Section 1 – Set 1 Questions

Question 1
The CIA wishes to send coded messages to its operatives in the field and establish a secret
code to use with them.

If a letter is a vowel and comes before “M” in the alphabet, it will be encoded by writing down the
letter four letters before it (e.g., “E” is changed to “A”). If the letter is a consonant and comes
before “M” in the alphabet, it will be encoded by writing down the letter five letters before it
(e.g.). If the letter is a vowel and comes after “P” in the alphabet, it will be encoded by writing
down the letter four letters after it. If the letter is a consonant and comes after “P” in the
alphabet, it will be encoded by writing down the letter five letters after it.

Question 1

Which of these words is impossible to write using this code?

A) EGG

B) ILK

C) CAB

D) None, all are possible.

Questions 2 and 3
The results of a survey amongst 1246 teenagers were used to determine the popularity of
different brands of chocolate sold in school canteens. The teenagers surveyed were from 8
different schools and were picked randomly from their classes. They were asked what biscuit
they’d last bought from the canteen, and when.

41% of students bought Chocolate Crunch.

23% of students bought Sugar Wisp.

21% of students bought Vanilla Delight.

8% of students bought Super Crunch.

5% of students bought Mega Choc.

2% of students bought Jiff Cakes.

50% of students bought their biscuit on the last day.

23% of students bought their biscuit yesterday.

21% of students bought their biscuit in the last week.

5% of students bought their biscuit in the last two weeks.

1% of students bought their biscuit in the last month.

Question 2

What can be concluded from the above information?

I. Jiff Cakes are the least popular biscuit nationwide

II. If Mega Choc went off the market, Chocolate Crunch would become even
more popular

III. If everyone who bought Vanilla Delight bought Sugar Wisp instead, it would
be the most popular biscuit.

A) I and III

B) II and III

C) III

D) I, II and III

Question 3

What can be concluded from the above information?

I. Every student who bought Sugar Wisp bought their biscuit yesterday.

II. Students who bought their biscuit in the last two weeks were most likely to
purchase Mega Choc.

III. Approximately half of students buy a biscuit every day.

A) III

B) II and I

C) II

D) None of the above

Question 4
The following graph pertains to deaths of officers in Dalamory Police Department over the
period of 2015, during the line of duty (i.e., deaths while away from the job are not counted).

https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&url=https%3A%2F%2Ffox59.com%2Fnews%2Fpolice-fatality-report-car-accidents-among-top-cause-of-
death%2Famp%2F&psig=AOvVaw0gjul9UhNoxgqPQiSa_RpT&ust=1605958391022000&source=images&cd=vfe&ved=0CAIQjRxqFwoTCJilrq6Dke0CFQAAAAAdAAAAABAD

Question 4

Based on the above graph, which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. “Domestic dispute” calls were the most common calls that the Dalamory Police
Department received that year.

2. Approximately one in forty-five deaths occurred during a dispatch call relating to a

house fire.

3. An officer is more likely to be injured during a “Disturbance” dispatch call than a

“Suspicious person/vehicle” call.

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 only

D) 1, 2 and 3
Questions 5 and 6
A racecourse is set up for a boat. The racecourse consists of four anchored marks, arranged in
a square with sides 2 km each. One mark is at the northwest corner, one at the southwest
corner, one at the northeast corner, and one at the southeast corner. The boat starts at the
southeast mark and heads directly north until it reaches a mark, where it makes a turn and
heads southwest. Upon reaching the southwest mark, it takes another turn and heads north.
Upon reaching the north mark, it takes a third turn, heading southeast from there. When it
reaches the southeast mark, the race finishes.

Question 5

How far has the boat travelled after completing this course 1? Please select the option closest
to the answer.

A) 8 kilometres

B) 9.6 kilometres

C) 8.6 kilometres

D) 9 kilometres

Question 6

Assuming a constant speed of 20 kilometres per hour, how long did it take the boat to complete
the course?

(A) 0.48 hours

(B) 0.45 hours

(C) 0.43 hours

(D) 0.3 hours

Question 7
Markus has a fish tank, where he keeps goldfish. A fish care manual recommends that an
owner change the water in the tank every three weeks. The water should not be completely
replaced, some of it should be left to minimize disturbance to the fish, stones, and waterweed.
The manual recommends changing the water gradually until there’s less than 2% of the original
water left.

Markus removes half of the water from his 51-litre fish tank, then replaces it with new water. He
then repeats this procedure until he reaches the correct amount of original water.

Question 7

Assuming he waits for the water to mix evenly after each new infusion of water, how many
times will Markus have to repeat this procedure to meet the manual’s standards?

A) Four times

B) Six times

C) Eight times

D) Seven times
Question 8
Matthew is testing out how long it takes various items of clothing to dry after a wash. He takes 6
garments as a sample and puts them on a line outside in the sun. He notes their material
variety, brand, colour, fabric thickness, and later, how long it takes that garment to dry fully.

Garment type Brand Colour Thickness Material Time

T-shirt S&M Brown 1mm 80% cotton, 20% polyester 98 minutes

T-shirt Clynch White 1mm 100% cotton 124 minutes

Hoodie Guki Mauve 6mm 50% cotton, 50% polyester 462 minutes

Sports Sock S&M Black 1mm 85% cotton, 10% polyester, 83 minutes
5% elastic

Hiking Sock Sportec Black 5mm 80% cotton, 15% polyester, 523 minutes
5% elastic

Fleece Jacket Sportec Brown 4mm 100% Polyester 156 minutes

Question 8

Based on the above data, which of the following statements can be concluded?

I. Brown materials will dry quicker than white materials.

II. The thickness of a material is the only factor that determines how quickly it
will dry.

III. Higher percentages of polyester tended to make materials dry more quickly.

A) I, II and III

B) II and III, but not I

C) I and II, but not III

D) III only
Question 9
Within the human body, there exists the endocrine system, a multitude of glands and sensors
that produce stimulatory or inhibitory hormones, which are then picked up by target organs, as
well as other sensors. The parathalmus, hypocottus, and anterior ventrus are all hormone-
producing organs. LAB, RAD, and ORB are all hormones. The parathalmus releases LAB,
which stimulates the hypocottus to release more RAD, which stimulates the anterior ventrus to
release ORB into the bloodstream, where ORB can travel around the body. ORB inhibits the
release of LAB from the parathalmus and RAD from the hypocottus.

Question 9

If RAD reaches the anterior ventrus, but due to a disorder, the anterior ventrus cannot be
stimulated, which of the following is most likely?

A) The parathalmus will release less RAD.

B) The parathalmus will release less LAB.

C) The hypocottus will release more RAD.

D) ORB is probably stopping RAD from stimulating the anterior ventrus.

Questions 10 and 11
One in ten lightbulbs produced by a factory are defective, and do not work. The factory manager
knows this and buys a tester machine to ensure quality control. The machine tests every
lightbulb produced, and spots 80% of the defective bulbs. These bulbs are then rejected and
thrown away. However, the machine is not perfect and also rejects one in ten non-defective
bulbs.

Question 10

Assuming no further damage occurs to bulbs before they are sold, what percentage of bulbs
sold by the factory are defective?

A) 1%

B) 2.4%

C) 5%

D) 7.3%

Question 11

Factory management is dissatisfied with the percentage of defective bulbs that end up being
sold and feel they should reduce this rate further. They buy a second quality checking machine
and set it up so that the machine checks all bulbs that the first machine rejects. The new
machine accepts every working bulb that was previously discarded, rejecting no working bulbs.
The new machine also accepts one in 10 defective bulbs, rejecting the rest, which are
discarded. The bulbs accepted by this machine are packaged with the other accepted bulbs and
sent to the shops.

What will happen to the rate of defective bulbs ending up on shelves?

A) It will increase by 0.6% of the total

B) It will decrease to 0% of the total

C) It will decrease by 0.3% of the total

D) It will decrease by 0.4% of the total

Question 12
Australians will perhaps be surprised to learn that there are no Parrots or Cockatoos in Europe,
and none in Asia, excepting India, none in Africa north of the Tropic of Cancer, and only two in
North America, and that one of these is rapidly becoming extinct, and that Africa and India are
poor in Parrots. Thus, South America and Australasia alone are left as the lands that contain
these interesting birds in any number. While South America contains the largest Parrots—the
Macaws—all the South American species belong to one family. In the Australian region six
families of Parrots are represented. Four of them are confined to the region, while only one
species of the fifth family (Cockatoos) is found outside the region.
https://www.gutenberg.org/files/34781/34781-h/34781-h.htm

Question 12

Which of these conclusions cannot be drawn from the above passage?

A) Australasia and South America are home to the majority of the world’s parrot and
cockatoo species.

B) Parrots have gone extinct in Africa north of the Tropic of Cancer, only surviving south of
it.

C) Australia has more families of parrots than North America.

D) India is home to some parrots.

Question 13-14
The following passage relates to the swallow-tail butterfly.

“It appears that this butterfly was once widely distributed throughout England, having been
recorded as common in various counties, and has also been taken in Scotland and Ireland; but
it is now almost exclusively confined to the fens of Cambridgeshire, Huntingdonshire, and
Norfolk. Occasionally we hear of the capture of single specimens quite outside these localities,
sometimes even in most unlikely spots, where its food plant does not abound. But we know that
the swallow-tail is a general favourite with entomologists, and that it is sent in the pupal state, by
post, to all parts of the kingdom; so that the occasional capture of the insect far beyond the
borders of its haunts is probably the outcome of an escape from prison, or of the tender-
heartedness of some lover of nature who could not bear to see such a beautiful creature
deprived of its short but joyous, sunny flight.”
https://www.gutenberg.org/files/34131/34131-h/34131-h.htm#Page_139

Question 13

What conclusions can be drawn from the above passage?

I. Swallow-tail butterflies used to be more geographically widespread than

they are now.

II. Swallow-tail butterflies are only found naturally in the wild in the fens of
Cambridgeshire, Huntingdonshire, and Norfolk.

III. Often, entomologists will release swallow-tail butterflies to appreciate their

beauty.

A) I, II and III

B) I and III

C) I only

D) II and III
Question 14

“The food plants of the swallow-tail are the milk parsley or hog's fennel (Peucedanum palustre),
cow-parsnip (Heracleum sphondylium), and the wild angelica (Angelica sylvestris); but in
confinement it will also grudgingly partake of rue and carrot leaves.”

Taking this passage into consideration, in addition to the previous passage, which of the
following conclusions can be drawn?

A) Swallow-tail butterflies are known pests to carrot farmers in Cambridgeshire,

Huntingdonshire, and Norfolk.

B) The wild angelica is the favourite food of the swallow-tail butterfly.

C) Given the choice, a wild swallowtail will choose rue leaves over cow-parsnip.

D) Milk parsley, cow-parsnip and the wild angelica can be found growing wild in the fens of
Cambridgeshire, Huntingdonshire, and Norfolk.
Questions 15 and 16
The following statement relates to the evolution of certain species of amphibians.

In both Anura and Urodela the skull is short, broad, relatively flat, with reduced pterygoids that
diverge laterally from the parasphenoids leaving large interpterygoid vacuities, and with large
orbits. (These statements do not apply to certain larval or perennibranchiate forms.) The skull in
both orders has gained a number of primitive dermal bones in the posterior part; these are:
basioccipital, supraoccipital, post parietal, intertemporal, supratemporal, and tabular. The
exoccipitals form the two condyles but there are no foramina for the 11th and 12th nerves since
these are not separate in modern Amphibia. The opisthotic is missing in all except Proteidae.
Although the skull is normally autostylic, a movable basipterygoid articulation is present among
Hynobiid salamanders and in at least the metamorphic stages of primitive frogs, and therefore
should be expected in their ancestors.

Question 15

Which of these sets of bones can be found in the posterior part of the amphibian skull?

A) Postparietal, exoccipital, supraoccipital

B) Tabular, basioccipital, opisthotic

C) Intertemporal, opisthotic, supratemporal

D) Tabular, postparietal, supraoccipital

Question 16

Which of the following statements are true?

I. It’s unusual for amphibian skulls to be autostylic

II. Modern amphibians have separate foramina for their 11th and 12th nerves

III. Modern frogs should have movable basipterygoid articulation.

A) III only

B) I only

C) II and III

D) I, II and III
Questions 17 and 18
The following graph shows information of one factor (x) vs another factor (y). It also shows the
line of best fit, for all points present. In other words, the line drawn is the average line, taking
into account all points on the graph

Question 17

Which of the following points could best be described as a statistical outlier?

A) R

B) A

C) D

D) S
Question 18

Which points, if eliminated, would cause the most increase in slope of the line of best fit?

A) L, I, B

B) K, R, J

C) A, C, M

D) D, K, Q
Questions 19 and 20
Below is a family tree of the British royal family. The throne is passed down through the
generations using the following rules.

1) The throne passes to the oldest surviving male child of the monarch at the time of the
reigning monarch’s death.

2) If the reigning monarch has no male children, then it passes to the oldest female child.

3) If the reigning monarch has no children, then it passes to the monarch’s oldest male
sibling.

4) If the reigning monarch has no male siblings, then it passes to the monarch’s oldest
female sibling.

If there are no siblings to be found, then rules are repeated for parental siblings, then first
cousins, then parental cousins, then second cousins, and so on.

The order of people left to right, on a line, shows the order they were born in, with the oldest
on the left.
Question 19

If King Edward VII died in childhood and never became king, who would have inherited the
throne instead of him?

A) Prince Ernest

B) Princess Victoria

C) Princess Alexandra

D) Prince Alfred

Question 20

Princess Elizabeth is not content with her lot in life and decides to assassinate her siblings in
order to become the next in line to the throne. Assuming her parents, King George III and
Queen Charlotte are alive, and at least two of her siblings died as children, what is the minimum
and maximum number of siblings she must assassinate to inherit the throne?

A) 9 minimum, 10 maximum

B) 11 minimum, 13 maximum

C) 10 minimum, 11 maximum

D) 9 minimum, 11 maximum
Question 21
Timmy, Tommy, Tina, and Toby all enter a sweetshop and purchase sweets. Upon exiting the
shop, they are pursued by the shopkeeper who has noticed he is missing an extra pack of
sweets. He accuses them of shoplifting.

Timmy says, “It wasn’t me, I didn’t see who did it.”

Tommy says “I saw her! It was Tina!”

Tina says “Liar! Tommy’s trying to cover up for Toby, he took the sweets!”

Toby says “I didn’t steal anything! It wasn’t me.”

Question 21

Assuming only one of them is lying, which one took the sweets?

A) Tommy

B) Tina

C) Toby

D) Timmy
Questions 22 and 23
Below is a table detailing various brands of materials, as well as their cost, tensile strength and
compressive strength.

Material Cost Tensile Strength Compressive Strength

Tempered Steel $40/metre 10 8

Tatara Steel $45/metre 12 8

Precast Concrete $20/sq. metre 6 14

Ready-set Concrete $23/sq. metre 9 12

Titan Concrete $28/ sq. metre 10 13

Smith’s Steel $30/metre 7.5 7

Reforged Steel $24/half metre 17 15

Andesite Concrete $30/sq. metre 10 11

Question 22

An engineer is attempting to build a bridge across a busy highway. She needs one type of
concrete and one type of steel, to be used throughout the bridge. The bridge materials need a
tensile strength of no less than 9, and a compressive strength of no less than 10. Since the
engineer wants to minimise costs when building the bridge, which materials should she use?

A) Ready-set Concrete and Tatara Steel

B) Reforged Steel and Andesite Concrete

C) Reforged Steel and Ready-set Concrete

D) Titan Concrete and Reforged Steel.

Question 23

The engineer reworks the bridge design to be more weather-resistant. Now, she needs steel
with a tensile strength of no lower than 11, and concrete with a compressive strength no lower
than 13. The compressive strength of the steel and the tensile strength of the concrete are of no
consequence. Assuming she needs to buy 100 metres of steel and 100 square metres of
concrete to construct the bridge, how much what is the price difference for this new design?

A) $300 cheaper

B) $600 cheaper

C) $1800 more expensive

D) $500 more expensive

Question 24
Adam watches a video of a man throwing a boomerang. The man leans back, then throws his
weight forward, whipping his arm ahead of him and flicking his wrist before letting go of the
boomerang. It flies in a smooth arc before coming back to the man’s location, where he catches
it effortlessly.

Adam says, “I could do that too, if I was as tall as he is”.

Question 24

What is the flaw in Adam’s reasoning?

A) Being short is preferable to being tall when throwing a boomerang

B) Performance of a task like this is related to practice, not height

C) Throwing a boomerang is a skill that Adam could never master, regardless of his height

D) None, his reasoning is completely sound

Questions 25 and 26
Laura possesses thirteen wooden orbs, each identical in appearance. All are identical in weight,
except for one orb. This orb is very slightly heavier than the others, due to a small metal core.
This difference is not enough to notice when held in hand, but enough to tip a scale.

Question 25

With only a simple scale (pictured below), what is the maximum number of uses Laura needs to
determine which is the heavy ball for absolute certainty?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Question 26

Using the same scales, Laura is presented with twelve new orbs. Eleven are of identical weight
but the twelfth is of a slightly different weight. It is unknown whether this orb is slightly heavier or
slightly lighter than the other eleven.

How many uses of the scales does Laura need to determine which is the odd ball out, and
whether it’s heavier or lighter?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 4+