Final Coaching on

Criminalistics June 2020

Board Exam for Criminologist
By:
Jayson Paul Vanta BSCrim, BSEd (Units), RCrim, MAEd, CSP

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION

1. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and

composition of the following EXCEPT:

A. fingerprint
B. explosives
C. blood
D. body fluids

2. The word “forensic” came from the Latin word “forum” which
literally means?

A. Market place
B. place of discussion
C. Public
D. legal

3. It is the application of various sciences to answer questions

relating to examination and comparison of biological evidence and
scientific evidences.

A. Criminalistics
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Science
D. Evidence Examination

4. What system of identification used earlier than the fingerprint

system, and is made by measuring various bony structure of human body
developed by Alphonse Bertillion?

A. Portrait Parle
B. Tattoo
C. Anthropometry
D. Photography

5. He is credited in the creation of the first crime laboratory in US

which is founded in Berkeley, California.

A. Alexander Lacassagne
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
C. Hans Gross
D. August Vollmer

6. This is the most remarkable event happened on 1964 according to the

history of the study of fingerprinting.
A. computerization of Scotland yard
B. creation of the FBI identification division
C. the Belper Committee in England was established
D. The International association for Criminal Identification was
established

7. The Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly District in India, first used

fingerprints on contracts with the natives. He is also known as Father
of Chiroscopy.

A. JCA Mayer
B. John Evangelist Purkinje
C. Herman Welcker
D. Sir William James Herschel

8. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American occupation in

the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint file has been
established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937. Who is the first
Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary?

A. Mr. Generoso Reyes

B. Lucila Lalu
C. Mr. Augustin Patricio
D. None of these

9. Who was that notorious gangster and a police character, who

attempted to erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as
time went by the ridges were again restored to their “natural”
feature.

A. Al Capone
B. OJ Simpson
C. John Dellinger
D. Robert James Pitts

10. The greater the number of points of similarities and

dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater the probability
for the conclusion to be correct. What is this Law called?

A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification

B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
C. Law of Super Imposition
D. All of these

11. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered children whom she was
accused because of the latent prints that has been found on the scene
of the crime. Who is that person in which without his participation
the case will not be solved?

A. Francisca Rojas
B. Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
D. Edward Richard Henry

12. On the night of August 2, 2010, a certain burglary happened on the

store of a Japanese Merchant. On the scene of the crime, laying the
dead body of the victim stained by his own blood and the presence of
several evidences found including the fingerprints of the three
unidentified persons. If you are one of those three persons whose
fingerprints were found on the scene of the crime. What will be basis
of the investigators in case they will hold you as one of the
responsible regarding the commission of the crime?

A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
D. All of these

13. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from

womb to tomb. What principle greatly described the phrase?

A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
D. All of these

14. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives

recognition to the science of fingerprint?

A. People Vs. Medina

B. People Vs. Jennings
C. Miranda Vs. Arizona
D. West Case

15. This refers to the study of fingerprints for the purpose of

identification.

A. Dactyloscopy
B. Dactylography
C. Podoscopy
D. Poroscopy

16. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the fingerprint cannot

be forged.

A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of constancy/permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
D. All of these

17. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants
stage which usually starts:

A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life

B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
D. 5th to 6th months after birth

18. Which of the following is not true about the value or the
importance of fingerprinting?

A. Serve to provide evidence

B. prevent criminal substitution
C. help identify victims of calamities like crime
D. speedily identifying the perpetrator

19. Fingerprints help to positively identify people because of the

principle that:

A. its pattern reveals racial origin

B. they are available in most places
C. no two persons have identical fingerprints
D. it can be lifted at the crime scene

20. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a person in which

he/she walks in a swaying movement due to knock- knee feet.

A. Ataxic Gait
B. Cow’s Gait
C. Spastic Gait
D. Paretic Gait

Note:
• Ataxic Gait- foot is raised high and brought down suddenly.
• Cerebellar Gait- staggering movement.
• Cow’s Gait- swaying movement due to knock-knee.
• Paretic Gait- steps are short and feet are dragged.
• Spastic Gait- steps and held together and walks in a stiff manner.
• Waddling Gait- duck-like walking.
• Frog Gait- hopping gait.

21. It is the lower or the inner layer of the skin that must not be
destructed for it could possibly create a permanent injury that may
result to the lost of the ridges. What is that canal like structure
found between the ridges?

A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. furrows
D. Delta

22. The core and delta are essential ridges to be used as a basis in
the counting of ridges once an imaginary line was drawn in between. It
is also termed as what?

A. Inner Terminus
B. Outer Terminus
C. Focal Point
D. Pattern Area

23. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT

A. bifurcation opening towards the delta

B. dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest to the center
and in front of the divergence of the type lines
D. a meeting of two ridges

24. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and
other type of delta found in the fingerprint?

A. Bifurcation is selected
B. the other type of delta is selected
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
D. the one towards the core is selected

25. It is located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes,

and soles appear corrugated skin structure known to the fingerprint
examiner as:

A. friction skin
B. handprints
C. fingerprints
D. volar skin

26. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines
where the characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is
found?

A. Loops
B. Ridges
C. Double lines
D. Pattern area

27. These are tiny portions or a hill-like structure found on the

epidermis of friction skin containing sweat, with pores appearing as
black lines in a fingerprint impression.

A. Imaginary lines
B. Black lines
C. Furrows
D. Ridges

28. Patterns possess all the characteristics needed on the

investigation that may be bring light on a certain case. What kind of
sweat gland that can be found underneath these patterns?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Apocrine gland

Note:
• Sebaceous Gland- glands that produce oil and fats.
• Lacrimal Gland- glands that produce tears.
• Apocrine- produced fat for breastmilk.

29. What is the fingerprint impression taken individually by rolling

each finger from one side to the other side and from the tip to the
end of the first joint?

A. Rolled Impression
B. Chance Impression
C. Plain Impression
D. A and B is correct

30. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled
impression?

A. both little finger

B. both thumb finger
C. all finger except thumb
D. both index finger

31. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?

A. Three
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Nine

32. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification, this

fingerprint pattern have two deltas in which at least one ridge makes
a turn through one complete circuit.

A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl (C)
C. Accidental loop (X)
D. Ulnar loop (U)

33. The bifurcation which does not remain open but whose legs after a
long side by side for short distance, come together to form a single
ridge once more is referred to as...

A. Enclosure
B. Converging ridges
C. Island ridge
D. Closed ridges

34. When a ridge bifurcates, it sends two ridges across the imaginary
line, how is it counted?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Six

35. PINS Cardo is examining a fingerprint pattern having a 2 delta and

a core with few spiral formations at the center but no complete
circuiting ridge is cut. What type of pattern INS Cardo is examining?

A. W
B. X
C. C
D. D

36. The following are the requisites of a loop except one,

A. It must have a core

B. It must have a complete circuit
C. It must have a delta
D. It must have a ridge count of at least one

37. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting

ridges flows towards the little finger?

A. Loop
B. Radial Loop
C. Ulnar Loop
D. Tented Arch

38. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an upthrust, or two of

the three basic characteristics of the loop?

A. Plain Arch
B. Tented Arch
C. Accidental Whorl
D. Ulnar Loop

39. What fingerprint pattern have slope or downward flow of the

innermost sufficient recurved towards the thumb of the radius bone of
the hand of origin.

A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop

40. Which is NOT true about accidental whorl?

A. It has a combination of two different patterns

B. It has two deltas
C. The plain arch is not included in the combination
D. It is subject of ridge tracing in the Key Division
41. The following are the requisites of a loop except one,

A. It must have a core

B. It must have a complete circuit
C. It must have a delta
D. It must have a ridge count of at least one

42. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the

intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between
the core and the delta.

A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these

43. What should be the ridge tracing interpretation if the tracing

ridge of the whorl goes above the right delta and there are three (3)
or more intervening ridges between the right delta and the tracing
ridge?

A. Outer Whorl
B. Inner Whorl
C. Meeting Whorl
D. Accidental Whorl

44. In ridge tracing, the reference is on

A. upper side or point of the extreme right delta

B. lower side or point of the extreme left delta
C. upper side or point of the moderate left delta
D. upper side or point of the moderate right delta

45. It is process of placing in under each pattern the letter symbols

representing their pattern interpretation prior to the actual
classification formula.

A.Checking
B. Classification
C. Blocking-out
D. Fingerprinting

46. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification

formula. Where whorls appear in the thumbs following the whorl
tracings subsecondary classification.

A. subsecondary
B. major division
C. key
D. final

47. What is the finger appearing five (5) blocks towards finger number
seven (7)?

A. Finger No. 1
B. Finger No. 2
C. Finger No. 3
D. Finger No. 5

48. What is the classification formula that is represented by a

numerical value appearing on the whorl pattern only but the value only
depends on what finger it appears?

A. Key Division
B. Major Division
C. Primary Division
D. Sub-secondary Division

49. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35%

is being represented by what group?

A. Loop
B. Whorl
C. Arch
D. Radial Loop
50. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in finger number
eight (8) is a loop, what is the numerical value of that finger?

A. None
B. 8
C. 16
D. 2

51. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorl pattern while in
the left hand are all loop pattern, what will be the primary
classification?

A. 25/29
B. 24/28
C. 25/1
D. 32/32

52. A 32 over 32 would indicate all ___ patterns in primary

classification.

A. whorl
B. loop
C. tented arch
D. radial

53. What are the three patterns involved in the secondary

classification (small-lettered group)?
A. Plain Whorl, Plain Arch, Ulnar Loop
B. Plain Arch, Tented Arch, Radial loop
C. Accidental Whorl, Central Pocket Loop, Double Loop Whorl
D. None of these

54. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears

on the middle finger and there are 12 ridge counts, what will be the
interpretation?

A. Ring
B. Outer
C. Inner
D. Middle

Note:
• Index Finger- 1-9 (Inner) 10 or more (Outer)
• Middle Finger- 1-10 (Inner) 11 or more (Outer)
• Ring Finger- 1-13 (Inner) 14 or more (Outer)

55. In the Major Division, what table should be used for the right
thumb when the left thumb reaches 17 or more?

A. Table No. 1
B. Table No. 3
C. Table No. 2
D. Table No. 4

Note:
Table No. 1 Table No. 2 1-11= SMALL 12-16= MEDIUM 17 or more= LARGE
1-17= SMALL 18-22= MEDIUM 23 or more= LARGE
Note: Table No.1 is use for both left and right thumb. If the left
thumb reaches 17 or more, the right thumb will use Table No. 2. It is
known as Exceptional.

56. From the same division above, what is the interpretation when the
ridge of the left thumb reaches fifteen (15)?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Inner

57. In the final division, ridge counting of loop is the usual process
being done once it appears in the little finger. If there is no loop
pattern in that finger, a whorl pattern shall be ridge counted. How
will you treat a Plain or Central Pocket Loop for the purpose of
getting its final classification?

A. Treated as an Ulnar Loop

B. Getting the least ridge count
C. By getting the ridge count of the top loop
D. It represents a dash
58. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the first loop appearing
on the fingerprint card (beginning with the right thumb), exclusive of
the little fingers which are never considered for the key as they are
reserved for the final.

A. primary
B. key
C. final
D. major

59. In case of an amputated finger, what shall be the interpretation

of the left index finger if the right index finger is amputated?

A. Plain whorl and meet tracing

B. The classification in the left index finger shall be same of that
the right index.
C. The classification of the right index finger shall be the same of
that the left index finger.
D. There is no interpretation at all.

60. In the classification line, the order should be

A. primary, secondary, subsecondary, final, key, major

B. major, key, primary, secondary, subsecondary final
C. key, major, primary, secondary, subsecondary, final
D. primary, secondary, subsecondary, major, key, final

61. A person committing a crime would always leave something behind

and may be considered as an integral part in the identification of the
suspect especially if it is a “Latent Print”. This prints are made
through the;

A. Ridge of the skin

B. Furrows of the skin
C. Ridge formation
D. Perspiration on top of the finger

62. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including

those left accidentally or unconsciously.

A. Chance Impressions
B. Latent Prints
C. Smudge Prints
D. Fragmentary Prints

Note:
• Chance Impressions- left at the crime scene accidentally or
unconsciously.
• Smudge Prints- those prints that are left by sliding motion.
• Fragmentary Prints- incomplete latent prints.

63. Mr. A applies for a job, and as a requirement he was advised to

present his NBI Clearance. On the way to the office of the NBI, he was
apprehensive that he will not be accommodated by the personnel because
of his two excess fingers in his right hand. The appearance of his
extra fingers is anatomically known as_____.

A. Polydactylism
B. Extra ordinary fingers
C. Excess Finger
D. Deformities

64. It is considered as simplest and traditional method in developing

prints in the scene of the crime.

A. Fuming Method
B. Laser Ion Argon
C. Rolling Method
D. Dusting Method

POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY

Photography- is the process of producing a photograph in the

sensitized material through the action of light with the aid of the
camera, the lens and its accessories after undergoing the development
process either mechanical or chemical. Forensic Photography- refers to
the use of photography in the application of administration of justice
from the police work up to its court presentation. Police Photography-
is the application of photography in the field of police work.

1. The word “Photo” is derived from what word?

A. Phos
B. Latin Word
C. Greek Word
D. light

2. When was the birth year of photography?

A. 1939
B. 1839
C. 1793
D. 1893

3. What country is the first who use photograph of crime scene in

court presentation?

A. Germany
B. US
C. Philippines
D. France

4. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police

work?

A. For identification
B. For preservation
C. For record purpose
D. For court presentation
5. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by
the action of electro-magnetic radiation rays.

A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Photography
D. Chemistry

6. What is the positive result of the process of photography.

A. Photograph
B. Film
C. Cellulose
D. Negative Film

7. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its application to

police work and the preparation of photographic evidence:

A. Cinematography
B. Police Photography
C. Forensic photography
D. Photography

8. A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the so-
called “mouse trap” cameras.

A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce

B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
C. Willian Henry Fox Talbot
D. Sir John Herschel

9. The science of obtaining photographic magnification of minute

objects by using a camera attached to a compound microscope. The
camera lens is removed because the microscope will serve as the lens
for the camera.

A. macrophotography
B. microphotography
C. photomicrography
D. photomicrography

Note:
PROCESS RESULT MACROPHOTOGRAPHY/ PHOTOMACROGRAPHY – attaching a macro
lens in camera.
Macrophotograph – enlarged image.
PHOTOMICROGRAPHY – attaching a camera in the microscope.
Photomicrograph – minute details.
MICROPHOTOGRAPHY – reducing the image into film strip.
Microphotograph – reduced image
TELEPHOTOGRAPHY – taking image of far distance object.
Telephotograph – image from far distance.

10. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step photography also
known as polaroid. What will be produce by LASER?

A. Polaroid
B. Holograms
C. Digital Camera
D. DSLR

11. It is considered as the “Forerunner of Modern Camera” which was

first invented by the Iraqi scientist Ibn al Haytham.
A. Daguerreotypes
B. Camera Obscura
C. Calotype
D. Talotype

12. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the extent
damage on the subject?

A. General View
B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot
D. Extreme Close-up shot

13. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the four
angles of the possible entrance and exit point of the suspect?

A. General View
B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot
D. Extreme Close-up shot

14. It is an electromagnetic energy that travels in a form of a wave

with the speed of 186,000 miles per second.

A. Light
B. Camera
C. Radio Waves
D. Lens

15. It is considered as the presence of all lights.

A. Black Light
B. White Light
C. Blue Light
D. Light Bulb

16. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which produced
what secondary color of light?

A. Magenta
B. Yellow
C. Cyan
D. Orange

17. What is the theory of light which opposes the wave stating that
light has its effect by the very small particles such as electrons?

A. Wave Theory
B. Corpuscular Theory
C. Modified Wave Theory
D. Quantum Theory

18. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon
called

A. Attraction
B. Diffraction
C. Light Curve
D. Light fingerprint
19. The changes in direction of light are conclusive whenever light
process from one medium to another. This is known as the phenomenon of
refraction.

A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Transparent
D. Refraction

20. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass through them
that the object on the other side may be clearly seen.

A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter

21. It is referred to as the measure of distance between two (2)

successive crest or through of wave and it is expressed in either
Millimicron (Nanometer) or Angstrom.

A. Light year
B. Frequency
C. Light Wavelength
D. Light Volume
22. It is a type of light in which their wavelength are either too
short or too long to excite the retina of the human eye.

A. Black Light
B. Visible Light
C. Invisible Light
D. Bright Sunlight

23. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening of

different items for industrial purposes.

A. long wave UV
B. medium wave UV
C. short wave UV
D. ultraviolet rays

24. It is a light source in which it already comes to existence and is

created by the divine providence without the intervention of humanity.

A. Artificial Light
B. Sunlight
C. Divine Light
D. Natural Light

25. It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a deep

and uniform or distinct shadow.
A. Bright sunlight
B. Hazy sunlight
C. Dull sunlight
D. Cloudy dull

Note:
• Natural Light- can be classified depending on the shadow produced.
• Bright Sunlight- deep and uniform shadow.
• Hazy Sunlight- provides bluish and transparent shadow.
• Dull Sunlight- no shadow at all.
26. It is an artificial light describes as containing wire filaments
that connects them which sustains the electrical charge that combines
them.

A. Photoflood Lamp
B. Fluorescent Lamp
C. Incandescent Bulb
D. Flash Bulb

27. What will be the lighting condition if you are going to take a
photograph using a film speed of ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250
with an aperture of f8?

A. bright
B. hazy
C. dull
D. open light

28. What refers to the film and photographic paper that is composed of
emulsion containing silver halides and suspended in gelatin?

A. Photo Paper
B. Film
C. Silver Halides
D. Sensitized Material

29. It is a part of the sensitized material which is designed to hold

back the light and prevents halation.

A. Anti-halation Backing
B. Base
C Coat of Animal Gelatin
D. Emulsion

Note:
• Emulsion- it refers to the upper layer of the sensitized material
that actually creates the positive print.
• Base- supports the emulsion.
• Coat of Animal Gelatin- to prevent scratch or damage to the
sensitized material.

30. A black and white films possess several characteristics such as

speed, spectral and granularity. The speed will be referring to the
sensitivity of the film to light and the spectral is the sensitivity
to ________________.

A. Film Speed
B. Wavelength
C. Electromagnetic Energy
D. all of these

Note:
• Film Speed- sensitivity of the film to light.
• Spectral Sensitivity- sensitivity of the light to different
wavelength.

31. It is a type of film according to spectral sensitivity wherein the

film is sensitive to UV light up to the green light only.

A. Blue-Sensitive Film
B. Orthochromatic Film
C. Panchromatic Film
D. Infra-red Film
Note:
• Blue-Sensitive Film- sensitive to UV light to Blue
• Panchromatic Film- sensitive to UV light to Green
• Infra-red Film- sensitive to UV light to Infra-red

32. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?

A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GNP

33. Photographic papers are classified into according to its emulsion

speed, physical characteristics, surface texture, color, and contrast.
What are the essential classifications of photographic paper which is
considered as ideal to police work?

A. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, Cream, and Velox #2

B. Silver bromide Paper, Light Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #3
C. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #2
D. Silver chloride Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #0

34. The following are the essential parts of the camera EXCEPT:

A. Light Tight Box

B. Lens
C. Tripod
D. Shutter

35. A type of camera in which the lens and shutter mounted to body by
means of an accordion-pleated bellows, which can be folded into camera
foe ease of carrying.

A. accordion camera
B. folding camera
C. bellowed camera
D. SLR

36. What is the main purpose of the camera as an essential element of

photography?

A. It is designed to collect or focus the reflected light from the

object to form image on the film. (LENS)
B. It is designed to block the unwanted or unnecessary light from
reaching the sensitized material.
C. It is created to control the passage of light once it reaches the
sensitized material. (SHUTTER)
D. None of these.

37. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography and also

eliminate the parallax error?

A. View Finder Type

B. Single Lens Reflex
C. Twin Lens Reflex
D. Press/View Camera

Note:
• View Finder- it is the earliest type of camera.
• Twins Lens Reflex- a camera that has two lens: focus and capture.
• Press/View Camera- a large type of camera that is being used by
media.
38. In the modernization of the photography, DSLR camera almost
dominated the market because of its great features that are very
useful in commercial photo shoots. What do DSLR means?

A. Double system reflex camera

B. Dual Single reflex camera
C. Digital System reflex camera
D. Digital Single reflex camera

39. It is the part of the film holder of the camera that usually
houses the film cartridge.

A. sprocket
B. locking catch
C. guide roller
D. cavity

40. This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental movement of

the camera during the exposure period.

A. Tripod
B. Cable release
C. Light meter
D. Extinction meter

41. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the
lens for a predetermined time interval.

A. shutter
B. holder of sensitized material
C. view finder
D. lens

42. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that
when the shutter is fully opened, that’s the time that the flash will
yield its highest peaks of illumination called?

A. bounce flash
B. synx
C. on camera flash
D. synchronization

43. The Fish–eye lens is a special type of camera having a view angle
of:
A. 60 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 360 degree

44. Which of the following is TRUE about the shutter speed of the
camera?

A. The faster the shutter speed, the more light it can transmit.
B. The shutter speed setting of 1⁄2 is slower than the shutter speed
of 1/60.
C. The shutter speed setting of 1/250 is faster than the shutter speed
of 1/500.
D. The slower the shutter speed, the less light it can transmit.

Note
• Shutter Speed- regulates the time exposure of the film.
- the faster the shutter speed, the less light will be exposed on the
film. The slower the speed, the more light will be exposed in the
film.

The fraction on the left is 2x powerful faster than the right. 1/1 1⁄2
1⁄4 1/8 1/15 1/30 1/60 1/125 1/250 1/500

45. Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to affect

the sensitized material at a given time.

A. Exposure
B. Aperture
C. Shutter
D. Shutter speed

46. It is a part of the camera which defines as the ratio between the
diameter of the whole lens in relation to the focal length of the lens
is referred to as,

A. Lens Aperture
B. Lens Opening
C. Focal Distance
D. Both A and B

Note:
• Lens Aperture- the bigger the diaphragm opening, the more light it
will pass through.

-the smaller the diaphragm opening, the less light it will pass
through. - the lower the f-number, the bigger the diaphragm opening.

The number on the right is 2x powerful in terms of light gathering

than the left
f-2.8 f-4 f-5.6 f-8 f-11 f-16
47. A device made of thin overlapping metal leaves within a lens or
camera which can be adjusted to specific apertures of f-stops to
control the amount of light that strikes the film.

A. shutter
B. diaphragm
C. aperture
D. diaphragm opening

48. All practical lens images such as point a small blur which changes
in character with the change of lens aperture. The statement best
describe:

A. Diaphragm as a controller of depth of field

B. Diaphragm as a controller of speed
C. Diaphragm as a controller of definition
D. Aperture

49. It is the mechanism of the camera designed to control the degree

of sharpness of the object to be photograph.

A. Range Finder
B. Ground Glass
C. Focusing
D. Scale Bed

Note:
• Range Finder- refers to the coincidence or split image type
• Groundglass- object will be viewed to be blurred and will turn sharp
once adjusted.
• Scale Bed- estimating the distance of the object and adjusting the
camera control.

50. In photography using microprism, the image on focus will usually

shatter of an out of focus image and when it is exactly in focus the
prisms seems to disappear. These microprisms are primarily found on:

A. lens
B. filter
C. viewfinder
D. groundglass

51. Pedro was taking a snap shot and expecting it to be sharp but an
alteration happened to the expected image because it can be seen in
two viewpoints. What is that phenomenon?

A. out of focus
B. coincidence
C. parallax
D. split image Focusing Malfunctions:

Note:
• Out of Focus (Coincidence)- a single object will appear double.
• Split-image- the image that is photographed will split into two
parts.

52. It is the medium or mean which converges or diverges light rays

that passes through it and able to form an image.

A. Lens
B. Camera
C. Mirror
D. None of these

53. It is a type of lens which characterized that it is thicker at the

center and thinner at the side and forms the image inversely.

A. Concave Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Converging Lens
D. All of the Above

Note:
Two types of Lenses: a. Convex (Positive or Converging Lens) b.
Concave (Negative or Diverging Lens)- characterized by thinner at the
center and thicker at the side and produced a virtual image.

54. It is an inherent lens aberration wherein the lens has an

inability to focus light passing through it and producing an image
that is sharp in the center and blurred at the side.

A. Spherical Aberration
B. Coma
C. Chromatic Aberration
D. Flare

Note:
• Coma- lateral aberration; light travelling straight makes it
blurred.
• Curvature of Field- relation of the images in the different points
are incorrect.
• Chromatic Aberration- inability of the lens to focus light in
varying wavelength.
• Distortion- defect in shape. It can either be Pincushion (curving
outward) or Barrel (curving inward)
• Flare- producing multiple images.

55. It is a type of lens which is capable of correcting astigmatism.

A. Meniscus Lens
B. Anastigmat Lens
C. Rapid Rectilinear Lens
D. Achromatic Lens
Note:
• Meniscus Lens- lens with no correction.
• Achromatic Lens- correcting chromatic aberration.
• Rapid Rectilinear Lens- lens corrected of distortion.
• Apochromatic Lens- lens used to correct both astigmatism and
chromatic aberration.

56. A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity making it
hard to obtain sharp images.

A. curvature of field
B. spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration
D. coma

57. This effect causes images to be spherized which means the edges of
images look curved and bowed to the human eye.

A. pincushion distortion
B. spherical aberration
C. barrel distortion
D. wavy field curvature

58. It is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens is
set to focus at infinite position. It is also known as the fundamental
characteristics of a lens that will determine the size of an image and
area of coverage of the lens

A. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Distance
C. Depth of Field
D. Relative Aperture

59. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given

particular diaphragm opening which will give the maximum depth of
field is-

A. Focal distance
B. subject distances
C. hyper focal distance
D. focal length

60. The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in
apparent sharp focus when the lens is focused at a given point.

A. Angle of view
B. Focal Length
C. Depth of Field
D. Focus
61. It is a focal lens not longer than the diagonal half of the
negative which is useful in taking photograph at short distance with
wider area coverage.

A. Normal or Medium Focus <35mm<70mm

B. Wide Angle or Short Focus <35mm
C. Long or Telephoto Lens >70mm
D. Zoom Lens (variable lens)- positive and negative lens

62. The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many

photographs as he can. The first shot that he should make just after
reaching the crime scene is the house where the crime of murder was
committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the façade of the house,
what lens should he utilize?

A. telephoto lens
B. macro lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens

63. SPO2 Cardo with his team conducted a thorough stakeout of a

certain building in Hotel Sogo. In order to document all the movements
of their subjects, they applied the principles of photography with the
aid of what particular lens mechanism?

A. wide angle lens

B. zoom lens
C. telephoto lens
D. fish eye lens

64. It is a stage of the chemical process in which it is being done to

reduce the silver halides to form the image.

A. Development
B. Stop Bath
C. Fixation
D. Dodging

Note:
• Stop bath- prevent contamination between the developer and the acid
fixer.
• Fixation- all unexposed silver halides are dissolved.

65. It is the main fixing agent that dissolves unexposed silver

halides.

A. Acetic Acid
B. Sodium Sulfate
C. Potassium Bromide
D. Sodium Thiosulfate

66. It is the process of eliminating unwanted portion of the negative

during the enlarging process.

A. Cropping
B. Dodging
C. Vignetting
D. Dye Toning

Note:
• Cropping- omitting an object during the process of enlarging.
• Vignetting- gradual fading of the image towards the side.
• Dye Toning- changing the color tone of the photograph.

FORENSIC BALLISTICS

1. It is the science of mobility of the projectile and the condition

that affects their motion.

A. Forensic Ballistics
B. Applied Physics
C. Ballistics
D. Applied Science

2. The word “Ballistics” comes from the Greek Words “ballo” or

“ballein” which means ___________.

A. To Punch
B. To throw
C. To slide
D. To shoot

3. It refers to the mobility or the movement of the projectile once it

leaves the muzzle and until it reaches the target or fall in the
ground.

A. Motion
B. Ballistics
C. Ballista
D. Trajectory

4. It is a type of motion of a projectile wherein the action of the

bullet travelling passing through the rifled barrel is either twisted
to the left or to the right.

A. Direct Motion
B. Rotatory Motion
C. Translational Motion
D. Motion to Quash Types of Motion

5. It is a branch of ballistics that treats of the motion of a

projectile while still inside the firearm.

A. Interior ballistics
B. Terminal ballistics
C. Exterior ballistics
D. Forensic ballistics

6. This is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from
the gun muzzle and target.

A. Air Resistance
B. Velocity
C. Trajectory
D. Pull of Gravity

7. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path
after striking a resistant surface.

A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
8. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in
firing?

A. Knocking Power
B. Hang fire
C. Recoil
D. None of these

9. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of

the bore.

A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching

10. The following conditions are NOT attributed to external

ballistics, EXCEPT:

A. Firing pin hitting the primer.

B. Ignition of the priming mixture.
C. Energy generated at the muzzle point.
D. Rotation of the bullet inside the muzzle.

11. It is termed as the stability of the bullet in flight particularly

in the parabola, which was credited to the construction of the
rifling.

A. velocity
B. stability in flight
C. gyroscopic action
D. parabolic like flight

12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot
where the bullet travel straight.

A. Maximum Range
B. Maximum Effective Range
C. Accurate Range
D. Effective Range

Note:
• Effective Range- still capable of inflicting fatal injury.
• Maximum Range- farthest distance the bullet could travel.
• Maximum Effective Range- farthest distance the bullet could take
damage.

13. In the terminal ballistics, It refers to the size of the bullet

groupings on the target.

A. Terminal penetration
B. Terminal velocity
C. Terminal energy
D. Terminal accuracy

Note:
• Terminal Penetration- depth of entry of the bullet.
• Terminal Velocity- speed of the bullet after hitting the target.
• Terminal Energy- force of the projectile after hitting the target.

14. It is the rearward movement of the firearm after explosion.

A. velocity of the bullet

B. recoil of the firearm
C. rotation of the bullet
D. inside the barrel energy generated

14. PINS Tina Moran was tasked to examine whether the questioned
bullet was fired from the suspected firearm and prepare her deductions
for court testimony. The situation was part of what branch of
ballistics?

A. Firearms Identification
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceeding
D. Forensic ballistics

15. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert

examination of firearms, bullets and shells that would determine
whether or not a particular bullet is fired from a particular firearm,
and whether or not a particular shell is loaded and ejected from the
same firearm and it is conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase
of forensic ballistics best describes the statement?
A. Field investigation
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceedings
D. None of the above

Note:
• Field Investigation- phase of forensic ballistic which is conducted
at the crime scene.
• Technical examination- all related ballistics exam is conducted in
the laboratory.
• Legal Proceedings- preparation of ballistic evidences in the court
proceedings.

16. The rearward movement termed as recoil of the firearm is a natural

phenomenon because of the expansion and explosion which was put into
used by ____ to create a fully automatic mechanism of the firearm.

A. John M. Browning
B. Tyler Henry
C. Hiram Maxim
d. Horace Smith

17. He patented the very first practical revolver in which the

cylinder will rotate if the hammer is cocked known as the single
action mechanism. The statement is referring to Samuel Colt but that
mechanism was put into used because of the percussion system by:

A. Samuel Colt
B. Hiram Maxim
C. David Williams
D. Alexander John Forsyth

18. He gave his name to a whole class of firearms; he is also the

manufacturer of the Pocket Pistol.

A. John M. Browning
B. Samuel Colt
C. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
D. Henry Derringer

19. He invented a submachine gun in the 1950’s which was used by the
Israeli Army during its Sinai campaign in 1956.
A. Alexander John Forsyth
B. Uziel Gal
C. Major Patrick Ferguson
D. John C. Garand

20. The very first self-exploding cartridges were invented on 1836 and
it was called as the pin-fire cartridge which came into realization
through the invention of:

A. Le Faucheux
B. Hiram Maxim
C. Flobert
D. Alexander John Forsyth

21. It is the most prominent American maker of repeating firearms

since 1850.

A. Volcanic repeating arms company

B. Browning firearms company
C. Winchester repeating arms company
D. All of these

22. The following are the laws that give the legal and technical
definition of Firearms:

A. Sec. 877 of the Revised Administrative Code

B. Sec. 290 of the National Internal Revenue Code
C. Republic Act No. 8294
D. All of the Above

23. This refers to the classification of firearms wherein it has no

rifling inside their gun barrel.

A. Rifled Bore Firearm

B. Smooth Bore Firearms
C. Machine guns
D. Shotguns

24. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure by?

A. Gauge
B. Caliber
C. Lands
D. Grooves

25. This refers to the firearms that propels projectile with more than
one (1) inch in diameter.

A. Artillery
B. Small Arms
C. Rifles
D. Carbine

26. It is an ancient smoothbore and loading shoulder arms designed to

fire a shot or a single round lead ball.

A. Shotgun
B. Rifle
C. Carbine
D. Muskets

27. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?

A. Carbine
B. Pistol
C. Revolver
D. Rifle

28. It is a barrel construction of a shotgun in which there is a

diminishing bore diameter towards its muzzle.

A. Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun

B. Choke Bore type shotgun
C. Paradox Type Shotgun
D. Single Barrel Shotgun

Note:
• Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun- bore size is the same up to the barrel.
• Paradox Type Shotgun- rifling a few each at the muzzle end.

29. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in the 15th to 17th

centuries. Like its successor, the musket, it is a smoothbore firearm,
but it is lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of the rifle
and other long-arm firearms.

A. arquebus
B. musket
C. blunderbuss
D. rifle

30. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge

stored in the handle are called.

A. Pistols
B. Revolver
C. Self-loading pistol
D. Automatic Firearm

31. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time form simple to a
more sophisticated firearm. According to history, it was believed the
word pistol was taken from the Italian word Pistoia which literally
means:

A. small gun
B. coin
C. city
D. hand gun

32. It is a type of firearm designed to fire several loads (shot) in

one loading.

A. Single Shot Firearms

B. Repeating Firearms
B. Double Action
D. Single Action

33. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.

A. Housing
B. Frame
C. Casing
D. Chamber

34. It is the mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells

from the chamber?
A. Ejector
B. Extractor
C. Firing pin
D. Extractor pin

35. These are devices that are not really designed to become a weapon
but because of its mechanism that is the same as those in the firearm
they are already considered as miscellaneous guns.

A. tool
B. zip guns
C. traps
D. cane guns

36. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people were found
dead on the scene of the crime. During the incident, it was found out
that the firearm involve uses a pistol size ammunition but having
contains a shoulder stock because it was fired in a distance. The
scene was filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty
magazine recovered. If you are the investigator, what type of firearm
was used?

A. machine gun
B. sub machine gun
C. automatic firearm
D. none of these

37. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime
scene?

A. Picking it through the handle

B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel

38. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine number of vehicle

restored?

A. By polishing stamped serial number

B. By cleaning obliterated surface
C. By removing the zone of strain
D. By applying etching reagent

39. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due to rusting
of the action of salts deposited from the gunpowder is:

A. pressure
B. corrosion
C. erosion
D. decomposition

40. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to a group of

cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge. What is now a
cartridge?

A. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup, priming

mixture, and the anvil
B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge case,
gunpowder and primer
C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove, shell head,
and the crimp
D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the base
41. The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the rapid
development of the

A. Pin-fire cartridge
B. Center-fire cartridge
C. Rim fire cartridge
D. None of these

Note:
• Pin-fire (La Facheux)- ignition cap is hidden inside the cartridge.
• Rim Fire (Flobert)- primer is at the rim of the cartridge.
• Center Fire- primer is at the center of the base.

42. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of

the rim is larger than the diameter of the shell’s body?

A. Belted type
B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type
D. Rimmed case

Note:
• Rimless- the shell’s diameter is equal. No rim.
• Rebated- rim diameter is smaller than the shell.
• Belted Type- a belt is located around the shell’s body.

43. The following are the advantages of using cartridges, except:

A. greatly speeded the loading of weapons

B. avoided waste of powder from spillage
C. soldiers carry with them a bag of powder and the ball bullets to
battles every time
D. provided a uniform charge from shot to shot

44. The very first self-exploding cartridges were invented on 1836 and
it was called as the pin-fire cartridge which came into realization
through the invention of:

A. Le Faucheux
B. Hiram Maxim
C. Flobert D.
Alexander John Forsyth

45. The unit of measurement of a shotgun is expressed in gauge,

however, it is still convertible into inch. What is the equivalent of
10 Gauge shotgun to inch?

A. .410 inch
B. .775 inch
C. .729 inch
D. .670 inch

46. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a

bright flame at its base and usually colored red-tip.

A. Armor piercing
B. Tracer bullet
C. Incendiary bullet
D. Explosive

Note:
• Armor piercing- capable of penetrating light armor.
• Incendiary Bullet (blue-tip)- target will burst into flame.
• Explosive Bullet- detonates upon impact on target.

47. The word bullet was derived from the French word, “Boulette” which
means ___________.

A. stone
B. a metal
C. A small ball
D. None of these

48. A cartridge case is a metallic or non-metallic container that

holds the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into one or otherwise known
as the shell or casing. What does the cartridge case made up of?

A. 30% copper and 70% zinc

B. 40% nitroglycerine and 60% nitrocellulose
C. 70% copper and 30% zinc
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal, and 10% sulfur

49. According to the diameter of the base or rim of the cartridge

cases, which is common to revolver and shot gun cartridges?

A. Diameter is greater than the body

B. presence of extracting grooves
C. Diameter of rim is equal to the body
D. Made of brass case

50. It is the part of the cartridge case designed to limit the forward
movement of the cartridge to the chamber.

A. Extracting Grooves
B. Base
C. Primer Pocket
D. Rim

51. It is a hole at the bottom of the primer pocket where the ignited
priming mixture will pass through to impart an ignition to the
propellant.

A. Cannelure
B. Crimp
C. Vent or Flash Hole
D. Base

Note:
• Cannelure- prevent the bullet from being pushed down.
• Crimp- prevent bullet from being pulled out.

52. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer (Colonel Hiram S. Berdan)
C. Battery Primer
D. Boxer Primer

53. It is the ignition system of the cartridge used in a center fire

type, containing a highly sensitive chemical compound that would
ignite into flame once hit by the firing pin.

A. Primer
B. Priming Mixture
C. Anvil
D. Disc
54. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?

A. At the base
B. Side or body of the shell
C. At the rim
D. Any of these

55. It is that mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed

to propel the projectile by means of expansive force of gases when
burned.

A. Propellant
B. Gun Powder
C. Potassium Nitrate
D. Either A or B Gun Powder Development

Note:
• Black Powder- oldest known explosive and contains Potassium Nitrate
(75%), charcoal (15%) and sulfur (10%)
• Smokeless Powder- presently used gun powder.
➢ Capt. E. Schultze- first smokeless powder in shotgun.
➢ Paul Vielle- first smokeless powder in rifle

56. Smokeless powders were first invented by Paul Vielle making its
way to become the very first satisfactory smokeless powder. It was
first release in what place?

A. Italy
B. France
C. England
D. Rome

57. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are

determinable even before the manufacture of the firearm?

A. Class Characteristics
B. Individual Characteristics
C. Repetitive mark
D. accidental mark

58. Characteristics which are determinable only after the manufacture

of the firearm.

A. class characteristics
B. forensic characteristics
C. rifling characteristics
D. Individual characteristics

59. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the
standpoint of the identification expert is:

A. reaming operation
B. rifling operation
C. lapping operation
D. drilling operation Manufacture of Barrel

Note:
• Drilling- creating a hole in the firearm.
• Reaming- smoothens and polishing the hole.
• Rifling- making helical grooves on the barrel.
• Lapping- applying breech face at the rear of the barrel.
60. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves
or one complete turn.

A. Pitch of rifling
B. Bore diameter
C. Lands and grooves
D. Bullet twisting Class Characteristics

61. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is
fired from the barrel of a firearm with identical class
characteristics as that of:

A. Browning
B. Colt
C. Smith and Wesson
D. Steyr Types of Rifling

Note:
• Steyer- 4LGR
• Carbine- 4LG2XR
• Smith & Wesson- 5LGR
• Colt- 6LG2XL
• Browning- 6LG2XR
• Winchester- 6LG3XR
• Webley- 7LG3XR

62. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:

A. Oversized barrel
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion Marks found at the Fired Bullets

Note:
• Land Marks- caused by lands of the firearm.
• Groove Marks- caused by grooves of the firearm.
• Skid Marks- caused by the forward motion of the bullet inside the
chamber.
• Stripping Marks- due to loose fit barrel.
• Shaving Marks- due to poorly aligned cylinder.
• Slippage Marks- passing through oily or oversized barrel.

63. It is a mark found at the base portion of the mouth of the shell
caused by backward movement to the breech face of the block of the
firearm.

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Breech Face Mark
C. Extractor Mark
D. Magazine Lip Mark Marks found on Fired Shells

Note:
• Firing Pin Mark- found at the base portion due to firing pin of the
firearm.
• Extractor Mark- found at the extracting groove due to its
withdrawal.
• Ejector Mark- located near the rim of the cartridge after he shell
have been thrown out.
• Shearing Mark- “Secondary Pin Mark”
• Magazine Lip Mark- found at the rim due to loading of cartridge to
the magazine.
• Chamber Mark- around the body of the cartridge because of the
firearms chamber.
64. What do you call the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of
rifling firearms?

A. Torsion Balance
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper

65. What instrument is used in measuring the velocity of the bullet?

A. Calipher
B. Torsion Balance
C. Helixometer
D. Chronograph

QUESTIONED DOCUMENT

1. Any material that contains a mark symbol or sign, either visible,

partially visible or invisible that may presently or ultimately convey
a meaning or a message to someone.]

A. Document
B. Standard Document
C. Questioned Document
D. Public Document

2. A condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate

and proper should contain a cross section of the material from known
sources is:

A. Disguised document
B. Public Document
C. Standard document
D. Official document

3. It is a classification of document in which it is issued by a

public official in the exercise of the functions of his office.

A. Public Document
B. Official Document
C. Private Document
D. Commercial Document

4. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private

parties but notarized by competent officials.

A. private document
B. Commercial document
C. public document
D. Official document

5. Majority of questioned document cases are concerned with _________?

A. Documents Age
B. Disproving Alibis
C. Proving Authorship
D. Counterfeiting

6. Questioned document examination is known by many names except one:

A. Forensic document examination

B. Document classification
C. Handwriting examination
D. Handwriting analysis

7. The art of beautiful writing is known as

A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Cacography

8. Which of these refers to the art of determining the character or

disposition of person by analyzing his handwriting?

A. Calligraphy
B. Graphology
C. Haplography
D. QD Examination

9. It is a type of standard document executed in the day to day

activities and is being produced in the regular course of man’s
activity.

A. Notarized Document
B. Contemporary Document
C. Collected/Procured Document
D. Requested/Dictated Document

10. If a document is disputed by one or more persons because of the

materials used in their production, then such document is considered?

A. Questioned Document
B. Holographic Documents
C. Disputed Documents
D. Falsified Document

11. In this class of questioned documents, papers, inks, watermarks

and the continuity of all the writing in the document is being
considered and scrutinized.

A. documents attacked on the question of their age and date

B. documents attacked on the question of materials in their production
C. holograph documents questioned or disputed
D. documents containing alleged fraudulent alterations

12. In the history of questioned document examination, who was the

British examiner of questioned document who said that an intelligent
police investigator can detect almost 75% of all forgeries by careful
inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring tools
was;

A. Alphonse Bertillion
B. Detective Allan Pinkerton
C. Dr. Wilson Harrison
D. Richard Henry

13. Contemporary handwriting standards means that the age of the

standards should be within?

A. 8 years from the date of the question document

B. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
C. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document
D. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned document
14. What is the Latin word for “paper”

A. cartouche (French)
B. penna
C. charta
D. papyrus (Egyptian)

15. It is the combination of then basic shape and designs of letter

and the writing instrument which was taught in school.

A. Copy Book Form

B. System of Writing
C. Handwriting
D. Writing Movement

16. It is a line whether imaginary or straight line in which the

writing rest.

A. Slant
B. Baseline
B. Cursive Line
D. Rhythm

17. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing

system.

A. Copy book form

B. Line quality
C. System of writing
D. Writing movement

18. It refers to any repeated elements of a person’s handwriting which

serves as identifying characteristics.

A. Handwriting
B. Significant Writing Habits
C. Writing
D. Writing Habits Development of Writing

19. It is a specimen of writing executed deliberately with an attempt

of changing its usual writing habits to hide his/her identity.

A. Natural Writing
B. Hand lettering
C. Guided/Assisted Writing
D. Disguised

20. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, document

examiner must be able to observe the ________.

A. Characteristics of his handwriting

B. Writing position of the writer
C. Manner on how the writer moves the pain
D. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting

21. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and painful due
to weakness and illness.
A. tremors
B. wrist movement
C. quality of movement
D. whole arm movement
22. It is a name of a person which represent as an identification in a
document and serves as an acknowledgement of the document signed.

A. Evidential Signature
B. Model Signature
C. Signature
D. Fingerprint

23. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or traced forgery

is known as

A. Evidential Signature
B. Forged Signature
C. Model signature
D. Repeated Signature

24. Mr. A, a Chief of the Intelligence Division of PNP, will sign a

“Confidential” file as an approval regarding the operation against the
notorious drug syndicate in their locality. What class of signature
does Mr. A executed?

A. Formal or Complete
B. Informal or Cursory
C. Careless Scribble
D. Forgery Classes of Signature

Note:
• Formal or Complete- for vital documents.
• Informal/Cursory- for daily or routine documents.
• Careless Scribble- not very important document.

25. A fraudulent signature whereby there is no apparent attempt at

simulation or imitation, or the person (suspect) merely signs the name
in his name and or used another signature and possess the document
before the fraud is discovered.

A. Fraudulent Forgery
B. Spurious Forgery/Simple Forgery
C. Simulated Forgery
D. Traced Forgery Types of Forgery

26. A signature in a check is suspected to have been forged. The

signatory does not remember categorically whether he had issued the
check. The signature was compared with a genuine signature but both
were in the same in size and shape. What will be your conclusion about
the signature?

A. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of the check

B. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in size and shape \
C. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the issuance of the check
D. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all aspects when
compared

27. A document becomes questioned documents when _____ or alterations,

this usually affect the original meaning of a document.

A. Forge
B. Fraudulent
C. Changes
D. Signature
28. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is
forgery, but it is very difficult on the other hand to establish who
committed the forgery because:

A. the forger might be a left handed

B. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise one’s
handwriting
C. it might be a traced forgery
D. there is no sufficient standard available

29. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation

B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance

30. Mr. Bean is a good writer in town. Many of her books were
successfully published and were being loved by her fans because of the
trademark of Mr. Navilla’s penmanship. If you are going to examine the
handwriting of Mr. Navilla, what will be the right term for Mr.
Navilla’s trade mark of penmanship?

A. Writing Maturity
B. Personal Legibility
C. Writing skill
D. Individual Characteristic

31. It is a type of characteristics which is commonly found in the

specimen writing of other persons.

A. Gross Characteristics
B. Individual Characteristics
C. Class Characteristics
D. A and C

32. The rounded inner part of an upper curve, bend or crook of a

letter.
A. Humps
B. Blunt
C. Arc
D. Beard

Note:
• Beard- introductory up and down stroke.
• Humps- outer part of the upper curve.
• Blunt- abrupt beginning or end.

33. It is the body of the letter which is described as a small rounded

or circular strokes.

A. Central Part
B. Buckle Knot
C. Ductus-link
D. Eyelet-eyeloop

Note:
• Buckle Knot- horizontal loop strokes to complete letters.
• Ductus-link- connection between letters.
• Eyelet- small oblong strokes.

34. It is an introductory backward strokes found in most capital

letters.
A. Hiatus
B. Hitch
C. Knob
D. Loop

Note:
• Hiatus- obvious gap between letters.
• Knob- tiny pool of ink at beginning or end of letters.
• Loop- oblong strokes.

35. It is term as “the backbone of the letter” characterized by a long

downward stroke.

A. Stem
B. Initial/terminal Spur
C. Through
D. Whirl

Note:
• Whirl- long upward stroke opposite the stem.
• Initial/terminal Stroke- long running initial or terminal stroke.
• Through- garland form of strokes.

36. It is an additional stroke that serves as an ornament or artistic

design to a letter which is not relevant to a writing.

A. Embellishment
B. Rubrics
C. Diacritics
D. A or B

37. One the points that should be considered in QD examination is the

familiarization of the shape and design of individual letters of the
source which was referred to as the:

A. characteristics
B. form
C. individual characteristics
D. rhythm

38. It is a type of writing movement which is usually found on a child

who starts to learn how to write or draw.

A. Hand Movement
B. Finger Movement
C. Forearm Movement
D. Whole Arm Movement Types of Movement

39. PINSP. Polpol is investigating a fraudulent handwriting having

clear cut strokes and an evident lack of freedom. This is an
indication that:

A. The writer is using his fingers in writing

B. The has intentionally slowing his writing speed to disguise it
C. The writer has a very fine handwriting
D. All of these

40. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it offers

ability of distinguishing characteristics which are normal and
disguised. What was being emphasized in the statement?

A. Examination
B. Distinguishing
C. Familiarization
D. Analysis

41. It refers to the average or usual pressure applied in the writing.

A. Pen Pressure
B. Pen Emphasis
C. Rhythm
D. Skills

42. It is an interruption in the stroke caused by the immediate

removal of the writing pen from the surface of the paper.

A. Pen Position
B. Pen Scope
C. Shading
D. Pen Lift

Note:
• Pen Position- position of pen in the paper surface.
• Pen Scope- reach of the hand while the wrist is at rest.
• Shading- increase in the width of letter.

43. It is the stroke which goes back over the previous writing
strokes.

A. Retracing
B. Retouching
C. Patching
D. Shading

44. It is the usual or normal individual’s handwriting.

A. Transitory Change
B. Natural Variations
C. Tremor
D. Writing Conditions

45. A person who can write either with his left or right hand is
called–

A. Ambidextrous
B. Analogous
C. Bicephalous
D. Dextrous or Dexterous

46. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.

A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk

47. An ink that is made by grinding carbon in the form of vegetable

char with varnish made of natural gums and drying oils.

A. Record ink
B. Liquid-lead pencil ink
C. Stamp-pad inks
D. Printing ink
48. If ballpoint was patented by John Loud, who patented the first
practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir?

A. William Mitchel
B. Lewis Waterman
C. Swamp Reed
D. Harrison Ford

49. This are usually the result from contact with the other writings.

A. Folds and Creases

B. Blots
C. Perforation
D. Smears

50. It refers to any form of changes either by addition or deletion to

the original document which is not a content of its original
preparation.

A. Erasure
B. Alteration
C. Mechanical Erasure
D. Chemical Erasure

51. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor

blade or picking instrument.

A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure (use of bleaching agent)

52. It is a process of spreading too much ink over an original writing

to make it undecipherable or illegible.

A. Obliteration
B. Charred Document
C. Contact Writing
D. Invisible Writing

53. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.

A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment

54. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes

the surface of the paper from the back or at the bottom, usually
designed in identification of water markings?

A. Direct Light
B. Side Light
C. Oblique Light
D. Transmitted Light
55. In a conventional typewriter, it refers to the printing surface of
the type block in which each letter will be found.

A. Characters
B. Typeface
C. Alphabet
D. None of these

56. It is an abnormality in the type printing in which it refers to

the actual damage to the typeface metal.

A. Mal-Alignment
B. Permanent Defects
C. Typeface Defects
D. Transitory Defects

57. It is a type of mal-alignment wherein a character is printed above

or below its correct position.

A. Horizontal Mal-alignment
B. Vertical Mal-alignment
C. Twisted Letters
D. Off-its-Feet

58. It is a typeface defect in which the print provides a double or

overlapping impression.

A. Actual Breakage
B. Rebound
C. Actual Breakage
D. Clogged Typeface

59. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which the characters is

12 inch horizontal.

A. Pica (10)
B. Elite
C. Typewriter
D. Betamax

60. A document examiner with a good collection of typewriting samples

can often date a typewritten document by the difference in type. This
is due to the fact that

A. typewriters change in design every year

B. the presence of differing n and m designs between 1936 and 1940
C. the presence of differing m and w designs between 1936 and 1940
D. typewriters changed between 1936 and 1940

61. The author of a typewritten document can be identified through

A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar composition, and

paragraphing
B. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine
C. design and style of the typewriter’s character
D. brand and model of the typewriter

62. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of passing,

delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to another person?

A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Reproduction
D. Uttering

63. A document examiner with a good collection of typewriting samples

can often date a typewritten document by the difference in type. This
is due to the fact that

A. typewriters change in design every year

B. the presence of differing n and m designs between 1936 and 1940
C. the presence of differing m and w designs between 1936 and 1940
D. typewriters changed between 1936 and 1940
64. It is the identifying of similarities and dissimilarities,
determination of likelihood of occurrence, and weighing down of the
significance of each factor.

A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. All of these

65. Which of the following are not included in the negative direction
in preserving the evidentiary value of the document?

A. it should not be wet even with special permission

B. it should not be folded in any manner
C. it should not be touched by any sharp instrument
D. it should not be underscored with a pencil

66. In order to attain sound conclusions regarding the certain

questioned document, the QD examiner should collect all the desired
standards from the person suspected or alleged to have committed a
certain act. How many exemplars should at least be collected if the
issue is about signatures.

A. 10
B. 11
C. 7
D. 25

LIE DETECTION AND INTERROGATION

1. It is the scientific methods of detecting deception done with the

aid of a polygraph machine.

A. Lie Detection
B. Polygraph
C. Polygraphy
D. Lie Detector

2. He is known as the first man who used the word “Polygraphy”?

A. Francis Galton
B. Isaac Newton
C. Thomas Jefferson
D. Henry Fox Talbot

3. Who was the first person to develop a polygraph apparatus that was
used in detecting deception?

A. John Larson
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. Angelo Mosso
D. Cesare Lombroso

4. It is a principle of polygraphy which says that a polygraph is

capable of making graphic record consisting of dependable information
regarding the physiological changes of the body.

A. Psychological Leg Basic Premise- happens in the central nervous

system.
B. Physiological Leg Basic Premise- physiological changes after the
following the stimulation of the Central
Nervous System.
C. Mechanical Leg Basic Premise
D. None of these

5. It is an act of deceiving or misleading committed by a person

usually accompanied by lying.

A. Admission
B. Lying
C. Deception
D. Confession

6. In “polygraph examination”, the term “examination” means a

detection of

A. forgery
B. emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
7. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which
appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.

A. fear
B. stimuli
C. response
D. reaction

8. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the Medieval

Latin “Dei Indicum” which means –

A. Divine intervention
B. Miraculous decision
C. God’s hand
D. God’s favor

9. It is one of the ancient practices in detecting deception wherein

an accuser will fight against the accused in a duel and whoever lost
the fight will be adjudged guilty.

A. Red Hot Iron Ordeal

B. Rice Chewing Ordeal
C. Balance Ordeal
D. Trial By Combat

10. American psychologist who constructed an instrument in 1921 which

is capable of continuously recording all the three phenomena-blood
pressure, pulse and respirations- during the entire period of the
test.

A. John A. Larson
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. John E. Reid
D. Marcelo Malpighi

11. He is the heart specialized who is credited for the invention of

the “Ink Polygraph”

A. Sticker
B. Veraguth
C. James Mackenzie
D. Cleve Backster

12. The use of “truth serums” such as sodium penthothal or phenobarbi

in the questioning of suspects is called:
A. Narcoanalysis
B. Sugar and vinegar
C. The detector test
D. Word association method
13. Intoxication of alcohol used the Latin maxim “In vino, veritas” as
underlying principle. This latin maxim is literally translated as
____________.

A. there is wine in truth

B. In truth, there is wine
C. there is truth in wine
D. In wine, there is truth

14. One of this is a principal use of polygraph instrument;

A. Invaluable aid in investigation

B. To determine the facts of the case
C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
D. A very good substitute of the investigation

15. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie detector, but

research clearly shows that it cannot determine or detect a lying
person. What then is the use of polygraph instrument?

A. To record physiological reactions of the subject.

B. To record psychological reactions of the subject.
C. To record and determine the facts of the case based on the chart
taken.
D. To record psychogalvanic reflex of the subject.

16. All EXCEPT one is a purpose of polygraph examination.

A. to determine truth and deception in the polygraph examiner’s view

B. to determine truth and deception in a police investigation
C. to determine truth and deception based on the presence of emotional
disturbances
D. to determine truth and deception for legal matters

17. This component records the changes of breathing of the subject

A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pnuemograph
C. Kymograph
D. Galvanograph

18. This is the longest and the second pen of the instrument.

A. Pneumograph (5-inch)
B. Galvanograph (7inch)
C. Cardiosphygmograph (5-inch)
D. Kymograph

19. Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock, fear and

anxiety. Perspiration means?

A. Breathing
B. Pulse beat
C. Sweating
D. Heart rate

20. What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the chart paper
at six inches per minute during the test?
A. Kymograph assembly
B. Electronic motor drive
C. Chart drive mini-motor
D. Reactograph drive motor

21. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph

result?

A. the competence of the examiner

B. the knowledge of the examiner
C. the training of the examiner
D. the experience of the examiner

22. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.

A. Obtain confession
B. Prepare subject for polygraph test
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures

23. Prior to the examination the subject should have at least ___
hours of sleep.

A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours

24. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?

A. Reschedule the examination

B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview
C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance
D. Do not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject for his
available date for reschedule

25. What is the first step to be done in a pre-test interview?

A. ask the subject regarding all information the circumstances

surrounding the commission of the crime
B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the polygraph
examination to the subject
C. you are informed of your rights against self incrimination and your
right to a counsel
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the questioning of the
subject to monitor response

26. The following should be taken onto consideration during the pre-
test, EXCEPT:

A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights

B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
C. taking history record of the subject
D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the subject

27. The purpose of the pre test interview is to

A. gather more information from the subject

B. acquire confession or admission
C. prepare the subject for the test
D. condition the subject's questions
28. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is involved
in a crime the examiner should report it to the?

A. Investigator
B. Object relative
C. Prosecutor
D. Judge

29. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the polygraph

examination.

A. Pre test
B. Preliminary Interview
C. Test Execution
D. Post test

30. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation

of the questions in a polygraph test except one.

A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can

easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusation

31. It is conducted after the actual test designed to obtained

confession or admission from the subject.

A. Post-test Interview/interrogation
B. Actual Test
C. Chart Probing
D. Investigation

32. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the
polygraph examiner done every after taking each chart.

A. Initial Interview
B. Pre-Test Interview
C. Chart Probing
D. Post-Test Interview

33. If the polygraph test result indicates innocence, what should the
examiner do?

A. release the subject cordially

B. thank the subject for his cooperation
C. ask the subject if he has any questions
D. all of the above

34. In polygraph examination, who decides for the guilt or innocence

of the subject that has under gone polygraph test?

A. The polygraph examiner

B. The investigator on case
C. The trial judge
D. The fiscal

35. It is a type of question in which it established the norms of the

subject and it pertains to the basic background of the subject. It
only ask questions not related to the matter under investigation.

A. Relevant Question
B. Irrelevant Question
C. Knowledge Question
D. Evidence-Connecting Question

36. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Fundador on the night of April
27, 2016?” is an example of what question?

A. Relevant question
B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question
D. Strong relevant question

37. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.

A. Reaction
B. Normal response
C. Positive response
D. Specific response

38. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized chart marking

to begin or start the questioning?

A. B
B. S
C. X
D. C

39. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthful,

the examiners finding should be:

A. Conclusive
B. Inconclusive
C. Negative
D. Positive

40. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner used if
he utilized padding questions?

A. Peak of tension test

B. Stimulation test
C. General question test
D. Zone comparison test

41. Which of the following causes physiological changes in the body of

the subject?

A. Peak of tension test

B. the fear of retaliation
C. Irrelevant question
D. Relevant question

42. It is a type of question in which it is designed to establish

response from an innocent subject.

A. Relevant Question
B. Control Question
C. General Question Test
D. Peak of Tension Test

43. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject
who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.

A. Word association test

B. Psychological stress evaluator
C. Card test
D. Hypnosis

44. Under backster zone comparison test technique, color zones are
applied in identifying so many questions used during the test. If the
color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what then is the color
zone for strong relevant questions?

A. Red
B. Black (Symptomatic Questions)
C. Green
D. Orange

LEGAL MEDICINE

1. It is the branch of medicine which deals with the study of medical

knowledge and expertise in the administration of justice and for the
purposes of law.

A. Forensic Medicine
B. Legal Medicine
C. Medical Jurisprudence
D. Medicine

Note:
• Forensic Medicine- use of medical science in the elucidation of
legal problems.
• Legal Medicine- branch of medicine relative to the application in
administration of justice.

2. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means

A. application of medicine to legal cases

B. application of science to elucidate legal problem
C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
D. none of these

3. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the

application of medical knowledge to the purpose of _____.

A. Law and administration of justice

B. Determination of cause of death
C. Identifying the victim
D. None of these

4. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given

scientific evidence is considered

A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge

5. He is the 1st earliest known medico-legal expert

A. Imhotep
B. Antitius
C. Dr. Enrique V. De Los Santos
D. Dr. Rafael Gerard V. Mas
6. He is considered as the “Father of Medicine”

A. Paulus Zachias
B. Hippocrates
C. Mathiue Orfila
D. Gabriel Tarde

7. It is the system used in the Philippines which is handled by a

medical jurist who is a registered physician and duly qualified to
practice medicine in the Philippines.

A. Medical Examiner System

B. Medico-Legal System
C. Coroner System
D. None of these

Note:
• Medical Examiner- headed by the Chief, Medical Examiner.
Investigates the cause of death of the victim.
• Coroner System- headed by country coroner. Unlike the two systems,
it has the investigative and judicial functions.

8. Personal identification by dental characteristics is called-

A. Anthropometry
B. Forensic Odontology
C. Portrait Parle
D. Victimology

9. Approximately, height can be measure by extending the middle

fingers of both hands laterally. What age when a person ceases to
increase in height?

A. 24
B. 23
C. 25
D. 26

10. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to

determine if it was _______.

A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut

11. How many hours does the stomach completely digest a medium meal?

A. 2-3 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 1 hour

12. Which of the following personal identification is not easy to

change?

A. Hair
B. Speech
C. Dress
D. Personal Paraphernalia

13. This is a characteristic that shows the manner of walking of an

individual.
A. Mannerism
B. Gait
C. Complexion
D. Cerebellar Gait

14. Mr. Nachor walks like a robot. His legs are held together and the
steps are dragged and short. It is the best description of what manner
of walking?

A. Cerebellar
B. Ataxic
C. Paretic
D. Spastic

15. Which of the following is TRUE in the determination of age of the

fetus?

A. For fetus more than 25 cm, find the square root of the length in
centimeters and the result is the age of the
fetus in month.
B. For fetus less than 25 cm, find the square root of the length in
centimeters and the result is the age of the
fetus in month.
C. For fetus more than 25 cm, divide the length of the fetus in
centimeters by 5 and the result will be age in
month
D. Both B and C are correct.

16. In what month of fetus life does the lanugo or hair of the fetus
appears?

A. 5th month
B. 6th month
C 7th month
D. 8th month

17. Children conceived by prostitutes are called

A. manceres
B. adulterous
C. illegitimate
D. incestuous

18. In what year does the pubic hair of the female appears?

A. 16 years old
B. 14 years old
C. 13 years old
D. 12 years old

19. It is a state of complete persistent cessation of the vital

function of the body such as the function of the heart, lungs, and
brain.

A. Life
B. Death
C. Insomnia
D. Nymphomania

20. It is a type of death which is usually declare by the physician or

maybe the immediate member of the family due to sudden loss of
respiration and other signs of death.
A. Clinical or Somatic Death
B. Molecular or Cellular Death
C. Apparent Death
D. State of Suspended Animation

21. Mr. Forgotten was abandoned by the family, unvisited and let alone
to die. This is the best example of what type of clinical death?

A. Sociological death
B. Psychic death
C. Biologic death
D. Physiologic death Psychic Death- Biologic death

22. Examination of the victim’s body in order to determine the cause

of death and what internal organs were destroyed in injured.

A. autopsy
B. probe
C. embalming
D. surgery

23. It is the sudden rigidity of the muscle which occurs happens

immediately after death due to nervous tension, exhaustion and injury
to the nervous system.

A. Rigor Mortis
B. Cadaveric Spasm
C. Primary Flaccidity
D. Secondary Flaccidity

Note:
• Rigor Mortis-stiffening of the muscle after death.
• Primary Flaccidity- muscles are relax and capable of contraction.
• Secondary Flaccidity- dissolution of muscle proteins and no longer
responding to mechanical or electrical stimulus.

24. Which of the following is true about post mortem rigidity?

A. It is the instant stiffening of the muscles in a certain group

B. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to the
coagulation of proteins
C. It lasts from 12-36 hours
D. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to the
solidification of protein.

25. It is an increase of temperature due to fast, early putrefactive

and chemical changes in the body, which occur 1- 3 hours after death.

A. Post- mortem caloricity

B. Post- mortem rigidity
C. Instantaneous rigor
D. Putrefaction

26. It is the discoloration of the body after death when the blood
tends to pool to the dependent portion of the body. It is important in
the determination of the position of the body after death.

A. Rigor Mortis
B. Cadaveric Spasm
C. Post-Mortem Lividity
D. Secondary Flaccidity
27. The color of blood in post mortem Lividity?

A. Blue
B. Violet
C. Pink
D. Bright red

28. It is a stage of lividity when the discoloration is due to the

blood pooled in the most dependent areas of the body.

A. Hypostatic Lividity
B. Diffusion Lividity
C. Post-Mortem Caloricity
D. Frost Bite

29. This is an interlacing discoloration commonly purplish brown that

forms a network on the large part of the cadaver such as the chest and
abdomen.

A. Putrefaction
B. Marbolization
C. Livor mortis
D. Maceration
30. It is a form of putrefaction in which a body fluid is removed
before decomposition sets which resulted to the preservation of the
dead body.

A. Saponification
B. Maceration
C. Mummification
D. Marbolization

31. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has
occurred not more than 24 hours hence are useful to approximate the
time of death.

A. Flies
B. Bees
C. Earthworms
D. Butterflies

32. It is a type of pathological death wherein there is a failure on

functioning of the heart.

A. Asphyxia
B. Syncope
C. Coma
D. Death

33. It is a type of asphyxia which is associated with the failure of

the arterial blood to become normally supplied with oxygen.

A. Anoxic Death
B. Anemic Anoxic Death
C. Stagnant Anoxic Death
D. Histotoxic Anoxic Death

Note:
• Anemic Anoxic Death- arterial blood lacks oxygen.
• Stagnant Anoxic Death- failure in blood circulation.
• Histotoxic Death- normal circulation of blood but not absorb by the
body.
34. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at his own
apartment. On the deductive process of the investigation, the cause of
the victim’s death is asphyxia by applying pressure to the latter’s
neck while the assailant using his arms was on the back of the victim.
The statement best describes:

A. Strangulation
B. Crush or traumatic asphyxia
C. Choking
D. Mugging

35. It refers to the injury in body in which it is deliberately

afflicted by the physical agents which produces damage or harm to the
body.

A. Injury
B. Physical Injury
C. Wound
D. None of these

36. Accident classified according to severity are-

A. Death, property damage

B. Fatal, non-fatal, property damage
C. Physical injuries and death
D. Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries

37. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for

work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not more
than 30 days.

A. Slight physical injury (1-9 days)

B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury (more than 30 days)
D. less serious physical injury

38. A wound which if inflicted in the seriously in the body might

endanger one’s life.

A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
D. superficial wound
39. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound

40. The following are valid classifications of wound, except:

A. Abrasions
B. Contusions
C. Hematoma
D. Gun Shot Wound

41. A type of wound which result of a persons instinctive reaction of

self protection

A. Patterned Wounds
B. Deep Wounds
C. Defense Wounds
D. Self-Inflicted Wounds

42. What is the term referring to those wounds inflicted in a forward

motion?

A. Hit wounds
B. Explosion
C. Thrust wounds
D. Hack wounds

43. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is

characterized by a small opening of the wound.

A. Stab wound
B. Abrasion wound
C. Incised wound
D. Punctured wound

44. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and

blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near
contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is
approximately.

A. 6 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 12 inches
D. 24 inches

45. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the
body of the victim is even, the presumption is that no bullet is
lodged in the body, but if the number of gunshot wounds entrance and
exit is odd, the presumption is that one or more bullets might have
been lodged in the body. What principle is this?

A. Presumption of Similarity
B. Odd-Even Rule
C. Principle of Infallibility
D. Numbering Principle

46. If the powder has produced gray or yellow marks in a gunshot

wound, it indicates?

A. The individual died after the shooting

B. The individual was dead before the shooting
C. The person shot himself
D. The person was shot 36 meters away from the shooter
47. If the soil found on suspect’s clothing is consistent with soil
found at the crime scene, this would indicate that:

A. the suspect was in the area at the same time

B. the suspect has committed the crime
C. the suspect was in the area at the time of the crime
D. the suspect is guilty of the crime

48. What would be the presumption if fleas were still alive on the
clothing of a dead person that allegedly drowned?

A. fleas could not survived for more than 24 hour on the water
B. fleas would indicate that person was drowned
C. indicates that the person was in the water for not more than 24
hours
D. fleas indicates that early stage of putrefaction

49. Several tests could be administered to the victim’s body in order

to ascertain if there is still sign of life. What is that test in
which a ligature will be applied around the victim’s finger?

A. Icard’s test
B. finger webs test
C. Magnus test
D. Winslow’s test

50. What refers to the cutting of a body part of another person to

weaken his defense?

A. Castration
B. Mayhem
C. Mutilation
D. Amputation

51. It is a type of close wound which characterizes by the large

extravasation of blood in a newly formed cavity that appears like
swelling.

A. Contusion
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Bruise

52. A break or solution in the continuity of bone refers to what?

A. Fracture
B. Wound
C. Dislocation
D. Sprain
• Dislocation- displacement of bones from joints.
• Sprain- tearing of ligaments and tendon.
53. It refers to a physical injury found at the site and opposite site
of the application of force.

A. Coup Injury
B. Contre-coup injury
C. Coup-contre-coup injury
D. Extensive Injury
Note:
• Coup-Injury- side of application.
• Contre Coup- opposite of the application.
• Coup Contre Coup- both sides.
• Locus Minoris Resistencia- least resistance part is damaged.
• Extensive Injury- greater area of damage.

54. A condition of women who had one or more sexual experience but
does not conceived a child.

A. virgo-intacta
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
Note:
• Moral Virginity- not knowing sexual life and not having sexual
experience.
• Physical Virginity- know sexual life but does not experienced sexual
intercourse.
• Demi-virginity- having sex but not allowing the rupture of hymen.

55. This will always be applied to children below the of age puberty.

A. physical virginity
B. demi- virginity
C. moral virginity
D. virgo-intacta

56. It refers to the excessive sexual urge of a woman.

A. Nymphomania
B. Satyriasis
C. Incest
D. Homosexuality

57. It is the female who receives the penis of a man into her mouth by
friction of lips in an act of sucking which causes orgasm.

A. Cunnilingus
B Fellatio
C. Sadism
D. Masochism
58. It is sexual deviation in which a person has sexual desire for
statutes.
A. Auto-Sexuality
B. Frottage
C. Pygmalionism
D. Voyeurism
===End===
Good luck and God bless