POINTERS TO REVIEW LEAD311 FINAL EXAM

1. It shall include any highway, boulevard, avenue, road, street, bridge or other
thoroughfare, park, plaza, square, and/ or any open space of public ownership where
the people are allowed access.
a. PUBLIC ASSEMBLY c. FREEDOM PARK
b. PUBLIC PLACE d. PRIVATE PLACE
2. It has direct authority for and oversight of the Hostage Negotiation Team.
a. Critical Commander c. Disaster commander
b. hostage commander d. Incident Commander
3. The __________ units tasked to maintain peace and order shall not interfere with
the holding of public assembly.
a. BFP c. PNP
b. CIMC d. CDM
4. A ______ is not required for public gatherings staged in freedom parks or on
private property. Only when requested by the leaders or organizers, the PNP will send
police officers to help keep the peace and protect the safety of attendees at public
gatherings held in freedom of both parks or on private land.
a. Permit c. Request letter
b. Approval d. certificate
5. It is responsible for natural calamities and disasters in local government.
a. Disaster Response Stage
b. Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
c. Civil disturbances and demonstrations
d. Civil Disturbance Management
6. They have taken on a more systematic, organized nature and have invoked tools
that were not available in past decades.
a. Hostage Predicament
b. Civil disturbances and demonstrations
c. Civil Disturbance Management
d. Demonstrations and Rallies
7. Community-building initiatives, including but not restricted to: cleaning up the
sewers; cleaning up clogged canals, esteros, and waterways; and removing
unapproved buildings in disaster- prone locations.
A. Incident Induced by Humans
B. Disaster Management
C. Disaster Response Stage
D. Post-Disaster Stage
8. They shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the situation or
when all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers
may employ such means as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an
aggression.
A. Operations for Civil Disturbance Management (CDM)
B. Alert Levels During Human-Induced Critical Incident
C. POLICE INTERVENTION ON LABOR DUTIES
 D. Crisis Management Committee
9. A similar organization bolster management is observed its crisis the coordination
of resident evacuation from the crisis area government organizations that are involved is
observed the support of search, rescue, and retrieval operations, evacuation, and
emergency medical services in collaboration with relevant agencies must be in place
and security in crisis areas is provided
A. Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG)
B. Rapid Damage Assessment and Needs Analysis
C. Operations for Civil Disturbance Management
D. PNP Critical Incident Management Operational Procedures
10. It is responsible for human-induced (man-made) critical occurrences
A. NDRRMC
B. NPOC
C. CIMC
D. CIMOP
11. What does RDANA stands for?
A. Read Damage Assessment and Needs Analysis
B. Rapid Disaster Assessment and Needs Analysis
C. Rapid Damage Assessment and Needs Analysis
D. Rapid Damage Assessment and Note Analysis
12. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes in
general shall be limited to the maintenance of peace and order, enforcement of laws,
and implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities.
A. Crisis Management Committee C. Alert Levels During Human-Induced Critical
B. POLICE INTERVENTION ON LABOR DUTIES D. CDM
13. It is in charge of handling natural calamities and disasters
A. Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) Operations
B. PNP Critical Incident Management Operational Procedures
C. National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
D. Critical Incident Management Committee
14. Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) Operational Tasks except:
A. Isolate the area;
B. Secure likely targets;
C. Control the crowds
D. Evacuation
15. The PNP shall function as the first responder in the affected region in the case of
a natural disaster or calamity to provide the area security and support for the search,
rescue, and retrieval operations to be led by the local DRRMCS.
A. Natural Disaster
B. Natural catastrophes and calamities
 C. Human Induced Incidents
D. Critical Incidents
16. When there’s no catastrophe they Conduct Risk Mapping and identification of
disaster-prone areas.
A. Proactive Assessment in the Pre-Disaster Stage (Level 1- Green)
B. POLICE INTERVENTION stage (level 4- blue)
C. Post-Disaster Stage (Level 3- White)
D. Disaster Response Stage (Level 2- Red)
17. When a natural disaster is about to strike or when a human-caused tragedy and
a natural disaster coincide.
A. POLICE INTERVENTION stage (level 4- blue)
B Proactive Assessment in the Pre-Disaster Stage (Level 1- Green)
C. Disaster Response Stage (Level 2- Red)
D. Post-Disaster Stage (Level 3- White)
18. Obtaining reports from the concerned Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
Council of the affected areas regarding Rapid Damage Assessment and Needs Analysis
(RDANA)
A. Disaster Response Stage (Level 2- Red)
B. Post-Disaster Stage (Level 3- White)
C. Proactive Assessment in the Pre-Disaster Stage (Level 1- Green)
D. POLICE INTERVENTION stage (level 4- blue)
19. Human-induced critical incident is possible, but not likely.
A. Level 4 (Extreme)
B. Level 1 (Low)
C. Level 3 (High)
D. Level 2 (Moderate)
20. A human-induced critical incident has just occurred or has just been pre-empted.
A. Level 2 (Moderate)
B. Level 3 (High)
C. Level 4 (Extreme)
D. Level 1 (Low)
21. There is no information to suggest a specific human- induced critical incident
may occur.
A. Level 1 (Low)
B. Level 2 (Moderate)
C. Level 3 (High)
D. Level 4 (Extreme)
22. In case of failure, orderly dispersal, to include apprehension of those responsible,
shall be resorted to. Maximum tolerance must always be exercised (Batas Pambansa
880 sec. 10).
A. PUBLIC SAFETY OPERATIONS
B. National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
C. Crisis Management Committee
D. Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) Operation
23. Police dogs can be trained to stop fleeing a violent suspects and are faster than
their human counterparts. In search-and-rescue situations or for the purpose of
apprehending criminals, dogs are also used to track persons on foot.
A. Rapid Damage Assessment and Needs Analysis
B. Hostage Predicament
C. Operations for Civil Disturbance Management (CDM)
D. Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG)
24. It means the highest degree of restraint that the police, military and other peace
keeping authorities shall observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the
same.
A. private property
B. Freedom Park
C. Public Place
D. Maximum Tolerance
25. It shall mean the venue or place established or designated by local government
units within their respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could be held without
securing any permit for such purpose from the local government unit concerned.
A. private property
B. Freedom Park
C. Maximum Tolerance
D. Public Place
26. It handle a situation that necessitates a CMC-directed operation and the
execution of unique tasks by one or more of the Philippine government's urgent
services.
A. Crime Prevention
B. Natural catastrophes and calamities
C. Human Induced Incidents
D. Critical Incidents
27. It includes critical event management processes, search, rescue, and retrieval
operations, hostage situations, management of civil disturbances, management of
health risks, and other operations that advance public safety.
a. National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
b. Crisis Management Committee
 c. PNP Critical Incident Management Operational Procedures (CIMOP)
d. Public Safety Operation
28. It is requested when the leaders or organizers, the PNP will send olio officers to
help keep the peace and protect the safety of attendees at public gatherings held in
freedom of both parks or on private land.
A. Sub-Task Group meetings C. TRIMP's awareness campaign
B. Public Assembly D. Maximum Tolerance
29. What does PCG stand for?
a. Philippine Coast Guardians
b. Philippine Coastal Guard
c. Philippine Coast Guard
d. Philippine Coast Guild
30. Which function of the PCG focuses on ensuring the seaworthiness of vessels
and maritime safety?
a. Maritime Environmental Protection
b. Maritime Search and Rescue
c. Maritime Safety
d. Maritime Law Enforcement
31. How many PSC Centers does the PCG have throughout the Philippines?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 29
d. 44
32. The PCG is mandated to enforce regulations in accordance with which types of
international agreements?
a. Political treaties
b. Environmental agreements
c. Maritime international conventions
d. Economic pacts
33. Which PCG function is responsible for ensuring navigational safety and
maintaining lighthouses?
a. Maritime Safety
b. Maritime Environmental Protection
c. Maritime Search and Rescue
d. Maritime Security
34. What does BFP stand for?
a. Bureau of Fire Protection
b. Bureau of Fire Prevention
c. Bureau of Firefighters
d. Bureau of Fire Safety
35. Which type of operations is NOT performed by the BFP?
a. Fire Safety Enforcement
b. Firefighting Operations
c. Emergency Medical Services
d. Search and Rescue
36. What is the primary responsibility of the BFP?
a. Maritime law enforcement
b. Preventing and suppressing fires
c. Marine environmental protection
d. Conducting search and rescue operations
37. What does FSEC stand for in the context of BFP's operations?
a. Fire Safety Evaluation Certificate
b. Fire Safety Enforcement Commission
c. Fire Safety Equipment Check
d. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
38. What does EMS stand for in the context of BFP's operations?
a. Emergency Medical Services
b. Emergency Management System
c. Environmental Monitoring System
d. Emergency Mitigation Strategy
39. What does CBRN stand for in the context of BFP's special operations?
a. Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear.
b. Center for Biological Research and Nanotechnology.
c. Combatting Bioterrorism and Radioactive Nuclear weapons.
d. Certified Building Response Network.
40. What is the purpose of "Collapsed Structure Rescue Operations" in BFP's special
operations?
a. Remove debris for construction purposes.
b. Save lives in structural collapse incidents.
c. Create controlled demolitions.
d. Train firefighters in building design
41. What is the goal of "Civil Disturbance Management (CDM)" in BFP's special
operations?
a. Increase public disturbance.
b. Ensure public and personnel safety during crowd dispersal.
c. Encourage rioting.
d. Promote civil disturbances.
42. In the context of BFP's special operations, what is "Declaration of Public
Nuisance and Summary Abatement" about?
a. Identifying the cleanest public places
b. Addressing issues with public restrooms
c. Acting upon buildings or structures posing imminent danger to the public
d. Organizing community events
43. Which type of special operation involves saving victims from mountain ridges or
wilderness areas?
a. Water Rescue Operations
b. High Elevation/ High Rise Structure Rescue Operations
c. Mountain Rescue Operations
d. Trench Rescue Operations
44. What is the primary objective of the Philippine Coast Guard (PCG) in the area of
Maritime Safety (MARSAF)?
a. Environmental protection
b. Law enforcement
c. Search and rescue
d. Preventing loss of lives and properties at sea
45. What does MARLEN stand for in the context of the PCG's operations?
a. Maritime Safety Enforcement
b. Maritime Law Enforcement
c. Maritime Environmental Protection
d. Maritime Search and Rescue
46. Which agency is responsible for fire safety enforcement in the Philippines?
a. PCG
b. BFP
c. PDEA
d. DENR
47. What is the main goal of the BFP's Fire Safety Enforcement division?
a. Investigating arson cases
b. Ensuring compliance with the Fire Code
c. Providing emergency medical services
d. Managing disaster response
48. What is the primary responsibility of the BFP in Chemical, Biological,
Radiological, Nuclear (CBRN) operations?
a. Managing forest fires
b. Providing medical services
c. Handling elevator rescues
d. Responding to hazardous materials incidents
49. In what type of fire incidents does the BFP's "Fire in High-rise Building" operation
specialize?
a. Basement fires
b. Armory fires
c. Fires in tall buildings
d. Forest fires
50. What is the purpose of the PCG's Mandatory Pre-departure Inspection?
a. To enforce navigational rules
b. To supervise marine salvage operations
c. To ensure the seaworthiness of vessels
d. To inspect lighthouses
51. Which agency deputizes the BFP to perform maritime law enforcement functions
related to piracy and smuggling?
a. Department of Transportation
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Customs
d. Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR)
52. What is the primary function of the PCG's MARITIME SEARCH AND RESCUE
(MARSAR) division?
a. Enforcing maritime laws
b. Protecting the marine environment
c. Rescuing individuals in distress at sea
d. Conducting fire investigation
53. What does the BFP's "Fire Ground Rescue Operation" focus on?
a. Rescuing victims from elevators
b. Locating and saving victims in burning structures
c. Responding to hazardous material incidents
d. Managing crowd control during fires
54. Which agency is responsible for implementing laws on forestry, firearms, and
explosives?
a. PCG
b. BFP
c. DENR
d. PDEA
55. What is the primary responsibility of the PCG in Maritime Environmental
Protection (MAREP)?
a. Preventing illegal fishing
b. Ensuring the safety of mariners
c. Enforcing immigration laws
d. Protecting the marine environment
56. What does the BFP's "Non-Emergency Patient Transport" operation involve?
a. Coordinating with EMS teams
b. Responding to hazardous material incidents
c. Rescuing victims from elevators
d. Providing medical services during disasters
57. What is the PCG's primary responsibility during Maritime Law Enforcement
(MARLEN) operations?
a. Conducting search and rescue missions
b. Enforcing maritime safety standards
c. Implementing various laws within maritime jurisdiction
d. Providing medical assistance at sea
58. In what type of incidents does the BFP's "Electrocution Rescue Operations"
specialize?
a. Fire in high-rise buildings c. Rescuing victims from elevators
b. Medical emergencies d. Rescuing electrocuted victims

58. To remove the opportunity for crime to occur in an environment, and promote
positive interaction with the space by legitimate users.
59. a. CPTED c. RAT

b. SCP d. RCT
60. This helps create vibrant neighborhoods and reduces the opportunity for crime by
increasing natural surveilla
61. It is the procedures regarding building plan review to imposition of administrative
sanctions, filing of appropriate charges against violators of the Fire Code and
addressing non-acceptance of inspection order.
a. Fire Safety Enforcement c. Firefighting Operations
b. Emergency Medical Services d. Special Operations
62. It is the act of attempting to prevent the spread of and extinguish significant
unwanted fires in buildings, vehicles, and woodlands purposely to protect lives,
property and the environment.
a. Fire Safety Enforcement c. Firefighting Operations
b. Emergency Medical Services d. Special Operations
63. composed of procedures covers not only how to perform emergency medical
responses during fire/ disaster operations but also incident rehabilitation; critical
incident stress management; and emergency medical team protocols and decorum.
a. Fire Safety Enforcement c. Firefighting Operations
b. Emergency Medical Services d. Special Operations
64. It is the act of attempting to prevent the spread of and extinguish significant
unwanted fires in buildings, vehicles, and woodlands purposely to protect lives,
property and the environment.
a. Fire Safety Enforcement c. Firefighting Operations
b. Emergency Medical Services d. Special Operations
65. The procedures in this section are clustered into three (3) groups determination of
fire origin, determination of fire cause and determination of responsibility and liability.
a. Fire/Arson Investigation operation c. Disaster Management operation
b. Firefighting Operations d. Fire Safety Enforcement operation
66. This section comprises of the procedures for disaster operations during typhoons
and floods; earthquakes; landslides; tsunamis; and volcanic activities.
a. Fire/Arson Investigation operation c. Disaster Management operation
b. Firefighting Operations d. Fire Safety Enforcement operation
67. A part of structural firefighting tactics, and involves the expulsion of heat and smoke
from a burning building, permitting the firefighters to more easily and safely find
trapped individuals and attack the fire
a. Ventilation c. Salvage
b. Post fire analysis d. Extinguishment
68. It is the protection of buildings and their contents from unnecessary damage due to
water, smoke, heat, and other elements. A significant amount of fire loss is created
during extinguishment operations and other events after the fire has been controlled
a. Ventilation c. Salvage
b. Post fire analysis d. Extinguishment

69. To conduct a critique of what was done during the fire operation. The cooperative
discussion of fire personnel about all phases of fire from the time of the alarm was
received until return to station.
a. Ventilation c. Salvage
b. Post fire analysis d. Extinguishment
70. It is based on removing any one or more of the four elements in the fire tetrahedron
to suppress the fire. In order to remove the heat, something must be applied to the
fire to absorb the heat or act as a heat exchanger.
a. Ventilation c. Salvage
b. Post fire analysis d. Extinguishment
71. Reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident
scene while providing for firefighter safety in doing so.
a. Overhauling c. Direct attack
b. Indirect Attack d. Combination attack
72. This fire attack use If fire is limited and approachable. Applying a solid stream
directly to the base of the fire.
a. Overhauling c. Direct attack
b. Indirect Attack d. Combination attack
73. This fire attack use If the fire involves a large area and confined by locating the
hottest portion and applying a stream over hottest portion.
a. Overhauling c. Direct attack
b. Indirect Attack d. Combination attack
74. This fire attack use If the whole building is already involved by the fire and entry is
difficult.
a. Overhauling c. Direct attack
b. Indirect Attack d. Combination attack
75. Fire alarm use when fire affecting the major part of the area
a. General alarm c. Under control
b. Fire out d. Task Force alpha
76. Maritime Operation is designed to implement laws on fisheries (and poaching),
immigration, tariff and customs, forestry, firearms and explosives, human trafficking,
dangerous drugs and controlled chemicals, and to implement the revised penal code
and all other applicable laws within the country’s maritime jurisdiction and battle
transnational crimes.
a. Maritime Law Enforcement c. Maritime Safety
b. Maritime Environment Pollution d. Maritime Security
77. MARITIME operation designed with regards to oil pollution, prevention, mitigation
and control through the conduct of marine pollution monitoring and control,
enhancement of PCG capability and oil spill response operations and enforcement
of all marine environmental laws and regulations.
 a. Maritime Law Enforcement c. Maritime Safety
b. Maritime Environment Pollution d. Maritime Security
78. MARITIME operations designed to enhance the security of its different maritime
zones to protect the integrity as a nation. In the performance of this function, the
PCG contributes to maintain good order at sea by conducting regular patrols and
surveillance for the safety of navigation of ships, to safeguard ships from illegal acts
and to promote freedom of navigation.
a. Maritime Law Enforcement c. Maritime Safety
b. Maritime Environment Pollution d. Maritime Security
79. It involves exploiting men, women, or children for the purposes of forced labor or
commercial sexual exploitation.
a. Drug trafficking c. Human Trafficking
b. Gun Running d. Piracy
80. The harvest, transportation, purchase or sale of timber in violation of laws.
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Piracy
81. It refers to the unauthorized duplication of copyrighted content that is then sold at
substantially lower prices in the 'grey' market. The ease of access to technology has
meant that over the years, piracy has become more rampant. For example, CD
writers are available off the shelf at very low prices, making music piracy a simple
affair.
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Piracy
82. Generally, it is defined as the selling, transporting, or importation of illegal controlled
substances.
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Piracy
83. An activity conducted by Philippine vessels that violate the country's laws, Regional
Fisheries Management Organization resolutions, and laws of other coastal states
a. Drug trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Illegal Fishing
84. The activity of bringing guns and other weapons into a country illegally, especially for
use against the government.
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Smuggling
85. The following Personal floating devices are designed to unconscious person except
a. Off shore life jacket c. Near shore buoyancy vest
b. Special device d. A and B
86. The following Personal floating devices are designed to conscious person except
a. Off shore life jacket c. Near shore buoyancy vest
b. Special device d. A and B
87. The following Personal floating devices are designed to conscious person
a. Throwable device c. Flotation aid
b. Special device d. All of the above
88. An act of robbery on the high seas
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
 b. Gun Running d. Piracy
89. The provision of a service-typically, transportation or fraudulent document to an
individual who voluntarily seeks to gain illegal entry into a foreign country.
a. Drug Trafficking c. Illegal Logging
b. Gun Running d. Human Smuggling
90. Based on RA 10654 the following are considered serious violation.
a. Fishing without a valid license, authorization or permit
b. Fishing without reporting the catch or misreporting the catch
c. Fishing in a closed area or during a closed season
d. All of the proceeding
91. The following crimes are included in 8 focus crime except
a. Murder c. Illegal Drugs
b. Physical Injury d. Rape
92. It is the number of crime incidents committed in a given area over a period of time which
include the index and non-index crimes.
a. Crime Volume c. Non-Index Crime
b. Index Crime d. Crime mapping
93. It is the number of crime incidents in a given period of time for every 100,000 inhabitants of
an area.
a. Crime Volume c. Non-Index Crime
b. Index Crime d. Crime Rate

94. Crimes which are serious in nature and which occur with sufficient frequency and
regularity.
a. Crime Volume c. Non-Index Crime
b. Index Crime d. Crime mapping
95. Non index crime are crimes under the special law
a. Crime Volume c. Non-Index Crime
b. Index Crime d. Crime Mapping

96. Crime mapping refer to the process of conducting spatial analysis within crime analysis or a
process of using a geographic information system to conduct spatial analysis of crime
problems and other police-related issues.
a. Crime Volume c. Non-Index Crime
b. Index Crime d. Crime Mapping
97. Crime statistics refer to systematic, quantitative results about crime
a. Crime statistic c. Non-Index Crime
b. Crime mapping d. Crime rate
98. Assuming that the total crimes of 8 focus crimes is 20 and among the total crime 1
murder case is committed what is the percentage of murder case in a bar graph
a. 5% c. 2%
b. 4% d. 1%
99. Assuming that the total crimes of 8 focus crimes is 20 and among the total crime 1
murder case was committed what is the percentage of murder case in a pie
a. 20% c. 16%
b.18% d. 15%
100. Crime
Registrar individual in charge or responsible in the encoding, preparation,
consolidation, and maintenance of crime data files, and ensure the continuity and
standard implementation of gathering, identifying, and recording of crime incidents.

a. Cleared Case c. Non-Index Crime

b. Index Crime d. Crime registrar
101. Who is the author of CPTED?
a. Burrhus Frederic Skinner c. Oscar Newman
b. Ray Jeffery+ d. George Rand
102. In crime mapping techniques, an area that has a greater than average number of
criminal or disorder events is called __________.
a. Thematic map c. Crime hot spots
b. Spatial regression d. Hot spots
103. A tool used by analysts in law enforcement agencies to map, visualize, and
analyze crime incident patterns.
a. Crime Mapping c. Crime Monitoring
b. Crime Analysis d. Geographical Profiling of Offenders
104. In bar chart mapping type, the police use what mathematical formula, visual
symbol or computer application in showing it?
a. Frequencies represented by chart values within variable are displayed
b. Percentages represented by slices of a pie of values within a variable are
displayed.
c. Shaded surface according to the concentration of incidents in particular areas.
d. Web sites where citizens and police officers can conduct basic crime mapping
themselves.

105. Which type of crime mapping that the police used individual symbols to represent
point, line, and polygon features.
a. Pin Mapping c. Graduated Size Map
b. Single Symbol Mapping d. Graduated Color Map

106. Crime mapping is computer ____ that allows agencies to track the types of
crimes occurring in a jurisdiction as well as the date, time, and geographical location
of crimes.
a. Application c. Software
b. Program D. Strategies
107. A discrete location that is usually depicted on a Geographic Information System-
generated map by a symbol or label which is analogous to a pin placed on a paper
wall map.
a. Point Features c. Polygon Features
b. Line Features d. Image Features
108. What is being used by the crime analyst to identify crime hot spots, along with
other trends and patterns?
 a. Pin Map c. Geographic Information System
b. Crime Map d. Crime Information System
109. The type of crime mapping that illustrates individual, uniform symbols represent
features such as the locations of stores, roads, or states.
a. Buffers c. Single Symbol Mapping
b. Graduated Mapping d. Density Mapping
110. Which type of crime mapping that the crime analysts use point data to shade
surfaces according to the concentration of incidents in particular areas.
a. Graduated Mapping c. Interactive Crime Mapping
b. Chart Mapping d. Density Mapping
111. A feature that can be represented on a map by a multisided figure with a closed
set of lines.
a. Image Features c. Polygon Features
b. Bar Chart d. Pie Chart
112. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies, law
enforcement agents, at all times are bound to exercise__________.
a. Utmost restraint b. Perseverance b. Maximum tolerance d. Patience
113. Theory which states that crime is attracted to areas that are not taken care of or
abandoned is __________.
a. Broken Window c. Classical
b. Environmental Criminology d. Social Structure
114. Canadian academicians claimed that a crime takes place when all of the
essential elements are present. These elements consist of: a law, an offender, a
target, and a place.
a. Patricia and Paul Brantingham
b. James Q. Wilson and George L. Kelling
c. Ronald V. Clarke and Patricia Mayhew
d. Adriano Balbi and Andre-Michel Guerry
115. This includes conducting inspection of buildings, issuance of permit, imposing
administrative sanctions, posting of warning, declaring public nuisance of place and
filling of case in violation of fire code.
a. Firefighting Operations c. Fire Safety Enforcement
b. Special Operations d. Disaster Management
116. Is designed to help prevent or minimize unnecessary loss of lives and properties
at sea.
a. MARSEC b.. MAREP c. MARSAF d. MARLEN
117. PCG contributes to maintain good order at sea by conducting regular patrols and
surveillance for the safety of navigation of ships, to safeguard ships from illegal acts
and to promote freedom of navigation.
a. MARLEN b. MARSAR c. MARSAF d. MARSEC
118. Includes any controversy concerning terms, tenure or conditions of employment,
or concerning the association or representation of persons in negotiating, fixing,
maintaining, changing, or seeking to arrange terms or conditions of employment,
 regardless of whether the disputants stand in the proximate relation of employer and
employee.
a. Family Problem b. Labor Dispute c. Lovelife Problem d. Land Dispute
119. The members of the peacekeeping detail shall stay outside a ________ radius
from the picket line.
a. 50-meter b. 40-meter c. 10-meter d. 30-meter
120. DOLE STANDS FOR?
a. DEPARTMENT OF LABOR AND EMPLOYEE
b. DEPARTMENT OF LABORER AND EMPLOYED
c. DEPARTMENT OF LAND AND EMPLOY
d. DEPARTMENT OF LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT