Psych Assessment 6.

You want to determine if the number of male

and female differs by year in school. Most
1. This best describes z-scores
probably you will use:
a. Require access to a table of the normal
a. Regression
curve for their calculation
b. ANOVA
b. Used to compare different scores of
c. Chi-square
the individual
d. Pearson-r
c. Can be computed when both the
mean and the standard deviation is
7. This person is responsible for the selection,
available
administration, and scoring of tests for the
d. Are rarely used in scoring
analysis, interpretation, and communication of
psychological tests
test results and for any decisions or actions
that are based on test scores
2. A researcher would like to conduct a study on
a. Test developer
the relationship of College Entrance
b. Test user
Examination and College Academic
c. Test taker
Performance of 1st year engineering students in
d. Test publisher
the University of Kuala. What is the
appropriate statistical tool that the researcher
8. All are common reference sources in
should use?
psychological assessment EXCEPT:
a. Correlation
a. Test catalog
b. T-test
b. Measurement books
c. Factor Analysis
c. Journal articles
d. ANOVA
d. Test manual
3. Before the class in Social Psychology begun,
9. Test takers may be influenced by various
your professor asked the class to answer a 100-
variables which later on may affect their
item multiple-choice test to gauge how far you
scores. These variables are the following
know the subject. After the semester, the same
EXCEPT:
exam was given to see how far you learned in
a. Capacity and willingness to cooperate
that subject. The most appropriate statistical
b. Amount of physical discomfort
test to be used is:
c. Extent of attractiveness
a. T-test
d. Amount of test anxiety
b. ANOVA
c. Correlation
10. Jacob was given an intelligent test (WAIS) as
d. Chi-square
part of his cognitive functioning assessment.
WAIS have a mean of 100, SD of 15 and
4. What proportion of scores in a normal
confidence interval of .05. If Jacob has an IQ
distribution lie above a z score of 1?
of 115 in WAIS then the best interpretation
a. 10%
that we can report is that he ha ________ IQ.
b. 50%
a. Below average
c. 25%
b. Above average
d. 16%
c. Between average to above average
d. Average
5. The difference in test performance between
percentile scores of 60 and 55
11. The following are considered “pillars” in
a. Is twice that between percentile scores
psychological assessment EXCEPT
of 5 and 10
a. Behavior observation
b. Is equivalent to that between
b. Interview
percentile scores of 15 and 10
c. Case conceptualization
c. Is equivalent to that between
d. Secondary sources of data
percentile scores of 60 and 70
d. Cannot be readily equated to all
12. If you are a girl called “no boyfriend since
other 5-point differences in
birth or NBSB” then it appears that you did
percentiles
not really have an intimate relationship with a
guy since then. In the language of
 psychometrics, this situation is in what level of
measurement?
a. Interval
b. Nominal
c. Ordinal
d. Ratio
13. This is the end product of assessment. It
represents the clinician’s effort to integrate the
assessment data into a functional whole so that
the information can help the client solve
problems and make decisions
a. Clinical impression
b. Case conceptualization
c. Psychological diagnosis
d. Psychological report
14. Alex obtained a raw score of 120 on a history
test where the class average was 116 and a SD
of 7. He also obtained a raw score of 52 on a
chemistry tests where the mean was 48 and the
SD was 5. We can then conclude that:
a. We need to know what the range of
scores was
b. He did better on the chemistry exam
c. He did equally well on both exams
d. He did better on the history exam
15. What level of measurement is present in a 35-
item questionnaire which uses likert scale in
measuring the life satisfaction of the
examinee?
a. Ordinal
b. Ratio
c. Nominal
d. Interval
16. Temperature as measured by the Fahrenheit
scale is a good example of what scale?
a. Nominal
b. Interval
c. Ordinal
d. Ratio
17. In considering ethical issues, three areas are
most important:
a. Validity, reliability, and norms
b. Feedback, rapport and informed
consent
c. Informed consent, confidentiality,
and privacy
d. Qualifications of the examiner,
privacy, and feedback
18. What is currently the most widely used and
referenced structured personality test?
a. MMPI
b. 16 PF
c. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
d. Thematic Apperception Test
19. What principle in the PAP Code of Ethics
claims that we must always be careful not to
inflict any form of harm to our client
a. Professional/scientific responsibility
b. Competent caring for other’s
welfare
c. Integrity
d. Respect for dignity
20. What principle in the PAP Code of Ethics
claims that there is a need for
psychometricians or psychologists to be honest
and truthful, and they have to maximize
impartiality, and minimize biases?
a. Professional/scientific responsibility
b. Respect for dignity
c. Competent caring for other’s welfare
d. Integrity
21. The following are advance preparations on the
part of the examiner which should be made
prior to testing EXCEPT:
a. Familiarize or memorize the test
instructions
b. Behavior observation
c. Familiarize the resting procedure
d. Prepare test materials/protocols
22. They all advocated and proposed the idea of
individual differences EXCEPT for:
a. Cattel
b. Herbart
c. Galton
d. Darwin
23. Which of the following is NOT true about
psychological tests?
a. Psychological tests can quantify the
overt and covert behavior of
individuals
b. Psychological tests are prone to errors
or measurement
c. Psychological tests can determine the
mental ability and personality of an
individual
d. Psychological tests are absolute
measures of an individual’s
behavior
24. If you are going to purchase, administer, score,
and interpret projective tests and
neuropsychological tests, what level of
accessibility of tests do you need?
 a. Level C c. Assess Multiphasic Personality
b. Level B Disorder
c. Level D d. Discriminate between normal and
d. Level A patient groups with particular
25. Which of the following statements is TRUE diagnosis
about the explanation of test results to client? 32. Projective tests are not objective because
a. Test protocols should be given to the a. Different scores are likely to produce
client after explaining the test results the same test score form the same test
b. Test results can be explained to the performance
client’s relatives without the client’s b. They are based on responses to
permission ambiguous stimuli
c. Feedback is not necessary, there is no c. They are scored in a simple,
need to communicate the results to the straightforward manner
client d. Scoring is heavily dependent on the
d. Test results should be explained to judgment of the scores
the client with the use of non- 33. Psychological tests are used to
technical language a. All of the above
b. Measure psychological constructs
26. The first developed structured group c. Help make decisions about people
achievement test is d. Promote self-understanding
a. Army Alpha and Army Beta 34. The Army Alpha was
b. Wechsler-Bellevue a. A precursor of the Army Beta
c. Binet-Simon Scale b. An early index of reliability developed
d. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet by military psychologists
c. Dependent on the ability to read and
27. The first self-report test of personality was write
developed by 35. Objective tests are objective because
a. Woodworth a. Scoring is heavily dependent on the
b. Terman judgment of the scorer
c. Simon b. They are scored in a simple,
d. McElwain straightforward manner
c. Different scores are likely to
28. Wechsler based his concept of verbal and produce the same test score from
performance scale on the same test performance
a. Subscales from the Stanford-Binet test d. They are based on the responses to
b. The ideas of mental age and ambiguous stimuli
chronological age 36. Psychological tests are
c. Spearman’s theory of intelligence a. Important tools for psychological
d. The Army Alpha and Beta research
b. Rarely used in research settings
29. Evidence of psychological testing can be c. More relevant to psychological
traced back to practice than theory
a. Public service examinations in 37. The psychological testing enterprise began to
ancient China be questioned on grounds of
a. All of the above
30. The first intelligence test was developed by b. Privacy
a. Terman and Wechsler c. Discrimination
b. Stanford and Binet d. Diversity
c. Binet and Simon 38. Which of the following is not usually used in
d. Spearman psychological assessment?
a. Observation
31. The MMPI was designed to b. Interviewing
a. Assess personality in normal adults c. Counseling
b. Screen soldiers during the Second 39. A psychological test can become obsolete
World War when
 a. Society changes to render the tests
norms become obsolete
b. All of the above
c. Society changes to render the content
of items less appropriate
d. Psychological theory develops to
render the basis of the test is obsolete
40. Which of the following refers to psychological
assessment, and not just psychological testing?
a. It answers a referral question, solves
a problem, or arrives at a decision
41. Psychological testing is ____ as part of
psychological assessment
a. Always used
b. Over used
c. Rarely used
d. Used, if appropriate
42. What is psychological assessment primarily
used for?
a. Research
b. Answering referral question(s)
c. Report writing
43. Compared to psychological testing,
psychological assessment is usually
a. Undertaken in two sessions
b. Less time consuming
c. Undertaken to answer more
complex referral questions
d. Cheaper
44. Psychological tests are usually composed of a
large number of items because
a. Any one item is usually influenced
by a host of factors apart from the
psychological construct of interest
b. Total scores need to be calculated
from the sum of raw scores
c. Item response theory suggests that
many items should be used
d. It is better to measure many traits
rather than just a few
45. You have noticed that your client is suffering
from childhood depression based on his
performance in the cognitive tasks. However,
he was brought to you by his parents to be
assessed whether he has intellectual disability.
What should a psychologist do base on ethical
standards?
a. Satisfy the referral question but
recommend further assessment
b. Make an assessment of the child’s
cognitive functioning
c. Assess the child based on reason for
referral alone
d. Assess the child both for intellectual
disability and childhood depression
46. Confidentiality is based on which principle
followed by the ethical codes?
a. Professional and scientific
responsibility to society
b. Respect for dignity of persons and
people
c. Competent caring for the well-being
of persons and people
d. Integrity
47. A psychological testing is
a. A measure of personality or ability
b. An objective procedure for sampling
and quantifying human behavior
c. The process of measuring
psychology related variables by
means of devices or procedures
designed to obtain a sample of
behavior
d. A method of tapping into someone’s
unconscious
48. Psychological assessment refers to
a. Wring reports based on psychological
test scores
b. Mental testing
c. The gathering and integration of …
49. When you explain assessment results to the
client/patient or relatives of the client/patient,
which one below is an ethical practice?
a. Send them copy of the psychological
report via email since emails are
password protected; thus,
confidentiality will be kept
b. Provide them with the numerical
values of the test result to maintain
accuracy
c. Replace psychological terms into
simple words understandable by
non-psychology individuals
d. Explain the results using
psychological jargons to maintain its
accuracy
50. Before administering a psychological test, a
psychologist should ensure that
a. The test is appropriate for use with the
particular client in terms of his/her
demographics
b. The test has been reviewed in the
Mental Measurement Yearbook
c. The test has local norms
d. The test does not have any copyright
restrictions
51. According to the ethical codes, test results
a. Should never be shared with the
examinee
b. Must only be shared with the
individual and his/her family
 c. Can never be shared to with anyone b. If the test taker has 125 IQ, we can
except the examinee mention that the patient has 125 IQ
d. Can be subpoenaed, and therefore, c. If the client underwent psychological
are not always confidential assessment as requested by the courts,
52. Your boss asked you to administer a we can provide the courts with the test
Rorschach Inkblot Test. As a psychometrician, materials used by the client
what is best that you should do? d. We only report the qualitative
a. Follow, your license permits you to interpretation of the test results but
administer level C psychological tests not the numerical equivalence of it
b. Refuse, psychometricians are not 57. Transforming scores on psychological tests is
licensed to administer level C done primarily to
psychological tests a. Make the scores more manageable
c. Follow, you are permitted in b. Aid interpretation of the scores
administration of level B personality c. Make the scores available for research
tests d. Protect the privacy of the test taker
d. Refuse to administer the test since you 58. If a z score of 1.333 is obtained we know that
are not qualified to administer a level the person’s raw score
B psychological test a. Is above average
53. What is the law that covers the rights of b. Is about average
licensed professionals to practice psychology? c. Is lower than the scores of most others
a. RA 1009 on the test
b. RA 2009 d. Fails at the 84th percentile
c. RA 1029 59. Because normalized standard scores follow a
d. RA 10029 normal distribution, they
54. You have found that Martin’s stepfather has a. Do not require the use of the normal
been abusing him lately. Though not claimed curve for their interpretation
by the patient himself, you have suspected that b. Preserve the differences among the
he is being verbally and physically abused by original raw scores
his father. His psychological test however tells c. Have the same mean as the original
that abuse is present to Martin’s case. What raw score distribution
are you going to do? d. Are attractive to test constructors
a. Advise Martin to stay away from the
father
b. Continue with the assessment
procedures but take account as
important information by
interviewing the father
c. Tell the authorities about the crime to
take the father accountable
d. Call the attention of the father by
threatening him that you tell the
authorities regarding the abuse
55. One of the objectives in your research paper is
to find out if the religious faith of students in
FSUU has an association towards their attitude
to homosexuality. The statistical analysis that
you will need to answer is this
a. Chi-square
b. Correlation
c. Regression
d. ANOVA
56. Which is true regarding the release of test
data?
a. A psychologist can release test
protocols since these are all paid
materials
 after being hired, the employer could be
charged with
a. Negligent reference
b. Negligent hiring
c. Defamation
d. Tax reform

6. When can a company be guilty of negligent

I/O hiring?
a. When an employee commits a crime
1. Howard is given a list of items that must be
while in the employ of an organization
addressed within a certain time frame. He was
b. When an employee is hired having
asked to prioritize the items and justify her
KSAOs unqualified for the position
reasons to the panel. The exercise gives the
c. When an employee commits a crime
department a snapshot of his ability to perform
while in the employ of an
that administrative functions of the position.
organization and was later found to
What type of training activities are depicted on
have a criminal background that
the scenario?
would have been detected if a
a. Business games
background check had been
b. Simulations
conducted\
c. Work sample
d. When an employee exhibits a poor
d. In-basket technique
performance as was later found to
have unsatisfactory remarks from the
2. In I/O psychology, it is commonly believed
previous employer
that the best predictor of future performance is
a. Result from a psychological test
7. Which of the following situations shows
b. Present performance
negligent hiring?
c. Asking the person if they can do the
a. A former employee of the City Hall
job
used his unsurrendered ID to have
d. Past performance
access to the parking space
b. A company hired a man after
3. A problem associated with letters of
contacting his previous employer
recommendation is the lack of agreement
and found no reason to hire him.
between two people who provide references
Later, they found out he is a fugitive
for the same person. This lack of agreement is
c. An applicant was hired through
related to the issue of
referral by another high-ranking
a. Leniency
employee. The company regret their
b. Knowledge of the applicant
decision after realizing that this
c. Extraneous factor
employee performs very…
d. Reliability
8. The following guidelines are good ways to
4. Which of the following is NOT an ethical
write a rejection letter EXCEPT
practice in providing references or writing
a. Send a rejection letter immediately
letter of recommendation?
after the decision has been made
a. Provide an honest appraisal of the
b. Be specific as possible in the rejection
applicant
letter
b. Always write a positive letter of
c. Include a statement about the
recommendation
individual who got the job
c. Let the applicant see a copy of your
d. Be personal as possible in the rejection
reference before you send it
letter
d. State the nature of your relationship
with the applicant
9. Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it
is not necessarily useful. The ____ are
5. If an employer does not check an applicant’s
designed to estimate the percentage of future
references and the applicant molests a child
employees who will be successful on the job if
an organization uses a particular test
 a. Expectancy charts
b. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility
formula
c. Taylor Russell tables
d. Lawshe tables
10. Which of the following hiring decision
strategies takes into consideration the degree
of error associated with any test score?
a. Multiple-hurdle
b. Multiple-cutoff
c. Banding
d. Passing score
11. If an applicant may take multiple versions of
the same employment test, it tends to develop
what?
a. Validity
b. Criterion
c. Reliability
d. Credibility
12. An applicant who receives multiple versions of
the same test takes what form of test?
a. Test-retest
b. Criterion
c. Content
d. Alternate
13. Darth Vader, who is the HR manager assigned
in hiring and selection of Star Wars Company,
hired the top two candidates who made the
highest scores in the exams although they are
still on the process of assessment to whom the
higher vacant position will be given. Darth
Vader believes that while hiring the top test
scorers he allowed flexibility in consideration
that the difference between the two applicant
scores may be a result of error. This selection
process is known as
a. Top-down selection
b. Multiple hurdle approach
c. Banding
d. Passing score
14. An HR determines that all applicants who
receive at least an 81 on their test will be able
to perform the functions of the job. The hiring
decision strategy to be used in this situation is
a. Banding
b. Top down selection
c. Multiple hurdle
d. Passing score
15. Maeve have to decide on who she should hire
among the pool of applicants, so she rank-
ordered them based on their test scores. This
process is called ____
a. Top down selection
b. Bottom up selection
c. Ranking approach
d. Selection ranking
16. In general, the longer the test, the higher its
___
a. Parallel forms reliability
b. Internal reliability
c. Form stability
d. Test-retest reliability
17. If we want to know the probability that a
particular applicant will be successful, which
of the following information are needed?
a. Base rate
b. Applicant’s test score
c. Test validity coefficient
d. All of the above
e. All except test validity coefficient
18. Which of the following is the advantage of
top-down selection?
a. Reduces an organization’s flexibility
to use non-test factors such as
references or organizational fit
b. The organization will gain the most
utility
c. High levels of adverse impact
d. None of the above
19. Which of the following is TRUE about group
and individual testing?
a. Group testing is usually expensive
and more efficient than individual
testing
b. Group testing is more expensive than
individual testing
c. Individual testing is more expensive
and more efficient
d. None of the answers are true
20. Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it
is not necessarily useful. The _____ were/was
developed to determine the amount of money
that an organization would save if its used a
particular test to select employees
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility
formula
d. Lawshe tables
21. To get better customer feedback on employee
performance, _____ are used
a. Consultants
b. Secret shoppers
c. Peer ratings
d. Employee comparisons
22. Which of the following performance appraisal
approaches focus on employees’ attributes
such as their dependability, assertiveness, and
friendliness?
a. Competency focus
b. Goal focus
c. Task focus
d. Trait focus
23. With the ____ method, a predetermined
percentage of employees are placed into one of
five categories
a. Paired comparison
b. Forced distribution
c. Rank order
d. Behavioral anchored rating scale
24. Diego, based on performance appraisal, has
been regarded to possess good leadership,
public speaking skills, and marketing
knowledge. However, his number of sales
decreased. Assessment of training needs might
consider using what rating scale?
a. Competence-focused
b. Goal-focused
c. Task-focused
d. Trait-focused
25. Which of the following is FALSE concerning
task-based ratings?
a. They rely on some train analysis for
accuracy
b. They tend to be the most easily
defended in court
c. They are generally most easily
accepted by incumbents
d. The rating systems are usually direct
extensions of job analysis
26. All of the following are TRUE concerning
360-degree feedback EXCEPT
a. To help with development, feedback
should be timely
b. It describes the process of collecting
feedback from a variety of sources
c. A recipient is likely to be more open if
others are present to hear the feedback
d. All of the answers are true
27. An employee’s ratings on the dimension of
initiative are highly correlated with all of the
other performance appraisal dimensions (e.g.,
cooperation, job accomplishment, job
knowledge). Which type of rating error may be
occurring?
a. Central tendency error
b. Halo error
c. Strictness error
d. Proximity error
28. Mr. Thor Jack, the former CEO of General
Electric, required managers to fire the bottom-
performing 10% of their employees each year.
He called this method “rank and yank”
a. Forced choice method
b. Forced distribution method
c. Paired comparison
d. Rank order
29. The HR manager observed that the CEO of the
company is uncomfortable with giving low
ratings. Thus, the CEO is most likely to
commit ____
a. Halo error
b. Contrast error
c. Leniency error
d. Strictness error
30. According to most research, subordinate
feedback results in:
a. High supervisor turnover
b. Bad feelings among employees
c. Increased supervisor performance
d. Subordinates being fired
31. Whereas supervisors see the ____ of an
employee’s effort, peers often see the _____
a. Actual behavior / end result
b. End result / actual behavior
c. Physical part / mental part
d. Mental part / physical part
32. Whereas trait-focused instruments concentrate
on who an employee ______, task-focused
instruments focus on what an employee ___
a. Is / does
b. Feels / believes
c. Does / is
d. Believes / feels
33. Dora was hired as an accounting clerk,
although her field of specialization is Fine
Arts. She was narrating that when she was
interviewed, the panel was disappointed to the
applicant who was interviewed before her.
Psychologically, what might have happened?
a. Halo effect
b. Interviewee appearance
c. Contrast effect
d. Interviewee-interviewer similarity
34. Which of the following is true about
evaluating employee performance?
a. 360-degree feedback is best used for
developmental purposes
b. Most performance appraisal systems
are successful
c. Most organizations have specific goals
for their appraisal systems
d. All three are true
35. After conducting performance evaluation,
what should be done next?
a. Keep it confidential until employee
has been terminated
b. Terminate or promote employees
c. Let the employee be sensitive enough
to ask the HR about their performance
d. Communicate the results to the
employee so that they can improve
36. What should be the focus if you, as a
performance evaluator, are using a goal-
focused performance dimension?
a. If the employees were able to carry
out what is asked of them to do
b. If the employees have the developed
skills and abilities
c. If the employees have contributed in
maintaining a peaceful and productive
company
d. If the employees have the character
they are looking for
37. It refers to the field that combines human
factor and engineering which aims at
enhancing the efficiency and safety in human-
machine interaction
a. Organizational psychology
b. Industrial psychology
c. Economics
d. Ergonomics
38. I/O psychologists who are involved in _____
study and practice in such areas as employee
selection, job analysis, and job evaluation
a. Organizational psychology
b. Personnel psychology
c. Training and development
d. Human factors
39. The use of _____ best distinguished I/O
psychology from related fields taught in
business colleges
a. Statistics
b. Psychological principles
c. Consultants
d. Intuition
40. Mr. Simon conducts surveys of employee
attitudes to get ideas about what employees
believed are an organization’s strengths and
weaknesses. He is involved in ____
a. Organizational psychology
b. Personnel psychology
c. Ergonomics
d. Human resource management
41. I/O psychology examines factors that affect
the _____ in an organization, whereas business
fields examine the broader aspects running an
organization
a. Machines
b. Stock performance
c. People
d. I/O psychology examines all three
factors
42. The study of leadership is part of
a. Personnel psychology
b. Training and development
c. Organizational psychology
d. Human factors
43. I/O psychology made its first big impact
during World War I. because of the large
number of soldiers who had to be assigned to
various units within the armed forces, I/O
psychologists were employed to test recruits
and then place them in appropriate positions.
Army Alpha and Army Beta tests are
examples of what is now referred as
a. Personality tests
b. Aptitude tests
c. Achievement tests
d. Intelligence test
44. This refers to the physical and cognitive
changes individuals make within the
constraints of a task to make the work on their
own
a. Job crafting
b. Job analysis
c. Job evaluation
d. Job satisfaction
45. It is a process of determining whether the net
income fits the job workload
a. Job worth
b. Job evaluation
c. Job fair
d. Job interview
46. The ___ is the process of determining the work
activities and requirements, and the ____ is the
written result
a. Job description / job analysis
b. Job analysis / job description
c. Job evaluation / job analysis
d. Job description / job evaluation
47. Which of the following is another name for a
job competency?
a. KSAOs
b. Job factors
c. Training requirements
d. Work content
48. The TAO Corporation plans to open a new
office under the president that will take care of
the customers’ complaints. In doing this, what
must the human resource department do first
to fill in the new position?
a. Recruit applicants
b. Training need analysis
c. Job analysis
d. None of the above
49. Dustin filled-out a form about his credentials
as it will be the basis on what salary grade or
bracket will he be included. This process refers
to
a. Job evaluation
b. Performance appraisal
c. Job rotation
d. Job analysis
50. Eleven, an accounting specialist, was
promoted as human resource manager because
of his consistent high rating in his performance
appraisal. When he emerged as HR manager,
he finds it difficult to improve the performance
of his department because he has less
knowledge and experience in handling people.
This situation is an example of _________
a. Arya principle
b. Peter principle
c. Premack principle
d. Sansa principle
51. Which of the following sections in a job
description can affect a person’s perceptions of
the status and worth of a job?
a. Job title
b. Brief summary
c. Work activities
d. Work context
52. Which of the following is NOT true of job
titles?
a. Titles should describe the nature of a
job
b. Job titles can affect perceptions of job
status
c. Titles provide workers with identity
d. All three of these statements are
true
53. According to the book, the section of a job
description which contains the knowledge,
skills, abilities, and other characteristics
necessary to be successful on the job is labeled
_______; the section containing a list of tasks
and activities in which the worker is involved
is labeled _____.
a. Performance standards / work
activities
b. Job competencies / work context
c. Job competencies / work activities
d. Work context / work activities
54. Gertrude is writing job descriptions and can’t
decide whether she should include “getting
coffee for the boss” as a task. Her decision is
related to the issue of
a. Level of specificity
b. Peter principle
c. Formal vs informal requirements
d. The DOT code
55. Job analysis interviews are conducted to
determine
a. Information about the job itself
b. Who should conduct the job analysis
c. Who should participate in the job
analysis
d. If a job analysis is even necessary
56. This is the process of search for and securing
applicants for the various job positions so that
the right people in the right number can be
selected to fulfill the job positions which arise
from time to time in organization
a. Recruitment & selection
b. Analysis of employee
c. References & testing
d. Evaluation of candidates
57. This assessment method is one of the most
widely used for hiring. This involves asking
relevant questions either structured or
unstructured to gain significant information
about the applicant
a. Psychological testing
 b. Biodata
c. Interview
d. Asking questions
58. What type of interview would most likely
include the statement, “tell me about a time
when you worked successfully in a team
environment?”
a. Puzzle
b. Situational
c. Clarifier
d. Behavioral
59. Sheldon, a recruitment specialist, is
conducting an interview to applicants. Which
type of interview is more appropriate if he
wants to determine what abilities and skills an
applicant can offer?
a. Structured interview
b. Task list
c. Unstructured interview
d. Personality questionnaires
60. John is interviewing for a position as a public
relations specialist in a communications firm.
He first meets with the HR manager.
Afterwards, he meets with the department
manager. Finally, he meets with the company
president. John is most likely experiencing a
______ interview
a. Board
b. Serial
c. Panel
d. Mass
61. Louise was hired as account specialist in a
bank when his uncle, a senior employee,
endorsed her to the manager. What recruitment
strategy is employed in this situation?
a. Patronage system
b. Internal recruitment
c. Cronyism
d. Employee referral
62. Which of the following is the primary
disadvantage of using structured interviews
during the employee selection process?
a. Higher potential for bias
b. Limited validity and reliability
c. Reduced opportunities for asking
follow up questions
d. Reduced to withstand legal challenge
63. How does situational interview differ from
behavioral interview?
a. Situational interviews are based on an
applicant’s responses to actual past
situations
b. Situational interviews ask applicants
job-related questions to assess their
knowledge and skills
c. Situational interviews are based on
how an applicant might behave in a
hypothetical question
d. Behavioral interviews ask applicants
to describe their emotions in different
hypothetical situations
64. Research has indicated that employees referred
by successful employees had _____ than did
employees who had been referred by
unsuccessful employees
a. Higher motivation
b. Longer tenure
c. Lower motivation
d. Shorter tenure
65. This is considered as an advantage in external
recruiting
a. It stifles creativity and new ideas in
organization
b. It may damage existing employees’
motivation
c. It sustains the existing organizational
culture
d. It can enhance organizational
vitality and innovation
66. If a company has a high rate of promoting
from within, which of the following may
result?
a. Stale workforce devoid of many
ideas
b. Decrease in benefits
c. High group cohesiveness
d. Diverse workforce full of new ideas
67. Recruitment ads that places company logos
and use creative illustrations attract _____
applicants, while ads including salary ranges
and company phone numbers attract ______
applicants
a. Higher quality / more
b. More / higher quality
c. More qualified / fewer qualified
d. More / more qualified
68. Lourfe is not motivated and not satisfied with
her current job because she says that the
company that she is working in as of the
moment has never given her the promised
 annual salary increase even if she has been
working there for 3 years already. Also, she
says that her job is not what she expected it to
be. Which of the following could have been
done by the company to prevent this from
happening?
a. Give Lourfe realistic job previews
when she was just applying for the
job
b. Give her awards for doing her job
c. Give her opportunities to attend
seminars to improve on her skills

69. This is an expression of an opinion; either

orally or through a written checklist, regarding
an applicant’s ability, previous performance,
work habits, character, or potential for future
success
a. Reference check
b. Evaluation letter
c. Reference
d. Letter of recommendation

70. Which assessment center techniques is

designed to stimulate the types of daily
information that appear on a manager’s or
employee’s desk?
a. Simulation
b. Work example
c. Leaderless group discussion
d. In-basket technique

71. An interviewer is confirming the accuracy of

information provided by an applicant is an
example of ________
a. Negligent hiring
b. Resume
c. Reference check
d. Letter of recommendation

72. A job applicant is given a set of questions in

which she is asked to rate the extent to which
she is outgoing, anxious, optimistic, careful,
and loyal. She is probably taking
a. An interest inventory
b. A personality inventory
c. A cognitive ability tests
d. An assessment center

73.