...

Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And

Answers 2024.
Which NFPA standard lists the ISO requirements, duties, and responsibilities?

A) NFPA 1500
B) NFPA 1026
C) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1561

D) NFPA 1561
Whose role is it to focus on scene-specific operations?

A) The incident commander

B) The incident safety officer (ISO)
C) Both the ISO and HSO
D) The health and safety officer (HSO)
B) The incident safety officer (ISO)
Which NFPA standard currently sets the ISO qualifications for NIMS safety officers?

A) NFPA 1561
B) NFPA 1026
C) NFPA 1500
D) NFPA 1521
B) NFPA 1026
The division of the safety officer role was written into which NFPA standard?

A) NFPA 1562
B) NFPA 1500
C) NFPA 1561
D) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1521
The number of injuries on the fireground is declining:

A) proving the job of safety is being accomplished

B) even as the total number of hours on the fireground is increasing
C) as the total number of fires is increasing
D) but not as quickly as the number of fires .
D) but not as quickly as the number of fires .
Most line-of-duty deaths (LODDs) are:

A) burn related
B) stress (cardiac) related
C) apparatus related
D) fall related
B) stress (cardiac) related
What organization conducts LODD examinations of specific incidents to assist fire departments and the
fire service in developing processes and procedures to prevent further LODD or injury occurrences?

A) Fire Department Safety Officer's Association (FDSOA)

B) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C) National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
D) National Fire Academy (NFA)
C) National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
In the MEDIC acronym, the D stands for:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) Develop
B) Define
C) Discover
D) Delegate
A) Develop
In what year was Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5, Management of Domestic Incidents,
signed?

A) 1997
B) 2004
C) 2001
D) 2011
B) 2004
The National Response Framework (NRF) was recently renamed from:

A) National Coordinated Response Center (NCRC)

B) National Response Action Plan (NRAP)
C) National Response Plan (NRP)
D) National Response Preparedness (NRP)
C) National Response Plan (NRP)
The HSO role is primarily:

A) an administrative or managerial position

B) project based
C) as needed and task specific
D) incident related
A) an administrative or managerial position
A(n) ________ process is a process or operation that is part of a department's routine, but is not written
out.

A) informal
B) formal
C) coperational
D) standard
A) informal
__________ is the process of learning and applying knowledge and skills.

A) Wisdom
B) Training
C) Understanding
D) Education
B) Training
All of the following are common, widely practiced concepts in risk reduction industries EXCEPT:

A) the operational safety triad.

B) the five-step risk management model.
C) the hazard mitigation model.
D) risk/benefit thinking.
C) the hazard mitigation model.
The primary function of an ISO is to:

A) identify hazards
B) isolate risks
C) reduce injuries
D) provide safety expertise
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) identify hazards
The definition of a well-written SOP is:

A) it successfully passes auditing

B) firefighters follow it
C) it encompasses all the necessary elements
D) the language used is appropriate for the audience
B) firefighters follow it
All of the following are factors in the Operational Safety Triad EXCEPT:

A) personnel
B) procedures
C) policies
D) equipment
C) policies
All of the following are factors to be addressed in the personnel aspect of the Operational Safety Triad
EXCEPT:

A) attitude
B) training
C) health
D) observational skills
D) observational skills
The department's safety _______ is made up of the ideas, skills, and customs that are passed from one
"generation" to another.

A) philosophy
B) program
C) culture
D) education
C) culture
__________ are thought to be more flexible, and therefore more usable, by line officers and incident
commanders (ICs).

A) Standard operating practices

B) Standard operating guidelines
C) Standard response operations
D) Standard operating procedures
B) Standard operating guidelines
___________ is the process of developing one's analytical ability using principles, concepts, and values.

A) Understanding
B) Training
C) Education
D) Wisdom
C) Education
The organization that serves as the conduit to collect and approve various fire-service-related federal
grant requests is:

A) NFPA
B) USFA
C FEMA
D OSHA
B) USFA
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
Which organization has issued many regulations regarding and offers support to fire departments for
hazmat training?

A) OSHA
B) DHS
C) FEMA
D) EPA
D) EPA
One of the first charges of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) was to:

A) prioritize threats against the U.S. homeland

B) develop a National Response Plan (NRP)
C) complete a threat assessment against the United States
D) increase airline security
B) develop a National Response Plan (NRP)
OSHA responsibilities include both the creation and _________ of workplace law.

A) defense
B) investigation
C) statistical analysis
D) enforcement
D) enforcement
NFPA 1500's chapter 8 is essential information, and its title is:

A) Emergency Operations
B) Building Hazard Assessment
C) Essential Information for the Fire Officer
D) Firefighter Safety
A) Emergency Operations
The NFPA standards are often viewed by the courts as:

A) case law
B) codes
C) common practices
D) regulations
C) common practices
In NFPA 1500, Chapter 8, the first three sections are Incident Management, Communications, and:

A) Crew Resource Management (CRM)

B) Members Operating at Emergency Incidents
C) Hazard Control Zones
D) Rapid Intervention for Rescue of Members
A) Crew Resource Management (CRM)
The ______ has authority to stop, alter, or suspend activities that present an imminent threat of harm.

A) SO
B) ASO
C) IC
D) ISO
A) SO
One legal principle that has a long history of minimizing fire department and firefighter liability is:

A) discretionary function
B) lack of high-payout insurance policies
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) Good Samaritan laws
D) professional courtesy
A) discretionary function
The worst rule violations are classified by OSHA as:

A) intentional violations
B) red violations
C) stage 4 violations
D) willful disregard
D) willful disregard
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is under which cabinet-level department?

A) Department of Labor
B) Department of Homeland Security
C) Department of Health and Human Services
D) Department of Defense
C) Department of Health and Human Services
What group has been funded by Congress to investigate all firefighter fatalities?

A) NIOSH
B) FEMA
C) NFPA
D) OSHA
A) NIOSH
Two good reasons to use "guiding publications" are to keep firefighters safe and:

A) to avoid litigation
B) to keep up with trends
C) equipment in good repair
D) for networking opportunities
A) to avoid litigation
The NFPA was established in 1896 to address a multitude of fire prevention issues and:

A) fire protection issues

B) firefighter injury issues
C) arson issues
D) insurance concerns
A) fire protection issues
What is the name for the situation in which an SOP exists that tells the IC that he or she shall delegate
the safety function to a qualified ISO under certain conditions?

A) Formal delegation
B) Automatic delegation
C) Preprogrammed
D) "Bump up"
B) Automatic delegation
All of the following descriptors of an incident would be a trigger to have an ISO present EXCEPT:

A) Difficult
B) Lengthy
C) Typical
D) Complicated
C) Typical
One thing that can lessen the need for an ISO during mutual-aid incidents is:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) regular training
B) co-incident commanders
C) SOP
D) good communications
A) regular training
In the case of specialty teams, which NFPA standards would address training needs for the safety
officer?

A) NFPA 1500 and NFPA 472

B) NFPA 1006 and NFPA 1561
C) NFPA 1500 and NFPA 1561
D) NFPA 1006 and NFPA 472
D) NFPA 1006 and NFPA 472
The most important reason this text does not support the idea of having the RIC act as the ISO is:

A) if he or she is needed for a rescue operation, who is the 150

B) he or she could be distracted from the RIC preparations
C) conflicting priorities
D) he or she may not have the proper training
B) he or she could be distracted from the RIC preparations
The training officer is often called upon to be the ISO, but one disadvantage to that could be:

A) it can help him or her maintain his or her incident skills

B) there are no tools for a smooth transition
C) training and safety are embodied in one person
D) the training officer also tends to be the Control/Research/Development/Special
Projects/Recruitment/Wellness/Quality Control Officer
D) the training officer also tends to be the Control/Research/Development/Special
Projects/Recruitment/Wellness/Quality Control Officer.
If there is a Mayday incident, who begins the accident documentation and investigation process?

A) The SO
B) The ISO
C) The HSO
D) The IC
B) The ISO
Once the span of control rises above ________ the IC should include an ISO.

A) four
B) five
C) Six
D) three
D) three
Weather can have an effect on the need for an ISO because:

A) winds are always unpredictable

B) southern firefighters can be exposed to very high temperatures
C) unfamiliar weather can pose unusual situations
D) northern region firefighters can be exposed to dangerously cold temperatures
C) unfamiliar weather can pose unusual situations
One benefit to not formalizing a system for automated or rapid delegation of the ISO function is:

A) there are no benefits to not formalizing the system

B) to maintain maximum flexibility
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) to allow the IC maximum authority
D) the ISO will not be on the fireground when the initial assignments are being carried out
A) there are no benefits to not formalizing the system
Because some think yellow barrier tape is overused, what tape should an ISO carry?

A) It isn't necessary for the ISO to carry tape

B) Red and white slashed or chevron tape
C) Green ISO warning tape
D) Yellow barrier tape
B) Red and white slashed or chevron tape
On the timeline, time zero is when:

A) the fire house is activated

B) the 911 call is answered
C) countermeasures are started
D) firefighters arrive on scene
D) firefighters arrive on scene
An ISO shall meet the requirements of:

A) Fire Officer I
B) Fire Officer II
C) Safety Officer II
D) Safety Officer I
A) Fire Officer I
An event where the initial response assignment is 100% committed and more resources are needed is
known as:

A) a reactive incident
B) a working incident
C) a "Murphy" fire
D) a multiple alarm incident
B) a working incident
The use of balloon framing was most prevalent during which era?

A) The lightweight era

B) The industrial era
C) Founders' era
D) The legacy era
B) The industrial era
Major fires present the threat of unreinforced masonry wall collapse if the building was built during which
era?

A) Founders' era
B) The lightweight era
C) The legacy era
D) The industrial era
A) Founders' era
A newly constructed high-rise would probably have a construction classification of:

A) Type III
B) Type II
C) Type V
D) Type I
D) Type I
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
The preferred shape for columns is:

A) circle
B) square
C) I-beam
D) square or circle
D) square or circle
The final step in protecting from collapse is to predict and:

A) prepare
B) zone
C) analyze
D) communicate
D) communicate
All of the following are characteristics of a building material EXCEPT:

A) age of material.
B) type of material.
C) shape of the material.
D) orientation or plane of the material.
A) age of material.
In essence, mass is heat resistance, and heat resistance is:

A) time
B) good
C) protection
D) predictable
A) time
A building that has a high surface-to-mass ratio would probably have been built during which era?

A) The industrial era

B) Founders' era
C) The lightweight era
D) The legacy era
C) The lightweight era
Who would initiate a precautionary withdrawal?

A) ISO
B) IC
C) Any firefighter
D) ISO or IC
B) IC
In discussing different loads on a building, the load that refers to the weight of the building itself is known
as the:

A) live load.
B) dead load.
C) axial load.
D) structural load.
B) dead load.
A newly constructed suburban strip mall would probably have a construction classification of:

A) Type 1
B) Type Ill
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) Type II
D) Type IV
C) Type II
Gusset plates can fail in trusses in as little as:

A) 15 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 12 minutes
D) 5 minutes
D) 5 minutes
Which type of wood will have a slower burn rate?

A) They all will burn at the same rate

B) Smooth finished
C) Rough sawn
D) Engineered wood
C) Rough sawn
Platform framing was most commonly used during which era?

A) The industrial era

B) The lightweight era
C) The legacy era
D) Founders' era
C) The legacy era
A spreader is used to:

A) support walls that are collapsing outward

B) support walls that are collapsing inward
C) distribute an axial force over a larger area
D) gain entry through a small opening
A) support walls that are collapsing outward
A newly constructed school would probably have a construction classification of:

a . Type V
b . Type II
C . Type 1
d . Type III
b . Type II
True or False: Simply reading literature on how to read smoke does not make one a smoke-reader; a
useable, on-scene skill takes practice.

A) True
B) False
A) True
In revising the classic four stages of fire development, the phase that has been expanded upon is:

A) growth
B) fully developed
C) decay
D) ignition
A) growth
Increasing smoke speed can be a warning sign for:

A) backdraft
B) flashover
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) flame-over
D) smoke explosion
C) flame-over
Two forces cause smoke to pressurize in a building: smoke volume and:

A) very high humidity

B) new, tighter building construction methods
C) convection heat
D) lack of ventilation
C) convection heat
Sucking or puffing of smoke from an open door or window is a warning for:

A) explosive growth
B) backdraft
C) flame-over
D) smoke explosion
A) explosive growth
In which phase of a compartmentalized fire do conditions exist where open flaming decreases because
smoke production displaces and limits available combustion air, although heating continues to produce
smoke?

A) Ventilation-limited phase
B) Initial growth phase
C) Fully developed phase
D) Explosive growth phase
A) Ventilation-limited phase
There are three general types of connections: pinned, rigid, and:

A) ductile.
B) gravity.
C) mansard.
D) transitory.
B) gravity.
Which letter in the acronym VVDC is best used as the predictor of how things are going to be?

A) Velocity
B) Density
C) Volume
D) Color
B) Density
Black fire is:

A) a low-temperature fire that is black in color because of incomplete combustion.

B) smoke that is high-volume, has turbulent velocity, is ultradense, and is deep black
C) a combination of smoke and fire that makes visibility impossible.
D) a term to describe a very hot fire, over 1,000° F (538 ° C)
B) smoke that is high-volume, has turbulent velocity, is ultradense, and is deep black
The thicker the smoke is:

A) the cooler the temperatures

B) the less fire there is
C) the more pressing the need to ventilate
D) the more explosive it becomes
D) the more explosive it becomes
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
The third step of the Three-Step Process for Reading Smoke is:

A) Determine the rate of change of each attribute

B) Compare the differences in the attributes from each opening from which smoke is emitting
C) Analyze the ascension of the plume
D) Analyze the contributing factors to determine whether they are affecting VVDC
A) Determine the rate of change of each attribute
Smoke at a building fire is created by:

A) incomplete combustion and pyrolitic decomposition

B) complete combustion
C) pyrolitic decomposition
D) incomplete combustion
A) incomplete combustion and pyrolitic decomposition
Unfinished wood gives off a distinctive smoke as it approaches mid-to late-stage heating. What makes it
distinctive?

A) It smells of pine
B) It is brown
C) It is white
D) It rises very quickly
B) It is brown
Turbulent smoke flow that has filled a compartment can be a warning sign for:

A) backdraft
B) smoke explosion
C) flame-over
D) flashover
D) flashover
True or False: Smoke volume by itself tells you quite a lot about a fire.

A) False
B) True
A) False
An item that is releasing a mix of particulates and aerosols as well as gases is referred to as:

A) vapor releasing
B) decomposing
C) off-gassing
D) off-aggregating
D) off-aggregating
The ISO read-risk model can serve as a simple three-step process: collect information, analyze, and
________ risk.

A) balance
B) judge
C) assign
D value
B) judge
The U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) risk-taking model uses three criteria: severity, probability, and:

A) accessibility
B) exposure
C) ability
D) complexity
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
B) exposure
If you are reading smoke, what part(s) of the ISO read-risk model are you operating in?

A) Step 2
B) Step 1
C) Steps 1 and 2
D) Step 3
B) Step 1
What kind of learning can be described asthe process of observing others to develop knowledge, skill, or
an experience base?

A) Experience learning
B) Observational learning
C) Recognition-primed decision making
D) Vicarious learning
D) Vicarious learning
True or False: The ISO needs to gauge whether the loss of SA by the working responders is leading to a
trap, unacceptable risk-taking, or both, but must also remember that the urgency of task completion is
essential.

A) False
B) True
A) False
In the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) risk-taking model, a score above 80 would indicate you should:

A) abandon the mission

B) proceed with caution
C) not hesitate, it is acceptable risk
D) reassess and validate the risk assessment
A) abandon the mission
Valued property can be described as:

A) property that couldn't be replaced

B) physical property whose loss will cause harm to the community
C) property that generates income
D) property whose value is greater than the cost to save it
B) physical property whose loss will cause harm to the community
True or False The reoccurring recommendation from numerous reports from the National Institute for
Occupational Safety and Health states that Incident Commanders need to continually evaluate risk vs.
gain and adjust the action plan accordingly.

A) True
B) False
A) True
As former fire chief Dave Daniels characterized firefighting. "Firefighting isn't _______ it's merely risky."

A) uncertain
B) dangerous
C) hazardous
D) easy
B) dangerous
Personal values regarding situational awareness can be improved through:

A) educational endeavors
B) training
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) stress-reduction measures
D) physical fitness
A) educational endeavors
When the ISO is evaluating the potential survivability of a fire, it can be called:

A) rescue risk
B) survivability quotient
C) rescue profiling
D) search risk
C) rescue profiling
If you are "comprehending the situation, "you are at what level of situational awareness?

A) Level 2
B) Level 1
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
A) Level 2
By comparing the department's incident action plans to what are considered commonplace and accepted
risk management practices, the ISO can:

A) use the discrepancies to highlight funding shortfalls in the department

B) build a foundation for risk decision making
C) identify the shortfalls of the department's program
D) consider alternatives to the department's procedures
B) build a foundation for risk decision making
Determining the appropriateness of risk-taking is often based on:

A) NFPA standards
B) community values
C) regional legal standards
D) local liability standards
B) community values
NFPA 1561 states that the "______________shall monitor conditions, activities, and operations to
determine if they fall within the criteria (of acceptable risk-taking) as defined in the department's risk
management plan."

A) Safety Officer
B) Incident Commander
C) Ranking Officer
D) Intervention Officer
A) Safety Officer
True or False: Weather should NOT be considered a form of hazardous energy.

A) True
B) False
B) False
To be an effective and efficient ISO, you must front-load your understanding of hazardous energy forms
so that you can better identify sources, predict the energy's release potential, and:

A) know the proper agencies to contact for additional resources

B) be prepared to implement proper lockout/tagout procedures
C) intervene appropriately to protect fellow responders
D) decide on appropriate release actions
C) intervene appropriately to protect fellow responders
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
Nothing can change a situation faster-or cause more frustration in an operation-than the effects of:

A) humidity
B) a thunderstorm
C) wind
D) heat
C) wind
What is the FORCE that causes the flow of electricity?

A) Ohm
B) Ampere (Amps)
C) Voltage/Volt
D) Watt
C) Voltage/Volt
Which of the following is a unit of measure for the amount of energy a specific appliance uses?

A) Ampere (Amps)
B) Voltage/Volt
C) Watt
D) Ohm
C) Watt
What organization offers free online firefighter training programs for electric hybrid vehicles?

A) OSHA
B) NFPA
C) Congressional Fire Services Institute
D) NIOSH
B) NFPA
The lines on the top of power poles usually carry primary voltage in excess of:

A) 1,000 volts
B) 4,800 volts
C) 11,000 volts
D) 7,200 volts
B) 4,800 volts
The number one rule concerning downed power lines is:

A) tie it off to keep it from flailing into someone or something

B) try to ground it
C) stay at least 7 feet (2 m) from downed power lines
D) treat all downed power lines as if they are energized
D) treat all downed power lines as if they are energized
The integrity of electrical systems is based on their being properly grounded _____________, and circuit
protected.

A) measured
B) regulated
C) managed
D) insulated
D) insulated
The control zone concerning a wire or cable should be its length plus:

A) 33 %
B) 50 %
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) 10 %
D) 25 %
D) 25 %
The recommended color scheme for a no-entry zone is:

A) orange
B) black and white
C) red and white
D) red
C) red and white
Large hail (1/4 inches [6 mm] or larger) can be a sign of:

A) aggressive lightning
B) extreme temperature shift
C) tornadic activity
D) excessive rain fall
C) tornadic activity
A typical residence aboveground propane tank of 500 gallons (1,893 liters) would need a minimum water-
cooling rate of:

A) 100-150 GPM (379-568 LPM)

B) 500-1,000 GPM (1,893-3,785 LPM)
C) 50-100 GPM (189-379 LPM)
D) 150-250 GPM (568-946 LPM)
A) 100-150 GPM (379-568 LPM)
In the acronym BLEVE, the B stands for:

A) broken
B) bimetal
C) burning
D) boiling
D) boiling
A no-entry zone around a fire on a utility pole should be at least:

A) equal to the distance between two poles

B) 10 feet (3 m)
C) the height of the pole
D) the height of the pole plus 50%
A) equal to the distance between two poles
Solar electrical generation systems include arrays of what to produce an electric current?

A) Phototropic concentrator panels

B) Thermal hybrid solar collectors
C) Solarvoltaic panels
D) Photovoltaic panels
D) Photovoltaic panels
Which NFPA standard requires the ISO to establish a rehabilitation area?

A) NFPA 1701
B) NFPA 1561
C) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1584
B) NFPA 1561
Which NFPA standard requires that a team or crew that has lost one of its members to injury or death be
released from the incident and returned to quarters for follow-up actions?
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) NFPA 1701
B) NFPA 1561
C) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1584
D) NFPA 1584
Studies by the International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF), Toronto Fire Services, and Orange
County (CA) Fire Authority have all shown that firefighters engaged in operations wearing full structural
PPE will have average elevated core temperatures of ________ after 20 minutes?

A) 100 ° F (38 ° C)
B) 98.6 ° F (37 ° C)
C) 101.5 ° F (39 ° C)
D) 103 ° F (40 ° C)
C) 101.5 ° F (39 ° C)
The three stressors that influence overexertion are related to the environment, human physiology, and the
quality of:

A) training.
B) ergonomics.
C) equipment.
D) rehabilitation efforts.
D) rehabilitation efforts.
What is the number one cause of deaths at incidents?

A) Overexertion
B) Incomplete training
C) Equipment failure
D) Misallocation of resources
A) Overexertion
The rehab area, at minimum, should include how many components?

A) Four
B) Six
C) Three
D) Five
D) Five
Cell performance is really as simple as providing the cell with three essential ingredients: oxygen, water,
and:

A) fuel
B) protein
C) nitrogen
D) vitamins
A) fuel
A sign that a firefighter needs to spend more time in the rehab area would be:

A) an unfinished water allotment.

B) diastolic blood pressure under 90 mm Hg.
C) he or she hasn't finished eating.
D) a pulse rate in excess of a 120 beats per minute.
D) a pulse rate in excess of a 120 beats per minute.
A reoccurring recommendation in many firefighter line-of-duty death reports is the need to assign, at
minimum:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) nutritionist
B) an ASO
C) a firefighter
D) a BLS resource
D) a BLS resource
An underused acclimation strategy at an incident is to have crews:

A) discuss the plan.

B) rehearse the steps of the operation.
C) perform simple stretching and warm-up exercises.
D) be made aware of the hazards.
C) perform simple stretching and warm-up exercises.
In the physical setting, one thing that is essential for safe operations is:

A) the right equipment

B) teamwork
C) secure footing
D) plenty of light
C) secure footing
At 90° F (32° C) and 70% humidity, the NOAA Heat Stress Index Chart would consider that to be in which
category for its likelihood of heat disorders with prolonged exposure or strenuous activity?

A) Danger
B) Extreme Caution
C) Caution
D) Extreme Danger
A) Danger
__________ is an injury marked by painful muscle spasms. In simple terms, this injury is a warning that
the body's electrolytes are not balanced; dehydration may also play a role, and medical attention is
warranted.

A) Heat exhaustion
B) Heat rash
C) Transient heat fatigue
D) A heat cramp
D) A heat cramp
True or False: Rehab efforts should continue after crews demobilize and leave the scene.

A) True
B) False
A) True
An order from the ISO to immediately evacuate a building or area should be prefaced by:

A) "emergency message"
B) "urgent"
C) "priority message"
D) "emergency traffic"
D) "emergency traffic"
In the MEDIC acronym, the M stands for:

A) Motivating firefighters.
B) Monitoring issues.
C) Managing IAP requirements.
D) Manpower: having the resources to safely do the job
B) Monitoring issues.
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
In the national incident typing scheme, a regional event would be:

A) Type 1.
B) Type 2.
C) Type 3.
D) Type 4.
C) Type 3.
The successful ISO has _________ options to deliver the safety message to working crews.

A) many
B) focused
C) limited
D) few
A) many
True or False: Very rarely is an IAP ever required by OSHA CFR or other mandatory directives

A) True
B) False
B) False
There are approximately 16 Type 1 teams throughout the United States. Each team consist of how many
personnel?

A) 15-20
B) 50-75
C) 30-50
D) 20-30
C) 30-50
Always participating in established accountability systems and personnel accountability reports (PARS) is
an example of what kind of safety trigger?

A) Firm intervention
B) Soft intervention
C) Being visible
D) Setting an example
D) Setting an example
The ISO's role in supporting ICS communications is twofold: use various communication methods to
maintain contact with the IC and working crews, and _________ overall radio communication.

A) supervise
B) regulate
C) monitor
D) direct
C) monitor
Every radio communication needs to end with:

A) the sender's name

B) words such as "over" as proof the message was not fractured
C) an acknowledgement
D) the receiver's name
C) an acknowledgement
Wearing bright green armbands on each sleeve would be an example of what kind of safety trigger?

A) Setting an example
B) Soft intervention
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) Being visible
D) Firm intervention
C) Being visible
During an incident, the preferred identifier would be:

A) by name
B) by functional assignment
C) by organization
D) by department
B) by functional assignment
The ISO's role for a simple IAP is to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) sign off on it
B) create it
C) review it
D) make suggestions
B) create it
If there is no IAP when the ISO is appointed, the ISO should:

A) survey the scene and then initiate the conversation with the IC for an IAP
B) immediately initiate the conversation with the IC for an IAP
C) begin the IAP
D) start reviewing the operations
B) immediately initiate the conversation with the IC for an IAP
Failure to work within the framework of the action plan is a form of:

A) the can-do ethos

B) insubordination
C) dereliction of duty
D) freelancing
D) freelancing
All of the following are proactive actions EXCEPT:

A) awareness
B) acclimation
C) accommodation
D) IAP adjustment
D) IAP adjustment
Which NFPA standard states that the ISO must ensure that a rehab area has been established?

A) NFPA 1565
B) NFPA 1561
C) NFPA 1500
D) NFPA 1521
B) NFPA 1561
It is imperative that ISOs create an environment in which they can stay open to multiple inputs and
maintain a high degree of situation scanning and awareness-also known as ________ thinking.

A) observational
B) rational
C) reactive
D) Cyclic
D) Cyclic
If the duty ISO should arrive at the incident scene first, he or she should:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) confirm his or her role
B) search for trapped civilians
C) perform a recon 360
D) take on the role of initial IC if the situation warrants
D) take on the role of initial IC if the situation warrants
The last step in the arrival process is:

A) donning PPE
B) checking into the accountability system
C) announcing the ISO has been assigned
D) radio checks
B) checking into the accountability system
Who is required by NFPA 1500 to initiate rehab as needed?

A) The ISO
B) Individual responders
C) The IC
D) Both the IC and the ISO
C) The IC
Experienced ISOs typically develop what kind of approach, which is applicable to many types of
incidents?

A) A proactive approach
B) A uniform approach
C) A reactionary approach
D) A loose guideline approach
B) A uniform approach
True or False: All fire departments use a formal personnel accountability system.

A) False
B) True
A) False
RIC standby is located in which zone?

A) Warm zone
B) Cold zone
C) Hot zone
D) Any of the zones
A) Warm zone
Who is responsible for managing the personnel accountability system?

A) Both the IC and the ISO

B) The IC
C) The ISO
D) Whomever it is assigned to
D) Whomever it is assigned to
Who is permitted in the no-entry zone?

A) Any responder in proper PPE

B) ISO
C) IC
D) No one
D) No one
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
True or False: The Dodson/Vavra ISO (DVISO) action mode meets the specific ISO functions/duties that
are outlined in various standards and laws.

A) True
B) False
B) False
The terms "support zone" and "staging area" denote the:

A) warm zone
B) cold zone
C) staging zone
D) hot zone
B) cold zone
At the benchmark, "360 complete," what would happen?

A) The attack can commence

B) The IC establishes the risk profile
C) The ISO prepares the IAP
D) The risk level will be lowered
B) The IC establishes the risk profile
Which NFPA standard states that individual responders are responsible for communicating their rehab
needs to their supervise.

A) NFPA 1565
B) NFPA 1500
C) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1561
B) NFPA 1500
"Our linear thinking tends to ___________ hazards, particularly if the hazard is increasing at an
exponential rate."

A) misjudge
B) underestimate
C) overemphasize
D) overestimate
B) underestimate
Staffing guidelines for initial fireground operations would recommend how many responders for a school?

A) 42
B) 49
C) 36
D) 27
A) 42
For an apartment fire, how many engines are recommended to be on scene?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
C) Three
In cases where the personnel accountability report is incomplete, what is the next step?

A) The ISO should investigate.

B) The ISO should have a face-to-face with the IC.
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) The ISO should appoint an ASO.
D) A RIC should be deployed to find responders who are unaccounted for.
D) A RIC should be deployed to find responders who are unaccounted for.
Spaces or areas where conditions are simply not survivable have a __________. The most obvious
indicator of unsurvivable space is a fully developed fire within the space (post-flashover) that has floor-
level temperatures over 300°F (149°C; beyond human life threshold).

A) zero rescue profile

B) low rescue profile
C) marginal rescue profile
D) high rescue profile
A) zero rescue profile
True or False: The key for the ISO is to have a supportive tactics and strategy attitude and focus on
safety issues (risk-taking)

A) False
B) True
B) True
Why shouldn't the ISO judge the tactics and overall strategy during an incident?

A) It is in the ISO's responsibilities, but bad for IC relations

B) It is not the ISO's responsibility
C) The ISO doesn't have the time to
D) The ISO does, as it relates to the IAP
B) It is not the ISO's responsibility
True or False: Some fire departments mandate PARS every 30 minutes while firefighters are working in
an IDLH environment or other high-risk environments

A) False
B) True
A) False
A four-person crew completes essential fireground tasks, such as attack, search, and ventilation, how
much faster than a three-person crew?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 15%
C) 25%
A four-person crew can put water on the fire "how much quicker than a two-person crew?"

A) 21%
B) 11%
C) 16%
D) 5%
C) 16%
Of all the calls a modern fire department responds to, the riskiest is:

A) hazardous materials.
B) technical rescues.
C) wildland-urban interface fires.
D) structure fires.
D) structure fires.
True or False: The primary role of the ISO is to always be monitoring/evaluating and devising ways to
make response efforts safer.
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) True
B) False
A) True
For a center hall-configured building, or one with central shared stairwells, the number one tactical priority
must be:

A) getting people out.

B) controlling the smoke and heat.
C) maintaining both stairways for accessibility.
D) controlling ventilation.
B) controlling the smoke and heat.
Some departments have organized their systems and SOPs so that the RIC officer actually reports to the
ISO when in standby mode. Upon RIC engagement, the RIC reports to:

A) they report to no one, but are accountable to the IC

B) the ISO
C) they report to no one, but are accountable to the ISO
D) the IC
D) the IC
Staffing for support functions such as accountability, staging, and rehab at wildland incidents must be:

A) increased
B) decreased
C) determined on an incident-by-incident basis
D) about the same number
A) increased
True or False: If an aircraft refueling or resupply location is established near the incident (within the fire
department's jurisdiction), the ISO or an ASO should make a site safety visit

A) True
B) False
A) True
All of the following are locations for an ASO during a high-rise incident EXCEPT:

A) working with the operations section

B) performing recon outside the building
C) at the incident command center
D) where rehab and forward staging are located
C) at the incident command center
While the ISO is fulfilling his or her other responsibilities, he or she should also be listening for trigger
words on the radio that could indicate a developing problem, such as:

A) "Attack"
B) "Please repeat"
C) "I'm lost"
D) "Copy"
C) "I'm lost"
A _____________ is water or a water agent sprayed on the ground as a temporary control line from
which to ignite or stop a low-intensity fire

A) water line
B) scratch line
C) wet line
D) fire line
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) wet line
____________ is the burning of the foliage of a single tree, or small bunch of trees, from the bottom up
(sometimes called "candling")

A) Blowup
B) Fire storm
C) Torching
D) Flare-up
C) Torching
__________ includes factors such as slope (degree), aspect (relationship to the sun), and physical
features (chimneys, saddles, barriers, etc.) that all influence wildland fire behavior

A) Layout
B) Fuels
C) Geography
D) Topography
D) Topography
A wildfire is designated as contained based on:

A) the percentage of area still burning compared to total burned area

B) the percentage of fire that has been put out
C) the percentage of fire contained behind a control line
D) the percentage of control line completed
D) the percentage of control line completed
Accountability at wildfire incidents is most likely accomplished by:

A) a tag system
B) a passport system
C) GPS tracking systems
D) roll calls and CAN reports
D) roll calls and CAN reports
Who determines the set up for rehab areas?

A) The IC
B) The ISO
C) ASOs
D) The rehab personnel
D) The rehab personnel
Defining environmental _________ involves the consideration of factors such as weather, smoke, flame
spread, and hazardous energy.

A) impact
B) integrity
C) hazards
D) concerns
B) integrity
Staffing for support functions such as accountability, staging, and rehab at wildland incidents must be:

A) increased.
B) decreased.
C) about the same number.
D) determined on an incident-by-incident basis.
A) increased.
All of the following are usually considered a principal hazard EXCEPT:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) physical exertion
B) rapid fire spread
C) very dry conditions
D) hazardous energy
C) very dry conditions
If the wildfire response involves air resources, the ISO should:

A) assign the flight path

B) request an ASO
C) fly with the crew to get a better observation
D) identify the locations for the water drops
B) request an ASO
The term SOFR refers to the role of:

A) line safety officer

B) safety officer reserves
C) safety officer regional
D) safety officer rehab
A) line safety officer
For hazmat incidents, medical monitoring begins:

A) before stabilization efforts

B) after a given assignment has been completed
C) after 40 minutes
D) during the first rehab break
A) before stabilization efforts
If an incident is classified as a suspected terrorist event involving a WMD, what agency would take "the
lead"?

A) EPA
B) DoD
C) Homeland Security
D) FBI
D) FBI
True or False: The need for documentation and the development of written safety briefings and site safety
plans is mandatory for technician level incidents.

A) False
B) True
B) True
Who usually has primary control responsibilities at clandestine drug labs?

A) Fire departments
B) Law enforcement
C) Public health
D) Environmental protection regulators
B) Law enforcement
If you're working an incident and you find booby traps, improvised firearms, or incendiary/explosive
devices, it's a pretty good chance you're at a:

A) salvage yard
B) industrial waste treatment facility
C) clandestine drug lab
D) manufacturing facility
C) clandestine drug lab
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
To gauge operational effectiveness, the ISO would use recon observations from the surrounding
environment and support responders combined with CAN reports from:

A) team leaders
B) the ASO-HM
C) rehabi
D) responders
B) the ASO-HM
Hazmat technician crews preplan rapid withdrawal paths and escape areas that are specific to a given
incident because:

A) it is the safe thing to do

B) it is required by law
C) it is mandated by most fire departments
D) it should be part of their SOPs
B) it is required by law
At a hazmat incident, the ISO should have the professional competencies for the level of incident
involved.

A) True
B) False
A) True
When is it necessary to classify the weather according to the standard stable/unstable criteria?

A) Always
B) Never
C) Possibly
D) Only if it is relevant
A) Always
Which of the following is the correct formula for risk-taking at a hazardous material incident?

A) Chemical Properties + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking

B) (Chemical Properties ± Integrity + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness) x Time = Risk-Taking
C) Chemical Properties ± Integrity + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
D) Chemical Properties ± Stability + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
C) Chemical Properties ± Integrity + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
The controlling party at a suspected WMD incident was determined by which Presidential Decision
Directive?

A) PDD 27
B) PDD 17
C) PDD 39
D) PDD 29
C) PDD 39
The best way to measure the effectiveness of the operation is by:

A) time on task measurements

B) the judgement of the IC
C) the judgement of the ASO-HM
D) the general demeanor of the technicians in rehab
C) the judgement of the ASO-HM
It is not unusual for the accountability system to be divided into different systems. However, the ISO
should make sure they cross communicate.

A) two
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
B) four
C) three
D) five
A) two
Operations that are taking place well within a building are considered how far away?

A) Over 400 feet (122 m)

B) Over 300 feet (91 m)
C) Over 500 feet (152 m)
D) Over 200 feet (61 m)
B) Over 300 feet (91 m)
The assignment of an ISO at a hazmat technician-level incident is:

A) preferred by most IC's

B) required by law
C) strongly suggested
D) an SOP for most departments
B) required by law
Once a decision is made that a dive operation has changed from a rescue to a recovery, risk-taking
should be:

A) reduced
B) reviewed
C) evaluated
D) stopped
A) reduced
The USAR task force structural assessment system uses what color paint?

A) Orange
B) Red
C) Green
D) Yellow
A) Orange
A landing zone for a helicopter should have a clear zone diameter that is how big?

A) 60 feet (18 m)
B) 75 feet (23 m)
C) 100 feet (30 m)
D) 125 feet (38 m)
C) 100 feet (30 m)
In order to not tie up normal radio frequencies, some technical rescue teams do what instead?

A) Use small, talk-around radios

B) Do very little talking, relying instead on their training
C) Use other channels
D) Use cell phones
A) Use small, talk-around radios
A small, modern five-story office building collapses. This could be considered which type of collapse?

A) Basic/surface collapse
B) Light collapse
C) Moderate collapse
D) Heavy collapse
D) Heavy collapse
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
True or False: Nighttime operations present additional concerns. The introduction of artificial light, while
logical, may actually cause further problems.

A) True
B) False
A) True
In a __________ collapse, the victims are easily accessible and trapped by surface debris, loads are
minimal and easily removed by rescuers, and the threat of secondary collapse is minimal.

A) light
B) heavy
C) moderate
D) basic/surface
D) basic/surface
The competencies for confined space, trench, and cave-ins are defined in various chapters of which
NFPA standard?

A) NFPA 1006
B) NFPA 1200
C) NFPA 1521
D) NFPA 1031
A) NFPA 1006
When the ISO does not have technician-level training and/or certification, what would the next step be?

A) Seek a technical expert for assistance

B) Appoint an assistant safety officer-rescue technician (ASO-RT)
C) Check with the IC for his or her input
D) Replace the ISO with one who has the needed training level and/or certification
B) Appoint an assistant safety officer-rescue technician (ASO-RT)
Where there is regulation, legal liability exists. These two challenges have led fire departments to develop
technical rescue response systems that address procedures, training, equipment, and __________
elements.

A) command
B) experience
C) knowledge
D) proficiency
A) command
A two-story residential structure under construction collapses from an engineering error. This could be
considered which type of collapse?

A) Light collapse
B) Basic/surface collapse
C) Moderate collapse
D) Heavy collapse
C) Moderate collapse
True or False: Using a traffic barrier without traffic-calming strategies is not advisable. Worse, using
traffic-calming strategies without a traffic barrier is downright dangerous

A) True
B) False
A) True
Using the USAR marking system, an open box would indicate:

A) "Significantly damaged. May require shoring, bracing, and hazard removal for search."
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
B) "The structure is empty."
C) "This marks the easiest access into the building."
D) "Relatively safe for search."
D) "Relatively safe for search."
Of the following, which one has the potential to be the most challenging and complex rescue?

A) Flood
B) Injured maintenance worker on a cell phone tower
C) Airplane incident
D) Railway or subway incident
B) Injured maintenance worker on a cell phone tower
The number one safety consideration at roadway incidents is:

A) the threat of being struck by other traffic

B) sparks that could ignite leaking fuel
C) secondary accidents caused by rubbernecking
D) electrical hazards in new hybrid cars
A) the threat of being struck by other traffic
an accident chain, all of the following are components of the human factor EXCEPT:

A) training
B) attitude
C) barriers
D) fatigue
C) barriers
The ISO must be able to the types of incidents that might be atypical, and initiate some first aid measures
for addressing potential occupational stress issues.

A) classify
B) describe
C) understand
D) identify
D) identify
An accident investigation is a critical step to:

A) identify who is responsible

B) avoid future injuries and deaths
C) build the skills to be a more efficient
D) isolate liability from the department
B) avoid future injuries and deaths
The best approach to starting the conversation about the event is by:

A) observing the scene

B) talking to the IC
C) asking open-ended questions
D) eavesdropping on firefighters' conversations
C) asking open-ended questions
All of the following involve something that should normally be documented EXCEPT:

A) list of the firefighters who rehabbed

B) summary of meetings with the IC
C) soft interventions, stern advisories, and firm interventions
D) sky overview of the incident conditions found on arrival and notable changes that occurred
A) list of the firefighters who rehabbed
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
All of the following are desirable coping mechanisms for dealing with stress EXCEPT:

A) family time
B) socializing
C) recreation
D) alcohol
D) alcohol
_____________ refers to a formal and/or informal reflective discussion that fire departments use to
summarize the successes and the areas requiring improvement discovered from a given incident

A) Defusing
B) Postincident analysis
C) Shop talk
D) Debreifing
B) Postincident analysis
The National Firefighter Near-Miss System is an anonymous system for firefighters to generate a
database that can be used to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) develop training programs

B) offer suggestions
C) identify officers who are excessively risky
D) spot trends
C) identify officers who are excessively risky
True or False: Nowhere in the accident investigative process are the words "blame" or "discipline" to be
used.

A) True
B) False
A) True
At the conclusion of an incident, the adrenaline rush is over and the firefighters' metabolisms return to a
"___________" state; this reaction also causes a mental slowdown that can lead to unclear thinking and
injuries

A) repair
B) standard
C) natural
D) normal
A) repair
If an incident results in the death or serious injury of a firefighter and other agencies become involved in
investigating the incident, the ISO role will become that of:

A) a witness
B) a lead investigator
C) an assistant
D) an investigator
A) a witness
The ISO's role in supporting an ASE exposure program has to do with:

A) assisting the firefighter through it

B) building confidence in the programs
C) maintaining anonymity
D) initiating stress exposure protocols
D) initiating stress exposure protocols
To conduct an effective interview, do all of the following EXCEPT:
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) avoid interrupting witnesses
B) ask open-ended questions
C) use leading questions
D) remind the witness that all details, even seemingly trivial ones, can be important
C) use leading questions
True or False: The ISO needs to capture observations and be prepared to contribute to any PIAs in a
positive manner.

A) True
B) False
A) True
is an unintentional, unsafe occurrence that could have produced an injury, fatality, or property damage;
only a fortunate break in the chain of events prevented the undesirable outcome.

A) A close call
B) A mishap
C) A lucky break
D) An accident
A) A close call
All of the following are common reasons for the SO to intervene during a multi-agency event EXECPT:

A) weather-related problems
B) an injury
C) overzealous actors or responders
D) control zone discipline problems
B) an injury
Training and drills might not be as safe as we want them to be; over the past 10 years, there has been an
average of ________ training-related LODDS per year.

A) 10
B) 6
C) 19
D) 14
A) 10
The key to a successful no-notice drill is to:

A) have simple, preestablished guidelines

B) try not to limit the exercise to only one, two, or even three added complexities
C) use your imagination
D) be creative
A) have simple, preestablished guidelines
The preferred ratio for instructors to students for a live-five event is:

A) 1:3
B) 1:10
C) 1:5
D) 1:7
A) 1:3
A fire control team must consist of:

A) a minimum of two qualified firefighters, including a student or the SO.

B) a minimum of two qualified firefighters, not a student or the SO.
C) a minimum of four qualified firefighters, including a student or the SO.
D) a minimum of four qualified firefighters, not a student or the SO.
B) a minimum of two qualified firefighters, not a student or the SO.
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
Who starts the fire in a live-fire exercise?

A) The IIC
B) The TO
C) The SO
D) A member of the fire control team
D) A member of the fire control team
Of the following, all will help prevent injuries at a live-fire event EXCEPT:

A) building preparation
B) instructor issues
C) the establishment of a safety team
D) assignment of ASOs
D) assignment of ASOs
Training should only take place in environments that can be quickly controlled through preplanned and
__________ protective measures:

A) dedicated
B) uncomplicated
C) communicated
D) straightforward
C) communicated
If court case history any indication, the liability for injury or loss resulting from a live-fire training incident
will fall directly on:

A) the IIC
B) the department's emergency manager
C) both the IIC and SO
D) the SO
C) both the IIC and SO
At multi-agency drills, who would take the lead in facilitating the planning and preparation?

A) The fire department's emergency manager

B) The TO
C) The IIC
D) The SO
A) The fire department's emergency manager
For routine training (not live-fire, full-scale or multi-agency events), how much time should the SO use to
prepare?

A) A few of hours before the event with the IIC

B) 4 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 6 hours
A) A few of hours before the event with the IIC
The MEDIC mnemonic should be practiced during a training event like you would use it an actual
incident. Remember that the M stands for:

A) Make safe
B) Mentor
C) Mobility
D) Monitor
D) Monitor
For routine training (not live-fire, full-scale or multiagency events), how much time should the SO use to
prepare?
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
A) 12 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 4 hours
D) A few of hours before the event with the IIC
D) A few of hours before the event with the IIC
What training concept places the trainee in the hot seat to perform ISO functions?

A) Shadowing
B) Mentoring
C) Coaching
D) Tutoring
C) Coaching
At multiagency drills, who would take the lead in facilitating the planning and preparation?

A) The TO
B) The IIC
C) The SO
D) The fire department's emergency manager
D) The fire department's emergency manager
The key to a successful, safe, minimal stress no-notice drill is to:

A) be creative.
B) have simple, preestablished guidelines.
C) use your imagination.
D) try not to limit the exercise to only one, two, or even three added complexities.
B) have simple, preestablished guidelines.
All of the following are common reasons for the SO to intervene during a multiagency event EXECPT:

A) an injury.
B) overzealous actors or responders.
C) control zone discipline problems.
D) weather-related problems.
A) an injury.
Before a hazard can be evaluated, it needs to be:

A) controlled
B) classified
C) prioritized
D) identified
D) identified
True or False: In some cases, equipment designed to improve safety can actually lead to greater risk-
taking

A) True
B) False
A) True
As a practical rule, in smoky conditions, the driver of a small fire apparatus should:

A) avoid using spotters and back up carefully because personnel are spread thin
B) always use headlights and flashers
C) keep radios turned off to avoid distractions
D) drive quickly to where the apparatus needs to be
B) always use headlights and flashers
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
If PPE issues keep resurfacing at incidents:

A) there is probable cause to believe that other SOPs are also not being followed
B) the department values and standard operating procedure (SOP) enforcement are delinquent
C) the ISO should overlook it
D) the ISO should focus on that
B) the department values and standard operating procedure (SOP) enforcement are delinquent
True or False: At a live-fire event, it is important that instructors as well as students rehab

A) True
B) False
A) True
Some live-fire training specialists establish a _____ team that includes the designated SO to help
manage the training evolution.

A) fire control
B) MEDIC
C) safety
D) live-fire training
C) safety
The monitoring-evaluation relationship helps the ISO assess risk taking and can be expressed by the
formula:

A) Principal Hazards x Integrity Other Hazards + Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking

B) Principal Hazards ± Integrity-Other Hazards / Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
C) Principal Hazards ± Integrity + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
D) Principal Hazards + Integrity Other Hazards x Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
C) Principal Hazards ± Integrity + Other Hazards ± Resource Effectiveness = Risk-Taking
The effective ISO understands the concerns and works with the IC to achieve a "calculated" risk-taking
environment that favors firefighter safety and is still aggressive in fire control efforts This is known as:

A) environmental protection
B) effective wildfire control
C) aggressive wildfire tactics
D) intellectual aggressiveness
D) intellectual aggressiveness
At 1,100° F (593° C), a 100-foot (30-m)-long structural steel beam can elongate how much?

A) 14 inches (36 cm)

B) 3 inches (8 cm)
C) 5 inches (13 cm)
D) 10 inches (25 cm)
D) 10 inches (25 cm)
All of the following are observations that a collapse might be imminent EXCEPT:

A) signs of building repair, including reinforcing cables, spreaders, and bracing

B) sagging floors and roofs
C) higher British thermal unit (Btu) development (fire load)
D) settling noises
C) higher British thermal unit (Btu) development (fire load)
When an ISO cannot perform all the safety functions at an incident, the ISO should:

A) appoint an ASO
B) prioritize his or her responsibilities
Incident Safety Officer (TCFP) Exam Questions And
Answers 2024.
C) request a volunteer to assist him or her
D) request, from the IC, an ASO.
D) request, from the IC, an ASO.
Of the following, which food has a high glycemic index rating?

A) Apple juice
B) Milk
C) Bananas
D) Peaches
C) Bananas
Safety issues requiring direct intervention can be classified as a(n):

A) potential threat
B) Both 1 and 2
C) imminent threat
D) active threat
B) Both 1 and 2
Which era brought larger interior spaces for most buildings?

A) The legacy era

B) The lightweight era
C) The industrial era
D) Founders' era
A) The legacy era
The first step in developing a formal SOP is establishing:

A) funding for it
B) the job description for the safety officer
C) the need for it
D) an administrative process to create, edit, alter, or delete established processes.
D) an administrative process to create, edit, alter, or delete established processes.
True or False: If an elevated feature near the heel or flanks or a position upwind of the fire affords a good
sight line, take advantage of it as long as there is ZERO possibility that the fire will go there

A) True
B) False
A) True