JEE

MAINS
(2024) January

Question Papers
WITH
Answer Key
JEE Mains(2024)-January
JEE Mains(2024)-January
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 5. If A denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the
1. n 1
Cr   k 2  8 n Cr 1 if and only if : expansion of (1 – 3x + 10x2)n and B denotes the
sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of
(1) 2 2  k  3 (2) 2 3  k  3 2 (1 + x2)n, then :
(3) 2 3  k  3 3 (4) 2 2  k  2 3 (1) A = B3 (2) 3A = B
Ans. (1) (3) B = A3 (4) A = 3B
2. The distance, of the point (7, –2, 11) from the line Ans. (1)
x 6 y  4 z 8 6. The number of common terms in the progressions
  along the line
1 0 3 4, 9, 14, 19, ...... , up to 25th term and 3, 6, 9, 12,

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x 5 y 1 z  5 ......., up to 37th term is :
  , is :
2 3 6 (1) 9 (2) 5
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 7 (4) 8
(3) 18 (4) 21 Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 7. If the shortest distance of the parabola y2 = 4x from
3. Let x = x(t) and y = y(t) be solutions of the the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 16y + 64 = 0
differential equations
dx
 ax  0 and is d, then d2 is equal to :
dt (1) 16 (2) 24
dy (3) 20 (4) 36
 by  0 respectively, a, b  R. Given that
dt Ans. (3)
x(0) = 2; y(0) = 1 and 3y(1) = 2x(1), the value of t, 8. If the shortest distance between the lines
for which x(t) = y(t), is : x  4 y 1 z x   y 1 z  2
(1) log 2 2 (2) log 4 3
  and   is
1 2 3 2 4 5
3
6
(3) log 3 4 (4) log 4 2 , then the sum of all possible values of  is :
3
5
Ans. (4) (1) 5 (2) 8
4. If (a, b) be the orthocentre of the triangle whose (3) 7 (4) 10
vertices are (1, 2), (2, 3) and (3, 1), and Ans. (2)
b b 1
I1   x sin  4x  x  dx , I 2   sin  4x  x  dx
1
 dx  a  b 2  c 3 , where
2 2
9. If
a a 0 3  x  1 x
I1 a, b, c are rational numbers, then 2a + 3b – 4c is
, then 36 is equal to :
I2 equal to :
(1) 72 (2) 88 (1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 80 (4) 66 (3) 7 (4) 8
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

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10. Let S = {l, 2, 3, ... , 10}. Suppose M is the set of all x 2 y2

the subsets of S, then the relation 15. The length of the chord of the ellipse   1,
25 16
R = {(A, B): A  B  ; A, B  M} is :
 2
(1) symmetric and reflexive only whose mid point is  1,  , is equal to :
 5
(2) reflexive only
(3) symmetric and transitive only 1691
(1)
(4) symmetric only 5
Ans. (4) 2009
(2)
11. If S = {z  C : |z – i| = |z + i| = |z–1|}, then, n(S) is: 5
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 2 1741
Ans. (1) (3)
5
12. Four distinct points (2k, 3k), (1, 0), (0, 1) and
1541
(0, 0) lie on a circle for k equal to : (4)
5

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2 3 5 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans. (1)
13 13 13 13
16. The portion of the line 4x + 5y = 20 in the first
Ans. (3)
quadrant is trisected by the lines L1 and L2 passing
13. Consider the function.
through the origin. The tangent of an angle
 a  7x  12  x 2  between the lines L1 and L2 is :
 , x3
 b x 2
 7x  12 8 25
 (1) (2)
sin  x 3 5 41

f (x)   2 x [x ] , x 3 2 30
 (3) (4)
b , x 3 5 41

 Ans. (4)

 17.  
Let a  i  2j  k , b  3 i  j  k . Let c be the
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or
vector such that a  c  b and a  c  3 . Then
equal to x. If S denotes the set of all ordered pairs
(a, b) such that f(x) is continuous at x = 3, then the   
a  c  b  b  c is equal to :
number of elements in S is :
(1) 32 (2) 24
(1) 2 (2) Infinitely many
(3) 20 (4) 36
(3) 4 (4) 1
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
14. Let a1, a2, ….. a10 be 10 observations such that 1 1 x4  2
18. If a  lim and
10 x 0 x4
a
k 1
k  50 and a
k  j
k  a j  1100 . Then the
sin 2 x
b  lim , then the value of ab3 is :
standard deviation of a1, a2, .., a10 is equal to : x 0 2  1  cos x
(1) 5 (2) 5 (1) 36 (2) 32
(3) 25 (4) 30
(3) 10 (4) 115
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)

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cos x  sin x 0  23. If the solution of the differential equation

19.

Consider the matrix f (x)  sin x cos x 0 .

  (2x + 3y – 2) dx + (4x + 6y – 7) dy = 0, y(0) = 3, is
 0 0 1  x + y + 3 loge |2x + 3y – | = 6, then  + 2 + 3
Given below are two statements : is equal to _____.
Statement I: f(–x) is the inverse of the matrix f(x). Ans. (29)
Statement II: f(x) f(y) = f(x + y).
24. Let the area of the region {(x, y) : x – 2y + 4  0,
In the light of the above statements, choose the
m
correct answer from the options given below x + 2y2  0, x + 4y2  8, y  0} be , where m
n
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true and n are coprime numbers. Then m + n is equal to
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false _____.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Ans. (119)

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(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
25. If
Ans. (4)
1 1 1
8  3 3  p   2 3  2p   3 3  3p   .... ,
4 4 4
20. The function f : N – {1}  N; defined by f(n) =
then the value of p is _____.
the highest prime factor of n, is :
Ans. (9)
(1) both one-one and onto
26. A fair die is tossed repeatedly until a six is
(2) one-one only
obtained. Let X denote the number of tosses
(3) onto only
required and let a = P(X = 3), b = P(X  3) and c =
(4) neither one-one nor onto
Ans. (4) bc
P(X  6 |X > 3). Then is equal to _____.
a
SECTION-B
Ans. (12)
21. The least positive integral value of , for which the
27. Let the set of all a  R such that the equation
angle between the vectors i  2j  2k and
cos 2x  a sin x  2a  7 has a solution be [p, q]
i  2 j  2k is acute, is _____. 1
and r  tan 9  tan 27   tan81 , then
Ans. (5) cot 63
pqr is equal to _____.
22. Let for a differentiable function f : (0, )  R ,
Ans. (48)
x
f (x)  f (y)  log e    x  y ,  x, y  (0, ).
Let f (x)  x  x f '(1)  xf ''(2)  f '''(3) , x  R.
3 2
 y 28.
20
 1  Then f '(10) is equal to _____.
Then  f '  2  is equal to _____.
n 1 n  Ans. (202)
Ans. (2890)

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2 0 1
29.
 
Let A  1 1 0 , B = [B1, B2, B3], where B1,
 
1 0 1 

1 
 
B2, B3 are column matrices, and AB1  0 ,
 
0 

2  3
AB2   3 , AB3   2
0  1 

If  = |B| and  is the sum of all the diagonal

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elements of B, then 3 + 3 is equal to _____.

Ans. (28)

30. If  satisfies the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0 and

(1 + )7 = A + B + C2, A, B, C  0, then

5(3A – 2B – C) is equal to _____.

Ans. (5)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes
31. Position of an ant (S in metres) moving in Y-Z through a region of space without any change in its
plane is given by S  2t 2 ˆj  5kˆ (where t is in velocity. If E and B represent the electric and
second). The magnitude and direction of velocity magnetic fields respectively, then the region of
of the ant at t = 1 s will be :
space may have :
(1) 16 m/s in y-direction
(A) E  0, B  0 (B) E  0, B  0
(2) 4 m/s in x-direction
(3) 9 m/s in z-direction (C ) E  0, B  0 (D) E  0, B  0

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(4) 4 m/s in y-direction Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Ans. (4) options given below :
32. Given below are two statements :
(1)(A), (B) and (C) only
Statement (I) :Viscosity of gases is greater than
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
that of liquids.
Statement (II) : Surface tension of a liquid (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
decreases due to the presence of insoluble (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
impurities. Ans. (3)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 35. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
most appropriate answer from the options given
earth is g. If the diameter of earth reduces to half of
below :
its original value and mass remains constant, then
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is would be :
correct (1) g/4 (2) 2g
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (3) g/2 (4) 4g
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
36. A train is moving with a speed of 12 m/s on rails
33. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is
which are 1.5 m apart. To negotiate a curve radius
A
cot   , where A is the angle of prism then the 400 m, the height by which the outer rail should be
2
angle of minimum deviation will be raised with respect to the inner rail is
 (Given, g = 10 m/s2) :
(1)   2A (2)  2A
2 (1) 6.0 cm (2) 5.4 cm
 (3) 4.8 cm (4) 4.2 cm
(3)   A (4) A
2
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)

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37. Which of the following circuits is reverse - biased ? 42. A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m
is placed at 60° to a magnetic field of 4 T. The
loop is removed from the field in 10 sec. The
average emf induced in the loop during this time is
(1) – 2V (2) + 2V
(1) (2) (3) + 1V (4) – 1V
Ans. (3)
43. An electric charge 10–6C is placed at origin
(0, 0) m of X –Y co-ordinate system. Two points
P and Q are situated at ( 3, 3)m and ( 6,0)m
(3) (4)
Ans. (4) respectively. The potential difference between the
38. Identify the physical quantity that cannot be points P and Q will be :
measured using spherometer : (1) 3V
(1) Radius of curvature of concave surface

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(2) 6V
(2) Specific rotation of liquids
(3) 0 V
(3) Thickness of thin plates
(4) 3 V
(4) Radius of curvature of convex surface
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
44. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an
39. Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with
image of an extended source of light on a photo-
equal kinetic energies. The ratio of magnitude of
electric cell. A current I is produced. The lens is
their linear momentum is :
replaced by another convex lens having the same
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 4
diameter but focal length 20 cm. The photoelectric
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 4 : 5
current now is :
Ans. (3)
I
40. 0.08 kg air is heated at constant volume through (1) (2) 4 I
2
5°C. The specific heat of air at constant volume is
(3) 2 I (4) I
0.17 kcal/kg°C and J = 4.18 joule/cal. The change
Ans. (4)
in its internal energy is approximately. 45. A body of mass 1000 kg is moving horizontally
(1) 318 J (2) 298 J with a velocity 6 m/s. If 200 kg extra mass is
(3) 284 J (4) 142 J
added, the final velocity (in m/s) is:
Ans. (3)
(1) 6 (2) 2
41. The radius of third stationary orbit of electron for
(3) 3 (4) 5
Bohr's atom is R. The radius of fourth stationary
Ans. (4)
orbit will be:
4 46. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
(1) R x-direction is described by
3
16 Ey = (200 Vm–1) sin[1.5 × 107t – 0.05 x] ;
(2) R
9 The intensity of the wave is :
3 (Use 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2)
(3) R
4 (1) 35.4 Wm–2
9 (2) 53.1 Wm–2
(4) R
16 (3) 26.6 Wm–2
Ans. (2) (4) 106.2 Wm–2
Ans. (2)

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SECTION-B
47. Given below are two statements : 51. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity
Statement (I) : Planck's constant and angular 5iˆ m / s and moves in x-y plane under action of a
momentum have same dimensions.
force which produces a constant acceleration of
Statement (II) : Linear momentum and moment of
(3iˆ  2 ˆj)m / s2 . If the x-coordinate of the particle
force have same dimensions.
at that instant is 84 m, then the speed of the particle
In the light of the above statements, choose the
at this time is  m / s. The value of  is ______.
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Ans. (673)
52. A thin metallic wire having cross sectional area of
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
10–4 m2 is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm. A
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
positive charge of 2 C is uniformly distributed
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
over the ring, while another positive charge of
Ans. (1)
30 pC is kept at the centre of the ring. The tension

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48. A wire of length 10 cm and radius 7  10–4 m in the ring is ______ N ; provided that the ring
connected across the right gap of a meter bridge. does not get deformed (neglect the influence of
When a resistance of 4.5  is connected on the left gap 1
gravity). (given,  9  109 SI units)
by using a resistance box, the balance length is found 40
to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the Ans. (3)
wire is R × 10–7m, then value of R is : 53. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002 H.
(1) 63 (2) 70 The current changes in the first coil according to
(3) 66 (4) 35 the relation i = i0 sin t, where i0 = 5A and
Ans. (3) = 50 rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the

49. A wire of resistance R and length L is cut into second coil is V. The value of  is ____.

5 equal parts. If these parts are joined parallely,
Ans. (2)
then resultant resistance will be :
8
1 54. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices
(1) R 5
25
3
1 and respectively are put in a beaker as shown in
(2) R 2
5 the figure. The height of each column is 6 cm. A
(3) 25 R coin is placed at the bottom of the beaker. For near
(4) 5 R normal vision, the apparent depth of the coin is
Ans. (1) 
cm. The value of is______.
50. The average kinetic energy of a monatomic 4
molecule is 0.414 eV at temperature :
(Use KB = 1.38 × 10–23 J/mol-K)
(1) 3000 K
(2) 3200 K
(3) 1600 K
(4) 1500 K
Ans. (2) Ans. (31)

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55. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide 59. The charge accumulated on the capacitor
(A  236) with binding energy 7.6 MeV/Nucleon connected in the following circuit is ____ C
dissociated into middle mass nuclides (A  118),
(Given C = 150 F)
having binding energy of 8.6 MeV/Nucleon. The
energy released in the process would be ____ MeV.
Ans. (236)
56. Four particles each of mass 1 kg are placed at four
corners of a square of side 2 m. Moment of inertia
of system about an axis perpendicular to its plane
and passing through one of its vertex is _____ kgm2.

Ans. (400)
60. If average depth of an ocean is 4000 m and the
bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 Nm–2, then

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Ans. (16) V
fractional compression of water at the bottom
57. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with V
an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position,
of ocean is  × 10–2. The value of  is _____
velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of
the particle from the mean position when its speed (Given, g = 10 ms–2,  = 1000 kg m–3)
becomes 5 cm/s is  cm, where  = ______. Ans. (2)
Ans. (12)
58. Two long, straight wires carry equal currents in
opposite directions as shown in figure. The
separation between the wires is 5.0 cm. The
magnitude of the magnetic field at a point P
midway between the wires is ____ T
(Given : 0= 4× 10–7 TmA–1)

Ans. (160)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 66. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?
61. Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage
known as :
(1) Phosphodiester linkage
(1)
(2) Glycosidic linkage
(3) Disulphide linkage
(4) Peptide linkage
Ans. (1) (2)
62. Highest enol content will be shown by :

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(3)
(1) (2)

(4)

(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
63. Element not showing variable oxidation state is : 67. A solution of two miscible liquids showing
(1) Bromine (2) Iodine negative deviation from Raoult's law will have :
(3) Chlorine (4) Fluorine (1) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
Ans. (4) (2) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
64. Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
(3) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(4) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
(1) (2) Ans. (4)
68. Consider the following complex ions
P = [FeF6]3–
Q = [V(H2O) 6]2+
(3) (4) R = [Fe(H2O)6] 2+

Ans. (4) The correct order of the complex ions,

65. Which of the following electronic configuration according to their spin only magnetic moment
would be associated with the highest magnetic values (in B.M.) is :
moment ?
(1) R < Q < P (2) R < P < Q
(1) [Ar] 3d7 (2) [Ar] 3d8
(3) Q < R < P (4) Q < P < R
(3) [Ar] 3d3 (4) [Ar] 3d6
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)

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69. Choose the polar molecule from the following : 72. The ascending order of acidity of –OH group in the

(1) CCl4 (2) CO2 following compounds is :

(A) Bu – OH
(3) CH2 = CH2 (4) CHC13

Ans. (4) (B)

70. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f - series of elements (C)

are placed separately in the Periodic table top
reserve the principle of classification. (D)

Statement (II) : S-block elements can be found in

pure form in nature. In the light of the above (E)

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statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below : Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)
(3) Statement 1 is true but Statement II is false (3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)

(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are false
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
73.
71. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than
m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate
turbidity with Lucas reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron (2453 K)
is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong
crystalline lattice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given

correct answer from the options given below : below ;

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)

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77. IUPAC name of following compound (P) is :

74. Cyclohexene is _________ type of an

organic compound.
(1) Benzenoid aromatic
(2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
(1) l-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) Acyclic
(2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(4) Alicyclic
(3) l-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
Ans. (4)
(4) l,l-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
75. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved
Ans. (2)
on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product
78. NaCl reacts with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 to give
of lead formed is a :
reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give
(1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination
yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are ;
number six

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(1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 (2) Na2CrO4, CrO2Cl2
(2) Neutral complex with coordination number
(3) CrO2Cl2, KHSO4 (4) CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7
four
Ans. (1)
(3) Dianionic complex with coordination number
79. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic
six
substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is ;
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number
(1) Retention occurs in SNl reaction and inversion
four
occurs in SN2 reaction.
Ans. (4)
(2) Racemisation occurs in SNl reaction and
76. Given below are two statements :
retention occurs in SN2 reaction.
Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium
(3) Racemisation occurs in both SN1 and SN2
carbonate is basic.
reactions.
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt
(4) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and
solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base
inversion occurs in SN2 reaction.
depends on Ka and Kb value of acid and the base
Ans. (4)
forming it.
80. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is :
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) [Xe] 4f4 6s2 (2) [Xe] 5f47s2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) [Xe] 4f6 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f15d16s2
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Ans. (1)
incorrect
SECTION-B
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are
incorrect 81. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol–1

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is displaced by a quantity of electricity which

correct displaces 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be _____ g.

Ans. (1) Ans. (107 or 108 )

3
 14

82. Consider the following data for the given reaction 86. Among the given organic compounds, the total
number of aromatic compounds is
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
1 2 3 (A) (B)
HI (mol L–1) 0.005 0.01 0.02
Rate (mol L–1s–1) 7.5 × 10–4 3.0 ×10–3 1.2×10–2
(C) (D)
The order of the reaction is _________.
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
83. Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO2 87. Among the following, total number of meta
after complete combustion is ______g. directing functional groups is (Integer based)
(Given Molar mass in g mol–1 C = 12.0 – OCH3, –NO2, –CN, –CH3 –NHCOCH3, – COR,
–OH, – COOH, –Cl
H = 1.0
Ans. (4)

®
O = 16.0) 88. The number of electrons present in all the
Ans. (8) 1
completely filled sub shells having n=4 and s  
2
84. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand is ______.
isothermally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a (Where n = principal quantum number ands = spin
constant opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the quantum number)
amount of heat transferred is_______ J. Ans. (16)
89. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is _______.
Ans. (1200)
Ans. (6)
85. 3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in 90. From the given list, the number of compounds with
presence of peroxide forms an addition product + 4 oxidation state of Sulphur ________.
(A). The number of possible stereoisomers for 'A' SO3, H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4, BaSO4, H2S2O7
is_________. Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)

4
 15

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 4. Let R be the interior region between the lines
1. Considering only the principal values of inverse 3x  y 1  0 and x  2y  5  0 containing the
trigonometric functions, the number of positive origin. The set of all values of a, for which the
 points (a2, a + 1) lie in R, is :
real values of x satisfying tan 1 (x)  tan 1 (2x) 
4
 1 
is : (1) (3, 1)    ,1
 3 
(1) More than 2 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 0 1 
(2) (3,0)   ,1
Ans. (2) 3 

®
2. Consider the function f : (0,2)  R defined by 2 
(3) (3,0)   ,1
x 2 3 
f (x)   and the function g(x) defined by
2 x 1 
(4) (3, 1)   ,1
min{f (t)}, 0  t  x and 0  x  1 3 

g(x)   3 . Then Ans. (2)
 2  x, 1  x  2
5. The 20th term from the end of the progression
(1) g is continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
1 1 3 1
(2) g is not continuous for all x  (0,2) 20,19 ,18 ,17 ,...., 129 is :-
4 2 4 4
(3) g is neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1 (1) –118
(4) g is continuous and differentiable for all x  (0,2) (2) –110
Ans. (1) (3) –115
3. Let the image of the point (1, 0, 7) in the line (4) –100
x y 1 z  2 Ans. (3)
  be the point (, , ). Then
1 2 3
 1   5 
which one of the following points lies on the line 6. Let f : R     R and g : R     R be
2 2
2
passing through (, , ) and making angles 2x  3 | x | 1
3 defined as f (x)  and g(x)  . Then
2x  1 2x  5
3
and with y-axis and z-axis respectively and an the domain of the function fog is :
4
acute angle with x-axis ?  5
(1) R   
 2

(1) 1, 2,1  2  (2) R
(2) 1,2,1  2   7
(3) R   
 4
(3)  3,4,3  2 2 
 5 7
(4) R   ,  
(4)  3, 4,3  2 2   2 4
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

1
 16

7. For 0 < a < 1, the value of the integral 11. Let A and B be two finite sets with m and n

dx elements respectively. The total number of subsets
0 1  2a cos x  a 2 is : of the set A is 56 more than the total number of
2 subsets of B. Then the distance of the point P(m, n)
(1)
  a2 from the point Q(–2, –3) is
2 (1) 10
(2)
  a2 (2) 6
 (3) 4
(3)
1 a2
(4) 8

(4) Ans. (1)
1 a2
Ans. (3) 12. The values of , for which

®
x 3

3
8. Let g(x)  3f    f (3  x) and f (x)  0 for all 1
3 2 2
1 1
x  (0,3) . If g is decreasing in (0, ) and 1    0 , lie in the interval
3 3
2  3 3  1 0
increasing in (, 3), then 8 is
(1) 24
(2) 0 (1) (–2, 1)
(3) 18 (2) (–3, 0)
(4) 20  3 3
(3)   , 
Ans. (3)  2 2
3   sin x   cos x  log e (1  x) 1 (4) (0, 3)
9. If lim 2
 , then
x 0 3tan x 3
Ans. (2)
2– is equal to :
13. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two
(1) 2
successive draws of 4 balls are made without
(2) 7
replacement. The probability, that the first draw
(3) 5
(4) 1 gives all white balls and the second draw gives all
Ans. (3) black balls, is :
10. If ,  are the roots of the equation, x2  x 1  0 5
(1)
256
and Sn  2023 n  2024n , then
5
(1) 2S12  S11  S10 (2)
715
(2) S12  S11  S10 3
(3)
(3) 2S11  S12  S10 715

(4) S11  S10  S12 3

(4)
256
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)

2
 17

(x 8  x 2 )dx 17. If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the differential

14. The integral  12 6  1 
is
equation (x 2  4)dy  (y2  3y)dx  0 ,
(x  3x  1) tan 1  x 3  3 
 x 
3
equal to : x  2, y(4)  and the slope of the curve is never
2
1/3
  1  zero, then the value of y(10) equals :
(1) log e  tan 1  x 3  3    C
  x  3
(1)
1/2 1  (8)1/4
  1 
(2) loge  tan 1  x 3  3    C 3
  x  (2)
1 2 2
  1 
(3) log e  tan 1  x 3  3    C 3
  x  (3)
1 2 2
3
  1  3
(4) loge  tan 1  x 3  3    C (4)

®
  x  1  (8)1/4
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
15. If 2tan2   5sec   1 has exactly 7 solutions in 18. Let e1 be the eccentricity of the hyperbola

 n  x 2 y2
the interval 0,  , for the least value of n  N   1 and e2 be the eccentricity of the ellipse
16 9
 2
x 2 y2
  1 , a > b, which passes through the foci
n
k
then  k is equal to : a 2 b2
k 1 2
of the hyperbola. If e1e2 = 1, then the length of the
1
(1) 15 (214  14) chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and
2
passing through (0, 2) is :
1
(2) 14 (215  15)
2 (1) 4 5
15 8 5
(3) 1  (2)
213 3
1 14 10 5
(4) (2  15) (3)
23 3
Ans. (4)
(4) 3 5
16. The position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of a
Ans. (3)
triangle are 2iˆ  3jˆ  3kˆ , 2iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ and
19. Let  
 4!! and  
 5!! . Then :
ˆi  ˆj  3kˆ respectively. Let l denotes the length of  4!
3!
 5!
4!

the angle bisector AD of BAC where D is on the

(1)   N and N
line segment BC, then 2l2 equals :
(1) 49 (2) N and  N
(2) 42 (3)  N and  N
(3) 50
(4) N and N
(4) 45
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)

3
 18

20. Let the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C
of a triangle be 2iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ , ˆi  2jˆ  2kˆ
2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ respectively. Let l1, l2 and l3 be the
lengths of perpendiculars drawn from the ortho
center of the triangle on the sides AB, BC and CA
respectively, then l12  l22  l32 equals :
24. If the sum of squares of all real values of , for
and which the lines 2x – y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0 and
x + 2y –2 = 0 do not form a triangle is p, then the
greatest integer less than or equal to p is ………
Ans. (32)

(1)
1 25. The coefficient of x2012 in the expansion of
5
1 (1  x)2008 (1  x  x 2 )2007 is equal to
(2)
2
Ans. (0)
1
(3)
4 26. If the solution curve, of the differential equation

®
1
(4) dy x  y  2
3  passing through the point (2, 1) is
dx xy
Ans. (2)
SECTION-B  y 1  1   y 1  
2

  log     x  1    log e | x  1| ,
1
tan 
21. The mean and standard deviation of 15  x  1   e    

observations were found to be 12 and 3 then 5   is equal to

respectively. On rechecking it was found that an
Ans. (11)
observation was read as 10 in place of 12. If µ and
 1 t 
x
2 denote the mean and variance of the correct 27. Let f (x)   g(t)log e 
  dt , where g is a
0  1 t 
observations respectively, then 15(  2  2 ) is
continuous odd function. If
equal to ……………………..
 /2
 x 2 cos x 
2
Ans. (2521) 

 /2


f (x) 
1  e x 

dx       , then  is
 
22. If the area of the region
equal to………….
{(x, y) : 0  y  min{2x,6x  x 2}} is A, then 12 A
is equal to……………… Ans. (2)

Ans. (304) 28. Consider a circle (x  )2  (y )2  50 , where

23. Let A be a 2 × 2 real matrix and I be the identity
matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation
| A  xI | 0 be –1 and 3, then the sum of the
diagonal elements of the matrix A2 is……………
,   0 . If the circle touches the line y + x = 0 at
the point P, whose distance from the origin is 4 2
, then (  )2 is equal to…………….

Ans. (10) Ans. (100)

4
 19

x 2 y z7 1
29. The lines   and 30. Let the complex numbers  and lie on the
2 2 16 
x 3 y2 z2 circles | z  z 0 |2  4 and | z  z 0 |2  16 respectively,
  intersect at the point P. If the
4 3 1
x  1 y 1 z 1 where z 0  1  i . Then, the value of 100 |  |2
distance of P from the line   is l,
2 3 1 is……………
then 14l2 is equal to……………..
Ans. (20)
Ans. (108)

5
 20

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. Given below are two statements :
31. The equation of state of a real gas is given by Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction
 a  depends on the area of contact and independent of
 P  2   V  b   RT , where P, V and T are materials.
 V 
Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic
pressure. volume and temperature respectively and
friction is independent of the area of contact and
R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of
depends on materials.
a
is similar to that of : In the light of the above statements, choose the
b2 most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) PV (2) P below :
(3) RT (4) R

®
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Ans. (2) incorrect
32. Wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure the (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
specific resistance (S1) of given wire, having correct
length L, radius r. If X is the resistance of wire, (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
 r 2  (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
then specific resistance is : S1  X   . If the
 L  Ans. (2)
 
35. The truth table of the given circuit diagram is :
length of the wire gets doubled then the value of
A
specific resistance will be :
S Y
(1) 1 (2) 2S1
4
S B
(3) 1 (4) S1
2 A B Y
Ans. (4) 0 0 1
(1) 0 1 0
33. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 1 0 0
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R ). 1 1 1
Assertion (A) : The angular speed of the moon in
A B Y
its orbit about the earth is more than the angular 0 0 0
speed of the earth in its orbit about the sun. (2) 0 1 1
Reason (R) : The moon takes less time to move 1 0 1
around the earth than the time taken by the earth to 1 1 0
move around the sun. A B Y
In the light of the above statements, choose the 0 0 0
most appropriate answer from the options given (3) 0 1 0
1 0 0
below : 1 1 1
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the A B Y
0 0 1
correct explanation of (A) (4) 0 1 1
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the 1 0 1
correct explanation of (A) 1 1 0
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)

1
 21

36. A current of 200 A deflects the coil of a moving 40. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at
coil galvanometer through 600. The current to 27°C is :
 [Use universal gas constant (R)= 8.31 J/mole K]
cause deflection through radian is :
10 (1) 6845.5 J
(1) 30 A (2) 120 A (2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(3) 60 A (4) 180 A
(4) 5670.5J
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
37. The atomic mass of 6C12 is 12.000000 u and that of
13 41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
6C is 13.003354 u. The required energy to
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
remove a neutron from 6C13, if mass of neutron is
Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero
1.008665 u, will be :
error exists, then while taking measurements, the
(1) 62. 5 MeV
reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
(2) 6.25 MeV Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper

®
(3) 4.95 MeV might have happened due to manufacturing defect
(4) 49.5 MeV or due to rough handling.
Ans. (3) In the light of the above statements, choose the
38. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical correct answer from the options given below :
plane so that its magnitude of acceleration in the (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
extreme position and lowest position are equal. correct explanation of (A)
The angle () of thread deflection in the extreme (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
position will be : correct explanation of (A)
(1) tan 1  2 1
(2) 2tan 1  
 2
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
1  1  Ans. (2)
(3) tan 1   (4) 2 tan 1  
2  5 42. Primary side of a transformer is connected to
Ans. (2) 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to
39. Three voltmeters, all having different internal secondary winding is 10 : 1. Load resistance
resistances are joined as shown in figure. When connected to secondary side is 46 . The power
some potential difference is applied across A and consumed in it is :
B, their readings are V1, V2 and V3. Choose the (1) 12.5 W (2) 10.0 W
correct option. (3) 11.5 W (4) 12.0 W
V1 V2 Ans. (3)
43. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
A B
Cp
V3 temperature. The ratio of for the gas is :
Cv
(1) V1 = V2 5 3
(2) V1  V3  V2 (1) (2)
3 2
(3) V1 + V2 > V3 7 9
(4) V1 + V2 = V3 (3) (4)
5 7
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)

2
 22

44. The threshold frequency of a metal with work 48. Given below are two statements : one is labelled a
function 6.63 eV is : Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(1) 16  1015 Hz Reason(R)

(2) 16  1012 Hz Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on

moving a positive charge on an equipotential
(3) 1.6  1012 Hz
surface is always zero.
(4) 1.6  10
15
Hz
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always
Ans. (4) perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
45. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
most appropriate answer from the options given
Assertion (A) : The property of body, by virtue of
below :
which it tends to regain its original shape when the
external force is removed, is Elasticity. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the

®
Reason (R) : The restoring force depends upon the correct explanation of (A)
bonded inter atomic and inter molecular force of (2) ((A) is correct but (R) is not correct
solid. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct answer from the options given below :
correct explanation of (A)
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (4)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
49. A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation (A) end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the a man. The rod makes an angle 60° with the
correct explanation of (A) horizontal, the weight experienced by the man is :
Ans. (3 or 4) (1) 6 kg
46. When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two (2) 12 kg
crossed polaroids then the transmitted light (3) 3 kg
intensity will be maximum for a rotation of :
(4) 6 3 kg
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 45° Ans. (3)
Ans. (4) 50. A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third
47. An object is placed in a medium of refractive index of its velocity after travelling 4 cm. It penetrates
3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity
further D × 10–3 m before coming to rest. The
6 × 108 W/m2 falls normally on the object and it is
absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on the value of D is :
object would be (speed of light in free space (1) 2
= 3 × 108 m/s) : (2) 5
(1) 36 Nm–2
(2) 18 Nm–2 (3) 3
(3) 6 Nm—2 (4) 4
(4) 2 Nm–2 Ans. (Bonus)
Ans. (3)

3
 23

SECTION-B
51. The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop
formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1 = 2
m, and R2 = 4m carrying current I = 4A as per
figure given below is  × 10–7 T. The value of  is
______. (Centre O is common for all segments)
R2
O
R1
Ans. (3.00)
52. Two charges of –4 C and +4 C are placed at the
points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2, –1, 5) m located in an
electric field E  0.20 ˆi V / cm . The magnitude of
56. A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same
inclined plane without slipping. They start from
rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the
7
ratio of their kinetic energies is where x is
x
________.
Ans. (7.00)
57. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a
single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is
focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its
focal plane. The first minima will be formed for

®
the angle of diffraction of ________ (degree).

the torque acting on the dipole is 8   105 Nm , Ans. (30.00)

Where  = _____. 58. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic

Ans. (2.00) nucleus (z = 50) of radius 9 × 10–13 cm is
53. A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per ________ × 106 V.
second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm, Ans. (8.00)
both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity
59. If Rydberg’s constant is R, the longest wavelength
of sound is ________ m/s.
Ans. (294.00) 
of radiation in Paschen series will be , where
54. A body falling under gravity covers two points A 7R
and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of  = ________.
upper point A from the starting point is ________
Ans. (144.00)
m (use g = 10 ms–2)
Ans. (45.00) 100 103
60. A series LCR circuit with L  mH, C  F
55. The reading of pressure metre attached with a  
closed pipe is 4.5 × 104 N/m2. On opening the and R = 10 , is connected across an ac source of
valve, water starts flowing and the reading of
220 V, 50 Hz supply. The power factor of the
pressure metre falls to 2.0 × 104 N/m2. The
circuit would be ________.
velocity of water is found to be Vm / s . The
Ans. (1.00)
value of V is ________
Ans. (50)

4
 24

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 63. Which of the following statements is not correct
61. The order of relative stability of the contributing about rusting of iron?
(1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting,
structure is:
even if the tin coating is peeling off.
O O 
 (2) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron
CH2 =CH– C–H CH2 – CH = C – H
I II does not take place.
(3) Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2 in water act
O  as catalyst in the process of rusting.
CH 2 – CH = C – H (4) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of

®
III
electrochemical cell on the surface of iron
Choose the correct answer from the options given object.
below: Ans. (1)
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) I = II = III (4) III > II > I 64. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation
Ans. (1)
of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant reverting
62. Which among the following halide/s will not show to the common +3 state.
SN1 reaction: In the light of the above statements, choose the
(A) H2C = CH – CH2Cl most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(B) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
CH 2–Cl
(C) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
CH3
CH – Cl (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D)
H 3C Ans. (2)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: 65. Choose the correct option having all the elements
with d10 electronic configuration from the following:
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(1) 27Co, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(2) (A) and (B) only
(2) 29Cu, 30Zn, 48Cd, 47Ag
(3) (B) and (C) only (3) 46Pd, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(4) (B) only (4) 28Ni, 24Cr, 26Fe, 29Cu
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)

1
 25

66. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive: 70. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Phthalein dye test (2) Lucas test List – I List – II
(Reaction) (Reagent(s))
(3) Tollen’s test (4) Carbylamine test OH OH
COOH
(A) (I) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4
Ans. (1) OH OH
CHO
(B) (II) (i) NaOH (ii) CH3Cl
67. The molecular formula of second homologue in the OH O

homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is (C) (III) (i) NaOH, CHCl3
O
_________.
(ii) NaOH (iii) HCl
(1) C3H6O2 (2) C2H4O2 OH

(3) CH2O (4) C2H2O2 (D) OCH3 (IV) (i) NaOH (ii) CO2

Ans. (2) (iii) HCl

®
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
68. The technique used for purification of steam
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
volatile water immiscible substance is: (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(1) Fractional distillation (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure
Ans. (4)
(3) Distillation
71. Major product formed in the following reaction is a
(4) Steam distillation mixture of:
CH3
Ans. (4)
O C CH3 HI Major product
CH3
I I
69. The final product A, formed in the following
(1) and (CH3)3CI (2) and (CH 3)3COH
reaction sequence is:
(i) BH 3 OH
 OH CH 3
(ii) H 2O 2, OH
Ph–CH=CH2 A and CH3–C–I
(iii) HBr OH + (3) and (CH 3)3COH (4)
(iv) Mg, ether, then HCHO/H3 O CH 3

(1) Ph  CH2  CH2  CH3 Ans. (4)

72. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
(2) Ph  CH  CH3 H
|
CH3 C CN C N
(1) HO CN (2) HO CH
(3) Ph  CH  CH3 C N
| OH
CH 2OH CN
(3) HO CH (4) CN CN
(4) Ph  CH2  CH2  CH2  OH CN
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)

2
 26

73. Given below are two statements: 78. Which of the following cannot function as an
Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of oxidising agent?
group 16 exhibits only –2 oxidation state. (1) N3– (2) SO24
Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4
(3) BrO3 (4) MnO4
oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state
increases. Ans. (1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 79. The incorrect statement regarding conformations
most appropriate answer from the options given of ethane is:
below: (1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is 60°
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect conformation.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) The conformations of ethane are inter-convertible
Ans. (3) to one-another.
Ans. (3)

®
74. Identify from the following species in which d2sp3
hybridization is shown by central atom: 80. Identity the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) BrF5 (1) Photography - AgBr
(3) [Pt(Cl)4]2– (4) SF6 (2) Polythene preparation – TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
Ans. (1) (3) Haber process - Iron
(4) Wacker process – Pt Cl2
75. Identify B formed in the reaction.
Ans. (4)
Cl  (CH2 )4  Cl 
excess NH3
 A 
NaOH
 SECTION-B
B  H2O  NaCl 81. Total number of ions from the following with
NH noble gas configuration is _________.
(1) Sr2+ (Z = 38), Cs+ (Z = 55), La2+ (Z = 57) Pb2+
(Z = 82), Yb2+ (Z = 70) and Fe2+ (Z = 26)
(2) H 2 N   CH 2 4  NH 2
Ans. (2)
 
(3) Cl N H3  (CH2 )4  N H3Cl
82. The number of non-polar molecules from the
N
following is ___________
(4) HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCl, CHCl3, BF3
N
Ans. (4)

Ans. (2)
83. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First
76. The quantity which changes with temperature is:
order reaction is ________ times of half life (t 1/2)
(1) Molarity (2) Mass percentage
of the reaction.
(3) Molality (4) Mole fraction
Ans. (1) Ans. (10)

77. Which structure of protein remains intact after 84. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square
coagulation of egg white on boiling? planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is
(1) Primary (2) Tertiary ________ B.M. (Nearest integer)
(3) Secondary (4) Quaternary (Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
Ans. (1) Ans. (0)

3
 27

85. For a certain thermochemical reaction M  N at
T = 400 K, H  77.2 kJ mol–1, S = 122 JK–1, log
equilibrium constant (logK) is –_________ × 10–1.
Ans. (37)
86. Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1)
which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is
________ × 10–1 dm3.
Ans. (7)
87. 1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3 to
get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = __________
Ans. (8)
89. 9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess
of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The
mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is
100% completed is _________ × 10–1 g.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C : 12,
H : 1)
Ans. (135)
90. Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon
atoms from following is ________.
O
O O
CH3  CH2  CH(NO2 )  COOH

®
88. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of
pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will CH3  CH2  CHBr  CH2  CH3
be –________ × 10–2 V. CH3  CH(I)  CH2  NO2
 2.303RT  CH3  CH2  CH(OH)  CH2OH
  0.059V 
 F 
CH3  CH  CH(I)  C2 H5
Ans. (18) |
I

Ans. (5)

4
 28

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 5.
1
If z   2i , is such that
2
1. If in a G.P. of 64 terms, the sum of all the terms is
| z  1|  z  1  i  ,i  1 and ,   R , then   
7 times the sum of the odd terms of the G.P, then
is equal to
the common ratio of the G.P. is equal to
(1) –4 (2) 3
(1) 7 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) –1
(3) 5 (4) 6
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
 

®
2. In an A.P., the sixth terms a6 = 2. If the a1a 4a 5 is  
3

1 1 
lim 
 
6.
x   
2  2
x3
cos  3  dt is equal to
t  
the greatest, then the common difference of the 2
 x   
 2 
A.P., is equal to
3 32
3 8 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 8 4
2 5
32 3
(3)
2
(4)
5 (3) (4)
3 8
8 4

Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
7. In a ABC, suppose y = x is the equation of the
2  2x , 1  x  0
 x ,  3  x  0 bisector of the angle B and the equation of the side
3. If f  x    x ; g x   ,
1  , 0  x  3  x, 0  x  1
 3 AC is 2x –y =2. If 2AB = BC and the point A and
then range of (fog(x)) is B are respectively (4, 6) and  , , then   2 is
(1) (0, 1] (2) [0, 3)
equal to
(3) [0, 1] (4) [0, 1)
(1) 42 (2) 39
Ans. (3)
(3) 48 (4) 45
4. A fair die is thrown until 2 appears. Then the
Ans. (1)
probability, that 2 appears in even number of
throws , is 8. Let a, b and c be three non-zero vectors such that
5 1
(1) (2) b and c are non-collinear .if a  5b is collinear
6 6
5 6 with c,b  6c is collinear with a and
(3) (4)
11 11
a  b c  0 , then    is equal to
Ans. (3)
(1) 35 (2) 30
(3) – 30 (4)–25
Ans. (1)

1
 29

  a 13. Let O be the origin and the position vector of A

9. Let  5,  , be the circumcenter of a triangle with
4  and B be 2iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ and 2iˆ  4jˆ  4kˆ respectively. If
  a
vertices A a, 2 , Ba, 6 and C  , –2  . Let  the internal bisector of AOB meets the line AB
4 
at C, then the length of OC is
denote the circumradius,  denote the area and 
2 2 3 3
denote the perimeter of the triangle. Then      (1) 31 (2) 34 (3) 34 (4) 31
3 3 4 2
is Ans. (2)
(1) 60 (2) 53   1
14. Consider the function f :  ,1  R defined by
(3) 62 (4) 30 2 
Ans. (2) f  x   4 2x3  3 2x  1 . Consider the statements
   
10. For x    ,  , if (I) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis exactly
 2 2
at one point
cosec x  sin x

®
y x   dx and (II) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis at
cosec x sec x  tan x sin 2 x

 x  cos
lim  y  x   0 then y   is equal to 12

x   4
2 Then
 1  1  1  (1) Only (II) is correct
(1) tan 1   (2) tan 1  
 2 2  2 (2) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
1  1  1  1 (3) Only (I) is correct
(3)  tan 1   (4) tan 1   
2  2 2  2 (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
 
11. If ,     is the solution of 4cos  5sin   1 , 1 0 0 
Let A  0    and | 2A |3  2 21 where  , Z ,
2 2
15.
then the value of tan  is 0  
10  10 10  10 Then a value of  is
(1) (2)
6 12
(1) 3 (2) 5
10  10 10  10 (3) 17 (4) 9
(3) (4)
12 6
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
16. Let PQR be a triangle with R  1,4, 2 . Suppose
12. A function y = f(x) satisfies
M(2, 1, 2) is the mid point of PQ. The distance of
f  x  sin 2x  sin x  1  cos2 x  f '  x   0 with condition
the centroid of PQR from the point of

f(0) = 0 . Then f   is equal to intersection of the line
2
x2 y z3 x 1 y  3 z 1
(1) 1 (2) 0   and   is
0 2 1 1 3 1
(3) –1 (4) 2
(1) 69 (2) 9
Ans. (1)
(3) 69 (4) 99
Ans. (3)

2
 30

17. Let R be a relation on Z × Z defined by SECTION-B

(a, b)R(c, d) if and only if ad – bc is divisible by 5. 21. Equation of two diameters of a circle are
Then R is 2x  3y  5 and 3x  4y  7 . The line joining the
(1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
 22   1 
points   ,  4  and   ,3  intersects the circle
(2) Reflexive but neither symmetric not transitive  7   7 

(3) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive at only one point P  , . Then 17   is equal to
(4) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
22. All the letters of the word "GTWENTY" are
18. If the value of the integral
written in all possible ways with or without


®
2
 x 2 cos x 1  sin 2 x   meaning and these words are written as in a
    dx     a   2 ,
  1  esin x
x 2023


  1  4
2 dictionary. The serial number of the word
then the value of a is "GTWENTY" IS
3 Ans. (553)
(1) 3 (2) 
2

3 23. Let ,  be the roots of the equation x 2  x  2  0

(3) 2 (4)
2
with Im    Im   . Then 6  4   4  52 is
Ans. (1)
equal to
19. Suppose
Ans. (13)
f x 
 2 x
2 x
 tan x tan  x
1 2
 x  1
, 24. Let f  x   2x  x2 ,x  R . If m and n are
 7x  3x  1
2 3

respectively the number of points at which the

Then the value of f '(0) is equal to
curves y = f(x) and y = f '(x) intersects the x-axis,
(1)  (2) 0
then the value of m + n is

(3)  (4)
2
Ans. (5)
Ans. (3)
25. If the points of intersection of two distinct conics
20. Let A be a square matrix such that AA  I . Then T

x 2 y2
x  y  4b and
2 2
  1 lie on the curve
A  A  AT    A  AT   is equal to
1  2 2
16 b2
2  
y 2  3x 2 , then 3 3 times the area of the rectangle
(1) A2  I (2) A3  I

(3) A2  AT (4) A3  AT formed by the intersection points is __

Ans. (4) Ans. (432)

3
 31

26. If the solution curve y  y  x  of the differential 11

C1 11 C2 11
C n
29. If   .....  9  with gcd(n, m) = 1,
equation 1  y  1  log x  dx  x dy
2
e = 0, x > 0
2 3 10 m
then n + m is equal to
passes through the point (1, 1) and
Ans. (2041)
 3
  tan  
y e   2  , then   2 is 30. A line with direction ratios 2, 1, 2 meets the lines
 3
  tan   x = y +2 = z and x + 2 = 2y = 2z respectively at
2
the point P and Q. if the length of the
Ans. (3)
perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line
27. If the mean and variance of the data 65, 68, 58, 44,
PQ is l, then l2 is
48, 45, 60, , ,60 where    are 56 and 66.2
Ans. (65)
respectively, then  2   2 is equal to

®
Ans. (6344)

28. The area (in sq. units) of the part of circle

x 2  y 2  169 which is below the line 5x  y  13 is

 65  1  12 
  sin   where ,  are coprime
2 2   13 

numbers. Then    is equal to

Ans. (171)

4
 32

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm
31. In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the forms an image that is half the size of the object.
Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of Iz? The object distance is :
(1) –15 cm (2) 45 cm
(3) –45cm (4) 15 cm
Ans. (1)
35. Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the
points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The

®
electric flux through a sphere of radius '4a' having
(1) 3.3 mA (2) 5.5 mA
(3) 10 mA (4) 7 mA center at origin is :

Ans. (2) 2Q 5Q
(1) (2)
32. The electric current through a wire varies with time
0 0

as I = I0 + t. where I0 = 20 A and  = 3 A/s. The 7Q 3Q

(3) (4)
amount of electric charge crossed through a section 0 0
of the wire in 20 s is : Ans. (2)
(1) 80 C (2) 1000 C 36. A body starts moving from rest with constant
(3) 800 C (4) 1600 C acceleration covers displacement S1 in first (p – 1)
Ans. (2) seconds and S2 in first p seconds. The displacement
33. Given below are two statements: S1 + S2 will be made in time :
Statement I : If a capillary tube is immersed first
in cold water and then in hot water, the height of
(1)  2p  1 s (2)  2p 2
 2p  1 s
capillary rise will be smaller in hot water. (3)  2p  1 s 
(4) 2p2  2p  1 s 
Statement II : If a capillary tube is immersed first
Ans. (2)
in cold water and then in hot water, the height of
37. The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in
capillary rise will be smaller in cold water. 2 3
a region of space is given as U = (2x + 3y + 2z).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Here x, y and z are in meter. The magnitude of
most appropriate from the options given below
x - component of force (in N) acting on the particle
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
at point P (1, 2, 3) m is :
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) 4 (4) 8
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)

1
 33

V 41. If the radius of curvature of the path of two

38. The resistance R  where V   200  5  V and
I particles of same mass are in the ratio 3:4, then in
I   20  0.2  A , the percentage error in the order to have constant centripetal force, their

measurement of R is : velocities will be in the ratio of:

(1) 3.5% (2) 7% (1) 3 : 2 (2) 1: 3

(3) 3% (4) 5.5%
(3) 3 :1 (4) 2 : 3
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
39. A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of
42. A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 shows
10 m on a horizontal surface. If the co-efficient of
friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work a full scale deflection for a current of 3mA. For it

done against friction (in J) is : to measure a current of 8A, the value of the shunt

®
(1) 4200 should be:
(2) 3900 (1) 3 × 10–3
(3) 4000 (2) 4.85 × 10 
–3

(4) 4500
(3) 3.75 × 10–3
Ans. (3)
(4) 2.75 × 10–3
40. Match List I with List II
Ans. (3)
List I List II
A. I. Gauss’ 43. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the
dE
 B.dl   i
0 c   
0 0
dt law for same as that of a photon. If velocity of electron is
electricity 25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of K.E.
B. dB II. Gauss' of electron and K.E. of photon will be:
 E.dl  dt law for
1 1
magnetism (1) (2)
1 8
C. Q III. Faraday
 E.dA  0 law (3)
8
(4)
1
1 4
D. IV. Ampere –
 B.dA  0 Maxwell
Ans. (2)

law 44. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls

from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
Chose the correct answer from the options given
below 24 is applied. The resistance of galvanometer
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II coil will be :
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (1) 12 (2) 96
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) 48 (4) 100
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)

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 34

45. A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal 49. The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of
2 3 6
length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when 1
H , 1H and 3Li in some condensed form. The
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will chain reaction is given by
Li6 + 0n12He4 + 1H3
be: 3

H2 + 1H 2He + 0n
3 4 1

(1) – 16 cm 1

During the explosion the energy released is

(2) – 160 cm approximately
(3) + 160 cm [Given : M(Li) = 6.01690 amu. M (1H2) = 2.01471
(4) + 16 cm amu. M (2He4) = 4.00388amu, and 1 amu = 931.5
Ans. (2) MeV]
(1) 28.12 MeV (2) 12.64 MeV
46. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original
(3) 16.48 MeV (4) 22.22 MeV
state A to an intermediate state B by a linear
Ans. (4)
process as shown in the figure. It's volume is then 50. Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are
reduced to the original value from B to C by an at same temperature. A contains 1g of hydrogen

®
isobaric process. The total work done by the gas and B contains 1g of oxygen. PA and PB are the
from A to B and B to C would be : pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then
PA
is :
PB
(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 32
Ans. (1)

SECTION-B
51. When a hydrogen atom going from n = 2 to n = 1
(1) 33800 J (2) 2200 J
x
(3) 600 J (4) 1200 J emits a photon, its recoil speed is m/s. Where
5
Ans. (BONUS) x = ______ . (Use : mass of hydrogen atom
47. At what distance above and below the surface of –27
= 1.6 × 10 kg)
the earth a body will have same weight, (take Ans. (17)
radius of earth as R.) 52. A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with
3R  R horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and
(1) 5R  R (2) 0.1 m wide. The minimum velocity u with which
2
that ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will be
R 5R  R
(3) (4) x ms–l where x = ___________[use g = 10 m/s2].
2 2
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
53. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7 is
48. A capacitor of capacitance 100 F is charged to a placed vertically in east-west plane. A uniform
potential of 12 V and connected to a 6.4 mH magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane
inductor to produce oscillations. The maximum in north east direction. The magnetic field is
current in the circuit would be : decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then,
(1) 3.2 A (2) 1.5 A magnitude of induced emf is x × 10–3V. The
(3) 2.0 A (4) 1.2 A value of x is ________.
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)

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 35

54. A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of 57. A 16 wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V
inclination 60°. It's acceleration during rolling battery with internal resistance 1 is connected
across one of its sides. If a 4F capacitor is
x
down will be m/s2, where x = _________. connected across one of its diagonals, the energy
3 x
2 stored by the capacitor will be J. where
(use g = 10 m/s ). 2
Ans. (10) x = _________.
Ans. (81)
55. The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at
58. When the displacement of a simple harmonic
a point on its axis situated at a distance of 20 cm oscillator is one third of its amplitude, the ratio of
from its center is 1.5 × 10–5Tm. The magnetic x
total energy to the kinetic energy is , where
moment of the dipole is __________ Am2. 8
 x = _________.
(Given : 0 = 10 TmA )
–7 –1

4 Ans. (9)
59. An electron is moving under the influence of the
Ans. (6)

56. In a double slit experiment shown in figure, when
light of wavelength 400 nm is used, dark fringe is
observed at P. If D = 0.2 m. the minimum distance
between the slits S1 and S2 is ______ mm.
Ans. (0.20)
®
electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane
sheet S having surface charge density +. The
electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and
has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of  if
m   C
the electron strikes S at t = l s is   0
 2
 e m
the value of  is
Ans. (8)
60. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in wind
tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower
surfaces of the wings are 70 ms–1 and 65 ms–1
respectively. If the wing area is 2 m2 the lift of the
wing is _______ N.
–3
(Given density of air = 1.2 kg m )
Ans. (810)

4
 36

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 64. The difference in energy between the actual
61. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
structure and the lowest energy resonance structure
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases for the given compound is
across a period. (1) electromeric energy
Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs
(2) resonance energy
the shielding across the period.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) ionization energy
most appropriate from the options given below: (4) hyperconjugation energy
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

®
Ans. (2)
explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false 65. Given below are two statements :
(3) A is false but R is true Statement I : The electronegativity of group
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
14 elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases.
correct explanation of A
Statement II : Group 14 contains non-metallic,
Ans. (3)
62. Match List I with List II metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
LIST-I LIST-II In the light of the above statements, choose the
(Substances) (Element Present) most appropriate from the options given below :
A.Ziegler catalyst I.Rhodium
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B.Blood Pigment II. Cobalt
C.Wilkinson catalyst III.Iron (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D.Vitamin B12 IV.Titanium (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
below:
Ans. (1)
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 66. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 1
Ans. (4) (1) 5, 0, 0, 
2
63. In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of
Cl– ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification 1
(2) 5, 0,1, 
of the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 2
10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating 1
formation of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation (3) 5,1, 0, 
2
state of chromium in that is
(1) +6 (2) +5 1
(4) 5,1,1, 
(3) +10 (4) +3 2
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)

1
 37

67. The major product(P) in the following reaction is 70. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Aryl halides cannot be prepared by
replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by
halogen atom.
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
(1) In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(2)
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Ans. (3)
71. Identify product A and product B :

®
(3)

(4)

(1)

Ans. (4)
68. The arenium ion which is not involved in the
bromination of Aniline is .
(2)

(1) (2)
(3)

(4)
(3) (4)

Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) 72. Identify the incorrect pair from the following :
69. Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of
(1) Fluorspar- BF3
the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound
(2) Cryolite-Na3AlF6
with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4
indicates the presence of element/s (3) Fluoroapatite-3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2

(1) Br (2) N (4) Carnallite-KCl.MgCl2.6H2O

(3) N and S (4) S Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)

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 38

73. The interaction between  bond and lone pair of 78. Which of the following is not correct?
electrons present on an adjacent atom is (1) G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
responsible for (2) G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(1) Hyperconjugation (3) G is zero for a reversible reaction
(2) Inductive effect
(4) G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
(3) Electromeric effect
Ans. (2)
(4) Resonance effect
79. Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline
Ans. (4)
medium as shown below :
74. KMnO4 decomposes on heating at 513K to form
O2 along with a Cl2(g) + b OH–(aq)  c ClO–(aq) + d Cl–(aq)
(1) MnO2 & K2O2 + e H2O(l)
(2) K2MnO4 & Mn The values of a, b, c and d in a balanced redox
(3) Mn & KO2 reaction are respectively :
(4) K2MnO4 & MnO2 (1) 1, 2, 1 and 1 (2) 2, 2, 1 and 3

®
Ans. (4) (3) 3, 4, 4 and 2 (4) 2, 4, 1 and 3
75. In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO Ans. (1)
forms a bridge between metal atoms?
80. In alkaline medium. MnO 4 oxidises I– to
(1) [Co2(CO)8] (2) [Mn2(CO)10]
(3) [Os3(CO)12] (4) [Ru3(CO)12] (1) IO 4 (2)IO–
Ans. (1) (3) I2 (4) IO 3
76. Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of
Ans. (4)
proteins is :
SECTION-B
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
Ans. (2) 81. Number of compounds with one lone pair of
77. The final product A formed in the following electrons on central atom amongst following is _
multistep reaction sequence is
O3, H2O, SF4, ClF3, NH3, BrF5, XeF4

Ans. (4)

82. The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of

(1) zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of

0.015 A for 15 minutes is ____ × 10–4 g.

(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)

(2) Ans. (45.75) or (46)

83. For a reaction taking place in three steps at same

K1K 2
(3) temperature, overall rate constant K  . If
K3
Ea1, Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/mol
(4) respectively, the overall Ea is____kJ/mol.

Ans. (1) Ans. (30)

3
 39

84. For the reaction N 2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) , 88. The number of species from the following which

Kp= 0.492 atm at 300K. Kc for the reaction at same are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one
temperature is___ × 10–2 . is____.
(Given : R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1) H 2 , He 2 ,O 2 , N 22 ,O 22 , F2 , Ne 2 , B2
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
85. A solution of H2SO4 is 31.4% H2SO4 by mass and
89. From the compounds given below, number of
has a density of 1.25g/mL.The molarity of the
H2SO4 solution is____M (nearest integer) compounds which give positive Fehling's test is____.
[Given molar mass of H2SO4 = 98g mol–1] Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone,
Ans. (4) Acetophenone,Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde,
86. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is cyclohexane carbaldehyde.
7 × 105 Pa at 273K. Osmotic pressure of the same Ans. (3)
solution at 283K is____× 104 Nm–2.

®
CH3 H
Ans. (72.56) or (73) 90. C=C (i) O 3
(P)
H CH3 (ii) Zn/H2O
87. Number of compounds among the following which
Consider the given reaction. The total number of
contain sulphur as heteroatom is____.
oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product
Furan,Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine,
Tyrosine (P) is____.

Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

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 40

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 2
5. The function f(x) = 2x  3(x) ,x  , has
3
2 1 2  1 2 0 
1. Let A = 6 2 11 and P =  5 0 2  . The sum
 
(1) exactly one point of local minima and no
 3 3 2  7 1 5  point of local maxima

of the prime factors of P 1AP  2I is equal to (2) exactly one point of local maxima and no
point of local minima
(1) 26 (2) 27
(3) exactly one point of local maxima and
(3) 66 (4) 23
exactly one point of local minima

®
Ans. (1)
2. Number of ways of arranging 8 identical books (4) exactly two points of local maxima and

into 4 identical shelves where any number of exactly one point of local minima

shelves may remain empty is equal to Ans. (3)

(1) 18 (2) 16 6. Let r and  respectively be the modulus and
(3) 12 (4) 15 amplitude of the complex number
Ans. (4)  5 
z  2  i  2 tan  , then (r, ) is equal to
3. Let P(3, 2, 3), Q (4, 6, 2) and R (7, 3, 2) be the  8 
vertices of PQR. Then, the angle QPR is 3 3 

(1)  2sec , 
  7  8 8 
(1) (2) cos1  
6  18 
 3 5 
(2)  2sec , 
 1   8 8 
(3) cos1   (4)
 18  3
 5 3 
Ans. (4) (3)  2sec , 
 8 8 
4. If the mean and variance of five observations are
 11 11 
(4)  2sec ,
24
and
194
respectively and the mean of first  8 8 
5 25
Ans. (1)
7
four observations is , then the variance of the 7. The sum of the solutions x  of the equation
2
first four observations in equal to 3cos2x  cos3 2x
= x3 – x2 + 6 is
cos x  sin x
6 6
4 77
(1) (2)
5 12 (1) 0 (2) 1

5 105 (3) –1 (4) 3

(3) (4)
4 4 Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)

1
 41

8. Let OA  a,OB  12a  4b and OC  b, where O 13. If each term of a geometric progression a1, a2, a3,…
is the origin. If S is the parallelogram with adjacent 1
with a1  and a 2  a1 , is the arithmetic mean of
sides OA and OC, then 8
area of the quadrilateral OABC the next two terms and Sn = a1 + a2 + …+an, then
is equal to ___
area of S S20 – S18 is equal to
(1) 6 (2) 10 (1) 215 (2) –218
(3) 7 (4) 8 (3) 218 (4) –215
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
9. If loge a, loge b, loge c are in an A.P. and loge a –
14. Let A be the point of intersection of the lines 3x +
loge2b, loge2b – loge3c, loge3c – loge a are also in
2y = 14, 5x – y = 6 and B be the point of
an A.P, then a : b : c is equal to
(1) 9 : 6 : 4 (2) 16 : 4 : 1 intersection of the lines 4x + 3y = 8, 6x + y = 5.
(3) 25 : 10 : 4 (4) 6 : 3 : 2 The distance of the point P(5, –2) from the line

®
Ans. (1) AB is
10. If 13
3 3 (1) (2) 8
sin x  cos x
2 2 2
 sin 3 x cos3 x sin(x  )
dx  A cos  tan x  sin   B cos   sin  cot x  C,
5
where C is the integration constant, then AB is (3) (4) 6
2
equal to Ans. (4)
(1) 4 cosec(2) (2) 4sec 
m
(3) 2sec  (4) 8cosec(2) 15. Let x = (m, n are co-prime natural numbers) be
n
Ans. (4)
1
11. The distance of the point (2, 3) from the line 2x – 
a solution of the equation cos 2sin 1 x   9
and let
3y + 28 = 0, measured parallel to the line
, (  ) be the roots of the equation mx2 – nx –
3x  y  1  0, is equal to
m + n = 0. Then the point (, ) lies on the line
(1) 4 2 (2) 6 3
(1) 3x + 2y = 2 (2) 5x – 8y = –9
(3) 3  4 2 (4) 4  6 3
(3) 3x – 2y = –2 (4) 5x + 8y = 9
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
y 
12. If sin    loge | x |  is the solution of the x
x 2 16. The function f(x) = ,x  –{–2, 8}
x 2  6x  16
 y  dy y
differential equation x cos    ycos    x (1) decreases in (–2, 8) and increases in
 x  dx x
(, 2)  (8, )

and y(1) = , then  2 is equal to (2) decreases in (, 2)  (2,8)  (8, )
3
(1) 3 (2) 12 (3) decreases in (, 2) and increases in (8,  )
(3) 4 (4) 9 (4) increases in (, 2)  (2,8)  (8, )
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)

2
 42

 1  x2  1 SECTION-B
17. Let y = log e   , –1 < x < 1. Then at x = ,
 1  x 2
 2
21. Let ,  be the roots of the equation
the value of 225(y ' y") is equal to x 2  6x  3  0 such that Im () > Im (). Let a, b
(1) 732 (2) 746 be integers not divisible by 3 and n be a natural
(3) 742 (4) 736 99 98 n
number such that    3 (a  ib),i  1 . Then
Ans. (4) 

18. If R is the smallest equivalence relation on the set n + a + b is equal to _______.

{1, 2, 3, 4} such that {(1,2), (1,3)}  R, then the Ans. 49

number of elements in R is ______ 22. Let for any three distinct consecutive terms a, b, c
(1) 10 (2) 12 of an A.P, the lines ax + by + c = 0 be concurrent

®
(3) 8 (4) 15 at the point P and Q (,) be a point such that the

Ans. (1) system of equations

19. An integer is chosen at random from the integers 1, x + y + z = 6,

2, 3, …, 50. The probability that the chosen integer 2x + 5y + z =  and
is a multiple of atleast one of 4, 6 and 7 is x + 2y + 3z = 4, has infinitely many solutions.

(1)
8
(2)
21 Then (PQ)2 is equal to ________.
25 50
Ans. 113
9 14
(3) (4)
50 25 23. Let P(,) be a point on the parabola y2 = 4x. If P

Ans. (2) also lies on the chord of the parabola x2 = 8y

   5
20. Let a unit vector û  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ make angles , whose mid point is 1,  . Then (-28) (-8) is
2 3  4

2 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ equal to ___________.
and with the vectors i k, j k
3 2 2 2 2 Ans. 192
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 
and i j respectively. If 3
2 2 24. If 

1  sin 2xdx     2   3 , where , 
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
v i  j  k , then û  v is equal to
2 6

2 2 2
and  are rational numbers, then 3+4-  is equal
11 5
(1) (2) to _______.
2 2
Ans. 6
(3) 9 (4) 7
Ans. (2)

3
 43

25. Let the area of the region {(x, y): 0  x  3,0  y  32

28. Remainder when 6432 is divided by 9 is equal to
min{x2 + 2, 2x + 2}}be A. Then 12A is equal to ____.
_____.
Ans. 1
Ans. 164
29. Let the set C   x, y  | x 2  2 y  2023, x, y  .
26. Let O be the origin, and M and N be the points on
x 5 y4 z 5
Then  (x  y) is equal to _______.
the lines   and (x,y)C
4 1 3
Ans. 46
x  8 y  2 z  11
  respectively such that MN is
12 5 9 30. Let the slope of the line 45x + 5y + 3 = 0 be
the shortest distance between the given lines. Then 9r2
27r1  for some r1, r2  R. Then
2
OM. ON is equal to _____.

®
 
Ans. 9  x
8t 2 
Lim   dt  is equal to ____.
 3 3r2 x  r2 x 2  r1x 3  3x 
x 3

 2r (f (r))  f (x)f (r)  3 r 
2 2 f (r)
  2 
27. Let f (x)  lim  r e 
r x
 r x
2 2

  Ans. 12
be differentiable in (,0)  (0, ) and f(1) = 1.

Then the value of ea, such that f(a) = 0, is equal to

_____.

Ans. 2

4
 44

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. In an a.c. circuit, voltage and current are given by :
31. Two sources of light emit with a power of 200 W. V = 100 sin (100 t) V and
The ratio of number of photons of visible light

emitted by each source having wavelengths 300 I = 100 sin (100 t + ) mA respectively.
3
nm and 500 nm respectively, will be :
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 The average power dissipated in one cycle is :
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 3 : 5 (1) 5 W (2) 10 W
Ans. (4)
(3) 2.5 W (4) 25 W
32. The truth table for this given circuit is :
Ans. (3)

®
A
35. The temperature of a gas having 2.0 × 1025
molecules per cubic meter at 1.38 atm (Given, k =
Y
1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) is :
B
(1) 500 K (2) 200 K
A B Y A B Y (3) 100 K (4) 300 K
0 0 1 0 0 0 Ans. (1)
(1) (2)
0 1 1 0 1 1 36. A stone of mass 900g is tied to a string and moved

1 0 1 1 0 0 in a vertical circle of radius 1m making 10 rpm.

1 1 0 1 1 1 The tension in the string, when the stone is at the

lowest point is (if 2 = 9.8 and g = 9.8 m/s2)
A B Y A B Y
(1) 97 N (2) 9.8 N
0 0 0 0 0 1
(3) (4) (3) 8.82 N (4) 17.8 N
0 1 0 0 1 0 Ans. (2)
1 0 0 1 0 1 37. The bob of a pendulum was released from a
1 1 1 1 1 0 horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is
Ans. (2) 10m. If it dissipates 10% of its initial energy
33. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on against air resistance, the speed with which the bob
4 3
a b
quantities a, b, c by the relation Q  . The arrives at the lowest point is : [Use, g : 10 ms–2]
c2
–1
percentage error in a, b and c are 3%, 4% and 5% (1) 6 5 ms (2) 5 6 ms–1
respectively. Then, the percentage error in Q is : –1 –1
(3) 5 5 ms (4) 2 5 ms
(1) 66% (2) 43%
(3) 34% (4) 14% Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)

1
 45

38. If the distance between object and its two times 42. A bob of mass ‘m’ is suspended by a light string of
magnified virtual image produced by a curved length ‘L’. It is imparted a minimum horizontal
velocity at the lowest point A such that it just
mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must
completes half circle reaching the top most
be : (K.E.)A
position B. The ratio of kinetic energies
(1) 15 cm (2) –12 cm (K.E.)B
(3) –10 cm (4) 10/3 cm is :
VH
Ans. (3) B
Vm
39. Two particles X and Y having equal charges are mg
being accelerated through the same potential
difference. Thereafter they enter normally in a O C

region of uniform magnetic field and describes L

circular paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The VL

®
mass ratio of X and Y is : A mg
2 2 (1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1
R  R 
(1)  2  (2)  1  (3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 5
 R1   R2  Ans. (2)
R  R  43. A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one
(3)  1  (4)  2  end. If its other end is pulled by a force F, its
 R2   R1 
length increases by l. If the radius of the wire and
Ans. (2) the applied force both are reduced to half of their
40. In Young’s double slit experiment, light from two original values keeping original length constant,
the increase in length will become.
identical sources are superimposing on a screen.
(1) 3 times (2) 3/2 times
The path difference between the two lights (3) 4 times (4) 2 times
7 Ans. (4)
reaching at a point on the screen is . The ratio 44. A planet takes 200 days to complete one revolution
4
around the Sun. If the distance of the planet from
of intensity of fringe at this point with respect to
Sun is reduced to one fourth of the original
the maximum intensity of the fringe is : distance, how many days will it take to complete
(1) 1/2 (2) 3/4 one revolution ?
(3) 1/3 (4) 1/4 (1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 100 (4) 20
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
41. A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27 45. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
identical liquid drops. If the surface tension is T, 35 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction.
At a particular point (in space and time)
then the work done in the process will be :
2 2
E  9.6ˆjV / m . The value of magnetic field at this
(1) 8R T (2) 3R T
point is :
1 2 ˆ
(1) 3.2  10 8 kT (2) 3.2  10 8 ˆiT
R T
2
(3) (4) 4R T
8 ˆ
(3) 9.6ˆjT (4) 9.6  10 8 kT
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)

2
 46

46. In the given circuit, the current in resistance R3 is : SECTION-B

R2 51. Two metallic wires P and Q have same volume and
4 are made up of same material. If their area of cross
R1 1 sections are in the ratio 4 : 1 and force F1 is applied
2 R4 to P, an extension of l is produced. The force
which is required to produce same extension in Q
4 R3 is F2.
F1
The value of is_______ .
F2
10 V
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A Ans. (16)
(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A 52. A horizontal straight wire 5 m long extending from
Ans. (1) east to west falling freely at right angle to
47. A particle is moving in a straight line. The
variation of position ‘x’ as a function of time ‘t’ is horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
given as x = (t3 – 6t2 + 20t + 15) m. The velocity of 0.60 × 10–4 Wbm–2. The instantaneous value of emf

®
the body when its acceleration becomes zero is : induced in the wire when its velocity is 10 ms–1 is
(1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s
_________ × 10–3 V.
(3) 10 m/s (4) 6 m/s
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
48. N moles of a polyatomic gas (f = 6) must be mixed 53. Hydrogen atom is bombarded with electrons
with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that the
accelerated through a potential different of V,
mixture behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N
is : which causes excitation of hydrogen atoms. If the
(1) 6 (2) 3 experiment is being formed at T = 0 K. The
(3) 4 (4) 2 minimum potential difference needed to observe
Ans. (3)
any Balmer series lines in the emission spectra will
49. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Most of the mass of the atom and all 
be V , where  = ________.
its positive charge are concentrated in a tiny 10
nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is Ans. (121)
Rutherford’s model.
Statement II : An atom is a spherical cloud of 54. A charge of 4.0 C is moving with a velocity of
positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a 4.0 × 106 ms–1 along the positive y-axis under a
special case of Rutherford’s model.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
 
magnetic field B of strength 2kˆ T. The force

most appropriate from the options given below. acting on the charge is x iˆ N . The value of x is __.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
Ans. (32)
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false 55. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true and time period 6 second. Assuming the
Ans. (3) oscillation starts from its mean position, the time
50. An electric field is given by (6iˆ  5jˆ  3k) ˆ N/C.
required by it to travel from x = A to x 
3
A
2
The electric flux through a surface area 30iˆ m
2


lying in YZ-plane (in SI unit) is : will be s, where x = _______ :
(1) 90 (2) 150 (3) 180 (4) 60 x
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)

3
 47

56. In the given figure, the charge stored in 6F 58. In the given circuit, the current flowing through the
resistance 20 is 0.3 A, while the ammeter reads
capacitor, when points A and B are joined by a 0.9 A. The value of R1 is ______ .
connecting wire is _______C. R1

9V

20 
A

6
6µF 15 

Ans. (30)
A B
59. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 50 cm in
such a way that at any instant the normal and
3 tangential components of its acceleration are equal.

®
3µF
If its speed at t = 0 is 4 m/s, the time taken to
1
complete the first revolution will be 1  e2  s,

where  = ______.
Ans. (8)
Ans. (36) 60. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform speed
3 2 ms1 in X – Y plane along the line y = x + 4.
57. In a single slit diffraction pattern, a light of
The angular momentum of the particle about the
wavelength 6000 Å is used. The distance between
origin will be ______ kg m2s–1.
the first and third minima in the diffraction pattern
Ans. (60)
is found to be 3 mm when the screen in placed
50cm away from slits. The width of the slit is
______ × 10–4 m.
Ans. (2)

4
 48

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 64. Which of the following reaction is correct ?
61. The ascending acidity order of the following H (1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 
HNO ,0ºC
HO
2

2
CH3CH2OH  N2  HCl
atoms is CH3 CH3
H3C
HC C H H2C CH H3C C H H3C CH2 H (2) + HI I
H3C
H
A B C D Br
(1) C < D < B < A (3) 
+ Br2
(2) A < B < C < D UV light
Br
(3) A < B < D < C
(4) D < C < B < A (4) C2H5CONH2  Br2  NaOH

®
 C2H5CH2 NH2  Na 2CO3  NaBr  H 2O
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
62. Match List I with List II
List I (Bio Polymer) List II (Monomer) 65. According to IUPAC system, the compound
A. Starch I. nucleotide OH
B. Cellulose II. -glucose is named as
C. Nucleic acid III. -glucose
D. Protein IV. -amino acid (1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
below :- (3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Ans. (4)
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Ans. (4) 66. The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is
(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)
63. Match List I with List II (2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
List I (Compound) List II (pKa value) (3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII)
A. Ethanol I. 10.0 (4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)
B. Phenol II. 15.9 Ans. (2)
C. m-Nitrophenol III. 7.1
D. p-Nitrophenol IV. 8.3 67. A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with
Choose the correct answer from the options given Nickel ions in basic medium is
below :- (1) sodium nitroprusside
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) neutral FeCl3
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) meta-dinitrobenzene
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) dimethyl glyoxime
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)

1
 49

68. Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of 71. The product A formed in the following reaction is:
sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolysed in NH2
NaNO2, HCl, 0ºC
A
presence of an acid results then Cu2Cl2
(1) Salicyclic acid NH2
(1)
(2) Benzene-1,2-diol Cl
–
(3) Benzene-1, 3-diol +
NH 3Cl
(4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (2)

Ans. (4)
Cl
(3)
69. Match List I with List II
Cl
List I
List II (4)

®
(Spectral Cl
(Spectral Region/Higher
Series for Ans. (3)
Energy State)
Hydrogen)
72. Identify the reagents used for the following
A. Lyman I. Infrared region
conversion
B. Balmer II. UV region O CH3
CHO

CHO
A B
C. Paschen III. Infrared region
O CHO
OH OH OH
CHO
C
D. Pfund IV. Visible region
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH2–
below :-
NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(alc), C =Zn/HCl
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (3) A = DIBAL-H, B= NaOH(aq), C= NH2–
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol

(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl

Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)

70. On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s reagent, a 73. Which of the following acts as a strong reducing
brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is agent? (Atomic number : Ce = 58, Eu = 63, Gd =
64, Lu = 71)
(1) H2S
(1) Lu3+
(2) CO2
(2) Gd3+
(3) NH3 (3) Eu2+
(4) Cl2 (4) Ce4+
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)

2
 50

74. Chromatographic technique/s based on the 78. Which one of the following will show geometrical
principle of differential adsorption is/are isomerism?
A. Column chromatography CHBr
B. Thin layer chromatography
CH 2
C. Paper chromatography
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (1) (2)
options given below:
(1) B only
Br Br
(2) A only
(3) A & B only CH 2
(4) C only CHBr
Ans. (3) (3) (4)

75. Which of the following statements are correct

about Zn, Cd and Hg? Br Br

®
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as Ans. (3)
the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation
79. Given below are two statements:
state while Hg shows +I and +II.
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative electron
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are
paramagnetic in nature. gain enthalpy in its group.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals. Statement II: Oxygen has least negative electron
Choose the most appropriate from the options gain enthalpy in its group.
given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) B, D only
(2) B, C only most appropriate from the options given below.
(3) A, D only (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) C, D only (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Ans. (1) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
76. The element having the highest first ionization
Ans. (4)
enthalpy is
(1) Si
80. Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its
(2) Al
(1) Large size and high electronegativity
(3) N
(4) C (2) Small size and low electronegativity
Ans. (3)
(3) Small size and high electronegativity
77. Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by
reaction with (4) Large size and low electronegativity
(1) NaCN
(2) NH4CN Ans. (3)
(3) KCN
(4) AgCN
Ans. (4)

3

SECTION-B
81. The total number of anti bonding molecular
orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a
diatomic molecule is _____________.
Ans. (4)
82. The oxidation number of iron in the compound
formed during brown ring test for NO3 ion is
_____.
Ans. (1)
83. The following concentrations were observed at 500
K for the formation of NH3 from N2 and H2. At
equilibrium : [N2] = 2 × 10–2 M,
[H2] = 3 ×10–2 M and [NH3] = 1.5 ×10–2M.
Equilibrium constant for the reaction is _______.
Ans. (417)
84. Molality of 0.8 M H2SO4 solution (density 1.06 g
cm–3) is _____________×10–3 m.
Ans. (815)
85. If 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is required to
neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of
NaOH in 50 mL of given NaOH solution is
_____g.
Ans. (4)
4
51
86. The total number of ‘Sigma’ and Pi bonds in 2-
formylhex-4-enoic acid is ____.
Ans. (22)
87. The half-life of radioisotopic bromine - 82 is 36
hours. The fraction which remains after one day is
___________ ×10–2.
(Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)
Ans. (63)
88. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for CCl4 is
30.5 kJ mol–1. Heat required for vapourisation of
284g of CCl4 at constant temperature is ______ kJ.
®
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 ; C = 12, Cl = 35.5)
Ans. (56)
89. A constant current was passed through a solution
of AuCl 4 ion between gold electrodes. After a
period of 10.0 minutes, the increase in mass of
cathode was 1.314 g. The total charge passed
through the solution is _________ × 10-2 F.
(Given atomic mass of Au = 197)
Ans. (2)
90. The total number of molecules with zero dipole
moment among CH4, BF3, H2O, HF, NH3, CO2 and
SO2 is _________.
Ans. (3)
 52

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 5. The maximum area of a triangle whose one vertex
1. A line passing through the point A(9, 0) makes an angle is at (0, 0) and the other two vertices lie on the
of 30º with the positive direction of x-axis. If this line is curve y = -2x2 + 54 at points (x, y) and (-x, y)
rotated about A through an angle of 15º in the clockwise
where y > 0 is :
direction, then its equation in the new position is
(1) 88
y x
(1) x9 (2)  y9 (2) 122
32 32
(3) 92
x y
(3)  y9 (4) x9 (4) 108
32 32

®
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
2. Let Sa denote the sum of first n terms an arithmetic n
n3
6. The value of lim  is :
progression. If S20 = 790 and S10 = 145, then S15 –
S5 is :
n  k 1
n 2
k 
 n 2
 3k 2

(1) 395 (2) 390
(1)
2 33  
(3) 405 (4) 410 24
Ans. (1) 13
(2)
3. If z = x + iy, xy  0 , satisfies the equation
2 2

8 4 3 3 
z  i z  0 , then |z | is equal to :
(1) 9 (2) 1 (3)

13 2 3  3  
1 8
(3) 4 (4)
4 
(4)
Ans. (2) 
8 2 3 3 
4. Let a  a i ˆi  a 2ˆj  a 3kˆ and b  b1ˆi  b2ˆj  b3kˆ be Ans. (2)
two vectors such that a  1; a.b  2 and b  4. If 7. Let g : R R be a non constant twice

 
c  2 a  b  3b , then the angle between b and c 1  3
differentiable such that g'    g'   . If a real
 2  2
is equal to :
valued function f is defined as
 2 
(1) cos 1   1
 3 f x  g  x   g  2  x   , then
2
 1 
(2) cos 1   
(1) f”(x) = 0 for atleast two x in (0, 2)
 3 (2) f”(x) = 0 for exactly one x in (0, 1)
 3 (3) f”(x) = 0 for no x in (0, 1)
(3) cos1  
 2 
   3 1
(4) f '    f '    1
2  2  2
(4) cos1  
3 Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)

1
 53

8. The area (in square units) of the region bounded by 13. Consider the system of linear equation x + y + z =
the parabola y2 = 4(x – 2) and the line y = 2x - 8 4, x + 2y + 2 z = 10 , x + 3y + 4  2z = 2 +15,
(1) 8 where  ,  R . Which one of the following
(2) 9
statements is NOT correct ?
(3) 6
1
(4) 7 (1) The system has unique solution if   and
2
Ans. (2)
  1 , 15
9. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential
equation sec x dy + {2(1 – x) tan x + x(2 – x)} 1
(2) The system is inconsistent if   and   1
dx = 0 such that y(0) = 2.Then y(2) is equal to : 2
(1) 2 (3) The system has infinite number of solutions if
(2) 2{1 – sin (2)} 1
  and   15
(3) 2{sin (2) + 1} 2
(4) 1 1
(4) The system is consistent if  
Ans. (1) 2

®
10. Let  , ,   be the foot of perpendicular from the Ans. (2)

point (1, 2, 3) on the line

x  3 y 1 z  4
  .
14. If the circles  x  12   y  22  r 2 and
5 2 3
x 2  y 2  4x  4y  4  0 intersect at exactly two
then 19        is equal to :
distinct points, then
(1) 102 (1) 5 < r < 9
(2) 101 (2) 0 < r < 7
(3) 99 (3) 3 < r < 7
(4) 100 1
Ans. (2) (4)  r  7
2
11. Two integers x and y are chosen with replacement Ans. (3)
from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ….., 10}. Then the 15. If the length of the minor axis of ellipse is equal to
probability that | x  y | 5 is : half of the distance between the foci, then the
30 eccentricity of the ellipse is :
(1)
121 5
62 (1)
(2) 3
121
3
60 (2)
(3) 2
121
1
31 (3)
(4) 3
121
Ans. (1) 2
(4)
12. If the domain of the function 5
Ans. (4)
1  2 x 1
f  x   cos     log e  3  x   is 16. Let M denote the median of the following
 4 
frequency distribution.
[, )  y , then      is equal to : Class 0-4 4-8 8-12 12-16 16-20
(1) 12 Frequency 3 9 10 8 6
(2) 9 Then 20 M is equal to :
(3) 11 (1) 416 (2) 104
(4) 8 (3) 52 (4) 208
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)

2
 54

2cos4 x 2sin 4 x 3  sin 2 2 x SECTION-B

17. If f  x   3  2cos4 x 2sin 4 x sin 2 2 x then 21. A group of 40 students appeared in an examination
2cos4 x 3  2sin 4 x sin 2 2 x of 3 subjects – Mathematics, Physics & Chemistry.
1 It was found that all students passed in at least one
f '  0  is equal to ______ of the subjects, 20 students passed in Mathematics,
5
(1) 0 (2) 1 25 students passed in Physics, 16 students passed
in Chemistry, at most 11 students passed in both
(3) 2 (4) 6
Mathematics and Physics, at most 15 students
Ans. (1)
passed in both Physics and Chemistry, at most 15
18. Let A (2, 3, 5) and C(-3, 4, -2) be opposite vertices
students passed in both Mathematics and
of a parallelogram ABCD if the diagonal
Chemistry. The maximum number of students
BD  iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ then the area of the parallelogram passed in all the three subjects is ________.
is equal to Ans. (10)
1 1 22. If d1 is the shortest distance between the lines
(1) (2)

®
410 474
2 2 x + 1 = 2y = -12z, x = y + 2 = 6z – 6 and d2 is the
(3)
1
586 (4)
1
306 shortest distance between the lines
2 2 x 1 y  8 z  4 x 1 y  2 z  6
  ,   , then the
Ans. (2) 2 7 5 2 1 3
19. If 2sin3x + sin 2x cos x + 4sinx – 4 = 0 has exactly 32 3d1
value of is :
 n  d2
3 solutions in the interval 0,  , n  N , then the
 2 Ans. (16)
roots of the equation x2  nx   n  3  0 belong
x 2 y2
23. Let the latus rectum of the hyperbola  1
to : 9 b2
(1)  0,  
subtend an angle of at the centre of the
(2)  ,0  3

 17 17  hyperbola. If b2 is equal to
l
m
 
1  n , where l
(3)  
 2 , 2  and m are co-prime numbers, then l2 + m2 + n2 is
 
(4) Z equal to __________
Ans. (2) Ans. (182)
   24. Let A = {1, 2, 3,….7} and let P(1) denote the
20. Let f :  ,   R be a differentiable function
 2 2 power set of A. If the number of functions
x f : A  P  A  such that a  f  a  , a  A is mn, m
1 x  f  t  dt
such that f  0   , If the lim 0 2  , and n  N and m is least, then m + n is equal to
2 x 0 e x  1
_______.
then 8 2 is equal to : Ans. (44)
(1) 16
 10x 
9
(2) 2 25. The value 9   dx , where [t] denotes the
x  1
(3) 1 0 
(4) 4 greatest integer less than or equal to t, is _____.
Ans. (2) Ans. (155)

3
 55

26. Number of integral terms in the expansion of

 1
824  , x 2
 1 1 29. If the function f x   x is
  2   
6
 7  11  is equal to ________.  2
  ax  2b, x  2
 
differentiable on R, then 48 (a + b) is equal to
Ans. (138)
27. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential _____.

 
   
equation (1 – x2) dy =  xy  x 3  2 3 1  x 2  dx,
Ans. (15)
1 m
1  x  1, y  0  =0. If y    , m and n are co- 30. Let   12  42  82  132  192  262  ...... upto
2 n
prime numbers, then m + n is equal to ________., 10
Ans. (97) 10 terms and    n 4 . If 4   55k  40 ,
n 1
2
28. Let ,  N be roots of equation x – 70x +  = 0,
then k is equal to __________.

®
 
where ,  N . If  assumes the minimum
2 3 Ans. (353)

possible value, then

 
  1    1    35 
is
 
equal to :
Ans. (60)

4
 56

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. Young’s modules of material of a wire of length
31. Match List-I with List-II. ‘L’ and cross-sectional area A is Y. If the length of
List-I List-II the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is
A. Coefficient of viscosity I. [M L2T–2] halved then Young’s modules will be :

B. Surface Tension II. [M L2T–1]

Y
(1) (2) 4Y
4
C. Angular momentum III. [M L–1T–1]
(3) Y (4) 2Y
0 –2
D. Rotational kinetic energy IV. [M L T ] Ans. (3)
35. The work function of a substance is 3.0 eV. The

®
(1) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV longest wavelength of light that can cause the
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I emission of photoelectrons from this substance is
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I approximately:
Ans. (3) (1) 215 nm (2) 414 nm
32. All surfaces shown in figure are assumed to be (3) 400 nm (4) 200 nm
frictionless and the pulleys and the string are light.
Ans. (2)
The acceleration of the block of mass 2 kg is :
36. The ratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy to
the potential energy of an electron in the 5th excited
state of a hydrogen atom is :
1
(1) 4 (2)
4
1
g (3) (4) 1
(1) g (2) 2
3
Ans. (3)
g g
(3) (4) 37. A particle is placed at the point A of a frictionless
2 4 track ABC as shown in figure. It is gently pushed
Ans. (2)
toward right. The speed of the particle when it
33. A potential divider circuit is shown in figure. The
output voltage V0 is reaches the point B is : (Take g = 10 m/s2).
4V A C

B
3.3k 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 1m
0.5m
V0
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 m / s
(1) 4V (2) 2 mV
(3) 0.5 V (4) 12 mV (3) 2 10 m / s (4) 10 m/s
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

1
 57

38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in 41. Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220
free space is represented as E  E0 cos t  kz  iˆ . V ac. Primary and secondary turns of the
transforms are 100 and 10 respectively. Secondary
The corresponding magnetic induction vector will
coil of transformer is connected to two series
be :
resistance shown in shown in figure. The output
(1) B  E0C cos t  kz  ˆj
voltage (V0) is :
E0
cos t  kz  ˆj
15k
(2) B 
C V0

(3) B  E0 Ccos t  kz  ˆj ~ 7k

220V
E0
(4) B  cos t  kz  ˆj
C (1) 7 V
Ans. (2) (2) 15 V

®
39. Two insulated circular loop A and B radius ‘a’ (3) 44 V
carrying a current of ‘I’ in the anti clockwise (4) 22 V
direction as shown in figure. The magnitude of the Ans. (1)
magnetic induction at the centre will be : 42. The gravitational potential at a point above the
B
surface of earth is 5.12 107 J / kg and the
acceleration due to gravity at that point is 6.4 m/s2.
Assume that the mean radius of earth to be 6400
O
km. The height of this point above the earth’s
A
surface is :
(1) 1600 km
(2) 540 km
2 0 I I
(1) (2) 0 (3) 1200 km
a 2a
(4) 1000 km
I 20 I
(3) 0 (4) Ans. (1)
2a a
43. An electric toaster has resistance of 60  at room
Ans. (3)
temperature (27ºC). The toaster is connected to a
40. The diffraction pattern of a light of wavelength
400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0.2 mm is 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it

focused on the focal plane of a convex lens of focal reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by toaster
length 100 cm. The width of the 1st secondary is around : (if   2 104 /º C )
maxima will be : (1) 694ºC
(1) 2 mm (2) 1235ºC
(2) 2 cm (3) 1694ºC
(3) 0.02 mm (4) 1667ºC
(4) 0.2 mm Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)

2
 58

44. A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10V is used 47. A spherical body of mass 100 g is dropped from a
as a voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The height of 10 m from the ground. After hitting the
current through the Zener diode is ground, the body rebounds to a height of 5m. The
200 500 impulse of force imparted by the ground to the
body is given by : (given g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 4.32 kg ms–1
20V (2) 43.2 kg ms–1
(3) 23.9 kg ms–1
(4) 2.39 kg ms–1
(1) 50 mA (2) 0 Ans. (4)
(3) 30 mA (4) 20 mA
48. A particle of mass m projected with a velocity ‘u’
Ans. (3)
making an angle of 30º with the horizontal. The
45. Two thermodynamical process are shown in the

®
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile
figure. The molar heat capacity for process A and
about the point of projection when the particle is at
B are CA and CB. The molar heat capacity at
constant pressure and constant volume are its maximum height h is :
represented by CP and CV, respectively. Choose the 3 mu 3 3 mu 2
(1) (2)
correct statement. 16 g 2 g
log P mu 3
(3) (4) zero
2g
tan–1  Ans. (1)
49. At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a
A 45º hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen
B molecule at 47ºC?
O (1) 80 K (2) –73 K
log V
(1) CB  , C A  0 (3) 4 K (4) 20 K
Ans. (4)
(2) C A  0 and CB  
50. A series L,R circuit connected with an ac source
(3) CP  CV  C A  CB
1
E = (25 sin 1000 t) V has a power factor of . If
(4) C A  CP  CV 2
Ans. (Bonus) the source of emf is changed to E = (20 sin 2000 t)V,
46. The electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole the new power factor of the circuit will be :
at a distance ‘r’ varies as : 1 1
1 (1) (2)
(1) r (2) 2 3
r2
1 1
1 1 (3) (4)
(3) 3 (4) 5 7
r r
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

3
 59

SECTION-B 55. The distance between object and its two times
51. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field magnified real image as produced by a convex lens
is 45 cm. The focal length of the lens used is
at a place is 3.5 105 T . A very long straight ______ cm.
conductor carrying current of 2A in the Ans. (10)
56. The displacement and the increase in the
direction from South east to North West is placed.
The force per unit length experienced by the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval
conductor is ……… × 10–6 N/m.
of t to (t + 1) s are 125 m and 50 m/s,
Ans. (35)
52. Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. respectively. The distance travelled by the

Cell E1 is of 8 V emf and 2  internal resistance; particle in (t + 2) th s is ____ m.

the cell E2 is of 2 V emf and 4  internal

®
resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell Ans. (175)
E2 is:
57. A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has
E1 B E2
A C energy E. It is connected to another capacitor of

capacitance 2 C and potential 2V. Then the loss of

x
energy is E , where x is _____ .
Ans. (6) 3
53. A electron of hydrogen atom on an excited state is
Ans. (2)
having energy En = – 0.85 eV. The maximum
number of allowed transitions to lower energy 58. Consider a Disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2m, rotating with
level is ….. . . angular velocity of 10 rad/s about an axis
Ans. (6) perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical disc
54. Each of three blocks P, Q and R shown in figure is kept gently over the rotating disc along the same
has a mass of 3 kg. Each of the wire A and B has
axis. The energy dissipated so that both the discs
cross-sectional area 0.005 cm2 and Young’s
modulus 2 × 1011 N m–2. Neglecting friction, the continue to rotate together without slipping is _____ J.
longitudinal strain on wire B is _____ × 10–4.
= 10 rad/sec
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
A B Mass = 5kg
P Q
2m

R
Ans. (2) Ans. (250)

4

59. In a closed organ pipe, the frequency of
fundamental note is 30 Hz. A certain amount of
water is now poured in the organ pipe so that the
fundamental frequency is increased to 110 Hz. If
the organ pipe has a cross-sectional area of 2 cm2,
the amount of water poured in the organ tube is
_______ g. (Take speed of sound in air is 330 m/s)
Ans. (400)
5
60
60. A ceiling fan having 3 blades of length 80 cm each
is rotating with an angular velocity of 1200 rpm.
The magnetic field of earth in that region is 0.5 G
and angle of dip is 30º. The emf induced across the
blades is N 105V . The value of N is _____ .
Ans. (32)
 61

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 63. Sugar which does not give reddish brown
61. Given below are two statements:
precipitate with Fehling’s reagent is:

Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt (1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
with dil H2SO4, turns a piece of paper dipped in
(3) Glucose (4) Maltose
lead acetate into black, it is a confirmatory test for
sulphide ion. Ans. (1)

Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper 64. Given below are the two statements: one is labeled

turns black because of formation of lead sulphite.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
®
as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in
covalent radius from N to P. However from As to
Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is
observed.
Reason (R): covalent and ionic radii in a particular
oxidation state increases down the group.

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. In the light of the above statement, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
Ans. (3)
below:
O
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
C CHO
Cl H2 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
62. Pd-BaSO4 correct explanation of (A)

This reduction reaction is known as: (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(1) Rosenmund reduction (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct

(2) Wolff-Kishner reduction explanation of (A)

(3) Stephen reduction Ans. (2)
(4) Etard reduction
Ans. (1)

1
 62

65. Which of the following molecule/species is most 69. Example of vinylic halide is
stable? CH2 X
 X

(1) (2)

(1) (2) X
X

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) 70. Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is
66. Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are: CH3 O
| ||
(1) Nd3+ and Eu3+ (2) La3+ and Ce4+ (1) H 2 C  C  C  CH 2  C  H

®
| |
H H
(3) Nd3+ and Ce4+ (4) Lu3+ and Eu3+
O
Ans. (2) ||
(2) CH3  CH 2  C  CH  C  H
67. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution |
CH 3
forms an ion having geometry
O
(1) Octahedral ||
(3) CH3  CH 2  CH  C  C  H
(2) Square Planar |
CH 3
(3) Tetrahedral O
||
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) CH3  CH  CH  CH  C  H
|
Ans. (1) CH3

68. Given below are two statements: Ans. (4)

71. Match List-I with List-II
Statement-I: The orbitals having same energy are
called as degenerate orbitals. List-I List-II

Statement-II: In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d Molecule Shape

orbitals are not degenerate orbitals. (A) BrF5 (I) T-shape

In the light of the above statements, choose the (B) H2O (II) See saw
most appropriate answer from the options given (C) ClF3 (III) Bent

(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Ans. (1)
(D) SF4 (IV) Square pyramidal
(1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-IV, (D)-III
(2) (A) –II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
(4) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
Ans. (4)

2
 63

72. The final product A, formed in the following 75. What happens to freezing point of benzene when
multistep reaction sequence is:
small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene?
(i) Mg, ether
Br then CO,2 H+ (1) Increases
(ii) NH3 , 
A (2) Remains unchanged
(iii) Br2, NaOH
(3) First decreases and then increases
O
NH2 (4) Decreases
NH2
(1) (2) Ans. (4)

O O 76. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Br OH
(3) (4) Species Electronic distribution

®
Ans. (2) (A) Cr+2 (I) 3d8
73. In the given reactions identify the reagent A and (B) Mn+ (II) 3d34s1
reagent B
CH 3 (C) Ni+2 (III) 3d4
“A” + (CH3 CO)2 O
[Intermediate]
273-283K H3 O+
 (D) V+ (IV) 3d54s1
CHO
“B” + CS2
[Intermediate] Choose the correct answer from the options given
+
H3O
below:
(1) A-CrO3 B-CrO3
(2) A-CrO3 B-CrO2Cl2 (1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(3) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO2Cl2 (2) (A)-III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D)-II
(4) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO3
(3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
Ans. (2)
74. Given below are two statement one is labeled as (4) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III
Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Ans. (2)
Assertion (A): CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl is an
example of allyl halide 77. Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in
with B gives the product C. Find out A and B.
which the halogen atom is attached to sp2
hybridised carbon atom. CH3  C  CH  Na  A 
B
 CH3  C  C  CH 2  CH 2  NaBr
In the light of the two above statements, choose the (C) |
CH3
most appropriate answer from the options given 
below: (1) A=CH3 –C CN a , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) A=CH3–CH= CH2, B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (3) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH3, B = CH3 – C  CH
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true 
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) A = CH3 – C  CNa , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH3
explanation of (A)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)

3
 64

Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/30-01-2024/Morning Session

78. Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic SECTION-B
primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B) 81. The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at
10 minutes and 0.03 mol L-1 s-1 at 20 minutes after
A Åy B
NH2 N2 Cl Scarlet red dye initiation. Half life of the reaction is _______
NaOH
minutes. (Given log2=0.3010, log3=0.4771)
OH Ans. (24.08)
(1) A = HNO3/H2SO4; B= 82. The pH at which Mg(OH)2 [Ksp = 1 × 10-11] begins
to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M
NH2
(2) A= NaNO2 + HCl, 0 – 5°C;
B= Mg2+ ions is ______
Ans. (09)
OH 83.

(3) A=NaNO2 + HCl, 0 – 5°C; B= B

V 30

®
3
(dm )
OH 20
B=
(4) A = NaNO2 + HCl, 0 – 5°C; 10 C
A
Ans. (4)
0 10 20 30
79. The Lassiagne’s extract is boiled with dil HNO3
P(kPa)
before testing for halogens because,
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation
(1) AgCN is soluble in HNO3 starting from the point A and coming back to the
(2) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3 same point by tracing the path A ® B ® C ® A
(3) Ag2S is soluble in HNO3 as shown in the diagram. The total work done in
(4) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3 the process is _____ J.
Ans. (200)
Ans. (4)
84. if IUPAC name of an element is “Unununnium”
80. Choose the correct Statements from the following:
then the element belongs to nth group of periodic
(A)Ethane-1 2-diamine is a chelating ligand.
(B) Metallic aluminium is produced by elecrtrolysis table. The value of n is______
of aluminium oxide in presence of cryolite.
Ans. (11)
(C) Cyanide ion is used as ligand for leaching of
silver. 85. The total number of molecular orbitals formed
(D)Phosphine act as a ligand in Wilkinson catalyst.
from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic
(E) The stability constants of Ca 2+ and Mg2+ are
molecule
similar with EDTA complexes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. (08)
below:
86. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic
(1) (B), (C), (E) only
compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent
(2) (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) only moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the
(4) (A), (D), (E) only organic compound is _____ × 10-1
Ans. (3) Ans. (07)

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87. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal
with semicarbazide contains _____number of
nitrogen atoms.
Ans. (03)
88. 0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a
plate of 0.05 m2 area. The number of silver atoms
89. 2MnO4  bI  cH2O  x I2  yMnO2  zOH
If the above equation is balanced with integer
coefficients, the value of z is _______
Ans. (08)
90. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required

deposited on plate are _____ × 1023. to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is
____ g. (Molar mass of CH3COONa is
-3
(At mass Ag = 108, d = 7.9 g cm ) 82.02 g mol-1)

Ans. (11.01) Ans. (7.18)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 4. Let a  ˆi  ˆj  k,
ˆ  ,  R . Let a vector b be such
1. Consider the system of linear equations  2
that the angle between a and b is and b  6 ,
x + y + z = 5, x + 2y +2z = 9, 4
If a . b  3 2 , then the value of   2  2  a  b
2
x + 3y +z = , where ,   R. Then, which of is
the following statement is NOT correct? equal to
(1) 90 (2) 75
(1) System has infinite number of solution if 1
(3) 95 (4) 85
and  =13 Ans. (1)
(2) System is inconsistent if 1 and   13 5. Let f(x)  (x  3)2 (x  2)3 , x [4, 4] . If M and m are

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(3) System is consistent if 1 and  13 the maximum and minimum values of f,
respectively in [–4, 4], then the value of M – m is :
(4) System has unique solution if 1 and   13
(1) 600 (2) 392
Ans. (4)
(3) 608 (4) 108
 
2. For ,   0, , let 3sin ( )  2sin( ) and a Ans. (3)
 2 
6. Let a and b be be two distinct positive real
real number k be such that tan   k tan  . Then the numbers. Let 11th term of a GP, whose first term is
value of k is equal to : a and third term is b, is equal to pth term of another
2 GP, whose first term is a and fifth term is b. Then p
(1)  (2) –5
3 is equal to
2 (1) 20 (2) 25
(3) (4) 5
3 (3) 21 (4) 24
Ans. (2 ) Ans. (3)
3. Let A(, 0) and B(0, ) be the points on the line 7. If x2 – y2 + 2hxy + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 is the locus of
5x + 7y = 50. Let the point P divide the line a point, which moves such that it is always
segment AB internally in the ratio 7 : 3. Let 3x – equidistant from the lines x + 2y + 7 = 0 and 2x – y
+ 8 = 0, then the value of g + c + h – f equals
x2 y2
25 = 0 be a directrix of the ellipse E : 2  2  1 (1) 14 (2) 6
a b
(3) 8 (4) 29
and the corresponding focus be S. If from S, the
Ans. (1)
perpendicular on the x-axis passes through P, then
8. Let a and b be two vectors such that
the length of the latus rectum of E is equal to
2
25 32 | b |  1 and | b  a | 2 . Then (b  a)  b is equal
(1) (2)
3 9 to
25 32 (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) (4)
9 5 (3) 1 (4) 4
Ans. (4 ) Ans. (2)

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9. Let y  f(x) be a thrice differentiable function in 13. Let L1 : r  (iˆ  ˆj  2k)

ˆ  (iˆ  ˆj  2k),
ˆ R
(–5, 5). Let the tangents to the curve y=f(x) at L2 : r  ( ˆj  k)
ˆ (3iˆ  ˆj  pk),
ˆ R and
  L3 : r  ( ˆi  mjˆ  nk)
ˆ R
(1, f(1)) and (3, f(3)) make angles and ,
6 4
Be three lines such that L1 is perpendicular to L2
respectively with positive x-axis. If
and L3 is perpendicular to both L1 and L2. Then the
 
3
27   f (t)   1 f (t)dt     3
2
where , are point which lies on L3 is
1 (1) ) (–1, 7, 4) (2) (–1, –7, 4)
integers, then the value of  +  equals (3) (1, 7, –4) (4) (1, –7, 4)
(1) –14 (2) 26 Ans. (1)
14. Let a and b be real constants such that the function
(3) –16 (4) 36
 x 2  3x  a , x  1
Ans. (2) f defined by f(x)   be
x2 y2  bx  2 , x 1
10. Let P be a point on the hyperbola H :  1, 2
9 4

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in the first quadrant such that the area of triangle
differentiable on R. Then, the value of  f(x)dx
2

formed by P and the two foci of H is 2 13 . Then, equals

15 19
the square of the distance of P from the origin is (1) (2)
6 6
(1) 18 (2) 26
(3) 21 (4) 17
(3) 22 (4) 20
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) 15. Let f :  {0}  be a function satisfying
11. Bag A contains 3 white, 7 red balls and bag B
 x  f(x)
contains 3 white, 2 red balls. One bag is selected at f   for all x, y, f(y)  0. If f (1) = 2024, then
y
  f(y)
random and a ball is drawn from it. The probability
(1) xf (x) – 2024 f(x) = 0
of drawing the ball from the bag A, if the ball
(2) xf(x) + 2024f(x) = 0
drawn in white, is :
(3) xf(x) +f(x) = 2024
1 1 (4) xf(x) –2023f(x) = 0
(1) (2)
4 9
Ans. (1)
1 3 16. If z is a complex number, then the number of
(3) (4)
3 10 common roots of the equation z1985  z100 1  0 and
Ans. (3) z3  2z2  2z  1  0 , is equal to :
12. Let f : R R be defined f(x)  ae2x  bex  cx . If (1) 1 (2) 2
f(0)  1 , f (loge 2)  21 and (3) 0 (4) 3
loge 4 Ans. (2)
39
  f(x)  cx  dx 
0
2
, then the value of |a+b+c| 17. Suppose 2 – p, p, 2 – are the coefficient of
four consecutive terms in the expansion of (1+x)n.
equals :
Then the value of p2 2  6  2p equals
(1) 16 (2) 10
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 8 (3) 8 (4) 6
Ans. (4) Ans. (Bonus )

2
 68

18. If the domain of the function f(x) = loge 22. Let a line passing through the point (–1, 2, 3)
 2x  3  1  2x  1  x 1 y  2 z 1
 4x 2  x  3   cos  x  2  is (, ], then the intersect the lines L1 :   at
    3 2 2
value of 5 – 4 is equal to x  2 y  2 z 1
(1) 10 (2) 12 M  , ,   and L2 :   at
3 2 4
(3) 11 (4) 9
Ans. (2) N(a, b, c). Then the value of
      2 equals
19. Let f : R  R be a function defined  a  b  c 2
x ____.
f(x)  and g(x)  f(f(f(f(x)))) then
(1  x 4 )1/ 4
Ans. (196)
2 5
23. Consider two circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 25 and C2 : (x –
18  x 2 g(x)dx
0 )2 + y2 = 16, where  (5, 9). Let the angle
(1) 33 (2) 36 between the two radii (one to each circle) drawn
(3) 42 (4) 39 from one of the intersection points of C1 and C2 be

®
Ans. (4)
 63 
x 0 0 sin 1   . If the length of common chord of C1
   8 
20. Let R =  0 y 0  be a non-zero 3 × 3 matrix,
0 0 z and C2 is , then the value of ()2 equals _____ .
 
 2   4  Ans. (1575)
where x sin  = y sin      z sin   
3   n
 
3  2
  Ck n 1  n
n
  C k n C k 1 
 0,  (0,2 ) . For a square matrix M, let trace 24. Let    and     .
k 0
 k  1  k0  k  2 
(M) denote the sum of all the diagonal entries of  
M. Then, among the statements: If 5 = 6, then n equals ___________ .
(I) Trace (R) = 0
Ans. (10)
(II) If trace (adj(adj(R)) = 0, then R has exactly one
non-zero entry. 25. Let Sn be the sum to n-terms of an arithmetic
(1) Both (I) and (II) are true progression 3, 7, 11, ...... . If
(2) Neither (I) nor (II) is true  6 n 
(3) Only (II) is true 40    Sk   42 , then n equals _____ .
 n  n  1 k 1 
(4) Only (I) is true
Ans. (3) Ans. (9)
SECTION-B 26. In an examination of Mathematics paper, there are
20 questions of equal marks and the question paper
21. Let Y = Y(X) be a curve lying in the first quadrant
is divided into three sections : A, B and C . A
such that the area enclosed by the line
student is required to attempt total 15 questions
Y – y = Y(x) (X – x) and the co-ordinate axes,
taking at least 4 questions from each section. If
where (x, y) is any point on the curve, is always
section A has 8 questions, section B has 6
y2
 1 , Y(x)  0. If Y(1) = 1, then 12Y(2) questions and section C has 6 questions, then the
2Y   x 
total number of ways a student can select 15
equals ______ .
questions is _______ .
Ans. (20)
Ans. (11376)

3
 69

27. The number of symmetric relations defined on the 29. The area of the region enclosed by the parabola
set {1, 2, 3, 4} which are not reflexive is _____ . (y – 2)2 = x – 1, the line x – 2y + 4 = 0 and the
Ans. ( 960) positive coordinate axes is ______.
28. The number of real solutions of the equation Ans. (5)

 
x x2  3 x  5 x  1  6 x  2  0 is ______ . 30. The variance 2 of the data
xi 0 1 5 6 10 12 17
Ans. (1)
fi 3 2 3 2 6 3 3
Is _______ .
Ans. (29)

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 70

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 34. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and
31. If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the
divisions of a travelling microscope and one
following curves represent the phenomenon
smallest reading of main scale is 0.5 mm, the
Vernier constant of travelling microscope is: qualitatively:
(1) 0.1 mm (1)
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.01 cm

Temperature
(4) 0.01 mm
Ans. (4)
32. A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface

®
inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60° by a force Heat supplied
of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface as shown in (2)
figure. When the block is pushed up by 10 m along
inclined surface, the work done against frictional

Temperature
force is : [g = 10 m/s2]
10 N

Heat supplied
M (3)
s = 0.1
Temperature

60°
(1) 5 3 J
Heat supplied
(2) 5 J
(4)
(3) 5 × 103 J
(4) 10 J
Temperature

Ans. (2)
33. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic
energy (Ek) of the photoelectrons is plotted against
the frequency (v) of the incident photons as shown Heat supplied
in figure. The slope of the graph gives Ans. (4)
35. In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass
M, three similar daughter nuclei of same mass are
Ek
formed. The speed of a daughter nuclei in terms of
 mass defect M will be :
v 2cM Mc2
(1) (2)
(1) Ratio of Planck’s constant to electric charge
M 3
(2) Work function of the metal 2 M 3M
(3) Charge of electron (3) c (4) c
M M
(4) Planck’s constant
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)

1
 71

36. Choose the correct statement for processes A & B 41. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is
shown in figure. passed through a polaroid A and then through
P another polaroid B which is oriented so that its
principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to
that of A. The intensity of emergent light is :
(1) I0/4 (2) I0
B
A (3) I0/2 (4) I0/8
Ans. (1)
42. Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s.
V If the radius of a planet be one-third the radius of

(1) PV = k for process B and PV = k for process A. earth and mass be one-sixth that of earth, the
(2) PV = k for process B and A. escape velocity from the plate is:
(1) 11.2 km/s
P  1 (2) 8.4 km/s
(3)  k for process B and T = k for process A.
T (3) 4.2 km/s
T (4) 7.9 km/s
(4)  k for process A and PV = k for process B. Ans. (4)
P  1

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43. A particle of charge ‘–q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a
Ans. (1 & 3) circle of radius ‘r’ around an infinitely long line
37. An electron revolving in nth Bohr orbit has charge of linear density ‘+’. Then time period
magnetic moment  n . If  n n x , the value of x is: will be given as:
(Consider k as Coulomb’s constant)
(1) 2 (2) 1
2 4 2 m 3
(3) 3 (4) 0 (1) T  r
2kq
Ans. (2)
38. An alternating voltage V(t) = 220 sin 100 t volt is m
(2) T  2r
applied to a purely resistive load of 50 . The time 2kq
taken for the current to rise from half of the peak 1 m
(3) T 
value to the peak value is: 2r 2kq
(1) 5 ms (2) 3.3 ms
1 2kq
(3) 7.2 ms (4) 2.2 ms (4) T 
2 m
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
39. A block of mass m is placed on a surface having 44. If mass is written as m = k cP G–1/2 h1/2 then the
vertical cross section given by y = x2/4. If value of P will be : (Constants have their usual
coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height meaning with k a dimensionless constant)
above the ground at which block can be placed (1) 1/2 (2) 1/3
without slipping is: (3)2 (4) –1/3
(1) 1/4 m (2) 1/2 m Ans. (1)
45. In the given circuit, the voltage across load
(3) 1/6 m (4) 1/3 m
resistance (RL) is:
Ans. (1) 1.5 k
40. If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t
is 6.48 × 105 J, then the magnitude of the total D1 D2
momentum delivered to this surface for complete (Ge) (Si)
absorption will be : 15V RL 2.5 k
(1) 2.46 × 10–3 kg m/s
(2) 2.16 × 10–3 kg m/s
(3) 1.58 × 10–3 kg m/s (1) 8.75 V (2) 9.00 V
(4) 4.32 × 10–3 kg m/s (3) 8.50 V (4) 14.00 V
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

2
 72

 5 50. Projectiles A and B are thrown at angles of 45° and

46. If three moles of monoatomic gas     is 60° with vertical respectively from top of a 400 m high
 3
tower. If their ranges and times of flight are same, the
 7 ratio of their speeds of projection vA : vB is :
mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas     ,
 5 (1) 1: 3 (2) 2 :1
the value of adiabatic exponent  for the mixture is:
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2
(1) 1.75 (2) 1.40
Ans. (Bonus)
(3) 1.52 (3) 1.35
SECTION-B
Ans. (3)
51. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2.3
47. Three blocks A, B and C are pulled on a horizontal
kV to a step down transformer with its primary
smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in
winding having 3000 turns. The output power is
figure
A B C delivered at 230 V by the transformer. The current
T1 T2 F=80N in the primary of the transformer is 5A and its
5 kg 3 kg 2 kg efficiency is 90%. The winding of transformer is
The tensions T1 and T2 in the string are made of copper. The output current of transformer
respectively: is_____A.

®
(1) 40N, 64N Ans. (45)
(2) 60N, 80N 52. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small
(3) 88N, 96N identical drops of water. If E1 be the total surface
(4) 80N, 100N energy of 1000 small drops of water and E2 be the
Ans. (1) surface energy of single big drop of water, the E1 :
48. When a potential difference V is applied across a E2 is x : 1 where x = ________.
wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a rate Ans. (10)
W. If the wire is cut into two halves and these 53. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 = 4 kg m2 and
halves are connected mutually parallel across the I2 = 2 kg m2 about their central axes & normal to
same supply, the same supply, the energy their planes, rotating with angular speeds 10 rad/s
dissipation rate will become: & 4 rad/s respectively are brought into contact face
(1) 1/4W to face with their axe of rotation coincident. The
(2) 1/2W loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process
(3) 2W is_____J.
(4) 4W Ans. (24)
Ans. (4) 54. In an experiment to measure the focal length (f) of
49. Match List I with List II a convex lens, the magnitude of object distance (x)
List-I List-II and the image distance (y) are measured with
reference to the focal point of the lens. The y-x
A. Gauss’s law of I. 1
magnetostatics o E  da 
0 
dV plot is shown in figure.
The focal length of the lens is_____cm.
B. Faraday’s law of II.
electro magnetic o B  da  0
40
induction A
C. Ampere’s law III. d
o E  dl  dt  B  da 30 y B
(cm)
D. Gauss’s law of IV. o B  dl   I
electrostatics
 0 20 C

Choose the correct answer from the options given

D E
below: 10
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I x (cm)
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 10 20 30 40
Ans. (4) Ans. (20)

3

55. A vector has magnitude same as that of
A   3jˆ  4ˆj and is parallel to B  4iˆ  3jˆ . The x
and y components of this vector in first quadrant
are x and 3 respectively where x = _______.
Ans. (4)
56. The current of 5A flows in a square loop of sides
1 m is placed in air. The magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is X 2 107 T . The value of X
is_____.
Ans. (40)
57. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by
string of equal lengths. The string make an angle of
37° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of
density 0.7 g/cm3, the angle remains same. If
density of material of the sphere is 1.4 g/cm3, the
dielectric constant of the liquid is _________
 3
 tan 37  4  .
 
Ans. (2)
4
73
58. A simple pendulum is placed at a place where its
distance from the earth’s surface is equal to the
radius of the earth. If the length of the string is 4m,
then the time period of small oscillations will be
_______s. [take g = 2 ms–2]
Ans. (8)
59. A point source is emitting sound waves of intensity
16 × 10–8 Wm–2 at the origin. The difference in
intensity (magnitude only) at two points located at
a distances of 2m and 4m from the origin
respectively will be _______ × 10–8 Wm–2.
Ans. (Bonus)
60. Two resistance of 100  and 200  are connected
in series with a battery of 4 V and negligible
internal resistance. A voltmeter is used to measure
voltage across 100  resistance, which gives
®
reading as 1 V. The resistance of voltmeter must
be______.
Ans. (200)
 74

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 64. m–chlorobenzaldehyde on treatment with 50%
61. Which among the following purification methods KOH solution yields
is based on the principle of “Solubility” in two OH O
different solvents? CH C
(1)
(1) Column Chromatography
(2) Sublimation
Cl Cl
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential Extraction COO
CH2OH
Ans. (4) (2) +

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62. Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when Cl Cl
O O
reacted with
O C H C H
(3) +

(1) H Cl , NaOH OH OH
(2) CO2, NaOH COO CH2OH
(3) CCl4, NaOH
(4) +
(4) HCCl3, NaOH
Ans. (4) OH OH

63. Given below are two statements: Ans. (2)

Statement – I: High concentration of strong
nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides
which do not have bulky substituents will follow
SN2 mechanism.
Statement – II: A secondary alkyl halide when
treated with a large excess of ethanol follows SN1
mechanism.
In the the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate from the questions given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Ans. (4)
65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : H2Te is more acidic than H2S.
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te is
lower than H2S.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the
most appropriate from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Ans. (2)

1
 75

66. Product A and B formed in the following set of Cl NO2 HO

reactions are: , NO2

(1)
B 2H6 CH3 H+/H2O
B A
H2O2,NaOH(aq.)
NH2 NH2

(2) ,

CH2OH CH2OH
OH
(1) A= B=
NH2
OH , HO N N
(3)
CH3 CH3
(2) A= OH B=
OH NH2
, N N
CH2OH CH3 (4)

®
(3) A= B= OH
OH
CH3 CH3 Ans. (3)
(4) A= B= OH
OH 69. The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is:
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) PCl5
Ans. (2)
(3) BrF5 (4) PF5
67. IUPAC name of following compound is Ans. (3)
CH3—CH—CH2—CN
NH2 70. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and purple colour of
KMnO4 is due to
(1) 2–Aminopentanenitrile
(1) Charge transfer transition in both.
(2) 2–Aminobutanenitrile (2) dd transition in KMnO4 and charge transfer
(3) 3–Aminobutanenitrile transitions in K2Cr2O7.

(4) 3–Aminopropanenitrile (3) dd transition in K2Cr2O7 and charge transfer

transitions in KMnO4.
Ans. (3)
(4) dd transition in both.
Ans. (1)
68. The products A and B formed in the following
71. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 gives “A”
reaction scheme are respectively which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution
(i) conc.HNO3/conc.H2SO4 produces B. A and B respectively are:
323–333 K (i) NaNO2, HCl, 273–278 K
(ii) Sn/HCl
(1) Mn2O7 and MnO4– (2) MnO42– and MnO4–
(ii) Phenol
A B (3) Mn2O3 and MnO42– (4) MnO42– and Mn2O7
Ans. (2)

2
 76

72. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a mixture 76. The correct stability order of carbocations is
of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective number of moles   
(1) (CH3 )3 C   CH3  C H 2  (CH3 )2 C H  C H 3
as nA, nB and nC, mole fraction of C in the solution is:
   
nC nC (2) C H3  (CH3 )2 C H  CH 3  C H 2  (CH 3 )3 C
(1) (2)
n A  nB  nC n A  nB  nC    
nC nB (3) (CH3 )3 C  (CH3 )2 C H  CH3  C H 2  C H 3
(3) (4)
n A – nB – nC n A  nB   
(4) C H3  CH3  C H 2  CH3  C H  (CH 3 )C 
Ans. (2) |
CH3
73. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I: Along the period, the chemical Ans. (3)
reactivity of the element gradually increases from
group 1 to group 18. 77. The solution from the following with highest
Statement – II: The nature of oxides formed by depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water
group 1 element is basic while that of group 17
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
elements is acidic.

®
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
In the the light above statements, choose the most (4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
appropriate from the questions given below: Ans. (1)
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is False. 78. A and B formed in the following reactions are:
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. CrO 2 Cl 2  4NaOH  A  2NaCl  2H 2O
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II is false. A  2HCl  2H 2 O 2  B  3H 2 O
Ans. (3)
(1) A = Na2CrO4, B = CrO5
(2) A = Na2Cr2O4, B = CrO4
74. The coordination geometry around the manganese (3) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO3
in decarbonyldimanganese(0) (4) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO5
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal Ans. (1)
(3) Square pyramidal (4) Square planar
Ans. (1) 79. Choose the correct statements about the hydrides
of group 15 elements.
75. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Since fluorine is more electronegative A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the
than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF3 is greater order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
than NH3. B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases in
Statement-II: In NH3, the orbital dipole due to the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are
C. Among the hydrides, NH3 is strong reducing
in opposite direction, but in NF3 the orbital dipole
due to lone pair and dipole moments of N-F bonds agent while BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
are in same direction. D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the
In the light of the above statements. Choose the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
most appropriate from the options given below. Choose the most appropriate from the option given
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
below:
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II is are true. (1) B and C only (2) C and D only
(4) Statement I is flase but Statement II is are true. (3) A and B only (4) A and D only
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)

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 77

80. Reduction potential of ions are given below: 84. The total number of correct statements, regarding
ClO4 IO4 BrO4 the nucleic acids is_________.
E  1.19V E  1.65V E  1.74V A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic
information.
The correct order of their oxidising power is:
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell
(1) ClO4  IO4  BrO4
division
(2) BrO4  IO4  ClO4 C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
(3) BrO4  ClO4  IO4 D. The message for the synthesis of particular
proteins is present in DNA
(4) IO4  BrO4  ClO4
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to
Ans. (2) daughter cells.
Ans. (3)
SECTION-B
81. Number of complexes which show optical 85. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1M

®
isomerism among the following is ________.
benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1M sodium benzoate
3– 3
cis  [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ] , [Co(en)3 ] ,
is 4.5. The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300
2 
cis  [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ] , cis  [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] ,
mL of this buffer solution is _______ mL.
2 3–
trans  [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ] , trans  [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ]
Ans. (100)
Ans. (4)

86. Number of geometrical isomers possible for the

82. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by
given structure is/are ___________.
decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 as by equation
D
2N 2O 5 g  4 NO 2(g)  O 2(g)
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3 mol L–1 and it H H
–1
is 2.75 mol L after 30 minutes.
–3 –1
The rate of formation of NO2 is x × 10 mol L
D
min–1 , value of x is ________.
Ans. (4)
Ans. (17)

87. Total number of species from the following which

83. Two reactions are given below:
can undergo disproportionation reaction _______.
3
2Fe s  O 2(g)  Fe 2O3(s) , Hº  –822 kJ / mol H2O2 ,ClO3– , P4 ,Cl 2 ,Ag,Cu 1, F2 ,NO2 ,K 
2
Ans. (6)
1
Cs  O 2(g)  CO(g) , Hº  –110 kJ / mol
2
Then enthalpy change for following reaction 88. Number of metal ions characterized by flame test
among the following is _______.
3C s  Fe 2O 3(s)  2Fe(s)  3CO(g)
Sr 2 ,Ba 2 ,Ca 2 ,Cu 2 , Zn 2 ,Co2 , Fe 2
Ans. (492)
Ans. (4)

4
 78

89. 2-chlorobutane + Cl2  C4H8Cl2(isomers) 90. Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra,

Total number of optically active isomers shown by when an electron makes transition from fifth

C4H8Cl2, obtained in the above reaction is_______. excited state to first excited state will be

Ans. (6) Ans. (10)

5
 79

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 4. If one of the diameters of the circle x2 + y2 – 10x +
1. For 0 < c < b < a, let (a + b – 2c)x2 + (b + c – 2a) x 4y + 13 = 0 is a chord of another circle C, whose
+ (c + a – 2b) = 0 and   1 be one of its root. center is the point of intersection of the lines 2x +
Then, among the two statements 3y = 12 and 3x – 2y = 5, then the radius of the
(I) If    1,0  , then b cannot be the geometric circle C is
mean of a and c (1) 20 (2) 4
(II) If    0,1  , then b may be the geometric (3) 6 (4) 3 2
mean of a and c Ans. (3)

®
(1) Both (I) and (II) are true 5. The area of the region
(2) Neither (I) nor (II) is true 
 xy  x  1 x  2  

 x, y  : y 2
 4x, x  4,  0, x  3
(3) Only (II) is true 
  x  3 x  4 

(4) Only (I) is true is
Ans. (1) 16
2. Let a be the sum of all coefficients in the (1)
3
expansion of (1 – 2x + 2x2)2023 (3 – 4x2+2x3)2024
64
 x log 1  t   (2)
  2024 dt  3
t  1
and b  lim  0  . If the equations cx2 + 8
x 0  x 2  (3)
  3
  32
2
dx + e = 0 and 2bx + ax + 4 = 0 have a common (4)
3
root, where c, d, e  R, then d : c : e equals
(1) 2 : 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 : 4 Ans. (4)
(3) 1 : 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 : 4 4x  3 2
6. If f  x   , x  and (fof) (x) = g(x), where
Ans. (4) 6x  4 3
3. If the foci of a hyperbola are same as that of the
2 2
x 2 y2 g:      , then (gogog) (4) is equal
ellipse   1 and the eccentricity of the 3 3
9 25
15 to
hyperbola is times the eccentricity of the
8 19 19
(1)  (2)
ellipse, then the smaller focal distance of the point 20 20
 14 2  (3) – 4 (4) 4
 2,  on the hyperbola, is equal to
 3 5  Ans. (4)
2 8 2 4 e2 sin x  2 sin x  1
(1) 7  (2) 14  7. lim
5 3 5 3 x 0 x2
2 16 2 8 (1) is equal to – 1 (2) does not exist
(3) 14  (4) 7 
5 3 5 3 (3) is equal to 1 (4) is equal to 2
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

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 80

8. If the system of linear equations 12. Let a  3iˆ  ˆj  2k,

ˆ b  4iˆ  ˆj  7kˆ and
x  2y  z  4
c  ˆi  3jˆ  4kˆ be three vectors. If a vectors p
2x  y  3z  5
3x  y  z  3 satisfies pb  cb and pa  0 , then
has infinitely many solutions, then 12 + 13 is  
p  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ is equal to
equal to
(1) 60 (2) 64 (1) 24 (2) 36
(3) 54 (4) 58 (3) 28 (4) 32
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
9. The solution curve of the differential equation 1
13. The sum of the series 
dx 1  3 12  14
y  x  log e x  log e y  1 , x > 0, y > 0 passing
dy 2 3
  ….. up to 10 terms
through the point (e, 1) is 1  3  22  24 1  3  32  34

®
y y is
(1) loge  x (2) log e  y 2
x x 45 45
(1) (2) 
109 109
x x
(3) log e y (4) 2 log e  y 1 55 55
y y (3) (4) 
109 109
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
10. Let  Z and let A (), B (1, 0), C ()
14. The distance of the point Q(0, 2, –2) form the line
and D (1, 2) be the vertices of a parallelogram
passing through the point P(5, –4, 3) and
ABCD. If AB = 10 and the points A and C lie on
the line 3y = 2x + 1, then 2 () is equal perpendicular to the lines 
r  3iˆ  2kˆ  +

   r   ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ 
to
 2iˆ  3jˆ  5kˆ , and +
(1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 12 (4) 8 µ  ˆi  3jˆ  2kˆ  , µ  is
Ans. (4)
11. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential (1) 86
dy

 tan x   y (2) 20
equation ,
dx sin x  sec x  sin x tan x 
(3) 54
   
x   0,  satisfying the condition y    2.
 2 4 (4) 74

 Ans. (4)

Then, y   is
3 15. For , ,   0. If sin–1 + sin–1 + sin–1 =  and
(1) 
3 2  log e 3  ( +  + ) ( –  + ) = 3, then  equal to

3 3 1
(2)  2  log e 3 (1)
2
(2)
2
2
(3) 3 1  2log e 3 3 1
(3) (4) 3
(4) 3  2  log e 3 2 2

Ans. (1) Ans. (1)

2
 81

16. Two marbles are drawn in succession from a box 20. Let S be the set of positive integral values of a for
containing 10 red, 30 white, 20 blue and 15 orange ax 2  2  a  1 x  9a  4
marbles, with replacement being made after each which  0, x  .
x  8x  32
2

drawing. Then the probability, that first drawn Then, the number of elements in S is :
marble is red and second drawn marble is white, is
(1) 1
2 4
(1) (2) (2) 0
25 25
(3) 
2 4
(3) (4) (4) 3
3 75
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
17. Let g(x) be a linear function and
SECTION-B
 gx ,x  0
 21. If the integral
f x   1 x x
1
, is continuous at x = 0.

®
 
  ,x  0  1
 2  x  2
 
11 5 2
525 sin 2x cos x 1  cos x  dx is equal to
2 2

If f  1  f  1 , then the value of g(3) is 0  

(1)
1  4 
loge  1/3  (2)
1 4
loge    1 n 
2  64 , then n is equal to ______
3  9e  3 9
Ans. (176)
4  4 
(3) log e    1 (4) log e  1/3 
9  9e  22. Let S   1,   and f : S  be defined as

Ans. (4) x

  e  1 (2t  1)5  t  2   t  3   2t  10 
11 7 12 61
f (x)  t
dt
x 3
2x  1 1  3x
2 1

Let p = Sum of square of the values of x, where

18. If f (x)  3x 2  2 2x x3  6 for all
f(x) attains local maxima on S. and q = Sum of the
x3  x 4 x2  2
values of x, where f(x) attains local minima on S.
x , then 2f(0) + f   0  is equal to Then, the value of p2 + 2q is ________
(1) 48 (2) 24 Ans. (27)
(3) 42 (4) 18
23. The total number of words (with or without
Ans. (3)
meaning) that can be formed out of the letters of
19. Three rotten apples are accidently mixed with
the word ‘DISTRIBUTION’ taken four at a time,
fifteen good apples. Assuming the random variable
is equal to _____
x to be the number of rotten apples in a draw of
Ans. (3734)
two apples, the variance of x is
37 57 24. Let Q and R be the feet of perpendiculars from the
(1) (2) point P(a, a, a) on the lines x = y, z = 1 and x = -y,
153 153
47 40 z = –1 respectively. If QPR is a right angle, then
(3) (4) 12a2 is equal to _____
153 153
Ans. (4) Ans. (12)

3
 82

25. In the expansion of 28. Let a and b be two vectors such that

 
5

1  x  1  x 2  1   2  3  , x  0 , the | a | 1,| b | 4 and a . b  2 . If c  2a  b  3b

3 3 1
 x x x 
and the angle between b and c is , then
sum of the coefficient of x3 and x–13 is equal to ___
192sin2 is equal to______
Ans. (118) Ans. (48)
x x
26. If  denotes the number of solutions of |1 - i| = 2 29. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 4)}
 |z|  be a relation on A. Let S be the equivalence
and     , where relation on A such that R  S and the number of
 arg(z) 
elements in S is n. Then, the minimum value of n
 4  1  i  i  is _______
z   
1  i   , i  1 , then
4    i 1  i  Ans. (16)
the distance of the point () from the line 30. Let f :  be a function defined by

®
4x – 3y = 7 is _____ 4x
f (x)  x and
Ans. (3) 4 2
f (1 a )
27. Let the foci and length of the latus rectum of an M  x sin 4  x 1  x   dx,
2 2
x y f (a )
ellipse   1, a > b be  5,0 and 50 , f (1 a )
a 2 b2 1
N  sin 4  x 1  x   dx;a  . If
respectively. Then, the square of the eccentricity of f (a )
2
x2 y2 M  N, ,  , then the least value of
the hyperbola 2  2 2  1 equals
b a b  2  2 is equal to ______
Ans. (51) Ans. (5)

4
 83

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 35. A rigid wire consists of a semicircular portion of
31. The parameter that remains the same for molecules radius R and two straight sections. The wire is
partially immerged in a perpendicular magnetic
of all gases at a given temperature is :
field B = B0 j as shown in figure. The magnetic
(1) kinetic energy (2) momentum
force on the wire if it has a current i is :
(3) mass (4) speed
Ans. (1)
32. Identify the logic operation performed by the given

®
circuit.

(1) iBR j (2) 2iBR j

(3) iBR j (4) 2iBR j

Ans. (4)
(1) NAND (2) NOR 36. If the wavelength of the first member of Lyman
(3) OR (4) AND series of hydrogen is . The wavelength of the
Ans. (3) second member will be
33. The relation between time ‘t’ and distance ‘x’ is t = 27 32
(1)  (2) 
x2 + x, where  and  are constants. The relation 32 27
between acceleration (a) and velocity (v) is: 27 5
(3)  (4) 
3 5 5 27
(1) a = –2v (2) a = –5v
2
Ans. (1)
(3) a = –3v (4) a = –4v4
37. Four identical particles of mass m are kept at the
Ans. (1)
four corners of a square. If the gravitational force
34. The refractive index of a prism with apex angle A
exerted on one of the masses by the other masses is
is cot A/2. The angle of minimum deviation is :
 2 2  1  Gm 2
(1) m = 180° – A   , the length of the sides of the
 32  L2
(2) m = 180° – 3A square is
(3) m = 180° – 4A L
(1) (2) 4L
(4) m = 180° – 2A 2

Ans. (4) (3) 3L (4) 2L

Ans. (2)

1
 84

38. The given figure represents two isobaric processes 42. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance
for the same mass of an ideal gas, then ‘r’ in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is :
(1  3) r
(1) (2)
r 3(1  3)
r
(3) (4) r (1  3)
(1  3)
Ans. (3)
(1) P2  P1 (2) P2  P1 43. In the given arrangement of a doubly inclined
plane two blocks of masses M and m are placed.
(3) P1  P2 (4) P1  P2
The blocks are connected by a light string passing
Ans. (4) over an ideal pulley as shown. The coefficient of
friction between the surface of the plane and the

®
39. If the percentage errors in measuring the length
and the diameter of a wire are 0.1% each. The blocks is 0.25. The value of m, for which M = 10
kg will move down with an acceleration of 2 m/s2,
percentage error in measuring its resistance will
is : (take g = 10 m/s2 and tan 37° = 3/4)
be:
(1) 0.2% (2) 0.3%
(3) 0.1% (4) 0.144%
Ans. (2)
40. In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates (1) 9 kg (2) 4.5 kg
10
sinusoidally at a frequency of 5 × 10 Hz and an (3) 6.5 kg (4) 2.25 kg
–1
amplitude of 50 Vm . The total average energy Ans. (2)
density of the electromagnetic field of the wave is : 44. A coil is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field
of 5000 T. When the field is changed to 3000 T in
[Use  0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 / Nm2]
2s, an induced emf of 22 V is produced in the coil.
–8 –3
(1) 1.106 × 10 Jm If the diameter of the coil is 0.02 m, then the
(2) 4.425 × 10–8 Jm–3 number of turns in the coil is :
(3) 2.212 × 10–8 Jm
–3 (1) 7 (2) 70
–10 –3 (3) 35 (4) 140
(4) 2.212 × 10 Jm
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
45. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe
2 1/2
41. A force is represented by F = ax + bt is equal to the first overtone frequency of an open
Where x = distance and t = time. The dimensions organ pipe. If length of the open pipe is 60 cm, the
of b2/a are : length of the closed pipe will be :
(1) 60 cm (2) 45 cm
(1) [ML3T–3] (2) [MLT–2]
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm
(3) [ML–1T–1] 2
(4) [ML T ]
–3

Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)

2
 85

46. A small steel ball is dropped into a long cylinder 49. An artillery piece of mass M1 fires a shell of mass
containing glycerine. Which one of the following M2 horizontally. Instantaneously after the firing,
is the correct representation of the velocity time the ratio of kinetic energy of the artillery and that
graph for the transit of the ball? of the shell is :
M2
(1) M1 / (M1 + M2) (2)
M1

M1
(3) M2 / (M1 + M2) (4)
(1) (2) M2
Ans. (2)
50. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of
wavelength , the stopping potential is 8V. When
(3) (4) the same surface is illuminated by light of

®
Ans. (2) wavelength 3, stopping potential is 2V. The
47. A coin is placed on a disc. The coefficient of threshold wavelength for this surface is :
friction between the coin and the disc is µ. If the (1) 5 (2) 3
distance of the coin from the center of the disc is r, (3) 9 (4) 4.5
the maximum angular velocity which can be given Ans. (3)
to the disc, so that the coin does not slip away, is : SECTION-B
g r 51. An electron moves through a uniform magnetic
(1) (2)
r g
field B  B0 i  2B0 j T. At a particular instant of
g 
(3) (4) time, the velocity of electron is u  3i  5j m/s. If
r rg
the magnetic force acting on electron is F  5ek N ,
Ans. (3)
48. Two conductors have the same resistances at 0°C where e is the charge of electron, then the value of
but their temperature coefficients of resistance are B0 is ____ T.
1 and 2. The respective temperature coefficients Ans. (5)
for their series and parallel combinations are : 52. A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5
1   2
(1) 1   2 , mm is charged up by a battery. It is found that on
2
   2 1   2 introducing a dielectric sheet of thickness 2 mm,
(2) 1 ,
2 2 while keeping the battery connections intact, the
1 2 capacitor draws 25% more charge from the battery
(3) 1  2 ,
1  2 than before. The dielectric constant of the sheet is
1   2 ____.
(4) , 1   2
2
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)

3
 86

53. Equivalent resistance of the following network is
_____ .
Ans. (1)
54. A solid circular disc of mass 50 kg rolls along a
horizontal floor so that its center of mass has a
speed of 0.4 m/s. The absolute value of work done
on the disc to stop it is ______ J.
Ans. (6)
55. A body starts falling freely from height H hits an
inclined plane in its path at height h. As a result of
57. A small square loop of wire of side is placed
inside a large square loop of wire of side L
(L = 2 ). The loops are coplanar and their centers
coinside. The value of the mutual inductance of the
system is x × 10–7 H, where x = _____.
Ans. (128)
58. The depth below the surface of sea to which a
rubber ball be taken so as to decrease its volume by
0.02% is _____ m.
(Take density of sea water = 103 kgm–3, Bulk modulus
of rubber = 9 × 108 Nm–2, and g = 10 ms–2)
Ans. (18)
59. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with

®
this perfectly elastic impact, the direction of the amplitude A. Its speed is increased to three times at
velocity of the body becomes horizontal. The value 2A
H an instant when its displacement is . The new
of for which the body will take the maximum 3
h nA
time to reach the ground is _____. amplitude of motion is . The value of n is ___.
3
Ans. (2)
Ans. (7)
56. Two waves of intensity ratio 1 : 9 cross each other
60. The mass defect in a particular reaction is 0.4g.
at a point. The resultant intensities at the point,
when (a) Waves are incoherent is I1(b) Waves are The amount of energy liberated is n × 107 kWh,
l 10 where n = _____.
coherent is I2 and differ in phase by 60°. If 1  8
l2 x (speed of light = 3 × 10 m/s)
then x = _____. Ans. (1)
Ans. (13)

4
 87

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 64. The compound that is white in color is
61. Given below are two statements: (1) ammonium sulphide
Statement-I : Noble gases have very high boiling (2) lead sulphate
points. (3) lead iodide
Statement-II: Noble gases are monoatomic gases. (4) ammonium arsinomolybdate
They are held together by strong dispersion forces. Ans. (2)
Because of this they are liquefied at very low
temperature. Hence, they have very high boiling 65. The metals that are employed in the battery
points. industries are
In the light of the above statements. choose the A. Fe

®
correct answer from the options given below: B. Mn
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. C. Ni
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Cr
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
E. Cd
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. (4)
below:
(1) B, C and E only (2) A, B, C, D and E
62. For the given reaction, choose the correct
(3) A, B, C and D only (4) B, D and E only
expression of KC from the following :-
Ans. (1)
 FeSCN aq
 2
Fe3(aq)  SCNaq 

 FeSCN 2  66. A species having carbon with sextet of electrons

(1) K C  and can act as electrophile is called
 Fe3  SCN  
(1) carbon free radical (2) carbanion
 Fe3  SCN   (3) carbocation (4) pentavalent carbon
(2) K C  Ans. (3)
 FeSCN 2 

 FeSCN 2   67. Identify the factor from the following that does not
(3) K C  2
 Fe3  SCN  
2 affect electrolytic conductance of a solution.
(1) The nature of the electrolyte added.
2
 FeSCN 2   (2) The nature of the electrode used.
(4) K C  (3) Concentration of the electrolyte.
 Fe3  SCN  
(4) The nature of solvent used.
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
63. Identify the mixture that shows positive deviations 68. The product (C) in the below mentioned reaction
from Raoult's Law is:
(1) (CH3)2CO + C6H5NH2 KOH
CH3  CH 2  CH 2  Br  alc 
 A 
HBr 
 B  C
 KOH
 aq 
(2) CHCl3 + C6H6
(1) Propan-1-ol (2) Propene
(3) CHCl3 + (CH3)2CO
(3) Propyne (4) Propan-2-ol
(4) (CH3)2CO + CS2
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)

1
 88

69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 72. ‘Adsorption’ principle is used for which of the
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: following purification method?
Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles
(1) Extraction
and electrophiles.
(2) Chromatography
Reason R: Alcohols react with active metals such
as sodium, potassium and aluminum to yield (3) Distillation
corresponding alkoxides and liberate hydrogen. (4) Sublimation
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ans. (2)
correct answer from the options given below:
73. Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) A is true but R is false. phase reaction is given by (where Pi is initial

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct pressure and Pt is total pressure at time t)
explanation of A. 2.303 Pi
(1) k   log

®
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct t  2Pi  Pt 
explanation of A
2.303 2Pi
Ans. (4) (2) k   log
t  2Pi  Pt 
70. The correct sequence of electron gain enthalpy of
the elements listed below is 2.303  2Pi  Pt 
(3) k   log
A. Ar t Pi
B. Br
2.303 Pi
(4) k  
C. F t  2Pi  Pt 
D. S
Ans. (1)
Choose the most appropriate from the options
given below: 74. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

(1) C > B > D > A (2) A > D > B > C Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) A > D > C > B (4) D > C > B > A Assertion A: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while
Ans. (2) that of ethanol is 15.9.
71. Identify correct statements from below: Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol.
A. The chromate ion is square planar.
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from In the light of the above statements, choose the
chromates. correct answer from the options given below:
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic. (1) A is true but R is false.
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in
a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate. (2) A is false but R is true.
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases. explanation of A.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) B, C, D only (2) A, D, E only explanation of A.
(3) A, B, C only (4) B, D, E only Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

2
 89

Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/31-01-2024/Morning Session

Ans. (2)
75. Given below are two statements: 78. Match List I with List II
Statement I: IUPAC name of
LIST-I LIST-II
HO–CH2–(CH2)3–CH2–COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
A. Glucose/NaHCO3/D I. Gluconic acid
Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct
IUPAC name for above compound. B. Glucose/HNO3 II. No reaction
In the light of the above statements. choose the C. Glucose/HI/ D III. n-hexane
most appropriate answer from the options given D. Glucose/Bromine IV. Saccharic acid
below: water]
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
below:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Ans. (1) (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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76. The correct statements from following are: (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
A. The strength of anionic ligands can be Ans. (2)
explained by crystal field theory.
B. Valence bond theory does not give a
79. Consider the oxides of group 14 elements
quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of
coordination compounds. SiO2, GeO2, SnO2, PbO2, CO and GeO. The
C. The hybridization involved in formation of amphoteric oxides are
[Ni(CN)4]2–complex is dsp2. (1) GeO, GeO2 (2) SiO2, GeO2
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of (3) SnO2, PbO2 (4) SnO2, CO
cis-[PtC12 (en)2]2+ is one Ans. (3)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 80. Match List I with List II
below:
LIST I (Technique) LIST II (Application)
(1) A, D only (2) A, C only
(3) B, D only (4) B, C only A. Distillation I. Separation of
Ans. (4) glycerol from
spent-lye
77. The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form
molecular orbitals takes place only when the B. Fractional II. Aniline - Water
combining atomic orbitals distillation mixture
A. have the same energy C. Steam III. Separation of crude
B. have the minimum overlap distillation oil fractions

C. have same symmetry about the molecular axis D. Distillation IV. Chloroform-
under reduced Aniline
D. have different symmetry about the molecular
axis pressure

Choose the most appropriate from the options Choose the correct answer from the options given
given below: below:
(1) A, B, C only (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I
(2) A and C only
(3) A-I. B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) B, C, D only
(4) A-II, B-III. C-I, D-IV
(4) B and D only
Ans. (2)

3
 90

SECTION-B 85. The number of species from the following in which

the central atom uses sp3 hybrid orbitals in its
81. Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO3, KI and
bonding is__________.
CaF2 which does not evolve coloured vapours on
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, CO2, H2O, CH4, BF3
heating with concentrated H2SO4 is _____ g mol–1,
Ans. (4)
(Molar mass in g mol–1 : Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39, C H OH
2
Product A
5

O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40 86. CH3CH2Br + NaOH HO 2

Product B
Ans. (78) The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A
and product B is__________.
Ans. (10)
82. The 'Spin only’ Magnetic moment for [Ni(NH3)6]2+
is______× 10–1 BM. 87. Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a
mixture of CH3COONa and C2H5COONa is_____.
(given = Atomic number of Ni : 28)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (28)
88. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.

®
3
O2(g) O3(g) .K P  2.47  1029.
83. Number of moles of methane required to produce 2
22g CO2(g) after combustion is x × 10–2 moles. The  r G  for the reaction is _________ kJ.
value of x is
(Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
Ans. (50) Ans. (163)

89. The ionization energy of sodium in kJ mol–1. If

84. The product of the following reaction is P.
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is
CHO
just sufficient to ionize sodium atom is______.
Ans. (494)
(i) PhMgBr(1 equiv.)
(ii) aq. NH4Cl
90. One Faraday of electricity liberates x × 10–1 gram
atom of copper from copper sulphate, x is______.
HO Ans. (5)
The number of hydroxyl groups present in the
product P is________.
Ans. (1)

4
 91

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 5. Let f ,g : (0, )  R be two functions defined by
1. The number of ways in which 21 identical apples
 t  t  dt and
x x2
f (x)   g(x)   t 2 e t dt .
1
2

can be distributed among three children such that x 0

each child gets at least 2 apples, is Then the value of f   

loge 9  g 
loge 9 is
(1) 406 (2) 130 (3) 142 (4) 136 equal to
Ans. (4) (1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 10
2. Let A (a, b), B(3, 4) and (-6, -8) respectively
Ans. (3)
denote the centroid, circumcentre and orthocentre Let  , ,   be mirror image of the point (2, 3, 5)

®
6.
of a triangle. Then, the distance of the point P(2a +
x 1 y  2 z  3
3, 7b + 5) from the line 2x + 3y – 4 = 0 measured in the line   . Then
2 3 4
parallel to the line x – 2y – 1 = 0 is 2  3  4 is equal to
15 5 17 5 (1) 32 (2) 33
(1) (2) (3) 31 (4) 34
7 6
Ans. (2)
17 5 5 7. Let P be a parabola with vertex (2, 3) and directrix
(3) (4)
7 17 x 2 y2
2x + y = 6. Let an ellipse E : 2  2  1,a  b of
Ans. (3) a b
3. Let z1 and z2 be two complex number such that z1 1
eccentricity pass through the focus of the
2
+ z2 = 5 and z13  z 32  20  15i . Then z14  z 24
parabola P. Then the square of the length of the
equals- latus rectum of E, is
385 347
(1) 30 3 (2) 75 (1) (2)
8 8
(3) 15 15 (4) 25 3 512 656
(3) (4)
25 25
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
4. Let a variable line passing through the centre of the 8. The temperature T(t) of a body at time t = 0 is 160o
circle x2 + y2 – 16x – 4y = 0, meet the positive co- F and it decreases continuously as per the
ordinate axes at the point A and B. Then the dT
differential equation   K(T  80) , where K
dt
minimum value of OA + OB, where O is the
is positive constant. If T(15) = 120oF, then T(45) is
origin, is equal to equal to
(1) 12 (2) 18 (1) 85o F (2) 95o F
(3) 20 (4) 24 (3) 90o F (4) 80o F
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

1
 92

9. Let 2nd, 8th, 44th, terms of a non-constant A.P. be 15. The number of solutions, of the equation
respectively the 1st, 2nd and 3rd terms of G.P. If the esin x  2esin x  2 is
first term of A.P. is 1 then the sum of first 20 terms (1) 2 (2) more than 2
terms is equal to-
(3) 1 (4) 0
(1) 980 (2) 960
Ans. (4)
(3) 990 (4) 970
Ans. (4)
16. If a  sin 1 sin  5  
and b  cos1 cos  5 , 
10. Let f : R  (0, ) be strictly increasing then a  b is equal to
2 2

(1) 4  25
f (7x) 2
function such that lim  1. Then, the value
x  f (x)
(2) 8  40  50
2

 f (5x)  (3) 4  20  50

2
of lim   1 is equal to
x 
 f (x)  (4) 25

®
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 7/5 (4) 1 Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
11. The area of the region enclosed by the parabola y =
17. If for some m, n; 6 Cm  2  6
Cm1  6 Cm2 8 C3
n 1
4x – x2 and 3y = (x – 4)2 is equal to and P3 :n P4  1: 8, then n Pm 1  n 1 Cm is equal to
32 14 (1) 380 (2) 376
(1) (2) 4 (3) 6 (4)
9 3 (3) 384 (4) 372
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
12. Let the mean and the variance of 6 observation a, 18. A coin is based so that a head is twice as likely to
b, 68, 44, 48, 60 be 55 and 194, respectively if a > occur as a tail. If the coin is tossed 3 times, then
b, then a + 3b is the probability of getting two tails and one head is-
(1) 200 (2) 190 (3) 180 (4) 210
2 1 2 1
Ans. (3) (1) (2) (3) (4)
9 9 27 27
13. If the function f : (, 1]  (a, b] defined by
Ans. (1)
f (x)  ex 3x 1 is one-one and onto, then the
3
19. Let A be a 3  3 real matrix such that
distance of the point P(2b + 4, a + 2) from the line 1  1   1  1  0   0
x + e–3y = 4 is :            
A  0   2  0  , A  0   4  0  , A 1   2 1  .
(1) 2 1  e6 (2) 4 1  e6 1  1  1  1   0   0
           
(3) 3 1  e6 (4) 1  e6  x  1 
   
Then, the system  A  3I  y  2 has
Ans. (1)    
Consider the function f : (0, )  R defined by z  3
14.    
 loge x
f (x)  e . If m and n be respectively the (1) unique solution
number of points at which f is not continuous and f (2) exactly two solutions
is not differentiable, then m + n is (3) no solution
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 (4) infinitely many solutions
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

2
 93

20. The shortest distance between lines L1 and L2, 24. Let the coefficient of xr in the expansion of
x 1 y 1 z  4
 x  3   x  3  x  2  
n 1 n 2
where L1   and L2 is the line
2 3 2
 x  3  x  2  .......   x  2
n 3 2 n 1
passing through the points

A  4, 4,3 .B  1,6,3 and perpendicular to the n

be  r . If 
r 0
r  n   n , ,   N, then the value
x  3 y z 1
line   , is
2 3 1 of    equals __________.
2 2

121 Ans. (25)

(1)
221
25. Let A be a 3  3 matrix and det (A) = 2. If
24
(2)
117  
n  det adj adj ......  adjA   

®
141
(3) 2024-times
221
Then the remainder when n is divided by 9 is equal
42
(4) to ___________.
117
Ans. (7)
Ans. (3)
SECTION-B 26. Let a  3iˆ  2ˆj  k,
ˆ b  2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ and c be a


120 x 2 sin x cos x   
vector such that a  b  c  2 a  b  24ˆj  6kˆ
3 0 sin 4 x  cos4 x
21. dx is equal to _________.
and  a  b  ˆi   a  b  ˆi  .c  3. Then 2
c is
Ans. (15)
equal to ________.
22. Let a, b, c be the length of three sides of a triangle
satisfying the condition (a2 + b2)x2 – 2b(a + c).x + Ans. (38)

(b2 + c2) = 0. If the set of all possible values of x is ax 2e x  b log e 1  x   cxe x

27. If lim , then 16(a2 +

the interval  ,  , then 12     is equal to x 0 2
2 2 x sin x
b2 + c2) is equal to ______.
______.
Ans. (81)
Ans. (36)
28. A line passes through A(4, –6, –2) and B(16, –2,4).
23. Let A(–2, –1), B(1, 0), C  ,  and D  ,   be
The point P(a, b, c) where a, b, c are non-negative
the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD. If the point
integers, on the line AB lies at a distance of 21
C lies on 2x – y = 5 and the point D lies on 3x – 2y
units, from the point A. The distance between the
= 6, then the value of       is equal to points P(a, b, c) and Q(4, –12, 3) is equal to
_________. _________.
Ans. (32) Ans. (22)

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 94

29. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential 30. Let A = {1, 2, 3, ………100}. Let R be a relation
equation on A defined by (x, y)  R if and only if 2x = 3y.
sec 2 xdx   e 2y tan 2 x  tan x  dy  0,
Let R1 be a symmetric relation on A such that
R  R 1 and the number of elements in R1 is n.
  
0  x  , y    0. If y    ,
2 4 6 Then, the minimum value of n is ___________.

8 Ans. (66)
Then e is equal to ______.

Ans. (9)

4
 95

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A
31. A light string passing over a smooth light fixed
pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 .
If the acceleration of the system is g/8, then the
ratio of masses is
33. The measured value of the length of a simple
pendulum is 20 cm with 2 mm accuracy. The time
for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 seconds
with 1 second resolution. From these
measurements, the accuracy in the measurement of
acceleration due to gravity is N%. The value of N
is:
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 5

®
Ans. (3)
34. Force between two point charges q1 and q 2
placed in vacuum at ‘r’ cm apart is F. Force
between them when placed in a medium having
9 8 dielectric K = 5 at ‘r/5’ cm apart will be:
(1) (2) (1) F/25 (2) 5F
7 1
(3) F/5 (4) 25F
4 5
(3) (4) Ans. (2)
3 3
35. An AC voltage V  20sin200t is applied to a
Ans. (1) series LCR circuit which drives a current

32. A uniform magnetic field of 2  103 T acts along  

I  10 sin  200t   . The average power
 3
positive Y-direction. A rectangular loop of sides 20
dissipated is:
cm and 10 cm with current of 5 A is Y-Z plane. (1) 21.6 W
(2) 200 W
The current is in anticlockwise sense with
(3) 173.2 W
reference to negative X axis. Magnitude and (4) 50 W
direction of the torque is : Ans. (4)
36. When unpolarized light is incident at an angle of
(1) 2  104 N  m along positive Z –direction
60° on a transparent medium from air. The
(2) 2  104 N  m along negative Z-direction reflected ray is completely polarized. The angle of
refraction in the medium is
(3) 2  104 N  m along positive X-direction
(1) 30 0 (2) 60 0
(4) 2  104 N  m along positive Y-direction (3) 90 0 (4) 450
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)

1
 96

37. The speed of sound in oxygen at S.T.P. will be 41. In a photoelectric effect experiment a light of
approximately: frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is
made to fall on the surface of photosensitive
(Given, R  8.3 JK1 ,   1.4)
material. Now if the frequency is halved and
(1) 310 m / s (2) 333 m/s intensity is doubled, the number of photo electrons
emitted will be:
(3) 341 m/s (4) 325 m/s
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled
Ans. (1) (3) Zero (4) Halved
38. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6 Ans. (3)
moles of oxygen at temperature T. Neglecting all 42. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the surface as shown in the figure.
system is 0.1
(1) 29 RT (2) 20 RT =

g
(3) 27 RT (4) 21 RT

5k
®
Ans. (3)
39. The resistance per centimeter of a meter bridge 300
wire is r, with X  resistance in left gap. Balancing
If F1 is the force required to just move the block
length from left end is at 40 cm with 25 
up the inclined plane and F2 is the force required
resistance in right gap. Now the wire is replaced by
another wire of 2r resistance per centimeter. The to just prevent the block from sliding down, then

new balancing length for same settings will be at the value of F1  F2 is : [Use g  10m / s2 ]
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm (1) 25 3 N (2) 50 3 N
(3) 80 cm (4) 40 cm
5 3
Ans. (4) (3) N (4) 10 N
2
40. Given below are two statements: Ans. ( √ ) BONUS
Statement I: Electromagnetic waves carry energy 43. By what percentage will the illumination of the
as they travel through space and this energy is lamp decrease if the current drops by 20%?
(1) 46% (2) 26%
equally shared by the electric and magnetic fields.
(3) 36% (4) 56%
Statement II: When electromagnetic waves strike Ans. (3)
a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface. 44. If two vectors A and B having equal magnitude
In the light of the above statements, choose the R are inclined at an angle  , then
most appropriate answer from the options given 
(1) A  B  2 R sin  
below: 2
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 
(2) A  B  2 R sin  
correct 2
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 
(3) A  B  2 R cos  
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 2
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 
(4) A  B  2 R cos  
incorrect. 2
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)

2
 97

45. The mass number of nucleus having radius equal to

49.
half of the radius of nucleus with mass number 192
is:
(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 40 (4) 20
Ans. (1)
46. The mass of the moon is 1/144 times the mass of a The output of the given circuit diagram is
planet and its diameter 1/16 times the diameter of a
planet. If the escape velocity on the planet is v, the
(1) (2)
escape velocity on the moon will be:
v v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 12 6

®
Ans. (1)
47. A small spherical ball of radius r, falling through a
viscous medium of negligible density has terminal (3) (4)

velocity 'v'. Another ball of the same mass but of

radius 2r, falling through the same viscous medium
will have terminal velocity:
Ans. (3)
v v
(1) (2)
2 4 50. Consider two physical quantities A and B related
(3) 4v (4) 2v
B  x2
Ans. (1) to each other as E  where E, x and t have
At
48. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the
dimensions of energy, length and time
action of a time dependent force given by

 
F  6t iˆ  6t 2 ˆj N . The power developed by the respectively. The dimension of AB is

force at the time t is given by: (1) L2 M1T0


(1) 6t4  9t5 W (2) L2 M1T1


(2) 3t3  6t5 W (3) L2 M1T1


(3) 9t5  6t3 W (4) L0 M1T1


(4) 9t3  6t5 W Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)

3
 98

SECTION-B 55. A body of mass 'm' is projected with a speed ‘u’

51. In the following circuit, the battery has an emf of 2 making an angle of 45° with the ground. The
2 angular momentum of the body about the point of
V and an internal resistance of  . The power projection, at the highest point is expressed as
3
consumption in the entire circuit is ______ W. 2 mu3
. The value of 'X' is_______.
Xg
Ans. (8)
56. Two circular coils P and Q of 100 turns each have
same radius of  cm. The currents in P and R are
1 A and 2 A respectively. P and Q are placed with
their planes mutually perpendicular with their
centers coincide. The resultant magnetic field
induction at the center of the coils is x mT ,

®
where x =_________.
Ans. (3)
52. Light from a point source in air falls on a convex [Use 0  4  107 TmA 1 ]
curved surface of radius 20 cm and refractive index Ans. (20)
1.5. If the source is located at 100 cm from the
57. The distance between charges +q and –q is 2l and
convex surface, the image will be formed at____
cm from the object. between +2 q and -2 q is 4l . The electrostatic
potential at point P at a distance r from centre O is
Ans. (200)
 ql 
53. The magnetic flux  (in weber) linked with a   2   109 V , where the value of  is ______.
r 
closed circuit of resistance 8 Ω varies with time (in
1
seconds) as   5t2  36t  1 . The induced current (Use  9  109 Nm2C 2 )
40
in the circuit at t = 2s is _______ A.
Ans. (2)
54. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are connected
by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in figure. The radius of wire is 4.0  105
m and Young's modulus of the metal is
2.0 1011 N / m2 . The longitudinal strain
1
developed in the wire is . The value of 

Ans. (27)
is____. [Use g  10 m / s2 )
58. Two identical spheres each of mass 2 kg and radius
50 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod so that the
separation between the centers is 150 cm. Then,
moment of inertia of the system about an axis
perpendicular to the rod and passing through its
x
middle point is kg m2 , where the value of x is
20
Ans. (12) ____.
Ans. (53)

4
 99

59. The time period of simple harmonic motion of 60. A nucleus has mass number A1 and volume V1 .
M Another nucleus has mass number A2 and volume
mass M in the given figure is  , where the
5K
V2 . If relation between mass number is A2  4 A1 ,
value of  is _______.
V2
then  ________.
V1

Ans. (4)

®
Ans. (12)

5
 100

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 63. Identify A and B in the following reaction
61. Match List I with List II sequence.
Br

LIST – I LIST – II Conc. HNO 3 (i) NaOH

A B
(Complex ion) (Electronic (ii) HCl
Configuration Br OH

A. Cr  H 2 O 6 
3 I. t 2g 2 eg0
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
  (1) A= , B=

®
NO2 NO2
B.  Fe  H 2 O 6 
3 II. t 2g3 eg 0
  Br Br
OH
(2) A= , B=
C.  Ni  H 2 O 6 
2 III. t 2g3 eg 2
  NO2 NO2
Br Br
D.  V  H 2 O 6 
3 IV. 6
t 2g eg 2
NO2 OH
 
(3) A= , B=
Choose the correct answer from the options given
NO2 OH
below :
NO2 NO2
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A= , B=
OH
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Ans. (1)
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
64. Given below are two statements :
Ans. (4)
Statement I: S8 solid undergoes

62. A sample of CaCO3 and MgCO3 weighed 2.21 g
is ignited to constant weight of 1.152 g. The
composition of mixture is :
(Given molar mass in g mol1
CaCO3 :100, MgCO3 :84 )
(1) 1.187 g CaCO3  1.023 g MgCO3
(2) 1.023 g CaCO3  1.023 g MgCO3
(3) 1.187 g CaCO3  1.187 g MgCO3
(4) 1.023 g CaCO3  1.187 g MgCO3
Ans. (1)
disproportionation reaction under alkaline
2
conditions to form S2 and S2 O3
Statement II: ClO4 can undergo
disproportionation reaction under acidic condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Ans. (1)

1
 101

65. Identify major product ‘P’ formed in the following 68. Select the option with correct property -
(1)  Ni  CO 4  and  NiCl4  both diamagnetic
reaction. 2

O
(2)  Ni  CO 4  and  NiCl4  both paramagnetic
2
Anhydrous
C ‘P’
Cl AlCl3
+ (Major Product)
(3)  NiCl4  diamagnetic,  Ni  CO 4 
2

O
paramagnetic
(1) O
(4)  Ni  CO 4  diamagnetic,  NiCl4 
C 2
Cl
paramagnetic
(2) COCH 3 Ans. (4)
69. The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reactions
is Sulphanilic acid  NaNO2  CH3COOH  X
O
(3) C
X+ Y
H

®
O NH 2
(4) HSO 3 N=N
C
1.
N=N SO 3H

Ans. (4) HO3S N=N NH 2

66. Major product of the following reaction is – 2.
_ HO3S N=N
D Cl
?
HSO 3 N=N
CH3 3.
NH 2

(1) Cl D (2) H D
HSO 3 N=N NH 2
4.

H CH3 Cl CH3
Ans. (4)

(4) D Cl
(3) D CH 3 70. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H2SO4
followed by heating at 453-473 K gives p-
H Cl H CH 3 aminobenzene sulphonic acid, which gives blood
Ans. (3 or 4) red colour in the 'Lassaigne's test'.
67. Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane. Statement II: In Friedel - Craft's alkylation and
Br Br Br acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the AlCl3
catalyst. Due to this, nitrogen of aniline aquires a
1. 2. positive charge and acts as deactivating group.
Br In the light of the above statements, choose the
Br Br correct answer from the options given below :
1. Statement I is false but statement II is true
3. 4.
2. Both statement I and statement II are false
Br Br 3. Statement I is true but statement II is false
Ans. (3) 4. Both statement I and statement II are true
Ans. (4)

2
 102

C 74. Which of the following is least ionic ?

71. A g  B g   The correct relationship
2 
g
(1) BaCl2
between KP ,  and equilibrium pressure P is (2) AgCl
1 1 (3) KCl
 2 P 2
(1) K P  (4) CoCl2
2  
1
2
Ans. (2)

3
2 P
1
2 75. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of
(2) K P 
some steam volatile organic compounds called
 2    2 1   
1

essential oils. These are generally insoluble in

1 3
 2 P 2
water at room temperature but are miscible with
(3) K P 
2  
3
2 water vapour in vapour phase. A suitable method
1 1 for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is -
 2 P 2
(4) K P  1. crystallisation
2  
3
2
2. distillation under reduced pressure

®
Ans. (2) 3. distillation
72. Choose the correct statements from the following 4. steam distillation
A. All group 16 elements form oxides of general Ans. (4)
formula EO2 and EO3 where E = S, Se, Te and Po. 76. Given below are two statements :
Both the types of oxides are acidic in nature. Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily
B. TeO2 is an oxidising agent while SO2 is hydrolyzed by water due to their covalent nature.
reducing in nature. Statement II: AlCl3 upon hydrolysis in acidified
C. The reducing property decreases from H 2S to 3
aqueous solution forms octahedral  Al  H 2 O 6 
H2Te down the group.
D. The ozone molecule contains five lone pairs of ion.
electrons. In the light of the above statements, choose the
Choose the correct answer from the options given correct answer from the options given below :
below: 1. Statement I is true but statement II is false
1. A and D only 2. Statement I is false but statement II is true
2. B and C only 3. Both statement I and statement II are false
3. C and D only 4. Both statement I and statement II are true
4. A and B only Ans. (4)
Ans. (4) 77. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the
73. Identify the name reaction. outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
CHO 1
CO, HCl (1) n  4, l = 2, m  1, s  
2
Anhyd. AlCl3/CuCl 1
(2) n  4, l = 0, m  0 , s  
(1) Stephen reaction 2
(2) Etard reaction 1
(3) n  3, l = 0, m  1 , s  
2
(3) Gatterman-koch reaction
1
(4) Rosenmund reduction (4) n  2 , l = 0, m  0 , s  
2
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)

3
 103

78. Choose the correct statements from the following SECTION-B

A. Mn 2O7 is an oil at room temperature 81. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of
B. V2O4 reacts with acid to give VO22 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1Å , then fractional

C. CrO is a basic oxide charge on each atom is ______ 101 esu .

D. V2 O5 does not react with acid (Given 1 D  1018 esu cm)

Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. (0)
below : 82. r  k  A  for a reaction, 50% of A is decomposed
1. A, B and D only in 120 minutes. The time taken for 90%
2. A and C only decomposition of A is ______ minutes.
3. A, B and C only Ans. (399)
4. B and C only
83. A compound (x) with molar mass 108 g mol1
Ans. (2)
undergoes acetylation to give product with molar
79. The correct order of reactivity in electrophilic

®
mass 192 g mol1 . The number of amino groups in
substitution reaction of the following compounds
the compound (x) is ______.
is :
CH3 Cl NO2 Ans. (2)
84. Number of isomeric products formed by mono-
chlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of
sunlight is _______.
A B C D Ans. (6)
1. B  C  A  D 2. D  C  B  A
85. Number of moles of H  ions required by 1 mole
3. A  B  C  D 4. B  A  C  D
of MnO 4 to oxidise oxalate ion to CO2 is ____.
Ans. (4)
80. Consider the following elements. Ans. (8)
86. In the reaction of potassium dichromate, potassium
Group A'B' Period
chloride and sulfuric acid (conc.), the oxidation
C'D' state of the chromium in the product is
Which of the following is/are true about (+)_______.
A', B', C' and D' ? Ans. (6)

A. Order of atomic radii: B'  A'  D'  C' 87. The molarity of 1L orthophosphoric acid  H3 PO 4 
having 70% purity by weight (specific gravity
B. Order of metallic character : B'  A'  D'  C'
1.54 g cm3 ) is ______M.
C. Size of the element : D'  C'  B'  A'
   
(Molar mass of H3PO4  98 g mol1 )
D. Order of ionic radii : B'  A '  D '  C'
Ans. (11)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
88. The values of conductivity of some materials at
below :
298.15 K in Sm1 are 2.1103 ,
1. A only 2. A, B and D only
1.0 1016 ,1.2 10, 3.91,1.5 102 ,
3. A and B only 4. B, C and D only
1107 ,1.0 103 . The number of conductors
Ans. (2) among the materials is ______.
Ans. (4)

4
 104

89. From the vitamins A, B1 , B6 , B12 , C, D, E and K, 90. If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10 L to a
volume of 100 L at 300 K under isothermal and
the number vitamins that can be stored in our body reversible condition then work, w, is x J. The
value of x is ______.
is ______.
(Given R  8.314 J K1mol1 )
Ans. (5)
Ans. (28721)

5
 105

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 1 x
4. If tanA = , tan B 
1. A bag contains 8 balls, whose colours are either x( x 2  x  1) x2  x  1
white or black. 4 balls are drawn at random
and
without replacement and it was found that 2 balls
1

are white and other 2 balls are black. The  3
tan C  x  x  x 2 1 2
 , 0  A, B, C 
2
, then
probability that the bag contains equal number of
A + B is equal to :
white and black balls is:
(1) C (2)   C

®
2 2
(1) (2) 
5 7 (3) 2  C (4) C
2
1 1
(3) (4) Ans. (1)
7 5
5. If n is the number of ways five different employees
Ans. (2)
can sit into four indistinguishable offices where


any office may have any number of persons
4
2. The value of the integral xdx including zero, then n is equal to:
 sin
0
4
(2 x)  cos 4 (2 x)
equals :
(1) 47
2 2 2 2 (2) 53
(1) (2)
8 16
(3) 51
2 2 2 2 (4) 43
(3) (4)
32 64 Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
6. LetS={ z  C : z  1  1 and
 2 1  1 0
 
T
3. If A =  , B = 1 1 , C = ABA and X 2  1  z  z   i  z  z   2 2 }. Let z1, z2
 1 2   
= ATC2A, then det X is equal to :  S be such that z1  max z and z2  min z .
zs zs
(1) 243 2
Then 2z1  z2 equals :
(2) 729
(3) 27 (1) 1 (2) 4
(4) 891 (3) 3 (4) 2
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

1
 106

7. Let the median and the mean deviation about the 12. If the system of equations
median of 7 observation 170, 125, 230, 190, 210, a, b 2x + 3y – z = 5
x + y + 3z = –4
205
be 170 and respectively. Then the mean 3x – y + z = 7
7
has infinitely many solutions, then 13  is equal
deviation about the mean of these 7 observations is :
to
(1) 31 (2) 28 (1) 1110 (2) 1120
(3) 30 (4) 32 (3) 1210 (4) 1220
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
13. For 0 <  < /2, if the eccentricity of the hyperbola
8. Let a  5iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ, b  iˆ  2 ˆj  4kˆ and
x2 – y2cosec2 = 5 is 7 times eccentricity of the
c  a  b   iˆ  iˆ  iˆ. Then c   iˆ  ˆj  kˆ  is ellipse x2 cosec2 + y2 = 5, then the value of  is :
 5
equal to (1) (2)
6 12

®
(1) –12 (2) –10  
(3) (4)
(3) –13 (4) –15 3 4
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
14. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
9. Let S = {x  R : ( 3  2) x  ( 3  2) x  10}.
dy
equation = 2x (x + y)3 – x (x + y) – 1, y(0) = 1.
Then the number of elements in S is : dx
(1) 4 (2) 0  1  1 
2
Then,   y equals :
(3) 2 (4) 1  2  2  
Ans. (3) 4 3
(1) (2)
10. The area enclosed by the curves xy + 4y = 16 and 4 e 3 e
x + y = 6 is equal to : 2 1
(3) (4)
(1) 28 – 30 log e 2 (2) 30 – 28 log e 2 1 e 2 e
Ans. (4)
(3) 30 – 32 log e 2 (4) 32 – 30 log e 2
15. Let f : R  R be defined as
Ans. (3)
 a  b cos 2x
 ; x0
11. Let f : R  R and g : R  R be defined as x2


loge x , x0 f(x) =  x 2  cx  2 ; 0  x 1
f(x) =   x and  2x  1
 e , x0 ; x 1


 x , x0
g(x) =  x . Then, gof : R  R is : If f is continuous everywhere in R and m is the
 e , x0
number of points where f is NOT differential then
(1) one-one but not onto
m + a + b + c equals :
(2) neither one-one nor onto
(3) onto but not one-one (1) 1 (2) 4

(4) both one-one and onto (3) 3 (4) 2

Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

2
 107

x2 y2 20. If the shortest distance between the lines

16. Let  = 1, a > b be an ellipse, whose
a2 b2 x   y  2 z 1 x  3 y 1 z  2
  and  
eccentricity is
1
and the length of the latus
2 1 1 1 2 1
2 is 1, then the sum of all possible values of  is :
rectum is 14 . Then the square of the eccentricity
(1) 0 (2) 2 3
2 2
x y
of  = 1 is : (3) 3 3 (4) 2 3
a2 b2
(1) 3 (2) 7/2 Ans. (2)
(3) 3/2 (4) 5/2 SECTION-B
Ans. (3) 21. If x = x(t) is the solution of the differential
17. Let 3, a, b, c be in A.P. and 3, a – 1, b + l, c + 9 be
equation (t + 1)dx = (2x + (t + 1)4) dt, x(0) = 2,
in G.P. Then, the arithmetic mean of a, b and c is :
then, x(1) equals ___________.

®
(1) –4 (2) –1
(3) 13 (4) 11 Ans. (14)

Ans. (4) 22. The number of elements in the set

18. Let C : x2 + y2 = 4 and C’ : x2 + y2 - 4x + 9 = 0 be S = {(x, y, z) : x, y,z  Z, x + 2y + 3z = 42, x, y, z
two circles. If the set of all values of  so that the  0} equals __________.
circles C and C’ intersect at two distinct points, is Ans. (169)
R– [a, b], then the point (8a + 12, 16b – 20) lies on
23. If the Coefficient of x30 in the expansion of
the curve :
6
(1) x2 + 2y2 – 5x + 6y = 3  1
 1   (1 + x2)7 (1 – x3)8 ; x 0 is , then ||
(2) 5x2 – y = – 11 x
(3) x2 – 4y2 = 7 equals ___________.
(4) 6x2 + y2 = 42 Ans. (678)
Ans. (4)
24. Let 3, 7, 11, 15, ...., 403 and 2, 5, 8, 11, . . ., 404
 1
19. If 5f(x) + 4f   = x2 – 2,  x 0 and y = 9x2f(x), be two arithmetic progressions. Then the sum, of
 x
the common terms in them, is equal to _________.
then y is strictly increasing in :
Ans. (6699)
 1   1 
(1)  0,    , 
 5  5  25. Let {x} denote the fractional part of x and

 1   1  cos1 (1  {x}2 )sin 1 (1  {x})

(2)   ,0   ,  f(x) = , x 0. If L
 5   5  {x}  {x}3

 1   1  and R respectively denotes the left hand limit and the

(3)   ,0   0, 
 5   5 32
right hand limit of f(x) at x = 0, then (L2 + R2) is
 1   1   2
(4)  ,    0, 
 5  5 equal to ____________.
Ans. (2) Ans. (18)

3
 108

26. Let the line L : 2 x + y =  pass through the point 29. Let the line of the shortest distance between
of the intersection P (in the first quadrant) of the circle the lines
x2 + y2 = 3 and the parabola x2 = 2y. Let the line L   
L1 : r  ˆi  2jˆ  3kˆ   ˆi  ˆj  kˆ and
L : r   4iˆ  5jˆ  6kˆ     ˆi  ˆj  kˆ 
touch two circles C1 and C2 of equal radius 2 3 . If
2
the centres Q1 and Q2 of the circles C1 and C2 lie on the
intersect L1 and L2 at P and Q
y-axis, then the square of the area of the triangle
PQ1Q2 is equal to ___________. respectively. If ( ,  , ) is the mid point

Ans. (72) of the line segment PQ, then 2(  +  + )

27. Let P = {z  : |z + 2 – 3i |  1} and is equal to ___________.

Ans. (21)
Q = {z  : z (l + i) + z (1 – i)  –8} . Let in
30. Let A= {1, 2, 3, . . 20}. Let R1 and R2 two
P Q, |z – 3 + 2i| be maximum and minimum at
relation on A such that
2 2
z1 and z2 respectively. If |z 1| + 2|z| =  +  2,
R1 = {(a, b) : b is divisible by a}

®
where ,  are integers, then  +  equals R2 = {(a, b) : a is an integral multiple of b}.
________. Then, number of elements in R 1 – R 2 is equal
Ans. (36) to ________.
 8 2 cos xdx Ans. (46)
 =  +  loge (3 + 2
2
28. If 
2 (1  esin x )(1  sin 4 x)

2 ), where ,  are integers, then 2 + 2 equals

___________.
Ans. (8)

4
 109

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 35. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C.
31. With rise in temperature, the Young's modulus of One of them is charged to the potential V and other
elasticity to the potential 2V. The negative ends of both are
(1) changes erratically connected together. When the positive ends are
(2) decreases also joined together, the decrease in energy of the
(3) increases combined system is :
(4) remains unchanged 1
(1) CV 2 (2) 2 CV2
Ans. (2) 4
32. If R is the radius of the earth and the acceleration 1 3
due to gravity on the surface of earth is g = 2 m/s2, (3) CV 2 (4) CV 2

®
2 4
then the length of the second's pendulum at a Ans. (1)
height h = 2R from the surface of earth will be,: 36. Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed with six
2 1 moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of
(1) m (2) m
9 9 the mixture at constant volume is :
4 8 9 7
(3) m (4) m (1) R (2) R
9 9 4 4
Ans. (2) 3 5
33. In the given circuit if the power rating of Zener (3) R (4) R
2 2
diode is 10 mW, the value of series resistance Rs to Ans. (1)
regulate the input unregulated supply is : 37. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is attached to a string of
RS
length 50 cm. The ball is rotated on a horizontal
+
circular path about its vertical axis. The maximum
Vs RL = 1k  tension that the string can bear is 400 N. The
Vz = 5V
8V maximum possible value of angular velocity of the
– ball in rad/s is,:
(1) 5k (2) 10 (1) 1600 (2) 40
(3) 1k (4) 10k (3) 1000 (4) 20
Ans. (BONUS) Ans. (2)
34. The reading in the ideal voltmeter (V) shown in the 38. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance
given circuit diagram is : C = 200 pF. It is connected to 230 V ac supply
0.2 0.2 0.2
with an angular frequency 300 rad/s. The rms
5V 5V 5V value of conduction current in the circuit and
0.2
5V V displacement current in the capacitor respectively
0.2 5V
are :
0.2 0.2 0.2
(1) 1.38 A and 1.38 A
5V 5V 5V (2) 14.3 A and 143 A
(1) 5V (2) 10V (3) 13.8 A and 138 A
(3) 0 V (4) 3V
(4) 13.8 A and 13.8 A
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)

1
 110

39. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related 44. The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a
as PV3/2 = K (Constant). The work done when metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
the gas is taken from state A (P1, V1, T1) to state r = (0.35 ± 0.05) cm
B (P2, V2, T2) is : R = (100 ± 10) ohm
(1) 2(P1V1 – P2V2) l = (15 ± 0.2) cm
(2) 2(P2V2 – P1V1) The percentage error in resistivity of the material
(3) 2( P1 V1  P2 V2 ) of the wire is :
(1) 25.6% (2) 39.9%
(4) 2(P2 V2  P1 V1 ) (3) 37.3% (4) 35.6%
Ans. (1 or 2) Ans. (2)
40. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50  and it 45. The dimensional formula of angular impulse is :
allows maximum current of 5 mA. It can be (1) [M L–2 T–1]
converted into voltmeter to measure upto 100 V by (2) [M L2 T–2]
connecting in series a resistor of resistance (3) [M L T–1]
(1) 5975 (4) [M L2 T–1]

®
(2) 20050 Ans. (4)
(3) 19950  46. A simple pendulum of length 1 m has a wooden
(4) 19500 bob of mass 1 kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass
Ans. (3) 10–2 kg moving with a speed of 2 × 102 ms–1. The
41. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an  bullet gets embedded into the bob. The height to
particle are  and 2 respectively. The ratio of the which the bob rises before swinging back is.
(use g = 10 m/s2)
velocities of proton and  particle will be :
(1) 0.30 m (2) 0.20 m
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 0.35 m (4) 0.40 m
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
47. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with
42. 10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper
uniform speed takes time T to complete one
coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. If
revolution. If this particle is projected with the
each division on the main scale is of 5 units, the
least count of the instrument is : same speed at an angle  to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained by it is equal to 4R. The
1 10
(1) (2) angle of projection  is then given by :
2 11
1
(3)
50
(4)
5  2gT 2 2
11 11 (1) sin 1  2 
  R 
Ans. (4)
1
43. In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed
 R2 2
from C to 4C. To keep the resonance frequency (2) sin 1  2
unchanged, the new inductance should be :  2gT 
1 1
(1) reduced by L  2gT 2 2
4 (3) cos 1  2 
(2) increased by 2L   R 
3 1
(3) reduced by L
4  R 2
(4) cos 1  2
(4) increased to 4L  2gT 
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)

2
 111

48. Consider a block and trolley system as shown in SECTION-B

figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between 51. A regular polygon of 6 sides is formed by bending a
wire of length 4  meter. If an electric current of
the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration
–2
4 3 A is flowing through the sides of the
of the system in ms is :
polygon, the magnetic field at the centre of the
(Consider that the string is massless and polygon would be x × l0–7 T. The value of x is ____.
unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and Ans. (72)
frictionless) : 52. A rectangular loop of sides 12 cm and 5 cm, with
its sides parallel to the x-axis and y-axis
20 kg
respectively moves with a velocity of 5 cm/s in the
fk
positive x axis direction, in a space containing a
variable magnetic field in the positive z direction.
The field has a gradient of 10–3T/cm along the
negative x direction and it is decreasing with time
at the rate of 10–3 T/s. If the resistance of the loop

®
6 kg
is 6 m, the power dissipated by the loop as heat is
60 N
_______ × 10–9 W.
(1) 3 (2) 4
Ans. (216)
(3) 2 (4) 1.2 53. The distance between object and its 3 times
Ans. (3) magnified virtual image as produced by a convex
lens is 20 cm. The focal length of the lens used is
49. The minimum energy required by a hydrogen atom
__________ cm.
in ground state to emit radiation in Balmer series is
Ans. (15)
nearly : 54. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by
(1) 1.5 eV strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle 
with each other. When suspended in water the angle
(2) 13.6 eV
remains the same. If density of the material of the
(3) 1.9 eV sphere is 1.5 g/cc, the dielectric constant of water
(4) 12.1 eV will be ________ (Take density of water = 1 g/cc)
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
55. The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is
50. A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is
4.8 fermi. Then the mass number of another nucleus
incident on the single slit of width 0.01 mm. If the 1000
having radius of 4 fermi is , where x is _____.
diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the x
convex lens of focal length 20 cm, the linear width Ans. (27)
of the central maximum is : 56. The identical spheres each of mass 2M are placed
at the corners of a right angled triangle with
(1) 60 mm mutually perpendicular sides equal to 4 m each.
(2) 24 mm Taking point of intersection of these two sides as
(3) 120 mm origin, the magnitude of position vector of the
4 2
(4) 12 mm centre of mass of the system is , where the
x
Ans. (2)
value of x is ___________
Ans. (3)

3

57. A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of
length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6 N. When
the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the
same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second
with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is
_______ Hz.
Ans. (6)
58. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each
of its two wings has an area of 40 m2. If the speed
of the air is 180 km/h over the lower wing surface
and 252 km/h over the upper wing surface, the
mass of the plane is ________kg. (Take air density
to be 1 kg m–3 and g = 10 ms–2)
Ans. (9600)
4
112
59. The current in a conductor is expressed as
I = 3t2 + 4t3, where I is in Ampere and t is in
second. The amount of electric charge that flows
through a section of the conductor during t = 1s to
t = 2s is ____________ C.
Ans. (22)
60. A particle is moving in one dimension
(along x axis) under the action of a variable force.
It's initial position was 16 m right of origin. The
variation of its position (x) with time (t) is given as
x = –3t3 + 18t2 + 16t, where x is in m and t is in s.
The velocity of the particle when its acceleration
becomes zero is _________ m/s.
®
Ans. (52)
 113

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 65. In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne
+
61. If one strand of a DNA has the sequence and Na is affected by:
ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in (1) Principal quantum number (n)
complementary strand is: (2) None of the factors because their size is the
(1) CATTAGCT (2) TACGAAGT same
(3) GTACTTAC (4) ATGCGACT (3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
Ans. (2) orbitals
(4) Nuclear charge (z)
62. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Ans. (4)
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). 66. According to the wave-particle duality of matter by
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot

®
form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with presents most appropriate relationship between
AgCN form isocyanide as the main product. wavelength of electron () and momentum of
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly electron (p)?
ionic compounds.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: p

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (2)
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct p 
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (1)  
(3) (4)
63. In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 shows oxidising action
as represented in the half reaction
1/p p
Cr2 O27  XH  Ye   2A  ZH2 O
Ans. (1)
X, Y, Z and A are respectively are:
3+
(1) 8, 6, 4 and Cr2O3 (2) 14, 7, 6 and Cr 67. Given below are two statements:
3+
(3) 8, 4, 6 and Cr2O3 (4) 14, 6, 7 and Cr 2+
Statement (I): A solution of [Ni(H2O)6] is green
Ans. (4) in colour.
Statement (II): A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is
64. Which of the following reactions are colourless.
disproportionation reactions? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(A) Cu+  Cu2+ + Cu most appropriate answer from the options given
(B) 3MnO24  4H  2MnO4  MnO2  2H2O below:
(C) 2KMnO4  K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(D) 2MnO4  3Mn 2  2H2 O  5MnO2  4H (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options given correct
below: (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) (A), (B) (2) (B), (C), (D) incorrect
(3) (A), (B), (C) (4) (A), (D) Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)

1
 114

68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than
NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are
associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
molecules are associated through hydrogen
bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
70. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are
same organic compounds.
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are
different organic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans. (2)

®
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
71. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the (1) [Ni(CN)4]2–
correct explanation of (A) (2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]
+

Ans. (4) (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+

Ans. (1)
69. Identify A and B in the following sequence of
72. Which of the following compound will most easily
reaction
be attacked by an electrophile?
CH3
CH3

Cl2 / h
 A 
H O
B
2
373K
(1) (2)

COCl CHO Cl OH
(1) (A) = (B) = (3) (4)

Ans. (4)
CHCl2 CHO
(2) (A) = (B) = 73. Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed
through:
(A) Homolytic bond cleavage
(B) Heterolytic bond cleavage
CH2 Cl CHO (C) Free radical formation
(D) Primary free radical
(3) (A) = (B) =
(E) Secondary free radical
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
CHCl2 COOH
(1) (A) only
(4) (A) = (B) = (2) (C) only
(3) (B) only
Ans. (2) (4) (D) and (E) only
Ans. (3)

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74. Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic 78. Match List – I with List –II.
character in the molecules. LiF, K2O, N2, SO2 and
CIF3. List – I (Reactions) List – II (Reagents)

(1) CIF3 < N2 < SO2 < K2O < LiF (A) CH3(CH2)5–C–OC2H5CH3(CH2)5CHO (I) CH3MgBr, H2O

(2) LiF < K2O < CIF3 < SO2 < N2 O

(B) C6H5COC6H5C6H5CH2C6H5
(II) Zn(Hg) and conc.
(3) N2 < SO2 < CIF3 < K2O < LiF HCl
(4) N2 < CIF3 < SO2 < K2O < LiF +
(C) C6H5CHOC6H5CH(OH)CH3 (III) NaBH4 , H
Ans. (3) (D) (IV) DIBAL-H, H2O
CH3COCH2COOC2H5CH3C(OH)CH2COOC2H5
H
75. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled
as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M,
0.01M & 0.001 M, respectively. The value of Choose the correct answer from options given
Vant' Hoff factor (i) for these solutions will be in below:
the order. (1) A-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(1) iA < iB < iC (2) A-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

®
(2) iA < iC < iB (3) A-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) iA = iB = iC (4) A-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) iA > iB > iC Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
79. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an
76. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen,
ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
CuSO4 acts as :
following :
(1) Reducing agent
(1) q = 0, T  0, w = 0
(2) Catalytic agent
(2) q = 0, T < 0, w 0
(3) Hydrolysis agent
(4) Oxidising agent (3) q  0, T = 0, w =0
Ans. (2) (4) q = 0, T = 0, w =0
Ans. (4)
77. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a 80. Given below are two statements:
primary standard for standardisation of sodium Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho
hydroxide solution. and para directing and a powerful activating group.
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-
can be used as indicator. Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation).
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given most appropriate answer from the options given
below: below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
correct (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect incorrect
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)

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SECTION-B 86. Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic

81. Number of optical isomers possible for electrophilic substitution reaction among the
2 – chlorobutane ……… following is
O O
Ans. (2)
CH3,
82. The potential for the given half cell at 298K is OCH3, –N CH3 , –N –C  N, –OCH3
(-)………… × 10-2 V. H H
2H+(aq) + 2e-  H2 (g)
+
[H ] = 1M, PH 2 = 2 atm Ans. (2)
(Given: 2.303 RT/F = 0.06 V, log2 = 0.3)
87. Lowest Oxidation number of an atom in a
Ans. (1) compound A2B is -2. The number of an electron in
its valence shell is
83. The number of white coloured salts among the Ans. (6)
following is …………….
(A) SrSO4 (B) Mg(NH4)PO4 (c) BaCrO4 88. Among the following oxide of p - block elements,
(D) Mn(OH)2 (E) PbSO4 (F) PbCrO4

®
number of oxides having amphoteric nature is
(G) AgBr (H) PbI2 (I) CaC2O4 Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, SnO2
(J) [Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)] Ans. (3)
Ans. (5)
89. Consider the following reaction:
C 14
1 3PbCl2 + 2(NH4)3PO4  Pb3(PO4)2 + 6NH4Cl
84. The ratio of 12
in a piece of wood is part that If 72 mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50 mmol of
C 8 (NH4)3PO4 , then amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is
14
of atmosphere. If half life of C is 5730 years, the …… mmol. (nearest integer)
age of wood sample is ….. years. Ans. (24)
Ans. (17190)
90. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10– 5 and Kb for NH4OH
85. The number of molecules/ion/s having trigonal is 1.8 × 10–5. The pH of ammonium acetate
bipyramidal shape is …….. . solution will be
PF5, BrF5, PCl5, [PtCl4]2–, BF3, Fe(CO)5 Ans. (7)
Ans. (3)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 6. Let m and n be the coefficients of seventh and
1. Let f(x) = |2x2+5|x|–3|, xR. If m and n denote the thirteenth terms respectively in the expansion of
number of points where f is not continuous and not 18
 1  1
differentiable respectively, then m + n is equal to :  1 x3  1  . Then n 3
3 2    is :
(1) 5 (2) 2 m
 2x 3 
(3) 0 (4) 3
Ans. (4) 4 1
(1) (2)
2. Let  and  be the roots of the equation px2 + qx – 9 9
r = 0, where p  0. If p, q and r be the consecutive 1 9
(3) (4)
1 1 3 4 4
terms of a non-constant G.P and   , then
  4 Ans. (4)
the value of (– is : 7. Let  be a non-zero real number. Suppose f : R 
80 R is a differentiable function such that f (0) = 2 and
(1) (2) 9
9 lim f  x   1 . If f '(x) = f(x) +3, for all x  R,
x 
20
(3) (4) 8 then f (–loge2) is equal to____.
3
Ans. (1) (1) 3 (2) 5
3. The number of solutions of the equation 4 sin2x – 4 (3) 9 (4) 7
cos3x + 9 – 4 cosx = 0; x  [ –2, 2] is : Ans. (3 OR BONUS)
(1) 1 (2) 3 8. Let P and Q be the points on the line
(3) 2 (4) 0 x  3 y  4 z 1
Ans. (4)   which are at a distance of 6
8 2 2
1
1
(2x 3 2
 3x  x  1) 3 units from the point R (1,2,3). If the centroid of the
4. The value of  0
dx is equal to:
triangle PQR is (,,), then 2+2 +2 is:
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 26 (2) 36
(3) 2 (4) –1
Ans. (1) (3) 18 (4) 24
x 2 y2 Ans. (3)
5. Let P be a point on the ellipse   1 . Let the
9 4 9. Consider a ABC where A(1,2,3,), B(–2,8,0) and
line passing through P and parallel to y-axis meet C(3,6,7). If the angle bisector of BAC meets the
the circle x2 + y2 = 9 at point Q such that P and Q line BC at D, then the length of the projection of
are on the same side of the x-axis. Then, the  
eccentricity of the locus of the point R on PQ such the vector AD on the vector AC is:
that PR : RQ = 4 : 3 as P moves on the ellipse, is : 37 38
11 13 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 38 2
19 21
39
139 13 (3) (4) 19
(3) (4) 2 38
23 7
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

1
 118

10. Let Sn denote the sum of the first n terms of an 15. If the mirror image of the point P(3,4,9) in the line
arithmetic progression. If S10 = 390 and the ratio of x 1 y 1 z  2
  is (,,), then 14 (+ + )
the tenth and the fifth terms is 15 : 7, then S15 –S5 3 2 1
is equal to: is :
(1) 800 (2) 890 (1) 102 (2) 138
(3) 790 (4) 690 (3) 108 (4) 132
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
  x  1, x is even,
3 16. Let f(x) =  x  N. If for some
11. If 4
 cos x dx  a  b 3 , where a and b are  2x, x is odd,
0

rational numbers, then 9a + 8b is equal to : lim  | x |3  x  

a N, f(f(f(a))) = 21, then xa     ,
 a  a 
(1) 2 (2) 1
3 where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or
(3) 3 (4) equal to t, is equal to :
2
Ans. (1) (1) 121
(2) 144
12. If z is a complex number such that |z|1, then the
(3) 169
1
minimum value of z  (3  4i) is: (4) 225
2
Ans. (2)
5
(1) (2) 2 17. Let the system of equations x + 2y +3z = 5, 2x +
2
3y + z = 9, 4x + 3y + z =  have infinite number
3
(3) 3 (4) of solutions. Then  + 2is equal to :
2
(1) 28 (2) 17
Ans. (Bonus)
(3) 22 (4) 15
2
x  25 Ans. (2)
13. If the domain of the function f(x) =
(4  x 2 )
18. Consider 10 observation x1, x2,…., x10. such that
2 2
+log10 (x + 2x – 15) is (– , ) U [,), then  + 10 10
2
 (xi – ) = 2 and  (xi – ) = 40, where , 
3 is equal to : i 1 i 1

(1) 140 (2) 175 are positive integers. Let the mean and the variance
(3) 150 (4) 125 6 84
of the observations be and respectively. The
Ans. (3) 5 25

14. Consider the relations R1 and R2 defined as aR1b is equal to :

 a2 + b2 = 1 for all a , b,  R and (a, b) R2(c, d)
(1) 2
 a + d = b + c for all (a,b), (c,d)  N×N. Then
3
(1) Only R1 is an equivalence relation (2)
2
(2) Only R2 is an equivalence relation
5
(3) R1 and R2 both are equivalence relations (3)
2
(4) Neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation (4) 1
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

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19. Let Ajay will not appear in JEE exam with

24. If y
 
x  1 x2  x   1 (3cos 2
x  5)cos3 x ,
2
probability p = , while both Ajay and Vijay will x x x x 15
7
1 
appear in the exam with probability q = . Then then 96y '   is equal to :
5 6
the probability, that Ajay will appear in the exam Ans. (105)
and Vijay will not appear is :
25. Let a  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ , b  ˆi  8jˆ  2kˆ and
9 18
(1) (2)
35 35 c  4iˆ  c2 ˆj  c3 kˆ be three vectors such that
24 3
(3) (4)
35 35 b  a  c  a . If the angle between the vector c
Ans. (2) and the vector 3iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ is , then the greatest
20. Let the locus of the mid points of the chords of
2 2 integer less than or equal to tan2 is :
circle x +(y–1) =1 drawn from the origin intersect
the line x+y = 1 at P and Q. Then, the length of PQ Ans. (38)
is : 26. The lines L1, L2,…., I20 are distinct. For n = 1, 2,
1 3,…., 10 all the lines L2n–1 are parallel to each
(1) (2) 2
2
other and all the lines L2n pass through a given
1
(3) (4) 1 point P. The maximum number of points of
2
Ans. (1) intersection of pairs of lines from the set {L1,
SECTION-B L2,…., L20} is equal to :
21. If three successive terms of a G.P. with common Ans. (101)
ratio r(r > 1) are the lengths of the sides of a
27. Three points O(0,0), P(a, a2), Q(–b, b2), a > 0, b > 0,
triangle and [r] denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to r, then 3[r] + [–r] is equal to : are on the parabola y = x2. Let S1 be the area of the
Ans. (1) region bounded by the line PQ and the parabola,
22. Let A = I2 – 2MMT, where M is real matrix of and S2 be the area of the triangle OPQ. If the
order 2 × 1 such that the relation MT M = I1 holds.
S1 m
If  is a real number such that the relation AX = X minimum value of is , gcd(m, n) = 1, then
S2 n
holds for some non-zero real matrix X of order 2 × 1,
then the sum of squares of all possible values of  m + n is equal to :

is equal to : Ans. (7)

Ans. (2) 28. The sum of squares of all possible values of k, for
x
which area of the region bounded by the parabolas
23. 
Let f : (0, ) R and F(x)  tf(t)dt . If F(x2) =
0 2y2 = kx and ky2 = 2(y – x) is maximum, is equal
12
4 5
x + x , then  f(r
r 1
2
) is equal to : to :
Ans. (8)
Ans. (219)

3
 120

dx 1  x  y 2
29. If  , x(1) = 1, then 5x(2) is equal to :
dy y
Ans. (5)
30. Let ABC be an isosceles triangle in which A is at
2
(–1, 0), A  , AB = AC and B is on the
3
positive x-axis. If BC  4 3 and the line BC
4
intersects the line y = x + 3 at (, ), then 2 is :

Ans. (36)

4
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 33. From the statements given below :
(A) The angular momentum of an electron in nth
31. In an ammeter, 5% of the main current passes
orbit is an integral multiple of h.
through the galvanometer. If resistance of the (B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent.
galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge
will be : independent.
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to
G G
(1) (2)

®
the value of packing fraction.
200 199
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) 199 G (4) 200 G below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only
Ans. (Bonus)
(2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only
32. To measure the temperature coefficient of resistivity (3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
 of a semiconductor, an electrical arrangement (4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only
Ans. (3)
shown in the figure is prepared. The arm BC is
34. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 200 J of work when
made up of the semiconductor. The experiment is it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the
being conducted at 25°C and resistance of the gas in the process is :
(1) 850 J (2) 800 J
semiconductor arm is 3 m. Arm BC is cooled at a
(3) 600 J (4) 700 J
constant rate of 2°C/s. If the galvanometer G shows Ans. (4)

no deflection after 10s, then  is : 35. A disc of radius R and mass M is rolling
horizontally without slipping with speed . It then
B
moves up an inclined smooth surface as shown in
0.8 m
figure. The maximum height that the disc can go
A C
G up the incline is :
1 m 3 m
D  h

V = 5mV 2 3 2
(1) (2)
g 4 g
(1) – 2 × 10–2 °C–1 (2) – 1.5 × 10–2 °C–1
1 2 2 2
–2
(3) – 1 × 10 °C –1 –2
(4) – 2.5 × 10 °C –1 (3) (4)
2 g 3 g
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)

1
 122

36. Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only 41. A microwave of wavelength 2.0 cm falls normally
if the wavelength of incident light is less than on a slit of width 4.0 cm. The angular spread of the
660 nm. The band gap of photodiode is found to be central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained
X on a screen 1.5 m away from the slit, will be:
 8  eV . The value of X is : (1) 30° (2) 15°
 
(3) 60° (4) 45°
(Given, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19C)
Ans. (3)
(1) 15 (2) 11
42. C1 and C2 are two hollow concentric cubes
(3) 13 (4) 21
Ans. (1) enclosing charges 2Q and 3Q respectively as

37. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small shown in figure. The ratio of electric flux passing
droplets of water. The surface energy will become : through C1 and C2 is :
(1) 100 times (2) 10 times
1 1

®
(3) th (4) th
100 10
Ans. (4) 3Q 2Q
38. If frequency of electromagnetic wave is 60 MHz
and it travels in air along z direction then the
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 2
corresponding electric and magnetic field vectors
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
will be mutually perpendicular to each other and
Ans. (1)
the wavelength of the wave (in m) is :
(1) 2.5 (2) 10 43. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen

(3) 5 (4) 2 molecule at a given temperature and pressure is

Ans. (3) 2 km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at
39. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g the same condition in km/s is :
moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process (1) 2.0 (2) 0.5
is completed in 0.1 s then the magnitude of force (3) 1.5 (4) 1.0
exerted by the ball on the hand of player will be
Ans. (2)
(in SI unit):
44. Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks
(1) 24 (2) 12
towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B is
(3) 25 (4) 30
moving towards south with speed 108 km/h.
Ans. (4)
Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity
40. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz
of ground with respect to B are (in ms–1) :
is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
(1) –30 and 50
2 × 10–3 W. How many photons per second on an
average, are emitted by the source ? (2) –50 and –30

(Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) (3) –50 and 30

(1) 9 × 1018 (2) 6 × 1015 (4) 50 and –30
(3) 5 × 1015 (4) 7 × 1016 Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)

2
 123

45. A galvanometer (G) of 2 resistance is connected 49. A light planet is revolving around a massive star in
in the given circuit. The ratio of charge stored in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of
C1 and C2 is : revolution T. If the force of attraction between
4 6F 3
planet and star is proportional to R 2
then choose
G C2 the correct option :
C1
6 (1) T2  R5/2 (2) T2  R7/2
4F
(3) T2  R3/2 (4) T2  R3
Ans. (1)
6V 50. A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces
2 3
(1) (2) F1  5iˆ  8jˆ  7kˆ and F2  3iˆ  4jˆ  3kˆ . The
3 2
1 acceleration acting on the body is :
(3) 1 (4)

®
2
(1) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ (2) 4iˆ  2jˆ  2kˆ
Ans. (4)
46. In a metre-bridge when a resistance in the left gap (3) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ (4) 2iˆ  3jˆ  3kˆ
is 2 and unknown resistance in the right gap, the Ans. (3)
balance length is found to be 40 cm. On shunting
SECTION-B
the unknown resistance with 2, the balance
length changes by : 51. A mass m is suspended from a spring of negligible
(1) 22.5 cm (2) 20 cm mass and the system oscillates with a frequency f1. The
(3) 62.5 cm (4) 65 cm frequency of oscillations if a mass 9 m is suspended
Ans. (1)
47. Match List - I with List - II. f1
from the same spring is f2. The value of is ___.
List - I List - II f2
(Number) (Significant figure) Ans. (3)
(A) 1001 (I) 3
(B) 010.1 (II) 4 52. A particle initially at rest starts moving from
(C) 100.100 (III) 5 reference point. x = 0 along x-axis, with velocity 
(D) 0.0010010 (IV) 6
that varies as   4 xm / s. The acceleration of
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : the particle is ____ms–2.
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) Ans. (8)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
53. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) and each turn has an area of 2.0 cm2. The magnetic
Ans. (3) field produced by the magnet is 0.01 T and
48. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works the deflection in the coil is 0.05 radian when a
at 10 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is current of 10 mA is passed through it.
240 V, then the current in the secondary coil is :
The torsional constant of the suspension wire is
(1) 1.59 A (2) 13.33 A
(3) 1.33 A (4) 15.1 A x × 10–5 N-m/rad. The value of x is___.
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

3
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54. One end of a metal wire is fixed to a ceiling and a 58. In Young's double slit experiment, monochromatic
load of 2 kg hangs from the other end. A similar light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. The slits are
wire is attached to the bottom of the load and
another load of 1 kg hangs from this lower wire. 1.0 mm apart and screen is placed at 1.0 m away
Then the ratio of longitudinal strain of upper wire from slits. The distance from the centre of the
to that of the lower wire will be___.
2
screen where intensity becomes half of the
[Area of cross section of wire = 0.005 cm ,
Y = 2 × l011 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2] maximum intensity for the first time is___×10–6 m.
Ans. (3) Ans. (125)
55. A particular hydrogen - like ion emits the radiation 59. A uniform rod AB of mass 2 kg and Length 30 cm
of frequency 3 × 1015 Hz when it makes transition
from n = 2 to n = l. The frequency of radiation at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. An impulse
emitted in transition from n = 3 to n = l is
of force 0.2 Ns is applied to end B. The time taken
x
× 1015 Hz, when x = ______.
9 by the rod to turn through at right angles will be

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Ans. (32) 
s , where x = ____.
56. In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of x
charge stored in the capacitor is ___C.
R1 Ans. (4)
10 V 4
+ – 60. Suppose a uniformly charged wall provides a
C R2
uniform electric field of 2 × l04 N/C normally. A
10F 5
charged particle of mass 2 g being suspended
R3 6 through a silk thread of length 20 cm and remain
Ans. (60) stayed at a distance of 10 cm from the wall. Then
2
57. A coil of 200 turns and area 0.20 m is rotated at half
1
a revolution per second and is placed in uniform the charge on the particle will be C where
magnetic field of 0.01 T perpendicular to axis of x
rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage generated x =______. [use g = 10 m/s2]
2
in the coil is volt. The value of  is__. Ans. (3)

Ans. (5)

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 64. Match List - I with List - II.
61. The transition metal having highest 3rd ionisation List-I List-II
enthalpy is : (Reactants) Products
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(A) Phenol, Zn/ (I) Salicylaldehyde
(3) V (4) Fe
(B) Phenol, CHCl3, NaOH, HCl (II) Salicylic acid
Ans. (2)
(C) Phenol, CO2, NaOH, HCl (III) Benzene
62. Given below are two statements : (D) Phenol, Conc. HNO3 (IV) Picric acid
Statement (I) : A  bonding MO has lower electron Choose the correct answer from the options given

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density above and below the inter-nuclear asix. below.
Statement (II) : The * antibonding MO has a (1) (A)-(IV), (B), (II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
node between the nuclei. (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
below:
Ans. (3)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 65. Given below are two statements :
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement (I) : Both metal and non-metal exist in
Ans. (3) p and d-block elements.
Statement (II) : Non-metals have higher
63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as ionisation enthalpy and higher electronegativity
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). than the metals.
Assertion (A) : In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is
In the light of the above statements, choose the
reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
most appropriate answer from the option given
Reason (R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic
configuration is observed than incompletely filled below:
electronic configuration. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
In the light of the above statement, choose the most (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
appropriate answer from the options given below: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
correct explanation of (A) Ans. (2)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
66. The strongest reducing agent amont the following
correct explanation of (A)
is:
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) NH3 (2) SbH3
Ans. (1) (3) BiH3 (4) PH3
Ans. (3)

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 126

67. Which of the following compounds show colour 72. In the given reactions identify A and B.
due to d-d transition? CH3 C2H5
Pd/C
(1) CuSO4.5H2O (2) K2Cr2O7 H2 + A C C
(3) K2CrO4 (4) KMnO4 H H
Na/LiquidNH
Ans. (1) CH3  C  C  CH3  H2 
3
"B"
(1) A : 2–Pentyne B : trans – 2 – butene
68. The set of meta directing functional groups from (2) A : n – Pentane B : trans – 2 – butene
(3) A : 2 – Pentyne B : Cis – 2 – butene
the following sets is:
(4) A : n – Pentane B : Cis – 2 – butene
(1) –CN, –NH2, –NHR, –OCH3
Ans. (1)
(2) –NO2, –NH2, –COOH, –COOR
(3) –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR 73. The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:
(4) –CN, –CHO, –NHCOCH3, –COOR (1) 1 (2) 4
Ans. (3) (3) 2 (4) 3

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Ans. (1)

69. Select the compound from the following that will

74. Match List - I with List - II.
show intramolecular hydrogen bonding. List - I List - II
(1) H2O Compound Use
(2) NH3 (A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover
(3) C2H5OH (B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air
NO2 conditioners
(C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher
(4) (D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable
OH insecticide
Ans. (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
70. Lassaigne's test is used for detection of : (1) (A)-(I), (B), (II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur only (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-( II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous Only
(4) (A)-( II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only
Ans. (2)
(4) Nitrogen, Sulphur, phosphorous and halogens 75. The functional group that shows negative
Ans. (4) resonance effect is:
(1) –NH2 (2) –OH
71. Which among the following has highest boiling (3) –COOH (4) –OR
Ans. (3)
point?
76. [CO(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are respectively known as:
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH (2) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex
(3) CH3CH2CH2CHO (3) Outer orbital Complex, Inner orbital Complex
(4) H5C2 – O – C2H5 (4) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)

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 127

77. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while
SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
Statement (II) : Allotropic forms of carbon are due
to property of catenation and p-d bond formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans. (3)
80. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-
membered covalent chelate when treated with
NiCl2 solution in presence of NH 4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains
iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In the
light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

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alc. KOH Br 2 KCN (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
78. C2H5Br A
CCl 4
B
Excess
C
H3O+ Ans. (1)
Excess
D SECTION-B
Acid D formed in above reaction is : 81. Total number of isomeric compounds (including
(1) Gluconic acid stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of
(2) Succinic acid 2-methylbutane is________.
(3) Oxalic acid
Ans. (6)
(4) Malonic acid
82. The following data were obtained during the first
Ans. (2)
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant

79. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, volume:

M) in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25° C. Its A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)

solubility product at 25°C will be approximately.
S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm)
3
W
(1) 10 7   1. 0 0.1
M
5
2. 115 0.28
W
(2) 10 7  
M The rate constant of the reaction is______× 10–2s–1
5 (nearest integer)
3W
(3) 10  
M Ans. (2)
5
W
5 83. The number of tripeptides formed by three
(4) 10  
M different amino acids using each amino acid once
Ans. (2) is ______.

Ans. (6)

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/01-02-2024/Evening Session

84. Number of compounds which give reaction with 87. The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for
Hinsberg's reagent is_______. the oxidation of 1 mol of H2O to O2 is ____×105C.
O NH2 Ans. (2)
+ –
N2 Cl
NH
88. For a certain reaction at 300K, K = 10, then DG°
for the same reaction is –_______×10–1 kJ mol–1.
(Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
N NH 2
NH N
NH 2 Ans. (57)

89. Consider the following redox reaction :

O
NH2
H2N C NH2 MnO4- + H + + H2 C2O4 ƒ Mn 2+ + H2 O + CO2
N N
H
The standard reduction potentials are given as

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below ( E °red )

Ans. (5) E °MnO- / Mn 2+ = +1.51V

4

85. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to

E °CO2 / H2 C 2 O4 = -0.49V
18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at
If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is
–24°C is________ kg (Molar mass in g mol–1 for
–1 given as Keq = 10x, then the value of x = _______
ethylene glycol 62, Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol )
(nearest integer)
Ans. (15)
Ans. (338 OR 339)
86. Following Kjeldahl's method, 1g of organic
90. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion
compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10
gives 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of water
mL of 2M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in
vapour. Total number of carbon and hydrogen
the compound is _______%.
atoms in the hydrocarbon is _____.
Ans. (56)
Ans. (14)