Jan 1st Week MCQ (Eng) by AC

Weekly Q&A PDF
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Weekly Q&A PDF

Weekly Q&A PDF

Weekly Q&A PDF
Current Affairs Weekly Q&A PDF – January 2024 1st Week

(1 - 8)
NATIONAL AFFAIRS
1. Which state government has recently (in Dec ‘23) ranked first for the third consecutive year
in recording the highest entries on the Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) platform?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Jharkhand
3) Bihar
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Odisha
Answer- 1) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh (UP) has ranked first for the third consecutive year in recording the highest entries
(1,56,22,514 entries) on the Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) platform.
• With 35,04,828 entries Madhya Pradesh (MP) secured second position and Bihar is in third
place with 16,65,107 entries.
i. ICJS is an initiative of the Supreme Court e-committee and implemented by the Ministry of Home
Affairs (MoHA) in 2013.
ii. ICJS was created to enable the seamless transfer of data and information among different pillars of
the criminal justice system, like courts, police, jails and forensic science laboratories through a single
window system.
iii. Working: ICJS acts as a centralised database of criminal records; Phase II if ICJS extends from 2022-
23 to 2025-26.
• The ICJS Phase II works with the principle of ‘one data one entry’.
2. In December 2023, the Ministry of Finance imposed a definitive anti-dumping duty on

imports of ‘Wheel Loaders’ from ___________ (country) for a period of 5 years.
1) Japan
2) Indonesia
3) China
4) Singapore
5) Cambodia
Answer- 3) China
Explanation:
The Ministry of Finance has imposed a definitive anti-dumping duty on imports of ‘Wheel Loaders’
from China for a period of 5 years. The duty rates, ranging from 18.84% to 82.71%, vary based on the
producer and specific goods.
• The duty will be applicable on imports in complete build unit (CBU) and semi-knocked down
(SKD) forms, and not on the completely knocked down (CKD) form.
i. It has imposed a definitive anti-dumping duty on gypsum board/tiles with lamination at least on one
side (also known as PVC gypsum tiles, gypsum ceiling tiles or ceiling tiles) from China and Oman for
five years.

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• It will range from USD 23.46-47.62 per tonne in case of imports from China, and between USD
71.80-91.42 per metric tonne for Oman.
3. As of January 2024, _____________(state) is set to build India’s first Artificial intelligence (AI)
city to promote the AI ecosystem.
1) West Bengal
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Bihar
4) Maharashtra
5) Odisha
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh(UP) is set to build India’s first Artificial intelligence (AI) city in Lucknow to
promote the AI ecosystem. The AI city will be a hub integrating cutting-edge technology, research
centres, and educational institutions.
i. U.P. Electronics Corporation Limited, the nodal agency of the project, has issued an Expression of
Interest (EoI) inviting real estate developers to build and operate the AI city.
• U.P. Electronics is a unit of the Department of Information Technology(IT) and Electronics,
Government of UP.
ii. The government of UP will provide 40 acres in Nadarganj Industrial Area for the project.
4. Name the Extremist/Insurgent organisation of North East Region that has recently (in Dec
‘23) signed a Memorandum of Settlement (peace pact), with the government of India and
Assam.
1) People's Liberation Front
2) Garo National Liberation
3) Kamtapur Liberation Organization
4) National Democratic Front of Assam
5) United Liberation Front of Assam
Answer- 5) United Liberation Front of Assam
Explanation:
On 29th December 2023, The faction of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) led by Arabinda
Rajkhowa, signed a Memorandum of Settlement (peace pact), with the government of India and
Assam.
• The 29 member delegations of ULFA’s pro-talk delegation (16 ULFA members, 13 civil society
members) signed the agreement in the presence of Union Minister, Amit Shah, Ministry of
Home Affairs(MoHA).
i. ULFA, the oldest insurgent group in Assam, was formed in April 1979 after the agitation against
undocumented immigrants from Bangladesh (erstwhile East Pakistan).
5. Which country’s Lam Dong Province, along with the Leh region of Ladakh, India has recently
(in Dec ‘23) launched a cultural exchange and tourism cooperation initiative with the theme
“Ladakh Unveiled”?
1) Indonesia
2) Thailand

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3) Philippines
4) Vietnam
5) Cambodia
Answer- 4) Vietnam
Explanation:
Lam Dong Province in Vietnam and the Leh region
of Ladakh,India officially launched a cultural
exchange and tourism cooperation initiative with the
theme “Ladakh Unveiled” in Da Lat, Vietnam.
• This event signifies a crucial step towards
strengthening the bonds between these two
distinguished regions.
i. It was mutually agreed by both parties to promote
each other’s unique destinations as premier tourist
hubs.
ii. The Lam Dong Provinces is a potential tourist spot known for its temperate climate, natural
landscapes, and rich cultural heritage.
iii. Samten Hills Dalat, a majestic Buddhist heritage construction showcase richness of Lam
Dong,Vietnam is also present in this province.
• This space, the Spiritual & Cultural space of Vajrayana Buddhism certified by Vietnam
Federation of UNESCO Associations, includes the world’s largest prayer wheel recognized by
the Guinness World Record.
6. In January 2024, the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) extended the Production Linked
Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Automobile and Auto Components by _____ year, with partial
amendments.
1) Five
2) Four
3) Two
4) One
5) Three
Answer- 4) One
Explanation:
The Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) extended the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for
Automobile and Auto Components by one year, with partial amendments. This amended incentive
scheme will be applicable for five consecutive financial years, starting from 2023-24 (FY24) and
ending in 2027-28 (FY28).
• This decision has been made after receiving the approval of the Empowered Group of
Secretaries (EGoS).
• These amendments aim to provide clarity and flexibility to the scheme.
i. Under amended Scheme, the incentive disbursement will be made in the subsequent financial year
i.e. FY25.
ii. If a company fails to meet the determined sales value threshold in a year, it won’t receive an
incentive for that year.
iii. The eligibility for benefits in the next year if the threshold is met with a 10% year-on-year growth.

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7. The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) celebrated its _______ Foundation
day or Raising Day on 1st January 2024.
1) 64th
2) 65th
3) 66th
4) 67th
5) 68th
Answer- 3) 66th
Explanation:
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), the Research and Development (R&D) wing
of the Ministry of Defence (MoD), annually celebrates its Foundation day or Raising Day on 1
January.
• DRDO, formed in 1958, celebrated its 66th foundation day on 1st January 2024.
i. DRDO was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then already functioning Technical
Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development
& Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
ii. On 1st January 2024, DRDO Chairman also launched the Quantity-Distance Software developed
by Pune(Maharashtra)-based lab, High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL), to automate
the siting of explosives and related buildings.
• The software is an essential tool for all MoD establishments engaged in creating explosive-
related infrastructure in optimum time and with greater precision.
8. Which state has recently (in Jan ‘24) recognised as the ‘petro capital’ of India?
1) Gujarat
2) Karnataka
3) Maharashtra
4) Odisha
5) West Bengal
Answer- 1) Gujarat
Explanation:
Gujarat has been recognised as the ‘petro capital’ of India, due to the presence of the Reliance
Industry Limited’s Jamnagar refinery and ONGC Petro Additions Limited (OPaL)’s state-of-the-art
petrochemical complex at Dahej in Bharuch district.
• RIL-Jamnagar refinery complex is the largest and most complex single-site refinery in the
world.
• The refinery can process 1.4 million barrels of crude oil per day. The Refinery has a complexity
index of 21.1 which is the highest in the world.
i. OPaL Refinery Complex is one of South Asia’s single largest petrochemical complexes.
• It is a joint venture(JV) between the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), the Gas Authority
of India (GAIL) & Gujarat State Petroleum Corporation Limited (GSPC).
Note- Dahej’s PCPIR is one of the four PCPIRs declared by the Government of India(GoI) under the
PCPIR Policy 2007.

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9. In January 2024, the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW) amended the
Central Civil Services (CCS) (pension) rules, __________(year) to allow female government
servant/pensioner to nominate her child/children for family pension in precedence to her
husband.
1) 2021
2) 2022
3) 2000
4) 2005
5) 2020
Answer- 1) 2021
Explanation:
Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW), under the Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances & Pensions, has amended the Central Civil Services (CCS) (pension) rules, 2021, to allow
female government servant/pensioner to nominate her child/children for family pension in
precedence to her husband.
• Note: The sub-rules (8) and (9) of Rule 50 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, states that if a
deceased Government servant/pensioner is survived by a spouse, a family pension is initially
granted to the spouse, with other family members becoming eligible only after the spouse
becomes ineligible or passes away.
i. Details of the amendment:
• In case of any marital discord leading to filing of divorce proceedings in a Court of Law or filing
of a case under Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act or Dowry Prohibition Act or
under Indian Penal Code(IPC), the female govt servant/pensioner can make a request to the
effect that in the event of her death, the family pension may be granted to her eligible child in
precedence to her spouse.
• In the event of the death of the female govt servant/pensioner during the pendency of the
above proceedings the family pension will be disbursed as following,
• (a)Widower without eligible children – family pension is payable to the widower.
• (b)Widower with minor children or children with disorder or disability of mind
• (c)Widower with children who have attained majority but are eligible for family
pension.
10. In January 2024, __________ became the first Union Territory (UT) in India to implement the
Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY).
1) Lakshadweep
2) Ladakh
3) Puducherry
4) Delhi
5) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer- 5) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) has become the first Union Territory (UT) in India to implement the
Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY).
• The training programme for the 1st batch of 30 trainees (Viswakarmas) in ‘darzi craft’ under
PMVY was inaugurated at Industrial Training Institute (ITI) Shopian, J&K.

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i. The trainees will be offered basic training of 5 to 7 days, and advanced training of 15 days or more.
ii. The trainees will be paid a stipend of Rs 500 per day and will receive a free modern toolkit worth
Rs 15,000.
11. In January 2024, the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) extended the
deadline to upload wage details of higher pension options online till ___________.
1) 30th June 2024
2) 31st May 2024
3) 31st March 2024
4) 30th April 2024
5) 31st July 2024
Answer- 2) 31st May 2024
Explanation:
On January 3, 2024, the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) approved a five months
extension for employers for uploading wage details of higher pension options online i.e. till 31st
May, 2024 from 31st December 2023.
• The information for the same was provided by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
i. With over 3.6 lakh pending applications for the Validation of Options/ Joint Options, the EPFO has
approved an extension to facilitate employers in processing these outstanding submissions.
12. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the President of India,
Droupadi Murmu's assent given to the bills in December 2023?
A) President of India Droupadi Murmu gave assent to the Chief Election Commissioner and
Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill,
2023 replaces the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and
Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.
B) The president would appoint the CEC and ECs based on the recommendation of a selection
committee.
C) The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 replaces the Press and Registration of
Books Act, 1867.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
President of India Droupadi Murmu gave assent to two bills including The Chief Election
Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term
of Office) Bill, 2023, and The Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP) Bill, 2023
• As per the Indian constitution, a bill transforms into an act upon receiving the president’s
assent and is formally announced in the official gazette. Consequently, the aforementioned bills
have now been enacted as acts.
i. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of
Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023

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• The key purpose of the bill is to put in place a mechanism for the appointment of the Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs).
• The Bill replaces the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners
and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. Key features of the bill:
• The president would appoint the CEC and ECs based on the recommendation of a selection
committee, comprising the prime minister, a union cabinet minister, and the leader of the
opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.
• The CEC and other EC shall hold office for a term of 6 years from the date on which he assumes
his office or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
ii. The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 replaces the Press and Registration of Books
Act, 1867
• The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting is the concerned ministry Highlights of Bill
• The bill aims to modernise and simplify the registration and declaration process. It will help
publishers in easing up the procedures and reducing the number of declarations and fillings.
13. Which state’s products ‘Adi Kekir, Handmade Carpet and Wancho Wooden Craft’ have
recently (in Jan ‘24) received Geographical Indication (GI) tag status from Geographical
Indications Registry?
1) Odisha
2) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Assam
4) Mizoram
5) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- 2) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN) based Geographical Indications Registry has awarded the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag 3 indigenous products from Arunachal Pradesh (AR) namely Adi Kekir (ginger),
Handmade Carpet (by Tibetan settlers), and Wancho Wooden Craft.
i. With the addition of 3 new GI products, Arunachal Pradesh now has a total of 8 GI products.
ii. The other 5 products are: Arunachal (Wakro) Orange; Idu Mishmi Textile; Khaw Tai (Khamti Rice);
Yak Churpi and Tangsa Textile
14. Which state government has recently (in Jan ‘24) declared Poila Baisakh as the State day?
1) Bihar
2) West Bengal
3) Gujarat
4) Assam
5) Tripura
Answer- 2) West Bengal
Explanation:
The Government of West Bengal (WB) declared Poila Baisakh, the Bengali New Year, as the State
day and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore’s 1905 ode to Bengal, “Banglar Mati, Banglar Jal” (The
soil of Bengal, the water of Bengal) as the State Song.
• The state day will be celebrated as “Bangla Divas”.

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• Poila Baisakh is celebrated on the first day of the Baisakh month, the first month of the Bengali
calendar year which usually falls on the 14th or 15th of April.
i. Rabindranath Tagore had penned the song in support of the Bangabhanga Rodh movement to
oppose Bengal’s partition.
Note: Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 and became the 1st Indian and
1st Asian to win the award.
15. Which state has recently (in Jan ‘24) celebrated the 14th edition of Chandubi Festival?
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Assam
4) Odisha
5) Chhattisgarh
Answer- 3) Assam
Explanation:
The Chandubi festival is an annual 5 day festival held
from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi
lake(64 km away from Guwahati city), Assam. The 14th
edition of Chandubi Festival was held from 1st to 5th
january 2024.
• This festival celebrates the cultural heritage of
Assam’s tribal communities such as Rabhas,
Garos, Gorkhas, etc that live near the Chandubi Lake.
• The 2024 festival was organised by the people of Rajapara village in the Kamrup district, under
the Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council (RHAC).
i. The opening of the festival witnessed the release of the souvenir ‘Lokeia’ by Gaurikanta Bhauyan, a
teacher and creator of the Kuhipath.
• The festival was inaugurated by Hemanga Thakuria, Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) of
Palashbari constituency.
16. Which state’s products ‘Tangail Cotton Sarees, Korial Sarees and Garad Silk Sarees’ have
recently (in Jan ‘24) received Geographical Indication (GI) tag status from Geographical
Indications Registry?
1) Odisha
2) West Bengal
3) Assam
4) Mizoram
5) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
The Geographical Indications Registry under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry has recently awarded geographical indication (GI)
tags to 3 handloom sarees of West Bengal, namely Tangail, Korial and Garad received geographical
indication (GI) tags under the goods of Textiles.

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• The tangail sarees are woven in Nadia and Purba Bardhhaman districts, while korial and garad
are woven in Murshidabad and Birbhum.
i. Tangail Cotton Sarees: Finer count, adorned with extra warp designs using colored yarn; named
after Tangail district in present Bangladesh.
ii. Korial Sarees: Lavish silk in white or cream; feature heavy gold and silver embellishments akin to
Benarasi sarees in border and pallu.
iii. Garad Silk Sarees: Plain white or off-white body, unornamental colored border, striped pallu;
traditionally worn during pujas; handwoven with pure silk in Murshidabad, West Bengal.
17. Which of the following products of Odisha did ‘Not’ receive geographical indication (GI)
tags status from the Geographical Indications Registry in January 2024?
1) Dungaria Kondh embroidered shawl
2) Lanjia Saura painting
3) Wancho Wooden Craft
4) Mayurbhanj Kai Chutney
5) Koraput Kalajeera Rice
Answer- 3) Wancho Wooden Craft
Explanation:
The Geographical Indications Registry awarded GI tags to 7 distinct products of Odisha. These
include two local foods, three agricultural products and one each for Textile and Handicraft products
viz. Lanjia Saura painting, Dungaria Kondh embroidered shawl, Gajapati Date Palm, Dhenkanal Magji,
Mayurbhanj Kai Chutney, Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal and Koraput Kalajeera Rice.
• With this, Odisha has received 25 GI tags to date.
18. In January 2024, the Indian Navy (IN)’s Information Management and Analysis Centre
(IMAC) in Gurugram, Haryana is set to be upgraded into the National Maritime Domain
Awareness (NMDA) centre in about 3 years.
Which company is entrusted with the responsibility of providing all the requisite hardware
and software necessary for the NMDA?
1) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2) Bharat Electronics Limited
3) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
4) Bharat Dynamics Limited
5) Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
Answer- 2) Bharat Electronics Limited
Explanation:
The Indian Navy (IN)’s Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) in Gurugram, Haryana
is set to be upgraded into the National Maritime Domain Awareness (NMDA) centre in about 3
years. NMDA aims to address maritime challenges in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
i. NMDA center will unite 15 departments and organizations spanning seven ministries including
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas(MoPNG), Ministry of Defense(MoD), Ministry of Ports,
Shipping and Waterways (MoPS&W)
ii. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), a Navratna Public Sector Unit (PSU) under the Ministry of
Defence (MoD) is entrusted with the responsibility of providing all the requisite hardware and
software necessary for the NMDA.

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INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS
1. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the visit of External Affairs
Minister (EAM) of India S. Jaishankar to Russia in December 2023?
A) During EAM’s visit to Russia, he signed agreements related to the construction of the power-
generating units of the Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant in Uttara Kannada, Karnataka.
B) India and Russia signed the protocol of consultation for the next 4 years (2024-28) to make
progress in economic cooperation, energy trade, connectivity, military-technical cooperation,
and people-to-people exchange.
C) Union Minister also signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) on cooperation in
pharmaceuticals and healthcare
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) Only B & C
Answer- 1) Only A
Explanation:
External Affairs Minister (EAM) S. Jaishankar was on a 5-day visit to Russia from 25-29 December
2023 as a part of the ongoing high-level exchanges between India and Russia.
• During his visit, EAM Jaishankar met with Vladimir Putin, President of Russia in Moscow.
• He also met with Denis Manturov, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Industry and Trade of
Russia and discussed bilateral economic cooperation and met with Sergey Lavrov, the Foreign
Minister of Russia and discussed bilateral, multilateral and international issues.
i. During EAM’s visit to Russia, he signed agreements related to the construction of the power-
generating units of the Kudankulam nuclear power plant in Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu.
ii. During his visit, EAM Jaishankar and his Russian counterpart Sergey Lavrov signed the protocol of
consultation for the next 4 years (2024-28) to make progress in economic cooperation, energy trade,
connectivity, military-technical cooperation, and people-to-people exchange.
iii. During the visit, EAM visited school No. 653, named after Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore in St.
Petersburg, Russia and interacted with teachers and students. The school teaches Hindi as part of its
regular curriculum.
iv. He visited the Russian Industry and Trade exhibition with Denis Manturov. He also signed a
memorandum of understanding (MoU) on cooperation in pharmaceuticals and healthcare
2. Which of the following countries did ‘Not’ joined the BRICS as new members in January
2024?
1) United Arab Emirates
2) Egypt
3) Argentina
4) Saudi Arabia
5) Iran
Answer- 3) Argentina

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Explanation:
Five countries namely Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE)
have joined BRICS(Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) bloc as their membership came into
force from January 1, 2024.
• With the induction of new members, BRICS’ membership count increased to 10 from 5.
Note: Argentina which was supposed to join BRICS withdrew from the entry by its President Javier
Milei.
i. 2024 BRICS chairmanship:
• On 1st January 2024, Russia took over the BRICS chairmanship. Russian President Vladimir
Putin stressed the commitment to advancing global development and security through the
theme “Strengthening Multilateralism for Equitable Global Development and Security.”
• The 16th BRICS summit was scheduled to happen in Kazan, Russia in October 2024.
3. According to the United Nations Department of Economic & Social Affairs (UN-DESA)
released the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2024 report in January 2024,
India's economic growth is projected to reach __________ in 2024.
1) 6.2%
2) 6.0%
3) 6.5%
4) 6.4%
5) 6.3%
Answer- 1) 6.2%
Explanation:
On January 5, 2024, According to the United Nations Department of Economic & Social Affairs (UN-
DESA) released World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2024 report projecting India’s
economic growth to reach 6.2% in 2024 which is slightly lower than the 6.3% estimate for 2023.
• India’s GDP is estimated to reach 6.6% in 2025.
• South Asia’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is expected to increase by 5.2% in 2024. It grew by
an estimated 5.3% in 2023.
i. It forecasts a slowdown in global economic growth from 2.7% in 2023 to 2.4% in 2024 with short-
term risks and structural vulnerabilities.
• This is below the pre-pandemic growth rate of 3.0%.
ii. Global headline inflation fell from 8.1% in 2022 to an estimated 5.7% in 2023 and is projected to
decline to 3.9% in 2024.
VISITS
1. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Prime Minister (PM)
Narendra Modi’s visit to Tamil Nadu, Lakshadweep and Kerala in January 2024?
A) PM Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for multiple development projects
worth more than Rs 20,000 crores in the Tiruchirappalli (Trichy) district of Tamil Nadu.
B) During his visit to Lakshadweep, PM inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for multiple
development projects worth Rs 1150 crore at Kavaratti Island in Lakshadweep.
C) PM Modi held a mega roadshow in Thrissur during his visit to Kerala.
1) All A, B & C

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2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi visited Tamil Nadu (TN), Lakshadweep and Kerala from 2nd
to 3rd January 2024.
i. During his visit to Tamil Nadu on 2nd January 2024, PM Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation
stone for multiple development projects worth more than Rs 20,000 crores in the Tiruchirappalli
(Trichy) district of Tamil Nadu.
• The projects were related to various sectors such as rail, road, oil and gas and shipping in TN.
• PM Modi dedicated to the nation rail sector projects, which includes,
• Doubling of 41.4 Km Salem–Magnesite Junction–Omalur–Mettur Dam section;
• Doubling of rail line section of 160 Km from Madurai – Tuticorin;
• PM inaugurated General Cargo Berth-II (Automobile Export/Import Terminal-II and
capital dredging Phase-V) of Kamarajur Port, on the Coromandel Coast, Chennai, TN.
ii. Highlights of PM Modi’s visit to Lakshadweep: PM inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for
multiple development projects worth Rs 1150 crore at Kavaratti Island in Lakshadweep on 3rd
January 2024.
• The Project includes various sectors: technology, energy, water resources, healthcare and
education.
• PM Modi initiated the Kochi –Lakshadweep Islands Submarine Optical Fibre Connection (KLI-
SOFC) project which will help to address the challenge of slow internet speed on Lakshadweep
Island.
• It will increase internet speed by more than 100 times i.e. from 1.7 Gbps to 200 Gbps.
• PM Modi dedicated to the nation the Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) plant at
Kadmat which will produce 1.5 lakh litres of clean drinking water every day.
iii. Highlights of PM Modi’s visit to Kerala: On 3rd January 2024, PM Modi held a mega roadshow in
Thrissur during his visit to Kerala.
• He also addressed the Bharatiya Janata Party’s women’s conference “Sthree Shakti
Modikkoppam” held at Thekkinkadu Maidan, Thrissur, Kerala.
• Women associated with ASHA, MGNREGA(Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Act),
and Anganwadi participated in large numbers in the event.
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Prime Minister (PM)
Narendra Modi’s visit to Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh in December 2023?
A) The Prime Minster dedicated to the nation and laid the foundation stone of multiple
development projects worth more than Rs 15,700 crore at Ayodhya Dham.
B) PM inaugurated Phase l of the redeveloped Ayodhya Railway (Known as Ayodhya Dham
Junction Railway Station) is developed at a cost of more than Rs 240 crore and also flagged off
six new Vande Bharat Trains.
C) PM also inaugurated the newly built Ayodhya Airport which has been named Maharishi
Valmiki International Airport at a cost of more than Rs 1450 crore.
1) Only A

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2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On 30th December 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh for the
inauguration and launch of various initiatives and events as follows:
• The Prime Minster dedicated to the nation and laid the foundation stone of multiple
development projects worth more than Rs 15,700 crore at Ayodhya Dham. These include
• Rs 11,100 crores for the development of Ayodhya and its surrounding area Which
includes
• Development of Greenfield township in Ayodhya for more than Rs.2180 crore and
Vashishtha Kunj Residential scheme at a cost of about Rs 300 crore.
• Phase l of the redeveloped Ayodhya Railway (Known as Ayodhya Dham Junction Railway
Station) is developed at a cost of more than Rs 240 crore.
• PM Flagged off two new categories of superfast passenger trains in the country – the
Amrit Bharat Express with Linke Hofmann Busch (LHB) push-pull technology and locos
at both ends for better acceleration
• The Prime Minister also flagged off six new Vande Bharat Trains.
• The prime Minister also inaugurated the newly built Ayodhya Airport which has been named
Maharishi Valmiki International Airport. Phase 1 of the state-of-the-art airport at a cost of
more than Rs 1450 crore.
• The 51 -inch tall idol of Lord Ram Lalla for ‘Pran Pratishtha (consecration)’ was finalized by the
temple trust in Ayodhya, the idol was carved by Karnataka’s renowned sculpture Artist Arun
Yogiraj. The PM will attend the consecration ceremony of the Ram Temple on January 22, 2024.
BANKING AND FINANCE
1. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Report on Trend and
Progress of Banking in India (2022-2023) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
December 2023?
A) The remuneration of Managing Director(MD) and Chief Executive Officer(CEO) of SFBs was
28.4 times the average employee pay in 2022.
B) The RBI revealed that grievances related to loans and advances, deposits increased
exponentially to 60%, 70% respectively at the Reserve Bank of Ombudsman.
C) The total number of Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) in India increased by 3.5% in FY22.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 3) Only B & C

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the report titled “Report on Trend and Progress of Banking
in India” (2022-2023).
• The report provides comprehensive data about the state of the banking system in India.
i. As per the RBI report, the gap in the remuneration between top executives and average employees is
widest for Small Finance Banks (SFBs).
• It mentioned that remuneration of Managing Director(MD) and Chief Executive Officer(CEO)
of SFBs was 58.1 times the average employee pay in 2022.
• Compared to SFBs, remuneration of MD and CEO of Private Sector Banks(PVSBs), Public Sector
Banks(PSBs) was 26.1 times and 2.4 times of average employee pay in 2022.
• For Private Sector Banks (PVBs), the share of variable pay in total remuneration increased
from 31 %( at March-end 2021) to 39 %( at March-end 2022).
ii. According to the report, RBI urged the Urban Co-operative Banks(UCBs) that they need to
discourage very long and continuous tenures of their directors, in accordance with the provisions of
the Banking Regulation Act(1949)
iii. The RBI revealed that grievances related to loans and advances, deposits increased exponentially
to 60%, 70% respectively at the Reserve Bank of Ombudsman.
iv. RBI report showed that the total number of Automated Teller Machines(ATMs) in India
increased by 3.5% in FY22. White-label ATMs accounted for the maximum number of ATMs.
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the 28th edition of Financial
Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 2023?
A) As per the RBI data, their share has declined to 15.9% in Scheduled Commercial Banks’
(SCBs) loans as at September-end 2023 from 17.2% as at March-end 2023.
B) According to a study by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Rs. 1.7 lakh crore of
AUM (Asset Under Management) of open-ended debt schemes of 17 mutual funds were under
stress as of September.
C) The Capital adequacy ratio may decline to 71 basis points (BPS).
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
RBI (Reserve Bank of India) has released the half-yearly publication of the Financial Stability
Report(FSR) 2023, September 2023 which assesses risks to financial stability and the resilience of the
Indian financial system.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the 28th edition of Financial Stability Report (FSR)
on 28th Dec, 2023.
i. None of the Top 100 Borrower Accounts in the NPA Category for Scheduled Commercial
Banks(SCBs)
• The Credit of large borrowers has improved and it is welcomed that the top 100 borrower
accounts do not fall in the NPA(Non-Performing Assets) category.The share of top 100

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borrower accounts was increasing in the NPA category until March 2023 which has seen
moderation during 2023-24.
• Their share in Scheduled Commercial Banks’ (SCBs) loans decreased to 15.9% as of
September-end 2023, down from 17.2% as of March-end 2023.
ii. According to a study by SEBI, Rs. 1.7 lakh crore of AUM (Asset Under Management) of open-ended
debt schemes of 17 mutual funds were under stress as of September.
• However, only 24 out of a total of 299 schemes were under stress as per the Financial Stability
Report by RBI
iii. According to the RBI Financial Stability Report, the Capital adequacy ratio may decline to 71
basis points (BPS).
• The increase in risk weights for personal loans and loans to non-banking financial companies
(NBFCs) can lead to the decline.
3. In December, 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the deadline for
implementation of Instructions regarding Penal Charges in Loan Accounts to __________.
1) 1st March 2024
2) 1st May 2024
3) 1st April 2024
4) 1st June 2024
5) 1st February 2024
Answer- 3) 1st April, 2024
Explanation:
On December 29, 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the deadline for implementation of
Instructions regarding Penal Charges in Loan Accounts by three months i.e. from January 1, 2024 to
April 1, 2024, as a part of fair lending practices.
• In this regard, all Regulated Entities (REs) must implement the new penal charges instructions
for fresh loans from April 1, 2024.
• In case of existing loans, the transition to the new regime should be ensured by the next
review/renewal date on or after April 1, 2024, but no later than June 30, 2024.
i. This extension will be applicable to all Commercial Banks (including Small Finance Banks (SFBs),
Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), excluding Payments Banks), All Primary (Urban)
Co-operative Banks, All Non-Banking Financial Company-NBFC (including HFCs-Housing Finance
Companies), and All India Financial Institutions.
4. Name the bank that has recently (in Dec ‘23) launched a new scheme called ‘Inspire’
programme for senior citizens.
1) YES Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) HDFC Bank
4) ICICI Bank
5) Bandhan Bank
Answer- 5) Bandhan Bank

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Explanation:
Bandhan Bank Limited has launched a new scheme called ‘Inspire’ programme designed to cater to
the specific needs and aspirations of senior citizens. It offers plans that focus on financial security,
healthcare, and convenience of old age people.
i. Eligibility:
• Individuals residing in India of age 60 years and above.
• Monthly Average Balance (MAB) should be Rs.1 lakh for Premium Savings Account and
Rs.25,000 for Advantage Savings Account.
5. Which bank has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched a Super Special 175 days Fixed Deposit (FD)
scheme with an interest rate of 7.50% per annum?
1) Indian Bank
2) State Bank of India
3) Punjab National Bank
4) Bank of Baroda
5) Bank of India
Answer- 5) Bank of India
Explanation:
Bank of India (BoI), a Public Sector Bank (PSB), has launched a Super Special Fixed Deposit (FD)
scheme with a specified maturity period of 175 days, commencing from January 1st, 2024.
• The scheme offers an interest rate of 7.50% per annum for deposits ranging from Rs 2 crore
to less than Rs 50 crore.
i. Senior citizens (aged 60 to 80) will get an additional interest rate of 0.50% on their retail term
deposits (below Rs 2 crore) for tenors ranging from 6 months and above up to 3 years.
ii. Super senior citizens (aged above 80) will get an extra 0.65% on the same retail term deposits.
• At present BoI pays 4.50% interest rate for a 175 day tenor for deposits below Rs 2 crore.
7.25% is the highest interest rate paid by BoI for a 2 year deposit.
6. In January 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued revised guidelines for classifying
accounts and deposits as inoperative accounts and unclaimed deposits by banks which will
come into effect from ___________ 2024.
1) 1st August
2) 1st April
3) 1st March
4) 1st June
5) 1st July
Answer- 2) 1st April
Explanation:
On January 1, 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued revised guidelines for classifying accounts
and deposits as inoperative accounts and unclaimed deposits by banks which will come into effect
from April 1, 2024.
• These will be applicable to all Commercial Banks (including Regional Rural Banks/RRBs) and
all Co-operative Banks.

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• These instructions by RBI are issued in exercise of the powers conferred by Sections 35A of the
Banking Regulation (BR) Act, 1949 read with Sections 26A, 51 and 56 of the Act ibid and all
other provisions of this Act or any other laws enabling RBI to issue instructions in this regard.
Revised Instructions:
• Unclaimed credit balances in bank accounts inactive for ten years or more, as per paragraph
3(iii) of the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund Scheme, 2014, must be
transferred to the RBI’s DEA Fund, following the provisions outlined in the DEA Fund Scheme,
2014.
• Comprehensive guidelines issued are to be followed by the banks regarding various aspects,
including classifying accounts and deposits as inoperative or unclaimed, periodic review, fraud
prevention, grievance redressal, and procedures for tracing customers, nominees, or legal
heirs.
• Banks shall undertake at least an annual review in respect of accounts, where there are no
customer induced transactions for more than a year.
• Banks must notify account holders via letters, emails, or SMS (Short Message Service) on a
quarterly basis if there’s been no activity in their accounts for the past year.
• To classify an account as inoperative, only customer-initiated transactions, not bank-initiated
ones, will be considered.
7. In January 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revised Bulk Deposits limit for Scheduled
Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks in Tier 3 and 4 to Rs ____________ from Rs 15 lakh and above.
1) 60 lakh and above
4) 1 crore and above
Answer- 4) 1 crore and above
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revises Bulk Deposits limit for Scheduled Primary (Urban) Co-
operative Banks in Tier 3 and 4 to Rs 1 crore and above from Rs 15 lakh and above. This is a 6.66
times increase.
• The bulk deposit limit for urban co-operative banks not located in Scheduled UCBs in Tier 3
and 4 cities has been increased to Rs 15 lakh and above.
• Previously, a deposit of Rs 15 lakh and above was considered a bulk deposit across all UCBs,
allowing customers to negotiate interest rates with the banks.
• However, with the revised threshold set at Rs. 1 crore and above, customers depositing
amounts below this limit will now earn a uniform rate of interest.
8. Name the Payments Bank that has recently (in Jan ‘24) collaborated with LEO1 to launch
MasterCard Powered ‘LEO 1 Card’, India’s first numberless Prepaid ID card.
1) NSDL Payments Bank
2) Fino Payments Bank
3) Jio Payments Bank
4) Airtel Payments Bank
5) Paytm Payments Bank

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Answer- 1) NSDL Payments Bank

Explanation:
LEO1 (formerly known as Financepeer), an Edu-fintech startup, in collaboration with NSDL
Payments Bank Limited (NPBL), the wholly-owned subsidiary of National Securities Depository Ltd
(NSDL), has launched ‘LEO 1 Card’ which is India’s first numberless Prepaid ID card with
MasterCard as a network partner.
• The card aims to transform a student ID card into a student utility card.
i. The card acts as a contactless debit card as well as an identity card.
ii. The card comes with a virtual wallet which can be controlled through the LEO1 mobile
application(app).
iii. Once the money is added to the wallet, it can be used at any point of sales (POS) outlet and also be
withdrawn from an Automated Teller Machine (ATM) without setting up a bank account.
iv. The cardholder should be of minimum 18 years old.
Note- The cardholder can set up spending limits with a maximum of Rs 2 lakh per day.
9. Which bank has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
RuPay Reloadable Prepaid Card under the ‘One Nation, One Card’ initiative?
1) Indian Bank
2) Bank of Baroda
3) Bank of India
Answer- 2) Bank of Baroda
Explanation:
The Bank of Baroda (BoB), a public sector bank, has launched the National Common Mobility Card
(NCMC) RuPay Reloadable Prepaid Card in alignment with the ‘One Nation, One Card’ initiative.
i. It is a chip-enabled contactless RuPay Platinum Europay, Mastercard and Visa (EMV) prepaid card.
ii. Apart from acting as a traditional ATM card, it can also be used to pay for public transport (such as
metro rails, buses, trains, cabs, ferries, tolls and parking).
iii. The maximum online wallet balance allowed is Rs 1 lakh and the maximum offline wallet balance
allowed is Rs 2,000.
10. Which bank has recently (in Jan ‘24) executed transactions via the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI)’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payments app as a part of the
‘UPI for secondary market’ facility?
1) Axis Bank
2) HDFC Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) YES Bank
5) IndusInd Bank
Answer- 2) HDFC Bank
Explanation:
HDFC Bank Limited has executed transactions via the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI)’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payments app as a part of the ‘UPI for secondary market’
facility.

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• This is in line with “Trading supported by Blocked Amount in Secondary Market” which was
permitted by the Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Indian Stock Exchanges, on
an optional basis.
• This is similar to the Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) facility available for
primary markets.
• The funds of the buyer of the share(s) will continue to remain in their savings account with the
required funds being blocked.
11. Which of the following companies have recently (in Jan ‘24) received approval from the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to act as a Payment Aggregator (PA)?
1) DigiO
2) Tata Communications Payment Solutions
3) DirecPay
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Answer- 4) Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
Tata Group’s digital payments arm, Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (Tata Pay),
has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to act as a Payment Aggregator (PA).
i. The approval from RBI allows Tata Groups to power all their e-commerce transactions within its
subsidiary entities through Tata Payments Limited.
ii. The Groww (financial services platform)-backed identity verification startup, DigiO, also has
received PA licence from RBI.
12. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Master Direction on
Commercial Paper and Non-Convertible Debentures 2024 issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) in January 2024?
A) RBI issued Master Direction – RBI (Commercial Paper and Non-Convertible Debentures of
original or initial maturity upto one year) Directions, 2024 which will come into effect from 1st
July 2024.
B) Commercial Paper (CPs) and Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) must be issued and held
in dematerialized form with a Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) registered
depository.
C) The minimum denomination for CPs and NCDs is Rs 5 lakh, with multiples of Rs 5 lakh
thereafter.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
On January 3, 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued Master Direction – RBI (Commercial Paper
and Non-Convertible Debentures of original or initial maturity upto one year) Directions, 2024 which
will come into effect from April 1, 2024.

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• These Directions have been issued in exercise of the powers conferred under section 45J, 45K,
45L and 45W of RBI Act, 1934 read with section 45U of the Act and of all the powers enabling it
in this behalf.
i. Guidelines:
• Commercial Paper (CPs) and Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) must be issued and held in
dematerialized form with a Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) registered
depository.
• The minimum denomination for CPs and NCDs is Rs 5 lakh, with multiples of Rs 5 lakh
thereafter.
• CPs have a tenor between seven days and one year, while NCDs have a tenor between ninety
days and one year.
• Primary issuances of CPs and NCDs, involving both fund payment to the issuer and issuance to
investors, must be settled within T+4 working days from the deal date.
• The minimum credit rating, assigned by a Credit Rating Agency (CRA), for the issuance of CPs
and NCDs is ‘A3’.
13. Name the company that has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched India’s First Credit
Pass, powered by TransUnion CIBIL Limited.
1) Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Limited
2) Aditya Birla Finance Limited
3) Bajaj Finserv Limited
4) IIFL Finance Limited
5) Muthoot Finance Limited
Answer- 3) Bajaj Finserv Limited
Explanation:
Bajaj Finserv Limited has launched a Credit Pass, a first-of-its-kind subscription in India, that
enables its customers to get real-time access to their credit dashboard to track and monitor credit
health.
• The credit pass is powered by TransUnion CIBIL Limited (formerly Credit Information
Bureau (India) Limited), a credit information company (CIC) operating in India.
i. Any customer who has applied for a loan or credit card in the past or anyone who is looking to apply
for a loan in the future is eligible to apply for the Credit Pass.
ii.The credit pass account can be accessed through a 12-digit unique number.
• The pass offers access to the credit dashboard which gives information such as credit enquiries
& repayment history.
• The credit pass comes with interactive tools like the Credit Score Simulator and Equated
Monthly Instalment (EMI) Calculator.
14. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched digital Fixed Deposit (FD) with interest
rates up to 8.85%?
1) L&T Finance Limited
2) Mahindra and Mahindra Financial Services Limited
3) Shriram Finance Limited
4) Bajaj Finance Limited
5) Cholamandalam Investment and Finance Limited

Weekly Q&A PDF
Answer- 4) Bajaj Finance Limited

Explanation:
Bajaj Finance Limited (BFL), a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC), and a subsidiary of Bajaj
Finserv Limited, has launched digital Fixed Deposit (FD) which offers interest rates of up to
8.85%.
i. The digital FDs can be booked through the Bajaj Finserv mobile application and website.
ii. The revised rates will be applicable on fresh deposits and renewals of maturing deposits of up to Rs
5 crore for a tenure of 42 months (3.5 years).
iii. Senior citizens (above 60 years) will be offered 8.85% interest rates whereas other
depositors(below 60 years) will be paid interest rates of 8.6%.
15. Which Small Finance Bank (SFB) has recently (in Jan ‘24) partnered with Mastercard to
launch ‘Mastercard Platinum Debit Card’ designed for Corporate Salary Customers?
1) Equitas SFB
2) AU SFB
3) Capital SFB
4) Utkarsh SFB
5) Ujjivan SFB
Answer- 2) AU SFB
Explanation:
On 3rd January 2024, AU Small Finance Bank (SFB) Limited in partnership with United States of
America (USA) based Mastercard launched ‘Mastercard Platinum Debit Card’ designed for
Corporate Salary Customers. The card was introduced under the theme #Swipe&Save.
• The contactless Platinum Debit Card provides exclusive and convenient benefits to Corporate
Salary class people in their daily lives.
• The cardholders can withdraw and make purchases upto Rs 2 lakh per day.
• The Automated Teller Machine (ATM) fund transfer limit made by the card is limited to
Rs.20,000 and contactless transactions are limited to Rs.5000.
• The card offers a personal accident insurance cover of Rs.2 lakh and purchase protection
benefits up to Rs.25,000. The cardholder can also avail card liability cover of Rs.2 lakh.
Note- With the launch of this card, AU SFB has expanded its card offerings in all the payment
networks (MasterCard, Rupay and Visa) in India.
16. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to funds raised through issuing
bonds in three different currencies by the World Bank in January 2024?
A) The World Bank (WB) has launched a 5-year bond with the value of AUD 2 billion which will
be maturing on 10th January 2029.
B) WB has launched a 7-year bond valuing USD 5 billion from investors and this transaction is
the first in the SSA market in 2024 to generate the largest order book.
C) WB has launched a 5-year bond valued at CAD 1.4 billion to finance sustainable
development initiatives in International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
member countries.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C

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4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The World Bank (WB) has raised funds by issuing bonds in three different currencies namely
Canadian dollars (CAD), Australian dollars (AUD), and United States Dollars (USD) to support the
financing of green and social projects, programs and activities in the member countries.
• World Bank’s arm International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) acts as the
issuer.
i. The World Bank has launched a 5-year bond with the value of AUD 2 billion which will be
maturing on 10th January 2029.
• It was the first benchmark transaction as it achieved a transaction size of AUD 2 billion which
is the largest AUD Sovereign, Supranational and Agency (SSA) transaction.
ii. WB has launched a 7-year bond valuing USD 5 billion from investors and this transaction is the
first in the SSA market in 2024 to generate the largest order book.
iii. The World Bank has launched a 5-year bond valued at CAD 1.4 billion to finance sustainable
development initiatives in IBRD member countries.
• The bond is set to mature on 12th January 2029.
Note- These bonds are listed on the Luxembourg Stock Exchange (LSE) in Luxembourg City,
Luxembourg; All the bonds are rated as Aaa/AAA.
17. As per the Master Direction – Reserve Bank of India (Internal Ombudsman for Regulated
Entities) Directions, 2023 issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in January 2024, the
regulated entities (REs) and their Internal Ombudsman (IOs) should communicate a final
decision to customers within _______ days of receiving a complaint.
1) 50
2) 60
3) 90
4) 30
5) 120
Answer- 4) 30
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the Master Direction – Reserve Bank of India (Internal
Ombudsman for Regulated Entities) Directions, 2023, as per which the regulated entities (REs) and
their Internal Ombudsman (IOs) should communicate a final decision to customers within 30 days
of receiving a complaint.
• This directive aims to enhance consumer grievance redress and customer service standards
within RE by facilitating a thorough review before the rejection of customer complaints by IO.
• IOs usually deal with customer complaints related to deficiency in service.
• This directive by RBI is issued in exercise of its powers conferred by Section 35A of the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Section 45L read with 45M of the RBI Act, 1934, sub-section (1)
of Section 11 of Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005 and Section 18 of the
Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

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i. REs must implement a fully-automated Complaints Management Software, escalating all partly or
wholly rejected complaints by the internal grievance redress mechanism to the IO within 20 days for a
final decision.
ii. If Internal Ombudsman / Deputy Internal Ombudsman(DIO) appointments are contractual, it
should not exceed 70 years before tenure completion.
• If IO/DIO tenure is fixed, it should not be less than 3 years and also should not exceed 5 years,
with no eligibility for reappointment or extension in the same RE.
iii. The IO should report to the Competent Authority of the RE administratively, and to the Board of
regulated entities functionally.
18. Name the bank that has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with the REC Limited to jointly
offer loans for power, infrastructure & logistics projects for a duration of three years.
1) Bank of Baroda
2) Bank of India
5) Bank of Maharashtra
Answer- 1) Bank of Baroda
Explanation:
REC Limited (formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Limited) signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with Bank of Baroda (BoB) to jointly offer loans for power, infrastructure and
logistics projects for a duration of three years (till 2026).
• The MoU was signed in presence of Vivek Kumar Dewangan, Chairman and Managing Director
(CMD), REC Limited and Debadatta Chand, MD and CEO, Bank of Baroda
i. The MoU aims to catalyse transformative projects that will positively impact communities and drive
socio-economic progress in India.
Note- REC Limited is a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of
Power (MoP).
19. Name the arm of the World Bank that has recently (in Jan ‘24) priced a 5-year Sustainable
Development Bond in Great British Pound sterling (GBP) to raise GBP 1.5 billion from
investors.
1) International Finance Corporation
2) International Development Association
3) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
4) Multilateral Guarantee Agency
5) International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes
Answer- 3) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
Explanation:
The World Bank (WB) arm International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) has
priced a 5-year Sustainable Development Bond in Great British Pound sterling (GBP) to raise GBP
1.5 billion from investors, contributing to finance sustainable development initiatives in World Bank
member countries.
• Note: IBRD has maintained a triple-A(AAA) rating (investment grade ratings) since 1959.

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i. The bond will mature on 2nd October 2028 and it is listed on the Luxembourg Stock Exchange (LSE)
in Luxembourg City, Luxembourg.
ii. Citigroup Inc., NatWest Markets Plc, Santander Bank and Toronto Dominion Securities are the joint
lead managers of the transaction.
iii. Belgium based Euroclear and Luxembourg based Clearstream will offer Clearing systems service
for the transaction.
iv. Investor Distribution:
• By Investor Type- Central Banks / Official Institutions (53%), Banks/Bank
Treasuries/Corporates (25%), Asset Managers /Insurance/Pension Funds (22%).
• By Geography – United Kingdom (UK – 59%), Asia (32%), Europe / Middle East (6%),
Americas (3%).
20. In January 2024, State Bank of India (SBI) raised USD ___________ by issuing 5-year green
bonds which will mature on 29th December 2028 to fund green projects.
1) 190 million
2) 200 million
3) 150 million
4) 250 million
5) 170 million
Answer- 4) 250 million
Explanation:
State Bank of India (SBI),the largest public sector bank in India, has raised USD 250 million by
issuing 5-year green bonds (also known as green notes) which will mature on 29th December 2028
to fund green projects which are in line with SBI’s Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG)
Financing framework.
i. The issued senior, unsecured, green floating rate notes are rated as ‘BBB-’ by Standard & Poor’s
(S&P).
• The bonds were issued as part of SBI’s USD 10 billion medium-term note programme. The
bonds were issued on the floating rate basis of 1.20% above the Secured Overnight Financing
Rate (SOFR).
ii. SBI has successfully raised USD 1 Billion through Syndicated Social Loan to cater to the domestic
ESG financing market.
• The raised USD 250 million is the part of this Syndicated Social Loan and the funds were raised
through two tenures: a three-year and a five-year loan.
ECONOMY AND BUSINESS
1. As per the “Half-Yearly Economic Review 2023-24-November 2023” released by the

Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance in December 2023, India is
expected to achieve a growth rate of over ___________in FY24.
1) 7.0%
2) 6.5%
3) 7.2%
4) 7.5%
5) 6.9%

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Answer- 2) 6.5%
Explanation:
The “Half-Yearly Economic Review 2023-24-November 2023” released by the Department of
Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance, mentioned that India’s real Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) grew by 7.7% in the first half (H1)of financial year 2023-2024 (FY24).
• With this, India is expected to achieve a growth rate of over 6.5% in FY24.
• India’s real GDP grew by a 7.6% on a year-on-year (YoY) basis in 2nd quarter (Q2) of FY24
i. The GDP growth during H1 of FY 24 was led by the strong domestic demand for consumption and
investment.
ii. Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) increased by 4.5%, reaching 60.4% of GDP, the
highest since FY12, excluding FY21.
2. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
(RVNL) to finance up to Rs 35, 000 crore for multi-modal infrastructure projects?
1) REC Limited
2) Adani Green Energy Limited
3) Reliance Industries Limited
4) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
Answer- 1) REC Limited
Explanation:
REC Limited (formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Limited) signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) to finance up to Rs 35,000 crore for
multi-modal infrastructure projects to be executed by RVNL over the next 5 years.
i. These projects will include multi-modal logistics hub projects, rail infrastructure projects, and road,
port, and metro projects where RVNL is venturing into.
Note- REC Ltd is a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Power,
whereas RVNL is a Schedule ‘A’ Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Railways.
ii. REC Ltd provides long-term loans and financial solutions for the power infrastructure sector,
covering Generation, Transmission, Distribution, Renewable Energy (RE), Electric Vehicles (EVs),
Battery Storage, and Green Hydrogen.
3. In January 2024, India Ratings and Research (Ind-Ra) Private Limited increased India’s
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth estimate for 2023-2024 (FY24) to ___________ from 6.2%.
1) 6.7%
2) 6.5%
3) 6.8%
4) 6.4%
5) 6.3%
Answer- 1) 6.7%
Explanation:
On January 3, 2024, India Ratings and Research (Ind-Ra) Private Limited, part of the Fitch Group,
increased India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth estimate for 2023-2024 (FY24) to 6.7%
from 6.2%.
i. The increase in GDP forecast is led by various factors like,

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• The resilience of the Indian economy, which grew 7.6% Y-o-Y (Year-on-Year) in second quarter
growth (Q2FY24), after growing 7.8% Y-o-Y in 1QFY24.
• Sustained government (Capital Expenditure).
• The prospect of a new private corporate capex cycle.
• Sustained momentum in business and software services exports, along with remittances from
the rest of the world.
4. In January 2024, _______________ has become the 1st Indian electric two-wheeler (e2W)
company to get eligible for the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme after receiving
approval from the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI).
1) TVS Motors
2) Ola Electric Mobility
3) Hero MotoCorp
4) Royal Enfield India
5) Bajaj Auto
Answer- 2) Ola Electric Mobility
Explanation:
Ola Electric Mobility Private Limited (Ola), has become the 1st Indian electric two-wheeler
(e2W) company to get eligible for the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme after receiving
approval from the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI).
i. The PLI certification offers Ola a financial benefit of Rs 15,000 to Rs 18,000 per unit.
ii. This financial incentives will help to increase the penetration of Electric Vehicles (EVs) across India.
iii. Ola Electric has fulfilled all the requirements outlined in the PLI Scheme, including a minimum of
50% domestic value addition to its vehicles.
5. According to the First Advance Estimates (FAE) of National Income for the financial year
2023-24 released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MoSPI) in January 2024, Indian economy growth in real GDP will be at
__________in FY24.
1) 6.9%
2) 7.3%
3) 7.0%
4) 7.5%
5) 7.4%
Answer- 2) 7.3%
Explanation:
On January 5, 2024, the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MoSPI) released the First Advance Estimates (FAE) of National Income for the
financial year 2023-24, both at Constant (2011-12) and Current Prices.
• As per it, Indian economy growth in real GDP will be at 7.3% in FY24 as compared to the
7.2% in FY23.
• While in nominal terms, the projected GDP growth for India in FY24 is 8.9%, a deceleration
from the 16.1% recorded in FY23.
i. Real GDP or GDP at Constant (2011-12) Prices FY24 is estimated at Rs 171.79 lakh crore, as against
the Provisional Estimate of GDP for FY23 of Rs 160.06 lakh crore, released on 31st May, 2023.

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ii. Nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in FY24 is estimated at Rs 296.58 lakh crore as against the
Provisional Estimate of GDP for FY23 of Rs 272.41 lakh crore.
• Nominal GDP includes the impact of inflation, and hence the data shows the drop in inflation
6. Name the company that has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed a Long Term Liquefied Natural Gas
(LNG) deal with Singapore-based Vitol Asia Pte Limited for the supply of approximately one
million metric tons of LNG per annum into India for a period of about 10 years, with effect from
2026.
1) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
2) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
3) GAIL (India) Limited
4) Oil India Limited
5) Coal India Limited
Answer- 3) GAIL (India) Limited
Explanation:
GAIL (India) Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of
Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG), has signed a Long Term Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) deal with
Singapore-based Vitol Asia Pte Limited for the supply of approximately one million metric tons of
LNG per annum into India for a period of about 10 years, with effect from 2026.
• Under this deal, Vitol will deliver LNG from its global LNG portfolio to GAIL in India on a pan-
India basis.
MoU’s AND AGREEMENTS
1. Which centre of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has recently (in Jan ‘24)
signed an MoU with the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) to develop and report a
“Green Cover Index” for National Highways in India?
1) North Eastern Space Applications Centre
2) Master Control Facility
3) National Remote Sensing Centre
4) ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network
5) ISRO Inertial Systems Unit
Answer- 3) National Remote Sensing Centre
Explanation:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), one of the primary centres of the Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO), for 3 years to develop and report a “Green Cover Index” for the vast
National Highways network in India.
i. Green Highways Policy: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and NHAI has
prioritised greening Highway Corridors since initiation of the Green Highways Policy in 2015.
• At present, the monitoring of plantations is based on site visits by field personnel.
ii. By using high-resolution satellite imagery, NRSC will undertake a comprehensive pan-India
estimation of green cover referred to as the ‘Green Cover Index’ for National Highways.
• This approach not only enhances in-situ data collection but also supplements plantation
management and monitoring, including performance audits conducted by NHAI.

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iii. This innovative approach aims to streamline the assessment process and facilitate targeted
interventions where green cover is insufficient.
2. Which organisation/association has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with the Khadi and
Village Industries Commission (KVIC) to improve the quality of Khadi products & to introduce
Made-in-India label for khadi?
1) Quality Council of India
2) Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry
3) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry
4) Confederation of Indian Industry
5) National Association of Software and Service Companies
Answer- 1) Quality Council of India
Explanation:
The Quality Council of India (QCI) and the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at Kochrab Ashram in Ahmedabad (Gujarat) to improve the
quality of Khadi products, introduce Made-in-India label for khadi, and empower khadi artisans.
i. As per the MoU, QCI will assist KVIC in various activities, including training for enhanced product
quality, improving productivity, and marketability of Khadi and Village Industries products
domestically and internationally.
ii. This collaboration will give a new identity to Khadi as a ‘Made in India’ label, and aims to position
Khadi products as a symbol of quality globally, fostering increased production and sales.
3. Name the state government that has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with the Power
Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) to provide financial backing worth Rs 25,000 crore for
power generation, transmission, & distribution projects.
1) Odisha
2) Maharashtra
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) Gujarat
Answer- 5) Gujarat
Explanation:
The Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
worth Rs 25,000 crore with the Government of Gujarat (GoG) in Gandhinagar to provide financial
backing for power generation, transmission, and distribution projects.
• PFC is a Schedule-A Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of
Power (MoP).
i. As per the MoU, PFC supports various projects undertaken by GoG-owned firms such as
• Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Limited (GUVNL)
• Gujarat State Electricity Corporation Limited (GSECL)
• Gujarat Energy Transmission Corporation Limited (GETCO)
• Dakshin Gujarat Vij Company Limited (DGVCL)
• Madhya Gujarat Vij Company Limited (MGVCL)
• Paschim Gujarat Vij Company Limited (PGVCL)
• Uttar Gujarat Vij Company Limited (UGVCL)

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ii. PFC also provides funding for the expansion of power infrastructure projects of these entities and
the MoU will also create employment generation in Gujarat.
4. Which organisation has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with Indian Railways (IR) to
reduce energy and water consumption and lower greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions?
1) Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India
2) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry
3) National Association of Software and Service Companies
4) Quality Council of India
5) Confederation of Indian Industry
Answer- 5) Confederation of Indian Industry
Explanation:
On 4th January 2024, Indian Railways (IR) and Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) signed the
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to reduce energy and water consumption and lower
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
• The MoU has been renewed for the 3rd consecutive time since 2016.
• This renewed MoU with CII-Green Business Centre(GBC) aims to achieve IR’s target of Net Zero
Carbon Emission by 2030.
i. Under this renewed MoU IR and CII jointly focus on:
• Bringing new/relevant technologies and their implementations.
• Assistance in achieving ISO 50001 certification(Energy Management System certification) for
workshops/production units (PUs).
• Development of a Net-Zero Energy Railway station framework.
• Creation of an information dashboard highlighting advancements in green initiatives
throughout the year.
APPOINTMENTS AND RESIGNATIONS
1. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission,
constituted by the Government of India?
1) Arvind Virmani
2) Vijay Kumar Saraswat
3) Arvind Panagariya
4) Suman Bery
5) Ramesh Chand
Answer- 3) Arvind Panagariya
Explanation:
The Government of India, has constituted the 16th Finance Commission of India with Dr Arvind
Panagariya, former Vice-Chairman (VC), NITI Aayog(National Institution for Transforming
India)(2015 to 2017) as Chairman.
• Ritvik Ranjanam Pandey, Joint Secretary(Revenue), Ministry of Finance, was appointed as the
Secretary to the Commission. He is a 1998 batch IAS officer of Karnataka cadre. The other
members of the 16th commission will be notified separately.
• Tenure: The Chairman and other members of the Commission will hold the post from the date
on which they assume office up to the date of submission of Report or 31st October 2025.

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Note: The 16th commission is set to submit its report by 31st October 2025 covering a period of five
years commencing on the 1st April 2026.
i. Arvind Panagariya is a Professor of Economics and the Jagdish Bhagwati Professor of Indian Political
Economy at Columbia University, the United States of America (USA).
ii. He has also served as the Chief Economist of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) from 2000 to
2002. He was honoured with Padma Bhusan (Literature and Education) in 2012.
2. In January 2024, Félix-Antoine Tshisekedi Tshilombo was re-elected as the President of the
___________ (country) for the 2nd term.
1) Ethiopia
2) Democratic Republic of Congo
3) United Republic of Tanzania
4) Ghana
5) Gabon
Answer- 2) Democratic Republic of Congo
Explanation:
Félix-Antoine Tshisekedi Tshilombo, the leader of the Union for Democracy and Social Progress
(UDPS) party, was re-elected as the President of the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) for the
2nd term.
• He is set to be sworn in as the President of Congo on 20th January 2024.
i. He was first elected as the President of Congo in 2019 succeeding Joseph Kabila..During his tenure
as President, He also served as Chair of the African Union (AU) in 2021.
Note: From 1971 to 1997, Congo was officially known as the Republic of Zaire.
3. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) became the first woman President of the European Investment
Bank (EIB)?
1) Nadia Calviño Santamaría (Spain)
2) Alisa Weinberger (Germany)
3) Esther Duflo (France)
4) Asli Demirguc-Kunt (Türkiye)
5) Marianne Bertrand (Belgium)
Answer- 1) Nadia Calviño Santamaría (Spain)
Explanation:
On 1st January 2024, Nadia Calviño Santamaría, a Spanish economist and civil servant, took over as
the 8th President of the European Investment Bank (EIB), the lending arm of the European
Union(EU).
• With this appointment, she became the first woman President of EIB. She succeeds Werner
Hoyer of Germany, who held the post since 2012.
Note: She has been serving as the First Vice-President(VP) and Minister for Economy, Trade and
Companies, Government of Spain since July 2021.
• She also served as Director-General for the Internal Market of the European Commission
(2010-2014) and Director-General for Budget of the European Commission(2014-2018).
• She has also served as the Chair of the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC)
of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) (since 3rd January 2022).

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4. In January 2024, Durga Shanker Mishra was re-appointed as the Chief Secretary (CS) of
__________ (State) for the third term and the Rajasthan government appointed ___________ as CS.
1) Uttar Pradesh; Sanjeev Kaushal
2) Punjab; Anurag Verma
3) Uttar Pradesh; Sudhansh Pant
4) Punjab; Sanjeev Kaushal
5) Haryana; Sudhansh Pant
Answer- 3) Uttar Pradesh; Sudhansh Pant
Explanation:
Durga Shanker Mishra was re-appointed as the Chief Secretary (CS) of Uttar Pradesh (UP) for the
third term, from 1st January to 30th June 2024.
• DS Mishra, a 1984-batch UP cadre Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer who was initially
set to retire on December 31, 2021, was appointed as the CS of UP with a one-year extension of
service.
• This was his third service extension, following the second extension on 30th December 2022.
i. Sudhansh Pant, a 1991 batch IAS officer, was appointed chief secretary of Rajasthan. He
succeeded Usha Sharma, who retired on 31st December 2023.
• He also holds additional charge as the chairman of Rajasthan Mines and Mineral Corporation
Limited.
• Prior to this appointment, Sudhansh Pant served as the Secretary of the Department of Health
and Family Welfare.
5. In January 2024, the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy has set up a ___________ member
Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) to resolve “unforeseen disputes” between Renewable
Energy Power developers, Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) contractors, and
Renewable Energy Implementing Agencies (REIAs).
1) 3
2) 6
3) 4
4) 5
5) 8
Answer- 1) 3
Explanation:
The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) has set up a 3-member Dispute Resolution
Committee (DRC) to resolve “unforeseen disputes” between Renewable Energy (solar and wind)
Power developers, Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) contractors, and Renewable
Energy Implementing Agencies (REIAs).
• Members of the committee: Rajesh Bhushan, Former Health Secretary; M F Farooqui, Former
Telecom Secretary; and Kumar Alok, Former Chief Secretary of Tripura.
i. About the committee:
• The members of the committee will be chosen from eminent individuals with impeccable
integrity in the National Capital Region (NCR) to avoid expenditure on air travel and
accommodation travel expenses.
• The upper age limit for the members is 70 years.

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6. Who has been recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Prime Minister (PM) of the Republic of
Chad?
1) Moussa Faki
2) Saleh Kebzabo
3) Succes Masra
4) Albert Pahimi Padacké
5) Emmanuel Nadingar
Answer- 3) Succes Masra
Explanation:
Succes Masra, president of ‘The Transformers’ party
and former opposition leader, was appointed as the
Prime Minister (PM) of the Republic of Chad by the
transitional government under the presidentship of
General Mahamat Idriss Deby Itno following a
referendum.
• Succes Masra will replace Saleh Kebzabo who
resigned from the post in December 2023.
i. Succes Masra is a former Senior Economist at the African Development Bank (AfDB), and a former
Senior Consultant at Ernst & Young Global Limited and BNP Paribas Bank Group (Paris, France).
ii. He started the Les Transformateurs (“The Transformers” in English) party in 2018.
7. In January 2024, Sheikh Mohammed Sabah al-Salem al-Sabah was appointed as the Prime
Minister(PM) of ____________ (country).
1) Yemen
3) Lebanon
4) Kuwait
5) Qatar
Answer- 4) Kuwait
Explanation:
Sheikh Meshal al-Ahmad Al-Jaber al-Sabah, Emir of Kuwait, has appointed Sheikh Mohammed Sabah
al-Salem al-Sabah as the Prime Minister (PM) of Kuwait and has been tasked to form a new cabinet.
• He succeeds Sheikh Ahmad Nawaf Al Ahmad Al Sabah, the son of late Emir Nawaf Al-Ahmad Al-
Jaber Al-Sabah, who has been serving as the PM of Kuwait since 2022.
i. Sheikh Mohammed was born in 1955 and is the fourth son of Sheikh Sabah Al Salem Al Sabah, the
12th Emir of Kuwait, who ruled Kuwait from 1965 until 1977.
ii. He served as the ambassador of Kuwait to the United States of America from 1993 to 2001.
iii. He has also served as the minister of state for foreign affairs from 2001 to 2003, and minister of
foreign affairs from 2003 to 2011.
iv. He served as the deputy PM of Kuwait from 2006 to 2011.

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8. Who was recently (in Jan ‘24) elected as the President of All India Rubber Industries
Association (AIRIA) (2023-24)?
1) Ashish Anand
2) Shashi Kumar Singh
3) Rakesh Kumar Dugar
4) Sanjeev Sikka
5) Vishal Bagaria
Answer- 2) Shashi Kumar Singh
Explanation:
Shashi Kumar Singh, Director of Osaka Rubber Private Limited, was elected as the President of All
India Rubber Industries Association (AIRIA) (2023-24), the apex body for rubber industries in India.
• He will succeed Ramesh Kejriwal, who served as the President of AIRIA from 2022-23.
• Prior to the appointment, Shashi Singh was serving as the senior vice president (VP) within
AIRIA.
• The election of the new office bearers for 2023-24 was held during the Annual General Meeting
on 23rd December 2023 in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
i. Zafar Ahmed, Managing Director of New India Rubber Works Pvt Ltd was elected as the senior vice-
president of AIRIA for 2023-24.
• Indra Parekh, Director at RI Impex Private Limited has been elected as the vice president of
AIRIA for 2023-24.
9. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive
Officer (CEO) of National Asset Reconstruction of India Limited (NARCL)?
1) P Santhosh
2) Natarajan Sundar
3) Ajit Nair
4) Rakesh K. Singh
5) Malvika Sinha
Answer- 1) P Santhosh
Explanation:
P Santhosh, Chief General Manager (CGM) of Canara Bank, has been appointed (on deputation) as
Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of National Asset Reconstruction of India
Limited (NARCL) with effect from 5th January 2024.
• He succeeds Natarajan Sundar, MD & CEO of NARCL (from 2022), who resigned from the post.
• Santhosh will hold the post until the appointment of a regular CEO.
Note: The majority of NARCL’s stake is held by Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and the balance by private
banks. Canara Bank is among the sponsor banks of NARCL with 10% stake.
10. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the appointment cleared by
the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) in January 2024?
A) ACC chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi, cleared the appointment of 7 civil
servants to key posts abroad to represent India in foreign missions and captive posts within
GoI across various multilateral bodies.
B) Vikas Sheel was appointed as Executive Director (ED) of the Asian Development Bank (ADB)
in Manila (Philippines) for 3 years.

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C) Senthil Pandian has been appointed as Ambassador/Permanent Representative (PR) at the

Permanent Mission of India (PMI) to the Geneva (Switzerland)-based World Trade
Organisation (WTO) for 3 years.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On 5 January 2024, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) chaired by Prime Minister
(PM) Narendra Modi, cleared the appointment of 7 civil servants to key posts abroad to represent
India in foreign missions and captive posts within the Government of India (GoI) across various
multilateral bodies.
• Vikas Sheel, a 1994-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Chhattisgarh cadre
was appointed as Executive Director (ED) of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in Manila
(Philippines) for 3 years.
• Senthil Pandian, 2002-batch IAS officer of the Uttar Pradesh cadre and has been appointed as
Ambassador/Permanent Representative (PR) at the Permanent Mission of India (PMI) to the
Geneva (Switzerland)-based World Trade Organisation (WTO) for 3 years.
• M Balaji, 2005-batch IAS officer of the Tamil Nadu cadre and has been appointed Deputy Chief
of Mission at the Embassy of India, Brussels (Belgium) for 3 years.
• Parveen Kumar, Indian Revenue Service (IRS) (Income Tax) officer of the 2004 batch and was
appointed as Adviser to the ED of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), Washington DC, the
United States of America (USA).
• Smita Sarangi, 2008 batch IAS officer of the Nagaland Cadre and was appointed as Adviser to
the ED of the ADB, Manila for 3 years.
• Senior bureaucrat Kalyan Revella, a 2010-batch IRS officer, has been appointed Counsellor
(Economic) at the Embassy of India in Beijing, China for 3 years, replacing Lekhan Thakkar.
• Tanu Singh, a 2012-batch Indian Trade Service (ITradeS) officer, has been named as the First
Secretary of the PMI to the WTO (Geneva) for 3 years.
• She replaces Anwar Hussain Shaik, who is completing his tenure on 31 March 2024.
11. In January 2024, Ravindra Kumar Tyagi assumed charge as Chairman and Managing
Director (CMD) of ____________(company).
1) NTPC Limited
3) Power Grid Corporation of India
4) Power Finance Corporation Limited
5) Indian Railway Finance Corporation
Answer- 3) Power Grid Corporation of India
Explanation:
Ravindra Kumar Tyagi assumed charge as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Grid
Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) with effect from 1 January 2024. Before this, he was
serving as Director (Operations) of POWERGRID.

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• He succeeded Kandikuppa Sreekant, who was superannuated on 31 December 2023. He has

been the CMD of POWERGRID since August 2019.
Note- State-owned POWERGRID is a Maharatna Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the
administrative control of the Ministry of Power.
12. Name the personality who has been recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Managing
Director (MD) & Chief Executive officer (CEO) of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund
Limited (NIIFL).
1) A.K.T Chari
2) Sanjiv Aggarwal
3) Rajiv Dhar
4) Ashwani Kumar
5) Prashant Kumar Ghose
Answer- 2) Sanjiv Aggarwal
Explanation:
On 5th January 2023, Sanjiv Aggarwal, Partner (Energy Infrastructure), Actis, was appointed as the
Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive officer (CEO) of National Investment and Infrastructure
Fund Limited (NIIFL), with effect from February 2024.
• He will succeed Rajiv Dhar, who has been serving as interim MD and CEO of NIIFL since May
2023.
Note: NIIF is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors, anchored by
the Government of India(GoI).
13. Who has been recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Executive Director (ED) of Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for a period of three years?
1) Kamlesh Chandra Varshney
2) Ananth Narayan G
3) Ashwani Bhatia
4) Govindayapalli Ram Mohan Rao
5) Amarjeet Singh
Answer- 4) Govindayapalli Ram Mohan Rao
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), has appointed Govindayapalli Ram Mohan Rao
as Executive Director (ED) of SEBI for a period of three years.
• He will handle the Investigation Department and Internal Inspection Department in SEBI
headquarters in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
i. Prior to joining SEBI, G Ram Mohan Rao served as Regional Director of the Eastern Regional
Office(ERO) of SEBI in Kolkata, West Bengal.
ii. He also served at the Northern Regional Office(NRO) and Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
in New Delhi, Delhi.

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AWARDS AND RECOGNITIONS
1. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) won the Pubity Sport Men’s Athlete of the Year 2023 Award?
1) Lionel Messi
2) Novak Djokovic
3) Virat Kohli
4) Max Verstappen
5) Cristiano Ronaldo
Answer- 3) Virat Kohli
Explanation:
Indian cricketer Virat Kohli won the Pubity Sport Men’s Athlete of the Year 2023 Award by
defeating Argentine footballer Lionel Messi in the final clash of the online poll in which Kohli got 78
percent out of the total votes while Messi got remaining 22 percent.
• Spanish footballer Aitana Bonmati (76%)wins Pubity female Athlete of The Year 2023 Award
by defeating American tennis player Coco Gauff (24%).
i. The award was selected based on the online poll conducted by Pubity Sport, a subsidiary channel of
Pubity.
ii. The poll for the Pubity Sport Men’s Athlete of the Year featured 16 sports players across various
disciplines.
iii. The Top 4 players in the list includes Virat Kohli and Lionel Messi, Novak Djokovic (tennis –
Serbia) and Max Verstappen (Formula 1 motorsport – Belgian-Dutch ).
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the winners of Rashtriya Khel
Protsahan Puruskar 2023 announced in January 2024?
A) The Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports (MoYAS) announced the winners of ‘Rashtriya Khel
Protsahan Puruskar’ 2023 and the award will be presented by the President of India, Droupadi
Murmu on 9th January 2024.
B) Jain (Deemed-to-be University) in Bengaluru, Karnataka won the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan
Puruskar 2023 award under the Identification and nurturing of budding / young talent
category.
C) Odisha Mining Corporate Limited (Bhubaneswar, Odisha) won the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan
Puruskar 2023 award under the Encouragement to sports through Corporate Social
Responsibility category.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On 4th January 2023, the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports (MoYAS) announced the winners of
‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ 2023 which recognises the corporate entities and individuals
for outstanding contribution in the area of sports promotion and development.
• The award will be presented by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, during a special
event organised at the Rashtrapati Bhavan on 9th January 2024.

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Note- The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is one of the 6 National Sports Awards annually
presented by the MoYAS.
i. Winners of 2023 Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar:
• The 2023 award was announced under 2 categories:
Category Winners
Identification and nurturing of budding / young talent Jain (Deemed to be

University),
Bengaluru, Karnataka
Encouragement to sports through Corporate Social Odisha Mining Corporate

Responsibility Limited
Bhubaneswar, Odisha
Note- The scheme of Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar includes 4 categories. The other 2 are
Employment of Sports Persons and Sports Welfare Measures; and Sports for Development.
ACQUISITION AND MERGERS
1. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) acquired a 100% equity stake in Bikaner III
Neemrana II Transmission Limited, a special purpose vehicle (SPV), for Rs 18.6 crore?
1) ReNew Power
2) Nayara Energy
3) Reliance Power
4) Tata Power
5) Adani Transmission
Answer- 4) Tata Power
Explanation:
Tata Power has acquired a 100% equity stake in Bikaner III Neemrana II Transmission Limited,
a special purpose vehicle (SPV), for Rs 18.6 crore.
• SPV was set up by PFC Consulting Limited which is a subsidiary of Power Finance Corporation.
• SPV was formed in June 2023 for the electrical power transmission project, which will be
developed on a Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) basis.
• The transmission line project with an estimated cost of Rs. 1544 crore will transfer 7.7
Gigawatt (GW) of green power from Bikaner to Neemrana in Rajasthan about a distance of 340
kms.
2. Which state’s Power Corporation Ltd has recently (in Jan ‘24) received the proposed
acquisition of 100% shareholding of GVK Power (Goindwal Sahib) Limited from the
Competition Commission of India (CCI)?
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Rajasthan
4) Haryana
5) Punjab
Answer- 5) Punjab

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Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed acquisition of 100%
shareholding of GVK Power (Goindwal Sahib) Limited by Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd
(PSPCL).
• This relates to the resolution plan, entailing the 100% acquisition of GVK Power (Goindwal
Sahib) Limited by PSPCL once it is declared as the resolution applicant.
i. The Punjab government has acquired the Goindwal Sahib Thermal Power Plant, for Rs 1,080
crore. With this, Punjab has become the first state government to purchase a private thermal plant.
ii. The 540-Megawatt (MW) thermal plant will be named after Guru Amardass, the 3rd Guru of Sikhs.
Note- GVK Power (Goindwal Sahib) Limited, incorporated in December 1997, is a wholly owned
subsidiary of GVK Energy Limited, a subsidiary of GVK Power and Infrastructure Limited.
Headquarters– Secunderabad, Telangana
3. In January 2024, ICICI Venture Funds Management Company Limited decided to sell its
entire _________ paid-up share capital in Mumbai-based Theobroma Food Private Limited for Rs
1,200 crore.
1) 40%
2) 56%
3) 36%
4) 42%
5) 32%
Answer- 4) 42%
Explanation:
Mumbai (Maharashtra) based ICICI Venture Funds Management Company Limited has decided to
sell its entire 42% paid-up share capital in Mumbai-based Theobroma Food Private Limited for Rs
1,200 crore.
• It takes six to nine months to complete the deal.
• ICICI Venture on-boarded Theobroma Food Private Limited in 2017 with a commitment to
offer USD 20 million to expand it throughout India.
DEFENCE
1. Which country, along with India, has commenced the 1st edition of joint military exercise,
Desert Cyclone 2024 in Mahajan, Rajasthan on 2nd January 2024?
1) Mongolia
2) Egypt
3) Oman
5) Kyrgyzstan
Answer- 4) United Arab Emirates
Explanation:
Desert Cyclone 2024, the 1st edition of the India-United Arab Emirates (UAE) joint military
exercise, commenced in Mahajan, Rajasthan on 2nd January 2024. The 2-week-long Exercise will
conclude on 15th January 2024.

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• The goal of the exercise is to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations
between two nations.
Note: “Desert Eagle”, the first-ever India-UAE Joint Air Forces exercise took place in September 2008
at the Al-Dhafra base in Abu Dhabi, UAE.
i. Objective: To boost interoperability in Sub-conventional Operations, focusing on Fighting in the
Built-Up Area (FIBUA) within desert and semi-desert terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations
(UN) Charter on Peacekeeping Operations.
• It will enhance cooperation and interoperability between both sides during Peacekeeping
Operations.
ii. Participants:
• UAE contingent: 45 personnel from the Zayed First Brigade.
• Indian Army contingent: 45 personnel, primarily by a Battalion from the Mechanised Infantry
Regiment.
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent contracts signed by
the Ministry of Defence (MoD) in January 2024?
A) MoD inked a contract worth Rs 473 crore with M/s Jupiter Wagons Limited for the
procurement of 697 Bogie Open Military (BOM) wagons.
B) MoD inked a contract worth Rs 329.87 crore, was signed with M/s Bharat Heavy Electricals
Limited for the procurement of 56 Mechanical Minefield Marking Equipment (MMME) Mark II.
C) The procurements were made under the Buy Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed,
Developed, and Manufactured) category.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Answer- 4) Only A & C
Explanation:
The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has inked 2 contracts worth Rs 802 crore for indigenous military
equipment. The 1st contract, worth Rs 473 crore, was inked with M/s Jupiter Wagons Limited for
the procurement of 697 Bogie Open Military (BOM) wagons.
i. The 2nd contract, worth Rs 329.87 crore, was signed with M/s BEML Limited (Formerly Bharat
Earth Movers Limited ) for the procurement of 56 Mechanical Minefield Marking Equipment (MMME)
Mark II.
• The BOM wagons, designed by Research Design and Standard Organization (RDSO) are
specialist wagons used by the Indian Army for mobilisation of the Army units.
• BOM wagons are used to transport light vehicles, Artillery Guns, BMPs, Engineering
Equipment, etc. from their peacetime locations to operational areas.
ii. The procurements were made under the Buy Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed, Developed,
and Manufactured) category.
• Marking of all minefields is a mandatory requirement under the amended Protocol-II of ‘the
Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons by United Nations Office for Disarmament
Affairs (UNODA)’ to which India is a signatory.

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• MMME is designed to operate cross-country with a full load of stores and carry out marking of
minefields with minimal time and manpower employment.
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
1. In December 2023, SpaceX launched US military’s secretive X-37-B military space plane
onboard with ___________ rocket from Launch Complex 39A (LC-39A) at Kennedy Space Center in
Florida, the United States of America(USA).
1) Razak Demo-2
2) Starhopper
3) Crew Dragon Demo-1
4) Falcon Heavy
5) Transporter-1
Answer- 4) Falcon Heavy
Explanation:
On 28th December 2023, SpaceX’s Falcon Heavy rocket carrying US military’s secretive X-37-B
military space plane to orbit was launched from Launch Complex 39A (LC-39A) at Kennedy Space
Center in Florida, the United States of America(USA).
• The mission involves tests of ‘new orbital regimes, experimenting with future space domain
awareness technologies.’
• The mission codenamed “USSF-52” is the 7th mission of X-37B. This mission includes multiple
cutting-edge experiments. This is the first time the X-37B is launched using a Falcon Heavy
rocket.
i. About X-37B:
• X-37B Orbital Test Vehicle, operating since 2010, was designed for the Air Force by United
Launch Alliance, a joint venture between Boeing and Lockheed Martin.
• It is 30 feet (9 meters) long, has a 15-foot wingspan and is powered by solar panels.
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the XPoSat launched by the
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in January 2024?
A) ISRO launched XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite), India’s 1st dedicated polarimetry
mission onboard the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)-C58 from Satish Dhawan Space
Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
B) With this, India becomes the 2nd country in the world (after the United States of
America(USA)) to launch a specialised astronomy observatory to study black holes and
neutron stars in our galaxy.
C) This mission includes the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3) aiming to
accommodate and execute 10 payloads contributed by ISRO and Indian National Space
Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe).
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C

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Explanation:
On 1st January 2024, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter
Satellite), India’s 1st dedicated polarimetry mission onboard the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(PSLV)-C58 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh (AP). PSLV-C58 has
launched XPOSAT Satellite into an Eastward low inclination orbit.
• It was PSLV-C58’s 60th mission and lifted a mass of 260 tons. It should be noted that this
launch was by PSLV-DL variant. It was PSLV-DL’s 4th mission.
• The satellite is expected to operate for at least 5 years.
i. The mission aims to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources like black holes,
neutron stars, active galactic nuclei, pulsar wind nebulae etc. in extreme conditions.
ii. With this, India becomes the 2nd country in the world (after the United States of America(USA))
to launch a specialised astronomy observatory to study black holes and neutron stars in our galaxy.
• After the launch, PS4 stage underwent two restarts for orbit adjustment to a stable 350 km
circular orbit, ensuring a stable 3-axis mode for Orbital Platform (OP) experiments.
iii. This mission includes the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3) aiming to accommodate
and execute 10 payloads contributed by ISRO and Indian National Space Promotion and
Authorization Center (IN-SPACe).
• It carried the following two scientific payloads-POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) and
XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) in a low Earth orbit (LEO).
3. In January 2024, SpaceX launched the 21 Starlink satellites, including its first six "direct-to-
cell" satellites, into Low-Earth orbit (LEO) on board a __________ (Launch vehicle) from
California, United States of America(USA).
1) Falcon 1e
2) Grasshopper
3) Falcon 9
4) Starship
5) Falcon 5
Answer- 3) Falcon 9
Explanation:
On 2nd January 2024, SpaceX’s Falcon 9 launched the 21 Starlink satellites, including its first six
“direct-to-cell” satellites, to Low-Earth orbit (LEO) from Space Launch Complex 4 East (SLC-4E) at
Vandenberg Space Force Base in California, the United States of America (USA).
i. Direct to cell satellites aim to provide seamless global access to text, call, and browse across all-
terrain and location coverage without changing hardware or firmware.
ii. These starlink satellites use an advanced eNodeB modem that acts as a cellphone tower in space.
• eNodeB – refers to the base station equipment that handles the radio interface with the mobile
devices.
iii. This will eliminate dead zones (a place that doesn’t receive a cell signal) with network integration
similar to a standard roaming partner.
• The global cellular providers which are currently using Direct to cell include T-Mobile in the
USA, Rogers in Canada, KDDI in Japan, Optus in Australia, One NZ in New Zealand, Salt in
Switzerland, and Entel in Chile and Peru.

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4. Which company is set to launch GSAT-20 (renamed GSAT-N2), a Ka-band high throughput
satellite (HTS), onboard the Falcon-9 rocket of Space Exploration Technologies Corporation
(SpaceX) in the 2nd quarter of 2024?
1) NewSpace India Limited
2) Godrej Aerospace
3) KaleidEO Space Systems
4) Dhruva Space
5) Skyroot Aerospace
Answer- 1) NewSpace India Limited
Explanation:
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO), is set to launch GSAT-20 (renamed GSAT-N2), a Ka-band high throughput satellite (HTS),
onboard the Falcon-9 rocket of Space Exploration Technologies Corporation (SpaceX) in the 2nd
quarter of 2024.
• This will be ISRO’s first partnership with SpaceX to launch the satellites.
i. About GSAT-N2:
• GSAT-N2 is specifically designed to meet the broadband, In-flight and Maritime Connectivity
(IFMC) and cellular backhaul service needs of remote/ unconnected regions.
• It offers 32 user beams in the Ka-Ka band having Pan-India coverage including Andaman and
Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands.
• GSAT-N2, weighing 4700 kg, offers an HTS capacity of nearly 48 Gigabytes Per Second(Gpbs).
• GSAT-N2 satellite will be fully owned, operated and funded by NSIL.
5. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) unveiled ‘GoRoga’ India’s first anti-stress wearable?
1) Nazara Technologies Limited
2) GSS Infotech Limited
3) Tracxn Technologies Limited
4) GlobalSpace Technologies Limited
5) Zensar Technologies Limited
Answer- 4) GlobalSpace Technologies Limited
Explanation:
Navi Mumbai (Maharashtra) based GlobalSpace Technologies Limited has unveiled ‘GoRoga’
India’s first anti-stress wearable.
• The device uses non-invasive brain stimulation (NIBS) technology to reduce anxiety and
promote mental wellness.
i. The device is manufactured and patented as RogaLife in the United States of America (USA) and the
software is developed in India under the ‘Make in India’ initiative.
ii. ‘GoRoga’ is designed to activate cortisol (steroid hormone) by connecting to a phone and utilizing
sticky pads on the ears.

Weekly Q&A PDF
6. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO)’s Aditya-L1 spacecraft, as of January 2023?
A) (ISRO successfully performed the crucial manoeuvre(final manoeuvre) of injecting the
Aditya-L1 spacecraft, India’s first space-based observatory-class solar probe to study the Sun,
into the halo orbit around Lagrangian point 1 (L1), travelled around 2.1 million kilometres in
75 days.
B) Between 3rd and 15th September 2023, the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command
Network (ISTRAC) in Bengaluru, Karnataka, has carried out 4 Earth-Bound Manoeuvres (EBN).
C) Aditya L1 carries 7 payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona (the
outermost layers of the Sun) using electromagnetic and particle detectors.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
On 6th January 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully performed the
crucial manoeuvre(final manoeuvre) of injecting the Aditya-L1 spacecraft, India’s first space-based
observatory-class solar probe to study the Sun, into the halo orbit around Lagrangian point 1 (L1).
• Aditya L1 has travelled around 3.7 million kilometres in 126 days to reach L1.
• This marks the transition of the Aditya L1 mission from cruise phase to orbit phase.
i. After a flight duration of 63 minutes and 20 seconds, Aditya L1 was successfully injected into an
elliptical orbit of 235×19500 km around the Earth.
ii. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C57) launched Aditya L1 on 2nd September 2023 from the
Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh(AP).
• Between 3rd and 15th September 2023, the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network
(ISTRAC) in Bengaluru, Karnataka, has carried out 4 Earth-Bound Manoeuvres (EBN).
• On 30th September 2023, Aditya L1 travelled beyond a distance of 9.2 lakh km from Earth and
escaped the sphere of Earth’s influence and began its journey towards L1.
• Mission Director: Nigar Shaji, a scientist at the UR Rao Satellite Centre(URSC), part of ISRO, in
Bengaluru, Karnataka. Nigar Shaji hails from Tenkasi, Tamil Nadu.
iii. Aditya L1 carries 7 payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona (the
outermost layers of the Sun) using electromagnetic and particle detectors.
• 4 payloads will directly view the Sun and 3 payloads will carry out in-situ studies of particles
and fields at the L1. These payloads were indigenously developed in collaboration with various
ISRO Centres and Scientific Institutes.

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SPORTS
1. In December 2023, Norwegian Grandmaster (GM) and World No.1, Magnus Carlsen won the
World Rapid Chess Championship title (Men) for ___________ time, while Russian chess player
Anastasia Bodnaruk won the 2023 FIDE World Rapid Chess Women’s title by defeating Indian
Chess Grandmaster, ___________.
1) 5th; Koneru Humpy
2) 6th; Vaishali Rameshbabu
3) 5th; Harika Dronavalli
4) 4th; Vaishali Rameshbabu
5) 6th; Koneru Humpy
Answer- 1) 5th; Koneru Humpy
Explanation:
Norwegian Grandmaster (GM) and World No.1, Magnus Carlsen won the 2023 International Chess
Federation (FIDE) World Rapid Chess title (Men) held at Samarkand, Uzbekistan from 26 December
to 28 December 2023. This title marks Magnus Carlsen’s 5th World Rapid Chess Championship
title.
• He has totally won 16 World Championship titles, which include 5 rapid titles, 6 blitz titles, and
5 classical titles. He also received the Prize Money -USD 60,000.
ii. Russian chess player Anastasia Bodnaruk (neutral Fide flag) won the 2023 FIDE World Rapid Chess
Women’s title by defeating Indian Chess Grandmaster, Koneru Humpy in a tiebreaker match to
secure first place.
2. In December 2023, Norwegian Grandmaster and World Chess Champion Magnus Carlsen
won his __________ World Blitz Chess Championships (open tournament) title and Russian
grandmaster _________ won the World Women’s Blitz Chess Championships title in 2023.
1) 8th; Polina Shuvalova
2) 7th; Valentina Gunina
3) 8th; Alexandra Kosteniuk
4) 7th; Polina Shuvalova
5) 6th; Valentina Gunina
Answer- 2) 7th; Valentina Gunina
Explanation:
Norwegian Grandmaster and World Chess Champion Magnus Carlsen won the title at the 2023
World Blitz Chess Championships (open tournament) held at the Samarkand Congress Center,
Samarkand, Uzbekistan from 29th to 30th December 2023.
• This marks Carlsen’s 7th World Blitz championship title and 17th World Championship title.
• Russia’s Valentina Gunina won the title in the Women’s Blitz tournament. This marks her
2nd World Blitz title. She previously won the title in 2012.
i. Top 3 under Open and Women’s tournament:
• Open: Magnus Carlsen finished with 16 points scored in 21 games, while Russia’s Daniil Dubov
(15.5 points), and Russia’s Vladislav Artemiev (15 points) finished 2nd and 3rd in the Open
Blitz tournament.

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• Women: Valentina Gunina finished with 14 points out of 17 games. The former World
Champion Alexandra Kosteniuk of Switzerland finished 2nd (13.5), and China’s Zhu Jiner
finished 3rd third (12.5). The Russian players are currently playing under the neutral FIDE flag.
ii. The prize fund of the 2023 championship is 1 million US dollars, with USD 700,000 for the Open
and USD 300,000 for the Women’s tournaments.
3. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the changes made by the
International Cricket Council (ICC) in December 2023?
A) The International Cricket Council (ICC) has made changes to the stumping rule by stating
that while checking for a stumping appeal, the TV umpire (referred as 3rd Umpire) will only
assess the images from the side-on camera (to show only stumping done by the wicketkeeper).
B) The change in the stumping rules make the bowling team go for a separate Decision Review
System (DRS) referral for the caught-behind appeal (whether the ball caught by the
wicketkeeper has been hit or edged by the batsman).
C) According to new changes in the concussion (head or neck injury) Substitution rule, the
substitute player will not be allowed to bowl if the replaced(injured) player was suspended
from bowling at the time of the concussion incident.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
The International Cricket Council (ICC) has made changes to the stumping rule by stating that while
checking for a stumping appeal, the TV umpire (referred as 3rd Umpire) will only assess the images
from the side-on camera (to show only stumping done by the wicketkeeper) and will not assess the
caught-behind scenario.
• ICC also made changes to the concussion substitute rules.
i. About New Stumping Rule:
• The change in the stumping rules make the bowling team go for a separate Decision Review
System (DRS) referral for the caught-behind appeal (whether the ball caught by the
wicketkeeper has been hit or edged by the batsman).
• The new changes to the Stumping rule came into effect on 12th December 2023.
ii. About concussion Substitution rule:
• According to new changes in the concussion (head or neck injury) Substitution rule, the
substitute player will not be allowed to bowl if the replaced(injured) player was suspended
from bowling at the time of the concussion incident.
Note- Additional Info: The ICC has also imposed a four-minute time limit for on-field injury
assessment and treatment.

Weekly Q&A PDF
BOOKS AND AUTHORS
1. Which of the following personalities have recently (in Jan ‘24) authored the book titled “Ram
Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ak Sajhi Virast” that was launched by Kerala Governor Arif Muhammed
Khan?
1) L.B. Sriram & Sarah Joseph
2) Geeta Singh & Arif Khan Bharti
3) L.B. Sriram & V. V. Vinayak
4) Geeta Singh & Sarah Joseph
5) Devi Prasad & Arif Khan Bharti
Answer- 2) Geeta Singh & Arif Khan Bharti
Explanation:
Kerala Governor Arif Muhammed Khan launched a book titled “Ram Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ak
Sajhi Virast”(Meaning: Ram Mandir, Rashtra Mandir – A Common Heritage) jointly written by Geeta
Singh and Arif Khan Bharti.
i. The book launch event was held at the Rang Bhawan Auditorium of Akashwani in New Delhi, Delhi.
ii. The book explores the profound influence of Lord Ram not only in India but across the Asian
continents.
2. In January 2024, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister (CM) MK Stalin released a Tamil book titled
‘Maha Kavithai’ written by poet ____________.
1) Pa. Vijay
2) Sirpi Balasubramaniam
3) Thamarai
4) Vairamuthu
5) Tamilanban
Answer- 4) Vairamuthu
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin released a Tamil book titled ‘Maha Kavithai’(means ‘Great
Poem’) written by poet Vairamuthu at the event held in Chennai (Tamil Nadu) on 1st January 2024.
• The event was attended by Former Union Minister of Finance and Home Affairs P
Chidambaram.
• The book covers a wide range of subjects including the genesis of the universe, planet Earth,
the functions of five elements, climate change, and its impact.
• The book also delves into the immediate need for checking the ever-increasing global
temperature and the dangers being faced by humans because of the deteriorating environment.
3. Who authored the book, ‘Sanskriti ke Ayaam’, released by General V.K. Singh (Retd.), Union
Ministers of State (MoS) of Road Transport and Highways & Civil Aviation in January 2024?
1) Manorama Mishra
2) Shashi Tharoor
3) Amitav Ghosh
4) Ravi Subramanian
5) Ashwin Sanghi
Answer- 1) Manorama Mishra

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Explanation:
General V.K. Singh (Retd.), Union Ministers of State (MoS), Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(MoRTH) and Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) released the book ‘Sanskriti ke Ayaam’ authored by
Manorama Mishra.
i. The book, authored in Hindi language, is published by the National Book Trust, India functioning
under the Ministry of Education (MoE).
ii. The book speaks about Indian knowledge, tradition and culture.
4. Former Chief of Army Staff(CoAS), __________ has penned his autobiography titled “Four Stars
of Destiny: An Autobiography”, which is set to be published in January 2024.
1) General Deepak Kapoor
2) General Vijay Kumar Singh
3) General Bikram Singh
4) General Dalbir Singh Suhag
5) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
Answer- 5) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
Explanation:
General Manoj Mukund Naravane (MM Naravane), former Chief of Army Staff(CoAS) has penned
his autobiography titled “Four Stars of Destiny: An Autobiography”. The book is set to be published
in January 2024 by Penguin Veer, an imprint of Penguin Random House India.
i. The book narrates the experiences that shaped his character, from his childhood to his years in the
Services.
ii. He has also served as the Vice CoAS and General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Training and
Eastern Commands.
iii. He has received several national and international awards which includes Param Vishisht Seva
Medal (PVSM) in 2019 and the Distinguished Public Service Award 2022 conferred by the US-India
Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF).
OBITUARY
1. Former Indian footballer (defender) ____________, passed away in December 2023.

1) Gouramangi Singh
2) Bhaichung Bhutia
3) Prabir Majumdar
4) Mahesh Gawli
5) Syed Rahim Nabi
Answer- 3) Prabir Majumdar
Explanation:
Former Indian footballer (defender) Prabir Majumdar, 77, passed away in Kolkata, West Bengal
(WB). He played a significant role in the 1974 Asian Games (Tehran, Iran) as a member of the Indian
team.
i. In domestic football, he represented East Bengal and Eastern Railways and Bengal in the Santosh
Trophy.
ii. Majumdar won several titles with East Bengal, which included the Calcutta Football League, IFA
Shield, Durand Cup, Rovers Cup, DCM Trophy, Bordoloi Trophy, and many more.

Weekly Q&A PDF
2. Padma Bhushan Awardee Professor Ved Prakash Nanda, an Indian American academic and
an expert on international law, passed away in January 2024.
In which year, Prof Ved Prakash Nanda was honoured with Padma Bhushan in the field of
Literature and Education?
1) 2020
2) 2022
3) 2019
4) 2021
5) 2018
Answer- 5) 2018
Explanation:
Padma Bhushan Awardee Professor Ved Prakash Nanda, an Indian American academic and an expert
on international law, passed away in Denver, Colorado, the United States of America(USA). He was
born on 20th November 1934 in Gujranwala, Punjab, British India (now in Pakistan).
Note- Prof Ved Prakash Nanda was honoured with Padma Bhushan (literature and education) in
2018.
i. Books: World Debt and the Human Condition: Structural Adjustment and the Right to Development
(Co-editor; 1992); International Environmental Law & Policy (1995); International Environmental
Law and Policy for the 21st Century (Co-Author; 2004).
ii. Awards: He received the Gandhi-King-Ikeda Award for Community Peace Building from Soka
Gakkai International (SGI) and Morehouse College (USA) in 2004.
IMPORTANT DAYS
1. The ____________ World Braille Day observed across the globe on 4th January 2024 to
commemorate the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, a 19th-century French educator, who
invented the Braille script for the blind and visually impaired.
1) 2nd
2) 5th
3) 3rd
4) 6th
5) 4th
Answer- 4) 6th
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN) World Braille Day is annually observed across the globe on 4 January to
raise awareness about the significance of Braille as a communication medium for people who are
blind or partially sighted.
• The Day commemorates the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, a 19th-century French educator,
who invented the Braille script for the blind and visually impaired in 1824.
i. 4th January 2024 marks the observance of the 6th World Braille Day and the 215th birth
anniversary of Louis Braille.
• The 1st ever World Braille Day was observed on 4 January 2019.
ii. On this occasion of World Braille Day, the National Institutes and Composite Regional Centres
under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) of the Ministry of Social
Justice & Empowerment organised a range of engaging programs at various locations across India.

Weekly Q&A PDF
2. When was the World Day of War Orphans 2024 observed across the globe?
1) 5th January 2024
2) 4th January 2024
3) 6th January 2024
4) 3rd January 2024
5) 2nd January 2024
Answer- 3) 6th January 2024
Explanation:
World Day of War Orphans 2024 was observed across the globe on 6th January 2024 to raise
awareness about the challenges faced by children who have been left orphaned by wars and about the
trauma experienced by war orphans globally.
• The Day addresses social, psychological, and physical obstacles confronted by war orphans,
protects their rights and well-being, and emphasizes the need for global attention and support.
• A war orphan is a child or children whose parents or parents died while serving in military
duty.
• The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) defines an orphan as any child under 18 who has
lost one or both parents to any cause of death.
ENVIRONMENT
1. In which Tiger Reserve, a New Herbaceous Plant Species named “Polygonum

Chaturbhujanum” was discovered in January 2024?
1) Pakke Tiger Reserve (Arunachal Pradesh)
2) Manas Tiger Reserve (Assam)
3) Sunderban Tiger Reserve (West Bengal)
4) Satkoshia Tiger Reserve (Odisha)
5) Pench Tiger Reserve (Maharashtra)
Answer- 5) Pench Tiger Reserve (Maharashtra)
Explanation:
A New Herbaceous Plant Species named “Polygonum Chaturbhujanum '' was discovered at Gol
Pahadi Island of the Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Nagpur, Maharashtra. The new species was
discovered during the floral survey carried out in Pench with technical support of the Forest Survey of
India(FSI).
Note- This one of a kind species belongs to the genus Polygonum which includes flowering plants in
the knotweed and buckwheat family Polygonaceae.
i. The floral survey, carried out over 1 year in Pench, reported over 863 plant species belonging to 554
genera and 117 families.
• Out of this, 46 species are indigenous to India, 32 plant species are of rare distribution and 6
plant species are endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
ii. After the survey, Dr K Chandramohan and Dr D Ravivarma, who worked on the floral survey in
Pench, authored a book titled ‘Flowering Plants of Pench Tiger Reserve’. The book was edited by Dr.
Prabhu Nath Shukla and Chaturbhuja Behera.
• The book was released by Devendra Fadnavis, Deputy Chief Minister (Dy CM) of Maharashtra.

Weekly Q&A PDF
APP and WEB PORTAL
1. Name the state government that has recently (in Dec ‘23) launched a Non-Resident Indians
(NRI) website under the Department of NRI Affairs to provide support and assistance to NRIs?
1) West Bengal
2) Punjab
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Karnataka
5) Maharashtra
Answer- 2) Punjab
Explanation:
Bhagwant Singh Mann, Chief Minister(CM) of Punjab, launched Non-Resident Indians (NRI) Punjab
website(nri.punjab.gov.in), under the Department of NRI Affairs to provide support and assistance to
NRIs.
• The website was developed by the Department of Governance Reforms & Public Grievances
(DGRPG), Government of Punjab in collaboration with National Informatics Centre (NIC), under
the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
i. The website includes detailed information related to the NRI Police wing, Punjab State Commission
for NRIs, and NRI Sabha. It also provides data on registered travel and immigration agents.
ii. Other Initiative: CM also announced a series of initiatve to enhance the services for NRIs which
includes.
• Organising NRI milnis (meets) for on-the-spot redressal of problems faced by the NRIs.
• Establishment of a 24×7 ‘Facilitation Center’ at the International Terminal at Indira Gandhi
International Airport at New Delhi, Delhi to assist the NRIs arriving at the terminal.
2. Which state government has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched the software/mobile application
to provide digital access to the services provided by the local self-government bodies?
1) Kerala
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Karnataka
5) Odisha
Answer- 1) Kerala
Explanation:
On 1st January 2024, Pinarayi Vijayan, Chief Minister (CM) of Kerala, launched the K-SMART (Kerala
Solutions for Managing Administrative Reformation and Transformation) software/mobile
application, in an event held in Kochi, Kerala.
• K-SMART is a unified platform to provide digital access to the services provided by the local
self-government bodies across Kerala.
• The app was developed by the Information Kerala Mission (IKM), an autonomous body under
the Local Self-Government Department(LSGD), Government of Kerala.
i. K-SMART app will streamline the services provided by local government bodies in Kerala with its 35
different modules.
• These modules include services like registration of birth, death, and marriage, business
licences, property taxes, and others.

Weekly Q&A PDF
3. In January 2024, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) launched the
National Single Window System (NSWS) Portal to streamline, import, clinical investigations,
and testing of medical devices.
The site is designed and developed by Invest India, under the Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade(DPIIT) through _______________ (company) for CDSCO.
1) Infosys Limited
2) Tata Consultancy Service
3) Wipro Limited
4) HCL Technologies Limited
5) Tech Mahindra
Answer- 2) Tata Consultancy Service
Explanation:
On January 1, 2024, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), under the Directorate
General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare(MoHFW), launched the National
Single Window System (NSWS) Portal to streamline, import, clinical investigations, and testing of
medical devices.
i. The site is designed and developed by Invest India, under the Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade(DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry(MoCI), through Tata
Consultancy Service (TCS) for CDSCO.
• The portal will be a one-stop shop for all approvals required by the investor and facilitates ease
of doing business
• This is an independent portal distinct from the existing SUGAM portal or the cdscomdonline
portal for the medical devices industry.
• The Know Your Approvals (KYA) module of the portal includes guidance for 32 Central
Departments and 32 States.
• This hosts applications for approvals from 31 Central Departments and 22 State Governments.
4. Which state/UT’s Police has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched the Grievance Redressal Portal
‘Awaam Se, Awaam Ke Liye’?
1) Ladakh
2) Jammu & Kashmir
3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Uttarakhand
5) West Bengal
Answer- 2) Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
The Director General of Police (DGP) of Jammu & Kashmir (J&K), R R Swain, has launched the J&K
Police Grievance Redressal Portal ‘Awaam Se, Awaam Ke Liye’.
• The portal aims to address the issues faced by the citizens and police personnel in a more
structured and decentralised manner.
• The portal also improves the density and quality of resolving the issues.

Weekly Q&A PDF
5. In January 2024, Union Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah launched the ‘e-samridhi portal‘,
a platform for registration, purchase, and payment of tur dal producing farmers across India.
Which of the following companies/ regulatory bodies have developed the e-samridhi portal?
1) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited
2) National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited
3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
4) Both 1 & 2
5) All 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
On 4th January 2024, Union Minister Amit Shah, Ministry of Cooperation, launched the ‘e-samridhi
portal‘, a platform for registration, purchase, and payment of tur dal producing farmers across India.
• The portal was launched during the national symposium on ‘Self-reliance in Pulses’ held in
New Delhi, Delhi.
• The portal was developed by National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India
Ltd. (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF).
i. The portal offers a unified platform in which farmers can register directly or through Primary
Agricultural Cooperative Societies (PACS) and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs).
ii. NAFED will ensure seamless fund transfers directly into farmers’ mapped bank accounts,
eliminating intermediary agencies.
iii. The multi-lingual portal will streamline the entire process for tur dal growers in Maharashtra,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka and Jharkhand.
6. In January 2024, S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology

(MeitY) launched an integrated web portal of ____________ (academic and research
institutions/NGO) for educational institutes in India.
1) National Innovation Foundation
2) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
3) ERNET India
4) National Research Development Corporation
5) K.C. Mahindra Education Trust
Answer- 3) ERNET India
Explanation:
On January 4, 2023, S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)
and chairperson of the Executive committee of Education and Research Network (ERNET), India,
launched integrated web portal (https://ernet.in/) of ERNET India for educational institutes in
India.
• The portal was created using open-source software and advanced technologies like Artificial
Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML).
• He also inaugurated the new conference hall of ERNET India.
• The portal will offer domain registration, DNS (Domain Name System) and value-added
services viz. Website as a Service (WaaS) and Learning Management as a Service (LMaaS).
i. ERNET India, a not-for-profit autonomous scientific society under MeitY, is the exclusive registrar
for education and research institutes’ domains with ac.in, edu.in, and res.in.

Weekly Q&A PDF
• It offers web accessibility, campus Wi-Fi, smart classrooms, and connectivity via Terrestrial
and Satellite systems to educational and research institutes.
7. Which state has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched India’s first ever Report Management Portal
(RMP) and Meeting Management Portal (MMP) for efficient governance?
1) Karnataka
2) Uttarakhand
3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Bihar
Answer- 3) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister(CM) Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu launched India’s first ever Report
Management Portal (RMP) and Meeting Management Portal (MMP) for efficient governance.
• The portals were developed by the Department of Digital Technology and Governance (DDTG)
of the Himachal Pradesh government.
i. The RMP is designed to enhance the process of sending and monitoring various reports across
departments, boards, and corporations more efficiently.
• It enables real-time data access for informed decision-making, as well as one-click SMS and
email capabilities, as well as automatic reminders and notifications to concerned officers.
ii. The MMP collects clean, authentic data in a standardised format with the goal of increasing
transparency, accountability, and efficiency in government affairs.
• MMP serves as a comprehensive solution for issuing meeting notices and proceedings,
fostering communication from the Secretariat to the field offices.
CURRENT STATIC BANKING
1. Who has assumed charge as the managing director (MD) and & Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
of the Kotak Mahindra Bank on 1st January 2024?
1) Uday Shankar
2) Dipak Gupta
3) Ashok Vaswani
4) Prakash Apte
5) C. Jayaram
Answer- 3) Ashok Vaswani
Explanation:
Kotak Mahindra Bank announced veteran banker Ashok Vaswani has assumed charge as the
managing director (MD) and CEO of the bank with effect from January 1, 2024.
• He replaced Dipak Gupta, who was the interim MD and CEO, following founder director Uday
Kotak stepping down as the head of the bank, effective September 1, 2023.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in October 2023 approved the appointment of Vaswani as the
bank's MD and CEO for a period of three years.

Weekly Q&A PDF
2. In December 2023, Canara Bank gave in-principle approval to initiate the process of listing
its mutual fund subsidiary Canara Robeco Asset Management Company through an initial
public offering of shares.
Canara Robeco AMC will be the ________listed asset management company in India.
1) 7th
2) 5th
3) 3rd
4) 4th
5) 6th
Answer- 2) 5th
Explanation:
Canara Bank has given in-principle approval to initiate the process of listing its mutual fund
subsidiary Canara Robeco Asset Management Company through an initial public offering of shares.
• If Canara Robeco AMC gets listed, it will be the fifth listed asset management company in
India.
• Currently, Aditya Birla Sun Life AMC, HDFC Asset Management, Nippon Life India Asset
Management, and UTI Asset Management are the four listed mutual funds in India.
• As of November 2023, Canara Robeco had Rs 80,301 crore worth of assets under management.
• Incorporated in 1993, Canara Robeco MF was earlier known as Canbank Mutual Fund. In 2007,
Canara Bank partnered with Robeco group through a joint venture and the mutual fund was
renamed as Canara Robeco Mutual Fund.
• As of November 2023, Canara Robeco had Rs 80,301 crore worth of assets under management.
The shares of Canara Bank ended 1.7% up on the National Stock Exchange at Rs 432.50.
3. What is the Tagline of Indian Overseas Bank (IOB)?

1) We understand your world
2) The Banker To Every Indian
3) Your Perfect Banking Partner
4) Your Own Bank
5) Good People to Grow With
Answer- 5) Good People to Grow With
Explanation:
About Indian Overseas Bank (IOB):
Establishment – 1937
Headquarters – Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Tagline – Good People to Grow With
4. What is the Tagline of the Bank of India?

1) Always You First
2) Relationship Beyond Banking
3) We value you
4) We Understand Your World
5) Support All the Way
Answer- 2) Relationship Beyond Banking

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
About Bank of India:
Managing Director(MD) and Chief Executive Officer(CEO) – Rajneesh Karnatak
Headquarters – Mumbai, Maharashtra
Established in – 1906
Tagline – Relationship Beyond Banking
5. As of January 2024, the Transaction Limit of Near Field Communication (NFC) is up to Rs

_________per transaction.
1) 5000
2) 2000
3) 10,000
4) 25,000
5) 50,000
Answer- 1) 5000
Explanation:
The Transaction Limit of Near Field Communication (NFC) is up to Rs 5000/- per transaction.
• NFC is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-
less tickets for public transport.
i. NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to
communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch -
whether to pay bills, exchange business cards, download coupons, or share a document.
• NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between
two devices. Both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very
short distance.
• NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimetres from each
other for data transfer to occur.
Note- Nokia released the first NFC-enabled phone in 2007.
6. Bima Vahaks will be deployed in each gram panchayat before 31st December ________(year).
1) 2024
2) 2025
3) 2026
4) 2027
5) 2028
Answer- 1) 2024
Explanation:
Bima Vistaar is a part of Insurance Trinity which also includes Bima Sugam, a one-stop digital
platform; and Bima Vahak, a women-led field distribution force.
• These efforts are integral to IRDAI’s vision for universal insurance by 2047 by addressing gaps
in product design, pricing, distribution, and more.
• Bima Vistaar’s design is almost done, and the Life and General Insurance Councils are hunting
for the technology platform for its launch.
• Its launch will introduce Bima Vahak, and their implementation will take effect simultaneously.
• Bima Vahaks shall be deployed in each gram panchayat before 31st December 2024.

Weekly Q&A PDF
Note- The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is all set to launch the
first of its kind affordable insurance product covering risks against life, health, and property namely
‘Bima Vistaar’ in the first quarter of 2024-2025 i.e. Q1FY25.
7. As of January 2024, the Transaction limit of UPI ATM withdrawal is up to Rs. _________per
transaction.
1) 1,00,000
2) 10,000
3) 20,000
4) 50,000
5) 30,000
Answer- 2) 10,000
Explanation:
UPI-ATM is an Interoperable Cardless Cash Withdrawal (ICCW) service that facilitates participating
bank’s customers who live on UPI, to withdraw cash from any participating banks’ ATMs (enabled for
UPI-ATM) without using their card.
• Transaction limit is up to Rs. 10,000/- per transaction. It shall be part of the existing Unified
Payments Interface (UPI) per day limit and as per the limits set by Issuer Bank for UPI-ATM
transactions.
8. When was the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) established?
1) 2000
2) 2003
3) 2008
4) 2011
5) 2015
Answer-2) 2003
Explanation:
The Government of India established Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA) on 10th October, 2003 to develop and regulate the pension sector in the country.
• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority is the regulatory body under the
jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India for overall supervision and
regulation of pension in India.
• PFRDA regulates NPS, subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments and by
employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors. The PFRDA is ensuring
the orderly growth and development of the pension market.
9. The Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) are regulated in India by ____________ (organisation).
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Bombay Stock Exchange
3) National Stock Exchange
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
5) Competition Commission of India
Answer-4) Securities and Exchange Board of India

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) are regulated in India by Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI).
• Credit Rating Agencies in India are the agencies that evaluate and assess an individual’s or a
company’s creditworthiness.
• As of January 2024, 7 CRAs are registered with SEBI.
• CRISIL Limited
• India Ratings and Research Pvt. Ltd
• ICRA Limited
• Credit Analysis & Research Ltd. (CARE)
• Brickwork Ratings India Pvt. Ltd.
• SMERA Ratings Limited
• Infomerics Valuation and Rating Pvt. Ltd.
10. What is the maximum number of digits that a Unified Payments Interface (UPI)- Personal
Identification Number (PIN) can have?
1) 9
2) 6
3) 8
4) 7
5) 4
Answer- 2) 6
Explanation:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI)- Personal Identification Number (PIN) is a 4–6-digit pass code you
create/set during first time registration with UPI App.
i. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ended 2023 at a high, recording over 1,200 crore transactions
worth more than Rs. 18-lakh crore in December 2023, a peak for both the transaction count and
value.
• Over 11,765 UPI transactions worth Rs. 182.2-lakh crore were processed in 2023, up 59 per
cent in terms of volume and 45 per cent in terms of value compared with 2022, as per data by
the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• Transactions worth Rs. 18.23-lakh crore were processed during December, significantly higher
than the previous high of Rs. 17.40-lakh crore in November. In percentage terms, the value of
transactions was 4.8 per cent higher on the month and 42 per cent on year.
• The number of transactions on the UPI network breached the 1,200 crore mark to 1,202 crore
transactions, higher by 6.9 per cent on month and 54 percent on year.
11. Which bank has recently (in Jan ‘24) sold almost Rs. 800 crore of its credit card portfolio at
a steep discount to another private sector lender, Kotak Mahindra Bank?
1) RBL Bank
2) YES Bank
3) IndusInd Bank
4) Axis Bank
5) ICICI Bank
Answer- 1) RBL Bank

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
RBL Bank sold almost Rs. 800 crore of its credit card portfolio at a steep discount to another private
sector lender, Kotak Mahindra Bank.
• Of the RBL Bank's Rs. 2,441-crore gross NPA, credit card dues total Rs. 462 crore, as of
September 30, 2023, according to the quarterly investor presentation.
• Kotak Mahindra Bank acquired the credit card portfolio for Rs. 20 crore in an all-cash deal,
which equates to a recovery of 2.5% for RBL Bank.
• RBL Bank shares are up 51 per cent in the last one year. The stock gained 16 per cent in the last
one month. The credit card repayment delays, as per the report, accounted for one-fifth of RBL
Bank's total gross NPAs.
12. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) signed an MoU with Ayodhya Nagar Nigam to
enable mobile payments in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh?
1) PhonePe
2) MobiKwik
3) Razorpay
4) Paytm
5) Freecharge
Answer- 4) Paytm
Explanation:
One97 Communications Ltd (OCL), which owns the brand Paytm, has signed an MoU with Ayodhya
Nagar Nigam to enable mobile payments in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh using the Paytm-pioneered QR
code, Soundbox, and card machines.
• This is aimed at providing seamless mobile payment services during the much-anticipated
inauguration of Ram Mandir in the city on January 22. With this, the company will enable
mobile payments at various departments in collaboration with Ayodhya Nagar Nigam.
• Through this MoU, the company will also deploy Paytm card machines at cash collection
centres under State Nagar Nigam departments.
• Paytm, which is a pioneer of the mobile QR payments revolution in India, continues to
strengthen its leadership in in-store payments, with more than 92 Lakh Paytm pioneered
devices such as Soundbox, Card Machines, etc in the quarter ended September 2023.
13. What is the Tagline of YES Bank?

1) Good People to Grow With
2) The Banker to Every Indian
3) We Make You Feel Richer
4) Experience Our Expertise
5) Together we can
Answer- 4) Experience Our Expertise
Explanation:
About YES Bank Limited(Ltd):
Managing Director(MD) & Chief executive Officers (CEO) – Prashant Kumar
Headquarters – Mumbai, Maharashtra
Tagline –Experience Our Expertise

Weekly Q&A PDF
14. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Finance
Corporation (PFC)?
1) Usha Sajeev Nair
2) Ajay Tewari
3) Rajiv Ranjan Jha
4) Parminder Chopra
5) Manoj Sharma
Answer- 4) Parminder Chopra
Explanation:
About Power Finance Corporation (PFC):
Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) in the power sector.
Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) – Parminder Chopra
Headquarters – New Delhi, Delhi
15. In which of the following places, Rs 2,000 notes can be exchanged, as per the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) direction issued in January 2024?
1) Post offices
2) Banks
3) Tehsil Office
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has said that Rs 2,000 notes can be exchanged through post offices
as well. There are reports of people queuing up at the RBI offices to return the Rs 2,000 notes.
• In a set of Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) on its website, the RBI said people can send the
notes to any of its 19 issue offices from any post office. People need to fill up an application
form which is available online and send the notes to a RBI issue office from any facility of India
Post .
i. In May 2023, the apex bank announced its decision to withdraw the Rs 2,000 notes, which was first
introduced after the demonetisation exercise in 2016. The decision to withdraw the Rs 2,000 notes
was taken as most of these notes had exceeded their expected lifespan and were also not being used
by the public for transactions.
ii. At present, over 97.38 per cent of the Rs 2,000 notes in circulation as in May 2023 have been
returned. After allowing for exchange or deposit across bank counters, the RBI has made available
multiple other channels where the notes can be exchanged or deposited.
16. As of December 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has achieved its target of _____ million
daily transactions for its digital rupee by the end of 2023.
1) 3
2) 2
3) 1
4) 5
5) 4

Weekly Q&A PDF
Answer- 3) 1
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has achieved its target of 1 million daily transactions for its digital
rupee by the end of 2023, driven by the distribution of employee benefits through digital rupee in
December.
• The central bank digital currency (CBDC), called the e-rupee, has been devised as a digital
alternative to physical cash and has been built using distributed-ledger technology.
• While CBDC or the e-rupee project is currently in the pilot stage, RBI had set a target of
reaching a million transactions a day for 2023, which has now been scaled.
• SBI, Canara Bank, IDFC India First, HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank are
among the banks, which have seen a high number of CBDC transactions. When the pilot was
launched in December 2022, RBI had tied up with SBI and IDFC First Bank for the project with
a limited set of clients.
CA STATIC GK
1. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) President of the International Chess Federation
(Fédération Internationale des Échecs (FIDE))?
1) Akaki Iashvili
2) Victor Bologan
3) Konstantin Kiselev
4) Emil Sutovsky
5) Arkady Dvorkovich
Answer- 5) Arkady Dvorkovich
Explanation:
About Federation International des Echecs or International Chess Federation(FIDE):
President – Arkady Dvorkovich
Deputy President – Vishwanathan Anand
Headquarters – Lausanne, Switzerland
Established – 1924
2. In which state Takhni-Rehmapur Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

1) West Bengal
2) Punjab
3) Jharkhand
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Odisha
Answer- 2) Punjab
Explanation:
About Punjab:
Chief Minister – Bhagwant Singh Mann
Governor – Banwarilal Purohit
Wildlife Sanctuary – Takhni-Rehmapur Wildlife Sanctuary, Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary
Zoological Park – Mahendra Chaudhary Zoological Park, Tiger safari zoo

Weekly Q&A PDF
3. In which state/UT Hemis National Park is located?

1) Uttarakhand
2) Assam
3) Ladakh
4) Sikkim
Answer- 3) Ladakh
Explanation:
About Ladakh:
Lieutenant Governor – B.D. Mishra
National Park – Hemis National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary – Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary
4. In December 2023, Ujjain Smart City developed an application 'Ujjain Parksmart' for vehicle
packing facilities for devotees visiting Mahakaleshwar temple in Ujjain, ________(state).
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Maharashtra
5) Gujarat
Answer- 1) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
Ujjain Smart City has developed an application 'Ujjain Parksmart' for vehicle packing facilities for
devotees visiting Mahakaleshwar temple located in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. Ashish Pathak is current
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Ujjain Smart City.
• The application has been launched given the increasing number of devotees here and it is
available on the Google Play Store. Four parking lots situated around the temple have been
linked with the app in which the devotees can book parking spaces for their vehicles.
• The devotees can easily book slots in advance to park their vehicles before their arrival.
5. Which state government has recently (in Dec ‘23) inaugurated the Kalaignar Centenary Bus
Terminus at Kilambakkam?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Kerala
4) Karnataka
5) Telangana
Answer- 1) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin inaugurated the Kalaignar Centenary Bus Terminus named after
former Chief Minister M Karunanidhi at Kilambakkam in Chennai.
• The bus terminus was inaugurated as part of the centenary birthday celebration of the former
Chief Minister who was also the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) chief.

Weekly Q&A PDF
• Born on June 3, 1924, Karunanidhi entered the Tamil Nadu assembly in 1957 and became the
chief minister in 1969 after then-chief minister and DMK leader CN Annadurai's death. He
passed away in 2018.
6. In which state Neora Valley National Park is located?

1) Maharashtra
2) Odisha
3) Jharkhand
4) West Bengal
5) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
Neora Valley National Park is located in the Kalimpong district of West Bengal. It is one of the
richest biological zones in the entire Northeast.
• The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which
have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park.
The highest point of the park is Rachela Pass.
• Recently, the fresh image of a Royal Bengal Tiger, taken via trap cameras at the Neora Valley
National Park in the hills of West Bengal, has confirmed the presence of the big cats at an
altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.
7. India is not a member of _______________.

1) World Trade Organization (WTO)
2) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank(AIIB)
3) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes(ICSID)
4) New Development Bank(NDB)
5) International Finance Corporation(IFC)
Answer- 3) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes(ICSID)
Explanation:
India is a member of four of the five constituents of the World Bank Group viz., International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International Development Association (IDA), International
Finance Corporation (IFC)and Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA).
• India is not a member of the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
because of little exposure to investment disputes.
• ICSID is the world’s leading institution devoted to international investment dispute settlement.
States have agreed on ICSID as a forum for Investor-State dispute settlement in most
international investment treaties and in numerous investment laws and contracts.
8. The Reserve Bank of India was established on the recommendation of __________ committee.
1) Dhar Committee
2) Hilton-Young Commission
3) Percy Mistry Committee
4) Raghuram Rajan Committee
5) Narasimham Committee
Answer: 2) Hilton-Young Commission

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Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established based on the recommendations of the Hilton-Young
Commission, also known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance.
9. As of January 2024, How many member countries are in the Asian Development Bank (ADB)?
1) 35
2) 68
3) 58
4) 49
5) 50
Answer- 2) 68
Explanation:
About Asian Development Bank (ADB):
President – Masatsugu Asakawa
Headquarters – Manila, Philippines
Members – 68 member countries
10. In which state Kamlang Tiger Reserve is located?

2) Assam
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Sikkim
5) Uttar Pradesh
Answer- 1) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Kamlang Tiger Reserve is a wildlife sanctuary located in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It
was established in 1989 and covers an area of approximately 783 square kilometers.
i. The reserve is home to a variety of flora and fauna, including tigers, elephants, clouded leopards, and
several species of birds.
11. In which state ‘Karnala Bird Sanctuary’ is located?

1) Kerala
2) Karnataka
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Telangana
5) Maharashtra
Answer- 5) Maharashtra
Explanation:
Karnala Bird Sanctuary is located in the Raigad District of Maharashtra.
i. It is a habitat of woodland birds in the Western Ghats & was one of the favoured areas of well-known
ornithologist Dr Salim Ali.
ii. It also forms a catchment area of the Patalganga River.

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12. The Unique Identification Authority of India is a statutory authority under which ministry?
1) Ministry of Science and Technology
2) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
3) Ministry of Rural Development
4) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
5) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer- 2) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation:
Aadhaar is a Unique Identification number (UID) issued by the Unique Identification Authority of
India (UIDAI), which is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act
2016”).
i. UIDAI was established on 12 July 2016 by the Government of India, under the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
13. In December 2023, the European Union imposed a prohibition on the direct or indirect
import, purchase or transfer of ___________ from Russia.
1) Electronic Equipment
2) Pharmaceutical products
3) Organic chemicals
4) Diamonds
5) Silvers
Answer- 4) Diamonds
Explanation:
In December 2023, the European Union (EU) adopted a twelfth package of economic and individual
restrictive measures in view of the continued Russian war of aggression against Ukraine.
i. The EU is imposing a prohibition on the direct or indirect import, purchase or transfer of diamonds
from Russia.
• This prohibition applies to diamonds originating in Russia, diamonds exported from Russia,
diamonds transiting Russia and Russian diamonds when processed in third countries. A direct
ban applies to non-industrial natural and synthetic diamonds as well as diamond jewellery, as
of 1 January 2024.
• Furthermore, an indirect import ban of Russian diamonds when processed (i.e. cut and/or
polished) in third countries, including jewellery incorporating diamonds originating in Russia,
will be phased in progressively as of 1 March 2024 and be completed by 1 September 2024.
• This phasing-in of indirect import bans is justified by the need to deploy a traceability
mechanism that enables effective enforcement measures and minimises disruptions for the EU
market.
• The ban of Russian diamonds is part of a G7 effort to develop an internationally coordinated
diamond ban that aims at depriving Russia of this important revenue source.
14. Who is the present (as of Jan ‘24) Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of National Skill
Development Corporation(NSDC)?
1) Mohit Mathur
2) Ajay Kumar Raina

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3) Ved Mani Tiwari

4) Maneesh Mishra
5) Sanjeev Singh
Answer- 3) Ved Mani Tiwari
Explanation:
About National Skill Development Corporation(NSDC):
i. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public limited company
incorporated under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (corresponding to section 8 of the
Companies Act, 2013).
ii. NSDC was set up by the Ministry of Finance(MoF) as a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – Ved Mani Tiwari
Headquarters – New Delhi, Delhi
15. Which of the following is Not a Central Public Sector Undertakings under the Ministry of
Defence?
1) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
2) Bharat Electronics Limited
3) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
4) Cochin Shipyard Limited
5) Yantra India Limited
Answer- 4) Cochin Shipyard Limited
Explanation:
As of January 2024, There are sixteen Central Public Sector Undertakings under the administrative
control of the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.
• Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
• Bharat Electronics Limited
• Bharat Dynamics Limited
• BEML Limited
• Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
• Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
• Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited
• Goa Shipyard Limited
• Hindustan Shipyard Limited
• Advanced Weapons & Equipment India Limited
• Gliders India Limited
• Troop Comforts Limited
• Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited
• Munitions India Limited
• Yantra India Limited
• India Optel Limited

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16. Which Life Insurance bank is the official partner for the Board of Control for Cricket in
India (BCCI) Domestic and International Season 2023-26?
1) HDFC Life Insurance Limited
2) Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Limited
3) TATA AIA Life Insurance Limited
4) SBI Life Insurance Limited
5) Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance Limited
Answer- 4) SBI Life Insurance Limited
Explanation:
Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) announced SBI Life Insurance Limited as the official
partner for the BCCI Domestic and International Season 2023-26 on September 20, 2023.
• This is a three-year deal, and the partnership will begin with the upcoming three-match ODI
series against Australia, starting September 22, 2023.
17. Which country will host the 30th Conference of the Parties of the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) (COP 30)?
1) Italy
2) Azerbaijan
4) Egypt
5) Brazil
Answer- 5) Brazil
Explanation:
The 28th Conference of the Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC)(COP 28) was held in Expo City, Dubai, The United Arab Emirates(UAE) from 30th
November to 12th December 2023.
• Azerbaijan will host COP29 from November 11 to 22, 2024 and Brazil will host COP30 from
November 10 to 21, 2025.
18. In December 2023, The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), _________ (city) developed a
new high-yielding variety of black pepper named IISR Chandra.
1) Hisar, Haryana
2) Kozhikode, Kerala
3) Raipur, Chhattisgarh
4) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
5) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
Answer- 2) Kozhikode, Kerala
Explanation:
The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), Kozhikode (Kerala), has successfully developed a
new high-yielding variety of black pepper.
• The variety named ‘IISR Chandra’ is the result of an extensive research and development
process at the Institute which has also completed the whole genome sequencing of the variety.
• Two pepper varieties- Cholamundi and Thommankodi - were crossed to produce a hybrid
variety which was back-crossed with Thommankodiensuring the retention of all the desired
parental traits

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• ‘IISR Chandra’ boasts distinctive traits that set it apart from existing varieties. With its long
spike, compact setting and bold berries, this variety has the potential to yield an impressive 7.5
kg of pepper per vine.
19. Who among the following is ‘Not’ appointed by the President of India?
1) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
2) Chief Justice of India
3) Solicitor General of India
4) Comptroller Auditor General
5) Attorney General of India
Answer- 3) Solicitor General of India
Explanation:
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head
of the executive, legislature, and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian
Armed Forces.
The Following Post can be appointed by the President of India:
• Prime Minister
• Finance Commissioner
• Election Commissioner
• The Governor of a State
• Comptroller Auditor General
• Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court
• Attorney General of India
• Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission
• He is also speaker, deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, and chairman/deputy chairman of Rajya
Sabha.
• As per Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers to be headed
by the Prime Minister for the purpose of advising the President. Such Ministers are appointed
by the President as advised by the Prime Minister.
20. Name the personality who has recently (in Jan ‘24) launched a new startup ‘OppDoor’ to
provide end-to-end solutions to e-commerce firms.
1) Deepinder Goyal
2) Kunal Shah
3) Sachin Bansal
4) Abhay Soi
5) Binny Bansal
Answer- 5) Binny Bansal
Explanation:
Flipkart co-founder Binny Bansal has launched his new startup OppDoor to provide end-to-end
solutions to e-commerce firms. Bansal had parted ways with Flipkart following its acquisition by
Walmart in 2018. It is the first time he has come up with his venture after leaving Flipkart.
• Bansal's startup, named OppDoor, will provide services to e-commerce firms related to design,
product, human resource, and other backend support, according to media reports. These

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services will be provided to enterprises willing to expand their businesses to other regions by
leveraging network platforms like Amazon and others.
• The startup is registered in Singapore and was established in May 2021. The company is
operating as a venture capital firm and was earlier known as 'Three State Ventures Pte Ltd.’
The company is receiving investment from different startups across India (like Curefood, and
Scapia).
21. In January 2024, Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) announced that the year 2024 will be christened as 'Year of
Human Resource Development and Discipline'.
Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) CMD of the IREDA?
1) Ram Nihal Nishad
2) Ajay Yadav
3) Pradip Kumar Das
4) Padam Lal Negi
5) Bijay Kumar Mohanty
Answer- 3) Pradip Kumar Das
Explanation:
On the occasion of New Year 2024, Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) Pradip Kumar Das has announced that the year 2024 will be
christened as 'Year of Human Resource Development and Discipline' to mark IREDA's future
roadmap into new strategic sectors and geographies.
22. In which state, Kanha Tiger Reserve is located?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) West Bengal
4) Jharkhand
5) Andhra Pradesh
Answer- 2) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
The first ever art exhibition of its kind, named the ‘Silent Conversation: From Margins to the
Centre’ organized by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change(MoEF&CC) and Sankala Foundation in New Delhi from 3rd – 5th
November 2023 concluded successfully.
i. The exhibition was inaugurated by the Hon'ble President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu on 3rd
November, 2023. The President was presented with a memento made by an artist belonging to the
Mahar community of Kanha Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
Note- The Chanakya Defence Dialogue 2023, a two-day groundbreaking event steered by the Indian
Army in collaboration with the Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS), concluded on Saturday with
takeaways on security challenges in South Asia and the Indo-Pacific.
• The event organised in Manekshaw Centre on November 3 and 4, over six different sessions,
was centred around the theme, 'Serving India and the Indo-Pacific Region: Collaborating for
Comprehensive Security'.

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• Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar graced the occasion and delivered a keynote address on
November 3, 2023.
23. Who has been recently (in Dec ‘23) appointed as the joint director of the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)?
1) Rajesh Singh
2) V Chandrasekhar
3) Surender Kumar Rohilla
4) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
5) Charu WaliKhanna
Answer- 2) V Chandrasekhar
Explanation:
Clearing the proposal of the department of personnel and training, the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet (ACC) cleared the appointment of Gujarat-cadre IPS officer V Chandrasekhar as joint
director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
• According to an order issued by ACC in this regard, Chandrasekhar, a 2000-batch IPS officer
will remain at the helm of CBI for a period of five years. The appointment marks the second
tenure for Chandrasekhar who has earlier served as superintendent of police and deputy
inspector general in CBI.
24. What is the Tagline of Bank of Baroda (BoB)?

1) Let’s Make Money Simple
2) India’s International Bank
3) Together We Can
4) Support All the Way
5) Always You First
Answer- 2) India’s International Bank
Explanation:
About Bank of Baroda (BoB):
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer(CEO) – Debadatta Chand
Headquarters – Vadodara, Gujarat (Corporate centre is in Mumbai, Maharashtra)
Tagline – India’s International Bank
25. Who is the present (as of Jan ‘24) Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of the REC Limited?
1) Atish Mathur
2) Jayanth Kumar
3) Praveen Sharma
4) Ajay Kumar
5) Vivek Kumar Dewangan
Answer- 5) Vivek Kumar Dewangan

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Explanation:
About REC Limited:
Chairman & Managing Director (CMD)– Vivek Kumar Dewangan
Headquarters– Gurugram, Haryana
Established in– 1969
26. As of January 2024, Vietnamese electric vehicle maker, VinFast is set to open its first Indian
manufacturing facility in _______________, Tamil Nadu.
1) Salem
2) Chennai
3) Thoothukudi
4) Coimbatore
5) Cuddalore
Answer- 3) Thoothukudi
Explanation:
Vietnamese electric vehicle maker VinFast is set to open its first Indian manufacturing facility in
Tamil Nadu (TN), where it will manufacture batteries for electric vehicles (EVs). The plant will be
located in Thoothukudi, TN.
i. The company is planning to invest hundreds of millions of US dollars for the facility in a 400-acre
space, for the first time in India.
• Established in 2017, the company owns a state-of-the-art automotive manufacturing complex
that boasts up to 90% automation in Hai Phong of Vietnam.
27. Name the Indian personality who has recently (in Jan ‘24) won the girls’ under-19 title at
the 2023 Scottish Junior Open squash held in Edinburgh.
1) Anahat Singh
2) Dipika Pallikal
3) Joshna Chinappa
4) Tanvi Khanna
5) Akanksha Salunkhe
Answer- 1) Anahat Singh
Explanation:
Talented Indian teenager Anahat Singh produced a dominant performance, bagging the girls’ under-
19 title at the 2023 Scottish Junior Open squash held in Edinburgh, Scotland.
• Anahat claimed a 11-6, 11-1, 11-5 victory over home favourite Robyn McAlpine in the final. It
capped off a spectacular year for Delhi's Anahat, who recorded the under-19 and senior
National championship double and won the mixed doubles bronze along with Abhay Singh
both at the Asian Games and in the inaugural Asian Mixed Doubles Championships.
28. In December 2023, Beatrice Chebet from __________ (country) broke the women's world 5km
record at the Cursa dels Nassos road race in Barcelona.
1) Peru
2) Ethiopia
3) Brazil
4) Kenya

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5) Argentina
Answer- 4) Kenya
Explanation:
Kenya's Beatrice Chebet smashed the women's world 5km record at the Cursa dels Nassos road
race in Barcelona on 31st December 2023.
• The 23-year-old Beatrice Chebet time of 14 min 13sec improved on the previous women-only
world record of 14:29 set by Ethiopia's Senbere Teferi in September 2021.
29. In January 2024, a 7.5-magnitude earthquake hit Ishikawa prefecture in

_____________(country).
1) China
2) Japan
3) Indonesia
4) Sri Lanka
5) Bangladesh
Answer- 2) Japan
Explanation:
On January 1, 2024, a 7.5-magnitude earthquake hit Ishikawa prefecture in Japan, triggering
tsunami waves over a meter high.
• Tsunami is a Japanese term meaning “harbour wave,” is a series of large ocean waves
caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions.
• The sudden displacement of a substantial water volume leads to the formation of tsunami
waves.
• Earthquakes can displace large sections of the seabed, sending shockwaves through the water
and creating towering waves.
• Similarly, underwater volcanic eruptions can displace water with explosive force, triggering
tsunamis.
• The formation of tsunamis depends on various factors, including the shape of the ocean floor,
the distance, and direction of the earthquake or volcanic eruption.
i. Japan is situated along the ‘Pacific Ring of Fire,’ the most active earthquake tectonic belt globally,
featuring the Pacific, Eurasian, and Indo-Australian Plates.
• The continuous meshing and colliding of these plates result in frequent earthquakes, volcanic
eruptions, and tsunamis.
• The ‘ring’ refers to “an imaginary horseshoe-shaped zone that follows the rim of the Pacific
Ocean, where many of the world’s earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur”.
30. In which state Zagor, a dance-drama folk festival was celebrated in January 2024?
1) Goa
2) Jharkhand
3) Assam
4) Mizoram
5) Sikkim
Answer- 1) Goa

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Explanation:
Zagor, a dance-drama folk festival was celebrated in Goa, where devotees invoke God throughout
the night on 1st January 2024.
• It brings Hindus and Christians together, with the purohit, belonging to the Shirodkar family,
singing ovios or religious couplets in praise of Christian deities.
i. Zagor is a folk dance inherited from the Modern Marathi Theatre in Goa.
• It consists of two forms one of which belongs to the pernni community, while the other belongs
to the christian Gawdas.
• Pernni Zagor concentrates on philosophical topics based on the origin of the universe.
• On the other hand the christian Gawdas has been taken from contemporary village life.
31. In which year Professor Muhammad Yunus won the Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions
to poverty alleviation and the empowerment of women in need?
1) 2000
2) 2005
3) 2001
4) 2006
5) 2002
Answer- 4) 2006
Explanation:
Nobel Peace laureate Muhammad Yunus was convicted for violating Bangladesh's labour laws.
i. Professor Yunus and three of his Grameen Telecom colleagues were convicted under labour laws
and sentenced to six months in simple imprisonment
• Recipient of the 2006 Nobel Peace Prize, Professor Muhammad Yunus is internationally
recognised for his contributions to poverty alleviation and the empowerment of women in
need. Professor Yunus has innovatively combined capitalism with social responsibility through
the establishment of the Grameen Bank.
• This microcredit institution is dedicated to providing modest amounts of working capital to
empower the poor for self-employment. Originating as an action-research project in 1976, the
Grameen Bank has since expanded, offering collateral-free loans to 7.5 million clients across
more than 82,072 villages in Bangladesh, with an impressive 97% being women.
32. In which state ‘Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Gujarat
5) Rajasthan
Answer- 5) Rajasthan
Explanation:
About Rajasthan:
Chief Minister (CM) – Bhajan Lal Sharma
Governor – Kalraj Mishra
Wildlife Sanctuaries – Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary; Kaila Devi Sanctuary
Tiger Reserves – Ranthambore Tiger Reserve; Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve

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33. In which state Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

1) West Bengal
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Bihar
4) Jharkhand
5) Odisha
Answer- 3) Bihar
Explanation:
About Bihar:
Chief Minister– Nitish Kumar
Wildlife Sanctuaries– Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary, Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary
Zoological Parks– Sanjay Gandhi Biological Park
34. In which state Kalesar National Park is located?

1) Gujarat
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Rajasthan
4) Haryana
5) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- 4) Haryana
Explanation:
About Haryana:
Governor – Bandaru Dattatreya
Zoological Park – Mini Zoo and Rohtak Zoo
National Park- Sultanpur National Park, Kalesar National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary – Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary, Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary
35. Who is the present (as of Jan ‘24) Central Provident Fund Commissioner (CPFC) of
Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)?
1) Chanramauli Chakraborty
2) Shobhit Shrivastava
3) Neelam Shami Rao
4) Rakesh Dabas
5) Meenu Mandola
Answer- 3) Neelam Shami Rao
Explanation:
About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
EPFO works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment(MoLE).
Chief Executive Officer– Neelam Shami Rao
Headquarters– New Delhi, Delhi
Establishment– 1952

Weekly Q&A PDF
36. In which state, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO) World Heritage Site ‘Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park’ is located?
1) Bihar
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Maharashtra
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Gujarat
Answer- 5) Gujarat
Explanation:
About Gujarat:
Chief Minister – Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel
Governor – Acharya Devvrat
Airports – Shyamji Krishna Verma Bhuj Airport, Porbandar Airport
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage Site
– Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park, Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell)
37. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) set up a second version of Gold ATM to dispense
gold, silver coins at Ameerpet Metro Station, Hyderabad (Telangana)?
1) Manappuram Finance Ltd
2) Goldsikka Ltd
3) Attica Gold Ltd
4) Hindustan Gold Ltd
5) Malabar Gold Ltd
Answer- 2) Goldsikka Ltd
Explanation:
Goldsikka Ltd has set up the second version of its Gold ATM which can dispense both gold and
silver coins at Ameerpet Metro Station in Hyderabad (Telangana).
• The CEO of Goldsikka Ltd, Sy Taruj, stated that Goldsikka customers can now buy gold coins
ranging from 0.5 grams to 20 grams and silver coins ranging from 10 grams to 100 grams.
• The ATM also captures live rates from the London Bullion Market Association, (LBMA)
ensuring customers have access to the most up-to-date prices.
• Hyderabad-based Goldsikka has plans to install 2000 to 3000 such machines across the
country and overseas. They have already received orders from countries like Russia,
Turkmenia, USA, and other parts of the globe.
• The first version of the Gold ATM, launched in Hyderabad, can only dispense gold coins.
• The company has also signed its first franchise agreement with SS Beauty World in
Visakhapatnam, for the latest version of the ATM which will be opened soon.
38. The veteran lyricist Santosh Anand and singer Sonu Nigam won the Mohammed Rafi
Lifetime Achievement Award 2023 and Mohammed Rafi Award 2023 respectively in December
2023.
In which year Sonu Nigam was honoured by the Government of India with the Padma Shri in
the field of Art?
1) 2018
2) 2016

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3) 2019
4) 2022
5) 2021
Answer- 4) 2022
Explanation:
Union Minister Piyush Goyal Sunday proposed that musical concerts be held on the 24th of every
month next year (2024) to mark the centenary year of singer Mohammed Rafi.
• Every year, Spandan Arts celebrates Mohammed Rafi’s birth anniversary by conferring the
Mohammed Rafi Lifetime Achievement Award and the Mohammed Rafi Award to eminent
personalities from the music industry.
• The Mohammed Rafi Lifetime Achievement Award 2023 was conferred on veteran lyricist
Santosh Anand. The Mohammed Rafi Award 2023 was given to Sonu Nigam.
i. Sonu Nigam is an Indian playback singer, music director, dubbing artist and actor
• In 2022, he was honoured by the Government of India with the Padma Shri, the country's
fourth-highest civilian honour for his contribution in the field of arts.
• Sonu Nigam won the Best Male Playback Singer Award for the year 2004 at the 51st National
Film Award function in New Delhi in February 2005.
39. As of January 2024, the World's Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector has
been running in 24 states/ UTs of India to bolster the grain storage capacities.
Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Union Minister of Cooperation?
1) Nirmala Sitharaman
2) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
3) Raj Nath Singh
4) Piyush Goyal
5) Amit Shah
Answer- 5) Amit Shah
Explanation:
Amit Shah is the current Minister of Cooperation and Home Affairs
i. The World's Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector has been running in 24 states/
UTs of India to bolster the grain storage capacities.
• The marquee project aims to create various agri infrastructures at the Primary Agricultural
Credit Societies (PACS) level, which will include Warehouses, Custom Hiring Centers, PUs, and
Fair Price Shops among others.
• Notably, the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are grassroots-level institutions and
their membership includes individual farmers, artisans, and members of other weaker sections
of the society as shareholders.
• The project is being implemented by the National Cooperative Development Corporation
(NCDC) in collaboration with NABARD, Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC), and Food
Corporation of India (FCI) in 24 PACS of 24 different States/ UTs.
• The construction has already been started at five PACS, one each in the States of Tripura,
Haryana, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• India runs the world’s largest food programme under the National Food Security Act 2013,
which covers around 81 crore people.

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40. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive
Officer (CEO) of the Airtel Africa?
1) Jayanth Kumar
2) Atish Mathur
3) Ajay Kumar
4) Praveen Gupta
5) Sunil Taldar
Answer- 5) Sunil Taldar
Explanation:
Airtel Africa has appointed Sunil Taldar as Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) with effect from July 1 2024, and will be succeeding Olusegun “Segun” Ogunsanya who is
retiring.
• Taldar, who joined Airtel Africa in October 2023 as Director–Transformation, will begin the
transition to the CEO role, working alongside Ogunsanya.
• Following a transition period, Taldar will be appointed to the Board as an Executive Director
and assume the role of CEO
• Ogunsanya joined Airtel in 2012, ran the Nigeria Operations of the Telecommunications and
mobile money company for nine years before his appointment as Chief Executive Officer of the
Group in 2021.
41. In which country, the Shidaowan Nuclear Power Plant is located?

1) Iran
2) China
3) Russia
4) Japan
5) Israel
Answer- 2) China
Explanation:
China’s Shidaowan nuclear power plant, the world’s first fourth-generation reactor, has begun
commercial operations, one of the companies behind its development.
• The plant is designed to use fuel more efficiently and improve its economics, safety and
environmental footprint. China has a goal to produce 10% of electricity from nuclear power by
2035 and 18% by 2060.
42. In which state Jayakwadi bird sanctuary is located?

1) Maharashtra
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Rajasthan
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Jharkhand
Explanation:
Jayakwadi bird sanctuary is located in Maharashtra. It is home to around 234 species of resident
and migratory birds that have been recorded from the open water stretches of the dam along with
other creatures.

Weekly Q&A PDF
43. In which state, ‘Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Gujarat
3) Bihar
4) Maharashtra
5) Karnataka
Explanation:
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Thane District of Maharashtra, 90 km northeast of
Mumbai in the foothills of the Western Ghats.
i. It is known to be a paradise for birdwatchers. It has two rivers, the Tansa and Vaitarna, and the
sanctuary gets its name from the former, which divides the sanctuary into two parts.
ii. The sanctuary forms the catchment area of Tansa lake, along with the surrounding forests of
Khardi, Vaitarna, Wada, and Shahapur ranges.
44.In which state, Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Kerala
4) Karnataka
5) Telangana
Answer- 2) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
About Tamil Nadu:
Chief Minister– M.K. Stalin
Governor– R.N. Ravi
Airport– Coimbatore International Airport, Chennai International Airport
National Parks– Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Anamalai Tiger Reserve
45. What is the capital of the Republic of Chad?

1) Ouagadougou
2) Libreville
3) Addis Ababa
4) N’Djamena
5) Djibouti
Answer- 4) N’Djamena
Explanation:
About Republic of Chad:
Prime Minister – Succes Masra
Capital – N’Djamena
Currency – Central African CFA Franc

Weekly Q&A PDF
46. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Chairman and Managing Director(CMD) of NewSpace
India Limited (NSIL)?
1) Arunachalam
2) Radhakrishnan Durairaj
3) Neeraj Sinha
4) Bhushan Pal Singh
5) Shiva Reddy Koti
Answer- 2) Radhakrishnan Durairaj
Explanation:
About NewSpace India Limited (NSIL):
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) is a wholly owned Government of India company, under the
administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS).
Chairman and Managing Director(CMD) – Radhakrishnan Durairaj
Headquarters – Bengaluru, Karnataka
Incorporated – 2019
47. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) announced the launch of ReStore, India's first and
foremost refurbished battery brand?
1) Tesla Power India
2) Reliance Power
3) Adani Transmission
4) TATA Power
5) Torrent Power
Answer- 1) Tesla Power India
Explanation:
Tesla Power India announced the launch of ReStore, India's first and foremost refurbished battery
brand. The company is planning to launch 5000 "ReStore Battery Refurbishing Centers" in India by
2025 (500 of which are already operational).
• Tesla Power India said approximately 10 crore lead acid batteries are scrapped and replaced
every year in India, costing Rs.40,000 crore to the Indian economy.
• The refurbished batteries under the brand name of “ReStore” will be sold to the customer at
almost half of the cost of a new inverter battery along with warranty.
48. The Indian Navy’s marine commandos (MARCOS) successfully rescued 21 crew members,
including 15 Indians with the help of ____________ (Indian Navy Ship -INS), from the Liberian-
flagged vessel MV Lila Norfolk on January 5, 2024.
1) INS Arihant
2) INS Talwar
3) INS Chennai
4) INS Kolkata
5) INS Rajput
Answer- 3) INS Chennai
Explanation:
The Indian Navy’s marine commandos (MARCOS) successfully rescued 21 crew members, including
15 Indians, from the Liberian-flagged vessel MV Lila Norfolk on January 5, 2024.

Weekly Q&A PDF
• MV Lila Norfolk, a cargo ship, which was hijacked near Somalia's coast in the Arabian Sea. INS
Chennai of the Indian Navy closely followed the hijacked ship and rescued all 21 crew,
including 15 Indians, onboard
• The Indian Navy diverted frontline warship INS Chennai — a Kolkata Class stealth guided-
missile destroyer from her anti piracy patrol and it intercepted the hijacked vessel at 3:15 pm.
The vessel was kept under continuous surveillance using maritime patrol aircraft P8I and
Predator MQ9B drones.
• MV Lila Norfolk sent a message on the United Kingdom Maritime Trade Operations (UKMTO)
portal indicating that five to six unknown armed personnel boarded the vessel. The UKMTO is a
British military organisation that tracks movements of various vessels in strategic waterways.
• The cargo vessel belonged to Lila Global and current CEO of Lila Global- Steve Kunzer said the
crew of Lila Norfolk have been successfully rescued by the Indian Navy ship INS Chennai.
49. In January 2024, India’s oldest sloth bear in captivity, ___________ passed away at the Van
Vihar National Park-cum-animal rescue and rehabilitation centre in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
1) Ganesh
2) Bablu
3) Guru
4) Veera
5) Vineeth
Answer- 2) Bablu
Explanation:
A 36-year-old male sloth bear named Bablu has died due to multi-organ failure at the Van Vihar
National Park-cum-animal rescue and rehabilitation centre in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
• Bablu had been rescued from a 'madaari' (street performer) in Rajasthan and brought to Van
Vihar on May 6, 2006, at the age of 19. The average lifespan of a bear in the wild is 25 to 30
years. After the death of another bear named Gulabo in January 2022, Bablu became the oldest
bear in captivity in India.
• Wildlife SOS, a non-governmental organisation working for the rescue of elephants, bears, and
leopards across India, expressed sadness over Bablu's passing.
50. Which wildlife sanctuary was recently (in Jan ‘24) included in the Swadesh Darshan 2.0
scheme?
1) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
2) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary
3) Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
4) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
5) Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer- 3) Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation:
The tourism ministry has included Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary (Odisha) in the Swadesh Darshan
2.0 scheme.
i. Swadesh Darshan Scheme was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, to
develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations in the country.

Weekly Q&A PDF
ii. It is a 100% centrally funded scheme. Under the scheme, the Ministry of Tourism provides financial
assistance to State governments, Union Territory Administrations or Central Agencies for
development of tourism infrastructure in the country.
51. ___________ will become the first European country to issue digital Schengen visas to visitors
for the upcoming Olympics game 2024.
1) Switzerland
2) France
3) Sweden
4) Italy
5) Spain
Answer- 2) France
Explanation:
France will become the first European country to issue digital Schengen visas to visitors for the
upcoming Paris Olympics 2024. France has announced plans to shift entirely to online procedures for
70,0000 French Schengen Visas, in a move that aligns with the EU's digitalization plans.
• Athletes and officials holding a valid multiple-entry Schengen visa won't need to apply for a
separate French Schengen visa. Instead, they can use their existing visa, emphasizing the
necessity of obtaining accreditation for the games.
• France began operations of the "Olympic Consulate" system from January 1, 2024 - dedicated
to processing visa applications for the 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
• The Schengen area includes 23 of the 27 EU member countries, along with associated
neighbors Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein.
52. Name the first cyclone of 2024 that has hit Morombe in Madagascar on January 1, 2024.
1) Rita
2) Candice
3) Belal
4) Noah
5) Alvaro
Answer- 5) Alvaro
Explanation:
Alvaro, the first cyclone of 2024, made landfall near Morombe in Madagascar on January 1, 2024.
It is the first cyclone to hit Madagascar during the 2023-2024 season, which in the southwest Indian
Ocean runs from around late October to May.
• Mozambique named the cyclone Alvaro. Resilience and Preparedness to tropical cyclones
across Southern Africa (REPRESA) is an international initiative that aims to improve
community preparedness for tropical cyclones in Southern Africa.
53. Who has recently (in Jan ‘24) appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of PhonePe?
1) Ashok Kumar
2) Ritesh Pai
3) Praveen Sharma
4) Ajay Kumar
5) Jayanth Kumar

Weekly Q&A PDF
Answer- 2) Ritesh Pai

Explanation:
On 5th January 2024, Fintech unicorn PhonePe appointed former YES Bank executive Ritesh Pai as
the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of its International Payments business.
• PhonePe made a series of role reorganisations within the firm, including naming chief
executive officers for its lending, insurance, and broking businesses as it doubled down on
financial services offerings.
• Hemant Gala, who was part of the core team at PhonePe building the Payments business was
appointed as CEO of Lending business on November 7, 2023.
54. In which state Lakh-Bahosi Bird Sanctuary is located?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Jharkhand
5) Karnataka
Explanation:
About Uttar Pradesh (UP):
Chief Minister– Yogi Adityanath
Governor– Anandiben Patel
Bird Sanctuary– Parwati Arga Bird Sanctuary; Lakh-Bahosi Bird Sanctuary
Festival– Janmashtami; Taj Mahotsava
55. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Director General of the Confederation of Indian Industry
(CII)?
1) Atish Mathur
2) Chandrajit Banerjee
3) Sanjiv Bajaj
4) R Dinesh
5) Sanjiv Puri
Answer- 2) Chandrajit Banerjee
Explanation:
About Confederation of Indian Industry (CII):
Director General– Chandrajit Banerjee
Headquarters– New Delhi, Delhi
56. Where is the Headquarters of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) located?
1) London, United Kingdom
2) New York City, United States of America
3) Rome, Italy
4) Geneva, Switzerland
5) Paris, France
Answer- 2) New York City, United States of America

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
About the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):
Executive Director– Catherine M. Russell
Headquarters– New York, United States of America
57. Which company has recently (in Jan ‘24) commenced 'First Oil' production from flagship
deep-water asset water project in the Krishna Godavari basin offshore India's eastern coast?
1) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
2) Reliance Industries Limited
3) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
4) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
5) GAIL India Limited
Answer- 4) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Explanation:
India's state-controlled Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) kicked off oil production from its
flagship deep-water project in the Krishna Godavari basin offshore India's eastern coast.
• Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and Housing and Urban Affairs Hardeep Singh
Puri said that it was the "First Oil" production commenced from the complex and difficult
deepwater KG-DWN-98/2 Block, situated off the coast of the Bay of Bengal.
• The union minister further announced that the energy production of the country is also set to
rise from the deepest frontiers of Krishna Godavari.
• This project is expected to add 7 per cent to current national oil production and 7 per cent to
national Natural Gas production.
58. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Under-Secretary-General for Humanitarian Affairs and
Emergency Relief Coordinator of the United Nations Office for the Coordination of
Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA)?
1) Ramesh Rajasingham
2) Andrew Alspach
3) Joyce Msuya
4) Lisa Doughten
5) Martin Griffiths
Answer- 5) Martin Griffiths
Explanation:
Martin Griffiths is the current Under-Secretary-General for Humanitarian Affairs and Emergency
Relief Coordinator of the United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA).
i. The United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA) was established in
December 1991 by the UN General Assembly to enhance the global response to complex emergencies
and natural disasters.
• It is the successor to the Office of the United Nations Disaster Relief Coordinator (UNDRO).
• Initially, the Department of Humanitarian Affairs (DHA) was formed shortly thereafter by the
UN Secretary-General, but in 1998, it was merged into OCHA. This merger solidified OCHA’s
role as the UN’s primary focal point for major disasters.

Weekly Q&A PDF
• OCHA’s mandate expanded to encompass humanitarian response coordination, policy

development, and advocacy.
• There are two types of pooled funds: Central Emergency Response Fund(CERF), which can
fund an emergency anywhere in the world and Country-Based Pooled Funds(CBPFs), which are
country-specific.
• The headquarters of OCHA is based in two locations i.e New York and Geneva.
59. Which University/Institute, along with Researchers at Google DeepMind has recently (in
Jan ‘24) announced Mobile ALOHA, a low-cost open-source hardware system for bimanual
teleoperation?
1) Delhi University
2) Stanford University
3) Harvard University
4) Massachusetts Institute of Technology
5) New York University
Answer- 2) Stanford University
Explanation:
Researchers at Google DeepMind and Stanford University announced Mobile ALOHA, a low-cost
open-source hardware system for bimanual teleoperation.
• It is a humanoid robot that can be remote operated by a user and perform autonomously by
imitation learning.
• Further, through user-controlled teleoperations, it can do laundry, self-charge, use a vacuum
cleaner, water plants, load and unload a dishwasher, use a coffee machine and much more.
• ALOHA is a lightweight robot walking at a human speed of 1.42 metre a second and can carry
up to 100-kilogramme weight. Both the hardware and machine-learning algorithms of ALOHA
are open-sourced.
• Optimus, the robotics arm of Elon Musk’s auto behemoth Tesla, released its first version of
humanoid robot Bumblebee in September 2022, followed by Optimus Gen-1 and Optimus Gen-
2 last year.
• Unlike ALOHA’s low-cost arms-only structure, Optimus robots are nothing short of walking
humans designed in black and white metal bodies.
60. In a first, an Indian Air Force (IAF) C-130J Super Hercules tactical transport aircraft made a
night landing at the Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) in Kargil close to the Line of Control (LoC)
with Pakistan along with a team of Garud special forces in January 2024.
Which company has developed the C-130J Super Hercules aircraft?
1) Lockheed Martin
2) Boeing
3) Airbus
4) BAE Systems
5) Dassault Aviation
Answer- 1) Lockheed Martin

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
In a first, an Indian Air Force (IAF) C-130J Super Hercules tactical transport aircraft made a night
landing at the Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) in Kargil close to the Line of Control (LoC) with
Pakistan along with a team of Garud special forces.
• The ALG is located at an altitude of around 10,000 feet and is a restricted airstrip with a
unidirectional approach surrounded by rough terrain. It also does not have night landing
facilities. This demonstrates the capability to carry out specialised missions round the clock in
this area
• In Jammu and Kashmir, the IAF has full-fledged airfields at Srinagar, Awantipora, Udhampur
and Jammu. In Ladakh, the IAF has airfields at Leh and Thoise and ALGs at Nyoma, Fukche and
Daulat Beg Oldi (DBO).
• C-130J Super Hercules is a four-engine turboprop military transport aircraft, developed by
Lockheed Martin, a US security and aerospace company.
• It is the US Air Force’s principal tactical cargo and personnel transport aircraft.
61. As of January 2024, the tiger population in Uttarakhand has increased at a rate of __________
between 2006 and 2022.
1) 298%
2) 429%
3) 219%
4) 198%
5) 314%
Answer- 5) 314%
Explanation:
The tiger population in Uttarakhand has increased at a rate of 314% between 2006 and 2022.
• Uttarakhand Chief Wildlife Warden Samir Sinha claimed the tiger population density in
Uttarakhand is among the highest in the world.
• The tiger population which stood at 178 in 2006 rose to 560 in 2022, recording a rise of 314
per cent.
62. Name the Indian who has recently (in Jan ‘24) named in the Guinness Book of World
Records for singing in the most languages during a single concert at the Indian Consulate
Auditorium in Dubai.
1) Dhvani Bhanushali
2) Tulsi Kumar
3) Suchetha Satish
4) Shirley Setia
5) Neha Kakkar
Answer- 3) Suchetha Satish
Explanation:
Suchetha Satish, from Kerala, has set a new world record for singing in the most languages during
a single concert at the Indian Consulate Auditorium in Dubai.
• The achievement is officially recognized by the Guinness Book of World Records.

Weekly Q&A PDF
• Suchetha’s performance was part of the Concert for Climate, an initiative focused on raising
awareness about climate change. She sang in an unprecedented 140 languages during the
concert.
63. As of January 2024, How Many Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are in
India?
1) 10
2) 13
3) 18
4) 20
5) 15
Answer- 2) 13
Explanation:
The ‘Maharatna’ scheme was introduced for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), with effect
from May 19, 2010.
• It should be listed on an Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public
shareholding under Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulations.
• The company should Hold Navratna status. The CPSEs should have an average annual net
profit of over Rs. 2500 crores.
• Those companies with an annual net worth of Rs. 10,000/- Crore for 3 years Or an Average
annual Turnover of Rs. 20,000 crore for 3 years are also eligible to get this status.
i. Currently, there are 13 Maharatna CPSEs:
• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
• Coal India Limited
• GAIL India Limited
• Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited
• NTPC Limited
• Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
• Power Finance Corporation
• Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
• Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
• Steel Authority of India Limited
• Oil India Limited
64. Name the Committee that was appointed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2021 to
undertake a comprehensive review of the working of Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs).
1) The Damodaran Committee
2) Gopalakrishnan Committee
3) M.V.Nair Committee
4) Khusro Committee
5) Sudarshan Sen Committee
Answer: 5) Sudarshan Sen Committee

Weekly Q&A PDF
Explanation:
The Sudarshan Sen committee's objective was to assess the effectiveness, efficiency, and regulatory
framework governing Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) and provide recommendations for
improvements.
65. Who is the current (as of Jan ‘24) Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Grid
Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID)?
1) Ravindra Kumar Tyagi
2) Vishal Kapoor
3) K. Sreekant
4) Mahua Acharya
5) Ajay Tewari
Answer- 1) Ravindra Kumar Tyagi
Explanation:
About Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID):
POWERGRID was incorporated on 23rd Oct 1989 under the Company Act, 1956.
Chairman and Managing Director (CMD)– Ravindra Kumar Tyagi
Headquarters– Gurugram, Haryana
66. In which state ‘Palkot Wildlife Sanctuary' is located?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Jharkhand
5) Rajasthan
Answer- 4) Jharkhand
Explanation:
About Jharkhand:
Chief Minister (CM) – Hemant Soren
Governor – C.P. Radhakrishnan
Wildlife Sanctuaries – Palamu Wildlife Sanctuary; Palkot Wildlife Sanctuary
Zoological Park – Tata Steel Zoological Park; Bhagwan Birsa Biological Park
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Weekly Q&A PDF

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Current Affairs Weekly Q&A PDF – January 2024 1st Week

2. In December 2023, the Ministry of Finance imposed a definitive anti-dumping duty on

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BANKING AND FINANCE

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Answer- 1) NSDL Payments Bank

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Answer- 4) Bajaj Finance Limited

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ECONOMY AND BUSINESS

1. As per the “Half-Yearly Economic Review 2023-24-November 2023” released by the

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MoU’s AND AGREEMENTS

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APPOINTMENTS AND RESIGNATIONS

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C) Senthil Pandian has been appointed as Ambassador/Permanent Representative (PR) at the

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• He succeeded Kandikuppa Sreekant, who was superannuated on 31 December 2023. He has

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AWARDS AND RECOGNITIONS

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Identification and nurturing of budding / young talent Jain (Deemed to be

Encouragement to sports through Corporate Social Odisha Mining Corporate

ACQUISITION AND MERGERS

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