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Form Number : Paper Code : CJA101002230023

TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ENGLISH

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 5

JEE (Main+Advanced) : NURTURE & NURTURE LITE COURSE (PHASE-I & II)

Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 27 - 08 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in
each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Integer Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc,
except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,
the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in IIT-JEE 2025


City Head Office : ALLEN AHMEDABAD “SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej,
Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100 infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
ALLEN

MINOR TEST # 05 Topics DATE : 27 - 08 - 2023


NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - I & II)
Physics : NLM, Friction, Work Energy Theorem
Chemistry : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding, Gaseous State
Mathematics : Quadratic Equation, P & C, Binomial Theorem

USEFUL DATA
Enthusiast Course / Phase - I(A) & =
1 amu Live-I(A)1.66
/ Score-I
× 10/–27
Paper-1
kg R = 0.082 L-atm K–1 mol–1 1001CJA102922053
English / 12112022 h = 6.626 × 10–34SPACE
J s FOR ROUGH
NAWORK= 6.022 × 1023 Page 1/16

me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg e = 1.6 × 10–19 C


c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1 F = 96500 C mol–1
RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J
Atomic No. : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13,
Si = 14, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,
I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 23.
Atomic Masses : H =1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Topic : NLM, Friction, Work Energy Theorem
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 acceleration a (where a < g). how much
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions mass should be removed from it so that it starts
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, moving up with an acceleration a?
marks will be awarded as follows: 2ma 2ma
(A) (B)
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. g+a g−a
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. ma ma
(C) g+a (D) g−a
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
4. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as
1. A system consists of three masses of equal
show n is figure. The coefficient of static
magnitude, m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string
freely over a pulley P. the mass m1 hangs freely friction between the block and the cart is μ . The
and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal surface. acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the
(Coefficient of friction μ ). The pulley is block from falling is -
frictionless and negligible mass. The downward
acceleration of mass m1 is:
g(1 − g μ )
(A)
9
2g μ
(B)
3 mg g
g(1 − 2 μ ) (A) α > μ (B) α > μ m
(C)
3 g g
g(1 − 2 μ ) (C) α ⩾ μ (D) α < μ
(D)
2
5. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
2. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is
with an angle of inclination α . The incline is given
indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
an acceleration a to keep the block stationary.
The change in momentum of the particle over the
time interval from zero to 8 s is: Then, a is equal to:
g
(A) 24 Ns (A) tan α

(B) 20 Ns (B) g cosec α

(C) 12 Ns (C) g

(D) 6 Ns (D) g tan α


JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

English / 27082023 Space for Rough Work Page 1/12


6. What is maximum value of the force F such that the 9. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very
block shown in arrangement, does not move? slowly. The coefficient of friction between the
insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the
centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect
makes an angle α with the vertical, the maximum
possible value of α is given by;
(A) 20N (B) 10N (A) cot α = 3
(B) sec α = 3
(C) 12N (D) 15N
(C) cosec α = 3
7. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected
to each other with threads and are placed on table as (D) None of these
shown in figure. What is the acceleration with 10. In the arrangement shown, the ends P and Q of a
which the system is moving ? Take g = 10m s – 2. string move downwards with a uniform speed
(Table is smooth) u. pulleys B and C are frictionless and fixed. The
mass M will move upwards with a speed of:

(A) Zero (B) 1 ms – 2


(C) 2ms – 2 (D) 3ms – 2
u
8. A wooden block of mass m resting on a rough (A) 2ucos θ (B) cos θ
horizontal table (coefficient of friction = μ ) is 2u
(C) (D) u cos θ
pulled by a force F as shown in figure. The cos θ
acceleration of the block moving horizontally is 11. A given object takes n times more to slide down
45° rough inclined plane in comparison to slide
F cos θ
(A) down a perfectly smooth plane 45° incline. The
m
coefficient of kinetic friction between the object
μ F sin θ and the incline is:
(B)
M 1 1
(A) (B) 1−
F 1 − n2 n2
(C) (cos θ + μ sin θ ) − μ g
m
1 1
(D) None of these (C) √ 1− (D) √

n2 1 − n2
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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12. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree 17. A body m1 is projected upwards with velocity
with constant acceleration. If the breaking v1 another body m2 of same mass is projected at an
strength is 75% of the weight of monkey, the angle of 45°. Both reach the same height. What is
minimum acceleration with which monkey can the ratio of their kinetic energies at the point of
slide down without branch is: projection :
3g g g
(A) g (B) (C) (D) (A) 1 (B) 1/2
4 4 2
13. If the linear momentum is increased by 50 %, then (C) 1/3 (D) 1/4
K.E. will be increased by : 18. A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along ^i + ^j + k^
(A) 50% (B) 100% (C) 125% (D) 25% , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1) to (3, 5, 2).
14. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x The work done during this displacement is (W =
→ ⋅ d→S = FScos θ )
F
as shown in figure. The force is in N and x in m.
The work done by the force in moving the object
(A) 90 J (B) 30 J
from x = 0 to x = 6m is:
30
(C) 30√3J (D) J
√ 3
19. The total work done on a particle is equal to the
change in its kinetic energy.
(A) Always
(B) Only if the forces acting on it are conservative
(A) 18.0 J (B) 13.5 J (C) 4.5 J (D) 9.0 J
(C) Only if gravitational force alone acts on it
15. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a
vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling (D) Only if elastic force alone acts on it.
and has force constant value K. The mass is 20. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold
released from rest with the spring initially a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
upstretched. The maximum extension produced in
friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The
the length of the spring will be
weight of the block is-
(A) Mg/2K (B) Mg/K
(C) 2 Mg/K (D) 4Mg/K
16. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal K.E.
Their momenta shall be in the ratio of
(A) m1 : m2 (B) m2 : m1 (A) 20 N (B) 50N
(C) √ m1 : √ m2 (D) √ m2 : √ m1 (C) 100N (D) 2N
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

English / 27082023 Space for Rough Work Page 3/12


SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 3. In the diagram shown in figure, both pulleys and
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to strings are massless. If the acceleration of 2 kg
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
block is α m/s2, find value of 10 α ?
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type
questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
4. A 10 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal
1. A block of mass 10 kg is placed at a distance of 5
surface for which the coefficient of friction is 0.5.
m from the rear end of a long trolley as shown.
The coefficient of friction between the block and If a horizontal force F is applied such that it varies
the surface below is 0.2. starting from rest, the with time as shown in figure, the work done (in
Joule) in first 5 seconds is 225 a. Find the value of
trolley is given aji uniform acceleration of 3 m/s2.
a. (g = 10 ms – 2)
At what distance (in meter) from the starting point
will the block fall of the trolley?

2. The acceleration (in m/s2) of the block of mass 5 kg


is :

JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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5. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are 8. A block of mass 1 kg is slipping down an incline
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to plane of length 1 m and height 0.5 m as shown.
remain in equilibrium, the angle θ (in degrees) Work done by a force is F→ ⋅ →d where F→ is the force
should be :
and →d the displacement. Find the work done (in
Joule) by weight of the block during slipping down
to the end of the incline plane. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

6. One end of massless rope, which passes over a


massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook 9. Acceleration of particle moving in x-y plane given
C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
that the rope can bear is 840 N. With what value of as →a = (i^ + 3j^). Here a is in m/s2. At time t = 0,

maximum safe acceleration (in ms – 2) can a man of particle is at rest at origin. Mass of the particle is 1
60 kg climb on the rope? kg. Find the net work done (in J) on the particle in
first 2 s where its final position is 2iˆ + 5jˆ.

10. A block of weight 12 N is kept at rest on a smooth


slope by applying a horizontal force F as shown in
the figure. Find the magnitude of the force F.

7. Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg


moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
Work done (In J) by all the forces on the particle is
:

JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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Topic : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding, Gaseous State
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. The correct order of second ionisation potential of
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is :
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (A) C > N > O > F (B) O > N > F > C
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N > C
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (A) The first ionisation energies (in kJ mol – 1) of
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. carbon, silicon, germanium, tin and lead are
1086, 786, 761, 708 and 715 respectively
1. Which among the following factors is most
important in making fluorine, the strongest (B) Down the group, electronegativity decreases
oxidising halogen: regularly from B to Tl in boron family
(A) Bond dissociation energy (C) Among oxides of the elements of carbon
family, CO is neutral, GeO is acidic and SnO
(B) Ionisation Enthalpy is amphoteric
(C) Hydration enthalpy (D) The 4f and 5f inner transition elements are
(D) Electron affinity placed separately at the bottom of the periodic
table to maintain its structure
2. Which of the following orders is correct for the size ?
(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F¯ < Al 6. The correct order of acidic strength is :
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Li+ < K+ (A) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10
(3) Fe4+ < Fe3+ < F2+ < Fe
(B) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(4) Mg > Al > Si > P
(C) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (2), (3) and (4)
(D) K2O > CaO > MgO
(C) (1), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
7. S1 : Na2O2 < MgO < ZnO < P4O10 : Acidic
3. Which of the following orders are correct for the
property.
ionization energies?
S2 : Na < Si > Mg < Al : First ionisation potential.
(1) Ba < Sr < Ca (2) S2- < S < S2+
S3 : F > Cl > Br : Election affinity.
(3) C < O < N (4) Mg < Al < Si
S4 : Te – 2 > I¯ > Cs+ > Ba2+ : Ionic size.
(A) (1), (2) and (4) (B) (1), (3) and (4)
(A) TTTT (B) TTFT
(C) (1), (2) and (3) (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(C) TFFT (D) TFTT
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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8. Exothermic process is – 11. If we move from center towards end points through
(A) Na → Na+ + e – three different path , in following
figure then which path is correct increasing order
(B) O + e – → O – of IE1
(C) O – + e – → O – 2
(D) Cl – → Cl + e –
9. Two elements P & Q are forming ionic compound
having the formula “_______” when the electronic
configuration of P & Q are as follows-
P : [Ne] 3s23p4 & (A) (B) and
Q : [Ar] 4s 1
(C) (D) and
and as usual the cations are written first in the
formula, the formula is- 12. Select correct lewis dots representation :
(A) P2Q (A)
(B) Q2P
(C) PQ
(D) P3Q2 (B)

10. If ‘M2X’ (ionic compound) is dissolved in water,


where, the hydration energy of M+ ion is 100
kJ/mol and that of X2 – ion is 200 kJ/mol and the
lattice energy of M2X is 150 kJ/mol. Then the heat (C)
of dissolution is ‘____’ kJ/mol -
Heat of dissolution cycle for ionic compound is

(D)

(A) – 300 (A) A & B only


(B) – 250 (B) A,B and C only
(C) – 150 (C) B,C and D only
(D) – 200 (D) All are correct representation
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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13. The number of sp2 — s sigma bonds in benzene are : 17. Which of the following is not true about H2O
(A) 3 (B) 6 molecule?

(C) 12 (D) None of these (A) The molecule has µ = 0


(B) The molecule can act as a base
14. During the complete combustion of methane CH4,
what change in hybridisation does the carbon atom (C) Shows abnormally high boiling point in
undergo? comparison to the hydrides of other elements
of oxygen group
(A) sp3 to sp
(D) The molecule has bent shape
(B) sp3 to sp2
(C) sp2 to sp 18. The molecular size of ICl and Br2 is approximately
same, but b.p. if ICl is about 40°C higher than that
(D) sp2 to sp3
of Br2. It is because :
15. The correct increasing order of adjacent bond angle (A) ICl bond is stronger than Br—Br bond
among BF3, PF3 and CIF3: (B) IE of iodine < IE of bromine
(A) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3
(C) ICl is polar while Br2 is nonpolar
(B) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
(D) I has larger size than Br
(C) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3
(D) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3 19. The bond order of N2− is equal to that of
(A) O2
16. Which has maximum dipole moment?
(B) O2−
2

(C) O+2

(A) (B) (D) None of these

20. Which among the following pairs contain both


paramagnetic species.
(A) O2− −
2 and N2

(C) (D) (B) O−2 and N2

(C) O2 and N2

(D) O2 and N2−


JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 6. Consider the following table
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to Compounds Central Number
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 (X are atoms Characteristics of lone
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted monovalent (A to D) of pair(s) at
questions will be evaluated. surrounding belong compounds central
atoms) to group atom
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type
questions. Planar and
(i) AXn1 16 m1
polar
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to Trigonal
(ii) BXn2 15 m2
pyramidal
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to Zero dipole
(iii) CXn3 14 m3
moment
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. All X – D – X
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (iv) DXn4 13 bond m4
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. angle are 120°

1. Number of compounds which are not following Than calculate value of expression
2
octet rule ∣ n1 + n2 + n3 + n4 ∣
∣ ∣

IF7, PCl5, SF6, O2, NaCl, MgO, XeF6 ∣ m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 ∣

7. Find the number of molecule in which central atom


2. Number of neutral oxides of the following are is in sp3 hybridisation.
P2O5, SO2, CO, CO2, Cl2O7,ClO3, Na2O, SF4 , H2O , PCl4+ , H3O+ , NH2 – , XeF2
MgO,CaO 8. Total number of sp3 hybridised atom(s) in given
hydrocarbon.
3. The ratio of σ and π bonds in benzene is

4. Find the number of equatorial Xe – F bonds in


XeF5+ ion -
9. Find the number of species which have net zero
dipole moment
PCl5 , SF4 , H2O, SnCl2 , Cl2
5. The maximum number of species which have same
bond order. 10. Find the maximum number of atoms may lie in
O+2 , NO, N2− , OF one plane of C2H4
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Topic : Quadratic Equation, P & C, Binomial Theorem
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. If
31 30
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 α (60)!
∑ (
31
Ck ) (31 Ck−1 ) − ∑ (
30
Ck ) (30 Ck−1 ) =
(30!) (31!)
,
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions k=1 k=1

(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, where α ∈ R then the value of 16 α is equal to :
marks will be awarded as follows: (A) 1411 (B) 1320 (C) 1615 (D) 1855
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 6. For what values of m ∈ R, both roots of the
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. equation x2− 6mx + 9m2 − 2m + 2 = 0 exceed 3?
1. Let the coefficients of x – 1 and x – 3 in the 11
, ∞)
15 (A) (
9
(B) ( – ∞ , – 3)
1 1
expansion of ( 2x −
5 ) , x > 0, be m and n
(D) ( – ∞ , 0)
1
x5 (C) (1, 2)
respectively. If r is a positive integer such
that mn2 = 15Cr. 2r, then the value of r is equal 7. The number of natural number less than 30000 can
to......... be made from the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 will be:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 6011 (B) 6193 (C) 7191 (D) 7202
(C) 5 (D) 6
8. The term independent of x in the expansion of
2. Number of zeros at the end of (1000)! is : 11
5 1
(A) 250 (B) 249 ( 1 − x2 + 3x3 ) ( x3 − ) , x ≠ 0 is :
2 5x2
(C) 149 (D) 101 (A) 7 (B) 33 (C) 39 (D) 11
40 200 200 50
3. The sum of values of t for which
(t – [|sinx|])! = 3!5!7!, where [.] denotes the greatest 9. Let α and β be the roots of the equation
function. x2 + (2i – 1 ) = 0. Then, the value of l α 8 + β 8l is
(A) 15 (B) 20 equal to :
(C) 25 (D) None of these (A) 50 (B) 250 (C) 1250 (D) 1500
4. Consider the word DAUGHTER. How many 4 10. If the constant term in the expansion of
letter word that can be formed from the letter of 3 5 2
10

above word so that each word contain letter G (3x − 2x + ) is 2k ℓ where ℓ is an odd
x5
(A) 540 (B) 850 integer, then the value of k is equal to :
(C) 840 (D) 305 (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
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11. If α, β, γ are the roots of the equation x3 + px2 + qx + r = 0 17. The values of parameter 'a' such that the roots α , β ,
1 1 1 of the equation 2x2 + 6x + a = 0 satisfy the
then the value of α − ( )( β− )( γ− )
βγ γα αβ
β
is: inequality α + < 2......... is:
β α
3 3
(r + 1) (r + 1) 9
(A) (B) − (A) a = 2 (B) a>
r2 r 2
3 2
(r + 1) (r + 1) (C) 0 < a < 1 (D) 2 < a < 3
(C) − (D)
r2 r3
12. 5 Indian & 5 American couples meet at a party & 18. For the cubic 24x3 – 14x2 – 63x + 45 = 0, whose
shake hands . If no wife shakes hands with her own one root is double of other
husband & no Indian wife shakes hands with a If α , β , γ are roots such that ( α < β < γ ) then
male, then the number of hand shakes that takes γ
| α | log β
place in the party is - γβ
( ) =
2
(A) 95 (B) 110 (C) 135 (D) 150 3 3
3 10 10 2
13. The coefficient of x18 in the product (A) ( ) (B) ( )
2 3
(1 + x) (1 – x)10 (1 + x + x2)9 is : 3 10
3 7 3 3
(A) 84 (B) 85 (C) 94 (D) 0 (C) ( ) (D) ( )
2 2
14. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 and bx2 + cx + a = 0 have a
common root and a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, 19. The number of integral roots of equation
a3 + b 3 + c3 x8 – 24x7 – 18x5 + 39x2 + 1155 = 0 is :
the find the value of .
abc
(A) 0 (B) 2
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
15. The remainder when 7103 is divided by 25 is
(A) 0 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 9 20. The expression ax2 + 2bx + c, where 'a' is non-
16. If the roots α , β of the equation px2 + qx + r = 0 zero real number, has same sign as that of' 'a' for
are real and of opposite sign (where p, q, r are real every real value of x, then roots of quadratic
coefficient), then the roots of the equation equation ax2 + (b - c) x - 2b - c - a = 0, are :
α (x – β )2 + β (x – α )2 = 0 are: (A) real and equal
(A) positive
(B) real and unequal
(B) negative
(C) real and of opposite sign (C) non-real having positive real part
(D) imaginary (D) non-real having negative real part
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 6. A rack has 5 different pair of shoes. The number of
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to ways in which 4 shoes can be chosen from it so that
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 there will be no complete pair is
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 7. Find the number of ways in which two squares can
questions will be evaluated. be selected from an 8 by 8 chess board of size 1 × 1
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type so that they are not in the same row and in the same
questions. column.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to 8. In a unique hockey series between India &
the nearest Integer). Pakistan, they decide to play on till a team wins 5
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to matches. The number of ways in which the series
the following marking scheme: can be won by India, if no match ends in a draw is :
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 9. If α , β & γ are the roots of the equation x3 – x – 1 =0
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. 1+ α 1+ β 1+ γ
then, + + has the value equal
1− α 1− β 1− γ
1. If 'S' is the sum of all the four digit numbers that to:
S
can be formed with the digits 3, 2, 3, 4, then [ ]
10 10. If two of the roots of equation x4 – 2x3 + ax2 + 8x + b = 0
= ____ (where [ ] is G.I.F) are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign then value of
4a + b is equal to :
2. Find last two digits of 3400

3. Coefficient of x11 in the expansion of


(1 +x2)4(1 + x3)7(1 + x4)12 is

4. For N = 75600, find number of ways by which N


can be resolved as product of 2 divisior

5. If x = −5 + 2 √ −4 then find value of the expression


x4 + 9x3 + 35x2 – x + 4
JEE(Main + Advanced) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJA101002230023

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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