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ICSE
CLASS 10
MATHEMATICS
MOCK PAPER
ICSE CLASS 10 MOCK PAPER
This file belongs to Greycells18 Media Ltd.
ICSE
Class 10 Mathematics
Mock Paper
Time: 2 ½ Hours. Total Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in
reading the question paper.
3. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
4. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
5. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
Section A
(Attempt all questions from this section.)
1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
4sin30 cos0  4 
i) Given matrix A    and B    . If AX = B, then the order of matrix X is
 cos0 4sin30 5 
(a) 1×1
(b) 2×2
(c) 1×2
(d) 2×1
ii) The value of ‘x’ which satisfies the equation (x + 5)(x – 5) = 24 will be
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
iii) For a transaction within Delhi, MRP = Rs. 12,000, Discount % = 30%, GST = 18%, then
CGST =?
(a) Rs. 756
(b) Rs. 765
(c) Rs. 786
(d) Rs. 768
iv) The roots of a quadratic equation are real and equal if its
(a) discriminant < 0
(b) discriminant > 0
(c) discriminant = 0
(d) discriminant = 1
v) Find the 5th term of the AP 30, 28, 26, 24,…

(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 26
(d) 22
www.topperlearning.com 1
vi) If a : b = c : d, then 4a + 3b : 4a – 3b =
(a) 3c + 4d : 3c – 4d
(b) 3c – 4d : 3c + 4d
(c) 4c – 3d : 4c + 3d
(d) 4c + 3d : 4c – 3d
vii) In the given figure, AB and DE are perpendiculars to BC. If AB = 5 cm, DE = 4 cm and AC
= 13 cm, then ΔABC ~ ΔDEC by_______
(a) SSS test

(b) AA test
(c) SAS test
(d) RHS test
viii)The height of a circular cylinder is 20 cm and the radius of its base is 7 cm, then its volume
will be (Use  = 22/7)
(a) 3080 cm3
(b) 3800 cm3
(c) 3880 cm3
(d) 3380 cm3
ix) A die has 6 faces marked by the given numbers as shown below:
The die is thrown once. So the probability of getting a positive integer is

(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
x) The locus of a point equidistant from _____________________ is the bisector of the angle
between the lines.
(a) two coincident lines
(b) two parallel lines
(c) two intersecting lines
(d) two perpendicular lines
xi) The angle between a tangent and a chord through the point of contact is _____________ an
angle in the alternate segment.
(a) less than
(b) equal to
(c) greater than
(d) less than or equal to
1
xii) The height of a pole is times the length of its shadow. The angle of elevation of the sun
3
is
(a) 60o
(b) 45o
(c) 300
(d) 90o
xiii) The money required to buy 220, Rs. 30 shares at a discount of Rs. 5 is
(a) Rs. 5,000
(b) Rs. 5,500
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 4,500
xiv) The equation of line AB is
(a) x – 8y = 27
(b) x + 8y = 27
(c) x – 8y = –27
(d) x + 8y = –27
xv) Assertion (A): If N = 100, assumed mean = 700 and ∑fidi = –780, then the mean = 707.8.
 fi di
Reason (R): Mean by assumed mean method = Assumed mean +
N
(a) A is true, R is false
(b) A is false, R is true
(c) both A and R are true
(d) both A and R are false
2.
i) A conical tent is to accommodate 77 persons. Each person must have 16 m3 of air to
breath. Given the radius of the tent as 7 m, find the height of the tent and also its curved
surface area. [4]
ii) Mohan has a recurring deposit account in a bank for 2 years at 6% p.a. simple interest. If
he gets Rs. 1,200 as interest at the time of maturity, find [4]
(a) the monthly instalment
(b) the amount of maturity.
cot A  1 cot A
iii) Prove that  [4]
2  sec A 1  tan A
2
3.
x2  y 2 1
i) If 2  2 , find [4]
x y 2
8
x
A.
y
x3  y 3
B.
x3  y 3
ii) In the figure given, O is the centre of the circle. DAE = 70°. Find giving suitable reasons,
the measure of [4]
A. BCD
B. BOD
C. OBD
iii) The table shows the distribution of the scores obtained by 160 shooters in a shooting
competition. Use a graph sheet and draw an ogive for the distribution. (Take 2 cm = 10
scores on the X-axis and 2 cm = 20 shooters on the Y-axis.)
Scores 0- 10- 20- 30- 40- 50- 60- 70- 80- 90-
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
No. of 9 13 20 26 30 22 15 10 8 7
shooters
Use your graph to estimate the following: [5]

(a) The median
(b) The interquartile range.
(c) The number of shooters who obtained a score of more than 85%.
Section B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)
4.
1 3  2 1
i) If A    , B   and A2  5B2  5C. Find the matrix C where C is a 2 by 2
3 4  3 2
matrix. [3]
3
ii) One root of the quadratic equation 8x2 + mx + 15 = 0 is . Find the value of m. Also, find
4
the other root of the equation. [3]
iii) PQR is a triangle. S is a point on the side QR of ∆PQR such that PSR = QPR. Given QP =
8 cm, PR = 6 cm and SR = 3 cm. [4]
A. Prove that ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR.
B. Find the lengths of QR and PS.
5.
i) The histogram below represents the scores obtained by 25 students in a Mathematics
mental test. Use the data to: [3]
A. Frame a frequency distribution table.
B. Calculate mean.
C. Determine the Modal class.
ii) A computer mechanic in Delhi charges repairing cost from five different persons A, B, C,
D and E with certain discounts. The repairing costs and the corresponding discounts are
as given below: [3]
Name of the person A B C D E
Repairing cost (in Rs.) 5500 6250 4800 7200 3500
Discount % 30 40 30 20 40
If the rate of GST is 18%, find the total money (including GST) received by the mechanic.
iii) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. CE is a tangent to the circle at A. If ∠ABD
= 28o, then find [4]
A. ∠BDA
B. ∠BAD
C. ∠CAD
D. ∠ODB
6.
2 1 1 133
i) How many terms of the GP ,  , ,.... must be added to get the sum equal to  ?[3]
9 3 2 144
ii) The weight of 50 workers is given below: [3]
Weight 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80 80 – 90 90 – 100 100 – 110 110 – 120

in kg
No. of 4 7 11 14 6 5 3
workers
Draw an ogive of the given distribution using a graph sheet. Take 2 cm = 10 kg on one axis
and 2 cm = 5 workers along the other axis. Use the ogive drawn to estimate the following:
(a) The upper and lower quartiles.
(b) If weighing 95 kg and above is considered overweight, find the number of workers
who are overweight.
iii) A metal pipe has a bore (inner diameter) of 5 cm. The pipe is 5 mm thick all round. Find
the weight, in kilogram, of 2 metres of the pipe if 1 cm3 of the metal weights 7.7 g. [4]
7.
i) P(7, 6), Q(–5, –4) and R(3, –10) are the vertices of a triangle PQR. Find [5]
(a) the slope of the altitude of PQ.
(b) the slope of the median PM.
(c) the slope of the line parallel to PR.
(d) the slope of the line parallel to QR.
ii) An aeroplane, at an altitude of 250 m, observes the angles of depression of two boats on
the opposite banks of a river to be 45° and 60° respectively. Find the width of the river.
Write the answer correct to the nearest whole number. [5]
Question 8
i) Solve the following inequation and represent the solution set on a number line.
1 1 1
8    4x  7 , x  I [3]
2 2 2
ii) Out of the two concentric circles, the radius of the outer circle is 5 cm, and the chord AC,
with a length of 8 cm, is a tangent to the inner circle. Find the radius of the inner circle.[3]
iii) If P(–b, 9a – 2) divides the line segment joining the points A(–3, 3a + 1) and B(5, 8a) in
the ratio 3:1, find the values of a and b. [4]
Question 9
i) A school has 630 students. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 3:2.
This ratio changes to 7:5 after the admission of 90 new students. Find the number of
newly admitted boys. [3]
ii) Rs. 7500 were divided equally among a certain number of children. Had there been 20
less children, each would have received Rs. 100 more. Find the original number of
children. [3]
iii) Using ruler and compass only, construct a ΔABC such that BC = 5 cm, AB = 6.5 cm and
∠ABC = 120o. [4]
(a) Construct a circumcircle of ΔABC.
(b) Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, such that D is equidistant from AB and BC.
Question 10
i) What must be subtracted from 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7 so that the resulting expression has 2x
+ 1 as a factor? [3]
ii) Sixteen cards are labelled as a, b, c, … , m, n, o, p. They are put in a box and shuffled. A boy
is asked to draw a card from the box. What is the probability that the card drawn is [3]
a. a vowel?
b. a consonant?
c. none of the letters of the word median?
iii) Use graph paper for this question. [4]

(Take 2 cm = 1 unit along both x-axis and y-axis.)
Plot the points O(0, 0), A(–4, 4), B(–3, 0) and C(0, –3).
Reflect points A and B on the y-axis and name them A’ and B’ respectively. Write down
their co-ordinates.
ICSE
CLASS 10
PHYSICS
MOCK PAPER
ICSE
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper
Time: 2 Hours. Total Marks: 80
1. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
2. The intended marks of questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section)
1. [15]
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the
questions, write the correct answer only.)
i) What is the product of force and the time for which force acts known?
(a) Momentum
(b) Acceleration
(c) Inertia
(d) Impulse of Force
ii) A force of 16 N acts on a body of mass 90 kg for two minutes. If the body is initially at rest,
the final velocity of it is:
(a) 20.36 m/s
(b) 21.36 m/s
(c) 22.36 m/s
(d) 23.36 m/s
iii) The series of energy inter-conversions in a steam engine is

(a) Chemical energy > Heat energy > Potential Energy
(b) Chemical energy > Heat energy
(c) Chemical energy > Heat energy > Kinetic Energy
(d) Chemical energy > Kinetic Energy
iv) Name the process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus.
(a) Radioactivity
(b) Transmutation
(c) Fission reaction
(d) Fusion reaction
v) Assertion (A): Deviation of light rays occurs only at the first surface of the prism.
Reason (R): A prism does not produce colours but splits into various colours present in
the light incident on it.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true
(b) Both assertion and reason are false
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true
(d) Assertion is true reason is false
vi) A ray of light passing through a principal focus or appearing to meet at the principal focus,
after refraction, will emerge:
(a) Parallel to the principal focus
(b) Parallel to the principal axis
(c) Perpendicular to the principal focus
(d) Perpendicular to the principal axis
vii) To reflect sound waves from any surface, it should have dimensions
(a) Equal or less than the wavelength of the sound wave
(b) Equal or greater than the wavelength of the sound wave
(c) Always greater than the wavelength of sound wave
(d) Always less than the wavelength of sound wave
viii) What is the safe limit of sound level in dB for our ears?
(a) Up to 120 dB
(b) Up to 12 dB
(c) Up to 1200 dB
(d) Up to 240 dB
ix) When 1 coulomb of charge moves against a potential difference of 1 volt, how much work
is done?
(a) 1 joule
(b) 2 joule
(c) 0.5 joule
(d) 1.5 joule
x) A bulb is rated as 270V, 0.5 A. Its power is

(a) 125 watt
(b) 100 watt
(c) 60 watt
(d) 135 watt
xi) A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field, parallel to the field, its kinetic energy:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Becomes zero
xii) The latent heat of the fusion of ice is 80 cal/g. The heat required to melt 2g of ice is:
(a) 40 cal
(b) 80 cal
(c) 160 cal
(d) 120 cal
xiii) Ocean currents carry icebergs over very long distances due to:
(a) high specific heat capacity of water
(b) high specific latent heat of vapourisation of water
(c) high specific latent heat of fusion of ice
(d) low specific latent heat of fusion of ice
xiv) The colour which deviates most in the formation of the spectrum of white light by a prism
is
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Violet
(d) Yellow
xv) The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always:
(a) Real and inverted
(b) Real and erect
(c) Virtual and erect
(d) Virtual and inverted
2.
(i) [3]
(a) Why is less effort needed to lift a load over an inclined plane as compared to lifting the
load directly?
(b) One isotope of uranium has a mass number of 235 and an atomic number of 92.
1. What is the number of electrons in the neutral atom of this isotope?
2. What is the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus?
(ii) State any two properties which are common to both the beta rays and cathode rays. [2]
(iii) Name any two electromagnetic waves with a frequency higher than violet light. State one
use of each. [2]
(iv) State two ways by which the frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string can
be decreased. [2]
(v) Why does the temperature of the surroundings start falling when the ice of a frozen lake
starts melting? [2]
(vi) Four resistors of 2.0 Ω each are joined end to end to form a square ABCD. Calculate the
equivalent resistance of the combination between any two adjacent corners. [2]
(vii) Why is the earth pin made longer and thicker than the other two pins in a three-pin plug?
[2]
3.
(i) Which physical quantity does the electron volt measure? How is it related to the SI unit of
this quality? [2]
(ii) What should be the angle between force and displacement to get
(a) Minimum work (b) Maximum work [2]
(iii) What are non-contact forces? [2]
(iv) The work done by the heart is 1 joule per beat. Calculate the power of the heart if it beats
72 times in one minute. [2]
(v) Mention two properties of a wave—one property which varies and the other which
remains constant when the wave passes from one medium to another. [2]
Section B
Attempt any four questions from this section
4.
(i) [3]
(a) When do we apply Fleming's right-hand rule?
(b) State Fleming's right-hand rule.
(c) How does the magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor vary with the
amount of current flowing through the conductor?
(ii) Calculate the heat energy released when 5.0 kg of steam is converted to water at 100°C.
Express your answer in SI units (Specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam is 2268
kJ/kg). [3]
(iii) [4]
238
(a) How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when the Uranium nucleus 92 U
decays to Lead 206

82 Pb ?
(b) State two factors on which the rate of emission of electrons from a heated surface
depends.
(c) State the energy change that occurs when a magnet is moved inside a coil with a
galvanometer at its ends. Name this phenomenon.
5.
(i) [3]
(a) State the law of conservation of energy.
(b) Name the chief energy transformation that occurs
(1) In a loudspeaker
(2) In an electrical cell (primary).
(ii) [3]
(a) Define a simple machine.
(b) State the basic principle of a simple machine.
(c) Can a simple machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same
time?
(iii) The figure shows the combination of a movable pulley P1 with a fixed P2 used for lifting a
load W. [4]
(a) State the function of the fixed pulley P2.

(b) If the string's free end moves through a distance x, find the distance by which the load
W is raised.
(c) Calculate the force that must be applied at C to raise the load W = 20 kgf, neglecting
the weight of the pulley P1 and air friction.
6.
(i)
(a) A glass slab is placed over a page on which the word VIBGYOR is printed, with each
letter corresponding to its colour. [3]
1. Will the image of all the letters be in the same place?
2. If not, state which letter will be raised to the maximum. Give reasons to support
your answer.
(ii) [3]
(a) What is meant by refraction?
(b) Express the refractive index µ of a medium.
1. In terms of the velocity of light
2. In terms of the angle of incidence i in the air and the angle of refraction r in a denser
medium.
(c) If a ray of light passes from medium I to medium II without any change in direction,
what can be said about the refractive indices of these media (angle i is not 0°)?
(iii) The ray diagram below illustrates the experimental setup for determining the focal length
of a converging lens using a plane mirror. [4]
(a) State the magnification of the image formed.

(b) Write two characteristics of the image formed.
(c) What is the name given to the distance between the object and the optical centre of
the lens in the diagram?
(d) Which lens has greater power, a convex lens with a focal length of 20 cm or a concave
lens with a focal length of 30 cm?
7.
(i) Water falls from a height of 50 m. Calculate the rise in temperature of water when it
strikes the bottom. g = 10 ms−2, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg−1C−1. [3]
(ii) [3]
(a) What is the difference between kW and kWh?
(b) Prove that 1 kWh = 3.6 MJ.
(c) What is the practical unit of power?
(iii)
(a) What is the difference between echo and reverberation? [4]
(b) Calculate the minimum distance between the object and the source at which the echo
can be distinctly heard.
(c) Can sound be clearly heard on the surface of the moon?
8.
(i) An electrical appliance is rated 1500 W, 250 V. This appliance is connected to 250 V mains.
Calculate: [3]
(a) Current drawn
(b) Electrical energy consumed in 6 hours
(c) Cost of electrical energy at Rs 2.50 per kWh
(ii) [3]
(a) How can you prepare an electromagnet?
(b) What do you mean by electromagnetic induction? What is the necessary condition for
electromagnetic induction?
(iii) In the following figure, A, B and C are three ammeters. Ammeter B reads 0.5 A. (All the
ammeters have negligible resistance.) [4]
Calculate:
(a) Readings in ammeters A and C
(b) Total resistance of the circuit
9.
(i) A radar is able to detect the reflected waves from an enemy's aeroplane after a time
interval of 0.02 ms. If the velocity of the wave is 3 × 108 ms−1, calculate the distance of the
plane from the radar. [3]
(ii) A piece of ice is heated at a constant rate. The variation of temperature with the heat input
is shown in the graph given below: [3]
(a) What is represented by AB and CD?

(b) What conclusion can you draw regarding the nature of ice from the above graph?
(iii) Priya had a calorimeter filled with water at room temperature (27° C) and an iron ball
weighing 0.1 kg. [4]
Answer the following questions based on the given information.

[Consider: Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg K]
(a) State the working principle of calorimetry and also provide the mathematical
expression for the same.
(b) What would be the specific heat capacity of the iron ball if Priya placed it inside a
calorimeter and observed that 5000 J of heat energy is required to raise the
temperature by 10° C?
(c) Find the heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water from 27° C to
57°.
(d) When an iron ball is heated to 400 K and dropped in a calorimeter of mass 0.5 kg filled
with 1 kg water at temperature 300 K. After stirring the water, what will the
thermometer record the final temperature?
ICSE
CLASS 10
CHEMISTRY
MOCK PAPER
ICSE
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two hours
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION-A
(Attempt all questions from this Section)
1.
Choose one correct answer to the questions from the given options: [15]
(i) Ekta placed electrolysis circuit in copper sulphate solution and observed that the colour
of copper sulphate remained unchanged. Which of the following electrodes she might
have used?
X – anode: copper, cathode: copper
Y – anode: copper, cathode: platinum
Z – anode: platinum, cathode: copper
(a) Only Z
(b) Only Y
(c) Only X
(d) Both Y and Z
(ii) Common characteristic of a covalent compound is:

(a) High melting point
(b) Conducts electricity when it is in the molten state
(c) Consists of molecules
(d) Always soluble in water.
(iii) Drying agent for ammonia is:

(a) Slaked lime
(b) Quicklime
(c) Baking soda
(d) Washing Soda
(iv) Ammonium hydroxide will produce a reddish brown precipitate when added to a solution
of:
(a) CuSO4
(b) Zn(NO3)2
(c) FeSO4
(d) FeCl3
(v) The oxide which can react with HCl and KOH is:
(a) ZnO
(b) CO2
(c) SiO2
(d) CaO
(vi) Two volumes of carbon monoxide on combustion with one volume of oxygen give two
volumes of carbon dioxide at the same temperature and pressure. The ratio is:
(a) 2:1:2
(b) 1:2:1
(c) 2:1:1
(d) 1:2:2
(vii) During the electrolysis of acidified water which of the following takes place:
(a) Oxygen is released at the cathode
(b) Oxygen is released at the anode
(c) Hydrogen is released at the anode
(d) Sulphur dioxide is released at the anode
(viii) The no. of valence electrons in group 18 elements is:

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 2
(ix) Duralumin is an alloy of:

(a) Al and Cu
(b) Cu and Sn
(c) Al and Ag
(d) Al and Fe
(x) Hydrogen chloride can be obtained by adding concentrated sulphuric acid to:
(a) NaCl
(b) Na2SO4
(c) Na2CO3
(d) NaNO3
(xi) Identify ‘X’ in the reaction: 2HCl + CuO → X + H2O

(a) CuCl2
(b) Cu(OH)2
(c) HOCl
(d) CuCl
(xii) Formation of chloroform from methane and chlorine is an example of:

(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Elimination
(xiii) An insoluble salt obtained when Sulphur dioxide is passed through lime water is:
(a) Calcium Hydroxide
(b) Calcium Sulphate
(c) Calcium Sulphite
(d) Calcium Sulphide
(xiv) Due to great affinity towards oxygen, coating of metal oxide is formed, which does not
allow any further reaction with acid. This metal is:
(a) Potassium
(b) Chromium
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
(xv) The element with the highest ionization potential in the periodic table is:
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Xe
2.
(i) The diagram shows an experiment set up for the laboratory preparation of a pungent
choking gas. [5]
(a) Name the gas collected in the gas jar.

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above preparation.
(c) How the gas being collected?
(d) Name the drying agent in this experiment?
(e) How will you find that the gas jar is full of gas?
(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]

Column A Column B
(a) Duralumin 1. Screws and handles
(b) Brass 2. Scientific Instruments
(c) Bronze 3. Joining electrical circuits
(d) Solder 4. Aircraft frames
(e) Magnalium 5. Coins
(iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [5]
(a) As we move across a period _____________ increases. (Atomic size, electron affinity)
(b) As we move down the group ____________ decreases. (Metallic character, ionization
potential)
(c) Inert gases have complete _____________. (Octet, triplet)
(d) Ionization potential is the energy ___________. (required/released)
(e) The vertical column in the periodic table is called __________. (group/period)
(iv) Name the following: [5]

(a) Process of coating of iron with zinc.
(b) Alloy of lead and tin which is used in electrical circuits.
(c) Heating concentrated ore to high temperature in the presence of air
(d) Metal oxide which can be reduced by hydrogen.
(e) Substance added to the charge in the furnace to remove gangue.
(v) [5]
(a) Draw the structural formula for the following:
1. Isobutane
2. Pentanal
3. Methanol
(b) Name the following organic compounds in IUPAC system:

1.
O
C3H7 C OH
2.
SECTION-B
(Attempt any four questions)
3.
(i) Write a balanced equation for the preparation of each of the following salts. [2]
(a) Copper sulphate from copper carbonate.
(b) Zinc carbonate from zinc sulphate.
(ii) Write the products and balance the equations. [2]

(a) Al + NaOH + H2O →
(b) P4 + HNO3  
(iii) Write the difference between: [3]

(a) Ionic compounds and polar covalent compounds
(b) Ionic compounds and covalent compounds
(c) Polar covalent compounds and non-polar covalent compounds
(iv) [3]
(a) State whether the following statements are TRUE and FALSE. Justify your answer.
1. H3PO3 is tribasic acid since it has 3 hydrogen atoms.
2. Blue crystals of copper sulphate consist of water of crystallisation.
(b) Calculate the number of moles in 392 grams of sulphuric acid.
4.
(i) Give reaction for the preparation of: [2]
(a) Methane from sodium acetate
(b) 1,2-ethane-diol from ethene
(ii) Calculate the volume of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 20 cm3 of
propane (C3H8). [2]
C3H8 + 5O2  73CO2 + 4H2O
(iii) Name the following substances: [3]

(a) An acidic gas which gives dense white fumes with NH3
(b) An alkane whose molecular mass is 58. (H = 1; C = 12)
(c) Charged particles which attract one another to form electrovalent compounds.
(iv) Write equations for the following reactions: [3]

(a) Aluminium oxide and Sodium hydroxide.
(b) Zinc and dilute sulphuric acid.
(c) Magnesium nitride and water.
5.
(i) [2]
(a) Define mineral.
(b) Which two chemical compounds are added to pure bauxite at the time of electrolytic
reduction?
(ii) Name the following: [2]

(a) Second member of alkene series
(b) First member of alkane series
(iii) What are the terms defined in following? [3]

(a) A salt containing a metal ion surrounded by other ions or molecules
(b) A base which is soluble in water
(c) A substance remove moisture from other substances
(iv) Electrons are getting added to an element ‘y’. [3]

(a) Is ‘y’ getting oxidized or reduced?
(b) What charge will ‘y’ have after the addition of electrons?
(c) Which electrode will ‘y’ migrate during the process of electrolysis?
6.
(i) Name all the particles present in: [2]
(a) Molten Sodium chloride
(b) Carbon tetrachloride
(ii) Write equations for the reactions occurring when: [2]
(a) Sodium hydroxide added to copper sulphate solution.
(b) Ammonium hydroxide is slowly added to copper sulphate solution first a little and
then in excess.
(iii) The elements of one short period of the periodic table are given in the order from left to
right. [3]
Li Be B C O F Ne
(a) To which period these elements belong?
(b) One element of this period is missing. Which is the missing element and where should
it be placed?
(c) Which one of the above elements belongs to halogen series?
(iv) Certain gaseous hydrocarbon contains 82.76% of carbon. Given that its vapour density is
29, find its molecular formula. [C = 12, H = 11] [3]
7.
(i) A compound has the following percentage composition by mass: carbon 25.41%,
hydrogen 3.17%, oxygen 33.86% and chlorine 37.56% Use this data to determine the
empirical formula of the compound. (Work to two places of decimals)
(H=1; C=12; O=16; CI=35.5) [3]
(ii) Zinc is extracted from zinc blende. The zinc blende is roasted. The solid product is mixed
with coke in the blast furnace form which zinc vapours emerge. [3]
(a) What is the Zinc compound in Zinc blende?
(b) Write the equation for the roasting of Zinc blende.
(c) What is the purpose of using coke?
(iii) What volume of oxygen is required to completely burn a mixture of 224 cm3 of methane
and 112 cm3 of hydrogen at S.T.P. to produce steam and carbon dioxide? If the steam
formed is condensed to water, find the mass of water so formed. Also, calculate gram
molecules of water formed. [4]
8.
(i) Draw the electron dot structure of the following. [2]
NH3
(ii) Name the following: [2]

(a) Compound with triple covalent bonds
(b) Ion having a coordinate bond
(iii) Name the gas evolved when: [3]

(a) Calcium carbide is hydrolyzed.
(b) Aluminium carbide is hydrolyzed.
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate with hydrochloric acid
(iv) An element Y has atomic number 20. Answer the following questions. [3]
(a) State the period & group to which it belongs:
(b) Is it a metal or Non Metal?
(c) Write the formula between Y and Hydroxyl group.
ICSE
CLASS 10
BIOLOGY
MOCK PAPER
ICSE
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper
1. Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately
2. You will be not allowed to write during first 15 minutes
3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
4. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)
1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options.
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.) [15]
(i) After a wound or a cut in the body, the blood coagulates through the
1. WBCs
2. RBCs
3. Platelets
4. Plasma
(ii) The first menstrual flow is called

1. Menopause
2. Menstruation
3. Menarche
4. Ovulation
(iii) Sahil was asked to draw the transverse section of the leaf during his practical exams. He
sketched the below diagram.
Identify the layer of cells where maximum photosynthesis occurs.

1. I, II
2. II, III
3. III, IV
4. I, IV
(iv) The cell component visible only during cell division is the
1. Centrosome
2. Chromosome
3. DNA
4. Nucleosome
(v) The β-cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone insulin. Mr. Sharma is suffering from
malfunctioning of the pancreas. Which of the following will be adversely affected in Mr.
Sharma’s body?
1. Regulation of calcium level
2. Digestion of fats
3. Metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins
4. Control of blood sugar level
(vi) The rate of photosynthesis is not affected by

1. Light intensity
2. Humidity
3. Temperature
4. CO2 concentration
(vii) An example of bio-degradable waste is

1. Peels of vegetables
2. Grass
3. Paper
4. All of these
(viii) The normal gestation period in humans is

1. 270 days
2. 290 days
3. 280 days
4. 295 days
(ix) A dark muscular membrane which controls the size of the pupil is the
1. Sclera
2. Iris
3. Cornea
4. Retina
(x) The packing tissues between the coils of the seminiferous tubules are called
1. Leydig cells
2. Hymen
3. Clitoris
4. Graafian follicle
(xi) The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
1. Fovea
2. Pupil
3. Cornea
4. Choroid
(xii) The cerebellum in the brain controls voluntary actions of the body.
Given below are few actions.
I. Beating of the heart
II. Walking
III. Blinking of the eyes
IV. Jumping from a height
Which of the above actions are controlled by the cerebellum?
1. I, II
2. II, III
3. III, IV
4. II, IV
(xiii) Assertion (A): DNA contains four types of nitrogenous bases – Adenine, Guanine,
Cytosine and Uracil.
Reason (R): Adenine pairs with Thymine with two hydrogen bonds while Guanine pairs
with Cytosine with three hydrogen bonds.
1. Both A and R are true
2. Both A and R are false
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true
(xiv) The state of a cell in which the cell wall is rigid and stretched by an increase in volume
due to the absorption can be explained as
1. Flaccidity
2. Turgidity
3. Capillarity
4. Tonicity
(xv) Nitrogenous wastes excreted through urine in humans is

1. Trimethylamine oxide
2. Ammonia
3. Uric acid
4. Urea
2.
(i) Name the following: [5]
(a) Pair of chromosomes carrying dissimilar alleles for a particular character.
(b) The term used for Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus together.
(c) Hormone which controls the basal metabolic rate.
(d) Chemicals leading to the formation of ozone hole.
(e) Number of persons per square kilometre at any given time.
(ii) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a logical
sequence beginning with the term that is underlined. [5]
(a) Upper epidermis, Spongy cell, Stoma, Palisade tissue
(b) Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase
(c) Vena cava, Right ventricle, Pulmonary veins, Right auricle
(d) Ovulation, Implantation, Fertilisation, Parturition
(e) Receptor, Effector, Motor neuron, Sensory neuron
(iii) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II and rewrite
the correct matching pairs. [5]
Column I Column II
(a) Vasectomy 1. Methane
(b) Radioactive element 2. Female sterilisation
(c) Dark reaction 3. Uranium
(d) Tubectomy 4. Grana
(e) Greenhouse gas 5. Mercury
6. Male sterilisation
7. Stroma
(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to which the others
belong: [5]
(a) Cretinism, Myxoedema, Goitre, Scurvy
(b) Sulphur dioxide, Carbon dioxide, Methane, Water vapour
(c) Olfactory lobes, Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Diencephalon
(d) Tympanum, Macula, Cochlea, Utriculus
(e) Seismonasty, Hydrotropism, Geotropism, Phototropism
(v) State the exact location of the following structures. [5]

(a) Lenticels
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Bicuspid valve
(e) Pancreas
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this section.)
3.
(i) Why gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes? [1]
(ii) Root hairs become flaccid when fertilisers are added to the moist soil around it. Explain.
[2]
(iii) Differentiate between the following pairs based on what is mentioned in the brackets:[2]
a) Australopithecus and Modern man (Body hair)
b) Homo habilis and Homo sapiens (Posture)
(iv) State the difference in the arrangement of neurons in the brain and the spinal cord. [2]
(v) What is dialysis? Under what conditions is it carried out? [3]
4.
(i) Name the blood vessel which [1]
(1) begins and ends in capillaries.
(2) supplies blood to the walls of the heart.
(ii) When are the sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUP’ produced during a heartbeat? [2]
(iii) The diagram below is that of a structure present in the human kidneys. [2]
a) Name the structure represented in the diagram.

b) What is the liquid entering part ‘1’ and part ‘2’called?
(iv) Give the functions of the spinal cord. [2]
(v) The diagram below represents an experiment to demonstrate a certain phenomenon in a
green plant. [3]
a) Will the level of mercury in the glass tubing rise or fall? Which conducting tissue of
the plant does the glass-tubing represent?
b) How will the rate of the above process differ if the environment of the plant has:
(i) Less humidity
(ii) High temperature
c) State any two advantages of transpiration to the plant.
5.
(i) Name two involuntary actions controlled by the medulla in the hind brain. [1]
(ii) Abnormally a large number of WBCs in the blood is usually an indication of some infection
in our body. Give reason. [2]
(iii) Why is photosynthesis important in nature? [2]
(iv) What is fertilisation? Name the site of fertilisation in the body of a human female. [2]
(v) A homozygous dominant tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRR) is crossed with a
homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant bearing white flowers (ttrr). [3]
a) What is the phenotype and genotype of the F1 individuals?
b) Write the possible combinations of gametes that are obtained when two F 1 hybrid
plants are crossed.
c) Mention the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation.
6.
(i) Define the following term - Diapedesis. [1]
(ii) In a mitotic cell division, enumerate the changes that occur in the nucleus of a cell
during [2]
a) Prophase
b) Anaphase
(iii) Mention the two principles through which Lamarck explained his ideas. [2]
(iv) Explain why the grass in the lawn becomes greener if you add a little fertiliser to it but
dies if you add a lot of it. [2]
(v) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a defect in the human eye. [3]
a) Identify the defect.

b) Mention two reasons for the above defect.
c) State how the defect can be rectified.
7.
(i) List two main functions of the internal ear. [1]
(ii) Define growth rate of population. In what situation can this rate be negative? [2]
(iii) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a human ovum. [2]
(iv) What is a monohybrid cross? How did Mendel perform this cross? [2]
(v) The diagram given below represents a plant movement. [3]
a) Name and explain the tropic movement shown in the diagram.

b) Label the part marked ‘A’.
c) What is part A attracted to?
Question 8
(i) How is soil pollution caused? [1]
(ii) What are the disadvantages of transpiration? [2]
(iii) The full-grown human embryo respires but does not breathe. [2]
(iv) What is the greenhouse effect and how is it caused? [2]
(v) Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
a) Name the cells of the pancreas that produce (1) glucagon, (2) insulin.
b) State the main function of glucagon and insulin.
c) Why is insulin not given orally but is injected into the body?
ICSE
CLASS 10
MATHEMATICS
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
ICSE
Class 10 Mathematics
Mock Paper
Section A
1.
i)
Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
4sin30 cos0  4 
Given, A    and B   
 cos0 4sin30 5 
Let the order of matrix X = m × n
Order of matrix A = 2 × 2
Order of matrix B = 2 × 1
Now, AX = B
Thus, the order of matrix X = m × n = 2 × 1
ii)
Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
Given: (x + 5)(x – 5) = 24
 x 2  52  24
 x 2  25  24
 x 2  49
 x 7
iii)
Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
MRP = Rs. 12,000, Discount % = 30%, GST = 18%
30
Discount = 30% of 12,000 =  12000  Rs. 3600
100
Selling price (discounted value) = Rs. (12000 – 3600) = Rs. 8400
CGST = 9% of 8400 = Rs. 756
iv)
Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
The roots of a quadratic equation are real and equal if its discriminant = 0.
v)
Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
30, 28, 26, 24,…
 a = 30, d = 28 – 30 = −2
5th term = 24 + (–2) = 22
vi)
Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
a:b=c:d
a c
 
b d
4a 4c  4
   Multiplying each side by 
3b 3d  3
4a  3b 4c  3d
   By componendo-dividendo 
4a  3b 4c  3d
⇒ 4a + 3b : 4a – 3b = 4c + 3d : 4c – 3d
vii)
Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
In ΔABC and ΔDEC,

ABC = DEC = 90˚
C = C (Common)
∴ ΔABC ~ ΔDEC (By AA similarity)
viii)
Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
For a circular cylinder,
Height  h  20 cm
Radius of the base  r  7cm
Volume of a cylinder  r2h
22
  7  7  20
7
 3080 cm3
ix)
Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
Given that the die has following numbers on the 6 faces:
When the die is rolled, total number of outcomes = 6

There are 3 positive integers.
So, number of favorable outcomes = 3
3 1
 Required probability  
6 2
x)
Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
The locus of a point equidistant from two intersecting lines is the bisector of the angle
between the lines.
xi)
Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
The angle between a tangent and a chord through the point of contact is equal to an angle
in the alternate segment.
xii)
Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
Let the length of the shadow of a pole = b units
Then, the height of the pole = 1 b units
3
If 𝜃 is the angle of elevation, then
1
b
tan 𝜃 = 3  1 = tan 30o
b 3
⇒ 𝜃 = 30o
xiii)
Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
Total number of shares = 220
Nominal value of a share = Rs. 30
Market value of a share = Rs. 30 – Rs. 5 = Rs. 25
Money required to buy 220 shares = Rs. 25 × 220 = Rs. 5,500
xiv)
Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
34 1
Slope of AB  
3  ( 5) 8
Then, equation of AB is given by
1
y  4   (x  ( 5))
8
 8y  32  (x  5)
 8y  32  x  5
 x  8y  27
xv)
Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
The statement given in reason is correct and hence reason is true.
Given: N = 100, assumed mean = 700 and ∑fidi = –780
 fidi
Mean = Assumed mean +
N
780
 700 
100
 700  7.8
 692.2
Hence, assertion is false.
2.
i) According to the condition in the question,
1
77  16  r2h
3
1 22
 77  16    7  7  h
3 7
77  16  3  7
h 
22  7  7
 h  24 m
We know that,
l2 = r2 + h2
⇒ l2 = (7)2 + (24)2
⇒ l2 = 49 + 576
⇒ l2 = 625
⇒ l = 25 m
22
 Curved surface area of a tent = rl =  7 25 = 550 m2
7
Therefore, the height of the tent is 24 m, and its curved surface area is 550 m2.
ii) Interest, I = Rs. 1,200
Time, n = 2 years = 2 × 12 = 24 months
Rate, r = 6%
(a) To find: Monthly instalment, P
Now,
n(n  1) r
I  P 
2  12 100
24  25 6
 1,200  P  
24 100
3
 1,200  P 
2
1,200  2
P 
3
 P  Rs. 800
So, the monthly instalment is Rs. 800.
(b) Total sum deposited = P × n = Rs. 800 × 24 = Rs. 19,200

 Amount of maturity = Total sum deposited + Interest on it
= Rs. (19,200 + 1,200)
= Rs. 20,400
cot A  1
iii) L.H.S. 
2  sec2 A
1
 1
 tan A

2  1  tan2 A 
1  tan A


tan A 1 tan2 A 
1  tan A 

tan A 1 tan A 1  tan A 
1

tan A(1  tan A)
1 1
 
tan A (1  tan A)
cot A

1  tan A
 R.H.S.
Hence, L.H.S. = R.H.S.
3.
i)
x2  y 2 1
A. 2
x y
2 2
8
x2  y 2 17
 
x2  y 2 8
Using componendo and dividendo,
x2  y 2  x2  y 2 17  8
 
x y  x y
2 2
 2 2
 17  8
2x2 25
 
2y 2 9
x2 25
 
y2 9
x 5
 
y 3
x 5
B. Now, 
y 3
x3 53
 
y 3 33
x3 125
 
y 3 27
Using componendo and dividendo,
x3  y 3 125  27
 3 
x  y 3 125  27
x3  y 3 152
 
x3  y 3 98
x3  y 3 76
 3 
x  y 3 49
ii)
A. DAE and DAB form a linear pair.
⇒ DAE + DAB = 180°
⇒ 70o + DAB = 180°
 DAB = 110°
Also,
BCD + DAB = 180° … (Opp. angles of cyclic quadrilateral BADC)
⇒ BCD + 110o = 180°
 BCD = 70°
B. BCD = ½ BOD … (angles subtended by an arc on the center and on the circle)
⇒ 70o = ½ BOD
 BOD = 140°
C. In BOD,
OB = OD … (Radii of the same circle)
So, OBD =ODB … (Angles opposite to equal sides are equal)
Now, OBD + ODB + BOD = 180° … (Sum of angles of triangle)
⇒ 2OBD + 140o = 180°
⇒ 2OBD = 40°
⇒ OBD = 20°
iii)
Scores f c.f.
0 – 10 9 9
10 – 20 13 22
20 – 30 20 42
30 – 40 26 68
40 – 50 30 98
50 – 60 22 120
60 – 70 15 135
70 – 80 10 145
80 – 90 8 153
90 – 100 7 160
n = 160
The ogive is shown below:
th th
n  160 
(a) Median    term    term  80 term
th
2
   2 
Through mark 80 on y-axis, draw a horizontal line which meets theogive
drawn at point Q.
Through Q, draw a vertical line which meets the x-axis at the mark of 43.
 Median  43
(b) Since the number of terms  160
th
 160 
Lower quartile (Q1 )    term  40 term  28
th
 4 
th
 3  160 
Upper quartile (Q3 )    term  120th term  60
 4 
 Inter-quartile range  Q3  Q 1  60  28  32
(c) 85% scores = 85% of 100 = 85

Through mark of 85 on x-axis, draw a vertical line that meets the ogive drawn at point
B.
Through the point B, draw a horizontal line that meets the y-axis at the mark of 150.
⇒ Number of shooters who obtained more than 85% score = 160 – 150 = 10
Section B
4.
i)
1 3  1 3  1  1  3  3 1  3  3  4  10 15
A2  A  A        
3 4 3 4  3  1  4  3 3  3  4  4  15 25
 2 1  2 1  2   2  1   3 2  1  1  2  1 0
B2  B  B        
 3 2  3 2  3   2  2   3 3  1  2  2  0 1
Given: A2 – 5B2 = 5C
10 15 1 0
  5    5C
15 25 0 1
10 15 5 0
    5C
15 25 0 5
 5 15
   5C
15 20
1 3 
 5   5C
3 4 
1 3 
C   
3 4 
ii) Given quadratic equation is 8x2 + mx + 15 = 0.
3
One of the roots of the given equation is , so it satisfies the given equation.
4
2
3 3
 8    m    15  0
4  4
9 3
  15  m    0
2 4
3 39
 m   
4 2
 m  26
So, the given equation becomes 8x2 – 26x + 15 = 0.
 8x2  20x  6x  15  0
 4x(2x  5)  3(2x  5)  0
 (4x  3)(2x  5)  0
3 5
x ,
4 2
5
Hence, the other root is .
2
iii)
A.
In ∆PQR and ∆SPR,
QPR = PSR … (given)
PRQ = SRP … (common angle)
⇒ ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR … (AA Test)
B. Since ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR [from (i)]

PQ QR PR
   .... (a)
SP PR SR
QR PR
Now, 
PR SR
QR 6
 
6 3
66
 QR   12 cm
3
Also,
PQ PR
 ... from (a)
SP SR
8 6
 
SP 3
83
 SP   4 cm
6
5.
i)
A. The frequency distribution table is as follows:
Class interval Frequency

0 – 10 2
10 – 20 5
20 – 30 8
30 – 40 4
40 – 50 6
B.
Class interval Frequency Mean value fx

(f) (x)
0 – 10 2 5 10
10 – 20 5 15 75
20 – 30 8 25 200
30 – 40 4 35 140
40 – 50 6 45 270
f = 25 fx = 695
 fx 695
 Mean    27.8
f 25
Here the maximum frequency is 8 which is corresponding to class 20 – 30.

Hence, the modal class is 20 – 30.
ii)
Name of Repairing Discount Discount Selling
the person cost (in Rs.) % price
A 5500 30 1650 3850
B 6250 40 2500 3750
C 4800 30 1440 3360
D 7200 20 1440 5760
E 3500 40 1400 2100
Total 18,820
18
GST =  18820  Rs. 3387.60
100
Therefore, total money (including GST) received by the mechanic
= Rs. (18,820 + 3387.6)
= Rs. 22,207.6
iii)
(a) O is the centre of the circle and AB is its diameter.
Now, ∠BDA is an angle made by the semicircle.
⇒ ∠BDA = 90o
(b) In ΔBAD,
∠ABD + ∠BAD + ∠BDA = 180o
⇒ 28o + ∠BAD + 90o = 180o
⇒ ∠BAD = 62o
(c) ∠CAD and ∠ABD are the angles by the same chord but in different segments.
Then, by Alternate segment theorem, we have
∠CAD = ∠ABD = 28o
(d) In ΔODB,
OD = OB … (radii of the same circle)
⇒ ∠OBD = ∠ODB … (Opposite angles of equal sides are also equal)
⇒ ∠ODB = 28o
6.
1
i)
2
Here, a = , r = 3   3 and Sn =  133
9 2 2 144
9
3 3
Clearly, r     r  1
2 2
Therefore,
Sn 

a rn  1 
r 1
2   3  
n
    1
133 9   2  

 
144 3
 1
2
2   3  
n
    1
133 9   2  

 
144 5

2
n
133  5  9  3 
     1
144  2  2  2 
n
665  3 
  1
64  2 
n
 3  665 729
   1
 2  64 64
n 6
 3   3 
   
 2   2
n 6
ii) The cumulative frequency table of the given distribution table is as follows:
Weight in kg Number of Cumulative

workers (f) frequency
50 – 60 4 4
60 – 70 7 11
70 – 80 11 22
80 – 90 14 36
90 – 100 6 42
100 – 110 5 47
110 – 120 3 50
Plot the points (60, 4), (70, 11), (80, 22), (90, 36), (100, 42), (110, 47) and (120, 50) on a
graph paper and join them to get an ogive.
y
70
65
60
55
(120, 50)
50
(110, 47)
45
(100, 42)
40
C
35 B
(90, 36)
30
25
(80, 22)
20
15
A
10 (70, 11)
(60, 4)
5
x
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130
Number of workers ,N  50
th th
 3 N   3  50 
term  37.5 term  92
th
(a) Upper quartile (Q3 )    term   
 4   4 
th th
N  50 
Lower quartile (Q1 )    term    term  12.5 term  71
th
4  4 
(b) Through mark of 95 kg on the x – axis, draw a vertical line which meets the graph at
point C.
Through point C, draw a horizontal line which meets the y-axis at the mark of 39.
∴ Number of workers who are overweight = 50 – 39 = 11
iii)
5
Inner radius of the pipe  r  cm  2.5 cm
2
External radius of the pipe  R  Inner radius of the pipe  Thickness of the pipe
 2.5 cm  0.5 cm
 3 cm
Length of the pipe  h  2 m  200 cm
Volume of the pipe  External Volume  Internal Volume
 R 2 h  r2 h

  R 2  r2 h
   R  r  R  r  h
22
 3  2.53  2.5  200
7
22
  0.5  5.5  200
7
 1728.6 cm3
Since 1cm3 of the metal weights 7.7 g,
 1728.6  7.7 
 Weight of the pipe  (1728.6  7.7) g    kg  13.31 kg
 1000 
7.
i) Given, P(7, 6), Q(–5, –4) and R(3, –10) are the vertices of a ΔPQR.
4  6 10 5
(a) Slope of PQ =  
5  7 12 6
1 1 6
Therefore, slope of the altitude of PQ =  
slope of PQ 5 5
6
(b) Since M is the mid-point of QR,
 5  3 4  10   2 14 
Coordinates of M are  ,  ,   1, 7 
 2 2   2 2 
7  6 13 13
Therefore, the slope of the median PM =  
1  7 8 8
10  6 16
(c) Slope of PR =  4
37 4
Therefore, the slope of the line parallel to PR = Slope of PR = 4
10   4  6 3
(d) Slope of QR =  
3   5 8 4
3
Therefore, the slope of the line parallel to QR = Slope of QR = 
4
ii)
Let A be the position of the aeroplane and let BC be the river.

Let D be the point on BC just below the aeroplane.
B and C be two boats on the opposite banks of the river with angles of depression 60° and
45° from A.
In ADC,
AD
tan 45 
DC
250
1
y
 y  250 m  DC
In ADB,
AD
tan 60 
BD
250
 3
x
250 250 3 250  1.732
x   =144.3 m  BD
3 3 3
 BC  BD  DC  144.3  250  394.3  394 m
Thus, the width of the river is 394 m.
8.
1 1 1
i) 8    4x  7 , x  I
2 2 2
Consider
1 1
8    4x
2 2
15 1
    4x
2 2
15 1
   4x
2 2
14
  4x
2
 7  4x
 7  4x
7
x
4
Consider
1 1
  4x  7
2 2
1 15
   4x 
2 2
15 1
 4x  
2 2
 4x  8
 x  2
So,
7
 x  2
4
As, x  I
x  2, 1,0,1
ii)
Let O be the centre of concentric circles.

Sin ce AC is a tangent to the inner circle.
OBC  90 ....(tangent is perpendicular to the radius of a circle)
AC is a chord of the outer circle.
We know that, the perpendicular drawn from the centre to a chord
of a circle, bisects the chord.
So, AC  2BC
8
 BC  cm  4 cm
2
In OBC, by Pythagoras theorem,
OC2  OB2  BC2
 52  r2  42
 r2  52  42  25  16  9 cm
 r  3 cm
Hence, the radius of the smaller circle is 3 cm.
iii)
Take (x1, y1) = (–3, 3a + 1), (x2, y2) = (5, 8a) and (x, y) = (–b, 9a – 2)
Here, m1 = 3 and m2 =1
 m x  m 2 x 1 m1 y 2  m 2 y 1 
 Coordinates of P(x, y)   1 2 , 
 m1  m 2 m1  m 2 
m x  m2 x 1 m y  m2 y 1
x 1 2 and y  1 2
m1  m 2 m1  m 2
3  5  1  ( 3) 3  8a  1 3a  1 
 b  and 9a  2 
31 31
15  3 24a  3a  1
 b  and 9a  2 
4 4
  4b  12 and 36a  8  27a  1
 b   3 and 9a  9
 a  1 and b   3
9.
i) Let the initial number of boys be 3x.
Then, the initial number of girls = 2x
∴ 3x + 2x = 630
⇒ 5x = 630
⇒ x = 126
Then, initial number of boys = 3x = 3 × 126 = 378
And, initial number of girls = 2x = 2 × 126 = 252
After admission of 90 new students, we have
Total number of students = 630 + 90 = 720
Now, let the number of newly admitted boys be 7x.
Then, number of newly admitted girls = 5x
7x + 5x = 720
⇒ 12x = 720
⇒ x = 60
Number of newly admitted boys = 7x = 7 × 60 = 420
Therefore, number of newly admitted boys = 420 – 378 = 42
ii)
Let the original number of children be x.
It is given that Rs. 7500 is divided among x children.
7500
 Money received by each child  Rs.
x
7500
If there were 20 less children, then money received by each child  Rs.
x  20
From the given information, we have
7500 7500
  100
x  20 x
75 75
  1
x  20 x
75x  75x  1500
 1
x2  20x
 1500  x2  20x
 x2  20x  1500  0
 x2  50x  30x  1500  0
 x(x  50)  30(x  50)  0
 (x  50)(x  30)  0
 x  50 or x  30
Since number of children cannot be negative, we reject x  30.
 x  50
Thus, the original number of children  50
iii)
Steps of construction:
1) Draw a line segment BC of length 5 cm.
2) At B, draw a ray BX making an angle of 120 with BC.
3) With B as centre and radius 6.5 cm, draw an arc to cut the ray BX at A. Join AC.
ΔABC will be obtained.
4) Draw the perpendicular bisectors of AB and BC to meet at point O.
5) With O as centre and radius OA, draw a circle. The circle will circumscribe ABC.
6) Draw the angle bisector of ABC and let it meet the circle at point D.
7) Join AD and CD to obtain the required cyclic quadrilateral ABCD such that point D is
equidistant from AB and BC.
10.
i) Here, f(x) = 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7
Let the number subtracted be k from the given polynomial f(x).
Given that 2x + 1 is a factor of f(x).
 1
 f    0
 2
3 2
 1  1  1
 16     8     4     7  k  0
 2  2  2
 1 1
 16      8  2  7  k  0
 8 4
 2  2  5  k  0
1  k  0
 k 1
Therefore, 1 must be subtracted from 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7 so that the resulting
expression has 2x + 1 as a factor.
ii) Here, total number of all possible outcomes = 16

(a) a, e, i and o are the vowels.
Number of favourable outcomes = 4
Number of favourable outcomes 4 1
 Required Probability =  
Total number of all possible outcomes 16 4
(b) Number of consonants = 16 – 4 (vowels) = 12
 Number of favourable outcomes = 12
(c) Median contains 6 letters.
 Number of favourable outcomes = 16 – 6 = 10
iii)
Hence, A’ = (4, 4) and B’ = (3, 0)

ICSE
CLASS 10
PHYSICS
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
ICSE
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper
Section A
1.
i) Correct option – d: Impulse of force
The impulse of force is the product of force and time.
ii) Correct option – b: 21.36 m/s

F = 16 N; m = 90 kg; t = 120 s; u = 0; v = ?
F
v u t
m
16
 0   120
90
= 21.36 m/s
iii) Correct option – c: Chemical energy -> Heat energy -> Kinetic Energy
Chemical energy -> Heat energy -> Kinetic Energy is a series of energy inter conversions
in steam engines.
iv) Correct option – d: Fusion reaction

Fusion reaction is the process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus.
v) Correct option – c: Assertion is false but reason is true.

Dispersion of white light occurs only at the first surface of a prism, while deviation occurs
at both the prism's surfaces.
vi) Correct option – b: Parallel to the principal axis

A ray of light passing through a principal focus or appearing to meet at the principal focus
will emerge parallel to the principal axis after refraction.
vii) Correct option – b: Equal or greater than the wavelength of the sound wave
To reflect sound waves from any surface, it should have dimensions equal to or greater
than the wavelength of the sound wave.
viii) Correct option – a: Up to 120 dB

The safe limit of sound level in dB for our ears is up to 120 dB
ix) Correct option – a: 1 joule

When 1 coulomb of charge moves against a potential difference of 1 volt, then 1 Joule of
work is done.
x) Correct option – d: 135 watt

V = 270 V, I = 0.5 A
P = V × I = 270 × 0.5 = 135 watt
xi) Correct option – c: remains constant.
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field parallel to the field; its kinetic energy
remains constant.
xii) Correct option – c: 160 cal

Here, m -= 2g; L = 80 cal/g
Heat required = mL = 2 x 80 = 160 cal
xiii) Correct option – c: high specific latent heat of fusion of ice

Ocean currents carry icebergs over very long distances due to the high specific latent heat
of fusion of ice (i.e. 3360000 J/kg).
xiv) Correct option – c: Violet

The colour which deviates most in forming the spectrum of white light by a prism is violet.
xv) Correct option – c: virtual and erect

The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always virtual and erect.
2.
(i)
(a) For an object resting on an inclined plane, the vertical force of gravity acting on it is
split into two smaller forces; one perpendicular to the plane and one parallel to the
plane. Only the parallel force needs to be counter acted by pushing, ignoring friction.
The slope provides "mechanical advantage" as a simple machine.
(b)
1. Given that,
A = 235,
Z = 92
Now,
Atomic Number Z = number of protons = number of electrons = 92
235
∴ The neutral atom of will have 92 electrons.
90
2. The number of protons = Z = 92
The number of neutrons = A - Z = 235 - 92 = 143.
(ii) Common properties of beta rays and cathode rays:

(a) Both are negatively charged with charge and mass equal to that of an electron.
(b) The electric and magnetic fields deflect both.
(c) Both cause fluorescence on striking a fluorescent material.
(iii) Two electromagnetic waves whose frequencies are higher than those of violet light are
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
Use: In the treatment of skin disorders and for killing bacteria
(b) X-rays
Use: In radiography and for detecting flaws in metals
(iv) The frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string can be decreased by

1. Decreasing the tension in the string
2. Increasing the length of the string
(v) Ice has a high specific latent heat of fusion of 336,000 J/kg. Thus, when the ice of the frozen
lake starts melting, it absorbs a large amount of heat energy from the surroundings. This
leads to a decrease in the surrounding temperature.
(vi)
Resistances R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 2Ω are connected, as shown in the diagram above.

Between A and B, the series combination of resistors R1, R3 and R4 is connected in
parallel with R2. Total resistance between A and B = RAB.
Then
1 1 1 31 4
   
R AB 2 6 6 6
R AB  1.5 
(vii) The earth pin is long so that the earth connection is made first. This ensures the user's
safety because if the appliances are defective, the fuse will blow off. The earth pin is made
thicker so that even by mistake, it cannot be inserted into the hole for a live or neutral
connection of the socket.
3.
(i) Electron volt measures energy.
1 eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J
(ii)
a) For minimum work, ϴ = 90°
b) For maximum work, ϴ = 0°
(iii) The forces acting on the bodies without physical contact with them are known as non-
contact forces. Example: Magnetic force
(iv) Work done in 1 beat = 1 J

Work done in 72 beats = 72 J
Time in which work is done, t = 60 s
Work done 72
∴ Power =   1.2 W
time taken 60
(v) The two properties of a wave are wavelength and frequency. The wavelength of a wave
changes when a wave passes from one medium to another, and the frequency of a wave
remains constant when it passes from one medium to another.
Section B
Attempt any four questions from this section.
4.
(i)
(a) Fleming's right-hand rule is used for finding the direction of induced current in a
coil/wire rotated in a magnetic field.
(b) Fleming's right-hand rule states that if the first three fingers of the right hand are
stretched mutually perpendicular to each other such that the forefinger points in the
direction of the magnetic field, the thumb indicating the direction of its motion, then
the middle finger would show the direction of induced current.
(c) On increasing the current in the conductor, the magnetic field produced also
increases.
(ii) Given,
Mass of steam m = 5 kg
Temperature of steam = 100°C
Temperature of water = 100°C
Specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam, L = 2268 kJ/kg
Heat energy released is H = mL = 5 × 2268 = 11340 kJ
(iii)
(a) Let x = no. of α decays and y = no. of β decays.
During alpha decay, the product nucleus has mass no. 4 less and atomic no. 2 less than
that of the parent nucleus. The mass number remains constant during beta decay, but
the atomic no. Increases by 1.
206 = 238 − 4x ……(i)
And 82 = 92 – 2x + y ……(ii)
From equation (i), we have
4x = 238 – 206
∴x=8
Putting this value of x in equation (ii), we get
82 = 92 – (2 × 8) + y
∴y=6
∴ No. of alpha particles emitted = 8
No. of beta particles emitted = 6
(b) The rate of emission of electrons from a heated surface depends on

 Nature of the metal surface
 Temperature of the surface
(c) Mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy when a magnet is moved inside a
coil. The phenomenon is 'electromagnetic induction'.
5.
(i)
(a) The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed;
the sum total of energy in a closed system remains unchanged, and energy only
changes from one form to another.
(b)
(1) Electrical energy to sound energy
(2) Chemical energy to electrical energy
(ii)
(a) A machine is a device which acts as a force multiplier or a speed multiplier, allowing
us to apply effort at a more convenient point in an easier direction.
(b) A simple machine works on the principle of the law of conservation of energy of a
system, i.e., energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It implies that for a
perfect or ideal machine, work done on the machine, i.e., input, is equal to the work
done by the machine, i.e., output.
(c) No, this is not possible. Machines which are force multipliers do not gain in speed, and
machines which increase speed cannot multiply force.
(iii)
(a) The function of the fixed pulley P2 is to change the direction of the application of effort
to a convenient direction, i.e. downwards.
(b) If the free end of the string moves through the distance x, then the load W will rise by
a distance of x/2.
(c) Let the force to be applied at C be equal to 'E'.
Given, load W = 20 kgf
In equilibrium, W = 2T and E = T
W 20kgf
∴ Effort needed, E =   10 kgf
2 2
6
(i)
(a)
(1) The image of all the letters will not be in the same place.
(2) The letter of violet colour (i.e. V) appears to be raised by the maximum amount,
while the letter of red colour (i.e. R) appears to be raised by the minimum amount.
real depth
Since apparent depth  and refractive index of glass is maximum
refractive index
for violet light and minimum for red light; therefore, the apparent depth is least for
violet and most for red.
(ii)
(a) Refraction is the bending of light at the surface of separation, which occurs when it
passes from one optical medium to another with different optical densities.
Speed of light in vacuum or air (c)
(b) (1) Refractive index, µ =
Speed of light in that medium (v)
sin i
(2) Refractive index, µ =
sin r
(c) The refractive index of medium I is the same as that of medium II.
(iii)
(a) Magnification = 1
(b) Characteristics of the image formed: Inverted and real
(c) The focal length of the lens
(d) The convex lens of smaller focal length (= 20 cm) has greater power since focal length
is reciprocal of power.
7.
(i) Potential energy possessed by falling water = mgh = m × 10 × 50 = 500 m
Heat absorbed by water = m c t = m × 4200 × t
By the law of conservation of energy, we have
Heat absorbed by water = PE of falling water
m × 4200 × t = 500 m
500
or t =  0.1190 C
4200
(ii)
(a) kW (kilowatt) is the unit of electrical power, and kWh (kilowatt-hour) is the unit of
electrical energy consumed in one hour.
1 kilowatt = 1000 W
1 kilowatt-hour = 1 kilowatt × 1 hour = 3.6 × 106 J
(b) One kilowatt-hour is the electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance of

power 1 kW when it is used for 1 hour.
1 kilowatt-hour = 1 kilowatt × 1 hour
= 1000 watt × 1 hour
= 1000 J/s × (60 × 60 s)
= 3.6 × 106 J
= 3.6 MJ
(c) The practical units of power are watt-hour and kilowatt-hour.
(iii)
(a) Sound heard after reflection from a rigid obstacle is called an echo. To listen to the
echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface in the air should be at a minimum
distance of 17 m from the listener. If the distance is less than 17 m, the reflected sound
will reach the ears before the original sound dies out. In such a case, the actual sound
mixes up with the reflected sound. Due to repeated reflections at the reflecting
surface, the sound gets prolonged. This effect is known as reverberation.
(b) If 'd' is the distance between the observer and the obstacle and 'v' is the speed of
sound, then the distance covered by the sound to reach the obstacle and to return is
2d. Thus, we have
Total distance travelled 2d vt
t=  ; d
Speed of sound v 2
By putting t = 0.1 s and v = 340 m/s in air at ordinary temperature, we get
340  0.1
d  17 m
2
Thus, to hear the echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface in the air should be
at a minimum distance of 17 m from the listener.
(c) Material medium is necessary for the propagation of sound. On the moon, there is a
vacuum, i.e. no air, so sound cannot propagate on the moon. Thus, sound cannot be
heard on the surface of the moon.
8.
(i) Given, power P = 1500 W, voltage V = 250 V
(a) Current I = P/V
1500
or I = =6A
250
1500
(b) Electrical energy consumed in 6 hrs = power × time = × 6 = 9 kWh
1000
(c) Cost of electrical energy at Rs 2.50 per kWh
= Electrical energy consumed × cost per unit
= 9 × 2.50 = Rs 22.5
(ii)
a) By placing a soft iron core inside a current-carrying solenoid coil.
b) Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a conductor, an induced emf
is set up in it, which gives rise to induced current. This is known as electromagnetic
induction.
The necessary condition for electromagnetic induction is that the induced emf lasts
as long as there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with the conductor.
(iii)
(a) The current in ammeters B and C is inversely proportional to the resistance value in
the parallel branch. Therefore,
reading of ammeter C 6
 2
reading of ammeter B 3
So, reading of ammeter C = 2 × 0.5 = 1.0 A
Hence, reading of ammeter A = (0.5 + 1.0) = 1.5 A
(b) Let the total resistance of the circuit be R.
So,
R = 2 + Rp
Here,
1 1 1 1
  
R 3 6 2
P
∴ R = 2 + 2 = 4Ω
9.
(i) Given, time t = 0.02 millisecond = 0.02 × 10−3 s
c = 3 × 108 m/s
Let d be the distance of the plane from the radar.
So,
2d = velocity × time
2d = 3 × 108 × 0.02 × 10−3 = 6000 m
Or
d = 3000 m = 3 km
(ii)
(a) AB corresponds to the time interval in which ice melts to form water.CD corresponds
to the time interval when water (at 100°C) boils to form vapour (steam) at 100°C.
(b) Ice is pure because it melts at 0°C. The ice is initially at −10°C. It may have been formed
under high pressure.
(iii)
(a) The working principle of calorimetry is based on the law of energy conservation,
where the heat lost by a hot body equals the heat gained by a cold body.
i.e., Heat energy lost by A = Heat energy gained by B
m1c1(t1 - t) = m2c2(t – t2)
(b) Given that,

Heat energy, Q = 500 J
Change in temperature, Δt = 10 K
Mass of ball, m = 0.1 kg
Now,
𝑄
The specific heat capacity of the iron ball, 𝑐1 = 𝑚Δ𝑡 … (∴ m1 c1 Δt)
500
∴ 𝑐1 = = 500 𝐽/𝑘𝑔 𝐾
0.1 × 10
(c) Given that,

Mass of water, m = 1 kg
Specific heat capacity of water, c = 4200 J/kg K
Change in temperature, Δt = 57 – 27 = 30°C or 30 K
Now,
Heat energy required, Q = mcΔT
∴ Q = 1× 4200× 30 = 1,26,000 J
(d) Given that,

Mass of water, m1 = 1 kg
Mass of calorimeter, m' = 0.5 kg
Initial temperature of water & calorimeter, t2 = 300 K
The final temperature of the iron ball, calorimeter & water, t = 350
Specific heat capacity of water, c2 = 4200 J/kg K
Heat energy lost by an iron ball, Q1 = 46,000 J
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter, c' =?
Now,
According to the principle of calorimetry,
Heat energy lost by iron ball = Heat energy gained by water and calorimeter
m1c1(t1 - t) = m2c2(t – t2) + m’c’(t – t2)
46000 = 1 × 4200× (350 - 300) + 0.5×c’× (350– 300)
46000 – 21000 = 25c’
c' = 25000/25 = 1000 J/kg K
ICSE
CLASS 10
CHEMISTRY
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
ICSE
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper
SECTION A
1.
(i) (c)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d)
(v) (a)
(vi) (a)
(vii) (b)
(viii) (c)
(ix) (a)
(x) (a)
(xi) (a)
(xii) (c)
(xiii) (c)
(xiv) (d)
(xv) (a)
2.
(i)
(a) HCl (Hydrogen chloride gas)
 200°C
(b) 2NaCl + H2SO4   Na 2SO4 + HCl 
(c) The HCl gas is collected by upward displacement of air as it is 1.28 times heavier than
air.
(d) Conc. H2SO4.
(e) When the jar is completely filled with hydrogen chloride, fumes appear above the
jar’s mouth. White fumes appear on exposing hydrogen chloride gas to air since it
forms hydrochloric acid with atmospheric water vapour. This jar when brought near
a rod dipped in ammonium hydroxide gives dense white fumes, which indicate the
formation of ammonium chloride, as per the reaction given below.
HCl + NH4OH → NH4Cl + H2O
(ii)
Column A Solutions from Column B
(a) Duralumin 4. Aircraft frames
(b) Brass 1. Screws and handles
(c) Bronze 5.Coins
(d) Solder 3. Joining electrical circuits
(e) Magnalium 2. Scientific Instruments
(iii)
(a) Electron affinity
(b) Metallic character
(c) Octet
(d) Required
(e) Group
(iv)
(a) Galvanization
(b) Solder
(c) Roasting
(d) PbO or CuO
(e) Flux
(v)
(a)
1.
2.
3.
H3C O H
Methanol
(b)
1.
C3H7 C OH
Butanoic acid
2.
SECTION-B
(Attempt any four questions)
3.
(i)
(a) Copper sulphate from copper carbonate
CuCO3 + H2SO4 
 CuSO4 + H2O + CO2 
(b) Zinc carbonate from zinc sulphate
ZnSO4 + Na2CO3 
 Na2SO4 + ZnCO3 
(ii)
(a) 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2
(b) P4 + 20HNO3  4H3PO4 + 4H2O + 20NO2
(iii)
(a) Ionic compounds are formed as a result of the transfer of one or more electrons from
the atom of a metallic electropositive element to an atom of a non-metallic
electronegative element.
A polar covalent compound is one in which there is an unequal distribution of
electrons between the two atoms.
(b) Ionic compounds, made of ions, are usually crystalline solids with high melting and
boiling points.
They are soluble in water and good conductors of electricity in the aqueous solution
and molten state.
Covalent compounds, made of molecules, can exist as soft solids or liquids or gases
with low melting and boiling points. They are usually insoluble in water and poor
conductors of electricity.
(c) Polar covalent compounds are formed between 2 non-metal atoms which have
different electro-negativities and therefore have unequal sharing of the bonded
electron pair.
Non-polar compounds are formed when two identical non-metals equally
share electrons between them.
(iv)
(a)
1. False
The correct statement is, “H3PO3 is dibasic acid since it has 2 replaceable
hydrogen atoms.”
2. True
Some salts unite with a definite quantity of water, which is known as the water of
crystallization.
(b)
Massof subsance in grams
Number of moles(n) 
Molar massof subs tan ce
Molar massof H2SO4  (2  1)  (1  32)  (4  16)
 2  32  64
 98g / mol
Therefore, number of moles (n) = 392/98 = 4 moles of H2SO4.
Hence, the number of moles in 392 grams of sulphuric acid are 4.
4.
(i)
CaO
(a) CH3COONa  NaOH  CH4  Na2CO3
(b)
(ii) C3H3 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

Applying Gay Lussac’s Law,
1 vol. : 5 vol. → 3 vol. : 4 vol.
1 vol. propane ≡ 20 cm3
Therefore, vol. of O2 required ≡ 5 volume
= 5 × 20 = 100 cm3
(iii)
(a) Hydrogen chloride gas
(b) Butane
(c) Cation and anion
(iv)
(a) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
(b) Zn + H2SO4 (dil.) → ZnSO4 + H2

(c) Mg3 N2 + 6H2 O   3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3
5.
(i)
(a) The naturally occurring compounds of metals that are generally mixed with other
matter such as soil, sand, limestone, and rocks are known as minerals.
(b) Cryolite and Fluorspar
(ii)
(a) Ethene
(b) Methane
(iii)
(a) Complex salt
(b) Alkali
(c) Desiccants or desiccating agents or drying agents
(iv)
(a) Reduced
(b) Negative charge
(c) Anode
6.
(i)
(a) Sodium ions, chloride ions
(b) Molecules of carbon tetrachloride
(ii)
(a) CuSO4  2NaOH 
 Cu(OH)2  Na 2SO4
(b) CuSO4  2NH4 OH 
 Cu(OH)2  (NH4 )SO4
Cu(OH)2  4NH4 OH 
[Cu(NH3 )4 ](OH)2  4H2O
(iii)
(a) Second period
(b) Nitrogen. It is placed between carbon and oxygen.
(c) Fluorine
(iv) Vapour density = 29
Element Percentage At. mass Gram atom Ration

Carbon 82.76 12 82.76/12 = 6.9 6.9/6.9 = 1 2
17.24/6.9 =
Hydrogen 17.24 1 17.24/1 = 17.24 5
2.5
Empirical formula is C2H5.
Molecular weight = 2 × Vapour density
Molecular weight = n × (Empirical formula weight)
58 = n × (12 × 2 + 1 × 5)
n=2
So, molecular formula = C4H10
7.
(i)
Therefore,
The empirical formula of the compound is C2H3O2Cl.
(ii)
(a) ZnS
800 C
(b) 2ZnS+3O2   2ZnO+2SO2
(c) To extract zinc from zinc oxide.
(iii) For combustion of methane:
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
According to Gay-Lussac’s Law, 1 volume of methane requires 2 volumes of oxygen to
burn it completely, giving 1 volume of carbon dioxide and 2 volumes of steam.
Hence, 224 cm3 of methane combustion and give 224 cm3 of carbon dioxide and 448 cm3
of steam.
For combustion of hydrogen:
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
According to Gay-Lussac’s Law, 2 volumes of hydrogen requires 1 volume of oxygen for
complete combustion to give 2 volumes of steam.
∴ 112 cm3 of hydrogen will require 56 cm3 of oxygen for complete combustion and
thereby form 112 cm3 of steam.
∴ Total volume of oxygen needed for burning CH4 and H2 = 448 + 56 = 504 cm3 and total
volume of steam formed = 448 + 112 = 560 cm3,
Molecular mass of H2O = 2 + 16 = 18 amu
22400 cm3 of steam at S.T.P. weighs 18 g.
560 cm3 of steam at S.T.P. weighs
18  560
  0.45g
22400
Mass in gramsof water
Gram moleculesof water 
Gram molecular mass
0.45g
  0.025 g moleculesof water
18g
8.
(i) Ammonia NH3
(ii)
(a) Nitrogen (N2)
(b) Ammonium ion (NH4+)
(iii)
(a) Ethyne [CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2↑]
(b) Methane [Al4C3 + 12H2O → 3CH4↑ + 4Al(OH)3↓]
(c) Carbon dioxide [NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2↑]
(iv)
(a) The element with atomic number 20 is nothing but Calcium.
Period = 4
Group = 2
(b) It is metal.
(c) Ca(OH)2
ICSE
CLASS 10
BIOLOGY
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
ICSE
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper
SECTION A
1.
(i) Platelets
(ii) Menarche
(iii) II, III
(iv) Chromosome
(v) Control of blood sugar level
(vi) Humidity
(vii) All of these
(viii) 280 days
(ix) Iris
(x) Leydig cells
(xi) Pupil
(xii) II, IV
(xiii) A is false and R is true
(xiv) Turgidity
(xv) Urea
2.
(i)
(a) Heterozygous
(b) Malpighian capsule
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
(e) Population density
(ii)
(a) Upper epidermis, Palisade tissue, Spongy cell, Stomata
(b) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(c) Vena cava, Right auricle, Right ventricle, Pulmonary veins
(d) Ovulation, Fertilisation, Implantation, Parturition
(e) Receptor, Sensory neuron, Motor neuron, Effector
(iii)
Column I Column II
(a) Vasectomy 6. Male sterilisation
(b) Radioactive element 3. Uranium
(c) Dark reaction 7. Stroma
(d) Tubectomy 2. Female sterilisation
(e) Greenhouse gas 1. Methane
(iv)
(a) Scurvy (rest are diseases caused by deficiency in hormones)
(b) Sulphur dioxide (rest are greenhouse gases)
(c) Cerebellum (rest are parts of the forebrain)
(d) Macula (rest are structures present in the ear)
(e) Seismonasty (rest are tropic movements)
(v)
(a) Lenticels: Older stem of plants
(b) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck/lower part of the neck below the larynx
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule: In the cortex of the kidney
(d) Bicuspid valve: Between left atrium and left ventricle
(e) Pancreas: Abdomen, between the stomach and the small intestine.
SECTION B
3.
(i) Gametes are produced because of meiosis or reduction division; hence they have a haploid
number of chromosomes.
(ii) When fertilisers are added to the moist soil, it forms a hypertonic solution. As a result, the
protoplasm of the root hair shrinks, and the plasma membrane withdraws itself from the
cell wall. Hence, the root hairs become limp or flaccid.
(iii)
a) Differences between Australopithecus and Modern man (Body hair)
Australopithecus Modern man
Body covered with hair Highly reduced body hair
b) Differences between Homo habilis and Homo sapiens (Posture)

Homo habilis Homo sapiens
Bent kneed posture Fully erect posture
(iv) In the brain, the cytons of the neurons are outside (white matter) and the axons are inside
(grey matter). In the spinal cord, the cytons are inside (grey matter) and the axons are
outside (white matter).
(v) Dialysis involves the use of artificial kidney or a dialysis machine. The patient’s blood from
the radial artery is led through the machine where excess salts and urea are removed. The
purified blood is then returned to a vein in the same arm.
Dialysis is carried out in case of failure of both the kidneys. In case there is a permanent
damage in the kidneys, then dialysis must be repeated for about 12 hours twice a week.
4.
(i)
(1) Portal vein
(2) Coronary artery
(ii) The ‘LUBB’ sound is produced when the tricuspid and the bicuspid valves close with a
jerk. The ‘DUP’ sound is produced when the semilunar valves at the roots of the aorta and
the pulmonary artery get closed.
(iii)
a) Nephron
b) 1 - Glomerular filtrate
2 – Urine
(iv) Functions of the spinal cord:

 It controls all the reflex actions occurring below the neck.
 It conducts sensory impulses from the skin to the brain and motor impulses from the
brain to the muscles of the trunk and the limbs.
(v)
a) The level of mercury in the glass tubing will rise. The glass-tubing represents xylem.
b)
(i) Less humidity increases the rate of transpiration.
(ii) High temperature increases the rate of transpiration.
c) Advantages of transpiration to the plants:
1. Cooling effect
2. Creation of suction force for ascent of sap
5.
(i) Involuntary actions controlled by the medulla in the hind brain:
1. Blood pressure
2. Vomiting
(ii) WBCs in our blood engulf and destroy the disease-causing germs entering our body. In
this way, they defend the body against infection. Their population grows if there is an
infection. Therefore, a rise in the number of WBCs suggests infection.
(iii) The bodies of all living organisms, both plants and animals, are dependent on the food
that has been synthesised in a green cell by photosynthesis. Purification of the
atmosphere whereby the volume of CO2 remains constant is due to the photosynthetic
activity of the green plants. Oxygen is given out by the green plants during photosynthesis.
In this way, photosynthesis supports all life on the Earth.
(iv) The union of male and female gametes to form a zygote is called fertilisation.
Fertilisation takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube of a human female.
(v)
a) F1 generation phenotype – All plants are tall and bear red flowers.
F1 generation genotype – Heterozygous (TtRr)
b) Possible combinations of gametes that are obtained when two F1 hybrid plants are
crossed are TR, Tr, tR, tr.
c) Phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation is 9:3:3:1.
6.
(i) The process in which the leucocytes or white blood cells squeeze out through the walls of
the blood capillaries at the site of injury to fight against pathogens is called diapedesis.
(ii)
a) Changes in nucleus during Prophase of Mitosis:
 The nuclear membrane and the nucleolus disappear.
 The duplicated chromosomes begin to move towards the equator of the cell.
b) Changes in nucleus during Anaphase of Mitosis:
 The two sister chromatids of each chromosome separate and are drawn apart
towards the opposite poles.
(iii) Lamarck explained his ideas through the below two principles:
1. Use and disuse: Parts of the body which are used extensively become larger and
stronger, while those which are not used deteriorate.
2. Inheritance of acquired characters: An organism could pass its modifications to its
offspring.
(iv) By adding some fertiliser, the leaves will produce more chlorophyll and appear greener
since the fertiliser supplies minerals and other nutrients. If too much fertiliser is added, it
creates a hypertonic solution which causes plasmolysis. As a result, there is wilting of
certain plant portions and ultimately, the plant perishes.
(v)
a) Hyperopia (far-sightedness). In this defect, as seen in the diagram, the image is formed
behind the retina.
b) Reasons for hyperopia:
 Shortening of the eyeball from front to back.
 Lens becomes too flat.
c) Hyperopia can be rectified by using a convex (converging) lens of appropriate power
(focal length).
7.
(i) Main functions of the internal ear:
1. Hearing
2. Body balance
(ii) The growth rate of population is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
The growth rate of population can be negative when the death rate is higher than the birth
rate of the population.
(iii) Human ovum:
(iv) Monohybrid cross is a cross where two forms of a single trait are crossed or hybridised.
Mendel performed this experimental cross on pea plants. He crossed the true breeding
forms of tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) plants and obtained the hybrid tall (Tt) progeny. This
was called the first filial generation (F1). He then self-pollinated the F1 tall hybrids and
produced the second filial generation (F2) with both tall (TT, Tt) and dwarf (tt) plants in
the ratio of 3:1.
(v)
a) Chemotropism. It is the phenomenon of growth or movement of a plant part towards
the source of nutrients or chemicals.
b) A → Pollen tube
c) ‘A' (pollen tube) is attracted to the peptones secreted by the neck canal cells.
8.
(i) Soil pollution usually results from the disposal of solid and semi-solid wastes produced
during agricultural practices, industrial processes, and insanitary habits.
(ii) Disadvantages of transpiration:

 Some plants die due to excessive water loss by transpiration.
 Due to high rate of transpiration, plants suffer from loss of turgidity.
(iii) The dissolved oxygen in the mother's blood diffuses into the fully developed human
embryo and is used in the oxidation of glucose in the cells, which releases energy, through
respiration. However, there are no breathing movements since the embryo's lungs lie
collapsed and do not function until the foetus is removed from the mother's body.
Therefore, no breathing movements can be seen in the embryo as it receives oxygen by
the diffusion of gases.
(iv) Carbon dioxide gas is widely emitted into the atmosphere. Excess carbon-dioxide
emissions cause the greenhouse effect, which raises the global average temperature.
Global warming is another name for it. Carbon dioxide levels have risen by 28% in the
previous century, owing to the use of fossil fuels such as coal, gas, and oil.
(v)
a) (1) Glucagon - Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
(2) Insulin - Beta cells of islets of Langerhans.
b) Glucagon - Increases blood sugar level
Insulin - Decreases blood sugar level
c) If insulin is given orally, it will be digested by the protein digesting enzymes in the
stomach. Hence it must be injected into the body.
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BIOLOGY

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Have an Academic Doubt?

Find answers to over

v) Find the 5th term of the AP 30, 28, 26, 24,…

(a) SSS test

The die is thrown once. So the probability of getting a positive integer is

xiv) The equation of line AB is

Use your graph to estimate the following: [5]

ii) The weight of 50 workers is given below: [3]

Weight 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80 80 – 90 90 – 100 100 – 110 110 – 120

iii) Use graph paper for this question. [4]

iii) The series of energy inter-conversions in a steam engine is

x) A bulb is rated as 270V, 0.5 A. Its power is

(iii) What are non-contact forces? [2]

decays to Lead 206

(a) State the function of the fixed pulley P2.

(a) State the magnification of the image formed.

(a) What is represented by AB and CD?

Answer the following questions based on the given information.

(ii) Common characteristic of a covalent compound is:

(iii) Drying agent for ammonia is:

(viii) The no. of valence electrons in group 18 elements is:

(ix) Duralumin is an alloy of:

(xi) Identify ‘X’ in the reaction: 2HCl + CuO → X + H2O

(xii) Formation of chloroform from methane and chlorine is an example of:

(a) Name the gas collected in the gas jar.

(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]

(iv) Name the following: [5]

(b) Name the following organic compounds in IUPAC system:

(ii) Write the products and balance the equations. [2]

(iii) Write the difference between: [3]

(iii) Name the following substances: [3]

(iv) Write equations for the following reactions: [3]

(ii) Name the following: [2]

(iii) What are the terms defined in following? [3]

(iv) Electrons are getting added to an element ‘y’. [3]

(ii) Name the following: [2]

(iii) Name the gas evolved when: [3]

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.

(ii) The first menstrual flow is called

Identify the layer of cells where maximum photosynthesis occurs.

(vi) The rate of photosynthesis is not affected by

(vii) An example of bio-degradable waste is

(viii) The normal gestation period in humans is

(xv) Nitrogenous wastes excreted through urine in humans is

(v) State the exact location of the following structures. [5]

a) Name the structure represented in the diagram.

a) Identify the defect.

a) Name and explain the tropic movement shown in the diagram.

Thus, the order of matrix X = m × n = 2 × 1

In ΔABC and ΔDEC,

When the die is rolled, total number of outcomes = 6

(b) Total sum deposited = P × n = Rs. 800 × 24 = Rs. 19,200

The ogive is shown below:

(c) 85% scores = 85% of 100 = 85