GPAT 2023 1st SHIFT

T E ST
GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift)
QUESTIONS
SE C TI O NS
1. GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) - 125 Questions
Section 1 : GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) - 125 Questions
1 The molecule having zero dipole moment is
BF3
HF
NH3
CH3Cl
Correct: +4 · Incorrect: -1
2 The law of relative lowering of vapour pressure was given by:
Raoult
Ostwald
Henry
Van't Hoff
GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 1 of 70

3 Dipole-dipole weak interactions are also called as :
London forces
Debye interactions
Electrovalent forces
Keesom forces
4 Choose the correct order of decreasing dielectric constant:
Water > Formamide > Methanol > Acetone
Water> Methanol > Acetone > Formamide
Formamide > Acetone > Methanol > Water
Formamide > Water > Methanol > Acetone
5 As the solution of a strong electrolyte is diluted, the following phenomenon is observed:
The specific conductance decreases and equivalent conductance increases
The specific conductance increases and equivalent conductance decreases
Both specific conductance and equivalent conductance increase

Both specific conductance and equivalent conductance decrease
6 Establishing a complete structure of________is more complex problem than others.
polysaccharide
protein
nucleic acid
peptide
7 DNA and RNA contain the following two major purine bases:
Guanine and cytosine
Adenine and guanine
Thymine and uracil
Adenine and uracil
8 Which one is not the characteristics of the Hexose Monophosphate Pathway?
It produces CO2

It requires ATP for phosphorylation
It is controlled by inhibition of glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH
It produces ribose-5-phosphate
9 Match List I with List II
List -I List -II
Name of Vitamin Functions of Vitamins
A. Riboflavin I. The electron acceptor forisocitrate

dehydrogenase
B. Niacin II. Decarboxylation of alpha-

ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C. Thiamine III. Part of coenzyme A
D. Pantothenic acid IV. Cofactor for succinate dehydrogenase
V. Enzyme activity regulator, such as for
protein kinase C
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-II. B-V, C-I, D-IV

10 Which one of the following compound is a precursor for the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
Progesterone
Lanosterol
Cholic acid
Coprostanol
11 Ethyl-2 (p-chlorophenoxy)-2-methyl propionate is IUPAC name of:
Fenofibrate
Colestipol
Clofibrate
Colesevelam
12 Which of the following gives correct rank order from fastest to slowest of the relative rates in SN2 reaction
of methyl bromide, tert-butyl bromide, isopropyl bromide and ethyl bromide :
Methyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > Isopropyl bromide > tert-Butyl bromide
tert-Butyl bromide > Isopropyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > Methyl bromide
Ethyl bromide > Methyl Bromide > Isopropyl bromide > tert-Butyl bromide

Methyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > tert-Butyl bromide > Isopropyl bromide
13 A mixture of p-anisaldehyde and formaldehyde in the presence of concentrated sodium hydroxide results in
p-Methoxy sodium benzoate
Sodium-p-methoxy benzene
P-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
p-Methoxy benzoyl alcohol
14 The molecular formula of purine is:
C3H4N4
C6H5N3
C7H6N2
C4H3N5
15 Invert sugar is a product obtained by the hydrolysis of:
Maltose

Sucrose
Lactose
Dextrin
16 The perfect orientation for a Diels-Alder reaction between the reactants is:
Diene should be S-cis and reaction endo facing
Diene should be S-cis and reaction exo facing
Diene should be S-trans and reaction endo facing
Diene should be S-trans and reaction exo facing
17 Following is an example of atypical anti-psychotic
Haloperidol
Clozapine
Thioridazine
Fluphenazine

18 Following is not an example of carbapenem
Thienamycin
Imipenem
Piperacillin
Meropenem
19 Lucas test is very rapid with:
1º alcohol
2º alcohol
3º alcohol
Phenol
20 The correct rank order of orientation of sulfonation in toluene is :
4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid

21 The reaction between naphthalene and chromium trioxide in the presence of glacial acetic yields :
Naphthalene-1,4-dione
4-Hydroxynaphthalen-1(4H)-one
Naphthalene-1,2-dione
1-Hydroxynaphthalen-2(1H)-one
22 Electrophilic substitution reaction of pyridine, when carried out in the presence of KNO3 and conc. H2SO4
at 300°C, leads to the formation of:
4-Nitropyridine
3-Nitropyridine
2-Nitropyridine
N-nitro pyridinium salt
23 How many optical isomers are possible for lactic acid?

4
24 Which one among the following drugs has the IUPAC name, α,α,α,α- tetramethyl 5- (1 H-1,2,4-triazole-1-
ylmethyl)-1,3-benzenediacetonitrile:
Letrozole
Anastrozole
Exemestane
Aminoglutethimide
25 E2 elimination converts neomenthyl chloride into a mixture of the following compounds:
3-menthene (75%) and 2-menthene (25%)

26 A reagent may attach itself to a conjugated diene to the carbons at the two ends of the conjugated system.
Identify the reaction involved from the following:
1.2-addition
1.4-addition
1,3-addition
2,4-addition
27
Select the correct the product A of the above - given reaction from the four choices given below:

28 Select the correct set of anticancer drugs that belong to "pyrimidine and related compounds"
5-Flurouracil, Tegafur, Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine
5-Flurouracil, Tegafur, Decitabine, Clofarabine
Tegafur. Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine, Clofarabine
Tegafur. Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine, Pentostatin
29
Choose the correct and the major product formed in the above-given reaction from the choices listed below:
2-Pentene
2-Methyl-2-butene
1-Pentene
1-Methyl-2-butene
30 Following groups exert anyone of the effects on electrophilic aromatic substitution

—OC2H5 —NHCOCH3 —OCH3
Identify whether all three are:
Weakly activating
Deactivating
Moderately activating
Strongly activating
31 Platinum electrode surrounded by an outer tube, in which hydrogen passes entering through side inlet and
escaping at the bottom through the test solution, is called as :
Silver electrode
Calomel electrode
Standard hydrogen electrode
Standard hydrogen electrode
32 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason
Assertion (A): The disadvantage of atomic absorption spectroscopy is the need for each element to be
analysed.
Reason (R): As atomic absorption spectrophotometer uses different halocathode lamp for each element, it is
very specific for an individual element under test.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
33 Identify what is not a continuum source of radiation for use in absorption and fluorescence
spectrophotometers
Argon arc lamp
Hollow-cathode lamp
Deuterium lamp
Xenon arc lamp
34 Identify the vibrational modes shown by sulfur dioxide molecule in IR spectroscopy:
Symmetric stretching and asymmetric stretching
Symmetric stretching and scissoring
Asymmetric stretching and scissoring
Symmetric stretching, asymmetric stretching and scissoring

35 The following are the processes occurring during flame atomization in atomic absorption spectrometry
A. Volatilization
B. Ionization
C. Nebulization
D. Desolvation
E. Dissociation
Arrange the processes in sequential order and choose the correct answer from below:
C, B. A, D, E
C, D, E, B, A
A, C, D, B, E
C, D, A, E, B
36 In context to voltametry, which of the following statement is false ?
Technique can be used to analyse organic compounds containing carbonyl groups
Organic solvents cannot be used as aqueous organic mixture in this technique
Immuno sensors are available in voltametry
Triangular waveform is used for excitation of solution in cyclic voltametry

37 How would you prepare 2000 mL of 0.15 M NaOH aqueous solution?
Dissolve 12 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
Dissolve 7.5 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
38
Predict the wavelength of absorption band in the UV spectrum of the above shown structure:
252 nm
248 nm
244 nm
240 nm
39 Suspensions containing a high percentage (about 50% or greater) of small, deflocculated particles would
show which of the following flow properties?
Plastic flow
Dilatant flow

Newtonian flow
Pseudoplastic flow
40 Clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions intended for oral use, usually flavoured to enhance their
palatability, are called:
Aromatic waters
Elixirs
Syrups
Tinctures
41 A crystalline powder that contains water of crystallization or hydration; this water can be liberated either
during manipulations or an exposure to a low - humidity environment -- then the powder will become sticky
and pasty, or it may even liquefy. Such a powder is called:
Eutectic
Hygroscopic
Deliquescent
Efflorescent
42 What is the approximate amount of Powder (in mg) that can be filled in empty gelatin capsules of size 00?

1040 mg
650 mg
325 mg
162 mg
43 A tablet excipient, whose function is to ensure that tablet formulation and ejection can occur with low
friction between the solid and the die wall, is called:
Glidant
Lubricant
Anti-adhesive
Binder
44 Which of the following Climatic Zones (as per WHO Criteria) refers to "hot and humid climate"?
Zone I
Zone II
Zone III
Zone IV

45 Which of the following is the common chemical name for Propellant 11?
Trichloromonofluoromethane
Dichlorodifluoromethane
Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
Chloropentafluoroethane
46 Which of the following emulsifiers has the highest HLB value?
Span 80
Acacia
Tween 80
Sodium lauryl sulfate
47 A component of film-coating solution to make film more pliable, enhance spread over tablets, beads and
granules, is called:
Adsorbent
Humectant

Stiffening agent
Plasticizer
48 Which of the following USP Glass Types is NOT SUITABLE for parental packaging?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
49 Which of the following surfactants is an ANIONIC surfactant?
Lecithin
Sorbitan esters
Benzalkonium chloride
Soaps
50 Which of the following terms is used to describe the "partial or complete separation of the top or body
crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet"?

Lamination
Capping
Picking
Mottling
51 Which of the following ointment bases is an "absorption base"?
Yellow ointment, USP
Hydrophilic petrolatum USP
Hydrophilic ointment USP
PEG ointment NF
52 Which of the following pharmaceutical solvent has the highest dielectric constant, at 25 degree C ?
Glycerin
Ethanol
Acetone
Phenol

53 Which of the following molecular properties can be determined by Thermogravimetric Analysis?
Solubility
Hygroscopicity
Colour stability
Hydrolysis
54 Match the following List I with List II with respect to most specific Activity / Property in formulation
ofdisperse system
LIST I LIST II
Formulation Ingredient Activity/Property
A. Salts of d-glucuronic acid I. Are pseudoplastic and plastic
polypeptides and amino acids in nature
B. Surfactants, both ionic II. Form a multimolecular film of and nonionic

around the dispersed droplets oil in an
o/w emulsion
C. Magnesium aluminium silicate III. Emulsifier belonging to the

class of solid particles forms w/o
emulsion
D. Structured vehicles IV. Emulsifier belonging to the

class of solid particles and forms
o/w emulsion
V. Have been used to bring about
flocculation of suspended
particles

A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I
A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-I
A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I
55 Match the following concept in List I with parameters in List II
LIST I LIST II
Concept Parameters
A. Volume of Distribution I. Measure volume of real physiological

plasma
B. Evans Blue II. Human serum albumin
C. 3.5-5% III. Volume of blood
D.Metallothionin IV. Ratio of body drug content to plasma
concentration
V. Protein present in kidney to bind metal
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
56 In pharmacokinetic models, the term "compartment" means
Blood
Individual organ
Extracellular fluid
Hypothetical pool of tissue
57 Which of the following formulations are "pharmaceutically equivalent" ?
A and B

B and C
A and C
B and D
58 Which of the following levels of IVIVC is represented by "the relationship between one dissolution time
point
(e.g. t 50%) and one mean pharmacokinetic parameter, such as AUC, Tmax or Cmax"?
Level A
Level B
Level C
Level D
59 Which of the following Urinary Tract Anti-Infective agents requires an acidic pH of urine for optimum
action?
Gentamicin
Erythromycin
Carbenicillin
Streptomycin

60 Which of the following drugs has an apparent volume of distribution approximately 6500 litres?
Amoxicillin
Ibuprofen
Chloroquine
Diazepam
61 Under which of the following conditions in-vitro-in-vivo correlation for a drug fails?
When the drug is highly soluble
When the drug's absorption takes place by a complex process
When the dissolution medium is adequately simulated
When the drug is highly permeable but poorly soluble
62 The interfacial forces are related to the contact angle by
Nernst Equation
Stoke's Equation

Young's Equation
Laplace Equation
63 In the Langmuir Isotherm, following statements are true except one:
The layer of the gas adsorbed on the solid adsorbent is one molecule thick
Adsorbed layer is uniform all over adsorbent
No desorption takes place when gas strikes solid surface
No interaction between the adjacent adsorbed molecules takes place
64 The required amount of adjusting substance required to make a hypotonic solution, isotonic is given by the
(where, W = adjusting substance, a = freezing point depression of unadjusted solution and b = freezing point
depression of water):

65 Clatharates crystallize in the form of
channel type structure
tetragonal type structure
cubic type lattice
cage like lattice
66 Kozeny Carmen equation is used to determine the
surface area of the powder
viscosity of a liquid
surface tension of a liquid
density of a liquid
67 The difference in velocity between two planes of liquids separated/infinitesimal distance is called
Rate of shear

Rate of flow
Rate of force
Shearing stress
68 Out of the following solvents which one is not a polar solvent?
Ethanol
Methanol
Hexane
Water
69 What is the percentage of alcohol in a mixture obtained by mixing 5 L of 25%, 3 L of 40% and 2 L of 15%
27.5% v/v
30.5% v/v
25.5% v/v
26.5% v/v

70 In absence of instruction by the prescriber, unless otherwise directed, the dose given for the mixture
preparation should be stated on the label as
One five ml spoonful to be taken three times a day in water
Two five ml spoonful to be taken three times a day in water
Two five ml spoonful to be taken two times a day in water
One five ml spoonful to be taken two times a day in water
71 For disguising the astringent and metallic taste of iron salts in children's mixture, the following flavoring
agent in used
Orange syrup and compound orange syrup
Lemon syrup
Liquorice liquid extract
Aromatic water
72 Which of the following substances are not used as humectants in emulsions?
Propylene glycol
Sorbitol

Tocopherol
Glycerol
73 The time taken at a fixed temperature or the radiation dose required to achieve a 90% reduction in viable
bacterial cells is called:
F value
Z value
D value
T value
74 Match the process of reproduction and genetic exchange under column I with the explanation under column
II
Match List I with List II
LISTI LIST II
Process of reproduction Explanation
and genetic exchange
A. Binary Fision I. Transfer of genetic material from the
donor to recipient bacterium through

cell contact
B. Transformation II. Common vegetative reproduction
C. Transduction III. Transfer of genetic material in bacteria
through virus
D. Conjugation IV. Horizontal gene transfer by taking up of
foreign genetic material (naked DNA)

A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-III. B-I. C-IV. D-II
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
75 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Exotoxins diffuse freely through the bacterial cell wall into the medium in which the
organisms
are growing
Reason R: They are water soluble and can pass into the surrounding medium
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
76 Basic dyes are used in microbiological staining. Which of the following statement is wrong about
mechanism of staining?

Ionic exchange between the negative charge on the bacteria and positive charge of dye takes place
Ionic exchange between the positive charge on the bacteria and negative charge of dye takes place
The neutral charge on the surface of bacteria forms a colored complex with the basic dye
77 Arrange the following intermediates in the synthesis of isoprenoids in the right sequence
A. Squalene
B. Farnesyl PP
C. Geranyl PP
D. Acetyl CoA
E. Mevalonate
D, B, C, A, E
D, E, C, B, A
B, C, D, A. E
E. B, C, A. D
78 The ring structure present in strychnine alkaloid is:
Indole
Purine

Phenanthrene
Imidazole
79 If the resins contain benzoic acids or cinnamic acids they are called:
Colophony
Balsams
Glucoresins
Resene
80 Match the following Ayurvedic formulations under Column I with the process/properties under Column II
and choose the correct options.
LIST I LIST II
Ayurvedic formulations Process or Property
A. Bhasma I. Semisolid
B. Arista II. Calcination
C. Churna III. Alcohol generation
D. Lehya IV. Dry powder
V. Decoction
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-V
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
81 Match the types of glycosides under Column I with their respective examples under Column II and choose
the correct option
Column I Column II
Glycosides Examples
A. Anthracene I. Digitalis
B. Cardiac II. Licorice
C. Saponin III. Senna
D. Cyanogenetic IV. Ashwagandha
V. Bitter Almond
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V
A-V, B-I. C-II, D-III
A-IV. B-II, C-I, D-III
82 Lycopodium spores are used in quantitative microscopy for the following:
A. Determine % purity of drugs
B. Estimation of percentage of foreign organic matter
C. Determination of palisade ratio

D. Measurement of area of single layered tissue
A, B and C only
A, B and D only
A only
B and D only
83 Lignin is a complex polymer which can be stained pink in the tissue using the following chemicals
Chloral Hydrate and Phloroglucinol
Chlor-Zinc-Iodine
Phloroglucinol and hydrochloric acid
Chloral Hydrate, Zinc and Ammonia
84 Isabgol belongs to family
Apocynaceae
Plantaginaceae

Golaceae
85 Quinine and quinidine differs in
Chemical nature
Molecular formula
Rotating the plane of polarized light
Precusors of biosynthesis
86 Which one is the right sequence of the intermediates in the biosynthesis of opium alkaloids-
A. Tyrosine
B. Reticuline
C. Codeine
D. Morphine
E. Thebaine
A, B, C, D, E
A. B. E, C, D
A, B, E, D, C
A, B, D, E, C

87 Trastuzumab is a/an
EGFR/HER2 inhibitor
Angiogenesis inhibitor
EGF receptor (HER 1) inhibito
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor
88 All the following are TNF-a Inhibitors except
Etanercept
Infliximab
Adalizumab
Basiliximab
89 Which of the following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido and potency?
Cyproterone
Gossypol

Centchroman
Goserelin
90 Which of the following metabolite is used to inactivate the vasicotoxic metabolites leading to hemorrhagic
cystitis by alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer?
Acroline
Aldophosphamide
Cyclophosphamide
Mesna
91 All the following are true with Metoclopramide except:
5-HT receptor antagonist
D2 receptor antagonist
5-HT3 receptor antagonist
5-HT receptor agonist

92 A 70 kg woman was administered 1000 mg of the drug as i.v bolus. After its uniform distribution in the
body,
the plasma concentration of the drug was found to be 50 mg/L. What is its volume of distribution?
70L
500L
20L
0.1L
93 Which of the following is a tetracyclic antidepressant that has additional dopamine D2 receptor blocking and
neuroleptic properties, as well as a greater tendency to cause seizures in overdose?
Dothiepin
Maprotiline
Trazodone
Amoxapine
94 Which of the following is NOT an example of an mTOR inhibitor?
Everolimus
Tacrolimus

Temsirolimus
Sirolimus
95 Which of the following is a fourth-generation cephalosporin?
Ceftriaxone
Cefaclor
Cefuroxime
Cefepime
96 A drug 'X' is more selective for the al subunit of BZD receptors. It lacks effect on slow-wave sleep,
minimum residual daytime sedation, no rebound insomnia on discontinuation, low abuse potential. Which of
the
following can be 'X'?
Flurazepam
Flumazenil
Melatonin
Zolpidem

97 A hypertensive patient receiving a drug 'Y' for managing BP was prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. As a
result, there was an abolition of the antihypertensive action of 'Y'. Which of the following drug could be 'Y'?
Atenolol
Captopril
Clonidine
Diltiazem
98 Which of the following hyperlipidaemic drugs act via a GPCR?
Nicotinic acid
Fenofibrate
Atorvastatin
None of the above
99 Choose the most appropriate statement for the Peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAIDs.
H2 antagonists offer rapid healing of ulcer provided the NSAID is discontinued.
H2 antagonists offer rapid healing.
Proton Pump Inhibitor is to be given only if the NSAID is discontinued.

NSAIDs are strictly contraindicated with Proton Pump Inhibitors.
100 Normal value of HbA1c falls in the range of:
0.1% to 0.8%
6.5% to 7.5%
21.5% to 24.5%
51.5% to 53.5%
101 Put the events of acute inflammation in proper sequence.
Accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site, intravascular polymorphonuclear neutrophils,
activation of platelets. followed by healing
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils, accumulation of fluid and plasma at the activation of platelets, followed
affected site, intravascular by healing
Accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site, polymorphonuclear neutrophils, intravascular
activation of platelets, followed by healing
Intravascular activation of platelets, polymorphonuclear neutrophils, accumulation of fluid and plasma at the
affected site, followed by healing
102 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In vasospastic angina, the imbalance occurs when the myocardinal oxygen requirement
increases, as during exercise, and coronary blood flow does not increase proportionately.

Statement II: In Prinzmetal's angina, oxygen delivery decreases as a result of reversible coronary vasospasm.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
103 Match the following cells of immune system List I with their functions List II.
LIST I LIST II
Immune system Functions
A. Mast cells I. Master of Immune system
B. Lymphocytes II. Allergic reactions
C. T-cells III. Cell mediated immune reactions
D. Monocytes-Macrophages IV. Antigen recognition, Phagocytosis
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-III, B-I. C-II, D-IV
A-I, B-III, C-II. D-IV

104 Identify the drug that is not among the drugs recommended as first time drug in the treatment of Partial
seizers with or without generalization.
Carbamazepine
Valproate
Diazepam
Lamotrigine
105 Alzheimer's disease is mainly because of the neurodegeneration of the following part of the brain
Hypothalamus
Midbrain
Hippocampus
Cerebellum
106 Which of the following cranial nerve helps in accommodating the eye for near vision?
Oculomotor
Optic
Trochlear

Facial
107 Lateral geniculate nucleus is associated with
Vision
Hearing
Olfaction
Gustation
108 Which of the following is true for bone tissue cell differentiation and maturation?
Osteogenic → Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
Osteogenic → Osteoblasts → Osteoclasts
Osteocytes → Osteogenic → Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts → Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
109 In ECG, the P wave corresponds to the following event
Atrial depolarisation

Ventricular depolarisation
Atrial repolarisation
Ventricular repolarisation
110 Which of the following drug can produce mydriasis without cycloplegia?
Atropine
Tropicamide
Homatropine
Ephedrine
111 When is a New Drug Application (NDA) made?
Once the animal studies are done and drug is declared safe in animals
Once the animal studies are done and drug is declared safe and effective in animal studies
After the phase III clinical trials
After the phase IV clinical trials

112 What do you mean by Orphan Drug?
A drug meant to be distributed among the orphans who can not afford the cost of the drug
A drug for a disease which is not having any other treatment options at all
A drug which is useful for rare disease
A drug that is available in abundance
113 Which of the following drug used in the chemotherapy of some types of leukemia, satisfies the statements -
Statement I: It is effective orally.
Statement II: It has near 100% oral bioavailability.
Asparaginase
Doxorubicin
Mitomycin
Hydroxyurea

114 Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Levodopa is metabolized peripherally but capable of crossing Blood Brain Barrier, thus a best
drug in treating Parkinsonism.
Statement II: Carbidopa crosses Blood Brain Barrier, thus a best combination for protecting levodopa in
CNS.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
115 Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics are mentioned, in the Drugs and
Cosmetics Rules, 1945 under
Schedule M
Schedule M-1
Schedule M-2
Schedule M-3
116 The drug price control order (DPCO) is an order issued by the Government under the enables it to fix the
prices of some essential bulk and their formulations
which

Essential Commodities Act
Essential Commodities Amendment
Essential Commodities Accessories
Ethical Commodities Act
117 Drugs covered under this schedule are not permitted for repacking license. Identify the correct schedule.
Schedule H
Schedule G
Schedule O
Schedule C and C₁

A-IV. B-III, C-II, D-I
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
119 Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) vaccine is an example of
Subunit vaccine
Toxoid vaccine
Recombinant protein vaccine
Conjugate vaccine
A-V, B-I. C-IV, D-III

A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-V
121 The most efficient heat exchange between the particles and flowing air occurs in the
Tray dryer
Vaccum Dryer
Fluidized bed dryer
Rotary dryer
122 According to IP and BP very fine powder is one in which........
All particles pass through 120# sieve
90% particles pass through 350# sieve
All particles pass through 350# sieve
90% particles are of size << 10um

123 The formula to calculate liquid pressure is
P=mgh
P=wgh
P=\rho gh
P=Fgh
124 Which of the following represents a complete list of products that are offered by a company for Sale?
Product Variety
Product Mix
Product Item
Product Line
125 Shift from 'try my product' to 'prefer my brand' marketing strategy is done at what stage of product life
cycle?
Introduction
Growth
Maturity

Decline

TEST
ANSWERS
SECTIONS
1 BF3
2 Raoult
3 Keesom forces
4 Water> Methanol > Acetone > Formamide
5 The specific conductance decreases and equivalent conductance increases
6 polysaccharide
7 Adenine and guanine
8 It requires ATP for phosphorylation
9 A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
10 Lanosterol
11 Clofibrate
GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Answers Page 55 of 70

12 Methyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > Isopropyl bromide > tert-Butyl bromide
13 P-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
14 C3H4N4
15 Sucrose
16 Diene should be S-cis and reaction endo facing
17 Clozapine
18 Piperacillin
19 3º alcohol
20 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid
21 Naphthalene-1,4-dione
22 3-Nitropyridine
23 2
24 Anastrozole
25 3-menthene (75%) and 2-menthene (25%)
26 1.4-addition

27
28 5-Flurouracil, Tegafur, Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine
29 2-Methyl-2-butene
30 Moderately activating
31 Standard hydrogen electrode
32 A is true but R is false
33 Hollow-cathode lamp
34 Symmetric stretching and asymmetric stretching
35 C, D, A, E, B
36 Organic solvents cannot be used as aqueous organic mixture in this technique
37 Dissolve 12 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
38 240 nm
39 Dilatant flow
40 Elixirs

41 Efflorescent
42 650 mg
43 Lubricant
44 Zone IV
45 Trichloromonofluoromethane
46 Sodium lauryl sulfate
47 Plasticizer
48 Type IV
49 Soaps
50 Capping
51 Hydrophilic petrolatum USP
52 Glycerin
53 Hygroscopicity
54 A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I
55 A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V

56 Hypothetical pool of tissue
57 A and C
58 Level C
59 Carbenicillin
60 Chloroquine
61 When the drug is highly soluble
62 Young's Equation
63 No desorption takes place when gas strikes solid surface
64
65 cage like lattice
66 surface area of the powder
67 Rate of shear
68 Hexane
69 27.5% v/v
Two five ml spoonful to be taken three times a day in water

71 Orange syrup and compound orange syrup
72 Propylene glycol
73 D value
74 A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
75 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
76 The neutral charge on the surface of bacteria forms a colored complex with the basic dye
77 D, E, C, B, A
78 Indole
79 Balsams
80 A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
81 A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V
82 A, B and D only
83 Phloroglucinol and hydrochloric acid
84 Plantaginaceae
85 Rotating the plane of polarized light

86 A, B, D, E, C
87 EGFR/HER2 inhibitor
88 Basiliximab
89 Gossypol
90 Mesna
91 5-HT receptor agonist
92 20L
93 Maprotiline
94 Tacrolimus
95 Cefepime
96 Zolpidem
97 Clonidine
98 None of the above
99 Proton Pump Inhibitor is to be given only if the NSAID is discontinued.
100 6.5% to 7.5%

Accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site, intravascular activation of platelets.
101
polymorphonuclear neutrophils, followed by healing
102 Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
103 A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
104 Diazepam
105 Hippocampus
106 Oculomotor
107 Vision
108 Osteogenic → Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
109 Atrial depolarisation
110 Ephedrine
111 After the phase III clinical trials
112 A drug which is useful for rare disease
113 Hydroxyurea
114 Statement I is true but Statement II is false
115 Schedule M-2

116 Essential Commodities Act
117 Schedule C and C₁
118 A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
119 Conjugate vaccine
120 A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-V
121 Fluidized bed dryer
122 All particles pass through 120# sieve
123 P=\rho gh
124 Product Mix
125 Growth

TEST
SOLUTIONS
SECTIONS
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Solutions Page 64 of 70

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46

48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73

75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
The correct answer is 2. A, B, and D only.
Lycopodium spores are commonly used in quantitative microscopy for the estimation of the
percentage of foreign organic matter (option B) in a sample. They are also used for the measurement
of the area of single-layered tissues (option D), as they provide a standard reference for calibration.
However, they are not typically used for determining the purity of drugs (option A) or for the
determination of palisade ratio (option C).
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
The correct answer is 4. Metoclopramide is not a 5-HT receptor agonist.
Metoclopramide is a medication that has multiple pharmacological actions, but it does not act as a 5-
HT receptor agonist (option 4). The statements that are true for metoclopramide are:
1.

Metoclopramide is a 5-HT receptor antagonist (option 1). It primarily antagonizes 5-HT3 receptors,
which are involved in nausea and vomiting.
2.
Metoclopramide is a D2 receptor antagonist (option 2). By blocking D2 receptors in the brain, it

exerts antiemetic effects.
3.
Metoclopramide is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist (option 3). It inhibits the action of serotonin at 5-
HT3 receptors in the gut and the chemoreceptor trigger zone, reducing nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer as it incorrectly states that metoclopramide is a 5-HT receptor
agonist.
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
Among the given options, none of the listed hyperlipidemic drugs primarily act via a GPCR (G-protein
coupled receptor).
Nicotinic acid (option 1) acts on specific receptors known as niacin receptors (GPR109A) rather than
GPCRs.
Fenofibrate (option 2) is a fibrate medication that primarily works by activating peroxisome proliferator-
activated receptor alpha (PPAR-alpha), a nuclear receptor, rather than a GPCR.
Atorvastatin (option 3) is a statin medication that inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, an enzyme involved in
cholesterol synthesis, and does not directly target GPCRs.
Ezetimibe (option 4) is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor that blocks the NPC1L1 protein in the intestine,
preventing the absorption of dietary cholesterol. It does not primarily act via GPCRs.
Therefore, none of the listed options primarily act via a GPCR for their hyperlipidemic effects.
99

The most appropriate statement for peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAIDs is:
Proton Pump Inhibitor is to be given only if the NSAID is discontinued.
Peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAIDs is typically managed by discontinuing the NSAID and providing
appropriate treatment to promote ulcer healing and prevent recurrence. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
are commonly prescribed in such cases. PPIs reduce stomach acid production, allowing the ulcer to heal.
However, it is important to note that PPIs alone may not be sufficient to heal the ulcer if the NSAID use
continues. Therefore, it is recommended to discontinue the NSAID while prescribing a PPI to maximize
the healing potential.
Option 1 is not the most appropriate statement because H2 antagonists alone may not offer rapid
healing if the NSAID use continues.
Option 2 is not the most appropriate statement because it does not consider the need to discontinue the
NSAID, which is a crucial step in managing NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.
Option 4 is incorrect as NSAIDs are not strictly contraindicated with PPIs. In fact, PPIs are often used
alongside NSAIDs to mitigate the risk of gastrointestinal complications.
Therefore, the most appropriate statement is 3. Proton Pump Inhibitor is to be given only if the NSAID is
discontinued.
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
The correct answer is: Ephedrine
Among the listed options, ephedrine is the drug that can produce mydriasis without cycloplegia.
Mydriasis refers to the dilation of the pupil, while cycloplegia refers to the paralysis of the ciliary muscles,
which are responsible for accommodation (focusing the lens of the eye for near vision).

other hand, is a sympathomimetic drug that can cause mydriasis but does not affect cycloplegia
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
The correct answer is:
2. Product Mix
A product mix represents a complete list of products that are offered by a company for sale. It
encompasses all the products or product lines available for customers to purchase from that company.
The product mix may consist of multiple product lines, each containing various product items or
individual products.
Option 1, "Product Variety," refers to the range of different variations or options within a specific product
line.
Option 3, "Product Item," refers to a specific product or SKU (stock keeping unit) that is part of a product
line or product mix.
Option 4, "Product Line," refers to a group of related products that are similar in nature or intended use
and may be marketed together by the company.
Therefore, the most accurate choice for a complete list of products offered by a company is "Product
Mix" (Option 2).
125

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T E ST

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift)

1. GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) - 125 Questions

Section 1 : GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) - 125 Questions

1 The molecule having zero dipole moment is

2 The law of relative lowering of vapour pressure was given by:

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 1 of 70

4 Choose the correct order of decreasing dielectric constant:

Water > Formamide > Methanol > Acetone

Water> Methanol > Acetone > Formamide

Formamide > Acetone > Methanol > Water

Formamide > Water > Methanol > Acetone

5 As the solution of a strong electrolyte is diluted, the following phenomenon is observed:

The specific conductance decreases and equivalent conductance increases

The specific conductance increases and equivalent conductance decreases

Both specific conductance and equivalent conductance increase

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 2 of 70

6 Establishing a complete structure of________is more complex problem than others.

Guanine and cytosine

Adenine and guanine

Thymine and uracil

Adenine and uracil

8 Which one is not the characteristics of the Hexose Monophosphate Pathway?

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 3 of 70

It is controlled by inhibition of glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH

9 Match List I with List II

List -I List -II

Name of Vitamin Functions of Vitamins

A. Riboflavin I. The electron acceptor forisocitrate

B. Niacin II. Decarboxylation of alpha-

C. Thiamine III. Part of coenzyme A

D. Pantothenic acid IV. Cofactor for succinate dehydrogenase

V. Enzyme activity regulator, such as for

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

A-II. B-V, C-I, D-IV

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 4 of 70

11 Ethyl-2 (p-chlorophenoxy)-2-methyl propionate is IUPAC name of:

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 5 of 70

p-Methoxy sodium benzoate

P-Methoxy benzyl alcohol

p-Methoxy benzoyl alcohol

14 The molecular formula of purine is:

15 Invert sugar is a product obtained by the hydrolysis of:

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 6 of 70

Diene should be S-cis and reaction endo facing

Diene should be S-cis and reaction exo facing

Diene should be S-trans and reaction endo facing

Diene should be S-trans and reaction exo facing

17 Following is an example of atypical anti-psychotic

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 7 of 70

19 Lucas test is very rapid with:

20 The correct rank order of orientation of sulfonation in toluene is :

4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid

2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid

3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 8 of 70

N-nitro pyridinium salt

23 How many optical isomers are possible for lactic acid?

GPAT 2023 ( 1 Shift) · GPAT 2023 (1st Shift) · Questions Page 9 of 70