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ICSE CLASS 10 MOCK PAPER 1
ICSE Board
Class 10 Mathematics
Mock Paper – 1
Time: 2 ½ hours. Total Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in
reading the question paper.
3. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
4. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
5. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
Section A
(Attempt all questions from this section.)
Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
i) For a transaction within Delhi, MRP = Rs. 12,000, Discount % = 30%, GST = 18%, then
CGST =?
(a) 756
(b) 765
(c) 786
(d) 768
ii) The value of ‘x’ which satisfies the equation (x + 5)(x – 5) = 24 will be
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
iii) If on dividing 2x3 + 3x2 – kx + 5 by x – 2, leaves a remainder 7, then the value of k is

(a) 13
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 17
www.topperlearning.com 1
4sin30 cos0  4 
iv) Given matrix A =   and B=   . If AX = B. Then the order of matrix X is
 cos0 4sin30 5 
(a) 1 × 1
(b) 2 × 2
(c) 1 × 2
(d) 2 × 1
v) Find the 5th term of the AP 30, 28, 26, 24,…

(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 26
(d) 22
vi) The reflection of point (1, 2) about y-axis is

(a) (–1, –2)
(b) (1, 2)
(c) (1, –2)
(d) (–1, 2)
vii)In the given figure, AB and DE are perpendiculars to BC. If AB = 5 cm, DE = 4 cm and AC
= 13 cm, then ΔABC ~ ΔDEC by_______
(a) SSS test

(b) AA test
(c) SAS test
(d) RHS test
viii) The height of a circular cylinder is 20 cm and the radius of its base is 7 cm, then the
volume will be
(a) 3080 cm3
(b) 3800 cm3
(c) 3880 cm3
(d) 3380 cm3
ix) If x + 7  11, then value of x will be

(a) x  4
(b) x < 4
(c) x > 4
(d) x  4
x) A die has 6 faces marked by the given numbers as shown below:
The die is thrown once. So the probability of getting a positive integer is

(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
1 3
xi) If A   , then A2 =
3 4
15 15
(a) 
15 25
10 15
(b) 15
 25
5 15
(c) 15
 25
0 15
(d) 15
 25
xii) The image of the point A(5, –3), under reflection in the point P(–1, 3) is
(a) (–7, –9)
(b) (7, –9)
(c) (–7, 9)
(d) (7, 9)
xiii) In the given figure, AD is a diameter. O is the centre of the circle. AD is parallel to BC
and ∠CBD = 32°. Then measure of ∠OBD is
(a) 64°
(b) 32°
(c) 58°
(d) 30°
xiv) The common difference of the A.P. 4, 6, 8, …… is

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 10
(d) 6
xv) Class mark of the class interval 105.5 – 110.5 is

(a) 107.5
(b) 108
(c) 108.5
(d) 106
Question 2
i) Mohan has a recurring deposit account in a bank for 2 years at 6% p.a. simple interest.
If he gets Rs. 1,200 as interest at the time of maturity, find: [4]
(a) The monthly instalment
(b) The amount of maturity.
x2  y 2 1
ii) If 2  2 , find
x y 2
8
x
i.
y
x3  y 3
ii. [4]
x3  y 3
iii) Prove that: [4]

cot A  1 cot A

2  sec2 A 1  tan A
Question 3
i) A conical tent is to accommodate 77 persons. Each person must have 16m 3 of air to
breath. Given the radius of the tent as 7m, find the height of the tent and also its curved
surface area. [4]
ii) If P(–b, 9a – 2) divides the line segment joining the points [4]
A(–3, 3a + 1) and B(5, 8a) in the ratio 3: 1, find the values of a and b.
iii) Use graph paper for this question. [5]

(Take 2 cm = 1 unit along both x-axis and y-axis.)
Plot the points O(0, 0), A(–4, 4), B(–3, 0) and C(0, –3).
Reflect points A and B on the y-axis and name them A’ and B’ respectively. Write down
their co-ordinates.
Section B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)
Question 4
i) A computer mechanic in Delhi charges repairing cost from five different persons A, B,
C, D and E with certain discounts. The repairing costs and the corresponding discounts
are as given below: [3]
Name of the A B C D E
person
Repairing cost (in 5500 6250 4800 7200 3500
Rs. )
Discount % 30 40 30 20 40
If the rate of GST is 18%, find the total money (including GST) received by the mechanic.
3
ii) One root of the quadratic equation 8x2 + mx + 15 = 0 is . Find the value of m. Also,
4
find the other root of the equation. [3]
iii) The weight of 50 workers is given below : [4]

Weight 50- 60- 70- 80- 90- 100- 110-
in Kg 60 70 80 90 100 110 120
No. of 4 7 11 14 6 5 3
workers
Draw an ogive of the given distribution using a graph sheet. Take 2 cm = 10 kg on one
axis and 2 cm = 5 workers along the other axis. Use the ogive drawn to estimate the
following:
(a) The upper and lower quartiles.
(b) If weighing 95 Kg and above is considered overweight, find the number of
workers who are overweight.
Question 5
1 3  2 1
i) If A   , B   3 2 and A  5B  5C. Find the matrix C where C is a 2 by 2
2 2
3 4  
matrix. [3]
ii) In a trapezium ABCD, side AB is parallel to side DC; and the diagonals AC and BD
intersect each other at point P. Prove that: PA x PD = PB x PC. [3]
iii) What must be subtracted from 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7 so that the resulting expression has
2x + 1 as a factor? [4]
Question 6
i) Find [3]
(a) equation of AB
(b) equation of CD
ii) Evaluate without using trigonometric tables, [3]

1
sin2 280 + sin2 620 + tan2 380 - cot2 520 + sec2 300
4
iii) Find five numbers in A.P. whose sum is 12.5 and the ratio of the first to the last terms is
2:3. [4]
Question 7
i) Sixteen cards are labelled as a, b, c, … , m, n, o, p. They are put in a box and shuffled. A
boy is asked to draw a card from the box. What is the probability that the card drawn
is: [3]
(a) a vowel
(b) a consonant
(c) None of the letters of the word median?
ii) A metal pipe has a bore (inner diameter) of 5 cm. The pipe is 5 mm thick all round. Find
the weight, in kilogram, of 2 metres of the pipe if 1 cm 3 of the metal weights 7.7 g. [3]
iii) In the figure given, O is the centre of the circle. DAE = 700. Find giving suitable
reasons, the measure of [4]
i. BCD
ii. BOD
iii. OBD
Question 8
i) Solve the following in equation and represent the solution set on a number line.
1 1 1
8    4x  7 , x  I [3]
2 2 2
ii) The histogram below represents the scores obtained by 25 students in a Mathematics
mental test. Use the data to: [3]
(a) Frame a frequency distribution table.
(b) To calculate mean.
(c) To determine the Modal class.
iii) PQR is a triangle. S is a point on the side QR of ∆PQR such that PSR = QPR. Given QP
= 8 cm, PR = 6 cm and SR = 3 cm. [4]
(a) Prove ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR.
(b) Find the lengths of QR and PS.
Question 9
1 1
i) If m and n are roots of the equation   3; where x ≠ 0 and x ≠ 2; find m × n. [4]
x x 2
ii) The table shows the distribution of the scores obtained by 160 shooters in a shooting
competition. Use a graph sheet and draw an ogive for the distribution. (Take 2 cm = 10
scores on the X-axis and 2 cm = 20 shooters on the Y-axis.)
Scores 0- 10- 20- 30- 40- 50- 60- 70- 80- 90-
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
No. of 9 13 20 26 30 22 15 10 8 7
shooters
Use your graph to estimate the following: [6]
(a) The median
(b) The interquartile range.
(c) The number of shooters who obtained a score of more than 85%.
Question 10
i) A school has 630 students. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 3:2.
This ratio changes to 7:5 after the admission of 90 new students. Find the number of
newly admitted boys. [3]
ii) Construct a ∆ABC with BC = 6.5 cm, AB = 5.5 cm, AC = 5 cm. Construct the incircle of
the triangle. Measure and record the radius of the in circle. [3]
iii) An aeroplane, at an altitude of 250 m, observes the angles of depression of two boats on
the opposite banks of a river to be 45° and 60° respectively. Find the width of the river.
Write the answer correct to the nearest whole number. [4]
ICSE Board
Mock Paper – 2
Time: 2 ½ hours. Total Marks: 80
1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in
reading the question paper.
3. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
5. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
Section A
(Attempt all questions from this section.)
Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
i) A dealer in Delhi buys some goods worth Rs. 16,000. If the rate of GST is 12%, find how
much will the dealer pay as CGST.
(a) Rs. 960
(b) Rs. 1920
(c) Rs. 17, 920
(d) Rs. 16, 960
ii) Which of the following is a solution of the quadratic equation x2 – 2x – 15 = 0?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
iii) Find the value of k, if 3x – 4 is a factor of expression 3x2 + 2x – k.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
3 0 9 0
iv) If A    and B    , find x and y when A2 = B.
 x 1 16 y 
(a) x = 4 and y = –1
(b) x = –4 and y = 1
(c) x = 4 and y = 1
(d) x = –4 and y = –1
v) If the sum of first ‘n’ terms of an Arithmetic Progression 24, 21, 18, … is 78, then the value
of ‘n’ is
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
vi) A point P is reflected in the origin. Co-ordinates of its image are (–5, 7). Then the
coordinate P is
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (5, –7)
(c) (–5, –7)
(d) (–5, 7)
vii)Which of the following is not a test of similarity

(a) AA test
(b) SAS test
(c) SSS test
(d) RHS test
viii) If a cone has volume 154 cm3 and the perpendicular height 12 cm, then the radius will be
(a) 3.5 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 12 cm
ix) If x  N, find the solution set of inequation: 5x + 3 ≤ 2x + 18

(a) x = 5
(b) x ≥ 5
(c) x ≤ 5
(d) x < 5
x) A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting an
ace
1
(a)
13
2
(b)
13
3
(c)
13
4
(d)
13
1 6 4 3 1 2
5 1 5 3 5 1 
xi)  is a matrix of order
7 7 1 3 6 6
 
8 6 8 1 7 5
(a) 4×6
(b) 6×4
(c) 24
(d) 0
xii) Find the image of point (3, –6) under the operation Mx · My
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (3, –6)
(c) (–3, –6)
(d) (–3, 6)
xiii) In the given figure, ∠BAD = 60˚, ∠ABD = 75˚, ∠BDC = 45˚. Find ∠ACB
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
xiv) Which term of the A.P. 1, 4, 7, 10,… is 58?

(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21
xv) Class mark of the class interval 125 – 150 is

(a) 136.5
(b) 136
(c) 137
(d) 137.5
Question 2
i) Ahmed has a recurring deposit account in a bank. He deposits Rs. 2500 per month for 2 years. If
he gets Rs. 66250 at the time of maturity, find the
a. Interest paid by the bank
b. Rate of interest [4]
x  1 313
4
ii) Using the properties of proportion, solve for x, given  [4]
2x 4 25
iii) Prove that: [4]
tan A 1
  1  cos ecA sec A
1  cot A tan A(1  tan A)
Question 3
i) The area of the base of a right circular cone is 28.26 sq. cm. If its height is 4 cm, find its
volume and the curved surface area. (use π = 3.14) [4]
ii) Find the equation of the altitudes AD of the triangle whose vertices are (7, −1), (−2, 8)
and (1, 2). [4]
iii) The points A(3, 2), B(0, 4) and C(−4, −3) are the vertices of a triangle. [5]
a) Plot the points on a graph paper
b) Draw the triangle formed by the reflection of these points at the x-axis
c) Are the two triangles congruent?
Section B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)
Question 4
i) A manufacturer in Banaras manufactures a machine and marks it at Rs. 65,000. He sells
the machine to a wholesaler (in Gujarat) at a discount of 30%. The wholesaler sells the
machine to a dealer (in Punjab) at a discount of 20% on the marked price. If the rate of
GST is 26%, find the tax paid by the wholesaler to the central-government. [3]
3x
ii) Solve the equation 9x2   2  0 if possible, for the real values of x. [3]
4
iii) Draw a histogram of the following frequency distribution and use it to calculate the
mode. [4]
C.I. 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
Frequency 5 15 10 5 12 8
Question 5
 2 6  1 2
i) Find the matrix M, such that –A + 3B + M = 0, where A    and B   . [3]
5 8  2 3
AD 3
ii) In the given figure, ABC is a triangle, DE || BC and  [3]
BD 2
AD
a) Find out
AB
DE
b) Prove that the ADE is similar to ABC and write down the ratio .
BC
c) Prove that DEF is similar to CBF
iii) If (x – 2) is a factor of the expression 2x3 + ax2 + bx – 14 and when the expression is
divided by (x – 3), it leaves a remainder 52, find the values of a and b. [4]
Question 6
i) Find the equation of the line perpendicular to 5x – 2y = 8 and which passes through the
midpoint of the line segment joining (2, 3) and (4, 5). [3]
cos(90o  A) tan B
ii) Prove that + =2 [3]
sin A cot(90o  B)
iii) The sum of three consecutive terms of an A.P. is 21 and the sum of their squares is 165.
Find these terms. [4]
Question 7
i) From a pack of 52 playing cards, the Jack, Queen and King of clubs are removed, and the
pack is well shuffled. From the remaining cards, a card is drawn. Find the probability of
getting [3]
a) a club
b) a red face card
th
3
ii) Part of a conical vessel of internal radius 5 cm and height 24 cm is full of water. The
4
water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel with internal radius 10 cm. Find the height of
water in the cylindrical vessel. [3]
iii) In the given figure, ∠BAD = 65°, ∠ABD = 70°, ∠BDC = 45° [4]
a) Prove that AC is a diameter of the circle
b) Find ∠ACB
c) Find ∠DBC
Question 8
i) Solve the following in equation, write the solution set and represent it on the number
line. [3]
x 1
3 x  7  15  7x , x  R.
3
ii) Draw a histogram for the following distribution: [3]
Class Interval 29.5–39.5 39.5−49.5 49.5−59.5 59.5−69.5 69.5−79.5
Frequency 24 16 09 15 20
iii) In the figure, ΔABC and ΔAMP are right-angled at B and M, respectively.
AC = 10 cm, AP = 15 cm and PM = 12 cm
i. Prove that ΔABC ~ ΔAMP
ii. Find AB and BC [4]
Question 9
i) Given that 2 is a root of the equation 3x2 – p(x + 1) = 0 and that the equation px2 – qx +
9 = 0 has equal roots, find the values of p and q. [4]
ii) Find the lower quartile, the upper quartile and the interquartile range for the following
frequency distribution: [6]
Marks 30–40 40–50 50–60 60–70 70–80 80–90 90–100

No. of boys 10 12 14 12 9 7 6
Question 10
i) Find the mean proportional between [3]

a) 17.5 and 0.007
b) 6 + 3 3 and 8 − 4 3
c) a − b and a3 − a2b
ii) Draw a line AB = 5 cm. Mark a point C on AB such that AC = 3 cm. Using a ruler and a
compass only [3]
a) construct a circle of radius 2.5 cm passing through A and C
b) construct two tangents to the circle from the external point B
c) measure and record the length of the tangents
iii) In the given figure, the height of a building AB = 60 m, the angles of depression of the top
and bottom of a vertical lamp post CD are observed to be 30° and 60°, respectively.
Find [4]
a) the horizontal distance between AB and CD
b) the height of the lamp post
ICSE Board
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper – 1
Time: 2 hours. Total Marks: 80
2. The intended marks of questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section)
Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the
questions, write the correct answer only.)
i) Which out of the following characteristic determines the loudness of sound wave? [1]
a) Wavelength
b) Frequency
c) Amplitude
d) Pitch
ii) Between a football and stone of same size but different masses, stone being heavier the
inertia of [1]
a) Football is greater.
b) Both the objects are equal.
c) Stone is greater.
d) None of the above.
iii) What should be the current rating of a fuse to be used with an electric appliance of
rating 1.5 kW-220 V? [1]
a) 5 A
b) 6 A
c) 7 A
d) 8 A
iv) In India, at what voltage is the electric power generated at the power generating
system? [1]
a) 11 kV
b) 220 V
c) 22 kV
d) 11 V
v) What is the motion of the particles of a medium when a sound wave is passing through
it? [1]
a) Rotatory
b) Translatory
c) Random
d) Oscillatory
vi) The S.I unit of specific latent heat is ______. [1]

a) cal/g
b) cal/gK
c) J/kg
d) J/kgK
vii) When the temperature of a substance increases, what happens to the speed of the
molecules? [1]
a) stays the same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) not measurable
viii) A radioactive source emits three types of radiations. Which radiation has zero mass?[1]
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) Neutrino
ix) Sound of single frequency is called ______. [1]

a) noise
b) tone
c) music
d) note
x) A child on a cart with wheels throws a sandbag forward. In which direction will the boy
move? [1]
a) Forward
b) Right
c) Left
d) Backward
xi) The wavelength of Gamma rays is 0.01 A. Calculate its frequency. [1]
a) 3 x 108 Hz
b) 3 x 1010 Hz
c) 3 x 1020 Hz
d) 3 x 1018 Hz
xii) The boiling point of water at Delhi is [1]

a) same as that at Shimla
b) less than that at Shimla
c) more than that at Shimla
d) cannot be predicted
xiii) If the ray of light traveling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards the normal? [1]
a) yes
b) can’t predict
c) no
d) none of the above
xiv) The colour which deviates most in the formation of spectrum of white light by a prism
is [1]
a) Red
b) Green
c) Violet
d) Yellow
xv) When a body vibrates with its natural frequency, the force acting on the body is: [1]
a) zero
b) proportional to its velocity
c) proportional to its displacement
d) a constant force.
Question 2
i)
a) Provide an example of a simple machine for changing the direction of applied force.
b) State two difference between a chemical change and a nuclear change.
c) State one use of radioactivity. [3]
ii)
a) What are free electrons?
b) Why do they not leave the metal surface on their own [2]
iii) Name the factor that determines: [3]

a) The loudness of the sound is heard.
b) Quality of the note.
iv)
a) Define moment of force and state its SI unit.
b) A mechanic can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N while using a lever handle of
length 40 cm. How long a handle is required if he wants to open it by applying a
force of only 50 N? [2]
v) State the condition for resonance to occur [3]
vi) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar
magnet. [3]
a) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?

b) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.
vii) An electric heater is rated 1kW, 220V. Calculate the resistance of the heating
filament? [2]
Question 3
i) Complete the following fusion reactions: [2]
+ + + energy
b) + + + energy
ii) A resistance of 6 Ω and an electric toy motor of resistance of 20 Ω are connected in

series with a 12 V battery. [2]
a) Find the total current of the circuit.
b) Find the potential difference across the resistance wire of 6 ohms.
iii) The diagram given below shows a coil wound around a soft iron bar XY. [3]
a) State the polarity at the end X and Y when switch is closed.

b) Give one way by which the current in the above circuit can be increased.
iv) A vessel of negligible thermal capacity contains 8.0 kg of water at 50oC. if 5.0 kg of ice
at 0°C is added to it, find: [2]
a) heat energy imparted by water in fall of its temperature from 50 C to 0 C,
o o
b) mass of ice melted
v) State any two characteristics of a musical sound. [2]
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)
Question 4
i) As shown in the figure below, two pendulums C and D are suspended from a wire. By
displacing Pendulum C from its mean position, it is made to oscillate. It can be seen that
D begins to oscillate as well. [3]
a) Name the type of oscillation, C and D will execute.

b) If the length of D is made equal to C, then what difference will you notice in the
oscillations of D?
c) What is the name of the phenomenon when the length of D is made equal to C?
ii) [3]
a) State any two factors on which the loudness of sound depends.
b) Write the relationship between loudness and intensity.
Give an example of damped vibration.
iii) [4]
The diagram above shows a circuit for a combination of three resistances A, B and C
which is connected across a battery of 5 V and 0.3 kΩ internal resistance, with the key
‘k’ open. Calculate:
a) The resistance of the circuit when the key k is open.

b) The current drawn from the cell when the key k is open.
c) The resistance of the circuit when the key k is closed.
d) The current drawn from the cell when the key k is closed.
Question 5
i) [3]
a) Why is white light considered to be poly chromatic in nature?
b) Give the range of the wavelength of those electromagnetic waves which are visible
to us?
c) How is a rainbow formed?
ii) [3]
a) When we burst a cracker, is it correct to say that the chemical energy of crackers get
used up or are destroyed as we are left with just ashes after bursting cracker?
b) 1 Kilowatt hour = 36, 00,000 joules = 3.6 x 106 J One kilowatt hour is the amount of
electrical energy consumed when an electrical appliance having a power rating of 1
kilowatt is used for 1 hour.
c) Kilowatt hour is used for measuring electricity consumed, as joule represents a very
small quantity of energy and therefore it is inconvenient to use joules where large
quantities of energy is involved.
iii) [4]
a) In a three-pin plug, why is the earth pin made longer and thicker than the other two
pins?
b) Name the marking in the three-pin plug. Give colour codes of the connecting leads.
c) How does the power rating of a device help us to decide about the type of leads
(connecting wires) to be used for that?
d) State the purpose of a fuse in an electric circuit. Name the material used for making
a fuse wire.
Question 6
i) [3]
a) Convex lens is also known as _______.
b) There are two lenses, one convex and other concave lens having focal lengths 20 cm
and 25 cm respectively. Find the power of this combination? Also predict the nature
of this combination.
ii) In the diagram below, A, B, C, D are four pendulums suspended from the same elastic
string PQ. The length of A and C are equal to each other while the length of pendulum B
is smaller than that of D. Pendulum A is set in to a mode of vibrations. [3]
a) Name the type of vibrations taking place in pendulums B and D?

b) What is the state of pendulum C?
c) State the reason for the type of vibrations in pendulum B and C.
iii) An atomic nucleus A is composed of 84 proton and 128 neutrons. The nucleus A emits
an alpha particle and is transformed into a nucleus B. [4]
a) What is the composition of B?
b) The nucleus B emits a beta particle and is transformed into a nucleus C. What is the
composition of C?
c) What is mass number of the nucleus A?
d) Does the composition of C change if it emits gamma radiations?
Question 7
i) Diagram shows a weightless lever in equilibrium. Neglect friction at the fulcrum. [3]
a) State the principle of moments as applied to the above lever.

b) Give the expression for mechanical advantage.
c) To pull open a heavy gate using minimum force where and in what direction the
force should be applied? Why?
ii) [3]
a) Define real and virtual focus?
b) A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power -1.5 D. Find the focal length of the
lens. Is the lens diverging or converging?
c) What happens to the image formed by a convex lens if its lower part is blackened?
iii) A 1.5 V cell of internal resistance 1 is connected to the resistors of 4 and 20 in

series. Calculate: [4]
a) Current in the circuit
b) PD across each resistor
c) PD across the cell
d) Voltage-drop when the current is flowing
Question 8
i) Draw sketch diagram and indicate the position of the centre of gravity of any three [3]
a) Rectangular lamina
b) Lamina of the shape of a parallelogram
c) Triangular lamina
d) A thin disc
e) A cylinder
ii) [3]
a) Water in a pond appears to be only three quarters of its actual depth. What
property of light is responsible for this observation?
b) How can you account for the brilliance of diamond?
c) Why do the stars show the twinkling effect whereas the planets do not?
iii) [4]
a) Explain principle of moments.
b) If action and reaction forces are equal and opposite, then why do they result in
change in momentum of the body?
c) Why a fan continues to move for some time even after it has been switched off?
d) Why the boatman pushes the bank with an ore to take the boat away from the bank
of a river?
Question 9
i) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar
magnet. [3]
a) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?

b) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.
c) Name anyone factors on which the magnitude of an induced e.m.f. in the secondary
coil depends.
ii) [3]
A wire is stretched over a sonometer in the diagram above. The stems of two vibrating
tuning forks A and B are touched to the sonometer's wooden box. When the stem of
vibrating tuning fork B is pressed to the wooden box, the paper rider (a small piece of
paper folded at the centre) on the wire files off, but the paper only vibrates when the
stem of vibrating tuning fork A is touched to the wooden box.
a) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.
b) Describe the phenomena that occur as the paper rider flies away.
c) When the stem of tuning fork B is touched to the box, why does the paper rider fly
away?
iii) When a radioactive sample is enclosed in a lead box and radiations are emitted from
the box through a narrow opening. When placed between two charged metallic plates,
the arrows show the path of the radiation A, B, and C traces, respectively. Answer the
following questions in terms of A, B and C. [4]
a) Name all three radiation A, B and C

b) Explain why the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field?
c) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A?
d) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?
ICSE Board
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper – 2
2. The intended marks of questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A
Question 1
questions, write the correct answer only.)
i) What is the product of force and the time for which force acts known as?
a) Momentum
b) Acceleration
c) Inertia
d) Impulse of force
ii) A force of 16 N acts on a body of mass 90 kg for 2 min., if the body is initially at rest, the
final velocity of it is:
a) 20.36 m/s
b) 21.36 m/s
c) 22.36 m/s
d) 23.36 m/s
iii) The series of energy inter-conversions in a steam engine is

a) Chemical energy > Heat energy > Potential Energy
b) Chemical energy > Heat energy
c) Chemical energy > Heat energy > Kinetic Energy
d) Chemical energy > Kinetic Energy
iv) Name the process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus?
a) Radioactivity
b) Transmutation
c) Fission reaction
d) Fusion reaction
v) During sunset and sunrise, the sun is seen even when it is slightly below the horizon.
Name the phenomenon responsible for it.
a) Reflection of light
b) Refraction of light
c) Dispersion of light
d) Total internal reflection
vi) A ray of light passing through a principal focus or appearing to meet at the principal
focus, after refraction will emerge:
a) Parallel to the principal focus
b) Parallel to the principal axis
c) Perpendicular to the principal focus
d) Perpendicular to the principal axis
vii) To reflect sound waves from any surface, it should have dimensions
a) Equal or less than wavelength of sound wave
b) Equal or greater than wavelength of sound wave
c) Always greater than wavelength of sound wave
d) Always less than the wavelength of sound wave
viii) What is the safe limit of sound level in dB for our ears?
a) Up to 120 dB
b) Up to 12 dB
c) Up to 1200 dB
d) Up to 240 dB
ix) How much work is done, when 1 coulomb of charge moves against a potential
difference of 1 volt?
a) 1 joule
b) 2 joule
c) 0.5 joule
d) 1.5 joule
x) A bulb is rated as 270V, 0.5 A. Its power is

a) 125 watt
b) 100 watt
c) 60 watt
d) 135 watt
xi) A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field, parallel to the field, its kinetic
energy:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
xii) Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g. The heat required to melt 2g of ice is:
a) 40 cal
b) 80 cal
c) 160 cal
d) 120 cal
xiii) Icebergs are carried by ocean currents over very long distances due to:
a) high specific heat capacity of water
b) high specific latent heat of vapourisation of water
c) high specific latent heat of fusion of ice
d) low specific latent heat of fusion of ice
xiv) The color which deviates most in the formation of spectrum of white light by a prism is
a) Red
b) Green
c) Violet
d) Yellow
xv) The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always:
a) Real and inverted
b) Real and erect
c) Virtual and erect
d) Virtual and inverted
Question 2
(i) Name any two electromagnetic waves which have a frequency higher than that of
violet light. State one use of each. [2]
(ii) State two ways by which the frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string
can be decreased. [2]
(iii) Why does the temperature of the surrounding start falling when the ice of a frozen
lake starts melting? [2]
(iv) Four resistors of 2.0 Ω each are joined end to end to form a square ABCD. Calculate
the equivalent resistance of the combination between any two adjacent corners. [2]
(v) In a three-pin plug, why is the earth pin made longer and thicker than the other two
pins? [2]
Question 3
(i) Which physical quantity does the electron volt measure? How is it related to the SI unit
of this quality? [2]
(ii) What should be the angle between force and displacement to get
(a) Minimum work (b) Maximum work [2]
(iii) What are non-contact forces? [2]
(iv) The work done by the heart is 1 joule per beat. Calculate the power of the heart if it
beats 72 times in one minute. [2]
(v) Mention two properties of a wave—one property which varies and the other which
remains constant when the wave passes from one medium to another. [2]
Section B
Attempt any four questions from this section
Question 4
(i) [3]
a. When do we apply Fleming's right hand rule?
b. State Fleming's right hand rule.
c. How does the magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor vary with amount
of current flowing through the conductor?
(ii) Calculate the heat energy that will be released when 5.0 kg of steam is converted to
water at 100°C. Express your answer in SI units (Specific latent heat of vaporisation of
steam is 2268 kJ/kg). [3]
(iii) [4]
238
a. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when Uranium nucleus 92 U decays
to Lead 206
82 Pb ?
b. State two factors on which the rate of emission of electrons from a heated surface
depends.
c. State the energy change which takes place when a magnet is moved inside a coil
having a galvanometer at its ends. Name this phenomenon.
Question 5
(i) a. State the law of conservation of energy. [3]
b. Name the chief energy transformation that occurs
(1) In a loudspeaker
(2) In an electrical cell (primary).
(ii) [3]
a. Define a simple machine.
b. State the basic principle of a simple machine
c. Can a simple machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same
time?
(iii) The figure shows the combination of a movable pulley P1 with a fixed P2 used for lifting
a load W. [4]
a. State the function of the fixed pulley P2.

b. If the free end of the string moves through a distance x, find the distance by which
the load W is raised.
c. Calculate the force that has to be applied at C to just raise the load W = 20 kgf,
neglecting the weight of the pulley P1 and air friction.
Question 6
(i) The ray diagram given below illustrates the experimental setup for the determination
of focal length of a converging lens using a plane mirror. [4]
a. State the magnification of the image formed.

b. Write two characteristics of the image formed.
c. What is the name given to the distance between the object and the optical centre of
the lens in the diagram?
(ii)
a. A glass slab is placed over a page on which the word VIBGYOR is printed with each
letter in correspondence to its colour. [3]
1. Will the image of all the letters be in the same place?
2. If not, state which letter will be raised to the maximum. Give reasons to
support your answer.
b. State two main differences between a convex lens and a concave lens.
(iii) [3]
a. What is meant by refraction?
b. Express the refractive index µ of a medium.
1. In terms of the velocity of light
2. In terms of the angle of incidence i in the air and the angle of refraction r in a
denser medium
c. If a ray of light passes from medium I to medium II without any change in
direction, what can be said about the refractive indices of these media (angle i is
not 0°)?
Question 7
(i) Water falls from a height of 50 m. calculate the rise in temperature of water when it
strikes the bottom. g = 10 ms−2, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg−1C−1. [3]
(ii) [3]
a. What is the difference between kW and kWh?
b. Prove that 1 kWh = 3.6 MJ.
c. What is the practical unit of power?
(iii)
a. What is the difference between echo and reverberation? [4]
b. Calculate the minimum distance between the object and the source at which the
echo can be distinctly heard?
c. Can sound be clearly heard on the surface of the moon?
Question 8
(i) An electrical appliance is rated 1500 W, 250 V. This appliance is connected to 250 V
mains Calculate: [3]
a. Current drawn
b. Electrical energy consumed in 6 hours
c. Cost of electrical energy at Rs 2.50 per kWh
(ii) [3]
a. How can you prepare an electromagnet?
b. What do you mean by electromagnetic induction? What is the necessary condition
for electromagnetic induction?
(iii) In the following figure, A, B and C are three ammeters. Ammeter B reads 0.5 A. (All the
ammeters have negligible resistance.) [4]
Calculate:
a. Readings in ammeters A and C
b. Total resistance of the circuit
Question 9
(i) A radar is able to detect the reflected waves from an enemy’s aeroplane after a time
interval of 0.02 ms. If the velocity of the wave is 3 × 108 ms−1, calculate the distance of
the plane from the radar .[3]
(ii) A piece of ice is heated at a constant rate. The variation of temperature with the heat
input is shown in the graph given below: [3]
a. What is represented by AB and CD?

b. What conclusion can you draw regarding the nature of ice from the above graph?
(iii) If there is no heat loss to the surroundings, the heat released by the condensation of m 1
kg of steam at 100°C can be used to convert m2 kg of ice at 0°C into water at 10°C.
Find: [4]
1. Heat lost by steam in terms of m1
2. Heat gained by ice in terms of m2
3. Form a heat equation and find the ratio of m2:m1 from it
Specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam = 2268 kJ/kg, specific latent heat of fusion
of ice = 336 kJ/kg, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg °C.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two hours
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________S
ECTION-A
Question 1
Choose one correct answer to the questions from the given options: [15]
(i) The process by which thin coating of zinc is made over the surface of Iron is:
(a) Vulcanisation
(b) Precipitation
(c) Galvanisation
(d) Calcination
(ii) Common characteristic of a covalent compound is:

(a) High melting point
(b) Conducts electricity when it is in the molten state
(c) Consists of molecules
(d) Always soluble in water.
(iii) Drying agent for ammonia is:

(a) Slaked lime
(b) Quicklime
(c) Baking soda
(d) Washing Soda
(iv) Ammonium hydroxide will produce a reddish brown precipitate when added to a
solution of:
(a) CuSO4
(b) Zn(NO3)2
(c) FeSO4
(d) FeCl3
(v) A salt which in solution gives a bluish white precipitate with NaOH solution and a
white precipitate with BaCl2 solution is:
(a) CuSO4
(b) Ca(NO3)2
(c) FeSO4
(d) FeCl3
(vi) The gas law which relates the volume of a gas to moles of the gas is :
(a) Avagadro's Law
(b) Gay-Lussac's Law
(c) Boyle's Law
(d) Charle's Law
(vii) During the electrolysis of acidified water which of the following takes place:
(a) Oxygen is released at cathode
(b) Oxygen is released at anode
(c) Hydrogen is released at anode
(d) Sulphur dioxide is released at anode.
(viii) The no. of valence electrons in group 18 elements is:

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 2
(ix) Duralumin is an alloy of:

(a) Al and Cu
(b) Cu and Sn
(c) Al and Ag
(d) Al and Fe
(x) Hydrogen chloride can be obtained by adding concentrated sulphuric acid to:
(a) NaCl
(b) Na2SO4
(c) Na2CO3
(d) NaNO3
(xi) Identify ‘X’ in the reaction: 2HCl + CuO → X + H2O

(a) CuCl2
(b) Cu(OH)2
(c) HOCl
(d) CuCl
(xii) Formation of chloroform from methane and chlorine is an example of:

(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Elimination
(xiii) An insoluble salt obtain when Sulphur dioxide is passed through lime water is:
(a) Calcium Hydroxide
(b) Calcium Sulphate
(c) Calcium Sulphite
(d) Calcium Sulphide
(xiv) Due to great affinity towards oxygen, coating of metal oxide is formed, which does
not allow any further reaction with acid. This metal is:
(a) Potassium
(b) Chromium
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
(xv) The element with the highest ionization potential in the periodic table is:
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Xe
Question 2
(i) The diagram shows an experiment set up for the laboratory preparation of a
pungent choking gas. [5]
(a) Name the gas collected in the gas jar.

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above preparation.
(c) How the gas being collected?
(d) Name the drying agent in this experiment?
(e) How will you find that the gas jar is full of gas?
(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]
Column A Column B
(a) Duralumin 1. Shells of ammunition rounds
(b) Brass 2. Scientific Instruments
(c) Bronze 3. Joining electrical circuits
(d) Solder 4. Aircraft frames
(e) Magnalium 5. Coins
(iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [5]
(a) As we move across a period _____________ increases. (Atomic size, electron affinity)
(b) As we move down the group ____________ decreases. (Metallic character, ionization
potential)
(c) Inert gases have complete _____________. (Octet, triplet)
(d) Ionization potential is the energy ___________ (required/released)
(e) The vertical column in periodic table is called __________ (group/period)
(iv) Name the following: [5]

(a) Process of coating of iron with zinc.
(b) Alloy of lead and tin which is used in electrical circuits.
(c) Heating concentrated ore to high temperature in the presence of air
(d) Metal oxide which can be reduced by hydrogen.
(e) Substance added to the charge in the furnace to remove gangue.
(v) [5]
(a) Draw the structural formula for the following:
1. Isobutane
2. Pentanal
3. Methanol
(b) Name the following organic compounds in IUPAC system:

1.
O
C2H5 C OH
2.
SECTION-B
(Attempt any four questions)
Question 3
(i) Write a balanced equation for the preparation of each of the following salts. [2]
(a) Copper sulphate from copper carbonate.
(b) Zinc carbonate from zinc sulphate.
(ii) Write the products and balance the equations. [2]

(a) Al + NaOH + H2O →
(b) P4 + HNO3
(iii) Write the difference between: [3]

(a) Ionic compounds and polar covalent compounds
(b) Ionic compounds and covalent compounds
(c) Polar covalent compounds and non-polar covalent compounds
(iv) Give balanced chemical equations to prepare the following salts: [3]
(a) Lead sulphate from lead carbonate
(b) Sodium sulphate using dilute sulphuric acid
(c) Copper chloride using copper carbonate
Question 4
(i) Give reaction for the preparation of: [2]
(a) Methane from sodium acetate
(b) Ethyne from 1,2-dibromoethane
(ii) Name the following: [2]

(a) Compound with triple covalent bonds
(b) Ion having a coordinate bond
(iii) Name the following substances: [3]

(a) An acidic gas which gives dense white fumes with NH3
(b) An alkane whose molecular mass is 58. (H = 1; C = 12)
(c) Charged particles which attract one another to form electrovalent compounds .
(iv) Write equations for the following reactions: [3]

(a) Aluminium oxide and Sodium hydroxide.
(b) Zinc and dilute sulphuric acid.
(c) Magnesium nitride and water.
Question 5 [2]
(a) Define mineral.
(b) Which two chemical compounds are added to pure bauxite at the time of electrolytic
reduction? [2]
(i) Name the following: [2]

(a) Second member of alkene series
(b) First member of alkane series
(ii) What are the terms defined in following? [3]

(a) A salt containing a metal ion surrounded by other ions or molecules
(b) A base which is soluble in water
(c) A substance remove moisture from other substances
(iii) Electrons are getting added to an element ‘y’. [3]

(a) Is ‘y’ getting oxidized or reduced?
(b) What charge will ‘y’ have after the addition of electrons?
(c) Which electrode will ‘y’ migrate during the process of electrolysis?
Question 6
(i) Name all the particles present in: [2]
(a) Molten Sodium chloride
(b) Carbon tetrachloride
(ii) Write equations for the reactions occurring when: [2]

(a) Sodium hydroxide added to copper sulphates solution.
(b) Ammonium hydroxide is slowly added to copper sulphate solution first a little and
then in excess.
(iii) The elements of one short period of the periodic table are given in the order from left
to right. [3]
Li Be B C O F Ne
(a) To which period these elements belong?
(b) One element of this period is missing. Which is the missing element and where
should it be placed?
(c) Which one of the above elements belongs to halogen series?
(iv) A gaseous hydrocarbon contains 82.76% of carbon. Given that its vapour density is 29,
find its molecular formula. [C = 12, H = 11] [3]
Question 7
(i) How does Ammonium hydroxide help in distinguish between: [2]
(a) Iron (II) chloride and Iron (III) chloride
(b) Zinc sulphate and Lead nitrate
(ii) Identify the cation in each of the following case: [2]

(a) Sodium hydroxide solution added to the solution ‘A’ gives reddish brown
precipitate.
(b) Ammonium hydroxide solution when added to solution ‘B’ gives white precipitate
which dissolves in excess.
(iii) A compound has the following percentage composition by mass: carbon 25.41%,
hydrogen 3.17%,oxygen 33.86% and chlorine 37.56% Use this data to determine th
empirical formula of the compound.(Work to two places of decimals)
(H=1; C=12; O=16; CI=35.5) [3]
(iv)Zinc is extracted from zinc blende. The zinc blende is roasted. The solid product is
mixed with coke in the blast furnace form which zinc vapours emerge. [3]
(a) What is the Zinc compound in Zinc blende?
(b) Write the equation for the roasting of Zinc blende.
(c) What is the purpose of using coke?
Question 8
(i) Draw the electron dot structure of the following. [2]
(a) NH3
(b) CCl4
(ii) Calculate the volume of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 20 cm 3 of
propane (C3H8).
C3H8+5O2 3CO2+4H2O [2]
(iii) Name the gas evolved when: [3]

(a) Calcium carbide is hydrolyzed.
(b) Aluminium carbide is hydrolyzed.
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate with hydrochloric acid
(iv) An element Y has atomic number 20. Answer the following questions. [3]
(a) State the period & group to which it belongs:
(b) Is it a metal or Non Metal?
(c) Write the formula between Y and Hydroxyl group.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two hours
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION-A
Question 1
Choose one correct answer to the questions from the given options: [15]
(i) A strong electrolyte is:
(a) Alcohol
(b) Sodium Hydroxide
(c) Ammonium hydroxide
(d) Glucose
(ii) If an element has a low ionization energy then it is likely to be:

(a) Metalloid
(b) Non-metal
(c) Metal
(d) All of the above
(iii) The pair of metals that are extracted only by electrolysis is:
(a) Na, Pb
(b) Ca, Cu
(c) Ag, K
(d) Na, Ca
(iv) An alloy which does not contain copper is:

(a) Magnalium
(b) Bronze
(c) Brass
(d) Bell metal
(v) The gas produced when potassium nitrate is heated:

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Carbon dioxide
(vi) The one which cannot conduct electricity is:

(a) Molten NaCl
(b) Solid NaCl
(c) NaCl dissolved in water
(d) Both molten and solid NaCl
(vii) The metal which does not react with cold or hot water:
(a) Mg
(b) K
(c) Ca
(d) Zn
(viii) Gay Lussac’s law is applicable:

(a) Only to gases
(b) Only to solids
(c) Only to liquids
(d) To both liquids and solids
(ix) Large amount of impure HCl is produced as a byproduct in:

(a) Chlorinated ethanes
(b) Chlorinated fluorocarbons
(c) Reaction of sodium chloride with sulphuric acid
(d) Option (a) and (b)
(x) Ammonia reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperature and pressure to give:
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Urea
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
(xi) The indicator shows no change in acids is:

(a) Phenolphthalein
(b) Blue litmus
(c) Methyl orange
(d) Onion
(xii) The compound formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide is:
(a) Sodium zincate and water
(b) Zinc hydroxide and sodium
(c) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
(d) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
(xiii) The one from the following which is commonly known as paraffin is:
(a) Alkanal
(b) Alkyne
(c) Alkene
(d) Alkane
(xiv) Dilute acids does not produce carbon dioxide on being treated with:
(a) Marble
(b) Baking soda
(c) Limestone
(d) Lime
(xv) The pair of elements from the one listed below that will undergo ionic bond
formation:
(a) Na and Cl
(b) C and O
(c) C and Cl
(d) H and Cl
Question 2
(i) The diagram shows an experiment set up for the laboratory preparation of a
pungent choking gas. The gas is alkaline in nature [5]
(a) Name the gas collected in the gas jar.

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above preparation.
(c) How the gas being collected?

(d) Name the drying agent in this experiment?
(e) Write an experiment to identify presence of NH3 in the gas jar.
(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]

Column A Column B
(a) Phosphoric acid (i) Loss of electrons
(b) Nitric acid (ii) Gain of electrons
(c) Liquid ammonia (iii) Strong electrolyte
(d) Oxidation (iv) Non-electrolyte
(e) Reduction (v) Weak electrolyte
(iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [5]
(a) There are ______ groups and ______ periods in the modern form of the periodic
table.
(b) The most electropositive elements belong to ______ group.
(c) Most ____________ elements belong to seventeenth group.
(d) Energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom is called
______.
(e) Lanthanides are present in _________ group and _________ period.
(iv) Name the salt: [5]

(a) A basic salt
(b) An acidic salt
(c) A mixed salt
(d) A complex salt
(e) A double salt
(v) [5]
(a) Draw the structural formula for the following:
1. Isopentane
2. Ethanal
3. Ethanol
(b) Name the following organic compounds in IUPAC system:

1.
O
C2H5 C OH
2.
OH
H2 H2
H3C C C C CH3
H
SECTION-B
Question 3
(i) Draw an electron dot diagram to show the formation of each of the following
compounds. [2]
(a) Methane
(b) Magnesium chloride
[H =1, C = 6, Mg = 12, Cl = 17]
(ii) Write the products and balance the equations. [2]

(a) Mg3N2 + H2O → Mg(OH)2 +NH3
(b) FeSO4 + H2SO4 +HNO3 Fe2( SO4)3 + H2O + NO
(iii) Arrange the following as per the instruction given in the brackets: [3]
(a) Cs, Na, Li, K, Rb (increasing order of metallic character)
(b) Mg, Cl, Na, S, Si (decreasing order of atomic size)
(c) Na, K, Cl, S, Si (increasing order ionisation energy)
(iv) Identify the cations in each of the following cases: [3]

(a) NaOH solution when added to solution (A) gives reddish precipitate.
(b) NH4OH solution when added to solution (B) gives a white ppt. which does not
dissolve in excess.
(c) NaOH solution when added to solution (C) gives a white ppt. which is insoluble in
excess.
Question 4
(i) State the type of bonding in following molecules: [2]
(a) Ammonia.
(b) Calcium oxide.
(ii) Identify the cation in each of the following case: [2]

(a) Sodium hydroxide solution when added to solution ‘C’ gives bluish white
precipitate which is insoluble in excess.
(b) Ammonium hydroxide solution when added to solution ‘D’ gives dirty green
precipitate which changes to reddish brown after sometime.
(iii) Name the following: [3]

(a) Second member of alkene series
(b) First member of alkane series
(c) Third member of aldehyde series
(iv) Write equations for the following reactions: [3]

(a) Ammonia and nitric acid.
(b) Copper oxide and carbon
(c) Magnesium with steam
Question 5
(i) Name the most common ore of Aluminium, zinc and Iron. Name the processes by
which the named ores are concentrated. [2]
(ii) [2]
(a) Name the product formed at the anode during the electrolysis of acidified water using
platinum electrodes.
(b) Name the metallic ions that should be present in the electrolyte when an article made of
copper is to be electroplated with silver.
(iii) What happens when: [3]

(a) What are redox reactions?
(b) Why is the reaction between manganese dioxide and hydrochloric acid a redox reaction?
(c) Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the above reaction.
(iv) [3]
(a) Write the equation for the laboratory preparation of ethyne (acetylene) from
calcium carbide.
(b) What is the special feature of the structure of ethyne?
(c) What would you see when ethyne is bubbled through a solution of bromine in
carbon tetrachloride?
Question 6
(i) The laboratory preparation from sodium acetate of: [2]
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(ii) Propane burns in air according to the following equation: [2]

C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
What volume of propane is consumed on using 1000 cm3 of air, considering only 20% of
air contains oxygen?
(iii) Name the probable cation present in each of the following solutions: [3]
(a) Yellow coloured solution,
(b) Blue coloured solution,
(c) Pink colour solution
(iv) Give the name and the balanced equation of hydrolysis of each of the following salt:[3]
(a) Acidic salt
(b) Amphoteric
(c) Neutral solution
Give a balanced equation for each reaction.
Question 7
(i) [2]
(a) What is the major purpose of subjecting concentrated ore to either roasting or
calcinations?
(b) If a compound has empirical formula CH2O and its molecular mass is 180, calculate
its molecular formula.
(ii) Name the process by which Ammonia is prepared from its elements. Write equation.
Which property of Ammonia is demonstrated by Fountain experiment? [2]
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equations: [3]

(a) Reduction of metallic oxide inside the blast furnace
(b) Heating of aluminium hydroxide
(c) Reduction of zinc oxide
(iv)AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3 [3]

How many grams of silver nitrate is required to precipitate 287g of silver chloride?
(N=14, O=16, Cl=35.5, Ag=108) S3
Question 8
(i) Draw the electron dot structure of the following. [2]
(a) H2O
(b) CHCH
(ii) The percentage composition of a gas is Nitrogen 82.35% and Hydrogen 17.64%.
Find the empirical formula of the gas. [N = 14, H = 1] [2]
(iii) For each of the substances listed below, describe the role played in the extraction of
aluminium. [3]
(a) Cryolite
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Graphite
(iv) An element Y has atomic number 19. Answer the following questions. [3]
(a) State the period & group to which it belongs:
(b) Is it a metal or Non Metal?
(c) Write the formula between Y and Hydroxyl group.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper – 1
1. Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately
2. You will be not allowed to write during first 15 minutes
3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
4. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)
Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given
options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [15]
(i) After wound or cut in a body, blood coagulates through
1. WBC
2. RBC
3. Platelets
4. Plasma
(ii) The first menstrual flow is called

1. Menopause
2. Menstruation
3. Menarche
4. Ovulation
(iii) Light induced reactions which lead to splitting of water

1. Photolysis
2. Photo-oxidation
3. Electrolysis
4. Activation
(iv) The cell component visible only during cell division

1. Centrosome
2. Chromosome
3. DNA
4. Nucleosome
(v) Action of parathormone in the human body

1. decreases blood sodium level
2. increases blood sodium level
3. decreases blood calcium level
4. increases blood calcium level
(vi) The rate of photosynthesis is not affected by

1. light intensity
2. humidity
3. temperature
4. CO2 concentration
(vii) An example of bio-degradable waste is

1. Peels of vegetables
2. Grass
3. Paper
4. All of these
(viii) The normal gestation period in humans is

1. 270 days
2. 290 days
3. 280 days
4. 295 days
(ix) A dark muscular membrane which controls size of pupil

1. pupil
2. iris
3. cornea
4. retina
(x) When pregnancy does not occur, life of corpus luteum is about
1. 4 days
2. 10 days
3. 14 days
4. 28 days
(xi) The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
1. iris
2. pupil
3. cornea
4. ciliary muscles
(xii) Which one of the following pairs is not matched correctly?

1. Cerebrum- memory
2. Cerebellum- balance of body
3. Medulla oblongata- controls activities of internal organs
4. Pons- consciousness
(xiii) The shortest phase of mitosis is

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase
(xiv) The state of a cell wall in which the cell wall is rigid and stretched by the increase in
volume due to the absorption
1. Flaccidity
2. Turgidity
3. Capillarity
4. Tonicity
(xv) Nitrogenous wastes excreted through urine in humans is

1. Trimethylamine oxide
2. Ammonia
3. Uric acid
4. Urea
Question 2
(a) Pair of chromosomes carrying dissimilar alleles for a particular character
(b) Term used for Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus together
(c) Hormone which controls the basal metabolic rate
(d) Chemicals leading to the formation of the ozone hole
(e) Number of persons per square kilometre at any given time
(ii) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a
logical sequence beginning with the term that is underlined. [5]
(a) Upper epidermis, spongy cell, stoma, palisade tissue
(b) Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase
(c) Vena cava, right ventricle, pulmonary veins, right auricle
(d) Ovulation, Implantation, Fertilization, Parturition
(e) Receptor, effector, motor neuron, sensory neuron
(iii) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II
and rewrite the correct matching pairs. [5]
Column I Column II
(a) Vasectomy 1. Methane
(b) Radioactive element 2. Female sterilisation
(c) Dark reaction 3. Uranium
(d) Tubectomy 4. Grana
(e) Greenhouse gas 5. Mercury
6. Male sterilisation
7. Stroma
(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to which
the others belong: [5]
(a) Cretinism, myxoedema, goitre, scurvy
(b) Sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour
(c) Olfactory lobes, cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon
(d) Tympanum, Macula, Cochlea, Utriculus
(e) Seismonasty, Hydrotropism, Geotropism, Phototropism
(v) State the exact location of the following structures. [5]

(a) Lenticels
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Bicuspid valve
(e) Pancreas
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this section.)
Question 3
(i) Why gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes? [1]
(ii) Root hairs become flaccid, when fertilizers are added to the moist soil around it.
Explain. [2]
(iii) What are lenticels? Where are they found? [2]
(iv) State the difference in the arrangement of neurons in the brain and the spinal cord. [2]
(v) What is dialysis? Under what conditions is it carried out? [3]
Question 4
(i) Name the blood vessel which [1]
(1) begins and ends in capillaries,
(2) supplies blood to the walls of the heart
(ii) When are the sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUB’ produced during a heartbeat? [2]
(iii) The diagram below is that of a structure present in the human kidneys. [2]
a) Name the structure represented in the diagram.

b) What is the liquid entering part ‘1’ and ‘2’called?
(iv) Give the functions of spinal cord. [2]
(v) What type of reflexes are the following? [3]
(a) Sweating in summer, (b) Knitting and swimming, (c) Solving mathematical sums.
(d) Formation of goose-pimples in cold weather. (e) Blinking of the eye.
Question 5
(i) Name two involuntary actions controlled by medulla in the hind brain. [1]
(ii) Abnormally a large number of WBCs in the blood is usually an indication of some
infections in our body. Give reason [2]
(iii) Why is photosynthesis important in nature? [2]
(iv) What is fertilization? Name the site of fertilization in human female. [2]
(v) Why is it necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion of blood? [3]
Question 6
(i) Define the following term- Diapedesis. [1]
(ii) State the function of the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. [2]
(iii) Where is the thymus gland located and what is its function? [2]
(iv) Explain why the grass in the lawn becomes greener if you add a little fertilizer to it, but
dies if you add a lot of it. [2]
(v) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a defect of the human eye. [3]
a) Identify the defect.

b) State how the defect can be rectified.
c) Name the part of the eye responsible for maintaining the shape of the eyeball.
Question 7
(i) One feels blinded for a short time after coming out of a dark room. Explain. [1]
(ii) Define growth rate of population. In what situation can this rate be negative? [2]
(iii) Define the four stages in the menstrual cycle. [2]
(iv) What is monohybrid cross? How did Mendel perform this cross? [2]
(v) Describe in brief about cardiac cycle. [3]
Question 8
(i) How is soil pollution caused? [1]
(ii) What are the disadvantages of transpiration? [2]
(iii) The full-grown human embryo respires but does not breathe. [2]
(iv) What is greenhouse effect and how is it caused? [2]
(v) Study the diagram given below and then answer the questions that follow: [3]
a) Name the cells of the pancreas that produce (1) glucagon, (2) insulin.
b) State the main function of glucagon and insulin.
c) Why is insulin not given orally but is injected into the body?
ICSE Board
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper – 2
1. Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately
2. You will be not allowed to write during first 15 minutes
3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
4. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)
Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given
options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [15]
(i) A de-starched plant is the one in which
1. Plant is free from starch
2. Aerial parts are free from starch
3. Leaves are free from chlorophyll
4. Leaves are free from starch
(ii) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the stages of mitosis?
1. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
2. Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase
3. Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase
4. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase
(iii) The excretory product released through the lungs is

1. Urea
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Uric acid
(iv) The part of the human eye where rod cells and cone cells are located is the
1. Cornea
2. Retina
3. Choroid
4. Sclera
(v) The recessive gene is the one that expresses itself in

1. Homozygous condition
2. Heterozygous condition
3. F2 generation
4. Y-linked inheritance
(vi) Which gland secretes both hormone and enzyme?

1. Pancreas
2. Pituitary
3. Thyroid
4. Adrenal
(vii) Name the part of the chloroplast where the light reaction of photosynthesis takes
place.
1. Lumen
2. Lamella
3. Grana
4. Stroma
(viii) Name the waxy layer on the epidermis of the leaf meant to reduce transpiration.
1. Cuticle
2. Epidermis
3. Xylem
4. Phloem
(ix) What is the scientific name of the garden pea used by Mendel for his experiment?
1. Pisum vulgare
2. Pisum florae
3. Pisum fabaceae
4. Pisum biflorum
(x) Which of the following is mainly responsible for the formation of acid rain?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. CNG
3. Sulphur dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide
(xi) Name the process of uptake of minerals ions against the concentration gradient using
energy from the cell.
1. Active absorption
2. Osmosis
3. Passive absorption
4. Flaccidity
(xii) Complete stoppage of the menstrual cycle in females

1. Menarche
2. Menopause
3. Ovulation
4. Follicular phase
(xiii) The cell sap of root hair is

1. Hypertonic
2. Hypotonic
3. Isotonic
4. None of the above
(xiv) On what does the harmful effect of pollution depend on?

1. Concentration of pollutants and organism
2. Concentration, duration of exposure to pollutants and the organism
3. Concentration of pollutants and duration of exposure
4. All of these
(xv) What does CPCB stand for?

1. Central Particulate Control Board
2. Central Pollution Control Board
3. Central Pollution Channel Board
4. None of these
Question 2
(a) A pair of corresponding chromosomes of the same shape and size but one from
each parent.
(b) The hollow, pear-shaped muscular organ where the embryo develops.
(c) The solvent used to dissolve the chlorophyll pigment while testing a leaf of starch.
(d) The complex molecule consisting of a DNA strand and a core of histones.
(e) Movement of molecules of a substance from high concentration to lower
concentration.
(ii) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a
logical sequence beginning with the term that is underlined. [5]
(a) Outer membrane, inner membrane, intermembrane space, thylakoid, granum
(b) Afferent arteriole, renal vein, capillary network, glomerulus, efferent arteriole
(c) Renal artery, urethra, ureter, kidney, urinary bladder
(d) Cerebrum, Diencephalon, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata, Pons
(e) Auditory canal, Cochlea, Tympanum, Ear ossicles, Oval window.
(iii) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II
and rewrite the correct matching pairs [5]
Column I Column II
(a) Pupil 1. Industrial waste
(b) Ethylene 2. Glomerulus
(c) SA Node 3. Fruit ripening
(d) Bowman’s capsule 4. Global warming
(e) Fly ash 5. Shape of the lens
6. Iris
7. Pacemaker
(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to
which the others belong: [5]
(a) Transpiration, Photosynthesis, Phagocytosis, Guttation
(b) Sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour
(c) Thyroid, Thyroxine, Pancreas, Adrenal gland
(d) Leptotene, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(e) Ovary, Fallopian tube, Ureter, Uterus
(v) State the exact location of the following structures. [5]

(a) Spindle fibres
(b) Root hair
(c) Thylakoids
(d) PCT
(e) Thyroid gland
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this section.)
Question 3
(i) What is cytokinesis? [1]
(ii) A certain couple got four daughters in a sequence and no son. Does it mean that the
husband does not produce Y-chromosome bearing sperms? Explain. What is the
chance of this couple having a daughter? [2]
(iii) A few RBCs were kept in three test tubes containing isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic
solutions. What will be the expected observations after a few hours? Explain. [2]
(iv) Why respiration is said to be a reversed process of photosynthesis? [2]
(v) Write short note on Tissue Fluid. [3]
Question 4
(i) Why is urine yellow in colour? [1]
(ii) State the location and function of the yellow spot. [2]
(iii) Draw a diagram of a single Malpighian corpuscle and label the following parts:
Glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, Afferent arteriole and Efferent arteriole. [2]
(iv) Which part of the ear is responsible for- [2]
1. Static equilibrium
2. Dynamic equilibrium
(v) The given figure shows a cell kept in a certain solution. Study it and answer the
questions that follow: [3]
(a) Name the solution in which the cell is kept.

(b) Name the condition of the cell.
(c) Label the parts 1 – 5.
Question 5
(i) Wilted lettuce leaves become crisp or firm when placed in cold water for a while. [1]
(ii) Describe the impact of air pollution. [2]
(iii) What is meant by ‘population density’? How are women operated to prevent the flow
of eggs into oviduct? [2]
(iv) “Kidneys are the master chemist of the body”. Comment. [2]
(v) The circulatory system of the foetus and that of the mother are never connected
directly. What are the advantages? [3]
Question 6
(i) Define mutation and give its significance. [1]
(ii) Complete the following table by filling in the blanks numbered 1 to 4: [2]
No. Glands Hormones Functions Diseases
(i) Pituitary 1 2 Gigantism (hypersecretion)
Dwarfism (hyposecretion)
(ii) 3 Thyroxine 4 Cretinism, Exophthalmic goitre
(iii) Explain why transpiration and photosynthesis are interlinked during the day. [2]
(iv) People living in hilly regions usually suffer from simple goitre. Explain. [2]
(v) The below diagram represents the vertical view of the human female reproductive
system. [3]
a) Label the parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 8.

b) How does the uterus prepare for the reception of a zygote?
c) What happens to the uterus if fertilization takes place?
Question 7
(i) What is the importance of meiosis? [1]
(ii) What is crossing-over? What are the factors affecting it? [2]
(iii) Name the hormones which cause the following conditions: [2]
(a) Myxoedema
(b) Gigantism
(iv) Why injury to medulla oblongata results in death? [2]
(v) Our resources cannot keep pace with the ever-increasing population. Give three
examples in support of this statement. [3]
Question 8
(i) Which tissues and cells are mainly concerned with photosynthesis? [1]
(ii) Give any four advantages of transpiration to the plant. [2]
(iii) What is blood pressure? How is it measured? [2]
(iv) Write in brief about the causes and symptoms of exophthalmic goiter. [2]
(v) The diagram below represents two reproductive cells A and B. Study the same and
then answer the questions that follow [3]
a) Identify the reproductive cells A and B.

b) Name the specific part of the reproductive system where the above cells are
produced.
c) Where in the female reproductive system do these cells unite?
ICSE
Class 10
History & Civics
Mock Paper - 1
1. Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes
3. The time given at the head of the paper is the time allotted for writing the answers.
4. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be
attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of
five questions from Section B.
5. The intended marks of questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [].
PART-I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this part)
Question 1 [16]
Choose the correct option.
(i) The minimum age required to be a member of the Rajya Sabha is ________________.
a) 18 years
b) 25 years
c) 30 years
d) 35 years
(ii) No bills can be passed if the required number of members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha are not present in the House. This is known as
a) Sessions
b) No confidence motion
c) Adjournment motion
d) Quorum
(iii) In the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is considered the head of
the___________.
a) Parliamentary Affairs Committee
b) Planning Commission
c) Cabinet ministers
d) Indian armed forces
(iv) Which of the following is NOT the qualification required for the position of the Vice-
President?
a) He should be the citizen of India
b) He should have completed thirty years of age.
c) He should be qualified for elections as a member of the Council of states.
d) He should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India.
(v) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?

a) The President
b) The Vice-president
c) The Prime Minister
d) The People
(vi) The meaning of the word ‘Lok Adalat’ is

a) Higher court
b) Silent court
c) Court of the country
d) Court of the people
(vii) Which of the following states was NOT annexed on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse?
a) Nagpur
b) Mysore
c) Satara
d) Jaitpur
(viii) Which of the following were the demands of the Indian National Congress in the initial
years?
1. To appoint Indians on higher position in government offices
2. Swaraj
3. To hold Civil Service Examinations in India and not just in London
4. Swadeshi and the Boycott movement
a) 1 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 3
(ix) Complete the given analogy.

Annexation of Awadh: Political cause: Decline of landed aristocracy: ?
a) Economic cause
b) Social cause
c) Religious cause
d) Military cause
(x) The Congress declared ‘Poorna Swaraj’ as its main objective at _________________ session in
1929.
a) Pune
b) Kolkata
c) Mumbai
d) Lahore
(xi) The defeat of the ____________forces in the Second World War also marked the defeat of the
INA in India.
a) German
b) French
c) Italian
d) Japanese
(xii) According to the Mountbatten Plan, referendum was to be held in at the Muslim majority
province of ___________________to decide whether it wants to remain in East Bengal or
wishes to join Assam.
a) Sylhet
b) Murshidabad
c) Decca
d) Chittagong
(xiii) France, England and Russia formed the ______________in 1907.

a) Triple Entente
b) Central Powers
c) Triple Alliance
d) Paris-London-Moscow Axis
(xiv) Which of the following is the main organ of the UNO?

a) Security Council
b) General Assembly
c) International Court of Justice
d) The Economic and Social Council
(xv) Which agency set up by the UN General Assembly to help children who suffered during
the Second World War?
a) UNESCO
b) WHO
c) ILO
d) UNICEF
(xvi) The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand was planned by a secret society named
a) Black hand
b) The Freedom
c) Young Europe
d) The charcoal
Question 2
(i) Mention any two judicial powers of the Parliament.
(ii) Ms. Menon wants to directly appeal her case in the Supreme Court. Under which function
and on what ground can she directly appeal to the Supreme Court?
(iii) State two objectives of Muslim league.
(iv) Who was A.O Hume? Name one association founded by him.
(v) Mention two important contributions of Surendranath Banerjee.
(vi) What was the immediate cause of the First World War?
(vii) Mention any two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism
PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)
Question 3
With reference to the Indian Parliament, explain the following:
a) The composition of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. [3]
b) Mention any three Special powers of the Rajya Sabha that is usually not enjoyed by the
other House. [3]
c) What is meant by the term ‘Session’? Name the three Sessions of the Union Parliament. [4]
Question 4
In reference to the President and answer the following questions:
a) State any three qualifications required for candidate to be elected as the President of
India. [3]
b) Why is the President elected indirectly? [3]
c) Explain briefly any two financial and any two emergency powers of the President. [4]
Question 5
The Supreme Court at its apex. In this context, discuss the following:
a) State three steps being taken to keep judiciary independent of the control of the
Executive and the Legislature? [3]
b) What is the power of judicial review? [3]
c) Explain the process of removal of the judges. [4]
SECTION B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)
Question 6
With reference to the First War of Independence in India, answer the following questions:
a) Explain the immediate cause of the revolt of 1857. [3]
b) Mention any three military causes of the Revolt of 1857. [3]
c) Discuss any four consequences of the Revolt of 1857. [4]
Question 7
With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, answer the following questions: [4]
a) State three objectives of the movement.
b) Why and by whom was this movement withdrawn? [3]
c) Discuss four results of the movement. [3]
Question 8
In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi's demands were rejected by the British, as a result of which he
launched the Civil Disobedience Movement. In this context explain the following:
a) Look at the above picture and name the famous march undertaken by Gandhiji. Where
did he begin this march? State any two features of this March. [4]
b) Discuss the impact of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact as a consequence of this Movement. [3]
c) When and where was the Second Round Table conference held? State the demand
raised during this conference. [3]
Question 9
With reference to the World Wars, answer the following questions:
a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and
Imperialism. [3]
b) Discuss any four terms of the treaty of Versailles which affected Germany after World
War I. [3]
c) Explain how the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism led to the Second World War. [4]
Question 10
The UNO was formed after the Second World War. In this context, answer the following
questions:
a) The Security Council consists of how many members? How are the non-permanent
member elected? [3]
b) Discuss three functions of the General Assembly. [3]
c) When was UNICEF started? Explain its any three features. [4]
ICSE
Class 10
History & Civics
H.C.G. Paper 1
Mock Paper - 2
attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of
five questions from Section B.
PART-I (30 Marks)

Question 1 [16]
Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Lok Sabha?
a) The members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of five years.
b) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the completion of its term
c) The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a couple of years during an
emergency.
d) Seats in the Lok Sabha are allotted to the states on the basis of their population
(ii) Who is empowered to promulgate an Ordinance at a time when the Parliament is not
in session?
a) The Lok Sabha
b) The President
c) The Prime Minister
d) The Speaker
(iii) Who among the following do NOT participate in the election of the President?
a) Elected members of the Lok Sabha
b) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
d) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
(iv) The passing of which Motion results in the resignation of the entire government?
a) Privilege Motion
b) No-Confidence Motion
c) Censure Motion
d) Adjournment Motion
(v) Which of the following writs is issued against unlawful detention?

a) Mandamus
b) Prohibition
c) Quo-warranto
d) Habeas Corpus
(vi) Which of the following facts is NOT correct with regard to the qualification of the judge of
the High Court?
a) He should be a citizen of India.
b) He should not be over 62 years of age.
c) He should have held a judicial office in India for at least five years.
d) He should have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.
(vii) Who announced that Bahadur Shah Zafar and his family will not be able to reside in the
Red Fort?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Wellington
d) Lord Harding
(viii) Who announced the partition of Bengal?

a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Minto
d) Lord Mayo
(ix)
Session of INC in 1885 Bombay
Session of INC in 1886 ?
a) Calcutta
b) Madras
c) Pune
d) Delhi
(x) Two newspapers by Bal Gangadhar Tilak were __________________ and _____________________.
a) ‘Kesari’ and ‘Statesman’
b) Kesari’ and ‘Sakaal’
c) ‘Kesari’ and ‘Prabhaat’
d) ‘Kesari’ and Mahratta’
(xi) Establishing of national schools and colleges in India as an alternative to government

schools and colleges was one of the programmes of which of the following
movements/events?
a) Non-Cooperation movement
b) Bardoli Satyagraha
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Quit India Movement
(xii) In 1943, S.C. Bose set up the Provisional Government of Free India in which of the
following countries?
a) Myanmar
b) Sri Lanka
c) Maldives
d) Singapore
(xiii) Which institution was entrusted with the work of demarketing the exact boundary
between India and Pakistan at the time of independence?
a) Constitutional Assemblies of India and Pakistan
b) The Boundary Commission
c) The Hunter Commission
d) The British judiciary
(xiv) The immediate cause of the Second World War was

a) The treaty of Versailles
b) Japanese invasion of Manchuria
c) The formation of Berlin-Rome-Tokyo Axis
d) The invasion of Poland by Hitler
(xv) Which of the following organisations was formed after the First World War?
a) Triple Entente
b) The League of Nations
c) The UNO
d) None of the above
(xvi) The number of Judges of International Court of Justice (ICJ) is

a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
Question 2
(i) Define interpellation.
(ii) Discuss any two discretionary functions of the President.
(iii) What was the importance of the Purna Swaraj resolution?
(iv) State any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act passed by the government in 1919.
(v) State any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 that was to decide
the fate of the Princely States.
(vi) Why was the Simon Commission rejected by the Congress?
(vii) Mention two objectives of the League of Nations.
PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)
Question 3
The Indian Parliament hast a wide-ranging power. In this context answer the following
questions:
a) Explain three ways in which the Legislature exercise control over the Executive. [3]
b) Why the Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha? [3]
c) Explain any four Legislative powers of the Union Parliament. [4]
Question 4
The framers of our Constitution adopted the Parliamentary and the Cabinet form of
Government. With reference to this, answer the following questions:
a) Explain three powers of the Prime Minister. [3]
b) What is meant by the collective and Individual Responsibility of the members of the
Cabinet? [3]
c) Mention any four legislative powers of the Cabinet.
Question 5
With reference to the powers and functions of the High Court, explain briefly the meaning
and scope of the following:
a) The High Court as a Court of Record [3]
b) Judicial Review [3]
c) Its Appellate Jurisdiction [4]
SECTION B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)
Question 6
a) Identify the person in the picture above. Mention any two of his reforms. [3]
b) Explain the Ilbert Bill controversy. [3]
c) Discuss the role of press in igniting the feeling of nationalism among Indians. [4]
Question 7
With reference to the Indian National Movement, answer the following:
a) Discuss three methods followed by the early nationalists for their struggle. [3]
b) Who ordered the partition of Bengal? What were the views of the nationalists regarding
this event? [3]
c) Name any two assertive nationalists. Mention two contributions of any one of them. [4]
Question 8
Gandhi’s era is known as the ‘period of mass movement’ in India. In light of this statement,
answer the following questions:
a) Why was the Khilafat movement launched by Gandhi? [3]
b) Mention any three terms of the Gandhi Irwin Pact. [3]
c) Discuss any two causes and two significances of the Quit India Movement. [4]
Question 9
a) Discuss three reasons that led to the rise of Nazism in Germany. [3]
b) List any four similarities between the Nazi and the Fascist ideology. [4]
c) Explain any three results of the Second World War. [3]
Question 10
a) Mention any three objectives of the UNO. [3]
b) Discuss any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3]
c) List any four functions of WHO. [4]
ICSE Board
Class 10 Geography
Mock Paper - 1
attempted from Part II.
Note
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The map given at the end of this question paper must be detached and after marking,
must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iii) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(iv) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is
used to answer the rest of the paper.
PART-I (30 Marks)

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following
questions:
(i) (a) What is the compass direction of Sunset Point from the settlement of Anadra? [2]
(b) What is the pattern of drainage in grid square 2315?
(ii) Mention any two features seen in the map extract which indicate that the region has
seasonal rainfall. [2]
(iii) (a) Give the six-figure grid reference of Anjini Devi ka Mandir. [2]
(b) What is the difference between the slope in grid square 2115 and the one in
1811. Give a reason for your answer.
(iv) What do the following represent? [2]
(a) The red square in grid square 2316.
(b) 4r in grid square 1612.
(v) What is the purpose of: [2]
(a) the fire line in grid square 2316.
(b) the pipeline in grid square 2209.
Question 2
On the outline map of India provided: [10]
(i) Mark the Standard Meridian
(ii) Label the river Yamuna
(iii) Label the Gulf of Khambhat
(iv) Mark and name the Nathu-La Pass
(v) Mark and name the Karakoram Range.
(vi) Shade and name a sparsely populated State in Northeast India
(vii) Mark the Andaman Sea
(viii) Mark with a dot and name Kochi
(ix) Mark and name the winds that bring rain to West Bengal in summer
(x) Print S on the iron mines in Singhbhum.
Question 3
Choose the correct option: [10]
(i) Which of the following regions get adequate rainfall from the Winter Monsoon?
a) The Malabar Coast
b) The Konkan Coast
c) The Telangana Plateau
d) The Southern Coromandel Coast
(ii) Which soil is useful in the growing of tea and coffee?

a) Laterite soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Red soil
d) Yellow soil
(iii) The washing away of the topsoil because of flowing of water over large areas
is known as
a) Sheet
b) Rill
c) Shore
d) Gully
(iv) In which method of soil conservation, trees are planted in rows to break the force of the
winds?
a) Strip cropping
b) Terrace Farming
c) Shelter Belts
d) Crop rotation
(v) Which of the following trees are found in the desert region?
a) Ebony
b) Teak
c) Date palm
d) Chestnut
(vi) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Rainwater harvesting includes collection and storing of rainwater.
b) It is only recently that water harvesting has begun to be practiced in India.
c) Water harvesting is required as there is scarcity of water.
d) It helps in recharging the underground water.
(vii) In which method of waste disposal wastes are decomposed by the aerobic method?
a) Open dumping
b) Sanitary landfills
c) Composting
d) Segregation
(viii) Which is the fastest means of transport?

a) Roadways
b) Railways
c) Waterways
d) Airways
(ix) Which agrobased industry is the second largest organised industry after cotton
textile industries?
a) Sugar
b) Silk
c) Paper
d) Jute
(x) Rourkela steel plant was built with the cooperation of

a) Germany
b) Japan
c) USSR
d) France
Question 4
(a) Name two types of cyclonic systems that affect India and two areas that receive
rainfall from the system. [2]
(b) Give two important characteristics of the southwest monsoon rainfall. [2]
(c) Give reasons for the following: [3]

(i) When the Malabar Coast is receiving heavy rainfall in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is
comparatively dry.
(ii) The Northern Plains of India have a Continental type of climate.
(iii) Central Maharashtra receives little rainfall.
(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
(i) Calculate the annual rainfall experienced by the station.

(ii) Suggest a name for this station, giving a reason for your answer.
(iii) Name the season during which the rainfall is heaviest.
Question 5
(a) What is rainwater harvesting? How is it useful? [3]
(b) What is drip irrigation? Mention one advantage of using this method of irrigation. [2]
(c) Name two states in which tanks are extensively used. Give a reason to explain its
importance as a source of irrigation. [2]
(d) Give three reasons to justify the need to conserve water. [3]
Question 6
(a) Mention any two characteristics of the tropical desert forests. [2]
(b) Explain any three key differences between the tropical evergreen and tropical
deciduous forests. [3]
(c) Give reason for the following: [3]

(i) Tropical evergreen forests always appear green.
(ii) It is important to celebrate programmes like ‘Van Mahotsav’ in India.
(iii) At higher latitudes mosses and lichens are found.
(d) Mention any two objectives of the social forestry. [2]
Question 7
(a) Differentiate between the bangar and the khadar soil. [2]
(b) Identify the soil: [2]

(i) It is a transported soil.
(ii) This soil is suitable for the growth of rice, ragi, tobacco, groundnut and potatoes
(iii) This soil is acidic because of the leaching of alkalis.
(iv) This soil is prominently found in the Deccan region of India.

(i) Alluvial soil is also called the riverine soil.
(ii) Black soil is the residual soil.
(iii) Laterite soil appear red in colour.
(d) Explain the below terms: [3]

(i) Gully erosion
(ii) Afforestation
(iii) Terrace farming
Question 8
(a) Mention two states where manganese is found in India. Mention one use of it. [2]
(b) Mention two advantages of petroleum. [2]
(c) On which river if Hirakud dam located? Discuss two benefits of this dam. [3]
(d) State three advantages of using nuclear energy. [3]
Question 9
(a) Mention two steps that have been taken to improve agricultural production in India.[2]
(b) Mention the sowing months and two crops each that are grown during the rabi and
the kharif season. [3]
(c) Mention two climatic conditions and the type of soil required for the growth of
ground nut. [3]
(d) State two methods that are used to grow tea. [2]
Question 10
(a) Sugar industries have shifted to the south. Give three reasons. [3]
(b) Mention two differences between agro based and mineral based industries. [2]
(c) Where does the Rourkela steel industry get its supply of coal, iron ore and water? [3]
(d) Name two raw materials used by the petrochemical industry. Also, name its two
finished products. [2]
Question 11
(a) Mention two differences between the national and the state highways. [2]
(b) State three advantages of roadways over railways. [2]
(c) Mention any two disadvantages of airways. [2]
(d) Identify the port: [3]

(i) It is located on the coast of Odisha and handles iron ore and coal.
(ii) One of the oldest artificial ports in the country.
(iii) Located in south India, this port export of tea, coffee and spices and the imports
of petroleum oil and fertilisers.
Question 12
(a) What is composting? Mention any two of its advantages. [2]
(b) Waste management is essential. Give two reasons. [2]
(c) Give two reasons as to why reusing of waste is important. [2]
(d) Give reasons: [3]

(i) Dumping of waste is not safe.
(ii) People have begun using bags of jute or cotton.
(iii) It is important to recycle the wastes.
ICSE
Class 10
Geography
H.C.G. Mock Paper - 2
attempted from Part II.
Note
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The map given at the end of this question paper must be detached and after
marking, must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iii) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(iv) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which
is used to answer the rest of the paper.
PART-I (30 Marks)

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following
questions:
(i) Give the six figure grid reference of: [2]
(a) (b) A lined well near Ganguwada
(ii) (a) What does 3r in the grid square 8895 mean? [2]
(b) What do you mean by 20r in the grid square 8994?
(iii) (a) What does the blue line in the Varkanala indicate?
(b)What is the general direction of Varkanala?
(iv) (a) Name two types of vegetation in the given map extract. [2]
(b) What is the pattern of drainage in the grid square 8599?
(v) (a) What is the general pattern of settlement? Why?

(b) What is the common means of transportation in the southern part of this map?
Question 2
On the outline map of India provided: [10]
(a) Mark and name Chennai
(b) Label the river Godavari
(c) Shade and label the Chota Nagpur Plateau
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Kachchh
(e) Mark and name the Indo Gangetic Plains
(f) Shade and label an area with red soil
(g) Mark and name the winds which bring rain to Mumbai in July and August
(h) Mark and name the Satpura Range
(i) Mark and name Jharia Coal Field
(j) Shade and label the Northern Circar coastal region.
Question 3
Choose the correct option: [10]
(i) Which of the following states receives rainfall due to western disturbances?
a) Kerela
b) West Bengal
c) Gujarat
d) Punjab
(ii) Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the black soil?
a) It is easy to plough the soil when it is wet.
b) It is clayey and is finely textured soil.
c) It is highly water retentive.
d) The soil is suitable for the cultivation of cotton and sugarcane.
(iii) The Name the process of removal of soluble mineral salts, especially the bases & silica
from horizon A or the top soil by percolating rain water.
a) Pedogenesis
b) Lithification
c) Leaching
d) Conglomeration
(iv) “The trunks of trees are supported by several stilt roots which are submerged under
water”. This is a characteristic feature of which of the following type of vegetation?
a) Littoral forests
b) Tropical evergreen forests
c) Coniferous forests
d) Tropical deciduous forests
(v) Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands have which kind of forests?
a) Tropical deciduous forests
b) Littoral forests
c) Tropical evergreen forests
d) Dry scrub forests
(vi) Which of the following is not a conventional means of irrigation?

a) Tank irrigation
b) Furrow irrigation
c) Well irrigation
d) Canal irrigation
(vii) Which resource generates electricity by anaerobic degradation of animals and plant
wastes in presences of water?
a) Coal
b) Hot stream
c) Oceanic tides
d) Biogas
(viii) Which of the following statements is not true about the airways?
a) It is the fastest means of transport.
b) It has made many mountainous regions accessible.
c) It is within the reach of the common people.
d) Special provisions have been made for the people of Northeast states for air travel.
(ix) Which of the following industries is generally located near an oil refinery?
a) Iron and steel industry
b) Petrochemical industry
c) Heavy industry
d) Electronic industry
(x) Which type of farming is practiced by a majority of the farmers in India?

a) Shifting agriculture
b) Subsistence agriculture
c) Intensive agriculture
d) Extensive farming
Question 4
(a) Mention the different sources of rain in Punjab and Tamil Nadu during the winter
season. [2]
(b) State the benefits that are derived from the local winds that blow in summer in the
following states:
(i) Kerala
(ii) West Bengal [2]

(i) Kolkata receives heavier rainfall than Kanpur.
(ii) Trivendrum is not cold even in the month of December.
(iii) Rajasthan is a dry state.
(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
(i) Identify the hottest month.

(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall.
(iii) Suggest a name for this station, giving a reason for your answer.
Question 5
(a) Name two states in which tube wells are extensively used. Give a reason to explain
its importance as a source of irrigation. [2]
(b) Mention two advantages that surface wells have over inundation canals. [2]
(c) Give reasons: [3]

(i) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka.
(ii) Sprinkler irrigation is practiced in arid and semi-arid regions.
(iii) Canal irrigation may make ground around it unproductive.
(d) State three objectives of rainwater harvesting. [3]
Question 6
(a) Mention any three characteristics of the montane forests. [3]
(b) Briefly explain two reasons for forests being an important natural resource. [2]
(c) Give reason for the following: [3]

(i) Plants in tropical deserts have waxy leaves.
(ii) Trees in the littoral forest grow aerial roots.
(iii) The forest cover in India is shrinking
(d) Why are tropical evergreen forests difficult to exploit? Give two reasons. [3]
Question 7
(a) Which soil will you associate with the Deccan Trap? State any two advantages of this
soil. [2]
(b) With regard to the red soils, answer the following questions:
(i) Name two states where it is found.
(ii) Mention two characteristics of this soil.
(c) State any two methods of controlling soil erosion.
(d) Give reasons for the following: [3]

(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile.
(ii) Different regions in India having different kinds of soil.
(iii) The conservation of soil as a natural resource.
Question 8
(a) Mention two states where iron ore is found in India. Mention one use of it. [2]
(b) (i) Name two major coalfields in India. [2]

(ii) State two disadvantages of using coal.
(c) (i) Name a place which supplies more than three-fourths of India’s natural gas.
(ii) Mention two disadvantages of using natural gas. [2]
(d) Give reasons for the following: [3]

(i) The Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources has been promoting the
Biogas Programme in India.
(ii) People have started using solar energy.
(iii) Copper is used to make electric wires.
Question 9
(a) Mention two institutional problems faced by the Indian agriculture. [2]
(b) With reference to rice cultivation, answer the following questions: [3]
(i) Name two leading rice producing states in the country.
(ii) Give two advantages of growing rice in nurseries.
(iii) Why does rice grow well in a soil with a clay like subsoil?
(c) (i) Mention two climatic conditions required for the growth of wheat. [2]
(ii) Why is the yield of wheat is low in Madhya Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh?
(d) With regard to sugarcane production, answer the following questions: [3]
(i) Explain sett method of sowing sugarcane.
(ii) After harvesting, sugarcane has to be taken to the mill within 24 hours.
(iii) Name the state that is the largest producer of sugarcane in South India.
Question 10
(a) Give one difference between the following: [2]
(i) Agro-based and mineral based industries
(ii) Heavy industries and light industries
(b) Give one reason for the following: [2]

(i) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country.
(ii) The Iron and Steel industry constitutes the backbone of modern industrial
economy.
(c) With reference to the cotton textile industry, answer the following questions: [2]
(i) Mumbai is known as the ‘cottonpolis’ of India. Give reason.
(ii) State two problems faced by the cotton textile industries in India.
(d) With reference to Tata iron and steel plant answer the following: [3]
(i) Where is it located?
(ii) From where does it get the supply of coal?
(iii) What is the source of its water supply?
Question 11
(a) With regard to the National Highways, answer the following questions: [2]
(i) Who construct and maintains the national highways?
(ii) Why has there been an increase in the traffic on national highways?
(b) Mention three disadvantages of using waterways. [3]
(c) Explain three advantages of the airways. [3]
(d) Mention two disadvantages of the railways. [3]
Question 12
(a) There is a need for waste management in India? Give two reasons. [2]
(b) What is recycling of wastes? Why is it important? (Give two reasons) [3]
(c) Explain segregation method of waste management. [2]
(d) Mention three limitations of open dumping of wastes. [3]
ICSE Board
Class 10 English Language
Mock Paper - 1
Time: 2 Hours. Total Marks: 80
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all five questions.

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [].
You are advised to spend not more than 30 minutes in answering Question 1 and 20 minutes in
answering Question 2.
1. (Do not spend more than 30 minutes on this question.) Write a composition (300
- 350 words) on any one of the following: [20]
a. Write an original short story entitled ‘The Broken Trust’.
b. ‘Offices are no longer required as employees can work from their homes.‘
Express your views either for or against this statement.
c. Think of a time when you found yourself in an embarrassing situation. Narrate how
you got into that situation, how you dealt with it and the lesson you learnt from it.
d. Describe an area in your city or hometown which is famous for its street food. Give
details of the familiar sights and sounds you would experience on this street.
e. Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account of what it
suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you
may take suggestions from it; however, there must be a clear connection between
the picture and your composition.
2. (Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)

Select any one of the following: [10]
(i)Write a letter to your friend congratulating him/her on passing the class 12 board
examination with flying colours.
(ii) You have planned to organise a health camp at School. Write a letter to the Manager
of Supermarket requesting sponsorship for the event. Name the event and explain how
it will benefit both the community as well as the supermarket. Select any one of the
following:
3.
(i) Write a notice informing about a ‘Swachh Bharat’ campaign to be held in your city.[5]
(ii) Write an e-mail, addressed to the Principal of the neighbouring school to inform
them about a two-day tree plantation drive, organized by your School. Request them to
participate in the drive, and refer to some awards to be given to the students who will
plant most trees. [5]
4. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: [20]
The outbreak of novel Corona virus has created an unprecedented situation around the
world. Humankind is no stranger to calamitous outbreaks of disease. However, this is
the first viral outbreak of this nature and scale in our lifetime. The outbreak has forced
us to keep a respectful distance from others. This isolation, self-imposed or medically
mandated, can be taken as an ideal opportunity to ponder on our journey so far and the
future path as we are passing through a tough phase. Let’s turn this challenge into an
opportunity and try to decipher what nature has been telling us through this crisis. We
all know that hygiene is the first and obvious lesson, precaution is the only cure for this
new strain of corona virus. As precaution, what doctors advise, basic hygiene apart
from social distancing, sanitation and cleanliness are among the humblest of civic
virtues and its easy to underestimate their significance. It needed a Mahatma to attach
the utmost priority to them in South Africa and in India his historic campaigns always
begin with or run parallel to the question of sanitation and hygiene. In 1896, Gandhiji
was visiting India and plague broke out in Bombay. He offered his services to the State
which was accepted. Do you know what he did as a volunteer?
He inspected lavatories and exhorted people to pay attention to cleanliness. We need to
imbibe all his lessons in our daily life and in this year of his 150th birth anniversary we
may begin by rededicating ourselves to the cause of personal and social hygiene. The
nationwide Swachh Bharat Mission is a precursor to this great social awakening.
Respect for nature may be the next lesson intended for us as homo sapiens is the only
organism that has overpowered all other animals or taken control of the whole planet
and even set foot clear on the moon. Now it stands humbled by a micro-organism. We
would do well to keep in mind the fact that at the end of the day we are merely
biological organisms dependant on other organisms for survival humankind’s craving
to control nature and exploit all its resources for profit can be wiped out in a stroke by
an organism we cannot even see with the naked eyes. Let's remind ourselves that our
ancestors saw nature as mother and asked us to respect it. At some point, in history, we
forgot ancient wisdom when pandemic and abnormal weather phenomena are
becoming the norm. It's time to pause and wonder where we lost the way and how we
can still make a come back. Equality may be a factor less apparent but nature tells us
that we all are equal. This new virus strikes beyond man made distinctions of religion,
race and region. The world has been busy drawing distinction and waging wars over us
versus them, but we suddenly realise that in the face of a grave mortal threat like the
present one we have but one identity we are human beings.
(Source - The Times Of India, March 20, 2020 By The Hon'ble President Ram Nath
Kovind)
(A) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage)
from the options provided. [3]
(a) unprecedented
(i) known (ii) unknown (iii) well-known (iv) best known
(b) precursor
(i) predecessor (ii) pioneer (iii) slave (iv) dominating
(c) apparent
(i) sticky (ii) talkative (iii) clear (iv) formal
(B) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words.

(a) What is the ‘unprecedented situation’ around the world these days? [2]
(b) What are the precautions to be taken to avoid the disease as per the doctors? [2]
(c) What is the precursor to the great social awakening of cleanliness? [1]
(d) How can you say that Gandhiji’s campaigns would always begin with the
question of sanitation and hygiene? [2]
(e) How has the pandemic affected our kinship with other humans? [2]
(C) In not more than 50 words, describe the way that humans have been humbled by
any other organism on the planet. [8]
5. (i) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in
brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order the word or phrase
appropriate to the blank space. [4]
Example: A woman (0)..............(wait) at an airport one night, with several long hours
before her flight.
She (1)............(hunt) for a book in the airport shops, (2)...........(buy) a bag of cookies and
found a place to sit. She (3)..........(engross) in her book but happened to see that the man
sitting beside her, bold as could be, grabbled a cookie or two from the bag in between,
which she tried to ignore to avoid a scene. So she (4).......... (munch) the cookies and
watched the clock, as the gutsy thief diminished her stock. She (5)......... (get) more
irritated as the minutes ticked by, thinking, "If I wasn't so nice, I (6)..........(black) his eye."
With each cookie she took, he took one too. When only one was left, she wondered what
he would do. With a smile on his face, and a nervous laugh, he (7).............(take) the last
cookie and broke it in half. He offered her half, as he ate the other. She had never known
she could be so angry and turned to gather her belongings. As she reached for her
baggage. She gasped with surprise, there was her bag of cookies, in front of her eyes. If
mine are here, she moaned in despair, the others were his, and he (8)...........(try) to share
(ii) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. [4]
(A) There was a steep rise .............. onion prices.

(B) Air pollution is responsible for the spread .............. bronchitis.
(C) He was .............. pressure to complete the work.
(D) Joan jumped .............. the river to rescue the child.
(E) His teacher is very pleased.............. him.
(F) Ali took .............. his cap and wiped his face.
(G) The old woman could not get .............. the shock.
(H) He should not get.............. with such rudeness.
(iii) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but
or so. Choose the correct option. [4]
1. She is pretty. She is intelligent.
A. She is pretty as well as intelligent.
B. She is pretty and intelligent.
C. She is pretty also intelligent.
D. She is pretty much intelligent.
2. Jane is quite friendly. Her brother is rather reserved.

A. Jane is quite friendly and her brother is rather reserved.
B. Jane is quite friendly whereas her brother is rather reserved.
C. Jane is quite friendly also her brother is rather reserved.
D. Jane is quite friendly whether her brother is rather reserved.
3. They gave her the best treatment. They could not save her.
A. Although / though they gave her the best treatment, they could not save her.
B. If they gave her the best treatment, they could not save her.
C. Because they gave her the best treatment, they could not save her.
D. But they gave her the best treatment, they could not save her.
4. Winston Churchill was a great statesman. He was a great writer.

A. Winston Churchill was a great statesman but also a great writer.
B. Winston Churchill was not only a great statesman but also a great writer.
C. Winston Churchill was not only a great statesman a great writer.
D. Winston Churchill was not a great statesman but also a great writer.
(iv) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each
sentence. Choose the correct options. [8]
1. Ritu said to the old man, “Where do you live?”
(Begin ‘Ritu….’)
(a) Ritu told the old man where did he live.
(b) Ritu told the old man where he lived.
(c) Ritu asked the old man where he lived.
(d) Ritu asked the old man where did he live.
2. If you tell me the truth, I shall not punish you.

(Use: ‘unless’)
(a) Unless you tell me the truth, I shall punish you.
(b) Unless I punish you, shall not tell me the truth.
(c) Unless I punish you, you shall tell me the truth.
(d) Unless you tell me the truth, I shall not punish you.
3. In spite of repeated warnings Anshul paid no heed.

(Use: Despite’)
(a) Despite paying repeated warnings Anshul does not heed.
(b) Despite repeated warnings Anshul paid no heed.
(c) Despite paying no heed Anshul has been repeatedly warned.
(d) Despite of repeated warning Anshul paid no heed.
4. Rajiv is too weak to walk.

(Begin: Rajiv is...)
(a) Rajiv is so weak so he cannot walk.
(b) Rajiv is so weak to walk.
(c) Rajiv is so weak that he cannot walk.
(d) Rajiv is so weak that he can walk.
5. The students were trying to guess how high the apartment was.
(Use ‘height’)
(a) The students were trying to guess how higher the apartment was.
(b) The students were trying to guess the height of the apartment.
(c) The students guessed how high was the apartment.
(d) The students tried to know how high the apartment was.
6. The National Anthem began when I reached school.

(Begin: No sooner.....)
(a) No sooner had the National Anthem began then I reached school.
(b) No sooner had I reached school than the National Anthem began.
(c) No sooner does the National Anthem begin than I reached school.
(d) No sooner had I reached school then the National Anthem began.
7. The news has been brought to us by him.

(Begin: He...)
(a) He brought us the news.
(b) He was brought the news to us.
(c) He has brought us the news.
(d) He bought us the news.
8. What long hair you have!

(Begin: How ...............)
(a) How long you have hair!
(b) How long is your hair!
(c) How long your hair is!
(d) How long hair do you have?
ICSE Board
Class 10 English Literature
Mock Paper - 1
Time: 3 Hours. Total Marks: 80
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
This time is to be spent reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in
brackets [ ].
SECTION A
Question 1.
Choose the correct options for the following questions:
i. What did the daffodils ‘out-did in glee’?

a. the waves of the river
b. the waves of the bay
c. the waves of the sea
d. the waves of the pool
ii. Why does the bird ‘open’ his throat to sing’?

a. to express his love for flying in the sky
b. to express his rebellion against oppression
c. to express his hope to be with his partner in future
d. to make others hear his melodious voice
iii. The air broke into a mist of bells’. Which bells are mentioned here?
a. Christmas bells
b. Bells which the people were ringing
c. Church bells
d. Temple bells
iv. An angel is a:
a. heavenly being
b. foreteller
c. predictor
d. messenger of God
v. The poem ‘Nine Gold Medals’ refer to the Special Olympics for the:
a. women athletes
b. male athletes
c. differently-abled athletes
d. youth athletes
vi. The common consensus of the villagers was that the poor house would be a ..................
a. a temporary place for Maggie
b. a blessing for Maggie
c. a course for Maggie
d. a safehouse for Maggie
vii. What does ‘cold’ symbolise in the story ‘The Little Match Girl’?
a. problems, struggle and death
b. need for warmth and death
c. hardships, desperation and hopelessness
d. the cold winter season
viii. What caught the attention of Sibia in the sweetmeat stall?

a. Sugar cane
b. Savoury
c. Magenta syrup
d. Honey confections
ix. According to Jesse Owens, what was his greatest Olympic Prize?
a. the four medals he won
b. Hitler's defeat
c. the prize money he received
d. his friendship with Luz Long
x. What caused silence on the planet, Venus?

a. The rain had finally stopped which resulted in silence.
b. The teacher had asked them to keep quiet.
c. The children were scared.
d. None of the above.
xi. What does Salonio wish about the news of Antonio’s shipwreck?
a. that it is a white lie.
b. that it is a lie which would please only Shylock.
c. that it is a lie as gossiped by an old lady.
d. that it is a rumour that won’t spread like wildfire.
xii. Which character hands over the ring to Portia?

a. Gratiano
b. Bassanio
c. Antonio
d. Lorenzo
xiii. Whom does Jessica say to have an ‘upright life’?

a. Lorenzo
b. Antonio
c. Bassanio
d. Gratiano
xiv. Where does Portia tell everyone that she is going?

a. to Padua
b. to a monastery
c. to her room
d. to Nerissa’s House
xv. What does Shylock want the Duke to allow him?

a. to take back his daughter Jessica with him
b. to allow the lawyer to have justice
c. to take his revenge on Antonio by putting him in jail
d. to have his bond and do justice to him
xvi. What is meant by–'the skull that bred them in the sepulchre’?
a. the false hair worn by a woman originally belonged to a dead woman lying in the
grave
b. the golden locks of a woman will became dust in the grave
c. the beauty of the Elizabethan women is fake
d. the false hair worn by women will not turn grey with age.
SECTION B
DRAMA
The Merchant of Venice: William Shakespeare
Question 2.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Portia: I never did repent for doing good
Nor shall not now: for in companions
That do converse and waste the time together,
Whose souls do bear an equal yoke of love,
There must be needs a like proportion of lineaments, of manners, and of spirit,
Which make me think that this Antonio,
Being the bosom lover of my lord,
Must needs be like my lord.
i. To who is Portia relying on in this manner? What has that person just said to Portia?
[3]
ii. Explain the meaning of ‘companions that do converse and waste the time together.'
What is meant by ‘equal yokes of love’ and ‘lineaments’? [3]
iii. What makes Portia come to the conclusion that Antonio and Bassanio are similar?[3]
iv. Explain the relationship that exists between Antonio and Bassanio. [3]
v. Bring out the similarity between Antonio and Portia’s generosity. [4]
Question 3.
Shylock, the world thinks, and I think so too,
That thou but lead’st this fashion of thy malice
To the last hour of the act; and then ’tis thought
Thou'lt show thy mercy and remorse more strange
Than is thy strange apparent cruelty,
And where thou now exact'st the penalty—
Which is a pound of this poor merchant’s flesh—
Thou wilt not only lose the forfeiture
But, touch'd with human gentleness and love,—
forgive a moiety of the principal;
Glancing an eye of pity on his losses,
That have of late so huddled on his back,
i. Where is this scene set? Who is the speaker? [3]

ii. What task does the speaker have before him? What ‘fashion’ is Shylock leading? [3]
iii. What does the speaker expect from Shylock? [3]
iv. What does the speaker mean by ‘Glancing an eye of pity on his losses’? [3]
v. Who is the 'poor merchant' referred to in the extract? Compare his present state to
that of his past state. [4]
SECTION C
Treasure Trove: Prose
A Collection of Short Stories
Question 4.
“We’ll keep her a day or two longer; she is so weak and helpless,” said Mrs Joe Thompson, in
answer to her husband’s remark, at breakfast time on the next morning, that he must step
down and see the Guardians of the poor about Maggie."
i. What were Mr Thompson’s feelings when he saw the child carefully for the first time?
[3]
ii. What was the subject of discussion between Joe and Maggie? [3]
iii. Mrs Thompson pretended to be indifferent to the child. Was she actually? [3]
iv. How was the behaviour of Mrs Thompson transformed completely? [3]
v. What kind of life were the Thompsons leading? How did the little girl prove to be an
angel for them? [4]
Question 5.
Her bare feet smudged out the wriggle-mark of snakes in the dust; there was the thin singing
of malaria mosquitoes among the trees now, and this track was much used at night by morose
old makna elephant–the Tuskless One, but Sibia was not thinking of any of them. The stars
came out: she noticed.
i. Why did Sibia go back to the riverside [3]
ii. What strange object did she see in the water? [3]
iii. Give one example from the text to exemplify that even though Sibia worked and
lived like an adult, she was still a child at heart. [3]
iv. What was the greatest triumph of Sibia that day? [3]
v. What happened to the crocodile after he was attacked by Sibia? [4]
SECTION D
Treasure Trove: Poetry
Question 6
A free bird leaps
on the back of the wind
and floats downstream
till the current ends
and dips his wing
in the orange sun rays
and dares to claim the sky.
i. Who is referred to as a free bird in the poem? Why? [3]
ii. What is meant by the ‘orange sun rays’? [3]
iii. How does the free bird dare to claim the sky? [3]
iv. What is the free bird metaphor for here? Explain. [3]
v. How does the poet show her love for nature through this stanza? [4]
Question 7.
He gave out a cry of frustration and anguish
His dreams and his efforts dashed in the dirt
But as sure as I'm standing here telling the story
Now it's a strange one, but here's what occurred
i. Who is 'he' referred to here? What were his dreams? What made him cry out? [3]
ii. How had these participants prepared themselves for this competition? Explain how
did the young man feel after falling on the tracks. [3]
iii. What incident occurred to make the poet call it 'Strange'? [3]
iv. How did the other contestants react? What does it say about their character? [3]
v. Describe the manner in which the race ended. [4]
ICSE Board
Class 10 Hindi
Mock Paper – 1
Time: 3 Hours. Maximum Marks: 80
सामान्य निर्दे श :
1. इस प्रश्नपत्र में र्दो खंड हैं - खंड 'क' और ख'। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुववकल्पी
और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/वर्णिात्मक प्रश्न र्दीए गए हैं ।
2. प्रश्नपत्र के र्दोिों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवायण हैं ।
3. यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमािुसार निखीए।
4. खंड 'क' में कुि 10 प्रश्न हैं , जििमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है । र्दीए गए निर्दे शों
का पािि करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दे िा अनिवायण है ।
5. खंड 'ख' में कुि 7 प्रश्न हैं , सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उिके ववकल्प भी र्दीए गए हैं ।
निर्दे शािुसार ववकल्प का ध्याि रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दीजिए।
1. निम्िनिजखत ववषयों मेंसेककसी 'एक' ववषय पर िगभग 250 शब्र्दों मेंसजषं जषप्त िेख
निजख ए। (15)
1) नमत्रता ववद्याथी िीवि का अिमोि उपहार है , सच्चा नमत्र िीवि की मुजककििों
को आसाि करके उसे िीिेिायक बिाता है ; ववषय को अपिे शब्र्दों में स्पष्ट
कीजिए।
2) कोरोिा महामारी िे हम सब को परे शाि कर कर्द या है । िॉकडाउि की अवनि में
आपको कक ि परे शानियों का सामिा करिा पडा, िॉकडाउि का प्रभाव अच्छा था या
बरा अपिे ववचार निजखए।
3) आि का यगु ववज्ञापि का यगु है , वव ज्ञापि हमारे िीवि में
ककस प्रकार हावी है अपिे ववचार निजखए।
4) 'अतं भिेका भिा', इस कहावत को स्पष्ट करती
एक मौनिक कहािी निजखए।
5) िीचेकर्दए गए नचत्र को ध्याि से र्दे खकर उसके आिार पर

कोई िेख, घटिा, अथवा कहािी निजखए;
जिसका सीिा सबंिं नचत्र सेहो।
2. निम्िनिजखत में से ककसी 'एक' ववषय पर िगभग 120 शब्र्दों मेंपत्र निजखए।
(7)
1) छात्रावास में रहिे वािे छोटे भाई को 'पढाई का महत्व' बताते हुए पत्र
निजखए।
2) 'बडै नमटं ि प्रनशषर्' की सुवविा उपिब्ि करवािे हे तु ववद्यािय के
प्रिािाचायण को पत्र निजखए।
3. निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि सेपढकर उसके िीचेनिखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर अपिे

शब्र्दों में निजखए। (10)
आर्दशण अध्यापक ववद्वाि होता है । उसका सभी वव षयों पर समाि अनि कार
होता है । िब वह वव द्यानथण यनथण को समझाता है , तो छात्र सहि ही उसे ग्रहर्
कर िेते हैं । आर्दशण अध्यापक वव द्वाि होिेके साथ ही अध्यापिकुशि भी होता
है । उसकी सपं र्णण र्णचेष्टा केवि इसी बात की ओर रहती है कक वह जि स वव
षय को पढा रहा है , वह छात्रों के ह्रर्दय पटि पर सही तरह से अककं ककत हो
िाए।
अध्यापि से िो समय बच िाता है , उसे वह अपिे पठि-पाठि में िगाता है ।
वह छात्रों में समािता एवं राष्ट्र भाविा िागतृ करता है । र्दीि और असहाय
छात्रों की सहायता करिा, वह अपिा परम कतणव्र्त य समझता है । आर्दशण
अध्यापक का ह्रर्दय प्रेम से ओत प्रोत होता है । उसकी वार्ी सर्दा प्रेम सेही भरी
रहती है िम्रता उसके िीवि में शोभा बिकर नि वास करती है । वह बाह्य
आडबंर एवं कृ वत्रमता से र्दरू रहता है । उसके िम्र और षमाशीि िीवि में
सार्दगी सफिता की भांनत शोभा र्दे ती है । वह ज्ञाि और गंभीरता का भंडार होते
हुए भी सभी के साथ नमिकर रहता है । वह अपिे छात्रों को अिशुासि में
रखता है पर उसके अिशुासि में दृढता होती है , कठोरता िहीं। वह छात्रों को
अपिी सहािुभनण त और कुशिता से ऐसे िागेसे बांि िेता है कक छात्र उसके पर्द
नचन्हों पर स्वयं ही चििे िगते हैं । वह छात्रों को भयरकहत करके प्रेम और
सहािुभनण त के द्वारा योग्य िागररक बििे में उिकी सहायता करता है ।
प्रश्न
1) आर्दशण अध्यापक कैसा होता है ?
2) अध्यापि कुशिता से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
3) अध्यापक के अिशुासि की क्या ववशषेता होती है ?
4) अध्यापक का िीवि ककि गर्ुोंसे सुशोनभत होता है ?
5) गद्यांश के ककस शब्र्द का अथण 'अिसुरर् करिा' होता है ?
4. निम्िनिजखत प्रश्नों के उत्तर निर्दे शािुसार निजखए।

1) 'रसीिा' का वव िोम शब्र्द चिकर निजखए।
(A) मीठा
(B) रसहीि
(C) फीका
(D) गिं हीि
2) 'अचािक' शब्र्द का पयाणयवाची निजखए।

(A) अभी-अभी
(B) तत्काि
(C) यकायक
(D) वबिा रके
3) 'मौनिक' शब्र्द की भाववाचक संज्ञा होगी

(A) महािता
(B) मौनिकपि
(C) मणल्य
(D) मौनिकता
4) 'साहस' का ववशेषर् बताइए
(A) साहसता
(B) सरहर्द
(C) साहसी
(D) सराहिा
5) 'आनशणवनशण शब्र्द' का शुद्ध रूप है

(A) आशीवाणर्द
(B) आनशवाणर्द
(C) आशीवार्दण
(D) आसीवाणर्द
6) 'होम कर र्दे िा ' महुावरे का अथण है

(A) बुझा र्दे िा
(B) ििा र्दे िा
(C) बनिर्दाि कर र्दे िा
(D) भाग िािा
7) निर्दे शािुसार वाक्य बताइए

अतं मेंमाता िी को कोई आशा ि रही। (निराशा शब्र्द का प्रयोग कीजिए)
(A) अतं में माता िी को कोई निराशा ि रही।
(B) अतं में माता िी निराश हो गई।
(C) मातािी निराश िहीं हुई।
(D) माता िी कभी निराश िहीं हुई।
8) कर्दए गए वाक्य में 'कर कर्दया' का प्रयोग कर वाक्य बिाइए।

र्दे श का हर िागररक भ्रष्टाचार से पीकडत हो गया।
(A) भ्रष्टाचारिे र्दे श के हर िागररक को पीकडत करकर्दया।
(B) पीकडत करकर्दया था हर िागररक को भ्रष्टाचारिे।
(C) कर कर्दया है पीकडत भ्रष्टाचारिे हर िागररक को।
(D) हर िागररक पीकडत करकर्दया र्दे श के भ्रष्टाचार िे।
SECTION. B
Attempt FOUR questions from this section.
You must answer at least ONE question from each of the two books, you have
studied. And any TWO other questions.
साकहत्य सागर - सजषं जषप्त कहानियां
SAHITYA SAGAR - Short Stories
5. Read the extract given below and answer in HINDI the questions that
follow.
गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए:
"पतंग आई, एक अँिेरे घर में उस मेंडोर बांिी िािेिगी, कयामणिे िीरे से कहा,
भोिा कक सी सेिा कहो तो एक बात कहंण ?"
(काकी-नसयारामशरर् गुप्त)
प्रश्न: -
1) भोिा कौि था? कयामणऔर भोिा में क्या अतंर था।? (2)
2) कयामण िे पतंग ककससे मगंवाई चवन्िी र्दे कर सुजखया र्दासी के िडके से
क्या कहा? (2)
3) भोिािे कयामणकी योििा में क्या कमी बताई? (3)
4) कयामणकी योििा की कमी को परूा करिे में क्या ककठिाई थी? (3)
6. निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पकढए और उसके िीचे कर्दए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

उसकी आखं खुि गई थी, हाथ िोडकर बोिा, "हुिरू यह मेरा पहिा अपराि
है , इस बार माफ कर र्दीजिए, कफर गिती िा होगी। "
(बात अठन्िी की - सर्दश
ु ि
ण शण)
1) रसीिा िे क्या ककया था उसका मकु र्दमा ककसके सामिे पेश हुआ? (2)
2) यकर्द वह चाहता तो ककस प्रकार बच सकता था? (2)
3) 'उसकी आखं खुि गई थी', से क्या आशय है ?
4) उसिे िि से क्या प्राथणिाा की? (3)
7. Read the extra given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
िहीं साब! वह िगं डा क्या िाएगा फौि में? पागि है पागि! वो र्दे खो वो आ
रहा है ।
1) हािर्दार साहब को कौि-सी बात ववनचत्र और कौतुक से भरी िग रही थी?
उन्होंिे पािवािेसे क्या पणछाा? (2)
2) पाि वािेिे कैप्टि के बारे में हािर्दार साहब को क्या बताया? उन्हें क्या
अच्छा िहीं िगा? (2)
3) चकमेवािेका पररचय र्दीजिए उसे कैप्टि क्यों कहते थे? (3)
4) "िाि कािी बत्तीसी" का प्रयोग ककसके निए ककया गया है ? उसका पररचय
र्दीजिए। (3)
साकहत्य सागर (पद्य)

SAHITYA SAGAR - (POEM)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि सेपकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
पाहि पणिे हरर नमिें, तो मैं पणिण पहार।
ताते ये चाकी भिी, पीस खाय संसार
गुर गोववर्दं र्दोऊ खडे , काके िागणपाय।
बनि हारी गुर आपिे, गोववंर्द कर्दयो बताय।
(साखी - कबीरर्दास)
1) "पाहि पणिे हरर नमिें ", इि पवतं वत यों में कबीर िे
ककस आडबंर का ववरोि ककया है ? इसे सावबत करिे के निए
उन्होंिे कौि-सा उर्दाहरर् कर्दया है ? (2)
2) कबीर के अिुसार गुर का स्थाि भगवाि से ऊंचा है - कैसे? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(2)
3) कबीर िे गुर के महत्व का वर्णि ककस प्रकार ककया है ? (3)
4) कबीर का सजषंप्त पररचय निजखए। (3)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत पद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
गुि के गाहक सहस िर, वबिु गुि िहै ि कोय।
िैसे कागा कोककिा, शब्र्द सुिै सब कोय।।
शब्र्द सुिै सब कोय, कोककिा सबै सुहावि।
र्दोऊ को एक रं ग, काग सब भये अपावि।।
कह नगररिर कवबराय सुिो हो ठाकुर मि के।
वबिु गुर् िहै ि कोई सहस िर गाहक गुर् के॥
(कुण्डनियाँ नगररिर राय)।
1) 'गिु के गाहक सहस िर', पवतं का क्या आशय है ? (2)
2) कौवा और कोयि में क्या अतंर है ? सभी िोग कोयि को क्यों पसर्दं करते
हैं ? (2)
3) िोग कक स से अपमानित करते हैं और क्यों? (3)
4) कवव 'मि के ठाकुर' से क्या कह रहे हैं ? और इससे हमें क्या सीख नमिती
है ? (3)
follow.
िीचे कर्दए गए पद्यांश को ध्याि सेपकढ ए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
मेघ आए बडे बि - ठि के सवंरके।
आगे-आगे िाचती - गाती बयार चिी,
र्दरवािे-जखडककयां खिु िेिगी गिी-गिी,
पाहुि ज्यों आए हों, गांव मेंशहर के।
िाचते गाते हुए कौि चि रहा है और क्यों
मेघ आए बडे बि - ठिके सवंरके।
(मेघ आए - सवेश्वरर्दयाि सक्सेिा)
1) उपयुक्र्
ण युत पवतं वत यों का प्रसगं स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
2) िाचते गाते हुए कौि चि रहा है और क्यों? (2)
3) गांव में कौि और कैसे आया है ? (3)
4) र्दरवािे जखडककयां क्यों खिु िेिगी? (3)
िया रास्ता (सषुमा अग्रवाि)

NAYA RASTA. (Sushama Agarwal)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को ध्याि सेपकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
इस तरह की बातेंसिु कर मीिणका चचं ि ह्रर्दय बेचिै हो उठा उसके ह्रर्दय की
पीडा को कोई िहीं समझ पाता था।
1) मीिणकी बेचिै का क्या कारर् था? (2)
2) मीिणके ह्रर्दय को चचंि क्यों कहा गया है (2)
3) क्या मीिणएक सहिशीि िडकी थी? अपिे ववचार निजखए। (3)
4) प्रस्ततु उपन्यास का उद्दे कय संषेप में निजखए। (3)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्दए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
उन्हें अपिी बेटी पर गवण था। इतिी स्वानभ मािी वह उर्दार चरर त्र की बेटी
पाकर वेअपिेको िन्य महससण कर रहे थे।
1) अपिी बेटी पर गवण कक सेथा और क्यों? (2)
2) गद्यांश में बेटी के ककि गुर्ों का उल्िेख ककया गया है ? (2)
3) मािवीय गुर्ों से युत बच्चेपाकर माता-वपता िन्य हो िाते हैं स्पष्ट
कीजिए। (3)
4) मिोहर कौि था? मीिणिे उसकी मर्दर्द कैसेकी? (3)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए। मीिणके
ह्रर्दय मेंहीि भाविा के कारर् िो र्दखु के भाव थे, ख़ुशी में पररवनतणत हो गए।
प्रथम श्रेर्ी मेंपास होिे पर वह फणिी िहींसमाई।
1) मीिणके ह्रर्दय में हीि भाविा क्यों आ गई थी? (2)
2) मीिणको अपिे परीषा पररर्ाम की सचणिा कहां नमिी थी? (2)
3) िीनिमा और मीिणके बीच क्या सबंिं थे मीिण िीनिमाको ककस बात की

सचणिा र्दे िे आई थी? (3)
4) मीिणकी प्रसन्िता और उर्दासी के क्या कारर् थे? स्पष्ट कीजिए। (3)
एकांकी सचंय
EKANKI SANCHAY
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
मैं कहा करता हंण िा बेटा! कक एक बार वृष से िो डािी टण ट गई, उसे िाख
पािी र्दो, उसमें वह सरसता िा आएगी और हमारा पररवार बरगर्द के इस
महाि पेड की भांनत है ।
(सुखी-डािी - उपेंद्रिाथ अकक)
1) वता का परर चय र्दे कर उसके कथि का सर्दं भण स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
2) वता िे अपिे पररवार की तिुिा बरगर्द से क्यों की है ? (2)
3) कमणचमण र्दं िेवता को क्या बताया? (3)
4) एकांकी के माध्यम से िेखकिे क्या संर्देश कर्दया है ? (3)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
"रोओ मत, मैंकहता हंण रोओ मत। इि मोनतयों का मणल्य समझिेवािा यहां
कोई िहीं है । पािी से पत्थर िहीं वपघि सकता।"
(बहणकी ववर्दा- वविोर्द रस्तोगी)
1) रोिेवािा कौि था? उसके रोिेका क्या कारर् था? (2)
2) वतािे रोिेवािे को ककस प्रकार सांत्विा र्दी? (2)
3) वता की बात सिु कर श्रोता िे उसे रोकते हुए क्या कहा? (3)
4) िीवि िाि की पत्नी िे समस्या का क्या हि सझु गया? (3)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्द ए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए। मां को
बेटेसे अिग करिा पाप है । मांका ह्रर्दय तोडिा अत्याचार है , उस अत्याचार को
र्दरू करिेके निए प्रार् भी र्दे िे पडे तो कम है ।
(ससं कार और भाविा - ववष्र्ुप्रभाकर)
1) वता कौि है ? उसिे उपरोत कथि क्यों कहे ? (2)
2) उमा के अिुसार मां को बेटेसे अिग करिे के निए र्दोषी कौि है ? और
क्यों? (2)
3) वता िे अवविाश की पत्नी को क्या सुझाव कर्दया? (3)
4) "मां-बेटेको अिग करिा पाप है , मांका ह्रर्दय तोडिा अत्याचार है ," उमा के
इस कथि का अवव िाश की पत्नी िे क्या िवाब कर्दया? (3)
ICSE
Class 10 Hindi
Mock Paper – 2
SECTION - A
QUESTION - 1
निम्िनिजखत ववषयों में से ककसी एक ववषय पर िगभग 250 शब्र्दों में िेख
निजखए। (15)
A) 'अनिकार और कतणव्य' र्दोिों साथ-साथ चिते हैं । बडों से हम

तभी कुछ अपेक्षाएं रख सकते हैं , िब हम स्वयं अपिे
कतणव्यों का पािि करें ।
इस बात से आप कहां तक सहमत हैं ?
B) स्वच्छता हम सभी के निए िाभर्दायक होती है यकर्द आपको
स्वच्छ भारत अनभयाि में सहयोग र्दे िे के निए कोई तीि कायण
करिे के निए कहा िाए, तो आप ककि कायों को करिा पसंर्द
करें गे? अपिे ववचारों द्वारा स्पष्ट कीजिए।
C) भारतीय संस्कृ नत में "अनतनथ र्दे वो भव" की परं परा थी, ककंतु
वतणमाि पररजस्थनतयों में यह परं परा निभािा ककिि हो रहा है ,
अब अनतनथ र्दे व िहीं बजल्क बोझ िगिे िगा है ।
अपिे ववचार स्पष्ट कीजिए।
D) "िैसे को तैसा" इस भाव को स्पष्ट करती हुई एक मौनिक
कहािी निजखए।
E) कर्दए गए नचत्र को ध्याि से र्दे ख कर उसके आिार पर कोई
घटिा अथवा कहािी निजखए जिसका सीिा संबंि नचत्र से हो।
QUESTION - 2
निम्िनिजखत ववषयों में से ककसी एक ववषय पर िगभग 120 शब्र्दों में पत्र
निजखए। (7)
A) अपिे नमत्रों के साथ शैक्षजर्क यात्रा पर िािे हे तु आज्ञा मांगते हुए वपतािी को
पत्र निजखए।
B) बार-बार वबििी फेि हो िािे के कारर् आपको और आपके पररवार वािों को

होिे वािी ककििाइयों का वर्णि करते हुए स्थािीय समाचार पत्र के संपार्दक
को पत्र निजखए।
QUESTION - 3
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को ध्याि से पक़िए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर अपिे

शब्र्दों में निजखए।
नशक्षा और अध्ययि मािनसक उन्िनत करिे के सरि सािि हैं । नशक्षा का अथण
मजस्तष्क को ज्ञाि से भर िेिा िहीं है बजल्क गुरुओं और पुस्तकों द्वारा प्राप्त ज्ञाि
को अपिे कर्दमाग में अच्छी तरह वबिा िेिा और उसके सहारे अपिी ईश्वर प्रर्दत्त
शवियों का ववकास करिा नशक्षा का मूि उद्दे श्य है ।
हमें अपिे गुरु के प्रनत श्रद्धा और ववश्वास रखते हुए यथासंभव प्रत्येक ज्ञाि को
अपिे नििी अिुभव में शानमि करिा चाकहए। ववद्ाथी िीवि में नशक्षा के प्रमुख
तीि सािि होते हैं ।
पाठ्यक्रम की पुस्तकें, गुरु का उपर्दे श और सहकारी अध्ययि। पाठ्य पुस्तकों का
अध्ययि हमें केवि परीक्षा पास करिे की दृवष्ट से िहीं बजल्क ज्ञाि ब़िािे की दृवष्ट
से करिा चाकहए।
पाठ्यपुस्तकों द्वारा ववचार और भाषा पर प्रभुत्व प्राप्त करिे को अपिा उद्दे श्य
बिािा चाकहए। िो पाि प़िें , उसमें से कौि-सा िया ववचार नमिा या ककस पुरािे
ववचार का संशोिि हुआ है , इि बातों पर गौर करते रहिे से निरं तर ज्ञाि का
ववस्तार होता रहे गा।
अध्ययि के साथ मिि की प्रकक्रया भी आवश्यक होती है । मिि से ही ज्ञाि
पररपक्व होता है । पकित पाि का मिि ि करिेवािे छात्र अपिे अजिणत ज्ञाि के
साथ तारतम्य स्थावपत िहीं कर पाते िब तक पुस्तकी ज्ञाि को व्यवहार में िहीं
िाया िाता, तब तक िीवि में उसकी कोई उपयोनगता िहीं होती। ज्ञाि का सही
िक्ष्य प्राप्त करिा और उसे उपयोगी बिािा प्रत्येक ववद्ाथी का कतणव्य होता है ।
प्रश्न:-
1) नशक्षा का सही अथण क्या है ? (2)
2) ववद्ाथी िीवि में नशक्षा के ककतिे सािि होते हैं उिके िाम बताइए। (2)
3) स्कूिी नशक्षा में मिि का क्या स्थाि होता है ? (2)
4) पाठ्य पुस्तकें प़ििे के र्दौराि ककि बातों की ओर ध्याि र्दे िा आवश्यक होता
है ? (2)
5) अिुच्छे र्द के निए उपयुि शीषणक निजखए। (2)
QUESTION - 4
निम्िनिजखत प्रश्नों के उत्तर निर्दे शािुसार निजखए। (8)

1) 'नसंह' शब्र्द का सही पयाणयवाची शब्र्द चुिकर निजखए।
A) नचता
B) विराि
C) कंचि
D) गि
2) 'िडका' की भाववाचक संज्ञा होगी,

A) िडकापि
B) िडकपि
C) िडाकू
D) िडाकत्व
3) 'अवश्यकता ' शब्र्द का शुद्ध रूप है -

A) आवस्यकता
B) आवाश्यकता
C) आवश्यकता
D) अवाश्यकता
4) 'अज्ञािी' शब्र्द का तत्सम शब्र्द है ,

A) अिप़ि
B) अिाडी
C) अििाि
D) इिमें से कोई िहीं
5) "अक्ि का र्दश्ु मि" मुहावरे का अथण है

A) बेअकि
B) िाअकि
C) मूखण
D) बुवद्धमाि
6) 'अकथिीय' शब्र्द का वाक्यांश होगा

A) िो कहा िा िा सके
B) िो कहा िा सके
C) िो ककया िा िा सके
D) िो ककया िा सके
7) निर्दे शािुसार वाक्य बिाइए

वपछिे साि तुम कहां गया था? (वाक्य को शुद्ध करके निजखए)
8) र्दस
ू रा युवक वहां खािी हाथ आकर खडा हो गया।
(वाक्य में और शब्र्द का प्रयोग करके निजखए)
SECTION - B
साकहत्य सागर (संजक्षप्त कहानियां)
QUESTION -. 5
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को ध्याि से पक़िए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर

निजखए।
सामिे वृक्षों का एक कंु ि और कुआं र्दे खकर सेि िी िे ववचार ककया कक यहां
थोडी र्दे र रुक कर भोिि और ववश्राम कर िेिा चाकहए।
(महायज्ञ का पुरस्कार- यशपाि)
अ) क्या र्दे खकर सेि िी िे रुकिे का ववचार ककया? और वहां रुककर उन्होंिे
क्या ककया? (2)
आ) सेि िे भूखे कुत्ते के साथ क्या व्यवहार ककया? (2)
इ) सेि िे कुत्ते को चौथी रोटी भी क्यों जखिा र्दी? (3)
ई) कंु र्दिपुर पहुंचकर सेि िे ककस से बातचीत की? और क्या कहा? (3)
QUESTION - 6
गद्ांश को प़िकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

जिस तरह सूखी िकडी िल्र्दी से िि उिती है उसी तरह क्षुिा से बाविा मिुष्य
िरा-िरा सी बात पर तुिक िाता है । िाि वबहारी को भावि की यह कििाई बहुत
बुरी मािूम हुई।
(बडे घर की बेटी - प्रेमचंर्द)
अ) िाि वबहारी कौि है उसे अपिी भावि की कौि सी बात बुरी िगी? (2)
आ) भावि की बात सुिकर िाि वबहारी िे उस पर क्या व्यंग ककया? (2)
इ) िाि वबहारी को भाभी की कौि सी बात असहिीय िगी? (3)
ई) िाि वबहारी िे अपिा आक्रोश ककस प्रकार प्रकट ककया? (3)
QUESTION - 7
गद्ांश को प़िकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

चुपचाप बैिा तंग हो रहा था, कुि रहा था, कक नमत्र अचािक बोिे- र्दे खो वह क्या
है ?
(अपिा-अपिा भाग्य - िैिेंद्र)
अ) िेखक कुि क्यों रहा था? (2)
आ) नमत्र िे िेखक को क्या कर्दखाया? और िेखक िे 'होगा कोई' क्यों
कहा? (2)
इ) उिकी तरफ आिे वािी कािी सी छाया ककसकी थी? (3)
ई) िडके िे अपिे बारे में क्या बताया? (3)
साकहत्य सागर - पद् ववभाग
QUESTION -8
निम्िनिजखत पद्ांश को ध्याि से पक़िए और िीचे पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

"िेककि ववघ्ि अिेक अभी
इस पथ पर अडे हुए हैं ।
मािवता की राह रोक कर
पवणत खडे हुए हैं ।"
(स्वगण बिा सकते हैं -रामिारी नसंह कर्दिकर)
अ) उपरोि पंवियों में कवव िे ककि बािाओं की ओर संकेत ककया है ? (2)
आ) कवव के अिुसार मािव को ककस चीि की आवश्यकता है ? (2)
इ) कवव िे मािव समुर्दाय की समािता पर िोर क्यों कर्दया है ? (3)
ई) हमारे र्दे श के ववकास में कौि-कौि सी बािाएं खडी हैं ? (3)
QUESTION - 9
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को प़िकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
यह िन्मभूनम मेरी, वह मातृभनू म मेरी
ऊंचा खडा कहमािय, आकाश चूमता है ,
िीचे चरर् तिे पड, नित नसंिु झूमता है ।
गंगा, यमुिा, वत्रवेर्ी, िकर्दयां िहर रही हैं ,
िगमग छटा निरािी, पग-पग पर छहर रही हैं ।
(वह िन्मभूनम मेरी - सोहििाि कद्ववेर्दी)
अ) कवव िे भारत की ककि ववशेषताओं का वर्णि ककया है ? (2)
आ) कवव िे कहमािय को र्दे श का गौरव क्यों कहा है ? (3)
इ) कहमािय से कौि-कौि से प्रमुख िकर्दयां निकिती हैं ? (2)
ई) भारत में ककि-ककि महापुरुषों का िन्म हुआ है ? (3)
QUESTION. 10
निम्िनिजखत पद्ांश को प़िकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
पािी बािै िाव में, घर में बा़िे र्दाम।
र्दोिों हाथ उिीनचए, यही सयािो काम।
यही सयािो काम, राम को सुनमरि कीिै।
पर स्वारथ के काि, शीश आगे िर र्दीिै।
कह 'नगरिर कववराय' बडे ि की याही बािी।
चनिए चाि सुचाि, राजखए अपिा पािी।
(नगरिर की कंु डनियां - नगररिर कववराय)
अ) िाव में पािी और घर में र्दाम ब़ि िािे पर क्या करिा चाकहए और
आ) "पर स्वारथ के काि शीश आगे िर र्दीिे" पंवि का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
इ) कवव के अिुसार बडे िोगों िे क्या कहा है ? क्या हमें उिका कहिा माििा
चाकहए? (3)
ई) कवववर नगरिर िे मिुष्य को और क्या-क्या सीख र्दी है ? (3)
िया रास्ता - सुषमा अग्रवाि
QUESTION - 11
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को प़िकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

तभी मीिू की बहि आशा व भाई रोकहत िे कमरे में प्रवेश ककया। अनमत के
माता-वपता भी कमरे में आ गए थे। आशा को र्दे खकर सबकी ििरें उसके सुंर्दर
चेहरे की ओर िम गई, जिसमें िवयौवि का निखार था।
अ) मीिू को र्दे खिे के निए कौि-कौि आया था? यह सब िोग कहां से आए थे?(2)
आ) अनमत अपिी िीविसंनगिी के रूप में कैसी िडकी चाहता था? (2)
इ) आशा के आिे पर सबकी ििरें उसकी ओर क्यों उि गई? (3)
ई) आशा को अिग बुिाकर उसकी मां िे क्या कहा? क्या आशा मां का अनभप्राय
समझ रही थी? (3)
QUESTION - 12
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को प़िकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

यौवि की र्दहिीि पर खडी िीनिमा र्दपणर् में अपिा चेहरा निहार-कर कुछ
ववजस्मत सी मुस्कुरा रही थी। र्दपणर् में निहारिे पर यौवि की िानिमा उसके चेहरे
पर छा गई। अपिा चेहरा वह अभी र्दपणर् में निहार ही रही थी कक इतिे में उसकी
सहे िी मीिू िे पीछे से आकर उसकी आंखों पर अपिे हाथ रख कर्दए।
अ) िीनिमा अपिा चेहरा र्दपणर् में र्दे खकर ववजस्मत क्यों हो गई? (2)
आ) मीिू िे आकर उसे क्या बताया? अपिी बात कहिे के बार्द मीिू का चेहरा
क्यों बर्दि गया? (2)
इ) मीिू का ध्याि हटािे के निए िीनिमा िे क्या ककया? (3)
ई) मीिू िे िीनिमा की प्रशंसा करते हुए क्या कहा? (3)
QUESTION - 13

अनमत व मायाराम िी िब अपिे घर पहुंचे, तो उन्होंिे र्दे खा कक कोई सज्िि
उिका इं तिार कर रहे थे। बात करिे पर पता चिा कक वह उसी शहर के एक
ििी व्यवि थे, जििका िाम ििीमि था।
अ) अनमत और माया राम िी कहां से आए थे? वे वहां क्यों गए थे? (2)
आ) अनमत कौि है ? वे जिस काम से गए थे उसका क्या पररर्ाम निकिा? (3)
इ) ििीमि िी कौि है ? वे यहां क्यों आए थे? (2)
ई) ििीमि और मायाराम िी के बीच में क्या बातें हुई? (3)
एकांकी संचय
QUESTION - 14
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को प़िकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

मैं कुमार के घर गई थी। वही उसकी नमसरािी िे मुझे बताया कक "तुम्हारा बेटा
तो बहुत बीमार रहा, मरकर बचा।" सुिकर मैं शमण से गड गई मेरा बेटा बीमार
रहे और मुझे पता भी िा िगे।
(संस्कार और भाविा - ववष्र्ु प्रभाकर)
अ) विा कौि है और श्रोता कौि है विा को उसके बेटे की बीमारी के ववषय में
ककससे पता चिा? (2)
आ) विा को अपिे बेटे की बीमारी का पता क्यों िहीं चि पाया था? (3)
इ) विा शमण से क्यों गड गई थी? (2)
ई) विा का शमण से गड िािा उसकी ककस भाविा का प्रतीक है ? (3)
QUESTION - 15
निम्िनिजखत गद्ांश को प़िकर कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

जििकी खाि मोटी होती है , उिके निए ककसी भी बात में कोई भी अपयश, किंक
या अपमाि का कारर् िहीं होता। ककंतु िो आि को प्रार्ों से ब़िकर समझते
आए हैं , यह परािय का मुख र्दे खकर भी िीववत रहें । यह कैसी उपहास ििक
बात है ? सुिो अभय नसंह िी! मैं अपिे मस्तक के इस किंक के टीके को िो
डाििा चाहता हूं।
अ) "जििकी खाि मोटी होती है ," वाक्यांश का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
आ) महारार्ा िाखा की ििर में प्रार्ों से ब़िकर भी कौि सी चीि थी? और
इ) परािय का मुख र्दे खकर िीववत रहिा, महारार्ा िाखा के निए कैसी बात
थी? (3)
ई) महारार्ा अपिे ऊपर िगे किंक के र्दाग को क्यों िोिा चाहते थे? स्पष्ट
QUESTION. 16

"अपिे और अपिे मायके वािों के सामिे तो वह ककसी को कुछ नगिती ही िहीं।
हम तो उसके निए मूख,ण गंवार और असभ्य हैं ।"
(सूखी डािी - उपेंद्रिाथ अश्क)
अ) उपरोि गद्ांश में कौि? ककससे? बात कर रहा है ? और उसकी बात का
ववषय क्या है ? (2)
आ) विा की मािनसक र्दशा इस समय कैसी है और उसका कारर् क्या है ? (2)
इ) विा के अिुसार बेिा िे क्या भूि की है और क्यों? (3)
ई) इं र्द ु और बेिा में तकरार का आरं भ कब और कैसे हुआ स्पष्ट कीजिए। (3)
ICSE Board
Mock Paper – 1
Section A
Question 1
i) Correct option: (a)
MRP = Rs. 12,000, Discount % = 30%, GST = 18%
30
Discount = 30% of 12,000 = 12000  Rs. 3600
100
Selling price (discounted value) = 12000 – 3600 = Rs. 8400
CGST = 9% of 8400 = Rs. 756
ii) Correct option: (c)

Given: (x + 5)(x – 5) = 24
x 2  52  24
x 2  25  24
x 2  49
x 7
iii) Correct option: (a)

Let f(x) = 2x3 + 3x2 – kx + 5
Using Remainder Theorem, we have
f(2) = 7
2(2)3 + 3(2)2 – k(2) + 5 = 7
16 + 12 – 2k + 5 = 7
33 – 2k = 7
2k = 26
k = 13
iv) Correct option: (d)

4sin30 cos0  4
Given, A    and B   
 cos0 4sin30 5 
Let the order of matrix X = m × n
Order of matrix A = 2 × 2
Order of matrix B = 2 × 1
Now, AX = B
Thus, order of matrix X = m × n = 2 × 1
v) Correct option: (d)

30, 28, 26, 24,…
a = 30, d = 28 – 30 = −2
5th term = 24 – 2 = 22
vi) Correct option: (d)

The reflection of point (1, 2) about y-axis is (–1, 2)
vii) Correct option: (b)
In ΔABC and ΔDEC,

ABC = DEC = 90˚
C = C ∵ Common
∴ ΔABC ~ ΔDEC ∵ By AA similarity
viii) Correct option: (a)

For a circular cylinder,
Height  h  20 cm
Radius of the base  r  7 cm
Volume of a cylinder  r 2 h
22
 7 7 20 cm3
7
 3080 cm3
ix) Correct option: (a)

x + 7 ≤ 11
x ≤ 11 – 7
x≤4
x) Correct option: (c)

Given that the die has 6 faces marked by the given numbers as below:
3 2 1 1 2 3
When a die is rolled, total number of possible outcomes  6
For getting a positive integer, the favourable outcomes are: 1, 2, 3
Number of favourable outcomes  3
3 1
Required probability  
6 2
xi) Correct option: (b)
1 3 1 3 1 1  3 3 1 3  3 4  10 15
A2  A A        
3 4 3 4  3 1  4 3 3 3  4 4  15 25
xii) Correct option: (c)

Let A’ = (x, y) be the image of the point A(5, –3), under reflection in the point
P(–1, 3).
⇒ P(–1, 3) is the mid – point of the line segment AA’.
5  x 3  y
  1 and 3
2 2
5  x   2 and  3  y  6
x   7 and y  9
Therefore the image of the point A(5, –3), under reflection in the point P(–1, 3) is A’(–
7, 9).
xiii) Correct option: (b)

AD is parallel to BC, i.e., OD is parallel to BC and BD is transversal.
ODB  CBD  32....(Alternateangles)
In OBD,
OD  OB.....(Radii of the same circle)
ODB  OBD  32
xiv) Correct option: (b)

Common difference, d = 6 – 4 = 2
xv) Correct option: (b)

105.5  110.5
Class mark 
2
=108
Question 2
i) Interest, I = Rs. 1,200
Time, n = 2 years = 2 × 12 = 24 months
Rate, r = 6%
(a) To find: Monthly instalment, P
Now,
n(n  1) r
IP
2 12 100
24 25 6
1,200  P
24 100
3
1,200  P
2
1,200 2
P
3
P  Rs. 800
So, the monthly instalment is Rs. 800.
(b) Total sum deposited = P × n = Rs. 800 × 24 = Rs. 19,200

Amount of maturity = Total sum deposited + Interest on it
= Rs. (19,200 + 1,200)
= Rs. 20,400
x2  y 2 1
2
ii) x  y
2 2
8
x2  y 2 1
i. 2
x y
2 2
8
x 2  y 2 17

x2  y 2 8
Using componendo and dividendo,
x2  y 2  x2  y 2 17  8

x y  x y
2 2 2 2
17  8
2x 2 25

2y 2 9
x 2 25

y2 9
x 5

y 3
x 5
ii. 
y 3
x 3 53

y 3 33
x 3 125

y 3 27
x3  y 3 125  27

x3  y 3 125  27
x3  y 3 152

x3  y 3 98
x3  y 3 76

x3  y 3 49
cot A  1 cot A
iii) To prove that: 
2  sec A
2
1  tan A
cot A  1
L.H.S 
2  sec2 A
1
 1
 tan A
2  1  tan2 A
1  tan A

tan A 1 tan2 A
1  tan A

tan A 1 tan A 1  tan A
1

tan A(1  tan A)
1 1

tan A (1  tan A)
cot A

1  tan A
 R.H.S
Hence proved.
Question 3
i) According to the condition in the question,
1 2
77 16  rh
3
1 22
77 16  7 7 h
3 7
77 16 3 7
h 
22 7 7
11 16 3
h 
22
h  24 m
We know that,
l 2 = r2 + h 2
⇒ l2 = (7)2 + (24)2
⇒ l2 = 49 + 576
⇒ l2 = 625
⇒ l = 25 m
22
Curved Surface Area = rl = 7 25 = 550m2
7
Therefore the height of the tent is 24m and its curved surface area is 550m2.
ii) Take (x1, y1) = (–3, 3a + 1) ; (x2, y2) = B(5, 8a) and (x, y) = (–b, 9a – 2)
Here m1 = 3 and m2 =1
m1 x 2  m 2 x 1 m1 y 2  m 2 y 1
Coordinate of P(x, y)  ,
m1  m2 m1  m2
m1 x 2  m 2 x 1 m1 y 2  m 2 y 1
x  and y 
m1  m 2 m1  m 2
3 5  1 ( 3) 3 8a  1 3a  1
b  and 9a  2 
31 31
15  3 24a  3a  1
b  and 9a  2 
4 4
 4b  12 and 36a  8  27a  1
b  3 and 9a  9
a  1 and b   3
iii)
Hence, A’ = (4, 4) and B’ = (3, 0)
Section B
Question 4
i)
Name of Repairing Discount Discount Selling GST
the cost (in % price (18%)
person Rs.)
A 5500 30 1650 3850 693
B 6250 40 2500 3750 675
C 4800 30 1440 3360 604.8
D 7200 20 1440 5760 1036.8
E 3500 40 1400 2100 378
Total 18,820 3387.6
The total money (including GST) received by the mechanic is 18,820 + 3387.6 = Rs.
22,207.6
ii) Given quadratic equation is 8x2 _ mx + 15 = 0…. (i)

3
One of the roots of (i) is , so it satisfies (i)
4
2
3 3
8 m  15  0
4 4
9 3
 15  m 0
2 4
3 39
m 
4 2
m  26
So, the equation (i) becomes 8x2 + 26x + 15 = 0
8x2  20x  6x  15  0
4x(2x  5)  3(2x  5)  0
(4x  3)(2x  5)  0
3 5
x ,
4 2
5
Hence, the other root is .
2
iii) The cumulative frequency table of the given distribution table is as follows:
Weight in Kg Number of Cumulative
workers (f) frequency
50-60 4 4
60-70 7 11
70-80 11 22
80-90 14 36
90-100 6 42
100-110 5 47
110-120 3 50
Plot the points (60, 4), (70, 11), (80, 22), (90, 36), (100, 42), (110, 47) and (120, 50)
on a graph paper and join them to get an ogive.
y
70
65
60
55
(120, 50)
50
(110, 47)
45
(100, 42)
40
C
35 B
(90, 36)
30
25
(80, 22)
20
15
A
10 (70, 11)
(60, 4)
5
x
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130
Number of workers, N  50
th th
3 N 3 50 th
(a) Upper quartile (Q 3 )  term  term  37.5 term  92
4 4
th th
N 50 th
Lower quartile (Q1 )  term  term  12.5 term  71
4 4
(b) Through mark of 95 kg on the x  axis, draw a vertical line which meets
the graph at po int C.
Through point C, draw a horizontal line which meets the y-axis
at the mark of 39.
Number of workers who are overweight  50  39  11
Question 5
i)
1 3  1 3  1 1  3 3 1 33
4  10 15
A2  A A   
3 4  3 4   3 1  4 3 3 3  4 4  15 25
 2 1   2 1    2  2  1  3 2 1  1 2  1 0
B2  B B    
 3 2  3 2  3  2  2  3 3 1  2 2  0 1
Given: A2 – 5B2 = 5C
10 15 1 0
15 25  5 0 1
 5C
  
10 15 5 0
15 25  0 5
 5C
  
 5 15
15 20  5C
 
1 3 
5   5C
3 4 
1 3 
C   
3 4 
ii)
In APB and CPD,

APB  CPD .....(vertically opposite angles)
ABP  CDP .....(alternate angles since AB||DC)
APB ~ CPD ....(AA criterion for similarity)
PA PB
 .....(Since corresponding sides of similar triangles are equal.)
PC PD
PA PD  PB PC
iii) Here, f(x) = 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7

Let the number subtracted be k from the given polynomial f(x).
Given that 2x + 1 is a factor of f(x).
1
f   0
2
3 2
1 1 1
16   8  4  7k 0
2 2 2
1 1
16  8  2  7  k 0
8 4
2  2  2  7  k  0
6  7 k  0
k  1
Therefore 1 must be subtracted from 16x3 – 8x2 + 4x + 7 so that the resulting
expression has 2x + 1 as a factor.
Question 6
i)
3 4 1
(a) Slope of AB  
3  ( 5) 8
Equation of AB is given by
1
y  4   (x  ( 5))
8
8y  32  (x  5)
8y  32  x  5
x  8y  27
(b) AB and CD are perpendicular to each other.
Thus, product of their slopes  1
Slope of AB Slope of CD  1
1
Slope of CD  1
8
Slope of CD  8
Now, from graph we have coordinates of D  ( 3, 0)

Equation of line CD is given by
y  0  8(x  3)
y  8x  24
1
ii) sin2 280 + sin2 620 + tan2 380 – cot2 520 + sec2 300
4
1
= sin2 280 + [sin (90 – 28)0]2 + tan2 380 – [cot(90 – 38)0]2 + sec2 300
4
1
= sin2 280 + cos2 280 + tan2 380 – tan2 380 + sec2 300
4
2
1 2
 1  0 
4 3
1
 1
3
31

3
4

3
iii) We know that,

n
Sum of n terms of an A.P = a  l
2
Let the first term be 2x and the last term be 3x.
5
Sum of 5 terms of an A.P = 2x  3x
2
25 5
 2x  3x
2 2
25  25x
x1
First term = 2x = 2 × 1 = 2 and the last term = 3x = 3 × 1 = 3
nth term of an A.P. is given by
tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ a5 = 2 + (5 – 1)d
⇒ 3 = 2 + 4d
⇒ 1 = 4d
1
⇒d= = 0.25
4
Therefore, the five numbers in an A.P. are 2, 2.25, 2.50, 2.75 and 3.
Question 7
i) Here, Total number of all possible outcomes = 16
(a) a, e, i and o are the vowels.
Number of favourable outcomes = 4
Number of favourable outcomes 4 1
Required Probability =  
Total number of all possible outcomes 16 4
(b) Number of consonants = 16 – 4 (vowels) = 12
Number of favourable outcomes = 12
(c) Median contains 6 letters.
Number of favourable outcomes = 16 – 6 = 10
ii)
5
Inner radius of the pipe  r  cm  2.5 cm
2
External radius of the pipe  R  Inner radius of the pipe  Thickness of the pipe
 2.5 cm  0.5 cm
 3 cm
Length of the pipe  h  2 m  200 cm
Volume of the pipe  External Volume  Internal Volume
 R 2 h  r2 h
 R 2  r2 h
 R r R r h
22
 3  2.5 3  2.5 200
7
22
 0.5 5.5 200
7
 1728.6 cm3
Since 1cm3 of the metal weights 7.7 g,
1728.6 7.7
Weight of the pipe  (1728.6 7.7) g  kg  13.31 kg
1000
iii) DAE and DAB are linear pair
So,
DAE + DAB = 180°
DAB = 110°
Also,
BCD + DAB = 180° … (Opp. Angles of cyclic quadrilateral BADC)
BCD = 70°
1
BCD = 2BOD … (angles subtended by an arc on the center and on the circle)
BOD = 140°
In BOD,
OB = OD … (Radii of same circle)
So,
OBD =ODB … (Isosceles triangle theorem)
OBD + ODB + BOD = 180° … (Sum of angles of triangle)
2OBD = 40°
OBD = 20°
Question 8
i)
1 1 1
8    4x  7 , x  I
2 2 2
1 1
8    4x
2 2
15 1
   4x
2 2
15 1
  4x
2 2
14
 4x
2
7  4x
7 4x
7
x
4
1 1
  4x  7
2 2
1 15
  4x 
2 2
15 1
4x  
2 2
4x  8
x  2
So,
7
x  2
4
As, x  I
x  2, 1,0,1
ii)
(a) The frequency distribution table is as follows:
Class interval Frequency

0-10 2
10- 20 5
20-30 8
30-40 4
40-50 6
(b)
Class interval Frequency Mean value fx
(f) (x)
0-10 2 5 10
10-20 5 15 75
20-30 8 25 200
30-40 4 35 140
40-50 6 45 270
f = 25 f = 695
fx 695
Mean    27.8
f 25
(c) Here the maximum frequency is 8 which is corresponding to class 20 – 30.

Hence, the modal class is 20 – 30.
iii)
(a)
In ∆PQR and ∆SPR,
PSR = QPR … given
PRQ = PRS … common angle
⇒ ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR (AA Test)
(b) Since ∆PQR ∼ ∆SPR … from (i)
PQ QR PR
  .... (a)
SP PR SR
QR PR
 ... from (a)
PR SR
QR 6

6 3
6 6
QR   12cm
3
PQ PR
 ... from (a)
SP SR
8 6

SP 3
8 3
SP   4 cm
6
Question 9
1 1
i) Given quadratic equation is  3
x x 2
x  2  x  3x(x  2)
2  3x2  6x
3x2  6x  2  0
6 62  4(3)(2)
x
2 3
6 12
x
2 3
3 1
x
3
Since, m and n are roots of the equation, we have
3 1 3 1
m and n 
3 3
3 1 3 1 2
m n 
3 3 3
2
Hence, m n  .
3
ii)
Scores f c.f.
0 – 10 9 9
10 – 20 13 22
20 – 30 20 42
30 – 40 26 68
40 – 50 30 98
50 – 60 22 120
60 – 70 15 135
70 – 80 10 145
80 – 90 8 153
90 – 100 7 160
n = 160
The o give is shown below:
th th
n 160
(a) Median  term  term  80th term
2 2
Through mark 80 on y-axis, draw a horizontal line which meets the ogive
drawn at point Q.
Through Q, draw a vertical line which meets the x-axis at the mark of 43.
Median  43
(b) Since the number of terms  160

th
160
Lower quartile (Q 1 )  term  40th term  28
4
th
3 160
Upper quartile (Q 3 )  term  120th term  60
4
Inter-quartile range  Q 3  Q 1  60  28  32
(c) Since 85% scores  85% of 100  85

Through mark for 85 on x-axis, draw a vertical line which meets the ogive drawn at point B.
Through the point B, draw a horizontal line which meets the y-axis at the mark of 150.
Number of shooters who obtained more than 85% score  160  150  10
Question 10
i) Let the number of boys be 3x.

Then, number of girls = 2x
∴ 3x - 2x = 630
5x = 630 x =126
Number of boys = 3x = 3 ×126 = 378
And, Number of girls = 2x = 2 × 126 = 252
After admission of 90 new students, we have

Total number of students = 630- 90 = 720
Now, let the number of boys be 7x.
Then, number of girls = 5x
7x - 5x = 720
12x = 720
x = 60
Number of boys = 7x = 7×60 = 420
And, Number of girls = 5x = 5 × 60 = 300
∴ Number of newly admitted boys = 420-378 = 42
ii) Steps of construction:

1) Draw BC= 6.5 cm
2) With B as centre, draw an arc of radius 5.5 cm.
3) With C as centre, draw an arc of radius 5 cm. Let this arc meets the previous are at A.
4) Join AB and AC to get ΔABC
5) Draw the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB. Let these bisectors meet each other at 0.
6) Draw ON ⊥ BC.
7) With 0 as centre and radius ON, draw a in circle that touches all the sides of ΔABC
8) By measurement, radius ON = 1.5 cm
iii)
Let A be the position of the airplane and let BC be the river. Let D be the point on BC just
below the airplane.
B and C be two boats on the opposite banks of the river with angles of depression 60°
and 45° from A.
In ADC,
AD
tan 45 
DC
250
1
y
y  250 m  DC
In ADB,
AD
tan 60 
BD
250
3
x
250 250 3 250 1.732
x   =144.3 m  BD
3 3 3
BC  BD  DC  144.3  250  394.3 394 m
Thus, the width of the river is 394 m.
ICSE Board
Mock Paper – 2
Section A
Question 1
i) Correct option: (a)
It is a case of Intra – state transaction.
For the dealer, cost of goods = Rs. 16,000 and GST rate is 12%
6
CGST = 6% of Rs. 16,000 = 16,000 = Rs. 960
100
ii) Correct option: (d)

x2 – 2x – 15 = 0
For x = 5 to be solution of the given quadratic equation it should satisfy the equation.
So, substituting x = 5 in the given equation, we get
L.H.S = (5)2 – 2(5) – 15
= 25 – 10 – 15
=0
= R. H. S
Hence, x = 5 is a solution of the quadratic equation x2 – 2x – 15 = 0.
iii) Correct option: (d)

3x – 4 is a factor of expression 3x2 + 2x – k.
4
f 0
3
2
4 4
3 2 k 0
3 3
16 8
 k 0
3 3
24
k
3
k 8
iv) Correct option: (a)

 3 0 9 0
Given : A    and B   
 x 1 16 y 
As A2 = B
3 0 3 0  9 0 
 x 1  x 1  16 y 
     
 9 0  9 0 
4x 1  16 y 
   
4x  16 and 1  y
x  4 and y  1
v) Correct option: (a)

In the A.P. 24, 21, 18,… we have
First term (a) = 24, common difference (d) = 21 – 24 = –3
Let Sn be the sum of first terms of this A.P.
n
Sn  2 24  n  1 3 
2
n
78  48  3n  3
2
156  3n2  51n
n2  17n  52  0
n  13 n  4  0
n  13 or n  4
vi) Correct option: (b)

As point P is reflected in the origin, so both the coordinates in the image point will
change.
Hence, the coordinate of P is (5, –7).
vii) Correct option: (d)

RHS test is test of congruency.
viii) Correct option: (a)

Volume of the cone = 154 cm3
1
( r2 ) h  154
3
1
( r2 ) 12  154
3
154 3 7
r2 
12 22
r  12.25
2
r  3.5cm
ix) Correct option: (c)

5x + 3 ≤ 2x + 18
⇒ 5x – 2x ≤ 18 – 3
⇒ 3x ≤ 15
⇒x≤5
x) Correct option: (a)

Let S denote the sample space of this experiment, therefore, n(S) = 52.
Number of ace cards in a deck of 52 cards = 4 ⨯ 1 = 4
Let A be an event getting an ace card.
The number of possible outcomes = n(A) = 4
Probability of getting an ace card = P(A) = n(A)  4  1
n(S) 52 13
1
i.e. P(getting an ace card) 
13
xi) Correct option: (a)

The given matrix is of order 4 × 6, since it has 4 rows and 6 columns.
xii) Correct option: (d)

Mx · My (3, –6)
= Mx [My (3, –6)]
= Mx (–3, –6)
= (–3, 6)
xiii) Correct option: (b)

In ΔABD,
 ADB +  BAD +  ABD = 180˚ … (∵ angle sum property of a triangle)
 ADB + 60˚ + 75˚ = 180˚
 ADB = 45˚
 ACB =  ADB … (∵ angles in the same segment)
 ACB = 45˚ ... From (i)
xiv) Correct option: (c)

Here, a = 1, d = 3 and let the nth term be 58
⇒ tn = a + (n – 1)d = 58
⇒ 58 = 1 + (n – 1) × 3
⇒ (n – 1) × 3 = 57
⇒ n – 1 = 19
⇒ n = 20
xv) Correct option: (d)

Class mark = 150  125  137.5
2
Question 2
i) According to the question,
P = Rs. 2500, n = 2 years = 24 months, maturity value = Rs. 66250
i. Total deposit = 2500 × 24 = Rs. 60000
Amount paid at maturity = Rs. 66250
Interest paid by the bank = 66250 – 60000 = Rs. 6250
ii. Interest = 6250
n n 1 r
P  6250
2 12 100
24 25 r
2500  6250
2 12 100
625r = 6250
r = 10% p.a.
ii)
x 4  1 313

2x 4 25
x 4  1  2x 4 313  25

x 4  1  2x 4 313  25
2
x2  1 338
2

x2  1 288
2
x2  1 169
2

x2  1 144
x 2  1 13

x 2  1 12
Using componendo and dividendo again, we get
x2  1  x2  1 13  12

x2  1  x2  1 13  12
2x2 25

2 1
x=5
iii) L.H.S.
tan A 1
 
1 tan A(1  tan A)
1
tan A
tan2 A 1
 
(tan A  1) tan A(tan A  1)
tan3 A  1

tan A(tan A  1)
Use a  b  (a  b)(a  ab  b )
3 3 2 2
(tan A  1)(tan2 A  tan A  1)


tan A(tan A  1)
 tan A  1  cot A
sin A cos A
 1 
cos A sin A
sin2 A  cos2 A 1
 1  1
sin A cos A sin A cos A
 1  cos ecA sec A
 R.H.S
Hence Proved
Question 3
i)
Area of base of cone  28.26 cm2
28.26
r2  28.26 r2   9 r 3 cm
3.14
1 2
Volume of the cone  r h  37.68 cm3
3
Curved surface area of the cone  r  r r2  h2
 3.14 3 32  42
 3.14 3 5
 47.10 cm2
ii)
2  8 6
Slope of (BC)    2
12 3
1
So, Slope of (AD) =
2
1
Equation of AD, y  x  c
2
Since the altitude AD passes through the point A(7, −1), we have
1
1  7c
2
7 9
c  1  
2 2
Equation of AD
1 9
y  x
2 2
2y  x  9
x  2y  9  0
iii)
a)
b) Reflection on the x-axis is represented by

r : (x, y) (x, −y)
A(3, 2) A’(3, −2)
B(0, 4) B’(0, −4)
C(-4, -3) C’(-4, 3)
c) By measuring the lengths of the sides of ABC and A’B’C’, we can say that
ABC A’B’C [By SSS rule]
Section B
Question 4
i) At each stage of sale of the machine, there is an inter-state transaction
∴ the rate of GST on each transaction of machine is 26%.
For the manufacturer:
Marked price = Rs. 65,000 and discount = 30% of Rs. 65,000 = Rs. 19,500
∴ S.P. = M.P. – Discount
= 65,000 – 19,500 = Rs. 45,500
For the wholesaler:
C.P. = Rs. 45,500
and S.P. = M.P. – Discount
= Rs. 65,000 – 20% of 65,000
= Rs. 65,000 – Rs. 13,000 = Rs. 52,000
∴ Tax paid by the wholesaler to the central government:
= Output tax – Input tax
= Tax on S.P. – Tax on C.P.
= 26% of 52,000 – 26% of 45,500
= 13,520 – 11,830 = Rs. 1,690.
ii)
3x
9x2  2  0
4
36x2  3x  8
0
4
36x2  3x  8  0
Here, a  36, b  3 and c  8
b b2  4ac
x
2a
3 (3)2  4 36 8

2 36
39  1152

72
3 1143

72
Since 1143 is not possible, we cannot solve the given equation for x.
iii) To locate the mode from the histogram, we proceed as follows:

1. Find the modal class. Rectangle ABCD is the largest rectangle. It represents the modal
class, that is, the mode lies in this rectangle. The modal class is 10–20.
2. Draw two lines diagonally from the vertices C and D to the upper corners of the two
adjacent rectangles. Let these rectangles intersect at point H.
3. The x-value of the point H is the mode. Thus, mode of the given data is approximately
15.
Question 5
i) –A + 3B + M = 0
M = A – 3B
 2 6   1 2 
=  3 
 5 8   2 3 
 2 6   3 6 
=  
 5 8   6 9
  2  3 6  6 
=  
  5+6 8  9
 5 0 
= 
11 1
ii)
a)
AD 3

BD 2
Let AD = 3x
Then DB = 2x
AD 3x
=
AB AD  DB
3x
=
3x + 2x
3x
=
5x
3
=
5
b) In ADE and ABC

DE || BC
ADE = ABC [Corresponding angles]
AED = ACB [Corresponding angles]
ADE ABC
DE AD 3
= = [C.P.S.T.]
BC DB 5
c) In DEF and CBF

DE || BC
DEF = CBF [Alternate interior angles]
DFE = CFB [vertically opposite angles]
DEF CBF [AA Similarity]
iii)
Sin ce (x  2) is a factor of polynomial 2x 3  ax 2  bx  14, we have
2(2)3  a(2)2  b(2)  14  0
16  4a  2b  14  0
4a  2b  2  0
2a  b  1  0
2a  b  1 ....(i)
On dividing by (x  3), the polynomial 2x 3  ax 2  bx  14 leaves remainder 52,
2(3)3  a(3)2  b(3)  14  52
54  9a  3b  14  52
9a  3b  40  52
9a  3b  12
3a  b  4 ....(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get a  5

Substituting a  5 in (i), we get
2 5  b  1
10  b  1
b  11
Hence, a  5 and b  11.
Question 6
i) Midpoint of line joining (2, 3) and (4, 5)
42 53
M , M (3, 4)
2 2
Equation of the given line is 5x – 2y = 8
5
Slope of the given line is
2
2
Therefore, slope of the perpendicular to the line 5x – 2y = 8 is 
5
Equation of the perpendicular is y = mx + k
2
y=  x+k
5
2x + 5y  k = 0
It passes through M (3, 4).
2 3+5 4  k=0
k = 26
Hence, 2x + 5y – 26 = 0 is the required equation.
ii)
cos(90o  A) tanB
L.H.S. = +
sinA cot(90o  B)
sinA tanB
= + [ cos(90o  A) = sinA and cot(90o  B) = tan B]
sinA tanB
=1+1
=2
= R.H.S
iii)
Let the three consecutive terms in A.P. be a  d, a and a  d.
(a  d)  a  (a  d)  21
3a  21
a 7 ....(i)
Also, (a  d)  a2  (a  d)2  165
2
a2  d2  2ad  a 2  a 2  d2  2ad  165

3a2  2d2  165
3 (7)2  2d2  165 ....[From (i)]
3 49  2d  165
2
147  2d2  165

2d2  18
d2  9
d 3
When a  7 and d  3
Re quired terms  a  d, a and a  d
 7  3, 7, 7  3
 4, 7, 10
When a  7 and d  3
Re quired terms  a  d, a and a  d
 7  (3), 7, 7  (3)
 10, 7, 4
Question 7
i) Number of cards removed = 3 (face cards of clubs)
Remaining number of cards = 52 – 3 = 49
a) Remaining number of club cards = 13 – 3 = 10
10
P (a club) =
49
b) Number of red face cards = 6 (i.e. 3 of diamonds and 3 of hearts)

6
P (a red face card) =
49
ii) Height of the conical vessel, h = 24 cm
Radius of the conical vessel, r = 5 cm
Volume filled with water
3 1
 r2 h
4 3
3 1
 25 24
4 3
 150
Let h be the height of the cylindrical vessel which is filled by water of the conical vessel.
Radius of the cylindrical vessel = 10 cm
Volume of the cylindrical vessel = volume of water
(10)2h = 150
h = 150 100
h = 1.5 cm
Thus, the height of the cylindrical vessel is 1.5 cm.
iii)
a ) In ABD,
 DAB ABD  ADB  180o
65  70  ADB  180
135  ADB  180
ADB  180  135  45o
Now, ADC  ADB  BDC  45  45  90
Sin ce ADC is the angle of semicircle, so AC is a diameter of the circle.
b) ACB  ADB ....(angles in the same segment of a circle)

ACB  45
c) ABC  ABD  DBC ....(angles in the same segment of a circle)
ABC  90
ABD  DBC  90
70o  DBC  90
DBC  20
Question 8
i)
x 1
3(x  7)  15  7x , x R
3
x 1
3(x  7)  15  7x and 15  7x
3
3x  21  15  7x and 45  21x x  1
3x  7x  15  21 and 45  1 x  21x
4x  6 and 44 22x
3
x and 2 x
2
x  1.5 and 2 x
The solution set is x : x  R,  1.5  x  2 .
The solution set is represented on the number line as follows:
Class Interval Frequency
29.5−39.5 24
39.5−49.5 16
49.5−59.5 09
59.5−69.5 15
69.5−79.5 20
Steps of construction:
(a) Convert the data into the exclusive form.

(b) Taking suitable scales, mark class intervals on the x-axis and frequency on the y-axis.
(c) Construct rectangles with class intervals as bases and corresponding frequencies as
heights.
ii)
In ΔABC and ΔAMP,
 ABC =  AMP = 90˚

 BAC =  MAP ….. common angle
∴ ΔABC ~ ΔAMP ∵ By AA similarity
In ΔAMP,
AM2 + MP2 = AP2
∴ AM AP2 MP2
∴ AM 152 122
∴ AM = 9 cm
∵ ΔABC ~ ΔAMP
AB AC
∴
AM AP
AB 10
∴
9 15
∴ AB 6 cm
CA CB
∴ Also,
PA MP
10 BC
∴
15 12
∴ BC = 8 cm
Question 9
i)
Since 2 is a root of the equation 3x2  p(x  1)  0
3(2)2  p(2  1)  0
3 4  3p  0
12  3p  0
3p  12
p4
Now, the other equation becomes 4x2  qx  9  0
Here, a  4, b  q and c  9
Since the roots are equal, we have
b2  4ac  0
( q)2  4 4 9  0
q2  144  0
q2  144
q  12
Hence, p  4 and q  12.
ii)
Marks No. of boys Cumulative
Frequency
(f)
30–40 10 10
40–50 12 22
50–60 14 36
60–70 12 48
70–80 9 57
80–90 7 64
90–100 6 70
Take a graph paper and draw both axes.

On the x-axis, take a scale of 1 cm = 20 to represent the marks.
On the y-axis, take a scale of 1 cm = 10 to represent the number of boys.
Now, plot the points (40, 10), (50, 22), (60, 36), (70, 48), (80, 57), (90, 64), (100, 70).
Join them by a smooth curve to get the o give.
No. of terms = 70
35  36
Median   35.5 th term
2
Through the mark of 35.5 on the y-axis, draw a line parallel to the x-axis which meets
the curve at A. From A, draw a perpendicular to the x-axis which meets it at B.
The value of B is the median which is 60.
n 70
Lower quartile (Q1) =   17.5th term
4 4
the curve at P. From P, draw a perpendicular to the x-axis which meets it at Q.
The value of Q is the lower quartile which is 47.5.
n 3 70 3
Upper quartile (Q3) =   52.5th term
4 4
the curve at R. From R, draw a perpendicular to the x-axis which meets it at S.
The value of S is the upper quartile which is 74.5.
The interquartile range is Q3 – Q1 = 27.
Question 10
i)
a) Let the mean proportional between 17.5 and 0.007 be x.
17.5, x and 0.007 are in continued proportion.
17.5:x = x:0.007
x x = 17.5 0.007
x2 = 0.1225
x = 0.35
b) Let the mean proportional between 6 + 3 3 and 8 − 4 3 be x.

6 + 3 3 , x and 8 − 4 3 are in continued proportion.
6 + 3 3 :x = x:8 − 4 3
x x = (6 + 3 3 ) (8 − 4 3 )
x2 = 48 + 24 3 − 24 3 − 36
x2 = 12
x=2 3
c) Let the mean proportional between a − b and a 3 − a2b be x.

a − b, x, a3 − a2b are in continued proportion.
a − b:x = x:a3 − a2b
x x = (a − b) (a3 − a2b)
x2 = (a − b) a2(a − b) = [a(a − b)]2
x = a(a − b)
ii) Steps for construction:

a. Draw AB = 5 cm using a ruler.
b. With A as the centre, cut an arc of 3 cm on AB to obtain C.
c. With A as the centre and radius 2.5 cm, draw an arc above AB.
d. With the same radius and C as the centre, draw an arc to cut the previous arc and
mark the intersection as O.
e. With O as the centre and radius 2.5 cm, draw a circle so that points A and C lie on the
circle formed.
f. Join OB.
g. Draw the perpendicular bisector of OB to obtain the mid-point of OB, M.
h. With M as the centre and radius equal to OM, draw a circle to cut the previous circle
at points P and Q.
i. Join PB and QB. PB and QB are the required tangents to the given circle from the
exterior point B.
QB = PB = 3 cm
That is, the length of each tangent is 3 cm.
iii)
Given that AB is a building that is 60 m, high.

Let BC  DE  x and CD  BE  y
AE  AB  BE  60  y
a ) In right AED,
AE
tan 30 
DE
1 60  y

3 x
x  60 3  y 3 ...(1)
In right ABC,
AB
tan 60 
BC
60
3
x
60
x
3
60 3
x
3 3
60 3
x
3
x  20 3
x  20 1.732  34.64 m
Thus, the horizontal distance between AB and CD is 34.64 m.
b) From (1),
x  60 3  y 3
20 3  60 3  y 3
20  60  y
y  40 m
Thus, the height of the lamp post is 40 m.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper – 1
SECTION A
Solution 1
questions, write the correct answer only).
i) Correct answer – c: Amplitude
Amplitude determines the loudness of the sound.
ii) Correct answer – c: Stone is greater.

The inertia of a body depends on its mass. Inertia of stone is greater than the inertia of
football because the mass of stone is higher than the mass of football even both are of
the same size.
iii) Correct answer – c: 7 A

I = P/V
I = 1500 / 220
I = 6.8 or 7 A.
iv) Correct answer – a: 11 kV

The electric power is generated at 11 kV at the power generating system.
v) Correct answer – d: Oscillatory

Oscillatory motion is executed by the particles of the medium due to the wave
propagation.
vi) Correct answer – d: J/kg

The S.I unit of specific latent heat is J/kg.
vii) Correct answer – b: increases

When the temperature of a substance increases, its kinetic energy increases and hence
the speed of its molecules also increases.
viii) Correct answer – c: Gamma

A radioactive source emits three types of radiation, out of which gamma radiation has
zero mass.
ix) Correct answer – b: tone

Sound of a single frequency is called tone.
x) Correct answer – d: Backward

Nuclear fusion is the process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavy
nucleus and release a huge amount of energy.
xi) Correct answer – c: 3 x 1020 Hz

Frequency = c/wavelength = 3 x 108 / 0.01 x 10-10 m = 3 x 1020 Hz
xii) Correct answer – c: more than that at Shimla

Boiling point of water at Delhi will be more than that at Shimla because atmospheric
pressure at Shimla is less than that at Delhi.
xiii) Correct answer – a: yes

When a ray of light travels from air into water obliquely, it bends towards the normal.
This is because water is optically denser than air. On entering into water, the speed of
light decreases and the light bends towards the normal.
xiv) Correct answer – c: violet

When white light falls on a glass prism, each colour in it is refracted by a different
angle, from which violet colour is most deviated and red is least.
xv) Correct answer - c: proportional to displacement

When a body vibrates with its natural frequency, the force acting on the body is
proportional to displacement.
Solution 2
i)
a) A pulley is used to change the direction of application force.
b)
1. A chemical change is due to change in orbital electrons, while a nuclear change is
due to change in nucleons inside the nucleus.
2. A nuclear change requires much higher energy than a chemical change.
c) The radiations are used to cure some disease like cancer.
ii)
a) Electrons revolving in the outermost orbit of an atom that is weakly held by the
nucleus are called free electrons.
b) Free electrons cannot leave the metal surface on their own because they do not have
sufficient kinetic energy.
iii)
a) Amplitude
b) Waveform
iv)
a) The turning effect produced by a force on a rigid body about a point, pivot or fulcrum
is called the moment of force or torque. The SI unit of moment of force is newton
metre (Nm).
b) In the first case
F = 150 N, r =40 cm =0.4 m
The moment of force needed to open the nut = 150 N× 0.4 = 60Nm
v) Resonance occurs only when the applied force causes forced vibration in the body, and
the frequency of the applied force is exactly equal to the natural frequency of the
vibrating body.
vi)
a) The direction of the current in the coil is from B to A.
b) The law used is Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. The coil is moving towards
the North Pole of the magnet. Due to this, there is a change in magnetic flux in the
coil. Now, the direction of induced e.m.f. (induced current) is such that it opposes this
change in flux. Hence, the right end of the coil should also behave as the North Pole.
Hence, the current will be in the anti-clockwise direction, i.e., from B to A.
vii)
Solution 3
i) The reactions will be as follows: -
+ + + energy
b) + + + energy
ii) Circuit diagram for the given case can be as shown below
a) Total resistance of the circuit is Rt = 6 + 20 = 26 Ω
b) In series, the current flowing through resistance is the same.

Therefore, potential difference across resistance wire Vr = 0.46 x 6 = 2.76 V
iii)
a) X - north pole, Y – south pole
b) By reducing resistance of circuit by means of rheostat the current in the circuit can
be increased thus, increasing the strength of the device.
iv)
a) Heat energy imparted by water in fall of its temperature from 50oC to 0o C = mass x
specific heat capacity x fall in temperature
= 5.0 x 4200 x (50 - 0) J = 1050000 J =1.5 MJ
b) If m kg of ice melts at 0oC by the heat energy imparted by water, then Heat imparted -
mL
a. or 1050000 J = m x 336 x 1000 J
b. Therefore, m = 1050000/ 336000 = 3.125 kg.
c. Remaining ice = 8.0 - 3.125 = 4.875 kg. Thus 4.875 kg ice remains unmelted at
0oC.
v) The three important characteristics of musical sound are as given below.

1. Loudness is the sensation produced in the ear which enables us to distinguish
between a loud and faint sound. It depends upon the intensity of sound and
sensitiveness of the ear. It is measured in terms of bel.
2. Pitch of sound is that subjective property that distinguishes a sharp sound from a
dull one. It depends upon the frequency of the source.
3. Quality is that subjective characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish
between two sounds of the same loudness and same pitch but emitted from two
different sources. It depends upon the waveforms which are determined by the
number of overtones present and their respective intensities.
SECTION B
Solution 4
i)
a) C will execute Natural or free oscillation whereas D will execute forced oscillation.
b) The natural frequency of D becomes equal to C, and therefore, there is an exchange of
energy between C and D. Pendulum D starts oscillating slowly with a small amplitude,
and it ultimately acquires the same amplitude that pendulum C initially had.
c) When the length of C and D are made equal the natural frequency for both pendulums
will become equal as a result, we will observe the phenomena known as resonance.
ii)
a) Two factors on which the loudness depends are:
Loudness is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude.
Loudness is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the point of
origin.
b) L = Klog10I
L = loudness
k – constant of proportionality
I – intensity
loudness increases with increase in intensity.
c) A simple pendulum oscillating in the air is an example of damped vibration.
iii)
a) When the key ‘k’ is open the current only flows through resistance C.
i.e., Total resistance, Rt = R + r = 4 + 0.2 = 4.2 kΩ
b) Current drawn
c) Now,
Resistance is first branch = 1 +3 = 4 kΩ
Now effective resistance for parallel combination will be
Total resistance = 2 + 0.2 = 2.2 kΩ

d) Current drawn,
Solution 5
i)
a) Poly chromatic light consists of many colors each having its characteristic wavelength.
White Light is polychromatic light because white light is made up of seven colours.
b) 780 nm-400nm,(7800Ao -4000 Ao)
c) A rainbow is typically observed soon after a rain shower. It is caused by dispersion of
sunlight by raindrops suspended in air. Water drops act like tiny prisms. The water
drops refract sunlight, disperse, then reflect internally and then refract it again. It is
due to dispersion of light that the eye sees different colours in a series in the sky. This
is a rainbow.
ii)
a) It’s wrong to say that energy gets used up or destroyed. According to law of
conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed it just converts
from one form to other. On bursting a cracker, the chemical energy of crackers
transforms into heat and light energy.
b) How many joules is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
c) Why kilowatt hours are used instead of joules in the bill?
iii)
a) The earth pin is long so that the earth connection is made first. This ensures the
safety of the user because if the appliance is defective, the fuse will blow off. The
earth pin is made thicker so that even by mistake it cannot be inserted into the hole
for the live or neutral connection of the socket.
b) The three pins are marked as L, N and E for live, neutral and earth respectively with
earth pin being thicker and longer and at the centre.
According to old convention the colour code is: Red for live, Black for neutral and
Green for earth.
But the new convention is: Brown for live, light blue for Neutral and Green or Yellow
for earth.
c) We know that P = VI or I = P/V. Thus, the current flowing through a device is directly
proportional to its power. Thus, knowledge of the power-voltage rating of a device
helps us to know the current flowing through it. This, in turn, helps us to decide
about the type of leads to be used for it. We use thick wires (or leads) if the current
flowing is more than 5 A. For currents less than 5A, we use relatively thinner wires
(or leads).
d) The 'fuse' helps us to control the maximum current in an electric circuit. The fuse
wire melts and thereby, breaks the continuity of a given electric circuit when the
current in that circuit exceeds a specified maximum value. This, in turn, saves the
electrical/electronic devices, present in that circuit, from damage and destruction.
Fuse wires are generally made from an alloy of tin and lead.
Solution 6
i)
a) The convex lens is also called as converging lens.
b) Focal length of the convex lens, f1 = + 20 cm Focal length of the concave lens, f2 = - 25
cm Let the focal length of the combination is F and the power of this combination is P.
The positive sign of P and F indicates that the combination of two given lenses behaves
as a convex lens.
ii)
a) The vibration in pendulums B and D is forced vibration.
b) It is in resonance with pendulum C because of the same length of the string.
c) Pendulums C and A have the same length, and hence, they vibrate in the same phase
and resonance occurs. In case of pendulum B, the length is shorter, and hence, it
vibrates with lesser amplitude.
iii) Mass number of A = 84 + 128 = 212

Thus,
212 emission 208
a) 84 A 82 B
b) On beta emission,
208 emission 208
82 B 83 C
c) Mass number of nucleus A is 212.
d) No.
Solution 7
i)
a) Clockwise moment of the load about the fulcrum = Anticlockwise moment of the effort
about the fulcrum.
or L × BF = E × AF.
b) M. A =
c) We know that For a given force, the torque will be maximum, if r⟂ is

maximum. The force should be, therefore, applied at the rim of the gate and in a
direction perpendicular to the plane of the gate.
ii)
a) Real focus is obtained in case of convex lens where the parallel rays actually meet
after refraction.
Virtual focus is an apparent location of the point on the principal axis from where the
divergent beam after refraction appears to emerge.
b) Given that,
Power, P = -1.5 D
∴ Focal length, f =
Since, the focal length is negative; hence the lens is diverging, i.e., concave lens.
c) Every part of a lens forms a complete image. If the lower part of the lens is blackened,
even then complete image will be formed but its intensity will decrease.
iii) Total resistance of the circuit

R = 1 + 4 + 20 = 25
a) Current in the circuit I = E/R = 1.5 V/25 = 0.06
b) PD across the 4 resistor, V1 = IR1 = 0.06 A 4 = 0.24 V
PD across the 20 resistor, V2 = IR2 = 0.06 A A 20 = 1.20 V
c) PD across the cell is the total PD in the external circuit:
0.24 V + 1.20 V = 1.44 V
Alternatively, terminal voltage V = E − Ir = 1.5 V − 0.06 A 1 = 1.44 V
d) Voltage drop = IR = 0.06 A 1 = 0.06 V
Solution 8
i)
ii)
a) The pond appears to be three quarters of its actual depth due to the property of
refraction of light
b) Refractive index of diamond is 2.42 and the critical angle is 24.40 only. The faces of
diamond are cut in such a way that a ray of light entering the diamond suffers
repeated total internal reflections (angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle) at different faces and remains confined within the diamond. Thus it sparkles.
c) The light from star suffers a series of refraction due to atmospheric layers of
different densities and different refractive indices. Due to this reason, a ray of light
starting from a star S bends more and more towards the normal before reaching the
observer on the earth. But the observer sees the star in the direction of the ray
reaching finally in the eye, so star appears to him at S1 instead of S. On account of
change in temperature and density the apparent position of the star continuously
changes which gives the twinkling effect to the star.
But the planets do not twinkle because they are nearer to the earth and subtend a
greater angle at the eye. Hence the amount of light received from them is much larger
than the stars. Therefore, the change in their position and brightness is not
noticeable.
iii)
a) According to principle of moments, if the algebraic sum of all the the forces acting on
the body about the axis of rotation is zero, the body is in equilibrium.
b) Action and reaction forces are indeed equal and opposite, but they act on two
different bodies. Hence, they do not cancel each other. Therefore, they result in a
change in momentum in the respective bodies.
c) The fan has a tendency to continue its circular motion even after it is switched off due
to the inertia of motion. Thus, the fan continues to move for some time even after
switching it off.
d) When a boatman takes the boat away from the bank of the river, he sits in a boat and
pushes the river bank with his ore. When the boatman exerts a force of action on the
bank with his ore, the bank exerts an equal and opposite force of reaction on the
boat. Hence, the boat moves away from the bank.
Solution 9
i)
a) The direction of the current in the coil is from B to A.
b) The law used is Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. The coil is moving towards
the North Pole of the magnet. Due to this, there is a change in magnetic flux in the
coil. Now, the direction of induced e.m.f. (induced current) is such that it opposes this
change in flux. Hence, the right end of the coil should also behave as the North Pole.
Hence, the current will be in the anti-clockwise direction, i.e., from B to A.
c) The magnitude of e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil depends on the following two
factors:
1. The ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil to the number of turns in
the primary coil (i.e., turns ratio), and
2. The magnitude of e.m.f applied in the primary coil.
ii)
a) Forced vibration is the phenomenon that causes paper riders to vibrate as soon as
the tuning fork comes into contact with the sonometer. Vibrations in the surrounding
air are caused by the tuning fork's vibrations, causing the string to vibrate.
b) Because of phenomena known as Resonance, the paper rider flies away since the
frequency of oscillating string becomes maximum.
i.e., The frequency of tuning fork vibration is the same as the frequency of free string
vibrations.
c) When the vibration frequency of a tuning fork is the same as the frequency of natural
vibration of the string, resonance occurs and the vibration amplitude of the string is
maximum. Hence, the paper rider flies off.
iii)
a) The three radiation or particles emitted by the given radioactive source are α-
particle, β-particle and γ- ray
b) Radiation B or γ-ray will be the only one that is unaffected by the electrostatic field
since it is chargeless just like photons.
c) Radiation C is beta radiation, and it is nothing but electrons. The mass of electrons is
much smaller than alpha particles (radiation A). Hence, beta radiation (radiation C)
deflects more.
d) Radiation A, which is alpha radiation, causes the least biological damage externally
because of its lowest penetration depth.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Physics
Mock Paper – 2
Section A
Answer 1
i) Correct option – d) Impulse of force
Impulse of force is product of force and time.
ii) Correct option – b) 21.36 m/s
iii) Correct option – c) Chemical energy -> Heat energy -> Kinetic Energy
Chemical energy -> Heat energy -> Kinetic Energy is series of energy inter
conversions in steam engine.
iv) Correct option – d) Fusion reaction

Fusion reaction is the process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavy
nucleus
v) Correct option – b) Refraction of light During sunset and sunrise, the sun is seen even
when it is slightly below the horizon.
This is due to refraction of light.
vi) Correct option – b) parallel to principal axis A ray of light passing through a principal
focus or appearing to meet at the principal focus, after refraction will emerge parallel
to principal axis.
vii) Correct option – b) Equal or greater than wavelength of sound wave

To reflect sound waves from any surface, it should have dimensions equal or greater
than wavelength of sound wave.
viii) Correct option – a) Up to 120 dB

The safe limit of sound level in dB for our ears up to 120 dB
ix) Correct option – a) 1 joule

When 1 coulomb of charge moves against a potential difference of 1 volt then 1 Joule
of work is done.
x) Correct option – d) 135 watt

V = 270 V, I = 0.5 A
P = V × I = 270 × 0.5 = 135 watt
xi) Correct option – c) remains constant

A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field, parallel to the field, its kinetic
energy remains constant.
xii) Correct option – c) 160 cal
xiii) Correct option – c) high specific latent heat of fusion of ice

Icebergs are carried by ocean currents over very long distances due to high specific
latent heat of fusion of ice (i.e. 3360000 J/kg).
xiv) Correct option – c) Violet

The colour which deviates most in the formation of spectrum of white light by a prism
is violet.
xv) Correct option – c) virtual and erect

The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always virtual and erect.
Answer 2
(i) Two electromagnetic waves whose frequencies are higher than those of violet light are
a) Ultraviolet radiation
Use: In treatment of skin disorders and for killing bacteria
b) X-rays
Use: In radiography and for detecting flaws in metals
(ii) Frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string can be decreased by

1. Decreasing the tension in the string
2. Increasing the length of the string
(iii) Ice has a high specific latent heat of fusion of 336,000 J/kg. Thus, when the ice of the
frozen lake starts melting, it absorbs a large amount of heat energy from the
surroundings. This leads to a decrease in the surrounding temperature.
(iv)
Resistances R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 2Ω are connected as shown in the diagram above.

Between A and B, the series combination of resistors R1, R3 and R4 is connected in
parallel with R2. Total resistance between A and B = RAB.
Then
1 1 1 31 4
   
R AB 2 6 6 6
R AB  1.5
(v) The earth pin is long so that the earth connection is made first. This ensures the safety
of the user because if the appliances are defective, then the fuse will blow off. The earth
pin is made thicker so that even by mistake it cannot be inserted into the hole for a live
or neutral connection of the socket.
Answer 3
(i) Electron volt measures energy.
1 eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J
(ii)
a) For minimum work, ϴ = 90°
b) For maximum work, ϴ = 0°
(iii) The forces which act on the bodies without being in physical contact with them are
known as non-contact forces. Example: Magnetic force
(iv) Work done in 1 beat = 1 J

Work done in 72 beats = 72 J
Time in which work is done, t = 60 s
Work done 72
∴ Power =   1.2 W
time taken 60
(v) The two properties of a wave are wavelength and frequency. The wavelength of a wave
changes when a wave passes from one medium to another and the frequency of a wave
remains constant when it passes from one medium to another.
Section B
Attempt any four questions from this section
Answer 4
(i)
a. Fleming's right hand rule is used for finding the direction of induced current in a
coil/wire rotated in a magnetic field.
b. Fleming's right hand rule states that, if the first three fingers of the right hand are
stretched mutually perpendicular to each other such that the forefinger points in the
direction of magnetic field, the thumb indicating the direction of its motion, then the
middle finger would show the direction of induced current.
c. On increasing the current in conductor, magnetic field produced also increases.
(ii) Given, mass of steam m = 5 kg

Temperature of steam = 100°C
Temperature of water = 100°C
Specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam, L = 2268 kJ/kg
Heat energy released is H = mL = 5 × 2268 = 11340 kJ
(iii) Let x = no. of α decays and y = no. of β decays

During alpha decay, the product nucleus has mass no. 4 less and atomic no. 2 less than
that of the parent nucleus. During beta decay, the mass number remains constant but
the atomic no. increases by 1.
206 = 238 − 4x …… (i)
And 82 = 92 – 2x + y …… (ii)
From equation (i), we have
4x = 238 – 206
∴x=8
Putting this value of x in equation (ii), we get
82 = 92 – (2 × 8) + y
∴y=6
∴ No. of alpha particles emitted = 8
No. of beta particles emitted = 6
(iv) Rate of emission of electrons from a heated surface depends on

a) Nature of the metal surface
b) Temperature of the surface
(v) Mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy when a magnet is moved inside a
coil. The phenomenon is ‘electromagnetic induction’.
Answer 5
(i)
a) The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed;
the sum total of energy in a closed system remains unchanged and energy only
changes from one form to another.
b)
(1) Electrical energy to sound energy
(2) Chemical energy to electrical energy
(ii)
a. A machine is a device which acts as a force multiplier or a speed multiplier allowing
us to apply effort at a more convenient point in an easier direction.
b. A simple machine works on the principle of law of conservation of energy of a
system, i.e., energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It implies that for a
perfect or ideal machine, work done on the machine, i.e., input, is equal to the work
done by the machine, i.e., output.
c. No, this is not possible. Machines which are force multipliers do not gain in speed
and machines which increase speed cannot multiply force.
(iii)
a) The function of the fixed pulley P2 is to change the direction of application of effort
to a convenient direction; i.e. downwards.
b) If the free end of the string moves through the distance x, then the load W will rise
by a distance of x/2.
c) Let the force to be applied at C be equal to ‘E’.
Given, load W = 20 kgf
In equilibrium, W = 2T and E = T
W 20kgf
∴ Effort needed, E =   10 kgf
2 2
Answer 6
(i)
b) Magnification = 1
c) Characteristics of image formed: Inverted and real
d) Focal length of the lens
(ii)
a)
(1) The image of all the letters will not be in the same place.
(2) The letter of violet colour (i.e. V) appears to be raised by the maximum amount,
while the letter of red colour (i.e. R) appears to be raised by the minimum amount.
Since
real depth
apparent depth 
refractive index
and refractive index of glass is maximum for violet light and minimum for red light;
therefore, the apparent depth is least for violet and most for red.
b)
Convex lens Concave lens
1. A convex lens is thicker in the 1. A concave lens is thicker at the edges and
middle and thinner at its edges. thinner in the middle.
2. A light beam converges on 2. A light beam diverges on passing through
passing through a convex lens. a concave lens.
(iii)
a) Refraction is the bending of light at the surface of separation, which takes place
when it passes from one optical medium to another optical medium with different
optical densities.
Speed of light in vacuum or air (c)
b) (1) Refractive index, µ =
Speed of light in that medium (v)
sin i
(2) Refractive index, µ =
sin r
c) Refractive index of medium I is the same as the refractive index of medium II.
Answer 7
(i) Potential energy possessed by falling water = mgh = m × 10 × 50 = 500 m
Heat absorbed by water = m c t = m × 4200 × t
By law of conservation of energy, we have
Heat absorbed by water = PE of falling water
m × 4200 × t = 500 m
500
or t =  0.1190 C
4200
(ii)
a. kW (kilowatt) is the unit of electrical power and kWh (kilowatt-hour) is the unit
for electrical energy consumed in one hour.
1 kilowatt = 1000 W
1 kilowatt-hour = 1 kilowatt × 1 hour = 3.6 × 106 J
b. One kilowatt-hour is the electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance of
power 1 kW when it is used for 1 hour.
1 kilowatt-hour = 1 kilowatt × 1 hour
= 1000 watt × 1 hour
= 1000 J/s × (60 × 60 s)
= 3.6 × 106 J
= 3.6 MJ
c. The practical units of power are watt-hour and kilowatt-hour.
(iii)
a. Sound heard after reflection from a rigid obstacle is called an echo. To hear the
echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface in the air should be at a minimum
distance of 17 m from the listener. If the distance is less than 17 m, the reflected
sound will reach the ears before the original sound dies out. In such a case, the
original sound mixes up with the reflected sound. Due to repeated reflections at
the reflecting surface, the sound gets prolonged. This effect is known as
reverberation.
If ‘d’ is the distance between the observer and the obstacle and ‘v’ is the speed of
sound, then the distance covered by the sound to reach the obstacle and to return
is 2d. Thus, we have
Total distance travelled 2d vt
t=  ; d
Speed of sound v 2
By putting t = 0.1 s and v = 340 m/s in air at ordinary temperature, we get
340 0.1
d  17 m
2
Thus, to hear the echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface in air should be
at a minimum distance of 17 m from the listener.
b. Material medium is necessary for the propagation of sound. On the moon, there is
vaccum, i.e. no air; so, sound cannot propagate on the moon. Thus, sound
cannot be heard on the surface of the moon.
Answer 8
(i) Given, power P = 1500 W, voltage V = 250 V
a. Current I = P/V
1500
or I = =6A
250
1500
b. Electrical energy consumed in 6 hrs = power × time = × 6 = 9 kWh
1000
c. Cost of electrical energy at Rs 2.50 per kWh
= Electrical energy consumed × cost per unit
= 9 × 2.50 = Rs 22.5
(ii)
a. By placing a soft iron core inside a current carrying solenoid coil.
b. Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a conductor, an induced
emf is set up in it which gives rise to induced current. This is known as
electromagnetic induction.
The necessary condition for electromagnetic induction is that the induced emf lasts
as long as there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with the conductor.
(iii)
a. The current in ammeters B and C is inversely proportional to the value of
resistance in the parallel branch. Therefore,
reading of ammeter C 6
 2
reading of ammeter B 3
So, reading of ammeter C = 2 × 0.5 = 1.0 A
Hence, reading of ammeter A = (0.5 + 1.0) = 1.5 A
b. Let the total resistance of the circuit be R.
So,
R = 2 + Rp
Here,
1 1 1 1
  
RP 3 6 2
∴ R = 2 + 2 = 4Ω
Answer 9
(i) Given, time t = 0.02 millisecond = 0.02 × 10−3 s
c = 3 × 108 m/s
Let d be the distance of the plane from the radar.
So,
2d = velocity × time
2d = 3 × 108 × 0.02 × 10−3 = 6000 m
Or
d = 3000 m = 3 km
(ii)
a. AB corresponds to the time interval in which ice melts to form water.CD
corresponds to the time interval in which water (at 100°C) boils to form vapour
(steam) at 100°C.
b. Ice is pure because it melts at 0°C. The ice is initially at −10°C. It may have been
formed under high pressure.
(iii)
1. Amount of heat given out while converting m1 kg of steam at 100°C to water at
100°C
= m1Lv
= m1 × 2268 kJ
2. Heat required to convert m2 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C is given by

m2Lf = 336× m2 kJ
Amount of heat absorbed by m2 kg of water to increase the temperature from 0°C
to 10°C
= m2 × C × ϴ
= m2 × 4.2 × 10
= 42 × m2 kJ
Heat gained by m2 kg of ice = 378 m2 kJ
3. Heat Equation:
Heat lost by steam = Heat gained by ice
2268 m1 = 378 m2
m2:m1 = 2268:378
ICSE Board
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper – 1
SECTION A
Solution 1
(i) (c)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d)
(v) (a)
(vi) (a)
(vii) (b)
(viii) (c)
(ix) (a)
(x) (a)
(xi) (a)
(xii) (c)
(xiii) (c)
(xiv) (d)
(xv) (a)
Solution 2
(i)
(a) HCl (Hydrogen chloride gas)
 200°C
(b) 2NaCl + H2SO4 Na 2SO4 + HCl
(c) The HCl gas is collected by upward displacement of air as it is 1.28 times heavier than
air.
(d) Conc. H2SO4.
(e) When the jar is completely filled with hydrogen chloride, fumes appear above the
jar’s mouth. White fumes appear on exposing hydrogen chloride gas to air since it
forms hydrochloric acid with atmospheric water vapour. This jar when brought near
a rod dipped in ammonium hydroxide gives dense white fumes, which indicate the
formation of ammonium chloride, as per the reaction given below.
HCl + NH4OH → NH4Cl + H2O
(ii)
Column A Solutions from Column B
(a) Duralumin 4. Aircraft frames
(b) Brass 1. Shells of ammunition rounds
(c) Bronze 5.Coins
(d) Solder 3. Joining electrical circuits
(e) Magnalium 2. Scientific Instruments
(iii)
(a) Electron affinity
(b) Metallic character
(c) Octet
(d) Required
(e) Group
(iv)
(a) Electroplating
(b) Solder
(c) Roasting
(d) PbO or CuO
(e) Flux
(v)
(a)
1.
2.
3.
H3C O H
Methanol
(b)
1.
C2H5 C OH
Propanoic acid
2.
SECTION-B
Solution 3
(i)
(a) Copper sulphate from copper carbonate

CuCO3 + H2SO4 CuSO4 + H2O+CO2
(b) Zinc carbonate from zinc sulphate
ZnSO4 + Na2CO3 Na2SO4 + ZnCO3
(ii)
(a) 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2
(b) P4 + 20HNO3 4H3PO4 + 4H2O + 20NO2
(iii)
(a) Ionic compounds are formed as a result of the transfer of one or more electrons
from the atom of a metallic electropositive element to an atom of a non-metallic
electronegative element.
A polar covalent compound is one in which there is an unequal distribution of
electrons between the two atoms.
(b) Ionic compounds, made of ions, are usually crystalline solids with high melting and
boiling points.
They are soluble in water and good conductors of electricity in the aqueous
solution and molten state.
Covalent compounds, made of molecules, can exist as soft solids or liquids or gases
with low melting and boiling points. They are usually insoluble in water and poor
conductors of electricity.
(c) Polar covalent compounds are formed between 2 non-metal atoms which have
different electronegativities and therefore have unequal sharing of the bonded
electron pair.
Non-polar compounds are formed when two identical non-metals equally share
electrons between them.
(iv)
(a) Lead sulphate from lead carbonate
PbCO3 + 2HNO3 → Pb(NO3)2 + H2O + CO2 ↑
Lead carbonate Nitric acid Lead nitrate Water Carbon dioxide
Pb(NO3)2 + H2SO4 → PbSO4 ↓ + 2HNO3
Lead nitrate Sulphuric acid Lead sulphate Nitric acid
(b) Sodium sulphate using dilute sulphuric acid

Dilute sulphuric acid neutralises bases (oxides and hydroxides) to form salts and
water.
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
Sodium hydroxide Dil. sulphuric acid Sodium sulphate Water
(c) Copper chloride using copper carbonate

CuCO3 + 2HCl → 2CuCl2 + H2O + CO2 ↑
Copper Hydrochloric Copper Water Carbon
carbonate acid chloride dioxide
Solution 4
(i)
CaO
(a) CH3COONa  NaOH CH4  Na2CO3
(b) CH2Br 2KOH(alco) CH CH
CH2Br
(ii)
(a) Nitrogen (N2)
(b) Ammonium ion (NH4+)
(iii)
(a) Hydrogen chloride gas
(b) Butane
(c) Ferric chloride (FeCl3)
(iv)
(a) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
(b) Zn + H2SO4 (dil.) → ZnSO4 + H2
(c) Mg3N2 + 6H2O 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3
Solution 5
(i)
(a) The naturally occuring compounds of metals which are generally mixed with other
matter such as soil, sand, limestone and rocks are known as minerals.
(b) Cryolite and Fluorspar
(ii)
(a) Ethene
(b) Methane
(iii)
(a) Complex salt
(b) Alkali
(c) Desiccants or desiccating agents or drying agents
(iv)
(a) Reduced
(b) Negative charge
(c) Anode
Solution 6
(i)
(a) Sodium ions, chloride ions
(b) Molecules of carbon tetrachloride
(ii)
(a) CuSO4  2NaOH Cu(OH)2  Na2SO4
(b) CuSO4  2NH4 OH Cu(OH)2  (NH4 )SO4
Cu(OH)2  4NH4 OH [Cu(NH3 )4 ](OH)2  4H2O
(iii)
(a) Second period
(b) Nitrogen. It is placed between carbon and oxygen.
(c) Fluorine
(iv) Vapour density = 29
Element Percentage At. mass Gram atom Ration

Carbon 82.76 12 82.76/12 = 6.9 6.9/6.9 = 1 2
17.24/6.9 =
Hydrogen 17.24 1 17.24/1 = 17.24 5
2.5
Empirical formula is C2H5.
Molecular weight = 2 × Vapour density

Molecular weight = n × (Empirical formula weight)
58 = n × (12 × 2 + 1 × 5)
n=2
So, molecular formula = C4H10
Solution 7
(i)
(a) Iron (II) chloride on reaction with Ammonium hydroxide forms a dirty green
precipitate of ferrous hydroxide while Iron (III) chloride on reaction with
Ammonium hydroxide forms a reddish brown precipitate of ferrous hydroxide.
(b) Zinc sulphate solution on reaction with ammonium hydroxide produces a white,
gelatinous precipitate of zinc hydroxide which is soluble in excess of ammonium
hydroxide whereas lead nitrate on treatment with ammonium hydroxide forms
chalky white ppt. which is insoluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide.
(ii)
(a) Ferric ions, Fe3+
(b) Zinc ion, Zn2+
(iii)
Therefore,
The empirical formula of the compound is C2H3O2Cl
(iv)
(a) ZnS
800 C
(b) 2ZnS+3O2 2ZnO+2SO2
(c) To extract zinc from zinc oxide
Solution 8
(i)
(a) Ammonia NH3
(b) Carbon tetrachloride CCl4
(ii) C3H3+5O2 → 3CO2+4H2O

Applying Gay Lussac’s Law,
1 vol. : 5 vol. → 3 vol. : 4 vol.
1 vol. propane ≡ 20 cm3
Therefore, vol. of O2 required ≡ 5 volume
= 5 × 20 = 100 cm3
(iii)
(a) Ethyne [CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2↑]
(b) Methane [Al4C3 + 12H2O → 3CH4↑ + 4Al(OH)3↓]
(c) Carbon dioxide [NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2↑]
(iv)
(a) The element with atomic number 20 is nothing but Calcium.
Period = 4
Group = 2
(b) It is metal.
(c) Ca(OH)2
ICSE Board
Class 10 Chemistry
Mock Paper – 2
SECTION A
Solution 1
(i) (b)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (a)
(v) (c)
(vi) (b)
(vii) (d)
(viii) (a)
(ix) (d)
(x) (b)
(xi) (a)
(xii) (c)
(xiii) (d)
(xiv) (d)
(xv) (a)
Solution 2
(i)
(a) Ammonia (NH3)
(b) Mg3N2 + 6H2O → 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3 ↑
(c) The ammonia gas collected by holding the jar with its mouth downwards over
delivery tube i.e. downward displacement of air.
(d) Quicklime.
(e) Fountain experiment.
Being basic, ammonia gas changes red litmus solution blue.

(ii)
Column A Column B
(a) Phosphoric acid (v) Weak electrolyte
(b) Nitric acid (iii) Strong electrolyte
(c) Liquid ammonia (iv) Non-electrolyte
(d) Oxidation (i) Loss of electrons
(e) Reduction (ii) Gain of electrons
(iii)
(a) There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the modern form of the periodic table.
(b) The most electropositive elements belong to the first group.
(c) Most electronegative elements belong to seventeenth group.
(d) Energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom is called electron
affinity.
(e) Lanthanides are present in third group and sixth period.
(iv)
(a) A basic salt: Lead chloride
(b) An acidic salt: Sodium hydrogen sulphate
(c) A mixed salt: Sodium potassium carbonate
(d) A complex salt: Sodium argentocyanide
(e) A double salt: Potash alum
(v)
(a)
1. Isopentane
CH3
H2
H 3C C C CH3
H
2. Ethanal
H3C C H
3. Ethanol
H2
H3C C O H
(b)
1. Propanoic acid
2. Pentan-3-ol
SECTION-B
Solution 3
(i) Electron dot structure of:
(a) Formation of methane
(b) Magnesium chloride
(ii)
(a) Mg3N2 + 6 H2O → 3 Mg(OH)2 +2NH3
(b) 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 +2HNO3 3 Fe2( SO4)3 + 4H2O + 2NO
(iii)
(a) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(b) Na > Mg > Si > S > Cl
(c) Na < Si < S < Cl
(iv)
(a) Fe3+ ion
FeCl3  3NaOH Fe(OH)3  3NaCl
(Reddish brown ppt.)
(b) Pb2+ ion
Pb(NO3 )2  2NH4OH Pb(OH)2  2NH4 NO3
(chalky white ppt. inso luble in excess)
(c) Ca2+ ion
Ca(NO3 )2  2NaOH Ca(OH)2  2NaNO3
(White ppt.sparingly so luble)
Solution 4
(i)
(a) Polar covalent bond
(b) Ionic bond
(ii)
(a) Copper ion, Cu2+
(b) Ferrous ion, Fe2+
(iii)
(a) Propene
(b) Methane
(c) Propanal
(iv)
(a) NH3 + HNO3 → NH4NO3 Ammonium nitrate
(b) CuO + C Cu + CO
(c) Mg + H2O → MgO + H2↑
Solution 5
(i)
(a)
Metal Ore Process by which it is concentrated
i. Aluminum Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O i. Baeyer’s process or Hall’s process
ii. Zinc Zinc blende ZnS ii. Froth floatation process
iii. Iron Haematite Fe2O3 iii. Electromagnetic separation
(ii)
(a) In the electrolysis of alumina using the Hall–Héroult process, the electrolyte is
covered with powdered coke as it
reduces heat loss by radiation
prevents the burning of the anode
(b) Iron sheets are coated with zinc during galvanisation to prevent them from rusting.
(iii)
(a) The reactions in which one reactant gets oxidised, while the other gets reduced
during the reaction are called oxidation–reduction reactions or redox reactions.
(b) The reaction between manganese dioxide and hydrochloric acid is a redox reaction
because MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2 and HCl is oxidised to H2O.
(c) Oxidising agent – HCl; Reducing agent - MnO2
(iv)
(d) CaC2+2H2O ⟶ CH = CH+ Ca(OH)2
(e) Triple bonds between carbon atoms.
(f) The solution of bromine water in carbon tetrachloride becomes colourless.
Solution 6
(i)
CaO
(a) CH3COONa +NaOH CH4 +Na2CO3
300 C
CaO
(b) C2H5COONa +NaOH CH3 CH3 +Na2CO3
300 C
(ii)
Given:
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
Volume of air = 1000 cm3
Percentage of oxygen in air = 20%
From the given information,
C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O
1 vol 5 vols 3 vols 4 vols
According to Gay-Lussac’s law,
1 vol. of propane consumes 5 vol. of oxygen.
Volume of oxygen = 1000 cm3 × 20% = 200 cm3
Therefore,
Volume of propane burnt for every 200 cm3 of oxygen,
1
= ×200= 40 cm3
5
40 cm3 of propane is burnt.
(iii)
(a) Fe3+
(b) Cu2+
(c) Mn2+
(iv)
(a) Iron chloride (FeCl3)
FeCl3 + 3H2O → 3HCl + Fe(OH)3
(b) Ammonium acetate (CH3COONH4)

CH3COONH4 +H2O → CH3COOH + NH4OH
(c) Sodium chloride

NaCl(s) + H2O → Na+(aq) OH-(aq) + H2O
Solution 7
(i)
(a) Major purpose of subjecting ore to either roasting or calcination is to convert it to its
oxide.
(b) Empirical formula mass of ‘CH2O’= 12+2+16
= 30
molecular mass
n
Empricial formula mass
180
 6
30
Molecular formula = (CH2O)6
= C6H12O6
(ii) Haber Process

Fe-Mo
N2  3H2 450-5000 C
2NH3  heat
200 - 1000atm
Extreme solubility and basic nature.
(iii)
(a) Fe2O3 +3CO 2Fe +3CO2
(b) 2Al(OH)3 Al2O3  3H2O
(c) ZnO  C Zn  CO
(iv) Molar mass of AgNO3=108+14+48

= 170 g
Molar mass of AgCl = 108+35.5
143.5 g
143.5 of AgCl was precipitated by 170g of AgNO3
170
287g of AgCl will be precipitated by = 287
143.5
= 340g of AgNO3
Solution 8
(i)
(a) Calcium oxide CaO
(b) Ethyne C2H2

H:C:::C:H
(ii)
Given:
N = 82.35%
H =17.64%
Element % composition Atomic mass Atomic ratio Simplest ratio
H 17.64 1 17.64 3
N 82.35 14 5.8 1
So, the empirical formula is NH3.
(iii) In the extraction of aluminium, the given compounds play the following roles:
(a) Cryolite: It lowers the fusion temperature from 2050°C to 950°C and enhances
conductivity.
(b) Sodium hydroxide:
Two roles are played by sodium hydroxide in the extraction of aluminium.
First, finely ground bauxite (ore of aluminium) is heated under pressure with conc.
caustic soda solution (NaOH solution) for 2–8 hours at 140°C to 150°C to produce
sodium aluminate. The chemical equation is as follows:
Al2O3.2H2O + 2NaOH ⟶ 2NaAlO2 + 3H2O
Second, on diluting sodium aluminate with water and cooling to 50°C, sodium
aluminate is hydrolysed to give aluminium hydroxide as a precipitate. Here, the
impurities dissolve in sodium hydroxide.
(c) Graphite: Thick rods of graphite are suspended in the fused electrolyte. They act as
an anode where oxygen is discharged.
(iv)
(a) The element with atomic number 19 is nothing but Potassium.
Period = 4
Group = 1
(b) It is metal.
(c) KOH
ICSE Board
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper – 1 Solution
SECTION A
Answer 1
(i) Platelets
(ii) Menarche
(iii) Photolysis
(iv) Chromosome
(v) increases blood calcium level
(vi) humidity
(vii) All of these
(viii) 280 days
(ix) iris
(x) 28 days
(xi) Pupil
(xii) Pons- consciousness
(xiii) Anaphase
(xiv) Turgidity
(xv) Urea
Answer 2
(i)
(a) Heterozygous
(b) Malpighian capsule
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
(e) Population density
(ii)
(a) Upper epidermis, palisade, spongy cell, stomata
(b) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(c) Vena cava, right auricle, right ventricle, pulmonary veins
(d) Ovulation, Fertilization, Implantation, Parturition
(e) Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector
(iii)
Column I Column II
(a) Vasectomy 6. Male sterilisation
(b) Radioactive element 3. Uranium
(c) Dark reaction 7. Stroma
(d) Tubectomy 2. Female sterilisation
(e) Greenhouse gas 1. Methane
(iv)
(a) Scurvy (rest are diseases caused by deficiency in hormones)
(b) Sulphur dioxide (rest are greenhouse gases)
(c) Cerebellum (rest are parts of the forebrain)
(d) Macula (rest are structures present in the ear)
(e) Seismonasty (Rest are tropic movements)
(v)
(a) Lenticels: Older stem of plants
(b) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck/lower part of the neck below the larynx
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule: In the cortex of the kidney
(d) Bicuspid valve: Between left atrium and left ventricle
(e) Pancreas: Abdomen, between the stomach and the small intestine.
SECTION B
Answer 3
(i) The gametes are produced as a result of meiosis hence they have haploid number of
chromosomes.
(ii) When fertilizers are added to the moist soil around it, it will form hypertonic solution,
resulting the protoplasm to shrink and plasma membrane withdraw itself from the cell
wall. Hence, the root hairs also become limp or flaccid.
(iii) Lenticels are minute, permanent openings which may develop in the young stems of
woody plants. Some water is lost continuously through the lenticular openings in the
form of water vapour.
(iv) In the brain, the cytons of the neurons are outside (white matter) and the axons are
inside (grey matter). In the spinal cord, the cytons are inside (grey matter) and the
axons are outside (white matter).
(v) A dialysis machine is a substitute for a kidney. The dialysis machine runs out when
both kidneys stop functioning. Blood from the patient is drawn into the machine via
radial artery, where urea and extra salts are removed before the purified blood is
returned to a vein in the same arm. If the kidneys are permanently damaged, dialysis
must be done twice a week for around 12 hours.
Answer 4
(i)
(1) Portal vein
(2) Coronary artery
(ii) The ‘LUBB’ sound is produced when the tricuspid and bicuspid valves close with a jerk.
The ‘DUB’ sound is produced when the semilunar valves at the roots of aorta and
pulmonary artery get closed.
(iii)
a) Nephron
b) 1- Glomerular filtrate and 2 - Urine
(iv) Functions of spinal cord:
1. It controls all the reflex actions occurring below the neck.
2. It conducts sensory impulses from skin to the brain and motor impulses from brain
to the muscles of trunk and limbs.
(v)
(a) Simple reflex.
(b) Conditioned and modified reflex.
(c) Conditioned reflex depending upon reasoning and past experience.
(d) Simple reflex.
(e) Simple reflex.
Answer 5
(i) Blood pressure and vomiting
(ii) By eradicating the germs, the WBCs in our blood defend the body against infection.
They engulf and destroy them. Their population grows if there is an infection.
Therefore, a rise in the number of WBCs suggests infection.
(iii) The body of all living organisms both plants and animals are dependent on the food
that has been synthesized in a green cell by photosynthesis. The purification of the
atmosphere whereby the volume of CO2 remains fairly constant due to the
photosynthetic activity of green plants. Oxygen is given out by green plants.
(iv) The union of male and female gametes to form the zygote is called fertilization. In
human female the site of fertilization is oviduct or fallopian tube.
(v) It is essential that the kind or type of blood being transfused corresponds to the
recipient's blood type in blood transfusions. If not, the RBC from the donor blood will
clump together and block the recipient's blood arteries, which will result in death.
Therefore, prior to blood transfusion, it is essential to know the blood groups.
Answer 6
(i) The process in which the leucocytes or white blood cells squeeze out through the walls
of blood capillaries at the site of injury to fight against pathogens.
(ii)
 Sensory neuron: It carries impulses from the receptor to the brain or spinal cord.
 Motor neuron: It carries impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the effector.
(iii) In the mediastinum, in front of the heart, is where the thymus gland is situated.
Thymosin, a hormone secreted by this, induces lymphocytes to kill foreign microbes
and antigens. It deteriorates on aging, lowering immunity in old age.
(iv) By adding some fertiliser, the leaves will produce more chlorophyll and appear greener
since it supplies minerals and other nutrients. If too much fertiliser is added, it creates
a hypertonic solution that causes plasmolysis and, as a result, there is wilting of certain
plant portions. In the end, the plant perishes.
(v)
a) Hypermetropia (far-sightedness). In this defect, as seen in the diagram, the image is
formed behind the retina.
b) It can be rectified by using a convex lens of appropriate power (focal length).
c) Vitreous chamber
Answer 7
(i) In the dark, the iris is wide open to let in more light. The pigment visual purple is built
up in large amounts. As we come out into the bright light, the visual purple is bleached
and the iris muscles contract to diminish the pupil. Till this happens, one feels blinded in
light.
(ii) The growth rate of population is the difference between birth rate and death rate. The
growth rate of population can be negative when the death rate is higher than the birth
rate of the population.
(iii) The uterine cycle consists of four distinct stages as follows:
a) Menstruation: It lasts for about five days.
b) Follicle stage: From the end of menstruation to the release of ovum, it lasts for 10-14
days.
c) Ovulation: It is the release of ovum from the ovary.
d) Corpus luteum stage: It lasts from ovulation to menstruation for about 10-14 days.
(iv) Monohybrid cross: It is a cross where two forms of a single trait are crossed or
hybridized.
Mendel performed this experiment on pea plant. He crossed the true breeding forms of
tall and dwarf plants and obtained the hybrid progeny. This is called as first generation
(F1) offspring plant to self-pollinate and produced the second generation (F2).
(v) It is a phenomenon that occurs in sequence while the heart contracts and relaxes. The
action potential causes the ventricles to contract (systole), then relax, starting with the
atria (diastole). Systole then drives blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles,
pulmonary artery, and aorta. The heart beats 72 times in a minute.. As a result,
numerous cardiac cycles occur every minute. 0 to 8 seconds make up a cardiac cycle. A
stethoscope can detect two heartbeats throughout each cardiac cycle.
Answer 8
(i) Soil pollution usually results from the disposal of solid and semi-solid wastes in
agricultural practices, industrial processes and insanitary habits.
(ii) Disadvantages of transpiration:
a) Some plants will die due to excessive water loss by transpiration.
b) Due to high rate of transpiration plant suffer from loss of turgidity.
(iii) The dissolved oxygen in the mother's blood diffuses into the fully developed human
embryo and is used in the oxidation of glucose in the cells, which releases energy, to
cause respiration. However, there are no breathing movements since the embryo's
lungs lie collapsed and don't work until the foetus is removed from the mother's body.
Therefore, no breathing movements in the embryo as it receives oxygen by diffusion of
gases.
(iv) Carbon dioxide gas is widely emitted into the atmosphere. Excess carbon-dioxide
emissions cause the greenhouse effect, which raises the global average temperature.
Global warming is another name for it. Carbon dioxide levels have risen by 28% in the
previous century, owing to the use of fossil fuels such as coal, gas, and oil.
(v)
a) (1) Alpha cells of islet of Langerhans (2) Beta cells of islet of Langerhans.
b) Glucagon increases blood sugar level while insulin decreases blood sugar level.
c) If insulin is given orally, it will be digested by the protein digesting enzymes in the
stomach. Hence it has to be injected.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Biology
Mock Paper – 2 Solution
SECTION A
Answer 1
(i) Leaves are free from starch
(ii) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(iii) Carbon dioxide
(iv) Retina
(v) Homozygous condition
(vi) Pancreas
(vii) Grana
(viii) Cuticle
(ix) Pisum sativum
(x) Sulphur dioxide
(xi) Active absorption
(xii) Menopause
(xiii) Hypertonic
(xiv) Concentration, duration of exposure to pollutants and the organism
(xv) Central Pollution Control Board
Answer 2
(i)
(a) Homologous chromosomes
(b) Uterus
(c) Methylated spirit
(d) Nucleosome
(e) Diffusion
(ii)
(a) Outer membrane, intermembrane space, inner membrane, granum, thylakoid
(b) Afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, capillary network, renal vein
(c) Renal artery, kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
(d) Cerebrum, Diencephalon, Mid-brain, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla oblongata
(e) Auditory canal, tympanum, ear ossicles, oval window, cochlea
(iii)
Column I Column II
(a) Pupil 6. Iris
(b) Ethylene 3. Fruit ripening
(c) SA Node 7. Pacemaker
(d) Bowman’s capsule 2. Glomerulus
(e) Fly ash 1. Industrial waste
(iv)
(a) Phagocytosis (rest are activities of plants)
(b) Sulphur dioxide (rest are greenhouse gases)
(c) Thyroxine (rest are endocrine glands)
(d) Leptotene (rest are stages of mitosis)
(e) Ureter (Rest are parts of female reproductive system)
(v)
(a) Spindle fibres: Between the two centrioles
(b) Root hair: Extension of epidermis
(c) Thylakoids: In the stroma of the chloroplast
(d) PCT: In the cortex region of the kidney between the Malpighian capsule and loop of
Henle
(e) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck just below the larynx
SECTION B
Answer 3
(i) During cell division, karyokinesis (division of nucleus) is followed by the division of
cytoplasm. It is called cytokinesis. Or in other words cytokinesis is the division of
cytoplasm.
(ii) Daughter or son is a matter of chance for Y- or X-chromosome carrying sperm to
fertilize the egg. It is always 50% The couple got four daughters as a matter of chance
encounter of the X-chromosome carrying sperm fertilizing the eggs. The chance of the
couple getting another daughter is again 50% (so is for the son).
(iii) In an isotonic solution, since the cells will not lose or gain water, their shape and size
will remain unaltered.
In a hypotonic solution, water will enter the cells by endosmosis, causing the cells to
expand.
In a hypertonic solution, cells will shrink as water will move out of the cell due to
exosmosis.
(iv) In respiration, energy is released as a result of oxidation of food, whereas in
photosynthesis it is stored up in a carbohydrate molecule. Oxygen is used in
respiration whereas it is given out as a by-product in photosynthesis.
(v) Tissue Fluid or Intercellular Fluid: Leukocytes and plasma protrude through the walls
of the capillaries of the tissues as blood flows through them. The fluid that surrounds
and hydrates cells is referred to as tissue fluid, intercellular fluid, or extracellular fluid.
The cells draw oxygen and other essential nutrients from this fluid and release CO2 and
other waste products back into it in return.
Answer 4
(i) Urine is yellow in colour due to the presence of a pigment urochrome, formed due to
breakdown of haemoglobin of old R.B.Cs.
(ii)
Location Function
Yellow spot Back of the eye, at the centre of the It is the region of best vision.
horizontal axis of the eyeball
(iii) Malpighian corpuscle:
(iv)
1. Static equilibrium: Sacculus and utriculus
2. Dynamic equilibrium: Semicircular canal
(v)
(a) Hypotonic solution
(b) Turgidity
(c) 1. Cell wall
2. Cell membrane
3. Chloroplasts
4. Vacuole
5. Nucleus
Answer 5
(i) Wilted lettuce leaves have a hypertonic cell sap. When they are placed in cold water,
endosmosis occurs. Water enters the cells of the lettuce leaves and the plasmolysed
cells become turgid. Therefore, the wilted lettuce leaves become crisp or firm when
placed in cold water for a while.
(ii) Besides global warming, change in climate air pollution also has certain bad impact on
the environment. Depletion of ozone layer intensifies ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Intensified radiation will cause a significant increase in skin cancer and eventually
have lethal effects on many organisms, including man. In plants such enhanced level of
UV radiation are feared to cause stunted growth, short, thick stems, smaller leaves.
(iii) Population density is defined as the size of a population in relation to a particular unit
area at a given time. Women are operated to prevent the flow of eggs into the oviduct
by tubectomy.
(iv) The kidneys purify the blood by excreting toxic and waste products from the blood.
They maintain the proper concentration of salts in the body and also regulate the
proper amount of water in the body. In this way the kidneys eliminate only the wastes
and extra substances from the body. Hence, we can say that kidneys are the master
chemist of the body.
(v) The separate circulatory system facilitates quick diffusion of nutrients, metabolic
waste and respiratory gases between the foetus and the mother. Bacteria and other
pathogens cannot pass from the mother to the foetus because they are filtered out by
the placenta. Blood pressure changes in the maternal circulation also cannot affect the
foetus which has delicate blood vessels.
Answer 6
(i) Any change in genetic composition of an individual brought about by internal or

external factors is called mutation. Mutation play a significant role in the evolution and
speciation because they cause variability. However, some harmful mutations cause
diseases.
(ii)
No. Glands Hormones Functions Diseases

(i) Pituitary (1) Growth (2) Maintains normal Gigantism
hormone growth of the body (hypersecretion)
Dwarfism
(hyposecretion)
(ii) (3) Thyroid Thyroxine (4) Regulates basal Cretinism,
metabolic rate Exophthalmic goitre
(iii) During the day, the chloroplast in the guard cells may carry out photosynthesis,
therefore the osmotic pressure in the guard cells' cell sap is high, and water enters the
guard cells, causing the stomatal aperture to open. As a result, stomatal transpiration
can occur, and CO2 can enter the green leaf, allowing photosynthesis to occur. As a
result, photosynthesis and stomatal transpiration occur concurrently during the day.
(iv) Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to produce thyroxin. Iodine deficiency is
caused by the fact that individuals who live in mountainous areas consume iodine-
deficient water from rivers and streams that are fed by melting snow. Even the iodine
in their diet is negligible. When there is a dietary iodine deficiency, the thyroid gland
enlarges to make up for the deficiency, which causes goitre.
(v)
a)
1. Oviduct, 2. Funnel of oviduct, 3. Ureter, 4. Vagina, 5. Ovary, 6. Uterus, 7. Bladder,
8. Urethra
b) The endometrium lining and glands of uterine wall grow to prepare the uterus for
the reception of a zygote.
c) If fertilization takes place, the embryo is implanted in the uterus. The uterus wall
develops a placenta which attaches the embryo to the uterus and the uterine wall
expands to accommodate the growing embryo.
Answer 7
(i) The meiosis is important to maintain the constant number of chromosomes in a
species. It also brings about variations which result in the evolution or origin of new
species.
(ii) Crossing-over is the interchange of the parts of the chromatid of a pair of
chromosomes. High temperature, X-rays and radiation treatment are the factors
affecting crossing-over.
(iii)
(a) Myxoedema: Thyroxine
(b) Exophthalmic goitre: Growth hormone
(iv) Medulla oblongata controls involuntary functions like heart-beat, rate of respiration,
secretion of saliva gut peristalsis, etc. Injury to the Medulla oblongata may result to
the stop of heart beat and breathing leading to death.
(v)
a) As population growth is in geometric progression while an increase in food
production is in arithmetic progression, there is a lack of food as the world's
population grows.
b) In order to accommodate the growing population, there is a corresponding lack of
housing, recreational facilities, clinics, and hospitals.
c) As a result of the population growth and the restricted land available for factories
and other businesses, there is unemployment.
Answer 8
(i) The tissues and cells which contain chloroplasts are mainly the palisade parenchyma
and spongy mesophyll cells of a green leaf.
(ii) Advantages of transpiration to the plant:
a) It results in ascent of sap by creating a suction force.
b) It results in cooling of the plant in summer.
c) It helps in distribution of water to all parts of the plants.
d) It helps in elimination of excess of water absorbed by the roots.
(iii) The blood flowing through the arteries exert some pressure on its walls. This pressure
is known as blood pressure. It is measured by an instrument named as
sphygmomanometer.
(iv) Exophthalmic goitre or Grave’s disease is caused by over-secretion of the thyroid
hormone. The thyroid increases in size and leads to an increased metabolic rate, and
high rate of heart beat.
The apparent symptoms are:
(a) Goitre (Swelling in the neck). (b) Protuberance of the eyeballs.
(c) The patient feels tired, nervous and restless.
(v)
a) A. Ovum, B. Sperm
b) A is produced in ovary, B is produced in testes.
c) These cells unite in the oviduct (fallopian tube).
ICSE
Class 10
History & Civics
Mock Paper - 1
PART-I
Answer 1
(i) (c) 30 years
(ii) (d) Quorum
(iii) (c) Cabinet ministers
(iv) (b) He should have completed thirty years of age.
(v) (a) The President
(vi) (d) Court of the people
(vii) (b) Mysore
(viii) (c) 1 and 3
(ix) (a) Economic cause
(x) (d) Lahore
(xi) (d) Japanese
(xii) (a) Sylhet
(xiii) (a) Triple Entente
(xiv) (b) General Assembly
(xv) (d) UNICEF
(xvi) (a) Black hand
Answer 2
(i) Two judicial powers of the Parliament:
The Parliament can impeach the President on the charges of grave misconduct,
violation of the Constitution etc. If the charges against the President are passed by
two-thirds majority of both Houses, the President may be removed from his office.
The Parliament can remove the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the
Chief Election Commissioner, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India if they
are found to be violating any provision of the Constitution.
(ii) She can directly appeal under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court on the
grounds of her fundamental rights being denied by the government or an organization.
(iii) Two objectives of Muslim league:
• To promote loyalty of Indian Muslims towards the British government.
• To protect the political and other rights of the Indian Muslims and to place their needs
and aspirations before the Government.
(iv) Allan Octavian Hume worked for the Imperial Civil Service, which was later renamed the
Indian Civil Service. One association founded by him was the Indian National Congress.
(v) Two important contributions of Surendranath Banerjee:
Surendranath Banerjee formed the Indian Association in 1876. Main aim of the
organisation was to spread education, to create public opinion on political issues
in the country and to create political consciousness and unity.
He created an all-India political organization and convened the Indian National
Conference in 1883 at Kolkata. It merged with Indian National Congress in 1886.
Banerjee presided over two sessions of the Congress in 1895 and 1902.
(vi) The assassination of Archduke Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the Austrian
throne by a Serbian nationalist was the immediate cause of the first World War. After
his assassination, Austria declared war on Serbia on July 28, 1914. Russia started
preparations to support Serbia in the war. As a result, Germany declared war on Russia
on August 1, 1914; and on August 3, on France. German troops marched into Belgium
to press on to France on August 4 and on that day itself England declared war on
Germany.
(vii) Two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism:
Both believe in the existence of a totalitarian state.
Both oppose democracy and communism.
PART II
SECTION A
Answer 3
a) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552. No more than 530 members could
represent the States and not more than 20 represent the Union Territories. Besides, 2
members of the Anglo-Indian community may be nominated by the President in case he
feels that the community is not adequately represented.
b) Three Special powers of the Rajya Sabha that is usually not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha
are:
Normally, the Parliament cannot make laws on the state subjects. But Rajya Sabha
by passing a resolution with two third majority can empower the Parliament to
make laws on the state list.
The Rajya Sabha can declare that the creation of new All-India Services be made in
the national subjects.
Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or after the
declaration of national emergency, the Rajya Sabha takes over the functions of the
Lok Sabha.
c) The President summons each House of Parliament to conduct its business. Members of
parliament meet, pass bills and discuss the affairs of the state. These are known as
parliamentary sessions. There are three parliamentary sessions—Budget Session
(February–March), Monsoon Session (July–August) and Winter Session (November–
December).
Answer 4
a) Three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the President of India:
He should be a citizen of India.
He should have completed thirty-five years of age.
He should not hold any office of profit under the central or the state government.
b) The President is elected indirectly because:
The direct election of the President by the people of the country can make him a
rival centre of power to the Council of Ministers.
As mostly a party gets a majority in the Houses of the Parliament, election of the
President by only the members of the Parliament could have made him a nominee of
the ruling party. Then the President would not have been able to represent the
states in India.
The election of the President by an Electoral College consisting of the State

Legislative Assemblies makes the President the elected representative of the whole
nation.
c) Two financial powers of the President:

Money bills can originate in the Lok Sabha only on the recommendations of the
President.
The Annual Budget is placed by the finance minister in the Parliament on behalf of
the President
Two emergency powers of the President:
The President can declare a national emergency if there is danger to the peace and
security of the nation because of foreign aggression, civil war or insurgency.
He can also declare emergency in a state if the constitutional machinery of the state
breaks down.
Answer 5
a) Three steps being taken to keep judiciary independent of the control of the Executive
and the Legislature:
The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President in consultation
with the Prime Minister, Cabinet and other judges of the Supreme Court and the
High Court. Thus, both executive and judiciary participate in the appointment of the
judges.
The procedure to remove the judges is not easy and simple. A judge can be removed
by the President only on the grounds of proven misbehaviour and incapacity.
Charges against the judges first have to be addressed by the President in front of
both Houses of the Parliament and have to be passed by two-thirds majorities of
both Houses.
A judge can remain in office till he reaches 65 years of age and cannot be removed
from his office except by the process of impeachment.
b) As the Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority, it can review any law passed by
the government and can declare it null and void if it violates any provision made in the
Constitution. This is known as the power of judicial review. The Supreme Court has the
power to review all national and state laws and executive orders and declare them null
and void if they do not confirm to the spirit of the Constitution.
a) A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office by a process known as
impeachment. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed only by the process of
impeachment on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. An order of such an
effect is first passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a
majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-
thirds of the members of that House present.
SECTION B
Answer 6
a) The British had introduced a new ‘Enfield Rifle’ in the army. This rifle needed a
cartridge which had a greased paper cover. This paper cover had to be bitten off before
loading the cartridge into the rifle. Rumours spread that the greased paper was made of
beef and pork. The soldiers felt that it was a move by the British to defame their
religion. Mangal Pandey urged his fellow soldiers not to use the rifle. On 29 March 1857,
he attacked his officers in Barrackpore. He was later hanged. On 9 May 1857, eighty-five
Indian soldiers who had refused to use the greased cartridge were dismissed from their
services and were jailed for disobeying their officers. This marked the beginning of the
sepoy revolt in Meerut which later spread to the other parts of northern India.
b) Three military causes:
Ill-treatment of Indian Soldiers: The British government ill treated the Indian
soldiers. They were denied better pay and facilities. They were also often humiliated
by the English officers. No Indian soldier could rise above the post of ‘subedar’ in the
Indian army. The British had no regard for Indian sentiments.
General Service Enlistment Act: The Company passed a new law in 1856, according
to which a sepoy had to travel overseas whenever required by the Company. It was
believed by the Hindus that one could lose his caste status and religion if he crosses
the seas. The sepoys thought the Company was trying to defame their religion.
Larger Proportion of Indians in the British Army: The British army consisted of
more Indian soldiers. It made it easier for the Indian soldiers to take up arms against
the British.
c) Four consequences of the revolt of 1857:
The power to govern India was transferred from the Company to the British crown.
The Board of Directors and the Board of Control of India were abolished and the
office of the Secretary of State for India was created. He was to look after the
formulation of the British policies in India. His salary and allowances were to be
paid from Indian revenues.
The Governor General in India now came to be known as the Viceroy of India. Lord
Canning became the first viceroy of the country.
The British abandoned the Doctrine of Lapse and the Subsidiary Alliance System.
The loyalty of the Indian princes during the revolt was rewarded.
Answer 7
a) Three objectives of the movement:
To attain self-government within the British Empire
To force the government to annul the Rowlatt Act
To force the British to restore the old status of the Sultan of Turkey
b) The Non-Cooperation Movement was suspended by Gandhi because of the incident
which occurred at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh. A procession of about 3000 people
marched to the Chauri Chaura police station. After being fired upon, the mob turned
violent and set the police station on fire killing 22 policemen. This incident shocked
Gandhi as he wanted to gain freedom by following the methods of non- violence. He

withdrew the movement on 12 February 1922.
c) Four results of the movement:
It made the national movement a mass movement as people from every profession
and walk of life participated in the movement.
It generated the desire for freedom among the people and inspired them to
challenge the colonial rule.
It fostered Hindu Muslim unity and also promoted social reforms.
The concept of Swadeshi and the boycott of foreign goods gave impetus to the
handicraft and local industries.
Answer 8
a) The Dandi March is the famous march undertaken by Gandhiji. He began this march
from the Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmadabad to Dandi, a village located on the seacoast of
Gujarat. Two features of this March were:
It was a 24-day non-violent march led by Mahatma Gandhi.
The march was organized to protests against the steep tax the British levied on salt.
b) As the Civil Disobedience Movement could not be suppressed by the government, a pact
known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed between Lord Irwin and Gandhi. Two main
features of the Pact were:
While the Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement, the
government agreed to withdraw all ordinances and end persecutions.
The Congress agreed not to press the government for investigations into police
excesses and the government agreed to release all political prisoners except those
who were guilty of violence. Further, the government also permitted peaceful
picketing of liquor and shops selling foreign clothes.
c) The Second Round Table conference was held between 7 September and December
1931 at London. In the conference, demand of separate electorates was raised not only
by Muslims but also by people of depressed classes, Anglo Indians, Indian Christians
and Europeans.
Answer 9
a) Causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism:
Militant nationalism was one of the major reasons of the First World War. It
included building a huge army and appointing a powerful class of military and naval
officers. For example, France wanted the provinces of Alsace and Lorraine back
from Germany, and Serbia wanted all the Balkan states to unite. This created
tensions among the other nations.
France and Britain build large colonial empires in Asia and Africa. Many other
nations like Germany, Italy and Japan competed with other powers to establish their
colonies. Building of colonies became essential at this time as they not only provided
raw materials and minerals for industries but also had great potential to become
markets for European-manufactured goods
Colonies also added to the power and prestige of the European nations. This led to
clash of interests among these countries. This filled the political atmosphere of
Europe with hatred, fear and tension.
b) Four terms of the treaty of Versailles which affected Germany after World War I were:
Germany was held guilty of aggression. She was required to pay a huge war
reparation of 33 billion dollars for the losses of the victorious nations.
The Rhine Valley in Germany was to be demilitarised, and German territory to the
west of Rhine was to be occupied by the Allied troops for 15 years.
Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine to France and Schleswig to Denmark and coal mines
in Saar, Germany, were given to France for 15 years.
The size of the German army and navy was restricted, and its air force and
submarines were banned.
c) The rise of extreme nationalism in the form of Fascism and Nazism pushed the world
towards the Second World War. Mussolini, the leader of the Fascists in Italy, established
a dictatorship and committed his nation to the Anti-Comintern Pact in 1937 and later to
a ten-year alliance with Germany in 1939. He also attacked Abyssinia in pursuance of
his imperialistic designs. On this, the League of Nations failed to take any action, which
exposed the political weakness of the League. In Germany, the rise of Hitler and his
brand of Nazism made conditions explosive. He flouted the military clauses in the
Treaty of Versailles and declared re-armament. In 1938, he annexed Austria and
attacked Czechoslovakia.
Answer 10
a) The United Nations Security Council consists of 15 members in total. There are five
permanent members –USA, Britain, France, China and Russia. The rest ten non-
permanent members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly by a two-
thirds majority for a two-year term.
b) Three functions of the General Assembly:
To consider and make recommendations on the principles of cooperation in the
maintenance of international peace and security.
To discuss questions regarding international peace and security and (except where
a dispute or situation is currently being discussed by Security Council) to make
recommendations on it.
To discuss and make recommendations on any question within the scope of the
Charter or affecting the powers and functions of any organ of the United Nations.
c) The United Nations Children’s Fund was started after the Second World War to provide
relief to children and mothers after World War II. Its functions are:
UNICEF works for the protection of children in matters of their survival, health and
wellbeing. This is done in cooperation with private individuals, civic groups,
governments and the private sector.
The UNICEF supplies technical assistance, equipment and other aids. It provides
paper for children’s textbooks, medical equipment and medicines for health clinics,
pipes and pumps for clean water supply in villages, etc.
It provides help to children and mothers caught in emergency situations caused by
natural calamities, civil strife, epidemic, etc.
ICSE
Class 10
History & Civics
Mock Paper - 2
PART-I
Answer 1
(i) (c) The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a couple of years during an
emergency.
(ii) (b) The President
(iii) (c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(iv) (b)No-Confidence Motion
(v) (d) Habeas Corpus
(vi) (c) He should have held a judicial office in India for at least five years.
(vii) (a) Lord Canning
(viii) (b) Lord Curzon
(ix) (a) Calcutta
(x) (d) ‘Kesari and Mahratta’
(xi) (a) Non-Cooperation movement
(xii) (d) Singapore
(xiii) (b) The Boundary Commission
(xiv) (d) The invasion of Poland by Hitler
(xv) (d) The League of Nations
(xvi) (a) 15
Answer 2
(i) Question Hour is a time in the Parliament when a member of a House asks questions
from the government on the matters of public interests. This right of the members to
ask questions from the government is known as interpellation.
(ii) Two discretionary functions of the President:

The President can appoint the Prime Minister when there is a hung Parliament, i.e.,
where no single party gets a majority in the Lok Sabha.
When the ruling party loses the majority in the Lok Sabha, the President may or
may not dissolve the House on the recommendations of the Prime Minister. The
former may ask the leader of the other party to prove their majority on the floor of
the House.
(iii) The Purna Swaraj resolution—proclaimed on January 26, 1930, later to be

celebrated as independent India's Republic Day—called for “complete freedom from
the British”. Two main objectives of the Indian National Army were as follows:
To organise a provisional government of Free India in order to mobilise all the
forces effectively
Total mobilisation of Indian manpower and money for a total war.
(iv) Two provisions of the Rowlatt Act passed by the government in 1919 were:
The government could arrest of any person without a warrant
Suspension on the Right of Habeas Corpus
(v) Two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 which were to decide the fate
of princely states:
The princely states were to become independent of the British rule.
The princely states would be free to join either India or Pakistan or may choose to
remain independent.
(vi) The Simon Commission was headed by John Simon. It was formed to study about the
constitutional reforms in the country. It consisted of 7 members. It was opposed
because it did not have any single Indian member. Almost all the political parties
boycotted it. There were mass protests, hartals and black flag demonstrations all over
the country.
(vii) Two objectives of the League of Nations:

To preserve peace and security in the world
To settle international conflicts in a peaceful manner.
PART II
SECTION A
Answer 3
a) The Legislature exercise control over the Executive in the following ways:
The Parliament exercises control over the Executive by posing questions to
ministers related to public opinion during Question Hour. By asking questions,
members can draw the attention of the House and people towards unjust policies of
the government.
The Parliament can pass a motion of No-Confidence against the government. If such
a motion is passed, then the government has to resign.
Adjournment motions can be passed on certain occasions when a mishap takes
place such as railway accidents, killing of people during riots etc. Through this
motion, the Parliament draws the attention of the people towards acts of omission
and commission.
b) The Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha in the following ways:
Motion of No-Confidence can be moved and passed only in the Lok Sabha. If it is
passed, the government has to resign.
Money bills can only be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
In case of a deadlock over an ordinary bill, the will of the Lok Sabha prevails as its
numerical strength is double that of the Rajya Sabha.
c) Four Legislative powers of the Union Parliament:

The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha make laws on the Union List on important
subjects such as foreign policy and defence. It also makes laws on the subjects listed
in the Concurrent List.
The Parliament passes the Union budget which consists of the total income and
expenditures of a financial year.
The Parliament can impeach the President on the charges of grave misconduct,
violation of the Constitution etc. If the charges against the President are passed by
two-thirds majority of both Houses, the President may be removed from his office.
The Parliament can amend the Constitution. The amendments should be passed by
each House with two- thirds majority.
Answer 4
a) The powers of the Prime Minister:

The Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet. He presides over the meetings and
the proceedings of the Cabinet.
The Constitution gives the Prime Minister the liberty to choose his
Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers and appoint them. He
also allocates them various portfolios.
The Prime Minister presides over Cabinet meetings and decides their agenda. After
listening to the views of the numerous Cabinet Ministers in such meetings, he also
determines the future course of action for the concerned Ministries.
b) Every minister is responsible to the Prime Minister and holds office during his pleasure.
He has to answer all questions asked by the Members of Parliament related to their
department. All ministers are individually responsible to the President and hold office
during the pleasure of the President. Every minister is responsible for any wrong policy
formulated by him/her and the breach of secrecy. In the past, several ministers have
owned mistakes committed by his/her department and have resigned from their posts.
This is known as the Individual Responsibility.
The Council of Ministers, as a single body, has a responsibility towards the Lok
Sabha for the Government’s general conduct of affairs. If any minister loses the
confidence of the Lok Sabha, all the ministers of the government collectively have to
resign from the office. This is known as Collective Responsibility.
c) Four legislative powers of the Cabinet:

The cabinet minister scan and introduce bills in the Parliament. More than 95% of
the bills are initiated by the Cabinet.
The Cabinet is instrumental in planning and making an amendment to the
constitution.
All the policy decisions regarding the country like the finance policy and the defence
policy are formulated by the Cabinet with the consent of the Prime Minister.
The Annual Budget is prepared by the finance minister, no changes in the budget
can be made without the wishes of the Cabinet.
Answer 5
a) The High Court is a court of law as its judgments and orders are preserved as a record
to be referred by its court in future cases. The law laid down by the High Court is
binding on all subordinate courts. Further, the High Court can punish anyone who
commits a contempt of its order.
b) High Courts like the Supreme Court have the power of judicial review. Any law passed
by the State Legislature violates any term of the Constitution or take away the
fundamental right of a person, the High Court can declare the law as null and void.
c) Appellate jurisdiction of the High Court means that the High Court has the power to
hear appeal against the decisions of the lower courts like the district court in civil and in
criminal matters. In civil cases, appeals can be brought before the High Court if they are
concerned with the matters of land revenue or if an injustice is done by the tribunal. In
criminal cases, it can hear appeals where the sentence of imprisonment exceeds seven
years, in case of a death sentence and in cases against the state where an order of
acquittal has been passed by a Session Judge.
SECTION B
Answer 6
a) The person in picture is Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Two of his reforms were
He advocated female education and it was largely due to his efforts that the practice
of sati was declared illegal.
He opposed child marriages and the purdah system.
b) The Ilbert Bill was passed in 1883 by Lord Ripon. This Bill sought to create political
equality by vesting Indian judges with the power to try European or British citizens
residing in India. However, because of vehement protests by the Europeans, the Bill was
withdrawn. This enraged the Indians who began to feel the need for organising
themselves.
c) The role of press in igniting the feeling of nationalism among Indians:

Many newspapers and magazines started in the latter half of the nineteenth century.
Some of them were Amrit Bazar Patrika, The Bengali, The Tribune, The Pioneer and
The Hindu.
It was through the press that the message of liberty, freedom, equality, home rule
and independence spread among the people.
The newspapers criticised the unjust policies of the British and exposed the true
nature of British rule in India.
It encouraged various communities and groups to organise political movements in
the country.
Answer 7
a) Three methods followed by the Early nationalists for their struggle:

The Early nationalists held meetings and gave speeches for pressing their demands.
They criticised the policies of the government through the press.
They followed the three P’s—Petitions, Prayers and Protests. This was done by
sending petitions and request letters to protest against the unjust policies of the
government.
b) Lord Curzon ordered the partition of Bengal. Although the government said that the
province of Bengal was partitioned for administrative convenience, the nationalists
were of the firm opinion that by partitioning Bengal, the government aimed at creating
a rift between the Hindus and the Muslims as East Bengal was a Muslim majority region
and West Bengal was a Hindu majority region.
c) Two assertive nationalists were Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai. Two
contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai are:
He started a monthly magazine Young India to inspire people to join the national
movement for attaining Swaraj.
He contributed immensely to society as a social reformer. He was closely associated
with the Arya Samaj movement. He played a significant role in expanding D. A. V.
College at Lahore in 1886. He founded many orphanages, schools and hospitals. He
also founded ‘Servants of the Peoples Society’ for the welfare of people belonging to
lower castes.
Answer 8
a) The Sultan of Turkey was regarded as the ‘Caliph’ or the religious head of the Muslims.
Most of Muslim sacred places were located within the Turkish Empire. In the First
World War, Britain was fighting against Turkey. This led to a wave of indignation
among the Indian Muslims. The Muslim population in wanted that the Ottoman Caliph
should retain his empire, the Caliph should be left with adequate territories to enable
him to defend the Islamic faith and the Arab lands should remain under the Arabic rule.
To Gandhi, the Khilafat Movement offered him an opportunity to unite the Hindus and
the Muslims. It was because of the above reasons, that the Khilafat movement was
launched in India.
b) Three terms of the Gandhi Irwin Pact.

The government agreed to withdraw all ordinances and end prosecutions and to
release all political prisoners except those who were guilty of violence.
The government agreed to allow peaceful picketing of shops selling liquor and
foreign clothes.
The Congress on its part agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and
participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
c) Two causes that led to the Quit India Movement:

When the Japanese army began to advance quickly towards the Indian borders, the
government sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India to garner the support of Indians and to
break the political deadlock. However, most of the political parties did not accept
the proposals. The failure of the Cripps mission led to the beginning of the Quit India
Movement.
The Japanese army in 1942 had already attacked Burma and was fast approaching
towards Assam. Gandhi felt the presence of British in India was an invitation to the
Japanese troops to invade the country. Many leaders felt that the British must be
forced out of the country. Thus, they launched the Quit India Movement asking the
British government to quit India.
Two significances of the Quit India Movement:
Although the movement was short lived, the people developed greater ability to
struggle and sacrifice. It became evident that the British no longer would be able to
rule India.
The movement signified the mass uprising of the people. People from every state,
class, caste, sex and creed participated in the movement.
Answer 9
a) Three reasons that led to the rise of Nazism in Germany:
Germany was defeated in the First World War and was forced to sign the
humiliating Treaty of Versailles.
Several harsh terms were imposed on Germany by the victorious nations. Its
overseas colonies were seized by the Allied powers, he had to pay a huge war
indemnity of 33 billion dollars, the Rhine area was demilitarised and many of his
mineral territories were captured.
Hitler openly defied the treaty and asked the Germans to support him into building a
new powerful Germany.
b) Four similarities between the Nazi and the Fascist ideology:
Both believed in the existence of a totalitarian state
They oppose democracy and communism
They upheld the concept of one party and one leader
Both believe in aggressive nationalism, imperialism and glorified wars.
c) Results of the Second World War:
The axis powers-Germany, Italy and Japan-were defeated in the war. Germany was
divided into two zones-West Germany and East Germany. West Germany was
administered by Britain, France and the USA with its capital at Bonn. It followed
capitalism. East Germany was occupied by the Soviet Union with East Berlin as its
capital. It followed socialist ideologies.
The United Nations was formed in 1945 to maintain international peace and
security and to prevent the occurrence of any future wars.
USA and Soviet Union had fought together during the Second World War. But by the
end of the war, ideological differences began to appear between both nations. This
period of uneasy tension and political instability is known as the Cold War.
Answer 10
a) Objectives of the UNO:
To maintain international peace and security.
To develop friendly relations among nations.
To achieve international cooperation in resolving international,
economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.
b) Three functions of the International Court of Justice:
It decides cases when many treaties include the submission of disputes to the Court.
It decides disputes related to the interpretation of international laws. It also decides
cases related to the reparation which is to be made for breaching any international
obligations
The Court can give its advisory opinion only when present member nations request
the Court to give its advisory opinion.
c) Four functions of the WHO:
It helps many countries to improve their health systems by improving the quality of
services for individuals and the community.
It provides important drugs and medicines required for medical purposes. WHO has
launched important programmes to immunise children against measles, diphtheria,
tetanus, tuberculosis, polio and whooping cough.
It promotes research studies to cure and prevent diseases.
It works towards providing safe drinking water.
ICSE Board
Class 10 Geography
H.C.G. Mock Paper -1
PART-I
Answer 1
(i) (a) Southeast
(b) Pattern of drainage in grid square 2315 is radial.
(ii) The region has seasonal dry streams and a dry tank.
(iii) (a) 2216,2215
(b) 2115- contours are far apart and thus it shows a gentle slope.
1811- contours are close representing steep slopes.
(iv) (a) The red square in grid square 2514 represent a temporary settlement
4r in grid square 1612 represent the relative height of embankment which is 4m.
(v) (a) The fire line is to prevent fire.
(b) The pipeline is for supplying water from the Kodra reservoir
Answer 2
Answer 3
(i) (d) The Southern Coromandel Coast
(ii) (a) Laterite soil
(iii) (a) Sheet
(iv) (c) Shelter Belts
(v) (c) Date palm
(vi) (d) It is only recently that water harvesting has begun to be practiced in India
(vii) (c) Composting
(viii) (d) Airways
(ix) (a) Sugar
(x) (a) Germany
Answer 4
(a) Two types of cyclonic systems that affect India and two areas that receive rainfall
from them are:
Westerly depression which affects Punjab and Haryana.
Tropical cyclones that affect the state of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Two important characteristics of the southwest monsoon rainfall are:
It is orographic in nature. This means that the distribution of rainfall is largely
governed by topography or the relief features. For example, it rains heavily in the
northeastern region of the country due to the presence of mountains.
The rainfall is uneven and unreliable.
(c) Geographical reasons:
(i) Malabar Coast gets heavy rainfall from the southwest monsoon in July, while the
state of Tamil Nadu remains dry during the season. This is because Tamil Nadu is
located parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon.
(ii) Since the northern plains lie in the interior of the continent and are not
influenced by the moderate influence of the sea, they experience continental type
of climate.
(iii) Regions lying on the windward side of the mountains receive heavier rainfall than
the regions lying on to the leeward side of the mountains. Since central
Maharashtra lies on the leeward side of the Western Ghats, it receives little
rainfall.
(d) (i) Annual rainfall experienced by all the stations= sum total of rainfall during all the
twelve months= 114.3cm
(ii) The name of the station is Tamil Nadu as the temperature remains moderate
throughout the year and the rainfall is heaviest during the beginning of winter
season.
(iii) Season during which rainfall is heaviest is during the months of retreating
monsoon and in winter. It rains the heaviest in the month of October.
Answer 5
(a) Rainwater harvesting is the method of collecting rainwater for use before it reaches
the ground. Generally, rainwater is collected from the rooftop through pipes and
stored in underground storage structures. Rainwater harvesting is useful in the
following ways:
It recharges ground water as the collected water in a natural reservoir seep into
the ground increasing the level of water table.
It provides water for domestic use during the summer season when most of the
country suffer from water scarcity.
(b) In drip irrigation, water is given directly to the crops through perforated pipes which
are placed between rows of crops. This method reduces the rate of evaporation and
helps in conserving water.
(c) Tank irrigation is largely practised in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Rainwater
could be stored in the tanks which otherwise flow out and get wasted. This water is
then used for irrigation.
(d) Three reasons to justify the need to conserve water:
A large and growing population in India has resulted in the scarcity of water
resources in the country. Hence, we need to conserve water.
To provide food resources for such a vast population, water resources are
overused to irrigate agricultural fields. Indiscriminate use of wells and tube wells
has led to a considerable decline in the water table.
The establishment of various industries has resulted in the further exploitation of
water resources. The discharge of industrial effluents has also degraded the
quality of water.
Answer 6
(a) Two characteristics of the tropical desert forests:
The trees are stunted with large patches of coarse grasses.
Plants have long roots which go out deep into the soil in search of water. Leaves
are waxy, small and thick to reduce transpiration.
(b) Three key differences between the tropical evergreen and tropical deciduous forests:
Tropical evergreen forest Tropical deciduous forest
These are found in regions which receive These are found in regions which receive
more than 200 cm of rainfall. rainfall of 200–70 cm.
The trees of the tropical evergreen The trees of the deciduous forests shed
forests do not shed their leaves at the their leaves for about six to eight months
same time as there is no particular during the dry season.
season for shedding leaves.
These forests are dense. They are found These forests are less dense. They are
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the found in the northeastern states, parts of
Lakshadweep, upper parts of Assam and central India, West Odisha and
Tamil Nadu and on the western slopes of Chhattisgarh.
the Western Ghats.
(c) (i) There is no definite season for the tropical evergreen trees to shed their leaves. All
trees do not shed their leaves at the same time. Hence, these forests always appear
green.
(ii) Forest cover is shrinking in India at a rapid pace. Afforestation or special
programmes like ‘Van Mahotsav’ should be launched and celebrated on a large scale.
This will create awareness among the people regarding the protection of forests. It
will also inspire people to plant more trees to maintain ecological balance in the
country.
(iii) In higher latitudes above 3600m, the climatic conditions become extremely
harsh and are covered by snow in the mountainous regions. No vegetation except
mosses and lichens can survive in such a cold and a harsh climate.
(d) Two objectives of the social forestry:
To recognise, restore and reallocate the forest lands to the inhabitants for the
management and protection of forests.
The forest department should work in close cooperation with local communities.
Answer 7
(a) Differences between the bangar and the khadar soil:
Bangar soil Khadar soil
It is old alluvial soil. It is new alluvial soil.
It has higher concentration of kankar It has less concentration of kankar
nodules. nodules.
It is comparatively less fertile. It is more fertile as it is deposited every
year during the monsoon floods
(b) (i) Alluvial soil

(ii) Red soil
(iii) Laterite soil
(iv) Black soil
(c) (i) Alluvial soil is also called riverine soil because it is mainly found in the river basins.
(ii)Black soil is called a residual soil as it is formed at the place of its origin.
(iii) Laterite soil appear red in colour because of the presence of iron oxide formed
during leaching.
(d) (i) Gully erosion: This occurs during heavy rainfall when running water cuts through
the soil making deep channels. The land thus becomes unsuitable for cultivation and
is known as bad land.
(ii) Afforestation: Afforestation is the process of planting areas of land with trees, to
form a forest.
(iii) Terrace farming: It is a method to prevent soil erosion in hilly regions. When
steps are cut out on the slopes of the hills making terraces, it reduces soil erosion.
Answer 8
(a) Manganese is found in India in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Goa. Its use is that it
is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry as it is used for hardening
steel and prevents it from rusting.
(b) Two advantages of petroleum:
It has a high density. One kg of oil can generate 10,000 kcal of energy.
Petroleum is liquid in form and can be transported through pipes or vehicles.
(c) Hirakud dam is located on river Mahanadi. Two benefits of this dam are:
The dam helps control floods in the Mahanadi delta ad irrigates 75,000 sq. km of
land.
The project provides irrigation to the ‘kharif’ and ‘rabi’ crops in districts of
Sambalpur, Bargarh, Bolangir and Subarnpur.
(d) Three advantages of using nuclear energy:
Nuclear energy is a renewable source of energy and it reduced the dependency on
fossil fuels for the generation of energy.
It saves on the cost of raw materials. Its transportation and handling cost is also
minimal.
It initiates a continuous process of energy production. A nuclear power plant
generates electricity for almost 90% of annual time.
Answer 9
(a) Two steps that have been taken to improve agricultural production in India:
The government has introduced various laws to improve the condition of Indian
agriculture such as the abolition of the Zamindari Act.
The government has provided a lot of support to the farmers like it has announced
minimum support prices for the crops and has provided subsidies to farmers for
purchasing fertilisers and seeds.
(b) Sowing months of rabi crops are from October to December and kharif crops are
sowed in the month of July. Two rabi crops are wheat and barley. Two kharif crops
are rice and maize.
(c) Two climatic conditions required for the growth of ground nut are:
Groundnut grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climate and can be damaged
because of frost.
It requires a temperature of 20°C to 25°C. Sandy loams and well-drained soils are
considered suitable for groundnut cultivation.
(d) Two methods that are used to grow tea are:
One way of planting tea is that first high-quality seeds are sown in nurseries. The
saplings are then transplanted within a year in a tea garden.
Tea shrubs can also be grown in nurseries from the cutting of high-yielding
varieties. This is known as the clonal planting method of propagating tea.
Answer 10
(a) Sugar industries have shifted to the south because of the following reasons:
The climate of South India is free from the effects of summer loo and winter frost
which are suitable for growing superior varieties of sugarcane. The production
period is also long.
Black soil is more fertile than the alluvial soil of north India. The sugarcane here is
of superior quality with higher yield.
The excellent transport facilities in Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu have resulted in
an increased number of sugarcane mills in these regions
(b) Two differences between agro based and mineral based industries:
Agro based industries Mineral based industries

These industries use agricultural These industries use minerals as raw
products as raw materials. materials.
Example: Sugar and tea industry Example: iron steel and automobile
industry.
(c) Rourkela steel industry get its supply of coal from Jharia, talcher and korba fields; iron
ore from singbhum and mayurbhanj and water supply from river Damodar.
(d) Two raw materials used by the petrochemical industry are the products of petroleum,
LPG and coal. Two of its finished products are synthetic fibres and synthetic rubber.
Answer 11
(a) Two differences between the national and the state highways:
National Highways State Highways
National highways are constructed and State highways are constructed and
maintained by the central government maintained by the state government.
They connect major cities, industrial These connect district headquarters,
centres and pilgrim places across the tourist centres, pilgrim towns and
country. national highways within the state.
(b) Three advantages of roadways over railways:

(i) Roadways give door to door services while people have to use roadways in order
to use railways.
(ii) Construction of roads is cheaper than the railways.
(iii) It is easier to build roads in hilly, desert and mountainous regions.
(c) Two disadvantages of airways:
It is the costliest means of transport and hence is out of the reach of common
people.
Unlike roads and railways, airways have still not been connected to the smallest
cities.
(d) (i) Paradip port
(ii) Chennai port
(iii) Kochi port
Answer 12
(a) Composting is the method of waste management in which household and municipal
wastes are decomposed by the aerobic method. The wastes are decomposed by
microorganisms. Two of its advantages are:
Enhances soil nutrition and soil water retention capacity
Increases the soil fertility by adding humus
(b) Waste management is essential because of the following reasons:
Increase in population has led to the large-scale accumulation of wastes. Hence, it
is important to manage the wastes.
There are dangers of spreading many diseases when wastes get accumulated on
land and water bodies.
(c) Reusing of waste is important because:
Reusing of goods help in reducing the amount of waste we produce, as well as the
number of resources that are used to produce new items.
Reducing saves energy as manufacturing of new products consume energy.
(d) (i) The dumping of different types of wastes makes such dumping grounds the
breeding ground of mosquitoes and flies which may spread disease and harm human
health.
(ii) Plastic bags are non-biodegradable and cause a huge loss to the environment.
They choke the pipes and cause sewage problems. Hence, people have started using
bags of jute or cotton.
(iii) It is important to recycle the wastes as it helps to keep materials out of landfills
and reduces the need to produce new products from scratch and reduces the amount
of waste generation.
ICSE
Class 10
Geography
H.C.G. Mock Paper - 2
PART-I
Answer 1
(i) (a) 876950

(b) A lined well near Ganguwada- 915967
(ii) (a) Relative height of the bank stream
(b) Relative depth of the well is 20 m.
(iii) (a) River with a small stream of water
(b) South-east to west
(iv) (a) Open mixed jungle, open scrub and open jungle.
(b) Dendritic
(v) (a) Clustered or nucleated settlement because of large cultivated lands and availability
of water.
(b) Carts are the common means of transportation in the southern part of this map.
Answer 2
Answer 3
(i) (d) Punjab

(ii) (a) It is easy to plough the soil when it is wet.
(iii) (c) Leaching
(iv) (a) Littoral forests
(v) (c) Tropical evergreen forests
(vi) (b) Furrow irrigation
(vii) (d) Biogas
(viii) (c) It is within the reach of the common people.
(ix) (b) Petrochemical industry
(x) (b) Subsistence agriculture
Answer 4
(a) During the winter season, Punjab receives rainfall from temperate cyclones that
originate from the Mediterranean Sea. These cyclones are not of great intensity.
Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from the northeast monsoon winds that blow over the
Bay of Bengal and bring winter rainfall to the state.
(b) Two Benefits that are derived from the local winds that blow in summer in the
following states are:
(i) Kerala: Local winds cause rainfall in the state. This rainfall is popularly known
as ‘mango showers’ as they help in the ripening of mangoes.
(ii) West Bengal: Local winds known as ‘Kalbaisakhi’ bring rainfall to West Bengal
during the summer season. This rainfall is useful for growing jute and rice in
the state.
(c) Geographical reasons:

(i) The Bay of Bengal branch, which brings rainfall to the northeastern states due
to the presence of mountain ranges, sheds its moisture as it travels towards the
west. Thus, there is a decrease in rainfall as one goes from east to west. Since
Kolkata lies in the lower Ganga valley and Kanpur lies further west of Kolkata
hence it rains more in Kolkata than in Kanpur.
(ii) The Arabian Sea branch of the Southwest monsoon blows parallel to the
Aravalli Hills. Since the moisture bearing winds do not strike the mountains,
they do not cause any precipitation in Rajasthan.
(iii) Trivendrum is a coastal region which experiences moderate climate due to the
influence of the sea. It does not experience extreme climate. Hence, it is not cold
even in the month of December.
(d) (i) May and October are the coldest months.

(ii) The annual rainfall= Sum of rainfall in all the twelve months
Therefore, annual rainfall is= 127.6cm.
(ii) Since the climate of the city is moderate throughout the year and it receives
maximum rainfall during the months of Oct and Nov, the city is Chennai.
Answer 5
(a) Tube wells are extensively used in the states of Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh.
It is an important source of irrigation as it irrigates large areas of land in
comparatively less time and it can irrigate the fields throughout the year.
(b) Surface wells can be constructed at a very low cost while the construction of
inundation canals from the rivers is not within the reach of poor farmers. Secondly,
wells could be used even during summers. Inundation canals can be used only
during the time of floods.
(c) (i) Karnataka lies in the Deccan Plateau and thus has natural depressions, hard
surface rocks and lack of perennial rivers which make tank irrigation important.
(ii) Sprinkle irrigation is practised in arid and semi-arid regions because of its high-
water use efficiency.
(iii) Alkaline salts may come upto the ground in areas where canals are used for
irrigation. This happens when the water table is only a few feet below the ground.
This salt when it mixes with the soil makes it unproductive.
(d) Three objectives of rainwater harvesting:

To meet the increasing demand of water
To collect rainwater and use it for domestic purposes during summers
To increase the water table by recharging groundwater
Answer 6
(a) Three characteristics of the montane forests:

Montane forests thrive in the areas where rainfall ranges between 100cm to
300 cm. and temperature ranges between 120C to 130C.
Two species of trees are maple and birch.
These forests have mixed species of broad-leafed evergreen trees and conifers.
Evergreen forests are found in the mountainous regions where rainfall is more
than 200 cm annually. Conifers are found in the regions of high altitude where
precipitation is generally in the form of snow fall.
(b) Two reasons for forests being an important natural resource are:
They provide valuable timber, food, fuel and other forest products
Forests absorbs carbon dioxide and release oxygen and hence play an
important role in reducing global warming.
(c) (i) Plants in tropical deserts have waxy leaves to reduce transpiration.
(ii) The underground root system requires oxygen. Trees of the littoral forests have
aerial roots because these are found in wet and marshy regions. The soil is not able
to support the underground root system, and hence, they grow vertically up to the
air above the soil.
(iii) The forest cover in India is shrinking because of rapid population growth,
overgrazing, clearing of forests for building dams, cultivation and making highways
and increase in demand for timber.
(d) Two reasons why Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit because these
forests are dense with many plants and climbers tangled to each other in these
forests. Secondly, the lack of transport means to travel deep into these forests has
made their trees difficult to be used commercially.
Answer 7
(a) The soil associated with the Deccan Trap is the Black soil. Two advantages of this
soil are:
It is fine grained soil and is moisture retentive.
It is rich in lime, potash, alumina and calcium.
(b) (i) Red soils are found in the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
(ii) The disadvantages of red soils are that it is poor in humus, nitrogen, lime and
phosphorous. It is also not water retentive.
(c) Two methods of controlling soil erosion:

Afforestation: The roots of the trees hold on to the soil and prevent soil
erosion.
Terrace Farming: In the hilly regions, terrace farming prevents the soil from
being washed away by running water
(d) (i) Alluvial soil is the fertile soil because it has loamy texture and is rich in humus. It
has good water absorbing capacity and water retention capacity.
(ii) India has a vast latitudinal and longitudinal extent. Different climatic conditions
prevail over different parts of the country. The nature and composition of rocks
differ from region to region and hence different regions in India having different
kinds of soil.
(iii) Conservation of soil is essential, as the loss of the top layer of soil with all the
nutrients from the surface of the earth, may result in the reduction of agricultural
productivity.
Answer 8
(a) Iron ore is found in India in the states of Odisha and Bihar. Its use is that it is an
important raw material in the iron and steel industry as it is used for making steel.
(b) (i) Major coalfields in India are Gondawana coalfields and tertiary coalfields.
(ii) Two disadvantages of using coal are:
Cost of production and transportation of coal is very high.
Burning of coal results in large scale pollution.
(c) (i) Mumbai High supplies more than three-fourths of India’s natural gas.
(ii) Two disadvantages of using natural gas are:
Leaks in natural gas are extremely dangerous. Such leaks may result in
explosion and fire.
The infrastructure requiring the setting up the production process and
distribution of gas is very expensive.
(d) (i) The Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources has been promoting the Biogas
Programme in India because is a clean, non-polluting and cheap source of energy.
(ii) People have started using solar energy because it is a cleaner source of energy
and reduces electricity bills.
(iii) Copper is used to make electrical wire as it a good conductor of electricity.
Answer 9
(a) Two institutional problems faced by the Indian agriculture are:

Small and fragmented land holding owned by the farmers
Farmers are exploited by the corrupt revenue officers.
(b) (i) Two leading rice producing states in the country are West Bengal and Uttar
Pradesh.
(ii) Two advantages of growing rice in nurseries are:
Better development and protection of saplings are ensured in the nurseries.
Transplantation of saplings from nurseries into the fields results in high
yield.
(iii) Rice grows well in clay-like subsoil as the water retention capacity of clayey soil
is very high. Rice crop needs standing water.
(c) (i) Two climatic conditions required for the growth of wheat are:
It requires a cool climate. It needs a temperature of 10–15°C during sowing and
20–25°C during harvesting.
About 80 cm of rainfall is ideal for wheat cultivation.
(ii) The yield of wheat is low in Madhya Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh as it is grown
under rain-fed conditions.
(d) (i) In sett method of sowing sugarcane, new canes are taken out from old plants. These
cuttings of new plants known as ‘setts’ are planted and four to five stalks grow from
each cutting
(ii) After harvesting, the sugarcane must be taken to the mill within 24 hours because
its sucrose content starts decreasing after 24 hours of harvesting.
(iii)Tamil Nadu is the largest producer of sugarcane in South India.
Answer 10
(a) (i) Agro-based industries use plant-based products as their raw material. For
example, jute industries while mineral-based industries use mineral ores as their
raw material like automobile industries.
(ii) The raw materials and finished products of heavy industries are heavy and
bulky like iron and steel industry whereas the raw materials and finished products
of light industries are light weight like electrical industries.
(b) (i) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country because
it manufactures sophisticated products ranging from equipment used in defence,
space exploration, information technology and communication to various
computer systems and has largely contributed to these sectors.
(ii) The production and consumption of iron and steel is one of the most
significant measures of the level of industrialisation and economic growth of a
country. Most of the important industries such as automobile, locomotives, rail
tracks, shipbuilding, machinery and tools and manufacture of defence equipment
depend on iron and steel industry.
(c) (i) Mumbai is known as the ‘cottonpolis’ of India because it is the most important
centre of cotton production.
(ii) Two problems faced by the cotton textile industries in India are:
Most of the machinery installed in the cotton mills are outdated and needs to be
replaced.
Irregular power supply has hampered the production.
(d) (i) The Tata iron and steel plant is located at Jamshedpur about 240 km northwest of
Kolkata.
(ii) It gets its supply of coal from Jharia and Bokaro coalfields.
(iii) It gets its source of water supply from rivers Kharkai and Subarnarekha.
Answer 11
(a) (i) The national highways are constructed and maintained by the Central
government.
(ii) There has been an increase in the traffic on national highways because of rapid
industrialisation.
(b) Three disadvantages of using waterways are:

It is dependent on the weather.
It involves long hours of travel which causes sickness.
It is limited to areas where rivers are navigable and where an oceanic route exists.
(c) Three advantages of the airways are:

It is the fastest means of transport.
It is also a prestigious and comfortable means of transport.
Regions which are covered with dense forests, deserts and high mountains have
easily become accessible because of air travel.
(d) Two disadvantages of the railways are:

Railway tracks cannot be laid down in hilly and remote forested regions.
Every industrial town does not have railway tracks.
Answer 12
(a) There is a need for waste management in India because of the following reasons:
To control different types of pollution, i.e., land pollution, soil pollution and water
pollution.
To prevent the spread of diseases emanating because of waste accumulation.
(b) Recycling is the process of converting waste materials into new materials and objects. It
is important because of the following reasons:
Recycling helps in keeping the environment clean. Recycling certain kinds of
plastics help in saving the environment.
Recycling also helps in the conservation of resources. For example, recycling
paper helps in saving trees.
(c) Segregation is a method in which wastes are segregated. Biodegradable and non-
biodegradable wastes are segregated into different bins. Biodegradable wastes are then
converted to useful products like biogas.
(d) Open dumping of wastes is harmful. It is because of the following reasons:

The dumping of different types of wastes makes such dumping grounds the
breeding ground of mosquitoes and flies.
Burning of these wastes also pollutes the air. The situation can become worse
during the rains.
Rainwater may carry these wastes to nearby lakes, rivers or ponds and pollute
them.
ICSE Board
Class 10 English Language
Mock Paper – 1
Please note that the answers to these questions are very subjective hence students
are requested to attempt them on their own. For reference purposes, given below is
the solution to the first question.
1. (A) I was a big football enthusiast in my college days. When derby used to happen, I
would go to the club in the city which shows the match on the big screen. One day, there
was a final match and I went to the club to watch the same. There, a little boy named
Suresh, came to me. He said that he was hungry and wanted to eat something. I bought
two samosas and gave them to him to eat. While he was eating them, I asked him, "What
do you do? Where are your parents?" He replied that he was an orphan and he begged
for money at the red light. I felt so bad for him. Then, he told me that he desired to go to
a school and learn to read and write. He wanted to do some office work when he grows
up. I found a desire in his eyes to learn. I asked him if he could cook any food. To which
he replied “yes”. I offered him to come to my flat and be my cook. I would pay him
money in return and would teach him how to read and write. He agreed to the offer. We
went to our flat and within a couple of days, Suresh became so comfortable and trained
that he knew every detail of my flat and my kitchen. I trusted Suresh a lot. One day, I
received 20,000 from my family in a courier to pay my flat’s rent. I kept the entire
amount in the cupboard and asked Suresh to keep an eye on it while I was in college.
When I returned home, I found the cupboard open and the courier was left on the floor
in shreds. I immediately picked it up to check the money in it but to my dismay, I found
that there wasn’t any penny left inside. I screamed Suresh’s name to call the police but
there was no reply. I searched everywhere and then I realised that he wasn’t there
anymore. It was he who had stolen the money. He was a thief and that broke my heart
and my trust.
(B) FOR THE MOTION
The existence of offices is due to its employees working for long hours inside them.
Until recently, offices felt like the most essential estate in order to get work done. But
today, offices are no longer a necessity for employees to work. This is all because of
advanced technology. Advancement in technology has made office-work easier and
more accurate. Among other things, it has made the culture of work-from-home a
reality. This has allowed people to work for their offices, right from the comforts of
their home. The recent global outbreak of corona virus has proved this true. Companies
were left with no other option than letting their employees work from home due to the
‘lockdown’ that was imposed by the state for people’s safety. Employees were seen
working day and night for their offices from their homes and they met all their targets
within the deadline. There were no leaves, late-comings or low productivity from the
employees. It has been observed that ‘work-from home’ culture makes employees
happy as they keep earning in the rough times while being safe and healthy. It also
helps people save money for fuel. For the company, it saves expenditure in terms of
resources like electricity, office space, parking lot, etc. If a company adopts this system
of working, it can direct the funds for constructing and maintaining an office setup
towards employee benefits and incentives. As a conclusion, the company gets the most
benefits from the work-from-home arrangement. Not only does it cut the cost of office
maintenance and daily perks for employees like refreshments, stationery items, etc., but
also it makes the employee feel extremely happy and comfortable at home. The happier
the employees are, the better they work, and faster the company grows. Thus, it can be
truly said that offices are no longer required as employees can work from their homes.
AGAINST THE MOTION
To work in an office is so essential for the corporate world. It is a professional way to

maintain work relationships. Offices provide all the necessary work environment,
equipments, meet-ups, collaborations and decorum for the employees. Working at an
office does not only benefit the companies but also the employees. Unlike ‘work from
home’ internet connection based procedures, there is lag or disconnectivity between
the head and the subordinate whenever they want to have a meeting or discussion as
both the parties are available at one place in real time.
Working at an office is necessary for freshers who just start their careers. It is very
important for them to work at an office for understanding the work procedures, ways,
methods, client dealings, etc. Not only for freshers but also for experienced employees.
By working together in an office, people gain qualities of team spirit, leadership,
punctuality, etc. In an official setup, a person gets help and support from his colleagues,
in case he gets stuck on a task. Working at the office keeps the employee active and in
high spirits. He can take a break and be around his colleagues for some time to freshen
up his mind and mood. This increases his productivity. On the other hand, a homely
environment can also make an individual lethargic and lazy. It may also result in a lack
of concentration in work. A workforce under one roof is so important for new ideas,
thoughts, innovations and plans. Different-minded people from different departments
of the company, meet others over the meeting and that gives rise to new developments
and strategies together. Employees get proper feedback and hands-on practice for
assignments. Working from home can only carry the work temporarily while for the
longer run, offices have to be run by both the employers and the employees.
(C) EMBARRASSING SITUATION
Last year, an extracurricular talent fest was organised in our school. It was a two day
event in which competitions were held on various skills. Interested students could
choose from poster, model making, singing, dancing, debate and extempore, and quiz
competitions. To encourage skill development in the students, our class teacher made it
mandatory for all of us to participate in at least one event. The pressure to participate
in the fest put me in a fix. I did not have much inclination towards any of these fields;
my talent was acting. But sadly, there was no competition for it. Upon my friend’s
persuasion, I went and got myself registered for extempore speech. My friend said it
would not be very difficult to participate in it as it only required giving a two-minute
speech. Now, the competition was in a week’s time and coincidently it was on the day
next to my birthday. In the frenzy of birthday celebration and party, I forgot all about
the upcoming extempore competition. The next day, the school started as usual. In the
second period, there was an announcement for all the participants of the extempore
and debate competition to gather in the assembly hall. It was then it hit me that I was
also a participant. When our turn came, all the participants were told to pick a slip from
a bowl. We were given two minutes’ time to think on the topic that was written on the
slip. After that, one by one we all had to go up to the stage to deliver a minimum of two-
minute speech. In my daze of nervousness, I misread my topic as ‘Ways to control
population’ whereas it was ‘Ways to control pollution’. Obviously, I went on to deliver a
faltering speech on methods to control population. I stuttered badly and stood in a
tense stance. When my timer ended, one of the judges pointed out my mistake of
speaking on the wrong topic. I felt a wave of embarrassment wash over me as I stood
there with a red face. I apologised and quickly got off the stage. Needless to say, I did
not win that competition. But I did learn the importance of preparation and confidence
in speech. That day, I resolved to work on my oratory skills for better performance in
future.
(D) I belong to Agra – the city of the Taj. Since Agra is a historical place, it has various
beautiful tourist attractions, one of which is a commercial market place, known as
Sadar. Sadar lies in the Agra Cantonment area and is closely situated from the Taj
Mahal. Though Sadar is famous for a lot of exotic and exquisite things like leather
articles, handicrafts, fine shoes, artefacts, etc., it is best known for its yummy street
food. There is a lane in Sadar that is completely devoted to yummy eateries and lip-
smacking street food. The lane is named ‘Chat Gali’ in Hindi which stands for ‘street
food lane’. ‘Chat Gali’ is the most beloved lane of Sadar. It is my personal favorite out of
many other lanes. Chat Gali has many street vendors and shops that offer tasty street
food, full-course meals, various cuisines and a lot more. The famous pasta of Master
chef Sardar Ji is often covered by many food channels on the television. The yummy Pav
Bhaji, Mughal Thali, Paneer Tikka and ice-cream rolls are some of the most desired
street foods of it. Chat Gali is always so packed with the hustle-bustle of tourists, locals,
families, couples, friends and all. The lane is usually filled with crowds from different
parts of India. The long lines waiting at the food counters for their turn are so lovely to
the sight. The Chat Gali is the life of Sadar. It is always awake with shopkeepers and stall
vendors yelling the prices of their food items to the people. Also, in Sadar, there is an
open area adjacent to many coffee shops and showrooms that offers swings and games
for fun. All in all, the taste of Chat Gali is what makes it number one for me. The best
street food that I have ever tasted!
(E) Summer vacations had just begun. For me, it meant endless days of cricket and
eating dozens of ice-creams. It was a very hot summer afternoon and I was playing
cricket with my neighbourhood friends. It was my turn to bat while my friend bowled. I
could feel the sweat trickle down my forehead, as I hit the ball and it went straight over
the fence. A direct six! But our eyes were not on the ball, instead it was on an old man
who seemed to be walking in a daze. Suddenly, he slumped to the ground. We left our
cricket bats and ran towards him. A taxi driver sitting nearby came running too. He
called some of the passers-by and with their help lifted the old man and put him in the
taxi. They rushed him to the nearest hospital. The old man‘s family was easy to trace as
he had written their numbers on a piece of paper and kept it in his wallet. Later, that
evening, we came to know that he was fine but had suffered a heat stroke. We all were
really petrified when the old man was lying unconscious on the ground. He was
somebody’s father and a grandparent. Seeing him helpless, brought me to tears. As soon
as I heard the news of him being totally out of danger, I was relieved. We all were really
happy for the old man and his family. That afternoon was a messy one. I still remember
every detail of it.
2. (i)
J-12, Akbar Road,
Kota.
23rd May, 20XX
Dear Hardik,
I am so excited to write this letter to you. Congratulations on your big achievement of
passing the Class 12 board examination with amazing grades. Everybody at home is
proud of you. Though I knew that you are a good student and is determined to achieve
high scores, I had no idea that you will top the entire district. That is a great
achievement, my friend.
The result has proved that hard work, determination, and perseverance bring good
results. You were so laborious and passionate about becoming the highest scorer. Your
parents have too made a lot of efforts for you throughout your preparation.
I also want to congratulate your parents. They must be feeling on top of the world. Your
future is very bright. My parents and elder sister have sent lots of love and heartiest
congratulations.
Yours lovingly,
Nisha Singh
(ii) 1-A,
St. Agnes School,
Agra.
24th December, 20XX
The Manager,
The Big Store,
Sanjay Place,
Agra.
Sir/Ma’am,
I am glad to inform you that our school, St. Agnes, is organizing a health camp inside the
premises for locals to get their COVID-19 vaccines for free. The school has seen the
tremendous control that the vaccine is able to get over the pandemic and thus, as a
prestigious name of the city, we have come up with an idea to support the vaccination
drive for people in and around the area.
The event of ‘Vaccinated Agra‘ that will take place in the school campus will require a
good amount of funds and for this, the school would request you to sponsor the event.
Through the event, not only will the school get benefit by being safe with the vaccinated
staff and workers, but also the risk of contamination in The Big Store will decline too. As
both the school and the store is in the same area, the event will benefit both the
compounds and people working thereof.
Kindly respond to our request in positive and support the good effort.
Yours faithfully,
Xyz
Manager
St. Agnes School
3. (i)
SWACHH BHARAT ABHIYAN

A Drive to spread Awareness about Cleanliness
Date: 23rd December, 20XX
Time: 11:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
Venue: Gathering at Eklavya Sports Complex
This is to invite people to join the cleanliness campaign and to make generous
contribution towards the environment on the event of ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’. For
registration, please contact Miss Shweta Singh, Society Secretary at 9897XXXX on or
before 17th December, 20XX.
(ii) To: principal@xyzschool.com

Subject: Invitation Tree Plantation Drive
Dear Sir
We are pleased to invite you and your students to the two-day Tree Plantation Drive
being organised by our school for spreading awareness among the young students
regarding the importance of trees. The event will start on 24th September, 20XX, and
end on 25th September 20XX. It will take place in our school park.
To encourage the students for taking part in this drive, we will be distributing prizes
and rewards to those students who will plant the most trees.
For further queries, please contact the undersigned.
Regards:
ABC (Administrator, HR Department)
Xyz School
4. (A)
(a) (ii) unknown
Explanation: The word ‘unprecendented’ means never done or known before. It also
means unmatched. In the passage, it means the unknown situation that has developed
due to outbreak of novel Corona virus. Hence, (ii) is the right answer.
(b) (i) predecessor
Explanation: The word precursor means a person or thing that comes before another of
the same kind. In the passage, the word is being used for Swachh Bharat Mission which
has preceded the safety precautions to be taken during corona pandemic. Hence, (i) is
the right answer.
(c) (iii) clear
Explanation: The word apparent means clearly visible or understood, seems to be real
or true. In the passage, the word is used to indicate that equality of people as a factor of
exploiting the nature is not very clear. Hence, (iii) is the right answer.
(B)
(a) The ‘unprecedented’ or the ‘unforeseen’ situation around the world these days is the
pandemic, the outbreak of novel coronavirus. This calamitous outbreak of a disease has
wrecked the humankind of the planet.
(b) The doctors suggests us to take precautions in the form of maintaining basic
hygiene, sanitation, cleanliness and to follow social distancing in order to stop
spreading the virus among us.
(c) The nationwide Swachh Bharat Mission is the precursor to the great social
awakening of cleanliness.
(d) Gandhiji’s every campaign would always run parallel to the question of sanitation
and hygiene. In 1896, when Gandhji visited India, plague broke out in Bombay. To curb
it, he inspected the lavatories and encouraged people to pay attention to cleanliness.
(e) The pandemic has made us all keep a social distance from other humans so as to
avoid any spread of the virus. The fear of the virus has brought an emotional distance
among the humans as well.
(C) Humans, neglecting the fact that all organisms depend on other to work better, have
overpowered all the other living creatures and nature. With the rise of the pandemic,
humans have learned that even after being such powerful organisms, they can be
distorted in a minute by the power of nature. It only took a micro-organism to shake
over the entire mankind.
5. (i) was waiting

(1) hunted
(2) bought
(3) was engrossed
(4) munched
(5) was getting
(6) would blackened
(7) took
(8) had tried Children's Club
(ii)
(A) in
(B) of
(C) under
(D) into
(E) with
(F) off
(G) over
(H) away
(iii)
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
(iv)
1. C
Explanation: The introductory verb i.e. ‘Said’ is changed to ‘asked’ and ‘do + verb Ist
form’ changes to verb IIIrd form.
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
Explanation: The adjective ‘high’ has been nominalised into ‘height’.
6. A
Explanation: Options (a), (d) have ‘then’ where as ‘than’ is used in ‘No sooner....’
sentence. Moreover the meaning has changed in (a). Option (c) is also incorrect with
‘does’. Hence option (b) is the right answer.
7. C
8. C
ICSE Board
Class 10 English Literature
Mock Paper – 1
Ans 1.
i. (b) the waves of the bay

ii. (b) To express his rebellion against oppression
Explanation: The bird is captive in a cage. His wings are clipped and his feet tied. He
cannot fly and his movement is also restricted in the narrow cage. He is sad and
frustrated. To express his feelings and his desire for freedom he opens his throat to
sing a song of freedom. His voice is the only thing which is free from bondage.
iii. (c) Church bells
iv. (a) heavenly being
v. (c) differently-abled athletes
vi. (b) a blessing for Maggie
vii. (c) hardships, desperation and hopelessness
viii. (d) honey confections
Explanation: Sibia paused before the sweetmeat shop to look at the brilliant honey
confections, which were abuzz with dust and flies. She had never consumed such
beautiful beats before.
ix. (d) his friendship with Luz Long
Explanation: Jesse was a man of emotions who weighed his friendship with Luz Long
much more than all the gold medals he had won at the Berlin Olympics. He gave credit
to Luz Long for him winning the gold medal at the 1936 Olympics.
x. (a) The rain had finally stopped which resulted in silence.
xi. (c) that it is a lie as gossiped by an old lady.
Explanation: Salanio wishes that the news of Antonio’s shipwreck is not true but is
rather a rumour which has been started by an old woman out of habit.
xii. (a) Gratiano
Explanation: Bassanio was not ready to part with his ring. Gratiano convinced him to
honour Balthazar (Portia) for his dedicated services. Then, Bassanio gave the ring to
Gratiano to give it to Portia. In this scene, Gratiano enters and presents Bassanio’s ring
to Portia.
xiii. (c) Bassanio
Explanation: Jessica says that it is very necessary for Bassanio to lead an honourable
life because he is now married to Portia who is like a blessing to him.
xiv. (b) to a monastery
xv. (d) to have his bond and do justice to him
xvi. (a) the false hair worn by a woman originally belonged to a dead woman lying in a
grave
Ans 2.
i. Portia is talking to Lorenzo in this manner. Lorenzo had just praised Portia’s decision
to send Bassanio to help Antonio. He says that she has a good understanding of spiritual
friendship. That is why, she willingly bears the absence of her husband, but if she knew
the person to whom she had shown this kindness and honour, how good a man and a
good friend of her husband he is she would feel proud of her action. In fact, this action
is more valuable than her other generous actions so far.
ii. "Companions that do converse and waste the time together" means friends who spend
time talking to each other. ‘Equal yokes of love’ means bound to each after like a pair
of oxen, and ‘Lineaments means characteristics.
iii. Portia feels that two friends spend their time together and interact with each other,
bearing equal respect and love for each other in their souls. There is bound to be some
similarity in face, manners and disposition.
iv. The relationship between Antonio and Bassanio is that of love, affection and friendship.
Antonio readily agrees to Shylock’s bond to give money to Bassanio to woo Partia and
never regrets his generosity even at the forfeiture of the bond. His last wish is to see
Bassanio before he dies. Bassanio reciprocates the same sentiments by rushing back to
Venice soon after his marriage to save Antonio.
v. Portia’s “God-like amity” associates her with Antonio, who is the “bosom lover” of
Bassanio. Both Antonio and Portia are dear to Bassanio and exemplify the principle of
selfless generosity as Antonio is ready to sacrifice his life for his friend Bassanio, and
Portia is ready to sacrifice everything at stake to save Antonio’s life from the clutches
of selfish Shylock.
Ans 3.
i. The scene is set in the Court of Venice. The speaker of these lines is the Duke of Venice.
ii. The Duke has to impart justice in the case presented before him by Shylock against
Antonio. Shylock is leading a fashion of malice or cruelty. In other words, he is
pretending to be cruel.
iii. The Duke says that Shylock is just pretending to be cruel. He thinks that at the last hour,
Shylock will show mercy and pity that shall be more surprising than the bizarre cruelty
that he seems to be showing now. The Duke says that though Shylock has come to the
court to collect one pound of Antonio’s flesh as a penalty the Duke thinks that he will
not only let it go later but out of humanity and love, he will forgive some portion of the
principal also.
iv. The Duke asks Shylock to look into his losses to Antonio and feel pity for him. He refers
to the losses recently suffered by Antonio as his ships, laden with expensive cargo, are
believed to be lost in the seas after being hit by rocks.
v. The poor merchant referred to in the given extract is Antonio. He was a very rich and
noble merchant in the past whose fortunes were tied to the ships which were delivering
cargo to four covers of the world. After those ships wrecked at the sea, he lost all his
fortunes. Earlier, he would lend money to people without charging interest. Today, he
had no money to even pay back his own loan.
Ans 4.
i. After returning from work, Joe washed his hands and face. He went to the little bedroom
where Maggie lay on a bed. A pair of large bright eyes looked up at him from the snowy
bed. She looked at him tenderly, gratefully and pleadingly. This gave Joe extreme joy
and he sat down and for the first time examined the child carefully under the lamp. She
was thin with an attractive face and full of childish sweetness on which suffering had
not been able to leave its marks. This strengthened his sympathy for Maggie.
ii. On the first day, after returning from work, Joe went into Maggie’s room to talk to her.
He sat down beside her and taking her soft little hand, confirmed whether her name
was Maggie. He then asked about her sickness, her treatment and about the pain.
Maggie replied that she had been experiencing some difficulties and pain before coming
to his house, but now she felt good and comfortable. She was satisfied and grateful to
Mr Thompson.
iii. Mrs Thompson was against keeping Maggie and taking care of her. She insisted that her
husband should send Maggie to the poor house. Mr Thompson cited a few references
from the Bible and explained that it was a small thing for them to keep that poor
motherless child for a single night. Mrs Thompson did not answer but a soft feeling
crept into her heart. She spent the whole day with her, but at night she made an effort
to be indifferent towards Maggie in front of her husband. She kept silent and gave the
child food to eat. This showed that the chords of her heart were struck with sympathy
for the child.
iv. Earlier Mrs Thompson was adamant about sending Maggie to the poor house. But with
the passage of time, the harshness of her behaviour converted into softness and her
heart began to melt towards Maggie. The tenderness, innocence, patience, gratitude
and purity of the child moved her a lot and she initially asked her husband to keep
Maggie for a day or two before sending her to the poorhouse, on the pretext of her
weakness and helplessness.
But finally, she gave up the idea of sending Maggie to the poorhouse and accepted her
wholeheartedly.
v. Mrs Thompson was childless and had no one to take care of or love. That was why she
became a sore, irritable, ill-tempered and self-afflicting woman. But when Maggie came
into their life, their life changed. The sick, helpless and miserable child brought to light
happiness in the Thompsons' lives and filled all the dreary chambers of their hearts as
well as their house with the sunshine of love.
Ans 5.
i. Sibia provided the injured woman with first aid and helped her back to the Gujar
encampment. And in a rush, she had forgotten to carry her things. So she returned to
the riverside to pick her sickle, hayfork and grass. She found her hayfork lying in the
river luckily not carried away by the water. She picked them up and went back home.
ii. When Sibia bent to pick up her hayfork which was lying in the water, she saw a blue
bead. In the dark, it did not look blue but a no-colour white-blue. It was wobbling and
rippling along with the movement of the water. It was perfectly pierced and ready to
use. She picked it up and was overjoyed to have it as she wanted a bead to make a
necklace for herself.
iii. Sibia was extremely brave and courageous. She worked really hard to cut grass and
earn money. She even killed the crocodile while saving the Gujar woman but she was
still a young child at heart. This can be clearly understood by her reaction when she
gets overjoyed after finding a small, blue bead instead of feeling proud of herself for
killing a crocodile. To her, killing a mugger wasn't as amazing an incident as finding a
pierced blue bead for her necklace.
iv. To an ordinary reader, Sibia’s biggest triumph that day would be her courageous act of
saving the Gujar woman. However, reading about Sibia and the kind of life she lived, it
seemed like an ordinary/everyday event to her. She wasn't filled with joy having saved
that woman. For Sibia, her greatest triumph that day was finding a pierced, ready-to-
use, blue bead for her necklace. This made her immensely happy.
v. Sibia's force hit the crocodile in his eye with a hayfork with all her force. The crocodile
leapt up and down in pain and crashed back, exploding the water. He went back into
the depths of the water, which had turned into a bloody foam. He did not die at that
moment, but sooner or later he would meet his end due to the pus in his eye.
Ans 6.
i. The free bird mentioned in the given stanza is referred to the people belonging to the
white community. The people of the white community enjoyed unrestricted freedom
and led a life of dignity, grandeur and infinite possibilities during the civil rights
revolution. They enjoyed a luxurious, comfortable life enabled with rights while the
African Americans had no rights or freedom.
ii. The ‘orange sun rays’ indicate a boundless, lively and joyful sky. The free bird was
restrained by nothing. The poetess emphasises on its expanse, glow and beauty using a
beautiful image of a sky painted in orange hues during dawn/dusk times. The colour
orange has been used because it is associated with dawn, mornings with hopes,
freedom and happiness.
iii. The free bird flies high with his wings spread. He flies with the current of the wind. In
his natural habitat, the bird's movement is unrestrained and unrestricted. He flies as if
the sky belongs to him. This is how the free bird dares to claim the sky.
iv. The free bird enjoys its freedom. It is compared to the white race towards black people
in America. They have the freedom to pursue their ambition easily. They are unaware
of the cries and needs of the oppressed black community.
v. The poet has described nature beautifully through the movements of the free bird as he
flies upward in the sky and at the next moment, he floats effortlessly down the gentle
current of a river. The morning sun has been described as ‘orange sun rays’, beautiful
imagery of the rising sun which appears beautiful. When the bird flies, he appears as if
he has dipped his wings in the orange sun.
Ans 7.
i. The 'he' mentioned in the given lines is one of the nine contestants who participated
in the hundred-metre race. Like every other participant, he dreamt of winning a
medal of excellence at the Olympics- gold, silver or bronze. While running, he
stumbled and fell on the tracks. He was distressed and gave out a cry of frustration
because he could see his years of hard work and practice going down the drain.
ii. They knew the Olympics would be very tough and cut-throat. To participate and win,
each of them had put in months and months of rigourous training and preparation.
They prepared so they could win laurels for their country. When the said competitor
fell, he must have felt like all his dreams and ambition was being shattered right in
front of his eyes.
iii. Nine young athletes participated in the hundred-metres race. One of the contestants
fell on the track. The remaining eight contestants stopped and looked back at their
fallen companion. They were expected to continue the race. Strangely enough, they
all turned round and came back to pick up the fallen athlete. They lifted him to his feet
and walked towards the finish line together, emerging victorious as a group.
iv. After one of the participants fell, the other eight contestants turned around to help
the fallen athlete stand on his feet, displaying their spirit of true sportsmanship. They
could have continued running to win the race but instead gave up their competitive
spirit and displayed empathy and kindness towards their fellow athlete. This shows
that they were kind and emphatic about the plight of their fellow participant. They
were selfless and true sportsmen.
v. The race ended with all the nine athletes, holding each other's hands walking towards
the finish line with a smile on their faces. The race which was supposed to be a
competition was reduced to a mere walk, delivering a message of collaboration and
cooperation.
ICSE
Class 10 Hindi
Mock Paper – 1
1. निम्िनिजखत ववषयों मेंसेककसी 'एक' ववषय पर िगभग 250 शब्र्दों मेंसजषं जषप्त िेख
निजख ए। (15)
1) नमत्रता ववद्याथी िीवि का अिमोि उपहार है , सच्चा नमत्र िीवि की मुजककििों
को आसाि करके उसे िीिेिायक बिाता है ; ववषय को अपिे शब्र्दों में स्पष्ट
कीजिए।
िीवि में एक नमत्र का होिा अत्यंत आवकयक होता है । क्योंकक नमत्रता ही
वह ररकता है , जिसे हम स्वयं बिाते हैं , सोच-समझकर और र्दे खभाि कर।
िब ककसी इं साि से हमारी पसंर्द िा-पसंर्द, हमारे ववचार, नमि िाते हैं और
सोचिे का तरीका एक-सा होता है ; तो अिायास ही वह हमारे अत्यंत करीब
हो िाता है । और नमत्र कहिािे िगता है ।
संसार के अन्य ररकते तो िन्म के साथ स्वयं ही नमि िाते हैं , वह अच्छे हैं
या बुरे हैं , इि का सवाि ही िहीं होता ककंतु नमत्र का ररकता हमेशा अच्छा
ही होता है क्योंकक हम िैसे होते हैं , नमत्र हमें उसी रूप में हमें स्वीकार कर
िेता है । उसके निए हमें अपिे-आपको बर्दििे की आवकयकता िहीं होती।
यं तो नमत्र बिािे के निए कोई समय सीमा-निर्ाणररत िहीं होती। बचपि से
िेकर बुढापे तक नमत्र बिाए िा सकते हैं , ककंतु बचपि या ववद्याथी िीवि
में हुई नमत्रता सबसे अनर्क शविशािी होती है क्योंकक इस नमत्रता में िा
ही कोई स्वाथण होता है , िा ही कोई छि होता है । यह र्दो कर्दिों के आपसी
संबंर् होते हैं ,िो पववत्र और आिंर्द से पररपर्ण होते हैं । ववद्याथी िीवि की
नमत्रता मिभावि होती है और ज्यों-ज्यों आगे बढती िाती है ; त्यों-त्यों
प्रगाढ होती िाती है ।
एक सच्चा नमत्र िा केवि सुख-र्दख
ु का साथी होता है बजल्क गुरु के समाि
सिाहकार और नशष्य के समाि आज्ञाकारी भी होता है । िीवि की
ककििाइयों को हि करिे में वह अन्य ररकतो के पहिे बढ-चढकर हमारी
मर्दर्द करता है । आि के व्यवहारवार्दी युग में सच्चा नमत्र नमििा बहुत ही
र्दि
ु भ
ण है । यकर्द नमि िाए तो यह एक बहुत बडे सौभाग्य की बात होती है ।
2) कोरोिा महामारी िे हम सब को परे शाि कर कर्द या है । िॉकडाउि की अवनर् में

आपको कक ि परे शानियों का सामिा करिा पडा, िॉकडाउि का प्रभाव अच्छा था या
बरुा अपिे ववचार निजखए।
कोरोिा महामारी िे 2019 में अचािक आकर ववश्व को अपिे चपेट में िे
निया यह महामारी सबसे अिग थी और आि तक समाि उसके प्रभाव से
प्रभाववत है । इस महामारी िे समाि का रहि-सहि ही बर्दि कर रख
कर्दया। कई बार हाथ र्ोिा, सैनिटाइिर का प्रयोग करिा, मास्क िगािा , यह
सब अब हमारी आर्दत बि गई है , िो कोरोिावायरस की ही र्दे ि है ।
ववश्व स्तर पर फैिी हुई इस महामारी को रोकिे के निए संभवतः पहिी
बार िॉकडाउि िगाया गया िो कक र्दे शवानसयों के निए एक िया अिुभव
था। पहिी बार एकत्र होकर खुनशयां मिािे और र्दख

ु मिािे की सामाजिक
परं परा टटी।
भीषर् र्दख
ु के समय व्यवि को अकेिे ही उसका सामिा करिा पडा।
ररकते-िाते यहां तक कक सगे संबंनर्यों से भी र्दरी बिािे को वववश होिा
पडा। इस अिगाव के कारर् ि िािे ककतिे मिोरोग और शारीररक िोगों
िे आ घेरा।
हम िैसे ववद्याथी वगण के निए तो यह िॉकडाउि ककसी कैर्दखािे से कम
िहीं था। ि बाहर निकििा, ि नमत्रों से नमििा, ि बािार िािा, ि
गोिगप्पे खािा; केवि और केवि घर के भीतर रहिा और इस आतंक के
साए में िीिा कक कहीं कोरोिा महामारी की चपेट में िा आ िाएं। कफर
आए कर्दि ककसी ि ककसी के संक्रनमत होिे की और कभी ककसी की मौत
की खबर िे तो िैसे ववचार-शन्यता की जस्थनत तक पहुंचा कर्दया था।
परं तु इि सब के बाविर्द कोरोिावायरस कुछ अच्छी चीिें भी र्दे कर गया।
अकेिे रहिे का अवसर नमििे के कारर् अपिे गुर्- र्दोषों को बारीकी से
र्दे खिे का अवसर नमिा। अपिी रूनचयों को तराशिा इस त्रासर्दी से बचिे
का एक शविशािी तरीका था।
घर के खािे में पहिी बार स्वार्द आया और िंक फड से र्दरी बिी। शुरू-
शुरू में तो यह सब बहुत बुरा िगता था, पर बार्द में र्ीरे -र्ीरे आर्दत सी
बि गई।
कोरोिावायरस िे एक ओर ि िािे ककतिे आत्मीय ििों को उिसे अिग
कर कर्दया तो र्दसरी ओर इं साि को र्दख
ु से अकेिे ही िझिे की किा भी
नसखाई। मुझे तो कोरोिावायरस की त्रासर्दी िे अपिे-आपको िाििे का
अवसर कर्दया है ।
3) आि का यगु ववज्ञापि का यगु है , ववज्ञापि हमारे िीवि में

ककस प्रकार हावी है अपिे ववचार निजखए।
आि हम जिस युग में िी रहे हैं , वह परी तरह से ववज्ञापिों पर आर्ाररत
है । घर से बाहर निकिते ही िहां ििर डािो वहीं ककसी ि ककसी वस्तु का
ववज्ञापि कर्दखाई र्दे िाता है । िािे अंिािे ववज्ञावपत वस्तु हमारी पसंर्द में
शानमि हो िाती है ।
ववज्ञापि का ववस्तार हर िगह र्दे खिे को नमिता है । इं टरिेट हो या टीवी
प्रोग्राम कोई भी वबिा ववज्ञापि के िहीं होता। र्दसरे शब्र्दों में कहं तो हमारे
िीवि के उपभोग की हर वस्तु ववज्ञापि से प्रभाववत होती है ।
यकर्द कोई िई वस्तु हमारे सामिे आ िाती है , जिसका हमिे ववज्ञापि के
द्वारा िाम ि सुिा हो , तो हम उसे इस्तेमाि करिे से भी कहचककचािे
िगते हैं , िबकक ववज्ञावपत वस्तु चाहे अच्छी हो या बुरी हम आंख मंर्द कर
उस पर ववश्वास कर िेते हैं ।
कुछ ववज्ञापि हमारे निए िाभप्रर्द होते भी होते हैं , िैसे नशषा संबंर्ी
ववज्ञापिों से हमारा ज्ञािािणि होता है । ककंतु अनर्कतर ववज्ञापि सच्चाई से
बहुत र्दर होते हैं और समाि को भ्रनमत करते हैं । ऐसे ववज्ञापि
िुकसािर्दायक ही होते हैं ।
ववज्ञापिों िे हमें इस कर्दर अपिे मोहिाि में बांर् रखा है कक इसके कारर्
हमारी अपिी पसंर्द-िा-पसंर्द िगभग समाप्ती हो गई है । हम उन्हीं चीिों के
आर्दी बि गए हैं , जिि का ववज्ञापि हर समय कर्दखाया िाता है । ववज्ञापि
कताणओं िे इस मिोववज्ञाि को बहुत अच्छी तरह से समझ में निया है कक
बार-बार एक ही चीि को कर्दखािे से वह व्यवि की पसंर्द बि िाती है ।
आि ववज्ञापिों की र्दनु िया में खोकर हम अपिी संस्कृ नत, अपिे रीनत-
ररवािों को भि बैिे हैं । हम वहीं करते हैं , िो र्दे खते हैं ।
हमें ि असनियत का ज्ञाि है और ि सच-झि की परवाह है । कौि-सी

चीि हमारे निए फायर्दे मंर्द है और कौि-सी िुकसाि र्दायक इसका भाि
बहुत कम िोगों को है ।
यकर्द समय रहते ववज्ञापिों पर अंकुश िहीं िगाया गया तो आिे वािी पीढी
भ्रनमत हो िाएगी। समय की आवकयकता है कक सच्चाई पर आर्ाररत
ववज्ञापिों को ही आगे बढिे का मौका कर्दया िाए और िो झि पर
आर्ाररत है , उिका ववरोर् ककया िाए।
4) 'अतं भिेका भिा', इस कहावत को स्पष्ट करती

एक मौनिक कहािी निजखए।
" अंत भिे का भिा "
भोि अपिे माता-वपता का इकिौता बेटा था। वह पांचवी कषा में पढता था
और अपिी कषा में हमेशा अव्वि आता था। उसी के कषा में वीरू और
शेरू िाम के र्दो बािक थे, जिन्हें पढाई- निखाई में कोई रुनच िहीं थी,
स्कि के बार्द का सारा समय वे खेि में गुिारते थे ।
उन्होंिे भोि से र्दोस्ती कर रखी थी और वह प्रनतकर्दि उसे अपिे घर
बुिाकर उससे अपिा गृहकायण करवाया करते थे। भोि अपिे िाम के
मुतावबक ही भोिा था। उसे वीरू और शेरू की चािाकी समझ में िहीं आती
थी, नमत्रता निभािे के निए वह प्रनतकर्दि उिके घर िाकर उिका गृह पाि
कर कर्दया करता था। जिस समय भोि गृहपाि ककया करता, उस समय
र्दोिों इर्र-उर्र की बातें ककया करते थे। कषा में र्दोिों सबसे पहिे अपिा
गृहकायण कर्दखाते। इस तरह ककसी को पता भी िहीं चिता कक र्दोिों पढाई
िहीं करते। र्दोिों को भोि िाम का खिािा नमि गया था जिसका वे परा-
परा फायर्दा उिा रहे थे।
उर्र एक ही पाि को र्दो बार र्दोहरािे से भोि को वह बहुत अच्छी तरह से

यार्द हो िाता और िब परीषाएं होती, तो वह हमेशा कषा में अव्वि आता,
िेककि वीरू और शेरू िैसे-तैसे ही पास हो पाते।
एक बार स्कि में कहं र्दी कर्दवस पर निबंर् िेखि प्रनतयोनगता आयोजित हुई,
तो मास्टर साहब िे भोि का िाम सबसे पहिे निखा और कुछ अन्य छात्रों
के साथ वीरू और शेरू को भी उस प्रनतयोनगता में शानमि कर निया।
क्योंकक यह र्दोिों भी नियनमत रूप से अपिा गृह कायण ककया करते थे।
िब निबंर् निखिे की बारी आई तो र्दोिों को कुछ सझ ही िहीं रहा था।
उर्र गोि िे समय सीमा से पहिे ही अपिा निबंर् परा कर निया।
प्रनतयोनगता के बार्द िब पचे िांचे गए तो वीरू और शेरू िे केवि शीषणक
निख कर छोड कर्दया था।
मास्टर िी िे उन्हें बुिाकर पछा, कक तुम र्दोिों तो रोि अपिा गृह कायण
करते हो, कफर निबंर् क्यों िहीं निख पाए? तब वीरू िे सारी बात बता र्दी
कक वह भोि से अपिा गृह कायण करवाते हैं और स्वयं कमरे में गपशप
ककया करते हैं ।
प्रनतयोनगता में भोि को पहिा स्थाि नमिा। प्रथम पुरस्कार पािे के साथ-
साथ उसे राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर होिे वािी प्रनतयोनगता के निए भी िामांककत
ककया गया।
इस तरह भोि की सार्दगी िे उसकी बुवि का ववकास कर उसे आगे बढिे
में सहायता की।
संर्देश :- चािाकी और सरिता के मुकाबिे में िीत हमेशा सरिता की ही
होती है ।
5) िीचेकर्दए गए नचत्र को ध्याि से र्दे खकर उसके आर्ार पर

कोई िेख, घटिा, अथवा कहािी निजखए;
जिसका सीर्ा सबंर्ं नचत्र सेहो।
प्रस्तुत नचत्र 'स्वच्छता अनभयाि' का है , िो ककसी स्कि के प्रांगर् में

मिाया िा रहा है । नचत्र में स्कि यनिफामण पहिे बच्चे हाथ में झाड िेकर
सफाई करते ििर आ रहे हैं ।
साथ में उिकी अध्यावपका िी भी हैं , िो या तो उन्हें सफाई के निर्दे श र्दे
रही हैं या कफर उिका निरीषर् कर रही हैं ।
बीच में एक रास्ता कर्दखाई र्दे रहा है और उसके उस पार कुछ पेड कर्दखाई र्दे
रहे हैं ।
एक बािक पेड से नगरी सखी पवत्तयों को झाड की सहायता से एकत्र कर
रहा है , तो र्दसरी बानिका उसे टोकरी में भरकर उनचत स्थाि पर डाििे िा
रही है । 'स्वच्छता अनभयाि' का उद्दे कय पररसर को स्वच्छ रखिे के साथ-
साथ छात्रों में शारीररक श्रम की आर्दत को ववकनसत करिा है ।
आिकि बच्चे टीवी, कंप्यटर में अपिा समय वबताते हैं और मैर्दािी खेिों
से र्दर होते िा रहे हैं । ऐसे में स्किों द्वारा चिाए िा रहे स्वच्छता अनभयाि
के कायणक्रम अत्यंत उपयोगी सावबत हो रहे हैं ।
इस अनभयाि के अंतगणत बच्चों में स्वच्छता के प्रनत िागरूकता का निमाणर्
आसािी से ककया िा रहा है । शारीररक श्रम के िाभ एवं आपसी तािमेि
और सामंिस्य वबिािे की किा भी इस माध्यम से ववकनसत की िा रही
है ।
2. निम्िनिजखत में से ककसी 'एक' ववषय पर िगभग 120 शब्र्दों मेंपत्र निजखए।
(7)
1) छात्रावास में रहिे वािे छोटे भाई को 'पढाई का महत्व' बताते हुए पत्र
निजखए।
123-A स्वामी बाग
िई कर्दल्िी
कर्दिांक - 12-10-2022
वप्रय संतोष,
शुभ स्िेह।
तुम्हारे छात्रावास के अनर्कारी द्वारा भेिा गया प्रथम सेमेस्टर का

प्रगनत पुस्तक आि ही प्राप्त हुआ।
प्राप्तांक र्दे खकर मुझे ववश्वास ही िहीं हुआ कक यह तुम्हारे अंक हैं । हर ववषय
में केवि औसत अंक नमिे हैं । उसे र्दे खकर मैं नचंनतत हो उिा। पता िहीं
वपतािी पर क्या गुिरे गी? िब वे इसे र्दे खेंगे।
तुम तो िािते ही हो, कक उन्हें तुमसे ककतिी उम्मीर्दें हैं इसीनिए है नसयत
िा होिे पर भी उन्होंिे तुम्हें पढिे के निए छात्रावास भेिा है । यकर्द ककसी
एक ववषय में कम अंक आते, तो मैं समझता कक वह तुम्हारी समझ में िहीं
आ रहा है परं तु सभी ववषयों में कम अंक आिा इस बात का सचक है कक
तुम पढाई की ओर से िापरवाह हो गए हो।
चिो इस बार छोड र्दे ते हैं , पर वार्दा करो कक अगिी परीषा में अच्छे अंक
िाकर तुम सबको खुश कर र्दोगे। अपिा ध्याि रखिा।
तुम्हारा बडा भाई,
XYZ
2) 'बडै नमटं ि प्रनशषर्' की सुववर्ा उपिब्र् करवािे हे तु ववद्यािय के

प्रर्ािाचायण को पत्र निजखए।
सेवा में,
श्रीमाि प्रर्ािाचायण
सेंट िेववयसण स्कि
िई कर्दल्िी।
ववषय - बैडनमंटि प्रनशषर् की सुववर्ा उपिब्र् करािे हे त।ु
महोर्दय,
सवविय निवेर्दि है कक मैं आपके ववद्यािय का कषा र्दसवीं 'ब' का छात्र हं ।

मैं ववद्यािय में वपछिे र्दो सािों से नशषा प्राप्त करिे के साथ-साथ ववद्याथी
प्रनतनिनर् के रूप में भी काम कर रहा हं ।
यं तो िगभग हर खेि की सुववर्ा यहां उपिब्र् है परं तु बैडनमंटि का
प्रनशषर् अब तक िहीं शुरू ककया गया है , जिसके कारर् बैडनमंटि सीखिे
के इच्छुक छात्रों को प्रनशषर् और प्रैजक्टस के निए ववद्यािय से बाहर िािा
पडता है ।
ववद्याथी प्रनतनिनर् होिे के िाते मेरा कतणव्य है कक मैं आपको इस समस्या से

अवगत कराउं ।
आपसे सवविय अिुरोर् है कक छात्रों की आवकयकता के मद्दे ििर ववद्यािय में
बैडनमंटि प्रनशषर् की सुववर्ा उपिब्र् कराई िाए।
र्न्यवार्द
आपका आज्ञाकारी नशष्य,
3. निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि सेपढकर उसके िीचेनिखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर अपिे

शब्र्दों में निजखए। (10)
आर्दशण अध्यापक ववद्वाि होता है । उसका सभी वव षयों पर समाि अनर् कार
होता है । िब वह वव द्यानथण यनथण को समझाता है , तो छात्र सहि ही उसे ग्रहर्
कर िेते हैं । आर्दशण अध्यापक वव द्वाि होिेके साथ ही अध्यापिकुशि भी होता
है । उसकी सपं र्ण र्णचेष्टा केवि इसी बात की ओर रहती है कक वह जि स वव
षय को पढा रहा है , वह छात्रों के ह्रर्दय पटि पर सही तरह से अककं ककत हो
िाए।
अध्यापि से िो समय बच िाता है , उसे वह अपिे पिि-पािि में िगाता है ।
वह छात्रों में समािता एवं राष्ट्र भाविा िागतृ करता है । र्दीि और असहाय
छात्रों की सहायता करिा, वह अपिा परम कतणव्र्त य समझता है । आर्दशण
अध्यापक का ह्रर्दय प्रेम से ओत प्रोत होता है । उसकी वार्ी सर्दा प्रेम सेही भरी
रहती है िम्रता उसके िीवि में शोभा बिकर नि वास करती है । वह बाह्य
आडबंर एवं कृ वत्रमता से र्दरू रहता है । उसके िम्र और षमाशीि िीवि में
सार्दगी सफिता की भांनत शोभा र्दे ती है । वह ज्ञाि और गंभीरता का भंडार होते
हुए भी सभी के साथ नमिकर रहता है । वह अपिे छात्रों को अिशुासि में
रखता है पर उसके अिशुासि में दृढता होती है , किोरता िहीं। वह छात्रों को
अपिी सहािुभनत और कुशिता से ऐसे र्ागेसे बांर् िेता है कक छात्र उसके पर्द
नचन्हों पर स्वयं ही चििे िगते हैं । वह छात्रों को भयरकहत करके प्रेम और

सहािुभनत के द्वारा योग्य िागररक बििे में उिकी सहायता करता है ।
प्रश्न
1) आर्दशण अध्यापक कैसा होता है ?
उत्तर : आर्दशण अध्यापक ववद्वाि होता है उसे सभी ववषयों का ज्ञाि होता है
और वह बच्चों के मिोववज्ञाि को अच्छी तरह समझता है ।
2) अध्यापि कुशिता से आप क्या समझते हैं ?

उत्तर : अध्यापि कुशिता अथाणत जिस ववषय को पढाया िाए उसमें
अध्यापक की परी पकड हो और वह ववनभन्ि तरीकों से उसे छात्रों को
समझा सके ताकक छात्र उसका अिुसरर् करें ।
3) अध्यापक के अिशुासि की क्या ववशषेता होती है ?

उत्तर : अक्सर किोर र्दं ड र्दे िे को ही अिुशासि माि निया िाता है परं तु
अध्यापक के निए अिुशासि र्दं ड िहीं बजल्क दृढता से नियम का पािि
करवािा होता है ।
4) अध्यापक का िीवि ककि गर्ुोंसे सुशोनभत होता है ?

उत्तर : अध्यापक का िीवि प्रेम, सहािुभनत, ज्ञाि कौशि,िम्रता, सार्दगी
और षमा िैसे मािवीय गुर्ों से भरपर होता है ।
5) गद्यांश के ककस शब्र्द का अथण 'अिसुरर् करिा' होता है ?

उत्तर : अिुसरर् करिा = पर्दनचह्नों पर चििा
4. निम्िनिजखत प्रश्नों के उत्तर निर्दे शािुसार निजखए।

1) 'रसीिा' का वव िोम शब्र्द चिकर निजखए।
(A) मीिा
(B) रसहीि
(C) फीका
(D) गर्ं हीि
उत्तर : (B) रसहीि
2) 'अचािक' शब्र्द का पयाणयवाची निजखए।

(A) अभी-अभी
(B) तत्काि
(C) यकायक
(D) वबिा रुके
उत्तर : (C) यकायक
3) 'मौनिक' शब्र्द की भाववाचक संज्ञा होगी

(A) महािता
(B) मौनिकपि
(C) मल्य
(D) मौनिकता
उत्तर : (D) मौनिकता
4) 'साहस' का ववशेषर् बताइए

(A) साहसता
(B) सरहर्द
(C) साहसी
(D) सराहिा
उत्तर : (C) साहसी
5) 'आनशणवनशण शब्र्द' का शुि रूप है

(A) आशीवाणर्द
(B) आनशवाणर्द
(C) आशीवार्दण
(D) आसीवाणर्द
उत्तर : (A) आशीवाणर्द
6) 'होम कर र्दे िा ' महुावरे का अथण है

(A) बुझा र्दे िा
(B) ििा र्दे िा
(C) बनिर्दाि कर र्दे िा
(D) भाग िािा
उत्तर : (C) बनिर्दाि कर र्दे िा
7) निर्दे शािुसार वाक्य बताइए

अतं मेंमाता िी को कोई आशा ि रही। (निराशा शब्र्द का प्रयोग कीजिए)
(A) अतं में माता िी को कोई निराशा ि रही।
(B) अतं में माता िी निराश हो गई।
(C) मातािी निराश िहीं हुई।
(D) माता िी कभी निराश िहीं हुई।
उत्तर : (B) अंत में माता िी निराश हो गई।
8) कर्दए गए वाक्य में 'कर कर्दया' का प्रयोग कर वाक्य बिाइए।

र्दे श का हर िागररक भ्रष्टाचार से पीकडत हो गया।
(A) भ्रष्टाचारिे र्दे श के हर िागररक को पीकडत करकर्दया।
(B) पीकडत करकर्दया था हर िागररक को भ्रष्टाचारिे।
(C) कर कर्दया है पीकडत भ्रष्टाचारिे हर िागररक को।
(D) हर िागररक पीकडत करकर्दया र्दे श के भ्रष्टाचार िे।
उत्तर : (A) भ्रष्टाचार िे र्दे श के हर िागररक को पीकडत कर कर्दया।
SECTION. B
Attempt FOUR questions from this section.
You must answer at least ONE question from each of the two books, you have
studied. And any TWO other questions.
साकहत्य सागर - सजषं जषप्त कहानियां
SAHITYA SAGAR - Short Stories
follow.
गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए:
"पतंग आई, एक अँर्ेरे घर में उस मेंडोर बांर्ी िािेिगी, कयामिे र्ीरे से कहा,
भोिा कक सी सेिा कहो तो एक बात कहं ?"
(काकी-नसयारामशरर् गुप्त)
1) भोिा कौि था? कयामऔर भोिा में क्या अतंर था।? (2)
उत्तर : भोिा कयाम की र्दासी सुजखया का बेटा था। कयाम िार्दाि और
भावुक बािक था िबकक भोिा एक समझर्दार बािक था।
2) कयाम िे पतंग ककससे मगंवाई चवन्िी र्दे कर सुजखया र्दासी के िडके से

क्या कहा? (2)
उत्तर : कयाम िे सुजखया र्दासी के बेटे भोिा से पतंग मंगवाई।
कयाम िे भोिा से कहा कक वह इस पतंग को ऊपर राम के यहां भेिेगा
ताकक काकी इसे पकडकर िीचे उतर आए।
3) भोिािे कयामकी योििा में क्या कमी बताई? (3)

उत्तर : भोिा िे कयाम को बताया कक इस पतंग की डोर पतिी है । िब
काकी इसे पकड कर िीचे उतरें गी तो यह टट िाएगी। इस डोर के स्थाि
पर मोटी रस्सी होगी तो वह िहीं टटे गी और उसे पकड कर काकी िीचे
उतर सकेंगी।
4) कयामकी योििा की कमी को परूा करिे में क्या ककििाई थी? (3)
उत्तर : काकी को िीचे उतारिे की योििा को परा करिे के निए कयाम िे
उन्हें मोटी रस्सी मंगवाई। कफर िब वह और भोिा पतंग में रस्सी बांर् रहे
थे, तभी उसके वपता ववश्वेश्वर कमरे में आए और उसे कोट की िेब से एक
रूपया निकाििे के निए डांटिे िगे तो डर के मारे भोिा िे उन्हें सारी बात
बता र्दी।
6. निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पकढए और उसके िीचे कर्दए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।

उसकी आखं खुि गई थी, हाथ िोडकर बोिा, "हुिरू यह मेरा पहिा अपरार्
है , इस बार माफ कर र्दीजिए, कफर गिती िा होगी। "
(बात अिन्िी की - सर्दश
ु ि
ण शण)
1) रसीिा िे क्या ककया था उसका मकु र्दमा ककसके सामिे पेश हुआ? (2)
उत्तर : रसीिा िे पांच रुपए में से अिन्िी चुरा िी थी उसका मुकर्दमा
जििा मजिस्रे ट शेख सिीमुद्दीि की अर्दाित में पेश ककया गया था।
2) यकर्द वह चाहता तो ककस प्रकार बच सकता था? (2)

उत्तर : रसीिा िे सुिा था कक िगत बाब िे पुनिस को पांच रुपए की
ररश्वत र्दे कर रसीिा से गुिाह कबिवािे की बात कही थी। यकर्द वह इस
बात को अर्दाित में बता र्दे ता, तो वह बच सकता था।
3) 'उसकी आखं खुि गई थी', से क्या आशय है ?

उत्तर : रसीिा को पता चि गया था कक उसका मानिक उसे र्दं कडत करिे
के निए ररश्वत र्दे कर सिा कर्दिवािा चाहता है । अतः वह चाहे िो कर िे
ककंतु इस सिा से बच िहीं सकता।
4) उसिे िि से क्या प्राथणिाा की? (3)

उत्तर : रसीिा को अिन्िी चुरािे के िुमण में छह माह की सिा हुई थी।
सिा र्दे िे वािा िि उसके मानिक का पडोसी ही था इसनिए उसिे रसीिा
की वविती को अिसुिा कर उसे सिा सुिा र्दी ताकक पडोसी की नमत्रता
बिी रहे ।
7. Read the extra given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
िहीं साब! वह िगं डा क्या िाएगा फौि में? पागि है पागि! वो र्दे खो वो आ
रहा है ।
1) हािर्दार साहब को कौि-सी बात ववनचत्र और कौतुक से भरी िग रही थी?
उन्होंिे पािवािेसे क्या पछाा? (2)
उत्तर : हािर्दार साहब िे िेता िी की मनतण पर िगे चकमे की फ्रेम को बर्दिी
हुई र्दे खा तो उन्हें मनतण के रोि चकमा बर्दििे की बात ववनचत्र िगी।
उन्होंिे पाि वािे से बर्दिे हुए चकमे का रहस्य पछा।
2) पाि वािेिे कैप्टि के बारे में हािर्दार साहब को क्या बताया? उन्हें क्या
अच्छा िहीं िगा? (2)
उत्तर : पाि वािे िे कैप्टि के बारे में बताया कक िेतािी को चकमा पहिािे
वािा व्यवि सेिा का कप्ताि िहीं बजल्क एक िंगडा आर्दमी है िो घम-घम
कर चकमे भेिता है ।
पाि वािे के द्वारा एक र्दे शभि की हं सी उडािा हािर्दार साहब को अच्छा
िहीं िगा।
3) चकमेवािेका पररचय र्दीजिए उसे कैप्टि क्यों कहते थे? (3)

उत्तर : चकमे वािा व्यवि एक गरीब सहृर्दय इं साि था। वह चकमे बेचकर
अपिी रोिी चिाता था। उसका िाम कैप्टि था और उसकी चकमे की र्दक
ु ाि
छोटी सी र्दक
ु ाि थी जिसमें कुछ नगिे-चुिे चकमे के फ्रेम थे।
4) "िाि कािी बत्तीसी" का प्रयोग ककसके निए ककया गया है ? उसका पररचय
र्दीजिए। (3)
उत्तर : िाि कािी बत्तीसी का प्रयोग पाि बेचिे वािे र्दक
ु ािर्दार के निए
ककया गया है । पािवािा एक अनत सार्ारर् आर्दमी है िो अक्सर मुंह में
पाि भरे रहता है । चकमा बेचिे वािे र्दे शभि कैप्टि को वह िंगडा कहकर
उसकी हं सी उडाया करता था।
साकहत्य सागर (पद्य)

SAHITYA SAGAR - (POEM)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि सेपकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
पाहि पिे हरर नमिें, तो मैं पि पहार।
ताते ये चाकी भिी, पीस खाय संसार
गुरु गोववर्दं र्दोऊ खडे , काके िागपाय।
बनि हारी गुरु आपिे, गोववंर्द कर्दयो बताय।
(साखी - कबीरर्दास)
1) "पाहि पिे हरर नमिें ", इि पविं वि यों में कबीर िे
ककस आडबंर का ववरोर् ककया है ? इसे सावबत करिे के निए
उन्होंिे कौि-सा उर्दाहरर् कर्दया है ? (2)
उत्तर : इि पंवियों में कबीर र्दास िे बाह्य-आडं बर अथाणत कर्दखावे का ववरोर्
ककया है । उन्होंिे आटा पीसिे की पत्थर की चक्की का उर्दाहरर् र्दे ते हुए
कहा है कक कमण करिे से ईश्वर की प्रानप्त होती है , बाहरी कर्दखावा करिे से
िहीं।
2) कबीर के अिुसार गुरु का स्थाि भगवाि से ऊंचा है - कैसे? स्पष्ट कीजिए।

(2)
उत्तर : गुरु के मागणर्दशणि से ही कोई भि भगवाि तक पहंु च पाता है यकर्द
गुरु राह िा बताते तो भगवाि को पािा असंभव होता इसनिए कबीर मािते
हैं कक गुरु का स्थाि भगवाि की अपेषा पहंु चा है ।
3) कबीर िे गुरु के महत्व का वर्णि ककस प्रकार ककया है ? (3)

उत्तर : कबीर के अिुसार गुरु और गोववंर्द अथाणत भगवाि यकर्द साथ में हो
तो सबसे पहिे ककसे सम्माि कर्दया िाए ? उिका अिुभव कहता है कक
गुरु और भगवाि र्दोिों समाि रूप से श्रेष्ठ हैं , ककंतु भगवाि को पािे का
मागण गुरु के चरर्ों से होकर गुिरता है । अतः पहिा प्रर्ाम गुरु को ही
करिा चाकहए।
4) कबीर का सजषंप्त पररचय निजखए। (3)

उत्तर : मध्य काि के संत कववयों में कबीरर्दास का स्थाि बहुत महत्वपर्ण
है वह कहं र्द ववर्वा ब्राह्मर् के पुत्र थे और मुजस्िम र्दं पवत्त िे उिका पािि
पोषर् ककया था इसनिए वह हमेशा कहं र्द मुजस्िम को िोडिे का प्रयत्न करते
रहे । उि कर्दिों के प्रख्यात कहं र्द गुरु रामािंर्द को उन्होंिे अपिा गुरु मािा
था। वे पढे -निखे िहीं थे, कफर भी उि में काव्य रचिा की अद्भत
ु षमता
थी।
follow.
निम्िनिजखत पद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
गुि के गाहक सहस िर, वबिु गुि िहै ि कोय।
िैसे कागा कोककिा, शब्र्द सुिै सब कोय।।
शब्र्द सुिै सब कोय, कोककिा सबै सुहावि।
र्दोऊ को एक रं ग, काग सब भये अपावि।।
कह नगररर्र कवबराय सुिो हो िाकुर मि के।
वबिु गुर् िहै ि कोई सहस िर गाहक गुर् के॥
(कुण्डनियाँ नगररर्र राय)।
1) 'गिु के गाहक सहस िर', पविं का क्या आशय है ? (2)
उत्तर : कवव कह रहे हैं कक सहस िर गुर् के ग्राहक होते हैं । उिका अथण
मिुष्य का ज्ञाि, योग्यता और सर्द व्यवहार है । िब यह गुर् ककसी मिुष्य
में होंगे तभी संसार में उसका सम्माि होगा। वबिा गुर्ों के संसार ककसी
को िहीं पछता।
2) कौवा और कोयि में क्या अतंर है ? सभी िोग कोयि को क्यों पसर्दं करते
हैं ? (2)
उत्तर : कोयि और कौवे में बोिी का अंतर है र्दोिों का रं ग कािा होिे पर
भी उिकी बोिी अिग है कोयि मीिा बोिती है परं तु कौवा ककणश बोिता
है । मर्ुर आवाि के कारर् कोयि को सब पसंर्द करते हैं और कौवे को
िापसन्र्द करते हैं ।
3) िोग कक स से अपमानित करते हैं और क्यों? (3)

उत्तर : जिसका व्यवहार अच्छा िा हो और बोिी में नमिास िा हो, िो
अपिे कायण में कुशि िा हो और परोपकार में रुनच िा रखता हो ऐसे
मिुष्य को समाि द्वारा अपमानित ककया िाता है ।
4) कवव 'मि के िाकुर' से क्या कह रहे हैं ? और इससे हमें क्या सीख नमिती
है ? (3)
उत्तर : संसार के समस्त व्यवहार मतिब के होते हैं । िब तक तुम्हारे पास
पैसा है , सब िोग तुम्हारे नमत्र बििे की कोनशश करते हैं , ककंतु यकर्द पैसा
िहीं है , तो अपिे-पराए सभी मुंह फेर िेते हैं । कवव अपिे मि को यही बात
समझा रहे हैं ।
follow.
िीचे कर्दए गए पद्यांश को ध्याि सेपकढ ए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
मेघ आए बडे बि - िि के सवंरके।
आगे-आगे िाचती - गाती बयार चिी,
र्दरवािे-जखडककयां खिु िेिगी गिी-गिी,
पाहुि ज्यों आए हों, गांव मेंशहर के।
िाचते गाते हुए कौि चि रहा है और क्यों
मेघ आए बडे बि - ििके सवंरके।
(मेघ आए - सवेश्वरर्दयाि सक्सेिा)
1) उपयुक्र्
ण युत पविं वि यों का प्रसगं स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
उत्तर : वषाण ऋतु में िब आकाश में कािे बार्दि छा िाते हैं , तो भीषर्
गमी से त्रस्त र्रती और उसके समस्त प्रार्ी खुशी से झम उिते हैं िैसे
कोई बहुप्रतीजषत मेहमाि घर में आया हो।
2) िाचते गाते हुए कौि चि रहा है और क्यों? (2)

उत्तर : िाचते-गाते हुए हवाएं चि रही हैं क्योंकक वषाण ऋतु के आिे से
उिमें भी तेिी आ गई है । आसमाि में बार्दिों के नघर आिे से हवाएं खुशी
से झमिे िगी हैं , इसनिए उन्हें िाचते-गाते हुए चििे की संज्ञा र्दी है ।
3) गांव में कौि और कैसे आया है ? (3)

उत्तर : गांव में शहर से मेघ रुपी मेहमाि आए हैं । बिकर, ििकर, और
संवरकर। वे अपिे साथ वषाण रूपी उपहार भी िेकर आए हैं , जिससे सारा
गांव प्रफुजल्ित हो उिा है ।
4) र्दरवािे जखडककयां क्यों खिु िेिगी? (3)

उत्तर : आसमाि में बार्दिों के छा िािे की आहट पाते ही, हर गिी और
मुहल्िे के र्दरवािे और जखडककयों को खोि कर्दया गया है ताकक िं डी सुहािी
हवा घर के भीतर प्रवेश करें और गमी से राहत नमिे।
िया रास्ता (सषुमा अग्रवाि)

NAYA RASTA. (Sushama Agarwal)
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को ध्याि सेपकढए और िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
इस तरह की बातेंसिु कर मीिका चचं ि ह्रर्दय बेचिै हो उिा उसके ह्रर्दय की
पीडा को कोई िहीं समझ पाता था।
1) मीिकी बेचिै का क्या कारर् था? (2)
उत्तर : मीि की छोटी बहि आशा की शार्दी में बडी बहि को कुछ रस्में
निभािा था, पर मीि को उसके निए इसनिए रोका िा रहा था क्योंकक वह
वववाकहत िहीं थी। िोगों की ऐसी बातें सुिकर मीि बेचि
ै हो गई।
2) मीिके ह्रर्दय को चचंि क्यों कहा गया है (2)

उत्तर : मीि हं सी-खुशी अपिी बहि के वववाह में शानमि हुई थी परं तु उसके
कंु वारे पि के कारर् िोग उसे तरह-तरह के तािे मार रहे थे। जिन्हें सुिकर
वह र्दख
ु ी हो िाती थी इसीनिए उसके मि को चंचि कहा गया है क्योंकक
वह कभी खुश होता कभी र्दख
ु ी हो िाता।
3) क्या मीिएक सहिशीि िडकी थी? अपिे ववचार निजखए। (3)

उत्तर : िी हां ! मीि एक सहिशीि और समझर्दार िडकी थी। उसिे िोगों
के तािे सुिकर भी अपिे-आपको संयम में रखा और कभी ककसी के सामिे
अपिे मि का र्दख
ु प्रकट िहीं ककया।
4) प्रस्ततु उपन्यास का उद्दे कय संषेप में निजखए। (3)

उत्तर : 'िया रास्ता' उपन्यास का उद्दे कय स्त्री के प्रनत समाि में व्याप्त
र्दककयािसी ववचारों को तोडिा है । मीि के माध्यम से िेजखका िे मकहिाओं
को िागरूक ककया है कक पररजस्थनतयां अिुकि िा होिे पर हार माििे के
बिाय उन्हें साहस और र्ैयण से काम िेकर अपिी मंजिि तक पहंु चिा
चाकहए।
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्दए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
उन्हें अपिी बेटी पर गवण था। इतिी स्वानभ मािी वह उर्दार चरर त्र की बेटी
पाकर वेअपिेको र्न्य महसस कर रहे थे।
1) अपिी बेटी पर गवण कक सेथा और क्यों? (2)
उत्तर : मीरापुर के र्दयाराम िी को अपिी बेटी पर गवण था क्योंकक उिकी
बेटी मीि एक साहसी और स्वानभमािी िडकी थी, जिसिे समाि के द्वारा
की गई उपेषा को ििरअंर्दाि करके अपिा िक्ष्य हानसि ककया।
2) गद्यांश में बेटी के ककि गुर्ों का उल्िेख ककया गया है ? (2)

उत्तर : गद्यांश में स्वानभमाि, सहिशीिता, साहस और उर्दारता िैसे
मािवीय गुर्ों का उल्िेख ककया गया है ।
3) मािवीय गुर्ों से युि बच्चेपाकर माता-वपता र्न्य हो िाते हैं स्पष्ट

उत्तर : मीि एक स्वानभमािी और आत्मसम्मािी िडकी थी। उसके रं ग-रूप
के कारर् उसे कोई िडका शार्दी के निए पसंर्द िहीं करता था। ऐसे में
उसिे बडी ही कुशिता से समाि को कर्दखा कर्दया कक िडकी का सौंर्दयण ही
सब कुछ िहीं होता।
4) मिोहर कौि था? मीििे उसकी मर्दर्द कैसेकी? (3)

उत्तर : मिोहर मीि की िौकरािी रािो का भाई था, िो एक र्दघ
ु ट
ण िा में
अपिे हाथ की र्दो उं गनियां और एक पांव गंवा बैिा था। मीि िे अपिे
वपता से कहकर वववाह के खचे को कम करके उसके निए पाि की एक
र्दक
ु ाि खुिवा र्दी ताकक वह अपिा िीवि निवाणह कर सकें।
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए। मीिके
ह्रर्दय मेंहीि भाविा के कारर् िो र्दखु के भाव थे, ख़ुशी में पररवनतणत हो गए।
प्रथम श्रेर्ी मेंपास होिे पर वह फिी िहींसमाई।
1) मीिके ह्रर्दय में हीि भाविा क्यों आ गई थी? (2)
उत्तर : अपिी अंतरं ग सहे िी िीनिमा के गोरे रं ग और सुर्द
ं र चेहरे को
र्दे खकर मीि के मि में अपिे कािे रं ग के कारर् हीि भाविा आ गई थी।
2) मीिको अपिे परीषा पररर्ाम की सचिा कहां नमिी थी? (2)

उत्तर : मीि को अपिे परीषा पररर्ाम की सचिा अपिी सहे िी िीनिमा के
घर पर अपिे भाई के द्वारा नमिी थी।
3) िीनिमा और मीिके बीच क्या सबंर्ं थे मीि िीनिमाको ककस बात की

सचिा र्दे िे आई थी? (3)
उत्तर : िीनिमा और मीि र्दोिों अंतरं ग सहे नियां थी। मीि िीनिमा के घर
इसनिए गई थी ताकक उससे बता सके कक मेरि से र्दे खिे आए िडके िे
उसे पसंर्द कर निया है ।
4) मीिकी प्रसन्िता और उर्दासी के क्या कारर् थे? स्पष्ट कीजिए। (3)

उत्तर : मीि िे प्रथम श्रेर्ी में एम.ए. की परीषा पास की थी िबकक उसकी
सहे िी िीनिमा को कद्वतीय श्रेर्ी नमिी थी इसनिए मीि प्रसन्ि थी ।
िीनिमा के गोरे रं ग और सौंर्दयण को र्दे ख कर उसे अपिे असुंर्दर होिे का
एहसास हुआ इसनिए वह उर्दास हो गई थी।
एकांकी सचंय
EKANKI SANCHAY
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर
निजखए।
मैं कहा करता हं िा बेटा! कक एक बार वृष से िो डािी टट गई, उसे िाख
पािी र्दो, उसमें वह सरसता िा आएगी और हमारा पररवार बरगर्द के इस
महाि पेड की भांनत है ।
(सुखी-डािी - उपेंद्रिाथ अकक)
1) विा का परर चय र्दे कर उसके कथि का सर्दं भण स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
उत्तर : इस कथि के विा कहािी के मि पात्र र्दार्दा मिराि हैं । उन्होंिे
पेड से टट कर नगरी डानियों को बच्चों द्वारा आंगि की नमट्टी में र्दबा कर
पािी डािते र्दे खा, तो उपरोि बात कही।
2) विा िे अपिे पररवार की तिुिा बरगर्द से क्यों की है ? (2)

उत्तर : र्दार्दा िी का पररवार बरगर्द के पेड के समाि ववशाि है । बरगर्द के
मिबत तिे और उसकी शाखाओं के समाि ही र्दार्दािी का प्रेम, उर्दारता
और अिुशासि पररवार को मिबती से बांर्े रखता है ।
3) कमणचमण र्दं िेविा को क्या बताया? (3)

उत्तर : करमचंर्द विा र्दार्दािी का मछिा बेटा है । उसिे विा से कहा कक
परे श पररवार से अिग रहिा चाहता है क्योंकक उसकी पत्नी संयि
ु पररवार
में खुश िहीं है ।
4) एकांकी के माध्यम से िेखकिे क्या संर्देश कर्दया है ? (3)

उत्तर : इस एकांकी के द्वारा िेखक यह संर्देश र्दे रहा है कक पररवार समाि
की एक महत्वपर्ण इकाई है । संयि
ु पररवार में पररवार के सभी सर्दस्यों में
प्रेम, सहयोग, सहिशीिता, उर्दारता िैसे गुर्ों का ववकास होता है , तो
इसकी अपिी सीमाएं भी होती हैं ।
follow.
निम्िनिजखत गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए।
"रोओ मत, मैंकहता हं रोओ मत। इि मोनतयों का मल्य समझिेवािा यहां
कोई िहीं है । पािी से पत्थर िहीं वपघि सकता।"
(बहकी ववर्दा- वविोर्द रस्तोगी)
1) रोिेवािा कौि था? उसके रोिेका क्या कारर् था? (2)
उत्तर : रोिे वािी स्त्री िीवि िाि की बह कमिा थी। र्दहे ि की रकम िा
नमििे के कारर् उसके ससुर उसे मायके िािे से रोक रहे थे िबकक उसका
भाई उसे मायके िे िािा चाहता था।
2) विािे रोिेवािे को ककस प्रकार सांत्विा र्दी? (2)

उत्तर : विा प्रमोर्द िे अपिी बहि से कहा कक तुम्हारे रोिे का इि िािची
िोगों पर कोई असर िहीं होगा। इिमें कोई संवेर्दिशीिता िहीं है , ये
तुम्हारे मि की पीडा को िहीं समझ पाएंगे। तुम इिके आगे अपिे आंसओ
ु ं
को बबाणर्द मत करो।
3) विा की बात सिु कर श्रोता िे उसे रोकते हुए क्या कहा? (3)
उत्तर : बहि को ववर्दा करािे के निए भाई अपिा घर बेचकर र्दहे ि की
रकम चुकता करिे को तैयार हो गया था, परं तु कमिा िे उसे अपिे सुख-
सुहाग की कसम र्दे कर घर बेचिे से मिा कर कर्दया।
4) िीवि िाि की पत्नी िे समस्या का क्या हि सझु गया? (3)

उत्तर : िीवि िाि की पत्नी और कमिा की सास एक सह्रर्दय स्त्री थी।
उसिे कमिा को नतिोरी की चावबयों का गुच्छा र्दे ते हुए कहा कक नतिोरी से
पांच हिार रूपए निकाि कर अपिे भाई को र्दे र्दे ताकक वह यह पैसे िीवि
िाि के हाथ में र्दे कर तुम्हें ववर्दा करा कर िे िा सके।
follow.
निम्िनिजखत अवतरर् को पढकर िीचेकर्द ए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निजखए। मां को
बेटेसे अिग करिा पाप है । मांका ह्रर्दय तोडिा अत्याचार है , उस अत्याचार को
र्दरू करिेके निए प्रार् भी र्दे िे पडे तो कम है ।
(ससं कार और भाविा - ववष्र्ुप्रभाकर)
1) विा कौि है ? उसिे उपरोि कथि क्यों कहे ? (2)
उत्तर : उपरोि कथि की विा उमा है , िो अपिे पनत की बडी भाभी से
भैया को छोडिे की बात कह रही है क्योंकक उसकी विह से मां को अपिे
बेटे से अिग होकर रहिा पड रहा है और वह इसे अत्याचार मािती है ।
2) उमा के अिुसार मां को बेटेसे अिग करिे के निए र्दोषी कौि है ? और

उत्तर : उमा के अिुसार मां को बेटे से अिग कर आिे वािी स्त्री उसकी
भाभी है क्योंकक उसके वविातीय होिे के कारर् मां िे उसे स्वीकार िहीं
ककया था और इसनिए उसका पनत अपिा घर छोडकर पत्नी के साथ अिग
रह रहा था।
3) विा िे अवविाश की पत्नी को क्या सुझाव कर्दया? (3)

उत्तर : उमा िे अवविाश की पत्नी को सुझाव कर्दया कक वह अपिे पनत को
छोड र्दे ताकक अवविाश कफर से आकर मां के साथ रहिे िगे। उसके कारर्
ही एक मां का बेटा उससे र्दर रह रहा है ।
4) "मां-बेटेको अिग करिा पाप है , मांका ह्रर्दय तोडिा अत्याचार है ," उमा के
इस कथि का अवव िाश की पत्नी िे क्या िवाब कर्दया? (3)
उत्तर : उमा के कथि के िवाब में अवविाश की पत्नी िे उससे पछा कक
क्या वह अपिे पनत अतुि को छोड सकती है ? यकर्द िहीं तो वह उससे
क्यों उम्मीर्द करती है कक वह अपिे पनत को छोड र्दे । उसके पनत िे अपिी
मिी से उससे शार्दी की थी अतः वह उसे िहीं छोड सकती।
ICSE
Class 10 Hindi
Mock Paper – 2
सामान्य निर्देश :
1. इस प्रश्नपत्र में र्दो खंड हैं- खंड 'क' और ख'। खंड-क में
वस्तुपरक/बहुनवकल्पी और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/वर्णिात्मक प्रश्न र्दीए गए हैं।
2. प्रश्नपत्र के र्दोिों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवायण हैं।
4. खंड 'क' में कु ि 10 प्रश्न हैं, नििमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। र्दीए गए
निर्देशों का पािि करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर र्देिा अनिवायण है।
5. खंड 'ख' में कु ि 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उिके नवकल्प भी र्दीए गए
हैं। निर्देशािुसार नवकल्प का ध्याि रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दीनिए।
SECTION - A
QUESTION - 1
निम्ननिनखत नवषयों में से ककसी एक नवषय पर िगभग 250 शब्र्दों में िेख
निनखए। (15)
A) 'अनिकार और कतणव्य' र्दोिों साथ-साथ चिते हैं। बडों से हम

तभी कु छ अपेक्षाएं रख सकते हैं, िब हम स्वयं अपिे
कतणव्यों का पािि करें ।
इस बात से आप कहां तक सहमत हैं?
उत्तर :
प्रत्येक व्यनि का िीवि अनिकार और कतणव्य से युि होता है। हम अपिे
माता-नपता से आशा करते हैं कक वह हमारा अच्छी तरह पािि पोषर् करें ;
पढाई-निखाई का प्रबंि करें ; बीमार होिे पर हमारी र्देखभाि करें और हमारी
हर सुनविा का ध्याि रखें।
अपिे गुरुििों से भी हमें कु छ आशाएं होती हैं, हम चाहते हैं कक हमारे
अध्यापक कक्षा में इतिी अच्छी तरह से पढाएं कक हमें कक्षा में ही सारी बातें
यार्द हो िाएं और घर िाकर पढिे की आवश्यकता िा पडे। खेि के मैर्दाि में
भी िब हम िाते हैं तो खेि के साथ मिोरं िि की उम्मीर्द होती है।
स्कू ि हमारे निए आर्दशण स्थि बिा रहे इसनिए हम अपिे अध्यापकों से आशा
करते हैं कक वे हर तरह से हमारी उन्ननत में सहायक बिे। राििेताओं से भी
हमें बडी-बडी आशाएं होती हैं कक वे र्देश को ऊंचा उठाएं और हमारी

समस्याओं का समािाि करें , ऐसे नियम बिाएं निससे प्रत्येक िागररक का
िीवि सुरनक्षत हो।
ककं तु इि सब अपेक्षाओं की पूर्तण के निए हमें भी अपिे कतणव्य का ज्ञाि होिा
अत्यंत आवश्यक होता है। िब हम ककसी से कु छ पािे की आशा करते हैं, तो
बर्दिे में हमें कु छ र्देिा भी पडता है। यकर्द हम के वि आकांक्षाएं ही करते रहेंगे
तो हमारी आकांक्षाएं कभी पूरी हो पाएंगी।
इसनिए प्रत्येक इं साि को चाहे वह छोटा हो या बडा अपिे अनिकार पािे के
निए अपिे कतणव्य को समझ कर उसका पािि करिा अत्यंत आवश्यक है। िब
तक कतणव्य िहीं निभाया िाता, तब तक अनिकारों का सही आिंर्द भी िहीं
निया िा सकता।
B) स्वच्छता हम सभी के निए िाभर्दायक होती है यकर्द आपको

स्वच्छ भारत अनभयाि में सहयोग र्देिे के निए कोई तीि कायण
करिे के निए कहा िाए, तो आप ककि कायों को करिा पसंर्द
करें गे? अपिे नवचारों द्वारा स्पष्ट कीनिए।
उत्तर :
अच्छे स्वास््य के निए अच्छा वातावरर् होिा अत्यंत आवश्यक होता है। और
वातावरर् को अच्छा बिािे का सबसे उत्तम उपाय है स्वच्छता। अपिे शरीर को
स्वच्छ रखिा और आसपास के वातावरर् को स्वच्छ और शुद्ध रखिा हर इं साि
का कतणव्य है।
गांिी ियंती को 'स्वच्छ भारत अनभयाि' के रूप में मिािे की घोषर्ा हमारे
प्रिािमंत्री श्रीमाि मोर्दी िी द्वारा की गई थी।
हम सभी का कतणव्य है कक इस स्वच्छ भारत अनभयाि का नहस्सा बिें और
अपिे र्देश को अपिे घर, पररसर और र्देश को साफ-सुथरा रखें। िब प्रत्येक
व्यनि स्वच्छता के निए एकिुट होकर कायण करे गा, तभी स्वच्छ भारत का
सपिा साकार हो पाएगा। अक्सर हम र्देखते हैं की कु छ िोग अपिे घर का
कू डा उठाकर र्दूसरों के घर के सामिे फें क र्देते हैं हमें इस तरह की गित
आर्दतों को बर्दििा होगा तभी हम स्वच्छता को पूरी तरह से अपिे िीवि का
नहस्सा बिा सकें गे।
यकर्द मुझे स्वच्छता अनभयाि में शानमि ककया िाता है तो मैं इसकी शुरुआत
अपिे घर से ही करिा चाहंगा। सुबह उठकर अपिा नबस्तर ठीक करिा, कमरा
ठीक करिा ,अपिे सामाि को करीिे से िगाकर घर की गंर्दगी को साफ करिा
आकर्द र्दैनिक कायण िो अब तक िौकरािी कर रही थी; मैं स्वयं करिे िगूंगा तो
मेरी सुबह की सुस्ती र्दूर हो िाएगी।
के वि घर की सफाई पयाणप्त िहीं होती इसनिए मैं कक्षा में भी सफाई का ध्याि
रखूंगा और िो छात्र कक्षा में गंर्दगी करते हैं, उन्हें भी सफाई के निए प्रेररत
करूंगा।
मैंिे र्देखा है कक कु छ िोग अपिे घर से कू डा-करकट निकािकर या तो पडोसी
के आंगि में डाि र्देते हैं या सडक पर फें क र्देते हैं। पहिे मैं उन्हें समझािे की
कोनशश करूंगा कक यह गित है यकर्द कफर भी वे िहीं मािते; तो मैं स्वयं एक
कर्दि अपिे पररसर की सफाई में िग िाऊंगा। तब अवश्य ही उि िोगों को
प्रेरर्ा नमिेगी और वे इस बुरी आर्दत को छोडकर स्वच्छता को अपिा िेंगे।
स्वच्छता अनभयाि में शानमि होकर मैं स्वयं की स्वच्छता पर तो ध्याि र्दूग
ं ा
ही ककं तु अन्य िोगों में भी स्वच्छता के प्रनत िागरूकता फै िािे की कोनशश
करूंगा।
C) भारतीय संस्कृ नत में "अनतनथ र्देवो भव" की परं परा थी, ककं तु
वतणमाि पररनस्थनतयों में यह परं परा निभािा करठि हो रहा है,
अब अनतनथ र्देव िहीं बनल्क बोझ िगिे िगा है।
अपिे नवचार स्पष्ट कीनिए।
उत्तर :
भारत एक रूकढयों और परं पराओं का र्देश है, ककं तु समय के साथ परं पराएं भी
बर्दि िाती हैं। ऐसी ही एक परं परा है, "अनतनथ र्देवो भव" की परं परा।
निसके अिुसार मेहमाि, भगवाि का स्वरूप होता है। यकर्द वह घर आ िाए
तो उसे साक्षात भगवाि समझकर उसका आर्दर-सम्माि करिा हमारा कतणव्य
होता है।
आि की पररनस्थनतयां प्राचीि काि से एकर्दम अिग है। उस समय िोगों के
पास समय ही समय था क्योंकक आिीनवका के सािि खेती और पशुपािि ही
हुआ करते थे। परं तु आि अनिकतर िोग िौकरीपेशा हैं, उिके पास मेहमािों
को र्देिे के निए पयाणप्त समय िहीं होता। आिकि िोग छोटे-छोटे फ्िैट्स में
रहते हैं और पूरे महीिे का बिट महीिे की पहिी तारीख को ही बिा िेते हैं।
ऐसे में मेहमाि के निए ि तो उिके पास अिग से कमरा होता है और ि ही
उसके आवभगत के निए अिग से पैसा होता है।
यकर्द वह ककसी तरह मेहमाि की आवभगत करिा भी चाहें, तो उिका नििी
िीवि प्रभानवत होिे के साथ-साथ िेब भी ढीिी हो िाती है। पूरे महीिे का
बिट गडबडा िाता है और उन्हें अिचाही कर्दक्कतों का सामिा करिा पडता है।
इसी परे शािी के कारर् आि की पररनस्थनत में मेहमाि र्देवता के बिाय बोझ
िगिे िगता है।
चूंकक हमारे घर मेहमाि बिकर आिे वािा व्यनि हमारा ही कोई आत्मीय होता
है इसनिए हम उसे आिे से मिा तो िहीं कर सकते। ककं तु एक बात अवश्य
कर सकते हैं कक उसके आिे का कर्दि और समय पता िें तथा अपिे साम्यण के
अिुसार उसकी आवभगत कर उसे एक या र्दो कर्दि में नवर्दा कर र्दें।
इस तरह से यह परं परा भी चिती रहेगी और हम अिावश्यक खचण और
तकिीफ र्दोिों से बच िाएंगे।
D) "िैसे को तैसा" इस भाव को स्पष्ट करती हुई एक मौनिक

कहािी निनखए।
उत्तर :
"िैसे को तैसा"
एक गांव में चतुरसेि िाम का एक साहकार रहता था। वह पूरे गांव में अपिी
कं िूसी के निए प्रनसद्ध था। गांव के गरीब िोगों को कम पैसे र्देकर अनिक
काम करवािा उसकी कफतरत थी। चतुरसेि के स्वभाव को सभी िािते थे,
इसनिए गांव का कोई भी व्यनि उसके यहां काम करिे से कतराता था।
एक बार पास के गांव से र्दो िडके रोिी-रोटी की तिाश में इस गांव में आ
पहुंचे। काम ढू ंढते-ढू ंढते वह चतुरसेि के पास पहुंचे। चतुरसेि िे तुरंत उन्हें
काम पर रख निया। उसिे उिसे कहा कक यकर्द तुम मेरे यहां काम करते हो
तो तुम्हें यह िौकरी पूरे एक साि तक करिी होगी। मैं तुम्हें एक साि का
वेति एक िाख रुपए र्दूग
ं ा पर यकर्द साि पूरा होिे के पहिे तुमिे िौकरी
छोड र्दी, तो एक भी पैसा िहीं नमिेगा।
बडे भाई िे सोचा, यह तो अच्छा है कक हमें साि भर के निए काम नमि
िाएगा और एक साथ इतिी बडी रकम भी।
छोटे भाई को भी बडे भाई की बात िंच गई थी। ककं तु सवाि यह था कक
यकर्द वेति िहीं नमिेगा तो वह खाएंगे क्या? अतः र्दोिों िे िाकर साहकार से
इस समस्या का हि पूछा।
साहकार िे उिसे कहा कक वह उन्हें प्रनतकर्दि एक पत्ताभर के चावि-र्दाि खािे
को र्देगा। इस बात से र्दोिों भाई खुश हो गए और काम पर िग गए।
कर्दि भर काम करिे के बार्द िब खािे की बारी आई, तो उि र्दोिों को
अमरूर्द के पत्ते पर र्दाि-चावि परोस कर्दया गया। अमरूर्द का पत्ता इतिा
छोटा था कक उसमें परोसे खािे से उिका पेट ही ि भर पाता था। ककसी तरह
र्दोिों िे एक सप्ताह निकािा और कफर िौकरी छोड कर अपिे गांव वापस िौट
गए।
गांव का ही एक भिा आर्दमी साहकार की इस शैतािी को चुपचाप र्देखा
करता था। एक कर्दि उसिे अपिे ररश्ते के एक भाई को कु छ नसखाकर साहकार
के यहां िौकरी करिे के निए भेिा।
साहकार िे उससे भी वही बातें कहीं िो वह अन्य मिर्दूरों से कहा करता था।
उस व्यनि िे साहकार की सारी बातों के निए हामी भर र्दी परं तु िब उसिे
पत्ते पर खािा र्देिे की बात कही तो उसिे कहा ठीक है, परं तु पत्ता रोि मैं
िाया करूंगा।
शाम को िब खािे की बारी आई तो मिर्दूर बडा-सा के िे का पत्ता िेकर बैठ
गया। साहकार के रसोइए िे पूरा चावि उसे परोस कर्दया िेककि पत्ता भरा ही
िहीं। मिर्दूर िे पेट भर के खािा खाया और बचा हुआ खािा िे िा कर फें क
कर्दया।
इस तरह साहकार का खािे का खचण कई गुिा बढ गया। अंततः उसिे चुपचाप
मिर्दूर को उसके वेति के पैसे र्देकर नवर्दा ककया और गरीब मिर्दूरों का
फायर्दा उठािा बंर्द कर कर्दया।
संर्दश
े - झूठ बोिकर र्दूसरों को िोखा र्देिा पाप होता है।
E) कर्दए गए नचत्र को ध्याि से र्देख कर उसके आिार पर कोई

घटिा अथवा कहािी निनखए निसका सीिा संबंि नचत्र से हो।
उत्तर :
नचत्र वर्णि
प्रस्तुत नचत्र में एक मनहिा अपिे र्दो बच्चों के साथ कर्दखाई र्दे रही है मां और
बच्चे र्दोिों ही प्रसन्न नचत्त हैं। बेटी के हाथ में एक िो पेपर है वह उसका
परीक्षा-फि है। उसे र्देखकर िग रहा है, िैसे वह बहुत अच्छे अंको से पास
हुई है और मां तथा छोटा भाई र्दोिों ही उसकी सफिता पर खुश हो रहे हैं।
यह नचत्र इस बात का संकेत र्दे रहा है कक माता-नपता बच्चों को अच्छी नशक्षा
कर्दिवािे के निए मेहित से कमाया हुआ पैसा और समय र्दोिों खचण करते हैं
और आशा करते हैं कक उिके बच्चे अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण हों; और बडे होकर
एक सफि इं साि बिे। ताकक उिका पैसा और मेहित र्दोिों सफि हो िाए।
बच्चों का र्दानयत्व होता है कक वह अपिे-आप को संयनमत करके माता-नपता की
अपेक्षाओं को पूरा करिे का प्रयत्न करें । िब उिकी आशा के अिुरूप बच्चों को
सफिता नमिती है, तो पूरे घर में प्रसन्नता का वातावरर् छा िाता है।
QUESTION - 2
निम्ननिनखत नवषयों में से ककसी एक नवषय पर िगभग 120 शब्र्दों में पत्र
निनखए। (7)
A) अपिे नमत्रों के साथ शैक्षनर्क यात्रा पर िािे हेतु आज्ञा मांगते हुए नपतािी को
पत्र निनखए।
उत्तर :
कौशल्या छात्रावास,
इिाहाबार्द।
कर्दिांक - 14-10-2022
पूििीय नपतािी,
सार्दर चरर् स्पशण।
मैं यहां कु शि से हं और आशा करता हं आप िोग भी कु शितापूवणक होंगे।

हमारे स्कू ि की ओर से एक शैक्षनर्क यात्रा का आयोिि ककया गया है,
निसका उद्देश्य मथुरा वृंर्दावि, ियपुर िैसे र्दशणिीय स्थिों का अविोकि करिा
है।
मेरे सभी नमत्र इस यात्रा में सहभागी हो रहे हैं। मैं भी उिके साथ िािा
चाहता हं ताकक नवनभन्न स्थािों के बारे में प्रत्यक्ष ज्ञाि अर्िणत करिे का अवसर
नमिे।
आपसे अिुरोि करता हं कक मुझे इस यात्रा में सनम्मनित होिे की अिुमनत
प्रर्दाि करें ।
इस यात्रा के निए प्रत्येक नवद्याथी को तीि हिार रूपए र्देिे होंगे, निसमें
रहिा, खािा और घूमिा सब कु छ शानमि है।
मैं आपको नवश्वास कर्दिाता हं कक इस यात्रा से मुझे बहुत कु छ सीखिे को
नमिेगा और वापस आिे के बार्द एक िए िोश के साथ पढाई में िग िाऊंगा।
आशा करता हं कक आप शीघ्र ही मुझे अिुमनत के साथ-साथ रुपए भी भेि
र्देंगे।
आपका नप्रय पुत्र,
XYZ
B) बार-बार नबििी फे ि हो िािे के कारर् आपको और आपके पररवार वािों को

होिे वािी करठिाइयों का वर्णि करते हुए स्थािीय समाचार पत्र के संपार्दक को
पत्र निनखए।
उत्तर :
सेवा में,
संपार्दक महोर्दय,
र्दैनिक अमर उिािा,
इिाहाबार्द।
नवषय- अनियनमत नवद्युत आपूर्तण के संबंि में।
महोर्दय,
मैं रामिगर निवासी एक िागररक हं। मैं आप के िोकनप्रय र्दैनिक समाचार पत्र
के माध्यम से, नवद्युत नवभाग के उच्च अनिकाररयों का ध्याि बार-बार फे ि
होिे वािी नवद्युत व्यवस्था की ओर आकर्षणत करिा चाहता हं।
बार-बार नबििी फे ि हो िािे के कारर् छात्रों की पढाई में बािा हो रही है।
इस गमी के मौसम में नबिा पंखे के कोई कै से पढाई कर सकता है। िल्र्द ही
स्कू ि और कॉिेि की परीक्षाएं शुरू होिे िा रही हैं। ऐसे में नबििी का िा
होिा अत्यंत असुनविाििक है।
मैंिे अिेक बार नवद्युत नवभाग के कमणचाररयों से इस संबंि में संपकण ककया,
ककं तु कोई पररर्ाम िहीं आया। निराश होकर मैंिे इस समस्या को उठािे के
निए आपके समाचार पत्र का सहारा निया है।
आशा करता हं कक आप अपिे पत्र में इस समस्या का उल्िेख करके उसके
समािाि में सहयोग करें गे।
िन्यवार्द
भवर्दीय,
एक सिग िागररक
QUESTION - 3
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर अपिे

शब्र्दों में निनखए।
नशक्षा और अध्ययि मािनसक उन्ननत करिे के सरि सािि हैं। नशक्षा का अथण
मनस्तष्क को ज्ञाि से भर िेिा िहीं है बनल्क गुरुओं और पुस्तकों द्वारा प्राप्त ज्ञाि
को अपिे कर्दमाग में अच्छी तरह नबठा िेिा और उसके सहारे अपिी ईश्वर प्रर्दत्त
शनियों का नवकास करिा नशक्षा का मूि उद्देश्य है।
हमें अपिे गुरु के प्रनत श्रद्धा और नवश्वास रखते हुए यथासंभव प्रत्येक ज्ञाि को
अपिे नििी अिुभव में शानमि करिा चानहए। नवद्याथी िीवि में नशक्षा के प्रमुख
तीि सािि होते हैं।
पाठ्यक्रम की पुस्तकें , गुरु का उपर्देश और सहकारी अध्ययि। पाठ्य पुस्तकों का
अध्ययि हमें के वि परीक्षा पास करिे की र्दृनष्ट से िहीं बनल्क ज्ञाि बढािे की र्दृनष्ट
से करिा चानहए।
पाठ्यपुस्तकों द्वारा नवचार और भाषा पर प्रभुत्व प्राप्त करिे को अपिा उद्देश्य
बिािा चानहए। िो पाठ पढें, उसमें से कौि-सा िया नवचार नमिा या ककस
पुरािे नवचार का संशोिि हुआ है, इि बातों पर गौर करते रहिे से निरं तर ज्ञाि
का नवस्तार होता रहेगा।
अध्ययि के साथ मिि की प्रकक्रया भी आवश्यक होती है। मिि से ही ज्ञाि
पररपक्व होता है। परठत पाठ का मिि ि करिेवािे छात्र अपिे अर्िणत ज्ञाि के
साथ तारतम्य स्थानपत िहीं कर पाते िब तक पुस्तकी ज्ञाि को व्यवहार में िहीं
िाया िाता, तब तक िीवि में उसकी कोई उपयोनगता िहीं होती। ज्ञाि का सही
िक्ष्य प्राप्त करिा और उसे उपयोगी बिािा प्रत्येक नवद्याथी का कतणव्य होता है।
1) नशक्षा का सही अथण क्या है? (2)
उत्तर : पुस्तकों से पकढए और गुरु से नमिे ज्ञाि को कर्दमाग में नबठा कर
अपिी क्षमताओं और शनियों का नवकास करिा नशक्षा का सही अथण है।
2) नवद्याथी िीवि में नशक्षा के ककतिे सािि होते हैं उिके िाम बताइए। (2)
उत्तर : नवद्याथी िीवि में नशक्षा के तीि सािि होते हैं। पहिा पाठ्यक्रम की
पुस्तकें , र्दूसरा गुरु के द्वारा कर्दए गए उपर्देश या िािकारी और तीसरा सािि
होता है सहकारी अध्ययि।
3) स्कू िी नशक्षा में मिि का क्या स्थाि होता है? (2)

उत्तर : स्कू िी नशक्षा में मिि की प्रकक्रया अत्यंत सहायक होती है। परठत पाठ
को मि में र्दोहरािा मिि कहिाता है। मिि करिे से पुस्तकी ज्ञाि को व्यवहार
में उतारा िा सकता है।
4) पाठ्य पुस्तकें पढिे के र्दौराि ककि बातों की ओर ध्याि र्देिा आवश्यक होता
है? (2)
उत्तर : पाठ्य पुस्तकें पढिे के र्दौराि शुद्ध भाषा पर अपिा प्रभुत्व स्थानपत
करिा और पाठ में आए िए नवचार को आत्मसात करिा आवश्यक होता है।
5) अिुच्छेर्द के निए उपयुि शीषणक निनखए। (2)

उत्तर : "नशक्षा का उद्देश्य"
QUESTION - 4
निम्ननिनखत प्रश्नों के उत्तर निर्देशािुसार निनखए। (8)
1) 'ससंह' शब्र्द का सही पयाणयवाची शब्र्द चुिकर निनखए।
A) नचता
B) विराि
C) कं चि
D) गि
उत्तर : B) विराि
2) 'िडका' की भाववाचक संज्ञा होगी,

A) िडकापि
B) िडकपि
C) िडाकू
D) िडाकत्व
उत्तर : B) िडकपि
3) 'अवश्यकता ' शब्र्द का शुद्ध रूप है-

A) आवस्यकता
B) आवाश्यकता
C) आवश्यकता
D) अवाश्यकता
उत्तर : C) आवश्यकता
4) 'अज्ञािी' शब्र्द का तत्सम शब्र्द है,

A) अिपढ
B) अिाडी
C) अििाि
D) इिमें से कोई िहीं
उत्तर : C) अििाि
5) "अक्ि का र्दुश्मि" मुहावरे का अथण है

A) बेअकि
B) िाअकि
C) मूखण
D) बुनद्धमाि
उत्तर : C) मूखण
6) 'अकथिीय' शब्र्द का वाक्यांश होगा

A) िो कहा िा िा सके
B) िो कहा िा सके
C) िो ककया िा िा सके
D) िो ककया िा सके
उत्तर : A) िो कहा िा िा सके
7) निर्देशािुसार वाक्य बिाइए

नपछिे साि तुम कहां गया था? (वाक्य को शुद्ध करके निनखए)
उत्तर : नपछिे साि तुम कहां गए थे?
8) र्दूसरा युवक वहां खािी हाथ आकर खडा हो गया।

(वाक्य में और शब्र्द का प्रयोग करके निनखए)
उत्तर : र्दूसरा युवक वहां खािी हाथ आया और खडा हो गया।
SECTION - B
सानहत्य सागर (संनक्षप्त कहानियां)
QUESTION -. 5
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचे कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

सामिे वृक्षों का एक कुं ि और कु आं र्देखकर सेठ िी िे नवचार ककया कक यहां
थोडी र्देर रुक कर भोिि और नवश्राम कर िेिा चानहए।
(महायज्ञ का पुरस्कार-
यशपाि)
अ) क्या र्देखकर सेठ िी िे रुकिे का नवचार ककया? और वहां रुककर उन्होंिे क्या
ककया? (2)
उत्तर : वृक्षों की छांव और कु आं र्देखकर सेठ िी िे वहां रुकिे का नवचार
ककया। वहां रुक कर उन्होंिे पहिे कु एं से पािी निकािकर हाथ-पैर िोए कफर
पत्नी के द्वारा र्दी गई रोरटयां और एक िोटा पािी िेकर पेड के िीचे बैठ
गए।
आ) सेठ िे भूखे कु त्ते के साथ क्या व्यवहार ककया? (2)

उत्तर : सामिे एक भूखा कु त्ता र्देख कर सेठ को उस पर र्दया आ गई। उन्होंिे
एक-एक करके अपिी चार रोरटयों में से कु त्ते को तीि रोरटयां नखिा र्दी और
अपिे निए के वि एक रोटी बचाई।
इ) सेठ िे कु त्ते को चौथी रोटी भी क्यों नखिा र्दी? (3)

उत्तर : सेठ के द्वारा र्दी गई तीि रोरटयां खािे के बार्द मररयि कु त्ते के शरीर
में िाि आ गई। वह चिकर सेठ के करीब आकर बैठ गया। उसकी आंखों में
कृ तज्ञता र्देखकर सेठ िे चौथी रोटी भी नखिा र्दी ताकक वह मूक और बेबस
िीव ककसी तरह िोगों की बस्ती तक चिा िाए, िहां उसे खािा नमि सके ।
ई) कुं र्दिपुर पहुंचकर सेठ िे ककस से बातचीत की? और क्या कहा? (3)
उत्तर : कुं र्दिपुर पहुंचकर सेठ, िन्नासेठ की हवेिी पर पहुंचे, तो िन्ना सेठ िे
उिसे आिे का कारर् पूछा। उन्होंिे िवाब कर्दया कक वह संकट में हैं, अतः
अपिा यज्ञ बेचिा चाहते हैं। तभी िन्नासेठ की पत्नी िे आकर उिसे कहा कक
"हम आपका महायज्ञ खरीर्दिा चाहते हैं।"
QUESTION - 6
गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

निस तरह सूखी िकडी िल्र्दी से िि उठती है उसी तरह क्षुिा से बाविा मिुष्य
िरा-िरा सी बात पर तुिक िाता है। िाि नबहारी को भावि की यह कढठाई
बहुत बुरी मािूम हुई।
(बडे घर की बेटी -
प्रेमचंर्द)
अ) िाि नबहारी कौि है उसे अपिी भावि की कौि सी बात बुरी िगी? (2)
उत्तर : िाि नबहारी बेिी मािव ससंह का छोटा बेटा और श्रीकं ठ का भाई है।
उसिे अपिी भाभी से र्दो नचनडया पकाकर र्देिे को कहा तो घर में नितिा घी
था, उसे डािकर भाभी िे मांस पका कर्दया। भाभी िे उसकी र्दाि में डाििे
के निए घी बचाकर क्यों िहीं रखा, इस बात पर िाि नबहारी को गुस्सा आ
गया।
आ) भावि की बात सुिकर िाि नबहारी िे उस पर क्या व्यंग ककया? (2)

उत्तर : पाव भर घी खत्म हो िािे की बात सुिकर, िाि नबहारी को क्रोि
आ गया और उसिे भाभी से व्यंग में कह कर्दया कक "क्या तुम्हारे मायके में
घी की िकर्दयां बहती हैं।"
इ) िाि नबहारी को भाभी की कौि सी बात असहिीय िगी? (3)

उत्तर : आिंर्दी िे िब कहा कक उसके मायके में एक पाव घी रोि िाई और
कहार खा िाते हैं, तो िाि नबहारी को भाभी के मायके की बडाई सुििा
असहिीय िगा।
ई) िाि नबहारी िे अपिा आक्रोश ककस प्रकार प्रकट ककया? (3)

उत्तर : भाभी के मुंह से मायके की बढाई सुिकर िाि नबहारी को अपिी
िघुता का एहसास हुआ और आक्रोश में उसिे पांव की खडाउं को फें क कर
भाभी को मारा तथा कटु वचि भी कहे।
QUESTION - 7
गद्यांश को पढकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

चुपचाप बैठा तंग हो रहा था, कु ढ रहा था, कक नमत्र अचािक बोिे- र्देखो वह
क्या है?
(अपिा-अपिा भाग्य
- िैिेंद्र)
अ)
िेखक कु ढ क्यों रहा था? (2)
उत्तर : शाम हो गई थी। ठं ड िगिे िगी थी। ठं ड से बचिे के निए िेखक
िल्र्द से िल्र्द होटि पहुंचिा चाहता था, परं तु उसका नमत्र सडक के ककिारे
रखी बेंच पर बैठा था। उसके कहिे पर भी वह िहीं चि रहा था, इसनिए
िेखक कु ढ रहा था।
आ) नमत्र िे िेखक को क्या कर्दखाया? और िेखक िे 'होगा कोई' क्यों

कहा? (2)
उत्तर : शाम के कोहरे की सफे र्दी के बीच कु छ ही र्दूरी पर एक कािी सी
छाया उिकी तरफ आ रही थी। िेखक के नमत्र िे िेखक को उसे ही कर्दखाया
था। परं तु िेखक को होटि िौटिा था इसनिए उसिे उसमें कोई रुनच िहीं िी
और कह कर्दया कक होगा कोई। उसे उससे कोई मतिब िहीं है।
इ) उिकी तरफ आिे वािी कािी सी छाया ककसकी थी? (3)

उत्तर : वह एक र्दस-बारह साि का पहाडी िडका था। िो इतिी ठं ड में
के वि एक मैिी सी कमीि पहिा था। ठं ड से बचिे के निए ि ही उसके पास
टोपी थी और िा पैरों में चप्पि थी। वह एक गरीब बािक था।
ई) िडके िे अपिे बारे में क्या बताया? (3)

उत्तर : िडके िे अपिे बारे में बताया कक वह पास ही की एक पहाडी का
निवासी है। उसके घर में भाई-बहि और मां-बाप हैं, िो गरीबी के कारर्
भूखे रहिे को नववश हैं। इसनिए वह अपिे साथी के साथ वहां से भाग आया
है। यहां एक र्दुकाि में काम करता था ककं तु अब उसे िौकरी से निकाि कर्दया
गया है।
सानहत्य सागर - पद्य नवभाग
QUESTION -8
निम्ननिनखत पद्यांश को ध्याि से पकढए और िीचे पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।
"िेककि नवघ्न अिेक अभी

इस पथ पर अडे हुए हैं ।
मािवता की राह रोक कर
पवणत खडे हुए हैं।"
(स्वगण बिा सकते हैं -रामिारी ससंह
कर्दिकर)
अ) उपरोि पंनियों में कनव िे ककि बािाओं की ओर संकेत ककया है? (2)
उत्तर : उपरोि पंनियों में कनव िे मिुष्य िीवि में आिे वािी प्रकृ नत प्रर्दत्त
और मिुष्य के द्वारा पैर्दा की हुई बािाओं की ओर संकेत ककया है।
आ) कनव के अिुसार मािव को ककस चीि की आवश्यकता है? (2)

उत्तर : कनव के अिुसार मािव को बािारनहत िीवि नवकास और आकांक्षाओं
के बािारनहत पूरे होिे की आवश्यकता है। उसे अपिे अनिकारों की सुरक्षा
और परस्पर सहयोग की अपेक्षा है, ताकक वह उन्ननत के पथ पर आगे बढ
पाए।
इ) कनव िे मािव समुर्दाय की समािता पर िोर क्यों कर्दया है? (3)

उत्तर : कनव के अिुसार िरती को स्वगण बिािे के निए आपसी भेर्दभाव को
भूिकर सभी मिुष्यों को एक िैसा समझ कर अपिे-अपिे अनिकारों का
उपयोग करिा होगा और एक र्दूसरे को सहारा र्देकर आगे बढिे में सहायक
बििा होगा।
ई) हमारे र्देश के नवकास में कौि-कौि सी बािाएं खडी हैं? (3)

उत्तर : हमारे र्देश के नवकास में गरीबी, अनशक्षा, बेरोिगारी, ििसंख्या
वृनद्ध तथा महंगाई रूपी बािाएं खडी हैं। िब तक इि पर नविय प्राप्त िहीं
की िाती; तब तक र्देशवानसयों का नवकास संभव िहीं होगा।
QUESTION - 9
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को पढकर िीचे निखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

यह िन्मभूनम मेरी, वह मातृभूनम मेरी
ऊंचा खडा नहमािय, आकाश चूमता है,
िीचे चरर् तिे पड, नित ससंिु झूमता है।
गंगा, यमुिा, नत्रवेर्ी, िकर्दयां िहर रही हैं,
िगमग छटा निरािी, पग-पग पर छहर रही हैं।
(वह िन्मभूनम मेरी - सोहििाि
नद्ववेर्दी)
अ) कनव िे भारत की ककि नवशेषताओं का वर्णि ककया है? (2)
उत्तर : कनव कहते हैं, भारत की भूनम संसार में अपिा नवनशष्ट स्थाि
रखती है। इसके नसर पर नहमािय पवणत रूपी मुकुट शोनभत हो रहा है और
चरर्ों में सागर िहराता है। गंगा, यमुिा िैसी पनवत्र िकर्दयां इस र्देश को
गौरव प्रर्दाि करती हैं।
आ) कनव िे नहमािय को र्देश का गौरव क्यों कहा है? (3)

उत्तर : नवश्व प्रनसद्ध नहमािय पवणत एक प्रहरी बिकर भारत की उत्तर कर्दशा
से आिे वािे आक्रमर्काररयों से उसकी रक्षा करता है। यहां से अिेक पनवत्र
िकर्दयां निकिकर भारत भूनम का गौरव बढाती हैं और िि र्देती हैं। नहमािय
पर अिेक रम्य स्थाि हैं, िो गर्मणयों में आल्हार्दर्दायक होते हैं। इसीनिए कनव
िे इसे र्देश का गौरव कहां है।
इ) नहमािय से कौि-कौि से प्रमुख िकर्दयां निकिती हैं? (2)

उत्तर : भारत के अनिकांश िकर्दयां नहमािय से ही निकिती हैं िेककि उिमें
सबसे प्रमुख हैं गंगा यमुिा और सरस्वती इिाहाबार्द के प्रयाग िामक स्थाि
पर इि तीिों िकर्दयों का संगम होता है िोकक बहुत ही पनवत्र मािा िाता
है।
ई) भारत में ककि-ककि महापुरुषों का िन्म हुआ है? (3)

उत्तर : भारत में राम, सीता और श्रीकृ ष्र् िैसे महाि अवतारों िे िन्म
निया और इस िरती को अपिे पुिीत कायों से िन्य कर कर्दया। वहीं गौतम
बुद्ध िैसे महािुभावों िे भी यहां िन्म िेकर मिुष्य िानत को मोक्ष का मागण
कर्दखाया।
QUESTION. 10
निम्ननिनखत पद्यांश को पढकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।
पािी बाढै िाव में, घर में बाढे र्दाम।

र्दोिों हाथ उिीनचए, यही सयािो काम।
यही सयािो काम, राम को सुनमरि कीिै।
पर स्वारथ के काि, शीश आगे िर र्दीिै।
कह 'नगरिर कनवराय' बडेि की याही बािी।
चनिए चाि सुचाि, रानखए अपिा पािी।
(नगरिर की कुं डनियां - नगररिर

कनवराय)
अ) िाव में पािी और घर में र्दाम बढ िािे पर क्या करिा चानहए और
उत्तर : िाव में पािी भर िािे पर उसे र्दोिों हाथ से बाहर फें क र्देिा
चानहए, वरिा पािी के भार से िाव डू ब िाएगी।
इसी प्रकार यकर्द घर में िि-संपनत्त बहुत बढ िाए तो उस िि को र्दोिों
हाथ से र्दाि कर र्देिा चानहए या परमाथण में िगा र्देिा चानहए अन्यथा
पररवार की नस्थनत नबगड िाएगी।
आ) "पर स्वारथ के काि शीश आगे िर र्दीिे" पंनि का भाव स्पष्ट कीनिए। (2)
उत्तर : पर स्वाथण अथाणत परोपकार। मिुष्य को परोपकार अवश्य करिा
चानहए। यकर्द उसके निए कु बाणिी भी र्देिी पडे तो भी पीछे िहीं हटिा
चानहए। क्योंकक परोपकार से ही समाि में आपसी सहयोग का भाव बढता
है।
इ) कनव के अिुसार बडे िोगों िे क्या कहा है? क्या हमें उिका कहिा माििा
चानहए? (3)
उत्तर : बडे िोगों िे सिाह र्दी है कक हमें हमेशा सच्चे मागण पर चििा
चानहए और अपिे सम्माि की रक्षा करिा चानहए क्योंकक इससे हमारा
स्वानभमाि कायम रहता है। सन्मागण पर चििे से हमारे कमण सुिरते हैं।
हमें उिका कहिा अवश्य माििा चानहए।
ई) कनववर नगरिर िे मिुष्य को और क्या-क्या सीख र्दी है? (3)

उत्तर : कनव िे हमें र्दाि करके पुण्य कमािे की; परोपकार करके मािव
िानत की सेवा करिे की; और सर्दैव ईश्वर का स्मरर् करते हुए उसके बताएं
रास्ते पर चििे की सीख र्दी है। ताकक हमारा िीवि सुखी हो और हमें
समाि द्वारा सम्माि नमिे।
िया रास्ता - सुषमा अग्रवाि
QUESTION - 11
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को पढकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

तभी मीिू की बहि आशा व भाई रोनहत िे कमरे में प्रवेश ककया। अनमत के
माता-नपता भी कमरे में आ गए थे। आशा को र्देखकर सबकी ििरें उसके सुंर्दर
चेहरे की ओर िम गई, निसमें िवयौवि का निखार था।
अ) मीिू को र्देखिे के निए कौि-कौि आया था? यह सब िोग कहां से आए थे?(2)
उत्तर : मीिू को र्देखिे के निए अनमत ,उसके नपता मायाराम िी, मातािी
और छोटी बहि मिु आए थे। यह सभी िोग मेरठ से मीिू को र्देखिे और
शार्दी के निए पसंर्द करिे आए थे।
आ) अनमत अपिी िीविसंनगिी के रूप में कै सी िडकी चाहता था? (2)

उत्तर : अनमत पढी-निखी और सुशीि िडकी चाहता था। साथ में यह भी
चाहता था कक उसकी िीविसंनगिी संयुि पररवार में रहकर उसके माता-नपता
की र्देखभाि और उिका आर्दर सत्कार करें ।
इ) आशा के आिे पर सबकी ििरें उसकी ओर क्यों उठ गई? (3)

उत्तर : आशा मीिू की छोटी बहि थी और रूप रं ग में मीिू से अनिक सुंर्दर
थी। उसकी सुंर्दरता और यौवि के निखार को र्देखकर सबकी ििरें उसके चेहरे
की ओर उठ गईं।
ई) आशा को अिग बुिाकर उसकी मां िे क्या कहा? क्या आशा मां का अनभप्राय
समझ रही थी? (3)
उत्तर : आशा की मां िहीं चाहती थी कक मीिू को र्देखिे आिे वािे िोगों के
सामिे आशा आए क्योंकक वह मीिू से सुंर्दर थी। इसनिए उसकी मां िे उसे
अिग कमरे में बुिाकर डांटा और र्दूसरे कमरे में बैठिे को कहा।
आशा मां के अनभप्राय को िहीं समझ सकी क्योंकक उसे उस बात का आभास
िहीं था।
QUESTION - 12
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को पढकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

यौवि की र्दहिीि पर खडी िीनिमा र्दपणर् में अपिा चेहरा निहार-कर कु छ
नवनस्मत सी मुस्कु रा रही थी। र्दपणर् में निहारिे पर यौवि की िानिमा उसके चेहरे
पर छा गई। अपिा चेहरा वह अभी र्दपणर् में निहार ही रही थी कक इतिे में
उसकी सहेिी मीिू िे पीछे से आकर उसकी आंखों पर अपिे हाथ रख कर्दए।
अ) िीनिमा अपिा चेहरा र्दपणर् में र्देखकर नवनस्मत क्यों हो गई? (2)
उत्तर : िीनिमा सुंर्दर थी। र्दपणर् में निहारिे पर उसकी सुंर्दरता निखर कर
चेहरे पर आ गई। वह अपिे को इतिा सुंर्दर र्देखकर नवनस्मत हो गई थी
क्योंकक वह स्वयं को इतिा सुंर्दर िहीं समझती थी, नितिा र्दपणर् में कर्दखाई र्दे
रही थी।
आ) मीिू िे आकर उसे क्या बताया? अपिी बात कहिे के बार्द मीिू का चेहरा
क्यों बर्दि गया? (2)
उत्तर : मीिू अत्यंत प्रसन्न थी क्योंकक मेरठ वािों को उसका फोटो पसंर्द आ
गया था और वह कि उसे र्देखिे उसके घर आ रहे थे। वह यही खुशखबरी
बतािे िीनिमा के घर आई थी। िीनिमा की सुंर्दरता र्देखकर उसके भाव बर्दि
गए क्योंकक वह सुंर्दर िहीं थी इसनिए अक्सर िडके उसे िापसंर्द कर कर्दया
करते थे।
इ) मीिू का ध्याि हटािे के निए िीनिमा िे क्या ककया? (3)

उत्तर : मीिू का ध्याि हटािे के निए िीनिमा िे अपिे अिेक मुद्राओं में खींचे
फोटो उसके सामिे रख कर्दए। िीनिमा उि फोटो को एक-एक करके मीिू को
कर्दखा रही थी।
ई) मीिू िे िीनिमा की प्रशंसा करते हुए क्या कहा? (3)

उत्तर : िीनिमा की सुंर्दरता से प्रभानवत होकर मीिू उसकी प्रशंसा करिे िगी।
उसिे कहा, "िगता है, ईश्वर िे तुझे फु सणत से बैठकर बिाया है, ककतिे
सुंर्दर िाक-िक्श है और ऊपर से गोरा रं ग। िो कोई भी तुझसे नववाह करे गा,
वह वास्तव में बहुत ही भाग्यशािी होगा।
QUESTION - 13

अनमत व मायाराम िी िब अपिे घर पहुंचे, तो उन्होंिे र्देखा कक कोई सज्जि
उिका इं तिार कर रहे थे। बात करिे पर पता चिा कक वह उसी शहर के एक
ििी व्यनि थे, नििका िाम ििीमि था।
अ) अनमत और माया राम िी कहां से आए थे? वे वहां क्यों गए थे? (2)
उत्तर : अनमत और उिके नपता मायाराम िी, मीरापुर से िौटकर अपिे घर
मेरठ आए थे। वे मीरापुर अनमत के निए िडकी र्देखिे गए थे।
आ) अनमत कौि है? वे निस काम से गए थे उसका क्या पररर्ाम निकिा? (3)
उत्तर : अनमत मेरठ निवासी मायाराम िी का पुत्र है। वह पढा-निखा सुंर्दर
िवयुवक है। मेरठ में उसका अपिा कारोबार है। अनमत की शार्दी के निए
िडकी र्देखिे उसके माता-नपता और छोटी बहि मिु गए थे। अनमत को मीिू
पसंर्द आ गई थी िेककि संकोचवश उसिे अपिी राय प्रकट िहीं की थी। िबकक
घर के अन्य सर्दस्यों को मीिू की छोटी बहि आशा अच्छी िगी थी।
इ) ििीमि िी कौि है? वे यहां क्यों आए थे? (2)

उत्तर : ििीमि िी मेरठ में ही रहिे वािे एक ििी व्यवसायी हैं। वे अपिी
िडकी के ररश्ते के निए अनमत को र्देखिे आए थे। वे यहां पहिी बार आए थे
क्योंकक उन्हें पता चिा था कक मायाराम िी का बेटा अनववानहत है।
ई) ििीमि और मायाराम िी के बीच में क्या बातें हुई? (3)

उत्तर : ििीमि िी िे अनमत के साथ अपिी बेटी सररता के ररश्ते की बात
उठाई और उसकी शार्दी में पांच िाख रुपए खचण करिे को कहा।
मायाराम िी र्दहेि नवरोिी थे इसनिए उन्होंिे बात को टाििे के निए कह
कर्दया कक हम अभी एक िडकी र्देखकर आए हैं और वह हम सबको पसंर्द भी
आ गई है। कफर भी ििीमििी िडकी का फोटो रख कर चिे गए, यह कहकर
कक आप नवचार करके बता र्दीनिएगा।
एकांकी संचय
QUESTION - 14
निम्ननिनखत अवतरर् को पढकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

मैं कु मार के घर गई थी। वही उसकी नमसरािी िे मुझे बताया कक "तुम्हारा बेटा
तो बहुत बीमार रहा, मरकर बचा।" सुिकर मैं शमण से गड गई मेरा बेटा बीमार
रहे और मुझे पता भी िा िगे।
(संस्कार और भाविा - नवष्र्ु
प्रभाकर)
अ) विा कौि है और श्रोता कौि है विा को उसके बेटे की बीमारी के नवषय में
ककससे पता चिा? (2)
उत्तर : विा अतुि और अनविाश की बूढी मां है। और श्रोता अतुि की पत्नी
और विा की छोटी बह उमा है।
अनविाश की मां को कु मार की नमसरािी से पता चिता है कक उसका अिग
रहिे वािा बेटा बीमार था और मरते-मरते बचा है।
आ) विा को अपिे बेटे की बीमारी का पता क्यों िहीं चि पाया था? (3)
उत्तर : विा को अपिे बेटे अनविाश की बीमारी का पता िहीं चि पाया
था। उसे यह खबर पडोस की नमसरािी से नमिी क्योंकक नववाह के बार्द उसका
बेटा उिके साथ िहीं रहता था। उिके बेटे िे अंतरिातीय प्रेम नववाह ककया
था निसे संस्कारों में िकडी हुई मां िे स्वीकार िहीं ककया था और वह घर से
अिग होकर रह रहा था।
इ) विा शमण से क्यों गड गई थी? (2)

उत्तर : विा शमण से इसनिए गड गई क्योंकक उसे इस बात की ग्िानि हो
रही थी कक अपिे ही बेटे की बीमारी का पता उन्हें र्दूसरों से िग रहा था।
यह उिके निए शमण की बात थी कक उसके बेटे िे उसे अपिी बीमारी की
खबर से वंनचत रखा।
ई) विा का शमण से गड िािा उसकी ककस भाविा का प्रतीक है? (3)

उत्तर : विा का नवचार है कक उसके बेटे से संबंनित कोई भी खबर उसे
अपिे घर वािों से मािूम होिी चानहए थी, िा कक र्दूसरों से। वह िहीं
चाहती थी कक बाहरी िोगों को उिके घर की बातों का पता चिे कक मां और
बेटे में अिबि चि रही है।
QUESTION - 15
निम्ननिनखत गद्यांश को पढकर कर्दए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर निनखए।

नििकी खाि मोटी होती है, उिके निए ककसी भी बात में कोई भी अपयश,
किंक या अपमाि का कारर् िहीं होता। ककं तु िो आि को प्रार्ों से बढकर
समझते आए हैं, यह परािय का मुख र्देखकर भी िीनवत रहें। यह कै सी उपहास
ििक बात है? सुिो अभय ससंह िी! मैं अपिे मस्तक के इस किंक के टीके को
िो डाििा चाहता हं।
अ) "नििकी खाि मोटी होती है," वाक्यांश का भाव स्पष्ट कीनिए। (2)
उत्तर : खाि मोटी होिे का अनभप्राय है, निन्हें अपिे माि-सम्माि की
परवाह िहीं होती। उन्हें अपयश, किंक या अपमाि से डर िहीं िगता। वे
या तो कायर होते हैं या कफर उिमें स्वानभमाि िहीं होता।
आ) महारार्ा िाखा की ििर में प्रार्ों से बढकर भी कौि सी चीि थी? और

उत्तर : महारार्ा िाखा की ििर में उिका आत्मसम्माि प्रार्ों से भी बढकर
था। इसके निए वे युद्ध में प्रार् र्देिा पसंर्द कर सकते थे, ककं तु उिकी प्रनतष्ठा
पर कोई आंच आए यह उन्हें स्वीकार िहीं था। वे एक स्वानभमािी इं साि थे।
इ) परािय का मुख र्देखकर िीनवत रहिा, महारार्ा िाखा के निए कै सी बात

थी? (3)
उत्तर : पराजय का मु ख दे खकर जीवित रहना महाराणा के विए मृ त्यु से
भी बडा कष्ट था। उनके विए यह बहुत ही उपहास जनक स्थथवत थी, जो
उनकी िीरता का मजाक उडाती थी। यह बात उन्हें वबल्कुि पसं द नही ं थी
क्ोंवक राजपू त तो अपनी आन पर मर वमटने िािे होते हैं ना वक यु द्ध से
पिायन करने िािे।
ई) महारार्ा अपिे ऊपर िगे किंक के र्दाग को क्यों िोिा चाहते थे? स्पष्ट
कीनिए। (3)
उत्तर : महारार्ा िाखा नससोकर्दया वंश के र्देशभि रािपूत है। बूंर्दी से िोखे
में हुई परािय को यार्द करके वह अपिे-आप को शर्मिंर्दा महसूस करते हैं और
प्रनतज्ञा करते हैं कक िब तक उसे हरा िहीं र्देंगे, अन्न-िि ग्रहर् िहीं करें गे।
वे अपिी हार के किंक को िल्र्द से िल्र्द िो र्देिा चाहते हैं।
QUESTION. 16

"अपिे और अपिे मायके वािों के सामिे तो वह ककसी को कु छ नगिती ही िहीं।
हम तो उसके निए मूखण, गंवार और असभ्य हैं।"
(सूखी डािी -
उपेंद्रिाथ अश्क)
अ) उपरोि गद्यांश में कौि? ककससे? बात कर रहा है? और उसकी बात का
नवषय क्या है? (2)
उत्तर : यहां र्दार्दा मूिराि की पुत्री इं र्द ु अपिी मां से बातें कर रही है।
उिकी बातों का नवषय पररवार में बह बिकर आिे वािी सभ्य और संपन्न
पररवार की नशनक्षत पुत्री बेिा का व्यवहार है। िो उिके पौत्र िायब

तहसीिर्दार परे श की पत्नी है।
आ) विा की मािनसक र्दशा इस समय कै सी है और उसका कारर् क्या है?

(2)
उत्तर : विा इस समय बहुत गुस्से में है। उसके गुस्से का कारर् पररवार में
िई आिे वािी उसकी भाभी बेिा है। उसे अपिी उच्च नशक्षा तथा अपिे मायके
की संपन्नता का इतिा घमंड है कक वह इस पररवार के सर्दस्यों को असभ्य,
मूखण और गंवार समझती है।
इ) विा के अिुसार बेिा िे क्या भूि की है और क्यों? (3)

उत्तर : विा के अिुसार उसकी भाभी बेिा िे पररवार में र्दस वषण से काम
करिे वािी और पररवार की नवश्वासपात्र नमसरािी को काम से हटा कर्दया है
क्योंकक उसे िगता है कक नमसरािी काम करिे तथा सफाई करिे की योग्य
समझ िहीं रखती।
ई) इं र्द ु और बेिा में तकरार का आरं भ कब और कै से हुआ स्पष्ट कीनिए। (3)

उत्तर : िब इं र्द ु िे पुरािी नवश्वसिीय िौकरािी को बेिा के द्वारा हटाए िािे
की खबर सुिी, तो उसिे िाकर भाभी को समझाया कक वह पुरािी िौकरािी
है और पररवार की नवश्वासपात्र भी है। यकर्द उसके काम में कोई कमी है, तो
उसे प्यार से समझाया और नसखाया िा सकता है। वह सीख िाएगी। उसे
हटािे की क्या आवश्यकता है? ककं तु बेिा िे उसकी बात िहीं मािी। यहीं से
र्दोिों के बीच तकरार शुरू हो गई।

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ICSE CLASS 10 MOCK PAPER 1

iii) If on dividing 2x3 + 3x2 – kx + 5 by x – 2, leaves a remainder 7, then the value of k is

v) Find the 5th term of the AP 30, 28, 26, 24,…

vi) The reflection of point (1, 2) about y-axis is

(a) SSS test

ix) If x + 7  11, then value of x will be

x) A die has 6 faces marked by the given numbers as shown below:

The die is thrown once. So the probability of getting a positive integer is

xiv) The common difference of the A.P. 4, 6, 8, …… is

xv) Class mark of the class interval 105.5 – 110.5 is

iii) Prove that: [4]

iii) Use graph paper for this question. [5]

iii) The weight of 50 workers is given below : [4]

ii) Evaluate without using trigonometric tables, [3]

ii) Which of the following is a solution of the quadratic equation x2 – 2x – 15 = 0?

iii) Find the value of k, if 3x – 4 is a factor of expression 3x2 + 2x – k.

vii)Which of the following is not a test of similarity

ix) If x  N, find the solution set of inequation: 5x + 3 ≤ 2x + 18

xiv) Which term of the A.P. 1, 4, 7, 10,… is 58?

xv) Class mark of the class interval 125 – 150 is

ii) Draw a histogram for the following distribution: [3]

Class Interval 29.5–39.5 39.5−49.5 49.5−59.5 59.5−69.5 69.5−79.5

Marks 30–40 40–50 50–60 60–70 70–80 80–90 90–100

i) Find the mean proportional between [3]

vi) The S.I unit of specific latent heat is ______. [1]

ix) Sound of single frequency is called ______. [1]

xii) The boiling point of water at Delhi is [1]

iii) Name the factor that determines: [3]

v) State the condition for resonance to occur [3]

a) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?

ii) A resistance of 6 Ω and an electric toy motor of resistance of 20 Ω are connected in

a) State the polarity at the end X and Y when switch is closed.

b) mass of ice melted

v) State any two characteristics of a musical sound. [2]

a) Name the type of oscillation, C and D will execute.

a) The resistance of the circuit when the key k is open.

a) Name the type of vibrations taking place in pendulums B and D?

a) State the principle of moments as applied to the above lever.

iii) A 1.5 V cell of internal resistance 1 is connected to the resistors of 4 and 20 in

a) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?

a) Name all three radiation A, B and C

(Attempt all questions from this Section)

iii) The series of energy inter-conversions in a steam engine is

x) A bulb is rated as 270V, 0.5 A. Its power is

(iii) What are non-contact forces? [2]

a. State the function of the fixed pulley P2.

a. State the magnification of the image formed.

a. What is represented by AB and CD?

(ii) Common characteristic of a covalent compound is:

(iii) Drying agent for ammonia is:

(viii) The no. of valence electrons in group 18 elements is:

(ix) Duralumin is an alloy of:

(xi) Identify ‘X’ in the reaction: 2HCl + CuO → X + H2O

(xii) Formation of chloroform from methane and chlorine is an example of:

(a) Name the gas collected in the gas jar.

(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]

(c) Inert gases have complete _____________. (Octet, triplet)

(d) Ionization potential is the energy ___________ (required/released)

(e) The vertical column in periodic table is called __________ (group/period)

(iv) Name the following: [5]

(b) Name the following organic compounds in IUPAC system:

(ii) Write the products and balance the equations. [2]

(iii) Write the difference between: [3]

(ii) Name the following: [2]

(e) Lanthanides are present in _ group and _ period.