MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

I PUC Physics

Harish Shastry -9480198001

1. Units and Measurements

1. Unit not used in FPS system is

(A) Foot (B) kilogram (C) second (D) pound

2. Unit used in CGS system is

(A) metre (B) gram (C) second (D) pound

3. SI unit of luminous intensity is

(A) candela (B) lux (C) watt (D) joule

4. SI unit of electric current is

(A) coulomb (B) volt (C) ampere (D) ohm

5. Which method can be used to measure distance between planets?

(A) decay of elementary particles B) parallax method
(C) gravitational method D) mass spectrograph

6. The SI unit for plane angle is

(A) degree (B) radian (C) steradian (D) radian-1

7. The prefix for 1012 is

(A) pico (B) terra (C) nano (D) giga

8. SI unit of solid angle is

(A) radian (B) degree (C) ohm (D) steradian

9. One light year is equal to

(A) 365 days (B) 9.46x1015m (C) 3x108m (D) 1 day

10. Which one of the following is not a unit of length?

(A) parsec (B) fermi (C) light year (D) newton

11. The number of significant figures in 0.001020 m is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7

12. Dimensional formula for force is

(A) [MLT-1] (B) [MLT-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

13. Dimensional formula for momentum is

(A) [MLT-1] (B) [MLT-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

14. Dimensional formula for pressure is

(A) [MLT-1] (B) [MLT-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]
15. Dimensional formula for energy is
(A) [MLT-1] (B) [MLT-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

16. Dimensional formula for acceleration is

(A) [MoLT-1] (B) [MoLT-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

𝑳
17. If L is length and g is acceleration due to gravity, then the dimension of √𝒈 is
(A) [MoLoT-1] (B) [MoLoT] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

18. In the equation x = vot + ½ at2, dimension of at2 is

(A) [MoLTo] (B) [MoLoT] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]

19. Dimensional formula for 2ax is (symbols have usual meaning)

(A) [MoLT-1] (B) [MoL2T-2] (C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-2]
 2. Motion in a straight line

1. The position-time graph for a particle at rest will be a

(A) Straight line parallel to time axis
(B) straight line perpendicular to time axis
(C) exponential curve
(D) straight line at 45o to time axis

2. v-t graph of a particle is straight line parallel to time axis. Now,

(A) the particle is accelerating (B) particle is decelerating
(C) velocity of the particle is zero (D) particle is moving with uniform velocity

3. Area under v-t graph gives,

(A) velocity (B) acceleration
(C) displacement (D) time

4. Slope of v-t graph gives,

(A) velocity (B) acceleration
(C) displacement (D) time

5. Slope of position-time graph gives,

(A) velocity (B) acceleration
(C) displacement (D) time

6. Stopping distance is
(A) directly proportional to the initial velocity of vehicle.
(B) directly proportional to the square of initial velocity of vehicle.
(C) inversely proportional to the square of initial velocity of vehicle.
(D) inversely directly proportional to the initial velocity of vehicle.

7. The acceleration of a particle moving with uniform velocity 10 ms-1 for 2 s is

(A) 10 ms-2 (B) 5 ms-2 (C) 0 (D) 20 ms-2

8. Relation between initial velocity (𝑣o), final velocity (𝑣), acceleration (𝑎) and time (𝑡)
is
(A) 𝑎𝑡 = 𝑣 − 𝑣0 (B) 𝑣0 = 𝑣𝑡 + 𝑎
(C) 𝑎 = (𝑣 − 𝑣0)𝑡 (D) 𝑣0 = 𝑣 + 𝑎𝑡

9. v-t graph of a body is a straight line parallel to time axis. The particle has
(A) uniform velocity (B) uniform acceleration
(C) non uniform velocity (D) non unform acceleration
10. Correct expression for instantaneous velocity is
Lim dx Δx Lim dx Δx
(A) = (B) =
Δt → 0 dt Δt Δt →  dt Δt
Lim Δx dx Lim Δx dx
(C) = (D) =
Δt →  Δt dt Δt → 0 Δt dt

11. A body moves with uniform acceleration. Distances travelled by it in the 1st , 2nd and
3rd second are in the ratio
(A) 1:2:4 (B) 1:2:3 (C) 1:3:5 (D) 1:1:1

12. A particle is said to be moving with uniform velocity if its

(A) only speed changes
(B) only direction changes
(C) both speed and direction change
(D) both speed and direction of motion remain the same

13. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. At the highest point

(A) instantaneous velocity is zero and acceleration is zero.
(B) instantaneous velocity is not zero and acceleration is zero.
(C) instantaneous velocity is zero and acceleration is not zero
(D) instantaneous velocity is not zero and acceleration is not zero

14. Time taken by a person to observe, think and react is called

(A) relaxation time. (B) time of flight
(C) reaction time (D) time constant

15. A particle is thrown vertically upwards from the surface of the earth. Its
acceleration (A) is zero at the top. (B) changes its direction at the top
(C) remains the same throughout (D) changes its value at every point.
 3. Motion in a plane

Scalars and Vectors

1. Select the scalar quantity among the following
(A) momentum (B) acceleration
(C) work (D) displacement

2. Select the vector quantity among the following

(A) speed (B) mass
(C) work (D) displacement

3. Two vectors are said to be equal

(A) if they are having same magnitude and acting in the direction
(B) if they are having different magnitude and acting in same direction
(C) if they are having different magnitude and acting in different direction
(D) if they are having same magnitude and acting in different direction.

4. A bus after its journey returns back to the same point. Its displacement is a
(A) unit vector (B) negative vector
(C) null vector (D) parallel vector

5. Magnitude of unit vector is

(A) zero (B) unity
(C) infinity (D) always greater than one

6. If two vectors can be represented in magnitude and direction by the two adjacent
sides of a triangle taken in order, then the resultant is given by
(A) area of the triangle
(B) third side of the triangle in opposite order
(C) median of the triangle in opposite order
(D) first side of the tringle in the same order

7. If two vectors can be represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides of a
parallelogram, then the resultant is given by
(A) area of the parallelogram
(B) opposite side of the parallelogram
(C) diagonal of the parallelogram passing through the same point.
(D) none of these

8. Magnitude of null vector is

(A) zero (B) unity
(C) infinity (D) always greater than one

9. Which one of the following methods will enable us to multiply two vectors?
(A) Triangle law (B) parallelogram law
(C) polygon law (D) scalar product
10. Scalar product of two vectors is always a
(A) scalar (B) vector
(C) dimensionless quantity (D) quantity without units

11. Vector product of two vectors is always a

(A) scalar (B) vector
(C) dimensionless quantity (D) quantity without units

12. Scalar product between two vectors is zero. This implies that
(A) angle between the vectors is zero
(B) angle between the vectors is 1800.
(C) angle between the vectors is 90o
(D) angle between the vectors is 45o

13. Vector product between two vectors is zero. This implies that
(A) Vectors are parallel to each other
(B) angle between the vectors is 800.
(C) angle between the vectors is 90o
(D) angle between the vectors is 45o

14. ⃗A and ⃗B are two vectors aligned at an angle . Magnitude of resultant of ⃗A and ⃗B is
maximum when
(A) =90 o (B) =180 o (C) =60o (D) =0

15. A ⃗ are two vectors aligned at an angle . Select the correct relation
⃗ and B
(A) A.B = AB cos θ (B) A.B = AB sin θ
(C) A.B = AXB sin θ (C) A.B = AXB cosθ

16. A ⃗ are two vectors aligned at an angle . Select the correct statement
⃗ and B
(A) A.B is a vector (B) A.B is a scalar
(C) AXB is a scalar (C) none of these are correct

17. Direction of cross product of two vectors is

(A) parallel to the largest vector
(B) perpendicular to the largest vector
(C) perpendicular to the plane containing two vectors
(D) parallel to the plane containing two vectors

18. If resultant of two vectors 𝑃 and 𝑄 is |𝑃 -𝑄 | then angle between 𝑃 and 𝑄 is

(A) 0° (B) 45° (C) 90° (D) 180°

19. A vehicle starts from a point, moves to another place and finally returns back to the
same point. Its displacement is a
(B) unit vector (B) scalar
(C) null vector (D) 180°
20. Which law among the following may be used to add two vectors?
(C) Triangle law (B) parallelogram law
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

21. ⃗A is a vector making an angle  with x axis. Its x component is

(A) (A cos θ)iˆ (B) (A cos θ)iˆ (C) (Asin θ)iˆ (D)
(Asin θ)iˆ

22. Resultant of two vectors is maximum when

(A) the vectors are acting in the same direction
(B) the vectors are acting in the opposite direction
(C) the vectors are perpendicular to each other.
(D) The vectors are acting at 45o.

Projectile motion

23. Trajectory of a projectile thrown from the surface of earth at an angle to the
horizontal is
(A) parabola (B) straight line
(C) ellipse (D) circle

24. For a given angle of projection, as the velocity of projection increases

(A) Horizontal range increases (B) Maximum height decreases
(C) time of flight decreases (D) vertical component of velocity decreases

25. Maximum range of a projectile is

(A) directly proportional to angle of projection
(B) inversely proportional to angle of projection
(C) directly proportional to velocity of projection
(D) directly proportional to square velocity of projection.

26. Time of flight of a projectile at a particular angle of projection is

(A) directly proportional to square of velocity of projection
(B) inversely proportional to square of velocity of projection
(C) directly proportional to velocity of projection
(D) inversely proportional to velocity of projection.

27. Range for vertically projected particle is

(A) infinity (B) equal to maximum height
(C) zero (D) greater than the maximum height

28. For a particular velocity of projection at a place, range of a projectile is maximum

when
(A) angle of projection is 90o. (B) angle of projection is 180o.
(C) angle of projection is 45o. (D) angle of projection is 60o.
29. Centripetal acceleration is
(A) directed towards the centre (B) directed away from the centre
(C) directed tangential to the circular path (D) directed at 45o to radial vector

30. Centripetal acceleration of a particle moving along circular path is

(A) directly proportional to the tangential speed
(B) inversely proportional to the tangential speed
(C) directly proportional to square of the tangential speed
(D) inversely proportional to square of the tangential speed

31. The expression for centripetal acceleration is

(A) 𝑎𝑐= 𝜔2𝑟 (B) 𝑎𝑐= 𝜔2𝑟2 (C) 𝑎𝑐= 𝜔2/𝑟 (D) 𝑎𝑐= 𝜔/𝑟2

32. Expression for centripetal acceleration of a particle moving with uniform speed 𝑣
and in a circular path of radius 𝑟 is
(A) a=v2r B) a=v2r2 C) a=v/r2 D) a=v2/r
 4. Laws of motion

1. When a cricketer catches a ball, he lowers his hands along the direction of motion
of the ball as he catches it. This is
(A) to change the momentum slowly and hence to reduce impact on hands
(B) increase the rate of change of momentum and increase the impact of force
(C) to change the momentum quickly to zero and decrease the impact of force.
(D) to reduce the time and get result quickly.

2. Aristotle’s fallacy is
(A) external force is not required to keep the body in uniform motion.
(B) external force is required to keep the body in uniform motion.
(C) Body resists to change its state.
(D) Inertia of a body depends on its mass.

3. Aristotle’s fallacy was corrected by

(A) Newton (B) Galileo Galilee
(C) Copernicus (D) Kepler

4. A person inside a bus at rest falls back when the bust suddenly starts moving
forward. This is due to
(A) inertia at rest (B) inertia in motion
(C) kinetic energy of particle increase (D) kinetic energy of particle decreases

5. When a mat is moved and hit on a wall, dust particle spread out of mat. This is an
example for
(A) inertia at rest (B) inertia in motion
(C) kinetic energy of particle increase (D) kinetic energy of particle decreases

6. When a stationary bus suddenly starts, a passenger on it falls in the backward

direction.This is due to
(A) inertia of rest (B) inertia of motion
(C) inertia of direction (D) the bus pushes him in the forward direction

1. Momentum of a body is
(A) directly proportional mass of the body
(B) inversely proportional to the velocity of the body
(C) independent of mass of the body
(D) independent of velocity of the body

2. One kg weight is equal to

(A) one newton (B) one dyne
(C) 9.8 newton (D) 19.6 newton

3. One newton is equal to

(A) one kg ms-2 (B) one kg m s-1
(C) one dyne (D) one kg weight
4. Impulse is equal to
(A) rate of change of momentum (B) rate of work done
(C) work done (D) change in momentum
5. Momentum has the same dimension as
(A) Impulse (B) force
(C) acceleration (D) velocity

6. Action and reaction are

(A) Equal and opposite (B) Act on same body
(C) Act on different bodies (D) A and C are correct

7. Minimum number of equal forces needed to keep a body in equilibrium are

(A) three (B) four
(C) five (D) two

8. Minimum number of unequal forces needed to keep a body in equilibrium are

(A) three (B) four (C) five (D) two

9. The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting particles is conserved. This

statement is
(A) law of conservation of angular momentum
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(D) Law of conservation of charge

10. The inertia of a body depends on its

(A) displacement (B) velocity (C) force (D) mass

11. If external force on a body is zero, then its

(A) displacement is always zero (B) velocity is always zero
(C) acceleration is zero (D) momentum is always zero

12. Strongest force in nature is

(A) weak nuclear force (B) strong nuclear force
(C) gravitational force (D) electromagnetic force

13. Frictional force is

(A) directly proportional to normal reaction
(B) inversely proportional to normal reaction
(C) independent of normal reaction
(D) directly proportional to square of normal reaction.
14. For a vehicle moving in circular track road, centripetal force is given by
(A) Nuclear force (B) gravitational force
(C) frictional force (D) electromagnetic force
15. Which among the following methods will increase friction?
(A) using ball bearings
(B) using lubricants
(C) tread patterns and oblique incisions are made in rubber tyres
(D) making the surface smooth

16. The maximum speed with which a vehicle can take a turn in a circular banked road
does not depend on
(A) radius of the circular road
(B) coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road
(C) mass of the vehicle
(D) angle of banking .

17. Select the wrong statement. Frictional force

(A) is a non-contact force
(B) is a conservative force
(C) opposes the relative motion between two surfaces
(D) exists tangential to the surfaces in contact

18. Ratio of maximum limiting frictional force to normal reaction is called

(A) contact force (B) coefficient of friction
(C) angle of friction (D) normal reaction

19. A car is moving in a banked road. Which of the following force is not involved here?
(A) weight of the car acting vertically downwards
(B) Normal reaction acting vertically upwards
(C) Frictional force keeping the car in circular path
(D) Frictional force acting vertically upwards.
 5. Work power and energy
1. Work is a
(A) scalar quantity (B) vector quantity
(C) Fundamental quantity (D) none of these

2. No work is done by the force when the angle of between force and displacement is
(A) 0° (B) 180° (C) 90° (D) 30°

3. The commercial unit of electrical energy equal to

(A) kilowatt (B) horse power (C) kilowatt hour (D) joule

4. Dimensional formula for which of the following pair of physical quantities are
same?
(A) Work & power (B) Angular momentum & kinetic energy
(C) Torque & work (D) angular momentum & force.

5. When a body is thrown vertically upwards, work done by gravity is

(A) positive (B) zero (C) negative (D) can’t predict

6. One horse power is equal to

(A) one watt (B) 1000 watts
(C) 746 watts (D) 746 joules

7. Among the following the one which is not the unit of energy is
(A) erg (B) electron volt
(C) kilowatt hour (D) dyne

8. One kilowatt hour is equal to

(A) 746 joules (B) 1000 joules
(C) 3.6x106 joules (D) 4.18 joules

9. Work done by a force is zero if

(A) force and displacements are perpendicular
(B) force and displacement are parallel
(C) force and displacements are antiparallel
(D) force and displacements are inclined at 60o

10. Area under force -displacement graph gives

(A) Power delivered (B) work done by the force
(B) Acceleration (D) velocity

11. Chandrayan-3 orbiter satellite is revolving round the earth. Work done by the
gravitational force in keeping the satellite in circular path
(A) depends on mass of the satellite (B) depends on radius of curved path
(C) zero (D) mass of the earth
12. Work done is equal to
(A) Magnitude of displacement (B) change in kinetic energy of the body
(C) maximum kinetic energy of a body (D) force acting on the body
13. Spring force
(A) is directly proportional to the extension or compression
(B) depends on spring constant
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of these

14. If the work done by a force depends only on initial and final position and does not
depend on the path, then it is called
(A) Conservative force (B) non conservative force
(C) Variable force (D) Contact force
15. Gravitational force is a
(A) conservative force (B) contact force
(C) non conservative force (D) none of these

16. Frictional force is a

(A) conservative force (B) contact force
(C) both A and B (D) none of these

17. A body is released from certain height from the ground. Initially its energy is
(A) potential (B) kinetic (C) non-conservative (D) all of these

18. A body is released from certain height from the ground. Just before reaching the
ground its energy is
(A) potential (B) kinetic (C) non-conservative (D) all of these

19. Restoring force developed by a spring per unit elongation is called

(A) Spring force (B) spring constant
(C) Work constant (D) frequency
20. SI unit of spring constant is
(A) Nm (B) Nm-1. (C) mN-1. (D) Nm-2

21. Dimension of spring constant is

(A) [MLT-2] (B) [MLoT-2] (C) [ML2T-2] (D) [ML-1T-2]

22. For a loaded oscillating spring,

(A) potential energy is maximum (B) kinetic energy is maximum
(C) total energy is constant (D) total energy varies with position

23. Mechanical energy possessed by a body due to its position is

(A) Kinetic energy (B) Heat energy
(C) potential energy (D) Chemical energy
24. Mechanical energy possessed by a body due to its motion is
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Heat energy
(C) potential energy (D) Chemical energy
25. Energy obtained from a mass m according to mass energy relation is
(A) E=m2c (B) E=m/c2 (C) E=m+c2 (D) E=mc2

26. Rate of doing work is called

(A) power (B) Energy (C) Work (D) Force

27. Dimension of power is

(A)[MLT-2] (B) [MLoT-2] (C) [ML2T-3] (D) [ML-1T-2]
28. SI unit of power is
(A) joule (B) watt (C) kilowatt hour (D) newton

29. Collision in which both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved is called
(A) elastic collision (B) inelastic collision
(C) head on collision (D) none of these

30. During inelastic collision

(A) only kinetic energy is conserved
(B) only momentum is conserved
(C) momentum is not conserved
(D) both momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved.
 6. Rotational Motion

1. An example for precession is

(A) ceiling fan (B) Motor of a pump
(C) potter’s wheel (D) spinning top

2. An ideal rigid body is the body

(A) without a perfect shape (C) with a Perfectly definite and unchanged shape
(C) Both (a) & (b) (D) none of these.

3. When a rigid body is in liner motion, the particles in it

(A) Describe circular path (A) describe elliptical path
(C) describe straight line path (D) any of the above.

4. When a rigid body is in rotational motion, the particles in it

(B) Describe circular path (A) describe elliptical path
(C) describe straight line path (D) any of the above.

5. In pure translational motion at any instant of time, all particles of a rigid body
have
(A) Different velocity (B) changing velocity
(C) Same velocity (D) None

6. The fixed line of particles in a rigid body about which remaining particles describe
circular path is called
(A) Principal Axis (B) Axis of rotation
(C) Minor axis (D) None of the above

7. The point at which whole mass of a rigid body is supposed to be concentrated is

called
(A) center of gravity (B) center of mass (C) both (a) & (b) (D) none

8. In the rotational motion of a rigid body, linear velocities of different particles situated at
different distance from the axis are
(A) different (B) zero (C) cannot say (D) same

9. If the resultant of all external forces is zero, then velocity of centre of mass of a
rigid body is
(A) zero (B) constant (C) neither (a) nor (b) (D) either (a) or (b)

10. Angular velocity of each particle of a rotating rigid body about an axis of rotation
is
(A) same (B) different
(C) depends on relative position (D) none
11. For the two particles situated at different distances from the axis of rotation of a
rotating rigid body, at an instant,
(A) Angular velocities are different and linear velocities are same
(B) Both Angular and linear velocities are different
(C) Angular velocities are same and linear velocities are different
(B) Both Angular and linear velocities are same

12. A couple produces

(A) rotational motion (B) linear motion
(C) both (A) & (B) (D) none of these

d
13. If = 0 , then ( is angular momentum)
dt
(A) Angular momentum increases with time
(B) angular momentum constant
(C) the body is experiencing varying torque
(D) the body is experiencing varying force

14. A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium if its ___________ is/are not
changing with time
(A) linear momentum (B) angular momentum
(C) linear momentum and angular momentum (D) moment of inertia

15. The rotational kinetic energy of a rigid body is given by the equation
1 1 1
(A) mv 2 (B) Iω2 (C) Iω (D) I
2 2 2

16. Angular momentum is a

(A) scalar quantity (B) vector quantity (C) both (a) & (b) (D) none of these

17. Direction of angular momentum of a rigid body is

(A) tangential to the circuilar path
(B) along the axis
(C) Normal to the axis and towards the centre
(D) Normal to the axis and away from the centre

18. Direction of torque acting on a rotating rigid body is

(A) tangential to the circuilar path
(B) along the axis
(C) Normal to the axis and towards the centre
(D) Normal to the axis and away from the centre

19. Angular momentum of a rigid body of mass m, moment of inertia I, rotating with
angular velocity  is given by
(A) L=I (B) L=mv (C) L=I2 (D) None of these
20. Moment of inertia of a solid sphere about the diameter (D = 2R) is given by
2 2
(A) MR2 (B) MR 2 (C) MR (D) none of these
5 5
21. SI unit of moment of inertia _____
(A) gram-cm2 (B) kg m2 (C) kg/m2 (D) kg/m

22. The rotational analogue of force

(A) moment of inertia (B) angular momentum
(C) torque (D) angular acceleration

23. When the external torque acting on a rotating rigid body is zero, the quantity that
will remain constant is
(A) moment of inertia (B) angular momentum
(C) both A and B (D) none of the above

24. During a summer sault, a swimmer bends and folds his body to
(A) increase moment of inertia and decrease angular velocity
(B) decrease moment of inertia and increase angular velocity
(C) decrease both angular velocity and moment of inertia
(D) increase both angular velocity and moment of inertia

25. ⃗ and ⃗𝐁 is given by

The magnitude of vector product of 𝐀
⃗ 𝐗𝐁
(A) | 𝐀 ⃗⃗ |=A B sin𝛉 ⃗ 𝐗𝐁
(B) |𝐀 ⃗⃗ |=A B 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝛉
(C) both (a) & (b) (D) none of these

26. For the vector product 𝐂 = 𝐀 ⃗ 𝐗𝐁⃗⃗

⃗ &𝐁
(A) 𝐂 is perpendicular to plane containing 𝐀 ⃗
⃗
(B) 𝐂 is parallel to 𝐀
⃗⃗
(C) 𝐂 is parallel to 𝐁
(D) none of the above are true

27. The vector product is

(A) commutative (B) not commutative
(C) is associative (D) none of these.

28. ⃗ 𝐱𝐁
The vector product 𝐀 ⃗⃗⃗ =
⃗⃗ 𝐱 𝐀
(A) (𝐁 ⃗) ⃗ 𝐱𝐀
(B) −(𝐁 ⃗) (C) both (a) & (b) (D) none

29. ⃗ 𝐱𝐀
𝐀 ⃗⃗⃗ =
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) both (a) & (b) (D) none

30. ̂ , which option is correct?

For unit vectors 𝒊̂, 𝒋̂, 𝒌
̂ x𝒌
(A) 𝒊̂x𝒊̂= 𝒋̂x𝒋̂=𝒌 ̂ =0 ̂
(B) 𝒊̂ x 𝒋̂ = 𝒌
(C) Both (a) & (b) (D) none
31. Position of center of mass of a system of particles depends on
(A) mass of the particles (B) position of particles
(C) Shape of the body (D) All the above

32. The motion of potter’s wheel is an example for

(A) a pure translational motion
(B) a pure rotational motion
(C) combination of translational and rotational motion
(D) neither translational nor rotational motion

33. The movement of axis of a spinning top around the vertical is called
(A) precession (B) rotation (C) revolution (D) translation.

34. The direction of 𝒊̂ x 𝒋̂ is along

(A) positive z-axis (B) positive x-axis (C) positive y-axis (D) negative z-axis

35. The center of mass lies outside the body in the case of
(A) disc (B) solid cylinder (C) solid sphere (D) ring

36. The moment of inertia of a thin circular ring of radius R and mass M, rotating about its
diameter is
(A) MR2 (B) MR2/2 (C) 2MR2 (D) MR2/4

37. The moment if inertia of a thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis perpendicular
to its length and passing through the centre is
(A) ML2 (B) ML2 /2 (C) 3/2 ML2 (D) ML2/12

38. The Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of radius R and mass M about its common
axis
(A) MR2/3 (B) MR2 (C) MR2/2 (D) 1/4MR2

39. The moment of inertia of solid cylinder of radius R, mass M about its common axis is
(A) MR2/2 (B) MR2 (C) MR2//3 (D) 2/5MR2

40. A body is at rest. Suddenly it splits into to two particles of equal mass which move with
equal speed v in opposite direction. Now, the velocity of center of mass is
(A) v (B) 2v (C) 4v (D) zero
 7. Gravitation

1. Kepler’s law of areas is the law of conversation of

(A) linear momentum (B) energy
(C) angular momentum (D) mass

2. Johannes Kepler proposed three laws of planetary motion based on the data
compiled by
(A) Copernicus (B) Galileo (C) Tycho Brahe (D) Newton

3. According to law of periods stated by Kepler, ……………………..is directly

proportional to cube of the mean distance from the sun to planet
(A) period of revolution (B) square root of period of revolution
(C) cube of the period of revolution (D) square of the period of revolution

4. According to law of orbits, path of a planet moving round the sun is

(A) Elliptical (B) linear (C) circuilar (D) none of these

5. Acceleration due to gravity at any point outside the earth varies

(A) Inversely as the distance (B) inversely as the square of the distance
(C) directly with distance (D) inversely as the cube of the distance
6. The force of attraction due to a hollow spherical shell of uniform density, on a point
mass situated inside it is
(A) maximum (B) inversely proportional to radius of the shell
(C) zero (D) inversely proportional to square of the radius of the
shell

7. The force of attraction between a hollow spherical shell of uniform velocity and a
point mass situated outside
(A) Is inversely proportional to square of the distance from the centre of the shell to the
point
(B) is same as the entire mass of the shell is concentrated at the centre of the shell
(C) is zero
(D) both A and B are true

8. Value of gravitational constant G was experimentally determined by

(A) Copernicus (B) Galileo (C) Henry Cavendish (D) Newton

9. Value of universal gravitational constant G is

(A) 6.67x10-11 Nm2 kg-2 (B) 6.67x10-10 Nm2 kg-2
(C) 6.67x10-15 Nm2 kg-2 (D) 6.67x10-21 Nm2 kg-2

10. Dimension of universal gravitational constant G is

(A) [ML3T-2] (B) [ML-3T-2] (C) [M-1L3T-2] (D) [M2L3T-2]
11. Acceleration due to gravity
(A) increases with height and depth from the surface of the earth
(B) decreases with height and depth from the surface of the earth
(C) increases with height and decreases with depth from the surface of the earth
(D) decreases with height and increases with depth from the surface of the earth

12. Weight of a body at the centre of the earth

(A) Is maximum (B) is same as on the surface of the earth
(C) zero (D) depends on the mass of the body

13. Work done in moving a particle from infinity to a point (point lying outside the
surface of the earth) is called
(A) gravitational potential energy of the particle at the point
(B) kinetic energy of the particle at that point
(C) acceleration due to gravity at the point
(D) gravitational force at the point

14. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R is
given by (G→ Universal gravitational constant)
GM M GM M
(A) g = (B) g = 2
(C) g = 2 (D) g =
R GR R GR

15. Gravitational potential energy between two point objects of masses m1 and m2
separated by a distance r is given by
mm mm
(A) U = −G 1 2 2 (B) U = −g 1 2 2
r r
mm mm
(C) U = −g 1 2 (D) U = −G 1 2
r r
16. Expression for gravitational potential at a point lying at a distance r from the centre
of the earth is (M→mass of the earth, G→(Gravitational constant)
M M
(A) V = −G (B) V = −g
r2 r2
M M
(C) V = −g (D) U = −G
r r
17. The minimum speed required for an object to escape from the gravitational pull of
the earth is called
(A) stopping speed (B) drift speed
(C) average speed (D) escape speed

18. A body is thrown with escape speed from the surface of the earth. At the point where
its velocity is zero,
(A) Only kinetic energy is zero
(B) only gravitational potential energy is zero
(C) both gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy are zero
(D) both the energies are not zero
19. The value of escape speed on the surface of the earth is
(A) 11.2 km s-1. (B) 11.2ms-1.
(C) 11.2 km hour-1 (D) 112 km hr-1

20. Escape speed on a planet does not depend on

(A) mass of the planet (B) radius of the planet
(C) density of the planet (D) mass of the object thrown

21. Escape speed (v) on the surface of a planet of mass M, radius R is given by (G→
Universal gravitational constant)
2R 2g
(A) v = gR (B) v = (C) v = 2gR (D) v =
g R2

22. Orbital speed of a satellite does not depend on

(A) mass of the planet (B) radius of the planet
(C) density of the planet (D) mass of the satellite

23. Orbital speed (v) for a planet revolving in a circuilar path at a height h from the
surface of the earth is given by (M→mass of the earth, R→radius of the earth, G→
Universal gravitational constant)
GM GM
(A) v = (B) v = 2
R+h R+h

GM GM
(C) v = (D) v = 2
(R + h) 2 (R + h)2

24. A satellite revolving round the earth has

(A) Only kinetic energy (B) only potential energy
(C) both potential and kinetic energy (D) none of the above are correct

25. For a satellite revolving round the earth at a definite height

(A) Potential energy is negative and kinetic energy is positive
(B) Both potential and kinetic energy are negative
(C) Both potential and kinetic energy are positive
(D) Potential energy is positive and kinetic energy is negative
 8. Mechanical Properties of solids

1. The property of regaining shape and size when deforming forces are removed from
a body is called
(A) Plasticity (B) Elasticity (C) Conductivity (D) resisitivity

2. Putty and mud are

(A) plastic bodies (B) elastic bodies
(C) both A and B (D) none of these

3. Restoring force developed per unit area is called

(A) Strain (B) modulus of elasticity
(C) Stress (D) compressibility

4. SI unit of stress is
(A) Nm-2 (B) Pascal (C) Nm-1 (D) Both A and B

5. The dimension of stress is

(A) [MLT] (B) [ML-1T-2] (C) [MLT-2] D) [M2LT-2]

6. The ratio of change in length to the original length is called

(A) Young’s modulus (B) shear modulus
(C) longitudinal strain (D) Poisson’s ratio

7. The restoring force per unit area developed due to the applied tangential force is
known as
(A) tangential stress (B) shearing stress
(C) tensile stress (D) both A and B

8. Ratio of change in dimension to original dimension is called

(A) Strain (B) modulus of elasticity
(C) Stress (D) compressibility

9. SI unit of strain is
(A) m (B) kg (C) kg m-2 (D) strain has no unit
10. Within the elastic limit stress is directly proportional to strain is called
(A) Hooke’s law (B) Newton’s Law
(C) Aristotle’s Law (D) Galileo’s Law
11. The maximum stress up to which body will return to its original dimension when
load is removed is called
(A) Yield strength (B) breaking strength
(C) proportionality limit (D) permanent set
12. Materials which can be stretched to cause large strain without breaking are called
(A) plastic bodies (B) brittle materials
(C) elastomers (D) All the above
13. The ratio of stress and strain is called
(A) modulus of elasticity (B) compressibility
(C) Poisson’s ratio (D) none of the above
14. The ratio of tensile (or compressive) stress (σ) to the longitudinal strain is called
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Bulk modulus
(C) rigidity modulus (D) compressibility
15. Stress has the same dimension as
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Bulk modulus
(C) rigidity modulus (D) All the above
16. The ratio hydraulic stress to the bulk strain is called
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Bulk modulus
(C) rigidity modulus (D) compressibility
17. Reciprocal of bulk modulus is called
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Poisson’s ratio
(C) rigidity modulus (D) compressibility
18. Ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain is called
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Poisson’s ratio
(C) rigidity modulus (D) compressibility
19. Select the correct statement
(A) Gases have less compressibility than solids
(B) gases have large compressibility than solids
(C) gases and solids have equal compressibility
(D) gases are incompressible
20. Elastic potential energy stored in a stretched wire per unit volume is given by
1 stress 1 strain
(A) U = (B) U =
2 strain 2 stress
stress 1
(B) U = (D) U = stress x strain
strain 2
21. Bending of a beam when loaded can be decreased by
(A) increasing the length of the beam
(B) decreasing the depth of the beam
(C) increasing the depth of the beam
(D) decreasing the breadth of the beam

22. To support more load, a pillar and columns of buildings and bridges are
(A) made very thin at the ends
(B) given distributed shape like I at the ends
(C) given pointed ends
(D) always built in cone shape
23. Young’s modulus of elasticity of a perfectly rigid body is
(A) unity (B) zero (C) infinity (D) none of these

24. Steel is preferred than copper, brass and aluminium in heavy-duty machines and in
structural designs because
(A) Steel is cheaper than copper brass and aluminium
(B) Steel is lighter than copper, brass and aluminium
(C) Steel is abundantly available than copper, brass and aluminium
(D) Steel is more elastic than copper, brass and aluminium.

25. Select the material which has large value of young’s modulus
(A) elastomers (B) aorta tissue (C) steel (D) mud
 9. Mechanical Properties of fluids

1. Dimension of pressure are

(A) [ML1T-1] (B) [M2L1T1]
(C) [ML-1T-2] (D) [M2L-1T-1]

2. The study of properties of fluids in motion is called

(a) Fluid (b) Fluid statics
(c) Fluid dynamics (d) Kinetics

3. A liquid will wet the surface in contact when the angle of contact is
(A) greater than 90° (B) less than 90°
(C) greater than 180° (D) equal to 135o

4. SI unit of pressure is
(A) joule (B) Nm-1
(B) pascal (D) N s m-2

5. Select the one which is not a unit of pressure

(A) atm (B) bar (C) torr (D) joule

6. Pressure at the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid does not depend on
(A) height of liquid in the beaker
(B) density of liquid
(C) area of the bottom surface of beaker
(D) acceleration due to gravity at the place

7. As we go deep inside a lake, pressure due to water

(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains the same (D) initially decreases and then increases.

8. Over the two coins of different area kept at equal depths from the surface of water
(A) Pressure is different and thrust is same
(B) Pressure is same and thrust is different
(C) Both pressure and thrust are same
(D) Both pressure and thrust are different

9. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are.

(A) [ML1T-1] (B) [M2L1T1]
-1 -1
(C) [ML T ] (D) [M2L-1T-1]

10. Which of the following ratios express pressure?

(A) force/area (B) energy/volume
(C) force/ volume (D) work/area
11. The instrument used to measure Gauge pressure is
(A) Thermometer (B) Open tube manometer
(C) multi meter (D) Barometer
12. The resultant upthrust experienced by a body immersed completely or partially
inside a fluid is called
(A) Buoyancy (B) capillarity
(C) gauge pressure (D) surface tension
13. 1 torr is equal to
(A) 105 Pa (B) 133 Pa
(C) 1 Pa (D) 100 pa

14. 1 bar is equal to

(A) 105 Pa (B) 133 Pa
(C) 1 Pa (D) 100 pa

15. One atmospheric pressure is equal to

(A) 1.01x 105 Pa (B) 133 Pa
(C) 1 Pa (D) 100 pa

16. Change in pressure exerted at any point of a confined liquid is transmitted equally
and undiminished in all directions throughout the liquid. This law was proposed by
(A) Bernoulli (B) Torricelli
(C) Pascal (D) stoke

17. Hydraulic break and hydraulic lifts work on

(A) Bernoulli’s principle (B) Torricelli’s law
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Stoke’s law

18. Instrument used to measure blood pressure is

(A) Barometer (B) thermometer
(C) open tube manometer (D) sphygmomanometer

19. If the velocity of flow of particles at a given point is always same in magnitude and
direction, then the type of flow of fluid is
(A) turbulent flow (B) three-dimensional flow
(C) stream line flow (D) unsteady flow

20. Stream lines

(A) may intersect at some points
(B) are parallel to each other
(C) do not represent the direction of flow of particle
(D) are never parallel to each other

21. During stream line flow of a fluid, as area of cross section decreases, velocity of flow
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains the same (D) ceases to zero

22. If A is the area of cross section of a tube, v is the velocity of stream line flow of a
fluid then volume of fluid flowing per second is
(A) A.v (B) A/v (C) v/A (D) A+v
23. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of a fluid in a tube where A1 and A2 are area of cross
sections respectively, then equation of continuity is
(A) A1v1 = A2v2 (B) A1v2 = A2v1
(C) A1+v1 = A2+v2 (D) A1+ v2 = A2 + v1

24. Mixing of paints is done using

(A) turbulent flow (B) three-dimensional flow
(C) stream line flow (D) unsteady flow

25. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on

(A) law of conservation of linear momentum
(B) law of conservation of angular momentum
(C) law of conservation of energy
(D) law of inertia

26. For a non-viscous incompressible fluid, the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy
and potential energy per unit volume remains constant. This is
(A) Bernoulli’s principle (B) Torricelli’s law
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Stoke’s law

27. For a non-viscous incompressible fluid of mass m and density  at a pressure P,

pressure energy per unit volume is given by
(A) Pm/ (B) ½ v2 (C) P (D) P

28. For a non-viscous incompressible fluid of mass m and density  flowing with speed
v, kinetic energy per unit volume is given by
(A) Pm/ (B) ½ v2 (C) ½ mv2 (D) P

29. For a non-viscous incompressible fluid of mass m and density  flowing with speed
v, at a height h from the ground, potential energy per unit volume is given by
(A) hg (B) ½ v2 (C) mgh (D) P

30. For a non-viscous incompressible fluid of mass m and density  flowing with speed
v, at a height h from the ground, Bernoulli’s principle can be mathematically
written as
(A) hg+ v2+P = constant (B) hg+½ v2+Pm/ = constant
(C) hg+½ v2+P = constant (D) hg+½ v2+P = constant

31. According to Bernoulli’s principle, during horizontal streamline flow of a non-

viscous fluid, as kinetic energy increases
(A) Pressure energy decreases
(B) pressure energy increases
(C) pressure energy remains the same
(D) pressure energy initially increases and then decreases

32. Bunsen Burner, Sprayers work on

(A) Bernoulli’s principle (B) Torricelli’s law
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Stoke’s law
33. Velocity of flow of fluid through an orifice situated at a depth h from the surface of
water filled in a beaker is equal to the speed of a freely falling body through the
same height. This is
(A) Bernoulli’s principle (B) Torricelli’s law
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Stoke’s law

34. Velocity of flow of fluid through an orifice situated at a depth h from the surface of
water filled in a beaker is
(A) v= 2gh (B) v= gh (C) v = √2gh (D) v = √gh

35. Streamline flow is

(A) Unsteady and regular (B) Steady and regular
(C) Unsteady and irregular (D) Steady and irregular

36. Irregular flow of fluid is called:

(A) Streamline (B) Turbulent (C) Uniform (D) Laminar

37. According to equation of continuity, A1V1 = A2V2 = constant. The constant is equal
to:
(A) Volume the fluid flowing per second (B) Volume of fluid flowing
(C) Mass of fluid flowing per second (D) Density of fluid flowing

38. If cross-sectional area of a pipe decreases, the speed of fluid will increase. This is
according to:
(A) Venturi relation (B) Bernoulli’s equation
(C) Equation of continuity (D) Torricelli’s theorem

39. If A is the area of cross section of a tube, v is the velocity of stream line flow of a
fluid, then the unit of product Av is
(A) Cubic meter (B) Cubic meter per second
(C) Square meter per second (D) Square meter

40. According to Bernoulli’s principle, velocity of fluid will be more where the pressure
is:
(A) Low (B) High (C) Changing continuously (D) infinity

41. Speed of efflux can be determined by applying:

(A) Pressure-velocity relationship (B) Torricelli’s theorem
(C) capillarity principle (D) angle of contact

42. The upward lift of an aeroplane is due to a phenomenon described by

(A) Archimedes’ principle (B) Pascal’s law
(C) buoyancy principle (D) Bernoulli’s principle

43. Venturi meter is a device used to measure:

(A) Pressure of the fluid (B) Speed of fluid
(C) density of fluid (D) Viscosity of the fluid
44. Uplift of aeroplane, magnus effect, collapse of artery during heart attack can be
explained using
(A) Bernoulli’s principle (B) Torricelli’s law
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Stoke’s law

45. Resisting force existing between the different layers of a liquid in motion is called
(A) Centripetal force (B) viscous force
(B) upthrust (D) Conservative force

46. Coefficient of viscosity is defined as

(A) Reciprocal of bulk modulus (B) strain rate
(B) ratio of stress to strain (D) ratio of stress to strain rate

47. Due to viscous force

(A) lower layers of fluid flow faster than upper layers
(B) lower layers of fluid flow with the same speed as upper layers
(C) lower layers of fluid flow slower than upper layers
(D) lower layers of fluid will be at rest while upper layers move at very high speed

48. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are.

(A) [ML1T-1] (B) [M2L1T1] (C) [ML-1T-1] (D) [M2L-1T-1]

49. Si unit of coefficient of viscosity is

(A) Nsm-1 (B) Ns m-2 (C) Ns-1m-1 (D) Ns-1m-2

50. As temperature increases, viscosity of liquids

(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains the same (D) initially increases and then decreases

51. As temperature increases, viscosity of gases

(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains the same (D) initially decreases and then increases
52. If F is the viscous force acting on a spherical object of radius a moving with a speed
v in a fluid medium of coefficient of viscosity , then the equation F= 6av is called:
(a) Newton’s law (b) Stoke’s law
(c) Ohm’s law (d) Lenz’s law
53. When a rain drop falls with uniform terminal velocity in air,
(A) its weight will be less than viscous drag
(B) its weight will be more less than viscous drag
(C) its weight will be equal to viscous drag
(D) its acceleration will be 9.8ms-2.

54. When a rain drop falls with terminal velocity in air,

(A) its motion is non uniform
(B) net force acting on it is zero
(C) its weight will be more than viscous drag
(D) its acceleration will be 9.8ms-2.

55. If F is the viscous force acting on a spherical object of radius a moving with a speed
v in a fluid medium of coefficient of viscosity , then according to Stoke’s law
(A) F= 6av (B) F= 3av
(C) F= 18 av (D) F= 16av
56. If weight of an object falling freely in air becomes equal to the viscous drag, then
the body will move with
(A) Increasing speed (B) Decreasing speed
(C) Constant speed (D) variable speed

57. When rain drop falling through air reaches its terminal velocity, the acceleration of
the body becomes
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) constant

58. According to Stokes’s law, terminal velocity is given by equation, (a-radius of

spherical object, -density of spherical object, -density of the medium, -
coefficient of viscosity of medium)
(A) Vt = 2ga2(-) /9η (B) (A) Vt = 2ga2(-) /5η
(C) (A) Vt = 2ga (-) /9η (D) (A) Vt = 2ga2(-) /3η

59. According to Stokes’s law, terminal velocity of a spherical rain drop is

(A) Directly proportional to the radius of the rain drop
(B) Directly proportional to the coefficient of viscosity
(C) Independent of density of medium and density of water
(D) Directly proportional to the square of radius of the rain drop
60. The number which determines the type of flow of fluid is
(A) quantum number (B) gravitational constant
(C) Universal gas constant (D) Reynold’s number
61. For stream line flow of a fluid, Reynold’s number should be
(A) Less than 1000 (B) greater than 2000
(C) Equal to 2000 (D) between 1000 and 2000

62. For turbulent flow of a fluid, Reynold’s number should be

(A) Less than 1000 (B) greater than 2000
(C) Equal to 2000 (D) between 1000 and 2000
63. Racing cars and aeroplanes are given stream lined bodies
(A) To reduce terminal velocity (B) to minimize turbulence
(C) to increase turbulence (D) to increase viscous force

64. Extra potential energy of the molecules on the surface of a liquid is called
(A) Ionisation energy (B) excitation energy
(B) Binding energy (D) surface energy

65. Surface energy per unit area is called

(A) Viscosity (B) surface tension
(C) binding energy (D) ionisation energy
66. SI unit of surface tension is
(A) [ML1T-2] (B) [M2L1T1] (C) [MLoT-2] (D) [M2L-1T-1]

67. SI unit of surface tension is

(A) Nm-1 (B) Nm-2 (C) N s m-1 (D) N s m-2

68. Surface tension has the same dimension of

(A) force per unit length (B) energy per unit area
(C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B
69. Surface tension is due to
(A) Cohesive force (B) adhesive force
(C) gravitational force (D) viscous force

70. Angle of contact is the

(A) angle between tangent to the liquid surface at the point of contact and solid surface
inside the liquid.
(B) angle between tangent to the liquid surface at the point of contact and solid surface
outside the liquid.
(C) angle between the normal to liquid surface and solid surface
(D) angle between tangent to the liquid surface and normal to the solid surface

71. Free liquid drops and bubbles are spherical (effects of gravity are neglected) is due
to
(A) Surface tension (B) Pressure
(C) Viscosity (D) Torque

72. If the angle of contact is acute

(A) Liquid will wet the solid surface (B) liquid level will fall in capillary tube
(C) liquid will not wet the solid surface (D) surface tension of liquid is zero

73. If the angle of contact is acute

(B) Liquid will not wet the solid surface (B) liquid level will fall in capillary tube
(C) liquid level will rise in capillary tube (D) surface tension of liquid is zero

74. If the angle of contact is obtuse

(C) Liquid will wet the solid surface (B) liquid level will rise in capillary tube
(C) liquid will not wet the solid surface (D) surface tension of liquid is zero

75. If the angle of contact is obtuse

(D) Liquid will wet the solid surface (B) liquid level will fall in capillary tube
(C) liquid level will rise in capillary tube (D) surface tension of liquid is zero

76. As temperature increases angle of contact of a liquid with the solid surface
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) initially increases and then decreases

77. As temperature increases surface tension of liquid

(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) initially increases and then decreases

78. When detergent is added to water, its surface tension

(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) initially increases and then decreases

79. Excess pressure (P) inside a liquid drop of radius r and surface tension T is
(A) P = T/r (B) P = 2T/r (C) P = T/2r (D) P = 4T/r

80. Excess pressure (P) inside a soap bubble of radius r and surface tension T is
(A) P = T/r (B) P = 2T/r (C) P = T/2r (D) P = 4T/r
81. Water raises from the root of a plant to the tip, oil rises in the wick of a lamp due to
(A) viscosity (B) buoyancy
(C) capillarity (D) upthrust

82. Capillary rise (h) inside a capillary bore of radius r dipped partially inside a liquid
of surface tension T is given by
2Tr T 2T 2r
(A) h = (B) h = (C) h = (D) h =
g rg rg Tg

83. Capillarity is due to

(A) viscosity (B) buoyancy
(C) surface tension (D) upthrust

84. Capillary rise depends on

(A) Radius of capillary hole (B) surface tension of the liquid
(C) density of the liquid (D) all the above factors

85. For a particular liquid, greater the radius of the capillary hole
(A) Smaller will be the capillary rise
(B) greater will be the capillary rise
(C) height of capillary rise will not change
(D) smaller will be the angle of contact.
 10. Thermal Properties of matter

1. A measure of hotness of a body is

(A) size (B) shape (C) temperature (D) velocity

2. SI unit of heat is
(A) kelvin (B) Fahrenheit (C) degree celsius (D) joule

3. Heat is a form of energy which flows between two systems because of

(A) mass difference (B) pressure difference
(C) potential difference (D) temperature difference

4. SI Init of temperature is
(A) kelvin (B) Fahrenheit (C) degree celsius (D) joule

5. Liquid and gas thermometers work on the principle of

(A) Volume expansion due to heating (B) change of state due to heating
(C) conservation of energy (D) conservation of momentum

6. Which among the following is not the effect the heat?

(A) Change of state (B) change in size
(C) change in resistance (D) change in mass

7. Correct relation between temperature in degree Fahrenheit (tF) and degree Celsius
(tC) scale is
t − 32 t t − 32 t F
(A) F = c (B) C =
180 100 180 100
t − 32 t
(C) F = c (D) All the above expressions are correct
100 180

8. Correct relation between temperature in kelvin (K) and degree Celsius (t) scale is
(A) T = t - 273 (B) 273 = t – T (C) T = t+273 (D) both A and B

9. If P is the pressure and V is the volume of a gas, at constant temperature according

to Boyle’s law
(A) PV = Constant (B) P/V = constant
(C) V/P = constant (D) none of these

10. According to Charle’s law, when pressure is held constant, Volume and absolute
temperature of a gas are related as
(A) V/T = constant (B) VT = constant
(C) T-V = constant (D) none of these

11. According to Charle’s law, when volume is held constant, pressure and absolute
temperature of a gas are related as
(A) P/T = constant (B) PT = constant
(C) T-P = constant (D) none of these
12. Select the ideal gas equation
μR T
(A) PV = (B) PV = (C) PV=RT (D) P=VRT
T μR
13. The value of universal gas constant is
(A) 8.31 J mol-1 K-1 (B) 8.31 J kg-1 K-1
(C) 83.1 J mol-1 K-1 (D) 83.1 J kg-1 K-1

14. Value of absolute zero temperature is

(A) zero kelvin (B) – 273.15 oC
(C) 0oC (D) both (A) and (B)

15. Relation between coefficient of linear expansion (L), coefficient of area expansion
(A) and coefficient of volume expansion (V)is
(A) L = A & V= L (B) 2L = A & V= 3L
(C) L = 2A & 3V= L (D) 3L = A & V= 2L

16. A metallic ring of little lesser diameter than a wooden wheel has to be fixed firmly
to the wheel. Which method will you prefer?
(A) Heat the wooden wheel only (B) Heat the metal ring only
(C) Heat both wooden wheel and metal ring (D) Cool the metallic ring

17. For a gas coefficient of volume expansion V and absolute temperature T are related
as
1 1 1
(A) α V = (B) α V = 2 (C) α V = (D) α V = T 2
T T T
18. o
Water at 4 C in a beaker is cooled. Now, the volume of water
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains the same (D) may increase or decrease depending on volume taken

19. Water has highest density at

(A) 0oC (B) 4oC (C) 100oC (D) -
o
273.15 C

20. Aquatic animals are safe inside water even when ice layers are formed in a lake
because
(A) As ice layers are formed, they sink to bottom
(B) due to anomalous expansion of water ice will have lesser density than water and
hence floats.
(C) Both A and B are correct
(D) Both A and B are not true
21. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by unit
temperature is called
(A) specific heat capacity (B) Heat capacity
(C) Latent heat (D) molar heat capacity
22. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a substance by
unit temperature is called
(A) specific heat capacity (B) Heat capacity
(C) Latent heat (D) molar heat capacity

23. Water is used as a coolant in automobile radiators because

(A) specific heat of water is very low (B) density of water is low
(C) water has high specific heat (D) water doesn’t catch fire

24. Specific heat capacity of depends on

(A) mass of the substance (B) temperature difference
(C) type of material (D) none of the above

25. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance depends on

(A) mass of the substance (B) temperature difference
(C) type of material (D) All the above

26. Device used to measure heat is

(A) thermometer (B) barometer
(C) manometer (D) calorimeter
27. Principle of calorimetry is
(A) Heat energy flows when there is temperature difference
(B) Heat lost by the hot body is equal to heat gained by the cold body
(C) Substances change their size when their temperature raises
(D) Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure at constant temperature.

28. Liquid and solid states of a matter co-exist at

(A) the absolute zero temperature (B) the melting point
(C) the boiling point (D) none of these temperatures

29. Liquid and gas states of a matter co-exist at

(A) the absolute zero temperature (B) the melting point
(C) the boiling point (D) none of these temperatures

30. Solid, liquid and gaseous states of a matter will co-exist at

(A) the absolute zero temperature (B) the melting point
(C) the boiling point (D) triple point

31. When pressure is increased on ice, its melting point decreases. This is called
(A) regelation (B) calorimetry (C) sublimation (D) convection
32. The change from solid state to vapour state without passing through the liquid state
is called
(A) regelation (B) calorimetry (C) sublimation (D) convection

33. Amount of heat required to convert unit mass of a substance from solid to liquid
state at its melting point is called
(A) latent heat of vaporisation (B) specific heat
(C) Heat capacity (D) Latent heat of fusion
34. Amount of heat required to convert unit mass of a substance from liquid to gas state
at its boiling point is called
(A) latent heat of vaporisation (B) specific heat
(C) Heat capacity (D) Latent heat of fusion

35. Which one among the following is not the mode of transmission of heat?
(A) Induction (B) Conduction
(C) Radiation (D) Convection

36. Mode of transmission of heat from one point to another in solids is

(A) Induction (B) Conduction
(C) Radiation (D) Convection
37. Mode of transmission of heat which does not require any medium is
(A) Induction (B) Conduction
(C) Radiation (D) Convection
38. Heat energy conducted from one end of the conductor to another end separated by
a length L is
(A) Directly proportional to the length (B) inversely proportional to length
(C) does not depend on length (D) inversely proportional square of length
39. Materials having large value of thermal conductivity are
(A) Very good conductors of heat (B) very good conductors of electricity
(C) very bad conductors of heat (D) very bad conductors of electricity
40. SI unit of thermal conductivity is
(A) J-1S-1m-1K-1 (B) J s-1m-1K-1 (C) W-1m-1K-1 (D) W s-1m-1K-1
41. Select the one which is having high value of thermal conductivity
(A) Argon (B) Water (C) Concrete (D) Steel
42. People usually, prefer to give a layer of earth or foam insulation on the ceiling
because
(A) Earth or foam is a bad conductor of heat
(B) Earth and foam do not transfer heat and keep the room cooler.
(C) Both A and B are correct
(D) None of the answers are correct
43. An example for forced convection is
(A) Human blood circulatory system (B) cooling system of an automobile
(C) Sea Breeze (D) Both A and B
44. An example for natural convection is
(A) Sea Breeze (B) trade wind
(C) Human blood circulatory system (D) Both A and B
45. Waves which carry heat energy from sun to earth are
(A) Electromagnetic waves (B) longitudinal waves
(C) Infra red waves (D) Both A and C
46. We prefer white or light-coloured clothes in summer because
(A) they absorb the least heat from the Sun.
(B) they absorb the most heat from the Sun.
(C) they are very cheap.
(D) None of the answers are correct
47. During winter, we use dark coloured clothes because
(A) They absorb heat from the sun and keep our body warm.
(B) They look very bright during winter.
(C) It is easy to identify dark coloured clothes from a distance
(D) None of the answers are correct

48. The bottoms of utensils for cooking food are blackened because
(A) lamp black developed at the bottom will not be seen
(B) It absorbs maximum heat from fire and transfer it to the vegetables to be cooked.
(C) Black reflects most heat and keeps the vegetables safe inside.
(D) none of the answers are correct.

49. The wavelength value for which maximum energy is emitted from a black body
(A) increases with increase in temperature
(B) decreases with decrease in temperature
(C) decreases with increase in temperature
(D) does not depend on temperature

50. Wein’s displacement law can be mathematically represented as (m→wavelength

for which energy emitted is maximum, T→absolute temperature of black body)
(A) m/T = constant (B) T/m = constant
(C) m T = constant (D) m + T = constant
51. The value of Wein’s constant is
(A) 2.9x10-3 mK (B) 2.9x10-4 mK
(C) 2.9x10-3 mK-1 (D) 29x10-5 m-1K
52. Energy emitted per unit time by a black body is
(A) directly proportional to the fourth power of absolute temperature of black body
(B) directly proportional to the surface area of the black body
(C) Both A and B are wrong
(D) Both A and B are correct
53. Stefan – Boltzmann law can be mathematically represented as (H→Energy emitted
per unit time, A→surface area of the black body, T→absolute temperature of the
black body, →Stefan Boltzmann Constant)
(A) H=AT2 (B) H=A2T (C) H=A4T (D) H=AT4
54. The value of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
(A) 5.67x10-8 W m-2 K-4 (B) 56.7x10-8 W m-2 K-4
(C) 5.67x10-10 W m-2 K-4 (D) 5.67x10-6 W m-2 K-4
55. According to Newton’s Law of cooling, rate of cooling of a body
(A) is directly proportional to temperature difference between body and surroundings
(B) is inversely proportional to temperature difference between body and surroundings
(C) is independent of temperature difference between body and surroundings
(D) is directly proportional to square of temperature difference between body and
surroundings

56. A body takes 5 minutes to cool from 100oC to 90oC. The time it will take to cool from
90oC to 80oC will be
(A) equal to 5 minutes (B) less than five minutes
(C) more than 5 minutes (D) infinity
 11. Thermodynamics

1. Through an adiabatic wall

(A) heat can flow (B) heat cannot flow
(C) heat can conduct (D) all the above are correct

2. Two systems A and B are separately in thermal equilibrium with third system C.
Now,
(A) A is in thermal equilibrium with B
(B) A is in thermal equilibrium with C
(C) B is in thermal equilibrium with C
(D) All the above are correct

3. If two systems are under thermal equilibrium, then which of the following
thermodynamic variable is same for both the systems?
(A) volume (B) pressure
(C) number of molecules (D) temperature

4. Internal energy of a gas contained in a cylinder is

(A) the kinetic energy of the cylinder
(B) the potential energy of the cylinder
(C) the sum of kinetic and potential energy of the cylinder
(D) the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of its molecules.

5. Which of the following methods will increase the internal energy of a gas contained
in a cylinder?
(A) bring the cylinder in contact with a body at a higher temperature than the gas.
(B) Push the piston down.
(C) Move the cylinder at a high speed.
(D) Only (A) and (B)

6. First law of thermodynamics is

(A) the law of conservation of energy
(B) law of conservation of mass
(C) law of conservation of momentum
(D) law of conservation of angular momentum.

7. If Q is heat energy supplied to a system, U is increases in internal energy, W is

work done by the system, then First law of thermodynamics can be mathematically
written as
(A) Q+U=W (B) Q+W=U
(C) Q-U=W (D) Q  U=W

8. Thermodynamic process where temperature remains constant is called

(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric (D) isochoric
9. Thermodynamic process where pressure remains constant is called
(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric (D) isochoric

10. Thermodynamic process where volume remains constant is called

(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric (D) isochoric

11. Thermodynamic process which takes place under thermal isolation is called
(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric (D) isochoric

12. During isothermal process

(A) there is no change in the internal energy of the system
(B) All the heat energy supplied to the system is used to external work
(C) heat energy supplied is equal to the increase in the internal energy
(D) Both A and B are correct
13. During isochoric process
(A) there is no change in the internal energy of the system
(B) All the heat energy supplied to the system is used to external work
(C) heat energy supplied to the system is equal to the increase in the internal energy
(D) Both A and B are correct
14. Thermodynamic process where no work is done by the system is
(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric (D) isochoric
15. Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of water by 1oC is
(A) 1 joule (B) 4180 J (C) 1 erg (D) 1 calorie
16. 1 calorie is equal to
(A) 4.18J (B) 4180J (C) 4.18 erg (D) 4180 erg
17. Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water by 1K is
(A) 1 joule (B) 4180 J (C) 1 erg (D) 1 calorie
18. Correct relation between Cp, CV and R is (symbols have usual meaning)
(A) Cp+Cv=R (B) Cp-Cv=R (C) Cp/Cv = R (D) CpCv=R
19. Select the extensive thermodynamic variable among the following
(A) volume (B) pressure (C) temperature (D) none of these
20. Select the intensive thermodynamic variable among the following
(A) volume (B) mass (C) internal energy (D) temperature
21. Equation for the work done during isothermal process is (symbols have usual
meaning)
V μR(T1 − T2 )
(A) μRT ln 2 (B) .
V1 γ −1
μR(T1 − T2 ) V V
(C) ln 2 (D) μR(T1 − T2 ) ln 2
γ −1 V1 V1
22. Equation for the work done during adiabatic process is (symbols have usual
meaning)
V μR(T1 − T2 )
(A) μRT ln 2 (B) .
V1 γ −1
μR(T1 − T2 ) V V
(C) ln 2 (D) μR(T1 − T2 ) ln 2
γ −1 V1 V1
23. According to second law of thermodynamics
(A) Efficiency of a heat engine can never be unity
(B) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator can never be infinity
(C) Complete conversion of heat into work by absorbing heat from a reservoir is not
possible.
(D) All are correct
24. “No process is possible whose sole result is the absorption of heat from a reservoir
and the complete conversion of the heat into work”. This is
(A) Aristotle’s statement (B) Kelvin – Planck Statement
(C) Clausius Statement (D) I Law of thermodynamics
25. “No process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of heat from a colder object
to a hotter object”. This is
(A) Aristotle’s statement (B) Kelvin – Planck Statement
(C) Clausius Statement (D) I Law of thermodynamics
26. Sudden explosion of a gas inside a container is a
(A) irreversible process (B) reversible process
(C) cyclic process (D) isothermal process

27. A thermodynamic process which can be turned back such that both the system and
the surroundings return to their original states, is called
(A) irreversible process (B) reversible process
(C) Adiabatic process (D) isochoric process

28. Heat engine

(A) converts heat energy into mechanical energy
(B) generates heat energy
(C) generates electrical energy
(D) converts solar energy to electrical energy

29. Efficiency of Carnot engine is given by (T1→temperature of hot reservoir,

T2→temperature of cold reservoir)
T T T T
(A) η = 1 − 1 (B) η = 1 − 2 (C) η = 2 − 1 (D) η = 1 − 1
T2 T1 T1 T2
30. In a cyclic process, area under the PV diagram is
(A) work done by the system
(B) heat energy absorbed by the system
(C) heat energy released by the system
(D) none of these
 12. Kinetic Theory of Gases

1. All things are made of atoms - little particles that move around in perpetual motion,
attracting each other when they are a little distance apart, but repelling upon being
squeezed into one another. This is
(A) Atomic Hypothesis (B) Aristotle’s hypothesis
(C) Galileo’s Hypothesis (D) Avogadro’s hypothesis

2. “Any given compound has, a fixed proportion by mass of its constituents”. This is
(A) first law of thermodynamics (B) First law of atomic theory
(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Avogadro’s hypothesis
3. “When two elements form more than one compound, for a fixed mass of one
element, the masses of the other elements are in ratio of small integers”. This is
(A) Second law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of atomic theory
(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Avogadro’s hypothesis

4. “When gases combine chemically to yield another gas, their volumes are in the
ratios of small integers”. This is
(A) Second law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of atomic theory
(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Avogadro’s hypothesis

5. “Equal volumes of all gases at equal temperature and pressure have the same
number of molecules”. This is
(A) Second law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of atomic theory
(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Avogadro’s hypothesis

6. The average distance a gas molecule can travel without colliding is called
(A) Range (B) Altitude
(C) Mean free path (D) stopping distance

7. Size of an atom is of the order of

(A) few millimetres (B) few centimetre
(C) few angstroms (D) fermi

8. Behaviour of real gases will be very close to the behaviour of ideal gas only at
(A) low pressure and low temperature (B) high pressure and high temperature
(C) low pressure and high temperature (D) high pressure and low temperature

9. The collision between the gas molecules is

(A) elastic
(B) inelastic
(C) one in which only kinetic energy is conserved
(D) one in which only momentum is conserved
10. Pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of the container is give n by (n→number of
molecules per unit volume, m→mass of each molecule, v→rms speed of gas
molecules)
1 1 1 1
(A) P = nmv2 (B) P = nm2 v (C) P = nmv 2 (D) P = nm2 v
2 2 3 3

11. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is directly proportional to:
(A) Volume of the gas (B) pressure of the gas
(C) Absolute temperature of the gas (D) mass of the gas

12. The number of degrees of freedom for diatomic gas molecule is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

13. The number of degrees of freedom for monoatomic gas molecule is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

14. Equal energy associated with each degree of freedom of a molecule is

1 1 1 1
(A) U = k BT (B) U = RT (C) U = RT (D) U = k BT
3 2 3 2

15. The ratio of specific heats for a monoatomic gas is

1 2 5 9
(A) γ = (B) γ = (C) γ = (D) γ =
3 3 3 7

16. The ratio of specific heats for a diatomic gas is (without vibrational mode)
1 2 5 7
(A) γ = (B) γ = (C) γ = (D) γ =
3 3 3 5

17. Mean free path of a gas molecule is given by (n→number of molecules per unit
volume, d→diameter of the molecule)
1 1 1 2
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D) =
2 nπd 2
2nπd 2
nπd 2
n π d2
 13. Oscillations

1. A boy is continuously bouncing a ball between his hands and the ground. Motion
of the ball is
(A) Both simple harmonic and periodic (B) only periodic and not simple harmonic
(C) Only simple harmonic not periodic (D) neither simple harmonic nor periodic
2. Among the following, which is the characteristic of simple harmonic motion?
(A) It is periodic in nature.
(B) The time period of oscillation and frequency depend on amplitude of vibration.
(C) Acceleration is directed away from the mean position.
(D) It is non – oscillatory motion.
3. Planets rotate about their own axis and revolve around Sun, their motion is
(A) Periodic and Oscillatory (B) not periodic and not oscillatory
(C) Periodic but not Oscillatory (D) Simple Harmonic motion
4. In a simple harmonic motion, the particle is
(A) always accelerated (B) always retarded
(C) alternately accelerated and retarded (D) neither accelerated nor retarded
5. Smallest interval of time in which a periodic motion gets repeated is called
(A) period (B) relaxation time
(C) reaction time (D) frequency
6. The number of repetitions that occur per unit time during simple harmonic motion
is called
(A) period (B) relaxation time
(C) reaction time (D) frequency
7. Correct relation between period (T) and frequency () is
1
(A) ν = T (B) ν + T = 0 (C) ν − T = 0 (D) ν =
T
8. Oscillations of simple pendulum is
(A) Both simple harmonic and periodic (B) only periodic and not simple harmonic
(C) Only simple harmonic not periodic (D) neither simple harmonic nor periodic
9. SI unit of frequency is
(A) hours (B) seconds (C) watt (D) hertz
10. SI unit of time period is
(A) hours (B) seconds (C) watt (D) hertz
11. Equation for the displacement of a particle executing SHM is (symbols have usual
meaning)
(A) x = A Cost (B) x = A2 Cost
(C) x2 = A Cost (D) x = A Cost
12. Which of the following equation will not represent simple harmonic motion?
(Symbols have usual meaning)
(A) x = A sint (B) x = A sint + B Cost
(C) x = A sin t
2
(D) log (t)

13. If x=A cost represents the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion, then the velocity of the particle at an instant t is given by
(A) v= - A cost (B) v= - A sint
(C) v= - A cost (D) v = A2 cost
14. If x=A cost represents the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion, then the acceleration of the particle at an instant t is given by
(A) a= - A cost (B) a= - A sint
(C) a= - A cost (D) a = - 2 x
15. If x=A cost represents the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
(A) vmax = - A (B) vmax= - A2
(C) vmax= - A2  (D) vmax = A22
16. If x=A cost represents the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion, then the maximum acceleration of the particle is
(A) amax = - A (B) amax= - A2
(C) amax= - A2  (D) amax = A22
17. Angular velocity , force constant k and mass of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion are related as
k m m k
(A) ω = (B) ω = (C) ω = (D) ω =
m k k m
18. Maximum kinetic energy or potential energy of a particle executing SHM is given
by (A→amplitude, k→ force constant)
1 1 1 1 k
(A) U = kA 2 (B) U = Ak 2 (C) U = kA (D) U =
2 2 2 2A
19. The length of second’s pendulum is
(A) 2 m (B) 1 cm (C) 1 m (D) 1 km
20. Period of oscillation a simple pendulum depends on
(A) length of the pendulum (B) acceleration due to gravity at the place
(C) mas of the bob (D) Both A and B
21. At the mean position of oscillation of a simple pendulum
(A) potential energy is maximum and kinetic energy is minimum
(B) Kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is minimum
(C) Both potential energy and kinetic energy are maximum
(D) Both potential energy and kinetic energy are minimum
22. As a particle executes simple harmonic motion with a period of oscillation T, the
period of repetition of Kinetic and potential energy is
(A) T (B) 2T (C) T/2 (D) 3T
23. Period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L is (g→
1 L g L 1 g
(A) T = (B) T = 2π (C) T = 2π (D) T =
2π g L g 2π L
24. Dimension of frequency is
(A) [MoLoTo] (B) [MoLoT1] (C) [M1L1T1] (D) [MoLoT -1]
 14. Waves
1. When a wave travels in a medium – Select a wrong statement
(A) disturbance is carried from one point to another
(B) Energy is carried from one point to another
(C) Particles travel from one point to another
(D) all particles vibrate with same period.

2. Sound wave is a
(A) mechanical wave (B) non-mechanical wave
(C) transverse wave (D) electromagnetic wave

3. Mechanical waves
(A) do not carry energy
(B) do not require any medium for propagation
(C) require a medium for propagation
(D) can travel in vacuum

4. Electromagnetic waves
(A) do not carry energy
(B) do not require any medium for propagation
(C) require a medium for propagation
(D) cannot travel in vacuum

5. X-rays are
(A) mechanical wave (B) non-mechanical wave
(C) longitudinal wave (D) electromagnetic wave

6. What is common with X-rays, Infra-red waves, ultraviolet waves?

(A) All have same frequency (B) All have same wavelength
(C) All travel with same speed in vacuum (D) All are mechanical waves

7. Transverse waves
(A) travel in the form of compressions and rarefactions
(B) travel in the form of crests and troughs
(C) travel with direction of particle velocity and wave velocity parallel
(D) Do not carry energy
8. Longitudinal waves
(A) travel in the form of compressions and rarefactions
(B) travel in the form of crests and troughs
(C) travel with direction of particle velocity and wave velocity perpendicular
(D) Do not carry energy

9. Longitudinal waves can travel

(A) only in Solids (B) only in liquids
(C) only in Gases (D) in Solids, Liquids and Gases
10. Mechanical transverse waves can propagate only in
(A) gases (B) gases and liquids
(C) medium with shear modulus of elasticity (D) vacuum

11. Capillary waves are produced due to

(A) surface tension of water (B) anomalous expansion of water
(C) gravitational pull (D) viscosity of water

12. Gravity waves are produced due to

(A) surface tension of water (B) anomalous expansion of water
(C) gravitational pull (D) viscosity of water

13. Waves in an ocean are

(A) purely longitudinal
(B) purely transverse
(C) combination of both longitudinal and transverse
(D) neither longitudinal nor transverse

14. Electromagnetic waves are

(A) Longitudinal requires medium for their propagation
(B) Longitudinal do not require any medium for their propagation.
(C) Transverse do not require any medium for their propagation.
(D) Transverse requires medium for their propagation.

15. Type of waves produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by moving its piston back
and forth is
(A) Longitudinal (B) transverse
(C) non mechanical (D) electromagnetic

16. Ultrasonic waves in air produced by a vibrating quartz crystal are

(A) Longitudinal (B) transverse
(C) non mechanical (D) electromagnetic

17. The minimum distance between two points in a wave having the same phase is called
(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) wavelength (D) period

18. The maximum displacement of a particle in a wave either in the positive or negative
direction is called
(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) wavelength (D) period

19. SI unit of angular frequency () is

(A) rad s (B) rad s-2 (C) rad s-1 (D) rad-1 s-1

20. SI unit of angular wave number and propagation constant (k) is

(A) rad m (B) rad m-2 (C) rad m-1 (D) rad-1 m-1
21. Angular frequency () and period of oscillation (T) are related as
2π π π T
(A) ω = (B) ω = (C) ω = (D) ω =
T T 2T 2π
22. Velocity of a simple harmonic wave of frequency  and wavelength  travelling in a
medium is
ν λ
(A) v= (B) v = (C) v = (D) v=+
λ ν
23. Phase difference between two particles in a wave separated by a distance of /2 is
(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) /4
24. The quantity which does not change, when sound enters from one medium to
another is
(A) wavelength (B) speed (C) frequency (D) amplitude

25. Velocity of a transverse wave in a stretched wire depends on

(A) tension in the wire (B) mass per unit length of the wire
(C) radius of the wire (D) all the above-mentioned factors

26. As the tension is increased speed of propagation of a transverse wave in a stretched

wire
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains the same
(D) may increase or decrease depending on type of material of the wire

27. Speed of a transverse wave in a stretched wire is

(A) directly proportional to tension
(B) inversely proportional to tension
(C) directly proportional to square root of tension
(D) inversely proportional to square root of tension
28. According to Newton when a longitudinal wave travel in a gas, changes in pressure
and volume are
(A) isothermal (B) adiabatic (C) isochoric (D) isobaric

29. According to Laplace when a longitudinal wave travel in a gas, changes in pressure
and volume are
(A) isothermal (B) adiabatic (C) isochoric (D) isobaric
30. Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in a gas is (symbols have usual meaning)
P ρ P ρ
(A) v = (B) v = (C) v = (D) v =
ρ P ρ P
31. Newton-Laplace formula for velocity of sound in a gas is (symbols have usual
meaning)
Pγ ργ Pγ ργ
(A) v = (B) v = (C) v = (D) v =
ρ P ρ P
32. Velocity of sound in a gas does not change with
(A) change density of the medium (B) change in humidity
(C) change in temperature (D) Change in pressure
33. Stationary waves are produced
(A) when two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite direction
superpose.
(B) when two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in the same direction
superpose.
(C) when two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in perpendicular
direction superpose.
(D) All the answers are correct.

34. In a standing wave the points at which amplitude is the largest is known as
(A) node (B) crest (C) rarefaction (D) antinodes

35. In a standing wave the points at which amplitude is zero is known as

(A) node (B) crest (C) rarefaction (D) antinodes

36. In a standing wave, amplitude at the antinode is (A→is the amplitude of each
component wave)
(A) 4A (B) 2A (C) zero (D) A/4

37. In a standing wave, amplitude at the node is (A→is the amplitude of each component
wave)
(A) 4A (B) 2A (C) zero (D) A/4
38. Distance between two nearest antinodes in a stationary wave is (→wavelength of
superposing waves)
(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) /4

39. Distance between two nearest nodes in a stationary wave is (→wavelength of

superposing waves)
(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) /4

40. Distance between the node and nearest antinode in a stationary wave is
(→wavelength of superposing waves)
(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) /4

41. A stretched wire vibrates in

(A) only odd harmonics (B) only even harmonics
(C) all harmonics (D) none of these

42. In a closed pipe, open end is always

(A) a node (B) an antinode
(C) either node or antinode (D) neither node or antinode

43. In a closed pipe, closed end is always

(A) a node (B) an antinode
(C) either node or antinode (D) neither node or antinode
44. A closed pipe always vibrates in
(A) only odd harmonics (B) only even harmonics
(C) all harmonics (D) none of these

45. An open pipe always vibrates in

(A) only odd harmonics (B) only even harmonics
(C) all harmonics (D) none of these

46. Fundamental frequency of vibration of a closed pipe of length L is given by

(v→speed of sound)
v v 3v 5v
(A) ν = (B) ν = (C) ν = (D) ν =
4L 2L 4L 4L
47. Fundamental frequency of vibration of an open pipe of length L is given by
(v→speed of sound)
v v 3v 5v
(A) ν = (B) ν = (C) ν = (D) ν =
4L 2L 4L 4L

48. Beats are produced

(A) when two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite direction
superpose.
(B) when two waves of slightly different frequencies travelling in the same direction
superpose.
(C) when two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in perpendicular
direction superpose.
(D) All the answers are correct.

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