PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

CLASS PRACTICE PROBLEMS

IONIC EQUILIBRIUM CPP - 2

Q.1 If 40 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 160 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH [Ka = 2×10–4], the pOH of the resulting
solution is
(A) 3.4 (B) 3.7 (C) 7 (D) 10.3

Q.2 1 M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
(A) not a buffer solution and with pH < 7
(B) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(C) a buffer solution with pH < 7
(D) a buffer solution with pH > 7

Q.3 The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of
the acid is ionized is :
(A) 4.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 9.5 (D) 7.0

Q.4 The solubility of A2X3 is y mol dm–3. Its solubility product is

(A) 6 y2 (B) 64 y4 (C) 36 y5 (D) 108 y5

Q.5 If Ksp for HgSO4 is 6.4 ×10–5, then solubility of this substance in mole per m3 is
(A) 8 ×10–3 (B) 6.4 ×10–5 (C) 8 × 10–6 (D) None of these

Q.6 The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 in water is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility product is:
(A) 10–15 (B) 10–10 (C) 4 × 10–15 (D) 4 × 10–10

Q.7 Which of the following is most soluble in water?

(A) MnS (Ksp= 8×10–37) (B) ZnS (Ksp= 7×10–16)
(C) Bi2S3 (Ksp= 1×10–72) (D) Ag3(PO4) (Ksp= 1.8×10–18)

Q.8 When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10) will
occur only with:
(A) 10–4 M (Ag+) and 10–4 M (Cl¯ ) (B) 10–5 M (Ag+) and 10–5 M (Cl¯ )
(C) 10–6 M (Ag+) and 10–6 M (Cl¯ ) (D) 10–10 M (Ag+) and 10–10 M (Cl¯ )

Q.9 The precipitate of CaF2(Ksp = 1.7 × 10–10) is obtained when equal volumes of the following are mixed
(A) 10–4 M Ca2+ + 10–4 M F– (B) 10–2 M Ca2+ + 10–3 M F–
(C) 10–5 M Ca2+ + 10–3 M F– (D) 10–3 M Ca2+ + 10–5 M F–

1
Q.10 50 litre of a solution containing 10–5 mole of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 litre of a 2 × 10–7 M HBr solution.
[Ag+] in resultant solution is : [Given : Ksp (AgBr) = 5 × 10–13]
(A) 10–5 M (B) 10–6 M (C) 10–7 M (D) None of these

Q.11 Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 × 10–4 M Na2CO3 solution. At what concentration of Ba2+
will a precipitate begin to form ? (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9)
(A) 4.1 × 10–5 M (B) 5.1 × 10–5 M (C) 8.1 × 10–8 M (D) 8.1 × 10–7 M

Q.12 Ksp of MX4 and solubility of MX4 is S mol/litre is related by :

(A) S = [KSP /256]1/5 (B) S = [128 KSP ]1/4 (C) S = [256 KSP]1/5 (D) S = [KSP /128]1/4

Q.13 The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order
(A) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl (B) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(C) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl (D) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl

Q.14 An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH
required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this solution is
(A) 40 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 10 mL (D) 4 mL

Q.15 For sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the relationship of its solubility product (Ls) with its solubility (S) is
(A) Ls = Sp+q, pp. qq (B) Ls = Sp+q, pp. qp (C) Ls = Spq, pp. qq (D) Ls = Spq, (p.q)p+q

Q.16 A solution which is 10 –3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10–16M sulphide ion. If Ksp,
MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10–15, 10–23, 10–20 and 10–54 respectively, which one will precipitate first ?
(A) FeS (B) MnS (C) HgS (D) ZnS

ANSWER KEY
CPP-2
Q.1 (D) Q.2 (A) Q.3 (C) Q.4 (D) Q.5 (D)
Q.6 (C) Q.7 (D) Q.8 (A) Q.9 (B) Q.10 (C)
Q.11 (B) Q.12 (A) Q.13 (B) Q.14 (A) Q.15 (A)
Q.16 (C)

2
 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

CLASS PRACTICE PROBLEMS

IONIC EQUILIBRIUM CPP - 1

Q.1 The conjugate acid of NH 2 is
(A) NH3 (B) NH2OH (C) NH 4 (D) N2H4

Q.2 Out of the following, amphiprotic species are

I HPO32– II OH– III H2PO4 – IV HCO3 –
(A) I, III, IV (B) I and III (C) III and IV (D) All

Q.3 pH of an aqeous solution of NaCl at 85°C should be

(A) 7 (B) > 7 (C) < 7 (D) 0

Q.4 1 cc of 0.1 N HCl is added to 99 cc solution of NaCl. The pH of the resulting solution will be
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
M M
Q.5 10 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 40 ml of H SO . The pH of the resulting solution is
200 200 2 4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.3 (D) none of these

Q.6 If pKb for fluoride ion at 25°C is 10, the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this temperature
is :
(A) 1.74 × 105 (B) 3.52 × 103 (C) 104 (D) 5.38 × 102

Q.7 The pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid which is 1% ionised is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 11

Q.8 Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0?

(A) 100 ml of M/100 HCl + 100 ml of M/10 NaOH
(B) 55 ml of M/10 HCl + 45 ml of M/10 NaOH
(C) 10 ml of M/10 HCl + 90 ml of M/10 NaOH
(D) 75 ml of M/5 HCl + 25 ml of M/5 NaOH

Q.9 A solution with pH 2.0 is more acidic than the one with pH 6.0 by a factor of:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 3000 (D) 10000

Q.10 The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 × 10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10 respectively.
The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be :
(A) 5.0 ×10–5 (B) 5.0 ×1015 (C) 5.0 ×10–15 (D) 0.2 ×105

1
Q.11 An aqueous solution contains 0.01 M RNH2 (Kb = 2 ×10–6) & 10–4 M NaOH.
The concentration of OH¯ is nearly :
(A) 2.414 ×10–4 (B) 10–4 M (C) 1.414 × 10–4 (D) 2 × 10–4

Q.12 The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in it’s 0.1 M solution is found to be 50%.
If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) 10%

Q.13 What is the percentage hydrolysis of NaCN in N/80 solution when the dissociation constant for HCN is
1.3 × 10–9 and Kw = 1.0 × 10–14
(A) 2.48 (B) 5.26 (C) 8.2 (D) 9.6

Q.14 The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is

(A) Ammonium acetate (B) Ammonium chloride
(C) Ammonium sulphate (D) Sodium acetate

Q.15 The  pH of the neutralisation point of 0.1 N ammonium hydroxide with 0.1 N HCl is
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 9

Q.16 If equilibrium constant of

CH3COOH + H2O l CH3COO– + H3O+
Is 1.8 × 10–5, equilibrium constant for
CH3COOH + OH– l CH3COO– + H2O is
(A) 1.8 ×10–9 (B) 1.8 × 109 (C) 5.55 × 10–9 (D) 5.55 × 1010

Q.17 The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be :
(A) 8.58 (B) 4.79 (C) 7.01 (D) 9.22

ANSWER KEY
CPP-1
Q.1 (A) Q.2 (C) Q.3 (C) Q.4 (B) Q.5 (B)

Q.6 (C) Q.7 (B) Q.8 (D) Q.9 (D) Q.10 (C)

Q.11 (D) Q.12 (B) Q.13 (A) Q.14 (D) Q.15 (B)

Q.16 (B) Q.17 (C)

2
 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

CLASS PRACTICE PROBLEMS

THERMODYNAMICS CPP-1
1. Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and density (IV), Intensive properties are:
(A) I, II (B) I,II, III (C) I, III, IV (D) All of these

2. What is U for the process described by figure. Heat supplied during the process q = 100 kJ.

(A) + 50 kJ (B) – 50 kJ (C) –150 kJ (D) + 150 kJ

3. For which of the following proceses |H| > |U|

(A) 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g). (B) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g)
(C) combustion of CH4 (g) at 25°C (D) both (B) and (C)

4. work for the following process ABCD on a monoatomic gas is :

P
P0 A B

Isothermal

C
D

V0 2V0 4V0 V

(A) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2, (B) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2,
(C) w = – P0 V0 (1+ ln 2), (D) w = – P0 V0 ln 2,

5. Two moles of Helium gas undergo a reversible cyclic process as showin in figure. Assuming gas
to be ideal, what is the net work involved in the cyclic process ?

(A) – 100 Rn4 (B) +100Rn4 (C) +200Rn4 (D) –200Rn4

1
6. The internal enertgy change (in J when 90 g of water undergoes complete evaporation at 100ºC
is .........., (Given : Hvapfor water at 373 K = 41kJ/mol, R = 8.314 JK/–1mol–1)

7. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its internal
energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at constant volume is ..............

8. For silver, Cp(J K–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01 T. If the temperature (T) of 3 moles of islver is raised from
300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of H will be close to
(A) 62 kJ (B) 16 kJ (C) 21 kJ (D) 13 kJ

9. Which onw of the following equations does not correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics
for the given process involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(A) Cyclic process : q = – W
(B) Adiabatic process : U = –W
(C) Isochoric process : U = q
(D) Isothermal process : q = – W

10. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo reversible compression till its temperature
becomes 200 K. If CV = 28 JK–1 mol–1, calculate U and pV for this process.
(R = 8.0 JK–1)
(A) U = 2.8 kJ; (pV) = 0.8 kJ
(B) U = 14 J; (pV) = 0.8 J
(C) U = 14 kJ; (pV) = 4 kJ
(D) U = 14 kJ; (pV) = 18 kJ

11. The difference between H and U

(H – U), when the comustion of one mole of heptane (l) is carried out at a temperature T, is
equal to
(A) –4 RT (B) 3 RT (C) 4 RT (D) –3 RT

12. Among the following the set of parameters that represents path functions, is
(a) q + W (b) q (c) W (d) H – TS
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (b) and (c)

13. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar.
The work done in kJ is
(A) –9.0 (B) +10.0 (C) –0.9 (D) –2.0

2
14. Consider the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a closed system at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2). The correct graphical depiction of the dependence of work
done (W) on the final volume (V) is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a constant exterrnal
pressure of 4 Nm–2. Heat released in this process is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole of Al.
If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1 K–1, the temperature of Al increases by

3 2
(A) K (B) 1 K (C) 2 K (D) K
2 3

16. For a dimerisation reaction

2A(g)  A2(g),
at 298 K, U = – 20 kJ mol–1,
S = – 30 JK–1 mol–1, then the G = will be ........... J.

º
17. For a spontaneous reaction the G, equilibrium constant (K) and Ecell will be respectively -
(A) +ve, > 1, –ve (B) –ve, > 1, +ve
(C) –ve, > 1, –ve (D) – ve, < 1, –ve

18. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for
the process will be:
(R = 8.314 J / mol K) (ln 7.5 = 2.01)
(A) q = –208 J, w = –208 J (B) q = –208 J, w = +208 J
(C) q = +208 J, w = +208 J (D) q = +208 J, w = –208 J

3
 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

CLASS PRACTICE PROBLEMS

THERMODYNAMICS CPP-2
1. For the reaction ; A(l)  2 B(g)
U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.
Hence, G in kcal is ........

2. A process will be spontaneous at all temperature if

(A) H > 0 and S < 0 (B) H < 0 and S > 0
(C) H < 0 and S < 0 (D) H > 0 and S > 0

3. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g–1 at 200ºC. If specific heat of I2(s) and I2(vap). are 0.055
and 0.031 cal g–1 K–1 respectively, then enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 250ºC in cal g–1 is
(A) 2.85 (B) 5.7 (C) 22.8 (D) 11.4

4. The incorrect match in the following is

(A) Gº < 0, K > 1 (B) Gº = 0, K = 1
(C) Gº > 0, K < 1 (D) Gº < 0, K < 1

5. A process has H = 200 J mol–1 S = 40 JK–1 mol–1. Out of the values given below, choose the
minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous
(A) 20 K (B) 4 K (C) 5 K (D) 12 K

6. The process with negative entropy change is

(A) synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2
(B) dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g)
(C) dissolution of iodine in water
(D) sublimation of dry ice

7. Two blocks of the same meta having same mass and at temperature T1 and T2 respectively, are
brought in contact with each otehr and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium at constant pressure.
The change in entropy, S, for this process is
1
 
 T  T  2
  T1  T2  
2
Cp ln  1 2  2
(A)  T1T2  (B) Cp ln  4T T 
   1 2 

  T1  T2 2    T1  T2  
2
(C) Cp ln  4T T  (D) Cp ln  2T T 
 1 2   1 2 

8. The reaction, MgO(s) + C(s)  Mg(s) + CO(g), for which rHº = + 491.1 kJ mol–1 and rSº = 198.0
JK–1mol–1, is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above which reaction will be feasible is
(A) 2040.5 K (B) 1890.0 K
(C) 2380.5 K (D) 2480.3 K

4
9. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T is given by,
rGº = A – BT
Where A and B are non-zero constants.
Which of the followng is true about this reaction ?
(A) Endothermic if, A < 0 and B > 0 (B) Exothermic if, B < 0
(C) Exothermic if, A > 0 and B < 0 (D) Endothermic if, A > 0

10. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of benzene
at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 at 25ºC; heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of benzene at
constant pressure will be (R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1)
(A) 4152.6 (B) –452.46 (C) 3260 (D) –3267.6

11. Given, C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g); rHº = –393.5 kJ mol–1

1
H2 (g)  O2 (g)   H2O(l); rHº 285.8kJ mol1
2
CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)  CH4(g) + 2O2(g); rHº = + 890.3 kJ mol–1
Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of rHº at 298 K for the reaction,
C(graphite) + 2 H2(g)  CH4(g) will be
(A) +78.8 kJ mol–1 (B) + 144.0 kJ mol–1
–1
(C) –74.8 kJ mol (D) –144.0 kJ mol–1

12. The heats of combustion of carbona dn carbon monoxide are – 393.5 and – 283.5 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is
(A) 676.5 (B) –676.5 (C) –110.5 (D) 110.5

13. The incorrect expression among the following is

Gsystem
(A)  T
Gtotal

Vf
(B) In isotermal process, Wreversible  nRT ln V
i

Hº TSº
(C) ln K 
RT
(D) K=e–Gº/RT

14. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, H and S were found to be both +ve. If Te
is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when :
(A) Te is 5 times T (B) T = Te
(C) Te > T (D) T > Te

15. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process –

(A) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive
(B) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(C) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
(D) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity

5
 ANSWER KEY
CPP-1
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. 189494
7. 6.25 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C
14. C 15. D 16. –13537.57 17. B 18. D

CPP-2
1. –2.70 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A
7. C 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. C
14. D 15. A

6
 INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
P-BLOCK ELEMENT
(JEE)

TOPIC : P-BLOCK ELEMENT CPP

Q.1 Value of ‘x’ in potash alum, K2SO4.Alx(SO4)3.24H2O is:
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these

Q.2 The correct increasing order of the stability of Al+, Ga+, In+, Tl+ ions are:
(A) Al+ < Ga+ < Tl+ < In+ (B) Al+ < Ga+ < In+ < Tl+
+ + + +
(C) TI < In < Ga < Al (D) TI+ < Al+ < Ga+ < In+

Q.3 B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 + Na[B(OH)4] + H2O

How can this reaction be made to proceed is forward direction ?
(A) Addition of cis-1,2 diol (B) Addition of borax
(C) Addition of trans-1,2 diol (D) Addition of Na2HPO4

Q.4 The maximum number of atoms present in the same plane in diborane molecule is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3

Q.5 With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the statement given is correct ?
(A) Graphite is harder than diamond
(B) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond
(C) Graphite has higher C–C bond order than diamond
(D) None of these

Q.6 In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it?
(A) CO2 < SiO2 < PbO2 increasing oxidizing power
(B) HF < HCl < HBr < HI increasing acid strength
(C) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 increasing basic strength
(D) B < C < O < N increasing first ionization enthalpy

Q.7 Silica dissolves in NaOH solution to form

(A) Quartz (B) Sodium silicate (C) Carborundum (D) Jaspar

Q.8 The decreasing order of the boiling points of the following hydrides is:
(A) H2O > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (B) H2O > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(C) H2O > SbH3 > NH3 > ASH3 > PH3 (D) H2O > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > NH3

Q.9 Gaseous product obtained on thermal decomposition of (NH4)2Cr2O7 is:

(A) NH3 (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) NO

Q.10 Which one of the following happens when excess of NH4OH is added to CuSO4 solution ?
(A) A blue ppt. at the end (B) A black ppt. Initially
(C) A deep blue solution at the end (D) A colourless solution at the end

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Q.11 Which of the following is an anhydride of nitrous acid?
(A) N2O3 (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) N2O5

Q.12 The reaction of PCl5 with sulphuric acid to give SO2Cl2, shows that sulphuric acid:
(A) Has great affinity for water (B) Has two-OH group in its molecule
(C) It a dibasic oxoacid of sulphur (D) Pertains to both (B) and (C)

Q.13 Nitrogen can form only one chloride with chlorine which in NCl3 whereas P can form PCl3 and
PCl5. This is:
(A) Due to absence of vacant d-orbitals in nitrogen
(B) Due to difference in size of N and P
(C) Due to high reactivity of P towards Cl than N
(D) Due to presence of multiple bonding in nitrogen

Q.14 The structure of white phosphorus is:

(A) Square planar (B) Pyramidal (C) Tetrahedral (D) Trigonal planar

Q.15 Nitrous oxide is:

(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Amphoteric (D) Neutral

Q.16 A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3– ion. It is due to formation of :
(A) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ (B) FeSO4NO2 (C) [Fe(H2O)4(NO)2]2+ (D) FeSO4.HNO3

Q.17 The largest bond angle is in

(A) AsH3 (B) NH3 (C) H2O (D) PH3

Q.18  and  forms of sulphur are at equilibrium at a temperature known as:

(A) Critical temperature (B) Transition temperature
(C) Boyle’s temperature (D) Inversion temperature

Q.19 Catalyst used in making H2SO4 in contact process is:

(A) V2O5 (B) Fe2O3 (C) Cr2O3 (D) CrO3

Q.20 In which of the following, sulphur is present in +5 oxidation state?

(A) Dithionic acid (B) Sulphurous acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Disulphuric acid

Q.21 Caro’s acid is

(A) H2SO5 (B) H2S2O8 (C) H2SO3 (D) H2S2O3

Q.22 Which one of the gas dissolves in H2SO4 to given oleum?

(A) SO2 (B) H2S (C) S2O (D) SO3

Q.23 The property that correspond to the order HI > HBr > HCl > HF is
(A) Thermal stability (B) Reducing power
(C) Ionic character (D) Bond strength

ANSWER KEY
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 C Q.7 B
Q.8 D Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 A Q.12 D Q.13 A Q.14 C
Q.15 D Q.16 A Q.17 B Q.18 B Q.19 A Q.20 A Q.21 A
Q.22 D Q.23 B
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 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
POLYMERS
(RBC-2.0)
TOPIC : POLYMERS CPP
1. Adipic acid reacts with hexamethylene diamine to form
(A) Bakelite (B) Nylon-6,6 (C) Terylene (D) Nylon-6, 10

2. Ethylene glycol reacts with dimethyl terephthalate to form

(A) Nylon-6, 6 (B) Teflon (C) Dacron (D) Orlon

3. Select the incorrect statement about Nylon 2-nylon-6.

(A) It is a copolymer.
(B) It is biodegradable.
(C) It is an alternating polyamide.

(D) It is made up of CH 3  CH  COOH and H2N(CH2)5COOH.

|
NH 2

4. Neoprene is a polymer of the following monomer:

(A) Chloroprene (B) Isoprene (C) Isobutene (D) Isopentene

5. Which of the following is an example of a condensation polymer?

(A) Nylon-6, 6 (B) Teflon (C) Polypropylene (D) Orlon

6. Polymers are backbone of which industries

(A) Plastics (B) Elastomers (C) Fibers and Paints (D) All of these

7. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?

(A) Bakelite (B) Nylon-6, 6 (C) Polyethylene (D) Teflon

8. Match the following :

(i) high density polythene
(ii) Polyvinyl chloride
(iii) Low density polythene
(iv) Bakelite, melamine
(A) (i)–B, (ii) – A,D (iii) – C (iv) – B
(C) (i)–B, (ii) – B (iii) – A (iv) – C, D
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(A) Branched chain polymer
(B) Linear polymer
(C) Strong covalent bond
(D) Cross linked or network polymers
(B) (i) – A, D, (ii) – B (iii) – B (iv) – C
(D) (i) – A, (ii) – B, D (iii) – C (iv) – B
Page No. 1
9. Choose copolymer
(A) Buna–S and Buna–N (B) polythene
(C) polypropene (D) None

10. Which of the following statements about low density polythene is FALSE ?
(A) Its synthesis requires high pressure.
(B) It is a poor conductor of electricity.
(C) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initiator as a catalyst.
(D) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-bins etc.

11. Nylon-66 is made by using

(A) Phenol (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Adipic acid (D) Succinic acid

12. Polymer which has amide linkage is

(A) Nylon-66 (B) Terylene (C) Teflon (D) Bakelite

13. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and

(A) Benzoic acid (B) Phthalic acid
(C) Salicylic acid (D) Terephthalic acid

14. Match the coloum :

(i) Polythene (A) Addition polymer
(ii) Buna–S (B) Condensation polymer
(iii) Nylon 6, 6
(iv) Nylon 6
(v)Dacron (terylene)
(A) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – A, (iv) – B, (v) – B (B) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – A, (v) – A
(C) (i) – A, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – B, (v) – B (D) (i) – B, (ii) – B, (iii) – B, (iv) – A, (v) – A

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A)

6. (AD) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D)

11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C)

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 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
(JEE)

TOPIC : CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE CPP

1. The drug that relieve or decrease pain is called
(A) Analgesic (B) Antipyretic (C) Tranquillizer (D) Hypnotics

2. Non-narcotic analgesics are use for the treatment of :

(A) Skeletal pain and Heart attacks (B) Antipyretic (reducing fever)
(C) Platelet coagulation (D) All of these

3. Which of the following is Narcotic analgesics

(A) Morphine (B) Asprin (C) paracetamol (D) Equanil

4. Narcotic drugs are use for

(A) relief in postoperative pain
(B) relief in terminal cancer pain
(C) relief in cardiac pain and child birth pain
(D) All of these

5. Which of the following is an analgesic ?

(A) Chloramphenicol (B) Penicillin (C) Paracetamol (D) Streptomycin

6. Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called :

(A) Chemotherapy (B) enzymes (C) medicine (D) None

7. What functions are perform by enzymes during catalytic activity

(A) Enzyme hold the substrate for a chemical reaction
(B) Enzyme provide functional groups that will attack the substrate and carry out chemical
reaction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None

8. Drug (substrate) block the binding site of the enzyme and prevent the binding of substrate.
Such drugs are called :
(A) Protein inhibitors (B) lipid inhibitors
(C) Enzyme inhibitors (D) None

9. Drugs compete with the natural substrate for their attachment on the active sites of enzymes
such drugs are called :
(A) competitive inhibitors (B) Enzyme inhibitors
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None

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10. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called :
(A) Receptors (B) Antagonists (C) Enzymes (D) None

11. Which of the following are anatacids :

(A) Histamine (B) Cimetidine (C) Ranitidine (D) All of these

12. Penicillin is an
(A) Antibiotic (B) Antipyretic (C) Hormone (D) Vitamin

13. Which of the following can be used as an analgesic-

(A) Paracetamol (B) Penicillin (C) Chloremphenicol (D) Streptomycin.

14. Morphine is used then as an

(A) Antipyretic (B) Antiseptic (C) Analgesic (D) Insecticide.

15. A substance which can act both as an analgesic and antipyretic is

(A) Quinine (B) Aspirin (C) Penicillin (D) Insulin.

16. Treatment of acidity is done by

(A) Antacids (B) Antihistaines (C) Analgestics (D) None

17. The drug given during hypertension is

(A) Streptomycin (B) Chloroxylenol (C) Equanil (D) Aspirin

18. Tranquilizer are used for treatment of

(i) Pain (ii) Stress
(iii) Mild or mental diseases (iv) Anxiety
(v) use in sleeping pills

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) only (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) only
(C) (i), (ii), (v) only (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) only

19. Drug which helps to reduce anxiety and brings calmness is

(A) Tranquilizer (B) Diuretic (C) Analgesic (D) Antihistamine

20. Tranquilizers are/is

(A) chlordiazepoxide (B) meprobamate (C) equanil (D) All of these

21. Match the column :

(i) Chlordiazepoxide (A) Use for tension relieving
(ii) Meprobamate (B) Use for control depression
(iii) equanil

(A) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – B (B) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – A

(C) (i) – A, (ii) – A, (iii) – B (D) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – B

22. Choose Tranquilizers among following:

(A) valium (B) serotonin (C) veronal (D) all of these

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23. The correct structure of Aspirin is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

24. If Antibiotics effective against a single organism or disease, then they called :
(A) Narrow-spectrum Antibiotics (B) Broad spectrum Antibiotics
(C) Limited spectrum Antibiotics (D) None
25. Penicillin G is :
(A) Limited-Spectrum antibiotics (B) Narrow-spectrum antibiotics
(C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics (D) None
26. Streptomycin is an example of
(A) Antibiotic (B) Analgesic (C) Antipyretic (D) Anaesthetic.
27. Chloroxylenol is an important component of
(A) Soap (B) Antibiotics (C) Dettol (D) Pain killing ointments
28. Those Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative
bacteria are said to
(A) Narrow spectrum antibiotics (B) Broad spectrum antibiotics
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
29. Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Streptomycin (B) Penicillin (C) Ampicillin (D) Chloremphenicol
30. Which are synthesis of penicillins :
(A) Ampicillin (B) Amoxycillin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
31. Vancomycin and ofloxacin are
(A) Limited-spectrum antibiotics (B) Narrow-spectrum antibiotics
(C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics (D) None
32. Which is Applied for living tissues like on cuts, ulcers
(A) Antiseptics (B) Disifectants (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
33. Which solution use for eyes as antiseptic :
(A) Iodoform (B) Iodine (C) Boric acid (D) none
34. Which of the following is used as an antiseptic ?
(A) Dettol (B) Iodoform (C) Bithional (D) All the above
35. Antifertility drugs are synthesized from
(A) Estrogen (B) progesterone (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
36. Which of the following drugs combination is not correct ?
(A) Bithional - Tranquilizer (B) Chloremphenicol- antibiotics
(C) Equanil -Antidepressant (D) Phenacetin - Antipyretic .

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37. The correct structure of chloroxylenol is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

38. Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate is used as a-

(A) Pesticide (B) Soap (C) Fertilizer (D) Detergent

39. Chemicals are added to food for :

(A) their preservation (B) enhancing their appeal
(C) Adding nutritive value (D) All of these

40. In Anionic detergent which part of molecule is involved in the cleansing action
(A) Cationic (B) Anionic (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None

41. What percentage of phenol is use as Antiseptic and disinfectants respectively

(A) 0.2%, 1% (B) 1%, 2% (C) 5%, 10% (D) 10%, 5%

42. Choose artifical sweeteners :

(A) Aspartame (B) Sucralose (C) Alitame (D) All of these

43. Tincture of iodine is

(A) I + 2–3% solution of H2O (B) I + 2–3% solution of H2O-alcohol
(C) Br + 2–3% solution of H2O (D) None

44. Highly potent sweetener is :

(A) Aspartame (B) Alitame (C) Sucralose (D) None

45. Dettol consist of

(A) Xylenol + Terpineol (B) Chlroxylenol + Terpineol
(C) Cresol + ethanol (D) None

ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. B 11. BC 12. A 13. A 14. C
15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. D 21. C
22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. B
29. CD 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. C
36. A 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. D
43. B 44. B 45. B

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