Aakash Practice Test - 01 (RM) Solutions

10/29/23, 11:33 PM Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor
Answer keys : AIATS for Repeater Medical-2024(XII Passed)_Practice Test-01
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Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only one is correct.
Question : 1 skipped
If A, B and C are physical quantities such that A and B have same dimensions while C has different dimensions, then choose the meaningful expression.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Principle of Homogeneity
Sol.: If A and B have same dimensions then they can be either added or subtracted while C can be either divided or multiplied with them.
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Phy-Section A
A quantity ‘x’ is given as . If percentage error in measurements of α, β, ρ and , are , 2% and respectively, then
maximum percentage error in ‘x’ is
Options:
1.5%
2.5%
3.5%
4%
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: % error in x = 2 (% error in α) + 3(% error in β) + (% error in ρ) + (% error in )
Sol.: % error in x =
=1+1+1+
= 3.5%
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Phy-Section A
Power of a force varies with displacement x and time t as , where a and b are dimensional constants, the dimensional formula of [ab] is
Options:
[ML0T–1]
[ML2T–3]
[ML0T–3]
[ML0T–2]
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
and [b] = [Time] = [T]

Sol.: [ax2] = [Pt]
[ab] = [ML0T–1]
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Phy-Section A
A particle moving on a straight line has initial velocity 2.03 m/s accelerating uniformly with 1.0 m/s2 after 0.3 s will have a velocity (in m/s) of (upto correct
significant figures)
Options:
2.3
2.0
2.06
2.1
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: v = u + at
Sol.: v = 2.03 + (1.0)(0.3)
v = 2.03 + 0.3
v = 2.33 ≈ 2.3
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Phy-Section A
If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, then which of the following vernier scales gives vernier constant equal to 0.05 mm?
Options:
9 mm divided into 10 divisions
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: LC (Least count) = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
Sol.: 0.05 mm = 1 mm – 1 VSD
∴ 1VSD = (1 – 0.05) mm
1VSD = 0.95 mm = mm
∴ 19 mm should be divided into 20 divisions
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Phy-Section A
If dimensional formula of a physical quantity is [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity can be
Options:
Torque if a = 1, b = 2 and c = –1
Surface tension if a = 1, b = 1, and c = –2
Impulse if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –1
Acceleration if a = 1, b = 0, c = –2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Dimensional formula of these physical quantities are
Torque = [ML2T–2]
Surface Tension = [ML0T–2]
Impluse = [MLT–1]
Acceleration = [M0LT–2]
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Phy-Section A
A particle starts from rest, moves with constant acceleration for 10 s. If it covers s1 distance in first 5 s then distance s2 in next 5 s, then the correct
relation between s1 and s2 is
Options:
s1 = 3s2
s2 = 3s1
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Use equations of uniformly accelerated motion.
Sol.: distance covered in 10 s =
⇒ Distance covered in next 5 s, s2
⇒ s2 = 3 s1
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Phy-Section A
Number of significant figures in 0.004900 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Zeroes on either side of decimal are non-significant if the number is less than 1 while zeroes at the end (after non zero digit) are always
significant.
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Phy-Section A
If velocity (V), mass (M) and time (T) are taken as fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula of Young’s Modulus is (Young’s modulus has same
dimensions as pressure)
Options:
[MV2T–3]
[MVT–2]
[MV–1T–3]
[MV–2T–3]
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Young’s Modulus Y = and length = [VT]
Sol.:
[Y] = [MV–1T–3]
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Phy-Section A
Choose the correct statement.
Options:
Dimensionless quantities can have a unit
A dimensionally correct equation must be correct
Change in system of unit will surely change the numerical value of physical quantity
Dimension of a physical quantity can never be a fraction
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Quantities like plane angle and solid angle are dimensionless but still have units.
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Phy-Section A
Time period of a simple pendulum is recorded in three experiments as 1.9, 2.0 and 2.1, then
Options:
Mean absolute error is 0.01
Relative error is 0.03
Relative error is 0.5
Percentage error is 0.05
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: True value = mean of all observations
Mean absolute error = mean of all absolute errors
Percentage error =
Sol.:
Relative error,
% error = 0.03 × 100 = 3%
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Phy-Section A
A ball is thrown at angle θ and another ball is thrown at an angle (90°–θ) with horizontal direction from the same point each with speed 30 m/s. The ratio
of maximum height attained by them will be.
Options:
tan2θ
sin2θ
cos2θ
sec2θ
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Maximum height is given by relation, Hmax .
Sol.: and = tan2θ
⇒ 12 = (10 + x) × 1 ⇒ x = 2 m/s2
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Phy-Section A
A stone dropped from the top of a tower is found to travel 7/16 of the height of tower during the last second of its fall. The total time of fall is
Options:
2s
3s
4s
5s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Use gallileo’s ratio
Sol.: In the last second, the distance travelled is where h is height of tower.
In first second = h/16

In 2nd second = 3h/16
In 3rd second = 5h/16
In 4th second = 7h/16
⇒ time of fall = 4 s
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Phy-Section A
The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving in straight line is shown. If initial velocity of the particle is 6 m/s, then velocity at the end of 4 second will
be
Options:
20 m/s
46 m/s
26 m/s
40 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Area under a – t graph gives change in velocity.
Sol.:
From the graph,

Area = Change in velocity
vf = 20 + 6 = 26 m/s
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Phy-Section A
A particle is moving along x-axis such that its position (x) varies with time (t) as x = tsint. The average acceleration of the particle from t = 0 s to s
is
Options:
m/s2
m/s2
m/s2
m/s2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: and
Sol.:
v(t = 0) = 0 m/s
m/s
∴<a>= m/s2
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Phy-Section A
A particle starts from rest and moves at an acceleration of 4 m/s2 for 10 second and then decelerates uniformly for another 5 second to come to rest.
Distance covered by particle in this journey is
Options:
300 m
600 m
400 m
900 m
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: A v – t graph representing the situation has its area equal to distance covered in this case.
Sol.:
Here vmax = at = 4(10) = 40 m/s

Distance covered S = Area under v – t graph
S = 300 m
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Phy-Section A
A police jeep chasing a thief’s car which is moving at 40 m/s on a straight track. If separation between the jeep and car is 400 m, then minimum speed
(assuming uniform) of jeep required to catch the car in 20 s is
Options:
40 m/s
60 m/s
80 m/s
120 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: vrel = vjeep – vcar
Sol.:
v – 40 = 20 ⇒ v = 60 m/s
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Phy-Section A
The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. If initial velocity of particle is 5 m/s, then velocity at the
end of 7 second is
Options:
5 m/s
6 m/s
8 m/s
10 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Area of a – t graph gives change in velocity
Sol.: vf – vi = 2 – 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 – 1
vf – 5 = 3
∴ vf = 8 m/s
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Phy-Section A
A vehicle covers one fourth of total distance with speed v1 and remaining part with speed v2 then its average speed is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Average speed, vav =
Sol.:
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Phy-Section A
A lift starts moving up with an acceleration of 2 m/s2. After one second a bolt drops from the ceiling. The time after which it will strike the floor of 1.2 m
high lift is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
second
second
5 second
second
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Acceleration of bolt w.r.t lift,
aBL = 10 – (–2) = 12 m/s2
Sol.: We know,
[ urel = 0]
second
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Phy-Section A
Velocity of an insect crawling on a surface rectilinearly varies as v = 3t2 – 2. The equation that holds good for analysing its motion is (symbols have usual
meaning)
Options:
Displacement
Displacement
Displacement
All of these
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Here, a = 6t
Sol.: Since a = 6t is variable

∴
(2) and (3) will not be applicable for analysing motion of given particle while always holds good.
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Phy-Section A
Slope of a position-time graph determines
Options:
Displacement
Instantaneous velocity
Change in velocity
Acceleration
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Slope of x – t graph is which gives rate of change of position i.e., velocity at an instant.
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Phy-Section A
If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal intervals of time, then its velocity vector
Options:
Remains constant
Changes in magnitude only
Changes in direction only
Changes in both magnitude and direction
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: If a particle describes equal angles in equal intervals of time along a circular path then its angular speed is constant and thus its velocity keeps
changing only in terms of direction while magnitude of velocity remains same.
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Phy-Section A
A particle moving along North is subjected to a constant force resulting in an acceleration along North-east. The trajectory of the particle
Options:
May be straight line
Must be parabolic
Must be circular
Must be straight line
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: When angle between initial velocity and acceleration is other than 0°, 90°, 180° then trajectory of the particle is parabolic.
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Phy-Section A
Position of a particle varies with time (t) as . The acceleration of the particle is proportional to
Options:
t2/3
t–2/3
t5/2
t–5/2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: and
Sol.: ∴
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Phy-Section A
A ball is dropped from a high tower at t = 0. After 10 s another ball is thrown in downwards direction from the same point with speed ‘v’. If these two balls
meet at t = 15 s, then the value of ‘v’ is
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
Options:
50 m/s
100 m/s
200 m/s
225 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Displacement covered by both balls will be equal.
Sol.:
225 = v + 25
v = 200 m/s
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Phy-Section A
A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with velocity m/s in xy plane with constant acceleration of m/s2. Position coordinates of the
particle (in m) when velocity becomes parallel to x-axis is
Options:
(9, 9)
(3, 9)
(6, 9)
(6, 0)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: If velocity is parallel to x axis then vy = 0
Sol.: ⇒
for vy = 0, 6 – 2t = 0
∴ t = 3 seconds
Thus m
and, m
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Phy-Section A
Speed of a particle at the point of projection is times the speed at its maximum height. The angle of projection of projectile is
Options:
30°
45°
60°
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Speed at maximum height is ucosθ [u = initial speed]
Sol.: Here,
θ = 45°
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Phy-Section A
The angle of projection of a projectile for which range is double the maximum height, will be
Options:
θ = tan–1(2)
θ = tan–1(4)
θ = 45°
θ = tan–1(1/2)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: R = 2H or,
Sol.: Here, 2cosθ = sinθ

∴ tanθ = 2
or θ = tan–1 (2)
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Phy-Section A
Bullets from a gun fixed on ground at a point O have speed v directed at 45° from horizontal (as shown). The speed v such that it can just graze the top
of a 2.4 m wall at a distance of 4 m from gun will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
Options:
10 m/s
m/s
m/s
100 m/s
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Use equation of trajectory
Sol.: Substituting values x = 4 m, y = 2.4 m, θ = 45°
We get,
v2 = 100 ⇒ v = 10 m/s
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Phy-Section A
A stone is projected at an angle of 45° above the horizontal with speed m/s from the top of a building of height 200 m. Taking the point of
projection as origin, the position of particle after 3 s of projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: and
Sol.: = 30 m
y = –15 m
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Phy-Section A
Position vector of a particle moving in x-y plane is given by . The equation of trajectory of the particle is
Options:
y = 3x – 6x2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Using position vector, separate ‘x’ and ‘y’ components and merge them by substituting value of ‘t’.
Sol.: Here, x = 2t and y = 3t – 6t2
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Phy-Section A
Which of the following set of magnitude of vectors cannot give zero resultant?
Options:
1, 2, 3
25, 5, 15
10, 5, 8
15, 8, 20
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: To necessarily have resultant zero, the sum of magnitude of two vectors should be greater than and difference should be less than the third vector.
Sol.: In combination, 25, 5 and 15
Here, 15 + 5 < 25
∴ It will not have resultant zero.
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Phy-Section A
In a uniform circular motion
Options:
Velocity is uniform
Speed is uniform
Acceleration is zero
Both (1) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: & Sol.: In uniform circular motion, speed remains constant while velocity keeps changing at every instant due to change in direction causing a
centripetal acceleration.
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Phy-Section A
A particle moves in a circular path of radius 4 m with a uniform speed of 6 m/s. Its acceleration is
Options:
18 m/s2
9 m/s2
36 m/s2
m/s2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Centripetal acceleration
Sol.: = 9 m/s2
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Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions
A swimmer crosses a river of width 500 m flowing at 4 km/h in minimum time. If his velocity in still water is 5 km/h then displacement along the river
covered by him when he reaches opposite bank is
Options:
500 m
400 m
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.: Here,
Displacement along the river

Drift = vr × t
= 400 m
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Phy-Section B
Position of a particle is varying with time as where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants. The time after which acceleration becomes normal
to the velocity is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: When then
Sol.: Here
Now,
∴ 4a2(t – 1) + 4b2t = 0
(a2 + b2)t = a2
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Phy-Section B
A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as the units of mass, length and time respectively. The value of 10 N in this system will be
Options:
1000 units
1 unit
10 units
100 units
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: 1 N = 1 kg m/s2 and x = n1u1 = n2u2
Sol.: 10 N = n2 units
= n2
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Phy-Section B
A car moving along a straight line with speed 72 km/h is brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If retardation is uniform, then time taken (in s) to
stop this car will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Retardation a =
Sol.: = 20 m/s
= 10 m/s2
Time taken in stopping
⇒ = 2 seconds
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Phy-Section B
A particle is moving on a circular track of radius 2 m. Its speed varies as v = αt2 where α is a constant. The ratio of radial and tangential acceleration of
particle at t = 2 s is
Options:
2α
8α
4α
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Radial acceleration
Tangential acceleration
Sol.:
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Phy-Section B
For a projectile thrown according to the situation given below; maximum height acquired by the projectile will be
Options:
13.5 m
15.5 m
18 m
9m
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Use equation of trajectory
Sol.: Substituting the values in aforementioned equation we get
⇒ R = 54 m
R tanθ = 4H
At θ = 45°
54(1) = 4(H)
∴H= = 13.5 m
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Phy-Section B
Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct value of should be reported as
Options:
1.4 m ± 0.2 m
1.4 m ± 0.1 m
1.41 m ± 0.15 m
1.4 m ± 0.4 m
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: If then
Sol.: Here = 1.414 m

or y = 1.4 m (rounding off to two significant digits)
Now,
(rounding off to 1 decimal place)

∴ y = (1.4 ± 0.2) m
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Phy-Section B
Linear mass density has dimensional formula as
Options:
[M0L0T0]
[M0LT0]
[M0L–1T0]
[ML–1T0]
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Linear mass density
Hence, [λ] = [ML–1T0]
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Phy-Section B
A particle starts from rest on a circle of radius m with uniformly increasing speed. If it completes 5 revolutions in 5 seconds, then its tangential
acceleration is
Options:
5 m/s2
10 m/s2
15 m/s2
20 m/s2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For a body starting from rest and moving with constant acceleration
Sol.: = 250 m
Now,
at = 20 m/s2
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Phy-Section B
A bullet is fired horizontally aiming at an object which starts falling at the instant when the bullet is fired (as shown). Position ‘A’ is taken as origin and
speed of bullet is 10 m/s. If the bullet hits the object after 1 second, then coordinates of the point where it hits the object will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
Options:
(0, 10) m
(10, – 5) m
(10, –10) m
(5, –5) m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: At the time of collision both bullet and target will have same co-ordinate.
Sol.: For bullet and object the displacement along y-axis is same.
∴ For Bullet: = 10 m
For Object :
∴ Coordinate = (10, –5) m
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Phy-Section B
With regards to significant figures 4.000 × 103 m can be written as
Options:
4000.0 m
4 km
4 × 103 m
4.000 km
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: 4.000 × 103 m has 4 significant figures and thus it should always retain them in any system of unit.
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Phy-Section B
Angular speed of a particle varies with time (in s) as ω = 4t2 (rad/s). If the particle moves on a circular path of radius 1 m, then its tangential acceleration
after 1 second will be
Options:
8 m/s2
16 m/s2
24 m/s2
m/s2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: at = rα and
Sol.: Tangential Acceleration
= 8 m/s2
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Phy-Section B
A particle moving along a straight line such that its velocity varies as v = 4t + 2. Distance covered by this particle in 6th second is [where v is in m/s and t
is in s]
Options:
18 m
24 m
20 m
22 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Use
Sol.: Here u = 2 m/s and a = 4 m/s2
Now,
= 24 m
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Phy-Section B
Two particles are projected at speed 3 m/s and 6 m/s horizontally in the same direction from the top of a tower. If both of them strike the ground at points
12 m apart, then the height of tower will be
[Use g = 10 m/s2]
Options:
20 m
40 m
60 m
80 m
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Time of flight for both particles will be same.
Sol.: Let time of flight be ‘T’.
Now, 12 = 6T – 3T
T = 4 sec
Also, ⇒
∴H= = 80 m
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Phy-Section B
SI unit of luminous intensity is
Options:
lux
watt/m2
joule
candela
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: SI unit of luminous intensity is candela (cd).
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Chem-Section A
Volume of 0.02 M solution that contains 0.1 mol solute is
Options:
1L
4L
0.5 mL
5L
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For any solution
number of mole(n) = Molarity × volume of solution (L)
Sol.: n = M × V(L)
0.1 = 0.02 × V
V=5L
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Chem-Section A
Mass of 80% pure CaCO3 required to produce 22.4 L CO2 at STP will be
Options:
100 g
125 g
150 g
110 g
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
According to given balanced reaction, 1 mole CaCO3 will give 1 mol CO2(g).
Sol.: 22.4 L CO2 at STP will be obtained from 100 g pure CaCO3
Mass of sample =
= 125 g
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Chem-Section A
Number of atoms in 16 g ozone is
Options:
NA
2NA
3NA
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Number of atoms = Mole of molecule × NA × atomicity
Sol.: Mole of ozone =
Number of atoms =
= NA
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Chem-Section A
Volume of 1 mol H2O at NTP will be (density of water = 1 g mL–1)
Options:
22.4 L
24.7 L
18 mL
22.4 mL
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: H2O will be liquid at NTP.
Sol.: Density of water is 1 g/ml
mass of 1 mol H2O = 18 g
hence volume of 1 mol H2O at NTP = 18 mL
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Chem-Section A
Molecular formula of hydrocarbon that contains 80% carbon by mass is
Options:
C2 H6
C2 H4
CH4
C6 H6
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
Sol.: In C2H6
%C=
= 80%
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Chem-Section A
An organic compound contains 0.1% Fe by mass, minimum molecular mass of compound will be (molar mass of Fe = 56 g mol–1)
Options:
56000 amu
560 amu
28000 amu
280 amu
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: To find out minimum molar mass, atomicity of Fe in organic compound will be considered 1.
Sol.:
M = 56000 amu
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Chem-Section A
Which among the following will have maximum number of atoms?
Options:
1 g H2 O
1 g He
1 g O2
1 g H2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Number of atoms = mole × NA × atomicity
Sol.: Number of atoms in 1 g H2O =
Number of atoms in 1 g He =
Number of atoms in 1 g O2 =
Number of atoms in 1 g H2 =
= NA
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Chem-Section A
A mixture of He and SO2 is 1 : 16 by mass. What is the molar ratio of two gases in mixture?
Options:
2:5
1:4
1:8
1:1
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For given m gram substance
number of mole(n) =
M ⇒ molar mass of substance

w ⇒ mass of substance
Sol.:
=1:1
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Chem-Section A
1 g Ca is burnt with 1 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (Given; atomic weight: Ca = 40; O = 16)
Options:
0.4 g Ca
0.2 g O2
0.6 g O2
0.2 g Ca
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: In a chemical reaction limiting reagent gets completely consumed and decides the extent of reaction.
Ca is limiting reagent
2 mol Ca reacts with → 1 mol O2
mol Ca reacts with = mol O2
= 0.4 g O2
0.6 g O2 will be left
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Chem-Section A
If mass percentage of glucose in aqueous solution is 18% then molality of glucose in the solution will be
Options:
3.5 m
1.2 m
0.5 m
4.1 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Molality =
Sol.: Mass of glucose = 18 g

Mass of H2O = 100 – 18 = 82
Molality =
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Chem-Section A
If 2 mol A and 3 mol B are mixed then mole fraction of B will be
Options:
0.4
0.6
0.2
0.8
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Mole fraction
Sol.: Mole fraction of
Mole fraction of
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Chem-Section A
Mole of oxygen atom present in 31 mg calcium phosphate is
Options:
0.1
0.8
10–4
8 × 10–4
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: 1 mol calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 contains 8 mol oxygen atoms.
Sol.: Mole of
10–4 mol Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 8 × 10–4 mol oxygen atom.
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Chem-Section A
The amount of zinc required to produce 56 mL of H2 at STP on treatment with dilute HCl will be (molar mass of Zn = 65 g mol–1)
Options:
0.162 g
16.2 g
162 g
1.62 g
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Sol.: 22400 mL H2 is produced from 1 mole Zn
56 mL H2 = mol H2
= H2
Mass of Zn required =
= 0.162 g
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Chem-Section A
An element Y has following isotopic composition, 100Y : 80%, 98Y : 15%, 101Y : 5%. The weighted average atomic mass of naturally occurring element
Y is
Options:
100.25
99.75
98.27
100
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Average atomic mass =
Ai = mass number of isotope

Xi = percentage abundance
Sol.: Avg. atomic mass
= 99.75
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Chem-Section A
Empirical formula of an organic compound containing 40% C, 46.66% N and 13.34% H will be
Options:
CH4N
CH5N
C2 H5 N2
C3 H4 N2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Empirical formula is simplest ratio of number of atoms in one molecule of compound.
Sol.:
C N H
Mass 40 46.66 13.34
Mole of atoms
3.33 3.33 13.34

Simplest atomic ratio 1 1 4
Empirical formula = CH4N
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Chem-Section A
Correct statement regarding photoelectric effect is
Options:
Energy of emitted electron depends on intensity of incident photon
If photoelectron is getting emitted by blue light then same metal will show photoelectric effect with violet light too
Number of photoelectron emitted depends on frequency of light
Work function of sodium is greater than lithium
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Emission of photoelectrons depends on frequency of incident light.
Sol.: Since violet has more frequency than blue, if a metal shows photoelectric effect with blue light then violet will also cause photoelectric effect.
Work function of Li is greater than Na.
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Chem-Section A
The d-orbital whose lobes are oriented towards axis is
Options:
dxy
dyz
dz2
dxz
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Axial orbitals has electron density along the axis.
Sol.: dz2 and are axial orbital while dxy, dyz, dzx are non-axial d-orbitals.
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Chem-Section A
Ratio of radius of 2nd Bohr orbit of Li2+ to radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of Be3+ is
Options:
16 : 27
4:9
8:3
9 : 16
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Radius of Bohr orbit =
Sol.:
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Chem-Section A
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(orbital) (Number of angular node)
(a) 3d (i) 0
(b) 4p (ii) 2
(c) 5f (iii) 1
(d) 2s (iv) 3
Choose the correct option.
Options:
(a)(iv), (b)(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)
(a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
(a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For any orbital, number of angular node is equal to azimuthal quantum number (l).
Sol.:
Orbital Number of angular node
3d 2
4p 1
5f 3
2s 0
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Chem-Section A
An electron absorbs photon of λ wavelength and emits two photons of wavelength 300 nm and 500 nm, wavelength λ is
Options:
750 nm
187.5 nm
375 nm
400 nm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Energy of photon with wavelength λ is
h = Planck’s constant
c = speed of light
Sol.: Absorbed energy = emitted energy
= 187.5 nm
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Chem-Section A
Number of proton, electron and neutron in , respectively are
Options:
104, 104, 157
157, 104, 104
104, 157, 104
104, 104, 104
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Number of proton is equal to atomic number of element
Sol.: number of proton = Z = 104
Number of electron = 104
Number of neutron = A – Z
= 261 – 104 = 157
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Chem-Section A
A radio station broadcasts on a frequency of 6000 kHz. The wave number of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by transmitter is,
Options:
2 m–1
2 × 10–5 m–1
0.02 m–1
0.2 m–1
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Wave number
Wavelength
Sol.:
= 0.02 m–1
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Chem-Section A
The de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 2nd excited state of H-atom is
Options:
52.9 π pm
317.4 π pm
105.8 π pm
157.7 π pm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For any electron in Bohr orbit
2πr = nλ
r ⇒ Bohr radius
λ ⇒ de Broglie wavelength
Sol.: 2π(r3) = 3λ
2π × 52.9 × 32 = 3λ
λ = 317.4 π pm
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Chem-Section A
Which among the following elements will have maximum energy for 2s orbital?
Options:
Na
Li
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Energy of 2s orbital will increase with decrease in atomic number.
Sol.: Energy of 2s orbital will follow following order
H > Li > Na > K
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Chem-Section A
Which of the following series of transition in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in ultraviolet region?
Options:
Balmer series
Brackett series
Lyman series
Paschen series
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Balmer series ⇒ visible region
Sol.: Lyman series ⇒ U.V. region
Paschen series ⇒ I.R. region
Brackett series ⇒ I.R. region
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Chem-Section A
Which among the following is not according to Hund’s rule?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Hund’s rule states that pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the same subshell (p, d or f) does not take place until each orbital
belonging to that subshell has got one electron each i.e., it is singly occupied.
Hence is not according to Hund’s rule.
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Chem-Section A
If uncertainty of position and velocity are equal for an electron then uncertainty in momentum of electron will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.: if Δx = Δv
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Chem-Section A
Number of electron(s) in a 3d orbital of Cr atom is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: An orbital can accommodate maximum two electrons.
Sol.: Configuration of Cr ⇒ [Ar] 3d5 4s1; Hence, each 3d orbital contains one electron.
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Chem-Section A
Three-dimensional shape of orbital is defined by
Options:
Principal quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Spin quantum number
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Principal quantum number defines size and energy of Bohr’s orbit.
Sol.: 3-D shape of orbital is defined by Azimuthal quantum number.
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Chem-Section A
The orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘p’ orbital is equal to
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For ‘p’ orbital ℓ = 1
Sol.: Angular momentum =
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Chem-Section A
Maximum number of orbital(s) that can be identified by (n = 4, l = 2) are
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Number of orbital = 2ℓ + 1
Sol.: For ℓ = 2
Number of orbital = 2 × 2 + 1 = 5
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Chem-Section A
Energy of a photon with 4 × 1015 Hz frequency is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
Options:
8.25 eV
16.5 eV
26.4 eV
165 eV
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: According to Planck’s quantum theory
E=h
Sol.: E = 6.6 × 10–34 × 4 × 1015 J
E = 26.4 × 10–19 J
E = 16.5 eV
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Chem-Section A
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Na+ and F– are isoelectronic species.
Statement II: and are isotones.
In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from options given below.
Options:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Both statement I and statement II are true
Both statement I and statement II are false
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Isotones contains same number of neutrons.
Sol.: Na+ and F– are isoelectronic as both has 10 electrons each.
and are isotones as both has 7 neutrons each.
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Chem-Section A
Which among the following transitions for H atom will emit maximum energy?
Options:
4→2
2→1
3→1
5→2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Energy emitted on any transition
n2 = higher energy level

n1 = lower energy level
Sol.: For 4 → 2
= 2.55 eV
For 2 → 1
= 10.2 eV
For 3 → 1
= 12.09 eV
For 5 → 2
= 2.86 eV
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Chem-Section A
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of K atom is
Options:
n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Electronic configuration of K (Z = 19)
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1
Sol.: For K, 4s1 is valence electron
n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
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Chem-Section B
Incorrect set of quantum number among the following is
nl m s
(1) 3 1 0 +1/2
(2) 2 2 1 –1/2
(3) 3 2 –2 +1/2
(4) 4 3 0 –1/2
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For a given value of n, possible value of l is 0 to (n – 1).
Sol.: For n = 2
l = 0, 1
hence n = 2, l = 2, m = 1, s = – 1/2 is incorrect set of quantum number.
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Chem-Section B
Number of degenerate orbitals in 3rd excited state of hydrogen atom is
Options:
16
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For H atom, energy depends only on principal quantum number n.
Sol.: For 3rd excited state n = 4
number of orbitals = n2
= 42 = 16
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Chem-Section B
If ionisation energy of He is E eV/atom then the energy required to remove both electrons from He atom is
Options:
2E eV
(E + 54.4) eV
(E + 13.6) eV
E eV
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For single electron species ionisation energy is numerically equal to energy of electron in first orbit.
Sol.:
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Chem-Section B
For n = 5, the correct sequence for filling of electrons for multielectronic species will be
Options:
ns → (n – 1)d → np
ns → np → (n – 1)d
np → (n – 1)d → ns
(n – 1)d → np → ns
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Filling of electron in atomic orbital (n + l) rule, subshell with lower (n + l) value gets filled first, if two subshell has similar (n + l) value then subshell with
lower value of n will be filled first
Sol.:
Subshell n l (n + l)
ns n 0 n
np n 1 n+1
(n – 1)d (n – 1) 2 n + 1
Hence correct sequence of filling of orbitals

ns → (n – 1)d → np
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Chem-Section B
Which among the following has minimum electrons in s subshell?
Options:
Sc
Ti
Cu
Zn
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Electronic configuration of Cu
Cu : [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Sol.: Electronic configurations
Sc:- [Ar] 3d1 4s2
Ti:- [Ar] 3d2 4s2
Zn:- [Ar] 3d10 4s2
Hence Cu has minimum s electrons.
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Chem-Section B
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cr has maximum spin only magnetic moment value in 3d series.
Reason (R): Cr has maximum number of unpaired electrons in 3d series.
Options:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true (R) is false
(A) is false (R) is true
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Magnetic moment
n = number of unpaired electrons

Sol.: For Cr
number of unpaired electrons are 6
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Chem-Section B
Ratio of energy required to remove electron in first three Bohr’s orbit of Li2+ ion is
Options:
1:4:9
1:2:3
2 : 9 : 16
36 : 9 : 4
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Energy required to remove an electron from any Bohr’s orbit is numerically equal to energy of that energy level.
Sol.: Ratio will be E1 : E2 : E3
= 36 : 9 : 4
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Chem-Section B
If a hydrogen like species has ionisation energy of 960 eV per atom then energy of electron in fourth Bohr orbit of atom will be
Options:
– 240 eV
– 60 eV
– 480 eV
– 120 eV
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.: IE = 960 eV
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Chem-Section B
Volume of O2 required at STP to react completely with 1.4 kg of ethene to give CO2 and H2O is
Options:
2750 L
1725 L
3360 L
4570 L
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O
Sol.: Mole of C2H4
Mole of O2 required = 50 × 3 = 150

Volume of O2 required at STP = 150 × 22.4
= 3360 L
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Chem-Section B
Charge of 0.1 mol electron will be approximately
Options:
96500 C
965 C
96.5 C
9650 C
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Charge of 1 e– = 1.6 × 10–19 C
Sol.: Number of electron in 1 mol = 6.02 × 1023
Hence charge of 1 mole e– = 1.6 × 10–19 × 6.02 × 1023
= 96500 C
Charge of 0.1 mol e– = 0.1 × 96500
= 9650 C
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Chem-Section B
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Molarity is number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent.
Statement II: Molality is number of moles of solute present in 1 L of solution.
Options:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Both statement I and statement II are true
Both statement I and statement II are false
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Molality is number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent.
Molarity is number of moles of solute present in 1 L of solution.
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Chem-Section B
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Fundamental quantity) (SI units)
(a) Electric current (i) Kelvin
(b) Time (ii) Candela
(c) Luminous intensity (iii) Ampere
(d) Temperature (iv) Second
Identify the correct match from options given below
Options:
(a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
(a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
(a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: SI unit of electric current is ampere.
Sol.: SI unit of temperature is kelvin.
SI unit of luminous intensity is candela.
SI unit of time is second.
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Chem-Section B
Mole of Aluminium (III) oxide formed on reaction of 10 g oxygen and 9 g Al will be
Options:
mol
mol
1 mol
mol
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Yield of product is determined by limiting reagent.
Al is limiting reagent
4 mol Al gives → 2 mol Al2O3
mol Al will give → mol Al2O3
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Chem-Section B
Vapour density of methane gas is
Options:
16
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Vapour density of gas is density relative to hydrogen gas
Sol.:
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Chem-Section B
Given below are two statements.

Statement I: 1 mol H2 and 1 mol O2 will have equal volume at 27°C and 1 atm pressure.
Statement II: Equal volume of gas contains equal number of mole at same temperature and pressure.
In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from options given below
Options:
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: At given temperature and pressure equal volume of gas contains equal number of molecule/mole of gases.
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Bot-Section A
Which among the following is found only in eukaryotes?
Options:
Pili
Flagella
Centrosome
Fimbriae
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Flagella helps in locomotion in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Sol.: Centrosome is found in eukaryotes only.
Pili and fimbriae are small bristle like fibres found in prokaryotes which do not play a role in motility.
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Bot-Section A
Which layer of cell envelope in prokaryotic cell is tough and gives it gummy and sticky character?
Options:
Cell wall
Capsule
Slime layer
Plasma membrane
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Layer of glycocalyx is responsible for giving gummy and sticky character to the cell.
Sol.: The capsule of cell envelope is responsible for giving gummy and sticky character to the prokaryotic cell.
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Bot-Section A
Match the column I with column II.
Column I Column II
a. Golgi apparatus (i) It is rich in almost all type of hydrolytic enzyme
b. Lysosomes (ii) It is bound by single membrane called tonoplast
c. Endoplasmic reticulum (iii) Site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
d. Vacuole (iv) Observed in cells actively involve in protein synthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: The isolated lysosomal vesicle have been found to be rich in almost all type of hydrolytic enzyme.
Sol.: Golgi apparatus is important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) are present in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion. Vacuole is bound by a single membrane called
tonoplast.
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Bot-Section A
Inclusion body
Options:
In green photosynthetic bacteria is gas vacuole
Is bound by single membrane system
Stores reserve material only in eukaryotes
Is extension of plasma membrane
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Reserve material in the prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of inclusion bodies.
Sol.: Gas vacuole are found in green photosynthetic bacteria as inclusion body. Inclusion bodies are not bound by any membrane system and lie free in the
cytoplasm.
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Bot-Section A
In eukaryotic cells, there is extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm through
Options:
Presence of variety of complex locomotory structures.
Coordinated functions of endomembrane system organelles
The presence of membrane bound organelle
The presence of organelle within the organelle
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Eukaryotic cells have several membrane bound structures called organelles.
Sol.: In eukaryotic cell there is extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm through the presence of membrane bound organelle.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the size of typical eukaryotic cell.
Options:
1-2 μm
10-20 μm
0.1 μm
0.02 – 0.2 μm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Size of typical bacteria is 1-2 μm.
Sol.: Size of the typical eukaryotic cell is 10-20 μm. 0.1 μm and 0.02-0.2 μm are size of PPLO and viruses respectively.
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Bot-Section A
Which among the following features (structures) is present in prokaryotic cell but absent in eukaryotes?
Options:
Protein synthesis
Ribosomes
Genetic material
Mesosomes
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Mesosomes are specialised differentiated form of plasma membrane.
Sol.: Mesosome is the characteristic of prokaryotes and are not present in the eukaryotes. Protein synthesis, ribosomes and genetic material are present in
both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the correct sequence of layer of cell envelope from outer side to inner side in a bacteria.
Options:
Glycocalyx – Plasma membrane – Cell wall
Cell wall – Glycocalyx – Plasma membrane
Glycocalyx – Cell wall – Plasma membrane
Plasma membrane – Glycocalyx – Cell wall
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: The cell envelope of prokaryotes consists of a tightly bound three layered structure.
Sol.: The cell envelope, consists the outermost glycocalyx followed by the cell wall and then the plasma membrane.
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Bot-Section A
Select the feature which is not true for ribosomes.
Options:
In prokaryotes, ribosome are associated with plasma membrane of the cell
In cytosol of eukaryotes 50S and 30S subunits of ribosome are present
It is the site of protein synthesis
They are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Prokaryotes consist of 70S type of ribosomes.
Sol.: In prokaryotes 70S type of ribosomes are present with 50S and 30S subunits.
In cytosol of eukaryotes, 80S ribosome is present with 60S and 40S subunits.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the statement which is true for Nucleolus.
Options:
It is a membrane bound structure
A spherical structure found in cytoplasm
It is larger and more numerous in cells that are actively involve in protein synthesis
It is the site of protein synthesis
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Nucleolus is a spherical structure found in nucleoplasm and is not separated from rest of the nucleoplasm.
Sol.: Ribosomes are site of protein synthesis.
Nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the correct set of organelles which have microtubules.
Options:
Centrosome, Nucleosome, Cilia
Peroxisomes, Flagella, Centrioles
Cilia, Centriole, Mitotic Apparatus
Spindle fibres, Centrioles, Chromatin
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Microtubules are present in the structures which are involve in the functions like mechanical support, motility and maintenance of shape of cell.
Sol.: Microtubules are found in cytoplasmic matrix. They occur in flagella, cilia, centriole basal bodies, etc.
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Bot-Section A
Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. plasmid.
Options:
It is the circular DNA outside the genomic DNA.
It confers unique phenotypic character to bacteria.
It provide resistance against antibiotic to bacteria.
It is always larger than the genomic DNA
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Many bacteria have circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. These DNA are called plasmid.
Sol.: Plasmid DNA is smaller than the genomic DNA.
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Bot-Section A
The Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum because
Options:
It is formed by vesicular structure formed by packaging in nucleus.
Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER, fuses with cis face of the Golgi apparatus and move towards maturing face.
The Golgi apparatus principally perform the functions of packaging material
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Golgi apparatus is associated with ER both in structural as well as in functional aspect.
Sol.: Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicle from the ER fuse with the cis face of golgi apparatus and moves towards the maturing face.
Therefore, golgi apparatus remain in close association with ER.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the correct statement(s) w.r.t. plasma membrane and mark the option accordingly.
A. Lipids are arranged within the membrane with the head towards the inner part and the hydrophobic tails towards outer side.
B. Cell membrane along with phospholipid also contains cholesterol.
C. The ratio of proteins and lipids remain constant in all types of cells.
D. The membrane of erythrocyte approximately contain 40% of proteins and 52% of lipids
Options:
Only B and D
Only B
Only A and C
All except C
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Plasma membrane structure ensures that the non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbon is protected from the aqueous environment.
Sol.: The lipids arranged within the membrane with the head towards the outer sides and the hydrophobic tails towards the inner part.
The ratio of proteins and lipid varies considerably in different cell type.
The membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately 52% of proteins and 40% of lipids.
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Bot-Section A
Select the incorrect match w.r.t. different shape of the cells.
Options:
Tracheids – Elongated
White blood cell – Amoeboid
Mesophyll cell – Branched and long
Red Blood cells – Round and biconcave
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Nerve cells are branched and long.
Sol.: Mesophyll cells are oval and round.
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Bot-Section A
The rough granular appearance of endoplasmic reticulum under electron microscope is due to the presence of
Options:
Ribosomes
Vesicle
Mesosome
Cristae
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Cristae are found in mitochondria.
Sol.: The endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their surface is called Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum.
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Bot-Section A
Centrosome is an organelle usually containing ____ cylindrical structures called centrioles.

Select the correct option to fill in blank.
Options:
Nine
Four
Two
Three
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sol.: Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
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Bot-Section A
Which among the following is disc shaped structure present on the side of centromere?
Options:
Telomere
Satellite
Kinetochore
Primary constriction
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Telomeres are ends of chromosome.
Sol.: On the side of centromere, disc shaped structures are present known as kinetochores.
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Bot-Section A
Ribosomal subunits remain united with each other due to specific concentration of which of the given ions?
Options:
Mn2+
Mo2+
Ni2+
Mg2+
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: The two ribosomal subunits become associated with each other and is known as dimer.
Sol.: The two ribosomal subunits remain united with each other due to specific concentration of Mg2+.
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Bot-Section A
The cell organelle responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP is
Options:
Ribosome
Mitochondrion
Lysosome
Golgi apparatus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Lysosome contains different hydrolytic enzyme.
Sol.: Mitochondria are site of aerobic respiration and produces cellular energy in the form of ATP.
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Bot-Section A
Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic category of wheat.
Options:
Order – Polymoniales
Class - Monocotyledonae
Family – Poaceae
Kingdom – Plantae
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Order polymoniales includes Solanaceae family
Sol.: Wheat belongs to order Poales.
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Bot-Section A
Choose the incorrect statement for taxonomical aid.
Options:
Herbarium is the storehouse of collected plant specimen that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheet.
Botanical garden is an in-situ conservation strategies of plants.
Museums have collection of preserved plants and animals which are used for study and reference.
There are separate keys for each taxonomic categories.
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Botanical Garden is an institution located in an enclosed piece of land which grows numerous kind of plants obtained from different places.
Sol.: Botanical Garden is an ex-situ conservation strategies of plants.
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Bot-Section A
The correct hierarchial arrangement in ascending order of taxonomic categories is
Options:
Species → Genus → Family → Class → Order → Division → Kingdom.
Species → Order → Family → Class → Genus → Division → Kingdom.
Genus → Species → Class → Order → Family → Phylum → Kingdom
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Species is the lowest taxonomic category of hierarchy.
Sol.: The correct sequence of hierarchial arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending order is
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom.
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Bot-Section A
Which among the following events does not take place in prophase of mitosis?
Options:
Condensation of chromosomal material
Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores of chromosomes
Movement of centrosome towards opposite pole
Formation of mitotic apparatus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
Sol.: During metaphase spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
Condensation of chromosomal material and movement of centrosome towards opposite pole occur during prophase.
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Bot-Section A
What will happen to cells that enter G0 phase of the cell cycle?
Options:
They will proliferate faster
They divide their nucleus only
They remain metabolically inactive
They do not proliferate unless they are called on to do so
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In G0 phase of cell cycle, the cells remain metabolically active.
Sol.: In G0 phase, cells do not proliferate unless they are called on to do so.
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Bot-Section A
If a meiocyte has 40 chromosome and 40 pg of DNA in G1 phase then what will be the number of chromosome and amount of DNA in the gamete?
Chromosomes DNA
(1) 10 10 pg
(2) 20 40 pg
(3) 40 20 pg
(4) 20 20 pg
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Gametes are formed from the meiocyte after the meiosis II.
Sol.:
Chromosomes DNA
G1 40 40
S 40 80
G2 40 80
M I 20 40
M II 20 20
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Bot-Section A
Read the following statements.

A. Meiosis I initiates after the parental chromosome have replicated to produce identical sister chromatids.
B. Meiosis involves pairing of non-homologous chromosomes and recombination between sister chromatids of a chromosome.
C. Meiosis involves four sequential cycle of nuclear divisions and only single cycle of DNA replication.
D. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.
State the above statements as True (T) or False (F) and choose the correct option.
Options:
A-(T), B-(T), C-(F), D-(T)
A-(T), B-(F), C-(F), D-(T)
A-(F), B-(T), C-(T), D-(F)
A-(T), B-(F), C-(T), D-(F)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: During meiosis crossing over occur between non-sisters chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Sol.: Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
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Bot-Section A
During which stage chromosomes start pairing up together in prophase I?
Options:
Pachytene
Diplotene
Diakinesis
Zygotene
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: During this stage formation of synaptonemal complex occurs.
Sol.: During zygotene stage chromosomes start paring together and this process of association is called synapsis.
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Bot-Section A
Interkinesis
Options:
Is generally long lived
Is followed by prophase I
Does not involve replication of DNA
Occur between two mitotic stage
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: During meiosis only single cycle of DNA replication occurs.
Sol.: The stage between meiosis I and meiosis II is called interkinesis and is generally short lived. During interkinesis no replication of DNA occur.
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Bot-Section A
Identify the correct sequence of events occur during meiosis.

A. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
B. Exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosome.
C. Formation of complex by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes.
D. Splitting of centromere of each chromosome
E. Separation of homologous chromosomes.
Options:
C→D→A→E→B
C→A→B→E→D
C→B→A→D→E
C→B→A→E→D
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Exchange of genetic material occur during pachytene stage of prophase I. During anaphase I homologous chromosomes separate
Sol.:
Synapsis
↓
Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes.
↓
Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
↓
Separation of homologous chromosomes.
↓
Splitting of centromere of each chromosome.
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Bot-Section A
All of the following are significance of mitosis, except
Options:
It produces genetic variations during sexual reproduction.
It is essential for growth and development of an organism.
It helps in healing of wounds
It helps to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: No recombination of genetic material occur during mitosis.
Sol.: Meiosis produces gametes for sexual reproduction and also genetic variations in the generations.
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Bot-Section A
In which among the following phase(s) splitting of centromere occur?

A. Anaphase I
B. Anaphase
C. Anaphase II
Options:
A, B and C
Only B
A and C only
B and C only
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Mitosis and meiosis-II are almost similar process.
Sol.: During Anaphase and Anaphase II, splitting of centromere of chromosome occurs.
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Bot-Section A
Interphase lasts about ___ of the total duration of cell cycle.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
Options:
Less than 10%
More than 95%
40% to 50%
Less than 50%
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Interphase lasts for maximum duration of time of cell cycle.
Sol.: Interphase lasts more than 95% of total duration of cell cycle.
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Bot-Section A
During which phase of mitosis, ER and nucleolus reappear?
Options:
Prophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: ER and nucleolus reappear during last stage of karyokinesis.
Sol.: During telophase, ER and nucleolus reappear.
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Bot-Section A
The centromere of bivalents arranged in two rows at the equator during
Options:
Metaphase of mitosis
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Double equatorial plates are formed during meiosis I.
Sol.: The centromere of bivalent are arranged in two rows at the equatorial plates during metaphase I.
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Bot-Section B
Select the set of organelles involved in the endomembrane system.
Options:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, lysosomes, microbodies
Ribosome, Vacuole, Chloroplast, Golgi complex
Vacuole, Lysosome, Golgi body, Endoplasmic reticulum
Chloroplast, Golgi apparatus, Lysosomes, Vacuole
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Organelles involved in the endomembrane system have coordinated function with each other.
Sol.: Endomembrane system involves endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosome and vacuole.
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Bot-Section B
Choose the statement which is false for mitochondria.
Options:
It is the site of aerobic respiration in eukaryotes
The cisternae is formed by the inner membrane and increases the surface area
The enzyme for Electron Transport Chain is located on its inner membrane
Its matrix contains double stranded DNA with 70S ribosomes
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In mitochondria, the inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called cristae.
Sol.: In mitochondria, cristae increases the surface area. Golgi apparatus consists of disc-shaped sacs or cisternae of 0.5 μm to 1.0 μm.
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Bot-Section B
The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called
Options:
Thylakoid
Grana
Stroma lamella
Stroma
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In chloroplast, a number of organised flattened membranous sac is called thylakoid.
Sol.: A space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called stroma.
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Bot-Section B
Who proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animal and plant are composed of cells and products of cells?
Options:
Theodore Schwann
Matthias Schleiden
Rudolf Virchow
Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: A British zoologist proposed this hypothesis.
Sol.: Theodore Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells.
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Bot-Section B
Eukaryotic cell differs from prokaryotic cell as the former
Options:
Consists of genetic material
Contains an organelle within the organelle
Contains a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm
Lacks membrane bound cell organelle
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Prokaryotic cells do not contain any membrane bound organelle.
Sol.: Eukaryotic cells contain membrane bound organelles and ribosomes. Ribosomes are also present within some other organelles.
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Bot-Section B
Neutral solutes across plasma membrane do not
Options:
Diffuse along concentration gradient
Move from their higher concentration to lower concentration
Show passive transport
Require energy for their movement from their higher to lower concentration
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Neutral solutes move across the membrane, by the process of simple diffusion along the concentration gradient.
Sol.: Neutral solute can move across the membrane without any requirement of energy and this is called the passive transport.
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Bot-Section B
Assertion (A): Sub-metacentric chromosome appears L-shaped while moving towards opposite poles in anaphase.
Reason (R): Sub-metacentric chromosomes have centromere present slightly away from the centre of the chromosome.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.
Options:
Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
Only A is true but R is false
Both A and R are false
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In sub-metacentric chromosome, position of centromere divides chromosomes into one shorter and one longer arm.
Sol.: During anaphase, sub metacentric chromosome moves towards opposite pole and appears L-shape due to its centromere position.
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Bot-Section B
During pachytene, a bivalent consists of
Options:
Two non-homologous chromosomes
Two centromeres and four chromatids
Two chromatids and two centromeres
Four homologous chromosomes
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In pachytene stage, homologous chromosomes become distinct and clearly appear as tetrad.
Sol.: During pachytene stage, bivalent or tetrad consists of two centromeres and four chromatids.
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Bot-Section B
Select the enzyme which is involved during crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes?
Options:
Transferase
Polymerase
Phosphorylase
Recombinase
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Transferase enzyme catalyse the transfer of specific functional group from one molecule to another.
Sol.: In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes is catalysed by the enzyme recombinase.
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Bot-Section B
The final stage of meiotic prophase I
Options:
Is recognised by dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Can last for months or years in oocytes of some vertebrates
Is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata
Involves nucleolus and nuclear membrane to reappear
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis.
Sol.: Diakinesis stage is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is
assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation.
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Bot-Section B
During which stage of mitosis, morphology of chromosomes is easy to study?
Options:
Metaphase
Prophase
Anaphase
Telophase
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Morphology of the chromosome is observed when condensation of the chromosome is completed.
Sol.: During metaphase stage, morphology of the chromosomes is most easily studied.
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Bot-Section B
Select the correct sequence of the phases of the cell cycle.
Options:
G1 → G 0 → S → M
G2 → S → G 1 → M
M → S → G2 → G 1
G1 → S → G 2 → M
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: G1 phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
Sol.: The correct sequence of the phases of cell cycle is G1 → S → G2 → M
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Bot-Section B
During interphase of the cell cycle, what will be the number of chromosomes just after S-phase in a human diploid cell?
Options:
23
46
16
20
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In the cell cycle, after S-phase the number of chromosome remain the same.
Sol.: In human, 2n = 46
After S-phase the number of chromosomes will remain the same.
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Bot-Section B
The correct full form of ICBN is
Options:
Indian Code for Botanical Nomenclature
International Criteria for Botanical Nomenclature
International Code for Botanical nomenclature
Indian Conduct of Biological Names
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: International set of rules and recommendation dealing with formal names of plants is given by ICBN.
Sol.: The full form of ICBN is International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.
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Bot-Section B
All of the given institutions or taxonomical aids are located in India, except
Options:
Royal Botanical Garden
Llyod Botanical Garden
Central National Herbarium
National Botanical Garden
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Llyod Botanical Garden is located in Darjeeling.
Sol.: Royal Botanical Garden is situated in Kew, England.
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Zoo-Section A
Select the incorrect option w.r.t. gap junction.
Options:
Facilitates the cells to communicate with each other
Connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells
Facilitates the rapid transfer of ions, small molecules, sometimes big molecules
Perform cementing to keep the neighbouring cells together
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Adhering junctions
Sol.: Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep the neighbouring cells together.
Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules
and sometimes big molecules.
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Zoo-Section A
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Tissue Location Function

(1) Cardiac muscle Heart Heart contraction
(2) Skeletal muscles Arm Movement
(3) Blood Blood vessels Transport of various substances
(4) Smooth muscles Internal organs Lift up sternum and ribs
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Voluntary muscles are present in between ribs.
Sol.: The smooth muscle fibres are tapered at both ends (fusiform) and do not show striations. They are found in walls of internal organs such as blood
vessels, stomach and intestine. Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones with the help of tendon.
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Zoo-Section A
“Cell junctions hold the unbranched muscle fibres together and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath”.
For which of the following muscles, the above given statement is true?
Options:
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Voluntary muscle
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Muscle fibres are fusiform in shape.
Sol.: In cardiac muscles, the cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of branched cardiac muscle cells. Gap junctions are present in both smooth muscles
and cardiac muscles. A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses several bundles of skeletal muscle fibres.
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Zoo-Section A
Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.
Statement A: Muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils called myofibrils.
Statement B: Actions of skeletal muscles moves the body to adjust to the changes in the environment.
Options:
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Muscle fibres are held together by connective tissue.
Sol.: A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses several bundles of skeletal muscles. The muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils, called
myofibrils.
Action of skeletal muscles move the body to adjust to changes in the environment and to maintain the position of various parts of the body.
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Zoo-Section A
Which of the following is esterified with the sugar of a nucleoside to form a nucleotide?
Options:
Hydrogen ion
Phosphate group
Amine group
Carboxyl group
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: It is also present in lecithin.
Sol.:
Adenylic acid is a nucleotide and it contains pentose sugar, nitrogenous base and a phosphate group which is esterified with the 5′ carbon of pentose sugar.
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Zoo-Section A
Read the following given statements carefully.

A. Cilia helps in transportation of particles in a specific direction
B. Microvilli helps in absorption of nutrients in intestine.
C. The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.
D. Bones cannot serve weight bearing functions.
Choose the option which represents true (T) or false (F) statements correctly.
Options:
A-(T), B-(T), C-(T), D-(T)
A-(F), B-(F), C-(T), D-(F)
A-(T), B-(T), C-(T), D-(F)
A-(T), B-(F), C-(T), D-(F)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Bones provide structural frame to the body.
Sol.: Bones support and protect softer tissues, and organs. Limb bones serve weight-bearing functions. They also interact with skeletal muscles attached to
them to bring about movements. The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.
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Zoo-Section A
Choose the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino acids.
Options:
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Phenylalanine
Alanine
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Neutral amino acid
Sol.: Tyrosine, phenylalanine and tryptophan are aromatic amino acids. Alanine is a neutral amino acid.
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Zoo-Section A
The epithelial tissue that covers the moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx is also found in the
Options:
Inner lining of blood vessels
Pancreatic ducts
Lining of stomach
Lining of intestine
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: These cells have limited role in secretion and absorption.
Sol.: Compound epithelium is made up of more than one layer of cells. The main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
and they cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts.
Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of the blood vessels. The columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
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Zoo-Section A
The chemical nature of carbonic anhydrase is
Options:
Protein
Lipid
Carbohydrate
Nucleic acid
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Collagen belongs to the same category
Sol.:
Carbonic anhydrase is present within the cytoplasm of the RBCs. This enzyme accelerates the reaction rate by about 10 million times. Most enzymes are
proteinaceous in nature.
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Zoo-Section A
Read the following statements (A - D) carefully w.r.t connective tissue.

A. Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues.
B. Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are found in loose connective tissue.
C. It is so named because of its special function of linking and supporting other tissues/organs of body.
D. It ranges from soft connective tissues to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone and blood.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Options:
Four
One
Two
Three
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals.
Sol.: They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the body. They range from soft
connective tissues to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone, and blood.
Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue. It contain fibroblasts (cells that produce and secrete fibres), macrophages and mast cells.
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Zoo-Section A
Different types of amino acids are classified on the basis of nature of
Options:
Hydrogen
Carboxyl group
Amino group
R group
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Variable group
Sol.: Based on the nature of R group there are many amino acids. This variable R group is methyl group in alanine. Hydrogen in glycine and hydroxy methyl
in serine.
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Zoo-Section A
Adult human haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. These subunits are
Options:
Two α and two chains
Three α and one β chain
Two α and two β chains
One α and three β chains
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: subunit is found in foetal Hb
Sol.: Quaternary structure of haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. Two of these are identical to each other. Hence, two subunits of α type and two subunits of
β type together constitute the adult human haemoglobin (Hb).
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Zoo-Section A
In which of the following options, biomolecules are arranged in decreasing order w.r.t. their percentage in the total cellular mass.
Options:
Proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates
Proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, carbohydrates
Proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Percentage of nucleic acids is less than proteins.
Sol.:
Component % of the total cellular mass
Water 70-90
Proteins 10-15
Carbohydrates 3
Lipids 2
Nucleic acids 5-7
Ions 1
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Zoo-Section A
Select the name of a compound that is present in both DNA and RNA.
Options:
Thymine
Uracil
Ribose
Cytosine
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: A = T base pair is present in DNA.
Sol.: In DNA, adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine bases are present, while in RNA, adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil are present.
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Zoo-Section A
Select the incorrect statement from the following.
Options:
Oxygen is the most abundant element in Earth's crust.
Percentage of calcium is more in Earth's crust than in human body.
Nitrogen is 3.3% in human body.
Carbon is the third most abundant element present in human body.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Oxygen is most abundant element in both Earth’s crust and human body.
Sol.:
Element % weight of Earth’s crust % weight of Human body
Hydrogen (H) 0.14 0.5
Carbon (C) 0.03 18.5
Oxygen (O) 46.6 65.0
Nitrogen (N) Very little 3.3
Sulphur (S) 0.03 0.3
Sodium (Na) 2.8 0.2
Calcium (Ca) 3.6 1.5
Magnesium (Mg) 2.1 0.1
Silicon (Si) 27.7 Negligible
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Zoo-Section A
Which of the following elements constitutes second highest % weight of Earth’s crust?
Options:
Silicon
Oxygen
Magnesium
Carbon
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Oxygen is the most abundant element in Earth’s crust.
Sol.: Oxygen is the most abundant element and silicon (Si) is the second most abundant element present in the Earth’s crust. Calcium is 3.6% in Earth’s
crust and 1.5% in human body. Carbon is 0.03% in earth’s crust and 18.5% in human body.
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Zoo-Section A
Choose the correct option w.r.t. bonds that may be present in tertiary structure of a protein.
Options:
Peptide and ester bond only
Peptide, hydrogen and glycosidic bond
Peptide, hydrogen and disulphide bond
Peptide, hydrogen, ester and glycosidic bond
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Glycosidic bond is present in carbohydrates.
Sol.: In tertiary structure of a protein, the bonds present may be – peptide bond, hydrogen bond, disulphide bond, ionic bond and hydrophobic bond.
Glycosidic bonds are present in carbohydrates and ester bonds are present in lipids.
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Zoo-Section A
Which of the following bonds is broken down on the hydrolysis of a disaccharide?
Options:
Hydrogen bond
Ester bond
Glycosidic bond
Phosphodiester bond
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Bond present in carbohydrates
Sol.: On hydrolysis of disaccharides, glycosidic bond is broken down. Peptide bonds and ester bonds are broken down on hydrolysis of proteins and lipids
respectively.
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Zoo-Section A
Read the following given statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement A: One of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is the famous Watson-Crick model.
Statement B: Three hydrogen bonds are present between adenine and thymine.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Chargaff’s rule
Sol.: Two hydrogen bonds are present between adenine and thymine and three hydrogen bonds are present between guanine and cytosine.
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Zoo-Section A
In a nucleic acid, a ______ moiety links the 3′ – carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5′ – carbon of the sugar of succeeding nucleotide. Select
the option that correctly fills the blank.
Options:
Carboxyl
Hydrogen
Phosphate
Amine
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Formation of phosphodiester bond
Sol.: Two amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the next
amino acid. When a phosphate moiety links the 3′ carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5′ carbon of sugar of succeeding nucleotide, a
phosphodiester bond is formed.
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Zoo-Section A
The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual is
Options:
4 - 5 mmol/L
4.2 - 6.1 mmol/L
6 - 7 mmol/L
2 - 3.5 mmol/L
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: It is in between 4 to 7 mmol/L
Sol.: The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual is 4.2 – 6.1 mmol/L.
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Zoo-Section A
The walls of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine possess muscle fibres which are
Options:
Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
Voluntary, multi-nucleated, cylindrical
Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleated
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Fibres are tapered at both ends
Sol.: Smooth muscle fibres – Involuntary, tapered at both ends (fusiform), uninucleated, non-striated.
Skeletal muscle fibres – Voluntary, cylindrical, multi-nucleated and striated.
Cardiac muscle fibres – Involuntary, branched, uninucleated and striated.
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Zoo-Section A
Consider the following statements and select the incorrect one.
Options:
Organic compounds that are tightly bound to the apoenzyme are called prosthetic group.
Protein part of the holoenzyme is called apoenzyme.
Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is an anabolic process.
Rates of physical and chemical processes are influenced by temperature.
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Synthesis of biomolecules
Sol.: Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is a catabolic process in which starch is broken down into glucose by hydrolyses.
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Zoo-Section A
Vinblastin and curcumin belong to which of the following categories?
Options:
Toxins
Drugs
Lectins
Pigments
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Vinblastin is used in treatment of cancer.
Sol.:
Pigments Carotenoids, Anthocyanins, etc.
Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine, etc.
Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes etc.
Essential oils Lemon grass oil, etc.
Toxins Abrin, Ricin
Lectins Concanavalin A
Drugs Vinblastin, curcumin, etc.
Polymeric substances Rubber, gums, cellulose
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Choose the correct statement.
Options:
pH does not affect enzymatic activity.
Enzymatic activity gets affected at higher pH only.
Enzyme activity declines at optimum pH.
Enzymes show highest activity at optimum pH.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: The pH at which activity of enzyme is maximum.
Sol.: Enzymes show highest activity at optimum temperature and pH. Below optimum pH or optimum temperature the activity of enzyme decreases. It also
decreases above the optimum pH and temperature.
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Zoo-Section A
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. co-factors.
Options:
Prosthetic groups are organic compounds.
Association of co-enzyme with apoenzyme is transient.
NAD contains vitamin B3.
Metal ions cannot act as co-factor.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Zinc with carboxypeptidase
Sol. Both prosthetic groups and co-enzymes are organic compounds which act as co-factor but prosthetic groups are tightly bound with apoenzymes and
association of co-enzyme is transient. The essential chemical component of many co-enzymes are vitamins. Metal ions can also act as co-factor.
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Zoo-Section A
Assertion (A): Starch gives colour with iodine but cellulose cannot be stained by iodine.
Reason (R): Cellulose does not contain complex helices so cannot hold iodine molecules.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
Options:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are false.
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Starch has helices.
Sol.: Starch forms helical secondary structures. In fact, starch can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion. The starch-I2 is blue in colour. Cellulose does not
contain complex helices and hence cannot hold I2.
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Zoo-Section A
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids are esterified with glycerol molecule.
Statement B: Substrate binds with an enzyme at its active site.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Lipids are glycerides.
Sol.: Simple lipids are triglycerides. Some conjugated lipids have phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic compound in them. These are phospholipids.
Lecithin is one of the examples of phospholipid.
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Zoo-Section A
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lipids.
Options:
Some lipids have phosphorous and phosphorylated organic compound in them.
Phospholipids are present in the cell membrane.
Neural tissue have lipids with more complex structure.
Glycerol also known as trihydroxy propane is a complex lipid.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Part of fatty acids
Sol.: Glycerol is simple lipid which is trihydroxy propane. Many lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids. Here the fatty acids are found esterified with glycerol.
They can be then monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides.
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Zoo-Section A
Chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods that is responsible for their evolutionary success is made up of
Options:
Lipoglycans
Modified sugar
Fructose
Phospholipids
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: N-acetyl glucosamine
Sol.: Building blocks of chitin are chemically modified amino-sugars (N-acetyl glucosamine). Chitin is a homopolymer of N-acetyl glucosamine.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Choose the supportive and protective cells of neural tissue.
Options:
Neurons
Mast cells
Neuroglial cells
Fibroblasts
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: These cells secrete myelin sheath around the axon.
Sol.: Neuroglial cells make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue, which provides protection and support to neurons.
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Zoo-Section A
Solid and pliable matrix which can resist compression is found in
Options:
Bones of forearm
Compound epithelium
Cartilage present between adjacent bones of vertebral column
Between articulating surface of limb bones
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Chondrocytes are present
Sol.: The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression. Cartilage is a specialised skeletal connective tissue present in tip of
nose, external ear joints, etc.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
A single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is found in the
Options:
Walls of blood vessels
Lining of bronchioles
Epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule
Inner surface of stomach
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: They are known as pavement epithelium.
Sol.: Squamous epithelium forms the innermost layer of walls of blood vessels, air sacs of the lungs, wall of Bowman’s capsule. Ciliated epithelium is mainly
present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes. Cuboidal epithelium is present in the PCT of nephrons.
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Zoo-Section A
Cells involved in the secretion and absorption are usually found in
Options:
Air sacs of lungs
Lining of intestine
Bronchioles and fallopian tube
Ducts of salivary glands
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Microvilli helps in the absorption
Sol.: Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells. This is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys
and its main functions are secretion and absorption. The epithelium of PCT of nephron in the kidney has microvilli. Columnar epithelium may have microvilli.
They are found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Intercellular material of bone is
Options:
Solid without connective tissue fibres
Non-pliable matrix with chondrocytes present in lacunae
Hard and non-pliable
Solid and flexible due to lack of minerals
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Inorganic salts provide hardening.
Sol.: Cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression. Bones have hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres
which give bone its strength. Osteocytes are bone cells present in lacunae of matrix.
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Zoo-Section B
Which of the following tissues exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions?
Options:
Epithelial tissue
Muscular tissue
Connective tissue
Neural tissue
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Found in the brain and spinal cord
Sol.: Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment and thus, provides a covering or a lining for some parts of
the body.
Connective tissue is most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals. They help in the linking and suporting other tissues/organs of the
body.
Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to stimulation, then relax (lengthen) and return to their uncontracted state in a co-ordinated fashion.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
The types of cell junctions that stop substances from leaking across a tissue are called
Options:
Tight junctions
Gap junctions
Adhering junctions
Synaptic junctions
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Gap junction helps in transport of molecules
Sol.: Tight junctions – Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
Adhering junctions – Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
Gap junctions – Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules
and sometimes big molecules.
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
How many of the following given below in the box are secretions of exocrine glands?
Tears, Mucus, Saliva, Bile juice, Enzymes, Hormones, Milk, Oil, Sweat, Ear wax
Options:
Ten
Nine
Six
Five
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Chemical messengers are secretions of endocrine glands.
Sol.: On the basis of presence or absence of duct, glands are divided into two categories namely, exocrine and endocrine glands. Exocrine glands secrete
mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes and other cell products. These products are released through ducts or tubes. Hormones are secretion of
endocrine glands.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Match the tissues given in the column I with their functions in column II.
Column I Column II
a. Muscular tissue (i) Support framework for epithelium
b. Areolar tissue (ii) Contracts in response to stimulation
c. Fibroblasts (iii) Store fats
d. Adipose tissue (iv) Secrete collagen fibres
Choose the correct match from the options given below.
Options:
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Fibre secreting cells of connective tissue
Sol.: Muscular tissue – Contracts in response to stimulation
Areolar tissue – Serve as support framework for epithelium
Fibroblasts – Secrete collagen fibres
Adipose tissue – Stores fats
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Select the correct pair of metabolites that help in normal physiological processes in human body.
Options:
Flavonoids, antibiotics
Cellulose, starch
Starch, glycogen
Concanavalin A, protein
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Primary metabolites
Sol.: Primary metabolites such as carbohydrates, proteins and nucleic acids have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological
processes. We do not at the moment, understand the role of secondary metabolites. However, many of them are useful to human welfare e.g., rubber, drugs,
spices, scents and pigments.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Paper made from and is cellulosic. Select the correct option to fill the blanks.
A B
(1) Collagen fibres Polysaccharides
(2) Plant pulp Cotton fibres
(3) Rubber Proteins
(4) Glucosamine Cotton fibres
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Plant cell wall is made of cellulose.
Sol.: Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibres is cellulosic. Collagen fibres are proteins. All polysaccharides are not cellulosic. Glucosamine is an amino
sugar.
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Fructose polymerises to form
Options:
Cellulose
Glycogen
Inulin
Insulin
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Homopolysaccharide
Sol.: Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose. Inulin is a polymer of fructose. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone which helps in the lowering the glucose levels in
the blood.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Select the correct combination of nucleoside and nucleotide respectively.
Options:
Cytidine, thymidine
Uridine, cytidylic acid
Thymidylic acid, cytidine
Adenylic acid, guanosine
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Adenosine, adenylic acid
Sol.: Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine are the nucleosides. Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid
are the nucleotides.
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
How many carbon atoms are present in one molecule of arachidonic acid?
Options:
19
20
22
18
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Total number of fingers in humans
Sol.:
Fatty acids Number of carbon atoms
Stearic acid – C18
Palmitic acid – C16
Arachidonic acid – C20
Myristic acid – C14
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
What happens to the Km and Vmax in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
Options:
Km increases and Vmax remains constant
Km decreases and Vmax increases
Km decreases and Vmax remains constant
Km remains constant and Vmax decreases
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Vmax remains unchanged.
Sol.: With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzyme reaction rises first. The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity Vmax
which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration of substrate. In the presence of malonate as a competitive inhibitor, Km increases but Vmax
remains unchanged.
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Back bone of B-DNA is formed by
Options:
Phosphate-sugar chain
Nitrogenous bases and sugar chain
Nitrogenous bases only
Sugar chain linked by glycosidic bond
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: DNA/RNA is the long chain of nucleotides.
Sol.: The back bone of B-DNA is formed by phosphate-sugar chain.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
‘X’ are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them.
Identify ‘X’ and the location where they are present respectively.
Options:
Cartilage, Bones in adults
Chondrocytes, Lacunae of cartilage
Chondrocytes, Lacunae of bone
Osteocytes, Tip of nose
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Cartilage forming cells
Sol.: Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them. Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear joints, between
adjacent bones of the vertebral column. Most cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults. The bone cells (osteocytes) are present in the
spaces called lacunae. Lamellae are concentric layers of matrix.
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Choose the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t. amino acids.
Acidic : Glutamic acid :: Neutral : ______.
Options:
Lysine
Valine
Arginine
Tryptophan
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Lysine is a basic amino acid.
Sol.: Based on the number of amino and carboxyl groups, amino acids are:
Acidic – Glutamic acid
Basic – Lysine
Neutral – Valine
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Peptide bond is formed when
Options:
The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the next amino acid by dehydration.
The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with amino group of same amino acid by dehydration.
The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the hydroxyl group of the next amino acid by dehydration.
The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of next amino acid by addition of one water molecule.
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Bond formed with the elimination of water moiety
Sol.: In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the
amino group of the next amino acid with the elimination of water moiety (The process is called dehydration).
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You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Match the column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
a. Cellulose (i) Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar
b. Nucleotide (ii) Structural polysaccharide
c. Nucleoside (iii) Lecithin
d. Phospholipid (iv) Monomer of nucleic acid
Options:
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Sol.: Cellulose – Structural polysaccharide
Nucleotide – Monomer of nucleic acid
Nucleoside – Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar
Phospholipid – Lecithin.
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Aakash Practice Test - 01 (RM) Solutions

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10/29/23, 11:33 PM Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : AIATS for Repeater Medical-2024(XII Passed)_Practice Test-01

maximum percentage error in ‘x’ is

Hint: % error in x = 2 (% error in α) + 3(% error in β) + (% error in ρ) + (% error in )

and [b] = [Time] = [T]

9 mm divided into 10 divisions

19 mm divided into 20 divisions

80 mm divided into 100 divisions

99 mm divided into 100 divisions

∴ 19 mm should be divided into 20 divisions

Surface tension if a = 1, b = 1, and c = –2

Sol.: distance covered in 10 s =

⇒ Distance covered in next 5 s, s2

Number of significant figures in 0.004900 is

Hint: Young’s Modulus Y = and length = [VT]

Choose the correct statement.

Dimensionless quantities can have a unit

A dimensionally correct equation must be correct

Dimension of a physical quantity can never be a fraction

Mean absolute error is 0.01

Relative error is 0.03

Relative error is 0.5

Percentage error is 0.05

% error = 0.03 × 100 = 3%

Hint: Maximum height is given by relation, Hmax .

Sol.: and = tan2θ

In first second = h/16

From the graph,

Here vmax = at = 4(10) = 40 m/s

Hint: Average speed, vav =

aBL = 10 – (–2) = 12 m/s2

Sol.: Since a = 6t is variable

Slope of a position-time graph determines

Changes in magnitude only

Changes in direction only

Changes in both magnitude and direction

May be straight line

Must be straight line

particle (in m) when velocity becomes parallel to x-axis is

Sol.: Here, 2cosθ = sinθ

Sol.: Substituting values x = 4 m, y = 2.4 m, θ = 45°

projection as origin, the position of particle after 3 s of projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)

In a uniform circular motion

Both (1) and (3)

Hint: Centripetal acceleration

Displacement along the river

Time taken in stopping

Hint: Radial acceleration

Sol.: Substituting the values in aforementioned equation we get

Sol.: Here = 1.414 m

(rounding off to 1 decimal place)

Linear mass density has dimensional formula as

Hint & Sol.: Linear mass density

Hence, [λ] = [ML–1T0]

∴ Coordinate = (10, –5) m

With regards to significant figures 4.000 × 103 m can be written as

Sol.: Tangential Acceleration

Sol.: Here u = 2 m/s and a = 4 m/s2

SI unit of luminous intensity is

Volume of 0.02 M solution that contains 0.1 mol solute is

Number of atoms in 16 g ozone is

Sol.: Mole of ozone =

Volume of 1 mol H2O at NTP will be (density of water = 1 g mL–1)