Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report

May 2023
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Contents

1 Introduction page 3

2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 0057

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01 page 4
2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02 page 12
2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03 page17

3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Global Perspectives 0838

3.1 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives component 01 page 20

4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English 0058

4.1 Comments on specific questions – English component 01 page 26
4.2 Comments on specific questions – English component 02 page 37

5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Mathematics 0096

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01 page 47
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02 page 62

6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Science 0097

6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01 page 76
6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02 page 82
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1 Introduction

This document reports on candidate performance for this exam series. Performances for each syllabus are reported separately.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in
this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

For each syllabus the following information is provided:

• examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0057

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01

General comments

This was the first administration of the revised test format.

This session there appeared to be fewer than usual unclear answers such as erasures and overwriting, though Assistant Examiners needed to check with
Team Leaders or Principal Examiner occasionally.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

A five-gap, multiple-choice sentence completion test, required learners to select an appropriate item to fill five gaps and to circle the word of their choice.
Correct usage of lexical and function words was tested. The most correct answers were for Questions 2, and 4 and 5 were also well answered. The most
incorrect answers were for Question 3.

Part 2

(Questions 6–12)

In this section, learners were required to select the correct meaning of the message shown in an image. Learners needed to circle one of the three choices
given.

The task required careful reading and accurate matching of information to determine the correct response. Learners needed to be good at making
inferences and identifying different ways to convey a message. Errors are often made when learners focus on words shared by the text and the multiple-
choice option and do not consider the wider context of the message. Questions 6 and 7 were the most successfully answered and Questions 23 and
Question 9 were the most difficult.
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Part 3

(Questions 13–17)

In this part, learners were required to complete a short conversation about going to a dinosaur museum by selecting appropriate responses from those
given. Most learners scored well on this task.

Questions 15 and 17 (especially) were the most successfully answered and Questions 13 and 14 the least. Errors are often made when learners find an
item to match the sentence before or after but not both.

In this part and Part 2 some learners changed their minds several times and, rather than crossing out their original mark, wrote over their first answer or
erased unclearly. This occasionally resulted in an illegible response. It would be preferable for learners to completely cross out the rejected response and
write the preferred one next to it. There were also a few ambiguously formed letters and it was very occasionally difficult to see if E or F (or occasionally C
or G) was the intended final answer in cases where there was overwriting and/or incomplete erasure. This, however, is an area which continues to show
improvement.

Part 4

(Questions 18–24)

For Questions 18–24, learners were required to put one word only into the gaps to complete a single email message to a friend. The words needed to fit
grammatically and to carry the intended meaning to complete the text.

As in previous sessions, a lot of the incorrect answers seemed to be produced because the words chosen often fitted the words either side of the blank in
terms of grammar or meaning but learners sometimes did not take into account the wider context of sentence/discourse level. Possibly more focus is needed
on this aspect when teaching reading skills to learners. This appears to be an important area for improvement as it is also noted in reports for previous
sessions and at secondary level.

Spelling needed to be accurate and the mark scheme allowed for alternative answers to Questions 22 and 23. The answers to Questions 19, 20 and 24
were shown on the mark scheme with an initial capital letter but, with the agreement of the Product Manager and in accordance with practice in previous
sessions, examiners were directed to accept correct answers with an initial lower case letter. This part proved to be a good discriminator, with strong
learners occasionally scoring full marks. The majority of learners answered fairly well. The most successfully answered questions were 21, 23 and 24, and
22 had the most incorrect answers.
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Part 5

(Questions 25–29)

This was the first time that this task type had been included in a Checkpoint Primary question paper.

The task required learners to match the information given about summer music schools to the requirements of five young people. Many learners appeared
to have difficulty with this part as there were a large number of incorrect answers and a larger than usual number of No Responses, sometimes for the
whole of Part 5. Centres may not have had time to familiarise their learners with the new task.

The most correctly answered questions were 25 and 26, and the least successfully answered was 29. As usual, errors tended to be made when
learners were able to match some of the people's requirements, but they did not continue to look for a music school that matched all the
requirements. This type of task tends to generate a lot of wrong answers as one or two wrong answers may have a ‘knock-on’ effect on other answers.

Comments made for Part 3 above about the clarity of learner responses also apply to this part.

Part 6

(Questions 30–34)

This task comprised multiple-choice questions on a longer text with the title ‘I love orcas’.

The need for learners to use a wide range of reading skills, including inference and deduction, makes this a challenging part of the test. This task appeared to
an effective discriminator. Questions 31 and 32 were the most successfully answered and 30 by far the most difficult.
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Comments on specific questions

Part 1

Question 1

Often correct (‘offered’); most common incorrect answer: ‘suggested’.

Question 2

Usually correct (‘wait’); incorrect answers divided between ‘think’ and ‘help’.

Question 3

Often incorrect (correct answer: ‘nearly’); by far the most common incorrect answer: ‘exactly’.

Question 4

Usually correct (‘instructions’); incorrect answers divided between ‘plans’ and ‘opinions’.

Question 5

Usually correct (‘improved’); incorrect answers divided between ‘continued’ and ‘happened’.

Part 2

Question 6

Usually correct (A); incorrect answers divided between B and C.

Question 7

Usually correct (C); incorrect answers divided between A and B.

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Question 8

Often incorrect (correct answer: C); the most incorrect answer: B.

Question 9

Usually incorrect (correct answer: B); incorrect answers divided between A and C. Possibly many learners did not understand ‘marked routes’
on the sign and so were unable to relate it to ‘particular routes’.

Question 10

Often correct (C); most common incorrect answer: B.

Question 11

Often correct (B); most common incorrect answer: C.

Question 12

Often correct (C); most common incorrect answer: B.

Part 3

Question 13

Often correct (E); most common incorrect answer: F and G.

Question 14

Often correct (B); most common incorrect answer: E.

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Question 15

Usually correct (D); incorrect answers shared between C, E, F and G.

Question 16

Usually correct (G); most common incorrect answers shared between B and D.

Question 17

A high proportion correct (A); most common incorrect answer: G.

Part 4

Question 18

Usually correct (‘with’); most common incorrect answer: ‘in’

Question 19

Often correct (‘There’); most common incorrect answer: ‘It’ and also ‘This’ appeared quite often.

Question 20

Usually correct (‘Do’); most common incorrect answer: ‘Did’, and ‘Would’ and ‘Have’ sometimes appeared.

Question 21

A high proportion correct (‘to’); most common incorrect answers: ‘at’ and ‘in’.
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Question 22

Often correct (‘are/include’); the most common incorrect answer: ‘is’ (possibly learners are very familiar with the singular form only, as in
‘My favourite subject is…’ and thus overlooked the plural ‘subjects’).

Question 23

A high proportion correct (‘be/become’); no common incorrect answer but responses included ‘a’, ‘an’, ‘for’ and ‘go’.

Question 24

A high proportion correct (‘What’); no common incorrect answer but responses included ‘The’, ‘And’, ‘Are’ and ‘So’.

Part 5

Question 25

Often incorrect (correct answer: F); most common incorrect answer: A.

Question 26

Often incorrect (correct answer: G); most common incorrect answer: F.

Question 27

Very often incorrect (correct answer: E); by far the most common incorrect answer: A.

Question 28

Very often incorrect (correct answer: B); by far the most common incorrect answer: D.
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Question 29

Usually incorrect (correct answer: C); most common incorrect answers: B and D.

Part 6

Question 30

A high proportion incorrect (correct answer: B); the most common incorrect answer: C. This appeared to be the most difficult question on the paper.

Question 31

Often correct (B); incorrect answers divided between A and C.

Question 32

Often correct (A); most common incorrect answer: C.

Question 33

Often incorrect (correct answer: C); the most common incorrect answer: B.

Question 34

Often incorrect (correct answer: A); the most common incorrect answer: C.
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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0057

2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02

General comments

This was the first administration of the revised test format and the overall level of difficulty appeared to be slightly greater than that of previous papers.
Part 2 consisted of a slightly different task type, with 5 multiple-choice questions on a longer dialogue between 2 people being replaced by questions
on 5 discrete dialogues. This session there appeared to be fewer than usual unclear answers such as erasures and overwriting, though Assistant
Examiners needed to check with Team Leaders or Principal Examiner occasionally.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

Learners identify one of three pictures from short discrete dialogues. Most learners did well in this part, especially on Questions 2, 4 and 5 (especially);
answers to Question 1 and 3 were the least successful.

Part 2

(Questions 6–10)

This involved multiple-choice questions based on five short dialogues. Question 10 was the most successfully answered and Questions 7 and 9 the least.

Part 3

(Questions 11–15)

This task comprised five questions based on talk about a visit to a chocolate factory. Incorrect answers tended to be other words in the recording or due to
mishearing of the correct answer. Answers to Questions 11, 12, 13 and 15 were all common words at Primary level so no misspelling was allowed. The
answer to Question 14 was less common, so some allowance was made for incorrect but phonetically plausible misspellings. The most successfully
answered question was Question 11 and the least successful Questions 13 and 14.
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Part 4

(Questions 16–20)

This task comprised five questions based on a talk with a girl called Mia Jones about going to a holiday flight school. Incorrect responses may be
more common in this part, due to the increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though learner performance in this task seemed
similar to that of recent past sessions. The most successfully answered question was 20 and the least successful were 16 and 19.

Comments on specific questions

Part 1

Question 1

Often correct (A); common incorrect answer: C.

Question 2

Usually correct (C); common incorrect answer: A.

Question 3

Often correct (C); by far the most common incorrect answer: A.

Question 4

Usually correct (B); most common incorrect answer: C.

Question 5

A high proportion correct (A); most common incorrect answer: C.

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Part 2

Question 6

Often incorrect (correct answer: B); incorrect answers divided between A and D.

Question 7

Often incorrect (correct answer: C); incorrect answers divided between A and B.

Question 8

Often incorrect (correct: C); most common incorrect: B.

Question 9

Very often incorrect (correct answer: A); incorrect answers divided between B and C.

Question 10

Often correct (B); incorrect answers divided between A and C.

Part 3

Question 11

Often incorrect (correct answer: ‘1813’); most common incorrect answer: ‘1830’ (a predictable mishearing) and also other dates on recording often appeared.

Question 12

Often incorrect (correct answer: ‘history); most common incorrect answer: ‘science’, and ‘documentary’ often appeared.
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Question 13

A high proportion incorrect (correct answer: ‘boxes’); common incorrect answer: ‘beans’; other incorrect answers included: ‘box’, ‘box’s’, ‘boxers’, ‘display(s)’
and ‘making’.

Question 14

A high proportion incorrect (correct answer: ‘sculpture(s)’). Note: guidance was given on mark scheme on acceptable misspellings. The most common
incorrect answer: ‘cake(s)’ There were unacceptable misspellings (such as ‘scuplture’ and ‘scrupcher’) and a noticeable number of No Responses.

Question 15

Often incorrect (correct answer: ‘rabbit’); the most common incorrect answer: ‘dinosaur’ (with a number of misspellings), ‘rabit’, ‘cake(s)’ and a noticeable
number of No Responses.

Part 4

Question 16

Often correct (C); most common incorrect answer: B.

Question 17

Often correct (C); incorrect answers divided between A and B.

Question 18

Often correct (B); most common incorrect answer: C.

Question 19

Often correct (B); most common incorrect answer: C.

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Question 20

Usually correct (A); incorrect answers divided between B and C.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0057

2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03

General comments

This was the first session using the new, updated question paper and mark scheme. Learners, on the whole, were well prepared and coped well with the new
format of the paper. The tasks were similar to previous ones in terms of what the learners were asked to do: write a short message to a friend responding to
three bullet points and write a story following on from an initial prompt.

The instructions were different regarding the number of words to use; 35–45 are now expected in Part 1 and 90–110 in Part 2. This did not cause any
problems, apart from when some learners had counted their words and then deleted sections of text, so they did not exceed the length of text stated.
Teachers should advise learners that examiners will not penalise them if they write in excess of the advised number of words, but they may lose marks if they
delete relevant sections of text. Deleting text can mean that marks are lost across the assessment scales as it is frequently the stronger learners who write
more, showing range of vocabulary and structures, as well as developing a text which is coherent and cohesive. Once sections are removed, a text loses its
coherence, and if examiners cannot read the text, they cannot credit any language that may be there, so marks are lost.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Learners had to write a short message inviting their friend to the cinema. The scenario and context did not pose any problems. Learners all understood the
concept of going to the cinema and asking a friend to go with them. There was a little bit of overlap at times with bullet points two and three, and sometimes
learners addressed these together, either in the same sentence, or by using the same words, e.g., ‘I want to see a film about animals. The film has a lot of
animals in it’ or ‘I want to see a film about dinosaurs. I like dinosaurs’. It would be a good idea to train learners to answer the three content points using
different information, so they can be fully credited in terms of content.

Organisation was assessed in this paper for the first time and learners did manage to pick up a few marks here. However, some responded to each bullet
point in turn and there were no linking words or cohesive devices at all. Learners should be instructed in how to use simple linking devices to connect their
texts.
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Content points
(invite Nicky to go to the cinema with you)
This generally worked well, but quite a few learners swapped the roles and responded to an invitation, rather than making one. Most realised it was a future
date and coped well with this. The function of inviting someone was understood and most learners could formulate an invitation using simple phrasing, e.g.,
‘Would you like to come to the cinema with me?’, which was absolutely fine.

(say what film you would like to see)

Most learners suggested a film by name, but others suggested a genre, e.g., ‘I’d like to see an action film’, ‘I’d like to see a film about football’, ‘I’d like to see
Toy Story’, all of which were acceptable approaches to take with this bullet point.

(explain what the film is about)

Some learners gave quite involved plot details, but others gave a general overview, e.g., ‘It’s about a man who likes science’. Again, both approaches were
fine, particularly in the context of the advisory word totals.

Question 2

Learners had to continue their story from the prompt sentence, ‘As the train came into the station, Jo ran along the platform and waved happily.’ This prompt
seemed to cause a few problems where learners were not sure if Jo was getting on to the train herself or meeting a friend off it. Both approaches were
accepted, but the information about ‘waving happily’, was often lost if learners had chosen the first scenario.

Many learners omitted any reference to Jo being happy and wrote scenarios where Jo clearly would not have been happy, so training learners to decode the
whole phrase would be useful. Also, some learners thought that ‘Jo ran’ was a full name, and referred to the main character throughout as Jo Ran, which was
distracting, but not impeding.

In terms of the marking criteria, most learners scored well for Content. On the whole, stories linked to the prompt and addressed the main idea of the train and
Jo’s interaction with it, either making a journey or meeting people. There were a few learners who did not know where to take the story after the prompt and
these did not score very well across the board, as their stories also lacked both an organised narrative and a range of vocabulary and structures.

Most learners were well practised in writing a narrative. Many introduced simple narrative tenses, included direct or indirect speech, more characters and a
clear narrative structure. The use of these features of the story genre will always help learners to achieve higher marks for Communicative Achievement and
Organisation.

Looking at Organisation as a whole, some learners used punctuation effectively, but others used hardly any, which affected this mark.
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In terms of Language, some learners struggled with tenses and wrote the whole story in the present tense, which, although it may not be wrong in all cases,
can limit the learner’s ability to gain marks in this subscale.

All in all, the majority of learners coped well with the new format, and with more experience of practice and progression tests, they will develop a better
understanding of how to approach the tasks and of the information to be included.
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3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Global Perspectives 0838

3.1 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives 0838 component 01

Key messages

This is the first series using a revised version of the assessment criteria. It is important that the new criteria are used to guide teams and learners to include
all relevant content in each part of the Checkpoint (Team Report, Evidence of Action and Personal Reflection). Content that is misplaced (for example,
content that should be included in the Team Report, but which instead appears in the Personal Reflection) cannot be credited. The new criteria can be found
in the document ‘Checkpoint Instructions Cambridge Primary Global Perspectives 0838’, which is available for downloading on the Cambridge Primary
Support site.

Teams at many centres have chosen issues of local relevance to focus on in their projects, have set a clear goal ‘to improve, change or resolve the local
issue’, and have planned and carried out a course of action which has had a positive real-world impact. Their enthusiasm for and commitment to their projects
is highly commendable, as is the support of their teachers and others in their communities.

Attention to the practical aspects of the Team Project (in particular, setting a clear goal, and planning and carrying out a course of action to meet the goal) is
the key to higher marks in the Checkpoint, since it is the learners’ first-hand experience of such action that provides the most relevant content for written
submissions such as the Team Report and the Personal Reflection, and it also forms the basis for effective Evidence of Action. Where teams have not had
sufficient opportunity to carry out a course of action, it is likely to restrict the marks they can attain for any of these submissions.
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General comments

Assessment Objective 1 Research, analysis and evaluation

Achievement relating to this AO is assessed in the Team Report and Evidence of Action. Both of these are team submissions.

(a) (i) The Team Report is assessed using the following criteria:

‘justify the issue chosen’

Teams that chose issues with specific local relevance (for example, the handling of food waste in their school, or pollution in a nearby river) were
often able to justify their choice more effectively than those that chose issues relating to broader concerns (for example, recycling, or water pollution
in general). Such choices also had implications when it came to setting a clear goal (see (iii) below) and deciding on a course of action (see (iv)
below) that was likely to meet that goal.

(ii) ‘outline and explain different perspectives on the chosen issue, based on research’

Teams that engaged in primary research through the use of questionnaires or interviews were more likely to be able to identify different local
perspectives on their chosen issue, and to explore these in some depth. That research using secondary sources had been carried out was often
evident, but it was not always clearly linked to different perspectives on the issue, and tended to result in simple statements of factual information
which did not support a particular viewpoint.

(iii) ‘state the goal set to address the issue’

Setting a clear goal was fundamental to a team’s success in planning and carrying out a course of action (see (iv) below). Teams can be
encouraged to set a goal that is achievable given practical constraints such as time or personnel available, access to resources, etc.. A single goal
with a clearly defined outcome (for example, to acquire a composter to handle food waste at school) can generally enable a team to plan and carry
out their course of action (identifying a suitable composter, conducting a series of fund-raising activities, purchasing and installing the composter,
etc.) more effectively than setting multiple goals which are less focused. Where teams set goals that refer to ‘raising awareness’ of an issue, they
can be encouraged to consider in more detail what such an outcome might look like (for example, how the team could assess or monitor the
effectiveness of their awareness-raising activities).
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(iv) ‘give an account of the course of action taken, with a discussion of its strengths and limitations’

Teams that set a clear goal linked to their chosen issue (see (iii) above) were often able to give a detailed account of the action they had taken to
meet their goal, and this in turn enabled them to evaluate more effectively its strengths and limitations. Where teams were not given sufficient
opportunity to put their planned course of action into practice, their ability to evaluate its strengths and limitations was clearly impaired. Those teams
who focused their evaluation of strengths and limitations on the course of action they had taken (for example, by considering how effectively they
had planned to meet their goal within the time available to them) achieved higher marks against this criterion than teams that simply reported more
general impressions, such as how they felt upon completing their project.

The writing of the Team Report should be a collaborative effort involving all members of the team. It is sometimes the case that individual learners
include in their Personal Reflections content that would have been more appropriate if it had been included in the Team Report (for example, some
Personal Reflections contained a more thoughtful justification for the team’s choice of issue, or a more detailed account of the team’s course of
action, than the one given in the Team Report). Learners can be reminded that they cannot gain individual credit for such content in their Personal
Reflection – it would have been to their advantage to contribute such ideas to the Team Report, as a result of which the team might have been
awarded a higher mark.

It is often the case, particularly when they are referring to their research, that teams include content in their Team Report or Evidence of Action that
they have copied and pasted from secondary sources. Teams should be encouraged to acknowledge and reference such sources. However,
particularly with respect to the Team Report, they should also be made aware that this type of content may not always be relevant to the criteria
against which their work will be marked.

(b) (i) For this AO, the Evidence of Action is assessed using the following criterion:

‘course of action’

Teams that set themselves a clear goal and planned their course of action accordingly were generally more successful in demonstrating through
their Evidence of Action how effectively they had been able to execute their action and meet their goal. Those teams that include as part of their
initial planning a consideration of how they are going to keep a record of what they do throughout their project are much more likely to present a
coherent picture of their activity in their Evidence of Action.
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Assessment Objective 2 Reflection

Achievement relating to this AO is assessed in the Personal Reflection, which is submitted by individual learners.

(c) (i) The Personal Reflection is assessed using the following criteria:

‘reflection on thoughts (personal perspective)’

Learners can be encouraged to focus more attention on changes and developments in their personal perspective on their chosen issue. This could
be achieved by adopting a ‘before-and-after’ approach (‘What I used to think about this… What I think about it now…’) which might entail
encouraging learners to keep a record of what they are thinking with regard to the issue throughout the project, rather than just what they think at
the end of it. To be ‘well-reasoned’ such an account would need to include explanation not just of what changes or developments in their thinking
occurred, but also of what events or insights caused them to take place.

(ii) ‘reflection on behaviour related to the chosen issue’

Learners who focused on explaining changes in their behaviour which are specifically related to the issue chosen (for example, when the issue
chosen was reducing litter in their locality, a personal decision to no longer buy water in single-use plastic bottles) were often able to reflect more
effectively than those who commented on more general types of change they experienced during the Team Project (for example, remembering
always to back up work on their computer). Above all, learners should be discouraged from thinking that ‘behaviour’ here refers to how well or badly
they behave in class!

(iii) ‘reflection on personal contribution to teamwork’

Many learners did not score as highly against this criterion as they might have done, usually because they tended simply to list or describe their
contributions, or to give a narrative account of what they did during the Team Project, rather than engage in any evaluation of their strengths and
limitations. This could include, for example, some reflection on how their actions contributed (or did not contribute) towards helping the team meet
the goal they set. To be ‘insightful’, such discussion could be extended to include reflection on how any limitations they have identified in their
personal contribution might be remedied or overcome in future.
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(iv) ‘reflection on experience of teamwork’

This aspect of the Personal Reflection was generally handled better than the reflection on personal contributions (see (iii) above). Many learners
were able to identify benefits and challenges of working as a team, and to link these to their personal experience during the Team Project, although
sometimes there was a lack of balance in the discussion. Learners should be made aware that discussion of the challenges of teamwork will be
credited as indicative of their ability to reflect on both negative and positive aspects of their experience, rather than interpreted as an admission of
any shortcomings.

The Personal Reflection is a piece of writing submitted by each learner individually. It is expected that learners will use their own words to reflect on
their personal experience of the Team Project. This is to their long-term advantage when it comes to developing the skill of reflection as they get
older. It is most unlikely that content copied and pasted from other sources will be of any relevance to the assessment criteria against which this
piece of work is marked. learners can be assured that it is the content of their Personal Reflection that is assessed, not the accuracy of the
language with which it is expressed.

Assessment Objective 3 Communication and collaboration

Achievement relating to this AO is assessed in the Evidence of Action and by Teacher Observation. (As Teacher Observation marks are not moderated by
Cambridge, they cannot be reported on here.)

(d) (i) For this AO, the Evidence of Action is assessed using the following criterion:

‘communication of action’

Many teams were able to use their Evidence of Action effectively to communicate an important message, or the course of action that they had
taken. Although research findings were often included in the Evidence of Action, it was not always clear how such findings supported the message
or had informed the course of action. Likewise, where teams submitted an artifact such as a poster, it was sometimes unclear how the team had
used it to communicate their message, or who the intended audience was. Higher marks were generally attained by teams that used their Evidence
of Action to show themselves in the act of communicating their message to others or carrying out other activities as part of their course of action.
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While clear parameters are set for the Team Report and Personal Reflection, there is more scope for variety in the way that teams submit their
Evidence of Action. However, teams that submit their Evidence of Action as a single file (a slideshow or PDF document, for example) are more likely
to present a coherent, contextualised picture of what they have done than teams that submit their Evidence of Action in a less organised way – for
example, as a set of multiple JPEG images, which may lack context. Organising the material submitted for Evidence of Action can be regarded as
an integral part of ensuring that it is capable of communicating a message or a course of action and is therefore likely to attract higher marks.

When submitting Evidence of Action, centres are requested to avoid including links to websites or other online platforms, as Cambridge may not be
able to access these. If a team has created an online resource as part of their Team Project, please ask them to provide screenshots of it.
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4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0058

4.1 Comments on specific questions – English 0058 component 01

General comments

This session the given texts were an information text about a variety of bird watching holidays and a biographical text about Mozart and his pet starling.
Learners’ comprehension skills were challenged by some of the idioms used in Text A. The Writing task required learners to write a persuasive text to go on
the website of an activity centre, encouraging people to visit.

In Section A – Reading, there were a variety of questions (including tick-boxes, data-retrieval questions and questions which required learners to give their
own opinions) which gave learners ample opportunity to demonstrate their understanding of both texts as well as showing the breadth of their grammatical
knowledge. Responses which required learners to demonstrate their knowledge of text structures and features of text types, as well as their understanding of
punctuation, were generally well answered. A number of questions (such as 1(c), 8(c) and 9(c) required learners to identify particular key words or adverbs,
and these tended to be answered correctly by those learners who showed more advanced grammatical and linguistic understanding. Additionally, for these
types of questions, learners who chose a longer quote were only able to gain a mark if they clearly identified the key word using underlining, capital letters or
emboldening – for example ‘he STILL wrote over six hundred pieces’ (Question 8(a)). This was a particularly important skill for this paper as many questions
required such precise answers.

Those learners who paid careful attention to question instructions, such as ‘Tick one box’, generally performed much better. In addition, many learners
ensured that their answers were written legibly, (i.e. well-formed, consistent and well-spaced), and that any errors were clearly struck out and replaced, which
made marking easier and ensured they earned the marks they deserved. It was clear that the highest performing learners took the time to re-read or double
check their responses and to correct minor errors. This is an essential examination skill that ensures that marks are not lost through ambiguous or incomplete
answers.

Section B – Writing. The scripts of learners who made effective use of the Planning Box generally had a good mixture of persuasive elements and a better
balance of content (which focussed on a variety of relevant attractions with limited repetition of ideas or phrases). Well-planned texts also had more logical
sequencing which was a key aspect of successful writing this session. Those learners who began their actual writing in the Planning Box, or wrote their entire
submission there, were disadvantaged because marking begins with writing on the dotted answers lines on the following pages.
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The vast majority of learners were able to create pieces which clearly highlighted some key features of their chosen activity centre and which explicitly
included some persuasive features, such as rhetorical questions and direct, second person address (most often, to be found in the introduction or
conclusion). In general, most students ensured that the structure, and even paragraphing, was clear. The highest marks were reserved for those who were
able to develop several points of content and to maintain the persuasive tone consistently throughout their writing (often by including more advanced
persuasive skills, such as referring their writing back to their target audience or giving factual-sounding ‘evidence’ for their opinions). They also arranged their
writing in a way which was appropriate to the purpose of the text (for example, writing in detail early on about the ‘fun’ attractions of the site, and leaving the
more mundane information like ticket prices until the end).

In terms of technical writing skills, more successful learners demonstrated their understanding that accurate punctuation is key to ensuring clear meaning,
particularly in relation to the use of full stops and capital letters. Learners who attempted the use of complex sentences were often rewarded with higher
marks, although it is important that the meaning, focus and tense of these sentences does not get muddled. Many learners also scored well on the spelling
aspect of their writing, especially those who attempted more ambitious words/vocabulary, even if the spelling was not entirely accurate.

It was more noticeable this session that some learners used Text A as a basis for their writing. Whilst it did have some persuasive features, it was more of an
advisory text and using it as a template meant that learners’ writing did not meet the brief effectively and wrote irrelevant or incomplete answers. There was
also limited evidence of original sentence formation, language or spelling. Additionally, in a few cases, learners wrote narrative pieces, perhaps demonstrating
a misunderstanding of the focus of this particular paper which is a non-fiction exam. A number of learners also seemed to misunderstand the brief and
provided a recount of their own visit to an activity centre. Careful reading of the stimulus is vital as this always clearly states the non-fiction text type required.

Section A – Reading

Question 1

(a) It was clear that the term ‘figurative language technique’ is recognised by students, encouraging most to attempt this question. It is also clear that
students have been taught a wide range of techniques. However, it would seem that some of these are not well understood; many of the techniques
suggested, such personification, were not applicable here. To gain the mark, learners supplied the correct term (alliteration, or a phonetically
plausible attempt at the spelling of this word) or were able to identify the repetition of the initial letter (B) by copying the key words and highlighting it.
Other successful learners noted this as following ‘the rule of three’ which was also credit-worthy. Some learners focused on the use of the word
‘buzzing’ and, incorrectly, assumed that a metaphor was being used; others suggested hyperbole, which might have been suggested due to the use
of an exclamation mark at the end of the sentence.
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(b) This question required learners to identify an opinion in a clearly specified part of the text. Those learners who adhered to the guidance were
generally able to find the appropriate part (rather than giving an opinion from another area of the text) and gained marks when they supplied the
relevant sentence, i.e. ‘A birdwatching holiday is a fantastic way to discover new birds’ or even simply supplied the relevant phrase ‘a fantastic way’.
A few learners focused on the need to give an opinion, often giving their own personal opinion about birdwatching, suggesting that they had not fully
read the question.

(c) This question referenced relative pronouns, which seems not to be a concept well understood by learners. Many students attempted this question
and it was clear that most identified and understood the term ‘pronoun’. However, too often they provided personal pronouns (you, we) or general
ones, such as ‘it’, rather than the relative one required. Those learners who were able to identify the correct phrase, ‘… a selection of tours that take
place…’ were able to gain the mark if they gave either only the key word, ‘that’, or if they wrote the sentence but clearly emphasised the key word,
for example by underlining.

Question 2

Idioms can be tricky concepts, however, many learners attempted this question. They suggested a variety of phrases which they felt might have been
appropriate. The successful ones had clearly read the question guidance carefully and focused on the pertinent part of the text rather than giving phrases
from, for example, the beginning of the article. They were also careful to give only the phrase, as specified in the question, (rather than writing the entire
sentence in which it was found), but they were also able to give the full phrase, ‘to dive straight in’, without omitting any of the key words or changing the word
order, which changed the meaning.

Question 3

(a) It is very clear that learners have been taught a good variety of parenthesis punctuation as the majority of learners attempted this question and a
large number of these were able to use the correct terminology. Careful reading of the question meant that most learners suggested punctuation
marks, rather than explaining the function of parenthesis. Those who considered the context of the sentence and were confident about the different
functions of this type of punctuation were able to correctly suggest a colon as being the most fitting mark as a replacement for the dash. Those who
were able to correctly name it, rather than simply drawing it, were able to gain the mark as they demonstrated the necessary grammatical
knowledge. They had obviously also taken note of the requirement for a mark (rather than marks, plural) which discounted the use of brackets.
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(b) Again, many learners attempted this question and those who were able to focus on the need for movement (rather than random action, such as
‘doing’) in their response demonstrated a secure understanding of English phrases which gained them one mark. The most successful learners were
those who noted that this question had two marks available and so ensured that two different concepts were included in their answers – that of
movement from and to, as well as the idea of rapid movement, for example ‘travelling from one place to somewhere else very quickly’. These learners
also were careful not to repeat the stem of the question, (i.e. by not using the phrase ‘one to the next’) in their answer; instead they found alternative
synonyms such as ‘from a particular habitat to a different place.’ By making these changes and additions of location, they showed a greater level of
comprehension in explaining the meaning. Even greater precision in some explanations was shown by learners who were able to combine the
movement and speed concepts by choosing verbs that encapsulated both, such as ‘rushing’ or ‘sprinting’.

Question 4

This question challenged learners to fulfil two criteria – giving a personal opinion based on the part of the text specified and providing matching evidence for
this, from the text. Many learners recognised the need for a personal response to gain the initial mark, and the successful ones were able to base their
responses on what they had read in the indicated section of text (lines 16-22) to give a relevant response. This focused either on how staying in one place or
travelling to different places would affect them, or what these different approaches would mean to their chances of seeing different types of birds. Less
accurate answers commented on more vague aspects, such as their love of travelling. The very best answers gave these opinions in their own words, for
example ‘Staying in one place is less tiring’ or ‘Moving around gives you a better chance of seeing a variety of birds.’ Comments such as ‘it would be
exhausting’ were too generalised (in that they did not specify what would be exhausting, particularly when the ‘I would prefer to stay in one place’ box had
been ticked). Even more proficient learners were then able to use paraphrasing or exact quotes taken from the correct part of the text to accurately support
these comments, linking a fitting opinion to matching evidence to gain both the available marks.

Question 5

(a) The majority of learners who tackled this question generally did so by referencing the correct part of the text, indicating careful reading of the question
guidance. Some went further and identified the appropriate sentence, showing that they understood that what was required was the finding of
synonymous words; these learners demonstrated competent comprehension of both the phrase given in the question and the meaning of the
sentence in the text. The most valid answers came from those learners who had clearly had more experience of identifying phrases and were able to
only provide the relevant words (or, also acceptably, highlight these key words in a copied sentence), thus clearly showing that they knew which part
of the sentence was the most applicable.
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(b) While a number of learners who completed this question were able to identify the modal verb, often by either stating it on its own or by copying the
relevant sentence, it was clear from some of the answers given that there is some misunderstanding about the function of modal verbs; some
learners used words such as ‘probability’ or ‘opinions’. More adept students were able to paraphrase the sentence given in the text, for example by
saying ‘some people might want something else.’ It was those who showed that they were able to explain, in general terms, that modal verbs are
used to show possibility, or who were able to link it to the given example by saying something like ‘It is used to show that people might want a
different option’ that gained the mark.

Question 6

It is clear that an understanding of text structure is a strength for many learners, as this question was reasonably well answered. The majority of learners
achieved at least one mark; most often for correctly identifying that subheadings (or a synonym for these) were used to make the text easier to read.
Fastidious learners avoided using terms that are more relevant to other text types, such as ‘headlines’ (which is more appropriate for newspaper articles).
Other relevant structuring techniques that were identified were the use of questions to make it quicker to find the information the reader requires, and also a
glossary being clearly included at the end of the text. A number of answers referred to the use of paragraphs, but the more precise ones accurately identified
that it is the use of short paragraphs or the inclusion of spaces between paragraphs (rather than merely indented ones) which made this text clearer. A good
understanding of the difference between layout and language use meant that learners who specifically mentioned two correct structural techniques, instead of
including language/tonal choices (such as ‘clear adjectives’ or ‘informal words’), tended to gain both the marks available for this question. A better knowledge
of exam etiquette would also ensure that learners would not associate the line numbers used for question guidance as a relevant answer to these types of
questions in the future.

Question 7

A great deal of learners took note of the question guidance here by ensuring that: (a) they used ticks rather than other marks, and (b) they only ticked one
box. Those learners who had thought carefully about the purpose of Text A clearly demonstrated that they understood that it would best suit a ‘Specialist
travel brochure’ due to the nature of the content being specific to birds but also holidays. The other options would either require a more general piece about a
variety of locations (for the sightseeing guidebook) or more specific detail about particular birds (for the encyclopaedia or zoology textbook).
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Question 8

(a) Many learners attempted this question, often correctly identifying the relevant sentence as evidenced by the number that quoted it as their answer.
The successful ones had clearly taken careful note of the question guidance that one word was required and so ensured that they either only
provided the one word (‘still’) or that they clearly emphasised this key word when giving the full sentence. A number of learners identified other key
words in the text (such as ‘prodigy’), suggesting that they assumed a more unusual word was required, or gave the actual amount of music written by
Mozart, which (while impressive) was not what the question asked them to supply.

(b) It is clear that most learners understand why both the present and past tense are generally used. Some learners chose to focus on how the past
tense was used to talk about Mozart and his childhood, but by carefully reading the question guidance, more observant learners noted that this
question asked them to focus on the use of the present tense. Some gave generalised reasons for the use of the present tense, (i.e. ‘to talk about
things which are still happening’) but those who gained the mark were able to use this knowledge and apply it to the context of the writing, allowing
them to explain that the present tense was used in the selected section to show that the opera carries on being performed in the present, that the
actions within the play still happen or that the characters continue to exist.

(c) This question challenged learners to identify a more uncommon adverb. Whilst many learners attempted this task and supplied words (most
importantly, from the text) that have associated meanings (such as ‘similar’ or ‘true’), the most successful scoured the relevant section for the correct
word – ‘just’. They demonstrated particular care by only supplying a single word or by highlighting this key word if they gave a longer response as
required by the question, which asked for ‘an adverb.’ Less discerning learners came close to the correct answer but wrote the combination of ‘just
like’.

Question 9

(a) This question was particularly well answered, with most learners attempting it and many gaining the mark for correctly recognising that the dash in the
given section was used ‘to add a detail’. This reinforces what was shown by the responses to Question 3(a), that parenthesis punctuation is well
understood. learners demonstrated exceptional knowledge as all the options given on the exam paper could be functions of a dash, so to correctly
identify the most relevant one is very impressive.

(b) It is clear that students have some knowledge of passive verbs and that they know it requires an auxiliary verb. It is clear, however, that more
guidance is needed on how to identify them in a text; learners often suggested incorrect examples such as ‘was walking’ or ‘had written.’ Successful
learners knew which section of the text to examine by taking note of the earlier line guidance and recognised that the tune ‘was whistled’ by
someone, making it passive. They also accurately supplied only the words required to form the passive verb (or highlighted them in a longer
response), noting that ‘by’ is not part of the verb and so is unnecessary.
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(c) By accurately identifying the correct adverb to answer this question (‘even’), learners demonstrated a high level of competency. They were able to
ignore inaccurate distractors such as ‘amazing’ (which is an adjective rather than the required adverb) or seemingly ‘surprising’ words or phrases
from other parts of the text such as ‘unusual’. They also avoided using longer responses such as ‘a true musical prodigy’ and adhered to the question
guidance to supply ‘an adverb’ either by solely writing the word or highlighting it within a longer quote.

Question 10

This tick box question was particularly well answered, with almost all learners attempting it and the majority gaining at least one mark. They displayed a good
comprehension of Text B by noting that ‘writing music’ was a key theme. Many were also able to recognise the repeated motif of ‘musical birds’,
demonstrating an even deeper understanding as the association of Mozart’s starling to Papageno’s birds was a more complex link. Reading the question
guidance was a key skill here and those that did so were able to gain both the marks on offer by accurately ticking two boxes. Prudent learners showed
restraint by not ticking too many boxes either, which would have meant some negation of their score.

Question 11

(a) Whilst there seems to be some understanding of the term ‘an adverbial phrase of place’, some learners struggled to accurately pinpoint these in the
text and occasionally gave ‘own word’ answers, for example ‘at my house’. More diligent learners used the text, but offered adverbial phrases of time,
perhaps suggesting this concept is better understood or perhaps, again, highlighting the need to carefully read the question. Observant learners were
able to supply phrases from Text B that contained locations, such as ‘moved to Vienna’, but the more thorough ones understood that the phrase
should not contain a verb to be classed as ‘adverbial’. These learners often gave answers (such as ‘past the pet shop’) that, while fitting, did not fulfil
the requirement specified in the question to be a ‘three-word’ phrase. The definitive answers came from learners who managed to combine all the
necessary elements to supply one of the two potential answers – ‘all over Europe’ or ‘near his home’ – and who were careful to only give ‘a phrase’
rather than the full sentence. Generally, learners demonstrated better exam technique by copying these phrases accurately, avoiding spelling and
capitalisation errors.

(b) Greater understanding was shown of ‘adverbial phrase of time’ with more learners attempting this question, and more being successful, than the
previous question. Almost all learners only gave answers taken from the text and, again, most only gave short phrases rather than full sentences. The
most successful learners noted that the correct answer ‘introduces a new paragraph’ and so provided examples which did so, namely ‘As a child’ and
‘When he was…’
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Question 12

Many learners attempted this question and demonstrated a good knowledge of general features of a biography. They gained marks for correctly identifying
that Text B used third person pronouns, included dates (or was sequenced chronologically) and was written using predominantly past tense, in common with
most biographical texts. There was some incomplete understanding of viewpoints highlighted as some learners erroneously referred to the ‘narration’ as
being second person. Whilst many learners knew that biographies, as a non-fiction text type, must contain ‘facts’, the most precise answers were able to
extend this to explain that they were, specifically, ‘facts about a person’s life’. Some learners showed good knowledge of Text B by answering with specific
details taken from the text, such as ‘Mozart was born in Austria’, which, while accurate features of this particular biography, are not generic features found in
all biographical texts, as required by the question.

Section B – Writing

Question 13

Many learners responded appropriately to the task of writing a persuasive text to encourage visitors to come to an activity centre. They mostly understood the
task and engaged with it, producing texts with some persuasive features and some content which listed the positive features of their chosen location. These
generally showed some attempt to sequence the information and demonstrated that the learners were able to form grammatically correct, accurately
punctuated simple and compound sentences with good spelling. Short pieces (those which only utilised the first lined page, or even were only a couple of
paragraphs long) gave limited opportunity for learners to demonstrate their skills. This was also true of those scripts which too closely mirrored Text A – this
did not lend itself well to the task and its use as a template led to limited original evidence on which to base judgements. The very best examples made full
use of the space available to write extended, detailed and strongly convincing pieces which focussed clearly on the best attractions, used a variety of
persuasive elements and were thoughtfully structured to ‘sell’ the chosen centre. These scripts were able to extend their sentences whilst maintaining the
grammatical sense and accurate spelling.

Wc – Creation of texts

Almost all of the pieces of writing seen contained appropriate material in that they focussed on an activity centre of some sort, with theme parks, aquariums
and museums being the favourite topics. Some learners mis-interpreted the stimulus; they usually still wrote broadly relevant responses that mentioned
places of interest, but these were sometimes recounts of personal visits, or needed to include much more explicit persuasion rather than simply relying on
attractive description of the place (which made them reports rather than persuasive texts). A small number of learners focussed too closely on the website
mentioned in the stimulus and wrote pieces which tried to encourage use of the centre’s website.
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The vast majority of relevant submissions had several content points (for example, the rides, restaurants and shops available on site) and used second
person address to speak directly to the reader. Other persuasive features regularly included were rhetorical questions, which were used well in the
introductions, and an appropriately chatty tone.

More advanced skills were demonstrated by learners who focussed their writing on the most relevant features of the centre, for example writing in greater
detail about a number of different water slides at a water park rather than devoting the majority of the text to the restaurant. These scripts also used some
persuasive techniques throughout the writing, (i.e. enticing adjectives and inspiring phrases used in most sections), making the whole piece less like a pure
descriptive report and more of an alluring, influential text.

The very best pieces of writing covered a wide range of relevant content, with greater expansion on one or two points. They also maintained the persuasive
tone consistently throughout the text and included more advanced techniques such as presenting opinions as facts by seemingly giving ‘evidence’ to support
them, (e.g. ‘70% of parents would recommend our adventure playground’). They were also written with a clear target audience in mind and emphasised those
aspects that would most appeal to this audience, for example a piece aimed at children might use more ‘child-speak’ like ‘wanna,’ ‘bro’ or ‘going for the dub’,
while one aimed at parents might refer to the safety of the attractions.

Wv – Vocabulary and Language

This aspect was closely linked to Creation of Texts, and those learners who achieved highly in one tended to achieve more in the other. Almost every script
was able to gain a mark here, either because they wrote texts which were relevant to the context and included vocabulary associated with their chosen
activity centre, or because they did this in a persuasive manner using some relevant adjectives or ‘encouraging’ phrases. These were most often employed in
the introduction and many pieces started strongly with a rhetorical question to draw the reader in. Better pieces used a wider range of subject-specific
adjectives, superlatives and enticing phrases, and these were used throughout the piece to give a positive image of the location. Some also used imperatives
(and more unusual language techniques like rhyme!) well to inspire their readers to visit the centre. These were employed particularly successfully at the end,
for example ‘Don’t delay, visit today!’ The most compelling pieces used all these techniques and more very effectively, with the use of ambitious, precise
adjectives and even emotive phrases such as ‘Imagine the wonder in your child’s eyes’ to really ‘sell’ their attractions.

Ws – Structure of texts

More accomplished learners used their time and the space available wisely to write longer, logically sequenced pieces, often using the Planning Box very
successfully to note what material would go in different sections, thereby reducing repetition of ideas.
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Most texts showed some evidence of organisation as learners itemised a series of features of the activity centre. Better scripts took this further and used
sections, or, in many cases, attempted the use of paragraphs, to expand on related points, usually by including a couple of sentences about each item. These
scripts also tended to include a basic introduction, usually involving a rhetorical question, and many featured a simple conclusion encouraging the reader to
visit or explaining where more information about the centre could be found. A number of learners used subheadings to signpost to the reader what information
could be found in different paragraphs. These were more effective when they were original rather than copied for Text A (which appeared to be a common
theme of less successful pieces).

The higher scoring papers showed that close attention had been paid to the sequence of the paragraphs where their arrangement suggested progression
through the location (for example, detailing what visitors would encounter when they first entered the park, what they might move onto and what they would
see as they left). Others showed admirable cohesion by linking paragraphs with phrases such as ‘When you’ve been on the rollercoasters, you might be
hungry’ where the previous paragraph had detailed the rides and the following one talked about the restaurant. Cohesion was also demonstrated by those
learners who referred back to statements or phrases they had used in the introduction when they came to compose their conclusions. The most effective texts
had content that was more developed, leading to more substantial paragraphs. They were also careful to arrange this content effectively to meet the
requirements of a persuasive text – detailing more attractive elements, such as the main artefacts on show in a museum, and leaving the more mundane
pieces of information, like ticket prices, until the end.

Wg – Grammar and punctuation

Most learners were able to write grammatically correct, simple sentences and many were able to extend these to form compound sentences, which, for the
most part, had accurately formed verbs. The importance of ensuring that the verb form matches the subject, and that singular and plural forms of words are
accurate, cannot be under-estimated – these basic skills ensure that a piece of writing flows much more smoothly. Those learners who made sure their end-
of-sentence punctuation was accurate were then able to gain further marks for the use of more sophisticated punctuation, which could not be credited
otherwise. It was noticeable that some learners, while accurately inserting full stops, are not then following these with capital letters which is essential to
gaining marks at the lower end of the scale. More accomplished learners also used capital letters accurately to identify the names of people and places.

Ambition in sentence formation was shown by some learners and the most successful ones ensured that the grammatical sense of the sentences was not lost
by careful use of the correct verb forms and precise use of punctuation (in particular, commas). However, over-use of commas led to some ‘comma-splicing’
and overly long, ‘run-on’ sentences. Those writers who used a variety of sentence structures, including short sentences to build anticipation (important in a
persuasive piece) scored more highly than those who relied solely on long, convoluted sentences. It was clear that the best students took time to go back and
re-read their work to ensure it made sense and to correct basic grammar and punctuation errors and omissions.
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Ww – Word structure (Spelling)

Generally spelling was good across almost all scripts, especially of high frequency and common words. Most learners demonstrated that they can accurately
spell compound words, although some separated these (for example, ‘every_one’). The most accomplished spellers were able to accurately form plural
endings to words, especially those which used the _ies ending, as well as consistently choosing the correct option for common homophones such as
‘your/you’re’ and similar sounding words including ‘where’ and ‘were’. Again, it was clear that the most conscientious writers went back and re-read their work,
correcting spelling errors as necessary. Due to the nature of some of the content, the use of slang words was considered acceptable in some cases,
particularly if the target audience was clearly younger. However, in general, these types of words (‘gonna’ or the use of ‘U’ for you) are to be discouraged as
they do not demonstrate the high levels of grammar and spelling expected for this exam.
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4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0058

4.2 Comments on specific questions – English 0058 component 02

General comments

Text: an extract from ‘The Good Thieves’ by Katherine Rundell.

Key messages

Section A: Reading

Learners were able to demonstrate their understanding of the story in their answers to a variety of questions. The formats of the questions varied, ranging
from multiple choice where a simple tick was required against the correct response, to those where the answer required a single word, phrase or a simple
sentence.

Key messages from the responses to this section are listed below:

• Reading questions carefully is one of the most significant issues where learners may lose marks. It is vital that they understand what is required by a
particular question. There were some questions where marks were lost when the focus of the question was misunderstood or the instruction in a
question was mis-read. Important examples of the language used in a question include ‘give a short phrase’ and ‘give two ways’. There are others which
will be mentioned below as part of another key message.

• Learners must take note of the line references given on the question paper so that they know where to locate the correct information for an answer.
There were several examples on this paper. Unfortunately, many learners did not use this information and gave answers that were incorrect and, often,
taken from a different part of the extract. This has caused a significant amount of concern amongst examiners this session. It highlights a major issue
that needs to be highlighted when students are preparing for the examination.

• Where ‘one word’ or a ‘short phrase’ is the required answer, extra words are not allowed as the correct answer may not be clear. learners need to make
their intentions clear and unambiguous so that examiners are able to award marks as appropriate. As before, the correct answer can be shown by using
parentheses or underlining. An example on this paper was Question 8 where the main clause of a sentence was required.
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• When a question requires learners to ‘explain’ or ‘give a reason’, it is usual that answers should be in a learner’s own words. A direct quote does not
usually provide the correct response to this type of question. Often, learners may be asked to provide evidence to show why they have given a reason. A
direct quote is acceptable here. An example from this paper is Question 15.

• The reporting strands for Reading now include ‘Ra’ – which is ‘Appreciation and reflection’. In questions where this is the focus, learners are given the
opportunity to express their opinion or thoughts about something in the text. Examples on this paper are Question 7, Question 15 and Question 17.
This is a challenge for learners to communicate their ideas clearly in ways that go beyond a simple declaration such as ‘I don’t like it’. Where a ‘reason’
supported by ‘evidence’ is required, learners should use their own words which are then supported by a quote from the text.

• Following on from the above, learners frequently gave an explicit answer using words retrieved directly from the text where an implicit answer was
required. Many learners struggle to use context clues to determine their answer. The development of these higher order skills is essential for these
students to gain more marks.

• On occasions, correct answers might not score where they are given alongside incorrect information. Too many extra words are common as if learners
hope they might have included the correct response. This was an issue with quite a few questions on this paper. As a consequence, marks were often
lost.

• Further to the points already made about reading questions carefully, learners must try to be aware of the context of the question where the purpose is to
establish learners’ understanding of how or why a grammatical device is used. (See Question 9(a).) This is also true of questions where learners need
to deduce how a piece of writing has been crafted as in, for example, how a particular viewpoint is created. (See Question 14.) Literal definitions are not
always required.

• A final point worth noting here which is actually related to the first bullet point above. It concerns ‘tick box’ responses. Instructions on this paper included
ticking two boxes and ticking one box. Sadly, there were many errors on this paper especially where two ticks were required and only one had been
given.
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Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Most learners gave the correct answer. Those who did not gain a mark, did know that the boat was going in Grandpa’s direction or to his city/country.

Question 2

The instruction about looking at the first sentence narrowed the options here but the majority of learners ticked ‘excited’. There was no evidence that she was
excited at this stage. Learners who answered correctly, had looked really carefully to find the clues about Vita’s feelings at the very beginning of the story.

Question 3

Most learners gained a mark here.

Incorrect responses showed that there was a misunderstanding of the word ‘refuge’ with some confusing it with ‘refugee’ and giving answers such a ‘they
were all refugees’. References to a boxing match revealed how some learners did not grasp the meaning at all.

Question 4

Many learners scored at least one mark here with many scoring two.

However, there seemed to be a complete divide between the students who understood writer’s craft (repetition) and the way sentences can be manipulated
for effect and those students who had no idea at all. Incorrect responses included comments like ‘it is not sensible’ or ‘it shows suspense’. There was a fair
number of responses like ‘it makes you want to read’, ‘it explains’ or ‘it is interesting’, all of which were too imprecise to gain credit.

Question 5

(a) Many learners gave the right quotation but continued and lifted too much text. When this happened, the learners’ intentions were not clear between
‘slipped away’ and ‘stood out in the open’. The response then becomes invalid because as above, too many extra words might mean that learners
hope they might have included the correct response.
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(b) Many students spotted that a reference to ‘New York climbing…etc.’ was required. Learners who gave an incorrect response either described the
‘opera house…’ (metaphorical language) or simply gave ‘deck hand’ as their answer.

Question 6

Unfortunately, many learners ticked just one box instead of two. The majority selected ‘setting’ for one mark. Gaining the second mark was more challenging
but a number of learners, who ticked two boxes, made the correct decision.

Question 7

This was a challenging question for most learners because for those who ticked, ‘Yes’, the most common answer concerned Vita’s mother’s hems. There
seemed to be a misunderstanding of the word ‘hems’ in spite of the glossary given at the end of the extract. For this question, the fact that he did not say
anything, or just ‘nodded’, was important in describing the driver’s behaviour. Incomplete answers here suggested that ‘he took in the hems’ as if ‘hems’ were
some kind of luggage item. Reference to the glossary would help. Those who ticked ‘No’ often stated that ‘when the money ran out, they walked’ with no idea
of about the driver’s behaviour such as ‘when the money ran out, he made them walk’.

Question 8

Although some learners gained a mark here, the majority did not. Identifying a main clause, hopefully taught from Stage 4 onwards, should have been an
easy lift from the text.

Question 9

(a) Those learners who took the time and considered the text, did well here. Others simply gave a definition of an ellipsis, e.g. ‘words are missing’.
Some gave examples of how an ellipsis could be used, e.g. to add drama or suspense, without looking at the evidence in the text.

(b) Many correct answers for this one. Careful analysis of the text at this point will suggest she is ‘unsure’ or ‘confused’, etc.. At no time, does the text
indicate that she is ‘annoyed’ or ‘nervous’ or, as several learners said, ‘scared’.
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Question 10

Very few learners got this right. It proved to be a good discriminator although, somewhat surprisingly, correct answers were spread across the range of
abilities. The idea of an adult pretending to show an emotion was, evidently for many, a difficult concept. There were some praiseworthy attempts here with
answers trying to explain how she was ‘brighter than usual’. ‘Unnaturally’ was a word that did not appear to be well understood.

Question 11

This was well answered. The majority of successful answers lifted the words concerning Vita’s reaction to seeing her Grandpa and showed good judgement
about how many words were acceptable thus ensuring extra words did not lose marks. Again, the line references should have helped. A surprising number of
the incorrect answers gave quotes from a different part of the text. Sticking within the given lines is a skill that could be developed in many students when
preparing responses to these types of questions.

Question 12

This was well done by the majority. Incorrect answers did not appear to focus upon the line reference.

Question 13

Again, the majority ticked the correct box here.

Question 14

This was not well answered. Successful learners referred to the correct part of the text and were able to identify that Vita ‘noticed’ or that ‘she tried to think’.
Many learners seemed to automatically assume that this was similar to questions from previous papers. Marks were lost by simply referencing ‘knowing what
she sees and feels’ or ‘we know what she is thinking.’ Others lost marks by copying from the wrong part of the text. Care needs to be taken to identify how
these questions about viewpoint.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 15

For this particular question, most good answers picked up that the flat/room was small and went on to give an appropriate quote. Many targeted the fact that
the apartment was ‘old’, ‘broken’ or ‘dirty’. This was perhaps students’ understanding of ‘squeaky floorboards’ or ‘peeling paint’? Such imprecise answers are
not creditworthy. Learners who struggled with this question often gave an answer which was not an ‘opinion’ as it was quoted directly from the text and did not
reflect their own thoughts.

Question 16

Learners who navigated to the correct lines managed to locate the correct answer to this question. There were several options and some learners gave more
than one answer. This was acceptable provided they were both correct and did not include extra words. Some learners selected their answer from an earlier
point of the text, ‘they went as fast as Vita could go’, which was also correct.

This was not as well answered as Part (a). Many learners thought that Vita ‘went slowly down the corridor’ was evidence but there is nothing in this quote that
suggests that Vita has a bad foot. Surprisingly, some incorrect responses were concerned with unrelated facts from elsewhere in the text such as ‘the lift was
broken’. There were also quite a number of incorrect answers that referred to Vita ‘tearing down the hall’ or when she ‘hurled herself into his arms’. Again,
careful navigation to the signposted lines was needed here. Learners need to be encouraged to take note of this guidance as they read questions carefully.

Question 17

This question was not well answered. Very few scored two marks here. Successful learners mentioned that they travelled by boat. ‘There were no ‘planes’
was incorrect, however, as there were planes – the point being that, at the time when this story was set, they were not in common use. ‘Coins’ being used to
pay was also a correct answer. A few also referred to ‘telegrams’. Again, some confusion about ‘hems’ was evident with statements like ‘we don’t have hems’,
being common.

Many learners suggested that using the past tense was evidence of when the story was set or that the language used was ‘old’.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Key messages

Section B – Writing

The new reporting strands will be commented on in more detail below.

Key messages from the responses to this section are listed below:

• The stimulus required careful reading so that learners understood the task.

• The narrative needed to describe how someone had travelled a long way to help someone to solve a problem. The majority of responses either involved
a journey or someone having a problem but not both. This will be explained in more detail in the commentary about each reporting strand, below.

• The stimulus asked for an ‘opening’ to a story. The majority of narratives turned out to be complete stories rather than an imaginatively written ‘taster’
about a story that should follow (if the whole story was to be written). Students need to practise different kinds of stimuli like this. At present, as found in
previous papers, they appear to be familiar with creating narratives that are a continuation of the given extract or in writing a complete story with the
characteristic ‘beginning, middle and end’.

• While some learners attempted to create an interesting story using some imaginative detail, many stories were brief and lacking in descriptive detail.
Events were recounted with little or no use of a broad vocabulary intended to engage the reader. As noted in previous sessions, examiners wondered if
this was a timing issue?

• There was evidence across the range of attainment that there has been some good teaching of basic skills. For many learners, simple sentence
structures and spelling of familiar words were particularly sound. Punctuation continues to be an issue.

• Whilst some learners made use of the planning box, there is a clear instruction that learners need to use the lined pages for their writing and should not
write their actual story in the planning box.

• Learners need to be made aware that copying content from the original extract gains no credit. ‘Original’ work needs to be made clear.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Wc – Creation of texts

High scoring narratives were able to create a plot that provided a suitable ‘opening’ where events took place in well-described settings often with dramatic
detail and plenty of action. Good examples managed to create atmosphere and describe feelings. Only these higher attainers were able to control the content
so that the reader was fully engaged.

However, as noted in key messages above, many learners struggled to match their writing to the given stimulus. The ‘problem’ aspect was often described as
a familiar problem such as ‘falling out with friends’ or ‘getting lost somewhere’. As for the ‘help’ part of the stimulus, characters already in the situation
contributed to the solution – these characters had not undertaken a journey to get there at all. Others attempted to recount a journey, frequently involving a
flight which matched the idea of a long distance given in the stimulus. However, the purpose of the journey was missed in terms of helping someone – it was
simply going on a visit somewhere.

Both of these scenarios lost marks here as they did not meet the requirements set out in the stimulus.

A significant number began their narratives by copying the introduction from the extract. Names were usually changed but going to visit a grandparent was a
common theme. The events in the extract were often recounted with many copied phrases. So many did this. learners could have used the extract to provide
a ‘skeleton’ for their writing without using exact detail.

Of some concern, were those students who chose to continue the narrative involving Vita which was not asked for.

Developing detail is clearly a challenge for many students. To gain credit in this strand, there must be some clear development of detail. Narratives often
lapsed into a ‘list-like’ account where detail was lacking.

The stimulus did not indicate whether the writing should be in a particular genre. Most narratives would fit into the ‘realistic fiction’ category. There were a few
attempts at creating a fantasy and a few that were mostly science fiction. No doubt students read a variety of fiction in different genres. It would perhaps be a
further exercise in writing development if they found enjoyment in creating texts of different genres.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Wv – Vocabulary and Language

Following on from the above, the few excellent pieces of writing seen this session were characterised by the inclusion of a precise vocabulary where a choice
of a particular word, or words, contributed significantly to the creation of image or mood

In order for students across the range of attainment to develop their writing potential, finding ways of developing their vocabulary will support the development
of essential detail in their work. Whilst exploring a range of texts, students could select vocabulary and evaluate the effect of an author’s choice of words.
Writing short passages using collections of words will help all learners to gain the confidence to use an adventurous and precise vocabulary. Sometimes, the
choice of simile does not ‘fit’ with an image a student is trying to create. As well as expanding vocabulary, ideas about imagery can be created by examining
examples in literature so that writing includes more engaging detail. As a result of this kind of careful study, learners will, and should, achieve increasing
levels of success in pieces of extended writing.

Ws – Structure of texts

High-scoring learners were able to develop the structure of their narratives by using paragraphs to organise and shape their writing in a way that helped their
ideas to ‘flow’ logically. Using paragraphs and learning about their purpose, all helps towards improving the structure of a piece of writing. Successful learners
were able to gain higher marks where they showed a good understanding of how paragraphs can be linked together effectively, for example, through
contrasts in mood, shifts in time and changes in location.

Most learners attempted to sequence their stories – which was even more effective where paragraph breaks were evident. However, some weaker learners
understand the importance of ‘splitting’ their stories into sections but have limited success where attempts at paragraphing appeared to be a series of illogical
line breaks to divide the text. At the same time, examiners noted that lower scoring stories often lacked any kind of structure.

Furthermore, although the content was generally clear in the majority of narratives, the coherence both within and between paragraphs/sections, was often
less clear. There were jumps of logic and what appeared to be a ‘list-like’ series of divisions with no explanation.

Again, identifying how paragraphs are used within a range of texts will support learners in developing their work. It can be an interesting exercise where
learners increase their ability to see how paragraphs can be used to signal a change – character, time, place or event. This session there were only a few
high scoring stories in this strand, largely due to a lack of cohesive devices especially where the use of connectives was limited. This is an understandable
challenge for many. Examining a range of texts to determine how authors manage to create and use paragraphs that show more complex links between
sections and well-organised content within paragraphs, will prove to be invaluable to these learners.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Wg – Grammar and Punctuation

Some higher-attaining learners were adventurous in their attempts to expand their writing with more complex and detailed sentences. These included
grammatically correct clauses which, again, added that all-important detail. These learners were able to demonstrate how they could use phrases and
clauses to develop ideas. They were usually able to keep the story pace flowing and develop their ideas by using expanded phrases, particularly adjectival,
adverbial and verbal, to develop ideas with a wider variety of connectives.

This expansion of meaning and development of control by these learners is to be commended.

The majority of learners are able to construct basic simple and compound sentences but there was a surprising number who were not able to develop this
further and marks were restricted where this lack of ambition characterised the writing. Complex sentences were frequently missing in many pieces.

Developing these more detailed structures could be a target for these learners.

Almost all learners showed that they knew where speech punctuation was needed. However, punctuation is an area which generally scored quite low and
good English was often let down by comma splicing being used to demarcate sentences. Whilst this showed an awareness of the need for a ‘break’, it did
limit the marks available. There were a number of pieces where demarcation of any kind was missing completely. This was noted across a wide range of
attainment resulting in some learners ‘under-achieving’ in this strand.

Weaker learners’ scores were also limited by inconsistencies in tenses and agreement of verbs. Moving between past and present was frequently seen in
these pieces.

Ww – Word structure (spelling)

Correctly spelt high-frequency words were a feature in nearly all learners’ work meaning that zero marks were very rarely given. Common plurals and
common polysyllabic words were generally well known. All levels of ability showed that learners can use their blends, patterns and knowledge of polysyllabic
words to good effect. Phonetic attempts at spelling words, especially polysyllabic words, were generally good and learners are to be praised for making an
effort with these.

However, whilst higher-attaining learners showed ambition in their word choices and demonstrated the accurate spelling of words with complex regular
patterns, there were many examples of narratives where the story did not include interesting polysyllabic words showing the ambition that would qualify for a
higher mark.
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5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0096

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0096 component 01

General comments

Topics that were well covered: • using the laws of arithmetic to order and carry out calculations correctly (Question 1(a))
• understanding that brackets can be used to alter the order of operations (Question 1(b))
• understanding the meaning of diameter in the context of a circle (Question 2)
• converting a number of hours, expressed as a decimal, to minutes (Question 3)
• identifying a common multiple of two numbers (Question 6(a))
2
• finding of a whole number (Question 9(a))
3
3
• finding of a whole number (Question 9(b))
2
• adding two numbers with a different number of decimal places (Question 10(a))
• subtracting two numbers with a different number of decimal places (Question 10(b))
• solving a problem involving the addition of numbers and the use of letters to represent
amounts that vary (Question 14)

Topics that proved to
be more difficult:
• choosing which statistical representations to use in particular situations (Question 12)
• drawing a shape with a given line and rotational symmetry (Question 13)
• solving a numerical puzzle that involves counting on and back in steps of a constant size (Question 17)
• rotating a given shape 90° anticlockwise about a vertex (Question 18)
• understanding and using the results from a large number of trials recorded in a frequency table (Question 24(a))
• solving a spatial problem that involves sketching a compound 3D shape on isometric paper (Question 25)
• solving a number puzzle that involves identifying numbers that are divisible by 6 (Question 26)
• solving a number puzzle that involves identifying prime numbers (Question 27(a))
• solving a number puzzle that involves adding three prime numbers which are either odd or even (Question 27(b))
• solving a number puzzle that involves finding the difference between two 3-digit numbers
to produce an even number (Question 28)
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Some general issues noted when marking Paper 1:

Overall, the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Curriculum Framework.

Questions involving simple number operations were generally well answered (Questions 1(a), 1(b), 9(a), 9(b), 10(a) and 10(b).

The formation of numerals was still an issue on some papers. Numerals need to be unambiguous. Where learners need to change an answer, they should be
encouraged to cross out and re-write rather than try to overwrite an answer. In a few cases it was impossible to distinguish which numbers were intended.
Marks may have been lost because of this. Some examples were seen where learners appeared to misread their own figures within a calculation.

In some two-mark questions, marks were available for correct working, even if the final answer was incorrect (Question 23). A number of learners did not
show any working and may have lost marks because of this. Some learners showed their working out but then crossed it out. This was still considered but
sometimes the crossing out rendered the working illegible. Marks may have been lost because of this.

Learners would benefit from practicing strategies to aid estimation. In Question 15, the majority of learners appeared to calculate the answer to each product.
This was time consuming and often led to arithmetic errors. Not many learners realised that a simple restructuring of each calculation (e.g. 1230 × 7 1234 × 7
1200 × 7) made them easy to compare without doing the calculations.

Learners should be familiar with the available mathematical equipment and how to use it. Question 5 required the accurate use of a protractor to measure a
reflex angle. In Question 18, the use of tracing paper, although not essential, could be very helpful in drawing the required rotation.

Learners should be familiar with the difference between continuous and discrete data. They should be able to choose and explain which representations to
best use when displaying a given set of data (Questions 12 and 21)

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: digit, common multiple, common factor, negative number, prime number, smallest, largest, protractor, diameter,
kite, cube, cuboid, rotate, anticlockwise, grid of squares, isometric paper, scatter graph, bar chart, frequency diagram, line graph, likelihood, impossible,
unlikely, even (chance), likely, certain, line of best fit, all need to be used in context and understood.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

3.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics – Component 01

Question 1(a)

Objective: To use the laws of arithmetic to order and carry out calculations correctly.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly, although a number did not use the most efficient method.

calculating 75 × 5 = 375 rather than 75 × 10 = 750

375 × 2 = 750 750 + 65 = 815

750 + 65 = 815

Using the left-hand method did result in more arithmetic errors.

Question 1(b)

Objective: To understand that brackets can be used to alter the order of operations.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners incorrectly calculated (8 + 3 + 2) × 7 to get 91

Question 2

Objective: To understand the meaning of diameter in the context of a circle.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners appeared to measure the radius of the quarter circle in the drawing and gave an answer between 6 cm and 7 cm.

A few learners gave the answer cm (possibly confusing radius and diameter).

A few learners answered 20 cm (possibly because a quarter of a circle was shown, they calculated 5 × 4).
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 3

Objective: To convert a number of hours, expressed as a decimal, to minutes.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

Some learners took 0.5 hour to be 50 minutes and calculated 60 + 60 + 50 = 170

Some learners made an arithmetic error in attempting to calculate 2.5 × 60 and gave answers such as 120.5

Question 4

Objective: To divide a proper fraction by a whole number.

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were seen including:

1 1
6 calculating x and inverting the answer.
2 3

0.16 calculating 1 ÷ 6 but truncating the answer.

1
1.5 calculating ×3
2

Question 5

Objective: To measure a reflex angle.

Common Errors: A number of learners measured the obtuse angle and gave the answer 120°.
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Question 6(a)

Objective: To identify a common multiple of two numbers.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners seem to confuse multiples and factors and gave answers such as:

Question 6(b)

Objective: To identify a common factor of two numbers.

Common Errors: A number of learners appeared to confuse factors and multiples and answered:

A variety of other incorrect answers were seen, which suggested that ‘common factor’ was not as well understood as ‘common
multiple’.

Question 7(a)

Objective: To identify the line of best fit on a scatter diagram.

Common Errors: A number of learners did select the correct graph, but a common error seen was to select:
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Question 7(b)

Objective: To understand what two unconnected variables would look like when plotted against each other on a scatter graph.

Common Errors: This appeared to be less well understood than part (a).
A variety of incorrect answers were seen, the most common being:

Question 8

Objective: To add two negative integers.

Common Errors: A variety of errors were made including;

–15 where learners appeared to have calculated –25 + 10

35 where learners appeared to have calculated 25 + 10 (ignoring the negative signs).

Question 9(a)

2
Objective: To find of a whole number.
3

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

36
A few learners answered but did not calculate 36 ÷ 3 to find the answer.
3
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 9(b)

3
Objective: To find of a whole number.
2

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

72
A few learners answered but did not calculate 72 ÷ 2 to find the answer.
2

Question 10(a)

Objective: To add two numbers with a different number of decimal places.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners had difficulty in aligning the decimal numbers giving answers such as:

271.773 (calculating 141.56 + 130.213) and 154.269 (calculating 141.056 + 13.213).

Question 10(b)

Objective: To subtract two numbers with a different number of decimal places.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

The most common error was to answer 21.812 (misunderstanding the arithmetic and calculating 17.512 + 4.3).

A few errors were seen where learners misaligned the decimals as in part (a).
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Question 11

Objective: To understand the effect of dividing and multiplying decimal numbers by 10 and 1000.

Common Errors:

Question 12

Objective: To choose which statistical representations to use in particular situations.

Common Errors: The most common error was to map the discrete variables to the frequency diagram and the continuous variables to the bar chart.

i.e.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 13

Objective: To draw a shape with a given line and a given rotational symmetry.

Common Errors: The shapes drawn seemed to suggest that most learners had a good grasp of line symmetry and rotational symmetry. The errors
made showed that dealing with both at once was much more difficult.

e.g.

Some learners drew a shape with the correct symmetries but did not use the smallest number of squares.

e.g.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 14

Objective: To solve a problem involving the addition of numbers and the use of letters to represent amounts that vary.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners selected the two correct pairs but in addition selected a third pair: most often either

Question 15

Objective: To estimate the product of one- and two-digit whole numbers multiplied by whole numbers up to 10 000

Common Errors: Most learners appeared to calculate each answer rather than restructure each one to compare their relative size.

Where all the calculations were attempted, more arithmetic errors were seen.

A few learners ordered the answers from largest to smallest.

Question 16

Objective: To solve a spatial problem that involves identifying co-ordinate points on a straight line.

Common Errors: A number of learners confused the x- and y-coordinates and either selected

or selected a combination of these and the coordinates with a y value of 2

 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 17

Objective: To solve a numerical puzzle that involves counting on and back in steps of a constant size.

Common Errors: A number of learners showed considerable working, extending both sequences, but being unable to find a common number in both.

A number of learners extended both sequences to their next term and gave both answers, i.e. 45 and –1

Question 18

Objective: To rotate a given shape 90º anticlockwise about a vertex.

Common Errors: A number of attempts at both reflections and translations were seen.
Some learners drew a non-congruent triangle, often with A and one other vertex correct, e.g.

Question 19

Objective: To regroup numbers expressed in decimal and fractional formats.

60
Common Errors: A number of learners made a place value error when adding
100
e.g. 92.723 (calculating 32.723 + 60)

32.729 (calculating 32.723 + 0.006)

38.723 (calculating 32.723 + 6)

 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 20

Objective: To identify the angle and symmetry properties of a kite.

Common Errors: The objective for this question was intended to refer to a kite with one line of symmetry. As the wording of the question ‘all kites’ could
imply the broadest definition of kite, it could be taken to include the special cases of rhombus and square. This means that none of
the options provided could be considered correct in all cases. The question was discounted for the purpose of determining learners’
Checkpoint scores as it was not possible to distinguish between learners who deliberately left the boxes blank and those who omitted
the question. This ensures that no learner was disadvantaged by the interpretation of the question.

In the published version of the papers a diagram has been added to clarify the intention of the question.

Question 21

Objective: To choose an example of data collection best represented on a line graph.

Common Errors: Several answers were seen suggesting the learners were not aware of the need to use a line graph when representing continuous
data.

Some answers referred to a specific time or a specific quantity that did not change. Some learners mentioned temperature but did not
clarify they were measuring changes of temperature over time. Some referred to height but did not mention growth or changes in
height over time.

A number of learners gave examples of data best suited to a scatter graph, e.g. age of child and shoe size, or a bar chart, e.g.
favourite colours of children in a class.

Question 22

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves rounding a number with two decimal places to the nearest tenth and whole number.

Common Errors: Several learners gave an answer that only satisfied one of the conditions:

e.g. rounds up when rounded to the nearest tenth. correct

rounds up when rounded to the nearest whole number. Incorrect
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 23

Objective: To continue a number sequence by counting back in steps of constant size to extend beyond 0

Common Errors: A number of learners calculated the intermediate terms between 1.6 and 0.4 correctly but made an error in subtracting the difference
of 0.3 across zero to get to the 8th term.

Some learners calculated the difference between terms as (0.4 –1.6) ÷ 3 = –0.4 rather than (0.4 –1.6) ÷ 4 = –0.3. This is possibly
because they saw that there were 3 terms missing between the 2nd and 6th terms and did not appreciate that this resulted in 4 steps
between the terms.

Question 24(a)

Objective: To understand and use the results from a large number of trials recorded in a frequency table

Common Errors: Several learners answered 6, which was the number appearing least often on the second dice (rather than finding the total that
occurred least often).

Some learners answered 28, which was the smallest frequency recorded in the table.

Question 24(b)

Objective: To understand and use the results from a large number of trials to predict possible outcomes using the language of probability.

Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were seen. It was hard to discern any particular reasoning behind the errors.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 25

Objective: To solve a spatial problem that involves sketching a compound 3D shape on isometric paper.

Common Errors: The use of isometric paper to draw 3D shapes seemed to be unfamiliar to a number of learners.

A number of learners attempted to reproduce a drawing of the original shape.

Several learners drew rectangles on the isometric paper e.g.

Question 26

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves identifying numbers that are divisible by 6.

Common Errors: A number of learners placed a two-digit multiple of 3 on each card, e.g.

A lot of answers were seen suggesting learners did not appreciate that all the digits had to be even and have a digital sum that was a
multiple of 3.

e.g. as it is written, it is a number divisible by 6 but it would not be when rearranged with either 1 or 5
in the units.

e.g. all even numbers but the digital sum is not a multiple of 3 so it is divisible by 2 but not by 6 (or 3).
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 27(a)

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves identifying prime numbers.

Common Errors: A number of learners gave answers suggesting that prime numbers were not fully understood.

e.g. including 1 and not totaling 30

e.g. including 9 and not totaling 30

e.g. including 6, 9 and 15

Question 27(b)

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves adding three prime numbers which are either odd or even.

Common Errors: Very few selected 2 as this had not appeared in their three numbers from part (a).

The number selected was often a composite number.

Question 28

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves finding the difference between two 3-digit numbers to produce an even number.

Common Errors: A few learners used the cards to produce the largest difference but not the largest even number, i.e.

A few learners adopted a trial and error approach without quite appreciating how the positioning
of the digits affects the difference, i.e.

A wide variety of other incorrect answers were seen.


5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0096
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0096 component 02
General comments
Topics that were well covered:
Topics that proved to be more difficult:
Cambridge Primary Checkpoint
ordering numbers with two decimal places. Question 1
using knowledge of the sum of the angles in a triangle to calculate a missing internal angle. Question 2
comparing the equivalent values of proper fractions and percentages. Question 3
using the relationship between repeat addition and multiplication to find a position to term rule in a
number sequence. Question 5
using knowledge of equivalence to write fractions and mixed numbers in their simplest form. Question 8
solving a number puzzle using a knowledge of the correct order of arithmetic operations. Question 10
plotting a point, with a negative and positive co-ordinate, on a coordinate grid. Question 13(a)
understanding that proper and improper fractions can be represented as division of the numerator by
the denominator. Question 14
recognising that fractions, two place decimals and percentages can have equivalent values. Question 17
completing the sketch of the net of a triangular based pyramid. Question 18
identifying a quadrilateral by considering its geometric properties. Question 4
solving a number puzzle that involves a knowledge of square numbers. Question 6
recording and organizing data in a tally/frequency table. Question 7(b)
solving a worded problem involving an understanding of ratio as a comparison of two parts of a quantity.
Question 15
solving a simple probability problem by understanding the language associated with probability. Question 16(a)
solving a spatial puzzle that involves the calculation of the dimensions of rectangles given their perimeters.
Question 19
interpreting and comparing data sets from different sources. Question 21(a)
explaining some problems involved in collecting and comparing different data sets. Question 21(b)
calculating the surface area of a cuboid given the area of one face and two dimensions. Question 22
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

solving a numeric problem involving a knowledge of how to calculate the sum of two fractions with different
denominators. Question 23(a)
solving a number puzzle involving the division of numbers less than 100 by a single digit number where the
quotients contain a remainder. Question 25

Some general issues noted when marking Paper 2:

Overall, the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Framework.

Learners should be familiar with the available mathematical equipment and how to use it. In Question 9 learners were required to use a pair of compasses to
draw a circle of a given diameter. Some learners found the use of this piece of equipment difficult. In Paper 2, learners should have access to a calculator.
They should be familiar with its functions and able to use it appropriately. There was evidence that this was not always the case. This may have resulted in
avoidable arithmetic errors and a possible loss of time.

All comments from Paper 1 regarding presentation and working apply to Paper 2. Questions 22, 24 and 26 were two-mark questions where a mark was
available for correct working.

In Questions 10, 15, 23(a) and 23(b) learners were asked to explain why given answers were incorrect. In questions such as this, it is important to qualify
any explanation with a correct mathematical argument. For example, in Question 15, stating that the ratio would be 30 : 10 did not explain why the necklace
with 30 beads could not be in the ratio 3 : 1.

Learners would benefit from more experience working with ratio as a comparison of two parts of one quantity and exploring equivalent ratios (Questions 15
and 24).

In Questions 23(a) and 23(b) learners were asked to explain why the sum of two fractions was incorrect without actually adding the fractions. Answers which
only showed the addition of the two fractions were therefore not awarded the mark. Acceptable answers used estimation or explored the algorithm for adding
fractions to explain why the given answers could not be correct.

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: square number, fraction, equivalent, ratio, percentage, simplest form, sequence, smallest, highest, less, greater,
lowest, angle, square (shape), equilateral triangle, quadrilateral, rectangle, circle, rectangular, area, perimeter, cuboid, triangular based pyramid, surface
area, net, pair of compasses, coordinate, point, straight line, halfway, translation, data, mean, median, tally, frequency, and chance all need to be used in
context and understood.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Objective: To order numbers with two decimal places.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

A few learners reversed the order and listed the numbers largest to smallest.

A few transcription errors were made when rewriting the numbers in order.

Question 2

Objective: To use knowledge of the sum of the angles in a triangle to calculate a missing internal angle.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

A few learners calculated 76° + 22° = 98°

A few learners calculated 76° – 22° = 54°

A few learners gave an answer close to or equal to 90°, presumably by measuring rather than calculating the missing angle.

Question 3

Objective: To compare the equivalent values of proper fractions and percentages.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

The most common error seen was where was missed.

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Question 4

Objective: To identify a quadrilateral by considering its geometric properties.

Common Errors: A number of incorrect answers were seen including:

square (angles incorrect)

diamond (no precise mathematical definition).

Question 5

Objective: To use the relationship between repeat addition and multiplication to find and use a position to term rule in a number sequence.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

Some learners continued the multiples of 7 in the right-hand column and gave this answer:

Quite often, they continued the sequence of 10 and 15 and wrote 20 alongside 350

A few learners correctly calculated 70 and 105 but did not work out the positional number for 350
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Question 6

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving a knowledge of square numbers.

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were seen including:

Calculating 16 + 36 = 52 possibly not seeing 1 as the 1st square number so using the 4th and the 6th.

Calculating 3 + 5 = 8 just adding the ordinal numbers rather than the squares.

Calculating 27 + 125 = 152 adding 33 to 53.

A number of answers were seen, similar to those above, but including arithmetic errors.

Question 7

(a) Objective: To find the mean of a set of data.

Common Errors: A number of learners appeared to do all their calculations on paper without using a calculator. Several answers were seen where
the learner used a correct method to calculate the mean but made arithmetic errors.

Some learners attempted to find the sum of all the test results and gave answers around 342

A few learners gave the answer 21 by either calculating the range of the scores (26 – 5) or giving the mode.
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(b) Objective: To record and organize data in a tally/frequency table.

Common Errors: A few learners completed the frequencies correctly but made an error in the tally column. This suggests that they did not tally the
test results and record the frequencies but worked the other way around.

Some learners tallied 5 as rather than

A variety of different answers were seen which did not appear to relate to the given data.

Question 8

Objective: To use knowledge of equivalence to write fractions and mixed numbers in their simplest form.

6 1
Common Errors: Most learners answered this correctly especially the first part: simplifying to
30 5

6 2
The majority of errors seen were where learners found an equivalent fraction that could still be simplified, e.g. =
30 10

8 2
A few learners gave the answer 4 = where they accounted for the fractional part but possibly discounted the whole numbers.
10 5

Question 9

Objective: To draw a circle of a given diameter using a pair of compasses.

Common Errors: A number of learners drew a circle with a diameter of 14 cm.

A few learners drew a circle with a diameter of 3.5 cm

A few learners did not appear to have access to a pair of compasses.

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Question 10

Objective: To solve a number puzzle using a knowledge of the correct order of arithmetic operations

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners gave a reason for Samira’s error without qualifying it, e.g. ‘She did not use brackets’.

For this to be credited with a mark it would have to show where brackets could be placed to make 35 – 20 ÷ 5 = 3 correct.

Question 11

Objective: To calculate the median of a set of data.

Common Errors: Some learners did not put the data in order of size and calculated (7 + 3) ÷ 2 using the middle two values from the given order.

Some learners calculated the range, i.e. 7 – 2 = 5

A few learners re-ordered the data but gave both 4 and 6 as their answer.

A few learners re-ordered the data but gave either 4 or 6 as their answer.
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Question 12

Objective: To calculate a number as a percentage of a larger number.

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were seen including a variety of arithmetic errors suggesting that calculators were not always used.

Several incorrect methods were seen including:

5% possibly calculating 600 ÷ 120 = 5

80% calculating the percentage of the string left:

720% calculating 600 + 120

Question 13

(a) Objective: To plot a point, with a negative and positive coordinate, on a coordinate grid.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners confused the x– and y–coordinates and positive and negative coordinates.

e.g. plotting A at points such as (3, –2), (2,3) and (–2, –3)

(b) Objective: To use knowledge of 2D shapes and coordinates to plot points on a line using all four quadrants.

Common Errors: A few learners marked the mid-point correctly on the line joining B to C but reversed the coordinates and wrote (–2, 1)

A few learners marked the mid-point on the line joining B to C but gave coordinates that did not relate to this.
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Question 14

Objective: To understand that both proper and improper fractions can be represented as a division of the numerator by the denominator.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners drew more than one line from each of the divisions to the fractions.

4 8
A few learners matched 5 ÷ 4 to and 4 ÷ 8 to
5 4

1
A few learners matched 8 ÷ 5 to 1
5

Question 15

Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves an understanding of ratio as a comparison of two parts of a quantity.

Common Errors: Several learners said that Yuri was wrong as there were more that 3 white and 1 black beads in the necklace (not appreciating that
the ratio of 3 : 1 could apply to larger numbers).

Several learners argued that the ratio should be 1 : 3

Several learners argued that because one bead out of the four was black the ratio should be 1 : 4

Some misunderstood what was required and said the ratio of white to black beads in the necklace would be 30 : 10

A few learners appeared to understand that 30 would need to relate in some way to 4 but explained this incorrectly, e.g. ‘the ratio of
the necklace cannot be 3 : 1 because 30 is not a factor of 4’.
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Question 16

(a) Objective: To solve a simple probability problem by understanding the language associated with probability.

Common Errors: A number of learners shaded the spinner

so that there was a 5 out of 6 chance of spinning a shaded sector: e.g.

(b) Objective: To use the language associated with probability to describe a given outcome.

Common Errors: A number of learners gave an answer suggesting that, whilst wrong, they were relating their
answer to the spinner.

A number of learners gave answers that did not appear to relate to the spinner at all, e.g.

Question 17

Objective: To recognise that fractions, two-place decimals and percentages can have equivalent values.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

The two most common errors were:

matching 60% to 0.06

6
matching 60% to
100
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Question 18

Objective: To complete the sketch of the net of a triangular based pyramid.

Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

A few learners added an extra triangle that A few learners mirrored the
would have resulted in overlapping faces e.g. given shape to form a hexagon.

A few learners added a square or sometimes other shapes that were not triangles (possibly thinking of a pyramid with a square base).

Question 19

Objective: To solve a spatial puzzle involving the calculation of the dimensions of rectangles given their perimeters.

Common Errors: Only a few learners seemed to appreciate that even perimeters would form a rectangular frame and perimeters divisible by 4 a square
frame.

Most learners said that a perimeter of 50 cm could form a rectangular frame.

Very few learners appreciated that perimeters of both 36 cm and 28 cm could form rectangular and square frames.

A number of learners thought that a perimeter of 45 cm would form either a square or a rectangular frame.

It is possible that some learners thought that each line had to have one and only one tick.
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Question 20

Objective: To solve a spatial puzzle involving the properties of a 2D translation.

Common Errors: A number of learners seemed to appreciate that the orientations of rectangles A and B were different but used an inappropriate word
to describe this,

e.g. B is not a translation of A because it has flipped over (this implies turning over rather than rotating).

Some learners gave an explanation that was not precise, and which could have referred to any congruent transformation (including
translation). e.g.,

B has moved or B is in a different position.

Some learners said that B was not a translation of A because A and B did not touch.

Question 21

(a) Objective: To interpret and compare data sets from different sources.

Common Errors: A variety of errors were made suggesting that learners found it difficult to compare the two sets of data recorded in different
formats.

(b) Objective: To explain some problems involved in collecting and comparing different data sets.

Common Errors: A number of learners misunderstood and said that the lack of bars for 1 – 5 and 26 – 50 on the boys’ bar chart meant that data
was missing rather than realising that none of the boys’ scores fell within these ranges.

A number of learners pointed out that there were more girls than boys but did not clarify that this would make a comparison of
the data difficult.
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Question 22

Objective: To calculate the surface area of a cuboid given the area of one face and two dimensions.

Common Errors: Only a few learners appreciated the need to calculate the length of the cuboid. Several took the length to be 20 cm (from the given
area in cm2 of one face), leading to an incorrect surface area of 212 cm2.

A few learners appeared to be calculating the volume of the cuboid, often using 20 (cm) as the length,
(i.e. calculating 20 × 3 × 2 = 120).

Question 23

(a) Objective: To solve a numeric problem involving the estimation of the sum of two fractions with different denominators.

2 1 1
Common Errors: A number of learners added and to show the answer was not 1 , ignoring the instruction not to add.
3 4 12

A number of learners stated that the answer could not be a mixed number but did not explain why.

(b) Objective: To solve a numeric problem involving knowledge of the method of calculating the sum of two fractions with different
denominators.

2 1 7
Common Errors: A number of learners added and to show the answer was not , ignoring the instruction not to add.
5 6 11

A few learners gave an answer that was not precise, e.g. ‘Eva did not cross multiply’ or ‘she did not add’.

A few learners focused on the numerator and said that 2 + 1 does not equal 7
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Question 24

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving an understanding and use of equivalent ratios.

Common Errors: A lot of errors were due to arithmetic mistakes.

A number of learners found the correct cost for either 1 or 2 oranges but were unable to work out the correct multiplier to find the cost
of 12 apples.

A few learners calculated $4 ÷ 3 to get the cost of 1 apple but made a rounding error by calculating $1.33 × 12 = $15.96 to get the
cost of 12 apples.

Question 25

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the division of numbers less than 100 by a single digit number where the quotients contain a
remainder.

Common Errors: A number of learners gave a separate answer for Oliver and Pierre.

A number of learners wrote down lists of multiples of 7 and 5 but without any further strategies to solve the problem.

Question 26

Objective: To calculate the area of a right-angled triangle using a knowledge of the area of a square.

Common Errors: A number of learners calculated the area of the square by calculating 9 × 9 = 81 cm2 and gave this as their final answer.

A number of learners attempted to calculate 9 × 9 ÷ 2 but made an error in the division.

A number of learners seemed to confuse area with perimeter:

e.g. Some learners found the perimeter of the square by calculating 4 × 9 = 36 some then went on to halve this and get 18

Some learners appear to consider the triangle as equilateral and calculated its perimeter as 3 × 9 = 27
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6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0097

6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science 0097 component 01

General comments

On this paper, learners showed good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: food chains and their interactions in food webs including associated
terminology, electrical circuits and their symbols, and the rock cycle. Areas of the framework where there could be greater focus are the identification of the
different variables within an investigation and selecting the equipment needed for accurate measurements. Questions requiring recall and short answers were
answered better than the longer response questions and those requiring analysis of the information provided within the question.

Question 1

Some of the learners showed a good knowledge of food chains and their interactions within a food web. They correctly identified the right parts of the food
web to use and could explain their ideas succinctly describing how a toxic substance can move through a food chain. Some of the learners correctly identified
the herbivores and the source of energy in the food web.

(a) Some of the learners interpreted the food web correctly and identified a food chain within the food web that contained fish. Some of the most
common mistakes were to not include the arrows between the organisms, or to write a food chain which did not contain fish. A few of the learners
did not use the food web within the stem of the question and made up their own food chain.

(b) Many of the learners answered this correctly. The most common incorrect answers were sea otter, seal and fish which are all carnivores in the food
web.

(c) Many of the learners showed a good understanding of how the toxic chemical passes along the food chain and described this process well. Some of
the learners described how the toxic substance passed to the fish rather than the sea otter.

(d) Some of the learners correctly identified the energy source for the food chain as the Sun. Many of the learners thought that it was the kelp. The kelp
is the producer which absorbs the sunlight to move the energy into the food chain.
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Question 2

This question showed that some of the learners are familiar with the term reactants and know how to observe if a chemical reaction is occurring. These
learners were then able to apply this knowledge to the information provided within the question.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified iron or copper sulfate as being the reactants. Some of the learners wrote out ‘a piece of iron covered in pink
solid’ from the stem of the question. However, this answer could not be awarded the mark as the pink solid covering the iron is a product, the
copper. Some of the learners just answered sulfate, so it was not clear whether they meant the reactant, copper sulfate, or the product, iron sulfate.

(b) Many of the learners answered this well either identifying that the change in temperature or the temperature becoming warmer or the colour change
are indicators of a chemical reaction having occurred. Answers where the learners wrote about the iron becoming covered in a pink solid were
accepted.

(c) A few of the learners answered this question correctly. This question specifically wanted the learner to write down a measurement that could have
been made during the experiment to show that a chemical reaction had occurred. Some of the learners discussed needing a thermometer but they
did not say why, or they discussed the mixture becoming warmer but did not say which measurement they would use to show this. Many of the
learners discussed the colour change but this was an observation rather than a measurement.

Question 3

Many of the learners showed a good knowledge of this area of the framework. Some of the learners displayed an understanding of the differences between
series and parallel circuits.

(a) Many of the learners correctly drew the symbols for the different parts of the electrical circuit and correctly identified the switch as being an open
switch. Answers which stated just switch were accepted; however, answers relating to the switch being closed were not awarded the mark. The
most common incorrect answer was the symbol for a buzzer which some of the learners were less familiar with.

(b) Some of the learners correctly drew both the series and the parallel circuits. A few of the learners drew them the wrong way around. Many of the
learners included extra symbols, such as switches. The learners were specifically asked to include a certain number of specific components in the
circuits so circuits with extra symbols, such as switches, were not awarded the mark.
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(c) A few of the learners correctly selected the parallel circuit and then provided answers which displayed good understanding of why the lamps would
be brighter in a parallel circuit rather than a series circuit. Some of the learners thought the lamps would be brighter in a series circuit. Some of the
learners that correctly selected the parallel circuit discussed what would happen if one lamp stopped working, rather than describing the cell in the
circuit or the electricity not being shared by the lamps.

Question 4

Some of the learners demonstrated a good knowledge and understanding of the rock cycle and the processes involved in the rock cycle.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) In description B, some of the learners demonstrated a very good understanding of the formation of a fossil and provided answers discussing the soft
body parts decomposing and the formation of a mold. Some of the learners interpreted the information in the question to help form their answer and
discussed the ammonite being covered in layers of sediment. Learners who provided more generalised answers relating to the sediment forming
layers and did not refer to the fossil being buried underneath the sediment were not awarded the mark. For description D, some of the learners
provided answers discussing the sedimentary rock being weathered or eroded leading to the uncovering of the fossil. Answers relating to the fossils
being exposed due to humans digging up the fossils were also credited. Some of the learners discussed the ammonite floating to the surface of the
ocean which showed they had not correctly interpreted the changes in the diagram provided. Other generalised answers such as saying the
ammonite moved upwards but not stating that it reached the surface were not sufficient for the mark.

(c) Some of the learners correctly identified the soils as being clay and sand and provided suitable answers from the pictures which demonstrated why
they knew these soils to be clay and sand. Some of the learners thought the first soil was clay and organic matter which was not accepted.

Question 5

Many of the learners provided at least one physical change which occurs to females during puberty. Some of the learners provided answers which only
happen to males such as their voice becoming deeper or the production of sperm. Generalised answers, such as more hair, was not sufficient. Learners were
expected to discuss the growth of body hair. Other generalised answers which were insufficient were the chest becoming wider or broader as it was unclear if
they were discussing this as a male change or the idea of the breasts developing. Answers describing menstruation were accepted. A few of the learners
discussed hormonal changes and emotional changes which are chemical changes rather than physical changes.
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Question 6

This was an area of the framework where some of the learners showed good knowledge and understanding.

(a) Most of the learners answered this correctly.

(b) Some of the learners showed they have a good knowledge of scientific equipment. The learners were expected to know that they would need to use
a measuring cylinder, as opposed to a beaker or measuring jug, to accurately measure the volume of the liquid. They were also expected to use a
stop-watch or stop clock to measure the time accurately rather than a clock.

(c) Many of the learners correctly described repeating the experiment and some of the learners described how this would help them to know if their
results were reliable. Some of the learners discussed the need to repeat their experiment to make it a fair test. These answers were not accepted as
the question was asking about reliability not fair testing. Some of the learners discussed the need to do more experiments; however, it was not clear
if they meant to do more of the same experiment or different experiments, so this answer was not accepted. Other learners discussed the need to
investigate different temperatures which is an improvement to the experiment rather than a way to check if the results are reliable.

(d) Some of the learners provided good explanations of how increasing the temperature increased the rate of dissolving using the particle model. Their
answers discussed the particles gaining energy or moving faster. Some of the learners did not include any reference to particles in their answer so
their answers could not be awarded the marks. Other learners just repeated the stem of the question stating that as the temperature increases
dissolving occurs faster.

Question 7

Some of the learners demonstrated their knowledge of the Solar System and applied it to the model provided in the question.

(a) Some of the learners identified that the planets were in the correct order or that the model showed the relative sizes of the different plants. Common
incorrect answers were where learners provided ways to improve the model rather than stating reasons why it was a good model.

(b) Many of the learners provided good answers about the model not including a Sun or not showing the orbits of the planets. There were a variety of
responses highlighting what the model did not show about the Solar system.
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Question 8

The answers provided by the learners showed that they had covered balanced and unbalanced forces; however, some of the learners did not answer the
questions which were being asked and must take care to read the question carefully.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answers were that Newtons measures mass and kilograms is
used to measure force.

(b) Good answers to this question described what would happen in force diagram A. The most common incorrect answer was just to state that the
forces were balanced rather than discuss the impact of the forces being balanced, e.g. that the rope would not move or neither team would win or
move.

(c) Good answers to this question clearly indicated which team would win and provided an explanation of more than the forces being unbalanced but
identified that the team with 300 N had a greater force than the team with 200 N. Learners who provide good answers indicated in which direction
the rope would move or which team would win along with an explanation as to why. Learners were expected to realise it was because one team
was exerting more force. Answers relating to weight and energy were not credited.

Question 9

This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus for some of the learners.

(a) Many of the learners calculated the answer to this question correctly.

(b) The most common incorrect answers to this question were where learners discussed evaporation occurring. This question was assessing the
learners understanding of chemical reactions and that during chemical reactions gases can be made, along with the idea that gases have mass. In
the stem of the question the learners were told that once the solid was heated a gas was made.

(c) Some of the learners provided suitable properties for a gas. However, many of the learners provided more generalised properties, such as having a
boiling point rather than low boiling point or having a volume rather than not having a fixed volume. These answers were not awarded marks.
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Question 10

The identification of variables within an experiment is an area of the framework where there could be more focus.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Some of the learners correctly identified two control variables in the experiment provided within the question. Many of the learners selected the
variable which was being investigated and discussed the way the bread was touched; this was the independent variable. Some of the learners
provided more generalised answers, such as bread and bag. To be awarded the mark they needed to identify factors about the bread or the plastic
bag which needed to be kept the same such as size of bread and type of bag.

(c) Some of the learners provided good suggestions as to why the bag needed to remain sealed at the end of the experiment such as to stop the mould
from spreading. Some of the learners showed an understanding of mould being able to cause disease. Some of the learners discussed ways to stop
their results being affected, e.g. to stop bacteria from the air entering or to stop more oxygen from entering which would affect the growth of the
mould. However, by the end of the experiment their results had already been collected. Some of the learners provided more generalised answers
about the need for fair testing or to make their results more reliable. These were not credited.
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6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0097

6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science 0097 component 02

General comments

The learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: the heart and the circulatory system, organisms which cause
disease, reflection and refraction. Areas where there could be greater focus are organ systems, plotting of line graphs and drawing a line of best fit, and
the identification of the independent and the dependent variables. Simple recall questions were generally answered well, as were many of the questions
which required analysis and interpretation of the information provided within the stem of the question. In some cases, answers to questions requiring
longer explanations and interpretations of facts required more detail, with some learners only providing simple one-word answers. These responses
needed to be expanded and learners need to take care that it is clear which process they are referring to when highlighting differences. Questions on
scientific enquiry were answered well by many learners who appeared to be familiar with practical investigations and showed that first-hand experience
is invaluable particularly when studying light rays. The identification of anomalous results and the different variables within an experiment is an area
where there could be more focus.

Question 1

Learners demonstrated good knowledge about the circulatory system, including the location and the function of the heart and the associated blood vessels.

(a) Most of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answer was lungs.

(b) Most of the learners demonstrated good knowledge of the function of the heart.

(c) Many of the learners showed good knowledge of the different blood vessels.

(d) Some of the learners correctly used the information provided within the table to select A and provided a suitable explanation to justify their selection.
Their explanations needed to highlight that blood vessel A contained the most oxygen rather than simply starting that it contained 99% oxygen or had
a lot of oxygen; as blood vessel D also contained a lot of oxygen containing 92% oxygen.
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Question 2

Learners demonstrated an overall understanding of the melting points and boiling points of substances in this question. However, it was evident that the
learners needed to read the question more carefully in part (b).

(a) Many of the learners achieved one of the two marks for this question for identifying that the change of state is from a solid to a liquid, both states
needed to be mentioned for this mark. To achieve the second mark, learners needed to say that this occurs at a specific temperature. However, many
of the learners referred to melting occurring at a point or degrees rather than a temperature.

(b) Some of the learners correctly calculated that the substance with the largest difference between its melting point and boiling point was ethanol. The
most common incorrect answers were salt solution and water.

(c) Many of the learners did not answer the question that was asked, about the effect of adding salt to water on the boiling point of water. Many of the
learners provided answers about increasing the rate of dissolving as the water became warmer. Some of the learners stated that the boiling point
would change but they needed to indicate that the boiling point would increase for the mark.

Question 3

Some of the learners showed good knowledge and understanding of this area of the framework.

(a) Good answers to this question displayed an understanding that the view of the Moon is blocked by clouds which was why it was not visible at the
times mentioned. Some of the learners stated that it was because it was daytime, but the Moon can still be visible during the day so this was not
accepted. Other learners discussed it being a New Moon or a Full Moon, or that Pierre forgot to get out of bed to record the phases of the Moon on
that day. These responses were not accepted.

(b) There were a variety of responses to this question with some of the learners correctly drawing the appearance of the Moon for these phases and
following the pattern of the phases already drawn. Some of the learners did not answer this question and care should be taken to not miss out
questions which do not have a dotty response line.

(c) Some of the learners correctly selected one month. The most common incorrect answers were one week and one day.
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Question 4

This question showed that the learners could focus more on interpreting data from experiments. Learners may be less familiar with this, but these skills are on
the framework.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified the anomalous result in the table by seeing which result did not fit the pattern. The most common incorrect
answers were the first result of 2.5 g and 4.0 cm or more commonly the last result of 15.0 g and 1.5 cm. These learners did not appear to have
recognised that there was a pattern in the results: the greater the mass of the sand in the container, the smaller the distance of the container above
the water as the mass was increased from 2.5 g to 10.0 g but, at 12.5 g, the container was higher in the water than when there was a mass of 10.0 g.

(b) Some of the learners correctly plotted the data and then drew a straight line of best fit without including the anomalous point; they achieved both
marks. Some of the learners achieved the line of best fit mark, but rather than plotting the anomalous point, they plotted where they thought the point
should have been. Some of the learners did not plot the extra data points and just drew a straight line of best fit through the three points that had
already been plotted for them. Some of the learners did not answer this question.

(c) Some of the learners correctly described the pattern shown by the results. Learners who described the pattern and included what happens with the
anomalous result present, e.g. the distance above the water decreases, then increases and then decreases, were not awarded the mark.

(d) Good answers to this question identified that the mass would need to be greater than 15 g as the results show a mass of 15 g of sand in the container
still has a distance of 1.5 cm above the water. Therefore, a mass than 15 g is needed for the container to sink fully. Good explanations showed an
understanding of balanced forces and the idea that when the container fully sinks, the force or weight of the container will be greater than the force of
upthrust. Some of the learners worked out the exact mass of sand that would be needed to be added to make the container fully sink, using the
pattern of the results.

Question 5

This question showed that the learners would benefit from more focus on the different types of variables in scientific enquiry and how to determine which
variable is which within an investigation. This is something which may not be as familiar to them.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified the type of exercise as the independent variable in the experiment described in the stem of the question, as
it is the variable which was being changed and the effect of it was being measured. Many of the learners thought that the independent variable was
how many breaths that he takes in one minute, which was in fact the dependent variable.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

(b) There were a variety of responses to this question with a few of the learners providing good answers and an understanding of the experiment. Good
answers to this question explained that they needed to rest between each exercise so their breathing rate could return to normal. Some of the
learners confused this experiment with the pulse rate experiment and unfortunately discussed the need for their pulse rate or their heart rate to
return to normal. Some of the learners provided answers for needing to recover between exercises as they were tired or to prevent them from
having a heart attack.

(c) Overall, this question was answered well by many of the learners. The most common incorrect answers were energy and food.

Question 6

Some of the learners demonstrated that they could analyse and interpret the information provided within the table to answer these questions.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified all four of the materials in the table which were metals by looking at the properties provided. Some of the
learners did not state all of the materials and some only identified material A as being a metal. Some of the learners appeared to change their
answer once they had looked at part (b) and stated A D F and G.

(b) Some of the learners correctly selected the property which had been used to sort the materials into the two groups stated in the question. Some of
the learners listed more than one property which was not accepted as the only property which could be used to separate the materials into these
two groups was the melting point. Some of the learners described group 1 as having a high melting point and group 2 have having a low melting
point when it was actually the other way around.

Question 7

This was an area of the framework where many of the learners showed good understanding and it was clear that some of the learners had carried out the
experiments described in the question, demonstrating how important hands-on experience is.

(a) Learners showed a good knowledge of the process of refraction and the effect of shining a light ray on a container of water. Learners need to be
careful to spell refraction correctly so it does not look like reflection or a mixture of refraction and reflection; it is then unclear what the answer is, and
the mark may not be awarded.

(b) The learners displayed a good knowledge of reflection in this question. Learners need to be careful to spell reflection correctly so it does not look
like refraction or a mixture of refraction and reflection; it is then unclear what the answer is, and the mark may not be awarded.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

(c) Good answers to this question showed that the learner had read and understood the information in the question stating that the water had now been
removed from the container and the light ray shone again on the container. Without the water, there would no longer be any refraction so the light
ray would remain straight. Some of the learners stated that nothing would happen, or it would stay the same. It was not always clear in these
responses whether the learner meant that the light ray would stay the same as when the water was present so these answers could not be awarded
the mark.

Question 8

Some of the learners showed a good understanding of the different processes that occur within the rock cycle and could identify them on the diagram in the
question.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(c) Some of the learners provided good answers displaying their knowledge of these processes in the rock cycle. For sedimentation, some of the
learners described erosion and weathering leading to the formation of sediment rather than what then happens to cause sedimentation. For
metamorphism, some of the learners discussed melting and cooling rather than rocks being changed due to either heat or pressure.

Question 9

This question showed that the learners have a good knowledge of the types of organisms that cause disease but there needs to be more focus on organ
systems; as the learners seemed unfamiliar with what an organ system is.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. Some of the learners stated mould or fungus. Fungus was the example provided within the
stem of the question so these answers were not awarded the mark.

(b) This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus. Many of the learners appeared to be unfamiliar with what an organ system is and
many of the learners wrote down organs from the respiratory system with the most common answer being nose. A few of the learners did identify
the respiratory system or other systems in the body where mucus is found.
 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Question 10

Some of the learners showed that they are familiar with these processes.

(a) Many of the learners answered this correctly.

(b) The learners showed that they were familiar with the similarity between evaporation and boiling. Some of the learners provided differences here
rather than a similarity.

(c) Good answers to this question made it clear which process the learners were describing and what the difference between the processes is. Some of
the learners showed a good knowledge of this area of the framework and were able to express their ideas clearly. Some of the learners discussed
boiling being an unnatural process and evaporation being a natural process which was not awarded the mark.