The dipole moments of the compounds are in the order of
Acetophenone (C) > Benzanilide (A) > Aniline (B)
So, the order in which the compounds will be obtained is
(C) > (A) > (B)
Therefore, Option(2) is correct.
Q. 13 Identify the incorrect option from the following:
Option 1:
754
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In question given option reaction is incorrect so right answer is (4)
Q. 14 The correct order (increasing ) of boiling points of 3d transition series is shown by
Option 1:
Mn < Cr < Sc < Ti < V
Option 2:
Cr < Mn < Sc < V < Ti
Option 3:
Sc < Ti < V < Cr < Mn
Option 4:
V < Cr < Sc < Ti < Mn
Correct Answer:
Mn < Cr < Sc < Ti < V
Solution:
755
As we have learned
Melting and boiling points of transition metal -
Transition metal has very high melting and boiling point.The melting point of the transition
elements rise to maximum then fall as the atomic number increase.
due to half filled d orbital of Mn the boiling point is least , from Sc to V boiling point increasing and
then decreasing upto Mn
Q. 15 For an ideal-gas reaction , the value of Kp will be:
(Volume of container is V)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
756
Therefore,option(4) is correct
Q. 16 Soda lime is used in rebreathers because:
Option 1:
It can capture .
Option 2:
It can produce .
Option 3:
It can take up and produce .
Option 4:
It can capture from the atmosphere.
Correct Answer:
It can capture .
Solution:
757
Q. 17 For the reaction
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction of alkyl halide with KOH (alc) -
- elimination reaction take place and produces alkenes.
- wherein
Q. 18
The electrophilic intermediate formed in the above reaction is
758
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The mixture of concentrated and generates nitronium ion which acts as
electrophile.
Q. 19 The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms present in the final product obtained
from the hydrolysis of PCl5 is :
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
759
Hydrolysis of produces Phosphoric Acid
The Oxoacid of Phosphorus formed contains no unionisable Hydrogen.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)
Q. 20 The elements which form a bridge between the S- block elements and the p-block
elements are called as
Option 1:
Alkali metals
Option 2:
Nobel gases
Option 3:
transition elements
Option 4:
Chalcogens
Correct Answer:
transition elements
Solution:
Transition elements form a bridge between the p block and s-block elements.
760
Q. 21 Consider the latimer diagram given below :
The in the given diagram is ______ V.
(Approximate the answer to 1 digit after decimal place e.g 6.7 or 0.7)
Correct Answer:
0.6
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Gibbs energy of the reaction is given as
Now, using the couple, we can write the reaction as
and, using the couple, we can write
Adding equations and , we can write
Thus, the three Gibb's Energy change can be written as
761
Q. 22 In the cobalt-carbonyl complex : , number of bonds is and
terminal ligands is . __________.
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
The structure of is given as
Thus,
Hence, the answer is 7
Q. 23 The minimum uncertainty in the speed of an electron in an one dimensional region of

length is _____________ .
Correct Answer:
548
Solution:
We know , Heisenberg's uncertainty Principle
For the minimum uncertainty in the speed.
762
given ,
and
Ans = 548
Q. 24 What is the molecular mass of H2SO4?
(response should be like 67 or 70)
Correct Answer:
98u
Solution:
The molecular formula of H2SO4:
2H = 2u, S =32u, 4O = 64u
Thus, Molar mass of H2SO4 = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98u
Q. 25 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of
benzene is 75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of
benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
763
Q. 26
The rate constants of the above reaction at are and
respectively. The activation energy for the reaction is J (Nearest integer)
(Given :
Correct Answer:
2520
Solution:
Q. 27 of a hydrocarbon takes up 8.40 mL of the gas measured at

and 760 mm of . Ozonolysis of the same hydrocarbon yields
The number of double bond/s present in the hydrocarbon is_______
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
764
Moles of hydrocarbon
Hydrogen molecule used for 1 molecule of hydrogen is 3
Q. 28 The solubility of if the

and the measured resistance was in a cell with cell constant of is
__________ .
(response should be upto only one decimal digit like 78.7).
Correct Answer:
49.7
Solution:
Limiting molar conductivity -
When concentration approaches zero, the molar conductivity is known as limiting molar
conductivity and is represented by
765
Q. 29 In the estimation of bromine, of an organic compound gave of silver
bromide. The percentage of bromine in the given compound is _____% (nearest
integer)
(Relative atomic masses of Ag nad Br are 108u and 80u, respectively).
Correct Answer:
34
Solution:
of an organic compound gave .
So, in 0.5 gram of an organic compound, gram of Br is present
% Br in compound
Answer is 34 (nearest integer)
Q. 30 One mole of anhydrous AB dissolves in water and liberates 20 J/mol of heat. The value
of = of AB is . The heat of dissolution of hydrated (in KJ/mol) salt
is
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Dissolution of anhydrous salt AB
Hydration of AB salt
766
Subtracting 2nd equation from first we get
Maths
Q. 1
In the expansion of , if is the least value of the term
independent of when and is the least value of the term

independent of when , then the ratio is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
General Term of Binomial Expansion
Term independent of x: It means term containing x0,
Now,
767
Correct option 1
Q. 2
From any point on the hyperbola, tangents are drawn to the hyperbola
. The area cut-off by the chord of contact on the asymptotes is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
768
Let be a point on the hyperbola
The chord of contact of tangent from to the hyperbola
The equation of asymptotes are
The point of intersection of the asymptotes and chord are
Area of triangle
Q. 3
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
769
Q. 4 Let be the solution curves of the differential equation
with initial conditions respectively. Then the
curves intersect at
Option 1:
no point
Option 2:
infinite number of points
Option 3:
one point
Option 4:
two points
Correct Answer:
no point
Solution:
No solution
770
Q. 5 Let the mean and variance of the frequency distribution
respectively. If is
changed from 8 to 7, then the mean for the new data will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct option is (3)
771
Q. 6 The area of the region eclosed between the parabolas and
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have, ...........(1)
and .........(2)
We first find the point of inter section of the given parabolas by solving the eqn (1) and (2)
simultaneously.
This gives,
Now, put in eqn (1), we get
Now the eqn(1) and (2) can be written as
respectively.
772
The graphs of these two curves are
Now, the eqn (1) and (2) can be written as
respectively
So
( Area is symmetrical about x-axis )
Where
sq.units
Hence he correct answer is option 1.
Q. 7 The value of
is equal to:
773
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 The coefficients of three successive terms in the expansion of are 165, 330
and 462 respectively, then the value of n will be
Option 1:
11
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
12
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
774
Let the coefficient of three consecutive terms i.e. in expansion of
are 165,330 and 462 respectively then,
Coefficient of term
Coefficient of term and
Coefficient of term
Q. 9
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
e
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
775
Q. 10
The mirror image of the point (1,2,3) in a plane is . which of the
following points lies on this plane ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Image of a Point in the Plane -
The image of the point P(x1, y1, z1) in the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is Q(x3, y3, z3) then coordinates
of point Q is given by
776
Proof:
Let point Q(x3, y3, z3) is the image of the point P(x1, y1, z1) in the plane π : ax + by + cz + d = 0.
Let line PQ meets the plane ax+by+cz+d=0 at point R, direction ratio of normal to plane π are (a, b,
c), since, PQ perpendicular to plane π.
So direction ratio of PQ are a, b, c
Since, point R lies in the plane π, we get
777
In the similar method we can also find the coordinates of point R.
P(1,2,3) and Q
Direction ratio of normal to the plane
we get
and Midpoint of PQ is
equation of plane x + y + z = 1
Correct Option (1)
Q. 11 If Find the value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
778
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
First note that the number of terms is Also, if we look at where ranges from
then we see it can only reach two values; those are and possibly,
but not necessarily, We know though that
and so we deduce We can also find exactly where the value of changes from to
since, so there are terms so the last such that
So, This means that
Q. 12 The equation of common chord of the circles

and is
Option 1:
y = 2x
Option 2:
y=x
Option 3:
y+x=0
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
y=x
Solution:
779
Q. 13 Solve the equation
Option 1:
x=0
Option 2:
x=-2
Option 3:
x=2
Option 4:
none of the above
Correct Answer:
x=2
Solution:
Using properties of logarithm, this equation can be written as
780
Now check whether x= 2 and x = -2 lies in the domain of original equation
For x = -2 first term in the equation is not defined, so it is rejected
But for x = 2, all the terms are defined
So x = 2 is the only answer
Q. 14 The sum to terms of the following series
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
The integral on L.H.S. of (i) by putting
Whereas the integral on the R.H.S. of (i)
781
Trick : Put in given series Which is given by option (d).
Q. 15
is equal to
Option 1:
12
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
19
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
782
Q. 16 Evaluate the following limits :
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
L' Hospital's Rule or
Q. 17
Given : determine .
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
783
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given term is:
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. ,
Q. 18 Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k, −3k), (5, k) and (−k, 2) has
area 28 sq. units. Then the value of k is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
784
Area = 28 sq units
or
On solving k= 2 is the only integral solution
Q. 19 If then find
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 The eccentricity of the conic x2- 4x + 4y2 = 4 is
Option 1:
785
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Eccentricity -
The ratio of a distance of point from focus to distance from fixed line.
- wherein
It is donated by .
The given conic is x2- 4x + 4y2 = 4. This equation can be written as
This is an ellipse whose major and minor axes are
Therefore, its eccentricity is given by
786
Q. 21 Let the solution curve of the differential equation
where m and n are co-prime, then mn is equal to
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Q. 22 If . Then find number of one one functions from A to B.
787
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
As we learned
Number of One - One function
If A & B are sets having m & n elements respectively.
Then number of one-one function
Now,
Number of one-one functions =
Q. 23
then at is________
Correct Answer:
91
Solution:
788
Q. 24
Let and
If B is the inverse of matrix , then is
Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inverse of a matrix -
789
and B is the inverse of A.
So
Now
Q. 25 The mean and the variance of five observations are 4 and 5.20, respectively. If three of
the observations are 3, 4 and 4 ; then the absolute value of the difference of the other
two observations, is :
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
ARITHMETIC Mean -
For the values x1, x2, ....xn of the variant x the arithmetic mean is given by
in case of discrete data.
Variance -
In case of discrete data
790
-
Q. 26 Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x, y, 10, 12, 6, 12, 4, 8 be 9 and 9.25
respectively. If , then is equal to ______.________
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
For variance
791
Q. 27 Let be a differentiable function with
Then
Correct Answer:
-4
Solution:
By Chain Rule for differentiation:
Q. 28 A triangle is formed by X- axis, Y-axis and the line 3x + 4y = 4y = 60. Then the number
of points P(a, b) which lie strictly inside the triangle, where a is an integer and b is a
multiple of a, is
792
Correct Answer:
31
Solution:
Q. 29 The number of seven digits odd numbers, that can be formed using all the seven digits
1,2,2,2,3,3,5 is ______.
Correct Answer:
240
Solution:
The no. of 7 digit odd Numbers that can be formed using 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5
793
Q. 30 equals
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
Using direct substitution
794
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[use and radius of earth, R = 6400 km.]

Q. 3 Which of the following equations represents a travelling wave ?

Q. 5 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : PN junction diodes can be used to function as transistor, simply by connecting

So Statement I is false and Statement II is true

And we know that restoring force in SHM is given as

This is an equation of an ellipse.

Q. 15 Match list - I with List - II

(a) Source of microwave frequency (i) Radioactive decay of nucleus

(b) Source of infrared frequency (ii) Magnetron

(c) Source of Gamma Rays (iii) Inner shell electrons

(d) Source of X-rays (iv) Vibration of atoms and molecules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(b) Source of infrared frequency – (iv) Vibration of atom and molecules

(c) Source of gamma-ray – (i) Radioactive decay of the nucleus

(d) Source of X-ray – (iii) inner shell electron

The logic circuit shown above is equivalent to :

For above circuit

Q. 24 A series LCR circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency The

Q. 25 A signal of 0.1 kW is transmitted in a cable. The Attenuation of cable is -5 dB per km and

Q. 26 A cylindrical wire of a radius 0.5 mm and conductivity is subjected to an

Frequency of sound heard by car-1, which comes by reflection from car-2

Frequency of sound coming directly from car-2

Q. 28 An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative electric

Where refractive index=

Assuming non-magnetic material

Q. 29 A point charge of is at a distance 6 cm vertically above the center of a square of

Using Gauss law and due to symmetry

So m = mass of one side of hexagon = 1 kg

and total length=2.4 meter

as Cl– in a weak field liquid.

Therefore, Option 3 is correct.

Given data in NCERT.

From the above data, the order will be-

Therefore, Option 2 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)

It is linear having and I-I-I bond angle of

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4)

Q. 5 The incorrect statement among the following is :

is an oxidizing agent due to +8 oxidation state of Ru

is an amphoteric oxide, is basic oxide while is acidic oxide

Hence, the incorrect statement is given in Option (3)