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IIT-JEE (MAINS + ADVANCED) TEST NAME : INTERNAL TEST-12

IIT-JEE (MAINS ONLY) TEST DATE : 25-01-2023
PRE-MEDICAL (NEET)  SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
PNCF PATTERN : NEET
CLASS : LEADER (PHASE - 1 TO 4)

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 Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) Ans. 3
 This section contains 35 questions. Sol. NCERT Page no. 196
155. A thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is
 For each question, darken the bubble
isolated from
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(1) E.coli
 For each question, marks will be awarded in (2) Salmonella
one of the following categories : (3) Staphylococcus aureus
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (4) Thermus aquaticus
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Ans. 4
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Sol. NCERT Page no. 202
darkened.
156. Arrange the processes of recombinant DNA
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
technology in a correct sequence and select the
151. If a foreign gene is inserted at Hind III recognition correct option.
site in cloning vector pBR322, then the
(a) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction
recombinants will be
endonucleases
(1) Sensitive to tetracycline
(b) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
(2) Resistant to chloramphenicol
(c) Transferring the rDNA into host
(3) Susceptible to both tetracycline and ampicillin
(d) Isolation of DNA
(4) Resistant to both tetracycline and ampicillin
(e) Culturing the host cells in a medium on a large
Ans. 4 scale
Sol. NCERT Page no. 199 (f) Downstream processing
152. Which of the following DNA sequences would (g) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
act like a recognition site?
(h) Separation of DNA fragments by gel
(1) 5’-GGATCT-3’ electrophoresis
3’-CCTAGA-5’ (1) (d)  (a)  (b)  (g)  (h)  (c)  (f)  (e)
(2) 5’-CCCGGC-3’ (2) (d)  (a)  (h)  (g)  (b)  (c)  (f)  (e)
3’-GGGCCG-5’ (3) (d)  (a)  (h)  (g)  (b)  (c)  (e)  (f)
(3) 5’-AACGTT-3’
(4) (a)  (b)  (d)  (f)  (g)  (h)  (c)  (e)
3’-TTGCAA-5’
Ans. 3
(4) 5’-CTGCAT-3’
Sol. NCERT Page no. 201
3’-GACGTA-5’
157. All the given enzymes are required for isolation
Ans. 3 of DNA from a bacteria cell, except
Sol. NCERT Page no. 197 (1) RNase (2) Cellulase
153. In restriction enzyme Hind II, H stands for (3) Lysozyme (4) Protease
(1) Helicobacter (2) Haemophilus Ans. 2
(3) Herpes (4) Hepadnaviral Sol. NCERT Page no. 201
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page no. 195
154. Each restriction endonuclease functions by
(a) Inspecting the length of DNA sequence
(b) Binding to its specific recognition sequence
(c) Cut only single strand of dsDNA at specific
points
(d) Cut in their sugar-nitrogenous base backbone
Choose the correct option from the following.
(1) a, b, c only (2) a, b, d only
(3) a, b only (4) a, b, c and d

158. Read the given statements.
Statement-A: All recombinants are not
transformants but all transformants are
recombinants.
Statement-B: The techniques of bioprocess
engineering include creation of recombinant DNA,
use of gene cloning and gene transfer.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Page no. 194,199
159. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the figure given
below:
(1) Lane 2 shows undigested DNA fragments
(2 The matrix used is synthetically prepared from
sea weeds
(3) Smallest band is towards cathode
(4) Bands are visualised after staining it with
ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
light
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 198
160. An antibacterial gene was being ligated to the
plasmid vector to prepare a recombinant DNA
during bacterial transformation. After formation
of recombinant DNA, an exonuclease was added
to the tube accidentally. How will it affect the
next step of the experiment?
(1) Recombinant DNA will be degraded
(2) No effect on the experiment
(3) Alien DNA will not be transferred into host
(4) No product will be formed
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page no. 198
161. How many copies of gene of interest (DNA) is
synthesized after 10 cycles of PCR?
(1) 1024 (2) 1 billion
(3) 124 (4) 10
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Page no. 202
Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
162. Assertion (A): A sparger is used in a sparged
stirred-tank bioreactor to produce large quantities
of foreign gene product.
Reason (R): Small bubbles are more effective
than large bubbles in facilitating oxygen transfer.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Page no. 204
163. Read the given statements and choose the correct
one.
(1) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
constructed first recombinant DNA in 1982
by linking an antibiotic resistance gene with a
plasmid of Haemophilus influenzae.
(2) According to European Federation of
Biotechnology (EFB), biotechnology
encompasses only genetic engineering and
bioprocess engineering.
(3) Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA
polymerase, induce renaturation of dsDNA
in PCR.
(4) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and
A when the sequence 5’-GAATTC-3’ is
present in the DNA.
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 193,194,196, 203
164. The vectors which are used for cloning in
eukaryotic organisms are
(a) Plasmids
(b) Bacteriophages
(c) Ti plasmids of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Disarmed retroviruses
Select the correct option.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
165. If BamHI cuts the cloning vector pBR322 at a
specific point then which restriction enzyme will
be preferred to cut the foreign DNA of interest?
(1) EcoRI (2) BamHI
(3) SalI (4) PvuI
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page no. 197
 Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
166. How many of the following can be classified Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
under upstream and downstream processing
171. Select the incorrect statement:
respectively?
(1) The normal E.coli do not carry resistance
Expression of protein in desired host, against antibiotics
Separation of desired product, Purification (2) Ori controls the copy number of linked DNA
of desired product, Isolation of DNA from (3) Presence of more than one recognition sites
host cell, Making multiple copies of gene within the vector can complicate the gene
cloning
(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3
(4) EcoR I codes for the proteins involved in the
(3) 2, 1 (4) 1, 1
replication of the plasmid
Ans. 1
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 203 & 204
Sol. NCERT
Isolation of DNA from host cell, Making multiple
copies of gene and Expression of protein in desired ROP codes for the protein involved in replication
host - Upstream processing. of plasmid.
Separation of desired product, Purification of 172. Which enzyme is used to prevent self-ligation of
desired product - Down stream processing. vector DNA?
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
167. If in a circular DNA, the recognition sequence
for Sma I appears at 3 sites, then how many (2) DNA ligase
fragments will be produced? (3) Polymerase
(1) Two (2) Three (4) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Five (4) Four Ans. 1
Ans. 2 Sol. Allen module
Sol. NCERT Page no. 197 173. Choose the incorrect match.
168. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
option. (1) Genetic – Creation of rDNA
engineering
Annealing: 50-60°C:: Extension: ________.
(1) 94°C (2) 40°C (2) Bioprocess – Maintenance of
engineering sterile ambience to
(3) 72°C (4) 89°C enable growth of
Ans. 3 desired microbe
Sol. NCERT Page no. 202 (3) Bioreactors – Small volume
169. The naming of enzyme, EcoR V differs from EcoR cultures yielding
I in appreciable
(1) Genus of prokaryotic cell from which they quantities of
were isolated products
(2) Name of strain (4) Selectable – Helps in
(3) Order in which it was isolated from particular markers identifying
strain of bacteria transformants and
eliminating non-
(4) Species of prokaryotic cell Transformants
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Ans. 3
170. During transformation with recombinant DNA, Sol. NCERT Page no. 204
host cells are made competent by 174. Who was the first one to combine the segments
(1) Treating them with heat shock at 42°F of DNA in desired configuration and insert it in
bacterial cell?
(2) Placing them briefly at 42°C
(1) Arber and Nathan (2) Kary Mullis
(3) Treating them with specific concentration of
divalent cation (3) Cohen and Boyer (4) Karl Von Frisch
(4) Adding chilled ethanol and DNase to the Ans. 3
transformation mix Sol. NCERT Page no. 194
Ans. 3
 Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
175. Stirrer in a bioreactor facilitates
(1) Anaerobic conditions 180. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(2) Even mixing and oxygen availability
throughout the bioreactor Statement-A: A stirred tank reactor is usually
cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the
(3) Addition of preservatives to the product
mixing of the reactor contents.
(4) Temperature control
Statement-B: Batch fermentation is called a
Ans. 2 closed culture system.
Sol. NCERT Page no. 204 (1) Both the statements are correct.
176. Extraction of DNA from separated bands in (2) Both the statements are incorrect.
agarose gel after electrophoresis is
(3) Statement A is incorrect.
(1) Elution
(4) Statement B is incorrect.
(2) Spooling
Ans. 1
(3) Biomonitoring
Sol. NCERT Page no. 204
(4) Downstream processing
181. Insertional inactivation is used for :-
Ans. 1
(1) Selection of transformed cells
Sol. NCERT Page no. 198
(2) Selection of non-transformed cells
177. The enzymes which synthesize a new strand of
(3) Selection of recombinants
DNA complementary to an existing DNA template
in 5' to 3' direction are named (4) Selection of vector
(1) Endonucleases Ans. 3
(2) DNA ligases Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
(3) DNA polymerases 182. The construction of first r-DNA emerged from
the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic
(4) Exonucleases
resistance with native plasmid of :-
Ans. 3
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
Sol. NCERT Page no. 202
(2) E.coli
178. Enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
(3) Yeast
bacteriophage in E.coil were isolated in the year
(4) Thermus aquaticus
(1) 1963 (2) 1972
Ans. 1
(3) 1990 (4) 1997
Sol. NCERT Page no. 194
Ans. 1
183. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of
Sol. NCERT Page no. 201
DNA?
179. Read the given statements and choose the correct
(1) BAC (2) YAC
statements.
(3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid
Statement-A: Plasmids and bacteriophages have
the ability to replicate within bacterial cells Ans. 3
independent of the control of chromosomal DNA. Sol. Allen module
Statement-B: The vector pBR322 has a rop 184. How many characteristics are correct w.r.t.
region which codes for proteins required for the plasmid used as a vector ?
transcription of plasmid. (i) double-stranded
(1) Both the statements are correct. (ii) circular
(2) Both the statements are incorrect. (iii) has histone proteins
(3) Statement A is incorrect. (iv) can self-replicate
(4) Statement B is incorrect (v) introns present
Ans. 4 (1) 5 (2) 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 199 (3) 3 (4) 2
Ans. 3
Sol. Allen module basics
 Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
185. State True (T) or False(F). 188. For transformation, micro-particles coated with
A. Ti plasmid is tumor inducing plasmid of DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
Agrobacterium. up of
B. Two selectable markers present in pBR322 (1) Silver or platinum
are Lac ‘Z’ and ampR. (2) Platinum or zinc
C. Restriction digestion with EcoRI produces (3) Silicon or platinum
blunt ends fragments. (4) Gold or tungsten.
D. Selection of transformants from non- Ans. 4
transformants can be done by plating on agar
Sol. NCERT Page no. 201
rich with tetracycline, if insertional inactivation
takes in Pvu-I recognition site. 189. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white
in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant
A B C D bacteria because of
(1) F T F F (1) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase
in recombinant bacteria
(2) F F T F
(2) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
(3) T F T T recombinant bacteria
(4) T F F T (3) non-recombinant bacteria containing beta
Ans. 4 galactosidase
Sol. NCERT Page no. 199, 200 (4) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase
in non-recombinant bacteria.
Ans. 3
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
 This section contains 15 questions.
190. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic
 Attempt any 10 questions. engineering are
 For each question, darken the bubble (1) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. elegans
 For each question, marks will be awarded in (2) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
one of the following categories :
(3) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(4) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is Ans. 2
darkened. Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 191. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in:-
186. 3 molecules of DNA are amplified by PCR, then (1) Spectrophotometry (2) Tissue Culture
after 5 PCR cycles what will be total number of (3) PCR (4) Gel electrophoresis
DNA molecules? Ans. 4
(1) 96 (2) 64 Sol. NCERT Page no. 198
(3) 32 (4) 35 192. How many of the following are blunt end producing
Ans. 1 restriction enzymes?
Sol. NCERT LOGICAL. [Sma I, EcoRV, Hind III, BamHI, Hae III
3 * 2^5. (1) Four (2) Two
187. DNA fragments are (3) Three (4) Five
(1) negatively charged Ans. 3
(2) neutral Sol. Allen module
(3) either positively or negatively charged Sma I, EcoRV, Hae III are blunt end producing
depending on their size restriction enzyme.
(4) positively charged.
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Page no. 198

193. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl
groups to the DNA, It does so to :-
(1) Clone its DNA
(2) Be able to transcribe many genes
simultaneously
(3) Turn its gene on
(4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction
enzyme
Ans. 4
Sol. Allen module.
194. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of
recombinant DNA molecule is depicted below.
The mistake in the procedure is :-
(1) Enzyme polymerase is not included
(2) The mammalian DNA is shown double
stranded
(3) Only one fragment is inserted
(4) Two different restriction enzymes are used
Ans. 4
Sol. Allen module
195. Select the incorrect statement for continuous
culture system –
(1) In this used medium is drained out from one
side while fresh medium is added from other
side.
(2) In this cells are maintained in their
physiologically most active lag phase of
growth.
(3) It produces larger biomass.
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product.
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page no. 204
Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject
196. Assertion: Presence of restriction sites of many
enzymes within the vector is not desirable.
Reason: It will generate several fragments which
will complicate the process.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 199
197. Assertion: Microinjection is direct method of
gene transfer into nucleus.
Reason: Bacteriophage are used as gene cloning
vectors.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page no. 201
198. Biologically functional gene coding for tyrosine
t-RNA of E.coil synthesized by Khorana in 1979
had:-
(1) 333 nucleotide pairs
(2) 312 nucleotide pairs
(3) 77 nucleotide pairs
(4) 207 nucleotide pairs
Ans. 4
Sol. Allen module.
199. Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of
several ...(A)... plants is able to deliver a piece
of DNA known as ...(B)... . Choose the option
which correctly fill the blanks.
(1) (A)-Dicot; (B)-Ti plasmid
(2) (A)-Monocot; (B)-Ti plasmid
(3) (A)-Dicot; (B)-T-DNA
(4) (A)-Monocot; (B)-T-DNA
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Page no. 200
 Exam Date/Class/Phase/Subject

200. If we ligate alien piece of DNA in a plasmid whose

copy number is 15, then how many copies of alien
piece of DNA we can obtain per cell?
(1) 15 (2) 30
(3) 150 (4) 60
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT LOGICAL.