PATHOLOGY PART I

In the histopathology of an osteochondroma, a benign bone Answer: A) Presence of chondrocytes and

tumor, what is the defining feature observed in the microscopic osteocytes.
examination?
A) Presence of chondrocytes and osteocytes. Explanation: Osteochondromas are
B) Dense fibrous tissue. characterized by the presence of both
C) High mitotic activity. chondrocytes (cartilage cells) and osteocytes
D) Lack of cartilage. (bone cells) when examined histologically.

In clinical laboratory testing, what is the purpose of a "delta A) To assess changes in analyte
check" when reviewing patient results? concentrations over time.
A) To assess changes in analyte concentrations over time.
B) To compare patient results with the reference range.
C) To check for sample labeling errors.
D) To monitor the laboratory's equipment calibration.

Which type of lung cancer is often associated with A) Small cell lung carcinoma.
paraneoplastic syndromes, such as hypercalcemia?
A) Small cell lung carcinoma. Explanation: Small cell lung carcinoma is often
B) Squamous cell carcinoma. associated with paraneoplastic syndromes,
C) Adenocarcinoma. including hypercalcemia.
D) Mesothelioma.

Which autoimmune disease primarily affects the skin of the C) Bullous pemphigoid.
extremities at onset, leading to blistering and skin erosions, and
is characterized by autoantibodies against components of the Explanation: Bullous pemphigoid is an
skin? autoimmune disease primarily affecting the
A) Psoriasis. skin, leading to blistering and skin erosions,
B) Pemphigus vulgaris. and it is characterized by autoantibodies
C) Bullous pemphigoid. against components of the skin.
D) Lichen planus.

What is the histological hallmark of a gastrointestinal carcinoid D) Argentaffin cells.

tumor, a rare neuroendocrine tumor?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Zellballen pattern.
C) Rosette formation.
D) Argentaffin cells.

Which cancer-associated gene is commonly mutated in B) KRAS.

colorectal cancer?
A) BRCA1.
B) KRAS.
C) EGFR.
D) RET.

In the histopathology of a papillary thyroid carcinoma, what A) Psammoma bodies.

histological feature is often seen as a distinguishing
characteristic? Explanation: Papillary thyroid carcinoma often
A) Psammoma bodies.
features the presence of psammoma bodies
B) Microcystic pattern.
C) Mucinous differentiation. when examined histologically.
D) Rosette formation.

Which essential nutrient is important for the formation and repair B) Proteins.
of body tissues, and deficiency can lead to symptoms like slow
wound healing and impaired immune function?
A) Carbohydrates.
B) Proteins.
C) Vitamins.
D) Minerals.
What is the primary mechanism of injury in acute tubular D) Ischemia and hypoxia of tubular cells.
necrosis (ATN)?
A) Apoptosis of tubular cells.
B) Coagulation of tubular cells.
C) Inflammation of the glomeruli.
D) Ischemia and hypoxia of tubular cells.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of viral
hepatitis?
A) Gradual onset with mild symptoms.
B) Infection limited to the liver.
C) Chronic inflammation and liver damage.
D) Absence of jaundice.
Answer: C) Chronic inflammation and liver
damage.
Explanation: Viral hepatitis infections can lead
to chronic inflammation and damage to the
liver, which can have serious long-term
consequences.

What is the term for a malignant tumor derived from muscle C) Rhabdomyosarcoma.
tissue?
A) Osteosarcoma. Explanation: Rhabdomyosarcoma is a
B) Chondrosarcoma. malignant tumor derived from muscle tissue.
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma.
D) Glioblastoma.

Which of the following terms refers to the abnormal growth of A) Dysplasia.

cells within a tissue or organ?
A) Dysplasia. Explanation: Hyperplasia is the increased
B) Hyperplasia. number of cells within a tissue or organ, often
C) Hypertrophy. in response to a stimulus. Dysplasia refers to
D) Metaplasia. abnormal changes in the size, shape, or
organization of cells. Hypertrophy is an
increase in cell size, and metaplasia is a
change in cell type.

What is a characteristic feature of a teratoma tumor? B) Consists of mature, differentiated cells.

A) Derived from mesenchymal cells.
B) Consists of mature, differentiated cells.
C) Primarily found in adults.
D) Highly aggressive and invasive.

What is the primary cause of Down syndrome? B) Advanced maternal age.

A) Environmental toxins.
B) Advanced maternal age.
C) Paternal genetic mutations.
D) Chromosomal trisomy.

Which virus is known to cause infectious mononucleosis B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).

(glandular fever)?
A) Influenza virus. Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). commonly caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). (EBV), a member of the herpesvirus family.
D) Hepatitis C virus.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic
lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
A) Accumulation of abnormal red blood cells.
B) Philadelphia chromosome translocation.
C) Overproduction of mature lymphocytes.
D) Slow progression with mature lymphocytes in the blood.
D) Slow progression with mature lymphocytes
in the blood.
Explanation: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
(CLL) is characterized by the slow progression
of the disease with an accumulation of mature
lymphocytes in the blood.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a teratogenic C) It disrupts embryonic development.

substance?
A) It causes cell apoptosis. Explanation: Teratogenic substances are
B) It induces cell differentiation. agents or factors that can disrupt the normal
C) It disrupts embryonic development. development of an embryo or fetus, leading to
D) It enhances tissue repair. birth defects.
Which of the following is a characteristic
atherosclerosis?
A) Thickening of the heart's muscular wall.
B) Accumulation of blood clots in veins.
C) Formation of fatty plaques in arteries.
D) Enlargement of the brain's blood vessels.
feature of C) Formation of fatty plaques in arteries.
Explanation: Atherosclerosis involves the
accumulation of fatty plaques in arteries,
leading to reduced blood flow and increased
risk of cardiovascular disease.

What is the primary mechanism of injury in alcoholic liver disease C) Toxic effects of alcohol and its metabolites
(ALD)? on liver cells.
A) Autoimmune attack on liver cells.
Explanation: Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is
B) Viral infection of liver cells. primarily caused by the toxic effects of alcohol
and its metabolites on liver cells.
C) Toxic effects of alcohol and its metabolites on liver cells.

D) Impaired bile flow.

In surgical pathology, what term refers to a tumor composed of B) Sarcoma.

connective tissue, such as bone, cartilage, or fat?
A) Adenoma. Explanation: Sarcomas are tumors that arise
B) Sarcoma. from connective tissue, including bone,
C) Carcinoma. cartilage, and fat.
D) Lymphoma.

What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus in a cell? D) Protein modification and packaging.
A) Protein synthesis.
B) Energy production. Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is
C) Lipid storage. responsible for modifying, sorting, and
D) Protein modification and packaging. packaging proteins and lipids for transport
within or outside the cell. It is not directly
involved in protein synthesis (option A), energy
production (option B), or lipid storage (option
C).

Which infectious disease is characterized by a bacterial infection Answer: C) Legionnaires' disease.

of the lung, often presenting with symptoms like cough, fever,
and chest pain, and is commonly associated with exposure to Explanation: Legionnaires' disease is a
contaminated water sources? bacterial lung infection associated with
A) Tuberculosis. exposure to contaminated water sources, and
B) Pneumonia. it presents with symptoms like cough, fever,
C) Legionnaires' disease. and chest pain.
D) Pertussis.

What is the histological hallmark of a gastrointestinal stromal B) Spindle cell morphology.

tumor (GIST), a malignant tumor arising in the GI tract?
A) Presence of signet ring cells.
B) Spindle cell morphology.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Squamous differentiation.

In the histopathology of a choriocarcinoma, a rare malignant B) Trophoblastic cells and

tumor, what is the characteristic histological feature often seen?
A) Presence of glandular structures.
B) Trophoblastic cells and syncytiotrophoblasts.
C) Squamous differentiation.
D) Rosette formation.
syncytiotrophoblasts.
Explanation: Choriocarcinomas often exhibit
trophoblastic cells and syncytiotrophoblasts as
characteristic histological features.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a malignant C) Pigmentation variation.

melanoma?
A) Slow growth. Explanation: Malignant melanomas often
B) Well-defined borders. exhibit variations in pigmentation, irregular
C) Pigmentation variation. borders, and can be aggressive, unlike benign
D) Benign behavior. melanocytic nevi.
Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a hole in the C) Atrial septal defect (ASD).
septum (wall) between the heart's upper chambers (atria),
leading to mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood? Explanation: Atrial septal defect (ASD) is
A) Tetralogy of Fallot. characterized by a hole in the septum between
B) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). the atria of the heart.
C) Atrial septal defect (ASD).
D) Ventricular septal defect (VSD).

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a malignant C) Involvement of lymphoid tissues and
lymphoma? organs.
A) Limited to lymph nodes.
B) Slow and indolent growth. Explanation: Malignant lymphomas involve
C) Involvement of lymphoid tissues and organs. lymphoid tissues and organs and can be
D) Well-differentiated lymphocytes. aggressive, unlike benign lymphoid
hyperplasia.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic C) Accumulation of mature B lymphocytes.

lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
A) Rapid progression. Explanation: CLL is characterized by the
B) Predominance of myeloid cells. accumulation of mature B lymphocytes in the
C) Accumulation of mature B lymphocytes. blood and bone marrow.
D) Occurrence mainly in children.

What is the histological feature often seen in the stroma of a C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue.
desmoplastic reaction, which is a response to the invasion of
malignant tumor cells? Explanation: A desmoplastic reaction is
A) Inflammatory infiltrate. characterized by the proliferation of fibrous
B) Hyaline degeneration. tissue in response to the invasion of malignant
C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue. tumor cells.
D) Presence of cystic spaces.

Which term in neoplasia pathology describes the loss of A) Anaplasia.

differentiation in cancer cells, resulting in cells that do not
resemble the normal tissue from which they originated? Explanation: Anaplasia refers to the loss of
A) Anaplasia. differentiation in cancer cells, leading to cells
B) Hyperplasia. that do not resemble the normal tissue from
C) Metaplasia. which they originated.
D) Dysplasia.

Which of the following types of skin cancer is the most C) Melanoma.

aggressive and prone to metastasis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma.
B) Squamous cell carcinoma.
C) Melanoma.
D) Actinic keratosis.

Which of the following is a common cause of peptic ulcers? B) Helicobacter pylori infection.
A) Excessive gastric acid production.
B) Helicobacter pylori infection. Explanation: Helicobacter pylori infection is a
C) Autoimmune reaction. common cause of peptic ulcers. Excessive
D) Dietary deficiency. gastric acid production (option A), autoimmune
reactions (option C), and dietary deficiencies
(option D) can contribute to ulcer formation but
are not the primary cause in most cases.

What term describes the inheritance of two different alleles for a B) Heterozygous.
particular gene, one from each parent?
A) Homozygous. Explanation: Heterozygous individuals inherit
B) Heterozygous. two different alleles for a particular gene, one
C) Dominant. from each parent.
D) Recessive.

Which histological feature is characteristic of a small cell D) High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.
carcinoma of the lung, a highly aggressive malignant tumor?
A) Large, polygonal cells. Explanation: Small cell carcinomas of the lung
B) Presence of keratin pearls. are characterized by a high nuclear to
C) Spindle cell morphology. cytoplasmic ratio when examined
D) High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. histologically.

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Alzheimer's A) Amyloid plaques.

disease in the brain?
A) Amyloid plaques. Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is
B) Lewy bodies. characterized by the accumulation of amyloid
C) Neurofibrillary granules. plaques in the brain. Lewy bodies (option B)
D) Granulomas. are associated with Parkinson's disease and
Lewy body dementia. Neurofibrillary tangles
are also seen in Alzheimer's disease, and
granulomas (option D) are a feature of certain
inflammatory conditions.

What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of a D) A mixture of cell types, including epithelial
pleomorphic adenoma, a benign salivary gland tumor, when and myoepithelial cells.
viewed under a microscope?
A) Sheets of small, uniform cells with abundant cytoplasm.
B) Spindle-shaped cells forming a "whorled" pattern.
C) Large, polygonal cells with prominent nucleoli.
D) A mixture of cell types, including epithelial and myoepithelial
cells.

What is the term for the process by which chemicals, heavy C) Biomagnification.
metals, or pollutants accumulate in living organisms and
increase in concentration as they move up the food chain?
A) Bioaccumulation.
B) Biodegradation.
C) Biomagnification.
D) Biodiversity.

Which of the following is a key feature of apoptosis? C) DNA fragmentation and cell shrinkage.
A) Cell swelling and lysis.
B) Inflammation and necrosis.
C) DNA fragmentation and cell shrinkage.
D) Hyperplasia and increased mitosis.

Which surgical pathology term describes a tumor that has not A) Benign.
invaded surrounding tissues and remains confined to its site of
origin? Explanation: Benign tumors do not invade
A) Benign. surrounding tissues and remain confined to
B) Malignant. their site of origin.
C) Carcinoma.
D) Metastatic.

When conducting a blood gas analysis, what does the
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation calculate?
A) pH of the blood.
B) Partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2).
C) Bicarbonate ion concentration ([HCO3-]).
D) Base excess.
A) pH of the blood.
Explanation: The Henderson-Hasselbalch
equation is used to calculate the pH of a
solution, such as blood, based on the
concentration of hydrogen ions ([H+]) and
bicarbonate ions ([HCO3-]).

Which clinical laboratory test is used to diagnose and monitor A) Osmotic fragility test.
conditions of red blood cell morphology, such as spherocytosis
or elliptocytosis? Explanation: The osmotic fragility test
A) Osmotic fragility test. measures the susceptibility of red blood cells to
B) Reticulocyte count. rupture in a hypo-osmotic solution, which can
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). help diagnose conditions like spherocytosis.
D) Serum iron level.

Which of the following neoplasms is characterized by the B) Hodgkin lymphoma.

presence of Reed- Sternberg cells?
A) Hepatocellular carcinoma. Explanation: Reed-Sternberg cells are
B) Hodgkin lymphoma. characteristic cells seen in Hodgkin lymphoma.
C) Glioblastoma multiforme.
D) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of systemic
lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Sclerotic skin changes.
B) Overproduction of thyroid hormones.
C) Presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs).
D) Destruction of joint cartilage.
C) Presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs).
Explanation: Systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE) is characterized by the presence of anti-
nuclear antibodies (ANAs) in the blood.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of viral hepatitis D) Vaccine-preventable.

A?
A) Chronic infection. Explanation: Hepatitis A is vaccine-
B) High mortality rate. preventable, and infection typically does not
C) Parenteral transmission. lead to chronic hepatitis or high mortality rates.
D) Vaccine-preventable.

In the histopathology of a malignant melanoma, what histological D) High mitotic activity.

feature is often seen as an indicator of aggressive behavior and
poor prognosis? Explanation: High mitotic activity in malignant
A) Presence of melanocytes. melanoma is often an indicator of aggressive
B) Epithelioid cell morphology. behavior and poor prognosis when examined
C) Clark's level of invasion. histologically.
D) High mitotic activity.

Which of the following statements is true regarding benign
tumors?
A) They have the potential to metastasize.
B) Their cells are poorly differentiated.
C) They invade surrounding tissues.
D) They do not spread to distant sites.
D) They do not spread to distant sites.
Explanation: Benign tumors are non-cancerous
growths that do not invade surrounding tissues
or metastasize to distant sites. They are
typically well-differentiated.

Which benign tumor of the skin is characterized by the presence C) Keratoacanthoma.

of horn-like projections with a central keratin-filled crater when
examined histologically? Explanation: Keratoacanthomas are
A) Dermatofibroma characterized by horn-like projections and a
B) Seborrheic keratosis. central keratin-filled crater when examined
C) Keratoacanthoma. histologically.
D) Fibrous papule.

Which malignant tumor is characterized by the presence of clear A) Renal cell carcinoma.
cells with a distinct cell membrane and abundant clear
cytoplasm? Explanation: Renal cell carcinoma is
A) Renal cell carcinoma. characterized by the presence of clear cells
B) Wilms tumor. with a distinct cell membrane and abundant
C) Transitional cell carcinoma. clear cytoplasm when examined histologically.
D) Neuroblastoma.

Which histological feature is commonly observed in the stroma C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue.
of a desmoid tumor, a locally aggressive soft tissue tumor?
A) Spindle cell morphology. Explanation: Desmoid tumors, also known as
B) Hyaline degeneration. aggressive fibromatosis, often exhibit the
C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue. proliferation of fibrous tissue in their stroma
D) Presence of cystic spaces. when examined histologically.

Which viral infection, transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, is A) Zika virus.

characterized by symptoms like fever, joint pain, and rash, and
is of concern due to its association with birth defects when
contracted during pregnancy?
A) Zika virus.
B) West Nile virus.
C) Dengue fever.
D) Yellow fever.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the A) Aphthous stomatitis.
formation of painful, recurring ulcers in the oral mucosa?
A) Aphthous stomatitis. Explanation: Aphthous stomatitis is
B) Gingivitis. characterized by the formation of painful ulcers
C) Thrush (oral candidiasis). in the oral mucosa and is also known as canker
D) Oral cancer. sores.

Which type of breast cancer is characterized by the presence of B) Invasive lobular carcinoma.
tumor cells arranged in a linear or cord-like pattern,resembling a
"string of pearls" when viewed under a microscope? Explanation: Invasive lobular carcinoma of the
A) Invasive ductal carcinoma. breast is characterized by tumor cells arranged
B) Invasive lobular carcinoma. in a linear or cord-like pattern, often referred to
C) Medullary carcinoma. as resembling a "string of pearls."
D) Mucinous carcinoma.

In the histopathology of uterine leiomyomas (fibroids), what term D) Fascicular arrangement.

describes the presence of whorled bundles of smooth muscle
cells with elongated nuclei? Explanation: Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)
A) Rosette formation. often exhibit a fascicular arrangement of
B) Pseudoinvasion. smooth muscle cells with elongated nuclei
C) Hyaline degeneration. when examined histologically.
D) Fascicular arrangement.

In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle become
stiff and non-compliant, impairing diastolic filling?
A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
B) Dilated cardiomyopathy.
C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy.
D) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy.
C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Explanation: Restrictive cardiomyopathy is
characterized by stiff and non-compliant heart
muscle, leading to impaired diastolic filling.

Which of the following diseases is characterized by the loss of B) Parkinson's disease.

dopamine- producing neurons in the brain?
A) Alzheimer's disease. Explanation: Parkinson's disease is
B) Parkinson's disease. characterized by the loss of dopamine-
C) Multiple sclerosis. producing neurons in the brain, leading to
D) Huntington's disease. motor dysfunction. Alzheimer's disease (option
A) is a neurodegenerative disease with
different pathological features. Multiple
sclerosis (option C) involves demyelination of
neurons, and Huntington's disease (option D)
is caused by a genetic mutation.

What histological feature is typically seen in the stroma of a C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue.
fibroadenoma, a common benign breast tumor?
A) Squamous metaplasia. Explanation: Fibroadenomas of the breast
B) Cystic spaces filled with blood. typically show proliferation of fibrous tissue in
C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue. their stroma when examined histologically.
D) Microcalcifications.

In developmental pathology, what term describes the abnormal D) Ectopia.

development of tissues or organs in which they are present in
multiple copies or in an incorrect location?
A) Atrophy.
B) Agenesis.
C) Hyperplasia.
D) Ectopia.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the B) Asthma.

inflammation of the airways, bronchoconstriction, and increased
mucus production?
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Asthma.
C) Pneumonia.
D) Lung cancer.
What is the primary cause of cirrhosis of the liver? A) Alcohol abuse.
A) Alcohol abuse.
B) Viral hepatitis. Explanation: Alcohol abuse is a leading cause
C) Autoimmune hepatitis. of cirrhosis of the liver.
D) Pancreatic cancer.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of von A) Prolonged bleeding time.

Willebrand disease?
A) Prolonged bleeding time.
B) Formation of blood clots.
C) Elevated platelet count.
D) Increased prothrombin time.

What is the primary mechanism of injury in acute pancreatitis?
A) Autoimmune attack on pancreatic tissue.
B) Chronic alcohol abuse.
C) Obstruction of the pancreatic duct.
D) Activation of pancreatic enzymes within the pancreas.
D) Activation of pancreatic enzymes within the
pancreas.
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis is primarily
caused by the activation of pancreatic enzymes
within the pancreas, leading to inflammation
and tissue damage.

What histological feature is often seen in the stroma of a C) Glandular differentiation.

mucinous adenocarcinoma, a malignant tumor known for its
production of mucin?
A) Presence of signet ring cells.
B) Spindle cell morphology.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Vascular invasion.

Which surgical pathology term describes a tumor that has D) Locally invasive.
invaded and destroyed nearby tissue structures but has not yet Carcinoma in situ is when cell changes show
spread to distant sites? up as cancerous under a microscope, but they
A) In situ. have not spread beyond where they first
B) Metastasis. formed. The words “in situ” mean “in its original
C) Carcinoma in situ. place.” These in situ cells are not malignant, or
D) Locally invasive. cancerous.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a leiomyoma? C) Composed of smooth muscle cells.
A) Malignant behavior.
B) Derived from glandular tissue. Explanation: Leiomyomas are benign tumors
C) Composed of smooth muscle cells. composed of smooth muscle cells and are
D) Typically found in the lungs. commonly found in the uterus.

Which type of skin cancer is often associated with long-term C) Melanoma.

exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, especially in fair-skinned
individuals?
A) Basal cell carcinoma.
B) Squamous cell carcinoma.
C) Melanoma.
D) Actinic keratosis.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic B) Philadelphia chromosome translocation.

myeloid leukemia (CML)?
A) Overproduction of mature lymphocytes.
B) Philadelphia chromosome translocation.
C) Accumulation of abnormal red blood cells.
D) Rapid response to antibiotics.
Explanation: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
is characterized by the presence of the
Philadelphia chromosome translocation (BCR-
ABL fusion gene).

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of sickle cell
anemia?
A) Excessive production of red blood cells.
B) Increased blood clot formation.
C) Abnormally shaped red blood cells.
D) Overproduction of hemoglobin.
C) Abnormally shaped red blood cells.
Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is
characterized by the presence of abnormally
shaped, crescent-like red blood cells, which
can cause blockages in blood vessels and lead
to various complications. It is not associated
with excessive red blood cell production (option
 A), increased blood clot formation (option B), or
overproduction of hemoglobin (option D).

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a malignant D) Infiltrative and aggressive behavior.
glioma?
A) Slow growth. Explanation: Malignant gliomas are aggressive
B) Benign behavior. brain tumors that infiltrate surrounding brain
C) Originating from connective tissue. tissue.
D) Infiltrative and aggressive behavior.

Which water-soluble vitamin is essential for collagen formation, B) Vitamin C.

wound healing, and the absorption of non-heme iron from plant-
based foods? Explanation: Vitamin C is essential for collagen
A) Vitamin A. formation, wound healing, and the absorption
B) Vitamin C. of non-heme iron from plant-based foods.
C) Vitamin D.
D) Vitamin K.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Type II D) Overproduction of antibodies

hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Immune complex deposition. Explanation: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
B) Release of histamine. involve the activation of cytotoxic T cells that
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells. directly attack cells expressing surface
D) Overproduction of antibodies. antigens. Immune complex deposition is
characteristic of Type III hypersensitivity
reactions, and histamine release is associated
with Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

In surgical pathology, which term describes a malignant tumor C) Carcinoma.

that arises from the epithelial tissue, such as the lining of organs
or glands?
A) Sarcoma.
B) Lymphoma.
C) Carcinoma.
D) Adenoma.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of systemic B) Skin rashes, especially on the face.
lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Joint deformities. Explanation: SLE is characterized by a variety
B) Skin rashes, especially on the face. of symptoms, including skin rashes, particularly
C) High red blood cell count. a butterfly-shaped rash on the face.
D) Normal immune function.

In surgical pathology, which of the following grading systems is B) Bloom-Richardson grading.

commonly used to assess the aggressiveness of malignant C) Gleason score.
tumors based on their microscopic characteristics?
A) AJCC staging.
B) Bloom-Richardson grading.
C) Gleason score.
D) TNM staging.

In the histopathology of a high-grade serous carcinoma of the D) Proliferation of atypical cells.

ovary, what histological feature is often seen, contributing to its
classification as a high- grade tumor?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Clear cell morphology.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Proliferation of atypical cells.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a malignant C) Local invasion and metastasis.
tumor?
A) Well-differentiated cells. Explanation: Malignant tumors are
B) Limited mitotic activity. characterized by their ability to invade nearby
C) Local invasion and metastasis. tissues and metastasize to distant organs.
D) Slow and controlled growth. They often have poorly differentiated cells and
high mitotic activity.
In surgical pathology, what term describes a benign tumor B) Adenoma.
composed of glandular epithelial tissue arranged in a cystic
pattern?
A) Adenocarcinoma.
B) Adenoma.
C) Carcinoma.
D) Sarcoma.

Which type of necrosis is characterized by the conversion of B) Liquefactive necrosis.

tissue into a soft, liquid-like substance?
A) Coagulative necrosis. Explanation: Liquefactive necrosis results in
B) Liquefactive necrosis. the transformation of tissue into a liquid, often
C) Caseous necrosis. seen in conditions like brain abscesses.
D) Fat necrosis. Coagulative necrosis (option A) involves the
preservation of tissue architecture, caseous
necrosis (option C) is cheese-like, and fat
necrosis (option D) involves the breakdown of
fat cells.

What is the term for the abnormal development of a structure or D) Malformation.

organ during embryonic or fetal development?
A) Dysplasia. Explanation: Malformation refers to the
B) Atrophy. abnormal development of a structure or organ
C) Hypertrophy. during embryonic or fetal development.
D) Malformation.

Which benign tumor of the liver is characterized by large, A) Hepatocellular adenoma.

multinucleated cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm and is
associated with the use of oral contraceptives? Explanation: Hepatocellular adenomas are
A) Hepatocellular adenoma. characterized by large, multinucleated cells
B) Focal nodular hyperplasia. with eosinophilic cytoplasm and are associated
C) Hepatic hemangioma. with the use of oral contraceptives.
D) Biliary cystadenoma.

What is the primary function of the adrenal medulla within the C) Release of stress hormones.
adrenal glands?
A) Production of steroid hormones.
B) Regulation of blood glucose levels.
C) Release of stress hormones.
D) Regulation of sodium and potassium levels.

What is the histological hallmark of a lipoma, a common benign
tumor composed of adipose (fat) tissue?
A) Sheets of small, uniform cells with abundant cytoplasm.
B) Presence of spindle-shaped cells forming a "whorled"
pattern.
C) Predominance of blood-filled cystic spaces.
D) Mature adipocytes with clear cytoplasm and small,
compressed nuclei.
D) Mature adipocytes with clear cytoplasm and
small, compressed nuclei.
Explanation: The histological hallmark of a
lipoma is the presence of mature adipocytes
with clear cytoplasm and small, compressed
nuclei

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) Restrictive lung function.
B) Excessive lung elasticity.
C) Airway obstruction that worsens over time.
D) Rapid improvement with bronchodilator therapy.
C) Airway obstruction that worsens over time.
Explanation: COPD is characterized by
progressive airway obstruction and lung
function deterioration over time.

Which of the following is a hallmark of chronic gastritis? D) Prolonged inflammation and tissue damage.
A) Rapid onset and resolution.
B) Mucosal erosion and bleeding. Explanation: Chronic gastritis is characterized
C) Eosinophil infiltration.
by prolonged inflammation and damage to the
D) Prolonged inflammation and tissue damage.
stomach lining, which may lead to
complications.
What is a common feature of autoimmune diseases?
A) Enhanced tolerance to self-antigens.
B) Normal immune response.
C) Destruction of self-tissues by the immune system.
D) Lack of inflammation.
C) Destruction of self-tissues by the immune
system.
Explanation: Autoimmune diseases occur
when the immune system mistakenly targets
and attacks the body's own tissues, leading to
self-tissue destruction.

Which type of necrosis is often associated with severe ischemia A) Coagulative necrosis.
and occurs in solid organs like the heart or kidney?
A) Coagulative necrosis. Explanation: Coagulative necrosis is often
B) Liquefactive necrosis. associated with severe ischemia and occurs in
C) Caseous necrosis. solid organs like the heart or kidney, where the
D) Fat necrosis. affected tissue retains some structure.

Which histological subtype of non-small cell lung cancer B) Adenocarcinoma.

(NSCLC) is characterized by the presence of tumor cells with
gland-like structures when viewed under a microscope? Explanation: Adenocarcinoma, a subtype of
A) Squamous cell carcinoma. non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), is
B) Adenocarcinoma. characterized by the presence of tumor cells
C) Small cell carcinoma. with gland-like structures when examined
D) Large cell carcinoma. histologically.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by the presence B) Myasthenia gravis.

of autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the
neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is
fatigue? characterized by the presence of
A) Multiple sclerosis. autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors
B) Myasthenia gravis. at the neuromuscular junction, leading to
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome. muscle weakness and fatigue.
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

In Mendelian genetics, which law states that each pair of alleles C) Law of Segregation.
segregates or separates during gamete formation, resulting in
one allele being passed from each parent to the offspring? Explanation: The Law of Segregation states
A) Law of Dominance. that each pair of alleles segregates during
B) Law of Independent Assortment. gamete formation, ensuring that one allele is
C) Law of Segregation. passed from each parent to the offspring.
D) Law of Incomplete Dominance.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn's
disease?
A) Continuous inflammation limited to the colon.
B) Skip lesions and transmural inflammation.
C) Formation of pseudopolyps.
D) Involvement of only the rectum and sigmoid colon.
B) Skip lesions and transmural inflammation.
Explanation: Crohn's disease is characterized
by skip lesions, which means that inflamed
areas are separated by normal, non-inflamed
tissue, and it involves the entire bowel wall
(transmural inflammation).

Which of the following terms describes the programmed cell B) Apoptosis.

death that occurs during development and homeostasis?
A) Necrosis. Explanation: Apoptosis is programmed cell
B) Apoptosis. death that occurs during normal development
C) Autophagy. and tissue homeostasis. Necrosis (option A) is
D) Ischemia. cell death due to injury or disease, autophagy
(option C) is a process of self-digestion, and
ischemia (option D) is inadequate blood supply
to tissues.

Which viral infection is associated with the development of B) Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8).
Kaposi's sarcoma in individuals with weakened immune
systems?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV).
B) Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8).
C) Hepatitis B virus (HBV).
D) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
In the histopathology of a squamous cell carcinoma, what term D) Squamous differentiation.
describes the presence of keratin pearls and intercellular bridges
when examined under a microscope?
A) Glandular differentiation.
B) Neuroendocrine differentiation.
C) Vascular invasion.
D) Squamous differentiation.

In genetics, what term describes the phenomenon where a D) Pleiotropy.

single gene can influence multiple traits or characteristics?
A) Polygenic.
B) Monogenic.
C) Epistasis.
D) Pleiotropy.

Which type of skin cancer is characterized by the formation of A) Basal cell carcinoma.
small, pearly nodules with central ulceration and a rolled, waxy
border, often associated with chronic sun exposure?
A) Basal cell carcinoma.
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Melanoma.
D) Kaposi's sarcoma.

What is the term for a benign tumor composed of blood vessels, C) Hemangioma.
often seen as a red or purple skin lesion?
A) Angiosarcoma.
B) Hematoma.
C) Hemangioma.
D) Lymphoma.

What is the primary cause of cirrhosis of the liver? C) Chronic alcohol abuse.
A) Autoimmune attack on liver cells.
B) Viral infection of liver cells. Explanation: Chronic alcohol abuse is a leading
C) Chronic alcohol abuse. cause of cirrhosis of the liver.
D) Exposure to asbestos.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by the presence A) Celiac disease.

of autoantibodies against the enzyme transglutaminase, leading
to intestinal damage upon gluten consumption? Explanation: Celiac disease is characterized by
A) Celiac disease. the presence of autoantibodies against
B) Crohn's disease. transglutaminase, leading to intestinal damage
C) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). when gluten is consumed.
D) Diverticulitis.

What histological feature is typically seen in the stroma of a B) Fibroepithelial pattern.

phyllodes tumor, a rare benign breast tumor?
A) Presence of glandular structures.
B) Fibroepithelial pattern
C) Squamous metaplasia.
D) Dense lymphocytic infiltrate.

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes a malignant C) Ability to metastasize.

tumor from a benign tumor in surgical pathology?
A) Rate of growth. Explanation: The ability to metastasize (spread
B) Tissue of origin. to other parts of the body) is the primary
C) Ability to metastasize.
D) Presence of cystic structures. characteristic that distinguishes a malignant
tumor from a benign tumor.

What genetic disorder results from the deletion of a portion of
chromosome 15 and is characterized by symptoms including
intellectual disabilities, behavioral issues, and a strong desire for
certain foods?
A) Turner syndrome.
B) Prader-Willi syndrome.
B) Prader-Willi syndrome.
Explanation: Prader-Willi syndrome is caused
by the deletion of a portion of chromosome 15
and is characterized by intellectual disabilities,
behavioral problems, and an insatiable
C) Down syndrome. appetite.
D) Huntington's disease.

PATHOLOGY PART II

Which pediatric neoplasm is characterized by an abnormal C) Neuroblastoma.

proliferation of neuroblasts and is associated with increased
urinary catecholamines? Explanation: Neuroblastoma is characterized
A) Osteosarcoma. by the proliferation of neuroblasts and often
B) Ewing sarcoma. leads to increased urinary catecholamines,
C) Neuroblastoma. which can be used for diagnostic purposes.
D) Retinoblastoma.

Which genetic alteration is commonly associated with chronic A) BCR-ABL fusion gene.
myeloid leukemia (CML)?
A) BCR-ABL fusion gene.
B) TP53 mutation.
C) KRAS mutation.
D) BRCA1 mutation.

Which molecular subtype of invasive breast cancer is A. Luminal A

characterized by estrogen receptor (ER) and/or progesterone
receptor (PR) positivity, as well as human epidermal growth
factor receptor 2 (HER2) negativity, and typically has the best
prognosis?
A. Luminal A
B. Luminal B
C. HER2-enriched
D. Triple-negative (Basal-like)
E. Inflammatory breast cancer

What is the histologic hallmark of Paget disease at the late B) Mosaic pattern of mineralization
stage?
A) Excessive bone mineralization
B) Mosaic pattern of mineralization
C) Absence of bone mineralization
D) Irregular bone structure

What is the histological hallmark of a seminoma, a common
malignant germ cell tumor of the testis?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Presence of keratin pearls.
C) Sheets of clear cells.
D) Large, round cells with clear cytoplasm and central nuclei.
D) Large, round cells with clear cytoplasm and
central nuclei.
Explanation: Seminomas are characterized by
large, round cells with clear cytoplasm and
central nuclei when examined histologically.

In the histopathology of a giant cell tumor of bone, a benign bone B) Osteoclastic pattern.
tumor, what term describes the presence of multinucleated giant
cells? Explanation: Giant cell tumors of bone often
A) Fibroblastic pattern. exhibit an osteoclastic pattern with the
B) Osteoclastic pattern. presence of multinucleated giant cells when
C) Lymphocytic infiltration. examined histologically.
D) Glandular differentiation.

Which pediatric neoplasm is associated with a genetic mutation D) Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1).
in the NF1 gene and is characterized by the presence of cafe-
au-lait spots, neurofibromas, and optic pathway gliomas? Explanation: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
A) Wilms tumor. is associated with genetic mutations in the
B) Neuroblastoma. NF1 gene and is characterized by cafe-au-lait
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma. spots, neurofibromas, and optic pathway
D) Neurofibromatosis type 1. gliomas.

In the molecular pathogenesis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia A) BCL2 translocation.

(CLL), what genetic alteration is frequently observed?
A) BCL2 translocation.
B) TP53 mutation.
C) JAK2 mutation.
D) HER2 amplification.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with D) CTNNB1 mutation.

hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)?
A) EGFR mutation. Explanation: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
B) TP53 mutation. is often associated with mutations in the
C) BRAF mutation. CTNNB1 gene, which plays a role in the Wnt
D) CTNNB1 mutation. signaling pathway and can contribute to HCC
development.

What are the two main subclasses of glaucoma based on the
angle status, and within each subclass, what are the further
classifications?
A) Open angle and angle closure; primary and secondary
B) Narrow angle and wide angle; juvenile and adult
C) Secondary angle and open angle; congenital and acquired
D) Angle closure and open angle; genetic and non-genetic
A) Open angle and angle closure; primary and
secondary
Explanation: Glaucoma can be classified into
open-angle glaucoma and angle-closure
glaucoma. Each of these can further be
categorized as primary (no identifiable cause)
or secondary (caused by another underlying
condition).

What is the characteristic appearance of tophi in gout?
A) Smooth, gelatinous masses
B) Aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by foreign body
giant cells
C) Cystic structures filled with clear fluid
D) Hemorrhagic nodules
B) Aggregations of urate crystals surrounded
by foreign body giant cells
Explanation: Tophi in gout are formed by large
aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by
an intense inflammatory reaction of foreign
body giant cells.

In the histopathology of a glioblastoma multiforme, a highly B) Pseudopalisading necrosis

malignant brain tumor, what histological feature is often
observed, indicating aggressive behavior?
A) Presence of oligodendrocytes.
B) Pseudopalisading necrosis.
C) Rosette formation.
D) Squamous differentiation.

Which pediatric neoplasm is associated with the presence of a B) Ewing sarcoma.

translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22, resulting in the
fusion of the EWSR1 and FLI1 genes? Explanation: Ewing sarcoma is associated
A) Osteosarcoma. with the EWSR1-FLI1 gene fusion, which
B) Ewing sarcoma. plays a role in the tumor's pathogenesis.
C) Wilms tumor.
D) Hepatoblastoma.

What is the characteristic feature of paretic neurosyphilis? B) Progressive cognitive impairment

A) Seizures
B) Progressive cognitive impairment Explanation: Paretic neurosyphilis is clinically
C) Motor deficits manifested as insidious but progressive
D) Visual disturbances cognitive impairment, often accompanied by
mood alterations.

What is the typical cause of an epidural hematoma, and what is
a significant feature of its progression?
A) Typically caused by ruptured venous vessels, and it
progresses slowly.
B) Typically caused by ruptured dural arteries, and it progresses
slowly.
C) Typically caused by skull deformities, and it progresses
rapidly.
D) Typically caused by spinal cord injury, and it progresses
rapidly.
B) Typically caused by ruptured dural arteries,
and it progresses slowly.
Explanation: An epidural hematoma is
typically caused by the rupture of dural
arteries, most notably the middle meningeal
artery. It can progress slowly, and patients
may remain lucid for some time before the
onset of neurologic signs. However, it can also
expand rapidly in some cases, making it a
neurosurgical emergency.
What is a significant factor contributing to insulin resistance in C) Inflammatory cytokines from adipose
type 2 diabetes? tissues A) Medulloblastoma.
A) Elevated levels of adiponectin
B) Decreased free fatty acids
C) Inflammatory cytokines from adipose tissues
D) Impaired insulin receptor gene

What is the distinguishing feature of high-grade serous A) Pleomorphism and atypical mitotic figures
carcinomas compared to low-grade serous tumors?
A) Pleomorphism and atypical mitotic figures Explanation: High-grade serous carcinomas
B) Psammoma bodies are distinguished from low-grade serous
C) Smooth glistening cyst wall tumors by having more complex growth
D) Bilaterality patterns, widespread infiltration, and marked
nuclear atypia, including pleomorphism and
atypical mitotic figures.

Which pediatric neoplasm is often associated with the presence A) Medulloblastoma.

of "Homer-Wright rosettes" on histology?
A) Medulloblastoma.
B) Wilms tumor.
C) Ewing sarcoma.
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Histologically, what is the primary characteristic of lichen planus
in terms of the inflammatory infiltrate and its relationship with
basal keratinocytes?
A) A diffuse infiltrate of neutrophils
B) An absence of lymphocytes
C) A prototypic example of interface dermatitis with a dense,
continuous infiltrate of lymphocytes along the dermoepidermal
junction
D) A predominant eosinophilic infiltrate
C) A prototypic example of interface dermatitis
with a dense, continuous infiltrate of
lymphocytes along the dermoepidermal
junction
Explanation: Lichen planus is characterized
histologically by a dense, continuous infiltrate
of lymphocytes along the dermoepidermal
junction, which is a prototypic example of
interface dermatitis.

In which inflammatory myopathy do immune damage to small B) Dermatomyositis

blood vessels and perifascicular atrophy commonly occur?
A) Polymyositis Explanation: Dermatomyositis is characterized
by immune damage to small blood vessels
B) Dermatomyositis and perifascicular atrophy.
C) Inclusion body myositis
D) Muscular dystrophy

What histological feature is characteristic of a medullary B) Amyloid deposits.

carcinoma of the thyroid, a variant of thyroid cancer?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Amyloid deposits.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Presence of melanocytes.

What are the characteristic changes seen on gross examination B) Irregularly scarred kidneys with asymmetric
in chronic pyelonephritis? involvement
A) Diffuse, symmetric scarring
Explanation: Chronic pyelonephritis is
B) Irregularly scarred kidneys with asymmetric involvement characterized by irregularly scarred kidneys
C) Blunted or deformed calyces with asymmetric involvement, coarse
D) Dilated tubules with flattened epithelium corticomedullary scars, dilated, blunted, or
deformed calyces, and flattening of the
papillae.
In the histopathology of a pilocytic astrocytoma, a benign brain D) Presence of eosinophilic granular bodies.
tumor commonly seen in children, what histological feature is
often observed? Explanation: Pilocytic astrocytomas often
exhibit the presence of eosinophilic granular
A) High mitotic activity.
bodies when examined histologically.
B) Formation of rosettes.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Presence of eosinophilic granular bodies.

Which benign tumor of the skin is characterized by the presence C) Basal cell carcinoma.
of nests or islands of basaloid cells with peripheral palisading
when viewed under a microscope?
A) Dermatofibroma.
B) Seborrheic keratosis.
C) Basal cell carcinoma.
D) Fibrous papule.

Which gene is commonly mutated in hereditary non-polyposis D) MLH1.

colorectal cancer (HNPCC), also known as Lynch syndrome?
A) APC.
B) KRAS.
C) TP53.
D) MLH1.

Which of the following conditions is NOT commonly associated C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
with restrictive lung disease? (COPD)
A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
E. Occupational lung diseases

What is the significance of the Philadelphia chromosome in the A) It results from a translocation between
molecular pathogenesis of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)? chromosomes 9 and 22.
A) It results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and
22.
B) It activates tumor suppressor genes.
C) It leads to overexpression of MYC oncogene.
D) It promotes angiogenesis.

Which molecular alteration is frequently associated with chronic A) JAK2 V617F mutation.
phase polycythemia vera, a myeloproliferative neoplasm?
A) JAK2 V617F mutation. Explanation: Chronic phase polycythemia vera
B) FLT3 mutation. (PV) is often characterized by the JAK2 V617F
C) BCR-ABL fusion gene. mutation, which leads to constitutive activation
D) IDH1 mutation. of JAK-STAT signaling and abnormal red
blood cell production.

Which of the following lesions is NOT typically associated with C) Neurofibromas

Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2)?
A) Schwannosis
B) Meningioangiomatosis
C) Neurofibroma.
D) Glial hamartia

What is the most common type of tumor associated with C) Bilateral eighth-nerve schwannomas
Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2)?
A) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors
B) Gliomas of the optic nerve
C) Bilateral eighth-nerve schwannomas
D) Multiple meningiomas

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies (IgG B) Type II hypersensitivity.

or IgM) binding to antigens on cell surfaces and can lead to cell
lysis or phagocytosis by immune cells?
A) Type I hypersensitivity.
B) Type II hypersensitivity.
C) Type III hypersensitivity.
D) Type IV hypersensitivity.

What is another name for malignant mixed müllerian tumors C) Carcinosarcoma

(MMMTs)?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Endometrioid carcinoma
C) Carcinosarcoma
D) Serous carcinoma

What is the primary function of the VHL gene in the molecular C) Regulation of angiogenesis.
pathogenesis of clear cell renal cell carcinoma (ccRCC)?
A) Promotion of cell proliferation.
B) Inhibition of apoptosis.
C) Regulation of angiogenesis.
D) DNA repair.

In which locations do serous ovarian tumors commonly spread? B) Peritoneal surfaces and omentum
A) Bone and lung
B) Peritoneal surfaces and omentum Explanation: Serous ovarian tumors, both low-
C) Liver and kidney and high-grade, have a propensity to spread
D) Brain and spleen to the peritoneal surfaces and omentum. They
are commonly associated with the presence of
ascites.

In the histopathology of an osteochondroma, a benign bone B) Hyaline cartilage cap.

tumor, what is the characteristic histological feature often seen
in the lesion? Explanation: Osteochondromas often have a
A) Presence of spindle cell morphology. characteristic hyaline cartilage cap when
B) Hyaline cartilage cap. examined histologically.
C) Formation of rosettes.
D) Sheets of small, uniform cells.

Where are lichen planus lesions typically found on the body? C) Extremities, wrists, and elbows
A) Face and scalp
B) Chest and back Explanation: Lichen planus lesions are usually
C) Extremities, wrists, and elbows multiple and symmetrically distributed,
D) Abdomen and lower back particularly on the extremities and often about
the wrists and elbows.

What histological feature is typically seen in the stroma of a C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue.
fibroadenoma, a common benign breast tumor?
A) Squamous metaplasia. Explanation: Fibroadenomas of the breast
B) Cystic spaces filled with blood. typically show proliferation of fibrous tissue in
C) Proliferation of fibrous tissue. their stroma when examined histologically.
D) Microcalcifications.

Which of the following is a major genetic mutation commonly B) KRAS mutation

associated with endometrioid (type I) carcinoma?
A) TP53 mutation
B) KRAS mutation
C) BRCA1 mutation
D) APC mutation

Which autoimmune disease is characterized by the destruction C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas by the immune
system? Explanation: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an
A) Multiple sclerosis. autoimmune disease characterized by the
B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus. immune-mediated destruction of insulin-
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus. producing beta cells in the pancreas.
D) Lupus (systemic lupus erythematosus).

Which component of the immune system is primarily responsible C) Humoral immunity.

for the defense against extracellular pathogens, including
bacteria and parasites?
A) Cellular immunity.
B) Innate immunity.
C) Humoral immunity.
D) Adaptive immunity.

Myopathy can result from toxic injury or be the result of metabolic C) Lipid metabolism disorder
diseases. Which of the following is an example of a metabolic
myopathy? Explanation: Metabolic myopathies can result
A) Muscular dystrophy from disorders of lipid metabolism, glycogen
B) Polymyositis metabolism, and mitochondria, among others.
C) Lipid metabolism disorder
D) Inclusion body myositis

Which type of chondrosarcoma contains sheets of large, C) Clear cell chondrosarcoma

malignant chondrocytes with abundant clear
cytoplasm,numerous osteoclast-type giant cells, and Explanation: Clear cell chondrosarcoma
intralesional reactive bone formation? contains sheets of large, malignant
A) Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma chondrocytes with abundant clear cytoplasm,
B) Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma numerous osteoclast-type giant cells, and
C) Clear cell chondrosarcoma intralesional reactive bone formation.
D) Ewing sarcoma

What special histologic type of breast cancer often presents as
a well- circumscribed mass with minimal desmoplasia and
syncytium-like sheets of large cells with prominent nucleoli?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Secretory carcinoma
C) Spindle cell carcinoma
D) Low-grade adenosquamous carcinoma
A) Medullary carcinoma
Explanation: Medullary carcinoma is a special
histologic type of breast cancer that typically
presents as a well-circumscribed mass with
minimal desmoplasia. It features syncytium-
like sheets of large cells with prominent
nucleoli.

Which type of T lymphocyte (T cell) is responsible for
coordinating and regulating the immune response, including the
activation of other immune cells?
A) Helper T cells (Th cells).
B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs).
C) Memory T cells.
D) Natural killer (NK) cells.
A) Helper T cells (Th cells).
Explanation: Helper T cells (Th cells) play a
central role in coordinating and regulating the
immune response, including activating other
immune cells such as B cells and CTLs.

Which pediatric neoplasm is associated with an elevated serum D) Hepatoblastoma.

alpha- fetoprotein (AFP) level and is often found in the liver?
A) Neuroblastoma. Explanation: Hepatoblastoma is often found in
B) Rhabdomyosarcoma. the liver and is associated with elevated serum
C) Ewing sarcoma. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels.
D) Hepatoblastoma.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with B) PDGFRA mutation.

gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs)?
A) EGFR mutation.
B) PDGFRA mutation.
C) ALK translocation.
D) BRCA1 mutation.

Which type of endometrial carcinoma is often preceded by D) Endometrioid carcinoma (type I)

atypical hyperplasia and is usually low-grade and indolent?
A) Serous carcinoma (type II)
B) Malignant mixed müllerian tumor (MMMT)
C) Clear cell carcinoma
D) Endometrioid carcinoma (type I)
Explanation: Endometrioid (type I) carcinoma
is often preceded by atypical hyperplasia and
is typically low-grade and indolent.

What type of immune cells are responsible for causing B) CD8+ T cells
polymyositis, an adult-onset myopathy?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) B cells
D) Natural killer (NK) cells
How do conventional chondrosarcomas typically spread within B) Through the cortex into surrounding muscle
the bone? or fat
A) By forming cystic spaces within the tumor
B) Through the cortex into surrounding muscle or fat Explanation: Conventional chondrosarcomas
C) By infiltrating neighboring blood vessels typically spread through the cortex into
D) By invading the bone marrow surrounding muscle or fat.

What is the characteristic genetic alteration associated with D) Mutations in the RB1 gene.
retinoblastoma, a pediatric eye tumor?
A) Deletion of chromosome 11. Explanation: Retinoblastoma is associated
B) Overexpression of MYC. with mutations in the RB1 (retinoblastoma)
C) Mutations in the BRCA1 gene. gene, which is a critical tumor suppressor
D) Mutations in the RB1 gene. gene.

What is the characteristic appearance of the matrix in B) Gelatinous or myxoid

conventional chondrosarcomas?
A) Glistening gray-white and calcified
B) Gelatinous or myxoid
C) Oily and translucent
D) Hemorrhagic and cystic

A 35-year-old patient complains of hip pain. Biopsy reveals a C. Fibrous Dysplasia

well- defined, expansile lesion with abundant irregular
trabeculae of woven bone embedded in a fibrous stroma in the
diaphyseal region of the pelvis. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Giant cell tumor
B. Osteochondroma
C. Fibrous Dysplasia
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst

What term is used to describe a low-grade chondrosarcoma with B) Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma

a second, high-grade component that does not produce
cartilage?
A) Clear cell chondrosarcoma
B) Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
C) Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
D) Osteosarcoma

Which immune disorder is characterized by a deficiency of T B) Immunodeficiency.

cells, resulting in increased susceptibility to infections,
particularly opportunistic infections?
A) Hypersensitivity.
B) Immunodeficiency.
C) Autoimmunity.
D) Inflammation.

What is the histological feature often seen in the stroma of a C) Stromal overgrowth.
malignant phyllodes tumor of the breast,distinguishing it from a
benign phyllodes tumor?
A) Glandular structures.
B) Spindle cell morphology.
C) Stromal overgrowth.
D) Presence of goblet cells.

Which of the following is a major difference between Type 1 and B. Type 2 is usually less hormone-related
Type 2 endometrial carcinoma?
A. Type 1 often presents with serous carcinoma
B. Type 2 is usually less hormone-related
C. Type 1 has aggressive behavior
D. Type 2 is commonly linked to PTEN gene mutations

How is Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (SIL) graded based on Answer: C) and D)

the expansion of immature squamous cells in the epithelium?
A) LSIL if confined to the upper third of the epithelium
B) HSIL if confined to the lower third of the epithelium
C) LSIL if confined to the lower third of the epithelium
D) HSIL if confined to the upper two thirds of the epithelium
E) LSIL if confined to the basal layer of the epithelium

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with hairy C) BRAF V600E mutation.
cell leukemia (HCL)?
A) JAK2 V617F mutation.
B) BCR-ABL fusion gene.
C) BRAF V600E mutation.
D) TP53 mutation.

In the molecular pathogenesis of acute promyelocytic leukemia C) PML-RARA fusion gene.

(APL), what is the underlying genetic alteration?
A) FLT3 mutation. Acute myeloid leukemia with predominance of
abnormal promyelocytes, characterized by
B) BCR-ABL fusion gene. t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2) and leading
C) PML-RARA fusion gene. to PML::RARA fusion
D) EGFR mutation.

How do conventional chondrosarcomas typically spread within B) Through the cortex into surrounding muscle
the bone? or fat
A) By forming cystic spaces within the tumor
B) Through the cortex into surrounding muscle or fat
C) By infiltrating neighboring blood vessels
D) By invading the bone marrow

In the histopathology of a cholangiocarcinoma, a malignant C) Glandular differentiation.

tumor of the bile ducts, what histological feature is often
observed, indicating its origin from bile duct epithelium?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Squamous differentiation.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Presence of hepatocytes

In the histopathology of a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid), what is the B) Presence of hyaline degeneration.
characteristic histological feature often seen in the tumor?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Presence of hyaline degeneration.
C) Formation of rosettes.
D) High mitotic activity.

Which pediatric neoplasm is often associated with Beckwith- C) Wilms tumor.

Wiedemann syndrome and is characterized by embryonal cells
with a "small blue cell" appearance?
A) Osteosarcoma.
B) Neuroblastoma.
C) Wilms tumor.
D) Hepatoblastoma.

Which breast cancer subtype is characterized by extensive B) Inflammatory carcinoma

invasion and proliferation within lymphatic channels,causing
Explanation: Inflammatory carcinoma is
swelling that mimics non-neoplastic inflammatory lesions?
characterized by extensive invasion and
A) Medullary carcinoma proliferation within lymphatic channels,
B) Inflammatory carcinoma leading to swelling that mimics non-neoplastic
C) Apocrine carcinoma inflammatory lesions. It is typically of high
D) Micropapillary carcinoma grade.
Which subtypes of non-Hodgkin lymphoma are derived from B B. Mantle cell lymphoma and Burkitt
cells? lymphoma
A. Follicular lymphoma and Aggressive NK cell leukemia
B. Mantle cell lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma
C. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Sezary syndrome and Mycosis fungoides

What is the molecular mechanism by which trastuzumab B) Induction of apoptosis.

(Herceptin) functions in the treatment of HER2-positive breast
cancer?
A) Inhibition of DNA replication.
B) Induction of apoptosis.
C) Activation of angiogenesis.
D) Inhibition of cell cycle progression.

What is the role of the TP53 gene in the molecular pathogenesis B) Promotion of apoptosis.
of cancer?
A) Activation of cell cycle checkpoints.
B) Promotion of apoptosis.
C) DNA repair.
D) Inhibition of angiogenesis.

What is the most common solid tumor of childhood, often C) Medulloblastoma.

originating in the cerebellum and hindbrain and frequently
Explanation: Medulloblastoma is the most
associated with mutations in the PTCH1 gene?
common solid tumor of childhood, frequently
A) Wilms tumor. originating in the cerebellum and hindbrain.
B) Neuroblastoma. Mutations in the PTCH1 gene are associated
C) Medulloblastoma. with some cases.
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma.

In the histopathology of a follicular thyroid carcinoma, what D) Presence of vascular invasion.

histological feature is often observed, distinguishing it from a
follicular adenoma?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Presence of thyroid follicles.
C) Pseudocapsule.
D) Presence of vascular invasion.

What is the role of the RET gene mutation in the molecular
pathogenesis of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)?
A) Activation of Wnt signaling.
B) Overexpression of HER2.
C) Promotion of angiogenesis.
D) Activation of tyrosine kinase signaling.
D) Activation of tyrosine kinase signaling.
Explanation: RET gene mutations lead to the
activation of tyrosine kinase signaling in
medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), driving
cancer cell growth and serving as a target for
therapy.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with C) BRAF mutation.

melanoma?
A) KRAS mutation.
B) RET translocation.
C) BRAF mutation.
D) PD-L1 overexpression.

Which type of diabetes is associated with monogenic forms C) Monogenic diabetes

caused by single-gene defects?
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Monogenic diabetes
D) Gestational diabetes

What is the role of the EML4-ALK fusion gene in the molecular D) Activation of tyrosine kinase signaling.
pathogenesis of some non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC)?
A) Activation of angiogenesis.
B) Suppression of cell proliferation.
C) Promotion of DNA repair.
D) Activation of tyrosine kinase signaling.

Which breast lesion can closely mimic invasive carcinoma due A) Complex sclerosing lesion
to its histologic pattern?
A) Complex sclerosing lesion
B) Papilloma
C) Sclerosing adenosis
D) Epithelial hyperplasia

Which type of lung cancer is typically the most aggressive and A. Small cell lung cancer
tends to spread quickly to other parts of the body?
A. Small cell lung cancer
B. Large cell lung cancer
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

In the histopathology of a choristoma, a benign tumor-like growth C) Lack of cellular proliferation.

of normal tissue in an abnormal location, what is the key feature
that distinguishes it from a true neoplasm?
A) Presence of psammoma bodies.
B) Sheets of small, uniform cells.
C) Lack of cellular proliferation.
D) Formation of rosettes.
Explanation: Choristomas are characterized
by the lack of cellular proliferation, which
distinguishes them from true neoplasms when
examined histologically.

In which type of glaucoma does the peripheral zone of the iris C) Angle-closure glaucoma
physically impede the egress of aqueous humor from the eye?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Normal-tension glaucoma
C) Angle-closure glaucoma
D) Secondary glaucoma

What is the fundamental immune abnormality in type 1 diabetes? C) Failure of self-tolerance in T cells
A) Failure of insulin receptor signaling
B) Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C) Failure of self-tolerance in T cells
D) Elevated levels of adipocytokines

What term is used to describe opacities of the lens that may be B) Cataract
either congenital or acquired?
A) Glaucoma Explanation: Cataract is the term used to
B) Cataract describe opacities of the eye's lens, which can
C) Endophthalmitis occur either congenitally (present at birth) or
D) Panophthalmitis be acquired later in life due to various factors,
such as aging, trauma, or medical conditions.

Which histologic type of breast cancer is characterized by A) Lobular carcinoma

infiltrating tumor cells with signet-ring cells containing
intracytoplasmic mucin droplets?
A) Lobular carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Tubular carcinoma
D) Papillary carcinoma

What is the histological grade assigned to chondrosarcomas C) Grade 3

with high cellularity, extreme pleomorphism, bizarre tumor giant
cells, and frequent mitoses?
A) Grade 1
B) Grade 2
C) Grade 3
D) Grade 4

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor is example of which type of ovarian B. Sex cord-stromal tumors
tumors?
A. Germ cell tumors
B. Sex cord-stromal tumors
C. Epithelial tumors
D. Stromal tumors

What term is used for anucleate, necrotic basal cells that may A) Civatte bodies
become incorporated into the inflamed papillary dermis in lichen
planus? Explanation: Anucleate, necrotic basal cells in
A) Civatte bodies lichen planus may become incorporated into
B) Wickham striae the inflamed papillary dermis, where they are
C) Colloid bodies referred to as Civatte bodies.
D) Bullous bodies

What is the histological hallmark of a Warthin tumor, a benign B) Formation of lymphoid follicles.
salivary gland tumor?
A) Presence of psammoma bodies.
B) Formation of lymphoid follicles.
C) Sheets of small, uniform cells with abundant cytoplasm.
D) Mucin-filled cystic spaces.

What is the term used to describe a small intraosseous abscess C) Brodie abscess
that frequently involves the cortex and is walled off by reactive
bone? Explanation: Brodie abscess is a small
A) Involucrum intraosseous abscess that frequently involves
B) Sequestrum the cortex and is walled off by reactive bone.
C) Brodie abscess
D) Garré abscess

In the histopathology of a Burkitt lymphoma, a malignant B) "Starry sky" appearance due to

lymphoma often associated with Epstein-Barr virus, what is the macrophages.
characteristic histological feature often observed?
A) Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. Explanation: Burkitt lymphoma often presents
B) "Starry sky" appearance due to macrophages. a "starry sky" appearance due to the presence
C) Granulomatous inflammation. of macrophages when examined
D) Rosette formation. histologically.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with A) KIT mutation.

gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs)?
A) KIT mutation. Explanation: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
B) RET translocation. (GISTs) are often associated with mutations in
C) HER2 amplification. the KIT gene, which plays a role in cell
D) EML4-ALK fusion gene. signaling and can drive GIST development.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with A) RET mutation.

medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)?
A) RET mutation.
B) KRAS mutation.
C) EGFR mutation.
D) BRCA2 mutation.

Which type of vasculitis is often associated with D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

antineutrophilcytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)? (Wegener's)
A. Takayasu arteritis
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's)

In the histopathology of a medulloblastoma, a malignant brain B) Rosette formation.

tumor, what histological feature is often seen, indicating
neuroepithelial differentiation?
A) Papillary pattern.
B) Rosette formation.
C) Glandular differentiation.
D) Presence of keratin pearls.

What is a common symptom associated with large duct C) Bloody nipple discharge
papillomas in the breast?
A) Serous nipple discharge
B) Palpable masses
C) Bloody nipple discharge
D) Microcalcifications on mammograms

Which thyroid neoplasm is derived from the parafollicular C C. Medullary carcinoma

cells?
A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Follicular carcinoma
C. Medullary carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with Burkitt A) MYC translocation.

lymphoma?
A) MYC translocation. Explanation: Burkitt lymphoma is often
B) ALK fusion. characterized by translocations involving the
C) RET mutation. MYC gene, leading to its dysregulated
D) FLT3-ITD mutation. expression and driving rapid cell growth.

Which of the following statements about granulosa cell tumors of B) Juvenile granulosa cell tumors typically
the ovary is true? produce estrogen.
A) They primarily occur in premenopausal women.
B) Juvenile granulosa cell tumors typically produce estrogen.
C) Elevated inhibin levels are not associated with these tumors.
D) Malignancy is common, with a high likelihood of metastasis.

What type of muscle disorder results from mutations disrupting D) Muscular dystrophy
proteins important for muscle development, function, and
regeneration? Explanation: Muscular dystrophies result from
A) Neurogenic myopathy mutations that disrupt proteins important for
B) Inflammatory myopathy various aspects of muscle development,
C) Metabolic myopathy function, and regeneration.
D) Muscular dystrophy

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with HER2- C) ERBB2 (HER2) amplification.
positive breast cancer?
A) PTEN mutation. Explanation: HER2-positive breast cancer is
B) EML4-ALK fusion. characterized by amplification of the ERBB2
C) ERBB2 amplification. (HER2) gene, leading to overexpression of the
D) FLT3 mutation. HER2 receptor, which promotes cell growth
and is a target for therapy.

Which of the following neoplasm is not glial? D. Medulloblastoma

A. Ependymoma
B. Glioblastoma
C. Oligodendroglioma
D. Medulloblastoma
E. Astrocytoma

What can hyperparathyroidism lead to in terms of bone A) Osteoporosis, brown tumors, and osteitis
abnormalities? fibrosa cystica
A) Osteoporosis, brown tumors, and osteitis fibrosa cystica
B) Osteopenia, Paget disease, and osteomalacia
C) Rickets, osteosarcoma, and bone fractures
D) Sclerosing osteomyelitis, osteosclerosis, and
osteochondroma

What histological feature is often seen in the stroma of a Production of cartilaginous matrix.
chondrosarcoma, a malignant tumor arising from cartilage?
A) Presence of signet ring cells. Explanation: Chondrosarcomas often exhibit
B) Spindle cell morphology. the production of cartilaginous matrix in their
C) Glandular differentiation. stroma when examined histologically.
D) Production of cartilaginous matrix.

What is the term for the histologic alteration in the interlobular C) Hyperplastic arteriolitis
arteries and arterioles characterized by intimal thickening,
concentric arrangement of smooth muscle cells, and onion- Explanation: The histologic alteration in the
skinning appearance? interlobular arteries and arterioles
A) Flea-bitten appearance characterized by intimal thickening, concentric
B) Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles arrangement of smooth muscle cells, and
C) Hyperplastic arteriolitis onion-skinning appearance is known as
D) Glomerulosclerosis hyperplastic arteriolitis.

What are the two main causes of endophthalmitis, and how do
they differ in their origins?
A) Endogenous and exogenous; one originates from
within the body, while the other results from external
factors.
B) Primary and secondary; one occurs first, followed by the
other.
C) Congenital and acquired; one is present at birth, while the
other develops later in life.
D) Sepsis and uvea; one affects systemic health, while the other
affects ocular tissues.
A) Endogenous and exogenous; one
originates from within the body, while the other
results from external factors.
Explanation: Endophthalmitis has two main
causes—endogenous (originating from within
the body) and exogenous (resulting from
external factors such as infections, injuries, or
surgical procedures).

Which class of MHC (major histocompatibility complex) A) MHC class I.

molecules is primarily involved in presenting antigens to CD8+ T
cells and is found on the surface of most nucleated cells? Explanation: MHC class I molecules are
A) MHC class I. involved in presenting antigens to CD8+ T
B) MHC class II. cells and are found on the surface of most
C) MHC class III. nucleated cells.
D) MHC class IV.

What is the primary function of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes in C) Repair of DNA double-strand breaks.
the context of cancer?
A) Suppression of angiogenesis.
B) Regulation of cell cycle checkpoints.
C) Repair of DNA double-strand breaks.
D) Promotion of apoptosis.

What is a distinguishing feature of mesenchymal B) Sheets of small round cells

chondrosarcoma?
A) Islands of well-differentiated hyaline cartilage
B) Sheets of small round cells
C) Presence of osteoclast-type giant cells
D) Formation of cystic spaces

What is the defining characteristic of koilocytic atypia in C) Presence of perinuclear vacuoles

Squamous Intraepithelial Lesions (SIL)?
A) Nuclear enlargement
B) Hyperchromasia
C) Presence of perinuclear vacuoles
D) Variation in nuclear size and shape
E) Increased cytoplasmic granularity

What is the primary role of the APC gene in colorectal cancer? D) Inhibition of Wnt signaling.
A) Promotion of cell proliferation.
B) Suppression of angiogenesis.
C) Regulation of DNA repair.
D) Inhibition of Wnt signaling.

Which histological feature is often seen in the stroma of a C) Presence of hair follicles.
teratoma, a germ cell tumor composed of diverse tissue types?
A) Psammoma bodies.
B) Squamous differentiation.
C) Presence of hair follicles.
D) Rosette formation.

What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of a renal D) Large cells with granular eosinophilic
oncocytoma, a benign kidney tumor, when viewed under a cytoplasm and round nuclei.
microscope?
A) Papillary architecture.
B) Presence of clear cells with a distinct cell membrane.
C) Sheets of small, uniform cells with abundant cytoplasm.
D) Large cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm and round
nuclei.

Which molecular alteration is commonly associated with non- A) EGFR mutation.

small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)?
A) EGFR mutation.
B) MYC amplification.
C) BCL2 translocation.
D) BRAF mutation.

Which benign tumor of the adrenal medulla is characterized by B) Pheochromocytoma

the presence of cells arranged in a nesting or "zellballen" pattern Explanation: Paranganglioma is extra-
when examined histologically? adrenal. Zellballen pattern is seen in both.
A) Adrenocortical adenoma
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Ganglioneuroma
D) Paraganglioma