1. A client with suspected renal insufficiency is
To monitor the
scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic
workup. After the nurse explains the
diagnostic tests, the client asks which part of
the kidney “does the work.” which answer is
correct?
A. The glomerulus
B. Bowman’s capsule
C. The nephron
D. The tubular system
2. A client is admitted with suspicion of
bladder cancer. A nurse assesses the client for
which of the ff earliest manifestations of the
disorder?
A. Hematuria with no pain
B. Painful urination and hematuria
C. Pyuria and palpable abdominal mass
D. Proteinuria and dysuria
3. A 52-year-old female tells the nurse that
she has found a painless lump in her right
breast during her monthly self-examination.
Which assessment finding would strongly
suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
A. Eversion of the right nipple and
mobile mass
B. Nonmobile mass with irregular
edges
C. Mobile mass that is soft and
easily delineated
D. Nonpalpable right axillary
lymph nodes
4. Which laboratory test is the most accurate
indicator of a client’s renal function?
A Blood urea nitrogen
B Creatinine clearance
C Serum creatinine
D Urinalysis
5. A client with acute liver failure exhibits
confusion, declining level of consciousness, and
slowed respirations. The nurse finds him very
difficult to arouse. The diagnostic information
which best explains the client’s behavior is:
A. Elevated liver enzymes and
lower serum protein level
B. Subnormal serum glucose and
elevated serum ammonia
levels
C. Subnormal clotting factors and
platelet count
D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen
and creatinine levels and
hyperglycemia
6. Which of the following factors can cause
hepatitis A?
A. Contact with infected blood
B. Blood transfusions with
infected blood
C. Eating contaminated shellfish
D. Sexual contact with an infected person
7. After a myocardial infarction, a client
develops a complication requiring a continuous
infusion of lidocaine.
effectiveness of this infusion, the nurse should
focus primarily on which of the following?
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Urine output
C. Creatine kinase and troponin
levels
D. Blood pressure and heart rate
8. A nurse is taking the history of a client who
has had benign prostatic hyperplasia. If the
client is currently experiencing difficulty, the
nurse asks the client about the presence of
which of the ff early symptoms
A. Urge incontinence
B. Nocturia
C. Decreased force in the stream
of urine
D. Urinary retention
9. A nurse is preparing to care for a client
receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the ff
would be included in the nursing plan care to
prevent the major complication of peritoneal
dialysis?
A. Monitor the client’s LOC
B. Maintain strict aseptic
technique
C. Add heparin to the dialysate
solution
D. Change the catherter site
dresssing daily
10. A client with acute renal has a serum
potassium (K) level of 5.8mEq/L. A nurse would
plan which of the ff as a priority action
A. Allow an extra 500 ml fluid to
dilute the electrolyte
concentration
B. Encourage increased vegetables
in the diet
C. Place the client on cardiac
monitor
D. Check the sodium level
11. A client comes to the physician’s office
for a complete physical examination required
for employment. The physician assesses the
client’s arms and legs for evidence of peripheral
vascular disease. What is the most commonly
used overall indicator of arm and leg
circulation?
A. Exercise testing
B. Ankle-brachial index
C. Limb blood pressure
D. Allen’s test
12. A client with chronic renal failure is
receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). A nurse is
evaluating thelaboratory results. Which of the ff
results would indicate a therapeutic effect of
the medication?
A. WBC count of 6000/uL
B. Hematocrit of 32%
C. Platelet of count of 400,000
cells/uL
 D. BUN of 15 mg/dL
13. A client with gangrene of the left foot is
scheduled for below-knee amputation. When
planning preoperative care, the nurse should
assign highest priority to which nursing
diagnosis?
A. Impaired nutrition: Less than
body requirements related to
stress
B. Impaired physical mobility
related to effects of surgery
C. Disturbed body image related
to loss of body part
D. Deficient knowledge related to
denial
14. If a client experienced a cerebrovascular
accident (CVA) that damaged the
hypothalamus, the nurse would anticipate that
the client has problems with:
A. Body temperature control
B. Balance and equilibrium
C. Visual acuity
D. Thinking and reasoning
15. A nurse is assessing a child with a
diagnosis of suspected appendicitis. In assessing
the intensity and progression of the pain, the
nurse palpates the child at McBurney’s point.
The nurse knows
that McBurney’s point is located midway
between the:
A. Right anterior inferior iliac crest
and the umbilicus
B. Left anterior superior iliac crest
and the umbilicus
C. Right anterior superior iliac
crest and the umbilicus
D. Left anterior superior iliac crest
and the umbilicus
16. A client with acute pyelonephritis
receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole
(Bactrim) PO twice daily for 10 days . Which
finding best demonstrates that the client has
followed the prescribed regimen?
A. Urine output increased to 2,000
ml/day
B. Flank and abdominal discomfort
decrease
C. Bacteria are absent on urine
culture
D. The red blood cell (RBC) count
is normal
17. A nurse prepares to administer sodium
polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to the
clientBefore administering the medication, the
nurse reviews the action of the medication and
understands that is releases:
A. Bicarbonate in exchange for
primarily sodium ions
B. Sodium ions in exchange for
primarily bicarbonate ions
C. Sodium ions in exchange for
primarily potassium ions
D. Potassium ions in exchange for
primarily sodium ions
18. A client admitted with a gunshot
wound to the abdomen is transferred to the
intensive care unit after an exploratory
laparotomy. Which assessment finding suggests
that the client is experiencing acute renal failure
(ARF)?
A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
level of 22 mg/dl
B. Serum creatinine level of 1.2
mg/dl
C. Temperature of 100.2’F (37.8’C)
D. Urine output of 400 ml/24
hours
19. A client is recovering from surgical
repair of a dissecting aortic aneurysm. The
nurse should evaluate the client for signs of
bleeding or recurring dissection. These signs
include:
A. Hematuria and decreased urine
output
B. Hypotension and tachycardia
C. Increased urine output and
bradycardia
D. Hypotension and bradycardia
20. Which of the ff clients is least likely to
be at risk for the development of third spacing?
A A client with cirrhosis
B A client with diabetes mellitus
C. A client with liver failure
D. A client with renal failure
21. Ringer’s lactate solution IV is
prescribed for a post-op client. The tonicity of
this solution is:
A. Isotonic
B. Normotonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Hypertonic
22. The nurse is caring for a client with
burns on his legs. Which nursing intervention
will help to prevent contractures?
A. Applying knee splints
B. Elevating the foot of the bed
C. Hyperextending the client’s legs
D. Performing shoulder range-of-
motion (ROM) exercises
23. After undergoing a thoracotomy, a
client is receiving epidural analgesia. Which
assessment finding indicates that the client has
developed the most serious complication of
epidural analgesic?
A. Heightened alertness
B. Increased heart rate
C. Numbness and tingling of the
extremities
D. Respiratory depression
24. The nurse is teaching a client who will
be discharged soon how to change a sterile
dressing on the right leg. During the teaching
session, the nurse notices redness, swelling, and
induration at the wound site. What do these
signs suggest?
A. Infection
B. Dehiscence
C. Hemorrhage
D. Evisceration
25. After a traumatic back injury, a client
requires skeletal traction. When caring for this
client, the nurse must:
A. Change the client’s position
only if ordered by the physician
B. Maintain traction continuously
to ensure its effectiveness
C. Support the traction weights
with a chair or table to prevent
accidental slippage
D. Restrict the client’s fluid and
fiber intake to reduce the
movement
26. A nurse reviews the arterial blood
gas results of a client with Guillain-Barre
Syndrome. The pH is 7.35 and the pCO2 is 50
mmHg. The nurse interprets that this client is
experiencing which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
27. A client who suffered a crush
injury to the leg has a highly positive urine
myoglobin level. A nurse assesses this particular
client carefully for signs of:
A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Respiratory failure
D. Myocardial infarction
28. A nurse is working in a support
group for clients with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which
point is most important for the nurse to stress?
A. Avoiding the use of recreational
drugs and alcohol
B. Refraining from telling anyone
about the diagnosis
C. Following safer-sex practices
D. Telling potential sex partners
about the diagnosis, as required
by law
29. A client has been diagnosed with
pernicious anemia. In planning care for the
client, a nurse anticipates that the client will be
treated with:
A. Thiamine
B. Iron
C. Vitamin B12
D. Folic acid
30. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is
being discharged with a prescription for aspirin
600 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should
instruct the client to notify the physician if
which adverse drug reaction occurs?
A. Dysuria
B. Tinnitus
C. Leg cramps
D. Constipation
31. When caring for a client with head
trauma, the nurse notes a small amount of
clear, watery fluid oozing from the client’s nose.
What should the nurse do?
A. Test the nasal drainage for
glucose
B. Look for a halo sign after the
drainage dries
C. Have the client blow the nose
D. Keep the client in a supine
position
32. A nurse instructs a client with diabetes
mellitus about blood glucose monitoring for
signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse informs the
client that hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level
of less than:
A. 120 mg/dL
B. 110 mg/dL
C. 90 mg/dL
D. 60 mg/dL
33. A client with acute pancreatitis is
experiencing severe pain from the disorder. The
nurse determines that the client understood
suggestions for positioning to reduce pain if the
client avoided:
A. Leaning forward
B. Drawing the legs up to the
chest
C. Sitting up
D. Lying flat
34. A client has been diagnosed with gout. In
developing a dietary plan for the client, a nurse
plans to include which item on a list of foods to
be avoided?
A. Cauliflower
B. Chocolate
C. Carrots
D. Chicken
35. A nurse is assessing the motor function
of an unconscious client. The nurse would plan
to use
which of the ff to test the client’s
peripheral response to pain?
A. Sternal rub
B. Pressure on the orbital rim
C. Squeezing of the
sternocleidomastoid
D. Nail bed pressure
36. A client admitted with a neurologic
problem indicates to the nurse that MRI may be
done. The nurse interprets that the client may
be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based
on the client’s history of:
A. Hypertension
B. COPD
 C. Heart failure
D. Prosthetic valve replacement
37. A nurse is assisting with caloric testing of
the oculovestibular reflex of an unconscious
client. Cold water is injected into the left
auditory canal. The client exhibits horizontal
nystagmus. The nurse understands that this
indicates the client has:
A. A cerebral lesion
B. A temporal lesion
C. An intact brainstem
D. Brain death
38. Three days after admission for a
cerebral vascular accident, a client has a
nasogastric tube inserted and is receiving
intermittent feedings. To best evaluate if a prior
feeding has been absorbed the nurse should:
A. Evaluate the intake in relation
to the output
B. Aspirate for residual volume
and reinstill it
C. Instill air into the stomach while
auscultating
D. Compare the client’s body
weight to the baselinedata
39. A nurse is caring for the client with
increased ICP. The nurse would assess which of
the ff trends vital signs if the ICP were rising?
A. ↑ Temp, ↑ Pulse, ↑ RR, ↓ BP
B. ↑ Temp, ↓ Pulse, ↓ RR, ↑ BP
C. ↓ Temp, ↓ Pulse, ↑ RR, ↓ BP
D. ↓ Temp, ↑ Pulse, ↓ RR, ↑ BP
40. Which of the ff types of drug might be
given to control increased ICP?
A. Barbiturates
B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
C. Anticholinergics
D. Histamine receptor blocker
41. A comatose patient was brought to
the emergency room. The nurse checked the
pupils and was noted to be pinpoint. The lesion
might probably be in the:
A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus
42. The nurse assesses the client with
cholecystitis for the development of obstructive
jaundice, which would be evidenced by:
A. Inadequate absorption of fat-
soluble vitamin K
B. Light amber urine, dark brown
stools, yellow skin
C. Dark-colored urine, clay-
colored stools, itchy skin
D. Straw-colored urine, putty-
colored stools, yellow s
43. The type of hepatitis most frequently
transmitted by transfusion is:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
44. A nurse has formulated a nursing
diagnosis of unilateral neglect for a client with
stroke. Which of the ff strategies would not be
used by the nurse in planning to help the client
adapt to this deficit?
A. Move the commode and chair
to the affected side
B. Place the bedside articles on
the affected side
C. Approach the client from the
unaffected side
D. Teach the client to scan the
environment
45. Positive Kernig’s sign:
A. Resistance of the hamstring
muscle
B. Extension of the thigh muscle
C. Flexion of the leg muscle
D. Pain on the calf muscle
46. Most useful drug in Trigeminal
neuralgia:
A. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
D. Baclofen (Lioresal)
47. The client has just been admitted to
the hospital with a fractured femur and pelvic
fractures. The nurse plans to monitor the client
carefully for which of the following signs and
symptoms?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension
B. Bradycardia, hypertension
C. Fever, bradycardia
D. Fever, hypertension
48. The nurse is providing instructions
to a client with osteoporosis regarding
appropriate food items to include in the diet.
The nurse tells the client that which food item
provides the least amount of calcium?
A. Plain yogurt
B. Seafood
C. Sardines
D. Pork
49. The underlying basis for the manifestations
of symptoms in Parkinson’s disease
A. Decreased dopamine in the cerebral cortex
B. Decreased dopamine in the basal ganglia
C. Increased dopamine in the cerebral cortex
D. Increased dopamine in the basal ganglia
50. After a car accident, a patient
fractured her pelvis. For 24-48 hours after the
accident, the nurse monitor the client closely
for which potential complication of fractured
pelvis?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Fat embolism
C. Infection
D. Volkmann’s contractures
 51. A client has multiple joints swelling
affected in symmetric pattern. This client may
be suffering from what type of arthritis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Reactive arthritis
52. The classic ECG changes that occur
with Myocardial Infarction include all of the ff
except:
A. Absent P wave
B. Abnormal Q wave
C. T-wave inversion
D. ST-segment elevation
53. Myocardial cell damage can be
reflected by high levels of cardiac
enzymes. The most specific index of all
cardiac enzymes is:
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Creatine kinase (CK-MB)
C. Myoglobin
D. Troponin
54. A client with liver and renal failure
has severe ascites. On initial rounds, his
primary nurse finds his indwelling
catheter collection bag too full to store
more urine. The nurse empties more
than 2,000 ml from the collection bag.
One hour later, she finds the collection
bag full again. The nurse notifies the
physician, who suspects that a bladder
rupture is allowing the drainage of
peritoneal fluid. The physician orders a
urinalysis to be obtained immediately. If
the physician’s suspicion is correct, the
urine will abnormally contain:
A. Creatinine
B. Urobilinogen
C. Chloride
D. Albumin
55. Extremity paresthesia,
dysrhythmias (peaked T waves), and mental
confusion after
cardiac surgery are signs of electrolyte
imbalance related to the level of:
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
56. The primary cause of heart failure (HF) is:
A. Arterial hypertension
B. Coronary atherosclerosis
C. Myocardial dysfunction
D. Valvular dysfunction
57. The diagnosis of heart failure is
usually confirmed by:
A. Chest x-ray
B. Echocardiogram
C. Electrocardiogram
D. Ventriculogram
58. The drug of choice during cardiopulmonary
resuscitation to suppress ventricular
dysrhythmias:
A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
C. Lidocaine
D. Morphine
59. A varicose vein is caused by:
A. Phlebothrombosis
B. Incompetent venous valve
C. Venospasm
D. Venous occlusion
60. A client with Myasthenia Gravis
has nursing diagnosis of Risk for Ineffective
Airway Clearance. The nurse would keep which
of the ff available at the client’s bedside?
A. Spirometer and cough pilow
B. Oxygen and metered dose
inhaler
C. Pulse oximeter and a
cardiac monitor
D. Ambu bag and suction
equipment
61. A client has experienced an
episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would
assess whether the client has precipitating
factors such as:
A. Too little exercise
B. Increased intake of fatty foods
C. Omitted doses of medications
D. Excess medication
62. A client is admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre
syndrome. The nurse inquires during the
nursing admission interview whether the client
has a history of:
A. Back injury or trauma to the
spinal cord
B. Seizures or trauma to the brain
C. Respiratory of gastrointestinal
infection during the previous month
D. Meningitis during the last 5
years
63. A nurse is admitting a client with
Guillain-Barre syndrome to the nursing unit.
The client has an ascending paralysis to the
level of the waist. Knowing the complications of
the disorder, the nurse brings which of the ff
items into the client’s room?
A. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter
B. Flashlight and incentive
spirometer
C. ECG monitoring electrodes and
intubation tray
D. Blood pressure cuff
64. An emergency nurse is assesing a
client who sustained a blunt injury to the chest
wall. Which of these signs would indicate the
presence of pneumothorax?
A. A sucking sound at the site of
injury
 B. Diminished breath sounds
C. A low respiratory rate
D. The presence of barrel chest
65. A nurse tells a group of students that the
first symptom associated with TB is?
A. Bloody, productive cough
B. A morning cough with
expectoration of mucoid
sputum
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea
66. A nurse is teaching a client with PTB
about dietary elements that should be
increased in the diet. The nurse suggests that
the client increase intake of :
A. Meats and citrus fruits
B. Grains and broccoli
C. Eggs and spinach
D. Potatoes and fish
67. A nurse is preparing to give a bed
bath to an immobilized client with PTB. The
nurse should plan to wear which of the ff items
when performing care?
A. Particulate respirator, gown
and gloves
B. Particulate respirator,
protective eyewear
C. Surgical gloves and mask
D. Surgical mask, gown, and
protective eyewear
68. A nurse is doing an admission
assessment on a client with a history of
duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the
problem is currently active, the nurse would
assess the client for which of the ff most
frequent symptoms of duodenal ulcer?
A. Pain that is relieved by food
intake
B. Pain that radiates down the
arm
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Weight loss
69. A client with cirrhosis is beginning to show
signs of hepatic encephalopathy. A nurse would
plan a dietary consult to limit the amount of
which of the ff ingredients in the client’s diet?
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Minerals
70. The nurse expects that the diuretic
of choice for a patient with ascites in cirrhosis
would
A. Aldactone
B. Ammonium chloride
C. Diamox
D. Lasix
71. Bleeding esophageal varices from
cirrhosis result in a decrease in:
A. Nitrogen load from bleeding
B. Renal perfusion
C. Serum ammonia
D. All of the above
72. The most common single cause of
death in patents with cirrhosis is:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Hepatic encephalopathy
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Ruptured esophageal varices
73. The lowest fasting plasma glucose
level suggestive of a diagnosis of diabetes is:
A. 90 mg/dL
B. 115 mg/dL
C. 125 mg/dL
D. 180 mg/dL
74. Laboratory findings consistent
with acute glomerulonephritis include all of the
ff except:
A. Hematuria
B. Polyuria
C. Proteinuria
D. White cell casts
75. The major manifestation of
nephrotic syndrome is:
A. Hematuria
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Edema
D. Anemia
76. A clinical diagnosis of nephrotic
syndrome is consistent with exceedingly high
levels of:
A. Albumins
B. Low-density lipoproteins
C. Protein in the urine
D. Serum cholesterol
77. A sign of possible urinary tract infection is:
A. A negative urine culture
B. An output of 200 mL to
900 mL with each voiding
C. Cloudy urine
D. Urine with a specific gravity of 1.005 to
1.022
78. A first line antibacterial agent for
UTI that has been found to be significantly
effective?
A. Bactrim
B. Ciprobay
C. Macrodantin
D. Lexinor
79. A majority of randomized studies
have indicated that daily consumption of what
kind of juice decreases the incidence of UTI?
A. Apple
B. Cranberry
C. Grapefruit
D. Orange
80. A major clinical manifestation of
renal stones is:
A. Dysuria
B. Hematuria
C. Infection
D. Pain
81. The nurse knows that a patient who is
present with the symptom of “blanching of
fingers on exposure to cold” would be assessed
for the rheumatic disease known as:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Raynaud’s phenomenon
C. Reiter’s syndrome
D. Sjogren’s syndrome
82. Most patients with hemorrhagic stroke are
placed in bed in which position?
A. High fowler’s
B. Low fowler’s
C. Supine
D. Semi-fowler’s
83. Signs and symptoms of Osteomyelitis may
include all of the ff except:
A. Pain, erythema and fever
B. Leukopenia, swelling and
purulent discharge
C. Elevated ESR and increased
WBC
D. Positive wound cultures and
localized discomfort
84. A client is brought to the
emergency department with second-
and third-degree burns on the left arm,
left anterior leg, and anterior trunk.
Using the Rule of Nines, what is the
total body surface area that has been
burned?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 30%
D. 36%
85. The major indicator of lower extremity
amputation is
A. Congenital anomaly
B. Malignant tumor
C. Peripheral vascular
disease
D. Trauma
86. The nurse is providing care to a client who
sustained burns over 30% of the body from a
fire that occurred in the basement of the
client’s home. On assessment the nurse notes
that the client is edematous in burned and
unburned body areas. The nurse documents the
findings, knowing that this assessment finding is
expected because the edema is caused by:
A. A decrease in capillary
permeability and
hypoproteinemia
B. An increase in capillary
permeability and
hypoproteinemia
C. An increase in capillary
permeability and
hyperproteinemia
D. A decrease in capillary
permeability and hyperproteinemia
87. A nurse is instructing a group of
female clients about breast self-examination
(BSE). The nurse would instruct the clients to
perform the exam:
A. At the onset of
menstruation
B. One week after
menstruation begins
C. Every month during
ovulation
D. Weekly at the same time
of day
88. A nurse is caring for a client
with cancer. The client is complaining of
acute pain. The most appropriate
nursing assessment of the client’s pain
would include which of the ff:
A. The client’s pain rating
B. The nurse’s impression of
the client’s pain
C. Non-verbal cues
D. Pain relief after appropriate
nursing intervention
89. A nurse is analyzing the laboratory results
of a client with leukemia who received a
regimen of chemotherapy. Which of the ff
laboratory values would the nurse specifically
note as a result of the massive cell destruction
that occured from chemotherapy?
A. Anemia
B. Decreased platelets
C. Decreased leukocyte count
D. Increased uric acid level
90. The physician orders tests to
determine if a client has systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE). Which test result
confirms SLE?
A. Increased total serum
complement levels
B. Negative antinuclear
antibody
C. Negative lupus
erythematosus cell test
D. An above-normal anti-
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
test
91. A nurse is teaching a client who
suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The
nurse
Instructs that a diagnosis of breast
cancer is confirmed by:
A. Breast self-examination
B. Mammography
C. Fine needle aspiration
D. Chest X-ray
92. A 20 years old male client was
diagnosed to have leukemia. Peripheral blood
smear
Would reveal predominance of what
type of blast cell?
A. Granulocytes
 B. Myeloblasts A. Decreased GABA and acetylcholine
C. Lymphocytes B. Increased GABA and acetylcholine
D. Lymphoblasts C. Decreased dopamine and increased
93. The nurse is assessing a client after a acetylcholine
thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle D. Increased dopamine and decreased
twitching and tingling, along with numbness in acetylcholine
the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse 100. What is the primary purpose of
should suspect which complication: giving lactulose to patients with hepatic
A. Tetany encephalopathy?
B. Hemorrhage A. resolve constipation
C. Hypokalemia B. remove ammonia
D. Laryngeal nerve damage C. maintain intestinal tone
94. Which of the ff conditions is the D. remove potassium
most significant risk factor for the development
of Type 2
DM?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. High-cholesterol diet
C. Obesity
D. Hypertension
95. Assessment of the diabetic client
for common complications should always
include examination of the:
A. Abdomen
B. Lymph glands
C. Pharynx
D. Eyes
96. 6. Spinal cord injury can be
classified according to the area of spinal cord
damage. Motor deficits in the upper rather than
the lower extremities, usually caused by edema
in the cervical area, is classified as:
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Brown-Sequard syndrome
D. Peripheral syndrome
97. Lumbar puncture was done and the CSF
revealed bacterial meningitis. This information
reveals depletion of which of the following
elements:
A. WBC
B. Proteins
C. Glucose
D. Fats
98. A client with Parkinson’s disease
is embarassed about the symptoms of the
disorder and is bored and lonely. The nurse
would plan which of the following approaches
as most therapeutic in assisting the client to
cope with the disease
A. Plan only a few activities for
the client during the day
B. Assist the client with
activities of daily living
C. Encourage and praise
perseverance in exercising and performing
ADLs
D. Cluster activities at the end
of the day when the client is most bored
99. Pathophysiologic finding in
Huntington’s disease: