NORMAL OB - PROF.

ARCHIE ALVIZ
Total points 21/30

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That each Party shall comply with its obligations under all applicable data protection laws
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LAST NAME: (ALL CAPS) *

ESPIRITU
 FIRST NAME: (ALL CAPS) *

LESLEE AMOR

NAME OF SCHOOL: *

LPU - B

NORMAL OB / MATERNAL AND CHILD NURSING (30 ITEMS) 21 of 30 points

Prepared by: Archie D. Alviz, R.N., R.M., N.C. II | facebook fan page: Sir Archie D. Alviz

1. Which drug category may be safely administered during pregnancy? * 1/1

A. Category A

B. Category B

C. Category C

D. Category D

2. Which of the following is a positive indication of pregnancy? * 1/1

A. Quickening

B. Chadwick’s sign

C. Auscultation of fetal heart sounds

D. Ballottement
3. During the last months of pregnancy, the nurse should instruct the *0/1
client to:

A. rest on her left side for at least 1 hour in the morning and afternoon

B. sleep on her back during the night and during naps

C. start nipple exercises and stimulation twice a day

D. start to cut back on water intake, especially at night

4. When teaching a pregnant woman about traveling during the pregnancy, it *1/1
is important to focus on which of the following?

A. If traveling by car, stop every 2 hours for 10 minutes

B. Get plenty of rest before long trips made in automobiles

C. Travel in any type of aircraft is acceptable

D. Travel can be completed anytime throughout the pregnancy

5. Which of the following is recommended for all women during the *1/1
childbearing age?

A. Additional B vitamins

B. Additional vitamin A

C. Folic acid supplement

D. Vitamin C supplement
6. An 18-year old girl visits to obtain a contraceptive. She elected to use the *1/1
intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control. The major concern with
the use of the IUD is:

A. thrombophlebitis.

B. pain on intercourse.

C. infection.

D. abnormal bleeding and hemorrhage.

7. The client begins to question the nurse about sexuality and becoming *1/1
sexually active. During sexual counseling, the nurse should place a major point
of emphasis on:

A. douching after sexual intercourse.

B. sex during menstruation.

C. performing Kegsl exercises.

D. safe and responsible sex.

8. Using Naegle’s Rule, calculate the estimate date of delivery if the woman’s *1/1
LMP was October 1.

A. June 23

B. July 8

C. December 23

D. January 8
9. Which of the following would be appropriate to teach the pregnant woman *1/1
regarding exercise?

A. Avoid any physical activity during the second trimester

B. Contact sports are allowed during the first trimester

C. Extremely active women should reduce the level of exertion

D. Relaxation and stretching exercises should be discontinued.

10. One of the functions of the amniotic fluid is to: * 1/1

A. exchange nutrients from mother to fetus

B. immobilize the fetus

C. protect the woman’s uterus

D. regulate temperature

11. A feeling of ambivalence about the pregnancy is: * 1/1

A. a sign of unwanted pregnancy

B. normal in early pregnancy

C. rare at any stage of pregnancy

D. typical in late pregnancy

12. Which assessment relates most directly to rupture membranes and *0/1
release of amniotic fluid?

A. Bloody show

B. Fluid with a pH of 7.0 to 7.5 with nitrazine test

C. Fluid with a pH of 5.0 with nitrazine test

D. Woman complains of urge to push

13. When the placenta is delivered with the dull side out (Duncan *1/1
presentation), the woman is at risk for:

A. excessive bleeding

B. hemorrhoids

C. increased lacerations of the perineum

D. sterility

14. To assess the uterine contraction during labor, the nurse: * 0/1

A. asks the woman if she is having a contraction.

B. palpates above the symphysis pubis.

C. palpates just below the xyphoid process of the sternum.

D. performs a sterile vaginal examination.

15. The nurse knows that a postpartum client’s susceptibility to hemorrhage *1/1
is most likely related to a:

A. boggy uterus

B. firm fundus

C. long labor

D. negative Homan’s sign

16. Between 24 and 28 weeks, all pregnant women should be screened for: * 0/1

A. Anemia

B. Bladder infections

C. Diabetes

D. Neural tube defects

17. Which of these measures would be helpful for the pregnant client *1/1
complaining of sleeplessness?

A. Eat evening meal close to bedtime

B. Sit in a sitz bath before bedtime

C. Try to remain in one position when sleeping

D. Use pillows to help find a comfortable position

18. Why is the first 8 weeks of pregnancy known as the critical period of *1/1
human development?

A. By the time this period ends, the embryo is completely safe from any damage

B. Many embryos die during this period

C. The infant’s sex is determined at the end of the eight week

D. The major structures of the embryo are forming, and damage can result in major
birth defects

19. Which of these statements is most accurate about the placenta? * 1/1

A. The blood of the baby mixes with the mother’s blood to permit exchange of
nutrients and oxygen.

B. The blood of the baby and the mother do not mix; exchange occurs across blood
vessels and the walls of the villi.

C. The placenta lets the blood from the fetus cross to the mother, but the mother’s
blood does not cross to the fetus.

D. The placenta serves as a complete barrier between the baby and mother so that
any drugs the mother takes do not cross the baby.
20. Which of the following is the best recommendation about taking *1/1
medicines during pregnancy?

A. All over-the-counter (OTC) drugs are safe during pregnancy

B. All herbal preparations are safe during pregnancy

C. Don’t take anything during pregnancy without asking your health care provider

D. Take an OTC diuretic if you have swelling during the pregnancy

21. When providing postpartum teaching about self-care, one of the danger *1/1
signs that a lactating woman should know to report to the birth attendant is:

A. breast engorgement to a degree that the baby can’t latch on.

B. breast fullness just before feeding .

C. nipple soreness after feedings.

D. nipple dryness before feedings.

22. “Show” is usually present in: * 1/1

A. Braxton Hicks contraction.

B. false labor.

C. true labor.

D. Second stage of labor only.

23. APGAR score assessments are completed at: * 0/1

A. birth and 10 minutes.

B. 1 and 5 minutes.

C. 5 minutes and upon arrival to the nursery.

D. the time of birth.

24. A newborn of 4 hours displays grunting respirations and a respiratory rate *1/1
of 70 breaths/minute. The priority nursing intervention would be to:

A. begin resuscitative measures and call for help.

B. continue to monitor respiratory status variations are normal.

C. obtain vital signs every 15 minutes.

D. transfer the newborn to the mother’s room for feeding.

25. Which measure would be used to prevent loss of heat in the newborn? * 1/1

A. Immediately give the baby a bath

B. Place the baby on the mother’s bare stomach

C. Offer the baby warm glucose water

D. Wrap the baby in room-temperature blankets

26. Which of the following indicates that the new mother understands how to *1/1
handle breast milk safely?

A. “I can store fresh milk in the refrigerator for only 24 hours.”

B. “I can store frozen breast milk for up to 1 month.”

C. “I need to express my breast milk into a clear glass.”

D. “I should never store my breast milk in a frozen-food locker.”

27. To prevent infection of the perineal area after delivery, the nurse should *0/1
instruct the client to:

A. Begin sitz bath at the first sign of infection

B. Pull panties straight down

C. Use hot water to cleanse the area after bowel movement

D. Wipe with sweeping motion, from front to back

28. Analgesics given too late in labor can result in which of the following? * 0/1

A. Contractions that increase in intensity

B. Early deceleration

C. FHR dropping to 100 beat per minute

D. Pain during contractions

29. In evaluating the effects if oxytocin after delivery, the nurse should monitor *0/1
for:

A. effective breastfeeding.

B. engorged breasts.

C. relief of pain.

D. the uterus remaining firm.

30. During active labor, the mother usually exhibits which of the following *0/1
behaviors?

A. Difficulty following directions

B. Excitedness and talkativeness

C. Frustration and irritability

D. Serious expression and apprehension

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