LMRP NEET MODULE EXAM 9 PHOENIX

Important instructions :

1. The test is 3 hours in duration and the test booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics (Electronics), Chemistry (GOC II (Types of Reactions)),
Botany (Plant Kingdom) and Zoology (Human Health & Diseases). 50 questions in each subjects are
divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below.

(a) Section A shall consist of 35 Questions in each subject.All questions are compulsory
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 numerical questions in each subject. A candidate need to attempt
any 10 questions out of 15.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.

Name of the candidate :

Roll Number :

PHYSICS
(1) 106 m−3 (2) 1022 m−3
SECTION A 1032
(3) m−3 (4) 4.5 × 1022 m−3
4.5 × 1022
1. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a 4. When germanium is doped with phosphorus, the
semiconductor doped material has
(1) Is always positive
(1) Excess positive charge
(2) Is always negative
(3) Is zero (2) Excess negative charge
(4) May be positive, negative or zero (3) More negative current carriers
2. Silicon is a semiconductor. If a small amount of
(4) More positive current carriers
As is added to it, then its electrical conductivity
(1) Decreases 5. In semiconductors, at room temperature
(2) Increases
(1) The valence band is partially empty and the
(3) Remains unchanged
conduction band is partially filled
(4) Becomes zero
(2) The valence band is completely filled and
3. A pure semiconductor has equal electron and
the conduction band is partially filled
hole concentration of 1016 m−3 . Doping by in-
dium increases n h to 4.5 × 1022 m−3 . What is n e (3) The valence band is completely filled
in the doped semiconductor? (4) The conduction band is completely empty

1
 ( )
6. Regarding a semiconductor which one of the fol- 13. In a pure silicon n i = 1016 /m3 crystal at
lowing statements is wrong? 300 K, 1021 atoms of phosphorus are added per
(1) There are no free electrons at room temper- cubic meter. The new hole concentration will
ature. be
(2) There are no free electrons at 0 K. (1) 1021 per m3 (2) 1019 per m3
(3) The number of free electrons increases with (3) 10 per m
11 3
(4) 105 per m3
rise of temperature. 14. Barrier potential of a p − n junction diode does
(4) The charge carriers are electrons and holes. not depend on
7. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap be- (1) mass density (2) Temperature
tween the valence band and conduction band is (3) Forward bias (4) Doping density
of the order of 15. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(1) 1 MeV (2) 5 MeV (1) Lowers the potential barrier
(3) 1 eV (4) 5 eV (2) Raises the potential barrier
8. When N -type of semiconductor is heated, (3) Increases the majority carrier current
(1) Number of electrons increases while that of (4) Decreases the minority carrier current
holes decreases
16. In a p − n junction diode,
(2) Number of holes increases while that of
electrons decreases (1) The current in the reverse biased condition
(3) Number of electrons and holes remains is generally very small
same (2) The current in the reverse biased condition
(4) Number of electrons and holes increases is small but the forward biased current is
equally independent of the bias voltage
9. n e and vd are the number of electrons and drift (3) The reverse biased current is strongly de-
velocity in an intrinsic semiconductor. When pendent on the applied bias voltage
temperature is increased (4) The forward biased current is very small in
(1) n e increases and vd decreases comparison to reverse biased current
(2) n e decreases and vd increases
(3) Both n e and vd increase 17. The electrical resistance of depletion layer is
(4) Both n e and vd decrease large because
10. The energy gap of silicon is 1.14 eV. The maxi- (1) It has no charge carriers
mum wavelength at which silicon will begin ab- (2) It has a large number of charge carriers
sorbing energy is (3) It contains electrons as charge carriers
(1) 10888 Å (2) 1088.8 Å (4) It has holes as charge carriers
(3) 108.88 Å (4) 10.888 Å
18. Zener breakdown in a semiconductor diode oc-
11. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentra- curs when
tion of acceptor atoms is 1021 atoms /m3 . Given (1) Forward current exceeds certain value
that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole (2) Reverse bias exceeds certain value
pairs is 1019 /m3 , the concentration of electrons (3) Forward bias exceeds certain value
in the specimen is (4) Potential barrier is reduced to zero
(1) 1017 /m3 (2) 1015 /m3
(3) 104 /m3 (4) 102 /m3 19. If the two ends p and n of a p − n diode junction
are joined by a wire
12. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semi-
conductor by doping, on an average, one In- (1) There will not be a steady current in the
dium atom per 5 × 107 silicon atoms. If the num- circuit
ber density of atoms in the silicon specimen is
(2) There will be a steady current from n side
5 × 1028 atoms /m3 , then the number of acceptor
to p side
atoms in silicon per cubic centimetre will be
(1) 2.5 × 1030 atoms /cm3 (3) There will be a steady current from p side
(2) 1.0 × 1013 atoms /cm3 to n side
(3) 1.0 × 1015 atoms /cm3 (4) There may not be a current depending upon
(4) 2.5 × 1036 atoms /cm3 the resistance of the connecting wire

2
20. A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists across a p − n 28. The current through an ideal p − n junction
junction. If the depletion region is 5.0 × 10−7 m shown in the following circuit diagram will be
wide, the intensity of the electric field in this re-
gion is
(1) 1.0 × 106 V/m (2) 1.0 × 105 V/m
(3) 2.0 × 10 V/m
5
(4) 2.0 × 106 V/m
21. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is
(1) 100% (2) 25.20%
(3) 40.2% (4) 81.2% (1) Zero (2) 1 mA
22. Which one of the following statements is not cor- (3) 10 mA (4) 30 mA
rect? 29. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across
(1) A diode does not obey Ohm’s law. its junction which does not depend on current, is
connected in series with resistance of 20Ω across
(2) A p − n junction diode symbol shows an
source. If 0.1 A passes through resistance, then
arrow identifying the direction of current
what is the voltage of the source?
(forward) flow.
(3) An ideal diode is an open switch. (1) 1.5 V (2) 2.0 V
(4) An ideal diode is an ideal one way conduc- (3) 2.5 V (4) 5 V
tor. 30. In the following circuit find i 1 and i 2

23. The depletion layer in silicon diode is 1 µm wide

and the knee potential is 0.6 V, then the electric
field in the depletion layer will be
(1) Zero (2) 0.6 V/m
(3) 6 × 10 V/m
4
(4) 6 × 105 V/m
24. Zener diode is used as
(1) Half wave rectifier (1) 0,0 (2) 5 mA, 5 mA
(2) Full wave rectifier
(3) 5 mA, 0 (4) 0, 5 mA
(3) ac voltage stabilizer
(4) dc voltage stabilizer 31. For the given combination of gates, if the logic
states of inputs A, B, C are as follows: A = B =
25. The approximate ratio of resistances in the for-
C = 0 and A = B = 1, C = 0, then the logic states
ward and reverse bias of the p − n junction diode
of output D are respectively
is
(1) 102 : 1 (2) 10−2 : 1
(3) 1 : 10 −4
(4) 1 : 104
26. A p-type semiconductor has acceptor levels
57 meV above the valence band. The maximum
wavelength of light required to create a hole is (1) 0,0 (2) 0,1
(Planck’s constant h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js )
(3) 1,0 (4) 1,1
(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10−3 Å
32. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the
(3) 217100Å (4) 11.61 × 10−33 Å study of truth table it can be found that to pro-
27. The forward biased diode is duce a high output (1) at R , we must have

(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1
(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0

3
33. The figure shows two NAND gates followed by a (1) NAND (2) AND
NOR gate. The system is equivalent to which of (3) XOR (4) OR
the following logic gate?
38. The following truth table belongs to which one
of the following four gates?

A B C
1 1 0
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 1
(1) OR (2) AND
(3) NAND (4) None of these
(1) OR (2) NAND
34. Which of the following is not correct?
(3) XOR (4) NOR
(1) A · B = A + B
39. The combination of the gates shown in the figure
(2) A + B = A · B below produces

(3) ( A · B) · ( A · B) = AB + AB
(4) 1 + 1 = 1
35. Statement I: Zener diode works on a principle
of breakdown voltage.
Statement II: In Zener diode, current increases
suddenly after breakdown voltage.
(1) If both statements are true and statement II
is the correct explanation of statement I . (1) NOR gate (2) OR gate
(3) AND gate (4) XOR gate
(2) If both statements are true but statement II
is not the correct explanation of statement 40. How many NAND gates are used to form an AND
I. gate
(3) If statement I is true but statement II is (1) 1 (2) 2
false. (3) 3 (4) 4
(4) If both statements are false.
41. In semiconductor the concentrations of electrons
SECTION B and holes are 8 × 1018 /m3 and 5 × 1018 /m3 , respec-
tively. If the mobilities of electrons and holes
36. With reference to figure, which of the following
are 2.3 m2 /Vs and 0.01 m2 /Vs, respectively, then
is possible?
semiconductor is
(1) N -type and its resistivity is 0.34Ωm
(2) P -type and its resistivity is 0.034Ωm
(3) N -type and its resistivity is 0.034Ωm
(4) P -type and its resistivity is 3.40Ωm

42. In the circuit shown in figure, current in the 4 Ω

resistor is (Treat diodes to be ideal)
(1) A = 0, B = 0, X = 1 (2) A = 0, B = 1, X = 0
(3) A = 1, B = 0, X = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
37. The following truth table corresponds to the
logic gate:

A B X
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1 (1) 2 A (2) 3 A
1 1 1 (3) 12/7 A (4) 30/13 A

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43. The contribution in the total current flowing (4) If both statements are false.
through a semiconductor due to electrons and
48. Statement I: Electron has higher mobility than
holes are 34 and 14 , respectively. If the drift ve-
hole in a semiconductor.
locity of electrons is 52 times that of holes at this
Statement II: Mass of electron is less than the
temperature, then the ratio of concentration of
mass of hole.
electrons and holes is
(1) 6 : 5 (2) 5 : 6 (1) If both statements are true and statement II
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 is the correct explanation of statement I .
(2) If both statements are true but statement II
44. In the energy band diagram of a material shown
is not the correct explanation of statement
below, the open circles and filled circles denote
I.
holes and electrons respectively. The material is
a/an (3) If statement I is true but statement II is
false.
(4) If both statements are false.

49. Statement I: NAND or NOR gates are called dig-

ital building blocks.
Statement II: The repeated use of NAND (or
NOR) gates can produce all the basic or com-
plicated gates.
(1) If both statements are true and statement II
is the correct explanation of statement I .
(2) If both statements are true but statement II
is not the correct explanation of statement
I.
(1) p-type semiconductor (3) If statement I is true but statement II is
(2) insulator false.
(3) metal (4) If both statements are false.
(4) n-type semiconductor
50. In the given circuit as shown, the two input
45. At p − n photodiode is made of a material with a waveforms A and B are applied simultaneously.
band gap of 2.0eV. The minimum frequency of The resultant waveform Y is
the radiation that can be absorbed by the mate-
rial is nearly
(1) 10 × 1014 Hz (2) 5 × 1014 Hz
(3) 1 × 10 Hz
14
(4) 20 × 1014 Hz
46. At 0 K temperature, a p-type semiconductor
(1) has few holes and few free electrons
(2) has equal numbers of holes and free electrons
(3) has few holes but no free electrons
(4) does not have any charge carrier
47. Statement I: If the temperature of a semicon-
ductor is increased, then its resistance decreases.
Statement II: The energy gap between conduc-
tion band and valence band in a semiconductor
is very small.
(1) If both statements are true and statement II
is the correct explanation of statement I .
(2) If both statements are true but statement II
is not the correct explanation of statement
I.
(3) If statement I is true but statement II is (1) (a) (2) (b)
false. (3) (c) (4) (d)

5
 CHEMISTRY
56. X & Y are respectively?

SECTION A

51. Which of the following statements is/are true

about an electrophile?

(a) Electron deficient species (1) 3-Methylbutan-1-ol & 2-Methylbutan-2-ol.

(b) An acidic reagent (2) 3-Methylbutan-3-ol & 2-Methylbutan-1-ol.
(c) A reagent which attacks an electron defi- (3) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol & 3-Methylbutan-1-ol.
cient site in a molecule (4) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol & 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(d) A species which seeks a pair of electrons.
57. What is the product formed when ethylene on
(1) b only (2) a, b & d only reaction with cold concentrated sulphuric acid?
(3) a, c & d only (4) all are true (1) Propylhydrogensulphate
(2) Propan-2-ol
52. Which of the following can undergo elec- (3) Ethanol
trophilic addition? (4) Ethylhydrogensulphate
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene
(c) Benzene (d) Ethane 58. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) All except c (2) a, b & c only (a) Halogenation : Halonium ion
(3) a & b only (4) d only (b) Nitration : Nitronium ion
(c) Sulphonation : SO3 H+
53. Out of the following, the one containing only nu- (d) Reimer Tiemann reaction : : CCl2
cleophiles is (1) a, b & d only
(1) AlCl3 , BF3 , NH3 (2) NH3 , Cl− , C2 H5 OH (2) a & b only
(3) AlCl3 , NH2 , Br
− −
(4) RNH2 , R2 NH, : CCl2 (3) d only
(4) All are correctly matched.
54.
59. Name the products formed when benzene is
treated with excess of chlorine in presence of
anhy.AlCl3 and in presence of UV or 500 K re-
spectively?
(1) Hexachlorobenzene & Benzene hexachloride
(2) Benzene hexachloride & Hexachlorobenzene
(3) Chlorobenzene & Benzene hexachloride
(4) Chlorobenzene & Hexachlorobenzene

60. How many of the following will give only ortho

and para derivative during nitration?
55. The major product of the reaction

(1) 4 (2) 1

(1) (I) (2) (II) (3) 3 (4) 2

(3) (III) (4) (IV)

6
61. Which of the following reagents can be used for (1) Chlorobenzene and sodium methoxide.
the preparation of cumene? (2) Chlorobenzene and sodium ethoxide.
(3) Ethyl bromide and sodium phenoxide.
(1) Benzene and n-propyl chloride in presence
(4) Methyl bromide and sodium phenoxide.
of anhy. AlCl3 .
(2) Benzene and isopropyl chloride in presence 66. Identify A and mechanism of the reaction?
of anhy. AlCl3 .
(3) Phenol and air or O2
(4) Both (1) & (2)

62. How many of the following does not undergo

Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(a) Benzene (b) Anisole
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Aniline
(e) Chlorobenzene
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 2

63. A,B & C are respectively?

(1) Acetanilide, Sulphanilic acid &

m-Bromophenol.
(2) Aspirin, Sulphanilic acid &
m-Bromophenol.
(3) Acetanilide, Sulphanilic acid &
2,4,6-Tribromophenol.
(4) Acetanilide, Sulphanilic acid & 67. (CH3 )3 C − OCH3 can be prepared from?
2,4,6-Tribromoaniline. (1) Ethyl bromide and sodium tert-butoxide.
(2) Tert-butyl bromide and sodium methoxide.
64. B, X&Q are respectively
(3) Methyl bromide and sodium tert-butoxide.
(4) Neopentyl bromide and sodium methoxide.

68. Bromoethane react with alco.AgCN and alco.

(1) 4-methoxyacetophenone, 4-nitroanisole
4-bromoanisole.
(2) 4-methoxyacetophenone, 2 -nitroanisole
4-bromoanisole.
(3) 2-methoxyacetophenone, 2-nitroanisole
4-bromoanisole.
(4) 2-methoxy acetophenone, 4-nitroanisole
4-bromoanisole.
65. C6 H5 OCH3 can be prepared from?
KCN separately. The major products in each re-
action are P and Q respectively. Identify P & Q?
(1) Ethyl carbylamine & Propanenitrile.
(2) Ethyl carbylamine & Ethanenitrile.
(3) Propyl carbylamine & Ethanenitrile.
&
(4) Propyl carbylamine & Propanenitrile.
& 69. Ethyl chloride react with alco.AgNO2 and alco.
KNO2 separately. The major products in each re-
& action are X and Y respectively. Identify X &Y?
(1) Nitroethane & Ethyl nitrate.
& (2) Ethyl nitrite & Nitroethane.
(3) Nitroethane & Ethyl nitrite.
(4) Ethyl nitrate & Nitroethane.

7
70. Which of the following is correct?
(1) Chlorobenzene is less reactive towards nu-
cleophilic substitution than chloroethane.
(2) Nitro derivative of chlorobenzene is more
reactive than chlorobenzene towards nucle-
ophilic substitution.
(3) In case of haloarenes, the phenyl cation
formed will not be stabilised by resonance
and therefore, nucleophilic substitution via
SN 1 mechanism is ruled out.
(4) Presence of electron withdrawing group in-
creases the reactivity of haloarenes towards
nucleophilic substitution.
(1) a, c & d only (2) b, c & d only
(3) c only (4) All are correct.
75. The reaction of phenyl magnesium bromide with
ethanal followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) 2-Phenylethanol (2) 1-Phenylethanol
(3) 2-Ethylphenol (4) 4-Ethylphenol
76. Identify the product formed when formaldehyde
reacts with one equivalent of ethanol?
(1) CH2 (OC2 H5 )2 (2) CH3 − O − C2 H5
(3) CH2 (OH) (OC2 H5 ) (4) C2 H5 − O − C2 H5
77. Assertion (A): Reaction of acetone with ethy-
lene glycol is carried out in presence of dry HCl
gas.
Reason (R): Dry HCl protonates the oxygen
atom of acetone and increases the electrophilic-
ity of the carbonyl carbon facilitating the nucle-
ophilic attack of ethylene glycol.

71. Arrange the following compounds in the order of (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-
reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution via rect statements, and Reason (R) is the cor-
SN 2 mechanism? rect explanation of the Assertion (A).
(a) C6 H5 C (CH3 ) (C6 H5 ) Br (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-
(b) C6 H5 CH (C6 H5 ) Br rect statements, but Reason (R) is not the
(c) C6 H5 CH (CH3 ) Br correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(d) C6 H5 CH2 Br
(3) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is
(1) a < b < c < d (2) a > b > c > d
incorrect statement.
(3) a < c < b < d (4) a > c > b > d
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
72. Ethyl benzoate is obtained by the reaction be- correct statement.
tween
(1) Silver ethanoate and chlorobenzene. 78. Assertion (A): Peroxide effect is not observed in
(2) Silver benzoate and chloroethane. the addition HI to propene.
(3) Benzoic acid and Methanol. Reason (R): H − I bond is weaker and iodine free
(4) Ethanoic acid and Phenol. radicals combine to form iodine molecules in-
stead of adding to the double bond.
73.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-
rect statements, and Reason (R) is the cor-
rect explanation of the Assertion (A).
on heating with HI
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-
gives.
rect statements, but Reason (R) is not the
(1) Iodobenzene & Phenol.
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(2) Iodobenzene & Benzyl alcohol.
(3) Benzal iodide & Phenol. (3) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is
(4) Benzyl iodide & Phenol. incorrect statement.
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
74. Arrange the following compounds in the order correct statement.
of their reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
reactions. 79. 2-Bromobutane is treated with alcoholic KOH
(a) Benzaldehyde solution. The major product formed in this re-
(b) p-Tolualdehyde action and the types of reaction respectively are
(c) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde (1) But-1-ene, β-elimination.
(d) Acetophenone. (2) But-1-ene, nucleophilic substitution.
(1) d < b < a < c (2) d > b > a > c (3) But-2-ene, β-elimination.
(3) d < a < b < c (4) d > a > b > c (4) But-2-ene, nucleophilic substitution.

8
80. Hydrolysis of (+)-2-bromobutane results in the 85.
formation of
(1) (+)-Butan-2-ol
(2) (-)-Butan-2-ol
(3) Mixture of (+)-Butan-2-0l & (-)-Butan-2-ol Identify A?
(4) But-2-ene

81. Assertion (A): The σ complex or arenium ion

formed during electrophilic substitution reac-
tion of benzene is aromatic in nature.
Reason (R): In the σ complex or arenium ion
formed, one of the carbon atoms of the ring is
sp3 hybridised.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-

rect statements, and Reason (R) is the cor-
rect explanation of the Assertion (A). SECTION B

(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are cor-

86. Which of the following is correct?
rect statements, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is
incorrect statement.
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
correct statement.
82. Arrange the following compounds in the order of
reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution via
SN 1 mechanism?
(a) Phenol gives a white precipitate of 2,4,6-
tribromophenol when treated with bromine
water.
(b) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile.
(c) In p-nitrophenol there is intermolecular hy-
drogen bonding.
(d) When phenol is treated with concentrated
sulphuric acid phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid
is obtained.

(a) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br (1) a, c & d only

(2) b, c & d only
(b) CH3 CH2 CH(Br)CH3
(3) b & d only
(c) (CH3 )3 CBr (4) All are correct.
(d) (CH3 )2 CHCH2 Br
87. Which of the following is correct?
(1) a < b < d < c (2) a > b > d > c
(a) Activating effect of NH2 group is controlled
(3) a < d < b < c (4) a > c > b > d by protecting the NH2 group by acetylation
with acetic anhydride.
83. Identify the product formed in the reaction
(b) In strongly acidic medium, nitration of ani-
between CH3 − CH = CH − CHO with semicar-
line results in the formation of only m-
bazide?
nitroaniline.
(1) CH3 − CH = CH − CH = NCONHNH2 (c) In the strongly acidic medium, aniline is
(2) CH3 − CH = CH − CH = NNHCONH2 protonated to form the anilinium ion which
is meta directing.
(3) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH = NCONHNH2
(d) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
(4) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH = NNHCONH2 reaction due to salt formation with alu-
minium chloride, the Lewis acid,
84. Which of the following is not obtained during
chlorination of methane (1) a, c & d only
(1) CH2 Cl2 (2) a, b & c only
(2) CH3 CH3
(3) CH3 CH2 CH3 (3) a & c only
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) All are correct

9
88. Which of the following is correctly matched? 92. Consider the following reactions:

(1) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S

(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q Which of these reactions are possible?
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (A) and (B)
89. How many of the following compounds gives (3) (B) and (D) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
similar products obeying Markovnikov’s rule
and peroxide effect? 93. Which of the following alkyl halides will un-
(a) CH3 − CH = CH2 dergo S N 1 reaction most readily
(b) CH3 CH = CH − CH3 (1) (CH3 )3 C − F
(c) C2 H5 − CH = CH − CH2 − CH3 (2) (CH3 )3 C − Cl
(d) C2 H5 − CH = CH2 (3) (CH3 )3 C − Br
(1) 4 (2) 3 (4) (CH3 )3 C − I
(3) 1 (4) 2
94. Identify the correct order of reactivity in elec-
90. Which of the following is incorrect? trophilic substitution reaction of the following
compounds:
(a) Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium
permanganate is called Baeyer’s reagent.
(b) Ethene on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent
gives ethanol.
(c) Ethane and ethene can be distinguished by
(1) I > II > III > IV > V
using Baeyer’s reagent.
(2) IV > III > II > I > V
(d) Ethene and ethyne cannot be distinguished (3) III > V > II > I > IV
by Baeyer’s reagent. (4) II > III > I > IV > V

(1) a, c & d only

95. Formation of transition state is a characteristic
(2) c & d only
of
(3) b only
(1) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(4) all are incorrect
(2) SN 1 reaction
(3) SN 2 reaction
91. Which of the following gives a ketone when
(4) Free radical substitution.
treated with water in presence of mercuric sul-
phate and dilute sulphuric acid at 333 K ?
96. Which of the following does not give isocyanide
(a) Propyne (b) Ethyne test
(c) Butyne (d) Ethane (1) Aniline
(2) Methanamine
(1) b only (2) a & c only (3) N-methylmethanamine
(3) a, c & d only (4) all are incorrect (4) Ethanamine

10
 97. (1) Biphenyl (2) Diphenylmethane
(3) Naphthalene (4) Mesitylene

99. Ortho and para nitrophenols are separated by

(1) Crystallisation (2) Steam distillation.
(3) Sublimation (4) Chromatography
X, Y, Z are the percentage yield. Which of the
100. The order of reactivity of the following com-
following is correct?
pounds towards dehydration is?
(1) X > Z > Y (2) Z > Y > X
(a) (CH3 )2 CHCH2 OH
(3) Y = Z > X (4) X < Z < Y
(b) (CH3 )3 COH
98. In the reaction (c) (CH3 )2 CHCH2 CH2 OH
(d) CH3 CH(OH)CH2 CH3
(1) b < d < c < a (2) b > d > c > a
(3) b < d < a < c (4) b > d > a > c

BOTANY
(3) Sexual characters are not considered
SECTION A
(4) Fossil evidence is needed.
101. Natural system of classification was based on
105. The taxonomy based on chromosome number
i) Ultra structure
and behaviour is
ii) Anatomy
(1) Chemotaxonomy
iii) External features
(2) Cytotaxonomy
iv) Embryology
(3) Numerical taxonomy
v) Phytochemistry
(4) Phytotaxonomy
(1) iii only
(2) i, ii, iv and v only
106. Which of the following is a filamentous algae
(3) i, ii, iii and iv only
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(4) All of these
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Chlorella
102. Correct statement about phylogenetic system of
107. Fusion between large non motile female gamete
classification
and smaller motile male gamete is called
(1) Organism belonging to the same taxa do not (1) Isogamous (2) Anisogamous
have a common ancestor. (3) Oogamous (4) Both 1 and 2
(2) Fossil evidence is not needed.
(3) Based on evolutionary relationship 108. Algin and carrageen are obtained from
(1) Brown algae, red algae respectively
(4) Both 2 and 3
(2) Green algae, brown algae respectively
103. When there is no fossil evidence, the following (3) Red algae, green algae respectively
can be used (4) Red algae, brown algae respectively.
(1) Numerical taxonomy
109. Agar-agar is obtanied from
(2) Cytotaxonomy
(1) Polysiphonia, Gelidium
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(2) Gelidium, Gracilaria
(4) All of these
(3) Gelidium, Laminaria
104. Numerical taxonomy (4) Dictyota, Gracilaria

(1) Based on all observable characters 110. Marine algae used as food
(2) Morphological characters are not more (1) Porphyra (2) Laminaria
important (3) Sargassum (4) All of these

11
111. Cell wall of chlorophyceae is made up of (3) Fungus with root of cycas
(1) Inner cellulose, outer pectose (4) Fungus with root of pinus
(2) Outer cellulose, inner pectose
(3) Outer pectose, inner polysulphate ester 120. Natural system of classification was proposed by
(4) Inner cellulose, outer polysulphate ester (1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
112. Simple branched filamentous brown algae (3) Bentham and Hooker
(1) Dictyota (2) Ectocarpus (4) Carl Woese
(3) Laminaria (4) Sargassum
121. The male and female reproductive organs of
113. Laminarin or mannitol are bryophyte are
(1) Protein
(2) Carbohydrate (1) Antheridium and archegonium respectively
(3) Cellulose (2) Sporophyte and gametophyte respectively
(4) Polysulphate esters (3) Archegonium and antheridium
respectively
114. The protoplast of phaeophyceae contain
(1) Plastid (4) Gametophyte and sporophyte respectively
(2) Centrally located vacuole
122. Sphagnum is known as
(3) Both 1 and 2
(1) Coco peat (2) Peat moss
(4) None of these
(3) Edible moss (4) Club moss
115. Floridean starch is similar to
123. Plant body of marchantia
(1) Amylopectin and Glycogen
(1) Thalloid
(2) Glycogen and Cellulose
(2) Dorsiventral
(3) Starch and Cellulose
(3) Closely appressed to the substrate
(4) Cellulose and Pectose.
(4) All of the above
116. Select red algae from the following
124. Mosses are attached to the substratum by
i) Spirogyra ii) Sargassum
(1) Multicellular branched rhizoids
iii) Gracilaria iv) Polysiphonia
(2) Multicellular unbranched rhizoids
v) Laminaria vi) Porphyra
(3) Unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(1) i, ii, iii and vi only
(4) Unicellular rhizoids
(2) iii, iv and vi only
(3) iv, v and vi only
125. The first terrestrial vascular plants that possess
(4) All of the above
vascular tissues
(1) Bryophyte (2) Pteridophyte
117. Artificial system of classification
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm
(1) Based on vegetative characters only
(2) Based on sexual characters only 126. Selaginella possess
(3) Give equal weightage to vegetative and i) Cones / strobili ii) Microphyll
sexual characters iii) Microspore iv) Macrospore
(4) Do not consider sexual characters
(1) i, ii and iii (2) i, ii and iv
118. Vegetative characters are ......... by environment (3) i, iii and iv (4) All of the above
(1) Not affected
(2) Easily affected 127. Pteridophytes are limited to narrow
(3) Slightly affected geographical area because
(4) Rarely affected (1) They live in sandy soil condition

119. Mycorrhiza is association of (2) They need water for fertilization

(1) Algae with root of cycas (3) They possess vascular bundles
(2) Algae with root of pinus (4) Their plant body is well differentiated

12
128. Heterosporous condition is found in (1) Most common asexual spore in algae is
(1) Salvinia (2) Adiantum zoospore.
(3) Equisetum (4) Salvia (2) Sexual reproduction takes place by fusion
of gametes.
129. Prothallus is
(3) The gametes are dissimilar in size in
(1) Gametophyte of Pteridophyte
Eudorina.
(2) Gametophyte of Bryophyte
(4) Zoospores are non- flagellated gametes.
(3) Sporophyte of Pteridophyte
(4) Sporophyte of Bryophyte
SECTION B
130. The ovule of gymnosperm is
136. Statement I: Certain marine and freshwater red
(1) Not covered before fertilization but covered algae produce large amount of hydrocolloids.
after fertilization Statement II: Agar is used in preparation of ice
(2) Not covered before and after fertilization cream and jellies.
(3) Covered before and after fertilization (1) Statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Covered before fertilization and not (2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect
covered after fertilization
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect
131. The reduced male gametophyte of gymnosperm
is called (4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
(1) Macrospore (2) Megaspore correct
(3) Pollen grain (4) Strobili
137. The zygote of pteridophyte produces a
132. The nucellus is protected by envelopes and the (1) Multicellular well - differentiated
composite structure is called gametophyte
(1) Ovule (2) Multicellular well - differentiated
(2) Megaspore mother cell sporophyte
(3) Ovary
(3) Multicellular less - differentiated
(4) Female strobili
gametophyte
133. Female gametophyte of gymnosperm bears (4) Prothallus

(1) Single archegonia with single egg 138. Choose the incorrect statement from the
(2) Two or more archegonia with single egg in following
each (1) Mosses along with lichens are the first
(3) Two of more archegonia with more than organism to colonise rocks.
one egg in each (2) Liverworts decomposes rocks making the
(4) No archegonia surface suitable for the growth of higher
plants.
134. In Cycas (3) Bryophytes are economically less
important.
(1) Male and female cones are borne of same
tree (4) Mosses provide food for herbaceous
mammals, birds and other animals.
(2) Male and female cones are borne of
different tree
139. Statement I: In majority of pteridophytes all
(3) Male cone and megasporophyll are borne spores are of similar kinds
on same tree Statement II: In gymnosperms male and female
(4) Female cone and megasporophyll are borne spores are of different kinds
on different tree (1) Statement I and II are correct
(2) Statement I and II are incorrect
135. Choose the incorrect statement from the (3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
following (4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct

13
140. Choose the incorrect statement from the
following.
(1) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(2) The roots of gymnosperms are generally tap
roots.
(3) Roots of pinus shows association with
fungus called mycorrhiza.
(4) The stems are branched in case of cycas and
unbranched in case of cedrus.
141. Equisetum belongs to the class of pteridophytes
called
(1) Pteropsida
(2) Lycopsida
(3) Psilopsida
(4) Sphenopsida
142. Select the incorrect statement from the
following
(1) The chloroplast of chlorophyceae may be
discoid, plate like, reticulate, cup shaped,
spiral or ribbon -shaped in different species.
(2) The plant body of phaeophyceae is divided
into hold fast, stipe and frond.
(3) Rhodophyceae occur in both well lighted
region close to the surface of water and also
at great depth where more light penetrate.
(4) Sexual reproduction shows considerable
variation in the type of formation of sex cell
in case of chlorophyceae.
143. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Leafy members of liverworts have fine, leaf
like appendages in two rows on the true
stem.
(2) In mosses, the leafy stage develops from
secondary protonema.
(3) Leafy stage consists of upright, slender axis
bearing spirally arranged leaves.
(4) Leafy stage bear sex organs.
144. Find out the correct statement about
pteridophyte
(1) The sporophyte bear sporangia that are
subtended by leaf like appendage called
sporophyll.
(2) The spore germinate to give rise to
conspicuous, small but multicellular free
living thalloid gametophyte.
14
(3) The sporophyte bear male and female sex
organ. The male sex organ is called
antheridia and female sex organ is called
archegonia are free living.
(4) In all pteridophytes, male and female
spores are of different kinds.
145. (i) Pollen tube formation
(ii) Pollen grains are carried by air current
(iii) Pollen grain come in contact with ovule
(iv) Fertilization
(v) Male gamete reaches to mouth of
archegonium
(vi) Formation of seed
Correct order of the event
(1) iii → ii → v → i → iv → vi
(2) ii → iii → v → i → iv → vi
(3) ii → iii → i → v → iv → vi
(4) iii −→ ii → i → v → iv → vi
146. Match the following columns.
I II
A - Hold fast p - Equisetum
B - Rhizoid q - Fucus
C - Rhizome r - Ginkgo
D - Seed s - Funaria
(1) A − q, B − p, C − s, D − r
(2) A − q, B − s, C − p, D − r
(3) A − p, B − s, C − q, D − r
(4) A − q, B − s, C − r, D − p
147. Assertion (A): Red algae can flourish well at
great depth in ocean.
Reason (R): They have a dominent pigment
called r phycoerythrin.
(1) Both Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R ) are true
and the Reason (R ) is the correct
explanation of Assertion( A )
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is
false
(4) Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R) is
true
148. Assertion (A): Sphagnum provide peat that
have a capacity to hold water.
Reason (R): Mosses form dense mats on the soil,
they reduce the impact of falling rain and
prevent soil erosion.
 (1) Both Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R ) are true
and the Reason (R ) is the correct
explanation of Assertion( A )
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is
false
(4) Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R) is
true
149. Assertion (A): Seed habit is considered as an
important step in evolution.
Reason (R): Female gametophytes in these
plants are retained on the parent sporophyte for
variable period.
(1) Both Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R ) are true
and the Reason (R ) is the correct
explanation of Assertion( A )
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion (A)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION A
151. Which of the following is/are not correct about
pathogens?
(1) The pathogens enter our body by various
means, multiply and interfere with normal
vital activities resulting in morphological
and functional damage
(2) Most parasites are pathogens,as they harm
the host
(3) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the
environment of the host
(4) Pathogens that enter gut should survive the
high pH of stomach and various digestive
enzymes
152. The following is/are symptoms of typhoid
except
(1) Sustained high fever (39◦ − 40◦ C), and
headache
(2) Stomach pain and constipation
(3) Lips and fingernails may turn gray to bluish
(4) Intestinal perforation and death , in severe
cases
15
(3) Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is
false
(4) Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R) is
true
150. Assertion (A): Following fertilization, zygote
develops into embryo and the ovule into seed
and the seed is not covered in Gymnosperm
Reason (R): The pollentube carrying the male
gamete grows towards archegonia in the ovule
and discharge their content near the mouth of
archegonia
(1) Both Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R ) are true
and the Reason (R ) is the correct
explanation of Assertion( A )
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is
false
(4) Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R) is
true
153. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by ———–?
(1) Mantoux test
(2) Northern blot
(3) Widal Test
(4) Southern blot
154. Which of the following statement about common
cold is wrong
(1) Caused by Rhino viruses
(2) Symptoms may last for 3-7 days
(3) Transmitted through contaminated
droplets/aerosols
(4) Rhino viruses infect nose, respiratory
passage and the lungs
155. Which of the following form of malaria is most
serious and can be fatal?
(1) Benign malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax
(2) Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium
falciparum
(3) Quartan malaria, caused by Plasmodium
malariae
(4) Both (1) and (2)
156. The incorrect statement regarding the life cycle (4) All of the above
of Plasmodium is:
162. Match the following
(1) Rupture of RBC is associated with the
release of a toxic substance, haemozoin. Disease Pathogen
(A) Amoebiasis (1) Microsporum
(2) Haemozoin is responsible for chills and
(B) Ascariasis (2) Ascaris lumbricoides
fever, recurring every 3 − 4 days
(C) Elephantiasis (3) Wuchereria malayi
(3) Sporozoites are stored in the salivary glands
(D) Ringworms (4) Entamoeba histolytica
of infected female Anopheles
(4) The parasite initially multiply in RBC and (1) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
then attack liver cells (2) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(3) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
157. Sexual stages (Gametocytes) of malarial parasite (4) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
develop in ———–
163. Which of the following is a set of vector-borne
(1) Liver cells
diseases?
(2) Red blood cells
(3) Salivary glands of Anophel es
(4) Gut of Anopheles (1) Plague, Diphtheria, Malaria, Filariasis
(2) Dengue fever, Chikungunya, Malaria,
158. Fertilisation and development of Plasmodium Amoebiasis
take place in ————
(1) Human liver cells (3) Dengue fever, Chikungunya, Malaria,
(2) Human RBC Filariasis
(3) Mosquito’s salivary glands (4) Ascariasis, Ringworms, Filariasis,
(4) Mosquito’s gut Amoebiasis

159. Which of the following statements about 164. Match the following diseases with their mode of
’ascariasis’ is wrong? transmission
(1) It is caused by a Protozoan, Ascaris
(2) Symptoms include internal bleeding,
muscular pain, fever and blockage of
intestinal passage
(3) The eggs of the parasite are excreted along
with the faeces of infected person
(4) A healthy person acquires this infection
through contaminated fruits, vegetables,
water etc.
(1) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
(2) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
160. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts
(3) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
of the body like skin, nails and scalp and these
(4) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
lesions are accompanied by intense itching,
occur in :
165. Match the following
(1) Malaria (2) Elephantiasis
(3) Ringworms (4) Amoebiasis

161. Diseases like malaria and filariasis are prevented

by
(1) Elimination of vectors and their breeding
places
(2) Avoiding stagnation of water
(3) Introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds
that feed on mosquito larvae

16
 (1) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 172. A vaccine generate memory cells of following
(2) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 lymphocytes
(3) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(1) B-cells (2) T-cells
(4) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
(3) Natural killer cells (4) Both (1) and (2)
166. The following statements are related to
secondary immune response except: 173. Hepatitis B vaccine is an example of ———

(1) It is due to memory of the first encounter
(2) Intensified and quick response
(3) Occur during subsequent encounter with
the pathogen
(4) Also called amnestic response
(1) Killed vaccine or inactivated vaccine
(2) Live or attenuated vaccine
(3) Toxoid that contain detoxified toxin
(4) Recombinant vaccine produced from yeast
174. The wrong statement about allergy is :

167. The incorrect statement about antibody is :
(1) Each antibody molecule consists of 4
peptide chains
(2) Peptide chains include 2 long light chains
and 2 short heavy chains
(3) Structure of antibody is stabilised by
several disulphide bonds
(4) Antibody (Ig) is represented as H2 L2
(1) Common examples of allergens are mites in
dust, pollens and animal dander.
(2) Symptoms include sneezing, watery eyes,
difficulty in breathing etc.
(3) It is due to release of histamine and
serotonin by macrophages
(4) The use of drugs like antihistamine,
adrenalin and steroids give quick relief
from symptoms of allergy

168. The following lymphocyte produce antibodies 175. Identify the wrong statement
(1) Natural killer cells
(1) Immune system attack foreign cells
(2) B-cells
(2) For determining the cause of allergy,
(3) Cytotoxic T-cells patient is exposed to small dose of possible
(4) T Helpers allergens
(3) Ig E mediates allergic reaction
169. Active immunity is due to: (4) Passive immunity is slow and takes time to
(1) Transfer of readymade antibodies give its full effective response

(2) Exposure to antigens which may be in the
form of living (or) dead microbes or other
proteins
(3) Transfer of antibodies through colostrum
(4) Antibodies that pass through placenta
170. The examples of passive immunity do not
include:
176. The following are examples of auto immune
disorders except:
(1) Myasthenia gravis,Grave’s Disease
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis,Vitiligo
(3) Type I diabetes mellitus, Psoriasis
(4) Muscular dystrophy ,Haemophilia

(1) Transfer of antibodies through colostrum 177. Find the true statements
(2) Transfer of antibodies through placenta (1) In amoebiasis, house flies act as vectors
(3) Antibodies formed due to exposure to (2) Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
antigens protozoans that cause ringworms
(4) Antivenom injection and ATS injection
(3) Cannabinoids are hallucinogens that binds
to their receptors in brain
171. Which class of antibodies can cross placenta?
(4) Mucus coating of the epithelium that lines
(1) Ig G (2) Ig M respiratory tract, GI tract and urinogenital
(3) Ig E (4) Ig A tract are physiological barriers

17
178. Function (s) of primary lymphoid organs include
all the following except:
(1) Origin and maturation of lymphocytes
(2) Proliferation of lymphocytes to form
effector cells
(3) Immature lymphocytes differentiate into
antigen sensitive lymphocytes
(4) Provide microenvironment for the
development and maturation of
T-lymphocytes
179. The following are secondary lymphoid organs
except:
(1) Spleen and MALT
(2) Lymph nodes and vermiform appendix
(3) Tonsils and peyer’s patches of small
intestine
(4) Thymus and Bone marrow
180. Function of secondary lymphoid organs are ……
(1) Sites for the interaction of lymphocytes
with antigens
(2) Lymphocytes proliferate to become effector
cells
(3) Origin and maturation of lymphocytes
(4) Both (1) and (2)
181. What is not true about anabolic steroids?
(1) A class of hormones related to hormone
testosterone
(2) Prolonged use can cause increase in testicle
size and sperm production
(3) Increases protein synthesis, muscle mass
and bone growth
(4) They cause virilism in females
182. Spleen:
(1) Respond to tissue fluid or lymph borne
antigens
(2) Is the site for maturation of lymphocytes
(3) Site for differentiation of lymphocytes
(4) Acts as a filter of blood by trapping blood
borne antigens
183. One of the following statement is wrong about
lymphoid organs
(1) MALT is associated with the lining of
GI tract,respiratory tract and urinogenital
tract
18
(2) The thymus is quite large at the time of
birth but keeps on reducing in size with age
(3) Spleen is a large reservoir of RBC
(4) MALT constitutes more than 50% of
lymphoid tissue
184. Find the wrong option about HIV
(1) HIV is a retrovirus
(2) It is an enveloped virus
(3) Contains one molecule of Reverse
transcriptase enzyme
(4) Contains RNA genome
185. What is the time-lag between HIV infection and
appearance of AIDS symptoms?
(1) 2-5 years
(2)Few months to many years
(3) 10-15 years
(4) 15-20 years
SECTION B
186. Cancer/Tumor is due to loss of:
(1) Contact inhibition
(2) Regulatory mechanism of cell division
(3) Ability to form neoplasm and exhibit
metastasis
(4) Both (1) and (2)
187. Read the following statements and choose the
incorrect statement
(1) Mucus membrane lines the respiratory
tract, urinogenital tract and the GI tract
(2) Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears
from eyes prevent microbial growth
(3) Interferons are lipids secreted by virus
infected cells
(4) ATS injection and antivenom injections
introduce preformed antibodies fo provide
passive immunisation
188. Which type of tumors remain confined to their
original location and cause little damage?
(1) Malignant tumors (2) Benign tumors
(3) Sarcoma (4) Carcinoma
189. Ionising radiations like x-rays and gamma rays
and non ionising radiations like U.V belongs to
(1) Physical carcinogens
(2) Chemical carcinogens
(3) Biological carcinogens
(4) Cellular oncogenes
190. Identify the correct statements regarding HIV
infection
A. HIV infects T-helper cells only
B. Through anti - retroviral therapy, AIDS can
be completely cured
C. HIV exploits the protien synthetic
machinery of the host cell, for the synthesis
of viral proteins
D. Reverse transcriptase is an RNA dependent
DNA polymerase
(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both C and D are true
(3) Both B and C are true
(4) Both A and C are true
191. The following statement is wrong about cancer
detection and diagnosis
(1) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and
histopathological studies of the tissue
(2) Techniques like radiography, CT
(Computed Tomography) and MRI
(Magnetic Resonance Imaging) are used to
detect internal cancers
(3) MRI uses strong magnetic fields and
ionising radiations to accurately detect
pathological and physiological changes in
living tissue
(4) Antibodies against cancer specific antigens
are also used for detection of certain
cancers
192. In immunotherapy for cancer treatment,
substances called biological response modifiers
such as ——— are used
(1) α - interferons
(2) Vincristine, Vinblastine
(3) X -rays and gamma rays
(4) Chemotherapeutic drugs
(1) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(2) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(3) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
(4) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
194. All of the following are true regarding heroin or
smack except
(1) Synthesised by the acetylation of morphine
(2) Has receptors in GI tract and CNS
(3) White, Odourless, bitter crystalline
compound
(4) Heroin is a stimulant
195. Morphine is extracted from
(1) Inflorescence of Cannabis sativa
(2) Latex of Papaver somniferum
(3) Coca plant, Erythroxylum coca
(4) Clavicepsis purpureus, a fungus
196. Find odd one with reference of cocaine?
(1) Obtained from Erythroxylum coca, native to
South America
(2) Interferes with transport of
neurotransmitter dopamine
(3) Stimulating effect on CNS & produce sense
of euphoria
(4) Excessive dosage of cocaine causes sedation
197. Tobacco use is not associated with:
(1) Nicotine is an alkaloid, that stimulate
release of catecholamines which increases
blood pressure
(2) Increases the chances for lung and urinary
bladder cancers and also causes bronchitis,
emphysema, coronary heart disease.
(3) Increases carbon monoxide content in
blood and reduce oxygen carrying capacity
of haemoglobin
(4) Decreases heart rate and increases the
amount of haem bound oxygen, in blood

193. Match the following 198. What are the side effects of the use of
anabolic steroids in females?
(a) Masculinisation
(b) Increased aggressiveness
(c) Premature baldness
(d) Breast enlargement
(e) Excessive hair growth on face
(f) Mood swings
(1) All (2) a, b, e and f
(3) a, b, c, & e (4) a, c, d and e

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199. Assertion: Sporozoites enter human blood
through the bite of infected female
Anopheles mosquito, through its saliva
Reason: Sporozoites are the infectious forms of
Plasmodium that are stored in the salivary glands
of female Anopheles
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
reason is the correct explanation for
assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion
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(3) Assertion is correct & Reason is wrong
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
200. Identify the wrong statement.
(1) T cells do not secrete antibodies but help B
cells to secrete antibody
(2) HIV infects macrophages and T Helper cells
(3) HIV infected persons are susceptible to
Toxoplasma, a protozoan parasite
(4) In AIDS,due to decrease in the number of
B -lymphocytes ,the patient developes
immunodeficiency