ALL KERALA BHAVAN’S MODEL EXAMINATION

2023-2024

Std: XII Chemistry (043) Max. Marks:70

Time: 3hrs
SET - I

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b. SECTION A consists of 16 questions carrying 1 marks each.
c. SECTION B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e. SECTION D consists of 2 case - based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g. All questions are compulsory.
h. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Using the data given below, find out the strongest reducing agent. 1
E0Cr2O72-/Cr3+ = 1.33V E0Cl2/Cl- = 1.36V
E0MnO4- /Mn2+=1.51V E0Cr3+/Cr = - 0.74 V
(a) Cl- (b) Cr
3+
(c) Cr (d) Mn2+

2. The cross-aldol product formed when propanal act as electrophile and butanal act as 1
nucleophile
(a) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpentanal
(b) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylhexanal
(c) 2-Ethyl-3-hydroxypentanal
(d) 2-Ethyl-3-hydroxyhexanal
3. Amylose is 1
(a) straight chain, water insoluble component of starch, which constitutes 20 % of it.
(b) straight chain, water soluble component of starch, which constitutes 20 % of it.
(c) branched chain, water insoluble component of starch, which constitutes 80 % of it.
(d) branched chain, water soluble component of starch, which constitutes 80 % of it.
4. Ethanal on reaction with ammonia forms an imine (X) which on reaction with 1
nascent hydrogen gives (Y). Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

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 (a) X is CH3CH=NH and Y is CH3NH2.
(b) X is CH3CHOHNH2 and Y is CH3CH2NH2.
(c) X is CH3CHOHNH2 and Y is CH3NH2.
(d) X is CH3CH=NH and Y is CH3CH2NH2.
5. Which one of the following is not an allylic halide? 1
(a) 4-Bromopent-2-ene
(b) 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene
(c) 1-Bromobut-2-ene
(d) 4-Bromobut-1-ene
6. Identify the incorrect statement. 1
(a) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt variable oxidation states.
(b) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are
trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
(c) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42- and Cr2O72- are not the same.
(d) Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ in aqueous solution.
7. For the reaction A →B, the rate of reaction becomes three times when the concentration of A 1
is increased by nine times. What is the order of the reaction?
(a) 2 (b) 1/2
(c) 3 (d) 3/2
8. IUPAC name of product formed by reaction of Methylamine with two moles of 1
Ethylchloride
(a) N,N-Dimethylethanamine
(b) N,N-Diethylmethanamine
(c) N-Methyl ethanamine
(d) N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
9. Consider the following reaction: 1
Zn dust Anhydrous AlCl3 Alk.KMnO4
Phenol X Y Z
CH3Cl
The product Z is
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzene (d) Toluene

10. Match the following: 1

Column-I Column-II
st
(i) Half life of 1 order reaction A. Order =1
(ii) r = k[A]1/2[B]1/2 B. Molecularity = 1
(iii) Zero order reaction C. 0.693/k
(iv) NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O D. k = [R0]-[R]
t

(a)(i)-A,(ii)-D,(iii)-C,(iv)-B (b) (i)-B,(ii)-A,(iii)-C,(iv)-D

(c)(i)-A,(ii)-C,(iii)-D,(iv)-B (d) (i)-C,(ii)-A,(iii)-D,(iv)-B
11. What are the products formed when Benzylethylether reacts with HI? 1
(a) Benzyl alcohol and Ethyl iodide
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 (b) Benzyl iodide and Ethyl alcohol
(c) Phenol and Ethyl iodide
(d) Iodobenzene and Ethyl alcohol
12. Mark the correct statement(s). 1
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state
(ii) Zinc forms coloured ions.
(iii) Sc forms +4 oxidation state.
(iv) Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion: Tertiary alcohols gets converted into an alkene instead of a carbonyl compounds
in the presence of heated metallic copper.
Reason: Tertiary alcohols prefer to undergo dehydrogenation instead of dehydration in the
presence of heated copper.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion: Compounds containing –CHO group are easily oxidized to corresponding
carboxylic acids.
Reason: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion: The hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is called inversion of cane
sugar.
Reason: The laevo rotatory sucrose forms a dextro rotatory mixture on hydrolysis.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Assertion: Mercury cell gives constant voltage throughout its life.

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 Reason: The overall reaction of button cell does not involve any ion in solution whose
concentration can change during its life time.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. (i) The rate constant of a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030mol L-1 s-1. How long will it 2
take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10M to 0.075M?
(ii) State the condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically first order reaction.
18. Calculate the molality of ethanol solution in which the mole fraction of water is 0.88. 2
19. (a) Of the two bromo derivatives, C6H5CH(CH3)Br and C6H5CH(C6H5)Br, which one 2
is more reactive in SN1 substitution reaction and why?
(b) Identify the product formed when 2-Cyclohexylchloroethane undergoes a
dehydrohalogenation reaction. Name the reagent used to carry out the reaction.
20. Convert the following: 2
(a) Ethanol to 2-Bromoethanoic acid.
(b) Salicylic acid to benzene
OR
Complete the following

21. (a) Name the base that is found in nucleotide of RNA only. 2
(b) Deficiency of which vitamin causes pernicious anaemia?
SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. (a) For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2]Cl, draw the structures of all possible isomers. 3
(b) Describe the type of hybridization and shape of the complex [Ni(CN) 4]2-
23. (a) State Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions. 3
(b) 0.1M KCl solution offered a resistance of 100ohms in a conductivity cell at 298K. If the
cell constant of the cell is 1.29cm-1, calculate the molar conductivity of KCl solution.
24. Write the equation and IUPAC name of the product formed when (any two): 3
(a) Phenol reacts with CO2 in the presence of NaOH followed by hydrolysis.
(b) C(CH3)3ONa reacts with C2H5Br.
(c) Propene reacts with diborane in presence of H2O2 and NaOH.
25. A, B and C are three non-cyclic functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular 3
formula C4H8O. Isomers A and C gives positive Tollen’s test whereas isomer B does not
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 give Tollen’s test but gives positive iodoform test. Isomers A and B on reduction with zinc
(Hg) and conc. HCl gives the same product D.
(a) Write the structures of A, B, C and D.
(b) Out of A, B and C, which one is least reactive towards addition of HCN.
26. Write the reactions involved when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents. 3
(a) Bromine water
(b) Hydroxyl amine
(c) Acetic anhydride
27. What are enantiomers? Draw the structures of the possible enantiomers of 3
3-Methylpent-1-ene.
28. Following data are obtained for the reaction: 3
N2O5 → 2NO2 + ½ O2

t/s 0 300 600

[N2O5]/mol L-1 1.6 x 10-2 0.8 x 10-2 0.4 x 10-2

(a) Show that it follows first order reaction.

(b) Calculate the half life.
(Given, log 2=0.3010, log 4=0.6021)
SECTION D
The following questions are case -based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
29. In molecular physics, crystal field theory (CFT) describes the breaking of degeneracies of 4
electron orbital states, usually d or f orbitals, due to a static electric field produced by a
surrounding charge distribution. This theory has been used to describe various
spectroscopies of transition metal coordination complexes, in particular optical spectra
(colours). CFT successfully accounts for some magnetic properties, colours, hydration
enthalpies, and spinel structures of transition metal complexes, but it does not attempt to
describe bonding. CFT was developed by physicists Hans Bethe and John Hasbrouck van
Vleck in the 1930s. CFT was subsequently combined with molecular orbital theory to form
the more realistic and complex ligand field theory (LFT), which delivers insight into the
process of chemical bonding in transition metal complexes. CFT can be complicated further
by breaking assumptions made of relative metal and ligand orbital energies, requiring the use
of inverted ligand field theory (I LFT) to better describe bonding. The optical properties
(details of absorption and emission spectra) of many coordination complexes can be
explained by Crystal Field Theory. Often, however, the deeper colours of metal complexes
arise from more intense charge-transfer excitations.
Answer the following questions;
(a) Using IUPAC norms write the formulae for the following:
(i) sodium dicyanidoaurate(I)
(ii) tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum(IV) sulphate

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 (b) Arrange the following complex ions in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy
(Δo):
[Cr(Cl) 6]3-, [Cr(CN)6]3-, [Cr(NH3)6]3+.
(c) The hexaqua manganese(II) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the
hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
OR
Write the electronic configuration of Fe(III) on the basis of crystal field theory when it forms
an octahedral complex in the presence of
(a) strong field ligand
(b) weak field ligand. (Atomic no. of Fe = 26)
30. In chemistry and manufacturing, electrolysis is a technique that uses direct electric current 4
(DC) to drive an otherwise non-spontaneous chemical reaction. Electrolysis is commercially
important as a stage in the separation of elements from naturally occurring sources such as
ores using an electrolytic cell. The voltage that is needed for electrolysis to occur is called
the decomposition potential. The word "lysis" means to separate or break, so in terms,
electrolysis would mean "breakdown via electricity". The key process of electrolysis is the
interchange of atoms and ions by the removal or addition of electrons due to the applied
current. The desired products of electrolysis are often in a different physical state from the
electrolyte and can be removed by mechanical processes (e.g., by collecting gas above an
electrode or precipitating a product out of the electrolyte). The amount of electrical energy
that must be added equals the change in Gibbs free energy of the reaction plus the losses in
the system. The losses can (in theory) be arbitrarily close to zero, so the maximum
thermodynamic efficiency equals the enthalpy change divided by the free energy change of
the reaction. In most cases, the electric input is larger than the enthalpy change of the
reaction, so some energy is released in the form of heat. In some cases, for instance, in the
electrolysis of steam into hydrogen and oxygen at high temperature, the opposite is true and
heat energy is absorbed. This heat is absorbed from the surroundings, and the heating value
of the produced hydrogen is higher than the electric input.
Answer the following questions:
(a) How much charge in terms of Faraday is required to reduce one mol of MnO 4- to Mn2+?
(b) Following reaction occurs at cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous silver chloride
solution:
Ag+(aq) +1 e- → Ag(s) E0 = + 0.80 V
H+(aq) + 1 e- → ½ H2(g) E0 = 0.00 V
On the basis of their standard electrode potential (E0 ) values, which reaction is feasible
and why?
(c) Calculate the mass of Ag deposited at cathode when a current of 2 amperes was passed
through a solution of AgNO3 for 15 minutes. (Given : Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol-1
1F = 96500 C mol-1 )
OR
Calculate the time to deposit 1.27g of copper at cathode when a current of 2A was passed
through the solution of CuSO4. (molar mass of Cu=63.5g mol-1, 1 F= 96500 C)

SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions
have an internal choice.
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31. Attempt any five of the following: 5
(a) MnO is basic whereas Mn2O7 is acidic in nature. Why?
(b) Complete the following equation:
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 →
(c) Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion. Atomic number (Z) = 27.
(d) Out of Cr3+ and Mn3+, which is a stronger oxidizing agent and why?
(e) Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Give one use of
this alloy.
(f) Which of the following cations are coloured in aqueous solutions?
Sc3+, V3+, Ti4+, Mn2+
(At. Nos. Sc = 21, V = 23, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
(g) Which transition metal of 3d series has positive E°(M2+/M) value and why?
32. (a) The molecular masses of polymers are determined by osmotic pressure method and not 5
by measuring other colligative properties. Give two reasons.
(b) For a 5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60g/mol). Calculate the osmotic pressure at
300K. (R=0.0821L atm/K/mol).
OR
(a) ‘X’ has a boiling point of 4.2K, lowest for any known substance. It is used as a diluent
for oxygen in modern diving apparatus. Identify the gas ‘X’. Which property of this gas
makes it usable as a diluent. Which law is used to relate concentration of gases in
solution with their external pressure?
(b) Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1g of HBr in 100g of water
assuming the acid to be 90% ionized. (Given; molar mass of Br = 80 g/mol, Kf for water
= 1.86 K kg/mol)
33. A hydrocarbon ‘A’ (C4H8) on reaction with HCl gives a compound ‘B’ (C4H9Cl), which on 5
reaction with 1 mol of ammonia gives compound ‘C’ (C4H11N). On reacting with NaNO2
and HCl followed by treatment with water, compound ‘C’ yields an optically active alcohol
‘D’. Ozonolysis of ‘A’ gives two moles of acetaldehyde. Identify compounds A to D.
Explain the reactions involved.
OR
(a) Account for the following.
(i) Acetylation of aniline reduces the activation effect.
(ii) Aniline does not react with methyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 catalyst.
(iii) pKb of aniline is less than that of m-Nitroaniline.
(b) Give one chemical test to distinguish between
(i) Aniline and Benzylamine.
(ii) N-Methylmethanamine and N,N-Dimethylmethanamine.