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RHODES UNIVERSITY

FACULTY OF PHARMACY

SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION – JANUARY/FEBRUARY 2019

BIOCHEMISTRY, MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY – PC 221

PAPER 1

Examiners: Professor R. Tandlich MARKS: 100

DURATION: 3 HOURS
Internal Moderator: Dr N. Ngqwala PASS: 50

INSTRUCTIONS

1) The use of a dictionary is allowed.

2) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

3) Please start each new full question on a separate page.

4) Please do NOT use red ink anywhere on your script.

5) Remember to fill in the question numbers on the front cover of your answer book.

6) ALL answers, including chemical structures, must be written in ink. Work written in
pencil WILL NOT be marked.

7) Answer SECTION A in the answer book or on the question paper.

8) Answer SECTION B and SECTION C in the same answer book.

9) PLEASE HAND IN THE QUESTION PAPER.

PLEASE DO NOT TURN OVER THIS PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

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 SECTION A

Answer SECTION A in the answer book or on the question paper.

MCQs (Select the most correct answer from the following). Each question is worth 1
mark.

1. Which of the following areas of the body do not have resident microbial flora?

a. Upper respiratory tract

b. Eyes
c. Bladder
d. Ear

2. Which statement(s) is/are true?

a. Gram positive organisms dominate the microflora.

b. Propionibacterium acnes are normal residents of the skin.
c. Lipophilic yeasts are sometimes normal residents of the skin.
d. All of the above

3. Which of the following phenomena is/are associated with the metabolic and
biochemical activities of the intestinal microflora?

a. Vitamin synthesis
b. Production of amines
c. Production of organic acids
d. All of the above.

4. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be implicated in dental caries?

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus sobrinus
d. Escherichia coli

5. Which statement is true about an exotoxin?

a. It is mostly produced by Gram-negative bacteria.

b. Its LD50 may be as low as picogram levels.
c. It is composed primarily of carbohydrates.
d. It is LPS associated.

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6. Which of the following is an enterotoxin?

a. Cholera toxin.
b. Diphtheria toxin.
c. Plague toxin.
d. LPS of Salmonella.

7. The toxin of Clostridium tetani is classified as a(n)

a) Endotoxin.
b) Cytotoxin.
c) Enterotoxin.
d) Neurotoxin.

8. White pulpe of the spleen is rich in

a) Erythrocytes
b) CD4+CD8+T cells – double positive
c) NK cells
d) Plasmatic cells

9. MacConkey's agar and EMB agar are

a) Selective but not differential

b) Differential but not selective
c) Both selective and differential
d) Neither selective nor differential

10. Which of the following tests would allow the specific identification of a single microbe
under the microscope?

a) Fluorescent Antibody (Fa)

b) Radioimmunoassay (Ria)
c) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (Elisa)
d) Agglutination.

11. In which type of medium will an indicator dye be found?

a) Selective but not differential

b) Differential but not selective
c) Both selective and differential
d) Neither selective nor differential

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12. Transmission of an infectious disease is most likely during the

a) Incubation period
b) Prodromal period
c) Acute period
d) Decline period
[12]

[SUB TOTAL : 12]

SECTION B

Please answer SECTION B and SECTION C in the same answer

book.

QUESTION 13

Give a short answer, one or two words.

a) The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease of greater or lesser severity is that
b) When the virulence of a pathogen is decreased or even completely lost, the pathogen is
said to be
c) A polymer coat consisting of a dense, well-defined layer closely surrounding the cell is
known as the
d) A large number of bacteria in the bloodstream results in a condition known as
e) Describe one of the properties of microorganisms that grow well on the skin._
f) Why are hospital patients more susceptible than "normal" individuals to infectious
agents?
g) Why does Lactobacillus inhabit the stomach?
h) What are the four possible outcomes resulting from the initial contact with a microbe?

(8)

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QUESTION 14

Discuss the key principles involved in managing nosocomial infections.

(5)

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QUESTION 15

Personal and community hygiene are almost universally associated with a reduction in the
prevalence of most diseases. In some areas, the flies can transmit diseases, preferentially lay
their eggs on human faeces lying exposed on the soil. Controlling fly populations by
spraying insecticide is difficult. Studies on the impact of fly control on disease have had
variable results. About 10% of the world’s population is at risk of blindness.

a) What is the name of the disease in question? (2)

b) How can one diagnose it? (3)
c) What are the current existing list of treatments or drugs? (3)
(8)

QUESTION 16

a) Why do Gram-positive Bacteria not produce endotoxins? (2)

b) Why are the endotoxins generally not as potent as the exotoxins? (2)
c) Describe two of the three types of fever. (3)
(7)

QUESTION 17

Bacterial toxins are exotoxins and endotoxins. Characteristics and differences are based on
their mode of action. Describe exotoxins and endotoxins using fever, S. aureus and V.
cholera as examples.
(5)

QUESTION 18
a) Describe one of the properties of microorganisms that grow well on the skin.
(1)
b) Why are hospital patients more susceptible than "normal" individuals to infectious
agents? (1)
c) What are the four possible outcomes resulting from the initial contact with a microbe?
(2)
d) Staphylococcus aureus is part of a human’s microbiota. However, virulent forms of
aureus can become pathogens in humans and can produce a variety of conditions
depending on the site of infection.
i. Describe the first steps that you would employ to identify this pathogen from a
specimen taken from an infected patient (1)
ii. Name four systemic infections that S. aureus can produce. (2)
iii. Name four enzymes (not toxins) that S. aureus can produce and what it acts
upon. (4)
(11)

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QUESTION 19

a) What is the difference between systemic mycoses and mucotaneous mycoses? (4)
b) There are two main helminth classes; describe these and give examples. (2)
(6)

[SUB TOTAL: 50]

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 SECTION C

Please answer SECTION B and SECTION C in the same answer book.

QUESTION 20

Which name would best describe a culture medium that contains extracts or digests of plant or
animal tissue?

a. Synthetic chemically define medium

b. Non-synthetic complex medium
c. Selective culture medium
(1)

QUESTION 21

Which of the following bacterial species do not form spores?

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridia tetani
(1)

QUESTION 22

Which term best describes the condition of a viral infection where the virus remains hidden
(occult form) for most of the time with occasional flare-ups during which time infectious
virions can be recovered.

a. Viral shedding
b. Viral clearance
c. Latent infections
(1)

QUESTION 23

Which of the following is/are considered to be direct contact infections?

a. syphilis
b. gonorrhea
c. AIDS
d. all of the above
(1)

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QUESTION 24

Malaria is transmitted to its primary host through the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito.
Which one of the following statements is true?

a) Because it transmitted by an arthropod, it is a member of the arthropod-borne or

arbovirus group of pathogens.
b) It requires the mosquito as a secondary host so that it can carry out the sexual
reproduction part of its life-cycle.
c) The malaria parasite belongs to the genus Trypanosoma, of which there are two
morphological indistinguishable species, Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense and
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.
(1)

QUESTION 25

A hospital acquired infection is

a) Familial.
b) Nosocomial.
c) Genial.
d) Viral.
e) Potential
(1)

QUESTION 26

List four approaches to confirming a viral infection in the laboratory.

(4)
QUESTION 27
There are 5 unique hepatitis viruses, identified by the letters A- E. While all cause liver
disease, they vary in important ways. Describe all 5 in detail.
(5)

QUESTION 28
Staphylococcus aureus is part of a human’s microbiota. However, virulent forms of S. aureus
can become pathogens in humans and can produce a variety of conditions depending on the
site of infection.
a) Describe the first steps that you would employ to identify this pathogen from a
specimen taken from an infected patient. (3)
b) What conclusions about its morphology and structure would you be able to reach? (3)
c) Name four systemic infections that S. aureus can produce. (4)
[10]

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QUESTION 29

According to Said et al. 2011, Africa accounts for over 90% of all cholera cases reported to
the World Health Organisation. It is well known that Cholera epidemics are cyclical,
seasonal, and have been reported annually in several Southern African countries including
South Africa. What are the means to Cholera prevention, preparedness and response?
Describe:

a) Its features (morphology) as it would appear under light microscopy. (1)

b) Its pathogenicity i.e. describes the mechanism that causes the symptoms of Cholera and
the symptoms themselves. (5)
c) Describe its diagnosis and what intervention is required on behalf of the patient,
assuming that the disease is self-limiting. (2)
[8]

QUESTION 30
Diagnosing Ebola in a person who has been infected for only a few days is difficult because
the early symptoms, such as fever, are nonspecific to Ebola infection and often are seen in
patients with more common diseases, such as malaria and typhoid fever. Give the list of the
diagnostic tests used to test Ebola.

(5)

[SUB TOTAL: 38]

TOTAL MARKS: 100

END OF EXAMINATION PAPER

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