MCQ Environmental Studies (22447)

1. The natural place of an organism or community is known as

1. Niche
2. Biome
3. Habitat
4. Habit

The correct answer is – 3. Habitat.

2. Which is the renewable exhaustible natural energy resource?

1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Kerosene
4. Biomass

The correct answer is – 4. Biomass.

3. According to Shelford’s Law of Tolerance, the organisms wide

environmental factor tolerance limit show

1. Narrow distribution with low population size

2. Wide distribution with high population size
3. Narrow distribution with high population size
4. Wide distribution with low population size

The correct answer is – 2. Wide distribution with high population size.

4. Plants growing under direct sunlight are known as

1. Heliophytes
2. Sciophytes
3. Psamophytes
4. Dicots

The correct answer is – 1. Heliophytes.

5. Plants growing under shade are known as

1. Psamophytes
2. Sciophytes
3. Heliophytes
4. Monocots

The correct answer is – 2. Sciophytes.

6. An orchid living on a tree exhibits

1. Predator
2. Mutualism
3. Commensalism
4. Parasitism

The correct answer is – 3. Commensalism.

Also read: Parasitism

7. Which statement is correct with respect to the food chain?

1. Every component of the food chain forms a trophic level

2. Inter-relation between different food chains is known as a food web
3. All the chains formed by nutritional relations is used to understand energy flow.
4. All of the above

The correct answer is – 4. All of the above.

8. The process of vernalization is practised in

1. Cold countries
2. Hot countries
3. Only in sub-tropical countries
4. Only in tropical countries

The correct answer is – 1. Cold countries.

Also read: Photoperiodism and Vernalization

9. Which of the following requires maximum energy?

1. Secondary consumer
2. Decomposer
3. Primary consumer
4. Primary producer

The correct answer is – 4. Primary producer.

10. The bottom area where production is less than respiration in a pond
ecosystem is termed as

1. Profundal zone
2. Tidal zone
3. Benthic zone
4. Limnetic zone

The correct answer is – 1. Profundal zone.

Also read: Aquatic Ecosystem

11. Which is not the characteristic of ‘r’ selected species?

1. Reproduce quickly
2. Parental care
3. A low survival rate of progenies
4. Produce a large number of progenies

The correct answer is – 2. Parental care.

12. Which is not the characteristic of a population?

1. Natality
2. Mortality
3. Stratification
4. Sex ratio

The correct answer is – 3. Stratification.

Also read: Introduction to Population Growth

13. Lincoln index measures

1. Population mortality rate

2. Population natality rate
3. Population size
4. Population density

The correct answer is – 3. Population size.

14. Allelopathy refers to

1. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by the production of toxins

2. Inhibition of sporulation of pathogen by the host
3. Altering the reproductive cycle of one organism by another
4. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by preventing reproduction

The correct answer is – 1. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by the

production of toxins.

15. The ratio between energy flow at different points in a food chain is known
as

1. Ecological capacity
2. Ecological efficiency
3. Ecological assimilation
4. Ecological potential
The correct answer is – 2. Ecological efficiency.

Also read: Energy Flow in an Ecosystem

16. The ability of a population to increase under ideal environmental

conditions is called

1. Natality
2. Carrying capacity
3. Biotic potential
4. Absolute natality

The correct answer is – 3. Biotic potential.

17. In an ecosystem, the energy flow is always

1. Always unidirectional
2. Always bidirectional
3. In any direction
4. Always down directional

The correct answer is – 1. Always unidirectional.

Also read: Ecosystem

18. In thermal stratification, the middle region which shows vertical

temperature change is called

1. Mesolimnion
2. Epilimnion
3. Metalimnion
4. Hypolimnion

The correct answer is – 3. Metalimnion.

19. Select a non-denitrifying bacteria

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Thiobacillus
3. Thiobacillus denitrificans
4. Bacillus ramosus

The correct answer is – 4. Bacillus ramosus.

20. Which one is a ‘K’ selected species?

1. Aspergillus
2. Human
 3. Taraxacum
4. Grass

The correct answer is – 2. Human.

21. All species of Lemur are endemic to which area?

1. Madagascar
2. Seychelles Island
3. Galapagos Island
4. New Caledonia

The correct answer is – 1. Madagascar.

22. The upper part of an aquatic ecosystem contains

1. Nekton
2. Plankton
3. Benthos
4. both (1) and (2)

The correct answer is – 2. Plankton.

23. What type of food chain is it?

dead animals → blowfly maggot → maggots → frog → snake

1. Detrital food chain

2. Decomposer food chain
3. Predator food chain
4. Grazing food chain

The correct answer is – 1. Detrital food chain.

24. Identify the mismatched pair

1. Tundra – Permafrost
2. Savanna – Acacia trees
3. Prairie – Epiphytes
4. Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees

The correct answer is – 3. Prairie – Epiphytes.

25. “The pyramid of energy is always upright” states that

1. The energy conversion efficiency of herbivores is better than carnivores

2. The energy conversion efficiency of carnivores is better than herbivores
3. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
4. Energy conversion efficiency is the same in all trophic levels
The correct answer is – 1. The energy conversion efficiency of herbivores is better
than carnivores.

26. The population of birds declined in an area where DDT was extensively
used. Why?

1. The birds stopped laying eggs

2. The eggs laid by the birds did not hatch
3. The snakes ate the eggs
4. The DDT spray killed all the birds

The correct answer is – 2. The eggs laid by the birds did not hatch.

27. Which of the following lake zones has phytoplanktons in abundance?

1. Littoral zone
2. Benthic zone
3. Limnetic zone
4. Profundal zone

The correct answer is – 3. Limnetic zone.

28. Plant species with a wide range of genetic distribution evolve into a local
population known as

1. Ecotype
2. Population
3. Ecosystem
4. Biome

The correct answer is – 1. Ecotype.

29. dB is the abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of

1. The density of bacteria in a medium

2. A Particular Pollutant
3. Dominant Bacillus in a culture
4. A pesticide

The correct answer is – 2. A Particular Pollutant.

The main causes of biodiversity loss today are:

1. habitat loss and fragmentation

2. over-exploitation
3. alien species invasions
4. Co-extinctions
Answer – a, habitat loss and fragmentation
Q 2. When a threatened plant needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, the
desirable approach is

1. in-situ conservation
2. ex-situ conservation
3. cryopreservation
4. biopreservation
Answer – b, ex-situ conservation

Q 3. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents

endangered organisms in India?

1. Banyan and black buck

2. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
3. Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
4. Cinchona and leopard
Answer – b, Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

Q 4. Which of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

1. National park
2. Biosphere reserve
3. sanctuary
4. Botanical garden
Answer – d, Botanical Garden

Q 5. ____ is an endangered species of Indian medicinal plants

1. Garlic
2. Podophyllum
3. Amentotaxus
4. Ocimum
Answer – b, Podophyllum

Q 6. What is an important reason for natural resource conservation?

1. Disturb the ecological balance

2. Preserve the biological diversity
3. Disruption of the quality of the environment
4. Hampering the biological species
Answer – b, Preserve the biological diversity

Q 7. What is the significance of natural resource conservation?

1. Maintaining the ecological processes

2. Disturbing the ecological balance
3. Extinction of biological species
4. Disruption of the quality of the environment
Answer – a, Maintaining the ecological processes
Q 8. What is the name of the species whose population has been reduced to a critical
level?

1. Indeterminate
2. Rare
3. Vulnerable
4. Endangered
Answer – d, Endangered

Q 9. What is the name of the species whose population has recently declined and
continues to decline?

1. Endangered
2. Rare
3. Vulnerable
4. Indeterminate
Answer – c, Vulnerable

Q 10. Probiotics are ________

1. New kinds of food allergens

2. Live microbial food supplement
3. Cancer inducing microbes
4. safe antibiotics
Answer – d, safe antibiotics

Q 11. Which is the National aquatic animal of India?

1. Blue whale
2. Gangetic shark
3. River dolphin
4. Sea horse
Answer – c, River Dolphin

Q 12. Red List contains data or information on

1. Marine vertebrates only

2. All economically important plants
3. whose products are in international trade
4. Threatened species
Answer – b, economically essential plants

Q 13. Biodiversity loss is now one of the world’s most pressing crises. The primary
reason for this is:

1. we cannot do anything about it

2. we are not responsible for this loss
3. we still do not know its entire extent
4. It affects only the developing countries
Answer – c, We still do not know its entire extent
Q 14. The main difference between the “sixth extinction” and the previous five is the sixth
extinction:

1. is mainly occurring on islands

2. is mainly affecting plants
3. is happening at a faster rate
4. does not involve human activities
Answer – c, is occurring at a faster rate.

Q 15. In the tropics, which of the following contributes the least to species diversity?

1. Predictability
2. Predation
3. High productivity
4. Spatial homogeneity
Answer – d, Spatial homogeneity

Which of the following assertions regarding SMOG is true?

1. SMOG originates from fog.

2. SMOG is formed from smoke.
3. SMOG originates from water vapor.
4. SMOG originates through the combination of fog and smoke.
Answer- Option (1) is correct.

Explanation: Neither fog nor smoke alone can result in smog. As the name suggests smoke is a
combination of smoke and fog. When smoke released from burning fossil fuels, wood, etc
combines with fog in the atmosphere, it results in smog which reduces visibility and makes
breathing difficult. Water vapor directly does not result in smog formation.

Q 2. The main contributors of ________ include fumes, ash, nitric oxide, smoke, dust, and
sulfur dioxide.

1. Primary Pollutants.
2. Secondary pollutants.
3. Biodegradable Pollutants.
4. None of the above.
Answer- Option (1) is correct.

Explanation: Smoke and ash from burning fossil fuels and wood, dust, fumes, and gases like
sulfur dioxide and nitric oxide are considered primary pollutants. Secondary pollutants include
ozone, nitrogen dioxide, and particulate matter that mix or combine with other substances and
degrade air quality. Biodegradable pollutants include substances like kitchen waste, fruit peels,
and other organic stuff that release gases that then cause air pollution.

Q 3. Increased levels of air pollution primarily cause _________

1. Soil erosion
2. Global Warming
3. Respiratory complications
4. all of the above
Answer- Option (3) is correct.
Explanation: The main effect of increasing air pollution including dust, smoke, and allergens is
damage to the respiratory system of animals. These minute particles accumulate in the lungs,
nostrils, and airways and block incoming air. Air pollution indirectly contributes to global warming
by increasing greenhouse gases that trap heat and in turn, increase the temperature. Soil
erosion is mainly caused by an increase in soil pollution which damages the topsoil making it
infertile.

Q 4. The atmosphere is naturally composed of many gases which are present in different
ratios. Which gas is present in the highest quantity?

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Hydrogen
4. Both (1) and (2)
Answer- Option (2) is correct.

Explanation: Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the air and comprises nearly 78% of the total
air. It is followed by oxygen which comprises around 21% of the total air quantity. The remaining
1% of gases include carbon dioxide, water vapor, inert gases, and so on. Hydrogen is present in
less quantity in the air. The presence of nitrogen makes the air inert and prevents rapid oxidation
that can be caused by excess oxygen.

Q 5. Particulate matter are minute particles that remain suspended in the air and cause
irritation when inhaled. Which of the following is an example of particulate matter?

1. Nitrogen Dioxide
2. Water Vapor
3. Ozone
4. Fly ash.
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

Explanation: Particulate matter (PM) refers to extremely minute granules and liquid droplets
floating in the air. It consists of a complex mixture of organic and inorganic particles, including
dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets. Particulate matter may be dangerous to human
health and the environment because of its size, composition, and origin. Fly ash is an example of
a microscopic particle released from industrial effluents that can cause serious respiratory
complications.

Q 6. How many distinct types of main pollutants account for around 90% of worldwide air
pollution?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. None of the preceding.
Answer- Option (2) is correct.

Explanation: Natural disasters like volcanic eruptions contribute to air pollution. Agriculture is
also a major contributor along with industrial effluents, and transportation including private and
public vehicles. Thermal power plants and other power generation sources like hydroelectric
plants are also one of the five major contributors to air pollution.
Q 7. In order to control the emission of harmful gases into the atmosphere, a catalytic
converter can be used. What of the following are the effects of this device?

1. Conversion of carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide.

2. Conversion of nitric oxides into nitrogen dioxide.
3. Conversion of hydrocarbons into water and carbon dioxide.
4. All of these
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

Explanation: A Catalytic convertor uses enzymes to undergo oxidation-reduction reactions

which convert toxic gases into less harmful variants. For instance, carbon monoxide when
released directly into the air can cause serious respiratory complications so it is converted to
carbon dioxide which is naturally present in the air. Similarly, nitric oxide can be converted to
nitrogen dioxide and harmful hydrocarbons can be reduced to water and carbon dioxide.

Q 8. Which of the following devices is most effective in removing particulate matter from
industrial effluents?

1. Cyclonic separator.
2. Electrostatic precipitator.
3. Scrubber.
4. Catalytic converter.
Answer- Option (2) is correct.

Explanation: Under the effect of an electrostatic precipitator, the particulate matters like dust
and smoke acquire charge and get settled into charge plates. The purified air moves out of the
device after being cleaned. This process is highly effective and removes almost 99% of the dust
particles. The cyclonic separator is used to remove solid particles, the catalytic converter
converts harmful gases into less toxic forms while a scrubber is also used to remove gases from
the effluents using water.

Q 9. Which of the following condition cannot be caused by inhaling particulate matter?

1. Asthma
2. Irritation
3. Bronchitis, Premature death
4. Rhinitis and gastroenteritis.
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

Explanation: Rhinitis is a common infection of the nose caused by inhalation of allergens and
dust. However, gastroenteritis is caused by infection of the stomach due to bacterial or fungal
growth. Asthma, irritation, and bronchitis can be caused by particulate matter gains entry through
the airways into the lungs and gets covered by mucus secretion. This causes severe breathing
difficulty, swelling and oxygen efficiency in the body.

Q 10. Why is compressed natural gas (CNG) preferable to petrol?

1. It burns the most effectively

2. It is the more expensive
3. It ignites less efficiently
4. It can be tainted.
Answer- Option (1) is correct.
Explanation: To lessen air pollution, CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) is favored over petrol.
This is due to the fact that CNG burns most effectively and leaves very little unburned. It is less
expensive than fuel and cannot be tampered with.

Q 11. Which devices are fitted with catalytic converters?

1. Plants
2. Automobiles
3. Electrostatic precipitator
4. Cycles
Answer- Option (2) is correct.

Explanation: Automobiles have components made up of catalytic converters. They have more
costly metals like platinum-palladium and rhodium that act as catalysts to reduce the release of
harmful gases.

Q 12. Which element in an electrostatic precipitation system can remove gases such as
sulfur dioxide using a spray of water or lime?

1. Detergent
2. Electrode wires
3. Corona
4. Scrubber
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

Explanation: A scrubber in an electrostatic precipitator may remove gases such as sulfur

dioxide with a spray of water or lime. It is a component through which polluted air enters and
pure air is expelled.

Q 13. Which industries emit particle air pollution in addition to innocuous gases like
nitrogen and oxygen?

1. Oil industry
2. IVF(In vitro fertilization clinics)
3. Plant tissue culture labs
4. Thermal power plants and smelters
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

Explanation: Smokestacks are produced by thermal power plants and smelters. These
smokestacks include particulate matter and other gases that contain air contaminants as well as
innocuous gases like nitrogen and oxygen.

Q 14. CFCs(Chlorofluorocarbons) have not been designated for use in refrigerators since
they

1. raise the temperature

2. degrade ozone layer
3. harm the ecosystem
4. harm the human body.
Answer- Option (2) is correct.
 Q 15. Fluorocarbons are among the contaminants that jet aircraft produced in the outer
atmosphere and are referred to as

1. Smog
2. Photochemical oxidants.
3. Loess
4. Aerosols
Answer- Option (4) is correct.

agriculture and
aquaculture
ecosystem
1
Men agriculture desert grassland and all of agriculture
engineered and and tree the and
ecosystem aquaculture forest above aquaculture
consists of ecosystem ecosyst ecosystem
em
2 The Ecology biology Ecosystem antology Ecosystem
interdependen
ce of the living
organisms
among
themselves
and with the
environment is
called
3 The food chain The feeding Passage of Flow of energy all the given all the given
in an relationship in nutrients in the in the
ecosystem nature,thus ecosystem ecosystem
helps to biodiversity
maintain
4 The graphical Ecological Ecological Food web Trophic level Ecological
representation niche pyramid pyramid
of the
interrelation of
producer and
consumer in an
ecosystem is
termed as
5 Biotic & Ecosystem Pond River None of the Ecosystem
Abiotic above
components
togather form
an _ _ _ _
6 "Tundra" is an Marine Terrestrial Microbiologic None of the Terrestrial
example of _ _ al above
_ _ type of
Ecosystem
7 Ecological Geological Pyramidal Graphical None of the Graphical
 pyramid is a _ above
___
representatio
n
8 In Alpine, More Large Thick None of the More
Animals have above
_ _ _ _ blood
vessels
9 The percentage 33% for plains 37% for plains 20% for plains 23% for plains 33% for plains
of forest cover and 67% for hills and 63% for hills and 70% for hills and 77% for hills and 67% for hills
recommended
by the National
Forest
Policy(1988) is
10 Select the The desert area Large scale Western Ghats Conservation of Western Ghats
correct of Rajasthan and planting of BT have a very high biodiversity in have a very high
statement of Gujarat have a cotton has no degree of just a fad degree of
biodiversity very high level adverse effect species richness pursued by the species richness
of desert animal on biodiversity and endemism developed and endemism
species as well countries
as numerous
rare animals
11 In a national The entire flora The The plants and The entire The entire
park protection entire animals ecosystem ecosystem
is given to fauna

1 the scientific biodiversity. biogeography. ecology biology biogeo

study of the
geographic
distributon of
plants and
animals is
called as
2 The total area Six. Eight. Nine. Ten. Ten.
of India is
classified into
following
number of
biogeographica
l zones
3 Species with endangerd extinct species endemic None of the endem
very restricted species. species. given species
distribution
over relatively
small ranges is
called
4 which of the Secculant Mediterranean Sundland Eastern Eastern
following is a Karoo. Basin. Himalayas. Himala
biodiversity
hotspot of India
5 Extinction of a endemisim of habitat loss the Domino all of the given the Dom
weaker species weaker effect effect
by an species.
 aggressive
alien species is
the result of
6 Protection of in-situ ex-situ biodiversity none of the in-situ
endengered conservation conservation conservatin. given conserv
species by
preserving the
entire
ecosystem is
known as
7 The species Rare Treatened Endangered Vulnerable Rare
with thin
population
localised
within
restricted area
is said to be
8 Bharatpur Kerala Karnataka Gujarat Rajasthan Rajasth
bird sanctuary
is situated in…
9 Which of the Deccan Deccan Deccan None of the Deccan
following is Peninsula - Peninsula - Peninsula - above Penins
major Chhota Deccan South Central Chhota
biodiversity in Nagpur Highlands Nagpu
Maharashtra
10 Himalayan 2A, 2B, 2C, 2D 8A 6B None of the 2A, 2B
mountain falls above
in which
region
11 "Genetic Uncontrolled Unprofitability Natural None of the Uncont
Pollution" may Hybridization Phenomenon above Hybrid
be originated
due to one of
the following.
Which of the
following may
be possible
reason
12 A world map The national Scientific Environmental None of the The na
of hot spots geographic Organizations ists above geogra
with details of society society
Flora & Fauna
is prepared by
Q. No. Question Option i Option ii Option iii Option iv Answe
13 The Biological Biomagnificati Algal bloom Red tide Biomag
phenomenon control on on
of the entry of
toxic
chemicals into
the food
chains and
more
 concentrated
at higher
trophic levels
is called
14 Bharatpur Kerala Karnataka Gujarat Rajasthan Rajasth
bird sanctuary
is situated in
15 Which of the Nitrogen Carbon Carbon Oxygen Carbon
following is an monooxide monoo
air pollutant?
16 Which of the Ozone Carbon Carbon Sulphur Ozone
following is a Dioxide monooxide dioxide
secondary air
pollutant?
17 During Temperature Temperature Temperature None of the Tempe
Inversion: increases with decreases with remains above increas
altitude altitude constant altitud
18 Which of the Sulphur Carbon mono- Ozone Nitrous oxide Carbon
following on dioxide oxide oxide
inhalation
dissolved in
the blood
hemoglobin
more rapidly
than oxygen?
 Q. No Question Option i Option ii Option iii Option iv Answer Key
1 Depending Point source Primary And Natural or Primary and
upon the or non-point secondary anthropogen
generation pollutants pollutants. ic pollutants. secondary
of different pollutants.
air pollution, None of the given
they can be
classified as
2 PAN is a Forms when Causes May cause all of the All of the
secondary hydrocarbon photochemic respiratory given given
pollutant radical react al smog diseases in
that with nitrogen humans
oxide
3 Used Hazardous Solid waste Industrial Electronic or Electronic or
batteries, waste. waste e-waste. e-waste.
mobile
phones,
calculators
and other
such stuff
are better
known as
4 Fluorosis Exostosis Increased Increased All of the All of the
result in bone mass trabecular given given
bone volume
5 More COD DO Both of the None of the COD
scientific given above
method than
BOD to
determine
water quality
parameter
6 The main Smog Dust Smoke Fly Ash Fly Ash
discharge particulates
form of
thermal
power plant
is
7 The itai-itai Arsenic Cyanide Cadmium Lead Cadmium
disease of pollution pollution pollution pollution pollution
japan was
caused due
to
8 The common Recycling of Disposal of Composting Incineration composting
conversation waste waste.
of solid
waste into
manure &
biogas, using
 bacteria &
fungi is
called
9 The Organic Inorganic Non - Degradable Degradable
pollutants Pollutants pollutants Degradable pollutants pollutants
that can be Pollutants
broken
down
rapidly by
the natural
process is
called as
10 The rise in Necrosis Abscission Destroying Disturbing Necrosis
Ozone Chlorophyll Photosynthe
causes sis
11 Primary Released by Released by Released by Released Released
pollutants Chemical process of process of directly into directly into
means those Reaction hydrogen photosynthe Air Air
pollutants sis
12 Bhopal Gas Thermal Biogas Plant Geothermal Pesticide Pesticide
tragedy power plant Plant Plant Plant
occurred at
Q. No Question Option i Option ii Option iii Option iv Answer Key
13 Dental & Uranium Lead Mercury Fluorides Fluorides
Industrial
problems
caused due
to excess
amount of _ _
__
14 Normal talk 10 db 20db 30 db 40 db 40 db
creates
sound
intensity
about
15 The Noise TRUE FALSE Neither None of the TRUE
pollution can TRUE nor above
have FALSE
physical,
physiological
and
psycological
effects
16 Industrial African European American South European
revolution in Countries Countries Countries African Countries
_ _ _ _ made Countries
the air
pollution a
serious
problem in
17 Which of the Nitrogen Carbon Carbon Oxygen Carbon
following is an monooxide monooxide
air pollutant?
18 Which of the Ozone Carbon Carbon Sulphur Ozone
following is a Dioxide monooxide dioxide
secondary air
pollutant?
19 During Temperature Temperature Temperature None of the Temperature
Inversion: increases with decreases with remains above increases with
altitude altitude constant altitude
20 Which of the Sulphur Carbon mono- Ozone Nitrous oxide Carbon mono-
following on dioxide oxide oxide
inhalation
dissolved in
the blood
hemoglobin
more rapidly
than oxygen?
21 TajMahal is Acidic Rain Large number Yellowing of Smokes filling Acidic Rain
said to be which corrodes of fungus in the marble on the TajMahal which corrodes
suffering from marble TajMahal account of from adjoining marble
"Marble marbles Soot particles industries
Cancer", What
is Marbal
Cancer?
22 DDT is Green house Non- Degradable None of these Non-
gas degradable pollutant degradable
pollutant pollutant
23 Greenhouse Green plants infrared rays UV rays X- rays infrared rays
effect is
caused by
24 How the the oxygen the oxygen the oxygen None of the the oxygen
biological demand demand demand above demand
oxygen increases decreases remains increases
demand gets unchanged
affected with
the increased
presence of
organic matter