1.
The provisions of about communication of
acceptance in various legal systems falls into
which of the following categories?
A. The system of information
B. The system of declaration
C. The mixed or electric system
D. All of them
Ans: D
2. The relation of dependence may arise:
A. From a special authority or confidence
committed to the donee
B. From the feebleness in body or mind of the
donor
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
3. The right to surety to indemnity is an
incident of the guarantee:
A. The principal-debtor will be liable
B. Without the necessity of any further request
for all sums subsequently paid by the surety
under the guarantee as money paid to the use of
the principal-debtor
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
4. The rule of limitation in a foreign country,
where the contract is made, may be set up as a
defence to a suit filed in India if:
A. The rule has extinguished the contract
B. The parties were domiciled in that foreign
country during the period prescribed by that rule
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
5. The subject-matter of Section 8 of the
Indian Contract Act, 1872 is divided in to:
A. Performance of the conditions of a proposal
and
B. Acceptance of any consideration for
reciprocal promise which may be offered with a
proposal,
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
6. The term law in the expression “forbidden
by law” would include any enactment or rule
of law for the time being in force in India
which would fall under which of the following
sub heads?
A. The provisions of any legislative enactment
B. The rules of Hindu or Mahomedan law
C. Other rules for the time being in force in India
D. All of them
Ans: D
7. The terms ‘benefit’ and ‘detriment’ have
been used by courts in which of the following
senses in Section 2 of the Indian Contract Act,
1872?
A. Act which value
B. Such acts, the performance of which is not
already legal due from promise
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
8. The theories or juristic bases for the
doctrine of frustration were evolved for
justifying the departure from the doctrine of
absolute contracts. The main theories are:
I. Implied term theory
II. Basis or foundation of the contracts
III. Just and reasonable solution
IV. Radical change in the obligation under the
contracts
A. II, III
B. IV
C. I
D. All of them
Ans: D
9. The UNIDROIT principles expressly
provide that in ascertaining the intention of
parties, be it the subjective intention or the
‘reasonableness’ test, regard shall be had to
which of the following circumstances:
I. Preliminary negotiation between the parties
II. Practices which the parties have established
between themselves
III. The conduct of the parties subsequent to
conclusion of the contract
IV. The nature and purpose of the contract
V. The meaning commonly given to terms and
expressions in the trade concerned
VI. Usages
A. I, II, IV, V
B. Ill, IV, VI
C. IV, V
D. All of them
Ans: D
10. The use of the word person in Section 2 (c)
of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 indicates:
A. Just a human being
B. It must be given extended sense to include
governments
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
11. The word ‘loss or damage may be:
A. Harm to person
B. Harm to property
C. Injury to economic position
D. All of them
Ans: D
12. The word ‘signifies’ in the definition of S.
2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 indicates:
A. That the offer must be communicated to the
person to whom it is made
B. That the offer need not be communicated to
the person to whom it is made
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
13. Time and place for performance of
promise, where time is specified and no
application to be made in which of the
following in the Indian Contract Act, 1872
A. Section 42
B. Section 36
C. Section 47
D. Section 40
Ans: C
14. To constitute a bailment, the actual or
constructive possession of specific movable
property (goods) must be vacated by:
A. Its owner or possessor (bailor)
B. His agent duly authorised for that purpose, in
favour of another per son (the bailee)
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
15. To which of the following the lien
claimable under S. 221 of the Indian Contract
Act is confined to?
A. Commission
B. Disbursement
C. Services in respect of the specific property
D. All of them
Ans: D
16. Unconscionable contract is an:
A. Agreement that is so outrageously unfair to
one party that a Court refuses to enforce it in a
Court of law
B. Agreement that is so outrageously unfair to
one party which can still be enforced it in a
Court of law
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
17. Under Section 18 of the Indian Contract
Act, 1872, misrepresentation falls under:
A. A statement of fact, which is false, would be
misrepresentation if the maker believes it to be
true, but which is not justified by the information
he possesses
B. Any breach of duty which gains an advantage
to the person committing it by misleading
another to his prejudice, there being no intention
to deceive
C. Causing a party to an agreement to make a
mistake as to the substance of the thing which is
the subject of the agreement, even though done
innocently
D. All of them
Ans: D
18. Under Section 55 of the Indian Contract
Act a vendor has no right to make time of the
essence of the contract unless:
A. The vendor is able, ready and willing to
proceed to completion
B. When the vendor purports to make time of the
essence of the contract, the purchaser must be
guilty of such default as to entitle the vendor to
rescind the contract, subject to it being done by a
reasonable notice
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
19. Under Section 55 of the Indian Contract
Act, 1872 the intention of the parties can be
ascertained from:
I. The express words used in the contract
II. The nature of the property which forms the
subject matter of the contract
III. The nature of the contract itself
IV. The surrounding circumstances
A. II, III
B. IV
C. I
D. All of them
Ans: D
20. Under which of the following any
provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
would be void, if inconsistent with the
fundamental rights?
A. Article 11 of the Constitution of India
B. Article 12 of the Constitution of India
C. Article 13 of the Constitution of India
D. Article 14 of the Constitution of India
Ans: C
21. Under which of the following bailee is not
responsible on re-delivery to bailor without
title in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 166
B. Section 159
C. Section 163
D. Section 160
Ans: A
22. Under which of the following
circumstances as per the Special Relief Act,
1963, the Court may refuse to rescind the
contract in a suit for rescission?
I. The plaintiff was has expressly or implied
ratified the contract
II. Due to change in circumstances after the
making of the contract (not due to the act of the
defendant himself), the parties cannot be
substantially restored to the positions in which
they stood when the contract was made
III. Third parties have during the subsistence of D. All of them
the contract, acquired rights in good faith Ans: D
without notice and for value 27. What is the purpose of the rule of
IV. Only a part of the contract is sought to be mitigation?
rescinded and such part is not severable from the A. To prevent the waste of limited resources in
rest of the contract society which forces the innocent party, the
A. I, III plaintiff to find a substitute after the defendant’s
B. II, IV breach
C. IV B. To enable the defendant to commit efficient
D. All of them breach of contract where the defendant
Ans: D deliberately would break his contractual
23. Under which of the following pawnee is relationship for a better opportunity
not to retain for debt or promise other than C. Both (A) and (B)
that for which goods pledged in the Indian D. None of these
Contract Act, 1872? Ans: C
A. Section 174 28. When a statute clearly covers a case, it is
B. Section 171 hardly necessary to refer to decisions. In
C. Section 173 which of the following cases it was so upheld?
D. Section 178 A. Lala Kapurchand Godhav. MirNawab
Ans: A Himayatalikhan Azamjah
24. Unless the terms of the guarantee provide B. State of Madras v. Gannon Durkerley & Co.
other, the surety is entitled to claim relief Ltd.
from the principal-debtor immediately: C. Firm Kanhaiyalal v. Dineshchandra
A. As often as he pays anything under his D. Bhagwandas Goverdhandas Kedia v.
guarantee as it falls due Girdharilal Parshottamdas and Co.
B. And is not required to pay the whole debt due Ans: A
from the principal-debtor before compelling 29. When did the Indian Contract Act, 1872
reimbursement come into force?
C. Both (A) and (B) A. September 1
D. None of these B. September 5
Ans: C C. September7
25. Void contract is: D. September 10
A. A contract which ceases to be enforceable by Ans: A
law but is in effect 30. When the guarantee is expressed to be a
B. A contract which ceases to be enforceable by continuing guarantee and to apply to the
law is no longer enforceable balance for time-to- time owing by the
C. Either (A) or (B) principal-debtor to the creditor times runs:
D. None of these A. Only from the date when each of such balance
Ans: B is constituted by the excess of total debits over
26. What are the conditions for the total credits
application of the S. 235 of the Indian B. Not from the date when each advance is made
Contract Act? to the principal-debtor
I. The agent has made an untrue representation C. Either (A) or (B)
that he is authorised agent of another (which may D. None of these
also be a representation as to the extent of Ans: A
authority of the agent) 31. Where a contract is one of guarantee:
II. The representation relates to fact A. The surety need not be called upon to pay
III. The third party has been misled or induced to unless the principal-debtor has committed a
deal with the agent on the faith of such default
representation B. The surety is entitled to all the rights, viz, of
IV. The principal has repudiated or refused to discharge, subrogation of securities, indemnity
ratify the transaction from the principal-debtor, etc. provided in ss.
V. The third party has suffered a loss in 133 to 145; though an indemnifier is entitled to
consequence rights given by ss. 140 and 141
A. I, II C. Both (A) and (B)
B. II, IV D. None of these
C. Ill, IV Ans: C
32. Where the bailment is for hire, it may be:
I. Hiring the use of goods
II. Hiring the use of labour or work on or with
regard to the goods
III. Hiring of custody i.e. of services in keeping
the goods
IV. Hiring of carriage of goods
A. I, II
B. II, IV
C. Ill, IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
33. Where the law is codified, it is of little
avail enquire what is the law apart from such
codification. The code itself must be looked to
as the guide in the matter. This refers to
which of the following cases:
A. Burn & Co. v. McDonald
B. Produce Brokers Co. Ltd. v. Olympia Oil and
Cake Co. Ltd.
C. Moult v. Halliday
D. Llyod v. Guibert
Ans: A
34. Where the seller wrongfully neglects or
refuses to deliver the goods to the buyer, the
buyer may sue the seller for:
A. Damages for non-delivery
B. Specific performance subject to the provisions
of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
C. Breach of warranty in which event the buyer
may set up against the seller such breach in
diminution or extinction of the price or sue the
seller for damages for breach of warranty
D. All of them
Ans: D
35. Which of the deals with the effect of
novation, rescission and alteration of contract
in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 68
B. Section 50
C. Section 61
D. Section 62
Ans: D
36. Which of the following Amendment Acts
inserted Section 19A into the Indian Contract
Act?
A. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (6 of
1899)
B. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (7 of
1899)
C. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (8 of
1899)
D. Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (9 of
1899)
Ans: A
37. Which of the following are essential
conditions of pledge?
A. Bailment of goods
B. Bailment by way of security
C. Security of payment of debt
D. All of them
Ans: D
38. Which of the following are the conditions
for the application of Section 70 of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872?
A. The goods are to be delivered lawfully or
something has to be done for another person
lawfully
B. The thing done or the goods delivered must be
done or delivered without intention to do so
gratuitously
C. The person to whom goods are to delivered
enjoys the benefit thereof
D. All of them
Ans: D
39. Which of the following are the
requirements for the application of the
provisions of Section 69 of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872?
A. The plaintiff must have made an actual or
virtual payment of money
B. The plaintiff must have been compelled to pay
this money to a third party
C. The defendant must have been legally liable
to pay the third party. Though the plaintiff would
usually stand in some kind of relationship to the
person for whom he paid, no relationship of
privity is necessary to give a right of action
D. All of them
Ans: D
40. Which of the following binds the principal
under S. 229 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. Notice or intimation given to an agent
B. Knowledge of any fact material to such
transaction acquired by the agent
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
41. Which of the following cases S. 235 of the
Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not apply?
A. The case of a man who represents that he has
authority from another when he has no authority
whatever
B. The case of a man who represents that he has
certain authority from another when he has
authority of another description
C. The case of an agent whose authority is
terminated without his knowledge
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
42. Which of the following conditions are
essential before the application of the second
paragraph of Section 56 of Indian Contract
Act, 1872?
A. A valid and subsisting contract before the 49. Which of the following deals with agent’s
parties duty to pay sums received for principal in the
B. There must be some part of the contract yet to Indian Contract Act, 1872?
be performed A. Section 211
C. The contract after it is entered into becomes B. Section 219
impossible of performance C. Section 218
D. All of them D. Section 210
Ans: D Ans: C
43. Which of the following damages are 50. Which of the following deals with
punitive in nature? agreement in restraint of marriage void in the
A. Aggravated damages Indian Contract Act, 1872?
B. Exemplary damages A. Section 22
C. Both (A) and (B) B. Section 26
D. None of these C. Section 19
Ans: B D. Section 20
44. Which of the following deals with Ans: B
“Continuing guarantee” in the Indian 51. Which of the following deals with
Contract Act, 1872? agreement to do impossible act in the Indian
A. Section 129 Contract Act, 1872?
B. Section 126 A. Section 52
C. Section 123 B. Section 56
D. Section 130 C. Section 55
Ans: A D. Section 59
45. Which of the following deals with “when Ans: B
agent cannot delegate” in the Indian Contract 52. Which of the following deals with
Act, 1872? agreement void where both parties are under
A. Section 190 mistake as to matter of fact in the Indian
B. Section 191 Contract Act, 1872?
C. Section 185 A. Section 14
D. Section 181 B. Section 18
Ans: A C. Section 19
46. Which of the following deals with “when D. Section 20
principal may revoke agent’s authority” in Ans: D
the Indian Contract Act, 1872? 53. Which of the following deals with
A. Section 203 agreements by way of wager, void in the
B. Section 205 Indian Contract Act, 1872?
C. Section 192 A. Section 22
D. Section 204 B. Section 30
Ans: A C. Section 19
47. Which of the following deals with agent’s D. Section 20
accounts in the Indian Contract Act, 1872? Ans: B
A. Section 211 54. Which of the following deals with
B. Section 219 agreements void, if consideration and objects
C. Section 213 unlawful in part in the Indian Contract Act,
D. Section 210 1872?
Ans: C A. Section 22
48. Which of the following deals with agent’s B. Section 28
duty on termination of agency by principal’s C. Section 19
death or insanity in the Indian Contract Act, D. Section 24
1872? Ans: D
A. Section 200 55. Which of the following deals with
B. Section 203 communication, acceptance and revocation of
C. Section 209 proposals in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
D. Section 204 A. Section 1
Ans: C B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Ans: C D. Section 59
56. Which of the following deals with contract Ans: C
caused by mistake of one party as to matter of 63. Which of the following deals with skill and
fact in the Indian Contract Act, 1872? diligence required from agent in the Indian
A. Section 14 Contract Act, 1872?
B. Section 22 A. Section 211
C. Section 19 B. Section 212
D. Section 10 C. Section 215
Ans: B D. Section 210
57. Which of the following deals with Ans: B
definition of “Undue influence” in the Indian 64. Promises, express or implied are dealt
Contract Act, 1872? under which of the following of the Indian
A. Section 14 Contract Act, 1872?
B. Section 18 A. Section 9
C. Section 19 B. Section 2
D. Section 16 C. Section 3
Ans: D D. Section 4
58. Which of the following deals with Effect of Ans. (A)
mistakes as to law in the Indian Contract Act, 65. Promisor not bound to perform, unless
1872? reciprocal promise ready and willing to
A. Section 21 perform is dealt under which of the following
B. Section 18 in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
C. Section 19 A. Section 51
D. Section 10 B. Section 50
Ans: A C. Section 55
59. Which of the following deals with D. Section 59
enforcement of contracts contingent on an Ans. (A)
event happening in the Indian Contract Act, 66. Quasi or Constructive Contracts is one
1872? where an implied contract has also been
A. Section 22 applied to a class of obligations which are
B. Section 28 imposed or created by law without regard to
C. Section 19 the assent of the party bound:
D. Section 32 A. On the ground that they are dictated by reason
Ans: D and justice
60. Which of the following deals with how B. Which are allowed to be enforced by an
revocation of proposal is made in the Indian action ex contractu, for there is no agreement
Contract Act, 1872? C. But they are clothed with the semblance of
A. Section 2 contract for the purpose of remedy
B. Section 6 D. All of them
C. Section 3 Ans. (D)
D. Section 4 67. Reciprocal contract is:
Ans: B A. A contract in which the consideration consists
61. Which of the following deals with liability of mutual promises
of co-sureties bound in different sums in the B. A bilateral agreement
Indian Contract Act, 1872? C. both (A) and (B)
A. Section 149 D. None of these
B. Section 135 Ans. (C)
C. Section 147 68. Reimbursement under Section 69 of the
D. Section 140 Indian Contract Act, 1872 claimed
Ans: C ___________ from the date on which the
62. Which of the following deals with money was paid.
reimbursement of person paying money due A. within a year
by another, in payment of which he is B. within two years
interested in the Indian Contract Act, 1872? C. within three years
A. Section 68 D. within three and a half years
B. Section 50 Ans. (C)
C. Section 69
69. Relation between principal and person C. either (A) or (B)
duly appointed by agent to act in business of D. None of these
agency Ans. (A)
A. Section 180 76. Section 134 of the Indian Contract would
B. Section 190 not apply where the release or discharge:
C. Section 185 A. is not caused at the instance
D. Section 194 B. is not caused by any act of the creditor
Ans. (D) C. either (A) or (B)
70. Representees may be: D. None of these
A. persons to whom the representation is directly Ans. (C)
made and their principals 77. Section 135 of the Indian Contract Act,
B. persons to whom the representor intended the 1872 deals with:
representation to be passed A. The case in which the surety is discharged by
C. members of class at which the representation a contract between the creditor and the principal-
was directed debtor, entered into without the surety’s consent,
D. All of them to give time to, or not to sue, the principal-debtor
Ans. (D) B. The case of mere forbearance to sue as
71. Right of person dealing with agent distinguished from forbearance springing from a
personally liable is discussed under which of contract and provides that the surety shall not be
the following in the Indian Contract Act, discharged in such a case
1872? C. both (A) or (B)
A. Section 238 D. None of these
B. Section 222 Ans. (C)
C. Section 236 78. Section 13 8 of the Indian Contract Act,
D. Section 233 1872 is a necessary consequence of the
Ans. (D) principle laid down in___________ and must
72. Right of principal when agent deals, on his be taken as a deliberate extension of a rule
own account, in business of agency without which in the common law
principal’s consent is dealt under which of the A. S. 44; is limited to the case of co-sureties
following in the Indian Contract Act, 1872? contracting severally and not jointly
A. Section 211 B. S. 44; is limited to the case of co-sureties
B. Section 219 contracting severally
C. Section 217 C. S. 44; is limited to the case of co-sureties
D. Section 215 contracting jointly
Ans. (D) D. None of these
73. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, Ans. (A)
1872 deals with which of the following? 79. Section 139 of the Indian Contract Act,
A. personal capacity arising from age 1872 is a residual section, the object of which
B. personal capacity arising from soundness of is to:
mind A. Ensure that no arrangement different from
C. personal capacity arising from the provisions that contained in the surety’s contract is forced
of law upon him
D. All of them B. Ensure the surety, if he pays the debt, has the
Ans. (D) benefit of every remedy which the creditor has
74. Section 127 provides that ______________ against the principal-debtor
is sufficient consideration for the guarantee. C. both (A) and (B)
A. anything done D. None of these
B. a promise made for the benefit of the Ans. (C)
principal-debtor 80. Section 17(1) defines which of the
C. either (A) or (B) following ingredients?
D. None of these I. There should be a suggestion as to a fact
Ans. (C) II. The fact suggested should not be true
75. Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, III. The suggestion should have been made by a
1872 explains the quantum of surety’s person who does not believe it to be true
obligation: IV. The suggestion should be made with intent
A. When the terms of the contract do not limit it either to deceive or to induce the other party to
B. When the terms of the contract limit it enter into contract
A. I, II, IV Ans. (C)
B. II, IV 86. Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act
C. III. IV applies to cases of:
D. All of them A. assignment
Ans. (D) B. subrogation
81. Section 201 of the Indian Contract Act is C. both (A) and (B)
not exhaustive. An agency may be terminated D. None of these
by other modes such as: Ans. (A)
I. my mutual agreement 87. Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act,
II. completion of the term of agency by expiry of 1872 provides that when the contract becomes
time agreed upon void, any person who has received any
III. destruction of the subject-matter of the advantage under it is:
agency A. bound to restore it
IV. the agency becoming subsequently unlawful B. make compensation for it to the person from
V. Dissolution of the principal firm whom it was received
A. I, II C. either (A) or (B)
B. II, IV D. None of these
C. Ill, V Ans. (C)
D. All of them 88. Section 69 of the Indian Contract Act,
Ans. (D) 1872 embodies which of the following
82. Section 202 of the Indian Contract Act, doctrines?
1872 does not require that the documents A. Doctrine of frustration
authorising the agent: B. Doctrine of unjust enrichment
A. contain reference to the interest of the agent C. Doctrine of implied contract
secured by the document D. None of these
B. give the power to appropriate the amounts Ans. (B)
collected towards any debt due to the agent 89. Section 72 of the Indian Contract Act,
C. either (A) or (B) 1872 has been restricted to cases of payment
D. None of these of delivery:
Ans. (C) A. made by mistake
83. Section 227 of the Indian Contract Act, B. made under coercion
1872, provides that where the agent exceeds C. either (A) or (B)
the authority and does certain acts, the D. None of these
principal would be bound only by those acts Ans. (C)
which are authorised, provided: 90. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act,
A. they can be separated from unauthorised acts 1872 applies to:
B. they cannot be separated by those acts that are A. Compromise decrees
beyond authorisation B. It is open to a court executing such decree to
C. both (A) and (B) go behind it if it contains a stipulation which is
D. None of these by way of penalty
Ans. (C) C. both (A) and (B)
84. Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act gives D. None of these
power to the Courts to adjudge rescission of a Ans. (C)
contract where a contract is unlawful: 91. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act,
A. for causes not apparent on its face 1872 requires proofs of:
B. the defendant is more to blame than the A. general damages
plaintiff B. actual or quantum of damages
C. both (A) and (B) C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these D. None of these
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
85. Section 39 deals with: 92. Where there are two courts which would
A. refusal or renunciation by the promisor to normally have the jurisdiction, an agreement
perform to file suit in one of those courts alone, is:
B. disabling himself from performing the (a) void
promise in its entirety (b) valid
C. either (A) or (B) (c) voidable
D. None of these (d) unenforceable.
Ans. (b) (b) the acceptor must have the knowledge of the
93. An obligation under a contract stands offer before acceptance by performance
discharged: (c) the acceptor may acquire the knowledge of
(a) by proper performance the offer after the performance of the condition
(b) by dispensation with the performance amounting to acceptance
(c) by death of the contracting party if the (d) none of the above.
contract is personal in nature Ans. (b)
(d) all the above. 100. The principle, performance of a
Ans. (d) condition is a sufficient acceptance
94. Under assignment of contract: without notification is contained in:
(a) benefits under the contract can be assigned (a) section 8
without the consent of other party (b) section 7
(b) burden under the contract cannot be assigned (c) section 6
without the consent of other party (d) section 9.
(c) both (a) & (b) Ans. (a)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
95. In cases of refusal to perform by one
party, the other party:
(a) can ignore the notice of refusal for the time
being and wait till the time when the contract is
to be executed
(b) can treat the repudiation as wrongful putting
an end to the contract
(c) can waive his right to rescission by
acquiescence
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
96. A contract is not frustrated:
(a) by commercial impossibility
(b) by imposition of government restrictions or
orders
(c) by destruction of subject matter of contract
(d) all the above.
Ans. (a)
97. Under section 73 of the Contract Act:
(a) special damages cannot be claimed
(b) special damages can be claimed if the party
breaking the contract is made known of the
special circumstances at any time before the
breach
(c) special damages can be claimed if the party
breaking the contract is made known of the
special circumstances at the time of contract
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
98. Section 73 of the Contract Act applies to
contract:
(a) for sale of moveable properties
(b) for sale of immoveable properties
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
99. In cases of general offer, for a valid
contract:
(a) the acceptor need not have the knowledge of
the offer