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NARAYAN CHANGDER
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Contents
1 Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Introduction to Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Cell Injury . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
1.3 Amyloidosis and Calcification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
1.4 Inflammation and Repair . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
1.5 Circulatory Disturbances . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41
1.6 Neoplasia . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
1.7 Immunopathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
1.8 Infectious Diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 69
1.9 Miscellaneous Disorders . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 119
1.10 Cardiovascular Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 220
1.11 Respiratory Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226
1.12 Urinary Tract Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 229
1.13 Pathology of the Gastro-Intestinal Tract . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 231
1.14 Liver and Biliary Tract Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 235
1.15 Breast pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 239
1.16 Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 240
1.17 Endocrine Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 302
2 Pharmacology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309
2.1 General Pharmacology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309
2.2 Autonomic nervous system . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 317
2.3 Peripheral nervous system . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 329
2.4 Central nervous system . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 345
2.5 Histamine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 358
2.6 Gastrointestinal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 362
2.7 Respiratory system . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 388
2.8 Hormones . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 434
2.9 Chemotherapy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 489
2.10 Drug therapy of glaucoma and cataract . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 491
2.11 Treatment of poisoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 493
3 Microbiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 496
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.1 Introduction to Microbiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 496
3.2 Bacteriology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 526
3.3 parasitology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 536
3.4 Virology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 544
3.5 Mycology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 559
3.6 Bacterial Staining . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 566
3.7 Common Tests for Bacterial identification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 576
3.8 Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral Infection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 577
3.9 Common Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Fungal Infections . 580
3.10 Host-Parasite relationship . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 583
3.11 Bacterial AND Viral Genetics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 584
3.12 Immunity to infection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 701
3.13 Vaccines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 801
3.14 Sterilization and disinfection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 810
3.15 Bacteriology of water and air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 815
4 Forensic Medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 821

4.1 Forensic Toxicology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 821
4.2 Forensic pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 845
4.3 Medical Jurisprudence . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 852
4.4 Forensic Sciences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 867
4.5 General, clinical, environmental and analytical toxicology . . . . . . . . 968
5 Social And Preventive Medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1005

5.1 History of Public Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1005
5.2 Concepts in Public Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1019
5.3 Epidemiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1028
5.4 Research Methodology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1060
5.5 Entomology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1072
5.6 Biostatistics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1093
5.7 Health Planning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1121
1
5.8 Public Health Administration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1130

5.9 Environmental Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1134

5.10 Demography . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1162
5.11 Mental Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1182
5.12 Education Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1237
5.13 Demography and Family Planning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1273
1. Pathology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Introduction to Pathology
1. A potential space located between the 4. A type of symbiosis in which one organism
ureters and the rectum is: benefits and one is harmed:
A. Douglas pouch A. Mutualism
B. Winhauer’s space B. Commensalism
C. Morisons pouch C. Parasitism

D. none of above
D. Cul-de-sac
5. the study of insects as they pertain to
2. Virulence: crime scene investigation
A. Describes just how good a pathogen is A. putrefaction
at overcoming host defenses
B. forensic pathology
B. Is greater if the LD50 is lower C. forensic entomology
C. Is greater if the ID50 is lower D. forensic anthropology
D. Is lower if it takes more organisms to 6. Which of the following is a congenital dila-
cause disease tion of the biliary tree?
E. All of the above are true A. Sclerosing cholangitis
3. The scientific study of disease: B. Cholecystitis

C. Choledochal cyst
A. Pathology
D. Courvoisier GB
B. Etiology
C. Epidemiology 7. The ability of a pathogen to produce a dis-
ease by overcoming the defenses of the
D. Pathogenesis host:
E. Virulence A. Pathology
1. A 2. E 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C
1.1 Introduction to Pathology 3
B. Etiology C. A uniform dilation of the wall of the

C. Pathogenicity aorta

D. Pathogenesis D. Thin linear flap seen pulsating within
the aortic lumen with blood flow visible on
E. Virulence both sides of the flap
8. All of the following are manners of death
13. Which of the following describes a bladder
except:
diverticulum?
A. natural
A. A cystic enlargement of bladder orifice
B. suicidal
B. A herniation of the bladder wall
C. brachial
C. A focal thickening of the bladder wall
D. homicidal
D. An echogenic mass of the bladder wall
9. The five means by which someone dies
14. Falling down the stairs is an example of:
A. death
A. manner of death
B. manner of death
B. cause of death
C. cause of death
D. mechanism of death C. mechanism of death
D. none of above
10. The intestine is composed of how many
layers? 15. Most common cause of bacterial meningi-
A. 6 tis in young adults?
B. 4 A. Escherichia coli
C. 7 B. Neisseria meningitides
D. 5 C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
11. A 67-year-old man (a) with a 9- D. none of above

month (b) of increasing (c)
of breath. 16. A cyst like enlargement of the distal end
of the ureter is called:
A. complained; (b) case; (c) difficulty
A. A ureterocele
B. presenting; (b) complaint; (c) shortage
B. A Urachal Cyst
C. presented; (b) history; (c) shortness
C. A Diverticula
D. none of above
D. Pyonephrosis
12. What is the typical sonographic appear-
ance of an aortic dissection? 17. death from a lack of oxygen
A. Discontinuity of the wall of the aorta A. decomposition
with a large hematoma surrounding the
B. exsanguinations
vessel
C. putrefaction
B. A dilation of one side of the aorta, typ-
ically the left D. asphyxiation
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. D

18. Drug overdoses could potenitally be classi- A. Lipoma

fied as: B. Pheochromocytoma
A. accidental C. Splenic metastasis
B. suicidal D. Hemangioma
C. homicidal
24. The normal AP diameter of the main pan-
D. all of the above creatic duct is
A. Less than and equal to 4mm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. Which of the following disorders does not
produce a complex sonographic pattern? B. Less that or equal to 1 mm
A. Infected cyst C. Less than or equal to 3mm
B. Hematomas D. Less than or equal to 2mm
C. Congenital simple cyst 25. What is the purpose of scanning the uri-
D. Hemorrhagic cyst nary bladder ureters jets?
20. the process of rotting and break down A. Rule out the presence of Urinoma
B. Search for bladder carcinoma
A. rigor mortis
C. Determine if a ureter is obstructed
B. decomposition
D. Determine if the bladder outlet ob-
C. livor mortis
struction is present
D. putrefaction
26. Which of the following is NOT a manner of
21. Occlusion of the hepatic veins describes death?
A. Budd chiari syndrome A. suicide
B. Marfan syndrome B. homicide
C. Morrison syndrome C. undetermined
D. Klinefelter syndrome D. drowning
22. All of the following are parameters of a 27. What is the most common abnormalities of
normal Doppler study of the renal arteries the spleen demonstrated in sonography?
except: A. Splenic rupture
A. High resistance wave form B. Splenic abscess
B. Low resistance Wave form C. Splenomegaly
C. Renal artery/aortic ratio less than 3.5 D. Lymphoma
D. Peak systolic velocity less that 150
28. the decomposition of organic matter by
cm/sec
microorganisms, resulting in production of
23. A 32-year-old female patient presents to foul-smelling matter
the sonography department for an abdomi- A. decomposition
nal sonogram. An evaluation of the spleen B. death
reveals a 1-cm, * rounded, echogenic mass
that does not produce acoustic shadowing. C. autolysis
What is the most likely diagnosis? D. putrefaction
19. C 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A
29. The most common cause of acute renal fail- C. $2, 000-$3, 000
ure is D. $14, 000-$20, 000

A. Acute tubular necrosis
35. A patient with a wandering spleen would
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
have an increased risk for:
C. Renal artery thrombosis
A. Splenosis
D. Renal vein thrombosis
B. Splenic Carcinoma
30. The main pancreatic duct joins which duct
C. Splenic Torsion
before entering the second part of the duo-
denum? D. Splenic infection
A. CBD 36. A subacute disease:
B. CHB
A. Is less severe than a chronic disease
C. Santorini’s duct
B. Doesn’t last as long as an acute dis-
D. Wirsungs duct ease
31. A disease that is relatively severe but of C. Is latent
short duration is: D. Is inapparent
A. Latent
37. Focal GB wall thickening with comet tail ar-
B. Inapparent
tifacts that originate from the non depen-
C. Chronic dent wall is most characteristic of
D. Acute A. Adenomyomatosis
32. the cooling of body temperature after B. Cholesterolosis
death C. Chronic cholecystitis
A. rigor mortis
D. Metastatic disease to the GB
B. algor mortis
38. All of the following are functions of the
C. livor mortis
spleen except:
D. autolysis
A. Storage of iron
33. Most common principal routes by which mi- B. Blood reservoir
crobes enter the nervous system is?
C. Defense against disease
A. Hematogenous spread
D. Destruction of Phagocytic Cells
B. Direct implantation
C. Transport along the peripheral nerves 39. When compared to the normal liver, the
echogenicity of the pancreas in a 60 yr old
D. none of above patient is
A. Hyperechoic
34. How much money does a Forensic Pathol-
ogist make? B. Isoechoic
A. $120, 000-$300, 000 a year C. Hypoechoic
B. $50, 000-$90, 000 a year D. Heterogeneous
30. A 31. D 32. B 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. D
40. Nosocomial infections are acquired 45. Vitreous humor is the

A. reservoir A. clouding of the cornea of the eye
B. herd immunity B. build up of potassium in the fluids of
the eye
C. direct contact, indirect contact,
droplet, waterborne, foodborne, airborne, C. stiffening of the muscles
vector D. pooling of blood
D. While in an inpatient facility
NARAYAN CHANGDER
46. A common finding in people over the age
41. The compression of the left renal vein be- of 50 is
tween the aorta and the SMA is referred A. Renal cyst
to as the
B. Renal calculus
A. Murphy sign
C. Hypernephroma
B. Nutcracker phenomenon
D. Multicystic disease
C. Sandwich effect
47. An enlarged spleen may be caused by:
D. Compartment syndrome
A. Infarcts
42. Which manner of death accounts for half B. Portal Hypertension
of all death cases?
C. Asplenia
A. homicidal
D. Splenic Rupture
B. natural
C. accidental 48. Splenic calcifications usually result from
which disease?
D. suicidal
A. Splenomegaly
43. A 60-year-old patient presents with pain- B. Lymphocytic
less jaundice and weight loss. The pancre-
C. Angiosarcoma
atic head shows a 2 cm hypochoic lesion
with an enlarged pancreatic duct. This is D. Granulomatous
most likely:
49. A 25-year-old female patient presents to
A. Pancreatitis the sonography department for a complete
B. Pancreatic Cancer abdominal sonogram. She complains of
right lowerquadrant pain and nausea. The
C. Insulinoma right upper abdomen appears normal. A
D. Complicated pseudocyst small mass is noted in the area of the
splenic hilum. This mass appears isoechoic
44. Staghorn calculus refers to a large stone to the spleen. What does this most likely
within the represent?
A. Pancreas A. Accessory Spleen
B. Hepatic Duct B. Splenic Hemangioma
C. Renal Pelvis C. Neuroblastoma
D. Neck of gallbladder D. Pancreatic Cystadenocarcinoma
41. B 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. A

50. A 55-year-old woman is seen with severe A. Renal cyst

right upper quadrant pain and fever and B. Acute tubular necrosis
a history of biliary tract disease. Labo-

ratory values reveal elevated liver func- C. BUN
tion tests and leukocytosis. A right up- D. Increased creatinine
per quadrant ultrasound examination re-
veals a solitary, hypochoic lesion in the 54. In adults with history of sickle cell anemia,
right lobe of the liver that measures 4.5 the spleen is typically
cm at its largest diameter. The walls of A. Normal size
the lesion appear thickened and acoustic
B. Small
enhancement is identified posterior to the
lesion. This is most consistent with which C. Enlarged
of the following? D. Significantly enlarged
A. Pyogenic abscess
55. Which type of aneurysm typically has a
B. Amebic abscess neck and demonstrates a swirling pattern
C. Hematoma on color Doppler?
D. Hepatoma A. Dissecting
B. Myocotic
51. A 26-year-old patient with a long-
standing history of multiple sickle cell C. Fusiform
crises and subsequent splenic infarctions D. Pseudoaneurysm
presents to the sonography department
for an abdominal sonogram. After thor- 56. The left kidney is best visualized by scan-
oughly evaluating the left upper quadrant, ning the patient in what position?
only a fraction of splenic tissue can be A. RLD
identified.This describes the process of:
B. Prone
A. Autosplenectomy
C. Supine
B. Splenomicroly
D. LLD
C. Splenosis
57. In order to dissect a body, a “ “ inci-
D. Asplenia
sion is made.
52. Which of the following statements about A. X
the IVC is not true? B. Y
A. The diameter of the IVC is variable C. Z
B. Respiration can affect the size of the D. I
IVC
C. The IVC is located to the left of the ab- 58. All of the following are sonographic fea-
dominal aorta tures of chronic pancreatitis except
D. The IVC is considered Retroperitoneal A. Pancreatic pseudocyst

in location B. Dilated pancreatic duct
53. Renal failure is most commonly associated C. Calcifications within the pancreas
with all of the following except D. Diffusely Hypoechoic
50. A 51. A 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. D

59. The klatskin tumor is located C. Polycystic kidney disease

A. Between the pancreatic head and duo- D. Angiomyolipoma
denum
64. Match description with the correct stage
B. At the junction of the cystic and com- of decomposition:gases cause a bloated ap-
mon bile duct pearance of the decomposing body
C. At the junction of the CBD and CHD A. fresh
D. At the junction of the right and left hep- B. bloat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
atic duct C. active decay
60. Which of the following best describes a D. advanced decay
positive sonographic murphys sign?
65. A 14 yr old male patient presents to the
A. Pain with the transducer pressure sonography department after falling from
over the gallbladder his bicycle. An abdominal sonogram re-
B. Appearance of too many tubes within veals a complex appearing mass within the
the liver due to biliary obstruction spleen. This most likely represents a:
C. Pain radiating to the right scapula and A. Splenic Hemangioma
shortness of breath when lying in a supine B. Splenic Infarct
position C. Splenic Abscess
D. Ecchymosis of the flanks due to hemor- D. Splenic hematoma
rhage
66. List seven methods of transmission of dis-
61. In which vessel is there an increase in di- ease.
astolic blood flow after eating?
A. reservoir
A. Portal vein
B. herd immunity
B. SMA C. direct contact, indirect contact,
C. Hepatic artery droplet, waterborne, foodborne, airborne,
D. Pancreatic artery vector
62. Which is the most common location for a
pancreatic pseudocyst? 67. Ureteral jets are not visualized in patients
with
A. Tail of the pancreas
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Lesser sac
B. Duplex collecting system
C. Body of the pancreas
C. Obstruction
D. Posterior pararenal space
D. Acute focal bacterial nephritis
63. A 3 year-old boy present with hematuria
68. The spleen is located posterior to the
and palpable left flank mass. Sonography
depicts a solid mass. The finding would A. Kidney
most likely represent: B. Pancreas
A. Wilm’s tumor C. Diaphragm
B. Hypernephroma D. Stomach
59. D 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. C 68. D 69. A
69. Which of the following may cause a small, 74. The inner lining of the urinary bladder wall
shrunken spleen? is

A. Sickle cell anemia A. Serosa
B. Portal hypertension B. Parietal
C. Lymphoma C. Mucosa
D. Filtration D. Submucosa
70. An endemic disease is: 75. A type of symbiosis in which both organ-
A. A small epidemic isms benefit:
B. A small pandemic A. Mutualism
C. The original focus of a disease that be- B. Commensalism
comes epidemic C. Parasitism
D. Always present in a population D. none of above
E. Present in lower numbers than ex-
pected 76. The development (or progression) of a dis-
ease:
71. What factors contribute to the rate of a A. Pathology
body cooling?
B. Etiology
A. size of body, position, room tempera-
ture C. Epidemiology
B. cause of death, room temperature, D. Pathogenesis
body size E. Virulence
C. location of body, position, room tem-
perature 77. The process of making red blood cells is
termed:
D. size of body, how body is dressed,
room temperature A. Erythropoiesis
B. Anemia
72. Courvoisier gallbladder is found in the
presence of C. Histopoiesis
A. Cholecystitis and chronic pancreatitis D. Leukopoiesis
B. Hepatitis 78. within minutes of a death, insects arrive
C. Adenocarcinoma in the head of the to the warm body and:
pancreas A. begin to feed on it
D. Islet cell tumor on the tail of the pan- B. lay their eggs on it
creas
C. colonize it as their new home
73. A typical work day lasts D. none of above
A. 10-12 hours
79. When fluid is in the small intestine, the are
B. 5 hours seen as linear echogenicities 3-5 mm sep-
C. 16 hours arately. This has been called as the
D. 24 hours A. Mcburneys sign
70. B 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. C
B. Murphys sign 85. the cessation, or end, of life

C. Keyboard sign A. instar
D. Courvosier sign B. pupa/pupae
80. A physician who performs an autopsy C. death

when death may be accidental or violent. D. putrefaction
He or she may also serve in some jurisdic-
tions as the coroner. 86. Koch’s postulates are:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. County Coroner A. Procedures that demonstrate acquisi-
tion of pathogenicity by transformation
B. Pathologist
B. Criteria for establishing that specific
C. Medical Examiner
microbes cause specific diseases
D. Physicist
C. Guiding principles for selecting appro-
81. Which is the most common islet cell tu- priate treatment for a disease
mor? D. Procedures for testing antibiotic resis-
A. Insulinoma tance of an organism
B. Gastrinoma 87. The responsibilities of the coroner when
C. Granuloma encountering a death scene include
D. Cystadenoma A. performing an autopsy to determine
the cause and manner of death
82. The walls of the distended bladder should
B. go to the crime scene and collect evi-
not exceed
dence
A. 4mm
C. notify the next of kin, identify the body,
B. 3 mm sign the death certificate
C. 5mm D. Investigate the crime scene to deter-
D. 6mm mine the killer
83. The science which relates to the preven- 88. Identify the laboratory test used to access
tion, cure, or alleviation of disease renal function
A. Toxicology A. Serum creatinine
B. Pharmacology B. Serum amylase
C. Medicine C. Serum bilirubin
D. none of above D. PSA 125
84. the specific body failure that leads to a per- 89. Which vessel lies posterior to the bile duct
son’s death and anterior to the portal vein?
A. mechanism of death A. Hepatic artery
B. decomposition B. Hepatic vein
C. manner of death C. Celia axis
D. cause of death D. Gastroduodenal artery
80. C 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. C 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. A
90. The left renal vein courses C. Parasitism

A. Anterior to the aorta D. There ain’t no @#$% such thing

B. Posterior to the aorta
96. Enlargement of the IVC with subsequent
C. Anterior to the SMA
enlargement of the hepatic veins is seen
D. Posterior to the IVC in cases of
91. Which of the following is NOT a character- A. Right sided heart Failure
istic of fatty infiltration of the liver? B. Budd-Chiari Syndrom
A. Mottled appearance
C. Left sided heart failure
B. Focal areas of decreases echogenicity
(sparing) D. Tricuspid insufficiency
C. Decreased attenuation of sound 97. Which duct is the main pancreatic duct?
D. Increased appearance A. Santorinis duct
92. A fluid filled mass anterior to the pancreas B. Ampulla’s duct
maybe all of the following except
C. Vaters duct
A. Fluid filled stomach
D. Wirsungs duct
B. Pancreatic pseudocyst
C. Aorta artery 98. the spontaneous breakdown of cells as
D. Ascites they self-digest
A. rigor mortis
93. Non-communicable diseases:
A. Are not infectious B. algor mortis
B. Are congenital C. pupa/pupae
C. Are caused by exposure to environ- D. autolysis
mental toxins
D. Are infectious but not passed from 99. A type of symbiosis in which one organism
host to host benefits and the other is unaffected:
A. Mutualism
94. A patient presents with an elevated insulin
level and clinical signs of hypoglycemia. B. Commensalism
This is most characteristic of C. Parasitism
A. Insulinoma
D. none of above
B. Adenoma
C. Gastinoma 100. The study of the effects of the chemicals
on the human body is called
D. Adenocarcinoma
A. pathology
95. A type of symbiosis in which both organ-
isms are harmed: B. toxicology
A. Mutualism C. entomology
B. Commensalism D. odontology
91. C 92. C 93. D 94. A 95. D 96. A 97. D 98. D 99. B 100. B 101. A
101. An examination of the body after death C. active decay

usually with dissection that will expose D. advanced decay
the vital organs for determining the cause
of death. 107. is the time that has elapsed since a per-
A. Autopsy son has died.
B. Forensic disscection A. algor mortis
C. Forensics B. livor mortis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Forensic surgery C. post mortem interval
102. The hepatoblastoma is a D. rigor mortis
A. Benign tumor of the pediatric liver 108. the pooling of the blood
B. Malignant tumor of the adult liver A. lividity
C. Malignant tumor of the pediatric liver B. algor mortis
D. Malignant tumor of the pediatric
C. rigor mortis
adrenal gland
D. livor mortis
103. Does this career seem like it would inter-
est you? 109. What laboratory value listed below ap-
A. Yes pears to be more specific for acute pancre-
atitis?
B. No
A. Amylase
C. -
B. AST
D. none of above
C. Lipase
104. Primary biliary tree cancer is referred to
D. SGOT
as
A. Cholandiocarcinoma 110. Who is qualified to perform an autopsy?
B. GB carcinoma A. police officer
C. Biloma B. nurse practioner
D. Lymphangioma C. medical examiner
105. Mirizzi syndrome is characterized by a D. physician
A. Contracted GB 111. Sporadic diseases are:
B. Hydropic GB
A. Diseases spread by spores
C. Stone in the distal portion of the CBD
B. Diseases that are always present in a
D. Stone impacted in the GB neck population
106. Match description with the correct stage C. Diseases that occur rarely
of decomposition:livor, rigor, and algor D. Diseases that are present in higher
mortis occur during this stage than expected numbers
A. fresh E. Diseases that have an LD50 greater
B. bloat than predicted
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

112. Job Outlook of a Forensic Pathologist. 117. Clinical signs of renal disease includes all
A. Excellent of the following except:

A. Palpable Flank Mass
B. Poor
B. Jaundice
C. Decreasing
C. Hypertension
D. Steady
D. Oliguria
113. Which of the following laboratory values
would be most helpful in evaluating a pa- 118. A 48-year-old male patient with a his-
tient with recent trauma? tory of severe, sudden onset of left upper
quadrant pain without trauma presents to
A. Hematocrit the sonography department for a sono-
B. White blood cells gram of the spleen. You visualize a wedge-
shaped, hypochoic area within the spleen.
C. Alpha-fetoprotein
This most likely represents a:
D. BUN
A. Splenic Infarct
114. The most common location of adenocarci- B. Splenic Hematoma
noma of the pancreas is within the
C. Splenic hemangioma
A. Head D. Splenic metastasis
B. Neck
119. A 69-year-old man with alcoholism is
C. Body seen with leukocytosis, an elevated amy-
D. Tail lase level, and a rising lipase level. The
entire pancreasE appears enlarged and hy-
115. What is Pathology? poechoic, with ill-defined borders. The
A. Study of the heart most likely diagnosis is which of the fol-
lowing?
B. The study of the brain and psychologi-
cal issues with the brain A. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Diagnosis of disease and injury by ex- B. Acute focal pancreatitis

amination of body tissue and liquids. C. Acute diffuse pancreatitis
D. Diagnosis of disease and injury by D. Pseudocyst
examination of insect on ones perished
body. 120. Etiology means
A. the cause of disease
116. The splenic artery marks the:
B. the study of transmission of disease
A. Posterior aspect of the pancreatic
C. disease with an unknown cause
body and tail
D. disease that is spread from person to
B. Lateral aspect of the pancreatic body
person or insect to person
and tail
C. Superior aspect of the pancreatic body 121. Which would be dilated in a patient with
and tail klatskin’ s tumor?
D. Medial surface of the pancreatic body A. Intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts

and tail B. Intrahepatic ducts only

C. GB 127. A postrenal transplant patient presents

D. Extrahepatic ducts only with fever, flank pain, localized tender-
ness and Leukocytosis. A renal sonogram
122. What does PMI stand for? is performed and a* perinephric fluid col-
A. pre mortem interval lection is documented. These finding are
most consistent with
B. post memory interval
A. Hematoma
C. post murder interval
B. Urinoma
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. post mortem interval
C. Abscess
123. An epidemic is the result of:
D. Renal Cyst
A. A pandemic being more severe than ex-
pected 128. Which of the following would increase
the risk of developing echinococcal cyst?
B. The number of cases of a disease be-
ing present in higher than expected num- A. Fishing
bers B. Rock climbing
C. A sporadic disease becoming endemic C. Poultry farming
D. A pandemic disease coming under con- D. Sheep farming
trol
129. A malignant solid renal mass can be all of
124. What is the aneurysm that is uniform in the following except
nature called
A. Oncocytoma
A. Fusiform
B. Transitional Cell Carcinoma
B. Saccular
C. Adenocarcinoma of the kidney
C. Dissecting
D. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Congenital
130. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by all
125. A chronic disease is:
of the following except
A. Endemic
A. Biliary tract disease
B. Latent
B. Drugs
C. Moderately severe and of moderate
C. Renal reflux
duration
D. Alcohol abuse
D. Of long duration and generally low
severity 131. A 51-year-old man with long-standing
cirrhosis undergoes an abdominal ultra-
126. What does post mortem interval mean?
sound scan. AST and ALT levels are ele-
A. time that has past since the victim was vated. The liver is small and difficult to
at the scene penetrate. Doppler examination reveals
B. time that has past since the victim died hepatofugal flow in the main portal vein.
C. time that has past since the suspect Which of the following is the most likely
was at the scene diagnosis based on these findings?
D. time that has past since the insects ar- A. Portal hypertension
rived at the scene B. Acute hepatitis

C. Recannalized umbilical vein 137. A congenital anomaly that demonstrates

D. Hepatoma multiple cystic structures within the liver
that communicate with the intrahepatic

132. The type of tissue within the spleen that ducts with* normal extrahepatic ducts is
is responsible for its lymphatic function is characteristic of:
the: A. Caroli’s disease
A. Pitting Segment B. Cholangitis
B. Culling Segment C. Cystadenoma
C. Red pulp D. Cholangiocarcinoma
D. White pulp 138. the stiffening of the skeletal muscles
shortly after death
133. A renal mass composed of fat, blood ves-
sels and smooth muscle tissue is called A. livor mortis
A. Wilm’s tumor B. autolysis
B. Angiomyolipoma C. rigor mortis
C. Renal hamartoma D. algor mortis
D. Renal cell carcinoma 139. Match description with the correct stage
of decomposition:first stage
134. What is the most common sonographic
A. fresh
appearance of a splenic hemangioma?
B. bloat
A. Hypoechoic
C. active decay
B. Complex
D. advanced decay
C. Anechoic
D. Echogenic 140. The presence of immunity to a disease in
the majority of the population is called
135. A post-transplant perinephric fluid collec- A. reservoir
tion can present as all of the following ex-
cept B. herd immunity
C. direct contact, indirect contact,
A. Biloma
droplet, waterborne, foodborne, airborne,
B. Hematoma vector
C. Lyphocele D. While in an inpatient facility
D. Urinoma 141. A patient presents with weight loss in-
136. The cause of a disease: creased alpha-fetal protein (AFP), and ab-
dominal distention. This is most character-
A. Pathology istic of
B. Etiology A. Liver adenoma
C. Epidemiology B. Focal nodular hyperplasia
D. Pathogenesis C. Hepatoma
E. Virulence D. Lymphoma

142. the immediate reason for a person’s C. Body

death
D. none of above
A. death
B. mechanism of death 148. Renal sonography is not helpful in evalu-
ating:
C. cause of death
A. Cyst Formation
D. manner of death
B. Renal function
143. Which of the following is in the order of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the most general to the most specific? C. Obstructive Uropathy
A. manner, cause, mechanism D. Angiomyolipoma
B. mechanism, manner, cause
149. Pyonephrosis refers to the presence of:
C. cause, manner, mechanism
A. Urine in a dilated collecting system
D. manner, mechanism, cause
B. Pus in a dilated collected system
144. post-mortem examination
C. Blood in a dilated collecting system
A. adipocere
D. Stones in a dilated collecting system
B. autolysis
C. autopsy 150. Multiple, small echogenic foci scattered
D. entomology throughout the spleen in a patient with
history of toxoplasmosis most likely rep-
145. The normal location of the renal trans- resent:
plant is:
A. Granulomas
A. LUQ
B. Hemangiomas
B. Iliac Fossa
C. Sarcoidosis
C. RUQ
D. none of above D. Lymphangiomas
146. The splenic vein marks the 151. Type of autopsy that is used for research
A. Anterior aspect of the pancreatic body and study purposes is called
and tail A. clinical autopsy
B. Posterior aspect of the pancreatic B. forensic autopsy
body and tail
C. external autopsy
C. Lateral aspect of the pancreatic body
and tail D. virtual autopsy
D. Medial aspect of the pancreatic body
152. bleeding to death
and tail
A. decomposition
147. What part of the pancreas is anterior to
the SMA and AO? B. autopsy
A. Tail C. asphyxiation
B. Head D. exsanguinations

1.2 Cell Injury 17
153. A continual source of infection is a B. Neck

A. reservoir C. Body

B. herd immunity D. Head
C. direct contact, indirect contact, 157. What is most likely the clinical finding of
droplet, waterborne, foodborne, airborne, a patient who has a splenic hemangioma?
vector
A. Flank Pain
B. Fever
154. What does the WES refer to? C. Asymptomatic
A. Wall echo sludge D. Decreased hematocrit
B. Wall echolucent stone
158. Which vessel is anterior to the uncinate
C. Wall echo shadow process?
D. Wide echo shadow A. Left renal vein
155. What vessel travels posterior to the SMA B. Splenic artery
and anterior to the abdominal aorta? C. SMV
A. Left renal vein D. IMV
B. Left renal artery
159. What is the primary function of the red
C. Right renal vein pulp?
D. Splenic vein A. Erythropoiesis
156. Which part of the pancreas does the duo- B. Filtration

denum encircle? C. Adaptive immunity
A. Tail D. Fluid balance
1.2 Cell Injury

1. Physical source modalities that cannot be D. Cell regeneration
given in the inflammatory phase are
3. Deposition of calcium salts in tissues other
A. physical activity than osteoid or enamel is called
B. thermal
A. Pathologic Calcification
C. pulsed ultrasound
B. Autolysis
D. compression
C. Apoptosis
2. Cell injury that occurs and can return to D. Necrosis
normal function after the source of stress
or the stimulus for injury is removed 4. Fat necrosis is usually seen in
A. Irreversible cell injury A. Pancreatitis
B. Reversible cell injury B. Brain
C. Cell degeneration C. Heart

1.2 Cell Injury 18
D. Liver 9. Characteristic changes in a cell caused by a

disease
5. Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in
A. Necrosis
connective tissue is an example of which
of the following? B. Lesion
A. Mucoid degeneration C. Prognosis
B. Myxomatous degeneration D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. All of the above 10. Which of the following is characteristic of
D. None of the above necrotic cell death?
A. Reduced cell size
6. Which of the following are changes
associated with disturbances of fat B. An inflammatory reaction occurs
metabolism? C. The plasma membrane is intact
A. Steatosis (fatty change) D. Fragmented nucleus
B. Obesity 11. Necrosis which occurred secondary to vas-
C. Lipomatosis cular occlusion and affected lower extrem-
ities would most likely be called
D. All of the above
A. Gangrenous necrosis
E. None of the above
B. Coagulative necrosis
7. Necrosis is C. Fibrinoid necrosis
A. transformation of a cell into a malig- D. Caseous necrosis
nant one
12. Liquefactive necrosis is seen in
B. genetically programmed cell death
A. Heart
C. irreversible cell damage
B. Brain
D. reversible cell damage
C. Lung
8. Reversible injury: D. Spleen
A. Light microscopic changes:cell
swelling, fat accumulation 13. An injury to a ligament that results in no
pain when the ligament is stressed would
B. Ultra structural changes:cell mem- be classified as which of the following?
brane alterations, mitochondrial swelling,
RER swelling and ribosomal detachment. A. Grade 1 Sprain
B. Grade 2 Sprain
C. Light microscopic changes:Loss of
RNA, cytoplasmic vacuolisation, chro- C. Grade 3 Sprain
matin clumping. D. Grade 4 Sprain
D. Ultra structural changes:Membrane
disruption, mitochondrial amorphous 14. What are the reversible changes via cellu-
densities, nuclear changes (pyknosis- lar adaptations?
shrinkage, karyorrhexis-fragmentation, A. Changes in the number, size, pheno-
karyolysis-fading). type, metabolic activity, or functions of

1.2 Cell Injury 19
cells in response to change in their envi- C. 23 pairs of chromosomes in humans

ronment
D. Site of protein synthesis

B. Changes in the size, phenotype,
metabolic activity, or functions of cells in 19. Which of the following in present in necro-
response to change in their environment sis but not apoptosis?
C. Changes in the number, size, or func- A. Breakdown of the plasma membrane
tions of cells in response to change in their B. Removal of cellular debris
environment
C. Inflammation
D. Changes in the number, size,
metabolic activity, or functions of cells in D. Cell death
response to change in their environment
20. Which of the following is involved in the
15. Programmed cell death is known as extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
A. Cytolysis A. Caspase-9
B. Apoptosis B. BAK
C. Necrosis C. FasL
D. Proptosis D. BAX
16. What are stable cells? 21. Accumulation of mucin in epithelial cells
A. usually quiescent but can be stimu- e.g. within nasal mucosa is an example
lated to divide e.g hepatocytes of which of the following?
B. Constantly renewed e.g stratified ep- A. Mucoid degeneration
ithelium of skin
B. Myxomatous degeneration
C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-
C. All of the above
tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
D. None of the above
D. none of above
17. Moderate changes associated with dis- 22. Cell injury-mechanisms:

turbed water metabolism is characterized A. Loss of energy (ATP/02 depletion)
by
B. Oxygen and O2-derived free radicals
A. cloudy swelling
C. Loss of calcium homeostasis
B. vacuolar degeneration
D. Defects in plasma membrane
C. hydropic degeneration
E. Leakage of pro-apoptotic proteins
D. all of the above
E. none of the above 23. Which of the following is not a condition
of cell adaptation?
18. DNA:
A. atrophy
A. Contains genetic information that
B. Metaplasia
codes for living organisms
C. Neoplasia
B. Double helix:nucleotides joined by co-
valent bonds D. dysplasia

1.2 Cell Injury 20
24. Which of the following would result in cells 29. This type of cell injury is caused by lack of
that are triangular, fusiform, elongated or oxygen.
star shaped? A. Ischemia
A. Mucoid degeneration B. Hypoxia
B. Myxomatous degeneration C. Free radicals
C. All of the above D. Antioxidants
D. None of the above 30. Which of the following is not seen in re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
versible cell injury
25. Mild changes associated with disturbed
water metabolism is characterized by A. Hydropic change
A. cloudy swelling B. Hyaline change

C. Necrotic change
B. vacuolar degeneration
D. Fatty change
C. hydropic degeneration
D. all of the above 31. What are permanent cells?
A. Incapable of regeneration in post natal
E. none of the above
life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
26. There are several markers of the inflam- B. Constantly renewed .g stratified squa-
matory process, namely tumor, rubor, mous epithelium of skin
calor, dolor and functio laesa. Rubor and C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-
calor are caused by tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
A. Vasodilation and increased blood flow D. none of above
B. Vasoconstriction and ischemia
32. What are cell adaptations?
C. Hypoxia and Ischemia A. How the organs change to maintain
D. Vasoconstriction and hypoxia homeostasis
B. Response to increased load
27. Which is the physiology of apoptosis?
C. How the cells work harder to cease or-
A. Due to the stimulus of injury gan failure
B. Due to a viral infection D. When the brain increases hormone se-
C. Because of the tumor cretion in endocrine glands to increase
the body’s stimuli
D. Due to the process of embryogenesis
33. Cell injury leads to an inflammatory pro-
28. Apoptosis is triggered by cess. The inflammatory process will then
A. Death-promoting signals e.g TNF be followed by a tissue repair process,
namely in the form of regeneration or scar-
B. Withdrawal of stimulatory signals e.g ring. However, there are two types of
EGF cells that do not have the ability to regen-
C. DNA damage erate, namely
D. Extrinsic factors e.g infection and A. liver and intestines

trauma B. skin and intestines

1.2 Cell Injury 21
C. heart and liver C. hydropic degeneration

D. heart and neurons D. all of the above

34. Changes associated with disturbed mu- E. none of the above
copolysaccharide metabolism include 40. Which of the following denotes abnormal
A. Mucoid degeneration accumulation of fat inside cells?
B. Myxomatous degeneration A. Steatosis (fatty change)
C. All of the above B. Obesity
D. None of the above C. Lipomatosis
D. All of the above
35. Hyperplasia generally means:
E. None of the above
A. An organ will increase in size due to ex-
cessive formation of extracellular fluids 41. Coagulative necrosis is found in which in-
B. Increased cell production in a normal fection
tissue A. Tuberculosis
C. Shrinkage in cell size B. Sarcoidosis
D. Blebbing at the periphery C. Actinomycosis
36. Gas Gangrene is caused by which bacteria D. Candisiasis
A. Gram positive anaerobic bacteria 42. The process of cell degeneration or aging
B. Gram negative anaerobic bacteria causes the cell to be programmed for apop-
tosis. One of the factors that cause cell
C. Gram positive aerobic bacteria
aging is
D. Gram negative aerobic bacteria
A. Accumulated stress
37. When the cell is not needed, pathway of B. Mutation accumulation
cell death activated is called as
C. Protein accumulation
A. Gangrene
D. Accumulation of telomerase enzymes
B. Apoptosis
43. Which of the following clinical signs would
C. Necrosis
be associated with the Chronic Stage of tis-
D. none of above sue healing?
38. What is not a cellular adhesion molecule A. Pain at rest
A. Selectins B. Absence of inflammation
B. Integrins C. Pain with tissue resistance
C. Malignins D. Loss of function
D. none of above 44. Diabetic foot is
39. Severe changes associated with disturbed A. Dry Gangrene
water metabolism is characterized by B. Wet Gangrene
A. cloudy swelling C. Gas Gangrene
B. vacuolar degeneration D. coagulative necrosis

1.2 Cell Injury 22
45. Reversible cell damage characterized by C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-

accumulation of water inside cells is tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
A. Disturbed water metabolism D. none of above
B. Disturbed fat metabolism 51. Which leukocyte is not a phagocytic cell?
C. Disturbed mycopolysaccharides A. Neutrophils
D. Hyaline changes B. Monocytes
E. All of the above C. Lymphocytes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
46. Which of the following organs are affected
by disturbed water metabolism 52. In athletes who regularly carry out weight
training, enlargement of the skeletal mus-
A. Kidney
cles is often observed. Weight training is
B. Liver a form of stressor that causes cell adapta-
C. Heart‘ tion to occur resulting in an increase in the
size of the athlete’s skeletal muscles. This
D. Parenchymatous organs
form of cell adaptation is known as
E. All of the above A. surroundings
47. What is a chronic illness? B. hypoxia
A. develops quickly C. hyperplasia
B. long lasting duration D. hypertrophy
C. short duration 53. Your patient injured themselves 10 days

ago. Which stage of tissue healing are
D. none of above
they in?
48. Necrosis is A. Acute Stage
A. Reversible B. Subacute Stage
B. Lack of oxygen to the tissue C. Chronic Stage
C. Not reversible D. Fully Healed Stage
D. Blebbing at the periphery 54. Severe and progressive cell injury pre-
vents cells from returning to normal struc-
49. What causes steatosis? ture and function. This causes
A. Bacterial toxins (diphtheria) A. necrosis or apoptosis
B. Chemical toxins B. mitosis
C. Malnutrition and chronic alcoholism C. surroundings
D. All of the above D. dysplasia
50. What are labile cells? 55. The word “Pathology” is derived from
A. Greek
A. Constantly renewed e.g stratified
squamous epithelium of skin B. Latin
B. Usually quiescent but can be stimu- C. Hebrew
lated to divide e.g hepatocytes D. none of above

1.2 Cell Injury 23
56. Which of the following are examples ex- 61. Which of the following is the most common
tracellular deposition of a homogeneous, cause of cell injury
structureless, eosinophilic material?

A. Chemical injury
A. Nasal mucosa B. Hypoxia
B. Tumors C. Infections
C. Blood vessels D. Immunologic and Autoimmune dis-
D. Old scars eases
E. Old thrombi 62. What are the terms that describe the signs
and symptoms of a disease?
57. Which of the following are reversible cell
A. Etiology
injuries?
B. Pathogenesis
A. Disturbed water metabolism
C. Clinical Manifestations
B. Disturbed fat metabolism
D. Structural damage
C. Disturbed mycopolysaccharides
63. Apoptosis is
D. Hyaline changes
A. transformation of a cell into a malig-
E. All of the above nant one
58. The process of tissue healing which is char- B. genetically programmed cell death
acterized by the presence of vasoconstric- C. formation of embryonic antigent
tion, the formation of blood clots that aim
D. irreversible cell damage
to stop bleeding is the
A. Inflammation 64. TB is what type of necrosis?
B. Hemostasis and Degeneration A. Coagulative
C. Regeneration B. Caseation
D. Proliferation C. Liquifactive
D. Fibrinoid
59. Which leukocyte is the first to arrive at the
site of injury? 65. Grossly Formation of calcium soaps is seen
in
A. Monocytes
A. Coagulative Necrosis
B. Neutrophils
B. Caseous Necrosis
C. Lymphocytes
C. Liquefactive Necrosis
D. none of above
D. Fat Necrosis
60. Which of the following is NOT a major 66. The following is a pattern of necrosis that
symptom of inflammation? occurs in adipose tissue
A. Redness A. Fat necrosis
B. Loss of Function B. Caseous necrosis
C. Heat C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Cold D. Coagulative necrosis

1.3 Amyloidosis and Calcification 24
67. Which type of Gangrene is present at the 69. When a cell is injured, increases in which of
junction between healthy & gangrenous the following contribute to cell swelling?
part A. Intracellular calcium and sodium
A. Gas Gangrene B. Extracellular calcium and sodium
B. Wet Gangrene C. Enlargement of mitochondria
C. Dry Gangrene D. Proliferation of mitochondria
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. Cells have the ability to adapt to environ-
68. Which of the following is not a potential mental changes and/or stress stimuli. If
cause of membrane damage? the stress stimulus is severe and continu-
A. progressive loss of membrane phos- ous, the cells will experience
pholipids A. Injury
B. cytoskeletal abnormalities B. Irreversible injury
C. toxic oxygen radicals C. Reversible injury
D. reversible injury D. Necrosis
1.3 Amyloidosis and Calcification

1. Types of amyloidosis: D. Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, hydrox-
A. Adiposocyt amyloid ydaunomycin, oncovin, prednisolone
B. T6 amyloidosis 4. Where does the disease first develop?
C. AA amyloidosis A. Tissue
D. Hereditary amyloidosis B. Bone marrow
2. Which of the following endogenous pig- C. Bot fly
ment is also known as “ wear-and-tear D. Skin
pigment “ and acts as telltale sign of free
radical injury? 5. What are the symptoms of amyloidosis
A. Haemosiderin A. Hair hardening to the density of our
nails
B. GCarbon
B. Numbness or short of breath
C. Lipofuscin
C. Skin popping craters
D. Melanin
D. Swelling of ankles or legs
3. what is the treatment for non-hodgkin’s
lymphoma E. Irregular heartbeat
A. belimumimab, cyclophosphamide, 6. Where can the AL amyloidosis affect the

doxyrubin, vincristine, prednisolone victim after the protein spreads?
B. Rituximab, cyclophosphonamide, dox- A. Pancreas, space, pandora and an-
orubicin, vincyctin, prednisolone dromeda
C. Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxoru- B. Muscles, liver, nails, brain, and diges-
bicin, vincristine, prednisolone tion tract

1.4 Inflammation and Repair 25
C. Liver, kidney, lungs, nerves, and heart 8. What are the 4 types of Hodgkin’s lym-
D. Copper, gold, silver and osmosis phoma?

A. Lymphocyte mononucleosis, lympho-
7. What is the treatment for Hodgkin’s lym- cyte polynucleosis, nodular sclerosis,
phoma? monoclonal cellularity
A. Adriamycin, blenoxane, velban and B. monoclonal cellularity, nodular sclero-
DTIC sis, lymphocyte rich, lymphocyte depleted
B. Nolocyazine, blenoxane, venlomycin C. Lymphocyte mononucleosis, lympho-
C. Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine cyte polynucleosis, nodular lysis, mixed
and dacarbazine cellularity
D. Dacarbazine, DITC, blenoxane, D. Nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity,
bleomycin lymphocyte rich, lymphocyte depleted
1.4 Inflammation and Repair

1. Which of the following is considered to be A. pain
a permanent cell? B. fever
A. Cardiac muscle cell C. smooth muscle contraction
B. Hematopoietic stem cell D. dilation of arterioles
C. Epithelial cell
5. Which substances directly act to neurons
D. Endothelial cell of thermoregulatory center causing fever
development?
2. Name the process a cell such as a neu-
trophil or a macrophage uses to ingest A. Kinins
(eat) its prey. B. Prostaglandins
A. Phagocytes C. Interferon
B. Phagosome D. Free radicals
C. Phagolysosome E. Leukotriens
D. Phagocytosis
6. What is the least common leukocyte?
3. Endogenous Endophthalmitis is A. neutrophils
A. the inflammation of the eye, with occa- B. lymphocytes
sional nasal infections C. monocytes
B. the equivalent of Dacryoadenitis D. basophils
C. an internal mass bleeding in the eye
7. Arthritis
D. an infection of the eye coming from a
different body part A. inflammation of the joints
B. inflammation of the arteries
4. The following few questions are about the
chemical mediators of inflammation:What C. inflammation of the arms
is the main effect of histamine? D. none of the above

8. Which of the following describes an over 13. Which of aspects of Pathology that deals
exaggerated immune response? with the gross or microscopic appearance
of cells?
A. allergies
A. Morphology
B. autoimmune
B. Aetiology
C. inflammation
C. Clinical consequences
D. none of above
D. Pathogenesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. These mechanisms cause body tempera-
14. What is the difference between Dacryoad-
ture to increase during a fever
enitis and Dacryocystitis?
A. vasoconstriction A. First is the inflammation of the eyelid
B. vasodilation while the latter is the inflammation of the
sclera
C. sweating
B. They both are the same.
D. shivering
C. First is the inflammation of the
10. What component of blood is involved in lacrimal gland while the latter is the in-
clotting? flammation of the lacrimal sac.
A. erythrocytes D. The first is chronic while the other is

acute.
B. leukocytes
15. Granulomatous inflammation is seen in all
C. thrombocytes (platelets)
EXCEPT
D. phagocytes A. Tuberculosis
11. Most infectious diseases are characterized B. Sarcoidosis
by development of fever. It can be ex- C. Crohn Disease
plained:
D. Acute appendicitis
A. Formation of IL-1 during phagocytosis
of microorganisms 16. Review:where is hemoglobin found?
B. Intoxication of the organism A. erythrocytes
C. Degranulation of mast cells B. leukocytes
D. Activation of T-and B-lymphocytes C. thrombocytes

D. plasma
E. Processes of exudation
17. Which cell types associated with the in-
12. which of the following sensitises pain re- flammatory response participate in phago-
ceptors? cytosis?
A. Bradykinin A. Neutrophils and eosinophils
B. Serotonin B. Macrophages and neutrophils
C. Histamine C. Macrophages and eosinophils
D. Tumour necrotic factor D. Eosinophils and basophils.

18. Body temperature of patient is pyretic; his 23. Immune granulomas can be caused by
skin is hot and red. What was the correla- A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
tion between processes of heat production

and heat loss in described stage of fever? B. Mycobacterium leprae
A. Heat loss is equal heat production C. Treponema pollidum
B. Heat loss is more then heat production D. Gram-negative bacillus
C. Heat loss is less then heat production E. Staphylococcus
D. Heat production is less then heat loss 24. What is the inflammation of the iris called?
(Choose all that apply)
19. The body’s nonspecific defenses against in-
vading pathogens include A. Endophthalmitis
A. antibiotics. B. Iritis
B. mucus, sweat and tears. C. Optic Scleritis
C. antibodies. D. Anternal Uveitis
D. Killer T cells. 25. Which cell types associated with the in-
flammatory response participate in phago-
20. What is the Latin word for Loss of Function cytosis? Select the best option.
A. Dolor A. Neutrophils and eosinophils
B. Calor B. Macrophages and neutrophils
C. Rubor C. Macrophages and eosinophils
D. Tumor D. Eosinophils and basophils.
E. Functio Laesa
26. What is the body’s first line of defense
21. Which of the following is an example of a against infection by foreign organisms?
purulent exudate? A. antibodies
A. blister fluid B. lymph nodes
B. pus C. white blood cells
C. excess fluid in the lungs D. the skin
D. none of above
27. Which BAS are formed from arachidonic
22. Condition of biological active substances acid?
(BAS) prevalence over there inhibitors usu- A. Kinins
ally occurs in inflammation. Indicate cor-
rect correspondence of BAS to their in- B. Prostaglandins
hibitor C. Leukotriens
A. Histamine-carboxypeptidase D. Histamine
B. Catecholamines-cholinesterase E. Thromboxane
C. Kinins-monoaminooxidase 28. What is the clinical changes of acute-phase
D. Leukotriens-arylsulfatase response
E. Serotonin-protease inhibitor A. Fever

B. Acute-phase 34. what is the first step of inflammation?

C. Leukocytosis A. platelets and fibrin start clotting
D. none of above B. damaged cells release histamine
29. what is haemostasis? C. phagocytes (neutrophils) engulf bac-

teri
A. loss of blood
D. capillaries get “leaky” and leukocytes
B. growth of blood vessels and platelets come out to tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. steady state during cellular inflamma-
tion 35. What is the name of the process neu-
trophils & macrophages use to engulf and
D. The control of blood loss digest pathogens
30. Which cell plays a major role in chronic in- A. Endocytosis
flammation by performing a wide range of B. Exocytosis
functions?
C. Pinocytosis
A. Lymphocyte
D. Phagocytosis
B. Macrophage
C. Plasma cells 36. Which of the following vascular change
that corresponds with redness?
D. Mast cells
A. Increased vascular permeability
31. Autoimmune diseases occur when the im-
B. Vasodilation
mune system
C. Chemotaxis
A. is weakened by asthma.
D. Infiltration of white blood cells
B. overreacts to certain antigens.
C. fails to distinguish self from nonself. 37. Foreign body granuloma can be caused by
D. all of the above. A. talc
32. Characteristic of granulomatous inflamma- B. sutures

tion. C. keratin flake
A. Presence of T lymphocytes D. All of the above
B. Collection of activated macrophage
38. A patient admitted with a peptic ulcer has
C. Central necrosis a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The pa-
D. All of the above tient develops sudden, severe upper ab-
dominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm ab-
33. Causes of chronic inflammation domen. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Persistent infection
A. Irrigate the NG tube
B. Hypersensitivity diseases
B. Check the VS
C. Prolonged exposure to potentially
toxic agent C. Check the amylase level
D. Tissue necrosis D. Elevate the foot of the bed

39. A clot that has occured in an unbroken (in- C. blepharitis

tact) blood vessel is a bad thing and called
D. boltic uveitis
a

A. hematoma 44. What is the inflammation inside the eye
B. thrombus called?
C. scab A. Endophthalpetriosis
D. platelet plug B. Endophthalmitritis

C. Endophthalmitis
40. Which of the below is true regarding gran-
ulomatous tissue? D. Enterimologiphitis
A. Is often seen with persistent stimuli
45. A patient sustained trauma of knee joint
B. Is exudate filled with activated and posttraumatic hemorrhagic bursitis ap-
macrophages fused together peared. After 3 months passive move-
C. Is a nodular area with a central area ments limitation in extend was observed.
of neutrophils Limitation was a result of scar formation.
What inflammatory component was a ba-
D. Is a distinct mass formed from sis of this complication?
macrophage infiltration
A. Secondary alteration
41. Which information will the nurse include
B. Exudation
when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer
disease about the effect of ranitidine? C. Tissue hyperplasia
A. “Ranitidine absorbs the excess gastric D. Proliferation
acid.”
E. Primary alteration
B. “Ranitidine decreases gastric acid se-
cretion.” 46. Which of the below is true
C. “Ranitidine constricts the blood ves- A. Pyo-granulomatous inflammation is
sels near the ulcer.” similar to its former but also contains neu-
D. “Ranitidine covers the ulcer with a pro- trophils, fibrin and plasma proteins
tective material.” B. The stimulus in pyo-granulomatous in-
flammation is absent
42. Pus (dead tissue, pathogens and neu-
trophils) that is surrounded by fibrosis C. Pyo-granulomas is a mass formed
from an infiltration of macrophages
A. Thrombocytopenia
D. Pyo-granulomatous is a mass formed
B. Abcess
from an infiltration of macrophages
C. Septicemia
D. hematoma 47. Chronic inflammation can not occur due to
A. Repeated acute inflammation
43. What is the inflammation of the eyelids
called? B. A failure to remove irritating stimuli
A. blimitis C. The virulence factors of microbes
B. Eyelid Inflammation Disease (EID) D. Attempt of repair

48. Which of the following is not a character- B. IL-1R

istic sign of acute inflammation? C. IL-6R
A. lasts for a long period of time
D. All of the above activate the primary
B. swelling pro-inflammatory pathway
C. loss of movement
54. When tissue has been damaged and neu-
D. redness tralised during tissue destruction this re-
sults in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. Pus (dead tissue, pathogens and neu-
trophils) that is trapped in a collagen sac A. Resolution
A. Thrombocytopenia B. The organisation by phagocytosis and
granulation tissue formation
B. Abcess
C. Septicemia C. Chronic inflammation
D. hematoma D. Healing by repair
50. The process where leukocytes engulf and 55. What cascade do IL-17 generate?
digest bacteria known as A. IL-6, IL-8, IL-9, CCL-21
A. leukocytosis B. TNF-R
B. pathogenesis C. IL-6, IL-8, CCL-20
C. hydrostatic pressure D. None of the above
D. phagocytosis
56. The inflammatory response can cause
51. Which of the below is seen with granulo- A. permanent immunity.
matous inflammation
B. pain, swelling and fever.
A. Langhan’s giant cells
C. antibodies to bind to antigens.
B. Lymphocytes
D. killer T cells to attack infected cells.
C. Areas of necrosis
D. Fibrous tissue 57. a decubitus ulcer can be described as
A. a sublingual attrition
52. which of the following cells would you ex-
pect to be active in the site of injury after B. a mucosal erosion
48 hours C. a gastric lesion
A. Neutrophils D. a bed sore
B. Macrophages
58. Which of these substances belong to acute
C. Neutrophils & Macrophages
phase proteins?
D. Neutrophils, Macrophages & Fibrob-
A. CRP
lasts
B. IL-2
53. Which of the following receptors do not
C. Ceruloplasmin
activate a primary pro-inflammatory path-
way? D. SAA
A. TLR E. Albumin

59. When you receive a vaccine you produce 64. What is the Latin word for Swelling?
antigens against the disease. A. Tumor

A. true B. Dolor
B. false, antibodies C. Calor
C. false, immunity D. Rubor
D. false, interferons E. Functio Laesa
60. What is important to remember regarding 65. A localized spherical lesion filled with pus
second intention wounds and pyogenic bacteria describes
A. Fibrous CT fills the defect but this can A. cellulitis
delay epithelial cell migration B. a pressure sore
B. Can cause large amounts of granula- C. gangrene
tion tissue to form which reduces tensile
strength D. an abscess
C. Is simple and uncomplicated 66. The function of alternative macrophage ac-
D. Can cause wound hypoxia tivation:
A. Phagocytosis
61. Patient has a caries complicated with pul-
B. Microbial kiling
pitis. This condition is accompanied by un-
bearable pain. What is the main factor of C. Tissue repair
pain appearing? D. Anti-inflammatory effects
A. High pressure of the fluid in inflamma-
67. Classical macrophage activation is induced
tory area
by
B. Bradykinin
A. IFN gamma
C. Histamine B. TGF beta
D. Serotonin C. Growth Factor
E. Prostaglandins D. none of above
62. What is not an advantage of peptide 68. Which cell is the diagnostic feature of
drugs? acute inflammation?
A. easy to produce A. Monocyte
B. poor immunogenicity B. Basophil
C. membrane impermeability C. Neutrophil
D. High affinity to specific targets D. Eosinophil
63. Granulation tissue consist of 69. When tissue damage is neutralised and
A. aggregates of epithelioid histiocytes minimal this results in
B. proliferation of new blood vessels and A. A resolution
fibroblast B. Healing by repair
C. cellular debris and fibrin C. Abscess formation
D. oedema and lymphoplasmacytic cells D. Chronic inflammation

70. Painfulness of tooth and edema of lower C. hematoma

part of face at the side of ill tooth are D. hemophilia
present in a patient with acute pulpitis.
What is leading mechanism of edema de- 75. What is the name of macrophages residing
velopment in this case? in the bone?
A. Increase in production of aldosterone A. Osteoclasts
B. Disturbances of trophic function of ner- B. Kupffer cells
vous system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Histiocytes
C. Disorder of neural regulation of water- D. Microglia
salt metabolism
D. Disorders of microcirculation at the fo- 76. What is the term used to describe white
cus of injury blood cells migrating toward bacteria?
E. Hypoproteinemia A. zeiosis
B. phagocytosis
71. A cook burnt his arm with steam. What
C. chemotaxis
substance increased and led to develop-
ment of redness, edema and painfulness D. phototaxis
of affected area of skin?
77. The prefix Dacryo-means:
A. Glutamine
A. Eyelid
B. Galactosamine
B. Sea
C. Histidine
C. Tear
D. Thiamine
D. Crybaby
E. Histamine
78. which of the following is always present
72. What has phage display been used for? as a cardinal sign of inflammation?
A. drug discovery and development A. loss of function
B. Create alternative medicines B. heat
C. Have a better quality of research C. vasoconstriction
D. None is correct D. vasodilation
73. Which of the following increases blood 79. Review:Blood is a type of connective tis-
flow to an injured area sue. What part of blood is the matrix?
A. heparin A. erythrocytes
B. platelets B. plasma
C. complement proteins C. leukocytes
D. histamine D. thrombocytes (platelets)
74. This term means stopping blood from flow- 80. The process where leukocytes engulf and
ing (or clotting the blood) digest bacteria
A. embolus A. leukocytosis
B. hemostasis B. pathogenesis

C. hydrostatic pressure 86. Which information about dietary manage-

D. phagocytosis ment should the nurse include when teach-
ing a patient with a duodenal ulcer?

81. What is the inflammation of retina called?
A. “You will need to remain on a bland
A. retinitis diet.”
B. retinatis
B. “Avoid foods that cause pain after you
C. retal uveitis eat them.”
D. glomeruloretinitis
C. “High-protein foods are least likely to
82. Female patient, aged 32, was stung by cause pain.”
wasp. On the skin of left cheek (place of
D. “You should avoid eating any raw fruits
sting) there is a zone of hyperemia and
and vegetables.”
edema. What is the primary mechanism
of edema in this case?
87. Place these events in the correct order:1.
A. Decrease of oncotic pressure
Phagocytes engulf and destroy bacteria
B. Lymph drainage decease that damage cells. 2. Pathogens enter
C. Increase of oncotic pressure the body causing mast cells to release his-
tamines and increase blood flow. 3. Blood
D. Increase in capillary permeability
vessels expand. Fluid leaves capillaries
E. Increase of hydrostatic pressure in and causes swelling.
capillaries
A. 2, 3, 1
83. Disease causing microorganisms
B. 3, 2, 1
A. pathogens
B. bacteria C. 1, 2, 3
C. microbes D. 2, 1, 3
D. monocytes
88. Granuloma may have all the following
84. A person who develops antibodies against components EXCEPT
the flu vaccine is generating
A. Epithelioid cells
A. cell-mediated immunity.
B. active immunity B. Collar of lymphocytes
C. passive immunity C. Giant cells
D. none of above D. Platelets
85. Lymphohistocytic inflammation
A. Has a low number of lymphocytes and 89. What is the primary cell involved in wound
macrophages healing?
B. Has a low number of plasma cells A. Fibroblast

C. Is seen in the early stages of chronic B. Lymphoblast
inflammation especially in response to
viruses C. Trophoblast
D. Makes up langhan’s giant cells D. Myoblast

90. Prevalence of proliferative processes was 95. What factor promotes proliferation in fo-
revealed in a patient with chronic inflam- cus of chronic inflammation?
mation of skin and subcutaneous adipose A. Hyperoxia
tissue. Which hormone deficiency can lead
B. Hyperosmia
to this situation?
C. Hypoxia
A. Cortisol
D. Protein catabolism
B. Aldosterone
E. Prostacyclin synthesis
C. Insulin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Growth hormone 96. Body temperature of a patient is 39 0C
for several hours (stadium fastigii). Indi-
E. Thyroxin cate which changes of physiological func-
91. A function of the CD-40 is tions are the most typical for this stage of
fever.
A. apoptotic mediator
A. Bradycardia
B. anti-inflammatory mediator
B. Ingibition of phagocytosis
C. Pro-inflammatory marker in entero-
cytes C. Increase of heat production
D. Immunoglobulin mediator D. Increase of heat loss
E. Heat production is equal to heat loss
92. In which conditions is the inflammatory re-
sponse present? Select all that apply. 97. Which of the following substances are in-
volved in tissue repair
A. Sprain injuries to joints
A. PDGF
B. Appendicitis
B. TGF-β
C. Hypothyroidism
C. MGF
D. Myocardial infarction
D. EDTF
E. Allergic rhinitis
E. FGF
93. Choose the characteristics of wound heal-
ing by primary intention 98. Which immune cell is responsible for the
quickest release of histamine that causes
A. Small tissue defect the red itchy welts associated with aller-
B. Prominent inflammatory reaction gies?
C. Wound contraction is slower A. lymphocytes
D. More copious granulation tissue B. mast cells
E. Opposable wound slides C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
94. What is the inflammation of the sclera
called? 99. Which one of the following is not the sign
A. scleritis of inflammation.
B. scleratis A. Bleeding
C. scloriotitis B. Pain
D. Ma ‘ye ‘urts like ‘ell! Someone call the C. Redness
ambulance D. Swelling

100. Approximately 30-60 minutes after be- B. Calor

ing bitten by a “bug”, a 26-year-old man C. Tumor
noticed a localized swelling and erythema

in the affected area. The edema is most D. Rubor
likely the result of: E. Functio Laesa
A. Altered plasma osmotic pressure 105. Which of the following is NOT a sign of
B. Increased vascular permeability inflammation?
C. Vasoconstriction A. redness
D. Lymphatic obstruction B. heat
C. swelling
101. What are the 5 cardinal signs of Inflam-
D. fever
mation?
A. Caliente, rubarbo, tamar, dola, func- 106. What is the first response of arterioles
tioner to injury?
B. Caliente, rubor, tumor, dola, func- A. Vasodilation
tioner B. Vasoconstriction
C. Calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, functio C. Edema
laesa D. Redness
D. Calor, rubarbo, tamar, dolor, functio
107. A clot in the blood stream (commonly
laesa
found in legs) that breaks free and starts
102. Which homeostatic mechanism is heavily to travel can lodge in brain or lungs. This
involved in fever? is called
A. Themoregulation A. a thrombus
B. Osmoregulation B. an embolus
C. Chemoregulation C. heparin
D. Glucose regulation D. hematoma

108. Autoimmune disease denotes
103. After a mini-exam, you and a couple of
friends spend the weekend on the beach A. Overreacts with antigen
in St. Martin. At the end of the day, B. Failure of self from non-self tissues
one of your friends complains of sunburn. C. Inappropriate immune response
His back is very red, warm and painful to
touch. What is the most likely cause of D. none of above
this erythema? 109. A patient has peptic ulcer disease that
A. ischemia has been associated with Helicobacter py-
lori. About which medications will the
B. Edema of the dermis
nurse plan to teach the patient?
C. Vasodilation of blood vessel in dermis
A. 1 PPI, 1 H2 blocker, & 1 antacid
D. Bradykinin
B. 1 antibiotic, 1 PPI, bismuth
104. What is the Latin word for Pain? C. 2 anti-acid meds, 1 antibiotic
A. Dolor D. 2 antibiotics, 1 PPI

110. What is the main factor of edema forma- 115. Hereditary, sex linked trait that causes
tion in pulpitis? blood to not clot
A. Capillaries permeability increasing A. thrombocytopenia
B. Hypoproteinemia B. hemophilia
C. Tissue hyperosmia C. leukopenia

D. septicemia
D. Blood hyperosmia
116. what is the function of histamine?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Capillaries hydrostatic pressure in-
creasing A. sensitise pain receptors
B. amplify the inflammatory response
111. Disease characterised by granulomatous
inflammation C. stimulate vasodilation
A. bronchopneumonia D. cause blood vessel growth
B. acute appendicitis 117. acute inflammation can be defined as
C. myocardial infarction A. a purulent exudate

B. a condition of long duration
D. Chronic duodenal ulcer
C. a condition of sudden onset
E. Sarcoidosis
D. an asthmatic incident
112. pus in the lung is called
118. which of the following is a lesion
A. emphysema A. boil
B. pulmonary edema B. burn
C. pyogenic C. cut
D. endothelium D. all
113. are really pieces of cells involved in 119. Factor that delays wound healing
clotting A. Corticosteroid therapy
A. erythrocytes B. poor nutritional status
B. thrombocytes C. Diabetes mellitus
D. hyperthyroid
C. fibrin
D. leukocytes 120. Which of the following is true
A. Lymphocytes use cytokines to interact
114. Which surface molecules play a major with macrophages and migrate to inflam-
role during the phenomenon of leukocyte matory site using adhesion molecules and
rolling? chemokines
A. Selectin B. Eosinophils contain a protein toxic to
B. Intergrin bacteria and use eotaxin and adhesion
molecules for extrastation
C. CD31
C. Mast cells live in the CT of areas with
D. Chemokines contact with the external environment

D. Mast cells produce cytokines contribut- 126. What is the function of the cellular phase
ing to fibrosis in chronic inflammation of inflammation?

121. two types of boils are A. prevent bacteria spread and dilute
their toxins
A. carbuncles
B. Remove debris & bacteria and prepare
B. furuncles for repair
C. abcess
C. Prevent further damage and stimulate
D. monocyte cells to replicate
122. The secondary alteration is caused by: D. Grow new blood vessels and lay down
type III collagen
A. Kinins
B. Lympokynes 127. Which of the following attracts phago-
cytes during an inflammatory response?
C. Lysosomal enzymes
A. heparin
D. Prostaglandins
B. complement proteins
E. Complement components C3a and C5a
C. histamine
123. Disease-causing microorganisms are
known as D. platelets
A. pathogens 128. Function of Eosinophils in chronic inflam-

B. microbes mation
C. bacteria A. Controlling helminth infections
D. monocytes B. contribute to tissue damage in immune
reactions
124. A 13 year-old female patient comes into
C. mediated by IgE
the ED w/reported pain in her RLQ. What
is the nurses priority action? D. All of the above
A. Request an order for a STAT CT scan 129. What is the GPR1 for?
B. Assess for the possibility of pregnancy A. to generate nuclear chemical break-
C. Start an IV immediately throughs
D. Draw labs for STAT type and cross B. to generate control over drugs
125. Which of the following best describes C. to generate pharmaceutical advances

margination? D. to control pray the chemicals
A. Phagocytes drop to the outer edge of
130. The nurse assesses a patient with per-
a blood vessels
nicious anemia. Which finding would the
B. Phagocytes roll along the outer edge nurse expect?
of the blood vessel
A. Yellow-tinged sclerae
C. Phagocytes attach to the outer edge of
B. Shiny, smooth tongue
the blood vessel
D. Phagocytes move through the outer C. Tender, bleeding gums
edge of the blood vessel D. Numbness of extremities

131. Which aspect of Pathology deals with the 136. An immune response is triggered by a(an)
underlying causes of disease?
A. antibiotic.
A. Pathogenesis B. antibody.
B. Aetiology C. antigen.
C. Morphology D. histamine.
D. clinical consequences
137. All of the following are examples of sec-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
132. Role of macrophages in chronic inflamma- ond line of body defense against pathogen,
tion Except:
A. Degranulates and release histamine A. Increasing body temperature
B. Produce growth factor ( GF ) for tissue B. Inflammation response

repair C. Antibody production
C. Secrete cytokines and eicosanoids D. Engulfment of pathogen by phagocytes
D. Display antigens to T lymphocytes and
138. There are 3 stages of wound healing.
respond to signals from T cells
During inflammation, haemostasis occurs
and macrophages remove dead tissue and
133. Fever can result in death, especially if
exudate. During proliferation, the space is
body temperature exceeds
filled with granulation tissue, which
A. 44C
A. Bleeds easily
B. 37C
B. Pink/red, granulated colour
C. 41C
C. Is a mixture of blood vessels and fi-
D. 45C broblasts
D. Forms when the fibroblasts and en-
134. What is the inflammation of the cornea
dothelial cells migrate though the fibrin
called?
gell
A. corneitis
139. Feature of chronic inflammation EXCEPT
B. corneatis
A. Infiltration by mononuclear cells
C. keratitis
B. Abundant of neutrophils
D. kelpatitis
C. Tissue destruction
135. Which laboratory test result will the D. Attempt of tissue healing
nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of
therapy for a patient who has acute pan- 140. Which of the following molecules is asso-
creatitis? ciated with pain?
A. lipase A. Plasmin
B. calcium B. Bradykinin
C. bilirubin C. Kallikrein
D. potassium D. Factor XII

141. During cutaneous wound healing, which 146. Your immune system’s specific defense is
of the following process occurs first within able to
minutes?

A. respond to the general threat of infec-
A. Inflammation tion.
B. Proliferation B. cause fever and inflammation at the in-
fection site.
C. Hemostasis
C. respond to a particular pathogen.
D. Remodelling
D. all of the above.
142. What risk factor will the nurse specifi-
cally ask about when a patient is being ad- 147. At the beginning of a fever, does a per-
mitted with acute pancreatitis? son typically “feel” cold or warm?
A. diabetes mellitus A. cold

B. warm
B. alcohol use
C. neither
C. high protein diet
D. none of above
D. cigarette smoking
148. Morphological features of chronic inflam-
143. Enlargement and deformation of joints mation
were revealed in a patient with rheuma-
tism. What type of inflammation underlies A. Abundant neutrophils with fibrin depo-
these changes? sition
A. Alterative B. Exudation of cell-poor fluid into the

pleura
B. Proliferative
C. Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma
C. Exudative cells
D. Fibrinous D. Connective tissue replacement of dam-
E. Deformative aged tissue by angiogenesis and fibrosis
149. What should the nurse teach a patient

144. What is the inflammation of the optic
with chronic pancreatitis is the time to
nerve called?
take the prescribed pancrelipase?
A. Optic Neuritis
A. bedtime
B. Optic Nervitis
B. mealtime
C. Nervitis Optica C. for increasing pain
D. Optical Nervitis D. only if nauseated
145. Review:hemoglobin must have to 150. Yikes forgot to ask earlier what is
carry oxygen the first test for anemia?
A. calcium A. hemoglobin
B. sodium B. hematocrit
C. iron C. spinal tap
D. potassium D. MRI

151. Which patient statement to the nurse in- B. Blisterous

dicates that the patient understands self- C. Serous
care for pernicious anemia?
D. Proliferative
A. “I need to start eating more red meat
and liver.” E. Diphtheritic
B. “I will be able to wean off B-12 suppli- 156. During which of the following phases of
ments.” inflammation do the tissues allow infiltra-
tion of white blood cells to the site of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. “I could choose nasal spray rather
than injections of vitamin B12.” injury?
D. “I will need to take a proton pump in- A. Congestion
hibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).” B. Leakage
152. All of the following vascular changes are C. Phagocytosis
observed in acute inflammation, except: D. none of above
A. Vasodilation
157. Which of the following comes after de-
B. Stasis of blood position of extracellular matrix, during
C. Increased vascular permeability wound healing?
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure A. Angiogenesis
B. Tissue remodelling
153. In examination of abscess punctate under
a microscope different blood cells were re- C. Wound contraction
vealed. Which of them appears the first in D. Formation of granulation tissue
inflammatory focus?
158. which of the following is NOT one of the
A. Monocytes
signs of inflammation?
B. Lymphocytes
A. redness (erythema)
C. Neutrophils
B. heat
D. Eosinophils
C. pain
E. Mast cells
D. bleeding
154. Which of the condition below healing pro-
159. What does “redness” corresponds to, in
cess is regeneration
terms of cardinal signs of acute inflamma-
A. Heart muscle after a myocardial in- tion?
farct
A. Rubor
B. Liver with an abcess
B. Calor
C. Liver after hepatectomy
C. Dolor
D. All of the above
D. Tumor
155. A painful blisters full of opaque fluid
has formed in patient after thermal 160. What is the inflammation of the conjunc-
burn. What type of inflammation has ap- tiva called?
peared? A. conjunctivitis
A. Granulomatous B. aternal uveitis

1.5 Circulatory Disturbances 41
C. otitis A. Inflammation cannot occur in tissue

D. uveitis that does not have a blood supply

B. Inflammation cannot occur in tissue
161. A large group of cells that join together
that does have a blood supply
for a specific activity is called a(an)
C. There is not limiting factor of inflamma-
A. organ
tion
B. tissue
D. none of above
C. organism
D. organ system 165. Necrotic focus has appeared on burn,
swallowing and red skin. What is the main
162. Which of the following prevents clotting mechanism of necrobyosis improvement in
during an inflammatory response? inflammatory area?
A. heparin A. Emigration of leucocytes
B. neutrophils
B. Fibroblasts proliferation
C. complement protein
C. Secondary alteration
D. histamine
D. Dyapedesis of erythrocytes
163. What is the Latin word for Redness?
E. Primary alteration
A. Rubor
B. Tumor 166. If a type of blood has only B antigens,
then it is type of blood
C. Calor
D. Dolor A. A+
E. Functio Laesa B. AB-

C. O+
164. What is the limiting factor of inflamma-
tion? D. B-
1.5 Circulatory Disturbances

1. A blood vessel is called an artery when it: B. A system of lymph and blood that de-
A. Transports oxygenated blood to the livers nutrients and removes waste from
heart the body
B. Transports blood to the heart C. a system of the brain and nerves that
sends messages throughout the body
C. Contains many valves
D. a system of the heart and blood that
D. Transports blood away from the heart
sends messages throughout the body
2. Which best describes the circulatory sys-
3. Bleeding from blood vessels within the
tem?
brain
A. a system that is made up of the heart
and brain and sends electrical signals A. Myocardial Infarction
throughout the body B. Cerebral Hemorrhage

C. Arrhythmia 9. Electric instruments that doctors place in-

D. Aneurysm side a person’s chest to control the heart-
beat.
4. Term used to discuss any change or devia- A. heart attack
tion from the normal rate or rhythm of the
heart B. Pacemaker
A. Arrhythmia C. stroke
D. angioplasty
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Aneurysm
C. Hematoma 10. Which best describes the purpose of the
D. Sickle cell anemia cardiovascular system?
A. It provides stability to the skeleton
5. This is the pacemaker of the heart
B. It delivers food to power the body
A. atrioventricular node
C. It delivers blood to the body’s tissues
B. sinoatrial node
C. purkinje fibers D. It supplies oxygen to the body
D. bundle of his 11. This condition is also known as “royal dis-

ease” in which your blood doesn’t clot nor-
6. Type of circulation that refers to the blood mally, thus nonstop bleeding happens.
flowing through the entire body?
A. Anemia
A. Systemic circulation
B. Hemophilia
B. Renal circulation
C. Myocardial infarction
C. Portal circulation
D. Arrythmia
D. Pulmonary circulation
12. The ballooning out of an artery, accompa-
7. A boy is bitten by a venomous snake on his
nied by the thinning arterial wall, caused
left leg. Poison gets to his heart through
by weakening of the blood vessel
the:
A. Pulmonary vein A. Aneurysm
B. Left subclavian artery B. Hematoma
C. Inferior vena cava C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Hepatic portal vein D. Coronary Artery Disease
8. It is a permanent stretching of the artery, 13. A surgical procedure in which an instru-

caused by the pressure of blood on muscu- ment with a tiny balloon is inserted into
lar walls weakened by diseases or injury. a blocked artery to clear a blockage.
A. Arrythmia A. heart attack
B. Anuerysms B. hypertension
C. Myocardial Infarction C. stroke
D. Artherosclerosis D. angioplasty

14. These cells play a vital role in defending 19. What do we call the sudden rise in blood
the body against infection pressure common to adults?

A. Leucocytes A. Hypertension
B. Erythrocytes B. Stroke
C. Blastocytes C. Anemia
D. Plasmacytes D. Heart Attack
15. The type of blood vessel where exchange 20. This type of stroke can be treated with
of gases, nutrients, and wastes occurs? TPA, a clot buster, ONLY if patient seeks
treatment with in three hours of the onset
A. arteries
of symptoms.
B. capillaries A. Hemmorrhagic
C. veins B. Ischemic
D. none of above C. Explosive
16. The type of blood vessel that normally D. Sudden
carries de-oxygenated blood back to the
heart from body cells? 21. The job of the heart is to
A. arteries A. pump blood around the body.
B. capillaries B. send food to the small intestines.

C. break down food.
C. veins
D. give energy to the body.
D. none of above
22. Which of the following contain deoxy-
17. Disease that occurs when deposits of fatty
genated blood?
substances form along the walls of the ar-
teries. A. Left ventricle
A. Atherosclerosis B. Pulmonary vein
B. Heart Failure C. Right atrium
C. Myocardial Infarction D. Coronary artery
D. Claudication 23. Condition in which the valve between the
left atrium and the left ventricle doesn’t
18. Disease resulting from reduced blood flow close properly; may cause blood leakage
from the heart; characterized by weak- back into the left atrium.
ness, breathlessness, abdominal discom-
fort, and edema in the lower extremities. A. tricuspid atrestia
A. congestive heart failure (CHF) B. mitral valve prolapse
B. cardiac tamponade C. pulmonary stenosis
C. premature ventricular contraction D. endocarditis

(PVCs)
24. Your blood is made up of which of the fol-
D. varicose veins lowing

A. plasma, red blood cells, blue blood 29. Which is responsible for providing oxygen
cells to cells?
B. white and red blood cells A. respiratory system
C. plasma and platelets B. circulatory system
D. plasma, red blood cells, white blood C. muscular system
cells, and platelets D. nervous system
25. Your heart is an example of which type of 30. A break in the blood vessel resulting in loss
NARAYAN CHANGDER
muscle? of blood due to physical injury or disease.
A. a big one A. bruise

B. hemorrhage
B. voluntary
C. cardiac arrest
C. involuntary
D. hypotension
D. bicep
31. Blood leaves the heart in two vessels,
26. Which best describes the relationship be- namely the:
tween the muscular system and the circu- A. Aorta and pulmonary vein
latory system?
B. Pulmonary artery and aorta
A. The circulatory system captures car-
C. Aorta and venae cavae
bon dioxide from the air for muscle en-
ergy. D. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein
B. The circulatory system produces red 32. This happens when blood from the heart is
blood cells to bring oxygen to the muscles cut off to part of the brain.
C. The circulatory system provides a A. arteriosclerosis
framework for muscle movement B. heart attack
D. The circulatory system delivers oxygen C. myocardial infarction
for muscle energy D. stroke
27. Heart valves are typically from what ani- 33. Your skeletal systems work to protect
mal? which organ located in the cardiovascular
A. cow system?
B. pig A. heart
B. kidneys
C. sheep
C. brain
D. chimpanzee
D. spinal cord
28. This is insufficient iron in the blood affect-
34. Transplantation between members of a dif-
ing production of hemoglobin.
ferent species
A. iron-deficiency anemia A. Autograft
B. pernicious anemia B. Xenotransplant
C. posthemorrhagic anemia C. Allograft
D. aplastic anemia D. isograft

35. Which condition results in which you lack C. Muscular contractions

enough healthy red blood cells to carry ad- D. A system of valves
equate oxygen to your body’s tissues?

A. Arrythmia 41. How many types of blood vessels are in
our body?
B. Anemia
A. 1
C. Cardiac arrest
B. 2
D. Myocardial Infarction
C. 3
36. Carbon dioxide is considered a
D. 4
A. food
B. waste 42. Type of circulation that refers to blood
flow from the heart to the lungs and back
C. energy to the heart again?
D. fun party favor
A. Systemic circulation
37. Grafting vein from another part of the B. Renal circulation
body into position in the heart
C. Portal circulation
A. aneurysm
D. Pulmonary circulation
B. coronary bypass
C. varicose vein 43. In which system of the human body does
the heart belong?
D. cloning
A. Nervous
38. The phase in the cardiac cycle when blood B. Skeletal
is pumped out of the ventricles is called:
C. Cardiovascular
A. Atrial systole
D. Digestive
B. Ventricular diastole
C. Atrial systole 44. Which condition results to abnormal pro-
duction of white blood cells in the blood-
D. Ventricular systole
stream?
39. Which system permits blood to circu- A. Anemia
late and transports nutrients around the
body? B. Leukemia
A. Nervous C. Stroke
B. Respiratory D. Coronary disease

C. Circulatory 45. Which describes a task performed by the
D. Digestive circulatory system?
A. creating red blood cells
40. The direction of blood flow through the hu-
man body is maintained by: B. sending messages to the brain
A. The elasticity of the vein walls C. transporting waste materials
B. The pump action of the heart D. producing energy from food

1.6 Neoplasia 46
46. The type of blood vessel that normally car- B. capillaries

ries oxygenated blood from the heart to
the body cells? C. veins
A. arteries D. none of above
1.6 Neoplasia
1. Referring to the T.N.M. system, the initial A. squirt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
N means? B. FHIT
A. ganglion node C. APC
B. no metastasis
D. DCC
C. Neoplasia
E. Cadherina-E
D. none of above
6. Endoscopic mucosal resection in gastric can-
2. deletion syndrome occurs due to loss of cer is indicated in:
chromosome 22.
A. Gastric cancer differentiated from the
A. True mucosa
B. False B. with less than 2cm
C. I’m not sure C. That does not have ulceration data
D. none of above D. No data on lymph node metastasis
3. HOW MANY TYPES OF MYELOPLASTIC OR E. All
MYELOPLASTIC NEOPLASMS ARE THERE?
7. Malignant neoplasms arising from epithe-
A. 3 lium are called
B. 4 A. Sarcoma
C. 2 B. Carcinoma
D. 1 C. Lymphoma
4. CIRCULATORY DISORDER CHARACTER- D. Leukaemia
IZED BY EXCESSIVE ACTIVATION OF
HEMOSTATIC PROCESSES, MAY LEAD TO 8. The originates from the visceral or
ISCHEMIA AND NECROSIS. parietal pleura. They are related to as-
bestos (ASBESTOS) up to 90%
A. CONGESTION
A. thoracic mesothelioma
B. THROMBOSIS
B. solitary fibrous tumor
C. HYPEREMIA
C. Adenocarcinoma in situ
D. HEMORRHAGE
D. Carcinoma
E. EDEMA
5. Genetic abnormalities were found in gas- 9. The following molecule(s) favor(s) neovas-
tric cancer, which is the most frequent find- cularization
ing in terms of selection and suppression. A. VEGF

1.6 Neoplasia 47
B. TNF 15. The term neoplasia is used in medicine to

C. FGF designate

D. TSP A. The transformation of one mature ep-
ithelium into another
E. PDGF
B. An abnormal mass of tissue
10. In the T.N.M. system, the initial M, does C. erica of all those tumors that start in
it mean? the skin or in superficial cells
A. NODULE D. none of above
B. METASTASIS
16. Grade I
C. TUMOR
A. cells are well differentiated with little
D. none of above
motises and prognosis is good
11. Is it characteristic of malignant tumors, ex- B. cells are moderately differentiated
cept? with moderate motisis and prognosis is
A. Ability to spread to remote sites fair
B. If detected early, they can be re- C. cells are poorly differentiated with
moved. many motises and prognosis is fair to poor
C. It stays localized, without spreading to D. cells are de-differentiated with many
other places motises and prognosis is poor
D. none of above 17. IN MALIGNANT TUMORS WE HAVE?
12. Which of the following cancers has the A. The new fabric is less and less similar
highest mortality rate? to the original
A. endometrial B. not invasive
B. leukemia C. There is no tissue destruction
C. pancreatic D. none of above
D. lung
18. Malignant tumors originating from solid
13. Replication of the genome occurs in the mesenchymal tissues
phase of the cell cycle. A. Cancer
A. G1 B. lymphoma
B. G2 C. Sarcoma
C. C D. None
D. S
19. What stage does cancer extend into the
14. Origin of basal cell carcinoma: perivesical fat correspond to?
A. basal cells A. Stage II
B. spinous stratum B. Stage III
C. Stratum corneum C. Stage IV
D. granular layer D. none of above

1.6 Neoplasia 48
20. Mark the correct answer It is defined as 25. Typical and atypical carcinoid: Carcinoids
the spread of the tumor to sites physi- are NOT associated with smoking. They
cally distant from the primary tumor and are associated with:
unequivocally marks said tumor as malig- A. MYC
nant. Cancer’s invasive capacity enables
it to penetrate through blood vessels, lym- B. EGFR
phatics and body cavities. C. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
syndrome. (MEN1)
A. Metastasis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. BAP1
B. oncogenesis
C. Chronic inflamation 26. Carcinogenesis is associated with alter-
ations in 4 genes, except:
D. Replicas
A. Regulatory genes of apoptosis
21. Which of the following is not considered a B. Protooncogenes
connective tissue?
C. Tumor suppressor genes
A. bone
D. Monoclonal antibody genes
B. blood E. Genes that repair DNA
C. fat
27. ROUTES OF DISSEMINATION
D. skin
A. SANGRE
22. What acronym is used to describe cancer B. TISSUE
staging?
C. SAP
A. ABC D. BLOOD AND LYMPH
B. TNM
28. It is a benign neoplasm:
C. LMO
A. Lymphoma
D. CTE
B. Seminoma
23. Regarding the T.N.M. System, does the ini- C. myeloma
tial T mean? D. Adenoma
A. TUMOR
29. What does well-differentiated tumor refer
B. NEOPLASIA to?
C. METASTASIS A. Malignant neoplasm
D. none of above B. Benign neoplasm
24. Excess estrogens in the endometrial mu- C. nuclear polymorphism
cosa can generate D. none of above
A. Pathological hyperplasia 30. Is it true in relation to malignant tumors?
B. Pathological dysplasia A. they grow slow
C. Metaplasia B. They grow slow and slow
D. Physiological hyperplasia C. They grow fast
E. Hypertrophy D. None

1.6 Neoplasia 49
31. It is almost always associated with smok- B. by accidental transplantation during in-
ing and has the highest mutational burden vasive procedures
among lung cancers. In it there is an al-

C. by progressive, invasive growth that
most universal inactivation of the TP53
spreads to adjacent organs
and RB genes:
A. small cell carcinoma D. all are correct answers
B. Adenocarcinoma 36. By what system do malignant neoplasms

C. squamous cell carcinoma spread?
D. Carcinoma in situ A. Blood system
32. It usually has gain-of-function mutations B. Lymphatic system

in growth factor receptor signaling path- C. both with correct
ways such as EGFR, ALK, ROS1, MET,
KRAS, BRAF, and PI3K: D. none of above
A. squamous cell carcinoma
37. Most patients diagnosed with gastric can-
B. Adenocarcinoma cer in the United States have stage disease
C. Carcinoma neuroendocrino at the time of diagnosis.
D. NHL A. I
33. Angiogenesis is the process of develop- B. I to II

ment of new blood vessels from pre- C. III
existing ones, this is also part of the pro-
cess of D. III of IV
A. cell proliferation E. V
B. activation of fibroblasts and deposit of 38. Malignant neoplasm filled with a mucus-
connective tissue like material, by mucus-secreting goblet
C. scar formation cells
D. none of above A. embryonal carcinoma
34. Which of the following statements is not B. Musinous neoplasms
characteristic of neoplastic cells?
C. Sertolil-Leydiding stromal cell neo-
A. Angiogenesis plasms
B. Metastasis D. Krukenberg
C. Consume nutrients from the host
39. Clonal expansion consists of:
D. Respect your tissue habitat
E. Disorderly movement through tissues A. Proliferation of a single precursor cell
that has suffered genetic damage.
35. Which of the following ways can cancer B. Increase in cell death
metastasize?
C. Metastasis and hematogenous spread
A. by “shedding” cells that circulate into
the blood and lymphatic system D. growth promoting factors

1.6 Neoplasia 50
40. ARE CHRONIC INTERSTITIAL LUNG DIS- 45. THE PREFIX NEO, DOES IT MEAN?
EASES OF THE GRANULOMATOUS TYPE:
A. NUEVO
A. sarcoidosis, hypersensitivity pneu-
monitis B. ANCIENT
B. habitual and non-specific interstitial C. PLASIA

pneumonia. D. none of above
C. pneumonia in cryptogenic organization
46. IT IS A TUMOR OF PARENCHYMAL ORI-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and pneumoconiosis
GIN
D. drug reactions and radiation pneu-
monitis. A. Hemangioma
41. The most common metabolic paraneoplas- B. Lipoma

tic syndrome is? C. Linfagioma
A. Hiperfosfatemia D. None
B. hypercalcemia
47. Which of the following is not a fundamen-
C. Hipercloremia
tal step in carcinogenesis?
D. hypocalcemia
A. Metastasis
E. Hypernatremia
B. Accumulation of mutations over time
42. A duplicated chromosome has how many
C. Non-lethal genetic damage
chromatids?
A. 1 D. Clonal expansion of a single precursor
cell that has suffered genetic damage.
B. 2
C. 3 48. ONE OF THE BIOLOGICAL CHARACTERIS-
TICS OF BENIGN NEOPLASMS IS?
D. 4
A. slow growth
43. Which molecule would be expected to be
decreased in a patient who has aggressive, B. fast growth,
invasive, and metastatic cancer? C. Cellular pleomorphism.
A. PDGF D. none of above
B. TGF B
C. Cadherinas 49. an abnormal mass of tissue that outgrows
normal tissue without coordinating with it
D. RAS and persists in excessive growth after the
stimuli that induced the change have been
44. Primary myelofibrosis as a disease has
discontinued
two phases, which are:
A. latency and multiplication A. Neoplasia
B. pondromic phase and rash B. Desmoplasia

C. pre-fibrotic stage and manifest stage C. Replicas
D. None of the above D. None

1.6 Neoplasia 51
50. How sensitive is the esophagogastroduo- B. large cell carcinoma

denal series with double contrast medium C. Adenocarcinoma
for gastric ca.

D. squamous cell carcinoma
A. 0.95
54. The sample obtained in a biopsy is formally
B. 0.9 placed at:
C. 0.85 A. 10%
D. 0.75 B. 1%
E. 0.65 C. 5%
51. When they are located on the free edge of D. 20%
the vocal cord, traumatisms can give rise 55. Which is malignant?
to its ulceration, sometimes accompanied
A. lipoma
by hemoptysis.
B. liposarcoma
A. squamous papilloma and papillomato-
sis C. adenoma
B. laryngeal carcinoma D. osteoma
C. reactive nodules (vocal cord nodules 56. Adenocarcinoma

and polyps) A. Benign tumor of glands
D. laryngitis B. Malignant tumor of glands
C. Benign tumor of squamous epithelium
52. Fundamental features by which most be-
nign and malignant neoplasms can be dis- D. Malignant tumor of squamous epithe-
tinguished lium
A. Metastasis 57. CLASSIFICATION OF NEOPLASM
B. Local invasion A. BUENA
C. Dystrophic calcification B. BENIGN
D. Differentiation C. ONLY MALIGNANT
E. Type of associated necrosis D. MALIGNANT AND BENIGN
58. This is a local tumor
53. Electron microscopy shows electron-dense
neurosecretory granules, approximately A. Fibrosarkoma
100 nm in diameter, in two-thirds of B. Osteosarcoma
cases of The appearance of neu- C. Lymphangioma
rosecretory granules, the expression of
neuroendocrine markers such as chromo- D. none of above
granin, synaptophysin, and CD56, and 59. MAPK activation drives:
(eg, parathyroid hormone-related protein,
A. Activation of transcription in the nu-
a cause of paraneoplastic hypercalcemia)
cleus.
indicate that this tumor originates from
neuroendocrine progenitor cells. present B. RAF regulation
in the bronchial lining epithelium. C. Activation of growth factors.
A. small cell carcinoma D. GDP increase.

1.6 Neoplasia 52
60. Which phase of mitosis is associated with D. Back Paratha

chromosomes aligned at the center of the
E. Cohesina
cell and centromeres divide?
A. interphase 66. The normal lung contains cells within
B. prophase the epithelium, isolated or forming clus-
ters, the neuroepithelial bodies.
C. metaphase
A. endocrine
D. telophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Neuroendocrine
61. What are the environmental elements that
C. epithelial
modify the risk of cancer except
A. Infectious agents D. neoplastic
B. Tobacco 67. What happens if the p53 protein is inac-

C. Obesity tive?
D. Metabolism A. This control mechanism is not exer-
cised
62. In TMN Protocol T stands for
B. Cells with unrepaired genetic damage
A. Tumor can proliferate
B. Titanium C. A y B
C. Tinges
D. none of above
D. Tiny
68. What diagnostic study helps to identify en-
63. Squamous cell carcinoma originates from terocele or sigmoidocele?
cells of the stratum:
A. TAC
A. Basal
B. REM
B. Thorny
C. USG
C. Grainy
D. Horny D. none of above
64. The centromeres move toward the poles in 69. They are malignant neoplasms:
A. Adenocarcinoma
A. anaphase B. Melanoma
B. interphase C. Papilloma
C. metaphase
D. Atheroma
D. prophase
70. Son virus transformers:
65. Evasion of the mitotic crisis occurs thanks
to the enzyme A. Papilloma
A. Caspasa B. Epstein Barr
B. telomerase C. Hermes
C. deoxyribonuclease D. Paramixovirus

1.6 Neoplasia 53
71. What proteases are involved in the degra- B. False

dation of the ECM: C. None of the options

A. MMD
D. none of above
B. Catepsina D
77. DOES THE SUFFIX PLASIA MEAN?
C. CD44
A. DEVELOPMENT
D. amino acids
B. NUEVO
72. Malignant tumors of epithelial origin are
C. ORIGEN
called
A. carcinomas D. none of above
B. sarcomas 78. A gene mutation that is comprised of inser-

C. adenomas tion of three nucleotide is a non-frameshift
mutation.
D. none of above
A. True
73. Which of the following is NOT a sign of B. False
cancer?
C. I’m not sure
A. Insomnia
D. none of above
B. Weight loss
C. Swollen mammary gland 79. Tumor containing tissues from more than
one of the germ layers:
D. Bleeding on the skin
A. Teratoma
74. Which of the following types of tumors is
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
considered malignant?
A. adenoma C. Carcinoma
B. condroma D. Adenoma
C. osteosarcoma 80. What cyst can contain hair, fat or other

D. papilloma tissue?
A. dermoid cysts
75. A common site of cancerous spread via di-
rect seeding is? B. follicular cyst
A. Kidney C. corpus luteum cyst
B. Pancreas D. cistoadenomas
C. liver parenchyma 81. Which of the following features best dif-
D. Fur ferentiates malignant from benign neo-
plasms?
E. Pleura
A. presence of atypia
76. A mother who suffers a mitochondrial DNA
B. metastases
disease will pass down the disease to his
son with 100% probability. C. local recurrence after excision
A. True D. presence of mitoses

1.6 Neoplasia 54
82. Patient arrives for EDA to identify non- D. Decreased translocation of B catenin
neoplastic gastric polyps, would they be? to the nucleus
A. hyperplastic polyps 87. Which of the following cancers is the most
B. inflammatory polyps common?
C. hamartomatous polyps A. bladder
D. All B. breast
E. None C. kidney
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. pancreatic
83. which laboratory tests are more accurate
for a patient with CML 88. Abnormal, uncontrolled and autonomous
cell proliferation, outside the regulatory
A. hto, VCM, hemoglobina, ph
mechanisms of cell growth, in which cells
B. GOT Y GPT reduce or lose the ability to differentiate
C. Blood cell count, OM aspirate and ge- as a result of changes in genes that regu-
netic tests late cell growth and differentiation is the
definition of:
D. PCR, OM aspirate, complete blood
count, reticulocytes A. dysplasia
B. Tumor
84. It is the resection of the pylorus (pyloro-
tomy) and end-to-end anastomosis of the C. Neoplasia
stomach with the duodenum: D. Metaplasia
A. Billroth I 89. Tumor that rarely metastasizes
B. Billroth II A. Choriocarcinoma
C. Roux-en-Y surgery B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
D. All C. Sarcoma osteogenico
E. None D. Mucosal melanoma
E. Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
85. Excessive growth of dark or thick male-
like hair on the face, chest, and back is 90. Which is benign?
known as:
A. osteoma
A. Nulliparity
B. liposarcoma
B. amenorrhea C. papiliocarcinoma
C. Clitoromegalia D. adenocarcinoma
D. hirsutism
91. Which of the following manifestations
86. A mutation in APC would lead to all of the does NOT correspond to myelodysplastic
following except: syndrome?
A. increased transcription A. Anemia
B. Decreased negative regulation of B B. Adenomegalia
catenin C. hemorrhagic diathesis
C. Cell proliferation and growth D. None of the above

1.6 Neoplasia 55
92. Malignant tumors originating from solid D. none of above

mesenchymal tissues are often called..
97. What is the normal value of prostate spe-

A. Sarcomas cific antigen?
B. Osteosarcoma A. >4 ng/dl
C. Teratomas B. >2.5 ng/dl
D. None C. >1.5 ng/dl
93. They are the three primary malignant gas- D. >3 ng/dl
tric neoplasms of the stomach, except:
98. It is the suffix given to the malignant neo-
A. Adenocarcinoma plasm of epithelial cells.
B. Lymphoma A. sarcoma
C. Gastrointestinal malignant stromal tu- B. carcinoma
mor
C. papilloma
D. Leiomyosarcoma
D. none of above
E. All
99. Which of the following refers to metasta-
94. They grow rapidly, do not preserve the dif- sis?
ferentiation of their cells, are poorly de-
A. Tumor that has spread to other struc-
fined, invade surrounding healthy tissues,
tures
and metastasize at a distance.
B. New abnormal growth
A. Malignant tumor
C. Abnormal tissue with progressive and
B. Tumor
uncontrolled growth
C. Tumor Benigno
D. none of above
D. None
100. Which of the following types of tumors is
95. Neoplasms have a multifactorial origin, be- considered a malignant, connective tissue
ing related to several factors. Which of tumor?
the factors listed below is NOT considered
A. adenocarcinoma
a risk factor:
B. ademoma
A. Environmental
C. liposarcoma
B. genetic
D. glioma
C. Microorganism
D. Lifestyle 101. BENIGN EPITHELIAL NEOPLASMS THAT
EMIT DIGITAL PROJECTIONS OR WARTS
E. economic conditions FROM THE SURFACE, WHETHER MICRO-
96. What would be the marked differences to SCOPIC OR MACROSCOPIC, ARE KNOWN
distinguish a benign neoplasm from a ma- AS:?
lignant one? A. condromas
A. lymph nodes B. cistoadenomas
B. histologically undifferentiated C. polyp
C. slow growth D. papillomas

1.6 Neoplasia 56
102. Head and neck radiotherapy can lead to 107. Flow cytometry can be used to rapidly
papillary cancers of years later. and quantitatively measure the presence
A. Thyroid of
A. tumors
B. thyroid cartilage
B. antigens
C. Larynx
C. malignant molecules
D. eyeballs
D. Antibodies
E. Language
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Genes
103. The substitution of one type of cells for 108. According to the biological criteria or their
another can be due to tissue damage or re- lethality, neoplasms are classified as?
generation.
A. BENIGN
A. Metaplasia
B. MALIGNANT
B. Replicas
C. NONE
C. Neoplasia
D. BENIGN AND MALIGNANT
D. dysplasia
109. A carcinoma expresses telomerase, this
104. These cells can reach organs or tissues causes:
through the following routes: A. It is considered as the second hit in the
A. LYMPHATIC WAY. gene mutation.
B. BLOOD WAY. B. Allows hematogenous invasion.
C. DIRECT ROUTE. C. Predisposes to future proto-oncogene

mutations.
D. BY IATROGENIC DESEMINATION.
D. Stabilizes damaged DNA for unlimited
E. ALL replications
105. A carcinoma in situ has all the features 110. Surgical resection is the only curative
except: treatment for gastric cancer the surgeon
tries to achieve a broad negative margin
A. Increased proliferation
of at least:
B. Increased frequency of mitosis
A. 1 cm
C. Increase in the nucleo-cytoplasm ratio B. 2 cm
1:1
C. 3 cm
D. clonal expansion
D. 4 cm
E. Metastasis
E. 5 cm
106. Which phase of mitosis is associated with 111. Anaplasia is associated with other mor-
separation of chromatids? phological alterations except
A. interphase A. Pleomorphism
B. prophase B. Mitosis
C. metaphase C. loss of polarity
D. anaphase D. tissue destruction

1.6 Neoplasia 57
112. According to the etiology of chronic pro- C. Urothelial carcinoma, gastric adeno-
liferative neoplasms, what is the mutation carcinoma, leiomyoma, lymphoma
that occurs in the JAK2 gene?

D. Urothelial carcinoma, gastric adeno-
A. A4c carcinoma, leiomyosarcoma, lymphoma
B. Jahgata 117. It is NOT a neoplasm of the nasopharynx
C. V617F A. nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. none of above B. Olfactory neuroblastoma (esthe-
sioneuroblastoma)
113. CHARACTERISTICS OF A BENIGN LESION
C. sinus papilloma (Schneider)
A. POORLY DEFINED EDGES
D. midline nut carcinoma
B. BLEEDING
E. solitary fibrous tumor
C. SLOW EVOLUTION
D. RAPID CELL DIVISION 118. Which of the following concepts is not a
finding of Prostatic Cancer by MRI
114. Malignant neoplasms arising in solid mes- A. prostatic qualifications
enchymal tissues or its derivatives are
B. Rectal angle obliteration
called
C. Urethra condition
A. Carcinoma
D. none of above
B. Sarcoma
C. Lymphoma 119. A cell with a specialized (morphologically
and functionally distinct) final phenotype
D. Leukaemia is a cell:
115. Which of the following is a type of re- A. anaplasia
versible disorderly growth? B. differentiated
A. Neoplasia C. undifferentiated
B. dysplasia D. atypical
C. Tumor
120. What are the specific characteristics of a
D. Cancer malignant neoplasm?
E. Metaplasia A. Its features are not serious
116. Malignant neoplasms of urothelial epithe- B. They can infiltrate adjacent structures,
lium, gastric foveolar epithelium, smooth destroying themselves, or spread to far-
muscle, lymphocytes have the following away places.
nomenclature: C. Its location is uncertain
A. Urothelial carcinoma, gastric adeno- D. ALL ARE CORRECT
carcinoma, leiomyosarcoma, lymphosar-
coma. 121. What is a malignant glandular neoplasm
arising from epithelial cells?
B. urothelial adenocarcinoma, gastric
adenocarcinoma, leiomyosarcoma, lym- A. Adenoma
phosarcoma B. Lipoma

1.6 Neoplasia 58
C. Sarcoma 126. In TNM Protocol, M stands for

D. Adenocarcinoma A. Many
122. RB function is altered in the following B. Mestastasis

ways which are C. Metacarpal
A. Loss-of-function mutations of the RB D. Megatron
alleles
127. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANSWERS
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Shift from active to inactive hypophos-
phorylated state DOES NOT BELONG TO A TYPE OF
MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROME?
C. shift from inactive to active hypophos-
phorylated state A. treatment resistant anemia
D. none B. Treatment-resistant cytopenia with

unilineage dysplasia
123. What are the 2 neoplasms with the high- C. Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain
est incidence rate in the entire population significance
worldwide?
D. chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
A. Pancreatic cancer and prostate cancer
E. Unclassifiable myelodysplastic syn-
B. Lung cancer and breast cancer
drome
C. Lung cancer and prostate cancer
128. Cancer cells favor to undergo apoptosis.
D. Pancreatic cancer and skin cancer
A. True
E. Skin cancer and lung cancer
B. False
124. What expresses metastasis?
C. I’m not sure
A. That the cells have lost their differenti-
ation D. none of above
B. That the tumor undergoes necrosis 129. Poorly differentiated neoplastic cells may
C. The cells crossed the basement mem- become malignant tumors.
brane A. True
D. That a cell or cell group travels a dis- B. False
tance
C. I don’t know
E. problem incompatible with life
D. none of above
125. MEANING OF ONCOLOGY
130. If p53 is activated in the cell, what me-
A. SCIENCE THAT STUDIES CANCERS
diator would be involved in stopping the
B. SCIENCE THAT STUDIES MALIGNANT progression of cells from G1 to S?
TUMORS
A. p16
C. SCIENCE THAT STUDIES BENIGN NEO-
B. p14
PLASMS
C. MDM2
D. SCIENCE THAT STUDIES BENIGN AND
MALIGNANT NEOPLASMS D. p21

1.6 Neoplasia 59
131. The main presenting symptoms are cough C. None of the above
(75%), weight loss (40% ), chest pain D. none of above
(40%), and dyspnea (20% ).

137. An X-linked dominant mutation that is
A. Lung cancer
present in a mother’s somatic cell will be
B. Esophagus cancer inherited and expressed as an abnormality
C. Hodgkin lymphomas in her daughter.
D. NHL A. True
B. False
132. Tumours composed of undifferentiated
C. I don’t know
cells are said to be
D. none of above
A. Metaplastic
B. Anaplastic 138. Extension of tumors to anatomically sep-
arate sites
C. Dysplastic
A. Metastasis
D. Sarcoma
B. tumor invasion
133. Is invasive growth C. Replicas
A. passive D. dysplasia
B. progressive 139. What cancer grad is described as a can-
C. aggressive cer that has spread to distant parts of the
body.
D. pessimistic
A. Stage 0
134. What is gland cancer called? B. Stage 1
A. Cystadenoma C. Stage 4
B. Adenosarcoma D. Stage 3
C. Adenocarcinoma
140. The is associated with smoking, al-
D. Cistoadenosarcoma though to a lesser extent than other his-
tological subtypes. As a consequence, it is
135. THE EXTENSION OF TUMORS TO the most common subtype in people who
ANATOMICALLY SEPARATE SITES IS have never smoked.
KNOWN AS?
A. Adenocarcinoma
A. METASTASIS
B. squamous cell carcinoma
B. TUMOR INVASION
C. Carcinoma neuroendocrino
C. INFILTRATION
D. Skin carcinoma
D. ANAPLASIA
141. BENIGN NEOPLASM THAT AFFECTS BONE
E. DYSPLASIA TISSUE IS CALLED
136. Tissue repair is achieved through two A. OSTEOSARCOMA
types of reactions, these are B. OSTEOBLAST
A. skin wounds and fibrosis C. OSTEOCITO
B. Regeneration and scar formation D. OSTEOMA

1.6 Neoplasia 60
142. Each chromosome replicates to produce 147. It is not part of the definition of neo-
two sister chromatids in plasms in general:
A. anaphase A. Abnormal mass of tissue growth.
B. interphase B. Originates metastasis
C. metaphase C. Loss of tissue control mechanisms
D. prophase D. It persists even after withdrawal of
the growth-inducing stimulus.
143. In the TNM classification of gastric tu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mors, does a tumor perforate the serosa, 148. It is an example of a benign epithelial tu-
does it refer to the stage? mor.
A. Tis A. Lymphoma
B. T1b
B. Lipoma
C. exhaustion
C. Melanoma
D. T4a
D. Angioma
E. T4b
E. Papilloma
144. CHARACTERISTICS OF A MALIGNANT
NEOPLASM 149. Carcinoma
A. METASTASIS, SLOW GROWTH A. Malignant growths arising from epithe-
lial tissue
B. METASTASIS, FAST GROWTH, DE-
STROYS ADJACENT CELLS B. Malignant growths arising from mus-
cular tissue
C. DOES NOT INVADE ADJACENT CELLS
C. Malignant growths arising from bone
D. FAST AND ENCAPSULATED GROWTH
tissue
145. Regarding renal abscess, which of the fol- D. Malignant growths arising from blood
lowing is correct? tissue
A. Surgical mass with septa inside
150. Bacteria most associated with neoplasia
B. Hydronephrosis in the GIT
C. Invade al recto
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. none of above
B. Helicobacter Pylori
146. Grade III C. Clostridium difficile
A. cells are well differentiated with little D. enterococci
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. cells are moderately differentiated
with moderate motisis and prognosis is 151. they are of stony consistency
fair
A. Desmoplastic tumors
C. cells are poorly differentiated with
B. Fibroma
many motises and prognosis is fair to poor
D. cells are de-differentiated with many C. Sarcoma
motises and prognosis is poor D. Condroma

1.6 Neoplasia 61
152. The benign neoplasm presents cells: 157. Sarcoma

A. undifferentiated A. Malignant growths arising from con-

B. differentiated nective tissue
C. anarchic B. Malignant growths arising from mus-
D. pleomorphic cular tissue
E. atypical C. Malignant growths arising from bone

tissue
153. Which phase of mitosis is associated with
formation of the nuclear envelope? D. Malignant growths arising from blood
tissue
A. Interphase
B. prophase 158. What is the most frequent premalignant
C. metaphase lesion of the stomach:
D. telophase A. hyperplastic polyp
154. The standard surgical intervention for B. Adenoma

gastric cancer is: C. chronic ulcer
A. partial gastrectomy
D. atrophic gastritis
B. subtotal gastrectomy
E. Gastritis verrugosa
C. radical gastrectomy
D. sleeve gastrectomy 159. Examples of malignant neoplasms in-
E. None clude(s)
A. Lipoma
155. The cell cycle is controlled in most cells by
A. time, after a certain length of time the B. Seminoma
cell divides C. Leiomyoma
B. a series of checkpoints D. Chondroma
C. the completion of one phase which trig-
gers the beginning of the next E. Melanoma
D. cell size, when the cell reaches a cer- 160. During what phase of mitosis does the nu-
tain size, it divides clear membrane and nucleolus disappear,
156. When the neoplastic cells do not resem- strands of chromatin condense into visible
ble the cells of origin at all, this property chromosomes, and centrioles begin to mi-
is called: grate toward opposite poles as they form
the spindle fibers?
A. Polymorphisms
A. interphase
B. Metastasis
C. Metaplasia B. prophase
D. degree of differentiation C. metaphase

E. hyperchromatism D. telophase

1.6 Neoplasia 62
161. Ultra Violet radiation can produce harm- A. perineural

ful effects for the cell and this is best rep- B. Citoplasmatica
resented by the alternative:
C. Sarcomas
A. Ultra violet radiation does not have a
harmful effect on cells. D. clonic
B. Activation of cell division, activation of 165. THESE ARE SYMPTOMS OF NEOPLASM

enzymes and induction of mutations. A. FATIGUE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Induction of apoptosis, activation of B. WEIGHTLOSS
enzymes and DNA repair.
C. Both
D. Blocking DNA repair, inducing apopto-
D. none of above
sis.
E. Inhibition of cell division, inactivation 166. Grade II
of enzymes and mutation induction. A. cells are well differentiated with little
162. Inflammation can ultimately be consid-
ered a necessary resource to: B. cells are moderately differentiated
with moderate motisis and prognosis is
A. Increase vasoconstriction in the in- fair
jured area.
C. cells are poorly differentiated with
B. Prepare the injured area for tissue re- many motises and prognosis is fair to poor
pair.
D. cells are de-differentiated with many
C. Increase blood flow to the injured motises and prognosis is poor
area.
D. Increase vasodilation in the injured 167. What is the characteristic/definition of
area. carcinoma in situ?
E. Stimulation of defense cells necessary A. Connective tissue invasion

to prevent microorganisms from entering B. Restricted to epithelial tissue
the injured area C. Covers epithelial tissue and blood ves-
sels
163. A lepidic pattern of spread is often found
at the periphery of the tumor in which cells D. Covers connective tissue and lymph
“creep” along normal-appearing alveolar nodes
septa. Tumors (3 cm) with a small invasive
168. Benign tumor arising from fibrous tissue
component (5 mm) associated with scar-
ring and peripheral lepidic growth pattern A. Condroma
are called : B. Fibroma
A. Adenocarcinoma in situ C. Adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma microinvasive. D. None
C. Adenocarcinoma mucinous
169. It is the suffix given to the neoplasm orig-
D. Adenocarcinoma mucinous inating in mesenchymal tissues.
164. Neoplasms that derive from mesenchy- A. sarcoma

mal tissues or mesoderm are called B. carcinoma

1.6 Neoplasia 63
C. papilloma B. Type 0-llb

D. none of above C. Tipo0-llc

170. Choose the type of cancer with its correct D. Type 0-III
route of spread. E. IV type
A. Sarcoma-Lymphatic
175. What are the 3 E’s in cancer immunoedit-
B. Sarcoma-Hematogenous ing?
C. Carcinoma-Direct seeding on surfaces A. Deletion, editing, elongation
D. Carcinoma-Hematogenous B. Effectuation, edification, balance
171. Some diseases are considered to be au- C. Environment, escape, removal
toimmune because people who have them: D. Elongation, balance, environment
A. are unable to produce antibodies. E. Balance, Elimination, Escape
B. have allergies to foreign drugs.
176. Patient arrives concerned because, in her
C. produce antibodies against their own report, she refers to a hyperplastic polyp,
body parts. how big is it to carry dysplasia or carci-
D. cannot receive a blood transfusion noma in situ
from any donor. A. 0, 2cm
E. produce fewer white and red blood
B. 0, 5cm
cells.
C. 1cm
172. What does carcinoma in situ mean?
D. >2cm
A. The cancer has metastasized
E. >2.5cm
B. The cancer has spread to the lymph
nodes. 177. They are ways of spreading cancer
C. Cancer is confined to the site of origin A. direct sowing
D. The cancer has crossed the cell mem- B. lymphatic
brane. C. Hematogena
173. What are the three main characteristics D. All
of tumors?
178. Which of the following is not a character-
A. They form an abnormal mass of cells.
istic of benign tumors?
B. They have independent, excessive and
A. well differentiated
uncontrolled growth
B. slow growth
C. They have the ability to survive even
after the cause that caused it disappears C. well defined
D. All of the above D. Cannot be removed surgically
174. In superficial gastric cancer, which is a tu- 179. Of the wide variety of benign and malig-
mor without elevation or depression (flat nant tumors that can originate in the lung,
surface), it corresponds to the type: 90 to 95% of cases are:
A. Type 0-lla A. Carcinomas

1.6 Neoplasia 64
B. carcinoid tumors C. emphysema

C. mesenchymal neoplasms D. Atelectasis
D. NHL
185. malignant has the following characteris-
180. Which are the cells that are mainly in- tics
volved in chronic inflammation?
A. Local tissue growth
A. neutrophils and macrophages
B. Irregular cell multiplication
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. macrophages and lymphocytes
C. Slowly progressive tissue growth
C. neutrophils
D. No invasiveness to nearby tissue
D. none of above
181. Kidney Cancer has how many estimated 186. -Most tumors have mutations in TP53
deaths? A. Adenocarcinoma
A. 11, 997
B. small cell carcinoma
B. 12, 997
C. squamous cell carcinoma
C. 1, 197
D. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma
D. 1, 997
182. The is mainly associated with expo- 187. Evasion of apoptosis occurs by alteration
sure to cigarette smoke: of proteins
A. Carcinoma neuroendocrino A. BCL2

B. Adenocarcinoma B. Caspasas
C. squamous cell carcinoma C. Telomerase
D. lymphoma D. Ubiquininas
183. What is differentiation? E. Angiogeninas
A. primitive specialized cells mature into
specific cell types based on functions. 188. Benign tumor does not require any medi-
cal intervention.
B. primitive non-specialized cells do not
mature into specific cell types based on A. True
functions. B. False
C. primitive non-specialized cells mature C. None of the options
into specific cell types based on functions.
D. none of above
D. primitive non-specialized cells mature
into specific cell types based on form.
189. MALIGNANCY CRITERIA
184. Lung disorder expressed by an irre- A. makeover,
versible increase in the size of the
airspaces distal to the terminal bronchiole B. HYPERCHROMASIA
A. chronic bronchitis C. NUCLEOLI AND MITOSIS
B. asma D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

1.6 Neoplasia 65
190. Genetic abnormalities were found in 195. They are malignant tumors derived from
gastric cancer, which is the most fre- connective tissue.
quent finding in terms of amplifica-

A. Sarcomas
tion/overexpression.
A. COX-2 B. Carcinomas
B. HGF/SF C. Adenomas
C. VEGF D. None
D. C.with
E. Ras 196. The growth factor signaling pathway fol-
lows the following sequence:
191. What is the procedure that is not part
of the second phase of the metastatic cas- A. Receptor, growth factor, transient re-
cade? ceptor activation, signal transmission to
the nucleus, generation of transcription
A. MEC invasion factors, cell cycle entry, cell division, and
B. vascular spread growth.
C. Accommodation of tumor cells B. Growth factor, receptor, transient re-
D. Colonization ceptor activation, signal transmission to
E. Molecular Genetic the nucleus, generation of transcription
factors, cell cycle entry, cell division, and
192. The CD44 adhesion molecule is expressed growth.
on normal cells as:
C. Receptor, growth factor, transient re-
A. Linfocito B ceptor activation, generation of transcrip-
B. leukocytes tion factors, signal transmission to the nu-
C. Linfocito T cleus, cell cycle entry, cell division, and
growth.
D. platelets
E. Mother cells D. Growth factor, receptor, transient re-
ceptor activation, generation of transcrip-
193. A tumor is found to have massive inhibition factors, signal transmission to the nu-
tion of p16INK4. What would be the di- cleus, cell cycle entry, cell division, and
rect result of this? growth.
A. Increase in p53 activity
197. When a cancer cell “sheds” where does
B. Increase in Rb phosphorylation
it go?
C. Decreased release of E2F
A. circulate in the blood and lymphatic
D. Increased release of E2F
systems
194. Not a characteristic feature of cancer
B. circulate in the urine and lymphatic
A. self sufficiency systems
B. Angiogenia C. circulate in the salivary and lymphatic
C. metabolism disturbance systems
D. Invasion and metastasis D. circulate in the pancreatic and lym-
E. immune recognition phatic systems

1.6 Neoplasia 66
198. What would you expect to see in a cell A. Billroth I

that has low levels of CDK4/cyclinD?
B. Billroth II
A. Increased transcription
C. Roux-en-Y surgery
B. Rapid progression from G1 to S
D. All
C. chromatin compaction
D. none of above E. None
199. Down syndrome is an aneuploidy disor- 204. The tend to spread through the air,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
der. giving rise to satellite tumors; in this case,
A. True your chances of being cured by surgery are
lower. They can present as a solitary nod-
B. False ule or multiple nodules, or as tumor consol-
C. I don’t know idation of an entire lobe simulating lobar
D. none of above pneumonia.
200. Replacement of some cells by another, A. Adenocarcinomas in situ

is almost always associated with damage, B. Adenocarcinoma mucinous
repair, and tissue regeneration.
C. Adenocarcinomas
A. Metaplasia
D. Carcinomas
B. dysplasia
C. Replicas 205. It’s emphysema:
D. Neoplasia A. compression emphysema
201. LACK OF DIFFERENTIATION OR ANAPLA- B. absorption emphysema
SIA IS ASSOCIATED WITH OTHER MOR-
C. contraction emphysema
PHOLOGICAL ALTERATIONS.
A. Polymorphisms D. patchy emphysema
B. normal nuclear morphology 206. In the oral cavity, the most prevalent can-
C. Replicas cer is:
D. None A. Here. squamous cell
202. Woodworms metastasize by: B. Melanocarcinoma
A. Sangre C. Liposarcoma
B. Sap D. Fibrosarcoma
C. Nerves
D. beefy 207. IT IS A TUMOR OF EPITHELIAL ORIGIN
203. It is the side-to-side anastomosis of the A. Osteoma

stomach with the duodenum (gastroduo- B. fibroid
denostomy) or the jejunum (gastrojejunos-
C. Adenoma
tomy) after performing a partial gastrec-
tomy (including resection of the pylorus). D. None

1.7 Immunopathology 67
1.7 Immunopathology

1. What is the single most effective way to 7. Reasons that viruses are considered to be
break the chain of infection? nonliving is because
A. handwashing A. They are not cellular
B. sterilization B. They cannot reproduce on their own
C. cleaning surfaces C. They cannot make proteins
D. nutrition D. all of the above
2. Which disease is not caused by bacteria? 8. What is a pathogen?
A. Strep throat A. Bacteria
B. Pneumonia B. Virus
C. Food poisoning C. Type of disease infection
D. Influenza (the Flu) D. Protist
3. How does a virus cause a person to de- 9. Bacteria reproduce asexually by
velop the common cold?
A. spores
A. invades the host cell to reproduce
B. conjugation
B. removes energy from the host cell
C. fixation
C. produces toxins in the host cell
D. binary fission
D. protects the host cell from bacteria
10. He developed the first vaccine using cow
4. What do viruses need to reproduce?
pox to inoculate against small pox-1790s
A. They need genetic material
A. John Gaunt
B. They need a host cell
B. Robert Koch
C. They need a moderate temperature
C. Louis Pasteur
D. They need ATP
D. Edward Jenner
5. Louis Pasteur also showed that micro-
organisms (’germs’) did not generate. 11. Which of these is an animal virus?
A. swimmingly A. Tobacco mosaic virus
B. sadly B. bacteriophage
C. spontaneously C. influenza
D. specifically D. none of above
6. Which disease is caused by a virus and 12. What is the cause of an infectious dis-
causes muscle aches and a high fever? ease?
A. Influenza A. inherited
B. Cold B. environmental factors
C. Strep Throat C. pathogens
D. Athletes foot D. none of above

1.7 Immunopathology 68
13. What does a vaccine do? B. vaccines

A. Gives you immunity C. antibiotics
B. Gets you sick D. pills
C. Cures you
19. Viruses are
D. Kills you
A. producers
14. Infectious disease spread in a small region
B. consumers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is called a
C. parasites
A. Infectious disease
B. Mutation D. decomposers
C. Epidemic 20. The region inside the cell membrane of a

D. Pandemic bacterium
A. bacteria
15. What provides direct energy for the
virus? B. endospore
A. food C. cytoplasm
B. its host D. decomposers
C. the sun
21. What are the two parts of a virus?
D. a parasite
A. DNA and a protein coat (capsid)
16. Bacteria are prokaryotes which means
B. Nucleic Acid and a Nucleus
they
C. Cell membrane and mitochondria
A. have a nucleus in their capsule
B. do not contain a nucleus D. Chloroplast and a cell wall
C. can live in environments with and with- 22. A syndrome caused by HIV. It is when a
out oxygen person’s immune system is too weak to
D. none of above fight off many infections
A. AIDS
17. How do viruses reproduce?
A. They copy their own genetic material B. SARS
inside a protein coat. C. Ebola
B. They kill a cell and reproduce inside it D. Zika
C. They invade a living cell and use the
cell’s functions to replicate their genetic 23. Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic
material material to lay dormant while the host cell
reproduces?
D. They do not reproduce because they
are not technically living things A. lytic
B. mitosis
18. A type of medicine used to treat (cure) bac-
terial infections. C. lysogenic
A. ibuprofen D. S phase

1.8 Infectious Diseases 69
24. Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by 27. Which sentence best summarizes the au-
lysing? thor’s point of view about doctors and sci-
entists in the mid-1800s?

A. lytic
B. mitosis A. They were very similar to modern doc-
tors and scientists.
C. lysogenic
B. They introduced many exciting and
D. S phase new ideas.
25. What part of a virus is the protein cap- C. They could not help their patients
sule that houses the genetic material D. They knew very little about bacteria.
(DNA/RNA)?
A. tail 28. An outbreak of a disease that can go
worldwide.
B. nucleus
A. Pandemic
C. capsid
B. Epidemic
D. glycoprotein
C. Pathogen
26. If a disease is caused by a bacteria then D. Virus
A. the disease cannot be treated 29. What pathogen causes West Nile, In-
fluenza, and the common cold?
B. the person will always die
A. bacteria
C. the disease can be treated with vita-
mins B. fungi
D. the disease can be treated with antibi- C. viruses

otics D. prions
1.8 Infectious Diseases

1. Two common pathogens are bacteria and 3. Pathogens that are spread via animals and
viruses. All of the below are pathogens insects. The animal or insect passes the
EXCEPT- pathogen to people.
A. Parasite A. Direct Contact
B. Vector B. Indirect Contact
C. Protist C. Airborne Transmission
D. Fungi D. Foodborne Tranmission
E. Vector-Borne Transmission
2. (MIM) Brid’s rash on her inner thigh was
actually a sign of 4. What does the first koch postulates
states?
A. trichinosis
A. “The organism must be present in half
B. strongyloidiasis
cases of the disease”
C. paragonimus westermani B. “The organism must be absent in every
D. schistosomiasis case of the disease”

C. “The organism must be present in B. nuts, beans, berries

most cases of the disease” C. carrots, celery, tomatoes
D. “The organism must be present in ev- D. poultry, eggs, meat
ery case of the disease”
10. When a pathogen is moved from person
5. Antibiotics affect to person through physical touch (kiss-
A. Viruses ing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking
B. Bacteria hands).
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Bacteria and Viruses A. Transmission
D. Bacteria, Viruses, and Fungi B. Translation

C. Emission
6. Which of the following is an effec-
tive method of preventing infection by D. Direct Contact
Malaria? E. Indirect Contact
A. Use pesticides to kill the mosquito 11. Which of the following is a noninfectious
(vector) disease that affects the respiratory sys-
B. Quarantine the mosquitos that carry tem?
the parasite A. Influenza
C. Provide condoms to prevent transmis- B. Parkinson’s disease
sion of parasite during sex
C. Cold
D. Drink plenty of water
D. Asthma
7. What percentage of infected people would
die after smallpox virus infection? 12. Ringworm is caused by
A. 13% A. Virus
B. 30% B. Fungi
C. 33% C. protozoa
D. 3% D. helminth
8. which of the following increases the risk 13. The immune system fights disease by
of contracting cholera? 1. drinking un- A. Attacking each pathogen it encounters
pasteurised milk2. eating shellfish which in the same manner
have fed on raw sewage3. living in over- B. acting as a physical barrier that pre-
crowded conditions vents pathogens from entering the body
A. 2 only C. causing blood vessels to shrink which
B. 1 & 2 forces pathogens out of the body
C. 1 & 3 D. producing a separate set of weapons
D. 2 & for each kind of pathogen it encounters
9. The main foods in which the salmonella 14. How is cholera transmited?
bacteria live in are A. food borne, water borne
A. bread, pasta, cereal B. exchange of f;uids

C. insect vecor C. diabetes.

D. airborne droplets D. tuberculosis.

15. What is the immune system’s main pur- 20. An infectious disease is a disease that is
pose? caused when a pathogen is passed from
A. Let’s germs into the body. one organism to another. The single-celled
eukaryotes pathogen is the
B. Helps your body fight off illness and
disease. A. Bacteria
C. The immune system produces illness B. Protozoa
and bacteria. C. Virus
D. The immune system trap germs in an D. none of above
organ so they do not spread.
21. Which famous billionaire said we are not
16. A disease that is widespread throughout ready for the next pandemic?
the globe (world)
A. Jeff Bezos
A. pandemic
B. Bill Gates
B. epidemic
C. Elon Musk
C. endemic
D. Oprah Winfrey
D. outbreak
22. The bacteria that causes bubonic plague is
17. Which has made the most significant dif- transmitted to humans by fleas. Which
ference to reduce the spread of epidemics term best describes the role of the fleas
and pandemics worldwide? in transmitting bubonic plague?
A. water treatment A. decomposer
B. decreased pollution B. parasite
C. increased medical aid C. pathogen
D. none of above D. vector
18. Which of the following is a substance 23. Viruses are difficult to eliminate because
usually prepared from killed or weaken they can
pathogens?
A. kill fast
A. White blood Cells
B. scare people
B. Antibodies
C. mutate
C. Lymph
D. hide
D. Vaccines
24. Which of these diseases is called by bacte-
19. Twentieth-century research by such scien- ria?
tists as Jonas Salk on the use of vaccines
has reduced the number of people who are A. strep throat
infected with B. chicken pox
A. polio. C. flu
B. stroke. D. none of above

25. the body’s response to an infection by 31. The body’s resistance to a disease through
showing redness, swelling, & pain the presence of anitbodies is known as
A. immunization A. Virus
B. mobilization (stage of infection) B. Antibody
C. inflammation C. Vaccine
D. none of above D. Immunity
32. Immunity that occurs when a person’s own
NARAYAN CHANGDER
26. How can disease spread
immune system produces antibodies in re-
A. air sponse to the presence of a pathogen
B. washing hands when a person gets sick
C. isolation A. Natural Passive Immunity
D. none of above B. Natural Active Immunity
C. Artificial Active Immunity
27. How do you prevent the spread
D. Artificial Passive Immunity
A. not cooking food
B. touching people 33. Bacteria have small tails that allow them
to move that are known as
C. good hygiene
A. Cocci
D. none of above
B. Flagellum
28. What action (or behavior) is the best way C. Tails
to prevent infectious disease?
D. Fungi
A. don’t leave the house
34. The body’s system that fights pathogens.
B. always wear gloves
A. Cardiovascular system
C. wash your hands
B. Immune system
D. cover your cough
C. Digestive system
29. Which of the following is NOT responsible D. Neurological system
for causing infectious diseases?
A. Rickets 35. A disease that has a large outbreak in an
area and affects many people
B. Bacteria
A. pandemic
C. Fungi
B. endemic
D. Viruses
C. epidemic
30. Tannins are an example of what type of D. outbreak
defence?
36. What is the name of the United Nations or-
A. Physical
ganization created to help people around
B. Passive Chemical the world stay healthy?
C. Active Chemical A. FDA
D. none of above B. CDC

C. WHO 41. What is it called when virus spreads across

a nation or around the world?
D. UNESCO
A. Epidemic

37. Which statement explains why people suf- B. Pandemic
fering from malaria and people suffering
C. Epidermis
from tuberculosis can both live in noth-
ern Europe, but only tuberculosis can be D. Infrastructure
passed onto the other people there 42. What is the function of a physical de-
A. anopheles mosquitoes only breed in fence?
tropical and sub-tropical areas A. Prevent entry and spread of a
B. antibiotics can be used to cure people pathogen
with tuberculosis B. Kill a pathogen
C. migrant workers can carry the disease C. Deter a pathogen
with them D. none of above
D. tuberculosis bacteria cannot survive in 43. A microorganism that causes disease is
sub-tropical and tropical areas called a:
38. Which helminth can you get from eating A. White blood cell
raw crab or crustaceans? B. Pathogen
A. Lung Fluke C. A spore
B. Schistomiasis D. none of above
C. Hookworm 44. In which phase does the cell spend most of

it’s life?
D. Elephantiasis
A. Interphase
39. Which pathogen is non-living? B. Nuclear Division
A. Virus C. Telophase
B. Bacteria D. Mitosis
C. Fungi 45. The body’s system that fights pathogens

is the
D. Parasite/Protist
A. Cardiovascular system
E. They are all alive
B. Immune system
40. Liz notices that shortly after cutting her C. Digestive system
arm accidentally the area around the cut is D. Neurological system
turning red and feeling hot. Which immune
system defense is Liz experiencing? 46. A fomite is a/an
A. type of worm
A. inflammation
B. type of parasite
B. white blood cell clotting
C. inanimate object that harbors a
C. skin pathogen
D. fever D. disease

47. Which of the 3 microbes is the largest 51. What does a virus need to survive?
A. Virus A. Destroy the host cell
B. Bacteria B. Host cell for reproduction
C. Protist C. Steal nutrients from the host
D. none of above D. Host cell for warmth
48. Weslie knows what multicellular means 52. An example of indirect transfer of an infec-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
but she is struggling to come up with an tious disease would be
example for her science vocabulary home- A. an animal bites a person
work. “I know multicellular means a life
form containing more than one cell to per- B. a mosquito bites a person
form life processes like the back of my C. shaking hands with a person
hand! But it is difficult to find an exam-
D. grabbing a dirty door handle
ple. Could you help me? ”Brainstorm for
Weslie 53. Influenza is caused by:
A. humans, chimpanzees, seahorses, A. virus
rhinoceroses, leopards, mole rats, sala-
manders, Venus flytrap, tulips, cacao B. bacteria
trees C. parasite
B. Escherichia coli, Diatoms, Protozoa, D. fungi
Protista, Streptococcus, Pneumococci, Di-
noflagellates 54. a substance introduced into the body to
stimulate the production of chemicals that
C. DJ on Fuller House
destroy specific disease-causing viruses
D. none of above and organisms is called
49. The chemical which increases blood flow A. a vaccine

to area during inflammatory response is B. an injection
called;
C. a booster
A. Epiphelium
D. insulun
B. Eosinophil
55. Which would most likely prevent a cold
C. Lysosome virus from spreading through a class-
D. Histamine room?
A. Have a large supply of tissues on the
50. Which of the following can lead to antibi-
teacher’s desk.
otic resistance?
B. Have all students wash their hands
A. Taking antibiotics for viruses
regularly with soap.
B. Not taking all you prescribed antibi-
C. Have all students shake hands regu-
otics
larly with all students.
C. Bacterial mutations
D. Have all students wipe desk with dry
D. All of these paper towel at end of class.

56. What is the scientific name of Lung Fluke? 61. Examples of infectious disease
A. taenia saginata A. Tuberculosis

B. necator americanus B. Cancer
C. wuchereria bancrofti C. Tinea
D. paragonimus westermani D. leptospirosis
57. A cholera outbreak in the 1800s was 62. Organisms that transmit pathogens are
spread by polluted drinking water. Which known as
best describes the cause?
A. parasite
A. industrial waste
B. antigen
B. pesticides
C. virus
C. sewage
D. vector
D. raw meat
63. Malaria is caused by:
58. Athlete’s Foot is caused by:
A. parasite
A. fungus
B. fungi
B. bacteria
C. virus
C. parasite
D. bacteria
D. virus
64. Why do antibiotics have little or no effect
59. What does the 2nd koch postulate
on human cells, yet they can cause the
states?
death of bacteria?
A. “The organism must be isolated from a
A. Antibiotics block prokaryote cell pro-
host with the corresponding disease and
cesses, but not the processes in eukary-
grown in pure culture”
ote cells.
B. “The organism must be isolated from
B. Antibiotics can only affect cells below
a host with a different disease and grown
a certain size.
in pure culture”
C. Human cells have a protective plasma
C. “The organism must be isolated from a
membrane which prokaryote cells don’t
host with the corresponding disease and
have.
grown in a culture with other bacteria”
D. Antibiotics are made of proteins which
D. “The organism must be isolated from
cannot pass through the plasma mem-
a host with a different disease and grown
brane.
in bacteria culture”
65. why is it necessary for a person with a
60. Injecting a small amount of inert (’dead’)
bacterial infection to be told to take an-
viruses or bacteria to help your white
tibiotics at evenly spaced time intervals?
blood cells recognize them is
A. Antibiotics A. to increase the concentration of antibi-
otic slowly to a level which is lethal to the
B. Lymphocytosis bacteria
C. Endocytosis B. to maintain concentration of antibiotic
D. Immunization in the body which is lethal to the bacteria.

C. to prevent the development of resis- C. a fungus

tant strains of bacteria
D. a parasite
D. to select and kill the resistant strains
of bacteria 70. How are quarantines used to slow the
spread of an epidemic?
66. What does the third koch postulate
states? A. Quarantines prevent individuals from
eating food that is potentially contami-
A. “Samples of the organism removed nated.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
from the pure culture must cause the cor-
responding disease when inoculated into B. Quarantines allow enough time for an-
a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal” tibiotics to take effect in infected individu-
als.
B. “Samples of the organism removed
from the pure culture must cause the cor- C. Quarantines keep infected individuals
responding disease when inoculated into separate so they cannot pass the disease
a sick, susceptible laboratory animal” to others.
C. “Samples of the organism removed D. Quarantines keep people inside their
from the bacteria culture must cause the homes so that family members can pro-
corresponding disease when inoculated vide care for each other.
into a healthy, susceptible laboratory an-
imal” 71. There are many different types of
pathogens. Select all of the choices which
D. “Samples of the organism removed
may be a pathogen.
from the pure culture must cause the cor-
responding disease when inoculated into A. Bacteria
a sick, nonsusceptible laboratory animal” B. Virus
67. What parasite is most often responsible C. Dust
for the spread of Lyme disease?
D. Fungi
A. amoeba
B. crane fly 72. What age group is more likely to come in-
fected with the virus?
C. dear tick
A. Children
D. mosquito
B. Teens
68. The #1 YouTuber with more than 59 million
subscribers. C. Adults
A. PewDiePie D. All of the above
B. DanTDM 73. It is okay to eat meat that is still red and
C. Markiplier juicy inside only if
D. JennaMarbles A. it is a cut of meat you like
69. Malaria is a common disease in many coun- B. the core of the meat has been elevated
tries. What is the cause of this disease? to the proper temperature while cooking
A. a virus C. it has been seasoned properly
B. a bacterium D. only if it has been baked in an oven

74. Non-infectious diseases can be caused by 80. are one-celled organisms that can
A. Pathogens cause diseases, such as malaria.

B. Animal bites A. fungi
C. Lifestyle choices B. protists
D. Contaminated water C. viruses
75. Which of the following is a chemical plant D. bacteria
defence?
A. Producing antibacterial substances 81. Which antibiotic was developed from a
B. Thorns and spikes fungus and has been used to cure many ill-
nesses that could have led to epidemics?
C. Layers of dead cells
D. Mimicry A. aspirin
76. When you are sick, which of these should B. ethanol

you do? C. penicillin
A. drink fluids and rest
D. acetaminophen
B. go to school
C. push yourself to feel better 82. body lice
D. stop taking medicine as soon as you A. virus
start to feel a little better
B. protozoa
77. Select the non-infectious disease.
C. fungus
A. Tinea
D. bacteria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Dengue fever E. parasite
D. Cancer
83. Which plants are vunerable to black siga-
78. An antibody is toka?
A. a blood protein produced in response A. Potato
to an antigen
B. Banana
B. not a body
C. an immune defense to viruses only C. Tomato
D. the cells responsible for attacking and D. Papaya
defeating healthy tissue.
84. Which of the following diseases can be
79. How are pathogens spread? spread by mosquitoes?
A. Infected People
A. the common cold
B. Infected Animals
B. dengue
C. Contaminated Objects
D. Contaminated Food, Soil, or Water C. influenza
E. All of the Above D. chicken pox

85. What is one of the ways that antibiotics 90. Vaccines are used to prevent diseases by
work? which type of pathogen?
A. They can stop bacteria from reproduc- A. virus
ing B. bacteria
B. They can stop viruses from reproduc- C. parasite
ing
D. fungi
C. They stop toxins from poisoning the tis-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sues of hosts 91. White blood cells are also called:
D. They engulf the pathogens A. Pathogens
B. Erythrocytes
86. Which is not an example of how infectious
diseases can spread? C. Lymphocytes
A. Sharing a book with a friend. D. Disease-fighting cells
B. Eating food that has expired. 92. Which of the following can be pathogens?
C. Drinking dirty water. A. Bacteria only
D. Being bitten by a mosquito. B. Viruses only
87. Black sigatoka is an example of a C. Bacteria and viruses

D. Neither bacteria or viruses
A. Virus
B. Protist 93. Some human white blood cells help destroy
pathogenic bacteria by
C. Bacteria
A. causing mutations in the bacteria
D. Fungus
B. engulfing and digesting the bacteria
88. Contagious, disfiguring and often deadly C. producing toxins that compete with
disease that has affected humans for thou- bacterial toxins
sands of years. Eradicated worldwide by
1980. D. inserting part of their DNA into the bac-
terial cells
A. Smallpox
B. Anthrax 94. What are the Non-infectious diseases?
A. Allergy
C. Plague
B. Asthma
D. Ricin
C. All of the above
89. he French scientist Louis Pasteur concluded
D. Alzheimer’s disease
that were the cause of most infectious
diseases. 95. A virus infects a host in order to:
A. microorganisms A. Take in nutrients.
B. flies B. Make the host sick.
C. cells C. Make copies of itself.
D. none of above D. Destroy the host’s cell.

96. Which of these diseases is caused by a fun- 102. Immunizations cause your body to
gus? A. create antibodies

A. athlete’s foot B. shut down
B. pinworms C. get sick
C. mononucleosis
D. increase your chances of contracting a
D. common cold disease
97. Select all the organisims that CAUSE Infec- 103. The four major types of human pathogens
tious Diseases are bacteria, fungi, protists, and
A. Viruses A. viruses
B. parasites B. pathogens
C. vectors C. microbes
D. bacteria D. none of above
98. Antibodies help our body to fight off 104. Athlete’s foot and ringworm are two dis-
A. yellow snow eases caused by pathogens that are:
B. antigens A. Viruses
C. t cells B. Fungi
D. immune systems C. Protists
99. a living thing that provides a virus with a D. Bacteria
source of energy is called
105. In what ways can you contract a disease
A. a parasite from an infected person?
B. a cell A. Shaking hands
C. a host B. Coughing
D. a bacteriophage C. Kissing
100. Tooth decay is an infection that causes D. All of the above
deterioration of the protective enamel on
teeth, resulting in damage. Tooth decay is 106. How do T cells differ from B cells?
MOST likely caused by A. T cells fight pathogens by killing
A. bacteria. pathogens directly, while B cells fight
pathogens by making antibodies.
B. acidic food.
B. T cells only make memory cells, and B
C. allergies.
cells only make antigens
D. genetic defects.
C. T cells fight pathogens by making an-
101. Athlete’s foot is which type? tibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by
A. Virus killing pathogens directly.
B. Bacteria D. T cells can only fight off pathogens the

body has encountered once, and B cells
C. Fungi can fight off any pathogen the body comes
D. Protist across.

107. An individual receive an injection of anti- 112. An infectious disease is a disease that is
bodies is an example of caused when a pathogen is passed from
one organism to another. A pathogen can
A. Natural Active Immunity
be
B. Artificial Active Immunity
A. Bacteria
C. Natural Passive Immunity B. Virus
D. Artificial Passive Immunity C. Parasites
NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. types of immunity the body has are: D. All the above
A. T cells and B cells 113. Bacteria can come in a variety of shapes.
B. Antigens and Antibodies Which of the following is NOT a shape of
bacteria?
C. Specific and Non Specific
A. Cocci
D. Good and Bad
B. Fusilli
109. One way to prevent the spreading of dis- C. Spirilla
ease is: D. Bacillus
A. to cough without covering your mouth.
114. Robert koch used several steps to iso-
B. to wash your hands often. lated bacteria from sick people and to
C. to rub your eyes and nose when sick. prove this bacteria was the agent caus-
ing the disease, these steps were later be
D. none of above called
110. define fungi A. Pasteurization
A. Zayn from One Direction B. Koch Law’s
B. “Kingdom composed of heterotrophs; C. Fermentation Law’s

many obtain energy and nutrients from D. Koch Postulates
dead organic matter”
115. A disease that can be spread from person-
C. “any of a group of spore-producing or- to-person, animal or objects
ganisms feeding on organic matter, in-
cluding molds, yeast, mushrooms, and A. A disease
toadstools” B. Infectious
D. a process that occurs after food ex- C. Communicable
pires
D. Noncommunicable
111. What sort of pathogen causes influenza 116. helps to wash out any bacteria or
(flu)? viruses that you breath in.
A. A bacterium A. muscus
B. A virus B. cilia
C. A fungus C. salivia
D. A protist D. snot

117. Before a cell can divide, what must hap- from getting this disease from unclean
pen? drinking water.

A. Nothing, it is always ready to divide A. Cholera
B. The number of chromosomes must be B. The Plague
cut in half C. Ebola
C. The number of chromosomes must D. Zika
double
122. What is the most common helminth in the
D. The number of chromosomes must
world?
triple.
A. Pinworm
118. Animal, fungi, plant, and protista cells
B. Tapeworm
are all examples of which type of cell?
C. Ascariasis
A. Eukaryotic
D. Lung fluke
B. Prokaryotic
C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic 123. A pathogen is any organism that causes
a disease. Which of the following is an ex-
D. none of above ample of a pathogen that infects humans?
119. Our white blood cells can fight invaders A. parasite
by (choose three) B. plasmid
A. producing antibodies C. plant cell
B. trapping them in one place D. plasma membrane
C. consuming them
124. In parts of london, there was an increase
D. producing anti-toxins in the number of cases of tuberculoisis (TB)
E. physically removing them from the in the 1980sWhich factor is most likely to
body have contributed to this?
A. Increased Air Pollution.
120. a disease is a
B. Increased drug abuse.
A. an abnormal state in which the body is
not functioning normally C. Increased pathogen mutation rate.
B. a disorder of structure or function in D. Overcrowded accommodation.
an organism
125. Which are examples of non-infectious dis-
C. I got beans, greens, potatoes, toma- eases?
toes, lambs, rams, hogs, dogs you
A. malaria & influenza
name it!
B. asthma & strep throat
D. the process of infecting or the state of
being infected C. common cold & measles
E. the action or state of making or being D. hemophilia & cancer
made impure by polluting or poisoning 126. The example of diseases that spread
121. Which disease broke out in Haiti follow- through the air is ..
ing the earthquake? Most people died A. Tuberculosis

B. chickenpox C. fungi
C. skin disease D. protist
D. diarrhea 133. What is the main symptom of cholera?
127. What is a noninfectious disease? A. Muscle ache
A. A disease that can spread B. Diarrhea
B. A pathogen C. Fever
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A disease that can’t spread D. Appetite loss
D. Rabies 134. The best way to treat the common cold is
to
128. treatment for disease
A. drink plenty of soda and eat junk food
A. vaccines
B. drink plenty of water and get plenty of
B. hang out with friends
rest
C. animal bites
C. take over the counter medications that
D. none of above only treat the symptoms
129. How long does an infected person with D. take opioids to ease the discomfort
TB, need to take there medications for?
135. A disease is
A. 7-14 Days
A. an illness that cause by toxic chemical
B. 6-9 Months expose by our body.
C. 3-4 Months B. an abnormal condition on body and
D. 20-30 Days mind that cause discomfort.
C. a normal condition by body react to
130. The best environment for fungi is
certain foreign substance
A. Cool and damp
D. none of above
B. Warm and dry
136. Pathogens like to “attack” humans be-
C. Cool and dry
cause they seek which of the following:
D. Warm and moist
A. shelter
131. Which is NOT a good way to help some- B. food source
one who is sick? C. place to multiply
A. Make them chicken noodle soup D. all of the above
B. Tell them to drink lots of water
137. Our contains mucus and ciliated cells
C. Take them to a waterpark to trap and remove invaders, as a passive
D. Spend time with them defense.
132. Pathogens known as must get inside A. Digestive System

cells to reproduce. B. Respiratory Tract
A. viruses C. Reproductive Tract
B. bacteria D. Eyes

138. Quinn notices a rash on his elbow a few C. T Cell

days after going to his neighborhood’s par- D. Fungi
ticularly dirty lake. What word would de-

scribe his condition 144. Which tool is MOST responsible for pre-
A. infection venting future pandemics of smallpox?
B. contamination A. worldwide vaccination for smallpox
C. poison B. global education about smallpox
D. pollution C. better worldwide urban sanitation
D. improved global quarantine facilities
139. A pathogen is
A. A protein on the surface of bacteria 145. What are noninfectious diseases?
B. A drug taken to cure an illness A. Diseases that are not caused by
pathogens
C. A protein produced by the body to stop
infection B. The ability to destroy pathogens be-
fore they cause you to be sick
D. Any micro-organism that causes infec-
tious disease C. Diseases that are caused by
pathogens
140. Which pathogen needs a host cell to re-
D. Diseases that can be transfered from
produce?
one person to another
A. virus
146. Which is a distinction between an epi-
B. bacteria
demic and a pandemic?
C. fungus
A. the symptoms of the disease
D. parasite/protist
B. the geographical area affected
141. Chicken pox, the flu, and COVID-19 are C. the species of organisms infected
diseases caused by
D. the season in which the disease
A. Bacteria spreads
B. Fungi
147. A virus that attacks bacteria cells are
C. Protists known as:
D. Viruses A. Antibiotics
142. How does Ebola spread? B. Antivirals
A. Through blood C. Bacteriophages
B. Through fecal matter D. Plant Cells
C. Sharing drinks 148. Which of the following is a characteristic
D. All listed above are true of both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells?
143. Which of the following is NOT a A. ribosomes

pathogen? B. nucleus
A. Virus C. membrane bound organelles
B. Bacteria D. simple

149. Stomatal closure is an example of what 154. What do antibiotics cure?

type of defence? A. bacteria
A. Physical B. virus
B. Passive Chemical C. parasite
C. Active Chemical D. fungus
D. none of above
155. Anitigens on pathogens which have got
into the human body can lead to the de-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
150. Bacteria are used to create foods such as
velopment of specific immunity. That is an
immunity which responds only to this anti-
A. Spaghetti gen.Which of the following cells causes the
B. Pizza specific immunity?
C. Hamburgers A. Erythrocytes
D. Yogurt B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
151. Do Allergies spread?
D. Phagocytes
A. I don’t know
B. True 156. Some health care professionals recom-
mend that children use insect repellent be-
C. False fore going outside. Using insect repellent
D. Maybe is a good way to keep the insects from
A. reproducing.
152. Which of the following lists methods of
transmission of HIV? B. laying eggs.
A. Sex without a condom, from breast C. spreading disease.
milk, contaminated blood transfusions. D. dying.
B. From saliva, sharing food and 157. There are limits to the effectiveness of
mosquito bites. antibiotics. Why is this?
C. From bodily fluids such as sweat, se- A. Viruses are not affected because they
men and saliva. have no metabolism, and some bacteria
D. Sex without a condom, mosquito bites have evolved resistance.
and contaminated blood transfusions. B. Bacteria are not affected by antibi-
otics, only viruses.
153. What is the function of innate immune re-
sponse? C. Only one species of bacteria is af-
fected by a single antibiotic.
A. Act very rapid as a first line of defense
to eliminate the infection D. Only some types of virus and bacteria
are affected by antibiotics, because of the
B. Trap microbes so they cannot spread
evolution of resistance.
in our body freely
C. Coordinate and support adaptive im- 158. Viruses
munity A. use a host to reproduce
D. All of the above B. breath oxygen

C. grow 161. Airborne disease can be prevented by

D. eat food practising the following, except

A. cover nose and mouth when sneezing
159. Norman believes that infants are
or cough.
prokaryotes because they seem too in-
competent to contain a nucleus. According B. wash your hand with water only
to him, “Babies have smaller brains so it C. avoid being in crowded places
only makes sense that they don’t have
enclosed nuclei. They become eukaryotes D. avoid handshake
once they reach 14 months. Who is the
genius now!!” 162. The common cold is what type of
pathogen?
A. You’re wrong Norman! That’s why you
shouldn’t have skipped biology in third pe- A. virus
riod! You’ll be working at a gas station B. protozoa
with that idiocy, that’s all I know!
C. fungus
B. 1 + 1 = 11
D. bacteria
C. Norman is incorrect because brain de-
velopment does not impact an organism’s E. parasite
cellular composition. Prokaryotes are or-
ganisms whose cells do not have an en- 163. An infectious disease is a disease that is
closed nucleus. Bacteria is an example of caused when a pathogen is passed from
this. Babies are not. one organism to another. The prokaryotic
pathogen is the
D. Norman’s belief is correct because
brain development does impact an organ- A. Bacteria
ism’s cellular composition. Because in- B. Virus
fant brains are still heavily developing,
their brain tissue contains free floating ge- C. Protozoa
netic material. When they reach fourteen D. none of above
months of age, their brains (although not
fully formed as that occurs in a person’s 164. What is the plural for fungus?
20s) will have formed a nucleus to encase
A. funguses
that material.
E. Norman is incorrect because a cell B. fun guys
is characterized by the presence of a C. fangs
nucleus and other membrane-bound or-
D. fungi
ganelles.
160. What organism causes Ring rot in 165. A disease that develop itself when your
plants? own immune system attack your own cells
is called an disease.
A. Bacteria
B. Virus A. autoimmune
C. Fungus B. cancerous
D. Protoctistan C. allergy
E. Parasite D. degenerative

166. Painkillers C. Hospitals had accidental outbreaks af-

A. Kill bacteria ter being heavily damaged by the earth-
quake
B. Kill viruses
D. It is endemic in Haiti and has always
C. Reduce symptoms been present in consistent numbers
D. Prevent reinfection 172. What is an infectious disease?
167. Strep throat and Lyme disease are caused A. A disease that cannot be spread to oth-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
by pathogens that are: ers.
A. Bacteria B. A disease that can be spread to others.
B. Viruses C. A disease that can only be spread by
mosquitoes.
C. Fungi
D. A disease that can be caused by disin-
D. Protists fectants.
168. Different groups of agents that caused 173. Which of these is not a physical barrier
diseases are of your body to disease?
A. bacteria A. skin
B. viruses B. mucous membranes
C. protozoans C. chemicals
D. all of these D. hair
174. The proteins in your immune system that
169. Which of the following causes diseases?
fight disease are called
A. Pathogens
A. lymph cells.
B. Poor Environment B. white blood cells.
C. Genetics C. amino acids.
D. All of the above D. antibodies.
170. All of the following are pathogens EX- 175. out of the following what are some ex-
CEPT: amples of infectious diseases
A. Rickettsia A. malaria
B. Virus B. flu
C. Malaria C. asthma
D. Protozoa D. cataracts
176. How can infectious diseases be spread
171. How did cholera arrive in Haiti?
from one person to another?
A. Peacekeepers brought it from Nepal
A. trough the air
when their feces contaminated a river
B. by physical contact
B. The earthquake displaced people and
animals which led to the spread of the dis- C. by animals
ease D. through food and water

177. An individual who has had chicken pox 182. which disease is not likely to be passed
rarely gets this disease again. This situ- directly from parents to child
ation is an example of

A. cholera
A. biological control B. malaria
B. negative feedback C. sickle cell anaemia
C. active immunity D. tuberculosis
D. passive immunity 183. Examples of pathogens
178. In the Lysogenic Cycle, which is true? A. Virus
A. The virus immediately starts making B. bacteria

copies of itself. C. protozoa
B. The virus lyses or breaks the cell apart D. fungi
right away.
184. The first step in the Lytic Cycle is:
C. The virus goes into the cell, but does
A. The viruses lyse the cell and break out
not make any new copies right away.
of it.
D. none of above B. the virus finds a host cell and attaches
to it.
179. What pathogen do antibiotics attack?
C. the virus enters the cell and puts its
A. Virus genes into the cell.
B. Bacteria D. takes over the host cell and turns it
C. Fungi into a virus factory.
D. Protista 185. What organism causes tuberculosis?

A. Bacteria
180. What is the job of the immune system?
B. Virus
A. To protect your body from drugs and
medicine C. Fungus
B. To protect your body from air and wa- D. Protoctistan

ter E. Parasite
C. To protect your body from pathogens 186. Which is of these is NOT a way in which
D. To protect your body from itself pathogens can be spread.
A. mutated genes
181. Tetanus
B. food and water
A. virus
C. infected animals
B. protozoa D. contaminated objects
C. fungus
187. What is the most common way conta-
D. bacteria gious infections are spread?
E. parasite A. through the air

B. through food B. One muscle breaks down

C. touching C. Two muscles break down
D. through water D. Your tendons get destroyed
188. Bacteria are tiny life forms that are made
up of only cell. 194. Joseph Lister’s methods dramatically re-
duced the percentage of patients who died
A. One from infection after
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Two
A. sickness
C. Three
B. birth
D. Four
C. surgery
189. Pathoges are
D. none of above
A. disease causing microorganisms
B. agents that caused diseases 195. a tiny, non-living particle that invades
and then multiplies inside a living cell is
C. causes of illness
called
D. all of these
A. bacteria
190. Which of the following is found inside a
B. a virus
prokaryote?
A. cytoplasm C. a fungi
B. DNA D. ha protist
C. ribosomes
196. A protein made by white blood cells to
D. all of these fight a specific pathogen.
191. Even more ways to prevent spread A. Antibody
A. good hygiene B. Antivirus
B. washing hands C. Allegra
C. all of the above D. Allotment
D. none of above
197. Which is an example of passive immu-
192. Which of the following two diseases are nity?
caused by virused?
A. people being vaccinated against dis-
A. HIV/AIDS & cholera
ease
B. malaria & cholera
B. people taking vitamins to boost their
C. measles & smallpox immune response
D. TB & HIV
C. people receiving antibodies from their
193. What is Muscular dystrophy? mothers before birth
A. a group of muscle diseases that re- D. people producing antibodies against
sults in increasing weakening and break- organisms that cause diseases they have
down of skeletal muscles had previosuly

198. An organism that lives on or in a host and B. The shape of the antibody is comple-
causes it harm is called mentary to the shape of the antigen on the
pathogen

A. a host
B. a parasite C. Antibodies cause a primary immune re-
sponse
C. a cell
D. Antibodies cause a secondary immune
D. a virus response
199. Infectious diseases are caused by 204. What is the best way of preventing dis-
A. cilia eases?
B. pathogens A. cleaning
C. antibiotics B. touching your face
D. immunizations C. washing your hands

D. licking your fingers
200. What is Cancer?
205. The whiplike tail on some bacteria that
A. An uncontrolled growth of abnormal
help them move
cells in the body
A. Nucleoid
B. When your cells die
B. Pili
C. Lack of red blood cells
C. Flagella
D. All of the above
D. Cilia
201. If a human system fails to function prop-
206. Which of the following best describes the
erly, what is the most likely result?
effect of HIV on the immune system.
A. a stable rate of metabolism
A. HIV infection causes a reduction in the
B. a disturbance in homeostasis number of active blood cells resulting in a
C. a change in the method of cellular res- high fever.
piration B. HIV reduces the number of active lym-
D. a change in the function of DNA phocytes limiting the body’s ability to pro-
duce antibodies.
202. Transmission of disease may occur C. HIV reduces the number of active ery-
through throcytes limiting the production of anti-
A. Physical contact with infected individu- bodies.
als D. HIV reduces the number of phagocytes
B. Body fluid which in turn limits the production of anti-
C. Contaminated object bodies.
D. All of the above 207. Which disease is transmitted by

mosquitoes?
203. Antibodies are only effective against a
A. ascariasis
specific pathogen because:
B. trichinosis
A. The shape of the antibody is the
same as the shape of the antigen on the C. elephantiasis
pathogen D. strongyloidiasis

208. Mosquitoes are responsible for spreading 213. In Monsters inside me the woman, Brid,
diseases like was first misdiagnosed with
A. Dengue A. a rash
B. Malaria
B. an allergic reaction
C. Zika
D. Yellow Fever C. poison oak
E. Influenza D. poison ivy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
209. Which is not an accomplishment of the
WHO? 214. What type of disease is an auto-immune
disease?
A. Eradicating Smallpox
B. Eliminating most of polio A. non-infectious disease
C. Creating a vaccine for the common B. Dietary disease
cold
C. Environmental disease
D. Developing a vaccine for Ebola
D. Occupational disease
210. Which of the following is the best ex-
planation of the likely consequences of a
215. Which is the most effective defense
blood clot forming in a coronary artery?
against the chicken pox virus?
A. Part of the heart receives a slower sup-
ply of blood, and contractions of the heart A. antibiotics
become irregular.
B. diet
B. The blood is prevented from getting to
the cardiac muscle and it stops contrac- C. exercise
tion, the heart stops beating.
D. vaccine
C. The blood stops flowing into the heart
and this prevents the flow of blood around 216. In 1918, an outbreak of influenza in-
the body. fected 500, 000 people all over the world.
D. The blood clot moves from the coro- Tens of millions of those infected died. In
nary artery to the brain causing a stroke. 1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague
spread quickly through the city of Surat in
211. Which of these is not a viral disease?
India, killing 52 people. Which statement
A. measles BEST describes the two events?
B. common cold
A. Both outbreaks were pandemics.
C. salmonellosis
B. Both outbreaks were epidemics.
D. mononucleosis
C. The influenza outbreak was a pan-
212. The blood cells that fight pathogens.
demic. The plague outbreak was an epi-
A. Leukocytes demic.
B. Red blood cells
D. The influenza outbreak was an epi-
C. Plasma demic. The plague outbreak was a pan-
D. Hemoglobin demic.

217. Which of the following are examples of 222. Read Jeffrey’s statement:”I was talk-
hydrolytic enzymes, used in active chemi- ing to my friend, Uncle Juice Bob, about
cal defense? the difficulties of disease control and he

A. Cellulase mentioned something about pro-, proper-,
protes-, protists? ! WHAT ON EARTH is a
B. Chitinase protist!? !? ” Answer Jeffrey’s question
C. Glucogenase A. the Protista kingdom is composed of
D. Glucanase eukaryotes that are not classified as
plants, laundry mats, or fungi
218. organism (usually refers to humans) that B. eating a chicken sandwich with no
harbors pathogens and transmits them to honey mustard
others-they are typically asymptomatic
C. a protist is a type of prokaryotic organ-
A. envelopes ism that is not classified as a plant, animal,
B. craters or fungi
C. carriers D. the Protista kingdom is composed of
eukaryotes that are not classified as
D. vortexes plants, animals, or fungi
E. vectors
223. last time
219. malaria is which type of pathogen? A. jjkk
A. virus B. vv nb
B. protozoa C. Which VG milk powder
C. fungus D. gvc gfn fg
D. bacteria
224. What is ring worm?
E. parasite
A. Virus
220. Which type of blood cells are capable of B. Bacteria
ingesting pathogens? C. Fungi
A. Erythrocytes D. Parasite
B. Antibodies
225. A host is:
C. Lymphocyte cells
A. An organism that harbors a pathogen
D. Phagocyte cells
B. Grant Denyer on Family Feud
221. Which is NOT one way that pathogens C. An animal that transmits a pathogen
spread?
D. A microorganism that has been trans-
A. droplets in the air mitted
B. food
226. A disease that commonly happens in an
C. through animals area is called a/an disease
D. water A. endemic
E. through email B. epidemic

C. pandemic A. inflammatory disease

D. sporadic B. metabolic disease
227. How do vaccinations protect you from fu- C. degenerative disease

ture infections? D. cancer
A. injecting you with antibodies to cause
232. Your body’s ability to destroy pathogens
a small immune response
that is has previously encountered before
B. injecting you with dead or inactive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Killer T Cells
pathogens to cause a small immune re-
sponse B. Immune System
C. injecting you with white blood cells to C. Immunity
cause a small immune response D. none of above
D. preventing bacteria from replicating
233. Ticks are an example of this way of trans-
228. What animal kills the most people annu- mitting (spreading) disease
ally? A. Air-borne
A. Grizzly Bear B. Vector
B. African Elephant
C. Touching a surface
C. Mosquitos
D. Contaminated food or water
D. Great White Shark
234. Agents that cause infectious diseases can
229. Humans with HIV can transmit the HIV be transmitted in many ways like
virus to other humans even though they
A. through the air
do not show the symptoms of the disease.
Which term best describes the unaffected B. through contaminated water
individual? C. through body fluids
A. carrier D. all of the above
B. contagion
235. Malaria is spread by..
C. mutagen
A. Animal vector
D. vector
B. Contaminated food or water
230. Erick wants to avoid exposure to infec-
C. Air
tious disease as much as possible. Which
strategy can best help him do this? D. Bodily fluids
A. eat a balanced diet 236. Which type of pathogen likes to grow in
B. wash his hands regularly dark, warm, moist areas and is responsi-
ble for ringworm?
C. wear sunscreen outside
A. Bacteria
D. exercise several days a week
B. Viruses
231. Which type of noninfectious disease is de-
fined as a problem in a biochemical path- C. Fungi
way in the body? D. Protists

237. An animal that transmit pathogen from General relativity explains the law of grav-
one host to another is called a itation and its relation to other forces of
nature.

A. species
D. 1. all living things are composed of
B. vector
cells 2. cells are the basic units of struc-
C. predator ture and function in living things 3. new
D. prey cells are produced from existing cells
238. What did they use in the 1700s to inocu- 242. What is athlete’s foot?
late healthy people for variolation? A. Virus
A. Pus from the utters of a cow B. Bacteria
B. Pus from a lymphnode of an infected C. Fungi
patient D. Protist
C. Pus from scabs of an infected patient 243. How did Dr. Edward Jenner prove that
D. P us from the fresh sores of an in- cowpox virus inoculation was efficient in
fected patient protecting against smallpox virus infec-
tion?
239. Which of the following is not an example
A. He guessed.
of infectious disease?
B. He wrote a good article.
A. Cholera
C. He infected himself.
B. Influenza
D. He tested it and proved it.
C. Cancer
244. The outer layer of the skin is called the
D. Ringworm
A. germy skin
240. Which of the following is not a cause of B. epidermis
emerging diseases?
C. epi-pen
A. contact with infected animals
D. top skin
B. drug resistance
245. One way to prevent the spread of an in-
C. globalization fectious disease:
D. increased immunization A. sharing tissues
241. cell theory states B. drinking from your friend’s water bot-
tle
A. 1. organisms are all composed of
cells2. atoms are the basic unit of struc- C. washing your hands
ture and function in all matter3. cells re- D. eating rotten food
produce using duplication
246. What do we call bacteria that are shaped
B. Earth’s continents have moved over as spirals?
geologic time relative to each other, thus
A. spirilla
appearing to have “drifted” across the
ocean bed B. baccilli
C. Special relativity applies to all physi- C. cocci
cal phenomena in the absence of gravity. D. none of above

247. A disease that moves from one conti- C. enterobius vermicularis

nent to another new continent is known D. wuchereria bancrofti
as a/an disease.
A. epidemic 253. What does the 4th koch postulate
states?
B. endemic
A. “The organism must be isolated from
C. pandemic the inoculated animal and identified as be-
D. sporadic ing different to the original organisms iso-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lated from the initial, diseased host”
248. What is thought of as the primary de-
fenses against pathogens in the human B. “The organism must be isolated from
body? any animal and identified as being identi-
cal to the original organisms isolated from
A. Lymphocytes and phagocytes the initial, diseased host”
B. Antibodies and lymphocytes C. “The organism must be isolated from
C. The skin and mucous membranes the inoculated animal and identified as be-
D. The circulatory system ing identical to the original organisms iso-
lated from the initial, diseased host”
249. Addition of lignin to cell walls is an ex-
D. none of above
ample of what type of defence?
A. Physical 254. Widespread immunity that protects the
population from the spread of disease is
B. Passive Chemical
called
C. Active Chemical
A. seropositivity
D. none of above
B. cross-reactivity
250. Which pathogen is treated with anti- C. epidemic prophylaxis
fungal cream?
D. herd immunity
A. fungi
255. What are the organs attacked by the
B. virus
smallpox virus?
C. parasites
A. Heart and liver
D. bacteria
B. Skin, spleen and lymph nodes
251. The best way to reduce your chances of C. Lungs, stomach, and esophagus
getting sick is to
D. Ovaries and testes
A. WASH YOUR HANDS!!
B. share towels 256. How intense were the clinical symptoms
of cowpox as compared to smallpox in hu-
C. use drugs or alcohol mans?
D. internalize stress A. More intense
252. What is the scientific name for elephanti- B. Less intense
asis C. Same intensity
A. paragonimus westermani D. We cannot compare them as they are
B. taenia solium caused by two different viruses

257. A disease that is caused by a pathogen C. consumption of bad food

D. infection by a virus

A. Inflammatory Disease
263. What is a good example or analogy to
B. Infectious Disease
use for host cells?
C. Immunity Disease
A. a human cell being attacked and in-
D. Immune Response truded by influenza
258. Which illness is always caused by an in- B. the COVID-19 vaccine being adminis-
fection? tered to patients
A. a heart attack C. an infected tick latching itself to and
B. a broken bone feeding off of a praying mantis
C. influenza D. Febreze!
D. cancer E. a wounded dog barking at a bird’s nest
259. The disease that ravaged Europe from 264. Strep Throat is caused by:
1500-1700’s was know as what? A. virus
A. The Black Death
B. bacteria
B. Cholera
C. fungi
C. Malaria
D. parasite
D. Tuberculosis
265. Which pathogen is a single-celled,
260. Antigens are prokaryotic organism.
A. cells that help to fight off germs A. bacteria
B. foreign substances that enter our body
B. virus
C. baby ants
C. fungi
D. t cells
D. parasite
261. Which part(s) of the body can the tuber-
culosis infection spread to? 266. What do we use to kill harmful bacteria
in mammals and humans?
A. all organs of the body
A. Vaccine
B. only the bones
B. Antibiotic
C. only the intestines
C. Toxin
D. only the skin
D. none of above
262. Over a two-week period, several stu-
dents complain of feeling sick. Their symp- 267. Which is the smallest pathogen?
toms include a cough, fever, and a sore
A. a virus
throat. What describes the MOST likely
cause of these symptoms? B. a fungus
A. exposure to hot weather C. a bacterium
B. decrease in physical exercise D. a tapeworm

268. In autoimmunity, which attacks the 274. A secondary immune response will be
body’s own proteins? faster when
A. antigens A. The individual has encountered the
B. allergens pathogen already
C. antibodies B. The individual’s macrophages are on
D. antihistamines high alert
C. The individual has encountered the
269. is the disease that can be transmitted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pathogen and has memory B cells circulat-
from one individual to other individual.
ing
A. Non-infectious disease
D. Antibodies are produced by T cells
B. Infectious disease
C. Genetic disease 275. Which of these is not a disease that can
D. Sporadic disease be treated with antibiotics?
270. Health department officials are trying to A. flu

identify the source of an outbreak of an B. strep throat
intestinal virus. Which is the most likely
source of the virus? C. tetanus
A. polluted air D. sinus infection

B. lack of exercise
276. What are some more treatments
C. contaminated water
A. reading
D. poor nutritional habits
B. vaccines
271. Doctors recommend people practice
to prevent spreading diseases. C. Animal bites
A. Vector D. none of above
B. Antibiotic Resistance
277. Which disease is correctly linked to its
C. Zoonosis causative agent and method of infection?
D. Respiratory Etiquette A. a
272. Bacteria are prokaryotic because B. b
A. they all produce their own food C. c
B. they move on their own
D. d
C. their cells do not have a nucleus
D. their cells have defined nucleus 278. What is one the factors of Non-Infectious
diseases?
273. What are germs?
A. Age
A. Animals such as cockroaches and rats.
B. Rotten food. B. Eyes
C. Harmful micro-organisms. C. Bones

D. Viruses. D. Cornea

279. Which best explains why more than 300 C. by animals

million people in Asia are infected with D. by physical contact
malaria each year?

A. There is no way to protect people 284. Which set of diseases are all caused by a
against the disease. virus?
B. The parasites that cause malaria lack A. AIDS, smallpox, tuberculosis

the ability to resist antibiotics. B. strep throat, malaria, flu
C. The house fly contaminates food with C. influenza, chickenpox, polio
infectious bacteria that cause malaria. D. common cold, ringworm, smallpox
D. Mosquitos are becoming resistant to
insecticides and continue to carry the dis- 285. Which pathogen is most likely to look like
ease. a worm or insect?
A. Virus
280. Way a protozoan moves by lashing one
or more of its whiplike parts B. Bacteria
A. Flagellate C. Fungi
B. Host D. Protist
C. Viruses 286. Which best distinguishes an infectious

D. Parasites disease from a noninfectious disease?
A. Infectious diseases can be cured with
281. The human body has a system that re- antibiotics; noninfectious diseases can-
sponds whenever an infectious agent en- not.
ters the body. Which body system is
mainly responsible for preventing an in- B. Infectious diseases can be prevented
fectious agent that enters the body from with vaccines; noninfectious diseases
spreading and causing disease? cannot.
A. the nervous system C. Infectious diseases can be spread

from one organism to another; noninfec-
B. the immune system tious diseases cannot.
C. the circulatory system D. Infectious diseases cannot be trans-
D. the respiratory system mitted from one organism to another; non-
infectious diseases can.
282. Which vector is associated with the West
Nile virus? 287. Where does a parasite “nest? ”
A. birds A. a bird nest
B. mosquitoes B. On a good host.
C. squirrels C. a pond.
D. ticks D. a bed.
283. Diarrhea and cholera are examples of dis- 288. Many pathogens are kept out of the body
eases that spread by the
A. through food and water A. immune system
B. through the air B. skin

C. inflammation response 294. A disease that is caused by germs and can

D. lymphatic system spread from person to person is called a
A. Non Communicable Disease
289. Immunity in which antibodies are given
B. Communicable Disease
to a person rather than produced within
the person’s own body C. Allergy
A. Artificial Passive Immunity D. Virus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Natural Passive Immunity 295. The tiny hairs on the inside of your nose
C. Artificial Active Immunity are called
A. cilia
D. Natural Active Immunity
B. epidermis
290. In preclinical trials C. salivia
A. Drugs are tested on human cells and D. eyelashes
tissues only
B. Drugs are tested on human cells and 296. One example of a non-infectious disease
tissues then on live animals is
A. Influenza
C. Drugs are tested on human volunteers
only B. Pneumonia
D. All of the above C. Diabetes
D. Strep throat
291. All bacteria are
A. unicellular 297. If you want to stay well, which of these
should you do?
B. multicellular
A. exercise regularly
C. eukaryotic
B. eat a balanced diet
D. none of above
C. get enough sleep
292. Which of the following are noninfectious D. all of these
diseases? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY!!
298. An example of direct contact:
A. cancer
A. A sneeze
B. diabetes
B. A classroom desk
C. Lyme disease
C. Cleaning up someone’s blood off their
D. allergies arm
D. Eating food that has been spit in
293. Which of the following disease is NOT
caused by a virus? 299. Disease can spread through
A. Tetanus A. Direct contact with a carrier
B. Flu B. Vector transfer
C. Common Cold C. Indirectly
D. Measles D. All of the above

300. more ways it can spread 305. Bacteria help break down food in our
A. contaminated food/water A. Lungs

B. reading B. Brain
C. sleeping C. Guts
D. none of above D. Bladders
301. Which of the following is NOT a common 306. Select three ways your immune system
symptom of the coronavirus? can attack pathogens
A. lost of smell. A. Phagocytosis
B. shortness of breath. B. Mitosis
C. rash. C. Producing antibiodies
D. Fever and chill. D. Producing antitoxins
E. Respiration
302. During the Columbian Exchange many In-
digenous People died. What was this pe- 307. Which pathogen has spores that are car-
riod called? ried through the air?
A. Black Death A. protist/parasite
B. Covid Pandemic B. fungi
C. The Great Dying C. bacteria
D. Spanish Flu D. virus
303. What would happen to a virus if it 308. Which pair correctly matches a vector and
couldn’t find a host cell to attack and in- the infectious disease it carries?
vade? A. human-influenza
A. it would not be able to multiply B. opossum-rabies
B. it wouldn’t be able to travel through C. mosquito-malaria
the air
D. flea-Lyme disease
C. its genetic material would whither
away 309. how you can prevent spread
D. it would not be able to exist A. wear mask
304. The proper way to sneeze is to sneeze B. Abraham Lincoln

into C. not wear mask
A. your cupped hand D. none of above
B. out into the open 310. How long should you wash your hands?
C. inside the front of your shirt or into A. 5 seconds
your bent elbow pressed against your
shirt. B. 10 seconds
D. into the hair of the person sitting in C. 15 seconds

front of you. D. 20 seconds

311. Which immunity is present at birth and C. Pandemic, because it happened within
passed from the mother to the baby a relatively short time span.
through milk and the placenta? D. Pandemic, because it affected many in-
A. Artificial Active Immunity dividuals in multiple countries.
B. Natural Active immunity
316. How did the smallpox virus infection
C. Natural passive immunity spread most frequently?
D. Artificial passive immunity A. Through the air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
312. Bacteria exchange genetic information B. Through the soil
during
C. Through blood
A. asexual reproduction
D. Through feces
B. binary fission
C. conjugation 317. Pathogens are examples of what type of
lifestyle?
D. photosynthesis
A. Mutualism
313. Which list the symptoms of E-Coli?
B. commensalism
A. Headache, Sneezing, Fever
C. parasitism
B. Cough, Dry skin, Vomiting
D. none of above
C. Fever, Nausea, Vomiting, Bloody Diar-
rhea 318. Antibiotic means ‘against life’, so it is ef-
D. Stomach Ache, Headache, fective against what?
A. Viruses
314. Where would a disease transmitted by
person-to-person contact be most likely to B. Fungi
spread quickly? C. Bacteria
A. In a remote region, where contact be-
D. Parasites
tween people is rare.
B. In a rural farming community, where 319. A disease that is found in small amounts,
neighbors live miles apart. consistently within a population
C. In a crowded city. A. pandemic
D. In a medical lab, where people wear B. endemic
protective gear (face masks, gloves, etc.)
C. epidemic
and equipment is regularly sterilized.
D. outbreak
315. After World War I, an outbreak of the
Spanish Flu killed 50 million to 100 million 320. The type of immunity in which the body
people around the world. Which best de- makes its own antibodies is
scribes this occurrence?
A. active immunity
A. Epidemic, because it happened within
B. artificial immunity
a relatively short time span.
B. Epidemic, because it affected many in- C. immunity
dividuals in multiple countries. D. incubation period

321. The best way to prevent from getting 326. Heredity, and environment contribute to
sick which type of diseases

A. wash you hands often for 20 seconds A. infectious
B. avoid going out B. flu
C. stay home C. contagious
D. nothing-it’ll find you D. noninfectious
322. What can cause ringworm on the skin? 327. Athlete’s foot is an example of this
pathogen
A. Bitten by mosquitoes
A. Bacteria
B. Direct skin to skin contact with the in-
fected person B. Virus
C. Consuming contaminated food C. Fungus
D. Sharing of needles D. Protozoan
328. Which disease is correctly paired with the

323. What is the most serious pathogen
cause of the disease?
within the genus Staphylococcus?
A. athlete’s foot-fungi
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. malaria-viruses
B. Staphylococcus hominis
C. influenza-bacteria
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. pneumonia-protists
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
329. Which makes it possible for a person who
324. What was the biggest source of contami- has recovered from a cold to catch another
nation of fresh drinking water in early civ- cold?
ilizations?
A. A cold is a viral infection with many dif-
A. Animals living close to people ferent strains.
B. Lack of a water source (desert condi- B. A cold is a bacterial infection that re-
tions) mains active in the body.
C. Wells that are not dug deep enough C. A cold is a bacterial infection present
D. Aqueducts were not built high enough only during the winter months.
D. A cold is a viral infection that remains
325. What is a good way to prevent getting active until treated with antibiotics.
an Infectious disease?
A. good hygiene 330. A is a microscopic organism that
causes disease.
B. coming in cantact with people that are
sick A. Parachute
C. drinking comtaminated water B. Pathology

C. Pathogen
D. eating food that is not cooked properly
or not washed D. Disease

331. Infectious diseases can spread by contact C. Personal hygiene measures

with: D. School and workplace closures
A. an infected person
336. What do we call bacteria that are shaped
B. an infected animal as spheres?
C. a contaminated object or environmen- A. spirilla
tal source
B. baccilli
D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cocci
332. Viruses that often attack bacteria cells, D. none of above
often look like little spacecraft.
A. True 337. Lyme disease is spread by ticks and peo-
ple affected with Lyme disease often ex-
B. False hibit a rash and symptoms similar to the
C. Only in New Mexico flu. Which is the cause of Lyme disease?
D. none of above A. a virus
B. a toxin
333. What is the cellular response in acquired
immunity? C. a fungus
A. Red blood cells bring oxygen to keep D. a bacterium
us healthy
338. Theory that states that microscopic or-
B. Toxins cause of to get sick once ganisms named germs can cause disease
pathogens enter in the human body.
C. T-cells and macrophages attack A. The big bang Theory
pathogens once antibodies recognize
B. Spontaneous Generation Theory
them
C. Germ theory of disease
D. Antibodies attack pathogens once T-
cells recognize them D. The Pasteur Theory
334. Millions of people living all over the 339. Under which condition is a person most
world have cancer. Is cancer a pandemic? likely to contract E. coli poisoning?
A. No, because cancer is not contagious. A. eating burned food
B. No, because cancer is not always fatal. B. drinking bottled water
C. Yes, because millions of people have C. eating undercooked beef
cancer. D. eating undercooked vegetables
D. Yes, because people all over the world
340. smallpox has been eradicaed, but not
have cancer.
malaria or cholera which satements cor-
335. Which of the following is a strategy to rectly explains this? 1. cholera bacteria in
control the spread of disease at the indi- the intestines are not desroyed by antibi-
vidual level? otics 2. plasmodium antigens change dur-
ing the lifecycle 3. smallpox antigens re-
A. Quarantine mains stable4. vaccines only work agains
B. Contact tracing viruses

A. 1, 2 & 3 345. which future development in vaccine pro-

B. 1, 2 & 4 duction is most importantin the fight to
eradicate measles in developing countries

C. 1, 3 & 4
A. a combined vaccine to combat it other
D. 2, 3 & 4 diseases
341. Dominic is struggling to remember the B. a single vaccine, without the need for
distinction between an epidemic and pan- boosters
demic. “I though these terms were inter- C. a vaccine containing only live measles
changeable but ever since the start of the viruses
COVID-19 outbreak it seems they are dif-
ferent. “Explain the difference between D. a vaccine produced by genetic engi-
these terms. neering techniques
A. pandemic:a quick spread of a disease; 346. Which activity would stimulate the hu-
epidemic:an undetectable, asymptomatic man immune system to provide protection
disease spread against an invasion by a microbe?
B. epidemic:a cured disease; pan- A. receiving antibiotic injections after
demic:an unconfined disease surgery
C. a Hawaiian luau B. choosing a well-balanced diet and fol-
D. epidemic:a regional outbreak of a dis- lowing it throughout life
ease; pandemic:a world wide epidemic C. being vaccinated against chicken pox
342. What type of pathogen causes athlete’s D. receiving hormones contained in
foot? mother’s milk while nursing
A. Virus 347. Disease-causing microorganism, such as
B. Bacteria a bacterium or fungus.
C. Fungi A. antigen
D. Protist B. prion
C. pathogen
343. Plants have cellulose walls-what type of
defence mechanism is this? D. allergen
A. Physical 348. a single-celled organism that lacks a nu-
B. Chemical cleus is called
C. Mechanical A. a bacteriophage
D. none of above B. a virus
C. a protist
344. What is one way a pathogen can enter
the body? D. bacteria
A. Nose 349. Which helminth can you get from eating
B. Mouth infected pork/bear meat?
C. Broken Skin A. ascariasis
D. All of the Aove B. hookworm

C. dracontiasis 355. Why do doctors suggest that people get

a flu vaccine each year?
D. trichinosis
A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over
350. What is used to treat someone with a time.
bacterial infection such as strep throat B. Viruses can mutate from year to year.
A. aspirin C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af-
B. radiation ter a year.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Vaccines get stronger over time.
C. antibiotics
D. ibuprophen 356. “Cholera, Typhoid, Amoebic dysen-
tery”are the common diseases that are
351. Which of the following agents cause transmitted through
strep throat? A. air
A. Virus B. touch
B. Parisite C. vector
C. Bacteria D. water
D. Protozoan 357. Most pathogens never enter the body be-
cause of your
352. In a solution, salt is considered the
A. skin
A. solvent B. muscles
B. solute C. skeleton
C. solution D. connective tissues
D. none of above 358. Chicken pox is an extremely contagious
disease. Which organ is most frequently
353. Which of the following is classified as di-
affected by chicken pox?
rect transmission of infectious disease?
A. brain
A. Droplet Spread
B. intestines
B. Vector
C. lungs
C. Zoonosis
D. skin
D. Contaminated Food
359. A virus is unique in that it
354. A disease that spreads to a new area, but A. contains DNA
stays in the same continent is called a/an
B. contains RNA
disease
C. reproduces in a short time
A. epidemic
D. cannot reproduce outside a living cell
B. pandemic
360. A reaction by tissues to any type of in-
C. endemic
jury by swelling, pain, heat, and redness
D. sporadic is called

A. phagocytosis 366. In all living thing, the basic unit of life is

B. physical defense the

C. inflammation A. nucleus
D. infection B. DNA
C. cell
361. Which is MOST likely a direct cause of an
ear infection? D. Brain
A. loud noises 367. Which of these types of organisms CAN

B. foreign bacteria cause disease in a human?
A. Protist
C. wearing tight hats
B. Animal
D. none of above
C. Bacteria
362. What is a disease outbreak that effects
D. All of these
people in the same place at the same time.
A. Epidemic 368. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize
the measles virus. How is this helpful in
B. Pandemic
human immune response?
C. Quarantine
A. The B-cells use this recognition to de-
D. none of above fend the body against other pathogens,
such as bacteria.
363. Which virus kills more people than any
other annually and over time? B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and
respond to any other virus that invades
A. Black Plague
the body.
B. Covid
C. The B-cells produce antibodies more
C. Flu quickly if the measles virus is encountered
D. Malaria again.
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to
364. the process through which food is heated
T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
to a temperature that is high enough to
kill most harmful bacteria without chang- 369. which of the following is false?
ing the taste of food is called
A. coli NEVER causes diseases
A. pasteur
B. coli provides vitamin K for its hosts
B. pasteurization
C. coli gets nutrients from intestinal con-
C. pastuerology tents
D. pasteuritis D. none of above
365. A disease caused by a pathogen is a(n) 370. What type of cell kills invading cells di-
rectly?
A. infectious A. Helper T Cells
B. childhood B. Cytotoxic T Cells
C. noninfectious C. B cells
D. none of above D. Cytokines

371. .... are evidence of disease sensed by the 374. How do protect ourselves and others
sick person. from coronavirus?
A. Signs A. Wear a mask
B. Prognosis B. Avoid crowds
C. Stay long in the crowded places
C. Symptoms
D. Wash hand often.
D. Complications
375. An infectious disease is spread between
NARAYAN CHANGDER
372. Violet has been consumed with the task different organisms and is caused by a(n)
of collecting protozoan samples around her
A. Genetic mutation
property. However, she wonders what
the difference is between protozoa and B. Exposure to toxic chemicals
protists. “I am no longer sure I know the C. pathogens
difference between protozoa and protists! D. none of above
In fact, I don’t really understand their def-
initions. I need to understand these things 376. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
before the next MicroDiscovery Conven- ple of an infectious disease?
tion!!” A. West Nile virus
A. Protists are prokaryotic microorgan- B. Strep throat
isms that are not categorized as plants,
C. Lyme disease
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like
protists. D. Scurvy
B. I think you should complete those 377. Which cells are the “locator cells” that
chores before you get to collecting. Your identify a pathogen then signal for help?
room reeks! A. Killer T cells
C. Find the nearest Merriam-Webster B. Helper B Cells
Dictionary or Encyclopedia and get to C. Helper T cells
reading!
D. Nerve cells
D. Protists are eukaryotic microorgan-
isms that are not categorized as plants, 378. What pathogen causes the common
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like cold?
protists. Ex:archaea, bacteria A. Virus
E. Protists are eukaryotic microorgan- B. Bacteria
isms that are not categorized as plants, C. Fungi
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like
D. Protista
protists. Ex:E. coli, amoeba
379. malaria
373. You can transmitt disesases by
A. virus
A. coming in contact with people
B. protozoa
B. washing your hands C. fungus
C. eating contaminated food/water D. bacteria
D. avioding contact with people E. parasite

380. Which country is threatening to leave the 385. How many stages of diseases are there?
WHO? A. 1

A. Canada B. 2
B. Great Britain C. 3
C. South Korea D. 4
D. USA
386. Bacteria reproduce by
381. the statements refer to the disease tu- A. sexual reproduction only
berculosis1. the patthogens live inside hu-
B. asexual reproduction only
man cell so is not accessible to the im-
mune system 2.the bacterial pathogen re- C. usually asexual, sometimes sexual re-
produes slowly 3.the pathogen is not very production
sensitive to antibioticwhich explains why D. a unique type of reproduction called
antibiotic treament for TB takes a long endosporosis
time?
387. Leukocytes include a wide range of differ-
A. 1, 2 & 3
ent white blood cells. Which of the follow-
B. 1 & 2 ing are responsible for destroying cancer-
C. 1 & 3 ous cells?
D. 2 & 3 A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
382. This organism is the most common cause
of pyogenic infection of the skin and soft C. Natural Killer Cells
tissues D. Macrophages
A. Staphylococcus aureus 388. Which of the following is part of the in-
B. Streptococcus epidermidis nate immune response?
C. Group A Streptococcus A. Neutrophils
D. Group B Streptococcus B. Cell-Mediated Response
C. Inflammation
383. An disease can also be called a com-
municable disease D. Humoral Response
A. infectious 389. Norovirus is a highly contagious stomach

B. noninfectious virus that easily passes between people.
What type of disease is it?
C. asthma
A. Noninfectious
D. deadly
B. Infectious
384. A disease causing agent is a C. Cellular
A. vaccine D. Viral
B. mutagen
390. Which of the following cells can become
C. pathogen “memory” cells?
D. vector A. A cells

B. B cells 396. cholera is no longer common in many

C. C cells countries.what is the reason for this?
D. D cells A. education of the citizens about the

spread of the disease.
391. Which is NOT a function of the skin B. routine vaccination by local health au-
A. to keep us waterproof thorities
B. to keep germs out C. treatment of water supplies and seper-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ate sewage treatment
C. to help us run faster
D. treatment of water to control
D. to keep our internal organs protected
mosquitoes
392. Ananthan experiences severe vomiting
397. How does Callose prevent the spread of
and diarrhea after drinking a glass of wa-
pathogens?
ter in the kitchen. What will happen to
Ananthan if this condition prolongs? A. Blocks the xylem
A. He will be suffering from dengue fever B. Blocks the sieve plates in the xylem
B. He will recover after severe vomiting C. Blocks the sieve plates in the phloem
and diarrhea D. Causes abscission
C. .He will be dehydrated and it may lead
398. Vanessa is unaware of the three types of
to death
bacteria shapes. She has to research it for
D. He will become thin and die a science project. Which article is provides
an accurate answer?
393. What is Circulatory system disease?
A. IncrediblyCorrectFacts.net-“the three
A. A disease in your liver types of bacteria shapes are bacilli, co-
B. It is an Coronary artery disease conut, and spirit”
C. A chronic disease B. RealScience.io-“the three types of bac-
D. A disease in your pancreas terial stages are bacilli, cocci, and spirilla
C. MicrobiologyForDummies.org-“bacteria
394. What are infectious diseases caused by? can appear rod-shaped (bacilli), spherical
A. Bacteria (cocci), and spiral-shaped (spirilla)”
B. Pathogens D. papajohns.com-“Better Ingredients.
Better Pizza”
C. Vaccinations
D. Viruses 399. What does the immune system “mem-
ory” do?
395. Your body’s first line of defense against A. Remembers encounters with
infectious diseases include pathogens
A. mucous membranes, saliva, tears B. Can respond quickly to the same
B. phagocytes, lymphocytes, pus pathogens
C. T cells, B cells, antibodies C. Later encounters may be so strong you
D. Lymphatic system, immune system, in- do not become ill
flammation response D. All of the above

400. is the organisms that cause diseases. 406. An infectious disease is a disease that is
A. Bacteria caused when a pathogen is passed from
one organism to another. The nonliving

B. Pathogen pathogen is the
C. Probiotic A. Virus
D. Mosquito B. Parasites
401. Fungi grow best in these environments. C. Protozoa
A. warm, moist D. none of above
B. cool, dry
407. An example of passing disease person to
C. cold, humid person would be
D. warm, dry A. Touching a door knob
402. Puccinia causes grass B. Eating spoiled food
A. orange stem rust C. Sharing a drinking container
B. yellow stem rust D. Touching infected animal
C. Black stem rust
408. What is the name of the fungi that forms
D. Stripe rust on rotten food?
403. The most common infectious disease in A. infectious diseases
the U.S.A. is B. bacteria
A. flu C. viruses
B. whooping cough D. mould
C. common cold
409. If a patient has a serious infectious dis-
D. strep throat ease, to reduce the spread to others a hos-
404. How can you avoid getting an infectious pital would..
disease from food? A. Isolate the patient
A. Eat chicken or beef that is under B. Give the patient paracetamol
cooked.
C. Give the patient anithistamine
B. Eat raw eggs
D. Send the patient home
C. Keep hot foods hot
410. What words signify an infection, or an
D. Only use the refrigerator to store left-
invasion of the body by a pathogenic or-
overs.
ganism?
405. How can you prevent Non-Infectious dis- A. Want a break from the ads? by Spotify
eases?
B. healing, medicine, cure, health, ease
A. None of the above
C. intrusion, break-in, security breach,
B. All of the above thief, poison
C. Walking D. bruise, wound, pain, blood, scrape,
D. Exercising germs

411. More ways prevent it C. Antigen

A. avoid contact D. Lymphocyte
B. reading 416. All the resources necessary to support an
C. Barrack Obama activity to end an epidemic or pandemic is
called what?
D. none of above
A. Bureaucracy
412. The study of the spread of disease is?
B. Infrastructure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Pathology C. Superstructure
B. Biology D. none of above
C. Anatomy
417. What benefit does lignin provide?
D. Epidemiology
A. It is waterproof
413. A person sneezes and does not cover B. It strengthens the cell membrane
their mouth/nose. You are standing
C. It is antibacterial
across the room and breathe in some of
the pathogens. This is D. none of above
A. direct transmission 418. There are several ways to protect the
B. indirect transmission human body from diseases caused by in-
fectious agents. Which of the following
C. alternative transmission
plays the main role in preventing infectious
D. none of above agents from entering the body?
414. Which statement best describes what A. skin

will most likely happen when an individual B. lungs
receives a vaccination containing a weak- C. intenstines
ened pathogen?
D. digestive system Fungi only reproduce
A. The ability to fight disease will in- sexually, while bacteria reproduce asexu-
crease due to antibodies received from ally.
the pathogen.
419. Information below shows microor-
B. The ability to fight disease caused by
ganisms that can cause infectious dis-
the pathogen will increase due to antibody
eases.Virus, bacteria, protozoa and fungi
production.
can cause infectious diseases.These mi-
C. The ability to produce antibodies will croorganisms are known as
decrease after the vaccination.
A. unicellular organisms.
D. The ability to resist most types of dis-
B. pathogen.
eases will increase.
C. vaccine
415. The thick, watery substance that shields D. antigen
the body from invading pathogens is called
420. What is asthma
A. Cilia A. When you have diabetes
B. Mucus B. A disease where you need a inhaler

C. A respiratory condition marked by at- 426. Which of the following is not a character-
tacks of spasm in the bronchi of the lungs istic of a Prokaryotic cell?

D. When you can’t breathe A. unicellular
B. floating DNA
421. What is responsible for detecting differ-
ences between the body’s own cells and C. very small
cells of another organism? D. complex
A. The endocrine system 427. Which is an example of a disease caused
B. The immune system by fungi
C. The brain A. Diphtheria
D. The cardiovascular system B. The Common Cold
C. Strep Throat
422. Which is the best method for preventing
D. Athlete’s Foot
a parasitic disease?
A. vaccination 428. The symptoms of strep throat infection
are a red and swollen throat. What is the
B. wearing a mask MOST likely cause of strep throat?
C. limiting physical contact with others A. eating raw vegetables
D. avoiding contaminated food and water B. drinking lemonade
423. Infectious diseases are C. invading bacteria

D. running in cold weather
A. contagious
B. always deadly 429. Florey and Chain shared a Nobel Prize
with Alexander Fleming for their work
C. both answers on penicilin.Which of the following state-
D. none of the above ments best describes their experiment
which tested penecillin on mice?
424. What can you do to avoid contact with A. Four mice injected with a bacterial dis-
pathogens? ease and four injected with penicillin to
A. Cook food test toxicity and effectiveness.
B. Wash hands B. Two mice injected with penicillin and a
bacterial disease to test both toxicity and
C. Drink well water effectiveness against bacteria.
D. 1 & 2 C. Toxicity test on two mice, then eight
mice injected with a lethal dose of disease
425. What was the last large scale pandemic
bacteria, four of which were also given
to hit the world?
penicillin to test its effectiveness against
A. German Measles bacteria.
B. Russian Fever D. Hundreds of mice injected with peni-
cillin and their lives monitored to measure
C. Spanish Flu
how many of the mice developed infec-
D. Welsh Whooping Cough tions during their lives.

430. Infectious diseases are spread by 435. What parasite spreads malaria?
pathogens transmitted from an infected A. Deer Tick
person to another person through
B. phagocytes
A. Contact
C. protozoan
B. Water
D. Anopheles Mosquito
C. Air
436. What can you do to prevent mosquitoes
D. Vector from breeding around your home?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
431. Even more ways it can spread A. Change the water in the vase regularly
A. sleeping B. Make sure that toilets and bathrooms

are kept dry
B. reading
C. keep the drain fill with water
C. animal bite D. Empty out or overturn any water con-
D. none of above tainers around your home
432. Bioremediation is using bacteria to fight: 437. T lymphocytes are used in which type of
immune response?
A. Lions
A. Humoral Immune Response
B. Plants
B. Cell-Mediated Immune Response
C. Viruses
C. Antibody-Mediated Immune Response
D. Pollution D. Inflammatory Immune Response
433. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its 438. Aspirin originally came from
host. Which examplebest describes the re-
A. Foxgloves
lationship between the tapeworm and its
host? B. Bread mould
A. The tapeworm benefits from its host; C. Tobacco
however, the host is not affected. D. Willow
B. The tapeworm does not benefit from 439. Which function is associated with phago-
its host, but the host does benefit. cytes in the blood?
C. The tapeworm benefits from its host, A. initiating blood clots
and the host is negatively affected. B. transporting dissolved nutrients
D. none of above C. producing hormones
434. How does a Parasite infect us? D. engulfing bacteria
A. Enters body through food, water, or 440. If you wanted to find a colony of protists,
cuts in skin where might you look?
B. Digested or come in contacted with the A. Forest
parasite B. Desert
C. Airborne C. Mountain
D. none of above D. Pond

441. What is a widespread outbreak of a virus C. having contact with fungus on a

in a community? shower floor

A. Epidemic D. swimming in a lake that has a large
B. Epidermis amount of algae
C. Pandemic 447. Which pathogen is treated with antibi-
D. Panic otics?
442. What is a vector? A. virus

A. Pathogen B. bacteria
B. Organism that carries pathogen C. parasite
C. Type of infectious disease D. fungi
D. Type of emerging disease
448. Why should you cover food with a food
443. Which of the following activities will cover?
cause a person to suffer from diseases A. To keep bacteria away from the food.
that are spread through touch?
B. To prevent the spread of diseases
A. Flood through physical contact.
B. Sharing of towel
C. To prevent the spread of diseases by
C. Consuming contaminated food animals.
D. Overuse of mosquito repellent D. To prevent the spread of diseases
through the air.
444. When both inside and outside of a cell
have the same amount of water it is said 449. Why has it proved difficult to develop a
that the cell has reached a state of vaccine against malaria?
A. osmosis
A. Mosquitoes have many stages in thier
B. equilibrium life cycle.
C. diffusion B. The parasite are only vulnerable to att-
D. hypertonic tack when outide the liver and red blood
cells.
445. When you sneeze, you should cover your
mouth & nose.Other than that, you could C. The human immune system doesnot
recognise the antigens of the parasite.
A. Sneeze to a person’s face D. Vaccines are repidly broken down by
proteases in stomach.
B. Pretend to laugh
C. Sing a song 450. Do nutrition disorders include in Non-
D. Sneeze to your inner elbow & sleeves Infectious diseases
A. Maybe
446. Which best describes how athlete’s foot
is spread to other individuals? B. True
A. inhaling fungal spores in the air C. False
B. eating food contaminated with fungus D. I dont know

451. Since we have our immune system to pro- C. strep throat

tect us from disease, why do we still need
D. hay fever
a vaccine?
A. Because some diseases are too se- 456. What type of pathogen grows best in
vere for our immune system. warm, dark, moist areas?
B. Because adaptive immunity takes days A. Bacteria
to weeks to initiate a response and some-
times it is too late. B. Protozoan
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Because some people are immune de- C. Virus
ficient or have weak immune systems. D. Fungi
D. All of the above
457. Algae are similar to plants, yet they
452. athlete’s foot don’t have
A. virus A. Roots
B. protozoa B. Flowers and Fruits
C. fungus
C. Stem
D. bacteria
D. Leaves
E. parasite
458. Which of the following is a physical plant
453. A village has improved its supply of
defence?
clean water, sewage treatment, insect
contol and milk pasteurisation.Which dis- A. Producing antibacterial substances
ease, present in the village will not be re- B. Thorns and spikes
duced by these measures?
C. Tough waxy cuticles
A. HIV/AIDS
B. cholera D. Mimicry
C. malaria 459. In our immune system experiment, pep-

D. tuberculosis per represented
454. Living things that are too small to see A. germs

without a microscope are called B. t cells
A. Multi-cellular C. b cells
B. Macroorganisms D. immunity
C. Little Giants
460. What is the US agency that fights against
D. Microorganisms
contagious diseases?
455. Which of these is MOST likely to be A. FDA
spread when two people drink from the
same water bottle? B. CDC
A. asthma C. WHO
B. malaria D. UNESCO

461. Which infectious disease/s are caused by 466. Ten people became sick with the flu after
eating raw or under cooked food? (choose attending a school dance.What likely hap-
as many as needed) pened?

A. hookworm A. Contact with environmental sources
B. beef tapeworm B. contact with an infected animal
C. pork tapeworm
C. contact with a contaminated object
D. fish tapeworm
D. contact with an infected person
462. An organism that lives on or in a host,
and causes it harm while it takes its nutri- 467. The name for anything that causes dis-
ents is called ease is known as:
A. a host A. Bacteria
B. a parasite B. Pathogen
C. a cell C. Virus
D. a virus D. Protozoa
463. When you start with 1 cell, at the end of
mitosis, how many identical cells will you 468. Which of these diseases cannot be pre-
have? vented through vaccination?
A. 1 A. common cold
B. 2 B. mumps
C. 3 C. flu
D. 4 D. measles
464. of the world’s population live in an area
469. Bacteria can be circular in shape which is
ehere malaria is threat to health in recentt
known as
years there have been many more cases in
africawhat is the social factor letting the A. Rod
spread of malaria get out of control?
B. Cocci
A. an increase in drug resistant forms of
C. Flagellum
malaria
B. climate change D. Antibiotics
C. difficulty in producing a vaccine 470. Pathogens spread from person to person
D. migration of people because of wars by objects (chairs, medical equipment, of-
fice supplies, doorknobs, etc.)
465. common cold
A. Direct Contact
A. virus
B. protozoa B. Indirect Contact
C. fungus C. Airborne Transmission

D. bacteria D. Foodborne Tranmission
E. parasite E. Vector-Borne Transmission

471. Health care experts who study trends D. Thrombin is converted into prothrom-
in health issues in populations and de- bin
ploy public announcements, education ini-
tiatives, and protocols to protect the 476. What is the name of a growth that blocks
health of the nation. the xylem?
A. epidemiologists A. Callose
B. dermatologists B. Lignin
C. Tylose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. medical examiners
D. immunologist D. none of above
472. Which of the following precautions are 477. Transmit means to

recommended to avoid antibiotic resis- A. To power an engine
tance? B. A program or signal that is sent out
A. Use antibiotics only when prescribed C. Pass from one place or person to an-
B. Take entire dose for length prescribed other
C. Take antibiotics for viral infections D. none of above
D. Both A & B 478. How do viruses quickly travel around the
473. Skin protects a person from pathogens by world?
A. Airplanes
A. being thin and easy to allow things B. Boats
through C. Email
B. shedding occasionally D. Shipping Containers
C. serving as a protective layer that
keeps foreign objects out 479. Which disease in humans is caused by a
parasite?
D. allowing bacteria to enter if it is
healthy A. HIV/AIDS
B. influenza
474. Inflammation occurs during which line of
defense? C. malaria
A. First Line D. yellow fever
B. Second Line 480. How is malaria spread?

C. Third Line A. Enters body through food, water, or
D. Fourth Line cuts in skin
B. Carried by animal vector
475. If the skin is broken then a blood clot
forms to seal this cut.What is the first step C. Airborne
in the process of blood clotting? D. none of above
A. Fibrinogen turns into fibrin 481. Which is the first line of defense against
B. Platelets release clotting factors pahtogens?
C. Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin A. Stomach acid

B. Tears 487. Infectious is another word for

C. Skin A. contagious

D. none of above
B. illness
482. An example of indirect contact is: C. disease
A. Drinking out of your friend’s pop
D. non-contagious
B. Kissing
C. Shaking Hands 488. Which cell create the antibodies?
D. When changing a diaper, getting fluids A. Killer T cells
on your hands
B. Helper T cells
483. What is the effect which thrombin has on
the process of blood clotting? C. B cells
A. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin D. T cells
B. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin
489. Several types of infectious agents can
C. Platelets are caused to release clot-
cause disease in humans. One group of
ting factors.
these infectious agents are classified as
D. Clotting factors are taken up by red prokaryotes because all of its members
blood cells. have a cell that lacks a nucleus or other
membrane-bound organelles. Which of the
484. Koch first became famous for his work on
following infectious agents is classified as
A. Cholera a prokaryote?
B. Anthrax
A. virus
C. Tuberculosis
B. fungus
D. Measles
C. Parasite
485. Which of the following is NOT one of the
four major types of human pathogens D. Bacterium
A. bacteria
490. Sharee had been ill for three days. When
B. viruses her mother took hter to the doctor, the doc-
C. fungi tor decided not to prescribe an antibiotic.
D. plants He said Sharee had a virus. Why are an-
tibiotics not able to cure viral infections?
486. Annie experienced continuous coughing,
blood in phlegm, and fever after talking A. Antibiotics kill bacteria, not viruses.
to someone. What is the disease that she B. Antibiotics target only white blood
might be suffering from? cells.
A. Dengue fever
C. Antibiotics are not used to fight any in-
B. Tuberculosis fections.
C. Zika D. Antibiotics cause fevers that make
D. Leptospirosis viruses stronger.

491. Lyme disease, rabies and malaria are 496. What is a Non-Infectious disease
mostly spread by A. Bacterial disease
A. bites from insects / animals B. Disease
B. contaminated foods like chicken and C. Diseases that are not caused by a virus
beef or a living organism
C. contaminated objects like door knobs D. Non of the above
and desks
497. Which of the following statement best de-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. indirect contact with an infected per-
scribes the way to prevent transmission of
son
diseases through water?
492. What is ring worm caused by? A. Drink boiled water
A. Virus B. Use mosquito repellent
B. Bacteria C. Do not share towels with others
C. Fungi D. Do not swim in swimming pool
D. Parasite 498. The proper name for germ
493. fungi use tiny cells able to grow into new A. parasite
organisms to reproduce. these tiny cells B. pathogen
are called
C. pathosite
A. endospores
D. papasurf
B. spores
499. What is the largest outer defense of the
C. sponges
body?
D. spones
A. Stomach Acid
494. Sars-Cov2 virus that lead to Covid19 dis- B. Mucous Membranes
ease is example of disease that trans- C. Cilia
mitted through droplet transmission.
D. Skin
A. waterborne
B. airborne 500. Which organ in the body does this corona
virus primarily attack?
C. landborne
A. Lung
D. none of above
B. Liver
495. what would cause an oubreak of malaria C. Brain
in a country where it had been eliminated?
D. stomach
1.mosquitoes became resisant tp insec-
ticides2.migration of population due to 501. Which of the following is NOT a way to
war3.malarial parasites became resisant spread an infectious disease?
to quinine A. Direct contact ( like shaking hands)
A. 1 & 2 only B. Droplets (Sneezing into the air)
B. 1 & 3 C. Not receiving enough vitamins in your
C. 2 & 3 diet
D. 1, 2 & 3 D. Animal bites

1.9 Miscellaneous Disorders 119
502. Countries volunatrily donate money to B. American Exchange

the WHO, what is the approximate bud-
C. Columbian Exchange
get for the organization?

A. $3.6B D. Columbian Deals
B. $5.6B
504. A tiny organism that causes an infectious
C. $8.6B disease is called a-
D. $5.6 T A. microorganism
503. What was it called when Europeans ex- B. virus
plored the world and traded with the na-
tives in the Western Hemisphere? C. pathogen
A. American Express D. bacterium
1.9 Miscellaneous Disorders

1. The lifting of the nail plate from the bed she can’t even remember who her par-
without shedding is a sign of ents were. What is she probably suffering
from?
A. eggshell nail;s
A. Dissociative Amnesia
B. onycholysis
B. Dissociative Fugue
C. nail psoriasis
C. Dissociative Identity Disorder
D. onychomadesis
D. Schizophrenia
2. Dark purplish spots due to injury E. Bipolar Disorder
A. beu’s nails
5. How did ancient Babylons treat psycholog-
B. bruised nails ical disorders?
C. koilonychia A. prayer
D. hang nail B. magic
C. healing power of words
3. Getting depressed patients to challenge
their own negative beliefs and thoughts D. torture
about themselves would be using what
6. Which of the following is a psychological
kind of therapy?
factor contributing to anxiety?
A. Insight A. genetics
B. Behavioral B. learned fear behaviours
C. Cognitive C. catastrophic thinking
D. Biomedical D. none of above
4. Rey doesn’t remember some pretty cru- 7. Split or brittle nails with a series of length-
cial stuff. You know she had a rough wise ridges and a rough appearance to the
early life, growing up gathering junk, but surface of the nail plate is;

A. onychophagy 13. What are the ways to decide if a speech

B. onychophosis sound disorder exists?
C. onychorrhexis A. Score the standardized tests
D. plicatured nails B. Analyze the conversation sample
8. Compulsions are best described as C. Collect the data from the hearing
screen, the OP exam, and the medical his-
A. persistent fears
tory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. repetitive behaviors
D. Compare the results to a norm
C. delusions
D. hallucinations 14. What are some approaches to selecting
goals?
9. The DSM-5 is designed to help with which
of the following? A. Client specific approach
A. treating psychological disorders B. developmental approach
B. identifying causes of psychological dis- C. intelligibility
orders D. Client age
C. classifying psychological disorders
E. How many children are in clients family
D. distinguishing between sanity and in-
sanity 15. Brian is always worried about making a
fool of himself because he always seems
10. A person suffering from schizotypal per-
to have bad luck. He gets intensely anx-
sonality disorder could have which of the
ious about situations where he might say
following:
something wrong or be scrutinized, like
A. Magical Thinking giving a presentation at work. What is
B. Odd Speech he probably suffering from?
C. Inappropriate or constricted affect A. Social Phobia
D. Motionless for long periods of time B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
11. Vigorous activity in the thalamus of C. A Specific Phobia
schizophrenia patients has been found to D. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
be associated with
A. hearing voices. 16. years old John has always been very ac-
B. flat affect. tive and impulsive. He has a hard time sit-
ting still, following instructions, and pay-
C. disorganized speech. ing attention in class. John’s mother re-
D. repetitive rocking motions. ports that he often interrupts others when
they are speaking and has difficulty wait-
12. At what stage of sleep do you have
ing his turn.
dreams?
A. stage 1 non-REM sleep A. Autism
B. stage 2 non-REM sleep B. ADHD

C. stage 3 non-REM sleep C. Specific learning disability
D. REM sleep D. Intellectual disability

17. The gene responsible for huntington’s dis- B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality In-
ease normally ventory

A. directs vesicle activity C. California Personality Inventory
B. directs muscle formation D. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
C. directs bone formation Mental Disorders
D. directs lens formation 22. Moving a limb backwards is
18. B-CELL:Most common primary immunode- A. extension
ficiency. Failure of B cells to become IgA-
producing plasma cells, Recurrent gastroin- B. plantar flexion
testinal and respiratory infection. C. hyperextension
A. Hyper IgE D. none of above
B. IgA Deficiency
23. Which way can a pathogen enter the
C. Isolated IgG Subclass Deficiency body?
D. none of above
A. Nose
19. Which category of Schizophrenia contains B. Injured skin
i mmobility (or excessive, purposeless
movement), extreme negativism, and/or C. Mouth
parrotlike repeating of another’s speech or D. All of the above
movements?
A. Paranoid Schizophrenia 24. Jerry’s therapist is helping him to over-
come problems by learning to think more
B. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia rationally and logically. What type of ther-
C. Residual Schizophrenia apy is he going to?
D. Catatonic Schizophrenia A. Biomedical
20. The bio-psycho-social model: B. Behavior

A. believes that people have genetic pre- C. Humanistic
dispositions to disorders D. Cognitive
B. believes that a person thoughts and
patterns play a role in the disorder 25. The somatic-symptom and related disor-
C. believes that social and cultural as- ders all share which of the following fea-
pects shape how a person sees their cir- tures?
cumstance A. They are disorders in which hallucina-
D. believes that nature is more important tions occur often.
than nurture B. Individuals with these disorders expe-
rience extreme anxiety.
21. What is the most widely used classifica-
tion system scheme for psychological dis- C. All of the disorders involve complaints
orders? about physical symptoms.
A. Social Readjustment Rating Scale D. They occur only in children.

26. What are the two ways that genetic dis- to him. His pitch and loudness increase
orders can be inherited? when he stutters and he shows facial gri-
A. Through blood transfusions and meio- macing and eye blinks when stuttering. He
sis. is showing multiple repetitions (up to 9) as
well as prolongations and blocks. What is
B. Mutations in DNA and or inherited the diagnosis?
C. Missing chromosomes or premature A. Normal disfluency
egg splitting.
B. Borderline stuttering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Unhealthy environments and therapy
C. Beginning stuttering
27. which of the following are important char-
acteristics of a therapeutic relationship D. Intermediate stuttering
sata
31. Which symptom could be ? ”I don’t
A. the purpose is to benefit both the pa- know where I am”
tient and the nurse
A. Delusions
B. the relationship has a clear purpose
and ending B. Sleepless nights
C. the relationship has not clear C. Schizophrenia
D. the relationship develops purposefully D. Disorientation
28. A nervous system disorder involving a pro- E. Commit suicide

gressive loss of brainfunction with major
consequences for memory, thinking, and 32. Sarah is a 12-year-old girl who was re-
behavior ferred to a neurologist by her pediatrician
due to concerns about involuntary move-
A. epilepsy ments and sounds. Sarah’s parents report
B. multiple sclerosis that she has been experiencing tics for the
past year, which have become increasingly
C. dementia
frequent and severe. They describe her
D. Alzheimer’s disease tics as sudden, repetitive movements of
the head and arms, accompanied by vo-
29. Albert Ellis devised a therapy that can be
calizations such as grunting, throat clear-
very confrontational. The client must face
ing, and sniffling. These tics occur multiple
the irrationality of his or her belief system.
times per minute and are present through-
What is the name of this form of therapy?
out the day, although they tend to be more
A. Cognitive-Behavior therapy frequent when Sarah is under stress or
B. Gestalt therapy feeling anxious.
C. Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy A. Persistent tic disorder

D. Insight therapy B. Tics disorder
30. Omar is a 4 year old boy. He has been stut- C. Stereotypic movement disorder
tering for 7 months. Stuttering started D. Tourette disorder
quite suddenly when his family moved
here from Egypt. His father and uncle both 33. I have a strong preference for maintaining
stutter. His stuttering is quite bothersome a fixed environment and dislike any kind

of change, no matter how minor. Addition- B. Sjofren’s Syndrome

ally, I am not inclined to form social connec- C. Myasthenia Gravis
tions, and I tend to engage in repetitive be-

haviors such as hand-flapping rather than D. Goodpasteur’s Syndrome
nonverbal communication. 38. the nail is mainly composed of?
A. ASD A. Keratin
B. ADHD B. Bone
C. Learning disability C. acrylic
D. Intellectual disability D. none of above
34. Which of the following is true of your sex 39. Which mental illness is associated with
chromosomes? rapid mood swings?
A. I have two Y chromosomes. A. Histrionic
B. I have at least one X chromosomes. B. Depression
C. They aren’t developed until I turn 13. C. Bi-Polar
D. They are afraid of one another. D. Hypochndria

40. Stigma
35. What kind of a psychologist would likely
explain depression in terms of negative A. stereotyping
thought patterns and pessimistic views of B. WALLS
the world and future? C. PTSD
A. Biomedical D. ADHD
B. Psychoanalytic
41. Patient I has moments of extreme dread
C. Behavioral and fear. She feels anxious, her heart rate
D. Cognitive rises, she sweats excessively, she loses
control of her breathing. She notices that
36. A mental disorder is generally defined as: certain environmental factors bring about
A. Not knowing the difference between these symptoms and avoids them at all
right and wrong. costs. Patient I may be suffering from
what disorder?
B. A prolonged problem that interferes
with an individual’s ability to cope in so- A. Schizophrenia
ciety. B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
C. An anxiety disorder with dangers of C. Major Depressive Disorder
hurting oneself. D. Panic Disorder
D. A long-term problem that can only be E. Agoraphobic
cured with medication.
42. What is the fear of needles called?
37. Presence of autoantibody to glomerular,
A. Claustrophobia
renal, tubular, and alveolar basement
membranes-resulting to injury to glomeru- B. Astraphobia
lus → Renal Failure C. Tryanoophobia
A. DM Type 1 D. none of above

43. A long term disease, usually lasting more 49. Used to control anxiety and agitation
than 3 months A. Mood-stabilizing medication
A. Acute B. Antidepressant medication
B. Communicable C. Antianxiety medication
C. Chronic D. Antipsychotic medication
D. Non-communicable
50. A 5-year-old boy named Max has diffi-
44. What mental disorder is describe by a gen- culty pronouncing certain sounds, such as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
eral state of dread or uneasiness? “s, “ “sh, “ and “ch.” He often replaces
these sounds with “f” or “th, “ which
A. stress disorder
makes it difficult for others to understand
B. mood disorder him. Max also struggles to pronounce
C. anxiety longer words and phrases, and he tends
D. weirdness to avoid speaking in public because of his
speech difficulties. Max’s parents have no-
45. What is the other term for Onychophagy? ticed his speech difficulties since he was 3
A nail disorder caused by nervousness and years old, but they thought it was just a
stress. phase that he would outgrow. However,
A. Bitten nails as Max is now starting school, his parents
are concerned that his speech difficulties
B. Corrugations may affect his social interactions and aca-
C. Split or Brittle nails demic performance. Make a diagnosis.
D. Spoon nails A. Language disorder
46. Different than most of the rest of your cul- B. Childhood onset fluency disorder
tural context C. Speech sound disorder
A. Deviant D. Social communication disorder
B. Distress 51. A central therapeutic technique of psycho-
C. Dysfunction analysis is
D. Danger A. Spontaneous recovery.
B. Systematic desensitization.
47. Lithium is a chemical used to treat
C. Active listening.
A. major depression.
D. Free association.
B. schizophrenia.
E. Client-centeret therapy
C. multiple-personality disorders.
D. bipolar mood disorders. 52. What type of schizophrenia is the follow-
ing:incoherent speech, hallucinations, delu-
48. This genetic disorder is inherited by a re- sions and bizarre behavior (imaginary peo-
cessive allele found on the X chromosome. ple)
A. PKU A. catatonic stupor type
B. Cystic fibrosis B. paranoid type
C. Down’s syndrome C. disorganized type
D. Hemophilia D. catatonic excitement type

53. Which disorder is a group of severe dis- 57. What chromosome is affected by
orders characterized by disorganized and hemophilia?
delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions,

A. x
and inappropriate emotions and actions?
B. y
A. Depression
C. 21
B. Dependent Personality Disorder
D. 13
C. PTSD
D. Schizophrenia 58. Narcissistic personality disorder is charac-
terized by
54. Extreme sadness or feeling overly happy A. an unstable self image
then suddenly sad; examples are depres-
sion and bipolar disorder B. feelings of inadequacy
A. psychotic C. social isolation
B. personality D. inflated sense of self
C. mood 59. the primary anti-anxiety medications are

D. somataform the
A. benzodiazepines
55. A patient asks how to manage pain for a
DVT. What would be the most appropriate B. antihistamines
response? C. thiazides
A. Warm, moist compress D. salicylates
B. Ibuprofen prn 60. loss of body function (paralysis)
C. Cool compresses A. dissociative disorder
D. Bedrest B. conversion disorder (functional neuro-
56. Anita is a 28 year old lawyer who wants logic symptom disorder)
to speak more fluently at work. She C. post-traumatic stress disorder
reports the use of many “tricks” and D. acute stress disorder
to speak more fluently. She is not em-
barrassed about her stutter and has she 61. Condition of dry skin due to deficiency of
learned to accept it. She hasn’t had ther- sebum
apy for a while and is finding her speech is A. Asteatosis
getting more and more bogged down with
stutters. She is having difficulty being un- B. Chloasma
derstood in the courtroom. She wants to C. Hyperhidrosis
learn some key tools or techniques to be D. anhidrosis
fluent. What type of therapy emphasis
would you recommend? 62. Mr. Scott Yeager’s middle name is
A. fluency shaping A. Luke
B. Lidcombe B. Michael
C. Palin C. Dwayne
D. stuttering modification D. Christopher

63. Why are Prozac, Zoloft, and Paxil called 67. The conception of psychological disorders
SSRI’s? are biologically based sickness is known
as the
A. They speed recovery from episodes of
depression. A. Psychoanalytic theory
B. They slow the normal reabsorption of B. Humanistic perspective
excess serotonin from synapses. C. Medical model
C. They successfully level the emotional D. Biopsychosocial approach
NARAYAN CHANGDER
highs and lows of bipolar disorder.
D. They are antagonists and decrease 68. Liam is a 5-year-old boy who is doing ok
serotonin levels academically but struggling in coomunicat-
ing at school and home. His teachers have
64. What therapeutic drugs are used to control noticed that he often has difficulty follow-
bipolar disorder? ing directions, and he frequently misun-
derstands what others are saying to him.
A. Mood stabilizers Liam’s parents report that he has always
B. Antianxiety drugs been a bit slow to start talking, and that
he still has difficulty forming complete sen-
C. Antipsychotics
tences. He also struggles with pronuncia-
D. Antidepressants tion, often substituting one sound for an-
other. He has difficulty producing certain
E. No drugs available
sounds, particularly those that require him
65. Insight therapies aim to improve psycho- to move his tongue or lips in a specific way.
logical functioning by ADHD has already been ruled out. Make
Liam’s diagnosis:
A. Discouraging people from using an-
tidepressant drugs. A. Language disorder
B. Speech Sound Disorder
B. Using progressive relaxation to reduce
anxiety. C. Language Disorder with Speech Sound
Disorder
C. Increasing a person’s awareness of
underlying motives and defenses. D. Stuttering
D. Using personality tests to accurately 69. This approach focuses on the motor produc-
diagnose the person’s difficulties. tion of speech sounds and its main target
E. Eliminating a person’s awareness of is to correct the production of the target
motives and defenses. sounds.
A. Traditional Articulation Therapy
66. What is Neurological?
B. Complexity Approach to Therapy
A. bloating, nausea, constipation
C. Articulation approach
B. muscle loss, low or irregular heart-
beat D. none of above
C. difficulty concentrating, sleep apnea 70. A norm is:

D. hormonal changes-estrogen, testos- A. a rule for accepted and expected be-
terone, thyroid haviors within a particular culture

B. an exaggeration of normal, acceptable B. therapy

behavior C. anxiety

C. an idea that is marked normal by one D. dissociative amnesia
individual and accepted by the rest
75. What do we use to diagnosis and classify
D. distressing for the individual or those
disorders?
around them
A. Trained professionals (psychologist
71. The child was communicating with his and counselors) do it
mom, but the mother noticed that the child B. The DSM-5
says “weally” instead of “really”. What
type of phonological disorder did the child C. Research Papers
exhibit? D. Intuition
A. Palatal Fronting 76. A is the disruption of the normal func-
B. Gliding of Liquids tions of the body because of the presence
of a disease.
C. Final Consonant Deletion
A. Disease
D. Reduplication
B. Disorder
72. B-CELL:Increased levels of IgM. Absence of C. Malfunction
CD40 ligand on T helper cell
D. Irritation
A. Bruton’s X-Linked Agammaglobuline-
mia 77. PHAGOCYTE:Absence of Integrin, Absence
of L-selectin (CD62l) and Sialyl-Lewis X-
B. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
modified glycoprotein (CD15s). Also Ab-
(CVI)
sence of CD18/CD11 adhesion receptors
C. Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia on T cells, neutrophils and monocytes
D. X-linked Hyper IgM Syndrome A. Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
73. Patient G has extreme highs and lows. B. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
One minute she is hyperactive. The next C. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect/Lazy
minute she is depressed. Then, the next Leukocyte Syndrome
minute she is angry for seemingly no rea- D. Complement Component Deficiency
son. Patient G may be suffering from
what disorder? 78. Which of the following best represents a
A. Bipolar Disorder humanistic explanation for an anxiety dis-
order?
B. Dissociative Disorder
A. Lower-than-normal levels of inhibitory
C. Major Depressive Disorder neurotransmitters like GABA result in
D. Schizophrenia higher levels of anxiety
E. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. Irrational and maladaptive thought
processes lead to increased levels of anx-
74. A patient has loss of memory due to psych iety
rather than physiological causes. what is C. Anxiety results when an individual ex-
this an example of? periences a gap between his ideal self and
A. schizophrenia his real self.

D. Anxiety is either classically or oper- harasses people. Last month he was ar-
antly conditioned rested for theft, and though he is in jail
he continues to lie and have little remorse
79. Channing really thinks that he’s all that. for his actions. Jeff is suffering from what
In his world, everything revolves around mental disorder?
him:he thinks everyone should do things
A. Major depression
for him but doesn’t really care what hap-
pens to others, even his friend and family. B. Schizoid personality disorder
He also seems to like to take a lot of self- C. Histrionic personality disorder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ies. What is he probably suffering from?
D. Antisocial personality disorder
A. Schizoid Personality Disorder
84. What is the term used to describe the abil-
B. Borderline Personality Disorder ity of an individual with IDD to live inde-
C. Histrionic Personality Disorder pendently and function in society?
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder A. Intellectual functioning
B. Adaptive behavior
80. Into how many clusters does the DSM-V
organize the 10 personality disorders? C. Social skills
A. 4 D. Emotional intelligence
B. 5 85. Which assessment measure evaluates per-
C. 3 son’s beliefs about their ability to change
stuttering?
D. 10
A. locus of control scale
81. It is the periodic shedding of one or more B. OASES
nails, either in the whole or in part.
C. S-24
A. Onychoptosis D. A-19
B. Onycholysis
86. Which type of nail has a noticeably thin,
C. Onychophagy white nail plate, and is more flexible than
D. Onychocyptosis a normal nail?
A. Leukonychia
82. Dyslexia is a neurodevelopmental disorder
and is characterised by reading achieve- B. Bitten
ment (e.g. accuracy, speed and comprehen- C. Eggshell
sion) being significantly below standards D. Ingrown
expected for which of the following
A. chronological age 87. COMBINED B & T CELLS:Abnormality in in-
tegral membrane (CD43); gene responsi-
B. IQ ble for defect; WASP gene
C. Schooling experience A. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
D. All of these (SCID)
B. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome(WAS)
83. Jeff has total disregard for the rights or
properties of others. He steals all the C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia (AT) Syndrome
time from just about anyone. He randomly D. none of above

88. A dark band within the nail plate extend- 93. Def insulin production
ing from the base to the free edge due to
A. DM Type 1
increased pigmentation is;

B. Sjofren’s Syndrome
A. melanin nails
C. Myasthenia Gravis
B. onycholysis
D. Goodpasteur’s Syndrome
C. onychophagy
D. melanonychia 94. How can you improve your sleep quality?
A. learn anatomy until 2 a.m.
89. Which of the following is classified as a
mood disorder? B. watch Netflix
A. Schizophrenia C. turn off your phone before going to bed
B. bipolar disorder D. exercise right before going to sleep
C. Panic disorder 95. The term refers to a condition caused
D. Delusional disorder by injury or disease of the nail unit.
A. Nail psoriasis
90. Evaluate the following symptoms and
determine which disorder would most B. Nail pterygium
likely be diagnosed:Repeated, distressing C. Nail disorder
dreams and intrusive memories of a life-
threatening experience. D. Nail service
A. Agoraphobia 96. A normally functioning 65-year-old who

B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder cannot solve abstract logic puzzles as
quickly as he did when he was younger is
C. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder experiencing a
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder A. phenomenon that is uncommon for
people of his age
91. learning to limit self-criticism and to give
and receive compliments are interventions B. phenomenon predicted by Erik Erikson
for patients who are experiencing as part of the eight stages of psycho-
social development
A. risk for harm to self
C. decrease in his crystallized intelli-
B. low self-esteem
gence
C. anxiety
D. decrease in his fluid intelligence
D. unresolved greif
97. Helping people gain insight into the uncon-
92. conversion disorders and illness anxiety scious origins of their disorder is a central
disorder (hypochondriasis) are example of aim of
A. mood disorders A. cognitive therapies.
B. somatic symptom disorder B. systematic desensitization.
C. panic disorders C. biomedical therapies.
D. post-traumatic disorders D. psychoanalysis.

98. A therapist who uses classical conditioning D. Self-help groups can’t help people feel
principles to treat a spider phobia is likely less alone in dealing with problems
to have which approach?
A. Behavioral approach 103. Which of the following is identified with
client-centered therapy?
B. Humanistic approach
A. providing advice, setting goals, and
C. Cognitive approach
giving interpretations
D. Psychodynamic approach
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. dream analysis, transference, and
E. Medical Model
analysis of resistance
99. An individual who bites his or her nails C. unconditional positive regard, empa-
may be said to have thy, authenticity, and reflection
A. onychocryptosis
D. goal-setting, desensitization, model-
B. trumpet nail ing, and recentering
C. onychopagy
104. Which form of therapy has most directly
D. onychomycosis
contributed to the sharp reduction in the
100. disorders are characterized by exces- number of residents in U.S. mental hospi-
sive, persistent fear and apprehension and tals?
by related disturbances of behavior. A. psychosurgery
A. anxiety
B. cognitive therapy
B. body dysmorphic
C. electroconvulsive therapy
C. obsessive-compulsive
D. drug therapy
D. personality
101. COMBINED B & T CELLS:Rare lympho- 105. Jackson is a four year old boy. He has
cyte syndrome, X-linked SCID, Adenosine been stuttering since he was two years
Deaminase Deficiency old. His mother indicates that, although
A. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency the severity fluctuates from day to day it
(SCID) never is less than an SR of 4 on a scale
of 10 and sometimes escalates to a 7. His
B. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome(WAS) stuttering is characterized by blocks and
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia (AT) Syndrome prolongations and he demonstrated some
frustration which his longer stutters. His
D. none of above
preschool teacher reports he is starting to
102. What is one difference between self-help withdraw in the classroom and is not an-
groups and therapy groups? swering questions anymore. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Participants only give help in self-help
groups A. beginning stuttering
B. Participants only receive help in self- B. borderline stuttering
help groups
C. intermediate stuttering
C. Self-help groups don’t have a profes-
sional leader D. none of above

106. The disorder in which the edges of the 111. This is a therapy for mental disorders in
nail plate curl around to form a sharp cone which a person with a problem talks with
at the free edge is called a psychological professional.

A. splinter hemorrhages A. Psychotherapy
B. trumpet nail B. Insight Therapy
C. purogenic granuloma C. Action Therapy
D. onychophagy D. Biomedical Therapy
107. Involves administering, over several 112. What do you call this condition where
weeks, brief electrical current through the there are white spots appearing on the
brain. Used to treat severe depression, nails?
acute mania, schizophrenia. A. Bluish nails
A. Mood-stabilizing medication B. Corrugations
B. ECT C. Leuconychia
C. Lobotomy D. Onychauxis
D. Antipsychotic medication 113. Infectious diseases are diseases caused
by an organism such as a virus or a bac-
108. is an inherited disorder that causes
terium, which is called a:
severe damage tothe lungs, digestive sys-
tem and other organs in the body. A. pathogen
A. Marfan syndrome B. toxicant
B. Cystic fibrosis C. pandemic
C. taysachs syndrome D. carcinogen
D. none of above 114. What are targets and goals based on?
A. Normative data
109. Which sex chromosomes would indicate a
typical human female? B. developmental charts
A. XX C. intelligibilty
B. X D. childs age
C. XY E. Family concerns and personal feelings
D. XXY 115. Mental health workers label behavior

as psychologically disordered when they
110. atypical behaviour is judge it to be:
A. behaviour that is normal for an individ- A. biologically based, unconsciously moti-
ual vated, aggressive, and difficult to change
B. behaviour that is abnormal for an indi- B. maladaptive, unjustifiable, disturbing,
vidual and atypical
C. behaviour that prevents a person from C. prejudice, unconsciously motivated,
living a normal life fake, and insane
D. none of above D. selfish, habitual, and avoidable

116. Alice’s mother suffers from bipolar disor- B. dissociation.

der. This puts Alice at risk of developing C. learned helplessness.
bipolar disorder in the future due to her
family history. Which type of factor would D. a psychological disorder.
this be considered? 121. The quality of life of people with intel-
A. family history lectual disabilities can be improved signif-
icantly with the help of basic training pro-
B. biological factors
cedures that will equip them with a range
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. life experience of skills depending on their level of disabil-
D. none of above ity. The application of learning theory to
training in these areas is also known as:
117. When your mom starts dating again af-
A. Applied behaviour analysis
ter a divorce, she is demonstrating which
stage of grief? B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
A. Denial C. Applied treatment analysis
B. Acceptance D. Applied cognitive approaches
C. Anger 122. Who does eating disorders affect?
D. Bargaining A. 20 million women 10 million men
B. 30 million women 20 million men
118. Kara’s craving for psychoactive drugs is
so strong that she is unable to function at C. 10 million women 20 million men
work or maintain important relationships D. none of above
with her family. Kara would most clearly
be diagnosed with 123. Moriah has a nail deformity. The general
term for her condition is
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
A. onychosis
B. posttraumatic stress disorder.
B. onychia
C. substance use disorder.
C. onychoposis
D. bulimia nervosa.
D. onyx
119. Visible depressions running across the
width of the natural nail plate that are 124. What is needed to determine severity?
the result of a major illness or injury are A. Intelligibility level
known as B. Grade level
A. hangnails C. Numbers of errors
B. Beau’s lines D. Consistency of errors
C. narrow lines E. Child’s age
D. eggshell nails
125. Authoritative parents can best be defined
120. A syndrome marked by a clinically signif- as
icant disturbance in a person’s thoughts, A. parents who befriend their children
feelings, or behaviors is most clearly an and do not use discipline.
indication of B. parents who are less controlling and
A. free-floating anxiety. behave with a more accepting attitude.

C. parents who try to control the behav- 130. Usually occurs after age 40-Lens hardens,
ior of their children in accordance with a can’t focus on close objects
set standard of conduct.

A. myopia
D. supportive parents who discuss their B. hyperopia
rules and policies with their children.
C. astigmatism
126. False perceptions of reality (including hal- D. presbyopia
lucinations) are a symptom of:
A. Schizophrenia 131. What is a nail condition in which blood
clots form under the nail plate due to a
B. Major Depression small injury of the nail plate?
C. OCD A. Bruised onychia
D. PTSD B. Abnormal nails
127. Emily’s parents first noticed her repet- C. Blue nails
itive movements when she was around D. Bruised nails
2 years old. She would constantly flap
her arms and make repetitive hand move- 132. Joy’s therapist is trying to encourage her
ments, sometimes for hours at a time. De- to take charge of the therapy session. The
spite their attempts to distract her or redi- therapist uses active listening while Joy
rect her attention, Emily would continue discusses her feelings. Which therapy type
with her movements until she became ex- is most likely being described?
hausted.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
A. Tics disorder
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Stereotypic movement disorder
C. Rational emotive behavior therapy
C. Autism
D. client-centered therapy
D. OCD
133. What is Cardiovascular
128. Feeling either mental or physical pain or
A. Bloating, nausea
suffering:
B. Muscle loss, low or irregular heart-
A. Deviant
beat
B. Distress
C. Difficulty concentrating, sleep apnea
C. Dysfunction
D. Hormonal changes-estrogen testos-
D. Danger terone, thyroid
129. Physical trauma or injury to the nail bed 134. EPPP:The onset of OCD in children
which damages the capillaries and allows A. is equally common in boys and girls
small amounts of blood flow
B. is six times more common in girls than
A. hangnail boys
B. trumpet nail C. is four times more common in girls
C. onychophagy than boys
D. splinter hemorrhages D. is more common in boys than girls

135. What do you call the physician specializ- 140. The term refers to significant darken-
ing in respiratory diseases? ing of the fingernails or toenails.
A. Dermatologist A. Melanonychia
B. Pulmonologist B. Nail pterygium
C. Dentist C. Paronychia
D. Neurologist D. Splinter hemorrhages
NARAYAN CHANGDER
136. is a technique used in psychoanaly- 141. PHAGOCYTE:Lack of MAC (C5b6789)
sis in which patients are invited to relate
A. Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
whatever comes into their minds during
the session B. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
A. transference C. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect/Lazy
Leukocyte Syndrome
B. countertransference
C. libido D. Complement Component Deficiency
D. free association 142. assumes that mental disorders are re-

lated to physiologic changes within the
137. A disorder characterized by lack of sleep, central nervous system
trouble falling asleep, or non-restorative
sleep: A. tardive dyskinesia
A. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder B. psychosis
B. Insomnia C. biologic approach
C. Dualism D. parkinsonian syndrome
D. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder 143. A major depressive disorder is most

likely to be characterized by
138. What is another name for ALS? (Amy-
otrophic Lateral Sclerosis) A. delusions of persecution.
A. Prader Willi Syndrome B. alternations between extreme hope-

lessness and unrealistic optimism.
B. Lou Gehrig’s Disease
C. a persistent irrational fear of other
C. Trophic Sclerosis people.
D. Steve Gleeson Disease D. feelings of personal worthlessness.
139. Which term refers to the typical outcome 144. In which type of disorder does the victim
of a disease? usually experience the first attack after a
A. Presentation stressful event?
B. “Etiology A. panic disorder
C. “Prognosis” B. mood disorder
D. “Pathology” C. personality disorder
E. Diagnosis D. dissociative disorder

145. which are active signs of major depres- A. dry mouth

sion in a patient sata B. shuffling gait, faintness upon changing
from a sitting to a standing position

A. psychomotor retardation
B. no spontaneous movement C. muscle rigidity
C. downcast gaze D. abnormal movements
D. agitated movement of hand-wringing 151. a birthmark is also ..
A. leukoderma
146. Nail fungi can be transmitted through
instruments. B. chloasma
A. Sterilized C. lentigines
B. Disinfected D. Nevus
C. Contaminated 152. It refers to the detachment of the nail
from the nail bed
D. Disposable
A. Onychoptosis
147. Which inherited disease is found primar-
B. Onycholysis
ily in boys, and is a disorder that leads to
progressive muscle weakness. C. Onychia
A. Turner’s Syndrome D. Onychomicosis
B. Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy 153. unwanted thoughts, ideas or mental im-

ages
C. Prader Willi Syndrome
A. obsessions
D. none of above
B. compulsions
148. It is bluish in color and may be attributed C. anxiety
to poor blood circulation or heart disorder
D. who cares
A. Eggshell nails
154. A strong, irrational fear of something
B. Bruised nails
specific, such as heights or social situa-
C. Blue nails tions, is called
D. Furrows A. Panic Disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder
149. Run vertically down the length of natural
nail C. Phobia
A. Vertical D. Depression
B. Horizontal 155. Which of the following grades of OPMD if
C. Railway coexisting with other OPMD is categorised
under?
D. Ridges
A. 1
150. several residents in a long term care facil- B. 2
ity have been taking a first generation an-
C. 3
tipsychotic for a prolonged period of time.
which data should the LVN/LPN collect re- D. 4
lated to this drug therapySATA E. 5

156. *Neuromuscular transmission disorder * C. the DSM-5.

Antibodies block or inhibit acetylcholine D. genetically influenced abnormalities.
binding
A. DM Type 1 161. What is the fear of flying called?
B. Sjofren’s Syndrome A. Pteromerhanophobia
C. Myasthenia Gravis B. Entomophobia
D. Goodpasteur’s Syndrome C. Cynophobia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Acrophobia
157. Jairus has concave nails. His nails
showed raised ridges and looks like a 162. What are symptoms of a paranoid type
spoon. What kind of nail disorder does he of schizophrenic?
have?
A. agitative and hyperactive
A. Bluish nails
B. motionless for days on end
B. Bruised nails
C. incoherent speech
C. Hang nails
D. delusions and hallucinations, highly ex-
D. Koilonychia aggerated self-importance, more illogical
delusions
158. skin disorder characterized by light ab-
normal patches 163. what symptoms can major depression in-
A. steatoma clude sata
B. Leukoderma A. appetite disturbance
C. chloasma B. weight issues, fatigue
D. Albinism C. sleep problems
D. loss of interest in activities
159. This personality disorder is characterized
by a pervasive distrust of others, including 164. Which of the following treatments is
even friends, family, and partner. As a re- most often used to help clients who suffer
sult, the person is guarded and suspicious, from obsessive-compulsive disorder?
and constantly on the lookout for clues or
A. Avoidance therapy
suggestions to validate his fears.
B. Exposure therapy
A. borderline personality disorder
B. paranoid personality disorder C. Psychoanalysis
C. avoidant personality disorder D. Cognitive therapy
D. anankastic (obsessive-compulsive) 165. A soldier who returns home from war and
personality disorder has frightening dreams that prevents him
from sleeping at night may be experienc-
160. The medical model of psychologically dis- ing
ordered behavior is most likely to be criti-
cized for neglecting the importance of A. Post traumatic stress disorder
A. social circumstances and psychologi- B. schizophrenia

cal factors. C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. biological evolution. D. mood disorder

166. What is a mark of disgrace associated 171. as patients respond to antidepressant

with a particular circumstance, quality, or medication and their energy level in-
person creases, what risk may increase

A. opinion A. mutism
B. stigma B. panic
C. negativity C. suicide
D. mental health D. hypertension
167. Patient B has open sores on their hands 172. Which of the following is one major dif-
because they wash them excessively. ference between a clinical psychologist and
They may suffer from what psychological a psychiatrist?
disorder? A. A psychiatrist uses biomedical treat-
A. Major Depressive Disorder ment.
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder B. A psychiatrist cannot counsel patients.
C. Schizophrenia C. A psychiatrist uses an eclectic ap-
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder proach.
E. Hypochondraisis D. A psychiatrist treats patients in hospi-

tals.
168. Which disorder is characterized by an
individual having an unrealistic, inflated 173. Electroconvulsive therapy is most effec-
sense of their own importance? tive in the treatment of:
A. Antisocial Personality Disorder A. Phobias.
B. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Dissociative disorders.
C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder C. Schizophrenia.
D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder D. Severe depression.

E. Bipolar disorder
169. a blood clot forms under the nail plate.
forms a dark purplish color. 174. Repetitive thought are called and
A. leukonychia spots repetitive acts are
B. bruised nail A. dysthymics; bipolars
C. hang nail B. obsessions; compulsions
D. discolored nails C. panic; obsessions

D. phobias; traumas
170. Which disease is autosomal dominant and
leads to clusters of cysts to develop, pri- 175. Research has shown that individuals with
marily on the kidneys. schizophrenia have a
A. M.S A. larger hypothalamus
B. Edward’s Syndrome B. smaller hypothalamus
C. Red-Blue Kidney Disease C. larger thalamus
D. Polycystic Kidney Disease D. smaller thalamus

176. john is a young collect student who has C. Antianxiety medication

just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. D. Antipsychotic medication
his concerned parents ask for information
about his diagnosis. which would be cor- 181. Hair follicles filled with keratin and se-
rect and appropriate bum, blackhead
A. schizophrenia is a mental illness that A. Comedone
affects a person’s thinking and distorts B. Milla
his/her view of reality
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. bulla
B. most people with schizophrenia even-
tually require permanent care in a psychi- D. bromidrosis
atric facility
182. Which category of disorder describes con-
C. at this time, no medications or treat- ditions that involve distressing or harmful
ment are available for schizophrenia sexual urges and behaviors?
D. most episodes of schizophrenia re- A. personality disorders
solve within 1 or 2 weeks
B. paraphilias
177. Therapies in which a person with a prob- C. somatic symptom and related disor-
lem is treated with biological or medical ders
methods to relieve symptoms.
D. trauma and stressor-related disorders
A. Biomedical Therapies
183. What is the fear of dogs?
B. Psychotherapies
A. Pteromerhanophobia
C. Insight Therapies
B. Cynophobia
D. Action Therapies
C. Entomophobia
178. Which of the following is a NON COMMU-
D. Acrophobia
NICABLE DISAESE?
A. Diabetes 184. antidepressants that can be taken once
a day without being cardiotoxic; useful in
B. Influenza
treatment of panic disorder and obsessive
C. Chicken pox compulsive disorder
D. Covid 19 A. tricyclic antidepressants
179. mood stabilizer used in the treatment of B. lithium
bipolar disorders C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
A. atypical neuroleptics D. atypical neuroleptics
B. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
185. If a person who stutters reads the same
C. tricyclic antidepressants passage several times, they will stutter
D. divalproex sodium (Depakote) less each time. This phenomenon is called:
180. Treat schizophrenia and other forms of se- A. consistency

vere thought disorder B. adaptation
A. Mood-stabilizing medication C. anticipation
B. Antidepressant medication D. none of above

186. nursing interventions to promote commu- 190. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in
nication with the person who schizophre- which the body produces abnormally thick
nia include which of the following SATA in the lungs and intestines?

A. let the patient know that you do not A. Skin
share his/her delusions
B. Muscle
B. encourage the patient to attend to ac-
tivities in the environment C. Blood
C. point out the flaws in the patient’s il- D. Mucus
logical environment
191. Jim lives in a house that is filled with
D. inform the patient that hallucinations
stuff. Jim has become emotionally at-
are part of the disease
tached to all of the items and cannot get
187. This personality disorder is characterized rid of anything. Which of the following dis-
by an extreme feeling of self-importance, orders does Jim most likely have?
a sense of entitlement, and a need to be A. OCD
admired. He is envious of others and ex-
pects them to be the same of him. He lacks B. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
empathy and readily lies and exploits oth- C. Hoarding Disorder
ers to achieve his aims.
D. Panic Disorder
A. histrionic personality disorder
B. schizoid personality disorder 192. Which of the following is NOT a chromo-
C. schizotypal personality disorder somal disorder?
D. narcissistic personality disorder A. Turner’s syndrome
188. what is Lentigines? B. Downs syndrome

A. sores C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
B. spots D. Huntingdon’s
C. Freckles
193. What is the most common type of
D. acne schizophrenia?
189. A child is engaging in self-injurious behav- A. Residual
iors such as biting their hand and banging
their head, as well as exhibiting aggres- B. Catatonic
sion towards staff by hitting and biting C. Disorganized
them. The child avoids looking people in
D. Paranoid
the eye and also displays a high frequency
of repetitive behaviors, such as pacing and 194. What are examples of functional articula-
hand-flapping, and engages in eating non- tion disorders?
food items.
A. Hearing loss and cleft palate
A. ADHD
B. Autism B. Misarticulation of phonemes
C. Stereotypic movement disorder C. Childhood apraxia and dysarthia
D. Pica D. none of above

195. Psychologists determine whether a per- B. social interactions and culture

son has a psychological disorder based on strongly influence the cognitive develop-
whether his or her behavior ment of a child.
A. is maladaptive C. language does not play a crucial role
B. causes emotional discomfort in cognitive development.
D. a child’s active exploration of the
C. is socially acceptable or not
world strongly influences cognitive devel-
D. all answer choices are correct opment.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
196. What are the side effects of electrocon- 200. Antidepressant drugs work mainly be-
vulsive therapy? cause they RAISE the level of which neu-
A. temporary confusion and temporary rotransmitter:
memory loss A. dopamine
B. permanent memory loss B. norepinephrine
C. flashbacks C. serotonin
D. none of above D. glutamate
197. Contemporary definitions of abnormality 201. a symptom of dissociative disorders is

might include all of the following criteria A. depersonalization
EXCEPT:
B. hypochondraisasis
A. statistical prevalence
C. agitation
B. gender
D. hallucinations
C. deviance from cultural norms
202. The unique combination of feelings,
D. personal distress of discomfort thoughts, and behaviors that make you dif-
E. maladaptiveness ferent from everyone else
198. Joel was advised to receive bone marrow A. self-esteem

transplant, a very risky procedure, to cure B. resilience
his genetic disorder that has caused him C. self-concept
blocked blood vessels and fatigue. Which
of the following disorders is Joel suffering D. personality
from? 203. All of the following are potential tactics
A. Huntington’s disorder to prevent a person from committing sui-
cide EXCEPT:
B. Sickle cell anemia
A. Listen
C. Cystic Fibrosis
B. take threats seriously
D. Achondroplasia
C. tell a teacher, parent or counselor
199. Unlike Piaget’s theory of cognitive devel- D. advise to relax & avoid worry
opment, Vygotsky emphasizes that
A. cognitive development is a universal 204. Today lifestyle disorders have hit our
process that unfolds in largely the same country like an
way for most individuals. A. pandemic

B. epidemics A. Delusions are when people see things

C. academic that no one else can, while hallucinations
are believing the FBI is following you.

D. none of above
B. Hallucinations are bizarre thoughts,
205. is average for the majority of people while delusions are perceptual issues.
A. abnormal C. Delusions are strange thoughts or be-
liefs, like thinking you are a god, whereas
B. normal hallucinations are perceptual issues, like
C. typical hearing voices.
D. none of above D. There is no difference between them
206. What part of the nail contains the nerve 210. Anxious impulses to engage in ritualistic
and the blood supply? behavior is
A. The matrix contains nerves, lymph, A. OCD
and blood vessels B. ADHD
B. The cortex contains nerves, lymph, C. PTSD
and blood vessels
D. GAD
C. The folliax contains nerves, lymph, and
blood vessels 211. An eclectic approach to psychotherapy is
one that
D. The top of the nail contains nerves,
lymph, and blood vessels A. Involves the use of drugs as part of
treatment.
207. To treat nail biting, one can paint a pa- B. Emphasizes the importance of free as-
tient’s fingernails with a bitter-tasting nail sociation.
polish. This procedure best illustrates
C. Involves treatment in a group setting.
A. light exposure therapy.
D. Uses a variety of psychological theo-
B. stress inoculation training. ries and therapeutic techniques.
C. aversive conditioning. E. Utilizes classical and operant condi-
D. systematic desensitization. tioning.
208. Behavioral conditioning therapies have 212. Which model of psychopathology pro-
achieved especially favorable results in poses that mental illness is the result of
the treatment of disease or injury?
A. Bipolar disorder. A. bio-psycho-social model
B. Tardive dyskinesia. B. diathesis-stress model
C. Phobias. C. medical model
D. Major depressive disorder. D. statistical model
E. Paranoid Schizophrenia 213. How to anti-anxiety medications work?
209. What is the What is the difference be- A. increases the amount of serotonin
tween a delusion and a hallucination? B. slows down your nervous system

C. blocks dopamine activity in the brain B. ridged nails

D. it is unknown how they work C. infected finger
214. Which disorder is characterized by an D. pincer nails
inability to establish meaningful relation-
ships, assuming social responsibilities and 219. Mr. Brooks was hospitalized after a ma-
treating people as objects? jor automobile accident in which another
A. Major Depressive Disorder person died. Mr. Books reports having no
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sensation in his legs and is unable to them.
B. SAD Diagnostic studies reveal no physical basis
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder for his symptoms. The patient’s symptoms
D. Avoidant Personality Disorder are typical of the following
A. illness anxiety disorder
215. A friend shows you paperwork from a
doctor stating that he has tinea pedis. B. PSTD
What is his condition?
C. conversion disorder
A. Ingrown nails
D. panic disorder
B. Scaling skin
C. Whitish patches on the nail 220. Behaviour or appearance that is odd, ec-
centric, or peculiar.
D. Athlete’s foot
A. Avoidant PD
216. Which definition describes an indepen-
dent analysis? B. Schizotypal PD
A. Just seeing with the child can/can’t C. Antisocial PD
do. Good for very young/unintelligible
D. Obsessive-Compulsive PD
children.
B. Compare to a correct adult model. 221. Which of the following would be a cogni-
Good for children with few errors and tive symptoms of depression?
good speech intelligibility
A. Lack of desire to eat
C. Determine how well the child is under-
stood by an unfamiliar listener. B. A negative view of oneself
D. none of above C. Experiences of sadness and anger
217. Early to bed and early to rise makes a D. Staying in bed for long hours
man healthy, wealthy, and wise E. Overeating
A. benjamin franklin
B. Charles Simmons 222. Threatening to do harm to yourself or an-
other person:
C. Mahatma Gandhiji
A. Deviant
D. none of above
B. Distress
218. when living sking around the nail is split
or torn. C. Dysfunction
A. hang nail D. Danger

223. Pierre is in good health, but he has be- B. mood disorders

come convinced that his headache is a sign C. tic disorders
that he has brain cancer. Pierre is most

likely suffering from D. dissociative disorders
A. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. 227. A sharp bend in one corner of the nail

B. a conversion disorder. plate creating increased curvature is symp-
tomatic of:
C. post-traumatic stress syndrome.
A. Pincer Nails
D. hypochondriasis.
B. Piculated Nails
224. A person who is diagnosed with major de- C. Eggshell nails
pressive disorder must have at least five
of the depressive symptoms, including at D. Plicatured nails
least one of which of the following symp- 228. Who proposed that their are 5 stages of
toms? death?
A. depressed mood most of the day or lit- A. C. Gilligan
tle interest in activities
B. E. Kubler Ross
B. significant changes in weight or sleep
disturbances C. Freud
C. decreased level of activity or fatigue D. Erikson
D. feelings of worthlessness or trouble 229. a disorder that is characterized by the

concentrating patient experiencing one or more physical
symptoms which they experience as dis-
225. Dillan is a 53 year old man who has been tressing and/or result in significant disrup-
stuttering ever since he can remember. His tion in their daily life
stuttering is severe and he shows facial
grimaces and body movements that are A. post traumatic stress disorder
sometimes bizarre and distracting. He is B. illness anxiety disorder
up for a big promotion at work and wants C. somatic symptom disorder
to improve his stuttering. He scores with
very negative attitudes toward speaking D. acute stress disorder
and many avoidance behaviors. He re- 230. What are the possible recommendations
ports that stuttering has controlled him for treatment?
most of his life and been a cloud over his
head stopping him from happiness. What A. Treatment
is the diagnosis? B. No Treatment, but reassess later
A. Intermediate stuttering C. Treatment postponed
B. Cluttering D. No Treatment
C. Advanced stuttering E. More testing
D. none of above 231. All of the following are categories of
226. The most common examples are anorexia biomedical treatment EXCEPT:
and bulimia A. Insight therapy
A. eating disorders B. Psychopharmacology (Drug therapy )

C. Electroconvulsivetherapy (Shock ther- movements for prolonged periods of time,

apy) and seems unaware of his surroundings
D. Psychosurgery while doing so. He is also frequently clear-
ing his throat and making sudden, invol-
232. The antidepressant drug Prozac does untary vocalizations such as grunts and
which of the following? sniffs. These symptoms have been present
A. Blocks the reuptake of dopamine for several months and have been causing
social and academic difficulties for the boy.
B. Blocks the reuptake of serotonin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Tourette’s Syndrome
C. Decreases the amount of adrenaline in
the blood stream B. Stereotypic movement disorder
D. Levels the amount of epinephrine C. Stereotypic movement disorder with
Tourette’s syndrome
233. Phobic and panic disturbances are exam-
ples of which of the following kinds of dis- D. Autism
order?
237. In David Rosenhan (1973) study, re-
A. Personality
searchers were admitted as patients into
B. Schizophrenic mental hospitals after they falsely claimed
C. Anxiety to hear voices. This study focused on the
negative effects of
D. Somotoform
A. too few mental facilities in the United
234. A therapist whose main task is to en- States
courage clients to test their assumptions
against reality is likely to have which ap- B. lack of sufficient care in mental hospi-
proach? tals
A. Psychodynamic approach C. schizophrenia
B. Cognitive approach D. mental disorders’ diagnostic labels
C. Humanistic approach
238. Which of the following is NOT a nail dis-
D. Behavioral approach ease?
E. Observational approach A. Bruised nail
235. What is another term for the causes of a B. Ingrown nails
psychological disorder?
C. Onycholysis
A. psychopathology
D. Onychoptosis
B. etiology
C. genetics 239. Redness, pain, and swelling are best de-
D. harmful dysfunction scribed as signs of a(n)
A. abrasion
236. A 10-year-old boy is brought to your
clinic due to concerns about his movements. B. deformity
The boy has a history of repetitive, pur-
C. cosmetic defect
poseless movements such as hand flapping
and finger tapping. He performs these D. infection

240. Some genetic disorders are caused by C. a hangnanil

what?
D. nail fungus

A. alleles
B. Mutations in the DNA of genes 245. A person has continuous and unreason-
able fear of embarrassing and humiliating
C. Phenotype themselves in a social situation.
D. Genotype
A. Bipolar l disorder
241. Most combat-stressed soldiers do not B. Social phobia
later exhibit PTSD. This best illustrates
survivor C. Mass hysteria
A. mania. D. Somatization disorder
B. paranoia.
246. A person who experiences prolonged
C. dissociation. episodes of severe unhappiness and loss
D. resiliency. of interest in life would most likely be di-
agnosed with
242. Carter has trouble going on the subway
or other forms of public transportation. A. agoraphobia
When he is in situations where there are B. generalized anxiety
crowds of people and it is hard to quickly
leave, he starts to sweat and has in- C. major depression
creased breathing. His blood pressure D. hypochondriasis
rises and sometimes he feels faint. Carter
is likely experiencing what disorder? 247. Which definition describes relational anal-
A. Specific Phobia ysis?
B. Social Phobia A. Just seeing with the child can/can’t

do. Good for very young/unintelligible
C. Agoraphobia
children.
D. GAD
B. Compare to a correct adult model.
243. orientation in terms of time, date, place, Good for children with few errors and
person, and self, as well as the situation or good speech intelligibility
circumstance the patient finds him or her- C. Determine how well the child is under-
self in stood by an unfamiliar listener.
A. interpersonal approach
D. none of above
B. depersonalization
C. cognitive behavior approach 248. Clients wiwth skin or nails that are in-
fected, inflammed, or swollen should be
D. sensorium
referred to a;
244. Minor damage to the matrix that pro- A. technician
duces a whitish discoloration or white
spots on the nails is; B. physician
A. leukonychia C. stylist
B. melanonychia D. specialist

249. Glands swelling in the throat, stomach 254. If you are suffering from being defensive,
acid damaging the esophagus, and loss of easily offended, or the inability to cope
minerals are all dangers of with criticism you may be experiencing:
A. anorexia nervosa A. Psychosomatic Disorder
B. bulemia B. Paranoia
C. pica C. The Macbeth Effect
D. amylphagia D. Insomnia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
255. Which symptom could be ? ”My dog
250. Nicky refuses to go on a camping trip
asks me to kill people”
with her best friend’s family because of
her fear of snakes. A. Auditory Hallucinations
A. phobia B. Abnormal posture
B. social anxiety C. Manic episode

D. Irrational behaviour
C. post-traumatic stress disorder
E. Hallucinations
D. depression
256. Lack of ONE clotting factor
251. An adopted child’s chances of develop-
ing schizophrenia if the biological A. Thromboembolism
parents have schizophrenia. The child’s B. Thrombocytosis
chances if the adopted parents have C. Thrombocytopenia
schizophrenia.
D. Hemophilia
A. increase; increase
257. What personality disorders fall under
B. do not increase; do not increase
Cluster B?
C. increase; do not increase
A. Paranoid, Schitypal, Schizoid
D. do not increase; increase B. Avoidant, Dependent, Obsessive-
Compulsive
252. Which is the most life-threatening valvu-
lar disorder because it can cause sudden C. Paranoid, Avoidant, Dependent,
cardiovascular collapse? Schizoid
A. Mitral Valve Stenosis D. Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Nar-
cissistic
B. Mitral Valve Prolapse
258. Jane cannot leave her house. She has an
C. Aortic Regurgitation
irrational fear that if she goes outside she
D. Aortic Stenosis will put herself in danger. Which of the
following disorders does Jane most likely
253. Mental illness interferes with a person’s suffer from?
A. occupation A. Social Anxiety Disorder
B. social and family relationships B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. daily tasks C. Specific Phobia
D. all of the above D. Agoraphobia

259. Forrest’s family is really worried. The 263. Which of the following examples best
other day he just got up, put on his shoes, illustrates a person with obsessive-
and took off running. It took a week until compulsive disorder (OCD)?

they found him and he said that he didn’t
A. Steven hyperventilates whenever he is
remember them and that he was actually
in an elevator.
named Dan and was a professional runner.
What is he probably suffering from? B. Shelly complains constantly about feel-
A. Dissociative Amnesia ing sick and goes to many doctors.
B. Dissociative Fugue C. Blake wanders around town in a daze,

not sure how she got there.
C. Dissociative Identity Disorder
D. Schizophrenia D. Adam must lock his door 10 times be-
fore he leaves for work every morning.
E. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
260. Ian has suffered major depression for 264. Cognitive therapists are interested in
several years and his body has been resis- A. only maladaptive thoughts
tant to new medications. The symptoms
B. unconscious thoughts of sex and ag-
are so severe Ian has thought about com-
gression
mitting suicide. What treatment might be
used on Ian? C. what people think, believe, and feel
A. Lobotomy D. only visible behaviors
B. Support Group
265. Which of the following is/are risk fac-
C. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
tor(s) of OPMD
D. Client-centered Therapy
A. Trauma
261. Which of the following is a major goal of
B. Fungi
Aaron Beck’s cognitive therapy?
A. to rid an individual of his or her inter- C. UV
nal negative thought processes D. Bacteria
B. to enable a person to become self- E. All of the above
actualized
C. to help a client change learned or mod- 266. Harley is all over the place. One day
eled behavior she’ll be running around and completing
major projects that don’t even seem possi-
D. to change an individual’s negative be-
ble. The next day, she won’t even move
havior
from her chair and has nothing nice to say
262. According to research presented in class, about herself. What is she probably suf-
which of the following kinds of people are fering from?
statistically more likely to be diagnosed A. Major Depressive Disorder
with major depressive disorder?
B. Dissociative Identity Disorder
A. wealthy people
B. women C. Bipolar Disorder
C. Americans D. General Anxiety Disorder
D. men E. Schizophrenia

267. If a patient has difficulty discarding 271. These are long ridges that run either
items AND continues to excessively ac- lengthwise or across the nail.
quire items that are not needed for which A. Bruised nails
there is no available space, this patient
would likely be diagnosed with: B. Eggshell nails
C. Furrows
A. Hoarding Disorder with good or fair in-
sight D. Hangnails
B. Hoarding Disorder with poor insight 272. Phobic disorder, panic disorder and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Hoarding Disorder with absent in- obsessive-compulsive disorder are specific
sight/delusional beliefs A. mood disorders
D. Hoarding Disorder with excessive ac- B. anxiety disorders
quisition C. personality disorders
D. dissociative disorders
268. Which symptom could be ? ”I love
you:) I want to kill you >:(” 273. Patient A gets anxious, sweats, and their
A. Unclear speech heartrate speeds up when they are at high
altitudes. They may suffer from what psy-
B. Strange posture chological disorder?
C. Irrational behaviour A. Conversion Disorder
D. Changes in behaviour B. Bipolar Disorder
E. Unable to communicate C. Specific Phobias
D. Schizophrenia
269. If your dealing with a eating disorder you
should tell who? Choose all that apply E. General Anxiety Disorder
A. nobody 274. Which term refers to the study of the

causes of a disease?
B. A stranger
A. “Etiology
C. A parent
B. Pathology”
D. none of above
C. “Prognosis”
270. The experiments conducted by Konrad D. “Diagnosis
Lorenz showed that E. Presentation
A. comfort is a key component
275. A soldier experiences a sudden blindness
B. instincts to attach vary widely in a after returning from battle. He would
species most likely be diagnosed with which of the
C. species will often bond better with an following disorders?
animal of another species A. Conversion disorder
D. attachment forms during a critical pe- B. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
riod C. Bipolar disorder
E. attachments to inanimate objects are D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
easily reversed (PTSD)

276. A core feature of all abnormal behavior B. Schizophrenia; Parkinson’s disease

is that it is C. Antisocial personality disorder;

A. Maladaptive schizoid personality disorder
B. Crazy D. Schizophrenia; depression
C. Uncategorized
281. An infant cries when his mother leaves
D. Learned the room but is quickly consoled when
she returns. The infant feels comfortable
277. The discomfort and distress that follow to explore and wander around when the
discontinuing an addictive drug or behav- mother is in the room. Mary Ainsworth
ior is called would describe this infant as having
A. disinhibition.
A. insecure attachment
B. withdrawal.
B. avoidant attachment
C. paranoia.
C. secure attachment
D. dissociation.
D. disorganized attachment
278. What is the irrational fear and avoidance
282. Clients with skin or nails that are in-
of a specific object is?
fected, inflamed, or swollen should be re-
A. Depression ferred to a(n)
B. Anxiety A. stylist
C. Phobia B. physician
D. Fear C. technician
279. As a child, Monica was criticized severely D. esthetician
by her mother for not living up to her ex-
pectations. The criticisms were always fol- 283. An illness, sometimes referred to as
lowed by severe beatings. As an adult, “Manic Depression”, is a psychological
Monica is generally introverted and ex- illness characterized by extreme mood
tremely shy. Sometimes, however, she swings between depression and extreme
acts more like a young child, throwing happiness:
tantrums if she doesn’t get her way. At A. Anxiety Disorder
other times, she is a flirty, happy-go-lucky,
B. Affective Disorder
young woman who says her name is “Con-
nie.” Most likely, Monica is suffering C. Somatoform Disorder
from: D. Bipolar Disorder
A. bipolar disorder
284. Which of the following symptoms is NOT
B. dissociative identity disorder a symptom of obsessive-compulsive disor-
C. dissociative schizophrenia der (OCD)?
D. phobic disorder A. unwanted urges or impulses
280. Excessive dopamine is to as too little B. ritualized behavior

dopamine is to C. severe depression
A. Parkinson’s disease; schizophrenia D. uncontrollable thoughts

285. Lack of perspiration due to a fever or skin C. GAD General Anxiety Disorder
disorder
D. Bipolar Disorder
A. bhloasma
B. anhidrosis 290. What is a general goal of behavioral ther-
apy?
C. chloasma
A. to focus on the present; what and how
D. steatoma of experience
NARAYAN CHANGDER
286. Mutation in the ADA gene that codes for B. accept responsibility
adenosine deaminase enzyme
C. to change maladaptive behaviors by in-
A. Rare lymphocyte Syndrome creasing personal choice and to create
B. X-linked SCID new conditions for learning
C. Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency D. help clients differentiate realistic, un-
realistic, self-defeating, and life enhanc-
D. none of above
ing goals
287. Ted hears voices telling him the govern-
ment has implanted a chip in his brain 291. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
to monitor his actions. He also believes symptoms include which of the following
agents are following him and have embed- A. Repetitive thoughts, images or im-
ded listening devices in his books. Re- pulses that are unwelcome, produce anxi-
cently he felt his coffee has tasted differ- ety, and are difficult to control.
ent and he assumes their may be low-dose
poisoning occurring in his food and drink. B. Fear of being in large social situations
Ted is most likely suffering from which dis- C. period of greatly heightened elevated
order? mood, increased activity and energy
A. OCD D. A pattern of disregarding and violating
B. Panic Disorder the rights of others
C. GAD
292. Which of the following does NOT cause
D. Schizophrenia onychorrhexis?
288. Individuals who have reported paralysis A. Injury to the matrix

of a limb, blindness, or seizures with no B. Heredity
physical or neurological damage are most
likely suffering from C. Aggressive filling techniques
A. conversion disorder D. Insufficient use of cuticleremovers

B. somatic-symptom disorder 293. The condition in which the living skin
C. illness anxiety disorder around the nail splits and tears is:
D. factitious disorder A. Hangnail
289. Mood Swings from manic to depressive. B. Beau’s lines

A. Anxiety Disorder C. Melanonychia
B. Clinical Depression D. Onychophagy

294. Emily is a 10-year-old girl who has been C. aversive conditioning.

experiencing learning difficulties in school.
D. systematic desensitization.
She struggles to read, write, and perform

basic arithmetic operations. Emily’s par- 298. In order to be classified as having major
ents have noticed that she takes longer depressive disorder the person must have:
to understand and follow instructions and
has difficulty with daily living activities, A. At least 2 symptoms for 3 weeks
such as brushing her teeth or getting B. At least 3 symptoms for 4 weeks
dressed. Emily’s teacher has also noticed
her difficulties and suggested that she be C. At least 4 symptoms for 2 weeks
evaluated by a psychologist. The psychol- D. At least 4 symptoms for 3 weeks
ogist conducted an IQ test and found that
Emily’s IQ score to be 65. 299. Who was Philippe Pinel?
A. ADHD A. a French physician
B. Intellectual disability with specific B. a reformer
learning disability
C. a French mathematician
C. Intellectual disability
D. a neurologist
D. Specific learning disorder
300. Marfan’s syndrome can affect
295. wanted to see if researchers could
get admitted to mental hospitals when A. heart function
complaining of auditory hallucinations.
B. pigment protein
A. Wundt
C. vesicle formation
B. Rosenhan
D. hair loss
C. Watson
D. Rene 301. Which term refers to the nature of a dis-
ease?
296. What percentage of people who stutter
A. Presentation”
have a family history of stuttering?
B. Diagnosis”
A. 40-70%
B. 30-60% C. Etiology”
C. 25-30% D. “Pathology”
D. 70-85% E. Prognosis
297. Jonathan is afraid to ask a girl for a date, 302. patient experiences cycles of significantly
so this therapist instructs him to relax and elevated ( or very irritable) or depressed
simply imagine he is reaching for a tele- mood
phone and then calling a potential date. A. dementia
The therapist’s technique best illustrates
the process of B. dissociative disorder
A. free association. C. bipolar disorder
B. cognitive therapy. D. agoraphobia

303. Patient E is distant from friends and fam- B. Asteatosis

ily. She acts out in violent ways and C. eczema
shows no remorse for those she hurts. She
tries to manipulate the people around her. D. Milla
Patient C may be suffering from what dis-
308. A teacher taught her students to take
order?
turns by giving them stars to trade for
A. Phobias snacks at the end of the day. This tech-
B. Catatonic Schizophrenia nique is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder A. systematic desensitization
D. Major Depressive Disorder B. token economy
E. Conversion Disorder C. classical conditioning
D. humanistic therapy
304. in its most severe form, major depression
can also include what symptoms 309. The DSM-5 is most clearly designed to
A. orthostatic hypotension psychological disorders.
B. psychosis A. explain
C. tardive dyskinesia B. classify
D. parkinsonian syndrome C. cure
305. Blue or purple nail bed to poor circulation D. prevent
A. blue finger nail 310. projecting intense, unrealistic feelings

B. bruised nail and expectations from the past onto the
therapist
C. koilonychia
A. transference
D. eggelled nails
B. free association
306. Which form of analysis is being de- C. resistance
scribed; The child’s production is com-
pared to the adult target to iden- D. unconditional positive regard
tify:*Types of errors*Absent distinctive
311. What disease affects hemoglobin a pro-
features*Phonological error patterns or
tein in red blood cells that carry oxygen?
constraints*Whole-word acquisition pat-
terns*Phonemic inventory A. Down Syndrome
A. Independent Analysis B. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Relation Analysis C. Sickle-Cell
C. Intelligibility Analysis D. Hemophilia
D. none of above 312. Which of the following is not true about
307. an inflammatory, painful itching disease obsessions in OCD?
of the skin. presenting many forms of dry A. Patients cannot attempt to ignore, sup-
or moist lesions press, or neutralize obsessions
A. Bulla B. Obsessions can be impulses

C. Obsessions are recurring and persis- 317. A person who is admitted to a mental
tent hospital who forgot who she was, aban-
doned her family, and traveled to a differ-

D. Obsessions can be thoughts or images
ent state might be diagnosed with which
313. most patients with dissociative identify of the following kinds of disorders?
disorder report severe A. mood disorders
A. agoraphobia B. anxiety disorders
B. halluncination
C. dissociative disorders
C. delusions
D. personality disorders
D. childhood abuse
318. A drug named ‘Ritalin’ has been found
314. Antianxiety drugs are most likely to be quiet effective on treating children with
used in combination with psychological
A. IDD
therapy to treat
B. Autism
A. Post traumatic stress disorder.
C. ADHD
B. Bipolar disorder.
C. Antisocial personality disorder. D. Stereotypic Movement Disorder
D. Paranoid schizophrenia. 319. antidepressant drug that affects sero-

E. Major Depressive Disorder tonin and epinephrine/norepinephrine;
may cause cardiac complications
315. Which of the following describes the idea A. tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
that psychological disorders can be di-
agonsed and treated? B. atypical neuroleptics
A. The psychodynamic approach C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs)
B. The DSM
D. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C. The medical model
(MAOIs)
D. The biospcyosocial approach
320. Which of the following is considered a
E. The cognitive aproach
psychotic disorder?
316. Which of the following is evidence of a A. Bipolar disorder
possible biological cause of anxiety disor-
B. Major depression
ders?
C. Cyclothymic disorder
A. Anxiety seems to be related to espe-
cially stressful events, such as trauma. D. Schizophrenia
B. Even when raised in different fami- 321. In which form of therapy is unwanted be-
lies, identical twins sometimes have sim- havior systematically associated with un-
ilar phobias. pleasant experiences?
C. Young children can learn to be fearful A. electroconvulsive therapy
by watching others.
B. systematic desensitization
D. Infant monkeys learn to be fearful and
anxious by watching older monkeys expe- C. cognitive therapy
rience fearful situations. D. aversive conditioning

322. A person who has generalized anxiety A. Diagnostic and Statisical Manual of
disorder would have which of the follow- Mental Disorders
ing?
B. International Classification of Dis-
A. Vague feeling of being in danger eases
B. Muscle tension C. Minnesota Multi-phasic Personality In-
C. Poor appetite ventory
D. Difficulty sleeping D. Catalogue of Psychiatric Disorders
NARAYAN CHANGDER
323. Walking across the stage at graduation 328. Which genetic disorder is caused by a
is an example of? dominant allele?
A. Distress A. Huntington’s
B. Mistress B. Hemophilia
C. Eustress C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Nonstress D. PKU
324. What type of therapy is Carl Rogers as- 329. Which definition describes intelligibility?
sociated with?
A. Just seeing with the child can/can’t
A. Client-Centered do. Good for very young/unintelligible
B. The Token Economy children.
C. Cognitive Therapy B. Compare to a correct adult model.
Good for children with few errors and
D. Psychoanalysis good speech intelligibility
325. Nails that reflect the lack of O2 due to C. Determine how well the child is under-
health problems or medications. stood by an unfamiliar listener.
A. Discolored nails D. none of above
B. Onychophagy
330. Following are the causes that weaken the
C. Blue fingernails immune system except
D. Koilionychia A. Stress
326. Frequent pauses in breathing for a short B. Exposure to polluted air
period of time during sleep are charac- C. Exposure to pesticides
terised for
D. Healthy diet
A. restless leg syndrome
B. sleep apnea 331. one of the most common psychiatric dis-
orders
C. insomnia
A. bipolar disorder
D. shift work disorder
B. major depression
327. The most widely used manual for the clas-
C. post-traumatic stress disorder
sification of psychological disorders in the
US is D. conversion disorder

332. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of B. Mood Disorder

Mental Disorders 5th Edition, is also called
C. Dissociative Disorder

A. DSM 2
D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. DSM 4
C. DSM 5 337. Psychoanalysis, desensitization, reality
D. DSM 69 therapy, behavior therapy, and client-
centered therapy are all forms of
333. Allison got detention for refusing to do
A. somatotherapy
a presentation in class. She would have
explained that it was because she didn’t B. psychic therapy
want to get negative feedback for it, but
then her teacher would have criticized her. C. group therapy
She knows she sucks at public speaking, so D. psychotherapy
she just couldn’t do it. What is he proba-
bly suffering from? 338. If I have a headache and run around
A. Avoidant Personality Disorder telling everyone I have the plague, then
I am demonstrating symptoms of what?
B. Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Histrionic Personality Disorder A. Conversion Disorder
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder B. Hypochondrias
334. PHAGOCYTE:Absence of NADPH oxidase; C. Generalized Anxiety

suppurative infections D. Schizophrenia
339. What do Scale, thrips, aphids, and fungus
B. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
gnats have in common?
C. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect/Lazy
Leukocyte Syndrome A. They are all insects and can be treated
with insecticide.
D. Complement Component Deficiency
B. They are all diseases and should be
335. A normal healthy nail is firm and flexible treated with fungicide.
and should be:
C. They are all environmental disorders.
A. Uneven and unspotted
D. None of them have a chemical control
B. Smooth and unspotted
that can be used.
C. Long and unspotted
D. Short and unspotted 340. All of these factors EXCEPT which one in-
crease the likelihood of persisting in stut-
336. Garry is usually shy and unassuming, tering:
but occasionally his personality totally
changes to a boisterous, overbearing and A. being a girl
mean personality. He even changes his B. stuttering longer than a year
voice pattern and typical dress. Garry is
likely to be diagnosed with C. more than 50% atypical disfluencies
A. Schizophrenia D. family history of persistent stuttering

341. Cystic Fibrosis is a recessive trait. Which 346. Excessive dopamine is linked with
phenotype will show from a heterozygous A. Parkinson’s disease
genotype (Cc)?
B. Schizophrenia
A. CC
C. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Cc
D. Depression
C. cc
347. fractures occur in vertebrae subjected
D. Normal (unaffected or carrier) to extreme stresses as in a fall
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Cystic Fibrosis (affected) A. spiral
342. These depress central nervous system ac- B. compression
tivity. Examples include Xanax and Ati- C. transverse
van.
D. potts
A. Mood-stabilizing medication
348. Psychological disorders that can be over-
B. Antidepressant medication come with techniques such as countercondi-
C. Antianxiety medication tioning are most likely to be treated with
D. Antipsychotic medication A. Psychosurgery.
B. Psychotherapy.
343. What is the innermost layer and most del-
icate layer of the eyeball where photore- C. Client-centered therapy.
ceptors are located? D. Psychoanalysis.
A. Sclera E. Unconditional Positive Regard
B. Choroid 349. is caused from a severe deficiency of
C. Retina calcium, vitamin D and phosphate.
D. Cornea A. osteoporosis
B. osteoarthritis
344. Warning signs that someone may be
struggling with their mental health include C. rickets
(choose all that apply): D. clubfoot
A. low energy 350. When a person’s ability to work and live
B. feeling helpless is clearly, often measurably impaired:
C. feeling forgetful & confused A. Deviant
D. being unable to complete normal tasks B. Distress
C. Dysfunction
345. Tiny pits or severe roughness on the sur-
face of the nail are signs of which condi- D. Danger
tion? 351. out of men have autism
A. Paronychia A. 41
B. Onychocryptosis B. 44
C. Nail psoriasis C. 43
D. Onychomycosis D. 42

352. Which of the following OPMDs have a 357. In which disorder do people alternate
high predilection to occur in female? between states of lethargic hopelessness
and wild optimism?

A. PVL
B. OSMF A. panic disorder
C. Leukoplakia B. bipolar disorder
D. Actinic cheilitis C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
E. Erythroplakia D. schizophrenia
353. ACCORDING TO WHO WHICH IS THE 358. What percentage of children who have
MOST NEGLECTED DISEASE IN PUBLIC been stuttering for 2 years or more are
HEALTH likely to spontaneously recover?
A. BLINDNESS A. 3%
B. OBESITY B. 71%
C. ANEMIA C. 74%
D. none of above D. 10%
354. used in the treatment of bipolar disorder 359. What supports the eyeball and provides
with narrow therapeutic range; may cause attachment for muscles?
toxicity signs including tremors-important A. Cornea
to maintain hydration and monitor renal
function and serum blood levels of drug B. Optic Nerve
A. tricyclic antidepressants C. Sclera
B. lithium D. Lens
C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors 360. Which genetic disorder is autosomal re-
D. atypical neuroleptics cessive, where the person has little to no
production of the pigmentation melanin in
355. How many different categories are there the skin cells.
in the DSM-5? A. albinism
A. 12 B. ALS
B. 8 C. Ichthyosis
C. 18 D. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
D. 22
361. Discolorations of the nail plate from in-
356. Overactivity of which neurotransmitter fections of the fingernails or toenails are
causes schizophrenia? usually the result of a
A. Dopamine A. viral infection
B. Serotonin B. mold
C. Norepinephrine C. bacterial infection
D. Histamine D. fungus

362. Oscar spent much of February in bed, A. Inflexibility

lethargic and sad. His mood improved, B. Impairment in relationship functioning
however. Then in April, he bought a
$3000 plane ticket to Europe. Without C. Maladaptive traits
telling his family, he emptied most of his D. Major depression
savings account to go on a shopping spree
during his travels. He is elated and unable 367. Evaluate the following symptoms and de-
to sleep in anticipation of his trip. Oscar is termine which disorder would most likely
most likely suffering from:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
be diagnosed:Symptoms take on a bodily
A. Narcissistic personality disorder form without apparent physical cause.
B. Schizophrenia A. Conversion Disorder
C. Bipolar disorder B. Bipolar Disorder

D. Dissociative amnesia C. Schizophrenia
D. Dissociative Identity Disorder
363. A group of nervous system brain disor-
ders characterized by repeated seizures 368. The purpose of free association is to:
over time
A. Help bring unconscious content to the
A. epilepsy surface
B. dementia B. Change the client’s thought process
C. meningitis C. Facilitate changing negative behaviors
D. cerebral palsy
D. Rid a patient of inappropriate sexual
364. What is the full form of SAD? desires
A. What KJ said 369. Which is an example of a speech impair-

B. Simple Anxiety Disorder ment?
C. Separation Anxiety Disorder A. Lack of ability to express thoughts
D. Separation Anxiety Dysfunction B. Stuttering
C. Problem understanding communica-
365. Which of the following is an example of
tion
a self-fulfilling prophecy?
A. You hear someone say they are hungry D. none of above
so you become hungry 370. An atypical behavior is one that:
B. You think you are bad at art, in turn you
A. is so different it violates a norm
become bad at art and fail your class
B. is troublesome to other people
C. Your mom says you should drive safe
to avoid a ticket, then you get a ticket C. occurs without a rational basis
D. You don’t like school, so you fail your D. is destructive to yourself or others
classes
371. Indira, a third-grade teacher, frequently
366. Which of the following characteristics is suffers from dizziness, heart palpitations,
NOT a symptom of a personality disor- muscular tension, and fatigue. She is also
der? continually agitated and unable to relax

outside the classroom, but she cannot pin- C. Behaviorism

point a reason for her problems. Her be- D. Cognitive
havior is most indicative of a(n)

A. generalized anxiety disorder. 376. Choose all the circadian rhythm sleep dis-
orders
B. phobia
A. Shift work disorder
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B. restless leg syndrome
D. dissociative disorder.
C. hypersomnia
372. Lilly is now 35 years old. She just started D. non-24-hour sleep wake disorder
therapy because she feels “down in the
dumps” and it’s affecting her family life 377. Evaluate the following symptoms and
and job performance. She is most likely determine which disorder would most
suffering from likely be diagnosed:Frequent overeating
followed by vomiting in an attempt to con-
A. Bipolar Disorder
trol weight.
B. Depressive Disorder
A. Bulimia Nervosa
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Anorexia Nervosa
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Obesity
373. fracture is produced by twisting D. Hypermetabolism
stresses that spread along the length of
the bone 378. Comorbidity is
A. transverse A. deaths resultant from psychological
disorders
B. greenstick
B. when one disorder results from an-
C. comminuted other
D. spiral C. co-occurrence of two disorders in the
same individual
374. Which of the following nail disorders is
caused by dry cuticle? D. the use of two different diagnosis man-
uals to identify disorders
A. Hangnails
B. Onychatrophia 379. In addition to their use in treating depres-
sion, antidepressant drugs are now being
C. Onychophagy
used to treat
D. Pterygium
A. auditory hallucinations and delusions
375. This model explains disorders such as ofpersecution.
anxiety, depression, and schizophrenia as B. tardive dyskinesia and attention-
caused by faulty neurotransmitter sys- deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
tems, genetic problems, brain damage and C. anxiety disorders, obsessive-
dysfunction, or some combination of those compulsivedisorder, and posttraumatic
causes. stress disorder.
A. Biological D. antisocial personality disorder and dis-
B. Psychodynamic sociativeidentity disorder.

380. Reducing patients’ anxiety by having 385. What did the Rosenhan study illustrate?
them repeatedly experience in safe set- A. The dangers of the medical model.
tings the things they fear and often avoid
is most central to B. The dangers of hallucinations.
A. a token economy. C. The dangers of diagnostic labels.

D. the benefits of psychological treat-
B. exposure therapies.
ment
C. free association.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
386. While he was studying, Matthew was
D. aversive conditioning. suddenly overwhelmed by feelings of in-
tense apprehension. For several minutes
381. B-CELL:Person lacking a specific IgG sub-
he felt so agitated that he could not catch
class → vulnerable to certain kinds infec-
his breath. Matthew was most likely suf-
tions but not others.
fering from a(n):
A. Hyper IgE
A. Bipolar disorder
B. IgA Deficiency B. Dissociative disorder
C. Isolated IgG Subclass Deficiency C. Dysthymic disorder
D. none of above D. Panic attack
382. Which is not a time management strat- 387. Which psychologist is most associ-
egy? ated with Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
A. Say NO (CBT)?
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Prioritize
B. Socrates
C. Use a to-do list
C. Aaron Beck
D. Procrastinate
D. B.F. Skinner
383. Which term refers to the way a disease
388. An integrative therapy that aims to mod-
displays itself via symptoms?
ify both self-defeating thinking and dys-
A. ‘’ “” “Etiology” functional actions is known as
B. Pathology A. Psychoanalysis.
C. Prognosis B. Client-centered therapy.
D. “Presentation C. Behavior modification.
E. Diagnosis D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
E. Humanistic therapy
384. The following are characteristics of high
self esteem: 389. A therapist decides to treat their patients
A. Optimistic arachnophobia by getting them to look at
pictures of spiders until their anxiety is re-
B. Allows change duced. What type of therapy is this?
C. Pessimistic A. Systematic desensitisation
D. Confident B. Counterconditioning

C. CBT 395. Which nerve transmits information from

D. Exposure therapy the eye to the brain?

A. Optic
390. Which of the following is NOT a sign of
depression? B. Olfactory
A. having a hard time concentrating C. Occulomotor
B. changes in appretite and/or weight D. Trigeminal
C. increased energy level 396. Harry Harlow’s experiment with mon-
D. thoughts of death keys and surrogate mothers emphasized
the importance of
391. In comparison to generalized anxiety dis-
A. satisfying hunger.
order, panic disorder is characterized by
periods of distress that are B. body temperature.
A. more intense and more prolonged. C. fulfilling needs.
B. less intense and less prolonged. D. contact comfort.
C. more intense and less prolonged. 397. This is characterized by the presence of
D. less intense and more prolonged. two or more distinct personality states.
392. A fundamental problem with the diagnos- A. Dissociateive Amnesia

tic labeling of psychologically disordered B. Dissociative Fugue
behaviors is that the labels often C. Dissociative Identity Disorder
A. bias our perceptions of the labeled per- D. Depersonalization
son.
B. represent attempts by psychologists 398. Which of the following is an example of
to explain behavior by simply naming it. a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
C. interfere with effective research on A. Hallucinations
the causes of these disorders. B. Flat affect
D. interfere with effective treatment of C. Catatonia
these disorders. D. Social withdrawal
393. A is a medical condition that stops the
399. What is the fear of a storm called?
body from working normally.
A. Claustropobia
A. Disorder
B. Astraphobia
B. Disease
C. Typanophobia
C. Malfunction
D. none of above
D. Irritation
400. James grew up in an abusive household.
394. Which Disorders are in Cluster A?
He suffers from anxiety & depression due
A. Schizoid, Schizotypal, OCD to his childhood trauma. Which type of fac-
B. OCPD, OCD, ODD tor would this be considered?
C. Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal A. family history
D. Antisocial, Narcissistic, Borderline B. biological factors

C. life experience 404. what are side effects of anti-anxiety

medications that are associated with seda-
D. none of above
tionsata
401. Which is not a physical exam finding of A. drowsiness
peripheral artery disease? B. fatigue
A. Clubbing of fingernails C. dizziness
B. Shiny, hairless legs D. confusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Intermittent claudication
405. A psychological disorder that is character-
D. Thin, brittle fingernails ized by specific symptoms of inattention
and/or ability to focus.
402. Regarding Rational-Emotive therapy, it
A. Bipolar Disorder
can be said that
B. Anorexia Nervosa
A. critics suggest that it is really a type of
psychoanalysis C. Attention Deficit Disorder
B. having irrational beliefs is related to D. Bulimia Nervosa

feelings of unhappiness 406. Patient J stays in a hyperactive and
C. surrendering one’s irrational beliefs is overtly optimistic state. He exhibits fast
best achieved by operant conditioning speech, rapid movements, and an inflated
self-esteem. Patient J may be suffering
D. most irrational beliefs occur at the un-
from what?
conscious level and can’t be stopped
A. Hallucinations
403. Gabby woke up feeling worthless and B. Panic Attack
hopeless. She can’t stop crying. After tak-
ing a nap and relaxing, she suddenly feels C. Manic Episode
much better, as if, she could take on the D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
world. Gabby starts remodeling her bed- E. Depressive Episode
room. Then, she films herself remodeling
her bedroom and posts it all over the inter- 407. A nail condition that is safe to work
net (because she will be the next Joanna within the salon is
Gaines). After that, Gabby goes and tries
A. onychosis
on every prom dress at Nordstrom and
posts pictures of it on Instagram. Gabby B. onychia
believes that Nordstrom expects her to C. onychophagy
be a model for them. She looks amazing.
Gabby goes three days without any sleep D. paranychia
before she hits a wall and sleeps for a 408. Constant fear that is irrational and
week. caused by a specific object or situation.
A. Major Depressive Disorder A. Specific phobia
B. Bipolar Disorder B. Dysthymic disorder
C. Minor Depressive Disorder C. Mass hysteria
D. Schizophrenia D. Conduct disorder

409. preoccupation with having or acquiring a 414. When you emotional response does not
serious illness when medical finding are ab- match the situation, you may be exhibit-
sent ing:

A. personality disorder A. PTSD
B. post-traumatic stress disorder B. Psychosomatic Disorder
C. obsessive compulsive disorder C. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D. illness anxiety disorder D. Paranoia
410. Which of the following is NOT an anxiety
415. What is the name of the disease that is
disorder?
very closely related or thought to be the
A. Agoraphobia beginning of Alzheimer’s?
B. Panic Disorder A. Huntingtons
C. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Dementia
C. Neurodegeneration
411. Which of the following is true about com- D. MS
pulsions in OCD
A. Compulsions are a response to an ob- 416. Foul smelling perspiration
session A. hyperhidrosis
B. Compulsions may arise due to rules B. bromihdrosis
that are applied to rigidly
C. steatoma
C. Compulsions may not be realistically
related to the obsession D. asteatosis
D. Compulsions may be behaviors or men- 417. The presence of two or more chronic illne-
tal acts sess is called
E. All of the above A. OCD
412. a pattern of instability in interpersonal B. mental illness
relationships, self-image, and affect as C. comorbidity
well as marked impulsivity
D. major depressive
A. boderline personality disorder
B. specific phobia 418. Lisa is conducting a study on hours of TV
watched throughout one’s lifespan. She
C. panic disorder
begins by taking a group of two 10 year
D. delirium olds, three 15 year olds, three 20 year
413. What is Gastrointinal? olds and so on (increments of 5 years, up
to 35 years of age.) Which method of re-
A. bloating, nausea, constipation search is she using?
B. muscle loss, low or irregular heart-
A. Cross sectional study
beat
B. Experimentation
C. difficulty concentrating, sleep apnea
D. hormonal changes-estrogen, testos- C. Longitudinal study
terone, thyroid D. Case study

419. Which best describes disorganized B. As maladaptive responses to a trou-

schizophrenia? bling environment.
A. Involves only hallucinations and delu- C. As learned habits that need to be extin-
sions guished.
B. symptoms are completely gone D. an eclectic approach that incorporates
C. incoherent language, inappropriate all 7 persepctives
emotions & poor motor behavior
424. Rational-emotive therapy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. motionless for long periods of time
A. pairs the stimulus that triggers un-
420. a condition that may occur after 1-2 wanted behaviors with more desirable be-
weeks of treatment with antipsychotic haviors
medications consisting of mask-life face, B. guides the client in testing the logic of
rigid posture, shuffling gait, and resting their thoughts and helps them develop log-
tremor ical ways of thinking
A. tardive dyskinesia
C. deleting illogical, self-defeating
B. psychosis thoughts
C. biologic approach D. none of above
D. parkinsonian syndrome
425. Depressions running across the width of
421. If Lawrence Kohlberg were to present the nail plate are:
you with a moral dilemma, in which of the A. Ridges
following would he be MOST interested?
B. Beau’s lines
A. your judgment of right and wrong in
this situation C. Splinters
B. what you would do in this situation D. Agnails
C. whether your intended behavior in this 426. Which of the following valvular disorders
situation is consistent with your moral would you expect to hear a diastolic mur-
judgment about it mur?
D. your reasons for whatever moral judg-
A. Mitral Stenosis
ment you had about the situation
B. Mitral Regurgitation
422. whitish discoloration, caused by minor in-
C. Aortic Stenosis
jury to the matrix.
A. leukonychia spots D. Mitral Valve Prolapse
B. discolored nails 427. A procedure that trains people to make

C. onychophagy new responses to stimuli that currently
trigger unwanted responses is called
D. eggshell nails
A. rTMS.
423. How does the medical model describe
B. transference.
psychological disorders?
A. As sicknesses that need to be diag- C. counterconditioning.
nosed and cured. D. unconditional positive regard.

428. Mental health professionals agree that 433. What has contributed to the decline of
all of the following are criteria for abnor- people being institutionalized?
mal behavior EXCEPT

A. Lobotomies
A. Difference
B. ECT
B. Dysfunction
C. biomedical treatments like medication
C. Deviance
D. talk therapy
D. Danger
429. A disturbing behavior is one that: 434. To apply the biopsychosocial theory cor-
rectly, I need to:
A. is destructive to yourself or others
A. Apply a biological theory only
B. occurs without a rational basis
B. Apply a psychological theory only
C. is troublesome to other people
D. that is so different it violates a norm C. Apply a social theory only
D. Apply at least one biological, psycho-
430. a patient with bipolar who is taking di- logical and social theory
valproex ( Depakote) is advised that blood
samples will taken periodically to monitor 435. Which of the following is NOT caused by
for which adverse effect a gene mutation but instead because there
A. liver damage is a missing a sex chromosome (only have
B. dystonic reaction 1 X chromosome)?
C. kidney damage A. Turner’s syndrome

D. extrapyramidal syndrome B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Cystic fibrosis
431. What does it mean for a therapist to take
an eclectic approach to therapy? D. Hemophilia
A. They prescribe the use of drugs as part
436. In an integrated approach, during what
of psychotherapy.
stage does the PWS learn to describe their
B. They use a variety of psychological the- stuttering?
ories and therapeutic approaches.
A. modification
C. They use both token economies and be-
havior therapies. B. desensitization
D. none of above C. identification
432. A psychological disorder marked by the D. generalization

appearance of one or more of three key
437. Opens and closes to adjust the total
symptoms:extreme inattention, hyperac-
amount of light entering the eye.
tivity, and impulsivity.
A. ADD A. Pupil
B. GAD B. Sclera
C. OCD C. Cornea
D. ADHD D. Human lens

438. sebaceous cyst or fatty tumor 443. The condition in which a blood clot forms
A. lentigines under the nail causing a dark purplish spot,
is:
B. steatoma
A. Discolored nails
C. anhidrosis
D. nevus B. Bruised nails
439. A typical bacteria infection on the nail C. Eggshell nails
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plate can be identified in the early stages D. Plicatured nails
as a spot that become darker in its ad-
vance stages. 444. Recently at work, Ronan has taken to
A. Orange-red dressing in long metal armour, similar to
B. White-grey a knight in the middle ages. Ronan is pro-
ducing high quality work despite his ap-
C. Blue-green pearance. According to the approach,
D. Yellow-green Ronan is behaving abnormally, while ac-
cording to the approach Ronan may be
440. The drugs used to control hallucinations behaving normally.
and other psychotic symptoms are called
A. statistical; functional
A. anti-depressants
B. energizers B. functional; medical
C. minor tranquilizers C. sociocultural; functional
D. anti-psychotics D. sociocultural; statistical
441. Chronic systemic inflammatory disorder
in which joint cartilage, ligaments, and ten- 445. Apprehension of danger and dread accom-
dons are destroyed. panied by restlessness, tension, tachycar-
dia, and dyspnea unattached to a clearly
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus identifiable stimulus.
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A. phobia
C. HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS
B. fear
D. GRAVE’S DISEASE
C. anxiety
442. A generalized anxiety disorder is charac-
terized by: D. frustration
A. A continuous state of tension, appre-
hension, and autonomic nervous system 446. What is multiple personality disorder’s
arousal new name given by the American Psychi-
atric Association in 2006?
B. Offensive and unwanted thoughts that
persistently preoccupy a person A. Interpersonality amnesia
C. Hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of B. Hysterical neurosis
emotion
C. Dissociative identity disorder
D. Alternations between extreme hope-
lessness and unrealistic optimism D. Double Consciousness

447. Jennifer is a timely person and always C. Proadaptive

arrives to work at the exact same time.
D. Conadaptive
She is never late or misses a day that

she is scheduled. One day Mark asked 451. Tiny pits or severe roughness on the sur-
Jennifer to switch days with him because face of the nail plate is an indication of
he needed a particular day off. Jennifer
became very agitated and very confused A. local infection
questioning why would anyone want her B. ingrown nails
to change her schedule. Jennifer thought
C. nail psoriasis
it was inconsiderate to ask her to switch
days with him because she works the D. athlete’s foot
same time and days every week. This
works best for Jennifer. What is Jennifer 452. Which are signs of a healthy relation-
diagnosed with? ship?
A. Defiance A. Good communication
B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) B. Honesty and trust
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) C. Doesn’t share personal experiences
D. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Dis- D. Offers support
order (OCPD)
453. Which condition is characterized by nail-
448. What are examples of neurological artic- sthat are noticeably thin, flexible, and
ulation disorders? white?
A. Hearing loss and cleft palate A. Melanonychia
B. Misarticulation of phonemes B. Plicatured nail
C. Childhood apraxia and dysarthia C. Agnail
D. none of above
D. Eggshell nails
449. What term is used to describe largely
unconscious defensive manoeuvres by a 454. What is the most common disorder?
client intended to hinder the progress of A. Phobias
therapy?
B. Depression
A. Transference
C. Schizophrenia
B. Therapeutic obstacles
D. Cyclothymia
C. Resistance
D. Maladaptive behavior 455. Bizarre behaviors in catatonic
schizophrenics are examples of:
E. Unconscious conditioning
A. positive symptoms
450. Anything that does not allow a person
B. negative symptoms
to function within or adapt to the stresses
and everyday demands of life. C. ideas of reference
A. Maladaptive D. signs
B. Adaptive E. syndromes

456. Individuals with Autism tend to repeat 461. antipsychotic agent that treat both posi-
certain words or phrases multiple times, tive and negative symptoms of schizophre-
this can be termed as? nia; example are Clozaril, Zyprexa, and
A. Idiosyncratic speech Seroquel
A. tricyclic antidepressant
B. Echolalia
B. lithium
C. Language Disorder
C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
D. Communication difficulties
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. atypical neuroleptics
457. Patient D has grandiose feelings. He
thinks his ideals are superior to all others. 462. What is autism?
He has started his own cult and convinced A. It affects the way a person is able to
his followers he is a prophet. Patient B express their thoughts/opinions, and also
may be suffering from? their social interaction skills
A. Social Phobia B. It affects the way a person is able
to communicate, express their feel-
B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
ings/opinions, and social interactions
C. General Anxiety Disorder
C. It affects the learning abilities of a per-
D. Paranoid Schizophrenia son, causing them to become slow learn-
E. Histrionic Personality Disorder ers leads to dyslexia
D. It affects the way a person communi-
458. Schizophrenia is linked to overactive cates and interacts
neurotransmitters
463. Patients with endocarditis would most
A. Norepinephrine
likely have or need:(Select all that apply)
B. Endorphins
A. Long-term IV access
C. Dopamine
B. Blood cultures
D. GABA C. Acetaminophen
459. Symptoms of mental illness in which a D. Develop a heart valve disease
person experiences thoughts and ideas
464. is the wear and tear our bones and
that are not biased on reality; include hal-
joints experience over time
lucinations and delusions
A. osteoarthritis
A. psychosis
B. osteoporosis
B. paranoia
C. rickets
C. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D. spina bifida
D. bipolar disorder
465. Post-Traumatic stress disorder may be a
460. Which is not an example of social phobia result of
A. public speaking A. poor nutrition
B. eating in public B. divorce
C. dating C. hereditary problems
D. jogging alone D. damaging events

466. Desensitization is primarily used to 471. How many types of Personality Disor-
A. alleviate phobias or anxieties ders clusters exist?

B. overcome destructive habits A. One
C. symbolically reward positive behavior B. Five
D. decrease free-floating anxiety C. Three
467. Evidence of a disease that can be seen by D. Two
others
472. In the early stages, a typical bacterial in-
A. Sign
fection on the nail plate can be identified
B. Symptom as a
C. Acute A. white, lengthwise ridge
D. Chronic
B. nail deformity
468. To avoid acidity one should avoid and C. separation of the nail
D. yellow-green spot
A. Junk Food
B. fruits 473. patient experiences as marked persistent
C. oily food fear that is excessive or unreasonable and
works hard to avoid the feared objects or
D. vegetables situation
469. In a modern art museum, Mira comes A. specific phobia
across an abstract furniture exhibit. She
sees one particular piece that looks like a B. panic disorder
desk, but is later told it is actually a book- C. delirium
shelf. After looking at the furniture piece a
little longer, she then sees it can be a book- D. dementia
shelf. This concept of learning is called
474. which is not a characteristic of Anxiety
A. functional fixedness
A. nervousness
B. assimilation
B. sweating
C. accomodation
D. mental set C. light-headed
D. extreme happiness
470. Khloe walked into a police station looking
disheveled and confused. She could not re-
475. A condition in which a person alternates
member her name, didn’t recall where she
between extreme happiness, called mania,
came from, and couldn’t remember any-
and extreme sadness.
thing about her past. She has experienced:
A. Reaction depression
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) B. Depression
C. Anterograde amnesia C. Major or Clinical depression
D. Schizophrenia D. Bipolar disorder, or manic depression

476. Psychoanalysis is a form of treatment A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

that is a result of the work of this psy- B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
chologist
C. Phobia
A. BF Skinner
D. Dissociative Disorder
B. Sigmund Freud
481. What is the range of normal IQ?
C. Carl Rogers
A. 70-80
D. Albert Bandura
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 80-90
477. Which term refers to techniques and tests
C. 85-115
used to identify a disease?
D. 120-140
A. Presentation”
B. “Etiology” 482. Peter is deathly afraid of spiders. When-
ever he sees one, he screams and runs out
C. “Pathology”
of the room and will not return until he
D. Diagnosis” sees evidence that it has been killed. What
E. “Prognosis” is he probably suffering from?
A. Social Phobia
478. What is the DSM-V?
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
A. A book that classifies all known mental
disorders C. A Specific Phobia
B. A new mental disorder D. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
C. An informational magazine 483. Split or torn skin around the edge of the
D. It doesn’t exist nail
A. Hang nail
479. Lisa is an owner of a car dealer in Cary,
B. Bruised Nails
IL. She starts telling all the people at the
dealership that they can have cars for free C. Blue Finger Nail
because she has just invented the first car D. Beu’s LInes
that doesn’t need gas to run, but instead
runs on human brains. When her workers 484. The disorder most connected to a com-
try to stop her from giving away free cars, pletely distorted reality:
she responds by smashing in car windows A. The Macbeth Effect
on the lot. She is clearly exhibiting signs
B. Paranoia
of
C. Psychosomatic Disorder
A. schizophrenia
D. Schizophrenia
B. depression
C. mania 485. Which of these would be the easiest level
of practice linguistically?
D. anxiety
A. carrier phrase and a word
480. Evaluate the following symptoms and de- B. 2-4 word sentences
termine which disorder would most likely
be diagnosed:Feelings of apprehension and C. conversation
fear without warning or explanation. D. none of above

486. Which of the following is a major goal of C. eating disorder

Aaron Beck’s therapy? D. none of above

A. to rid an individual of his or her inter-
nal negative thoughts 491. A person suffering from re-
experiences a catastrophe in the form of
B. to change an individual’s negative be- flashbacks or nightmares.
havior
A. OCD
C. to enable a person to become self-
actualized B. GAD
D. to help a client change learned or mod- C. PTSD

eled behavior D. none of above
487. Excessive or irrational fear out of propor- 492. B-CELL:Impaired of IL-2 production. Hy-
tion to the actual danger peractive Th2. Prone to allergic reactions.
A. Phobia A. Hyper IgE
B. Panic disorder B. IgA Deficiency
C. General anxiety disorder C. Isolated IgG Subclass Deficiency
D. Acute anxiety disorder D. none of above
E. Dissociative identity disorder 493. In rational-emotive therapy
488. A type of physician that diagnoses and A. clients are encouraged to take respon-
treats mental disorders is a? sibility for their own choices
A. psychiatrist B. clients learn to challenge irrational be-
liefs
B. psychologist
C. the therapist seeks to have the client
C. social worker
discover rational insights on his or her
D. counselor own
489. Which of the following is a social factor D. irrational elements of the unconscious
contributing to schizophrenia? are made to conform to reality
A. difficulty remembering and reasoning 494. All of the following are symptoms of
B. abnormal brain structure schizophrenia except:
C. living with a family who express emo- A. delusions
tion intensely B. flat affect
D. none of above C. manic behavior
490. Edward is a competitive bodybuilder & D. disorganized speech

experiences extreme emotions, attitudes, 495. Who can get mental illness?
and behaviors involving his weight and
food. Which type of disorder is he possibly A. anyone
suffering from? B. young children
A. anxiety disorder C. adults
B. mood disorder D. elderly

496. If a client has ridges running vertically 501. A person troubled by repetitive thoughts
down the length of natural nail plate, it or actions is experiencing what?
is recommended that you:
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
A. File them agressively
B. Panic Disorder
B. Buff them carefully
C. Thin the nail plate C. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
D. Refer the client to a physician D. Mood Disorder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
497. Antisocial personality disorder is most
502. A condition that may develop after expo-
likely to be characterized by
sure to a terrifying event.
A. a persistent, irrational fear of people.
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
B. episodes of intense autonomic ner-
vous system arousal. B. OCD
C. disruptions in conscious awareness C. Generalized anxiety disorder
and sense of identity.
D. Bipolar disorder
D. a lack of guilt feelings.
498. A patient with dysrhythmias is admit- 503. A fracture is an ankle fracture that af-
ted to your unit. In addition to monitor- fects both the medial malleolus of the tibia
ing ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), and the lateral malleolus of the fibula
what is an important nursing intervention
A. potts
for this patient?
A. Make sure they are never detached B. colles
from the cardiac monitor C. transverse
B. Teach their family members on CPR
D. greenstick
C. Assist the patient to and from the bath-
room and apply a falls risk identification
504. At what stage does Piaget say some-
band
one starts to deal with abstract ideas and
D. Make sure they get coffee in the morn- thinking logically about real life events?
ing and a sleeping pill at night
A. Formal Operational Stage
499. lack of melanin pigment of the body
B. Concrete Operational Stage
A. bromhidrosis
C. Sensorimotor Stage
B. albinism
C. cicatrix D. Preoperational Stage
D. steatoma
505. An unjustifiable behavior is one that:
500. Which is not a speech-sound error?
A. is so different it violates a norm
A. distortions
B. is troublesome to other people
B. substitutions
C. omissions C. occurs without a rational basis
D. cluttering D. that is destructive to yourself or others

506. Which of the following is not true of indi- C. clubfoot

viduals with Trichotillomania (hair-pulling) D. osteomalacia
or Excoriation (skin-picking) disorders?

A. Behaviors can be triggered by bore- 511. What type of treatment could be used
dom with both cluttering and neurogenic stut-
tering?
B. The behaviors usually occur when the
A. easy onset
individual is alone or around family
B. pacing
C. The behavior is typically painful for the
individual C. decreasing avoidance behavior
D. Behaviors can occur automatically, D. none of above
outside of conscious awareness 512. Carl responds to certain objects or situa-
507. Which parasite, under some conditions, tions with fear and dread, especially large
can cause infections to the feet and group settings. Which type of disorder is
hands? he possibly suffering from?
A. Plicature A. anxiety disorder

B. mood disorder
B. Onychiosis
C. eating disorder
C. Fungi
D. none of above
D. Flagella
513. Behavior therapy can be divided into cat-
508. The learning (behavioral) perspective egories of
states that the main cause of mental dis-
orders is: A. counter-conditioning and operant con-
ditioning
A. reinforcement of maladaptive behav-
ior learned through experience. B. manifest content and latent content
C. rational-emotive therapy and aversive
B. irrational thought processes.
conditioning
C. internal conflict from one’s childhood.
D. resistance and transference
D. chemical imbalance within the brain.
514. In an integrated approach, which of
509. The medical term for fungal infections as- these would be done in the desensitization
sociated with the feet is: stage?
A. Tinea pathogenic A. Learning about speech helpers
B. Tinea pedis B. Teaching a peer how to stutter
C. Tinea alopecia C. Practicing easy onset
D. Paronychia D. Listing ways you avoid stuttering
510. is a spectrum of bone disorders rang- 515. Patient H has delusional and irrational be-
ing from mild to severe and life threaten- haviors. He doesn’t seem to have a firm
ing grip on reality. He sometimes hallucinates
and sees people who are not there. Pa-
A. osteogenesis imperfecta tient H may be suffering from what disor-
B. rickets der?

A. Major Depressive Disorder A. Schizoid Personality Disorder

B. Schizophrenia B. Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
D. Bipolar Disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder
E. Autism 521. Absence of Type 1 (MHC Class 1) Type
II (MHC Class II) → no loading of peptide
516. another term for scar fragments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. chloasma A. Rare lymphocyte Syndrome
B. bromhidrosis B. X-linked SCID
C. leukoderma C. Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency
D. cicatrix D. none of above
517. You make an appointment to see a ther- 522. many people with obsessive-compulsive
apist and, at your first meeting the ther- disorders have considerably reduced their
apist tells you that he believes that most symptoms once therapeutic levels of which
psychological disorders are a result of neg- type of drug have been reached
ative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs. A. analgesics
What type of therapist are you seeing? B. antihistamines
A. cognitive C. antidepressants
B. client-centered D. anticonvulsant
C. psychoanalytic
523. With this type of dissociative amnesia a
D. behavioral person has prolonged memory loss.
518. What is the technical term for nail? A. Localized
B. Systematized
A. Noil bed
C. Continuous
B. Nuertique
D. Generalized
C. Onyx
D. Tyfon 524. What are examples of organic articula-
tion disorders?
519. Moving your leg away from the mid line A. Hearing loss and cleft palate
is
B. Misarticulation of phonemes
A. circumduction C. Childhood apraxia and dysarthia
B. adduction D. none of above
C. abduction
525. What are the diseases listed below that
D. none of above apply to nails that should not be treated in
a beauty salon?
520. Bruce really doesn’t like people. He
works doing computer coding from home A. Any nails that show sign of infection or
and has no interest in making any friends inflammation
or having a romantic relationship. What is B. Any nails that show signs of redness,
he probably suffering from? pain or swelling

C. Any nails that show sign of hard work- 531. Byron is very harmful to his sister. When
ing he becomes upset he hits her and uses pro-
fanity when expressing his anger. No mat-

D. Any nails that show sign of a broken
nail ter what anyone tells him he continues to
act out his frustration and tries to harm
526. A person who alternates between hope- anyone around him. What is Bryon diag-
lessness and an overexcited and unreason- nosed with?
ably optimistic state might be most likely
A. Histrionic Disorder
to be diagnosed with which disorder?
A. major depressive disorder B. Borderline Disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder C. Narcissistic Disorder

C. bipolar disorder D. Conduct Disorder
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder
532. The theory that states that mental disor-
527. If schizophrenia runs in a person’s family, ders can develop when a biological predis-
what are the individual’s odds of getting position to the disorder is set off by stress-
the disorder? ful circumstances is:
A. 1 in 1, 000 A. Cognitive-behavioral model
B. 1 in 100 B. Medical model
C. 1 in 10 C. Biological
D. 1 in 5
D. Biopsychosocial
528. What are the effects of muscular dystro-
phy on the body 533. Which Erikson’s Psychosocial stage:In the
stage of middle adulthood, you start de-
A. weak muscles
veloping the feeling of contributing to soci-
B. distorted facial features ety and your family. If an adulthood does
C. damaged nerve cells not feel this contribution, they might go
through a “midlife crisis”.
D. long limbs
A. Generativity V. Stagnation
529. (a) are examples of nutritional disorders.
B. Integrity V. Despair
A. Iron deficiency
B. nitrogen deficiency C. Intimacy V. Isolation
C. Shore flies D. none of above

D. Scale 534. antidepressant drugs that require strict
E. Leafhopper diet restriction to avoid hypertensive cri-
sis
530. An ingrown nail is called a(n) is called
A. atypical neuroleptics
A. onychocryptosis
B. onychopagy B. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C. trumpet nail C. monoamine oxidase
D. onychomycosis D. lithium

535. Today, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is C. Onychophagy

MOST likely to be used as a treatment for
D. Pterygium
patients with
A. schizophrenia. 540. What is the confidence and pride you
have in yourself?
B. schizophrenia who have not re-
sponded to antipsychotic drugs. A. Self-Concept
C. major depression. B. Self-Esteem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. major depression who have not re- C. Self-Actualization
sponded to antidepressant drugs.
D. Mental Health
536. SELECT ALL Deal with platelet NUMBERS
541. Which disease or disorder is the result of
A. thrombocytopenia having an extra chromosome 21?
B. thrombocytosis
A. Cats-cry disease
C. thrombopoiten
B. Down Syndrome
D. thromboembolism
C. Colorblindness
537. Which of the following best illustrates D. PKU
insight-based therapy?
A. A client takes various psychoactive 542. excessive sweating
drugs to treat a mental disorder. A. bulla
B. The therapist combines various tech- B. chloasma
niques from many different therapeutic
approaches. C. hyperhidrosis
C. A therapist and client work together D. hyperhidrosis
with the goal of identifying the problem
and reaching a possible solution. 543. a process of changing a gene to treat cys-
tic fibrosis is
D. The therapist helps the client discov-
ered the true cause of the problem, which A. Human Genome Project
might initially be hidden from the patient. B. genome
538. A feeling or physical change experienced C. biotechnology
by the patient D. gene therapy
A. Chronic
544. Vygotsky noted that children can achieve
B. Acute
beyond their current abilities with assis-
C. Symptom tance. This assistance that is provided to
D. Sign children to bridge the gap is known as
A. mentoring.
539. It is an overgrowth of the nail usually in
thickness rather than length. B. helping.
A. Onychauxis C. scaffolding.
B. Onychatrophia D. support.

545. Nearsightedness is also known as C. Being in places with no escape

A. Myopia D. Speaking in public

B. Hyperpopia
551. The side effect associated with taking
C. Presbyopia traditional antipsychotic drugs that is char-
D. none of the above acterized by chronic tremors and involun-
tary spastic movements is
546. Immune complex are formed and lodged
A. infindibular recidivism.
in the basement membrane of kidney, skin
and joints B. tardive dyskinesia.
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. tachycardia palpitations.
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. MAO inhibition.
C. HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS 552. A mother gives her child an orange for
D. GRAVE’S DISEASE the first time. The child rolls it across the
table and says, “ball.” Which Piagetian
547. which features are assessed during the process would account for this behavior?
mental status examination sata
A. seriation
A. appearance
B. accommodation
B. mood and affect
C. conservation
C. speech and language
D. assimilation
D. thought content
553. Seeing one-eyed monsters would be a(n)
548. The separation and falling off of a nail
Believing that you are Christopher
from the nail bed is a sign of:
Columbus would be a
A. Onychia
A. delusion; compulsion
B. Paronychia
B. obsession; delusion
C. Onychomadesis
C. hallucination; compulsion
D. Pynogenic granuloma
D. hallucination; delusion
549. Which symptom could be ? ”I see my
dead dad in every male’s face” 554. Jeff has total disregard for the rights or
properties of others. He steals all the
A. Hallucinations time from just about anyone. He randomly
B. Delusions harasses people. Last month he was ar-
rested for theft, and though he is in jail
C. Sleepless night
he continues to lie and have no remorse
D. Disorientation for his actions. Jeff is suffering from what
E. Unclear speech mental disorder?
A. Major depression
550. Agoraphobia is the fear of:
B. Schizoid personality disorder
A. Heights
B. Being embarrassed or judged by oth- C. Histrionic personality disorder
ers D. Antisocial personality disorder

555. GAD, panic, and phobias are formally 560. thin white nail plates that are more flex-
classified as disorders. ible than normal
A. Psychotic A. leukonychia
B. Manic B. bruised nails
C. Personality C. blue finger nails
D. Anxiety D. eggshell nails
NARAYAN CHANGDER
556. Vic has unpredictable and repeated at- 561. What type of disorder is OCD classified
tacks of overwhelming anxiety that fre- as?
quently leave him dizzy, nauseous, short A. Somatoform Disorder
of breath, and in tears. A psychologist is
likely to view Vic’s behavior as indicative B. Mood Disorder
of C. Anxiety Disorder
A. a panic disorder D. Personality Disorder
B. psychotic breakdown
562. Lithium is typically used for
C. dissociative breakdown A. bipolar disorder
D. obsession B. anxiety
557. amnesia and dissociative identify disor- C. amnesia
der are examples of D. somatoform disorders
A. somatic symptom disorders
563. Which form of analysis is being described;
B. dissociative disorders The child’s speech sound productions are
C. panic disorder described without reference to the adult
D. post-traumatic stress disorder model. Determine sounds that are in the
child’s phonetic inventory (regardless of
558. Samantha often has persistent feelings whether they are used in the correct way
of sadness mixed with periods of feeling in words). Determine prosodic patterns,
overly happy. Which type of disorder is articulatory features, syllable structures
she possibly suffering from? and word shapes that child uses. Deter-
mine phonotactic constraints (word posi-
A. anxiety disorder
tions in which the child doesn’t produce
B. mood disorder specific sounds).
C. eating disorder A. Independent Analysis
D. none of above B. Relation Analysis
559. Which is not a main side effect of SS- C. Intelligibility Analysis

RIs(Antidepressants)? D. none of above
A. hypertension 564. Which of the following is not a common
B. memory loss cause of surface stains on nails:
C. weight gain A. Nail Polish
D. dizzy spells B. Food dyes

C. Smoking 570. difficulty establishing and sustaining

D. Poor blood circulation close relationships associated with a pat-
tern of preoccupation with orderliness per-

565. Formerly called multiple personality dis- fectionism and control to the extend that
order or split personality disorder the major part of the activity is lost
A. mood disorder A. personality disorder
B. dissociative disorder B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. tic disorder C. illness anxiety disorder
D. factitious disorder
D. acute stress disorder
566. what medication narrow therapeutic
range of 0.5-1.5 mEq/L watch for signs 571. fracture is the shattering of a bone
toxicity:-tremulousness; nausea and vom- A. compression
iting, diarrhea, change in level of con-
sciouness B. comminuted
A. carbamazepine C. transverse
B. lamotrigine D. spiral
C. lithium
572. which are interpersonal strategies of a
D. valproic acid therapeutic relationship sata
567. A disease that can be passed to others A. sharing observations
B. accepting silence
A. Acute
C. listening
B. Chronic
C. Communicable D. clarifying, being available
D. Non-communicable 573. Ridges running vertically down the natu-

ral nail plate are caused by:
568. In this theory, stuttering develops be-
cause of lack of cerebral dominance when A. overgrowth and polish
speaking.
B. medication and cold
A. covert repair hypothesis
C. uneven growth and age
B. temperamental reactivity
D. bitten nails
C. hemispheric dominance
D. demands/capacities model 574. This birth related condition results in in-
complete closure of the vertebra around
569. What are the causes of the restless leg
the spinal canal:
syndrome?
A. rickets
A. smoking
B. excessive alcohol intake B. clubfoot
C. unknown C. spina bifida
D. stress D. leukemia

575. Which of these is an example of an envi- 580. What is the maximum IQ score at or be-
ronmental factor related to development low which a diagnosis of Intellectual and
of stuttering Developmental Disabilities (IDD) is typi-
A. awareness of self conscious emotions cally made?
B. family move A. 70 or below
C. sensitive temperament B. 80 or below
D. operant conditioning C. 90 or below
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 100 or below
576. is another epidemic that has hit chil-
dren 581. Jeffrey is an interesting guy. He doesn’t
A. Tooth Decay seem to care about breaking the rules and
has a good amount of friends because he
B. Insomnia seems cool and can be pretty charming.
C. Ulser But sometimes it seems like he doesn’t
D. none of above care about people or what he does to them.
What is he probably suffering from?
577. Inflammation of the nail matrix followed
A. Avoidant Personality Disorder
by shredding of the natural nail plate is
known as B. Borderline Personality Disorder
A. fungi C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
B. onychia D. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. onyx 582. Which of the following is an example of
D. flagella a social factor influencing gambling addic-
tion?
578. PKU is
A. dopamine reward pathway
A. autosomal dominant
B. social acceptance of gambling
B. autosomal recessive
C. illusion of control
C. x linked dominant
D. none of above
D. x linked recessive
583. moving the foot in an upward position is
A. hyperextension
by the person essentially lacks a sense of
self, and, as a result, experiences feel- B. dorsiflexion
ings of emptiness and fears of abandon- C. plantar flexion PATIENT PRESENTA-
ment. There is a pattern of intense but un- TION HISTORY
stable relationships, emotional instability, D. none of above
outbursts of anger and violence (especially
in response to criticism), and impulsive be- 584. Which is NOT a type of anxiety disor-
havior. der?
A. borderline personality disorder A. Obsessives-Compulsive
B. narcissistic personality disorder B. Panic
C. dependent personality disorder C. Post-traumatic
D. antisocial personality D. Somatoform

585. Which Erikson’s Psychosocial stage:infants A. Chronic

basic needs are met, they develop B. Acute

A. autonomy vs shame C. Sign
B. Initiative vs guilt D. Symptom
C. trust vs mistrust
590. These are the types of diseases and dis-
D. Generativity vs stagnation orders caused by poor environmental san-
itation except one.
586. Evaluate the following symptoms and de-
termine which disorder would most likely A. Gastrointestinal Diseases
be diagnosed:Alternating between states B. Skin Diseases
of lethargic hopelessness and wild overex-
C. Rabies
citement.
D. Respiratory Diseases
A. Conversion Disorder
B. Bipolar Disorder 591. A fracture generally occurs in children-
one side of the bone shaft breaks and the
C. Schizophrenia other bends
D. Dissociative Identity Disorder A. spiral
587. Carl Rogers named his technique “client- B. greenstick
centered therapy” to emphasize his belief C. colles
that
D. potts
A. clients should play a major role in de-
termining the pace and direction of their 592. The Zygote stage includes
therapy. A. Conception to 2 months
B. clients should always be the center of B. Conception to two weeks
attention. C. implantation to 2 weeks
C. therapists should always share all of D. none of above
their thoughts, feelings, and experiences
with clients. 593. What is the best examples of core behav-
D. the client is in a position of natural sta- iors of stuttering?
tus and authority over the therapist. A. Repetitions, prolongations,
B. Eye blinking, head nods, etc.
588. Altea Lhouize improperly trim her foot
nails that caused this to grow into the C. Avoiding sounds or words
sides of the flesh and got infected. What D. none of above
is this nail disease?
594. This type of phonological disorder is usu-
A. Ingrown Nails
ally heard in the speech of young children.
B. Onychogryposis This can be eliminated at a certain age.
C. Onycholysis A. Common Phonological Processes
D. Onychomycosis B. Atypical Phonological Processes
589. A short term disease usually less than 3 C. Distortion
months D. Substitution

595. Both the DSM and the ICD have been crit- 599. Extreme disruption in cognition and emo-
icised. Identify a key criticism across both tion affecting language, thought, percep-
the ICD and DSM. tion, emotion, and sense of self.
A. the validity of mental disorders is not A. Clinical Depression
clear. B. GAD General Anxiety Disorder
B. Diagnosis of mental illness and health C. Dememtia
is too subjective.
D. Schizophrenia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. There is debate about whether an in-
dividual is in a mental health category or 600. Jonathan is afraid to ask a girl for a date,
dimension. so his therapist instructs him to relax and
simply imagine he is reaching for a tele-
D. Diagnosis tends to pathologize too phone and then calling a potential date.
many people. The therapist’s technique best illustrates
the process of:
596. In treating alcohol use disorder, thera-
pists have clients consume alcohol that con- A. free association.
tains a nausea-producing drug. This tech- B. cognitive therapy.
nique is known as C. aversive conditioning.
A. Operant conditioning. D. systematic desensitization.
B. Systematic desensitization. E. insight therapy.
C. Aversive conditioning. 601. An immediate and irrational anxiety re-
D. Transference. sponse to the mere sight of blood is indica-
tive of
E. Counterconditioning.
A. mania.
597. Preoccupied with one or more perceived B. a delusion.
defects or flaws in their physical ap-
C. a specific phobia.
pearance, which they believe look ugly,
unattractive, abnormal, or deformed: D. a dissociative disorder.
A. Body dysmorphic disorder 602. In Rational-Emotive Therapy
B. Excoriation A. clients are encouraged to take respon-
sibility for their own choices
C. Trichotillomania
B. clients learn to challenge irrational be-
D. Conversion disorder
liefs
E. Obsessive compulsive disorder C. the therapist seeks to have the client
discover rational insights on his or her
598. Exhibiting two or more distinct and alter-
own
nating personalities is a symptom of a(n)
D. irrational elements of the unconscious
A. conversion disorder. are made to conform to reality
B. dissociative identity disorder.
603. Which condition is inherited as a domi-
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder. nant allele?
D. antisocial personality disorder. A. cystic fibrosis

B. albinism B. flexible and spotted

C. Huntington’s disease C. smooth and unspotted

D. Tay-Sacs disease D. pitted and rough
604. Which disorder is characterized by degra- 609. Which of the following best describes hal-
dation of the nervous system and usually lucinations?
results in death during infancy? A. Perceptual disturbance
A. Tay-Sachs B. Memory disturbance
B. Cystic fibrosis C. Cognitive disturbance
C. Huntington’s D. Attention disturbance
D. PKU E. Lethargy
605. A fracture is a wrist fracture that re- 610. For the Lidcombe approach, a severity
sults from reaching out to break a fall rating of 1 is
A. colles A. no stuttering
B. potts B. very mild stuttering
C. spiral C. very severe stuttering
D. greenstick D. none of above
606. Which assessment measure evaluates 611. What is the main intervention for a pa-
the impact of stuttering on different parts tient with a small aortic aneurysm?
of a person’s life?
A. Increase sodium in diet
A. locus of control scale
B. Decrease blood pressure
B. OASES
C. Decrease calcium in their diet
C. S-24
D. Start them on a blood thinner
D. A-19
612. Which model of psychopathology pro-
607. The DSM-5 defines the severity of the in- poses that mental illness should be ap-
tellectual disabilities based on instead proached the same as a physical disease
of or injury?
A. Language impairment; academic per- A. biopsychosocial model
formance B. diathesis-stress model
B. delayed milestones; motor problems C. medical model
C. Adaptive functioning; intellectual func- D. statistical model
tioning
D. Intellectual functioning; adaptive func- 613. Split or brittle nails
tioning A. look for the X
608. The surface of a healthy natural nail B. Onychomycosis

should be; C. Onychorrhexis
A. smooth and spotted D. Onychocryptosis

614. According to the DSM-V, a personality D. preoperational, sensorimotor, con-

disorder can be diagnosed if there are sig- crete operational, formal operational.
nificant impairments in
619. what are common physical signs and
A. self-care an ability to function
symptoms of anxietysata
B. social deviance, defiance and criminal
A. elevated blood pressure, increase
tendencies
pulse
C. self and interpersonal functioning to-
B. trembling
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gether with one or more pathological per-
sonality traits C. nausea
D. social functioning and three or more D. chest pain, shortness of breath
pathological personality traits
620. Minor damage to the matrix that pro-
615. Wilma is extremely agitated because she duces a whitish discoloration or white
hears voices that tell her to seduce the spots on the nails is known as
male nurses in her hospital ward. Wilma
is most clearly suffering from: A. leukonychia
A. a dissociative disorder B. a hangnail

B. delusions of grandeur C. nail fungus
C. dysthymia D. melanonychia
D. hallucinations 621. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked?
616. WHAT IS THE RESULT OF POOR SLEEP? A. Huntington’s
A. DIABETES B. cystic fibrosis
B. CARDIAC ALIMENTS C. red-green colorblindness
C. INSOMNIA D. sickle cell anemia
D. OBESITY
622. * Form of hyperthyroidism * Low TSH *
617. White spots on the nail Elevated free T4
A. leukonychia A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. Hang Nail B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Eggshell Nail C. HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS
D. Blue Nail D. GRAVE’S DISEASE
618. The correct order or sequence of Piaget’s 623. It is a vertical splitting or separation of
stages is the nail plate layers at the distal edge of
A. preoperational, concrete operational, the nail plate.
formal operational, sensorimotor.
A. Hangnails
B. sensorimotor, preoperational, con-
B. Brittle nails
crete operational, formal operational.
C. Eggshell nails
C. sensorimotor, concrete operational,
preoperational, formal operational. D. Pterygium

624. a term used to refer to a group of very 629. One cluster of personality disorders
serious, usually chronic thought disorders marked by noticeably odd or eccentric be-
in which psychotic symptoms primarily im- havior is exemplified by the personal-

pair the affected person’s ability to inter- ity disorder.
pret the world accurately A. avoidant
A. schizoffactive disorder B. narcissistic
B. schizophrenia C. schizoid
C. extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) D. antisocial
D. interpersonal approach
630. frequently assessing a patient’s suicidal
625. The main symptom in paranoid potential and maintaining continuous one
schizophrenia is: to one contact, if indicated are interven-
tions for depressed patients who are at
A. Memory dysfunction
risk for
B. Perceptual dysfunction
A. sleep disturbance
C. Obsession
B. anxiety
D. Suspicion
C. harm to self
E. Compulsion
D. low self esteem
626. Why does misrepresenting disorders in
631. A man carrying the allele for Hunting-
the media matter?
ton’s disease marries a woman who is ho-
A. It doesn’t matter mozygous recessive for the allele. What
B. it creates negative stereotypes is the probability that their offspring will
develop Huntington’s disease?
C. It messes up research
A. 25 percent
D. It makes disorders look cool
B. 50 percent
627. Which kind of therapy below is most C. 75 percent
closely associated with the goal of alter-
ing thoughts and actions? D. 100 percent
A. Aversive conditioning 632. Effective for depression and mania of
B. Psychodynamic bipolar disorder
C. Client-centered A. Mood-stabilizing medication
D. Cognitive-Behavioral B. Antidepressant medication

C. Antianxiety medication
628. What characteristic does an emotionally
healthy person NOT have? D. Antipsychotic medication
A. Cope with change 633. Which of the following OPMD have the
B. Have a lot of friends highest malignant conversion rate?
C. Resolve conflict A. Leukoplakia
D. Take responsibility for personal choice B. Erythroplakia

and actions C. PVL

D. Actinic Cheilitis 638. What is a psychological disorder?

E. OLP A. a harmful dysfunction in which behav-
iors are maladaptive, unjustifiable, dis-
634. which are typical symptoms of turbing and atypical
schizophrenia sata
B. chemical imbalances in the brain that
A. disturbed thought processes; emo- cause people to act in harmful ways
tional response
C. malformations of important brain seg-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. delusions ments
C. distorted perceptions of reality D. a dysfunction that is not harmful but
may consist of behaviors that are mal-
D. abnormal motor behavior
adaptive, unjustifiable, disturbing and
atypical
635. The action of Thorazine that makes it
an effective drug for the treatment of
639. The slow process of gradual exposure to
schizophrenia is that it blocks dopamine re-
a phobic stimulus/situation refers to
ceptors. This must mean that schizophre-
nia could be caused by too: A. Systematic Desensitisation
A. much serotonin present in the synapse B. Flooding
B. little dopamine being produced at C. Fear Hierarchy
synapses D. Classical conditioining
C. little dopamine being taken up by re-
ceptors at synapses 640. Edward really hates germs. He always
seems worried about whether his hands
D. much dopamine being taken up by re- are clean. He takes it to the extreme,
ceptors at synapses going through the process of adding soap
seven times when he washes his hands.
636. Persistent thoughts, fears or urges lead- What is he probably suffering from?
ing to uncontrollable repetitive behaviors.
A. Social Phobia
A. Anorexia
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. A Specific Phobia
C. Panic disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
D. Phobia
641. What is the name of the disorder that
637. Young monkeys start to fear snakes effects the central nervous system where
when given the opportunity to watch other the immune system attacks the myelin
monkeys. This finding supports what kind sheathing in the brain and spinal cord
of factor as a cause of anxiety disorders? cells?
A. psychological A. Alzheimer’s
B. biological B. Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
C. social C. Duchenne
D. learning D. Prader Willi

642. What are the symptoms of Polydactyly B. are unhappy, withdrawn, and de-
A. Thick mucus in lungs pressed

B. Poor growth C. deviate from typical or average pat-
terns of behavior
C. Extra digit (finger or toe)
D. are disabled by anxiety
D. none of above
643. What is the average age of onset of stut- 647. which of the following is true of the ‘two-
tering? hit hypothesis’?
A. 2.8 years A. schizophrenia is caused only by the en-

vironment
B. 2-4 years
B. schizophrenia is caused only by the
C. 2-3.5 years
genes you inherit
D. all of the above
C. schizophrenia starts with an environ-
644. What symptoms characterize panic disor- mental ‘hit’ then gets worse when there
der? is a biological ‘hit’
A. recurrent, sudden, and unexpected at- D. schizophrenia starts with a biological
tacks of overwhelming anxiety ‘hit’ then gets worse when there is an en-
B. enduring psychological disturbances vironmental ‘hit’
due to a traumatic event
648. When making mistakes in life you
C. persistent and irrational fear of an ob- should..
ject or situation
A. Go-Think-Do
D. a chronic high level of anxiety
B. Stop-Think-Go
E. Fear of exposed places where there is
potential of anxiety C. Stop-Think-Just do it
D. none of above
645. Sally experiences bouts of extreme op-
timism, which she describes as a feeling 649. a state in which a person has a distorted
in which she believes she can take on the perception of reality interfering with the
world. Sally’s optimism doesn’t last long, capacity to function and relate to others
but her feeling of sadness lasts anywhere
from a week to two. She feels hopeless A. tardive dyskinesia
and only wants to lay in bed and watch B. psychosis
Netflix. Sally most likely has
C. biologic approach
A. Bipolar Disorder
D. parkinsonain syndrome
B. Bipolar Disorder Type II
C. Dissociative Identity Disorder 650. increased pigmentation of the skin in
spots that are not elevated, liver spots
D. Major Depressive Disorder
A. cicatrix
646. Statistical approaches to abnormality de-
B. chloasma
fine as “abnormal” those who
A. show evidence of loss of contact with C. hyperhidrosis
reality D. anhidrosis

651. Katie has been sad because her best 656. inflammation to the matrix and and shed-
friend moved away. What should she do ding of the nail.
to cope with this behavior? A. onychia
A. quit the soccer team B. onycholysis
B. talk to a school counselor C. onychocryptosis
C. stop eating lunch at school D. paronychia
D. ignore her sadness and hope it goes 657. Which kind of explanation for anxiety
NARAYAN CHANGDER
away disorders would be most appropriate for
this scenario:John has uncontrollable panic
652. therapy that treats more than one person attacks, and he recently learned that his
at a time father and brother started having similar
A. group therapy attacks at the same age.
A. biological
B. insight therapy
B. psychodynamic
C. interpersonal therapy
C. socio-cultural
D. family therapy
D. learning
653. Skin is stretched by the nail plate 658. Sonja has always lived alone, has no
A. I think I close friends, and avoids all social situa-
tions. She might be diagnosed with which
B. should pick the personality disorder?
C. next answer A. avoidant personality disorder
D. Pterygium B. schizoid personality disorder
C. paranoid personality disorder
654. disorder that occurs after exposure to a
recent distressing event that is character- D. antisocial personality disorder
ized by detachment derealization deper-
659. What are false beliefs, often of persecu-
sonalization and dissociative amnesia
tion or grandeur; that may accompany psy-
A. personality disorder chotic disorders?
B. post traumatic stress disorder A. Crazy Stuff
C. obsessive compulsive disorder B. Delusions
C. Visions
D. acute stress disorder
D. Mania
655. Which type of psychotherapy focuses on
660. A maladaptive behavior is one that:
changing unwanted behaviors rather than
on discovering their underlying causes? A. is destructive to yourself or others and
inhibits a person to adjust to particular sit-
A. behavior therapy
uations
B. cognitive therapy B. occurs without a rational basis
C. humanistic therapy C. is troublesome to other people
D. psychoanalysis D. is so different it violates a norm

661. People that do not have the ability to dis- 666. the most common medication for patients
tinguish hues are considered to have with manic episodes is

A. progeria A. alprazolam (Xanax)
B. cystic fibrous B. fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac)
C. tay-sachs C. lithium and divalproex
D. colorblindness D. benztropine mesylate (Cogentin)
667. Dominic is intensely afraid of ants; he

662. Treat depression, anxiety disorders,
goes into a panic whenever he sees one.
obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-
Dominic appears to suffer from
traumatic stress disorder
A. stress
A. Mood-stabilizing medication
B. a phobia
B. Antidepressant medication
C. schizophrenia
C. Antianxiety medication
D. hypochondriasis
D. Antipsychotic medication
668. Which disease or disorder is caused by
663. Self-help and support groups are an out- the inheritance of two mutated alleles that
growth of which therapeutic perspective? effects the lungs?
A. cognitive A. Down Syndrome
B. behavioral B. Colorblindness
C. biological C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. humanistic D. Hemophilia
664. When does a child master reversibil- 669. What does OCD stand for?
ity and conservation? Remember:this A. Obsessive compulsive disease
means that they understand objects can be B. Ongoing compulsive disorder
changed and then placed back in their orig-
inal form! C. Obsessive compulsive disorder
A. Sensorimotor Stage D. Ongoing compulsive disease
B. Concrete Operational Stage 670. A prolonged and overall feeling of sad-

ness, along with a loss of interest in usual
C. Preoperational Stage
activities, and a prolonged feeling of help-
D. Formal Operational Stage lessness and hopelessness.
665. Which therapist would likely try to under- A. Depression

stand a psychological disorder by explor- B. Reaction Depression
ing childhood experiences? C. Major or Clinical Depression
A. A psychoanalyst D. Bipolar disorder or Manic depression
B. A behavior therapist
671. What are the characteristics of Cluster
C. A humanistic therapist A?
D. a cognitive therapist A. Odd, Bizarre, Eccentric

B. Anxious, Fearful 677. What is the study of psychological disor-

C. Dramatic, Eccentric ders, including their symptoms, treatment,
and causes?
D. Anxious, Eccentric, Dramatic
A. etiology
672. All of the following are anxiety disorders B. pscyhopathology
EXCEPT
C. psychology
A. agoraphobia
D. harmful dysfunction
B. conversion disorder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. GAD 678. The decision-making component of per-
sonality
D. panic disorder
A. Id
673. How many clusters of personality disor-
B. Ego
ders are there?
C. Superego
A. 3
D. none of above
B. 17
C. 2 679. Which disorder can be treated with the
D. 5 PAP therapy?
A. sleep apnea
674. Multiple personality disorder is now
known as B. hypersomnia
A. Dissociative Identity Disorder C. restless leg syndrome

B. Post Traumatic Stress D. non-24-hour sleep wake disorder
C. Schizophrenia 680. What should you teach parents?
D. Major Depressive Disorder A. Skills that are being targeted
675. A therapist who pays particular attention B. How to have practice sessions at home
to transference during therapy is likely to C. To teach it themselves
have which approach?
D. How to reinforce good production
A. Cognitive approach
681. A difference between mental health prob-
B. Psychodynamic approach
lems and mental disorders is that:
C. Humanistic approach
A. mental health problems are more se-
D. Behavioral approach rious and often longer lasting conditions
E. Cognitive-behavioral approach than mental disorders
676. With this disorder someone is unable B. mental health is more accepted than
to recall their past and may travel unex- mental disorders.
pected distances. C. mental disorders are almost impossi-
A. Dissociative fugue ble to diagnose, whereas a mental health
problem is easily recognisable.
B. Dissociative amnesia
D. mental disorders are more serious
C. Depersonalization disorder and often longer lasting conditions than
D. none of above mental health problems.

682. If you worry and have apprehensive feel- 687. An advantage of group therapy over indi-
ings about the future, you have- vidual therapy is that group therapy

A. SAD A. requires less commitment from the
B. A phobia client
C. General anxiety disorder B. achieves results more quickly
D. Panic disorder C. produces a significantly higher recov-
ery rate
683. withdrawal from antianxiety medica-
tions should be medically supervised be- D. enablesclients to realize that their
cause of effect(s) of problemsarenot unique
A. amnesia and confusion
688. What were lobotomies used for?
B. negative feedback
A. Anxiety Disorders
C. hormones and histamines
B. Multiple Personality Disorder
D. physical and psychologic dependence
C. Schizophrenia and Bipolar Disorder
684. which statement best illustrates the
strategy of clarifying in s nurse-patient in- D. none of above
teraction
689. What is the fear of enclosed spaces
A. when you mention your son you look called?
very sad
A. Claustrophobia
B. what were you saying while I was on
the telephone B. Astraphobia
C. why do you get quiet when I ask about C. Trypanophobia
your husband
D. none of above
D. are you saying that you are afraid of
him 690. Ron hears voices that tell him to kill peo-
ple. Ron is experiencing:
685. The lifting of the nail plate from the bed
without shedding is: A. delusions
A. Onychosis B. hallucinations
B. Onychocryptosis C. a manic episode
C. Onycholysis
D. compulsions
D. Onychomadesis
691. an individual may have impaired occupa-
686. Which disorder is characterized by the in-
tional functioning, restricted social contact,
ability to break down a specific amino acid
and difficulties with self-care
and can be treated by a special diet?
A. schizoaffective disorder
A. Huntington’s
B. Tay Sachs B. schizophrenia
C. Cystic fibrosis C. extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)
D. PKU D. interpersonal approach

692. Logan always seems to be causing drama. 697. Jean Piaget defined egocentrism as
He is in and out of relationships all the A. the belief that young adults don’t listen
time, is mean to his friends and family, to their parents.
never passes on doing a dare no matter
how dangerous it is, and floats back and B. the idea that preschool children cannot
forth between feeling like he’s awesome see things from another’s point of view.
or that he sucks. What is he probably suf- C. the understanding that young children
fering from? cannot learn outside of a structured class-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Schizoid Personality Disorder room.
B. Borderline Personality Disorder D. the belief that children cannot do more
than one task at a time.
C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder 698. What criteria do psychologists use to dif-
ferentiate between major depressive dis-
693. Early childhood sexual or physical abuse order and normal grief?
is a common feature among people suffer-
ing from: A. severity of the symptoms, like severely
depressed mood
A. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
B. activity level, such as low energy
B. Bipolar disorder
C. length of symptoms, such as symp-
C. Schizophrenia
toms lasting longer than 2 weeks
D. Conversion disorder
D. emotional changes, such as little inter-
694. DESCRIBE THE DIET THAT PEOPLE HAD IN est in or pleasure in almost all activities
OLDEN DAYS
699. A highly curved nail plate often called
A. BALANCED FOOD
“folded nail” caused by injury to the matix
B. OILY FOOD or intended is a(n);
C. CARBOHYDRATES A. bruised nail
D. SUGARY FOOD B. bitten nails
695. fractures produce new and abnormal C. plicatured nail
alignments of the bone D. eggshell nail
A. compression
700. Pharyngitis is the medical term for
B. displaced
A. Tonsilitis
C. spiral
D. potts B. Rhinitis
C. Sore throat
696. Humanistic therapies generally empha-
size D. Sinusitis
A. making full use of one’s potential 701. Which disease or disorder causes people
B. an in-depth analysis of unconscious to have abnormal shaped blood cells that
forces look like a crescent?
C. alteration of long-established habits A. Cystic Fibrosis
D. the value of spontaneous remissions B. Albinism

C. Sickle-cell Disease 707. Excessive or unrealistic worry about life

circumstances that lasts for at least 6
D. Down Syndrome
months.

702. What is the prevalence of stuttering? # A. OCD
of people with the condition currently? B. PTSD
A. 1% C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. 5% D. Agoraphobia
C. 3% 708. Uncontrollable cycles of extreme happi-
D. none of above ness and depression.
A. Bipolar Disorder
703. Albinism affects B. Major Depression
A. pigment proteins C. Schizophrenia
B. vesicle formation D. PTSD
C. facial features 709. What is the diagnostic process?
D. brain formation A. Score standardized tests
B. analyze conversation sample
704. This disorder results in a female with a
single X chromosome. C. collect data from hearing screen
A. Down syndrome D. compare test results to norm
B. Turner’s syndrome 710. How does Cystic Fibrosis occur?

C. Klinefelter’s syndrome A. autosomal recessive
D. ALS B. sex-linked recessive

C. autsomal mutation
705. Which treatment should be suggested to D. nondisjunction (extra 21st chromo-
an individual with a simple hangnail? some)
A. Hot oil manicure
711. Clinically presented as:* Dry eyes &
B. Daily use of medicated soaks mouth * Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and Xe-
C. Removal of the damaged nail rostomia
A. DM Type 1
D. Removal of the entire cuticle, including
living portions B. Sjofren’s Syndrome
C. Myasthenia Gravis
706. chronic congestion appearing primarily on
D. Goodpasteur’s Syndrome
the cheeks and nose
A. Rosacea 712. A nail condition in which blood clots form
under the nail plate due to a small injury
B. eczema of the nail plate is;
C. lesions A. bruised nails
D. comedone B. blue nails

C. abnormal nails 717. Common procedure 1930s-1950s to

D. bruised onychia treat:schizophrenia, depression, bipolar
disorder, OCD. Involved destruction of the
713. COMBINED B & T CELLS:aka Louis-Bar frontal lobe.
syndrome is a neurodegenerative inher- A. Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stim-
ited disorder; absence of ATS gene which ulation (rTMS)
codes for ATM protein.
B. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
A. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
NARAYAN CHANGDER
(SCID) C. lobotomy
D. Antipsychotic drugs
B. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome(WAS)
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia (AT) Syndrome 718. Insight Therapies focus on
D. none of above A. the person finding the cause of their
problem or issue, likely with psychoanaly-
714. In terms of the hypothesis that holds sis
that high levels of norepinephrine (or sero-
B. changing the person’s behaviors, like
tonin) cause mania, an effective therapy
with counterconditioning
for mania should be:
C. cognitive challenges to unacceptable
A. a drug that increases the rate of syn-
thoughts and self-talk
thesis of norepinephrine in the synaptic
terminals D. biomedical therapies and psychosurg-
eries
B. a drug that decreases the rate of
breakdown of norepinephrine in the 719. Which part of the brain controls your
synaptic gap sleep?
C. a drug that increases reuptake of nore- A. thalamus
pinephrine by the presynaptic neuron
B. hypothalamus
D. amphetamine
C. cerebellum
E. a drug that mimics norepinephrine
D. mesencephalon
715. What are chemicals that cause cancer
720. Nails with a noticeably thin, white nail
called?
plate that are more flexible than normal
A. carcinogen nails are;
B. hazard A. ingrown nails
C. teratogen B. bitten nanils
D. neurotoxin C. leukonychia nails
716. What is the gender ratio (men to women D. egghell nails
who stutter) in adulthood?
721. Calvin is struggling to get out of bed. He
A. 3:1 only wants to lay around and watch Net-
B. 2:1 flix all day. His mom thinks he is really
lazy. Calvin has no interest in school or the
C. 4:1 band he is in after school. His band has an
D. none of above upcoming gig, but he decided to give away

his guitar because he won’t be needing it 726. Therapy sessions should go in the ap-
anymore. Calvin has been feeling this way proach of easy, hard, easy. What is this
for about a month. called?

A. Major Depressive Disorder A. Elevator approach
B. Bipolar Disorder B. Sandwich approach
C. Agoraphobia C. Freeway approach
D. Schizophrenia D. none of above
722. what is the fear of insects? 727. fever blister or cold sore; recurring viral
infection
A. cold sore
B. Cynophobia
B. herpes Simplex
C. Entomophobia
C. blisters
D. Acrophobia
D. Herpes Himplex
723. Evaluate the following symptoms and
determine which disorder would most 728. Which are the 4 criteria for mental disor-
likely be diagnosed:Dishonest behavior, der
repeated trouble with authority figures, A. 1. typicality, 2. maladaptivity, 3. emo-
an absence of remorse. tional comfort, 4. socially acceptable be-
A. Anti-Social Personality Disorder havior
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. 1. typicality, 2. maladaptivity, 3. emo-

tional discomfort, 4. socially unaccept-
C. Passive-Aggressive Personality Disor- able behavior
der
C. 1. do, 2. not 3. pick 4. me
D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D. dellirg nekcihc
724. What are factors that will decide if a
729. Disturbed cognition and consciousness
child’s speech errors are normal?
and a decline of intellectual and physical
A. They are related to 2nd language inter- functioning.
ference
A. ADD
B. They fall in a normal developmental
B. ADHD
range
C. PTSD
C. The are slight errors that don’t effect
a listener D. Dementia
D. They are unintelligible 730. What are the different approaches to
teaching sounds?
725. If you have suicidal thoughts who should
you tell? A. Conducting stimulability testing to
teach stimulable sounds
A. Nobody
B. Choose visible sounds over non-visible
B. A parent sounds
C. A stranger C. Start with earliest levels of the alpha-
D. none of above bet

D. Use Key words 735. Characterized by delusions and hallucina-

E. Teach what parents suggest tion; an example is schizophrenia
A. Anxiety disorders
731. The parenting style uses a “hands
B. Psychotic disorders
off” approach, where children learn from
the consequences of their actions. The par- C. Eating disorders
ent considers themselves as a friend to D. Impulse Control disorders
their child.
736. Ana has been in psychotherapy for five
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Authoritative years. At the start of each session she de-
B. Neglecting scribes any dreams that she has had since
C. Permissive her last session. Her therapist analyzes
the symbolism in these dreams, and helps
D. Authoritarian Ana understand the unconscious conflicts
that underlie the dreams. In this case, Ana
732. frequently irreversible side effect of an-
is most likely seeing a therapist who is
tipsychotic medication that develops after
trained in
years of use; symptoms include involun-
tary movements of upper extremities, and A. the client-centered approach.
tonic contractions of necks and back B. rational-emotive therapy.
A. tardive dyskinesia C. biofeedback therapy.
B. psychosis D. psychoanalysis.
C. biologic approach 737. What is one characteristic of psychogenic
D. parkinsonian syndrome stuttering that would be helpful in diagno-
sis?
733. In this theory, stuttering develops be- A. No pattern of adaptation during read-
cause of parent’s reaction to normal dis- ing
fluency
B. disfluencies are typical in pattern, but
A. covert repair hypothesis increased
B. diagnosogenic theory C. disorganized language
C. communicative failure and anticipa- D. rapid rate
tory struggle
738. Absence of receptors for IL-7 and IL-15
D. demands/capacities model
A. Rare lymphocyte Syndrome
734. Carena has a bad habit of biting her fin- B. X-linked SCID
gernails until her fingers bleed and have
C. Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency
sores. Her therapist is teaching her how
to not bite and pick at her fingernails using D. none of above
various learning principles. Her therapist 739. Dr. Jackson reinforces depressed pa-
is using tients for their participation in pleasant ac-
A. behavioral therapy tivities and trains them to take increas-
B. psychoanalysis ingly more credit for the rewards they
gain from engaging in those activities. Dr.
C. humanistic therapy Jackson’s treatment approach best illus-
D. cognitive therapy trates

A. exposure therapy. A. an obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B. client-centered therapy. B. schizophrenia

C. psychodynamic therapy. C. bipolar disorder.
D. cognitive-behavior therapy. D. agoraphobia
740. The prominent feature of mood disorders 745. An eclectic therapist is one who:
is the experience of A. prescribes the use of drugs as part of
A. social anxiety disorder. psychotherapy.
B. flat affect. B. emphasizes that active listening is the
major technique in all effective therapies.
C. emotional extremes.
C. prefers to engage in therapy in a group
D. paranoia.
setting.
741. It shows dark purplish (almost black or D. uses a variety of psychological theo-
brown) spots in the nail. ries and therapeutic approaches.
A. Bruised nails
746. Personality disorders can be divided into
B. Blue nails which of the following overall categories?
C. Eggshell nails A. introverted, extroverted, positive, and
D. Onychophagy negative
B. mood and anxiety
742. which is NOT a stage of grief?
C. paranoid, disorganized, catatonic, and
A. happiness
undifferentiated
B. acceptance
D. related to anxiety, impulsive behav-
C. sadness iors, and odd behaviors
D. shock
747. Hannah is nuts. She always has to do the
743. Kaylee is so afraid of spiders and insects most outrageous things to get everyone’s
that she avoids most outdoor activities attention. If anyone steals the spotlight
and even refuses to go to the basement from from her, she’ll do something crazy
of her own house alone. Kaylee appears to make people pay attention to her. What
to suffer from a(n): is she probably suffering from?
A. Phobia A. Schizoid Personality Disorder
B. Bipolar disorder B. Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Dissociative disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder
744. After several weeks of feeling apathetic 748. What does a schizophrenic lose touch
and dissatisfied with his life, Mark has of?
suddenly become extremely cheerful and A. Health
so talkative he can’t be interrupted. He B. Friends
seems to need less sleep and becomes ir-
ritated when his friends tell him to slow C. Family
down. Mark’s behavior is indicative of D. Reality

749. Which form of analysis is being described; B. free association

*What percentage of words in the sam- C. non-directive therapy
ple were understood by an unfamiliar lis-
tener? *Compare to norms for the child’s D. transference
age.
754. A dark band within the nail plate extend-
A. Independent Analysis ing from the base to the free edge due to
B. Relation Analysis increased pigmentation is known as
A. onycholysis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Intelligibility Analysis
D. none of above B. melanonychia
C. onychophagy
750. Lee is unable to tell the difference be-
tween right and wrong in any aspect of D. melanin nails
his life. This statement is describing which
755. Which is a way to be optimistic?
type of abnormal behavior?
A. Think of problems as temporary and
A. Depression
specific.
B. Psychotic
B. Personalizing
C. Maladaptive
C. Cope with change.
D. Insanity
D. Build healthy relationships.
751. Which of the following disorders most of-
756. Which Erikson’s Psychosocial stage:In
ten coexists with a learning disorder or
preschool, a child is influence by social in-
with defiant and temper-prone behavior?
teraction and play. This creates self confi-
A. panic disorder dence in the child.
B. anorexia nervosa A. Trust V. Mistrust
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder B. Initiative V. Guilt
D. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disor- C. Industry V. Inferiority
der
D. none of above
752. Which dissociative disorder is described
757. Which of the following disorders is, in
as a person lacking the ability to recall im-
some circumstances, most likely to be
portant personal events due to a stressful
treated with electroconvulsive therapy
event?
(ECT)?
A. DID
A. paranoid personality disorder
B. Fugue
B. schizophrenia
C. Amnesia
C. major depression
D. Conversion
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder
753. Saying whatever comes to mind, even
if it seems senseless, painful, or embar- 758. Using medication to control psychological
rassing, is part of the Freudian technique conditions is known as
known as A. a lobotomy
A. unconditional positive regard B. electroconvulsive therapy

C. psychological medicine 764. If a man who is a heavy smoker is

D. biological therapy given an electric shock every time he takes
a puff on a cigarette, which behavior-

759. What is the Latin word for manicure? modification techniques is being used?
A. Manus Cura A. systematic desensitization
B. Maints Cureia B. modeling
C. Handus Curas
C. aversive conditioning
D. None of the above.
D. punishment therapy
760. Evaluate the following symptoms and de-
termine which disorder would most likely 765. Melanocytes are
be diagnosed:Exhibiting two or more dis- A. infection fighters
tinct and alternating personalities.
B. pigment cells
A. Schizophrenia
C. pre-cancerous cells
B. Anti-Social Personality Disorder
C. Dissociative Identity Disorder D. stem cells
D. Bipolar Disorder 766. The DSM V is the newest diagnostic man-

761. Two of the major types of somatoform ual. What are some potential flaws?
disorders are A. The DSM is slow to change along with
A. panic disorders and conversion disor- culture.
ders. B. Disorders can be misdiagnosed if sim-
B. schizophrenia and hypochondriasis. ilar signs are present between two disor-
ders.
C. hypochondriasis and conversion disor-
ders. C. The DSM can over-diagnose certain
D. panic disorders and obsessive- disorders.
compulsive disorders. D. All of the above
762. Which nail disorder is an overgrowth of 767. What is the difference between an obses-
the nail in thickness that is caused by an sion and a compulsion?
infection? This can also be hereditary.
A. An uncontrollable pattern of thought is
A. Corrugations
a compulsion; the repeated performance
B. Leuconychia of coping behavior is an obsession.
C. Onychauxis B. An obsession usually begins shortly af-
D. Onychophagy ter a stressful event; a compulsion is in-
herited behavior.
763. Which is not one of the five dimensions
of language? C. An uncontrollable pattern of thought is
an obsession; the repeated performance
A. articulation
of coping behavior is a compulsion.
B. phonology
D. A compulsion is always accompanied
C. morphology by physical symptoms such as shakiness
D. semantics or headaches; an obsession never is.

768. Which of the following nail diseases is 773. a state of feeling outside of oneself that
caused by microorganisms wherein there is watching what is happening as if it were
is an inflammation, redness and swelling happening to someone else
of the skin around the nail? A. interpersonal approach
A. Ingrown nails B. depersonalization
B. Onychogryposis C. congitive behavior approach
C. Onychia D. sensorium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Paronychia 774. When the therapist attempts to see the
769. The most important outcome measure for world through the client’s eyes and adopt
a fluency shaping approach would be: their perspective
A. authenticity
A. Percent syllables stuttered
B. empathy
B. Change in S-24 scale score
C. reflection
C. Demonstration of mastering cancella-
tions and slide-outs D. sympathy
D. none of above 775. It is a term applicable to chronic inflam-
mation of the nail fold and nail bed.
770. Which of the following is a counter-
A. Onychia
conditioning technique?
B. Onychoptosis
A. Free Association
C. Onychocryptosis
B. Unconditonal Positive Regard
D. Onycholysis
C. Aversive Conditioning
D. EDMR 776. Spoon or concave nails
A. Hang nails
771. which herbal preparation is used by many
B. Melanonychia
people to relieve depression
C. Koilonychia
A. ephedra
D. Blue finger nails
B. ginkgo
777. The determination of which disorder a set
C. ginseng
of symptoms represents is known as a
D. st. john’s wort
A. prognosis
772. Leyla is suffering from a dominant dis- B. comorbidity
order that she did not know of until she C. hypothesis
turned 50. Suddenly, walking and talking
became difficult for her because Leyla was D. diagnosis
losing brain cells in her nervous system. 778. is the decrease in bone mineral den-
Which disorder is Leyla suffering from? sity, bones loose their integral strength.
A. Achondroplasia A. rickets
B. Cystic Fibrosis B. osteoporosis
C. Huntington’s C. osteoarthritis
D. Sickle Cell Anemia D. osteomalacia

779. Obsessive-compulsive behavior, panic, 784. Dualism is best described as:

and phobias are formally classified as A. the idea that people are either all bad
disorders.

or all good
A. Psychotic B. the idea that people are both good and
B. Manic evil
C. Personality C. the idea that good or bad is subjective,
based on the deed committed and situa-
D. Anxiety
tion
780. The refractive error in which the image is D. the idea that people turn out a certain
formed in front of the retina is way based on how they are raised
A. Myopia
785. Which category of disorders involves
B. Hypermetropia a separated sense of self-separate from
C. Presbyopia memories, thoughts, and feelings?
D. Astigmatism A. mood disorders

B. anxiety disorders
781. Acute is an illness which lasts
C. dissociative disorders
A. Less than 1 year
D. personality disorders
B. Less than 6 months
786. Molly hasn’t slept in 3 days and has
C. Less than 3 months
worked furiously to complete a mural on
D. none of above her bedroom wall. She becomes agitated
when people disrupt her or question her
782. EPPP:Which of the following is not con- about missing her job for the last two
sidered an anxiety disorder in the DSM- weeks. A month later Molly has difficulty
5? getting out of bed and experiences nega-
A. Separation Anxiety Disorder tive thoughts and feelings. She has no de-
sire to paint or be with friends. Molly is
B. Panic Disorder
likely experiencing
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
A. Major Depressive Disorder
D. Hoarding Disorder
B. Bipolar Disorder
783. Behaviors that are might be listed as C. Dissociative Disorder
symptoms of psychological disorders in the
D. Somatic Disorder
A. typical; Comprehensive List of Insani- 787. major or mild neurocognitive disorders

ties that involve deficits in orientation, mem-
ory, language comprehension, and judge-
B. illegal; Diagnostic and Statistical Man- ment
ual of Mental Disorders
A. dementia
C. maladaptive; Diagnostic and Statisti-
cal Manual of Mental Disorders B. dissociative disorder
D. morally wrong; Comprehensive List of C. bipolar disorder

Insanities D. agoraphobia

788. A 3-year-old child is brought to your clinic that leads to the dryness and brittleness
due to concerns about their development. of the nails?
The child’s parents report that the child A. Hang nails
is not meeting developmental milestones,
such as crawling, walking, or speaking. B. Onychorrhexis
The child also appears to have difficulty C. Pterygium
with fine motor skills, such as holding a D. Spoon nails
crayon or feeding themselves.
793. Research on the causes of schizophrenia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Intellectual Disability
strongly suggests that:
B. Language disorder
A. anybody will develop schizophrenia
C. Developmental Motor Coordination if exposed to extensive environmental
Disorder stress
D. Global Developmental Delay B. bad parenting can cause schizophrenia
C. schizophrenic patients suffer from a
789. patient experiences intense fear or dis-
deficiency of the neurotransmitter sero-
comfort reaching a peak within a few min-
tonin
utes
D. there is a genetic predisposition to
A. specific phobia
schizophrenia
B. panic disorder
794. A 7-year-old child is brought to your clinic
C. delirium due to concerns about their speech and lan-
D. dissociative disorder guage development. The child’s parents re-
port that the child has difficulty initiating
790. a mental disorder that involves a change and maintaining conversations with oth-
in identity, memory or consciousness that ers, and tends to talk mostly about their
enables patients to remove themselves own interests. The child also has difficulty
from anxiety-provoking situations understanding nonverbal cues, such as fa-
A. dementia cial expressions and body language. How-
ever, the child does not display any repet-
B. dissociative disorder itive behaviors or restricted interests.
C. bipolar disorder A. Social communication disorder
D. agoraphobia B. Language disorder
791. Antidepressant drugs work mainly be- C. Autism
cause they raise the level of a single neu- D. Intellectual disability
rotransmitter called:
795. Which symptom could be ? ”Some-
A. dopamine body is following me all the time”
B. norepinephrine A. Manic episode
C. serotonin B. Uncommunicative
D. glutamate C. Commit suicide
792. What nail disorder is caused by injury to D. Schizophrenia

the finger or exposure to harsh chemicals E. Depression

796. Bolstering parents’ and teachers’ skills 801. Washing your hands to relieve stress or
at nurturing children’s achievement and re- guilt could be described by which of the fol-
sulting self-esteem is of most relevance to lowing disorders or principles?

A. Virtual reality exposure therapy. A. Self-fulfilling Prophecy
B. Spontaneous recovery.
B. Schizophrenia
C. Counterconditioning.
C. The Macbeth Effect
D. Preventive mental health.
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
E. Self-fulfilling prophecy
797. Which symptom could be ? ”My inner 802. based on the theory that people function
pain has no end” at different levels of awareness (conscious
A. Manic episode to unconscious) and that ego defense mech-
anisms, such as denial and repression, are
B. Depression used to prevent anxiety
C. Paranoia
A. psychosis
D. Changes in behavour
B. biological approach
E. Stomachache
C. parkinsonian syndrome
798. pervasie, chronic and maladaptive per-
sonality characteristics that interfere with D. psychodynamic approach
normal functioning
803. Parul’s intelligence test indicates that she
A. personality disorder
is average to above-average intelligent.
B. post-traumatic stress disorder However, her grades in reading, spellings,
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder social sciences, and science are very low.
Her maths grades are quite high & her
D. illness anxiety disorder
writing skills are adequate. Parul most
799. How many stages are there in non-REM likely has:
sleep?
A. language disorder
A. 2
B. Dysgraphia
B. 4
C. Dyslexia
C. 3
D. 5 D. IDD
800. Benny’s mother tries to reduce his fear 804. Peter is repeatedly arrested for damag-
of sailing by giving the 3-year-old his fa- ing others’ property and never feels sorry
vorite candy as soon as they board the for harming others. He might be diag-
boat. The mother’s strategy best illus- nosed with which personality disorder?
trates
A. avoidant personality disorder
A. counterconditioning.
B. borderline personality disorder
B. cognitive therapy.
C. transference. C. paranoid personality disorder
D. the placebo effect. D. antisocial personality disorder

805. Generalized Anxiety Disorder-excessive 810. Psychologists with a Ph.D. or Psy.D. who
worry about life circumstances for at least specialize in the practice of psychotherapy
6 months. Finances, work, interpersonal are typically
problems
A. Social workers.
A. panic attacks
B. Clinical psychologists.
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder-
C. Psychoanalysts.
C. obsessions
D. Psychiatrists.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. compulsions
E. Health psychologist
806. The white portion of the eye (In Humans).
811. What is the fear of heights called?
A. Pupil
B. Sclera
B. Cynophobia
C. Dyslexia
C. Entomophobia
D. Retina
D. Acrophobia
807. fear of situations outside the home
812. Which Erikson’s Psychosocial stage:They
A. dementia look back on their lives and either see a
B. dissociative disorder sense of worth or failure.
C. bipolar disorder A. integrity vs despair
D. agoraphobia B. Generativity vs stagnation
C. Identity vs role con
808. Cornea is abnormally curved, causes
blurry vision because it is unable to focus. D. none of above
A. Temporarily Blind 813. disorders that invovles deficits in orien-
B. Blindness tation, memory, language comprehension,
and judgement and are usually reversible
C. Eye
with rapid onset
D. Astigmatism
A. specific phobia
809. components from this approach include:1. B. panic disorder
anxiety is often communicated interper-
sonally 2. the patient learns new ways C. delirium
of coping or maturing in therapeutic rela- D. dementia
tionship 3. the establishment of trust is
an important first step in working with pa- 814. Reckless disregard for safety of self or
tients others.
A. schizoaffective disorder A. Narcissistic PD
B. schizophrenia B. Schizotypal PD
C. extrapyramidal side effect C. Borderline PD
D. interpersonal approach D. Antisocial PD

815. Evaluate the following symptoms and 820. A musculoskeletal system disorder affect-
determine which disorder would most ing the joints is called
likely be diagnosed:Hallucinations, delu-

A. Anaphylaxis
sions, catatonia, and excess levels of
dopamine. B. Arythmia
A. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Alzeihmers
B. Major Depressive Disorder D. Arthritis
C. Bulimia
821. An extreme fear of being in an open, pub-
D. Schizophrenia lic place is called what?
816. Which part of the eye contracts and di- A. Acrophobia
lates based on the environment? B. Claustrophobia
A. Pupil
C. Monophobia
B. Cornea
D. Agoraphobia
C. Sclera
D. Iris 822. Clinical decision making that integrates
the best available research with clinical ex-
817. Which of the following is not a compul- pertise and an understanding of patient
sion caused by OCD? characteristics and preferences best illus-
A. Washing hands excessively trates
B. Repeatedly checking if the oven is off A. rTMS.
C. Checking your social media repeatedly B. Spontaneous recovery.
D. none of above C. Long-term potentiation.
818. Mrs. Coleman is a withdrawn schizophre- D. Evidence-based practice.
nia patient. To help her become more so- E. Cognitive approach
cially active, institutional staff members
give her small plastic cards whenever she 823. The % of adults have experienced some
talks to someone. She is allowed to ex- kind of mental disorder in their lifetime
change these cards for candy. Staff mem-
A. 100%
bers are making use of
B. 50%
A. active listening.
B. systematic desensitization. C. 46%
C. a token economy. D. 10%
D. classical conditioning. 824. side effects of antipsychotic drugs on the
819. Clouding, of the normally clear lens, in portion of the central nervous system con-
the eye. trolling involuntary movements
A. Alzheimer’s disease A. schizoaffective disorder

B. Organ procurement B. schizophrenia
C. Spina bifida C. extrapyramidal side effects
D. Cataract D. interpersonal approach

825. Redness, pain, and swelling are signs of A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
a(n); B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A. Condition C. HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS
B. disorder D. GRAVE’S DISEASE
C. infection
830. Symptoms include nightmares, flash-
D. abrasion backs, depression caused by traumatic ex-
periences.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
826. Visible depressions running across the
width of the natural nail plate that are the A. WALLS
resut of a mahot illness of injury are B. Clinical Depression
A. eggshell nails C. ADHD
B. narrow lines D. PTSD:Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. beaus lines
831. Which disorder is autosomal dominant af-
D. hangnails fecting chromosome 15?
827. An 8-year-old child is brought to your A. Marfan Syndrome
clinic with a complaint of stuttering. The B. Coffin-Lowry
child reports that they have been stutter-
C. Jacobsen
ing for the past 6 months, and the stutter-
ing has become more frequent and severe D. myotonic dstrophy
over time. The child’s parents report that
832. What disorder do all of these behav-
the child is shy and avoids social situations,
ior belong to? Temper Tantrums; Physi-
and they wonder if social anxiety may be
cal Aggression; Excessive Argumentative-
the cause of the stuttering. What is the
ness; Stealing; Defiance; Resistance to Au-
key feature that would differentiate a di-
thority
agnosis of Stuttering Disorder from Social
Anxiety Disorder in this case? A. Disruptive Behavior Disorders
A. The duration of symptoms B. Conduct Disorder
B. The presence of avoidance behavior C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
C. The severity of stuttering D. Avoidant Disorder
D. The age of onset 833. A low level of serotonin is associated
with which category of disorders?
828. Ben claimed to go by another name than
what his actual name is. What disorder A. anxiety disorders
does he have? B. mood disorders
A. Amnesia C. personality disorders
B. Depersonalization D. social disorders
C. Dissociative Fugue 834. Examples include post-traumatic stress
D. Dissociative Identity Disorder disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder
829. Chronic autoimmune thyroiditis *Destruc- A. mood disorders

tion of the thyroid gland B. tic disorders

C. impulse control disorders C. red miles

D. anxiety disorders D. scar

835. Laryngitis is the inflammation of 840. Russel is a 3 year old boy. He just
A. Pharynx started stuttering. His parents report that
it started very gradually over the past
B. Larynx
month. He shows some repetitions (usu-
C. Lung ally 1 or 2) but no blocks or prolongations.
D. Heart He does not appear to have any aware-
ness of when these repetitions happen and
836. repeated checking to see whether the is not frustrated or anxious about it and
door is locked is an example of his parents are not particularly worried ei-
A. obsession ther. What is the most appropriate plan
for him?
B. hallucination
A. provide education to family
C. delusion
B. direct intervention
D. compulsion
C. Lidcombe approach
837. Fran was sitting on the bus when she sud-
D. integrated approach
denly felt overwhelmed. Her heart started
racing, her legs began to feel weak, and 841. Which of the following intraoral sites
her body trembled. She thought she was pose a highest risk for leukoplakia?
losing her mind. Fran’s symptoms indicate
that she has: A. Palate
A. Schizophrenia B. FOM
B. Panic Disorder C. Lip
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder D. Buccal mucosa

D. Borderline Personality Disorder E. Tongue
838. key ideas from this theoretical approach 842. This disorder is characterized by irritabil-
to mental disorders are 1. behavior is ity, difficulty concentrating, and inability
learned 2. behavior increases because of to control one’s worry without having a
response to that behavior from the envi- specific cause for the worry and irritabil-
ronment (reinforcement) 3. the way a per- ity.
son thinks about things (his/her thoughts) A. Specific Phobia
influences emotional states and behavior
A. interpersonal approach
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
B. depersonalization
D. Bipolar Disorder
C. cognitive-behavior approach
D. sensorium 843. Schizophrenia that develops rapidly,
seemingly as a reaction to stress, is called
839. Prickly heat schizophrenia.
A. leukoderma A. chronic
B. anhidrosis B. free-floating

C. acute two years ago. When considering a diag-

D. process nosis of Hoarding Disorder or Obsessive-
Compulsive Disorder (OCD), it is important
844. Which of these is a developmental factor to keep in mind that:
associated with the onset of stuttering? A. Individuals with OCD who hoard in re-
A. motor/physical coordination sponse to an obsession or compulsion
B. classical conditioning are distressed by their hoarding behav-
iors, while those with Hoarding Disorder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. frequent interrupting from communi- experience distress when they discard
cation partners hoarded items.
D. none of above B. For individuals with Hoarding disor-
845. Which are the correct Personality Disor- der, hoarding behaviors are ego-dystonic;
der Clusters? whereas for those with OCD, the behav-
iors are ego-syntonic.
A. Clusters A, B, C
C. Individuals with OCD who hoard in re-
B. Clusters B, C, D sponse to an obsession or compulsion are
C. Clusters D, E, F likely to acquire less bizarre items than
those with Hoarding Disorder.
D. Clusters A, B, C, D
D. In contrast to people with OCD, those
846. What are the prognostic variables that with Hoarding Disorder have little or no in-
could support judgement? sight into their behavior.
A. Severity of disorder
849. Bruised nails may be a sign of a
B. Chronological age
A. severe stomach ailment
C. Motivation
B. local bacterial infection
D. Inconsistency
C. chronic lung disorder
E. Treatment history
D. blood clot under the nail
847. Severe inflammation of the nail in which
a lump of red tissue grows up from the nail 850. B-CELL:Failure of mature B cells to be-
bed to the nail plate is called come plasma cells. Unknown mechanism
(idiopathic). No antibody production. Con-
A. splinter hemorrhages genital presentation; IgA and IgG def. (+)
B. pyogenic granuloma B-cell.
C. onychophagy A. Bruton’s X-Linked Agammaglobuline-
mia
D. trumpet nail
B. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
848. Mrs. Apple’s apartment has become a (CVI)
dangerous environment due to the many
things she finds difficult to let go. Her hus- C. Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia
band is threatening to leave her if she does D. X-linked Hyper IgM Syndrome
not start to clean and let go of items. Mrs.
Apple explains that she has always been 851. The primitive and instinctive component
a “collector” but that it “got out of con- of personality:
trol” following the death of her daughter A. Id

B. Ego 856. OCD is a(n) disorder.

C. Superego A. chronic

D. none of above B. imaginary
C. rare
852. a cluster symptoms after a distressing
event in which the person experiences in- D. none of above
tense fears helplessness horror or a com- 857. The medical model was:
bination of those feelings
A. the first model to view disorders as a
A. personaity disorder sickness
B. post-trauma stress disorder B. the only model to that treated psycho-
C. obessive-compulsive disorder logical disorders
D. illness anxiety disorder C. a model that focues on how a patient
was nurtured
853. An individual survives a period of cap- D. the model that encouraged inhumane
tivity and exhibits behaviors that include treatments
anxiety, inability to concentrate, depres-
sion, edginess, and the re-experience of 858. Other disorders are caused by changes in
stressful events. These symptoms illus- the overall structure or number of what?
trate which of the following disorders? A. Alleles
A. posttraumatic stress B. Genes
B. histrionic C. Chromosomes
C. hypochondriasis D. none of above
D. major depression 859. What is Agarophobia
E. generalized anxiety A. Fear of familiar situations again and
again
854. A man who behaves in clingy, submis-
sive ways and displays a strong need to B. Fear of unfamiliar situations
have others take care of him might be di- C. Fear of losing someone
agnosed with which of the following per- D. Fear of Something you are about to
sonality disorders? face
A. avoidant personality disorder 860. Most hallucinations are in nature.
B. dependent personality disorder A. visual
C. paranoid personality disorder B. auditory
D. antisocial personality disorder C. tactile
855. A cosmetologist can disobey state or fed- D. olfactory
eral rules and regulations: 861. Prevention is better than
A. If the client signs a waiver A. hunger
B. Under no circumstances B. medicine
C. With the client’s verbal permission C. cure
D. If the salon owner gives permission D. none of above

862. Onychomadesis can affect: D. Men’s manicure

A. Fingernails E. Booth manicure
B. Toenails 867. The shedding of one or more nails is a dis-
C. Neither Fingernails or Toenails ease known as
D. Both Fingernails or Toenails A. Onychia
B. Onychomycosis
863. The surface of a healthy natural nail
C. Onychoptosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
should be
A. pitted and rough D. Paronychia
B. smooth and unspotted 868. Disorder in which the edges of the nail
C. flexible and spotted plate curl around to form the shape of a
trumpet or sharp cone at the free edge
D. smooth and spotted
A. trumpet nail
864. The basic purpose of the DSM-V is to: B. splinter hemorrhages
A. identify childhood experiences that C. hangnail
contribute to psychological disorders
D. pyogenic granuloma
B. describe internal personality factors
that are involved in psychological disor- 869. The DSM contains of mental disor-
ders ders.
C. describe the psychoanalytic approach A. symptoms, causes and treatments
to psychological disorders B. symptoms
D. provide a clear distinction between C. causes
neurosis and psychosis
D. treatments
E. provide a set of diagnostic categories
for classifying psychological disorders 870. How would you best describe a compul-
sion?
865. Obsessions are
A. Persistent fears
A. persistent, irrational fears of specific
B. Repetitive behaviors
objects or situations.
C. False beliefs
B. hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of
emotion. D. repetitive thoughts
C. false beliefs of persecution or 871. The role of the therapist in cognitive ther-
grandeur. apy is to
D. offensive and unwanted thoughts that A. identify the client’s irrational beliefs
persistently preoccupy a person. and provide alternative ways of believing
866. What are the different types of mani- B. provide unconditional positive regard
cures . Select all that apply:) so that the healthy growth-promoting ten-
dencies of the client may be activated
A. Electric manicure
C. provide a model of effective function-
B. general nail manicure ing and reinforce the client for positive
C. Oil manicure changes

D. prescribe psychoactive drugs that can 877. OCD means:

reduce the level of psychotic ideation
A. Over Controlled Dude

872. Savannah hears voices when no one’s B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
around telling her that her parents are try-
ing to hurt her. C. Obsessive Controlled Disease
A. bipolar disorder D. none of above

B. panic disorder 878. Tara did something really weird the other
C. schizophrenia day. You went to visit her and the whole
D. phobia time you were there she said her name
was Buck. She was acting like a really
873. A patient comes in with mitral valve vulgar dude the whole time. It was funny
stenosis. You expect the following mani- at first, but she wouldn’t stop the joke so
festations: you just took off. What is she probably
suffering from?
A. Loud S2
B. Crackles in the lungs A. Dissociative Amnesia
C. Paresthesia B. Dissociative Fugue

D. Dyspnea C. Dissociative Identity Disorder
874. Lithium is often an effective drug. D. Schizophrenia
A. Antipsychotic E. Histrionic Personality Disorder

B. Antianxiety 879. What are things that you should do be-
C. Antidepressant fore a session?
D. Mood-stabilizing A. Have goals
E. ECT B. Reinforce
875. What is the type of anxiety disorder in C. Have activities and materials ready
which the person experiences intense ter- D. Have a criteria advancement
ror
A. Panic Disorder 880. Patient C believes he/she is a five year
girl who is shy and fearful of strangers; a
B. SAD
45 year old man who is an inspirational
C. Phobias speaker; and a 17 year old female suf-
D. OCD fering from puberty-driven mood swings.
What disorder could Patient C be suffering
876. Which Erikson’s Psychosocial stage:Kids from?
feel good about being productive, or they
feel inferior for failing to do so. A. Dissociative Disorder
A. Initiative vs guilt B. Schizophrenia

B. Industry vs inferiority C. Bipolar Disorder
C. Identity vs role confusion D. Avoidant Personality Disorder
D. none of above E. Major Depressive Disorder

881. Inflammation of the cornea is called as C. Person does not allow you to share
opinions
A. Conjunctivitis D. You feel free to get out of the relation-
B. Keratitis ship
C. Dacrocystitis 886. Bitten nails
D. Blepharitis
A. onychophagy
882. Which type of therapy focuses on elimi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. hangnail
nating irrational thinking?
C. pyogenic granuloma
A. EDMR
B. client-centered therapy D. onychocryptosis
C. cognitive therapy 887. Your friend Tara complains of struggling

D. behavior therapy to sleep and being irritable all the time.
She worries about failing a big upcom-
883. Jeffery is 14 and reluctant to start treating project and being fired after making a
ment. His mother reports that he mumbles small mistake at work. When you don’t
really bad and is hard to understand. He respond to her text right away, she wor-
speaks in rapid spurts and then says, “um., ries that you no longer want to be friends
uh, or like” very often. He has some ar- with her. Tara may be struggling with
ticulation errors particularly for long, mul-
tisyllabic words and had difficulty with A. Panic disorder
p/t/k/ tasks. He often gets off topic and B. Generalized anxiety disorder
it is hard to follow his train of thought.
What is his likely diagnosis? C. Phobic disorder
A. Cluttering D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

B. Neurogenic stuttering 888. EPPP:Research indicates that the of
C. Advanced stuttering OCD are similar across cultures.
D. Developmental stuttering A. prevalence rates
884. In the mental status examination the B. prevalence rates and age of onset
nurse collects data on multiple areas includ- C. prevalence rates, age of onset, and
ing which of the following SATA gender distribution
A. thought content
D. prevalence rates, age of onset, gender
B. mood and affect distribution, and comorbidity
C. appearence
889. A psychological disorder is characterized
D. memory and attention
by all of the following except
885. These are signs of an emotionally abusive A. abnormal thoughts
relationship
B. abnormal feelings
A. Shows mistrust for no reason
C. abnormal childhood
B. You are walking on egg shells in the re-
lationship D. abnormal behavior

890. What is this an example of:person sud- B. Common Variable Immunodeficiency

denly moves away from home and as- (CVI)
sumes an entirely new identity, w/ no

C. Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia
memory of previous identity
A. day dreaming D. X-linked Hyper IgM Syndrome
B. body dysmorphic disorder 895. Offensive and unwanted thoughts that

C. Dissociative fugue persistently preoccupy a person
D. Dissociative amnesia A. delusions
891. A therapist that engages in reflective lis- B. obsessions
tening, non-directive therapy, and has un- C. compulsions
conditional positive regard for the client is
probably D. hallucinations
A. cognitive
896. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manuel of
B. behavioral Mental Disorders (DSM-5) includes which
C. humanistic of the following?
D. psychodynamic A. Detailed case histories and verbatim
patient interviews for each type of mental
892. A psychotherapist who believes that de- disorder
viant behavior can be traced either to ge-
netic anomalies or to problems in the phys- B. Tables of biological abnormalities re-
ical structure of the brain most likely sub- sponsible for each type of mental disorder
scribes to which of the following views of C. Discussions of insurance coverage for
abnormality? each type of mental disorder
A. cognitive D. Classification and diagnosis of each
B. behavioral type of mental disorder
C. biomedical
897. Which of the following is an infectious
D. humanistic nail condition?
893. an illness in which people experience two A. onychocryptosis
extreme moods is
B. nail psoriasis
A. depression
C. onycholysis
B. bipolar mood disorder
D. onychomycosis
C. mood disorder
D. anxiety disorder 898. Which of the following is a COMMUNICA-
BLE DISEASE?
894. B-CELL:Failure of B cells to produce anti-
bodies due to delayed maturation of thy- A. Cancer
mus. Also referred to as Pediatric Hy- B. Diabetes
pogammaglobinemia
C. Covid 19
A. Bruton’s X-Linked Agammaglobuline-
mia D. Heart Disease

899. A couple that have a family history of a has felt this way most of her life. She is
genetic disorder might wish to receive ad- most likely suffering from
vice from a A. Major Depressive Disorder
A. mutated allele B. Persistant Depressive Disorder
B. genetic counsellor
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. family dentist
D. brother or sister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
904. Jeremy’s behavioral problems were caus-
900. The direction of feelings and emotions to- ing trouble at school. Although he never
wards the therapist that are considered to failed any classes, but had difficulty learn-
be the root of the patient’s disturbance is ing and would get frustrated easily. He
referred to as said things like “I don’t want to go to
A. Flooding school because I don’t like it.” He had
trouble focusing and would lose his con-
B. Transference centration after a few minutes and would
C. Directive therapy throw a temper tantrum at school. He
D. Nondirective therapy couldn’t follow instructions and would get
distracted easily. Mom reported that it
901. Tasha became very upset when her friend was difficult to get him to sit still in his
Allie had to leave and go home. Allie seat because he would fidget, squirm, and
stated she will come back tomorrow, but was very impatient. It was as if he was
Tasha through a fit and began to cry. Tasha always “on the go” like he was “driven
tried to convince Allie that she could stay by a motor.” He frequently would get in
over and did not have to go home. Tasha trouble at school because he could not wait
did not want Allie to leave her no mat- his turn, and if another child had a toy he
ter the reason. What is Tasha suffering wanted he would go over and take it from
from? them.
A. Avoidant Personality Disorder A. ADHD
B. Dependent Personality Disorder B. Autism with ADHD
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder C. Specific learning disability with ADHD
D. Paranoid Personality Disorder D. Intellectual disability with ADHD
902. Which psychological perspectives are 905. signs and symptoms of Marfan Syndrome
most often used to explain the causes of
A. long arms, legs and fingers
anxiety disorders?
B. chest sinks in or sticks out
A. humanistic and psychoanalytic
C. heart problems
B. socio-cultural and structuralist
D. all of the above
C. biological and learning
D. cognitive and development 906. Which symptom could be ? ”I don’t
want to work anymore!”;-)
903. Lilly is now 35 years old. She just started
therapy because she feels “down in the A. Sleepless night
dumps.” While in therapy she realizes she B. Irrational behaviour

C. Lazyness C. conditioning
D. Depression D. crystallized intelligence

E. Auditory hallucinations E. ego-centrism
907. Which of the following statements is true 911. used in treatment of bipolar disorder-
about Theory of Mind in individuals with sserum level must be monitor for therapeu-
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)? tic range:50-100
A. They have a fully developed Theory of
A. carbamazepine (tegretol)
Mind
B. lamotrigine (Lamictal)
B. They have a deficient Theory of Mind
C. They have a superior Theory of Mind C. lithium (carbonate, lithobid, Lithium
compared to typically developing individu- SR)
als D. valproic acid divalproex sodium. (De-
D. They have a delayed Theory of Mind pakote, Depakene)
that catches up with age
912. The goal of cognitive therapy is to
908. Which of the following is not an obses- A. change the way the patient thinks.
sion caused by OCD?
B. help the patient overcome uncon-
A. Thinking about your crush scious emotions.
B. Germophobia
C. reduce mental disturbance through
C. Keeping things symmetrical the use of electrical shocks.
D. none of above D. focus on the patient’s value, dignity,
and worth.
909. During the class activity about the stu-
dents’ pets, the child was asked to share 913. Which of the following therapies follows
about his pet at home. The teacher no- the principles of Humanism?
ticed that the child inserted an extra sound
within the word when he said that he has a A. Contingency Management
“buhlack” dog. What type of articulation B. Flooding
error does he have?
C. Person Centered
A. Substitution
D. Psychoanalysis
B. Omission
C. Distortion 914. Which is an autosomal recessive disorder
D. Addition that causes severe damage to the lungs
where they have symptoms of wheez-
910. School age student is able to recognize ing, repeated lung infections and persis-
that the water she poured from a short tent coughing?
wide cup is still the same amount of wa- A. PKU
ter in a tall, skinny vase. This concept is
known as B. Tays Sachs
A. conservation C. Hemophilia
B. object plermanence D. Cystic Fibrosis

915. Which is not the criteria that distinguish A. Cerebellum

a disordered person?
B. Amygdala
A. Deviant
C. Prefrontal cortex
B. Divergent
C. Distressing D. Occipital lobe
D. Dysfunctional
921. A study based on over 9, 000 U.S. resi-
E. Dangerous dents found that the most prevalent disor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
916. PHAGOCYTE:Absence of LYST gene which der in the U.S. was
codes for LYST protein A. specific phobia
B. social anxiety disorder
B. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect/Lazy
Leukocyte Syndrome D. major depressive disorder
D. Complement Component Deficiency
922. What would be the approximate IQ range
917. Inflammatory condition of the skin for a child with mild Intellectual Disabili-
A. anhidrosis ties (IDD)?
B. cicatrix A. 50-70
C. hyperhidrosis
B. 35-49
D. Dermatitis
C. 20-34
918. visible depressions running across the
width of the natural nail plate D. <20
A. hang nail
923. Which of the following is not a type of
B. eggshell nails schizophrenia?
C. Beu’s Lines
A. Paranoid
D. melanonychia
B. Catatonic
919. PTSD stands for:
C. Residual
A. Psychosomatic Treason and Strain Dis-
order D. Compulsory
B. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Post Traumatic Sociopathy Disorder 924. Maladaptive behaviors that reduce
worry and fear are most indicative of
D. Platonic Trespass Sanity Disorder
A. bipolar disorder.
920. Children with ADHD are known to have
deficits in executive functioning, and B. an anxiety disorder.
specifically have difficulty inhibiting re-
C. anorexia nervosa.
sponses. Which of the following brain ar-
eas normally controls these types of func- D. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disor-
tions? der.

925. which of the following is the primary fo- 930. “Unexpressed emotions will never die.
cus of nursing care for patients with men- They are buried alive and will come forth
tal illness and their families later in ugly ways.”-Sigmund FreudThe

above quote most closely applies to which
A. helping them to cope with and manage
type of therapy?
mental illness
A. biological
B. administering mediations
B. psychoanalysis
C. protecting other people from the pa-
tient C. behavioral
D. controlling the patient’s behavior D. humanistic
931. It is the study of respiratory diseases.

926. With this disorder, patients are unable to
recall important personal information. A. Dermatology
A. DID B. Cardiology
B. Dissociative amnesia C. Neurology
C. Dissociative fugue D. Pulmonology
D. Depersonalization disorder 932. Splinter hemorrhages are cause by phys-

ical trauma or injury to the:
927. Schizophrenia translates to A. Nail plate
A. “Confused reality” B. Nail bed
B. “Mental disorder” C. Free edge
C. “Schizo disease” D. Lunula
D. “Split mind”
933. Controls impulses, especially one’s for-
bidden by society, while also persuading
928. Characterized by extreme or inflexible
the brain chase moralistic goals rather
personality traits such as anti-social per-
than simply realistic ones and to strive for
sonality and paranoid personality
perfection.
A. anxiety disorders
A. Id
B. personality disorders B. Ego
C. impulse control disorders C. Superego
D. mood disorders D. none of above
929. The eponychium or other living tissue sur- 934. For the past 8 months, Susan has had
rounding the nail plate becomes split or persistent and excessive bouts of anxiety.
torn She is really anxious a lot of the time, but
A. onychocryptosis the reason for her anxiety is not some-
thing specific. What is she probably suf-
B. onychophagy fering from?
C. trumpet nail A. Social Phobia
D. hangnail B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C. A Specific Phobia C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

D. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
935. The separation of conscious awareness E. General Anxiety Disorder
from painful memories, thoughts, and feel-
ings is most characteristic of disorders. 940. What are some important post assess-
ment questions to ask?
A. bipolar
A. Does a speech disorder exist?
B. obsessive-compulsive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. What is the severity of the disorder?
C. generalized anxiety
C. What is the prognosis for improve-
D. dissociative
ment?
936. Sickness is the vengeance of nature for D. Is treatment appropriate?
the violation of her laws
E. What are possible compounding or re-
A. Charles Simmons
lated factors?
B. Mother Teresa
941. Aline is being treated for her phobia of
C. Mahatma Gandhi
snakes, and her therapist has asked her
D. none of above to construct a list (from lowest to highest)
of all the snake-related ideas, images, and
937. It refers to split or brittle nails caused by
experiences that elicit fear. What treat-
an injury to the finger.
ment is Karen experiencing?
A. Onychorrhexis
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Onychophagy
B. Aversion therapy
C. Ridges
C. Psychoanalysis
D. Onychatrophia
D. Systematic desensitization
938. When a therapist attempts to see the
world through the client’s eyes and to feel E. Eclectic therapy
some part of what he or she is feeling, the
942. PET scan studies show that the brain is
therapist is using
during a major depressive episode
A. authenticity
A. feeling low self-esteem
B. empathy
B. less active
C. reflection
C. more active
D. ego-centering
D. relatively unaffected
939. Patient F has felt sad and worthless for
more than a month. He no longer wants to 943. Excessive use of can cause onychor-
hang out with friends, visit family, or en- rhexis.
gage in his interests or hobbies. He has
A. cuticle removers
lost all motivation in school. Patient G
may be suffering from what disorder? B. nail strengtherners
A. Dissociative Disorder C. hot oil treatments
B. Major Depressive Disorder D. nail polish

944. Which of the following is a autosomal 949. fracture is a break along the shaft of
dominant disorder that causes the persons the long axis of a bone
nerve cells in the brain to degenerate?

A. transverse
A. Huntington’s B. comminuted
B. Cystic fibrosis C. compression
C. Hemophilia D. spiral
D. Sickle cell anemia
950. This disorder is characterized by irritabil-
945. Which is NOT a recommended therapeutic ity, difficulty concentrating, and inability
lifestyle change? to control one’s worry.
A. aerobic exercise A. Specific Phobia
B. sleep B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. healthy diet C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D. smoking cigarettes D. Bipolar Disorder
946. What is an enduring pattern of maladap- 951. dark bands on the nail
tive behavior, where the features usually A. koilonychia
become recognizable during adolescence or B. melanonychia
early adult life and should not be confused
with personality trait? C. bruised nail
A. Anxiety Disorder D. melanonichia
B. Personality Disorder 952. Leukonychia spots result from
C. Paranoid Disorder A. injury to the nail matrix
D. DSM IV B. excess melanocytes
947. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia has C. zinc excess

which of the following symptoms? D. calcium deficiency
A. Deterioration of basic functioning 953. Joan displays anxiety, irritability, inabil-
B. Hallucinations ity to concentrate, and apathy. She also
re experiences a disastrous event through
C. Inappropriate emotions
nightmares and vivid memories. Joan is
D. Can require hospitalization experiencing
E. Delusions A. schizophrenia
948. What is Endocrine? B. generalized anxiety
A. bloating, nausea, constipation C. post traumatic stress syndrome
B. muscle loss, low or irregular heart- D. depression
beat 954. The tissue that is nutrient rich that sends
C. difficulty concentrating, sleep apnea oxygen and food through the umbilical
D. hormonal changes-estrogen, testos- cord to the fetus
terone, thyroid A. cervix

1.10 Cardiovascular Pathology 220
B. placenta needs a lot of help in making everyday de-

C. uterus cisions and surrenders important life deci-
sions to the care of others. He greatly
D. ovum fears abandonment and may go through
considerable lengths to secure and main-
955. While having a field trip to the zoo, a
tain relationships.
preschool teacher noticed that one of her
students deleted the first consonant when A. histrionic personality disorder
pronouncing the name of an animal? What B. schizotypal personality disorder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
type of phonological disorder did the child
C. narcissistic personality disorder
exhibit?
D. dependent personality disorder
A. Velar Fronting
B. Initial-Consonant Deletion 957. The structure of a nail is
C. Stopping A. Cuticle
D. Reduplication B. Eponychium
C. Hyponychium
by a lack of self-confidence and an exces- D. Perionychium
sive need to be looked after. The person E. Nail walls & nail grooves
1.10 Cardiovascular Pathology

1. When a blood clot travels to the lungs D. Cardiomegaly
A. pulmonary embolism
4. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. pulmonary thrombosis
A. A condition in which a blood vessel
C. deep vein thrombosis called the ductus arteriosus, which is sup-
D. coronary embolism posed to close after birth, remains open
and causes abnormal blood flow between
2. what blood pressure is considered the be- the two main arteries of the heart.
ginning of hypertension
B. A type of heart disease that results
A. 100/60 from atherosclerosis in the arteries that
B. 120/80 supply blood to the heart muscle.
C. 140/90 C. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
D. 170/120 result of lung disease.
D. A narrowing of the aorta, the main
3. Also known as a heart attack, a myocar- artery that carries blood from the heart to
dial infarction occurs when blood flow to a the rest of the body.
part of the heart is blocked, causing dam-
age to the heart muscle. 5. What can thrombosis in a coronary artery
A. Myocardial infarction lead to?
B. Angina A. Peripheral vascular disease
C. Arrhythmia B. A stroke

C. A myocardial infarction (MI) 10. What could another cause be for an en-
larged heart on CXR?
D. none of above

A. Pleural Effusion
6. A potentially life-threatening condition in B. Coronary Artery Stenosis
which a blood clot travels to the lungs and
blocks blood flow, causing shortness of C. Pericardial effusion
breath, chest pain, and other symptoms. D. Mesothelioma
A. Pulmonary embolism 11. Rheumatic fever
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome A. A complication of untreated strep
C. Pneumothorax throat that can cause inflammation and
damage to the heart, joints, and other or-
D. Pleural effusion gans.
B. A type of heart disease that results
7. Which modality would likely be used to di-
from atherosclerosis in the arteries that
agnose ASD/VSD in babies?
supply blood to the heart muscle.
A. MRI
C. A condition in which one or more of the
B. CT heart’s valves become narrowed, reduc-
ing blood flow.
C. AXR
D. Inflammation of a vein, typically in the
D. Ultrasound legs.
8. genetic disorder where there is an absence 12. A condition in which fatty deposits
of proteins needed for blood clotting. (plaques) build up inside the arteries, nar-
A. anemia rowing the vessels and potentially leading
to heart attack, stroke, or other complica-
B. hemophilia tions.
C. leukemia A. Atherosclerosis
D. atherosclerosis B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Arthritis
9. Transposition of great vessels
D. Osteoporosis
A. A congenital heart defect in which
the two main arteries of the heart are 13. What is the effect of adrenaline?
switched, resulting in the oxygen-poor A. Decreases blood glucose levels
blood being circulated to the body instead
of the lungs. B. Stimulates insulin secretion and in-
hibits glucagon secretion
B. A blood clot that travels to the lungs
C. Stimulates glucagon secretion and in-
and blocks blood flow.
hibits insulin secretion
C. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
D. none of above
result of lung disease.
D. A narrowing of the aorta, the main 14. What percentage of cholesterol production
artery that carries blood from the heart to takes place in the liver?
the rest of the body. A. 50 %

B. 15 % 20. Who is offered AAA screening and when

C. 20 % on the nhs?
D. 25 % A. Men over 65
15. Venous thrombosis B. Men & Women over 65
A. The formation of a blood clot in a vein, C. Women over 70

which can potentially cause swelling, pain, D. Men & Women over 60
and other complications.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The formation of a blood clot in an 21. Phlebitis
artery. A. Inflammation of a vein, typically in the
C. The formation of a tumor in a vein. legs, which can cause pain, swelling, and
redness.
D. The formation of scar tissue in a vein.
B. Inflammation of an artery, typically in
16. What is the role of LDL? the neck, which can cause dizziness.
A. Transports cholesterol to the blood C. Inflammation of a muscle, typically in
B. Transports cholesterol to the liver the back, which can cause stiffness.
C. Transports cholesterol to body cells D. Inflammation of a joint, typically in the
D. none of above knee, which can cause pain and swelling.
17. Which condition is a common irregular 22. A permanent bulge in the wall of a blood
heart rhythm marked by uncontrolled vessel or heart
atrial quivering and a rapid ventricular re-
A. aneurysm
sponse
A. atrial fibrillation B. embolism
B. arrhythmia C. spider veins

C. embolus D. atherosclerosis
D. fibrillation 23. Which pathology is defined as a reduction
18. The formation of a blood clot in a vein, in the mass of circulating red blood cells?
which can potentially cause swelling, pain, A. embolus
and other complications.
B. anemia
A. Venous thrombosis
C. angina
B. Deep vein thrombosis
D. atherosclerosis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Aortic thrombosis 24. Myocardial infarction
19. What CT technique could be employed to A. Also known as a heart attack, a my-
ensure optimal aorta enhancement? ocardial infarction occurs when blood flow
to a part of the heart is blocked, causing
A. Multi-planer reconstruction
damage to the heart muscle.
B. Contrast Bolus Tracking
B. Also known as a stroke, a myocardial
C. High resolution CT infarction occurs when blood flow to the
D. Multiphase acquisition brain is blocked.

C. Also known as a seizure, a myocardial 29. Congestive heart failure

infarction occurs when the brain malfunc-
A. A condition in which the heart is unable
tions.

to pump enough blood to meet the body’s
D. Also known as a hernia, a myocar- needs, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs
dial infarction occurs when an organ pro- and other parts of the body.
trudes through a weak spot in a muscle.
B. A condition in which the heart pumps
25. Which condition is a blowing or swishing too much blood, causing high blood pres-
sound in the heart due to backflow through sure.
a leaky valve?
C. A condition in which the heart stops
A. mitral stenosis pumping blood, leading to cardiac arrest.
B. mitral regurgitation D. A condition in which the heart beats
C. fibrillation too fast, leading to palpitations.
D. murmur
30. Which chamber of the heart feeds the pul-
26. myocardial infarction is another name for monary arteries?
A. heart attack A. Right Atrium

B. heart cancer B. Right Ventricle
C. enlarged heart C. Left Atrium
D. stroke D. Left Ventricle
27. What does the fatty material consist
31. Coronary artery disease
mostly of that forms an atheroma or
plaque during atherosclerosis? A. A type of heart disease that results
A. fibrous material, calcium and protein from atherosclerosis in the arteries that
supply blood to the heart muscle.
B. Cholesterol, protein and white blood
cells B. A type of heart disease that results
from high blood pressure.
C. Cholesterol, fibrous material and cal-
cium C. A type of heart disease that results
D. Fibrous material, cholesterol and car- from an irregular heartbeat.
bohydrate D. A type of heart disease that results
from low cholesterol levels.
28. How do statins work?
A. Reduce blood cholesterol by inhibiting 32. What is the formula for BMI
the synthesis of cholesterol by liver cells.
A. BMI = weight divided by height
B. Reduce blood cholesterol by inhibiting
the synthesis of proteins by liver cells. B. BMI = height divided by weight
squared
C. Increase blood cholesterol by inhibit-
ing the synthesis of proteins by liver cells. C. BMI = weight divided by height
squared
D. Reduce blood cholesterol by activating
the synthesis of cholesterol by liver cells. D. none of above

33. What arteries are narrowed due to symptoms such as chest pain and short-
atherosclerosis in peripheral vascular dis- ness of breath.
ease? B. A congenital heart defect that involves
A. Arteries in the legs only four specific abnormalities in the heart’s
B. Those other than the arteries supply- structure.
ing the brain. C. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
C. Those other than the arteries supply- result of lung disease.
ing the heart .
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A narrowing of the aorta, the main
D. Those other than the arteries supply- artery that carries blood from the heart to
ing the heart or brain. the rest of the body.
34. Cancer that affects bone marrow function 38. Coarctation of aorta
A. lymphoma A. A narrowing of the aorta, the main
B. hemophilia artery that carries blood from the heart
C. leukemia to the rest of the body, which can restrict
blood flow and cause high blood pressure.
D. gliablastoma
B. A congenital heart defect in which
35. Tetralogy of Fallot the two main arteries of the heart are
A. A congenital heart defect that involves switched.
four specific abnormalities in the heart’s C. Inflammation of a vein, typically in the
structure, which can cause poor oxygena- legs.
tion of the blood and cyanosis (a bluish tint
to the skin). D. A condition in which one or more of the
heart’s valves become narrowed, reduc-
B. A condition in which fatty deposits
ing blood flow.
(plaques) build up inside the arteries.
C. A type of heart disease that results 39. A type of heart failure that occurs as a re-
from atherosclerosis in the arteries that sult of lung disease, which can cause in-
supply blood to the heart muscle. creased pressure in the blood vessels of
D. A heart valve that connects the right the lungs and strain on the right side of
ventricle to the pulmonary artery. the heart.
A. Cor pulmonale
36. A type of heart disease that results from
atherosclerosis in the arteries that supply B. Cardiomyopathy
blood to the heart muscle. C. Myocarditis
A. Coronary artery disease D. Endocarditis
B. Peripheral artery disease
40. What is it called when a thrombus breaks
C. Venous insufficiency
loose?
D. Congenital heart disease
A. A meshwork
37. Valvular stenosis
B. A thrombosis
A. A condition in which one or more of
the heart’s valves become narrowed, re- C. An embolus
ducing blood flow and potentially causing D. none of above

41. What is the correct definition for myocardi- the lungs and strain on the right side of
tis? the heart.

A. condition in which the middle layer of B. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
the heart wall becomes inflamed result of kidney disease.
B. condition in which the fibrous mem- C. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
brane surrounding the heart becomes in- result of liver disease.
flamed
C. blowing or swishing sound in the heart D. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
result of heart valve problems.
D. infection of the inner lining of the heart
42. A condition in which the heart is unable 46. During formation of an atheroma, what
to pump enough blood to meet the body’s happens after clotting factors are re-
needs, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs leased?
and other parts of the body. A. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin
A. Congestive heart failure B. Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen
B. Heart attack
C. Thrombin is converted to prothrombin
C. Stroke
D. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin
D. Cardiac arrest
43. What can a deep vein thrombosis result 47. What effect does thrombin have?
in? A. Converts fibrinogen to threads of fibrin
A. A pulmonary embolism in the heart
B. Converts threads of fibrin to fibrinogen
B. A pulmonary embolism in the lungs
C. Converts prothrombin to fibrin
C. Blood loss
D. none of above D. none of above
44. Atherosclerosis 48. A BMI greater than what value is used to

A. A condition in which fatty deposits indicate obesity?
(plaques) build up inside the arteries, nar- A. 25
rowing the vessels and potentially leading
to heart attack, stroke, or other complica- B. 15
tions. C. 20
B. A condition in which the arteries be-
D. 30
come wider, allowing more blood flow.
C. A condition in which the arteries 49. When an atheroma ruptures and damages
harden, making them less flexible. the endothelium, what is the next stage in
D. A condition in which the veins become this process?
clogged with blood clots. A. Thrombin is released
45. Cor pulmonale B. Prothombin is released
A. A type of heart failure that occurs as a
C. Clotting factors are released
result of lung disease, which can cause in-
creased pressure in the blood vessels of D. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

1.11 Respiratory Pathology 226
50. Pulmonary embolism A. Stroke

A. A potentially life-threatening condition B. Myocardial infarction
in which a blood clot travels to the lungs
C. Peripheral vascular disease
and blocks blood flow, causing shortness
of breath, chest pain, and other symp- D. none of above
toms.
53. Inflammation of a vein, typically in the
B. A condition in which the lungs become legs, which can cause pain, swelling, and
inflamed, leading to difficulty breathing. redness.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A condition in which the lungs fill with A. Phlebitis
fluid, making breathing difficult.
B. Cellulitis
D. A condition in which the lungs collapse,
causing shortness of breath C. Lymphangitis
D. Erysipelas
51. Build up of plaques in blood vessels
A. atherosclerosis 54. Which two conditions cause coronary
B. thrombosis artery disease?
C. anemia A. arteriosclerosis
D. leukemia B. angina
52. What can thrombosis in an artery leading C. atherosclerosis

to the brain result in? D. murmur
1.11 Respiratory Pathology

1. is also known as whooping cough. C. bacterial
A. Epistaxis D. walking
B. Croup 4. The abnormal buildup of carbon dioxide in
C. Diphtheria the blood is
D. Pertussis A. anoxia
B. hypoxemia
2. The other word for nosebleed is
C. smoke inhalation
A. Croup
D. hypercapnia
B. rhinitis
5. What is tachypnea?
C. epistaxis
A. excessively fast breathing
D. pertussis
B. excessively fast heartbeat
3. This is the type of pneumonia that results C. excessively heavy bleeding
from contagious infection outside of a hos-
pital or clinic. D. low heart rate
A. community acquired 6. surgical repair of the nasal septum
B. aspiration A. laryngotomy

B. septoplasty 12. Which of the following is NOT a disease

process in COPD?
C. tracheostomy
A. Upregulation of proteases

D. tracheotomy
B. Damage caused by oxidants
7. The sudden blockage of a pulmonary C. Mast cell degranulation
artery by foreign matter or by an embo- D. Destruction of alveolar architecture
lus is a
13. is the loss of consciousness that occurs
A. pulmonary edema
when the body cannot get the O2 it needs
B. pulmonary embolism to function.
C. atelectasis A. cyanosis
D. tuberculosis B. asphyxia
C. respiratory failure
8. fluid build up in the lungs D. hypercapnia
A. pneumonia 14. The consultant requests that a sputum
B. acute bronchitis sample undergoes Ziehl-Neelsen staining.
Which pathogen is suspected?
C. apnea
A. Haemophilus influenzae
D. pharyngitis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
9. What is inflammation of the larynx? C. Staph aureus
A. laryngitis D. Pneumococcus
B. layrnxitis 15. What is the term for “without breath-

ing”?
C. rhinitis
A. Asphyxia
D. throatitis
B. Apnea
10. In quiet breathing, which of the following C. Asbestosis
muscles is NOT likely to be involved? D. Rhinorrhea
A. Sternocleidomastoid 16. is also known as the flu.
B. Diaphragm A. pertussis
C. External intercostals B. influenza
D. none of above C. croup
D. sinusitis
11. Which of the following conditions may re-
sult in a collapsed lung? 17. A collection of blood in the pleural cavity
is a
A. pulmonary embolism
A. pyothorax
B. tuberculosis B. pleural effusion
C. pleural effusion C. hemothorax
D. pneumothorax D. pneumothorax

18. Billy has been coughing and wants to know 23. Your suspect your patient’s oxygen levels
what type of medication he should take to are low. Which device do you place on the
help with his cough. Which one would your patient’s fingertip or earlobe to measure
prescribe your patient? the oxygen saturation level in the blood?
A. nebulizer A. pulse oximeter
B. bronchodilator B. spirometer
C. antitussive C. polysomnography
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. chest x-ray
D. none of above
24. absence or deficiency of oxygen within the
19. A is a medication that relaxes and ex- tissues
pands the bronchial passages.
A. apnea
A. Antitussive
B. anoxia
B. Bronchodilator
C. asphyxia
C. Nebulizer D. asthma
D. none of above
25. A 10 year old girl has just been diagnosed
20. is a chronic inflammatory disease of with mild asthma. What is she likely to
the bronchial tubes, often triggered by al- have been prescribed?
lergic reactions. A. Montelukast
A. asthma B. Prednisolone
B. emphysema C. Salbutamol
C. bronchitis D. Theophylline
D. pleurisy 26. Which immune cells are most commonly in-

volved in asthma exacerbation?
21. What type of pneumonia can occur when a A. Mast cells and eosinophils
foreign substance such as vomit is inhaled
into the lungs? B. Macrophages and neutrophils
C. T and B lymphocytes
A. bacterial
D. Basophils and monocytes
B. community acquired
C. walking 27. A 35 y/o woman, never-smoker, has ex-
perienced a progressive decline (over 3
D. aspiration years) in exercise tolerance with dysp-
noea and a dry cough. Her father had a
22. is an inflammation of the lungs in
similar condition. She has not lost any
which the alveoli and air passages fill with
weight or experienced fevers. What is the
pus and other fluids.
most like cause?
A. pneumonia A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
B. tuberculosis B. Adult onset asthma
C. pulmonary embolism C. Tuberculosis
D. atelectasis D. Lung cancer

1.12 Urinary Tract Pathology 229
28. A runny nose is also known as 32. What % of lung cancer is small cell?
A. rhinorrhea A. 85

B. influenza B. 32
C. pertussis C. 15
D. pharyngitis D. 68
29. What is a ‘Ghon complex’ seen in a chest 33. A is also called a respirator. It is a
X ray indicative of? mechanical device for artificial respiration
that is used to replace the patient’s natu-
A. Secondary tuberculosis ral breathing function.
B. Miliary tuberculosis A. ventilator
C. Primary tuberculosis B. ambu bag
D. none of above C. CPAP
30. incision into the trachea for exploration or D. nasal cannula
removal of a foreign object
34. is a life threatening genetic disorder in
A. bronchoscopy which lungs and pancreas are clogged with
B. spirometer abnormally thick mucus.
C. tracheotomy A. lung cancer

B. tuberculosis
D. none of above
C. cystic fibrosis
31. Which best describes the difference be-
D. apnea
tween asthma and COPD?
A. COPD patients don’t have exacerba- 35. is the accumulation of air in the pleural
tions space resulting in pressure imbalance that
causes the lungs to collapse.
B. Viruses don’t trigger asthmatic exacer-
bations A. Hemothorax
C. In asthma, bronchoconstriction is re- B. bronchiectasis
versible C. laryngitis
D. Asthma doesn’t occur in smokers D. pneumothorax
1.12 Urinary Tract Pathology

1. The main function of the urinary system is 2. The presence of what condition would in-
to: dicate the urgent need for a kidney trans-
plant?
A. Get rid of waste and extra fluid
A. kidney stones
B. Keep waste in the body
B. kidney failure
C. Get rid of nutrients C. retention
D. Make you poop D. oliguria

1.12 Urinary Tract Pathology 230
3. What are two substances that are too B. distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle,
large to be filtered from the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule, collecting
glomerulus? (Hint:They are not normally duct
found in urine due to their large size.) C. proximal convoluted tubule, loop of
A. Urea and creatinine Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting
B. Water and electrolytes duct
C. Proteins and RBCs D. collecting duct, proximal convoluted

tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Water and sugar tubule
4. The functional or working unit of the kid- 9. In which excretory organ is urea pro-
ney is the duced?
A. renal artery A. skin
B. renal cortex B. liver
C. nephron C. kidneys
D. ureter D. lungs
5. Urine exits the bladder and the body 10. Urine production takes place in the:
through a tube called the:
A. nephrons
A. Ureter
B. bladder
B. Urinary tract
C. ureter
C. Urethra
D. renal pelvis
D. Bladder
11. Urinalysis testing includes all of the follow-
6. The medical term for excessive urination ing except:
is:
A. Physical
A. incontinence
B. Microscopic
B. nocturia
C. Chemical
C. oliguria
D. Volume
D. polyuria
12. Which stage of urine production involves
7. The following test can be performed using returning water, nutrients, and elec-
blood samples EXCEPT: trolytes to the bloodstream?
A. FBG A. filtration
B. RBS B. excretion
C. OGTT C. secretion
D. Urinalysis D. reabsorption
8. The correct order for the renal tubules is: 13. Which stage of urine production involves
A. proximal convoluted tubule, collecting the removal of substances from the blood-
duct, distal convoluted tubule, loop of stream?
Henle A. reabsorption

1.13 Pathology of the Gastro-Intestinal Tract 231
B. excretion C. salt
C. filtration D. red blood cells

D. secretion
14. In homeostasis, the kidney regulates the: the urinary system’s ability to maintain
A. levels of electrolytes homeostasis?
B. amount of water in the body A. A person drinks a large amount of wa-

ter and urinary output increases.
C. pH
B. The kidneys are protected by a heavy
D. all of the above
cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule.
15. What is considered a normal component of C. As people get older, the frequency of
urine? nocturne increases.
A. bacteria D. When physical activity increases, the
B. sugar blood flow through the kidneys decreases.
1.13 Pathology of the Gastro-Intestinal Tract

1. Occurs when strange objects are unsuc- C. Secretory granules
cessful in getting out of the intestinal D. Slit-pore diaphragms
tract.
E. Stereocilia
A. Resection and Anastomosis
B. Colic 4. A 5-year-old girl presents with yellow
skin and sclerae.The parents believe that
C. Foreign Body she recently swallowed a bottleof ac-
D. Intussusception etaminophen tablets. A liver biopsy re-
veals hepaticnecrosis. Which of the follow-
2. A medical term referring to the Inflamma- ing enzymes metabolizedacetaminophen
tion of the GI tract, usually the stomach and generated toxic metabolites in the-
and the intestines liver of this young patient?
A. Gastroenteritis A. Catalase
B. Colic B. Cytochrome P450
C. Foreign Body C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Intussusception D. NADPH oxidase
3. The arrows on the image provided for E. Superoxide dismutase
Question 6 pointto the nuclei of endothe-
lial cells that line the hepaticsinusoids. 5. During a clinical conference, you are asked
Which of the following cytologic features to discussiron storage disorders affect-
bestcharacterizes these squamous epithe- ing the liver. You explain thatiron over-
lial cells? load can occur due to increased breakdown
oferythrocytes (hemolysis) or increased in-
A. Fenestrations testinal absorp-tion. Name the principal
B. Glycogen inclusions iron storage pigment found inhepatocytes.

A. Bilirubin 9. A liver biopsy from a 62-year-old alco-

B. Cytochromes holic man disclosesregenerative liver nod-
ules surrounded by fibrous scar tis-sue
C. Hemoglobin (histologic features of cirrhosis). The sur-
D. Hemosiderin gical patholo-gist asks you to comment
on the remarkable capacity of theliver to
E. Transferrin
regenerate. Hepatic stem cells that con-
6. A 69-year-old man is brought to the tribute to liverregeneration reside in which
of the following locations?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
emergency room ina disoriented state.
Physical examination reveals an odorof A. Canal of Herring
alcohol, as well as jaundice and as-
B. Glisson capsule
cites. Serum levels ofaspartate amino-
transferase (AST), alanine aminotrans- C. Hepatic sinusoid
ferase(ALT), alkaline phosphatase, and D. Space of Disse
bilirubin are all elevated.Increased serum
levels of alkaline phosphatase are an indi- E. Space of Mall
cator of injury to which of the following 10. Concentration of bile salts and pigments
tissues/structures? within thelumen of the gallbladder de-
A. Bile ducts pends on active transportof Na+and
HCO3-, as well as passive transport of
B. Centrilobular hepatocytes
H2O.Which of the following proteins fa-
C. Islets of Langerhans cilitates the passivetransport of water
D. Pancreatic exocrine acini across the plasma membrane of epi-thelial
cells lining the gallbladder?
E. Periportal hepatocytes
A. Aquaporin
7. Injury or inflammation affecting the canal
B. Cadherin
of Herring inthe liver lobule is associ-
ated with which of the followingpathologic C. Occludin
changes? D. Perforin
A. Fat droplets within hepatocytes E. Porin
B. Fibrosis of the common bile duct
11. A 40-year-old woman presents with
C. Gallstones (cholelithiasis) an 8-month historyof generalized itching,
D. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the weight loss, fatigue, and yellowsclerae.
ampulla ofVater Physical examination reveals mild jaun-
dice. Aliver biopsy discloses bile duct in-
E. Intrahepatic bile lakes jury and inflammation.Which of the follow-
8. Describes a condition in which one segment ing cells forms the lining epitheliumof the
of the intestine telescopes into an adjacent biliary tree?
part of the intestines A. Cholangiocytes
A. Resection and Anastomosis B. Endothelial cells
B. Colic C. Hepatic stellate cells
C. Foreign Body D. Hepatocytes
D. Intussusception E. Kupffer cells

12. You are asked to discuss the gross and mi- this neonate was most likelycaused by or-
croscopic anat-omy of the liver during a gan immaturity. What liver enzyme conju-
pathology conference. Classicliver lobules gates serum bilirubin, making it water sol-

are described as hexagonal prisms that uble, for excre-tion in the bile?
sur-round which of the following anatomic A. Alanine aminotransferase
structures?
B. Aspartate transaminase
A. Bile duct
C. Fatty acyltransferase
B. Central vein
D. Glucuronyltransferase
C. Hepatic artery
E. Galactosyltransferase
D. Portal triad
E. Portal vein 16. Removing a part of the intestines and re-
connecting the remaining ends
13. A 40-year-old woman with a history of in-
A. Resection and Anastomosis
digestioninquires about the location of her
gallbladder. She alsoasks for information B. Megacolon
regarding risk factors for gallstones.What C. Foreign Body
normal component of bile is associated
with thepathogenesis of gallstones? D. Intussusception
A. Bicarbonate 17. A 75-year-old man with congestive heart

B. Cholesterol failure com-plains of increasing shortness
of breath. On physicalexamination, the pa-
C. Cholic acid tient has an enlarged and tenderliver and
D. Mucin swollen legs. Increased venous pressure
E. Sodium chloride due toright-sided heart failure primarily
affects which of thefollowing regions of
14. A 50-year-old malnourished man presents this patient’s liver?
with a 6-monthhistory of night blindness. A. Centrilobular hepatocytes
Physical examination revealscorneal ulcer-
ation. The patient is subsequently diag- B. Periportal hepatocytes
nosedwith vitamin A deficiency. Which of C. Intrahepatic bile ducts
the following cells inthe liver stores vita-
D. Extrahepatic bile ducts
min A as retinyl esters?
E. Portal vein
A. Cholangiocytes
B. Endothelial cells 18. A different visual field from the slide de-
scribed inQuestion 2 is examined at the
C. Hepatic stellate cells
same magnification.Identify the structures
D. Hepatocytes indicated by the arrows (shownin the im-
E. Kupffer cells age).
15. A neonate born prematurely at 32-weeks’ A. Arcuate arteries

gestationdevelops yellow skin and sclera B. Hepatic arteries
(physiological jaundice).Laboratory stud- C. Interlobular arteries
ies show elevated serum levels of biliru-
bin (breakdown product of heme). Inad- D. Sublobular veins
equate bilirubinclearance by the liver in E. Terminal hepatic venules

19. A 44-year-old woman comes to the physi- 22. During a small group seminar, you are
cian with a6-week history of episodic asked to dis-cuss pancreatic enzymes and
hunger and fainting spells.She is currently their role in the digestionof food. Which
seeing a psychiatrist because she is irri- of the following enzymes catalyzes the-
table and quarreling with her family. Lab- conversion of pancreatic proenzymes to ac-
oratory studiesshow a serum glucose con- tive enzymeswithin the lumen of the duo-
centration of 35 mg/dL (nor-mal = 90 denum?
mg/dL). A CT scan of the abdomen demon-
A. Alkaline phosphatase
strates a 1.5-cm mass in the pancreas. An
NARAYAN CHANGDER
EM study ofthe tumor reveals membrane- B. Elastase
bound, dense-core gran-ules. These secre- C. Maltase
tory vesicles most likely contain whichof
the following pancreatic hormones? D. Phospholipase
A. Glucagon E. Trypsin
B. Insulin 23. One of your classmates casually mentions
C. Pancreatic polypeptide that the liverproduces about 1 L of bile per
day. As you attempt toconfirm this sur-
D. Secretin
prising information through indepen-dent
E. Somatostatin study, you learn that cholangiocytes con-
tinuouslymonitor the flow of bile. What
20. Severe, often fluctuating pain in the ab- subcellular organelle issensitive to the di-
domen caused by intestinal gas or obstruc- rectional flow of bile in the biliarytree?
tion in the intestines
A. Cilia
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Flagella
B. Colic
C. Hemidesmosomes
C. Foreign Body
D. Microvilli
D. Intussusception
E. Stereocilia
21. A 62-year-old alcoholic presents to the
emergency roomwith 8 hours of severe ab- 24. The pancreas delivers an alkaline pH fluid
dominal pain and vomiting.Physical exam- to the duode-num that helps to neutral-
ination discloses exquisite abdominal ten- ize the acidity of gastric juice, protect the
derness. Serum levels of amylase and li- small intestine, and provide an optimum
pase are elevated.These laboratory data pHfor hydrolytic enzymes present in the
indicate that this patient has suf-fered in- lumen. What por-tion of the exocrine pan-
jury to which of the following internal or- creas secretes most of this bicar-bonate-
gans? and sodium-rich alkaline fluid?
A. Duodenum A. Intercalated ducts
B. Gallbladder B. Interlobular ducts
C. Liver C. Intralobular ducts
D. Pancreas D. Pancreatic duct of Santorini
E. Stomach E. Pancreatic duct of Wirsung

1.14 Liver and Biliary Tract Pathology 235
25. A condition in which waste is remaining in B. Megacolon

the colon causing the colon to become ab-
normally enlarged C. Foreign Body

A. Resection and Anastomosis D. Intussusception
1.14 Liver and Biliary Tract Pathology

1. What kV range is best used for an 5. Optimal treatment for metastatic gallblad-
UGI using barium sulfate (single contrast der carcinoma is
study)? A. gemcitabine monotherapy
A. 80 to 90 kV B. Yttrium-90 radioembolization
B. 90 to 100 kV C. capecitabine and infusional 5-
C. 100 to 125 kV flurouracil
D. gemcitabine and cisplatin
D. 125 to 140 kV
6. This organ stores and churns food
2. A muscular tube that helps move food from
the mouth to the stomach. A. Pancreas
B. Stomach
A. esophagus
C. Gallbladder
B. trachaea
D. Liver
C. small intestine
7. Which area is a common area for both food
D. gall bladder
and air?
3. A patient has a confirmed diagnosis of A. pharynx
sphincter of Oddi dysfunction and has B. larynx
failed medical management. Each of the
following is an appropriate intervention C. soft palate
EXCEPT: D. epiglottis
A. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty 8. Which of the following structures allows
B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy your stomach to expand?
A. Parietal Cells
C. Biliary-enteric drainage
B. pyloric sphincter
D. Endoscopic stent placement
C. rugae
E. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D. teniae coli
4. A patient would be rotated 35-40 degrees
9. Where should the CR be centered for a
for which of the following projections?
esophagus overhead image?
A. Lateral esophagus A. The sternal angle
B. RAO esophagus B. T3 or T4
C. PA esophagus C. T5 or T6
D. None of the answers are correct D. T7

10. What end of the stomach does food en- C. Critical illness, history of biliary colic,
ter? sepsis, and sustained narcotic therapy
A. Phylorus D. Previous cholecystectomy, recent
B. Cardioesophageal surgery, sepsis, and parenteral nutrition
C. Fundus E. Critical illness, known cholelithiasis,

parenteral nutrition, and trauma
D. none of above
15. A 52-year-old woman with a history of a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. Which of the following is NOT a salivary distal gastrectomy and Roux-en-Y gastro-
gland? jejunostomy presents with biliary sphinc-
A. Parrot ter of Oddi dysfunction. You have elected
to perform a transduodenal sphinctero-
B. Parotid
plasty. Which of the following is typically
C. Submandibular a component of this procedure?
D. Sublingual A. Transverse duodenotomy at the level
of the duodenal bulb
12. Mechanical digestions occurs as
B. Division of the pancreatic sphincter
A. Chemicals help break down food
C. Suturing the wall of the common bile
B. Teeth rip food into smaller pieces duct to the duodenal mucosa
C. Peristalsis moves food through the GI D. Roux-en-Y duodenojejunostomy for
tract duodenal closure
D. Saliva helps with the break down of E. Sequential dilation of the sphincter
foods with Bakes dilators
13. Which of the following pathology causes 16. What is the first-line therapeutic option
an enlarged recess in the distal esopha- of choice for a partial (not circumferential)
gus? distal bile duct injury identified 48 hours
A. Schatzki ring after surgery?
B. Ulcer A. Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy
C. Achalasia B. Choledochoduodenostomy
D. Zenker diverticulum C. Primary repair of the injury over a T
tube
14. A 64-year-old male is TPN-dependent 2-
weeks status post bowel resection for per- D. Resection and end-to-end bile duct
forated duodenal ulcer. He develops right anastomosis
upper quadrant pain, and abdominal ultra- E. Endoscopic placement of a covered
sound suggests acute acalculous cholecys- bile duct stent across the injury
titis. Which are correct risk factors for the
development of acalculous cholecystitis? 17. Following uneventful laparoscopic chole-
cystectomy, the final pathology shows a
A. Critical illness, parenteral nutrition, T1a adenocarcinoma in the wall of the gall-
sustained narcotic therapy, and trauma bladder opposite to the gallbladder fossa
B. Parenteral nutrition, history of wall. Definitive surgical treatment in-
cholelithiasis, burns, and trauma cludes

A. resection of a 2 cm rim of liver around 21. The bile cholesterol saturation index is de-
the gallbladder fossa and a portal lym- termined by
phadenectomy

A. the ratios of hepatic biliary concentra-
B. hepatectomy including segments 4b tions of calcium, bile salts, and lecithin
and 5 and portal lymphadenectomy
B. the amount of glycoprotein secreted
C. portal lymphadenectomy alone by the gallbladder as a function of choles-
terol
D. no additional therapy
C. the relative concentrations of choles-
E. radiation therapy to the gallbladder
terol, lecithin, and bile salts
fossa and portal triad
D. the rate of bile salt absorption by the
18. When is oral water soluble contrast media gallbladder
used?
E. the relative concentrations of choles-
A. For patients with esophageal reflux terol, bilirubin, and bile acids
B. For a patient that has a bezor 22. Another word for “swallowing” is
C. Patients with possible perforated A. mastication
bowel
B. deglutition
D. Patients with a possible peptic ulcer
C. secretion
19. A hypersthenic patient will have a stomach D. propulsion
that is:
A. High and vertical 23. A 65-year-old man with a history of
cholecystitis previously managed by per-
B. Low and vertical cutaneous cholecystostomy (3 years ago),
C. High and transverse coronary artery disease status post drug-
eluting stent placement (most recently 2
D. Low and transverse years ago), chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease, and dyslipidemia presents with a
20. A 44-year-old woman who has previously
high-grade small bowel obstruction. Non-
undergone cholecystectomy presents with
operative management by nasogastric de-
intermittent right upper quadrant pain that
compression is unsuccessful, and the pa-
seems biliary in origin. Her liver function
tient is taken to the operating room for ex-
tests have been abnormal during episodes
ploration. A firm, stonelike, mobile intralu-
of pain, and her bile duct is dilated to 1.5
minal mass is palpated in the distal ileum,
cm on magnetic resonance cholangiopan-
10 cm proximal to the ileocecal valve. The
creatography. Which of the following is
bowel appears mildly dilated and well per-
most appropriate?
fused. What is the correct next maneu-
A. Empiric sphincterotomy ver?
B. Biliary manometry A. Small bowel resection and stapled
side-to-side functional end-to-end anasto-
C. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty
mosis with 5-cm margin
D. Medical therapy
B. Enterotomy with removal of the stone
E. Choledochoduodenostomy and transverse two-layered closure

C. Small bowel resection with handsewn 28. The structure that transports the bolus
anastomosis and cholecystectomy from the pharynx to the stomach it called
D. Diverting loop ileostomy
A. larynx
24. For a sthenic patient, where should the CR
B. trachea
be directed for a PA stomach?
C. esophagus
A. T12
D. pyloric sphincter
B. L1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. A 63-year-old woman has severe jaundice
C. L3
and back pain. She has been losing weight
D. Iliac crests for three months. Workup reveals obstruc-
tive jaundice secondary to a distal common
25. What separates the esophagus from the bile duct tumor. Among the following, the
stomach? preoperative laboratory test most likely
A. villi to be abnormal is:
B. pyloric sphincter A. prothrombin time (PT)
C. rugae B. serum potassium
D. cardiac sphincter C. serum bicarbonate
D. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
26. An organ of the digestive system that
makes chemicals to help the body break E. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
down fats and rid itself of harmful sub- 30. A 75-year-old man presents to the emer-
stances. gency department when his primary care
A. esophagus physician ordered laboratory testing af-
ter he was noted to have scleral icterus
B. mouth
and jaundice. The patient’s total bilirubin
C. liver level is 5.2 mg/dL and his alkaline phos-
D. stomach phatase level is 327 U/L. He has had low-
grade abdominal pain over the past few
27. When performing a choledochotomy dur- days but attributed it to his chronic irri-
ing a laparoscopic or open bile duct explo- table bowel syndrome. He has had no
ration, how should the incision be made? prior surgeries and reports he is otherwise
A. Transversely, above the insertion of healthy. He takes a statin for high choles-
the cystic duct terol. His vital signs on presentation are
temperature 101.5oF, heart rate 98 beats
B. Transversely, below the insertion of per minute, and blood pressure 115/86
the cystic duct mm Hg. Which of the following is the ap-
C. Longitudinally, above the insertion of propriate imaging test to order for this pa-
the cystic duct tient?
D. Longitudinally, below the insertion of A. Abdominal ultrasound
the cystic duct B. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
E. Transversely if above the insertion of C. Magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic
the cystic duct and longitudinally if below resonance cholangiopancreatography
the insertion of the cystic duct (MRI/MRCP)

1.15 Breast pathology 239
D. Hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid 34. Another word for “chewing” is

(HIDA) scan A. mastication

31. Which of the following ultrasound findings B. deglutition
best describe cholesterolosis of the gall-
bladder? C. digestion
A. A single 13-mm hyperechoic, non- D. secretion

shadowing, polyp
35. A fluid in the mouth that helps digest food.
B. A 10-mm mural mass with solid and
cystic features A. pepsin
C. Hypoechoic, sessile, non-shadowing B. pepsi

polyp C. saliva
D. Multiple, hyperechoic, peduncu- D. salty
lated, non-shadowing, non-mobile 4-mm
masses 36. What should be done if the esophagus
E. Multiple, hyperechoic, non-mobile 5- is not filled with barium during a lateral
mm masses with posterior shadowing esophagus overhead?
A. Have the patient drink during exposure
32. Which of the following projections would
best demonstrate the upper esophagus B. Shorten the exposure time
near T1? C. Have the patient perform the Valsalva
A. Soft tissue lateral maneuver during exposure
B. LAO D. Nothing; the esophagus is not filled
C. Swimmer’s lateral with barium during lateral esophagus
overhead
D. AP with 25-30 degree cephalad angle
33. The closes when food moves from the 37. Which of the following pathology causes
mouth and down the esophagus prevent- an irregular filling defect within the stom-
ing food from entering the trachea. ach?
A. Mouth A. Hiatal hernia

B. Stomach B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Bronchioles C. Gastritis
D. Epiglottis D. Schatzki ring
1.15 Breast pathology

1. What are the risk factors for breast can- C. Short duration of oral contraceptives
cer? usage
A. Late menarche
B. Multiparity D. Prolong breastfeeding over 2 years

1.16 Reproductive System 240
1.16 Reproductive System

1. The physiological purpose of the clitoris is A. Fallopian Tubes
A. fetal development B. Uterus
B. maturation of the ovum C. Vagina
C. pleasure D. Ovaries
D. receive the sperm from the male
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Cervix
2. What is the process of releasing an egg
7. Which kind of asexual reproduction would
from the ovary called?
a starfish grow back one of its parts
A. Ovulation
A. budding
B. Fertilization
B. regeneration/fragmentation
C. Birth Canal
C. vegetative propagation
D. Cervical Dilation
D. sporulation
3. Which of the following is the nervous sys-
tem’s main control center? 8. If a female’s egg is NOT fertilized, a
A. the brain woman’s uterus sheds blood and tissue on
the first day of
B. the peripheral nerve
A. ovulation
C. the neuron
D. the spinal cord, which is made up of B. hormone cycle
peripheral nerves C. menstrual cycle
4. A muscular tube that transports sperm- D. none of above
filled semen.
9. What does homozygous mean?
A. Vas deferens
A. Two copies of a gene version that are
B. Fallopian tube
different.
C. Scrotum
B. Two copies of a gene version that are
D. Penis the same.
5. The nesting of a fertilized egg in the wall C. Two copies of a gene that are mutated.
of the uterus.
D. Two copies of a gene that are used to
A. Implantation create another gene.
B. Fertilization
10. The structures containing female reproduc-
C. Conception tive cells.
D. Menstruation A. seeds
6. The passageways for the eggs as they B. style
make their way toward the uterus and the
C. gametes
place where the egg may be fertilized are
called the D. anthers

11. Flowers that include both male and female B. Zygote

reproductive structures C. Embryo

A. Plants D. Mating
B. Perfect flower
17. glands that produces sperm and the male
C. Imperfect flower hormone (testosterone)
D. Weed A. scrotum
12. What is epididymis? B. semen
A. A set of coiled tubes that allow the C. prostate
growth and maturation of sperms.
D. testes
B. A long tube that releases the sperms
outside of the male’s body. 18. What must happen for fertilization to oc-
cur in flowering plants
C. A short tube that allows the sperms to
move into the seminal vesicle. A. The plant must be exposed to sunlight
during pollination
D. The outer sex organ of male.
B. The sperm cells in the pollen tube must
13. Synonym for not active. be able to reach the eggs in the ovules.
A. dormant C. The eggs in the ovules must be able to
B. sterile reach the top of the stigma where pollen
is trapped.
C. spry
D. All of these
D. mobile
19. What is the function of the epididymis?
14. The most important hormone produced by
the testes is A. To secrete testosterone
A. Testosterone B. To store sperm until they mature
B. FSH C. To hold the testes
C. Estrogen D. To act as a passageway for sperm
from the urethra to the penis
D. LH
20. The drinking of alcoholic beverages by a
15. The place where an unborn baby grows
pregnant woman is harmful to the develop-
and develops is called the
ment of her fetus. This is most damaging
A. Fallopian Tubes early in a pregnancy because during this
B. Uterus time
C. Vagina A. the lungs of the fetus become func-

tional.
D. Ovaries
B. alcohol can easily enter the mouth of
E. Cervix the fetus.
16. What is the process called when an egg C. many of the essential organs of the fe-
and sperm fuse? tus are forming.
A. Fertilisation D. the fetus cannot excrete wastes.

21. Which is true about Asexual reproduc- C. The rhythm method

tion? D. An implant
A. Insects are needed to transfer pollen.
27. Choose all structures which are part of
B. New plants grow from seeds. male reproductive system:
C. Offspring are genetically identical to A. Bulbouretheral gland
their parent.
B. Seminal Vesicle
D. Two types of gametes are involved.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vagina
22. Nucleotides are made of all of the follow- D. Sperm duct
ing except
E. Penis
A. sugar
B. phosphate group 28. Which of the following is a correct se-
quence of cells in spermatogenesis?
C. enzyme
A. spermatogonium → secondary sper-
D. nitrogen base matocyte → primary spermatocyte
23. A specific place along the length of a chro- B. primary spermatocyte → spermatogo-
mosome where a given gene is located nium → secondary spermatocyte
A. Locus C. spermatogonium → primary sperma-
B. Locust tocyte → secondary spermatocyte
C. Chromosome D. none of the above
D. none of above 29. It is the meeting of a sperm and an ovum.
24. What structure of the female reproductive A. Intercourse

system surrounds the vagina and is made B. Implantation
up of fat deposits? C. Conception
A. perineum D. Fertilization
B. ovary
30. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from
C. labia majora ?
D. uterus A. Anther to stigma
25. What is dilation? B. Style to ovary
A. the thinning of the cervix C. Anther to filament
B. the widening of the cervix D. Stigma to anther
C. labor pains 31. IT is where a baby grows and develops for
D. the baby crowning approximately 9 months.
26. Which of these contraceptives are called a A. Stomach

barrier method? B. Bladder
A. The pill C. Vagina
B. Condom D. Uterus

32. On average, how many days does the men- 38. A fetus develops in the
strual cycle last? A. ovaries

A. 7 B. fallopian tubes
B. 14 C. uterus
C. 21 D. cervix
D. 28
39. The scrotum is an important adaptation in
33. Which structure of the male reproductive humanmales because the optimum temper-
system is suspended in a sac? ature for spermdevelopment is
A. scrotum A. 10 to 12 degrees below normal

bodytemperature
B. testes
B. 2 to 4 degrees below normal body tem-
C. penis perature
D. foreskin C. 2 to 4 degrees above normal body tem-
perature
34. Where does fertilization usually occur?
D. 10 to 12 degrees above normal
A. ovary bodytemperature
B. uterus
40. The opening to the uterus is the
C. vagina
A. cervix
D. fallopian tube B. vagina
35. Which structure in female reproductive C. ovary
system where the fertilisation occur? D. fallopian tube
A. Uterus
41. At what week would a fully formed baby
B. Ovary most likely be born?
C. Vagina A. Week 40
D. Fallopian tube B. Week 30
C. Week 50
36. The sperm moves because it has
D. Week 60
A. flagello
B. a tail 42. The gametes that are made by males and
that are needed to fertilize eggs.
C. cilia
A. Sperm
D. hair
B. Egg
37. Development of an unfertilized egg. C. Fallopian Tube
A. parthenogenesis D. Vas deferens
B. budding
43. The colorful flower structure that attracts
C. sporulation pollinators.
D. fertilization A. sepals

B. pistils 49. (? ? ) is the male sex hormone.

C. anthers A. Testosterone
D. petals B. Estrogen
44. Which is a type of Asexual Reproduction C. Androgen
A. Sexual D. Androsterone
B. Binary fission 50. A group of organs that work together to
perform a major function in the body
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cells
D. organism A. organ
B. organ system
45. One function of the male reproductive sys-
tem in mammals is to C. tissue
A. produce insulin necessary for sexual D. cell

reproduction 51. Where does fertilization occur in the fe-
B. transport eggs necessary for fertiliza- male reproductive system?
tion A. Fallopian tube
C. allow for delivery of gametes needed B. Ovary
for reproduction
C. Uterus
D. provide protection for the developing
D. Vagina
zygote
52. Sperm is released from the body through
46. The is the narrow, lower end of the
the
uterus that opens into the vagina.
A. testes
A. Fallopian Tubes
B. vas deferens
B. Uterus
C. urethra
C. Vagina
D. scrotum
D. Ovaries
E. Cervix 53. The correct path of the egg is:
A. ovary, uterine tube, uterus, vagina
47. Each testis contains more than 30 meters
of tiny, tightly packed (? ? ) tubules. B. Fallopian tube, follicle, vagina uterus
A. seminiferous C. labia, vestibule, follicle, ovary
B. seminary D. ovary, uterine tube, follicle, uterus
C. seminal 54. Which statement best describes the pro-
D. epididymal cess of asexual reproduction?
A. new organisms are usually genetically
48. They enclose the egg cells inside the identical to the parent
ovaries.
B. the reproductive cycle involves the pro-
A. ovules duction of games
B. anther C. nuclei of sex cells fuse to form a zygote
C. seeds D. it involves the production of genetic
D. angiosperms copies

55. The enzyme responsible for unwinding and 60. What would cause a positive Pap smear?
unzipping DNA A. Herpes

A. DNA polymerase B. Endometriosis
B. DNA ligase C. Cervical cancer
C. DNA helicase D. Breast cancer
D. DNA primase
61. preparing the uterus for a fertilized egg
56. Part which produces pollen A. implantation
A. style B. ovarian cycle
B. stigma C. menstrual cycle
C. anther D. fertilization
D. filament
62. What do the initials PID stand for?
57. The birth canal is the A. Pelvic Immune Disorder
A. ovaries B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
B. fallopian tubes C. Perineal Inflammatory Disorder
C. cervix D. Perineal Immune Deficiency
D. vagina
63. What do gene versions do?
58. During spermatogenesis, A. Make the proteins
A. sperm are produced in the seminifer- B. Provide instructions for proteins
ous tubules of the testes and become ma-
C. Give the organism its genes
ture in the epididymis.
D. Pass on the genes to the offspring
B. sperm are produced in the epididymis
of the testes and become mature in the 64. What are the small leaves called that pro-
seminiferous tubules. tect the bud?
C. sperm are produced in the vas defer- A. sepal
ens of the testes and become mature in
the epididymis B. petal
D. sperm are produced in the vas defer- C. leaves

ens of the testes and become mature in D. seed
the seminiferous tubules.
65. What process happens where the lining of
59. The ejaculatory duct connects the vas def- the uterus coming out through the vagina
erens with the: (sometimes called ‘having a period’)?
A. urethra A. Conception
B. epididymis B. Fertilization
C. seminiferous tubules C. Implantation
D. foreskin D. Menstruation

66. Pollination of a flower or plant with pollen 72. Which male reproductive structure con-
from the same flower. nects with the testes and also stores
A. Cross Pollination sperm?
B. Self Pollination A. epididymis
C. Budding B. scrotum
D. Meiosis C. seminal vesicles

D. testicle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
67. A fertilized egg is called
A. embryo 73. external organ which sperm leave the
body
B. zygote
A. penis
C. fetus
B. ovaries
D. none of above
C. menstrual cycle
68. Produce the female gamete and the hor-
D. fertilization
mone oestrogen
A. Ovary 74. Which of the following is the correct path
B. Fallopian tube of a sperm leaving the testis?
C. Pituitary gland A. Rete testes-seminiferous tubules-

efferent ductules-epididymus vas defer-
D. Cervix ens
69. Which organelle is DNA usually found in? B. Seminiferous tubules-Rete testes-
efferent ductules-Epididymus-vas defer-
A. cell membrane
ens
B. vacuole
C. Epididymus-Rete testes-seminiferous
C. chloroplast tubules-Efferent ductules-vas deferens
D. nucleus D. none of above
70. What hormones are releases by the Pitu- 75. Where does fertilization take place?
itary Gland?
A. ovaries
A. FSH, Oestrogen, LH and Progesterone
B. cervix
B. FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone
C. oviduct/Fallopian tube
C. FSH, LH and Progesterone
D. uterus
D. FSH and LH
76. The produce the eggs.
71. The muscular organ which is the size of a
fist where fertilized eggs develop is A. Fallopian Tubes
A. uterus B. Uterus
B. ovaries C. Vagina
C. vagina D. Ovaries
D. none of above E. Cervix

77. What is the primary sex hormones of 83. An egg develops, goes into the oviduct,
males? then travels to the uterus; this is known
as

A. Prostate gland
A. Ovulation
B. Testosterone
B. Menstruation
C. Urine
C. Fertilization
D. Semen
D. the menstrual cycle
78. The inner layer of the uterus is the
84. What is sperm count of a functionally ster-
A. endometrium ile male?
B. fimbriae A. above 300 million/mL
C. corpus luteum B. below 300 million/mL
D. vulva C. below 150 million/mL
D. below 20 million/mL
79. What is the name of the female sex cell?
A. spermatogonio 85. What is the correct term for sex cells
(sperm and eggs in humans)?
B. oogonio
A. Blastocysts
C. sperm
B. Zygotes
D. ovun
C. Gametes
80. what has four legs but cant walk D. Periods
A. your self 86. Which hormone helps glucose get it into
B. dog the cells of the body?
C. your mom A. Calcitonin
D. chair B. Thyroxin
C. Insulin
81. Sex cells have the number of chromo-
somes of other body cells. D. Cortisol
A. twice 87. What is the major male sex hormone?

B. half A. Progesterone
C. same B. Testosterone
D. none of the above C. estrogen
D. dopamine
82. Primary female sex organs
88. What is the main role of FSH?
A. testicles
A. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
B. Ovary/ovaries
the ovum
C. Gametes
B. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus
D. Testes/testicles wall

C. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- 93. Testosterone is

come follicle) A. The main sex hormone in humans
D. Completes development of uterus wall, B. The main sex hormone in females
promotes glycogen storage
C. the main sex hormone in animals
89. Why are flowers very colorful (and why D. The Main reproductive hormone in
do they produce odor? ) males
A. So people buy them
NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. How do organisms get their traits?
B. To make gardens look good A. They get thier traits from their environ-
C. To attract pollinators ment.
D. To attract sunlight B. They inherit one copy of a gene from
their mother.
90. Why is the scrotum located outside the C. They inherit copy of a gene version
body? from their mother and father.
A. The lower temperature is essential for D. They get their traits from the proteins
sperm production. they eat.
B. To protect the testes from abdominal
95. Forms fruit around the seeds
trauma.
A. ovule
C. To keep the testes away from the in-
fective potential of the digestive system. B. ovary
D. The vas deferens provides a longer C. stamen
pathway for the maturation of sperm. D. none of above
91. Where does the embryo implant and de- 96. In which stage do homologous chromo-
velop into a fetus? somes line up double file along the
metaphase plate?
A. Cervix
A. Telophase I
B. Ovary
B. Metaphase II
C. Uterus
C. Metaphase I
D. Fallopian tube
D. none of above
92. The reproductive system contains all the
97. After a sperm matures, it travels into this
organs and tissues required for the pro-
tube (that’s where the vasectomy occurs)
duction of new individuals. Which of the
following best describes the basic function A. urethra
of the ovaries in females? B. epididymis
A. Transporting ova to the uterus C. vas deferens
B. Produce eggs for fertilization D. none of above
C. Directing sperm to the uterus
98. Mae puts on her new winter scarf. Sig-
D. Storing and transporting urine nals are sent to her brain telling her that

the scarf is soft. Which sense provides her 104. The muscle layer of the uterus is the:
brain with this information?
A. endomenses

A. pain
B. endometrium
B. sight
C. myomenses
C. touch
D. myometrium
D. emotion
105. How do gene versions determine differ-
99. Where do the egg and sperm meet?
ent traits?
A. The ovary
A. An organism has two copies of a gene
B. The fallopian tube / oviduct for each feature.
C. The vas deferens B. Each parent randomly passes on one
D. The uterus of its two copies of genes to its offspring.
100. The beginning of menstruation is called C. Each gene version provides a unique
instruction to make a specific protein
A. Menopause molecule in an organism’s cells.
B. Oligomenorrhea D. Traits vary between parents and off-
C. Menarche spring and among siblings
D. Premenstrual syndrome
106. An ovum that has been fertilized and con-
101. The male sex hormone tains half of Mother’s genes and half of
Father’s genes
A. estrogen
A. spermatogenesis
B. testosterone
B. Zygote
C. progestrone
D. prostate gland C. Embryo
D. Fetus
102. Which part of the flower develops into a
fruit? 107. The uniting of sperm and an egg
A. Petals A. reproduction
B. Ovary B. regeneration
C. Anther
C. fertilization
D. Stem
D. germination
103. In the male reproductive system, what is
the pair of organs that produce sperm and 108. When egg and sperm nuclei join, the egg
testosterone? is fertilized to create a(n)
A. testes A. embryo
B. vas deferens B. fetus
C. prostate gland C. zygote
D. ovaries D. ovary

109. What is the sterilization procedure that B. Cortisol

cuts the vas deferens to prevent transport
C. Adrenaline
of sperm?
D. Parathyroid Hormone
A. major surgery
B. Tubal ligation 115. The womb
C. intraurethral device A. Uterus
D. Vasectomy B. Vagina
NARAYAN CHANGDER
110. Which amongst these is NOT a part of C. Cervix
PISTIL D. I dont know
A. stigma
116. Another name for sex cells
B. stamen
C. style A. egg
D. ovary B. sperm
C. gamete
111. What would be the result of cutting both
the sperm ducts in a male animal? D. gonads
A. Male sex hormones would no longer 117. The monthly changes that occur in a fe-
circulate in the blood. male’s reproductive system to prepare the
B. The animal would be unable to pass body for pregnancy is called the
urine.
A. fertility cycle
C. The animal would be unable to develop
B. hormone cycle
sperms.
D. The animal would become sterile. C. menstrual cycle
D. implantation cycle
112. nourishes sperm.
A. Testicles 118. What do you call the passageway of the
nutrients for and waste from the unborn
B. Epididymis
baby?
C. Semen
A. placenta
D. Urethra
B. oviduct
113. Which structure produces progesterone in
C. amniotic sac
a 5 month pregnant woman?
D. zygote
A. The egg
B. The ovary wall 119. organ through which sperm leave the
C. Corpus luteum body
D. The placenta A. urethra

B. ovaries
114. What hormone is responsible for the
“fight or flight” response? C. testes
A. Testosterone D. vagina

120. The enlarged base of the pistil that stores A. nutrients

the eggs of the plant is the B. carbon dioxide

A. ovary C. enzymes
B. ovule D. genetic information
C. stigma
125. The process of a seed coming out of its
D. style dormant state.
121. System that ensures continuation of the A. germination
species B. pollination
A. reproductive system C. reproduction
B. respiratory system D. symbiosis
C. endocrine system
126. What is the human embryo called after
D. digestive system the eighth week of development?
122. Trimester # :weight is gained rapidly A. zygote
(1/2 lb per week) eyes detect light and B. an infant
pupils constrict or dilate red blood cells
C. a fetus
formed in bone marrow Trimester #
:brain, spinal cord, and heart begin to form D. a morula
neural tube closes genitals begin to de-
127. How do different protein structures in
velop Trimester # :urine begins to be
cells determine traits?
released skeleton begins to form bones fat
begins to accumulate What are the missing A. Different protein structures affect how
titles for each column, in order from left to they connect to other proteins molecules.
right? B. Different protein structures have no ef-
A. Trimester 1, Trimester 2, Trimester 3 fect on connecting genes.
B. Trimester 3, Trimester 2, Trimester 1 C. Different protein structures can
change the gene.
C. Trimester 2, Trimester 1, Trimester 3
D. Different protein structures provide in-
D. Trimester 3, Trimester 1, Trimester 2
structions.
123. What do the cells and tissues of the en-
128. Brightly colored parts of flowers that at-
docrine system release to help maintain
tract insects.
homeostasis in the body?
A. petals
A. electrical signals
B. pistils
B. hormones
C. stamen
C. neurotransmitters
D. filaments
D. receptors
129. Which structure in male reproductive sys-
124. Kangaroos are mammals that lack a pla- tem produce sperm?
centa. Therefore, they must have an al-
ternate way of supplying the developing A. Scrotum
embryo with B. Testis

C. Urethra 135. Points where chromatids cross over

D. Seminal Vesicle A. Christae
B. Chiasmata
130. Which process is the meeting of a sperm
and ovum? C. Synapsis
A. Intercourse D. none of above
B. Implantation 136. Top most part of pistil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Conception A. anther
D. Fertilization B. filament
131. In human reproduction, which sequence C. stigma
of events if correct? D. style
A. menstruation > ovulation > fertilisa-
tion > implantation 137. The average woman will ovulate on what
day of her menstrual cycle?
B. menstruation > ovulation > implanta-
tion > fertilisation A. 7th day
C. ovulation > menstruation > fertilisa- B. 14th day

tion > implantation C. 21st day
D. ovulation > menstruation > implanta- D. 3rd day
tion > fertilisation
138. The skin around the testes
132. Male hormone is
A. urethra
A. testosterone
B. scrotum
B. estrogen
C. semen
C. progesterone
D. none of above
D. none of above
139. The epididymis
133. Chromosomes line up in the middle of the
A. all of these
cell during
B. is a very long coiled tube inside the
A. prophase
scrotum.
B. metaphase
C. is where sperm mature.
C. anaphase
D. is where sperm are stored.
D. telophase
140. Which part of the female reproductive
134. What does IVF stand for? system produces egg?
A. In vitro fertilisation A. Ovary
B. Insert viable foetus B. Testis
C. Internal variable fertilisation C. Epipydidmus
D. Internal vitro fertilisation D. Prostate

141. The primary male hormone is 147. Which reproductive organ that produce
A. testosterone eggs, progesterone and estrogen?

B. estrogen A. cervix
C. progesterone B. vagina
D. FSH C. ovaries
D. none of above
142. In sexual reproduction, the female parent
produces sex cells called 148. How many weeks, on average, does it
A. ovaries take for a baby to develop?
B. eggs A. 10 weeks
C. sperm B. 20 weeks
D. estrogen C. 30 weeks
143. A woman who is NOT sexually active D. 40 weeks

could still develop: 149. The series of muscle contractions in the
A. Endometriosis uterus that help push the baby through the
B. Chlamydia birth canal is called
C. Gonorrhea A. delivery
D. Syphillis B. labor
C. placenta
144. birth canal
D. menstruation
A. scrotum
B. semen 150. Nonvascular plant?
C. vagina A. fern
D. ejaculation B. moss
145. Reproductive organ that provides a place C. pine tree

to support a developing human. D. oak tree
A. fallopian tube 151. The meeting of a sperm and ovum.
B. vagina A. Intercourse
C. bladder
B. Implantation
D. uterus
C. Conception
146. A cancer occurs in a man’s organ, a small D. Fertilization
walnut-shaped gland that produces semi-
nal fluid. 152. What word means the seed is growing?
A. testes or testicles A. Germination
B. penis B. Propagation
C. prostate gland C. Fertilization
D. none of above D. Pollination

153. What structure produces estrogen and 159. What reproductive ailment caused by an
progesterone? abnormal build up of mass of tissue in the
A. Uterus cervix?
B. Ovary A. ovarian cyst
C. Cervix B. vulvovaginitis
D. Vagina C. cervical cancer
154. Any seed plant that has no woody stem. D. ovarian cancer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. monocot
160. What type of twins would be born from
B. dicot one zygote splitting to become two em-
C. herbaceous bryos?
D. gymnosperm A. identical twins
155. A structure in the body that is composed B. fraternal twins
of different kinds of tissue
C. triplets
A. organ system
D. quadruplets
B. organ
C. tissue 161. The division of the nucleus is called
D. cell A. interphase
156. What is the role of the nervous system? B. mitosis
A. to transport oxygen C. meiosis
B. to protect organs D. cytokinesis
C. to send and receive chemical mes-
sages 162. When having intercourse, which struc-
tures do not come in contact with the Pe-
D. to gather and respond to information
nis?
157. The structure that makes nutrients most
A. Smaller lips
directly available to a human embryo is the
B. Clitoris
A. gamete
B. ovary C. Uterus
C. stomach D. Vaginal orifice
D. placenta E. Uterine tube
158. What happens if an early embryo splits 163. Begins with puberty and ends around 16
just before implantation? to 18 years of age
A. Non-identical twins
A. adulthood
B. Identical twins
B. adolescence
C. This cannot occur and would harm the
embryo C. childhood
D. Semi-identical twins D. infancy

164. When a male baby is born, the end of the 169. ejection of sperm from the penis
penis is covered by: A. scrotum

A. prepuce
B. semen
B. scrotum
C. vagina
C. foreskin
D. ejaculation
D. testes
170. The erectile tissue that is located on the
165. A pap smear is used to test for precancer- dorsal surface of the penis is the
ous cells on the females
A. corpora cavernosa
A. uterus
B. corpus spongiosum
B. ovary
C. penile urethra
C. cervix
D. membranous urethra
D. Fallopian tube
171. The location that fertilisation occurs
166. Which precautions should be taken to pre-
vent the spread of HIV? 1) avoidance of di- A. The ovary
rect skin contact 2) wearing gloves when B. The fallopian tube
treating patients 3) not sharing soap with
C. The uterus
another 4) prevent exchange of body flu-
ids 5) treatment of blood to destroy virus D. The vagina
A. 1, 2 and 3 172. Eggs are produced in the
B. 1, 3 and 4 A. ovaries
C. 2, 3 and 5 B. fallopian tubes
D. 2, 4 and 5 C. uterus
167. When an organism splits into an exact D. cervix
copy of itself, this is an example of:
173. hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ
A. Fission where a fertilize egg get implanted
B. Budding
A. uterus
C. Meiosis
B. semen
D. Regeneration
C. vagina
168. A hydra reproduces when an outgrowth, D. ejaculation
or bud, forms and continues to develop un-
til if falls off of the parent. This is an ex- 174. How do pollinators benefit from flow-
ample of: ers?
A. Binary Fission A. pollen
B. Sporulation B. fun
C. Budding C. nectar
D. Vegetative Propagation D. blood

175. The reproductive system of a male mam- 181. The male gonad that produces sperm and
mal provides the male hormone testosterone is the
A. support for the internal development A. Penis
of theembryo B. Epididymis
B. materials through the placenta C. Testis
C. a means for the delivery of gametes D. Cowper’s Gland
D. the ovaries for gamete production
182. Male reproductive part of flower
NARAYAN CHANGDER
176. Epididymis belongs to which reproductive A. pistil
system?
B. stamen
A. Male
C. petals
B. Female D. sepals
C. Both
183. What does the term Gestation mean?
D. none of above
A. The joining of the egg and sperm.
177. Offspring’s genes are identical to parent B. The time it takes for the young to de-
A. asexual velop inside the mother.
B. sexual C. The release of sperm.
C. both D. The release of an egg cell.
D. none of above 184. Production of an offspring through the
combination of egg and sperm
178. These are the major female sex organs
that produce ova or eggs. A. sexual reproduction
A. Ovary/ovaries B. fertilization
B. Testes/testicles C. diploid cell
C. Vulva D. haploid cell
D. Penis 185. The part of the stamen that produces mi-
crospores that become pollen grains is the
179. Menopause
A. when menstruation ends at death A. anther
B. when menstruation ends in early age B. pistil
C. when menstruation ends in middle age C. filament
D. when menstruation ends old age D. ovary
180. Where does a cell contain it’s genetic ma- 186. Which of the following best describes the
terial? basic function of the testes in males?
A. nucleus A. Generating sperm
B. nucleolus B. Storing and transporting urine
C. cytoskeleton C. Transporting semen
D. golgi D. Producing seminal fluid

187. Which gland may carry sperm that is re- A. only cross-pollination can take place.
leased prior to ejaculation? B. only wind-pollination can take place.

A. Seminal vesicle
C. only insect-pollination can take place.
B. Prostate
D. both self-and cross-pollination can
C. Bulbourethral gland take place.
D. none of above
192. The male reproductive cell is called
188. Which part of the flower is covers and A. Sperm
protects the petals before it blooms?
B. Semen
A. stigma
C. Urethra
B. stamen
D. Testes
C. sepal
D. receptacle 193. Check all of the hormonal contraceptives
A. IUD
189. Saclike structures that produce pollen
grains are B. “The Pill”
A. Ovules C. “The Ring”
B. Sepals D. “The Shot”
C. Anthers E. implants
D. Styles
194. What part of a flower produces female
190. What is an advantage of internal fertil- reproductive cells (OVULES)?
ization and development over external fer- A. anther
tilization and development?
B. ovary
A. there is a greater chance for genetic
C. sepal
variation
B. only one sperm is needed to fertilize D. filament
the egg
195. if a cell has 24 chromosomes how many
C. genes can pass directly from the will it have at the end of mitosis
mother to the embryo
A. 6
D. the chance for zygote survival is in-
B. 12
creased
C. 24
191. An investigation was carried out on a
plant species. Plant 1-Anthers removed; D. 48
buds left open to the air. Plant 2-Anthers 196. How are Identical twins made?
untouched; paper bag tied tightly around
each bud. Plant 3-Anthers removed and A. 1 egg 2 sperm egg splits
paper bag tied tightly around each bud. Al- B. 2 eggs 1 sperm
though all flowers later opened normally,
only those on plant 1 produced seeds. This C. 1 egg 1 sperm egg splits
results shows that: D. 2 egg 2 sperm

197. Plants that produce cones and naked C. motor/sensory neurons

seeds D. only brain
A. angiosperms
203. What hormone causes ovulation to oc-
B. gymnosperms
cur?
C. mosses
A. FSH
D. ferns
B. Oestrogen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
198. The long stalk-like part that supports the C. LH
stigma.
D. Progesterone
A. Filament
B. Anther 204. Some common physical changes in female
during puberty includes:
C. Stigma
A. Facial hair (mustache, beard) starts to
D. Style grow
199. Pollination is the process by which the B. Voice-box enlarges and voice deepens.
pollen grains are transferred from the
C. Production of sperms begins and ejac-
to the
ulation occurs.
A. anther ovary
D. Menstruation and ovulation begin.
B. anther stigma
E. Hair starts to grow in the pubic region
C. stigma ovary and armpits.
D. stigma filament
205. The structure that has 3 layers of tissue
200. The female gonads are the to hold and nurture the fetus is the
A. Ovaries A. Fallopian tube
B. Uterus B. vagina
C. Fallopian Tubes C. uterus
D. Clitoris D. ovary
201. involves only one parent, all offspring 206. Which structure is correctly paired with
are identical its function?
A. Sexual A. ovary-provides milk for newborns
B. Asexual B. placenta-storage of released eggs
C. Mitosis C. uterus-produces estrogen
D. Clevage D. testis-development of sperm
E. idk
207. A primary spermatocytes
202. What two things are found in the central A. divide by mitosis to produce two sec-
nervous system? ondary spermatocytes
A. brain/spinal cord B. divide by meiosis to produce two sec-
B. spinal cord/motor neurons ondary spermatocytes

C. divides by meiosis to produce four 213. Every month, females shed off or rupture
spermatids the walls of the uterus when pregnancy
fails to happen. This produces the dead

D. divides by meiosis to produce two
tissues and some blood that are released
spermatids
once a month. Also known commonly as a
208. Fertilization produces a single cell called Period.
a(n) A. Menstruation
A. embryo B. Gestation
B. zygote C. Conception
C. fetus D. Ejaculation
D. egg cell
214. Which of the following is part of the
uterus?
209. Which structure initially makes proges-
terone? A. Areola
A. The egg B. Perineum
B. The ovary wall C. Fimbriae
C. Corpus luteum D. Fundus
D. The placenta 215. The first four weeks of life
210. the lining of the uterus that thickens as A. infancy
an egg matures B. survival
A. cervix C. neonatal period
B. endometrium D. pregnancy
C. uterus
216. When semen is pushed through and out
D. none of above of a males body through the urethra is a
process called
211. Testosterone is produced by the
A. Ejaculation
A. ovaries
B. Erection
B. hypothalamus
C. Menstruation
C. anterior pituitary gland
D. Transportation
D. testicles
217. How does an egg cell move through the
212. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome fallopian tube?
can be prevented by:
A. Via diffusion
A. A vaccine
B. Ciliated epithelial cells move it along
B. Antibiotics
C. Via gas exchange
C. Diet and exercise
D. It drifts through the liquid in the fallop-
D. Avoiding risky behavior ian tube

218. Whip-like tail that the sperm uses to 223. Which is the function of semen, produced
move by prostate glands?
A. cilia A. to produce sperms
B. vacuole B. to protect the testis
C. eyespot C. to provide nutrients to sperms
D. flagellum D. to transport sperms
224. Which statement is true about epi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
219. Also known as the birth canal
didymis?
A. cervix
A. A set of oily openings that release
B. vagina sperm
C. ovaries B. A set of coiled tubes which transport
D. cowpers gland and stores sperm cells.
220. Why do siblings and parents different C. Producer of male sex hormones.
from each other? D. Transport mature sperm to the ure-
A. Siblings get different amounts of thra.
genes from their mother or father mak- 225. Where does fertilization of an ovum usu-
ing them different. ally take place?
B. Each sibling has a mutation that A. in the ovary
causes them to have different traits.
B. in the cervix
C. Siblings use their environment and ex-
C. in the uterus
periences to determine their traits.
D. in the fallopian tube
D. Offspring inherit different combina-
tions of gene versions from parents. 226. What percentage of chromosomes are
handed down by a parent cell in asexual
221. A mother goes to the doctor for a check reproduction?
up, and her doctor suggests to her to begin
letting the fetus listen to music and read- A. 75%
ing to the fetus to help with brain devel- B. 25%
opment. At what stage of development is C. 50%
the fetus most likely in?
D. 100%
A. Weeks 1-2
227. What does heterozygous gene versions
B. Weeks 10-12
mean?
C. Weeks 18-20
A. The two copies of a gene for each fea-
D. Weeks 5-6 ture can be the different versions.
222. What are the female sex cells called? B. The two copies of a gene for a feature
can be the same version.
A. Eggs
C. The two copies of a gene are used for
B. Sperm an organisms feature.
C. Fallopian D. The two copies of a gene provide in-
D. Uterus structions for one protein.

228. The release of a mature egg into an 233. Male and female sex cells are
oviduct is called A. ovum and egg

A. menstruation B. sperm and egg
B. menstrual cycle C. testes and ovary
C. ovulation D. sperm and ovary
D. fertilization
234. In asexual reproduction, all of the off-
229. Which situation would be part of the nor- spring are:
mal reproductive cycle of a human? A. Physically Identical
A. the presence of testosterone regulat- B. Genetically Identical
ing gamete production in a male
C. Physically and Genetically Identical
B. estrogen in concentrations that would D. Not Identical
produce sperm in a female
C. a high progesterone level in a male 235. This form of asexual reproduction results
in the equal division of the parent cell.
D. a low insulin level in either a male or a
female A. Regeneration
B. Budding
230. The structures that produce the seminal
C. Binary Fission
fluid is the
D. Sporulation
A. seminal vesicles & urethra
B. seminal vesicles & prostate gland 236. Sperm travels through these vesicles to
the seminal gland to make semen.
C. prostate gland & epididymis
A. Vas deferens
D. prostate gland & testes
B. Fallopian tube
231. What is the name of the Endocrine Gland C. Ovaries
that is present inside of the Female Repro-
ductive System? D. Epididymis
A. Pituitary Gland 237. Which of the following secretes alkaline

B. Uterus fluid?
A. Seminal vesicle
C. Ovaries
B. Seminiferous tubule
D. Testes
C. Prostate gland
232. What does FSH stand for and where is it
D. Bulbourethral gland
made?
A. Follicle stimulating hormone, ovary 238. Tiny male cell that unites with the female
ovum to form a fertilized egg or zygote.
B. Follicle sensing hormone, pituitary
gland A. Testes
C. Follicle sensing hormone, ovary B. Scrotum
D. Follicle stimulating hormone, pituitary C. Sperm

gland D. Semen

239. In a rabbit, the embryo normally devel- 244. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
ops within the offspring identical to the parent?
A. placenta A. asexual
B. uterus B. sexual
C. yolk sac C. both
D. umbilical cord D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. The uterus is called this when the egg has 245. Which male reproductive structure con-
been fertilized nects the epididymis and the ejaculatory
duct?
A. ovaries
A. seminal vesicles
B. vagina
B. urethra
C. cervix
C. vas deferens
D. womb
D. bulbourethral gland
241. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
is called 246. Which is the correct order of human de-
velopment?
A. germination
A. fetus, embryo, zygote
B. transpiration
B. zygote, embryo, fetus
C. photosynthesis
C. embryo, fetus, zygote
D. pollination
D. zygote, fetus, embryo
242. A farmer grafts onto a granny smith ap-
ple tree a branch of a mackintosh apple 247. Identify the part being described:a hol-
tree and a branch of a red delicious apple low, pear-shaped organ that receives and
tree. What would you expect to find grow- hold fertilized egg cell
ing on this tree?
A. cervix
A. granny smith apples, only
B. fallopian tubes
B. red delicious apples and mackintosh
C. ovaries
apples
D. uterus
C. granny smith apples, red delicious ap-
ples and mackintosh apples 248. The path of the sperm is:
D. no apples A. scrotum, testes, prostate, penis
243. Requires only one parent B. bubourethral gland, seminiferous
tubule, seminal vesicle, urethra
A. asexual
C. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ure-
B. sexual
thra
C. both
D. seminiferous tubules, epidiymis,
D. none of above prostate, urethra

249. Adds fluid to sperm to nourish and pro- C. Asexual

tect it
D. Specialization

A. penis
B. prostate gland & seminal vesicle 255. When does a woman experience lacta-
tion?
C. semen
A. During fertilization
D. none of above
B. After ovulation
250. How many proteins do homozygous
genes create? C. During labor and deilvery
A. They are different D. After childbirth

B. One protein 256. How many sperm are able to fertilize 1
C. Two proteins egg?
D. Three proteins A. 1
251. Sperm move through the duct system of B. 2
men using: C. 3
A. gravity D. it depends
B. peristalsis
C. hand pressure 257. DNA is copied in which phase of inter-
phase?
D. viagra
A. G1
252. Chromosomes become visible in this
B. S
phase of mitosis.
A. prophase C. G2
B. metaphase D. mitosis
C. anaphase 258. Where does semen go immediately after

D. telophase passing through the ejaculatory ducts?
253. One thing that increases genetic diversity A. Outside the body
is: B. Epididymis
A. Crossing Over C. Urethra
B. Meiosis II D. Vas deferens
C. Clones
259. Nuclear membrane forms around chromo-
D. none of above
somes and begins to separate.
254. When a starfish grows a new body off a A. Anaphase
broken arm, what kind of reproduction is
this? B. Telophase
A. Sexual C. Prophase
B. Differentiation D. Interphase

260. How do coconuts disperse their seeds? C. Abstinence

A. wind D. Vasectomy
B. water 266. A sex cell (ovun-sperm) is produced by:
C. earth A. mitosis
D. heart
B. meiosis
261. Give NO genetic variation C. simple cell division
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. asexual D. bipartition
B. sexual
267. A sac that regulates the temperature of
C. both the testes.
D. none of above A. Scrotum
262. Name the structure that produces a thin B. Prostate gland
milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and C. Cowper’s gland
contributes to about 30% of overall se-
D. Seminal vesicles
men volume.
A. testis 268. What are the two main female sex hor-
mones that regulate the release of eggs
B. seminal vesicle
and the production of female characteris-
C. prostate gland tics?
D. bulbourethral gland A. estrogen and progesterone
263. Permits blood to move through the body B. estrogen and testosterone
to carry nutrients, oxygen, hormones, etc. C. testosterone and progesterone
A. respiratory system D. testosterone and endorphins
B. reproductive system
269. Which area of the Female Reproduction
C. circulatory system System is responsible for nourishing and
D. none of these protecting a fertilized egg?
A. Ovary
264. What process produces offspring from a
pinched off part of the parent? B. Fallopian Tube
A. budding C. Uterus
B. fertilization D. Vagina
C. regeneration 270. Which of the following hormones is re-
D. none of above sponsible for stimulating and maintaining
milk production?
265. What do you call a sterilization proce-
dure that cuts the vas deferens to prevent A. Androgen
transport of sperm? B. Estrogen
A. Ejaculation C. Progesterone
B. Tubal ligation D. Prolactin

271. muscular passageway that is also a birth B. Takes a shorter amount of time to re-
canal produce and it takes two mates to repro-
duce

A. uterus
C. Reproduces diverse offspring and
B. cervix
takes a longer time to reproduce
C. vagina
D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
D. ovary takes a shorter time to reproduce
272. producing one mature egg cell each month 277. What happens when a follicle ruptures?
A. penis A. Mensturation
B. ovaries B. Menopause
C. menstrual cycle C. Ovulation
D. fertilization D. Lactation
273. What structure connects the testes with 278. The female gamete
the ductus deferens? A. sperm
A. ejaculatory ducts B. egg
B. urethra C. ovaries
C. epididymis D. penis
D. prostate gland 279. From approximately age 18 and through
old age
274. Referred to as the birth canal
A. adulthood
A. Cervix
B. adolescence
B. Uterus
C. childhood
C. Vagina
D. infancy
D. Ovary
280. Sometimes, men and women are unable
275. Which of the following is NOT the func- to reproduce, which is called
tion of male hormones?
A. asexual
A. Produces sperm cells.
B. infertile
B. Releases semen
C. immature
C. Keeps reproductive system in proper
D. unreproduceable
function.
D. Prepares the growth of deposited 281. Which female reproductive structure con-
sperm cell. tains the ova?
A. fallopian tube
276. What are some of the facts about asex-
ual reproduction? B. uterus
A. Takes only one mate to reproduce and C. cervix

takes a longer time to reproduce D. ovary

282. Which of these initiates the birthing pro- 287. Which part protects and regulates the
cess in humans? temperature of the testis?
A. hormones causing contractions of the A. urethra
uterus
B. scrotum
B. the secretion of enzymes by the fetus
C. semen
C. impulse signals from the placenta
D. none of above
D. cell differentiation of the cervix
NARAYAN CHANGDER
288. Reproduction that combines genetic ma-
283. reproductive organs that produce eggs terial of two organisms
and hormones
A. Sexual Reproduction
A. cervix
B. Asexual Reproduction
B. vagina
C. Fertilization
C. ovaries
D. Budding
D. none of above
289. A particular species of shark normally re-
284. Which is NOT a type of asexual reproduc-
produces sexually. In captivity, it was
tion?
found that a female could also reproduce
A. budding asexually. One negative result from asex-
B. fertilization ual reproduction is
C. fragmentation A. increased gene recombinations
D. regeneration B. decreased biodiversity within the

species
285. How does a developing fetus receive nu- C. increased number of males produced
trients and oxygen?
D. decreased number of eggs used
A. It eats and breathes in the uterus.
B. It doesn’t need nutrients and oxygen 290. Which is not a part of the female repro-
before it is born. ductive system?
C. The umbilical cord transfers nutrients A. cervix
and oxygen from the placenta to the fetus. B. epididymis
D. The amnion contains all of the nutri- C. fallopian tubes
ents and oxygen the fetus needs.
D. uterus
286. The two male reproductive organs that
produce most of the fluids that make up 291. the sex cells that are made by males and
semen are called that are needed to fertilize eggs.
A. Testes & Epididymis A. Sperm
B. Seminal Vesicle & Prostate B. Egg
C. Vas Deferens and Urethra C. Fallopian Tube
D. Scrotum and Penis D. Vas deferens

292. The tip of the style that has sticky hairs B. the differentiation of gametes into zy-
to trap pollen is the gotes

A. stamen C. the secretion of estrogen by the ovary
B. stigma D. the production and release of egg cells
C. ovary 298. Which part of the male anatomy DOES
D. style NOT help produce a part of the final semi-
nal fluid used in reproduction?
293. The thin stalk that supports the anther.
A. Testicles
A. Pistil
B. Seminal Vesicles
B. Stamen
C. Prostate Gland
C. Anther
D. Urethra
D. Filament
299. organism produced by union of two ga-
294. What part of the flower will turn into a metes
seed if fertilized by a pollen grain? A. germ cell
A. ovary B. zygote
B. anther C. ovum
C. ovule D. spermatozoa
D. filament
300. When is ovulation most likely to occur?
295. The part of the female reproductive sys- A. About halfway between the start of
tem that produces the eggs one menstruation and the next
A. uterus B. At the start of menstruation
B. cervix C. 1-5 days before the start of menstrua-
C. ovaries tion
D. vagina D. 5-10 days after the start of menstrua-
tion
296. Which of the following are female sec-
ondary sex characteristics? (Choose all 301. Females make primary oocytes everyday
that apply) A. False, they make them every month
A. wider hips B. False, they make them every year
B. pubic hair growth C. False, they are born with all the pri-
C. broader shoulders mary oocytes they’ll ever have
D. development of breast D. True
297. Abnormalities present in the cells that 302. After a zygote is formed, specialization
line the uterus may prevent the production of cells occurs. Through which process do
of offspring by directly interfering with the cells of a zygote become specialized?
which process? A. sexual reproduction
A. the development of the embryo B. meiosis

C. fertilization 308. Where is pollen made?

D. differentiation A. ovary
303. My flowers are not sweet-scented and I B. petal
do not produce nectar. How am I likely C. pistil
dispersed?
D. anther
A. By wind
B. By insects 309. Joining of an egg cell and sperm cell from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
two different organisms
C. By water
A. sexual reproduction
D. By explosive action
B. asexual reproduction
304. What happends during fertilisation?
C. growth
A. The male sex cell touches the female
sex cell. D. development
B. The baby develops. It takes nine 310. Diploid spore-producing organism

months. A. Gametophyte
C. The baby is born.
B. Sporophyte
D. The male sex cell goes into the small
C. Alternation of Generations
intestine.
D. none of above
305. Genes that always show up in the off-
spring 311. The male reproductive organ that stores
A. Inheritance maturing sperm is the
B. Dominant A. Epididymis
C. Recessive B. Vas Deferens
D. XY Chromosome C. Prostate GlandProstate Gland
306. What structure contains muscular tissue D. Urethra

that contracts during ejaculation to aid in 312. In day 1 of the ovarian cycle women are
the expulsion of semen? in which phase?
A. Prostate gland
A. Luteal
B. Barthom’s gland
B. Follicular
C. Epididymis
C. Menstrual
D. Testes
D. Ovulation
307. This system consists of body organs that
are involved with the production of off- 313. Which type of cell division split into two
spring. identical cells
A. Reproductive A. Meiosis
B. Digestive B. Inheritance
C. Endocrine C. Mitosis
D. Nervous D. none of above

314. The female structures of the flower 320. What happens during labor?
A. Pistil A. Strong muscular contractions push the

B. Stigma baby out.
B. The fetus develops a heartbeat.
C. Stamen
C. The umbilical cord is tied and cut.
D. Ovary
D. Strong muscular contractions of the
315. What do you call the female sex cell uterus cause the cervix to enlarge.
which can be fertilised by sperm?
321. The primary function of the human male
A. ovaries
reproductivesystem is to
B. eggs or ovum
A. provide a site for fertilization
C. uterus B. produce and transport gametes
D. none of above C. protect and nourish the embryo
316. The portion of erectile tissue that sur- D. prevent urine from leaving the body
rounds the urethra is the
322. Each spermatid
A. prepuce
A. divides by meiosis to produce four
B. glans sperm cells
C. corpus spongiosum B. divides by mitosis to produce four
D. rete testes sperm cells
C. divides by meiosis to produce two
317. Which is not a part of the external female
sperm cells
genitalia?
D. differentiates into a sperm cell
A. labia majora
B. cervix 323. Oogenesis results in the formation of:
C. urethra A. 1 ovum; 2 polar bodies
D. labia minora B. 2 ova; 2 polar bodies

C. 1 ovum; 3 secondary oocytes
318. Another name for eggs
D. 4 ova
A. ovum
324. If I step on a nail what type of neu-
B. ovaries
ron take that signal TO the CENTRAL NER-
C. gonads VOUS SYSTEM?
D. gametes A. interneurons
319. In both males and females, urine is stored B. motor
in the ? C. sensory
A. Urethra D. receptors
B. Anus 325. The part of the female reproductive sys-
C. Bladder tem where fertilization takes place
D. Stomach A. Uterus

B. Womb 331. process of union of egg and sperm

C. Vaginal opening A. ovulation
D. Fallopian Tubes B. fertilization
C. menstruation
326. about how many sperm are ejaculated un-
D. blastocyst
der normal circumstances
A. Millions 332. What is the correct organizational se-
quence of the functions of the uterus? de-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Hundreds velopment of fetusnourishes the fertilized
C. Hundred thousands eggreceives a fertilized egg retains the fer-
tilized egg
D. Thousands
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
327. In which stage do sister chromatids B. 4, 2, 3, 1
split?
C. 2, 3, 4, 1
A. Metaphase 1 D. 3, 4, 2, 1
B. Metaphase II
333. The Pathway of the Sperm:
C. Anaphase 1
A. testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles,
D. None of the above prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
thra
328. During menstruation, the bleeding is the
B. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testes,
result of:
prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
A. Detachment of the myometrium thra
B. Deterioration of the endometrium C. vas deferens, testes, seminal vesicles,
C. A ruptured follicle
thra
D. A ruptured fallopian tube D. none of above
329. adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine 334. When the zygote has undergone many
are examples of cell divisions to become a small mass of
A. nucleotides cells, around day 12, it is known as a(n)
B. nucleosomes A. fetus
B. cell
C. nucleic acids
C. egg
D. amino acids
D. embryo
330. Which part of the male reproductive sys-
335. Where in the female body do the egg and
tem produces sperm?
sperm fuse?
A. Ovary A. Cervix
B. Testis B. Uterus
C. Epipydidmus C. Ovary
D. Prostate D. Fallopian tube

336. The bulging, rounded upper part of the 342. What is the main male sex hormone that
uterus is the: is responsible for male characteristics such
as deeper voice and facial hair?

A. cervix
B. vagina A. estrogen
C. hymen B. progesterone
D. fundus C. testosterone
D. none of above
337. Site of sperm development
A. seminiferous tubules 343. The flower structure that contains the an-
ther and pollen.
B. vas deferens
A. stamen
C. penis
D. prostate gland B. pistil
C. sepal
338. The two hormones that maintain the lin-
ing of the uterus are: D. petal
A. FSH and estrogen 344. chemical made by glands that tell cells to
B. LH and estrogen make something or respond in some way.
C. estrogen A. acid
D. Progesterone and estrogen B. enzyme
C. perspiration
339. Which of the following secretes mucous?
D. hormone
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Seminal vesicle 345. How do animals help disperse seeds?
C. Leydig cells A. Wind
D. Scrotum B. They are farmers
340. In which organ does sperm production C. They eat fruits

take place? D. Fire
A. Testes 346. Which of the following produces sperm
B. Penis through spermatogenesis?
C. Prostate A. Leydig cells
D. Vas deferens B. Prostate gland
341. What structures secrete progesterone C. Bulbourethral gland
and estrogen, and release an egg (ovum) D. Seminiferous tubule
once a month during a womans menstrual
cycle? 347. Production without the fusion of gametes
A. uterus A. Sexual Reproduction
B. fallopian tube B. Asexual Reproduction
C. ovaries C. None of the above
D. vagina D. none of above

348. Sperm is produced in the 354. If fertilization does not occur, the uterine
A. testes lining will be shed and removed through
the
B. vas deferens
A. Fallopian tube
C. urethra
B. vagina
D. penis C. uterus
349. What is the process called when a sperm D. urethra
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and egg produce a zygote?
355. Sperm + fluids from seminal vesicle and
A. Reproduction prostate gland
B. Excretion A. semen
C. Fertilization B. testes or testicles
D. Sneezing C. scrotum
D. none of above
350. Substances can diffuse from the mother’s
blood into the fetal blood through the 356. Which part of the plant is responsible for
structure known as the reproduction?
A. amnion A. stem
B. fallopian tube B. roots
C. yolk sac C. flower
D. placenta D. leaf
357. The male part of the flower is known as
351. Where does implantation take place? the
A. vagina A. stamen
B. uterus wall B. pistil
C. ovary C. ovary
D. fallopian tubes D. petal
352. The division of cytoplasm is called 358. How many proteins do heterozygous
gene versions create?
A. interphase
A. One protein
B. mitosis
B. Two proteins
C. meiosis
C. Three proteins
D. cytokinesis
D. They are the same.
353. Which hormone does oestrogen nega- 359. After fertilization what does the ovule
tively feedback on? develop into?
A. FSH A. Fruit
B. Oestrogen B. Bud
C. LH C. Seed
D. Progesterone D. Flower

360. The system composed of muscles that 366. An easy way to remember the order of
help in movement hormones that are involved in the men-
strual cycle is

A. skeletal system
B. digestive system A. POLF
B. LOPF
C. muscular system
C. FLOP
D. endocrine system
D. FOLP
361. It is the general term for the outer part
of the female genitalia. 367. DNA is packaged into structures called
A. Vulva
A. chromograph
B. Vagina
B. chromatids
C. Clitoris
C. chromosomes
D. Ovary
D. centromeres
362. What part of our cells holds our DNA?
368. What do the ovaries do?
A. cytoplasm
A. They store and produce sperm.
B. cell membrane
B. They store and produce ovum.
C. nucleus C. They are muscular tubes that connect
D. ribosomes the uterus to the outside of the body.
363. A form of asexual reproduction which D. They are the external part of the male
may include runners, tubers and bulbs is: reproductive system.
A. Vegetative Propogation 369. Semen contains

B. Binary Fission A. fructose
C. Budding B. vitamin C
D. Sporulation C. prostaglandins
D. all of these substances
364. Why is meiosis important?
A. It produces sex cells. 370. Where in the male reproductive system
is testosterone produced?
B. It produces diploid cells.
A. Ejaculatory duts
C. It produces chromosomes
B. Seminal vesicles
D. none of above
C. Testes
365. What is the LARGEST of the 3 parts of D. Prostate gland
your brain?
371. What is the main role of FSH in females?
A. cerebellum
A. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
B. cerebrum the ovum
C. spinal cord B. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus
D. medulla wall

C. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- 377. Which gland provides fluid that neutral-
come follicle) izes acid and lubricates the urethra
D. Completes development of uterus wall, A. Cowpers gland
promotes glycogen storage B. Prostate gland
372. Secrete nutrient-rich fluids that are C. Pituitary gland
added to sperm to make semen D. Seminal vesicle gland
A. Testes and epididymis
378. what is the first stage of labor?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Prostate and vas deferens
A. Placental
C. Prostate and seminal vesicles B. expulsion
D. Epididymis and urethra C. dialation
373. How many chromosomes are found in a D. none of above
typical human gamete (sperm or egg)?
379. A sac that is shaped like an upside-down
A. 46 pear, with thick lining and muscles where a
B. 44 fertilized egg (zygote) comes to grow into
a baby. Also called the womb.
C. 23
A. Vagina
D. 22
B. Cervix
374. Once sperm are made they mature in this C. Fallopian tube
coiled tube
D. Uterus
A. penis
B. epididymis 380. What will the ovlues become after fertil-
isation?
C. sperm
A. Fruit
D. none of above
B. Seed
375. Fertilization, the joining of egg and C. Flower
sperm, usually occurs in which organ?
D. none of above
A. vagina
381. What hormone is released by the anterior
B. fallopian tubes pituitary to stimulate division of spermato-
C. uterus gonia?
D. vas deferens A. gnRH
B. FSH
376. The bottom of the style is this part which
produces the eggs or ovules through meio- C. LH
sis. D. testosterone
A. Pollen
382. The male reproductive structure of a
B. Ovary flower is the
C. Stigma A. pistil
D. Pistil B. ovary

C. stamen 388. If the environment changes for an Asex-

ual offspring it will?
D. ovule

A. Explode
383. The egg cells is released from the ovary B. Create another offspring
into the
C. Fall in love
A. Fallopian tube
D. Die
B. Uterus
389. How do peas disperse their seeds?
C. Cervix
A. Captain Planet
D. Vagina
B. Wind
384. During menstrual cycle, as pituitary C. Bursting
glands releases hormones it results to an D. Fire
important process which is
A. Start of the cycle 390. What enzyme is responsible for replicat-
ing molecules of DNA in the correct order?
B. Release of hormones.
A. DNA helicase
C. Cause the egg in the ovary to mature.
B. DNA ligase
D. Capture the needed hormones. C. DNA polymerase
385. A sperm’s tail is known as: D. DNA primase
A. scrotum 391. The endocrine system relies on the of

the circulatory system to deliver its’ mes-
B. flagellum
sage to target cells in the body
C. acrosome A. insulin
D. none of above B. axon
386. After fertilisation what does the ovule C. blood
(egg) develop into? D. terminal branches
A. Fruit 392. Sperm are formed in the
B. Bud A. seminiferous tubules
C. Seed B. epididymis
D. Flower C. ductus deferens
D. vas deferens
387. Caring for the male and female reproduc-
tive system includes: 393. Which statement is not true of the off-
A. sexual abstinence spring resulting from asexual reproduc-
tion?
B. self-exams
A. They are produced by self-fertilisation.
C. cleanliness
B. They are produced from a single par-
D. all of the above ent.

C. Their cells have the same alleles. C. Ovary

D. Their cells have the same number of D. Speculum
chromosomes.
399. Which statement describes the reproduc-
394. Most mammals have adaptations for tive system of a human male?
A. internal fertilization and internal devel- A. It releases sperm that can be used
opment of the fetus only in external fertilization.
B. internal fertilization and external de- B. It synthesizes progesterone that regu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
velopment of the fetus lates sperm formation.
C. external fertilization and external de- C. It produces gametes that transport
velopment of the fetus food for embryo formation.
D. external fertilization and internal de- D. It shares some structures with the ex-
velopment of the fetus cretory system.
395. The hollow, tunnel-like structure through 400. Which term describes the narrow open-
which menstrual blood and babies leave ing of the uterus that extends into the
the body is called the vagina?
A. Fallopian Tubes A. fundus
B. Uterus B. cervix
C. Vagina C. vulva
D. Ovaries D. labia majora
E. Cervix 401. Which structure in the male reproductive
system produces the sperm cells?
396. Which process is the nesting of a fertil-
ized egg in the wall of the uterus? A. epididymis
A. Implantation B. vas deferens
B. Fertilization C. seminal vesicles
C. Conception D. seminiferous tubules
D. Menstruation 402. How much DNA do you receive from one
parent in asexual reproduction?
397. Which male reproductive structure sur-
rounds the urethra? A. 25%
A. bulbourethral gland B. 50%
B. testes C. 75%
C. seminal vessicles D. 100%
D. prostate gland 403. Requires two parents
398. What is another term that is used for an A. asexual

Egg in the Female Reproduction System? B. sexual
A. Ovum C. both
B. Sperm D. none of above

404. Where a baby grows and develops for ap- C. Seminal vesicles and testes
proximately 9 months.
D. Testes and epididymis

A. Stomach
B. Bladder 410. The male gland that adds a nutrient filled
fluid to the sperm.
C. Vagina
A. Prostate gland
D. Uterus
B. Male gland
405. The duct that propels live sperm toward
ejaculation is the C. Female gland
A. vas deferens D. Adrenal gland

B. fallopian tube 411. Sperm + fluids from seminal vesicle and
C. seminiferous tubule prostate gland is called
D. epididymis A. semen
406. At what age does the American Can- B. testes or testicles
cer Society recommend a baseline mammo- C. scrotum
gram for women?
D. none of above
A. 20-30 years old
B. 35-40 years old 412. The phase in mitosis where chromosomes
C. 45-50 years old move away and are pulled apart by spin-
dles to opposite sides of the cell.
D. 55-60 years old
A. prophase
407. In mammals, the placenta is essential to
B. anaphase
the embryo for
A. nutrition, reproduction, and growth C. metaphase
B. nutrition, respiration, and excretion D. telephase
C. locomotion, respiration, and excretion 413. Our reproductive system helps us

D. nutrition, reproduction, and excretion A. Sense the world around us.
408. What is the term for the process where B. Make offspring.
an egg is fertilised in a petri dish?
C. Stand up and move.
A. IVF
D. Transport blood around our body.
B. INF
C. Test Tube Fertilisation (TTF) 414. What parts of the chromosomes code for
traits?
D. AIH
A. Genes
409. What two structures are located inside
the scrotum? B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
A. Epididymis and prostate gland C. Chromosomes
B. Prostate gland and seminal vesicles D. Nucleus

415. Which is the normal sequence of events D. exchanging gasses with the atmo-
in the development of the embryo of an sphere
animal?
420. In what part of the flower does fertiliza-
A. gastrulation → fertilization → blas-
tion take place?
tula formation → cleavage
B. fertilization → cleavage → gastrula- A. anther
tion → blastula formation B. stigma
C. cleavage → blastula formation → fer-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. ovary
tilization → gastrulation
D. filament
D. fertilization → cleavage → blastula
formation → gastrulation 421. What is implantation?
416. The reproductive organs that produce A. Zygote adheres to the uterus lining
sperm and testosterone is B. Early embryo adheres to the uterus lin-
A. prostate gland & seminal vesicle ing
B. testes or testicles C. Foetus adheres to the uterus lining
C. semen D. Zygote feeds off the uterus lining
D. none of above
422. A male shark has 40 chromosomes in
417. What is the function of vas deferens? each of its sex cells. How many would be
A. A muscular tube that passes upward present in its body cells?
alongside the testes and transports ma- A. 20
ture sperm to the urethra.
B. 40
B. Sperm storage organ.
C. 80
C. Feces holding area.
D. 160
D. It produces sugar-rich fluid that pro-
vides sperm with a source of energy to 423. Testicular cancer is most common in what
help them move. age?
418. Check all of the following which act as A. Elementary boys
mechanical barriers of birth control
B. High school boys
A. condoms
C. Young adult men
B. diaphragm
D. Men over 65 years old
C. cervical cap
D. spermicides 424. The bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s
glands) produce
419. The reproductive system is responsible
for A. gametes
A. filtering blood B. semen
B. breaking down food C. lubricating mucus
C. producing offspring D. sperm

425. The female sex hormone 431. What the unborn baby is called from
A. Estrogen/Progesterone week 9 of pregnancy until birth.

B. testosterone A. Zygote
C. vagina B. Embryo
D. prostate gland C. Fetus

D. none of above
426. Which refers to the growth of the body
parts at different rates? 432. Approximately how many weeks after
A. puberty fertilization is considered a full term preg-
nancy?
B. adolescent
A. 17
C. growth spurt
B. 26
D. testosterone
C. 40
427. Which gland secretes insulin? D. none of above
A. Pancreas
433. In the female reproductive system, what
B. Ovaries are the organs that make eggs and the fe-
C. Parathyroid male sex hormones?
D. Thymus A. estrogens
B. eggs
428. A set of coiled tubes that connect to the
vas deferens. C. fallopian tubes
A. Fallopian tube D. ovaries
B. Epididymis 434. Which tube allows the passage of semen
C. Urethra and urine in males?
D. Seminal Vesicle A. Ureters
B. Urethra
429. What part of male reproductive system
that function as a sac that holds the C. vas deferens
testes? D. Penis
A. Vas deferens
435. What hormone needs to spike to signal
B. Scrotum ovulation?
C. Penis A. FSH
D. Prostate gland B. LH
430. Select the three parts of the female re- C. Estrogen
productive system. D. Progesterone
A. Ovaries, testicles and penis. 436. A “normal” pregnancy usually lasts
B. Ovaries, sperm ducts and uterus. about how long?
C. Ovaries, urethra and uterus. A. 40 weeks
D. Ovaries, uterus and vagina. B. 20 weeks

C. 50 weeks 442. Connects the embryo to the placenta

D. 32 weeks A. fetus
437. What percentage of chromosomes are B. ovaries
handed down by a sperm cell? C. zygote
A. 75% D. umbilical cord
B. 25%
443. The following structures involved in male
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50% reproductive system:
D. 100% A. Scrotum
438. Trace the pathway of the egg cell from B. Seminal Vesicle
production to pregnancy.
C. Cervix
A. Cervix > ovary > fallopian tube >
D. Sperm duct
uterus > vagina
E. Ovary
B. Uterus > Ovary > fallopian tube >
cervix > vagina 444. How do dandelions spread their seeds?
C. fallopian tube > Ovary > uterus > A. water
cervix > vagina
B. earth
D. Ovary > fallopian tube > uterus >
cervix > vagina C. fire
D. wind
439. The structures that fill with blood in order
to cause erection of the penis are 445. What do we call a fertilized egg?
A. prostate tissues A. Sperm
B. erectile tissues B. Testosterone
C. scrotum tissues C. Zygote
D. gonadal tissues
D. Egg
440. Which part of the female reproductive
446. The organ in which a fetus develops is
system dilates during delivery?
called
A. cervix
A. ovaries
B. vagina
B. fallopian tubes
C. Fallopian tube
C. vagina
D. none of above
D. uterus
441. What is the role of the nervous system
in the body 447. The female gonads are the:
A. to protect other organs and tissues A. Ovaries
B. to send messages using blood cells B. Fallopian tubes
C. to gather & respond to information C. Follicles
D. to transport oxygen & carbon dioxide D. Mammary glands

448. reproductive glands in which eggs are C. Cowper’s gland

produced D. Seminal vesicles

A. penis
454. The male reproductive cells
B. ovaries
A. scrotum
C. menstrual cycle
B. testes
D. fertilization
C. sperm
449. What do the testicles do? D. penis
A. They are where babies grow and de-
velop before birth. 455. Which of the following is incorrect?
B. They store and produce ovum. A. Females have two openings, the
vagina and urethra; males have one, just
C. They store and produce sperm.
the urethra.
D. They are tubes that transport sperm
B. Females have limited number of
out of the body.
egg/ovum production; males have unlim-
450. What is the process called in which an egg ited production of sperms.
is released from the ovary into the fallop- C. Males and females undergo menstrual
ian tube? cycle every month.
A. fertilization D. Males and females have the proges-
B. implantation terone, estrogen, and testosterone in dif-
ferent amounts.
C. ovulation
D. menstruation 456. Which part of flower develops into fruit
A. ovule
451. The process of making new sperm is
called: B. style
A. spermatogenesis C. stigma
B. spermatomaking D. ovary
C. spermatoreguvination 457. This structure is used for both excretion
D. spermatolysis (urination) and reproductive funtions.
A. Urethra
452. Which type(s) of reproduction produce
offspring? B. Endometrium
A. asexual C. Cowper’s Gland
B. sexual D. Scrotum
C. both 458. of all the fluid that is in semen is added
D. none of above by the:
453. The skin covered sac that surround the A. seminal glands
testes. B. prostate
A. Scrotum C. bulbourethral glands
B. Prostate gland D. adrenal glands

459. The process by which the nuclear material 465. Which of the following is a female ga-
is divided equally between two new cells mete?
A. mitosis A. sperm cell
B. cancer B. egg cell
C. spindle C. ovary
D. centromere D. testicle
460. The male gamete 466. What part of the flower will turn into a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. egg fruit?
B. sperm A. petal
C. ovaries B. ovary
D. penis C. ovule
D. stamen
461. Offspring’s genes aren’t just like one par-
ent’s genes 467. How long can sperm live in the body of a
A. asexual women?
B. sexual A. 3 days
C. both B. up to 5 days
D. none of above C. 2 days
462. What gland should be checked for cancer D. only 1 day 24 hours
yearly after age 45 468. The periodic shedding of the lining of the
A. prostate uterus
B. seminal vesicle A. ovulation
C. bulbourethral B. menstruation
D. pituitary C. fertilization
463. Which of the following hormones is se- D. Urination
creted by the ovaries?
469. the process when a sperm cell joins an
A. estrogen egg
B. melatonin A. penis
C. progesterone B. ovaries
D. two of these C. menstrual cycle
464. What term is used to describe when a ma- D. fertilization
tured egg has been released into the Fal-
lopian Tube? 470. What is the exchange organ that contains
a network of blood vessels that allows the
A. Menstruation embryo and mother to exchange materials
B. Fertilized Egg such as nutrients and waste?
C. Ovulation A. blood
D. Ejaculation B. amnion

C. placenta 476. Which reproductive structure is correctly

D. uterus paired withits function?

A. uterus-usual site of fertilization
471. mixture of sperm cells and fluids
B. testis-usual location for egg develop-
A. scrotum ment
B. semen C. ovary-delivers nutrients to the embryo
C. vagina D. sperm-transports genetic material
D. ejaculation
477. A mixture of sperm and fluids
472. What is the main role of Progesterone? A. semen
A. Completes development of uterus wall, B. glands
promotes glycogen storage
C. scrotum
B. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
D. testes
the ovum
C. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus 478. After conception, where does the em-
wall bryo/fetus develop?
D. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- A. vagina
come follicle) B. fallopian tubes
473. What is the function of nectar? C. uterus
A. To provide food for the flower D. ovaries
B. To attract pollinators 479. What is it called when an fertilized egg
C. To attract animals to disperse the implants on the Fallopian tube instead of
fruits the uterus?
D. To produce perfumes for Man A. non uterine pregnancy
B. ectopic pregnancy
474. The female reproductive structure that
serves as a passageway for the ova to the C. Fallopian tubal pregnancy
uterus is the: D. tubal ligation
A. fallopian tube
480. When a baby is born, it passes out of the
B. perineum mother’s body through the
C. vaginal canal A. uterus
D. ureter B. fallopian tube
475. The skin covered sac that surround the C. vagina

testes is the D. none of above
A. Scrotum 481. What is a mutation and how does it af-
B. Prostate gland fect genes?
C. Cowper’s gland A. A mutation is a growth on an organism.
D. Seminal vesicles B. A mutation is a copy of a gene.

C. A mutation is a change in an organisms C. FSH and Estrogen

genes. D. LH and Progesterone
D. A mutation is a feature of an organism.
487. Testosterone directly affects the
482. Which behavior would likely keep your A. formation of a zygote
nervous system especially your brain B. changes within an ovary
healthy?
C. production of sperm cells
A. smoking
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. development of a placenta
B. watching a scary movie
488. The female reproductive cells are
C. eating popcorn with butter
A. eggs
D. doing crossword or math puzzles
B. ovaries
483. What is also called the birth canal? C. uterus
A. Uterus D. bladder
B. vagina 489. A is formed when fertilization occurs.
C. ovary A. embryo
D. rectum B. zygote
484. In human males, sperm cells are sus- C. fetus
pended in a fluid medium. The main advan- D. sperm
tage gained from this adaptation is that
490. Chromatids move towards poles during
the fluid
A. removes polar bodies from the surface
A. prophase
of thesperm
B. metaphase
B. activates the egg nucleus so that it be-
gins todivide C. anaphase
C. acts as a transport medium for sperm D. telophase
D. provides currents that propel the egg 491. What reproductive structure is described
down theoviduct as a hollow, muscular, pear-shaped or-
gan?
485. the male reproductive organs that pro- A. Uterus
duce sperm and testosterone.
B. Vagina
A. Testicles
C. Perineum
B. Ovaries
D. Ovary
C. Vas deferens
492. once sperm are made they move into this
D. Prostate gland coiled tube
486. What 2 hormones are needed to maintain A. Epididymis
the lining of the endometrium? B. Vas deferens
A. FSH and LH C. Fallopian tube
B. Estrogen and Progesterone D. Uterus

493. the organ that removes urine from the 499. Seminal fluid is the liquid in which sperm
male body and that can deliver sperm to swims in. Which organs of the male re-
the female reproductive system productive system produce this liquid. (2

A. Penis Answers)
B. Vagina A. Fallopian Tube
C. Urethra B. Prostate
D. Testes C. Epididymus
D. Seminal vesicle
494. What is the uterus
A. The womb where the baby grows 500. Produces the male gamete and testos-
terone
B. Part of the brain
A. Testes
C. Where the eggs come from
D. Sensory organ B. Prostate
C. Epididymis
495. The gland which produces a fluid that
mixes with sperm D. Ovary
A. scrotum 501. What is the tube through which sperm

B. seminal vesicle passes from the testicles to the ejaculatory
ducts?
C. testes
A. Epididymis
D. penis
B. Vas Deferens
496. The male reproductive organ
C. Urethra
A. semen
D. Seminal Vesicles
B. scrotum
C. sperm 502. A stem cutting of a rose plant was
planted in a pot. Weeks later, the cutting
D. penis grew roots and began to grow into a new
rose plant. Which process led to the for-
497. Which parent determines the gender of
mation of the new rose plant?
offspring
A. Mother A. pollination
B. Father B. germination
C. Both C. sexual reproduction
D. Fate D. asexual reproduction
498. Which organ produces sperm cells? 503. By which process does yeast reproduce?
A. testes A. budding
B. epididymis B. sporulation
C. ovary C. vegetative propagation
D. prostate gland D. binary fission

504. DNA inside of all of our cells makes B. stigma

up chromosomes. In sex cells (egg and C. ovary
sperm), the number of chromosomes is
the number of chromosomes in normal hu- D. petal
man body cells.
510. How does pollen reach the ovule?
A. double
A. Stigma → Style
B. half
B. Style → stigma
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. triple
C. Ovary → stigma
D. the same as
D. Ovary → style
505. What are the tubes that connect the
511. Trace the pathway of sperm cells from
ovaries to the uterus?
the male to the female reproductive sys-
A. fallopian tubes tem.
B. ureters A. Testicle > epididymis > urethra >
C. urethra seminal vesicle > vas deferens > vagina
D. colon B. Testicle > epididymis > vas deferens
> seminal vesicle > urethra > vagina
506. Reproductive organ that connects the
C. Testicle > seminal vesicle > epi-
uterus to the outside of the body (where
didymis > vas deferens > urethra >
intercourse occurs) is
vagina
A. vagina
D. Testicle > seminal vesicle > vas def-
B. fallopian tube erens > epididymis > urethra > vagina
C. eggs or ovum
512. What is the name of the sex hormone for
D. none of above males?
507. who is clever students? A. Estrogen
A. make a smart choices B. Progesterone
B. leave homework at home C. FSH
C. Does not hand in homework D. Testosterone
D. Doesn’t pay attention 513. It is the nesting of a fertilized egg in the
wall of the uterus.
508. How long does an egg live inside the Fal-
lopian tube? A. Implantation
A. 12-24 hours B. Fertilization
B. 3 days C. Conception
C. up to 5 days D. Menstruation
D. one month 514. The part of the chromosome where sister
509. What is the sticky part of the flower that chromatids are attached.
catches pollen? A. centriole
A. style B. aster

C. spindle fiber 520. what slaps but does not have a hand
D. centromere A. your hand

B. wave
515. After fertilization what does the ovary
C. water
develop into?
D. your body
A. Fruit
521. System composed of the brain, spinal
B. Bud
cord, and nerves that control the body
C. Seed A. nervous system
D. Flower B. endocrine system
C. skeletal system
516. What is the life expectancy of the sperm
cell inside the female reproductive tract? D. spinal cord
A. 24 hours 522. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
genetically unique offspring-a variety?
B. 48 hours
A. asexual
C. 72 hours
B. sexual
D. 92 hours
C. both
517. What do you call the process in which the D. none of above
ovary releases a mature egg cell?
523. The lining of the uterus coming out
A. menstruation through the vagina (sometimes called
B. oogenesis ‘having a period’).
A. Conception
C. ovulation
B. Fertilization
D. fertilisation
C. Implantation
518. What is ovulation? D. Menses
A. The release of an egg into an oviduct. 524. The reproductive organs that produce
B. The joining of an egg cell and a sperm sperm and testosterone
cell. A. prostate gland & seminal vesicle
C. The period of time when the female is B. testes or testicles
having her period. C. semen
D. The act of mating. D. none of above
519. reproductive cells 525. The system used to take in oxygen to the
lungs
A. scrotum
A. respiration
B. semen B. respiratory system
C. vagina C. reproductive system
D. sperm D. circulatory system

526. The neck of the uterus. 532. If fertilisation doesn’t happen in what
A. Ovary stage of meiosis II does the secondary
oocyte reach?
B. Cervix
A. Telophase
C. Vagina
B. Prophase
D. Vulva
C. Metaphase
527. Semen exits this part of the body D. Anaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. testes 533. A 65 year old healthy male begins to
B. penis have difficulty starting to urinate, urinary
frequency, and nocturia. What MOST
C. sperm tube
LIKELY is the cause?
D. urethra A. Prostatic hypertrophy
528. How many sperm fertilize a female’s B. Testicular cancer
egg? C. Epididymitis
A. a few hundred D. Orchitis
B. several million
534. A group of similar cells that perform the
C. one same function
D. ten A. cells
B. tissue
529. Which structure in female reproductive
system produce ovum? C. organ
A. Fallopian tube D. organism
B. Ovary 535. Eggs are produced in which organ?
C. Uterus A. ovary
D. Cervix B. fallopian
C. uterus
530. Female reproductive part of flower
D. cervix
A. pistil
B. stamen 536. Which of the following is not a secondary
sex characteristic in male?
C. petals
A. deeper voice
D. sepals
B. broader sholders
531. The end of the female reproductive cycle C. wider hips
in middle age is called
D. facial hair
A. menopause
537. Identify the part being described:a loose,
B. gestation
pouch-like sac that protects and supports
C. cessation the testes and sperm
D. Granny syndrome A. scrotum

B. vas deferens 543. What part of the external female geni-

C. epididymis talia provides padding for the pubic bone?

D. testes A. Clitoris
B. Labia minora
538. Sperm are created through meiosis in an
area of the testes called the seminiferous C. Mons pubis
tubules. Through which structure do the D. Perineum
sperm travel to exit the testes?
544. During pregnancy, what is the primary
A. vas deferens
function of the placenta?
B. seminiferous tubules
A. to deliver blood to the fetus
C. scrotoum
B. to digest nutrients for the fetus
D. epididymis
C. to protect the fetus from injury
539. After leaving the Seminiferous Tubules, D. to provide space for growth of the fe-
where do the sperm travel to next? tus
A. Epididymis
545. How does sexual reproduction result in a
B. Vas Deferens variation among offspring?
C. Penis A. Organisms usually inherit their traits
D. Urethra from the parent that lives in the same en-
vironment.
540. Which organ produces egg cells?
B. Each gene version provides a unique
A. The vagina set of instructions to make a protein.
B. The fallopian Tubes C. Protein molecules interact with other
C. The uterus protein molecules.
D. The ovaries D. Each parent randomly passes on one

of its two copes of each gene to its off-
541. For a human zygote to become an em- spring.
bryo, it must undergo
546. The testes are inside a sac called
A. fertilization
A. semen
B. recombination
B. scrotum
C. meiotic dvisions
C. sperm tube
D. mitotic divisions
D. seminal vesicle
542. After Ovulation takes place, where does
the ova (egg) travel to? 547. The beginning of sexual maturation.
A. Fallopian Tube A. puberty
B. Uterus B. testosterone
C. Endometrium C. glans
D. Vagina D. estrogen

548. An egg develops, goes into the oviduct, 553. A mode of reproduction by which an or-
then travels to the uterus, breaking down ganism arises from a single organism and
lining uterus; this is known as inherit the identical genes of that parent
A. Ovulation A. Asexual Reproduction
B. Menstruation B. Sexual Reproduction
C. Fertilization C. Genetic Variation
D. the menstrual cycle D. Alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
554. What could happen if a woman releases
549. First 18 months of life
two eggs at once?
A. adulthood A. Non-identical twins
B. adolescence B. Identical twins
C. childhood C. This cannot occur naturally
D. infancy D. Semi-identical twins
550. The organ that contains the urethra 555. The proliferation phase occurs during
where urine and semen leave the body. A. the first week of the menstrual cycle
A. scrotum B. the second week of the menstrual cy-
B. penis cle
C. the last two weeks of the menstral cy-
C. semen
cle
D. none of above
D. menopause
551. Starfish can asexually reproduce by pro- 556. A major male sex organ that produces
ducing offspring from a broken piece of the and stores sperm.
parent organism. This is an example of
A. Prostate Gland
A. budding
B. Testicle
B. fragmentation
C. Ovary
C. binary fission D. Vas deferens
D. vegetative propagation
557. Twins that form from two separate eggs
552. Which is the most valid reason why a that are fertilized by two separate sperm
woman may be advised to give birth in are called
hospital? A. identical twins
A. The mother doesn’t want to be awake B. triplets
when she gives birth C. quadruplets
B. The father has an important date com- D. fraternal twins
ing up that he can’t miss
558. This disease can be cured with antibiotics
C. Younger or Older mother
in the first two stages, but untreated, can
D. To reduce stretch marks cause damage to the heart, brain damage,

mental disorders, deafness, and blindness. 563. How many parent(s)are needed for asex-
What is the disease? ual?

A. Syphillis A. 4
B. Herpes B. 1
C. Uterine cancer C. 9
D. Chlamydia D. 100
564. This connects the ovary to the uterus.
559. The male parent in sexual reproduction
produces sex cells called A. Penis
A. sperm B. Fallopian tube
B. vas deferens C. A and D
C. eggs D. Uterus
D. testes 565. Which of the following is true of a zy-

gote?
560. The 3 functions of the MALE reproductive A. It forms into a blastocyst
system:
B. It is an unfertilized egg
A. produce sex hormones, produce eggs,
provide nourishing environment for the C. It produces haploid male gameto-
baby phytes
D. It is made up of only one cell
B. produce sex hormones, produce/store
sperm. deliver sperm to female reproduc- 566. Which structure is not essential in wind-
tive system pollinated flowers?
C. produce hormones, urination, cleans- A. anther
ing of reproductive organs B. ovary
D. none of above C. petal
561. The ovary, style, and the stigma make up D. stigma
the female part of a plant called the?
567. What is the corpus luteum associated
A. stamen with?
B. petals A. Ovary
C. stem B. Uterine tube
D. carpel (pistil) C. Vagina
D. Cervix
562. The uterus play important parts in repro-
ductive system because: E. Ligament
A. place where embryo is implanted 568. Gametes form to make a

B. produce sex hormone like estrogen A. Haploid Zygote
C. place where foetus will develop B. Diploid Zygote
D. secretes mucus to help movement of C. None of the above
sperms D. none of above

569. Carcinogens cause uncontrolled cell B. sexual

growth known as C. both
A. Downs Syndrome D. none of above
B. Tay-sacs
575. What is fertilisation?
C. ADHD
A. The pollen grain land on the stigma, a
D. cancer tube grows down the style and the pollen
grain fuse with the egg.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
570. The skin cells of an animal contain 8 chro-
mosomes. How many chromosomes will B. The ovules land on the anther, a tube
be present in each of the gametes pro- grows down the filament and the ovules
duced by this animal? fuse with the pollen grain
A. 16 C. The pollen grain land on the ovary, a
tube grows into the ovules and the pollen
B. 8
grain fuse with the ovules.
C. 4
D. none of above
D. 2
576. The fetus develops in the:
571. What would most likely happen to a preg-
A. cervix
nant woman if her progesterone levels
suddenly dropped? B. fallopian tube
A. She would give birth C. perineum
B. Miscarriage D. uterus
C. Negative feedback would occur 577. The female sex organ
D. Her waters would break A. vagina
572. Which part of the brain controls breath- B. eggs
ing? C. ovaries
A. neurons D. cervix
B. medulla
578. An organ that provides the chemical sub-
C. cerebellum stancess needed by a fetus is called the
D. cerebrum A. ovary
573. The stalks in a flower that produce the B. uterus
male reproductive cells C. placenta
A. pistil D. fallopian tube
B. stamen 579. The time between cell divisions in the life
C. filament cycle of the cell is called
D. stigma A. anaphase
574. Which type(s) of reproduction involves B. interphase

NO genetic diversity? C. prophase
A. asexual D. metaphase

580. The inability of sperm cells to move nor- 586. A baby develops in this organ.
mally could prevent the production of off- A. uterus
spring by interfering with

B. ovary
A. meiosis
C. fallopian tube
B. fertilization
D. none of above
C. mitosis
587. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
D. differentiation
only ONE parent?
581. The male sex cells A. asexual
A. glans B. sexual
B. sperm C. both
C. penis D. none of above
D. urethra
588. Where can the sperm cell find and fer-
582. How many weeks is considered full term tilise an egg cell inside a woman’s body?
pregnancy? A. uterus
A. 36 weeks B. ovaries
B. 42 weeks C. fallopian tube
C. 40 weeks D. cervix
D. none of above 589. After leaving the Epididymis, where do
the sperm travel to?
583. The period of development before birth
A. Seminiferous Tubules
A. pregnancy
B. Vas Deferens
B. puberty
C. Urethra
C. party time
D. Penis
D. photosynthesis
590. Which of these best describes the process
584. The contraceptive pill contains which of of budding?
the following hormones?
A. asexual reproduction resulting in the
A. FSH formation of new organisms from out-
B. LH growths of mature organisms
C. Adrenaline B. sexual reproduction resulting in the nu-
cleus of two cells uniting to form a new
D. Oestrogen and/or Progesterone
organism
585. Reproductive haploid cells are called C. asexual reproduction resulting in the
A. Somatic cells formation of a spore that grows into a new
organism
B. Gametes
D. sexual reproduction resulting in a sex
C. Zygote cell dividing evenly to form two identical
D. none of above daughter cells

591. Part of flower that protects flower in bud 596. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
stage TWO parents?
A. pistil A. asexual
B. stamen B. sexual
C. petals C. both
D. sepals D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
597. Which of the following describes fertiliza-
592. The system composed of bones to help
tion?
support and protect the body
A. cell differentiation to form a blastula
A. muscular system
B. formation of germ layers in a deuteros-
B. endocrine system tome
C. skeletal system C. a sperm joining an egg to form a zy-
D. nervous system gote
D. sperm and egg production
593. Identify the part being described. Tubes
that connects the ovaries to the uterus. 598. once a sperm matures, it travels through
this tube
A. cervix
A. Vas deferens
B. fallopian tubes
B. Fallopian tube
C. vagina
C. Ovaries
D. fimbriae
D. Epididymis
594. Which Gland is responsible for sending 599. Once sperms are made they mature in the
hormones to the Ovary to mature an egg coiled tube prior to ejaculation. The coiled
cell? tube is called
A. Ovary A. penis
B. Testes B. epididymis
C. Pituitary C. sperm
D. Gonads D. none of above
595. The human male reproductive system is 600. Why are the testicles outside of the
adapted for the production of body?
A. to reach the vagina
A. sperm and the delivery of these cells
for internal fertilization B. temperature
B. gametes that transport food to the egg C. distance from prostate gland
C. zygotes and the development of these D. avoid body acids
cells into a fetus
601. What is the name for the part of the sex
D. hormones that stimulate placenta for- cells where the genetic material (chromo-
mation in the male somes) are located?

A. Cytoplasm C. Uterus
B. Nucleus D. Scrotum

C. Mitochondrion
607. Where does meiosis occur in the female?
D. Stomata
A. Cervix
602. Which of the following describes semen? B. Uterus
A. It is a combination of egg and sperm
C. Ovary
cells.
D. Testicles
B. It contains the fertilized egg.
C. It contains sperm, hormones, and 608. Interphase consists of all of the following
nutrient-filled fluids. except
D. It is produced in the testicles. A. G1
603. What part of the flower will turn into a B. S
seed? C. G2
A. ovary D. mitosis
B. anther
609. The filament
C. ovule
A. holds up the anther
D. filament
B. protects the petal
604. How do the proteins determine traits in
organisms? C. is the male part of the flower
A. They give instructions to the genes D. catches pollen
B. It depends on how they connect with 610. A surrogate can be (select multiple
other proteins options!)
C. The trait depends on what environ- A. a family member
ment the organism lives in.
B. a friend
D. The organism inherits its genes
through sexual reproduction. C. a stranger who volunteers
D. the legal mother
605. This begins the entire process of growth
and development E. anyone over 50
A. fertilization 611. Check all of the viral (incurable) sexually
B. regeneration transmitted infections:
C. reproduction A. acquired immune deficiency syndrome
D. germination (HIV)
B. chlamydia
606. An egg cell leaves the and goes into
the fallopian tube. C. herpes
A. Testicle D. genital warts (HPV)
B. Ovary E. gonorrhea

612. A fisherman wants to alleviate his prob- 617. Pollen grains collect on the of a
lem of starfish that are eating the oysters flower, which is often sticky or feathery.
in his oyster farm. He decides to cut the
A. Anther
starfish in half and throw it back into the
water. What process will the starfish un- B. Stamen
dergo, causing more problems for the fish-
C. Ovary
erman?
D. Stigma
A. Vegetative Propagation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Regeneration 618. In asexual reproduction, do the offspring
C. Binary Fission look identical to each other?
D. Budding A. No
613. This occurs after a tube grows down from B. Yes

the pollen grain through the style to the C. Kind of
ovary.
D. none of above
A. pollination
B. germination 619. Which of the following secretes citrate
and enzymes to break up the semen clot
C. fertilization
during intercourse?
D. seed dispersal
A. Leydig cells
614. When does oogenesis begin?
B. Prostate gland
A. at birth
C. Bulbourethral gland
B. before birth
D. Seminiferous tubule
C. at the onset of adulthood
E. Seminal vesicle
D. at the onset of puberty
615. What is surgically removed during a cir- 620. What fluid contains millions of sperms
cumcision? that is produced by the sex organs of
males?
A. Foreskin
A. Testosterone
B. Cowper’s gland
C. Scrotum B. Semen
D. Vas deferens C. Urine

D. Estrogen
616. This is the tube where semen can is trans-
ferred by the penis. It is also called as
621. The urethra belongs to which reproduc-
the birth canal when a baby is about to be
tive system?
born.
A. Ovary A. Male
B. Vagina B. Female
C. Vulva C. Both
D. Fallopian tube D. none of above

622. sac of skin surrounding the testicles C. Asexual reproduction with diverse off-
A. scrotum spring

B. semen D. Sexual reproduction with uniform off-
spring
C. vagina
D. ejaculation 628. What organelles are abundant in sperm
cells to provide energy for flagellum move-
623. A plant egg is called an ment?
A. pollen A. ribosomes
B. ovule B. lysosomes
C. anther C. enzymes
D. ovary
D. mitochondria
624. What does the egg pass through between
the uterus and the vagina? 629. The is the fetus’ link to life.
A. cervix A. umbilical cord
B. ovary B. fallopian tubes

C. endometrium C. placenta
D. myometrium D. none of above
625. whats long but doesnt have and back 630. Where does an off spring get its traits in
A. a spine from a binder asexual reproduction?
B. your leg A. From both parents

C. and rope B. From only one parent
D. your spine C. From neither parent
626. Female erectile tissue between the labia D. There are no traits handed down
A. vagina 631. Each Stamen consists of a thin supporting

B. labia majora stalk called a(n)
C. clitoris A. Filament
D. cervix B. Ovary
627. Offspring are genetically identical to C. Stigma

the one parent.Is this the result of sex- D. Sepal
ual or asexual reproduction? And how
would you characterize the offspring listed 632. The release of an egg cell is called:
above? A. fertilization
A. Asexual reproduction with uniform off-
B. ovulation
spring
C. menstruation
B. Sexual reproduction with diverse off-
spring D. urination

633. A fertilized egg enters the uterus and em- 638. The pathway of the sperm:
beds itself into the lining of the uterus. A. testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles,
This process is called prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
A. ovulation thra
B. implantation B. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testes,
C. fertilization thra
D. menstruation C. vas deferens, testes, seminal vesicles,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
634. Which structure in male reproductive sys- thra
tem that transport the sperm out of the
D. none of above
body?
639. Many wind-pollinated flowers have
A. Testis
A. feathery stigmas and light pollen.
B. Sperm duct
B. feathery stigmas and sticky pollen.
C. Urethra
C. short stigmas and light pollen.
D. Seminal vesicle D. short stigmas and sticky pollen.
635. Where are egg cells stored and released 640. The tube that leads from each testis to
from? the prostate gland and urethra is called
A. The uterus. A. vas deferens
B. The testes. B. fallopian tubes
C. ovaries
C. The ovaries.
D. uterus
D. The cervix.
641. HIV stands for
636. The following choices are processes of A. Human Immunological Virus
menstrual cycle. Which of these correctly
B. Human Deficiency Virus
describes menstruation?
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
A. An unfertilized egg.
D. Human Insexualdeficency Virus
B. A thick uterine lining.
642. At what month do babies start to hear?
C. A fertilized egg.
A. 3rd month.
D. A developed union of egg and sperm
B. 2nd month
cell.
C. 5th month
637. Eggs of a flowering plant are contained D. when they’re born in the 9th month
in
643. On what day of the cycle is ovulation?
A. Pollen Grains
A. Day 4
B. Anthers B. Day 8
C. Stamen C. Day 14
D. Ovules D. Day 28

644. Menstrual cycle happens at this time of 650. Inability to have an erection or to sustain
female’s life. an erection
A. Epididymitis

A. At birth
B. At puberty B. Impotent
C. At old age C. Testicular cancer
D. At menopause D. Orchitis
645. Which of the following hormones is re- 651. Occasionally, one or both testes do not
sponsible for male secondary sex charac- descend properly before birth. This condi-
teristics? tion is known as:
A. Progesterone A. Circumcision
B. Cryptorchidism
B. Androgen
C. Orchitis
C. Estrogen
D. Epididymitis
D. Luteinizing hormone
652. Offspring have different genes
646. Which ovarian phase is the final phase to
A. asexual
occur?
B. sexual
A. Luteal
C. both
B. Ovulation
D. none of above
C. Follicular
D. Menstrual 653. In which asexual reproduction method
does the new plant grow in artificial me-
647. From 18 months to puberty dia under sterile conditions?
A. adulthood A. Cutting
B. adolescence B. Division
C. childhood C. Tissue Culture
D. infancy D. Layering
648. The female gamete is an 654. The structure that draws the mature egg
into the Fallopian tube is the
A. egg
A. fimbriae
B. ovum
B. cervix
C. oocyte C. vagina
D. all of these names apply D. corpus luteum
649. Bacteria split asexually into 2 identical 655. What is the female gland that secretes
organisms by a process called estrogen and progesterone?
A. mitosis A. Testes
B. meiosis B. Pancreas
C. binary fission C. Thymus
D. cytokinesis D. Ovaries

656. Which part of the brain controls balance C. sperm cells

and body position?
D. spermatid
A. cerebrum
B. medulla 662. These are sex cells that are produced by
the testes and are needed to fertilize an
C. cerebellum
egg.
D. impluses
A. semen
657. Chimpanzees have 48 chromosomes in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. sperm
each normal body cell. How many chro-
mosomes does a chimpanzee gamete con- C. ovary
tain? D. zygotes
A. 23
B. 24 663. This carries the egg to the uterus.
C. 46 A. Fallopian tube
D. 48 B. Vagina
658. A human usually has total chromo- C. cervix

somes. D. Ovary
A. 6
664. When the egg and sperm join together, it
B. 22
is known as
C. 4
A. intercourse
D. 46
B. ovulation
659. The three embryonic germ layers are
C. fertilization
A. mesoderm, andoderm, esxoderm
D. mitosis
B. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
C. cleavage, gastrula, morula 665. The shedding of the lining of the uterus
D. none of above along with some blood once a month. Also
called a monthly period.
660. Most of the skeleton of a human embryo A. Gestation
is composed of connective tissue known as
B. Conception
A. cartilage
B. tendons C. Menstruation
C. ligaments D. None of the above
D. bone
666. Creates many offspring over time
661. During spermatogenesis, which of the fol- A. asexual
lowing cells is the first to become hap-
loid? B. sexual
A. primary spermatocyte C. both
B. secondary spermatocyte D. none of above

667. Made up of 8 organs that release hor- C. Tissue Culture

mones to control the metabolism and
D. Layering
growth of the body

A. excretory system 673. Offspring’s genes are identical to each
B. excretion other
C. endocrine system A. asexual
D. hormone system B. sexual
668. These are the major male sex organs that C. both
produce sperms. D. none of above
A. Penis
B. Vulva 674. System in the body that removes all
waste
C. Testes/testicles
A. excretion
D. Ovary/ovaries
B. digestive system
669. A man who receives a mumps vaccination
is less likely to get: C. excretory system
A. Testicular cancer D. endocrine system

B. Prostate cancer
675. A female reproductive structure in a
C. Cryptorchidism flower is called a(n)
D. Orchitis A. Stamen
670. What happens to the egg if no pregnancy B. Pistil
occurs?
C. Anther
A. It is re-used
D. Filament
B. Is comes out with the next period
C. It disintegrates 676. A sex cell that contains an individual’s ge-
D. It is reabsorbed by the ovary netic material
A. Sperm
671. When does completion of meiosis occur?
B. Ovum
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2 C. Gamete
C. Fertilisation D. Chromosomes
D. Ovulation
677. What process occurs on the first day of
672. In which asexual reproduction method the menstrual cycle?
does the parent plant provide water and A. menstruation
nutrients until the new plant develops
roots? B. ovulation
A. Cutting C. implantation
B. Division D. fertilization

1.17 Endocrine Pathology 302
678. The sperm and egg created a fertilized C. anther

cell called D. stigma
A. fetus
683. hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ
B. zygote
A. uterus
C. sperm
B. semen
D. embryo
C. vagina
NARAYAN CHANGDER
679. The transfer of pollen, containing the D. ejaculation
sperm cells, to the female part of the
flower. 684. What is a hormone produced by the fe-
male’s ovaries?
A. seed disperal
A. Estrogen
B. pollination
B. Endometrium
C. germination
C. Hygiene
D. fertilization
D. Frimbria
680. Which sequence represents the correct or-
der of events for the formation and devel- 685. What structure connects the ovary to the
opment of an embryo? uterus?
A. meiosis > fertilization > cleavage > A. Fallopian tube
differentiation B. Cervix
B. cleavage > meiosis > differentiation C. Vagina
> fertilization D. none of above
C. differentiation > cleavage > meiosis
> fertilization 686. Agriculturists have developed some va-
rieties of vegetables from common wild
D. cleavage > fertilization > differentia- mustard plants, which reproduce sexually.
tion > meiosis Which statement best explains the devel-
opment of these different varieties of veg-
681. A photo of the chromosomes in a dividing
etables?
cell
A. Different varieties can develop from a
A. Karyotype
single species as a result of the recombi-
B. Synapsis nation of genetic information.
C. Locus B. Different species can develop from a
D. none of above single species as a result of the effect of
similar environmental conditions.
682. Small grains that contain a plant’s male C. Mutations will occur in the genes of a
reproductive cells. species only if the environment changes.
A. stamen D. Variations in a species will increase
B. pollen when the rate of mitosis is decreased.
1.17 Endocrine Pathology

1. Controls glucose levels in blood 7. Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormone,

A. Parathyroid leading to moon face, high blood pressure,
hyperglycemia, and diabetes,

B. Pancreas
A. Addison’s
C. Pituitary gland
B. Cushing’s
D. Hypothalamus
C. Hashimoto’s
2. Hormone that controls the sleep/awake D. Grave’s
cycle
8. Due to hypersecretion of thyroid hormones
A. thymus
in baby/child leading to retardation and
B. aldosterone stunted growth
C. melatonin A. Gigantism
D. calcitonin B. Dwarfism
3. Hormone that plays an important role in C. Cretinism

the immune system D. Virilism
A. ACTH 9. Graves disease causes
B. ADH A. Hypersecretion of thyroxine
C. thyroxine B. Hyposecretion of thyroxine
D. thymosin C. Acromegaly
4. Type of diabetes you are born with D. Hypersecretion of iodine
A. diabetes type I 10. What type of product is secreted by en-
B. diabetes type II docrine glands?
C. diabetes insipidus A. Sweat
D. graves disease B. Hormones
C. Saliva
5. targets bone and muscle to promote
growth and development D. Tears
A. growth hormone 11. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a disorder

B. prolactin that causes tumors to grow on many en-
docrine glands and parts of the small intes-
C. oxytocin tine. Which of the following would NOT be
D. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) a symptom of this disorder?
A. Growths/tumors on bones
6. Person is a living miniature. Very small,
less than 50 inches. B. Pancreatic tumors causing an increase
in insulin production
A. Gigantism
C. Gastrinomas that produce to much
B. Pituitary dwarfism gastrin hormone in the stomach
C. Achondroplasia D. Tumors on the pituitary gland that
D. Cretinism cause swelling

12. Hormone that controls the water/salt bal- 18. NB with persistent hypoglycemia,
ance stretched phallic length of 1.8 cm; right
A. adrenaline testicle is not palpable, still jittery de-
spite dextrose. MOST likely cause of hy-
B. aldosterone poglycemia?
C. cortisol A. fatty acid oxidation disorder
D. melatonin
B. hyperinsulinism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. Enlarged thyroid gland C. hypopituitarism
A. Acromegaly D. transitional hypoglycemia
B. Gigantism
19. If you have diabetes, you most likely have
C. Goiter a problem with this hormone.
D. Graves disease
A. ADH
14. Which of the following produces B. Glucagon
adrenaline?
C. Insulin
A. thyroid gland
D. PTH
B. parathyroid glands
C. pancreas 20. a disease by which people cannot control
sugar levels in the blood
D. adrenal glands
A. hypertension
15. Produces the hormone insulin and
glucagon, which controls the level of glu- B. sleep apnea
cose in the blood. C. diabetes
A. Thyroid Gland D. hyperthyroidism
B. Pancreas
21. Hyporsecretion of GH in childhood or years
C. Thymus Gland of growth
D. Pituitary Gland A. Acromegaly
16. Also called adult onset diabetes B. VonRecklinghausens
A. Diabetes Type II C. Andrenogenital syndrome
B. Diabetes Type I D. dwarfism
C. Diabetes insipudus
22. These release testosterone, which controls
D. ketoacidosis
changes in a male’s body and regulates
17. Swelling of the thyroid sperm production.
A. Acromegaly A. Ovaries
B. Gigantism B. Target Cells
C. Goiter C. Parathyroids
D. Graves disease D. Testes

23. Form of diabetes treatable with diet or B. Testosterone and ADH

oral medications. C. Estrogen and androgens

A. Type I
D. Insulin and adrenaline
B. Type II
29. Which of the following is a function of the
C. Diabetes insipidus
Endocrine System?
D. Cushing’s
A. growth and development
24. Cretinism is caused by B. maintaining homeostasis
A. Hypersecretion of thyroxine C. response to stress and injury
B. Hyposecretion of thyroxine
D. all of the above
C. Graves disease
30. Hormone that controls the muscular con-
D. Acromegaly
tractions of the uterus in females
25. yo with trisomy 21 has new-onset en- A. T4
larged thyroid on PE. No symptoms or
other problems noted. The MOST likely B. Prolactin
cause of his examination findings is C. LH
A. Graves disease D. Oxytocin
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
31. Autoimmune disease of the thyroid
C. multinodular goiter
A. Cushing’s
D. simple colloid goiter
B. Hashimoto’s
26. Insulin not produced. body cannot metab- C. Addisons
olize sugar.
D. Graves disease
A. Diabetes type II
B. Diabetes insipidus 32. yo has obesity, mild PCOS symptoms,
acanthosis nigricans. Of the following, the
C. Diabetes Type I
BEST test to order is?
D. Addisons
A. a hemoglobin A1c level
27. controls changes in growing male’s body B. an insulin level
A. ovaries C. a midnight salivary cortisol level
B. testes D. a thyroid-stimulating hormone level
C. pancreas
33. Hormone that controls the development of
D. thymus
eggs in females and sperm production in
28. Polycystic ovary syndrome causes infertil- males.
ity and excessive body and facial hair in A. Prolactin
women due to hormone imbalances. Which
B. FSH
hormones could be impacted by this disor-
der? C. TSH
A. Oxytocin and prolactin D. GH

34. Cushing’s disease causes issues with blood C. a karyotype

pressure and blood sugar regulation and D. a serum homocysteine level
can cause obesity. This disease is caused
by the excessive production of cortisol by 39. Hyperparathyroidism creates problems by
the glands that are found on top of the kid- releasing too much hormone into the blood.
neys. What are those glands called? This causes unusually high levels of calcium
A. Pineal Gland which can lead to weaker bones and kid-
ney damage. Which hormone(s) would be
B. Thymus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
impacted by this disorder?
C. Pituitary Gland
A. Prolactin and testosterone
D. Adrenal Glands
B. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
35. Individuals with this condition urinate C. ADH and Vitamin D
30L/day.
D. Androgens and serotonin
A. Cushing’s
B. Diabetes insipidus 40. Where are the adrenal glands located?
C. Grave’s A. One on each side of the larynx

D. Addison’s B. On top of the kidneys
C. Behind the orbital bone
36. Hyperthyroidism is caused by excessive
thyroid hormone production which results D. The inner ear
in weight loss, high heart rate and in-
creased metabolism. What hormones are 41. Hypersecretion of GH during childhood.
effected by this disorder? A. acromegaly
A. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine B. gigantism
B. Calcitonin and prolactin C. dwarfism
C. Adrenaline and glucagon D. cretinism
D. Vasopressin and Vitamin D
42. Are chemicals that travel in the blood and
37. Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex. Bronze cause changes in different parts of the
skin, water and electrolyte problems. body
A. Cushing’s A. Hormones
B. Addisons B. Glands
C. Graves C. Parathyroid
D. Hashimoto’s D. Adrenal Gland
38. yo is SMR 3 pubic hair, SMR 1genitalia. 43. Juvenile onset diabetes
Tall stature, mild language delay, upper-to-
A. diabetes type I
lower segment ratio is high. The test that
will MOST likely lead to the diagnosis is B. diabetes type II
A. echocardiography C. diabetes insipidus
B. an insulin-like growth factor-1 level D. graves disease

44. “Fight or Flight” hormone 49. yp has dropped off height and weight on
A. adrenaline growth charts. Also has worsening vision
over the past month. She has also been

B. testosterone having intermittent headaches at school
C. progesterone that her mother attributes to her vision
D. cortisol problems. The test MOST likely to reveal
the diagnosis is?
45. Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune dis-
A. bone age radiography
order where the body’s own defenses
attack the thyroid, causing hypothy- B. brain MRI
roidism. What would be a side effect of C. a karyotype
Hashimoto’s disease?
D. a thyroid-stimulating hormone level
A. An increase in the production of thy-
roid hormones 50. yo is concerned he is not developing pu-
B. A decrease in the production of thyroid berty, SMR 3 pubic hair, SMR 1 testes;
hormones also has anosmia, no axillary or facial hair.
MOST likely diagnosis?
C. An increase in the production of
parathyroid hormones A. constitutional delay of puberty
D. A decrease in the production of B. functional hypogonadism

parathyroid hormones C. Kallman syndrome
46. Individual grows to over 7 ft tall D. Klinefelter syndrome
A. dwarfism 51. targets the brain and make people sleepy
B. acromegaly when its dark
C. gigantism A. melanin
D. goiter B. melanoma
47. Bulging eyes. C. melatonin
A. Cushing’s D. melons
B. Addison’s 52. Endocrine glands produce which main-

C. virilism tain the body in homeostasis
D. exopthalmos A. oils
B. neurotransmitters
48. yo has dropped-off on height, weight has
maintained. Also has bilateral epicanthal C. tears
folds, a high-arched palate, and multiple D. hormones
benign-appearing nevi. Has mild intellec-
tual deficits. The test MOST likely to re- 53. Hyposecretion of growth hormone (GH)
veal the diagnosis is during childhood can result in
A. brain MRI A. Pituitary dwarfism
B. an insulin-like growth factor-1 level B. Gigantism
C. a karyotype C. Acromegaly
D. a thyroid-stimulating hormone level D. Diabetes

54. Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex. Bronze C. To administer intravenous insulin, 0.1

skin pigmentation, water and electrolyte unit/kg
problems. D. To perform rapid sequence endotra-
A. Cushing’s cheal intubation
B. Addisons 59. Due to a deficiency in thyroid hormone
C. Graves in baby/child leading to retardation and
D. Hashimoto’s stunted growth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Gigantism
55. The primary hormone involved in Cushing’s
Syndrome is B. Dwarfism
A. Cortisol C. Cretinism
B. Thyroxine D. Myxedema
C. Aldosterone 60. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones in an
D. Glucagon adult. Leads to high metabolism and
bulging eyes.
56. The inner part of the adrenal gland
A. Addison’s
A. middle
B. Cushing’s
B. medulla
C. Grave’s
C. core
D. Hashimoto’s
D. cortex
61. Hypersecretion of GH in adult
57. Excess urine production and extreme thirst
A. Gigantism
due to undersecretion of ADH
B. Acromegaly
A. Cushing’s
C. Dwarfism
B. diabetes insipidus
D. Goiter
C. Graves disease
D. acromegaly 62. Insulin is being produced but cannot be
used by the body. Sugar cannot be me-
58. yo has new-onset DKA. WHAT is FIRST tabolized. Adult onset.
step in management?
A. Diabetes Type I
A. 0.9% sodium chloride bolus, 10 mL/kg
intravenously over 1 hour B. Diabetes Insipidus
B. 3% sodium chloride bolus, 5 mL/kg in- C. Diabetes Type II

travenously over 20 minutes D. Cushing’s

2. Pharmacology
2.1 General Pharmacology

1. What is the most common use for Macro- C. Anticholinergics
bid D. Antiasthmatics
A. Treatment of UTIs
5. Prevents blood from clotting
B. Migraine Treatment
A. Anticoagulants
C. Arthritis treatment
B. Thrombolytics
D. Pain Treatment
C. Antiplatelets
2. what D. Bronchodilators
A. t
6. Which of the following drug classes can
B. y help relieve or level out either depressive
C. r or manic states
D. 7 A. antidepressants
B. analgesics
3. The medication is to be taken twice a day.
C. hypnotics
Which abbreviation is correct?
D. antimanics
A. bid
B. tid 7. Chemotherapeutic drugs will
C. qid A. cure cancer
D. qd B. treat noninfections
C. treat infectious diseases
4. Manages nausea, vomiting and motion
sickness D. relieve pain
A. Calcium channel blockers 8. What is the generic for Synthroid?

B. Antiemetics A. azithromycin

2.1 General Pharmacology 310
B. atorvastatin calcium 14. Which of the following routes of medica-

C. warfarin sodium tion administration means “a shot into the
muscle”?
D. levothyroxine sodium
A. Intramuscular (IM)
9. Which of the following routes of medica- B. Subcutaneous
tion administration means “a shot directly
C. Intravenous (IV)
under the skin”?
D. Intraosseous (IO)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Intramuscular (IM)
B. Subcutaneous 15. antivirals
C. Intravenous (IV) A. acyclovir

B. fluconazole
D. Intraosseous (IO)
C. ibuprofen
10. Relieves allergy symptoms;treats anaphy-
D. clonazepam
laxis
A. Anticholinergics 16. What it the generic name for Humalog
B. Antihistamines A. Insulin Lispro
C. Beta-blockers B. Insulin Regular
D. NSAIDs C. Insulin NPH

D. Metformin
11. These drugs treat noninfectious illnesses
by suppressing chemicals in the body 17. The best thing the home health aide can do
if a client refuses to take medication is to
A. chemotherapeutic
B. antagonists A. Push the client to take the medication
C. pharmacodynamic explaining that it is good for him
D. antimanics B. Try to find out why the client does not
want to take the medication, and report it
12. kg = lb to the supervisor
A. 2 C. Call 911 for emergency medical help
B. 4.4 D. Call the client’s doctor immediately
C. 4 18. These medications will provide mild pain
D. 8.8 relief without altering mental state
A. pain killers
13. This describes specific measures to be
taken if a drug is prescribed to patients B. anesthetics
with certain conditions C. agonists
A. tolerance D. analgesics
B. precautions
19. The of the prescription drug is the
C. adverse reactions drug’s effects on the body
D. uses A. precautions

B. adverse reactions 25. Reduces Pain

C. generic name A. Antiemetics

D. clinical pharmacology B. Analgesics
C. Thrombolytics
20. hypoglycemic
D. Antipyretics
A. metformin
26. An insulin pump is an example of
B. furosemide
A. intraosseous administration
C. atorvastatin
B. implantable drug delivery system
D. ciprofloxacin
C. suppository
21. What kind of dependence will a Schedule D. buccal administration
III drug have?
27. Which of the following is part of the five
A. mild “rights” of medication?
B. severe A. Right Home Health Aide
C. no effect B. Right Note
D. high C. Right Report
D. Right Client
22. Drugs with which have medical use and the
lowest potential for dependency 28. Which is a way prescription can arrive in
A. Schedule I the pharmacy?
B. Schedule III A. fax

B. phone
C. Schedule IV
C. electronic
D. Schedule V
D. written
23. A patient experiencing major depression E. All of the above
may take this drug:
29. A “q a.m.” medication is taken:
A. Zofran
A. Each day in the morning.
B. Zoloft
B. Every other morning.
C. Zithromax
C. With a meal.
D. Prinivil
D. none of above
24. The amount of medication that is given is 30. Which of the following route of administra-
known as the tion is more convenient for the patient?
A. dose A. Sublingual
B. indication B. Topical
C. contraindication C. Intravenous
D. side effect D. Oral

31. Dr. Lowe orders 17mg/kg of medication 36. Which section of the PDR contains an al-
to be given to a patient who weighs 14 phabetical list by manufacturer?
kg. How much medication must be given A. 5
to the patient?
B. 1
A. 190mg
B. 204mg C. 3
C. 188mg D. 6
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 238mg 37. Which of the following is an example of a
Schedule I drug?
32. Toxic effects that result routinely result
from the use of a drug are called? A. Xanax
A. Indications B. Vicodin
B. Contraindications C. codeine
C. Side effects D. peyote
D. Drug toxicity
38. A medication that is taken 4 times per day
33. A common reason why people avoid taking
A. bid
prescribed medication is
A. They dislike the side effects B. tid
B. They are stubborn C. qid

C. They do not want to feel better D. none of above
D. They would rather get well without it 39. TID medications are taken:
34. Case 1 A child undergone tooth extraction. A. Twice per day
After a day, the child notice swelling of
B. At morning and at night only.
the face at the side where tooth has been
extracted.1. Possible sinus affected mani- C. Three Times per Day
fested by swelling of the face as complica- D. Before Meals
tion after tooth extraction:
A. Maxillary sinusitis 40. Substances in this schedule have no cur-
rently accepted medical use in the United
B. Ethmoditis
States, a lack of accepted safety for use
C. Frontal sinusitis under medical supervision, and a high po-
D. Mastoditis tential for abuse.Some examples of sub-
stances are:heroin, lysergic acid diethy-
35. The father of toxicology who coined “all lamide (LSD), peyote, meth, and “Ec-
drugs are poisons, what distinguishes stasy”.
drugs from poisons is the dose”
A. schedule I
A. Paracelsus/ Theophrastus of Hohen-
heim B. schedule II
B. Claudius Galen C. schedule III
C. Johann Jakob Wepfer D. schedule IV
D. John J. Abel E. schedule V

41. Substances in this schedule have a high 46. The Controlled Substances act classifies
potential for abuse which may lead to se- drugs according to
vere psychological or physical dependence.

A. potential for abuse
Some have medicinal usage.Examples of
these narcotics include:hydromorphone B. potential for dependence
(Dilaudid), methadone (Dolophine), C. medical value
meperidine (Demerol), oxycodone (Oxy- D. all of these
Contin, Percocet), fentanyl (Sublimaze,
Duragesic), morphine, opium, and codeine. 47. what is your mother’s nickname?
A. schedule I A. mother love
B. schedule II B. lovelovelove
C. schedule III C. vani
D. schedule IV D. Dear
E. schedule V 48. Which of the following routes of medica-
tion administration means “a cream, lotion
42. What is the generic name for Glucophage or ointment rubbed onto the skin”?
A. Metformin HCI A. Oral
B. Glipizide B. Subcutaneous
C. Alendronate C. Transdermal
D. Triazolam D. Topical
43. When a medication is first discovered, it’s 49. A medication that is to be taken after a
name will be based on meal:
A. It’s molecular structure A. qid
B. the trade name B. h.s.
C. the generic name C. p.c.
D. what it will treat D. none of above
44. relieve allergies 50. Temperature logs for refrigerators and

heaters must be logged
A. antivirals
A. every day
B. central nervous system
B. twice a day
C. antihistamines
C. once a week
D. antihypertensives D. monthly
45. what date is your birth date? 51. The prefix “sub” in subcutaneous means:
A. October 31, 2010 A. on the skin
B. October 30, 2010 B. under the skin
C. January 31, 2010 C. between the skin
D. January 30, 2010 D. beside the skin

52. The abbreviation hs means 58. When disposing of drugs

A. at bedtime A. throw them in the dumpster
B. in the morning B. give them to a family member
C. throw every thing down the toilet
C. after meals
D. the unused portion can be taken back
D. three times a day to the Pharmacy
53. Proper medication use includes which of 59. A doctor orders 10g of medication to be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the following? given to a patient. Only 0.5g tablets are
A. Refusing to take medications available. How many tablets must be
given to the patient?
B. Taking medication with alcohol
A. 18
C. Sharing medications with others B. 19
D. Taking the right dose at the right time C. 20
54. analgesic D. 21
A. metformin 60. h.s. medications are taken

B. lisinopril A. at night
B. in the morning
C. acetaminophen
C. after food/meals
D. furosemide
D. none of above
55. diuretic 61. What is the generic name for Nexium
A. furosemide A. Gabapentin
B. atorvastatin B. Niacin
C. ciprofloxacin C. Esomeprazole
D. gabapentin D. Norethindrone
62. Which of the following routes of medica-
56. A q2h medication is taken:
tion administration means “a pill or liquid
A. Every 2 hours swallowed into the stomach”?
B. Every 2 days A. Oral
C. Every B. Sublingual
D. none of above C. Inhalation

D. Topical
57. This classification provides chemical blood
pressure support via IV(intravenous) 63. Under what circumstances could a person
be receiving a schedule 2 drug?
A. vasopressors
A. Never
B. hypoglycemics B. When given a prescription
C. agonists C. With a valid photo id over the counter
D. statins D. While they are in the hospital

64. One of the most important aspects for a 70. What is the generic name for Reglan
drug to have an effect is the biopharma- A. Metoclopramide
ceutical aspect. The following are biophar-

maceutical aspects EXCEPT B. Eletripan
A. The physical form of the active sub- C. Budesonide
stance D. Pantoprazole
B. Chemical state of the active substance
71. Which of the following type of drug is used
C. Additives and manufacturing tech-
for viruses such as HIV and herpes?
niques
A. Antibiotics
D. Amount of active substance
B. Antiviral
65. Which of the following is NOT a medication
“Right”? C. Anticoagulants
A. Documentation D. Antiplatelet drugs
B. Route 72. Which prefix means 1/000
C. Medication A. kilo
D. Option
B. cm
66. what date is your mother’s birthday? C. national
A. January 24, 1987 D. deci
B. December 25, 1987
73. In order for a prescription to be valid, it
C. December 24, 1987
MUST:
D. December 24, 1988
A. be issued by a Doctor
67. lb = kg B. both issued by a licensed Practitioner
A. 4.1 and have a medical purpose
B. 4.3 C. have a medical purpose
C. 4.6 D. none of these
D. 4.8
74. reduce inflammation
68. what date is aa’s birth date?
A. bronchodilators
A. October 31, 2016
B. antilipemics
B. October 30, 2016
C. analgesics
C. January 31, 2016
D. anti-inflammatories
D. January 30, 2016
69. hormone replacement 75. decongestant
A. nystatin A. ciprofloxacin
B. metoprolol B. pseudoephedrine
C. levothyroxine, estrogen C. lisinopril
D. haloperidol D. gabapentin

76. The abbreviation ac means: 82. What is the therapeutic class for Keppra
A. On an empty stomach A. Anti-convulsant
B. before meals B. Antifungal Agent
C. after meals C. Insulin
D. before bedtime D. Loop Diuretic

83. Ibuprofen has INDICATIONS for reduc-
77. Dramamine is included in which classifica-
ing fever (antipyretic), reducing pain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion
(analgesic), and reducing swelling (anti-
A. diuretics inflammatory); CONTRAINDICATIONS: pa-
B. bronchodilators tients with asthma, gastric disease / pep-
tic ulcer patients; DRUG INTERACTIONS:
C. antibiotics Coumarin group of drugs. Which of the fol-
D. antiemetics lowing statements is true?
A. Ibuprofen is efficacious in asthma pa-
78. Decreases swelling tients
A. Antiinflammatories B. Ibuprofen can be given together with
B. Antipyretics coumarin class drugs
C. Antifungals C. Ibuprofen is used to reduce fever, re-
duce pain, and as an anti-inflammatory
D. Immunosuppressants
D. Ibuprofen can be used in patients with
79. delay blood clotting gastric disease
A. analgesics 84. An ounce is a measurement from the
B. antibiotics A. household system
C. anticonvulsants B. apothecary system
D. anticoagulants C. metric system
D. both 1 And 2
80. Amphetamines are classified as
85. Reasons not to use the drug in question.
A. Schedule III
Factors in a patient’s condition that make
B. Schedule I the use of a drugdangerous are called?
C. Schedule II A. Contraindications
D. Schedule IV B. Side Effects
C. Cautions
81. This drug will relax smooth muscle in air-
way passages and also make the patient D. Drug Toxicity
feel jittery 86. The abbreviation NPO means:
A. antibiotics A. drink with water
B. analgesics B. nothing by mouth
C. bronchodilators C. after meals
D. diuretics D. take until gone

2.2 Autonomic nervous system 317
87. The drugs that pose the highest risk for B. 3

causing drug dependency are C. 5

A. Antihistamines (allergy medications) D. 6
B. Pain medications
91. This form of drug is cylinder shape and can
C. Beta blockers be time-released
D. Multivitamins A. suppositories
88. Antidepressants do which of the follow- B. capsules
ing? C. tablets
A. Treat symptoms of depression D. transdermal patches
B. Increase mental alertness
92. Drugs applied locally on the skin or mucous
C. Improve appetite and sleep patterns membranes are?
D. All of the above A. Sublingual
89. what date do we get married? B. Topical
A. December 12, 1999 C. Intramuscular
B. December 24, 2009 D. Intranasal
C. December 12, 2009 93. Elevates mood
D. December 12, 1987 A. Antiasthmatics
90. Which section of the PDR is the Product B. Antidepressants

Category Index? C. Hormones
A. 1 D. Antipyretics
2.2 Autonomic nervous system

1. What part of your eye sends the messages 3. What does ANS stand for?
to and from your brain?
A. Automatic Nervous Sympathetic
A. retina
B. Autonomic Neurotransmitters System
B. optic nerve
C. iris C. Autonomic Nervous System
D. vitreous humor D. Autonomic Nervous Sympathetic
2. Controls automatic functions like breath- 4. What are the two main parts of the Auto-
ing, heart rate, body temperature, wake nomic Nervous System?
and sleep cycles, etc.
A. Central and Peripheral
A. cerebrum
B. cerebellum B. Sensory and Motor
C. basal ganglia C. Somatic and Sensory

D. brainstem D. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

5. A type of cholinergic receptor; located on 10. Autonomic plexus that intervates the
target organs; stimulated by muscarine, small & large intestine
not by nicotine; blocked by atropin. A. renal
A. muscarinic receptors B. celiac
B. nicotinic receptors C. cardiac
C. alpha-adrenergic receptors D. superior mesenteric
D. none of above 11. One of your friends told you that tomor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
row morning, everyone in your class is go-
6. How many motor neurons are involved in
ing to surprise you with a big party for
an autonomic reflex?
your birthday. As you approach the door,
A. 1 which division of the ANS is most likely to
B. 2 be activated?
C. 3 A. Sympathetic
D. none of above B. Parasympathetic

C. Enteric
7. Light entering the eye is focused behind
D. Somatic
the retina instead of directly on it, objects
close to the eye look blurry 12. The function of the somatic nervous sys-
A. Iris tem is to
B. Near Sighted A. convey information from the skin and

muscles to the CNS about conditions such
C. Astigmatism as pain and temperature
D. Far Sighted B. take messages to and from the body’s
internal organs, monitoring such pro-
8. Which effect will be observed following cesses as breathing, heart rate, and di-
the administration of nicotinic cholinergic gestion.
antagonist?
C. Arouse the body, mobilize its energy
A. Only sympathetic effects are inhibited. during physical exercise and in stressful
B. Only parasympathetic effects are in- situations, and activate the adrenal gland
hibited. to release epinephrine into the blood-
stream.
C. Both sympathetic and parasympa-
thetic effects are inhibited. D. Calm the body down and conserve and
replenish energy.
D. Both sympathetic and parasympa-
thetic effects are unaffected. 13. The part of the nervous system that con-
sists of nerves that branch out from the
9. How many sensory and motor neurons are CNS (central nervous system) and connect
required for you to feel sensation? to other body parts
A. 1 A. Sympathetic
B. 10 B. Parasympathetic
C. 100 C. Autonomic
D. 1, 000 D. Peripheral

14. In a reflex arc, the sensory neuron leads 20. What is the outer portion of your ear
to the and the motor neuron leads to called?
the

A. Pinna
A. Spinal cord, CNS B. Auricle
B. CNS, muscle C. Both pinna and auricle are correct
C. Spinal cord, muscle D. Neither Pinna nor auricle are correct
D. Muscle, CNS
21. The autonomic nervous system does ac-
15. Part of the peripheral that controls con- tions which
scious activities A. you decide to do
A. autonomic B. that occur automatically
B. somatic C. you do not want to happen
C. sympathetic D. none of above
D. parasympathetic
22. The parasympathetic division is responsi-
16. What are the two systems found in the ble for
PNS? A. fight
A. Somatic and autonomic B. flight
B. Autonomic and systemic C. stress
C. Automatic and somatic D. relaxation
D. Systematic and automatic
23. Which neuron is non-myelinated?
17. Parasympathetic neurotransmitter A. Parasympathetic, postganglionic neu-
A. Epinephrine ron
B. Norepinephrine B. sympathetic preganglionic neuron
C. Acetylcholine C. somatic neuron
D. Glutamate D. parasympathetic preganglionic neuron
18. When the eyeball is too short, causing Far- 24. What part of the eye holds the lens in
sightedness place?
A. Hyperopia A. cornea
B. Myopia B. ciliary muscles
C. Glaucoma C. pupil
D. Astigmatism D. retina
19. Which neurotransmitter is released by the 25. Which layer is a blood vessel-rich layer
sympathetic postganglionic nerve? with a dark brown membrane?
A. Acetylcholine A. Choroid
B. Epinephrine B. Sclera
C. Norepinephrine C. Retina
D. Dopamine D. Cornea

26. Which of the following is the effect seen 31. The part of the autonomic nervous sys-
during a restful activity? tem is active during resting.
A. Dilation of the pupil A. sympathetic
B. Decreased secretion of the sublingual B. parasympathetic
gland C. somatic
C. Increased secretion of the parotid D. peripheral
gland
32. The hearing system determines where a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Increased secretion of sweat glands
sound comes from by
27. Transparent jelly like tissue that fills the A. randomly attributing location
eyeball behind the lens.
B. how high or low the sound is in pitch
A. Vitreous humor
C. by how much sound waves enter each
B. Plasma ear
C. Optic nerve D. looking in the direction you think the
D. Eyeball juice sound is coming from
28. Effectors may be all of the following EX- 33. Neurons that transmit impulses Away
CEPT: from the CNS are called
A. cardiac muscle A. sensory, ventral
B. glands B. sensory, dorsal
C. smooth muscles C. motor, efferent
D. sensory cells D. motor, dorsal
29. Neurotransmitters are that travel 34. The axon of neuron 2 leaves the ganglion
across the to another cell. and extends to the organ
A. electrical signals; receptors A. cholinergic fiber
B. electrical signals; synapse B. postgangliionic fiber
C. chemicals; receptors C. preganglionic fiber
D. chemicals; synapse D. adrenergic fiber
30. Which of the following have muscarinic re- 35. A fiber that secretes norepinephrine (NE)
ceptors? as its neurotransmitter
A. parasympathetic postganglionic neu- A. cholinergic fiber
rons B. postgangliionic fiber
B. sympathetic postganglionic neurons C. preganglionic fiber
C. organs receiving parasympathetic D. adrenergic fiber
stimulation
D. sweat glands receiving sympathetic 36. What two neurotransmitters are released
stimulation from the ANS?
E. organs receiving sympathetic stimula- A. ACh

tion B. Dopamine

C. Norepinephrine (NE) A. Pupil dilation

D. Aceytalpine B. Bronchospasm

37. The hairs in the cochlea determine C. Tachycardia
A. protect the membrane D. Acute hypertension
B. the pitch that your brain hears 43. Parasympathetic fibers leave the brain-
C. are made out of bone stem in which of the following cranial
D. deal with perception not sensation nerves.
A. III
38. Which fibers are myelinated?
B. VII
A. parasympathetic preganglionic
C. IX
B. sympathetic preganglionic
C. parasympathetic postganglionic D. X
D. sympathetic postganglionic E. XII
39. Voluntary motor division of the PNS 44. optic

A. Autonomic nervous system A. I
B. Somatic nervous system B. II
C. Sympathetic nervous system C. III
D. Parasympathetic nervous system D. IV
40. What does farsighted mean? 45. Salivary glands are innervated by
A. You can see far away well.
A. only in parasympathetic nerve
B. You can see close up well.
B. only in sympathatic nerve system
C. You have perfect sight.
C. both of the autonomic division
D. You are blind.
D. none of above
41. These photoreceptors have three different
pigments. Each receptor is associated with 46. What is the last step of the Reflex Arc?
its own neuron resulting in crisp, clear A. Effector
color vision
B. Affector
A. hair cells
C. Afferent Neuron
B. rods
D. Efferent Neuron
C. cones
D. lens 47. vagus
42. As you’re walking alone at night, the A. V

streetlight besides you goes out and you B. X
hear a rustling noise behind you. Which of
C. IV
the following physiological changes would
you be unlikely to undergo? D. IX

48. After a period of intense exercise, you no- 53. The Autonomic Nervous System is part of
tice that your turbinate edema that you at- the
tribute to seasonal allergies has returned. A. Somatic Nervous System
Your provider explains that vasodilation
during activity helps to circulate allergens B. Peripheral Nervous System
away faster. The binding of which neuro- C. Central Nervous System
transmitter to which type of receptor is D. Sensory Nervous System
most likely to have had the greatest im-
pact on your allergies? 54. Junction between two neurons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Acetylcholine; alpha 1 A. axon terminal
B. Norepinephrine, alpha 2 B. dendrite
C. Norepinephrine, beta 2 C. synapse
D. Epinephrine, beta 2 D. neurotransmitter
49. The digestive organs are activated by 55. Autonomic plexus that intervates the
which nerve during parasympathetic sys- bronchi
tems? A. pulmonary
A. occulomotor nerve B. celiac
B. facial nerve C. superior mesenteric
C. vagus nerve D. inferior mesenteric
D. glossopharyngeal nerve
56. A maintaining of nerve background level
50. olfactory of activity so you can increase or decrease
A. II activity when needed
B. III A. vasomotor tone
C. IV B. autonomic tone
D. I C. singing tone
D. muscle tone
51. The second motor neuron that leaves the
ganglion and extends to the organ 57. The autonomic nervous system is divided
A. cholinergic neuron into
B. postganglionic neuron A. Motor and Sensory
C. preganglionic neuron B. Peripheral and Central

D. adrenergic neuron C. The Brain and Spinal cord
D. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
52. The peripheral nervous system includes
mixed nerves that 58. Autonomic plexus that intervates the large
A. serve the parasympathetic system intestine
B. contain both sensory and motor fibers A. renal
C. serve the sympathetic system B. celiac
D. serve the muscular and skeletal sys- C. superior mesenteric
tem D. inferior mesenteric

59. The synapse between two neurons 65. The neurotransmitter(s) that are released
A. Ganglion during fight or flight is(are):

B. Axon A. acetylcholine only
C. Preganglionic axon B. acetylcholine and norepinephrine
D. Postganglionic axon C. norepinephrine only
D. seratonin
60. What are the two divisions of the auto-
nomic nervous system? 66. Which of the following is the INCORRECT
A. central and peripheral pairing of neuron and neurotransmitter re-
leased?
B. parasympathetic and sympathetic
A. Sympathetic preganglionic neuron-
C. brain and spinal cord
acetylcholine
D. nerves and ganglia
B. Parasympathetic preganglionic
61. spinal accessory neuron-acetylcholine
A. X C. Sympathetic postganglionic neuron-
B. IX norepinephrine
C. XI D. Parasympathetic postganglionic
neuron-norepinephrine
D. XII
67. The most superficial of the meninges is the
62. In which of the following situations, would
sympathetic arm of ANS be predominant? A. arachnoid mater.
A. Attending an 8 am lecture B. pia mater.
B. Sitting for a Physiology exam C. filum terminale.
C. Eating KFC for lunch D. dura mater
D. Jogging around campus 68. Characteristics of the Sympathetic Ner-
vous System
63. Which of the following is the effect of sym-
pathetic activation in a target organ? A. Ganglia close to the spinal cord
A. Dilation of the blood vessels in skeletal B. Ganglia in/near the effectors
muscle C. Nerves originate from the neck and
B. Decreased heart rate lower back
C. Increased gastrointestinal secretions D. Nerves originate from the chest and
abdomen
D. Contraction of the bladder wall
E. Long Pre-ganglionic neuron
64. Bronchoconstriction is
A. decrease heart rate and blood pres- 69. Hearing receptors within the organ of
sure Corti are called:
B. decrease in radius of bronchiols A. rod cells
C. increase production of saliva and mu- B. cone cells

cus C. hair cells
D. none of above D. corti cells

70. The nervous system controls uncon- 76. How many neurons are required for your
scious activities. autonomic nervous system?
A. somatic A. 1
B. sympathetic B. 2
C. parasympathetic C. 1, 000
D. autonomic D. 2, 000
71. Clusters of cell bodies that house millions 77. Which one of the following is directly con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of synapses trolled by the somatic nervous system:
A. cell bodies A. smooth muscle
B. neurons B. cardiac muscle
C. ganglia C. skeletal muscle
D. tendon fivers D. abdominal muscles
72. What is the object that holds the fluid of 78. The ear functions for
the ear and helps us maintain our balance A. balance
A. Semicircular Canals B. hearing
B. Eardrum C. both balance and hearing
C. Pinna D. none of above
D. none of above 79. This part of the eye has photoreceptors
called rods and cones. They help us to see
73. Where is the ganglia of the parasympa-
color and see at night. It is called:
thetic arm of ANS located?
A. optic nerve
A. Near the brain
B. brain
B. Near the target organ
C. retina
C. Near adrenal medula
D. cornea
D. Near the spinal cord
80. Which list contains actions caused by the
74. Which of the following is a adrenergic neu- sympathetic nervous system?
ron?
A. Heart rate and breathing rate increase
A. preganglionic parasympathetic
B. Heart rate and breathing rate de-
B. preganglionic sympathetic crease
C. postganglionic parasympathetic C. Muscles move because of decisions
D. postganglionic sympathetic you make
D. Running and jogging
75. The main inner ear structure that enables
one to hear is called the: 81. facial
A. Cochlea A. V
B. Pinna B. VI
C. Eustachian Tube C. VII
D. Auricle D. VIII

82. Autonomic plexus that intervates the kid- C. III

neys & ureters D. IV

A. renal
88. The part of the eye that sees black, white,
B. celiac and gray and has the lowest threshold for
C. cardiac activation
D. superior mesenteric A. cones
83. What is NOT part of the peripheral ner- B. pupil

vous system (PNS)? C. optic nerve
A. axons D. rods
B. sensory receptors 89. What is known as a quick, automatic re-
C. spinal cord sponse to a stimulus?
D. motor neurons A. Reaction
84. A “sympathetic tone” sympathetically- B. Reflex

induced, continuous state of blood vessel C. Procedural Memory
constriction D. After-image
A. vasomotor tone
90. Which of the following is not a division of
B. autonomic tone
the autonomic nervous system
C. singing tone
A. Somatic
D. muscle tone
B. Enteric
85. The effects of this division of the ANS are C. Sympathetic
typically localized; they may be limited to
D. Parasympathetic
one organ
A. Sympathetic 91. The attaches the lens.
B. Parasympathetic A. Cillia
C. Enteric B. Suspensory ligaments
D. Somatic C. Vitreous humor
D. Aqueous humor
86. neurons carry messages away from
the central nervous system. 92. After a stressful day at CCP, you get home
A. Motor and collapse into bed. After a few min-
utes, your smart watch vibrates to notify
B. Inter
you of a sudden and unexpected bradycar-
C. Sensory dia. Setting pathophysiology aside, what
D. Flower is the most likely explanation for this?
A. Stimulation of the sympathetic ner-
87. oculomotor vous system
A. I B. Stimulation of the parasympathetic
B. II nervous system

C. Stimulation of the somatic nervous sys- C. superior mesenteric

tem D. inferior mesenteric
D. Stimulation of the enteric nervous sys-
tem 98. This neurotransmitter is chiefly used in the
sympathetic nervous system
93. neurons carry messages to the central A. Glutamate
nervous system
B. Epinephrine
A. Motor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Norepinephrine
B. Inter
D. GABA
C. Sensory
D. Fun 99. When the eyeball is too long causing Near-
sightedness
94. The “fight or flight” response during
A. Myopia
threatening situations in the role of the:
B. Hyperopia
A. sympathetic nervous system
C. Asigmatism
B. parasympathetic system
D. Presbyopia
C. somatic nervous system
D. cerebellum 100. Plexuses are made up of the tangled net-
works of which division of the ANS
95. Your ear drum is also known as the:
A. Parasympathetic
A. Tympanic Membrane
B. Sympathetic
B. Tempanic Membrane
C. Neither
C. Timpanic Membrane
D. Both
D. Tompanic Membrane
101. Which of the following is a correct
96. The major role of the interneuron (associa- receptor-tissue pairing for sympathetic ac-
tion neuron) is to tivation?
A. carry information from the central ner- A. α 1 adrenergic receptor-gastrointestinal
vous system to muscles and/or the vis- smooth muscle
cera
B. α 2 adrenergic receptor-skeletal mus-
B. form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell cle blood vessels
membrane on the outside of axons
C. β 1 adrenergic receptor-cardiac nodal
C. transmit nerve impulses from the skin cells
and organs to the central nervous system
D. β 2 adrenergic receptor-skin blood
D. connect motor and sensory neurons in vessels
their pathways
102. What is definition of autonomic?
97. Autonomic plexus that intervates the most
of the abdominal organs. The largest A. The neutrons detect a stimulus
plexus B. Controls involuntary actions
A. pulmonary C. The muscles respond
B. celiac D. A reaction to stimulus

103. A drug that activates a receptor. B. take messages to and from the body’s
A. agonist internal organs, monitoring such pro-
cesses as breathing, heart rate, and di-

B. antagonist gestion.
C. protagonist C. convey information from the skin and
D. protist muscles to the CNS about conditions such
as pain and temperature.
104. The auditory cortex of the brains is lo- D. Arouse the body, mobilize its energy
cated in the during physical exercise and in stressful
A. Thalamus situations, and activate the adrenal gland
to release epinephrine into the blood-
B. temporal lobe
stream.
C. the frontal lobe
109. Characteristics of the Parasympathetic
D. the occipital lobe
Nervous System
105. What is the correct order of the ossicles? A. Ganglia close to the spinal cord
A. Malleus, Incus Stapes B. Ganglia in/near the effectors
B. Incus, Malleus, Stapes C. Nerves originate from the neck and
C. Stapes, Incus, Malleus lower back
D. Stapes, Malleus, Incus D. Nerves originate from the chest and
abdomen
106. Which neurotransmitters are used in the E. Long Pre-ganglionic neuron
autonomic nervous system?
A. acetylcholine 110. What is the purpose of the Visceral Sen-
sory Neuron?
B. norepinephrine
A. They are a chain of sympathetic gan-
C. serotonin glia of the sympathetic trunk.
D. XII B. Send information concerning chemical
change.
107. Which of the following is an action done
by the Somatic Nervous System? C. Cranial nerve that carry impulses.
A. Motor neurons cause voluntary muscle D. Fight or flight response is attributed to
movement this division of ANS.
B. Causes the fight or flight response to 111. Located on target organs; when stimu-
danger lated, can cause an increase in the force
C. Helps us rest and digest our food of contraction of the heart, an increased
heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
D. Causes our heart to beat
A. muscarinic receptors
108. The function of the autonomic system is
B. nicotinic receptors
to
A. Calm the body down and conserve and C. alpha-adrenergic receptors
replenish energy. D. beta-adrenergic receptors

112. Which ossicle gets it vibrations directly C. motor neurons

from the Tympanic Membrane?
D. sensory receptors
A. Malleus
B. Incus 118. The malleus, incus, and stapes are collec-
tively called the
C. Stapes
A. maculae
D. Cochlea
B. otoliths
113. Term describes most vital organs receiv-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing instructions from both sympathetic and C. semicircular canals
parasympathetic divisions D. ossicles
A. fight and flight
B. dual innervation 119. The sympathetic and parasympathetic
nervous systems are subdivisions of the
C. efferent and afferent
A. central nervous system
D. rest and digest
B. peripheral nervous system
114. Eustachian tubes connect:
C. autonomic nervous system
A. Outer ear to the surface
D. somatic nervous system
B. Middle ear to the pharynx
C. Middle ear to the tympanic membrane 120. Which of the following effects are medi-
D. Inner ear to the middle ear ated by the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Pupil constriction
115. A drug that causes effects similar to the
activation of the sympathetic nervous sys- B. Increased heart rate
tem; increases heart rate, force of cardiac
C. Bladder contraction
contraction and blood pressure,
A. parasympathomiometic D. Decreased lung capacity
B. parasympatholytic 121. This part protects the eye, especially the

C. sympathomiometic iris, pupil and lens.
D. sympathomiolytic A. rods
116. Autonomic plexus that intervates the B. cornea
heart C. optic nerve
A. renal
D. retina
B. celiac
C. cardiac 122. What cranial nerves contain parasympa-
thetic nerves?
D. superior mesenteric
A. CN III, CN VII, S1, S2
117. What is the central nervous system (CNS)
made up of? B. CN X, CN VII, CN III
A. brain & spinal cord C. CN IX, CN X, CN VI, CN III
B. sensory neurons D. Occulomotor, S2, S3, Hypoglossal

2.3 Peripheral nervous system 329
123. Sympathetic stimulation of the iris 126. These are the smallest bones in the
causes: body that help transmit and amplify sound
waves.

A. Astigmatism
B. Pupillary constriction A. Ossicles
C. Pupillary dilation B. Fossils
D. Vitreous secretion C. Oracles

D. Spectacles
124. Which of the following is an action
done by the Parasympathetic Nervous Sys- 127. Neurons of the parasympathetic nervous
tem? system leave the CNS at the level of the
A. Causes voluntary motion brain stem and sacrum (S2 to S4)
B. Causes the fight or flight response to A. cholinergic fiber

danger B. postgangliionic fiber
C. Helps us rest and digest our food C. preganglionic fiber
D. Causes our muscles to move D. adrenergic fiber
125. The sensory neurons that come from in- 128. A drug that causes effects that are sim-
ternal organs send impulses to the CNS ilar to a situation where the sympathetic
where reflex actions nervous system cannot be activated; pre-
A. control our emotional moods vents increase in cardiac activity,
B. trigger all neurotransmitters A. parasympathomiometic
C. help maintain homeostasis B. parasympatholytic
D. are critical to conscious decision mak- C. sympathomiometic

ing D. sympathomiolytic
2.3 Peripheral nervous system

1. Which cranial nerve carries visual informa- 3. Which statement is true
tion from the eye to the brain? A. Neurons make up BOTH peripheral and
A. olfactory central nervous systems
B. optic B. Your cerebellum is within your thala-
mus
C. oculomotor
C. your spinal cord doesn’t regulate re-
D. accessory flexes
D. none of above
2. A network of spinal nerves
A. roots 4. John is “resting and digesting” his lunch.
The part(s) of the nervous system that is
B. plexus active is (are) the (check all that apply)
C. cauda equina A. peripheral nervous system
D. CNS B. central nervous system

C. sympathetic nervous system 10. Which of the following is NOT a type of

D. parasympathetic nervous system ion channel found on the neuron?
5. A Patient can feel pain but NOT MOVE A. Voltage-gated channels

chest and abdominal muscles. He has dam- B. Ligand-gated channels
age to the root of the spinal cord at
the level of the spinal cord C. Mechanically gated channels
A. sensory, cervical D. Physically gated channels
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. sensory, thoracic
11. Cranial Nerve 3 =
C. motor, cervical
A. Olfactory
D. motor, thoracic
B. Oculomator
6. X-Vagus
A. Speech and swallowing C. Optic
B. cranial and spinal branches D. Learn through

C. moves eye
12. Which part of the brain is made up of four
D. none of above primary areas called lobes?
7. Serena is on an airplane that has just taken A. Cerebrum
off. Suddenly see feels pressure in her
ears and her ears seem “clogged”. Which B. Cerebellum
structure in her ear needs to equalize the C. Brain Stem
pressure between her middle ear and na-
sopharynx? D. Spinal Cord
A. tympanic membrane
13. This part of the eye sends messages to the
B. ossicles brain
C. organ of corti A. rods
D. eustachian tube
B. retina
8. Which of these make up the Central Ner-
C. optic nerve
vous System?
A. Cerebrum and Cerebellum D. cones
B. Brain 14. You are resting quietly after eating lunch.
C. Brain and Spinal Cord Which of the following is NOT a TRUE
D. Brain, Spinal cord and Cranial and statement
Spinal nerves A. parasympathetic nervous system is ac-
9. This cranial nerve controls sense of smell tivated
A. I B. urinary output and production is de-
creased
B. II
C. III C. pupils are normal or constricted
D. IV D. respiration is stable or lowered

15. Place in order the path of a impulse for a C. autonomic nervous system
reflex response. D. endocrine system

A. sensory neuron, motor neuron, in-
terneuron, stimulus, receptor 20. Spinal and cranial nerves belong to
B. stimulus, sensory neuron, interneuron, A. CNS

motor neuron, receptor B. ENS
C. receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, C. PNS
sensory neuron, stimulus D. ANS
D. stimulus, interneuron, sensory neuron,
21. Points where the nerves emerge from the
receptor, motor neuron
spine
16. Which part of the central nervous system A. plexus
is the main pathway for the brain to send
B. roots
information to the rest of the body? With-
out this part the brain would not be able C. caudal equina
to communicate with the rest of the body. D. none of above
A. Cerebrum 22. What do the Sympathetic and Parasympa-
B. Cerebellum thetic nervous systems belong to?
C. Brain Stem A. Autonomic
D. Spinal Cord B. Somatic
C. Sensory
17. If I step on a nail what type of neurons
take the response to my muscles? D. Central
A. motor 23. What does the autonomic nervous system
B. interneurons control?
C. sensory A. Voluntary movement
D. not neurons, muscle tissue sends the B. Cardiac muscles only
response C. Involuntary responses
18. What are animals that have no backbone D. The spinal cord
called? 24. The plexus that supplies nerves to the neck
A. Vertebrates A. lumbar
B. Invertebrates B. brachial
C. Independent C. cervical
D. mamal D. cranial
19. The sympathetic nervous system and the 25. The part of the autonomic nervous sys-
parasympathetic nervous system are both tem is active during resting and relaxing
part of the the body.
A. central nervous system A. sympathetic
B. somatic nervous system B. parasympathetic

C. somatic B. Cerebellum
D. peripheral C. Brain Stem
26. What is the function of the PNS? D. Spinal Cord
A. (A) Provide sensory input to the CNS 31. Part of the peripheral nervous system that
B. (B) Integration controls conscious activities
C. (3) Deliver motor output from CNS to A. autonomic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
effectors B. somatic
D. Both (A) and (B) C. sympathetic
27. Select three actions that are carried out by D. parasympathetic
the Parasympathetic System
32. Smell
A. slows the heartbeat down
A. Olfactory
B. increases blood flow to the digestive
tract to help digest food B. optic
C. dilates the pupils to improve distance C. oculomotor

vision D. none of above
D. speeds the heartbeat up
33. Moves the tongue
E. contracts the pupils to improve close
A. Trigeminal
vision
B. Facial
28. Regular movement of muscles are con-
C. Hypoglossal
trolled by which section of the Peripheral
nervous system? D. Accessory
A. Autonomic (Involuntary) 34. What is another word for autonomic?
B. Somatic (voluntary) A. voluntary
C. Sensory B. involuntary
D. Spinal cord C. central
29. Kylen has an fluid surrounding his ossicles D. brain
due to an ear infection, he has what type
of hearing loss? 35. Thermoreceptors detect
A. sensorineural A. Pain
B. conductive B. Pressure
C. both sensorineural and conductive C. Temperature
D. none of above D. Chemicals
30. Which part of the brain is located near 36. The autonomic nervous system prepares
to where our skull curves inwards on the the body for the “fight or flight” response
back of our head? by:
A. Cerebrum A. heightening the senses

B. increasing heart rate and blood pres- 42. A loss of hearing could be associated with
sure which cranial nerve?

C. decreasing the pain sensation A. Olfactory
D. increasing blood supply to the kidneys
B. Trigeminal
37. Which process is goverened by the auto- C. Vestibulocochlear
nomic nervous system?
D. Accessory
A. writing
B. chewing 43. At rest, a neuron has a charge on the
C. running inside of the cell and a charge on the
D. digesting food outside.
38. Which part of the central nervous system A. positive, negative

main function is to connect the brain to the B. negative, positive
peripheral nervous system?
C. negative, neutral
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum D. positive, neutral
C. Brain Stem 44. Where the message transfers from one

D. Spinal Cord neuron to another
39. Salivary glands, taste A. myelin sheath
A. facial B. Central nervous system
B. optic
C. Synapse
C. olfactory
D. Somatic Nervous Axon
D. accessory
40. The cranial nerve controls the heart 45. Which part of the brain is responsible for
and digestive tract. controlling our coordination, balance and
movement?
A. vagus
B. hypoglossal A. Cerebrum
C. oculomotor B. Cerebellum
D. ocular C. Brain Stem
41. Which part of the brain is involved in in- D. Spinal Cord
voluntary body function (the functions we
don’t control through conscious thing) like 46. Which organ is responsible for making de-
breathing, heat beating, maintaining blood cisions
pressure?
A. Cerebrum
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
B. Cerebellum
C. Brain Stem C. Spinal cord
D. Spinal Cord D. Cerebrellum

47. The nervous system 52. Which nervous system regulates activities
while the body is at rest?
A. receives information about what is go-
ing on in your body as well as what is going A. Parasympathetic Nervous System
on around you. B. Parasynthetic Nervous System
B. tells your body how to react to the in- C. Central Nervous System
formation it receives.
D. Sympathetic Nervous System
C. helps your body maintain homeosta-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sis. 53. If a person can see things clearly far away
D. all of the above. they are?
A. Farsighted
48. The thalamus is located where?
B. Nearsighted
A. In the hypothalamus
C. hyperopia
B. In the pituitary gland
D. myopia
C. In the lungs
54. The cranial nerve that carries the action po-
D. none of above
tentials for the sense of smell to the brain
49. A photoreceptor would be a sensory neu- is called the cranial nerve and is num-
ber
ron that is activated by
A. olfactory
A. Pressure
B. auditory
B. Temperature
C. optic
C. Pain
D. I
D. Light
E. II
50. What are the main parts of the neurons to
send and receive information (2 parts)? 55. What is NOT a response of the sympa-
thetic nervous system?
A. nucleus
A. Dilation of the pupils
B. axon
B. Elevation of the heart rate
C. dendrite
C. Increased blood flow to skeletal mus-
D. myelin sheath cle
E. Node of Ranvier D. increased activity of the digestive sys-
tem
51. Sensory Neurons & Motor Neurons belong
to the nervous system. 56. Nocireceptors detect
A. Peripheral A. pain
B. Central B. temp
C. Both the Peripheral & Central C. pressure
D. none of above D. the position of joints

57. Part of the autonomic that activates in 63. Which system do we associate with the
high stress emergencies sentence “Fight or flight”?
A. CNS

A. sympathetic
B. reflexal B. ANS (Autonomic)
C. parasympathetic C. PNS
D. somatic D. SNS (Sympathetic)
58. facial expression 64. What are the two parts of the nervous sys-
tem?
A. olfactory
A. The brain and spinal cord
B. optic
B. The central nervous and peripheral
C. facial
nervous system
D. abducting
C. The neurons and the dendrites
59. Loss of vision D. The cerebrum and the medulla
A. optic nerve 65. Which the the following controls vision
B. olfactory nerve (sensory) of the eye.
C. abducting A. trochlear
D. oculomotor B. trigeminal
60. “Fight of Flight” can be used to describe C. optic

the actions of which division of the Periph- D. occulomotor
eral Nervous system
66. Part of the peripheral that controls con-
A. Somatic Nervous System scious activities and is a voluntary system
B. Central Nervous System
C. Sympathetic Nervous Sytem A. autonomic
D. Parasympathetic Nervous System B. somatic
C. sympathetic
61. The following are effects of adrenaline on
the body EXCEPT (choose the INCORRECT D. parasympathetic
one) 67. Which of the following would be part of
A. Your eyes enlarge the parasympathetic response?
B. Blood pressure rises A. Increased heart rate
C. Blood flow goes to the muscles B. Decreased heart rate
D. Heart beat becomes slower C. energy diversion to muscles
D. dilated pupils
62. The response is known as fight or
flight. 68. move eyeball
A. parasympathetic A. optic
B. sympathetic B. oculomotor
C. somatic C. vagus
D. peripheral D. olfactory

69. Which part of the brain can be divided into D. All of the above
two main parts, called hemispheres?
A. Cerebrum 75. Tactile receptors detect
B. Cerebellum A. Pain
C. Brain Stem B. Pressure
D. Spinal Cord C. Temperature
70. A single nerve cell is what? D. Touch
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Neuron 76. Why does cortisol increase the amount of
B. Cell body glucose (sugar) in your blood during fight-
C. nerve or-flight mode?
D. none of above A. Because you need sweet tastes
71. Nerves that extend beyond the end of the B. Because the heart rate needs to go up
spinal cord into the lower portion of the C. Because you need energy
spinal column “horses tail”
D. Because the blood pressure goes up
A. Cauda Equina
B. Anterior Fissure 77. You can test this nerve by asking the pa-
tient to crease their forehead
C. Ventral Horn
D. Sacral Plexus A. facial
B. accessory
72. Which of these are controlled by somatic
(voluntary) nervous system? C. trigeminal
A. Running D. oculomotor
B. Heart rate
78. Which one of these is controlled by the au-
C. Breathing rate tonomic nervous system?
D. digestion
A. Movement
73. The optic, oculomotor, trochlear, abducens B. Sight
are all cranial nerves controlling the
C. Hearing
A. throat
D. Digestion
B. nose
C. ear 79. Which part of the brain is responsible for
D. eye thinking, memory, speaking, learning and
voluntary movement (actions we control
74. Reflex actions are important because when we think)?
A. They provide a quick, involuntary re- A. Cerebrum
sponse
B. Cerebellum
B. They prevent injury
C. Brain Stem
C. They are essential to the survival of or-
ganisms D. Spinal Cord

80. The voltage on a neuron cell that is re- 86. Myelinated fibers (tracts) form matter
quired for an action potential to take place while unmyelinated fibers form mat-
is called and it has a value of mil- ter.

livolts. A. sensory, motor
A. threshold voltage, -55mV B. gray, white
B. resting voltage, -70mV C. motor, sensory
C. threshold voltage, -70mV
D. white, gray
D. resting voltage, -55mV
87. Which cranial nerve plays a role in the
81. cranial nerves movement of the tongue?
A. 11 A. Hypoglossal
B. 12 B. accessory
C. 131 C. Vagus
D. 4 D. Glossopharyngeal
82. eye muscle and controls superior oblique 88. Sensory neurons are associated with
A. trochlear A. Efferent organs
B. optic B. Afferent organs
C. oculomotor
C. Limbs
D. trigeminal
D. Information
83. The Central Nervous System is made of
89. You have two types of nerves in your pe-
what?
ripheral nervous system
A. Brain
A. somatic and autonomic
B. Heart
B. sensory and motor
C. Spinal Cord
C. parasympathetic and sympathetic
D. Kidneys
D. neurons and anti-neurons
84. neurons carry messages to the central
nervous system from the outside world. 90. The large nerve that runs through your
pelvis and into your leg
A. Motor
A. brachial
B. Inter
B. cervical
C. Sensory
C. optic
D. Fun
D. sciatic
85. Which CN (cranial nerve) helps with chew-
ing food? 91. There are 8 pairs of nerves.
A. 1st A. lumbar
B. Facial B. cranial
C. Abducens C. cervical
D. 5th D. sacral

92. Why does your pupil increase in size when C. Optic

you enter a dark room?
D. Olfactory
A. To protect the eye
B. to allow more light to enter the eye 98. trapezius muscles are checked for strength
is a test for:Cranial Nerve
C. to allow less light to enter the eye
A. abducens
D. to look like a pirate
B. accessory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. The autonomic nervous system is a subdi-
vision of the C. vagus
A. Central Nervous System D. auditory

B. Sympathetic Nervous System 99. Moves eyes laterally away from the nose
C. Peripheral Nervous System
A. abducens
D. Somatic Nervous System
B. facial
94. Accessory C. trigeminal
A. lifts shoulders D. accessory
B. abducts eye
C. rotates eye 100. This cranial nerve conducts impulses to
the muscles of the neck and back.
D. tongue control
A. vagus
95. What nerve has motor fibers to con-
B. accessory
trol tongue movements and send impulses
from the tongue? C. Glossopharyngeal
A. Hypoglossal D. Abducens
B. Glossopharyngeal
101. What are the 2 main divisions of the
C. Accessory PNS?
D. Optic A. Autonomic NS and Somatic NS
96. Baroreceptors detect B. Afferent division and Efferent division
A. Pain C. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
B. Temperature D. Brain and spinal cord
C. Pressure
102. Which one of the followings can be com-
D. Position of joints
pared with the processing unit of a com-
97. What nerve is purely sensory and carries puter?
impulses for the sense of smell? try to A. Central Nervous System
remember this by thinking of a stinky fac-
tory putting out pollution B. Both CNS and PNS
A. Vagus C. Peripheral Nervous System
B. Accessory D. ENS

103. autonomic control of the heart, lungs, C. Parasympathetic

digestion, taste, communication between D. Autonomic
brain and organs

A. vagus 109. The parasympathetic nervous system
would be responsible for blood flow
B. hypoglossal to the intestines, heart output, and ac-
C. vestibulocochlear tivating glands.
D. trigeminal A. increasing, decreasing, salivary
104. The back part of the brain is called? B. decreasing, increasing, salivary
A. Cerebellum C. increasing, decreasing, sweat
B. Cerebrum D. decreasing, increasing, sweat

C. CNS 110. What part of peripheral nervous system
D. Cerebral Cortex controls voluntary
A. central nervous
105. organs
B. Somatic Nervous System
A. accessory
C. peripheral nervous system
B. hypoglossal
D. autonomic nervous system
C. vagus
D. olfactory 111. In a reflex, which nervous system struc-
ture is bypassed?
106. What part of the peripheral nervous sys-
A. brain
tem controls involuntary functions such as
heart rate and smooth muscle? B. spinal cord
A. peripheral nervous system C. sensory neurons
B. central nervous system D. motor neurons.
C. Choroid Plexus 112. The PONS does what?
D. Autonomic Nervous System A. Stores memories from childhood
107. hearing and balance B. Releases melatonin and regulates
sleep and wakefulness
A. read through
C. Links the cerebral cortex and the cere-
B. vestibulocochlear
bellum
C. trigeminal
D. Prevents the brain to get damaged by
D. accessory retaining liquids
108. Amy has an itch on her nose and would 113. At the end of an axon we find?
like to scratch it. What part of her ner-
vous system will control the movement of A. Action
her arm to scratch her nose? B. Dendrites
A. Somatic C. Axon terminals
B. Sympathetic D. Synapse

114. The hormone responsible for your feel- C. 5

ings of stress
D. 7
A. Amygdala
E. 9
B. Hypothalamus
C. Adrenaline 120. person is asked to protrude and retract
tongue.
D. Cortisol
A. olfactory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. The hypothalamus B. auditory
A. Receives sensory information and for-
C. facial
wards it to the proper part or the cere-
brum for processing D. hypoglossal
B. Regulates reflexes 121. Which Part of the autonomic nervous sys-
C. Controls anger, hunger, thirst, fatigue tem is responsible for Flight of Fight?
A. Parasympathetic
D. Controls balance
B. Motor
116. Which part of the autonomic nervous sys- C. Sympathetic
tem is responsible for a reduction in heart
rate and breathing rate? D. Somatic
A. sympathetic 122. The portion of the brain responsible for

B. somatic emotions and alerting you that you are in
danger.
C. parasympathetic
A. Spinal cord
D. sensory
B. Hypothalamus
117. What cranial nerves can be tested by
C. Amygdala
swallowing?
A. CN # 8 and 10 D. Adrenaline
B. 5 and 7 123. Optic (Ocular) nerve

C. 9 and 10 A. I
D. 7 and 8 B. II
118. Long fiber with branched end is? C. III
A. Cell body D. IV
B. Dendrite
124. Part of the autonomic nervous system
C. Axon that activates in high stress emergencies
D. Axon terminal A. sympathetic
119. What number CN is the Facial nerve B. reflexal
A. 1 C. parasympathetic
B. 3 D. somatic

125. This is also known as our fight-or-flight C. Accessory

hormone which prepares our body to sur-
D. Hypoglossal
vive dangerous situations

A. Spinal cord 131. gag reflex
B. Adrenaline A. glossopharyngeal
C. Hypothalamus B. vagus
D. Cortisol C. trigeminal
126. What part of the nervous system is re- D. optic
sponsible for slowing down breathing and
pulse after an emergency is over? 132. The part of the nervous system that con-
sists of nerves that branch out from the
A. Sympathetic
CNS and connect to other body parts
B. Parasympathetic
A. Sympathetic
C. Cranial Nerves
B. Parasympathetic
D. Spinal Nerves
C. Autonomic
127. controls lateral rectus eye muscles D. Peripheral
A. optic
133. Cataracts are when which structure of
B. oculomotor
the eye becomes cloudy and interferes
C. abducens with light being focused on the retina
D. vagus A. cornea
128. Goes numb when the dentist gives you B. sclera
novocaine C. pupil
A. Trigmemial
D. lens
B. abducens
C. vagus 134. Chemicals in the neuron that help send
messages
D. glossopharyngeal
A. dendrites
129. What are specialized nerve endings that B. neurotransmitters
detect change inside and outside the
body? C. axon terminals
A. interneurons D. vesicles
B. receptors
135. The end of the spinal cord where nerves
C. motor neurons descend
D. reflex arc A. coccygeal
130. Slows the heart rate B. cauda equina
A. Glossopharyngeal C. lumbrosacral
B. Vagus D. femoral

136. trapezius and sternocleindomastoid 141. Network of nerves that supplies the up-
movements per limbs
A. abducens A. Brachial Plexus
B. accessory B. Cervical Plexus
C. glossopharyngeal C. Sacral Plexus
D. hypoglossal D. Lumbar Plexus
142. Thermoreceptors receives information
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. Which organ controls all parts of your
about
body, is responsible for thinking, move-
ment, learning, memory and maintaining A. sounds
homeostasis? B. pain
A. Brain C. light
B. Spinal Cord D. temperature
C. Lungs 143. This part of the eye allows light into the
D. Interneurons eye.
E. Heart A. pupil
B. optic nerve
138. A patient has an injury to the ventral root
of his spinal nerve at the lumbar level of C. sclera
his spinal cord. He will experience prob- D. lens
lems of
144. Which of the following responsible for in-
A. sensory at the bowel and bladder creasing heart rate during stress?
B. motor at the legs and feet A. Somatic nervous system
C. sensory at the legs and feet B. Sympathetic nervous system
D. motor at the arms and diaphragm C. Parasympathetic nervous system
139. neurons carry messages away from D. Sensory nervous system
the central nervous system to the body. 145. Ability to see objects that are near more
A. Motor / Afferent clearly than objects that are far is also
known as
B. Motor / Efferent
A. nearsighted
C. Sensory / Efferent
B. farsighted
D. Sensory / Afferent
C. myopia
140. What type of Neuron send signals to the D. hyperopia
brain from a receptor?
146. The head has pairs of cranial nerves
A. Motor
that primarily innervate areas the
B. Relay shoulders.
C. Sensory A. 31, above
D. Inter neuron B. 12, below

C. 31, below 153. What structure uses ATP to move ions to

D. 12, above create a resting potential in a neuron cell
membrane?

147. There is one pair of nerves. A. Voltage-gated channel
A. lumbar B. Magnesium-Calcium pump
B. cranial C. Ligand-gated channel
C. sacral D. Sodium-Potassium pump
D. coocygeal
154. what are the 2 hemispheres of the brain
148. what is the correct order of the first 3 called
CN? A. Front & back
A. Optic, Olfactory, Oculomotor B. Front & cerebellum
B. Oculomotor, Optic, Olfactory C. Cerebrum & cerebellum
C. Olfactory, Optic, Oculomotor D. Back & cerebrum
D. Optic, Olfactory, Oculomotor 155. swallowing (IX)
149. Chewing A. hypoglossal
A. optic B. vagus
B. accessory C. trigeminal
C. abducting D. glossopharyngeal
D. trigeminal 156. The cranial nerve number carries
sound impulses to brain and is called the
150. Which part of the brain connects the rest cranial nerve
of your brain to your spinal cord?
A. II
A. Cerebrum
B. VIII
B. Cerebellum
C. auditory
C. Brain Stem
D. olfactory
D. Spinal Cord
E. glossopharyngeal
151. Shrugs the shoulders 157. Swallowing
A. Accessory A. glossopharyngeal
B. Vestibulocochlear B. hypoglossal
C. Abducens C. trigeminal
D. Trigeminal D. optic
152. The plexus that supplies nerves to the 158. Which is not responsible in movement of
pelvis and legs the eyes?
A. brachial A. Oculomotor
B. cervical B. Trochlear
C. lumbar C. Vagus
D. femoral D. Abducens

159. Balance 164. Which of the following is the sensory re-

A. vestibulocochlear ceptors for touch?
A. Photoreceptors
B. olfactory
B. Mechanoreceptors
C. vagus
C. Chemoreceptors
D. cranial nerve III
D. Thermoreceptors
160. Which of the following best describes ac-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion potentials? 165. what kind of disease can protists give
you?
A. The movement of negatively charged
ions into the neuron cell after a stimulus A. Diabetes
of any size. B. protozoa
B. Electrical impulses produced by the C. Covid-19
body that are stronger when the stimulus D. Malaria
is bigger.
C. Uniform in strength and speed but fre- 166. Olfactory nerve function to what
quency varies depending on the stimulus. A. Sense of taste
D. This is how you feel in the morning B. Sense of Touch
based on your energy level of what you C. Sense of smell
“potentially” can do during the day.
D. Sense of pain
161. Taste and smell use what type of recep-
tors 167. how many nervous systems do we
have?
A. Chemoreceptors
A. 4 (PNS, CNS, ENS, TNS)
B. Mechanorecptors
B. 2 (CNS, PNS)
C. Photoreceptors
C. 1 (ENS)
D. Chemo, Mechano, and Photo receptors
D. 3 (CNS, PNS, ENS)
162. Sneezing uses what part of the brain 168. Which part of the brain is the largest part
A. Thalamus of the brain making up about 90% of the
B. Medulla oblongata whole brain?
A. Cerebrum
C. Spinal cord
B. Cerebellum
D. none of above
C. Brain Stem
163. The spinal cord contains pairs of
D. Spinal Cord
spinal nerves that are all nerves, ex-
pect that is specifically motor. 169. sensation in teeth
A. 31, mixed, C2 A. trigeminal
B. 31, mixed, C1 B. hypoglossal
C. 12, sensory, C1 C. vagus
D. 12, motor, C2 D. glossopharyngeal

2.4 Central nervous system 345
170. A cervical plexus nerve that controls the D. vitreous humor

diaphragm.
175. Sensory and Motor parts of the periph-

A. cranial nerve eral nervous system belong to nervous
B. cervical nerve system
C. phrenic nerve A. Sympathetic
D. axilllary nerve B. Somatic
171. The brain is divided into how many hemi- C. Autonomic
spheres D. central nervous system
A. Four
176. Which part of the brain takes up only
B. Five 10% of our brains volume, but contains
C. Two over half of our brains neurons?
D. Three A. Cerebrum
172. This part of the eye changes shape to con- B. Cerebellum

trol the amount of light that enters the eye. C. Brain Stem
It is also known as the colored part of the D. Spinal Cord
eye. What is it called?
A. pupil 177. sensory nerve of the face
B. lens A. olfactory
C. iris B. optic
D. retina C. trigeminal
173. You start to feel your heart beat go fast D. accessory

when you remember the amount of asyn- 178. What Neuron is used to send signals from
chronous tasks you have left. Which por- your brain to your muscles?
tion of the brain is in charge of your heart
beat? A. Relay
A. Hypothalamus B. Inter
B. Amygdala C. Motor
C. Cortisol D. Sensory
D. Adrenaline 179. The plexus that supplies nerves to the
arms is known as
174. This part of the eye focuses light/images
onto the retina. A. cervical
A. lens B. lumbar
B. cornea C. sacral
C. cones D. brachial
2.4 Central nervous system

1. usually receives information and transmits C. Midbrain

it to the cell body
D. Thalamus
A. axon
B. cell body 7. What are the two main parts of the CNS?
C. collateral axon A. heart and brain
D. dendrite B. brain and spinal cord
2. Which of the following substances is least C. brain and muscles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
able to cross the blood-brain barrier? D. stomach and brain
A. Water
B. Sodium ions 8. The skull protects
C. Glucose A. the throat

D. White blood cells B. the stomach
3. Startle, visual and auditory reflexes C. the brain
A. Pons D. the coccyx

B. Medulla oblongata
9. Which is the biggest brain animal of all
C. Midbrain time in terms of body size?
D. Thalamus A. Shrews (tiny rat)
4. What two types of macromolecules are the B. Humans
main components of myelin?
C. Monkeys
A. carbohydrates and lipids
D. Ostrich fire chickens
B. proteins, nuclei acids and lipids
C. lipids and proteins 10. nerves that originate from spinal cord are
D. lipids and nucleic acids called
A. Cranial nerves
5. Use of cerebro-spinal fluid
B. Spinal nerves
A. It protects the brain against
shocks/jerks along with the meninges and C. afferent nerves
cranium.
D. none of above
B. Supplies food to the nervous system
C. Always protects the heart with the 11. How much of a change in the membrane
help of Ribs potential is necessary for the summation
of postsynaptic potentials to result in an
D. Protects the lungs from diseases
action potential being generated?
6. Automatic reflex centers for the heart A. +30mV
rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallow-
ing, and vomiting B. +15mV
A. Medulla Oblongata C. +10mV
B. Pons D. -15mV

12. Dendrites are part of a neuron that carries B. A sympathetic nerve originates in the
electrical signals the cell body. middle of the spinal cord and has a short
axon to the synapse of another neuron.

A. to
From the second cell, there is a long axon
B. away that goes to target neuron
C. in between C. A sympathetic nerve originates in the
D. none of above brain stem and has a short axon to the
synapse of another neuron. From the sec-
13. What is the gap between two neurons ond cell, there is a long axon that goes to
called? the target neuron.
A. Impulse D. A sympathetic nerve originates in the
bottom of the spinal cord and has a long
B. Synapse
axon to the synapse of another neuron.
C. CNS From the second cell, there is a short axon
D. Inter neuron that goes to the target neuron.
14. Axons are part of a neuron that send elec- 17. nerves that originate from brain are called
trical signals the cell body A. Cranial nerves
A. to B. Spinal nerves
B. away from C. afferent nerves
C. in between D. none of above
D. none of above 18. Which part of the brain controls all invol-
untary actions?
15. Scientists of any century have studied the
role of the spinal cord in neural control Sci- A. brain stem
entists of which century have studied the B. cerebrum
role of the spinal cord in neural control? C. cerebellum
A. 16th & 17th centuries D. none of above
B. 17th & 18th centuries
19. The basic part of the nervous system is the
C. 15th & 16th centuries
D. 19th & 20th centuries A. blood vessel
16. Information from the sympathetic nervous B. vein
system follows a different structural path C. neuron
than the parasympathetic nervous sys- D. none of above
tem. Which of the following accurately
describes the flow of sympathetic nervous 20. The 3 organs that make up the nervous
system information? system.
A. A sympathetic nerve originates in the A. lungs, brain, skin
middle of the spinal cord and has a long B. brain, spinal cord, nerves
axon to the synapse of a second neuron.
From the second cell, there is a short axon C. medulla, dendrites, axons
that goes to the target neuron. D. cell body, axon endings, nucleus

21. Jenny receives a golden retriever puppy 26. The largest part of your brain
for her birthday. She picks up the puppy A. medulla
and is surprised at how soft and fluffy the
puppy’s fur feels. What lobe of Jenny’s B. cerebrum
cerebral cortex first processes the informa- C. cerebellum
tion about the feel of the puppy’s fur? D. neuron
A. Frontal lobe
27. Optic lobes
B. Occipital lobe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Forebrain
C. Parietal lobe
B. Midbrain
D. Temporal lobe
C. Hindbrain
22. What part of the brain controls your sense
D. none of above
of sight?
A. temporal lobe 28. This part takes care of body jobs you don’t
think about, like digesting food and sweat-
B. occipital lobe
ing.
C. parietal lobe
A. cerebrum
D. cerebellum
B. thalamus
E. frontal Lobe
C. brain stem
23. How long does all the signaling through D. cerebellum
the sensory pathway, within the central
nervous system, and through the motor 29. branch of the axon
command pathway take? A. axon
A. 1 to 2 minutes B. cell body
B. 1 to 2 seconds C. collateral axon
C. fraction of a second D. dendrite
D. varies with graded potential
30. What are the two divisions of the nervous
24. What is the insulating membrane that sur- system?
rounds parts of the axon that helps the im- A. The brain and spinal cord.
pulses travel faster called?
B. The central nervous system and the
A. Axon skeletal system.
B. Dendrites C. The central and peripheral nervous
C. Node of Ranvier systems.
D. Myelin Sheath D. none of above
25. What are the 3 parts of the brain? 31. The brain weighs approximately
A. dendrites, axons, axon endings A. 1400g
B. spinal cord, medulla, neurons B. 1300g
C. cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem C. 400g
D. central, peripheral, axons D. 1000g

32. Which of these is not a feature of postgan- 37. Which of the following areas of the brain
glionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous is not involved in the diffuse cortical pro-
system? jection of dopamine?

A. Originating distal to the effector organ A. Hypothalamus
B. Unmyelinated B. Raphe nuclei
C. Short C. Ventral tegmentum
D. Noradrenergic
D. Substantia nigra
33. All this neurons are multipolar except for
38. Which of the following conditions is
A. Motor Neuron strongly related to the CNS?
B. Pyramidal neuron A. Crohn’s disease
C. Olfactory neuron
B. covid-19
D. Purkinje neuron
C. motor neuron disease
34. The spinal cord can extend from anywhere D. heart disease
to anywhere
A. From the back of the hindbrain 39. areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum con-
(medulla oblongata) to the back of the centration in the cell body
stomach or lumbar region A. axon
B. From neck to vertebral column
B. cell body
C. From head to back of the stomach
C. collateral axon
D. From head to tail
D. nissl bodies
35. Vertigo:-
40. What is an example of your body maintain-
A. is a post-rotational sense of being ro-
ing homeostasis?
tated toward opposite side of original ro-
tation A. Your internal body temperature is
B. is a post-rotational sense of being ro- 98.6o.
tated toward same side of original rota- B. The hair growing on your head.
tion
C. Your fingernails and toenails breaking
C. is a rotational sense of being rotated when they get too long.
toward opposite side of original rotation
D. none of above
D. is a rotational sense of being rotated
toward same side of original rotation 41. Who are the scientists who conducted
experiments on the frog spinal cord?
36. A is what your body does in reaction
(Choose two correct answers)
to a stimuli.
A. reaction A. Leonardo da Vinci Leonardo da Vinci
B. response B. Stephen Hales Stephen Hales

C. change C. Galen Galen
D. none of above D. Charles Darwin Charles Darwin

42. Which of these locations is where the much energy does the brain use in the to-
greatest level of integration is taking place tal energy produced by the body?
in the example of testing the temperature A. 20%
of the shower?
B. 2%
A. skeletal muscle
C. 50%
B. spinal cord D. 80%
C. thalamus
48. A bundle of nerve tissue that links the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cerebral cortex brain to the nerves in peripheral nerve sys-
tem is called the
43. What is the percentage of brain weight in
total body weight? A. brain stem.
B. central nervous system.
A. 2%
C. spinal cord.
B. 20%
D. none of above
C. 80%
49. Parkinson’s disease results from damage
D. 4%
of:-
44. consists of the brain and spinal cord A. caudate nucleus
A. afferent division B. subthalamic nucleus
B. autonomic nervous system C. globus pallidus
C. central nervous system D. substantia nigra
D. peripheral nervous system 50. Shape of spinal cord

A. cylindrical shape
45. The nervous system is like a for your
body. B. snake shape
C. hair shape
A. computer
D. rectangular shape
B. washing machine
C. blender 51. Messages move from one to another
along threadlike branches.
D. none of above
A. neuron
46. What is an example of homeostasis? B. vein
A. Your feet pulling away when being tick- C. artery
led. D. none of above
B. Your stomach growling when your
52. The nervous system is divided into 2
body needs nutrients.
groups.
C. Your hair growing really long in the A. neurons
summer.
B. cerebellum, cerebrum
D. none of above
C. the spinal cord
47. How much energy does the brain use in To- D. central nervous system and peripheral
tal energy produced by the body? How nervous system

53. The central nervous system is made up of 59. This part controls your emotions and keeps
your body at the right temperature.

A. the brain and cerebellum A. thalamus
B. the peripheral and autonomic nervous B. hemisphere
system C. hypothalamus
C. the brain and spinal cord D. cerebrum
D. the cerebrum and the cerebellum
60. long cell processes from the cell body; con-
54. Your brain is made of cells called ducts action potentials
A. Nodes A. axon
B. Neurons B. cell body
C. Niotic C. collateral axon
D. none of above D. dendrite
55. number of cranial nerves 61. Damage of the general interpretative area
A. 12 pairs12 pairs causes all the following effects, except:-
B. 12 A. failure of articulate speech
C. 31 pairs31 pairs B. failure to understand written words
D. 31 C. failure to understand spoken words

D. sensory aphasia
56. The frontal, parietal, occipital, and tempo-
ral lobes make up the 62. What type of glial cell provides myelin for
A. brain stem. the axons in a tract?
B. cerebrum. A. Oligodendrocyte
C. cerebellum. B. Astrocyte
D. none of above C. Schwann cell

D. Satellite cell
57. This part helps you solve problems and
make decisions. 63. Which of the following is a receptor?
A. cerebrum A. heart
B. thalamus B. brain
C. hypothalamus C. tongue
D. cerebellum D. stomach
58. There are parts to the ear. 64. Which part of the brain controls balance?
A. 3 A. cerebellum
B. 5 B. heart
C. 8 C. lungs

65. Which of the following is NOT a function B. binding of a neurotransmitter

of the hypothalamus? C. increase in concentration of K ions
A. controls hunger/thirst
D. depolarization of the membrane
B. regulates body temperature
71. How many times do you need to see the
C. controls coughing, swallowing, etc.,
eye doctor a year?
reflexes
D. controls the pituitary gland A. 2 times
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 1 time
66. Central nervous system
C. 10 times
A. Brain and spinal cord
D. none of above
B. Network of spinal and cranial nerves
Nerves from the brain and spinal cord 72. Known as the “Little Brain” and is in
C. Brain and posterior part of the spinal charge of balance and coordinating move-
cord ments of muscles and joints.
D. Medulla oblongata and autonomic ner- A. Thalamus
vous system B. Reticular Formation
67. Your spinal cord is located in your C. Hypothalamus
A. stomach D. Cerebellum
B. heart
73. insulating layer of cells around an axon
C. spine
A. axon
D. none of above
B. myelin sheath
68. What would your body’s response be to C. collateral axon
having the flame of a candle getting too
close to your hand? D. dendrite
A. To sweat 74. location of the nucleus and source of infor-
B. To yell mation for protein synthesis
C. To pull your hand away A. axon
D. none of above B. cell body
69. The nervous system subdivision that is C. collateral axon

composed of the brain and spinal cord. D. dendrite
A. Autonomic Nervous Sytem
75. which part of the brain carries out mental
B. CNS processes such as learning and remember-
C. PNS ing?
D. Somatic Nervous System A. brain stem
B. cerebrum
70. What does a ligand-gated channel require
in order to open? C. cerebellum
A. Increase in concentration of Na ions D. none of above

76. The opening at the center of the eye (black C. +55mV

in color) is called this.
D. -70mV

A. pupil
82. Why is the adrenal gland unique in its au-
B. lungs
tonomic innervation?
C. radius
A. It is innervated by parasympathetic
D. none of above cholinergic preganglionic neurons.
77. What percent of the brain makes up the B. The postganglionic neurons are cholin-
cerebrum? ergic rather than noradrenergic despite
A. 26% being part of the sympathetic nervous sys-
tem
B. 85%
C. The post-synaptic response is medi-
C. 100% ated via muscarinic acetylcholine recep-
D. none of above tors.
78. nerves and ganglia outside the CNS D. It is directly innervated by the spinal
cord without passing through ganglia.
A. afferent division
B. autonomic nervous system 83. Actions that you do automatically, without
you having to think about them, are called
C. central nervous system
D. peripheral nervous system
A. fast
79. What part of the brain controls you move- B. flexible
ment, sense of touch, taste, and tempera-
ture? C. reflex
A. temporal lobe D. repeat
B. occipital lobe 84. Sensory nerves bring messages from the
C. parietal lobe
D. cerebellum A. stomach
E. frontal Lobe B. brain
80. Which part of a neuron contains the nu- C. lungs
cleus D. none of above
A. Dendrite
85. A channel opens on a postsynaptic mem-
B. Soma
brane that causes a negative ion to enter
C. Axon the cell. What type of graded potential is
D. Synaptic end bulb this?
A. Depolarizing
81. What is the normal resting potential of a
neuron cell membrane? B. Repolarizing
A. +40mV C. Hyperpolarizing
B. -30mV D. Non polarizing

86. A 55-year old woman is diagnosed with towards the center in the brain If the
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and white matter is towards the periphery of
reports symptoms of general weakness, the brain then the gray matter is towards
muscle atrophy, and muscle twitching. the center
What type of nervous system dysfunction D. The white matter is usually present
is she likely experiencing? on the periphery while gray matter is
A. Upper motor neuron dysfunction present towards the center in the spinal
B. Lower motor neuron dysfunction cord whereas the gray matter is present
NARAYAN CHANGDER
towards the center in the spinal cord.
C. Axon degeneration
D. Demyelination 90. What kind of stimuli would cause you to
shiver?
87. number of spinal nerves A. Being very excited about a new bike.
A. 12 pairs12 pairs B. Jumping into a cold shower.
B. 12 C. Running really fast.
C. 31 pairs31 pairs D. none of above
D. 31
91. An average adult male brain weighs about
88. The brain is made up of three major parts. A. 1350 g
What are they?
B. 1250 g
A. The occipital lobe, the parietal lobe,
and the frontal lobe. C. 1400 g
B. The spinal cord, the cerebrum, and the D. 1300 g

cerebellum. 92. Acetylcholine is synthesised and packaged
C. The brain stem, the cerebrum, and the in the presynaptic terminal before being
cerebellum. released to act on the postsynaptic recep-
D. none of above tors. Which of these statements about
that process in parasympathetic postgan-
89. Choose two correct answers glionic neurons is not true?
A. The gray matter is usually present A. Acetylcholine is synthesised by the
on the periphery while white matter is action of choline-o-acetyltransferase on
present towards the center in the brain If choline and acetyl coenzyme A.
the gray matter is towards the periphery B. Release of neurotransmitter is trig-
of the brain the white matter is towards gered when voltage sensitive calcium
the center channels open to allow the influx of cal-
B. The gray matter is usually present cium
on the periphery while white matter is C. The released acetylcholine acts on
present towards the center in the spinal postsynaptic nicotinic receptors
cord If the gray matter is towards the pe-
riphery then the white matter is towards D. Choline is recycled by being taken back
the center up into the presynaptic terminal
C. The white matter is usually present on 93. Which of the following is probably going
the periphery while gray matter is present to propagate an action potential fastest?

A. thin, unmyelinated axon 99. What is the function of a nerve?

B. thin, myelinated axon A. To transport needed food around the

C. thick, unmyelinated axon body
D. thick, myelinated axon B. To control body movement for re-
flexes.
94. An electrical impulse within a single neu-
ron is called a C. To carry messages (impulses) to and
form the Central Nervous System
A. synapse
D. All of the above
B. membrane potential
C. action potential 100. Those who told us two thousand years
ago that the brain is the center of control
D. cell body
A. Greeks
95. A nerve cell is called a:
B. Egyptians
A. neutron
C. Mesapatomians
B. nerve
D. Indians
C. neuron
D. synapse 101. Which of the following describes salbuta-
mol, a β 2-adrenoceptor agonists
96. When the eardrum vibrates, it moves a set
of bones called A. Direct acting sympathomimetic
A. ossicles B. Indirect acting sympathomimetic
B. muscles C. Direct acting parasympathomimetic
C. blood vessels D. Indirect acting parasympathomimetic
D. none of above
102. Scientists of any century have disproved
97. This gets information from the environ- the notion that the Greeks proposed brain
ment. control
A. skeletal system A. 16th & 17th centuries
B. central nervous system B. 17th & 18th centuries
C. digestive system C. 15th & 16th centuries
D. none of above D. 19th & 20th centuries
98. What is “stimuli”?
103. Which of the following voltages would
A. A major organ in the brain that is a part most likely be measured during the rela-
of the nervous system. tive refractory period?
B. What your body does to a change or a A. +30 mV
signal.
B. 0mV
C. A change or a signal your body re-
ceives. C. -45mV
D. none of above D. -80mV

104. Sense organs get information from the 109. subdivision of the efferent division that
transmits action potentials to smooth mus-
A. environment cle, cardiac muscle, or glands
B. computer A. afferent division
C. spinal cord B. autonomic nervous system

D. none of above C. somatic nervous system
D. peripheral nervous system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
105. What is NANC neurotransmission?
A. Neurotransmission in the autonomic 110. Which part of the brain coordinates the
nervous system involving noradrenaline actions of muscles and helps you maintain
and neuropeptide Y co-transmission balance?
B. Neurotransmission in the autonomic A. brain stem
nervous system that does not involve
acetylcholine or noradrenaline. B. cerebrum
C. Neurotransmission in the enteric ner- C. cerebellum
vous system that does not involve acetyl-
D. none of above
choline or noradrenaline.
D. Co-transmission in the autonomic ner- 111. Which ions are involved in an action po-
vous system of both neuropeptide Y and tential?
acetylcholine
A. Na; Cl
106. Which part of the brain controls involun- B. Na; K
tary processes such as breathing?
C. K; Cl
A. Cerebrum
D. Na; Ca
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla 112. The part of the neuron that takes infor-
D. none of above mation away from the cell body is called
a(n)
107. The spinal cord is protected by
A. dendrite
A. the spine
B. axon
B. the ribs
C. cell body
C. fluid
D. Schwann cell
D. the legs
113. How many parts (hemispheres) does
108. Name the two major parts of the central
your cerebellum have?
nervous system.
A. The brain and the skull. A. 4 parts
B. The brain and the body. B. 3 parts

C. The spinal cord and the brain. C. 2 parts
D. The spinal cord and the body. D. none of above

114. Which is the correct order of events in de- 119. . A veteran is admitted to the hospital
polarisation then repolarisation? after sustaining a traumatic brain injury.
A magnetic resonance image (MRI) shows

A. Sodium channels close, potassium
significant damage to the veteran’s cere-
channels open
bellum. The damage would result in dif-
B. Sodium channels open, potassium ficulty with which of the following func-
channels open, tions?
C. Sodium channels open, potassium A. Regulation of temperature
channels close
B. Sensation of pain
D. Potassium channels open, sodium C. Coordination of movement
channels open
D. Regulation of emotion
115. When the frog died in an experiment by
120. Activation of the sympathetic nervous
Leonardo da Vinci?
system leads to the ‘fight and flight’ re-
A. Spinal cord was damaged by pushing a sponse. Which of these is not part of that
needle down it process
B. Heart was damaged by pushing a nee- A. Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle
dle down it
B. Sweating
C. After the brain was removed C. Bladder relaxation
D. After the skin was removed D. Increased gut motility
116. Basal ganglia send direct projections to:- 121. The part of the neuron that brings infor-
A. primary motor area mation to the cell body is called a(n)
B. premotor area A. dendrite

B. axon
C. VA and VL thalamic nuclei
C. nucleus
D. lower motor neurons in spinal cord
D. node of Ranvier
117. The colored part of the eye is called the
122. subdivision of the efferent division that
transmits action potentials from the CNS
A. iris to skeletal muscle only
B. radius A. afferent division
C. pupil B. somatic nervous system
D. none of above C. central nervous system
118. In resting potential, neurons have more D. peripheral nervous system

on the outside of the cell membrane. 123. What is another name for a nerve cell?
A. K+ A. Muscle Fiber
B. NaCl B. Connective Tissue
C. Na+ C. Impulse
D. Cl- D. Neuron

2.5 Histamine 358
124. Medulla oblongata C. disappear when the person becomes

A. Forebrain alert
B. Midbrain D. are observed during REM sleep
C. Hindbrain
127. Which of the following structures is a
D. none of above part of the rhombencephalon?
125. transmits action potentials from sensory A. Temporal Lobe
organs to CNS
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Thalamus
A. afferent division
C. Substantia nigra
B. autonomic nervous system
C. central nervous system D. Medulla
D. peripheral nervous system 128. Which of the following is NOT a sense?

126. β -waves of the EEG:- A. hearing
A. are observed during relaxed wakeful B. nose
state
C. smell
B. are faster than α -waves but slower
than theta waves D. touch
2.5 Histamine
1. How many histamine standards must be D. Phenytoin
reset when testing composite 3?
A. 17.0 4. How often should antihistamines be taken
as prescribed?
B. 17.1
A. As needed
C. 17.2
D. 17.3 B. Every 4 hours
C. Every 8 hours
2. What is the weight of the sample used
for testing? and how many aquades are D. Every 12 hours
used?
A. 10g, 900ml 5. The abundance of histamine receptors in
the myocardium and coronary vessels
B. 100g, 90 ml causes changes in cardiac regulation dur-
C. 10g, 90 ml ing the massive histamine release that is
D. 100g, 900ml characteristic of the following types of hy-
persensitivity:
3. Drugs whose interactions reduce the effect
A. I
of cimetidine in plasma concentrations are:
A. Nifedipine B. II
B. Ketoconazole C. III
C. Theophylline D. IV

2.5 Histamine 359
6. What is the main function of antihis- 12. Meaning of Histo

tamines? A. living tissue

A. To reduce inflammation
B. damaged tissue
B. To decrease production of histamine
C. Epithelial tissue
C. To prevent the release of histamine
D. Smooth tissue
D. To stimulate the immune system
13. Chemical structure of histamine contains
7. What is the FDA standard for histamine?
test 1 sample? A. Carboxylic group
A. 17.0 B. Ethyl ester side chain
B. 50.0 C. hydrox group
C. 45.5 D. Ethylamine side chain
D. 16.8
14. for sample dilution using comparison?
8. what is the name of the reader/machine
A. 1:9
tool to read the histamine veratox test?
B. 2:8
A. Biofish
B. Biotest C. 9:1
C. Stat Fax D. 8:2

D. Colony Counter 15. Which is not a second generation H1 ago-
9. The portion of the tidal volume that is not nist?
subject to alveolar ventilation is called A. Nizatidine
A. dead space B. Loratadine
B. fresh gas inlet C. Fexofenadine
C. fresh gas flow D. Levocabastine
D. resistance
16. Histamine receptor antagonists that do
10. In what form are most antihistamines not have a sedative effect
available?
A. Pyrilamine
A. Capsule
B. Chlorpheniramine
B. Tablet
C. Fexofenadine
C. Injection
D. Cimetidine
D. Patch
11. The word Autacoids derived from Greek 17. What is the recommended reagent temper-
word which means ature when performing the test?
A. Histamine remedy A. 18-20 C

B. Self remedy B. 18-30 C
C. Home remedy C. 18-25 C
D. Quick remedy D. 18-29 C

2.5 Histamine 360
18. H2 receptor antagonist which has the low- 24. Histamine contains
est potency is A. thiazole ring
A. Ranitidine B. benzene ring
B. Famotidine C. imidazole ring
C. Nizatidine D. quinazoline ring
D. Cimetidine
25. Histamine is synthesized by decarboxyla-
19. Unlike first-generation antihistamines, tion of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
second-generation antihistamines have A. Histidine
low water solubility. This causes:
B. Alanine
A. Available only in oral preparations
C. Lysine
B. Available in IV and IM preparations
D. Glutamic acid
C. Available in suppository preparations
D. All wrong 26. Drugs that work by affecting the secretion
of hydrochloric acid by gastric parietal cells
20. Location of H2 receptor are
A. Central nervous system A. Pantoprazole
B. Smooth muscles B. Ranitidine
C. Gastric parietal cells C. Cimetidine
D. T Cells D. Dip with hydramine
21. Can antihistamines be taken during preg- 27. Histamine release causes
nancy? A. Increases blood pressure
A. Yes, always B. Contraction of smooth muscle
B. Yes, but only under the guidance of a C. Dilation of smooth muscle
healthcare provider
D. increases fever
C. No, never
D. It depends on the stage of pregnancy 28. What is the minimum acceptable R value?
A. 0.980
22. Which of the following is a potential seri-
ous side effect of antihistamines? B. 0.999
A. Drowsiness C. 1.000
B. Dry mouth D. 09.80
C. Constipation 29. There are two pathways of histamine

D. Difficulty breathing metabolism in humans. The most impor-
tant pathway involves methylation which
23. histamine is released from is catalyzed by
A. RBC A. Histidine decarboxylation
B. stem cells B. Monoamine oxidase
C. T-cells C. Histamine N metyltransferase
D. mast cells D. Histaminase

2.5 Histamine 361
30. What mapleson system is most efficient B. 2 L/min

for spontaneous ventilation? C. 4L/min

A. Mapleson A D. >5L/min
B. Mapleson D
35. disadvantages of CIRCLE SYSTEM except
C. Mapleson C
A. resistance is difficult to assess
D. Mapleson B
B. result in greater risk of breaking or
31. Some of the drawbacks of the draw over damage, increase resistance,
system, except C. increasing complexity,
A. Due to the absence of a reservoir bag, D. difficulty predicting inspired gas con-
tidal volume depth cannot be assessed centrations during low fresh gas flows.
during spontaneous ventilation.
36. What mapleson system is most efficient
B. The presence of nonbreathing valves,
for controlled ventilation?
PEEP valves, and filter-close circuits in the
patient’s head, makes it difficult for head A. Mapleson A
and neck surgery and pediatric cases. B. Mapleson B
C. If the head is covered, the nonbreath- C. Mapleson C
ing valve is often closed as well.
D. Mapleson D
D. draw over devices have a high resis-
tance to gas flow 37. Which of the following is a common side
effect of antihistamines?
32. Can antihistamines be taken with other
A. Dizziness
medications?
B. Dry mouth
A. Yes, always
C. Constipation
B. Yes, but only certain medications
D. All of the above
C. No, never
D. It depends on the medication 38. Histamine receptor antagonists that have
antiemetic effects are
33. General properties of draw-over tools, ex-
A. Ranitidine
cept:
B. Diphenhydramine
A. Easy to carry and strong
C. Famotidine
B. High resistance to gas flow
D. Loratadine
C. Can be used with several agents
D. Can control the release of steam 39. Reference for histamine testing with vera-
tox media
34. How much fresh gas flow in the circle A. AOAC 070707
system causes rebreathing to be so min-
imal that CO2 absorbers are usually not B. AOAC 070307
needed? C. AOAC 070703
A. <1 L/min D. AOAC 030707

2.6 Gastrointestinal 362
2.6 Gastrointestinal
1. An atrophy of the gastric mucosa causes a 6. If you have upper abdominal pain you
decrease in the production of the intrinsic could have
factor of vit B12, which can produce: A. gastritis
A. iron deficiency anemia B. Crohn’s disease
B. Sickle cell anaemia. C. hemorrhoids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Anemia megaloblastica. D. Celiac disease
D. Thalassemia.
7. Typhoid fever is caused by:
2. Which of the followings can cause gastri- A. Shigella dysentery
tis?
B. Salmonella typhi
A. alcohol
C. Shigella flexneri
B. cocaine
D. none of above
C. smoking
D. long stay in toilet 8. Indicate the triple therapy used to manage
Helicobacter pylori.
E. stress
A. Lansoprazole 30 mg. twice a day,
3. Numerous fingerlike projections in the amoxicillin 1 g twice a day and clar-
folds of the wall of the ileum is classified ithromycin 500 mg. 2 times a day orally
as for 10 to 14 days.
A. Bolus B. Lansoprazole 30 mg. orally 30 minutes
before breakfast, amoxicillin 1 gr 2 times
B. Chyme
a day and metronidazole 500 mg. 2 times
C. Bile a day for 10 to 14 days.
D. Villi C. Lansoprazole 30 mg. orally 30 minutes
before breakfast, amoxicillin 1 gr 2 times
4. Where does the absorption of nutritive a day and clarithromycin 500 mg. 2 times
substances mainly take place? a day for 10 to 14 days.
A. Small intestine D. Omeprazole 40 mg. orally a day, amox-
B. Large intestine icillin 1 gr. 2 times a day, metronidazole
500 mg. 2 times a day orally for 10 to 14
C. Pancreas
days.
D. Liver
9. Colorectal cancer is currently the most
5. Which cells produce insulin and what is its common cause of cancer-related death in
function? the world.
A. alpha cells/raise blood glucose A. Second
B. beta cells/lower blood glucose B. Third
C. delta cells/inhibit alpha and beta cells C. Fourth
D. F cells/inhibit somatostatin secretions D. Fifth

10. Bacteria that is associated with adenocar- 15. Which of the following serves as a storage
cinoma, peptic ulcer, gastritis, some know channel in the digestive system?
it as the classic triad?

A. upper part
A. E.coli B. middle portion
B. C.jejuni C. lower segment
C. H.pylori D. accessory organs
D. none of above
16. What does the activation of gastric
11. HCL acid from gastric juice is produced in pepsinogens depend on?
cells A. pH
A. D cells B. From the amount of gastric mucosa
B. main C. presence of water
C. none D. none of above
D. parietal
17. what are the overall functions of gastrin?
(select more than one option)
12. What does mucus do?
A. Stimulate Gastric Acid and pepsin se-
A. Digests food in the mouth.
cretion
B. Digests food in the stomach
B. Growth of gastric mucosa and intesti-
C. Protects the stomach from digesting nal mucosa
iteself
C. Stimulate Gastric Motility
D. Absorbs nutrients from food so the
D. Contraction of muscle at gastro
body has energy.
esophageal junction cardiac sphincter pre-
vents reflux
13. All of these are functions of the liver EX-
CEPT: 18. What is an immune disease in which peo-
A. Biotransformation of molecules ple can’t eat gluten because it will damage
their small intestine?
B. Production of digestive enzymes
A. peptic ulcer
C. Storage of glycogen, fat, vitamins, and
iron B. celiac disease
D. Synthesis of bile C. hemorrhoids
D. Crohn’s disease
14. A patient with gastroesophageal reflux
disease may receive which of the follow- 19. Maximum frequency of concentration of
ing medications? the terminal ileum
A. Calcium carbonate A. 8 to 9 contractions per minute
B. Ranitidine B. 5 per minute
C. Omeprazole C. 12 per minute
D. All of the abouve D. 3 to 5 per minute

20. How long? B. Acute diarrhea with presence of mu-

A. How much poop when pooping? cus and blood
B. How long is there blood in stool? C. Purulent meningitis
C. What color is poop? D. none of above
D. none of above 26. Which of the following is NOT a direct

cause of jaundice?
21. Which diarrhea medication is a C-V con-
A. Gallstones
NARAYAN CHANGDER
trolled substance?
A. Loperamide (Imodium) B. Hepatitis
B. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) C. Cirrhosis
C. Atropine/diphenoxylate (Lomotil) D. Bladder infections
D. None of the above 27. heartburn
22. In the chemical digestion of the small intes- A. stomach ache

tine: B. belly clap
A. Gastrin (a hormone that stimulates C. heartburn
the secretion of hydrochloric acid) is pro- D. none of above
duced.
B. Intestinal glands secrete intestinal 28. Choose CORRECT statement regarding
juice small intestine.
C. Pepsin is produced A. About 6 meters long
D. none of above B. Extend from pylorus to illeoceacal junc-

tion
23. Can I listen to your stomach? C. Attached to posterior abdominal wall
A. Boleh saya dengar perut anda? by a mesentry
B. Boleh saya tepuk perut anda? D. Its lower part is fixed
C. Boleh saya dengar paru-paru anda? 29. Abdominal pain
D. none of above A. color together
24. The secretions that lubricate the food so it B. swallowing problems
moves easily through the digestive tract C. stomach ache
and also protects the epithelium are called
D. none of above
A. mucus 30. The sequence of organs that food passes

B. water through in human digestion is
C. digestive enzymes A. Mouth-Throat-Stomach-Heart-Intestines
D. hormones
B. Mouth-Throat-Intestine-Stomach-
25. Shigella most frequently causes one of the Anus
following conditions: C. Mouth-Esophagus-Heart-Stomach-
A. Bacteriemias y septicemias Intestines

D. Mouth-Esophagus-Stomach-Intestine- 36. Do you have change in bowel habit?

Anus A. Berapa kali anda buang air besar?

31. How big is big gastrin (hint:Big-big, big, B. Anda ada tabiat buang air besar tak
gastrin, gastrin-IV) sama?
A. 95 C. Berapa kali anda buang air kecil?
B. 34 D. none of above
C. 17
37. Occurring in all animal species, intestinal
D. 14 obstructions can have different etiologies,
except:
32. What type of medicine is Antacid?
A. Pythiosis in puppies
A. Weak base
B. foreign bodies
B. Weak acid
C. Dogs that are fed once a day
C. Strong acid
D. Enteroliths in horses
D. Strong base
33. What effect would cause some reflexes to 38. Which of the following gastrointestinal
block the arrival of new acid content from hormone functions is correct?
the stomach until the pancreatic game neu- A. Cholecystokinin and Secretin Increase
tralizes the duodenal chyme. both gastric secretion and motility
A. A PH of less than 3.5 to 4 B. Gastrin secretion is Stimulated by the
B. A PH of 7 digestive products of fat
C. A Ph of 7.35 to 7.85 C. Somatostatin is a powerful stimulator

to both gastric secretion and motility
D. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) in-
34. It helps to keep the food longer for better hibit gastric Secretion
absorption of nutrients and can receive a
reverse pressure of 50 to 60 cm of water. 39. When the primary peristaltic wave fails
to move all the food that has entered
A. Valvula ileocecal the esophagus towards the stomach, is it
B. Esfinter pillory caused?
C. Esfinter duodenal A. primary swallowing phase
D. The reflection of the mass B. Gastric mobilization phase
35. Which of the following would you recom- C. secondary peristalsis
mend when discussingconservative man- D. feedback phase of the esophagus
agement of a hernia? Select all that apply.
40. The large intestine stores or absorbs:
A. Address constipation
A. electrolytes and water
B. Aim for BMI 19-25
C. Aim to achieve a gym bench-press B. Just water
record C. electrolytes only
D. Stop smoking D. stool

41. approximately What is the basic electrical 46. This defecation reflex is the softest; Nerve
rhythm? impulses are sent from the descending
colon to begin peristalsis movements and
A. 65 and 85mV
displace fecal matter.
B. -20 and -60mV
A. mysteric reflex
C. -65 and -85mV
B. Reflejo vagovagal
D. I don’t know the net bro :(
C. reflex of parasympathetic fibers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
42. are the pacemaker that guides the contrac- D. gastrocolic reflex
tion of the smooth muscle of the GI tract
47. Which of the following songs is the most
A. enterocytes perona?
B. interstitial cells of Cajal A. the oriental farm cat
C. chief cells B. bichota
D. cells M C. guatauba
43. Stimulates gastric acid secretion and mu- D. Candy perreo
cous growth
48. no need
A. Secretina
A. can not
B. gastrin
B. do not like
C. motilin
C. no need
D. cholecystokinin
D. none of above
44. It is characterized by the accumulation of 49. Which of the following statements is
serous fluids in the peritoneal cavity. true?
A. Paracentesis A. The function of the liver/liver is to me-
B. dehydration tabolize fats, proteins and carbohydrates
C. ascites B. The function of the pancreas is to pro-
duce bilirubin
D. dyspepsia
C. In the stomach there are normal flora
45. What does the ileocecal valve do? bacteria E. coli
A. Generates segmentation contractions. D. Most water absorption is in the je-
jenum
B. It restricts the reflux of colonic con-
tents and especially the large number 50. The type of good bacteria that helps the
of commensal bacteria into the relatively process of decomposing food scraps in the
sterile ileum. large intestine is
C. Segmentation contractions, which A. Escherichia coli
shift chyme from one side to the other
and increase its contact with the mucosal B. Entamoeba coli
surface. C. Streptococcus infantarius coli
D. none of above D. Campylobacter coli

51. lately 57. Nausea

A. Today A. diarrhea

B. tomorrow B. loya
C. lately C. Appetite
52. What is the main function of the digestive 58. Stool that has been formed will be col-
tract? lected temporarily at
A. Absorption A. rectum
B. Secretion B. sigmoid colon
C. Excretion C. anus
D. Protection D. the blind
53. Choose (more than one) what growth me- 59. From which embryonic layer does the prim-
dia can be used for Enterobacteriacea bac- itive intestine derive?
teria culture?
A. ectoderm
A. Mac Conkey
B. mesoderm
B. endo agar
C. neural crests
C. Agar Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
D. endoderm
D. Blood agar
60. What is the organ that produces bile?
54. Do you have constipation?
A. Pancreas
A. Anda ada sembelit?
B. Anda ada masalah makan? B. Gallbladder
C. Anda ada cirit-birit? C. Liver
55. Regulates intestinal motility in periods of 61. What are the different parts of the small
fasting between meals: intestine?
A. motilin A. duodenum, hilum and jejunum

B. gastrin B. jejunum, duodenum and cecum
C. cholecystokinin C. duodenum, jejunum
D. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide D. jejunum, duodenum and ileum
56. Where is the pharynx located? 62. Which of the following treats flatulence?
A. behind the nostrils A. Bismuth subsalicylate
B. ahead of the spine B. Simethicone
C. All C. Loperamide
D. None D. Famotidine

63. WHEN DOES THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM BE- meal stimulates the release of several gas-
GIN TO FORM? trointestinal hormones. The presence of
A. THIRD WEEK fat, carbohydrate, or protein in the duo-
denum stimulates the release of which of
B. FOURTH WEEK the following hormones from the duodenal
C. FIFTH WEEK mucosa?
D. 14 DIAS A. Cholecytokinin (CCK)
B. Glucose-dependent insulinotropic pep-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. How much?
tide (GIP)
A. How long is there blood in stool?
C. Gastrin
B. How can you get a stomach ache?
D. Secretin
C. How much poop when pooping?
E. Motilin
D. none of above
65. What parts is the pharynx divided into? 69. The ingestion process is carried out in:
A. Nanopharynx, mesopharynx and A. Mouth

amenopharynx B. Stomach
B. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryn- C. Small intestine
gopharynx
D. Large intestine.
C. Hypopharynx, mesopharynx and mu-
cosopharynx 70. pants are loose
D. Orthopharynx, nasopharynx and hy- A. seluar longgar
popharynx
B. tali pinggang
66. Which is not a function of the pancreas?
C. baju longgar
A. Production of the hormone insulin
D. none of above
B. Production of pancreatic juice to neu-
tralize food 71. wear belt
C. Production of enzymes to digest food A. wear a belt
D. Produces bilirubin for stool staining B. wear a bra
67. What happens to the large intestine during C. wear shoes
the process of digesting food is
D. none of above
A. kill germs that come in with food
B. absorption of water and decomposi- 72. Which of the following is a “stool soft-
tion of food remains ener”?
C. carbohydrate and fat digestion A. Senna

D. dissolving water-soluble vitamins B. Docusate
C. Omeprazole
68. A 10-year old boy consumes a cheese-
burger, fries, and chocolate shake. The D. Psyllium

73. Dicyclomine (Bentyl) helps patients with wall induces localized concentric contrac-
tions spaced at intervals along the length
of the intestine, how long does it take?

A. Constipation
A. less than 1 minute
B. Ulcerative colitis
B. 1 minute
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
C. from 1 to 5 mountainous
D. None are correct
D. 15 to 30 minutes
74. Auscultation of the abdomen should be
done because we want to see if there is 79. Most of the digestion takes place in:
presence of: A. Mouth.
A. hydro-air noises B. Stomach.
B. abdominal murmurs C. Small intestine.
C. rubs D. The large intestine.
D. venous murmur 80. Mobility layer of the stomach wall
E. all are correct A. Mucosa
B. Submucos
75. Types of stool
C. fluffy
A. berat badan
D. Muscular
B. bila berak
C. Jenis tahi 81. Protein digestion is catalyzed by the en-
zyme:
D. none of above
A. lactase.
76. Cell metabolism: Set of reactions of an B. It feels like it.
organism that aims to produce for the
C. Pepsin.
functioning of cells.
D. Lipase.
A. chemistry molecules
B. physics energy 82. The movements that occur in the digestive
tract are known as:
C. mechanics energy
A. Of mix.
D. chemicals energy
B. Of segmentation.
77. An important treatment target for is C. Of transport.
the chemoreceptor trigger zone. D. All of the above.
A. Nausea and vomiting
83. Parts of the small intestine after the duo-
B. Inflammatory bowel disease denum is known as
C. PUD A. Jejunum
D. IBS B. Lipase duodenum
78. When chyme penetrates a portion of the C. Amylase duodenum

small intestine, distension of the intestinal D. Lipase ileum

84. The oral route does not require unusual 89. In this area of the stomach adaptive relax-
aseptic processes ation occurs:
A. False A. medial portion
B. TRUE B. proximal portion
C. Who knows C. distal portion
D. I don’t think D. none of above
90. Do you have pain in tummy?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
85. One of the following genera of the Enter-
obacteriaceae family is a frequent cause of A. Anda ada sakit tekak?
diarrheal stools with the presence of mu- B. Anda ada sakit perut?
cus and blood:
C. Anda ada sakit kaki?
A. Citrobacter
D. none of above
B. Enterobacter
91. The neurotransmitter that participates in
C. Shigella the parasympathetic fibers is:
D. none of above A. dopamine
86. Movement of annular contraction that oc- B. norepinephrine

curs in the walls of a tubular organ: C. serotonin
A. Antiperistalsis D. acetylcholine
B. Motility 92. what will happen when glucose concentra-
C. peristalsis tion in your blood getting high?
D. Bags A. Beta cell secrete glucagon and make

you high
87. It has a stratified keratinized epithelium B. Beta cell secrete insulin and promotes
and in some parakeratinized regions it cor- movement of glucose into certain cells
responds to:
C. alpha cell secrete glucagon and help
A. oral cavity lining your blood circulation
B. esophageal cavity lining D. alpha cell secrete insulin and give you
energy
C. none
D. none of above 93. Lipase hydrolyzes in fat, this begins with:
A. bile and pancreatic juice
88. What is esophagus?
B. The pancreas
A. none
C. The bile
B. It is a muscular sciphil tube that con-
D. saliva
nects the pharynx to the stomach.
C. It is a cylindrical, muscular tube lined 94. The migratory motor complexes are initi-
with mucosa that connects the pharynx ated by:
with the stomach. A. digestion periods.
D. all B. To motilin.

C. gastric secretion. 100. The chronic carrier of Salmonella typhi

D. The bile juice. usually harbors the bacteria in:

A. rectal crypts
95. Which of the following bacteria causes
food poisoning related to foods with high B. Sangre
amounts of salt? C. Gallbladder
A. S.aureus D. none of above
B. It’s hard 101. In laboratory examination of food sam-
C. S.pyogenes ples, the results were: Gram negative
D. none of above staining of rods, culture on Mac Conkey
media obtained pink colonies, biochemical
96. Portions of the Digestive system are the tests of lactose fermentation (-) glucose
following, except (+), Citrate (+), SIM motility (+) sulfur
A. Oral Cavity (+), TSIA H2S (+). The most appropriate
conclusion from the identification results is
B. Stomach
C. Pharynx
A. Salmonella typhi
D. Septum
B. Escherichia coli
97. When? C. Shigella dysentery
A. Why stomach ache? D. Staphylococcus aureus
B. When did the pain start? 102. The teeth that work to tear food are
C. Where is the colic? .
D. none of above A. seri
98. Which of the following gastrointestinal B. tight
reflexes controls digestive secretion and C. premolars
peristalsis? D. back molars
A. Reflexes that go from the intestine to
the spinal cord 103. Two autoimmune disorders are:
B. Reflexes that go from the intestine to A. Diarrhea and constipation
the sympathetic ganglia B. Ulcerative colitis and irritable bowel
C. Reflections integrated within the s. syndrome
gut nerve C. Irritable bowel syndrome and diarrhea
D. None of the above D. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
99. At the level of the esophagus, how many 104. Storage of large amounts of food Mixing
peristaltic waves can be generated to of food Slow emptying of chyme. They are
empty this organ of food content? motor functions of:
A. 3 A. Small intestine
B. 5 B. Large intestine
C. 1 C. Esophagus
D. 2 D. Stomach

105. Large mucosal folds formed when the C. sigmoid

stomach is empty are called D. ileum
A. the rugae
111. Only is a proton pump inhibitor.
B. the fundus
A. Ranitidine
C. the muscularis layer
B. Omeprazole
D. the pyloric sphincter
C. Sucralfate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
106. Where does peristalsis take place? D. Aluminum hydroxide
A. Esophagus
112. What is GERD?
B. Stomach
A. stomach acid flows back into esopha-
C. Pharynx gus
D. none of above B. hard stool
107. What are types of receptors available in C. chronic inflammation of digestive tract
GIT D. group of symptoms that affect the
A. Mechanoreceptor large intestine
B. Osmoreceptor 113. Let me know if it hurts?

C. Chemoreceptor A. Beritahu jika tekak sakit?
D. All of the above B. Boleh saya tepuk perut anda?
C. Beritahu kalau sakit?
108. Which statements are correct?
D. none of above
A. Submucosal plexus stimulates circular
and longitudinal muscle 114. The inflammation of the lining of the
B. Myenteric plexus stimulates circular stomach is called
and longitudinal muscle A. gastritis
C. Submucosal plexus stimulates villi B. Crohn’s disease
movement C. celiac disease
D. Myenteric plexus stimulates villi move- D. mucositis
ment
115. Which part of the small intestine joins the
109. Within the stomach lining, cells se- large intestine?
crete pepsinogen.
A. Ileum
A. chief
B. Duodenum
B. goblet
C. Jejunum
C. principal
D. none of above
D. argentaffin
116. Swollen veins in lower rectum is symp-
110. The last section of the large intestine tom of which disease?
A. cecum A. peptic ulcer
B. rectum B. celiac disease

C. hemorrhoids A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)

D. Crohn’s disease B. Gastrin

117. food poisoning C. Glucose Dependent Insulinotorphic
Peptide (GIP)
A. perut berkeroncong
D. Secretin
B. makanan tersangkut
122. What color is your stool?
C. keracunan makanan
A. Berapa lama tahi ada darah?
D. none of above
B. Apa warna tahi?
118. What are the segment-specific types of
C. Bahagian mana perut sakit?
motility?
D. none of above
A. Mouth and esophagus, chewing, swal-
lowing and lower esophageal sphincter. 123. Digestion begins at:
B. Mouth and esophagus, chewing, swal- A. Stomach
lowing, lower esophageal sphincter,
B. Mouth
aerophagia and intestinal gas, gastric
emptying. C. Small intestine
C. Chewing, swallowing, lower D. Esophagus
esophageal sphincter, aerophagia and in-
124. because of
testinal gas.
A. jika
D. Mouth and esophagus, chewing, swal-
lowing, lower esophageal sphincter, B. kalau
aerophagia and intestinal gas. C. pasal / kerana
119. The gastrointestinal hormone that stimu- D. none of above
lates the secretion of hydrochloric acid by
125. Surgical removal of the appendix
parietal cells is:
A. hernioplasty
A. cholecystokinin.
B. appendicitis
B. The secretin.
C. appendectomy
C. Pancreozymine.
D. hysterectomy
D. The gastrin.
126. Do you have blood in the stool?
120. Color of the stool
A. Anda ada darah dalam kencing?
A. Warna tahi
B. Anda ada darah dalam tahi?
B. Jenis tahi
C. Anda ada selera makan?
C. Berak berair
D. none of above
D. none of above
127. Gastrin family of hormones are (select
121. Which of the following hormones is re- more than one question)
leased by the presence of fat and protein
in the small intestine and has major effect A. Gastrin
to decrease gastric emptying? B. CCK

C. Secretin 133. The movement of the esophagus so that

food enters the stomach is called
D. glucagon
A. spontaneous
128. What are the effectors after getting stim- B. relaxation
ulates by hormones?
C. peristaltic
A. Muscle in the GIt walls
D. contraction
B. secretion of the exocrine glands
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both of the above 134. Upper/ lower part of the abdomen
D. None of the above A. lelangit atas/ bawah

B. Abdomen atas/ bawah
129. Which enzymes does the pancreas pump
C. sakit perut
out? (3 answers)
D. none of above
A. Amylase
B. Protease 135. What happens in the small intestine?
C. Lipase A. The food is stored; mixed with acid,

mucus, and pepsin, and released at a con-
D. Bile stant and balanced rate into the duode-
num.
130. Time it takes for a material to move from
one place to the next in the digestive tract: B. The fundus and upper portion of the
gastric body relax to accommodate food.
A. interdigestive time
C. The intestinal contents are mixed with
B. Transit time the secretions of the mucosal cells and
C. intradigestive time with the pancreatic juice and bile.
136. This reflex helps to intensify the peristal-

131. Which one inhibit the acid secretion
sis of the ileum and forces the chyme to
A. Gastrin cross the ileocecal valve to reach the ce-
B. Histamine cum.
A. gastrocolic reflex
C. Acetylcholine
B. gastroileal reflex
D. Somatostatin
C. mass reflex
132. At what weeks of gestation does the mi- D. Reflejo vagovagal
gration failure of neural crest cells that
causes hirshprung’s disease occur? 137. hard stool
A. 9 y10 SDGs A. color together
B. 3 and 4 SDGs B. some keras
C. 5 and 7 SDGs C. type of stool
D. I don’t remember anymore compa D. none of above

138. to make stomach full C. that one

A. lapar D. fasting

B. perut berkeroncong 144. Occurs in the distal stomach:
C. kenyangkan perut A. motilin
D. none of above B. gastrin
139. It is passedthrough the ingestion of food C. cholecystokinin
and waterthat has been contaminated and- D. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
transmitted by individual who handlefood
with unwashed hands. 145. What does the vomit start with?
A. Cholera A. With the feeling of nausea.
B. Dysentery B. With the sialorrhea and the feeling of
C. Diarrhea nausea.
D. Mental Block C. By withholding food.
D. none of above
140. Watery stool
A. darah dalam tahi 146. Do you have diarrhoea?
B. warna tahi A. Anda ada sembelit?
C. Tahi berair B. Anda ada sakit perut?
D. none of above C. Anda ada cirit-birit?
D. none of above
141. What are the stimuli for GIT hormones
secretion (select more than one answer) 147. The cystic point is for people with:
A. Distension A. diverticulitis
B. Chyme Osmolarity B. appendicitis
C. Chyme acidity C. cholecystitis
D. Chyme concentration D. None of the above
142. This reflex occurs 15 to 30 minutes after 148. “Friendly” Bacteria are known as:
breakfast and is carried out by the myen-
A. Fibras
teric plexus. Ignoring this reflex is a cause
of constipation. B. prebiotics
A. gastrocolic reflex C. only bacteria
B. ileocolic reflex D. probiotics
C. Reflejo vagovagal 149. What percentage of fluids does the colon
D. mass reflex absorb?
143. The process of absorption of water in the A. 90%

digestive tract of food occurs in B. 45%
A. colon C. 60%
B. rectum D. 25%

150. Gastrin is secreted at D. none of above

A. Buccal cavity 156. Name secretions released by parietal
B. Esophagus cells when food bolus reach your stomach.
C. Intestine A. Pepsinogen
D. Stomach B. Intrinsic factor
151. Time it takes for chyme to travel from the C. Acid hydrochloric
pylorus to the ileocecal valve
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Secretin
A. 3 a 5 hrs
157. What are the stimulus for gastrin secre-
B. 5 a 7 hrs tion?
C. 1 a 2 hrs A. peptide and amino acid
D. 30 minutes B. distension
152. What type of food reaches the large in- C. both of the above
testine the most? D. none of the above
A. Proteins
158. What is peristalsis?
B. electrolytes and water
A. When a food is present in the intestine,
C. Fiber the intestinal nervous system promotes a
D. sodium and water type of motility.
153. Rectal bleeding B. It is a reflex response triggered by af-
ferent impulses from the trigeminal, glos-
A. Darah dalam kencing sopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.
B. berak berair C. It is a reflex response that begins
C. Darah dalam berak when the intestinal wall is stretched by
D. none of above the luminal contents, and it occurs in all
segments of the digestive tract from the
154. One of the following is NOT part of the esophagus to the rectum.
digestive system
D. none of above
A. Pharynx
159. What is the breathing function of the na-
B. Larynx
sopharynx?
C. Esophagus
A. The breathing
B. Middle ear ventilation function
155. Semiological steps when checking ab- C. breathing and ear function
domen:
D. Breathing and ventilation of the middle
A. Inspection, palpation, auscultation, ear
percussion
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion 160. which one is conserved amino acid in gas-
and palpation trin and CCK?
C. Inspection, percussion, auscultation, A. Pentagastrin

palpation B. Octagastrin

C. Heptagastrin C. mid primitive intestine

D. trigastrin D. all are correct

161. Which of the following is not part of the 166. The first-pass effect involves the
small intestine is A. Heart
A. rectum B. Liver
B. duodenum C. Kidney
C. fasting D. Large intestine
D. ileum
167. Region where chyme enters the small in-
162. Clinical experiment is conducted in which testine is known as
one group of subjects is given 50g of glu- A. colon
cose intravenously and another group is
given 50 g of glucose orally. Which of the B. ileum
following factors can explain why the oral C. jejunum
glucose load is cleared from the blood at
D. duodenum
a faster rate compared to the intravenous
glucose load? 168. The anatomical division of the large intes-
A. CCK-induced insulin release tine
B. CCK-induced VIP release A. right hemicolon and left hemicolon
C. GIP-induced glucagon release B. colon and rectum
D. GIP-induced insulin release C. ascending colon, transverse colon, de-
scending colon, pelvic ileus colon, and rec-
163. Which of the following tests is useful in tum
making the diagnosis of shigellosis?
D. all
A. blood culture
E. none
B. Rotaphoresis
169. hungry
C. Coprocultivo
A. full
D. none of above
B. pain
164. Which of the following agents causes liq-
C. hungry
uid diarrhea or also known as (rice wa-
ter)? D. none of above
A. V.cholerae 170. The gastrointestinal hormones have
B. H.pylori physiological effects that can be elicited
at normal concentrations as well as phar-
C. E. coli
macological effect that require higher than
D. none of above normal concentrations. Which of the fol-
lowing hormone will have the direct phys-
165. The primitive intestine is divided into iological affect to stimulate gastric acid
A. primitive intestine secretion?
B. posterior primitive gut A. Gastrin

B. Secretin B. voluntary swallowing phase

C. Cholecystokinin (CCK) C. gastric phase of swallowing
D. Motilin D. epithelial phase of swallowing
171. What is the sphincter of the common bile 176. food stuck on the throat
duct called?
A. makanan tersangkut
A. Off
B. makanan tersangkut di tekak
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. bile ducts
C. tercekik makanan
C. cystic duct
D. none of above
D. none
177. A 53-year-old male patient presented
172. Helicobacter pylori is commonly present with bloody diarrhea, mucus, straining,
in and tenesmus; in the middle S.S. there is
A. Peptic ulcer disease growth of colonies of transparent color He
B. Crohn disease mentions the etiological agent:
C. Ulcerative colitis A. Salmonella enteritidis
D. GERD B. Escherichia coli
C. Shigella dysentery
173. What is/are the phase of GI control?
D. none of above
A. Cephalic
B. Gastric 178. A 75-year-old man presents with acute-
C. Intestinal onset symptoms consisting of severe ab-
dominal cramps. Throughout the morn-
D. All of the above ing he presents with watery diarrhea
174. Which one of the following parts of with bowel movements every 15-30 min,
the GI tract has the following character- initially with small amounts of visible
istics:simple columnar epithelium, muscu- blood. Later, the diarrhea shows signif-
laris mucosa, Meissner’s plexus, two lay- icant amounts of blood. The patient has
ers of smooth muscle in the tunica mus- nausea but no vomiting. Concerned about
cularis and Peyer’s patches of lymph nod- his illness and his age, his son takes him to
ules? the hospital emergency room. Among the
most recent eating history is the fact of
A. duodenum having eaten a hamburger in a barbecue-
B. jejunum type restaurant 2 days before. The pa-
C. ileum tient remembers that the meat had a pink
color. He also points out that his adoles-
D. colon cent grandson ate at the same restaurant
175. phase, when the food bolus penetrates and presented a similar disease, but with
the back of the mouth and pharyngeal mild symptoms. Physical examination-The
area, it stimulates the epithelial areas of stool shows gross blood. What agent do
swallowing you suspect?
A. involuntary pharyngeal phase of swal- A. Shigella

lowing B. E. coli

C. Salmonella 184. The greatest motility presented in the

D. none of above gastrointestinal tract is found in:

A. Jejunum.
179. During primary peristalsis, how long
does it take for the wave to travel from B. Duodenum.
the pharynx to the stomach? C. Ileum.
A. 8 a 10 s D. Descending colon.
B. 15 a 20 s
185. In which section of the pharynx are the
C. 1 minute
palatine tonsils located?
D. 5s
A. nasopharynx
180. What is the phase called, when the food B. Mesopharynx
is ready to be swallowed, the upward and
backward pressure of the tongue against C. oropharynx
the palate drags or moves it <voluntarily> D. Hipofaringe
posteriorly?
186. Which of the following make up the up-
A. voluntary swallowing phase
per part of the digestive system? Select
B. pharyngeal phase of swallowing all that apply.
C. gastric phase of swallowing A. mouth
D. voluntary phase of propulsion B. small intestine
181. Which of the following is not a symp- C. esophagus
tom?
D. stomach
A. Diarrhea
B. Emesis 187. Which digestive organ functions to pro-
duce acid to kill germs that enter with
C. Auscultation food?
D. seborrheic A. mouth
182. In the gastrointestinal system, the pres- B. stomach
ence of bile favors the
C. small intestine
A. Distribution
D. colon
B. Elimination
C. Release 188. This reflex starts from the stomach to-
wards the brainstem and returns to the
D. Absorption stomach to reduce the tone of the muscle
183. Where is gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) wall, which is distended to accumulate pro-
released? gressive amounts of food.
A. Upper part of the small intestine A. gastrocolic reflex
B. oral portion of stomach B. ileocolic reflex
C. caudal portion of stomach C. mass reflex
D. distal portion of the esophagus D. Reflejo vagovagal

189. Muscular organ that churns and mashes C. 5

food into chyme
D. 4
A. Saliva
B. Tonuge 194. Do you have problem swallowing?
C. Esophagus A. Anda ada masalah sembelit?

D. Stomach B. Anda ada masalah cirit-birit?
C. Anda ada masalah telan?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
190. You are tracing a drop of blood from the
blood capillary network in the small intes- D. none of above
tine to the inferior vena cava. The path-
way is 195. bowel frequency
A. hepatic vein → sinusoid → central A. berapa kali buang air besar?
vein → hepatic portal vein → inferior
vena cava. B. berapa kali kencing?
B. hepatic portal vein → sinusoid → in- C. bila sakit mula?

ferior vena cava. D. none of above
C. hepatic portal vein → sinusoid → cen-
tral vein → hepatic vein → inferior vena 196. Peak frequency of small bowel segmen-
cava tation concentrations
D. hepatic portal vein → hepatic vein → A. 12 per minute
sinusoid → central vein → inferior vena B. 1 per minute
cava
C. from 3 to 5 per world
191. The makes bile and the stores it.
D. 8 to 9 per minute
A. Gallbladder; liver
B. Liver; gallbladder 197. About chewing, how do digestive en-
zymes work?
C. Gallbladder; pancreas
A. They act on the surfaces of food parti-
D. Liver; pancreas
cles
192. What digestive enzyme that is found in B. They act on the surfaces of the stom-
the stomach and begins the digestion of ach walls.
proteins?
C. They act on the gastric juice
A. Amylase
D. none of above
B. Pepsin
C. Lipase 198. The media used to count the number of all
D. Rennin growing bacterial colonies is
A. PCA agar
193. How many segment-specific types of
motility are there? B. endo agar
A. 7 C. In order to Mac Conkey
B. 6 D. EMB agar

199. Plexus that initiates peristaltic waves C. In chemical esophagitis, necrosis and
from the descending colon, sigmoid colon, marked edema are observed only in the
and rectum and propels feces toward the esophageal mucosa.

anus D. As consequences of traumatic/obstructive
A. Auerbach’s myenteric plexus esophagitis, there is rumen tympanism
B. gastrointestinal plexus and phytobezoars.
C. sacral plexus 204. Which of the following is a pathogenic

factor in the genus Shigella?
D. none of above
A. Hemolysin
200. This defecation reflex is strong; The sig-
B. coagulase
nals come from the bone marrow and the
entire autonomic nervous system and the C. Cytotoxin
sum of other organs such as: The descent D. none of above
of the diaphragm through deep inspiration
Closing the epiglottis Contraction of ab- 205. Gastrin stimulates the secretion of
dominal muscles The descent of the pelvic A. Acid
floor
B. carboxypeptidase
A. Reflejo vagovagal C. trypsin
B. mysteric reflex D. chymotrypsin
C. gastrocolic reflex
206. What is the name of disease in which in-
D. reflex of parasympathetic fibers testine is chronically inflamed?
201. Which of the following manages vertigo A. peptic ulcer
or dizziness? B. celiac disease
A. Pepto-Bismol C. hemorrhoids
B. Meclizine D. Crohn’s disease
C. Docusate sodium
207. Gastrointestinal diseases refer to dis-
D. Esomeprazole eases involving which of the following or-
gans?
202. The pancreatic juice, produced by acinar
cells, is secreted into the A. esophagus
A. stomach B. intestine
C. liver
B. duodenum
D. mouth
C. jejunum
E. muscles
D. ileum
208. The inguinal ligament is formed from the
203. Regarding esophagitis:
A. external oblique aponeurosis
A. There is only one type and it is called
reflux esophagitis. B. internal oblique aponeurosis
B. Among the etiologies, it can occur in a C. Scarpa’s fascia

traumatic way, due to Spirocerca lupi. D. transversalis abdominis fascia

209. How many parts is the esophagus divided C. In the gastric mucosa in response to
into? the arrival of the bolus and the mixture
A. 2 D. none of above
B. 4 215. Can I feel your tummy?
C. 3 A. Boleh saya rasa perut anda?
D. 5 B. Boleh saya tepuk perut anda?
210. Drugs when they are in solution form will
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Boleh saya rasa muka anda?
be absorbed mainly by D. none of above
A. passive diffusion
216. It is called a food bolus
B. Active transport
A. Food that is broken down in the stom-
C. All of the above
ach
D. none of the above
B. The food that is unfolded in the mouth
211. In which disease the body’s immune sys- C. Food that is broken down in the duode-
tem attacks the gastrointestinal tract, pos- num
sibly targeting microbial antigens?
D. none of above
A. peptic ulcer
217. Where is the swallowing center located?
B. celiac disease
A. Bulb and lower pons areas
C. hemorrhoids
B. median eminence
D. Crohn’s disease
C. Hypothalamo-pituitary
212. Which of the following is the most fre-
D. spinal bulb and hypothalamus
quent location of Escherichia coli as a cause
of infection, after the intestine? 218. Which of the following statement about
A. Respiratory tract Gastrointestinal hormone is true? (you
can choose more than one answers)
B. Sistema cardiovascular
A. Gastrin is released as a result of stom-
C. Urinary tract
ach distension and vagal stimulation.
D. none of above
B. Secretin stimulates the pancreatic aci-
213. which statement is/are correct? nar cells to secrete enzymes.
A. Acetylcholine act by cAMP pathway C. Secretin causes excessive gastric se-
B. Gastrin act by cAMP pathway cretion and accelerates gastric emptying.
C. Hitamine act by PIP2 pathway D. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide induces

gastric acid secretion
D. Histamine act by cAMP pathway
219. This enzyme digests fats (lipids)
214. Where is secretin released?
A. Protease
A. In the duodenal mucosa in response to
the arrival of gastric acid B. Carbohydrase
B. In the esophageal mucosa in response C. Lipase

to the arrival of a food bolus D. Bile

220. Who makes up phase 2 of the MMC? C. interstitial cells of Cajal

A. period of irregular electrical and me- D. none of above

chanical activity
B. inactivity period 226. What is the acid in the stomach?
C. download regular activity A. HCl
D. basal intrinsic activity B. H2SO4
221. The first place where protein breaks C. H+
down is:
D. H2O
A. Mouth
B. Stomach 227. Gastrointestinal Agents are
C. Large intestine A. Inorganic agents
D. Small intestine B. Organic Agents
222. Contains amylase (breaks down starch) C. Both
and lingual lipase (breaks down fat),
D. none of above
water, salts, lysozyme (bactericide) and
mucin (lubricant).
228. Feces are formed due to:
A. Saliva
A. Excess feeding.
B. substance P
C. gastric acids B. Malfunction of prebiotics.
D. none of above C. The part of fibers that were not fer-

mented.
223. Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous
colitis is associated with: D. water absorption
A. Nosocomial-type outbreaks 229. Movements carried out in the ascending

B. Inappropriate use of antibiotics portion and consists of the contraction of
C. block the respiratory chain the longitudinal muscle and with it gives
you the result of the haustras
D. none of above
A. Mov. mix
224. slow waves of smooth muscle cells of the
small intestine are: B. mov. massa
A. tonic contractions C. Mov. of propulsion

B. physical contractions D. Mov. gastric emptying
C. resting membrane potential oscilla-
tions 230. Have you lost weight?
D. none A. Boleh saya rasa perut?
225. Slow waves originate from: B. Ada hilang berat badan?
A. enterocytes C. Ada masalah telan?

B. postganglionic cells D. none of above

231. Fat-filled peritoneal processes through- 237. Examples of diseases of the gastroin-
out the large intestine are called testinal system that affect cattle, horses
A. vermiform appendages and carnivores respectively are:
B. haustras A. Paratuberculosis, Brucellosis and FIP;
C. lieberkuhn valves B. Rodococose, DVB e Parvovirose
D. omental appendages
C. DVB, Paratuberculosis and PIF
E. none
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. DVB, Rodococose e PIF
232. In a microscope, health personnel report
that the agent they observe has the shape 238. Regarding intussusception, an intestinal
of a seagull or a comma. Which agent does obstruction where the intestinal segment
this characteristic belong to? penetrates the immediately distal portion
A. C.jejuni of the organ, we can say that:
B. E. coli A. It is associated with hypomotility, due
C. S. typhi to enteritis or parasites
D. none of above B. Among the possible etiologies is the
233. stomach rumbling presence of the Strongylus vulgaris para-
site, common in horses.
A. sakit perut
B. perut berkeroncong C. Among the lesions observed, there is
a white coloration and absence of hemor-
C. kenyangkan perut rhage.
D. none of above
D. In intussusception, the thinner intesti-
234. How is your appetite? nal walls are observed
A. Ada hilang berat badan?
239. It acts as an inhibitor and blocks the po-
B. Ada selera makan?
tentiation of gastric motility produced by
C. Ada selera minum? gastrin.
D. none of above
A. cholecystokinin
235. Enzyme responsible for formation of acid
B. HCL
by combining water and carbon di oxide
A. Amylase C. Pepsinogen
B. galactosidase D. saliva
C. carbonic anhydrase
240. The primary gastrointestinal system func-
D. peptidyl transferase
tions include all of the following except:
236. Constipation
A. Digestion
A. cirit-belit
B. Absorption
B. selera makan
C. sembelit C. Secretion
D. none of above D. All are GI functions

241. The activity of Escherichia coli endotoxin the small animal clinic, obtaining the fol-
lies in: lowing characteristics, except:

A. muramic acid A. Cerebellar hypoplasia in newborn cats
B. Antigen Vy B. Dehydration, depression and vomiting
C. lipid A C. They are associated with important
bacteria of the Parvoviridae family
D. none of above
D. Immunosuppression and lymphoid
242. Why? necrosis
A. Where is the stomach ache? 246. Can you show me where it hurts?
B. When stomach ache? A. Boleh saya rasa perut anda?
C. Why stomach ache? B. Di mana sakit perut?
D. none of above C. Boleh tunjuk mana sakit?
243. A 20-year-old male is transferred to D. none of above

the emergency department, because he 247. Not a factor affecting drug absorption
presents symptoms of intense abdominal
cramps and diarrhea. He points to pain A. Foods
in the abdomen and refers to having eight B. Physical activity
bowel movements with blood-stained fe- C. blood pH
ces. An important piece of information to
highlight is that for a day and a half he had D. gastrointestinal transit
eaten mixed salad and barbecue chicken 248. The large intestine is capable of:
in a restaurant, he says that other people
who went to the restaurant with him also A. Transport 1 liter of fluid every two days
presented similar symptoms. Which agent B. Transport 1 liters of fluid daily
do you suspect? C. Transports 1/2 liter of fluid daily
A. Clostridioides difficile D. Transports 2 liters of fluid daily
B. enteric salmonella
249. What initiates distension of the rectum
C. Campylobacter spp. by stool?
D. none of above A. Reflected contractions of his muscles
and the desire to defecate.
244. It is a condition of unusualfrequent and
liquid bowel movement. B. The desire to defecate.
A. Diarrhea C. parasympathetic innervation

D. none of above
B. Cholera
C. Dysentery 250. vomiting
D. Brain Damage A. throws up
B. diarrhea
245. Among the diseases of domestic carni-
vores, parvovirus in dogs and feline pan- C. constipation
leukopenia are two important diseases in D. none of above

251. Choose which is the movement that char- 256. In which section of the GI tract do the
acterizes the large intestine: slow waves have the highest frequency of
A. Segmentation movements. all?
B. Antral systolic contractions. A. small intestine (duodenum)

C. Mild, short-range peristalsis. B. esophagus
D. Haustral contractions. C. stomach
D. transverse colon
NARAYAN CHANGDER
252. Gram-positive, spore-bearing, strict
anaerobic rod that was rarely isolated
257. Biopsies are taken from the antra and
from stool cultures and its role in human
duodenal mucosa of a 65-year-old woman.
disease was unknown. It synthesizes two
which of the following hormones can be
toxins: an enterotoxin (toxin A) and a cy-
found in tissue homogenates from both lo-
totoxic one (toxin B). What bacteria are
cations?
we talking about?
A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
A. Clostridioides difficile
B. Gastrin
B. enteric salmonella
C. Campylobacter spp. C. Motilin
D. none of above D. Secretin
253. Which of the following is OTC? 258. Gastrin function

A. Protonix A. Facilitates gastric emptying
B. AcipHex B. Inhibits gastric emptying
C. Prevacid 24HR C. protein breakdown in the stomach
D. Asacol D. lipid breakdown in the stomach
254. In order for nutrients to be absorbed, 259. Name given to food when mixed with
they must necessarily participate in diges- gastric secretions
tion:
A. qui membrane
A. Bile and pancreatic juice.
B. kilo
B. Gastric juice, bile and pancreatic juice.
C. Gastric juice
C. gastric juice and pancreatic juice
D. none of above
D. Saliva, gastric juice, bile and pancre-
atic juice. 260. It is a simple continuation of the peri-
255. Regarding the rectus sheath, what is an- staltic wave that begins in the pharynx
terior to the rectus muscle above the arcu- and continues towards the esophagus dur-
ate line? Select all the apply. ing the pharyngeal phase of swallowing.
A. External oblique aponeurosis A. primary peristalsis
B. internal oblique aponeurosis B. Secondary peristaltism
C. Transversalis aponeurosis C. voluntary swallowing phase
D. Transversalis fascia D. Pharyngeal phase

261. Very common in horses, intestinal torsion 266. Major tunics of the Digestive system, ex-
and volvulus result from vascular obstruc- cept
tion and severe ischemia, which can lead

A. Radialis
the animal to death. Among these etiolo-
gies, which one is not associated? B. Muscularis
A. Cramps C. Mucosa
B. mesenteric lipomas D. Submucosa
C. Linear foreign bodies 267. What is the main stimulant for HCl secre-
D. dystocia deliveries tion and what is the main inhibitor?
A. Gastrin and somatostatin
262. Regarding gastric torsion/volvulus,
judge the items and mark the correct B. acetylcholine and leptins
one: I-Occurs in large and giant breed C. Histamine and somatostatin
dogs;II-Meals several times a day in
D. none of above
large quantities;III-Intense movement af-
ter meals;IV-Chronic gastric dilation 268. It is an infection of thesmall intestine that
A. I and II. mayresult to severe diarrhea?
B. I, II and III. A. Diarrhea
C. I and III. B. Dysentery
D. All are correct. C. Cholera
D. none of above
263. Where are the α and β cells in the pan-
creas located? 269. Can I tap on your stomach?
A. Islets of Langerhans A. Boleh saya rasa perut anda?
B. Acini B. Boleh saya tepuk perut anda?
C. Ducts C. Boleh saya dengar dada anda?
D. Hepatic cords D. none of above
264. What is the lingual papilla that is present 270. The small intestine does not include the
in a specific place on the tongue?
A. caliciformes A. Duodenum
B. larynx B. Jejunum
C. none C. Colon
D. none of above D. Ileum
265. Metabolism is divided into: 271. The vomiting control center is located:
A. anabolism and catabolism A. hypothalamic
B. Mechanical and physical process B. Brainstem
C. chemical and mechanical process C. Pituitary
D. physical chemical process D. spinal cord

2.7 Respiratory system 388
272. Which of the following statements is true B. Stimulate gastric acid and pepsin se-
about Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide hor- cretion
mones functions? (you can choose more C. Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle
than one answers) including sphincters.
A. It stimulates intestinal secretion of D. It inhibit intestinal secretion of elec-
electrolytes and water trolytes and water.
2.7 Respiratory system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. Which part of the human respiratory sys- B. emphysema
tem is a thin, moist membranous structure C. inhaling
where gas exchange occurs?
D. nasal passage
A. trachea
B. bronchus 6. What does the respiratory system re-
lease?
C. epiglottis
A. oxygen
D. alveolus
B. glucose
2. Why is the left lung slightly smaller than C. carbon dioxide
the right lung?
D. ATP
A. to give space for the heart
7. The alveoli are defined as
B. to breathe easily
A. the primary muscle used in the pro-
C. to give space for the stomach
cess of inspiration. A dome shaped mus-
D. to swallow easily cle.
3. Clusters of tiny air sacs that allow the ex- B. the tube that takes air into the chest,
change of oxygen and carbon dioxide also known as the windpipe.
A. Pharynx C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles,
where gaseous exchange takes place.
B. Diaphragm
D. a type of protein found in every red
C. Alveoli
blood cell.
D. Lungs
8. Define VO2 max
4. Tiny tubes that branch off of bronchi A. The amount of oxygen needed at the
A. capillaries end of a physical activity to break down
B. alveoli any lactic acid.
C. bronchioles B. working at a high intensity level with-
out oxygen for energy production.
D. pluera
C. the volume of oxygen an athlete can
5. a process that allows the body to get oxy- consume while exercising at maximum ca-
gen to burn food for energy and gets rid pacity.
of carbon dioxide D. smaller branches coming off the
A. respiration bronchi.

9. The normal oxygen content of inhaled air C. humidify the air.

is approximately D. All of the choices are true.

A. 0.04%
14. What are the main organs of gas exchange
B. 21%
in the respiratory system?
C. 79%
A. diapragm
D. 100%
B. lungs
10. The respiratory system includes all of the
C. trachea
following structures except for the
D. bronchi
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx 15. The trachea is a part of the respiratory sys-
C. Trachea tem. What can the trachea also be called
and what is its function?
D. Esophagus
A. windpipe, filters the air we breathe
11. A chamber behind the nose and mouth that
B. windpipe, releases air out of the body
leads to the trachea and is part of the di-
gestive system and respiratory system. C. tubes; carries air to the lungs
A. pharynx D. none of above
B. trachea
16. Name 1 Way You Can Take Care of Your
C. epiglottis Respiratory System?
D. larynx A. Eat alot of sugar
12. How do the digestive and respiratory sys- B. Eat healthy
tems work together for the general health C. Be physically Active
of the body?
D. I dont know but im tired
A. The digestive system provides oxygen,
and the respiratory system provides glu- 17. The windpipe is also known as which or-
cose for the cells. gan?
B. The digestive system provides glucose, A. Lung
and the respiratory system provides oxy-
gen for the cells. B. Trachea
C. The digestive system provides carbon C. Alveoli
dioxide, and the respiratory system pro- D. Nose
vides glucose for the cells.
D. The digestive system provides glucose, 18. When you inhale, the respiratory system
and the respiratory system provides car- is working to deliver which gas to the
bon dioxide for the cells. lungs?
A. Oxygen
13. The role of the mucus and and cilia in the
respiratory system is to B. Carbon Dioxide
A. warm the air. C. Both
B. clean the air. D. Neither

19. the tubes that go from the trachea into the 25. When you expire the ribs move
lungs
A. Up and out
A. alveoli
B. Up and in
B. diaphragm
C. Down and out
C. epiglottis
D. Down and in
D. bronchial tubes
20. Trachea system is the respiratory system 26. Gaseous exchange is defined as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of A. amount of air inspired and expired
A. Insects with each normal breath during rest or ex-
ercise.
B. Fish
B. is the greatest amount of air that can
C. Amphibians
be made to pass into and out of the lungs
D. Mammals by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
ration.
21. Respiration is the act of
A. breathing C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
to the bloodstream and the removal of car-
B. death bon dioxide from the tissues.
C. love
D. the movement of air from outside the
D. making sugar body into the cells within tissues.
22. What is the range of pH of the Blood? 27. What type of cells carries oxygen?
A. 7.05-7.25
A. red blood cells
B. 7.25-7.35
B. white blood cells
C. 7.35-7.45
C. neurons
D. 7.45-7.55
D. none of above
23. In the given scenario what will happen?
An egg is placed in pure water for 48 28. This structure is also known as the voice
hours. box?
A. The egg will gain water and swell. A. Trachea
B. Water will move in and out of the cell B. Larynx
equally, and the cell with neither shrink
nor swell. C. Pharynx
C. The egg will lose water and shrink. D. none of above

D. none of above 29. In which part of the cell does photosynthe-
24. This is a passageway for both food and air sis take place?
A. Trachea A. vacuole
B. Pharynx B. mitochondria
C. Larynx C. cell wall
D. Stomach D. chloroplast

30. Which one accurately describes the differ- C. larnyx

ence between respiration and cell respira-
D. pharnyx
tion?

A. respiration produces glucose while E. brochi
cell respiration does not
36. What is the definition of RESIDUAL VOL-
B. cell respiration is a process in cells UME?
where energy is made, while respiration
is breathing A. The volume of air breathed in (or out)
during a normal breath at rest
C. respiration occurs in cells while cell
respiration produces glucose B. The volume of air that remains in the
D. none of the above lungs after a maximal expiration
C. The additional air that can be forcibly
31. Two organs that filter blood cells are called inhaled after the inspiration of a normal
A. Kidneys tidal volume
B. Lungs D. The additional air that can be foribly ex-
C. Heart haled after the expiration of a normal tidal
volume
D. Liver
32. a dome shaped sheet of muscle, the , 37. Which body system helps the respira-
separates the chest from the abdomen tory system distribute oxygen and return
waste carbon dioxide to the lungs to be
A. diaphragm
exhaled?
B. epiglottis
A. integumentary
C. alveoli
B. circulatory
D. bronchial tubes
C. digestive
33. The “windpipe” is known as the
D. skeletal
A. alveoli
B. esophagus 38. Layman’s term of angina
C. trachea A. Chest pain
D. bronchi
B. Palpitation
34. Which of the following delivers oxygen to C. Chest discomfort
cells?
D. I don’t know
A. Red Blood cells
B. White blood cells 39. Which gas is a product of cellular respira-
C. Platelets tion?
D. Plasma A. Oxygen
35. what is the different? B. Carbon Dioxide

A. nose C. Both
B. heart D. Neither

40. The passageway that is shared by both B. It decreases

the digestive and respiratory system is the C. It increases
D. It becomes irregular
A. larynx
B. pharynx 46. Which of the following does NOT happen
during inspiration?
C. trachea
A. diaphragm contracts downward
D. nose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. rib cage expands
41. the small air sacs at the ends of the bronchi C. volume of lungs increases
where actual gas exchange occurs
D. rib cage contracts
A. alveoli
B. breathing 47. a system that moves oxygen from the out-
side environment into the body
C. cartilage
A. involuntary
D. cell
B. respiratory
E. homeostasis
C. skeletal
42. During inspiration D. skin
A. Air moves out of our lungs E. voluntary
B. The diaphragm contracts
48. Which is NOT a function of the cardiovas-
C. Our lungs contract cular system?
D. Volume in the thoracic cavity increases A. produce energy
43. The largest organ(s) in the respiratory sys- B. transport oxygen
tem are C. remove waste products
A. Nasal Cavity D. none of above
B. Lungs
49. Which part of the Respiratory System
C. Bronchi plays a major role in speech? Also known
D. Larynx as the voice box.
A. nose
44. No one knows the cause or function, but
there are lots of hypothesis B. pharynx
A. cough C. larynx
B. sneeze D. trachea
C. hiccup 50. Which of these is not a function of the Res-

D. yawn piratory System?
A. Diffuses oxygen into the blood stream
45. What happens to the respiratory rate
when a person engages in physical activ- B. Removes C02
ity? C. Ventilation
A. It stays the same D. regulate body temperature

51. Location of gas exchange 57. Which portion of the larynx is responsible
A. alveoli for keeping the airway open?

B. myocardium A. vocal cords
C. raveoli B. cartilage
D. pulmonary vent C. epiglottis

D. none of above
52. For the proper diffusion of gases into and
out of animals it is necessary that the body 58. A capillary is a form of
walls, gills or lungs A. Gas exchange
A. be moist B. Respiration
B. have a blood circulatory system C. Blood vessel
C. be very small D. Alveoli
D. have many partitions
59. What are the names of the air sacs in the
53. Oxygen + haemoglobin =? lungs where gas exchange takes place?
A. oxygenated haemoglobin A. Alveoli
B. oxyhaemoglobin B. Bronchi
C. haemoglobin C. Bronchioles
D. oxygenglobin D. Intercostal muscles
54. How many breaths we take in one 60. What is the long tube that is also called
minute? the windpipe
A. 18-20 A. Bronchus
B. 10-12 B. Alveoli
C. 14-16 C. Trachea
D. none of above D. Mouth
55. Which system shares the pharynx with the 61. is a flap of tissue that covers the air
respiratory system? passage when we swallow.
A. circulatory A. Tongue
B. digestive B. Earlobe
C. excretory C. Epiglottis
D. skeletal D. Eyelid
56. What is another name for the air sacs lo- 62. What are the most common diseases of the
cated at the end of the bronchioles? upper respiratory system?
A. Pleura A. Cold
B. Alveoli B. Bronchitis
C. Bronchi C. Pneumonia

63. Which are the main organs in the respira- 69. Organs of the respiratory system that
tory system? bring oxygen-rich air into the body and
A. Heart send oxygen-poor air out of the body.
B. Stomach A. heart
C. Lungs B. muscles
D. Nose C. lungs
D. bones
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. Which is NOT a function of the RS?
A. it warms the air 70. How does the air sac inside the grasshop-
per assist them to breathe?
B. it exchanges O2 and CO2
A. Decrease the rate of exchange of res-
C. It pumps blood to the organs
piratory gases between tissues and the
D. it creates sound through the larynx surroundings
65. Your moves food from your mouth to B. Increase the rate of exchange of respi-
your stomach. ratory gases between the cells
A. large intestine C. The air sacs are filled with air
B. small intestine D. The air sacs are filled with water
C. colon 71. Wich are the parts of the respiratory trac
D. esophagus A. Bronchi
66. The patient developed bilateral and his B. Bronchioles
lungs had to be treated with strong antibi- C. Nasal cavities
otics.
D. Trachea
A. pneumonnia
E. alveoli
B. tracheostomy
C. bronchiecstasis 72. A cavity within a bone or other tissue, es-
pecially one in the bones of the face or
D. rhinitis
skull connecting with the nasal cavities.
67. What is another function of glottis? A. Sinus
A. Support the lung B. Nose
B. As opening to the lungs C. Pharynx
C. Protect the lung structure D. Larynx
D. none of above
73. Air from the outside enters the lungs
68. Which of the following is affected by the through the nose, and then the and
respiratory system? into the lungs.
A. yawn A. windpipe
B. hiccup B. gullet
C. sneeze C. stomach
D. all of the above D. heart

74. Which part of the body controls breath- 80. Which of the following is not done to the
ing? air as it moves through the body?

A. lungs A. clean
B. heart B. warm
C. brain C. humidify
D. soul D. cool
75. cleans, moistens, and warms the air 81. Having to do with the voice or speaking.
A. trachea A. heart
B. larynx B. lungs
C. nasal cavity C. vocal
D. windpipe D. singing
76. Blood consists of blood cells and 82. Where does the exchange of oxygen and
A. veins carbon dioxide occur?
B. plasma A. Alveoli
C. pressure B. Pleura
D. arteries C. Diaphragm
D. none of above
77. Gills are made up of
A. Glottis 83. It is also called as your windpipe.
B. Nostril A. Larynx
C. Filaments B. Lung
D. Lamellae C. trachea
D. Bronchi
78. The main organ in the respiratory system
is the 84. Which is known as the voice box?
A. Heart A. pharynx
B. Lungs B. larynx
C. Alveoli C. trachea
D. none of above D. bronchi
79. The two narrower tubes branching from 85. What is the main function of the respira-
the trachea that leads into the lungs tory system?
A. nose A. to break food down
B. bronchi B. supply the blood with oxygen
C. lungs C. circulate the blood
D. alveoli D. controlling the body

86. Which of the following lung capacities is A. sight

the volume of air that can be maximally B. smell
exhaled after a maximum inhalation?
C. touch
A. inspiratory capacity
D. taste
B. functional residual capacity
C. vital capacity 92. We breath out
A. Oxygen
D. total lung capacity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Air
87. In the trachea, the cartilaginous rings are
C. Water
U-shaped. They are open on one side to
allow movement of the D. Carbon Dioxide
A. larynx 93. Where does air go after the pharynx dur-
B. lungs ing inhalation?
C. espohagus A. nose
D. diaphragm B. trachea
C. bronchi
88. What does the digestive system do?
D. alveoli
A. brings in oxygen
B. gets rid of carbon dioxide 94. What is vasodilation?
C. absorbs glucose from food A. Increasing in breathing rate to in-

crease the oxygen in the bloodstream
B. Increase in process of gaseous ex-
89. The air tubes in your lungs branch off into change
smaller, narrower tubes called C. Reducing of the diameter of small ar-
A. bronchioles teries to reduce blood flow to tissues
B. trachea D. Increasing the diameter of small arter-
ies to increase blood flow to tissues
C. larynx
D. cilia 95. What is respiratory system?
A. The exchange of gases that takes place
90. Which does Boyles law state?
in the lungs
A. Volume is proportional to pressure
B. In & out of air in the lungs
B. Volume is inversely proportional to
C. Inhale and exhale of air that take place
pressure
in the lungs
C. Volume is proportional to the square of D. All of the above
the pressure
D. Volume is inversely proportional to the 96. What is the trachae?
square of the pressure A. tube that travels food from mouth to
stomach
91. Olfactory receptors are located in the mu-
cosa of the nose. What are these recep- B. wind pipe
tors used for? C. voice box

D. membraneous tube that takes in air C. Larynx

and food and liquids D. Pharynx

97. The beginning point of the respiratory sys- 103. The system of the body that brings oxy-
tem where air is taken into the body. gen into the body and releases carbon
A. lung dioxide.
B. nose A. respiratory system
C. diaphragm B. skeletal system
D. trachea C. muscular system
98. What organ in the respiratory system D. circulatory system

where exchange of gases takes place? 104. The main organ of the Respiratory Sys-
A. Trachea tem where the gas exchange takes place.
B. Bronchioles A. Heart
C. Bronchi B. Small Intestine
D. Alveoli C. Lungs
99. Which of the following is the correct order D. Anus

when you breathe air out? 105. When you exhale, the respiratory sys-
A. nasal cavity, trachea, pharynx tem is working to remove which waste
B. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea gas?
C. bronchi tubes, trachea, alveoli A. Oxygen
D. lung, trachea, pharynx B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Both
100. How we call (professionaly) coughing
with the blood? D. Neither
A. Haemoptysis 106. What is the word for “breathe in”?

B. Coughing with the blood A. inhale
C. Hoarseness B. exhale
D. none of above C. regurgitate
101. The name of the muscle that allows to D. expel

breath is called 107. Diffusion is
A. Lungs A. Movement of gas from an area of high
B. Kidneys concentration to high
C. Skeletal Muscle B. Movement of gas from an area of high
D. Diaphragm concentration to low
C. Movement of gas from an area of low
102. It is also called as air sac. concentration to high
A. Alveoli D. Movement of gas from an area of low
B. Bronchi concentration to low

108. This is the passageway for air ONLY ; 114. Hemoglobin must have for oxygen to
also known as “The Windpipe” bind properly
A. Mouth A. Calcium
B. Trachea B. Iron
C. Nose
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Ears
D. A GED
109. We use our respiratory system when we
NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. Is Your Heart Part of the Respiratory Sys-
tem?
A. eat
B. digest A. Yes
C. breathe B. No
D. none of above C. I dont get this
110. What reactants are there in cellular res- D. none of above

piration?
116. How do the bronchi differ?
A. Water and Glucose
A. The left lung has 3 lobes, the right lung
B. Oxygen and Glucose
has 2
C. Carbon Dioxide and Water
B. Lobar bronchi are larger than primary
D. Twenty One Pilots bronchi
111. In the respiratory zone, the bulk of gas C. Segmental bronchi feed into lobar
exchange occurs in the bronchi
A. Bronchioles D. Tertiary bronchi feed into bronchioles
B. Alveoli
117. Tubes that move air from the trachea to
C. Alveolar ducts
the lungs.
D. Bronchi
A. Alveoli
112. and platelets fight diseases in your
B. Bronchi
body.
A. white blood cells C. Veins
B. red blood cells D. Arteries

C. plasma 118. What are the functions of the circulatory
D. valves system? Select ALL that apply.
113. This is the muscle that makes room for A. carries oxygen and nutrients to cells
air B. carries waste away from cells
A. Trachea
C. works with respiratory system to pro-
B. Lungs vide oxygen and get rid of wastes
C. Alveoli D. removes CO2 and H2O when you ex-
D. Diaphragm hale

119. When you breathe, your lungs take in 125. Which of the following is the most im-
and remove portant stimulus to control the respiratory
rate?

A. oxygen/carbon dioxide
B. oxygen/water A. chemical factors
C. air/oxygen B. emotional factors
D. air/waste C. physical factors
D. conscious control
120. What is the first stop in the digestive sys-
tem? 126. How we call the smallest blood vessel?
A. mouth A. Capillary
B. esophagus B. Vein
C. stomach C. Artery
D. small intestine D. none of above
121. Another name for sugar is
127. Two thin tubes that take urine from the
A. ATP kidneys to the bladder are called
B. Cellular A. Urehtra
C. Glucoes B. Kidneys
D. Fall Out Boy C. Bronchus
122. Select ALL the organs that ARE parts of D. Ureters
the respiratory system
128. About how many miles of airways do
A. Heart your lungs contain?
B. Bronchi
A. 150 miles
C. Trachea
B. 1500 miles
D. Capillaries
C. 100 miles
E. Small intestine
D. 500 miles
123. The job of the red blood cell is to
129. During inspiration the diaphragm and
A. fight infection the intercostals
B. deliver oxygen and remove carbon A. contracts, contract
dioxide
B. moves up, contract
C. form scabs
C. moves down, relax
D. deliver carbon dioxide and remove oxy-
gen D. relaxes, move up
124. Which of these is a PASSIVE process 130. What type of cells carry oxygen?
A. Quiet inspiration A. red blood cells
B. Quiet expiration B. white blood cells
C. Forced inspiration C. neurons
D. Forced expiration D. none of above

131. This system supplies the body with oxy- C. alveoli

gen and rids it of carbon dioxide. D. lungs
A. circulatory
137. What type of cells transport oxygen in
B. respiratory
the blood?
C. muscular
A. red blood cells
D. nervous
B. white blood cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
132. When we breathe, we take in C. neurons
A. nitrogen D. cartilage cells
B. carbon dioxide
138. Which of These Is a Problem With The
C. oxygen Respiratory System? (There are 2 correct
D. hydrogen answers. You only need one.)
A. Asthma
133. What is exchange of gases between the
blood and the atmospheric air? B. Heart Diasese
A. External respiration C. Colds
B. Outdoor respiration D. Clogging of Tissues
C. Internal respiration 139. Which of the following pairs are mis-
D. none of above matched?
134. Some benefits of deep breathing are A. tidal volume-the amount of air ex-
changed by lungs at rest
A. Reduced stress levels, lower blood
pressure, and increased oxygen (energy) B. residual volume-the amount of air
someone can consciously exchange with
B. Reduced stress and increased heart the environment
rate
C. inspiratory reserve volume-additional
C. lower vagal nerve activity and oxygen amount of air that can be consciously in-
levels haled
D. Reduced stress and higher blood pres- D. expiratory reserve volume-additional
sure amount of air that can be consciously ex-
135. The tubes from the trachea to the lungs haled
A. Trachea 140. Identify the pathway of air .

B. Bronchi A. nasal cavity, throat, bronchioles,
C. Lungs bronchi, alveoli
D. Pharynx B. mouth, nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchi-

oles, alveoli
136. A shortening of the muscle when made C. nasal cavity/mouth, trachea, bronchi,
tense. bronchus, alveoli
A. respiration D. nasal cavity/mouth, trachea, bronchi,
B. contract bronchioles, alveoli

141. Flap of skin that covers the opening to 146. Choose the best statement below that
the windpipe during swallowing explains the relationship between respira-
tory and circulatory system.

A. Stomach
B. Trachea A. The respiratory system takes in food
and the circulatory system takes the food
C. Pancreas to your muscles.
D. Epiglottis B. The respiratory system takes in blood
142. Given the following structures:1. lar- and the circulatory system takes the blood
ynx2. nasal cavity3. pharynx4. tra- to your muscles.
cheaWhich of the following is the correct C. The respiratory system takes the oxy-
order that air would flow during inhala- gen to your muscles and the circulatory
tion. system takes in oxygen.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. The respiratory system takes in oxy-
B. 2, 3, 1, 4 gen and the circulatory system takes the
oxygen to all parts of your body.
C. 2, 1, 3, 4
D. 4, 2, 3, 1 147. The term for maintaining internal temper-
ature is:
143. Tiny hairs that move particles in the nose A. Thermoregulation
are called
B. Thermometer
A. mucus
C. Homeothermal
B. vocal cords
D. Homeostasis
C. cilia
D. flagella 148. Two tubes that take air into the lungs
from the trachea are called
144. How does the circulatory system work A. Bronchioles
with the respiratory system in the se-
quence for cellular respiration? B. Bronchial Tubes
A. RBC’s take O2 from lungs and deliver C. Trachea

to body cells. D. Ureters
B. RBC’s take CO2 from body cells to 149. What are the main organs of the respira-
lungs. tory system that allow us to breathe and
C. Lungs inhale O2 for Cellular Respira- for gas exchange to happen?
tion and exhale CO2 as waste. A. diapragm
D. All of these. B. lungs
145. What form the pharynx, larynx and tra- C. trachea
chea. D. none of above
A. Alveoli
150. In the process of breathing, during what
B. Heart stage does the movement of the di-
C. Lungs aphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?
D. Windipipe A. Internal respiration

B. External respiration 156. The group of organs that take oxygen

C. Inspiration from the air into our body and remove car-
bon dioxide from the body are called
D. Experation
A. Respiratory System
151. Oxygen moves from the lungs into the B. Excretory System
bloodstream through:
C. Urinary System
A. small blood vessels in lungs
D. Lung System
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. nerve fibers
157. What is the common name for the tra-
C. aorta
chea?
D. jugular vein
A. Throat
152. Where is carbon dioxide and oxygen ex- B. Trachea
changed at capillaries?
C. Windpipe
A. trachea
D. Nose
B. larynx
158. A sticky liquid produced by the lining of
C. alveoli
the nose is called
D. bronchi A. Saliva
153. What is the most common cause of lung B. Mucus
cancer? C. Urine
A. Smoking cigarettes D. Spit
B. Bad diet
159. The part of the respiratory system that
C. Genetics is/are affected when having COPD?
D. none of above A. Lungs
154. At the alveoli the O2 and CO2 are B. alveoli
swapped through gaseous exchange into C. brunchi
and out of the
D. All of the above
A. capillary
B. vessel 160. Define oxygen debt
C. vein A. The amount of oxygen needed at the

end of a physical activity to break down
D. Mr Winters wet football boot any lactic acid.
155. The victim sustained several frac- B. working at a high intensity level with-
tures in the car crash. out oxygen for energy production.
A. pulmonary C. the volume of oxygen an athlete can
consume while exercising at maximum ca-
B. laryngeal pacity.
C. bronchial D. smaller branches coming off the
D. costal bronchi.

161. Which of the following shows the correct 165. What is the diaphragm’s main function?
digestive process? A. pump blood into the lungs

A. stomach, esophagus, small intestine, B. pump carbon dioxide out of the lungs
large intestine, mouth, colon and pull oxygen into the lungs
B. mouth, esophagus, stomach, large in- C. pump oxygen out of the lungs and pull
testine, small intestine, colon carbon dioxide into the lungs
C. mouth, stomach, esophagus, small in- D. pumping blood
testine, large intestine, colon
166. What are tiny hairlike structures that line
D. mouth, esophagus, stomach, small in-
the nasal passages as well as most of the
testine, large intestine, colon
respiratory system?
162. A liquid formed in the kidneys that con- A. alveoli
sists of water, salts, nitrogen and wastes B. bronchioles
is called
C. bronchi
A. Mucus
D. cilia
B. Urine
167. how many system in our body?
C. Pee
A. 10
D. Saliva
B. 11
163. How are the respiratory and circulatory C. 12
systems connected?
D. 13
A. The respiratory system takes in food
and the circulatory system takes the food 168. The tube in the body through which air
to your muscles. moves as it travels to and from the lungs;
B. The respiratory system takes in blood the windpipe.
and the circulatory system takes the blood A. heart
to your muscles. B. bone
C. The respiratory system takes the oxy- C. blood vessel
gen to your muscles and the circulatory
system takes in oxygen. D. trachea
D. The respiratory system takes in oxy- 169. Do you miss Ms. Morgan?
gen and the circulatory system takes the A. Yes
oxygen to your muscles.
B. No
164. Which part of the respiratory system is C. Who is Ms. Morgan?
also part of the digestive system?
D. none of above
A. Nasal Cavity
170. During cellular respiration, what happens
B. Trachea
to the carbon dioxide?
C. Pharynx
A. It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled
D. Bronchi from the lungs

B. It leaves the bloodstream and enters C. larynx

the alveoli D. bronchi
C. It leaves the cells and enters the blood-
stream 176. What is the normal respiratory rate for
an adult at rest?
D. It leaves the alveoli and enters the
A. 12 to 20 breaths per minute
bloodstream
B. 20 to 25 breaths per minute
171. What organ pumps blood throughout
C. 6 to 12 breaths per minute
NARAYAN CHANGDER
your body?
D. Over 25 breaths per minute
A. veins
B. arteries 177. During gas exchange
C. heart A. CO2 moves out of the blood, O2 out of
the alveoli
D. blood vessels
B. CO2 moves into the blood, O2 moves
172. The molecule that carries oxygen and car- out of the alveoli
bon dioxide in the blood is called C. CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves
A. Capillaries out the blood
B. Hemogalase D. CO2 out of the alveoli, O2 moves into
the blood
C. Hemoglobin
D. Calcium 178. The voice box is also called the
A. pharynx
173. When you exhale, the diaphragm
B. larynx
A. moves upwards
C. epiglottis
B. moves downwards
D. conchae
C. flattens
D. none of the above 179. Where would you find cilia?
A. nose and alveoli
174. Why does breathing rate increase during
exercise? Tick the statements that are rel- B. bronchioles and mouth
evant. C. trachea and nose
A. To meet the demand for oxygen at the D. all of the above
working muscles
180. What is an expectorant?
B. To make us lighter
A. These agents are used for the tempo-
C. To decrease body temperature rary relief of nasal congestion associated
D. To remove carbon dioxide from the with the common cold, hay fever, other up-
body per respiratory allergies, and sinusitis.
B. Used to improve pulmonary airflow by
175. the windpipe; a passage through which dilating air passages.
air moves in the respiratory system.
C. Depress the cough center located in
A. trachea the medulla, thereby raising its threshold
B. lungs for incoming cough impulse.

D. Promote and facilitate the removal of 186. Which 2 substances are exchanged in the
mucus from the lower respiratory tract Respiratory System?

A. oxygen and nitrogen
181. Describe the lungs:
B. carbon dioxide and oxygen
A. Thick walls filled with tiny air sacs
C. oxygen and glucose
B. Thin flexible walls filled with cartilage
D. glucose and carbon dioxide
and air sacs
C. Thin, soft, and flexible-they are filled 187. Which organ squeezes and mixes your
with tiny air sacs food into a mushy liquid?
D. Football shaped organs that have thick A. mouth

inflexible walls B. stomach
C. large intestine
182. What is the molecule called that mito-
chondria produce when they respire glu- D. small intestine
cose? 188. What are the tiny passageways that lead
A. ATP to the air sacs in the lungs called?
B. ADP A. Alveoli
C. DNA B. Bronchioles
C. Trachea
D. 80p
D. Bronchi
183. bronchus
189. What is the correct name for the wind-
A. epi pipe?
B. no A. Trachea
C. bronch/o B. Bronchus
D. bronchi / o C. Bronchiole
D. Larynx
184. is characterized by a runny nose.
190. A 1-year-old pediatric patient with spu-
A. Pharyngitis
tum in the lower lungs. How should
B. Rhinorrhea phlegm drainage be arranged?
C. Laryngitis A. lie down
D. Pneumonia B. lying down, head low
C. lying on the right side
185. Which part of the body is not used for the
D. lying head high
respiratory system to work?
A. mouth 191. What is responsible for picking up the
oxygen in lungs and carrying it to all the
B. nose body cells that need it?
C. small intestine A. red blood cells
D. diaphragm B. white blood cells

C. veins 197. In , a tube is inserted into the hole to

keep it open.
D. ventricle
A. bronciectasis
192. Which of the following is NOT a function B. pharyngoscopy
of the nasal cavity?
C. tracheostomy
A. warms inhaled air D. pneumonia
B. humidifies inhales air
198. What is the role of the respiratory sys-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. removes dirt and dust from inhaled air tem?
D. removes oxygen from inhaled air A. Add CO2
B. Remove O2
193. Which of the following is a part of the
C. Add CO2 and remove O2
respiratory system?
D. Add O2 and remove CO2
A. lungs
199. What gas is released as waste from cel-
B. stomach
lular respiration?
C. large intestines A. Carbon Dioxide
D. heart B. Glucose
194. A place to exchange oxygen and carbon C. Oxygen

dioxide is D. none of above
A. bronchus 200. what is another name of throath?
B. alveoli A. larynx
C. lung B. pharynx
D. bronchi C. trachea
D. none of above
195. Which of the following happens during in-
spiration? 201. What is the pipe located at the bottom of
our trachea that splits into our right and
A. Diaphragm contracts left lungs?
B. Abdominal muscles contract A. Bronchiole Tubes/Bronchi
C. External intercostal muscles relax B. Alveoli
D. Internal intercostal muscles contract C. Pleura

D. Larynx
196. The smallest passageway taking air to
the alveoli 202. How many breaths does the average per-
son take per minute?
A. Bronchi
A. 10
B. Bronchus B. 20
C. Bronchioles C. 40
D. Alveioli D. 60

203. What 3 main components which make up C. Alevoli

the CARDIOVASCULAR system? D. Nose

A. Arteries, Veins, Capillaries
209. Passage way that moistens the air and
B. Heart, Lungs, Blood Vessels has hairs to trap dust and particles
C. Heart, Oxyhaemoglobin, Lungs A. Nasal cavity
D. Heart, Blood, Blood Vessels B. Bronchi
204. Carbon dioxide in the blood is converted C. Mouth cavity
to D. Larynx
A. bicarbonate 210. How much air do you breathe each
B. oxygen minute?
C. glucose A. 5 gallons
D. lactic acid B. 1 Liter
C. 6 Liters
205. What are the functions of the respiratory
system? Select ALL that apply. D. 15 quarts
A. provides oxygen for your cells 211. Our lungs

B. removes CO2 and H2O when you ex- A. breathe in oxygen and breathe out car-
hale bon dioxide.
C. carries oxygen and nutrients B. breathe in carbo.
D. provides shape and support for mus- C. breathe in helium and breathe out oxy-
cles gen.
D. breathe in oxygen and breathe out he-
206. The small air sacs that are surrounded by lium.
blood vessels are the
212. What Does The Diaphram Do?
A. alveoli
A. A large Muscle that helps move your
B. bronchi
arms.
C. bronchioles
B. A large Muscle that s ocated beneath
D. trachea the lungs that contrasts and expands
when we breath.
207. If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop
working, what activity could be life threat- C. A large muscle that can cause very bad
ening? pain easily.
A. Breathin D. A large muscle that helps your lungs
stay healthy.
B. Walking
213. What does the Chea do?
C. Coughing
A. It takes air in and out of your lungs.
D. Eating
B. It takes the food down to your stom-
208. The exchange of gases occurs in the ach.
A. Trachea C. It takes the water to your heart.
B. Bronchi D. none of above

214. What is the role of RED BLOOD CELLS? 219. These apply to inhalation
A. Protect the body from infection A. Diaphragm moves up
B. Carry oxygen around the body B. Ribs move in
C. Coagulate the blood and wounds C. Ribs move out
D. All of the Above D. Diaphragm contracts
215. Alveoli are E. Creates larger pressure in thoracic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cavity
A. the large “branches” that air travels
by to enter the lungs 220. The structures that allow for the ex-
B. the little “branches” that carry air to change of oxygen and carbon dioxide be-
the alveoli tween the lungs and blood are
C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex- A. bronchioles
change with the capillaries
B. alveoli
D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
C. bronchi
around the alveoli
D. epiglottis
216. What carries blood away from your
heart? 221. The flap of tissue at the bottom of the
A. Arteries pharynx which keeps food and liquids out
of the rest of your respiratory system.
B. Veins
A. pharynx
C. Capillaries
B. larynx
D. Valves
C. trachea
217. The process of taking in oxygen and re-
D. epiglottis
leasing carbon dioxide from the body.
A. transpiration 222. Which is NOT a function of the Respira-
B. respiration tory System?
C. digestion A. it warms the air

D. relaxation B. it exchanges O2 and CO2
C. It pumps blood to the organs
218. Identify the correct difference between
inhaled and exhaled air D. it creates sound through the larynx
A. oxygen levels have decreased and car- 223. This system transports essentials and re-
bon dioxide levels have increased. moves wastes to and from the cells of the
B. oxygen levels have increased and car- body.
bon dioxide levels have increased.
A. circulatory
C. oxygen levels have decreased and car-
B. respiratory
bon dioxide levels have decreased.
C. skeletal
D. oxygen levels have increased and car-
bon dioxide levels have decreased. D. integumentary

224. This muscle separates the chest from the 230. The following are parts of the Respira-
abdomen. tory system EXCEPT.

A. Ribs A. Lungs
B. Chest B. Trachea
C. Diaphragm
C. Heart
D. Bicep
D. Alveoli
225. The main organs of the respiratory sys-
tem 231. Which of the following is not a symptom
A. heart of anemia?
B. lungs A. Exhaustion
C. esophagus B. Dizziness
D. trachea C. Difficulty understanding things
226. a flap of tissue that closes when we eat D. Overheating
so food doesn’t not go down the trachea
A. larynx 232. We need in our body.
B. pharynx A. carbon dioxide
C. trachea B. oxygen
D. epiglottis C. gas
227. The reactants of cellular respiration are D. none of above
A. Glucose & Oxygen 233. The is the body’s main artery that
comes out of the heart with blood full of
B. Carbon Dioxide & Water
oxygen.
C. ATP & Oxygen
A. capillary
D. Glucose & ATP
B. vein
228. Which of the following are the blood ves-
sels that have a wall that is 1 cell thick? C. aorta
A. Veins D. plasma
B. Arteries
234. Inside each of your lungs there are tubes
C. Capillaries called bronchi. These branch into even
D. none of above smaller tubes much like the branches of
a tree. What are at the ends of these
229. After the trachea, air travels through the tubes?
A. alveoli
A. Bronchiole
B. Alveoli B. diaphragms
C. Bronchus C. cells
D. Capillary D. lobus

235. Which of these members of our class 241. The shows a tumor in the upper part
have a respiratory system? of the pharynx.
A. The teddy bear in the reading corner A. Tracheostomy
B. Eddie B. Rhinitis
C. John C. Pharyngoscopy
D. Sooyoung D. Bronchiecstatsis
E. Minjoo 242. How do the muscles affect regulation of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
236. the basic unit of structure and function in body temperature?
an organism A. Errector pili muscles make hair stand
A. alveoli up
B. breathing B. Shivering increases heat
C. cartilage C. Muscles do not help regulate body tem-
perature
D. cell
D. Shivering decreases heat
E. homeostasis
243. How does the respiratory system deliver
237. Two short tubes that carry air into the
oxygen to different parts of the body?
lungs
A. breathing
A. Trachea
B. circulation
B. Bronchioles
C. inhale carbon dioxide
C. Lungs
D. exhale oxygen
D. Bronchi
244. An air tube that is held open by C-shaped
238. The division of the trachea forms
rings of cartilage. Also known as the wind-
A. nose pipe.
B. main bronchi A. pharynx
C. lungs B. trachea
D. alveoli C. nose
239. Sinus D. alveoli
A. sinus 245. What is imperfect?
B. layrang/o A. atel/o
C. into B. nas/o
D. no/o C. cyst/o
240. Identify a characteristic of capillaries D. olfact/o
A. Thick cell wall 246. The respiratory system distributes to
B. Small lumen the body?
C. Contain valves to prevent backflow A. Oxygen
D. Semi permeable membrane B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Nutrients 252. Which part of the respiratory system

D. Carbon Monoxide cleans, moistens, and warms the air?

A. trachea
247. What are the tiny air sacs that allow
B. larynx
for diffusion between oxygen and carbon
dioxide C. Nose / nasal cavity
A. Bronchi D. windpipe
B. Bronchioles 253. Procces in wich the CO2 of the capillar-
C. Trachea ies passes to the alveoli and the O2 of the
alveoli passes to the capillaries
D. Alveoli
A. Inhalation
248. supply the body with oxygen and dispose
B. Exhalation
of carbon dioxide
C. Exchange of gases
A. laryng/o
D. none of above
B. respiration
C. bronch/o, bronchi/o 254. What is rhinoscopy?
D. function of respiratory system A. Visual examination of all of the above
B. Visual examination of the larynx, tra-
249. What gas is needed in order to perform
chea, and bronchi via a flexible broncho-
respiration at the cellular level?
scope.
A. oxygen
C. Visual examination of the larynx via a
B. carbon dioxide laryngoscope.
C. hydrogen D. Visual examination of the nasal pas-
D. nitrogen sages.
250. What respiratory symptoms include? 255. Which of the following leaf structures
prevent a leaf from losing wafer through
A. Fever transpiration
B. Sore throat A. Tall stems
C. Cough B. Waxy Cuticle
D. Vomiting C. Stomata on lower surface
251. What is the main function of gas ex- D. Guard cells
change E. Green colour
A. To remove carbon dioxide and supply
oxygen to the body 256. Layman’s term of hemoptysis
B. To remove oxygen from the body A. Cough up pus
C. To supply carbon dioxide and remove B. Cough up blood

oxygen from the body C. Bleeding
D. To supply water to the body cells D. I don’t know

257. Your lungs are divided into lobes. How 262. how many organs of the body?
many lobes do you have? A. 75
A. Two B. 76
B. Three C. 77
C. Four D. 78
D. Five
263. Please choose the correct pathway air
travels though into the lungs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
258. Which of the following respiratory or-
gans are found inside the lungs? A. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-
A. Alveoli chea, bronchiole, bronchi, alveoli
B. Trachea B. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-

chea, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli
C. Pharynx
C. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-
D. All of these chea, bronchi, alveoli, bronchiole
259. How does the exchange of gases take D. Nasal passage, trachea, pharynx, lar-
place in an organism respiratory system? ynx, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli
A. Diffusion 264. What is included in the respiratory sys-
B. Respiration tem? Select ALL that apply.
C. Cellular respiration A. nose

B. trachea
D. none of above
C. lungs
260. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea,
D. diaphragm
bronchial tubes, lungs
A. muscles involved in breathing 265. Gas exchange occurs by:
B. epiglott/o A. simple diffusion
C. structure of respiratory system B. osmosis
D. pleuro/o C. active transport

D. none of these
261. Vital capacity is defined as
266. A bag-like organ that holds the urine be-
A. amount of air inspired and expired
fore it leaves the body is called
with each normal breath during rest or ex-
ercise. A. Kidneys
B. is the greatest amount of air that can B. Liver
be made to pass into and out of the lungs C. Ureters
by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
D. Urinary Bladder
ration.
C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs 267. which of the following is an circulatory
to the bloodstream. sytem?
D. the movement of air from outside the A. Pharnyx

body into the cells within tissues. B. larnyx

C. Arteries 274. Choose accessory organs of respiration.

D. Lungs A. Ribs

268. What does cyan/o mean? B. Intercostal muscles
C. Diaphragm
A. lobe
D. Sternum
B. hallow air sac
C. dark blue 275. The exchange of gases between blood
and cells is called
D. bronchiole
A. Pulmonary Ventilation
269. How do salamanders breathe?
B. Internal Respiration
A. Through gills C. External Respiration
B. Through gills and lungs D. Cellular Respiration
C. Through lungs and skin
276. which of the following is part of both di-
D. Through gills, lungs and skin gestive and resperetory system?
270. a condition where the alveoli is infected A. larnyx
A. cystic fibrosis B. Pharnyx
B. pneumonia C. Bronchi
C. asthma D. diapgram
D. emphysema 277. What is NOT a part of the Respiratory
System?
271. Gaseous exchange happens because of
A. Pharynx
A. Osmosis B. Trachea
B. Respiration C. Lungs
C. Diffusion D. Heart
D. Semi-permeable membranes 278. The process of exchanging oxygen and

carbon dioxide in the lungs.
272. What structure connects the larynx to the
bronchi? A. inspiration
B. expiration
A. Pleura
C. internal respiration
B. Oropharynx
D. external respiration
C. Trachea
D. Bronchioles 279. Arrange the correct passage of oxygen in
the respiratory system.I. Nose II. Bronchi-
273. What causes asthma? olesIII. TracheaIV. BronchiV. Alveoli
A. Inhalation of pollen A. I, II, III, V, IV
B. Exposure to dust B. I, III, IV, II, V
C. Presence paint thinner C. II, III, IV, I, V
D. All of the above D. I, II, III, IV, V

280. Cardiac Output is the volume of blood 285. Which of these organs is not a part of the
pumped out the heart per minute BUT respiratory system?
what is the equation?
A. Trachea
A. Q = HR + SV
B. Lungs
B. Q = HR-SV
C. Heart
C. Q = HR X SV
D. Pharynx
D. Q = HR / SV
NARAYAN CHANGDER
281. The muscle that controls our breathing is 286. Asthma is caused by inflammation in the
the
A. Rectus abdominis A. Trachea
B. External obliques B. Bronchi
C. Diaphragm C. Nasal Cavity
D. Pectoralis Major D. Alveoli
282. What is the importance of the filament 287. The biggest difference between inhaled
and lamellae structure in a fish gills? gases and exhaled gases is..
A. Decrease the surface area of the res- A. Percentages of nitrogen and oxygen
piratory system
B. Percentages of carbon dioxide and oxy-
B. Increase the efficiency of gaseous ex-
gen
change
C. Decrease the efficiency of gaseous ex- C. Both
change D. Neither
D. Dissolve gas
288. What are the products of cellular respira-
283. This takes in air and cleans it tion?
A. Pharynx A. Energy (ATP), Water, and Carbon DIox-
B. Nasal Cavity ide.
C. Trachea B. Water and Oxygen

D. Cilia C. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
284. Gaseous exchange is when D. Water and Energy (ATP)
A. o2 diffuses from the alveoli to the cap- 289. Which body function is made possible by
illary the fibrous bands stretched across the lar-
B. co2 diffuses from the alveoli to the cap- ynx?
illary A. swallowing
C. o2 diffuses from the capillary to the B. breathing
alveoli
C. diffusion
D. co2 diffuses from the capillary to the
alveoli D. speech

290. Why do cilia push mucus towards the C. Rib cage and nasal passage
esophagus (which leads to the stomach)?
D. Diaphragm and nasal passage

A. The esophagus uses mucus to help
food move more easily. 296. capillaries are
B. The stomach needs the mucus to help A. the large “branches” that air travels
digest food. by to enter the lungs
C. The acid in the stomach kills germs in
B. the little “branches” that carry air to
the mucus.
the alveoli
D. The mucus contains nutrients that get
absorbed in the stomach. C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex-
291. The primary muscles involved in moving
the lungs are
around the alveoli
A. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles
B. Diaphragm and trachea 297. Which of the following combinations of
the features of the leaves of terrestrial
C. Intercostal muscles and lobes
(land) plants and their adaptations for gas
D. Diaphragm and bronchioles exchange is not correct?
292. Which is not a job of the respiratory sys- A. broad and flat to provide a large sur-
tem? face area
A. taking in oxygen B. moist surface of the mesophyll cells to
B. taking in carbon dioxide allow gases to dissolve in the moisture
C. moisten air C. epidermis not covered by cuticle to al-
D. transport glucose low gases to diffuse freely
293. What is the purpose of nose hairs? D. many stomata to allow gases to pass
into and out of the leaves freely
A. Fight disease
B. No purpose 298. Every cell in your body needs
C. Keep dust/particles out of nose A. Carbon Dioxide
D. Tickle the nose so you sneeze B. Nitrogen
294. Gaseous exchange happens C. Oxygen
A. in the bronchi D. Glucose
B. in the lungs
C. in the alveoli 299. When you exhale, air goes out of the tra-
chea to the
D. in the heart
A. bronchi
295. Name the two body parts that work to-
gether to force air IN and OUT of the body: B. alveoli
A. Lungs and trachea C. pharynx

B. Rib cage and diaphragm D. esophagus

300. an inflammation in the bronchial tubes 306. Expiratory reserve volume is defined as
that causes a person to have a nagging A. amount of air inspired and expired
cough with each normal breath during rest or ex-
A. bronchitis ercise.
B. emphysema B. the maximum volume that can be ex-
haled.
C. pneumonia
C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
D. cystic fibrous
to the bloodstream.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
301. What is the correct spelling? D. the maximum volume that can be in-
A. Respitaroy haled.
B. Respiratiry 307. Your is a muscle connected to the bot-

tom of your lungs that helps your lungs
C. Respitory
expand and contract when you breathe.
D. Respiratory
A. esophagus
302. The place in the lungs where oxygen and B. alveoli
carbon dioxide are exchanged C. trachea
A. Diaphragm D. diaphragm
B. Alveolus
308. The process of diffusing oxygen from the
C. Bronchi Tube blood, into the interstitial fluid and into the
D. Trachea cells.
A. inspiration
303. This acts like an “Air tube”
B. expiration
A. Pharynx
C. internal respiration
B. Trachea
D. external respiration
C. Bronchi
309. Which is not a job of the nose?
D. Lungs
A. warm air
304. A lengthening of the muscle when made B. moisten air
less tense, to release.
C. traps particles like dust and bacteria
A. relax
D. bring in carbon dioxide
B. lung
310. Which answer is true?
C. respiratory system
A. Increase in volume= increase in pres-
D. respiration sure
305. This leads to the trachea and esophagus B. decrease in volume= increase in pres-
sure
A. Lung
C. decrease in volume= decrease in
B. Bronchi
pressure
C. Nasal Cavity D. Increase in volume= decrease in
D. Pharynx pressure

311. D ivides the nose into two hollow spaces 316. the airways that lead from the trachea
called nasal cavities. into the lungs

A. nasal cavities A. Trachea
B. sinuses B. Bronchi
C. bronchioles C. Larynx
D. nasal septum D. Pharynx
312. The circulatory system works with the 317. The large muscle that contracts and re-
system to obtain energy from nutri- laxes and moves air in and out of the
ents that we eat. lungs.
A. respiratory A. epiglottis
B. digestive B. alveoli
C. skeletal C. diaphragm
D. nervous D. trachea
313. What is the fuel that makes all body pro- 318. Bronchi are
cesses run?
A. the large “branches” that air travels
A. Sugar by to enter the lungs
B. Oxygen B. the little “branches” that carry air to
C. Carbon Dioxide the alveoli
D. Salt C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex-

314. Select each statement that refers to D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
anaerobic exercise. around the alveoli
A. Uses oxygen
319. What does your nasal cavity do to the air
B. High intensity as it goes to the lungs?
C. Short duration
A. warms
D. Builds up lactic acid
B. moistens
E. Long duration
C. filters
315. After air moves through the pharynx D. expands
it continues downward. The , or
windpipe, directs the air into 2 separate 320. Where does cellular respiration take
branches or tubes. place in the cell?
A. mucus A. Cell Membrane
B. trachea B. Nucleus
C. larynx C. Mitochondria
D. epiglottis D. Vacuole

321. Whats does inspiration mean? 327. Where are your vocal cords located?
A. It is the meaning of life A. Mouth
B. Social media stars & vloggers
B. Larynx
C. To breathe in
C. Throat
D. To breathe out
D. Stomach
322. Which of the following is true for the fate
of Glucose produced by photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
328. Under the layer of skin is a dense net-
A. Used in respiration to make energy works of blood capillaries
B. Evaporated from the leaf A. To increase the mass of skin
C. Leaves through the stomata
B. To increase the gap between skin and
D. none of above blood capillary
323. The tiny pouches where the exchange of C. To increase the rate of diffusion of gas
oxygen of carbon dioxide takes place are
called D. To increase the moist of skins
A. Alveoli
329. Another main function of the respiratory
B. Lungs system is to remove gas from the body.
C. Bronchioles This can be toxic to the cells if it is not re-
D. Trachea moved.
324. What does the diaphragm do in the respi- A. nitrogen

ratory system? B. oxygen
A. Sucks air from the trachea to the phar-
C. carbon dioxide
ynx
B. Squeezes air as it enters the lungs D. helium
C. Moves to change the size of the chest
330. What is carried by the blood stream from
cavity
the tissue to the lungs?
D. All of these
A. Carbon dioxide
325. What is another word for breathing in
B. Oxygen
A. Inspiration
B. Expiration C. Carbon monoxide
C. Breathing INWARDS D. none of above

D. Breathing OUTWARD
331. The “windpipe” is also called the
326. larynx
A. trachea
A. side
B. bronchi
B. bronchial/o
C. pharyng/o C. bronchioles
D. laryng/o D. alveoli

332. Which mineral is an essential part of C. Pressure is less outside the body
hemoglobin and responsible for reversibly
D. Diaphragm moves down
binding to oxygen?

A. iron 338. What are the main components of the car-
B. nitrogen diovascular system?
C. oxygen A. Heart, blood vessels, lungs
D. calcium B. veins, arteries, capillaries
333. ‘The number of breaths per minute’ is the C. Heart, blood, blood vessels
definition for D. Blood vessels, blood, Haemaglobin
A. Cardiac output
B. Lung capacity 339. Which part of the Respiratory Sys-
tem collects air from the environment &
C. Breathing rate heats/moistens the air before entering
D. Tidal volume the body?
334. What do we take in when we inhale? A. lungs

A. carbon dioxide B. nose
B. oxygen C. heart
C. lungs D. brain
D. none of above
340. Layman’s term of rhinorrhea
335. What is breathed out from our mouth and
A. Something to do with nose
nose?
A. carbon dioxide B. Nose bleed
B. oxygen C. Runny nose
C. nitrogen D. rhinitis
D. helium
341. Which of these is NOT a function of the
336. When we breathe OUT, our diaphragm cardiovascular system?
rises. The lungs , and the space inside A. Transport Of Substances
becomes smaller. So, air is forced out of
the lungs, through the windpipe and out of B. Produce energy
the nose. C. Temperature Control
A. expand
D. Clotting of wounds
B. contract
C. reflect 342. “BREATH” is a noun or a verb?
D. none of above A. Noun
337. These apply to exhilation B. Verb

A. Diaphragm relaxes C. Both
B. Pressure increases in thoracic cavity D. None of the above

343. The patient couldn’t handle breathe due 348. Your lungs have as much surface area as
to a blockage. a
A. nasal A. tennis court
B. bronchial B. soccer field
C. laryngeal C. classroom desk
D. costal D. kitchen table
NARAYAN CHANGDER
344. An organism that has a stable body tem- 349. What is the adaptation of the skin struc-
perature should be classed as: ture of amphibians to increase the effi-
ciency of the respiratory system?
A. Poikilotherm
A. Thick skin
B. Homeotherm
B. Not permeable to gas
C. Endotherm
C. Low density of blood capillaries net-
D. Ectotherm work
345. We breath in D. Moist surface
A. Carbon Dioxide 350. The upper respiratory system is com-
B. Oxygen posed of these divisions:
C. Air A. Nasal cavity
D. Water B. Larynx
C. Pharynx
346. Which of the following environmental
conditions can cause the stomata to close D. Bronchioles
during the day because the rate of transpi-
ration is too great 351. bronchioles are
A. Humid Weather A. the large “branches” that air travels

by to enter the lungs
B. If plant loses too much water
B. the little “branches” that carry air to
C. high temperatures the alveoli
D. high wind C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex-
E. high level of carbon dioxide change with the capillaries
347. What is the respiratory structure used by around the alveoli
a grasshopper that helps it to adapt to dif-
ferent situations? 352. The larynx is also known as the
A. Trachea A. Voice box
B. Gills B. Passage to the lungs
C. Moist outer skin C. Long vein
D. Lungs D. Airway

353. place where there is cilia and mucus to C. Lungs

avoid dirt and germ from air before it go D. Stomach
inside lungs

359. What does expiration mean?
A. trachea
A. When the food is spoiled
B. larynx
B. To breathe in
C. windpipe
C. To breathe out
D. nasal passage
D. To throw away old food
354. The process of breathing is called
360. Tidal volume is defined as
A. Circulation
A. amount of air inspired and expired
B. Perspiration with each normal breath during rest or ex-
C. Digestion ercise.
D. Respiration B. is the greatest amount of air that can
be made to pass into and out of the lungs
355. A small flap of tissue that covers the tra- by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
chea is called the ration.
A. bronchi C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
B. larynx to the bloodstream.
C. pharynx D. the movement of air from outside the
body into the cells within tissues.
D. epiglottis
361. Product of photosynthesis are
356. the look like a wasp’s nest and is
A. carbon dioxide and glucose
where the exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide takes places. B. oxygen and glucose
A. alveoli C. water and glucose
B. bronchial tubes D. none of above
C. lung 362. Which of these descriptions best de-

scribes ARTERIES?
D. diaphragm
A. Thick Outer Wall, Thick Inner Wall,
357. Which part of the respiratory system is Narrow Lumen HIGH pressure
the flap of tissue that covers the trachea
B. Thin Outer Wall, Thin Inner Wall, Wide
when a person swallows?
LumenLOW Pressure
A. the epiglottis C. Thin Outer Wall, 1 Cell Thick
B. the diaphragm D. Thin Outer Wall, Thick Inner Wall Mod-
C. the larynx erate LumenLOW Pressure
D. the vocal cords 363. To breath in means
358. Which of the following is not part of the A. Exhale
Respiratory System? B. Inhale
A. Trachea C. Oxygen
B. Larynx D. Respiration

364. Identify the correct pathway of air into 369. What is the name of the blood vessel that
the blood. bring OXYGENATED blood back to the Left
Atrium?
A. Nose/mouth, trachea, bronchi, bron-
chioles, alveoli, capillaries A. Pulmonary Artery
B. Nose/mouth, bronchi, bronchioles, B. Aorta
alveoli, capillaries, trachea C. Vena Cava
C. Nose/mouth, trachea, bronchioles, D. Pulmonary Vein
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bronchi, alveoli, capillaries
370. Respiratory system focuses on the:
D. none of above
A. all of the above
365. The other name for trachea is B. exchange of carbon dioxide
A. food pipe C. exchange of oxygen
B. wind pipe D. the movement of air
C. lung 371. In the nasal cavity air is
D. heart A. filtered
B. warmed
366. What is another word for your wind-
pipe? C. moisturized
A. esophagus D. all of the above
B. sinuses 372. What is the largest cartilage structure in
C. trachea the larynx?
A. Cricoid Cartilage
D. alveoli
B. Corniculate Cartilage
367. a structure that is composed of different C. Thyroid cartilage
kinds of tissue to perform a specific job
D. Cartilage ring
A. organ
373. Most of the carbon dioxide is transported
B. tendon
by
C. tissue
A. hemoglobin
D. ligament B. bicarbonate ion
E. joint C. carbonic acid
368. Capillaries pass is passed to muscles D. red blood cells

and tissues and your waste is passed back. 374. The trachea divides in to tubes called
A. carbon dioxide A. Bronchioles
B. oxygen B. Bronchi
C. white blood cells C. Alveoli
D. plasma D. Lungs

375. Which part(s) of the respiratory system 380. Which respiratory organ is the main for
remove(s) waste particles from air? frog respiration?

A. Trachea A. Skin
B. Cilia & Mucus B. Lungs
C. Cilia C. Gills
D. None of these D. none of above
376. when your rib muscles and diaphragm 381. Tiny air sacs in the lungs that are the site
contract or relax to allow air in or out of gas exchange between the lungs and
A. alveoli blood.
B. breathing A. alveoli
C. cartilage B. relax
D. cell C. diaphragm
E. homeostasis D. nose
377. What is the respiratory tract? 382. Three features to ensure an efficient
gaseous exchange with the surrounding
A. Anything
B. Is a tract that connects our lungs to A. Dry surface of respiratory structures
the outside B. Moist surface of respiratory struc-
C. Is a part of our lungs tures
D. Is a long tube that goes to our brain C. Thin respiratory structures

D. Thick respiratory structures
378. What is gaseous exchange?
E. Large surface of respiratory struc-
A. The movement of Oxygen and Car- tures
bon Dioxide between the bronchi and pul-
monary artery 383. The main function of the respiratory sys-
B. The movement of Oxygen and Carbon tem is to supply the body with oxygen and
Dioxide between the alveoli and blood- to expel carbon dioxide. Which statement
stream explains how the respiratory system coor-
dinates with the circulatory system when
C. The movement of Oxygen and Carbon performing this function?
Dioxide between the heart and lungs
A. Both systems ensure that every cell
D. The movement of Oxygen and Car-
has equal concentrations of oxygen and
bon Dioxide between the nasal cavity and
carbon dioxide.
heart
B. Both systems ensure that oxygen is in-
379. This is where gas exchange takes place haled and delivered to cells, and carbon
A. Lung dioxide is removed from cells by the blood-
stream and lungs.
B. Bronchi
C. Both systems ensure that carbon diox-
C. Alveoli ide reaches the bloodstream, and oxygen
D. Trachea is removed from the bloodstream.

D. Both systems ensure that every cell 389. The respiratory system is used to
has a higher concentration of carbon diox- A. Can live
ide and a lower concentration of oxygen.
B. To breath
384. The Respiratory System is the body’s: C. Does not exist
A. Breathing system D. It’s useless
B. Food processing system 390. Your is over 20 feet long and uses en-
zymes to chemically break down your food
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Blood transporting system
so your blood can absorb all the nutrients
D. System of nerves to feed your body.
385. What is oxygen needed for? A. mouth
B. stomach
A. energy releasing chemical reactions
C. small intestine
B. to make glucose
D. large intestine
C. to take in sunlight
391. During INSPIRATION, the intercostal
muscles CONTRACT and the ribs move in
386. The alveoli is where , that was in- what direction?
haled, is exchanged for , which is ex- A. Down and In
haled. B. Up & In
A. food, waste C. Up & Out
B. oxygen, carbon dioxide D. Just up
C. oxygen, food 392. What does the Larynx hold?
D. carbon dioxide, oxygen A. The larynx holds the whole respitory
system.
387. What structures does gaseous exchange
B. The larynx holds the trachea.
take place between? (select 2 answers)
C. The larynx holds the vocal chords.
A. Alveoli and the veins
D. The larynx hold the wind pipe.
B. Alveoli and the capillaries
393. It is also called as the voicebox
C. Capillaries and the arteries
A. Larynx
D. Capillaries and muscle tissue
B. Pharynx
388. Where is the Larynx Located? C. Bronchi
A. Upper part of the respiratory system. D. Alveoli
B. Lower part of the respiratory system. 394. What do you Breath in? What do you
C. On the right side of the respiratory sys- Breath out?
tem. A. You Breath in Carbon Dioxide and
D. On the left side of the respiratory sys- Breath out Oxygen
tem. B. You breath in Air and breath out Air

C. I Dont Know C. None previous days

D. You Breath in Oxygen and Breath out D. Arma

Carbon Dioxide
399. The diaphragm is found:
395. The diaphragm is defined as A. At the back of the throat.
A. the primary muscle used in the pro- B. Below the larynx.
C. Under the epiglottis.
cle.
D. Under the rib cage.
B. the tube that takes air into the chest,
also known as the windpipe. 400. Which part of the Respiratory System al-
C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles, lows you to speak?
where gaseous exchange takes place. A. nose
D. a type of protein found in every red B. pharynx
blood cell. C. larynx
396. What is bronchoscopy? D. trachea
A. Test performed on blood serum to de- 401. At the end of broncioles are thin walled
tect the presence of streptolysin enzyme sacs called what?
O, which is secreted by beta-hemolytic
A. trachea
streptococcus. Positive results indicate
streptococcal infection. B. bronchi
B. Visual examination of the larynx, tra- C. alveoli
chea, and bronchi via a flexible broncho- D. pneumonia
scope.
402. Which body structure protects the lungs
C. Test measures the acidity (pH) and the
from outside harm?
levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the
blood. A. Cartilage
D. Test performed on sputum to detect B. Tiny Sacs
the presence of Mycobacterium tubercu- C. The Rib Cage
losis, an acid-fast bacilli. Positive results
D. none of above
indicate tuberculosis.
403. Layman’s term of dyspnea
397. Which properly describes inhalation?
A. Difficulty in breathing
A. ribs go down and out
B. Shortness of breath
B. pressure is low causing air to rush in
C. Breathlessness
C. pressure is high causing air to rush in
D. All of the above
D. volume is low
404. Inside the lungs, the bronchi divide into
398. What is a disease of the respiratory sys- smaller tubes. At the end of these tubes,
tem? there are tiny sacs called
A. Asma A. Pharynx
B. Diarrhea B. Trachea

C. Lungs 410. How does frog in stage of tadpole breath

D. Alveoli through?
A. Lungs
405. Mucus and these tiny hairs filter the air
B. Gills
we breathe and capture bacteria and pollu-
tion we breathe in C. Skin
A. Cilia D. Same as frog in adult stage
B. Trachea 411. The circulatory system works with the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Flagela system to provide our body with oxy-
gen and get rid of CO2 (carbon dioxide).
D. none of above
A. respiratory
406. In an insects trachea, the air enters or B. digestive
leaves through breathing pores known as
C. muscular
A. valves D. skeletal
B. tracheoles
412. healthy are usually pink in color. You
C. spiracles have two of these.
D. air sac A. alveoli
407. Which of the following is NOT part of B. epiglottis
the conducting zone of the respiratory sys- C. lungs
tem? D. trachea
A. Trachea
413. Which of the following are gases that can
B. Bronchi be found in the air around us? (Choose
C. Pharynx more than one)
D. Alveoli A. Oxygen
B. Carbon Dioxide
408. Which of the following is not a direct
“team member” of the respiratory sys- C. Nitrogen
tem? D. Water Vapour
A. Urinary 414. We have two
B. Nervous A. hearts
C. Muscular B. lungs
D. Cardiovascular (circulatory) C. stomachs
409. Muscular structure that helps to expand D. none of above
and contract the lungs, forcing air in and 415. The voice box is anatomically known as
out the
A. Pharynx A. Pharynx
B. Nasal cavity B. Larynx
C. Alveoli C. Trachea
D. Diaphragm D. Epiglottis

416. What is gas exchange? 421. It is the center of our face?

A. When oxygen and carbon dioxide are A. nose

exchanged
B. eyes
B. When air escapes the lungs
C. ears
C. A gas station
D. none of above
D. Farting on a friend
422. known as the voice box
417. The only externally visible part of the res-
A. windpipe
piratory system
B. larynx
A. Eyes
C. pharynx
B. Nose
D. epiglottis
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx 423. What does the rib cage protect?
A. lungs
418. The is the place where your body has
its last chance to absorb nutrients and wa- B. heart
ter from the food you have eaten and it
C. legs
is also the place where the leftovers are
turned into waste. D. arms
A. mouth
424. Flap of tissue that covers the opening to
B. esophagus the windpipe during swallowing
C. small intestine A. Pharynx
D. large intestine B. Trachea
C. Epiglottis
419. Which of the following are features of
the alveoli that adapt them to gas ex- D. bronchioles
change? I. High surface areaII. Thin wall-
sIII. Dry surfaces 425. alveolus, air sac
A. I and II only A. alveol/o
B. I only B. epiglott/o
C. II and III C. lob/o
D. I, II and III D. bronchiol/o
420. The biggest respiratory organ 426. What connects our throat to our lungs
A. Trachea A. Pleura
B. Diaphragm B. Voicebox
C. Lungs C. Trachea
D. Alveoli D. Diaphragm

427. Which process moves gases over short 432. What is the composition of inhaled air?
distances?
A. 20% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide
A. Diffusion
B. 16% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide
B. Bulk Flow
C. 79% nitrogen and 20% oxygen
C. Cellular Respiration
D. Inspiration D. 20% oxygen and four hundredths of 1%
carbon dioxide
428. Respiration is defined as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. amount of air inspired and expired 433. It is the process of breathing in oxygen.
with each normal breath during rest or ex- A. exhalation
ercise.
B. inhalation
B. is the greatest amount of air that can
be made to pass into and out of the lungs C. respiration
by the most forceful inspiration and expi- D. digestion
ration.
C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs 434. Which lung is bigger?
to the bloodstream and the removal of car- A. Left
bon dioxide from the tissues.
B. Right
D. the movement of air from outside the
body into the cells within tissues. C. Same Size
429. How are you doing today? D. none of above

A. Great!
435. What is the respiratory system?
B. Okay
A. The respiratory system is the system
C. Meh that helps circulate our blood .
D. I’ve been better
B. The respiratory system is the system
E. I’m not doing my best today that takes in oxygen and takes the un-
needed particles and creates carbon diox-
430. the gas known as is needed to stay
ide.
alive and properly.
C. The respiratory system is a system
A. oxygen
that is similar to the circulatory system.
B. carbon dioxide
D. The respiratory system is a system
C. nitrogen that holds the heart as an internal organ.
D. helium
436. Which of the following is in the correct
431. Which part of the Respiratory System order when you breathe air in?
plays a major role in speech?
A. nasal cavity, trachea, pharynx
A. nose
B. pharynx B. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea
C. larynx C. bronchi tubes, trachea, alveoli
D. trachea D. alveoli, trachea, bronchi

437. The function of the respiratory system to C. trachea

rid the body of D. Esophagous

A. carbon dioxide
443. Why does your body need oxygen?
B. oxygen
A. it is an ingredient used in cellular res-
C. nitrogen piration and make energy
D. carbon trioxide B. To breathe
438. What does the respiratory system do? C. To use for removing carbon dioxide
A. Help you inhale, exhale, and swallow D. none of above
B. Help you speak 444. The average adult lung capacity is about
C. What is this? A trick question?
D. none of above A. 2 liters (1/2 gallon)
B. 4.5 liters (1.2 gallons)
439. Which of these is NOT an adaptation of
the alveoli for efficient gas exchange? C. 3.5 liters (.9 gallons)
A. Large surface area D. 1 liter (1/4 gallon)
B. thick walls 445. What am I? I divide in 2 and lead to each

lung.
C. moist membranes
A. Bronchioles
D. a constant flow of blood through capil-
laries B. Bronchi
C. Alveoli
440. An inflammation or infection of the lungs
characterized by exudate (fluid/pus) in D. Trachea
the alveoli.
446. When you inspire the ribs move
A. pneumonia A. Up and out
B. tuberculosis B. Up and in
C. asthma C. Down and out
D. emphysema D. Down and in
441. traps and filters out dust and parti- 447. When we breathe, the diaphragm goes
cles. up and pushes out of our lungs.
A. Lungs A. oxygen
B. Nose filter B. carbon dioxide
C. Mouth C. gas
D. Cilia D. none of above
442. wich of thesse is in the respiratory and 448. What happen to the muscle of the di-
digestive system? aphragm when you breath out?
A. Larynx A. relaxes
B. Pharynx B. contracts

C. expand 454. Males have an Adam’s apple because the

D. nothing happen vocal cords are
A. larger
449. The main function of the respiratory sys-
tem is to deliver to your cells. This B. wider
allows them to undergo respiration, allow- C. smaller
ing them to function, grow and repair. D. twisted
A. oxygen
455. What are the main organs in the respira-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. blood tory system?
C. carbon dioxide A. heart
D. sweat B. lungs
450. oxygen moves from the alveoli to the cap- C. stomach
illaries via D. intestines
A. Diffusion
456. How many molecules of oxygen can each
B. Magic hemoglobin theoretically carry?
C. A complex chemical equation A. 4
D. Sheer willpower B. 12
451. What is the site of gas exchange? C. 1
A. alveoli D. 2
B. nose 457. What do we let out when we exhale?
C. lung A. oxygen
D. bronchi B. Carbon dioxide
452. The trachea is defined as C. lungs
A. the primary muscle used in the pro- D. none of above
cle. 458. Tiny hairlike structures that line your
nose and most other airways of the res-
B. the tube that takes air into the chest, piratory system.
also known as the windpipe.
A. larynx
C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles,
where gaseous exchange takes place. B. alveoli
D. a type of protein found in every red C. cilia
blood cell. D. diaphragm
453. What would happen if your respiratory 459. In the , the oxygen from the air goes
system stopped working for a while? into our blood.
A. you would get a transplant A. stomach
B. you would die B. lungs
C. nothing C. liver
D. hard to get oxygen D. none of above

460. What is the waste product in our bod- C. It moistens and warms the air taken in
ies? from the nose.

A. Oxygen D. It helps in the movement of organs in-
B. Carbon Dioxide volved in breathing.
C. Eyelashes
465. What is the function of the skull?
D. Blackheads
A. to protect the brain
461. The bronchus (bronchi) are defined as B. support the muscle in your face
A. the primary muscle used in the pro-
C. to help you breathe
cle. D. to help you move
B. the tube that takes air into the chest,
also known as the windpipe. 466. Amphibians breathe through
C. tube along which air passes from the A. Trachea

trachea into the lungs. B. Lung
D. a type of protein found in every red C. Moist outer skins
blood cell.
D. Stoma
462. Which is the odd one out? Gaseous ex-
change is aided by 467. An animal that produces little internal
A. Alveoli is covered in capillaries body heat (cold blood) is called
B. A large blood supply A. Ectotherm
C. walls one cell thick B. Endotherm
D. Valves C. Coldy
463. What is respiration? D. Regulater
A. The movement of oxygen from the out-
side environment to the cells within tis- 468. The left lung is smaller because
sues A. God said so
B. The removal of carbon dioxide and B. Most people are right handed, and
other waste products from the tissues need more oxygen on the right side
C. The way that energy is released from C. It needs to leave space for the heart
glucose in living cells
D. Right is Right
D. The movement of air through the res-
piratory system
469. What is included in the circulatory sys-
464. How does the muscular system help the tem? Select ALL that apply.
respiratory system? A. veins
A. It monitors and controls the breathing B. capillaries
rate
C. heart
B. It helps absorb carbon dioxide sup-
plied by the blood. D. arteries

470. What is it called when oxygen combines 475. What is the correct name for the voice
with haemoglobin? box?
A. Oxyhaemoglobin A. Trachea
B. Oxygenated Haemoglobin B. Bronchus
C. Oxygenglobin C. Bronchiole
D. Haemoglobin with O2 D. Larynx
NARAYAN CHANGDER
476. There are tiny hairs in the respiratory
471. What causes change in pressure when we
system that help filter out harmful parti-
breathe?
cles in the air we breathe. These hairs are
A. Carbon dioxide levels called
B. Oxygen levels A. mucus
C. Diaphragm movement B. vocal cords
D. Hypoxia C. cilia
D. flagella
472. What is the main bone structure that pro-
tects the lungs 477. Which best describes the pathway of
air?
A. Vertebrae
A. Nose/MouthTrachea Bronchioles Alve-
B. Rib cage
oli Gaseous Exchange
C. Skull
B. Nose/Mouth EsophagusBronchi Bron-
D. Pelvis chioles
C. Nose/Mouth TracheaBronchi Bronchi-
473. Which of these is NOT a job of the Respi-
olesAlveoli
ratory System?
D. Nose/MouthTrachea Bronchioles-
A. it warms the air Bronchi Alveoli
B. it exchanges O2 and CO2
478. choose the correct pathway air travels
C. It pumps blood to the organs though into the lungs
D. it creates sound through the larynx A. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-
chea, bronchiole, bronchi, alveoli
474. Which is the correct order of structures
B. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-
that air passes through?
chea, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli
A. Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles →
C. Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, tra-
alveoli
chea, bronchi, alveoli, bronchiole
B. Bronchi → trachea→ bronchioles →
D. Nasal passage, trachea, pharynx, lar-
alveoli
ynx, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli
C. Bronchioles → bronchi → trachea →
alveoli 479. Microscopic sacs are called:
D. Trachea → bronchioles ? bronchi A. alveoli

→ alveoli B. bronchi

C. villi 485. What Do The Lungs Do?

D. none of above A. Change the oxygen to carbon dioxide.

B. Helps you digest
480. What structure is a passageway for both
food and air? C. There is no reason for them, there just
there
A. Pharynx
D. I dont understand this
B. Bronchus
C. Trachea 486. Our pumps blood around the body.
D. Larynx A. lungs
B. diaphragm
481. What is the name of the passages that
enables air to pass into the Alveoli? C. heart
D. none of above
A. Bronchi
B. Trachea 487. A chamber behind the nose and mouth
that leads to the trachea
C. Pharynx
A. pharynx
D. Bronchioles
B. trachea
482. What is another name for our windpipe? C. epiglottis
A. Pharynx D. larynx
B. Larynx
488. What is the function of “The Respiratory
C. Trachea System”
D. Diaphragm A. A way of breathing
483. After the nose, air passes into the B. Brings oxygen into the body and elim-
iates the waste carbon dioxide through
A. larynx breathing
B. pharynx C. To rest your body
C. bronchi D. A system to Respirate? ? ? ?
D. bronchioles
489. How do frogs keep their skin moist?
484. Which sequence correctly indicates the A. Always get into the water
branching pattern of the human respira-
B. Live near the water source
tory system?
C. Secrete mucus
A. trachea → bronchi → bronchioles →
alveoli D. Use their saliva
B. trachea → bronchioles → bronchi → 490. Select the answer that is most scientifi-
alveoli cally accurate:
C. alveoli → trachea → bronchioles → A. air goes in and out and that’s how our
bronchi body gets oxygen
D. alveoli → bronchioles → trachea → B. air gets delivered to our cells through
bronchi some pipes

2.8 Hormones 434
C. oxygen is absorbed from the air and 493. What is RDS?

delivered to our cells A. intravenous
D. oxygen diffuses from the air in our B. respiratory distress syndrome
lungs, into our blood cells which then
transport the oxygen to our cells C. oxygen
D. shortness of breath
491. What is the function of the “Bronchi”
494. Oxygen + food(sugar) =ENERGY and
A. They are infinte braches of the trachea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
CO2 and water is given off
and carry air to the lungs
A. External
B. They are one braches of the trachea
and carry air to the lungs B. Internal
C. Cellular
C. They are three braches of the trachea
and carry air to the lungs D. none of above
D. They are two braches of the trachea 495. What is the definition of Heart Rate (HR)
and carry air to the lungs
A. Volume of blood pumped out of the left
492. or ventricle per beat
B. Number of times the heart beats per
A. one who takes action or does some-
hour
thing
C. Number of times the heart beats per
B. voice
minute
C. breathing
D. Volume of blood pumped out of the
D. none of above heart
2.8 Hormones
1. what hormone lowers blood glucose lev- A. Adrenaline
els? B. Calcitonin
A. Insulin
C. Estrogen
B. Aldosterone
D. Melatonin
C. Protein
D. none of above 4. Which plant hormones stimulates cell divi-
sion?
2. What does auxin maintain high levels of in
A. abscisic acid
the shoot?
B. auxin
A. Ethene
B. Abscisic acid C. cytokinins
C. Cytokinins D. gibberellin
D. Maltose E. ethylene
3. Which hormone regulates sleep and wake 5. is a plant’s response to the number of
cycles? hours of darkness in its environment.

2.8 Hormones 435
A. plant hormones 11. If you break the tip of the stem off of a
B. tropism plant, what will not happen?

C. night A. thigmotropism
D. photoperiodism B. phototropism
C. geotropism
6. To deal with small pests, some plants have
sharp hair-like structures called D. plant growth
A. Trichomes 12. A rapid, automatic response to a stimulus

B. needles is called a:
C. spines A. a reflect arc
D. none of above B. a reflex action

C. a reflex response
7. Abscisic acid
D. a motor nerve
A. Coleoptile tip & Apical dominance
B. Fruits & Ripening 13. Which of the following is considered the
“master endocrine gland”?
C. Chloroplast & Abscission
A. hypothalamus
D. Coconut milk & Cell division
B. anterior pituitary gland
E. Gibberellafujikuroi & Internodalelon-
gation C. posterior pituitary gland
D. none of above
8. A growth movement away from a stimulus
is called 14. During water deficiency and drought the
A. positive tropism concentration of increases.
B. positive phototropism A. Auxins
C. negative tropism B. Cytokinins
D. none of above C. Gibberellins

D. Abscisic acid
9. What cells in the body monitor blood glu-
cose? 15. which plant hormone helps in breaking the
A. Pancreatic Cells dormancy of plant?
B. Liver Cells A. Auxin
C. Kidney Cells B. Gibberellin
D. Bladder Cells C. Cytokinins

D. Ethylene
10. ABA, or Abscisic acid, would likely cause
which of the follow to occur? 16. Insulin and glucagon are produced by
A. Closing of stomata A. the liver
B. Cell elongation B. the pancreas
C. Tropisms C. the kidneys
D. Fruit ripening D. none of above

2.8 Hormones 436
17. Which is not a requirement for germination C. The birth of new Neurons
of a seed? D. Calming Your Brain.
A. Favorable Temperature
23. Auxins are produced in
B. light
A. leaf tip
C. fertilizer
D. sufficient moisture B. shoot tip
C. flower tip
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Chemical produced in one part of the plant
that affects another area of the plant in D. seed
response to a stimulus is a
24. Newcomer’s aim was
A. Hormone
A. to investigate whether high levels of
B. xylem cortisol interfere with verbal declarative
C. cambium memories (LTM-facts and events)
D. none of above B. to study the role of emotion on the cre-
ation of memories
19. What is the hormone that we call the love
hormone? C. to determine the role of acetylcholine
in the formation of spatial memories
A. Endorphins
D. none of above
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine 25. The main function of the plant hormone
called abscisic acid is to
D. Oxytocin
A. Promote growth of stem and roots
20. The GI tract produces a hormone, ,
B. Increase the length of cells
which aids in digestion.
A. triiodothyronine C. Promote cell division
B. gastrin D. Inhibit growth
C. thyroxine 26. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) is

D. thymosin produced by the and targets the
A. pituitary, adrenal
21. May oppose the effects of auxins
B. adrenal, hypothalamus
A. abscisic acid
B. auxin C. adrenal, pituitary
C. cytokinins D. adrenal, kidneys
D. gibberellin 27. Which plant growth hormone promotes

E. ethylene cell division?
A. Auxin
22. Brain Plasticity refers to the process of
B. Cytokinin
A. Removing neural connections that are
not used. C. ABA
B. The formation of new neural networks. D. Ethylene

2.8 Hormones 437
28. Final stage in cell division 34. Which of the following is a role of LH?
A. Cytokinins A. Stimulates ovulation

B. Auxin B. Stimulates repair and maintenance of
endometrial lining
C. Abscisic Acid
C. Stimulates follicle development
D. none of above
D. Inhibits FSH
29. which of these hormones will signal cells
to uptake glucose from the blood? 35. Which term refers to the body’s use of en-
ergy for energy and growth?
A. FSH
A. Excretion
B. Insulin
B. Metabolism
C. Adrenaline
C. Digestion
D. Glucagon
D. Respiration
30. Most plants produce flowers when
36. increase reabsorption of water by kidney
A. the nights are the right length
A. ACTH
B. the days are the right length
B. ADH
C. a certain number of days have passed
C. PTH
since they last flowered
D. glucagon
D. the soil reaches a certain temperature
37. Which term means the growth of the seed
31. The master gland of the endocrine system
in the ground?
is the gland.
A. seed development
A. pineal
B. dormancy
B. pituitary
C. pollination
C. thyroid
D. germination
D. thymus
38. where are hormone produced?
32. A seed can move by wind, water, and
A. liver
A. clouds
B. brain
B. singing
C. glands
C. cars
D. neurons
D. animals
39. Assertion
33. What hormone is produced in the pancreas
A. If both A and R are true and R is cor-
that lowers blood sugar?
rectexplanation of A
A. Insulin
B. If both A and R are true but R is not
B. Glucagon thecorrect explanation of A
C. Ketones C. A is true but R is false
D. Glucose D. Both A and R are false

2.8 Hormones 438
40. Which of these hormones increase carbo- 45. Gravitropism and are the same thing.
hydrate metabolism? A. Geotropism
A. triiodothyronine B. Phototropism
B. oxytocin C. Thigmotropism
C. melatonin D. Triangular Prism
D. aldosterone 46. Norepinephrine and epinephrine are pro-
duced by the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. Which gland secretes oxytocin?
A. hypothalamus
A. Adrenal cortex B. adrenal glands
B. Anterior pituitary C. thalamus
C. Pineal D. pineal gland
D. Posterior pituitary 47. Examples of dwarf plants where gib-
berellins cause rapid growth are
42. Cytokinins are a class of plant hormones
that help regulate growth by promoting A. Grapes, Cabbage, Corn
cell division. Cytokinins are produced B. Deciduous trees
mainly in meristematic tissue, where most C. Bananas, Avocado
plant growth occurs. Which system carries
cytokinins produced in the roots to the rest D. Watermelon, Rockmelon, Honeydew
of the plant? melon
A. vascular system 48. Hormone that can keep cut flowers fresh
for longer
B. dermal system
A. Auxin
C. reproductive system
B. Ethylene
D. none of these C. Absisic Acid
43. Which of the following is not a human hor- D. Cytokinins
mone? 49. Which hormone is released due to a neural
A. Serotonin stimulus?
B. Adrenalin A. Antidiuretic hormone
C. LH B. Epinephrine
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Pituitary
D. Melatonin
44. In what form is carbohydrate stored in the
50. What determines whether a cell is a target
liver?
cell for a particular signal molecule?
A. Glucose
A. phosphorylation cascade
B. Starch B. cAMP
C. Glycogen C. signal receptors
D. Glucagon D. phosphatase

2.8 Hormones 439
51. The part of the brain associated with the 56. Venus Flytrap flower reacts to a bug.
formation of Memories. A. Nastic Movement

A. Frontal Lobe
B. Negative Gravitropism
B. Amygdala
C. Thigmotropism
C. Striatum
D. Hydrotropism
D. Hippocampus
57. Which of the following hormone promotes
52. Localization of Function refers to the idea the growth of lateral bud meristem?
that
A. Auxins
A. We only use 10% of our brain.
B. Cytokinins
B. Our brains are always changing and
developing throughout our lives. C. Gibberellins
C. Different parts of the brain are respon- D. none of above
sible for different behaviors.
58. The primary male hormone is
D. Our brains learn by forming neural con-
nections that are strengthen through re- A. adrenocorticoptrophic (ACTH)
peated use. B. thymosin
53. Which plant hormone is heavily involved in C. estrogen
cell division and metabolism? D. testosterone
A. auxin
59. Hormone produced by the thymus
B. cytokinin
A. thyroxin
C. gibberellin
B. testosterone
D. ethylene
C. thymus
54. What will be happening in a person after
eight hours of sleep? D. thymosin
A. β cells in the pancreas will be produc- 60. The normal human body temperature is
ing insulin.
A. 35 ◦ C
B. Glucose will be converted into
B. 37 ◦ C
glucagon.
C. 34 ◦ C
C. α cells in the pancreas will be produc-
ing glucagon. D. 40 ◦ C
D. Glycogen is being produced and stored 61. Which one of the following symptoms is
in the liver and muscle cells. most likely to occur if a person has an over-
55. Phototropism is a tendency of a plant to active thyroid gland?
A. increased blood flow to the skin sur-
A. Grow towards light face
B. Grow towards water B. slower metabolism
C. Grow towards nutrients C. weight loss
D. none of above D. blurred vision

2.8 Hormones 440
62. pg 120 What do we call a chemical that 67. Plants provide all the following EXCEPT
effects how plants grow and develop? A. plastics
A. hormone B. Fuel
B. auxin C. Medicine
C. photoperiodism D. Food
D. cnl 68. Two hormones associated with the female

reproductive cycle are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
63. The response of an organism to seasonal A. oxytocin and prolactin
changes in day length is
B. prolactin and estrogen
A. Short day plants C. oxytocin and estrogen
B. Photosynthesis D. progesterone and estrogen
C. Photoperiodism 69. A plant growing in response to the sun-
D. Evaporation light.
A. Gravitropism
64. Which hormone helps create female sex
B. Phototropism
characteristics?
C. Thigmotropism
A. Thyroxine
D. Hydrotropism
B. Testosterone
70. Vasoconstriction is:
C. Estrogen
A. the shortening of arterioles supplying
D. Progesterone skin surface capillaries
B. the widening of arterioles supplying
65. An Alaskan trapper worried about being
skin surface capillaries
attacked by grizzly bears left the lights on
in his cabin all the time. Plants just outside C. the narrowing of arterioles supplying
the cabin flowered a month early. Which skin surface capillaries
of the following best explains this? D. All of the above
A. The lights must have emitted far-red 71. Substances that act as chemical messen-
light. gers within plants controlling functions
B. It was due to phototropism. A. Chemicals
C. They must have been long-day plants. B. Plant Hormones
D. They must have been long-night plants. C. Adrenaline
D. Photosynthesis
66. Changes in an organisms environment that
cause a response 72. A factor that would not affect reaction
time is:
A. Tropism
A. Tiredness
B. Hormone B. Gender
C. Stimuli C. Age
D. Response D. Drug use

2.8 Hormones 441
73. Which of these would allow you to in- 78. The organ that produces atrial natriuretic
crease your body temperature if it went peptide hormone is the
below 37oC?

A. pituitary gland
A. Sweating B. heart
B. Vasoconstriction C. spleen
C. Vasodilation D. kidney
D. Shivering 79. The control of the internal environment in
E. Increase in metabolism (respiration) the body is called:
A. positive feedback loops
74. What hormone speeds up the rate at which
a plant’s cells grow? B. Internal balance system
C. homeostasis
A. hormone
D. hemeostatic
B. auxin
C. darknessium 80. The root of a plant growing down is be-
cause of which tropism?
D. visuals
A. Positive Gravitropism
75. Shoots, stems, and leaves growing up B. Negative Gravitropism
away from the earth is an example of C. Thigmotropism
A. negative geotropism D. Hydrotropism
B. positive geotropism
81. What is the plant’s growth toward or
C. positive thigmotropism away from light?
D. negative thigmotropism A. hormones
B. phototropism
76. Which of the following are the two hor-
mones that can make seedless grapes C. tropism
when sprayed on plants? D. stimuli
A. Ethylene 82. What can we do to increase endorphins,
B. Gibberellin the hormone of happiness?
C. Auxin A. eat dark chocolate
D. Abscisic acid B. exercice
E. Cytokinins C. laugh, have fun
D. eat spicy food
77. Causes apical dominance
83. Hormones released by endocrine glands
A. abscisic acid travel to
B. auxin A. the lungs
C. cytokinins B. the heart
D. gibberellin C. individual target cells
E. ethylene D. the brain

2.8 Hormones 442
84. Which of the following plant hormone pro- 89. The female menstrual cycle is controlled
motes apical dominance in plants? by:
A. Auxins A. Oestrogen, Progesterone, LH, oxytocin
B. Cytokinins & FSH
C. Gibberellins B. Oestrogen, LH & FSH

D. Abcisic acid C. Oestrogen & Progesterone
D. Oestrogen, Progesterone, LH & FSH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
85. The hormone, oxytocin, is produced by the
, but it is stored in the posterior lobe 90. A vine plant brushes against a fence and
of the pituitary gland. wraps itself around the fence. To what re-
A. thyroid gland sponse is the stimulus is the plant respond-
ing to?
B. hypothalamus
A. phototropism
C. adrenal gland
B. gravitropism
D. thalamus
C. thigmotropism
86. Cell signaling involves converting extracel-
D. none of above
lular signals to specific responses inside
the target cell. Which of the following best 91. If you wanted to genetically engineer a
describes how a cell initially responds to a plant to be more resistant to drought, in-
signal? creasing amounts of which of the following
A. The cell experiences a change in recep- hormones might be a good first attempt?
torconformation A. abscisic acid
B. Thecell experiences an influx of ions B. brassinosteroids
C. Thecell experiences an increase in pro- C. gibberellins
tein kinase activity
D. cytokinins
D. Thecell experiences G protein activa-
tion 92. Storing water has allowed desert plants
to
87. Which hormone is released when
blood/calcium levels rise? A. limit use of sunlight
A. Calcitonin B. never get thirsty
B. Follicle stimulating C. adapt to their environment
C. Parathyroid hormone D. none of above
D. Prolactin 93. Ethylene
88. Thyroxine and calcitonin are produced by A. Coleoptile tip Or Apical dominance
the gland. B. Fruits & Ripening
A. adrenal C. Chloroplast & Abscission
B. thymus D. Coconut milk & Cell division
C. thyroid E. Gibberellafujikuroi & Internodalelon-
D. pituitary gation

2.8 Hormones 443
94. A plant hormone which promotes leaf de- 100. What is stimulus
tachment A. External action

A. Abscisic Acid B. External reaction
B. Cytokinesis C. Internal action
C. Auxin D. Internal reaction
D. none of above
101. Plants that flower when exposed to less
95. the nervous system allows humans to re- than 10 to 12 hours of darkness are called
act to their surroundings. Which word de-
scribes a change in the environment? A. long-day plants
A. an effector B. short-day plants
B. a neurone C. day-neutral plants
C. a stimulus D. none of the above
D. a sensor
102. In which form is glucose stored in animal
96. Which of the following plant hormones is cells?
responsible for inhibiting growth in devel- A. glucagon
oping leaves and germinating seeds?
B. glucose
A. abscisic acid
C. starch
B. Traumalin acid
D. glycogen
C. cytokinin
D. ethylene 103. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is re-
sponsible for the
97. Which one is not part of the skin: A. production of milk
A. hair erector muscles B. production of sperm
B. receptors C. release of eggs by the ovaries
C. cilia D. response in an emergency
D. blood vessels
104. What hormone is important in making
98. Which hormone promotes seed germina- roots and shoots?
tion? A. cytokinins
A. abscisic acid B. auxins
B. ethylene C. abscisic acid
C. gibberellin D. ethylene
D. auxin
105. The time when a seed sprouts when its
99. Write the name of a synthetic auxin. need for water, air, and warmth is met
A. IAAIndole-3-Acetic Acid A. pollination
B. 2, 4 D2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid B. germinate
C. PAAPhenyl Acetic Acid C. dormancy
D. IANIndole 3 Acetonitrile D. pistil

2.8 Hormones 444
106. Causes the enlargement of fruits 112. What do CNS & PNS stand for?
A. abscisic acid A. Central Nervous System & Permanent
B. auxin Nervous System
C. cytokinins B. Cat’s Nervous System & Pig’s Nervous

System
D. gibberellin
C. Co-ordinating Nervous System & Per-
E. ethylene manent Nervous System
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. Which substance is essential for thyrox- D. Central Nervous System & Peripheral
ine synthesis? Nervous System
A. Nitrogen 113. which of the following is NOT regulated
B. Calcium by homeostasis?
C. iron A. water
D. Iodine B. temperature
C. sugar
108. Geotropism is a phenomenon when
D. fat
A. The plant response to light
B. The plant response to water 114. Ketone bodies are formed by breakdown
of
C. The plant response to soil
D. The plant response to gravity A. Amino acid
B. Fatty acid
109. Responsible for female sexual develop-
ment and the menstrual cycle C. Glucose
A. Oestrogen D. They are taken in food
B. Testosterone 115. What can auxin be used for in industry?

C. Progesterone A. Increase fruit yeild
D. Glucagon B. Rooting powder
110. Which gland secretes prolactin? C. Pest resistant
A. Anterior pituitary D. Selective weedkiller
B. Posterior pituitary 116. The part of the brain associated with

C. Thyroid STRESS
D. Pineal A. Frontal Lobe

B. Amygdala
111. A deciduous tree will its leaves in
winter C. Striatum
A. lose D. Hippocampus
B. re-orientate 117. What is function of cytokinin

C. grow more A. Cell division
D. keep B. Stem formation

2.8 Hormones 445
C. Stops apical dominance B. hormones

D. Opens stomata C. Homeostasis

E. All D. Negative Feedback
118. Which hormone is responsible final body 123. What is a response that results in plant
size? growth toward or away from a stimulus?
A. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone A. hormones
B. Human growth hormone
B. photoperiodism
C. Thyroid hormone
C. tropism
D. T3
D. stimuli
119. When you are dehydrated what out of
the following options will happen? [3] 124. Which of the following is a plant hor-
mone?
A. Less ADH will be secreted by the pitu-
itary. A. Insulin
B. More water will be reabsorbed back B. Thyroxine
into the blood. C. Estrogen
C. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus D. Cytokinin
will detect increased blood concentration.
D. The volume of urine will increase. 125. The growth of a plant in response to light
is called
E. More ADH will be secreted by the pitu-
itary. A. Phototropism
120. Which hormone is responsible for target- B. Hydrotropism

ing the kidney tubules to absorb water? C. Gravitropism
A. Adrenlaine D. Photosynthesis
B. Aldosterone
126. The movement of a plant in response to
C. Antidiuretic hormone an environmental stimulus is called a
D. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone A. hormone.
121. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is stored in B. receptor.
the pituitary gland is responsible for the
C. tropism
retention of
D. cytokinin.
A. gas
B. salt 127. The root of a plant grows towards the
C. minerals earth, because of which tropism?
D. water A. Positive Geotropism
B. Negative Geotropism
122. Structure of the Endocrine System which
produces and releases hormones. C. Thigmotropism
A. Endocrine Glands D. Hydrotropism

2.8 Hormones 446
128. When the plant responds to water C. a chemical substance produced by an

A. Phototropism organ and carried by the blood.
B. Gravitropism D. a chemical substance produced by a

gland and carried by the blood.
C. Hydrotropism
D. Thigmotropism 133. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) does which
of the following?
129. McGaugh and Cahill results were: A. stops the ovarian cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The scoplamine group took longer and B. releases energy from fat cells
made more mistakes in the maze
C. slows urine production to save water
B. Original version-the participants who
heard the more emotional story had bet- D. raises blood sugar levels
ter recall. But in the follow up with the 134. when a plant is wounded, the hormone
beta blocker-they did no better than the that repaired is
group with the mundane story.
A. auxin
C. high levels of cortisol impaired their
memory performance-although it was not B. traumatic acid
permanent. Moderate levels of the corti- C. gibberellin
sol may have actually assisted the recall D. ethylene
of the passage.
D. none of above 135. which of these occurs to the action of
auxin?
130. Regulates the activities of other glands A. flow of hydrogen ions out of the cell
A. ovaries wall into the cytoplasm.
B. testes B. movement of water through the stom-
C. thymus ata
D. hypothalamus C. flow of hydrogen ions from the cyto-

plasm into the cell wall.
131. Which of the following is the hormone D. division of cell du to the internal pres-
that promotes cell division, suppresses sure of water
leaf aging, and makes blooms last longer?
A. Ethylene 136. Cortisol is a hormone in the body most
closely related with which behavior?
B. Gibberellin
A. Forming Social Bonds
C. Auxin
B. Stress Reactions
D. Abscisic acid
C. Sleep
E. Cytokinins
D. Reward Seeking Behavior
132. A hormone is
137. Stimulates dramatic stem growth
A. a chemical substance produced by a
gland and carried by the lymph. A. abscisic acid
B. an enzyme produced by a gland and B. auxin

carried by the blood. C. cytokinins

2.8 Hormones 447
D. gibberellin 143. A hormone that promotes cell divi-

sion, or , in plants roots and shoots
E. ethylene

A. Cytokinins
138. Which of the following hormones is/are B. Abscisic acid
involved in the germination of seeds?
C. Cytokinesis
A. Cytokinin
D. Auxins
B. Ethene
144. What type of tropism is involved when
C. Gibberellin stems grow away from gravity?
D. All of these A. phototropism
B. gravitropism
139. A plant’s response to touch-like stimuli.
C. thigmotropism
A. Gravitropism
B. Thigmotropism
145. What is the male gland that secretes
C. Photoperiodism
testosterone?
D. none of above A. Ovaries
140. Which hormone is responsible for the let- B. Pituitary
down reflex in breastfeeding women? C. Testes
A. Oxytocin D. Adrenal glands
B. Progesterone 146. Infer:Hydrotropism is
C. Prolactin A. The plant response to water
D. Thymosin B. The plant response to light
C. The plant response to gravity
141. what is a synapse?
D. The plant response to soil
A. a section of the spinal cord
147. To increase the sugar production insugar-
B. the gap between two neurons canes they are sprayed with
C. the space where an electrical impulse A. Auxin
travels
B. Cytokinin
D. the gap between the brain and the
C. Gibberellins
spinal cord
D. Ethylene
142. hormones that produced in root and trav-
148. This tissue produces new cells it increase
eling up the stem through the xylem
plant length
A. auxin A. ground tissues
B. cytokinin B. meristematic tissues
C. Gibberelin C. vascular tissues
D. Kalin D. none of above

2.8 Hormones 448
149. Which one is NOT the effect of the re- C. hypothalamus

lease of adrenaline on the heart rate, glu-
D. cerebellum
cose concentration and pupil
A. heart rate increased 155. There are main hormone-producing
B. glucose concentration increased glands in the body.
C. glucose concentration decreased A. 7
D. pupil dilates B. 16
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 10
150. The part of the brain associated with De-
cision Making and Social Judgments D. 8
A. Frontal Lobe
156. Why is auxin used as a rooting powder?
B. Amygdala
A. Increase fruit development
C. Striatum
B. Provide greater intake of mineral ions
D. Hippocampus
C. Stimulate root growth from stem cut-
151. Hormones produced by the gland reg- tings
ulate oxygen consumption and the rate of D. none of above
metabolism.
A. adrenal 157. The pigments involved in the flowering
process (and other developmental events
B. pituitary
in plants) are
C. thymus
A. Chlorophyll
D. thyroid
B. Phytochromes
152. Which one of the following is a Gaseous C. Anthocyanin
plant Hormone?
D. Photoperiodism
A. Auxin
B. Ethylene 158. Hypoglycemia results from low sugar lev-
C. Cytokinin els due to the
D. ABA A. absence of insulin

B. presence of too much insulin
153. Which hormones Inhibit cell division?
C. presence of iodine and calcium
A. abscisic acid
D. lack of sugar in one’s diet
B. auxin
C. cytokinins 159. Which hormone stimulates stem growth,
D. gibberellin cell elongation and cell division.
A. Gibberellin
154. Which part of the brain is involved in con-
trolling body temperature? B. Abscisic Acid
A. medulla C. Auxin
B. pituitary gland D. Ethylene

2.8 Hormones 449
160. Charles and Francis Darwin concluded 165. When a plant drops its leaves and ap-
from their experiments on phototropism pears to be dead it has gone into
by grass seedlings that the part of the

A. Hibernation
seedling that detects the direction of light
is the B. Migration
A. tip of the coleoptile. C. Dormancy
B. part of the coleoptile that bends during D. none of above

the response.
166. What is the antagonistic hormone to
C. base of the coleoptile. parathyroid hormone?
D. cotyledon. A. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
B. Calcitonin
161. is a gaseous hormone involved in ab-
scission of organs and acceleration of fruit C. Thymosin
ripening. D. T4
A. Cytokinin
167. The Adrenal Gland is located on top of the
B. Auxin
A. Liver
C. Gibberellin
B. Pancreas
D. Ethylene
C. Kidneys
162. Which part of a plant produces the auxin D. Testes
that allows a plant to respond to light and
gravity? 168. Which of these is not a stimulus?
A. Shoot tip A. getting stung by a bee
B. Root tip B. hearing someone’s voice
C. Stem C. fainting on a hot day
D. Leaf D. tasting an apple
E. Tubers 169. What is a tropism?
163. Which plant hormone is a gas? A. A stimulus that affects plants.
A. auxin B. The way a plant responds to a stimu-

lus.
B. gibberellin
C. The way a plant grows.
C. ethylene
D. none of above
D. cytokinin
170. Which plant hormone encourages side
164. Stored food reserves in a seed branch formation
A. endosperm A. Auxin
B. embryo B. Cytokinin
C. radicle C. Gibberellin
D. seed coat D. Ethylene

2.8 Hormones 450
171. You have likely heard about the concept B. Because there are vesicles along the
of a biological clock in organisms. An in- walls on the sides of a plant which prevent
ternal biological clock is what researchers growth
think is behind the “sleep movements” of C. Because the growing bud at the top
leaves exhibited in many plants. Which of of the plant produces auxins at the same
the following is the leading hypothesis con- time which means growth on the side of
cerning the biological clock in plants? the plant stops
A. Hormone production and utilization
D. Because toxic chemicals kill half of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
are used by the plant to sense time.
active auxins in the bud which causes
B. There is a gene in plants that mutates them to kill the others surrounding them.
at a set rate. These mutations are how By the time the auxins start moving down
the plant senses time. This is similar to the stem, they’ve already been killed off
the atomic clock.
C. The biological clock depends on the en- 175. Which is route taken by a nerve im-
vironment to sense time. pulse?
D. There is a protein feedback system in A. receptor > synapse > sensory nerve
which protein molecules build up and are > CNS etc
recycled at a set rate, allowing the plant B. synapse > receptor > CNS > motor
to sense time. nerve etc
172. A plant seedling bends toward sunlight C. receptor > motor nerve > relay nerve
because > sensory nerve > effector
A. auxin migrates to the lower part of the D. PNS > CNS > PNS > CNS
stem due to gravity.
176. Thigmotropism is a plant’s response to
B. there is more auxin on the light side of
the stem. A. light.
C. auxin is destroyed more quickly on the B. hormone.
dark side of the stem. C. touch.
D. auxin is found in greatest abundance D. gravity.
on the dark side of the stem.
177. What gland produces e pinephrine, which
173. Which of the following pair of plant hor- is better known as adrenaline?
mone work antagonistic?
A. Thyroid
A. dormancy and cotyledons
B. Adrenal glands
B. dormancy and germination
C. auxin and cytokins C. Thymus
D. auxins and ethylene D. Pineal
174. If auxins are released down the stem of 178. The shoot of a plant growing up.
a plant, why doesn’t the plant also grow A. Positive Gravitropism
on its side?
B. Negative Gravitropism
A. Because there aren’t as many auxins
released down the stem of the plant com- C. Thigmotropism
pared to the amount that grow at the top D. Hydrotropism

2.8 Hormones 451
179. Insulin is secreted by D. the internal water balance within the

A. alpha cells plant body

B. beta cells 184. Which one of these hormones does NOT
C. delta cells stimulate plant growth?
D. all of the above A. Ethylene
180. In the story ‘Jack and the beanstalk’, B. Gibberellins

Jack grew a beanstalk that grew way into C. Auxins
the clouds. If I wanted to try and grow one
D. Cytokinins
myself, which plant hormone would I give
my beanstalk? 185. My plant is losing a lot of water because
A. Cytokinesis it is hot today. Which hormone should I
B. Ethylene give it so that it will stop losing water?
C. Auxins A. Auxins
D. Gibberellins B. Cytokinins
181. Which gland helps respond to stress and C. Ethylene

danger? D. Abscisic acid
A. Thyroid E. Gibberellins
B. Adrenal
186. When Neural Networks are not used they
C. Pancreas are removed through the process of
D. Parathyroid A. Brain plasticity
182. Which of these hormones cause the body B. Neurogenesis
to release energy from fat?
C. Erasing
A. calcitonin
D. Pruning
B. norepinepherine
C. cortisol 187. Where is the hormone insulin produced
and where does it act?
D. HGH
A. Produced by gall bladder; act at ileum
183. Felicia decides she wants to start grow-
ing bonsai trees. In her readings she B. Produced by gall bladder; act at liver
learns that removing apical branches to C. Produced by pancreas; act at ileum
promote “back budding” of lateral buds is
D. Produced by pancreas; act at liver
the basis of the art. What delicate balance
does this practice disrupt? 188. Plant hormones act by affecting the activ-
A. the balance of cytokinins within the ities of
plant body
A. Enzymes
B. the internal balance of sucrose within
B. Genes
the plant body
C. the balance of auxins and cytokinins C. Membranes
within the plant body D. Enzymes, genes, and membranes

2.8 Hormones 452
189. Growth movement of a plant towards 195. Gigantism is the result of

touch is called A. an underactive thyroid gland.
A. thigmotropism B. too much growth hormone
B. geotropism
C. too little growth hormone
C. phototropism
D. an overactive adrenal gland
D. none of above
196. Plant cells respond to auxins with in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
190. stimulates secondary sex characteristics creased
in males and stimulates sperm production.
A. decay
A. Hypothyroidism
B. color
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. growth
C. Testosterone
D. Estrogen
197. Which of these is an example of a nastic
191. Which hormone helps regulate a woman’s response?
menstrual cycle?
A. Ivy twisting around another plant
A. Thyroxine
B. A stem bending towards a light source
B. Testerone
C. A root growing downwards in the soil
C. Estrogen
D. A venus flytrap closing
D. Progesterone
198. Too low insulin can cause?
192. Which gland secretes testosterone?
A. Type 1 diabetes
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Anterior pituitary B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Pineal C. Type 3 diabetes
D. Testicles D. none of above
193. Which of the following responses is a 199. The gland is the gland that regresses
plant growing toward or leaning toward in size as one ages.
light? A. adrenal
A. thigmotropism B. pineal
B. hydrotropism C. thymus
C. phototropism D. thyroid
D. gravitropism
200. Which one of the following is a precursor
194. Gibberellins cause of plant growth hormone Ethylene?
A. Shortening of genetically tall plants A. Tryptophan
B. Elongation of dwarf plants B. IAA
C. Promotion of rooting C. Pyrophosphate
D. Yellowing of young leaves D. Methionine

2.8 Hormones 453
201. Where is the pancreas located? 207. I have a beautiful bowl of fresh fruit, no-
A. Below the stomach tably some nice apples and bananas. I like
them so much that I decide to place them

B. Under the diagram in a glass display case. Within a couple of
C. In the pelvis days, I notice most of the fruit is rotten.
D. In the brain What is the likely culprit?
A. The fruit was tightly packed in the dis-
202. Leaf dropping is also called
play case, and the water held between the
A. Leaf abscission pieces of fruit sped up the process of de-
B. Photosynthesis cay.
C. Flowering B. The ethylene released by the ripening
D. Dormancy fruit under glass is causing all of the fruit
to decay.
203. Which row shows the effects of increased
adrenaline release? breathing rate » pulse C. The fruit was likely dirty and covered
rate » pupil with decomposers such as bacteria and
fungi.
A. decreases »increases »widens
B. increases » decreases » widens D. The fruit rotted because of a lack of
oxygen in the display case, allowing the
C. increases » increases» narrows anaerobic bacteria to decay the fruit.
D. increases » increases» widens
208. Plants growing in a partially dark en-
204. Apical dominance which suppresses lat-
vironment will grow toward light in a
eral bud development is caused by what
response called phototropism. Which of
hormone?
the following statements is true regarding
A. auxin phototropism?
B. gibberellin A. It is caused by an electrical signal.
C. ethylene
B. One chemical involved is ethylene.
D. imbibition
C. Auxin causes a growth increase on one
205. What inhibits seed germination? side of the stem.
A. Cytokinins
D. Auxin causes a decrease in growth on
B. Auxin the side of the stem exposed to light.
C. Gibberellins
D. Abscisic acid 209. This substance plays a role in regulating
circadian rhythms (sleep patterns), and is
206. Which among the following is not a produced by the pineal body.
growth promoting hormone?
A. Benadryl
A. Auxin
B. Melatonin
B. Gibberellin
C. Ethylene C. Melanin
D. Cytokinin D. Ambien

2.8 Hormones 454
210. which target organs are affected by C. ethylene

adrenaline? D. cytokinin
A. brain
216. Which hormones are involved with regu-
B. heart lating the amount of sugar in the blood?
C. stomach A. glucose & insulin
D. kidney B. FSH & LH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
211. A plant’s response to changes in the C. pancreas & insulin
length of day and night is called D. insulin & glucagon
A. thigmotropism.
217. pg. 121 (key concept) The amount
B. phototropism. of darkness a plant receives determiners
C. gravitropism. what in many plants?
D. photoperiodism. A. time of flowering
B. time of reproducing
212. When comparing the Endocrine and Ner-
vous System which of the following is a C. time of eating
difference between the two? D. time of wilting
A. Speed of transmission
218. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
B. Duration of transmission
A. Darwin
C. Method of transmission
B. N. Smit
D. All are different
C. Paal
213. Diabetes is a disease triggered by hor- D. F.W. Went
mone imbalance, occurring when
A. Adrenaline levels are imbalanced
thigmotropism?
B. The liver secretes too much insulin
A. vines wrapping around a tree
C. There is too much insulin in the blood
B. trees growing near a lake
D. The pancreas secretes too little insulin
C. roots growing into the earth
214. Which hormone causes uterine contrac- D. sunflowers following the sun
tions during childbirth?
220. An athlete can run for two hours in 35oC
A. testosterone
if the air is dry without overheating, but
B. oxytocin not in humid conditions. Why? Select all
C. prolactin that apply.
D. adrenaline A. Sweat is not produced in humid condi-
tions
215. Which plant hormone is present in B. Sweat is not produced in dry condi-
gaseous state? tions
A. auxin C. Heat is lost more effectively through
B. gibberellin sweating than radiation

2.8 Hormones 455
D. Sweat is produced, but not evaporated 226. A period of a plant when is does NOT
in humid conditions grow

E. Sweat is produced, but not evaporated A. spore
in dry conditions B. stamen
221. McGaugh and Chaill’s aim was C. nutrient
A. to investigate whether high levels of D. dormancy
cortisol interfere with verbal declarative
memories (LTM-facts and events) 227. How do hormones travel to target cells?
B. to study the role of emotion on the cre- A. Blood Stream
ation of memories B. Ducts
C. to determine the role of acetylcholine C. Secretory Vessicles
in the formation of spatial memories
D. Goblet Cells
D. none of above
228. which plant hormone produces opposite
222. Hormones are eventually removed from effects?
the blood and destroyed by which organ?
A. dormancy and cotyledons
A. Kidneys
B. dormancy and germination
B. Liver
C. auxin and cytokinins
C. Brain
D. auxins and ethylene
D. White blood cells
223. Ductless gland that secretes one or more 229. The seed embryo is activated when the
hormones into the bloodstream. seed absorbs what?
A. endocrine system A. oxygen

B. exocrine system B. carbon dioxide
C. adrenal glands C. water
D. endocrine gland D. light
224. select all the components that are in- 230. A cytokinin like substance isolated from
volved in the reflex action milky endosperm of Zea mays is known as
A. Brain A. Auxin
B. effector B. Nucellus
C. sensory neurone C. Zeatin
D. relay neurone D. ABA
225. Stimulates new root growth 231. is a technique to produce seedless
A. abscisic acid fruits.
B. auxin A. Tissue culture
C. cytokinins B. Parthenorcarpy
D. gibberellin C. Cloning
E. ethylene D. Genetic engineering

2.8 Hormones 456
232. Which hormone causes lactation? B. Cytokinins

A. LH C. Ethylene
B. PRL D. Abscisic acid
C. TSH E. Gibberellins
D. OT
238. How does ethylene work?
233. functions in seed and bud dormancy, the
A. causes changes in fruit texture
control of organ size and stomatal clo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sure. It is especially important for plants B. causes changes in fruit colour
in the response to environmental stresses, C. causes enzymatic breakdown of cell
including drought, soil salinity, cold toler- walls
ance, freezing tolerance, heat stress
D. all of the above
A. abscisic acid
B. auxin 239. The endocrine system
C. cytokinins A. brings about changes in target regions
D. gibberellin B. sends chemical messengers in the
E. ethylene blood
C. relies on glands
234. what do receptors detect?
D. all of the above
A. impulses
B. stimuli 240. Which of the following secretes the hor-
C. synapses mone leptin?
D. neurons A. hypothalamus
B. medulla
235. What gland is known as the the master
gland? C. cerebral cortex
A. Adrenal D. adipose tissue
B. Pituitary
241. is a response that results in plant
C. Thyroid growth toward or away from a stimulus.
D. Thymus A. Weather
236. What is the fight or flight hormone? B. Stimuli
A. Cortisol C. Gravity
B. Epinephrine and Norepinphrine D. Tropism
C. Testorerone
242. Hormones are
D. Aldosterone
A. tissues
237. I want to stop my seed from growing. I
B. chemical messengers
DONT want it to grow. Which hormone
should I give it? C. cells that carry oxygen
A. Auxins D. molecules in the air

2.8 Hormones 457
243. Plants that grow in of 249. Which of the following gland does NOT
A. Direction belong to the endocrine system?

A. pituitary
B. Opposite
B. testes
C. Constant wind
C. salivary
D. Low wind
D. thyroid
244. Gravitropism is the
250. When the plant responds to light
A. growth of a plant in response to light
A. Phototropism
B. growth of a plant in response to touch
B. Gravitropism
C. growth of a plant in response to water
C. Thigmotropism
D. growth of a plant in response to grav-
D. Hydrotropism
ity
251. The movement of Euglena sp and Volvox
245. Which hormone is not secreted due to a sp. towards moderate light itensity is a
humoral stimulus? type of reaction to an external stimulus.
A. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone What is the reaction?
B. Aldosterone A. Photonasty.
C. Calcitonin B. Phototaxis.
D. Parathyroid hormone C. Thermonasty.
D. Phototropism.
246. Poison Ivy growing on a tree by touch.
A. Gravitropism 252. Which gland secretes the thymosin hor-
mone that helps in the development of the
B. Phototropism immune system?
C. Thigmotropism A. Ovaries
D. Hydrotropism B. Testes
247. Which one of the following hormones is- C. Pituitary
naturally not found in plants D. Thymus
A. 2, 4-D 253. McGaugh and Cahill groups were:
B. GA3 A. One group received high levels of cor-
C. Gibberellin tisol, 2nd group-low levels of cortisol and
D. IAA the 3rd group was the placebo-all partici-
pants listened to a story and then had to
248. Which hormone is responsible for the recall it.
maturation of the immune system? B. The participants were either injected
A. Aldosterone with scopolamine or a placebo-they then
had to find food in a maze
B. Calcitonin
C. Both groups saw 12 slides and then
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone each group heard a different story-a bor-
D. Thymosin ing visit to a hospital vs boy in car accident.

2.8 Hormones 458
They had to recall the story. In a follow 258. What is the function of auxin
up study the participants of the emotional A. Cell division
story were given a beta blocker to block
the release of the hormone adrenaline-to B. Apical dominance
stop activation of the amygdala C. Root formation
D. none of above D. All
254. This substance plays a role in regulating 259. Hormones cause specific effects by
circadian rhythms, and is produced by the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pineal body. A. Flooding the entire body
A. Benadryl B. Targeting specific parts of the brain
B. Melatonin C. Targeting specific groups of cells in the
body
C. Melanin
D. Spreading through the nervous system
D. Ambien
255. What is the hormone responsible for 260. Causes fruits to ripen
male-related symptoms? A. Ethylene
A. Testosterone B. Auxin
B. Insulin C. Gibberellin
C. Adrenaline D. Cytokinin
D. Estrogen
261. Roots growing down into the earth is an
256. Newcomer’s groups were: example of
A. One group received high levels of cor- A. phototropism
tisol, 2nd group-low levels of cortisol and
B. geotropism
the 3rd group was the placebo-all partici-
pants listened to a story and then had to C. thigmotropism
recall it. D. none of above
B. The participants were either injected
with scopolamine or a placebo-they then 262. The hormone which has negative effect
had to find food in a maze on apical dominance is
C. Both groups saw 12 slides and then A. Cytokinin
each group heard a different story-a bor- B. Auxin
ing visit to a hospital vs boy in car accident
C. Gibberellin
D. none of above D. Ethylene
257. Roots of a tree growing towards the wa- 263. A root tip grows in the direction of grav-
ter line of a house. ity. This is referred to as
A. Gravitropism A. Negative gravitropism
B. Phototropism B. Positive gravitropism
C. Thigmotropism C. Negative phototropism
D. Hydrotropism D. Positive phototropism

2.8 Hormones 459
264. Selective weedkillers cause which types 270. What hormone controls our mood?
of plant to grow too quickly? A. Oxytocin

A. flowers B. Endorphins
B. cereals C. Serotonin
C. broad-leafed plants D. Dopamine
D. grasses
271. Which type of gland secretes its hor-
265. What is apical dominance mones directly into the blood stream?
A. Growth of apical bud A. Exocrine
B. No Growth of axillary bud B. Endocrine
C. Plant grows tall C. Epicrine
D. Plant has less branches D. Expocrine
E. All 272. A stimulus is
266. Which hormone acts as an antagonist to A. a change in an organisms surround-
gibberellins? ings.
A. auxins B. process in which organisms grow
larger.
B. ethene
C. a reaction to a change in surroundings
C. ABA
D. none of above
D. none of above
273. Which two plant hormones produce oppo-
267. The growth hormone that is used to site effects?
speed up the ripening of fruits for export
is A. auxins and ethylene
A. giberellin. B. auxins and cytokinins
B. ethylene. C. dormancy and germination

D. dormancy and cotyledons
C. cytokinin.
D. auxin. 274. Which hormone is known as the fight or
flight hormone?
268. Endocrine glands secrete
A. Adrenaline
A. Hormones
B. Glucagon
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Insulin
C. A wide range of chemical substances
D. Glycogen
D. none of above
275. An endocrine gland that controls many
269. Which gland secretes Calcitonin? body activities.
A. Adrenal cortex A. hormone
B. Adrenal medulla B. pituitary gland
C. Thyroid C. hypothalamus
D. Parathyroid D. homeostasis

2.8 Hormones 460
276. Causes petals and leaves to drop 281. What is the definition of a NERVE
A. abscisic acid A. a single specialised cell that carries
electrical impulses to the brain
B. auxin
B. a cell that detects a stimulus
C. cytokinins
C. a cell that carries chemical impulses
D. gibberellin
D. A bundle of specialised cells that carry
E. ethylene
electrical impulses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
277. causes petals and leaves to drop. 282. Which hormone helps in stem growth?
A. abscisic acid A. Abscisic acid
B. auxin B. Cytokinin
C. cytokinins C. Jibber Lynn
D. gibberellin D. Estrogen
E. ethylene
283. The pituitary gland is located
278. Prolactin is a hormone associated with A. in the brain.
B. in the neck.
A. the growth of bones.
C. above the kidneys.
B. the release of an egg by the ovary
D. above the heart.
C. the production of milk
284. What are the components of the CNS?
D. stimulation of the thyroid gland
A. Spinal Cord
279. Which of the following best describes the
B. Nerves
cytokinin hormone?
C. Brain
A. This hormone induces growth.
D. Pancreas
B. This hormone can help produce seed-
less fruits. 285. Hormone produced by the testes
C. This hormone is responsible for the A. human growth hormone
ripening of fruits.
B. thyroxin
D. This hormone affects seed growth.
C. testosterone
280. How does a hormone imbalance lead to D. oestrogen
disease of dysfunction?
A. When a gland produces too much or 286. The gland produces melatonin.
too little of an endocrine hormone . A. thymus
B. When a gland moves out of place B. adrenal
C. When a gland is unbalanced C. pineal
D. none of above D. pituitary

2.8 Hormones 461
287. Which gland secretes thymosin? C. A root growing downwards in the soil
A. Anterior pituitary D. A venus flytrap closing

B. Adrenal cortex 293. Where is auxin formed
C. Thymus A. Tip of stem and root
D. Thyroid B. Leaves
288. What gland secretes a hormone that can C. Embryo
cause metabolism to increase? D. All
A. Thyroid 294. What gland secrete hormones directly
B. Parathyroid into the bloodstream?
C. Adrenal A. pineal gland
D. Pancreas B. Exocrine gland
C. Endocrine gland
289. The hormone responsible for the ripe
fruits and flowers falling of the plant is D. Pituitary gland
A. Auxin 295. Which of the following hormones is/are
B. Cytokinin produced by the brain? (Multi-select)
C. Abscisic acid A. insulin

B. ADH
D. ethylene
C. leptin
290. If a plant experiences a gravitropism,
D. melatonin
then it will do what?
A. Grow toward or away from light. 296. Geotropism is
B. Grow away from light. A. The plant response to light
C. Grow in response to gravity. B. The plant response to water

C. The plant response to soil
D. none of above
D. The plant response to gravity
291. The master gland of the body, secret-
ing a large number of hormones that af- 297. Which type of seed produces two seed
fect other glands, growth and develop- leaves?
ment. Housed within a bony cradle deep A. monocot
within the skull. B. dicot
A. Thymus C. tricot
B. Pineal D. none of above
C. Thyroid
298. Which one of the following is a “Fruit
D. Pituitary Ripening Hormone”?
292. Which is an example of a nastic re- A. Auxin
sponse? B. ABA
A. Ivy twisting around another plant C. Ethylene
B. A stem bending towards a light source D. Polyamines

2.8 Hormones 462
299. Which list shows only receptor cells? 304. Which gland secretes aldosterone?
A. skin cells, brain cells, nerve cells A. Adrenal cortex
B. hearing cells, seeing cells, tasting B. Adrenal medulla
cells C. Anterior pituitary
C. sound receptor cells, pressure recep- D. Posterior pituitary
tor cells
305. Dwarfism is the result of a lack of
D. mechano receptors, thermo receptors,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
hormone.
paino receptors, gluteo receptors
A. adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH)
300. Which part of the brain does leptin act B. oxytocin
on?
C. antidiuretic (ADH)
A. cerebellum D. growth (GH)
B. medulla
306. Newcomer’s results were:
C. hypothalamus
A. The scoplamine group took longer and
D. cerebral cortex made more mistakes in the maze
B. Original version-the participants who
301. When do we produce more melatonin?
heard the more emotional story had bet-
A. when we are older ter recall. But in the follow up with the
beta blocker-they did no better than the
B. at night
group with the mundane story.
C. when blood glucose concentration in-
C. high levels of cortisol impaired their
creases
memory performance-although it was not
D. when blood water concentration in- permanent. Moderate levels of the corti-
creases sol may have actually assisted the recall
of the passage.
302. What is abscisic acid?
D. none of above
A. a hormone that signals dehydration
307. What is systemic acquired resistance?
B. a hormone that makes leaves close
A. It is the matching of the products of
their stomata to prevent water loss
a plant’s R gene with the products of a
C. a hormone made in chloroplasts pathogen’s Avr gene.
D. all of the above B. It is the coiling of a plant around a rigid
object.
303. hormones that works antagonostically to
C. When an insect incorporates plant-
auxin and gibberelin, it preserves plants
produced canavanine instead of arginine,
from harsh environment condition is
the insect dies.
A. abscisic acid D. When an infection occurs at one site
B. traumatin on a plant, hormones trigger a signal
transduction pathway that leads to in-
C. cytokinins
creased production of defensive chemi-
D. ethylene cals by other parts of the plant.

2.8 Hormones 463
308. Photoreceptors that regulate many of a 314. Which one here is a hormone?
plant’s responses to light throughout its
A. Glycogen
life are

B. Glycerol
A. Chlorophyll
B. Phytochromes C. Glucagon
C. Ethylene D. Glucose
D. Florigen 315. Which one here reduces the amount of
309. When the embryo is activated, it begins glucose in the blood?
to produce which hormone? A. Glucagon
A. auxins B. Insulin
B. gibberellins
C. Glycogen
C. ethene
D. ADH
D. ABA
316. Do the levels of FSH and progesterone
310. A is the movement of plant in re-
increase or remain low during the first 5
sponse to an environmental stimulus
days of the menstrual cycle?
A. tropism
A. Progesterone remains low but FSH in-
B. reaction creases
C. response B. Progesterone and FSH both remain
D. none of above low
311. What is glucagon’s major role in the C. Progesterone increases but FSH re-
body? mains low
A. to raise blood glucose concentration D. Progesterone and FSH both increase
B. to lower blood glucose concentration
317. Which of the following is the plant hor-
C. to receive signals from the pituitary mone that is a gas?
D. none of above A. Ethylene
312. The condition that occurs when the body B. Gibberellin
does NOT produce enough insulin is
C. Auxin
A. anemia
D. Abscisic acid
B. diabetes
E. Cytokinins
C. hypoglycemia
D. cardiac arrest 318. The hormones of the play a role in
regulating metabolism.
313. Helps fruit ripen
A. Auxin A. thymus gland
B. Gibberellin B. parathyroid gland

C. Cytokinins C. thyroid gland
D. Ethene D. pineal gland

2.8 Hormones 464
319. A plants response to hours of darkness in 325. Which of the following occur(s) when
its environment body temperature increases?
A. Gravitropism A. metabolic rate increases
B. Thigmotropism B. vasodilation of arterioles leading to
C. Hydrotropism skin surface
D. Photoperiodism C. increased blood flow to skin surface
D. reduced respiration of brown adipose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
320. The hormone that causes calcium to be de-
posited in bone is tissue
A. calcitonin
326. What is released if glucose levels are too
B. parathyroid hormone low?
C. thyroxine A. Insulin
D. insulin B. Glucagon
321. The “master gland” is known as the C. Amylase
A. thyroid gland. D. Pepsin
B. adrenal gland.
327. Flowers when exposed to less than 10-
C. pancreas.
12 hours of darkness
D. pituitary gland.
A. Long day plants
322. Which hormone is antagonistic to in-
B. Short day plants
sulin?
C. Day neutral plants
A. Calcitonin
B. Glucagon D. Gibberellins
C. Prolactin 328. are actively dividing areas at root

D. Thyroid hormone tips & buds of shoots.
323. The endocrine system regulates all of the A. Perennial

following except: B. Apical meristem
A. growth C. Stem
B. immunity
D. Root
C. deglutition
E. Flower
D. reproduction
329. stores calcium in bones when calcium lev-
324. Which hormone reduces calcium levels in
els are high
the bloodstream?
A. calcitonin A. parathyroid hormone
B. thyroxine B. calcitonin
C. antidiuretic hormone C. calciumonus
D. aldosterone D. T3 and T4

2.8 Hormones 465
330. The gonads of the female body are the 335. The root of a plant growing down.
A. Positive Gravitropism

A. uteri B. Negative Gravitropism
B. fallopian tubes C. Thigmotropism
C. prostate glands D. Hydrotropism
D. ovaries
336. Chemical product of an Endocrine Gland.
331. Which hormone regulates sodium levels A. Homeostasis
in the body?
B. Hormone
A. cortisol
C. mitosis
B. aldosterone D. meiosis
C. parathyroid hormone
337. Which hormone promotes the production
D. thymosin of male flowers in Cucurbits?
332. Which of the following are plant hor- A. Auxin
mones B. Cytokinin
A. Auxin C. Gibberellin
B. Cytokinin D. Abscisic Acid
C. Gibberellin
338. Phytochromes respond differently to var-
D. Abcissic acid, ethylene ious wavelengths of light at the red end
of the spectrum. The key is their ability to
E. All
333. How does gibberellin increase the size of A. absorb green light followed by red
fruit? light
A. Allows them to take in more water B. revert back and forth between two
forms of phytochromes that differ in struc-
B. The plant synthesises sucrose more
ture
C. The distance between each fruit is in- C. absorb far-red light followed by red
creases light
D. Increases phloem concentration to D. respond to red light only
transport more sugars to fruit.
339. When creating seedless fruit, what type
334. Increases heart rate and breathing of flowers are sprayed with ethylene
rate;increases blood pressure gas?
A. adrenals A. pollinated
B. thyroid B. unpollinated
C. parathyroid C. older
D. pancreas D. small

2.8 Hormones 466
340. What hormone is secreted from the 345. Hormone responsible for seed germina-
ovaries? tion
A. oestrogen A. Cytokinesis
B. testosterone B. Ethylene
C. Gibberellins
C. eggstrone
D. none of above
D. ADH
346. Which type of plant hormone causes fruit
NARAYAN CHANGDER
341. Adrenaline is produced by the to ripen?
A. Brain A. gibberelins
B. Liver B. ethylene
C. Kidney C. cytokinins
D. auxins
D. Adrenal Gland
347. Stimulates cell division andlateral (<→)
342. A hormone antagonist is one that has the growth
opposite function. The hormone that has
A. abscisic acid
the opposite function of insulin is
B. auxin
A. glucagon
C. cytokinins
B. human growth hormone
D. gibberellin
C. antidiuretic hormone E. ethylene
D. thyroxin
348. Chemical messengers that signal a change
343. Which is not a part of a signal transduc- in the body
tion pathway? A. hormone
A. response B. enzyme
B. transcription C. protein
D. carbohydrate
C. transduction
D. receptor 349. What are functions of gibberellin
A. Internode elongation
344. Which of the following is/are true of the B. Cell division
hormone thyroxine?
C. Seed germination
A. It is produced in response to a rise in
D. All
body temperature
B. It causes vasoconstriction of arteri- 350. Which of the following is a long-day
oles leading to capillaries in the skin sur- plant?
face A. lettuce
C. It increases the rate of respiration of B. chrysanthemum
brown adipose tissue (BAT) C. corn
D. It is produced by the pituitary gland D. tomato

2.8 Hormones 467
351. This plant hormone is water soluble. 356. Breaks seed dormancy and promotes
A. Abscisic Acid (ABA) growth

B. Gibberellins A. abscisic acid
C. Auxin B. giberellins
D. Cytokinins C. cytokinins
D. all of the above
352. When the plant responds to gravtiy
A. Phototropism 357. Roots growing away from sunlight is an
example of
B. Thigmotropism
C. Gravitropism A. negative phototropism
D. Hydrotropism B. positive phototropism

C. positive geotropism
353. In nature, poinsettias bloom in early
March. Research has shown that the flow- D. negative thigmotropism
ering process is triggered three months be- 358. Which gland regulates the immune sys-
fore blooming occurs. In order to make tem; helps fight disease?
poinsettias bloom in December, florists
change the length of the light-dark cycle A. Ovaries
in September. Given the information and B. Testes
clues above, which of the following is a
C. Pituitary
correct statement about poinsettias?
D. Thymus
A. They are short-day plants.
B. They require a light period longer than 359. Which gland secretes adrenaline?
some set minimum. A. Adrenal cortex
C. They require a shorter dark period B. Adrenal medulla
than is available in September
C. Anterior pituitary
D. The dark period can be interrupted
without affecting flowering. D. Posterior pituitary
354. Which hormone allows plants to perform 360. Which hormone helps create male sex
phototropism? characteristics and sperm production?
A. cytokinins A. Thyroxine
B. ethylene B. Testosterone
C. gibberellins C. Estrogen
D. auxins D. Progesterone
355. A shoot tip grows in the direction of the 361. A plants directional response to touch is
light. This is referred to as called which of the following?
A. Positive gravitropism A. Phototropism
B. Negative gravitropism B. Thigmotropism
C. Positive phototropism C. Gravitropism
D. Negative phototropism D. None of these

2.8 Hormones 468
362. What is the hormone that makes you 368. The skin produces which helps vita-
happy? min D to absorb calcium.
A. Dopamine A. gastrin
B. Serotonin B. cholecalciferol
C. Oxytocin
C. cholesterol
D. Endorphins
D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
363. Gravitropism is growth (roots)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Growth 369. A hormone is a chemical substance pro-
duced by
B. Downward
C. Gravity A. A gland
D. Positive B. The liver
364. Where are auxins made? C. A target organ
A. roots D. The blood

B. stem tips
370. If you cut the top off a shoot the plant
C. leaves will
D. flowers A. Die
365. What are responsible for the lowering of B. Not grow
blood glucose levels? I. β -cells in the pan-
creasII. Insulin moleculesIII. α -cells in the C. Grow straight up
pancreas D. Grow towards the light
A. II only
371. Apical dominance which suppresses lat-
B. I and II only
eral bud development is caused by?
C. II and III only
A. auxin
D. I, II and III
B. gibberellin
366. The adrenal glands release adrenaline to
help the body regulate C. ethylene
A. diseases D. imbibition
B. body temperature.
372. What happens when you place an over
C. stress. ripe banana in a fruit bowl with other
D. hormones. fruit?
367. Breaks seed dormancy and promotes A. Nothing will happen

growth (can make fruit bigger) B. The other fruit will grow in size
A. Auxin
C. Ethylene gas will cause the fruit to
B. Gibberellin grow mold
C. Cytokinins D. Ethylene gas will cause the other fruit
D. Ethene to ripen

2.8 Hormones 469
373. Which hormone causes female related 379. Which of the following statement is cor-
symptoms? rect?

A. Growth hormone A. The higher the auxin in the root, the
B. Estrogen higher the growth rate.
C. Testosterone B. The lower the auxin in the root, the

lower the growth rate.
D. Insulin
C. The higher the auxin in the shoot, the
374. stimulate contraction of uterus, milk se- higher the growth rate.
cretion D. The lower the auxin in the shoot, the
A. melatonin higher the growth rate.
B. oxytocin 380. What polysaccharide is the primary com-
C. thyroxine ponent of plant cell walls?
D. androgens A. Expansin
B. Cellulose
375. Which hormone is released due to a hor-
monal stimulus? C. Glycogen
A. Insulin D. Endosperm
B. Glucagon 381. what does endocrine mean?
C. Thymosin A. Secretes outside the body
D. Thyroid hormone B. Hormones
376. This hormone promotes plant cell division C. Secretes inside and outside the body
A. auxins D. Secretes inside the body
B. cytokines 382. The hormone which has positive effect on-
C. ethylene apical dominance is
D. Abscisic acid A. Cytokinin
B. Auxin
377. What is used as the food store in mono-
cot seeds? C. Gibberellin
A. cotyledons D. Ethylene
B. endosperm 383. Which of the following is a short-day
C. seed coat plant?
D. radicle A. poinsettia
B. cucumber
378. The gland surrounds the thyroid
gland. C. tomato
A. pineal D. iris
B. pituitary 384. Luteinizing hormone (LH) targets the
C. thymus A. adrenal gland
D. parathyroid B. pituitary gland

2.8 Hormones 470
C. ovaries only 390. Which of the following would be an ex-

D. ovaries and testes ample of paracrine signaling in animals?
A. neurotransmitter acetylcholine
385. Which plant hormone ripens fruit?
B. hormone epinephrine
A. auxin
C. neurotransmitter norepinephrine
B. ethylene
D. growth factor
C. Brassinosteroid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cytokinins 391. High body temperature in humans is reg-
ulated by all these except
386. It’s super easy to increase dopamine lev- A. sweating
els we just have to..
B. falling of skin hairs
A. procrastinate
C. vasodilation
B. exercise
D. vasoconstriction
C. celebrate all the little “wins”
D. sleep eight hours a night 392. Insulin increases uptake of glucose by
cells across the cell membrane. Using your
387. When the root of a plant growing down, knowledge of cell transport, suggest how
it is a this is done.
A. Positive geotropism A. Making it easier to close channel pro-
teins for glucose
B. Negative geotropism
B. Increasing the number of channel pro-
C. Thigmotropism
teins for glucose
D. Hydrotropism
C. Making the phospholipids more perme-
388. What kind of plant would be considered able to glucose
a long-day plant? D. Making the phospholipids move fur-
A. Plants that flower when exposed to ther apart
less than 10-12 hours of darkness.
393. Fall of mature leaves and fruits from the
B. plants that require 12 or more hours of plant is triggered by
darkness for seeding to begin.
A. Auxin
C. Plants that flower when they reach ma-
B. Gibberellin
turity.
D. There is no such thing as a long-day C. Abscisic acid
plant. D. Cytokinin
389. regulate metabolism, growth, and devel- 394. Any change in an organism’s environment
opment thatcauses a response is called
A. insulin A. Photosynthesis
B. PTH B. cellular respiration
C. thyroxine C. Stimuli
D. androgens D. Tropism

2.8 Hormones 471
395. The process by which an organism’s inter- C. Pituitary Gland

nal environment is kept stable in spite of
D. Negative feedback loop
changes in the external environment.

A. Positive Feedback 401. Specialized epithelial tissue that secretes
B. Negative Feedback a product directly into a hollow organ or
duct.
C. Homeostasis
A. exocrine gland
D. Targeted Cells
B. thyroid gland
396. Promotes seed dormancy
C. endocrine gland
A. abscisic acid
D. pineal gland
B. auxin
C. cytokinins 402. Where are hormones produced (made)
D. gibberellin A. Glands
E. ethylene B. Bloodstream
397. A plant’s root grow in a downward direc- C. Target organs
tion in response to what force?
D. none of above
A. sunlight
B. gravity 403. When the plant responds to gravity, it is
called ?
C. soil
A. Phototropism
D. none of above
B. Thigmotropism
398. Some plants have rapid responses in-
volving C. Gravitropism
A. Especially D. Hydrotropism
B. Not
404. The parathyroid hormone (PTH) regu-
C. Shrinking lates
D. Growth A. calcium and iodine
399. Negative gravitropism is exhibited in , B. iodine and phosphate
because there is more auxin on side of
C. calcium and phosphate
a shoot.
A. shoots, shaded D. salt
B. shoots, light 405. how do hormones travel through the

C. roots, shaded body?
D. roots, light A. neurons
400. Reverses the effects of the stimulus B. circulatory system

A. Hypothalmus C. electrical impulses
B. Postive feedback loop D. digestive system

2.8 Hormones 472
406. Sun Flowers are called Sun trackers 412. Why is gravitropism in plants impor-
Why? tant?
A. Gravitropism A. Gravitropism orients the roots in a
B. Phototropism downward direction to better serve the
purpose of anchorage and water uptake.
C. Thigmotropism
B. Gravitropism directs the roots to the
D. Heliotropism best underground water supply.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
407. what type of impulse travels through a C. Gravitropism allows plant tendrils to
synapse? wrap around surrounding objects and hold
the plant up.
A. electrical
D. Gravitropism orients the shoot system
B. chemical
above ground.
C. hormonal
413. Insulin has effect on metabolism of
D. chemical and electrical
A. Carbohydrate
408. Which hormone helps the fruit to ripen?
B. Protein
A. Auxin
C. Fat
B. Gibberellin
D. All of the above
C. Cytokinins
414. McGaugh and Cahill split their partici-
D. Ethylene
pants into how many groups?
409. Which one is not a symptom of Type 1 A. 1
diabetes.
B. 2
A. tired
C. 3
B. feeling very thirsty
D. 4
C. frequent urination
D. weight gain 415. targets osteoclasts (bone destroying
cells) so that they release calcium from
410. What hormones do Ovaries make? bones when calcium levels are low
A. Testosterone A. calcitonin
B. Oestrogen and Progesterone B. parathyroid hormone
C. Thyroxine C. osteoclast hormone
D. Adrenalin D. ADH
411. Which is an example of thigmotropism? 416. Which gland secretes melatonin?

A. change in leaf color A. Posterior Pitutiary
B. climbing vines B. Pineal
C. photoperiod C. Thyroid
D. blooming D. Adrenal medulla

2.8 Hormones 473
417. Which of the following Endocrine glands C. increase body temperature

is not found in the Brain?
D. regulate blood pressure

A. Pituitary
B. Pineal 423. What is the hormone that allows us to
feel bliss, pleasure, euphoria and motiva-
C. Hypothalamus tion.
D. Thymus
A. Oxytocin
418. Which of the following glands produces B. Dopamine
oestrogen?
C. Endorphins
A. Pineal
D. Serotonin
B. Pituitary
C. Ovary 424. is a plant’s growth or turning in re-
D. Adrenal sponse to
A. Gravitropism
419. Parathyroid hormone is secreted due to a
stimulus? B. Photoperiodism
A. Hormonal C. Gravity
B. Humoral D. Thigmotropism
C. Neural
425. What gland is involved in both digestion
D. none of above and the endocrine system?
420. The yellow, tadpole-shaped organ that A. Pineal
produces insulin is the
B. Pituitary
A. stomach
C. Pancreas
B. spleen
D. P
C. pancreas
D. hypothalamus 426. What gland found in the brain produces
melatonin?
421. The gaseous hormone which helps in
ripening of fruits is A. Pineal
A. Auxin B. Pituitary
B. Gibberellin C. Thymus
C. Ethylene D. Thyroid
D. none of these
427. Which body system is more important?
422. If the environment gets cold, we will of- A. The endocrine system
ten shiver in order to:
B. The nervous system
A. keep body temperature the same as
the external temperature C. They are both vital
B. decrease body temperature D. They are both useful but not vital

2.8 Hormones 474
428. What does melatonin do? 433. Hormones that influence stem elongation
A. Raises Blood Sugar A. Cytokinins
B. Regulates BP B. Ethylene
C. Regulates Metabloism C. Gibberellins
D. Regulate Sleep Cycle D. none of above
434. Plant that doesn’t require a specific pho-

429. what is the name of the regulation of our
NARAYAN CHANGDER
toperiod and can begin the flowering pro-
internal conditions in response to the envi-
cess over a range of night lengths (ex.
ronment?
African violet).
A. homeostasis
A. short day plant
B. homostasis B. day neutral plant
C. Reflex action C. long day plant
D. Reaction time D. stomata
430. Where are hormone destroyed after 435. The role of all plant hormones is to
use?
A. suppress plant growth.
A. Kidney B. regulate plant functions.
B. Liver C. delay fruit ripening.
C. Stomach D. shorten plant cells.
D. Pancreas
436. Hormones are messengers
431. What is the role of auxin that causes a A. chemical
plant to bend towards light? B. mechanical
A. The concentration of auxin in the plant C. kinetic
increases when there is light.
D. potential
B. Auxin causes uniform growth on every
stem. 437. The hormone that lowers blood sugar is:
C. Auxin causes cells that are on the dark A. Insulin
side to grow faster. B. Glucagon
D. Auxin causes the increase in the num- C. Cortisol
ber of plant cells.
D. GnRH
432. A biological cycle with a period of about 438. A is something that evokes a re-
24 hours is called sponse.
A. Circadian rhythm A. stimulus
B. Abscission B. response
C. Photoperiod C. tropism
D. Thigmotropism D. none of above

2.8 Hormones 475
439. When the plant responds to touch 445. Which of the following plant hormones in-
A. Phototropism hibit(s) growth?

A. Gibberellin
B. Thigmotropism
B. Auxin
C. Gravitropism
C. Abscisic acid
D. Hydrotropism
D. Cytokinin
440. causes cell elongation, apicaldomi-
nance and prevents abscission. 446. Which gland produces growth hormone?
A. Auxin A. Thyroid gland

B. Adrenal glands
B. Cytokinin
C. Pituitary gland
C. Gibberellin
D. none of above
D. Ethylene
447. which organ is NOT involved in the home-
441. What hormone regulates sugar level? ostasis (regulation) of Water content in
A. insulin our bodies?
B. histamine A. kidney
C. estrogen B. skin
D. thyroxin C. heart
D. lungs
442. This plant hormone is responsible for de-
laying leaf old age. 448. The hormone that triggers uterine con-
tractions is
A. Abscisic Acid(ABA)
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B. Gibberellins
B. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
C. Cytokinins
C. prolactin
D. Auxins
D. oxytocin
443. To make a plant grow bushier you should
449. Where is the thyroid located?
A. pinch off the tip
A. in the neck
B. water it more
B. in the throat
C. spray it with hormones C. in the chest
D. none of above D. in the brain
444. How many polypeptide chains are there 450. Chemical messengers that are produced
in functional insulin in the plant and control growth.
A. 1 A. Hormones
B. 2 B. Tropisms
C. 3 C. Compounds
D. 4 D. Sugars

2.8 Hormones 476
451. what cell in your body detects changes in C. stimulate uterine relaxation
the environment? D. stimulate ACTH production
A. effector
457. The condition that occurs when an adult
B. motor neuron
continues to produce growth hormone is
C. receptor
D. pancreas A. acromegaly
452. Stimulates development of male and fe- B. diabetes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
male sex organs for puberty C. dwarfism
A. pancreas D. hypogylcemia
B. adrenals
458. Which of the following endocrine glands
C. pituitary is NOT found in the brain?
D. hypothalamus
A. Pituitary
453. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is pro- B. Pineal
duced by the gland.
C. Hypothalamus
A. adrenal
D. Thyroid
B. hypothalamus
C. pituitary 459. which is the cause of diabetes type 2?
D. ovarian A. no production of insulin

B. autoimmune disease
454. How can we increase oxytocin, the hor-
mone of love? C. cells are not responsive to insulin
A. give someone a hug for 20 seconds D. too much adrenaline
B. receive a gift 460. What is the fight or flight hormone which
C. swim with dolphins is produced by the adrenals?
D. make photocopies A. Cortisol
455. Which statement about Testosterone is B. Adrenaline

false? C. Testorerone
A. It can make people aggressive D. Aldosterone
B. It is only produced in the testes
461. When might your body release
C. It causes primary & secondary sexual adrenaline?
characteristics in males
A. when you’re waking up from a long
D. It causes female hyenas to be domi- night’s sleep
nant over males
B. when there isn’t enough calcium in
456. Oxytocin is sometimes administered to your bloodstream
women to C. when you’re threatened by a school-
A. stimulate milk production yard bully
B. stimulate uterine contractions D. when you’ve had too much to eat

2.8 Hormones 477
462. What is a network of tissues and organs C. The plant response to gravity
that release chemicals that control certain D. The plant response to soil
body functions?

A. Endocrine System 468. What type of tropism is involved when a
plant responds to touch?
B. Nervous System
A. phototropism
C. Body System
B. gravitropism
D. Organ System
C. thigmotropism
463. Which structure within the brain controls
the pituitary gland? D. none of the above
A. the pineal gland 469. How do the hormones get around the
B. thymus gland body?
C. thyroid gland A. Through the circulatory system
D. hypothalamus B. Through the skeletal system
C. Through the digestive system
464. What does auxin cause in the shaded side
of the plant? D. Through the respiratory system
A. H+ release 470. In order for a plant to initiate chemical
B. Expansins to catalyse celluose break- responses to herbivory,
down
A. the plant must be directly attacked by
C. H bonding to break an herbivore.
D. H+ uptake B. volatile “signal” compounds must be
perceived.
465. The gland that stimulates secondary sex
characteristics in females. C. gene-for-gene recognition must occur
A. Thyroid D. phytoalexins must be released.
B. testes 471. The main elements of the endocrine sys-
C. ovary tem are
D. adrenal A. The glands, hormones, and cell recep-
tors
466. The gland is a butterfly shaped
gland located in the neck. B. The glands, nerves, and blood vessels
A. adrenal C. The blood, tissue, and brain
B. thyroid D. The hormones, blood, and brain

C. thymus 472. The response to stress is called
D. pineal A. Stay or Stray Response
467. Phototropism is phenomenon when B. Fight or Stay Response
A. The plant response to water C. Flee or Stray Response
B. The plant response to light D. Fight or Flight Response

2.8 Hormones 478
473. Under certain conditions, seeds need to 478. What are any changes in an organism’s
prevent growth of a new plant, for exam- environment that cause a response?
ple, when there is a drought and a new
A. hormones
plant would not survive. Which hormone
is involved in making seeds dormant? B. photoperiodism
A. Gibberellin C. tropism
B. Auxin D. stimuli
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cytokinin
479. Which of the following are effects of
D. ABA adrenaline on the body?
474. An fMRI scan allows psychologists to see A. Increasing breathing rate

B. Decreasing pulse rate
A. Brain activity when performing tasks C. Causing radial muscles in the iris to
B. Only the structure of the brain contract
C. How Neurons are connected to one an- D. Causing circular muscles in the iris to
other contract
D. none of above E. Causes blood glucose levels to in-
crease
475. Which of the following is not a stimulus
that plants respond to? 480. Insufficient secretion of insulin causes
A. touch A. Diabetes millitus
B. light B. Glycosauria
C. wind C. Diabetes glucose
D. earth/gravity D. Lipemia
476. Which one here is a hormone to increase 481. Auxin

blood glucose levels?
A. Coleoptile tip Or Apical dominance
A. insulin
B. Fruits & Ripening
B. parathyroid hormone
C. Chloroplast & Abscission
C. glucagon
D. Coconut milk & Cell division
D. epinepherine
E. Gibberellafujikuroi & Internodalelon-
477. Why do coleoptiles grow toward light? gation
A. Auxin is destroyed by light.
482. Where are cytokinins produced?
B. Gibberellins are destroyed by light.
A. leaves
C. Auxin synthesis is stimulated in the
B. stems
dark.
C. root tips
D. Auxin moves away from the light to the
shady side. D. flowers

2.8 Hormones 479
483. What participate in gluconeogenesis 489. The roots of a plant growing away from
A. Glucose touch is called

B. Amino acid A. positive hydrotropism
C. Fatty acid B. positive geotropism

C. negative thigmotropism
D. Vitamin A
D. negative phototropism
484. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in
tomatoes? 490. In which of the following is the secretion
of insulin increased?
A. Auxin
A. After having a meal
B. Cytokinin
B. after taking a cold shower
C. Gebbrellin
C. during physical exercise
D. Ethylene
D. when a person is under stress
485. Dormancy refers to
491. Which one of the following plant hor-
A. The growth of dwarf plants mone produce extraordinary elongation of
B. Buds developing in winter which stem?
causes seed to grow longer A. Gibberellins
C. Buds that stop developing in winter B. Auxin
which causes seeds not to grow
C. Cytokinin
D. The reduced growth of dwarf plants
D. Zeatin
486. Which gland secretes estrogen?
492. Produces female sex characteristics
A. Anterior pituitary
A. thymus
B. Adrenal medulla B. ovaries
C. Ovaries C. thyroid
D. Pineal D. testes
487. Which plant hormone drives production 493. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune dis-
of more proton pumps in the plasma mem- order that impacts the gland.
brane?
A. pineal
A. ethylene
B. adrenal
B. auxin
C. thymus
C. gibberellin
D. thyroid
D. cytokinin
494. When a seed is planted, what causes the
488. What plant hormone helps fruit ripen? roots to grow into the earth?
A. ethylene A. hydrotropism
B. gibberellins B. thigmotropism
C. cytokinins C. phototropism
D. none of the above D. geotropism

2.8 Hormones 480
495. What is used as the food store in dicot C. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
seeds? D. HGH and ADH
A. cotyledons
501. The two types of feedback systems that
B. endosperm help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
C. seed coat A. positive and negative
D. radicle B. receptor and effector
496. After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, C. static and dynamic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the mammalian pancreas increases its se- D. minor and major
cretion of
502. A hormone antagonist is one that has the
A. glucagon. opposite function. The hormone antago-
B. insulin. nist of insulin is
C. thyroxine. A. glucagon
D. ecdysone. B. gastrin
C. secretin
497. The Pr form of the phytochrome pigment
has maximum absorption in the part of D. calcitonin
the spectrum. 503. Insulin causes
A. Red A. a decrease in the concentration of
B. Blue and red blood glucose
C. Far red B. a decrease in the permeability of cell
membranes to glucose
D. Blue
C. an increase in the production of glu-
498. The location of the pineal gland is at the cose from glycogen
base of the D. none of these is correct
A. brain
504. Where are receptors cells found that de-
B. neck tect the stimulus for production of mela-
C. coccyx tonin?
D. sternum A. medulla
B. retina
499. The hormone that targets bones and mus-
cles is C. adipose tissue
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. pineal gland
B. growth hormone (GH) 505. Deciduous trees, such as those that lose
their leaves in autumn, are a result due to
C. prolactin (PRL)
the subjection of which type of plant hor-
D. leutinizing hormone (LH) mone?
500. What hormones are produced by the pan- A. Ethylene
creas? B. Ethylene gas
A. Testosterone and Progesterone C. Auxins
B. Insulin and Glucagon D. Gibberellins

2.8 Hormones 481
506. Effectors may be: C. Makes them move to the dark side
A. Glands D. Negative phototropism

B. Muscles
512. The hormone produced by the thyroid
C. Glands & muscles
gland that regulates calcium levels is
D. Glands, muscles & many other types of
tissue A. calcitonin
B. thyroxine
507. Which plant hormone help in Stomata
Closing? C. triiodothyronine
A. Auxin D. norepinephrine
B. Ethylene
513. Hormone related to the growth of the
C. Cytokinin
plant in response to tropisms
D. ABA
A. Auxin
508. Trichomes can release irritants. In
B. Cytokinins
the stinging nettles plant release histones
which causes pain and stinging to the or- C. Ethene
ganism that touch them.
D. Absisic acid
A. chemical
B. aromatic 514. Flowers when exposed to 12 or more
hours of darkness
C. crystal
D. none of above A. Short day plants
509. Which hormone causes internodes to B. Long day plants

lengthen? C. Day neutral
A. Gibberelins D. Auxins
B. Etiolation
C. Tropism 515. Which hormone controls blood sugar lev-
els?
D. Cytokins
A. Thyroxine
510. The hormone which increases cell growth
and rate of mitosis is B. Estrogen
A. HGH C. Insulin
B. OT D. Cytokinin
C. TSH
516. What is the half life of insulin
D. LH
A. 1 hr
511. The hormone auxin has what effect on
plant cells in the shoot tips of plants? B. 2 hr
A. Makes them grow longer C. 30 min

B. Prevents them from growing D. 6 min

2.8 Hormones 482
517. Plants can respond to , , , and 522. Which of these hormones has iodine in
changes it?
A. Light A. Thyroxine
B. Touch B. calcitonin
C. Gravity C. oxytocin
D. Smell D. melatonin
E. Seasonal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
523. What hormone is known as the ripening
518. What hormone triggers sleepiness within hormone?
humans? A. auxin
A. thyroxine B. ethylene
B. insulin
C. cytokinins
C. glycogon
D. gibberellins
D. melatonin
524. Which hormone would cause facial hair
519. Which of the following statements is true growth?
about the effect of auxin concentration on
plant growth? A. progesterone
A. Auxin stimulates shoot cell elongation B. testosterone

at low concentrations. C. aldosterone
B. Auxin stimulates root cell elongation at D. estrogen
high concentrations.
525. What part of the hypothalamus sends
C. Stem growth is stimulated by the
electrical impulses to the pineal gland to
same amount of auxin that stimulates the
cause melatonin to be produced?
growth of roots
A. SNC
D. In some plants, the amount of auxin
that promotes shoot growth inhibits root B. CNS
growth. C. SCN
520. A sensory neurone D. CSN
A. sends messages from the CNS 526. If you are dehydrated (low water poten-
B. senses stimuli tial in the blood), the body must conserve
C. sends messages to the CNS water. To do so, the brain triggers the pi-
tuitary gland to
D. carries nerve impulses all over the
body A. release MORE ADH, making the collect-
ing duct MORE permeable
521. Estrogen from the ovaries is secreted due
B. release LESS ADH, making the collect-
to a stimulus.
ing duct LESS permeable
A. Hormonal
C. release MORE ADH, making the collect-
B. Humoral ing duct LESS permeable
C. Neural D. release LESS ADH, making the collect-
D. none of above ing duct MORE permeable

2.8 Hormones 483
527. The gland that controls regulation of B. it creates electrical messages that are
metabolic rate is the: sent around the body to maintain home-
ostasis

A. Thyroid
C. it maintains the correct level of oxygen
B. Parathyroids
in the body to maintain homeostasis
C. Pancreas
D. it releases waste from the body to
D. Adrenal Glands maintain homeostasis
528. Response to light in which plant stems 533. is a hormone that helps to break
bend toward a light source down glucose.
A. gravitropism A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B. phototropism B. Thymosin
C. negative gravitropism C. Triiodothyronine

D. Insulin
D. negative phototropism
534. Increases heart rate, breathing rate and
529. Which plant hormone helps elongate the
blood pressure when you get a fright
stem between nodes?
A. adrenals
A. cytokinins
B. thyroid
B. ethylene
C. parathyroid
C. gibberellins
D. pancreas
D. abscisic acid
535. Thymosin and thympoietin are hormones
530. The growth of shoots and roots is con- that assist with
trolled by a group of hormones called A. metabolism
A. auxins B. respiration
B. ethylene C. immunity
C. stimulus D. reproduction
D. tropism 536. Which of the following seedlings will
probably bend toward the light?
531. Which one of the following is an Anti-
auxin? A. one whose tip is covered with a black
plastic cap
A. TIBA
B. one whose tip is separated from its
B. Phosphon-D base by aluminum foil
C. B-995 C. one whose tip is separated from its
D. AMO-1618 base by a gelatin block
D. one whose tip is cut off
532. What is the main function of the en-
docrine system? 537. What hormone is responsible for the clos-
A. it creates chemicals that are sent ing of stomata?
around the body to maintain homeostasis A. Abscisic Acid

2.8 Hormones 484
B. GA (Gibberellin) 543. Phototropism is

C. Auxin A. The plant response to water
D. Phytochrome B. The plant response to light
538. Lignin-rich bark, waxy leaves, thorns, C. The plant response to gravity
spines, and prickles are ALL examples of D. The plant response to soil
adaptations that help discourage her-
bivores from eating plants. 544. What is function of abscisic acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. physiological A. Stops cell division
B. structural B. Closes stomata
C. behavioral C. Increases senescence
D. none of above D. All
539. Hydrotropism is 545. Iodine is added to table salt to help pre-

vent deficiencies of an essential mineral
A. The plant response to water
needed for the proper function of the
B. The plant response to light
A. parathyroid glands.
C. The plant response to gravity
B. thyroid glandthyroid gland.
D. The plant response to soil
C. adrenal glands.
540. What is Homeostasis? D. pancreas.
A. is the maintenance of a constant inter-
546. Which hormone regulates water balance
nal environment
by reducing the amount of water leaving
B. is the maintenance of a constant exter- the body
nal environment
A. aldosterone
C. is the maintenance of a constant living
B. antidiuretic hormone
environment
C. growth hormone
D. none of above
D. thyroxine
541. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in
plants. 547. Which hormone speeds up the rate at
which a plant grows?
A. Rosette
B. Tall A. photo
C. Mango B. auxin
D. Tomato C. darkness
D. sunlight
542. The ripening of fruit and the dropping of
leaves and fruit are principally controlled 548. When a plant responds to gravity it is
by called:
A. auxins. A. Phototropism
B. cytokinins. B. Thigmotropism
C. indole acetic acid C. Geotropism (Gravitropism)
D. ethylene. D. Hydrotropism

2.8 Hormones 485
549. Which hormones is secreted from the pan- C. Cytokinins

creas?
D. Ethylene

A. glucagon, progesterone
B. oestrogen, progesterone 555. What is a small opening in leaves that al-
lows gases to pass in and out of a plant?
C. oestrogen, insulin
A. cell plate
D. insulin, glucagon
B. petiole
550. Which statement about cytokinin is cor-
C. stomata
rect?
A. to slow down the aging D. trichome
B. to inhibit the root growth 556. If a plant gets light from only one direc-
C. to stimulate pollen and flower formation the shoots will
tion A. grow straight up
D. enlarge the fruit B. grow down
551. Which gland produces female reproduc- C. grow toward the light source
tive hormones?
D. grow faster
A. Ovaries
B. Testes 557. How can we increase serotonin, the hor-
mone that controls our mood?
C. Pituitary
A. vitamin D from the sun
D. Thymus
B. engage in a random act of kindness
552. Part of the brain that links the nervous
system and the endocrine system. C. take a few moments to relive a happy
moment in your head
A. Pancreas
D. gratitude practices
B. Hypothalamus
C. renal glands 558. The location of the thymus gland is behind
D. Enbryo the
A. trachea
553. Pollen tubes forming in the Style of the
Carpel during fertilization. The pollen B. esophagus
grows towards glucose. C. sternum
A. Gravitropism D. thyroid gland
B. Phototropism
559. Inhibits cell division
C. Thigmotropism
D. Chemotropism A. abscisic acid
B. auxin
554. Promotes cell division and prevents
senescence (cell breakdown) C. cytokinins
A. Gibberellin D. gibberellin
B. Auxin E. ethylene

2.8 Hormones 486
560. Response to a stimulus in plants is called 566. Which of the following is not a character-
istics of hormone?
A. touch A. It can works on more than one target
B. gravity organ.
B. It is protein in nature.
C. light
C. It is transported via the blood stream
D. tropism
D. It has only a long term effect on the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
561. A plant hormone which causes the biological system.
elongation of cells in shoot, a major com-
ponent in 567. Plant hormones that promotes cell elon-
gation is
A. Auxin
A. abscisic acid
B. Photoperiodism
B. auxin
C. Thigmotropism C. cytokinins
D. phototropism D. gibberellin
562. Which of the following is the skin? E. ethylene
A. A Tissue 568. Where are auxins made in the plant?
B. A Cell A. In the growing tip of a stem or root
C. An Organ B. In the older part of a stem or root
D. An Organ system C. in the embryo
D. All plant cells can make auxins
563. Newcomer split their participants into
how many groups? 569. What does rooting hormone powder do?
A. 1 A. encourages growth of flowers
B. 2 B. encourages growth of stems
C. 3 C. inhibits growth of roots
D. 4 D. encourages growth of roots
564. What is senescence 570. Glucose levels in the blood are controlled
by the:
A. Ageing
A. Pancreas
B. Getting old
B. Thyroid
C. Both
C. Parathyroids
D. None D. Adrenal Glands
565. What is the maximum concentration of 571. What hormones increase the rate of cell
glycogen in muscle division and cell elongation?
A. 10 % A. ethylene
B. 20 % B. gibberellins
C. 2 % C. cytokinins
D. 1 % D. none of the above

2.8 Hormones 487
572. The produce the hormone, erythropoi- 577. A type of plant will grow tendrils and
etin, which increases the production of red wind round a support. Name this type of
blood cells. reaction.

A. kidneys A. Tropism.
B. heart B. Nastic response.
C. lungs C. Reflex action.
D. brain D. Taxis response.
573. If a long-day plant has a critical night 578. Which hormone below is not associated
length of 9 hours, which 24-hour cycle with breastfeeding?
would prevent flowering? A. Follicle stimulating hormone
A. 16 hours light/8 hours dark B. Oxytocin
B. 14 hours light/10 hours dark C. Progesterone
C. 15.5 hours light/8.5 hours dark D. Prolactin
D. 4 hours light/8 hours dark/4 hours 579. Involved in the development of immune
light/8 hours dark system, including the production of White
Blood Cells such as T-lymphocytes
574. Which of the following is called stress
A. adrenals
hormone?
B. parathyroid
A. Auxins
C. thymus
B. Cytokinins
D. testes
C. Gibberellins
D. Abscisic Acid 580. This plant hormones is responsible for
maintaining seed dormancy.
575. Which one of the following is a Precursor A. Abscisic Acid (ABA)
of Auxin?
B. Gibberellins
A. Tryptophan C. Auxin
B. Kaurene D. Cytoninins
C. Zeatin
581. What is the half life of glucagon
D. Methionine
A. 1 hr
576. What will happen after a meal with high B. 2 hr
starch content? C. 30 min
A. More insulin will be secreted into D. 6 min
blood stream
582. Which hormone directly affects the secre-
B. more insulin will be released into small
tion of aldosterone?
intestine
A. Adrenaline
C. more glucagon will be released into
bloodstream B. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
D. more glucagon will be released into C. Glucagon
small intestine D. T3

2.8 Hormones 488
583. What hormone helps fruit to ripen? 589. A MRI scan allows neuroscientists to see
A. Auxin
B. Gibberellin A. The activity within the brain.
C. Cytokinins B. The structure of the brain.
D. Ethylene C. The individual neurons in the brain.
D. The electrical pulses in the brain.
584. Which hormone increases heart rate, di-
lates pupils, opens airways, and releases 590. How do liver cells respond to increased
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sugars into the bloodstream? insulin levels in the blood?
A. aldosterone A. They absorb glucose and convert it to
B. oxytocin glycogen
C. melatonin B. They absorb glucose and convert it to
D. adrenaline glucagon
C. They break down glucagon and re-
585. Hormones are used in signaling. lease the glucose into the blood
A. endocrine D. They break down glycogen and release
B. juxtacrine the glucose into the blood
C. autocrine E. They release glucagon into the blood
D. paracrine
591. Which of these neurons carries the im-
586. One of the main functions of the is to pulse from the CNS to the effector?
maintain homeostasis & release hormones A. Motor Neuron
to the exterior pituitary
B. Sensory Neuron
A. Nervous system
C. Effector Neuron
B. Pituitary gland
D. Relay neuron
C. Hypothalamus
D. none of above 592. When a plant responds to changes in the
relative lengths of light and darkness, the
587. Which of the following secretes the hor- plant is responding to
mone melatonin? A. touch.
A. medulla B. gravity.
B. pituitary gland C. pigments.
C. hypothalamus
D. photoperiod.
D. pineal gland
593. The endocrine system helps to maintain a
588. Promotes cell elongation stable environment in a process known as
A. abscisic acid
B. auxin A. peristalsis
C. cytokinins B. homeostasis
D. gibberellin C. metabolism
E. ethylene D. respiration

2.9 Chemotherapy 489
594. The gland is triangular in shape and C. Phototropism

sits atop the kidney.
D. Growth

A. adrenal
B. thyroid 596. Stimulates cell division
C. pineal A. abscisic acid
D. thymus B. auxin
595. Auxins are responsible for of a plant C. cytokinins

A. Colour change D. gibberellin
B. Watering E. ethylene
2.9 Chemotherapy
1. What is the first step to the extravastion 4. Obtaining spill kit after assessing the spill
procedure? area is step number
A. Immediately STOP administering the A. 1
vesicant and IV fluids
B. 2
B. Attempt to aspirate residual vesicant
C. 3
from the IV device or port needle using a
small syringe. D. 4
C. Assess the site of the suspected ex- 5. Penicillin is structurally similar to
travasation.
A. Cephalosporin
D. none of above
B. Tetracycline
2. What does “anaphylaxis” mean? C. Erythromycin
A. A passage or escape into the tissues D. Clindamycin
B. An exaggerated, life-threatening hy-
persensitivity reaction to a previously en- 6. Which of the following is true about the
countered antigen. care of central vascular access devices?
C. A red blush on the skin at the periphery A. Change gauze dressing every 3 days.
of an urticarial lesion seen in immediate B. Change gauze dressing every 5 days.
hypersensitivity reactions
C. Change transparent dressing every 5
D. none of above days.
3. Wearing only the tie and close the bag D. Change transparent dressing every 7
and place in second yellow bag (biohazard days.
bag)
7. How many days should I flush the Hick-
A. Inner gloves man and Port-A-Cath lines with heparin
B. Goggles 100 unit/ml?
C. Outer gloves A. every day
D. none of above B. 3 days

2.9 Chemotherapy 490
C. 1 week 13. What does the term “Vesicant” mean?

D. 2 weeks A. A passage or escape into the tissues
8. Fluoroquinolones commonly have this B. A red blush on the skin at the periphery
stem? of an urticarial lesion
A. -mycin C. Also referred to as “blistering

agents”:Chemicals that cause blistering
B. -ceph, -cef of the skin or mucous membranes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. -floxacin D. none of above
D. -vir
14. What does a “flare reaction” mean?
E. -cycline
A. A red blush on the skin at the periphery
9. Bacteriostatic means to: of an urticarial lesion seen in immediate
hypersensitivity reactions
A. stop the growth and multiplication
B. An inappropriate and excessive re-
B. destroy the cell wall
sponse of the immune system to a sensi-
C. inhibit protein synthesis tizing antigen, called an allergen
D. none of above C. It is also referred to as “blistering
agents”
10. Cephalosporins and Penicillin MOA (mech-
anism of action) is: D. none of above
A. inhibition of protein synthesis 15. What is the common stem for penicillins?
B. inhibition of cell wall synthesis A. -mycin
C. inhibition of growth or multiplication B. -cef
D. none of above C. -cillin
11. What is a “Hypersensitivity reaction”? D. -cycline
A. A passage or escape into the tissues 16. Posting a sign near spill area after obtain-
B. An agent that produces inflammation ing the spill is step number ?
or irritation
A. 1
C. An inappropriate and excessive re-
B. 2
sponse of the immune system to a sensi-
tizing antigen, called an allergen C. 3
D. none of above D. 4
12. Place all PPE removed into what color 17. What is the last step in managing a
bag? chemotherapy spill?
A. Yellow A. Laying absorbent pads over the spill.
B. Red B. Remove shoe covers.
C. Orange C. Perform hand hygiene.

2.10 Drug therapy of glaucoma and cataract 491
18. Which of the following is the appropriate 19. Which of these is a beta lactamase in-
length of time to use a type of cable? Non- hibitor?
tunnelled catheters

A. Clavulanic Acid
A. no more than 5 days
B. Amoxicillin
B. no more than 1 week
C. no more than 3 weeks C. Ampicillin
D. no more than 1 month D. Tetracycline
2.10 Drug therapy of glaucoma and cataract

1. extrapyramidal side effects are most com- 5. what portion of the peripheral nervous
monly associated with which class of system is response for, activating heart,
drugs? muscles and glandular secretions?
A. antidepressants A. autonomic system
B. anxiolytics B. motor system
C. benzodiazepines C. nonmoter system
D. antipsychotics
D. renin-angiotensin system
2. which drug has been successfully used for
decades to treat the manic phase of bipolar 6. AH formation requires active transport of
disorder? ion out of the ciliary body.
A. propanolol A. Na
B. lithium B. Cl
C. paroxetine C. HCO3
D. citalopram D. Mg
3. tardive dyskinesia is an extrapyramidal
side effect that is characterized by: 7. Family studies have confirmed that
schizophrenia increase in line with
A. the inability to sit still
A. Genetic similarity
B. muscular rigidity
C. involuntary, repeated muscle move- B. Behavioural factors
ments of the face, trunk, arms, and legs C. Environmental factors
D. unstable vital signs, fever, confusion, D. Order of birth
and incontinence
8. What percentage of blindness is due to
4. antidepressant medications basically in-
glaucoma?
crease:
A. anxiety A. 55%
B. certain neurotransmitter activities B. 28%

C. bronchiolar activities C. 12%
D. gastrointestinal relaxation D. 74%

2.10 Drug therapy of glaucoma and cataract 492
9. Schizophrenia is polygenic. What does this 14. Which of these decrease AH formation by
mean? decreasing blood supply to ciliary body
A. It is influenced by a single gene through vasoconstriction
B. It is prevalent primarily in every other A. a1 adrenoceptor agonists

generation within a family B. a2 adrenoceptor agonists
C. It is influenced by two or more genes. C. beta AA
D. The genes for schizophrenia are dor- D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mant until activated by environmental fac-
tors 15. Which is a symptom of glaucoma?
A. Rainbow-coloured circles
10. when clients make and informed decision
not to follow a prescribed treatment pro- B. clear vision
gram, this called: C. itchy feet
A. self-determination D. super strength
B. relapse 16. An increase in ocular pressure may develop
C. adverse reaction into for a patient. The patient may
D. noncompliance have mild visual disturbances and little to
no pain.
11. How many Canadians are affected by glau- A. cataract
coma?
B. glaucoma
A. 100 000
C. conjunctivitis
B. 60 000
D. astigmatism
C. 6 000
D. 400 000 17. Which of these decrease AH formation by
directly inhibits AH formation via decreas-
12. what is the process of presenting clients ing cAMP: adrenoceptor agonists
with all the information they will need to A. a1
make voluntary and knowledgeable deci-
sions about their care? B. a2
A. informed consent C. beta
B. noncompliance D. none of above
C. intervention 18. How many types of glaucoma are there?

D. evaluation A. 2
13. The most likely genes involved in B. 4

schizophrenia seem to be those for cod- C. 3
ing: D. 1
A. Microglia
19. depressed people may be more likely to
B. Dopamine attempt suicide when taking antidepres-
C. Neurotransmitters sants because of:
D. Serotonin A. deceased energy levels

2.11 Treatment of poisoning 493
B. increased energy levels D. Known as the ‘love hormone’, it helps

C. hypertensive crisis facilitate childbirth

D. mania
21. Nursing care for clients receiving psy-
20. Dopamine is a type of neurotransmitter chotherapeutic drugs includes assess-
and hormone which primarily does what? ments, coordination, administration, mon-
itoring and evaluation, and:
A. Helps with the timing of your circadian
rhythm and with sleep A. compromise
B. Allows you to feel pleasure, satisfac- B. prescription
tion and motivation
C. forced compliance
C. Responsible for stress response and
immune system D. teaching
2.11 Treatment of poisoning

1. These are the signs and symptoms of C. Sodium benzoate
shock.
D. All of the above
A. confusion, High heart rate, low blood
pressure and pallor 5. Usually caused by an allergic reaction or
B. high blood pressure and SOB poisoning
C. excessive crying A. hemolytic shock
D. red, dry skin B. anaphylactic shock
2. This type of shock occurs when there is se- C. hemorrhagic shock

vere bleeding and a decrease in blood vol- D. cardiogenic shock
ume
A. septic 6. This type of shock is when the heart can-
not pump the blood effectively because the
B. cardiogenic
heart muscle is damaged
C. metabolic
A. septic
D. hemorrhagic
B. cardiogenic
3. What is a poison?
C. metabolic
A. Something you Eat
D. hemorrhagic
B. Something you Rub on your skin
C. A substance that when it is taken in the 7. This type of shock is caused by an acute
body causes illness and injury infection
D. none of above A. septic
4. Some food preservers are B. cardiogenic

A. Salt C. metabolic
B. Edible Oils D. anaphylactic

8. Your younger sibling has swallowed some- 13. When someone has swallowed something
thing harmful. What is your key action? harmful, you know you need to get help
quickly. Should you
A. Find out what they have taken, when
and how much T A. Go to a pharmacy
B. Think about what they might have swal- B. Call 911 or get someone else to do it
lowed C. Call your GP
C. Keep them awake so they can talk to D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the ambulance person
14. What is the first thing to do when a victim
D. none of above
swallows a poison?
9. When using an epi pen you should hold the A. have them vomit
injection in place for how long?
B. call poison control
A. 5 seconds
C. throw poison away
B. 10 seconds D. call there family
C. 15 seconds
15. Signs/symptoms of shock
D. 3 seconds
A. cyanosis
10. Some symptoms of food poisoning are B. diaphoresis
A. Weakness C. rapid, weak pulse
B. Headache D. All of the above
C. Nausea
16. When the patient’s lips are blue in color
D. All of the above this is called
A. shock
11. excessive perspiration
B. Third degree burn
A. diaphoresis
C. Cyanosis
B. cyanotic
D. smoker
C. shock
D. triage 17. Shock is also called
A. hyperanemia
12. A friend has swallowed something harm-
ful, other than asking them, what else B. hypersecretion
might help you find out more informa- C. hypoperfusion
tion?
D. hypocalemia
A. Calls they might have recently made
18. Spider bites, insect bites, snake bites
B. Websites they might have been brows-
ing A. Inhalation poisoning
C. Selfies your friend might have taken B. Injection poisoning
D. Packaging near your friend or in the C. Contact poisoning

house D. Ingestion poisoning

19. Type of poisoning that occurs when some- A. To inform the police
thing harmful as been swallowed B. To put the substance away so no one

A. Inhalation else might swallow it
B. Injection C. So the person can get the right medi-
C. Contact cal treatment
D. Ingestion D. none of above
20. hypoperfusion, signs and symptoms asso- 24. the type of shock occurs with a loss of
ciated with inadequate supply of blood to body fluid that causes a disruption in nor-
body organs mal acid-base balance of body (ex. severe
A. hemorrhage burns)
B. shock A. septic
C. triage B. cardiogenic
D. diaphoresis C. metabolic
21. The best position for treating shock D. anaphylactic
A. place victim on their side with feet ele- 25. This type of shock occurs with an allergic
vated 12 inches reaction causes body to release histamine
B. place victim on back with knees A. septic
propped up and feet flat on ground
B. cardiogenic
C. place victim flat on back with feet ele-
vated 12 inches C. metabolic
D. place victim on side with head raised D. anaphylactic
12 inches
26. If someone has swallowed something
22. Treatment of food poisoning includes harmful, which of the following are the
A. Drink plenty of liquids to replace the questions you need to answer
lost electrolytes A. What? When? Why?
B. Allow ice cubes to melt in the mouth or B. When? Why? Where?
sip small amounts of water even if vomit-
C. When? Why? How many?
ing persists.
C. Gradually start eating blander food D. What? When? How many?
items such as cereals, toast, rice, banana, 27. What is a sign of a severe allergic reac-
etc. tion?
D. All of the above
A. trouble breathing
23. When someone has swallowed something B. sleepy
harmful, why is finding out what a per-
son has taken, when they took it and how C. high fever
many they have taken so important? D. vomitting

3. Microbiology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.1 Introduction to Microbiology
1. What is the purpose of serial dilution? 4. Among are cellular microorganisms, ex-
cept:
A. To increase the concentration of a sam-
ple A. Bacteria
B. To decrease the concentration of a B. Archaea
sample C. Fungi
C. To measure the pH of a sample D. Virus
D. To measure the temperature of a sam-
5. What cells have a cell wall?
ple
A. both plant and animal cells
2. Bacteria are: B. just animal cells
A. Prokaryotes with peptidoglycan cell C. neither plant or animal cells
walls
D. just plant cells
B. Eukaryotes with peptidoglycan cell
walls 6. What is the full name for LSTB broth?
C. Prokaryotes with chitin cell walls A. Lactose Sulphate Trypsin Broth
D. Prokaryotes who live in extreme envi- B. Lauryl Sulphate Tryptose Broth
ronments (no peptidoglycan) C. Lectin Sulphate Tryptose Broth
D. Lauryl Sucrose Trypsin Broth
3. Microbiology
A. Study of the shape of cells 7. “Acid-loving bacteria”
B. Ur mom A. Neutrophils
C. The study of living organisms too small B. Alkanophiles
to be seen with the naked eye C. Halophiles
D. none of above D. Acidophiles

3.1 Introduction to Microbiology 497
8. Which two stains are used in the En- C. Nonharmful and often beneficial mi-
dospore Staining technique? croorganisms that live on the surface of
the body and inside body openings and or-

A. Malachite Green and Crystal Violet
gans and may help in resisting pathogens
B. Malachite Green and Safranin
D. none of above
C. Safranin and Crystal Violet
D. none of above 14. This macromolecule has many functions in-
cluding enzyme activities, providing struc-
9. Check each one that is true about viruses ture, cell communication, etc
A. They are alive A. Proteins
B. They have nucleic Acid B. Lipids
C. They hijack cells C. Carbohydrates
D. They can be deadly D. Nucleic acids
10. Which of the following statements are 15. It is the national molecular subtyping net-
true? work for food-borne disease surveillance
A. All microorganisms are bad A. Food Net
B. All microorganisms are good B. Pulse Net
C. Some microorganisms are harmful, C. Surveillance systems for tracking food-
while some can be helpful borne diseases
D. Microorganisms are too small to do D. Food processing essentials
anything to anyone 16. Which of the following atoms has the high-
11. Which among is the only algae? est electronegativity?
A. Paramecium A. Hydrogen
B. Ameoba B. Carbon
C. Penicillium C. Nitrogen
D. Spirogyra D. none of above

17. Which scientist is most responsible for fi-
12. What is the charge of an atom with 5 pro-
nally laying the theory of sponaneous gen-
tons, 6 neutrons and 4 electrons?
eration to rest?
A. +1
A. Joseph Lister
B. -1
B. Robert Koch
C. 11
C. Francesco Redi
D. 10
D. Louis Pasteur
13. Normal Flora
18. Building blocks of lipids
A. The study of living organisms too small A. monosaccharides
to be seen with the naked eye
B. glycerol and fatty acids
B. Thin layer of microorganisms spread
on a glass slide for microscopic examina- C. neucleotides
tion and identification D. amino acids

19. What is the purpose of enrichment broth D. A bacterium lacks a plasma mem-
in microbiological examination of food? brane.
A. provide nutrients necessary for devel-
opment of wide range of microorganisms 25. Which of the following is not the im-
portance of microorganisms in our daily
B. provide as a diluent to the procedure lives?
C. enhance mixture of food for analysis
A. Organic decomposing agent.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Manufacture of bread, cheese and al-
20. What are the two parameters affecting cohol.
the growth of microorganisms?
C. Producing antibiotics and vaccines.
A. External and internal parameters
D. Changes in the natural water cycle.
B. Extrinsic and intrinsic parameters
C. macro and micro parameters 26. Invented the first antibiotic called penicillin
D. small and large parameters A. A. Flemming
21. Most spoilage bacteria grow at B. E. Jenner
A. Acidic pH C. H. Fracastorius
B. Alkaline pH D. J. Tyndall
C. Neutral pH
D. Any of the pH 27. What are some bad effects of fungi?
A. Athletes Foot
22. Expected results to indicate growth of
E.coli on EMB agar? B. Ringworm
A. bright pink colonies C. Mushroom’s produce deadly poison
B. cream colonies D. All of the above
C. metallic sheen colonies
D. yellowish green colonies 28. Which among is not a protozoan?
A. Amoeba
23. Which two pathogens need a host to re-
produce? B. Paramecium
A. viruses C. Penicillium
B. parasites D. none of above
C. fungi
D. bacteria 29. Gram negative bacteria will exhibit this
color on microscopy
24. How does a bacterium cell compare with a
A. Red
typical animal cell?
A. A bacterium is smaller in size. B. Yellow
B. A bacterium has a smaller nucleus. C. Green

C. A bacterium contains more organelles. D. Blue

30. A culture medium on which only gram- C. anthrax

positive organisms grow and a yellow halo D. Tuberculosis
surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies

is called 35. Name the four types of microbes.
A. a selective medium. A. pizza, burgers, tacos, and fries
B. a differential medium. B. bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa
C. an enrichment culture. C. bacteria, viruses, a fun guy, prototype
D. both a selective and differential D. germs, bacteria, antibiotics, protozoa
medium.
36. What does equatorial mean?
31. The true Hierarchy of Linneus Binomial
nomenclature is A. near the equator
A. Alam → Phylum → Order → Class → B. far from the equator
Family → Genus →Spesis C. mid-ocean zone
B. Alam → Phylum → Class → Order → D. balanced pH
Family → Genus →Spesis
C. Alam → Famili → Kelas → Order → 37. This bacterium exhibits metachromatic
Filum → Genus→ Spesis granules
D. Alam → Kelas → Order → Filum → A. Corynebacterium

Famili → Genus→ Spesis B. Escherichia
32. Which organisms require a host cell to re- C. Mycobacteria
produce? D. Klebsiella
A. protozoans
38. Which of the following statements regard-
B. bacteria ing plasmids is true?
C. viruses A. They are unable to self replicate
D. none of above B. Plasmid curing is a process used to
33. How can our amount of freshwater be de- maintain a plasmid in a bacterial popula-
pleted? tion
A. increased demands for water on ac- C. They may carry genes that confer re-
count of population shifts sistance to antibiotics
B. water moving to different parts of the D. A donor bacterium completely loses its
water cycle plasmid copy to the recipient cell after the
process of bacterial conjugation
C. evaporation
D. precipitation returning to ground wa- 39. Other than Spallanzani, who refuted the
ter theory of spontaneous generation?
A. Fracastorius
34. Robert Koch began his work with the
Germ Theory of Disease with what agent B. Louis Pasteur
A. cholera C. Francesco Redi
B. syphilis D. Theodore Schwann

40. All of which are photosynthetic, except: 46. It is the prototype strain of genetically
A. Algae and antigenically diverse single-stranded
ribonucleic acid (RNA) viruses.
B. Plantae
A. Norwalk virus
C. Fungi
B. Escherichia coli O157:H7
D. none of above
C. Listeria monocytogenes
41. Bacteria in chains
D. Protozoa
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Streptococci
47. What is the cell shape and group arrange-
B. Staphylococci
ment of the bacteria diplobacillus?
C. Gonococci
A. spheres in pairs
D. Mycoplasma
B. rods in clusters
42. A chemical that specifically kills bacteria or C. rods in pairs
slows their growth but has no effect on eu-
karyotes or viruses D. spirals in chains
A. Vaccine 48. The bacterial cell wall is composed of dif-

B. Pathogen ferent constituents. Which of the follow-
ing best describes the cell wall of Gram
C. Antibiotic negative bacteria?
D. Toxin
A. It lacks the outer membrane
43. The main microorganism in yoghurt is B. It has a thick layer of peptridoglycan
A. Streptococcus thermophilus C. Porins are present in the outer mem-
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus brane
C. Leuconostoc citrovorum D. Lipoteichoic acides anchor the wall to
the cytoplasmic membrane
D. Streptococcus lactis
49. What does the nucleus do? /What is the
44. An outbreak of food borne illness occurs
nucleus?
when a group of people consumes the
same contaminated food. A. control center of the cell
A. Pandemic B. stores water
B. Global Poisoning C. produces energy
C. Foodborne illness outbreak D. provides structure and support
D. Epidemiology
50. A type of substance produced by bacteria
45. Building blocks of carbohydrates and released when the bacteria die
A. monosaccharides A. Toxins
B. glycerol and fatty acids B. Endotoxin
C. neucleotides C. exotoxin
D. amino acids D. Paraquat

51. coined the term “cell”? 57. Which of these microbes is not used for yo-
A. Joseph Lister ghurt production.

A. Lactobacillus delbrueckii
B. Edward Jenner
B. Streptococcus thermophilus
C. Louis Pasteur
C. Lactobacillus lactis
D. Robert Hooke
D. none of above
52. The virus that enters the human body and
attacks the immune system is 58. Function of carbohydrates
A. HBV A. short-term energy

B. long-term energy
B. HCV
C. instructions for cells
C. HZV
D. acts as enzymes
D. HIV
59. Expected result for presence of Vibrio spp
53. Provides cushion, insulation, long-term en- on gram staining?
ergy storage and makes up cell mem-
branes A. Gram negative, curved rod shape bac-
teria
A. Lipids
B. Gram negative, cocci shape bacteria
B. Carbohydrates
C. Gram positive, curved rod shape bac-
C. Enzymes teria
D. DNA D. Gram positive, cocci shape bacteria
54. Lives in extreme environments 60. When ATP is broken down into ADP + Pi
A. Protists A. Hydrolysis
B. Algae B. Phosphorylation
C. Fungi C. Hydrosynthesis
D. Archaea D. none of above
55. Odd one out 61. Which part of a bacteria cell envelope
“holds” the crystal violet in the gram
A. Yoghurt stain?
B. Cream A. cytoplasmic membrane
C. Cheese B. fimbriae
D. Butter C. cell wall
56. What do we call a substance that an en- D. pili

zyme acts on? 62. Study of bacteria
A. substrate A. Bacteriology
B. polymerose B. Parasitology
C. kinase C. Protistology
D. phosphorylate D. Virology

63. What is cohesion? C. a tablet to get more energy

A. when water sticks to itself D. none of above
B. when water sticks to other things 69. The genus of Halobacterium salinarum is
C. when water sinks in the ocean
D. a deep ocean current driven by heat A. phylum
B. class
64. What is the shape of the bacteria strepto-
C. genus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
coccus?
D. species
A. spiral
B. rod shaped 70. Developed the first vaccine
A. Edward Jenner
C. round
B. Alexander Fleming
D. none of above
C. Robert Hooke
65. How can upwellings improve fishing for D. none of above
ocean fishermen?
71. Which of the following can be used to clas-
A. They bring nutrients from the cold,
sify or identify bacteria? (select all that
deep ocean waters
apply)
B. They provide ocean currents that A. how it moves
travel to the equator
B. shape of cells
C. They cause cold water to sink
C. the arrangement of cell groups
D. They are known to be good luck
D. if it has DNA
66. What does the Coriolis Effect cause ocean E. colony shape and growth
currents to do?
72. Prevented cross-contamination
A. It causes upwellings
A. Asepsis/Antisepsis
B. It brings warm water to the deep
B. Septic
ocean
C. Antibiotics
C. It causes ocean current paths to curve
D. Biocide
D. It helps water polarity levels
73. What type of bacteria look like spheres
67. The volume of sample used to do spread A. Staph
plating on agar after serial dilution?
B. Coccus
A. 1 ml
C. Bacillus
B. 0.5 ml
D. Spirillum
C. 0.2 ml
74. It is also known as prokaryotes
D. 0.1 ml
A. Virus
68. what is probiotics? B. Protozoa
A. a type of good bacteria C. Bacteria
B. a type of medication D. Fungi

75. A laboratory technician uses a MacConkey 80. This cell structure contains adhesins that is
agar that is designed to suppress the responsible for attachment properties
growth of Gram-positive bacteria, and en-

A. Pili
courage the growth of Gram-negative mi-
crobes. MacConkey agar is a type of B. Cilia
A. differential media C. Flagella
B. selective media D. Fiber
C. nutrient agar 81. Who came up with the rules for attributing
D. nutritive media a certain disease to a specific microbe?
A. Bassi
76. He is the greatest supporter of sponta-
neous generation. B. Semmelwise
A. Francisco Redi C. Koch
B. Schroder and Von Dusch D. Lister
C. John Needham 82. Known for his work with the maternity
D. Rudolf Virchow ward patients. They had babies, which he
delivered, but they and the mothers got
77. demonstrated that hand washing can very sick from childbed fever.
prevent the spread of disease.
A. Edward Jenner
A. Jenner
B. Ignaz Semmelweiss
B. Lister
C. Robert Koch
C. Semmelweis
D. Jonas Salk
D. Koch
83. Feces
78. Full name for PCA agar?
A. Thin layer of microorganisms spread
A. Phosphate carbon agar on a glass slide for microscopic examina-
tion and identification
B. Plate colony agar
B. Intestinal inflammation
C. Plate count agar
C. Excrement of waste products from the
D. Phosphate count agar
intestinal tract
79. Proved biogenesis and discovered that D. none of above
heat could kill bacteria that otherwise
spoiled liquids including milk, wine, and 84. This level of protein structure involves
beer. folding via hydrogen bonds only.
A. Louis Pasteur A. Primary
B. Ignas Semmelweis B. Secondary
C. Robert Koch C. Tertiary
D. Edward Jenner D. Quaternary

85. A special wax very of mycobacterium tu- 90. Which of the following statements are
berculosis that renders it very resistant to TRUE?
detergents and strong acids. A. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as
A. Mycolic acid cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric ni-
B. Stearic acid trogen (N2) for their nitrogen source.
C. Lauric acid B. Agar is a polysaccharide derived from
plant alga and is used as a solidifying
D. Hydroxybutyric acid
agent in microbiological media since few
NARAYAN CHANGDER
86. A wide range of chemical disinfectants bacteria can degrade it.
are used to reduce the number pathogens. C. Aerotolerant anaerobes grow more ef-
Which of the following statements best de- ficiently anerobically than they do aerobi-
scribes disinfectants? cally.
A. 95% ethyl alcohol is the most effective D. Facultative anaerobes grow more effi-
and commonly used disinfectant ciently aerobically than anaerobically.
B. Quarternary Ammonium Compounds
have strong bactericidal activity against 91. What defines a prokaryotic cell?
Gram-negative bacteria A. multicellular, nucleus
C. Chlorhexidine has good activity B. multicellular, no nucleus
against acid fast bacilli
C. unicellular, nucleus
D. Phenolic compounds act by disrupting
the microbial cell membrane D. unicellular, no nucleus
87. These are organism which are enclosed in 92. Which of the following maybe found in
a protein coat that contains nucleic acid bacteira?
which are either RNA and DNA A. nucleus
A. Viruses B. mitochondria
B. Prokaryotes C. ribosomes
C. Eukaryotes
D. golgi apparatus
D. Prions
93. What is a charged atom called?
88. Proteins build what?
A. Ion
A. Health
B. Isotope
B. Muscles and bones
C. Isopod
C. Carbohydrates
D. none of above
D. Lipids
89. Credited with implementing the first asep- 94. Koch’s postulate was developed around?
tic techniques in hospitals A. Stensor and volvox
A. Joseph Lister B. Rhizobium and Corynebacteria
B. Alexander Fleming C. Anthrax and Microbacterium tubercu-
C. Edward Jenner losis

95. Yeast in foods contain C. Exergonic reaction

A. Carbohydrates D. none of above

B. Proteins
101. Which type of agar to confirm presence
C. Vitamins of E.coli bacteria?
D. Minerals A. Mac Conkey agar
96. This scientist, known for his “Germ The- B. Eosin Methylene Blue agar
ory, “ showed that airborne microbes C. Blood agar
were the cause of disease
D. Mannitol agar
A. Alexander Fleming
B. Albert Einstein 102. What is adhesion?
C. Louis Pasteur A. when water sticks to other things
D. Joseph Lister B. when water sticks to itself
C. a deep ocean current driven by heat
97. Bacteria present in milk
D. when water evaporates
A. Milk bacillus
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus 103. The purpose of LSTB broth in examination
C. Paramecium of food?
D. Spirogyra A. for the detection of coliforms

B. inhibits organisms other than col-
98. What best explains why all of the Earth’s iforms
freshwater is not available for human
use? C. selective agent used to inhibit non-
coliform organisms
A. it is in groundwater
D. All of the above
B. it is water vapor
C. it is frozen 104. If a lake has excess levels of phosphates
and nitrates in its water, what will most
D. it is all available for human use
likely result?
99. Which growth stage represents no cell di- A. There will be an excess of fish
visions, but intense metabolic activity as
the bacteria adjust to their new environ- B. The water level will lower
ment in preparation for growth? C. The temperture will increase
A. log phase D. The growth of algae in the lake will in-
B. lag phase crease.
C. stationary phase 105. Amino acids are the building blocks of
D. death phase A. Proteins
100. When ADP and Pi combine to form ATP B. Lipids
A. Phosphorylation C. Carbohydrates
B. Hydrolysis D. Nucleic acids

106. Sunlight is considered to be a renewable 112. A mushroom is an example of a

resource because A. bacteria
A. sunlight is everywhere B. virus
B. photosynthesis is a necessity C. protozoa
C. it is available for billions of years D. fungus
D. we can convert it to electrical energy
113. What are the four ways in which mi-
crobes are spread?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. Causative agent of amoebiasis
A. Fungi A. touch, food, water, insects & animals
B. K. pneumonia B. touch, sight, taste, hearing, smell
C. Corynebacteria diphtheria C. jumping, leaping, hopping, skipping
D. Entamoeba histolytica D. touch, food, drink, oxygen
108. Which is the easiest way for a person to 114. Discovered the first antibiotic (penicillin)
prevent microbial infections? A. Alexander Fleming
A. Avoid contact with animals. B. Ignas Semmelweis
B. Isolate themselves at home. C. Robert Hooke
C. Sterilize everything in the home. D. Lars VanDoogle
D. Wash hands frequently with hot water 115. Resides in the intestines where it helps
and soap. in digestion
109. Developed the germ theory of disease A. Lactobacillus
(each disease is caused by a specific mi- B. Paramecium
crobe) C. Probiotics
A. Robert Koch D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Alexander Fleming
116. Three cells with a generation time of
C. Louis Pasteur 30 minutes are inoculated into a culture
D. none of above medium. How many cells (Nt) are there
after 5 hours? Use the formula:Nt = N0 x
110. Introduced antiseptics in surgery 2n
A. Joseph the Dreamer A. 7290
B. Josephine Bracken B. 1024
C. Joseph Lister C. 3072
D. Robert Koch D. 72.9 million
111. Areas of study related to viruses are 117. Pasteur developed vaccine against
A. Virology A. small pox
B. Mycology B. cow pox
C. Bacteriology C. anthrax
D. Protozoologists D. measles

118. Which of the following statements re- 123. Culture

garding transposons is true? A. small structures within the cytoplasm
of a cell

A. They are smaller than insertion se-
quences B. Thin layer of microorganisms spread
B. DNA transposons transpose via a on a glass slide for microscopic examina-
‘copy-and-paste’ mechanism tion and identification
C. ‘Conservative’ transposition involves C. a method of multiplying microbial or-
retrotransposons ganisms
D. Retrotransposition results in an in- D. none of above
crease in the copy number of retrotrans-
124. The “Father of Microbiology.”
poson in the genome
A. Robert Koch
119. What is the life cycle of a virus called
B. Benjamin Franklin
A. Litmus Test
C. Rene Laennec
B. Litmus Cycle
D. none of above
C. Lytic Cycle
125. He invented the microscope in 1666.
D. Lactic Cycle
A. Ambroise Pare
120. Select the 3 domains of life: B. Edward Jenner
A. Eukarya C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
B. Bacteria D. none of above
C. Archaea
126. Who was the first person to study mi-
D. Animalia croorganisms?
E. Plant A. Robert Koch
121. All are limitations of the Koch’s postu- B. Louis Pasteur
lates except: C. Alexander Fleming
A. Not all infectious agents can be grown D. Anthony Van Leeuwenhoek
in pure culture.
127. Bacteria are which type of cell
B. Pathogens may be altered during cul-
ture. A. Eukaryotic
C. Artificial subjects might not get sick af- B. Prokaryotic
ter inoculation. C. Nucaryotic
D. Pathogens must carry a specific gene D. Somatic
to re-infect.
128. A is an instrument used to magnify
122. Chitin cell walls are characteristic of objects that are hard to see or invisible to
which taxonomic group? the naked eye.
A. archaea A. telescope
B. algae B. stethoscope
C. fungi C. endoscope
D. bacteria D. microscope

129. Bacterial cells have special external fea- B. 20-200 colonies

tures that enable them to respond to their C. 20-300 colonies
environment. Which of the following bac-
terial structures is used for movement? D. 20-400 colonies
A. Capsule 135. This scientist is best known for his Nobel

B. Fimbria Prize-winning discovery of the antibiotic
penicillin in 1928.
C. Glycocalyx
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Flagellum
B. Albert Einstein
130. A(n) is added to neutralize acids. C. Louis Pasteur
A. buffer D. Joseph Lister
B. sucrose solution
136. All are layer of the cell envelope of the
C. pH probe prokaryotic cells except?
D. heat source A. Outer Membrane
131. How is serial dilution performed? B. Peptide Layer
A. By adding a known volume of original C. Periplasmic space
sample to an equal volume of diluent D. Cell Membrane
B. By heating the sample
137. Eukaryotic example. Bacteria. Viruses
C. By freezing the sample Iiii. Fungus. Protozoa
D. By centrifuging the sample A. i. ii. iii
132. Which scientist came back from a vaca- B. i. and iii
tion and found that a bluish-green mold C. ii and iii
had killed bacteria?
D. ii iii and iv
138. Which characteristic distinguishes a
B. Albert Einstein
prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?
C. Louis Pasteur
A. A eukaryotic cell has a nucleus, while
D. Joseph Lister a prokaryotic cell does not.
133. How many kingdoms of bacteria are B. A eukaryotic cell does not have a nu-
there cleus, while a prokaryotic cell does.
A. 1 C. A eukartyotic cell is a plant cell, while
a prokaryotic cell is an animal cell.
B. 2
D. A eukaryotic cell is an animal cell,
C. 3 while a prokaryotic cell is a plant cell.
D. 4
139. This level of protein structure involves a
134. Range of colonies required for counting single chain and includes disulfide bridges,
under PCA agar for estimation of microor- hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds and
ganisms in CFU/ml? hydrogen bonds.
A. 20-150 colonies A. Primary

B. Secondary 145. Which of the following statements re-

C. Tertiary garding antibiotic resistance by the produc-
tion of B-lactamases is true?

D. Quaternary
A. It hydrolyzes the B-lactam ring to yield
140. In binary fission, all of the following oc- microbiologically inactive product
cur EXCEPT B. It disrupts the bacterial DNA replica-
A. there is an increase in numbers. tion
B. the resulting cells are genetically iden- C. It remains inside Gram-positive bacte-
tical. rial cell
C. the bacteria cell invades a host cell. D. It is released into the extracellular en-
D. only one parent cell was involved at vironment in Gram-negative bacteria
the beginning. 146. Which is true about bacteria cells?
141. Photosynthetic eukaryotes. Thought to A. they lack lipids
give rise to the first plants on Earth. B. they lack a nucleus
A. Algae C. they lack proteins
B. Fungi D. they lack DNA
C. Archaea
147. This cellular organelle contains attached
D. Protozoa
80s ribosomes
142. Which best describes where you would A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
find microorganisms?
B. Nucleus
A. in ponds, lakes, and oceans.
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. in animals, plants, and humans.
D. Mitochondria
C. on food that has rotted.
148. Which of the following are CORRECTLY
D. everywhere around us.
matched.
143. I am a unicellular prokaryote with a pep- A. Spread plate-Colonies grown on agar
tidoglycan cell wall. What am I? surface for identification.
A. Virus B. Colonies-Accumulation of microbes
B. Bacteria large enough to see without a microscope.
C. Archaea C. Inocuation-Isolation method for get-
ting pure cultures; uses an inoculating
D. Protist
loop to trace a pattern of inoculum on a
144. Organisms & through mitosis and solid medium is
meosis. D. Streak plate-Microbes added to initi-
A. Strive and survive ate growth.
B. die and perish E. Enrichment culture-Used to increase
the numbers of a small minority of mi-
C. produce and grow croorganisms in a mixed culture to arrive
D. grow and divide at a detectable level of microorganisms.

149. An example of acid fast bacteria 155. An organism with only one cell is called
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Escherichia coli A. multi-celled
C. Corynebacterium deficile B. duracell
D. Klebsiella pneumonia C. single-celled
150. Which of the following is used in the pro- D. slow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
duction of blue cheese?
A. Streptococcus thermophilus 156. Pathogens that cause disease in hosts
with weakened immune systems are cat-
B. Lactobacillus bulgaricus egorized as
C. Penicillium roqueforti
A. aerobic
D. Rhizopus stolonifer
B. bound
151. Which of this is not used for production
C. normal flora
of Ajinomoto.
A. Sugar molasses D. opportunistic
B. Ammonia salt
157. Mycology is the study of
C. Beet molasses
A. fungi
D. Glucose
B. bacteria
152. Helminths fall under the category of
C. algae
A. Multicellular Animal Parasites
D. protozoa
B. Algae
C. Protozoa 158. Which individual first observed unicellu-
D. none of above lar organisms, which he called “animal-
cules, “ using a microscope he developed?
153. What is the mass of an atom with 8 pro-
tons, 8 neutrons and 7 electrons? A. Robert Koch
A. 16 B. Louis Pasteur
B. 23 C. Thucydides
C. 0 D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
D. -1
159. Non-Renewable resources are also
154. When oppositely charged atoms are at- known as what?
tracted to each other
A. natural resources
A. Ionic bond
B. Polar covalent bond B. fossil fuels
C. Nonpolar covalent bond C. extinctual power

D. none of above D. solar powered

160. Which is the best description of the pri- C. endemic

mary purpose of a phylogeny? D. pandemic

A. Phylogenies show all the alterative
166. The microscope used to see a bigger and
names for each species.
more detailed organism
B. . Phylogenies show all the common
A. Electron Microscope (EM)
names for each species.
B. Fluorescence Microscope
C. Phylogenies show evolutionary relat-
edness between organisms. C. Compound Microscope
D. Phylogenies show interactions be- D. Phase-contrast Microscope
tween species in a shared habitat. 167. Invented the petri dish
161. Site where most of the cell’s metabolic A. Richard Gutierrez
reactions occur. B. Richard Petri
A. Nucleus C. Richard Wagner
B. Cytoplasm D. Which Rich
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum 168. Gram positive bacteria will exhibit this
D. Golgi complex color on microscopy
162. What causes surface tension? A. Blue

B. Yellow
A. high amounts of dissolved oxygen
C. Red
B. polarity of water molecules
D. Green
C. eutrophication
D. water being a neutral molecule 169. Most enzymes end with the suffix
A. -ase
163. Louis Pasteur is involved in all of the fol-
lowing except: B. -ose
C. -ide
A. Staining
D. -cyte
B. Germ Theory
C. Vaccination 170. What is the energy we get from earth’s
interior heat?
D. Aseptic Technique
A. Geothermal
164. was named Father of chemotherapy B. Solar
after his discovery of salvarsan.
C. Hydroelectric
A. Jenner
D. Interior Conduit
B. Ehrlich
171. John Snow is best know for what based
C. Semmelweis
on his work with cholera
D. Lister
A. Father of Microbiology
165. What is the largest level of disease? B. Father of Bateriology
A. epidemic C. Father of Epidemiology
B. cluster D. Father of Immunology

172. Acellular. Consist of DNA or RNA core 177. What does a eukaryotic cell have that a
surrounded by a protein coat. Are repli- prokaryotic cell does not have
cated only when they are in a living host
A. Membrane
cell.
B. Nucleic Acid
A. Viruses
C. Nuclear Membrane
B. Bacteria
D. Organelles
C. Archaea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Zombies 178. The practice of heating liquids to kill bac-
teria is called
173. Is formerly named as Protista
A. fermentation
A. Algae
B. pasteurization
B. Fungi
C. vaccination
C. Protozoa
D. microbiology
D. none of above
179. Known as the Father of Microbiology due
174. What does pH measure?
to his work with “animacules” found on
A. H+ concentration his own teeth is:
B. O2 concentration A. Jonas Salk
C. CO2 concentration B. Robert Koch
D. Phosphate concentration C. Semmelweiss
175. Many gram positive and gram negative D. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
bacteria produce exotoxins of medical im-
portance. Which of the following is the 180. Inoculated
characteristic of exotoxins? A. Mucous substance expelled when
A. They can withstand temperatures coughing or clearing the bronchi; also
above 60C for hours without loss of toxic- called saliva or spit
ity B. Clumping together
B. They are lipopolysaccharide com- C. Referring to the condition of microor-
plexes ganisms that have been placed on or in
C. They are secreted by living cells media
D. They are weakly immunogenic D. none of above
176. Eukaryotes that have chitin cell walls and 181. Which of the following have high vitamin
hyphae content?
A. Fungi A. Bacteria
B. Algae B. Yeast
C. Protozoa C. Algae
D. Archaea D. Protozoa

182. Sputum C. akaryotic

A. oui D. bekaryotic

B. Mucous substance expelled when
188. Organisms that thrive in high salt envi-
coughing or clearing the bronchi
ronments are classified as
C. Referring to the condition of microor-
A. psychrophiles
ganisms that have been placed on or in
media B. halophiles
D. none of above C. hyperthermophiles
183. Aspergillus niger produces organic D. alkalophiles

acid to be used in toffee production
189. What are 3 examples of nonrenewable
A. Gluconic acid resources?
B. Citric acid A. Oil
C. Lactic acid B. Coal
D. Malic acid C. Natural Gas
184. Among are multicellular organisms, ex- D. Wood
cept:
190. Which agar selectively for detecting
A. Plantae salmonella spp?
B. Fungi
A. Nutrient agar
C. Protozoa
B. Mac Conkey agar
D. Algae
C. Blood agar
185. Mounted two lenses in a tube to produce D. Salmonella shigella agar
the first compound microscope.
A. Robert Hooke 191. Which best compares bacteria and
viruses?
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
A. Bacteria are smaller than viruses.
C. Hans and Zacharias Janssen
B. Bacteria cause disease, but viruses do
D. Ernst Ruska not.
186. Most microorganisms cannot be seen C. Bacteria are living organisms, but
without a viruses are not.
A. microscope D. Bacteria have genetic material, but
B. magnifying lens viruses do not.
C. telescope 192. What helps prevent viral diseases?
D. x-ray machine A. Vaccines
187. What kind of cell is bacteria? B. Antibiotics
A. prokaryotic C. Herbal tea
B. eukaryotic D. Gene Therapy

193. It is a bacterial pathogen that has a reser- 198. A type of microscope that can identify Tre-
voir mainly in cattle ponema pallidum
A. EHEC A. Dark-field microscope
B. Escherichia coli O157:H7 B. Light microscope
C. Protozoa C. Bright-field microscope
D. Fungi D. Fluorescence microscope
NARAYAN CHANGDER
199. What does TCBS agar stand for?
194. What are the percentages of fresh and
saltwater on Earth? A. Tricitrate Chloride Bile Sucrose agar
A. 50% fresh, 50% salt B. Thiosulphate Citrate Bile Sucrose agar
B. 3% salt, 97% fresh C. Thiocitrate Chloride Barium Sulphate
agar
C. 70% salt, 30% fresh
D. Trichloride Carbon Barium Sulphate
D. 97% salt, 3% fresh agar
195. Period of equilibrium in which new cell 200. Why are estuaries important?
numbers are balanced by the death of cells
A. They hold all of the drinkable water for
is considered the
a geographic area
A. growth phase.
B. Most fish complete at least a part of
B. log phase. their life cycle here
C. equillibrium phase C. They are rare
D. stationary phase. D. They are only important in equatorial
regions.
196. Chemically, vinegar is % acetic acid.
201. What are the advantages of using serial
A. 2 dilution?
B. 4 A. allows for precise measurement of
C. 5 concentration of a sample
D. 3 B. allows isolation of pure cultures of mi-

croorganisms from mixed populations
197. Enteritis C. allows for preparation of solutions
A. Excrement of waste products from the with a known concentration
intestinal tract D. All of the above
B. Nonharmful and often beneficial mi- 202. The cell walls of archaeans often contain
croorganisms that live on the surface of which of the following substances?
the body and inside body openings and or-
gans and may help in resisting pathogens A. cellulose
C. Intestinal inflammation, usually result- B. chitin

ing from food poisoning C. peptidoglycan
D. none of above D. protein

203. Which of the following statements re- 207. What is the range of protein content in
garding antibiotic resistance is true? yeast cells?

A. A cell acquires resistance to one class A. 69%
of antibiotic at a time
B. 12-15%
B. Activation of drug efflux pumps in bac-
teria is associated with beta lactam antibi- C. 20-40%
otics
D. 40-50%
C. Chromosomal mutatuin is one of the
mechanisms of antibiotic resistance 208. Plants make their own food through
D. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus ?
aureus (MRSA) are sensitive to B-lactam
A. Cellular respiration
antibiotics
B. Producing energy
204. Bacteria that do NOT use oxygen and usu-
ally find it toxic are classified as C. Photosynthesis
A. obligate aerobes D. food molocules
B. obligate anaerobes
209. Which of the following can be helpful in
C. microtolerant aerobes
treating bacterial diseases but NOT viral
D. facultative anaerobes diseases?
205. Which of the following environments are A. vaccines
assigned the correct BioSafety Level des-
ignation(s)? B. antibiotics
A. Most introductory microbiology labora- C. antiviral drugs
tories are a BSL-1.
D. aspirin
B. a clinical microbiology laboratory
working with potentially airborne 210. What are TWO examples of how mi-
pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, crobes can help us.
with a moderate to high risk is BSL-3
A. Make bread dough rise & make yogurt
C. a univesity research laboratory study-
ing organisms that pose a moderate risk, B. Cramp your stomach & give you gas
such as influenza and lyme disease, would
C. Make your hair shiny & clear up acne
be considered a BSL-2.
D. a laboratory studying the MOST dan- D. None of these
gerous microorganisms and personnel
are required to wear “space suits” is a 211. are multicellular eukaryotic organ-
BSL-3 isms that get their nutrition from absorp-
tion
206. The largest microorganism
A. Protists
A. Virus
B. Plants
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi C. Fungi
D. Protozoa D. none of above

212. Based just on the name, which of the fol- 217. Which are the three currently accepted
lowing groups of bacteria contains entirely domains?
species that consume organic compounds A. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
for food?
B. Archaea, Prokaryota, and Eukaryota
A. cyanobacteria
C. Bacteria, Prokaryota, and Eukarya
B. green nonsulfur bacteria
D. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protista
C. green sulfur bacteria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. Which is not true of bacteria?
D. nonphotosynthetic bacteria
A. They are prokaryotes
213. A substance that is a 13 on the pH scale
B. They have peptidoglycan in their cell
A. Base walls
B. Acid C. They have a nucleus
C. Pure water D. Some use photosynthesis
D. none of above 219. Robert Hooke
214. On a growth curve, which phase repre- A. Started cell theory
sents where the number of dead cells ex- B. Invented vaccines
ceeds the number of living cells until only
C. Discovered penicillin (the first antibi-
a small portion of the population exists or
otic)
vanishes completely?
D. Invented science
A. death phase
B. log phase 220. Which of the following is not a fungus?
C. stationary phase A. Yeast
D. lag phase B. Mould
C. Mushroom
215. What are the limitations of using serial
dilution? D. Algae
A. It can be time-consuming 221. Which famous scientist developed a vac-

B. Errors can occur if volumes and con- cine for rabies?
centrations are not measured accurately A. Louis Pasteur
C. It may not be suitable for certain types B. Robert Koch
of samples C. Antonie von Leeuwenhoeck
D. All of the above D. Thucydides
216. are caused by alcohol, tobacco use, 222. Agglutination
and drugs. (FILL IN THE BLANK)
A. Yeast infections
A. Food Molocules
B. Clumping together
B. Deadly viruses
C. The study of naked organisms that can-
C. Organelles not be seen by the naked eye
D. Cancers D. none of above

223. How does bacteria reproduce 228. What is the most effective way to pre-
vent the spread of viruses?
A. Cellular Fusion

A. antibiotics
B. Binary Fission
B. vaccines
C. Restitution
C. antivirals
D. social distancing
224. Which of the following is not true about
the process of fermentation? 229. How is the number of bacteria or other
microorganisms calculated using serial di-
A. It can help preserve foods, preventing lution?
spoilage.
A. plating aliquots of dilutedsamples on
B. It converts sugars to organic acids, al- nutrient agar/suitable media & counting
cohols, and/or gases such as carbon diox-
ide. B. centrifuging aliquotsofdilutedsamples
onnutrient agar/suitable media & count
C. It is carried out exclusively by unicellu-
lar eukaryotes such as yeast. C. freezing aliquots of dilutedsamples on
nutrient agar/other suitable media
D. It is used to make foods such as
cheese and bread. D. heating aliquots of dilutedsamples on
nutrient agar/other suitable media
225. Microorganisms that cause disease are
230. is a process in mining that extracts
known as
valuable metals from a low-grade ore with
A. vector the help of microorganisms.
B. infection A. Bioleaching
C. microbes B. Biomineralization
D. pathogens C. Biotransformation
226. are prokaryotes that live in ex- D. Biosorption

treme environments (ex:thermophiles and 231. The prefix that represents a clustered
halophiles) group of bactera is
A. Archaea A. staphylo
B. Bacteria B. strepto
C. Algae C. diplo
D. Protozoa D. none of above
227. Which enzyme catalyzes the reac- 232. The cytoplasmic extensions used by some
tion:H2O2 → H2O + O2 protists to move are called
A. superoxide dismutase A. cilia
B. oxidase B. flagellum
C. peroxidase C. spores
D. catalase D. pseudopodia

233. Which is an example of an endemic dis- 238. Many species of bacteria produce en-
ease? zymes that play an important role in the
infectious process. Which of the follow-
A. influenza
ing bacteria produce coagulase enzymes to
B. cancer protect against phagocytic action of the
C. smallpox host?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. chickenpox
B. Clostridium perfringens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
234. This scientist is known for the first vac- C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
cine created in a laboratory and is known
for pasteurization and proving that germs D. Staphylococcus aureus
cause disease. 239. Who is the Father of Modern Day Micro-
A. Alexander Fleming biology?
B. Albert Einstein A. Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur B. Tyndall

C. Pasteur
D. Joseph Lister
D. Iwanowski
235. Make up the largest group of organisms
in the world in terms of number, biomass, 240. Which early microbiologist was most re-
and diversity. sponsible for developing standard microbi-
ology laboratory techniques?
A. Protozoa
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Archaea
B. Robert Koch
C. Bacteria C. Carl von Linne
D. Algae D. John Tyndall
236. Which of the following is true of the mi- 241. These bacteria grow best in a pH be-
crobial world? tween 5.4 and 8.5
A. All microbes are harmful A. Acidophiles
B. Many microbes are pathogenic B. Neutrophiles
C. Most microbes are helpful C. Alkanophiles
D. Humans could survive without mi- D. none of above

crobes 242. Some members of the domain Archaea
are considered hyperthermophiles. The op-
237. What does the word “transmitted”
timum temperature range for these hyper-
mean?
thermophiles would be:
A. spoken A. -15oC to 0oC
B. thrown B. 30oC to 40oC
C. spread C. 5oC to 20oC
D. read D. 90oC to 100oC

243. Remedies any pathologic situation insinu- B. Air or “vital force” may be needed for
ated by microbiology spontaneous generation

A. Pathology C. That spontaneous generation is true
B. Chemistry D. none of above
C. Medical Microbiology
249. What are surface currents driven by?
D. Pharmacology
A. wind
244. Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable B. sun
resources because of
C. water
A. their easy access
D. gravity
B. inexpensiveness
250. Smear
C. combustion
A. Study of the shape of cells
D. how long they take to form
B. a method of multiplying microbial or-
245. Which agar selectively for detecting vib- ganisms.
rio spp?
C. Thin layer of microorganisms spread
A. EMB agar on a glass slide for microscopic examina-
B. Mac Conkey agar tion and identification
C. TCBS agar D. none of above
D. Salmonella Shigella Agar 251. First person to observe live microbes un-
246. Hooke’s microscope developed in 1670s der a microscope
was named A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
A. Circa B. Ignas Semmelweis
B. Leica C. Louis Pasteur
C. Micrographia D. Robert Shmingleshmongler
D. Zeiss
252. Building blocks of proteins
247. Organelles A. monosaccharides
A. a method of multiplying microbial or- B. glycerol and fatty acids
ganisms
C. neucleotides
B. small structures within the cytoplasm
D. amino acids
of a cell
C. The study of living organisms too small 253. Morphology
to be seen with the naked eye A. Living organisms too small to be seen
D. none of above with the naked eye
248. If you boiled nutrient broth and sealed B. Study of the shape of cells
the flask and saw no growth which of C. The study of living organisms too small
the following are valid conclusion? to be seen with the naked eye
A. Life can not spontaneously generate D. none of above

254. I have proteins and nucleic acids (like 259. Which growth phase includes an exponen-
DNA or RNA), but I am not actually a living tial growth due to the reproduction by bi-
thing. What am I? nary fission (bacteria) or mitosis (yeast).
A. Virus A. lag phase
B. Bacteria B. log phase
C. Archaea C. stationary phase
D. Protist D. prolonged death phase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
255. The most common classification of mi- 260. If a disease spreads throughout a commu-
crobes with an optimum growth tempera- nity, what would be the best word to de-
ture of 25-40oC are scribe that?
A. psychrophiles. A. Outbreak
B. hyperthermophiles. B. Epidemic
C. mesophiles. C. Pandemic
D. thermophiles. D. Individual cases
261. As H+ concentration increases

256. Author of Theory of Biogenesis
A. pH value decreases
A. John Needham
B. pH value increases
B. Spallanzani
C. pH value is unaffected
C. John Tyndall
D. none of above
D. Joseph Lister
262. Plasmids are often used by scientists
257. Postulate 1: who are messing with the genetics of bac-
A. The disease must be reproduced when teria. They use the plasmids as a “de-
a pure culture of the agent is inoculated livery mechanism.” Bacteria will happily
into a susceptible host. “take up” the plasmid and integrate it into
B. The agent must be present in every their own genome. What is the plasmid
case of the disease. “delivering”?
A. New DNA
C. The agent must be recoverable from
the experimentally infected host. B. Monosaccharides
D. The agent must be isolated and culture C. Halogens
in vitro. D. none of above
258. His “postulates” disproved the thought 263. It is a Gram-positive bacterium (coccus)
of spontaneous generation. He experi- which on microscopic examination appears
mented with fruit flies in jars first. in clusters resembling grapes
A. Robert Koch A. EHEC
B. Joseph Lister B. Escherichia coli O157:H7
C. Edward Jenner C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek D. Staphylococcus aureus

264. Protozoa obtain nourishment through: C. Streptococcus thermophilus

A. Absorption or ingestion through spe- D. All of the above

cialized structures
270. Many disease causing bacteria grow in
B. Photosynthesis
communities using a hydrogel to attach to
C. Cellular respiration cell surfaces they infect. This hydrogel is
D. none of above known as a
A. biofilm
265. A fossilized cell is discovered, and evi-
dence suggests it reproduced on its own B. slime mold
and had DNA, but a membrane did not en- C. intracellular polymer
close its DNA . Which type of organism
would this most likely be? D. plasmolipid primer
A. prokaryote 271. Streptococcus is a bacterium that causes
B. eukaryote strep throat. This bacteria grows as
C. plant cell A. chains
D. animal cell B. clusters
266. How many types of bacteria are there? C. corkscrew

A. 1 D. pairs
B. 2 272. Sterilisation is the complete destruction
C. 3 of all viable microorganisms. Which of the
following statements best describes steril-
D. 4
isation?
267. is the study of how antibodies are A. Surgical instruments are sterilised us-
released in response to a pathogen. ing moist heat of 121C at 15 lbs/in for 15
A. pathology mins.
B. immunology B. A negative endospore test indicates an
C. vaccinology ineffective sterilisation process
D. parasitology C. Pasteurisation of beverages sterilises

the product by destroying bacterial en-
268. Microorganisms that do not have cell dospores
characteristics are D. Endoscopes are sterilised by using hot
A. alga air ovens
B. virus
273. Water activity can act as
C. bacteria
A. An intrinsic factor determining the like-
D. protozoa lihood of microbial proliferation
269. Microbes used in cheese production B. A processing factor
A. Lactobacillus cremoris C. An extrinsic factor
B. Lactobacillus lactis D. All of these

274. Which phase of the Bacterial Growth B. cell wall

Curve are bacteria in when you first notice
C. nucleus
symptoms of a bacterial infection?
D. DNA
A. Lag
B. Log 280. Which of these is not used in probiotics
C. Stationary A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Death/Decline B. Lactobacillus casei
NARAYAN CHANGDER
275. is asexual reproduction C. Streptococcus thermophilus
A. Photosynthesis D. Bifidobacterium bifidum
B. Organelles
281. What theory did John Needham pro-
C. Mitosis pose?
D. meosis A. Pre-existing Living Theory
276. A large group of one-celled microorgan- B. Abiogenesis Theory
isms that are capable of causing disease
C. Spontaneous generation Theory
are
D. Theory of Biogenesis
A. pathogens
B. bacteria 282. What is the field that studies the
C. viruses causative agent for Disease Resistance De-
ficiency Syndrome (AIDS)?
D. all of the above
A. Virology
277. What is permeability?
B. Bacteriology
A. the inability of a rock or sediment to let
C. Immunology
fluids pass through
B. the ability to float D. Parasitology
C. the ability of a rock or sediment to let 283. How do enzymes speed up reactions?
fluids pass through its open spaces, or
pores. A. Lower activation energy
D. the inability to float B. Raise activation energy

C. Lower initial energy
278. Which of the following is an enrichment
medium? D. Lower final energy
A. Alkaline peptone water 284. Microorganisms
B. Loeffler serum slope
A. The study of living organisms too small
C. Deoxycholate citrate agar to be seen with the naked eye
D. Mac Conkey’s agar B. Living organisms too small to be seen
with the naked eye
279. Which cell structure do all prokaryotes
(bacteria) lack? C. Study of the shape of cells
A. Ribosomes D. none of above

285. A is an organism that is so small 290. What are the two stages involved in bac-
that it is invisible to the naked eye, or mi- teria that can form endospores?
croscopic (can only be seen with a micro-

A. Vegetative and Sporulation
scope).
B. Bacillus and Sporulation
A. cell
C. Clostridium and Sporulation
B. microbe/microorganism
D. Bacillus and Clostridium
C. molecule
291. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriol-
D. speck
ogy is used primarily as which of the fol-
lowing?
286. is the ability of biological mate-
rials including microorganisms to accu- A. a guide to bacterial shapes
mulate heavy metals from wastewater B. a list and characterization of all known
through metabolically mediated or physico- medically relevant microbes
chemical pathways of uptake.
C. a reference for bacterial classification
A. Biosorption
D. a historical account of changes in clas-
B. Bioleaching sification techniques
C. Biomineralization
292. Viruses not included in phylogenetic trees
D. Bioaccumulation for which of the following reasons?
A. It is too difficult to observe their char-
287. What microorganisms are studied by my-
acteristics.
cologists?
B. They lack a nucleus.
A. Virus
C. They are acellular and nonliving.
B. Fungus
D. They do not have any genes, which pre-
C. Helminth vents genetic analysis.
D. Bacteria
293. Agents and organisms that are too small
288. Building blocks of DNA or RNA to be seen with the unaided eye
A. monosaccharides A. Bacteria
B. Microorganisms
B. glycerol and fatty acids
C. Fungi
C. neucleotides
D. Virus
D. amino acids
294. These are hair-like structures serve as
289. Tried to prevent childbed fever by encour- propellers to help bacteria move toward
aging doctors and nurses to wash hands. nutrients and away from toxic chemicals.
A. Ignas Semmelweis A. Cell envelope
B. Edward Jenner B. Chromosome
C. Jonathan Flimflam C. Flagella
D. Robert Hooke D. Plasmid

295. This protein structure describes the se- C. Helminths

quence of amino acids D. Virus
A. Primary
301. Healthy diet and exercise improve ?
B. Secondary
A. Mucles
C. Tertiary
B. Body functions
D. Quaternary
C. Bones
296. It is made of three layers:cytoplasmic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Your own cells
membrane, the cell wall, bacterial species
302. Isotopes are elements that differ in the
A. Cell envelope
number of
B. Chromosome
A. neutrons
C. Flagella
B. protons
D. Plasmid
C. electrons
297. What is an undersea mountain chain D. neutrons and electrons
where new ocean floor is produced at a
divergent plate boundary? 303. What is the group arrangement of the
bacteria streptococcus?
A. trench
A. rings
B. abyssal plain
B. clusters
C. volcano
C. pairs
D. mid-ocean ridge
D. chains
298. Which is the correct way to write in bino-
mial nomenclature? 304. Athlete’s foot can grow in certain envi-
ronments and causes an itching and burn-
A. Genus species
ing rash on the skin. It does not, however,
B. genus Species get better if you take antibiotics. This is
C. Species genus because athlete’s foot is caused by
D. none of above A. Virus
B. Bacteria
299. What is the difference between Gram
positive bacteria and Gram negative bac- C. Fungi
teria? D. Protist
A. How their cell walls are set-up 305. Choose the statement that best describes
B. How long their flagellas are each term below:
C. Whether they have a nucleus or not A. vectors-toxins released by microor-
D. The rRNA composition of their ribo- ganisms
somes B. host-ability of a microorganism to
cause disease.
300. Among are microorganisms, except:
C. infections-microorganisms enter the
A. Bacteria body, attach, reproduce and cause a re-
B. Fungi action in the host.

D. pathogen-Infection of microorganisms A. Enter through a cut

in the blood B. Enter through a wound

306. What does microbiology mean? C. Enter through a bite
A. Study of microscopic organisms D. All of the above
B. Study of pathogens 312. The purpose of providing durham tubes in
C. Study of all life each dilution tubes?
D. Study of ecosystems A. to observe level of broth
B. to detect pH of the broth
307. As Earth’s human population grows,
what happens to the need for natural re- C. to detect gas produced by micro organ-
sources isms.
A. need for natural resources stays the D. none of the above

same 313. A is an individual form of life, such as
B. need for natural resources decreases a bacterium, fungus, plant or animal that
is capable of growing and reproducing.
C. no effect on need for natural re-
sources A. organism
D. need for natural resources increases B. organ
C. organelle
308. Of the four pathogens we studied, which
is the only one that is nonliving? D. organic
A. virus 314. Claimed that there are inanimate fomites
B. bacteria in the air which causes disease
C. fungi A. Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

B. Hieronymous Fracastorius
D. parasite
C. Alexander Fleming
309. Range of colonies < 20 indicated as?
D. John Needham
A. Too little to count
315. The microscopes we used in class had
B. Too few to count three which allows different amounts
C. Too less to count of magnification.
D. None of the above A. detail
310. When atoms share electrons EVENLY B. magnification

C. objectives
A. Nonpolar covalent bond
D. body
B. Polar covalent bond
C. Polar ionic bond 316. The principal microorganism for yogurt is
D. Hydrogen bond A. Streptococcus thermophilus
B. Leuconostoc citrovorum
311. Name one way in which microbes can en-
ter the body through the circulatory sys- C. Lactobacillus acidophilus
tem. D. None of these

3.2 Bacteriology 526
317. A species of bacterium does not use oxy- D. green colonies

gen, but will grow in its presence is classi-
fied as a 320. what is the job of the mitochondria?
A. microaerophile A. Produce proteins
B. facultative anaerobe B. Produce energy
C. obligate anaerobe C. Provides structure to the cell
D. obligate aerobe D. Builds mucles and bones
NARAYAN CHANGDER
318. Select the incorrect match regarding the 321. Colony
pathogen and the resulting disease. A. Excretment or waste products from
A. Protozoa → Malaria the digestive tract
B. Fungi → Candidiasis B. all of the above
C. Helmint → Ascariasis C. A group of organisms grown from the

same parent cell
D. Bacteria → Hepatitis A
D. none of above
319. Expected result for presence of
Salmonella spp. on Salmonella shigella 322. Which are examples of fungi?
agar? A. mold
A. white colonies B. yeast
B. colonies with black centre C. mushrooms
C. black colonies D. all of the above
3.2 Bacteriology
1. a bacteria colony was sescribed as convex. plasmids and chromosomes
Which criteria was used in this classifica- A. Nucleoid
tion?
B. Phages
A. opacity
C. Tranporons
B. size
D. Insertion sequence
C. shape
D. elevation 4. staphylococus and streptococcus are simi-
lar in what ways?
2. An intermediary ring of the gram-negative A. they are both composed of numerous
bacterium: spherical bacterial cels
A. L-ring B. they are both composed of single bac-
B. Basal ring teria cells
C. P-ring C. they are both gram negative
D. S-ring D. they are both extremophiles
3. Contains genes that simply encode for in- 5. Pustules and boils are infections contain-
formation require for movement among ing:

A. non-pathogenic organisms 11. Where do the site for electron transfer for
energy is located within a bacteria?
B. pathogenic bacteria

A. Inclusion bodies
C. sebum
B. Cell envelope
D. ringworm
C. Nucloid
6. Carpet Technique D. Cytosol
A. Streaking
12. If an antibody response were to be initi-
B. Liquid ated against an endotoxin, against what
C. Anaerobic structure would it be directed?
D. Lawn A. Lipid A
B. Core polysaccharide
7. Spirilla are bacteria with a:
C. O-polysaccharide
A. round shape
D. None of the choices
B. corkscrew shape
13. Bacteria are one-celled micro-organisms
C. rod shape of:
D. flat shape A. animal origin
8. Below are vaccine inventors, except: B. vegetable origin
A. Louis Pasteur C. mineral origin
B. Edward Jenner D. chemical origin
C. Robert Koch 14. Who developed the method for classifying

bacteria based on shape?
D. Alexander Fleming
A. Ferdinand Cohn
9. A procedure in which all cells are stained
B. Fredick Lugard
the same color
C. Lous Pasteur
A. simple stain
D. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. differential stain
C. primary stain 15. Based on the sequences given, which is the
most related to the bacteria X? Bacteria
D. counterstain X:GGC ACG TTA ATT GGC bacteria A:GGC
ATT CCG ATT GGC bacteria B:GTC ACG TCC
10. Uses carbon dioxide, inorganic molecules AGG CCA bacteria C:GGC TCG TTA ATT GGC
and oxidative processes. bacteria D:GGC ACG TTA ATT TTA
A. Photolithotrophic autotrophy A. A
B. Photoorganotrophic heterotrophy B. B
C. Chemolithotrophic autotrophy C. C
D. Chemoorganotrophic heterotrophy D. D

16. THE LENS CLOSES TO THE EYES ARE: C. H. ducreyi

A. OCULAR LENS D. H. parahaemolyticus
B. PARAFOCAL LENS 22. one bacteria cell becomes numerous bacte-
C. NONE ria cells after some hours. What process
D. ALL is most likely responsible for this?
A. binary fission
17. Gram-negative, spiral shaped, flagellated.
These characteristics belong to which phy- B. binary fusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lum? C. meiosis
A. Cyanobacteria D. cell multiplication
B. Proteobacteria
23. A staining technique used to categorize
C. Actinobacteria cells based on how they react to dyes in
D. Spirochaetes certain stains.
A. simple stain
18. Below are vaccine inventors, except:(2 op-
tions) B. differential stain
A. Louis Pasteur C. primary stain
B. Edward Jenner D. counterstain
C. Robert Koch 24. CAN VIEW TRANSPARENTS MICROOR-
D. Alexander Fleming GANISMS AS DARK ON LIGHT
A. FLUORESCENT MICROSCOPE
19. is an evolutionary tree or a branch-
ing diagram or tree showing the “inferred” B. PHASE MICROSCOPE
evolutionary relationship among various C. COMPOUND MICROSCOPE
biological species or other entities
D. BRIGHT-FIELDMICROSCOPE
A. Line graph
25. which of the following catergories of bac-
B. Cladistic
teria is not likely to carry out chemo-
C. Phylogenetic taxis?
D. none of above A. atrichous bacteria
20. what is responsible for the increase in SIZE B. monotrichous bacteria
of one bacteria cell? C. lophotrichous bacteria
A. binary fission D. petrichous bacteria
B. protein synthesis
26. Photosynthetic, nitrogen fixing, similar to
C. photosynthesis chloroplasts. Which phylum belongs to
D. chemotaxis these characteristics?
21. Uses both Hemin and NAD as growth fac- A. Proteobacteria

tor: B. Cyanobacteria
A. H. aphrophilus C. Actinobacteria
B. H. aegypti D. Fermicutes

27. PRODUCES A DAR IMAGE AGAINST A 33. which of the following is likely to have the
BRIGHTER BACKGROUND largest amount of flagella

A. FLUORESCENT A. atrichous bacteria
B. PHASE B. monotrichous bacteria
C. BRIGHT FIELD C. lophotrichous bacteria
D. NONE
D. petrichous bacteria
28. Which of these is not incuded in the group:
34. Using morphology or shape, bacteria can
A. Sporangium be classified into:
B. Core
A. bacilli, cocci, vibri and spirilla
C. Cortex
B. bacilli, coci, vibrious, and spirus
D. Coat
C. baccillioous, colchi, vibraie, and
29. Dark field microscope uses: sporea
A. Reflected light D. bacilli, coccious, vibrio, spurious
B. Electron beam
35. The only specie of Shigella capable of fer-
C. Light beam
mentation of carbohydrate other than glu-
D. Refractive index cose is?
30. Gram + bacteria will take the color of A. S. sonnei
which stain? B. S. dysenteriae
A. simple stain
C. S. boydi
B. differential stain
D. S. flexneri
C. primary stain
D. counterstain 36. What is the color of E. coli O157:H7 in
MAC-SOR agar?
31. a bacteria colony can be characterised us-
ing all of the following EXCEPT A. Red/Pink
A. colony shape B. Purple

B. colony margine C. Yellow
C. colony origin D. None of the choices
D. colony texture
37. which of the following is not involved in
32. THE GHOST MAP book tells about: the process of incubating bacteria that is
being cultured?
A. John Snow and the cholera epidemic
of 1854 A. maintainn adequate temperature
B. About the shape of cells and microbes B. maintain adequate carbon dioxide
C. Kisah tragis Ignaz Semmelweis pressure
D. Ghost hunting C. maintain addequate oxygen supply
E. Biografi Florence Nightingale D. maintain adequate light

38. Mengapa Robert Hooke disebut sebagai C. regular sunglasses

Father of The Cell Theory? D. sunglasses
A. Membuat compound microscope
44. What is a bacterial colony?
B. Menemukan konsep sel dari gabus
mati A. solidifying gel-like agent used for
growth media
C. Membantah teori “spontaneous gener-
ation” B. a technique used to thin out bacterial
growth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Menggambar sel bakteri dan protozoa
dalam bukunya C. a visible clump of bacterial growth on
an agar plate separate from other areas
39. Pathogenic bacteria produce: of growth
A. health D. a population of microorganisms grown
B. disease under well-defined conditions
C. antitoxins 45. Which of these fungi is a partially positive
D. beneficial effects in acid fastness?
A. M. gypseum
40. The ONLY TRUE STAT test in bacteriology
section is: B. C. immitis
A. Acid-Fast staining C. B. dermatitidis
B. Gram staining D. C. albicans
C. Sensitivity panel 46. Usually Gram-positive, high GC, make an-
D. Biochemical panel tibiotics. These characteristics refer to
which phylum?
41. which of the following is not regarded as
a waste product from bacteria A. Actinobacteria
A. ammonia B. Fermicutes
B. carbon dioxide C. Proteobacteria
C. nitrogen D. Bacteroidetes
D. water 47. Which of these is not a partially acid fast
bacteria?
42. Which of the following method can best
reveal the evolutionary phylogenetic rela- A. Tsukamurella spp.
tionship? B. Gordonia spp.
A. 16S rRNA sequencing C. Legionella pneumophila
B. Morphology D. Nocardia spp.
C. Biochemical reaction
48. The following are factors that affect the
D. Gram staining morphology of bacterial colonies, except:
43. Bacteria are best seen with the aid of: A. medium type
A. a microscope B. Temperature
B. a telescope C. pH

D. Incubation time 54. a bacteria colony was described as MU-

E. Color type COID. Which criteria was used in this clas-
sification?

49. Which of the following is NOT a character- A. texture
istic of the phylum Proteobacteria?
B. shape
A. the phylum contains 5 classes
C. size
B. they are the largest group of bacteria
D. opacity
C. they are all Gram negative
55. Which bacterial phylum belongs to ‘low
D. Staphylococcus is in this phylum G+C Gram positive’ bacteria?
50. The following are Robert Koch’s findings, A. Proteobacteria
except: B. Fermicutes
A. postulate cook C. Actinobacteria
B. Relationship of anthrax and Bacillus D. Cyanobacteria
anthracis
56. Non-pathogenic bacteria are:
C. Relationship between cholera and Vib-
rio cholerae A. harmful
D. Causes of diseases in silkworms B. germs
E. Acquired immunity C. harmless

D. disease producing
51. Absorbtion of Oxygen to analize the cul-
ture 57. which of the following cannot be used to
differentiate one colony from another?
A. Pure Culture
A. culture medium around colony
B. Inoculum
B. shape of colony
C. Mckintosh Jar
C. size of colony
D. none of above
D. opacity of colony
52. Pathogenic bacteria are commonly known
58. Who is regarded as the first person to ob-
as:
served bacteria?
A. antiseptics
A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. disinfectants B. Fransesco Redi
C. germs or microbes C. Robert Hooke
D. beneficial bacteria D. Louis Pasteur
53. Environmental characteristics of bacteria 59. in a culture medium, what serves as source
are: of nitrogen?
A. Presence of oxygen A. nitrogen oxide
B. pH levels B. ammonium salt
C. Presence of ions and salts C. nitric acid
D. All of the choices D. nitrogen gas

60. E. coli belongs to which class of phylum 65. Actinomycetes are a group of bacteria that
Proteobacteria? are
A. Gammaproteobacteria A. spherical
B. Alphaproteobacteria B. filamentous
C. Betaproteobacteria C. comma shaped
D. viral in structure
D. Deltaproteobacteria
66. Which of these is not a normal content of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. what is a gram negative bacterial cell wall?
A. strep A. Lipid A
B. staph B. Porins
C. moraxella C. NAM and NAG
D. neisseria D. Core polysaccharide
62. In an approach called taxonomy, relat- 67. PHASE CONTRAST MICROSCOPE PRO-
edness is determined by a wide range of VIDES:
phenotypic and genotypic information A. SPECIAL OBJECTIVES
A. Polytypic B. NOTHING SPECIAL
B. Polygenetic C. STEP BY STEP
C. Polyphasic D. NONE
D. Polyphenetic 68. Nichrome loop is use

A. Pour Plate Technique
63. The function of silica gels within an anaer-
obic chamber system is to? B. Streaking Technique
C. Liquid technique
A. Filler
D. None
B. Catalyst
69. which of the following cannot be used in
C. Indicator
culturing bacteria?
D. Dessicant
A. petri dish
64. Members of the phylum , formerly B. test tube
known as the green nonsulphur bacteria, C. conical flask
have primarily been associated with ex-
D. thermometer
treme habitats such as hot springs, and
hypersaline environments where they are 70. Bacterial colonies can be identified based
known as (filamentous) anoxygenic pho- on the following parameters, except:
tothophs
A. Size
A. Bacteroidetes B. Color
B. Chloroflexi C. Margin
C. Cyanobacteria D. Opacity
D. Proteobacteria E. single cell form

71. A young culture needs to be incubated for 77. Harmful bacteria are referred to as:
how many hours? A. saprophytes

A. 12 B. pathogenic
B. 16 C. non-pathogenic
C. 18 D. protozoa
D. 20
78. Spirilla are a group of bacteria that are
72. The culture media mostly used for the re- A. rod shaped
search purposes?
B. spiral shaped
A. Complex
C. spherical shaped
B. Tissue culture media
D. filamentous
C. Defined
79. Alexander Flemming’s findings are:
D. Non-synthetic
A. Microbes cause food to spoil
73. which of the following involves the for-
B. The cause of maternal death is the mid-
mation of tube that connects two bacteria
wife’s unclean hands
cells to one another?
C. The death of soldiers was caused by
A. binary fission
disease and not by wounds
B. binary fusion
D. Fungi produce antibiotics that inhibit
C. conjugation the growth of microbes
D. transformation E. Penicillin is produced by bacteria
74. Borris method will react to a structure that 80. in a culture medium, what serves as source
bears which antigen? of carbon?
A. Vi antigen A. carbon dioxide
B. O antigen B. hydrogen carbonate
C. H antigen C. glucose
D. F antigen D. starch
75. Which of these is not a function of the cy- 81. Bacteria that temporarily lost their cell
toplasmic membrane? membrane?
A. Oxidative proliferation A. L-forms
B. Synthetic B. Pleomorphic
C. Homeostatic activity C. Lysed cell
D. Electron transport D. None of the choices
76. USE TO VIEW CLOROPLASTS 82. Amies transport media is for?
A. BRIGHT MICROSCOPE A. Stool
B. FLUORESCENSE MICROSCOPE B. Respiratory
C. PHASE CONTRAST C. Viral
D. NONE D. None of the choices

83. Darting motility: 88. What is Gram’s Iodine used for during
A. Capnocytophaga spp. Gram staining?
B. Campylobacter spp. A. primary stain
C. Corynebacterium spp. B. counterstain
D. Clostridium spp. C. fixative / mordant
84. Which is the correct order of making phy- D. decolorizer
logenetic tree?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sequencing → alignment → amplifica- 89. Pathogenic bacteria are especially numer-
tion → tree construction ous:
B. tree construction → sequencing → A. on a clean body
alignment → amplification
B. on sterile implements
C. amplification → sequencing→ align-
ment → tree construction C. in dirty places
D. amplification → alignment → se- D. on clean towels
quencing → tree construction
90. Bacilli are bacteria with a:
85. CIN agar do not contain which inhibitor?
A. Cefsulodin A. corkscrew shape
B. Irganasan B. round shape

C. Nystatin C. rod shape
D. Bile salt D. curved shape
86. The following are Louis Pasteur’s findings,
except: 91. Mycoplasma is a special class of bacteria
that lack peptidoglycan cell wall. What
A. Pasteurization will happen to it if it is placed inside dis-
B. Breaking down the “spontaneous gen- tilled water?
eration” theory
A. it will shrink and die
C. Smallpox vaccine
B. it will rupture and die
D. The Germ Theory of Disease
E. Rabies vaccine C. it will grow and reproduce
D. it will excrete useful materials and die
87. The differences between brightfield and
phase contrast light microscopes are in:
92. WHICH INCLUDE THE EXTERNAL STRUC-
A. The components of the microscope TURE OF THE CELL WALL IN BACTERIA,
B. light source namely
C. The end result A. FLAGELLA
D. Specimens for brightfield do not have B. NUCLEOID
to be stained
C. DNA CHROMOSOMES
E. The phase contrast specimen must be
stained D. CYTOPLASM

93. John Snow is recognized by the public for 99. Choline is needed by which organism?
all of the following, except: A. S. aureus

A. Formulate epidemiology B. B. anthracis
B. Discover the origins of cholera C. N. meningitidis
C. Author of The Ghost Map D. S. pneumoniae
D. Makes anesthesia safer
100. streptococcus pyogenes is most likely a
E. Helped Queen Victoria give birth
94. What chemical is used as the counterstain A. bacilli

during Gram staining? B. cocci
A. crystal violet C. vibri
B. iodine D. virus
C. alcohol
101. The selective media for Neisseria that uti-
D. safranin lizes Anisomycin is ?
95. Which of the following is BEST used to A. Thayer-Martin
study bacteria? B. Modified Thayer-Martin
A. hand lens C. Martin-Lewis
B. light microscope D. GC lect
C. electron microscope
102. Cocci are bacteria with a:
D. PCR machine
A. round shape
96. The amorphous version of a glycocalyx: B. rod shape
A. Capsule C. corkscrew shape
B. Vi antigen D. curved shape
C. Slimy layer
103. What is a bacterial culture?
D. None of the choices
A. solidifying gel-like agent used for
97. WHICH INCLUDE THE INTERNAL STRUC- growth media
TURE OF CELL WALLS IN BACTERIA, IE B. a technique used to thin out bacterial
A. RELATED growth into separate areas
B. FLAGELLA C. a visible clump of bacterial growth on
C. NUCLEOID an agar plate separate from other areas
of growth
D. GLYCOCALYC
D. a population of microorganisms grown
98. BACTERIOLOGY IS NOT under well-defined conditions
A. A BACTERIA 104. What chemical is used as the primary
B. A SCIENCE stain in a Gram stain?
C. A STUDY A. crystal violet
D. SUBJECT B. iodine

3.3 parasitology 536
C. alcohol A. Broth Culture

D. safranin B. Streaking
105. Adding the culture with pippetes or Sy- C. Lawn

ringes D. Anaerobic
3.3 parasitology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. The plasmodium that was first discovered C. Gametocytes
in long-tailed monkeys was D. Trofozoit
A. Plasmodium falciparum
6. Which of the following does NOT apply to
B. Plasmodium knowlesi
the trematodes?
C. Plasmodium malariae
A. They are hermaphroditic
D. Plasmodium vivax
B. They often parasitize two hosts
2. Amoebiasis, trophozoite form predomi- C. They are flukes
nates in
D. They have a scolex and proglottids
A. Formed stools
B. Liquid stools 7. Amoebic liver abscess is most common
manifestation of
C. Both
A. intestinal amoebiasis
D. None
B. extraintestinal amoebiasis
3. What type of vector transmits Plasmod-
ium, causing malaria? C. both
A. Fleas D. none
B. Ticks 8. When this internal parasite releases eggs,
C. Mosquitoes they are released as proglottids or seg-
ments which each contain thousands of
D. Worms
egg packets.
4. A process by certain living cells ingest or A. Roundworm
engulf other cells or particles is called
B. Whipworm
A. Phagocytosis
C. Hookworm
B. Pathogenicity
D. Tapeworm
C. Antigenicity
D. Fungugenisity 9. A bacterium, virus or other organisms that
can cause diseases is called
5. The stage of the parasite which is shaped
A. Foreign bodies
like a banana is the stage of Plasmod-
ium falciparum B. Pathogen
A. Sketch C. Antigen
B. Sporozoites D. Fungugen

10. a microscopic single-celled animal A. Selective

A. protozoa B. Differential Media

B. host C. Reducing Media
C. larva D. Enrichment Culture
D. meniscus
16. In malaria, the form of plasmodia transmit-
11. The small segments behind a scolex that ted from mosquito to human is the
reproduce quickly, making a tapeworm A. Sporozoite
longer and longer are called
B. Gametocyte
A. Cilia
C. Merozoite
B. Hooks
D. Hypnozoite
C. Proglottids
D. Snaps 17. the clinical signs of heartworm are:
A. vomiting, deep cough, anemia
12. A person, animal or microscopic organism
that carries and transmits an infectious B. anemia, deep cough, irregular heart-
pathogen into another living organism. beat
A. vector C. deep cough, irregular heart beat, exer-
cise tolerance
B. arthropod
C. parasite D. irregular heart beat, anemia, exercise
tolerance
D. host
18. American trypanosomiasis is transmitted
13. Mosquitoes with egg-larvae and pupa by
stages have the characteristic of sticking
to aquatic plants A. Kissing bugs
A. Mansonia sp B. Tsetse fly
B. Culex sp C. Horse fly
C. Aedes sp D. Both A & B
D. Anopheles sp 19. is a life-threatening blood disease caused
by parasites transmitted to humans
14. For Question 6-10, Identify the type of
through the bite of the Anopheles
microbes of the given Infectious disease.
mosquito. Once an infected mosquito
(Whooping cough)
bites a human and transmits the parasites,
A. Virus those parasites multiply in the host’s liver
B. Bacterium before infecting and destroying red blood
cells
C. Protozoan
A. Malaria
D. Fungus
B. West Nile Virus
15. Used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
and contain chemicals (sodium thioglyco- C. Lyme Disease
late) that combine O2 to deplete it. D. Leshamaniasis

20. Toxoplasma gondi is 26. Which insect dose transmits Trypanosoma

A. Helminths cruzi to human in Africa?
A. Sand fly
B. Protozoa
B. Tse tse fly
C. Arthropods
C. Musca domestica
D. none of above
D. none of above
21. Each of the following parasites is transmit-
27. the most common endoparasite of puppies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ted by mosquitoes except:
and kittens is
A. Leishmania donovani A. flea
B. Wuchereria bancrofti B. roundworm
C. Plasmodium vivax C. mite
D. Plasmodium falciparum D. protozoa
22. Allow distinguish of colonies of microbes 28. The host where the adult parasite lives
on the same plate and reproduces sexually is called
A. Selective A. Intermediate host
B. Differential Media B. Hospes Partenic
C. Reducing Media C. Alternative host
D. Enrichment Culture D. Definitive host

29. Taenia saginata is transmitted by
23. An intermediate host is
A. Eating on un carefully cooked of cattle
A. where parasite asexual cycle occurs meat
B. always a nonhuman host B. Direct contact between humans and
C. where parasite sexual cycle occurs cattle
D. the human host between two other an- C. Drinking a milk of cattle
imal hosts D. none of above
24. This type of host is used by the parasite to 30. Identify the type of microbes of the given
ensure survival until a new host is found. Infectious disease. (German measles)
A. Paratenic host A. Virus
B. Definitive host B. Bacterium
C. Intermediate host C. Protozoan

D. Fungus
D. Reservoir host
31. First intermediate host of Fasciola hepat-
25. method of pork tapeworm transmission ica is
A. undercooked meat A. Fish
B. ingesting contaminated feces B. cattle
C. drinking contaminated water C. human
D. stepping on contaminated feces D. amphibian snails

32. Which of the following agent is used to 37. Adult mosquitoes with club-shaped palps
prevent malaria? are

A. Mebendazole A. anopheles genera
B. Chloroquine B. Anopheles betina
C. Inactivated vaccine C. Male Culex
D. Zinc table D. Culex betina
33. Black water fever is caused by 38. the organism that causes heartworm
A. Plasmodium falciparum A. dirofilaria immitis
B. Plasmodium malariae B. taenia pisiformis
C. Plasmodium vivax C. giardia
D. Plasmodium ovale D. protozoa
34. Anopheles mosquito transmits the para- 39. a parasite that lives on the host
site that cause disease.
A. meniscus
A. Deng fever
B. zoonosis
B. Yellow fever
C. ectoparasite
C. Malaria
D. protozoa
D. none of above
40. Identify the type of microbes of the given
35. Each of the following statements concern-
Infectious disease. (Malaria)
ing kala-azar is correct except:
A. Virus
A. Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania
donovani B. Bacterium
B. kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of C. Protozoan
sandflies D. Fungus
C. Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural
Latin America 41. an animal that transmits a disease causing
organism
D. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding
amastigotes in bone marrow A. zoonosis
B. vector
36. The following statement about viruses are
true, EXCEPT; C. MIRCOFILARIA
A. viruses are enclosed in an protective D. ectoparasite
envelope
42. Identify the type of microbes that cause
B. Some viruses may have spikes to help the disease for TB (Tuberculosis).
attach to the host cell
A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C. Most viruses infect only SPECIFIC host
cells B. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Outside of host cells, viruses are ac- C. Plasmodium falciparum

tive D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

43. any animal that harbors a parasite 49. Identify the type of microbes that cause
A. parasitology the disease for Ringworm.
B. LARVA A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. host
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. protozoa
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
44. The science of host and parasite relation-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ships. 50. you must remove a tick by
A. Parasitology A. using a match to burn the tick off
B. Medical Parasitology B. cut the tick with a knife
C. Parasite C. use tweezers to grasp and pull straight
out
D. Host
D. pour alcohol on the tick, then pull it off
45. Parasite that requires a host to complete
its development otherwise, it dies. 51. a disease that can be transmitted from an-
imals to humans
A. Permanent parasite
A. protozoa
B. Obligate parasite
B. host
C. Incidental parasite
C. vector
D. Facultative parasite
D. zoonosis
46. Encourages the growth of desired microbe
52. The following is not a characteristic of
by increasing very small numbers of de-
Aedes sp. eggs.
sired organism to detectable levels
A. the egg has a float
A. Selective
B. on the wall looks like gauze
B. Differential Media
C. eggs are laid separately
C. Reducing Media
D. has no float
D. Enrichment Culture
53. The ability of microorganisms to cause dis-
47. Vector of the Chikungunya virus ease is called
A. Anopheles sp. A. Phagocytosis
B. Aedes sp B. Pathogenicity
C. Culex C. Antigenicity
D. Mansonia D. Fungugenisity
48. Anopheles sp species causes malaria 54. This parasitic disease is caused my mites.
A. An. barbirostris A. Mange
B. An. maculatus, B. Lyme Disease
C. An. sinensis, C. Ear Infection
D. An. subpictus D. Malaria

55. Mosquitoes that have an H-shaped pat- B. Definitive host

tern on the back
C. Obliged forsaken

A. Mansonia sp.
D. Vector
B. Temples of the Egyptians
C. Aedes albopictus 61. Entamoeba histolytica is a
D. Culex sp. A. Protozoan
56. Each of the following statements concern- B. Metazoan
ing malaria is correct except C. Fungi
A. The female anopheles mosquito is the
D. Bacterium
vector
B. Early infection, sporozoites enter hep- 62. Suppress unwanted microbes and encour-
atocytes age desired microbes and contain in-
C. Release of merozoites from red blood hibitors to suppress growth
cells causes fever and chills A. Selective
D. The principal site of gametocyte forma-
B. Differential Media
tion is the human gastrointestinal tract.
C. Reducing Media
57. Which of these protozoan diseases results
in intestinal stress and diarrhea? D. Enrichment Culture
A. African Sleeping Sickness 63. immature stage of the parasite life style
B. Trichomoniasis
A. zoonosis
C. Giardiasis
B. larva
D. Malaria
C. ectoparasite
58. what parasite transmits lime disease
D. parasitology
A. dirofilaria
B. tick 64. one disease that is transmitted by the tick
is:
C. lice
D. heartworm A. rocky mountain spotted fever
B. toxoplasmosis
59. Which method is used to control the insect
that transmit trypanosomiasis? C. salmonella
A. Treatment D. ringworm
B. Quarantine
65. NIH swab is used to detect
C. Insecticide spray
A. Ascariasis
D. none of above
B. Enterobiasis
60. Insects that can transmit parasites to hu-
mans and animals are called C. Fascioliasis
A. Intermediate host D. Taeniasis

66. Hold animal over white paper, rub belly, 72. Snails are often the host in the fluke’s
then wet paper and look for reddish brown life cycle.
spots. What is this a method of finding? A. primary
A. ticks B. intermediate
B. mites C. secondary
C. fleas D. first
D. rabbies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
73. An organism that lives on or in another or-
67. Albendazole is given in the case of ganism and benefits by gaining nutrition at
A. Fascioliasis the host’s expense
B. Ascariasis A. parasite
C. Schistosomiasis B. vector
D. None C. arthropod
D. host
68. Final host of taenia saginata is
A. Cattle 74. the study of parasites
B. Man A. vector
C. Sheep B. host
D. none of above C. ectoparasite

D. parasitology
69. Arachnida have 2 body segments and
A. 4 pairs of legs 75. Identify the type of microbes of the given
Infectious disease. (Chickenpox)
B. 2 pairs of legs
A. Virus
C. 3 pairs of legs
B. Bacterium
D. none of above
C. Protozoan
70. Leishmania is transmitted by D. Fungus
A. Tabanus fly
76. Eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides are
B. Stomoxys fly
A. operculated
C. Sand fly
B. spinated
D. none of above
C. knobby coated
71. An endoparasite that is detected by hav- D. bipolar
ing a rice like segment that can be found
in the feces? 77. a larval stage of the heartworm
A. Roundworm A. parasitology
B. Heartworm B. larva
C. Tapeworm C. mircofilaria
D. Whipworm D. protozoa

78. Which one of the following statements 84. a dome of liquid on the top of a test tube
does NOT apply to parasites?
A. meniscus

A. they can be free-living organisms
B. endoparasite
B. they must live in or on another species
C. protozoa
C. helminths are multicellular organisms
D. host
D. protozoans are unicellular organisms
85. Most endoparasites are diagnosed using a
79. The parasite that needs a vector to infect fecal flotation test, heartworm must have
the host is . a sample to test.
A. Leishmaina A. Saliva
B. Giardia B. Urine
C. Balantidium coli C. Hair
D. none of above
D. Blood
80. a parasite that lives within the host
86. For Questions 1-5, Identify the type of mi-
A. endoparasite crobes that cause the disease for Athletes’
B. host foot.
C. microfilaria A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. larva B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Plasmodium falciparum
the disease for Chickenpox . D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. Varicella zoster
87. What is a definitive host?
B. Rhinovirus
A. An organism that any parasite can live
C. Plasmodium falciparum on and reproduce.
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. The organism that provides conditions
that allows sexual reproduction of a para-
82. Identify which of the listed parasites is not site to occur.
an ectoparasite:
C. The organism that parasitic eggs are
A. Roundworm
laid on.
B. Cheyletiella mites
D. An organism that parasites find easily
C. Fleas and allow reproduction of the parasite.
D. Ticks
88. The common parasitic infection parameter
83. Cryptosporidia is protozoa cause in complete blood count is
A. Cough A. Leukocytosis
B. Watery diarrhea B. Eosinophilia
C. Vomiting C. Thrombocytopenia
D. none of above D. None

3.4 Virology 544
89. Animals that contain an infective stage of 94. The infectious stage/form of Entamoeba
the parasite and are unable to mature but histolytica is
can be transmitted and mature to a defini- A. Trophozoite
tive host are called
B. Binucleated cyst
A. Definitive host
C. Trinucleated cyst
B. Intermediate host
C. Hospes reservoir D. Tetra nucleated cyst
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Hospes Partenic 95. Microscopic one-celled organisms that are
categorized according to their method of
90. A symbiotic relationship in which one or-
movement
ganism is benefited at the expense of the
host. A. Protozoa
A. Mutualism B. Helminth
B. Symbiosis C. Arthropod
C. Commensalism D. Vector
D. Parasitism
91. Excystment of Entamoeba histolytica oc- the disease for Malaria.
curs in A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
A. ileum of small intestine B. Trichophyton rubrum
B. ischium of small intestine C. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Pubis of small intestine
D. colon of large intestine
97. Which is NOT a type of debris found on
92. What is the study of parasites, their hosts, fecal exam slides?
and the relationship between them?
A. air bubbles
A. Mycology
B. hair
B. Parasitology
C. fat
C. Virology
D. saliva
D. Bacteriology
93. Identify the type of microbes of the given 98. The term for the animal that a parasite
Infectious disease. (Ringworm) lives on/in is:
A. Virus A. Fomite
B. Bacterium B. Micro-organism
C. Protozoan C. Host
D. Fungus D. Vector
3.4 Virology

3.4 Virology 545
1. What unit is used to measure viruses? 6. What must a virus do in order to be able
A. meter to reproduce?

A. Invade a living host cell
B. nanometer
B. Find another virus of the same type to
C. millimeter
mate with
D. micrometer C. Find enough food
2. What does a virus have on the outside? D. Find a suitable habitat
A. a protein coat 7. Retro viruses use which enzyme to pro-
B. a fur coat duce viral DAN from viral RNA?
A. Integrase
C. crispy skin
B. RNA polymerase
D. membrane
C. Reverse transcriptase
3. Which process named as the mixing of the D. DNAse
genetic material of a species into new com-
binations in different individuals? 8. What disease do prions cause?
A. reassortment A. influenza
B. assemble B. HIV
C. coughing C. mad cow disease
D. potato spindle tuber disease
D. maturation
9. Medications used to treat influenza infec-
4. In a nonspecific (generalized) immune re- tions
sponse, which cells go to the site of in-
fection and spray poisons that kill many A. Podophyllin, Amantadine
cell, those that are infect and some that B. Munden, Remantden
are not. C. Rimantadine, Varioline
A. T cells D. Amantadine, Attenuated
B. B cells
10. A virus invades and reproduces inside a liv-
C. Natural killer cells ing
D. Macrophages A. bacteria
B. DNA
5. Infectious particles are composed solely
of protein and no detectable nucleic acid. C. animal
What would be appropriate according to D. cell
the statement?
11. HIV weakens the immune system by
A. Celiac Disease killing
B. Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease A. antibiodies
C. Hemolytic Anemia B. immune cells
D. Hepatitis Delta Virus C. skin cells
E. Plant diseases D. none of above

3.4 Virology 546
12. The name dengue virus are derived FROM 17. An organism that makes its own food is
called a(n)
A. The name of the discoverer
A. heterotroph.
B. How it was first thought to cause the
disease B. eukaryote.
C. The name of the place it was found C. prokaryote.
D. The name of the disease D. autotroph.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. Term for any disease-causing agent 18. What is the family name of Poliovirus?
A. Pathogen A. Zikaviridae
B. Vector B. Flaviviridae
C. Bacteria C. Dengueviridae
D. Virus D. Picornaviridae
14. The protein coat of viruses that encloses 19. Which of the following is appropriate for
the genetic material is referred to as: the viruses that are obligate intracellular
parasites?
A. Capsid
A. Do not possess active protein synthe-
B. Capsomers sizing apparatus.
C. Naked B. Replicate outside the host cell.
D. Peplomers C. Metabolically active outside the host
E. Viroid D. Possess active protein synthesizing
apparatus
15. What is considered the reservoir of SARS
E. Unique replication apparatus
A. Palm Civet cats
20. Select the 2 main factors that drive virus
B. Horeshoe bats
genetic diversity
C. Raccoon Dog
A. Large number of progeny viruses pro-
D. Meishan Pig duced in an infected host
B. The frequency of reassortment
16. Pathogen = Epstein-Barr virus (DNA);
extreme fatigue, fever, extremely sore C. The wide variety of viruses
throat, head & body aches, swollen lymph D. High mutation rate
nodes, swollen liver and spleen; spread
through infected saliva; no vaccine E. Genetic Shift
A. Influenza 21. A virus can be spread by:

B. Mononucleosis A. wind
C. Hepatitis A B. water
D. Ebola C. blood
E. HIV D. all of the above

3.4 Virology 547
22. Which of the following swabs inhibits the 27. Which are barriers that help to stop
replication of some viruses and can inter- pathogen from entering the body?
fere with nucleic acid amplification tests?

A. Skin
A. Dacron B. Saliva
B. Dacron rayon C. Tears
C. Calcium D. Mucus
D. Calcium alginate E. Cilia
E. Rayon
28. Which of the following is NOT a structure
23. A medication used to stop the growth of that a virus can have?
or kill microorganisms A. DNA
A. Sterlization
B. capsid
B. Pasteurization
C. RNA
C. Disinfectant
D. mitochondria
D. Antibiotic
29. Which one of the following is not among
E. Antiseptic
the mechanisms of viral genetics?
24. An RNA virus that attacks respiratory A. Mutations
cells; sore throat, fever, head and body-
B. Genetic recombination
aches, coughing; spread through contact
with respiratory secretions. Vaccine avail- C. Duplications
able. D. Replications
A. Ebola
30. HIV is an example of which type of virus?
B. Mononucleosis
A. Enveloped
C. Influenza
B. Helical
D. Yellow fever
C. Phage
E. Hepatitis C
D. Retrovirus
25. An injection of a virus to help the body
31. Binary fission is the bacterial process of
build immunity to that virus is a
A. asexual reproduction.
A. Antibiotic
B. producing energy.
B. Antiviral drug
C. Vaccine C. obtaining food.
D. Antibody D. forming endospores.
26. Which is an example of an organism that 32. Jonas Salk created the 1st vaccine for
viroids infect? A. Small pox
A. humans B. Rabies
B. potatoes C. Polio
C. cows D. Chicken pox
D. pigeons E. Influenza

3.4 Virology 548
33. The positive RNA genome is not translated D. SARS-CoV-2 rapid antigen negative
but is converted into DNA, which then acts
as a template for the production of mRNA. 38. rubella What type of virus is it caused by
Which virus is most likely to be repre- and in which family?
sented?
A. Mumps virus:Paramyxoviridae
A. Adenovirus
B. Rabies virus:Matonaviridae
B. Picornavirus
C. Rubella virus: Among Madonna
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Papillomavirus
D. Retrovirus D. Rubella virus:Reoviridae
E. Rhinovirus 39. The organism that a virus enters and uses

is called a
34. are found in BOTH viruses and in all
living organisms. A. host
A. Genetic Material B. parasite
B. A cell membrane C. guest
C. ribosomes
D. brujeria
D. none of above
40. An organism that can transmit a disease-
35. RNA virus; fever, headache, muscle pain,
causing agent.
diarrhea, vomiting, hemorrhaging; spread
by contact with infected bodily fluids and A. Pathogen
skin; no vaccine
B. Vector
A. Ebola
C. Antibody
B. HIV
D. Antigen
C. Influenza
D. Norovirus 41. Whether viruses can be used for biological
E. Chicken pox warfare?
36. A(n) is a virus that enters a bacterial A. Yes

cell. B. No
A. endospore C. I don‘t know
B. decomposer D. none of above
C. plasmid
D. bacteriophage 42. Polyphyletic origin of viruses is enhanced
by
37. A migrant worker was tested positive for
A. Horizontal virus transfer
COVID-19. He has
A. SARS-COV-2 IgM negative B. Genetic recombination diversity
B. Real-time PCR Ct of 25 C. Evolution of viruses from related an-
cestral host genetic elements
C. Growth of SARS-CoV-2 virus in blood
culture D. Related viral replications

3.4 Virology 549
43. A DNA virus that can cause cervical can- 48. RNA retrovirus; Fever, chills, night
cer and genital warts; transmitted through sweats, rash, swollen lymph nodes, mus-
sexual contact. Vaccine available. cle aches, mouth ulcers; transmitted

through sexual contact and sharing con-
A. HIV
taminated needles/syringes; Vaccine be-
B. HPV ing created but not yet available.
C. Hepatitis B A. HIV
D. Norovirus B. HPV
E. Ebola C. Hepatitis C
D. Rabies
44. When a virus invades a living cell, its
takes over the cell’s functions. E. Norovirus
A. outer coat 49. Symptoms of HIV do not show up immedi-
B. genetic material ately because the virus can
C. core A. stay dormant for years
D. cytoplasm B. mutate quickly

C. stay outside the cell for a long time
45. What family is the human immunodefi-
D. none of above
ciency virus (HIV) in?
A. Matonaviridae 50. The envelope of a virus may be obtained
from the following EXCEPT
B. Pneumoviridae
A. Nuclear membrane of the host
C. Papillomaviridae
B. Mitochondria membrane of the host
D. Retroviridae
C. Plasma membrane of the host
46. Baltimore classification has how many D. none of above
classes?
51. One reason that viruses are considered to
A. 10
be nonliving is that they are not made of
B. 9
C. 8 A. protein
D. 7 B. viruses
C. bacteria
47. During which stage of the Lytic cycle does
the virus genetic material enter the host D. cells
cell?
52. A construction worker was tested positive
A. Infection for dengue. He has
B. Replication A. Dengue IgM positive
C. Synthesis B. Zika IgG positive
D. Assembly C. Low platelet count
E. Lysis D. anti-NS1 positive

3.4 Virology 550
53. A world-wide outbreak of a disease C. Strep Throat

A. epidemic D. Tuberculosis
B. pandemic
59. What are the parts of a virus?
C. endemic
A. inner core and protein coat
D. none of above
B. left and right ventricles
54. Which virus is the smallest? C. inner and outer core
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. bacteriophage Phi-X174 D. none of the above
B. influenza viruse
60. Which structure allows the bacteria to be-
C. rabies virus
come resistant to antibacterials?
D. mumps virus
A. Cell Wall
55. A substance that stimulates the body’s B. Cell Membrane
own immune response against invasion by
microbes is a C. Capsule
A. epidemic D. none of above
B. retrovirus 61. What contributes to a false negative of RT-

C. viroid qPCR?
D. vaccine A. Young age
B. Collect saliva
56. Which of the following infectious agents
do not have nucleic acid? C. Ventilated patient
A. Naked D. Wrong timing of sample collection
B. Prions
62. Which of the following gives the virus sym-
C. Provirus metry?
D. Viroids A. arrangement of amino acid
E. Viruses B. arrangement of capsomers
57. Which one of the following is appropriate C. arrangement of capsid
regarding the infectious circular RNA par- D. arrangement of glycan
ticles without the protein coat?
E. arrangement of ribosomes
A. Virion
B. Viroid 63. of a population of a virus under un-
changing environmental conditions leads
C. Virusoid
to the selection of the most fit variants fol-
D. Prion lowed by evolutionary stasis’
E. HDV A. Repetitive transmission
58. Bacteria in the throat B. Single transmission
A. E. Coli C. Repetitive translation
B. Acne D. Repetitive translocation

3.4 Virology 551
64. Pathogen = non-polio enterovirus (RNA); 69. What one is helpful bacteria?
high fever, stiff neck, vomiting, seizures, A. Salmonella
inflammation of the lining of the brain; con-

tact with an infected person; No vaccine. B. E.coli
A. Viral meningitis C. Shigella

D. Burkholderia
B. Ebola
C. HPV 70. During which viral reproduction cycle is the
viral DNA hidden in the cell’s DNA, where
D. Mononucleosis
it can hide for long periods of time, before
E. Rabies reproducing?
65. Which of the following infections can only A. lyrical

be caused by a virus? B. lysol
A. chickenpox C. lysogenic
B. pneumonia D. lytic
C. meningitis 71. Medications that are used to control and
D. diarrhea reduce the length of a viral disease.
A. Antibiotics
66. The following are preformed enzymes in
viruses EXCEPT B. Antigens
C. Antiviral drugs
A. Lipase
D. Antiseptics
B. Polymerase
C. Replicase 72. change their master sequences fre-
quently during infection and transmission
D. Reverse-transcriptase
A. Quasispecies viruses
67. What is the goal of a virus? B. DNA viruses
A. Find food C. Animal viruses
B. Cause disease D. Insect viruses
C. Reproduce 73. Which class of viruses must have replicase
D. Find a home packaged into the virions?
A. Class I
68. Which of the following occurs after a virus
attaches to a host cell in the viral repro- B. Class IV
duction process? C. Class V
A. The host cell dies D. Class VII
B. The virus dies
74. Virus types are very specific, and each
C. The virus inserts its genetic informa- has a limited number of hosts it can in-
tion into the host cell fect. What would be the best choice for
D. copies of the virus are immediately re- the above statement?
leased from the host A. Antigenic shift

3.4 Virology 552
B. Host interaction C. PCR

C. Viral hepatocytes D. Direct immunofluorescence
D. Viral tropism 80. One of these is not part of the Peptide
E. Viral infection loading complex (PLC)
A. Tapasin
75. The following are used to classify viruses
EXCEPT B. MHC I
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Morphology C. SOCS-1
B. Genome composition D. Calreticulin
C. Type of host 81. What feature do viruses have in common
D. How it was discovered with animal cells?
A. ability to form proteins at the ribo-
76. Bacteria in animal feces
somes
A. E. Coli B. existence of lipids in cell membranes
B. Acne C. presence of genetic code in nucleic
C. Strep Throat acid
D. Tuberculosis D. production of energy by a mitochon-
drion
77. Pathogen = Lyssavirus (RNA), flu-like
symptoms at first, then neurological dis- 82. How does Ebola block innate immune re-
function, confusion, anxiety, death; con- sponses?
tact with the saliva of an infected mammal; A. Block INF signaling
Vaccine available.
B. Block INF induction
A. Viral meningitis
C. Prevent tyrosine phosphorylation
B. Rabies
D. Both A & B
C. Influenza
E. Both A & C
D. Hepatitis C
83. The glycoprotein of the influenza virus
E. Yellow Fever
plays a crucial role in the early stage of
78. Most viruses show a strong maintenance virus infection. Which one of the follow-
of their master sequences e.g ing is associated with infection?
A. Animal viruses A. Glycan
B. Plant viruses B. Hemagglutinin
C. Both animal and plant viruses C. Mucin
D. Mutated viruses D. N-linked glucan
E. S protein
79. Which of the following virology tests take
the longest turnaround time? 84. What features does the MALT include
A. Virus culture A. Thymus
B. ELISA B. Peyer’s Patches

3.4 Virology 553
C. Tonsils 89. During which stage of the Lytic cycle does

the cell make different viral proteins?
D. Spleen

A. Infection
E. “collection of cells” along bronchiolar
tissue B. Replication
C. Synthesis
85. Type of nucleic acid found in viruses that
D. Assembly
easily mutate?
E. Lysis
A. DNA
B. RNA 90. During WWI, millions of people were killed
by a pandemic of the ? virus.
C. Both DNA and RNA
A. gangrene
D. none of above B. polio
86. Which is the correct order of the Lytic repli- C. rabies
cation cycle? D. influenza
A. Infection, Replication, Synthesis, As- E. cold
sembly, Lysis
91. What do viruses have in common with liv-
B. Infection, Insertion, Replication, Syn- ing cells? They both
thesis, Assembly, Lysis
A. store genetic information
C. Infection, Insertion, Cell division,
B. have chloroplasts
Replication, Synthesis, Assembly, Lysis
C. use glucose for cellular respiration
D. Infection, Replication, Assembly, Syn-
thesis, Lysis D. have endoplasmic reticulum
92. A staff nurse was tested positive for in-

87. Flavivirus (RNA); fever, head ache, vom- fluenza. She has
iting, fatigue, jaundice; vector = infected
mosquito; Vaccine available. A. Influenza rapid antigen positive
A. Influenza B. Real-time PCR Ct of 40

C. Growth of influenza virus in blood cul-
B. Yellow fever
ture
C. HIV D. Haemophilus influenza stained pink in
D. Hepatitis C Gram stain
E. Chicken pox 93. This virus attacks the white blood cells (im-
mune cells) of the human body. Eventually,
88. Can a virus be good? the immune system cannot handle the vi-
A. Only when it kills my enemies ral invasion. This makes the body prone
to attack from other viruses and bacteria.
B. Naw, son What is the name of this infectious viral
C. maybe disease?
D. yes, when a scientist uses it for gene A. AIDS

therapy B. Cancer

3.4 Virology 554
C. Diabetes C. Synthesis
D. none of above D. Assembly
94. Any living organism, or living particle, that E. Lysis
can cause infectious disease is called a
A. virus the cell put together the new viruses?
B. bacteria A. Infection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pathogen B. Replication
D. mutatgen C. Synthesis
95. What must be used to see a virus? D. Assembly
A. your eyes E. Lysis
B. compound light microscope 101. What is the family name of Dengue
C. electron microscope virus?
D. telescope A. Reoviridae
96. A virus can be seen under this equipment. B. Matonaviridae
A. Magnifying glass C. Flaviviridae
B. Light microscope D. Zikaviridae
C. Nuclear magnetic resonance 102. Which of the following would be effec-
D. Electron microscope tive against bacteria and not viruses.
A. Antibiotics
97. What does the envelope structure consist
of? B. Nitrogen Fixation
A. fats, proteins, nucleic acids C. Vaccine
B. fat, protein, carbohydrates D. none of above
C. fats, nucleotides, carbohydrates 103. Liver cancer and cirrhosis are caused by
D. Cabsid, protein, carbohydrate which type of hepatitis virus?
98. HIV attacks which specific cells? A. A
A. Natural killer cells B. B
B. T Helper cells C. C
C. B cells D. D
D. Macrophages 104. Which of the following statements is best
for a positive-strand RNA virus?
the virus genetic material take over the A. It must first be converted to an mRNA
host cell and make copies of its DNA or before it can be translated
RNA? B. It can be used directly to translate vi-
A. Infection ral proteins.
B. Replication C. It will be degraded by host enzymes

3.4 Virology 555
D. It is not recognized by host ribosomes B. stomach ache

E. Must generate mRNAs for protein syn- C. leg pain

thesis
D. pain in the hand
105. Where do most RNAs have replication?
110. Pathogen = Varicella-Zoster virus (DNA);
A. Nucleus fever, tiredness, headache, itchy blisters;
B. Cytoplasm spread by contact with an infected individ-
C. Nucleic acid ual; Vaccine available.
D. Nucleotide A. Chicken pox

B. HIV
106. Which of the following viruse is sensitive
to heat, drying, pH, detergents, and lipid C. HPV
solvents such as alcohol? D. Yellow fever
A. Adenovirus
E. Ebola
B. Papillomavirus
111. During which stage of the Lytic cycle do
C. HCV
the new viruses rupture out of the host
D. Rhinovirus cell?
E. HAV A. Infection
107. Choose all The benefit of rates of B. Replication
mutations-Quasispecies is
C. Synthesis
A. Providing an effective mechanism to
D. Assembly
adapt to environmental changes
B. To adapt to emergence of new master E. Lysis
sequences
112. What organization of the genome is ob-
C. To allow the viruses to loose its infect- served in the influenza virus?
ing ability
A. negative-sense, single-stranded, seg-
D. To allow maximum utilization of viral mented RNA viruses
enzymes
B. positive-sense, single-stranded, seg-
108. Name for the type of protein produced by mented RNA viruses
the immune system that will give you im-
C. single-stranded, segmented DNA
munity to the virus the next time it enters
viruses
your body.
D. double-stranded DNA
A. Antibody
B. Antigen 113. Which of the following virology tests
C. Antibiotic take the shortest turnaround time?
D. Antiviral A. Virus culture

B. ELISA
109. What symptoms are observed in patients
with coronavirus? C. Rapid antigen test
A. sore throat, sneezing D. Direct immunofluorescence

3.4 Virology 556
114. What of the term refers to the amount of D. through an animal bite
virus in an infected person’s blood?
120. A virus acts like a
A. viral load
A. leukocyte
B. plant sap
B. parasite
C. maturation
C. parachute
D. chill
D. paramedic
115. All viruses contain what two things?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
121. Needs host cell to reproduce.
A. Capsid and DNA/RNA
A. Virus
B. DNA and Proteins
B. Bacteria
C. DNA and RNA
C. Fungus
D. Proteins and Tail Fibers
D. Protozoan
116. The shape of the on a virus’s de-
scribes it’s shape. 122. For virus identification, specimens should
A. Protein Coat never be stored at-20◦ C. Which one of the
following statements is true?
B. Glycoprotein
A. Formation of ice crystals that will dis-
C. Tail rupt host cells and loss of viral viability
D. none of above B. Formation of ice crystals that will dis-
117. Mutations in Quasispecies is due to rupt the RBC and result in hemolysin
A. High error rate of RdRp C. Formation of ice crystals that will dis-
turb host cells protein
B. Transcriptase enzymes
D. Formation of ice crystals that will rup-
C. Horizontal virus transfer ture host red blood cells
D. Host genetic elements
E. Formation of ice crystals that will rup-
118. Viruses are considered to be nonliving be- ture host cells protein
cause they
123. is used to prevent viral diseases
A. can multiply on their own. while are used to kill bacteria .
B. do not show all the characteristics of A. vaccine; antibiotics
life.
B. antibiotics; vaccine
C. are smaller than bacteria.
C. antibiotics; antibiotics
D. use energy to grow.
D. none of above
119. How are colds and the flu usually
spread? 124. The study of the cause and spread if in-
fectious diseases.
A. by cold weather
A. Virology
B. from organisms that live naturally in
soil B. Bacteriology
C. by direct or indirect contact with in- C. Diseasology

fected persons D. Epidemiology

3.4 Virology 557
125. Which of the following is a virus that can 130. Which cells produce antibodies against an
typically affect humans? identified pathogen?

A. rabies A. T cells
B. apple mosaic virus B. B cells
C. influenza C. Natural killer cells

D. Macrophages
D. tobacco mosaic virus
131. The genetic material of a virus is found in
126. RNA virus; fever, fatigue, diarrhea, its
nausea, jaundice, liver damage; spread
through contaminated food and water; A. glycoprotein.
Vaccine available. B. nucleus.
A. Hepatitis A C. protein coat and glycoprotein.
B. Hepatitis C D. protein coat.
C. Influenza 132. In a specific immune response, which cells

travel to the site of the infection and ac-
D. Rabies
curately spray ONLY the cells that are in-
E. Yellow fever fected?
A. T cells
127. How could you describe the size of a
virus? B. B cells
A. Smaller than bacteria C. Natural killer cells
B. Larger than a parasite D. Macrophages
C. About the size of a dime 133. Hepatitis delta virus only occurs in pa-
tients who also have either acute or
D. Smaller than a proton chronic infection with hepatitis B virus.
What would be the best choice for the Hep-
128. greatly influence the change in mas-
atitis delta virus?
ter sequence; e.g., Avian influenza A viru
A. Defective RNA virus
A. Host genetic elements
B. Hepatitis B mutant
B. Selection pressure
C. Incomplete hepatitis B virion
C. Transcriptase enzyme
D. Pseudovirion
D. Genetic recombination E. Related to hepatitis A virus
129. Heterotrophic bacteria obtain food by 134. Please select the Characteristics of Life
A. capturing the sun’s energy. that viruses are MISSING.
A. Cell(s) and chemicals of life
B. decomposing nutrients from other or-
ganisms. B. Growth and Development
C. helping autotrophs make food. C. Respond to Stimuli
D. using the energy from chemicals in D. Reproduce on their own
their environment. E. Use own energy

3.4 Virology 558
135. Viruses cannot 141. Which explains why viruses are non-
A. be crystallized living?
B. live in bacteria A. No cell

C. reproduce on their own B. Must use a living host cell to reproduce
D. none of above C. No respiration
D. No lifespan
136. Which of the following statements are
appropriate regarding antigenic drift? E. Only one type of nucleic acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. It results in major antigenic changes 142. The first characteristic used by virolo-
B. It is exhibited by only influenza A gists to classify viruses is the
viruses A. Shape of the virus
C. It is due to genetic variation B. Size of the virus
D. It affects predominantly the matrix C. Type of nucleic acid in the virus
protein
D. Type of replication cycle
E. It results in new subtypes over time
143. What process results in genetically differ-
137. Which virus is the biggest? ent bacteria?
A. megavirus chilensis
A. Conjugation
B. influenza viruse
B. Respiration
C. mumps virus
C. Binary Fission
D. rabies virus
D. none of above
138. What does a virus have on the inside?
144. The reason why the Influenza vaccination
A. DNA, but never RNA must be taken every year.
B. RNA but never DNA A. Viruses mutate.
C. DNA or RNA B. Viruses cannot reproduce.
D. neither DNA or RNA C. Host cells kill viruses.
139. The projections on the virus (tail fibers) D. Vaccines make corporations money.
are used for-
145. How called the standard method used to
A. carrying genetic material
determine virus concentration in terms of
B. attaching to a host cell infectious dose?
C. protecting the DNA A. plaque-based assay
D. none of above B. polymerase chain reaction
140. Allows bacteria to attach to other cells C. immunofluorescence assay
A. Pilli D. patch clamp technique
B. Flagella 146. Family:Orthomyxoviridae What type of
C. Cell Wall virus is present and where is replication?
D. Cytoplasm A. Poliovirus:Cytoplasm

3.5 Mycology 559
B. Rubella virus:Cytoplasm C. double-stranded DNA

C. Influenza virus:Nucleus D. single-stranded RNA genome with

positive-sense
D. Influenza:Cytoplasm
148. Which shape describes some bacterial
147. What organization of the genome is ob-
cells?
served in the rabies virus?
A. polyhedral
A. single stranded RNA genome with
negative-sense B. helical
B. single-stranded, segmented DNA C. spherical

viruses D. envelope
3.5 Mycology
1. Mastigomycota is known as 5. Polymerase chain reaction tests have been
described for identification confirmation in
A. Sac fungi
this fungi
B. Conidial fungi A. P. brasiliensis
C. Zoosporic fungi B. P. marneffei
D. Club fungi C. B. dermatitidis
2. What type of mushroom are we growing? D. C. immitis
A. Shiitake 6. Which organism is described as having

arthroconida with alternating dysjunctor
B. Oyster
cells
C. Forest A. Coccidioidesimmitis
D. none of above B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
3. In Pythium sexual reproduction is by C. Histoplasmacapsulatum

D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
A. gametagial copulation
B. Planogametic copulation 7. You can force your mushroom log to “fruit”
by doing which of the following?
C. Gametangial contact
A. Adding water to the log
D. Spermatization
B. Drying out the log
4. Flagella in Zoospores of pythium is placed C. Giving the log lots of sunshine
as D. Putting it in a different position
A. Anteriorly uniflagellate
8. Most Fungi are multicellular organisms.
B. Posteriorly uniflagellate This means they are made of:
C. anteriorly biflagellate A. one cell
D. Latteraly biflagellate B. more than one cell

3.5 Mycology 560
C. no cells 15. Fungi are like animals because they-

D. none of above A. have cell walls
9. Why isn’t a fungi considered a plant? B. contain chitin
A. It doesn’t have leaves. C. are heterotrophic
B. It doesn’t have chlorophyll. D. have filamentous bodies
C. They don’t like it. 16. lichens are which two organisms living to-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. You can’t eat it. gether
A. truffles and fungus
10. Mushrooms should be grown in the
B. morels and ergot
A. sun
B. shade C. sac fungi and alga
C. partial shade D. fungus and alga
D. none of above 17. The haploid single-nucleated mycelium of

Basidospora is a type of mycelium
11. Fungi that feed on and HELP the host.
A. Primer
A. saprophytic
B. Seconds
B. parasitic
C. Tertiary
C. symbiotic
D. none of above
D. none of above
18. Which disease is caused by a fungus?
12. Coccidioidomycosis is acquired by inhala-
tion of A. Athlete’s Foot
A. mycelium B. Lyme Disease
B. conidia C. Measels
C. arthroconidia D. Tinitus
D. molds 19. It is used to enhanced the detection of
13. Thick strands or root like aggregation of yeast cells in blastomycosis
somatic hyphae in some fungi A. wright stain
A. Enteromorph B. giemsa stain
B. Exomorph C. calcofluor white stain
C. Rhizomorph D. KOH
D. Rhizoids
20. The emerging dimorphic pathogenic fungi
14. Fungi are like insects because they both- that is endemic to Southeast Asia
A. have cell walls A. P. marneffei
B. contain chitin B. coccidioides spp.
C. are autotrophic C. p. brasiliensis
D. have filamentous bodies D. h. capsulatum

3.5 Mycology 561
21. fungi have C. Soil water content

A. nucleus and cell wall D. Inorganic materials

B. nucleus and no cell wall
27. Which organism is described as having Tu-
C. no nucleus and no cell wall
berculate Macrocondia
D. none of above
A. Coccidioidesimmitis
22. When spacing out your spores, how far
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
part should they be?
A. 1 inch C. Histoplasmacapsulatum
B. 6 inches D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
C. 10 inches
28. Fungi reproduce using
D. 1 foot
A. seeds
23. The following are the benefits of mycor-
B. spores
rhiza that are most appropriate in the an-
swers below.. C. eggs
A. Mycorrhiza as a biological controller D. none of above
B. Mycorrhiza as a soil enhancer
C. Mycorrhiza as a biotic stress reducer 29. “Living things are organized for study
into large, basic groups called kingdoms.
D. All true Fungi were listed in the plant kingdom for
24. The part of the mushroom one can see many years. Then scientists learned that
above ground is the fungi show a closer relation to animals,
but are unique and separate life forms.
A. basidium Now, fungi are placed in their own king-
B. flower dom.What information about fungi does
C. sapling this excerpt add to the passage?
D. fruiting body A. Many fungi look like animals.
25. What characteristic do most adult fungi B. Fungi are neither plants nor animals.
and plants share? C. Animals are placed in their own king-
A. They are both producers dom.
B. They both have cells with cell walls D. All decomposers are classified in the
C. They reproduce through binary fission fungi kingdom.
D. They both have multiple nuclei in each 30. Which of the following organisms does not
cell cause phaeohyphomycosis
26. Which of the following is not a factor af- A. Cladosporium species
fecting the presence of arbuscular mycor-
rhizal fungal spores? B. Exophiala jeanselmei
A. Light C. Wangiella dermatitidis

B. Temperature D. Cladophialophora

3.5 Mycology 562
31. (Apply) Which of the following is an exam- 37. Puffball mushrooms are in the category
ple of a systemic mycosis?
A. Candidosis A. Sac fungi
B. Rhinosporidiosis B. Club fungi
C. Aspergillosis C. incomplete fungi
D. Pneumonia D. Mold
38. Which organism is described as having
NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. Which of the following is a unicellular fun-
gus? broad-based budding yeast cells
A. Foraminifera A. Coccidioidesimmitis
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Yeast
C. Histoplasmacapsulatum
C. Amoeba
D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
D. Algae
39. An antibiotic made from a species of
33. Thick walled resistant spores in fungi thread-like fungus.
A. Aplanospores A. lichen
B. Zoospores B. mold
C. Conidia C. penicillin
D. Chlamydospres D. asprin
34. Probably the most virulent of all human 40. The yeast cells of this fungi has multiple
mycotic agents polar budding at the periphery, resembling
A. B. dermatitidis a mariner’s wheel
A. P. brasiliensis
B. H. capsulatum
B. B. dermatitidis
C. P. brasiliensis
C. C. immitis
D. coccidioides spp.
D. P. marneffei
35. Fungi that feed on and HARM the host.
41. Which of the following dimorphic organ-
A. saprophytic isms is best identified in the mold phase?
B. parasitic A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. symbiotic B. Paracoccidioidesbraziliensis
D. none of above C. Sporothrix schenckii
36. (Create) How can systemic mycoses and D. all of the above
associated oral lesions be prevented? 42. Like bacteria, fungi play an important role
A. Regular hand washing in breaking down the
B. Avoiding contact with infected individ- A. bodies of bugs
uals B. bodies of dead organisms
C. Taking antibiotics C. animal waste
D. Eating a healthy diet D. bacteria

3.5 Mycology 563
43. What is the tangled, underground network 49. How do you seal spores in a log?
of hyphae that makes up the largest por- A. Add water
tion of a fungus?

B. Add wax
A. Mycelium
C. Add tape
B. Basidia
D. none of above
C. Gills
D. Fruiting Body 50. decomposition is an important role of
44. (Understand) What is the role of fungi in A. protozoans
ecosystem processes? B. algae
A. To produce toxins C. plants
B. To break down organic matter and re- D. fungi
cycle nutrients
C. To cause plant diseases 51. Which characteristic makes it easy to
spread, but difficult to treat and prevent
D. To cause animal diseases certain fungal infections?
45. The following are examples of beneficial A. Fungi are multicellular.
Basidiomycota fungi, except
B. Fungi are heterotrophic.
A. Oyster mushroom
C. Fungi reproduce by spores.
B. Button mushroom
D. Fungi grow in dry environment
C. Hiratake mushroom
D. Amanita mushroom 52. Disease caused by Pythium is
A. Damping off
46. Common result of disseminated disease in
Coccidioides spp. infection B. Anthracnose
A. pulmonary involvement C. Leaf spot
B. meningeal involvement D. Canker
C. reticuloendothelial involvement 53. Fungi get their food by
D. oropharyngeal A. eating bugs
47. Mushrooms start their life cycle as B. absorbing sunlight
A. Spores C. releasing chemicals that breakdown
B. Mycelium organic matter and absorb the nutrients
C. Mushrooms D. through animal waste and decaying
D. none of above wood
48. The study of Fungi is called 54. Fungi are

A. Fungology A. Archaeans
B. Mycology B. Autotrophic
C. Hyphology C. Eukaryotic
D. Mushology D. Prokaryotic

3.5 Mycology 564
55. Which organism is described as having 61. Whole fungal thallus transform into a re-
thick walled multiple budding yeast productive structure
A. Coccidioidesimmitis A. Percarpic
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis B. Eucapic
C. Histoplasmacapsulatum C. Holocarpic
D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis D. Enterocarpic
62. The host who is commonly infected with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. What is an example of a fungus?
the emerging pathogenic P. merneffei
A. moss A. immunodeficient
B. mold B. immunocompetent
C. bryophyte C. immunocompromised
D. protist D. immunosuppressed
57. (Remember) What is mycology? 63. Which is not true about fungi?
A. The study of bacteria A. All are consumers
B. The study of viruses B. All are multicellular
C. The study of fungi C. Are eukaryotic
D. The study of plants D. Can be useful to humans

64. Athlete’s foot would be considered
58. This term describes a form of asexual re-
production utilized by yeasts in which 2 A. commensalistic
identical cells are produced. B. mutualistic
A. Budding C. parasitic
B. Conjugation D. none of above
C. Fragmentation 65. How do fungi get their food?
D. Fertilization A. Eating bugs that are attracted by a
chemical
59. mycology also known as the study of
B. Absorbing sunlight and making sugar
A. bacteria as food
B. protists C. Releasing chemicals that breakdown
C. fungi organic matter and absorb the nutrients
D. Through animal waste that they live off
D. plants
of
60. The place where the fungus exchanges 66. Multicellular fungi that have filaments are
food with the host plant is called? called
A. Vascular A. Hyphae
B. Arbuscular B. Mold
C. Arbascular C. Khmer
D. Vesicular D. none of above

3.5 Mycology 565
67. Fungi obtain energy 73. Dolipore septum is seen in

A. Directly from the sun A. Ascomycetes

B. From inorganic (unnatural) materials B. Oomycetes
in their environment
C. Basidiomyctes
C. By absorbing organic (natural) materi-
als D. Zygomycetes
D. From nuclear fusion 74. in what environment do lichens grow?
68. Fugal thallus with naked mass of proto- A. harsh environment
plasm is
B. extreme environment
A. Clamydospore
C. mild environment
B. Conida
D. extreme hot environment
C. Plasmodium
D. Arthrospore 75. Fungi are multi-cellular organisms
69. (Evaluate) Which of the following is NOT A. Yes, always
a symptom of rhinosporidiosis? B. No, never
A. Painful swallowing C. Sometimes
B. Nasal discharge
D. none of above
C. Fever
D. Rash 76. In pythium sexual spore is
A. Ascospore
70. Fungi, such as mushrooms and molds, get
their nutrition primarily by- B. Basidiospore
A. parasitic relationships with plants C. Conidia
B. producing food by chemosynthesis D. Oospore
C. preying on other organisms
77. are fungi that that produce the gas
D. decomposing dead organic matter
that makes bread rise.
71. When an organism breaks down other liv- A. Mushrooms
ing or once living things for nutrients.
B. Athletes’ foot
A. autotroph
C. Blue Cheese
B. decomposer
C. heterotroph D. Yeast
D. gross, soggy, smelling and weird 78. The whole thallus is transformed into a
sporangium is the meaning of
72. mycology is the study of
A. bacteria A. Eucarpic
B. protists B. Eucarp
C. fungi C. Holocarpic
D. plants D. Holocarpa

3.6 Bacterial Staining 566
79. Membraneous vesicular material embed- D. lungs

ded in the fungi cell wall external to the
line of plasma membrane. 83. Yeast cells are found intracellularly in
mononuclear cells and macrophages in
A. Heterosomes
A. B. dermatitidis
B. Endosomes
B. C. immitis
C. Lomasomes
C. P. brasiliensis
D. Exosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. H. capsulatum
80. Where is Talaromyces marneffei endemic
to: 84. (Analyze) What is the laboratory diagno-
sis method for candidosis?
A. desert areas of the southwestern U.S.
A. Microscopic examination of a skin
B. Southeast Asia scraping
C. Misssippi and Ohio river valley B. Culture of a throat swab
D. South America C. Blood test
81. Demonstration of the characteristic yeast D. X-ray
cells in paracoccidioidomycosis in direct mi-
croscopic is taken from:1) subcutaneous le- 85. An antibiotic which is made from a species
sions 2) cutaneous lesions 3) mucosal le- of thread-like fungus.
sions 4) superficial lesions A. lichen
A. 1, 4 B. mold
B. 1, 2, 3 C. penicillin
C. 3, 4 D. asprin
D. 2, 3 86. What is the above-ground, reproductive
82. The primary histoplasmosis usually begins structure produced by fungi?
in the A. Fruiting body
A. reticuloendothelial system B. Hyphae
B. oropharyngeal C. Mycelium
C. meninges D. Chitin
3.6 Bacterial Staining

1. Which procedure uses heat to “set in” the flamed
stain?
A. At the beginning and end
A. Acid fast staining
B. At the beginning and end and between
B. Gram staining the first 2 zones
C. Endospore staining
C. At the beginning and end and between
D. Negative staining the second and third zone
2. When streaking a plate, the loop should be D. At the beginning and end and between

each zone D. It temporarily keeps cells from grow-

ing.
3. When looking through your microscope, if

you move your slide to the right the slide 8. Spirillum is not classified as a spirochete
appears because spirochetes
A. to move to the right A. Do not cause disease.
B. to stay the same B. Possess axial filaments.
C. to move to the left
C. Possess flagella
D. vanish
D. Are prokaryotes
4. When transferring liquid aseptically from
one tube to another, you should 9. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have
many differences, but they also share
A. remove the cap of the tube with the lit- some common features. Which of the fol-
tle finger of the hand holding the pipette lowing may be found in either type of
B. remove the cap of the tube with the lit- cell?
tle finger of the hand holding the tube
A. Golgi bodies
C. place the cap on the bench top with the
B. ribosomes
inside up
D. place the cap on the bench top with the C. mitochondria
inside down D. nucleus
5. d step of the Gram stain procedure 10. Non-acid fast color upon decolorization
A. Crystal Violet A. Red
B. Iodine B. Green
C. Alcohol
C. None
D. Safranin
D. Blue
6. The cells we collected from our 11 patients
showed which Gram results? 11. The common word for bacteria which are
straight rod in shape is
A. Gram positive; purple
A. Cooci
B. Gram negative; pink
B. Bacilli
C. Gram positive; pink
D. Gram negative; purple C. Spirilla
D. Pleomorphic
7. What is the purpose of fixation in smear
preparation? 12. Which is applied last in gram staining?
A. It keeps cells from drying out during A. alcohol
staining.
B. crystal violet
B. It attaches cells firmly to the slide’s
surface. C. safranin
C. It enables cells to take up more stain. D. grams iodine

13. Which is applied first in gram staining? B. cell wall in the polypeptide layer of GN
A. alcohol bacteria
B. grams iodine C. cell wall in the peptidoglycan layer of

GP bacteria
C. crystal violet
D. cell wall in the lipopolysaccaride layer
D. safranin of GP bacteria
14. Contrasts fluorescence stain background 19. Exhibits acid fast characteristic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Potassium permanganate A. mycolic acid
B. Acridine orange B. acid alcohol
C. Methylene blue C. fast motility
D. Malachite green D. thin cell wall
15. In the Gram stain, which of the reagents
20. Which part of a bacteria cell wall “holds”
actually differentiates between Gram pos-
the stain?
itive and Gram negative cells?
A. plasma membrane
A. Iodine
B. fimbriae
B. Ethanol/acetone
C. peptidoglycan
C. Safranin
D. pilus
D. Crystal violet
21. Who first discovered the process of Gram
16. Which stain is utilized for flagella staining
Staining?
A. Carbolfuchsin
A. Charles Christian Gram
B. Malachite Green
B. Hans Christian Ham
C. Crystal Violet
C. Gram Christian Han
D. Safranin
D. Hans Christian Gram
17. What is the clinical significance of the
Gram stain? 22. One property that makes M. tuberculosis
acid fast
A. It helps clinicians identify the shape
and arrangement of the bacteria A. acid alcohol
B. It affirms to clinicians the presence of B. mycolic acid

bacteria C. thin cell wall
C. It demonstrates to clinicians the pres- D. flagella
ence of an acid fast bacterial infection
23. Which of the following is a mordant
D. it helps clinicians decide which antibi-
otic to prescribe for a bacterial infection A. Methylene blue
B. Iodine
18. Teichoic acids are found in the
A. cell wall in the lipopolysaccaride layer C. Crystal Violet
of GN bacteria D. Safranin

24. BEFORE you can gram stain you must do C. diaphragm

what to your sample
D. light source

A. perform a wet mount and let air dry
B. heat fix the slide so bacteria won’t 30. Which type of bacteria contains more than
wash off 1 layer of phospholipids?
C. look at it under high dry (40X) A. Gram Negative
D. add water and a coverslip B. Gram Positive
25. What type of stain should be used for C. Both (-) and (+)
staining capsules? D. none of above
A. Negative staining
B. Simple Staining 31. What stain do we use to stain en-
dospores?
C. Endospore Staining
A. Crystal violet
D. Gram Staining
B. Safranin
26. A glycocalyx is:
C. Malachite green
A. the outer coating found on some bac-
teria D. Copper sulfate
B. controls movement of molecules in
32. What is the counterstain in the Gram
and out of the cell
stain?
C. moves the pili around
A. safranin
D. a rigid wall, giving the bacteria its
shape B. iodine
C. alcohol-acetone
27. What is another use for a mordant?
A. to make flagella appear larger D. crystal violet
B. to make the cell walls more permeable 33. The loop should be held
to the counterstain
A. straight up and down
C. to decolorize the bacteria
B. at a very slight angle
D. to stain acid fast bacteria
C. at a fairly steep angle
28. Which of the following is the decolorizer
D. parallel to the work bench
A. saffranin
B. iodine 34. Lipopolysaccaride layer is found
C. crystal violet A. in GP bacteria and has Toxin A
D. alcohol B. in GN bacteria and has Toxin A
29. The lens you look through, closest to the C. in GP bacteria and does not contain
top of the microscope, is called the Toxin A
A. objective lens D. in GN bacteria and does not contain
B. ocular lens Toxin A

35. How long are the steps in a Gram stain? 40. must have oxygen to survive.
A. 60 secs, 30 secs, rinse with alcohol, 60 A. obligate aerobes
secs. B. obligate anaerobes
B. 60 secs, 60 secs, rinse with alcohol, 30 C. facultative aerobes
secs-wash with water each step
D. high energy bacteria
C. 60 secs, 30 secs, rinse with alcohol, 60
secs. rinse with water with each step 41. Which part of the bacteria contains Pepti-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
doglycan?
D. 30 secs, 30 secs, 15 secs, 60 secs,
washing in between each step with water A. Lipoproteins
B. Cell wall
36. The of the microscope would give you
the SMALLEST field of view. C. Cell membrane
D. Porin channel
A. low power objective
B. medium power objective 42. Which of the following is not a simple stain
C. high power objective A. Methylene blue
D. stage B. Iodine
C. Crystal Violet
37. Find total magnification for:Eyepiece =
D. Safranin
10X Objective lens = 4X
A. 4x 43. What is the appearance of Gram positive
bacteria after the addition of the alcohol-
B. 6x acetone decolorizer in the Gram stain?
C. 14x A. purple
D. 40x B. red
38. Which is the mordant? C. colorless
A. crystal violet D. green
B. saffranin 44. Which does not belong?

C. alcohol A. Monera
D. iodine B. Protista
C. Plantae
39. Who was the person who used his micro-
D. Fungi
scope to observe a thin slice of cork, and
concluded that the cork was made up of 45. The sharpens the image under high
cells? magnification.
A. Robert Hooke A. the diaphragm
B. Bill Nye B. fine adjustment knob
C. Matthias Schleiden C. coarse adjustment knob
D. Rudolf Virchow D. the ocular

46. Use the focuses the image under low 52. What determines whether a cell is Gram
power. positive or Gram negative?

A. revolving nosepiece A. presence or absence of a nucleus
B. fine adjustment knob B. composition of the cell wall
C. coarse adjustment knob C. presence or absence of flagella
D. arm/neck D. composition of the cell membrane
47. In a basic dye the chromophore is a 53. What is the appearance of Gram negative
bacteria after the addition of the mordant
A. Cation
in the Gram stain?
B. Anion
A. purple
C. Onion B. red
D. none of above C. colorless
48. Which of the following stains is used for D. green
visualizing Mycobacterium?
54. Kinyoun’s cold stain is performed without
A. Negative stain
B. Endospore stain A. staining
C. Gram stain B. decolorizing
D. Acid Fast stain C. steaming
49. Which layer of the bacteria is D. drying
dyed/stained purple?
55. In an acidic dye the chromophore is a
A. Cell membrane
A. Cation
B. cell wall B. Anion
C. capsule C. Onion
D. slime layer D. none of above
50. When streaking a plate, you should go 56. Acid fast staining is used for organisms
back over the last area that contain in their cell walls
A. never A. Peptidoglycan
B. 1-2 times B. Flagella
C. 3-4 times C. Wax
D. 8-10 times D. Carbohydrates
51. Never use this when on high power. 57. What is the decolorizer in the Gram stain?
A. Fine adjustment A. safranin
B. Diaphragm B. iodine
C. Coarse adjustment C. alcohol-acetone
D. Stage clips D. crystal violet

58. Gram positive cells have a A. Easily observed with brightfield mi-
A. Second outer membrane that helps to croscopy
retain the crystal violet stain B. Gram-negative
B. Multiple layer of peptidoglycan that C. Difficult to culture in vitro
helps to retain the crystal violet stain
D. Helical shape
C. Thick capsule that traps the crystal vi-
olet stain 64. Which is not an extremophile?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Periplasmic space that traps the crys- A. halophile
tal violet
B. methanogen
59. Porins are C. proteobacteria
A. tiny capsules that help in transport D. thermoacidophiles
B. small proteins that block the passage-
way if needed in outer membrane 65. Acid Fast staining and gram staining are
both considered to be
C. Proteins that aid in metabolism of ATP
in the cell A. Differential stains
D. are not needed in a prokaryotic cell B. Selective stains
C. Simple stains
60. When finished gram staining, G+ bacteria
appear D. Negative stains
A. Purple
66. Counter stain used in Gram’s Staining is
B. Pink
A. Crystal Violet
C. Green
B. Ethanol
D. Yellow
C. Safranin
61. The ability of an organism to cause disease D. Malachite green
A. Pathogenicity
67. All of the following are components of a
B. Virulence
bright-field compound microscope EXCEPT:
C. Infectivity
A. The oil immersion objective lens.
D. none of above
B. The phase plate
62. The degree to which an organism causes C. The condenser lens.
disease
D. The scanning objective lens.
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence 68. Acid Fast Bacilli have
C. Infectivity A. fast motility
D. none of above B. high lipid content
C. high alcohol content
63. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of spirochetes? D. high wax content

69. What is the appearance of Gram negative C. spirillum

bacteria after the addition of the counter- D. none of above
stain in the Gram stain?

74. Gram’s iodine is a
A. purple
A. Primary stain
B. red
B. Mordant
C. colorless
C. Decolorizing agent
D. green
D. Counterstain
70. Based on our colony morphology results
75. When streaking a plate, the lid should be
(yellow pigment, convex elevation, entire
margin, and large size, cell morphology A. placed on the bench top, top side up
(cocci), and gram stain results (Gram posi- B. placed on the bench top, inside surface
tive; purple) the cause of the outbreak is up
A. Escherichia coli C. should be held in the same hand as the
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa plate
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. should be held in the opposite hand
from the plate
76. Which sequence lists the steps of the Gram
71. t step of the gram stain procedure stain in order?
A. Crystal Violet A. alcohol-acetone, crystal violet,
B. Iodine safranin, iodine
C. Alcohol B. crystal violet, alcohol-acetone, iodine,
safranin
D. Safranin
C. iodine, safranin, crystal violet, alcohol-
72. George streaks a plate of medium from a acetone
broth culture. After incubation, he sees D. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol-acetone,
confluent growth in all sectors. Which of safranin
the following errors could NOT explain this
result? 77. What is the appearance of Gram positive
bacteria after the addition of the first
A. He forgot to pick a colony from the
dye?
plate
A. purple
B. He forgot to flame the loop between
sectors B. red
C. He picked additional culture from the C. colorless
plate after the first sector D. green
D. He crossed over the previous streak 78. What is the primary stain in the Gram
too many times at the beginning of a new stain?
sector.
A. safranin
73. Rod shaped bacteria are called B. iodine
A. baccili C. alcohol-acetone
B. cocci D. crystal violet

79. When would you use the diaphragm? C. have a true nucleus, which means the
A. When you wanted to move the stage cell’s DNA is surrounded by a membrane.
B. When you wanted to adjust the light D. contain membrane-bound organelles,
such as the nucleus
C. When you wanted to put the micro-
scope away 85. Find the total magnification:Eyepiece =
D. When you sneeze 15X Objective lens = 100X
80. What is the last thing you should do? A. 15x
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. take off your gloves B. 100x
B. wash your hands C. 115x
C. sterilize your workspace D. 1500x
D. none of above
86. Example of a beneficial Biofilms
81. Which of the following has Chinese letter A. Streptococcus mutans on the surface
arrangement? of teeth
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Pseudomoas aeruginosa on the lungs
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis of immunocompromised patients
C. Clostridium tetani C. Use of Bacillus subtilis for prevention
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae of plant pathogens in industrial microbiol-
ogy
82. Plasmids are
D. none of above
A. circular, double-stranded DNA found
in the cytoplasm 87. Which finger should you use to remove the
B. transfer information through the pro- lid from a test tube when you are using an
cess of diffusion with other cells inoculating loop to make a transfer?
C. Are considered non-essential A. little finger of the dominant hand (hand
D. Both B and C holding the loop)
E. All of the above B. little finger of the non-dominant hand
(hand holding the sample)
83. Which is prokaryotic?
C. forefinger of the dominant hand (hand
A. Animalia holding the loop)
B. Fungi D. thumb and forefinger of the non-
C. Protista dominant hand (hand holding the sample)
D. Monera
88. How long should alcohol be applied when
84. Prokaryote are? performing the gram stain?
A. simple, mostly single-celled organ- A. 1 sec
ism that lacks a nucleus, or any other
B. 5 sec
membrane-bound organelle.
C. 30sec
B. have a peptidoglycan cell wall and
many have polysaccharide capsules. D. 1 min

89. Which part of a bacteria “holds” the 95. What is the first thing you should do?
stain? A. put on gloves

A. cell wall B. wash your hands
B. fimbriae C. sterilize your workspace
C. peptidoglycan D. none of above
D. pilus
96. Which of the following genera is an pleo-
90. Round shaped bacteria are called morphic rods or coccobacilli?
A. bacilli A. Escherichia
B. spirillum B. Staphylococcus
C. cocci C. Bacteroides
D. none of above D. Treponema
91. What should you do if you suspect a pa- 97. Which two genera can acid fast staining
tient has tuberculosis? divide organisms into (select 2)
A. A Gram stain. A. Mycobacterium
B. An acid-fast stain. B. Norcardia

C. Staphalococcus
C. Check for motility.
D. Enteric bacteria
D. Look at a wet mount.
98. When transferring liquid using a pipette,
92. The Gram stain is considered to be a
the tip of the pipette should
A. differential stain
A. be in the center of the test tube
B. endospore stain B. should touch the side of the test tube
C. simple stain C. n ever touch the side of the test tube
D. negative stain D. remain in the air above the tube and
93. Which Stains are used in the endospore never enter the tube.
staining process 99. bacteria morphology with two spheres to-
A. Carbolfuchsin gether is known as
B. Malachite Green A. streptococcus
C. Crystal Violet B. diplobacilli
D. Safranin C. diplococcus
D. diplospherio
94. What was the first name of the scientist
who developed the Gram stain? (To give 100. The cooci which mostly occur in single or
you the last name would give it away!) pairs are
A. Hans A. Streptococci
B. Jorgen B. Diplococci
C. Edward C. Tetracocci
D. Robert D. None of the above

3.7 Common Tests for Bacterial identification 576
3.7 Common Tests for Bacterial identification

1. For the procedure today (Part VI;p131), D. an expert in studies involving microor-
which of the following plates will be inoc- ganisms
ulated with S. aureus?
6. Blood agar is a media that is:
A. TSA
A. Enriched
B. MSA
B. Selective
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. MacConkey’s
C. Differential
D. Blood agar
D. Only used when isolating pure culture
2. What is a medical laboratory technicians
job involving bacteria? 7. What does the motility test do?
A. Collecting bacterial samples A. tests if the organism doesn’t move
B. Testing the bacteria B. tests if the organism can move with

flagella
C. Observing the bacteria
C. tests if the organism eats a certain
D. none of above food
3. PEA selects for the growth of which kind D. none of above
of bacteria:
8. How do biochemical tests work?
A. Gram negative; PEA interferes with
DNA replication and destroys the plasma A. they determine chemicals and scien-
membrane of gram-positive bacteria tists work from there
B. Gram positive; they are less sensitive B. they determine certain characteristics
to the effects of PEA and can be selected of different species bacteria and apply
at higher concentrations them to the bacteria being tested
C. Halophilic species; it contains 7.5% C. they determine how life works

NaCl D. they determine the amount of tests a
D. Hemolytic species; can lyse erythro- certain bacteria can handle
cytes 9. Manitol salt agar is a media that is:
4. The partial destruction of red blood cells, A. Enriched
with no use of the hemoglobin is: B. Selective
A. Alpha-hemolysis C. Differential
B. Beta-hemolysis D. Only used when isolating pure culture
C. Gamma-hemolysis
10. Blood agar allows for differentiation of:
D. Delta-hemolysis
A. Gram positive
5. What is a microbiologist? B. Gram negative
A. and expert in only viruses C. Organisms that cause hemolysis
B. and expert in just bacteria D. Clinically significant bacteria species
C. an expert in all living things in human throat cultures

3.8 Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral Infection 577
11. Which media contains no dyes or chemi- C. tests if the bacteria is capable of hy-
cals (make sure the answer is correctly drolyzing urea
matched)?

D. to test how bacteria reacts to certain
A. Selective; Phenylethyl alcohol agar foods
(PEA)
B. Differential; Manitol salt agar (MSA) 14. For the procedure (Part VI), which of the
following plates will be inoculated with E.
C. Enriched; Blood Agar
coli?
D. Non-selective; Tryptic soy agar (TSA)
A. TSA
12. MSA is useful for:
B. MSA
A. Selecting for Gram positive species
C. MacConkey’s
B. Selecting for Gram negative species
C. Selecting for Halophilic species, in- D. Blood agar
hibiting most others
15. What does the H2S test search for?
D. Differentiating for Non-fermenting
species A. sulfur-containing compounds reduced
to sulfide
13. What does the urease test do?
B. microbes
A. to test if the bacteria is easily testing
by other tests C. specific amino acids
B. to test how bacteria reacts to certain D. to test if the bacteria is capable of hy-
enzymes drolysis
3.8 Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral Infection

1. (Alphavirus) ProteinsAn envelope (type of 3. Alphavirus is an and is usually re-
structural protein) glycoprotein that’s a stricted to a specific arthropod vector, its
surface glycoprotein vertebrate host, and their ecologic niche
A. E1 A. Arbovirus
B. E2 B. Hantavirus
C. E3 C. Togavirus
D. 6k D. Digongvirus
2. Togaviridae is divided into the following 4. (Alphavirus) ProteinsNonstructural pro-

genera:2 genera [Jawetz] or 3 genera tein that is used for viral polymerase
[Murray]What is the 2 genera aside from A. nsP1
the nonpathogenic Arterivirus? B. nsP2
A. Rubivirus-transmitted by droplets C. nsP3
B. Alphavirus-vector borne D. nsP4
C. Bunyavirus-transmitted by rodents 5. Infection cycle of Togaviridae 1. The
D. Filovirus-unknown transmission virion is taken up into cellular vesicles

by receptor-mediated endocytosis2. A pH 9. (Alphavirus) ProteinsAn envelope (type of

drop due to the merging of the carrier vesi- structural protein) glycoprotein that’s an-
cle with a cellular lysosome digests the nu- other surface glycoprotein and interacts
cleocapsid proteins releases the genomic with host cell receptors for attachment
RNA to the cytosol where replication be- A. E1
gins3. (+) sense RNA is immediately trans-
lated4. New virions spontaneously assem- B. E2
ble following viral translation and replica- C. E3
tion5. The virion then buds through cellu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lar membranes D. 6k
A. 1-2-3-4-5 10. (Alphavirus) ProteinsNonstructural pro-

tein with unknown function
B. 1-3-2-4-5
A. nsP1
C. 1-4-2-3-5
B. nsP2
D. 1-5-2-3-4
C. nsP3
6. (Alphavirus) ProteinsAn envelope (type of D. nsP4
structural protein) glycoprotein that con-
tains signal sequence for protein transloca- 11. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifestations* The
tion but the ultimate function is unknown prototype for those causing an acute
and is not present in mature alphaviruses febrile illness (3-7 days) with malaise,
rash, severe arthralgias, and sometimes
A. E1
arthritis* The etiology of the word means
B. E2 “walk bent over” since this is usually seen
in patients infected with the virus due to
C. E3
severe, painful arthritis* Same vector and
D. 6k almost the same clinical presentation as
dengue
7. (Alphavirus) PathogenesisThese viruses
A. Chikungunya Virus
can cause infections of both vertebrate
and invertebrate hosts B. O’nyong-nyong Virus
A. hemolytic C. Mayaro Virus
B. lytic or persistent D. Sindbis Virus
C. seasonal 12. Criteria for diagnosis primary infection

D. acute A. Detection of viral nucleic acid
B. Seroconversion
8. Direct diagnosis of viruses includes
C. Presence of IgM
A. Particle detection using electron mi-
croscopy D. Presence of IgG
B. viral isolation 13. (Alphavirus) PathogenesisSteps:1. On

biting, the female mosquito regurgitates
C. Detection of viral Nucleic acid
the virus from the salivary glands, to
D. Detection of viral antigen the bloodstream of the vertebrate host2.

Virus spreads to other target tissues in- virus-induced insults. Which of the ff. are
cluding muscles, joints, skin, and brain3. the results of infected cell death?
The virus then circulates freely in the

A. The large amount of viral RNA pro-
host’s plasma and comes into contact with duced on the replication and transcription
susceptible target cells4. Initial viremia of the genome blocks cellular mRNA from
follows resulting in systemic infection5. binding to ribosomes
Virus travels to the skin and reticuloen-
dothelial system where the primary infec- B. Increased permeability of the target
tion occurs6. Systemic symptoms during cell membrane and changes in ion concen-
the initial viremia includes fever, chills, trations can alter enzyme activities and fa-
headaches, backaches, and other flulike vor the translation of viral mRNA over cel-
symptoms, within 3 to 7 days of infec- lular mRNA
tion7. A secondary viremia can produce C. The displacement of cellular mRNA
sufficient virus to infect target organs and from the protein synthesis machinery pre-
tissues vents rebuilding and maintenance of the
A. 1-3-2-5-4-6-7 cell and is a major cause of the death of
the virus-infected cell
B. 1-2-3-4-5-6-7
D. The large amount of viral RNA pro-
C. 1-3-4-2-5-6-7 duced on the replication and transcription
D. 1-2-4-3-5-6-7 of the genome blocks cellular dRNA from
binding to ribosomes
14. (Alphavirus) ProteinsA membrane-
associated protein (type of structural pro- 17. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifestationsThese
tein) that acts as a signal sequence and is viruses are closely related antigenically to
important in virus assembly and budding chikungunya virus and they causes simi-
A. E1 lar or identical clinical manifestations with
that of Chikungunya virus
B. E2
A. Ross River Virus
C. E3
B. O’nyong-nyong Virus
D. 6k
C. Mayaro Virus
15. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifestationsThis D. Sindbis Virus
manifestation is a characteristic feature of
alphaviruses diseases, & involves mainly 18. (Alphavirus) ProteinsNonstructural pro-
the small joints→ Occurs more promi- tein that is used for regulation of strand
nently in adults than in children→ In se- synthesis (i.e., initiation of sub-genomic
vere cases, joints maybe swollen and ten- RNA synthesis, processing of N5 polypro-
der tein)
A. Migratory myalgia A. nsP1
B. Polymyalgia rheumatica B. nsP2
C. Chronic myalgia C. nsP3
D. Fibromyalgia D. nsP4
16. (Alphavirus) PathogenesisThe death of an 19. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifestationsThis

infected cell results from a combination of virus causes similar but milder diseases

3.9 Common Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Fungal Infections 580
known as Ockelbo (in Sweden), Pogosta A. nsP1

(Finland), or Karelian fever (Russia) B. nsP2
A. Chikungunya Virus
C. nsP3
B. O’nyong-nyong Virus
D. nsP4
C. Mayaro Virus
D. Sindbis Virus 22. Viral virulence depends on
A. Lethal dose
20. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifesta-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tionsViremia coincident with abrupt onset B. Virus strain
of fever, chills, malaise, and joint aches C. Host immunity
where viremia subsides in , and antivi-
D. Type of viral nucleic acid
ral antibodies appear in the blood within
1 to 4 days of the onset of symptoms 23. (Alphavirus) Clinical manifestationsThis
A. 1-5 days manifestation typically develops around
B. 3-5 days the 3rd to 5th day of illness and happens
when the patient is already defervescing.
C. 2-5 days
A. Migratory myalgia
D. 4-5 days
B. Maculopapular rash
21. (Alphavirus) ProteinsNonstructural pro-
tein that is used for synthesis of (-) strand C. Internal hemorrhage
of RNA D. Neurological problem
3.9 Common Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Fungal

Infections
1. Being chemoheterotrophs, fungi re- B. Hyphae
quires:1) carbon 2) nitrogen 3) organic C. Conidiae
compounds 4) oxygen
D. Celliae
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4 4. Number of daughter cells produced in one
yeast cell
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
A. 24
D. 1, 2, 3
B. 36
2. Yeast (Unicelluler fungi) reproduce by
C. 12
A. mating
D. 6
B. Both
C. None 5. It often bears the reproductive spores
D. Budding A. Vegetative spores
B. Nutrient spores
3. These are long filaments of cells joined to-
gether C. Genetic spores
A. Septate D. Aerial spores

6. Are fungal infection beneath the skin C. Chemoheterotrophs

caused by saprophytic fungi D. Amiprobes

A. systemic mycoses
12. The following are best describe Zygomy-
B. cutaneous mycoses cota:1) saprophytic molds 2) a conjuga-
C. subcutaneous mycoses tion fungi 3) have coenocytic hypha 4) the
D. opportunistic mycoses asexual spores are conidia
A. 1, 2, 3
7. Once Candida albicans attaches to human
epithelial cells as yeast, what is required B. 1, 2
so that it can invade deeper tissues C. 3, 4
A. Coenocytic hyphae D. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. Pseudohyphae
13. If denied oxygen, yeast ferment car-
C. Septate hyphae bohydrates and produced:1) carbon 2)
D. Hyphae methanol 3) ethanol 4) carbon dioxide
A. 1, 2, 3
8. Fungal diseases of skin named as
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
A. Systemic mycoses
C. 1, 2
B. Deep seated mycoses
D. 3, 4
C. Cutaneous mycoses
D. None of the above 14. Ideal incubation temperature for fungal cul-
ture
9. Blood tests are useful for the diagnosis of
A. 37-40 C
the following mycoses:1) cutaneous 2) su-
perficial 3) systemic 4) subcutaneous B. 20-25 C
A. 1, 2 C. 4-8 C
B. 3, 4 D. 25-30 C
C. 1, 2, 3 15. Also known as sac fungi
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 A. ascomyta
10. Candida albicans is a B. basidiomycota
A. Unicellular fungi/Yeast C. zygomycota
B. Non capsulated Unicellular fungi/Yeast D. microsporidia
16. The following are factors used to identify

C. Multicellular fungi multicellular fungi:1) vegetative spores
D. None of the above 2) colony characteristics 3) reproductive
spores 4) physical appearance
11. These are environmental fungus that de-
rived nutrients from dead organic material A. 1, 4
generally non-pathogenic B. 2, 3
A. Heterotrophs C. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. Saprobes D. 2, 3, 4

17. Fungal pathogens causing diseases in hu- C. Both

mans are D. Mycotoxicoses
A. Monomorphic
23. Fungi causing infections in immunocompro-
B. Dimorphic mized individuals comes under
C. Trimorphic A. Primary pathogens
D. Tetramorphic B. Opportunistic pathogens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Fungal cell membrane is made up of C. Both
A. Lipopolysaccharides D. None
B. Peptidoglycan 24. Cryptotococcus species is a
C. Chitin A. Unicellular fungi/Yeast
D. Ergosterol B. Multicellular fungi
19. Characteristic of fungi that makes them C. Capsulated unicellular fungi/Yeast
able to grow in relatively high sugar or D. Noncapsulated unicellular fungi/Yeast
salt content concentration
25. Basidiomycota is also known as
A. resistant to hydrostatic pressure
A. sac fungi
B. resistant to osmotic pressure
B. conjugation fungi
C. resistant to force pressure
C. cub fungi
D. resistant to high sugar and salt pres-
sure D. club fungi
20. It consist of buds coming off the parent cell 26. Fungal cell wall is made up of
A. zycoconidia A. Chitin
B. arthroconidia B. Ergosterol
C. Peptidoglycan
C. blastoconidia
D. Lipopolysaccharides
D. ascoconidia
27. Lab diagnosis of cutaneous mycoses in-
21. With the use of this extracellular enzyme,
clude
the fungi can decompose hard parts of the
plants which can not be digested by ani- A. Direct microscopy of scrappings
mals. B. Staining by Lactophenol cotton blue
A. Proteases and microscopic observation
B. Amylases C. Examination of hyphae under woods
lamp by dermatologist
C. Cellulases
D. All of the above
D. Nucleases
28. Conidia that are formed by the fragmenta-
22. Diseases caused by fungal toxins called as tion of septate hyphae into single, slightly
A. Prions thickened cells are
B. Virions A. blastoconidia

3.10 Host-Parasite relationship 583
B. ascoconidia C. 1, 4
C. zycoconidia D. 2, 3

D. arthroconidia
31. Fungal diseses are called as
29. Spore inside a hair is called A. obligate disease
A. indothrix B. obligate intracellular parasitic disease
B. ectothrix C. Both
C. endothrix D. Mycoses
D. ictothrix
32. Spore produced by Rhizopus
30. Common specimens used to test for fungal
A. sporangiospores
infections are:1) pustules 2) hair 3) nails
4) skin B. conidiospores
A. 2, 3, 4 C. sporangiophore
B. 1, 2, 3 D. conidiophores
3.10 Host-Parasite relationship

1. What is a relationship between a parasite B. Shark, Remona Fish
and a host called? C. Human, Mosquito
A. Commensalism D. Egyptian Plover, Crocodile
B. Mutualism
5. Four animals that have a mutualism rela-
C. Symbiosis tionship:
D. Parasitism A. Clown Fish, Anemone
2. All parasites are harmful to the host B. Shark, Remona Fish
A. True C. Human, Mosquito
B. False D. Egyptian Plover, Crocodile
C. It depends 6. Two animals that have a parasitism rela-
D. none of above tionship:
A. Clown Fish, Anemone
3. What is NOT an example of a parasite?
B. Shark, Remona Fish
A. Tick
C. Human, Mosquito
B. Flea
D. Egyptian Plover, Crocodile
C. Tapeworm
7. In which organ system of the human body
D. Mushroom
would a doctor most likely find a para-
4. Two animals that have a commensalism re- site?
lationship: A. skeletal system
A. Clown Fish, Anemone B. digestive system

3.11 Bacterial AND Viral Genetics 584
C. muscular system C. parasite, prey

D. reproductive system D. host, parasite
8. Some animals have an allergic reaction to 13. The following are correct about a para-
this parasite’s saliva. sitism
A. Flea A. A relationship between organisms of
B. Tick different species whereby one benefits at
the expense of the other
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mite
B. Parasites live on or within a host or-
D. Lice
ganism
9. Which of the following parasitic processes C. All of the options are correct
are in the correct order of occurrence?
D. None of the options is correct
A. Encounter>Entry>Multiplication>Spread>Damage>Outcome
14. The organism in the symbiotic relationship
B. Encounter>Entry>Spread> Multipli- which is harmed by a parasite
cation>Damage>Outcome A. Parasite
C. Multiplication> Entry>Spread> En- B. Host
counter>Damage>Outcome
C. Immunity
D. Entry>Encounter>Spread>Multiplication>Damage>Outcome
D. Commensal
10. What does a host get in a commensalism E. Symbiote
relationship?
A. Harmed 15. A relationship between two organisms
wherein both organisms benefit
B. Helped
A. Commensalism
C. Nothing
B. Mutualism
D. none of above
C. Amensalism
11. What does a parasite get in a parasitism
relationship? D. Parasitism
A. Harmed E. Host
B. Helped 16. A relationship between two organisms in

C. Nothing which one benefits at the expense of the
other
D. none of above
A. Parasitism
12. A tick sucks blood from a dog. In this rela-
B. Mutualism
tionship, the tick is the and the dog is
the C. Commensalism
A. parasite, host D. Amensalism
B. predator, host E. Symbiosis
3.11 Bacterial AND Viral Genetics

1. Avery, McLeod, and Mclarty were able to 5. The replication of a DNA molecule results
connect transformation to the nucleic acids in copies of the same gene.
because they used in their experiment.

A. 1
A. Ligase and DNAse B. 2
B. Lipase and DNAse C. 3
C. DNAse and Protease D. 4
D. Protease and Ligase
6. A frameshift mutation could result from
2. While doing a pedigree analysis of a royal A. a base insertion only.
family from a Pacific Island nation, you no-
tice two parents with the same genetic dis- B. a base deletion only.
ease who have four children. All four of C. a base substitution only.
the girls have the disease, but when they
D. either an insertion or a deletion of a
marry unaffected individuals, none of the
base.
16 grandchildren has the disease. If this
disease is controlled by a single gene, then 7. What would happen if complexes I-IV of
the most likely explanation would be that the electron transport chain pumped pro-
the disease is: tons in the opposite direction?
A. a spontaneous mutation. A. No ATP would be synthesized
B. dominant and is only seen in homozy- B. Too much ATP would be synthesized
gous dominant individuals.
C. There would be too many electrons in
C. recessive and is only seen in homozy- the mitochondrial matrix
gous recessive individuals such as the af-
fected girls. D. None of the other answer options is
correct
D. dominant and is seen in heterozygous
or homozygous dominant individuals. 8. In transformation, bacteria take up DNA
3. What happens when a piece of DNA is

missing? A. from the environment
A. genetic information is stored B. by connecting with another bacteria

through a pili
B. genetic information is lost
C. when infected with DNA from a bacte-
C. genetic information is copied riophage
D. genetic information is transmitted D. 5’ cupcake
4. Making changes in the DNA of an organism 9. What are the Mendelian ratios of the F2
is generation phenotype?
A. selective breeding A. 1:2:1
B. artificial selection B. 2:1
C. genetic engineering C. 9:3:3:1
D. genetic transformation D. 3:1

10. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is C. UCCGUUCUUGCU

caused when a segment of chromosome
D. ACCGUUCAUGCA
9 and a segment of chromosome 22 both
break off and switch places. How is this 15. Synapsis is best described as the:
mutation classified?
A. exchange of genetic information be-
A. transpostion
tween sister chromatids
B. reciprocal translocation
B. alignment of non-sister chromatids at
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. deletion the metaphase plate
D. inversion
C. exchange of genetic information be-
11. The leading strand of a DNA tween non-sister chromatids
molecule has the following sequence:5’- D. pairing of homologous chromosomes
CGCATGTAGCGA-3’Which of the following in prophase I
sequences is complementary to the leading
strand shown above? 16. Which of the following molecules does
A. 5’-AGCGATGTACGC-3’ NOT easily diffuse across a plasma mem-
brane?
B. 3’-AGCGATGTACGC-5’
C. 5’-GCGTACATCGCT-3’ A. small polar molecules
D. 3’-GCGTACATCGCT-5’ B. large polar molecules
12. Why are viruses considered to be nonliv- C. gases

ing organisms? D. both small and large polar molecules
A. They do not have genetic information.
17. Secondary structure is characterized by
B. They are not able to move on their which one of the following types of inter-
own. actions?
C. They do not interact with their environ-
A. hydrogen bonding within the peptide
ment.
backbone
D. They are not able to reproduce without
a host cell. B. a covalent bond between two cys-
teines
13. What is a vaccine? C. hydrogen bonding between R groups
A. a girl’s name. of amino acids
B. something that helps the body fight D. ionic bonding between an acidic R
viruses. group and a basic R group
C. a purple fruit from France.
18. What percentage of the human genome
D. something completely different.
codes for proteins
14. Which is the mRNA molecule that would A. 98%
be transcribed from this DNA tem-
plate:TGGCAAGTACGT B. 10%
A. ACCGTTCATGCA C. 25%
B. UGGCAAGUACGU D. 2%

19. GMOs are transgenic organisms A. The progeny of these cattle will be
A. always short in stature and have brown hides and
short horns.

B. never
B. It is impossible to determine the traits
C. sometimes of such progeny-they will likely demon-
D. the same as strate different hide colors, horn lengths,
and heights.
20. Which of the following does not accurately
C. The progeny of these cattle will have
describe events in the movement of mRNA
short horns, but a variety of hide colors
from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
and heights.
A. Primary transcripts must be pro-
cessed to mRNA before leaving the nu- D. The progeny of these cattle will have
cleus. brown, black, white, and spotted hides.
B. Processed mRNA transcripts diffuse 24. A vector is

passively down their concentration gradi- A. a type of insect
ent across the nuclear membrane.
B. DNA that carries and inserts a new
C. Nuclear pores are large protein com- gene
plexes that traverse the nuclear mem-
brane and control the inflow and outflow C. the new gene that is to be inserted
of macromolecules. D. protein that carries the new gene
D. Processed mRNA transcripts are rec-
25. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of these is
ognized and transported to the cytoplasm
a true statement about the cloned goat?
through nuclear pores.
A. It has new genes and traits
21. Conjugation can’t take place between
B. It lacks the genes for reproduction
A. F-and F+
C. It has the genes that are identical to
B. F’ and F- the original goat
C. HFR and F- D. It looks the same but has different
D. HFR and F+ genes.
22. What is the function of enzyme involved 26. The Human Genome Project has made di-
in base excision repair? agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be
A. Addition of correct base
used as a possible treatment.
B. Addition of correct nucleotide
A. cell cultures
C. Removal of incorrect base
B. gene therapy
D. Removal of phosphodiester bond
C. DNA fingerprinting
23. Imagine that a rancher has a herd of cat- D. PCR
tle with brown hides and short horns. All
of his cattle are also relatively short in 27. If free, radioactively labeled adenine nu-
stature. If all of these traits were true cleotides are applied to a cell prior to S in
breeding, what could you say about the the cell cycle, what might be a logical pre-
progeny of these cattle? diction of the outcome?

A. The DNA replication would proceed B. A bundle of DNA

and the labeled nucleotides would be de- C. Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of
tected in both the template DNA and the genes
complementary strand.
D. All of the genetic material in your cells
B. The DNA replication would proceed
and a uracil would be substituted into the 32. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated
new developing strand. chromosomeAED-CBF
C. The DNA replication would proceed A. duplication
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and the labeled adenine would be de- B. translocation
tected in both the sister chromatids.
C. inversion
D. The DNA replication would be delayed
until G2. D. none of above
28. Many normal genes that have important 33. a gene system whose operator gene
functions in cells sometimes acquire mu- and three structural genes control lactose
tations that cause the products of these metabolism in E.coli
genes to have negative effects, including A. operon
the development of cancer. These genes
B. lac operon
are called:
C. euchromatin
A. oncogenes
D. homeobox
B. proto-oncogenes
C. tumor suppressor genes 34. The exogenous DNA used in bacterial
transformation can be,
D. viral genes
A. mRNA molecule
29. Which of the following ensure stable bind-
B. rDNA
ing of RNA polymerase at the promoter
site? C. natural DNA
A. DNA photolyase D. 2 and 3
B. Sigma factor 35. What is the difference between somatic
C. DNA glycosylase and germ line mutations?
D. RecA A. somatic only in organism, germ line is
passed to offspring
30. Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly B. somatic is passed to offspring, germ
because they line only in organism
A. express different genes C. there is no difference between so-
B. contain different genes matic and germ line mutations
C. use different genetic codes D. none of above
D. have unique ribosomes 36. Chromosomal aberrations:
31. Which of the following best describes a A. can be caused by errors during cell di-
gene? vision
A. A section of DNA B. are typically only seen in the elderly

C. are usually fixed by DNA polymerase 41. Which of the following are non-sense
codons?
D. can be caused by methylation

A. AUG
37. How many parts does a virus have?
B. GUG
A. One
C. UGA
B. None D. UAC
C. too many to count
42. Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?
D. 2
A. Nucleus
38. Scientist Griffith mixed dead, virulent, B. Ribosome
pneumonia-causing bacteria with living,
harm-less bacteria. The harmless bacteria C. Cytoplasm
than infected mice with pneumonia. This D. Mitochondria
experiment showed the process of
43. A histone code is the:
A. replication
A. pattern of chemical modification of the
B. transcription DNA wrapped around an individual his-
C. transformation tone
D. virulination B. pattern of chemical modification of the
histone tails
39. Carries the genetic code to the ribosome C. nucleotide sequence of an individual
A. mRNA histone protein’s gene
B. tRNA D. number of amino acids in an individual
histone that are methylated
C. rRNA
D. DNA 44. How does the plant cell protect itself from
harmful reactive oxygen species formed
40. Which of the following statements is true by the interaction of high-energy electrons
concerning the work of Esther and Joshua with oxygen molecules?
Lederberg? A. by increasing the amount of NADP
A. Their work relied on a technique of bac- B. by decreasing the production of ATP
terial culture known as “replica plating,
“ and demonstrated that mutations occur C. by producing antioxidants
randomly in organisms D. by increasing the amount of e-donated
to ferredoxin
B. Their work demonstrated that muta-
tions are determined by an organism’s 45. Using a virus to enter a cell and replace de-
“needs”. fective genes with healthy genes is called
C. Their work demonstrated that muta- A. tissue culturing
tions in organisms arise in response to
their environmental conditions B. bioremediation
D. Their work relied on a technique of bac- C. cloning

terial culture known as “replica plating” D. gene therapy

46. Which of the following is NOT a limitation 51. In a nucleic-acid chain, which of the fol-
to bacteria growth? lowing is not considered part of the nu-
cleotide?
A. water
A. phosphate
B. temperature
B. adenine
C. pH
C. ribose
D. space
D. sulfur
NARAYAN CHANGDER
47. In eukaryotes, DNA 52. In genetic crosses, the symbols AA and Aa
A. is located in the nucleus refer respectively to:
B. floats freely in the cytoplasm A. heterozygous and homozygous pheno-
types.
C. is located in the ribosomes
B. heterozygous and homozygous geno-
D. is circular types.
48. A recessive trait is expressed when the C. homozygous and heterozygous pheno-
genotype is types.
A. homozygous recessive only D. homozygous and heterozygous geno-
types
B. homozygous dominant only
53. GMO stands for
C. heterozygous only
A. Genetically Made Organism
D. homozygous recessive or heterozy-
gous B. Genetically Modified Organism
C. Growing More Organisms
49. In order for a G protein to be active:
D. Growing Many Organisms
A. the alpha subunit must bind GTP
54. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al-
B. the beta and gamma subunits must lows researchers to
separate from the alpha subunit
A. identify similarities and differences in
C. both the beta and gamma subunits the genomes of different kinds of organ-
must bind GTP isms
D. the alpha subunit must bind GTP, and B. determine whether a particular allele
the beta and gamma subunits must sepa- of a gene is dominant or recessive
rate from thealpha subunit C. compare the phenotypes of different
organisms
50. DNA technology is being used to develop
crop plants that are D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes
A. less toxic to the pests that normally 55. Using biotechnology to change the genetic
feed on them makeup of an organism is called
B. more susceptible to herbicides A. Tissue Culturing
C. unable to fix nitrogen in the atmo- B. Biotechnology
sphere C. Cloning
D. resistant to some diseases D. Genetic Engineering

56. In fruit flies, an X chromosome carrying C. It means that you are very healthy.
the allele for white eyes is transferred D. excessive bleeding.
from a male to a female of the next genera-

tion and in the next generation is transmit- 61. A population of mosquitoes is exposed to
ted back to the male again. This is called: the pesticide DDT for several generations.
A. incomplete penetrance. At the end of that time, most individuals in
the population are resistance to DDT. The
B. epistasis. MOST likely reason is that:
C. Morgan inheritance. A. Somatic mutations in the original popu-
D. crisscross inheritance. lation were passed on the the subsequent
generations
57. How many alleles can be present in an in-
B. DDT caused the mutations that led to
dividual?
resistance
A. 4
C. Some individuals in the original popu-
B. 6 lation had the mutations that led to resis-
C. 1 tance
D. 2 D. Random mutations in each generation
made mosquitoes resistant to DDT
58. Which of following developments is an ad-
vance in medicine that the application of 62. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments mi-
genetic science has allowed? grate toward one end of a gel because
they are
A. development of genetic counseling as
a career A. pulled toward that end by gravity
B. development of a method of DNA fin- B. attracted to complementary DNA frag-
gerprinting ments at that end of the gel
C. production of proteins, such as insulin, C. attracted to the positively charged end
for use as drugs of the gel
D. cloning of animals and engineeringof D. repelled by hydrophobic molecules at
agricultural crops the other end of the gel
59. The only kingdom of life that has prokary- 63. The process of producing millions of copies
otic cells. of a specific DNA.
A. PCR
A. Plants
B. PPA
B. Animals
C. RNA
C. Bacteria
D. PTB
D. none of above
64. Watson and Crick showed the 2 strands in
60. What is a characteristic of sickle cell ane-
DNA
mia?
A. run in perpendicular directions
A. Makes your red blood cells twice the
size of normal RBCs. B. run in the same direction
B. Makes your red bloods cells look like a C. run in opposite direction
crescent moon. D. run in random directions

65. Which one of the following statements A. one haploid gamete

about the sex chromosomes is false? B. three diploid gametes
A. Crossing over between the X and C. four diploid gametes
Y chromosomes allows the sex chro-
mosomes to align correctly during D. four haploid gametes
metaphase I and separate from each 70. Photosynthesis is the pathway used to
other during anaphase I. synthesize carbohydrates from:
B. In contrast to the approximately 1000
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sunlight
genes on the X chromosome, the Ychro-
mosome contains only about 50 genes. B. oxygen
C. The relative size and gene content of C. sunlight, carbon dioxide, and oxygen
the X and Y chromosomes is very similar D. sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water
across all animal species.
71. Which one of the following is NOT used
D. Crossing over between the X and Y during translation?
chromosomes occurs in very small re-
gions of homology at the tips of the chro- A. initiation factors
mosomes. B. release factors
66. The molecule labeled “X” represents a C. sigma factors
A. ligase traveling toward the 3’ end. D. elongation factors
B. topoisomerase adding additional base 72. What type of Streptococcus pneumoniae

pairs. was placed into the first flask at the begin-
C. ribosome adding amino acids to a ning of the Avery, McCarty and MacLeod
polypeptide chain. experiment?
A. Killed smooth
D. helicase extending the replication
fork. B. Killed rough
C. Living smooth
67. How many nucleotides equal 1 amino
acid? D. Living rough
A. 1 73. Which of the following is required to make
B. 2 complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
C. 3 A. restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
D. 4 B. gene cloning
C. DNA ligase
68. Which of the following is heterozygous
D. reverse transcriptase
A. FF
B. tt 74. Fusion of two gametes that results in off-
spring that are a genetic mixture of both
C. Gg parents. Take 2 haploid cells and makes a
D. RR diploid cell.
69. Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals A. Sexual reproduction

results in the formation of B. Fertilization

C. Autosome 80. DNA is a nucleic acid made up of joined

D. Somatic cell into long strands or chains by covalent
bonds.

75. are organisms that derive energy from A. nucleosomes
sunlight. B. nucleotides
A. phototrophs C. proteins
B. autotrophs D. lipids
C. heterotrophs
81. “transgenic” refers to an animal that:
D. chemotrophs A. Has DNA from another organism
spliced into its genome
76. Watson and Crick were the first to suggest
that DNA is B. Has undergone DNA modification
A. a genetic material C. Has unique genes for its species
B. a protein molecule D. none of above
C. double helix 82. Which of the following process does not

occur in prokaryotes
D. a short molecule
A. Replication
77. What’s an example of a bacterial infec- B. Transcription
tion?
C. Splicing
A. Salmonella
D. Translation
B. Measles
83. Clusters of Hox genes are found in
C. Black Death
A. nearly all animals.
D. AIDS
B. plants only.
78. When an electrical current is used to sepa- C. flies and frogs only.
rate a mixture of DNA D. flies only.
A. electricity
84. Which of the following terms is least like
B. restriction maps the others?
C. gel electrophoresis A. Purine
D. electron map B. Double Ring
C. Adenine
79. Which of the following is MOST likely to
result in a nonfunctional polypeptide? D. Pyrimidine
A. a silent mutation 85. Which of the following molecules has the

GREATEST potential energy?
B. a missense mutation
A. glucose
C. a nonsense mutation
B. water
D. Silent and missense mutations are the
most likely to result in a nonfunction- C. carbon dioxide
alpolypeptide. D. none of above

86. To be able to coexist in the same cell, dif- 90. Which of the following might scientists use
ferent plasmids must be gel electrophoresis for?
A. Conjugative A. Solve crimes
B. Of high copy number B. Edit diseased genes
C. Replace diseased cells
C. Stable at high temperatures
D. Identify fathers
D. Compatible
E. Determine how related 2 species are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA
91. is a technique that scientists use to de-
replication take place?
termine whether genes are on or off using
A. G1 presence of mRNA
B. S A. DNA electrophorhesis
C. G2 B. DNA microarray analysis
D. M C. Genetic Engineering
D. Cloning
88. An organism in the earliest stage of devel-
opment. 92. Which technology below would probably
be the most important to a person who
A. DNA had diabetes and had to take insulin every
B. cell day?
C. embryo A. testing parents for genetic disorders

before they have children
D. bacteria
B. engineering fruits and vegetables that
resist insects and other pests
89. Studies have shown that children are espe-
cially vulnerable to the effects of ultravio- C. developing ways to identify criminals
let (UV) radiation. Tanning beds expose through DNA fingerprinting
the skin to nearly ten times as much UV D. using recombinant DNA to produce hu-
radiation as natural sunlight. With that man hormones from bacteria
knowledge, a law was passed in New York
State to prevent individuals under the age 93. Where would you find a cell adhesion
of 18 from using tanning beds. Which molecule?
statement best explains why UV radiation A. in a cilium
is so harmful? B. in a cell junction
A. Certain environmental factors can in- C. near the centrosome
crease the occurrence of harmful gene
D. in the microvilli
mutations.
B. Diseases are all caused by exposure to 94. The failure of a pair of chromosome to sep-
environmental factors. arate during anaphase is referred to as:
A. inversion
C. Homeostasis in an organism is in-
creased by the presence of radiation B. translocation
D. Radiation decreases the likelihood C. nondisjunction
that infectious agents cause mutations. D. disjunction

95. What does VNTR stand for? B. the end of the lagging strand
A. vacant nucleotides tandem reciprocals C. its own RNA template

B. variable number tandem repeats D. the last RNA primer
C. varied nucleotide tandem repeats E. the homologous chromosome
D. none of above 100. The enzyme that catalyzes the transposi-
96. Which of the following cuts DNA into small tion of an IS element is called
pieces? A. Integrase
A. dissolving blue dye B. Transposase
B. restriction enzymes C. Transcriptase
C. surgically cutting DNA under micro- D. Polymerase
scope
101. What type of one of the following allows
D. sticky ends
us to alter the DNA of a bacterial cell to
97. Which of the following statements is true produce human insulin?
regarding nondisjunction? A. DNA Fingerprinting
A. Nondisjunction occurring during meio- B. cloning human insulin producing cells
sis II results in two gametes that com-
C. gel electrophoiesis
pletely lack certain chromosomes
D. transgenic organism
B. Nondisjunction only contributes to the
development of trisomy 21 and not tri- 102. a virus is a cell.
somy 13 or 18
A. bigger than
C. Nondisjunction only occurs between
B. smaller than
autosomes; the sex chromosomes are
rarely affected by nondisjunction C. the same size as
D. none of the answers are correct D. another word for
98. Which of the following statements con- 103. The mature mRNA leaves the nucleus to
cerning cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) is enter a ribosome, this mature mRNA ONLY
NOT true? contain
A. CDKs are enzymes that attach phos- A. Introns
phate groups to other proteins B. Exons
B. CDKs are active, or “turned on, “ when C. Protein
complexed with cyclins
D. Amino acids
C. CDKs are present throughout the cell
cycle 104. The work of Erwin Chargaff allowed Wat-
D. CDKs are inactive, or “turned off, “ in son and Crick to determine the rules of
the presence of cyclins A. protein synthesis
99. Telomerase can extend the ends of chromo- B. transcription

somes by making a complementary copy of C. hydrogen bonding
A. the end of the leading strand D. nitrogen base pairing

105. Evidence for the extinction of the di- 109. Point mutations that cause amino acid re-
nosaurs approximately 65million years placements are called:
ago comes from meteorites containing: A. nonsense mutation
A. iridium. B. stop mutation
B. palladium C. synonymous (silent) mutation
C. carbon D. non synonymous (missense) mutation
D. silicon 110. Which of the following terms are used to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
describe an infectious disease?
106. Because of base pairing in DNA, the per-
centage of A. Contagious (contagion)
B. Communicable
A. adenine molecules in DNA is about
equal to the percentage of guanine C. Pathogenic, spreadable
molecules D. All of these.
B. thymine molecules in DNA is about 111. Which of the following is NOT a gamete
equal to the percentage of adenine (sex cell)?
molecules
A. egg
C. adenine molecules in DNA is much
B. sperm
greater than the percentage of thymine
molecules C. skin cell
D. cytosine molecules in DNA is much D. all of the above are gametes

greater than the percentage of guanine 112. A point mutation that causes an amino
molecules acid replacement is called a:
107. What kind of phages bring about special- A. synonymous (silent) mutation
ized transduction? B. nonsynonymous (missense) mutation
A. T even phages C. nonsense mutation
B. Lytic phages D. stop mutation
C. Lysogenic phages 113. This process uses an electrical current to
separate DNA into fragments of different
D. RNA phages
lengths.
108. Which of the following provides some ev- A. electricity
idence that RNA probably evolved before B. restriction maps
DNA?
C. gel electrophoresis
A. RNA polymerase uses DNA as a tem-
D. electron map
plate.
B. RNA polymerase makes a single- 114. The process through which cells become
stranded molecule. specialized in structure and function is
A. Transcription
C. RNA polymerase does not require lo-
calized unwinding of the DNA. B. Gene Expression
D. DNA polymerase uses primer, usually C. Differentiation
made of RNA. D. RNA Interference

115. Which of the following function of DNA is B. insulin

necessary for the purpose of evolution? C. bacteria

A. Replication D. restriction enzymes
B. Transcription
121. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAGThe
C. Translation mutated DNA segment is TTATCGCAAG .
D. Mutation This is an example of mutation.
116. Which of the following best describes A. Deletion

“DNA Fingerprinting? ” B. Substitution
A. Means the same thing as “gel elec- C. Insertion
trophoresis” D. Inversion
B. Used to edit someone’s genes
122. Gene therapy is successful if the
C. Used to move genes from one organ-
A. viruses carrying the replacement gene
ism into another
infect the person’s cells.
D. Used to copy an organism’s genome
B. replacement gene is replicated in the
117. What is the most common method by person’s cells.
which AIDS is spread? C. replacement gene is expressed in the
A. animal bites person’s cells.
B. contaminated food D. replacement gene is successfully
spliced to viral DNA.
C. shared body fluids
D. none of above 123. At the end of mitosis you have cells
A. identical
118. the creation of genetically identical organ-
isms B. different
A. Bioremediation C. identical twins
B. Cloning D. variety
C. Gene Therapy 124. Vaccines trigger the production of
D. Tissue Culturing A. pathogens
119. Cells which have decided what type they B. viruses
are going to be are called C. antibodies
A. Adult Stem cells D. none of above
B. differentiated 125. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA
C. undifferentiated has 30% THYMINE, how much GUANINE
D. pluripotent would he have calculated to be there?
A. 30%
120. To cut DNA molecules into pieces at spe-
cific sequences of nucleotides, genetic en- B. 20%
gineers use C. 80%
A. cloning D. 60%

126. All of the following are examples of the C. individual received the same allele
benefits (the pros) to using genetically from each parent
modified (GM) crops EXCEPT D. allele is beneficial
A. GM crops can be developed with de-
sired characteristics. 131. Epidemic measles outbreaks were once
common, but their occurrence has greatly
B. GM crops can be resistance to disease diminished. Which best explains this?
production.
A. Children receive immunity to the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. GM crops can be used to combat star- measles virus from their mothers.
vation in developing countries.
B. The measles virus has largely been re-
D. GM crops can be introduced into na- moved from the environment.
ture and outcompete natural plants.
C. The measles vaccine has greatly re-
127. Which of the following statements is NOT duced the number of viral infections.
one of the laws of thermodynamics? D. Increased hand washing has greatly
A. All cells arise from pre-existing cells reduced the spread of the measles virus.
B. The amount of energy in the universe 132. Processes that regulate cell division in
is constant mammals include:
C. The energy available to do work de- A. production of cyclin proteins that acti-
creases as energy is transformed from vate CDK enzymes and rapid degradation
one form to another of cyclins after CDK activation
D. None of the other answer options is B. activated cyclin-C DK complexes trig-
correct gering cell cycle events
C. different cyclins and CDKs acting at dif-
128. In eukaryotes, DNA replication proceeds
ferent stages of the cell cycle to promote
in along the DNA molecule.
cell division
A. one direction
D. All of these choices are correct
B. two directions
133. Cancer can be caused by mutations. Ge-
C. many directions
netic analysis of Anna Karenena’s tumor
D. every direction shows that the cell proliferation was trig-
gered by a somatic mutation in the MYC
129. Animals that sexually reproduce are gene, causing this gene to be inappropri-
and produce gametes. ately activated. Anna is concerned about
A. diploid; diploid passing this cancer on to the children she
plans to have in the future. Should this be
B. diploid; haploid
a concern?
C. haploid; diploid
A. Yes, she should worry because tumor
D. haploid; haploid growth was triggered by a genetic change
andmutations are passed on through cell
130. If an individual is homozygous for a cer- divisions.
tain allele, it means that the:
B. No, this is not something to worry
A. allele is rare in the population. about because mutations in cancer cells
B. allele is neutral. can not bepassed on in cell division.

C. No, she should not worry about her 139. If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the
children because this did not occur in a haploid number is
germ-line cell.

A. 18
D. none of above B. 9
134. Find the FALSE statement about mRNA C. 27
processing.
D. 36
A. a poly A tail is added to the 3’ end of
the mRNA 140. In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA
usually found in?
B. a GTP cap is added to the 5’ end
A. cell membrane
C. introns are removed from the mRNA
B. vacuole
D. processing occurs outside of the nu-
cleus C. chloroplast
135. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, D. nucleus

how many copies of the chromosome are 141. How many total chromosomes are shown
left after replication? in a normal human karyotype?
A. 1 A. 2
B. 2 B. 46
C. 3 C. 44
D. 4
D. 23
136. A heterozygous female harboring one mu-
142. The process of copying a gene’s DNA se-
tant allele for hemophilia is called a(n)
quence into a sequence of RNA is called:
for that trait.
A. Transcription
A. harborer
B. Translation
B. carrier
C. homozygote C. Splicing
D. unaffected female D. Protein Synthesis
137. What shape are plasmids? 143. DNA is tightly wrapped around
A. linear A. genes
B. circular B. carbohydrates
C. double helix C. histones
D. square D. nucleosomes
138. Replication of DNA in a eukaryote occurs 144. This ones act as a vehicle to transport
during which phase of the cell cycle? DNA in recombinant DNA
A. M phase A. DNA ligases
B. G1 phase B. Transfer vector
C. G2 phase C. Resctriction enzymes
D. S phase D. none of above

145. Which mutation is the worst? 150. What is the purpose of gel electrophore-
A. nonsense sis?
B. missense A. helps cut DNA
C. silent B. count the genes in DNA
D. none of above
C. separates DNA based on size
146. Which of the following could be described
D. allows for an exact replicated organ-
as pathogens and/or parasites?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ism
A. Tapeworms (Animals)
B. Strangler fig plant that grows up other 151. The following code codes for which of the
trees and steals sunlight amino acid respectively? AUG, GUG.
C. Viruses and harmful bacteria A. Phenylalanine, tyrosine
D. All of these
B. Methionine, valine
147. Why do RNA viruses and retroviruses
C. Methionine, alanine
have such a high rate of mutation?
A. because RNA polymerase is an unsta- D. Lysine, valine
ble enzyme
152. A chemical modification of DNA that does
B. because RNA is more fragile than DNA
not affect the nucleotide sequence of a
and therefore more likely to be damaged
gene but makes that gene less likely to be
C. because viral polymerases lack a expressed.
proofreading mechanism
A. methylation
D. none of the choices are true
B. acetylation
148. One method for changing the DNA se-
quence of a gene in its original location in C. alternative splicing
the cell uses a type of RNA known as:
D. snRPs
A. TOASTR
B. CRISPR 153. Why does a phospholipid on the cytoplas-
C. FRYR mic side of the cell membrane rarely flip to
the extracellular side if both environments
D. CHANGR
are polar?
149. Imagine that a bowling ball is placed at
A. The polar head group cannot pass
various locations along a staircase. At
through the nonpolar interior.
which location does the ball possess the
GREATEST amount of potential energy? B. The two sides have different functions
A. at the top of the stairs and thus the phospholipid would not func-
tion properly.
B. at the bottom of the stairs
C. in the middle of the staircase C. The cytoplasmic phospholipid is too big
to pass through the membrane.
D. The ball will have the same amount
of potential energy no matter where it is D. The cholesterol does not allow lipids to
placed move.

154. Loss of the pelvic spines in freshwater C. REP.

sticklebacks is the result of missing the D. RAPD.
gene during evolution.

A. Hox 159. Which of the following statements about
mutations is true? A mutation:
B. GFP
C. Pitx1 Enhancer A. may leave the amino acid sequence of
a protein unchanged
D. Sox9 Switch
B. will result in a different phenotype
155. Which of the following represents the ex-
C. will be corrected
pected genotypes of an F2 generation con-
sisting of 8 individuals from an initial cross D. will be passed onto offspring
of a true-breeding black (BB) rabbit and a
true-breeding white (bb ) rabbit? 160. This is a procedure that allows scientists
to make more copies of DNA in a short
A. 8 progeny:8BB, 0bb, 0 Bb amount of time.
B. 8 progeny:4BB, 4bb, 0 Bb
A. DNA replication
C. 8 progeny:2BB, 2bb, 4 Bb
B. DNA synthesis
D. 8 progeny:0BB, 0bb, 8 Bb
C. Gel electrophoresis
156. You are examining a human pedigree for D. PCR
a trait. You notice that an offspring can be
affected even if neither parent is affected. 161. A point mutation that replaces a purine
This immediately tells you that the trait is: with another purine, or a pyrimidine with
A. dominant another pyrimidine
B. recessive A. Nonsense mutation
C. epistatic B. Silent mutation
D. produced by multiple alleles C. Transition mutation
157. Why was it important for Mendel to re- D. Transversion
move the anthers from pea plants in his
162. The transfer of genes into the non-
experiments when crossing two different
germline cells of the patient is called
true-breeding pea plants?
A. To prevent self-fertilization A. Somatification
B. To make sure self-fertilization would B. Somatic cell gene therapy

occur C. basal cell gene therapy
C. To protect the pea plants from environ- D. somatic cell therapy
mental pollen
D. To stimulate the pea plants to ovulate 163. What is a restriction enzyme?
A. Enzyme that cuts DNA
158. Small regulatory RNAs are incorporated
into a protein complex known as B. Enzyme that add to the DNA strand
A. RIL. C. Enzyme that builds proteins
B. RISC. D. Enzyme that breaks down lipids

164. Which one of the following best describes 168. Which sequence correctly represents the
genotype-by-environment interaction? arrangement of structures containing ge-
netic material, from the smallest to the
A. Genetic and environmental factors
largest size?
combine to influence phenotype
A. chromosome, genes, nucleus, DNA
B. The genotype of an organism deter- molecules, bases, nucleotides, cell mem-
mines how that organism will behave in brane
itsenvironment
B. bases, nucleotides, DNA molecules,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The environment of an organism deter- chromosome, genes, cell membrane, nu-
mines the genetic make-up of that organ- cleus
ism
C. bases, nucleotides, DNA molecules,
D. Under certain circumstances, two or- genes, chromosome, nucleus, cell mem-
ganisms with identical genotypes have dif- brane
ferent phenotypes.
D. nucleotides, bases, chromosomes,
genes, DNA molecules, nucleus, cell mem-
165. Normally, in corn, genes for waxy
brane
and virescent kernel appearance are in
the same chromosome. In a certain 169. The coronavirus COVD-19 is a
stock, however, it was found that these
two genes are in different chromosomes. A. Prion
Which chromosomal aberration would ex- B. Viroid
plain this? C. Naked virus
A. translocation D. Enveloped Virus
B. inversion
170. a region of DNA that is uncoiled and un-
C. duplication dergoing active transcription into RNA
D. deletion A. genome
B. euchromatin
166. What is gene therapy?
C. lac operon
A. when the virus acts as a messenger to
D. pre-mRNA
carry DNA to a diseased cell.
B. When a gene talks about its youth. 171. Microfilaments increase in length:
C. Who’s Gene? A. more quickly at one end than the other.

B. by assembling outward from the cen-
D. none of the above.
trosome.
167. The chromosomes that pair up during C. in cycles, following rapid depolymer-
meiosis, are called chromosomes. ization
A. homozygous D. if free tubulin dimers are available
B. asexual 172. How would you expect HOX genes to

be expressed in millipedes, where all seg-
C. homologous
ments bear similar legs, when compared
D. genes to insects?

A. the HOX genes for leg segments would B. are constant among different gene
be expressed in all leg-bearing segments families and thus are used to estimate the
time of divergence

B. HOX gene expression would be the
same as in insects, but the interpretation C. are highly variable among different
of segmental identity would have evolved gene families
C. the HOX code is unlikely to be at all D. are constant in gene families with a di-
similar in millipedes as it is in insects, and versity of members
so the expression of HOX genes would be
impossible to predict 176. The region at Y represents
D. other genes would have to have A. a replication fork.

evolved to specify legs in millipedes, since B. translation at a ribosome.
millipedes would form wings on thoracic
C. synthesis of the leading strand.
segments if they express HOX genes
D. synthesis of a lagging strand.
173. What would have happened if Avery had
added an enzyme that digested all the nu- 177. The process of making changes in the
cleic acid to the mixture of heat-killed bac- DNA code of a living organism is called
teria, added the mixture of harmless bac- A. selective breeding
teria, and injected the mixture into mice?
B. genetic engineering
A. The harmless bacteria would have
been transformed, and the mice would C. inbreeding
have died D. hybridization
B. The harmless bacteria would not have 178. Nondisjunction of X chromosomes results
been transformed, and the mice would in eggs with the following genotype:
have lived
A. XX
C. The harmless bacteria would not have
been transformed, and the mice would B. XYX
have died C. X
D. The harmless bacteria would have D. Y
been transformed, and the mice would
have lived 179. Insulin is a hormone released by the
A. Liver
174. Sickle-cell anemia is an example of what
type of mutation? B. Salivary glands
A. silent C. Gall bladder
B. missense D. Pancreas
C. nonsense 180. RNA differs from DNA in that:

D. frameshift A. It has a different kind of sugar
175. The rates of evolutionary change in DNA: B. It is single stranded
A. can only be determined in conserved C. It has Uracil

genes D. All of the above

181. What are the building blocks of proteins B. genetic engineering

called? C. asexual reproduction
A. DNA D. sexual reproduction
B. RNA
186. Some people are concerned that geneti-
C. Ribosomes
cally engineered crop plants could
D. Amino Acids
A. transmit their new genes to the wild
plant species producing “superweeds”
NARAYAN CHANGDER
182. Penicillin began with:
A. Alexander Fleming B. transmit their new gene to the animals
that eat the plants producing “super ani-
B. Howard Florey mals”
C. Andrew Moyer C. exchange genes with animals that eat
D. none of above the plants producing animal plant hybrid
183. CRISPR-Cas9 derived gene editing tools D. be wiped out by native plant species
have been used to 187. In DNA molecules, complementary base
A. edit the CCR5 receptor on T helper pairs always include one purine nucleotide
cells that is the target of the HIV virus in and one pyrimidine nucleotide. In the
a human embryo DNA of certain bacterial cells, 16% of
B. Edit the defective gene associated the nucleotides are adenine nucleotides.
with beta-thalassemia What are the percentages of the other nu-
cleotides in the bacterial DNA?
C. take out 62 viral genomes in a pig
genome A. 16% thymine, 34% guanine, 34% cyto-
sine
D. genetically modify crop strains
B. 34% uracil, 16% guanine, 16% cyto-
E. all of these sine
184. According to the principle of segregation, C. 34% thymine, 34% guanine, 16% cyto-
a heterozygous plant with alleles Aa will sine
produce: D. 34% thymine, 16% guanine, 34% cyto-
A. gametes with only the A allele sine
B. gametes with only the a allele 188. In which of the following populations
C. 50% of gametes with the A allele and would you expect to have the most genetic
50% of gametes with the a allele, on aver- diversity within the group?
age A. a stock of tomato plants that is not true
D. some gametes with the A allele and breeding
some with the a allele, but in no pre- B. the F1 generation of tomato plants
dictable ratio. from the cross of two different true-
185. The variations that exist in a population breeding stocks
of wild giraffes are usually a result of C. a true-breeding stock of tomato plants
events that occur during
A. mitotic (body cell) division D. none of above

189. How does the lac repressor turn off the 194. Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO’s)
lac gene? are:

A. it moves away from the operator A. Organisms whose genes / DNA have
been edited
B. It binds to the operator
B. Organisms who have received new
C. It removes the lac gene from the DNA
stem cells to cure a disease
D. It turns on the tryp gene
C. Organisms whose DNA has been
190. Which of the following mutations would copied
most likely have the most severe conse- D. Organisms whose entire genome has
quence? been sequenced
A. missense 195. A region of prokaryotic DNA consist-
B. frameshift ing of an operator, promoter, and coding
C. silent sequence for several functionally related
genes is called an:
D. addition of a codon
A. closed reading frame.
191. In a cell, protein synthesis is the primary B. operon.
function of
C. organized genomic region.
A. mitochondria
D. operation.
B. ribosomes
196. Means a cell has two copies of each chro-
C. nucleus
mosome
D. chloroplasts A. gamete
192. Which best compares a virus to a bac- B. Haploid
terium? C. Diploid
A. A virus is a large, living particle, and a D. polar body
bacterium is a large, living cell.
B. A virus is a tiny, nonliving particle, and 197. Which of the following is a type of
a bacterium is a large, living cell. cell communication where the signaling
molecule is released by the same cell that
C. A virus is a large, nonliving particle, responds to the signal?
and a bacterium is the same size but liv-
A. contact-dependent
ing.
B. paracrine
D. none of above
C. autocrine
193. Translation is the process by which:
D. endocrine
A. proteins are synthesized from RNA
molecules 198. the study of heredity
B. RNA is synthesized from protein. A. Botany
C. proteins are synthesized from DNA B. Astronomy

molecules C. Genetics
D. RNA is synthesized from DNA. D. Ecology

199. The bonds that hold the two strands of 203. Mendel’s experiments with garden peas
DNA together come from differed from those of other plant hybridiz-
A. the attraction of phosphate groups ers of the time in that:
B. strong bonds between bases and sug- A. Mendel studied true-breeding strains,
ars focused on a small number of easily con-
trasted traits, and quantified results
C. carbon to carbon bonds in the sugar
B. Mendel focused on a small number of
D. weak hydrogen bonds between the
easily contrasted traits, and quantified re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bases
sults
200. The CORRECT sequence of steps in the M C. Mendel quantified his results and
phase of the cell cycle is: looked for statistical patterns instead of
A. prophase, metaphase, prometaphase, simply noting the presence or absence of
anaphase, telophase a trait among a group of offspring
B. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, D. Mendel studied true-breeding strains
anaphase, telophase indeed of poorly defined material
C. prophase, metaphase, prometaphase,
204. Sites in the genome that are more suscep-
anaphase, nuclear division, telophase
tible to mutations than others are called:
D. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
anaphase, cytokinesis, nuclear division A. genes
B. hotspots
201. To treat genetic diseases, viruses are
used to transport replacement genes to C. mutation spots
the problematic human tissue. What part D. risk factors
of the life cycle of a virus would make
them well adapted at the function of enter- 205. When making bacteria that manufacture
ing a cell’s nucleus and replacing genes? human insulin, where does the insulin gene
A. Viruses contain the genetic code (DNA come from?
or RNA) which they are able to insert into A. Viral DNA
a host cell’s genome.
B. Pig DNA
B. In the lytic cycle, a virus will rapidly de-
stroy the host cell. C. Bacterial DNA
C. Viruses do not have their own machin- D. Human DNA
ery to reproduce apart from the host.
206. In order to create corn with larger ears
D. Viruses have the ability to escape the through artificial selection,
human immune system
A. the smallest ears need to be used for
202. Which amino acid has the highest number next years crop,
of codons to release?
B. the medium sized ears need to be used
A. Glycine for next years crop.
B. Valine C. the largest ears need to be used for
C. Lysine next years crop.
D. Arginine D. none of above

207. If a portion of a messenger RNA (mRNA) B. It does not need to be repeated gener-
molecule contains the base sequence A-A- ation upon generation
U, the corresponding transfer RNA (tRNA)

C. It has already been done for many gen-
base sequence is
erations so we are used to it
A. A-A-U
D. There are fewer ethical issues
B. T-T-A
C. G-G-T 213. The number of molecules of an individual
D. U-U-A plasmid that are normally found in a single
bacterial cell is known as?
208. The enzyme photolyase is used in what
method of repair? A. Conjugative
A. Base excision B. Copy number

B. Photo reactivation C. Competency
C. Nucleotide excision D. Replicative ability
214. What is the FINAL electron acceptor in the
209. Which repair mechanism can repair multi- electron transport chain?
ple nucleotides?
A. glucose
A. mismatch repair
B. oxygen
B. base excision repair
C. nucleotide excision repair C. ATP
D. none of above D. ADP
210. Sex-specific silencing of gene expression 215. Adults of the Aedes mosquito genus are
is known as: responsible for transmitting the viral dis-
A. X-inactivation eases Zika and Dengue. Scientists have
B. imprinting produced a modified form of male Aedes
mosquitoes. The offspring of these male
C. methylation mosquitoes die before reaching adulthood.
D. chromatin remodeling This method of reducing the spread of dis-
ease is dependent on
211. Modifications of histone tails can:
A. vaccines stimulating the immune sys-
A. repress and activate transcription of
tem of infected people
some genes
B. affect chromatin structure B. providing medication to reduce the
symptoms of disease
C. affect expression of some genes in re-
sponse to the environment C. the use of natural selection to mod-
ify the viruses so they are no longer
D. all of these choices are correct
pathogenic
212. Give an advantage of genetic modifica- D. the use of genetic engineering to re-
tion compared to selective breeding? duce the population of mosquitoes that
A. Less equipment is needed carry the virus

216. The lacZ and lacY genes are transcribed 221. Which of these bases does not exist in
when: RNA?
A. lactose is present and glucose levels A. C
are low B. T
B. lactose is present, regardless of the C. U
level of glucose in the cell
D. A
C. glucose levels are high and lactose lev-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
els are low 222. Which of the following statements best
D. glucose levels are low regardless of describes the termination of transcription
the level of lactose in the cell in prokaryotes?
A. RNA polymerase transcribes through
217. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can re-
the polyadenylation signal, causing pro-
sult in kidney failure. In most cases, PKD
teins to associate with the transcript and
is caused by a dominant allele. What is
cut it free from the polymerase
the chance that a child will have PKD if
the father is unaffected and the mother is B. RNA polymerase transcribes through
heterozygous for PKD? (SB3b) the terminator sequence, causing the
polymerase to separate from the DNA and
A. 0%
release the transcript.
B. 25%
C. RNA polymerase transcribes through
C. 50% an intron, and the snRNPs cause the poly-
D. 75% merase to let go of the transcript.
D. Once transcription has initiated, RNA
218. Peptide bonds are characteristic of:
polymerase transcribes until it reaches
A. nucleic acids the end of the chromosome.
B. carbohydrates
223. is made during transcription and
C. lipids is made during translation.
D. proteins A. mRNA / a protein
219. A skin cell in G2 of interphase has as B. a protein / mRNA
much DNA as it had in G1 C. Ribosome / Nucleus
A. half D. mRNA / tRNA
B. twice
224. A family can share a genetic risk of devel-
C. exactlty oping cancer if:
D. four times A. A germ-line mutation in one of the
220. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller genes implicated in the cancer occurred
strands? in an ancestor
A. restriction enzymes B. the cancer is caused by somatic cell

mutations
B. scissors
C. a somatic cell mutation in one of the
C. ligase genes implicated in the cancer occurred
D. agarose in an ancestor

D. the cancer is caused by germ-line mu- 228. During the process of PCR, what plays
tations the role in the test tube that helicase plays
in the cell?

225. Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith’s
A. dNTPs
transformation experiment?
B. heat
A. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed,
harmful bacteria C. polymerase
B. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed D. oligonucleotides
harmless bacteria
229. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:Which of the fol-
C. live, harmful bacteria and heat-killed, lowing best describes “stem cells? ”
harmless bacteria A. A cell without a job
D. live, harmless bacteria, and live harm- B. A cell with a specific job in your body
ful, bacteria
C. A cell that can turn into ANY type of cell
226. Many genes have multiple enhancer se- in your body
quences. The multiple enhancer sequences D. A cell that has procured a viral infec-
allow multiple: tion
A. options for RNA editing of the RNA
230. Because one original strand of the double-
transcript
stranded helix is found in each daughter
B. transcription factors to control gene cell, the replication process is called
expression
A. proofreading
C. options for alternative splicing of the
B. semiconservative
RNA transcript
C. redundant
D. proteins to be made from the same
protein-coding gene D. freeing of DNA
227. Suppose you ignite a sheet of paper from 231. Domestic horses have 64 chromosomes.
your notebook using a match and allow the How many chromosomes should be in an
fire to burn until it dies out. If you could egg cell of a female horse? (SB1b)
measure all the energy in the resulting A. 16
combustion products, and all the energy B. 32
in the heat released (including whatever
C. 64
increase in disorder has occurred), would
you predict this amount to be more than, D. 128
less than, or the same as the amount of
232. Why does PCR require a specific type of
potential energy in the sheet of paper you
polymerase?
started with? (You should ignore the ac-
tivation energy provided by the match to A. Taq polymerase can withstand the
light the paper.) range of temperatures in PCR without de-
naturing.
A. more energy than the paper
B. Taq polymerase is the most inexpen-
B. less energy than the paper
sive type of polymerase.
C. the same energy as the paper C. Taq polymerase is the most common
D. none of above type of polymerase.

D. A specific type of polymerase is unnec- 237. In the following mRNA strand:A G A C U

essary. A A G C How many codons are present?
233. Each tRNA molecule has a cloverleaf sec- A. 1

ondary structure consisting of B. 2
A. Three stem loops C. 3
B. Four stem loops D. 4
C. Five stem loops
NARAYAN CHANGDER
238. What charge is DNA?
D. Either (a) or (b) A. positive
234. Which is the energy rich molecule re- B. negative
quired for initiation of translation C. neutral
A. ATP D. none of above
B. CTP
239. Bacteria that grows in chains
C. GTP
A. strep
D. AMP
B. staph
235. Telomerase is an enzyme that adds spe- C. coccus
cific DNA repeats to the 3’ end of the DNA
strand. One consequence of this activity is D. bacillus
increased stability of the molecule. Which 240. Which of the following is homozygous re-
statement below is a true statement about cessive?
telomeres and telomerase?
A. rr
A. Telomerase prevents the shortening of
chromosomes. B. AA
B. Telomerase is active throughout the C. TT

lifetime of an individual. D. Ff
C. Telomeres postpone the ends of chro- 241. A single gene mutation results from
mosomes becoming eroded by replication.
A. a change in a base sequence in DNA
D. Telomeres are specific genes which
are not needed as an individual ages. B. recombination of traits
C. the failure of chromosomes to sepa-
236. In the Meselson and Stahl Experiment rate
starting with heavy DNA, and after TWO
generations in the “light” medium, Es- D. blocked nerve messages
cherichia coli cells will contain 242. Which of the following reactions is re-
A. 25% heavy, 50% heavy/light, and 25% quired for proofreading during DNA repli-
light cation by DNA polymerase III?
B. 50% heavy and 50% light A. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
C. 50% heavy and 50% heavy/light B. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
D. 50% heavy/light and 50% light C. 3’ to 5’ endonuclease activity
E. 25% heavy and 75% light D. 5’ to 3’ endonuclease activity

243. Some farmers currently grow genetically 248. Which of the following would an antibi-
engineered crops. An argument against otic be used to treat?
the use of this technology is that

A. Influenza
A. it increases crop production B. Strep throat
B. it produces insect-resistant plants C. Polio
C. its long-term effects on humans are D. none of above
still being investigated
D. it always results in crops that do not 249. What is the name of the stretch of DNA
taste good where RNA polymerase binds?
A. operator
244. At some point in their lifecycle, all cells
B. promoter
have a , whereas not all cells have a(n)
C. enhancer
A. plasma membrane; nuclear mem- D. regulatory gene
brane
250. Name the growth phase of the cell cycle
B. nucleus; cytoplasm for both Mitosis and Meiosis.
C. nucleus; nuclear membrane A. metaphase
D. nucleus; plasma membrane B. telophase
245. In which cells is the accurate transmission C. interphase
of information most important? D. anaophase
A. Sex cells 251. Is a virus alive?
B. Bone cells A. Yes
C. Nerve cells B. Sure is
D. Skin cells C. Most Def’
246. The coronavirus (SARS COV-2) target D. Naw, son
which host cell
252. poison produced by some bacteria
A. neurons
A. toxin A
B. muscle cells
B. oxygen
C. bat and snake cells
C. methane
D. respiratory tract cells
D. vitamin K
E. all human body cells
253. Insertions and deletions of single nu-
247. Which of the following is NOT a possible cleotides:
part of a virus?
A. cause missense mutations
A. Capsid
B. cause frameshift mutations
B. DNA C. shorten chromosomes
C. Nucleus D. add or delete amino acids to or from
D. RNA the normal polypeptide

254. Sometimes a genotype shows up as a 259. On which molecule can an anticodon be

phenotype and sometimes it does not. found?
When it does not show up it is silenced and A. mRNA
when it does show up it is
B. DNA
A. displayed
C. tRNA
B. shown
D. rRNA
C. expressed
260. Who discovered the DNA Structure?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. suppressed
A. Watson
255. Our genes contain coding and non-coding B. Crick
parts, which part of our DNA does NOT
code for protein? C. Rosalind
A. Ribosomes D. Hershey and Chase
B. Nucleic acid E. Hershey and Chase
C. Introns 261. A test cross involves crossing with a(n)

individual and is used to determine the
D. Exons
of the tested parent.
256. The enzyme that unzips the DNA to pre- A. homozygous dominant; phenotype
pare for replication
B. homozygous recessive; phenotype
A. helicase C. homozygous dominant; genotype
B. replicase D. homozygous recessive; genotype
C. polymerase
262. When a vector with the gene interest is
D. synthase placed directly into the affected tissues it
is called
257. Cytosine makes up 42% of the nu-
cleotides in a sample of DNA from an or- A. In vivo
ganism. Approximately what percentage B. in situ
of the nucleotides in this sample will be
C. ex vivo
thymine?
D. ex situ
A. 8%
B. 16% 263. A strand of DNA in a skin cell contains
the bases:A-T-G-C-C-A-T-C-G-G-T-A After
C. 42% the cell is exposed to ultraviolet light, the
D. 58% strand contains the bases:A-T-G-G-C-C-A-
T-C-G-G-T-A
258. Which of the following is not part of the
A. A new base has been inserted.
reproduction cycle of HIV?
B. A base has been deleted.
A. Reverse transcription of the viral RNA
C. One base has been substituted for an-
B. Reverse transcription of the viral DNA
other.
C. Maturation of the viruses D. There have been no changes in the
D. Biosynthesis of the viral mRNA bases.

264. One regulatory step in the process of 269. Which of the following enzymes is re-
gene expression and synthesis of proteins sponsible for initiating certain types of
is the actual modification of proteins them- base excision repair?

selves, which is called: A. DNA polymerase
A. post-translational modification B. DNA ligase
B. transcriptional modification. C. AP endonuclease
C. post-protein modification D. DNA trail glycosylase
D. alternative modification
270. How many codons equals 1 amino acid?
265. Which describes a way scientists use A. 1
biotechnology in the field of agriculture? B. 2
A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi- C. 3
nals
D. 4
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be
more nutritious 271. What is inside a bacteriophage?
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live A. protein
longer B. nucleic acid
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil C. lipid
spills
D. carbohydrate
266. During photosynthesis, is reduced to 272. The purpose of selective breeding is to
A. Get bigger animals
A. water; carbon dioxide
B. get smaller animals
B. carbon dioxide; triose phosphate
C. create animals with desirable traits
C. oxygen; water D. create animals with bad traits
D. triose phosphate; oxygen
273. Which of the following units are repeat-
267. MicroRNA is a type of: edly joined together to form a strand of
DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.)
A. messenger RNA.
A. amino acids
B. regulatory RNA.
B. nucleotides
C. transfer RNA.
C. fatty acids
D. splicing RNA.
D. polysaccharides
268. Ti plasmids are plasmids. 274. What is the end goal of PCR?
A. Tumor inducing A. Look at banding patterns of DNA
B. Degradation B. Increase amount of DNA
C. High copy number C. Decrease the amount of DNA
D. Mammalian D. Fingerprinting

275. In the lac operon model, the genes within 280. From where does Taq polymerase come?
the operon will be expressed if A. Bacteria that live in hydrothermal
A. lactose is absent in the cell vents/hot springs.
B. glucose is present in the cell B. Cambodia
C. lactose is present in the cell C. The rain forest
D. tryptophan is present D. The CDC
281. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
276. The basal lamina is:
the steps of the ladder are composed of a
A. an area found beneath all connective
purine and a pyrimidine. Why?
tissues that helps them adhere to under-
lying muscle A. They are complementary sugars that
pair together.
B. a specialized form of the extracellular
matrix found beneath all epithelia ltissues B. Two purines would make the molecule
bulge.
C. a specialized form of the cytoskeleton
found only in the skin C. It makes the DNA hydrophobic.
D. an area found wherever two different D. Purines, a sugar, and a phosphate
types of tissues meet molecule, a pyrimidine, are attached to al-
low the phosphate to bond to the 3’ carbon
277. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA and 5’ carbon.
has 20% ADENINE, how much GUANINE
would he have determined to be there? 282. The process by which a cell becomes spe-
cialized for a specific structure or function.
A. 30%
A. cell multiplication
B. 20%
B. cell division
C. 80%
C. mitosis
D. 60%
D. cell differentiation
278. molecular scissors that “cut’ DNA
283. An enzyme that connects the RNA nu-
A. plasmid
cleotides as they base-pair along the DNA
B. restriction enzymes template strand
C. recombinant DNA A. DNA polymerase
D. gene B. RNA polymerase
279. When a group of functionally related C. helicase
genes located next to one another along D. topoisomerase
the bacterial DNA is transcribed as a sin-
gle molecule of mRNA, that mRNA is said 284. Which of the following is true regarding
to be: linked genes?
A. polynomial. A. Linked genes are located on the same
chromosome.
B. polycistronic
B. Linked genes are located in the same
C. polytranslational chromosome and do not follow patterns of
D. polymeric independent assortment.

C. Linked genes demonstrate indepen- 290. Imagine that you are a detective who has
dent assortment. identified a suspect in a homicide. You ac-
quire a small amount of blood from the

D. Linked genes are always located on dif-
ferent chromosomes. crime scene and hand it over to your lab.
The lab carries out PCR for one polymor-
285. During the lytic infection by a virus, the phism, and it returns as a match to your
host cell is- suspect. Is this enough to arrest your sus-
A. destroyed pect?
B. copied A. Yes, a match between DNA finger-
prints is always definitive proof that the
C. passed on to the lysogenic cycle
two sources are the same individual
D. not affected
B. Yes, the chance that your suspect will
286. The Z scheme refers to: have the same polymorphism at a single
A. the changes in the energy level of site as a drop of blood from a random indi-
electron donors during the photosynthetic vidual is about 1 in 50, 000; this is enough
electron transport chain to arrest the suspect
B. the path of electrons between photo- C. No, your lab should assess additional
system II and cytochrome b6 f polymorphisms; a single polymorphism
does not constitute a DNA fingerprint
C. the use of H2 O as an electron source
D. electron transport D. No, the small amount of blood you ac-
quired from the crime scene will not pro-
287. Which molecule from humans is inserted vide enough genetic material for PCR to be
into bacteria to cause them to produce in- carried out efficiently; more than a single
sulin? drop of blood is needed to provide enough
A. DNA raw material for analysis
B. Lipids 291. Which of the following forms a base pair
C. Proteins with thymine?
D. Carbohydrates A. deoxyribose
288. Virus’ that specifically infect bacteria are B. adenine
known as C. guanine
A. prionprions D. cytosine
B. virus’
292. A non-infectious disease that has been
C. bacteriophages
treated using gene therapy. The correct
D. antibiotics gene was inserted into a virus, which was
then used to deliver that correct DNA to
289. Put the steps of translation in the correct
the cells that need it.
order.
A. Elongation 2) Initiation 3) Termination A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Initiation 2) Termination 3) Elongation B. Arthritis
C. Initiation 2) Elongation 3) Termination C. Chickenpox
D. Elongation 2) Termination 3) Initiation D. none of above

293. Before the cell divides, what process 298. If the concept of blending inheritance
needs to happen? were true, would variation increase or de-
A. Transcription crease over time?
B. Translation A. It would increase

C. DNA Replication B. It would decrease
D. Protein Synthesis C. It would stay the same
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
294. The antiparallel nature of this molecule is
indicated by
299. Which phrase best describes Y-linked in-
A. the guanine/cytosine position. heritance?
B. the three bonds between guanine and A. Like father like son.
cytosine.
B. The apple never falls far from the tree.
C. the position of the phosphates.
D. the sugar’s orientation which is shown C. A good man is hard to find.
by the carbon numbering. D. A tree is known by its fruit.
295. Why must transcription occur where DNA 300. Which is true:1) GMO’s are sometimes
can be found? transgenic2) Viruses are sometimes used
A. because DNA can’t leave as vectors
B. because ribosomes are in the nucleus A. both true
C. because DNA polymerase is found B. both false
there
C. 1) true
D. because helicase unzips the DNA
D. 1) false
296. You are working in a lab studying a gene
and notice that there are many other genes 301. Hershey-Chase exp.confirms that-
in the same organism that code for similar A. DNA is always formed from DNA in
proteins. This is most likely the result of: semiconservative manner.
A. reciprocal translocation
B. Sulphur and Protein both enter in bac-
B. transposition terial cell progeny.
C. duplication and divergence C. DNA is genetic material, not protein.
D. inversion D. Radioactive Phosphorus was only
297. What does a ligand-gated channel do? found in surrounding.
A. It binds small, nonpolar signaling 302. Organisms that contain genes from differ-
molecules ent species are called organisms.
B. It activates a G protein A. Blended
C. It allows ions to move across the
B. Hybrid
plasma membrane
C. Transgenic
D. It triggers the activity of a phos-
phatase D. Freaky

303. The enzyme responsible for replacing 309. Which of the following is NOT an argu-
RNA primers with DNA is a type of: ment in favor of GMOs?

A. DNA polymerase A. Reduced biodiversity
B. helicase B. Disease resistant crops
C. topoisomerase II C. Food with extra nutrients
D. DNA ligase D. Controlled production of insulin
304. In negative feedback loops, the product
ultimately progression of the reaction. 310. GMOs can be
A. inhibits A. plants only

B. stimulates B. animals only
C. catalyzes C. plant, animal, and bacteria
D. substratically degenerates D. plant and animal only
305. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- 311. Where is a plasmid found?
GAA in transcription?
A. Inside a virus
A. AUGCUU
B. Inside a bacterium
B. ATGCTT
C. Inside your DNA
C. GCATCC
D. GCAUCC D. Inside every organism
306. What type of bonds hold the two strands 312. Which of the following would NOT be con-
of DNA together? sidered a cell-surface receptor?
A. Hydrogen bonds A. a receptor that binds a nonpolar
B. Covalent bonds steroid hormone and activates transcrip-
tion
C. Dipole-Dipole bonds
B. a receptor that allows ions to enter the
D. Ionic bonds
cell when a ligand binds
307. a substance that combines with and inac- C. a receptor that causes GDP to be ex-
tivates a repressor which allows the tran- changed for GTP in a G protein
scription of a gene
D. a receptor that forms a dimer after
A. inducer binding the ligand
B. enchancer
313. A protein on a cell surface that binds to a
C. operator
signaling molecule is an example of which
D. metastasis of the following elements of cellular com-
308. Rod-shaped bacteria is called munication?
A. bacillus A. a signaling cell

B. coccus B. a signaling molecule
C. spirillum C. a receptor protein
D. none of above D. a responding cell

314. The replacement of glutamic acid by va- 318. What is the purpose for anti-codons?
line at a specific position in the beta chains A. to ensure the correct amino acid is
of hemoglobin leads to sickle cell anemia. dropped off
This change represents which of the fol-
lowing mutational events? B. to match the strand of DNA
A. DNA base-pair substitution C. to decode a sequence of 4 nucleotides

into an amino acid
B. DNA base-pair addition
D. to make me hate biology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. DNA base-pair deletion
319. a type of reproduction that does not in-
D. Frame-shift mutation volve egg and sperm
315. What mutation has occurred here? T-G- A. asexual
A-C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A B. sexual
A. Substitution C. meiosis
B. Deletion D. none of above
C. Insertion 320. Why is DNA fingerprinting used?
D. Frameshift A. To determine who is the child’s father
316. How is elastase inhibited? B. Link suspects to a crime scene

C. determine if a family relationship exist
A. by binding to the target cell
between two people
B. by binding alpha1AT
D. all of the above
C. by binding to RNA
321. The way that crimes are solved today
D. none of above was affected by which of the following
technologies?
317. The difference between a single nu-
cleotide polymorphism (SNP) and a point A. gene therapy
mutation is that: B. DNA fingerprinting
A. a SNP becomes permanently incorpo- C. genetic testing
rated into the genome whereas a point D. Genetic modification
mutation does not.
B. a point mutation is when a base pair is 322. Patterns of histone methylation and
changed to a different base pair, whereas acetylation that affect chromatin structure
a SNP is when the base pair differs among and gene transcription constitute a:
individuals in a population A. histone code
C. a point mutation can be corrected by B. protein code
various repair mechanisms, whereas SNP C. genetic code
cannot
D. DNA code
D. a SNP can be corrected by various re-
pair mechanisms, whereas a point muta- 323. Mendel’s principle of segregation corre-
tion cannot sponds to what part of meiosis?

A. Alignment of homologues in C. conducting experiments that showed

metaphase I which nucleotides are complementary

B. Separation of daughter chromatids in D. finding that DNA was nucleic acid
anaphase II made up of a long chain of individual nu-
cleotides
C. Separation of homologues in
anaphase I 328. What applications can gel electrophoresis
D. Alignment of chromosomes in be used for?
metaphase II A. Parental Testing
324. Researchers have been working on B. Criminal Investigations
cloning animals such as sheep. Which re- C. Sequence Endangered Species DNA
sult is most likely to be a negative result D. All of the above
such as cloning?
A. development of extra organs 329. Assume you average one mistake for ev-
ery 100 words you type, yet DNA makes
B. premature death even fewer mistakes in replication-one ev-
C. a low rate of genetic diseases ery 100, 000 bases. How many times
more likely are you to make a mistake
D. delayed aging
than DNA does in replication?
325. Which term refers to a farmer choosing A. 1000 times
the best corn from this year to plant next B. 100 times
year?
C. 10, 000 times
A. natural selection
D. 1/10 times
B. selective breeding
330. prokaryotic means
C. genetic engineering
A. no nucleus
D. genetic transformation
B. has a nucleus
326. Making indirect changes in the DNA of an
C. no ribosomes
organism by guiding the changes through
breeding is called (choose all that ap- D. has a mitochondria
ply)
331. How many cells are produced during
A. selective breeding telophase I?
B. artificial selection A. 4
C. genetic engineering B. 8
D. genetic transformation C. 2
D. 0
327. Rosalind Franklin contributed to the un-
derstanding of DNA by 332. Which of the following would an antibi-
A. producing images of DNA molecules otic not be used for? It is was, it would
using X-rays be ineffective.
B. figuring out that DNA strands were a A. Lyme disease and bacterial pneumonia
triple helix B. Cold, influenza (flu), and hepatitis

C. Tetanus, MRSA, tuberculosis 338. What enzyme is responsible for adding

D. none of above nucleotides to the growing RNA strand?
A. DNA Polymerase
333. Chromatin contains proteins called
A. phosphate groups B. RNA Primase
B. telomeres C. RNA Polymerase

C. nucleotides D. Topoisomerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. histones
339. Which would be greater in a eukaryote
334. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence than in a prokaryote?
that changes a triplet coding for an amino
acid into a termination codon is A. The percentage of guanine nucleotides
A. Nonsense mutation B. The total number of base pairs in a

chromsome
B. Silent Mutation
C. Transition C. The number of replication forks on a
strand of DNA
D. Transversion
D. The total amount of DNA in a cell
335. We can see how well bacteria work by
measuring how much bacteria they can kill. 340. Antibiotics will only kill
A big zone of inhibition means
A. Viruses
A. The antibiotic is working very well
B. The antibiotic is working very badly B. Bacteria
C. The antibiotic is not working at all C. Fungus

336. What type of medication would be given

341. Each summer, up to 40% of the lobsters
for a viral infection?
in a certain area lose one of their claws
A. Antibiotic due to injury. By late fall, the missing claw
B. Antiviral usually begins to grow back. Which of the
following describes the process by which
C. Antifungal lobsters grow new claws? (SB1b)
D. none of above
A. Lysosomes fuse to recycle matter to
337. What is a cyclin? build a new claw.
A. a protein that activates kinases B. Mitotic cell division adds new cells to
B. a protein whose levels change with the rebuild the lobster’s claw.
cell cycle C. Facilitated diffusion moves body cells
C. a kinase from the remaining claw to the new claw.
D. a protein that activates kinases and a D. Cellular respiration creates nutrients
protein whose levels change with the cell to enlarge existing cells in the lobster’s
cycle claw.

342. Which of the following is a nucleotide 346. All of the following may result in a
found in DNA? change in the phenotype of an individual
cell and/or organism EXCEPT

A. adenine + phosphate group +
thymine A. natural selection
B. cytosine + phosphate group + gua- B. nondisjunction during meiosis
nine
C. radiation damages DNA
C. deoxyribose + phosphate group +
D. error during replication
polymerase
D. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cy- 347. CRISPR is
tosine A. a family of DNA sequences derived
from viruses in the genome of a bacterial
343. Which of the following is the likely expla-
host
nation for a flower showing multiple sec-
tors with different coloration? B. an enzyme that can cut at a specific
matching target sequence
A. the result of the plant being tetraploid
C. a gene editing tool
B. the result of a deletion
D. a danger to the human race
C. the result of a germline mutation
D. the result of transposable elements 348. In humans and other mammals, dosage
compensation is achieved by:
344. A woman’s doctor tells her to gargle with
salt water. She stirs a tablespoon of salt A. females randomly inactivating one X
into a cup of warm water and watches it chromosome in each cell
dissolve. Why does the salt dissolve in B. females decreasing transcription of
water? both X chromosomes by half
A. The positive hydrogen atoms in water C. females inactivating the paternal X
molecules are attracted to chlorine ions, chromosome in each cell
and thenegative oxygen atoms in water
D. females eliminating one X chromo-
molecules are attracted to sodium ions.
some in each cell
B. The positive hydrogen atoms in water
molecules are attracted to chlorine ions. 349. What is the major type of RNA produced
in the cell required for translation?
C. The negative oxygen atoms in water
molecules are attracted to sodium ions. A. mRNA
D. The positive hydrogen atoms in water B. tRNA
molecules are attracted to sodium ions. C. rRNA
345. In transduction, bacteria can acquire for- D. SiRNA
eign DNA from
350. In eukaryotic organisms with large
A. bacteriophage virus genomes, the usual reason that many in-
B. a foreign bacteria version breakpoints do not disrupt genes
C. HIV virus is because the breaks occur:
D. snrps (pronounced “snurps”)-how fun A. in the telomeres

is that? B. in the centromere

C. in the nucleolus of noncoding DNA A. 2

D. all choices are correct B. 64
C. 12
351. What are 2 ways gene expression is con-
trolled in prokaryotes? D. 32
A. Through inducible and repressible 356. What did Rosalind Franklin contribute
operons to the effort to identify the structure of
B. Through introns and exons DNA?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Through methylation and acetylation A. models made of cardboard and wire
showing the shape of DNA
D. Through enhancers and distal control
elements B. the ratios of the 2 sets of nucleotide
pairs in DNA
352. The classic experiment using isolated C. radioactive evidence that DNA carried
cells from two species of sponges provided the genetic code
evidence that:
D. x-ray diffraction photos of the DNA
A. cell adhesion molecules are species molecule
specific
357. The lac operon genes only become ex-
B. sponge cells possess an extracellular
pressed if:
matrix
A. lactose binds to the repressor
C. cell adhesion molecules are nonspe-
cific B. glucose binds to the repressor
D. sponge cells do not have cell adhesion C. lactose binds to the operator
molecules D. the repressor binds to the operator
353. The outside layer (most outside) of a bac- 358. Means with which viral genetic material
teria is called a is transferred in to hosts including plas-
mids are called
A. capsule
A. Vectors
B. cell wall
B. Channels
C. cell membrane
C. Vesicles
D. cytoplasm
D. Implants
354. In positive feedback loops, the product ul-
359. A person infected with the human immun-
timately the progression of the reac-
odeficiency virus (HIV) may not have any
tion.
symptoms for a period of time. During this
A. inhibits period the virus affects the body by doing
B. stimulates which of the following?
C. degrades A. The virus produces toxins that weaken
immune cells and prevent them from re-
D. not sure-pink fairy armadillo? producing.
355. The approximate yield of ATP molecules B. The virus damages immune cells while
from the full oxidation of a molecule of glu- using their machinery to produce copies
cose is: of itself.

C. The virus uses nutrients meant for im- 363. Addition or deletion of bases causes
mune cells to fuel its own cellular respira- which kind of mutation?
tion.

A. Transversion
D. The virus changes the identity of the B. Frameshift mutation
nucleotides of immune cells to prevent
C. Transition
the immune system from functioning nor-
mally. D. Transcription
360. Insulin is needed to regulate sugar lev- 364. When nonhomologous chromosomes ex-
els in the blood. While every cell in the change parts, a(n) has occurred.
body contains genes for the production of A. reciprocal translocation
insulin, it is only produced by a specialized B. mismatch
subset of cells in the pancreas. Therefore:
C. base exclusion
A. only the specialized cells of the pan-
creas have functional genes for insulin D. inversion
production 365. Identify the scientific technique used to
B. insulin production is not regulated be- insert a gene from one organism into an-
cause the genes for it are present in every other.
cell A. genetic engineering
C. every cell must regulate its own sugar B. recombinant DNA splicing
production
C. gene manipulation
D. there must be mechanisms of gene D. All 3 of the other terms describe gene
regulation that promote insulin expres- insertion into the DNA of one organism
sion in the specialized pancreatic cells from a different organism.
and prevent insulin expression in all other
cells 366. CDKs are important in the regulation of
the cell cycle. They carry out their function
361. Avery added an enzyme known to break by:
down DNA to his extract, and saw that
A. adding phosphate groups to target pro-
the bacteria were
teins
A. still transformed B. degrading cyclin proteins
B. not transformed C. removing phosphate groups from tar-
C. all sick get proteins
D. all killed D. preventing the progression of a cell
from one stage of the cell cycle to the next
362. Which of the following has the self-
367. Which one of the following statements
repairing mechanisms?
about mutations in the lactose operon is
A. DNA and RNA not correct?
B. DNA, RNA and protein A. A mutation in the lacO sequence would
allow continuous or constitutive expres-
C. Only DNA
sion of both β -galactosidase and lactose
D. DNA and proteins permease.

B. In cells containing one mutant and one 372. A sample of DNA from a human skin cell
normal copy of lacO, lacZ and lacY are ex- contains 30% cytosine (C) bases. Approx-
pressed only in the absence of lactose. imately what percentage of the bases in
C. A lacI mutant would allow continu- this sample will be thymine (T)?
ous or constitutive expression of both β - A. 30%
galactosidase and lactose permease.
B. 10%
D. In cells containing one mutant and one
C. 20%
normal copy of lacI, the repressor is still
NARAYAN CHANGDER
expressed and lacZ and lacY will be ex- D. 40%
pressed only in the presence of lactose. E. This one is just for fun! You know
368. What was separated in Hershey-Chase which bases always and only pair with
experiment during blending? each other-see if you can use your power
logic! Bonus question!
A. Bacterium and phages
B. Hershey and Chase 373. Cadherin is an example of a(n):
C. Oil and water A. motor protein
D. none of above B. intermediate filament protein
369. What is a Codon? C. cell adhesion molecule
A. 4 base pairs that transfer to amino D. extracellular matrix protein

acids 374. What type of mutation occurs when the
B. 3 base pairs that transfer to amino mRNA codes for a stop codon prema-
acids turely?
C. 3 base pairs that transfer to DNA A. Extensive Missense
D. 3 base pairs that transfer to mRNA B. Immediate Nonsense
370. Which of the following would NOT be a C. Limited Effect
valid reason to use PCR? D. Silent
A. Help analyzing DNA of ancient remains
of fossilized woolly mammoth 375. In flies, the group of homeobox genes
that determines the identities of each seg-
B. Help in analizing the genome of a virus
ment of a fly’s body is the group known
C. Help determining the DNA of a hair as
sample found in a crime scene
A. Silencing Complexes
D. Help in transferring DNA from a plas-
mid containing GFP into E. coli cells B. Promoters
C. Hox Genes
371. A DNA strand that had the sequence
TACGTT would have a complimentary D. Operators
strand
376. The enzyme compensates for chromo-
A. ATCGAT somes shortening at the tips after each
B. ATCGAA round of DNA replication.
C. TACGTT A. DNA polymerase
D. ATGCAA B. telomerase

C. topoisomerase II D. separation DNA fragments using gel

D. DNA ligase electrophoresis

377. Which is the CORRECT order for these 381. Find the FALSE statement
steps in cell signaling? A. Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have
A. signal transduction, receptor activa- ‘junk’ DNA that must be taken out to form
tion, response the mature mRNA before translation
B. response, signal transduction, termi- B. Eukaryote DNA is linear and organized
nation around histone proteins
C. receptor activation, response, signal C. Prokaryote DNA forms a loop called a
transduction plasmid
D. receptor activation, signal transduc- D. Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes re-
tion, response quire tRNA molecules to perform transla-
tion
378. a unit of gene regulation and transcrip-
tion in bacterial DNA that consists of a pro- 382. What type of molecule is NOT associated
moter, an operator, and one or more struc- with a cell’s plasma membrane?
tural genes
A. carbohydrate
A. operon
B. phospholipid
B. lac operon
C. RNA
C. euchromatin
D. enhancer D. protein
379. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA? 383. All of the following happen during mito-
sis EXCEPT:
A. Successive nucleotides in a strand are
connected by hydrogen bonds. A. condensing of chromosomes
B. A phosphate group in a nucleotide is B. synthesis of DNA
attached to the 3 carbon in ribose.
C. formation of the spindle
C. A purine always forms a complemen-
D. separation of sister chromatids at the
tary base pair with a pyrimidine.
centromeres
D. The percentage of the purine A always
equals the percentage of the purine G 384. Which of the following is true about DNA
polymerase?
380. Which of the following would be an ex-
ample of gene therapy technology? A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ di-
rection
A. development of a nasal spray that con-
tains copies of the normal gene that is de- B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ di-
fective in person with cystic fibrosis rection
B. cutting DNA into fragments with re- C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’
striction enzymes direction
C. modifying E. coli to produce indigo dye D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’
for coloring denim blue jeans direction

385. When a mixture of debris from killed vir- B. inherited.

ulent bacteria and live nonvirulent bacteria
C. environmental
are injected into mice:
A. the mice are killed because the viru- D. congenital.
lent bacteria are revived.
390. C hoose the most accurate statement
B. the mice are killed because the nonvir- about the inheritance of an X-linked reces-
ulent bacteria are transformed into viru- sive mutation.
lent bacteria.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The offspring of an affected male are
C. the mice survive because none of the usually affected.
living bacteria are virulent
B. For rare X-linked traits, most of the af-
D. the mice survive for a period of a few
fected individuals are males.
weeks and then die from an unrelated ill-
ness C. Daughters of affected males are al-
ways affected.
386. Tay-Sachs disease is a lethal, autosomal
recessive genetic disorder. If both parents D. The sons of the sisters of affected
are heterozygous carriers of the disease, males will always be affected.
what are the chances of them having a
child who is also a heterozygous carrier for 391. A vector is
Tay-Sachs? A. Circular
A. 0%
B. a ‘vehicle’ to carry a foreign gene from
B. 25% one organism into another
C. 50% C. a foreign gene
D. 75% D. a way of ensuring that the GM food is
387. Translation happens in the not toxic
A. Nucleus 392. Which component of DNA determines the

B. Ribosome traits of an organism?
C. Chloroplast A. Nitrogenous Bases
D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum B. Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
388. This is the process by which DNA is trans- C. Hydrogen bonds
ferred from one bacterium to another by a
D. none of above
virus.
A. translation 393. If a cell has an abnormal number of chro-
B. transduction mosomes, usually from meiosis, what is
this considered? Choose the best answer.
C. conjugation
A. Chromosome mutation
D. transpiration
B. Nondisjunction
389. Diseases that can be transmitted be-
tween organisms are C. Sex-linked mutation
A. infectious. D. Inversion

394. What structural problem prevents ade- A. Gregor Mendel

nine from pairing with guanine? B. Ben Franklin

A. The bases are both short C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
B. They lack phosphate groups D. Charles Darwin
C. They lack the deoxyribose group
399. Polymerase is able to replicate the new
D. The bases are both long DNA along the leading strand.
395. Why does active transport require ATP? A. continuously
A. An input of energy is needed to speed B. only in short fragments
up the rate of facilitated diffusion. C. very slowly
B. An input of energy is needed to allow D. prokaryotically
the movement of molecules from an area
of lowconcentration to one of higher con- 400. A researcher has sequenced a patient’s
centration. Y chromosome. The sequence constitutes
this particular Y chromosome’s:
C. An input of energy is needed to main-
tain the conformation of transport pro- A. haplotype or haploid genotype
teins. B. haplotype
D. An input of energy is needed to both C. diploid genotype
speed up the rate of facilitated diffusion D. haploid genotype
and maintain the conformation of trans-
port proteins 401. What feature of double-stranded DNA
makes it necessary to have a leading
396. a group of bacteria is called a strand and a lagging strand during repli-
A. colony cation?
B. gang A. the hydrogen bonding between bases
C. classroom B. the base stacking of the bases
D. cluster C. the negative charge on the sugar-

phosphate backbone
397. What role do homeobox genes play in cell D. the antiparallel orientation of the
differentiation? strands
A. They cut double-stranded loops into
402. Bacteria can be helpful by
microRNA.
A. helping us digest food
B. They attach to a cluster of proteins to
form a silencing complex, which binds to B. making cheese
and destroys certain RNA. C. breaking down dead organisms
C. They block certain gene expression. D. all of these
D. They code for transcription factors 403. Gene mutations can be caused by many
that activate other genes important in cell things. These mutations are biologically
development and differentiation. important because they
398. Which scientist is given credit for the the- A. occur at a regular rate and therefore
ory of evolution by natural selection? can be controlled

B. can be passed to the offspring if they 408. Which of the following enzymes is re-
occur in any cell of the body sponsible for unwinding the double helix
C. are always harmful and therefore help at the replication fork?
to eliminate weak traits A. ligase
D. can result in a new variety of gene com- B. DNA polymerase
binations in the species C. primase
404. What are the gaps between the newly D. helicase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
synthesized DNA on the lagging strand
called? 409. Which of the following is a combination
of both genetics and environment?
A. Okazaki fragments
A. diabetes
B. Polymer gaps
B. cystic fibrosis
C. Helicase fragments
C. chicken pox
D. Acidic gaps
D. lead poisoning
405. the complete genetic material contained
in an individual 410. is an application of the human
genome project that involves the insertion
A. structural gene
of normal genes into cells with defective
B. genome genes in order to correct genetic disorders.
C. regulator gene A. gene gun
D. homeotic gene B. gene mapping
406. If you made a change in the promoter C. gene linkage
sequence in the DNA that inactivates the D. gene therapy
promoter, what would happen at the RNA
level? 411. What did Avery use to destroy proteins,
lipids, and carbohydrates to show that
A. Nothing, the RNA would be made as
DNA was the transforming factor?
usual.
A. Bacteriophages
B. The mutation of the DNA would be car-
ried through to the RNA sequence. B. X-ray diffraction
C. The RNA polymerase would not be able C. Enzymes
to recognize and bind the DNA, so no RNA D. Radioactive isotopes
wouldbe made.
D. The DNA helicase would not be able to 412. Which best describes the basic structure
recognize and bind the DNA, so the RNA of a virus?
would notbe made. A. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a
protein coat
407. What is a risk of GMOs?
B. a tail surrounded by a protein coat
A. Radioactive
C. a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate
B. Food that taste too good coat
C. the long term effects are unknown D. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a
D. produce too much food carbohydrate coat

413. the activation, or “turning on” of a gene C. it can absorb ultraviolet light, so DNA
that results in transcription and the produc- can help protect cells from the damaging
tion of mRNA effects of this form of radiation

A. gene expression D. it is a type of nucleic acid, and most
acids are an important part of information
B. regulator gene
storage within cells
C. transcription factor
417. Selective breeding is
D. cell differentiation
A. a process to create an organism with
414. There is debate among the scientific com- desired traits from parents with those de-
munity as to whether viruses are living or sired traits
nonliving infections agent. Most biology B. natural method of producing offspring
theorize that the viruses are nonliving be- with desired traits
cause
C. creating a new species
A. they are not cellular
D. making organisms reproduce during
B. they cannot use energy times of stress
C. they cannot make proteins 418. Which one of the following statements
D. they do generate living metabolic reac- BEST represents the relationship between
tions cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
E. all of the above A. Photosynthesis stores energy in or-
ganic molecules, while respiration re-
415. How can a person’s muscle cells have the leases it
same exact DNA sequences as their nerve B. Photosynthesis occurs only during the
cells even though the look and perform day and respiration occurs only at night
completely different?
C. Respiration occurs only in animals and
A. The two different cells become mu- photosynthesis occurs only in plants
tated
D. Photosynthesis reverses the biochem-
B. The proteins expressed in each cell are ical pathways of respiration
different
419. Griffith called the process he observed
C. They actually have different DNA in the transformation because
two types of cells.
A. the mouse had been transformed
D. The genome of the different cells
changes B. the harmful bacteria had been trans-
formed
416. DNA makes a good molecule for storing C. the harmless bacteria had been trans-
information because formed
A. its bases can be joined together in any D. the experiment had been transformed
order, like the letters of the alphabet can
be strung to form different words 420. Replicate the following strand of
DNA:AATCATGGA
B. each nucleotide within a DNA strand
can give a cell different information, and A. AATCATGGA
there are many nucleotides in every cell B. TTAGTACCT

C. UUAGUACCU B. Crossing over

D. GGATAUCUA C. Polar Body
421. You are working in a lab studying a gene D. Gametogenesis
and notice that there are many other genes
that code for similar traits. This is most 426. The numbers of male F2 progeny with
likely the result of: each of the four observed phenotypes
are as follows:Red-eyed, crossveined =
A. duplication and divergence
357 White-eyed, crossveinless = 341
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. reciprocal translocation Red-eyed, crossveinless = 52 White-eyed
C. inversion crossveined = 45 What is the map distance
between the genes w and cv?
D. deletion
A. 12.2
422. An organism that lives on or in a host and
B. 13.9
causes harm to the host. The host may or
may not die as a result of being infected. C. 97
A. Commensalism D. 341
B. Parasitism (Parasite)
427. There are over 2000 kinds of edible in-
C. Mutualism sects in the world, and they are becoming
D. none of above an increasingly popular source of protein.
One cup of cricket flour contains over 28
423. Protein synthesis is accomplished primar- grams of protein. The building blocks of
ily by the interaction of which two cell the protein in cricket flour are
structures?
A. amino acids
A. vacuoles and mitochondria
B. water
B. ribosomes and vacuoles
C. nuclei and ribosomes C. simple sugars
D. nuclei and mitochondria D. carbohydrates
424. Why do you use a new pipette tip on 428. Antibiotics are
the micropipette every time you get a new A. Chemicals that kill bacteria
sample?
B. An example of a painkiller
A. To avoid contaminating the other sam-
ples C. Chemicals that help bacteria
B. To use as many tools as you can. D. none of above
C. The pipette tips disappear after being
429. Which one of the following is LEAST likely
used.
to be found in a nucleotide?
D. None of these reasons
A. one or more phosphate groups
425. Cells with little more than DNA that
B. a five carbon sugar
are eventually broken down in the female
body C. a side chain
A. Somatic cell D. a nitrogen containing base

430. Who’s x-ray crystallography studies al- D. all of these

lowed Watson and Crick to determine the
helical shape of DNA 435. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair

with this partial strandATG TGA CAG
A. Rosalind Franklin
A. ATG TGA CAG
B. Frederick Griffith
B. TAC ACT GTC
C. Phoebus Levene
C. GTA AGT GAC
D. Oswald Avery
D. CAT TCA CTG
431. The presence of excess EGF receptors can
result in: 436. Which of the following might scientists
use gel electrophoresis for? (Select ALL
A. diminished cell division that apply)
B. excessive cell division A. Solve crimes
C. normal cell division B. Edit diseased genes
D. none of above C. Replace diseased cells
432. The enzyme repairs 99% of mis- D. Identify fathers
matched bases immediately during replica- E. Determine how related 2 species are
tion.
A. DNA ligase 437. The component(s) of a corona virus for
which it is named is/are extended from
B. DNA polymerase the envelope for attachment is/are the:
C. uracyl glycosylase A. capsomeres
D. AP endonuclease B. protein spikes
433. Which of the following is an example C. nucleic acid
of post-transcriptional control of gene ex- D. viral whiskers
pression?
A. the addition of methyl groups to cyto- 438. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the
sine bases of DNA RNA strand that would be complementary
to the following strand:GTAGTCA
B. the binding of transcription factors to
a promoter A. UATUAGA
C. the removal of introns and splicing to- B. ACGACTG
gether of exons C. CAUCAGU
D. gene amplification contributing to can- D. CATCAGT
cer
439. What is the difference between embry-
434. Recombinant DNA are currently used to onic stem cells and adult stem cells?
produce A. Embryonic stem cells can differentiate
A. clothing dye, cheese, and laundry prod- into more cell types than adult stem cells
ucts B. Adult stem cells last longer than em-
B. human antibiotics and vaccines bryonic stem cells
C. crops that taste better and stay fresh C. Adult stem cells can differentiate into
longer more cell types than embryonic stem cells

D. Adult stem cells grow bigger than em- D. When activated, both types carry sig-
bryonic stem cells nals across the plasma membrane
440. The coronavirus (COVD-19) contains 445. When one gene is able to modify the ef-
A. Double stranded DNA fect of a second gene, the phenomenon is
known as:
B. Single stranded DNA
A. simple dominance
C. Single Stranded RNA
B. epistasis
D. Double stranded RNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. independent assortment
E. Circular DNA D. segregation
441. What would happen to a cell that de- 446. The number of new mutations in organ-
pends on flagellar movement if it had no isms following a round of genome replica-
actin? tion:
A. The cell would not be able to move be- A. generally increases with larger
cause the cilia would also be affected genomes
B. The cell would not be able to move. B. generally decreases with larger
C. Nothing; the cell would still be able to genomes
move C. is similar independent of genome size
D. The cell would move by cilia and not D. is highest in bacteria
flagella
447. Which of the following statements con-
442. What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS? cerning cancer and mutations is correct?
A. Haploid Gametes A. cancer can only occur with a mutation
B. Diploid Somatic Cells in somatic cells
C. Skin Cells B. cancer can only occur with a mutation
in germ cells
D. Liver Cells
C. usually multiple mutations are re-
443. Bacteria is altered to produce synthetic quired in different genes to cause cancer
insulin through the process of D. usually a single mutation is all that is
A. Genetic screening required to cause cancer
B. Hydrolysis 448. How does biotechnology most likely af-
C. Amniocentesis fect North Carolina’s population?
D. Recombinant DNA formation A. Jobs are created and attract more peo-
ple to the area.
444. How are steroid hormone receptors and B. Research advancement causes people
cell-surface receptors similar? in need of medicines to move to the area.
A. When bound to their ligand, both types C. People are not concerned with biotech-
enter the nucleus to activate transcription nology so the overall population is not im-
B. Both types cause G proteins to ex- pacted.
change GDP for GTP D. The issue causes controversy and peo-
C. Both types undergo a conformational ple hesitate to live in a state where a large
change when they bind to their ligand amount of research takes place.

449. Some types of small regulatory RNAs are 455. During the signal transduction process,
known to be able to inhibit the signal often triggers a signal trans-
duction cascade. For example, an acti-

A. recombination
vated receptor activates hundreds of pro-
B. translation tein A. Each activated protein A activates
C. replication hundreds of protein B and so on until a cel-
lular response occurs. What purpose does
D. mutation
this cascade serve?
450. In the early 1900s, most scientists A. Having several intermediates allows
thought it was that carried traits form for greater control of the response.
parent to offspring.
B. The cascade serves to amplify the sig-
A. Carbohydrates nal, so one activated receptor can have a
B. Lipids significant response.
C. Proteins C. Having a cascade allows the cell to re-

spond to different signals.
D. DNA
D. The cascade makes signaling easier to
451. In the Calvin cycle, NADPH is: shut off or terminate.
A. oxidized 456. The strength of collagen comes from its:
B. reduced A. triple helical structure and bundling
C. phosphorylated B. amino acid sequence
D. oxidized and reduced C. ability to bind to polysaccharide
molecules
452. DNA has charge?
D. triple helical structure and bundling,
A. a Negative as well as its amino acid sequence
B. a Neutral
457. tRNA is involved in
C. a Positive
A. carrying amino acids
D. No
B. carrying ribosomes
453. Who prescribes you antibiotics? C. carrying glucose
A. Nurse D. carrying lipids
B. Doctor 458. North Carolina’s #1 Biotech Industry is
C. Parents A. Biomedical Research
D. Dentist B. Environmental Biotechnology
454. The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA C. Making Clones
template and new RNA transcript is called D. Agriculture
A. Transcription bubble
459. What is the job of a promoter?
B. Translation bubble A. It signals the cell to replicate?
C. Transcriptome B. It stops the DNA polymerase from at-
D. Primosome taching onto the DNA

C. It is the binding site for RNA poly- D. One strand is positively charged and
merase the other is negatively charged.
D. It is the binding site for DNA poly- 464. Which of the following structures would
merase be located in the dermis of the skin?
460. The role of dideoxynucleotides in Sanger A. connective tissue and nerve endings
sequencing is the: B. sweat glands
A. removal of specific bases from DNA C. blood vessels
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. termination of DNA synthesis at spe- D. All of these choices are correct
cific bases
C. addition of specifically labeled phos- 465. When cells are removed from the body,
phates to the DNA incubated with the vector and gene-
engineered cells are then returned the
D. detection of protons during DNA syn- body, this is genetic engineering
thesis
A. Ex vivo
461. All of the following are true regarding eu- B. In situ
karyotic DNA EXCEPT that
C. In vivo
A. it is an exceedingly long molecule.
D. Ex situ
B. it is packaged into successively com-
pact formations. 466. Rolling circle mode of replication is
C. every nitrogenous base in the A. Conservative
molecule has encoded information for pro- B. Non Conservative
tein synthesis.
C. Semi-Conservative
D. in the condensed form, it is transcrip-
tionally inactive. D. Dispersed
462. Breeders can increase the genetic varia- 467. Black hair color is dominant to white hair
tion in a population by using color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ra-
tio for the offpring of a heterozygous black
A. inbreeding. mouse and a white mouse.
B. mutations. A. 4 Black:0 White
C. hybridization. B. 3 Black:1 White
D. restriction enzymes. C. 2 Black:2 White
463. What is meant by the description “an- D. 0 Black:4 White
tiparallel” regarding the strands that
make up DNA? 468. Which of the following statements ex-
plains why all of the F1 females from a
A. The twisting nature of DNA creates cross between a red-eyed homozygous fe-
nonparallel strands. male fly and a white-eyed male fly are het-
B. The 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs erozygous?
counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the A. The male parent provides them with a
other strand. white-eye allele on the X, and the female
C. Base pairings create unequal spacing parent provides them with a red-eye allele
between the two DNA strands. on the X .

B. The female parent provides two X chro- A. because radiation exposure caused by
mosomes to each daughter who both too many medical X-rays alters their DNA
carry the red-eye allele. in a harmful way

C. The male parent provides them with a B. because UV light from the sun alters
white-eye allele on the X, and the female their DNA in a harmful way
parent provides them with a red-eye allele C. because the extremely high tempera-
on the Y . tures experienced while sunbathing alters
D. None of the answer options is correct. their DNA in a harmful way
D. because their skin becomes too dry
469. Butterflies exposed to radiation leaking
from a damaged nuclear power plant in 473. Which of the following describes the main
Japan have been observed to have mal- benefit of completing The Human Genome
formed legs, antennae, and wings. For fu- Project?
ture butterfly generations to have these A. Cloning humans
similar structural abnormalities, gene mu-
tations must be present in the affected but- B. Designing new human genes
terflies’ C. Patenting specific human genes
A. wing cells D. Identifying genetically-based diseases
B. antennae cells 474. Which of the following is not a feature of
C. gamete (sex) cells the genetic code?
D. leg cells A. Triplet

B. Degenerate
470. Which of the following would result in a
C. Non-overlapping
frameshift mutation?
D. Ambiguous
A. Insertions only
475. Mushrooms are a type of what?
B. Substitution only
A. bacteria
C. Deletion only
B. virus
D. Insertions and Deletions
C. protozoa
471. Watson and Crick used the image of DNA D. fungi
taken by in their work to figure out
the structure of DNA. 476. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA frag-
ments based on:
A. Chargaff
A. nucleotide sequence
B. Avery
B. length
C. Franklin
C. mutations
D. Mendel
D. replication rate
472. When someone spends a lot of time sun- 477. What do the alleles AS indicate?
bathing and rarely puts on sunscreen, they
have an increased risk of developing skin A. mild form of sickle cell anemia
cancer. Why is this true? (SB2b) B. no sickle cell anemia

C. severe form of sickle cell anemia B. Information in DNA is translated into

D. none of above RNA and then transcribed into protein.
C. Information in protein is translated
478. What is the INITIAL carbon input in the into RNA and then stored as DNA.
Calvin cycle?
D. Information in RNA is transcribed into
A. C6H12O 6
DNA and then translated into protein.
B. triose phosphate
483. Which list shows the steps to genetic en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. CO2
gineering in the correct order?
D. rubisco
A. Cut DNA-Make Recombinant DNA-
479. mutations affect only the individual Extract DNA
in which they occur; mutations are
B. Make Recombinant DNA-Cut DNA-
passed from parent to offspring.
Extract DNA
A. Somatic; germ-line
C. Extract DNA-Cut DNA-Make Recombi-
B. Germ-line; somatic nant DNA
C. Germ-line; heritable
D. Extract DNA-Make Recombinant DNA-
D. Somatic; point Cut DNA
480. Why did Hershey and Chase label the vi- 484. ATTTGAGCC-OriginalATTGAGCC-MutatedThe
ral DNA with radioactive phosphorus and example above is an example of a
not radioactive sulfur?
A. Insertion-Frameshift
A. DNA contains phosphorus and no sul-
fur B. Deletion-Substitution
B. Proteins contain phosphorus and no C. Deletion-Frameshift
sulfur D. All of the above
C. DNA contains sulfur and little phospho-
rus 485. What is the charge of DNA?
D. Proteins acids contain sulfur and little A. positive
phosphorus
B. negative
481. Which is true:1) GMO’s are never trans- C. neutral
genic2) Viruses are never vectors
D. none of above
A. both true
B. both false 486. When DNA with variable number tandem
repeats (VNTRs) is sequenced and visual-
C. 1) true
ized on a gel, the resulting fragments sep-
D. 1) false arate according to their:
482. Which one of the following represents A. A-T content
the flow of information as described by the
B. color
central dogma of molecular biology?
C. size
A. Information in DNA is transcribed into
RNA and then translated into protein. D. shape

487. Which two thing are found on a molecule 492. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair
of tRNA? with this partial strandCAT TCA CTG
A. ATG TGA CAG

A. amino acids; anticodons
B. amino acids; codons B. TAC ACT GTC
C. ribose sugar; proteins C. GTA AGT GAC
D. deoxyribose sugar; codons D. CAT TCA CTG
488. Mendel’s principle of independent assort- 493. Genetic engineering has produced goats
ment corresponds to which part of meio- whose milk contains proteins that can be
sis? used as medicines. This effect was pro-
duced by
A. Random pairing of homologues during
A. mixing genes into the milk
prophase I
B. injecting genes into the goats udders
B. Random alignment of homologues on
the metaphase plate during metaphase I C. inserting foreign genes into fertilized
goat eggs
C. Separation of chromosomes in
anaphase I D. genetically modifying the nutritional
needs of the goats offspring
D. Random alignment of homologues on
the metaphase plate during metaphase II 494. suggests that traits in offspring re-
semble the average of the parents.
489. In the context of cell signaling, to what
A. Mendelian inheritance
does the term ligand refer?
B. Natural selection
A. a signaling molecule
C. Blending inheritance
B. the extra cellular domain of a receptor
protein D. Eugenic inheritance
C. the proteins activated as part of a sig- 495. Snap dragon color is a incomplete domi-
nal transduction pathway nant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed
D. a type of gated channel with white flower (WW)? What color are
flowers that are RW?
490. One end of tRNA matches genetic code in A. Red and white
three-nucleotide sequences known as
B. Red
A. Codon C. Pink
B. Genetic code D. none of above
C. Blunt ends
496. The different enzyme processes that oc-
D. Anticodon cur on the leading and lagging strand are
best explained by
491. Which nucleoid protein assisted in con-
densation of DNA? A. the difference between template and
new strands of DNA.
A. SMC
B. enzyme specificity and the antiparallel
B. IHF structure of the double helix.
C. HU C. the shape difference due to lack of the
D. H-NS oxygen atom on the 2’ carbon of DNA.

D. the additional complexity that occurs 501. The cytoskeleton of animal cells includes:
in eukaryotes with many linear chromo- A. microtubules, microfilaments, and in-
somes. termediate filaments
497. Hershey & Chase’s experiments depend- B. actin, microfilaments, and intermedi-
ing upon the presence of distinguishes ate filaments
proteins from DNA. C. actin, myosin, and intermediate fila-
A. Carbon ments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. microtubules and microfilaments
B. Nitrogen
C. Sulfur 502. The nucleotides within a DNA strand may
have different , but all have identical
D. Oxygen sugar molecules.
498. When a man has an allele combination A. nitrogenous bases
Ww for a trait, what percentage of his ga- B. phosphates
metes will have a dominant allele for that
C. carbohydrates
trait?
D. lipids
A. 25%
503. A phenotype is the
B. 50%
A. letter combination
C. 75%
B. dominant gene
D. 100%
C. recessive gene
499. Genetic crosses involving a particular D. physical appearance
type of flower exhibit complete dominance
with respect to petal color. Red (R) is 504. Which of the following will NOT gener-
dominant to white (r). Using the Pun- ally cause mutations?
nett square, what is the expected percent- A. radiation
age of offspring that will have white flow-
B. DNA replication
ers from a cross of parent flowers with a
genotype of Rr. C. chemicals
A. 0% D. viruses
B. 25% 505. A mutation that does NOT alter the pro-

tein production is called a
C. 50%
A. deletion mutation
D. 100%
B. inversion mutation
500. A protein that binds to the operator and C. silent mutation
blocks the RNA polymerase
D. transverse mutation
A. regulator
506. An organism that has two different alle-
B. repressor les of a given gene has a genotype.
C. activator A. diploid
D. corepressor B. heterozygous

C. dizygous 512. Cytosine always pairs with

D. heteromorphic A. Adenine

507. If an mRNA molecule has introns and ex- B. Thymine
ons in it, where is it?
C. Uracil
A. At a ribosome
D. Guanine
B. In the nucleus
C. In a prokaryotic cell 513. Which statement regarding viruses is
D. could be in the nucleus or the ribosome true?
508. The Meselson-Stahl experiment demon- A. a virus can only reproduce inside of a
strated that DNA replication produces two living cell
DNA molecules each composed of B. viruses do not contain DNA
A. two old strands C. viruses are unicellular
B. two new strands.
D. viruses are generally larger than cells
C. one old and one new strand.
D. two strands with variable proportions 514. A gene gun and a virus may both be clas-
of new and old DNA sified as because they are mechanisms
E. a variable number of old and new by which foreign DNA may be transferred
strands. into a host cell.
A. bacteria
509. Which of the following contributes to an-
tibiotic resistance? B. plasmids
A. Only taking part of an antibiotic pre- C. vectors
scription, then stopping it.
D. splicers
B. The overuse of antibiotics in human so-
ciety today. 515. In prokaryotes, newly synthesized pro-
C. Both of these. teins are found in the and DNA are ob-
D. none of above served in the
510. Movable DNA sequences are called: A. cytoplasm; nucleus
A. transposable elements B. nucleus; cytoplasm

B. frameshifts C. nucleus; nucleus also and the cyto-
C. transition elements plasm
D. centromeres D. cytoplasm; cytoplasm also
511. The image shown above depicts the pro- 516. What does it mean to “extract” DNA?
cess of
A. take out
A. transcription of DNA to RNA.
B. Chargaff’s segmentation. B. put in
C. DNA replication. C. modify

D. production of a polypeptide. D. delete

517. What is the vector for lyme disease? C. Both DNA & Protein
Lyme disease is caused by a bacteria. D. none of above
A. Deer tick
522. Which of the following would you expect
B. Mosquito to have the lowest rate of point mutations
C. Fleas per replication?
D. none of above A. fruit flies
B. RNA viruses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
518. Which one of the following is considered
an integral membrane protein? C. humans
A. a protein with its N-terminus in the cy- D. bacteria
toplasm and its C-terminus in the extra
cellular space 523. What type of bacteria grows on the roots
of plants and provides nutrients for the
B. a protein attached to a transmem- plants?
brane protein via hydrogen bonding
A. cyanobacteria
C. a protein attached to a phospholipid
via ionic bonding with the head group of B. archaebacteria
the lipid molecule C. viruses
D. a protein capable of diffusing through- D. none of above
out the cytoplasm of a cell
524. The process of recombination in prokary-
519. Which signaling system involves the otes takes place in this way
LONGEST time interval between release of
A. Transformation
a signaling molecule and activation of a re-
ceptor? B. Conjugation
A. autocrine C. Transduction
B. contact-dependent D. All of the above
C. paracrine 525. This scientist(s) conducted experiments
D. endocrine that involved injecting mice with S bacteria
and R bacteria.
520. A pathogen A. Avery
A. makes proteins B. Griffith
B. causes infection or disease C. Watson & Crick
C. is made of cells D. Hershey & Chase
D. is a living thing
526. Which of the following statements is
521. The result of Hershey and Chase’s T2 TRUE regarding Frederick Griffith’s exper-
experiments showed that the of the iments?
virus enters the host where viral replica- A. He demonstrated that proteins serve
tion takes place. as the genetic/hereditary material.
A. DNA B. He demonstrated that DNA serves as
B. Protein the genetic/hereditary material.

C. He demonstrated that (only) dead viru- D. They are constructed as a way to in-
lent bacteria cause pneumonia in mice. sert genes into plasmids

D. His experiments relied on RNase and 530. True or false:RNA is double-stranded.
DNase to identify the genetic/hereditary
material. A. true
B. false
about segregation of the sex chromo- C. it depends on the type
somes is false? D. none of above
A. The secondary sex ratio of males to fe-
531. If you crossed a true-breeding yellow-
males at birth usually shows a slight ex-
seed plant (AA) with a heterozygous
cess of males.
yellow-seed plant (Aa), offspring:
B. In humans, half of the fertilized eggs
are expected to be male and half are ex- A. genotypes would be 1 AA:1 aa and phe-
pected to be female; this 1:1 ratio is char- notypes would be 1/2 yellow-seed plants
acteristic of Mendelian segregation. and 1/2 green-seed plants
C. In humans, the sex at each birth is not B. genotypes would be 1 AA:2 Aa

a random process because there are of- C. genotypes would be 1 Aa:1 aa
ten large families with either all girls or D. genotypes would be 1 AA:1 Aa
all boys.
D. In human males, segregation of the X 532. RNA is read in sections called:
chromosome from the Y chromosome oc- A. Triplets
curs during anaphase I of meiosis.
B. Genes
528. In humans, if a non-disjunction event C. Codons
leads to an individual that is XXY, they
D. Genes
would
A. be female because they have 2 X chro- 533. An exon is:
mosomes A. a protein that is clipped out post-
B. be male because they have a Y chromo- translationally.
some B. RNA that is removed during the pro-
C. die cessing of an RNA molecule and remains
D. have both male and female character- inside thenucleus.
istics C. part of an intact, mature mRNA that
leaves the nucleus.
529. Which of the following is true regarding
RFLPs? D. a transfer RNA that binds to the codon.
A. A polymorphism results in one site be- 534. Which of the following best describes
ing recognized by a restriction enzyme, “restriction enzymes? ”
but not in others
A. Enzymes that cut DNA
B. They are the only way to distinguish be-
tween identical twins B. Enzymes that build DNA
C. They are only seen with chromosomal C. Enzymes that dissolve DNA
mutations. D. Enzymes that turn DNA into RNA

535. Which of the following role is performed 540. Gap junctions and plasmodesmata have
by a bacteriophage in transduction? what feature in common?
A. Vector A. They both allow direct transport of ma-
B. Donor terials between cells
C. Recipient B. They both are made up of protein sub-

units located in the plasma membrane
D. Episome
C. They are both found in plant cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
536. What is a host? D. They both attach to the cytoskeleton
A. A living animal, or human, that a para-
site needs to grow and replicate. 541. Scientists discover a new species of
bacteria that has a similar genetic
B. A person who owns a party. makeup as a previously studied bacterial
C. A good person species.Which investigative tool should be
used to genetically compare the new bac-
D. none of above
teria to the previously studied bacteria?
537. Making direct changes in the DNA of an A. gene therapy
organism is
B. chi-squared test
A. selective breeding
C. gel electrophoresis
B. artificial selection
D. electron microscope
C. genetic engineering
D. genetic transformation 542. In a DNA molecule, if 38% of the molec-
ular bases are C (cytosine), what percent
538. Traits are passed from parents to off- of the bases are T (thymine)?
spring. These traits are determined by A. 12
A. chromosomes, located on genes, B. 24
found in the nucleus
C. 38
B. genes, located on chromosomes,
found in the nucleus D. 62
C. chromosomes, located on genes, 543. A police officer is at a crime scene and is

found in the ribosomes collecting samples of blood, hair and skin.
D. genes, located on chromosomes, What is the officer probably going to do
found in the ribosomes with the samples? (SB2c)
A. The officer is cleaning the crime scene
539. What type of medication would be used based on protocol.
to treat athlete’s foot since it is a fungal
infection? B. The officer is keeping samples to be
filed with the police report.
A. Antibiotic
C. The officer is going to have the sam-
B. Antifungal ples analyzed for a DNA fingerprint.
C. Antiviral
D. The officer will shoe them to the vic-
D. none of above tim’s family, the judge and the prosecutor.

544. Transgenic Organisms (GMO’s) are: B. DNA is the genetic/hereditary mate-

A. Organisms that have genes from a dif- rial.

ferent species C. Protein is the genetic/hereditary ma-
B. Organisms who have received new terial.
stem cells to cure a disease D. Protein and DNA are the ge-
netic/hereditary materials.
C. Organisms whose DNA has been
copied 549. Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki frag-
D. Organisms whose entire genome has ments in the lagging strand?
been sequenced A. Helicase
545. What happened when Griffith injected B. Polymerase
mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria C. Ligase
alone?
D. Primerase
A. The bacteria transformed
550. Bacteriophages inject into bacteria,
B. The mouse lived
altering the bacteria’s genetic information.
C. The mouse died
A. RNA
D. The bacteria died
B. proteins
546. How are an epidemic and pandemic C. DNA
alike?
D. carbohydrates
A. Both involve a viral infection.
551. The fact that humans have a relatively
B. Both involve a bacterial infection. large number of mutations per genome per
C. Both involve an outbreak of a disease. generation when compared to other organ-
D. Both involve small numbers of infected isms can be explained by which of the fol-
individuals. lowing statements?
A. humans are so complex we have multi-
547. When Griffith mixed heat-killed, harmful ple proteins doing the same job
bacteria with live, harmless bacteria and
B. humans have multiple proteins doing
injected the mixture into mice, the mice
the same job, and our cells don’t divide as
A. died often as other organisms
B. developed immunity C. human cells don’t divide as often as
C. remained healthy those of other organisms
D. learned to speak D. most of a human’s DNA is noncoding,
so most of the mutations are neutral
548. If protease treatment in Avery, MacLeod,
and McCarty’s experiment prevented the 552. Which of these is required for natural se-
transformation of bacteria, what would lection? (SB6b)
have been the conclusion of these re- A. All individuals of a population must be
searchers? identical.
A. RNA is the genetic/hereditary mate- B. There must be a small number of indi-
rial. viduals in a population.

C. There must be variation among the of the following would represent the ex-
members of a population. pected phenotype of the F1 generation?
D. A population of individuals must be A. 8 black rabbits, 0 white rabbits, 0 grey
forced out of their natural habitat. rabbits
553. You are examining a human pedigree for B. 2 black rabbits, 2 white rabbits, 4 grey
a trait. You notice that the trait appears rabbits
in every generation; is equally likely to oc- C. 0 black rabbits, 0 white rabbits, 8 grey
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cur in males and females; and, when one rabbits
parent is affected, about half of his/her D. 4 black rabbits, 2 white rabbits, 2 grey
offspring are affected. The trait is most rabbits
likely:
A. dominant 557. ABCDEF → ABDCEF A rearrange-
ment in the linear sequence of genes as
B. recessive shown in the diagram above is known as
C. epistatic A. duplication
D. incomplete penetrance
B. deletion
554. What kind of genetically modified crops C. inversion
would be most successful in wet-tropical
D. translocation
countries that are overcrowded?
A. crops that are drought-and pest- 558. What were the results of the Avery, Mc-
resistant Carty, Macleod experiment?
B. high-yield crops that do not need a lot A. The flask with no protein had no S cells
of sunshine B. The flask with no RNA had no S cells
C. high-yield crops that are pest- C. The flask with no DNA had no S cells
resistant
D. none of above
D. crops that are drought-resistant and
need a lot of sunshine 559. What does the operon model attempt to
explain?
555. In what situation can a harmful deletion
in a chromosome persist in a population? A. the coordinated control of gene ex-
pression in bacteria
A. if it is homozygous
B. bacterial resistance to antibiotics
B. if the homologous chromosome lacks
the deletion C. how genes move between homologous
regions of DNA
C. if the deletion is not in the centromere,
so it is not fatal. D. the mechanism of viral attachment to
a host cell
D. if a transposon replaces the deleted re-
gion 560. What is the end result of activating the
MAP kinase pathway?
556. A true breeding black rabbit is crossed
with a true breeding white rabbit to pro- A. a change in gene expression
duce an F1 generation with 8 individuals. B. acetylation of multiple cytosolic pro-
If blending inheritance were true, which teins

C. synthesis of second messenger 565. Which of the following would be treated

molecules with an antibiotic?
A. Measles, mumps, rubella

D. ion flow
B. Tetanus, lyme disease, strep throat
561. Which of the following combination is a
correct observation for the transformation C. Chickenpox, smallpox, polio
experiment performed by Griffith? D. Malaria and African Sleeping Sickness
A. Type IIIS (living) + mouse = dead 566. DNA was initially disregarded as a possi-
B. Type IIIS (heat killed) + mouse = ble candidate for the genetic material be-
dead cause
C. Type IIR (living) + mouse = dead A. with only four types of nucleotides, it
was a simple, repetitive molecule that
D. Type IIIS (heat killed) + type IIR (liv-
could not account for 20 different amino
ing) + mouse = living
acids.
562. Which one of the following properly B. it had been shown that proteins were
groups a cell junction with a cytoskeletal more important in transferring genetic in-
element and a cell adhesion molecule? formation than nucleic acids.
A. adherens junction, microfilament, inte- C. proteins and carbohydrates were of
grin more interest.
B. hemidesmosome, microfilament, cad- D. it was thought that RNA was more
herin likely to be the genetic material.
C. desmosome, intermediate filament, 567. A virus can be classified by its type of
cadherin
A. mitochondria
D. hemidesmosome, intermediate fila-
B. chromosomes
ment, cadherin
C. nucleic acid
563. are produced when DNA from another D. carbohydrates
species is inserted into the genome of an
organism, which then begins to produce 568. A molecule of DNA that came from two
the protein encoded on the recombinant different organisms is called
DNA. A. a plasmid.
A. vectors B. a ligase
B. plasmids C. an enzyme
C. transgenic organisms D. recombinant DNA.
D. gene guns E. vectored DNA
564. Which of the following is NOT a method 569. An application of using DNA technology
to prevent the spread of viral diseases? to help environmental scientists would be
A. Limit contact with an infected person.
A. use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime
B. Cover your mouth when you sneeze. scene
C. Share cups. B. create a tobacco plant that glows in
D. none of above the dark

C. clone the gene for human growth hor- 575. How is an F2 generation created?
mone to treat pituitary dwarfism A. crossing P1 and P1
D. make transgenic bacteria that can be B. crossing F1 and P1
used to clean up oil spills more quickly
than do the natural bacteria C. crossing F1 and F1
D. crossing F1 and F2
570. Pyrimidine and purine bases are found in:
A. nucleic acids 576. What does it mean to “insert” DNA?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. carbohydrates A. take out
C. lipids B. put in
D. proteins C. modify
D. delete
571. Why do the fragments of DNA in gel elec-
trophoresis travel away from the negative 577. The Black Plague killed about 100 million
electrode? people in the fourteenth century. The bac-
A. DNA is negatively charged teria that caused the plague was carried
by fleas on rats and traveled great dis-
B. DNA is positively charged tances. Which would have most directly
C. the agarose gel in negatively charged limited the spread of the disease?
D. the agarose gel is positively charged A. cleaner water sources
572. Which of the following are products of B. refrigeration of food and water
the light-dependent reactions of photosyn- C. reduction in the rodent population
thesis that are required by reactions in the D. better medicines to treat infected indi-
Calvin cycle? viduals
A. ATP and oxygen
578. Which of the following statements re-
B. ATP and NADPH garding the trp operon is true?
C. NADP+ and oxygen A. The operator region produces the
D. water and NADPH mRNA that codes for the repressor.
573. “Trans” means: B. The regulatory gene is not transcribed

in the presence of the repressor.
A. “Across”
C. Repressor proteins are inactivated by
B. “New” the presence of the repressor. .
C. “Different” D. The trp operon is always activated un-
D. “Many” less deactivated by a repressor
574. Which organisms are used to manufac- 579. Which of the following is NOT a disease
ture human insulin? caused by bacteria?
A. Protozoans A. the flu
B. Algae B. leprosy
C. Bacteria C. whooping cough
D. Amoebas D. food poisoning

580. Watson and Crick discovered that 584. A Southern blot is a technique that relies
bonds hold base pairs together at the cen- on hybridization of:
ter of a strand of DNA.

A. proteins to DNA
A. covalent B. a nucleic acid probe to a complemen-
B. hydrogen tary RNA
C. ionic C. a nucleic acid probe to a complemen-
tary DNA
D. true
D. None of the other answer options is
581. In which phase of mitosis do chromo- correct
somes condense?
585. In prokaryotic cells, ribosomes are
A. prophase A. 70 S
B. metaphase B. 80 S
C. anaphase C. 60S + 40S
D. telophase D. 50S + 40S
582. Flower color in snapdragons is due to 586. There are some structures which are
a gene with incomplete dominance CRCR unique to viruses and not found in cells.
plants have red flowers, CRCW have pink These include:I. Protein capsid II. Nucleic
flowers, and CWCW plants have white acids III. Cell wall
flowers. What types and ratios of flower A. I only
color are expected among the progeny of
B. II only
a cross of pink x white?
C. I and II only
A. all pink
D. II and III only
B. 1 pink:1 white
C. 1 red:2 pink:1 white 587. What does RFLP stand for?
A. restriction fragment length polymor-
D. 1 red:1 pink
phism
583. Which of the following statements is true B. recombination fragment length point
about the ethics of creating/designing liv- C. restriction full-length polymorphism
ing organisms?
D. restriction fragment lesser point
A. We should never create a living organ-
ism even if we have the technology to do 588. Damage and errors in DNA cause
so. A. Mutation
B. We should consider the ethical con- B. DNA repair
cerns before we decide to create any liv-
C. Translocation
ing organism.
D. Mistake
C. We do not need to consider any ethical
issues when we create living organisms. 589. Negative regulation of protein synthesis
D. We should create any living organism is accomplished by
if we have the technology to do so. A. Allosteric inhibition

B. The binding of RNA polymerase to the C. small chromosomal deletions usually

promoter have serious and often fatal conse-
C. The binding of a repressor to the DNA quences on an organism
D. The binding of a repressor to the RNA D. none of the choices are correct
polymerase 594. Which mutations in an animal somatic cell
would be inherited by the next genera-
590. Which of the following does not occur dur-
tion?
ing RNA processing?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. synonymous mutations
A. the removal of all introns during RNA
splicing B. deletions
B. the removal of all exons during RNA C. point mutations
splicing D. none of the choices are correct
C. the addition of a nucleotide cap to the 595. Whiplike tails that move bacteria.
5’ end of the newly transcribed RNA
A. pathogens
D. the addition of a poly(A) tail to the 3’
B. flagella
end of the newly transcribed RNA
C. bacteria
591. Which of the following is not a female
D. none of above
part of a plant?
A. stigma 596. Ras is a type of G protein because it:
B. ovules A. triggers the formation of cyclic AMP
C. anthers B. responds to the activation of G protein-

coupled receptors
D. ovary
C. is only active when it binds GTP
592. Which of the following events occur dur- D. All of these choices are correct
ing anaphase I of meiosis?
597. Any heritable change in the genetic mate-
A. In males, the X chromosome is segre- rial is
gated from the Y chromosome.
A. a mutation
B. Homologous chromosomes move as
one unit. B. detrimental to the organism, and po-
tentially, to the species
C. The chromosome number is doubled
during this phase of meiosis. C. usually the result of a reactive chemi-
cal or radiation
D. In females, the two X chromosomes
D. usually evident in an abnormal number
remain together.
of chromosomes
593. Which of the following statements is true
598. Sexually reproducing organisms pass on
regarding a chromosome deletion?
genetic information as a
A. chromosome deletions do not affect
A. long chain of amino acids
gene dosage
B. complex series of inorganic proteins
B. if a deletion eliminates the cen-
tromere, the chromosome is still passed C. sequence of complex sugars
on during cell division D. sequence of the bases A, T, C, and G

599. Mitochondria provide ribosomes with A. leading

A. ATP energy for protein synthesis B. leveraging

B. amino acids for protein synthesis C. Okazaki
C. oxygen for respiration D. ligase
D. carbon dioxide for the production of 603. A new nucleotide can only be added to the
sugars end of a growing DNA strand. DNA
therefore always grows in the direc-
600. Which of the following statements is true tion.
regarding chloroplast inheritance?
A. 3’; 5’ to 3’
A. Chloroplasts always demonstrate a pa-
B. 5’; 5’ to 3’
ternal pattern of inheritance, regardless
of the plant species. C. 3’; 3’ to 5’
B. Like mitochondria, chloroplasts al- D. 5’; 3’ to 5’
ways demonstrate a maternal pattern 604. What is the purpose of PCR?
of inheritance, regardless of the plant
A. To produce millions of copies of DNA.
species.
B. To produce millions of copies of a spe-
C. Chloroplasts can demonstrate mater-
cific region of DNA
nal, paternal or biparental patterns of in-
heritance depending on the plant species. C. To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
D. Chloroplasts always demonstrate bi- D. To watch polymerase work.

parental inheritance, regardless of the 605. A testcross of an organism of unknown
plant species. genotype is done when the organism is
crossed to an organism that is:
601. Replication in prokaryotes differs from
replication in eukaryotes for which of the A. a heterozygote
following reasons? B. a dominant homozygote
A. Prokaryotic chromosomes have his- C. a recessive homozygote
tones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes D. all choices are correct
do not.
606. What is one way CRISPR has already
B. Prokaryotic chromosomes have a sin-
been used to change genes?
gle origin of replication, whereas eukary-
otic chromosomes have many. A. Clone sheep
C. The rate of elongation during DNA B. Give people superpowers
replication is slower in prokaryotes than C. Cure animal diseases
in eukaryotes. D. Military purposes
D. Prokaryotes produce Okazaki frag-
607. In a cross between a red eyed female and
ments during DNA replication, but eukary-
a white eyed male, none of the F2 females
otes do not
has white eyes. Why?
602. The enzyme that splits open the DNA cre- A. The allele for red eyes is dominant
ates what’s called a fork-where the DNA over white eyes, and these F2 females are
separates into the lagging strand and the either homozygous dominant (red-eye al-
strand. lele) or are heterozygous.

B. F2 females have two X chromosomes, C. They often delete things that organ-
and in this cross all F 2 females are ho- isms need.
mozygous for the red-eye allele. D. Insertion and deletions are not any
C. Females always have red eyes be- more harmful than substitution mutations.
cause this allele is dominant.
612. What enzyme is used in CRISPR gene
D. F2 females have two X chromosomes, editing?
and in this cross they all have one X carry-
ing a red-eye allele and another X carrying A. Cas3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a white-eye allele. B. Cpr 9
608. The purpose of the protein coat surround- C. Rna5

ing a virus, other than to protect the virus, D. Cas 9
is to-
613. A molecule containing DNA from two dif-
A. react with the cell wall of the host cell ferent organisms is called
B. release hereditary information into A. a plasmid.
the host cell
B. a polyploid.
C. produce proteins within the host cell
C. a hybrid organism.
D. destroy the nucleus of the host cell
D. recombinant DNA.
609. When viral genome can become inte-
614. What are the plasmid status of bacterial
grated into the bacterial genome they are
cells resulting from conjugation between a
known as
F+ and a F-bacterium?
A. Temperate phage
A. Two F+ bacteria
B. Prophage
B. Two F-bacteria
C. Bacteriophage
C. The F+ bacterium becomes F-, and
D. Episome the F-bacterium becomes F+.
610. The unfolding of a protein by heat or D. The F+ bacterium remain as F+, and
chemical treatment is referred to as: the F-bacterium remain as F-.
A. disaggregation. 615. What is the circular piece of DNA found
B. uncoupling. in bacteria called?
C. denaturation. A. homologous chromosome
D. depolymerization. B. sister chromatid
C. plasmid
611. Why are insertion and deletion
(frameshift) mutations so harmful? D. arabinose
A. They change all of the codons from the 616. The tips of chromosomes are known as
point of the mutation to the rest of the A. telomeres
transcript, which changes the amino acid
sequence B. enzymes
B. They insert things that an organism C. DNA polymerase

doesn’t need. D. RNA telomerase

617. what does a promoter do? C. to form cyclic AMP

A. it allows a gene to be transcribed D. to phosphorylate cyclic AMP

B. it creates a DNA segment 622. A eukaryotic chromosome has ori-
C. it is another word for ribosomes gin(s) of replication, and a bacterial chro-
mosome has origin(s) of replication.
D. it is another word for RNA
A. one; one
618. The work of scientists including Grif- B. many; one
fin, Avery, Hershey & Chase and Franklin
C. one; many
helped us to determine the are respon-
sible for carrying genetic material. D. many; two
A. Amino Acids 623. If covalent bonds held the 2 strands of
nucleotides together, the 2 strands could
B. Proteins
not easily separate and
C. Nucleic Acids
A. multiply
D. Carbohydrates B. form new cells
619. A mutation that inactivates the regula- C. pair up
tory gene of a repressible operon in an E. D. replicate
coli cell would result in
624. Using living things or parts of living
A. continuous transcription of the struc- things to produce a product or solve a prob-
tural gene controlled by that regulator. lem is the definition of
B. complete inhibition of transcription of A. biotechnology.
the structural gene controlled by that reg-
B. tissue culturing.
ulator.
C. bioremediation.
C. irreversible binding of the repressor to
the operator. D. transgenic.
D. inactivation of RNA polymerase. 625. Why is DNA important?
A. it is very small and very complicated
620. White short-horned cattle and Black An-
gus cattle have been crossed to produce B. it’s in everything
offspring with superior beef and rapid C. it serves as the blueprint for traits of
growth qualities. This process of choosing all living things
organisms with the most desirable traits D. because we eat it every day for energy
for mating is known as
626. Assume that you have straight hair and
A. cloning
your sibling has curly hair. What accounts
B. biodiversity for this difference?
C. selective breeding A. You have DNA and your sibling does
D. genetic engineering not.
B. The your sequence of nitrogen bases
621. What is the function of adenylylcyclase? is different than your sibling.
A. to form protein kinase A C. Your sibling has a weave.
B. to phosphorylate protein kinase A D. Your sibling has a genetic mutation.

627. A section on a chromosome that has ge- 632. Which of the following is not true of re-
netic information for one trait is called a striction enzymes?
A. gene A. restriction enzymes are found in bacte-
B. allele ria
B. restriction enzymes are needed for
C. phenotype
PCR
D. genotype
C. restriction enzymes cut DNA as spe-
cific regions
NARAYAN CHANGDER
628. Ligand binding to a receptor kinase re-
sults in: D. bacteria methylate regions of their
A. phosphorylation of the cytoplasmic do- own DNA that would be cut by restriction
main of the receptor enzymes
B. binding of cytoplasmic signaling 633. DNA replication results in 2 DNA
molecules molecules,
C. receptor dimerization A. each with 2 new strands
D. All of these choices are correct B. one with 2 new strands and the other
with 2 original strands
629. Which is a negative result of the use of
biotechnology in agriculture? C. each with one new strand and one orig-
inal strand
A. Increased crop yields
D. each with 2 original strands
B. Reduction in pesticide use
634. All of the following are benefits of GMOs
C. Unknown side effects
except
D. Higher nutritional values
A. pest resistant crops
630. One function of gel electrophoresis is to B. unknown long term health effects
A. separate DNA fragments C. more nutritional foods
B. cut DNA D. creating more human insulin
C. recombine DNA 635. In an individual with sickle-cell anemia,
D. extract DNA which cells are abnormally shaped?
631. Metastatic cancer cells: A. bone cells

B. skin cells
A. are able to leave the tumor where they
originated and travel to distant locations C. white blood cells
to begin new tumors at distant sites D. red blood cells
B. have lost their adhesion to the extra-
636. A prokaryotic cell replicates its be-
cellular matrix, freeing them from the orig-
fore it splits to form new cells, so that each
inal tumor
new cell can have genetic material.
C. become malignant when they grow
A. carbohydrates
rapidly
B. lipids
D. only need to cross a single layer of cap-
illary endothelial cells to form tumors at C. protein
distant sites D. DNA

637. Which of the following statements re- B. Protozoans

garding sex ratios are true? C. Viruses

A. Sex ratios are dynamic and can change D. none of above
over time; the ratio of males to females
at birth may be different from that during 641. Which of the following is homozygous
adolescence and adulthood. dominant?
B. Fewer females tend to survive to re- A. Jj
productive age, and the sex ratio of males B. Rr
to females during adolescence is about C. MM
1:1.
D. ee
C. The ratio of males to females at birth
is skewed slightly toward females. 642. You are studying the transport of a partic-
ular substance into epithelial cells grown
D. Sex ratios remain constant over time.
in culture.You notice that you can only find
638. A template DNA strand contains the se- the substance inside the cell when ATP
quence 3’-ATGCTGAC-5’. The correspond- is present. How is the protein moving
ing sequence in the RNA transcript is: through the membrane?
A. 5’-TACGACTG-3’. A. diffusion
B. 5’-GTCAGCAT-3’. B. facilitated diffusion
C. 5’-UACGACUG-3’. C. passive transport
D. 5’-GUCAGCAU-3’. D. active transport

643. Why do humans have a lower rate of mu-
639. Which of the following statements cor-
tations?
rectly describes Chargaff’s contribution to
the study of DNA? A. because humans do not get as many
mutations
A. Chargaff hypothesized that DNA was a
double helix, but he did not produce the B. because most of the DNA is noncoding
image that proved this fact C. because humans have repair mecha-
B. Chargaff’s experiments conclusively nisms that repair mutations
proved DNA was made of nucleotides, but D. none of above
he could not show that there were 4 types
644. A researcher has carried out Giesma
of nitrogenous bases
staining on a set of human chromosomes,
C. Chargaff showed that adenine and and has arranged these chromosomes into
thymine were found in equal percentages a karyotype. He notices that in a homol-
in DNA, but he did not know this was be- ogous pair, a band is missing from one
cause of base-pairing of the chromosomes. This likely resulted
D. Chargaff’s work proved that DNA could from:
be made using radioactive nucleotides, A. a deletion
but he did not show that DNA could be
B. an inversion
transferred from one organism to another
C. a reciprocal translocation
640. Which microbes are the smallest? D. either a deletion or a reciprocal
A. Bacteria translocation

645. In Hershey & Chase’s experiment with C. Conditional lethal mutation

bacteriophages, the radiolabeled DNA was D. Gain of function mutation
ultimately found:
A. In the pellet containing the bacteria 651. Which of the following is not a nitrogen
base found in DNA?
B. Inside the viral “ghosts” C.
A. Thymine
C. In the supernatant
B. Uracil
D. Outside of the test tube
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Guanine
E. It was never found
D. Adenine
646. What do bacteriophages infect?
652. What is the vector for African Sleeping
A. mice
Sickness? This disease is caused by a pro-
B. humans tist parasite.
C. viruses A. Mosquito
D. bacteria B. Tick
647. UAA is also known as C. Tsetse (tzetze) fly
A. Opal D. none of above
B. Amber 653. The enzyme responsible for joining
C. Ochre Okazaki fragments together during DNA
D. Opine replication is:
A. DNA polymerase.
648. The citric acid cycle takes place in the:
B. helicase
A. cytoplasm
C. topoisomerase II
B. inner mitochondrial membrane
D. DNA ligase
C. intermembrane space of mitochondria
D. mitochondrial matrix 654. RNA polymerase holoenzyme initiates
transcription which involves
649. Which one of the following components
A. Recognition of the-35 sequence only
of an amino acid differs from one amino
acid to another? B. Recognition of the-10 sequence only
A. the α -carbon atom C. Recognition of the-10 sequence and-
35 sequence
B. the carboxyl group
C. the side chain
D. the amino group 655. Which of these is a characteristic of
prokaryotic cells?
650. Name the term given to the type of mu-
A. Absence of cell organelles
tation which depends on the conditions of
the environment? B. Absence of nucleus
A. Forward mutation C. Presence of 70S ribosomes
B. Reverse mutation D. All of these

656. Which describes a way scientists use 659. What scientist discovered CRISPR?
biotechnology in the field of industry? A. Francisco Mojica

A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi- B. Yong Fan
nals
C. Paul Knoepfler
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be
more nutritious D. Dr. Lesia Kaszczak
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live 660. Which of the following processes brings
longer about an exchange of genetic information
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil between bacterial cells through a pillus?
spills A. binary fission
657. Suppose you are studying the transport B. mutulaism
of a certain polar molecule across the C. conjugation
plasma membrane of cells in culture. Over
a period of time, you measure the concen- D. replication
tration of a polar molecule inside and out-
661. Many diabetics are now using insulin that
side of the cells. You find that the concen-
was made by certain bacteria. The ability
tration of the molecule is lower in the cell
of these bacteria to produce insulin was
but is gradually increasing. You also mea-
most likely the result of
sure the ATP concentration inside the cell
and find that it is not changing. Which of A. deleting many DNA segments from
the following is probably responsible for bacterial DNA
the transport of this polar substance into B. genetic mapping of bacterial DNA to
the cell? activate the gene for insulin production
A. facilitated diffusion C. inserting a portion of human DNA into
B. secondary active transport the ring-shaped DNA of bacteria
C. active transport D. using radiation to trigger mutations
D. simple diffusion 662. Which of the following is associated with
658. A couple has a baby that is monosomic microfilaments?
for the X chromosome. This most likely oc- A. desmosomes
curred during meiosis because: B. adherens junction
A. either there was an inversion of the X C. cilia and flagella
chromosome or there was a duplication
in the X chromosome and crossover oc- D. none of above
curred
663. He was able to determine the nucleotide
B. there was translocation of part of an- structure consisted of phosphate, ribose
other chromosome onto the X chromo- sugar and a nitrogen base.
some
A. Mcleod
C. there was nondisjunction of the sister
chromatids B. Levene
D. there was an inversion in the X chro- C. Meischer

mosome and crossover occurred D. Hammerling

664. Spliceosomes are formations created by C. a neutral

proteins and snRNPs. What is the function D. a reciprocal
of a spliceosome?
A. cuts apart RNA 669. Alternative splicing allows for:
B. cuts out exons & reconnects introns A. two or more different proteins to be
made from a single processed mRNA
C. cuts out introns & reconnects exons
B. different polypeptides to be made
D. cuts apart DNA at particular base se- from a single gene
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quences
C. increased stability of a mature mRNA
665. What is the function of DNA ligase? D. multiple genes to be used to code for
A. It separates the two strands of DNA a single polypeptide chain
into single strands.
670. When a ligand binds to a G protein-
B. It proofreads newly made DNA. coupled receptor, which of the following
C. It makes short sequences of RNA to would you expect to happen FIRST?
use as primers. A. The amount of cAMP in the cytoplasm
D. It makes covalent bonds between ad- increases
jacent Okazaki fragments. B. Protein kinase activity increases
666. Jake is suffering badly from a bacterial C. Adenylyl cyclase activity increases
infection. What might the doctor do? D. Phosphodiesterase activity increases
A. Prescribe antibiotics 671. Eukaryotic DNA molecules need to be
B. Prescribe painkillers carefully copied and sorted, especially in
C. Tell Jake to get some rest the formation of cells during meiosis.
D. All of the above A. reproductive

B. germ
667. A polar bond is due to:
C. zygote
A. equal sharing of valence electrons
D. body
B. an attraction of opposite charges
672. Which of the following characteristics of
C. uneven sharing of electrons in a cova-
DNA affects its ability to replicate contin-
lent bond
uously?
D. the interaction between anion and a
A. The hydrogen bonds cannot be broken
non-ionic atom.
in a continuous fashion.
668. Huntington’s disease is a devastating B. DNA polymerase can only add nu-
neurological disorder. If a child of an af- cleotides to the 5’ end of the growing DNA
fected parent receives one copy of the strand.
Huntington allele, he or she will develop C. The phosphate groups are attached to
Huntington’s disease. Thus, Huntington’s the nucleotides in an alternating fashion.
disease is considered trait.
D. The untwisting of the DNA molecule
A. a recessive causes tighter twisting and strains the
B. a dominant molecule.

673. How do the positions of segmentally re- 677. What is a Hox gene?
peated structures relate to patterns of ex- A. a class of regulatory genes that deter-
pression in Hox genes?

mine the identity of body parts and re-
A. Expression pattern along the anterior- gions in an animal embryo.
posterior (head to tail) axis that does NOT B. found in many homeotic genes that
correspond to the relative location of their regulate development
genes within the Hox gene cluster.
C. a group of homeotic genes clustered
B. Expression pattern along the anterior- together that determine the head to tail
posterior (head to tail) axis is the reverse identity of body parts in animals.
of the relative location of their genes D. none of above
within the Hox gene cluster.
678. Which type of cell junction prevents
C. Expression pattern along the anterior-
the movement of substances through the
posterior (head to tail) axis that corre-
space between cells?
sponds to the relative location of their
genes within the Hox gene cluster. A. tight junctions
D. none of above B. adherens junctions

C. gap junctions
674. What protein forms the contractile ring D. desmosomes
during cytokinesis in animal cells?
679. Harmful mutations are often eliminated
A. kinesin
in a population because they:
B. actin A. are fatal to the individual
C. dynein B. are repaired
D. DNA polymerase C. decrease survival and/o rreproduc-
tion of the individuals
675. Genes located along the X chromosome: D. do not confer a benefit to the individual
A. have a full set of complementary alle-
680. a gene that codes for a product, such as
les on the Y chromosome.
an enzyme, protein, or RNA, rather than
B. are called X-linked genes. serving as a regulator
C. are contributed solely by the female A. genome
parent B. regulator gene
D. are always recessive to genes located C. structural gene
on the Y chromosome D. homeotic gene
676. Which of these molecules gets trans- 681. Which area of biotechnology would most
lated? likely create ethical issues with human so-
ciety?
A. DNA
A. Insulin producing bacteria
B. mRNA
B. Organ cloning for transplants
C. tRNA
C. Genetic engineering to improve agri-
D. amino acids cultural yields.

D. DNA and forensic testing of crime B. increase the iron and beta carotene
scene evidence levels
682. After doing PCR on the same region be- C. code for substances that cause aller-
tween two individuals, you notice that gies in people
each person’s DNA yielded pieces of dif- D. increase the thickness of the seed coat
ferent sizes. Which of the following is the
most likely explanation? 687. Which of the following best describes
the results from Hershey and Chase’s
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A mistake was made during PCR
experiment using bacterial viruses with
B. A mistake was made during gel elec- 35S-labeled proteins or 32P-labeled DNA
trophoresis that are consistent with DNA being the
C. This is an example of VNTRs molecule responsible for hereditary?
D. This is an example of RFLPs A. After infection with the 35S-labeled
viruses and centrifugation, only the super-
683. Who discovered the process of transfor- natant would be radioactive.
mation while trying to create a vaccine
against bacterial pneumonia? B. After infection with the 35S-labeled
viruses and centrifugation, both the pellet
A. Griffith and the supernatant would be radioactive.
B. Avery
C. After infection with the 32P-labeled
C. Hershey and Chase viruses and centrifugation, only the pellet
D. Watson and Crick would be radioactive.
D. After infection with the 32P-labeled
684. Which is a positive result of the use of viruses and centrifugation, both the pellet
biotechnology in agriculture? and the supernatant would be radioactive.
A. Increased use of pesticides
688. He was able to isolate nuclein
B. Increased cost
C. Increased yield A. Hammerling
D. Increased use of preservatives B. Meischer

C. Watson
685. Homologous chromosomes separate from
each other in: D. Levene
A. mitosis
689. Which is the primary purpose of using re-
B. meiosis I striction enzymes in gel elctrophoresis?
C. meiosis II A. It allows the strands of DNA to be cut
D. They never separate from each other into various lengths for testing
during any form of cel ldivision B. It restricts the number of base pairs
that can be tested in a sample
686. Scientists have inserted genes into rice
plants that C. It makes the testing simpler by moving
the strands into the gel faster
A. code for enzymes that cause rice to
ripen quickly D. It charges the DNA strands

690. Why was the theory of blending inheri- 694. Insulin hormone acts by
tance eventually disproven? A. Lowering blood glucose levels

A. It was eventually disproven by demon- B. Increasing blood glucose levels
strating segregation of alleles for the in-
heritance of many traits in diverse types C. Converting glycogen into glucose
of organisms. D. Converting glucose into starch
B. Although the theory of blending inher- 695. Plasmids are used to introduce foreign
itance accounted for a great deal of vari- DNA into bacterial cells. Plasmids are use-
ation in a population, the theory of natu- ful because they
ral selection yielded explanations for ev-
A. are viruses that infect bacteria by in-
ery phenotype observed in a population.
jecting DNA.
C. It was based on the fact that the phe-
B. are found naturally in bacteria where
notypes of progeny of a given cross typ-
they are passed from cell to cell.
ically resemble either parent-and never
present “intermediate” phenotypes (i.e., C. are found naturally in eukaryotic cells.
such as grey fur). D. cannot be cut by restriction enzymes.
D. The theory of blending inheritance sug-
696. The differences among individuals in the
gested that inheritance is a diversifying
number of copies of a region of a genome
force, whereas it is actually a homogeniz-
are known as:
ing force.
A. RFLP
691. At which end are the new DNA bases
B. SNP
added?
C. PCR
A. 5’ triphosphate end
D. CNV
B. 3’ triphosphate end
C. 5’ OH end 697. A human zygote should have chromo-
somes inside.
D. 3’ OH end
A. 46
692. Bacteria can break down substances.
B. 23
Breaking down is called
C. 92
A. decomposing
D. 64
B. consuming
C. eating 698. To obtain bacteria that produce insulin,
genetic engineers
D. producing
A. remove repressor proteins that inhibit
693. a short sequence of viral or bacterial DNA the expression of the bacterial insulin
to which a repressor binds to prevent tran- gene
scription (mRNA synthesis) of the adjacent
gene in an operon B. insert a vector containing the human
gene of insulin into bacteria
A. operon
C. search for bacteria that grow in a
B. lac operon medium that lacks insulin
C. inducer D. grow normal bacteria in a nutrient
D. operator medium that contains a large amount

699. Who proved that DNA was the trans- A. Used a centrifuge
forming factor? B. Blending
A. Griffith
C. Infection
B. Avery
D. none of above
C. Chargaff
705. A PAM is
D. Franklin
A. a 15-20 bp sequence snipped from a vi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
700. If 8 alleles exist in a population, what is ral genome that serves as a tracer DNA to
the maximum number of copies a normal locate viruses later
individual is expected to have?
B. a 3-5 bp sequence that adjacent to vi-
A. 2 ral DNA in a CRISPR array
B. 3 C. a girl’s name popular in the 1960s
C. 4 D. the target sequence of Cas9
D. 8
706. What is unique (special) about a stem
701. The symptoms of this disease include cell?
thick, sticky mucus that settles in a per- A. It can become a plant stem.
son’s lungs.
B. It can reproduce by itself.
A. hemophilia
C. It can become any type of animal cell.
B. achondroplasia
D. It can become any type of plant cell.
C. sickle cell anemia
D. cystic fibrosis 707. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
nucleotides?
702. Which of the following terms refers to
the different possibilities of a gene? A. Topoisomerase
A. chromosome B. DNA Polymerase
B. DNA C. Ligase
C. Punnett Squares D. Primase
D. allele 708. The process of DNA replication is called

semi conservative because it results in
703. If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24
chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con- A. none of these
tain B. Two DNA molecules. One original
A. 3 molecule and one with two new strands
B. 6 C. two exact copies with new strands
C. 12 D. two identical molecules, each with 1
original strand and one new.
D. 24
704. How were all of the components of the 709. What is a missense mutation?
experiment later separated in Hershey- A. mutation occurs but amino acid
Chase experiment? doesn’t change

B. mutation occurs and amino acid is 714. What are mutation hotspots?
changed
A. region where nucleotides cannot be

C. a mutation occurs and amino acid mutated
changes early to a stop codon
B. region where nucleotides are not re-
D. none of above paired after mutation
710. A piece of double stranded DNA has 30% C. region where nucleotides are prone to
A, what will be the % of G? mutation
A. 30%
D. none of above
B. 40%
C. 20% 715. When a small regulatory RNA is pro-
cessed from an RNA transcript with a
D. 70%
stem-and-loop structure, the RNA frag-
711. Which of the following is true of blending ments used in regulation come from:
inheritance?
A. the stem.
A. blending inheritance explains the dis-
appearance of a trait several generations B. the loop.
after it appeared C. the junction between the stem and the
B. blending inheritance leads to an in- loop.
crease in variation over time D. both the stem and the loop.
C. blending inheritance allows for rare
variants of traits to increase in frequency 716. Which statement BEST describes an effect
D. none of the answers are correct of the low density of frozen water in a
lake?
712. is a process that occurs in female mam-
A. When water freezes, it contracts, de-
mals in which one of the X chromosomes
creasing the water level in the lake.
is randomly turned off in each cell
A. codominance B. Water in a lake freezes from the bot-
tom up, killing most aquatic organisms.
B. complete dominance
C. X chromosome inactivation C. When water in a lake freezes, it floats,
providing insulation for organisms below
D. karyotype the ice.
713. A new gene is discovered that dramati- D. Water removes thermal energy from
cally aids in the digestion of fish. You hy- the land around a lake, causing the lake
pothesize that populations with a history to freeze.
of being near the shoreline would have
more copies of this gene than populations 717. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The
found farther inland. How would you clas- matching strand would read
sify this genetic difference?
A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’
A. RFLP
B. CNV B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
C. VNTR C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’
D. SNP D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’

718. While genetic engineering has positive 722. The relatively large number of new mu-
benefits, there are also concerns associ- tations that occur in the human genome in
ated with widespread use of genetic en- each generation is tolerable because:
gineering in agriculture. If many farmers
A. compared to other organisms,
begin to plant more genetically modified
changes in our proteins have relatively
crops that have an increased tolerance to
little effect on our cells’ structure and
insects, which of the following may re-
functions
sult?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. an increase in the use of pesticides B. we have excellent DNA repair mecha-
nisms
B. a decrease in genetic diversity of the
crops C. most of our genome is noncoding DNA,
C. an increase in the contamination of the so few mutations affect our proteins
water supply D. we have excellent protein repair mech-
D. a decrease in crop productivity anisms
719. In embryonic development, the process
by which cells specialize is called 723. In order for CRISPR to work you need
which of the following,
A. differentiation
B. morphogenesis A. Cas 9 Protein
C. cell division B. Guide Protein to find the DNA

D. endoplasmic reticulum C. Double stranded RNA from a clone
720. Which of the following is a correct differ- D. All of the above
ence between RNA and DNA?
A. RNA is single stranded and DNA is dou- 724. What is the role of gRNA?
ble stranded
A. the cell recognizes that DNA is dam-
B. RNA is double stranded and DNA is sin- aged and tries to repair it
gle stranded
B. ensures that the Cas9 enzyme cuts at
C. DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses
the right point in the genome
Thymine
D. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ri- C. use the DNA repair machinery to intro-
bose duce changes to one or more genes
721. The centrosome is: D. makes a cut across both strands of the
DNA
A. a region of the chromosome where sis-
ter chromatids are attached to each other
725. With this technique, many copies of DNA
B. a region of the chromosome where segment in a few hours are created
kinetochores attach
A. PCR
C. a region of the chromosome where mi-
crotubules attach to chromosomes during B. PDR
mitosis
C. PNR
D. the microtubule organizing center for
the mitotic spindle D. DNAR

726. Which scientists built a 3-D model of the 731. The highest free energy is found in the
DNA double helix? (s) of a reaction.

A. Hershey and Chase A. product
B. Watson and Crick B. substrate
C. Chargaff and Franklin C. transition state
D. Griffith and Avery D. none of above
727. Which product(s) of the Calvin cycle is 732. The ability to perceive a bitter taste from
(are) exported from the chloroplast for use certain chemicals including PTC has been
by the plant cell? linked to certain alleles. Which of the fol-
lowing would provide an explanation for
A. triose phosphates
the fact that almost all nonhuman primates
B. sucrose and glucose have the “taster” phenotype, whereas
C. RuBP the human population has a significant per-
centage of “nontaster” phenotypes?
D. NADPH
A. Nonhuman primates only eat foods
728. The enzyme involved in amino acid acti- that are not bitter, so the phenotype
vation is of tasting bitter compounds was not se-
A. ATP synthetase lected against
B. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase B. The advantage to not being able to
taste bitter compounds means that hu-
C. Aminoacyl mRNA synthetase
mans are more likely to eat vegetables
D. Aminoacyl rRNA synthetase and hence live longer than nonhuman pri-
mates
729. A process in which DNA has the unique
ability to make an exact copy of itself. C. The advantage to being able to taste
bitter compounds would keep you from
A. Replication
eating poisonous compounds, an advan-
B. Translation tage not needed in the human population
C. Transcription anymore
D. none of above D. Humans needed the ability to not taste
bitter compounds, so the mutation hap-
730. In trying to determine whether DNA or pened
protein is the genetic material, Hershey
and Chase made use of which of the fol- 733. If the phenotype of pea pod color is deter-
lowing facts? mined by incomplete dominance, the com-
bination of an allele for yellow seeds and
A. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein an allele for green seeds yields blue seeds.
does not. Therefore, you would expect the F2 gen-
B. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas eration from an original cross of true-
protein does not. breeding green stock with true-breeding
C. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas pro- yellow stock to be:
tein does not. A. 25 percent yellow, 50 percent blue, 25
D. DNA contains purines, whereas pro- percent green.
tein includes pyrimidines. B. 67 percent green, 33 percent yellow.

C. 100 percent blue. C. ribosomes

D. 67 percent blue, 33 percent yellow. D. DNA
734. Which of the following statements about 737. A bacteriophage is than a bacterium.
biotechnology is not true? A. larger
A. Biotechnology is the use of nonliving B. smaller
substances to make living organisms or
parts of living organisms. C. darker
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Biotechnology causes an increase in D. lighter
job opportunities in the research field 738. System of the body that fights disease
C. Biotechnology is a quickly growing through white blood cells, antibodies, etc.
field with many questions and ethical is- A. Respiratory system
sues associated with it
B. Digestive system
D. Biotechnology is the use of living or-
ganisms to produce food, drugs or other C. Immune system (immunity)
items. D. none of above
735. The European corn borer is a pest whose 739. Which one of the following is NOT part
larvae cause damage to corn crops in the of the scientific method?
United States. Pesticides can be used to
A. experimentation
control the larvae. As an alternative, sci-
entists have developed a genetically engi- B. observation
neered form of corn called the Bt strain. C. assumption
It produces a toxin in its cells called Bt,
D. hypothesis
which is poisonous to the corn borer larvae.
Farmers who plant fields of Bt corn are re- 740. a DNA sequence that recognizes certain
quired by law to plant fields of non-Bt corn transcription of nearby genes
nearby as well.Which statement explains
why farmers would be required to plant A. inducer
non-Bt corn near Bt corn? B. operon
A. To provide controls for Bt toxin experi- C. enhancer
ments with corn borers D. homeobox
B. To keep corn borers from cross-
pollinating Bt and non-Bt corn 741. Where does transcription take place?
C. To slow reproductive selection for a Bt A. nucleus
toxin-resistant corn borer B. cytoplasm
D. To prevent movement of corn borers C. ribosome
from Bt to non-Bt corn fields
D. none of above
736. Which of the following is NOT found in 742. Why are single-stranded binding proteins
bacteria? necessary for DNA replication?
A. mitochondria A. They provide the energy necessary to
B. cytoplasm separate the two strands of DNA

B. They prevent the two parental strands 747. Which of the following is not made using
from coming together again bacteria?

C. They direct the primase where to lay A. pickles
down the primer B. yogurt
D. They direct where replication will start C. cheese
743. Which of the following genes would not D. pudding
likely be encoded on a plasmid? 748. Which one of the following is not a result
A. Genes encoding toxins that damage of RNA editing?
host tissue A. the recruitment of RNA polymerase fol-
B. Genes encoding antibacterial resis- lowing the binding of general transcrip-
tance tion factors
C. Genes encoding enzymes for glycoly- B. the production of different types of
sis proteins from mRNA transcripts for the
same gene within a single cell
D. Genes encoding enzymes for the
degradation of an unusual substrate C. the deamination of adenosine to pro-
duce inosine
744. What type of mutation occurs, when a D. the production of differently edited
base is subtracted from the sequence? mRNA transcripts from the same gene in
A. Deletion different cell types
B. Insertion 749. Which of the following processes occur in
C. Substitution the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?
D. none of above A. DNA replication and transcription
B. translation only
745. How are your chromosomes inherited?
C. DNA replication only
A. most of your chromosomes from your
D. DNA replication, transcription, and
mother
translation
B. most of your chromosomes from your
father 750. Griffith’s experiments advanced the
study of genetics by proving that
C. a random number of chromosomes
from each parent A. there is a chemical that contains ge-
netic information that can be passed from
D. half your chromosomes from your one organism to another
mother and half from your father.
B. bacteria can make people sick by in-
746. a regulatory protein that binds to an fecting them with a chemical that contains
operator and blocks transcription of the genetic information
genes of an operon C. the bacteria that can make mice sick
A. transcription factor are the same bacteria that can be grown
in culture dishes in a laboratory
B. homeobox
D. genetic information can be passed
C. repressor protein from parents to their offspring during sex-
D. gene expression ual reproduction

751. Humans with genetic diseases can have a 756. Malignancies develop stepwise overtime
gene inserted into their body using a virus. because:
This is called: A. it takes time for a benign tumor to be
A. Gene therapy able to dissolve through its encapsulation
before it can invade neighboring tissues.
B. Cloning
B. benign tumor cells divide slowly and in
a stepwise pattern
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. it takes multiple mutations of multiple
752. Which set includes only disorders that are genes to allow cancer cells to develop
influenced by both environmental and ge- D. cells keep leaving the benign tumor
netic factors? and are destroyed in lymph nodes
A. Red-Green Colorblindness, PKU
757. A true breeding black rabbit is crossed
B. Lead Poisoning, Cystic Fibrosis with a true breeding white rabbit to pro-
C. Diabetes, Cancer duce an F1generation with 8 individuals.
If blending inheritance were true, which
D. Asthma, Malnutrition of the following would represent the ex-
pected phenotype of the F1 generation?
753. Bacteriophages are
A. 6 black rabbits, 2 white rabbits, 0 grey
A. Viruses rabbits
B. Bacteria B. 8 black rabbits, 0 white rabbits, 0 grey
C. Prions rabbits
D. Viroids C. 0 black rabbits, 0 white rabbits, 8 grey
rabbits
754. By using radioactive isotopes, were
D. 2 black rabbits, 2 white rabbits, 4 grey
able to conclude that is/are the car-
rabbits
rier(s) of genetic information.
A. Hershey and Chase, DNA 758. Hershey and Chase used as tracers of
the DNA and protein
B. Hershey and Chase, Proteins
A. Chemiluminescence
C. Griffith, DNA
B. Radioactive isotopes
D. Rosalind F., DNA
C. Ions
755. Which of the following has the MOST D. None of these are correct
entropy, individual nucleotides or a nucle-
icacid? 759. Which of the following enzymes remove
A. individual nucleotides supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of
the replication fork?
B. a nucleic acid
A. DNA polymerases
C. The entropy of the nucleotides and nu-
cleic acid would be the same B. Helicases
D. It is impossible to determine the en- C. Primases

tropy of nucleotides or a nucleicacid D. Topoisomerases

760. Which of the following processes would C. bacteria with antibiotic resistance
result in gametes that violate Mendel’s D. a plant with bacterial DNA
principle of segregation?

A. nondisjunction 765. Which of the following statements is
true regarding mitochondrial diseases in
B. independent assortment humans?
C. dominance A. Due to the larger size of sperm carry-
D. epistasis ing X chromosomes, only females demon-
strate mitochondrial diseases.
761. a regulatory protein that binds to DNA B. Only the sons of a mother with a
and stimulates the transcription of certain mitochondrial disease will themselves
genes have the disease-daughters are rarely af-
A. genome fected.
B. transcription factor C. Mitochondrial diseases predominantly
show patterns of biparental inheri-
C. repressor protein
tance, with mitochondria being inherited
D. euchromatin (equally) from either the mother or father.
762. A is a small ring of DNA found in a D. None of the answer options is correct.
bacterial cell. 766. An explanation supported by a large
A. virus body of observations and experimentation
B. plasmid is referred to as a(n):
C. gene bullet A. prediction

B. theory
D. PCR
C. hypothesis
763. When we say that DNA replication is
D. investigation
semiconservative, we mean that:
A. only half of an organism’s DNA is repli- 767. The sugar in DNA is?
cated during each cell division A. sucrose
B. when DNA is replicated, each new dou- B. glucose
ble helix contains one parental strand and C. deoxyribose
one newlysynthesized daughter strand
D. fructose
C. when DNA is replicated, one double he-
lix contains both parental strands and one 768. Replica plating showed that mutations
containstwo newly synthesized daughter for antibiotic resistance are NOT induced
strands by the presence of the antibiotic because
antibiotic-resistant cells:
D. parental DNA stays in the parent cell
and daughter DNA ends up in the daugh- A. occur in colonies that never experi-
ter cell enced the antibiotic.
B. are able to form colonies in the ab-
764. Which is a transgenic organism?
sence of the antibiotic.
A. a mutation in an animal cell C. are able to form colonies in the pres-
B. an animal cell with no mutation ence of the antibiotic.

D. are unable to form colonies in the pres- D. Tumms

ence of the antibiotic.
774. What was the conclusion that Avery, Mc-
769. The complex of DNA, RNA, and associ- Carty, and MacLeod drew from their re-
ated proteins that gives shape to the chro- sults?
mosome is called:
A. DNA is responsible for transforming
A. chromatin.
type S cells into type S cells
B. histones.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA is responsible for transforming
C. a scaffold.
type R cells into type S cells
D. an operon.
C. DNA is responsible for transforming
770. Cold sores are caused by the herpes sim- type S cells into type R cells
plex virus type 1. A company that wants
D. none of above
to develop antiviral drugs would ask a re-
search immunologist to study-
775. Which is true:1) GMO’s are always trans-
A. the mechanism used by the virus to in- genic2) Vectors are always viruses
fect cells
A. both true
B. how closely related the virus is to cold
viruses B. both false
C. the metabolism of the virus C. 1) true
D. meiosis in the virus D. 1) false
771. Which of the following RNA molecules
serves as an adaptor molecule during pro- 776. What are the vectors for malaria and
tein synthesis West Nile Virus? Malaria is caused by
a protist (protozoan) and West Nile is a
A. rRNA virus.
B. mRNA
A. Mosquitos
C. tRNA
B. Ticks
D. SiRNA
C. Cats
772. Genes found on DNA contain the instruc-
tions for making D. none of above
A. pyrimidines
777. In a pedigree:
B. pyrimidines
A. males are circles; females are
C. proteins
squares
D. purines
B. females are circles; males are
773. Which of these is an example of an an- squares
tibiotic?
C. males are triangles, females are
A. Pencillin squares
B. Tylenol D. females are circles, males are trian-
C. Advil gles

778. What type of science allows us to alter 783. Which of the following chemical mutagen
the DNA of a bacterial cell to produce hu- affects only replicating DNA?
man insulin?

A. Acridine dye
A. Geology B. Alkylating agent
B. Chemistry C. Deaminating agent
C. Biology D. Base analog
D. Biotechnology
784. The work of scientists including Griffith,
779. The enzyme repairs breaks in the Avery, McLeod and Mclarty, and Hershey
DNA sugar-phosphate backbone. & Chase helped us to determine the are
responsible for carrying genetic material.
A. DNA ligase
A. Amino Acids
B. DNA polymerase
B. Proteins
C. AP endonuclease
C. Nucleic Acids
D. uracyl glycosylase
D. Carbohydrates
780. For a SNP with three alleles, how many
different diploid genotypes are possible? 785. Which answer choice would by comple-
mentary (match up) with the DNA strand
A. 3 ATGCATTCGA
B. 4 A. ATGCATTCGA
C. 5 B. TACGTAAGCT
D. 6 C. TACCTAAGGA
781. A vector in genetic engineering is D. ATGCCATGAA
A. plasmid or virus that contains or car- 786. What did Avery conclude caused transfor-
ries modified genetic material mation?
B. a host organism that is used to grow A. DNA was the transforming factor
up lots of copies of transfected DNA
B. A protein was the transforming factor
C. an organism that can carry a disease
C. A carbohydrate was the transforming
to a host
factor
D. CRISPR is an example
D. A lipid was the transforming factor
782. Which of the following mechanisms
787. In what way did gene therapy, the re-
would most likely be involved in repairing
placement of a faulty gene with a normal
a single point mutation?
one, stimulate medical research?
A. mismatch repair and/or excision re-
A. New medications had to be developed
pair
and tested.
B. base excision repair and/or nucleotide B. The effects of viral DNA had to be stud-
excision repair ied.
C. base excision repair C. The way in which DNA replicates had
D. nucleotide excision repair to be determined.

D. The genes on each chromosome had to 793. How does CRISPR differ from previous
be mapped and described. techniques of gene editing?
788. Whose experiment were Avery, McCarty A. slower, more expensive, but more ac-
and MacLeod trying to prove? curate
A. Thomas Hunt Morgan B. faster, cheaper, and more accurate
B. James Watson C. faster, more expensive, more accu-

rate
C. Francis Crick
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. slower, cheaper, less accurate
D. Frederick Griffith
794. an organism that lives in or on another is
789. The two-letter code that describes the ge-
called a
netic traits of an organism is called a-
A. parasite
A. Phenotype
B. paramedic
B. Genotype
C. pasadena
C. Physical Appearance
D. pair of dice
D. Intelligence
790. When DNA travels through a gel, which 795. In which ways can genetic engineering
of the following is true? can improve crops
A. the gel breaks down A. Make them pest or drought resistant
B. the shorter fragments travel the great- B. Make them more nutritious
est distance C. Make them larger
C. the DNA travels from positive to nega- D. All answers are correct
tive
796. CRISPR can change DNA in humans and
D. the longer fragments travel the great-
animals. What did scientists look at to
est distance
help them create CRISPR?
791. How do restriction enzymes “know” A. Sheep cloning
where to cut DNA
B. Palindromic repeats
A. A specific sequence of bases
C. Common Cold
B. They cut randomly
D. Bacteria fighting off viruses
C. Distance from the center
D. Distance from the end 797. Which diseases have been eradicated, or
at least mostly eradicated, by the use of
792. In an analysis of the nucleotide composi- vaccines?
tion of DNA, which of the following will be A. Polio and smallpox (viruses)
found?
B. Strep throat and ear infections (bacte-
A. A = C ria)
B. A = G and C = T C. Malaria and african sleeping sickness
C. A + C = G + T (protozoans
D. G + C = T + A D. Athlete’s foot and ringworm (fungi)

798. Which of the following is a fungal dis- B. DNA to RNA to protein

ease? C. protein to DNA to RNA

A. Malaria D. RNA to protein to DNA
B. Bronchitis
804. In fruit flies, what kind of eye color
C. Cold would be expressed in male progeny
D. Athlete’s foot from a white-eyed female and a red-eyed
male?
799. An unsaturated fatty acid contains: A. Half of the male progeny would have
A. only carbon and hydrogen. red eyes and half of the male progeny
B. only single covalent bonds between would have white eyes (1:1 ratio of eye
carbon atoms. color in males).
C. one or more double bonds between B. All males would have white eyes.
carbon atoms. C. All males would have red eyes.
D. one or more double bonds between hy- D. none of above
drogen atoms. 805. Scientists in North Carolina are working
800. Which scientist(s) modeled the shape of to create liquid fuels from organic matter.
DNA as a double helix? What effect will this discovery most likely
have on careers in the state?
A. Hershey and Chase
A. It will reduce or eliminate jobs in
B. Griffith waste management.
C. Watson and Crick B. It will create more jobs in the pharma-
D. Franklin ceutical industry.
C. It will create more jobs in energy pro-
801. Human eggs and sperm are , and each
duction.
has chromosomes.
D. It will reduce or eliminate the number
A. diploid, 23
of engineering jobs.
B. diploid, 46
806. Gene therapy is when:
C. haploid, 23
A. A person’s genes are edited
D. haploid, 46
B. New genes are added to a person’s
802. What is epistasis? genome
A. when one gene effects the expression C. Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the
of another gene human genome
B. the recessive allele D. Stem cells are used to cure a disease
C. none of the answers are correct 807. Which enzyme glues DNA together?
D. the dominant allele A. Ligase
B. Plasmid
803. What is the flow of genetic information
in cells from DNA to protein? (Central C. restriction
Dogma) D. vector
A. RNA to DNA to protein E. transgenic

808. Increased use of antibiotics has killed of 812. Biologists have found that a virus is
bacterial populations that were most sus- quickly infecting the population of bumble-
ceptible to antibiotic treatment. Conse- bee catfish in a local stream. Though the
quently, many strains of bacteria are re- virus has not yet been analyzed, the bi-
sistant to prescription drugs. What is the ologists believe that it may be a threat
mechanisms by which these resistant bac- to other organisms in the stream. Which
teria have been allowed to thrive? of the following organisms would be most
A. mutation likely to get infected by the virus?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. natural selection A. Crawfish
C. speciation B. Elodea (aquatic plant)
D. germination C. armored Catfish
809. In bacteriophage lambda, the choice be- D. Salamander
tween the lytic and lysogenic pathways
is often thought of as sort of a race be- 813. In Griffith’s experiment, he mixed heat-
tween the production of pro protein and killed S-strain bacteria with live, harmless
production of cI protein. What pathway bacteria from the R-strain. When this mix-
would likely predominate in a mutant in ture was injected into mice, the mice
which cro was over expressed relative to
in a wild-type virus? In a mutant in which A. died
cro was underexpressed relative to a wild-
B. remained healthy
type virus?
A. lysogenic, lysogenic C. began to speak
B. lytic, lysogenic D. became immune
C. lytic, lytic
814. A phenotype is:
D. lysogenic, lytic
A. one of several forms of a gene
810. The most common isotope of oxygen has
8 protons and an atomic mass of 16. How B. the particular combination of alleles
many neutrons are present in the oxygen present in a given organism
nucleus? C. the expression of a trait in an individ-
A. 2 ual
B. 4 D. the location of a gene on a chromo-
C. 6 some
D. 8
815. Eukaryotic DNA has more replication
811. When scientists say that DNA infor- forks than prokaryotic DNA, because it has
mation, they mean that it passes informa- more starting places or
tion from one generation to the next.
A. origins of replication
A. retrieves
B. nucleotides
B. loads
C. transmits C. ways to reproduce
D. copies D. duplication spoons

816. Name the area of a bacterial cell which C. recombine DNA

contains a bacterial chromosome. D. extract DNA

A. DNA
821. What is the first mechanism to repair mu-
B. Nucleus
tations in DNA?
C. Nucleoid
A. mismatch repair
D. Cell wall
B. polymerase
817. The diagram above displays the proteins C. NER
and enzymes involved in the replication of
DNA. If a defect caused the protein labeled D. ligase
“SSB” to fall apart, what is the most likely 822. Which statement is true about DNA repli-
direct result? cation in prokaryotes, but not about repli-
A. The DNA helix would re-coil, making cation in eukaryotes?
transcription impossible.
A. Replication begins at multiple origins.
B. The DNA strand would be copied twice.
B. Replication is unidirectional from the
C. DNA polymerase on the leading strand origin(s).
would combine with DNA polymerase on
C. Replication from a single origin may be
the lagging strand.
unidirectional or bidirectional.
D. Okazaki fragments could not be con-
D. There are numerous different bacte-
nected together.
rial chromosomes, with replication occur-
818. Which of the following units are repeat- ring in each at the same time.
edly joined together to form a strand of
823. Conjugation must occur to transfer which
DNA?
of the following between bacterial cells?
A. amino acids
A. Antibiotic Sensitivity Gene
B. nucleotides
B. Antibiotic Resistance Gene
C. fatty acids
C. Vacuoles
D. polysaccharides
D. Vesicles
819. precursor mRNA; the first strand of
mRNA produced by gene transcription that 824. The first class of drugs developed to treat
contains both introns and exons AIDS, such as AZT, were known as reverse
transcriptase inhibitors. They worked be-
A. pre-mRNA cause they
B. homeobox
A. targeted and destroyed the viral
C. gene expression genome before it could be reverse tran-
D. structural gene scribed into DNA
B. bonded to the dsDNA genome of the
820. One function of gel electrophoresis is to virus in such a way that it could not sep-
arate for replication to occur
A. separate DNA fragments C. bonded to the viral reverse transcrip-
B. cut DNA tase enzyme, thus preventing the virus

from making a DNA copy of its RNA 829. How did Rosalind Franklin’s photo 51 af-
genome fect the work of Watson and Crick?
D. prevented host cells from producing A. It was used to determine the physical
the enzymes used by the virus to replicate structure of DNA
its genome
B. It was used to identify the four bases
825. Mutation rates (per nucleotide per repli- that make up DNA
cation):
C. It was used to determine the theory of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. are lower in organisms with larger independent assortment
genomes
D. It was used to show DNA was the
B. are similar across organisms molecule of inheritance
C. are higher in organisms with larger
genomes 830. Which information was most important
D. are highest in viruses to the development of genetic engineering
techniques?
826. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
A. the observation of nondominant alle-
A. sex cells les
B. somatic cells
B. the discovery of lethal genes
C. body cells
C. the formulation of Punnett squares
D. skin cells
D. the structure of the DNA molecule
827. Which of the below biotechnological ad-
vances is MOST beneficial to Florida FARM- 831. The expression (how it shows in the or-
ERS? ganism) of a trait is directly dependent on
A. Development of disease resistant the
plants for higher yields A. arrangement of amino acids in the pro-
B. Development of more effective human tein that is synthesized
vaccines
B. shape of the subunits in the DNA
C. The ability to create more antibiotics molecule
from bacteria
C. number of chromosomes present in
D. Producing enzymes to eliminate pollu-
the nucleus
tants
D. sequence of bases coded for by the ri-
828. The bond that forms between amino bosome
acids:
A. connects amino groups and carboxyl 832. Which of the following includes the
groups of adjacent amino acids. biggest environmental problems of to-
B. connects hydrogen atoms of adjacent day?
amino acids. A. cancer, smoking
C. connects amino groups and R groups B. cardiovascular disease, cystic fibrosis
of adjacent amino acids.
C. malnutrition, lead poisoning
D. A peptide bond can form between any
chemical groups of adjacent amino acids. D. influenza, sickle cell anemia

833. Which of the following is NOT one of the 838. What does GMO stand for?
net final products of glycolysis? A. Genetics Modification Organics

A. two molecules of pyruvate B. Genetically Modified Oranges
B. two molecules of ATP
C. Genetically Made Oranges
C. two molecules of NADH
D. Genetically Modified Organisms
D. two molecules of acetyl-CoA
839. Which one of the following amino acids is
834. What enzyme works to add DNA to ends capable of forming a disulfide linkage with
of chromosomes in rapidly dividing cells itself?
such as those found in an embryo, to pre-
A. tyrosine
vent genes from being lost during replica-
tion? B. cysteine
A. DNA polymerase C. arginine
B. histones D. isoleucine
C. telomerase 840. Of the choices below, what is the MOST
D. chromatin likely reason that paracrine signaling does
not activate the cell that is producing the
835. Which of the following is a critical region
signaling molecule?
of a tRNA molecule?
A. The concentration of the signaling
A. amino acid attachment site and start
molecule is not high enough
codon
B. The neighboring cells are too far away
B. anticodon loop and ribosome binding
site C. The cell does not have the proper re-
ceptor
C. amino acid attachment site and anti-
codon loop D. The cell’s receptors have a mutation
D. ribosome binding site and 5’ cap 841. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal binding
836. Process by which bacteria reproduce site on mRNA is called
asexually A. Hogness sequence
A. binary fission B. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B. transduction C. Pribnow sequence
C. transformation D. TATA box
D. conjugation
842. Referring to the following mRNA se-
837. Chargaff contributed to the understand- quence, 5’AUGAGACUUACCGAA3’, what
ing of DNA by figuring out that the per- would the anti-codon look like if the sec-
centages of were almost equal in any ond nucleotide of the fourth codon was mu-
sample of DNA. tated to “U”?
A. adenine and thymine A. 3’TAG5’
B. thymine and guanine B. 3’ UAG5’
C. guanine and deoxyribose C. 3’ AAC5’
D. deoxyribose and adenine D. 3’ AUG5’

843. A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, B. mRNA joins with the ribisome to be-
is called a gin making a polypeptide beginning at the
A. plasmid start codon
C. tRNAs bring amino acids to the ribi-
B. recombinant
some to join the growing polypeptide
C. nucleus
D. The ribisome reaches a stop codon and
D. base releases a newly synthesized polypeptide
E. virus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
849. Which 2 molecules form the sides (back-
844. The process to go from mRNA to a pro- bone) of the DNA ladder?
tein is called A. deoxyribose sugar and adenine
A. transcription B. deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen
bond
B. rRNA
C. deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
C. replication
D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
D. translation
850. What disease is recognized by XXY sex
845. In preparation for an electrophoresis pro- chromosomes?
cedure, restriction enzymes are added to
A. huntington’s
DNA in order to
B. turner
A. convert the DNA into gel
C. klinfelter’s
B. cut the DNA into fragments
D. none of above
C. change the color of the DNA
851. Which best describes the technique of ge-
D. produce longer sections of DNA
netic engineering?
846. What stores information in a cell? A. Adding foreign DNA to organisms to
A. proteins modify the organism’s DNA
B. carbohydrates B. Manufacturing synthetic DNA in the
laboratory from chemicals
C. lipids
C. Cutting segments of DNA of an organ-
D. DNA ism under a microscope
847. Who was the first adult mammal success- D. Exposing DNA of an organism to ra-
fully cloned? dioactivity for mutations
A. Dolly the Sheep 852. What is the role of operons in prokaryote
B. Copy Cat the Cat gene expression?
A. It makes the genes prokaryotes be
C. Double Donald the Duck
turned on
D. Agouti Gout the Mouse
B. It accounts for the regulation of gene
848. Which of the following does NOT occur activity in response to the needs of the
during translation? cells
A. DNA information is copied into a mRNA C. To make DNA for the gene
molecule D. To make the gene turn of and off

853. What was Watson and Crick’s main sci- D. GTP supplies phosphates and energy
entific accomplishment? to make ATP from ADP.

A. Building the first accurate model of 858. When transferring tRNA to amino acids,
DNA the process cannot begin until it reaches a
B. Isolating strains of pneumonia causing
bacteria
A. Beginning codon
C. Determining base pairing rules
B. Start codon
D. Discovering the process of genetic
C. Initiator codon
transformation
D. Anticodon
854. What determines the code, or informa-
tion, of a DNA molecule? 859. Hershey & Chase used radioactive to
label the DNA core of the bacteriophage.
A. the shape (structure) of the nitrogen
bases A. Phosphorus
B. the order (sequence) of the nitrogen B. Nitrogen
bases C. Carbon
C. the color of the nitrogen bases D. Sulfur
D. the frequency (number) of nitrogen
bases 860. Genetic engineering has been used to pro-
duce
855. he was responsible for the incorrect
A. medicines.
tetranucleotide hypothesis.
B. food animals.
A. Ross Franklin
C. improved crops.
B. Frederick Meischer
D. more intelligent humans
C. Phoebus Levene
D. Linus Pauling 861. What is most likely the greatest eco-
nomic benefit for North Carolina from
856. bacteria reproduces using biotechnology?
A. binary fission A. improvements in DNA testing leading
B. mitosis to more arrests
C. sexual reproduction B. fewer people who use laboratory-
created human insulin
D. splitting
C. increased disease-resistant crops and
857. What is the function of GTP in transla- greater crop yields
tion?
D. none of above
A. GTP energizes the formation of the ini-
tiation complex, using initiation factors. 862. During DNA methylation
B. GTP hydrolyzes to provide phosphate A. mRNA molecules are prohibited from
groups for tRNA binding. being translated
C. GTP hydrolyzes to provide energy for B. a methyl cap is added to the 5’ end to
making peptide bonds. prevent DNA degredation

C. transcription factor proteins recruit C. Viruses

RNA polymerase initiating transcription
D. Cyanobacteria
D. chromatin becomes more tightly
packed 868. The entire collection of genes within hu-
man cells is referred to as the
863. In general, when cytosine bases in CpG
islands are methylated: A. human genome
A. translation is repressed B. karyotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. transcription is active and rapid C. pedigree
C. transcription is repressed D. gene map
D. transcription is active but slow
869. are weak bonds that hold the two
864. If protein had been responsible for car- strands of DNA together, but also allow
rying genetic information, Hershey and the DNA to separate and replicate.
Chase would have observed that their bac- A. Hydrogen bonds
teria were marked with radioactive
B. Covalent bonds
A. phosphorus
B. sulfur C. Ionic Bonds
C. sugar D. True bonds

D. hydrogen 870. Which scientist made x-ray diffraction
865. The first event that happens after a sig- photos of DNA?
naling molecule binds to a receptor is: A. Franklin
A. the receptor transmits the message in B. Chargaff
a process called signal transduction
C. Watson
B. there is a cellular response
D. Avery
C. the receptor is activated
D. the signal is quickly terminated to en- 871. A point mutation that creates a prema-
sure a moderate response ture stop codon is called a mutation.
866. A pair of shared valence electrons is re- A. synonymous (silent)

ferred to as a(n): B. nonsynonymous (missense)
A. ionic bond. C. nonsense
B. hydrogen bond. D. translation
C. van der Waals interaction
872. In cellular respiration, glucose is to
D. covalent bond.
CO2 and oxygen is to water.
867. The bacteria Kingdom where you can find A. oxidized; reduced
bacteria from extreme environments is
called B. reduced; oxidized
A. Archaebacteria C. deoxygenated; phosphorylated
B. Eubacteria D. oxidized; oxidized

873. What binds to the prokaryotic chromo- 878. Which produces offspring from a single
some to start DNA replication? cell of an adult?

A. replication forks A. inbreeding.
B. regulatory proteins B. mutations.
C. chromatids C. hybridization.
D. telomeres D. cloning.
879. A new variety of rice called golden rice

874. Which of the following represents the ex-
has been genetically modified to have vita-
pected genotypes of an F1 generation con-
min A. People in starving countries can eat
sisting of 16 individuals from a cross of a
this rice and receive the vitamin A. With-
true-breeding black (BB) rabbit and a true-
out this rice people go blind from vitamin
breeding white (bb) rabbit?
A deficiency. What word(s) below best de-
A. 8 BB, 8 bb, 0 Bb scribes this rice?
B. 4 BB, 4 bb, 8 Bb A. electrophoresis
C. 0 BB, 0 bb, 16 Bb B. DNA fingerprinting
D. 16 BB, 0 bb, 0 Bb C. G.M.O
D. clone
875. As a piece of linear DNA is replicated, the
leading strand will have RNA primer(s) 880. When Mendel crossed true-breeding yel-
and the lagging strand will have RNA low seed plants with true-breeding green
primer(s). seed plants, the offspring were phenotyp-
ically:
A. one; one
A. yellow seed
B. one; two
B. green seed
C. one; many
C. a mixture of yellow and green seed
D. many; one
D. made up of a combination of yellow
876. What are the base-pairing rules in DNA? and green alleles
A. A-C, G-T 881. The sodium-potassium pump is an exam-
B. A-U, G-C ple of:
A. a symporter.
C. A-T, G-C
B. passive transport.
D. A-C, G-U
C. an antiporter.
877. What term is used to express creating an D. channel-mediated diffusion.
identical copy of a gene or organism?
A. hybridization 882. If the percentage of DNA is made of 30%
Thymine, what is the correct percentage of
B. inbreeding Guanine?
C. cloning A. 30
D. gene splicing B. 15

C. 20 B. Presence of lactose in the growth me-

D. 60 dia
C. Presence of IPTG (isopropyl thiogalac-
883. The group represented by a large pro- toside) in the growth media
portion of the progeny, deriving from ma-
ternal gametes containing alleles present D. Both (b) and (c)
in the same combinations as found in the
mother’s Xchromosomes, is called the 888. Which of the following statements is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
group. TRUE regarding Louis Pasteur?
A. parental A. His work demonstrated that life can
B. recombinant arise spontaneously, without the input of
other organisms.
C. transgenic
B. His work demonstrated that maggots
D. nonrecombinant
are produced by flies (i.e., higher organ-
884. In Griffith’s experiment, from the isms do not arise spontaneously); how-
harmful bacteria transferred to the harm- ever, it did not address microbial life.
less bacteria, and transformed them. C. His work using broth and swan-neck
A. DNA flasks demonstrated that microbes are
produced by other microbes.
B. protein
C. carbohydrates D. His work did not support the findings
of Francesco Redi, who believed that life
D. lipids could arise spontaneously.
885. The parts of a gene that do NOT code for
amino acids in a protein are called 889. If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine,
what percentage of the sample contains cy-
A. introns tosine?
B. exons A. 13%
C. codons
B. 37%
D. anticodons
C. 26%
886. Which kingdoms of life have eukaryotic
D. 74%
cells?
A. Bacteria and fungi 890. Which of the following CORRECTLY lists
B. Animals, plants, protists, and fungi the types of cellular communication from
shortest to longest distance traveled by
C. Plants, bacteria, animals the signaling molecule to reach its respond-
D. none of above ing cell?
887. Which of the following conditions would A. paracrine, autocrine, endocrine

cause the release of the lac repressor pro- B. autocrine, endocrine, paracrine
tein from the lac operator site on DNA?
C. autocrine, paracrine, endocrine
A. Presence of glucose in the growth me-
dia D. endocrine, paracrine, autocrine

891. Two parents have the genotype Gg for a B. repressor.

genetic disorder caused by a dominant al- C. amplifier.
lele. What is the chance that any of their

children will inherit the disorder? D. inducer.
A. 25% 896. Enveloped virus such as the COVD-19
B. 50% A. are easy to kill with soap
C. 75% B. are very difficult to kill
D. 100% C. have a membrane that prevents the
892. At the end of glycolysis, the carbon virus from changing
molecules originally found in the starting D. Can not be killed with heat
glucose molecule are in the form of:
897. Which process is used to copy DNA in the
A. one pyruvate molecule
nucleus?
B. two pyruvate molecules
A. replication
C. two ATP molecules
B. transcription
D. two NADH molecules
C. translation
893. Which is true regarding bacterial and vi- D. none of above
ral infections?
A. Bacterial infections are treated with 898. An antibiotic is a drug used to kill
antibiotics, while viral infections can be A. bacteria
prevented through use of vaccines.
B. latent viruses
B. Viral infections are treated with vac-
cines, while bacterial infections are pre- C. viruses
vented through use of antibiotics. D. none of above
C. Viral infections are treated with an-
899. Viruses are not
tibiotics, while bacterial infections are
treated with vaccines. A. living
D. Both viral infections and bacterial in- B. cells
fections are treated with vaccines. C. organisms
894. A disease caused by genetic and environ- D. all of the above
mental factors.
900. Why do we need meiosis?
A. Asthma
A. To double the number of chromosomes
B. Red-Green Colorblindness
going into sex cells
C. Chicken Pox
B. To halve the number of chromosomes
D. Cystic Fibrosis going into sex cells
895. A small molecule that binds to a repres- C. To triple the number of chromosomes
sor protein and prevents it from binding to going into sex cells
DNA is called a(n): D. To not change the number of chromo-
A. enhancer. somes going into sex cells

901. Transgenic organisms contain C. The risk increases with the father’s
A. genes from other species. age
B. cells of another organism. D. Most affected fetuses undergo sponta-

neous abortion
C. genes of only one parent.
906. What did Erwin Chargaff conclude from
D. one or more human genes.
his experiments?
902. Because of base pairing in DNA, the per- A. Nitrogen bases are held together by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
centage of peptide bonds
A. adenine molecules in DNA is about B. A and T, C and G always occur in equal
equal to the percentage of guanine amounts
molecules C. Proteins are the carriers of genetic in-
B. adenine molecules in DNA is much formation
higher than the percentage of thymine D. C and G rarely occur in eukaryotic or-
molecules ganisms
C. thymine molecules in DNA is about
equal to the percentage of adenine 907. Which of the following best describes
molecules Rosalind Franklin’s contribution to our un-
derstanding of the structure of DNA?
D. cytosine molecules in DNA is much
greater than the percentage of guanine A. She created many models of DNA
molecules based on what was known about its prop-
erties, and eventually figured out that the
903. Which option most closely relates to how structure is a double helix
CRISPR-Cas9 works? B. She purified large amounts of DNA,
A. “measure and cut” stretched the fibers so the strands were
parallel, and used an X-ray beam to pro-
B. “cut and paste”
duce an image of the molecules
C. “seek and destroy”
C. She isolated DNA from many organ-
D. “trash and burn” isms, and discovered that in every sample,
the amount of guanine was almost exactly
904. Name the three cell shapes of prokary- equal to the amount of cytosine
otes
D. She used radioactive phosphorus and
A. rod, circle spiral sulfur to produce radioactive viruses, then
B. cocci, bacilli, spirilli allowed these viruses to infect bacteria.
She found that DNA was the transforming
C. crystal, tube, spaghetti
material
D. none of above
908. Which example best illustrates a pan-
905. Which of the following statements is demic?
TRUE about Klinefelter syndrome (47, A. In the late 1400’s, native populations
XXY )? were almost wiped out by European dis-
A. Nondisjunction is the usual cause eases.
B. Affected males can reproduce nor- B. In 1854, cholera spread through Lon-
mally don, killing 12.5% of the population.

C. In 1918, the Spanish flu caused mil- 913. What is a TATA box? What does a TATA
lions of deaths worldwide. box do?

D. Last year, seasonal flu was responsi- A. A short region of DNA that contains a
ble for thousands of deaths in the United sequence of T and A base pairs. The pro-
States. tein that binds to this site helps position
RNA polymerase.
909. Bacteria that needs oxygen to survive is B. A group of genes that are regulated to-
said to be gether.
A. aerobic C. They control transcription. Some of
B. photosynthetic these regulatory proteins help switch
genes on, while others turn genes off.
C. decomposing
D. Regulate their activities, producing
D. consuming only those genes necessary for the cellto
function.
910. What possible risks are there to genetic
modification of designer babies? 914. Making an identical copy of an entire or-
ganism is
A. New forms of illnesses may arise
A. genetic transformation
B. May remove certain genes off target
that are important for the baby’s overall B. therapeutic cloning
development and growth C. reproductive cloning
C. Both Options D. transcriptive cloning
D. Neither Options 915. Humans with hypohidrotic ectodermal
dysplasia have defects in the formation
911. The only way to cure a genetic disease is and function of their sweat glands. Males
to. with the condition have have reduced abil-
A. transplant affected tissue ity to sweat over their entire body. Fe-
males with the condition lose the ability
B. change the affected DNA sequence to sweat only in patches of skin. Where
C. induce mutations in affected gene must the gene that encodes this trait be
located?
D. remove the affected gene
A. in an autosome
912. Aflatoxin is a naturally occurring sub- B. in the Y chromosome
stance found in moldy grain and peanuts.
C. in the X chromosome
Although some aflatoxins are poisonous,
others are considered to be mutagens, D. none of above
meaning that they
916. Felicia observed that the lettuce plants
A. will “mute” or reduce the effect of ul- in her garden wilted after several days of
traviolet light. drought. The next day there was a down-
pour of rain, and the leaves began to swell.
B. cause cancer.
What cellular process caused this effect in
C. cause damage to DNA. the lettuce plants? (SB1d)
D. will enhance transcription of DNA. A. osmosis

B. photosynthesis A. Rose is predisposed to develop emphy-

C. active transport sema, but if Sam does, this will be a ran-
dom occurrence; environmental factors or
D. cellular respiration lifestyle choices (such as smoking) have
not been associated with emphysema
917. What is recombinant DNA?
B. Given that a mutation in alpha-1 an-
A. DNA containing genes foreign to that
titrypsin serves a “protective” function
organism
against the development of emphysema,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA which has been impacted by epi- Rose will not develop this disease but Sam
genetics will
C. DNA that has restriction enzymes C. It is possible that neither Rose nor
D. DNA that has been sequenced Sam will develop emphysema; however,
the fact that both sisters smoke-added to
918. Why are viruses considered nonliving? the mutation that Rose carries-increase
their chances of developing this disease
A. They cannot reproduce outside of a
host cell. D. As both sisters smoke, Rose and Sam
B. They are microbes. will certainly develop emphysema; how-
ever, given her mutation, Rose will likely
C. They have a protein capsule. develop a much more serious form of the
D. none of above disease
919. What happens in the lysogenic cycle? 922. Emma visited her family doctor in Novem-
ber to receive a flu vaccination, as it has
A. Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
been a very harsh flu season. As the doc-
B. Virus quickly kills the host cell tor escorted Emma to the checkout station,
C. Virus inject the nucleic acid into the he reminded her that it is very important
host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates that she return next year to receive an-
into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant other flu shot. Why must Emma get a new
for a long time flu vaccination every year?
D. Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell A. Because her immunities will wear off.
B. Because the doctor wants to make
920. In which phase of mitosis do chromo- more money by selling more vaccines.
somes line up at the middle of the cell?
C. Because the influenza virus mutates
A. prophase rapidly and this year’s vaccine will not be
B. metaphase effective against next year’s flu.
C. anaphase D. Because the vaccine builds up in a per-
D. telophase son’s system. The more vaccines Emma
receives the higher her immunity to the
921. Imagine that you know two sisters-Rose virus.
and Sam-both of whom smoke. Rose has
a mutation in the gene for alpha-1 antit- 923. Complete the sentence:Recombinant DNA
rypsin, whereas Sam does not. Which of consists of a of an organism and
the following statements is true regarding it into a different one.
these sisters? A. gene, inserting, isolating

B. gene, isolating, inserting D. mice

C. inserting, isolating, gene 927. Which position of a codon is said to wob-

D. isolating, gene, inserting ble?
924. Lake Lanier is a man-made lake in Geor- A. First

gia. The floor of the lake is filled with B. Second
dead trees and construction debris remain- C. Third
ing from the time of its construction. Over
time, these items have become the natu- D. Fourth
ral habitat of the organisms living in the
928. How many daughter cells are produced
lake. A new species of fish were trans-
from meiosis?
ferred from a natural lake to Lake Lanier.
The fish turns out to hungrily consume two A. 10
other species of fish in the lake, eventually B. 6
causing their extinction. What is a correct
C. 4
description of this circumstance?
D. 2
A. The species diversity of the ecosystem
initially increased, then decreased. 929. Transformation can be defined as the up-
B. The genetic diversity of the fish initially take and expression of by a living cell.
increased, then decreased. A. mRNA
C. The genetic diversity of the ecosystem B. foreign DNA
immediately decreased.
C. proteins
D. The species diversity of the ecosystem
D. identical DNA
immediately decreased.
930. This project was established to identify
925. Stem cell research has been a controver-
all 300, 000+ genes found in our DNA.
sial subject in past years. What is the rea-
son for this? A. Human genome project
A. Cells for study are often taken from hu- B. Animal DNA study
man embryos. C. Human genetics road map project
B. Stem cell techniques will not accom- D. The DNA solution
plish the intended purpose.
C. The cells cannot be isolated. 931. In the lac operon, the presence of lactose
the repressor. This is called an
D. Replacement tissue will never be operon.
grown from a person’s own stem cells.
A. activates; repressible
926. What organism was Griffith using when B. releases, repressible
he discovered that a harmless strain of
bacteria could transform into a lethal C. activates; inducible
strain of bacteria? D. releases; inducible
A. pea plants 932. Chromosomes in which the normal order
B. fruit flies of a block of genesis reversed contain a(n)
C. bacteriophages A. duplication

B. insertion 937. In human development, the zygote differ-

entiates into heart cells, brain cells, and
C. inversion
liver cells. Which statement is correct re-
D. reciprocal translocation garding the cells and the DNA?
933. How do you create recombinant DNA? A. The DNA of the zygote differs from the
DNA of all the other cells.
A. First, cut the gene and plasmid with
B. The DNA of the zygote differs from
the same restriction enzyme. Second, in-
some, but not all, of the other cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sert the gene into the plasmid.
C. All cells have identical DNA.
B. First, insert the gene into the plasmid.
Second, cut the gene and plasmid with the D. Only the zygote contains DNA.
same restriction enzyme.
938. Which of the following is NOT true about
C. First, cut the gene and plasmid with eukaryotic DNA replication?
different restriction enzymes. Second, in-
sert the gene into the plasmid. A. DNA replication is semiconservative.
D. First, insert the gene into the plasmid. B. DNA replication begins at multiple ori-
Second, cut the gene and plasmid with dif- gins or sequences.
ferent restriction enzymes. C. DNA replication occurs continuously
on both strands.
934. Which of the following is not a genetic
D. DNA replication proceeds in both direc-
disorder?
tions from each origin in a replication bub-
A. Chicken Pox ble.
B. Down Syndrome
939. The reactions in the pathways of glycol-
C. Huntington’s ysis and the citric acid cycle break down
glucose into smaller molecules. Therefore,
D. Hemophilia
these pathways:
935. Which stage of cellular respiration occurs A. are catabolic pathways
immediately after pyruvate is produced?
B. are anabolic pathways
A. glycolysis
C. take place in animal cells, but not in
B. pyruvate oxidation plant cells
C. citric acid cycle D. involve the reduction of glucose and its
metabolic intermediates
D. oxidative phosphorylation
940. Devin got his wisdom teeth removed and
936. Strawberries have been created to resist his mouth is swollen. His doctor tells him
the harmful effects of frost. This is an ap- to rinse his mouth with a warm saltwa-
plication of what? (SB2c) ter solution every few hours. How does
A. genetic engineering the saltwater solution help heal Devin’s
mouth? (SB1d)
B. gene therapy
A. The salt water is a hypertonic solution,
and the swollen cells in Devin’s mouth will
D. cloning release water through osmosis.

B. The salt water is a hypotonic solution, D. stop mutation

and the swollen cells in Devin’s mouth will
take in water through osmosis. 944. Cows are selectively bred to produce

milk. Which of the following will cause the
C. The salt water is a hypotonic solution, next generation to receive the trait to pro-
and the swollen cells in Devin’s mouth will duce large quantities of milk?
release water through diffusion
A. nutrients in their food
D. The salt water is a hypertonic solution,
and the swollen cells in Devin’s mouth will B. mineral in their water
take in water through diffusion. C. electrical impulses to their brains
D. information in their chromosomes
941. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral in-
fections because 945. using living things or parts of living
A. viruses are protected inside their host things to produce a product or solve a prob-
cells lem
B. viruses have enzymes that inactivate A. biotechnology
the antibiotics B. tissue culturing
C. antibiotics interfere with metabolic C. bioremediation
processes that viruses do not perform D. transgenic
D. none of above
946. Which virus replication cycle results in the
942. In October of 1990, the US Department immediate death of the host cell?
of Energy’s Office of Science and the US A. Carbon Cycle
National Institute of Health began the pro-
cess of mapping the human genome. This B. Lysogenic Cycle
process was referred to as The Human C. Nitrogen Cycle
Genome Project and was intended to iden- D. Lytic Cycle
tify the 20, 000-25, 000 genes of the
human genome. A working draft of the 947. The “on/off” switch for an operon is
genome was announced in 2000 and a called the
complete one in 2003. Which of the fol- A. promoter
lowing describes the main benefit of com-
B. repressor
pleting The Human Genome Project?
C. operator
A. Cloning humans
D. gene
B. Designing new human genes
C. Patenting specific human genes 948. A woman has a gene that causes a visual
disorder. To prevent the disorder from ap-
D. Identifying genetically-based diseases
pearing in future generations, the defec-
943. A point mutation that causes no change tive gene would have to be repaired in the
in the amino acid sequence of a protein is mother’s
called a: A. nervous system
A. synonymous (silent) mutation B. reproductive cells
B. nonsynonymous (missense) mutation C. eyes
C. nonsense mutation D. uterus

949. In which cells is the accurate transmission A. DNA polymerase

of genetic information important? B. helicase
A. nerve cells C. topoisomerase II
B. skin cells D. DNA ligase
C. sex cells
955. How do we describe transformation in
D. bone cells bacteria?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
950. Which of the following best describes A. the creation of a strand of DNA from
“gel electrophoresis? ” an RNA molecule
A. A tool for separating chunks of DNA B. the creation of a strand of RNA from a
DNA molecule
B. A tool for editing someone’s genes
C. the infection of cells by a phage DNA
C. A tool for adding genes from a new
molecule
species into an organism’s DNA
D. assimilation of external DNA into a cell
D. Copying DNA to make an identical or-
ganism 956. A patient is about to receive chemother-
apy and the doctor is concerned with dis-
951. The presence of tryptophan the re-
pensing the correct dosage. Certain people
pressor of the trp operon. Therefore this
cannot metabolize this type of chemical be-
is a operon.
cause they have a mutation that changes
A. activates; inducible a codon for valine into one for asparagine.
B. releases; inducible How would such a mutation be classified?
C. activates; repressible A. RFLP
D. releases; repressible B. CNV
C. PCR
952. A clone is
D. SNP
A. recombinant DNA
B. a transgenic organism 957. Scientists have cloned sheep but have not
yet cloned a human. The best explanation
C. plasmid
for this situation is that
D. genetically identical
A. the technology to clone humans has
953. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated not been explored
chromosomeABBC-DEFWhat type of mu- B. human reproduction is very different
tation? from that of other mammals
A. duplication C. there are many ethical problems in-
B. point volved in cloning humans
C. frameshift D. cloning humans would take too long
D. deletion 958. What does the prefix hetero-in heterozy-

gous mean?
954. The enzyme responsible for proof reading
a growing DNA strand and for replacing A. same
mismatched nucleotides is: B. different

C. dating the double helix→ Chargaff’s ratios of nu-

D. human cleotides
C. Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides →

959. Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phos- Watson and Crick identify the double he-
phate, and lix → Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction
A. nucleic acid photo of DNA
B. fatty acid D. Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides →
Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo
C. carbohydrate
of DNA → Watson and Crick identify the
D. nitrogenous base double helix
960. Identical twins were separated at birth 963. The different forms of a gene are called
and raised by two different families.
A. traits
Years later, one twin was a physically
fit member of the cross-country team, B. chromosomes
and the other twin was overweight with C. alleles
slightly higher-than-normal blood pres-
D. peas
sure. The differences in these twins could
be explained by the fact that 964. What is the term for one of the three-
A. the genes in the two individuals are part units composing the segment of DNA
completely different above?
B. in twins, each individual inherits genes A. Nucleic Acid
from only one parent B. Pyrimidine
C. the DNA bases in twins combine differ- C. Purine
ently
D. Nucleotide
D. the environment can influence the ex-
pression of genes 965. What is an operon and in what type of
organism is it found?
961. Viruses contain nucleic acids and
A. Group of genes that work together and
A. protein it is found in eukaryotes
B. sugars B. Group of genes that work together and
C. cytoplasm found in prokaryotes
D. ribosomes C. Individual genes, separated, that are
found in eukaryotes
962. What is the chronological order of the
D. Individual genes, separated, that are
important discoveries in the structure of
found in prokaryotes
DNA?
A. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction 966. Round shaped bacteria is called
photo of DNA → Chargaff’s ratios of nu- A. coccus
cleotide → Watson and Crick identify the
double helix B. bacillus
B. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction C. spirillum

photo of DNA→ Watson and Crick identify D. none of above

967. At the end of mitosis the daughter cells 971. The dodo bird was a flightless bird that
are , whereas at the end of meiosis the became extinct in the last century. Al-
daughter cells are though ts disappearance had no significant
recorded impact on the other members of
A. haploid; diploid
the ecosystem, it did affect what aspect of
B. diploid; haploid the ecosystem?
C. diploid; polyploid A. the ability for other species to adapt
D. polyploid; haploid B. the genetic diversity of other species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the biodiversity of the ecosystem as a
968. What is the significance of the sequence whole
(order) of the Nitrogen Bases in DNA?
D. the process of evolution within the
A. The order of the Nitrogen Bases de- ecosystem
termines the number of chromosomes
present in an organism. 972. A distal control region that a ctivators
bind to are bent to contact mediator pro-
B. The order of the Nitrogen Bases deter- teins and form the transcription initiation
mines the traits that an organism will pos- complex
sess (have).
A. enhancers
C. The order of the Nitrogen Bases deter-
B. promoters
mines the gender of an organism.
C. repressors
D. The order of the Nitrogen Bases deter-
mines whether an organism is abiotic bi- D. transcription factors
otic.
973. When making a DNA Fingerprint, the gel
electrophoresis machine filters the DNA by
969. What two organic compounds did Avery,
size. Which fragments make it further
McCarty and MacLeod remove at the be-
down in the gel?
ginning of the experiment since they were
not believed to be the transforming princi- A. shorter
ple? B. longer
A. Carbohydrates, Lipids C. codons
B. DNA, RNA D. anticodons
C. DNA, Protein 974. Which two radioactive isotopes were
D. Enzymes, RNA used to label the DNA and protein compo-
nents of viruses called bacteriophages?
970. A protein that is temporarily associated A. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
with a biological membrane is a(n):
B. Phosphorus and Sulfur
A. transmembrane protein. C. Nitrogen and Sulfur
B. integral membrane protein D. none of above
C. peripheral membrane protein.
975. Which statement reflects the greatest
D. transmembrane protein and an inte- concern for genetically modified crops
gral membrane protein. (GMO)?

A. High yield crop varieties will reduce C. silent

the use of fertilizers. D. nonsense

B. Drought resistant crops may die dur-
ing a rainy season 980. Which of the following include all the oth-
ers?
C. The cost of agriculture will decrease
A. DNA molecules
D. Genes for herbicide resistance might
be transferred to weeds by cross- B. histones
pollination. C. chromosomes
976. What are the three components of a nu- D. nucleosomes

cleotide? 981. One of the goals of the Human Genome
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogenous base Project is to
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogenous base A. increase the number of genes in the
human genome
C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base
B. map the location of only the most im-
D. sugar, phosphate, protein
portant genes on each chromosome
977. What was the purpose of the human C. clone the entire human genome in bac-
genome project? teria
A. To know which protein is made from D. determine the nucleotide sequence of
EACH gene in the human genome the entire human genome
B. To know which type of stem cells to use
982. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes,
in research
DNA replication happens
C. To know which sections of human DNA
A. before cell division
could best be used for cloning
B. in the nucleus
D. To know which genes are most easily
edited in gene therapy C. only to telomeres
D. around the histones
978. HIV is a retrovirus. Which of the follow-
ing BEST describes the flow of genetic in- 983. In what way is DNA like a book?
formation from viral transmission of HIV
A. DNA has information organized with a
to production of viral protein?
kind of index
A. Viral DNA → Viral RNA → Protein
B. DNA has stored information, that can
B. Viral RNA → Viral DNA → Host DNA be copied and passed on
→ Host RNA → Protein
C. DNA has information wrapped in an
C. Viral RNA → Host DNA → Protein identifying cover
D. Viral DNA → Host DNA → Host RNA D. DNA has information that is periodi-
→ Protein cally updated
979. Sickle-cell anemia results from what type 984. Which type of receptor needs an acces-
of mutation? sory protein to signal?
A. missense A. G protein-coupled receptor
B. frameshift B. receptor kinase

C. ligand-gated ion channel C. Scissors, Meiosis, a Microwave and

D. None of the other answer options is Agarose
correct D. Gel, Electricity, a Buffer and DNA
985. Which of the following is the enzyme that 988. What known diseases has CRISPR been
replaces the RNA nucleotides in a primer used for in clinical trials?
with DNA nucleotides? A. T cell and lung cancers
A. DNA polymerase III B. Down syndrome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA polymerase I
C. Cystic fibrosis
C. Helicase
D. Huntingtons
D. Primase
989. During the process of gel electrophoresis,
986. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what molecules are separated as they are pulled
happened to the bacteria that had radioac- by an electric current through a molecular
tive DNA, and to the bacteria that had filter. Which best describes how molecules
been infected with viruses that had been are separated?
marked with radioactive proteins?
A. precisely by both size and charge
A. The bacteria infected with viruses that
B. approximately by size and charge
had radioactive DNA had become radioac-
tive. The bacteria that had been infected C. by size only
with viruses marked with radioactive pro- D. short tandem repeatby charge only
teins were not radioactive
990. Guanine bonds with
B. The bacteria infected with viruses that
had radioactive proteins had become ra- A. Adenine
dioactive. The bacteria that had been B. Guanine
marked with radioactive DNA were not ra-
dioactive DNA had become radioactive. C. Cytosine
C. The bacteria infected with viruses that D. Thymine

had radioactive DNA had become radioac- 991. Until 20 or 20 years ago, people with
tive. The bactera that had been infected cystic fibrosis (CF) wouldn’t live long
with viruses marked with radioactive pro- enough to reproduce. CF is a homozygous
teins had also become radioactive recessive condition, leading researchers to
D. The bacteria infected with viruses that think that over time the incidence of CF
had radioactive DNA had not become ra- would decrease because the allele would
dioactive. The bacteria that had been in- be removed from the gene pool. The re-
fected with viruses marked with radioac- sults actually indicate that the rate of CF
tive proteins had also not become radioac- is on the rise. Based on what you know
tive about why certain genotypes and pheno-
types persist in a population, which of the
987. What are 4 components of gel elec- following could be a likely explanation for
trophoresis? why the rate of CF is on the rise?
A. Scissors, Electricity, a Buffer and a Mi- A. The heterozygous condition is benefi-
crowave cial, much like what we see with sickle cell
B. Gel, Electricity, Meiosis and a Buffer trait

B. People are traveling more, so when 996. Which of the following is not needed for
people from different areas reproduce, PCR
more mutations will result

A. helicase
C. We are being subjected to more muta- B. primers
tions as a population due to more pollution
C. DNA polymerase
D. The population is increasing, and more
D. nucleotides
people mean more mutations
997. Avery added an enzyme known to break
992. Which of the following diseases is nonin-
down proteins to his extract, and saw that
fectious?
the bacteria were
A. Asthma A. still transformed
B. Arthritis B. not transformed
C. Cancer and diabetes C. all killed
D. All of these. D. all sick
993. The Watson and Crick model of DNA is 998. What is the vector for bubonic plague
a(n) in which 2 strands are wound (black plague)?
around each other.
A. Tsetse fly
A. triple helix
B. Fleas
B. single strand C. Deer tick
C. double helix D. none of above
D. repeating helix
999. It is more safe for a diabetic to inject
994. What does PCR stand for? themself with insulin that comes from a
GM bacterium than from a pig
A. Polypeptide Chain Reaction
A. True
B. Polysacharide Chain Reaction
B. False
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
C. It depends on the pig
D. Periodical Chain Restriction
D. It depends on the person.
995. The first reported case of gene therapy
1000. A plasmid is found inside
was in 1999
A. a bacteria
A. and was done to Jesse Gelsinger, an
18-year-old with an X-linked genetic dis- B. a virus
ease involving the metabolism of ammo- C. a base Sequence
nia.
D. human cells
B. by Dr. Jennifer Doudna using CRISPR-
E. an enzyme
Cas9 on herself
C. by Chinese scientist Jianku He to em- 1001. The 5’ is indicating
bryos to disable their HIV receptors A. a specific phosphate molecule.
D. by Dr. Victoria Ashton on a patient B. the location of the bonding of a nitro-
with cystic fibrosis gen base.

C. the location of the next hydrogen bond. 1005. Which process is used to make mRNA
D. a specific carbon atom in the sugar. from the DNA in the nucleus?
A. transcription
1002. The X-ray diffraction photography of
Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins B. translation
was critical evidence of DNA structure. C. replication
How did their photography contribute to
our understanding of DNA? D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA has a double-helix structure as ev-
1006. in a structural gene, one of the seg-
idenced by crossing lines.
ments that are ultimately transcribed and
B. DNA has equal numbers of purines and translated when the gene is expressed
pyrimidines as indicated by equal dark
spots in an X pattern. A. operon
C. The bases of DNA are held together B. euchromatin

by hydrogen bonds as indicated by the C. intron
equidistant spots.
D. exon
D. DNA is composed of deoxyribose sugar
based on the dark outer circle. 1007. In eukaryotes, proteins that help the
1003. An allele is: RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for
transcription
A. One of several forms of a gene
A. transcription factors
B. The location of a gene on a chromo-
some B. topoisomerase
C. The expression of a trait in an individ- C. regulatory genes
ual
D. activators
D. The particular combination of genes
for a given trait in a given organism 1008. If the percentage of adenine in a given
sample of DNA is 20%, then the percent-
1004. Which of the following is NOT consid-
age of guanine would be
ered a GMO?
A. Using a viral vector to insert a working A. 20%
copy of a hemoglobin gene into a patient B. 30%
with sickle cell
C. 40%
B. Using a bacteria to infect a plant with
a gene that allows it to glow in the dark D. 80%
C. Making a plasmid containing the in- 1009. A bacterial infection be treated us-
sulin gene into the growth medium of a ing an antibiotic. A viral infection
bacteria colony so that bacteria take up
the plasmid A. can; also can
D. Taking a nucleus from a patient and B. can; cannot
inserting it into a denucleated egg cell,
C. cannot; can
which then grows into a clone of the pa-
tient and used for stem cell therapy D. cannot; also cannot

1010. The process to go from DNA to mRNA is an original cross of true-breeding blue
stock with true-breeding yellow stock to
be:

A. translation
B. transcription A. 25% yellow, 50% green, 25% blue.
B. 67% green, 33% yellow
C. replication
C. 67% blue, 33% yellow
D. none of above
D. 100% green
1011. From his work with mice and
pneumonia-causing bacteria, Frederick 1016. viruses enter the host cell by using
Griffin discovered A. receptor proteins
A. Replication B. force
B. Transcription C. magic
C. Transformation D. none of above
D. Translation 1017. Any change or mistake in DNA replica-
tion can cause a
1012. A sequence of three nitrogenous bases
in a messenger-RNA molecule is known as A. cancer cell
a B. virus
A. codon C. disease
B. nucleotide D. mutation
C. polypeptide 1018. Transgenic organisms are organisms
D. gene that contain
A. genes from other species.
1013. Name the plasmid which makes host cell
resistance to the antibiotic. B. cells of another organism.
A. Hfr C. genes of only one parent.

D. one or more human genes.
B. F-plasmid
C. Col plasmid 1019. During DNA replication, a DNA strand
that has the bases CTAGGT produces a
D. R-plasmid
strand with the bases
1014. If one strand of DNA has the base A. TCGAAC
sequence AAGCAA, the complementary B. GATCCA
strand is
C. AGCTTG
A. UUCGUU.
D. GAUCCA
B. TTCGTT.
1020. For a repressible operon to be tran-
C. AAGCAA.
scribed, which of the following must be
D. UTCGTU. true?
1015. If the phenotype of pea pod color is A. A corepressor must be present.
determined by incomplete dominance then B. RNA polymerase and the active repres-
you would expect the F2 generation from sor must be present.

C. RNA polymerase must bind to the pro- 1025. Site in the ribosome from which the
moter, and the repressor must be inac- tRNA donates amino acids to the growing
tive. polypeptide chain is
D. RNA polymerase cannot be present, A. P site
and the repressor must be inactive. B. E site
1021. Which is true:1) GMO’s are always ge- C. T site
netically engineered2) Plasmids come from D. A site
NARAYAN CHANGDER
viruses
A. Both true 1026. Which of the following CORRECTLY
pairs the particles of an atom with their
B. Both false physical properties?
C. 1) true A. proton-positively charged; neutron-
D. 1) false uncharged; electron-negatively charged
B. proton-negatively charged; neutron-
1022. Which type of E.coli strain was chosen uncharged; electron-positively charged
to prove the experiment of conjugation?
C. proton-positively charged; neutron-
A. Prototrophs negatively charged; electron-uncharged
B. Auxotrophs D. proton-uncharged; neutron-negatively
C. Polyauxotrophs charged; electron-positively charged
D. Autotrophs 1027. Which DNA strands move the fastest
through the gel when the electricity is
1023. A trait with incomplete penetrance is
turned on?
one that:
A. The long strands
A. is expressed in only some offspring of
affected individuals B. The short strands
B. is only expressed in some of the in- C. The medium strands
dividuals that have the genotype for that D. They all move the same
trait
1028. The physical appearance of a trait is
C. can be expressed differently in differ-
known as the-
ent individuals that have the genotype for
that trait A. genotype
D. is only expressed in homozygous re- B. phenotype
cessive individuals C. characteristics
1024. Which of the following genotypes D. intelligence
would result in a true-breeding stock?
1029. Cold sores are caused by the HPV virus,
A. AA or aa, but not Aa an infection which sometimes takes your
B. Aa, but not AA or aa body years to eradicate. A cold sore may
last a week or so before healing, but then
C. aa, but not Aa or AA
can come back a few weeks later. What
D. AA or Aa or aa is going on?

A. the person gets reinfected by the C. The influenza outbreak was a pan-
same virus demic. The plague outbreak was an epi-
demic.

B. the person gets infected by a slightly
different virus the body does not recog- D. The influenza outbreak was an epi-
nize demic. The plague outbreak was a pan-
C. the HPV virus causes the cold sore demic.
when in the lytic stage, and then goes into 1033. A chemical compound used to slow or
the latent lysogenic stage prevent the growth and reproduction of
D. the HPV virus causes the cold sore harmful bacteria, but not harm healthy
when in the lysogenic stage, and then host cells.
goes into the latent lytic stage A. Antibiotic
1030. A bacteriophage typically attaches to B. Antiviral
the bacterium and then C. Antifungal
A. converts the bacteria into immortal D. none of above
cells.
1034. When Hershey and Chase radioactively
B. injects nucleic acid into it, leaving a vi-
labeled the DNA of the bacteriophage,
ral coat outside.
they found radioactive phosphorous
C. replicates on the surface of the bac- A. in the bacterial cells
terium.
B. in the liquid medium
D. viral protein is injected and the viral
DNA stays outside. C. Both A & B
D. none of above
1031. If you crossed a true-breeding yellow
seed plant (AA) with heterozygous yellow 1035. Hershey and Chase were able to con-
seed plant (Aa ): clude that nuclei acids are the carrier(s) of
genetic information because
A. offspring genotypes would be 1AA:2Aa
. A. radioactive phosphorous from viral
DNA was found in bacteria
B. offspring genotypes would be 1Aa:1aa
. B. radioactive sulphur from viral DNA
was found in bacteria
C. offspring genotypes would be 1AA:1Aa
C. radioactive phosphorous from viral
D. offspring phenotypes would be 1/2 yel-
protein coat was found in bacteria
low seed and 1/2 green seed
D. radioactive sulphur from viral protein
1032. In 1918, an outbreak of influenza in- coat was found in bacteria
fected 500, 000 people all over the world.
Tens of millions of those infected died. In 1036. DNA replication results in two DNA
1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague molecules
spread quickly through the city of Surat in A. each with two new strands
India, killing 52 people. Which statement B. one with two new strands and the
best describes the two events? other with two original strands
A. Both outbreaks were pandemics. C. each with one new strand and one orig-
B. Both outbreaks were epidemics. inal strand

D. each with two original strands 1042. In what process is mRNA synthesized?
1037. In which phase of mitosis does the nu- A. Transcription
clear envelope reform?
B. Translation
A. prophase
C. DNA Replication
B. metaphase
C. anaphase D. Mitosis
D. telophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1043. a genetic unit that regulates or sup-
1038. DNA replication is carried out by a se- presses the activity of one or more struc-
ries of tural genes
A. electrons A. structural gene
B. X-rays B. homeotic gene
C. enzymes
C. genome
D. telomeres
D. regulator gene
1039. If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base
sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA will have? 1044. You are running a synthetic translation
A. ATTGCA reaction and you notice that your protein is
B. UGGACC only two amino acids long. You’ve checked
the sequence of the mRNA and everything
C. UAACGG
appears to be correct. What could be hap-
D. ATCGCC pening in your reaction?
1040. Which of the following is true for an Hfr A. The peptide bonds are not forming
X F-cross? properly.
A. Frequency of recombination high, B. Theacceptorsiteoftheribosomeisnot-
transfer of F factor low functioning.
B. Frequency of recombination high,
transfer of F factor high C. The DNA is mutated.
C. Frequency of recombination low, D. Theexitsiteoftheribosomeisnotfunc-

transfer of F factor high tioning.
D. Frequency of recombination low,
transfer of F factor low 1045. What property of DNA does bacterial
transformation illustrate?
1041. In a bacterium, cell division takes place
A. Bacterial DNA cannot move into other
when (SB1b)
bacteria and function
A. its nucleus divides
B. Bacterial DNA can move into another
B. the cell splits into two cells, one of
bacteria and function
which receives all of the DNA
C. the spindle fibers form C. Bacterial DNA uses 4 nucleotides
bases that work in pairs
D. the DNA is copied, a new cell wall
forms between the DNA copies, and the D. Bacterial DNA is found in a circular
cell splits into two cells chromosome

1046. A cell that has not yet differentiated D. segregation of one set of alleles of a
into a specialized cell gene pair assort independently of another
gene pair.

A. germ cell
B. somatic cell 1051. What is the advantage of having differ-
ent shaped beaks?
C. stem cell
A. To look different from other species.
D. gamete
B. To be able to eat the food readily avail-
1047. a segment of a structural gene that is able in the environment.
transcribed but not translated
C. To protect itself against predators.
A. homeobox
D. To protect itself against prey.
B. gene expression
1052. Chromosomes 1 through 22; chromo-
C. intron
somes that contain genes for characteris-
D. exon tics not directly related to the sex of an
organism.
1048. The final proof as DNA as genetic mate-
rial came from the experiment of A. Homologous chromosome
A. Griffith B. Autosome
B. Hershey and chase C. Sex chromosome
C. Avery, Mcleod, & McCarty D. gamete
D. Hargovind khorana 1053. From his work with mice and

pneumonia-causing bacteria, Frederick
1049. What part of the cell would make vi- Griffith coined the term
ral proteins when tricked to make more
A. Replication
viruses?
B. Transcription
A. ribosomes
C. Transformation
B. Golgi complex
D. Translation
C. nucleus
D. cytoplasm 1054. Which of the following explains the dif-
ference between VNTRs and RFLPs?
1050. The principle of independent assortment
A. In VNTRs, we are looking at sequence
states that:
differences in genes; in RFLPs we are
A. when gametes are formed, the two looking at sequence differences in non-
members of a gene pair will separate coding DNA.
equally into gametes. B. In VNTRs, we are looking at sequence
B. when gametes are formed, the two differences in noncoding DNA; in RFLPs
members of a gene pair assort together we are looking at sequence differences in
in gametes. genes.
C. segregation of one set of alleles of a C. In VNTRs, we are looking at the num-
gene pair assort with the alleles of an- ber of times a sequence is repeated; in
other gene pair. RFLPs we are looking at size differences

resulting from different restriction sites D. only RNA contained the base Guanine
being present
1059. In a certain gene, 15% of the DNA is
D. In VNTRs, we are looking at size differ- thymine, how much of it is guanine?
ences resulting from different restriction
sites being present; in RFLPs, we are look- A. 15%
ing at the number of times a sequence is B. 35%
repeated C. 70%
1055. is to transcription as is to trans- D. 30%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lation.
1060. When you eat a hamburger, some of the
A. mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
energy in the food is converted to ATP that
B. Amino Acid Chain / mRNA your cells can use to do all kinds of work,
C. Ribosome / Nucleus some of the energy is stored for later use,
D. mRNA / tRNA and some of the energy is dissipated as
heat. The amount of energy before and af-
1056. What was one of the foals of the Human ter eating the hamburger is the same. This
Genome Project? illustrates the:
A. to determine how DNA was copied in A. first law of thermodynamics
humans
B. second law of thermodynamics
B. to determine the nucleotide sequence
C. theory
and gene location of the entire human
genome D. centraldogma
C. to determine how proteins were made 1061. Which scientists used viruses and ra-
in humans dioactive isotopes to definitively prove
D. to determine particular mutations in that DNA, and not protein, was the
the human genes molecule of heredity?
1057. The genetic code is essentially the same A. Griffith and Avery
for all organisms. From this, one can logi- B. Chargaff and Franklin
cally assume which of the following? C. Watson and Crick
A. The same codons in different organ- D. Hershey and Chase
isms translate into the different amino
acids. 1062. What is the reaction in DNA replication
B. A gene from an organism can theoreti- catalyzed by DNA ligase?
cally be expressed by any other organism. A. Addition of new nucleotides to the
C. All organisms have experienced con- leading strand
vergent evolution. B. Addition of new nucleotide to the lag-
D. DNA was the first genetic material. ging strand
C. Formation of a phosphodiester bond
1058. One difference between DNA and RNA
between the 3’-OH of one Okazaki frag-
is that
ment and the 5’-phosphate of the next on
A. Only RNA has the base Uracil the lagging strand
B. only RNA contains the base Thymine D. Base pairing of the template and the
C. only RNA contains the base Cytocine newly formed DNA strand

3.12 Immunity to infection 701
3.12 Immunity to infection

1. A researcher who detects a higher-than- 6. What is needed for a virus to reproduce
normal amount of interferon in a labora- and survive?
tory rat would correctly conclude that A. Food
A. the rat has, or recently had, a viral in- B. Water
fection.
C. Host
B. cancerous cells are present in the rat.
D. none of above
C. the rat’s diet is deficient in calcium.
D. monocytes are differentiating into 7. Responsible for the transportation of O2
macrophages in the rat’s bloodstream. and CO2
A. erythrocytes
2. Leukemia weakens the immune system by
causing the bone marrow to produce B. leukocytes
A. ineffective T cells C. Platelet
B. too many red blood cells D. thrombocytes
C. weakened B cells. 8. Lymph nodes are found in the:

D. defective white blood cells. A. Neck
3. The part of foreign materials that cause B. Armpits

a response from the immune system are C. Groin
called D. All of the options
A. Antigens
9. Adaptive immunity depends on
B. Active Immunity
A. traits common to groups of pathogens.
C. Antibodies
B. pathogen-specific recognition
D. Antibiotics
C. maternal provision of antibodies to off-
4. General term for the defense activities of spring
the immune system. D. plants being exposed to new
A. immune system pathogens.
B. immunization 10. Platelets are a part of blood that help in
C. immune response the:
D. immunity A. formation of hemoglobin
5. Which of the following is an example of a B. formation of a clot

mutagen? C. release of anitbodies
A. an antiviral drug D. absorption of amino acids
B. cigarette smoke 11. When someone’s immune system overre-
C. infectious bacteria acts to something harmless it’s called:
D. a parasite A. Overreactus maximus

B. An allergy 16. What would prompt the body to produce

C. A sneeze immunity to a disease?
D. The measles A. the antibodies on the outside of a virus

B. the antigens used in a vaccine
12. Which statement about antibiotics is not
correct? C. the antibodies transferred in
colostrum (your mothers early breast
A. Antibiotics are used to treat diseases millk)
caused by viruses.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. antigens on your red blood cells
B. Some antibiotics are produced by
fungi. 17. Which of these adaptations helps spread
C. Some bacteria are resistant to antibi- the bacteria that cause tuberculosis?
otics. A. an ability to cause diarrhea in the host
D. When taking antibiotics for an infec- B. an ability to make the host cough
tion, the treatment should be completed. C. an ability to be carried by vectors, such
as bats
13. All of the students at Lincoln Middle School
were given a vaccine. What can you con- D. an ability to survive in contaminated
clude about the students at Lincoln Middle water
School?
18. All of the following are aspects of inflam-
A. The students will never get sick again. mation except:
B. The students were exposed to a nonin- A. constriction of blood vessels
fectious disease.
B. phagocytes and neutrophils produce
C. The students must have all had autoim- cytokines that signal the brain to produce
mune disorders. a fever
D. The students will be better able to re- C. increase in permeability of blood ves-
sist the disease the vaccine was for. sels
14. A Substance made of weakened, killed, or D. pain
partial pathogens are designed to protect
19. Which series includes three diseases
the body from future invasions of that
caused by bacteria?
pathogen.
A. common cold, tuberculosis, HIV
A. Vaccine
B. HIV, athlete’s foot, common cold
B. Virus
C. ringworm, strep throat, food poison-
C. Disease ing
D. Microbe D. strep throat, food poisoning, tubercu-
15. Which type of pathogenic microbe causes losis
COVID-19? 20. What do memory lymphocytes do?
A. virus A. Kills the virus
B. bacteria B. Eats the virus
C. fungi C. Patrol the area and make the immune
D. protozoa system work faster next time.

D. Makes antibodies A. apocalypse.
21. A key part of the humoral immune re- B. outbreak.

sponse is C. pandemic.
A. the attack of cytotoxic T cells on in- D. isolated case
fected host cells.
B. the production of antibodies by plasma 26. Which of the following is the first procedu-
cells. ral step after an exposure incident?
C. perforation of infected host cells by A. Contact the source patient
perforin.
B. Stop operations immediately
D. the attack of phagocytes on living
pathogens. C. Remove your gloves
D. Wash your hands thoroughly
22. How do some bacteria evade the compli-
ment system?
27. which one is not part of cell mediated im-
A. Capsules prevent Complement activa- munity, specific response?
tion
A. Helper T cells
B. Surface lipid-carbohydrates of some
Gram-negatives prevent MAC formation. B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Enzymatic digestion of C5a by Gram- C. Suppressor T cells
positives. D. Macrophages
D. all of the above
28. Sally visits Megan’s house to play with
23. The innate immune system is Megan’s new kitten. Within a few min-
A. Always working and doesn’t require utes, Sally’s nose is runny and she is sneez-
any special preparation ing. What is most likely causing Sally’s
B. Needs to be “primed” before it can symptoms?
work to its full effectiveness A. Sally caught a cold from Megan.
C. Very specific and only defends against B. Sally caught a virus from the cat.
a specific pathogen
C. Sally is developing an autoimmune dis-
D. Not very effective at preventing intrud- ease.
ers
D. Sally is having an allergic reaction the
24. Foreign protein found on pathogens that cat.
the body reacts to
A. antibody 29. As part of the immune system, white
blood cells fight germs. Another name for
B. antigen
white blood cells is
C. antigen-antibody complex
A. Rhinovirus
D. pathogens
B. Leukocytes
25. When a disease occurs in greater numbers
C. Glands
than expected in a community or region, or
during a season D. Nodes

30. Mosquitoes and Ticks are examples of or- 35. Which of the following innate immune cells
ganisms that can spread disease. These would best obliterate a viral infection?
types of organisms are refereed to as? A. Neutrophil
A. Vectors B. Natural killer cell
B. Fungi C. Eosinophil
C. Pathogens D. Basophil
D. none of above 36. Disease causing organism.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
31. How do tears keep pathogens out of the A. Phagocytes
body? B. Pathogen
A. They wash away pathogens from the C. Pandemic
eyes. D. none of above
B. They trap pathogens inside sticky 37. Problems with immune system function
membranes. can cause
C. They bind to specific antigens on a A. antibodies
pathogen’s surface.
B. Yo mom
D. They raise the body’s temperature to
C. Fungi
cause a high fever.
D. AIDS
32. Multi-answer:Which cell type represents
38. Typically contains an agent that resembles
an organism that is able to perform pho-
a disease-causing microorganism and is of-
tosynthesis?
ten made from weakened or killed forms
A. Bacterial Cell of the microbe
B. Plant Cell A. inoculation
C. Fungal Cell B. variolation
D. Animal Cell C. vaccine
D. immunisation
33. Which of the following is the correct equa-
tion for PHOTOSYNTHESIS? 39. Which disease below can be fought with a
vaccination?
A. CO2 + light + H2O → O2 + Sugar
A. chicken pox
B. CO2 + sugar + H2O → O2 + light
B. athlete’s foot
C. O2 + light + H2O → CO2 + Sugar
C. staph infection
D. CO2 + O2 + H2O → Light+ Sugar
D. ring worm
34. Vaccines will trigger your body to make all 40. The organism that is infected by a virus is
of the following EXCEPT known as the:
A. antibodies A. survivor
B. memory cells B. infectee
C. white blood cells C. source
D. red blood cells D. host

41. Specialized proteins that attach to specific 46. A person who comes down with malaria
antigens can infer that he or she contracted it from

A. Innate Immunity A. contaminated water supplies.
B. Antigen B. infection by the animallike protist Gia-
C. Antibodies rdia.
D. Leukocytes C. the bite of the Anopheles mosquito.

D. the bite of the tsetse fly.
42. The rise in herd immunity amongst a pop-
ulation can be directly attributed to 47. Which of the following are the function of
A. antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. lymph node?
B. vaccinations. A. Produces lymphocyte
C. increased use of antibiotics. B. Stores lymphocyte and macrophages
D. improved handwashing. C. Filters the lymph
E. None of the answers is correct. D. Transport lipid

E. Remove waste products
43. This structure traps invaders in the nose
to prevent infection. 48. Milk that you purchase in the grocery
A. tears store has gone through a process where
it has been heated and then cooled. The
B. flora most probable reason for heating the milk
C. muscus membrane would be to-
D. phagocytes A. control pathogen growth in the milk
B. improve the flavor and color of the milk
44. Immunization, also known as , is the
process by which harmless antigens are in- C. reduce the amount of fat in the milk
troduced into a person’s body to produce D. add extra vitamins to the milk
active immunity.
A. vaccination 49. What is a preparation of dead or weak-
ened pathogens that is introduced into the
B. antibiotics body to cause an immune response?
C. immunity A. fungi
D. none of above B. vaccine
45. A phagocytic white blood cell that becomes C. antigens
a macrophage once it leaves the blood and D. none of above
enters tissue.
A. monocyte 50. How do T cells and B cells help build the
body’s immunity to disease?
B. neutrophil
A. T cells and B cells are skin cells that
C. lymphocyte
secrete oils which kill pathogens as they
D. eosinophil come in contact with the body’s surface.

B. T cells and B cells attach themselves to 55. What is the term for a nonspecific im-
antigens, gradually absorbing each anti- mune response characterized by redness
gen until it is no longer a threat to the and swelling?
body. A. fever
C. When a body is exposed to a certain B. tissue rejection
pathogen, T cells and B cells remember
that pathogen and produce antibodies to C. antigen
fight that pathogen. D. inflammation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Scientists extract T cells and B cells
56. Which of the following is a first line of de-
from a killed or weakened pathogen;
fense?
when injected into a body, these cells trig-
ger the body to make antigens for that A. Antibodies
pathogen. B. mucus in you nose
51. Which blood component is destroyed in C. Red blood cells
people who are HIV positive? D. your white blood cells
A. lymphocytes
57. You are born with this type of immunity.
B. phagocytes
A. innate immunity
C. platelets
B. aquired immunity
D. red blood cells
C. passive immunity
52. When a virus is latent and inserts its DNA
D. active immunity
into the host cells genome, we call this
what phase? 58. A vaccine contains
A. Lysogenic A. cow pox
B. Lytic B. an inactive strain of the pathogen
C. Both lysogenic and lytic C. a small amount of the pathogen
D. small pox
53. B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes and Natu-
59. Which of the following is NOT part of the
ral killer(NK) cells are all examples of
first line of defense?
which type of white blood cells?
A. Lymphocytes A. skin
B. Basophils B. macrophages
C. Neutrophils C. sweat
D. Monocytes D. lysozyme
54. The response that uses killer t-cells and 60. Sweat and skin secretions contain a mix-
not antibodies is called? ture of molecules that kills or limits the
growth of many types of microbes. This
A. immune system
control of microbes is an example of what
B. cell mediated response type of immune response?
C. surface proteins A. a nonspecific defense against infec-
D. lymphocyte tion.

B. an enzyme-catalyzed biochemical reac- C. a substance used to stimulate the pro-

tion. duction of antibodies and provide immu-
nity against one or several diseases

C. a feedback loop to maintain homeosta-
sis. D. a bacterium, virus, or other microor-
D. a specific immune response to infec- ganism that can cause disease.
tion by microbes.
66. The role of is to issue specific stan-
61. What are the smallest and simplest dards to protect the health of employees
pathogens? in the United States.
A. virus A. HIPAA
B. fungi B. CDC
C. bacteria C. OSHA
D. none of above D. FDA
62. Pain and swelling in an injured area is 67. How many antigen-binding sites does im-
called the munoglobulin Gamma have?
A. B Cell resistance A. 0
B. septic shock B. 1
C. antihistamine response C. 2
D. Inflammatory response D. 3
63. Where in your body can you find nerve 68. Which of the following will not help your
cells? immune system?
A. brain A. Playing sports video games
B. spinal cord B. Exercising
C. neurons C. Eating healthy food
D. everywhere D. Regularly washing your hands
64. The body’s ability to destroy pathogens 69. What type of cell produces antibodies?
before they can cause disease is called:
A. macrophage
A. Tolerance
B. cytotoxic T cell
B. Immunity
C. plasma cell
C. Vaccine
D. Helper T cell
D. Inflammatory response
70. Production of by viral infected cells in-
65. What is nonspecific immunity? hibit virus replication.
A. response that is the same for all A. interferon
pathogens; the immune system that
you’re born with B. histamine
B. response protects the body against C. plasma cell

specific pathogens D. antibodies

71. A 3 month old baby contracts a virus called B. Blood

whooping cough (pertussis) after receiving
C. Stomach Acid
the first of a sequence of 3 necessary DPT
vaccines designed to prevent 3 diseases D. Skin
(diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus). The
vaccines are given at 2, 4, and 6 months 75. The MHC (Major Histocompatibility Com-
of age to allow the body to develop spe- plex) Refers to the
cific immunity against these diseases. Af-
A. antigen molecules found on the out-
ter the infant recovered from the disease,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sides of virtually all human cells that are
the doctor informed the parents that from
used in self recognition.
now on the infant would only need the DT
(diphtheria, tetanus) part of the vaccine. B. antibody molecules found on the out-
Why does the infant only need the DT vac- sides of virtually all human cells that are
cine? used in self recognition.
A. The infant had the first of a series of C. large white blood cells that phagocy-
vaccines which caused the disease tise pathogens
B. The infant had the pertussis disease D. antigens found on the outsides of bac-
and has already produced antibodies terial cells and other pathogens that help
against the disease. destroy white blood cells
C. The infant had the first of a series of
vaccines which protected him from get- 76. Which statement about antibodies is cor-
ting the disease. rect?
D. The infant had the pertussis disease A. Breast milk contains antibodies and
and will get diphtheria in the future. protects babies by giving them active im-
munity.
72. T cells assist in the function of certain
B cells and other T cells B. Injections of antibodies give passive
immunity against the disease scurvy.
A. sensitized
C. Insect repellents contain antibodies
B. cytotoxic
and give mosquitoes passive immunity
C. helper against malaria.
D. natural killer D. Injections of antibodies give passive
immunity against some pathogens.
73. A nonspecific defensive response of the
body to tissue injury characterized by in-
77. The tetanus vaccine is a liquid containing
creased blood flow and swelling.
an inactivated toxin from the tetanus bac-
A. immunity teria. Vaccinated individuals become pro-
B. fever tected against tetanus because the inacti-
vated toxin
C. immunization
D. inflammation A. prevents any future viral invasions
B. causes an inflammatory response
74. This sticky fluid traps any pathogens that
try and get in our body C. promotes production of antibodies
A. Mucous Lining D. causes illness but not fatalities

78. B Cells can create long term cells that will C. pollutants in the environment
remember antigens on foreign substances
D. hemophilia

A. Memory Cells
B. Plasma Cells 84. Example of the First Line of Defense
C. T cells A. Antibodies
D. Helper T cells B. White Blood Cells

C. Skin
79. The word “infectious” means
D. Red Blood Cells
A. one organism is feeding and living on
or in another
85. Foreign substances that invade the body
B. you catch it from another organism
A. Neutrophils
C. you inherit it from your parents
B. Innate Immunity
D. you develop a disease from exposure
to things in your environment C. Antigen
D. Phagocytes
80. What is a protist?
A. organisms that create their own en- 86. What causes lymph nodes to become
ergy from sunlight swollen when we have an infection?
B. large single celled organism A. increased red blood cells
C. multicellular organism that cause in- B. increased white blood cells
fection
C. increased T-cells
D. none of above
D. none of above
81. Mucous membranes are an aspect of which
line of defense? 87. What is the role of antibodies in the im-
mune system?
A. First Line
A. To actively destroy pathogens
B. Second Line
B. To mark pathogens that need to be de-
C. Third Line
stroyed by T-cells
D. Fourth Line
C. To safeguard the body against being
82. What is an attenuated virus? destroyed by its own immune system
A. a dead one D. To bind to B-cells, helping them in their
support of T-cells
B. a disabled one
C. a manufactured one 88. When the body launches an immune re-
D. a natural one sponse against its own cells
A. HIV infection
83. An infectious disease is one that is caused
by B. Cancer
A. heredity C. Vaccination
B. pathogens D. Autoimmune disease

89. All of the following are components of the C. Disease

lymphatic system EXCEPT: D. Pathogen
A. yellow bone marrow
95. Complement and antibody are similar in
B. tonsils that both:
C. spleen A. are produced by mast cells
D. nodes B. may make bacteria more attractive to
phagocytes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
90. A condition in which the immune system
attacks the body’s own tissues. C. have two identical antigen-binding
sites
A. bacterial infection
D. are activated in an inflammatory cas-
B. strep throat
cade
C. influenza
96. Which of the following is part of innate im-
D. autoimmune disorder munity or nonspecific immunity?
91. Which is a failure of immune tolerance? A. Macrophage ingesting antigen before
A. autoimmune disorders feeding to T-cells
B. B-cells producing clones to become
B. allergies
plasma cells.
C. immunodeficiencies
C. Inflammation triggered by injured tis-
D. none of above sues
92. Which chemical causes blood vessels to di- D. Plasma cells producing antibodies
late and swell in order to attract phago-
97. What is an antibody
cytes and WBC to the area during inflam-
mation? A. A protein hormone secreted by pancre-
atic endocrine cells that raises blood glu-
A. Histamine cose levels; an antagonistic hormone to
B. Pyrogens insulin.
C. Lysosyme B. Chemical released by the immune sys-
D. Pancreatic juices tem that must communicate with the
brain.
93. What is an example of a transmissible dis- C. A protein produced by the body that de-
ease? stroys or inactivates an antigen that has
A. COPD entered the body
B. HIV D. A protein hormone secreted by
the pancreas that is essential for the
C. Scurvy
metabolism of carbohydrates and the reg-
D. tooth decay ulation of glucose levels in the blood.
94. Anything that disrupts the normal function 98. Which part of human blood carries hor-
of a body system or part of a body system. mones and nutrients?
A. White Blood Cell A. plasma
B. Antibody B. platelets

C. red blood cells C. become memory cells

D. white blood cells D. bind to antibodies

99. Why is it necessary to have the flu shot 104. White blood cells are a part of the im-
every year? mune system. What is another name for
white blood cells?
A. A person’s antibodies level never de-
clines after receiving the vaccine A. Rhinovirus
B. People only have passive immunity to B. Leukocytes
the flu for one year C. Nodes
C. The flu virus evolves quickly D. Glands
D. The flu virus remains unchanged from
105. What is a difference between lymph and
year to year
blood?
100. This type of immunity is acquired by in- A. Lymph has a pump and Blood has no
jection of antibodies in antiserum. pump
A. Naturally acquired Passive immunity B. Lymphs have all blood cells and Blood
B. Artificially induced Passive immunity has only white blood cells
C. Naturally acquired Active immunity C. Lymph has interstitial fluid and blood
has plasma
D. Artificially induced Active immunity
D. none of above
101. What is the function of the memory cells
106. Most bacterial diseases can be treated
A. to memorize the function of the DNA with
B. to memorize tactics that can be used A. antibiotics
to fight the antigens B. carcinogens
C. to remember the infection and prevent C. pathogens
you from getting it next time
D. microbes
D. to produce antibodies
107. Which of the following is NOT true of au-
102. The first line of defense against antigen toimmune diseases
is the system.
A. the immune system targets “self”
A. respiratory
B. the immune system has been deacti-
B. digestive vated
C. integumentary C. the immune system has over active cy-
D. lymphatic totoxic T cells
D. mutliple sclerosis is an autoimmune
103. In the production of monoclonal antibod- disease
ies, B-cells are fused to tumour cells to
make hybridoma cells. What can hy- 108. Which blood cells increases in cases of
bridoma cells do? parasitism and allergy?
A. divide endlessly A. basophil
B. ingest antigens B. eosinophil

C. lymphocyte 114. A preparation made from a weakened or

killed pathogen is called
D. monocyte
A. a vaccine
109. What type of immunity is vaccination?
B. an allergen
A. natural passive
C. an antigen
B. natural active D. a macrophage
C. artificial passive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. When virus particles enter a person’s
D. artificial active body, the body responds by following a
specific patter. Which of the following
110. Saliva, tears, and nasal secretion contain steps happens earliest in the fight against
the enzyme lysozyme which breaks down an invading virus?
bacterial cells walls therefore killing bac-
teria. A. Viral particles are engulfed by
macrophages.
A. Chemical Barriers
B. B cells divide to make cells that can
B. Skin make antibodies.
C. Interferon C. Helper T cells recognize the viral anti-
D. Component Proteins gens on macrophages.
D. Killer T cells recognize viral antigens
111. Which cell will “eat” pathogens? and destroy the infected cells.
A. helper T cell
116. Which of the following is part of the hu-
B. B cell moral response?
C. macrophage A. antibodies
D. cytotoxic T cell B. Cytotoxic T cells
112. Newborns who nurse from their mother C. Natural Killer Cells
receive milk containing antibodies. This is D. Lysozyme
an example of
117. What is the relationship between tissue
A. active immunity fluid and lymph?
B. passive immunity A. Tissue fluid leaks out of blood vessels
C. oral vaccine and is called lymph when it enters the lym-
phatic vessels.
D. phagocyte activity
B. Tissue fluid surrounds the body cells,
113. What are neutrophils? and lymph circulates throughout the lym-
phatic system.
A. Toxins
C. Lymph leaks out of the blood. It is then
B. Red blood cell
called tissue fluid.
C. Travel to the infected area and ingest
D. Tissue fluid is the liquid portion of the
bacteria
blood. When it leaks out of the capillaries,
D. none of above it is called lymph.

118. A molecule that induces an immune re- C. Dentritic Cells

sponse? D. Cytotoxic T-Cells

A. antibody
123. How can active immunity be acquired?
B. receptor
A. by having the disease
C. antigen
B. injection of antibiodies
D. sebum
C. through colostrum (breastmilk)
119. Which of these is an example of acquired D. via plancenta
immunity? (TWO correct answers, select
both) 124. The skin, mucous membranes, natural se-
cretions, and natural flora are all part of
A. Macrophages the
B. T-Cells A. First line of defense
C. Antibodies B. Second line of defense
D. Antigens C. Third line of defense
120. In Florey and Chain’s experiment, eight D. none of above
mice were infected with lethal doses of
125. Treatment for diseases caused by bacte-
Streptococcus bacteria. The four micegiven
ria, like food poisoning can be treated by:
penicillin survived, but the untreated mice
died. What can be concluded from these A. Antivirals
results? B. Antiparasitics
A. The experiment should be repeated C. Antifungals
with more mice.
D. Antibiotics
B. There is a causal relationship between
the use ofpenicillin and antibiotic resis- 126. MULTIANSWER:Throwback Ques-
tance in bacteria. tion:What is the relationship between
blood pressure and blood volume?
C. Penicillin can be used to treat bacterial
infectionsin humans. A. As Volume increases, Pressure in-
creases as well.
D. Penicillin may have played a role in the
recovery ofthe four mice. B. As Volume increases, Pressure de-
creases.
121. How does a fungus attach to it’s host and C. As Volume decreases, Pressure in-
absorb nutrients? creases.
A. Tentacles D. As Volume decreases, Pressure de-
B. Hyphae creases as well.
C. Spores 127. Penicillin is an antibiotic that kills bac-
D. Roots teria by preventing them from forming
cell walls. Why does penicillin not affect
122. Activated B cells differentiate into viruses?
A. Plasma Cells & memory B cells A. Viruses become resistant to penicillin.
B. Macrophages B. Viruses do not contain cytoplasm.

C. Viruses do not have cell walls. 133. Two types of lymphocytes (white blood
D. Viruses reproduce very rapidly. cells) include
A. A cells and B cells
128. what does HIV do to our immune sys-
tem? B. T cells and B cells
A. It makes our immune system more C. C cells and Z cells
stronger
D. eukaryotes and prokaryotes
B. It attacks red blood cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It attacks our brain to stop working 134. The body has defences to protect itself
D. It attacks our white blood cells and from diseases. What is a mechanical bar-
weakens our immune system to the point rier to diseases?
where our body cannot fight pathogens A. hairs in the nose
129. Which type of cell inspects the antigen, B. plasma
and then attacks & kills the antigen if it is
recognized? C. stomach acid
A. Macraphage D. white blood cells

B. T Cells
135. What is an Allergy?
C. B Cells
A. a reaction to immune system to a nor-
D. none of above mally harmless Substance.
130. These cells are responsible for making an- B. A flower found in Spain
tibodies
C. A Herb
A. B Cells
D. A Insect Bite
B. White Blood Cell
C. Memory B Cells 136. Which of the following offers the hu-
D. Macrophages man body initial protection from disease-
causing agents?
131. nonliving pathogen, infects a host cell,
forcing the host cell to make copies of it- A. the stomach
self B. the skin
A. virus C. the brain
B. bacteria
D. the intestines
C. animal parasite
D. fungi 137. Which of the pathogens cause disease by
taking over healthy cells and turning them
132. All of the followings are lymphoid organs into pathogen-producing factories?
except for
A. fungi
A. Spleen
B. Thymus B. viruses
C. Pancreas C. parasites
D. Bone marrow D. bacteria

138. What prevents antibiotics from being ef- 143. The eyes and the respiratory tract are
fective againstviruses? both protected against infections by

A. viruses have a high rate of mutation A. the mucous membranes that cover
their surface.
B. viruses have no RNA
B. the secretion of complement proteins.
C. viruses have no metabolism
C. the release of slightly alkaline secre-
D. viruses have a protein shell that pro-
tions
tects them
D. the secretion of lysozyme onto their
139. What are the effects of the complement surfaces.
system?
144. Vaccines are produced from killed or
A. Increases phagocytosis through op-
weakened
sonization or immune adherence
A. phagocytes
B. Increase resistance to bacterial infec-
tion B. pathogens
C. make it more difficult for bacteria to C. helper T cells
penetrate skin D. B cells
145. You are a doctor and Little Billy is in your
140. B-lymphocytes office with the flu. His mother wants you
to prescribe an antibiotic. Which would be
A. Actively destroy pathogens the best response?
B. Secrete antibodies A. “Absolutely, get that kid an antibiotic!”
C. Act as markers for T-cells to identify B. “Actually, he just needs to take a
foreign particles painkiller.”
D. Create new lymph C. “Unfortunately, antibiotics do not
work against viruses like the flu.”
141. What type of immunity is responsible for
agglutination of viruses? D. “Give him a vaccine and he will feel
better right away!”
A. passive immunity
B. cell mediated immunity 146. During an infection, mast cells release his-
tamines that cause inflammation. How do
C. nonspecific immunity histamines cause swelling?
D. antibody immunity A. Blood vessels constrict in surrounding
areas so blood pools.
142. A type of T cell that destroys infected
cells is a: B. Histamines build up in blood vessels
and cause them to swell
A. cytotoxic (killer) T cell
C. White blood cells move into the blood
B. helper T cell
vessels and make them swell
C. memory T cell
D. Cells in blood vessels spread out and
D. suppressor T cell fluids move out to tissues.

147. Which part of the immune system is 152. In antibody mediated immunity which
responsible keeping invaders out of the statement is NOT true?
body? A. B lymphocytes are sensitized by an
A. Vaccines antigen
B. Macrophages B. Memory cells are produced
C. T-cell C. Plasma cells are produced

D. B lympocytes respond to infected cells
D. B-cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Skin and membranes 153. Leukocytes are found in lots of places, in-
cluding an organ in your belly that filters
148. What are vaccines made of? blood and helps fight infections known as
the:
A. White blood cells
A. Heart
B. good bacteria
B. Throat
C. fake pathogens
C. Spleen
D. protein D. Intestines
149. The process where leukocytes engulf and 154. Activation of complement factors that
digest bacteria is called stick to the surface of pathogens:
A. leukocytosis A. Opsonization
B. hydrostatic pressure B. Phagocytosis
C. pathogenolysis C. Cytokine release

D. Apoptosis
D. phagocytosis
155. What effect does HIV have on the im-
150. Why do patients with AIDS continually mune system?
battle infectious diseases?
A. It prevents leucocytes from fighting
A. AIDS patients are infected with the bacteria byphagocytosis.
HIV virus
B. It causes excessive production of leu-
B. AIDS causes the production of inter- cocytes in bonemarrow.
feron C. It destroys antibodies produced by leu-
C. AIDS destroys the plasma cell re- cocytes.
sponse to infectious diseases D. It lowers the number of leucocytes, re-
D. AIDS weakens a patient’s immune reducing antibodyproduction.
sponse to infectious diseases 156. The immune response that defends
against antigens in body fluids, such as
151. Where do T-cells reach maturity?
blood and lymph, is called
A. bone marrow A. inflammatory response
B. tonsils B. interferons
C. thymus C. humoral response
D. lymph nodes D. cell mediate response

157. The type of immunity passed from mum 162. T cells are made in the
to baby
A. bone marrow

A. Artificially active B. spleen
B. Artificially passive C. thymus
C. Naturally active D. tonsiles
D. Naturally passive
163. A genetic disease in which there is an in-
158. The immune response is terminated or de- ability of the blood to clot properly.
creased by A. erythroblastosis
A. suppressor B cells B. leukemia
B. suppressor T cells C. plateletemia
C. both of the above D. hemophilia
D. none of the above; the immune re-
164. What is Severe combined immune defi-
sponse can only be stimulated, not termi-
ciency?
nated
A. Body produces antibodies that attack a
159. Which of these will last the longest in the variety of tissues and organs
blood after a primary response? B. Genetically inherited disease in which
A. antibodies the immune system is severely impair
B. antigens C. Body produces antibodies that attack
the membranes lining and the joints
C. memory lymphocytes
D. Body produces antibodies that attack
D. antibiotics
nerve cells
160. Are a type of white cell that is produced 165. The type of bacteria that is spiral shaped
in the red bone marrow but they mature in is called:
the thymus gland. There is a special kind
of these cell called T-Cell A. Coccus
A. Erythrocytes B. Bacillus
B. Lymphocytes C. Spirillium
C. Blood Cell D. Capsule
D. Component Proteins 166. Leukocytes are found in lots of places, in-

cluding an organ in your belly that filters
161. The first line of physical defense of the blood and help fight infections known as
immune system is: the
A. kidney A. heart
B. small intestine B. kidneys
C. liver C. spleen
D. skin D. brain

167. Immunity allows the body to resist dis- 172. Example of 3rd line of defense.
ease and prevents foreign bodies from
A. T cells and B cells reacting to
causing:
pathogens
A. susceptibility
B. Phagocytes white blood cells engulfing
B. immunity pathogens
C. infection C. Stomach acid killing pathogens
D. heredity D. Mucus catching pathogens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
168. The system returns interstitial fluid 173. Disease causing agents such as bacteria
to the blood stream. and viruses are called
A. ureters A. pathogens
B. spleen B. antibodies
C. thymus C. villians
D. lymph vessels D. particles
169. What is the first immune cell to respond 174. Collective term for the defense activities
to a foreign invader? of the immune system.
A. B Cells A. immune system
B. Lymphocytes B. immunization
C. Phagocytes/Macrophages C. immune response
D. T Cells D. immunity
170. Sometimes temporary protection against 175. Which of the following is true of all vac-
a disease is needed, this protection occur cines?
when antibodies are made in an animal or
A. They prevent viral infections only
other person and then transfer to the body.
This is called B. They provide acquired immunity
A. Passive Immunity C. They are ineffective against the flu
B. Active Immunity D. They contain live, active viruses
C. Nonspecific Immunity 176. What are two ways that the human body
D. Specific Immunity can build immunity to a disease?
A. become infected with the disease; re-
171. Which of the following is not a typical
ceive a vaccine
way for a person to catch a disease?
B. make antigens; be injected with a
A. From pathogens in the air.
killed or weakened pathogen
B. From pathogens in boiled water.
C. initiate rapid or uncontrolled cell divi-
C. From pathogens in poorly cooked food. sion; secrete oil from skin glands
D. From physical contact with an infected D. make T cells and B cells that remember
person. a pathogen; develop an allergic reaction

177. Cells that ingest pathogens are C. T cells

A. plasma cells D. Lymphocyte

B. phagocytic cells 183. What do killer T-cells do?
C. helper T cells A. Kill all of the helper T-cells.
D. antibodies B. Create antibodies to be produced into
178. These component form the specific re- the blood stream.
sponse of the body. C. Destroy cells that have been infected.
A. B-Cells, T-Cells, Helper T-Cells, Inter- D. none of above
feron, Antigen, Cytotoxic T-Cell.
184. Anything that triggers an immune re-
B. B-Cells, T-Cells, Helper T-Cells, Anti-
sponse is a/n
body, Antigen, Cytotoxic T-Cell.
A. lymph cell
C. B-Cells, T-Cells, Component proteins,
Antibody, Antigen, Cytotoxic T-Cell. B. antigen
D. B-Cells, T-Cells, Helper T-Cells, Skin, C. antibody
Antigen, Cytotoxic T-Cell. D. neutrop
179. Which is not an infectious disease? 185. Secondary immune responses upon a sec-
A. Malaria ond exposure to a pathogen are due to the
activation of
B. diabetes
A. memory cells.
C. food poisoning
B. macrophages.
D. measles
C. stem cells.
180. Newborns can acquire immunity
D. B cells.
through breast milk.
A. specific 186. Weakened microbes that stimulate the
immune system to produce antibodies used
B. passive
to fight future invasions by the same
C. active microbe. Example:chicken pox, measles,
D. innate small pox
A. Vaccine
181. Example of the Second Line of Defense.
B. Disease
A. Nose hairs
B. Antibodies C. Immunity
C. White Blood Cell D. Antigens
D. Red Blood Cells 187. What shape is a bacteria with bacillus in

the name?
182. What is a disease fighting protein created
by the immune system in response to spe- A. Spiral
cific antigens? B. Rods
A. Antibody C. Sphere
B. Phagocyte D. None of the Above

188. Which of the following are 2 (TWO) ex- 192. Many times people visit the doctor re-
amples of innate (non-specific) immunity? questing antibiotics to treat colds and viral
Select the 2 correct answers. infections. How is the doctor justified in
A. Skin forms a physical and antiseptic offering the patient treatment options that
barrier to pathogens do not include antibiotics for these cases?
B. Leukocytes detect the antigens of the A. Colds and viruses should be first
E.coli bacterium and produce antibodies treated with viral therapies and then
when the body begins to recover, antibi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Macrophages engulf bacterial cells at otics can be used. Otherwise, the use of
the site of infection antibiotics is not effective at all.
D. The body produces large numbers of B. Side effects from antibiotics are se-
memory cells with specific antibodies vere when used for colds and viruses. Any
use of antibiotics for colds and viruses will
189. Which part of the immune system is
only make the patient more ill and ulti-
roams the body looking for invaders to en-
mately make the patient’s recovery time
gulf (eat)?
longer.
A. Vaccines
C. Antibiotics can weaken the immune
B. Macrophages system when used for colds and viruses,
C. T-cell whereas other medications are not so
hard on the immune system during these
D. B-cell
types of illnesses.
E. Skin and membranes
D. If a doctor provides an antibiotic to
190. Norovirus is a highly contagious infec- treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in
tious agent that causes severe vomiting the patient’s body will be killed, but a few
and diarrhea. Where would this commu- will survive. Those few survivors may be-
nicable disease be most likely to spread come resistant to antibiotics needed for
quickly? real bacterial illnesses.
A. in a rural community where neighbors 193. are proteins produced by B cells

live far apart which are produced as a response to a spe-
B. in a remote city where contact with cific antigen.
other people is rare A. Antigens
C. in a research lab where equipment is B. Active Immunity
sterilized and staff wear protective gear
C. Antibodies
D. on a cruise ship where there are a
great number of people in one area D. Antibiotics
191. What diseases have vaccines stopped 194. Health-care workers are exposed to
from spreading? many different types of pathogenic and
nonpathogenic microorganisms. Which
A. measles body systems work together to protect
B. polio the body from pathogens?
C. small pox A. Digestive and excretory
D. all of these B. Endocrine and reproductive

C. Circulatory and immune C. lymphocytes

D. Muscular and skeletal D. phagocytes

195. Macrophages 200. What are allergies?
A. Keep bacteria from replicating A. When you don’t feel well
B. Bind to viruses B. When your immune system has an
C. “Eat” foreign cells overreaction to a normally harmless sub-
D. Alert killer T cells stance
C. when a person can’t have a type of
196. After you have had a vaccine or illness,
food
the next exposure to the pathogen will re-
sult in: D. none of the above
A. primary immune response with slow 201. This reaction may cause sneezing, wa-
production of B cells tery eyes, and cough in response to a for-
B. primary immune response with quick eign substance:
production of antibodies
A. immune response
C. secondary immune response with
B. allergic response
quick production of antibodies
C. interferon response
D. secondary immune response with slow
production of B cells D. None of the above responses are cor-
rect
197. ) Virus-infected cells produce , pro-
teins that help neighboring cells fight fur- 202. Acidity in human urine is an example of
ther viral infections.
A. cell-mediated immune responses.
A. lysozymes
B. antibody activation
B. interferons
C. adaptive immunity
C. histamines
D. innate immunity
D. interleukin-2
203. A weakened or dead virus can act as a:
198. How does passive immunity differ from
active immunity? In passive immunity A. Allergen
A. antibodies are produced by lympho- B. Virus
cytes
C. Vaccine
B. immunity depends on vaccination
D. Pathogen
C. immunity is specific to one type of anti-
gen 204. A person with AIDS may develop a rare
D. no memory cells are produced skin cancer called
A. multiple sclerosis
199. Which cells produce antibodies to
pathogens? B. lupus
A. Red blood cells C. melanoma
B. Bacteria D. Kaposi’s sarcoma

205. help fight germs. 210. How can a fever be helpful?

A. Infection A. increases RBC production
B. Antibodies B. keeps you comfortable
C. makes more viruses
C. Punnett square
D. slows or kills the pathogen and in-
D. none of above
creases WBC production
206. What is a consequence of HIV infection 211. Cytopathic effects are changes in host
NARAYAN CHANGDER
on the human body? cells due to infections by
A. decreased lymphocyte numbers A. Bacteria
B. increased protection against bacterial B. Fungi
infection C. Viral
C. increased haemoglobin production D. Helminthes
D. sickle anaemia 212. B cells mature in the
207. Which of the following is true regarding A. thymus

the role of the CDC in infection control? B. intestine
A. It is a regulatory agency C. bone marrow
B. The CDC issues recommendations on D. heart

health-related matters, based on sound 213. What are B cells?
scientific evidence
A. Cells manufactured in the bone mar-
C. The CDC issues specific standards to row that create antibodies for isolat-
protect the health of employees in the U.S. ing and destroying invading bacteria and
D. The CDC issued the Bloodborne viruses.
Pathogen Standard B. A type of lymphocyte that kills infected
body cells and cancer cells
208. What is the medical term for watery fluid C. A type of white blood cell that can kill
inside the lympathic vessels? tumor cells and virus-infected cells; an im-
A. Plasma portant component of innate immunity.
B. Lymph D. A type of white blood cell that engulfs
invading microbes and contributes to the
C. Blood nonspecific defenses of the body against
D. none of above disease.
214. Which type of immunity is developed af-
209. Unlike active immunity, passive immu-
ter having the disease or after being vac-
nity causes
cinated against the disease?
A. long term resistance to disease
A. natural immunity
B. no resistance to disease B. acquired passive immunity
C. short term resistance to disease C. acquired active immunity
D. none of above D. none of the above

215. Chemicals that target specific bacteria 221. The human immune system fights infec-
and fungi inside the body and prevent tion by releasing
them from reproducing are called

A. ATPs
A. toxoids. B. antibiotics
B. vaccines C. antibodies
C. antiseptics D. antigens
D. antibiotics.
222. Proteins located on the surface of a for-
216. What are fused in the production of mon- eign invading microbe and causes an im-
oclonal antibodies? mune response are known as
A. tumor cells and T-cells A. antibody
B. tumor cells and B-cells B. antigen
C. B-cells and T-cells C. antibiotic
D. antibodies and antigens D. hormone
217. Antibiotics fight infections by 223. How do antibodies function to fight infec-
tion?
A. preventing viruses from replicating.
A. They mark the cell for duplication
B. killing bacteria
B. They mark the cell for reproduction
C. killing infected cells
C. They mark the cell for death
D. growing green mold that inhibits bac-
D. none of above
terial growth
224. A disease spread through the air is called
218. Lymphocytes are which type of cell?
A. Airborne
B. T-cells and B-cells B. Dropletborne
C. Nerve cells C. Bareborne
D. Red blood cells D. Waterborne
219. This type of immunity recognizes specific 225. An agent that causes a disease is a
pathogens and attacks that pathogen.
A. Pathogen
A. innate immunity
B. Coronavirus
B. aquired immunity
C. Antigen
C. passive immunity
D. Leukocyte
D. none of above
226. These immune system cells stimulate ac-
220. What type of cells are memory cells? tions of other cells. What are they?
A. B cells A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Nerve Cells B. Memory B cells
C. Un-myelinated neurons C. Helper T cells
D. T-Cells D. B plasma cells

227. Cell Mediated Immunity involves: 232. Which of the following is characteristic of
A. B Cells the lytic cycle?
B. Antibodies A. A large number of phages are released

at a time
C. T Cells
B. The virus-host relationship usually
D. Plasma Cells lasts for generations
228. Getting these when you’re young helps C. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host
NARAYAN CHANGDER
your immune system fight off diseases genome
A. stickers D. The viral genome replicates without
B. shots (immunizations) destroying the host
C. bandages 233. What is the body’s last and most compli-

D. cough drops cated line of defense against a pathogen?
A. CirculatorySystem
229. What is the role of the Helper T-cell?
B. ImmuneSystem
A. they kill the macrophages
C. Physicalbarrier
B. they create platelets
D. Chemicalbarrier
C. they direct the other immune cells
D. they produce antibodies 234. A strategy for causing the body to de-
velop immunity to a specific pathogen.
230. Athlete’s foot, jock itch, and yeast infec-
A. antibiotics
tions are examples of diseases caused by
this type of microorganism B. vaccination
A. bacteria C. inflammation
B. virus D. immunity
C. fungus
235. Which viruses have single-stranded RNA
D. parasite that acts as a template for DNA synthe-
sis?
231. Why might physician recommend against
taking a fever-reducing medication when A. viroids
you have an abnormally high tempera- B. retroviruses
ture?
C. bacteriophages
A. A high temperature activates the im-
mune system. D. proviruses
B. A high temperature inhibits the growth 236. What part of blood is 55% of whole
of some disease-causing bacteria. blood?
C. A high temperature decreases blood A. Red Blood Cells
flow, so the disease will spread more
B. White Blood Cells
slowly.
C. Platelets
D. A high temperature inhibits the body’s
repair. D. Plasma

237. Wood ticks, liver flukes, and tape worms C. Innate & Autoimmune
are examples of this type of microorgan- D. Red & White Blood Cells
ism

A. bacteria 243. The sporozoan Plasmodium causes the
disease known as
B. virus
C. fungus A. African sleeping sickness.
D. parasite B. amebic dysentery.

C. malaria.
238. The most common type of leukocyte,
which functions to phagocytize bacteria D. algal bloom.
and other substances and forms pus?
244. Which cell primes B AND T cells?
A. lymphocyte
A. Macrophages
B. macrophage
B. Helper T cells
C. neutrophil
C. Cytotoxic T cells
D. thrombocyte
D. Humoral cells
239. Phagocytic white blood cells are an as-
pect of which line of defense? 245. Virus replication may be slowed down by
A. First Line only the natural production or administration of
this signaling protein:
B. Second Line only
A. interferon
C. Third Line only
D. Second and Third Line B. histamine
C. plasma cell
240. White blood cells the use phagocytosis to
engulf and digest bacteria are called? D. antibodies
A. B-Memory Cells 246. A large cell that engulfs and destroys
B. T-Cells pathogens, and is one of the first cells to
respond to an infection. What is the cell
C. Macrophages
called?
D. Phagocytes
A. Macrophage
241. The response in which antibodies defend B. Neutrophil
against infection in body fluids is called?
C. Helper T cell
A. Humoral response
D. Plasma B cell
B. Surface proteins
C. Killer T-cell 247. prokaryotic organisms which be treated
D. Cell mediated response with antibiotics
A. fungi
242. What are the two types of immune sys-
tems? B. bacteria
A. Acquired & Adaptive C. virus
B. Innate & Acquired D. animal parasite

248. Works with T cells, a type of white blood D. The B cells form plasma cells with pro-
cell that is key to the immune system’s duce ImE antibodies
ability to fight off infection and disease
253. Which body defence is a chemical bar-
A. Vitamin E rier?
B. Vitamin C A. antibody production
C. Vitamin A B. hairs in the nose
D. Vitamin D C. mucus lining the airways
NARAYAN CHANGDER
249. Why might you become ill after visiting a D. skin
friend who is sick with the flu?
254. When invaded with a pathogen,
A. The room your friend was in was too macrophages engulf the pathogen and use
warm. the resulting antigens to;
B. You ate the same kind of food your A. activate the helper B-cells, which acti-
friend ate. vate cytotoxic (kiiler) T cells to kill infec-
C. You did not dress properly. tion (cellular immunity) and T plasma cells
to secrete antibodies (humoral immunity)
D. The virus that causes the flu entered
your body. B. activate the helper B-cells, which acti-
vate cytotoxic (kiiler) T cells to kill infec-
250. An organism that enters a life form and tion (cellular immunity) and B cells to se-
causes disease or sickness is a/an: crete antibodies (humoral immunity)
A. macrophage C. activate the helper T-cells, which acti-
B. pathogen vate memory B cells to hunt down and de-
stroy the infection (cellular immunity) and
C. vaccine
T cells to secrete antibodies (humoral im-
D. flu munity)
251. What is in a vaccine that helps your im- D. activate the helper T-cells, which acti-
mune system fight a particular pathogen? vate cytotoxic (kiiler) T cells to kill infec-
tion (cellular immunity) and B cells to se-
A. antigens crete antibodies (humoral immunity)
B. the actual disease (whole bacteria or
virus) 255. Which type of surface marker is present
on every nucleated cell in your body?
C. antibiotic medicine
A. B receptor
D. candy
B. T receptor
252. During the allergic reaction, what do B C. MHC-I
cells form and what do they produce?
D. MHC-II
A. The B cells form memory B cells with
produce IgE antibodies 256. If a person is blood group AB, which anti-
B. The B cells form plasma cells with pro- gen(s) would cause an immune response,
duce IgE antibodies if injected into their blood?
C. The B cells form memory B cells with A. A

produce ImE antibodies B. B

C. O B. Active Immunity
D. None of these C. Antibodies

E. AB D. Antibiotics
257. Which cells activate helper T-cells by anti- 262. Fluid in the spaces between tissues is
gen presentation? called
A. B-cells A. Lymph
B. Bacteria B. Blood
C. Macrophages C. Interstitial fluid
D. Plasma cells D. Intravenous fluid
258. Which of the following is NOT a cardinal 263. What do antibodies do?
sign of inflammation? A. bind and flag infectious agents
A. swelling B. destroys infectious agents
B. atrophy C. recognizes infectious agents
C. heat D. none of above
D. redness
264. What is the main advantage of live atten-
259. All of the following are contained within uated vaccine?
one human body system:spleen, bone mar- A. It provides more durable immunity;
row, lymph nodes, thymus gland, and boosters may be required, though less fre-
white blood cells circulating in the blood. quently than would otherwise be neces-
What human body system contains all of sary.
these components?
B. It is safer than other kinds of vaccines.
A. circulatory
C. It does not cause any severe side ef-
B. endocrine fects or complications.
C. immune D. It is suitable for people with any type
D. integumentary of health.
260. This is a component of innate immu- 265. Which type of cell releases antibodies?
nity that patrols the lungs and “eats” in- A. Red blood cells
vaders.
B. Phagocytes
A. cilia
C. Platelets
B. tears
D. Lymphocytes
C. phagocytes
D. flora 266. What is the Immune system made of?
A. Tissues
261. All foreign materials (virus & bacteria pri-
marily) display that stimulate an im- B. Organs
mune response. C. Cells
A. Antigens D. All of the above

267. Killer T Cells- 272. Select the immune response, chosen from
the list below, that is most closely as-
A. Kill the pathogen
sociated with that phrase.Immune Re-
B. Kill your infected body cells sponse(1) Active immunity(2) Passive im-
munity(3) Allergies(4) Tissue rejection-
C. Kill only viruses
Chemicals known as histamines are re-
D. Kill only bacteria leased as a result of antibody production.
A. 1
268. Chemical defense molecules on tears
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2
A. Lysosome
C. 3
B. Lysozyme
D. 4
C. Enzyme
273. What produce antibodies?
D. Fatty acids
A. Helper T cells
269. The flu is caused by a microbe that is not B. Killer T-cells
strictly living and must invade its hosts
C. B Cells
cells to replication. The flu is a
D. Phagocytes
A. bacteria
274. B cells make plasma cells, which make
B. virus
C. fungi
A. B Cells
D. Protist B. antigens
270. Which of the following is one of C. antibodies
the body’s external defenses against D. T Cells
pathogens?
275. All of the following are generally used in
A. Macrophages engulf and digest vaccines EXCEPT
pathogens.
A. toxoids.
B. Dead skin cells drop off and carry away
pathogens. B. parts of bacterial cells.
C. live, attenuated viruses.
C. Antibodies bind to specific antigens on
a pathogen’s surface. D. inactivated viruses.
D. The body’s temperature rises to fight E. antibodies.
pathogens, causing a high fever.
276. Babies receiving antibodies from their
mother during embryonic development
271. What is involved in Humoral immunity?
and/or breastfeeding is a form of
A. Neutrophils A. active, natural immunity
B. B cell activation B. passive, natural immunity
C. Cytotoxic T-cells activation C. active, artificial immunity
D. Natural Killer Cells D. passive, artificial immunity

277. A type of T cell that destroys viral in- C. phagocytes

fected cells is a: D. T cells

A. cytotoxic T cell
283. Swine flu is a disease that can be passed
B. helper T cell from one person to another. Because of
C. memory T cell this we say it is
D. suppressor T cell A. infectious
B. noninfectious
278. The immune system is made up of:
C. immune
A. Tissues
D. harmless
B. Organs
284. Phagocytes that primarily attack bacteria
C. Cells
A. Phagocytes
D. All of the options
B. Antigen
279. Histamines trigger dilation of nearby C. Neutrophils
blood vessels as well as an increase in
their permeability, producing D. Antibodies
A. redness and heat only. 285. Which is an example of an antiseptic? .
B. swelling only. A. penicillin
C. pain. B. soap
D. redness, heat, and swelling. C. vaccine
D. toxoid
280. Which of the following secretes his-
tamine? 286. Attacks & kills antigen, if it is recognized
A. B cells A. Macrophage
B. macrophages B. T Cells
C. neutrophils C. B Cells
D. mast cells D. none of above
281. Which of the following do white blood 287. are white blood cells that fight infec-
cells release too much of in allergic reaction by “eating” or engulfing pathogens.
tions? A. T-cells
A. eosinophils B. B-cells
B. antigens C. Macrophages
C. histamines D. none of above
D. allergens 288. B Cells are created where?
282. The white blood cells that engulf A. Thyroid
pathogens that are inside of the body are B. Spleen
A. lymphocytes C. Bone
B. interferons D. Lymph Nodes

289. Are cuts and sores the only way to get C. A thick, wet, substance in your respi-
past the skin? ratory tract that traps and destroy foreign
A. No invaders like virus or bacteria before they
can get into your body and cause an infec-
B. Yes tion.
C. Mabye D. None of the above.
D. none of above
295. is the process of reclaiming raw mate-
290. Waste that has had contact with blood
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rials and reusing them to create new prod-
or other body fluids is considered contam- ucts.
inated and is disposed of as which of the A. Reducing
following types of waste in most states?
B. Repurposing
A. Hazardous
C. Recycling
B. Contaminated
D. Composting
C. General
D. Biohazard 296. White blood cells that are involved in the
third line of defence of the immune system
291. How many types of immunity are there include
A. 3 A. mast cells.
B. 5 B. eosinophils.
C. 6 C. lymphocytes.
D. 2 D. macrophages.
292. Getting the chicken pox as a kid is an ex- 297. A dangerous immune response to a safe
ample of: substance.
A. Passive natural immunity A. viruses
B. Passive artificial immunity B. allergies
C. Active natural immunity C. infection
D. Active artificial immunity D. none of above
293. Which of the following is NOT part of the 298. The outer covering of the body.
secondary immune response
A. fever
A. Inflammation
B. allergies
B. skin
C. skin
C. Fever
D. none of above
D. Phagocytosis
299. Which cells produce antibodies?
294. Cilia is
A. macrophages
A. Tiny hair-like structures on the surface
of cells in the respiratory tract that move B. monocytes
mucus away from the lungs and sinus. C. T cells
B. A physical barrier against illness D. B cells

300. An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called 306. This refers to the type of immunity devel-
a oped from exposure to a pathogen:

A. tumor A. active acquired immunity
B. cyst
B. passive acquired immunity
C. lesion
C. innate immunity
D. polyp
D. attenuated immunity
301. What is NOT true about vaccines?
A. They contain antibodies 307. Mark II scenarios were passive immunity
B. They lead to immunity is probable to happen.
C. They can stimulate an immune re- A. An antigen enter the body and the body
sponse reacts.
D. They contain dead or weakened mi- B. Blood transfusion
crobes
C. New born getting immunity from the
302. When the protective barrier of the skin is mother.
penetrated what is the body’s next line of
D. Vaccination
defense?
A. mucous membranes 308. Where is blood made?
B. antigens
A. Compact Bone
C. white blood cells
B. Spongy Bone
D. vaccines
C. Bone Marrow
303. Bacteria can harm your body and cause
disease by D. Liver
A. destroying cells and capturing toxins
309. That growth and division produces many
B. damaging tissue and releasing toxins B cells of two types:
C. damaging organs and ingesting cells A. plasma cells
D. causing fungus and viruses to grow
B. memory T cells.
304. What does the Lymphatic System do?
C. memory B cells.
A. Rid the body of waste
D. phagocytes
B. Remove toxins
C. Pump lymph around the body 310. A protein molecule released by a B cell
D. All of the above that binds to specific antigen marking them
as pathogens.
305. T helper cells possess a receptor
A. antigen
A. CD 1
B. antibody
B. CD 8
C. CD 44 C. allergy
D. CD 4 D. prion

311. This is the type of immunity where you 316. Which cell does the human immunodefi-
make antibodies to a specific antigen. ciency virus (HIV) directly attack that im-
A. passive immunity pairs the functioning of the immune sys-
tem?
B. active immunity
A. Helper T-cells
C. specific immunity
B. Killer T-cells
D. antiviral immunity
C. Memory B-cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
312. What is the term for a strong response to
D. Macrophages
a harmless antigen in the environment?
A. An allergy 317. The human body has both internal and ex-
ternal defense against disease. Which of
B. Cell-mediated immunity
these includes only internal defenses?
C. An autoimmune disease
A. hair and inflammation
D. Inflammatory response
B. white blood cells and sweat
313. Place the events in the immune response C. inflammation and white blood cells
shown below in the correct order. A. Killer
T-cells attack antibody-tagged pathogen B. D. skin and mucus
Macrophages alert Helper T-cells C. B cells
318. Involves the action of T lymphocytes and
are alerted to make antibodies D. Memory
phagocytes
B-cells create a record of the pathogen E.
Macrophages eat an invading pathogen A. colonial selection
A. E B C A D B. clonal selection
B. B C A D E C. humoral immunity
C. E A B D C D. cell-mediated immunity
D. C E D A B 319. Which of the following would most likely
314. One of the most important functions of cause an immune deficiency disorder?
the skin is to A. rapid or uncontrolled cell division
A. carry food to body cells. B. a pathogen impairs the body’s immune
B. protect the body. system
C. help the body move. C. the production of macrophages by the
immune system
D. let food into the body.
D. an allergic reaction to an ordinarily
315. Memory cells are responsible for the sec- harmless substance
ondary response being
320. Helper T Cells activate which of the fol-
A. slower than the primary response
lowing?
B. faster than the primary response
A. Cytotoxic T Cells
C. the same speed as the primary re-
B. B Cells
sponse
D. none of these. Memory cells are not C. Macrophages
part of the secondary response D. Natural Killer Cells

321. Which is Not a First Line of Defense for 326. Which part of a pathogen is recognised
the body against pathogens? by the immune system?

A. Skin A. active site
B. Stomach Acid digesting B. antibiotic
C. Saliva C. antibody
D. Antibodies D. antigen
322. The purpose of introducing weakened mi- 327. Proteins that help get rid of infections.
crobes into the body of an organism is to A. antibodies
stimulate the
B. skin
A. production of living microbes that will
C. allergies
protect the organism from future attacks
D. none of above
B. production of antigens that will pre-
vent infections from occurring 328. The barriers of your immune system in-
C. immune system to react and prepare clude all the following except?
the organism to fight future invasions by A. skin
these microbes
B. your hands
D. replication of genes that direct the syn-
C. saliva
thesis of hormones that regulate the num-
ber of microbes D. eye balls
323. Vaccinations are a type of 329. What is directly responsible for allergic
symptoms, including a runny nose or itchy
A. passive immunity
eyes?
B. memory immunity
A. pathogens
C. active immunity
B. antigens
D. shot immunity
C. histamine
324. Is the enhance of the immune system in D. T-lymphocytes
an area. The response include; blood ves-
sel become more permeable, blood flow in- 330. A molecule found on the outer surface of
creases, number of white cells increases. cells that the immune system recognizes
as either part of the body or an outside
A. White cells
invader.
B. Interferon
A. Antigen
C. Inflammatory Response
B. Aids
D. Blood Cells C. Antibodies
325. Antibiotics destroy D. Disease
A. Bacteria 331. Which component of the blood produces
B. Viruses antibodies?
C. Parasites A. lymphocytes
D. none of above B. phagocytes

C. plasma 335. The immune system produces what in re-

D. red blood cells sponse to the vaccine?
A. antigens
332. When a pathogen is ingested by a phago-
cyte, which event occurs first? B. antibiotics
A. T-cell antivation C. antibodies
B. memory cell proliferation D. the disease
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. antigen presentation by the phagocyte
336. Mark II options were active immunity is
D. B-cell activation probable to happen.
333. Many plant-eating organisms, including A. Vaccination
humans and grazing animals, are unable
B. An antigen enter the body and the im-
to digest the cellulose that makes up plant
mune response creating specific antibod-
cell walls. Most plant-eaters have a sym-
ies.
biotic relationship with a microorganism
that actually digest the cellulose releasing C. Blood Transfusion
the nutrients for the herbivore’s use. If a D. New born baby
grazing animal unable to digest cellulose
did not have this symbiotic microorganism, 337. A(n) is specially designed to safely
what might happen to the animal? hold municipal solid waste, construction
A. The grazer would realize that it needed debris, and some types of agricultural and
to find another food source besides industrial waste.
plants. A. sanitary landfill
B. The grazer would probably not be able
B. open dump
to get enough nutrients to survive.
C. waste pit
C. Over time, evolution would occur and
the grazer would adapt to new food. D. dumpster
D. The grazer would find a plant to eat
338. What is the immune system’s first line of
that did not have cellulose cell walls.
defense against infection?
334. Like all other body systems, the immune A. T cells
system helps the body maintain homeosta-
sis. Which statement best describes how B. intact skin
the immune system does this? C. respiratory system
A. it protects other organs and tissues D. digestive system
from infection and disease
B. it breaks down food to provide cells 339. A B cell that is actively making antibodies
with nutrients is called a(n)
C. it gathers information through the A. memory B cell
senses and controls all other body sys-
B. plasma cell
tems
C. Helper T cell
D. it transports oxygen and carbon diox-
ide D. Naive B cell

340. In a nonspecific immune response, what 345. A 6-year-old child ate a peanut butter
benefit is provided by a low fever? sandwich at snack time in school. Five
minutes later, her throat became swollen

A. to stimulate white blood cells
and she collapsed. This allergic reaction oc-
B. to attract phagocytes curred because her body
C. to increase the release of histamine A. recognized an antigen in peanut butter
and produced antibiotics against it
D. to produce inflammation
B. digested the white blood cells that can
341. Which of the following pathogens are recognize an antigen in peanut butter
prokaryotic? C. did not recognize an antigen in peanut
A. Bacteria butter and could not produce antibodies
against it
B. Virus
D. recognized an antigen in peanut butter
C. Protists and produced an immune response
D. Fungus
346. What is a possible cost of making land-
342. The first line of defense against fills?
pathogens is to A. It can attract unwanted animals
A. block pathogen from entering the B. It can leak chemicals into the soil.
body. C. We can’t dig a deep enough pit for all
B. kill infected cells. the trash.
C. send signals to increase immune cell D. It smells bad. Like really bad.
formation. 347. Proteins produced by Plasma B cells
D. kill the pathogen. and designed to mark antigens to be de-
stroyed, specific to the antigen.
343. Which is a reason that viruses can be A. Antigens
hard to combat (fight in an infected indi-
vidual). B. Active Immunity
A. They are easy to culture (grow) in lab- C. Antibodies

oratory conditions D. Antibiotics
B. They are large in size in comparison to 348. Which of the following can cause infec-
bacteria tions to open cuts?
C. They mutate at a fast rate A. Baceteria
D. They breed using binary fission B. Viruses
C. Fungi
344. A person with B-blood could receive
D. All of them
A. B+ blood
349. When an individual encounters the same
B. AB-blood
pathogen for a second time cells of
C. O-blood adaptive immunity respond
D. A+ blood A. NK and Macrophages

B. B and Dendritic Cells C. They signal B Cells

C. B and T cells D. They cause Inflammation
D. T cells 355. All of the following are ways that HIV
can be spread EXCEPT
350. Which of the following statements about
viruses and bacteria is true? A. sharing needles for intravenous drug
use.
A. Bacteria are smaller than viruses.
B. tending to another person’s bleeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Bacteria are nonliving, while viruses
wound when you have a cut on your hand.
are living.
C. using another person’s hairbrush.
C. The virus is nonliving so it has no cells,
while the bacteria is living so it is single D. having sex without a condom.
celled.
356. Focal infections initially start out as
D. They both are single celled and living.
A. septicemia
351. Creates a slightly acidic environment that B. bacteremia
discourages pathogen growth.
C. systemic infections
A. Stomach acid
D. sepsis
B. Tears E. local infections.
C. Mucus
357. How do human diseases caused by bacte-
D. Skin oils ria and diseases caused by viruses react to
352. Where does lymph come from? antibiotics?
A. Leaked blood plasma A. A. Neither responds to antibiotics.
B. Special lymph-producing ducts B. Both respond to antibiotics.

C. Viral diseases respond to antibiotics;
C. Glands in your elbow
bacterial diseases do not.
D. Apples
D. Bacterial diseases respond to antibi-
353. The only characteristic shared by a virus otics; viral diseases do not.
and a living cell is that they both
358. The body’s innate defenses against infec-
A. store genetic information in nucleic tion include
acids
A. The body’s innate defenses against in-
B. are primitive prokaryotes without nu- fection include
clei
B. increased production of certain hor-
C. perform respiration to obtain energy mones and changes in microcirculation.
D. have a cell membrane and cytoplasm C. memory cells.
354. What are memory T Cells? D. several specific antibodies.
A. The kills infected body cells 359. a person has a sensitivity to almonds,
B. They help the immune system respond what system is responsible for this sensi-
quicker if the same pathogen enters the tivity?
body again A. digestive

B. immune 365. The four main types of germs are:

C. respiratory A. Viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi

D. endocrine B. Viruses, parasites, fungi, and phago-
cytes
360. A living cell that a virus infects is called C. Parasites, bacteria, lymphocytes, and
a fungi
A. mast D. Small, medium, large, and extra large
B. host 366. The disease that results when the HIV
virus attacks the human immune system
C. cast
A. Aids
D. parasitic cell
B. Antibiotics
361. What are Lymphocytes? C. Microbe
A. A type of red blood cell D. Disease
B. A nucleus 367. What type of chemical is produced by B
C. A type of white blood cell cells and is designed to mark antigens to
be destroyed?
D. Bone Marrow
A. Antigens
362. Which of the following is/are type(s) of B. Active Immunity
leucocyte? C. Antibodies
A. mast cells D. Antibiotics
B. T-helper cells 368. Which of the following cells participate in
C. B lymphocytes nonspecific defense responses when your
body is invaded by microbes?
D. phagocytes
A. natural killer cells
363. What is a common feature of both active B. macrophages
and passive immunity? C. neutrophils
A. They are acquired by vaccination. D. all of the above
B. They are always short-term. E. none of the above
C. They involve the activity of memory 369. Under which circumstances will an anti-
cells. gen antibody reaction most likely occur?
D. They involve antibodies. A. A person with blood type A is given
type O blood.
364. Resistance to disease and pathogens. B. A person with blood type O is given
A. immunity type A blood.
B. immunization C. A person with blood type AB is given

type B blood.
C. histamine
D. A person with blood type AB is given
D. vaccine type O blood.

370. HIV is spread through 375. What is the general response the body
A. droplet infection has to an infection?
B. direct contact A. Non-specific response

C. blood and bodily fluids B. Humoral response
D. none of above C. Homeostasis
371. Lymphocytes that travel to the thymus D. Vaccines
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gland to mature
376. The body’s non-specific immune response
A. Antigen
to infection is
B. T-Lymphocytes
A. pyroclastic
C. B-Lymphocytes
B. adaptive
D. Phagocytes
C. innate
372. Which of the following is not apart of
your body’s first line of defense? D. intrinsic
A. Skin 377. How often should someone get their
B. Mucus tetanus booster shoot?
C. Stomach Acid A. Every year
D. Antibodies B. 3-5 years
373. Bill has athlete’s foot. After he walks C. 10 years
barefoot through the locker room, his
teammate Carlos contracts the disease. D. 20 years
Which sentence correctly describes what
378. Which of the following is a true purpose
happened?
of inflammation?
A. Bill passed a bacterial infection to Car-
los through contaminated food. A. destroy pathogens
B. Bill transmitted a fungal infection to B. limit spread of infection by confine-
Carlos through a contaminated object. ment and walling off
C. Carlos caught a viral infection from Bill C. Tissue repair after damage by microor-
through person-to-person transmission. ganism
D. Carlos caught a parasitic infection D. all of the above
from Bill through animal-to-person trans-
mission. 379. While in the lymphatic vessels, tissue
fluid pass through structures called
374. Specialised lymphocyte white blood cells
that filter the fluid
are an aspect of which line of defense?
A. Lymphocytes
A. First Line
B. Second Line B. Lymph nodes
C. Third Line C. Thymus glands
D. Fourth Line D. Mucus traps

380. An occurs when a virus or microor- 385. Where are B and T lymphocytes pro-
ganism enters the body. duced?

A. infection A. thymus
B. ATP B. pancreas
C. allergies C. bone marrow
D. none of above D. thryoid
386. T cells mature in the

381. What is your bodies first line of de-
fense? A. bone marrow
A. The skin B. spleen

C. thymus
B. Muscles
D. kidney
C. Cell-mediated response
D. Humoral response 387. Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in
a(n)
382. This allows us to develop an artificial im- A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
munity to a disease without ever getting
B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
sick from the disease.
C. conjugated vaccine.
A. antibiotics
D. subunit vaccine.
B. vaccines
E. toxoid vaccine.
C. blood transfusions
388. What is the primary function of Interfer-
D. none of above
ons?
383. What is the primary function of your im- A. Destroy the immune system
mune system? B. Produce the T and B cells
A. to create organelles C. Drive cells into an anti-viral state by in-
B. to protect your body from pathogens ducing cells to produce AVPs
C. to aid in blood circulation D. None of the above
D. to protect your bones and muscles 389. HIV attacks our immune system by:
A. Infecting red blood cells
384. Some staphylococcal infections re-
sult from direct contact with infected B. invading nervous system cells
wounds.Which of the following cells is a C. invading Helper T-cells
first line of defence against staphylococcal D. releasing toxins which destroy
bacteria? macrophages
A. B cells
390. How do breathing passages help keep
B. Skin cells pathogens out of the body?
C. Killer T cells A. Chemicals kill some pathogens.
D. Helper T cells B. Mucus and cilia trap pathogens.

C. Phagocytes in the breathing passages C. production of antibodies and memory

destroy pathogens. B cells that are left behind
D. They produce antibodies that kill D. antigens on the surface of pathogens
pathogens.
396. Having all BUT this underlying condition
391. What first happens to a B lymphocyte can make the effects of Covid-19 worse.
when it becomesactivated?
A. diabetes
A. It divides by mitosis producing a clone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of cells. B. chronic lung disease
B. It begins transcription and produces C. heart disease
antigens. D. athelete’s foot
C. It differentiates into memory cells.
397. The four main types of germs are
D. It produces antibodies using its exten-
sive rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER). A. viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi
392. If you take antibiotics only the resistant B. viruses, parasites, fungi, and phago-
bacteria survive and the non-resistant bac- cytes
teria die. This is an example of C. parasites, bacteria, lymphocytes, and
A. Resistance fungi
B. Survival of the fittest D. small, medium, large, and extra large
C. How antibiotics work 398. Which of these is caused by a virus?
D. none of above
A. Strep throat
393. antigens are choose all that are cor- B. Mad cow disease
rect
C. Common cold
A. microbes that cause a specific immune
response D. Tuberculosis (TB)
B. seen as “foreign” to the body 399. All of the following are part of our anti-
C. normal microbiota gen specific defense mechanisms except:
D. bacteria with capsules A. acute inflammation
E. pollen or other allergens B. lymphocytes.
394. What type of pathogen causes Ebola? C. antibody production

A. Bacteria D. macrophages
B. Fungi 400. Viruses are composed of two major com-
C. Virus ponents
D. Protist A. DNA
395. What causes immunity? B. Proteins
A. production of antigens by helper t cells C. Ribosomes
B. macrophages engulfing pathogens D. Antibodies

401. Bacteria cause disease by B. The cold virus mutates too quickly for
A. becoming part of a cell’s DNA a vaccine to be effective

B. decomposing dead organic matter C. Colds are not usually serious enough
for it to be worthwhile to develop a vac-
C. releasing toxins or breaking down cine.
cells
D. Colds are not infectious so it doesn’t
D. carrying viruses into healthy tissues matter.
402. Develops throughout your life and im-
407. A condition, other than an injury, that
proves as you are exposed to disease
prevents the body from working as it
A. Passive Immunity should
B. Adaptive Immunity A. Disease
C. Antigen B. Antibody
D. Antibodies C. Immune System
403. All of the following cells are phagocytic D. Vaccine
except for
A. basophils 408. Occurs when the immune system is ex-
posed to antigen and memory cells are pro-
B. neutrophils duced. (T and B cells).
C. lymphocytes A. Passive Immunite
D. eosinophils B. Active Immunity
404. How are infectious diseases spread? C. Nonspecific Response
A. through coughing, sneezing, or physi- D. Specific Response
cal contact
B. through contaminated water and food 409. T cells mature in the
C. by infected animals A. Thymus gland

D. all of the above B. Tibia Bone
C. Tongue
405. This type of cell inspects cells for antigens
and kills any cells that display the foreign D. Tonsils
antigens.
410. What role does our circulatory system
A. Macrophage
have with regards to fighting infection?
B. T Cells
A. circulates white blood cells to lymph to
C. B Cells fight infection
D. none of above B. circulates red blood cells and white
blood cells to fight infection
406. There is no vaccine against the common
cold because: C. circulates lymph and red blood cells to
fight infection
A. Colds are caused by bacteria so we
can use antibiotics to treat them. D. none of above

411. The immune system of humans may re- C. Getting vaccinated

spond to chemicals on the surface of an in- D. Avoid touching wild animals
vading organism by
A. releasing hormones that break down 415. The cells and signaling molecules that ini-
these chemicals tiate inflammatory responses are
B. synthesizing antibodies that mark A. the phagocytes and the lysozymes.

these organisms to be destroyed B. the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C. the dendritic cells and the interferons.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. secreting antibiotics that attach to
these organisms D. the mast cells and the histamines.
D. altering a DNA sequence in these or-
416. immunity occurs when an individual
ganisms
receives antibodies.
412. Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be ini- A. active
tiated when
B. passive
A. the microbe survives the acidic envi-
C. false
ronment of the stomach and resists lyso-
somal degradation in macrophages. D. cell mediated
B. the chemotactic messengers released 417. Clinical manifestation associated with in-
by the microbe do not attract sufficient fection is called as
neutrophils to entirely destroy the infec-
A. Pathogenesis
tion.
B. Disease
C. there is a delay in selection of the pop-
ulation of eosinophils that recognize and C. Immunity
fight these microbes. D. Resistance
D. the microbes release chemical mes-
418. What is produced in the body during HIV
sengers that make them resistant to
infection?
phagocytosis.
A. Anti-HIV antibiotics
413. Virulence factors are B. Anti-HIV antibodies
A. molecules produced by pathogens that C. Anti-HIV anticodons
enable them to evade the host’s immune
response D. Anti-HIV antigens
B. molecules produced by pathogens that 419. What happens after the second time you
enable them to attach to the host cells are exposed to a pathogen?
C. molecules produced by pathogens that A. The body will not be able to fight off the
enable them to attach to the host cells pathogen quickly, because it knows how
D. All of the above to get into the body easier.
B. The body’s immune system will react
414. Which is NOT a way to protect your- the same was as it did during the first ex-
self from contracting a communicable dis- posure.
ease?
C. The body can only be exposed to a
A. Washing your hands pathogen a second time if you do not have
B. Participating in high risk behavior a vaccine.

D. The body will know how to fight off B. Helps activate other immune cells
the pathogen quickly, because memory
C. Produces antibodies
cells have been created after the first en-

counter. D. Binds to antigens
420. The Sabin vaccine is a liquid contain- 425. This is the word for a disease causing or-
ing weakened polio viruses. Why do ganism.
vaccinated individuals become protected
A. Phagocyte
against polio?
B. Pathogen
A. The weakened viruses prevent further
viral invasion C. Pandemic
B. The weakened viruses induce an in- D. none of above
flammatory response.
426. The secretion of antibodies by lympho-
C. The weakened viruses promote pro-
cyte B cells provides
duction of antibodies.
A. cell-mediated immunity
D. The weakened viruses are too weak to
cause illness. B. passive immunity
421. If a red blood cell has no antigens on its C. humoral immunity

surface, what is its blood type? D. permanent immunity
A. A
427. To be “immune” means what?
B. B
A. that you are infected
C. AB
B. that you are more likely to get sick
D. O
C. that you are bald
422. A condition in which a person’s immune
D. that you are protected
system is overly sensitive to environmen-
tal substances that are normally harmless. 428. Which of the following is an immediate
A. Allergy effect of histamine release?
B. Antigen A. dilation of local blood vessels
C. Bacteria B. blocking of a response to ragweed
D. Virus pollen
C. conversion of histamine to histidine
423. Vaccines stimulate the body to produce
D. increase in blood pressure
A. autoimmune diseases
429. Certain white blood cells use phagocyto-
B. helper t-cells sis to
C. fever A. destroy old memory cells
D. antibodies B. engulf and digest bacteria
424. What is the role of a B cell? C. produce circulating antibodies
A. Kills pathogens D. secrete toxins to destroy pathogens

430. The type of immunity acquired when the C. white blood cells-carry oxygen
body has previously contracted a disease D. platelets-produce antibodies
and recovered is called immunity.
436. Antigens prepared in such a way that
A. naturally aquired
when injected or taken orally they induce
B. inherited active immunity without causing disease.
C. active A. antibiotics
D. artificially acquired B. antifungal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. B cell
431. What is the purpose of antibodies?
D. vaccine
A. To pump lymph through the vessels
B. To create lymph 437. This type of immunity uses antibodies to
fight invaders.
C. To fight infection
A. innate immunity
D. To remove old red blood cells
B. aquired immunity
432. What is the first line of defence, acting C. passive immunity
as a barrier, against disease? D. none of above
438. A new vaccine was developed and then
B. Red blood cells tested on a large sample of individuals.
C. the skin This new vaccine will be considered effec-
tive if it helps prepare the body to fight
D. leucocytes future invasion by
433. Pathogens cause an infection when they A. inhibiting the response of red blood
get inside your body and cells
A. Cause harm B. stimulating the reproduction of mi-
crobes
B. Chill
C. inhibiting the action of immune cells
C. Die
D. stimulating the production of antibod-
D. none of above ies
434. What do antibodies attach to on the 439. Which of the following is an example of
pathogen? active immunity?
A. Anti inflammatory A. You get a vaccination
B. Antigens B. You create antibodies
C. Antiseptic C. You get infected
D. Antibodies D. All of these are correct
435. Which part of the blood is correctly paired 440. Which can be treated with antibiotics?
with its function? A. Virus
A. plasma-transports wastes and hor- B. Bacteria
mones C. Mutagen
B. red blood cells-fight infection D. Parasite

441. Many species of bacteria have become 445. Antibody-mediated immunity is also
resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics known as
have been so widely used. Now, bacte-

A. colonial selection
ria that used to be killed by antibiotics are
more difficult to treat. What is the best B. clonal selection
way to proceed in dealing with this pub- C. humoral immunity
lic health problem? A. Antibiotics should D. cell-mediated immunity
no longer be used.B. Antibiotics should be
made available to anyone without a pre- 446. What is a way to become immune to a
scription.C. Antibiotics should only be pre- disease without first having the disease?
scribed to people with bacterial infections.
A. antibiotics
D. Anti-viral medications should now be
used instead of antibiotics. B. Anti-retroviral drugs
A. Antibiotics should no longer be used. C. Vaccinations
B. Antibiotics should be made available to D. Exposure Therapies
anyone without a prescription.
447. A secondary immune response occurs
C. Antibiotics should only be prescribed when an antigen isencountered on a sec-
to people with bacterial infections. ond occasion, due to exposure to a
D. Anti-viral medications should now be pathogen that previously caused infec-
used instead of antibiotics. tion. Which property of some viruses ex-
plains the lack of a secondary immune re-
442. Which cell releases histamine during sponse?
acute inflammation? A. Viruses fail to induce a primary re-
A. neutrophils sponse.
B. eosinophils B. Viruses can have a high mutation rate.
C. platelets C. B cells do not interact with viruses.
D. mast cells D. Antibodies cannot interact with
viruses.
443. Which of the following is present in tears
and kill bacteria? 448. Proteins that have a specific fit to a spe-
A. NaCL cific antigen are called
B. Lysozyme A. allergens
C. Neutrophil B. antibodies
D. Sebum C. antihistamines
D. none of these
444. Chemical that causes the blood vessels
around the infection to dilate (expand) so 449. This is used to PREVENT disease and in-
that more blood can flow to the infection fection.
A. Stomach acid A. antibiotics
B. Mucus B. vaccines
C. Epithelial cells C. over the counter medication
D. Histamines D. protein shakes

450. Injection of a weakened or mild form of C. Immunity

a pathogen to produce immunity is known D. none of above
as a(an)
A. antibody 455. What is one thing a spleen does?
B. antigen A. storage of lipids
C. vaccination B. activation of thymus gland
D. antibiotic C. destroys red blood cells by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
macrophages
451. cell which keeps record of previous infec-
tions to speed up future responses D. destroys red blood cells by neutrophils
A. memory cells 456. Are located in all lymphatic tissues and

B. cytotoxic T cells can be thought as antibodies factories.
C. plasma cells A. Helper T-Cells
D. suppressor T cells B. T-cells
C. B-Cells
452. Which of the following describes a way
that a person’s health can be affected by D. Antibodie
heredity?
457. What microbe is used to create penicillin,
A. A person with a family history of obe- which is an antibiotic?
sity is more likely to catch a common cold.
A. Virus
B. A person with a family history of high
blood pressure is more likely to have B. Fungi
heart disease. C. Protist
C. A person with a family history of obe- D. Bacteria
sity is less likely to enroll in a weight loss
plan. 458. What happens when a child is vaccinated
against tuberculosis?
D. A person with a family history of can-
cer is less likely to be screened for can- A. type of immunity:active, production of
cer. memory cells:no
453. What sort of pathogen causes dysen- B. type of immunity:active, production of

tery? memory cells:yes
A. A bacterium C. type of immunity:passive, production

of memory cells:no
B. A virus
D. type of immunity:passive, production
C. A fungus of memory cells:yes
D. A protist
459. Where does hemopoesis occur?
454. are made naturally by bacteria and
A. Yellow marrow
fungi, as well as artificially by human be-
ings. B. red marrow
A. Vaccination C. inside muscles
B. Antibiotics D. inside blood vessels

460. Skin, membranes, white blood cells and B. antigen

more make up this system in the body.
C. vector

A. nervous system
D. antibodies
B. digestive system
C. immune system 466. A dangerous immune response to a safe
D. reproductive system substance happens in people with
A. allergies
461. The different types of vaccines are:
A. live, weakened or attenuated B. resources
B. inactivated or killed C. skin
C. conjugated D. none of above
D. all of the above
467. Antibiotics
462. Which of the following diseases is pre-
vented with a vaccine when individuals A. Kill blood cells
travel to tropical countries? B. Help create blood cells
A. Tuberculosis C. Kill bacteria
B. Smallpox
D. Help create bacteria
C. Malaria
D. Influenza 468. What are tonsils?
463. Immunity involving B Cells is: A. Produce lymphocytes
A. Cell-mediated immunity B. Enlarged lymph tissue

B. Nonspecific defenses C. Masses of lymph tissue in the throat
C. Humoral immunity D. Lymphatic Organ
D. Slap yo’ mamma ain’t gonna be no sick
round here immunity 469. can make you sick.
464. These kind of cells releases cytokines; cy- A. Germs

tokines stimulate the cells of the immune B. Nutrients
system to an area of infection, they also
bind to pathogen releasing a chemical at- C. Biodiversity
tack, killing the pathogen. D. none of above
A. B-Cells
B. Cytotoxic T-Cell 470. What is not a consequence of vaccina-
tion?
C. Helper T-Cell
A. Antigens trigger an immune response
D. Antibodie
B. Antibodies lock onto antigens
465. substance that triggers a specific re-
sponse of the immune system C. Memory cells are produced
A. pathogen D. Phagocytes produce antibodies

471. The main function of the inflammatory re- B. Antibodies are only made when you
sponse is to are given a vaccination for specific anti-
A. initiate the production of antibodies. gens.
C. Antibodies are part of an external de-
B. remove contaminating microorgan-
fense mechanism.
isms and initiate repair of damaged tis-
sues. D. Antibodies bind to specific antigens to
flag for destruction.
C. initiate T cell-mediated immune re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sponses. 476. Treatment for diseases caused by bacte-
ria, like strep throat can be treated by:
D. initiate the production of killer cells.
A. Antivirals
472. Prokaryotes with a spherical shape B. Antiparasitics
(round) are classified together and are
called C. Antifungals
D. Antibiotics
A. bacilli
B. spirilla 477. Which of the following types of
pathogens are carried in the blood and
C. cocci body fluids of infected individuals and that
D. flagella can be transmitted to others?
A. Bloodborne
473. Rate how you feel about the subject mat-
ter this week (5 I really understand it, 1 B. Parenteral
star I did not understand any of it). C. Virulent
A. 5 D. Acquired
B. 4 478. Why do organ transplant patients need
anti-rejection medication?
C. 3
A. to prevent the recipients blood type
D. 2
from changing and adopting the immune
E. 1 system of the donor
B. to prevent the destruction of the trans-
474. Affects the spinal cord leaving many in-
planted organ by the patients immune sys-
fected individuals paralyzed, infection rate
tem
dropped by 99% when vaccine was intro-
duced in 1955. C. to stimulate the interaction of B-and T-
lymphocytes
A. polio
D. To stop the recipients MHC from at-
B. measles tacking the donor organ.
C. pertussis
479. Antibiotics work by blocking the growth
D. tetanus and reproduction of
A. viruses only
475. What is the function of antibodies within
the immune system? B. bacteria only
A. Antibodies kill off any antigen that en- C. fungi only
ters the body. D. viruses and bacteria

480. Which disease would be treated with 485. Innate immunity

penicillin? A. is activated immediately upon infec-

A. Chickenpox tion.
B. Diabetes B. depends on a newly infected animal’s
previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C. Cancer
C. is based on recognition of antigens
D. Strep Throat
that are specific to different pathogens
481. A protein produced by a B cell of the im- D. is found only in vertebrate animals.
mune system that destroys a pathogen
486. One of the following plays the major role
A. B Cell in humoral immunity.
B. T Cell A. bladder
C. Vaccination B. pathogens
D. Antibody C. B cells
482. Which of the following is NOT a “non- D. none of the above
specific defense” used to fight against in- 487. The activation of helper T cells is likely
fection.
A. when an antigen is displayed by a den-
A. Mucus dritic cell.
B. Saliva B. when a cytotoxic T cell releases cy-
C. Skin tokines.
D. B-cells C. when natural killer (NK) cells come in
contact with a tumor cell.
483. How do vaccines help to fight infection? D. ) in the bone marrow during the self-
A. the body creates memory cells that tolerance test.
stay in the blood to fight infection if they
are exposed again 488. Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multi-
plying in the blood of cattle. What
B. the body creates brain cells that stay is the condition specifically called when
in the blood to fight infection if they are pathogens multiply in the blood?
exposed again
A. Focal Infection
C. the body creates antibiotics that stay
B. Local infection
in the blood to fight infection if they are
exposed again C. Septicemia
D. none of above D. Systemic infection
E. Bacteremia
484. What type of cell is involved in non-
specific immunity and is especially effec- 489. Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
tive in killing viruses and tumor cells? A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
A. Natural Killer Cell B. subunit vaccine.
B. B-Lymphocyte C. toxoid vaccine.
C. Neutrophil D. conjugated vaccine.
D. Macrophage E. nucleic acid vaccine.

490. Which of the following does NOT describe 495. What initiates an immune response in the
macrophages? body?
A. Phagocytize pathogens A. antibody
B. Use digestive enzymes to degrade B. antigen
pathogens
C. histamine
C. Present chewed up bits of pathogens
on their cell surface D. antibiotic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Search for a specific antigen to engulf 496. Every time a child visited a cousin who
491. When a macrophage engulfs a pathogen has two cats, the child’s eyes turned red,
and displays the antigens, what happens itched, and began to water. Then, the child
next? began to have trouble breathing. It is most
likely that the child reacted this way be-
A. Helper T cells pick up information cause
about the specific pathogen
A. it is difficult for the respiratory system
B. B cells produce antibodies to filter cat antigens out of the inhaled air
C. Killer T cells destroy more pathogens
B. cat antigens are a health hazard, since
D. Nothing they always cause disease
492. What is the FIRST step of how a vaccine C. normally harmless cat antigens stimu-
works? lated the immune system
A. Your body makes antibodies and de- D. cat antigens stop the immune sys-
stroys the invaders tem from making antibodies, so bacteria
cause these responses
B. You get a shot with weakened invaders
in it
497. To dispose of contaminated needles and
C. You don’t get sick the next time those other disposable sharp objects properly in
invaders enter your body a dental office, the dental professional
D. The antibodies stay in your body to “re- should discard them in which of the follow-
member” the invaders ing?
A. Trash can
493. What is the role of nasal mucus?
B. Staff room trash
A. collect dead cells
B. lubricate the nasal passage C. Sharps container
C. make phlegm D. Plaster trap

D. trap particles 498. recognizes foreign material and en-
gulfs (eats) it.
494. antibiotic resistance is caused by
A. too many drugs A. Macrophage/Phagocyte
B. selection B. T Cells
C. a mutation C. B Cells
D. illness D. none of above

499. People who receive organ transplants 504. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are
sometimes produce antibodies in response produced
to foreign proteins present in the organ of

A. before birth
the donor. This reaction is an example of
B. after exposure to an antigen
A. deamination
C. by virus-infected cells
B. clotting
D. by bacterial pathogens
C. regeneration
D. rejection 505. Disorder of organs or how the organ
works that affects part or all of an organ-
500. Bacteria, virus, and parasites are consid- ism.
ered
A. White Blood Cell
A. erythrocytes
B. Antibody
B. leukocytes
C. Disease
C. Caribs
D. Pathogen
D. pathogens
506. HIV is an example of what kind of trans-
501. Pathogens are
mission?
A. Foreign substances that attack the
A. Bloodborne
body.
B. Waterborne
B. White blood cells that attack foreign
substances that enter the body. C. Airborne
C. A type of internal defense mechanism D. none of above
in the immune system.
507. What is the Immune system?
D. Proteins that cause disease.
A. The body’s defense system
502. What are antibodies?
B. A system that gives support and struc-
A. Organisms or viruses that cause dis- ture
ease
C. A system that helps you breathe
B. Drugs used to treat bacterial diseases
C. Substances the body recognizes as for-
eign 508. Cave art by early humans recognized the
D. Proteins that bind to foreign sub- existence of the major signs of inflamma-
stances tion. The most inclusive set of symptoms
of inflammation that might appear in such
503. What is another name for B cells that pro- early human art is
duce antibodies? A. heat, pain, and redness.
A. plasma cells B. pain and whitening of the surrounding
B. memory cells tissue.
C. natural killer cells C. swelling and pain.
D. macrophages D. swelling, heat, redness, and pain

509. Many species of bacteria have become the protozoa through a mosquito bite.
resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics These mosquitoes are examples of
have been so widely used. Now, bacte- A. viruses
ria that used to be killed by antibiotics are
more difficult to treat. What is the best B. pathogens
way to proceed in dealing with this public C. parasites
health problem? D. vectors
A. Antibiotics should no longer be used.
514. Which type of white blood cell defends
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Antibiotics should be made available to the body by engulfing pathogens?
anyone without a prescription.
A. phagocyte
C. Antibiotics should only be prescribed
B. basophil
to people with bacterial infections.
C. B cell
D. Anti-viral medications should now be
used instead of antibiotics. D. T cell
515. What is an important function of the

510. MULTIANSWER:Specific Immunity could
spleen?
be best described as:
A. Storage of blood
A. Designed to be the front line defense
for the body. B. Resist foreign organisms
B. Designed to be for specific diseases C. Drainage system to transfer needed
protein
C. Designed to neutralize general dis-
eases D. none of above
D. Designed to deal with serious threats 516. Nonspecific immunity includes all of the
to the body following except
A. Macrophages (WBC)
511. What is a non-living organism that con-
tains genetic material and hijacks cells? B. fever
A. Bacteria C. inflammation
B. Acne D. antibodies
C. Virus 517. In some individuals, the immune system

attacks substances such as grass pollen
D. Allergen
that are usually harmless, resulting in
512. What is a protective y-shaped protein A. an allergic reaction
produced by the immune system?
B. a form of cancer
A. Antibody C. an insulin imbalance
B. Antibiotic D. a mutation
C. Antigen
518. Are responsible for the immunity that of-
D. Antimicrobial ten follows infection or vaccination.
513. Mosquitoes infected with the protozoa A. Memory B lymphocytes

that cause malaria can infect people with B. Plasma cells

C. T lymphocytes 524. all of the following have a mucous mem-

D. Antigens brane except?

519. Saliva, tears, and sweat contain which A. respiratory
enzyme? B. urinary
A. lysozyme
C. digestive
B. protein kinase
D. teeth
C. hydrochloric acid
D. lactase 525. Which of the following is/are true about
520. A protein molecule released by a B cell antibody structure?
that binds to specific antigens. A. They are made of four polypeptides
A. antigen
B. The variable region is recognised by
B. antibody phagocytes
C. allergy
C. The constant region is where the anti-
D. prion gen binds
521. The inflammatory response includes all of D. The heavy chains only contain constant
the following except regions
A. vessel constriction
B. temperature increase 526. What is a difference between viruses and
bacteria?
C. increased blood flow
A. A virus exhibits all criteria for life such
D. phagocyte attack
as respiration, growth, and development,
522. Viruses need a cell in order to copy while bacteria do not
themselves.
B. A virus attacks the cell’s genetic mate-
A. big rial, while bacteria produce & use toxins
B. infected to kill a cell
C. host C. A virus can have only one of three spe-
D. lot cific shapes (sphere, rod or spiral), while
bacteria are mostly DNA strands
523. What is the main reason we should be
careful not to over-use antibiotics? D. Bacteria and a lot smaller in size than
a virus
A. They are very expensive and the
money could be used for other things.
527. T-cells
B. We will kill all of the “friendly” bacte-
ria in our guts so we will have to consume A. originate in bone marrow.
lots of yougurt.
B. produce antibodies.
C. Dangerous strains of bacteria may de-
velop by natural selection. C. are motile.
D. It will kill all the helpful viruses D. are formed in the thymus gland.

528. How are vaccinations able to help us de- B. They bind to PAMPS on bacteria
velop immunity?
C. Once bound they transmit a signal that
A. Exposure to disease creates antibod- results in production of cytokines
ies which make us immune
D. All the above options are true
B. Exposure to antibodies which makes
us the disease immune to us 534. Acute inflammation can be initiated by:
C. Exposure to immunity’s which make us A. Mast cell activation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
antibodies to the disease
B. Influx of neutrophils.
D. none of above
C. An increase in vascular permeability.
529. prevent killer T cells from attacking nor- D. C3
mal body cells
E. Lysozyme.
A. cytotoxic T cells
B. fungi 535. Which cells actually kill invading bacteria
and viruses?
C. helper T cells
A. Antigens
D. suppressor T cells
B. B cells
530. What happens if your immune system
does not recognize a germ? C. T cells
A. The body will fight against it D. thrombocytes

B. The germ will multiply 536. What are examples of lymphocytes?
C. antibodies will attack each other A. Lymph nodes
D. none of above B. T and B cells
531. HIV can be spread by: C. immunoglobins
A. Blood to blood contact D. none of above
B. sexual contact
537. Vaccines are most often associated with
C. breastmilk this pathogen.
D. all of these A. Virus
532. What is the role of antibodies in fighting B. Bacteria
a virus?
C. Fungus
A. they call in the macrophages
D. none of above
B. they recognize and neutralize the virus
C. they make white blood cells 538. Macrophages and the inflammatory re-
sponse is part of what line of defense?
D. they kill the phagocytes
A. first line
533. Which of the following is true of Toll Like
B. second line
Receptors
C. third line
A. They are found on the surface of im-
mune cells D. fourth line

539. The cell which is part of the cell-mediated 545. A cancer of the bone marrow that causes
response is an over production of white blood cells

A. B-plasma cells. A. leukopenia
B. Cytotoxic T-cells. B. polycythemia
C. macrophages.
C. anemia
D. mast cells.
D. leukemia
540. What are monocytes, macrophages, lym-
phocytes? 546. What was Edward Jenner’s theory about
cow pox?
A. They are white blood cells
B. They are red blood cells A. If you had small pox you couldn’t get
cow pox
C. They are neutrophils
B. cow pox were found on milk maid’s
D. none of above
hands
541. Which of the following is NOT an exam- C. small pox could kill you
ple of vaccination?
D. if you had cow pox you couldn’t get
A. BCG
small pox
B. Rubella
C. Nabila 547. Which of the following produce antibod-
ies and are the antibody factories of the
D. DPT cell?
542. What are two examples of chemical bar- A. Plasma cell
riers?
B. Th cell
A. Lysozyme enzyme in our tears
C. NK cell
B. Skin
C. White Blood Cells D. Monocyte
D. Stomach Acid 548. First-line defence mechanisms in humans

543. What can happen when germs invade the include
body? A. development of fever.
A. biodiversity B. the action of phagocytes.
B. infection C. the use of antibiotics.
C. eukaryote
D. the presence of cilia on some cells.
D. none of above
549. Which of the following is not a way to
544. What do white blood cells create to fight
prevent or treat viruses?
infections?
A. antibiotics
A. Antibodies
B. Leukocytes B. antiviral medications
C. Antibiotics C. vaccines
D. Antigens D. wash your hands

550. What does it mean to be immune? 555. You are sick with strep throat, which is a
bacterial infection. What type of medicine
A. That your likely to get sick
will the doctor prescribe?
B. You are immortal
A. a vaccine
C. That you are protected B. an antibiotic
D. All of the above C. an antibody
551. Which of the following does NOT charac- D. an immune system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
terize inflammation? 556. Which of the following is/are true of an-
A. There is an increase in blood flow to tibody production?
the area. A. Activated T helper cells activate
B. There is a response to pathogens once macrophages so they clone by mitosis
they have traveled throughout the body. B. Activated T helper cells activate B cells
C. Macrophages destroy foreign sub- so they clone by mitosis
stances. C. Plasma cells remain in the blood for
D. The area may swell, become red, and years and clone faster if reinfected at a
be painful. later date
D. Memory cells produce and secrete spe-
552. What shape is a bacteria with coccus in cific antibodies into the blood to destroy
the name? the pathogen
A. Spiral 557. Bacterial infections such as Methillin-
B. Rods resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
are a serious health concern for humans be-
C. Sphere cause they cannot be controlled or killed by
D. None of the Above antibiotics. How can antibiotic resistant in-
fections be prevented?
553. This gland, located in the upper portion A. using antibiotics to treat only viral in-
of the chest, is the lymphatic site where T fections
cells are produced and mature:
B. giving preventative antibiotics to hos-
A. tonsils pital patients
B. trachea C. avoiding the unnecessary prescription
C. thymus of antibiotics
D. thalamus D. discontinuing prescribed antibiotics

once you start feeling better
554. Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immu-
nity include all of the following except
against infection?
A. neutrophils. A. Physical barriers
B. macrophages. B. White blood cells
C. dendritic cells C. Blood plasma
D. natural killer cells. D. Red blood cells

559. Which of the following are part of your C. They mutate slowly.
bodies first line of defense? D. They are genetically simple.

A. skin
565. What occurs in the body after the injec-
B. gastric juices tion of a vaccine containing antigens?
C. saliva A. Activated B-cells divide to form mem-
D. all of the above ory cells.
560. Antibiotics treat B. The receiver of the vaccine develops

passive immunity.
A. Bacterial infections
C. Helper T-cells produce specific anti-
B. Viral Infections bodies.
C. Both Bacterial and Viral Infections D. Macrophages are cloned and destroy
D. none of above the antigen.
561. Which of the following is part of the 566. What is passive immunity?
adaptive immunity? A. a type of general protection that hu-
A. monocytes mans have. Many of the germs that affect
B. neutrophills other species don’t harm us.
C. Macrophages B. immunity that is “borrowed” from an-

other source and it lasts for a short time
D. T cells
C. This type of immunity develops
562. An immune response is primarily due to throughout our lives
the body’s white blood cells recognizing D. none of above
A. a hormone imbalance
567. Which food does not have to be cold to
B. abiotic organisms be safe?
C. foreign antigens A. ice cream
D. known antibiotics B. eggs
563. Which of the following is considered an C. meat
organ of the immune system? D. apple
A. thyroid
568. One function of the skin is to
B. bone marrow
A. sense the environment
C. liver
B. produce antibodies
D. gallbladder
C. provide oxygen
564. Which of the following is a reason (one of D. regulate blood flow
many), that viruses can be hard to combat
(fight in an infected individual). 569. Mr. Lane went to the doctor and found
A. They are difficult to culture in a labora- out that he had a noninfectious disease.
tory. What could have caused his disease?
B. They are large in size in comparison to A. bacteria in food that he ate

bacteria. B. a mutagen in his environment

C. parasites in his drinking water C. you made antibodies

D. a virus passed from another person D. you got your mother’s antibodies at
birth
570. Another name for white blood cells is:
A. 576. Which of the following is a first line of
B. Red Blood Cells defense against infection?
C. Epitheial Cells A. antibodies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Leukocytes B. mucus layers and cilia
C. antibiotics
571. An injection of preformed antibodies pro-
duces immunity. D. red blood cells
A. active
577. Although vaccines cannot be used to treat
B. memory a person who is sick, they can help to pre-
C. passive vent infections. Vaccinations tell the body
to create “memory cells”, which will func-
D. resistance
tion later to create antibodies against cer-
572. Non-specific defenses against foreign in- tain pathogens. When a person is vacci-
vaders include all of the following EXCEPT nated, what are they injected with?
A. stomach acid A. antibodies to a disease bacterium
B. mucus B. live, inactive viruses
C. lysosymes C. weakened viruses or antigens from
D. plasma B cells the virus
D. blood from a person who has had the
573. What is phagocytosis?
disease
A. WBCs
B. When a cells eat other cells 578. This type of immunity is acquired by the
transfer of maternal antibodies across pla-
C. When a cell collapses centa (IgG) / in breast milk (IgA).
D. When a cell releases nutrients
A. Naturally acquired Passive immunity
574. What is the body’s most important non- B. Artificially induced Passive immunity
specific defense?
C. Naturally acquired Active immunity
A. passive immunity provided by mom.
B. skin
C. active immunity provided by vaccines. 579. Prokaryotic cells that may or may not
cause disease in humans are called
D. inflammatory response
A. Bacteria.
575. How does a person get immunity through
PASSIVE immunity? B. Organelles.
A. you have been infected C. Plasmids.
B. you have been vaccinated D. Viruses.

580. What is the oxygen carrying protein in C. Insulin

blood?
D. No clue

A. hematocrit
B. hemopoesis 586. What type of cell does HIV destroy?
C. hemoglobin A. b-helper cell

D. hemostasis B. WBC
581. Which cells make up adaptive immunity? C. T-helper cells
A. macrophages D. RBc
B. natural killer cells 587. The two types of white blood cells are
C. B cells and T cells (select all that apply):
D. red blood cells A. Red Blood Cell
582. Which antigens are present on the red B. Leukocyte
blood cells of a person who has type O C. Lymphocyte
blood
D. Phagocyte
A. A only
B. A and B 588. The germ theory of disease states that
C. B only infectious diseases are caused by
D. neither A or B A. toxins
B. microorganisms
583. Which formed elements are cell frag-
ments? C. herdity
A. platelets D. pollutants in the environment
B. red blood cells
589. Cells that provide a physical barrier to re-
C. plasma sist pathogen invasion, as well as secrete
D. white blood cells protective substances to discourage the ac-
cumulation of pathogens.
584. Body temperature that has risen above
the normal set point ( 37 C or 98.6 F); can A. Macrophages
indicate an illness. Causes more WBC to B. White blood cells
be made.
C. Epithelial cells
A. B cell
D. Helper T Cells
B. fever
C. virus 590. What do scientists call bacteria and
viruses that can make people sick?
D. T cell
A. diseases
585. What chemical is released by the immune
system in response to an allergen? B. vaccines
A. Dopamine C. antibodies
B. Histamine D. pathogens

591. Which microorganism is single-celled and C. pathogens

has no nucleus? D. lysozymes
A. Bacteria
597. What is one of the functions of white
B. Virus
blood cells?
C. Fungus
A. To carry oxygen in the blood stream
D. Parasite
B. To produce antigens that destroy
pathogens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
592. Which of the following is a non-specific
immune response? C. To ingest and destroy pathogens
A. Helper T cells D. To carry Carbon Dioxide
B. Killer Lymphocytes
598. A disease that is not caused by a
C. Skin pathogen
D. Histamine release A. Vaccine
E. B cells B. Passive Immunity
593. A deficiency in hemoglobin or red blood C. Vaccination
cells. D. Noninfectious disease
A. anemia
599. Which of the following cells are primarily
B. polycythemia targeted by HIV?
C. leukemia A. Nerve cells
D. leukocytosis B. Helper T cells
594. Which is NOT considered a first line of C. Phagocytes
defense?
D. Cytotoxic T cells
A. White Blood Cells
600. Individuals who are unable to be vacci-
B. Skin
nated can be protected from a pathogen if
C. Hair enough of the general population is immu-
D. Mucous Membranes nized. This phenomenon is known as
A. passive immunity
595. An inflammation-causing signal released
by mast cells at the site of an infection is B. active immunity
A. an interferon. C. group immunity
B. lymphatic fluid D. herd immunity
C. histamine 601. A small injected dose of a pathogen that
D. mucis stimulates the production of antibodies is:
A. histamine
596. Phagocytes and lymphocytes are both
types of B. interferon
A. white blood cells C. pathogen
B. red blood cells D. vaccine

602. The resistance to specific pathogens, or 608. Virus-infected cell secrete a protein
disease-causing agents is called named interferon, this protein will alert
neighboring cells of the virus, these cell

A. spleen
will produce antivirus in them to help pre-
B. lymphatic system vent viruses infections.
C. anitbodies A. Chemical Barriers
D. immunity
B. Skin
603. What is the ability to resist the C. Interferon
pathogens that cause a particular dis-
D. Component Proteins
ease?
A. defense 609. In lymph nodes
B. immunity A. white blood cells mature into T cells.
C. immune system B. lymph drains back into the circulatory
D. none of above system.
C. old and damaged red blood cells are
604. Why do epidemics not occur as frequently destroyed.
now versus 100 years ago?
D. B and T cells gather and attach to for-
A. Immunizations/Vaccinations eign antigens.
B. New medicines
610. An example of the humoral response
C. Better hygiene
would be
D. none of above
A. the production of antibodies in re-
605. This kind of lymphocyte attaches to B- sponse to a pathogen.
cells and other kind of T-cells to activate B. blood complement proteins lysing bac-
antibody recreation on both cells. teria.
A. B-Cell C. interferon being released in response
B. T-Cell to a viral infection.
C. Helper T-Cell D. TC cells attacking a cancer.
D. Antigen 611. What is an allergy?
606. The lymphatic system A. Capable of recognizing antigens on a
A. controls blood clotting. foreign cell to mark it for destruction
B. contains red blood cells. B. a toxin or other foreign substance
which induces an immune response in the
C. has vessels with thick, muscular walls.
body, especially the production of antibod-
D. contains phagocytic cells. ies.
607. What is the main function of the spleen? C. a state of hypersensitivity induced by
A. Digest food exposure to an allergen
B. Produce white blood cells D. the immunity which results from the
production of antibodies by the immune
C. Filter blood system in response to the presence of an
D. Make new blood cells antigen.

612. Inflammation is an aspect of which line of C. A Cell

defense? D. Phagocyte
A. First Line
618. What is the body’s first line (non-specific)
B. Second Line
of defense against infection by foreign or-
C. Third Line ganisms?
D. Fourth Line A. antibodies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
613. Proteins that recognize and bind to a par- B. lymph nodes
ticular antigen with very high specificity. C. white blood cells
A. antigen D. the skin
B. antibody
619. The first line of localized defense of the
C. B cells immune system is:
D. Lymphocytes
A. lymphatic response
614. Inflammatory responses typically include B. infection response
A. clotting proteins migrating away from C. auto-immune response
the site of infection.
D. inflammatory response
B. increased activity of phagocytes in an
inflamed area. 620. Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate im-
C. reduced permeability of blood vessels munity of vertebrates include I) neu-
to conserve plasma. trophilsII) macrophagesIII) dendritic cell-
sIV) natural killer cells
D. release of substances to decrease the
blood supply to an inflamed area. A. I and III
B. II and IV
615. An organism that causes disease
C. I and IV
A. Pathogen
D. I, II, and III
B. Infectious Disease
C. Phagocyte 621. This type of immunity is developed after
exposure to an infection (antigen).
D. Antigen
616. What is immunity?
B. Artificially induced Passive immunity
A. Resistance to health.
C. Naturally acquired Active immunity
B. Resistance against disease.
C. Resistance to genetics.
D. Resistance to organics. 622. Immune cells regards this as foreign:
A. antibody
617. A large cell that engulfs and destroys
pathogens is called a B. antigen
A. T Cell C. T-Cells
B. B Cell D. Cytotoxic T-Cells

623. T-lymphocytes 628. What is Systemic lupus erytheosus?

A. Act as markers to identify pathogens A. Body produces antibodies that attack

for B-lymphocytes to destroy the membranes lining and the joints
B. Destroy foreign pathogens marked by
B. Genetically inherited disease in which
antibodies
the immune system is severely impair
C. Generate new lymph
C. Body produces antibodies that attack
D. Create antibodies to mark pathogens
a variety of tissues and organs
624. What category of immune response D. Body produces antibodies that attack
would sneezing and mucus production fall nerve cells
under?
A. Innate Immunity 629. Cellular agents capable of causing infec-
B. Acquired Immunity tion of body cells include
C. Humoral Immunity A. prions.
D. Cell Mediated Immunity B. toxins.
625. Which of the following are found in the C. DNA viruses.
interstitial fluid and consume any bacteria
and virus-infected cells they encounter? D. Gram-negative bacteria.
A. erythrocytes
630. Cells that sound the alarm are
B. leukocytes
C. macrophages A. memory T cells
D. interferons B. memory B cells
626. Which type of cell will remember what C. plasma cells

the antigen looks like and produce a rapid D. helper T cells
secondary response?
A. Plasma B cells 631. This cell destroys cells infected with a
B. Memory B cells virus
C. Plasma T cells A. Helper T Cells
D. Memory T cells B. Memory T cells
627. Which of the following is NOT an inflam- C. B Cells
matory response?
D. Cytotoxic T Cells
A. tender, war, and red skin surrounding
a sinple scrape
632. Which disorder is caused by bacteria?
B. irritated, red, and swollen gums result-
ing from gingivitis A. Common cold
C. antibodies and memory cells attacking B. AIDS
whooping cough bacteria in the body
C. Strep throat
D. extra plasma and white blood cells be-
ing brought to the site of a lung infection D. Heart disease

633. If a person has already had chicken pox, 638. Which cell activates B AND killer T cells?
why do they generally not get sick a sec- A. Macrophages
ond time?
B. Helper T cells
A. Memory B and T cells activate the
immune system before the virus has a C. Cytotoxic T cells
chance to make you sick D. Red blood cells
B. Natural killer cells recognize the
pathogen quicker 639. Which best describes the relationship be-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tween antibodies and antigen?
C. Your 1st line of defense does a better
job A. One antibody can affect several differ-
ent antigens.
D. none of above
B. Antibodies are specific to one antigen.
634. All of the following protect the skin and
C. Antigens are produced in response to
mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
antigen.
A. Multiple layer of cells
D. Immunity develops when an antigen
B. The Ciliary escalator destroys an antibody.
C. Saliva
640. eukaryotic pathogen which typically
D. Tears feeds off a hosts tissue, has cell walls
E. HCl made of chitin
635. Bacteria and dead cells are removed from A. virus

circulatory fluid in the B. bacteria
A. alveoli C. fungi
B. villi D. animal parasite
C. nephron
641. A protein, produced by the immune
D. lymph nodes system that either attacks invading
pathogens or marks them for killing.
636. Histamines directly cause:
A. Antibodies
A. Helper T cells to mark pathogens for
destruction B. Anitbiotics
B. Cytotoxic T cells to become activated C. AIDS
C. B and T cells to create memory cells D. Allergy
D. Blood vessels to dilate and leak fluid
642. The major destructive result of an infec-
and WBC’s
tion from invading viruses such as the in-
637. Which of the following is a part of the fluenza virus is
body’s specific defenses? A. release of viral toxins in the blood-
A. an antibody stream.
B. inflammation B. destruction of cells by viral enzymes
C. a macrophage C. destruction of cells by viral replication
D. mucus production D. interfering with the cell’s life functions

643. What are TWO ways you can get immu- C. mucus
nity from a virus? (select both)
D. all of the above

A. getting a vaccine for the virus
B. getting infected with the virus (getting 649. Is the first barrier against infection fight
sick from the virus on accident or on pur- off all pathogens with no specific re-
pose) sponse.
C. taking antibiotics A. Chemical barrier

D. eating probiotics B. Skin
644. This type of immunity is developed after C. Interferon

getting a vaccination. D. Component Proteins
650. A body system that works to keep the
B. Artificially induced Passive immunity organism healthy.
C. Naturally acquired Active immunity A. infection
B. bacteria
645. A patient who can produce antibodies C. immune system
against some bacterial pathogens, but not
against viral infections, probably has a dis- D. none of above
order in his
651. A medicine produced by microorganisms
A. B cells used to destroy pathogens in humans and
B. plasma cells. domestic animals
C. t cells A. Antibiotics
D. macrophages B. Immune System
646. Which type of T cell lyses cells that have C. Microbe
been infected with viruses? D. Vaccine
A. inducer T cells
B. helper T cells 652. Where are antibodies produced?
C. cytotoxic T cells A. B cells

D. suppressor T cells B. T cells
C. Thymus
647. Nonspecific defenses include
A. skin and tears D. Macrophages
B. Asthma 653. What is a disease-causing organism
C. inflammatory response and fever called?
D. HIV and AIDS A. antibody
648. First line defenses include B. host

A. skin C. pathogen
B. hair D. phagocyte

654. Overzealous immune response to an oth- 659. Which of the following is true of aller-
erwise harmless substance. gens?
A. allergen A. They are present only in peanuts
B. spleen B. They have the same effect on everyone
C. allergy C. They make the immune system overre-
D. fever act
D. They cannot cause anaphylaxis.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
655. Which immune system cell destroys
pathogens that have been antibody 660. Outbreaks of disease, called epidemics,
“tagged”? can be prevented by vaccinating much of
A. Helper T-cells the population through a process known
as
B. Killer T-cells
C. Plasma B Cells A. herd immunity.
D. Memory B cells B. anemic immunity

C. innate or natural immunity
656. How many chambers of the heart are
there? D. none of above
A. 25 661. Select the immune response, chosen from
B. 4 the list below, that is most closely as-
sociated with that phrase.Immune Re-
C. 2
sponse(1) Active immunity(2) Passive im-
D. 3 munity(3) Allergies(4) Tissue rejectionA
vaccine containing a weakened disease-
657. Virus replication may be slowed down by causing organism is injected into the body.
the chemical:
A. 1
A. interferon
B. 2
B. histamine
C. 3
C. plasma cell
D. antibodies D. 4
658. Antibiotic 662. Which of the following describes how an-

tibiotic resistance occurs?
A. An organism that lives and feeds off
another organism A. Weak viruses take over the machinery
of bacteria cells.
B. disease that does not typically spread
from person to person B. Strong bacteria resist reproducing.
C. a substance produced by the body that C. Strong viruses cause bacteria to be-
attaches to a pathogenand aids in its de- come resistant to medicine.
struction
D. Weak bacteria are killed first, leaving
D. a drug that can kill or stop the growth behind stronger strains of bacteria that
of harmful bacteria are capable of reproducing.

663. Which of the following remember anti- C. By releasing antigens

gens that have already attacked the
D. none of above
body?

A. Antibodies 669. A disorder in which the immune system
is overly sensitive to a foreign substance
B. B Cells
C. Antigens A. Allergy
D. Memory Cells B. Cancer

C. Autoimmune
664. Protection provided to an individual by
the transfer of antibodies produced by an- D. Multiple Sclerosis
other organism
670. Which parts of the respiratory system
A. probiotic immunity keep pathogens from reaching the inside
B. active immunity of your body? (select all that apply)
C. passive immunity A. nose hair
D. retroactive immunity B. lungs
665. This type of immunity occurs when peo- C. mucus

ple develop their own antibodies: D. blood
A. Passive
671. What is an example of active immunity?
B. Active
A. Antibodies passed from the mother to
C. Physical fetus across theplacenta
D. Chemical
B. Antibodies produced by another organ-
666. B-cells and T-cells are examples of ism and injectedto protect against a dis-
which help fight against infection. ease
A. non-specific defenses C. Antibodies passed from the mother in

colostrum duringbreastfeeding
B. specific defenses
D. Antibodies produced after the defence
C. active immunity defense
mechanisms havebeen stimulated by anti-
D. passive immunity defense gens
667. immunity is when the bodies makes 672. A large number of students in a school
its own antibodies. have all developed the same bacterial in-
A. passive fection. Which is most likely the cause
of the infection spreading from student to
B. active
student?
C. cell mediated
A. polluted air
D. false
B. visits to the same dentist
668. How do phagocytes kill pathogens? C. contaminated surfaces and poor hy-
A. By engulfing them gienic habits such as not washing hands
B. By wrapping them up in protein strings D. unhealthy eating habits

673. Are proteins produced by B-lymphocytes C. decrease mutations in the person re-
that specifically react with foreigns anti- ceiving the transplant
gens. D. increase mutations in the person re-
A. Component Proteins ceiving the transplant
B. Antigen 678. An allergy is
C. Antibodies A. an overreaction to nonharmful anti-
D. Enzymes gens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
674. T lymphocyte matured in B. an appropriate response to a harmful
substance
A. Bone marrow
C. an immunodeficiency
B. Tonsils
D. an autoimmune disease
C. Thymus
D. Liver 679. Antibodies
A. destroy body cells
675. First-line defences that mammals have
against invasion by disease-causing bacte- B. destroy toxins within particular
ria include viruses and bacteria
A. lysozymes. C. make pathogens stick together
B. interferons. D. destroy every virus and bacteria
C. antibodies. 680. Which of the following is not a kind of

D. cytotoxic T cell. pathogen?
A. Bacteria
676. Individuals with AIDS may have difficulty
fighting off otherwise harmless infections B. Protists
because AIDS C. Mosquitoes
A. causes colds and fevers that wipe out D. Fungi
B cells.
681. Which part of a neuron RECIEVES infor-
B. produces antibodies that attack
mation?
healthy cells.
A. axon
C. attacks T4 (T helper) cells that nor-
mally fight off infection. B. dendrite
D. sits inactive in cells until it is triggered. C. cell body
D. axon terminal
677. To increase chances for a successful organ
transplant, the person receiving the organ 682. Which of the following is a component of
should be given special medications. The the first line of defense?
purpose of these medications is to
A. Skin
A. increase the immune response in the
person receiving the transplant B. Natural killer cells
B. decrease the immune response in the C. Fever

person receiving the transplant D. Inflammation

683. Mast cells produce which causes the C. The B-cells produce antibodies more
inflammatory response. quickly if the chicken pox virus is encoun-
tered again.

A. interleukin
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to
B. histamine
T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
C. antibodies
688. Antibodies are specific (acts on) one
D. interstitial fluid
A. Antigen
684. Viral diseases can be B. white blood cell
A. treated with antivirals and prevented C. red blood cells
with vaccines. D. virus
B. treated with vaccines and prevented 689. What is the name for the markers that
with antibiotics. attach to a pathogen to help the immune
C. prevented with antibiotics but not system recognize that it needs to be de-
treated with vaccines. stroyed?
D. prevented with antibiotics but not A. antigen
treated with vaccines. B. antibody
C. macrophage
685. B cells and T cells
D. bacteriophage
A. 1st line defense
690. What is your immune system?
B. 2nd line defense
A. a pathogen you catch
C. 3rd line defense
B. none of the above
D. 4th line defense
C. a flu shot
686. Defending the body against bacterial in- D. body’s protection against diseases
fection and invasion by foreign substances
691. A(n) is a substance that causes an im-
is the function of
mune response. It can be on the surface of
A. red blood cells a pathogen.
B. plasma A. antigen
C. lymph fluid B. antibodies
D. macrophages C. B cells
D. T cells
687. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize
the chicken pox virus. How is this helpful 692. Pneumocystis pneumonia is an oppor-
in human immune response? tunistic fungal infection that frequently be-
gins occuring in patients with less than
A. The B-cells use this recognition to de- helpter T cells.
fend the body against other pathogens,
A. 100
such as bacteria.
B. 200
B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and
respond to any other virus that invades C. 500
the body. D. 1200

693. A type of cell that “digests” pathogens C. fungi

is known as a/an: D. virus
A. helper T cell
699. Which of the following is considered per-
B. macrophage sonal protective equipment (PPE) that the
C. suppressor T cell employer should provide free of charge to
the employee?
D. plasma cell
A. Protective eyewear
NARAYAN CHANGDER
694. Which cells work to destroy body cells in- B. Shoes
fected by a pathogen?
C. TB skin test
A. T cells
D. Ultrasonic cleaner
B. B cells
700. the reason why someone may be allergic
C. basophils
to almonds but not peanuts is
D. phagocytes
A. the antigens on the almonds are differ-
695. Which pathogen reproduces using binary ent than the antigens on the peanuts
fission (Asexual Reproduction)? B. the body produces different antibodies
A. Virus C. the immunes system knows the al-
B. Bacteria mond is harmul but the peanut is not
C. Fungi D. the almond has a pathogen but the

peanut does not
D. Parasite
701. Macrophages are large white blood cells
696. examples of fungus that grows within that can engulf foreign substances contain-
the outer layers of human skin causes ing antigens. Both macrophages and lym-
A. ringworm and athlete’s foot phocytes, such as T cells, appear together
at the site of infection. Which statement
B. herpes and golden staph
best explains how macrophages initiate an
C. mold and mildew immune response when a new antigen is
D. mushrooms first encountered?
A. Macrophages incorporate the antigen
697. What do scientists call organisms, into their genetic material and produce
viruses, or particles that can make peo- a large number of identical macrophages
ple sick? that are programmed to destroy that spe-
A. diseases cific antigen
B. vaccines B. Macrophages present the antigen di-
rectly to a memory B cell that produces an-
C. antibodies
tibodies programmed to destroy that spe-
D. pathogens cific antigen.
698. A noncellular infectious agent that can C. Macrophages present the antigen to
replicate only within a host cell. helper T cells, which activate B cells to
produce plasma cells, and the plasma
A. protist cells release antibodies that identify and
B. bacteria help destroy that specific antigen

D. Macrophages present fragments of 706. Which cell type is the smallest?

the antigen to other macrophages, which A. bacteria
are able to seek out and destroy the anti-

gen by releasing helper T cells that engulf B. plant
that specific antigen C. animal
D. fungi
702. The body produces all of the following as
defenses against disease except- 707. histamines cause what reaction in the
A. antibodies body?
B. macrophages A. the production of antibodies
C. T-cells B. a fever
D. antigens C. blood vessels to get large(swell)
D. the activation of helper t cells
703. When invaded with a pathogen,
macrophages: 708. A person who has received a vaccine
against polio
A. send chemical messages to the lymph
nodes A. is able to produce antibodies against
polio.
B. send for T-cells to guide the attack
against the antigen B. is more susceptible to the polio virus
than someone who has not had the vac-
C. attack T-cells cine.
D. activate the helper T-cells C. has polio antibodies in the blood-
stream.
704. What is the purpose of your immune sys-
tem? D. has antipolio killer T cells in the blood-
stream.
A. to protect your body against foreign in-
vaders such as viruses, bacteria, and par- 709. What cell snipes virally or cancer infected
asites. cell causing water and ions to rush in and
B. to protect your body against cancer make the cell burst?
causing carcinogens A. Sniper Cells
C. to protect your body against foreign B. Natural Killer Cells
and toxic microbes C. Rifle Cells
D. to protect your body using foreign in- D. Bandit Cells
vaders such as viruses, bacteria, and par-
asites. 710. Why are Natural killer cells and phago-
cytes considered innate?
705. B Cells that remember antigens on for-
A. They are found on the surface of tis-
eign substances
sues
A. Memory Cells
B. They only kill bacteria
B. Plasma Cells
C. They destroy pathogens non-
C. T cells specifically
D. Killer cells D. None of the above

711. present in the pus of wounds C. source

A. esonophils D. host
B. neutrophils 716. In which of the following ways can a per-
C. basophiles son contract HIV?
D. monocytes A. from sexual intercourse
B. from donating blood
712. Which best explains how a nonliving
virus is able to reproduce? C. from a public swimming pool
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A virus becomes living when in contact D. from a mosquito bite
with a host organism.
717. What is innate immunity?
B. A virus infects a host organism by in-
A. Specific immunity produced by B cells
jecting its DNA into the cells of the host
that produce antibodies that circulate in
organism.
body fluids
C. A virus infects a host organism by
B. Immunity that is present before expo-
pulling the DNA from the cells of the host
sure and effective from birth. Responds
organism into itself.
to a broad range of pathogens.
D. A virus becomes living when a suffi- C. type of immunity produced by T cells
cient number of viruses invade a host or- that attack infected or abnormal body
ganism and cause an infection. cells
713. An infection in the body might result in a D. none of above
sudden
718. This type of vaccine contains parts of bac-
A. decrese in the activity of antigens pro- teria combined with proteins.
duced by the mitochondria
A. DTaP
B. decrese in the amount of DNA present
in the nuclei of cells B. Flu Vaccine
C. increase in the number of red blood C. HBV

cells D. Conjugated
D. increase in the activity of white blood 719. HIV attacks and kills which of the follow-
cells ing?
714. An immune response to an otherwise A. Plasma B cells
harmless substance. B. Memory B cells
A. allergen C. Helper T cells
B. influenza D. Cytotoxic T cells
C. allergy
720. What are macrophages?
D. fever A. large cells that engulf bacteria
715. The organism that is infected by a B. phagocytic cells that attack worms
pathogen/antigen is known as the: C. proteins released by infected cells to
A. survivor destroy viruses and cancer cells
B. infectee D. mast cells that release histamines

721. A virus causes a person to develop the 726. What happens in the body’s primary re-
common cold because it: sponse to a pathogen?

A. invades the host cell to reproduce A. a scab forms
B. removes energy from the host cell B. lymphocytes produce many antibodies
quickly
C. produces toxins in the host cell
C. particular lymphocytes are activated
D. protects the host cell from bacteria
and make copies of themselves
722. Which answer best describes how in- D. all lymphocytes are activated and
fectious diseases get transmitted (passed make copies of themselves
on)?
727. What are pathogens?
A. people can sneeze or cough and pass
A. organisms that cause disease
disease on through the air
B. organisms that are not living
B. drinking water can be contaminated
with diseases C. only viruses
C. objects such as doorknobs and towels D. Organisms that can be seen without a
can be contaminated by disease microscope
D. all of the above answers are ways that 728. A viral protein produced by lymphocytes
diseases are transmitted in response to a viral infection. This pro-
tein can be active against a number of
723. Which factor has the greatest effect on viruses
the rate of evolution of animals?
A. cytokines
A. use and disuse
B. keratin
B. environmental changes
C. compliment protein
C. asexual reproduction
D. Interferon
D. need to survive
729. Creates antibodies
724. When is passive/innate immunity devel- A. T-Lymphocytes
oped?
B. Lymphocytes
A. After a baby’s first vaccination
C. B-Lymphocytes
B. After a baby’s first bacterial infection
D. Leukocytes
C. Before birth
730. In mice, the LD50 for staphylococcal en-
D. After a baby’s first dose of antibiotics terotoxin is 1350 ng/kg, and the LD50
for Shiga toxin is 250 ng/kg. Which of
725. This type of immunity can be called non-
the following statements is true?
specific and refers to the bodies defenses
that are present since birth. A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin is the more
lethal of the two toxins.
A. resistance
B. The parenteral route is the preferred
B. adaptive immunity
portal entry for Shigella bacteria.
C. acquired immunity C. Shiga toxin is more lethal than staphy-
D. innate immunity lococcal enterotoxin.

D. More organisms of Staphylococcal bac- D. B-cell

teria must be ingested to cause infection, E. Skin and membranes
as compared to Shigella bacteria.
736. Cytotoxic T cells will bind with their TCR
731. Which practice contributes to the antibi-
to which of the following?
otic resistance of bacteria?
A. free antigen in a soluble form
A. failing to cover open cuts
B. taking only part of a prescribed antibi- B. antigens presented with MHC I
molecules
NARAYAN CHANGDER
otic
C. completing an entire antibiotic pre- C. haptens only
scription D. antigens presented with MHC II
D. toring medicine and antibiotic prod- molecules
ucts improperly
737. An organ, such as a kidney, used for
732. Which of the following is NOT considered transplant needs to be tested for compat-
a non-specific defense? ibility with the person who is to receive
the organ. If this is not done, the
A. mucus
A. donated organ might attack the im-
B. sweat
mune system
C. tears
B. immune system might attack the do-
D. antibodies nated organ
733. The two types of Lymphocytes are (select C. immune system might attack its own
all that apply): body cells
A. Macrophage D. donated organ might attack the body
B. Leukocyte
738. When the specific defenses raise the
C. B Cell alarm with antibodies and helper T cells in
D. T Cell response to the bodies’ own cells, this is:
A. An allergy
734. These cells bind to antigen presenting
cells signaling them to produce cytokines B. An immunodeficiency
that stimulate B and T cells to divide C. An autoimmune disorder
A. helper T cell D. A healthy occurrence
B. mast cell
739. The algal bloom called red tide
C. cytotoxic T cell
A. causes a tremendous increase in oxy-
D. plasma cells
gen content
735. Which part of the immune system is re- B. produces toxins that can harm fish and
sponsible for destroying infected cells that humans
have been tagged?
C. forms a mutualistic relationship with
A. Vaccines shellfish
B. Macrophages D. results in nitrogen-fixation in marine
C. T-cell waters

740. Which pathogen can be cured by antibi- 745. Which of the following are part of the
otics? nonspecific defence (innate immune sys-
tem) against diseases?

A. Virus
B. Bacteria A. B cells
C. Protist B. T cells
D. Fungi C. Plasma cells

D. Macrophages
741. fight allergic reactions, parasitic infec-
tions and inflammation in the body. 746. aka killer T cells, kill infected cells
A. Basophil A. suppressor T cells
B. Monocyte B. cytotoxic T cells
C. Lymphocyte C. helper T cells
D. Eosinophil D. plasma cells
E. Neutrophil 747. immunity that occurs when a person’s
742. Which of the following types of cells is own immune system produces antibodies
the first to give an indication of an infec- in response to the presence of a pathogen
tion within a specific immune response? A. Inflammatory Response
A. memory T cells B. Immunity
B. memory B cells C. Active Immunity
C. plasma cells D. Immune Response
D. helper T cells 748. What do B cells produce?
743. Proteins produced by B cells which are A. antigens
produced as a response to a specific anti- B. macrophages
gen.
C. T cells
A. Antigens
D. antibodies
B. Active Immunity
C. Antibodies 749. A pathogen
D. Antibiotics A. is good for the body

B. is any agent capable of causing harm
744. A substance or part of a substance (liv- to the body
ing or nonliving) that the immune system
recognizes as foreign and activates the im- C. regulates body temperature
mune system and reacts with immune cells D. none of above
or their products, such as antibodies.
750. Which of the following is/are functions
A. pathogen of antibodies?
B. allergen A. Preventing viruses from attaching to
C. antigen host cells
D. antibody B. Agglutinating pathogens

C. Cell lysis 755. Cells that engulf pathogens and destroy

D. Marking pathogens for faster phagocy- them.
tosis A. Macrophages
E. Neutralising toxins produced by B. Epithelial cells
pathogens
C. Skin cells
751. This gland, located anterior to the heart, D. Lining of the gut
but posterior to the sternum, is the lym-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
phatic site where T cells are produced and 756. What are Lysozymes?
mature: A. cells found in the immune system
A. tonsils B. Enzymes found in tears, urine, sweat
B. trachea that destroy pathogens
C. thymus C. molecules found on bacterial walls
D. thalamus D. Immune substances produced by fungi
752. What steps occur in blood clotting? 757. Proteins called can attach to the anti-
A. Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen which gen and make it useless.
then altersprothrombin into thrombin. A. antigen
B. Thrombin is converted to prothrombin B. antibodies
which then altersfibrinogen into fibrin.
C. B cells
C. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin which
D. T cells
then altersprothrombin into thrombin.
D. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin 758. Which of the following is NOT a nonspe-
which then altersfibrinogen into fibrin. cific defense?
753. As a defense against infection, a fever is A. mucus

created by the body in order to B. sweat
A. increase the flow of blood C. antibodies
B. raise body temperature to combat D. tears
pathogens
759. A cell within tissue that ingests antigens.
C. increase the production of Helper T-
cells A. macrophage
D. all of the answer choices are correct B. neutrophil
C. myelocyte
754. The mucus in your nose and the acid in
your stomach are both front-line defenses D. lymphocyte
against pathogens. Which of the following
is also a front-line defense? 760. What is the function of a booster shot?
A. Your antibodies A. Some individuals are allergic to the

first shot, so they need more than one
B. your booger shot.
C. Your skin B. The booster vaccines contain different
D. Your hair materials.

C. When the body is re-exposed to a dis- 765. When a tissue from a man is grafted
ease agent, it forms more memory cells onto a woman it may be rejected by the
for immunity. woman’s body. What is the main cause of

D. A booster shot will activate different this rejection?
cells of the immune system from those ac- A. antibody production
tivated by the first vaccine.
B. phagocytosis
761. A baby is born lacking a thymus gland. C. the action of antibiotics
What cells are missing in the child?
D. the presence of a Y chromosome
A. B cells
766. MULTIANSWER:Non-specific immunity
B. T cells
and defense systems would be classified
C. Plasma cells as what?
D. Macrophages A. Frontline Defense against infection
762. Which of the following pathogens are eu- B. First Line of Defense
karyotic C. Specialized, Second Line of Defense
A. Bacteria D. Adaptive Immunity
B. Virus
767. Antibiotics do not work on
C. Protists
A. bacteria
D. none of above
B. viruses
763. An increase in body temperature when
C. fungi
sick.
D. children
A. infection
B. fever 768. The difference between the primary and
C. skin secondary immune response is:
D. none of above A. The primary immune response is much

faster
764. Some antibiotics destroy disease-causing B. The numbers of antibodies produced in
bacteria by entering the bacterial cells and the primary response is greater
interfering with the critical life processes
that keep them alive. Why are antibiotics C. In the secondary response the antigen
not able to destroy viral infections? is disabled in a shorter amount of time
A. The wall surrounding a virus cannot be D. There is no difference between the
penetrated by antibiotic chemicals. two immune responses
B. Viruses are not cells, so they do not 769. Cancer fits into the category of in de-
perform the processes that antibiotics fense by the immune system
normally disrupt.
A. malfunctioning cells
C. Viruses are constantly moving, so an-
B. disease causing microorganisms
tibiotics cannot reach them.
D. Antibiotics are destroyed by the pro- C. foreign particles
tein coating that surrounds the viral DNA. D. none of above

770. General term for the introduction of an D. when presented on the surface of anti-
antigenic substance or vaccine into the gen presenting cells
body to produce immunity to a specific dis-
ease. 775. A white blood cell that makes antibodies
to help a provide immunity
A. inoculation
A. T cell
B. variolation
B. bacteria
C. vaccine
C. memory B cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. immunization
D. mast cell
771. The relationship between the immune
system of an organism and its social, bi- 776. How does passive immunity differ from
otic and abiotic environment active immunity? In passive immunity
A. Classical Immunology A. antibodies are produced by lympho-

cytes.
B. Cancer Immunology
B. immunity depends on vaccination.
C. Ecoimmunology
C. immunity is specific to one type of anti-
D. Therapeutic Immunology gen.
772. Which one of these options makes lym- D. no memory cells are produced.
phocytes?
777. Specificity and immunological memory
A. Blood Cells are both characteristics of the immune
B. Bone Marrow response.
C. Bacteria A. pyroclastic
D. The Heart B. adaptive
773. What will happen to antibody production C. innate

during the second exposure to the same D. intrinsic
antigen
778. What is the function of B cell
A. antibody production is slower and less
are made A. Proliferate plasma cell and memory B
cell
B. antibody production is quicker and
more are made B. Release antibodies
C. antibody production is quicker and C. Secrete interleukin-2

less are made D. Produce interleukin-1
D. antibody production is slower and 779. Which type of cell “stores” antibody af-
more are made ter the primary infection resulting in im-
774. T cells recognise antigen mune memory?
A. in its native form A. Macrophage
B. in solution in the plasma B. Erythrocyte
C. following presentation by pattern C. NK Cells

recognition receptors D. B Cells

780. The body’s primary defense against dis- 785. All of these are part of the innate immune
ease causing pathogens response except:

A. Immune system A. B cells
B. Allergy B. mast cells
C. AIDS C. natural killer cells
D. Bacteria D. macrophages
781. What is the Thymus Gland? 786. Interferon is a chemical messenger sent
A. Lymphatic organ located in the upper from a virus infected cell. What is its func-
mediastinum between the lungs tion?
B. Masses of lymph tissues in the throat A. Causes neighboring cells to make pro-
teins to block viral reproduction
C. Enlarged lymph tissue
B. Calls white blood cells over to take
D. none of above care of the infection
782. What is the correct order of your body’s C. Causes neighboring cells to build up
lines of defense against a disease? thicker cell membranes so the viruses
can’t enter
A. physical(skin) and chemical barriers,
inflammatory response (swelling), im- D. none of above
mune system
787. Which of the following is treatable with
B. immunesystem, physical (skin) and antibiotics?
chemical barriers, inflammatory response
A. Ringworm on the leg of a child.
C. immunesystem, inflammatory re-
sponse, physical (skin) and chemical bar- B. Influenza (flu)
riers C. Strep throat or bacterial infection
D. physical(skin) and chemical barriers, D. Common cold.
immune system, inflammatory response
788. Pathogens which have penetrated the
783. Which blood type is the universal recipi- first line of defence would include:
ent? A. Bacteria in the gut of the host.
A. AB+ B. Viruses adhered to the mucous lining
B. AB- of a bronchiole.
C. O+ C. Bacteria within the host’s bladder.
D. O- D. Viruses within a lymph node
784. What is the oxygen carrying pigment in 789. Lymphocytes are blood cells that are
blood? most closely associated with
A. hematocrit A. antibody production
B. hemopoesis B. oxygen transport
C. hemoglobin C. clot formation
D. hemostasis D. carbon dioxide transport

790. The cells that are crucial to the adaptive C. mucus

immune response are
D. all of the above
A. erythrocytes
796. If one of your parents is blood type A and
B. prokaryotes
the other is type B, which of the following
C. eukaryotes blood types would you likely be?
D. leukocytes A. O
NARAYAN CHANGDER
791. Which part of the neuron is a long fiber B. AB
that send information to other cells? C. A or B
A. dendrite
D. Any
B. terminal
797. An microbe that enters an organism and
C. cell body
causes disease or sickness is called a/an:
D. axon
A. macrophage
792. You have AIDS after what has hap- B. pathogen
pened?
C. vaccine
A. you have opportunistic diseases and t-
helper cells go below 300 D. flu
B. you test positive for HIV 798. Antigens (more than one answer)
C. you have pneumonia A. stimulate an immune response
D. you have opportunistic diseases and t-
B. engulf and digest the virus
helper cells are below 200
C. coat the virus in a protective layer
793. The inflammatory response is part of
D. identify/mark the virus as harmful
which line of defense?
A. 1st 799. Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile
B. 2nd duct of a patient following his liver trans-
plant surgery. This is an example of a
C. 3rd
A. nosocomial infection.
D. none of above
B. sporadic disease.
794. Taking antibiotics is generally an effec-
C. communicable disease.
tive way to fight diseases caused by
D. latent infection.
A. bacteria
B. viruses E. None
C. A and B 800. Antihistamine treatment reduces

D. none of above A. blood vessel dilation.
795. Nonspecific defenses include B. phagocytosis of antigens.
A. skin C. MHC presentation by macrophages
B. hair D. the secondary immune response.

801. MULTIANSWER; Throwback Ques- 806. B lymphocytes produce

tion:Select the type of organism cells that
A. allergens
HAVE a CELL WALL.

A. Bacterial Cells B. antigens
B. Animal Cells C. antibodies
C. Plant Cells D. all of these
D. Fungal Cells
807. Viruses include (select the 3 that ap-
802. The overuse of antibiotics has most likely ply)
resulted in the development of resistant
strains of which organisms? A. flu
A. bacteria B. common cold
B. fungi C. measles
C. protozoa
D. athlete’s foot
D. viruses
E. food poisoning
803. The immune system works with all of the
following system EXCEPT 808. What is clonal selection?
A. the integumentary
A. Production of memory B cells
B. the lymphatic
B. Production of a group of identical or-
C. the muscular
ganisms
D. the cardiovascular
C. Passive immunity as a result of inocu-
804. White blood cells are an important part lation withantibodies
of the human immune response. Two
types of white blood cells, neutrophils and D. Mitotic division of B cells activated in
macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phago- response toan infection
cytes perform which of the following func-
tions in the human body? 809. Why is it important to complete a course
of antibiotics?
A. They produce antibodies.
B. They bind to antigens and develop into A. to prevent antibiotic resistance
plasma cells B. so you do not waste drugs
C. They form a barrier against C. because antibiotics are good for you
pathogens.
D. They engulf and destroy bacteria D. none of above
805. Treatment for diseases caused by viruses 810. Where do T cells mature?
include the following
A. bone marrow
A. Rest
B. thymus
B. Drink lots of fluid
C. Antivirals C. brain
D. All are treatments D. thyroid

811. Which of the following cell types is 816. Which of the following would most likely
responsible for the humoral immune re- cause a noninfectious disease?
sponse?
A. using a locker room shower
A. B cells
B. being exposed to cigarette smoke
B. neutrophils
C. drinking unfiltered water from a moun-
C. natural killer cells tain stream
D. macrophages D. eating food that has been sitting out
NARAYAN CHANGDER
812. Which of the following actually kills infor a long time
vading microbes?
817. Live weakened polio virus can be used di-
A. lysozymes rectly in a(n)
B. stomach acid A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
C. intestinal enzymes B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
D. all of the above
C. conjugated vaccine.
813. A cellular structure used in phagocytosis D. subunit vaccine.
filled with digestive enzymes such as pro-
tease. E. toxoid vaccine.
A. vesicle 818. Which of these are types of white blood

B. Phagosome cells?
C. Phagolysosome A. Erythrocyte
D. Lysosome B. Phagocyte
814. Which sentence best describes a pan- C. Lymphocyte

demic? D. Blastocyte
A. The disease causes high fever and
vomiting. 819. Cause of allergies (such as pet, food, or
seasonal).
B. he disease passes through direct con-
tact with an infected person. A. Viruses
C. The disease is fatal if not treated im- B. Bacteria
mediately. C. Over reaction by the body to sub-
D. The disease has spread to every coun- stances
try in the northern hemisphere.
D. Fungus
815. The fungus that grows within the outer
layers of human skin causes 820. The system keeps the body healthy.
A. ringworm and athlete’s foot A. musculoskeletal

B. urinary tract infections B. hypothesis
C. mold and mildew C. immune
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma D. none of above

821. The receptors on T cells and B cells bind 826. To replace burned skin, doctors can
to successfully transplant replacement skin
taken from another part of the body of

A. antibodies.
the burn victim. Which statement best ex-
B. antigens plains why the transplanted skin is not re-
C. natural killer cells. jected?
D. immunoglobulins. A. The transplanted skin is damaged,

making the immune system nonfunctional.
822. Diabetes is a disease that can not be B. The antigens of the replacement skin
passed from one person to another. Be- are the same as those of the damaged
cause of this, we say it is skin.
A. infectious C. Burn victims lose so much blood that
B. noninfectious white blood cells cannot cause an immune
response.
C. immune
D. here is no blood supply to the skin, so
D. harmless mixing of antigens does not occur.
823. Saprophytes and other decomposers are 827. What is the scientific term for spreading
important in improving the quality of a disease?
A. the water supply A. Passing
B. topsoil layer B. Catching
C. the atmosphere C. Transmitting
D. potential energy D. Giving
824. why is stomach acid considered a barrier 828. These cells are responsible for identifying
to foreign objects? the “enemy” or pathogen in an immune re-
sponse.
A. spleen
A. erythrocytes
B. saliva
B. Antibodies
C. skin
C. T Cells
D. none of the above D. B Cells
825. How are viruses different from bacte- 829. What cellular component of blood is key
ria? to fighting infection?
A. Viruses affect plants, while bacteria af- A. white blood cells
fect animals
B. red blood cells
B. Viruses are pathogenic, while bacteria
C. platelets
are non pathogenic
D. Rh factors
C. Viruses are treated with antibiotics,
while bacteria are treated with vaccines 830. These cells remain in the blood stream af-
D. Viruses require a host organism, while ter an immune response.
bacteria live host-free A. Memory B and T Cells

B. Killer T Cells and B Cells E. inapparent:infection characteristic of

C. Helper T and B Cells a carrier state
D. Suppressor Cells and Macrophages 836. Which leukocyte produces antibodies?

A. lymphocytes
831. The measure of Red Blood Cells in a sam-
ple B. monocytes
A. hemoglobin C. eosinophils
D. basophils
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. erythropoesis
C. anemia 837. proteins in the body that match up with
D. hematocrit protein markers on foreign substances
A. pathogen
832. Cancer of the white blood cells is known
as B. antigen
A. erythroblastosis C. vector
D. antibodies
B. anemia
C. leukemia 838. The process of “eating” or engulfing cells
D. hematopoiesis A. Phagocytosis
B. Macrophage
833. This protein increases the blood ves-
sels permeability to WBCs and other sub- C. Septicemia
stances involved in the immune response. D. Pathogen
A. histamine 839. T cells that kill infected cells are
B. complement A. cytotoxic T’s
C. lysozyme B. helper T’s
D. defensin C. plasma cells
834. What is the most correct reason for an D. antigen presenting c
antibody response in the body? 840. What initiates an immune response?
A. a foreign protein detected A. antibody
B. a virus in the blood B. antigen
C. an over-active immune system C. histamine
D. a compromised immune system D. antibiotic
835. Which of the following definitions is IN- 841. A part of the innate immunity. The bod-
CORRECT? ies defensive response caused by micro-
A. secondary infection:a long-lasting ill- bial infection, physical damage or chemical
ness agents.
B. primary infection:an initial illness A. phagocytosis
C. acute:a short-lasting primary infection B. edema
D. chronic:a disease that develops slowly C. cytotoxicity
and lasts for months D. Inflammation

842. A substance or part of a substance (liv- C. They are cold

ing or nonliving) that the immune system
D. They like it
recognizes as foreign and activates the im-

mune system. 848. Introduction into the body of a weakened,
A. pathogen killed or piece of a disease-causing agent
B. allergen to prevent disease.
C. antigen A. vaccination
D. antibody B. immunization
843. Cells of the immune system are able to C. -

respond to the presence of invading organ- D. none of above
isms because they recognize the
A. antigens present on the invaders 849. The rH factor determines what part of
the blood type?
B. antibodies present in invading
pathogens A. + or-
C. DNA pattern in the nuclei of viruses B. the number of antigens
D. antibiotics released from microbes C. the number of antibodies
844. Vaccines protect: D. aggulation

A. vaccinated person 850. Which of the following is NOT part of
B. those too young to be vaccinated the body’s first line of defense against
C. those who have weak immune system pathogens?
D. all of the above A. Mucus

B. Antibody
845. What is involved in cell-mediated immu-
nity? C. Stomach acid
A. B cell D. Skin
B. T cell
851. A motile cell which is able to engulf in-
C. Antibodies fected cells is called a
D. Complement A. TH cell.
846. The “tags” or “flags” the B-cells use to B. Mast Cell
mark an invader are called
C. Plasma Cell
A. antibiotics
D. phagocytic cell.
B. antibodies
C. vaccines 852. Lymph nodes are found in the
D. infectious A. Neck
847. Why do doctors wear gloves? B. Armpits

A. Stop infection spreading C. Groin
B. Cool fashion style D. All of the options

853. Skin protects a person from pathogens by 858. Getting these when you’re young helps
A. being thin and easy to allow things your immune system fight off diseases:
through A. Stickers
B. shedding constantly bringing the B. Medicine
pathogens with it C. Immunization
C. serving as a protective layer that D. Cough Drops
keeps foreign objects out
NARAYAN CHANGDER
859. Which progenitor line gives rise to B
D. killing all bacteria that it comes in con-
cells?
tact with using oils, enzymes, and antibod-
ies. A. Common Myeloid
B. Common Leukocyte
854. Which of the following types of
pathogens are cytotoxic T cells best at C. Common Erythrocyte
destroying? D. none of above
A. bacteria
860. Immunization or vaccination is known as
B. fungi immunity
C. helminths A. Immunization acquired
D. viruses B. inherited
C. active
855. A protein that attacks antigens is called:
D. artificially acquired
A. Antibody
B. Immune response 861. Which microorganism is nonliving?
C. Inflammatory Response A. bacteria
D. Vector B. virus
C. fungus
856. Which line of defense includes the skin,
sweat, mucous membranes, and normal D. parasite
microbiota? 862. Antibodies are
A. First A. carbohydrates.
B. Second B. amino acids.
C. Third C. lipids.
D. none of above D. proteins.
857. When foreign material enters the body, 863. This type of immunity is acquired during
one way the immune system responds is one’s lifetime. It is induced by antigens
by that invade the body.
A. lowering the body temperature A. innate immunity
B. producing excess red blood cells B. adaptive immunity
C. shutting down the circulatory system C. nonspecific immunity
D. producing antibodies D. normal microbiota

864. are white blood cells that produce an- A. opsonization

tibodies. B. blanketing

A. B-Cells C. immunization
B. T-Cells D. framing
C. Macrophages
870. All of the following are components of
D. none of above the lymphatic/Immune system EXCEPT:
865. How can you tell that neutrophils are A. yellow bone marrow
fighting an infection B. tonsils
A. clear mucus C. spleen
B. yellow green mucus D. nodes
C. pus
871. Which cell of the immune system actu-
D. inflammation ally confers immunity to a specific disease?
866. Is a substance foreign to the body that (Think back to the immune system game)
causes an immune response; it can bind to A. Memory B-Cells
an antibody or T-cell. B. Macrophages
A. White cell C. Neutrophils
B. Antigen D. Eosinophils
C. Antibodies
872. Antibodies can make it easier for phago-
D. Component Protein cytes to destroy pathogens by causing the
867. Are part of a nonspecific response. pathogens to
A. Skin, T-cells, antibodies, chemical bar- A. clump together

riers and interferons. B. produce enzymes
B. Skin, Cytotoxic T-cells, antigen and C. burst open
component proteins. D. shrivel up
C. Skin, chemical barriers, antibodies
and component proteins. 873. First recognizes foreign body and eats it
and displays it to the other cells
D. Skin, chemical barriers, interferon and
component proteins. A. Macrophage
B. T Cells
868. What are disease causing organisms?
C. B Cells
A. antibodies
D. none of above
B. pathogens
C. phagocytes 874. A vaccines main goal is to:
D. vaccines A. make people sick

B. prevent disease
869. What process coats the antigen with an-
tibody/complement proteins to make it C. start an epidemic
more likely to be phagocytosed? D. start a pandemic

875. A direct indication that the white blood 880. First to go to an area of infection or injury
cells of the body are functioning would be.. to destroy microorganisms
A. an increase in the number of oxygen A. Basophil
molecules in the lungs B. Monocyte
B. a decrease in the number of pathogens C. Lymphocyte
in the body
D. Eosinophil
C. a decreased secretion of hormones by
certain glands E. Neutrophil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. an increase of carbon dioxide in the 881. A disease-causing microorganism or mi-
cells of the body crobe, such as a bacterium, virus, protist
or fungus.
876. Means:“programmed cell death”
A. antigen
A. Natural Killer Cell
B. prion
B. Mitosis
C. pathogen
C. Apoptosis
D. allergen
D. CD4 and CD8
882. B cells make cells, which make
877. Athlete’s foot, ringworm, and thrush are
A. antigens, antibodies
all infectious diseases caused by what
pathogen? B. macrophages, antigens
A. Virus C. T cells, antibodies
B. Bacteria D. plasma, antibodies
C. Protist 883. An inflammation reaction involves the
D. Fungus A. release of histamines.
878. What is a major difference between B. agglutination of bacteria.
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? C. production of immunoglobulin.
A. Eukaryotic cells are multicellular and D. vaseconstriction of blood vessels.
Prokaryotic cells are unicellular.
884. The primary purpose of vaccines is to
B. Eukaryotic cells have been on earth
longer than Prokaryotic cells. A. induce inflammation
C. Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus B. activate the immune system to pro-
or membrane bound organelles duce memory cells
D. Prokaryotic cells are bacteria and C. stimulate natural killer cells
viruses that make you sick. D. initiate the innate immune response
879. These cells are responsible for identifying 885. What types of cells do bacteriaphages in-
the “enemy” in an immune response. fect?
A. Killer-T Cells A. bacteria
B. B Cells B. humans
C. Memory B Cells C. pigs
D. Antibodies D. none of above

886. The term used to describe the mechanism C. Inflammation

which draws immune cells to the cite of in- D. Saliva
fection:

E. Sweat
A. interlukin
892. All of the following prevent pathogens
B. cytokine
from entering the body except
C. complement protein A. red blood cells
D. chemotaxis B. tears
887. What body system protects animals C. mucus
against invaders such as bacteria and D. skin
viruses?
893. An antiviral is a medicine used to treat
A. Immune System
A. individuals who are infected with a
B. Integumentary System virus.
C. Mammary System B. individuals who are infected with a
D. Respiratory System bacterium.
C. individuals who are healthy.
888. The immune system is made up of
D. individuals who are not infected with a
A. tissues virus.
B. cells
894. A white blood cell that destroys
C. organs pathogens by engulfing them and break-
D. all of the above ing them down is called a(n)
A. B-cell
against disease? B. Phagocyte
A. skin C. Antibody
D. Antigen
B. blood
C. antibodies 895. Erythrocytes
D. enzymes A. are the least numerous formed ele-
ment in the body
890. Antigens are important because they help B. are cylindrically shaped cells
the immune system
C. are produced in yellow bone marrow
A. produce T cells.
D. do not have a nucleus
B. recognize foreign cells.
896. What is the first line of defense against
C. cause pathogens to clump pathogens?
D. engulf infected body cells A. phagocytes
891. Some examples of external defenses are B. Natural Killer Cells
C. Skin and mucous membranes
A. Skin D. Inflammatory response
B. Mucus E. Fever

897. Which way a pathogen can enter the body they kill the antigen or viruses by an-
body? tibodies.
A. Nose B. Immune system guards our body and
B. Injured skin when white blood cells which are the part
of our immune system detect viruses in
C. Mouth our body they kill the antigen or viruses
D. All of the above by antibodies.
C. Immune system guards our body and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
898. What is the role of antibodies in fighting
a virus or pathogen? when antibiotics which are the part of our
immune system detect viruses in our body
A. they call in the macrophages they kill the antigen.
B. they recognize and neutralize a spe- D. None of above
cific antigen
C. they make white blood cells 903. Disease causing agents such as bacteria
and viruses are called
D. they kill the phagocytes
A. pathogens
899. Which system has the primary function of
B. antibodies
fighting disease?
C. germs
A. circulatory
B. integumentary D. dust
C. immune 904. What do lymph nodes house?

D. respiratory A. Yellow Blood Cells
900. The impulse changes to as it moves B. Red Blood Cells
ACROSS the synapse to other neurons. C. Blue Blood Cells
A. electrical D. White Blood Cells
B. chemical
905. Which of the following helps activate our
C. it stays the same
nonspecific (innate) defense system?
D. liquid
A. active immunity
901. The specific type of molecule that triggers B. inflammation
an allergic reaction is
C. passive immunity
A. antibody
D. mobilization of erythrocytes
B. antigen
C. antibiotics 906. An organism that invades another organ-
ism to get the nutrients it needs is a
D. pathogen
A. producer
902. How does immune system fight viruses?
B. host
A. Immune system guards our body and
C. parasite
when red blood cells which are the part of
our immune system detect viruses in our D. carrier

907. Antibiotics are prescribed to patients 912. People who have common allergies often
who have what type of infection. display symptoms when are released
inside their body.

A. Fungal Infection
B. Bacterial Infection A. toxins
C. Viral Infection B. histamines
D. Archaeal Infection C. interferons
908. Foreign cells in the body carry foreign D. phagocytes
proteins that the body recognises as ‘non-
self’. These are called: 913. Which type of cells listed below have an-
A. Antibodies tibodies on their cell surface?
B. Antigens A. B cells
C. Red Blood Cells B. T cells
D. White Blood Cells C. dendritic cells
909. Which of the following prevents D. macrophages
pathogens from ever entering the body?
A. sneezing 914. people became sick with the flu after a
school dance. What is the best explana-
B. immunity
tion for how they got sick?
C. antibodies
A. Contact with environmental source
D. skin
B. Contact with an infected animal
910. Kills pathogens and speeds up the produc-
tion of protective proteins in the immune C. contact with a contaminated object
system. D. contact with an infected person
A. Macrophages
B. Inflammation 915. Which disease is caused by a bacteria?
C. Fever A. flu
D. Stomach acid B. cold
911. The immune response is especially com- C. athletes foot

promised by an HIV infection because D. strep throat
A. the HIV multiplies faster than any
other virus 916. Babies acquire immunity to some dis-
B. the HIV has an extra layer of pro- eases before birth and are protected dur-
tection that prevents the immune system ing the first six months after they are
from detecting the virus born.
C. the HIV attaches to and destroys A. pasive
Helper T cells (CD4’s) B. passive
D. the HIV is transmitted from one per-
C. active
son to another through casual contact,
like holding hands D. actitive

917. A severe allergic reaction in which large 923. Which of the following does NOT con-
amounts of histamine are released is called tribute to the symptoms of a fungal dis-
A. anaphylaxis ease?
B. asthma A. metabolic products
C. arthritis B. cell walls
D. inflammation C. allergic response of the host

D. capsules
NARAYAN CHANGDER
918. The treatment of parasitic diseases like
lice, fleas, and bed bugs is: E. toxins
A. Chlorox Wipes 924. Which confers immunity

B. Antifungals A. Cells
C. Antiparasitic drugs B. Blood
D. Antivirals C. Serum
D. Both cells and serum
919. Viruses, unlike bacteria,
A. cause diseases only in animals 925. Where are white blood cells made?
B. can be destroyed by antibiotics A. Bone marrow
C. are eukaryotic, with a nucleus B. Red Blood Cells
D. can reproduce only in living cells C. Heart
D. Veins
920. The term immunology was coined by
A. Paul Ehrlich 926. What is a protective protein produced by
the immune system?
B. Elie Metchnikoff
A. Antibody
C. Louis Pasteur
B. Antibiotic
D. Leeuwenhoek
C. Antigen
921. Cytotoxic T cells are
D. Antimicrobial
A. antibodies.
927. Select the ways that your digestive sys-
B. able to kill virus-infected cells.
tem works to protect you form pathogens
C. part of the humoral immune response. that have entered your body on food?
D. part of the second line of the immune A. stomach acid (HCl) kills most
defence. pathogens
922. Y shaped proteins that may mark B. causing you to vomit

pathogens for destruction are C. causing you to have diarrhea
A. antigens D. causing you to burp
B. T cells 928. Which one of these are NOT antigen anti-
C. antibodies body interaction
D. neutrophils A. Opsonization

B. Neutralization C. 3rd line defense

C. Combination D. none of above

D. Activation of complement system 934. Natural killer cells
929. Something that causes a disease A. “eat” microorganisms that have been
A. antigen tagged with antibodies.
B. antibodies B. tag pathogenic microorganisms with

antibodies
C. pathogen
C. attack virus-infected cells by releasing
D. white blood cells chemicals that lead to cell death.
930. When a B cell encounters antigen to D. are phagocytes that attack and kill
which it is targeted, it divides rapidly and pathogenic microorganisms.
produces
935. Compounds that block the growth and re-
A. more antigen production of bacteria.
B. plasma cells A. AIDS
C. T cells B. HIV
D. killer cells C. Antibiotics
E. Interferons D. none of above
931. The removal of the predator populations 936. The chemical that causes the allergic re-
from an ecosystem would most likely response during an asthma attack is
sult in
A. estrogen
A. a decrease in all the prey populations
B. antibodies
B. an increase in all the producer popula-
tions C. histamine
C. a decrease in ecosystem diversity D. antihistamine
D. an increase in ecosystem diversity 937. The after effect in your body after you
have a vaccination
932. What function does mucus play in the im-
mune system? A. inoculation
A. traps foreign particles from entering B. variolation

the body C. vaccine
B. moistens food D. immunization
C. produces WBCs 938. Which is a beneficial effect of high
D. acts as a lubricant fever?
933. This line of defense forms a barrier that A. Increases rate of cell repair due to in-
stops all “things” from getting into the creased metabolism
body or blood B. Increased production of toxins
A. 1st line defense C. decreased heart rate
B. 2nd line defense D. none of the above

939. One of the similarities between the de- B. They activate B cells
fence mechanisms of a plant and an animal C. They engulf pathogen clumps
include the
D. They display antigens on their mem-
A. production of memory cells.
brane
B. release of immune cells through a cir-
culatory system. 944. What can you do to protect yourself from
C. use of an epidermal layer to inhibit the germs?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
invasion of pathogens. A. Wash your hands
D. production of salicylic acid to warn B. Avoid touching your eyes nose and
cells of an invading pathogen. mouth
940. ) Infection by a bacterium that has ele- C. Cook foods thoroughly
ments on its surface that enhance its resis- D. All of the above
tance to lysozyme will likely result in
A. destruction of the bacterium by NK 945. What is an example of a chemical pro-
cells. tection produced by the body to defend
against viruses
B. successful reproduction of the bac-
terium and continued progression of the A. antigens
disease. B. interferon
C. removal of the bacterium by dendritic C. antibiotics
cells and its concentration in lymph nodes
D. white blood cells
D. the infected individual’s humoral im-
munity becoming the only route of infec- 946. The process that involves steps to stop
tion response. bleeding from an injured blood vessel is
called ?
941. Antibiotics only help fight of these types
of infections. A. hemostasis
A. viruses B. hemophilia
B. bacterial C. hemoglobin
C. malarial D. hematocrit
D. fungal
947. How does the heart work?
942. Vaccination is a way to prevent develop- A. It pumps blood first to the lungs, back
ment of diseases caused by to the heart and then around the rest of
A. viruses the body.
B. bacteria B. It pumps blood first to the rest of the
body, back to the lungs and then to the
C. both viruses and bacteria
heart.
D. none of above
C. It pumps blood around the rest of the
943. What function do T cells have in humoral body, back to the heart and then to the
immunity? lungs,
A. They produce antibodies D. none of above

948. The response to an infection. Causes the living (abiotic) features of an ecosystem
area to redden, swell, and feel warm. such as predators and drought.

A. Fever A. limiting factor
B. Mucus B. habitat
C. Dilation C. ecosystem
D. Inflammation D. carrying capacity
949. A city has an outbreak of a disease that 954. Jorge has a cold but feels well enough to
affects an unusually large portion of its study with his friends Lisa and Jin. Lisa
population at the same time. Which term and Jin become sick. Which term describes
best describes the outbreak? Jorge’s condition when he was studying
with his friends?
A. pandemic
A. noninfectious
B. plague
B. contagious
C. infection
C. immune
D. epidemic
D. deadly
950. The hormone responsible for making red
955. What is the main function of antibodies?
blood cells
A. create new white body cells
A. Erythropoiesis
B. binding themselves to invading anto-
B. Erythropoietin gens
C. hemoglobin C. surviving
D. immunoglobin D. making up the immune system
951. Which of the following is a non-specific 956. The first line of defense against foreign
response? invaders is the system.
A. Fever A. respiratory
B. Red, itchy eyes that may be crusted B. digestive
shut
C. integumentary
C. Signs that is related to one antigen
D. lymphatic
D. none of above
957. When a person receives a vaccine, his or
952. The lymphatic structure that closely par- her body
allell veins are called? A. receives antibodies against a specific
A. Capillaries pathogen.
B. Lymph B. creates plasma cells that can produce
antibodies against the specific pathogen.
C. Lymph Vessels
C. creates antigens to fight the specific
D. none of above
pathogen.
953. Anything that can decrease the size of a D. immediately begins fighting the infec-
population including living (biotic) and non tion caused by the pathogens.

958. The resistance to a disease acquired as a B. pathogen

result of exposure to the disease or agent: C. HIV
A. Active Immunity D. antibiotics
B. Cell-Mediated Immunity
964. What body system is most affected by
C. Passive Immunity viruses that cause colds or the flu?
D. Natural Immunity A. digestive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
959. Which of the following is not a germ? B. respiratory
A. bacteria C. circulatory
B. viruses D. immune
C. antibodies 965. A microscopic organism that can benefit
D. none of above or harm the body. Found everywhere.
A. Protozoa
960. Resistance shown by host towards infec-
tion is called B. Bacteria
A. Infection C. Fungi
B. Response D. Virus
C. Immunity 966. What part of blood is responsible for car-
D. Immunology rying wastes, nutrients, and minerals?
A. Red Blood Cells
961. Cause of common cold and flu.
B. White Blood Cells
A. Viruses
C. Platelets
B. Bacteria
D. Plasma
C. Reaction by the body to substances
D. none of above 967. The antibodies that give immunity to a
disease can be acquired in the following
962. You are sick with a virus, what type of different ways:1-feeding on breast milk2-
medicine will the doctor prescribe? infection by disease3-vaccinationWhich
A. Antibiotics are given to you before you gives active immunity?
get sick with a virus A. 1 and 2 only
B. Antibiotics are given to you after you B. 1 and 3 only
get sick with a virus C. 2 and 3 only
C. Vaccines are given to you after you are D. 1, 2 and 3 only
sick with a virus
D. None, you can prevent a virus if you get 968. Which cells kill cancer cells and infected
a vaccine in advance, but you can not treat cells?
a virus once you are sick with it A. cytotoxic T cells
963. The immune systems over reaction to a B. B cells

harmless substance C. mast cells
A. allergies D. eosinophils

969. White blood cells that recognize specific 974. The method first used to immunize an in-
antigens and ultimately destroy them dividual against smallpox (Variola) with
material taken from a patient or a recently

A. B cells
variolated individual, in the hope that a
B. phagocytes mild, but protective, infection would re-
C. killer T cells sult.
D. B cells A. inoculation
970. Scientists are testing the effectiveness of B. variolation
3 different viral medicines (or vaccines) in
protecting against the common cold. They C. vaccine
sign up 1, 200 human volunteers and split D. immunization
them into three groups. So each group of
400 people is given one of the vaccines. 975. Which type of antigen-presenting
The groups are studied for five years and molecule is found only on macrophages,
the scientists record how many colds they dendritic cells, and B cells?
get each year. What is the dependent vari-
A. MHC class 1
able in this investigation?
A. different viral medications B. MHC class 2
B. the type of common cold virus C. T-cell receptor
C. the number of years D. B-cell receptor
D. the number of colds each year
976. Many plant-eating organisms, including
971. Which of the following are the first- humans and grazing animals, are unable
responder “Paramedics” of the immune re- to digest the cellulose that makes up plant
sponse? cell walls. Most plant-eaters have a sym-
A. Macrophage biotic relationship with a microorganism
that actually digest the cellulose releas-
B. T lymphocyte
ing the nutrients for the herbivore’s use.
C. Neutrophil Which organism lives in many herbivore in-
D. B lymphocyte testine and aids in the digestive process?
972. A white blood cell that makes antibodies A. The bacterium Escherichia coli
A. T cell B. The fungus Trichophyton rubrum
B. bacteria C. The protozoan Entamoeba histolytica
C. B cell D. The algae Fucus vesiculosus
D. mast cell
977. What triggers the production ofantibod-
973. When someone’s immune system overre- ies
acts to something harmless it’s called
A. an antigen
A. overreactus maximus
B. a sneeze B. an antibody
C. an allergy C. phagocytes
D. the measles D. B cells

978. Which part of the immune system is re- 983. Which of the following processes do hu-
sponsible for making antibodies that tag moral and cell mediated immunity have in
invaders for destruction common?
A. Vaccines A. they both form antigens after being
sensitized
B. Macrophages
B. they both have an antigen presented to
C. T-cell
them
D. B-cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. they both develop resistance to the
E. Skin and membranes antigen
D. they both modify antigens to be com-
979. Cells that chew up invading organisms
patible with the body
A. Phagocytes
984. Which is NOT considered FIRST line of de-
B. Leukocytes fense?
C. Neutrophils A. Helper T-Cells
D. Antiobodies B. Skin
980. Diseases are passed from human to hu- C. Hair
man by these four types of germs: D. Mucous Membranes
A. Viruses, influenza, HIV, and vaccines
985. What is the interstitial fluid?
B. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites A. fluid that surrounds lymph nodes
C. Viruses, cancers, mutagens, and DNA B. fluid that surrounds body cells
D. Viruses, blood, pollutants, and symp- C. fluid that surrounds lymphocytes
toms
D. fluid that surrounds monocytes
981. Microorganisms that live in and on the hu-
986. The resistance to the spread of a conta-
man body
gious disease within a population that re-
A. usually make people sick sults if a sufficiently high proportion of in-
B. should be killed if possible dividuals are immune to the disease, espe-
cially through vaccination refers to
C. can be symbionts or pathogens
A. Innate immunity
D. are mostly parasitic
B. Human immunity
982. What is the best definition of antibod- C. Herd immunity
ies?
D. Nonspecific immunity
A. antibiotics that help you when you are
sick 987. What is the function of the B cells
B. organs that create pathogens A. to multiply
C. pathogens that enter the bloodstream B. to patrol the body
D. proteins that attach to antigens and C. to fight the invading antigens

make them useless D. to produce antibodies

988. Mazie visited the school nurse because 993. Auto immune disease caused by the HIV
she felt ill. The nurse suggested that she virus
might have a virus. Which of these words

A. AIDS
best describes a virus?
B. small pox
A. antibody
C. herpes
B. pathogen
D. ebola
C. antibiotic
D. macrophage 994. Are found in the blood and they help
phagocytes to bind better to pathogens
989. In order to multiply, most bacteria need this complement proteins sometimes form
A. warm and moist conditions a complex in the membrane of the
pathogen these complex creates a pore
B. cold and dry conditions which help kill the pathogen.
C. being placed on top shelf of refrigera-
A. Chemical Barriers
tor
B. Skin
D. dry arid conditions
C. Interferon
990. Where are the immune system’s white
D. Component Proteins
blood cells formed?
A. spleen 995. Produced in the bone marrow, these cells
B. heart are often called memory cells
C. bone marrow A. killer T cells
D. thymus B. phagocytes
C. B cells
991. are very small things that often cause
infections. D. platelets
A. Vitamins 996. What do memory cells do?

B. Viruses A. Kills the virus
C. Fever B. Eats the virus
D. none of above C. Patrol the area and make the immune
system work faster next time.
992. Viruses are not considered living organ-
isms even though they have several char- D. Makes antibodies
acteristics of living things. What is the rea-
son viruses are not considered alive? 997. Which pathogen can be prevented with
vaccines
A. They are too small.
A. Virus
B. A virus is a living organism.
B. Bacteria
C. They need a host to reproduce.
C. Fungi
D. Viruses do not have DNA/genetic ma-
terial. D. All of them

998. What is produced by B-cells in order to C. phagocytosis

form a faster and stronger response to in- D. vaccination
fection the second time?
A. Memory B-cell 1004. What are 2 components of adaptive im-
munity?
B. Antigens
A. Dendritic and Lymphatic
C. T-cells
B. Natural and Monoclonal
D. Pathogens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Humeral and Cell-Mediated
999. The purpose of the immune system is to D. none of above
A. help germs invade your body 1005. Which series includes three pathogens
that cause infectious diseases?
B. make your nose run
A. bacteria, fungi, and parasites
C. fight of sickness
B. parasites, mutagens, and fungi
D. give your diarrhea
C. mutagens, viruses, and bacteria
1000. A nonspecific defensive response of the D. viruses, bacteria, and environmental
body to tissue injury characterized by dila- factors
tion of blood vessels and swelling.
A. immunity 1006. Not sleeping enough does what?
B. interferon A. Kills blood cells
C. immunization B. Makes you crampy
D. inflammation C. Slows production of white blood cells

D. Decreases effectiveness of the Im-
1001. Common microscopic organisms. mune System
A. immune system
1007. Which blood type is the UNIVERSAL
B. viruses DONOR?
C. bacteria A. O+
D. none of above B. O-
1002. What does the Immune System do? C. AB+
A. It helps with digesting food. D. AB-
B. It helps pump blood to the heart 1008. When a patient receives a kidney trans-
C. the immune system protecting and plant, the patient’s immune system is sup-
preventing infections, to keep your body pressed by the use of prescribed drugs.
healthy Why would this be important and neces-
D. Helps germs invade your body sary?
A. Without this suppression, the immune
1003. The non specific defense that results in system would attack the foreign trans-
redness and some swelling is called planted tissue.
A. inflammation B. The suppression will stimulate the im-
B. clotting mune system to work more efficiently.

3.13 Vaccines 801
C. The suppression will stimulate the 1012. What holds together the four polypep-
bone marrow to produce more white tide chains of an antibody?
blood cells.

A. disulfide bonds
D. Without this suppression, the body will B. light chains
secrete too many hormones.
C. heavy chains
1009. Which type of antigen-presenting D. complement proteins
molecule is found on all nucleated cells?
E. MHC proteins
A. MHC class 1
B. MHC class 2 1013. Protection provided by an individual’s
own adaptive immune response.
C. B cell receptor
A. probiotic immunity
D. antibodies
B. active immunity
1010. what cell helps activate the B cell; helps C. passive immunity
B cell decide whether it is a foreign antigen
or an antigen that belongs in the body D. retroactive immunity
A. Plasma cells 1014. Some diseases caused by bacteria are:

B. memory cells A. smallpox, chicken pox, influenza
C. T Cells B. Strep throat, lyme disease, food poi-
D. Helper T Cells soning
C. Ringworm, athlete’s foot, thrush
1011. Transient microbiota differ from normal
microbiota in that transient microbiota D. Strep throat, colds, and flu
A. never cause disease. 1015. All of the following are used by bacteria
B. cause diseases. to attach to host cells EXCEPT
C. are found in a certain location on the A. Fimbrae

host B. A-B toxins
D. are present for a relatively short time. C. Ligands
E. are always acquired by direct contact. D. Capsules
3.13 Vaccines
1. A/an is an injection of a weakened entered Indonesia?
form of a pathogen to help the individual A. 4
gain immunity from a disease.
B. 7
A. Virus
C. 8
B. Vacuum
D. Hundreds!
C. Vaccine
3. These cells stay in our body for decades
D. Antibiotic and wait for particular pathogen?
2. How many types of covid vaccines have A. T-cells

3.13 Vaccines 802
B. macrophages C. plasmid & genes are cut →bacteria

C. memory cells & rDNA plasmid multiply → bacteria are
broken open & protein is collected→cut
D. red blood cells DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plas-
E. platelets mids → rDNA plasmids are inserted into
the bacteria
4. The main goal of a vaccine is to
D. cut DNA joined with ligase to make
A. make people sick. rDNA plasmids → rDNA plasmids are in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. prevent disease. serted into the bacteria → bacteria &
rDNA plasmid multiply
C. start an epidemic.
D. start a pandemic. 8. A genome is?
A. The complete set of genes in an organ-
5. Viruses
ism
A. have many cells
B. The spikes on the outside of the virus
B. are misfolded proteins
C. The viral protein coat
C. are a protein coat (capsid) around ge-
D. none of above
netic material
D. endospores 9. “Vac” from the word vaccine means
A. seed
6. Physical condition in which part of the
body becomes reddened, swollen with flu- B. cow
ids, hot, and often painful, as a reaction to C. poison
injury or infection is known as?
D. death
A. Immunization
B. Immunity 10. Vaccines
C. Inflammation A. Prevent people from coming in contact

with viruses
D. none of above
B. give the immune system a preview of
7. Which of the following accurately describe the virus
the steps of recombinant DNA technology C. Prevent all viral infections
using bacteria?
D. Only work on small children
A. plasmid & genes are cut → cut DNA
joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids 11. Active immunity lasts for a time. Pas-
→ rDNA plasmids are inserted into the sive immunity lasts for a time.
bacteria → bacteria & rDNA plasmid mul- A. Long; Short
tiply → bacteria are broken open & pro-
tein is collected B. Life; Life
B. cut DNA joined with ligase to make C. Hours; Long

rDNA plasmids → rDNA plasmids are in- D. Short; Long
serted into the bacteria → plasmid &
genes are cut →bacteria & rDNA plasmid 12. The process by which a DNA molecule is
multiply → bacteria are broken open & made from two different sources is called
protein is collected A. Vaccine

3.13 Vaccines 803
B. Plasmid 18. Virus mean in Latin.

C. Viral DNA A. seed

D. Recombinant DNA B. death
13. Vaccines in the past 100 years have C. cow
A. increased human lifespans D. poison
B. decreased human lifespans 19. Doctors sometimes use a vaccine to pre-

C. not affected the human lifespan pare the body to defend itself against fu-
ture infections. These vaccines most often
D. none of above contain
14. What conditions cannot affect the adminis- A. antibodies.
tration of the covid 19 vaccine? B. antibiotics.
A. Hard to breathe C. white blood cells.
B. History of Hypertension D. weakened pathogens.
C. Autoimmune
20. Scientists are developing a malaria vaccine
D. All true that would most likely contain
15. Which type of virus has spikes on the A. weakened drugs used to treat the
outside, giving it a “crown-like” appear- symptoms of malaria
ance? B. white blood cells from the malaria-
A. Bacteriophage infected individuals
B. Coronavirus C. a weakened form of the malaria-
C. Norovirus causing organism
D. Ebola virus D. antibodies made from the malaria-

causing organism
16. What is epidemiology
21. Carmine, a compound that comes from the
A. Study of internal disease cochineal beetle, is used as a food coloring.
B. Method used to find the causes of The coloring is not harmful to most people,
health outcomes and diseases in popula- but in a small number of people, it causes
tions a reaction and affects breathing. This re-
C. Study design where participants take sponse is known as
a placebo medication A. a stimulus
D. Study of vaccinations B. an allergy
17. Which of the following is a circular DNA C. natural selection

from bacteria that can hold a foreign D. an adaptation
gene?
22. When a large percentage of the population
A. plasmid is vaccinated against a disease, the rest
B. restriction enzyme are protected. Is this
C. ligase A. An ethical problem
D. protein expression B. An advantage of vaccination

3.13 Vaccines 804
C. Doesn’t matter 28. Who discovered Vaccine for smallpox

D. Both A. Louis Pasteur
B. Edward Jenner
23. Smallpox ‘vaccine’ was first tested on
C. Thomas Alva Edison
A. 8 year old boy, Michael Phipps
D. Albert Einstein
B. 7 year old boy, Jack Phipps
E. None of these
C. 10 year old boy, Mace Phipps
29. Which word means ‘when a white blood
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 8 year old boy, James Phipps cell engulfs and digests a pathogen’?
24. In what time interval is the covid vaccine A. Lymphocyte
given for the second time? B. Phagocytosis
A. 1 month C. Antibodies
B. 3 months D. Antigens
C. 14 days 30. Is a virus considered living or non-living?
D. 1 week A. Living
B. Non-Living
25. A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism
that can cause disease. C. Neither
A. Pathogen D. none of above
B. Parasite 31. Where do viruses reproduce?

C. Predator A. Outside of a cell
D. none of above B. Inside of a cell
C. They do not reproduce
26. What was ethically wrong with Thomas
D. none of above
Jefferson’s vaccine experiments?
A. He experimented on enslaved people 32. A medicine that can treat a viral infection
that weren’t given the opportunity to con- is known as?
sent A. Vaccine
B. His experiment was very successful B. Antibiotic
and showed that vaccines worked C. Antiviral
C. He tested on neighbors who con- D. none of above
sented
33. A vaccination
D. none of above
A. is a type of white blood cell that eats
27. At what age can the covid 19 vaccination bacteria.
be done? B. protects your body via needle or cap-
sule.
A. 1-59 then
C. causes your body to react as if it had
B. 12-60 then
met a pathogen.
C. 18-59 yr without severe comorbidities D. is made up of collagen, and can be in
D. All ages the form of gelatin.

3.13 Vaccines 805
34. The ability of an organism to resist a par- 39. Which disease was around for thousands
ticular pathogen by the action of specific of years and even found on mummies?
antibodies describes?

A. Coronavirus
A. Adaptations B. Small pox
B. Immunity
C. Tape worms
C. Immunization
D. Plague
D. none of above
40. Which of the following is a protein that
35. Which is not true about subunit vaccines? acts as DNA scissors?
A. They can be designed using molecular A. plasmid
biology technique
B. restriction enzyme
B. They are less harmful than live attenu-
ated vaccine. C. ligase
C. They generally are made of polypep- D. protein expression
tide or oligopeptide.
41. Can a virus change the normal activity of
D. They provide lifetime protection. a cell?
36. Edward Jenner succeeded in creating a vac- A. No
cine against smallpox by injecting patients B. Maybe
with material of which disease?
C. Yes
A. Small pox
D. none of above
B. Cow pox
C. Cattle Virus 42. How many times is the covid 19 vaccine
(Sinovac) given?
D. Measles Virus
A. 1 kali
37. What are Antibodies?
B. 3 kali
A. Germ-killing agents that help to de-
C. 2 kali
stroy pathogens
B. White blood cells D. No need to give
C. Part of the digestive system 43. Wiping out small pox was a world-wide
D. All of the above effort and wiping our Coronavirus will
A. be different
38. New vaccines are considered effective if
they help prepare the body to fight future B. be the same
invasion by C. will not happen
A. inhibiting the response of red blood D. none of above
cells.
44. Passive immunity is when
B. stimulating the reproduction of mi-
crobes. A. You produce your own antibodies to a
C. inhibiting the action of immune cells. disease
D. stimulating the production of antibod- B. You are given antibodies to a disease

ies. C. You are immune to any type of disease

3.13 Vaccines 806
D. Macrophages invade your lymphatic 49. The Coronavirus vaccine teaches your body
system and shield you from ever falling to recognize
sick
A. the Coronavirus DNA
45. Which of the following are in the correct B. the Coronavirus mRNA
order?
C. the Coronavirus chemicals
A. proteins determine traits → genes
code for proteins → DNA divided into D. the Coronavirus protein spikes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
genes
50. What part of a cell reads mRNA and syn-
B. proteins determine traits → DNA di- thesizes proteins?
vided into genes → genes code for pro-
teins A. Ribosome
C. DNA divided into genes → proteins de- B. Nucleus
termine traits → genes code for proteins C. DNA
D. DNA divided into genes → genes code D. none of above
for proteins → proteins determine traits
51. Vaccine is
46. What is Immunity?
A. You produce your own viruses for a dis- A. A small dose of live and strong disease-
ease causing microbe
B. A natural defense system of the hu- B. A small dose of live and weak disease-
man body causing microbe
C. You are immune to any type of disease C. A small dose of dead and strong
disease-causing microbe
D. Red blood cells invade your lymphatic
system and shield you from getting sick. D. A small dose of dead and weak
disease-causing microbe
47. The following does not include the benefits
of the first covid 19 vaccination, except: 52. How many minutes of observation after
A. Strengthen the body’s immune system giving covid 19?
B. Trigger immunity A. 90 minutes
C. Prevent the corona virus from entering B. 30 minutes
the body C. 60 minutes
D. Multiply the corona virus into the body
D. 10 minutes
48. A physical feature which is regarded as in-
dicating a condition of disease, particularly 53. Which word means ‘Y-shaped protein
such a feature that is apparent to the pa- made by white blood cells to create immu-
tient. nity”?
A. Host A. Lymphocyte
B. Symptom B. Phagocytosis
C. Receptor C. Antibodies
D. none of above D. Antigens

3.13 Vaccines 807
54. Which body system directly respond to D. The virus injects its genetic material
vaccines? into the cell

A. Excretory
59. Vaccinations usually stimulate the body to
B. Digestive produce more of
C. Immune A. Structure A, only
D. Endocrine
B. Structure B, only
55. Which of the following is a common side C. Structures A and C, only
effect of a vaccine?
D. Structures A, B, and C
A. Disease symptoms
B. Sleepiness 60. Which of these is NOT a sign that the body
C. Mental illness is fighting a pathogen?
D. Rashes A. Fever
56. An abnormally high body tempera- B. Bleeding

ture, usually accompanied by shivering, C. Coughing
headache, and in severe instances, delir-
ium. D. Sneezing
A. Inflammation 61. Which of the following occurs after a virus

B. Symptom attaches to a host cell
C. Fever A. The host cell dies
D. none of above B. The virus dies
57. What is Herd Immunity? C. The virus inserts its genetic informa-
A. When a group of animals become im- tion into the host cell
mune to an illness D. the virus eats the cell
B. The number of people someone with
an infection can possibly spread the ill- 62. Following a vaccination, the white cells
ness to produce
C. Becoming immune to a vaccine and A. antibiotics
having it not work B. antibodies
D. When a large amount of people protect
C. statins.
those who haven’t gotten vaccinated
D. toxins.
58. What is the last step in the viral lytic cy-
cle? 63. Which of the following is an enzymatic pro-
A. A virus attaches to the surface of a tein that acts as DNA glue?
host cell A. plasmid
B. The proteins and genetic material B. restriction enzyme
start to assemble in the cell
C. ligase
C. The host cell bursts open, releasing
the new viruses D. protein expression

3.13 Vaccines 808
64. The complete, infective form of a virus, A. Lymphocyte

with a core of RNA or DNA and a capsid, B. Phagocytosis
is known as?
C. Antibodies
A. Virion
D. Antigens
B. SARS-COV-2
C. Antiviral 69. Lysis is
D. none of above A. rupture of a cell membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. replication of a virus
65. How do vaccines work?
C. bacterial reproduction
A. They don’t
D. a process that rarely happens
B. They infect you with a live virus and
make you sick 70. Active immunity is when
C. They train the immune system to rec- A. You produce your own antibodies to a
ognize a virus and teach it how to fight the disease
virus B. You are given antibodies to a disease
D. none of above C. You are immune to any type of disease
66. Can vaccines give you the disease they are D. Macrophages invade your lymphatic
meant to protect you against? system and shield you from ever falling
sick
A. No! They do not contain live viruses
B. No! Some vaccines contain only bits of 71. Which of the following helps prevent the
a virus spread of viruses?
C. No! Some vaccines contain viruses A. Surgery
that are killed or weakened B. Medication
D. No! These are all right and vaccines C. Vaccines
can NOT give you the disease they protect
D. none of above
you against.
72. What part of pathogens do antibodies bind
67. Which is true about plasmids?
to?
A. Plasmids can be cut at specific se- A. antigen
quences called restriction sites.
B. antitoxin
B. Plasmids contain a promoter se-
quence that defines where transcription C. phagocyte
begins. D. none of above
C. Plasmids can contain an antibiotic re- 73. Why are plasmids sometimes given an an-
sistance gene. tibiotic resistance gene?
D. All of the statements are true about A. So that scientists can make antibiotic
plasmids. resistant bacteria and make more money
68. Which word means ‘Label on the outside for pharmaceutical companies.
of all cells which is unique to each organ- B. So that scientists can create super
ism’? bugs.

3.13 Vaccines 809
C. So that scientists can identify which 79. An allergic reaction to certain types of nat-
cells have the rDNA plasmid. ural, unprocessed foods, such as peanuts,
is caused by

D. So that scientists can kill the bacteria.
74. Which of these would never be included in A. a lack of digestive enzymes
a vaccine, due to its potential to cause ill- B. a response to specific antigens
ness/disease?
C. microorganisms living within food
A. Fully deactivated virus
D. high levels of carbon dioxide in the air
B. Weakened virus
C. Partial virus 80. Can the Covid 19 vaccine give you coron-
D. Complete, fully active virus avirus?
75. A dead of weakened pathogen used to A. No, it does not contain intact virus
establish immunity would most likely be B. No, it only contains instructions for
found in building one part of the virus, not the en-
A. a pesticide tire thing
B. an antibiotic C. No, the mRNA in the vaccine is de-
C. a vaccine stroyed by your cells after it is used
D. a toxin D. NO!
76. Which disorder could develop in the hu-
man body when the immune system at- 81. Vaccines fight diseases by
tacks a usually harmless environmental A. curing infections.
substance?
B. preventing infections.
A. cancer
C. treating the symptoms of infections.
B. AIDS
C. an allergy D. none of above
D. an infection
82. Which part of our blood helps fight off in-
77. The job of the memory cells is to fections?
A. remember the pathogen. A. Red blood cells
B. help with your memory. B. White blood cells
C. help digest food.
C. Platelets
D. help make blood cells.
D. Plasma
78. What is it called when a large proportion
of the population are immune to a dis- 83. Which of the following are not vaccines?
ease?
A. Weak viruses
A. resistance
B. Synthesized virus parts
B. herd immunity
C. immunisation C. mRNA
D. peer review D. DNA

3.14 Sterilization and disinfection 810
84. What are produced by white blood 88. Where did the first early vaccine procedure
cells to neutralise poisons released by called Variolation come from?
pathogens? A. Europe
A. antihystamines B. America
B. antigens C. Africa
C. antitoxins D. South America
D. antibiotics
NARAYAN CHANGDER
89. Which is the best description of the lyso-
85. What do the white blood cells produce genic cycle?
when a vaccine is given? A. The viral reproductive cycle where the
A. antibiotics dividing viruses eventually cause the cell
to burst
B. antitoxins
B. The viral reproductive cycle where the
C. antibodies nucleic acid that is injected into the host
D. antigens is integrated into the hosts DNA
C. The viral reproductive cycle where a
86. What is the first step of the virus repro-
virus injects its plasmic into another virus
duction cycle?
impregnating it
A. The viruses genetic material (DNA)
D. The viral reproductive cycle where a
starts to take over the functions of the cell
virus engages in binary fission to produce
B. The host cell bursts open, releasing multiple clones of itself
the new viruses
90. When people receive organ transplants,
C. The virus injects its genetic material they often need to take medications that
into the cell decrease immune responses because
D. A virus attaches to the surface of a A. transplanted organs contain antigens
host cell that can trigger white blood cell activity
87. What is contained in the Sinovac covid 19 B. hormones present in replacement or-
vaccine? gans prevent the synthesis of antibiotics
A. Attenuated virus C. transplanted organs produce their
own antibiotics
B. Killed viruses
D. antigens present in these organs at-
C. Active viruses tack antibodies already present in the
D. placebo blood
3.14 Sterilization and disinfection

1. If a 1:600 dilution of a test compound kills phenol coefficient of the test compound?
a standard population of Staphylococcus
A. 1
aureus in 10 minutes but not 5 minutes
while a 1:60 dilution of phenol kills the B. 5
population in the same time, what is the
C. 100

D. 50 7. What do you mean by sterilization?

E. 10 A. Formulation of media

2. All of the following disinfectant contains B. Elimination of contamination
heavy metal EXCEPT: C. Recovery of products
A. chlorine D. Purification of products
B. silver nitrate 8. Which of the following instrument works
C. Merthiolate on the principle of batch sterilization?
D. Mercurochrome A. LAF
E. copper sulphate B. Centrifuge
C. Autoclave
3. Which of the following is used to disinfect
surfaces and soak rubber equipment? D. Incubator
A. iodine 9. The highest feasible temperature for batch
B. alcohols sterilization is
C. dyes A. 121◦ C
D. bleach (sodium hypochlorite) B. 122◦ C
C. 120◦ C
4. Which of the following is a limitation of
the autoclave? D. 124◦ C
A. It lacks the ability to kill endospores 10. The destruction of microorganisms by

B. It lacks the ability to inactivate viruses moist heat is described by
C. It cannot be used with glassware A. Second-order reaction
D. It will destroy some heat labile materi- B. Third-order reaction

als C. First-order reaction
E. It takes too long to sterilize D. Zero-order reaction
5. Which antibiotic inhibits the synthesis of 11. A fungicide is a chemical agent that
peptidoglycan in a bacterial cell wall? A. inhibits the growth of bacteria on mu-
A. erythromycin cous membranes.
B. penicillin B. removes viruses from a nonporous
surface.
C. tetracycline
C. reduces the number of microorgan-
D. ciprofloxacin
isms on a surface.
6. Which of the following methods is useful D. has a lethal effect on molds and
for sterilization of antisera? yeasts.
A. Autoclaving 12. Which of the following can be disinfected
B. Hot air oven and reused without sterilization?
C. Tyndallisation A. surgical instruments
D. Filtration B. endoscope

C. nail clippers 17. Which of the following substances can

sterilize?
D. syringes and needles
A. alcohol
13. Each of the following statements concern- B. dyes
ing the killing of bacteria is correct EX-
CEPT: C. 0.3%formalin
A. An autoclave uses steam under pres- D. 0.5%phenol

sure to reach the killing temperature of E. none of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
121◦ C
18. Which of the following is used as antisep-
B. A 70% solution of ethanol kills more ef- tic but its effectiveness is limited by the
fectively than absolute (100%) ethanol. presence of blood products, mucus, or soap
C. The pasteurization of milk kills (organic matter)?
pathogens but allows many organisms A. iodine
and spores to survive.
B. formalin 10%
D. Iodine kill bacteria by by point muta-
C. phenol compounds
tion (thymine dimer formation) so need ex-
posure for long time D. formaldehyde gas
14. What is the advantage of batch steriliza- 19. All of the following are sporicidal except
tion over continuous sterilization? A. alcohol
A. Superior maintenance of medium qual- B. autoclave
ity C. chlorine
B. Ease of scale-up D. none of above
C. Automatic control
20. If the foreign microorganism invades the
D. Lower equipment costs fermentation, which of the following is not
likely to occur?
15. Which of the following reaction occurs
A. The medium will not allow the growth
during the sterilization which results in
of contaminant
browning of media?
B. The contaminant may outgrow the pro-
A. Sandmeyer reaction
duction organism
B. Maillard reaction C. The contaminant may contaminate the
C. Cannizzaro reaction final product
D. Gattermann reaction D. The contaminant may degrade the final
product
16. Which of the following is target for an an-
tiviral drug? 21. Identify the term that is used to ensure
surgical instruments are free from micro-
A. cell wall synthesis organisms:
B. protein synthesis by ribosomes A. Debrided
C. an enzyme in a biochemical pathway B. Cleaned
D. DNA or RNA synthesis C. Disinfected

D. Sterilization 27. Any process that destroys the non-spore-

E. Sanitization forming contaminants on inanimate objects
is:

22. Complete killing or removal of all types A. Disinfection
of micro-organisms, i.e. bacteria, viruses,
fungi and mycobacteria is called; B. antisepsis
A. sterilization C. degermation
B. decontamination D. sterilization
C. disinfection 28. Which concept is correct about the effec-

D. antisepsis tiveness of a disinfectant?
A. using soap in the sanitization process
23. Identify the term that can describe a dis- is desirable
infectant that can inhibit the growth of
fungi: B. evaporation can alter the chemical
makeup of the solution
A. fungicidal
C. items should be placed in the disinfec-
B. bactericidal tant bath wet
C. virucidal D. the disinfectant solution is more po-
D. fungistatic tent after several uses
24. Which of the following is most resistant to 29. Which of the following was the first
antiseptics/sterilization: widely used antiseptic and disinfectant
and used in standardization of new disin-
A. prion
fectants?
B. bacterial spores
A. phenol
C. cyst
B. iodine
D. fungus
C. crystal violet
25. Which of the following method is best to D. alcohol
sterilize heat labile solutions?
30. Tyndallization is a type of
A. Hot Air Oven
A. Intermittent sterilization
B. Autoclave
B. Pasteurization
C. Membrane filtration
C. Dry heat
D. tyndallization
D. Boiling
26. The Del Factor decreases as the initial num-
ber of organisms 31. The equation for Del factor is
A. Decreases A. ∇ = ln (N0/Nt)
B. Increases B. ∇ = ln (Nt/N0)
C. Remains constant C. ∇ = ln (N0)
D. Becomes zero D. ∇ = ln (N0Nt)

32. Which is a form of cold sterilization 37. Sharp instruments should not be sterilized
by:
A. gamma rays
A. Autoclave
B. UV rays
B. Hot Air Oven
C. infrared rays
C. Boiling
D. flaming
D. all of the above
E. steam sterilization
38. Which of the following is most effective
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. Which of the following methods of infec- for sterilizing plastic Petri plates?
tion control requires the use of an auto- A. Autoclave
clave?
B. Glutaraldehyde
A. sterilization C. Chlorine
B. sanitization D. gamma rays
C. disinfection E. Ultraviolet radiation
D. irradiation 39. A bacteriostatic agent
34. The time at a specific temperature needed A. Targets fungal cell membranes
to kill a population of cells is B. Has no effect on bacteria
A. contact time C. Inhibits bacterial/fungal DNA replica-
tion
B. decimal reduction point
D. Slows or stops metabolism or repro-
C. time temperature combination (f duction of bacteria, not necessarily lethal
value)
D. thermal death point 40. The cleaning process that is required for
all instruments that penetrate the skin or
35. Browne’s tube is used as indicator for ef- that come in contact with normally sterile
ficacy of: areas of the tissue and internal organs is
A. sterilization
A. Heat sterilization
B. sanitization
B. Chemical sterilization
C. ultrasonic cleaning
C. Filtration
D. disinfection
D. Ultraviolet rays
41. Which of the following is commonly used
36. Which of the following items could be ster- as chemical disinfectant in the laboratory
ilized by dry heat sterilization? setting to provide a measure of protection
against transmission of the human immun-
A. glass pipette
odeficiency virus (HIV)?
B. Intravenous (IV) solution A. iodine
C. rubber gloves B. bleach
D. Plastic IV bags C. germicidal soap
E. plastic petri dishes D. hot air

3.15 Bacteriology of water and air 815
42. The efficiency of moist-heat sterilization is B. disinfection.

tested with C. sterilization.

A. Clostridium botulinum D. sanitization.
B. Spores of aerobic bacteria
44. The most suitable way of sterilization of
C. Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus oils and fats is:
D. spores of Bacillus anthracis A. Tyndallisation
43. Complete destruction of all microorgan- B. Pasteurization
isms on a surface can be achieved by C. Hot air oven
A. antisepsis. D. Autoclaving
3.15 Bacteriology of water and air

1. Period after infection but before the host B. Dental caries, periodontal disease,
becomes symptomatic pharyngitis
A. Prodromal phase C. Upper respiratory tract infections
B. Period of invasion D. Pneumonia
C. Incubation period 5. How is gonorrhea transmitted?
D. Convalescent period A. cellphone
2. Because glycerophospholipids have both a B. air
hydrophobic and hydrophillic region, they C. sex
are known to be
D. none of above
A. amphipathic
6. Symptoms characteristic of syphilis dis-
B. amphoteric
ease
C. amphibolic
A. Rose spots
D. amphilophotrichous
B. Diarrhoea
3. Which level of protein organization is capa- C. Erythema
ble of having linear chains, a-helical, and
D. Chancres
b-pleated sheets observed on 1 strand of
protein? 7. This root means joint, articulation
A. Primary A. anter
B. Secondary B. archaeo
C. Tertiary C. arthr
D. Quaternary D. aster
4. Which conditions can be caused by the oral 8. What condition does not favor the trans-
flora? mission of cholera?
A. Tooth decay A. Acidic environments

B. Alkaline environments 14. Treponema pallidium causing:

C. Salty environments A. syphillis
D. Monsoon season B. cholera
C. anthrax
9. Characteristic of a host to become infected
D. hepatitis
and develop disease
A. Infectivity 15. Which of the following roots is in the word
agriculture?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Host factor
A. agri
C. Susceptibility B. amyl
D. Pathogenicity C. a, an
D. alg
10. Which of these are considered to be sec-
ondary level protein organization? 16. Primary level protein lacks:
A. Linear chain A. carboxyl groups
B. alpha helix B. Hydrogen bonding
C. beta pleated sheets C. side chains
D. all of the above D. amino groups

17. Occasional small outbreaks of disease in
11. What caused the cholera outbreak? population but otherwise absent
A. Unhealthy Food A. sporadic
B. Obesity B. endemic
C. Poor sanitation C. epidemic
D. Contaminated water D. pandemic
18. What unit of measurement is used to mea-
12. Period of the lessening of symptoms until
sure fleas?
recovery
A. Millimeters
A. Prodromal phase
B. Micrometers
B. Period of invasion
C. Nanometers
C. Incubation period D. Centimeters
D. Convalescent period
19. Tuberculosis is a contagious disease. How
can someone catch tuberculosis?
13. How long does gonorrhea take to show
symptoms? A. through someone who sneezed near
them
A. 1 yr
B. through someone who spoke near
B. 2 mos them
C. 2-14 days C. through someone who sang near them
D. 0 days D. through saliva

20. Which is the most likely reason for a de- 25. What color is gonorrhea discharge?
cline in antibiotic use? A. purple

A. Antibiotics have severe health side ef- B. blue
fects.
C. black
B. Companies find antibiotics too expen-
D. greenish/yellow
sive to produce.
C. Most health insurance does not cover 26. The root in the word amphibian means
treatment with antibiotics. A. field, soil
D. Bacterial infections have become re- B. both
sistant to present antibiotic treatment. C. change
21. This part of the chemical reaction is con- D. high
sidered a catalyst and is not used up, but
27. If hydrogen bonding occurred between the
rather, recycled.
amino group and carboxyl group of other
A. Substrate amino acids, the resulting protein would
B. Enzyme be considered:
C. Activation energy A. Primary

B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
22. This protein is embedded in the lipid bi-
D. Quaternary
layer, and may sometimes have a carbo-
hydrate chain attached to it for cell identi- 28. This root means to touch
fication A. aph
A. Peripheral membrane protein B. aqu
B. Integral membrane protein C. arteri
C. Glycolipid D. ase
29. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin which
23. Vaccine given for prophylaxis of tuberculo- A. inhibits protein synthesis
sis B. alters electrolyte balance in epithelial
A. TAB cells
B. BCG C. prevents nerve impulse transmission
C. IPV D. invades the intestinal linings.
D. OPV 30. Do people who are affected by tubercu-
losis always experience symptoms right
24. This root means both away?
A. amphi A. Yes
B. amyl B. No
C. alg C. Sometimes
D. alb D. none of above

31. Which of the following is considered macro C. Pott Percivall

in size? D. Luc Antoine Montagnier
A. HIV
37. This root means water
B. Staphylococcus
A. aqu
C. Endospores
B. apo
D. Fleas
C. ate
32. What happens to protein synthesized by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ase
ribosomes not attached to anything?
A. Is exported into another cell 38. What is red or itchy eyes related to gonor-
rhea called?
B. Exported outside the cell
A. red eye
C. Stays within the cell
B. Conjunctivitis
C. itchy eye
33. If this pathogenic bacteria is found virtu- D. red itch
ally anywhere, the term used to describe
this is: 39. This root means to have the character of
A. Pathogenic A. al
B. Microbial B. alb
C. Ubiquitous C. amyl
D. Viral D. alg
34. Typhoid Mary 40. The type of protein is not permanently em-
A. Asymptomatic carrier bedded in the lipid bilayer, therefore can
be relocated
B. Intermediate host
A. Integral membrane protein
C. Definitive host
B. peripheral membrane protein
D. Pathogen
C. glycolipids
35. Which characteristic makes bacteria suit- D. carbohydrates
able for scientific research of disease?
A. They are multicellular. 41. This organelle is capable of generating
adenosine triphosphate for energy
B. They reproduce rapidly.
A. Ribosomes
C. They keep virus populations under con-
trol. B. Nucleus
D. They grow in four stages allowing C. Lysosomes

growth control. D. Mitochondria
36. The germ that causes tuberculosis was dis- 42. One among them is a virulence factor as-
covered by ? sociated with Gonococci
A. Robert Koch A. Pili
B. Louis Pasteur B. Flagella

C. Endoflagella 49. The degree to which a pathogen causes dis-

D. Exotoxin ease in a host

43. How do they test for gonorrhea? A. Infectivity
A. a written test B. pathogenicity

B. look for germ in body fluids C. virulence
C. look in your eyes
D. R0
D. look in mouth
44. The ability of a pathogen to spread from 50. Cholera toxin increases the activity of
one host to another host A. Adenyl cyclase
A. Infectivity
B. Coagulase
B. pathogenicity
C. Catalase
C. virulence
D. Susceptibility D. Hyaluronidase
45. This type of virus is capable of infecting 51. This molecule readily diffuses into the
other bacteria by injecting its: plasma membrane
A. Capsid
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Nucleic acid
C. Protein B. Proteins
D. None of the above C. Lipids
46. The opposite of susceptibility D. DNA

A. Resistence
52. If hydrogen bonding between amino acids
B. Host factor
occurred at their side chains, the resulting
C. Virulence protein would have this shape:
D. Pathogenicity
A. a-helix
47. this root means star B. b-pleated sheet
A. aster
C. linear chain
B. arthr
C. ary D. alpha sheets
D. aqu
53. What are the two major symptoms of ty-
48. Segment of DNA that is capable of coding phoid?
for protein
A. Vomiting and fever
A. RNA
B. Rash and Vomiting
B. Introns
C. Genes C. Fever and Rash
D. None of the above D. Fever and paralysis

54. Which genera are likely to be part of the cocci

microbial community in the colon?
55. What were some of the associated foods
A. Bacteroides, Staphylococci, Bifidobac-
with Salmonella Typhi .
terium
A. Eggs, Meat and Poultry, and Fruits and
B. Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Clostrid-
Vegetables.
ium
B. Food Grain
C. Bifidobacterium, Streptococci, Staphy-
lococci C. Milk
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Bacterioides, Streptococci, Staphylo- D. Cereal

4. Forensic Medicine
4.1 Forensic Toxicology

1. Marijuana is part of which type of drug 5. Drugs that promote cell division and tissue
schedule? growth are
A. Schedule 1 A. Stimulants
B. Schedule 2 B. Narcotics
C. Schedule 3 C. Hallucinogens
D. Schedule 4 D. Anabolic steroids
2. Which of the following drugs are NOT hal- 6. Blood alcohol content is
lucinogens? A. the amount of cocaine in a person’s
A. marijuana blood
B. mushrooms B. the amount of alcohol in a person’s
C. LSD glass
D. Vicodin C. the amount of alcohol in a person’s

blood
3. MDMA or Ecstasy is considered a(n): D. the amount of alcohol a person con-
A. Hallucinogen sumes
B. Narcotic 7. Which of the following is a correct list of
C. Stimulant how exposure to toxins can occur?
D. Anabolic steroid A. inhaling, injecting, excreting, absorb-
ing
4. Symptoms of lead poisoning:
B. inhaling, injecting, absorbing, ingest-
A. seizures, vomiting ing
B. almond smell, asphyxiation C. injecting, inhaling, excreting, ingesting
C. delerium, erratic behavior D. absorbing, inhaling, excreting, ingest-
D. blindness coma ing

4.1 Forensic Toxicology 822
8. Any substance that, when taken in suf- 14. Forensic toxicology is the science of
ficient quantities, causes a harmful or and drugs and poisons a person
deadly reaction is known as a may have used medicinally, recreationally,
A. toxin and/or criminally.
B. drug A. dosing, interactions of
C. poison B. investigating, toxicity
D. biohazard
C. identifying, dosing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. The most commonly abused drug in the D. detecting, identifying
world is
A. Alcohol 15. At what rate does the average persons
B. Tobacco system oxidize alcohol?
C. Marijuana A. .015-.02 BAC per hour
D. E-Cigarettes B. .03-.05 BAC per hour
10. Heroin is considered a: C. .08 BAC per hour
A. Hallucinogen
D. .01 per hour
B. Narcotic
C. Stimulant 16. Who is known as the Father of Forensic
D. Depressant Toxicology?
11. Which of the following is a symptom of co- A. Orfila

caine use? B. Marsh
A. Blue fingernails and lips
C. Locard
B. High blood pressure
D. Gross
C. Increased heart rate
D. Hallucinations 17. Mixtures can be analyzed
12. Why is drinking alcohol quickly and in large A. chromatography
amounts do dangerous?
B. infrared spectrometry
A. The liver cannot break it down fast
enough C. infrared spectroscopy
B. Delayed reaction time D. spot tests
C. Impaired vision
D. Impaired judgment 18. What is the most poisonous biological sub-
stance known to man?
13. Relieve anxiety and produce sleep
A. Ricin
A. Poison
B. Botulism
B. Depressants
C. Stimulants C. Mushrooms
D. Duration D. Tetanus

19. Spectrophotometry uses which light C. Elimination

source to expose drugs to specific elec- D. none of above
tromagnetic radiation?

A. UV 24. Which of these can tell us if a person is
under the influence of a drug right now.
B. Infrared
A. Blood
C. Visible
D. All of these are used B. Urine
C. Hair
20. an addictive drug, such as opium, that re-
lieves pain by supressing the central ner- D. Stomach contents
vous system’s ability to relay pain mes-
25. This toxin can kill a victim within a few
sages to the brain. It also alters mood and
hours because it inactivates their ribo-
behavior, and causes sleep or feelings of
somes, preventing them from making nec-
mental numbness
essary proteins which causes cells to die:
A. Duration
A. Anthrax
B. Narcotic
B. Botulism
C. Toxin
C. Ricin
D. Dose
D. Ebola
21. Match the schedule with the correct def-
inition OR the correct drug that is in- 26. What type of drug is alcohol?
cluded within the schedule.High probabil- A. Stimulant
ity of abuse, some accepted medical uses
B. Club Drug
A. Schedule I
C. Depressant
B. Schedule II
D. Marijuana
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV 27. A technique that allows molecules to be
identified by breaking them apart and mea-
E. Schedule V
suring their relative quantities is known as
22. What organ metabolizes alcohol? A. gas chromatography
A. Liver B. infrared spectroscopy
B. Stomach C. mass spectrometry
C. Lungs D. paper chromatography
D. Small Intestine
28. Over the counter drugs include the follow-
23. There are 3 stages in the process of ing
metabolism. Which involves the process of
A. alcohol
oxidizing alcohol in the liver and excreting
alcohol in urine, breath, and perspiration? B. antacids
A. Absorption C. acetaminophen
B. Distribution D. all of the following

29. is the study of poisons and the identifi- A. 0.10%

cation of drugs and other substances a
B. 0.80%
person may have use for medicinal, recre-
ational, or criminal purposes. C. 0.08%
A. Toxin D. 8.00%
B. Toxicology
35. Which of the following is NOT a factor for
C. Poison a toxicologist to consider when determin-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Toxicity ing cause of death?
30. This type of exposure involves the respi- A. Accuracy

ratory system: B. Validity
A. Inhaling C. Reliability
B. Injecting D. Speculation
C. Absorbing
D. Ingesting 36. Amphetamines are considered a:
A. Hallucinogen
31. What is opium an example of?
B. Narcotic
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic C. Stimulant
C. Stimulant D. Depressant
D. Depressant 37. Anabolic steroids
32. Who is the “father of forensic toxicol- A. decrease cell and tissue growth & divi-
ogy”? sion
A. Mathieu Orfila B. promote cell and tissue growth & divi-
B. Edmund Locard sion
C. Alphonse Bertillon C. promote cell growth and decrease tis-
sue growth
D. Guilia Toffana
D. decrease cell growth and increase tis-
33. Consumer labeling for products that con- sue growth
tain pesticides and other products that are
relatively or slightly toxic must include the 38. Forensic chemistry CANNOT identify which
word of the following?
A. Danger A. Unknown drugs or substances
B. Caution
B. Determine additional substances
C. Warning mixed with chemicals
D. Beware C. Analyze body tissue for presence of
chemicals
34. The current percentage of blood alcohol
concentration necessary to consider a per- D. Determine concentrations of ingredi-
son intoxicated is ents found within a substance

39. Drugs deemed to have the highest poten- 44. Forensic Toxicologists today are responsi-
tial for abuse and having a current medical ble for a wide range of duties. Which of
use are listed in which schedule of the Con- the following is NOT the responsibility of

trolled Substances Act? a toxicologist:
A. V A. analyze body fluids from an autopsy
B. IV B. present evidence in court
C. III C. facilitate drug testing for employees
D. II D. question suspects about drug use
40. Which of the following is a synthetic hallu- 45. A toxicologist may be called into court to:
cinogen? A. determine if a death was a homicide
A. Marijuana B. determine the level of impairment
of a driver under the influence of
B. LSD
drugs/alcohol
C. Peyote C. explain the results of an autopsy
D. Mushrooms D. all of these
41. Due to the availability of the vaccine, this 46. After presumptive testing, further confir-
dangerous toxin, found on rusty nails and matory testing is performed on samples,
fencing, only causes 5 deaths per year in using
the US:
A. Spectrophotometry and liquid extrac-
A. Botulism tion
B. Cyanide B. Spectrophotometry and mass extrac-
C. Tetanus tion
C. Chromatography and mass spectrome-
D. Anthrax
try
42. Relieve pain and produce sleep, include D. Liquid extraction and mass extraction
morphine and codeine
47. There is a relationship between the
A. Hallucinogens amount of alcohol in the blood and alveoar
B. depressants breath.
C. anabolic steroids A. direct
D. club drugs B. indirect
E. narcotics C. variable
D. false
43. Xanax, a sleeping pill and anti-anxiety
medication, is considered a: 48. What does the technical term “alcohol”
mean?
A. Hallucinogen
A. Any group of organic compounds with
B. Narcotic
a hydroxyl group
C. Stimulant B. group of inorganic compounds with a
D. Depressant nitrogen group

C. beer, wine, or hard liquor 53. Which of these are alcohol?

D. none of the above A. Beer
49. What is a problem with narcotics? B. Wine
A. They don’t work well C. Whiskey
B. They are only available in limited quan- D. All of these
tities
C. They are very habit forming 54. These drugs are known for drastically
NARAYAN CHANGDER
changing the appearance of the user, in-
D. They are always illegal cluding eroded teeth and body sores:
50. In a death that resulted from asphyxiation A. Heroin
due to carbon monoxide poisoning, what
B. Methamphetamines
happened internally to cause death?
A. Carbon monoxide combines with the C. Ecstasy
hemoglobin to prevent oxygen from being D. LSD
transported throughout the body
B. oxygen combines with the hemoglobin 55. tests are preliminary tests that do not
to prevent carbon monoxide from being provide positive identification but do indi-
transported throughout the body cate that drugs may be present.
C. carbon monoxide will cause the red A. presumptive

blood cells to alter their shape and B. confirmatory
prevent them from transporting oxygen
C. presumptive round 2 test
throughout the body
D. carbon monoxide gas builds up in the D. color
lungs and prevents the absorption of oxy-
56. Which of these activities would a Forensic
gen by the alveoli
toxicologist NOT preform?
51. The in a person will allow police or doc- A. Determine the chemical make up of ink
tors to know how much alcohol a person
consumed. B. Determine if drugs played a role in an
accident
A. FAS
C. Determine if drugs played a role in a
B. BAC
perpetrators actions
C. DUI
D. Determine if a person died of natural
D. none of above causes or a poison
52. Retention factor aka Rf
57. Drug analysis accounts for approximately
A. are useful in comparing the results of of the analyses which forensic scientist
one chromatogram to the results of an- must complete.
other
A. 25
B. is how far a compound travels in a sol-
vent B. 50
C. is used in paper chromatography C. 75
D. all of the above D. 100

58. A person’s dependence on a drug relies on 64. Alcohol can be excreted from the body by
all of the following EXCEPT:

A. type of drug used A. breathing
B. route of administration B. urinating
C. whether the drug is synthetic or natu- C. sweating
ral
D. all of these
D. society’s attitudes and responses
65. Which of the following is NOT a psy-
59. Many abused substances are controlled by chophysical test which a police officer may
A. supply and demand give to an individual suspected of being un-
der the influence of alcohol?
B. prescription
A. Walk and turn test
C. DEA officials
D. FDA regulation B. Field urine test
C. Horizontal-gaze nystagmus
60. Which of the following is NOT a toxic
heavy metal? D. One-leg stand test
A. Lead 66. Stimulant drugs can lead to:
B. Mercury A. Increased heart rate, blood pressure
C. Arsenic & body temperature
D. Iron B. Diabetes, cancer, & heart disease
C. Decreased heart rate, blood pressure
61. Products of methanol breakdown in the
& body temperature
liver:
D. Decreased tolerance, withdrawal, &
A. water and carbon dioxide
risk of addiction
B. water and carbon monoxide
C. formaldehyde and formic acid 67. The consumer labeling must use the word
for products that contain pesticides
D. formaldehyde and acetic acid and other products that are highly toxic.
62. What is the most widely abused drug in A. Danger
the United States? B. Caution
A. Cocaine
C. Warning
B. Marijuana
D. Beware
C. Alcohol
68. George doesn’t realize the proper dosage
D. Heroin
of sleeping pills and takes too many. What
63. Examples of club drugs are type of exposure is this?
A. MDMA A. Intentionally
B. Ketamine B. Accidentally
C. Rohypnol C. Deliberately
D. All of the above D. none of above

69. Drugs that speed up the central nervous 75. All drugs are chemicals/substances that
system? originate from one of the following two
A. stimulants sources:
B. depressants A. Doctors & Natural

C. opiates B. Laboratories & Doctors
D. inhalants C. OTC (over the counter) & Prescription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. The Greek Philosopher Socrates was vic- D. Laboratories & Natural
tim to what poison?
A. Arsenic 76. Which of the following is not part of the
metabolic processing of alcohol?
B. Ricin
A. Absorption
C. Hemlock
D. Botulism B. Excretion
71. A Marquis solution turns purple in the pres- C. Activation

ence of D. Oxidation
A. Heroin, morphine, opium
77. Which of the following is an example in-
B. Marijuana
tentional intoxication?
C. Cocaine
A. Getting high with friends
D. MDMA
B. being drugged with the date rape drug
72. Drugs with no current accepted medical
use in the United States are called C. taking vicodin after having surgery
A. Controlled substances D. shooting up with steroids to be a bet-

ter athlete
B. Illegal drugs
C. Legal drugs 78. Poisonings that involve high doses over
D. Uncontrolled substances short time periods are referred to as
73. Which of the following show a correct pair- A. Acute

ing of examples to classes of drugs? B. Chronic
A. Narcotics Cocaine
C. Severe
B. Stimulants Heroin
D. Accidental
C. Hallucinogens Ecstasy
D. Depressants Morphine 79. How is alcohol absorbed into the blood-
stream?
74. Positive color spot test for lead:
A. Stomach/Intestine Lining
A. blue
B. red B. Brain/Brainstem
C. yellow C. Liver/Kidneys
D. green D. Lungs/Alveolar Tube

80. Toxicology is the study of Toxicologists 85. Which of the following types of alcohol is
study the effects these substances found in alcoholic beverages, such as beer
have on the body. and wine?

A. medicines, harmful A. Ethanol
B. poisons, beneficial B. Methanol
C. poisons, harmful C. Isopropanol

D. None of the Above
D. medicines, beneficial
86. A hallucinogen causes hallucinations and
81. Which of the following is NOT a quality
drug enforcement agencies use to place a
A. delusions
controlled substance into a specific sched-
ule? B. increased senses
A. Medicinal use C. waking dreams
D. lethargy
B. Abuse potential
C. Bacterial content 87. A breath test, used to measure alcohol, re-
flects the alcohol concentration in the
D. Liability for dependence
A. pulmonary vein
82. The four main factors that affect toxicity B. pulmonary artery
of a substance are dosage, duration, how C. brachial artery
the drug was taken, and
D. the aorta
A. possible drug interactions
88. Human specimens to test for ingestion of
B. age and sex of the user poison:
C. tolerance of the user A. lungs, blood
D. how the drug is excreted from the body B. stomach contents, liver, blood
C. liver, blood, kidneys
83. A drug is a natural or substance that
is used to produce physiological or psycho- D. kidneys, vitreous humor
logical effects 89. Which of the following is NOT a stimu-
A. synthetic lant?
B. uniform A. Xanax
C. poisonous B. Methadone
C. Methamphetamine
D. spontaneous
D. Adderall
84. A poison produced by a plant or animal is
90. A breathalyzer measures the amount of al-
called what?
cohol in a person’s:
A. A poison A. Blood
B. A biological poison B. Brain
C. A toxin C. Deep breath
D. An intoxicant D. Stomach

91. Drugs that promote cell division and tis- 96. The Controlled Substances Act schedule of
sue growth are (These drugs often are drugs that have a high potential for abuse
accompanied by unpredictable effects on and have no currently accepted medical
mood and personality, depression, dimin- use.
ished sex drive, halting bone growth, and A. I
liver cancer.)
B. II
A. Stimulants
C. III
B. Narcotics
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. IV
C. Hallucinogens
D. Anabolic steroids E. V
92. Which reagent from the Unknown Sub- 97. What impacts how fast alcohol is absorbed
stance Lab changed from blue to purple in or how fast one becomes intoxicated (or
a positive reaction? drunk)?
A. Biuret A. How fast you drink it
B. Acetic Acid B. If there is food in the stomach
C. Lugol’s Iodine C. How strong the drink is
D. none of above D. All the above
93. analgesics are drugs that 98. Biological toxins are

A. cause hallucinations A. poisonous substances produced by liv-
B. relieve anxiety ing organisms
C. cause anxiety B. poisonous substances produced by ar-
tificial means
D. relieve pain
C. non-poisonous substances produced
94. Upon autopsy, the toxicologist and pathol- by living organisms
ogistdetermine if toxins are in the vic-
tim’s system through controlled testing. D. non-poisonous substances produced
Which of the following toxicology disci- by artificial means
plines would handle post mortem (after
99. Drugs that relieve anxiety and induce
death) toxicology?
sleep
A. Death Investigation toxicology
A. Poison
B. Doping Control
B. Depressants
C. Forensics workplace toxicology
C. Stimulants
D. Human Performance toxicology
D. Duration
95. One factor for determining drug schedules
is 100. What is MDMA an example of?
A. the potential for addiction A. Hallucinogen
B. how easy it is to get B. Narcotic
C. if people have it at home C. Stimulant
D. how expensive it is D. Depressant

101. Adderall is a part of which type of drug A. abuse, dependence, medical value
schedule? B. acute, chronic, overdose

A. Schedule 1 C. intentionally, accidentally, deliber-
B. Schedule 2 ately
C. Schedule 3 D. dosage, duration, interactions with
other medicines
D. Schedule 4
107. What bacteria causes anthrax?
102. Presumptive test for arsenic
A. Clostridium tetani
A. dark residue on copper plate
B. Clostridium botulinin
B. green flame
C. Bacillis anthracis
C. red color spot
D. Staphalococcus aureus
D. release of formaldehyde
108. What is an opiate?
103. Tylenol is an example of what Schedule A. A type of ADHD drug
of drug?
B. A chemical derived from the sap of pop-
A. Schedule I pies
B. Schedule II C. Drugs made from the cannabis plant
C. Schedule III D. A drug that speeds up the CNS
D. Schedule IV 109. Marijuana is a commonly used and
E. Schedule V abused drug worldwide. Which of the
following statements about marijuana
104. Using drugs to treat illness or relieve are true? 1. Marijuana has short
pain is which type of toxic substance ex- hairs on the upper side of the leaf
posure? called “bear claws”.2. The Marquis
A. intentionally turns orange-brown when marjiuana is
B. accidentally present.3. TLC, the microcrystalline test,
and the Duquenois-Levine test are all suf-
C. deliberately ficient in the identification of marijuana
D. all of these when used in combination.4. Marijuana
constitutes a high percentage of drug ar-
105. Toxicity is rests.
A. the study of poisons A. All of these except 4
B. the study of how drugs interact B. all of these except 2
C. the extent to which a substance is poi- C. 1 and 4
sonous D. all of these except 3
D. the study of how much of a poison you
110. Toxicity depends on which factors
can take before it kills you
A. dose
106. Toxic substances are classified HOW peo-
B. duration
ple are exposed to them. Which group cor-
rectly identifies HOW people are exposed C. nature of exposure
to toxins? D. all of these

111. This classification of drug distorts your 116. Drugs with high potential for abuse and
perception and will cause a person to see addiction and have some medical value
& hear things. with restrictions are ranked as schedule
A. Opiates
A. I
B. Stimulants
B. II
C. Hallucinogens
C. IV
D. Depressants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. V
112. Which of the following is NOT an opiate?
117. False positive for the presumptive test
A. Morphine for thalllium:
B. Xanax A. bismuth
C. Heroin B. aresenic
D. Methadone C. copper
113. What is the legal purpose of ketamine? D. lead
A. Veterinary drug 118. Match the schedule with the correct defi-
B. Cleaning solution for medical equip- nition OR the correct drug that is included
ment within the schedule.Heroin and LSD is in-
cluded in this category
C. Cold medication for babies
A. Schedule I
D. Migraine reducer
B. Schedule II
114. Anadrol is considered a(n): C. Schedule III
A. Hallucinogen D. Schedule IV
B. Narcotic E. Schedule V
C. Stimulant
119. Drugs whose sale, possession, and use
D. Anabolic steroid are restricted in the US are called
115. The federal Controlled Substances Act A. Controlled substances

of 1970 recognizes five Schedules of B. Illegal drugs
drugs. Which Schedule of drugs contains
C. Legal drugs
drugs that have severely restricted med-
ical use and a high potential for abuse D. Uncontrolled substances
(and includes cocaine, methamphetamine,
120. is the study of drugs and poisons, and
methadone, and oxycodone)?
their interactions with or effects on the
A. Schedule I body
B. Schedule II A. Serology
C. Schedule III B. Toxicology
D. Schedule IV C. Controlled Substances
E. Schedule V D. Drugology

121. The Schedule of a drug depends on which 126. The Controlled Substances Act schedule of
of the following factors? drugs that have less potential for abuse
and a currently accepted medical use, such

A. Drugs potential for abuse
as codeine and testosterone.
B. Medical Value
A. I
C. Drugs potential for physical and psy- B. II
chological dependence
C. III
D. All of the above
D. IV
122. Approximately % of traffic deaths in E. V
the U.S. are alcohol-related
127. A condition in which a person can no
A. 10 longer control his or her drug use is called:
B. 25 A. Addiction
C. 50 B. Withdrawal
D. 75 C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
123. Which of the following is NOT a role that
a toxicologist might perform? 128. Testosterone derivatives used as
A. Identify toxins in the body. performance-enhancing drugs
B. Quantify (how much) toxins in the A. Hallucinogens

body. B. depressants
C. Speculate a reason why toxins were C. anabolic steroids
found in the body. D. club drugs
D. Compare healthy organs with toxic or- E. narcotics
gans.
129. The Controlled Substance Act established
124. What symptoms did Chad Shelton and Du- five schedules of classification for sub-
ane Johnson both have in common? stances based on a drug’s:
A. Flu like symptoms A. potential for psychological depen-
dence.
B. Liver failure
B. potential for abuse.
C. Loss of color
C. potential for physical dependence.
D. Unexplained bleeding
D. all of the above
125. Taking an excessive amount of a drug 130. The dose of a substance that kills half the
that leads to coma or death is a(n) test population:
A. blood alcohol content A. LT50
B. poison B. LD50
C. toxin C. LDlo
D. overdose D. LTlo

131. An addictive drug, such as opium, that re- 136. Which of the following would affect a
lieves pain by suppressing the central ner- person the fastest?
vous system’s ability to relay pain mes- A. inhaling
B. ingesting
behavior, and causes sleep or feelings of
mental numbness C. injecting
A. Stimulants D. absorbing
B. Hallucinogens 137. Drug analysis begins with a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Narcotics A. DNA test
D. Depressants B. Presumptive test
E. Anabolic Steroids C. Reagent test
132. The Controlled Substances Act schedule of D. Marque test

drugs that have a low potential for abuse 138. All substances can be toxic, it just de-
and have a current medical use. pends on the
A. I A. dosage
B. II B. mode of entry
C. III C. ingredients
D. IV D. all of the above
E. V 139. Which of the following is NOT a possible
133. Under what circumstances could a person application of Forensic Toxicology?
have access to a schedule 3 drug? A. At home drug tests
A. With a Dr’s prescription B. Workplace drug testing
B. Never C. Postmortem toxicology
C. Over the counter medication D. Human performance testing
D. During a medical emergency along 140. In April 2013 President Barack Obama
with extreme supervision and Senator Roger Wicker were sent en-
velopes that preliminarily tested positive
134. What organ is responsible for the break- for this bioterrorism agent:
down (metabolism) of alcohol?
A. Anthrax
A. liver
B. Salmonella
B. kidney
C. Ricin
C. stomach
D. Ebola
D. thyroid
141. An example of an acute poison is ,
135. Clostridium tetani causes while an example of a chronic poison is
A. anthrax A. mercury, lead
B. mercury poisoning B. lead, cyanide
C. CO poisoning C. cyanide, methanol
D. tetanus D. mercury, cyanide

142. An addictive drug, such as opium, that re- 147. Stimulants:

lieves pain by supressing the central ner- A. increase feelings of energy and alert-

ness, while suppressing appetite.
behavior, and causes sleep or feelings of B. decrease feelings of energy and alert-
mental numbness ness, while suppressing appetite.
C. increase feelings of energy and alert-
A. Duration
ness, while increasing appetite.
B. Narcotic
D. increase feelings of lethargy and alert-
C. Toxin ness, while increasing appetite.
D. Dose 148. Which of the following is a way that a Hu-
143. Although poisoning is popular in murder man Performance toxicologist might test
mysteries and detective stories, it is: for alcohol?
A. a common form of murder. A. Blood analysis

B. Urine analysis
B. not a common form of murder.
C. Breath analysis
C. a common form of suicide.
D. All of these
D. a common form of manslaughter.
149. A poison that can harm an organism is
144. A toxicology test can be run on all of the a(n)
following EXCEPT:
A. over the counter drug
A. urine
B. toxin
B. hair
C. toxicity
C. teeth
D. narcotic
D. blood
150. What did the CDC Toxicologist discover
145. What did the poison cause? from the autopsy results?
A. Liver failure A. It affected only the lymph nodes
B. Cancer B. It affected only the liver
C. Blood loss C. It left a trace
D. Death D. None of the above
146. (multiple correct answers) Which of the 151. Which is a correct statement about the
following are criteria used in establishing chemical tests listed below?
the Controlled Substance Act’s five sched- A. Scott and Duquenois-Levine tests are
ules of classification for substances? presumptive, Marquis is confirmatory
A. Potential for abuse B. Marquis test is presumptive, Scott and
Duquenois-Levine are confirmatory
B. Cost
C. Scott and Marquis tests are presump-
C. Potential for dependence
tive, Duquenois-Levine is confirmatory
D. Medical value D. Marquis and Duquenois-Levine tests
E. Source are presumptive, Scott is confirmatory

152. Which of the following is one of the C. Lead

biggest challenges that toxicologist face D. Aluminum
when analyzing evidence?
157. A child shows symptoms of lead toxicity,
A. Ensuring they receive enough evi-
which is linked to lead based paint on the
dence to run both screening and confirma-
bedroom window. This type of poisoning
tory tests
would be considered
B. There is not always evidence on a body A. Acute
to indicate how a drug was taken into the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
body B. Synergism
C. Chronic
C. few substances enter the body and
leave the body in the same chemical state D. Antagonism
D. how a drug is taken in will always ef- 158. Stimulants
fect how much of that drug is metabolized A. increase feelings of alertness, while
suppressing appetite
153. What % of homicides are caused by poi-
soning? B. decrease feelings of alertness, while
suppressing appetite
A. 10%
C. increase feelings of alertness, while
B. 5% increasing appetite
C. 50% D. decrease feelings of alertness, while
D. 0.5% increasing appetite
154. Club Drugs refers to 159. Confirmatory test to distinguish between

thallium and copper:
A. synthetic drugs that are often used in
night clubs A. x-ray diffraction
B. emission spectroscopy
B. a group that buys and sells drugs
C. thin layer chromatography
C. an exclusive community that uses
drugs D. ion mobile spectroscopy
D. a famous night club known for its drug 160. Why were anabolic steroids originally de-
use veloped?
A. to treat neurological disorders
155. According to the CDC, how. many people
die each day from drug overdose? B. to treat gastrointestinal disorders
A. 10 C. to treat reproductive disorders
D. to treat respiratory disorders
B. 50
C. 100 161. The rate of absorption of alcohol is
with a full stomach than an empty stom-
D. 500 ach.
156. Which of the following is not considered A. faster
a heavy metal? B. slower
A. Arsenic C. the same as
B. Mercury D. none of above

162. The word assigned to pesticides and 167. Which of the following is an example of
other products that are highly toxic is deliberate intoxication?

A. Danger A. getting high with friends
B. Caution B. being drugged with the date rape drug
C. Warning C. taking vicodin after surgery
D. Beware D. shooting up with steroids to be a bet-
ter athlete
163. There are categories of controlled
substances in the USA. 168. A type of testing used to narrow down
A. 7 the identity of a toxin is
B. 5 A. Secondary
C. 2 B. Primary
D. unmlimited C. Confirmation
D. Presumptive
164. Athletes often use these products to en-
hance their ability in competition.
169. If a person has a BAC of 0.45, it is con-
A. Hallucinogen sidered to be intoxication
B. Narcotic A. Mild
C. Stimulant B. Severe
D. Anabolic steroid C. Lethal
165. There is a drug which is frequently made D. Mid

in home laboratories. As the chemicals
used in the production of the drug are 170. Which of the following would be part of
very dangerous, there are frequently ex- a toxicologist’s job?
plosions that occur during production. The A. determining cause of death
name of this drug is:
B. collecting bodily fluid samples during
A. depressants (downers) an autopsy
B. synthetic marijuana (spice) C. analyzing the presence of drugs and
C. PCP (angel dust) other toxins
D. methamphetamines (meth) D. all of these are performed by a toxicol-

ogist
166. Which is NOT one of the three factors
used to determine placement of a drug into 171. Drugs that increase feelings of well-
a drug schedule category? being, energy, and alertness are
A. Potential for abuse A. Stimulants
B. Medical value B. Narcotics
C. Potential for dependence C. Hallucinogens
D. Type of drug D. Anabolic steroids

172. A poisonous substance naturally pro- 177. The Controlled Substances Act schedule of
duced by certain plants, animals, and bac- drugs that have a high potential for abuse
teria that is capable of causing disease or and have medical use with severe restric-
death in humans tions.
A. Dose A. I
B. Toxicity B. II
C. Poison C. III
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Biological Toxin D. IV
E. V
173. This pesticide was a commonly used to
kill mosquitoes and stop the spread of 178. Mostly synthetic drugs that include “date
malaria up until 1972 when it was banned rape” drugs and ecstasy
in the US: A. Hallucinogens
A. Aldrin B. depressants
B. Bidrin XP C. anabolic steroids
C. Callistro Xtra D. club drugs
D. DDT E. narcotics
174. What is the difference between am- 179. What does it mean is there are high lev-
phetamine & methamphetamine? els of CO in the blood of a victim of a fire?
A. Meth & amphetamine are the same A. Died somehwere else & brought to
thing scene postmortem
B. Meth is more potent amphetamine B. Perished after the fire started
C. Amphetamine is more potent than C. Was already dead when the fire
meth started
D. None of the above D. Was a cigarette smoker
180. Which of the following is a requirement
175. A person who is PHYSICALLY dependent
for a schedule 1 drug?
upon a drug take the drug in order to:
A. Widely accepted medical use
A. create a sense of well-being
B. Low potential for dependence
B. feel the “high” of the drug
C. Some accepted medical use
C. sustain an emotional state of mind
D. High potential for abuse
D. avoid the withdrawal symptoms
181. Tests to identify specific substances by
176. Drugs known to increase awareness of the color and morphology of the crystals
sensory input, diminish control, and cause formed when the substance is mixed with
panic are specific reagents.
A. Stimulants A. Mass spectrometry
B. Narcotics B. gas spectrometry
C. Hallucinogens C. thin layer chromatography
D. Anabolic steroids D. Microcrystalline tests

182. Alcohol is considered a C. Chemical composition

A. stimulant D. Chemical development

B. depressant 188. Due to the availability of the vaccine, this
C. hallucinogen dangerous toxin only causes 5 deaths per
year in the US:
D. date-rape/club drug
A. Botulism
183. are used to mimic the male hormone,
B. Cyanide
testosterone, in order to develop muscle
and other male characteristics. C. Tetanus
A. Anti-depressants D. Anthrax
B. Anabolic steroids 189. The Controlled Substances Act schedule of
C. Methadone drugs that must show low abuse potential
and have medical use such as opiate drug
D. Morphine mixtures that contain nonnarcotic medici-
184. A Scott test turns blue in the presence of nal ingredients.
A. Cocaine A. I
B. II
B. Heroin
C. III
C. Marijuana
D. IV
D. Barbituates
E. V
185. are drugs which are federally regu-
lated by the government and are broken 190. Which federal agency help regulate the
into five categories. additives that are put in food?
A. Controlled substances A. EPA
B. Designer drugs B. FBI
C. Compound substances C. FDA
D. Dependence drugs D. OHSA
191. If a male and a female have a 0.15 BAC,

186. Toxicologists tests drugs by running
how long will it take them to get back to
tests.
a BAC of 0.00?
A. Breathalyzer
A. male = 6 hours, female = 9 hours
B. Blood
B. male = 5 hours, female = 10 hours
C. Urine
C. depends on how many drinks they had
D. Hair and their weight
187. Toxicologists need to be aware of the D. male = 10 hours, female = 10 hours
of a controlled substance or toxin, as well 192. Which of the following factors deter-
as the effects of the toxin on the body. mines the amount of alcohol absorbed into
A. Chemical regulations the bloodstream?
B. Chemical exposure A. the amount consumed

B. the amount of food in the stomach C. anabolic steroids

C. amount of alcohol in the beverage D. club drugs
D. all of these E. narcotics
193. a drug or other chemical compound whose 198. The forensic scientists who popularized
manufacture, distribution, posession, and toxicology were
use is regulated by the legal system A. Hoover & Lee
A. Chronic Poisoning
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Orfila & Christison
B. Depressants C. Freud & Siegfried
C. Anabolic Steriods D. Edison & Einstein
D. Controlled Substance
199. The word assigned to pesticides and
194. Which type of drugs are often derived other products that are relatively or
from plants? slightly toxic is
A. Hallucinogens A. Danger
B. Anabolic Steroids B. Caution
C. Narcotics C. Warning
D. Depressants D. Beware
195. Toxicity can be affected by (choose the 200. What drug was originally discovered in
best answer) a fungus that grew on Rye bread back in
1938? It is one of the most powerful
A. dosage and duration mood-changing chemicals.
B. duration and interactions with other A. Marijuana
drugs
B. LSD
C. dosage, duration and how the drug
C. PCP
was taken
D. Ecstasy
D. dosage, duration, how the drug was
taken and interactions 201. Presumptive color test for cyanide:
196. This type of exposure involves the diges- A. red
tive system: B. blue
A. Inhaling C. yellow
B. Injecting D. green
C. Absorbing
202. is the study of drugs, chemicals and
D. Ingesting poisons found within the body or within
another living organism.
197. Decrease your coordination; decrease
brain function, decrease reaction time and A. Toxicology
include barbituates B. Post-mortem toxicology
A. Hallucinogens C. Forensic chemistry
B. depressants D. Behavioral toxicology

203. Which of the following has NOT been 209. Which of the following is NOT a category
a commonly used opiate in the medical of controlled substance?
field?

A. Hallucinogens
A. Heroin
B. Narcotics
B. Codeine
C. Opioids
C. Morphine
D. Depressants
D. Cocaine
204. This type of exposure involves 210. An addictive drug, such as opium, that re-
drug/toxin directly into the bloodstream: duce pain by suppressing the central ner-
A. Inhaling sages to the brain. It also alters mood and
B. Injecting behavior, and causes sleep or feelings of
C. Ingesting mental numbness
D. Absorbing A. Duration
B. Narcotic
205. What is the most widely abused drug in
Western countries? C. Toxin
A. Heroin D. Dose
B. Cocaine
211. Which of the following is NOT considered
C. Xanax to be on of the five major categories of
D. Alcohol drugs?
206. Alcohol is excreted from the body A. Stimulants
through which of the following? B. Opiates
A. Breath C. Anabolic Steroids
B. Perspiration D. Hallucinogens
C. Urine
D. All of the above 212. All of the following are are stages of al-
cohol metabolism EXCEPT
207. The first documented poisoning victim A. elimination
was in
B. absorption
A. 399 BC
B. 1933 C. ingestion
C. 1399 D. distribution
D. 1399 BC 213. What is the component of the waste prod-
208. Marijuana is considered a uct of the manufacture of castor oil?
A. stimulant A. Anthrax
B. depressant B. Tetanus
C. hallucinogen C. Ricin
D. date-rape/club drug D. PCP

214. Schedule one substances have 219. What is the function of a stimulant?
A. High potential for abuse and depen- A. increase alertness & suppress ap-
dency petite
B. Light potential for abuse and depen- B. increase alertness & increase appetite
dency C. decrease alertness & increase ap-
C. Moderate potential for abuse and de- petite
pendency D. decrease alertness & decrease ap-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Approved medicinal use petite
215. Which of the following is NOT a hallucino- 220. How can Toxicologists use hair to deter-
gen? mine drug use?
A. PCP A. The drugs location on the hair shaft be-

comes a historical marker for drug intake
B. LSD
B. The drugs location on the scalp be-
C. Peyote comes a historical marker for drug intake
D. Pseudoephedrine C. The drugs location pieces of hair be-
comes a historical marker for drug intake
216. Drugs which act to reduce pain by sup-
pressing the central nervous system’s abil- D. Hair cannot be used to determine drug
ity to relay pain messages to the brain are use
221. Ricin is a bioterrorism agent derived from

A. Stimulants what plant?
B. Narcotics A. Opium poppy
C. Hallucinogens B. Castor bean
D. Anabolic steroids C. Cannabis
D. Ergot fungus
217. Heroin would be an example of what
Schedule of drug? 222. The most accurate way to test someone’s
BAC would be to test their
A. Schedule I
A. Breath
B. Schedule II
B. Blood
C. Schedule III
C. Urine
D. Schedule IV
D. Saliva
E. Schedul V
223. Drugs with which have medical use and
218. Drugs that tend to slow down the central the lowest potential for dependency are
nervous system? ranked as schedule
A. designer drugs A. I
B. depressants B. II
C. opiates C. IV
D. stimulants D. V

224. A collection of symptoms that a person 229. A poisonous substance naturally pro-
experiences when, after a period of reg- duced by certain plants, animals, and bac-
ular use, the quantity of available sub- teria that is capable of causing disease or

stance in the brain is reduced is called: death in humans; a subgroup of poisons
A. Addiction A. Dose
B. Tolerance B. Toxicity
C. Withdrawal C. Poison
D. Dependence D. Toxin
225. Narcotics act as: 230. They increase feelings of energy an alert-
ness while suppressing appetite
A. depressants and suppress pain.
A. Poison
B. stimulants and heighten pleasure.
B. Stimulants
C. mood enhancing substances that flood
the brain with dopamine. C. Toxin
D. None of these choices D. Depressants
226. is one of the most commonly encoun- 231. Carbon monoxide combines with what
tered poisons. component of blood?
A. Lead A. Hemoglobin
B. Mercury B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Cyanide C. A and B anigens
D. Carbon Monoxide D. oxyhemoglobin
227. Bob and Betty go to a party. They have 232. Xanax is considered a:
the same number of drinks and type of
A. Hallucinogen
drinks. Who is the better person to drive
home? B. Narcotic
A. Bob males process alcohol quicker C. Stimulant
B. Betty females process alcohol D. Depressant
quicker
233. Which of the following best defines Toxi-
C. Either one the burn off rate for al- cology?
cohol is equal for males and females
A. The science of detecting and identify-
D. Betty women are better drivers ing the presence of drugs / poisons in
body fluids, tissues, and organs.
228. What was the name of the poison?
B. The study of life
A. DMM
C. The study of the effects of being fired
B. DMV
on a bullet, cartridge, and gun
C. DMN
D. The study of fingerprints and analyzing
D. DNM fingerprint patterns to determine matches

234. What is the legal BAC in Illinois? 239. Which of the following is the most com-
monly used hallucinogen?
A. 0.05
A. Amphetamine
B. 0.08
B. Steroids
C. 0.8
C. Cocaine
D. 1.2
D. Marijuana
235. Match the schedule with the correct def-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. Which of the following is NOT a Presump-
inition OR the correct drug that is in-
tive Color test for Drugs?
cluded within the schedule.Low probability
of abuse, widely accepted medical use, ex. A. Sodium Rhodizonate Test
Valium B. Scott Test
A. Schedule I C. Van Urk Test
B. Schedule II D. Marquis Color Test
C. Schedule III 241. Which of the following is not a controlled
D. Schedule IV substance?
E. Schedule V A. narcotic
B. stimulant
236. poisoning is caused by a high does
over a short period of time C. antacid
D. all of these are controlled substances
A. chronic
B. immediate 242. Drugs, such as barbiturates and benzodi-
azepines that relieve anxiety and produce
C. acute sleep are called
D. inhalation A. stimulants
237. Cough Syrup is a part of which drug B. narcotics

schedule? C. depressants
A. Schedule 2 D. None of these choices.
B. Schedule 3 243. Which is the correct order for how al-
C. Schedule 4 cohol travels through the body? 1.Ab-
sorbed into the bloodstream 2.Distributed
D. Schedule 5 uniformly throughout watery portions of
the body 3.Oxidation of alcohol 4.Alco-
238. The most common poisons used in the hol containing liquid is ingested 5.Excreted
17th century were from body via breath, urine and sweat
A. mercury and arsenic A. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
B. arsenic and cyanide B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C. cyanide and mercury C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
D. thallium and arsenic D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

4.2 Forensic pathology 845
244. Xanax is a part of which type of drug C. pain relievers

schedule? D. all of the above

A. Schedule 1
247. GCMS stand for which of the following?
B. Schedule 2
A. Gas chromatography mass spectrome-
C. Schedule 3
try
D. Schedule 4
B. Gaseous chromatograph massive
245. What is the only viable approach for mea- spectrum
suring long-term drug abuse? C. Galactic creature missing space
A. Hair Analysis D. Geriatric count mechanism super ab-
B. Urine Analysis sorbent
C. Blood Analysis 248. Which of these substances are considered
D. none of above to be chemicals?
246. Most narcotics are A. cyanide
A. physically addicting B. arsenic & mercury
B. depressants to the central nervous C. acetaminophen & ibuprophen

system D. all of these are chemicals
4.2 Forensic pathology

1. A woman was in a fatal car crash. Her C. puncture
spleen burst and she bled to death. What D. laceration
was the cause of death?
4. How are entomology and forensic entomol-
A. car crash
ogy different?
B. she bled out
A. Entomology studies insects while
C. accidental forensic entomology studies insects in ap-
D. natural plication to civil and criminal legal cases.
B. Entomology studies insects in applica-
2. The pooling of the blood in tissues after tion to civil and criminal legal cases while
death resulting in a reddish color to the forensic entomology studies insects.
skin.
C. Trick! They are both the same.
A. Liver Mortis
D. This is not the answer.
B. Algor Mortis
5. A medical condition that occurs after death
C. Instar
and results in the settling of blood in areas
D. none of above of the body closest to the ground.
3. Which term below is not an example of an A. sectum sempra
open wound? B. rigor mortis
A. bruise C. livor mortis
B. abrasion D. algor mortis

6. Which of the following best describes an 11. The stiffening of the skeletal muscles after
accidental death? death
A. Death that was purposely caused by A. Rigor Mortis
the individual B. Algor Mortis
B. Death that was not purposely caused C. Liver Mortis
by the individual or another person
D. none of above
C. Death that was purposely caused by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
another person 12. Case 2:Police Report:The body of a large
pit bull terrier was found inside a walk-
D. Death resulting from natural reasons
in basement at a home in Cary. Mag-
7. What does “Mortis” mean in Latin? gots were found concentrated in the head
and region behind the shoulder. The win-
A. Blood
dows were closed, although the open cur-
B. Alive tains allowed sunlight to enter, and the
C. Crime air conditioner was set at 72◦ F. Weather
Report:Daytime temperatures have been
D. Death variable over the past three weeks, rang-
ing from 75 to 94◦ F. Skies have been
8. Which of the following would NOT require
sunny. What effect did the outside tem-
an autopsy?
perature have on the development of the
A. Decedent found floating in a river larva?
B. Death in a hospital with an attending A. It is hot outside so it sped it up.
physician able to render a cause of death
B. It is hot outside so it slowed it down.
as a heart attack
C. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside
C. Death by suspected suicide
and the AC is on so it had no effect.
D. Decedent found deceased in their D. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside
home and the AC is on so it sped it up.
9. feeding on carrion; from the greek word 13. One of five means by which someone dies.
phagos, to each, and necro, meaning dead
A. Mechanism of death
A. entomology
B. Cause of death
B. necrophagous
C. Manner of death
C. carrion
D. none of above
D. none of above
14. Which of the following best describes rigor
10. Many different insects will be present on mortis?
dead bodies. Which one to entomologists
A. It is the pooling of blood after deaath
usually use?
B. It is the stiffening of muscles after
A. blow flies
death
B. house flies C. It is the cooling of the body after death
C. flesh flies
D. skipper flies D. none of above

15. How long does it take for rigor mortis to 20. A victim was running away from her cap-
begin postmortem? tor before she was killed. How does this
affect the rate of rigor mortis?

A. 2-4 hours
B. 2-6 hours A. increases
C. 12 hours B. decreases
D. 48 hours C. does not affect

D. none of above
16. Abrasion Mark
A. A mark produced when a surface 21. In a homicide where the criminal sliced the
slides accros another surface victim’s throat, the mechanism of death is
most likely
B. A mark produced along the edge has a
surface is cut A. exsanguination
C. A mark or impression made by a tool B. pulmonary arrest

on a softer surface C. cerebral hypoxia
D. Any impression or scratch or abrasion D. sepsis
made when contact occurs between tool
and another object 22. Rigor mortis peaks at about hours af-
ter death
17. Who collects insects from decaying bodies A. 2
to determine the time of death?
B. 6
A. Forensic Anthropologist
C. 8
B. Forensic Entomologist
D. 12
C. Medical Examiner
D. none of above 23. The specific change in the body that
brought about the body’s inner workings
18. The stage where soft tissues rapidly dis- to stop is called the:(the medical reason
appear due to autolysis, bacterial, insect for death)
and other animal activity is called? A. manner of death
A. Fresh Body Stage B. cause of death
B. Bloat Stage C. mechanism of death
C. Putrefaction D. type of death
D. Putrid Dry Remains
24. A process that occurs after death in which
19. If an unknown body is found in a secreted the body temperature continually cools un-
alleyway, what kind of autopsy would be til it reaches the ambient or room temper-
performed? ature.
A. Clinical A. avada kedavra
B. Forensic B. rigor mortis
C. Examination C. livor mortis
D. None of the above D. algor mortis

25. Oviposition is make ATP (energy). Which of the follow-

A. the laying of eggs. ing rulings by a coroner is best described
by this statement?
B. the depositing of dead bodies.
A. Cause of death
C. the area where bugs can be found.
B. Manner of death
D. position of a dead body.
C. Mechanism of death
26. The body at a crime scene has begun to D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lose rigor mortis. About how long has the
victim been dead? 31. Entomology is:
A. 2-6 hours A. The study of arthropods
B. 12 hours B. The study of the skin
C. 15-36 hours C. The study of arachnids
D. 46-48 hours D. The study of insects
27. The length of time that has elapsed since 32. Explain the difference between a cut and
a person has died; If the time is not a scrape wound.
known, a number of medical or scientific
techniques may be used to estimate it. A. A cut is shallow, whereas a scrape is
deep.
A. elysium intervallum
B. An cut has irregular edges and an abra-
B. altomorphic interval sion is a straight, even wound.
C. diadelos muertos
C. A cut, or laceration, is a straight, even
D. postmortem interval wound made with a sharp object like a
knife or razor blade. A scrape, or abra-
28. Which of the following would SPEED UP sion, is caused by sliding impact between
algor mortis? the skin and a rough surface.
A. Warm temperatures D. A scrape bleeds a lot, whereas a cut
B. Body in the water bleeds very little.
C. Body wrapped in a blanket 33. The cooling of the body after death.
D. Body with extra body fat A. Autolysis
29. Forensic pathology refers to B. Algor Mortis
A. relying on dental records C. Liver Mortis
B. using psychiatry and psychology in in- D. none of above
vestigations
34. the carcass of a dead and decaying animal
C. working with skeletal remains
A. carrion
D. determining the cause and manner of
death B. entomology
C. arthropods
30. A person’s mitochondria stopped working,
causing the person to no longer be able to D. none of above

35. A surgical procedure performed by a B. Maggot

pathologist on a dead body to ascertain- C. Grub
from the body, organs, and bodily fluids-

the cause of death. D. Larva
A. external examination 41. What is livor mortis essentially?
B. autopsy A. death color
C. postmortem interval B. death stiffness
D. anatomical analysis C. death temperature
36. The best indication that a body has been D. none of above
moved is: 42. A medical condition that occurs after death
A. livor mortis and results in the stiffening of muscle
B. exsanguination mass; The rigidity of the body begins
within 24 hours of death and disappears
C. algor mortis within 36 hours of death.
D. cannot be determined A. rigor mortis
37. Pinpoint hemorrhaging often observed in B. petechial hemorrhae
the white area of the victim’s eyes; often C. livor mortis
observed in strangulation cases
D. vascular hemorraghae
A. oculus reparae
B. enucleation 43. The cessation, or end, of life.
C. petechiae A. Death
D. strangulatio B. Cause of death
C. Manner of death
38. What is the body development in four
stages called? D. none of above
A. Insect Succession 44. the classification of things in an orderly
B. Complete Metamorphosis way that indicates natural relationships
C. Accumulated Degree Hours A. dichotomous
D. Oviposition B. taxonomy
C. arthropods
39. Which organs are not weighed during an
autopsy? D. none of above
A. Stomach and kidneys 45. Case 1:Police Report:The body of a fe-
B. Intestines and stomach male deer was found behind a fence along
a busy two-lane road on the edge of
C. Kidneys and liver the city limits of Charlotte. Animal Con-
D. Liver and heart trol was called and reported no apparent
wounds on the body. It was not hunting
40. What is the wormlike stage of insect de- season.Weather Report:Daytime tempera-
velopment after the egg? tures have been fairly consistent for the
A. Pupa past three weeks, ranging from 70 to 74◦

F.There were 2 house fly larvae that mea- D. Putrid Dry Remains
sure 29 & 20 mm, 2 blow fly larvae at 29
& 25 mm, 1 flesh fly larvae that was 29 48. What are wormlike beetle larva called?
mm a skipper fly larvae that was 9 mm A. Grub
and 1 flesh fly pupae that measured 39
B. Larva
mm.Why are there larvae of different ages
for the same type of fly found on the body C. Pupa
of the deer? D. Maggot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. They measured wrong
49. What is the definition of Pathology?
B. The different flies come to the deer at
different times. A. The branch of medicine concerned
with diseases.
C. Adult flies of the same species came
to the deer at different times B. The scientific study of the nature, ori-
gin, process, and cause of disease.
D. none of above
C. The branch of medicine which deals
46. What is the next step after the body is with the incidence, distribution, and pos-
opened by the Y-incision? sible control of diseases.
A. The ribs are sawn off to expose the in- D. The study of life.
ternal organs. Sternal plate or anterior
chest wall is cut away to expose the or- 50. The specific body failure that leads to
gans underneath. death.
B. The sternum is sawn off to expose the A. Manner of death

internal organs. Sternal plate or posterior B. Mechanism of death
chest wall is cut away to expose the or-
C. Cause of death
gans underneath.
D. none of above
C. The ribs are sawn off to expose the in-
ternal organs. Scapular plate or posterior 51. What is the reason for autopsy?
chest wall is cut away to expose the or-
A. Candy
gans underneath.
B. Old age
D. The ribs are broken to expose the in-
ternal organs. Scapular plate or anterior C. Unnatural cause
chest wall is cut away to expose the or- D. Declined by family
gans underneath.
E. The sternum is sawn off to expose the 52. The examination table of a pathologist is
internal organs. Pelvic plate or lateral very specialized. What special feature
chest wall is cut away to expose the or- does an autopsy table have that assists
gans underneath. the examiner during the process?
A. The table is translucent with upward
47. The stage where gasses released by bac- lighting from underneath.
teria causes the body to swell is called?
B. It is a metal table that is heated to pre-
A. Fresh Body Stage serve the body during examination.
B. Bloat Stage C. Electrical outlets on the side for the
C. Putrefaction bone saw and other mechanicals.

D. Running water with a slanted tray for 58. What is insect succession?
drainage and raised edges to keep blood A. The sequence in which an egg be-
and fluids from flowing over.

comes an adult fly.
53. one of four means by which someone dies B. A sequence of changing species that in-
habit a decomposing body.
A. death
C. The depositing of eggs.
B. manner of death
D. When the alpha fly is overthrown by his
C. cause of death
son.
D. mechanism of death
59. The four types of information one needs
54. concerning the surrounding area or envi- to know when using maggot evidence are
ronment
A. malt A. Genus of insect, oldest stage of
B. instar blowfly, temperature data, and develop-
ment data
C. ambient
B. Species of insect, oldest stage of
D. none of above blowfly, temperature data and develop-
ment data
55. What is the first step of the external ex-
amination of the body in an autopsy? C. Genus of insect, youngest stage of
blowfly, temperature data and develop-
A. A broad overview of the condition of
ment data
the body and clothing.
D. Species of insect, youngest stage of
B. A very specific viewing and analysis of blowfly, temperature data and develop-
the wounds. ment data
C. A complete body washing and physical
preparation. 60. Why are red blood cells not used to iden-
tify DNA?
D. Open up the body with a Y-incision
A. They can’t be separated and tested
56. The nonfeeding stage of develpment for an B. Red blood cells die quickly and cannot
insect is what? be used
A. Crop C. They do not contain a nucleus
B. Pupa D. They contain RNA
C. Larva
61. the typically body temp drops approx
D. Instar each hour after death
57. the shedding of an insects outer skeleton A. 1.5 F or .78 C
during a growth stage B. 2.5 F or .78 C
A. metamorphosis C. 1.8 F or .75 C
B. malt D. none of above
C. instar 62. The stage where skin and soft tissues are
D. none of above no longer present is called?

4.3 Medical Jurisprudence 852
A. Fresh Body Stage B. carrion

B. Bloat Stage C. entomology
C. Putrefaction D. none of above
D. Putrid Dry Remains
65. What is ADH?
63. The Agonal Period means
A. The number of hours a dead body has
A. Before Death
been outside.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Moment of Death
B. The number of hours it takes for an in-
C. After Death sect species to become an adult.
D. Period of time between death and
C. The number of hours a body has been
when the body is found.
dead.
64. the time elapsed since a person has died D. The number of hours it takes for an in-
A. postmortem interval (PMI) sect species to develop to a given stage.
4.3 Medical Jurisprudence

1. According to RA 5921, who shall be the 4. Upon finding that the drugs examined are
Executive Officer of the Board? counterfeit, the Bureau shall file an appro-
priate proceeding against the registered
A. President of the Philippines
pharmacist with the PRC for the of pro-
B. BFAD Administrator fessional license.
C. PRC Commissioner A. revocation
D. Civil Service Commissioner B. suspension
E. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceu- C. cancellation
tical Education
D. none of above
2. Based on the PNDF, the following are act-
ing on the CNS except: 5. PDEA stands for:
A. Anti-gout A. Philippine Drug Empowerment Agency
B. Anti-schistosoma B. Philippine Drug Enforcement Affilia-

tion
C. Anti-parkinsonism
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. Anti-vertigo
D. Philippine Drug Establishment Agency
3. Example/s of Cosmetic Specialty Qualified
for Listing without Pre-Market Approval: 6. The Board of Pharmacy is vested with the
authority to:
A. Lipsticks
A. examine applicants for the practice of
B. After shave lotion pharmacy
C. Perfumes
B. issue certificates of registration of
D. AOTA pharmacists

C. study the conditions affecting the prac- 12. In accordance to AO 56, s. 1989, the ini-
tice of pharmacy in the Philippines tial LTO has a validity of years:

D. AOTA A. 5
B. 3
7. Government office where professionals
register & where license is issued: C. 2
A. PRC D. 1
B. BFAD 13. If the seized drug was found to counter-

feit, the business establishment must be
C. PPhA
directed for preventive closure for a period
D. DDB of:
A. 15 days
8. An act providing for cheaper and quality
medicines, amending for the purpose RA B. 30 days
8293, RA 6675, and RA 5921, and for C. 60 days
other purposes:
D. 20 days
A. RA 9165
14. As defined in RA 8203, this refers to any
B. RA 9257 entity, whether a single proprietorship,
C. RA 9502 partnership, or corporation engaged in or
doing business in the Philippines:
D. RA 8485
A. residency
9. Under RA 6675, which of these prescrip- B. business establishment
tions shall be filled:
C. brokering
A. Violative Rx
D. ownership
B. Erroneous Rx
15. When must a dentist notify the board of an
C. Impossible Rx
incident that results in a serious or unusual
D. none of above outcome following the administration of ni-
trous oxide inhalation analgesia
10. RA 5921 was signed into law on:
A. At the end of each calendar year
A. June 23, 1969
B. January 1 and July 1 of each year
B. June 23, 1963 C. No later than 30 days after the incident
C. June 22, 1969 D. Within 10 days of the incident
D. June 22, 1963
16. Counterfeit drug refer to the mdicinal prod-
11. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act ucts.
of 2002” is also known as A. recognized in USP/NF
A. RA 9165 B. article intended for use in diagnosis,
cure, mitigation and treatment of disease.
B. RA 6675
C. without active ingredient results in the
C. RA 9257 reduction of drugs safety, efficacy, quality
D. RA 7394 or strength

D. none of above 21. The book kept for the purpose of record-
ing the sale of poisons shall be open at all
17. This means a quantity of any drug device times for inspection and shall be preserved
produced during a given cycle of manufac- for a period of at least years after the
ture. last entry.
A. Batch number A. 1
B. Lot number B. 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Batch C. 5
D. Control number D. 7
E. 2
18. To be appointed member of the Board of
Pharmacy, a person shall be a duly regis- 22. How long does the Minnesota board of
tered pharmacist and has been in the prac- dentistry have to resolve a complaint
tice of Pharmacy for at least years.
A. 60 days
A. 5
B. 3 months
B. 8 C. 6 months
C. 10 D. 1 year
D. 12
23. It refers to any establishments that im-
E. 7 ports raw material, active ingredients and
finished products for its own use or for its
19. Dentist dental hygienist and licensed den- own use or for distribution to other drug
tal assistant must inform the board of den- establishment or outlets:
tistry in writing of name and or address
change within A. Exporter
A. 30 days B. Importer
C. Wholesaler
B. 60 days
D. Retailer
C. 90 days
D. at time of license or registration re- 24. What are the pillars of the National Drug
newal policy? I. Quality Assurance of DrugII.
Quality ControlIII. Rational Use of DrugIV.
20. Any substance or mixture of substances National Self-sufficiency in Pharmaceuti-
which is toxic, corrosive, irritant, is a cals
strong sensitizer, is flammable or gener- A. 1 & 2
ates pressure through decomposition heat
or other means: B. 1, 2 & 3
A. counterfeit substance C. 1, 3 & 4

D. 1, 2 & 4
B. hazardous substance
C. poisonous substance 25. It refers to the prevailing specified range
of temperature, humidity, and other envi-
D. radioactive substance ronment factors within optimal stability of
E. adulterated substance the product:

A. Storage conditions 30. An auxiliary licensed in Minnesota can etch

B. Temperature range enamel surfaces prior to

C. Stability A. Application of pit and fissure sealants
D. Expiry date B. Bonding of orthodontic appliances
26. The manufacturer, importation, exporta- C. Placement of restorative materials

tion, sale, offering for sale, distribution or D. A and B
transfer of any food, drug, device, or cos-
metic that is adulterated or misbranded is E. A B and C
a prohibited act under:
31. RA 5921 is more commonly known as
A. RA 3720
A. Senior Citizen’s Act
B. RA 5921
B. Pharmacy Law
C. RA 8203
D. RA 9165 C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
E. RA 7432 D. Special Law on Counterfeit Drug
27. If a dental technician or a laboratory ad- 32. Cannabis is also known as:
vertises its services to the general public
the board of dentistry cannot discipline a A. shabu
practicing dentist for B. marijuana
A. Employing the dental technician C. indian hemp
B. Owning the laboratory D. ecstasy
C. Practicing on the laboratories
premises 33. Opium is an example of a/an drug.
D. Using the services of the laboratory A. prohibited drug
28. A dental assistant licensed in the state of B. regulated drug
Minnesota may apply all the following ex- C. exempt dangerous drug
cept
A. Cavity varnish
B. fluoride solution or gel 34. An act to ensure the safety & purity of
C. root canal irrigating solution foods & cosmetics, and the purity, safety,
efficacy, and quality of drugs and devices
D. Topical anesthetic
being made available to the publie, vest-
29. The division in BFAD that certifies batches ing the BFAD with authority to administer
of antibiotics: & enforce the laws pertaining thereto, &
for other purposes:
A. Product services
B. Laboratory services A. RA 3720
C. Legal, Information and Compliance B. RA 6675

D. Inspection services C. RA 9165
E. Administrative D. RA 9502

35. Of the following who may expose radio- 39. The Council of Pharmaceutical Education
graphs for dental diagnostic purposes if au- was created for the implementation of RA
thorized to do so by the dentist licensed in 5921. This council is composed of:
Minnesota A. Secretary of Education
A. CDA B. BFAD administrator
B. Dental hygienist C. Chairman of Board of Pharmacy
C. receptionist D. AOTA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. both A and B
40. Administrative sanctions for any violators
36. An act to promote, require, and ensure of special law on counterfeit drugs:
the production of an adequate supply, dis- A. fine NLT 100, 000 pesos and NMT 500,
tribution, use, and acceptance of drugs 000 pesos
and medicines identified by their generic
B. permanent closure of establishment
names:
and revocation of its license to do busi-
A. RA 3720 ness
B. RA 6675 C. forfeiture, confiscation and destruc-
C. RA 9165 tion of products found to be counterfeit
D. RA 9502 D. AOTA
37. Which of the following functions can be 41. Which of the following is/are allowed by
performed by a dental assistant licensed a Minnesota rule to take bite registration
in Minnesota when a dentist is not in the for the final construction of a bridge
office A. dentist
A. Apply topical medication B. dental hygienist
B. Polishing clinical crowns C. dental technician
C. Taking impressions D. LDA
D. Taking radiographs E. A B and D
E. C and D only 42. Which of the following statement indicates
that product is a prescription drug?
38. As defined in RA 5921, he is the one
who represents any duly authorized man- A. RX symbol
ufacturer, dealer, distributor, representa- B. For external use
tive or wholesaler of drugs, pharmaceuti-
C. A vignette of skull and bones
cal and biologic products whose primary
duty is to introduce the product made by D. “shake well”
the manufacturer.
43. ‘’The Expanded Senior Citizens Act” is
A. broker also known as
B. detailman A. RA 9265
C. retailer B. RA 9165
D. wholesaler C. RA 9275
E. owner D. RA 9257

44. Which of the following would be in viola- time for a product intended for the ster-
tion of a board rule and will be subject to ilization of instruments
disciplinary actions

A. Billing third-party payers for services
rendered 48. In the state of Minnesota dental hygienist
may perform all the following duties ex-
B. Accepting remuneration for referrals
cept
made to specialist
A. Administer a pharmacological agent
C. Dividing the profits of partnership or
for the purpose of conscious sedation
professional corporation
B. Perform dietary analysis
C. Polish restorations
45. The Board of Pharmacy, upon receipt of
D. Remove excess bonding material from
a formal complaint under oath against a
brackets
pharmacist, shall furnish the latter a copy
of the complaint which he shall answer 49. All of the following acts are considered
within days from receipt. grounds for discipline of a licensee by the
A. 15 board except
B. 10 A. Aiding an attempted suicide
C. 5 B. Knowingly providing false information
D. 30 to a third-party
E. 60 C. Releasing dental records to a dental in-

surer more than one year after the patient
46. An act instituting the Comprehensive Dan- has given written consent
gerous Drugs Act of 2002, repealing RA D. Sexual harassment of patients
6425, as amended, providing funds there-
fore, and for other purposes: 50. Employers must provide
A. RA 3720 A. Written policies for monitoring the ad-
B. RA 6675 herence to recommend protective mea-
sures
C. RA 9165
B. Counseling education and or retaining
D. RA 9502
if monitoring reveals failure to follow rec-
47. Chemical sterilization of instruments can ommended precautions but can take no
be accomplished by disciplinary action
A. Immersing the heat sensitive instru- C. Both of them
ments in the hot water containing deter- D. Neither of them
gent or soap
B. Rinsing instruments in sterile water 51. Drugs, as defined in RA 8203, refer to:
free of microorganisms and then drying A. any article recognized in the official
and placing instruments in sterile contain- USP/NF
ers B. any article intended for use in the diag-
C. Following the manufactures directions nosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or pre-
regarding concentration and exposure vention of disease in manor animals

C. herbal and/ or in traditional drugs D. Either B or C

which are articles of plant or animal ori-
gin used in folk medicine 56. Which of the following can perform a pro-
phylaxis in Minnesota
D. AOTA
A. Licensed dental assistant
52. For how many years shall the chairman B. CDA
and members of the Board of Pharmacy
hold office after appointment? C. Dental hygienist
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 3 D. A and C
B. 5 E. A B and C
C. 6 57. Which of the following is/are example of
D. 2 regulated drug?
E. 4 A. morphine
53. Laboratory controls are required for: B. opium
A. Finished products C. secobarbital
B. Components D. heroin
C. In-process drug 58. RA 3720 is also known as:
D. All of the above A. Pharmacy Law
54. It refers to a state of psychic or physi- B. Consumer Act of the Philippines
cal dependence, or both on any dangerous C. Food, Drugs and Cosmetics and De-
drug, arising in a person following admin- vices Act
istration or use of that drug on a periodic
D. Senior Citizens Act
or continuous basis
A. druggist 59. Which of the following actions would be
considered conduct unbecoming a licensee
B. drug dependence
A. Charging a fee for costs incurred in
C. pusher
transferring dental records to another
D. coddler provider at the patient request
55. A licensee may administer nitrous oxide in- B. Failing to comply with the request by
halation analgesia in Minnesota if the li- the board to furnish the board with desig-
censee nated documents
A. It has been licensed by another state C. Sharing a profits and dental pro-
that has requirements for administration fessional corporation registered for the
of the agent by licensee board
B. Successfully completed a 12 hour con- D. All of the above
tinued education course presented by an
institution accredited by the commission 60. It refers to a licensed establishment carry-
of accreditation ing on the retail business of sale of drugs
and medicines to customers:
C. Was administering the agent and reg-
istered that fact with the board prior to A. Exporter
July 27, 1992 B. Importer

C. Wholesaler forth in the compendium, then the drug is

D. Retailer deemed to be:

A. mislabeled
61. RA 5921 provides for and shall govern:
B. counterfeit
A. standardization and regulation of phar-
C. under quality
maceutical education
D. ineffective
B. examination and registration of gradu-
ates of schools of pharmacy E. adulterated
C. supervision, control and regulation of 66. Waste disposal should be handled by
the practice of pharmacy in Philippines A. Placing disposal needles scalpels or
D. AOTA other sharp items in a sealed sturdy bag
B. following EPA regulations
62. This is the S-license for physicians, dentist,
or veterinarian, who prescribes dangerous C. Placing solid waste materials contami-
drugs nated with bodily fluids and sturdy sealed
impervious bags
A. S-1
D. all of the above
B. S-2
C. S-3 67. a dentist must access a patients respi-
ratory function by the monitoring of tis-
D. S-4 sue oxygenation or by use of a superior
method when administering a pharmaco-
63. Under RA 5921, administrative investiga-
logical agent for the purpose of
tion shall be conducted by all members of
the Board of Pharmacy. In case of suspen- A. conscious sedation
sion, it shall be for a period of not more B. anxiolysis
than:
C. analgesia
A. 60 days D. none of the above
B. 30 days
68. In Minnesota both licensed dental hygien-
C. 6 months ist and licensed dental assistant may per-
D. 3 months form the following function
A. Apply pit in fissure sealant
64. Who shall accredit and monitor drug test-
ing laboratories to safeguard the quality B. Remove marginal overhang
of results? C. Provide nutritional counseling
A. DOH D. Polish amalgam restoration
B. DOJ E. Both A and B
C. BFAD 69. RA 6675 is more commonly known as
D. PDEA A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
E. NBI B. Pharmacy Law
65. Under RA 3720, if a drug’s strength dif- C. Food, Drug and Device and Cosmetic
fers from or its safety, efficacy, quality Act
or purity falls below the standards set D. Generics Act of 1988

70. Filling and refilling of prescription shall be 75. Every prescription for external use filled in
done by: the drugstore shall bear a red label show-
A. registered pharmacist ing in black ink the components for such
prescription and the word at the bot-
B. intern with the supervision of a regis- tom label:
tered pharmacist
A. “Warning:May be habit-forming”
C. nurse
B. “For External Use Only”
D. pharmacy aide
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. “For Internal Use Only”
71. Cooperation with the board its agents or D. “Flammable”
those working on behalf of the board is
required by which of the following 76. Prescription for dangerous drug are writ-
A. Applicant ten in:
B. Licensee A. duplicate
C. License dental assistant B. triplicate
D. B and C only C. one copy
E. A B and C D. four copies
72. This means a method of secret writing that 77. Te minimum number of required hours of
substitutes other or characters for the let- continued education is?
ter intended, or transposes the letter after A. Dentists 90 hours; hygienists 50 hours;
arranging them in blocks or squares. license dental assistants 30 hours
A. code B. dentists, hygienists, and licensed den-
B. cipher tal assistants 50 hours
C. secret keys C. dentists 50 hours, hygienists and li-
censed dental assistants 25 hours
D. substitution
73. RA 8203 was signed into law on:
78. It is any drug, active principle or prepara-
A. Sept. 4, 1996
tion of the same, capable of destroying life
B. Oct. 4, 1996 or seriously endangering health when ap-
C. Sept. 13, 1986 plied externally to the body or introduced
internally in moderate doses.
D. Sept. 4, 1992
A. Adulterated drug
E. Sept. 13, 1988
B. Misbranded drug
74. Equipment used for manufacturing, pro-
C. Counterfeit drug
cessing, packing, labeling, testing and con-
trol of drugs must be: D. Poison
A. Of suitable size 79. Requirement/s for registration of “Me-
B. Absorptive Too” or identical products includes:
C. Impalpability A. Toxicology data
D. none of above B. Pharmaceutical form of the drug

C. Clinical evaluation data 84. Under AO 56, s. 1989, the renewal of the
D. Mutagenicity LTO has a validity of years:

A. 5
80. This division shall take charge of the in-
B. 3
spection of food, drug and cosmetic estab-
lishment engaged in their manufacture and C. 2
sale. D. 1
A. Licensing Division
85. According to RA 5921, the qualifications
B. Inspection Division of members of the Board of Pharmacy in-
C. Inspection and Licensing Division clude:
D. Laboratory Division A. natural born citizen in Philippines

B. of good moral character and of recog-
81. An act regulating the practice of pharmacy nized standing in the pharmaceutical pro-
and setting standards of pharmaceutical fession
education in the Philippines and for other
C. a member of good standing of any
purposes:
bona fide national pharmaceutical associ-
A. RA 3720 ation of the Philippines
B. RA 5921 D. AOTA
C. RA 9165 86. Licensee can be disciplined by the board
D. RA 9502 if they do not submit to a medical exam-
ination as directed by the board when the
82. Which of the following functions can be board has probable cost to believe that the
performed by a dental assistant licensed licensee has engage in the following be-
in Minnesota when a hygienist is present haviors
in the office but her dentist is not
A. gross immorality
A. applying fluoride
B. Habitual overindulgence in the use of
B. polishing clinical crowns intoxicating liquors
C. removing periodontal dressing C. Refusal to provide written consent to
D. taking radiographs submit to the examination
D. Unauthorized administration of a con-
E. Both A and D
trolled substance to a patient
83. Which of the following is true concerning E. All of the above
the removal of marginal overhangs by a
dental hygienist licensed in Minnesota? A 87. A certified true copy of the record of dan-
dental hygienist may perform these func- gerous drugs must be submitted to:
tions under what supervision: A. PDEA
A. Direct B. BFAD
B. General C. DDB
C. Indirect D. DOH
D. No circumstances E. PRC

88. when cleaning instruments: 93. This is a simpler term for the scientifically
A. splash shield should be worn recognized active ingredient of a drug.
B. heavy duty gloves should be worn A. generic name
C. soap and water scrubbing is recom- B. brand name
mended over using ultrasonic cleaners C. chemical name
D. A and B only D. street name
E. A B and C
NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. a dentist can administer a pharmacological
89. Who shall appoint the chairman and the agent for the purpose of an analgesia if
members of the Board of Pharmacy? the dentist has
A. BFAD director A. a current license to practice dentistry
B. BFAD administrator in the state of Minnesota
C. President of the Philippines B. registration with the board prior to

July 27th 1992
D. Sec. of Department of Education
C. satisfactorily completed a course re-
E. Commissioner of Civil Service sulting in clinical competency
90. Under RA 3720, if the food is an imitation D. taken a course in advanced cardiac life
of other food, then the food is deemed to support
be:
95. The records for the sale of poisons must
A. fake
be kept for a period of
B. misbranded
A. 5 years
C. misleading
B. 1 year
D. adulterated
C. 3 years
E. counterfeit
D. 2 years
91. Falsifying records related to payment for
services rendered would be considered 96. The following shall be grounds for immedi-
ate suspension or revocation of a license
A. Unprofessional conduct
A. Accepting rebates of split fees
B. Proper in some situations
B. Charging an unconscionable fee
C. A violation of permissible duties
C. Failing to provide patient access to or
D. Improper grounds for disciplinary ac-
transfer of records on request
tion by the board of dentistry
D. Upon determination of habitual indul-
92. according to the board of dentistry rules gence in alcohol or controlled substances
of continued education how many credit
hours of elective activities are need for 97. What is the color of the label for prescrip-
registration every cycle tions used externally?
A. 0 A. white
B. 1 B. red
C. 3 C. green
D. 10 D. blue

98. All of the following functions can be per- B. license

formed by a dental hygienist licensed in C. Either A or B
Minnesota and the dentist is not in the of-

fice except D. Neither
A. Applying pit and fissure sealant 103. In Minnesota a licensed dental assistant
B. Placing elastic orthodontics separa- is not allowed to
tors A. Apply cavities varnishes
C. Polishing restorations B. Place pit and fissure sealants
D. Removing excess bond material from
C. remove supra-gingival calculus
orthodontic appliances
D. take panoramic x-rays
E. None all can be performed when a den-
tist is not in the office 104. The parties liable in RA 8203 include:
99. Prior to the discharge of a patient who has A. the pharmacist
received nitrous oxide which of the follow- B. inspector
ing persons which have proper training for
an accredited program can assure that the C. manufacturer
effects of the medication have dissipated D. customer
and monitoring is no longer necessary
A. Licensed dental assistant 105. This is a policy and program of the Na-
tional government to ensure that the safe
B. dentist and effective drugs are made available to
C. Dental hygienist all Filipinos at any time and place and at
D. All of the above reasonable and affordable cost.
A. National Drug Policy
100. Which of the following is not currently
recognized as a specialty area of dentistry B. National Formulary
A. Endodontics C. Dangerous Drugs Board Policy
B. Implantology D. none of above
C. Prosthodontics 106. If found guilty and neglect duty, incom-
D. Oral and maxifocal surgery petence, malpractice, unprofessional or
dishonorable conduct, after having been
101. Methylenedioxymethampethamine ( given the opportunity to defined himself in
MDMA ) is: an administrative investigation, the Chair-
A. shabu man or Members of the Board may be re-
B. marijuana moved by:
C. ecstasy A. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceu-
tical Education
D. opium poppy
B. BFAD administrator
102. In Minnesota which of the following cre-
C. PRC Commissioner
dentials allows a dental assistant to place
a rubber town D. Civil Service Commissioner
A. certification E. President of the Philippines

107. Indian hemp is also known asI. bhangII. C. Philippine Regulatory Commission
churrusIII. hashishIV. she-bang D. Professional Regulation Commission
A. I only
113. Which of the following advertising prac-
B. I & II tices would be violation tell of the rule that
C. I, II & III prohibits the use of any form of public com-
munication containing false fraudulent mis-
D. I-IV
leading or deceptive statements or claims
NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. INN means: A. The general practitioner advertising
A. International Non-Proprietary Name that orthodontic services are provided
without a statement that those services
B. International Proprietary Name
will be provided by a general dentist
C. International Non-Proprietary
B. A mailing to new residence of a com-
D. International Name munity which includes information on the
dentist educational background
109. How long do lab prescriptions need to be
kept C. The offering of a coupon for cleaning
at a discounted fee with a statement in a
A. 5 years smaller type size but there’s an additional
B. 3 years fee for an examination and x-rays
C. 2 years D. A and C
D. 7 years 114. An ordinary prescription shall be pre-
110. This refers to the prohibited and regu- served for a period of
lated drugs A. 5 years
A. List A B. 1 year
B. List B C. 3 years
C. Rx D. 2 years
D. OTC 115. which of the following is not acceptable
for continued education credit
111. The Board of Pharmacy was created for
the implementation of RA 5921. This A. performance of community volunteer
Board is composed of a chairman and work
members. B. attendance at a district dental society
A. 2 education program
B. 4 C. attendance at the American dental as-
sociation convention
C. 5
D. all of the above are acceptable
D. 6
E. 3 116. This means characteristic styles or sym-
bols kept from the knowledge of others or
112. PRC means: disclosed confidentially to only one or few.
A. Philippine Regulation Commission A. Code
B. Professional Regulatory Commission B. Cipher

C. Secret keys 121. This refers to any facility used for the ille-
D. Substitution gal manufacture of any dangerous drug/or
controlled precursors and essential chemi-

117. If a dental hygienist performs a dental cal.
service not authorized by the board of den- A. classrooms
tistry the board may take disciplinary ac-
tion against the B. clandestine laboratory
A. Employing dentist only C. licensed establishment
B. Dental hygienist only D. all of the above
C. Dentist and dental hygienist 122. A complete pharmacy internship are
D. None of the above based on RA 5921 article III section 18c
shall consist of at least:
118. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
of 2002 is: A. 480 hours
A. RA 6425 B. 960 hours
B. RA 5921 C. 160 hours

C. RA 9465 D. 980 hours
D. RA 6675 123. This means a system of words or others
E. RA 9165 system arbitrarily used to present words.
A. Code
119. Biological monitoring for the proper func-
tioning of sterilization cycle should be done B. Cipher
A. weekly C. Secret keys
B. every 2 weeks D. Substitution
C. monthly 124. Every prescription for external use filled
D. quarterly in the drugstore shall bear what label?
120. Which of the following should be done or A. red label
use in the treatment rooms B. white label
A. Phenolics iodophors and chlorine con- C. red label showing in blank ink the com-
taining compounds are appropriate as in- ponents and the word “For external use
termediate level disinfectants only”
B. Barrier covering should be removed D. white label showing in red ink the word
and discarded after each patient well “For external use only”
DHCW’s are still gloved
C. Once a day countertops and dental 125. means any substance which will
unit services that may have been con- cause on normal living tissue, allergy or
taminated with patient material should be photodynamic quality of hypersensitivity
cleaned with disposable towels using an which becomes evident on reapplication of
appropriate cleaning agent and water as the substance.
necessary A. strong sensitizer
D. A and B B. irritant

C. toxic 130. shall be the policy-making and

D. radioactive strategy-formulating body in the planning
and formulation of policies and programs
126. How many days do you have to submit on drug prevention and control
your portfolio to the board of dentistry A. BOP
once you have been notified that you are
B. DDB
being audited
C. PDEA
A. one week
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. BFAD
B. 10 days
E. NBI
C. 3 weeks
131. Which of the following is a practice of
D. 60 days
Pharmacy? I. teaching pharmacy sub-
127. Ointments, creams, and other semi-solid jectsII. analyzing drugIII. conducting re-
preparations are tested for: searchIV. manager of a chain drugstore
A. 3 only
A. Melting point
B. 1 & 2 only
B. Homogeneity
C. 1, 2 & 3 only
C. Impalpability
D. AOTA
D. All of the above
132. Which of the following would be consid-
128. Which of the following is not a correct ered unprofessional conduct
surgical procedure
A. Providing in adequate safety and sani-
A. Sterile gloves should be used for sur- tary conditions
gical procedures B. Leaving a group practice an opening at
B. Sterile saline or sterile water should practice in the same neighborhood
be use as a coolant or an irrigator when C. Giving a monetary reward to another
surgical procedures involve the cutting a practice for patient referrals
bone are performed
D. A and C
C. A chemical germicide having at least
E. A B and C
an intermediate level of activity should be
used to wipe all instruments before using 133. Which of the following functions must a
them dental hygienist licensed in Minnesota per-
D. Biopsy specimen should be put in a form under direct supervision
sturdy container with a secure lid to pre- A. Remove bond materials with rotary in-
vent leaking during transport struments after removal of an orthodontic
appliance
129. Heavy metals to be tested in the herbal
and/or traditional drugs except: B. place ligature tires on orthodontic ap-
pliances
A. Hg
C. fabrication or adjustment to tempo-
B. Pb rary crowns
C. As D. apply pit and fissure sealants
D. Cu E. A and D

4.4 Forensic Sciences 867
134. A certain drug is considered counterfeit C. EO 951

if it contains less than how many percent
D. EO 147
of the active ingredient it purports to pos-

sess? E. EO 150
A. 80
136. Minnesota rules require records including
B. 75 a treatment plan, which of the following
C. 60 are required to be in a treatment plan
D. 90 A. Description of each treatment by ADA
E. 85 code by tooth
135. Which Executive order abolished the Food B. Cost of each treatment per tooth
and Drug Administration and created the C. Written and dated documentation of
BFAD? current oral health status
A. EO 137 D. Prioritize treatment by tooth severity
B. EO 851 of pathology
4.4 Forensic Sciences

1. If a father is AA and a mother is AB, 4. Approximately % of people have
what is the probability for a child with AB LOOP pattern fingerprints.
blood? A. 95
A. 0% B. 60
B. 25% C. 5
C. 50% D. 25
D. 75% 5. Which choice below is not a suture in the
skull?
2. The types of evidence admissible in court
A. coronal
A. testimonial & physical
B. sagittal
B. oral & written C. lambdoid
C. physical & eyewitness D. occipital
D. microscopy identification & oral
6. the heart stops beating
3. What type of bags should clothes be A. proximate cause of death
bagged in? B. pulmonary arrest
A. paper C. asphyxiation
B. plastic D. exsanguations
C. cloth 7. Fingerprints usually not visible to the hu-
D. clothes should not be bagged, instead man eye are considered?
it should be put a metal box A. Latent fingerprints

B. Normal fingerprints B. Nature

C. Invisible fingerprints C. Duration
D. Late fingerprints D. All factors will affect it
8. The two insect orders most commonly 13. An invisible print that must be developed
found on a corpse are (choose 2) using powder or chemicals is called
A. Arthropods
A. plastic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Diptera
B. latent
C. Crustaceans
C. patent
D. Coleoptera
D. underdeveloped
9. Fact
14. This can also be used to collect evidence at
A. A statement or assertion of informa-
a crime scene.
tion that can be verified
B. the ability to identify its component A. Bindle
parts, to organize information for decision B. Cup wit lid
making, to establish criteria for evalua-
C. File Folder
tion, and to draw appropriate conclusions.
C. deriving the consequences from the D. Envelopes
facts using a series of logical steps
15. Who decides relevance of evidence during
D. deriving the consequences from the a trial?
A. judge
10. clear particles will not be visible using tra- B. jury
ditional bright field light
C. prosecutors
A. Isotropic
D. defense attorneys
B. Anisotropic
C. Phase Contrast 16. Parasagittal incisions cut a specimen:
D. none of above A. directly in half left to right
11. What is used to determine age of a skele- B. in half but not in the middle
ton? C. from top to bottom
A. shape of skull
D. from front to back
B. sacrum curvature
C. presence/absence of epiphyseal 17. one of the three larval stages of insect de-
plates velopment
D. size of long bones A. death

B. instar
12. Which factor affects the amount of evi-
dence transferred during a crime except: C. pupa/pupae
A. Intensity D. autolysis

18. A loop that opens toward the thumb is B. Individual

called a C. Testimonial

A. unlnar D. Circumstantial
B. radial
24. the place where an offense has been com-
C. plain mitted and forensic evidence is gathered
D. accidental A. crime scene
19. What is Forensic Science? B. play scene
A. The use of FS to identify a corpse(s) C. school
identity D. laboratory
B. The study of toxicology 25. Who interviews witnesses and consults
C. The application of Forensics for law with the CSI Unit?
and order A. Detectives
D. The study of criminology to analyze B. Police
quantitative evidence
C. CSI Specialists
20. A bright halo that is observed near the bor- D. District Attorney
der of a glass particle immersed in a liquid
of a different refractive index is known as: 26. What is physical evidence found at the
scene which is in small but measurable
A. the refraction point amounts called?
B. the becke line A. Testimonial
C. the halo point B. Trace
D. the type line C. Suspect
21. Type of fingerprint in which the ridges en- D. Arson
ter and exit from the same side of the fin-
27. refer to a police procedure following
ger
the arrest that requests basic information
A. loop about the suspect (photo, fingerprint, line
B. arch up, etc.)
C. whorl A. arrest
D. radial arch B. arraignment
C. booking
22. A CSI’s job is to Find, Document and
D. indictment
A. Convict!
28. When a forensic scientist provides infor-
B. Analyze!
mation in a criminal trial, the facts that he
C. Interpret! or she presents are based on
D. Catalog! A. eye witness accounts
23. This type of evidence is based on sugges- B. circumstantial evidence
tion rather than observation or facts. C. educated guesses
A. Transient D. scientific investigations

29. when the jury has a long and careful con- B. admits nor denies
versation about the case C. recalls nor remembers
A. plea bargain D. acknowledges nor ignores
B. verdict
35. Type of evidence that can be traced back
C. deliberation to one person
D. Bill of Rights A. Testimonial
30. the hair shaft is composed of the curticle, B. class
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cortex, and C. logical
A. medulla D. individual
B. root 36. cuticle
C. granules A. the tough outer covering of a hair com-
D. Crown posed of overlapping scales
31. What did Henri-Louis Bayard discover? B. material that connects an indivisual or
thing to a certain group
A. procedures for microscopic detection
of sperm C. a type of fibrous protein that makes up
the majority of the cortex of a hair
B. detecting poison
D. the centrel core of a hair fiber
C. guidelines for the use of documents in
court 37. Common way anthropologist can tell if it
is a male or female?
D. first identification system
A. skull
E. database for matching bullets &
firearms B. bone thickness
C. femur size
32. How much does hair grow every month on
average? D. teeth
A. 1 cm 38. What was the physical evidence used in
B. 1 mm the John Webster v. the Commonwealth
case?
C. 1 “
A. fibers
D. 1dm
B. hair
33. Viral diseases are caused by C. jawbone
A. Viruses D. tool marks
B. Germs
39. Who was the first to use fingerprinting
C. Bacteria as a method of identification on a large
D. none of above scale?
A. Dr. Henry Faulds-1880
34. Nolo Contendere is when a defendant nei-
ther nor a crime, but accepts pun- B. Sir William Hershel-1856
ishment C. Gilbert Thompson-1882
A. agrees to nor disagrees to D. none of above

40. Which of the following define ethics for re- 45. In 1248 a book was written in China called
porting Physical Evidence? Check all that “Hsi Duan Yu”. What does this mean?
apply.

A. The washing away of lies
A. Do not claim other’s work as your own B. The washing away of death
B. Avoid misleading language C. The lies are washed away
C. Don’t confuse scientific fact with opin- D. The washing away of wrongs
ion
46. The person most responsible for the finger-
D. Use valid reliable standards of compar- print system used in the U.S. today is:
ison
A. Edward Henry
E. Set a reasonable fee for services
B. Henry Ford
41. What type of fingerprint would be left on C. William Herschel
skin? D. Alphonse Bertillon
A. Latent
47. Mathieu Orfila is considered to be the fa-
B. Plastic ther of
C. Visible A. Questioned Documents
D. Fingerprints cannot be placed on skin B. Pathology
C. Toxicology
42. What is the study of evidence that is col-
lected at a crime scene? D. Law Enforcement
A. Cheiloscopy 48. What does C.S.I. stand for?
B. Forensics A. Crazy Silly Inference
C. Biology B. Crime Suspect Interrogation
D. Mortuary C. Crime Scene Investigation
D. Can Someone Investigate
43. What can entomologists know by studying
the insects at a crime scene? 49. About 6% of the population has this gen-
eral type of pattern.
A. who the victim is
A. loops
B. PMI
B. whorls
C. who probably commited the crime
C. arches
D. the crime autopsy
D. ripples
44. What is an accomplice? 50. Long strings that make up synthetic fibers
A. A person who helped the criminal are called
B. A person who provides the evidence A. Monomers
C. A person who examines the crime B. Macromolecules
scene C. Polymers
D. A person who helps the jury D. Threads

51. A fingerprint is composed mainly of B. the application of principles and tech-

niques to matters of criminal justice espe-
A. Salt
cially as relating to the collection, exami-
B. Organic compounds nation, and analysis of physical evidence
C. Water C. the intellectual and practical activity
encompassing the systematic study of the
D. Amino Acids
structure and behaviour of the physical
52. Each blood type is determined by: and natural world through observation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and experiment.
A. a DNA reaction test.
D. none of above
B. an antibody reaction test.
56. Every hour, how much does the body drop
C. a protein reaction test. temperature (at ambient temperatures)?
D. a RF factor reaction test. A. 1 degree Celsius
B. 1.5 degrees Celsius
53. The application of dental science to legal in-
vestigations, primarily involving the iden- C. 5 degrees Celsius
tification of the offender by comparing D. 0.5 degrees Celsius
dental records to a bite mark left on the
57. What decided what evidence is allowed in
victim or at the scene, or identification of
courts depends on what is “generally ac-
human remains based on dental records.
cepted” by the relevant scientific commu-
A. Forensic Ballistics nity?
B. Forensic Palynology A. Locard’s Exchange Principle
C. Forensic Psychology B. Frye vs. the United States
D. Forensic Odontology C. Daubert Ruling
D. FBI motto
E. Forensic Pathology
58. What is the first step in processing a crime
54. Which gland secretes oil and causes hair to scene?
be oily?
A. Photography
A. Sebaceous B. Rough sketch
B. Adrenal C. Finished sketch
C. Pineal D. Securing the perimeter
D. Eccrine 59. What is heresy?
A. theories based on flawed or
55. what is the definition of forensic science?
untestable hypotheses
A. the branch of science that deals with B. evidence accepted only if the principle
the identification of the substances of is accepted by the sciences
which matter is composed; the investiga-
tion of their properties and the ways in C. eliminates “junk” science & only uses
which they interact, combine, and change; relevant science to case
and the use of these processes to form D. information gathered from one person
new substances to another

60. the documented and unbroken list of all 65. Type of Forensic science that deals with
people who came into possession of an ev- identification of drugs and poisons
idence item

A. Odontology
A. evidence log B. Toxicology
B. chain of custody C. Serology
C. custody D. Entomology
D. chain of documentation 66. Sisal comes from what part of a plant?
61. amorphous A. Seed
A. without a defined shape; fibers com- B. Fruit
posed of a loose arrangement of polymers C. Stem
that are soft, elastic, and absorbing D. Leaf
B. the passing of evidence, such as fiber,
from victim to suspect or vice versa 67. Signs of bone can help us determine old
vs new injuries, type of trauma, or help
C. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and identify a victim.
light damage
A. osteoclasts
D. The transfer of evidence such as a
B. remodeling
fiber from a source (such as a carpet) to
a person (suspect), and then to another C. dissolving
person (victim) D. osteoporosis
62. Fingerprint whorl patterns may be a: 68. Approximately 25% of the population
falls into which primary identification?
A. plain whorl.
A. 0/0
B. central pocket loop whorl.
B. 1/1
C. double loop whorl.
C. 25/25
D. All of these choices.
D. 20/20
63. His work led to the acceptance of docu- E. none of these
ments as scientific evidence by the courts
69. Cellular organelle surrounded by a nuclear
A. Alphonse Bertillion envelope?
B. Leone Lattes A. Nucleus
C. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle B. Nucleolus
D. Albert Osborne C. Golgi Body
64. Which of the following is a plea that a de- D. Cytoplasm
fendant can enter? 70. What is a major crime called like murder?
A. guilty A. Manslaughter
B. not guilty B. Murder
C. no contest C. Felony
D. All of these D. Misdemeanor

71. mineral fiber D. a person who has a solid alibi

A. a collection of mineral crystals formed 77. Bones can tell us all of the following ex-
into recognizable pattern cept:
B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile, A. mineral deficiencies
it must be at 100 times longer than wide
B. all of these can be determined
C. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and
light damage C. diseases/disorders
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. fibers that have been spun together D. fractures
72. A fiber made from flax is called 78. The tiny details in fingerprints used to
match one fingerprint to another are called
A. Cashmere
A. ridges
B. Sisal
B. hills
C. Coir
C. match points
D. Linen
D. minutiae
73. If you earned a degree as a forensic scien-
tist, you would MOST LIKELY find a job: 79. This wraps around the ends of bones and
A. In a school. keeps them from scraping together
B. With the FBI. A. Cartilage
C. On a television show. B. Ligaments
D. With a software manufacturer. C. Muscles

D. Tendons
74. Indirect evidence includes
A. fingerprints. 80. Which feature of hair is MOST important
in making a species identification
B. trace evidence.
A. Follicle shape
C. a weapon.
B. Color
D. All of these are types of indirect evi-
dence. C. Scale pattern
D. Shaft lenght
75. Determining the physical or chemical iden-
tity of evidence is called: 81. Actual indentations left in some soft mate-
A. identification rial such as clay, putty, or wax is which
type of fingerprint?
B. examination
A. latent
C. processing
B. patent
D. comparison
C. plastic
76. A suspect is
A. a person claiming innocence
B. someone with beady eyes 82. Which model of base pairing is correct?
C. someone who is thought to have possi- A. A=T and C=G

bly committed the crime B. A=T=C=G

C. A+T and G+C A. Forensic Ballistics

D. A=G and T=C B. Forensic Palynology

C. Forensic Polygraph
83. Which chemical treatment produces a
white-appearing latent print? D. Forensic Odontology
A. super glue fuming E. Forensic Pathology
B. physical developer 88. Patent Fingerprints

C. iodine fuming A. Are patented and owned by the govern-
ment
D. ninhydrin
B. can be found as impressions in mud
84. secondary transfer C. can’t be seen at the crime scene
A. The transfer of evidence such as a D. can be seen at the crime scene
a person (suspect), and then to another 89. The application and study of insect and
person (victim) other arthropod biology to criminal mat-
ters.
from victim to suspect or vice versa A. Forensic Pathology
B. Forensic Anthropology
C. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol-
stery C. Forensic Polygraph
D. fibers that have been spun together D. Forensic Odontology
E. Forensic Entomology
85. unit examines and records pho-
tographs of the physical evidence. 90. A lie detector test is known as a
A. Biology Unit A. Toxicology
B. Physical Science Unit B. Pathology
C. Photographic Unit C. Polygraph
D. Lie Detector Test
D. none of above
91. Which unit of a basic crime lab examines
86. Of the following, select all the things paper?
which can be probable evidence from the
crime scene. A. Document Analysis unit
B. Physical Science unit
A. Tyre impressions
C. Photography unit
B. Soil from crime scene
D. Evidence Collection unit
C. Teeth impressions
D. Fiber particles 92. The individuals who investigate where
something originated or where something
87. The study of pollen, spores and other acid- took place.
resistant microscopic plant bodies, includ- A. Forensic Entomology
ing dinoflagellates, to prove or disprove
B. Forensic Odontology
a relationship among objects, people and
places that pertain to both criminal and C. Forensic Engineering
civil cases. D. none of above

93. A loop that opens toward the thumb is 99. Which is NOT a way a viral disease can
called spread through a population?
A. ulnar A. Coughing
B. radial B. Sneezing
C. buccal C. Washing your hands
D. all of these D. Eating on a contaminated surface
NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. A chemical method used for developing 100. Analytical Skills
prints on nonporous surfaces is:
A. the ability to identify its component
A. physical developer parts, to organize information for decision
B. ninhydrin making, to establish criteria for evalua-
tion, and to draw appropriate conclusions.
C. DFO
B. A statement or assertion of informa-
D. fuming with cyanoacrylate
tion that can be verified
95. Another location where evidence can be C. deriving the consequences from the
found is called facts using a series of logical steps
A. school locker D. A statement or assertion of informa-
B. secondary crime scene tion that can be verified
C. accomplice 101. a person with a personality disorder man-
D. observation ifesting itself in extreme antisocial at-
titudes behavior and a lack/weak con-
96. What a person perceives using his or her science, and angers easily.
senses
A. Psychosis
A. fact
B. Psychopath
B. opinion
C. Sociopath
C. observation
D. Paranoia
D. crystal ball
102. Which type of fingerprint cannot be seen
97. CSI stands for
the naked eye?
A. Criminal Scenic Investor
A. patent fingerprint
B. Crime Series Insulator
B. latent fingerprint
C. Crime Scene Instigator
C. visible fingerprint
D. Crime Scene Investigator
D. plastic fingerprint
98. The location where the crime was actually
committed is 103. unrealistic expectations portrayed by TV
shows that assume every crime scene will
A. a house yield forensic evidence that will aid in solv-
B. a crime scene investigation ing a crime
C. a primary crime scene A. Forensics
D. a first responder B. Forensic Science

C. CSI Effect 108. Jewelry found at a crime scene would be

D. Deductive Reasoning considered which type of evidence?

104. Which minutiae looks like a very small A. Transfer
line or dot between two large ongoing B. Conditional
lines?
C. Associative
A. Ridge ending
B. Enclosure D. Pattern
C. Bifurcation
109. Can identify individuals based on dental
D. Island records; bite mark analysis
105. how information is processed in the brain A. Pathology
A. informatin from our senses, what we B. Anthropology
pay attention to, perception, short-term
memory, long-term memory C. Odontology
B. What a person perceives using his or D. Entomology
her senses
C. A statement or assertion of informa- 110. Which of the following does NOT have a
tion that can be verified Crime Lab Agency found within the Depart-
D. Conclusions drawn from assumptions ment of Justice?
and known facts A. U. S. Immigration Service
106. If an imaginary line drawn between the B. U. S. Fish and Wildlife
two deltas of a whorl pattern touches any
of the spiral ridges, the pattern is classi- C. U. S. Postal Service
fied as a: D. DEA
A. accident
B. central pocket whorl 111. Witness testimony should not be relied
heavily on in a courtroom because it can
C. central pocket loop
be
D. plain whorl
A. unfair since it is so accurate
107. the innocence project
B. unimportant to the crime
A. startd in 1992, its purpose was to reex-
amine post-conviction case using DNA ev- C. unreliable and inaccurate
idence to provide conclusive proof of guilt
D. a distraction for the jurors
or innocence
B. Personal belief founded on the judge- 112. What is the most common plant fiber?
ment rather than on direct experience or
knowledge A. Wool
C. What a person perceives using his or B. Rayon
her senses
C. Cotton
D. A statement or assertion of informa-
tion that can be verified D. Polyester

113. monomer 117. livor mortis is fixed (permanent) at

A. a small molecule that my bond to an- A. 2 hours
other monomers to become a polymer B. 8 hours
B. the passing of evidence, such as fiber, C. 12 hours
from victim to suspect or vice versa
D. 36 hours
C. a collection of mineral crystals formed
into recognizable pattern 118. Match description with the correct stage
of decomposition:the body begins to dry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. fibers that have been spun together and preserve itself; most of the flesh is
114. Which of the following is most likely a gone
true statement? A. fresh
A. Jim lost his fingerprints after he re- B. bloat
ceived first degree burns from touching a C. active decay
hot coffee cup. D. advanced decay
B. Susan destroyed her fingerprints af-
ter poking her finger with a needle while 119. The study and treatment of mental illness
sewing. and abnormal behavior
A. Paraphilia
C. Tina was in a house fire and the pads
of her fingers were burned more than 3 B. Psychosis
mm into the tissue which caused her fin- C. Psychiatry
gerprints to become unrecognizable D. Sadism
D. As a teacher, Jenny did so much grad-
ing her fingerprints were worn down so 120. Published Questioned Documents about
low they no longer have evidentiary value document examination
A. Alphonse Bertillon
115. What causes fingerprints to be left be-
B. August Vollmer
hind when we touch things?
C. Albert S. Osborn
A. the dust on the things we touch
D. Karl Landsteiner
B. the smoothness of the surfaces we
touch 121. Eyewitness accounts and your own think-
C. the natural oils on skin ing can include
A. DNA
D. the moisture in the atmosphere
B. Prejudices
116. Angiosperms are: C. Mood Swings
A. flowering plants and they produce D. Lies
seeds within a fruit.
122. An individual’s blood type is determined
B. evergreen plants and they produce
by
seeds within a cone.
A. environment
C. flowering plants and they produce
seeds within a cone. B. genetics
D. evergreen plants and they produce C. both environment and genetics
seeds within a fruit. D. your children’s blood type

123. What percentage of techniques shown on 128. Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by
the television show CSI would actually be examining a person’s unique sequence of
able to used in a real crime investigation? DNA base pairs is?

A. None of the techniques A. PCR
B. Less than 50 percent B. Chromosome
C. 75 percent C. Electrophoresis
D. More than 90 percent D. DNA Fingerprinting
129. What type(s) of blood can a person with

124. The presence of two deltas in a finger-
O+ RECEIVE?
print indicate:
A. O+ and O-
A. A Whorl Pattern
B. O+, only
B. A Loop Pattern
C. O-, only
C. Scar Tissue
D. O+, A+, B+, AB+
D. Not enough information to answer this
question. 130. An eye witness’ testimony can be af-
fected by
125. What is the supreme body of law that
A. All of these
governs the U. S.?
B. Who else is around.
A. U. S. Constitution
C. How they felt that day.
B. Bill of Rights
D. Religious views
C. laws passed by the U. S. Congress
131. What is trace evidence
D. decisions passed down the the U. S.
Supreme Court A. Non conclusive evidence that helps you
narrow down the suspects
126. is commonly known as blackmail for B. Evidence found in a classroom
obtaining money or other property from
someone by wrongful use of force, fear, C. Evidence that is left behind by ex-
power, or office. change, like hair or fibers
A. Larceny D. Evidence that can be traced only to one

individual
B. Conspiracy
132. Which of the following is NOT one of the
C. Extortion
three types of crime?
D. Burglary
A. violation
127. which of the following characteristics is B. infraction
found in typical Asian hair? C. misdemeanor
A. Flattened cross section D. felony
B. hair is curly
133. What is Loccard’s Exchange Principle?
C. dark medulla
A. Perpetrators always leave evidence
D. sparsely distributed pigment granules behind.

B. Every contact leaves a trace. B. TGGCA

C. All touches leave evidence. C. TGCCA
D. Long, violent confrontations leave evi- D. ACCGT
dence.
139. Type of fingerprint that is left by a person
134. which factors are used to calculate the with soiled or stained fingertips
medullary index of the hair? A. Plastic
A. Width of cortex and the width of the B. Visible
NARAYAN CHANGDER
medulla C. Latent
B. width of medulla and the width of the D. none of above
hair
140. How can soil have individual characteris-
C. length of the entire hair and the pat-
tics?
tern of pigmentation
A. different soils have unique composi-
D. scale diameter of cuticle and the tion of organic and inorganic materials
length of the hair
B. all soils are made of the same organic
135. The field of science that would be in- and inorganic materials
volved in identifying skeletal remains is C. soil cannot be individualized evidence
called
D. soils from different areas are always
A. reconstruction anatomy identical
B. forensic anthropology
141. What federal agencies conduct forensic
C. physiology analysis?
D. medicine A. FBI
B. DEA
136. What bones are used to measure height
C. ATF
A. Femur
D. All of these
B. Radius
C. Humerus 142. Which forensics pioneer is known for
founding the first ever crime lab and de-
D. All of the above veloping “The Exchange Principle”?
137. We know hair is from a human if A. Leone Lattes
A. The medullary index is 0.5 or greater B. Walter McCrone
B. The medullary index is 0.33 or less C. Edmond Locard
C. The cuticle is coronal D. Alphonse Bertillon
D. The medulla is fragmented 143. An individual whom the court determines

has the knowledge relevant to the trial.
138. If base-pairing rules state that Adenine
A. Expert witness
always pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine
pairs with Guanine, what would be the B. The Frye Standard
complementary strand to ACGGT? C. Daubert Exception
A. ACGGT D. none of above

144. Which of the following is a patent print? 148. What does A.D.A.P.T stand for?
A. A bloody print A. Assess the crime sceneDetain the

B. An invisible print witnessArrest the perpetratorProtect the
crime sceneTake notes
C. A print in soft wax
B. AuthoritiesDocument everythingAr-
D. A print made from secreted oils in the
rest the perpetratorProtect evidenceTake
skin
care of crime scene
145. A crime scene sketch should include all of C. Assess the crime scenedocument ev-
the following except: erythingAlways write notesProtect the
A. A label to indicate the direction of crime sceneTake notes
north on the diagram D. none of above
B. A scale of size
149. What is the Daubert Ruling?
C. The location of the crime scene
D. The type of search pattern detectives
used to make the sketch
E. All of the above should be included B. evidence accepted only if the principle
is accepted by the sciences
146. what is the definition of chemistry? C. eliminates “junk” science & only uses
A. the application of scientific principles relevant science to case
and techniques to matters of criminal jus-
D. information gathered from one person
tice especially as relating to the collection,
to another
examination, and analysis of physical evi-
dence 150. Opinion
B. the intellectual and practical activity A. Personal belief founded on the judge-
encompassing the systematic study of the ment rather than on direct experience or
structure and behavior of the physical and knowledge
natural world through observation and ex-
B. What a person perceives using his or
periment.
her senses
C. the branch of science that deals with
the identification of the substances of C. A statement or assertion of informa-
which matter is composed; the investigation that can be verified
tion of their properties and the ways in D. deriving the consequences from the
which they interact, combine, and change; facts using a series of logical steps
and the use of these processes to form
new substances 151. Which of the following type of explosive
is best characterized as producing pressure
D. none of above waves that travel up to 19000 mph, are
147. A tire impression would be a(n) char- very unstable, and are primarily used to
acteristic. detonate other explosives?
A. individual A. Low explosives
B. class B. High explosives
C. regional C. Primary high explosives
D. excellent D. Secondary high explosives

152. What did Edmond Locard develop? 158. relating the application of science to
A. Locard’s Exchange Principle law/the criminal justice system
B. Frye Standard A. Forensics

C. Daubert Ruling B. Forensic Science
D. the first crime lab in the United States C. Forensic Investigator
153. If two parents have type AB blood, what D. CSI Effect
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is the probability that their child will have
159. What must first be done with impression
type O blood?
evidence?
A. 0%
A. make a cast using plaster or dental
B. 25% stone
C. 50% B. cut out the area with the impression
D. 100% C. photograph it with a ruler
154. Which is not direct evidence? D. place the item that made the impres-
A. fingerprints sion over it to see if it’s a match
B. DNA 160. What is the CSI Effect?
C. witness testimony A. Playing a part on the show CSI
D. hair color B. Being a fan of the show CSI and getting
155. Mental illness or disorder your friends to watch it too
A. Psychopathy C. The belief that actual forensic cases

are solved quickly making jurors reluctant
B. Psychiatry to vote to convict, forensic evidence is nei-
C. Etiology ther necessary nor available.
D. Psychosis D. Solving a case and feeling like you’re
on the show CSI
156. This unit dispatches trained individuals to
collect and preserve physical evidence that 161. CODIS is the database for
will be processed late at a lab.
A. fingerprints
A. Crime scene investigation unit
B. DNA
B. Polygraph Unit
C. shoe prints
C. Forensic Service
D. ballistics
D. none of above
157. What component of a fingerprint consti- 162. A tire impression with worn tread would
tutes individual evidence? be a(n) characteristic.
A. Class A. individual
B. Minutiae B. class
C. Subclass C. regional
D. Class and subclass D. excellent

163. When searching for evidence it’s impor- 168. medulla

tant to
A. the central core of a hair fiber

A. collect only what can be used in court
B. bits of pigment found in the cortex of a
B. take things that can have tests run on hair
them
C. the actively growing root or base of
C. take the most important items first, hair containing DNA and living cells
then come back for the rest
D. the region of hair located outside of
D. take everything, evidence can be elim- the medulla containing granules of pig-
inated later ments
164. What is unique evidence 169. Original Location of a crime or accident

A. Evidence found in a classroom A. primary crime scene
B. Evidence that is left behind by ex- B. secondary crime scene
change
C. testimonial
C. Non conclusive evidence that helps
D. original crime scene
you narrow down the suspects
D. Evidence that can be traced only to one 170. Circumstantial evidence is
individual A. direct evidence that can be used to im-
ply a fact, but does directly prove it.
165. Which of the following is NOT a finger-
print? B. indirect evidence that can be used to
imply a fact, but does not directly prove it.
A. Arch
C. indirect evidence that cannot be used
B. Loop
to imply a fact
C. Whorl
D. None of these choices
D. Swirl
171. The scientific study of insects in their de-
166. Alphonse Bertillion contributed velopmental stages in human cadavers.
A. a process to identify fingerprints A. Forensic Engineering
B. a way to detect poisons B. Forensic Odontology
C. anthropometry, a system to identify C. Forensic Entomology
people
D. none of above
D. analyze Gun Shot Residue
172. Which of the following deals with apply-
167. How long does it take to get a degree in ing principles of physical science to identi-
forensic science? fication?
A. 3 years A. DNA/Biology
B. 5 years B. Trace/Physical Evidence
C. 4 years C. Impression Evidence
D. none of above D. Toxicology

173. The larger opening of a crater-shaped 178. The study of how a person’s gene deter-
hole in glass made by the penetration of mine individual response to a medication
a projectile indicates: is known as:
A. That the projectile was travelling at a A. genetics
low velocity B. pathology
B. That the projectile came from a hand C. pharmacogenomics
gun
D. pharming
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The entrance side of the glass
D. The exit side of the glass 179. Tests bodily fluids and tissues for drugs,
poisons, and heavy metals
174. Which of the following is NOT a crime A. Forensic Biologist
scene search pattern?
B. Forensic Toxicologist
A. Spread
C. Forensic Pathologist
B. Standard
D. Blood Stain Pattern Analyst
C. Circular
D. All of them 180. Properties of glass include:
A. Refractive index
175. How can you identify sperm eggs under
a microscope B. Density
A. Shape C. Fracture patterns
B. Size D. All of the above
C. Length 181. the scientific study of the mind and be-

D. none of above havior
A. Botany
176. immature form of an animal that under-
goes metamorphosis B. Physiology
A. pupa/pupae C. Psychology
B. autolysis D. Forensics
C. larva/larvae 182. Examines marks left by tools on objects

D. instar at a crime scene or on a victim, suchas a
hammer used to break a door or a screw-
177. What does Felony mean? driver used to pick a lock.
A. Regulation and enforcement of rights A. detectives
setting acceptable limits of conduct in a B. specialists
society
C. microscopy
B. A serious crime, such as murder, pun-
ishable by more than 1 year of imprison- D. tool marks
ment up to execution 183. Someone’s , a group of footsteps,
C. A minor crime usually punished with a helps the investigator determine whether
fine or confinement other than prison if someone was walking with a limp.
D. none of above A. Height

B. Weight 189. What do you call the person who has

been harmed or affected during a crime?
C. Gait
A. Accomplice

D. Race
B. Perpetrator
184. Jaywalking is a type of C. Victim
A. felony D. Officer
B. infraction 190. Using astrology in court as evidence
would be an example of
C. misdemeanor
A. heresy
D. none of above
B. unreliable science
185. What bones are best to determine the C. junk science
sex of a skeleton? D. distractions
A. pelvis 191. Who is considered the father of criminal-
B. skull istics?
C. long bones A. Locard
B. Bertillion
D. mandible
C. Orfila
186. the study of blood serum D. Lattes
A. pathogens 192. What determines blood type?
B. serology A. Proteins on red blood cells
C. DNA B. Proteins on white blood cells
D. pathology C. Proteins in the plasma
D. Proteins on platelets
187. The application of a broad range of sci-
ences to answer legal questions 193. What is evidence?
A. Objects like rubber unicorns left at a
A. Health Science
dance party
B. Biology B. An excuse for a crime.
C. Physical Science C. Things left at a crime scene on pur-
D. Forensic Science pose or accidentally
D. Things left behind during a police train-
188. The main jobs of a forensic scientist ining drill
clude all of the following EXCEPT:
194. Bite marks would be LEAST likely to be
A. Testify in court as expert witness found in cases involving:
B. Collect & package evidence from a A. child abuse
crime scene B. assault
C. Examine a body found at a crime scene C. arson
D. Process evidence from a crime scene D. sexual abuse

195. angle in which the light ray travels away 200. The concept of “general acceptance” of
from the boundary of an object scientific evidence relates to the:
A. Radial Cracks A. Miranda warnings
B. Phase Contrast B. Frye standard
C. Angle of Refraction C. exclusionary rule
D. none of above D. First Amendment
201. Soil with a gritty texture is most likely
NARAYAN CHANGDER
196. What is the first logical step in soil anal-
heavily composed of:
ysis?
A. Silt
A. comparison of dried soil samples for
color and texture B. Sand
B. use of the density-gradient tube tech- C. Clay
nique D. Gravel
C. search for the presence of debris un- 202. Investigates/collects evidence to see if a
der low-power magnification fire was accidental or intentional
D. examination of minerals and rocks un- A. homicide detective
der high-power magnification
B. toxicologist
197. Which of the following is not a misde- C. arson investigator
meanor? D. entomologist
A. Aggravated Assault
203. Techniques for identifying the chemical
B. Petty Theft composition of fibers include:
C. Breaking-and-Entering A. Infrared spectrophotometry and gas
D. Disorderly Conduct chromatography
B. Scanning electron microscopy and po-
198. unit processes and examines evi- larizing microscopy
dence for these prints.
C. Gas chromatography and light emis-
A. Latent Fingerprint Unit sion chromatography
B. Voiceprint Analysis D. Infrared spectrophotometry and polar-
C. Crime Scene Investigators izing microscopy
D. none of above 204. Locard’s Exchange Principle implies all of
the following EXCEPT:
199. The Supreme Court’s decision on which of
the following causes required all suspects A. Fibers can be transferred by one per-
be provided with a lawyer regardless of son’s clothing to another
the suspect’s financial situation? B. Blood at a crime scene can be used to
identify blood type
A. Miranda v. Arizona
C. Hair from your pet may be transferred
B. Marbury v. Madison
to your clothing
C. Gideon v. Wainwright D. All of the Above are implied by Locard’s
D. Tinker v. Des Moines Exchange Principle

205. Application of science for the examina- C. detectives

tion of physical evidence, relative to mat- D. police officers
ters of criminal and civil laws that are en-

forced by police agencies in the criminal jus- 211. Intons make up what percent of human
tice system is the formal definition for genome?
A. criminalistics. A. 75%
B. criminology. B. 98.5%
C. forensic science. C. 25%
D. finding the bad guy (or girl). D. 1.5%
206. Natural fibers can be harvested from 212. Observation
A. plants and animals
A. What a person perceives using his or
B. only from plants her senses
C. only from animals B. A statement or assertion of informa-
D. plants, animals and minerals tion that can be verified
C. deriving the consequences from the
207. The most common type of fingerprint pat-
tern is the:
D. Conclusions drawn from assumptions
A. loop
and known facts
B. whorl
C. arch 213. Where the skull plates meet is called
D. swirl A. gaps
B. sutures
208. Interpreting the information that we re-
ceived from our senses is C. cartilage
A. perception D. epiphysis
B. observation 214. Which of the following is not a right guar-
C. investigating anteed by the Bill of Rights?
D. remembering A. right to have Miranda rights read to
you
209. Wrote the famous crime story series,
Sherlock Holmes: B. right to an attorney
A. Henry C. right to know charges against oneself

B. Gross D. right to a speedy trial
C. Hoover 215. Opened the first crime laboratory in
D. Doyle France:
A. Goddard
210. Any material items that are present at
the crime scene B. Locard
A. evidence C. Galton
B. accomplice D. Gross

216. Pogo the Clown; Killer Clown C. Anthropology

A. Joe Ball D. Trace Evidence lab
B. Gary Ridgeway
222. the middle layer of a hair shaft that pro-
C. John Wayne Gacy vides its strength is
D. Ted Bundy
A. the cortex
217. A fiber made from goat hair is called B. the medulla
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cashmere C. the cuticle
B. Sisal
D. the polymer
C. Coir
D. Angora 223. A microscope that views side by side im-
ages of hair samples is called ?
218. When sealing an evidence bag, the CSI A. Fluorescence microscope
signs his or her name and date
B. Electron microscope
A. on the tape before the bag is sealed
B. on the back of the bag C. Comparison microscope
C. so that part of the writing is on the D. Compound microscope

tape and part on the bag
224. What blood type is the “universal donor”
D. below the evidence label because it can be donated to anyone?
219. The first step in investigating a crime A. A
scene is to
B. B
A. examine possible evidence
C. AB
B. interview the first officer at the scene
or the victim D. O
C. document what happened 225. The entomologist must be able to identify
D. process the crime scene evidence the of blow fly because each devel-
ops at a different rate.
220. How can you tell if a person was carry-
ing something from their footprint impres- A. family
sion? B. genus
A. You can tell C. order
B. All of their impressions will be deeper, D. species
right and left
C. Their foot impressions will be deeper 226. Which of the following is a team member
on one side, right verses left on a crime scene team?
D. Their impressions will fade away some A. First Police officer
221. What is another name for Forensics? B. Medical Examiner

A. Forensic Toxicology C. Investigators
B. Criminalistics D. All of the above

227. had a major influence on the popularity 233. Who is considered the father of Anthro-
of forensics due to his book character pometry?
A. Edmond Loccard

A. Sir Doyle
B. Dr. Edmond Locard B. Sung Tzu
C. J. Edgar Hoover C. Alphonse Bertillion
D. Sherlock Holmes D. William West
228. What people are typically the first people 234. Can be classified as arches, loops or
to arrive at the crime scene? whorls
A. Fire truck A. bite marks
B. Ambulance B. fingerprints
C. SWAT Team C. hairs
D. Police officers D. tire tracks
235. Who documents a crime scene in detail
229. This evidence can be traced to a single
and collect evidence?
source.
A. Police Officers
A. Transient
B. CSI Unit
B. Individual
C. District Attorney
C. Class
D. Medical Examiner
D. Circumstantial
236. Which indicator of time of death is based
230. The original location of a crime or acci- on the amount a body has rotted?
dent.
A. Decomposition
A. Primary
B. Livor Mortis
B. Secondary
C. Rigor Mortis
C. Original
D. Microbes
D. Jail
E. Algor Mortis
231. When was the FBI crime lab created? 237. How many bones do adult humans
A. 1920’s have?
B. 1950’s A. 206
C. 1860’s B. 306
D. 1770’s C. 350
232. Which of the following revolver gun parts D. 450

will leave distinct toolmarks on the car- 238. A fingerprint pattern that resembles a
tridge casing? bull’s eye is:
A. Magazine A. A Loop
B. Firing pin B. An Arch
C. Gun barrel C. A Whorl
D. Ejector D. none of above

239. Father of Forensic Toxicology B. only crime scene investigators and au-
A. Francis Gallon thorized personnel
C. Suspects
B. Paul Kirk
D. witnesses
C. Mathieu Orfilia
D. Edmond Locard 245. The most important structure required for
the individualization of hair (identity).
240. A single layer paint chip would be a(n) A. Medulla
NARAYAN CHANGDER
characteristic.
B. Cuticle
A. individual
C. Cortex
B. class
D. Follicle
C. regional
246. Material that comes from a proven or
D. excellent
known source
241. The main goal of the crime scene investi- A. Control Sample
gation is to
B. Direct Evidence
A. Understand the motive behind the
C. Trace Evidence
crime
D. Circumstantial Evidence
B. Recognize, document, and collect the
evidence 247. A footprint is left in dust at a crime scene
C. Look for survivors or witnesses to the and was only found due to electrostatic
crime lifting. What type of impression is this?
D. Preserve the crime scence A. Patent

B. Latent
242. used for comparison analysis; calculated
C. Plastic
by dividing mass by volume
D. Lasting
A. Angle of Refraction
B. Density 248. I must return my assigned chrome book
to the correct slot and plug it in to get a
C. Snell’s Law
100% participation grade today.
D. Paint Extenders A. True
243. The is considered the supreme law of B. False
the land. C. Maybe
A. Bill of Rights D. none of above
B. U.S. Constitution
249. Cutting a specimen from front to back is
C. Declaration of Independence a section.
D. State Constitution A. sagittal
244. Who can enter a crime scene? B. frontal/coronal
A. Anyone as long as they sign the log C. transverse/cross

sheet D. midsagittal

250. The most common type of glass; it is in- 255. Investigators should sample everything
expensive, and easy to melt and shape: at a crime scene because:

A. Leaded glass A. it’s required by law
B. Tempered glass B. an item might not be significant until
C. Laminated glass later
D. Soda lime glass C. evidence may get lost so it’s better to

have more of it
251. Today we use fingerprinting and DNA in- D. more evidence means a better case
formation, but before these were discov-
ered, the System of Measurement was 256. Universal blood recipients have type
considered the most reliable means of iden- blood.
tifying an individual person. A. A
A. Metric B. AB
B. Standard C. B
C. Bertillion D. O
D. Dewey decimal
257. Perception
252. What major crime lab is responsible for A. Interpreting information received
focusing on the seizure of drugs in viola- from the senses
tion of federal laws?
B. A statement or assertion of informa-
A. FBI tion that can be verified
B. BATFE C. deriving the consequences from the
C. DEA facts using a series of logical steps
D. STR D. Conclusions drawn from assumptions
and known facts
253. Whenever two people come in contact
with each other, a physical transfer occurs. 258. Type of evidence that can be traced back
To a forensic examiner, these transferred to many people
materials constitute what is called: A. testimonial
A. trace evidence B. class
B. direct evidence C. logical
C. class evidence. D. individual
D. None of these choices.
259. Eyewitness
254. neutron activation analysis can check hair A. A person who has seen someone or
for the presence of something and can communicate these
A. DNA facts
B. silver B. the ability to identify its component
parts, to organize information for decision
C. water content making, to establish criteria for evalua-
D. hair dye tion, and to draw appropriate conclusions.

C. A statement or assertion of informa- B. Document Examination Unit

tion that can be verified C. Physical Science Unit
D. Conclusions drawn from assumptions D. none of above
and known facts
265. What is the minimum number of ridge
260. The Fingerprint Unit goes over examina- characteristics necessary before two fin-
tion, process, and preservation of evi- gerprints can be identified as the same?
dence.
A. 25
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Specific
B. 8
B. Gun Powder
C. 12
C. Fingerprints
D. 20
D. Blood
266. Which of the following is not one of the
261. What would happen if you obtain a de- four major federal crime laboratories?
gree as a Forensic Scientist?
A. FBI
A. You’d be hired by Forensic anthropolo-
B. CIA
gist
C. BATFE
B. You’d be hired by the FBI
D. none of above
C. You’d be hired by the FAA
D. You can obtain a pHd 267. If two parents are heterozygous for type
A blood, what is the probability that their
262. Evidence can be given through testi- offspring would have type O blood?
mony, but can also be Physical Evidence. A. 100 %
A. Strict B. 75%
B. Direct C. 50%
C. Testimonial D. 25%
D. Document
268. Which of these factors would NOT slow
263. What is turnaround time? down colonization?
A. The time it takes for ordering, spec- A. Fully clothed
imen collection, transportation, process- B. Wearing bug spray
ing, analysis and reporting.
C. Burns on the victim
B. The length of time for a lab to cen-
D. Antibiotic medication in the blood
trifuge a specimen.
C. The length of time from the specimen 269. Which indicator of time of death is based
entering the lab to the result. on the stiffening of muscles?
D. The time it takes to do a point of care A. Decomposition
lab. B. Livor Mortis
264. unit examines questioned documents C. Rigor Mortis
as part of an investigation. D. Entomology
A. Biology Unit E. Algor Mortis

270. studying the crime scene for motive, 275. Which treatment produces a white-
traits, and behavior that will help to in- appearing latent fingerprint?
terpret the evidence

A. super glue fuming
A. criminalistics
B. physical developer
B. criminology
C. iodine fuming
C. deductive reasoning
D. black powder
D. none of above
276. What is the name of the card used to col-
271. What is the natural purpose of finger- lect fingerprint impressions called?
prints?
A. polydactyl 12 card
A. for identity
B. high 5 card
B. there is no purpose
C. hanging 10 card
C. to help grasp objects
D. print paper
D. to protect your fingers
277. Evidence that is damp or wet should be
272. A sketch of the crime scene is a diagram stored in:
that includes:
A. Plastic jars
A. only a scale and key.
B. Metal cans
B. a key, scale, legend, and conditions.
C. Plastic bags
C. only a legend and conditions.
D. Paper bags
D. None of these are correct.
278. According to the exchange theory, what
273. Healthcare workers and the general pub- determines the extent of the transfer of
lic are protected from the spread of infec- physical evidence?
tious disease by treating specimens as:
A. Whether the crime was committed in-
A. biological hazards side or outside determines the extent of
transfer.
B. industrial waste
B. Transfer is determined by how much
C. recyclables
the criminal knows about forensic science
D. trash
C. The experience of the criminal
274. A negative control is D. Intensity, duration, and nature of the
A. testing the substance you are using to materials in contact
test
279. material that can be related to a single
B. testing the substance you are testing source
against
A. individual evidence
C. getting a positive when you should get
B. control evidence
a negative result
C. trace evidence
D. getting a negative when you should get
a positive result D. none of above

280. Analyzing evidence ethically includes per- C. testimony

forming tests
D. All of the above are examples of phys-
A. In a systematic and unbiased manner ical evidence
B. Within 36 hours of receiving the evi-
dence 286. Fibers that have been spun together are
called:
C. At least 3 times each
A. a textile.
D. Using at least two different methods
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. yarn.
281. Imbricate hair is
C. a mineral fiber.
A. human hair
B. rabbit hair D. a fiber.
C. dog hair 287. Where two bones meet is known as a

D. human and dog hair A. ligament
282. What does the cyanoacrylate react with B. bone
in fingerprints?
C. joint
A. amino acids
D. tendon
B. water
C. dermis 288. Perfected the technique of microscopic
D. sodium comparative analysis:
A. Gross
283. What is a Perpetrator?
A. It is a person that likes to blame oth- B. Goddard
ers. C. Galton
B. A person trained to record, collect and D. Locard
test evidence found at a crime scene.
C. Someone thought to have committed 289. Fingerprints that are actual indentations
the crime. left in some soft material such as clay or
D. The person that committed the crime. putty are referred to as fingerprints.
A. plastic
284. If a body is found on a crime scene, who
will be called to investigate the scene? B. patent
A. Criminalist C. latent
B. Investigator D. impression
C. Medical Examiner
290. Seed plants include two groups:
D. Photographer
A. ferns and mosses.
285. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of physical evidence? B. liverworts and horsetails.
A. documents C. gymnosperms and angiosperms.
B. soil D. None of these choices.

291. thread count 296. A false positive is

A. number of threads that are packed to- A. testing the substance you are using to

gether for any given amountof fabric test
B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile, B. testing the substance you are testing
it must be at 100 times longer than wide against
C. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol- C. getting a positive when you should get
stery a negative result
a positive result
a person (suspect), and then to another
person (victim) 297. What is the Frye Statement?
292. The first crime lab in the United States A. theories based on flawed or
was opened in 1923 in untestable hypotheses
A. Los Angeles B. evidence accepted only if the principle
B. Washington D.C. is accepted by the sciences
C. New York C. eliminates “junk” science & only uses
D. Atlanta relevant science to case
D. information gathered from one person
293. When a solid is heated and transforms
to another
into a vapor, the process is called:
A. precipitation 298. Personality disorder characterized by
B. evaporation lack of guilt or remorse
C. sublimation A. Antisocial personality
D. condonsation B. Fetishism
294. Perceptions are C. Psychiatry

A. the information collected using the five D. Necrophilia
senses
299. Class evidence can be associated with
B. The available facts, information, or
physical material that can support an idea A. A single source
C. The information received from the B. A group of sources
senses that is processed by your brain C. A suspect
D. The application of scientific methods D. none of above
and processes to solving crimes.
300. in advanced decay, a body may form a
295. Which type of evidence cannot be ob-
wax layer
tained by footprint recovery?
A. number of suspects A. autolysis
B. path taken through the scene B. autopsy
C. if a person was running C. instar
D. what particular crime was committed D. adipocere

301. Suture Lines on the are helpful in de- B. body region from which the hair came
termining the of a victim from
A. skull, age C. broad racial background of the individ-
B. name, number ual from which the hair came from
C. jaw, race D. identity of the individual from which

the hair came from
D. none of above
307. This pattern is made up of ridges that re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
302. The practice of identifying individuals by semble hairpins or staples. It slants to-
studying dental evidence. wards the small bone of the arm, the ulna,
A. Forensic Odontology on the same side as the little finger.
B. Forensic Engineering A. radial loop
C. Forensic Entomology B. ulnar loop
D. none of above C. central pocket loop whorl
D. plain whorl
303. When collecting hair as evidence, a detec-
tive should NOT do which of the follow- 308. What type of fingerprint would be left in
ing? putty?
A. Pluckhairs from the suspect’s head A. Latent
B. Cuthairs from the suspect’s head B. Plastic
C. Collectloose hairs from the suspect’s C. Visible
head
D. Any of the above
D. Adetective should do all of the above
309. Contagious means
304. human hair has which types(s) of cuti-
A. Being sick
cle?
B. Preventing an illness
A. coronal
C. Being able to pass an illness onto
B. pigmented
someone else
C. imbricate
D. none of above
D. spinous
310. Who is the father of ballistics?
305. A defendant is informed of the charges A. Calvin Goddard
against him/her and enters a plea during
a B. Francis Galton
A. preliminary hearing C. Albert Osborn
B. arraignment D. Alphonse Bertillon
C. plea barganing 311. The National Code of Professional Re-
D. grand jury sponsibility for Forensic Science and Foren-
sic Medicine Service Providers has how
306. Hair analysis may be used to determine many statements that forensic scientists
all of the following except: should abide by?
A. manner in which the hair was removed A. 14

B. 16 316. Which is NOT trace evidence?

C. 18 A. hair

D. 20 B. DNA
C. carpet fibers
312. If a blood drop hits a smooth surface such
as glass, one would expect to see D. sweater fibers
A. A round drop with many spines and 317. Who was the first director of the FBI?
satellites A. J. Edgar Hoover
B. An irregular shaped drop with many B. Edmond Locard
spines and satellites
C. Sir Alec Jeffreys
C. A round drop with few spines and
D. none of above
satellites
D. An irregular shaped drop with few 318. Which chromosomes have the same
spines and satellites shape and contain the same genes?
A. genes
313. Osteoblasts deposit minerals to form
B. autosomes
hard bone in a process called
C. (XX)
A. metaphycation
D. introns
B. respiration
C. micturation 319. Red blood cells:
D. ossification A. carry respiratory gases, mainly oxy-

gen and carbon dioxide.
314. True or False:It’s necessary to obtain a B. fight disease and foreign invaders.
full print from a suspect in order to com-
C. aid in blood clotting.
pare his or her fingerprint with a finger-
print found at the crime scene. D. are involved in repairing damaged
blood cells.
A. True
B. False 320. The goal of a crime scene investigation is
to:.
C. Not enough information to answer this
A. recognize evidence at the scene of a
question.
crime
D. none of above
B. document evidence at the scene of a
315. A forensic entomologist is crime
C. collect evidence at the scene of a
A. A person who studies insects to gain
crime
clues about a crime
D. All of these choices.
B. a person who studies bones to gain
clues about a crime 321. What is ballistics
C. a person who studies DNA to gain A. science that deals with motion, behavi-
clues about a crime ror and effecrs of projectiles
D. a person who studies fire and arson B. DNA studying

C. food studying 327. How do you convert cm to inches when

D. study of behavior determining height from bones?
322. “With contact between two items, there A. multiply by 12

will be an exchange.” This is known as B. divide by 12
C. divide by 2.54
A. physical evdience
D. multiply by 2.54
B. Locard’s exchange principle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Forensic exchange principle 328. indirect evidence; evidence used to imply
D. the law of forensics a fact, but not supported directly
323. form perpendicular to radical fractures on A. direct evidence

the side of the force as the tension and B. circumstantial evidence
compression ripples throughout the glass
A. Concentric Fractures C. secondary evidence
B. Refractive Index D. class characteristics of evidence

C. Anisotropic
329. States that whenever two objects come
D. none of above into contact, there is always a transfer of
324. synthetic fiber material.
A. a fiber made from a man-made sub- A. Evidence

stance such as plastic B. scientific method
B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile,
C. Miranda Rights
C. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol- D. Locard Principle
stery
330. Which of the following is NOT true?
D. fibers that have been spun together
A. Lay witnesses may give their opinion
325. Which muscles experience rigor FIRST? when testifying.
A. Small
B. The judge is the “gatekeeper” for both
B. Large scientific and expert testimony.
C. All muscles start rigor at the same
C. Expert witnesses, may give their opin-
time
ion when testifying
D. none of above
D. All of the above are true.
326. Correct collection of evidence requires
which of the following? 331. Forensic scientists
A. documenting the location where the A. analyze evidence
evidence was found
B. testify in court
B. correct packaging of evidence
C. maintaining proper chain of custody C. both analyze and testify
D. all of the above D. none

332. Controlled substances are defined as: B. Larva, pupa, egg, adult
A. illegal drugs whose sale, possession, C. Egg, larva, maggot, pupa, adult

and use are prohibited because of the D. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
mind-altering effect of the drugs and the
potential for abuse. 337. The central core of the hair is called the
B. legal drugs whose sale, possession, ?
and use are restricted because of the A. Medulla
mind-altering effect of the drugs and the B. Cuticle
potential for abuse.
C. Cortex
C. legal drugs whose sale, possession,
and use are permitted. D. Shaft
D. None of these choices. 338. This is also referred to as “direct evi-

dence”.
333. What is Junk Science?
A. Individual
B. Testimonial
C. Class
B. evidence accepted only if the principle
is accepted by the sciences D. Circumstantial
C. eliminates “junk” science & only uses 339. a finding in which the judge rules that
relevant science to case the plaintiff in a lawsuit ahs not provided
D. information gathered from one person enough evidence to prove the case.
to another A. Frye Standard
334. begin at the site of impact and radiate B. verdict
outward based on the amount of force C. insufficient evidence
A. Angle of Refraction D. 6th Amendment
B. Hot Stage Method
340. Deep footprints with the front pressed
C. Phase Contrast deeper than the rest of the print and a long
D. Radial Cracks stride indicate what?
A. playing
335. What is Physical Evidence
B. laying down
A. Things left at a crime scene on purpose
or accidentally C. running
B. The person that committed the crime D. walking
C. Evidence that cannot be seen but it can 341. When evidence can only be associated
be logically deducted. with a group and never with a single
D. Evidence that can be seen or mea- source, that evidence is said to possess:
sured A. Class categories
336. What are the stages of metamorphosis in B. Class characteristics
a fly’s life cycle? (in order) C. Group categories
A. Egg, pupa, larva, maggot, adult D. Group characteristics

342. Lying about how many years of experi- 347. What CANNOT be determined by exam-
ence you have with a particular technique ining bones?
is A. age
A. Unethical and unprofessional B. race
B. A reason you could be fired C. weight
C. Explicitly stated as unethical in The D. gender
National Code of Professional Responsi- 348. A special protein that targets a specific
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bility for Forensic Science and Forensic base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller
Medicine Service Providers fragments is what?
D. All of the above A. Genome
343. Which forensic unit studies handwriting B. Polymerase Chain Reaction
an typewriting on questions documents, C. Restriction Enzyme
also may analyze paper or ink? D. DNA Fingerprint
A. Crime-scene Investigation Unit 349. What is the name given to the criminal
B. Document Examination Unit database of fingerprints?
C. Print Analysis Unit A. NCIS
D. Linguistic Examination Unit B. NCIC

C. AFIS
344. The most common ridge pattern is the: D. CoDIS
A. arch
350. What is an example of individual charac-
B. whorl teristics evidence?
C. loop A. fingerprints
D. accidental B. car paint
C. blood stain pattern
345. Who is The Father of American Policing? D. dirt
A. Sherlock Holmes
351. Chromatography is
B. August Vollmer A. a laboratory test used to identify par-
C. Sir Alec Jeffereys ticular substances
D. Henry Galton B. a photographic process
C. a mapping technique
346. Applying skeletal analysis and techniques
D. used to identify shoe size
in archaeology to solving criminal cases.
A. Forensic Anthropology 352. Anything that tends to prove or disprove
a fact in contention
B. Forensic Palynology
A. testimony
C. Forensic Psychology B. evidence
D. Forensic Odontology C. chain of custody
E. Forensic Pathology D. none of above

353. After the initial photograph of evidence C. Chain of Custody

tested using ninhydrin was taken, some D. Ethical Standards
fingerprints appear on the side of evidence.

What is this most likely an indication of? 357. Which of the following is NOT a member
A. There were fingerprints on the paper of the Crime Scene Team?
which were significantly older than the A. prosecuting attorney
first ones
B. first police officer on the scene
B. The ninhydrin did not work properly
C. medics
and the test must be considered inconclu-
sive D. lab experts
C. The evidence was not fully dry when 358. Who developed a system to identify peo-
photographed ple using body measurements?
D. The evidence was handled by someone A. Mathieu Orfila
who was not wearing gloves
B. Francis Galton
354. silk C. Albert Osborn
A. collected from the cocoons from the D. Alphonse Bertillon
caterpillar
359. Define Criminalistics
it must be at 100 times longer than wide A. The examination of physical evidence
C. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol- B. Investigators of sudden, unexplained,
stery or violent death
D. The transfer of evidence such as a C. Anything that tends to prove or dis-
fiber from a source (such as a carpet) to prove a fact
a person (suspect), and then to another D. none of above
person (victim)
360. Crime scene investigators are on the
355. What is criminal law? scene of an aggravated burglary and be-
A. Deals with regulations & enforcement lieve there may be a fingerprint from the
of rights burglar on a bedroom doorknob in the
house. Select all of the individuals who
B. Passed by state legislature or
investigators should gather known prints
congress
from.
C. Deals with disputes between individu-
A. suspect
als or organizations
B. Neighbor from across the street who
D. none of above
discovered the burglar
356. Chronological documentation or paper C. Individual who lives in the bedroom
trail, showing the seizure, custody, con- D. All other housemates who have
trol, transfer, analysis, and disposition of touched the bedroom doorknob
evidence, physical or electronic
E. Any other friends or family who
A. Physical Evidence touched the bedroom doorknob within a
B. Rules of Evidence reasonable time frame

361. What did Sir Arthur Conan Doyle con- 366. What are the 2 factors that make out-
tribute to the field of forensic science? breaks and epidemics different?
A. popularized scientific crime-detection A. Location and contagion
methods B. Size and illness
B. developed procedures for testing C. Size and location
sperm
D. none of above
C. successfully tested arsenic in corpses
367. Which of these is a limitation of physical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. created a system of personal identifi- evidence?
cation
A. *person may be excluded from sus-
E. published the first valid, repeatable picion if physical evidence collected
DNA testing procedure at crime scene is different from stan-
dard/reference samples collected from
362. When hairs found at a crime scene look
that subject
similar to those collected from a suspect,
a forensic expert should say B. *investigators must find as many char-
acteristics as possible to compare one
A. They are a match substance with another
B. They rule out the suspect C. *physical evidence has great weight
C. They corroborate the evidence during jury deliberations
D. They could have a common origin D. all of these are limitations
363. Admissions, confessions, and statements 368. Physical evidence found in small, measur-
are considered able amounts
A. trace evidence
A. physical evidence
B. testimonial evidence
B. inadmissable evidence
C. primary evidence
C. testimonial evidence
D. secondary evidence
D. none of above
369. The latin word rigo means:
364. The first man-made fiber
A. death
A. Rayon B. discoloration
B. Acetate C. stiffness
C. Polyester D. temperature
D. Acrylic
370. How should muddy shoes that are to be
365. Which one is an example of a synthetic collected as evidence handled?
fiber? A. The shoes are placed into a plastic bag
and sent to the crime lab
A. Polyester
B. Using a scalpel, mud is scraped into a
B. Acrylic
plastic bag and sent to the crime lab
C. Nylon C. The shoes are placed in a paper bag
D. All of these and sent to the crime lab

D. Using a scalpel, mud is scraped into a 376. Relating to the application of scientific
paper bindle and sent to the crime lab knowledge to legal questions

A. forensic
371. Maintaining a log is essential to
present credible evidence in court. B. reasoning
C. jury
A. Turning off Filters
D. evidence
B. Chain of Command
C. Chain of Custody 377. ID of physical evidence should remove all
when determining the identity of the
D. Evidence ID Forms evidence.
A. reasonable doubt
372. Leaving a blood sample from a crime
scene out on the workbench for the week- B. people working on the case
end unattended is C. excess evidence
A. Unprofessional and unethical D. questions
B. Unprofessional, but not unethical 378. a tendency on the part of an individual or
C. Unethical, but not unprofessional group toward excessive or irrational sus-
piciousness and distrustfulness of others
D. Neither unethical nor unprofessional
A. Catathymic
373. Most items of evidence cannot be B. Psychosis
linked definitely to a single person or ob- C. Sociopath
ject
D. Paranoia
A. trace
379. What is the most common animal fiber?
B. circumstantial
A. Cotton
C. transient
B. Wool
D. physical C. Polyester
374. Which of the following does NOT occur D. Rayon
during the booking process?
380. Arson evidence should be stored in:
A. Mug Shots Taken A. Plastic bags
B. Fingerprints Taken B. Paper bags
C. Bail is Set C. Metal cans
D. Criminal History Search D. Bindles
381. Which of the following is considered Cir-
375. Amorphous means
cumstantial Evidence?
A. without plausible cause
A. eye witness testimony
B. without a defined shape B. Suspect’s alibi
C. fibers that are spun tightly together C. fingerprint
D. collection of indivisible fibers D. Victim’s testimony

382. A positive control is C. 1932

A. testing the substance you are using to D. 1967
test
387. What makes evidence plausible?
B. testing the substance you are testing
against A. When you think is nice
C. getting a positive when you should get B. When it is reasonable based on the ev-
a negative result idence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. getting a negative when you should get C. When it is reasonable based on your
a positive result bias
D. When your dog is the only one to blame
383. What is considered some thing we use to
fill in the gaps in our memory? 388. When are fibers considered individual ev-
A. smell idence?
B. touch A. When they are torn
C. sight B. when the yarn is twisted
D. hear C. When the yarn is knotted
E. All of these D. when two or more fibers are blended
384. crime-scene investigation 389. The final evaluator of forensic evidence is

A. a multidisciplinary approach in which the:
scientific and legal professionals work to- A. prosector
gether to solve a crime B. jury
B. the documented and unbroken trans- C. media
fer of evidence
D. police
C. (indirect evidence) evidence used to
imply a fact but not to prove it 390. In a crime scene sketch, there should al-
D. the first police officer to arrive at a ways be an arrow to show which way is
crime scene A. South
385. A mental state or disorder in which B. East
thoughts and emotions are so impaired C. West
that contact is lost with reality
D. North
A. Psychopathy
B. Paraphilia 391. synthetic polymer fibers
C. Psychiatry A. originated with petroleum products

and are non cellulose-based fibers
D. Psychosis
386. What year was the Federal Bureau of In- it must be at 100 times longer than wide
vestigation’s crime lab established? C. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol-
A. 1781 stery
B. 1864 D. fibers that have been spun together

392. A warrantless search may be conducted C. touch

under all of the following conditions EX-
D. sound
CEPT:

E. All of the senses
A. Involved parties give consent
B. Involved parties look guilty 397. when securing a crime scene the two
C. There is immediate danger that evi- most important factors are to
dence will be lost or destroyed A. scan the scene, separate the wit-
D. During emergency circumstances nesses
(someone’s life is in danger) B. safety of individuals, separate the wit-
nesses
393. The sagittal suture in the skull can be in-
vestigated to determine: C. see the scene, preserving evidence
A. age D. safety of individual, preserving evi-
B. gender dence
C. race 398. What is a Witness?

D. height A. Someone who saw the crime take
place
394. Which unit examines body fluids and or-
gans to determine presence or absence or B. Someone who has a friend who knows
poisons and drugs. This is frequently done the person that committed the crime
by the medical examiner’s office. C. A person who is the victim’s BFF
A. Odontology Unit
D. A police officer who learned of the
B. Toxicology Unit crime from a report
C. Biology Unit
399. What bone is used to determine height
D. Poison Control Unit from skeletal remains?
395. The principle that states that “the perpe- A. skull
trator of a crime will bring something to B. pelvis
the crime scene & leave with something
from it, & that both can be used as forensic C. fibula
evidence is known as Exchange Princi- D. sacrum
ple.
A. Bertollon’s 400. The first officer arriving at a crime scene,
after providing or obtaining medical assis-
B. Landsteiner’s
tance for the injured and effecting an ar-
C. Locard’s rest of suspects (if possible), should imme-
D. Orfila’s diately:
A. photograph the scene
396. Every second we are gathering data us-
ing: B. search for evidence
A. sight C. make a rough sketch of the scene
B. smell D. secure the scene

401. Which of these is a whorl? 407. Anything that tends to prove or disprove
A. central pocket loop something is
B. double loop A. evidence.
C. accidental B. a scientific law.
D. all of these C. a theory.
D. data.
402. What can the teeth tell you about the per-
son? used to profile and identify individu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
408.
A. Diet als in an investigation.
B. Afford dental care A. Expert Witness
C. Health B. DNA
D. Activity C. Forensic Entomology
D. none of above
403. the study of human skeletal system for
purposes of identifying unknown remains 409. Locard’s exchange principle implies all of
A. death the following except:
B. forensic pathology A. Fibers can be transferred from one
C. forensic entomology person’s clothing to another.
D. forensic anthropology B. Blood at a crime scene can be used to

identify blood type.
404. Eyewitness accounts vary considerably C. Hair from your pet may be transferred
from person to person. What you observe to your clothing.
depends greatly on which of the follow-
ing? D. Pollen from plants in your yard may be
found on your shoes.
A. Interest
E. All of the above are implied by Locard’s
B. Stress level exchange principle.
C. Number of people at the scene
410. A fingerprint pattern having no delta is
D. All of the above
a(n):
405. The procedure that a criminal uses when A. central pockey loop
committing a crime
B. plain whorl
A. corpus delecti
C. accidental
B. modus operandi
D. arch
C. Locard’s exchange principle
411. As an eyewitness, people are likely to
D. perception
view thesame scene in different ways de-
406. What is the database of DNA profiles? pending on:
A. AIFIS A. their positions.
B. IBIS B. their line of sight.
C. ILRC C. their familiarity with the area.
D. CODIS D. All of the answer choices.

412. declare someone to be guilty of a crime B. To the district attorney

A. acquittal C. To the lead detective in the case

B. appeal D. To the judge presiding over the case
C. verdict E. To all of the above
D. convict 418. Which of the following are minor
crimes?
413. What characteristic of cotton make it a
great source of fiber for clothing? A. violation
B. infraction
A. It is a polymer of keratin
C. misdemeanor
B. Stain resistant
D. felony
C. Fibers are easily woven and dyed
D. Fibers are extremely long 419. A house burned to the ground with one
victim inside. What is the BEST way for
414. Locard’s Exchange Principle is forensic scientists to identify the victim?
A. Dr. Locard’s secret steps to solve a A. Eyewitness account
crime B. Blood analysis
B. Dr. Locard’s famous restaurant C. Teeth
C. When two persons or objects come in D. Personal documents
contact they will exchange materials
420. Which person claims to have seen some-
D. A microscope can give you the evi- thing related to the crime? ?
dence to solve a crime.
A. eye witness
415. Who is the first person that’s called upon B. suspect
when a dead body is discovered?
C. detective
A. Medical Examiner
D. culprit
B. Forensic anthropologist
421. Determining the cause of death by exam-
C. Forensic psychiatrist ining a corpse.
D. A close friend A. Forensic Ballistics
416. Double Jeopardy means that: B. Forensic Anthropology
A. Evidence Wasn’t Present C. Forensic Polygraph
B. You Have a Right to a Lawyer D. Forensic Odontology
C. Right to Trial E. Forensic Pathology
D. You Cannot be Charged the Same 422. The study of the motion of bullets and
Crime Twice their examination for distinctive character-
istics after being fired.
417. Many lab technicians are used to analyze
A. Caliber
the various types of evidence found at a
crime scene. Where do they send the re- B. Ballistics
sults of their tests? C. Bullet track
A. To the first responding police officer D. Composite

423. The study of graphology is: 428. Primary crime scene

A. not necessarily accepted as part of A. a location where crime was took place
forensic science, but it can be used as a B. the documented and unbroken trans-
possible indicator of the writer’s person- fer of evidence
ality type.
B. accepted as part of forensic science, imply a fact but not to prove it
but it can be used as a possible indicator
of the writer’s personality type. D. evidence that (if true) proves an al-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
leged fact, such as an eyewitness account
C. not necessarily accepted as part of of crime
forensic science, but it can be used to de-
termine identity. 429. Forensic odontology refers to the study
D. None of these choices. of:
A. drugs
424. The formula used to determine the den-
B. pollen
sity of glass:
C. rocks
A. D = M/V
D. teeth
B. D = V/M
C. D = VM 430. A set of footprints that go into a build-
ing, then they exit out with one side of the
D. D = V+M
prints deeper on the right side than the left
425. How can you be a Good Observer? side. Then the footprints return into the
building again, then exit the building with
A. Run all experiments more than once. long strides and deeper impressions in the
B. Observe Systematically. front show that
C. Ask a lot of questions. A. the suspect walked in, walked out with
nothing, and stayed in the building
D. Collect all possible evidence.
B. the suspect ran in the building, walked
426. What is done during the External Au- out carrying something, and then ran out
topsy the building
A. Record all information C. the suspect walked in the building,
walked out carrying something, and then
B. Body tempreture
ran out of the building
C. Fingerprints are taken D. the suspect walked in the building,
D. Y-incision is made walked out carrying something, and then
walked out of the building
427. What is the process of bone replacing car-
tilage? 431. What might a forensic scientist be asked
to do in a murder trial?
A. Anthropology
A. Identify whose blood is on the murder
B. Ossification
weapon
C. Tendonitis
B. Testify to the mental state of the ac-
D. Osteoporosis cused

C. Talk about the illegal accounting prac- 437. Which of the following is something
tices of the victim prints found on a crime scene must have
in order to be of evidentiary value?

D. Explain what the victim was doing the
day before the crime A. full print
432. Would calculate trajectory of a bullet, B. minutiae
match bullet to a gun C. level three details
A. Arson Investigator D. loop
B. Firearms and Ballistics
438. Determines the admissibility of scientific
C. Crime Lab Director evidence into the courtroom.
D. Entomology A. The Daubert Exception
433. Which statement best describes the B. The Frye Standard
ridges in a whorl? C. Expert Witness
A. The ridges in the core enter and exit D. none of above
the same side of the finger
B. The ridges in the core enter and exit 439. linen
opposite sides of the finger A. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and
C. Ridges in the core form a circle light damage
D. none of above B. the passing of evidence, such as fiber,
434. Which crime lab unit is responsible for
examining body fluids and organs for the
into recognizable pattern
presence of drugs and poisons?
A. photography
B. toxicology 440. involves identifying, collecting, pre-
C. toolmarks serving and examining information from
computers or other digital devices.
D. evidence collection
A. Forensic computer and digital analysis
435. Which of the following is a type of indi- B. Forensic Engineering
vidual physical evidence?
C. Analyzing Evidence
A. fingerprint
D. none of above
B. blood
C. glass 441. Forensic
D. fibers A. Relating to the application of scientific
knowledge to legal questions
436. rigor mortis peaks how many hours after
B. What a person perceives using his or
death?
her senses
A. 36
C. A statement or assertion of informa-
B. 18 tion that can be verified
C. 8 D. Conclusions drawn from assumptions
D. 12 and known facts

442. What types of blood can a person with C. prosecutor

AB RECEIVE? D. plea bargain
A. B only
448. Four ways a crime scene can be docu-
B. AB, A, B, O
mented
C. AB and O only
A. photos, sketches, video, notes
D. A only
B. records, video, notes, and memories
443. Facts that help prove that an event took
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. photos, video, notes, and records
place
D. visions, memories, sketches and video
A. evidence
B. quantitative observation 449. What is another name for Forensic Sci-
ence?
C. physical change
A. Polygraph
D. sabotage
B. DNA Analysis
444. an arrangement between the prosecu-
C. Criminalistics
tor and defendant whereby the defendant
pleads guilty to a lesser charge. D. Anthropology
A. acquittal 450. First responder
B. convict A. the first police officer to arrive at a
C. plea bargain crime scene
D. Bill of Rights B. the documented and unbroken trans-
fer of evidence
445. the cuticle scales of the hair always point
toward the C. a location where crime was took place
A. root D. evidence that (if true) proves an al-
B. tip of the hair
of crime
C. follicle
451. Database developed and maintained by
D. medulla
the RCMP
446. unit deals with identification and A. SICAR
grouping of dried bloodstains, other body
fluids and hairs and fibers. B. PDQ
A. Biology Unit C. IAFIS

B. Physical Science Unit D. CODIS
C. Firearms Unit 452. Who is the person responsible for com-
D. none of above mitting a crime?
A. eye witness
447. the final decision if the person is innocent
or guilty B. suspect
A. verdict C. detective
B. deliberation D. culprit

453. Which of these is fingernail scrapings C. The scientific method

taken for D. Point-by-point analysis

A. DNA
458. Where was the first forensic science
B. Toxicology crime laboratory founded?
C. Physical Evidence A. Chicago
D. none of above B. New York
454. The forensic scientist has many duties. C. Boston
Which of these is NOT a job of a forensic D. Los Angeles
expert?
459. hair follicle
A. Present evidence in court
A. the actively growing root or base of
B. Make judgments without cause
hair containing DNA and living cells
C. Analyze evidence
B. material that connects an indivisual or
D. Search for evidence thing to a certain group
455. What is a suspect? C. a type of fibrous protein that makes up

the majority of the cortex of a hair
A. An excuse that basically says, “I didn’t
do it! D. the tough outer covering of a hair com-
posed of overlapping scales
B. Someone thought to have committed
the crime 460. Which unit of a basic crime lab examines
blood splatters?
C. A person who helped the criminal
A. Biology unit
D. A person who spilled punch on his
white tux B. Physical Science unit
C. Toxicology unit
456. What do you call someone who has seen
something related to a crime? D. Evidence Collection unit
A. eye witness 461. Forensics is the study and application of
B. detective to matters of law.
C. suspect A. science
D. culprit B. crime labs
457. An investigator takes a general survey of
the crime scene, hypothesizing, who might D. scientific method
have committed the crime based on the ev- 462. Who is the fictional detective created
idence present, and testing the evidence by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle in the late
that they find to see if it implicates a sus- 1800’s?
pect. The process is continued until a the-
ory can be proved with evidence. This is A. Sherlock Holmes
an example of what? B. Hans Solo
A. DNA profiling C. Edmond Locard
B. Forensic Science D. Mathieu Orfila

463. Which of the following is an example of A. Fiber

what forensic scientists do? B. Cuticle
A. Examine evidence C. Strand
B. Arrest suspects D. Tress
C. Interrogate witnesses
469. regenerated fibers
D. Give press conferences to the media
A. derived from cellulose and are mostly
plant in origin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
464. comparison microscope
A. a compound microscope that allows B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile,
the side by side comparison of the sam- it must be at 100 times longer than wide
ples, such as of hair or fibers C. a collection of mineral crystals formed
B. material that connects an indivisual or into recognizable pattern
thing to a certain group D. fibers that have been spun together
C. the tough outer covering of a hair com- 470. Biologists need additional copies of a
posed of overlapping scales DNA fragment. What tool should they
D. the centrel core of a hair fiber use?
465. A forensic anthropologist may help to cre- A. Gel Electrophoresis

ate a(n) to help with the identification B. PCR
of the victim. C. Restriction enzymes
A. dental profile D. This isn’t possible
B. DNA profile
471. Observations that use the senses to no-
C. autopsy chart tice what is around you
D. facial reconstruction A. evidence
466. Evidence that is going to change or dissi- B. qualitative observations
pate over time is called: C. physical change
A. Transient D. quantitative observations
B. Class 472. All of the following are considered direct
C. Individual evidence except:
D. Circumstantial A. Fingerprint
B. Confession
467. Where is DNA found in the body?
C. Video recording
A. Cells nucleus
D. Eyewitness statement
B. Heart
C. Cartilage 473. Father of Toxicology
D. Muscle A. Albert Osborn
B. Calvin Goddard
468. The smallest unit of textile material that
has a length many times greater than its C. Francis Galton
diameter is a(n) D. Mathieu Orfila

474. An example of circumstantial class evi- 480. natural fibers

dence is A. come from animals, plants, and min-

A. glass particles eral provided from fur, hair, and webbing
B. DNA B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile,
C. fingerprints it must be at 100 times longer than wide
D. fired bullet C. a collection of mineral crystals formed
475. The first step in a forensic soil compari-
son is: D. fibers that have been spun together
A. Color analysis 481. A skeleton is recovered from a crime

B. Texture analysis scene and is determined to be a male.
If the ulna measures 10 cm, how tall
C. Birefringence analysis would the victim have been? Use the for-
D. Density analysis mula:[3.70 x ulna length in cm] + 74 cm =
height
476. True or False:Trace evidence refers to
evidence found in small but measurable A. 87.7 cm
amounts. B. 11.1 cm
A. True C. 111 cm
B. False D. 1111 cm
question. 482. What includes the psychological angle,
studying the crime scene for motive, traits,
D. none of above
and behavior that will help to interpret the
477. Locard’s Principle states evidence?
A. every contact leaves trace evidence A. criminalistics
B. every criminal leaves shoe prints B. criminology
C. every criminal leaves fingerprints C. forensics
D. every criminal will be punished D. complex reasoning skills
478. atoms and molecules within glass which 483. What is a visible print?
are organized in a random structure
A. Can be seen with night vision glasses
A. Borosilicate
B. Dust or powder that is visible with fin-
B. Concentric Fractures ger prints
C. Amorphous Solid C. A substance that has been touched by
D. Isotropic the victim
479. Dust prints can be lifted using what D. can be seen by the naked eye
A. a shovel 484. Physical properties in soil analysis in-
B. a napkin clude:
C. a piece of paper A. Color
D. a film of plastic B. Geometric shape

C. Birefringence C. nolo contendere

D. All of the above D. material
485. Which person is considered to have pos- 491. The imprint left behind from a shoe at the
sibly committed a crime? crime scene is made by the shoe’s
A. eye witness A. rib
B. suspect B. bottom
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. detective C. Sole
D. neighbor D. ridges
486. Glass which is strengthened by introduc- 492. Type of Forensic Science that deals with
ing stress from rapid heating and cooling identification of victims based on skeletal
of its surface: remains
A. Tempered glass A. Toxicology
B. Soda lime glass B. Pathology
C. Float glass C. Entomology
D. Leaded glass D. Anthropology
487. Father of Anthropometry
493. Which bone is most commonly used to de-
A. Edmond Locard termine the height of the deceased?
B. Alphonse Bertillon A. sternum
C. Francis Galton B. femur
D. Mathieu Orfila C. clavicle
488. The most common synthetic fiber is D. humerus
A. nylon 494. Which indicator of time of death is based
B. polyester on microscopic organisms found in and
C. spandex around a body?
D. acrylic A. Decomposition
B. Livor Mortis
489. The refractive index measures the speed
of light in a vacuum to its speed in: C. Rigor Mortis
A. Any given substance D. Microbes
B. Water E. Algor Mortis
C. Glass 495. Soil with a texture like flour or baby pow-
D. Air der is probably composed mostly of:
A. Silt
490. is money put up to guarantee the de-
fendant will show up to court. B. Sand
A. arraignment C. Clay
B. bail D. Gravel

496. A written record of all people who have C. Criminologists work closely with law
had possession of an item of evidence. enforcement, while forensic scientists
work with academic institutions

A. Chain of Custody
D. Criminology is a type of forensic sci-
B. Trace Evidence
ence
C. Locard exchange
501. Database that contains chemical and color
D. none of above
info for auto paints
497. Which indicator of time of death is based A. SICAR
on insects found on a corpse? B. PDQ
A. Entomology C. IAFIS
B. Livor Mortis D. CODIS
C. Rigor Mortis
502. the specific body failure that leads to a
D. Microbes person’s death aka the “medical rea-
E. Algor Mortis son”
A. mechanism of death
498. A minor assault charge usually leads to
a(n) B. decomposition
A. Infraction C. manner of death
B. Misdemeanor D. cause of death
C. Felony 503. Where is the Femur Located?

D. None A. Thigh
B. Lower Leg
499. Who was the first to detect poison in a
corpse? C. Toes
A. Mathieu Orfila D. Fingers
B. Carl W. Sheele 504. What are fingerprints used for?
C. Henri-Louis Bayard A. determine eye color
D. Hans Gross B. Identification
E. Dr. Karl Landsteiner C. To help you fight crime.
D. none of above
500. What is the difference between criminol-
ogy and forensic science? 505. All evidence gathered at a crime scene
A. Criminology analyzes how crime af- must be
fects the community or society as a whole, A. labeled and documented
while forensic science analyzes individual
crimes and evidence B. analyzed in a scientific manner
B. Criminology is an applied science, C. handled carefully so not to contami-

while forensic science is an academic sci- nate the specimen
ence D. all of the above

506. Which of the following is NOT a major job 511. A skeleton is found buried at a campsite.
of a forensic scientist? What can examination of the skeleton tell
investigators about the victim?
A. Analyze physical evidence
A. Race and gender
B. Provide expert testimony
B. Occupation and income
C. Determine which evidence is admissi-
ble in court C. Height and weight at the time of death
D. Train others in proper recognition, col- D. Ethnicity and religion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lection and preservation of physical evi-
512. In 1932, the FBI Laboratory was opened
dence.
by:
507. The Latin term mortis refers to: A. Paul Kirk
A. death B. J. Edgar Hoover
B. rigor C. Herbert Hoover
C. life D. Edmond Locard
D. flesh 513. Which of the following CANNOT be deter-
mined from a person’s shoe impressions?
508. Which of the following is likely NOT
found in a basic fingerprint kit? A. Age
B. Body weight
A. black powder
C. Surface the person walks on
B. fingerprint tape
D. Activities of the wearer
C. super glue
D. camel hair brush 514. The first systematic system of individual
classification and identification was intro-
509. Biological evidence would include duced by
A. clothing, hats, shoes A. alphonse bertillion
B. blood, semen, saliva, bones, hair, DNA B. richard henry
C. paint chips, broken glass and chemi- C. william herschel

cals D. francis galton
D. soil and plant material 515. What are the four patterns to search for
evidence
510. Which of the following observations are
used to help identify a specific fiber? A. spiral, round, linear, quadrant
A. smell of the burned fiber B. grid, round, linear, zone
B. on contact with flame, does the fiber C. spiral, grid, quadrant, no pattern
coil or melt? D. spiral, grid, linear, quadrant
C. color and structure of the residue left
516. Which of the following answers repre-
after the fiber burns
sents the correct order of events in the
D. all of these choices criminal justice process?

A. Preliminary Hearing, Arraignment, D. DNA

First Appearance, Sentencing, Imprison-
521. This agency has the largest crime lab in
ment, Parole

the world.
B. First Appearance, Arraignment, Pre-
A. ATF
liminary Hearing, Sentencing, Imprison-
ment, Parole B. DEA
C. First Appearance, Preliminary Hear- C. CIA
ing, Arraignment, Sentencing, Imprison- D. FBI
ment, Parole
522. What is neutron activation analysis?
D. First Appearance, Preliminary Hear-
A. NAA
ing, Arraignment, Sentencing, Parole, Im-
prisonment B. NAS
C. technique for metal analyses utilizing
517. material that connects an individual or the characteristics of emitted radiation
thing to a group that share similar char- for the detection and quantitation of met-
acteristics als
A. trace evidence D. NAA and the long term
B. individual evidence
523. While taking pictures at the crime scene,
C. class evidence it is important to:
D. none of above A. Take pictures from far away. Getting
too close might contaminate the crime
518. loner grave robber; made items out of
scene.
human skin; selected, or targeted, middle-
age females who resembled his mother B. Only observe the pictures in black and
white.
A. Ted Bundy
C. Use a ruler to provide evidence of
B. Ed Gein
scale (size).
C. Joe Ball D. All of these are true.
D. Albert Fish
524. Ridge characteristics can be found in
519. measurement which determines how A. Fingerprints
light will refract within an object compared
B. Footbprints
to how light travels in a vacuum
C. Palm prints
A. Radial Cracks
D. None of these
B. Refractive Index
E. All of these
C. Angle of Refraction
525. A shoe impression is left in paint at a
D. none of above
crime scene. What type of impression is
520. Evidence that includes eyewitness ac- this?
counts A. Patent
A. physical evidence B. Latent
B. testimonial C. Plastic
C. trace D. Lasting

526. The technique by which DNA fragments 531. What is a culprit?

are placed in a gel and charged with elec- A. It is a person that likes to blame oth-
tricity is referred to as? ers.
A. DNA profiling B. A person trained to record, collect and
B. DNA electrophoresis test evidence found at a crime scene.
C. DNA typing C. Someone thought to have committed
D. DNA Fragmenting the crime.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The person that committed the crime.
527. AFIS contains approximately how many
fingerprint records? 532. initial survey of the crime scene (by lead
A. 500 trillion investigator) to gain an overview in or-
der to formulate a plan for processing the
B. 2 billion scene
C. 1 billion A. walk through
D. 50 million B. walk about
528. The temperature of a car’s hood would be C. crime scene investigation
considered which type of evidence? D. scanning
A. Transient
533. What is the #1 type of evidence that was
B. Transfer used to falsely convict people later proven
C. Pattern innocent?
D. Conditional A. DNA evidence
B. Unproven scientific methods
529. What does IAFIS stand for?
C. Faulty eyewitness testimony
A. Interactive Amalgamation of Finger-
print Identification Standardization D. Hair analysis
B. Intelligent Animated Fingerprint Iden- 534. To formally accuse someone of a crime is
tification Solution known as
C. Integrated Automated Fingerprint A. Infraction
Identification System
B. Misdemeanor
D. Internet Assisted Fingerprint Identity
Sequences C. Felony
D. Indicted
530. What is a latent print?
A. An invisible print that’s left behind by 535. to take a corpse’s temperature, foren-
oils or sweat coming off on an object sic investigators insert a thermometer into
the
B. A fingerprint provided by an eyewit-
ness A. mouth
C. The person that committed the crime B. liver
D. Things left at a crime scene on purpose C. armpit

or accidentally D. stomach

536. What is the study of blood? C. arch

A. Angiology D. ulnar loop

B. Archaeology 542. Which indicator of time of death is based
C. Biology on how close body temperature is to the
D. Hematology room temperature?
A. Decomposition
537. What is NOT a possible genotype for
someone with type B blood? B. Livor Mortis
A. BB C. Rigor Mortis
B. AB D. Microbes
C. BO E. Algor Mortis
D. none of above 543. Bloody fingerprints would be considered
538. One seed fiber is: A. Circumstantial, biological and individ-
ual types of evidence
A. cotton
B. coir. B. Direct, biological, and individual types
of evidence
C. hemp.
C. Direct, physical, and class types of ev-
D. jute idence
539. individual evidence D. Circumstantial, biological and class
A. a kind of evidence that identifies a par- types of evidence
ticular person or thing 544. Milkwaukee Cannibal, Milkwaukee Mon-
B. bits of pigment found in the cortex of a ster
hair A. Edmund Kemper
C. small but measurable amounts of phys- B. Joe Ball
ical or biological material found at crime
scene C. Jeffrey Dahmer
D. the actively growing root or base of D. H.H. Holmes
545. This pattern resembles a church steeple
540. What is the name of the collar bone? (bell tower).
A. Clavicle A. tented arch
B. Scapular B. accidental whorl
C. Sternum C. plain arch
D. Xiphoid D. central pocket loop whorl
541. Type of fingerprint where the ridges en- 546. oral or written assertion offered in a
ter in one side of the finger, exit from the court as proof of the truth of what is being
opposite side stated
A. loop A. Physical Evidence
B. whorl B. Testimonial Evidence

C. circumstantial evidence 552. A forensic investigator must be able to

do all of the following EXCEPT
D. crime scene
A. observe
547. What year did Francis Galton develop fin- B. interpret
gerprints as an identification tool used in
court? C. report
A. 1982 D. pass judgement
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 1892 553. Trace evidence
C. 1910 A. small but measurable amounts of phys-
D. 1988
scene
548. With a scale of 1 foot equal 1/4 inch, B. the documented and unbroken trans-
then 8 feet would be fer of evidence
A. 1 inch C. a location where crime was took place
B. 2 inches D. a kind of evidence that identifies a par-
ticular person or thing
C. 3 inches
D. 4 inches 554. Who devised the first system of personal
identification?
549. Which form of evidence can be associated A. Mathieu Orfila
with a group?
B. Carl W. Sheele
A. Class
C. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
B. Inidiviudal D. Alec Jeffreys
C. Testimonial E. Alphonse Bertillion
D. Transient
550. Any evidence found in the form of a phys- of decomposition:first stage of death
ical object A. fresh
A. testimonial B. bloat
B. trace evidence C. active decay
C. physical evidence D. advanced decay
D. fingerprints 556. The study of crime from a social per-
spective, including examining who com-
551. Suggested 12 matching points as a posi- mits crimes, why they commit them, their
tive ID for fingerprints: impact, and how to prevent them.
A. Galton A. Criminology
B. Locard B. Criminalistics
C. Chinese C. Forensics
D. Hoover D. none of above

557. Transfer evidence can include all of the 562. Person who determines the preliminary
following except cause of death at the crime scene and con-
ducts an autopsy

A. Hair that was transferred to a hair-
brush A. detective
B. The victim’s own blood gushing from a B. CSI unit
wound
C. medical examiner
C. The blood of the victim found on a sus-
pect D. attorney
D. A footprint 563. Wrote the first handbook on crime scene

investigation techniques:
558. This guy described the assistance that po-
lice should expect from scientists. A. Galton
A. Albert S. Osborn B. Locard
B. Hans Gross C. Gross
C. Alec Jeffreys D. Goddard
D. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle 564. Which entity maintains the largest crime
E. Carl W. Scheele laboratory in the world?
559. Whenever two objects come in contact, A. LAPD

there is a transfer of material was stated B. Scotland Yard
by
C. US Postal Service
A. Leuwenhook
D. FBI
B. Locard
C. Pasture 565. What type of evidence is impression evi-
dence?
D. Miranda
A. Class Only
560. Who was the first person to apply the B. Individual Only
principles of forensic science to a working
crime laboratory? C. Trace Only
A. Anton VanLeeuwenhoek D. Class or Individual, depending on the
characteristics
B. Shelly Learned
C. Edmond Locard 566. The unit applies principles and tech-
D. C. Sir Francis Galton niques of chemistry, physics, and geol-
ogy to the identification and comparison
561. The main ingredient in glass is: of crime-scene evidence.
A. carbon dioxide A. physical science
B. silica dioxide B. toxicology
C. sodium oxide C. biology
D. calcium oxide D. none of the above

567. The Rh factor was discovered when B. counterfeiting

studying which organism’s blood? C. forgery
A. Human
D. fraudulence
B. Chimpanzee
573. Who invented Luminol in the 1930’s?
C. Monkey
A. August Vollmer
D. Gorilla
B. Rudolph Virchow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
568. Where is the Ilium located?
C. Walter Specht
A. Chest
D. Walter McCrone
B. Head
C. Hip 574. What type of evidence is temporary; eas-
ily changed or lost; usually observed by
D. Lower Leg the first officer at the crime scene?
569. the stage in an insect’s life cycle when A. Pattern
the larva forms a capsule around itself and
B. Conditional
transitions into its adult form
C. Transfer
A. instar
D. Transient
B. pupa/pupae
C. larva/larvae 575. Who determines if search warrants are
D. death required?
A. Police Officers
570. This is a circular spiral pattern.
B. CSI Unit
A. accidental whorl
C. District Attorney
B. double loop
D. Detectives
C. central pocket loop whorl
D. plain whorl 576. Criminal investigations depend on the ob-
servation skills of all involved. Those in-
571. What must evidence be for it to be ad- volved include:
missible according to the Federal Rules of
A. police investigators
Evidence?
A. probative B. forensics scientists
B. material C. witnesses
C. probative and material D. All of these choices
D. be able to prove means, motive, or op- 577. Layers of bone include:

portunity
A. periosteum
572. The production of an imitation of cur- B. compact bone
rency, works of art, documents, and name-
C. cancellous bone
brand look-alikes for the purpose of decep-
tion. D. bone marrow
A. exemplar E. all of the above

578. is the time that has elapsed between a 583. The fingerprint classification system used
person’s death and when they were disin most English-speaking countries was de-
covered vised by:

A. algor mortis A. Herschel.
B. time of death B. Henry.
C. post mortem interval C. Vucetich.
D. rigor mortis D. Fauld.
579. In the examination of fibers, the first and 584. Which of the following best describes
most important step in the examination toxicology?
will be:
A. The science of skeletal analysis
A. Determining whether the fiber is natu-
B. The science of evidence collection and
ral or manufactured
analysis
B. Microscopically comparing for color
C. The science of dental analysis
and deameter using a comparison micro-
scope D. The science of poisons
C. Synthesizing long-chained molecules 585. The investigation of drugs and poisons in
into a polymer the body in cases of illegal drug use, drug
D. None of the above abuse, poisoning, and death is an example
of forensic:
580. Which covers the right to remain silent?
A. toxicology
A. 1st amendment
B. ontology
B. 2nd amendment
C. anthropology
C. 4th amendment
D. pathology
D. 5th amendment
586. Home medical test kits such as diabetes,
581. Wrote a famous paper on natural toxins: pregnancy, and HIV are examples of rapid:
A. Locard A. diagnostic tests
B. Orfila B. prognostic tests
C. Lattes C. diagnostic procedures
D. Gross D. prognostic procedures
582. What type of evidence is not found at a 587. What are two types of 2 dimensional
crime scene? prints?
A. Documentary evidence A. latent and visible impressions
B. Physical Evidence B. right and wrong impressions
C. Electronic Evidence C. positive and negative impressions
D. Auditory Evidence D. upper and lower impressions

588. Estimations of the postmortem interval 593. Which method is used to identify differ-
(PMI) using entomological evidence must ent STR markers?
take into account
A. x-raying DNA samples
A. the species of insect present
B. extracting the mtDNA from the gene
B. weather conditions
C. adding fluorescent dyes to the PCR re-
C. geographical locations of the dece- action
dent’s body
D. calculating the allele frequency
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. all of these
594. Who stated in his principle that whenever
589. Which is the BEST explaintion of “chain
objects come in contact with each other,
of custody”
there is a cross-transfer/exchange of evi-
A. The chain of victims affected by the dence?
crime
A. Mathieu Orfilla
B. The evidence that is ruled inadmissible
B. James Marsh
in court
C. The people who are under arrest C. Edmond Locard
D. The documented and unbroken trans- D. Hans Gross

fer of evidence
595. Sequence of projectiles can be determined
590. What type of tire mark shows distance by:
since brakes were applied and speed? A. Sequence can not be determined
A. Skids Marks B. The first projectile will create more ra-
B. Yaw Marks dial lines
C. Tire Scrub C. The second projectile forms more con-
D. Skid Scrub centric lines
D. The fracture line of a second projectile
591. The custodial staff waxes the floor at
will terminate on an existing fracture line
Walmart but doesn’t put out a sign that
the floor is slippery. Dina slips, falls and 596. The FBI’s database used for sharing fin-
breaks her arm. She sues Walmart. gerprints is
A. Civil Law A. IBIS
B. Criminal Law
B. IAFIS
C. Statutory Law
C. CODIS
D. Case Law
D. USDA
592. Which of the following is NOT a plea a
suspect can offer? 597. The adult human body has bones.
A. Guilty A. 106
B. Double Jeopardy B. 206
C. Nolo Contendere C. 350
D. Guilty by reason of insanity D. 450

598. Crime scene reconstruction 603. Which of the following best summarized
A. a hypothesis of sequence of event the Locard Exchange Principle?

from before the crime was committed A. Evidence must be gathered in observ-
though its commission able, empirical and measurable methods
B. the documented and unbroken trans- B. Every contact with another person,
fer of evidence place or thing results in an exchange of
C. (indirect evidence) evidence used to physical materials
imply a fact but not to prove it C. Always practice suspicion on a crime
D. the first police officer to arrive at a scene based on sound reasoning and fact
crime scene D. Crime scenes, evidence and the crim-
inal will undergo change as time pro-
599. A person harmed, injured, or killed as a gresses making them unrecognizable
result of a crime
A. officer 604. Used to develop prints using vapors be-
cause it sublimes at room temperature.
B. victim Not permanent.
C. out of luck A. Iodine
D. suspect B. Superglue
600. Forced the adoption of fingerprints rather C. Powder
than anthropometry for identification of D. none of above
criminals:
A. Hoover 605. Phalanges are:
B. Henry A. finger bones
C. Doyle B. arm bones
D. Locard C. leg bones

D. spinal bones
601. How do you gather fingerprints at a
crime scene? 606. Which of the following was NOT one of
A. Pour plaster casts of the prints the categories of information included in
Bertillion’s system?
B. Dust with black powder
A. body measurements
C. Photograph the prints
B. fingerprint collection
D. Test for DNA
C. descriptions of marks on the body
602. In a crime scene sketch, to show where D. morphological descriptions
a dead body or weapon is located, one
should measure and draw the distance 607. The person thought to be capable of com-
from the evidence mitting the crime.
A. 1 immovable landmark A. Guilty
B. 2 immovable landmarks B. Suspect
C. 3 immovable landmarks C. Alibi
D. none of above D. Accomplice

608. Who developed the first DNA profiling 613. Flotation is a method used by scientists
test? to determine:
A. Alec Jeffries A. Density of glass
B. Edmond Locard B. Mass of glass
C. Calvin Goddard C. Refractive index of glass
D. Albert S. Osborn D. Temperature of glass
E. Hans Gross
NARAYAN CHANGDER
614. Developed a system for cataloging crimi-
609. All of the following are ways to improve nals using body measurements:
our observational skills except A. Locard
A. Be sure to look at the entire area, not B. Bertillon
just the body, weapons, or signs of break-
C. Galton
in.
D. Henry
B. Observe everything-big and small.
C. Write down and record everything you 615. Type of fingerprint that is not visible un-
find. less “developed”
D. When collecting evidence, record only A. plastic
those things that you are sure are impor- B. visible
tant.
C. pliable
610. The documentation of all evidence and D. latent
where it is at all times is called
616. When is an investigation biased?
A. observation
A. Only at the beginning
B. deductive reasoning
B. When we have an opinion before con-
C. crime scene reconstruction
sidering all the evidence
D. chain of custody
C. When you consider all the evidence be-
611. Observations that deal with a number or fore forming an opinion
amount are called D. When evidence is reasonable
A. Operational observations
617. Small molecules that may bond together
B. Quantitative observations to become polymers are
C. Qualitative observations A. polymers
D. none of above B. fibers
612. When a person wrongly convicted is C. monomers
proven innocent and regains their free- D. none of these choices
dom.
A. This doesn’t happen 618. An individual whom the court determines
to process knowledge relevant to the trial
B. Paroled that is not expected of the average layper-
C. Convicted son
D. Exonerated A. defendant

B. judge 624. The thought that everyone leaves a trace

C. expert witness of themselves is known as the Princi-
ple.

D. prosecutor
A. Locard
619. A field that combines the practice of psy- B. Loncar
chology and the law.
C. Liberty
A. Forensic Ballistics
D. Evidence
625. What type of blood can receive any type
C. Forensic Psychology of blood?
D. Forensic Odontology A. A
E. Forensic Pathology B. B
620. The first-responding police officer should C. AB
keep a record of anyone who enters or D. 0
leave the crime scene. This is called:
626. what is the main job of a forensic scien-
A. chain of command
tist
B. chain of custody
A. examine the associations among peo-
C. security log ple, places, things, and events involved in
D. evidence log crimes
B. study effects of drugs and alcohol
621. Facts that prove an event took place
C. disprove fantasy
A. evidence
D. none of above
B. physical change
C. quantitative observation
ple of a crime scene?
D. sabotage
A. Hit-and-Run
622. What is the most accurate place to deter- B. Kidnapping
mine body temperature? C. Drive by Shooting
A. Rectal D. Jaywalking
B. Liver
628. All evidence from a crime scene should be
C. Armpit measured
D. Ear A. Using the metric system
623. Which of the following is a manufactured B. Using triangulation
fiber? C. From two immovable objects
A. Cotton D. From the nearest exit
B. Wool
629. How many bones are there in the human
C. Nylon body?
D. Silk A. 208

B. 126 635. Database containing over 17, 000

C. 206 footwear entries
D. 80 A. CODIS
B. IAFIS
630. Fibers are considered what kind of evi-
C. SICAR
dence?
D. NIBIN
A. Individual
636. Which chemical produces a brown print
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Class
that should be photographed because it
C. Direct fades?
D. Indirect A. Cyanoacrylate
631. In cases that have been overturned by B. Superglue
the Innocence Project, eyewitness testi- C. Iodine
mony was incorrect of the time.
D. none of above
A. 98%
637. What is an alibi?
B. 25%
A. A person who helped commit the crime
C. 87%
B. A friend of the perpetrator
D. 70%
C. An excuse that basically says, “I didn’t
632. The national fingerprint database is do it!”
called D. A special investigator who studies fin-
A. AFIS gerprints.
B. CODIS 638. If a lot of people in the United States got
C. FACES the flu at once, it would be an example of
D. Innocence Project A. An outbreak
B. An epidemic
633. Which type of evidence is the most com-
mon? C. A pandemic
A. circumstantial D. none of above
B. direct 639. Evidence can provide

C. testimonial A. proof that a crime has been committed
D. fingerprints B. establish key elements of a crime
C. exonerate the innocent
634. What is civil law?
D. all of the above
A. Deals with regulations & enforcement
of rights 640. the period of active hair growth is called
the stage.
congress A. telogen
C. Deals with disputes between individu- B. catagen
als or organizations C. anagen
D. none of above D. imagen

641. what is pathology 646. Described the uses of physical evidence

A. investigation of sudden, unexplained, in solving crimes

or violent death A. Locard
B. looking into foot marks B. Henry
C. study of names C. Hoover
D. none of above D. Gross
642. What is direct evidence? 647. Forensic Scientist that determines the
cause and manner of death
A. Objects found at the crime scene
A. Entomologist
B. Evidence provided by an eyewitness
B. Pathologist
C. Things provided by a victim with agree-
ments from the jury. C. Odontologist
D. A direct match to a criminal. D. Anthropologist
643. Person thought to be capable of commit- 648. Applies principles and techniques of chem-
ing a crime istry, physics and geology to crime scene
investigation.
A. victim
A. Biology Unit
B. suspect
B. Physical Science Unit
C. alibi
C. Firearms Unit
D. criminal
D. none of above
644. Deductive Reasoning
649. Who created the “Nutshell Studies of Un-
A. deriving the consequences from the explained Death”?
A. Francis Galton
B. the ability to identify its component
parts, to organize information for decision B. William Nicol
making, to establish criteria for evalua- C. Frances Glessner Lee
tion, and to draw appropriate conclusions. D. Rupolph Virchow
C. A statement or assertion of informa-
tion that can be verified 650. Responsible for the acceptance of docu-
ments as scientific evidence in courts:
D. A statement or assertion of informa-
tion that can be verified A. Henry
B. Locard
of decomposition:also know as black pu- C. Hoover
trefaction D. Osborn
A. fresh
651. Hair is helpful in solving old crimes be-
B. bloat cause
C. active decay A. hair on a suspect never changes
D. advanced decay B. hair always contains DNA evidence

C. hair takes little room to store in evi- 657. Which of the following is not one or the
dence closets rights in a Miranda warning?
D. hair does not easily decompose A. right to not be searched
B. right to remain silent
652. Which of the following is something un-
C. right to an attorney
usual or specific the criminal does or leaves
behind at the crime scene? D. right to have an attorney present dur-
ing any questioning
A. modus operandi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
658. Who is known as the father of forensic
B. Signature
toxicology?
C. Profile pattern A. Mathieu Orfila
D. Decision process model B. Albert Osborn
653. Match description with the correct stage C. Hans Gross

of decomposition:odor and insect activity D. Calvin Goddard
decrease
659. Superior means:
A. fresh A. above
B. bloat B. below
C. active decay C. beside
D. advanced decay D. under
660. Which type of print must be developed?
654. process used to increase the strength of
glass A. Latent
A. Borosilicate B. Patent
C. Plastic
B. Density
D. none of above
C. Tempering
661. After getting up from your desk chair,
D. Anisotropic
you see that you transferred one of your
hairs to the chair. This is an example of
655. Urine goes to
what?
A. Trace Evidence A. PrimaryTransfer
B. DNA B. SecondaryTransfer
C. Toxicology C. TertiaryTransfer
D. none of above D. Quaternary Transfer
656. Rigor mortis means 662. Choose all of the variables affecting di-
gestion
A. Death stiffness
A. The amount
B. death color B. Type
C. death bloat C. Temperature
D. death heat D. Is not affected by stress

663. Database containing 110, 000 profiles 668. direct transfer

from unsolved crime scene evidence A. the passing of evidence, such as fiber,

A. CODIS from victim to suspect or vice versa
B. NIBIN B. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and
light damage
C. PDQ
D. IAFIS into recognizable pattern
664. In many mammals, hair can be very fiber from a source (such as a carpet) to
dense, and it is then referred to as: a person (suspect), and then to another
A. Coat person (victim)
B. Fur 669. the scientific examination of physical ev-
C. Pelt idence for legal purposes
A. criminalistics
D. Down
B. criminology
665. A crime scene sketch should include all of C. deductive reasoning
the following EXCEPT:
D. none of above
A. A label to indicate the direction of
North on the diagram 670. melanin granules
A. bits of pigment found in the cortex of a
B. A scale of Size
hair
C. The type of Search pattern detectives B. the tough outer covering of a hair com-
used to make a sketch posed of overlapping scales
D. All of the above should be included C. the central core of a hair fiber
D. the actively growing root or base of
666. Who discovered that blood can be divided
into many types such as A, B, AB, and O?
A. Dr. Karl Landsteiner 671. An example of transient evidence would
include
B. Albert S. Osborn
A. Soil
C. Alec Jeffreys B. DNA
D. Calvin Goddard C. Hair
E. Henri-Louis Bayard D. Perfume
667. In general, a female skeleton will have a 672. Type of Forensic Science that deals with
pelvis that is autopsies and determining the cause of
death
A. wider.
A. Toxicology
B. narrower. B. Pathology
C. thinner. C. Entomology
D. smoother. D. Odontology

673. Received Nobel Prize for discovering the 678. The oldest part of the hair is the:
ABO Blood Types
A. Middle
A. Hans Gross B. Tip
B. Alphonse Bertillon C. Root
C. Karl Landsteiner D. Shaft
D. Edmond Locard
679. An evidence seal must have what?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
674. Which is NOT an example of transient ev- A. name, date, case number
idence?
B. initials, date, time
A. odor
C. type of evidence, initials, date
B. temperature
D. case number, evidence number, name,
C. witness memory date, time, agency
D. broken glass
680. Developed a statistical method for cate-
gorizing fingerprints:
675. What is the #1 type of evidence that was
used to free those wrongly convicted? A. Galton
A. DNA evidence B. Locard
B. Unproven scientific methods C. Gross
C. Faulty eyewitness testimony D. Bertillon
D. Hair analysis 681. When faced with a gap in our recollection
or memory, the brain will:
676. Which of the following is a molecule la-
beled with a radioactive isotope, dye, or A. create a blank space and let you know
enzyme that is used to locate a particular you do not remember
sequence or gene on a DNA molecule? B. fill in the gap with information that may
A. Restriction Enzyme not be accurate
B. DNA Fingerprint C. connect the hemispheres which allows

accurate recall
C. DNA probe
D. compensate by using the olfactory cen-
D. Genome ter which is usually not used during mem-
ory recall.
677. If a forensic anthropologist uses their
thumb to check the width of the notch on 682. Failing to include the limitations of a test
the pelvic, what are they trying to deter- in statements made while testifying as an
mine? expert witness is considered
A. age A. Ethical
B. gender B. Invalid
C. weight C. Misleading
D. childbirth D. Perjury

683. law results from legislative action 688. Trace Evidence

and is thought of the “law on the books”. A. Material that comes from a proven or

A. Procedural known source
B. Civil B. What is said in court by a competent
witness; also called direct evidence or
C. Statutory “prima facie” evidence
D. Criminal C. Physical Evidence found at a crime
scene in small but measurable amounts.
684. The burning or attempted burning of prop-
erty with or without the intent to defraud D. A trace of something
is:
689. A forensic entomologist would study
A. Fraud what on the corpse?
B. Arson A. finger bones
C. Vandalism B. insects
D. Larceny C. blood
D. muscle tissue
685. Which statement is true? mDNA
690. Which of the following is not considered
A. links an individual with male family
physical evidence?
members
A. soil
B. is individual evidence
B. paint chips
C. is usefull with old and degraded re-
C. glove
mains
D. testimony
D. is very fragile and does not preserve
well 691. Circumstantial evidence
686. When was the earliest known use of A. (indirect evidence) evidence used to
blood splatter evidence imply a fact but not to prove it
B. the documented and unbroken trans-
A. 1100’s
fer of evidence
B. 1500’s C. the first police officer to arrive at a
C. 1700’s crime scene
D. 1900’s D. small but measurable amounts of phys-
687. How does sand compare to soil? scene
A. sand is only found at the beach 692. Logical
B. soil never contains sand A. Conclusions drawn from assumptions
C. sand is one of the mineral components and known facts
in soil-the largest mineral in terms of size B. What a person perceives using his or
D. sand is one of the mineral components her senses
in soil-the smallest mineral in terms of C. A statement or assertion of informa-
size tion that can be verified

D. deriving the consequences from the C. chain of custody

D. record of custody
693. It is important to separate witnesses at
a crime scene in order to 698. Who established the first crime lab?
A. Protect them in case the perpetrator is A. Edmond Locard

among them B. J. Edgar Hoover
B. Prevent contamination of evidence C. Alphonse Bertillon
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Prevent them from talking and forming D. Theodore Roosevelt
a collusion
D. Prevent them from leaving the scene 699. An example of physical individual evi-
dence is
694. If everyone in the school got the flu, that
A. paint chips
would be an example of
A. An outbreak B. fired bullet
B. An epidemic C. fibers
C. A pandemic D. ink cartridge

D. none of above 700. The chain of custody begins:
695. Which of the following is NOT a means A. When an item of evidence is dropped
that CSI investigators use to document a by the suspect
crime scene?
B. When an item of evidence is collected
A. Videos
C. When an item of evidence is brought
B. Photographs to the station
C. Notes D. none of above
D. Interviewing witnesses
701. Deep consistent footprints may give in-
696. The amendment that outlines the require- formation about what?
ments for lawful search and seizure
A. a person’s height
A. 1st
B. how much money they have
B. 2nd
C. their weight
C. 4th
D. how slow they were walking
D. 5th
702. Mathiew Orfila is considered the of
697. The ability to establish the exact where-
forensic toxicology.
abouts of an item of evidence and under
whose control it was from its collection at A. father
the crime scene to its presentation in the B. son
courtroom and everywhere in between is
called C. uncle
A. chain of command D. brother
B. record of evidence E. sister

703. Which scale pattern identifies human 709. What is an epidemic?

hair?
A. A non-contagious disease spreading in

A. Imbricate a small area
B. Coronal B. A non-contagious disease spreading in
C. Spinous a large area
D. None of these C. A contagious disease spreading in a
small area
704. This person gets access to collect/record
evidence FIRST at a crime scene. D. A contagious disease spreading in a
large area
A. Sketch Artist
B. Pathologist 710. A person thought to be guilty of a crime
C. Engineer or offense
D. Photographer A. victim
705. Which of the following would not be at B. officer

the crime scene? C. suspect
A. Police
D. bad guy
B. District Attorney
C. Medical Examiner 711. Type of forensics that uses insects to de-
termine time and location of death.
D. Coroner
A. Odontology
706. Which type of prints would have a nar-
row window in which to recover them? B. Serology
A. water footprints C. Anthropology

B. footprints in dirt D. Entomology
C. footprints in blood
712. Calvin Goddard was the father of
D. footprints in ink
A. Ballistics
707. Which form of evidence refers to what is
B. Microscopy
said in court by a competent witness?
A. Class C. Forensic Anthropology
B. Testimonial D. Blood Stain Identification

C. Individual
713. Mrs. Woodley is missing and the police
D. Transient want her DNA. The best place to find it
would be in Mrs. Woodley’s
708. Microscopic hair analysis
A. Tennis shoes
A. yields individual evidence.
B. can prove a suspect’s guilt. B. Hair brush
C. is used to exclude a suspect. C. Dishes
D. can determine maternal inheritance. D. Bank account statement

714. Which person is responsible for investi- B. question a suspect

gating a crime? C. sign a cause of death document
A. eye witness D. search for evidence
B. suspect
720. Who discovered DNA “fingerprints”?
C. detective A. August Vollmer
D. neighbor B. Edmond Locard
NARAYAN CHANGDER
715. A process in which black ink is separated C. Sir Alec Jeffreys
into the colors that combine to form the D. Sir Edward Richard Henry
black color
721. Most wrongful convictions seem to be the
A. chromatography result of:
B. forensic science A. Improper evidence collection
C. biology B. Faulty eyewitness testimony
D. earth science C. Contamination of evidence
716. Which of the following is a type of au- D. Out of date investigating equipment
topsy 722. What is evidence that is in the form of a
A. Clinical statement from an eyewitness describing
B. Scientific the accident or crime scene called?
C. Experimental A. Testimonial
B. Trace
D. none of above
C. Suspect
717. Define Infraction
D. Arson
A. In evidence law, tending to prove
something 723. Jaywalking is a type of
A. misdemeanor
B. Violation of a rule of law that is not pun-
ishable by prison B. felony
C. Breach of a right, duty, or law C. infraction
718. The average hair grows how much per 724. Toes and fingers are called
month? A. bones
A. 1.3cm B. carpals
B. 2.4cm C. tendons
C. .5cm D. phalanges
D. 3.2cm 725. Who established the FBI in 1905?
A. Franklin Delanor Roosevelt
719. The forensic scientist has many duties.
Which of these in NOT a job for a foren- B. J. Edgar Hoover
sic scientist? C. Woodrow Wilson
A. give evidence in court D. Theodore Roosevelt

726. In of physical evidence, forensic sci- A. Specialist

entists must put the suspect specimen and B. CSI Unit
the standard reference sample through the

same tests. C. District Attorney
A. examination D. Medical examiner
B. processing 732. What antigens are present in a person
C. identification with type B-blood?
D. comparison A. B, only
B. B and Rh
727. A change in the arrangement of the parts
of a substance that results in a new sub- C. A and Rh
stance. D. A, only
A. chemical change
733. The first 10 Amendments to the US Con-
B. qualitative observations stitution.
C. physical change A. Bill of Rights
D. quantitative observations
B. Frye Standard
728. Which of the following is an example of C. appeal
individual evidence
D. verdict
A. a gun
734. What does the Innocence Project use to
B. bullets from the gun
exonerate falsely convicted individuals?
C. a burnt match
A. DNA
D. DNA
B. RNA
729. Match description with the correct stage C. DNA & RNA
of decomposition:autolysis begains
D. eyewitness testimony
A. fresh
B. bloat 735. To preserve 3 dimensional impressions
C. active decay
A. a casting has to be made
D. advanced decay
B. remove the footprint with a piece of
730. Sharing gossip about your supervisor get- plastic
ting divorced is
C. take a photograph of the impression
A. Unethical and unprofessional
D. sketch the impression on paper
B. Unethical, but not unprofessional
736. The first appearance includes:
C. Unprofessional, but not unethical
A. A Plea
D. Not unprofessional or unethical
B. Presentation of Witnesses
731. Who determines the preliminary (origi-
nal) cause of death at the crime scene and C. appointed attorney
performs the autopsy? D. Bail is Set

737. The three main types of fingerprints are 743. Which statement is an observation?
classified as
A. That house is empty because there are
A. Loops, whorls and deltas no lights on.
B. Whorls, bifurications and arches B. Her hair is brown.
C. Loops, whorls and arches C. Her hair is brown because she dyed it.
D. Arches, core and deltas
738. The process of testing to identify DNA D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
patterns or type is?
744. The first to arrive at a crime scene are
A. DNA Electrophoresis
usually:
B. DNA Profiling
A. crime scene investigators
C. Serology
B. medical examiners
D. DNA typing
C. police officers
739. Which is more reliable:Physical Evidence
or Testimonial Evidence? D. detectives
A. Physical Evidence 745. The first FBI Crime Lab opened in what
B. Testimonial Evidence year?
C. Both Equally Reliable A. 1909
D. Neither are Reliable B. 1920
740. Who devised the first scientific system of C. 1932
personal identification called anthropome- D. 1969
try?
A. Alphonse Bertillon 746. What is Calvin Goddard known for?
B. Hans Gross A. first DNA profile
C. Leone Lattes B. firearms specialist
D. Albert Osborn C. identifying blood types
741. Which of the following events occur dur- D. writing about the validity of science
ing the arraignment? when solving crimes
A. Mug Shots E. successful testing procedures for poi-
B. Plea Entered son
C. Bail is Set
747. Foot Length= Height*(0.15). On aver-
D. Evidence is Examined age, what would be the footprint size for
a 6’2” suspect.
742. The main purpose of hair is to:
A. Protect against sunlight A. 11.0 to 11.5
B. Decrease friction B. 10.0 to 10.5

C. Aid in sensory C. 9.0 to 9.5
D. Regulate body temperature D. 12.0 to 12.5

748. Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft B. Statements made by eyewitnesses to
earth can be best preserved by: police during initial investigation of the
crime scence

A. photographing and casting with dental
stone C. Statements made by the prosecution
B. photographing and then use of the or defense during court proceedings
electrostatic lifting technique. D. Statements made by expert witnesses
under oath during court proceedings
C. It is not possible to accurately pre-
serve such markings 754. A violation of a rule or law that is NOT
D. dusting with powder punishable by prison is a
A. infraction
749. Database containing criminal history and
fingerprints for nearly 50 million people B. arraignment
A. NIBIN C. indictment
B. CODIS D. violation
C. IAFIS 755. Why must the chain of custody be main-

tained?
D. SICAR
A. so that is not tampered with
750. The future of fingerprinting includes: B. so that there is a record
A. high resolutions scanning to 500-1000 C. so that it is admitted into court
dots per inch
D. all of the choices are correct
B. nanoparticles in the dusting powder
756. What is the database for DNA called?
C. chemical analysis of the actual print it-
self A. AFIS
D. all the choices B. CODIS
C. alibi
751. When a bullet penetrates a panel of glass,
it leaves a crater shaped hole that: D. DNAinc
A. Forms randomly 757. The cartridges in a revolver are held in

the
B. Is smaller on the entrance side
A. Cylinder
C. Is wider on the entrance side
B. Magazine
D. Creates concentric fractures first
C. Barrel
752. Define class evidence D. Breech
A. It identifies a group of people
758. Who developed the first method for test-
B. It identifies only one person ing the presence of arsenic in corpses?
C. It means you are from RMHS A. Carl Wilhelm Scheele
D. It identifies the prime suspect B. Mathieu Orfila
753. Testimony refers to C. Francois-Emmanuel Fodere
A. Statements made by suspects while in D. Valentin Ross
police custody E. Calvin Goddard

759. Tendons connect to necrophilia, cannibalism and the perma-

A. bone to bone nent preservation of body parts
B. joint to bone A. Joe Ball

B. John Wayne Gacy
C. muscle to bone
C. Ed Gein
D. muscle to muscle
D. Jeffrey Dahmer
760. A characteristic of natural fibers is that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
they 765. Able to match projectiles to firearms
A. are stronger than synthetic fibers A. Toxicology
B. will not break down when exposed to B. Ballistics
bright light C. Criminalistics
C. melt at a lower temperature that syn- D. Serology
thetic fibers
766. What is the study of human body mea-
D. are affected by microscopic organisms
surements derived from the Greek work
761. Interpreting information received from meaning man?
the senses A. Anthropometry
A. fact B. Dactyloscopy
B. perception C. Physiology
C. deductive reasoning D. Anophysical
D. opinion
767. The Latin term for “forensic” means
762. Jurors that watch crime shows expect A. forum, a public place
more advanced evidence in courts. This
B. science applied to the law
phenomenon is called the
C. solving crimes
A. The lie to me effect
D. finding evidence
B. The Psych effect
C. The NCIS effect 768. True or False.Due Process means legal
fairness.
D. The CSI effect
A. True
763. From wrist to fingertip, what is the order B. False
of bones?
C. Poor test questions
A. Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
D. none of above
B. Phalanges, metacarpals, carpals
C. Carpals, phalanges, metacarpals 769. The first person on the scene
D. Metacarpals, carpals, phalanges A. Medical examiner

B. CSI investigator
764. outcast who murdered 17 teenage boys
and young men between 1978 and 1991. C. First Responder
Many of his later murders involved D. none of above

770. The following is not a classification of fin- B. What is ethical

gerprints C. What is legal

A. arches D. What is professional
B. loops
776. What is the difference between a natural
C. twists and synthetic material?
D. whorls A. Natural material is made from chemi-
771. First to use fingerprints as personal iden- cals and synthetic is made from nature
tification: B. Natural material is made directly from
A. Henry nature and synthetic material is made
from chemicals
B. Bertillon
C. Natural material is made from
C. Galton petroleum and synthetic material is made
D. Chinese from wool
D. Natural material is made from trees
772. A young girl is missing, and investigators
and synthetic materials are made from
find a stained article of clothing where she
plastics
was last seen. Testing the stain can tell in-
vestigators if the stain was: 777. The Will and William West case brought
A. Twenty days old about the end of using body measurement
(anthropology) to record and identify indi-
B. Animal blood
viduals and started the use of fingerprints
C. An accidental spill. for identification in the year
D. Caused by the killer. A. 1895
773. Over 60% of the population has this type B. 1903
of pattern. C. 1905
A. loops D. 1913
B. whorls
778. Who invented the polarizing microscope
C. arches in 1828?
D. ripples A. William Nichol
774. This pattern is slanted towards the radial B. Sherlock Holmes
bone, the thick bone on the thumb side of C. Francis Galton
the hand. D. Walter McCrone
A. radial loop
779. On which of these surfaces could a fin-
B. ulnar loop gerprint be recovered with superglue fum-
C. double loop ing?
D. plain whorl A. glass
775. Which of the following changes depen- B. clothing

dent on who you are talking to? C. paper
A. What is moral D. brick

780. Invisible prints left by body secretions 786. Type of Forensic Science that deals with
are fingerprints. body fluid evidence
A. latent A. Odontology
B. impressionist B. Anthropology
C. patent C. Serology
D. plastic D. Entomology
781. if a person has an A phenotype what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
787. What does Bail mean?
could be the genotype
A. Money put up to guarantee that the de-
A. AA fendant will appear in court
B. BO
B. A hearing before a magistrate or judge
C. AO to determine whether a person charged
D. OO with a crime should be held for trial
C. A serious crime
782. Footprint evidence is typically
A. a hand print D. none of above
B. a shoe print 788. Paper bindle

C. a footprint with socks on A. a folded paper used to hold trace evi-
D. any body part print dence
783. An example of direct evidence might be
fer of evidence
A. A video tape of the crime
C. a location where crime was took place
B. The murder weapon
D. evidence that (if true) proves an al-
C. A ransom note leged fact, such as an eyewitness account
D. Suspect’s blood at the crime scene of crime
784. True or False:Physical Evidence can de- 789. If skeletal remains were determined to
termine identity of people associated with be from an Asian person, it is termed
crimes through witnesses.
A. caucasoid
A. True
B. mongoloid
B. False
C. africoid
question. D. aboriginal
D. none of above 790. Which indicator of time of death is based

on pooling of blood?
785. Pattern where ridges make a complete
circuit. A. Decomposition
A. arch B. Livor Mortis
B. loop C. Rigor Mortis
C. whorl D. Microbes
D. none of above E. Algor Mortis

791. Forensic scientist that specializes in 796. An example of an epidemic would be

skeletal remains A. Small pox in Russia, Canada, and the

A. Odontologist US
B. Entomologist B. Small pox throughout California
C. Pathologist C. Small pox in Oceanside
D. Anthropologist D. none of above
792. What branch of science is acquired to de- 797. When searching for hair and fiber evi-
termine the time of Death with the usage dence, always wear gloves and protective
of insects? clothing, to
A. Mycology A. Protect yourself from biohazards of
B. Kymatology the crime scene
C. Entomology B. Comply with Federal regulations re-
D. Angiology garding evidence collection
C. Prevent your own hairs and fibers from
793. A continuous strand of fibers that have being mixed into the evidence
been spun together is a
D. none of above
A. Fiber
B. Fabric 798. Which skull plates are fused and which
are not help determine
C. Yarn
A. sex
D. Thread
B. age
794. Define Booking
C. height
A. Meaning legal decisions are to be fol-
lowed D. all of these
B. A serious crime, such as murder 799. An example of circumstantial evidence

C. A police procedure following arrest might be
that requests basic information about the A. The murder weapon
suspect, a photo, fingerprints, etc B. A video tape of the crime
D. none of above
C. A confession
795. a mentally ill or unstable person; espe- D. A tape recording of the crime
cially:a person affected with antisocial per-
sonality disorder. Highly manipulative, 800. In our lab, we tested chemical reactions
can mimic other people’s emotions, never of soils to potassium chromate. This was
form an authentic relationship with others, testing for the presence of what ingredi-
and always have a back up plan. This con- ent?
dition is usually a result of genetic traits A. basic or alkaline substances
A. Paranoia B. lead
B. Psychopath C. acidic materials
C. Sociopath D. nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
D. Fetishism (NPK)

801. Automobile windshields in the US are B. Individual

made of: C. Recognition
A. Borosilicate glass
D. Analysis
B. Leaded glass
807. cortex
C. Tempered glass
A. the region of hair located outside of
D. Laminate glass
the medulla containing granules of pig-
ments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
802. A person who scientifically analyzes
handwriting B. material that connects an individual or
A. medical examiner thing to a certain group
B. handwriting examiner C. a type of fibrous protein that makes up
C. forensic scientist the majority of the cortex of a hair
D. document expert D. the tough outer covering of a hair com-

posed of overlapping scales
803. A fiber made from rabbit hair is called
808. What rights are protected by the 2nd
A. Cashmere Amendment?
B. Sisal
A. Right to Keep and Bear Arms
C. Silk
B. Right to a speedy public trial by an im-
D. Angora partial jury
804. Which of the following types of finger- C. Grand Jury, Double Jeopardy, Self-
prints are more likely to be found im- Incrimination, Due Process
pressed in soft wax? D. Freedom of Religion, Speech, and
A. visible Press, the Right to Assemble Peaceably
and to Petition the Government “for a re-
B. latent
dress of grievances.”
C. hidden
D. plastic 809. Match description with the correct stage
of decomposition:skin turns a greenish
805. Francis Henry Galton was the first per- color as blood decomposes
son to A. fresh
A. Develop a system to identify victims B. bloat
based on anthropology and morphology
C. active decay
B. Definitive study of fingerprints
D. advanced decay
C. Developed Principles of Criminal In-
vestigation 810. Individual evidence
D. Established Forensic Toxicology A. a kind of evidence that identifies a par-
ticular person or thing
806. This part of the investigative process in-
volves distinguishing important evidence B. the documented and unbroken trans-
from unrelated material. fer of evidence
A. Class C. a location where crime was took place

D. evidence that (if true) proves an al- A. hair evidence

leged fact, such as an eyewitness account B. DNA
of crime

C. fingerprints
811. textiles D. handwriting evidence
A. things like clothing, carpets, and uphol-
stery 816. trace evidence
A. small but measurable amounts of phys-
scene
C. fibers that have been spun together
B. the tough outer covering of a hair com-
D. The transfer of evidence such as a posed of overlapping scales
C. the central core of a hair fiber
a person (suspect), and then to another
person (victim) D. the actively growing root or base of
812. Who may be an expert witness in a trial
and has an obligation to present the truth 817. Who was the first person to identify a
about the evidence collected to the best of general killed on the battlefield during the
his or her ability? American Revolution?
A. medical examiner or his representa- A. Paul Revere
tive B. George Washington
B. first police officer on the scene C. Benedict Arnold
C. investigators D. Benjamin Franklin
D. forensic scientist 818. What is the examination of physical evi-
813. Bone densities, sutures, and epiphyses of dence for legal purposes?
bones help determine which of the follow- A. criminalistics
ing? B. criminology
A. height C. forensics
B. sex D. complex reasoning skills
C. age
819. Which of the following can be used to
D. all of these identify a suspect?
814. Observations that deal with descriptions A. All of these
are called B. DNA Evidence
A. Qualitative observations C. Fingerprints
B. Quantitative observations D. Dental records
C. method observations
820. The central part of any fingerprint is
D. none of above called
815. Loops, whorls and arches are used to de- A. the point
scribe B. the loop

C. the delta C. Concentric lines

D. the core D. Spider lines
821. Which unit of a basic crime lab examines 826. Who developed the job of coroner in
body fluids? 1149 AD?
A. Biology unit A. Richard I of England
B. Physical Science unit B. Francis Galton
C. Albert Osborn
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Toxicology unit
D. Evidence Collection unit D. Theodore Roosevelt
822. relationship between the path a ray of 827. A fingerprint impression in clay would be
light takes in one medium compared to a classified as this type of print.
new medium A. latent
A. Hot Stage Method B. patent
B. Phase Contrast C. direct
C. Snell’s Law D. plastic
D. none of above 828. What is one of the key elements of foren-
823. The first step in collecting glass evidence sic anthropology?
is: A. Examining animal bones
A. Creating a diagram of the glass B. Diagnosing bone diseases in living hu-
B. Identifying and photographing the mans
glass C. Examining bones in a legal setting
C. Identifying the inside and outside of D. Performing autopsies on soft tissues
any glass
829. Which of the following refers to a tra-
D. Collecting and labeling the largest ditional body of unwritten laws created
shards from everyday social customs, rules, and
practices?
824. The pointed end of a bloodstain always
faces: A. Case Law
A. toward the position of the blood B. Natural Law
source. C. Common Law
B. opposite its direction of travel. D. Criminal Law
C. toward the direction from which the
830. An alibi is
force came.
A. evidence that you committed a crime
D. in its direction of travel.
B. a credible statement that the person
825. A crack in glass that moves outward from was somewhere else when the crime oc-
the point of impact like the spokes on a curred
wheel are: C. a guess that the person was some-
A. Conchoidal lines where else when the crime occurred
B. Radial lines D. a hunch that the person did the crime

831. Which of the following are found in an 837. The examination of blood to obtain a DNA
arch pattern? profile wold involve the use of
A. biology unit

A. delta
B. core B. pathology unit
C. minutiae C. anthropology unit
D. all of these are found in arch patterns D. entomology unit
832. Protein (amino acids) residues are best 838. If the eyes were open at the death how
developed into fingerprints impressions long will it take for a cloudy film to be ob-
with served
A. ninhydrin A. 24 hours
B. dusting powder B. 4 hours
C. silver nitrate C. 2-3 hours
D. iodine D. 1 hour
833. What counts as DNA? 839. something that causes a person to act in
a certain way, do a certain thing,
A. fingerprints
A. incentive.
B. saliva
B. motive
C. gunpowder residue
C. game
D. fingernail
D. all of the above
834. One of the ways to determine the race
840. a person who knowingly helps another in
using bones is by examining the:
a crime or wrongdoing, often as a subordi-
A. the pelvis nate
B. the leg bones A. Motive
C. skull B. suspect
D. the occipital bump C. Accomplice
835. When light rays bend due to a change in D. examiner
velocity, it is called: 841. The examination of a bite mark would
A. Density employ the use of
B. Reflection A. forensic entomology
C. Refraction B. forensic odontology
D. Conduction C. forensic toxicology
D. forensic serology
836. Coined the phrase, “Every touch leaves a
trace” 842. A lengthwise yarn or thread in a weave
A. Bertillon A. polymer
B. Lattes B. warp
C. Locard C. weft
D. Gross D. yarn

843. class evidence B. loops

A. material that connects an individual or C. whorls
thing to a certain group D. none of above
fer of evidence 849. The most important structure for the in-
dividualization of hair (identity).
imply a fact but not to prove it A. Medulla
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the first police officer to arrive at a B. Cuticle
crime scene C. Cortex
844. An example of civil law or public law is a D. Follicle
hearing to discuss
850. All evidence in a court must
A. child custody
A. be legally obtained
B. a misdemeanor
B. have a chain of custody
C. a felony
C. have a warrant attached
D. a speeding ticket
D. be approved by the defendant
845. When the head of a long bone has fused
851. An example of an individual characteris-
to its shaft, this is an indication of
tic for a footprint would be
A. sex
A. the style of the print
B. age
B. the size of the print
C. height
C. the depth of the print
D. all of these
D. wear patterns in the print
846. personal belief founded on judgement
852. Any removal of evidence from a crime
rather than on direct experience or knowl-
scene must be in accordance with what
edge
Amendment?
A. fact
A. First
B. perception
B. Second
C. fact
C. Third
D. opinion
D. Fourth
847. Fingerprints are developed between E. Fifth
A. week 6 and 8
853. Mineral fibers such as asbestos are very
B. week 5 and 9 durable. They’re used in all of the follow-
C. week 6 and 13 ing except:
D. none of above A. Rope
848. Which ridge pattern is most common on B. Shingles

human fingerprints? C. Floor tiles
A. arch D. Brake linings

854. Which of the following looks at human 859. Fingerprints are left behind by:
behavior and legal proceedings in civil and A. Oil and Sweat on our fingers
criminal cases?

B. By the softness of the things we touch
A. forensic anthropometry
C. Always left Invisibly
B. forensic odontology
D. Only on the paper we touch
C. forensic anthropology
D. forensic psychiatry 860. From what areas should stan-
dard/reference soils be collected when
855. A concealed fingerprint made visible gathering soil evidence?
through use of powders or forensic tech-
niques is: A. Within a 10-cm radius of the crime
scene
A. A Latent Print
B. Within a 10-meter radius of the crime
B. A Plastic Print scene
C. A Patent Print C. Within a 100-yard radius of the crime
D. Not enough information to answer this scene
question. D. Within a 100-foot radius of the crime
856. Unit 1:Locard’s exchange principle is? scene
A. list of people who have came into con- 861. Any physical location in which a crime
tact with evidence has occurred or is suspected of having oc-
B. everytime you make contact with a per- curred.
son, place, or thing you leave something A. Crime Scene
behind
B. Primary Location
C. the first crime laboratory
C. Secondary Location
D. forensic science
D. Alibi
857. What is the first “S” in the 7 S’s of Crime
Scene Investigation? 862. The transitional or regressive stage that
lasts a few weeks during which hair
A. Search for Evidence growth slows is called ?
B. Scan the scene A. Anagen
C. Separate the Witnesses B. Telogen
D. Secure the scene C. Catagen
858. Define Forensic Science: D. Metagen
A. The study and application of science to
863. what is a example of transient evi-
matters of the law.
dence?
B. The study of crime scenes and mur-
A. blood spatter
ders
B. temperature of the coffee pot
C. The study of the bill of rights
D. The study of crime labs located in the C. gun shell
United States D. none of above

864. Initial comparisons of documents are trace of something behind at the scene of
done with: the crime
A. the naked eye C. a type of evidence
B. microscopes D. the person who runs the Locard School
C. a hand-held lens
870. A freak apartment fire was reviewed
D. all of these choices and it turned out it was intentionally set.
What does that mean about this crime?
865. Which unit of the modern crime lab is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
responsible for studying gunshot residues A. It was reconstructed.
and toolmark impressions? B. It has no motive.
A. DNA C. It was staged
B. Firearms D. The fire was accidentally set.
C. Fingerprint
871. Where is FS applied?
D. Physical science
A. At a crime scene
866. Prints that are not readily visible are B. At the crime lab
commonly referred to as:
C. Whilst investigating a crim
A. rolled
D. When interrogating suspects
B. plastic
C. latent 872. the study and application of science to
matters of law
D. closed
A. Locard’s exchange principle
867. Who are typically first at the crime B. forensic science
scene?
A. Police
D. agricultural science
B. CSI Unit
C. Detectives 873. What is statutory law?
D. District attorney A. Deals with regulations & enforcement
of rights
868. Observations that are measurable and in-
clude numerical data
congress
A. evidence
C. Deals with disputes between individu-
B. qualitative observations als or organizations
C. physical change D. none of above
D. quantitative observations
874. AFIS is a(n):
869. Define the “Locard’s Principle.” A. method used to determine the age of
A. the scientific examination of evidence latent print
in a criminal investigation B. computer software designed to track
B. states that criminals always take a fingerprint evidence within the chain of
trace of something with them or leave a custody

C. assay technique used to identify drugs 880. The period when hair is growing is called
D. computerized system for storing and the stage.

retrieving fingerprint records A. telogen
875. The tree is taller than the building. B. catagen

A. Qualitative Observation C. imagen
B. Quantitative Observation D. anagen
C. Opinion 881. The 5th Amendment protects:
D. Inference A. The Rights of Free Speech
876. Lie detectors B. Right to a Jury when being Sued
A. Forensic Pathology C. The Right to Remain Silent to not In-
B. Forensic Anthropology criminate Yourself
C. Forensic Polygraph D. Right to a Speedy Trial
D. Forensic Odontology 882. Typically they are the first to arrive at a

E. Forensic Entomology crime scene and they secure the scene
A. detectives
877. Quick facial expressions people uncon-
sciously show. They can help determine B. specialists
if a persons is being deceitful or lying. C. district attorney
A. unexpressions D. police officers
B. miniexpressions
883. Database maintained by the ATF
C. macroexpressions
A. NIBIN
D. microexpressions
B. CODIS
878. The is the outer most layer of bone
C. IAFIS
that serves to keep bones moist and aid in
repair. D. PDQ
A. periosteum 884. The first job of a police officer is to
B. osteoblast A. take photographs
C. metaphysis B. secure the area with crime scene tape
D. outer osteal layer C. make sure the scene is safe
879. Which of these cannot be determined by D. gather evidence
hair
885. Which is not a type of fingerprints?
A. gender
A. Arch
B. human or animal
B. Whorl
C. race
D. manner in which hair was removed C. Swirl
(shed or pulled out) D. Loop

886. What type of killer kills 4 or more peo- D. small but measurable amounts of phys-
ple in one location with no cooling down ical or biological material found at crime
time? scene
A. serial 891. Cortex varies in which of these
B. mass A. Length
C. triple homicide B. Texture
D. spree C. Smell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
887. What can flies determine about the D. none of above
body?
892. Which of the following is the correct or-
A. Temperature der of the life cycle of a blow fly?
B. Time of death A. egg, pupa, 1st, 2nd, 3rd larva, adult
C. Size of body B. larva, egg, pupa, adult
D. Last meal C. adult, 1st, 2nd, 3rd larva, egg
D. egg, 1st, 2nd, 3rd larva, pupa, adult
888. which part(s) of a hair can be analyzed
for the DNA? 893. Which of the following is NOT a true
A. medulla statement about loops?
B. cortex A. They contain one delta opposite from
the opening of the loop.
C. root
B. Loops contain one or more ridges
D. cuticle which start on one side of the finger and
889. What is an arraignment? return to the same side of the finger.
C. Loops must have one complete circle
A. Defendant is brought before the jury
which crosses an imaginary line from one
for his/her trial
delta to another.
B. Defendant is brought in and booked
D. There are two types of loops.
(fingerprints, photo, etc.)
C. Defendant is brought before court to 894. neutron activation analysis
hear charges & enter a plea A. a method of analysis that determines
D. Defendant gives their plea to their composition of elementd In a sample
lawyer who speaks with the judge on B. the tough outer covering of a hair com-
his/her behalf posed of overlapping scales
890. secondary crime scene C. the centrel core of a hair fiber
A. a location other than the primary crime D. small but measurable amounts of phys-
scene, but that is in some way related to ical or biological material found at crime
the crime, where evidence is found scene
B. the documented and unbroken trans- 895. What is the best state of mind for observ-
fer of evidence ing?
C. a location where crime was took place A. Tired

B. Angry 901. What is class evidence

C. Relaxed A. Non conclusive evidence that helps you

D. Nervous narrow down the suspects
B. Evidence that is left behind by ex-
896. How often are eyewitness testimonies
change
correct?
C. Evidence found in a classroom
A. 25%
D. Evidence that can be traced only to one
B. 50%
individual
C. 75%
902. Most evidence presented in court is sub-
D. 100%
jective & open to &
897. The main job of a crime scene investigator A. errors & lies
is to
B. Judge & jury
A. interview witnesses
C. mistakes & bias
B. conduct laboratory tests including
D. opinions & facts
electrophoresis
C. determine the manner of death of a vic- 903. Published Finger Prints about the unique-
tim ness and classification of prints
D. Objectively identify, collect and docu- A. Mathieu Orfila
ment evidence B. Leone Lattes
898. When a suspect comes in contact with an C. Francis Galton
object or person, a cross transfer of evi- D. Arthur Conan Doyle
dence occurs
904. Pattern where ridges enter on one side
A. deductive reasoning
and exit on the other.
B. crossing-over
A. Arch
C. Locard’s Exchange Principle
B. Loop
D. Law of Proximity
C. Whorl
899. What is done by a medical examiner to D. none of above
determine the cause of death?
905. The most prevalent plant fiber is:
A. Biopsy
B. Autopsy A. Hemp
C. Forgery B. Cotton
D. Sonogram C. Mohair
D. Wool
900. When did the Daubert vs. Dow case oc-
cur? 906. Fiber evidence is gathered with
A. 1990’s A. vacuums
B. 1900’s B. tape or lint roller
C. 1970’s C. forceps
D. 1920’s D. all choices correct

907. A judgment that the accused is not guilty 912. What type of evidence is the cornerstone
of a crime of the Innocence Project?
A. acquittal A. ballistics
B. Insufficient evidence B. DNA
C. appeal C. eyewitness accounts

D. chemicals
D. plea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
913. A forensic scientist is called to a court of
908. In general, the older the insects around law to provide
the dead body are
A. opinion
A. the longer the body has been dead
B. fact
B. the less time the body has been dead
C. judgement
C. the more blood the body lost D. reflection
D. the hotter the temp. around the body
is 914. An alternate location where additional
evidence has been found.
909. is the branch of knowledge involving A. Secondary crime scene
the systematized observation of phenom- B. Primary crime scene
ena.
C. Physical location
A. Criminology
D. Suspected location
B. Forensic Science
915. Which type of evidence is produced by
C. Murder Science contact between persons and/or objects?
D. Criminal Science A. Conditional
910. The examination of questioned docu- B. Individual
ments with known material for a variety C. Class
of analyses, such as authenticity, alter- D. Pattern
ations, erasures, & obliterations
A. document analysis 916. Right to a fair and speedy public trial
A. Bill of Rights
B. document expert
B. 6th Amendment
C. questioned document
C. U.S. Constitution
D. forgery
D. Daubert Ruling
911. The pelvis of a female is as compared
917. Type of Forensic Science that deals with
to a male.
body identification using dental records
A. wide and circular A. Odontology
B. wide and heart-shaped B. Anthropology
C. narrow and circular C. Serology
D. narrow and heart-shaped D. Entomology

918. The bone marrow makes cells . 923. Which misapplication of forensic science
A. blood occurs when forensic scientists knowingly
manipulate evidence or evidentiary analy-

B. cancer sis?
C. large
A. Mistake
D. normal
B. Misconduct
919. Class characteristics of shoe prints in-
clude: C. Mistake
A. manufacturer, tread, model, and size D. Invalid forensic discipline
B. color, material, scent, and scratches
on the bottom 924. A grand jury hearing includes:
C. depth of tread, position, quantity A. A Judge
D. accidental scratches, embedded rocks B. A Persecuting Attorney
or debris
C. A Defense Attorney
920. The ability to identify a concept or prob-
D. The Defendant
lem, to isolate its component parts, to or-
ganize information for decision making, to
925. Which kind of evidence can be linked to a
establish criteria for evaluation, and to
single person?
draw appropriate conclusions
A. fact A. circumstantial evidence
B. perception B. individual evidence
C. eyewitness C. class evidence
D. analytical skills
D. conditional evidence
921. Which forensic unit studies handwriting
and typewriting on questioned documents, 926. Walter McCrone is considered the Father
also analyzing paper or ink? of ..
A. Crime Scene Investigation Unit A. Toxicology
B. Print Analysis Unit B. Questioned Documents
C. Document Examination Unit
C. Modern Microscopy
D. Linguistic Examination Unit
D. Modern Law Enforcement
922. Which of the following is a benefit of the
“CSI effect”? 927. The use of techniques related to the col-
A. Juries are calling for more forensic ev- lection, examination, and analysis of evi-
idence dence at a crime scene
B. Juries use scientific words that have A. chromatography
no bearings on trial
B. forensic science
C. People are found innocent due to lack
of forensic evidence C. biology
D. More people entering the field D. earth science

928. evidence that (if authentic) supports an C. at least 5 ridge characteristics

alleged fact of a case D. at least 8 to 12 ridge characteristics
A. direct evidence
934. In order to determine if a hair is from an
B. primary evidence animal or human, one should divide the di-
C. individual characteristics of evidence ameter of the
D. circumstantial evidence A. medulla by the entire hair
B. medulla by the cortex
NARAYAN CHANGDER
929. The stage of fusion of various bones
within a skeleton can be used to estimate C. cortex by the medulla
the of the decedent. D. cortex by the entire hair
A. age
935. How does temperature have an effect on
B. race insect evidence?
C. gender A. temp. does not effect insect evidence
D. height B. high temp. speeds up insect’s life cy-
cle
930. When being compared to a wooden pencil,
which part of hair represents the lead? C. low temp. speeds up insect’s life cycle
A. medulla
D. none of above
B. cortex
C. cuticle 936. Developed an antibody test for determin-
ing blood types
D. follicular tag
A. Lattes
931. Lady Killer, Campus Killer B. Doyle
A. Randy Kraft C. Henry
B. Ted Bundy D. Osborn
C. Ed Gein
937. unit deals with the examination of
D. Joe Ball firearms discharged bullets and ammuni-
tion.
932. Who determines the preliminary cause of
death? A. Biology Unit
A. Medical Examiner B. Physical Science Unit
B. District Attorney C. Firearms Unit
C. CSI Unit D. none of above
D. Detectives 938. Director of the Federal Bureau of Investi-
gations for 48 years:
933. How much of a latent print is generally
needed by a court to make a positive iden- A. Henry
tification? B. Locard
A. at least half a print C. Hoover
B. a whole fingerprint D. Galton

939. Small secondary droplets around the 945. When a material gain, such as money, ac-
main blood splatter drop are called: companies a forgery, it is called:

A. Spikes A. a monetary gain.
B. Splats
B. fraudulence.
C. Satelites
C. battery.
D. Gushes
D. deception.
940. A good observer should
A. interpret immediately 946. Each of the following are not examples
B. let another person document of Conditional Evidence except
C. jump to conclusions A. Lights
D. turn off filters B. Position of Body
941. DNA is C. Position of Furniture
A. deoxygenated acid
D. Fingerprints on Doors
B. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. deoxetrate acid 947. The lengthwise, parallel yarn in a weave
D. deoxyrib antacid pattern is called the
942. When collecting hairs from a suspect to A. Warp

compare to those found at a crime scene, B. Weft
how many control hairs should be col-
lected? C. Yarn
A. 100 from all over the body D. Filament
B. 50 from head; 25 from pubic region
948. Tangible items that tend to prove some
C. 75 from head; 25 from pubic region
material fact is:
D. 25 from head; 75 from arms, legs, and
pubic region A. Physical Evidence
943. Forensic science is any science that B. Testimonial Evidence

A. studies skeletal remains C. Direct Evidence
B. studies living organisms D. Circumstantial Evidence
C. analyzes body fluids
D. is applied to matters of the law 949. When fibers are transferred directly from
victim to suspect or suspect to victim, this
944. Which pattern is least common on human is called
fingerprints?
A. necessary transfer
A. arch
B. direct transfer
B. loop
C. whorl C. absolute transfer
D. none of above D. secondary transfer

950. What is an outbreak? 956. Which of the following is an example of

A. A contagious illness in a large area Forensics Science?
B. A contagious illness in a small area A. Analyzing evidence
C. A non-contagious illness in a large B. Scrutinizing the crime scene
area
C. Interrogating suspects
D. A non-contagious illness in a small
area D. Studying corpses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
951. The scientist who studies blood to solve 957. Who is considered the father of DNA Fin-
a crime is called gerprinting?
A. Forensic Pathologist
A. Charles Watson
B. Forensic Psycologist
B. Francis Crick
C. Forensic Anthropologist
C. Rosalind Franklin
D. Forensic Serologist
D. Sir Alec Jeffereys
952. Ligaments attach to
A. muscle to bone 958. What is forensic science?
B. bone to bone
A. When scientists improve plants by us-
C. muscle to muscle ing DNA
D. nerve to bone B. The use of science in growing trees
953. The Eyewitness Documentary discussed C. Any legal action that requires a police
the debate around which type of evi- investigation
dence?
D. When science is used for the purposes
A. individual
of the law
B. real
C. nonphysical 959. Second person associated with commit-
ting a crime
D. demonstrative
A. suspect
954. Which of the following is NOT a category
of careers in forensic science? B. alibi
A. Pathology and biology C. accomplice
B. Patrol D. victim
C. Anthropology
D. Criminalistics 960. The location where a crime is believed to
have taken place.
955. When are fingerprints formed?
A. physical scene
A. When you are a teenager
B. bank
B. During fetal development
C. By the time you are two years old C. classroom
D. At birth D. crime scene

961. A material that can be related to a SIN- B. Cortex

GLE source. C. Cuticle

A. Trace Evidence D. Medulla and Cortex
B. Class evidence
967. The hair follicle is dormant and hairs are
C. individual evidence
easily lost during which stage of the hair
D. none of above life cycle?
962. What expert would be called upon to A. Anagen
examine the skeletal remains that police B. Telogen
found in the woods?
C. Catagen
A. Ballistics expert
D. Metagen
B. Forensic anthropologist
968. Fibers are an excellent source of trace ev-
C. Judge
idence because
D. Forensic profiler
A. they are easily transferred from a vic-
963. Another term for a ridge characteristic is tim to a suspect
B. they are often overlooked by a suspect
A. match C. they can be easily collected and stored
B. delta D. all of these choices
C. core
969. Direct evidence
D. minutia
A. evidence that (if true) proves an al-
964. Scientists use this test to analyze the leged fact, such as an eyewitness account
dyes in fabric evidence: of crime
A. Staintest B. the documented and unbroken trans-
B. Solventtest fer of evidence
C. InfraredSpectroscopy C. a location where crime was took place
D. Chromatography D. evidence that (if true) proves an al-
965. yarn of crime
A. fibers that have been spun together
970. What makes any two fingerprints differ-
B. the passing of evidence, such as fiber, ent?
A. the minutiae
B. the patterns
C. the ridge count
D. originated with petroleum products
and are non cellulose-based fibers D. the core size
966. Pigment granules that give hair color are 971. Mathieu Orfila is considered the father of
found in the:
A. Medulla A. Forensic Science

B. Forensic Anthropology 977. a person who has seen someone or some-

C. Toxicology thing and can communicate these facts
D. Entomology A. eyewitness
B. scientist
972. If a bruise is located on the posterior sur-
face, it is on the victim’s: C. detective
A. back D. victim
B. stomach
NARAYAN CHANGDER
978. The basic forensic science understanding
C. ventral area that a perpetrator takes something from
D. top of their head the crime scene and leaves something be-
hind is called
973. Wear features of an item display
A. Locard’s Exchange Principle
A. the usage
B. crime scene reconstruction
B. the color
C. crime scene investigation
C. the texture
D. forensic science
D. the individual
979. A general acceptance test used in U.S.
974. Which area of forensics examines hand- courts to determine the admissibility of sci-
writing and typewriting on questioned doc- entific evidence
uments, and also may analyze paper or
ink? A. Prosecutor
A. Crime-scene Investigation Unit B. Frye Standard
B. Document Examination Unit C. Duabert Standard
C. Print Analysis Unit D. verdict
D. Linguistic Examination Unit 980. The person most responsible for the fin-
975. An example of a class characteristic in a gerprint system used in the US today is
footprint would be
A. wear patterns on the footprint A. William Hershcel
B. cracks in the footprint B. Henry Faulds
C. the tread patterns on the print C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. embedded objects in the footprint D. Francis Galton
976. Who published the first paper on the de- E. Edward Henry
tection of poisons and their effects on ani-
981. What rights are protected by the 1st
mals?
Amendment?
A. Alphonse Bertillion
A. Protection against unreasonable
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle searches and seizures
C. Alec Jeffries B. Right to Keep and Bear Arms
D. Mathieu Orfila C. No Excessive Bail or Fines or Cruel and
E. Albert S. Osborn Unusual Punishment

D. Freedom of Religion, Speech, and C. protects organs

Press, the Right to Assemble Peaceably D. excretes waste
and to Petition the Government “for a re-

dress of grievances.” 987. Early collection of fibers in an investiga-
tion is critical. Within 24 hours, an esti-
982. The long shaft of the bone that contains mated:
the bone marrow is the
A. 75% of all fibers fallen or lost
A. epiphysis
B. 85% of all fibers fallen or lost
B. metaphysis
C. 95% of all fibers fallen or lost
C. diaphysis
D. none of above
988. Who was the first to devise a method of
983. If a crime lab can match a shard of glass classification based on fingerprints?
to a specific source such as a bottle, then
A. Gilbert Thompson-1882
the evidence is considered:
B. Dr.Henry Faulds-1880
A. Specific evidence
C. Sir William Hershel-1856
B. Comparative evidence
D. none of above
C. Individual evidence
D. Class evidence 989. Plant fibers are made of what material?
A. Carbohydrate
984. Chain of custody
B. Protein
A. the documented and unbroken trans-
fer of evidence C. Nucleic Acid
B. (indirect evidence) evidence used to D. Lipid
imply a fact but not to prove it
990. What are symptoms?
C. the first police officer to arrive at a
A. Sneezing when there is dust
crime scene
B. Only when a sickness is really bad
D. small but measurable amounts of phys-
ical or biological material found at crime C. When a sickness isn’t very bad
scene D. A sign of being sick
985. an inorganic compound made of quartz 991. The best method for collecting small evi-
sand and combined with other oxides dence is to pick it up using:
A. Density A. Vacuum
B. Glass B. Tape lift
C. Amorphous Solid C. Forceps
D. Isotropic D. Gloves
986. The skeletal system does all of the fol- 992. Forensic entomologists analyze insects to
lowing EXCEPT help determine
A. produces red blood cells A. Cause of death
B. stores calcium and minerals B. Postmortem Interval

C. Mechanism of death 998. What states “Every criminal can be con-

D. none of above nected to a crime by particles carried from
the crime scene. When a criminal comes
993. refers to an underlying cause of death, as into contact with an object or person, a
opposed to the final cause. cross-transfer of evidence occurs.”?
A. pupa A. Locard’s Exchange Principle
B. adipocere B. Frye Standard

C. Daubert Ruling
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. proximate cause of death
D. FBI motto
D. pulmonary arrest
999. Which is the most reliable bone to deter-
994. The number of bones and their condition mine the sex of a skeleton?
can tell an investigator about a person’s
A. Femur
A. age
B. Skull
B. health
C. Pelvic bone
C. calcium intake D. Collarbone
D. all of these
1000. The writing characteristics of a person
995. The defence by an accused person of hav- may be altered by whether
ing been elsewhere at the time an alleged A. a significant amount of time has
offence was committed. passed between writing of exemplar and
A. suspect the questioned document.
B. alibi B. the posture or stance of the author

varies between writings
C. specialists
C. paper is ruled or unruled.
D. physical evidence
D. all of the above
996. The smallest indivisible unit of a textile 1001. During PCR, the temperature is in-
is a creased separate DNA strands, what is
A. Fiber this step called?
B. Fabric A. Extension
C. Yarn B. Contamination
D. Thread C. Annealing
D. Denaturation
997. Who is the author/creator of Sherlock
Holmes? 1002. scientific tests or techniques used in con-
nection with the detection of crime; foren-
A. Albert S. Osborn sics.
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle A. Criminology
C. Edmond Locard B. Criminalistics
D. Hans Gross C. Psychology
E. Alphonse Bertillion D. none of above

1003. fiber C. Fingerprints unit

A. the smallest indivisible unit of textile, D. Evidence Collection unit

B. the passing of evidence, such as fiber, 1009. What is a plea bargain?
from victim to suspect or vice versa A. when a defendant helps identify an-
C. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and other suspect & the prosecutor reduces
light damage the charges
D. fibers that have been spun together B. when a defendant gives addition evi-
dence/support for the prosecution & the
1004. The hair shaft is composed of what im- prosecutor reduces the charges
portant protein?
C. when a defendant pleas guilty to a
A. Cellulose lesser charge & the prosecutor reduces
B. Chitin the charges
C. Peptidoglycan D. when a defendant pleas guilty to the
D. Keratin crime & charges are reduced to commu-
nity service and/or parole
1005. Which state and local agencies conduct
forensic analysis? 1010. Who invented a test for detecting ar-
A. Police laboratories senic which bears his name?
B. IRS A. Mathieu Orfila
C. CIA B. Walter McCrone
D. MVA C. James Marsh
1006. a rule of evidence regarding the admis- D. Valentin Ross
sibility of expert witness testimony.
1011. How a print is developed depends on
A. Daubert Ruling
B. 6th Admendment
A. the amount of sweat
C. plea bargain
B. the amount of oil
D. deliberation
C. the surface it is on
1007. When is an arrest warrant is issued?
D. the skill of the technician
A. when the police request it in writing
E. all of these
B. when there is enough evidence to es-
tablish probable cause 1012. What is a Crime Scene Investigator?
C. when needed A. A person trained to record, collect and
D. anytime a judge wants to issue one test evidence found at a crime scene.
1008. Which unit of a basic crime lab examines B. A person trained to help the FBI
tool marks? C. A person trained to record, collect and
A. Firearms unit make false evidence available.
B. Physical Science unit D. An agent trained to ride unicorns.

1013. crystalline 1018. About 30% of the population has this

type of pattern.
A. regularly shaped; fibers composed of
polymers picked side by side, which make A. loops
it stiff and strong B. whorls
B. the smallest indivisible unit of textile, C. arches
D. ripples
C. dense, strong fiber that resists rot and
1019. Forensic Science is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
light damage
A. microscopes used for vapor
B. the applications of testing
1014. First to develop a DNA profile (DNA fin- C. applying principles of science to the
gerprinting) 1984 law
A. . James Marsh D. the application of evidence to testing
B. Sir Alec Jeffreys 1020. Mrs. Woodley is missing and police
C. Crime scene investigator want her DN The best place for them to
find it is in Mrs. Woodley s:
D. John Smith
A. Tennis shoes.
1015. Direct Evidence includes all but the fol- B. Dishes.
lowing
C. Hair brush.
A. blood left at the scene
D. Bank account statements.
B. eye witness
1021. The Innocence Project was Established
C. victim’s testimony in what year?
D. suspect’s alibi A. 1998
B. 1992
1016. A location other than where the crime
took place, but is in the same way related C. 1990
to the crime and where evidence is found D. 1988
A. Primary Crime Scene 1022. This guy developed the first reliable pro-
B. Secondary Crime Scene cedures for detecting sperm.
C. Trace Evidence A. Carl W. Scheele
D. none of above B. Mathieu Orfila
C. Henri-Louis Bayard
1017. The specific part of the skin that gives
D. Dr. Karl Landsteiner
us our fingerprint is the
E. Edmond Locard
A. epidermis
1023. Our state of mind affects how we ob-
B. papillae
serve our surroundings. What mental
C. dermis state is the best for observing?
D. pores A. happy

B. nervous C. Circumstantial evidence.

C. relaxed D. Scientific investigation.

D. excited 1029. Which of the following can affect EYE-
1024. Tyler has blood type AB+, he can donate WITNESS ACCOUNTS?
blood to a person that has blood type? A. level of interest
A. AB+ B. number of people you’re with
B. AB- C. age
C. O- D. motives
D. O+ 1030. Which of the following is NOT one of the
1025. Skeletal remains are found in a forest. four major crime labs in the US?
What specialist will be called upon to help A. FBI
identify the victim B. DEA
A. autopsy technician C. NRA
B. crime scene investigator D. USPS
C. forensic anthropologist
1031. Which section of the modern crime lab is
D. forensic toxicologist responsible for evidence that is processed
1026. the making, adapting, or falsifying of using chemistry, physics, and geology?
documents or other objects with the inten- A. photography
tion of deceiving someone B. physical science
A. fraudulent C. biology
B. counterfeiting D. fingerprints
C. forgery
1032. All of the following are characteristics
D. alteration of a synthetic fiber except
1027. He wrote the book that is still consid- A. they are formed by combining
ered a primary reference for document ex- monomer compounds into polymer
aminers. molecules
A. Albert S. Osborn B. they are man-made
B. Hans Gross C. they are used in the production of car-
C. Alphonse Bertillion pet fibers
D. Calvin Goddard D. they do not contain any natural fibers
E. Alec Jeffreys 1033. What about the skull will tell you about
their age?
1028. When a forensic scientist provides infor-
mation in a criminal trial, the facts he or A. Fused sutures
she presents are based on: B. Frontal bone size
A. Eyewitness accounts. C. Presence of sutures
B. Educated guesses. D. Size of orbitals

1034. what does ICP-MS stand for? A. photo array

A. introduction of coupled plasma-mass B. collage
spectrometry C. physical lineup
B. inductively coupled placed-mass spec- D. confidence statements
trometry
C. inductively coupled plasma-mass spec- 1040. A false negative is
trometry A. testing the substance you are using to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. inductively coupled plasma-mass spec- test
trum B. testing the substance you are testing
against
1035. The science and study of the causes and
origins of diseases and conditions C. getting a positive when you should get
a negative result
A. Fetishism
B. Sadism a positive result
C. BTK
1041. The two basic elements that must be in-
D. Etiology cluded in all crimes are
1036. The FBI classifies a serial killer as some- A. specific and general intent
one with- B. actusreus and malumin se
A. 3 victims back to back C. malumprohibitum and mens rea
B. 4 or more victims in one location D. actusreus and mensrea.
C. 3 victims with a cooling off period
1042. If a skull is found and wisdom teeth are
D. more than 1 victim at more than 1 loca- present, you can determine
tion
A. the person was under 17 when they
1037. The only database that is commercially died
available B. the person was over 17 when they died
A. PDQ C. the skull belonged to male
B. SICAR D. it does not determine any of these
C. CODIS
1043. In the Documentation Unit you can ex-
D. IAFIS amine documents to determine
1038. DEA A. Toxicology
A. Dog Enforcement Agency B. DNA
B. Drug Enforcement Agency C. Authenticity
C. Drug Enforcement Agency D. Fingerprints
D. none of above 1044. Which of the following is not one of the

seven S’s of crime scene investigation?
1039. When a witness looks at possible sus-
pects in a police station to pick out the per- A. Secure
son they saw at a crime scene. B. Separate

C. Scan 1050. What is the name of a lie detector test?

D. Sketch A. Polygraph

E. Scale B. Fingerprints
1045. What is the function of the ridges on our C. Latent prints
fingers which create fingerprints?
D. Trace Evidence
A. They provide insulation for the tissues
under the skin. 1051. The examination of evidence relating to
B. They enable us to grasp objects. firearms at a crime scene, including the ef-
fects and behavior of projectiles and explo-
C. They provide protection for our touch sive devices.
receptors.
A. Forensic Ballistics
D. none of above
1046. Investigators must corroborate events
with data in a manner that is free of C. Forensic Psychology
and D. Forensic Odontology
A. trial and error E. Forensic Pathology
B. error and bias
1052. The first detective to create a crime lab-
C. feelings and sympathy oratory, where he developed a Principle
D. details and notes that became the foundation of all forensic
science
1047. A personal judgment based on past ex-
periences or personal beliefs. A. Francis Galton
A. bias B. Sherlock Holmes
B. observation C. Edmond Locard
C. objective thinking D. John Webster
D. investigation
1053. Which of the following is the best defi-
1048. This type of evidence is any ob- nition of forensic science?
ject/material relevant to a crime. A. The science of studying dead people
A. Class
B. The application of science to medicine
B. Individual
C. The application of science to the law
C. Circumstantial
D. The study of poisons
D. Physical
1054. What is the full name of DNA?
1049. Fingerprints are formed:
A. during fetal development A. Do Not Answer
B. by the time a child is two years old B. Does Not Apply

C. at birth C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
D. during first 6 months after birth D. Dexysnucleic Aerosol

4.5 General, clinical, environmental and analytical toxicology 968
1055. Which laws are based on the U.S. Con- B. African

stitution? C. European
A. statutory law D. none of above
B. civil law
1059. The study of fingerprints is called
C. common or case law
A. Anthropometry
D. criminal law
B. Dactyloscopy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1056. Which of the following is NOT Physical C. printology
Evidence?
D. none of these
A. DNA
1060. The likeliness for an event to occur is an
B. Fingerprints
example of
C. Blood Splatter
A. Probability
D. Spoken Word
B. control sample
1057. Deals with the assessment and treat- C. evidence
ment of mentally disordered offenders.
D. Cap’n Crunch
A. Toxicology Unit
1061. The Innocence Project found that most
B. CSI Unit
faulty convictions were based on
C. Forensic Psychiatry
A. out of date investigation equpment
D. Voice print Analysis B. poor DNA sampling
1058. Hair with a round cross section and a C. inaccurate eyewitness accounts
large diameter is classified as ? D. officers not thoroughly observing a
A. Asian crime scene
4.5 General, clinical, environmental and analytical toxicol-

ogy
1. The Stockholm Convention of 2001 covers D. aquatic systems
these guys
3. Which of the following can tell us a poison
A. Heavy Metals was in the body even if it is no longer in
B. Radition the blood?
C. POPs A. The liver
D. Acids B. Stomach contents
C. Urine
2. LC50 is used primarily for
D. Hair
A. medicine
4. When a person’s body has become used to
B. poisons the effects of the a drug or medicine and
C. air pollution needs a greater amount to be effective.

A. Stimulant 10. A drug made from he hemp plant; effective

B. Side Effect compound is THC.

C. Tolerance A. Marijauna
D. Addcition B. Cocaine
E. Craving C. LSD
D. Ecstacy
5. Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to-
gether with a plastic film E. Heroin
A. Soda Lime Glass 11. Scientists determined that the LD50 for
B. Leaded Glass a particular chemical toxin was a dosage
level of 125 milligrams per kilogram of
C. Tempered Glass body mass for a test population of rats.
D. Laminated Glass Assuming that the toxic effect observed
in rats is the same for similar animals of
6. Banned by the Montreal Protocol larger size, what dosage level would be
A. Ozone needed to kill 50% of the population of
mammals who typically have a mass of 20
B. CFC
kg?
C. Carbon Dioxide
A. 2.5 g
D. Nitrous Oxide
B. 25 g
7. Chemical mutagens are substances that C. 250 g
cause , or mutations, in the DNA of an
D. 2, 500 g
organism.
A. rashes 12. This 6-year old beauty queen was thought
to be kidnapped due to a ransom note
B. hives
found by her mother, bnut was later found
C. genetic changes dead in their own basement. Who is the
D. improper concentrations girl in this still unsolved case?
A. Alana Thompson
8. Most poisonings occur via the route.
B. JonBenet Ramsey
A. injection
C. Isabella Barrett
B. ingestion
D. Eloise Worledge
C. absorption
D. inhalation 13. Which of the following regulates the intro-
duction of new or already existing chemi-
9. Which is not apart of the controlled sub- cals?
stances act? A. Toxic Substances Control Act
A. *Schedule I heroin, LSD B. REACH
B. *Schedule V codeine C. Stockholm convention on persistent or-
C. *Schedule II morphine, ganic pollutants
methadone D. Federal Insecticide, fungicide, and ro-
D. *Schedule VII codeine denticide act

14. A person found with any amount of alco- B. OTC medicine

hol in their system in all 50 states can be C. Addcition
charged with?
D. Side effect
A. driving under the influence (DUI)
E. Catalyst
B. driving while intoxicated (DWI)
20. What is not true about heavy metals?
C. driving in possession of alcohol
A. They can leach into groundwater
D. driving while drinking
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. They can be found in e-waste
15. How many grams of sugar (LD50 = C. They can cause mutations to your DNA
30 g/kg) would be lethal to a 220 lb
woman? D. They are potent neurotoxins
A. 6600 g 21. How can you tell cyanide poisoning from
B. 3000 g carbon monoxide?
C. 0.30 g A. With CO they had convulsions, with

cyanide their cheeks are flushed red
D. 0.13 g
B. With cyanide, they had convulsions,
16. Epidemiology is concerned with the with CO their lips are blue
and of health events in a population: C. With CO their lips are blue, with
A. frequency, pattern cyanide their cheeks are flushed red
B. frequency, determinant D. With cyanide, their lips are blue, with
CO their cheeks are flushed red
C. pattern, determinant
D. determinant, spread 22. What is the danger in eating some fish
from lakes or ocean?
17. The term for the number of infant deaths A. They may be invasive species.
before age one is:
B. If abundant, they may lead to a crash
A. infant mortality in other species.
B. infant morbidity C. If they are high on the food chain they
C. survivorship may contain high levels of mercury or
D. infant life expectancy POP’s like PCB’s
D. They may contain too many nutrients
18. What three components have to be from fertilizers.
present to create photochemical smog?
E. They may contain parasites that cause
A. VOCS, PANS, Carbon Dioxide cancer
B. VOCS, Ozone, Nitrogen Monoxide
23. Which of the following is false of carbon
C. Nitrogen Dioxide, Sunlight, and VOCS monoxide
D. Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, and A. is an odorless colorless tasteless gas
Ozone B. binds the red blood cell and causes
19. Any reaction to a medicine other than the less oxygen to arrive to body tissues
one intended. C. is absorbed in the stomach
A. Tolerance D. is inhaled by the lungs in repiration

24. Poisoning by swallowing or taking in by B. IPM

the mouth. C. CAFO

A. Injection D. NH4
B. Inhalation E. TP50
C. Absorption
30. BPA has been shown to reduce the amount
D. Ingestion of testosterone in males of some species.
BPA can be classified as a(n)
25. The preliminary test which indicates if a
substance is a drug is A. carcinogen
A. tasting B. teratogen
B. smelling C. endocrine disruptor

D. mutagen
C. screening
D. confirmation 31. Effluent pipes, smokestacks, and oil spills
are all examples of
26. Which of the following is a United States A. persistance
federal law that set up the basic U.S. sys-
tem of pesticide regulation to protect appli- B. point-source pollution
cators, consumers, and the environment? C. nonpoint-source pollution
A. REACH D. heavy metals
B. Toxic Substances Control Act 32. Who is considered the father of modern
C. Federal Insecticide, fungicide, and ro- toxicology? Hint:He published the first
denticide act book exclusively devoted to toxicology in
1815.
D. Stockholm convention on persistent or-
ganic pollutants A. Claude Bernard
B. Galen
27. Which one of these is an antibiotic
C. Ali Qasim
A. Aspirin
D. Orfila
B. Penicillin
33. The leading cause of death in the US:
C. Ibuprofen
A. Tuberculosis
D. Paracetamol
B. Cardiovascular disease
28. I ingest lead with every glass of water I C. Smoking
drink. What is the type of toxicity?
D. HIV and other sexually transmitted dis-
A. Acute eases
B. Chronic
34. The study of the spread of disease in pop-
C. A cute ulations is called
D. none of above A. toxicology
29. The concentration of a toxin that will re- B. threshold dose
sult in the loss of 50% of a population C. biomagnification
A. LD50 D. epidemiology

35. A dose is C. difficult to find what caused the human

A. the amount of a harmful substance to health issues
which a person is exposed D. if you get this wrong you didn’t take
B. damage to the health that results from the clues that were in the answers( if you
exposure to a toxin are reading this than congrats you have
learned to read all answers in case they
C. study of toxic chemicals and how they are correct)
effect humans
NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. Lead can accumulate in the bones and teeth
D. a graph that show the dose/ response
of individuals due to this this property
effect
A. water solubility
36. Which of these is resistant to the first line
B. lipid solubilty
of antibiotics, transmitted by direct con-
tact with contaminated surface, resulting C. transport proteins
in fever, nausea, skin boils and is fairly D. persistence
common in the US?
41. A student who has been smoking for a
A. MRSA
long time wakes up coughing every morn-
B. Zika ing and is short of breath during any phys-
C. Influenza ical activity. If he quits he will
D. West Nile A. stopcoughing and feel better
B. enablethe cilia in the lungs to repair
37. A person must have a BAC of at least .08 themselves
in all 50 states to be charged with what?
C. improvetheir life expectancy
A. driving under the influence (DUI)
D. All of these
B. driving while intoxicated (DWI)
C. driving in possession of alcohol 42. Thalidomide causes:
A. Phocomelia
D. driving while drinking
B. Cleft lip
38. What source could tell us if any poison was
C. A and B
in the body even if it is no longer in the
blood? D. none of above
A. Liver 43. I eat a mushroom and I die. What is the
B. Stomach Contents type of toxicity?
C. Urine A. Acute
D. Hair B. Chronic
C. A cute
39. Why can it be difficult to establish a cause
and effect between pollutants and human D. none of above
health issues? 44. Which of the following is NOT used as a
A. it is difficult to find the sources tertiary treatment to sanitize wastewa-
B. humans experience exposure to a vari- ter?
ety of chemicals and pollutants A. Chlorine

B. Ozone B. cyanide
C. UV light C. lead

D. CFC D. radium
45. Which statement correctly explains how 49. DDT is a POP (Persistent Organic Pesti-
resistance to penicillin appeared after a cide) that can act as an endocrine disrup-
few years of its widespread use to fight tor. Which would it have the greatest ef-
bacterial infection? fect on?
A. in order to survive exposure to peni- A. Producers
cillin, bacteria developed a resistance to B. Primary Consumers
the drug
C. Secondary Consumers
B. a few bacteria became resistant to D. Autotrophs
penicillin, and through sexual reproduc-
tion, most bacteria acquired the resis- 50. The type of alcohol in alcoholic beverages
tance is called
C. penicillin never really successfully A. fermentation
wiped out populations of bacteria, scien- B. detoxification
tist did not use proper controls in their
studies C. ethanol
D. some bacteria were resistant to peni- D. vodka

cillin and their population spread rapidly, 51. Many synthetic chemicals, such as PCBs,
without competition from bacteria that act as estrogen mimics. In an ecosystem,
were killed by penicillin these persistent chemicals would have the
least effect on which of the following?
46. Cyanide, heroin, and nicotine are con-
cidered extreamly toxic, meaning their A. decomposers
LD50 is in this range. B. primary producers
A. Less than 5 mg/kg of body weight C. herbivores
B. 5 to 50 mg/kg of body weight D. secondary consumers
C. 50 to 500 mg/kg of body weight
52. What is biomagnification?
D. 500 to 1000 mg/kg of body weight A. Only in animals found in oceans
47. medicines that can be sold only with a writ- B. Cells storing nutrients and essential
ten order from a physician minerals.
A. Over-the-counter medicines C. Lower level of harmful chemicals in the
cells of organisms.
B. Drug misuse
D. Higher concentration of harmful chem-
C. Prescription medicines
icals in cells of organisms.
D. Club drugs
53. Which of the following is not necessary
48. Carbon monoxide, just like , kills to know to determine the location of a
through chemical suffocation. shooter at a crime scene?
A. arsenic A. angle of impact

B. distance of the shooter from the victim body3. oxidation of alcohol4. alcohol con-
C. height of the shooter taining liquid is ingested5. excreted from
body via breath, urine, and perspiration
D. height of the victim
A. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
54. ability of a chemical agent to cause injury B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
in a given situation or setting
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
A. risk
D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. hazardous
59. A person’s dependence on a drug depends
C. exposure
on all of the following except:
D. toxic
A. type of drug used
55. Arsenic has an LD50 of 15mg/kg. How B. whether the drug is synthetic or natu-
many mg of arsenic is toxic to an individ- ral
ual who weighs 100 kg?
C. route of administration
A. 15 mg D. society’s attitudes and responses
B. 1, 500 mg
60. Which of the substances below is the
C. 6.7 mg LEAST toxic?
D. 0.15 mg A. Cola (LD50 = 140mg/kg)
56. Physical effects drugs, alcohol or tobacco B. Aspirin (LD50 = 200mg/kg)
may have on a person C. Chlorine (LD50 = 850 mg/kg)
A. organ damage disease (cancer, cirrho- D. Vitamin A (LD50 = 2000 mg/kg)
sis, etc)
61. What is toxicology?
B. headaches and nausea/vomiting
A. The study of the harmful effects of
C. increase/decrease heart rate and de-
chemicals on human and other organisms
hydration
B. the study of the human body
D. decreased brain activity (reflexes, re-
action time) C. the study of chemicals
E. All of these D. the study of chemicals found in living
things
57. The amount of a toxin that causes the first
symptoms to appear is 62. Iodine marking pens are used for what?
A. Threshold Dose A. To detect counterfeit checks
B. LD50 B. To detect forged works of art
C. Lethal Dose C. To detect counterfeit money
D. Route of Entry D. To detect the age of a piece of paper
58. Which is the correct order for how alcohol 63. A person’s age, sex, weight, health issues,
travels through the body? 1. absorbed and genetic makeup influence how he or
into the bloodstream2. distributed uni- she responds to
formly throughout watery portions of the A. risk assessment

B. natural disasters 69. Which strain of bacteria is associated with

MRSA?
C. antibiotic resistance

A. Staphylococcus aureus
D. environmental hazards
B. Dracunulus medinesis
64. Some dangerous side effects of a drug C. Flavivirus
overdose include:
D. Giardia lamblia
A. Seizures
70. The adult LD50 for aspirin is 400 mg/kg.
B. Unconsciousness
How many 250-mg aspirin tablets would
C. Heart failure a 175-pound person need to consume to
D. Death get a lethal dose?
E. All of the above A. 280

B. 241
65. Something, like thalidomide, that causes
C. 127
malformed embryos, is called a
D. 50
A. mutagen
B. pathogen 71. How many tablets of vitamin A would be
lethal for a 120lb human? Assume that
C. carcinogen each tablet contains 3.0 mg of retinal.1 kg
D. teratogen = 2.2 lb Vitamin A Lethal dose is 2, 000
mg/kg
66. Forensic Scientists compare bullets from A. 42, 000 tablets
B. 36, 000 tablets
A. A Crime Scene bullet only
C. 528, 000 tablets
B. A test bullet only
D. 32, 000 tablets
C. A test bullet and a crime scene bullet
72. Brownish-reddish gas that is a component
D. None of the of photochemical smog and also can lead
to acid deposition
67. What is the primary determining factor of
the caliber of a bullet? A. NO2
A. weight B. N2O
B. length C. SO2
D. PANS
C. diameter
D. mass 73. A student wrote a prescription for Xanax
on a prescription pad she stole from her
68. What is antibiotics use to treat? family doctor. She then got it filled then
sold the pills at a graduation party. When
A. cancer
she is caught, what will her some of her
B. viruses charges be?
C. bacteria A. forgery
D. flu B. fraudulence

C. forgery and fraudulence D. Ecstacy

D. only theft, because that’s what started E. Heroin
all of this
79. Laws that protect society from drunk driv-
74. After taking Vicodin for 2 years for chronic ing are
pain, a 40-year-old woman finds that her
A. DIW, MUP
usual dosage is no longer effective and
goes to the doctor to request a higher B. DPW, DWI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dosage. This is an example of: C. DWI, DUI
A. addiction D. DUI, MIP
B. dependance
80. measured as mg per kg of body weight
C. tolerance
A. LD50
D. drug abuse
B. LC50
75. A carcinogenic chemical can
C. LR50
A. harm you
D. LM50
B. cause cancer
C. cause death 81. Found in seeds and pits of fruits in very
small concentrations, it can also be found
D. cause carcins to build up in labs/plants where synthetic plastics are
76. Measles, mumps, hepatitis, and herpes made.
are considered biological hazards caused A. thallium
by B. arsenic
A. protists
C. clostridium tetani
B. viruses
D. cyanide
C. bacteria
82. A disease that is not spread from one per-
D. fungi
son to another
77. The probability that a hazard will cause A. melanoma
a harmful response, such as death or dis-
ease, is known as B. cystic fibrosis
A. toxicity. C. nontransmissible disease
B. response. D. multiple sclerosis

C. risk. 83. Signs of a drug overdose include
D. dose. A. fast pulse, alert, walking around
78. Derived from morphine, causes a sense of B. foaming of the mouth, turning blue,
intense euphoria slow breathing
A. Marijuana C. fast breathing, conscious, talking
B. Cocaine D. turning blue, laughing, coughing
C. LSD E. None of the above

84. All of the following are heavy metal poi- 89. What is a Toxikon?
sons EXCEPT: A. Greek word for bow

A. arsenic B. A toxic natural occuring compound
B. mercury C. Roman word for poison
C. thallium D. none of above
D. cyanide
90. Which of the following described a hollow
85. Chemicals, ionizing radiation, and viruses point bullet?
that cause or promote the development of A. Designed for maximum pentetration
uncontrolable growth B. Mushrooms on impact
A. mutagen C. Easy to manfucature
B. carcinogen D. Used only at shooting ranges
C. cancer
91. Which of the following questions is of
D. teratogen LEAST pertinence for the EMT to ask a
patient who intentionally overdosed on a
86. Can be used to raise the pH of water, soil, medication?
and used in scrubbers
A. “How much do you weigh? ”
A. H2SO4
B. “How much did you ingest? ”
B. HNO3
C. “What substance did you take? ”
C. CaCO3
D. “Why did you take the medication? ”
D. CFC’s
92. The most important confirmatory test is:
87. I ingest lead with every glass of water
I drink after 20 years, I have developed A. Gas Chromatography Mass Spec-
siezures. What is the type of toxicity? troscopy
A. Acute B. Thin Layer Chromatography
B. Chronic C. Color Test
C. A cute D. UV Spectroscopy
D. none of above 93. What is the exposure route for the follow-
ing toxicants-carbon monoxide-gasoline
88. A law that established penalties for pos-
fume-glass fibers-plywood dust
session, use, or distribution of illegal
drugs and established five schedules for A. Oral
classifying drugs B. Dermal
A. Foreign Substances Act C. Intravenous
B. Immigration Act D. Inhalation
C. Controlled Substances Act
94. Generally speaking, the amount of gun-
D. Food and Drug Administration Act powder particles found around a bullet

hole is to the distance from which the A. West Nile

weapon was fired
B. MRSA
A. Indirectly related
C. Malaria
B. Directly related
D. Cholera
C. Not related
D. Somewhat related 99. The amount of alcohol in the blood is di-
rectly proportional to the amount in the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. Which of the following effects does drink-
ing alcohol NOT produce?
A. skin
A. Inducing sleep
B. hair
B. slowing of reflexes
C. brain
C. inappropriate behavior
D. increased sense of awareness D. liver
96. Which of the following is a primary air pol- 100. Toxins that get passed up the food chain
lutant caused by burning coal in increasing amounts
A. CFC A. biomagnification
B. Ozone B. compaction
C. CO C. compounding
D. Sulfuric Acid D. non-elimination
97. What is the difference between a bullet
101. How can the cascade of events caused by
and a cartridge?
toxicity be mitigated?
A. the bullet is the projectile, while the
A. By excretion
cartridge holds the bullet, powder, and
primer B. By exercise
B. the cartridge is the projectile, while C. By repair
the bullet holds the cartridge, powder,
and primer D. A and C
C. they are the same thing 102. What two main factors would best indi-
D. a bullet is larger and used more fre- cate quality of life of a country’s popula-
quently than a cartridge tion?
98. This is transmitted by mosquitoes, and is A. The total fertility rate and the death
found in North America, Middle East and rate
Africa. There is no vaccine, cure, you can B. The crude birth rate and the crude
only prevent it. Typical symptoms (if any death rate
some never show symptoms!) itchy
C. The birth rate and the infant mortality
rash, nausea, fever and about 1% develop
rate
neurological symptoms which sometimes
lead to death. There is a good chance you D. The life expectancy and the infant mor-
have had this and didn’t know it. tality rate

103. Illegal drugs are dangerous to your 108. A urine sample collected from a victim
health. What do you think are some other had a garlic smell. What substance should
common features of illegal drugs? the toxicologist be looking for?

A. affects function of brain A. thallium
B. can result in drug dependence and ad- B. mercury
diction C. ricin
C. can improve focus and concentration D. arsenic
D. both A and B 109. Leads to birth defects
104. All of the following are common presump- A. Neurtotoxin
tive tests EXCEPT: B. Teratogen
A. UV spectroscopy C. Carcinogen
B. Thin Layer Chromatography D. Neurotoxin
C. Immunoassay 110. A strong stimulant that causes short-
D. Polygraph lived feelings of happiness and a sense of
power; usually snorted
105. The LD50 for Vitamin A is 2000mg/kg, A. Marijuana
how many chewable vitamin tablets
would a 10kg child have to consume to B. Cocaine
reach the LD50 if each tablet contains 1mg C. LSD
of Vitamin A D. Ecstacy
A. 2000 tablets E. Heroin
B. 20000 tablets 111. A company has developed a new type of
C. 1000 tablets pesticide. Prior to use, the company tests
the health effects on humans, wildlife, and
D. 10000 tablets
ecosystems. Upon completion of the tests,
106. Chemicals that can harm the human ner- it is determined that the pesticide is safe
vous system and harmless. This process is an example
of
A. cytotoxins
A. a cause-and-effect relationship
B. necrotoxin
B. a dose-response analysis
C. hemotoxins
C. the innocent-until-proven-guilty ap-
D. neurotoxins proach
107. Animal proteins, pollen, cigarette smoke, D. the precautionary principle
some antibiotics, mold, and bacteria are 112. Several chemicals in sub-toxic amounts
common when mixed together become toxic.
A. carcinogens A. Threshold of Toxicity
B. Teratogens B. Bioaccumulation
C. Neurotoxins C. Toxic Synergy
D. allergens D. Biomagnification

113. Where does 90 percent of the elimination D. Damage heart health

of alcohol occur in humans?
119. Which best describes leaching
A. Liver
A. water flows through soil, landfills, or
B. Stomach Contents
other areas dissolving materials and car-
C. Urine rying it with the water to lower levels
D. Breath B. Acid rain is formed when water flows
through a coal mine
114. One of the six types of air pollution mon-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
itored by the EPA. Is formed from incom- C. The use of drip irrigation
plete combustion. D. A friend constantly borrows money but
A. CO2 never pays it back
B. CO 120. Which of these component of Municipal
C. SO2 Solid Waste can lead to methane in land-
D. O3 fills
A. Plastic
115. Which of the following is a long-term ef-
fect of alcohol? B. Yard Waste
A. dehydration C. Metal
B. cirrhosis D. none of above
C. hangover 121. Something, like PCBs, that causes cancer
D. emphysema is called a
A. mutagen
116. What are chemicals that can interfere
with the endocrine system of animals? B. pathogen
A. Endocrine disruptors C. carcinogen
B. Endocrine dissident D. teratogen
C. Endocrine dogmatist 122. A country in stage III (Industrial) of demo-
D. Which one is it? Who knows? graphic transition would be characterized
117. What complications exist beyond the sim- A. High birth rates and low death rates
ple definitions of Toxicology? B. Rapidly growing population
A. Measurement of toxic effects C. Low birth rates and high death rates
B. Constituents of a poison D. Low birth rates and low death rates
C. Dose of any substance
123. What agency would respond when there
D. All of the above is an outbreak of West Nile Virus in North
Carolina?
118. What is the health impact of lead
A. American Heart Association
A. Cancer risk
B. Nerve damage/ lower IQ B. CDC
C. Developmental issues (hormone C. OSHA

mimic) D. March of Dimes

124. Which of the following is not an emerging C. teratogens

disease? D. neurotoxins

A. HIV
130. The lead federal agency for protecting the
B. West Nile
health and safety of the public
C. SARS
A. CDC
D. All are examples of emerging diseases
B. FCC
125. Which of these factors contributes to ad-
C. CIA
verse (toxic) effects?
D. FFA
A. route of exposure
B. frequency of dose 131. Who is significant today due to her writ-
C. individual health status ings on the use of DDT?
D. all of the above A. Silent Rachel

B. Rachel Carson
126. Which of the following compounds in NOT
involved in the depletion of stratospheric C. John Muir
ozone? D. Clara Barton
A. CFC
132. A physical process associated with drug
B. Trichlormethane
use whereby a person craves a drug
C. Nitrous Oxide
A. withdrawal
D. Methyl Bromide
B. addiction
127. As a pesticide kills off weaker individuals C. tolerance
and leaves stronger individuals, the gene
pool of the pest changes. This is an exam- D. dependence
ple of
133. Epidemiology is
A. genetic resistance
A. study of how harmful a material is on
B. synergistic doses organisms
C. the pesticide treadmill B. study of how disease spreads and
D. a threshold dose their origins
128. Which of the following leads to a de- C. study chemicals to see how harmful
crease in birthrates among women? they are
A. Higher Education D. study skin cancer rates only
B. High Infant Mortality Rate 134. Study of the adverse effects of chemicals
C. No Prenatal Care on health
D. No contraceptives A. epidemiology
129. Chemicals that cause cancer are called B. immunology
A. carcinogens C. Toxicology
B. hazards D. phrenology

135. In the United States, which agency takes B. clean drinking water act
the lead for responding to emerging dis- C. Lacey Act
eases?
D. RCRA
A. Center for Disease Control and Preven-
tion (CDC) 140. Irrigation to remove poison solutions
from the eye requires you to use
B. Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA) A. copious amounts of water for 20 min-
utes.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
B. electrolyte solutions for 10 minutes.
D. Federal Emergency Management
Agency (FEMA) C. saline solutions for 20 minutes.
D. moderate pressured water for 10 min-
136. Which disease listed below is nontrans- utes.
missable?
A. Malaria 141. Toxicants A that has LC50 =20, B has
LC50=10 which one are more toxic
B. Pneumonia
A. A
C. Diabetes
B. B
D. Hepatitis
C. Both equal
137. What epidemiological term describes the D. Does not depend on LC50
likelihood that someone will become in-
fected or will develop a condition? 142. Which of these, if sampled now, can tell
us if a person is under the influence of a
A. incidence
drug right now?
B. risk A. Blood
C. monitoring B. Urine
D. mortality C. Hair
138. Which of the following is a true state- D. Stomach contents
ment about replacement-level fertility?
143. After the outbreak of an illness scientist
A. It equals the average number of chil- use epidemiology to try to find
dren a woman will give birth to during her
A. Origin of the disease
child-bearing years
B. How the disease spreads
B. It equals the annual number of live
births per 1, 000 people in a population C. How the disease might be prevented
from spreading
C. It equals the natural increase of a pop-
ulation in one year D. All of the above
D. It is greater in countries with high 144. For a certain insecticide, the LD-50
infant-mortality rates than in countries dosage level for rats is determined to be
with low infant-mortality rates 250 milligrams per kilogram of body mass.
On the basis of this information, which
139. Mandates maintaining the integrity of of the following is the best prediction re-
our nation’s waters garding the consequences of receiving this
A. clean water act dosage of the insecticide?

A. Fifty percent of any rat population B. “raised” portraits

would be sickened.
C. embedded fibers that react with UV

B. Fifty percent of the population of any light
warm-blooded animal would die.
D. all of these
C. Fifty percent of any population of
mosquitoes would die. 149. A neurotoxin that accumulates in food
D. Five hundred out of every one thou- chains through biomagnification
sand people would experience acute ef- A. Pb
fects
B. Hg
E. Five hundred out of every one thou-
sand rats would die. C. As
145. A 21-year-old male was found uncon- D. CO

scious in an alley. Your initial assessment
reveals that his respirations are slow and 150. Aldrich-Meses lines on the nails is a mani-
shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. festation of what heavy metal poisoning?
Further assessment reveals that his pupils A. Mercury
are bilaterally constricted. His presenta-
B. Arsenic
tion is MOST consistent with an overdose
of: C. Lead
A. cocaine D. none of above
B. an opioid
151. Which of the following is NOT an effects
C. a stimulant of endocrine disruptors on ecosystem
D. methamphetamine
A. birth defects
146. Spread of malignant cells to other parts B. developmental disorders
of the body
C. multiple cancers
A. metastasis
D. gender imbalances in fish and other
B. mutagen
species
C. cancer
D. teratogen 152. One of the primary concerns about the 12
POP’s such as DDT and PCBs is that they
147. Which of the following is true about E-
A. Are soluble in water and cause large-
cigarettes and vaporizers?
scale problems
A. contain nicotine
B. Can be concentrated in the fatty tis-
B. are made by tobacco companies sues of an organism
C. cause addiction
C. Are rarely found but are very toxic
D. all of the above
D. Quickly breakdown into other more
148. Changes to current government currency harmful pollutants
include which of the following? E. Are only found in plants and disrupt
A. water marks photosyntheis

153. the study of toxic or poisonous sub- B. persistence

stances. C. bioaccumulation
A. poison
D. synergy
B. toxin
159. The LD50 of sugar is 30g/kg. How many
C. toxicology
milligrams of sugar would be lethal to a
D. antidote person who weighs 120 pounds?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
154. The tiny country of Fremont has a net im- A. 1, 636, 363 mg
migration of 3 per 1, 000, a crude birth B. 1, 635 mg
rate of 9 per 1, 000, and a crude death
rate of 11 per 1, 000. What is the growth C. 3, 600, 000 mg
rate (r) for this country? D. 54, 545 mg
A. 1.0%
160. Lethal concentration that will kill 50% of
B. 10% a test population
C. .01% A. LD50
D. .1% B. LC50
155. What is the LD50 on a dose-response C. LR50
curve? D. LM50
A. Lethal Dose
161. If a false positive occurs with a presump-
B. Lethal Dive 50%
tive test, then a test would be or-
C. Lethal dose 50% dered.
D. Lethal death 50% A. confirmatory
156. What is the number 1 way someone can B. make sure
recognize fake money? C. presumptive round 2
A. changing colors with a counterfeit pen D. color
B. contains an anti-theft strip
162. How much is one ppm?
C. the feeling (touch)
A. 1 mg/kg of body mass
D. serial numbers are all the same
B. 1 g/l
157. a fibrous material that has fireproof prop-
erties C. 1 mg/l
A. hazardous waste D. 1 µ l/l

B. asbestos 163. The effects from abusing bath salts may
C. deforestation last up to hours.
D. landfill A. 36
B. 72
158. How long a substance remains in the en-
vironment C. 48
A. biomagnification D. 24

164. An excessive quantity of a drug, when 169. If Central Fremont has a growth rate
taken or administered, can have toxic or of 1.6%, approximately how long will it
lethal consequences. take the town ‘s population of 35, 000 to

double?
A. Addiction
B. Overdose A. 5 years
C. Toxic bypass B. .4 years
D. Medication accident C. 44 years

D. 22 years
165. is the legal limit for adults over
twenty-one years of age driving non- 170. When police obtain a writing sample from
commercial vehicles. the suspect, the sample is called a(n):
A. 0.08 A. Sample
B. 0.04 B. Exemplar
C. 0.02 C. Screening
D. 0.1 D. Graphology
166. The release of a large amount of sewage
171. Surveillance of exposed workers is under
overflow into a nearby creek would lead
what study of Toxicology?
to:
A. Environmental Toxicology
A. High DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
B. Occupational Toxicology
B. Low DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
C. Ecotoxicology
C. Low DO, High BOD, High Fecal Col-
iform D. none of above
D. Low DO, Low BOD, High Fecal Coliform
172. Identify the term that best describes a
167. The process where toxins build up in in- set of physical and mental defects that af-
dividuals over time & with multiple expo- fect a fetus that has been exposed to alco-
sures hol.
A. biomagnification A. SuddenInfant Death Syndrome
B. persistence B. FetalAlcohol Syndrome
C. bioaccumulation C. Stillborn
D. synergy D. AlcoholicMiscarriage
168. In what units are Lethal Dose50 (LD50) 173. Disease in which cells multiply uncontrol-
expressed? lably and invade surrounding tissue.
A. oz/lb A. mutation
B. mg/lb B. cancer
C. oz/kg C. infectious disease
D. mg/kg D. transmissible disease

174. The degree to which a substance is poi- B. Lead

sonous or can cause illness C. Arsenic
A. toxin D. none of above
B. toxicity
180. lbs is equal to
C. toxicology
A. 330 kg
D. teratogen
B. 150 kg
NARAYAN CHANGDER
175. Sending an unknown white powder in the C. 68 kg
mail is an example of
D. 59 kg
A. bioterrorism
181. The Secret Service has two jobs. They in-
B. scare tactics
clude
C. wait and see approach
A. Protecting the president and protect-
D. dose response curve ing the food supply
176. Using risk measurement and other infor- B. protecting the nations money from
mation to determine options and make de- counterfeiters and witness protection
cisions about reducing or eliminating risks C. protecting the nations money from
A. risk assessment counterfeiters and Eisenhower Middle
School
B. risk analysis
D. Protecting the president and protect-
C. risk communication
ing the nations money from counterfeiters
D. risk management
182. A bullet has an angle of entry of 15 de-
177. The relationship between the different grees and the distance to the shooter is be-
doses and the responses they generate lieved to be 58 ft away. The bullet wound
A. Dose-response relationship was 5 feet above the ground. What is the
height of the shooter above the horizon?
B. Environmental health
A. 5 ft
C. Earthquake
B. 16 ft
D. Toxicology
C. 21 ft
178. medicines that are safe enough to be D. 45 ft
taken without a written order from a
physician 183. When caring for a patient with a surface
A. Narcotics contact poisoning, it is important to re-
member to:
B. Stimulants
A. prevent contamination of the patient.
C. Prescription medicines
B. avoid contaminating yourself or oth-
D. Over-the-counter medicines ers.
179. Gingival lines that are seen on the C. immediately flush dry chemicals with
gums is a manifestation of what heavy water.
metal poisoning? D. let the hospital remove the surface poi-
A. Mercury son.

184. The “Mad Hatter Syndrome” is a from of of buildup of the effect with increasing
what heavy metal poisoning? dose levels.

A. Lead B. The degree of metabolism of a xenobi-
B. Mercury otic.
C. Arsenic C. The relationship of exposure dose to
absorbed dose.
D. none of above
D. All of the above
185. How do scientists determine the toxicity
of a chemical 190. What is a severe and potentially fatal
A. LD50-expose it to many lab animals at physical reaction to an alcohol overdose
different concentrations called?
B. wait for reports of death and mayham A. blood alcohol concentration

C. Its chemical structure B. alcohol poisoning
D. which country it is from C. binge drinking
D. detoxification
186. A drug that is inhaled into the lungs and
alters the functions of the mind. 191. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
A. Stimulants ple of an Inhalant?
B. Depressants A. Paint
C. Hallucinogens B. Aerosol
D. Inhalants C. Xanax
E. Narcotics D. Glue
187. Mitigates UV radiation from getting to 192. Amount of a toxic material per unit of
the troposphere body weight of test animals that kills half
A. stratospheric ozone the test population in a certain time
B. tropospheric ozone A. risk assessment
C. Calcium Carbonate B. risk management
D. CFC C. LD50
188. What are the methods the body uses to D. LD60
eliminate alcohol?
193. A 5 year old child was experiencing loss
A. oxidation
of appetite and having seizures. A red,
B. excretion metal truck was his favorite toy and had
C. both oxidation and excretion missing paint on it. A possible diagnosis
is:
D. neither oxidation nor excretion
A. anthrax poisoning
189. Knowledge of the dose-response rela-
B. lead poisoning
tionship permits one to determine:
A. Whether exposure has caused an ef- C. botulism
fect, threshold for the effect, and the rate D. cyanide poisoning

194. Which short-term effect of alcohol is as- 199. The fracture pattern of glass usually has
sociated with headaches and loss of water A. Radial and concentric lines
in the body?
B. Concentric lines
A. nausea
C. Radial lines
B. cirrhosis D. Directional lines
C. memoryloss
200. Powerful craving for a drug that does
D. dehydration not result in physical withdrawal systems
NARAYAN CHANGDER
upon discontinuation of the drug
195. No medical use, high potential for abuse.
A. tolerance
A. schedule I B. dependency
B. schedule II C. addiction
C. schedule IV D. toxicity
D. schedule V 201. Chemical, ionizing agent, or virus that
causes birth defects
196. Endocrine disruptors:
A. carcinogen
A. only affect the reproductive capability
B. teratogen
of females
C. mutation
B. affect the reproduction of fish, birds,
reptiles and mammals D. mutagen
C. only affect the reproductive system of 202. VOC used in the manufacturing of furni-
humans ture and building materials
D. affect immune system of animals A. Formaldehyde
B. Kerosene
197. What is the unit for dose?
C. Carbon Monoxide
A. ppm D. Radon
B. microgram
203. Which of the following is NOT a human
C. miligram per unit of body weight health issues that is caused pollution
D. ppm per day A. ischaemic heart disease
B. Lyme Disease
198. The LD50 represents
C. stroke
A. The effect level resulting from a
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary
threshold dose of 50 mg.
B. The point at which the liver is 50% de- 204. Which of the following is used by scien-
stroyed. tist to estimate the effects a dose of chem-
ical on an organism?
C. The estimated dose level that will pro-
A. Dose-response relationship
duce 50% deaths in groups of animals ad-
ministered a specific dose B. Dose-response curve
D. The dose causing 50% of samples C. Dose-response graph
tested is 50mg/kg D. Dose-response table

205. Which statement best illustrates why 209. What agency is responsible for printing
replacement-level fertility in developing the US money supply?
countries is 2.5 and in developed coun-

A. Department of Agriculture
tries it is 2.1? Developing nations are still
in transitional demographic growth where B. Justice Department
fertility is high C. Treasury Department
A. Developed nations are in stage three D. CIA
of demographic growth where fertility
level is stable 210. Established Cradle to Grave monitoring
B. Fertility in developing nations higher of hazardous waste
due to the lack of education and contra- A. RCRA
ceptive devices
B. Basel Convention
C. Developing nations will have more chil-
dren die before reaching reproductive age C. CERCLA
D. Developing nations have a higher pop- D. Brownfields
ulation and therefore will have a higher
replacement-level fertility 211. Drugs can consumed into the body by all
methods below except
206. The act of trying to prevent something
or being proactive and offsetting potential A. Smoking
problems B. Injecting
A. Remediation C. Absorbing through skin
B. Restoration D. Absorbing through hair
C. Mitigation
212. Who is considered the father of the sci-
D. Transpiration
ence of questioned document examination
207. This baby was the son of a famous in North America?
aviator and kidnapped from his nursery A. Herschel
in 1932 for $50, 000 ransom. Many
ransom notes eventually led to his killer B. Galton
Bruno Hauputmann. What was this child’s C. Orfila
name?
D. Osborn
A. Orville Wright, Jr.
B. Hugh Thompson, Jr. 213. The application of Epidemiology involves
C. Charles Augustus Lindbergh, Jr.
A. Counting the number of infected peo-
D. Elrey Borge Jeppesen, Jr.
ple in a town
208. A disease that rapidly (suddenly) impairs B. Sharing the source of an outbreak in
a body’s functions is the news to warn the public
A. infection
C. Mapping the locations of individuals in
B. acute an outbreak
C. chronic D. Making a graph showing the rise of a
D. epidemic disease over the past year

214. Environmental hazards that result from 219. When an individual wants to get their life
where we live, our jobs, or our lifestyle together they can go to this place:
choices are called A. Move with a family member
A. physical hazards
B. Go to a rehab center
B. chemical hazards
C. Go to jail and think about the decisions
C. biological hazards they’ve made
D. cultural hazards D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
215. What category is Heroin? 220. Which of the following will cause the
A. I highest degree of damage at an entry
B. II site?
C. III A. high velocity bullet
D. Iv B. low velocity bullet

C. low caliber bullet
216. Lethal dose (LD50) values are deter-
mined by the amount of a substance that: D. small bullet round
A. kills at least 50 individuals of the test 221. What is the MOST significant reason
population exposed to the substance that infectious disease is spreading at in-
B. kills a test population when given at creased rates?
least 50 ml of the substance A. Lack of vaccines
C. kills at least 50% of the test population B. Increase of global travel
exposed to the substance
C. Climate change
D. kills a test population when given at
least 50g of the substance D. Urban sprawl
217. How many milligrams of tylenol (LD50 = 222. The process of measuring the chance that
2402 mg/kg) would kill a 160 pound per- an environmental hazard will cause harm
son? is called
A. 174, 690 mg A. toxicology
B. 130, 024 mg B. epidemiology
C. 4, 203 mg C. dose-response relationship
D. 263, 503 mg D. risk assessment
218. Any substance, other than food, that al- 223. A substance affecting the nervous system
ters the function of both the mind and the by increasing alertness, attention, and en-
body. ergy, as well as elevating blood pressure,
A. Liquid heart rate, and respiration
B. Drug A. Depressant
C. Alcohol B. Stimulant
D. Hormone C. Narcotic
E. Pizza Crunchers D. Anabolic Steroid

224. Body and/or mind need the drug to func- C. OTC drugs
tion normally
D. None of these

A. dependence
B. down regulation 230. Uranium 238 decays to make this carcino-
genic gas found in the bedrock
C. withdrawal
D. addiction A. Asbestos
B. Radon
225. are chemicals that affect the nervous
system. C. Lead
A. carcinogens D. Thalidomide
B. Teratogens
C. Neurotoxins 231. Which of the following best exemplifies
population momentum?
D. allergens
A. Continued growth of a population after
226. Pollen and proteins that stimulate a im- fertility drops to replacement level
mune response are considered haz-
ards. B. Continued growth of a population due
to emigration
A. chemical
C. Decreased population due to increase
B. physical
in the death rate
C. biological
D. Decreased population due to a re-
D. cultural duced death rate and an increased fertil-
ity rate
227. An odorless, radioactive gas
A. air pollution 232. Who stated that “all substances are poi-
B. smog sons; there is none that is not a poison.
The right dose differentiates a poison and
C. hazardous waste
a remedy.”?
D. radon
A. Galen
228. Exposure to bleach in large amount is a
B. Dioscorides
know to cause cancer in humans. Bleach
would be considered a C. Paracelsus
A. endocrine disruptors D. Aristotle
B. teratogens
C. neurotoxin 233. Drugs that are used to treat or prevent
diseases and other conditions.
D. carcinogen
A. Alcohol
229. Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana are ex-
amples of B. Vitamines
A. gateway drugs C. Illicit drugs

B. recreational drugs D. Medicine

234. Police respond to a 911 call in which 239. Frank Abagnale Jr. impersonated all of
two people are found dead in an enclosed the following except:
bedroom heated by an unvented kerosene A. lawyer
stove. There was no sign of trauma or vi-
olence, a likely cause of death is: B. doctor
A. Excess oxygen generated by the com- C. engineer
bustion of kerosene. D. pilot
B. Acute toxicity due to uncombusted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. Toxicology involves
kerosene fumes.
A. The impact of man made chemicals
C. Acute toxicity due to carbon monoxide
poisoning. B. studying how harmful ANY material is
on organisms
D. All of the above
C. studying patters of disease in our
235. A drug that distorts the senses. Can country
change the way the brain perceives time,
reality, and the environment. D. studying emerging diseasess
A. Stimulants 241. Aspirin has an LD50 of 200 mg/kg. How
B. Depressants many 50 mg aspirin tablets would a 100
kg human have to consume before there
C. Hallucinogens
was a 50% chance that they would die?
D. Inhalants
A. 2000 pills
E. Narcotics
B. 800 pills
236. Which of the following routes is the C. 20 pills
MOST rapidexposure to a chemical?
D. 400 pills
A. Oral
B. Inhalation 242. After a screening test has been used to
determine the identity of an abused drug,
C. Intramuscular
the confirmation test of choice is
D. Subcutaneous
A. Gas chromatography
237. Which chemical is often found in plastic B. Gas chromatography/mass spectrom-
water bottles and is known as a probable etry
endocrine disruptor?
C. Thin layer chromatography
A. Aldicarb
D. Immunoassay
B. DDT
C. Mercury 243. If 1mg/kg of mass of a pesticide is the
LD50 for rats in an experiment, what
D. BPA would be considered safe exposure for hu-
238. The stratosphere mans
A. Contains the most ozone A. 1mg/kg
B. Is closest to the sun B. .1mg/kg
C. Has the most oxygen C. .01mg/kg
D. Is where all weather takes place D. .001mg/kg

244. The majority of atmospheric mercury is 249. taking or using medicine in a way that is
produced by: not intended

A. Municipal Waste Incinerators A. Tolerance
B. Coal burning power plants B. Drug Abuse
C. Binge
C. Medical waste
D. Drug misuse
D. Runoff from thermometer factories
250. Risk:
245. An addictive, sleep-inducing drug, often
A. the probability of suffering injury, dis-
derived from opium, that acts as a cen-
ease, death, or some other loss as a result
tral nervous system depressant and sup-
of exposure to a hazardthe whole context
presses pain
of human life-the physical, chemical, and
A. hallucinogen biological setting of where and how peo-
ple live.
B. depressant
B. the whole context of human life-the
C. narcotic physical, chemical, and biological setting
D. stimulant of where and how people live.
C. The study of the connections between
246. I am exposed to radiation as a child. Ten hazards in the environment and human
years later I die from it. What is the type disease and death
of toxicity?
A. Acute
251. Toxic agents may be:
B. Chronic
A. Chemical (such as cyanide)
C. A cute
B. Physical (such as radiation)
D. none of above C. Biological (such as snake venom).
247. This type of heavy metal poisoning is one D. All of the above
of the oldest occupational and environmen-
252. Drugs that are inhaled, also known as
tal disease in the world.
“huffing” are classified as:
A. lead A. Depressants
B. mercury B. Inhalants
C. arsenic C. Stimulants
D. none of above D. Opiates
253. Ethanol has an LD50 of 7, 060mg/kg.
248. What type of health hazard are viruses
What would be the lethal dosage for an
and bacteria?
individual who weighs 35kg?
A. Social
A. 247, 100 mg
B. Chemical B. 201.71 mg
C. Biological C. 0.00014 mg
D. Physical D. 24, 700 mg

254. Which of the following is a neurotoxin? a little, hawks affected a lot). This de-
A. Asbestos scribes
B. Thalidomide A. Biomagnification
C. Mercury B. Eutrophication
D. DDT C. Bioremediation
D. Bioaccumulation
255. The most populous country in the world
NARAYAN CHANGDER
are China, India, and 260. The leading cause of death and disease
A. Indonesia around the world is caused by
B. Russia A. waterborne disease in contaminated
C. The United States water
D. Mexico B. air pollution

C. poor or over nutrition and lack of exer-
256. Plastics cise
A. decompose readily in water D. bioterrorism
B. Decompose slowly, if at all, and persist
for decades 261. Mitigated by electrostatic precipitators
C. Releases radioactive isotopes A. Sulfur Dioxide
D. Decompose in landfills to produce B. Nitrogen Dioxide
methane C. Acid Deposition
257. What is a solution to the counterfeiting D. PM2.5
problem in the US?
262. LD-50 shows
A. embed the bills with more counterfeit-
ing defenses even though it is more expen- A. the dose that kills 50 % of a test popu-
sive lation
B. switch to virtual currency B. the dose at which 50 % of a population
displays negative health effects
C. change to a polymer money (plastic)
because its more difficult to counterfeit C. the dose at which the first individual in
D. none of these are solutions a population dies from exposure
D. the dose that causes 50% of the popu-
258. Ionizing radiation, thermal pollution, and lation to become extinct
noise pollution are examples of
A. chemical hazards 263. MDMA; also known as “Molly;” triggers
release of feel good hormones.
B. biological hazards
A. Marijuana
C. cultural hazards
B. Cocaine
D. physical hazards
C. LSD
259. When a toxin is introduced to a food
chain, the negative affect will get worse D. Ecstacy
as you go up trophic levels. (mice affected E. Heroin

264. A neurotoxin once found in gasoline, 269. Most of hazardous substances exhibit a
paint and plumbing pipes. “dose-response relationship.” What does
this mean?

A. lead
B. arsenic A. The harm caused by the hazard in-
creases as the amount of hazard entering
C. cambium the body (dose) increases.
D. mercury
B. It does not matter how big a dose
265. Asbestos has been shown to have a you receive, you will always have same
higher correlation with cancer when some- amount of harm/sickness.
one smokes cigarettes as well. This is be- C. Exposure to the hazard always results
cause in harm.
A. both substances are teratogens D. Fifty percent of the people will die
B. the synergistic effect that results from when exposed regardless of the dose.
exposure to both at the same time
270. A compelling need to continue a behavior
C. Asbestos is a carcinogen and tobacco
as in abusing drugs.
is an endocrine disruptor
D. the risk-taking behavior of the individ- A. Addiction
ual exposed B. Overdose
266. Diseases that appear for the first time C. Withdrawal
or have existed and then begin to spread D. Tolerance
rapidly are called?
A. Infectious 271. What contributes to toxic effects?
B. Emerging A. there is a molecular site (or receptor)
with which the chemical interacts to pro-
C. Pandemics
duce a response
D. Biological
B. production of response is related to
267. Chemical or form of radiation that causes the concentration of the compound at the
inheritable changes in the DNA molecules active site
in the genes found in chromosomes C. the concentration of the compound at
A. teratogen the active site is related to the dose ad-
B. mutagen ministered
C. carcinogen D. all of the above

D. metastasis 272. What type of interaction in a chemical
268. Living organism that can cause disease in mixture results in a smaller combined ef-
another organism. fect than expected?
A. pathogen A. additive
B. carcinogen B. antagonistic
C. teratogen C. synergistic
D. mutagen D. acute

273. What is fraudulence? C. substances that produce adverse ef-

A. Fraudulence is forgery done for mate- fects of any nature
rial gain D. A and C
B. Fraudulence only applies to money and 278. What is one way improved agriculture
checks contributed to population growth?
C. Fraudulence only applies to docu- A. it led to better sanitation
ments and works of art
B. it created a surplus of food
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. They are synonyms
C. it meant that horses could be used for
274. The study of drugs, poisons, toxins, and transportation
other substances that harm a person when D. it led to the production of more wool
used for medical, recreational, or criminal for warm clothing
purposes
279. any effect of a medicine other than the
A. histology
one intended
B. hematology
A. Drug misuse
C. physiology
B. Side effect
D. toxicology C. Drug abuse
275. A 30-year-old male, who ingested an un- D. Tolerance
known substance, begins to vomit. You
should: 280. Subtoxic amounts of chemicals become
toxic in combination due to the cumulative
A. collect the vomitus and bring it to the effect on immune systems
hospital.
A. biomagnification
B. apply a bag-valve mask.
B. persistence
C. analyze the vomitus and try to identify
the poison. C. bioaccumulation
D. suction his oropharynx for no longer D. synergy

than 30 seconds. 281. What epidemiological term describes the
measurement of the number of deaths per
276. Bacteria contamination from FECES is
1, 000 in a given population
developing countries. ( WASH YOUR
HANDS) A. incidence
A. Cholera B. morbidity
B. Salmonella C. monitoring
C. Diarrhea D. mortality
D. Ebola 282. What is a wadcutter bullet primarily used
for?
277. Toxins are:
A. home defense
A. substances that cause immediate
death or illness B. target practice
B. specific proteins produced by living or- C. maximum target damage
ganisms D. large game hunting

283. Which of the following is the name of the 288. Of the following, the factor that is most
international environmental treaty, that directly responsible for the growth of the
aims to eliminate or restrict the production human population in the past one hundred

and use of persistent organic pollutants years is
(POPs)?
A. Increased number of women working
A. REACH
B. Improved birth control methods
B. Toxic substances control act
C. Improved medical care and sanitation
C. Federal Insecticide, fungicide, and ro-
denticide act D. Increased urbanization
D. Stockholm convention on persistent or-
ganic pollutants 289. Tuberculosis is caused by a
A. Parasite
284. The amount of a potentially harmful sub-
stance an individual ingests, inhales, or ab- B. Virus
sorbs through the skin.
C. Bacteria
A. dose
D. Fungus
B. LD50
C. median lethal dose 290. Which of the following consumer prod-
D. dose-response curve ucts would most likely increase your ex-
posure to bisphenol A?
285. What is the amount of alcohol in a per-
son’s blood expressed as a percentage A. Wood paneling in your home
called? B. Imported fruit from tropical regions
A. BAC C. Plastic food containers and water bot-
B. BMI tles
C. FAS D. Perfumes and hairsprays
D. ABC
291. Food poisoning is almost always caused
286. Which of the following would be a sample by eating food that contains:
taken from the human body for toxicology
testing A. fungi
A. vitreous humor of eye B. viruses
B. liver sample C. bacteria
C. brain tissue D. protozoa
D. all of these
292. Which of the following is not a principle
287. Who would have the greatest sensitivity that can help us evaluate and reduce risk
to environmental hazards?
A. comparing the risk
A. Infants
B. Teens B. determine how much risk is acceptable
C. Adults C. determine the actual risk involved

D. Toddlers D. scream and run

293. Which of the following are examples of C. I and II only

questioned documents? D. I, II, and III
A. Receipts
298. Impaired depth perception in drinking
B. Counterfeit money drivers causes
C. Historical documents A. drivers to perceive something is far
D. All of the above away when it is actually close
B. blurred vision
294. The U.S. age structure diagram
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. driver perceive something is close
A. Looks like a pyramid
when it is actually far away
B. Reflects unequal distribution of males
D. increased reflex action of the pupils of
and females at all age groups
the eyes
C. Reflects an aging population
299. Worldwide there were 20 births and 8
D. Reflects a population with a high
deaths per 1000 people in 2017. Calcu-
growth rate
late the growth rate of the world.
295. Which statement is the most correct? A. 1.1%
A. Chemicals manufactured by humans B. 2.8%
are more dangerous to human health than C. 1.2%
naturally occurring chemicals.
D. 1.6%
B. Both natural and human-made chemi-
cals are potentially toxic to humans. 300. A law that makes it illegal for persons un-
C. Naturally occurring chemicals are der 21 to drive with any amount of alcohol
more poisonous to humans than synthetic in their blood is
chemicals. A. the Graduated licensing law
D. None of the answers apply B. the No-alcohol under 21 law
296. A compound such as asbestos which can C. the nNew drivers law
cause lung cancer after exposure to its fine D. the Zero-tolerance law
particles would be considered a/an
301. What type of chemicals disrupt the ner-
A. Teratogen vous system?
B. Carcinogen A. carcinogens
C. Endocrine disruptor B. Endocrine disruptors
D. Neurotoxing C. neurotoxins
297. Factors that affect the total fertility rate D. teratogens
of the human population include which
302. The test which identifies a specific drug
of the following? I. Cultural traditionsII.
is
Government policies and economic incen-
tivesIII. Education level and economic op- A. tasting
portunities for females B. smelling
A. I only C. screening
B. II only D. confirmation

303. I eat a mushroom and I die within an hour. 308. What does real money feel like?
What is the type of toxicity?
A. slippet

A. Acute
B. like a sheet of notebook paper
B. Chronic
C. like a paper towel
C. A cute
D. like cloth
D. none of above
309. If you are using the gas chromatograph
304. What is the process by which the body mass spectrophotometer then what kind
adjusts to functioning without alcohol of testing are you doing?
called?
A. confirming test
A. Dependence
B. selective test
B. Abuse
C. screening test
C. Addiction
D. none of above
D. withdrawal
310. Which is not a heavy metal?
305. What law requires a driver to automati-
A. Mercury
cally give consent to be tested for BAC if
arrested on suspicion of DUI or DWI? B. Arsenic
A. drinking-consent law C. Lead
B. implied-consent law D. Cadmium
C. legal alcohol limit law 311. Gunpowder residue patterns can be de-
D. alcohol approval law tected by which method?
A. The Greiss TEst
306. E-waste is harmful because:
B. DNA sequence analysis
A. It leaches heavy metals such as lead,
cadmium, mercury, etc. C. Both A & B
B. Is highly reactive D. Neither A & B
C. Is a well known teratogen 312. The increase in the size of Earth’s human
D. Cannot be recycled population in the last century has been dra-
matic. Which of the following identifies
307. ADME is an abbreviation for: two major contributors to this increase?
A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism A. New methods of agriculture and the
and Elimination. identification of new food crops
B. Adsorption, Distribution, Metabolism B. The Industrial Revolution and modern
and Elimination. medicine
C. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism C. New methods of birth control and de-
and Excretion. creased warfare
D. Adsorption, Distribution, Metabolism D. Increased education for women and
and Excretion. the development of new pesticides

313. Which of the following is NOT an en- 318. The Stockholm convention
docrine disruptor? A. was an international agreement to ban
A. DDT a number of endocrine disruptors
B. Atrazine B. led to REACH agreements on chemical
evaluation
C. BPA
C. was a European Union agreement to
D. CFC use the precautionary principle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
314. Which of the following is NOT a carcino- D. was an agreement between the US
gen? and the European Union to ban many car-
cinogens
A. Arsenic
B. Radon 319. High levels of GDP per capita indicate
A. Higher levels of happiness
C. Asbestos
B. Higher standard of living
D. Carbon Monoxide
C. Equal levels of wealth
315. increase feelings of energy and alertness D. Self-sufficient communities
while suppressing appetite.
320. Which of the following respiratory dis-
A. stimulants
eases was a rapidly spreading epidemic in
B. narcotics China before it was successfully contained
C. hallucinogens in 2003?
A. SARS
D. depressants
B. West Nile
316. What epidemiological term describes the C. Malaria
number of times a condition occurs in rela-
tion to the total number of people? D. Swine Flu
A. incidence 321. Study of the patterns of disease or

other harmful effects from toxic exposure
B. prevalance
within defined groups of people to find out
C. monitoring why some people get sick and some do not
D. surveillance A. Toxicology
B. pathology
317. Due to our increased awareness of harm-
ful chemicals, C. phrenology
A. new environmental toxicans are rela- D. epidemiology

tively safe. 322. LD50 measures
B. the US has outlawed all dangerous A. the amount that will make you sick half
chemicals. the time
C. daily products don’t contain harmful B. the lethal dose for 50% of a test popu-
chemicals lation
D. many are more aware of the possible C. the quantity of toxin needed to infect
dangers of using daily products 50% of your cells

D. the amount that wil kill you half the 328. Toxicology is the study of
time A. prevalence of disease and death in a

population
323. Why are Toxins hard to find in the body?
B. adverse effects of chemicals on living
A. They are in and out very quickly organisms
B. They don’t show up with conventional C. the appearance of symptoms pro-
tests duced by infectious agents
C. The body metabolizes them into an- D. none of the above
other substance
329. A student tried Xanax and began using
D. Organic molecules are harder to find it regularly. After learning in health class
than in organic molecules that long term effects of Xanax can lead
to lowered heart rate, respiratory depres-
324. Many states have set the level of intoxi-
sion, brain damage, dependence, and ad-
cation at a BAC of
diction, she decided to not use the drug
A. 1.1% anymore. She started feeling anxious,
B. 0.18% having trouble sleeping, sweating exces-
sively and lost her appetite. Which of the
C. 1.0% following terms represents these symp-
D. 0.08% toms?
A. Tolerance
325. Study of deleterious effects of chemical
B. Dependence
agents on all living systems
C. Addiction
A. poisonous
D. Withdrawal
B. toxicology
330. Concerned with the causes, spread, and
C. hazardous
control of diseases in populations; a divi-
D. exposure sion of the USDHHS.
A. World Health Organization (WHO)
326. The largest component of municipal solid
waste in the US is: B. US Department of Health and Human
Services (USDHHS)
A. Paper
C. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
B. Plastic
D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C. Yard Trimmings
331. What caused the bullet to move from the
D. Metal chamber into the barrel?
327. The maximum allowable BAC for drivers A. Pressure from the expanding gun pow-
is der
A. .02% B. Firing pin pushes it down the barrel
C. The trigger manually moves the bullet
B. .08%
into the barrel
C. .04%
D. Pressure from the ignited primer pow-
D. .10% der

332. A substance that decreases or inhibits the 337. A drug that changes a person’s percep-
nervous system, reducing alertness tions and thinking during intoxication
A. depressant A. alcohol
B. hallucinogen B. depressant
C. narcotic C. hallucinogen
D. opiod D. none of above
338. Toxicokinetics is the study of the physio-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
333. When a drug is found in a person’s body
at levels, it is considered harmful, and logical processes associated with
could cause death. A. Oxidative stress
A. normal B. Cellular respiration
B. therapeutic C. Effects of toxins on tissues
C. toxic D. Movements of toxins in the body
D. lethal 339. By the year 2050, world population is
expected to approach 10 billion. If the
334. Created because of Love Canal, mandated
current population trends continue which
Superfund sites
region of the world will most likely expe-
A. RCRA rience the majority of growth?
B. CERCLA A. Africa and Asia
C. Brownfields B. North and Central America
D. Clean Water Act C. Central and South America
D. Eastern and Western Europe
335. Which of these is a well known carcino-
gen often found in mine tailings? 340. Dengue Fever is caused by a
A. Lead A. Fungus
B. Mercury B. Parasite
C. Asbestos C. Virus
D. Arsenic D. Bacteria
336. Considered an “Old World” Disease, is 341. A disease that is caused by living organ-
a highly contagious respiratory infection isms and can spread from one person to
that’s caused by a virus. It causes a total- another
body skin rash and flu-like symptoms, in- A. Huntingtons disease
cluding a fever, cough, and runny nose.
B. Downs syndrome
Though rare in the United States, 20 mil-
lion cases happen worldwide every year. C. transmissible disease
A. Measles D. sickle cell anemia
B. Smallpox 342. What is Dysentery caused by?
C. Anthrax A. sick animals
D. Norovirus B. poisonous plants

C. untreated sewage in streams and B. Alcohol deprevation

rivers C. Cold turkey

D. humans D. Alcohol poisoning
343. Which of the following is NOT an infec-
348. Which forensics pioneer is most well-
tious disease that is transmitted through
known for creating a system of DNA fin-
water?
gerprinting and profiling?
A. Cholera
A. Sir Alec Guinness
B. Tuberculosis
B. Sir Alec Baldwin
C. Giardiasis
C. Sir Alec Jeffreys
D. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Sir Smart Alec
344. Organism that produces disease
349. Toxicology is the study of what?
A. pathogen
A. Disease
B. Ebola
B. poisons
C. tuberculosis
C. parasites
D. maleria
D. death
345. Which of the following is not a factor that
will affect one’s response to exposure to 350. What is a convenient way to describe
toxins the toxicity of a chemical to determine the
dose to which 50% of the test population
A. genetic materials is sensitive?
B. body mass A. EPA
C. height B. FDA
D. organ health C. LD50
346. What is Lethal Dose 50%? D. SD50
A. “You can do it” “Yes we can”
351. A person’s inhibitions are
B. The dose that is the breaking point of
A. inner forces of personality that hold
the Dose-response Curve
back impulsive behavior
C. The dose that kills of the population
B. restrictions imposed by laws
D. The dose of a chemical that is lethal
C. unrestrained emotional behavior
to 50% of the population of a particular
species D. behaviors of the highly intelligent
347. A severe withdrawal syndrome seen in 352. Which type of pollutant does not require
alcoholics who are trying to quit drink- direct contact
ing; s & s are restlessness, fever, sweat- A. Heavy Metals
ing, disorientation, agitation, hallucina-
tions, and seizures; can be fatal if un- B. Radiation
treated. C. POPs
A. Delirium tremens D. Acids

353. The FDA regulates: 357. endocrine disruptors are

A. The financing of dietary aides in nurs- A. chemical that disrupt the nervous sys-
ing homes. tem
B. Vaccinations in third world countries. B. chemicals that interfere with normal
functions of hormones in an animal’s body
C. Health workers who contract infec-
tions from their patients. C. chemicals that interfere with the nor-
mal development of embryos or fetuses
D. Food and Drugs sold to the public
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. chemicals that interfere with the nor-
354. What are some effects drugs, alcohol and mal development of embryos or fetuses
tobacco have on a person socially
358. The primary role of this agency is to
A. strained relationships with family and direct and coordinate international health
friends within the United Nations’ system.
B. loss of interest in activities A. WHO
C. loss of social privileges (grounding, B. CDC
phone taken away, removal from sports C. FDA
teams, loss of drivers license)
D. NIH
D. All of these
359. Chemicals that interfere with the normal
355. The LD50 for aspirin is 400 mg/kg. How development of embryos or fetuses are
many grams of aspirin is lethal to a 220 called
pound person?
A. teratogen
A. 15, 000 mg B. carcinogens
B. 40, 000 mg C. neurotoxins
C. 100 mg D. endocrine disruptors
D. 23, 000 mg
360. A family home has a clogged furnace
356. What is it called when a persistent pollu- that is producing carbon monoxide, a haz-
tant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the ardous gas. Which family member is likely
tissues of an organism as they continue to to be harmed the most?
eat something that contains the pollutant A. Billy, the son who is in 1st grade
A. Subsidence B. Baby Shea, who is going to be in
preschool next year
B. Biomagnification
C. Karla, the nanny who cares for the tod-
C. Tragedy of the commons
dler every weekday morning
D. Bioaccumulation
D. Ms. Nguyen, the mother who works at
E. Cultural eutrophication home

5. Social And Preventive Medicine
5.1 History of Public Health

1. Who was known as the Father of Microbi- 4. Healthcare in the United States is influ-
ology? enced by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hippocrates A. Healthcare Career Ladders
B. Robert Koch B. The state of the economy
C. Clara Barton C. The law of supply and demand
D. Edward Jenner D. Technological Advancements
2. The discriminate consumption and overuse 5. Who is also called the “Father of
of antibiotics have resulted in drug- Medicine”
resistant bacteria, viruses and parasites. A. Hippocrates
Switching from inexpensive penicillin to B. Robert Koch
other drugs increased treatment costs
which arebeyond the reach of the poor. C. Sir Alexander Fleming
A. THE REVENGE OF THE GERMS D. Benjamin Franklin
B. ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERN 6. An Act of Salt Iodization Nationwide

(ASIN)-providing salt iodization nation-
C. INDUSTRIALIZATION
wide approved in 1996 and renamed FIDEL
D. URBANIZATION A. RA8172
3. Who discovered that microorganisms B. RA7170
cause disease? C. RA7160
A. Louis Pasteur D. RA7432
B. Ernst von Bergmann
7. Ancient people believed that caused ill-
C. Paul Erhlich ness and death.
D. Ivanoski A. Germs

5.1 History of Public Health 1006
B. Evil spirits C. Governor General Leonard Wood

C. Bacteria D. Governor General Halbert Barn
D. Food 13. Medicaid is an insurance for
8. Which of the following people invented the A. low income families
microscope? B. women and children only
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek C. people over 65 years of age
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Robert Hooke D. military and their families
C. John Hunter
14. Which healthcare trend is explained as try-
D. Edward Jenner ing to control the rising cost of healthcare
and achieving the maximum benefit for ev-
9. Senior Citizen’s Act-which grant benefits
ery dollar spent?
and special privileges in order to maximize
the contributions of senior citizen to nation A. Obamacare
building B. HMO
A. RA 7432 C. cost containment
B. RA 7394 D. Wellness initiative
C. RA 7610
15. Known as the “Father of Medicine”, he
D. RA 7719 wrote the oath that doctors still take to-
day.
10. Which type of insurance covers active mil-
itary and their families, survivors of per- A. Asclepius
sonnel and retired members of the Armed B. Jacoba Felicie
Forces?
C. Hippocrates
A. Medicare
D. Galen
B. Medicaid
16. * Expanded Program on Immunization*
C. HMO
Nutrition-vitamin A, iron and iodine uti-
D. TRICARE lization* Family Planning* Tuberculosis
prevention* Environmental sanitation*
11. Emotional Wellness is
STD-AIDS awareness prevention* Healthy
A. Relationships, respect, community in- Lifestyle program
teractions.
A. Reodicas’ Seven Strategy program
B. Meaning, values. B. Martial law years
C. Feelings, emotions, reactions, cogni- C. Roxas administration
tion.
D. Aquino administration
D. Skills, finances, balance, satisfaction.
17. The CAM practitioner who believes that a
12. He replaced the position of Gov. General life energy flows through every living per-
Harisson son in an invisible system of meridians is
A. Governor General Manuel L. Quezon a/an
B. Governor General C.E Winslow A. ayurvedic practitioner

B. chiropractor 23. What helped persuade Parliament to pass

the 1875 Public Health Act?
C. naturopath

A. Fear of cholera
D. Chinese medicine practitioner
B. Working class men got the vote
18. Created the Philippines National AIDS C. Germ theory showed why it would
Council as a national policy and advisory work
body in the prevention and control of
HIV/AIDS D. John Snow proved clean water was es-
sential
A. EO39
24. These people believed illness came from
B. RA7179
evil spirits
C. 7160
A. Ancient people
D. 7432
B. Romans
19. General Hospitals before the Americans C. Greeks
came to Philippines, except: D. Russians
A. San Juan de Dios Hospital
25. Edwin Chadwick’s 1842 report claimed
B. Chinese General hospital what was the average age of death for
C. Hospicio de san Jose in Cavite working people in Liverpool?
D. San Lazaro Hospital A. 15

B. 17
20. Louis Pasteur invented which vaccine?
C. 19
A. Rabies
D. 21
B. Smallpox
26. This time period was known as the “re-
C. Flu birth of the science of medicine”?
D. Mumps A. Dark ages
21. The Father of Medicine is B. Middle ages
A. Hippocrates C. Renaissance
D. 18th Century
B. Aristotle
C. Rhazes 27. Who is considered “the father of
medicine? ”
D. Galen
A. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
22. What was the problem with ether as an B. Benjamin Franklin
anesthetic?
C. William Harvey
A. Made people cough
D. Hippocrates
B. Did not dull the pain
28. Who made chloroform acceptable when
C. It only worked on 50% of people
she used it during the birth of their 8th
D. Could catch on fire child?

A. Florence Nightingale D. MOH

B. Princess Charlotte 33. He puts up a dispensary in 1577 for treat-
C. Queen Victoria ing indigents in Manila. This eventually be-
came the San Juan de Dios Hospital
D. Mrs Charles Dickens
A. Father Juan Clemente
29. These people were the first to keep medi-
B. Manuel L Quezon
cal records
C. Gov. General Leonard Wood
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Russians
D. Gov. General Harisson
B. Egyptians
34. * Formulation of National Health Plan. Im-
C. Romans
plementation of restructure Health care
D. Greeks delivery system* Adaptation of the Pri-
mary Health Care* Launching of Operation
30. more women joining the workforce. This
Timbang and Mothercraft* Birth of inte-
may or may not have adverse effect on the
grated Provincial Health Office* Progress
family. Care of children will be entrusted
in Public Health research* Community-
to caretakers
based health programs
A. Urbanization
A. JONES LAW YEARS
B. Industrialization
B. MARTIAL LAW YEARS
C. Environmental concern C. AQUINO ADMINISTRATION
D. revenge of the germs D. ROXAS ADMINISTRATION
31. *Completion of research on Dichlorodiphenyl- 35. The polio vaccine was developed in 1952
trichloroethane (DDT) saw dust as larvi- by
cide and DDT residual spraying of houses
A. Francis Crick
in the control of malaria.*Industrial hy-
giene laboratory*Introduction of one- B. Charles Best
infection method for gonorrhea withpeni- C. Marie Curie
cillin*Creation of central Health laboratory D. Jonas Salk
in the Philippines*Construction of the Na-
tional Chest Center-for control casereg- 36. * Process of gaining and maintaining alti-
istry for TB, mass immunization with BCG tude* Research in the field of health was
promoted*UP school of Public health was
A. PRE WORLD WAR II
established to trainpublic health leaders*
B. POST WORLD WAR II Research and Control of TB, malaria, lep-
C. JAPANSE OCCUPATION rosy and yaws*Development of Maternal
and Child Health (MCH)* Bureau of Census
D. MARTIAL LAW YEARS
and Statistics was created to gather vital
32. This was made to track down the occur- statistics* creation of Department of Pub-
rence of 14 diseases with potential caus- lic Health and Welfare
ing outbreaks. A. PRE-AMERICAN OCCUPATION
A. NESS B. THE COMMONWEALTH PERIOD
B. NEDA C. EDSA REVOLUTION
C. NEFA D. WWII

37. What is the federal agency that researches C. JONES LAW

the quality of healthcare delivery and iden-
D. PHILIPPINE ASSEMBLY
tifies standards and treatment that should

be provided?
42. The Most epidemic disease case in the
A. CDC (Centers for Disease Control) Philippines
B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration) A. Beri-Beri
C. AHCPR (Agency for Health Care Policy B. Small Pox
and Research)
C. Typhoid Fever
D. NCCAM (National Center for Comple-
mentary and Alternative Medicine D. Cholera
38. were the first to describe the structure 43. What anti-septic did Joseph Lister in-
of DNA and how it carries genetic informa- vent?
tion.
A. Listerine Mouth Wash
A. Banting & Best
B. Carbolic Spray
B. Albert Sabin
C. Joseph Lister C. Chloroform
D. Crick & Watson D. Rubber Gloves
39. A common belief was that illness and dis- 44. During this time. All public health activi-
ease were punishments from the Gods. ties werepractically paralyzed
A. Middle ages A. WWIII
B. The renaissance B. POST WORLD WAR III
C. Ancient times
C. JAPANESE OCCUPATION
D. none of above
D. MARTIAL LAW YEARS
40. What 1858 event made Parliament agree
to pay for Bazelgette’s London sewers? 45. The drug of choice for treating all species
A. Cholera of schistosomes is
B. The Napoleonic Wars A. LSD

C. The Great Stink B. Praziquantel
D. The Crimean War C. DDT
41. * Control of epidemics such as cholera, D. Synthroid
smallpox and plague* Fight against lep-
rosy, diarrhea, malaria, beri-beri* Cholera 46. Special protection of Children against child
vaccine was first tried* Opened the UP Col- abuse, exploitation and discrimination
lege of Medicine* Established a garbage A. EO 39
crematory* Approved the first sanitary or-
dinance and rat control B. RA 7432
A. PRE-AMERICAN OCCUPATION C. RA 7719
B. AMERICAN MILITARY GOVERNMENT D. RA 7610

47. *New waterworks in Manila was inau- 52. The blueprint that is used to build the Uni-
gurated using general chemical disinfec- versity of the Philippines
tion to control cholera*Nursing school at A. Philippine General Hospital
Philippine Normal School* Anti-TB cam-
paign was started*Dry vaccine against B. John Hopkins University
smallpox was first used*Hypochlorite of C. Malacanang Palace
lime was first used for treating thewater D. The College of American Pathologists
supply of Manila*Use of anti-typhoid vac-
cine was initiated*Opening of the Philip- 53. This was the name of the plague that re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pine General Hospital (PGH) sulted in the death of 75% of the popula-
tion in Europe and Asia?
A. PRE-AMERICAN OCCUPATION
A. Typhoid
B. PHILIPPINE ASSEMBLY
B. Ebola
C. AMERICAN MILITARY GOVERNMENT
C. Bubonic
D. JONES LAW
D. H1N1
48. The father of micro biology
54. The National Blood Services Act of 1994
A. Anton van Leewenhoek which was passedto promote voluntary
B. Clara Barton blood donation
C. Rene Laennec A. RA 8172
D. Florence Nightingale B. EO 39
C. RA 7719
49. Why did the invention of chloroform
caused the ‘Black Period’ of surgery? D. RA 7610
A. Doctors used black gowns 55. Environmental degradation caused by de-
B. Chloroform left black stains forestation, deterioration of seas and
rivers due to industrial waste, indiscrim-
C. Infection rates went up because doc- inate disposal of waste. All these leads
tors cut deeper to ecological imbalance and pave the way
D. Chloroform was administered by Dr for the emergence of the new types of mi-
Black croorganisms.
50. The father of pulmonology A. INDUSTRIALIZATION
A. Anton van Leewenhoek B. URBANIZATION
B. Clara Barton C. ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERN

D. THE REVENGE OF THE GERMS
C. Rene Laennec
D. Florence Nightingale 56. What contribution did the romans make to
public health?
51. Bifocals for glasses were invented by
A. They created sewers
A. John Hunter
B. They created aqueducts for fresh wa-
B. William Harvey ter
C. Roger Bacon C. They created flood control measures
D. Benjamin Franklin D. all of the above

57. * Survey:Increased incidence of TB, VD, 61. * Creation of National Economic Develop-
malaria, leprosy and malnutrition.* Af- ment Authority (NEDA)* Department of
ter 5 years of Japanese occupation, pub- health was renamed as Ministry of Health

lic health tried to pick up the debris (MOH)
and rise from the ruins*Immunization pro- A. EDSA REVOLUTION
gram*General sanitation has been reduced
to level enoughto constitute a national B. MARTIAL LAW YEARS
hazard*US congress passed an emergency C. JONES LAW YEARS
measures to control diseases:TB, VD,
D. AQUINO ADMINISTRATION
malaria. Leprosy, malnutrition
A. THE WORLD WAR II 62. * Retrogression rather than progression in
so far as the health was concern*Increased
B. ROXAS ADMINISTRATION deaths from smallpox, cholera, typhoid,
C. JAPANESE OCCUPATION malaria, beri-beri (B1 def. Thiamine)
and TB*Increase CDR-death rate per 1000
D. MARTIAL LAW YEARS person*Increase IMR-infant death per
1000*Increase Morbidity-rate of incidence
58. Which is NOT a regulation established by
of disease
OBRA?
A. JONES LAW YEARS
A. long term care assistants must com-
plete approved training program B. MARTIAL LAW
B. long term care assistants must keep C. AMERICAN MILITARY GOVERNMENT
up with continuing education D. WWII
C. long term care assistants must com- 63. Ways to promote physical wellness include
plete a high school health science pro-
gram A. understanding personal feelings and
expressing them
D. long term care assistants must pass a
written & /or skills exam B. being creative, logical, curious, and
open-minded
59. What culture’s religion prohibited dissec- C. avoiding alcohol, tobacco, caffeine,
tion? drugs and risky sexual behavior
A. Greek D. maintaining an optimistic outlook
B. Chinese 64. Parliament rewarded Edward Jenner for
C. Primitive his work in 1807. How much did they give
him?
D. Roman
A. £1000
60. The study of medicine was prohibited dur- B. £5000
ing this time period:
C. £10000
A. Dark ages
D. £20000
B. 20th century
65. * Study the cause and prevalence of ty-
C. Middle ages
phoid fever* Anti-dysentery vaccine was
D. Primitive times first tried* BS in Education major in Health

Education was opened in UP* Establish- B. complementary and alternative meth-

ment of School of Hygiene and Public ods
Health* The mechanism of transmission of C. complementary advanced medicine
dengue fever through Aedes aegypti was
studied* Philippine Public Health Associa- D. massage therapy
tion(PPHA) was organized* Construction
70. Which group of people was responsible for
of Novaliches dam
the earliest healthcare records?
A. MARTIAL LAW
A. Chinese
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. COMMON WEALTH PERIOD
B. Egyptians
C. JONES LAW YEARS
C. Romans
D. PRE-AMERICAN OCCUPATION
D. Greeks
66. In what year was X-Ray invented?
71. The CAM therapy that uses breathing and
A. 1890
muscle relaxation techniques to quiet the
B. 1895 mind by focusing attention and obtaining a
C. 1900 sense of oneness is
D. 1905 A. meditation
B. reflexology
67. Act prohibiting discrimination against
women C. yoga
A. RA6725 D. imagery
B. RA6675 72. He/She is first secretary of the Depart-
C. RA7170 ment of Public Health and Welfare
D. RA7394 A. Dr. Josie Aquino
68. Why did cholera spread so quickly in B. Dr. Jose fabella
1831/2? C. Dr. Marinara Duha
A. Laissez-faire-an attitude that said peo- D. Dr. Juan Clemente
ple should have the most freedom to do
what they wanted and take the conse- 73. They were known as the first to develop
quences. If the government got involved public health, sanitation systems and fil-
it would only make things worse. tration systems.
B. Landlords built houses as cheaply as A. Romans
possible to make as much possible as B. Chinese
ready.
C. Greek
C. Sewerage seeped from cesspits into
the drinking supply D. Egyptians
D. Poor areas often did not have rubbish 74. What did Joseph Lister do?
collections.
A. discovered a way to sterilize instru-
69. CAM refers to ments/wounds
A. continuing administrative methods B. invented penicillin

C. discovered the first vaccine for small- 80. The Chinese documented over 1000 medi-
pox cal herbs and established the science of

D. discovered that blood circulated in and A. pharmacology
out of the heart through the body B. sanitation
75. When did cholera first arrive in the UK? C. acupuncture
A. 1831 D. anatomy
B. 1841 81. The Hippocratic Oath is taken by

C. 1851 A. physicians, nurses, and other medical
personnel upon graduating from college
D. 1861
B. all physicians
76. Knowing its’ resources and how to take C. ER physicians only
care of it is part of which dimension of
D. healthcare workers
wellness.
A. Spiritual 82. Is concerned with the cause, spread and
control of diseases within the United
B. Emotional States.
C. Enviornmental A. FDA
D. Physical B. WHO
C. CDC
77. Organ Donation Act of 1991 Legalizing do-
nation of all or body parts after death for D. NIH
specified purpose.
83. What contribution did Hippocrates make to
A. RA6725 medicine?
B. RA6675 A. The Oath
C. RA7170 B. Notes on Dissection
D. RA7432 C. Built public sanitary system
D. Built hospitals
78. A concept to try and save money in the de-
livery of healthcare. 84. Who discovered Penicillin?
A. Home Health A. Alexander Fleming
B. Telemedicine B. Robert Koch
C. Outpatient C. Jonas Salk
D. Alfred Sabin
D. Cost containment
85. This is the founder of the American Red
79. What did Wilhelm Roentgen discover? Cross
A. penicillin A. Anton van Leewenhoek
B. x-ray B. Clara Barton
C. germ causing TB C. Rene Laennec
D. asepsis D. Florence Nightingale

86. Who proved that cholera was spread A. Dr. James Simpson
through water? B. Joseph Lister
A. Ned Stark C. Louis Pasteur
B. Samwell Tarly D. Dr. Philippe Pinel
C. John Snow 92. A colorless, tasteless, and almost odor-
D. Ramsey Bolton less crystalline chemical compound, an
organochlorine. It was originally devel-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Penicillin is what? : oped as an insecticide, then it became in-
A. a pain medicine famous for its environmental impacts.
B. a over the counter medication A. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
C. an antibiotic B. Dioxin
D. a vaccine C. Diedrin
D. Chlordane
88. Consumer Act of the Philippines-an act pro-
viding penalties for manufacture, distribu- 93. Who was the first doctor to use an anti-
tion and sales of adulterated foods, drugs septic during surgery?
and cosmetics A. Ernst von Bergmann
A. RA7170 B. Joseph Lister
B. RA 7394 C. Paul Ehrlich
C. RA7432 D. Gerhard Domagk
D. RA8172 94. Universal Healthcare is
89. Medical care delivered in the patients A. insurance provided by employers
home. B. preventive measures to keep you
A. Home Health healthy
B. Telemedicine C. insurance provided by the government
for all citizens paid with taxes
C. Outpatient
D. a state of well being
D. Cost containment
95. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome was
90. health insurance premium is: identified as a disease in the
A. the amount you pay until insurance be- A. 1960s
gins to pay
B. 1970s
B. the monthly fee that is paid to an insur- C. 1980s
ance company for health coverage
D. 1990s
C. a fixed fee you pay for a services, like
a doctors visit for example 96. Who discovered pasteurization?
D. none of above A. the romans
B. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
91. Disinfectants and antiseptics were first
used to prevent infection during surgery C. Louis Pasteur
by D. Alexander Fleming

97. From Ministry of Health it was renamed 102. An occupation that requires special train-
again asDepartment of Health*Increase ing is a
in life expectancy slowed down* Morbid-

A. career
ity and Mortality rates from preventable-
causes stabilized at high rates*Declined B. profession
in infant and child mortality deceler-
C. job
ated*Increased incidence of malnutri-
tion*Declined practice of family planning D. college degree
A. REODICAS 7 STRATEGY
103. Which group of people used acupuncture
B. RAMOS ADMINISTRATION
to relieve pain and congestion?
C. AQUINO ADMINISTRATION
A. Romans
D. EDSA REVOLUTION
B. Greeks
98. The stethoscope was invented by whom?
C. Egyptians
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D. Chinese
B. Laennec
C. Joseph Priestly 104. Which type of insurance covers people
D. William Harvey with low incomes, children who qualify for
public assistance, disabled and blind?
99. Public health works began at the old Fran-
ciscan Convent in Intramuros where Fr. A. Medicare
Juan Clemente put up a dispensary in B. Medicaid
for treating indigents in Manila.
C. TRICARE
A. 1576
D. HMO
B. 1577
C. 1578 105. The first health insurance was formed
D. 1579
A. in 1776 written into the US Constitu-
100. Certification is tion
A. Legal authority to perform an activity B. in 1966 and signed into law by Presi-
dent Johnson
B. A complimentary therapy
C. Completion of a particular course or C. by a group of Dallas teachers in the
skills 1920s
D. A license to perform a medical service D. by a labor union in the 1950s
101. Medicine that uses technology to be de- 106. Who discovered Germ Theory?
livered
A. Robert Koch
A. Home Health
B. Telemedicine B. Louis Pasteur
C. Outpatient C. John Snow

D. Cost containment D. Edwin Chadwick

107. * more provision on health making com- 112. Which group of people believed that the
prehensivehealth care available* Milk body is made up of channels and blood let-
code-EO51-required the marketing of ting was used to unblock these channels?
breast milk substitute* Universal child and A. Ancient Greeks
mother immunization* International safe
and motherhood initiative was launched B. Ancient Romans
to reduced maternal mortality rate.* Act C. Ancient Egyptians
prohibiting discrimination against women*
D. Ancient Chinese
Organ Donation Act of 1991
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. AQUINO ADMINISTRATION 113. Creation of Board of vaccinators to pre-
vent smallpoxCreation of board of health-
B. ROXAS ADMINISTRATION
Construction of Carriedo waterworks-
C. JONES LAW YEARS First medical school in the Philippines-
D. MARTIAL LAW YEARS USTSchool of MidwiferyPublic health lab-
oratoryForensic medicine
108. Who discovered a cure to the polio
A. Pre-American Occupation
virus?
B. Jone’s Law
A. Alfred Sabin
C. Martial law
B. Jonas Salk
D. Japanese Occupation
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Louis Pasteur 114. Which of the following is not a Conta-
gious Hospitals
109. The individual whose studies formed the
basis for psychology and psychiatry is A. San Lazaro Hospital
A. Sir Alexander Fleming B. Hospital de Palestina in Camarines Sur
B. Dr. Philippe Pinel C. Enfermeria de Santa Cruz in Laguna
C. Sigmund Freud D. Hospital delos Lesprosos in Cebu

D. William Roentgen E. Hospital de Argencina in Manila for
smallpox andcholera
110. Licensure is
115. When was Smallpox Vaccine made com-
A. completion of an educational degree
pulsory?
B. completion of a series of courses
A. 1843
C. the ability to provide certain care
B. 1853
D. legal authority to perform an activity
C. 1863
111. What is the name of the international D. 1873
agency that deals with health problems
throughout the world? 116. The “hippocratic oath” is what?
A. OSHA A. An oath lawyers take
B. NATO B. An ancient oath we no longer use
C. WHO C. An ethical oath that doctors take
D. CDC D. a symbol that wards off evil

117. Who was known as the Father of 123. These are methods of treatment used in
Medicine? conjunction with conventional medical ther-
apies

A. Hippocrates
A. Complementary and Alternative Thera-
B. Michelangelo
pies (CAM)
C. Aristotle
B. Integrative Healthcare
D. Da Vinci
C. Biofeedback
118. The founder of modern nursing D. none of above
A. Anton van Leewenhoek 124. * “Health in the Hands of People” and
B. Clara Barton “Lets DOH it”-by the Sec. Juan Flavier*
Continue to adopt PHC as a strategy* Na-
C. Rene Laennec
tional Immunization Day-BCG, DPT, OPV,
D. Florence Nightingale MMR* Promotion of Philippine Traditional
medicine-DOH and DOST* Voluntary Blood
119. Vaccines were safer than inoculation. Donation Program* Hospital as Center of
When were inoculations made illegal? Wellness
A. 1800 A. RAMOS ADMINISTRATION
B. 1820 B. AQUINO ADMINISTRATION
C. 1840 C. MARTIAL LAW YEARS
D. 1860 D. JAPANESE OCCUPATION
120. Who developed ascetic surgery when he 125. A vaccination for smallpox was devel-
used rubber gloves? oped in 1796 by
A. James Phipps A. James Lind
B. Joseph Lister B. Edward Jenner
C. John Smith C. Gabriel Fallopius
D. William Halstead D. Joseph Priestley
121. What is an apothecary? 126. Who discovered chloroform as an anes-

thetic?
A. Early Pharmacy
A. Edward Jenner
B. Roman Church
B. William Halstead
C. Doctor’s office
C. John Locke
D. Medical School D. James Simpson
122. How long did the 1848 Public Health Act 127. Which of the following people is respon-
last? sible for pasteurization?
A. 7 years A. Louis Pasteur
B. 5 years B. William Beaumont
C. 3 years C. Elie Metchnikoff
D. 21 years D. Sir Alexander Fleming

128. Who described the circulation of blood in C. Sir Alexander Fleming

the heart in 1628? D. Joseph Lister
A. William Harvey
134. Which type of insurance covers persons
B. Hippocrates 65 and over and persons disabled and col-
C. Wilhelm Roentgen lecting social security benefits?
D. Louis Pasteur A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
129. Which of the following time periods had
the most advances in medicine and health- C. HMO
care?
D. TRICARE
A. Dark Ages
135. The founder of the American Red Cross in
B. 19th Century
1881 was
C. The Renaissance
A. Clara Barton
D. 20th Century
B. Dorothea Dix
130. Obtaining continual learning and using C. Lillian Wald
common sense are examples of ways to
D. Elizabeth Blackwell
promote
A. spiritual wellness 136. What is the federal act that requires
states to establish training and compe-
B. emotional wellness
tency evaluation programs for nursing and
C. mental and intellectual wellness geriatric assistants?
D. social wellness A. CDC
131. Medicaid covers B. WHO
A. elderly people over 65 years old C. OBRA
B. women and children D. CAM
C. low income individuals 137. Required the marketing of breast milk
D. none of above substitute
A. Milk code EO51
132. A disease caused by a vitamin B-1 defi-
ciency, also known as thiamine deficiency. B. Milk code EO52
A. Cholera C. Milk code EO53
B. Scurvy D. Milk code EO54
C. Beri-beri 138. Which group of people were the first to
D. Typhoid provide medical care for injured soldiers?
133. Which of the following people developed A. Greeks

the antibiotic Penicillin? B. Romans
A. Wilhelm ron Roentgen C. Egyptians
B. Francis Crick D. Jews

5.2 Concepts in Public Health 1019
139. Why is it important for healthcare work- 143. Why did some people object to Chloro-
ers to know current trends in healthcare? form?

A. So they know how to charge patients A. Overdoes killed eg Hannah Greener
for services B. Some people thought pain was essen-
B. So they can keep up with changes and tial for healing
provide up-to-date information to patients C. Some Christians believed the Bible
C. So they can complain to patients about said women should give birth in pain
all the changes D. It caught on fire.
D. none of above
144. Who developed the vaccination for small
140. The following are the Hospital Asylums pox in 1796?
in the Philippines, except: A. Edward Jenner
A. Hospicio de San Pascual Baylon in B. Alexander Fleming
Manila C. John Hunter
B. Asylum of St. Vincent de Paul in Manila D. Jonas Salk
for poor girls
C. Hospital of San Jose for orphaned chil- 145. who were the first people to create
dren andmentally ill health records?
A. the romans
D. Hospital dela Marie in Cebu
B. the egyptians
141. What did William Harvey discover?
C. the greeks
A. circulation of blood
D. americans
B. smallpox vaccination
146. Wellness is
C. oxygen
A. The dimension considers how we re-
D. viruses late to others.
142. medicare covers B. State of complete physical, mental and
social well-being.
A. low income individuals
C. becoming aware of and making
B. women and children
choices toward a healthy and fulfilling life.
C. children only D. The dimension that helps to establish
D. elderly people over 65 years old peace and harmony in our lives.
5.2 Concepts in Public Health

1. The theory explains that health and illness A. Nursing is seen as a partnership be-
are synthesized as health. In this model, tween the nurse and the patient’s imme-
nursing is regarded as “caring in the hu- diate family member
man health experience.” Which of the fol-
lowing choices is true regarding this state-
B. Nursing is seen as a partnership be-
ment?
tween the nurse and patient

C. Nursing is seen as a partnership be- 6. Hospice nurses provide care in a variety

tween the nurse and the other members of settings, including clients’ homes, long-
of the healthcare team term-care facilities, and hospiceresidences.
D. Nursing is seen as a the sole responsi- After the client dies, what happens next?
bility of the nurse in caring for the patient A. The hospice services are provided
to the families of the former residence
2. Newman suggested the use of nine pat-
clients only
terns of interaction in the health assess-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ment framework of NANDA. Which of the B. The hospice services continue for fam-
following is/are NOT one of them? ily and friends during the bereavement pe-
A. Communicating riod, up to one month after the death.
B. Assumption C. The hospice nurse continues to care
C. Choosing for the client’s family for up to one year.
D. Feeling D. Nurses assist the family to work
through their grief during the period of
3. Which of the following health care insur- mourning
ance programs is most suitable for a client
68 years of age?
7. The nurse working in the hospital under-
A. Medicaid stands the changes that have resulted in
B. Medicare shorter hospital stays, with a focus ona-
cute care needs of the client. Which of the
C. Capitation
following factors influence shorter hospi-
D. AmeriCare tal stays? Select all that apply.
4. A grade school is preparing a series of A. Federal regulations for health care re-
classes on the dangers of smoking. Who imbursement policies.
would be most likely to teach theclasses?
B. Increased emphasis on preventive
A. A community health nurse care.
B. An outside consultant
C. Improvement in treatment of illness
C. A teacher
D. Patients realize that longer stays re-
D. The school nurse
sult in infections and other problems
5. Medicare uses a prospective payment plan
based on diagnosis-related groups (DRGs). 8. In providing nursing care, it is most impor-
What are DRGs? tant to perform which of the following ac-
A. Locally supported health care financ- tions?
ing, usually by donations A. Administration of prescribed medica-
B. A public assistance program for low- tions
income individuals
B. Implementation of physician’s orders
C. Predetermined payment for services
based on medical diagnoses C. Evaluation of client’s responses
D. A private insurance plan for sub- D. Coordination of care with the health
scribers who pay a copayment care team

9. Which of the following statements is NOT 12. Nurses who assist clients to deal holisti-
TRUE about the Human Becoming Theory? cally with their health care needs at the
end of their lives work primarily in which-

A. The theory guides the practice of
nurses to focus on quality as it is de- health care delivery system?
scribed and lived A. Acute care
B. The theory presents an alternative B. Primary care
to both the conventional bio-medical ap-
C. Hospice
proach as well as the bio-psycho-social-
spiritual approach of nursing D. Rehabilitation
C. The theory rates quality of life from 13. One of the purposes of the theory is to as-
each person’s own perspective as the sist with critical thinking and problem solv-
goal of the practice of nursing. ing. What are the three major themes of
D. The theory presents a broad, holistic the Human Becoming Theory?
and system-based method to nursing that A. Imaging, valuing, languaging
maintains a factor of flexibility. It focuses
on the response of the patient system to B. Rhythmicity, imaging, languaging
actual or potential environmental stres- C. Meaning, rhythmicity, transcendence
sors and the maintenance of the client
system’s stability through primary, sec- D. Revealing-concealing, enabling-
ondary, and tertiary nursing prevention in- limiting, connecting-separating
tervention to reduce stressors.
14. A nurse in a walk-in health care setting
10. What is one way in which nurses can help provides technical services (e.g., adminis-
shape health care reform? tering medications), determines theprior-
ity of care needs, and provides client teach-
A. Do their job and do it well ing on all aspects of care. Which of the
B. Refuse to participate in organizations following terms best describesthis type of
C. Support legislation to improve care health care setting?
D. Become a member of a support group A. Hospital

B. Physician’s office
11. A nurse enters a client’s room and finds
that the client has fallen on her way to C. Ambulatory center
the bathroom. What is a prudent nursing D. Long-term care
intervention for this client?
A. Briefly leave the client in order to 15. Which of the following is true of long-term
call the primary physician to assess the care facilities?
client’s condition. A. They provide care only to older adults.
B. Order x-rays or CT scans for the client, B. They provide care for homeless adults.
as needed.
C. They provide care to people of any age.
C. Document the incident, assessment,
D. They provide care only for people with
and interventions in the client’s medical
dementia.
record
D. Do not file an event report unless the 16. A concept of Newman’s theory which
client is seriously injured in the fall. refers to the depicts the whole and is

characterized by movement, diversity, and C. A university hospital

rhythm. D. A community hospital
A. Pattern
20. Health care is constantly changing and be-
B. Consciousness coming more complex. Select the answers
C. Time and Timing that describe clients as health carecon-
sumers today. Select all that apply.
D. Pattern Recognition
A. They often have health information ob-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. Who provides physicians with the author- tained from the Internet.
ity to admit and provide care to clients re-
B. They prefer to control the decisions
quiring hospitalization?
made about their own health care
A. The health care institution itself
C. Most are less concerned about health
B. Board of Healing Arts care costs as long as they receive good
C. American Medical Association care.
D. State Board of Nursing D. They express concern regarding ac-
cess to care and the quality of service.
18. Newman’s Health as Expanding Conscious- E. They have helped develop clients’
ness Theory is beneficial because it can be rights and cost-containment measures.
applied in any setting and “generates car-
ing interventions.” Which of the follow- 21. The Public Health Service (PHS) is a fed-
ing is the reason why it is considered as a eral agency of the U.S. Department of
grand nursing theory? Health and Human Services. Theprofes-
A. It addresses more narrowly defined sional nurse is aware that the services pro-
phenomena and can be used to suggest vided by the PHS include which of the fol-
an intervention lowing? Select all that apply.
B. It addresses more narrowly defined A. Care to migrant workers

phenomena and can be used to suggest B. Care in federal prisons
a nursing diagnosis
C. Veterans Administration (VA) hospi-
C. Is broader and provides an overall tals
framework for structuring ideas
D. Indian Health Services
D. is broader and provides an a specific
framework for structuring idea 22. Nurses work with various members of the
health team. The nurse understands that
19. After many years of advanced practice the role of the hospitalist is bestdescribed
nursing, a nurse has recently enrolled in a as:
nurse practitioner program. This nursehas A. the doctor who admits the patient, as-
been attracted to the program by the po- sumes the management of the patient’s
tential to provide primary care for clients care, and maintains communication with
after graduation, an opportunity thatis theprimary physician while the patient is
most likely to exist in which of the follow- hospitalized.
ing settings?
B. the physician who manages the pa-
A. A rural health center tient’s care in emergency and intensive
B. A long-term care facility care units only.

C. the doctor who notifies the primary 26. What is one of the most significant trends
physician that their patient has been ad- in health care today?
mitted to the hospital, and transfers care

A. Increased length of hospital stays
to athe referral specialist.
B. Shift from hospitals to community-
D. the specialist who admits the patient based care
to hospital, and returns care to the pri-
mary physician for all other referrals and- C. Emphasis on disease management
services. D. Narrowing of the areas for nursing
practice
23. Parse synthesized the original nine as-
sumptions about humans and becoming 27. A man is scheduled for hospital outpatient
into four assumptions about human becom- surgery. He tells the nurse, “I don’t know
ing. All of these are included EXCEPT: what that word, outpatient, means.”How
A. Human becoming is structuring mean- would the nurse respond?
ing, freely choosing with situation. A. “It means you will have surgery in the
B. Human becoming is configuring rhyth- hospital and stay for 2 days.”
mical human universe patterns. B. “It means the surgeon will come to
C. Human becoming is contradicting illim- your home to do the surgery.”
itably with emerging possible. C. “Why would you ask such a question?
D. Human becoming is human universe Don’t worry about it.”
cocreating a seamless symphony. D. “You will have surgery and go home
that same day.”
24. What population do hospice nurses pro-
vide with care? 28. Which among the following nursing
A. Those requiring care to improve health paradigm under Newman’s theory is the
key process that creates unique configura-
B. Children with chronic illnesses tions for each individual?
C. Dying persons and their loved ones A. Person
D. Older adults requiring long-term care B. Health
25. Persons are centers of consciousness. C. Environment
Which among the following theory and the- D. Nursing
orists provided impetus for Newman to
integrate the basic concepts of her new 29. It is the indivisible unbounded knowing ex-
theory, movement, space, time, and con- tended to infinity, the all at once remem-
sciousness, into a dynamic portrayal of life bering and prospecting with the moment
and health?
A. Paradox
A. David Bohm’s ; The Theory of Implicate
B. Illimitability
B. Martha Rogers; Theory of Unitary Hu-
man Beings C. Freedom
C. Itzak Bentov; The concept of evolution D. Mystery

of consciousness 30. Long-term care is often needed for the el-
D. Arthur Young; Theory of Process derly client. Select all the services that

may be provided to the resident in along- 34. Parse’s model rates quality of life from
term care facility. each person’s own perspective as the goal
A. Assistance with activities of daily living of the practice of nursing. Which of the
following is an example of a paradox?
B. Immediate post-op care
A. Marga is very shy and loves public
C. Mental disability services speaking
D. Nonmedical care for chronic illness
B. Nurse Renee takes good care of his pa-
E. Day care meals and services tient by making sure that their needs are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
met
31. The theory asserts that every person in ev-
ery situation, no matter how disordered C. Everyone is born with unique charac-
and hopeless it may seem, is part of the teristics
universal process of expanding conscious- D. Health is wealth
ness. Which among the following is NOT
among the three correlates of conscious- 35. The Neuman Systems Model views the
ness? client as an open system that responds to
stressors in the environment. The client
A. Space
variables are physiological, psychological,
B. Movement sociocultural, developmental, and spiritual.
C. Time Three principles constitute the human be-
D. Motion coming theory. Each principle contains
three concepts that requires thoughtful ex-
32. A nurse is caring for clients at an ambula- ploration. People are always engaging
tory care facility. Which care intervention with and choosing from infinite possibili-
is least likely to be provided by thenurse ties about how to be, what attitudes and
in this setting? approach to have, who to relate to. What
A. Patient education principle is exemplified in the given state-
ment?
B. Treatment of minor trauma
A. Contrascending with impossibilities
C. Medication administration
B. Configuring rhythmical patterns
D. Crisis management
C. Structuring meaning
33. A nurse is making a visit to a client in the
D. Contrascending with possibilities
home. As a home health care nurse you
may be expected to accomplish whichof 36. What would describe clients as health care
the following? consumers today? Select all that apply.
A. Complete an assessment on each visit. A. The clients often have health informa-
B. Provide support to the client and fam- tion obtained from the Internet.
ily. B. The clients prefer to control the deci-
C. Administer treatments and medica- sions made about their own health care.
tions. C. Most clients are less concerned about
D. Document actions regarding patient, health care costs as long as they receive
activities, and progress. good care.
E. Communicate and collaborate with D. The clients express concern regarding
other members of the health team. access to care and the quality of service.

E. The clients have helped develop 41. One of the newest concepts in providing
clients’ rights and cost-containment mea- long-term care is called aging in place.
sures. What is the best description of this typeof

care?
37. Nurses who are employed in home care
have a variety of responsibilities. Which A. Clients move to an independent liv-
of the following is one of thoseresponsi- ing apartment or home, then have ac-
bilities? cess to increasing health care services as
needed, provided within the health care
A. Provide all care and services community where they live.
B. Maintain a clean home environment B. Clients move into the nursing home,
C. Advise clients on financial matters and access more and more services as re-
D. Collaborate with other care providers quired in the same facility
C. A long-term-care facility, associated
38. A client has a private insurance policy that with a hospital, that provides acute care
pays for most health care costs and ser- services as needed so the client can re-
vices. Why is this plan called a third- turnto long term care.
partypayer?
D. Clients are maintained in their own
A. The insurance company pays all or homes with home health care.
most of the costs.
B. The family of the client is required to 42. Medicare reimburses in-hospital costs
pay costs. based on a set payment for a diagnostic re-
lated group (DRG). This means thehospital
C. The client gets the bill and pays out-of- is reimbursed for a fixed amount based on
pocket costs. the diagnosis and projected cost for care.
D. Medicare and Medicaid will pay most As a result of this systemthe hospital can
of the costs. make a profit or a loss. Select the re-
sponses that describe when a profit for
39. This principle means that human beings cre- care of the client can beachieved.
ate patterns in day-to-day life and these
patterns tell about personal meanings and A. All of the hospitalization charges are
values. less than projected.
A. Structuring of meaning multidimen- B. The client receives incompatible blood
sionally so the hospital does not get charged for
it.
B. Co-creating rhythmical patterns of re-
lating C. The client is discharged before the ap-
proved discharge date
C. Co-transcending with the possibilities
D. The nursing care results in the client
D. Revealing-concealing reaching outcomes for recovery, with-
40. What is one responsibility of nurses who out complication, after the projected-
work in physicians’ offices? timetable.
A. prescribing medications 43. Health care costs are increasing as tech-
B. conducting health assessments nology and related services increase. Pa-
tients interact with many health care-
C. performing minor surgery providers, such as RNs, LPNs, physicians,
D. making independent home visits physical therapists, medical technologists,

radiation technologists, specialists, and 47. An elderly woman has total care of her
others employed in health care. As a re- husband, who suffers from debilitative
sult of the complexity of care and multi- rheumatoid arthritis. The couple voicescon-
ple providers, health care is becomingfrag- cern over the pain and stress associated
mented. What are the major results of with the condition. What type of care
fragmented care? might the nurse suggest to help thecou-
A. Less confusion for clients regarding ple?
treatment. A. Primary care
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Increased medication errors. B. Respite care
C. Clients receive more specialized care. C. Bereavement care
D. Lack of continuity of care D. Palliative care
44. A nurse has been hired to work as an occu- 48. What is the primary focus of health care
pational health nurse. In this position as a today?
registered nurse, what will thisnurse pro- A. Care of acute illnesses
vide?
B. Care of chronic illnesses
A. Occupational therapy to schoolchil-
dren. C. Health promotion
D. Health restoration
B. Education and safety programs in in-
dustrial settings. 49. It is being with and apart from others,
C. Assessment and motivation services ideas, objects and situations all at once.
to the unemployed. A. Originating
D. Activities to assist patients with ADLs B. Revealing-concealing
in homeless shelters.
C. Powering
45. Newman emphasizes the importance of D. Connecting-separating
examining together as dimensions of
emerging patterns of consciousness rather 50. Which of the following tasks could the
than as separate concepts of the theory. nurse safely delegate to unlicensed assis-
tive personnel?
A. Pattern recognition
A. An initial assessment of a client
B. Movement-Space-Time
B. Determination of a nursing diagnosis
C. Consciousness
C. Evaluation of client progress
D. Health
D. Documentation of client’s I+O on a
46. A concept of Newman’s theory which de- flow sheet
picts the whole and is characterized by
movement, diversity, and rhythm 51. An older adult woman in a long-term care
facility has fallen and sustained several in-
A. Pattern
juries. Which of her injuries would be the
B. Consciousness most serious fall-related injury?
C. Time and Timing A. Fractured hip
D. Pattern Recognition B. Fractured ulna

C. Lacerated lip A. Medicaid

D. Thigh contusion B. Preferred provider organization

52. Encouraging direct care such as bathing, C. Health maintenance organization
feeding, and other activities of daily liv- D. Long-term care insurance
ing by family members who may be inter-
ested in actively contributing in the care of 56. Which of the following clients is the most
a loved one is referring to appropriate candidate for receiving outpa-
tient care?
A. Cultural Care Preservation or Mainte-
nance A. A client whose complaints of irregu-
B. Cultural Care Accommodation or Nego- lar bowel movements have necessitated a
tiation colonoscopy
C. Cultural Care Repatterning or Restruc- B. A woman who has previously borne

turing two children and is entering the second
stage of labor
D. Culture Care Assimilation
C. A man who is receiving treatment for
53. The theory, Health as Expanding Con- sepsis after his blood cultures came back
sciousness, stems from Rogers’ (1970) positive
science of unitary human beings and other
D. A client with a history of depres-
theories. Which among the following the-
sion who is currently expressing suicidal
orists implicates order and supports New-
ideation
man’s postulate that disease is a manifes-
tation of the pattern of health? 57. Which of the following phrases best de-
A. David Bohm scribes hospitals today?
B. Martha Rogers A. Focus on chronic illnesses
C. Itzak Bentov B. Focus on acute care needs
D. Arthur Young C. Primary care centers
54. After a stroke, a client is having diffi- D. Voluntary agencies
culty swallowing. The nurse may make
58. The ANA, which is committed to monitor-
a referral to what member of the health
ing the regulation, education, and use of
careteam?
NAPs, recommends adherence to which
A. Physical therapist one of the following principles?
B. Speech therapist A. It is the RN who defines and super-
C. Social worker vises the education, training
D. Respiratory therapist B. It is the assigned NAP who is responsi-
ble and accountable for his or her nursing
55. A person receiving health care insurance practice
from his employer knows that he should
check the approved list of contractedhealth C. It is the nursing profession that deter-
care providers before seeking services, in mines the scope of nursing practice
order to receive them at a lower cost. D. It is the purpose of the RN to work in
What type of insurance is mostlikely in- the supportice role to the assistive per-
volved? sonnel

5.3 Epidemiology 1028
59. In providing nursing care, it is most impor- C. Opposite paradox significant to ontol-
tant to perform which action? ogy of human becoming
A. Administration of prescribed medica- D. Co created mutual human universe
tions process at the ontological level and nurse
person process.
B. Implementation of physician’s orders
C. Evaluation of client’s responses 62. The U.S. system of health care is based on
an ability to pay for care, which leaves
D. Coordination of care with the health
NARAYAN CHANGDER
millions of people uninsured orunderin-
care team sured, with inadequate access to health
care. Nurses are often presented with eth-
60. A nurse and a client are discussing man- ical dilemmas when caring forpatients and
aged care. The nurse explains that the families. Which of the following is an ex-
managed care model was designed for- ample of an ethical dilemma? Select all
which of the following reasons? that apply.
A. Increasing client satisfaction A. All clients are entitled to care, whether
B. Controlling costs while maintaining they can pay or not, because health care
quality of care is a right.
C. Providing a distinct area of care B. You may have to pay higher insurance
premiums to cover the cost of care be-
D. Providing an all-RN staff cause you smoke.
C. There are free clinics and health pro-
61. Based from Parse’s Symbol of Human Be-
grams to serve the poor; they should re-
coming Theory, what does the intertwin-
ceive health care there.
ing of the green and black swirls signify?
D. Should the uninsured person, who can-
A. Human-Universe co-creation as an
not pay for health care, receive the same
ongoing process of becoming
care and services as someone who work-
B. Hope sand pays for insurance?
5.3 Epidemiology
1. Where did the Spanish flu first emerge? 3. A disease vector is a(an)
A. Madrid, Spain A. outbreak of a disease
B. Barcelona, Spain B. symptoms of a disease
C. Kansas C. organism that transmits a disease
D. Kentucky D. environmental condition associated
with a disease
2. Health Survey
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study 4. The following are the causes of obesity
B. Population-Based Analytic Study A. Adequate sleep time
C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study B. Insufficient sleep
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study C. Genetics/heredity

D. Intake of calories as needed 10. Where did COVID-19 first emerge?
5. What should you do next? A. Shanghai, China

A. Talk to the students to find out what B. Milan, Italy
they have in common that might have C. Florence, Italy
made them sick D. Wuhan, China
B. Shut down the dorms and send all
11. Goiter disease is caused due to mineral de-
other students home
ficiency
C. Tell students not to eat or drink any-
A. chloride
thing for the next 24 hours
B. sodium
D. none of above
C. iodium
6. Capacity of agent to produce toxin or poi- D. seng
son
A. infectivity 12. Which of the following is a false state-
ment about infection with the bacteria that
B. virulence causes typhoid fever?
C. incidence A. Certain antibiotics are effective
D. toxigenicity against the bacteria
B. Once the infection is treated, it cannot
7. endemic
recur
A. a large, country-wide outbreak
C. Symptoms are similar to those of the
B. global outbreak flu
C. a small, localized outbreak D. People who continue to excrete the
D. a disease that is always present, but bacteria (carriers) are not allowed to
in lower quantities work with food
8. Indirect transmission includes which of the 13. Number of birth per 1000 women in a par-
following? ticular age group
A. Droplet spread A. Total fertility rate
B. Mosquito-borne B. General fertility rate

C. Age-specific fertility rate
C. Foodborne
D. Crude birth rate
D. Doorknobs or toilet seats
E. B, C and D 14. It is the result of systematic errors in the
measurement of some exposure, outcome
9. Food borne illness otherwise known as or variable. The main types are: misclassi-
FOOD POISONING fication, recall, interviewer, response, re-
A. is caused by eating contaminated food port, observer etc.
and drinks A. Systematic error
B. has many causes of food contaminants B. information bias
C. cause nausea, vomiting and diarrhea C. negative predictive value
D. All of the above D. None of the above

15. Mechanism for the ongoing collection of B. Framingham Study

community health information C. Iowa Women’s Health Study
A. Surveillance
D. All are correct
B. Epidemiological Triangle
21. The epidemiological approach which ob-
C. Descriptive Epidemiology
tains data from population census, pa-
D. Endemic tients records,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. The natural habitat for a pathogen is called A. Analytical
a(n) B. Descriptive
A. niche C. Case study
B. vector D. Ecological study
C. resevior
22. The model consists of a hub (host or hu-
D. host
man) which has genetic make-up as its
17. Factors that can influence the emergence core. Surrounding the host is the envi-
of new infectious diseases are? ronment, schematically divided into three
sectors-biological, social and physical.
A. Public health, microbial adaptation, hu-
man behavior, food production, health A. The wheel
care, societal events B. The lever
B. population, community, aggregates C. The epidemiologic triangle
C. public, clinic, hospital D. Web causation
D. immunizations, complimentary thera-
pies 23. prepared for illustrating novel, unusual, or
atypical features identified in patients in
18. A widespread occurrence of an infectious medical practice, and they potentially gen-
disease in a community at a particular time erate new research questions.
A. Health crisis A. Case Reports
B. Pandemic B. Cross-Sectional Study
C. Epidemic C. Case-Control Study
D. Endemic D. Cohort Study
19. This is what will give information about
24. The normal collection of bacteria on and in
how widespread a disease is
our bodies can be referred to as (select all
A. Incidence that apply)
B. Prevalence A. normal biota
C. Risk Ratio B. microbiota
D. Agent C. microbiome
20. Which of the following studies is an exam- D. normal flora
ple of a population-based cohort study E. We should have no bacteria on or in-
A. Tecumseh Study side of our bodies

25. Where is it not normal to have any mi- 30. Epidemiologists study (select all that ap-
crobes? (select all that apply) ply)

A. Brain A. frequency of disease
B. Heart B. distribution of disease
C. how well informed the public is about
C. Skin
a disease
D. Stomach
D. individual patient’s experience with
E. Muscle disease
E. long term effects of a disease on a per-
26. What war was going on during the Spanish
son
flu pandemic, taking resources away from
the US? 31. Which of the following is Not part of epi-
A. World War I demiological scope
A. Determining patters and frequency of
B. World War II
disease
C. Vietnam War B. Researching the effectiveness of Pre-
D. Korean War ventative medicine
C. Cancer research
27. This type of study follows people through
time to look at their risks and disease D. Applying evidence from research to im-
rates prove public health
A. Case-series 32. An example of passive follow-up in cohort

studies is:
B. Cohort
A. collection and maintenance of data by
C. Intervention federal and state governments.
D. Prevention B. telephone calls to study participants.
C. use of follow-up mailings.
28. The place which and infectious organism
can exit. D. use of written invitations to return to
the study site.
A. Port of Entry
33. Who is known as the father of Epidemiol-
B. Port of Exit
ogy?
C. Biological Vector A. Dr. Meredith Gray
D. Surveillance B. Dr. John Snow
29. Investigates the causes of disease by de- C. Albert Einstein
termining why a disease rate is lower in D. Dr. Jonas Salk
one population group than in another
34. Allowance per week
A. Analytic Epidemiology
A. Nominal
B. Descriptive Epidemiology B. Ordinal
C. Pandemic C. Interval
D. Epidemic D. Ratio

35. what are the indicators that cannot be 40. Which of the following statements is
used to determine obesity TRUE?
A. body fat A. Infrastructure problem lead to the out-
B. lipid profile examination break in any country.
C. body mass index B. Malnutrition has been essentially elim-

inated in the United States
D. blood glucose levels
C. Modern medicines has at times been
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. Study of the distribution and deter- responsible for causing health problems.
minants of health and disease in hu- D. Persistent undernourishment among
man populations-principal science of public children rarely results in serious health
health problems.
A. Analytic Epidemiology
41. The interaction of agent, host and environ-
B. Epidemiology
ment is compared to a lever balanced over
C. Descriptive Epidemiology a fulcrum.
D. Pandemic A. The epidemiologic triangle
37. Stated that diseases may be connected B. The lever

with person’s environment C. The wheel
A. Fracastorius D. The web causation
B. John Graunt
42. Case Reports
C. Hippocrates
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study
D. Farr
B. Population-Based Analytic Study
38. Factors underlying the cause of obesity in- C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study
clude:
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study
A. Biological factors, genetic factors,
lifestyle changes, lack of physical activity, 43. John Graunt wa believed to have made the
or sports
A. First Lifeline
B. Environmental factors, physical fac-
tors, and genetics B. First Lifejacket
C. Incorrect consumption of food or C. First life table

medicine D. First day of school nang mainlove ako
D. Presence of congenital disease sayo
39. Which disease did Dr John Snow help stop 44. All cases from a disease at a particular
the spread of? time
A. Malaria A. point prevalence
B. Cholera B. incidence
C. Dengue C. risk ratio
D. COVID-19 D. natural experiment

45. Which of the following is not related to the 50. Room temperature
descriptive study? A. Nominal

A. Case report
B. Ordinal
B. Cross-sectional survey
C. Interval
C. Ecological study
D. Ratio
D. Cohort study
51. What types of environments are more
46. What is Epidemiology? likely to have high cases of malaria?
A. The science of the infective diseases, A. Cold, polar environments
their prime causes, propagation and pre-
B. Hot, dry environments
vention.
C. Temperate environments
B. The study of the distribution of a dis-
ease or physiologic condition in human D. Hot, wet environments
populations and of the factors that influ-
ence this distribution. 52. Graphs for Ratio
C. The science or knowledge of the natu- A. Bar
ral history of disease. B. Histogram
D. All of the choices C. Box Plot
47. An organized method of investigation of a D. Pie
disease that includes agent, host, and en-
vironment 53. Improper handling of obese patients viz
A. Surveillance A. behavior therapy
B. Descriptive Epidemiology B. Balanced low calorie diet
C. Epidemiological Triangle C. physical activity

D. Prevalence Rate D. Dietary consumption of fatty foods
48. Which of these is required to establish 54. Which of the following is currently the pre-
colonies inside a host? dominant of cholera pathogen:
A. Virulence A. Classical cholera pathogen
B. Pathogenicity B. El thor cholera pathogen
C. Adhesion C. Serogroup of 0139 cholera pathogen
D. Infection D. none of above
49. Notably known for his statistics about the 55. In epidemiology, allows to investigate
mortality of the Cornish metal workers. by time, place, and person
A. Far A. determinants
B. Fare B. place
C. Farr C. qualification
D. John Snow D. quantification

56. Where do you think the outbreak 62. An organism that is typically present
started? on/in another organism that doesn’t
A. The water supply in the dorms cause disease at normal concentrations,
but if given the right circumstances, it
B. The classroom would is called a(n)
C. The food court A. opportunistic pathogen
D. none of above
B. internal pathogen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. Food Soil Humans Water Air Animal C. external pathogen
A. Examples of Reservoirs D. complex pathogen
B. Host E. multi-generational pathogen
C. Vector
63. New cases of a disease
D. Zoonose
A. incidence
58. It is an organism, usually human or an-
B. toxigenicity
imal which are exposed and harbors the
disease. This is definition of C. infectivity
A. agent D. pathogenicity
B. host
64. Volunteers for the study are given a trial
C. time vaccine to test to test the efficacy of the
D. environment vaccine.
A. Survey Study
59. Derived from the Greek word “epi”
B. Surveillance Study
A. People
C. Observational Study
B. On
C. Study D. Experimental Study
D. Disease 65. According to Koch’s postulates, the pure

culture must when inoculated into a
60. Any substance, radionuclide, or radiation susceptible animal.
that promotes the formation of cancer.
A. reproduce the disease
A. toxin
B. kill the animal
B. carcinogen
C. kill the disease
C. solvent
D. biological agent D. weaken the animal
61. Skin and mucous membranes are examples 66. What does the Epidemiological Triad con-
of sist of?
A. structural surface defenses A. Host, Agent, Environment
B. mechanical surface defenses B. Who, When, Where
C. biochemical surface defenses C. Place, Person, Time
D. normal flora D. Distribution, Determinant

67. What does “ology” mean? 72. epidemic

A. below A. a large, country-wide outbreak

B. the study of B. global outbreak
C. a specialist C. a small, localized outbreak
D. a part of D. a disease that is always present, but
in lower quantities
68. Environment in epidemiology refers to
73. Based on the data, what is causing stu-
A. all living and nonliving things dents to get sick?
B. the way a disease is transmitted A. The ham
C. how quickly a disease spreads B. The cheese
D. in what area the disease originates C. More than one item from the sandwich
and what condition in which it can survive line
D. none of above
69. This design is relatively easy, inexpensive
and results can be obtained quickly. It can 74. An Agent needs to be capable of a host;
be used to research many variables at once not just present
and is rarely threatened with dropping out.
A. infecting
These are the advantages of this research
method B. interacting with
A. Metode Case control C. harming
B. Metode Cross Sectional D. acquiring
C. Method cohort 75. infection’s ability to produce specific immu-

nity
D. Experimental Method
A. pathogenicity
70. What term describes “death within a pop- B. toxigenicity
ulation”
C. antigenicity
A. mortality
D. immunogenicity
B. virulent
76. A study that studies the relationship be-
C. botulism
tween risk factors and effects, which is
D. morbidity carried out prospectively or in the future
before an effect occurs is
71. zoonotic disease
A. Metode Case control
A. a disease that can only be passed from
B. Metode Cross Sectional
person to person
C. Method cohort
B. a disease that can only be passed from
human to human D. Experimental Method
C. a disease that can be passed from hu- 77. Which of the following is not a clinical data
man to animal and vice versa source?
D. none of above A. Diseases treated in special clinics

B. Immunization records of pupils in 83. Select all that apply. Epidemiology is a

school discipline that causal mechanisms for
C. Data from physicians’ records health phenomena in the population
D. Hospital data A. quantifies

B. diagnoses
78. Capacity of agent to enter and multiply in
host and produce infection or disease C. describes
A. incidence D. qualifies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. virulence E. postulates
C. infectivity
84. Select all that apply. Which are types of
D. pathogenicity
arthropods?
79. is a complete, ordered listing of all the A. humans
items in a collection
B. mosquitoes
A. qualify
C. pollen
B. enumerate
C. scaffold D. mites
D. distribute E. ticks
80. Zoonoses are diseases that spread 85. Graphs for Ordinal
A. between animals in the wild A. Bar
B. between animals in captivity B. Histogram
C. from animals to humans C. Box Plot
D. through respiratory droplets.
D. Pie
81. pandemic
86. Diseases that are always present in a com-
A. a large, country-wide outbreak
munity, usually at a low more or less con-
B. global outbreak stant frequency are classified as having an
C. a small, localized outbreak pattern.
D. a disease that is always present, but A. endemic
in lower quantities B. epidemic
82. Which of the following statements is TRUE C. pandemic
concerning epidemic diseases?
D. outbreak
A. They are usually very contagious
B. They are usually not very contagious 87. Ecological study
C. They usually appear and disappear A. Population-Based Descriptive Study
seasonally
D. At the end of an epidemic, a disease
C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study
spreads at an increasing rate and then
abruptly disappears D. Individual-Based Analytic Study

88. John Snow’s study B. Studies that study the association of

A. natural experiment disease with exposure (exposure) are ran-
domized to one individual where precipi-

B. intervention study tating factors and disease status are stud-
C. cohort study ied at the same time.
D. risk assessment C. An analytical study that studies the
causes of events or events retrospectively
89. Which of the following is not related to the
D. A study that studies the relationship
stage of disability?
between risk factors and effects, which is
A. A was ill with the flu and recovered. carried out prospectively or in the future
B. B. had a stroke and left side paralysis before an effect occurs.
C. C died of lung cancer. 94. As an Epidemiologist, what should you do
D. D. I have fever, cough, bone pain from now?
influenza. A. Tell the sick students to stop partying
so hard and go to class
90. Which of these can affect how susceptible
a person is to an infection? (select all that B. Keep the sick students in the same
apply) area until their symptoms are gone
A. nutrition C. Find out if others are sick as well

D. none of above
B. age
C. fatigue 95. Number of daughters who would be born
to a woman completing her reproductive
D. place of origin
life at current age-specific fertility rates.
91. Which type of toxin tends to produce gen- A. Total fertility rate
eral physiological effects like fever, aches, B. Gross reproduction rate
and malaise?
C. Net reproduction ratio
A. endotoxins
D. Crude fertility rate
B. exotoxins
96. Ability of agent to induce antibody produc-
C. cytotoxins
tion in the host
D. all toxins
A. antigenicity
92. Age B. pathogenicity
A. Nominal C. toxigenicity
B. Ordinal D. virulence
C. Interval 97. Which term best describes this pattern of
D. Ratio occurrence usually no more than 2-4 cases
per week; last week, 13 cases
93. Cross Sectional Research is
A. Endemic
A. Research that involves collecting data B. Outbreak
to determine whether there is a relation-
ship and what is the level of relationship C. Pandemic
between two or more variables D. none of above

98. Total number of cases new and old since 104. What is the mode of transmission for
recorded time COVID-19?
A. Incidence Rate A. Contact
B. Prevalence Rate B. Airborne
C. Surveillance Rate C. Both A & B
D. Pandemic D. None of the above
105. Are you fuel?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
99. Investigation on the number of individu-
als infected with diarrhea after eating the A. disease causing particles
same food at a party. B. objects which pathogens can use to
A. Survey Study spread from host to host
B. Surveillance Study C. any bacteria that produces exotoxins
C. Observational Study D. pathogens that are transported in the
D. Experimental Study air
106. IQ (Intelligence scale)
100. aims to answer to questions why and
how to generate a hypothesis A. Nominal
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study B. Ordinal
B. Population-Based Analytic Study C. Interval
C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study D. Ratio
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study 107. Graphs for Interval
101. What does “TSS” stand for? A. Bar

B. Histogram
A. transphenoidal surgery
C. Box Plot
B. tropical splenomegaly syndrome
D. Pie
C. tension scabies syndrome
D. Toxic shock syndrome 108. Anemia can be caused by a lack of mineral
intake
102. Infectious and goes into remission A. iron
A. Intermittent Carrier B. copper
B. Active Carrier C. seng
C. Passive Carrier D. calcium
D. Host
109. Select all that apply. Which are examples
103. Which country is currently leading the of viruses?
world in vaccination rates? A. Influenza
A. Israel B. herpes
B. Russia C. polio
C. New Zealand D. HIV
D. Madagascar E. viral hepatitis

110. Occurrence of cancer was identified be- B. Method cohort

tween April 1991 and July 2000 for 50,
C. Experimental Method
000 troops who served the first gulf war

(ended in April 1991). and troops who D. Metode Case control
served elsewhere during the same period
A. Experimental 115. incidence
B. Observational cohort A. the total number of infections present

C. Observational case control B. the total number of deaths
D. Observational cross-sectional C. total number of pediatric deaths
E. Not an analytical or epidemiologic D. total number of new infections
study
116. Socioeconomic Status
111. Which city reopened too soon during the
Spanish flu pandemic, leading to spike in A. Nominal
cases?
B. Ordinal
A. Philadelphia
C. Interval
B. New York City
D. Ratio
C. San Francisco
D. St Louis 117. Ability of agent to survive adverse envi-
ronmental conditions
112. According to Koch’s postulates, the mi-
croorganism isolated and in pure cul- A. antigenicity
ture
B. resistance
A. infected
C. pathogenicity
B. killed
D. virulence
C. grown
D. disinfected 118. All of the following is NOT an aim of Epi-
demiology, EXCEPT
113. Factors which can lead sufficient cause of
disease, are known as A. Prevention of the treatment
A. Component factors B. Maintenance of disease
B. Risk factors C. Promotion of health
C. Protective factors D. Bossting of mortality rate
D. none of above
119. Therapeutic interventions does NOT in-
114. Results can be obtained quickly, the costs clude
required are relatively inexpensive, can
use fewer research samples and can be A. Giving medication
used to identify various risk factors at B. Undergoing surgery
once in one study are the advantages of
C. Visiting your dentist every six months
A. Metode Cross Sectional D. Going to physiotherapy sessions

120. Select all that apply. Which of the fol- C. epidemiology circle
lowing are possible outcomes of the Host D. epidemiology place
after being infected.
A. Complete recovery 125. the cause, set of causes, or manner of
causation of a disease or condition.
B. death
C. depression A. etiology
D. disability B. epidemiology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. diagnosis
121. Anemia is a condition that occurs when
the number of red blood cells in the body D. prognosis
is below normal. The following are causes
of anemia, except: 126. the goal of this study is to measure
the association between exposure and out-
A. Sports of the week come; uses a comparison group
B. The body loses a lot of blood when an
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study
injury/trauma occurs
C. The body has problems in the forma-
tion of red blood cells C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study
D. Red blood cells break down/die faster D. Individual-Based Analytic Study
than the body’s ability to produce new red
blood cells 127. The last one is really serious, the vaccine
that Indonesia ordered is 3 million from
122. What seeks to describe the occurrence China, what’s it called?
of a disease in terms of person place and
A. Simalakama
time.
A. descriptive epidemiology B. Sinovac
B. epidemic C. GAVI
C. healthy people 20/20 D. Sisingamangaraja
D. methods 128. I’m really curious, DHF and Malaria are
included in
123. The term distribution in epidemiology
deals with these EXCEPT A. Pandemic
A. frequency B. Epidemic
B. pattern C. Endemic
C. time D. Ehh maybe
D. cause
129. Which of the following vaccines has the
124. Epidemiologist have created a model to highest efficacy rate?
help explain the multifaceted phenomena
A. Pfizer
of disease transmission. What is the name
of the model? B. Moderna
A. epidemiology triad C. Johnson & Johnson
B. epidemiology square D. none of above

130. The research design is a logical construc- D. Statement 1 is erroneous; statement 2

tion that guides the researcher to follow is erroneous
systematic data collection and analysis

procedures to answer their research ques- 134. person to person and difficult to stop
tions and test their hypotheses. It refers A. Propagated epidemic
to: B. Common source epidemic
A. Study choice C. Active carrier
B. study application
D. Passive carrier
C. validate hypothesis
135. All of the ff are processes that affects
D. Refutar Hypothesis
population change, except
131. The number of new cases in a population A. Migration
tells us about risk. This is the measure of
B. Mortality
it.
C. Climate
A. Incidence
B. Prevalence D. Fertility
C. Risk Ratio 136. Select all that apply. Epidemiology is con-

D. Agent cerned with which of the following?
A. Injuries
132. Focuses on the amount and distribution of
health and health problems within a popu- B. Morbidity
lation C. Dissabilities
A. Epidemiology D. Mortality
B. Analytic Epidemiology E. Distribution of diseases
C. Descriptive Epidemiology
137. Ecologic studies look at
D. Pandemic
A. a specific person
133. Human ecology is:1. Interdisciplinary ap- B. populations
plied field that uses a holistic approach to
C. biomes
help people solve problems and enhance
human potential within their near environ- D. ecosystems
ments.2. Explores not only the influence
138. It usually takes a long time, is more com-
of humans on their environment but also
plicated and requires expensive facilities
the influence of the environment on human
and costs, there is a possibility that there
behavior, and their adaptive strategies as
are subjects who drop out and can inter-
they come to understand those influences
fere with data analysis, research in rare
better.
cases is less efficient is a drawback of the
A. Statement 1 is erroneous; statement 2 research method
is correct
A. Metode Case control
B. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is
erroneous B. Metode Cross Sectional
C. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is C. Method cohort

correct D. Experimental Method

139. Spreading rapidly and extensively by in- 144. basic reproductive number (R nought)
fection and affecting many individuals in A. the number of people infected per per-
an area or a population at the same son
A. Epidemic
B. the number of people who die
B. Endemic
C. the number of people infected
C. Pandemic
D. the number of new cases
D. Incidence Rate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
145. Height
140. An epidemic that becomes unusually
A. Nominal
widespread and even global in its reach is
referred to as a B. Ordinal
A. outbreak C. Interval
B. endemic D. Ratio
C. pandemic 146. Rates of illness or disease
D. hyperendemic
A. Incidence Rate
141. Capacity of disease to cause disease in B. Prevalence Rate
infected host
C. Morbidity
A. infectivity
D. Mortality
B. virulence
147. prevalence
C. taxogenicity
A. the total number of infections present
D. pathogenicity
B. the total number of deaths
142. The ability to cause infection depends on
C. total number of pediatric deaths
the agent properties, the host properties
and on important determinant such as D. total number of new infections
A. the host’s ability to mutate 148. epidemiology is defined as
B. the host’s ability replicate it’s DNA
A. study of disease
C. the host’s ability to fight infectious
B. study of disease progression
agents
C. study of foodborne-illness
D. the agent’s ability to mutate
D. study of parasites
143. This food consumption assessment
method is a method that focuses on the 149. is the number of NEW CASES and
frequency of food consumption in the sub- is the number of TOTAL CASES in an area
ject. What is the intended method? over a given period of time.
A. Food Recall 24 Jam A. Prevalence, incidence
B. Food Weighing B. Prevalence, occurrence
C. Food Frequency Questionnaire C. Incidence, prevalence
D. Semi Food Frequency Questionnaire D. Occurrence, prevalence

150. Cross-sectional study, Case-control 155. Select all that apply. Which are types of
study, and Cohort study Ricketsial?

A. Population-Based Descriptive Study A. Q fever
B. Population-Based Analytic Study B. The plague
C. Rocky mountain spotted fever
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study
D. cholera
151. The number of newly diagnosed cases,
usually expressed in one year (n/1000 156. What is the term for a secondary dis-
people ease/condition that develops through the
A. Prevalence Rate course of a primary disease that came
about as a result of the primary disease
B. Incidence Rate or possibly from independent causes?
C. Morbidity Rate
A. Symptoms
D. Mortality Rate
B. Signs
152. What is the difference between contami-
C. Syndromes
nation and infection?
D. Disease
A. Infection is the mere presence of mi-
crobes on/in the body E. Complications
B. Contamination is when a pathogen
evades a body’s external defenses, mul- 157. What is the definition of epidemiology?
tiplies and becomes established in a host. A. the study of the distribution and deter-
C. They can be used interchangeably minants of health-related states or events
in specified populations, and the applica-
D. Infection is when a pathogen evades
tion of this study to the control of health
a body’s external defenses, multiples and
problems
becomes established in the body.
B. a widespread occurrence of an infec-
153. This philosopher was one of the first peo- tious disease in a community at a particu-
ple to discuss the connection between en- lar time.
vironment and health
C. the occurrence of health-related
A. Jonas Salk
events by time, place, and person.
B. Percival Pott
D. the number of health events such as
C. John Snow the number of cases of meningitis or dia-
D. Hippocrates betes in a population
154. If someone dies of cholera, what was 158. Stages of Cancer

likely the thing that caused them to pass?
A. Nominal
A. High temperature
B. Stroke B. Ordinal
C. Dehydration C. Interval
D. Blood clots D. Ratio

159. Which of the following epidemiological A. Population-Based Descriptive Study

triad elements is incorrect? B. Population-Based Analytic Study
A. host:Health Behavior immunity C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study
B. agent:vitamin nutrients in the body D. Individual-Based Analytic Study
C. environment: traffic conditions indus-
164. What foods are good and according to the
trial community
body’s calorie needs
D. distribution: person, time, place A. Sweet moonlight, batagor, chocolate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
160. Mention which is the first part or the milk
first step of the scientific-epidemiological B. Rice, noodles, sweet potato, vegeta-
method to investigate in order to carry out bles, mango
an investigation C. French fries, nuggets, ice cream
A. graph data D. Beef, brown rice, vegetables, orange
B. Alternative hypothesis juice
C. Problem Statement 165. what type of obesity has the percentage
D. collect data of body fat in the abdomen?
A. apple shape
161. world wide epidemic-diagnosised on ev-
ery continent B. mango shape
A. Epidemic C. pear shape
B. Endemic D. orange shape
C. Pandemic 166. one company employee have a smoking

habit Likes to eat foods that are high in
D. Surveillance
fat and sweet. do not exercise being over-
162. Which of the following statement related weight held in any period According to the
to environment factor? nature of the disease a. Giving weight
loss drugs b. Giving fat-reducing drugs c.
A. environment is not of the epidemiology Organizing exercise activities in the office
triangle d. Organizing a non-smoking area
B. include the demographic aspects as A. a b
well as the social, cultural, and mental as-
pects of the environment B. b c
C. favorable surroundings and conditions C. a c

internal to the human or animal that cause D. C
or allow the disease or allow disease
167. Select all that apply. What are the three
transmission
main contributors to disease occurence?
D. favorable surroundings and conditions
A. Environment
external to the human or animal that
cause or allow the disease or allow dis- B. Agent
ease transmission C. Human
163. answers the questions who, what, D. Host
where, when to generate a hypothesis E. Pollen

168. The maximum reproductive capacity of a 173. You would like to assess the effective-
population under optimum environmental ness and efficiency of delivering health ser-
conditions. vices through your clinic. After selecting a

A. Fertility potential 10% sample of all patient visits during the
past six months, you are able to character-
B. Biotic potential ize the patient population who used your
C. Abiotic potential clinic in terms of age, race, sex, method
of referral, diagnostic category, therapy
D. Antibiotic potential
provided, method of payment, daily pa-
169. In the definition of epidemiology, “deter- tient load, and clinic staff work sched-
minants” generally includes oll of these ules. Which of the following study designs
concepts except for: most appropriately characterizes this situ-
ation?
A. Agents
A. Case Control
B. Causes
B. Cross-sectional
C. Control measures
C. Prospective cohort study
D. Risk factors
D. Clinical trial
E. Sources
174. These are the physical agents EXCEPT
170. The research method is carried out with
the main objective to make an objective de- A. heat
scription of a situation. B. pressure
A. Analytical Method C. environment
B. Observational Method
D. electricity sound
C. Descriptive method
175. Rice is a staple food for all Indonesians,
D. Experimental Method
but it still has weaknesses. What are
171. What category does Covid-19 fall into? the weaknesses of rice as a single staple
food?
A. Pandemic
A. rice commodity dependency
B. Epidemic
B. The price of rice is expensive
C. Endemic
C. Rice subsidies are expensive
D. What’s the difference :’((
D. Unstable production
172. The scientific study of the distribution
and abundance of living organisms and 176. Descriptive epidemiology is concerned
the interactions among organisms and be- with
tween the organisms and their environ- A. Finding the frequency and pattern of
ment. an outbreak
A. Demography B. Finding the source of an outbreak
B. Ecology C. Informing the public to prevent the
C. Population spread of an outbreak
D. Census D. none of above

177. An endogenous infections came from were asked the same questions. results
A. the patient’s environment were from those with lyme disease and
those without were then compared
B. the normal microbiota of the patient
A. Experimental
C. results of current medical procedure
B. Observational cohort
D. an arthopod vector
C. Observational case study
178. Which of these are common contributors
D. Observational cross-sectional
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to the reemergence of a disease (select all
that apply) E. Not an analytical study
A. microbe evolution
183. Current monitoring of the number of
B. antibiotic resistance
cases of COVID-19
C. shift in demographics
A. Survey Study
D. introduction to a new vector
B. Surveillance Study
179. Disease is the result of
C. Observational Study
A. pathogens entering the body
D. Experimental Study
B. pathogens altering normal body func-
tions 184. Are infectious and have symptoms
C. pathogens being on a body A. Active Carrier
D. Invasive pathogens, but not noninva- B. Epidemic
sive pathogens
C. Vector
180. How long do most cases of food poison-
ing typically last? D. Endemic
A. 1 hour 185. Constant or habitual presence of a dis-

B. 6-72 hours ease or agent on a given place
C. 8-10 days A. Sporadic
D. 4 weeks or more B. Epidemic
181. Blood Type C. Pandemic
A. Nominal D. Endemic
B. Ordinal
186. Dengue fever infects between 50 to 100
C. Interval million people each year in countries all
D. Ratio over the world. What is the term use for
dengue fever?
182. Person’s diagnosed with new-onset of
A. outbreak
Lyme disease were asked how often they
walked through the woods, used insect B. pandemic
repellent, wear short sleeves and pants,
C. epidemic
twice the number of patient without lyme
disease from the same physician’s practice D. endemic

187. What classification of cell is a virus? B. Inherent power of organisms to repro-

A. Prokaryote duce and survive.

B. Eukaryote C. The increase in a region’s population.
C. Pathogen D. none of above
D. None of these 193. Example of an observational epidemio-

E. Infectious particle logical study where healthy patients are
selected from one sample and sick patients
188. The relationship between agent, host, from another sample to compare Risk Fac-
and environment is examined in this frame- tors As a characteristic Has memory bias
work From the individual
A. Risk ratio A. field
B. Odds ratio B. Cases and controls
C. Epidemiologic Traingle C. transversal
D. Case study D. The bands
189. Which of these disease caused a large 194. Chimney sweeps in London were afflicted
outbreak worldwide? at high rates with
A. Typhoid A. lung cancer
B. Food poisoning B. scrotal cancer
C. Cholera C. skin cancer
D. none of above D. HIV
190. Nutrition and Genetic factors are critical 195. Which of these are nonspecific surface de-
in the host’s defenses. fenses? (Select all that apply)
A. specific A. Structural
B. artificial B. Physical
C. nonspecific C. Mechanical
D. natural D. Biochemical
E. Symbiotic
191. In epidemiology, are factors/events
that are capable of bringing about a change 196. Likert Scale
in health.
A. Nominal
A. distribution B. Ordinal
B. phenomena C. Interval
C. viscosity D. Ratio
D. determinants
197. An organism or vehicle that transmits the
192. Population control causative agent or disease-causing organ-
A. The practice of curtailing population in- ism from the reservoir to the host.
crease, usually by reducing the birth rate. A. host

B. vector 203. the study of how health and illness are

C. agent shaped, experienced, and understood in
light of global, historical, cultural and po-
D. pathogen litical forces.
198. According to Koch’s postulates, the mi- A. medical microbiology
croorganism must be observed
B. medical anthropology
A. during the death process
B. after the patient has died C. medical epidemiology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. as soon as the patient is infected D. medical arthropodology
D. in every case of the disease
204. Date of Birth
199. Which of the following means “peo-
A. Nominal
ple”?
A. eury B. Ordinal
B. hyster C. Interval
C. demos D. Ratio
D. entom
205. Epidemic has another name, what are you
200. What term describes “illness within a usually called?
population”
A. Extraordinary Occurrence
A. mortality
B. virulent B. Rare Event
C. carcinogen C. Natural Disasters
D. morbidity D. Be careful
201. Select all that apply. Examples of nonspe-
206. Percival Pott was the first doctor to
cific defense mechanisms includes which of
the following? A. find a conclusive link between a envi-
A. macrophages ronmental factor and cancer
B. tears B. find a link between behavior and
C. skin health
D. saliva C. cure cancer

E. phagocytes D. develop a cure for scrotal bacterial in-
fections
202. Which of these is are factors affecting vir-
ulence? (select all that apply)
207. Vaccinated or Unvaccinated
A. adhesion factors
A. Nominal
B. biofilms
B. Ordinal
C. toxins
D. antiphagocytic factors C. Interval
E. endospore formation D. Ratio

208. What is a measure of existing disease in 213. Representative Sample of residents were
a population at a particular life time? called and asked how much time do they
exercise each week whether they have

A. Prevalence proportion
been diagnosed with heart disease or not
B. Nursing process is an example of:
C. Health care A. Experimental study
D. Pandemic B. Observational Cohort Study
C. Observational Case-Control
209. The questions posed express what the
study variables are and their possible re- D. Observational Cross-sectional
lationships. In turn, they allow us to E. Not an analytical or epidemiologic
glimpse the possibility of carrying out em- study
pirical tests to establish whether the rela-
tionships are statistically significant. With 214. TSS symptoms include all of the follow-
these questions, the researcher guides the ing, EXCEPT
approach of the objectives. A. rash
A. theoretical mark B. headache
B. Justification C. high fever
C. Problem Statement D. vomitting
D. interpretation 215. Which stage of infection follows the Pro-
dromal period
210. the manner of development of a disease
A. incubation period
A. pathogenesis
B. illness
B. etiology
C. decline
C. pathology
D. convalescence
D. virulancy
216. It is defined as a type of observational re-
211. A study in which people with a disease search that analyzes data of variables col-
are put into a group and compared to peo- lected in a period of time only on a sample
ple without the disease population or predefined subset. This type
A. cohort study of study is also known as a “Cohort” and
prevalence study; An example, how many
B. case-control study hypertensive patients are there in Mexico
C. natural experiment until 2021?
D. ecologic study A. field
B. From laboratory
212. insect that carries disease
C. Transversal
A. Vector
D. prospective
B. Agent
217. This method is carried out with minimal
C. Host
tools, namely only using photos of food
D. Pathogen that can be used

A. Food Recall 24 jam D. none of above

B. Food weighing
222. This is the cause of a disease
C. Food Frequency Questionnaire
A. Host
D. Food Frequency Questionnaire
B. Environment
218. Characteristics of infectious diseases de-
C. Agent
termine all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Whether it will produce a disease D. Risk
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The severity of disease 223. National food supply has a goal of sus-
C. The outcome of infection tainable food supply. What is meant by
sustainable food?
D. When an infectious disease agent will
be transmitted to a host A. Local food provider
E. Whether it will mutate into a stronger B. Food buffer
pathogen C. Poverty indicator
219. Heath worker sampled residents of Pan- D. Food products
tal Dagupan City and asked of their food
and lifestyle habit each month whether 224. Contracting malaria from a mosquito bite
they have or had ever been diagnosed of is an example of
hypertension
A. Vehicle transmission
A. Experimental
B. Contact transmission
C. Vector transmission
C. Observational case study
D. none of above
D. Observational cross-sectional
E. Not an analytical study 225. Which of these are taken into consider-
ation when evaluating a pathogen’s viru-
220. Contracting Covid-19 by walking through lence? (Select all that apply
an area where someone just sneezed is an
example of A. type of nucleic acid
A. Vehicle transmission B. ability to attach to host cells
B. Contact transmission C. ability to avoid immune system
C. Vector transmission D. how much damage it does to a host
D. none of above E. method of entry into the body
221. reservoir 226. According to Koch’s postulates, the mi-
A. a population that is chronically in- croorganism must be observed and
fested with an infectious agent and holds from the experimentally diseased animal.
and transmits it to others A. reproduced
B. an object that holds a infectious agent
B. recovered
C. a person that transmits a disease with-
out actually having an infection them- C. killed
selves D. grown

227. Roughly, what kind of science that stud- 232. Which of the following is not related to
ies the natural history and spread of dis- the stage of susceptibility?
ease in the human population is

A. Newborn children and the elderly are
A. Endemic more likely to contract the disease than
B. Epidemic other ages.
C. Pandemic B. The teacher is teaching in a room

where students have the flu.
D. Epidemiology
C. People who smoke have a higher
228. Select all that apply. Select the chance of getting lung cancer than people
pathogens that are microbial agents. who don’t smoke.
A. protozoa D. Students cough and sneeze when sit-
ting next to flu-like friend
B. arthropods
C. bacteria 233. Which statement is true about the Web
D. helminths of causation model?
E. mycoses A. There is a concept that the occurrence

of various diseases has a common cause,
229. Rates are linked to the level of exposure both direct and indirect.
to some agent for the group as a whole B. There is a concept that the incidence
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study of various diseases is caused by karma.
B. Population-Based Analytic Study C. There is a concept that the occurrence
of various diseases is caused by changes
in the elements of earth, water, wind, and
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study fire.
230. Are infectious but don’t have symptoms D. There is a concept that various dis-
eases are caused by the eating of slang.
A. Passive carrier
B. Active carrier 234. The real trial consists of
C. Intermittent carrier A. Intervention, Control, Randomization
D. zoonose B. Place, Person, Time
C. Host, Agent, Environment
231. Point Epidemic curve shows the number
of patients classified by what? and ar- D. Clinical trials, Field trials, Community
ranged in any kind of diagram trial
A. Categorized by onset date - arranged
235. Examines causal hypotheses often with
as a bar chart
the use of controlled experimental studies
B. Classified by onset date-histogram
A. descriptive epidemiology
C. Classified by date of diagnosis - ar-
B. analytic epidemiology
ranged as a line graph
C. prevalence assessment
D. Classified by date of diagnosis - ar-
ranged as a bar chart. D. statistics

236. This food consumption assessment 241. False Positive adalah

method has one characteristic, namely the A. Mereka yang tidak sakit, dan diny-
amount of food consumed is the difference atakan positif berdasarkan hasil tes
between the initial food weight minus the
weight of leftover food. What is the in- B. Mereka yang sakit dan dinyatakan
tended method? negatif berdasarkan hasil tes
A. Food Recall 24 Jam C. Mereka yang sakit dan dinyatakan

positif berdasarkan hasil tes
B. Food Frequency Questionnaire
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mereka yang tidak sakit dan diny-
C. Food Weighing atakan negatif berdasarkan hasil
D. Semi Food Frequency Questionnaire
242. Epidemiologist are interested in learning
237. Probability of an adverse event about
A. Incidence Rate A. the causes of disease and how to cure
or control them
B. Risk
B. the frequency and geographic distribu-
C. Prevalence
tion of disease
D. Analytical Epidemiology C. the causal relationships between dis-
238. The hallmark feature of an analytic epi- eases
demiologic study are, except for: D. all of above
A. Use of an appropriate comparison 243. Transient microbiota
group
A. are always infectious
B. Laboratory confirmation of the diagno-
sis B. are never infectious
C. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal C. usually stay with a host for a long pe-
riod of time
D. Statistical analysis using logistic re-
gression D. never stay with a host for a long period
of time
239. The Host after exposure may progress E. consists solely of bacteria
from subclinical infection to case of dis-
ease 244. What is the term for objective and mea-
surable manifestations of a disease?
A. dangerous
A. Symptoms
B. contaminated
B. Signs
C. active
C. Syndromes
D. contagious
D. Disease
240. Severity of disease
E. Complications
A. incidence
245. Which of the following is not cor-
B. virulence rect? about the composition Epidemiologi-
C. pathogenicity cal Triad
D. taxogenicity A. Host:Health Behavior immunity

B. Agent:Vitamin nutrients in the body B. They map the locations of the homes
C. Environment: traffic conditions indus- of everyone in a town that has come down
with E. Coli food poisoning

trial community
C. The put out a food recall on contami-
D. Environment: person, time, place
nated lettuce
246. Select all that apply. Which are examples D. none of above
of Helminths?
251. Subjects were children enrolled in a
A. Roundworms health maintenance organization. at 2
B. tapeworms months each child were randomly given
one of the two types of vaccine against ro-
C. ringworms
tavirus infection. Parents were called by a
D. blastomycosis nurse two weeks later and asked whether
the children had experienced any list of
247. Why is COVID-19 called such? (For side effects
example, why is it not “COVID-20” or
“COVID-18”? ) A. Experimental
A. The 19 represents the first 19 people
who fell ill C. Observational case study
B. A group of 19 scientists discovered D. Observational cross-sectional
COVID E. Not an analytical study
C. COVID was first discovered in 2019
252. Disaeses have a range of seriousness, ef-
D. There are 19 symptoms of COVID fect, duration, severity and extent. What
is the term use for intermediate in sever-
248. Which organ system does COVID-19 im- ity and duration, having some acute as-
pact the most? pects to the disease but of longer duration
A. Respiratory and with a degree of severity that detracts
from a complete state of health?
B. Digestive
A. acute
C. Circulatory
B. subacute
D. Cardiovascular
C. superacute
249. An Incident of Unidentified Pneumonia Af- D. chronic
ter Travelling to Mainland China
253. As an epidemiologist, you are going to
A. Case Reports
investigate the effect of a drug suspected
B. Cross-Sectional Study of causing malformations in newborn in-
C. Case-Control Study fants when the drug in question is taken
by pregnant women during the course of
D. Cohort Study their pregnancies. As your sample you
will use the next 200 single births occur-
250. Which of the following illustrates how ring in a given hospital. For each birth, a
epidemiologists look for a pattern? medication history will be taken from the
A. They warn people to boil their water new mother and from her doctor; in addi-
due to possible contamination tion, you will review medical records to

verify use of the drug. (Note:These moth- 256. disease unique to certain groups or area
ers are considered to have been followed A. Pandemic
prospectively during the entire course of
their pregnancies, because a complete and B. Endemic
accurate record of drug use was main- C. Prevalence Rate
tained during pregnancy.) The resultant D. Incidence Rate
data are:Forty mothers took the suspected
drug during their pregnancies. Of these 257. Which of the following countries has
mothers, 35 delivered malformed infants.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
not been the first to report a new vari-
In addition, 10 other infants were born ant/strain of COVID-19?
with malfunctions
A. Great Britian
A. Retrospective cohort study B. South Africa
B. Prospective cohort study participants C. France
C. Clinical Trial D. Brazil
258. The following is an example of how Epi-
254. The entire population of a given commu- demiologists would focus on the causality
nity is examined, and all who are judged to
be free from bowel cancer are questioned A. Compare the frequency of E.Coli food
extensively about their diets. These peo- poisoning cases between two neighboring
ple then are followed for several years to towns
see whether their eating habits will pre- B. Graph the number of cases of E.Coli
dict their risk of developing bowel can- food poisoning in a city within the past
cer. Which of the following study designs month
most appropriately characterizes this situ-
ation? C. Compare food histories between those
with E.Coli poisoning and those without
A. Cross-sectional study
D. none of above
B. Case-Control Study
259. discovered that diseases are caused
C. Prospective cohort study participants
by specific living organisms
D. Retrospective cohort study A. Robert Koch
255. It is one whose variation in its value is B. Edward Jenner
motivated by fluctuations in the indepen- C. Alexander Fleming
dent variables. In other words, or ex-
plained, it is around which the research re- D. Jonas Salk
volves, seeking to determine how the de- 260. Italian doctor and poet.Stated that dis-
pendent or explanatory variables impact ease result from specific contagious or
it. seed of disease
A. Dependent A. Fracastorius
B. chi square B. John Graunt
C. independent C. Hippocrates
D. I DON’T KNOW D. Farr

261. An infectious disease that is transmitted B. agent

between species from animals to humans
C. time
(or from humans to animals).

D. environment
A. zoonosis
B. osmosis 267. What is the most effective way to pre-
C. neorosis vent nosocomial infections
D. fibrosis A. mask wearing

B. hand washing
262. The government is promoting the move-
ment to accelerate the diversification of C. antibiotics
food consumption. What is meant by a va- D. vaccines
riety of foods?
A. Buy a lot 268. Biting insect that transmits disease
B. Many kinds A. Zoonose
C. Consume a lot B. Biological Vector
D. many choose C. Host
263. nosocomial infection D. Agent
A. a hospital acquired infection 269. The environment may enhance or dimin-

B. an infection acquired via fomites ish survival of
C. an infection acquired via reservior A. the host
D. an infection acquired via unsafe sex B. the defense mechanisms
practices C. the species
264. has one main source people get sick quick D. disease agents
and resolved quick once source identified
A. Common source epidemic
of protozoa?
B. Pandemic
A. amebiasis
C. Endemic
B. tapeworm
D. Host
C. rhizopoda
265. Birth and death rates
D. giardiasis
A. Morbidity Rate
E. malaria
B. Incidence Rate
C. Prevalence Rate 271. What vector is responsible for spreading
malaria?
D. Mortality Rate
A. Ticks
266. is the cause of the disease. It can be
B. Mosquitoes
bacteria, virus, protozoa, fungi, chemicals,
radiation, heat, natural toxin. C. Rats
A. host D. Bats

272. Which term best describes this pattern C. the amount of time a person can be
of occurrence worldwide, or over a very death
wide area, crossing international bound- D. the period from an infection to the
aries and usually affecting a large number threshold of an epidemic for a population
of people
A. Endemic 277. The majority of the population is immune
to a particular disease therefore those not
B. sporadic immune are less likely to contract the ill-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Outbreak ness
D. Pandemic A. Prevalence Rate
B. Incidence Rate
273. Newly reported or registered disease
cases compared over time, place or person C. HERD immunity
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study D. Vector
B. Population-Based Analytic Study 278. Size, shape and structure of an organism
C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study A. Personality
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study B. Antigenic properties
274. Incidence study C. Morphology
A. Population-Based Descriptive Study D. Chemical composition
B. Population-Based Analytic Study 279. An industrial factory in the city had 2

C. Individual-Based Descriptive Study workers stricken with lung cancer. After
coming to work for a year, 2 of these
D. Individual-Based Analytic Study workers sued for cancer from working in
this factory. If a student is the judge of
275. The correct definition of obesity is
the case, what do you think?
A. Obesity is a buildup of saturated fat
A. Lung cancer of these 2 workers was
in the blood that makes the body weight
definitely caused by this factory. Because
above normal.
the toxins in the factory are the cause.
B. Obesity is a buildup of good fat that
B. Lung cancer of these 2 workers was
makes the body weight above normal.
definitely caused by this factory. because
C. Obesity is an accumulation of exces- the worker has been working for 1 year
sive cholesterol that makes the body
C. Lung cancer for the two workers may
weight above normal.
not have originated in this factory because
D. Obesity is excessive accumulation of lung cancer has a long incubation period.
fat and is characterized by an increase in
D. The two workers’ lung cancer may
body mass index
not have been caused by this factory.
276. In the center of the epidemiology trian- Because workers have worked in many
gle is Time. Which is NOT relevant to time places, it cannot be specific.
factor? 280. In which stage of infection are there the
A. incubation period most microbes present in the host?
B. duration of the illness A. Incubation

B. Prodromal D. a disease that is always present, but

C. Illness in lower quantities

D. Decline 286. Contracting Salmonella from under-
E. Convalescence cooked food is an example of
A. Vehicle transmission
281. Which of these is an adequate analogy
for the relationship between pathogenicity B. Contact transmission
and virulence C. Vector transmission
A. Pathogenicity is like hurricanes and vir- D. none of above
ulence is like which category hurricane it
is. 287. Epidemic
B. Pathogenicity is like soda and viru- A. Occurrence in a community of cases in
lence is like the difference flavors excess of normal expectancy “outbreak”
C. Pathogenicity is like dogs and viru- B. Constant or habitual presence of a dis-
lence is like which breed of dog ease/agent in a given place.
D. none of above C. Epidemic of worldwide proportion
282. Which groups are vulnerable to PEM D. Few unrelated cases in several areas
A. pregnant mother
288. Which of the following vaccines is not
B. babies and toddlers (yet) approved in the US?
C. elderly A. Pfizer
D. mature B. AstraZeneca
283. The place which and infectious organism C. Johnson & Johnson
can enter. Mouth, nose, anus D. Moderna
A. Portal of Entry
289. Graphs for Nominal
B. Portal of Exit
A. Bar
C. HERD immunity
B. Histogram
D. Biological Vector
C. Box Plot
284. Annual number of live births pero 1000
people D. Pie
A. Crude birth rate 290. carrier

B. Crude mortality rate A. someone who acts as a vector for the
C. General fertility rate infection but does not get infected them-
selves
D. Total fertility rate
B. someone who gets sick and infects oth-
285. sporadic ers
A. a large, country-wide outbreak C. an object that holds the infectious
B. global outbreak agent
C. a small, localized outbreak D. none of above

291. What is the correct temperature for re- C. An animal

frigeration of food? D. The environment
A. < 5 ◦C E. all of them
B. 10-20 ◦ C
296. Number of all cases of a specific disease
C. > 60 ◦ C or condition in a population at a given point
D. 5-10 ◦ C in time relative to the population at the
same point in time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
292. To test the efficacy of a health educa- A. Incidence Rate
tion program in reducing the risk of food-
borne and waterborne diseases, the resi- B. Descriptive Epidemiology
dents of two Peruvian villages were given C. Prevalence Rate
an intensive health education program. At D. Risk
the end of two years, the incidence rates
of important waterborne and foodborne 297. “Who” has the disease
diseases in these villages were compared A. agent
with those in two similar control villages
B. host
without any education program. Which of
the following study designs most appropri- C. environment
ately characterizes this situation? D. prevalence
A. Case Control 298. A disease that can be passed from ani-
B. Cross-sectional mals, whether wild or domesticated, to hu-
C. Clinical Trial mans
A. vector
D. Community Trial
B. zoonose
293. Statistical study of all population
C. HERD immunity
A. Crude birth rate D. Biological Vector
B. Census
299. . The dynamics of food consumption
C. Crude mortality rate change continuously. How to monitor
D. Demography these changes?
A. Research
of Mycoses (Fungi)? B. Consumption survey
A. yeast infection C. Agricultural survey
B. Ringworm D. Price survey
C. athletes foot 300. Compare food histories between persons

with Staphylococcus food poisoning and
D. blastomycosis
those without is an example of
E. roundworm
A. Distribution
295. A reservoir of an infectious agent can be: B. Determinants
A. An asymptomatic human C. Application
B. A symptomatic human D. none of above

301. What is the term for subjective charac- 306. Virulence

teristics of a disease only felt by the pa- A. Ability to induce specific immunity in
tient?

the host
A. Symptoms B. Severity of the disease that occurs
B. Signs C. Ability to infect
C. Syndromes D. Type of virus
D. Disease 307. Expected number of daughters, per new-
E. Complications born prospective mother, who may or may
not survive to and through the ages of
302. Number of live births per woman com- child bearing.
pleting her reproductive life A. Net reproduction ratio
A. Total fertility rate B. Gross reproduction rate
B. General fertility rate C. Total fertility rate
C. Age-specific fertility rate D. Life expectancy
D. Crude birth rate 308. a disease that has spread across a large
region; for instance multiple continents, or
303. a disease or condition that is regularly even worldwide
found among particular people or in a cer- A. endemic
tain area.
B. pandemic
A. pandemic
C. health crisis
B. health crisis
D. epidemic
C. epidemic
309. Ability to cause disease
D. endemic
A. Pathogenicity
304. Select all that apply. Which are exam- B. Infectivity
ple(s) of bacteria? C. Virulence
A. TB (tuberculosis) D. Immunogenicity
B. Influenza (Flu)
310. Which of the following is NOT a state of
C. salmonella health
D. streptococcus pneumoniae A. Illness
E. E. coli B. Death
C. Disability
305. All of the ff are biotic factors, except
D. Clothing sizes
A. Insolation
311. Estimation of the spread of tuberculosis
B. Climate in Metro Manila.
C. Geology A. Survey Study
D. None of the choices B. Surveillance Study

5.4 Research Methodology 1060
C. Observational Study D. Provide funding for epidemic/pandemic

D. Experimental Study relief
312. Which of theses is NOT one of the main 313. ratio of incidence rate in exposed group
functions of the World Health Organiza- to incidence rate of non-exposed group
tion
A. prevalence rate
A. Provide worldwide guidance in field of
health B. risk rate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. set global health standards C. relative risk
C. Strengthen national health programs D. relative odds
5.4 Research Methodology

1. If Mr. Lawless asks for everyone in the 4. The subgroup of the population that par-
gym who has red hair to vote for student ticipates in the study is referred to as the
body president and one of the candidates
has red hair, what has he created? A. sample
A. sampling bias B. assignment
B. representative sample C. group
C. random sample D. none of above
D. volunteer bias 5. If you choose your clothes based on what
Instagram influencers are wearing, you
2. Which of the following is necessary in ob- have fallen victim to bias.
taining informed consent?
A. hindsight
A. A description of the statistical analy-
B. participant
ses that will be carried out
C. social desirability
B. A description of the purpose of the re-
search D. confirmation
C. A description of the reliability and va- 6. Survey results are likely to be more reli-
lidity of test instruments able if they are given on the condition of
D. A list of publications that the re-
searcher has had in the last ten years A. informed consent
B. debriefing
3. If Alaysia wants the prom to have a K-pop
C. anonymity
theme, and she surveys only people who
like K-pop, she has created a(n) D. self-serving bias
A. Hawthorne effect 7. A is a descriptive technique in which
B. hindsight bias one individual or group is studied in-depth
in the hope of revealing universal princi-
C. confirmation bias ples.
D. self-serving bias A. Case Study

B. Survey A. Experiments
C. Observational B. Case Study

D. Correlational C. Survey
E. Experiments D. Observational
8. When Dr. Fauci engages in of COVID- E. Correlational
19, he is reviewing the results of many
research studies at once. 13. Which of the following factors is a main
cause of inbsurance accessibility issues?
A. informed consent
B. random sampling A. increasing costs of health insurance
C. sampling bias B. cultural factors negatively influence

healthcare decisions
D. meta-analyis
C. few educational programs that pro-
9. A disadvantage of is the behaviors mote community resources
could be only one-time occurrences.
D. none of above
A. Observations
B. Correlations 14. Gavin and Jake are doing a survey. They
ask their classmates who wants to partic-
C. Experiments
ipate. What kind of bias have they cre-
D. Case Studies ated?
E. Surveys A. self-serving
10. Current medical practices with ties to his- B. hindsight
torical procedures include C. confirmation
A. improved hygiene and hand washing
D. volunteer
B. use of leeches
C. acupuncture 15. If you put all of the Seniors’ names in a
hat and draw names for prizes, what is
D. all of the above the scientific name for your procedure?
11. Which of the following is not included in A. random drawing
the health science career cluster’s five oc-
B. random selection
cupational pathways?
A. health informatics services C. random sample
B. child health services D. random assigment

C. diagnostic services 16. In a strongly skewed distribution, the best
D. biotechnology research and develop- indicator of central tendency is usually the
ment A. mean
12. A disadvantage of is that the artificial- B. median
ity of the lab may not lend itself to real re-
C. mode
sults that are unaffected by sampling, par-
ticipant, or experimenter bias. D. standard deviation

17. Synesthesia is a phenomenon that has A. Surveys

been estimated to occur in only a few B. Observations
people in a million. Because of its rar-
ity, which is the most likely method re- C. Correlations
searchers will use to study it? D. Experiments
A. Naturalistic observation E. Case Studies
B. Correlational research
22. Patients are looking for medical care that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Survey research is more and pays attention not only
D. Case study to their physical requirements, but also to
E. Experimental research their emotional, social, and even spiritual
needs.
18. When a researcher’s expectations or pref- A. naturalistic
erences about the outcome of a study in-
fluence the results, bias has occurred. B. advanced
A. social desirability C. holistic
B. self-serving D. technological
C. experimenter 23. research can only be measured be-
D. hindsight tween the values of-1 and 1, and it is
graphed on a scatterplot.
19. The standard deviation
A. Correlational
A. indicates the average difference be-
tween each score in a group and the mean B. Experimental
for that group of scores C. Case Study
B. reveals the degree of skew for a group D. Survey
of scores
E. Observational
C. is sensitive to scores at the extremes
of a distribution of scores 24. One example of medical miniaturization is
D. is used to determine whether a data the
set is positively or negatively skewed A. heart pacemaker
20. When Liv hears Chloe say, “I knew we’d B. brain shunt
be out of school for the rest of the year, “ C. dental implant
Liv recognizes Chloe’s
D. catheter
A. confirmation bias
B. hindsight bias 25. The area of examines how medical in-
formation moves in an electronic environ-
C. researcher bias
ment.
D. volunteer bias
A. technology logistics
21. In , questions must be asked “just B. applied informatics
right” to get reliable answers, and the re-
searcher may doubt a the veracity of the C. applied technologist
answers. D. applied logistics

26. The factor the researcher manipulates in a 31. research is a measure of the extent to
controlled experiment is the which two variables change together, and
thus of how well either variable predicts

A. dependent variable
the other.
B. independent variable
A. correlational
C. confounding variable
B. inferential
D. none of above
C. experimental
27. An intelligence test is based on how your D. descriptive
perform for your chronological age, so it
has validity. E. Observational
A. content-related 32. If Osagie believes in Big Foot, and AJ does
B. criterion-related not, based on their research, what kind of
bias has likely happened?
C. predictive
A. confirmation
D. perfect
B. hindsight
28. In which of the following nonrandom sam-
C. self-serving
pling techniques does the researcher ask
the research participants to identify other D. participant
potential research participants?
33. For a test to have reliability, you
A. Snowball should get the same results if compare
B. Convenience the results of only the odds and only the
evens.
C. Purposive
A. test-retest
D. Quota
B. split-half
29. The primary advantage of is that it al-
C. informal
lows for more control than naturalistic ob-
servation D. formal
A. Laboratory Observation 34. If Dr. J pulls every 10th student out of
B. Correlation the auditorium to create a sample of ninth
graders, what method is she using?
C. Case Study
A. random sampling
D. Survey
B. random assignment
30. Julia has an IQ of 130. If the mean for
IQ is 100 with a standard deviation of 15, C. random selection
what percentage of the population has an D. stratified (or representative) sampling
IQ greater that Julia’s, assuming the pop-
ulation falls on a normal distribution? 35. What is the main purpose of the research
proposal?
A. 0 percent
A. To show the result of the previous find-
B. 2.5 percent ings
C. 32 percent B. To make the conclusion about the pre-
D. 50 percent vious finding

C. To provide the findings of the current 40. The studies the effectiveness of alter-
study native medical treatments.
D. To provide the detailed description of A. Department of Health and Regulatory
the proposed project that will be investi- Services
gated B. National Health Defense Associataion
36. The disadvantage of research is that C. National Center of Complementary Al-
it does not permit researchers to draw ternative Medicine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
conclusions regarding cause-and-effect re- D. none of above
lationships
41. When a distribution of scores is skewed,
A. Correlational
which of the following is the most repre-
B. Experimental sentative measure of central tendency?
C. Case Study A. Inference
D. Survey B. Standard deviation
E. Observational C. Mean
37. Career portfolios should not contain D. Median
A. a resume 42. What is a statement that describes how

to measure a particular variable such as
B. letters of recommendation
an emotion?
C. a list of hobbies and interests
A. Operational Definition
D. health certifications you have earned
B. Independent Variable
38. A researcher surveyed social adjustment in C. Control Variable Scientific Inquiry
the same group of 20 people from early
D. Scientific Law
childhood through adulthood. In this ex-
ample, the group of 20 people surveyed 43. is a statistical method that deduces
was the study’s from a small but representative sample
A. Sample the characteristics of a bigger population.
B. Population A. Sampling
C. Operational definition B. inferential statistics
D. Control group C. correlational studies
E. Randomization D. descriptive statistics
44. Before Liam embarks on a full-blown ex-

39. Choose all of the descriptive research
periment, he might gather research
methods.
first to see if a strong enough relationship
A. experiment exists to do a cause-effect study.
B. survey A. sample
C. case study B. correlational
D. observations C. observational
E. inferential statistics D. descriptive

45. Which method should a psychology re- A. positively skewed

searcher use if she is interested in testing B. negatively skewed
whether a specific reward in a classroom

situation causes students to behave bet- C. symmetrical
ter? D. impossible to predict without more in-
A. case study formation
B. experiment 50. A disadvantage of is that the data is
C. survey limited to only answering the question(s)
asked. These limitations lead to biases,
D. correlation ambiguous conclusions, and low participa-
46. Psychology is considered a(n) science tion rates among research populations.
because it uses observation and experi- A. Surveys
mentation to support its theories. B. Observations
A. physical C. Correlations
B. astronomical D. Experiments
C. empirical E. Case Studies
D. computer
51. Medical technologies invented between
47. What variable in an experiment is the 1600 and 1800 AD did not include ‘
manipulated variable? For example:keep A. microscopes
bread at room temp, and keep another one
in the refrigerator-here you are changing B. bifocals
the temps on purpose to see what hap- C. lasers
pens. D. dissection
A. Operational Definition
52. Which procedure can reduce problems as-
B. Control Variable sociated with the use of deception by a re-
C. Dependent Variable searcher?
D. Independent Variable A. Debriefing
48. Ultrasounds, computed tomography (CT), B. Random sampling

and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are C. Random assignment
all examples of D. Using only single-blind studies
A. integrative therapy E. Using only double-blind studies
B. medical imaging
53. Some people are questioning whether the
C. genomic medicine state of Tennessee is violating a HIPAA pri-
D. complementary advancements vacy laws by sharing who has been diag-
nosed with COVID-10 with emergency re-
49. Mrs. Smith gives an exam where most sponders. They are concerned this violates
of the students receive failing grades and patient
only a few students receive high scores.
When the exam scores are plotted, the dis- A. informed consenet
tribution will be B. debriefing

C. confidentiality have been required because the APA Code

D. healthcare needs of Ethics did not exist.
A. informed consent
54. If the AP Psychology exam in 2020 con-
tains terms from the social psychology or B. validity
clinical psychology, it will not have va- C. reliability
lidity. D. a double blind
A. content-related
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. What is the proper hypothesis format?
B. criterion-related
A. “If because”
C. predictive
B. “If than but”
D. perfect
C. “If then”
55. Which of the following is NOT an ethical D. “If but then”
guideline for conducting research with hu-
mans? 60. A clinic or hospital’s interdisciplinary
A. Getting informed consent of the partic- healthcare team may include
ipant A. doctors, nurses, and therapists
B. Telling participants they must continue B. medical assistants
until the study has been completed C. insurance representatives
C. Keeping participants’ identity anony- D. All of the above
mous
D. Telling participants they are free to 61. include tools such as questionnaires
withdraw at any time and surveys that individuals can use to
find careers that will match their individ-
56. Which of these is mostly like to result in a ual needs.
negative skew? A. Career assessments
A. placebos B. Interest portfolios
B. extraneous variables C. School-to-work pathway indicators
C. outliers D. Personality profiles
D. control group
62. It is critically important for any new treat-
57. What variable in an experiment is mea- ment for COVID-19 to be done in a
sured? For example:measuring the study.
amount of mold on bread A. double blind
A. Dependent variable B. randomized
B. Operational Definition C. controlled
C. Independent Variable D. all of the above
D. Control Variable
63. If Alaysia and Jake know that Mr. Pedigo
58. One major issue with the Milgram obedi- is sitting in the back of the classroom to
ence study and with Watson’s early condi- observe Ms. W, they might alter their nor-
tioning experiments is that would not mal behavior. This is referred to as the

A. social desirability bias 69. Which of the following is necessary to be-

B. Hawthorne effect come a medical assistant?

C. Yerkes-Dodson law A. an associate’s degree
D. Cannon-Bard theory B. a bachelor’s degree
C. a one to two year internship
64. If Ethan is doing an experiment that in-
volves how long Liv’s just washed car will D. None of the above
stay clean, what is rain in this experi- 70. The ACT and SAT as well as AP exams
ment? should have validity for college.
A. confounding variable A. perfect
B. extraneous variable
B. criterion-related
C. idependent variable
C. content-related
D. dependent variable
D. predictive
65. Placebo usually refers as
71. Which of the following jobs requires ad-
A. treatment justing to new equipment, updated tech-
B. control nologies, and revised software?
C. interview A. heath informatics
D. randomized selection B. medical software
66. Another name for a bar graph is a(n) C. healthcare volunteering
A. frequency distribution D. medical eduction
B. histogram 72. Researchers find that there is a significant,
C. scatterplot positive correlation between the number
of hours students sleep and their grades.
D. standard deviation
The researchers would be justified in con-
67. If Emma makes a sampling error, the re- cluding that
sults of the study are less likely to indicate A. Earning good grades causes people to
sleep more
A. confirmation bias B. Sleeping more causes students to per-
B. statistical significance form better in school
C. validity C. Students who earn good grades tend
D. normal distirbution to sleep more than those who do not
D. More sleep has a beneficial impact on
68. Ms. Jones wants to describe the average school performance
score on your first psychology test. Which
measure of central tendency is she most 73. What is a study where only one variable
likely to use? is manipulated at a time?
A. mean A. Control Variable
B. median B. Controlled Experiment
C. mode C. Operational Definition
D. harmonic mean D. Dependent Variable

74. Which of the following is most important 79. All of the following can be used as a
when conducting survey research? sources of literature EXCEPT
A. Choosing a representative sample A. journal
B. Choosing a large sample B. pubmed
C. Choosing a biased sample C. blog
D. Choosing a sample whoes answers D. conference proceeding
will likely support your hypothesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. The advantage of is that the behav-
75. In a normal distribution, what percentage ior observed in the subject(s) natural envi-
of the scores in the distribution falls within ronment to be more natural, spontaneous,
on standard deviation on either side of the and varied than that observed in a labora-
mean? tory.
A. 34 % A. natural observation
B. 40 % B. correlation
C. 50 % C. experiments
D. 68 % D. case studies
76. The advantage of a(n) is that it yields E. surveys
a great deal of detailed descriptive infor-
mation. 81. A psychological or physical treatment
given to the control group that resembles
A. Case Study the treatment given to the experimental
B. Survey group, but that contains no active ingredi-
C. Observation ent, is known as the
D. Correlation A. independent variable

E. Experiment B. placebo
C. dependent variable
77. In a controlled FDA study, the group receiv-
ing the treatment is the group. D. confounding variable
A. experimental 82. workers assemble and organize a pa-
B. control tient’s health information to create a med-
ical record.
C. placebo
A. Heath information facilitation
D. sample
B. Health information managment
78. When a health information technician
C. Heath technology services
passes a certification test and regularly up-
dates that certification, this is known as D. Information acquisition
83. Which type of psychological study uses

A. minimally qualified measures of central tendency and mea-
B. employable sures of variability?
C. creditionaled A. inferential statistics
D. certified B. correlational research

C. experiments 88. In IQ testing, the standard error of mea-

sure indicates a of possible scores be-
D. descriptive statistics
cause IQ is not exact. For example, if your

84. The Act calls for major changes to the score on the test is 125, it is written as
US healthcare system that will provide 125 +/-3.
care to a larger number of citizen. A. median
A. National Health Defense B. mean
B. Patent Protection and Affordable Care C. mode
C. Heath abd Regulator Services D. range
D. Health and Well Being for All 89. Which of the following components would
most likely not be in a career portfolio?
85. Which of the following are not considered
a display of professional dress and man- A. letters of recommendation
nerisms, B. HIPAA regulations
A. minimal jewelry and light makeup for C. samples of project that demonstrate
women skills
B. modest skirts and tops for women D. awards recieved
C. clothes and tattoos that are an expres- 90. “A measure of occurrence or disease fre-
sion of a vibrant personality quency often used to refer to the propor-
D. neat, clean, well-kept slacks and shirts tion of individuals in a population who
for both genders have a disease or condition.” The above
statement refers to
86. In an FDA study, the group receiving the
A. prevalence
placebo is referred to as the group.
B. risk
A. experimental
C. odd ratio
B. control
D. relative ratio
C. placebo
91. Which of the following is not a recent ad-
D. extra
vancement in healthcare?
87. is an organization specifically for fu- A. genetic tessting
ture healthcare workers, which allows stu-
B. trepanning
dents to develop leadership skills, learn
more about career training programs, and C. miniaturization
participate in service-learning and other D. stem cell research
volunteer opportunities.
92. Leverenz, C. S. 1998. Citing cyber-
A. Future Healthcare Workers Associa-
sources:a challenge to disciplinary val-
tion
ues. Computers and Composition15(2), pp.
B. Skills USA 185-200.The citation is refers to
C. HOSA-Future Health Professionals A. chapter in a book
D. Health Occupation Services of America B. journal article

C. website D. They are conducting experimental re-

D. newspaper search but not correlational research
E. They are conducting an experiment
93. Which statistical measure of central ten- with no independent and dependent vari-
dency is most affected by extreme ables
scores?
A. Mean 98. If Mrs. Holder selects 100 students out of
each grade level to make a decision about
B. Median
NARAYAN CHANGDER
an after school event, and she makes sure
C. Mode she has 50% male/ 50% female as well
D. Skew as a diverse sample similar to Blackman’s
overall population, she has created a(n)
94. Health educators are required to have at
least a(n)
A. stratified (representative) sample
A. high school degree
B. random assignment
B. bachelor’s degree
C. representative selection
C. master’s degree
D. population control
D. pm-the-job training certificate
99. A(n) research design happens when
95. A measures the frequency of occur-
only participants don’t know whether
rence of a variable.
they are in experimental or control group.
A. frequency chart
A. double blind
B. frequency table
B. naturalistic observation
C. frequency distribution
C. single blind
D. frequency graph
D. none of above
96. In a randomized study of the effects of vi-
olence on television, which one of the fol- 100. workers train in computer science and
lowing is most likely to cause a placebo provide support fro the electronic health
effect? records that other healthcare workers use
to document a patient’s information.
A. Winnie the Pooh
B. Teenage Mutant Ninja Turtles A. Hospital Management
C. Spiderman B. Health Information Technology

D. Scooby Doo C. Health Information Management
D. Health Computer Science
97. It is important for researchers to use pre-
cise operational definitions when 101. This research method is a technique for
A. They want to ensure that conditions ascertaining the self-reported attitudes or
are assigned randomly behaviors of a particular group, often by
questioning a representative sample of the
B. They want to be able to replicate the
group.
experiment
C. They want to organize the hypothesis A. Survey
appropriately B. Observational

C. Correlational 106. research is where an investigator ma-

D. Experiments nipulates one or more factors (independent
variables) to observe the effect on some

E. Case Study behavior or mental process (the dependent
variable).
102. Which of the following elements should
be included in a medical record? A. Experimental
A. complete medical and treatment his- B. Correlational
tory C. Descriptive
B. family medical history D. Observational
C. personal identifiable information
107. is a set of elements taken from a
D. All of the above larger population according to certain rules
103. The method of research is where the A. Sample

researcher carefully and systematically ob- B. Population
serves and records behavior without inter-
C. Statistic
fering.
D. Placebo
A. Observational
B. Correlational 108. If you show a relationship where this is
none, you have created a(n)
C. Experiments
A. experiment
D. Case Study
B. negative correlation
E. Survey
C. illusory correlation
104. If you give the same intelligence test D. positive correlation
to a student four months later, the score
should not differ much because of reli- 109. What is a factor that can change in an ex-
ability. periment?
A. test-retest A. Claim
B. split-half B. Variable
C. informal C. Scientific Inquiry
D. formal D. Hypothesis
105. The technology that utilizes computer 110. Which of the following fields requires a
software and systems to access patient bachelor’s or master’s degree in medical in-
records, record vital sighs, and update formatics, computer science, public health,
treatments for a specific patient is known or another field related to health science?
as
A. health informatics
A. information technology assistance
B. medical computer software applica-
B. digital medical access tions
C. patient information imaging C. health technology and engineering
D. electronic health records D. public health research

5.5 Entomology 1072
111. All of the following are American Psycho- E. Particpants’ right to privacy must be
logical Association (APA) ethical guidelines protected
for researchers EXCEPT:
112. The advantage of is that they create
A. Research may not involve deception an immense amount of data to be gathered
quickly and inexpensively.
B. Participiation must be voluntary
A. Surveys
C. Participants must be informed of po-
B. Observations
tential risks
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Correlations
D. Participants must be offered alterna-
tive activities if research participation is D. Experiments
a course requirement E. Case Studies
5.5 Entomology
1. Necrophilous insects are 4. All of the following are limiting factors for
the life of pests, except?
A. species such as ants, wasps, and
some beetles that feed on the corpse and A. Food
associated maggots B. Colony
B. beetles, true flies, and wasps that par- C. Nest
asitize immature flies
D. Air
C. the first species feeding on corpse tis-
sue 5. After a meal, the average time it takes for
D. pill bugs, spiders, and mites that use the stomach to empty is
the corpse as an extension of their habi- A. 1-2 hours
tat
B. 4-6 hours
2. This stage of death is defined huge loss C. 8-12 hours
of mass, to the point where only skin and
D. 24 hours
bones are likely to remain
A. Fresh 6. The reason someone dies is called the:
B. Bloat / Putrification A. type of death
C. Active Decay B. manner of death
D. Dry Remains C. cause of death
D. mechanism of death
3. Insects such as blowflies tend to lay their
eggs in 7. depositing, or laying, of eggs
A. dry, cold areas A. oviposition
B. dry, warm areas B. insect succession
C. moist, cold areas C. spiracles
D. moist, warm areas D. grub

5.5 Entomology 1073
8. In the “Mystery Death” case study, a par- 13. Which is the correct sequence of develop-
tially disrobed woman was found in her mental stages for blowflies?
barn with blunt force trauma injuries and a

A. egg, larvae, pupa, adult
broken hip. After investigating, her death
was ruled B. egg, second instar, 3rd instar, pupa,
adult
A. accidental
C. egg, pupa, maggot, adult
B. natural
D. 1st instar, 2nd nstar, 3rd instar, pupa,
C. homicidal adult
D. suicidal 14. About how long does it take blowfly eggs
to hatch?
9. What does a forensic entomologist
study? A. 24 days
A. worms B. 14 days
B. insects C. 24 hours
C. spiders D. 48 hours
D. none of above 15. How many hours does it take livor mortis
to be fully settled? (Choose the best an-
10. What is the life cycle of an insect called swer choice)
A. pupa A. Five hours
B. larva B. 12 hours
C. metamorphosis C. Two hours
D. levimorphosis D. Six hours
11. Estimates of the using entomologi- 16. In the case of a suspicious or unnatural
cal evidence must take into account the death a pathologist would conduct a(n)
species of insect present, geographical A. Inspection
locations of the decedent’s body, and B. Diagnosis
weather conditions.
C. Pathology
A. accumulated degree hours (ADH)
D. Autopsy
B. postmortem interval (PMI)
17. Developmental process usually involving
C. Diptera
changes in the animal’s form
D. Choleoptra
A. Metamorphosis
12. The first species to arrive on a dead body B. Moly
is the: C. Instar
A. carrion beetle D. Oviposition
B. trapdoor spider
18. The first stage of mammal decomposition
C. coffin fly is
D. blowfly A. fresh stage

5.5 Entomology 1074
B. bloated stage 24. Where can you find insects?

C. decay stage A. In my bed
D. post-decay stage B. Almost everywhere
19. This stage occurs when the body becomes C. Mostly outside
distended and the splitting of the skin al-
D. In animals
lows bad smelling gases to escape.
A. bloated stage E. At your local fast food restaurant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. post-decay stage 25. how many eyes has a bee?
C. decay stage A. 5 eyes
D. fresh stage
B. 8 eyes
20. During this stage house flies begin to ap- C. Do not see
pear and deposit eggs
D. none of above
A. fresh stage
B. post-decay stage 26. One type of insect typically arrives within
C. bloated stage minutes after death. Therefore this type
of insect is considered to be timekeepers
D. decay stage for postmortem intervals. Which type of
21. Prior to 72 hours after death, livor mor- insect is this?
tis, rigor mortis and algor mortis are used A. sexton beetle
instead of evidence.
B. blowflies
A. anthropological
C. flesh flies
B. odontological
D. houseflies
C. entomological
D. pathological 27. What is Entomology
22. What is a maggot? A. Study of dogs

A. Wormlike fly larva. B. Study of cats
B. Wormlike stage of insect development C. Study of Fortnite, PUBG, and Apex Leg-
after egg. ends
C. Wormlike beetle larva D. Study of Insects
D. A wormlike person who has no respect E. Study of school
for themselves or others. HIDE ANSWER
28. The third stage of metamorphosis / larva
23. The major variable in the fly’s life cycle is
develops into an adult insect.
A. moisture A. Eclosion
B. pressure B. Fly Development Stages

C. temperature C. Pupa
D. barometer D. Larva

5.5 Entomology 1075
29. Heat units required for insect development 35. Choose the correct statement about in-
are sects in the order Coleoptera

A. PMI A. Beetle
B. ADH B. Fireflies
C. CODIS
C. Vocabulary
D. AFIS
D. Cockroach
30. Which after death process is permanent?
A. ALGOR MORTIS 36. During this stage, predatory/omnivorous
organisms like beetles are present.
B. LIVOR MORTIS
C. RIGOR MORTIS A. active
D. none of above B. bloat
31. What are the two most important in- C. fresh

sects? D. advanced
A. Blowflies and Beetles
E. dry/skeletal
B. Bees and Mosquitoes
C. Wasps and Butterflies 37. During the stage, blow fly larvae are
delicate and prone to desiccation.
D. Ants and Lady Bugs
A. first instar
32. wormlike stage of insect development af-
ter egg B. second instar
A. larva C. third instar
B. pupa D. fourth instar
C. grub
D. crop 38. The blowfly lifecycle has six stages. How
many larval stages are included in these
33. Use insects to determine time and location six stages?
of death
A. 1
A. Psychology
B. 2
B. Toxicology
C. Pathology C. 3
D. Entomology D. 4
34. The living insect in the stage prior to 39. What mineral causes eyes to appear
metamorphosis in the blow fly life-cycle is cloudy after death?
called the
A. Sodium
A. pupae
B. pupal case B. Calcium
C. puparium C. Potassium
D. none of these D. Chloride

5.5 Entomology 1076
40. During this stage, the larvae have a feed- to help investigators. (Which words best
ing frenzy. fill in the blanks? )
A. fresh A. age; weight
B. bloat B. species; age
C. active C. actions; smell
D. advanced D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. Select the MOST important Environmental 46. What was the manner cause of death in
Factor(s) in Corpse decay. Note:There may the case “Mysterious Deaths at the Fair”,
be more than 1 answer the opening case study for Ch. 12?
A. Temperature A. blunt force trauma
B. Size of the Body B. heart attack
C. Access by Insects C. food poisoning/water contamination
D. Depth of Burial D. kidney failure
42. Application of entomology to civil and crim- 47. In what year did Rentokil operate in In-
inal legal cases donesia
A. Forensic botany A. 1999
B. Forensic Serology B. 1989
C. Forensic Entomology
C. 1979
D. Forensic Anthropology
D. 1969
43. Weather (temperature and humidity) af-
48. What is Accumulated Degree Hours
fects
(ADH)?
A. the types of insects that colonize re-
A. The number of hours a dead body has
mains
been outside.
B. the amount of time an insect takes to
B. The number of hours it takes for an in-
develop from egg to adult
sect species to become an adult.
C. the size of the adult insect
C. The number of hours a body has been
D. all of the above dead.
44. Pooling of blood in the areas of the body D. The number of hours it takes for an in-
closest to the ground is called sect species to develop to a given stage.
A. Pooling 49. an elected official who usually has no spe-
B. Grounding cial medical training.
C. Puddling A. medical examiner
D. Lividity B. coroner
C. forensic anthropologist
45. An entomologist needs to know the type
of fly and the of the larva in order D. Rokitansky Procedure

5.5 Entomology 1077
50. wormlike beetle larva 55. This stage occurs because of the activity
A. grub bacteria which produces gases inside the
body.

B. crop
A. post-decay stage
C. pupa
D. maggot B. decay stage
C. fresh stage
51. Why does an infants skeleton contain a
higher number of bones? D. bloated stage
A. They are born with many bones that
have not fused completely 56. What disease does Anopheles spp.
(Anopheles) cause?
B. They are mutant ninja bebes
A. Malaria
C. They are born with bones that eventu-
ally turn into cartilage B. Dengue
D. all of the above C. Chikungunya
52. The fact that insect development is al- D. Leishmaniasis
lows insects to be used to determine time
since death. 57. What are the five manners of death?
A. irregular A. Entomological, physiological, chemi-
B. predictable cal, natural or unnatural
C. constant B. Stabbing, gunshot, poisoning, blud-

geoning or accidental
D. unpredictable
C. Natural, murder, suicidal, organic or
53. Which of these is NOT part of the Phylum undetermined
Arthropoda?
D. Natural, accidental, suicidal, homicidal
A. flies, wasps, ants, beetles
or underdetermined
B. spiders, mites, ticks
C. crabs, lobsters, crayfish, pillbugs 58. Cause of death refers to
D. millipedes, centipedes A. When a person died
E. octopi, squid B. The reason they died
54. Which represents the normal sequence of C. Who killed them
decomposition? D. Specific body part failure
A. fresh, decay, post decay, bloated, dry
(skeletal) 59. What is the lowest temperature that in-
B. bloated, dry (skeletal), decay, post de- sect development will occur?
cay, fresh A. 35◦
C. fresh, post decay, bloated, decay, dry B. 45◦
(skeletal)
C. 55◦
D. fresh, bloated, decay, post decay, dry
(skeletal) D. 65◦

5.5 Entomology 1078
60. Disease, cancer, heart attack and old age 65. What is the average temperature drop dur-
would be classified as ing the first 12 hours after death?
A. Natural Death A. .25◦ C every hour
B. Suicide B. .50◦ C every hour
C. Homicide C. .75◦ C every hour
D. Accidental Death D. 1.00◦ C every hour
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. This stage begins with the splitting of the 66. study of insects & related arthropods
skin to allow the gases to escape. A. entomology
A. bloated stage B. epidemiology
B. post-decay stage C. oncology
C. decay stage D. anthropology
D. fresh stage
67. What is Zoology?
62. During this stage, beetles begin to colo- A. Study of Aves
nize the body and consume the dry, less
nutrient-rich components. B. Study of Mammals
A. decay stage C. Study of Amphibians

D. Study of Animals
B. bloated stage
C. fresh stage 68. wormlike fly larva
D. post-decay stage A. maggot
B. crop
63. What are petechial hemorrhages?
C. grub
A. red spots formed from bleeding under
the skin D. pupa
B. red spots in the whites of the eyes 69. What is the highest temperature that in-
C. a nosebleed caused by blunt force sect development will occur?
trauma A. 65◦
D. A fatty or waxy substance produced B. 75◦
during the decomposition of dead bodies
exposed to moisture C. 95◦
D. 105◦
64. predictable sequence of changing species
that inhabit a decomposing body 70. The breakdown of cells as they self-digest
A. insect succession A. autolysis
B. accumulated degree hours (ADH) B. putrefaction
C. instar C. decomposition
D. complete metamorphosis D. adipocere

5.5 Entomology 1079
71. A forensic investigator may be able to use 77. Which of the following would be effected
to determine if a body was moved af- first by rigor mortis?
ter death

A. Upper legs
A. Rigor mortis
B. Face
B. Liver mortis
C. Abdomen
C. Algor mortis
D. Lower legs
D. Hyper mortis
78. What drug was found to influence the
72. What is oviposition?
growth rate of maggots in the Paul Catts’
A. the laying of egg by a chicken Case of the Massive Maggots, ?
B. the position of eggs in a carton A. cocaine
C. the laying of eggs by an insect B. caffeine
D. the location of the spiracles
C. meth
73. A body found with no food in the stomach D. fentanyl
or small intestines has been dead for at
least hours 79. Prior to hours after death, algor mor-
A. 2 tis, livor mortis and rigor mortis are used
instead of entomology evidence.
B. 6
A. 36
C. 12
D. 24 B. 48
C. 72
74. Carrion beetles prefer
D. 96
A. corpse in stage 1 decomposition
B. corpse in a dry stage, as well as eggs 80. Which stage of mortis results in the chang-
& larvae of other insects ing of color in the body?
C. corpse in any stage of decomposition A. Rigor Mortis
D. just the eggs & larvae of other insects B. Algor Mortis
75. The process where cells begin to die C. Liver Mortis
A. Bursting D. none of above
B. Cell disintigration
81. A legless, eyeless, vermiform larva that is
C. Autolysis approximately 5 mm in length would prob-
D. Autocleaving ably belong to what insect order?
76. Insect stage after the egg hatches A. Ephemeroptera
A. 1st instar B. Orthoptera

B. college C. Odonata
C. adult D. Siphonaptera
D. death E. Blattodea

5.5 Entomology 1080
82. Decomposition of a mammal begins at this B. odorless substances

stage: C. proteins
A. post-decay stage D. oxygen
B. bloated
88. During this stage/phase, the larvae stops
C. fresh stage feeding and travels several feet away
D. decay stage from the corpse.
A. initial decay
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. Type of animal that is often used to simu-
late human body in entomology B. migration phase
A. Horse C. fresh stage
B. Chimpanzee D. bloated stage
C. Pig 89. Insect at the crime scene stops the
D. Goat clock on the insects.
E. Cow A. collection
B. preservation
84. The cooling of the body after death is
called C. development
A. rigor mortis D. degradation
B. livor mortis 90. The nonliving part of the insect in the stage
C. algor mortis prior to metamorphosis in the blow fly life-
cycle is called the:
D. decomposition
A. pupae
85. Which part of the exoskeleton lies be-
B. pupal space
tween the exocuticle and the wax layer?
C. puparium
A. procuticle
D. none of these
B. cement layer
C. cuticulin layer 91. stage 1 of decomposition
D. endocuticle A. fresh stage
B. skeletal or dry
86. The insect’s skeleton is called
C. advanced decay
A. Exoskeleton
D. bloating
B. Endoskeleton
E. active decay
C. Red Skeleton
D. Halloween Skeleton 92. What was the name of the forensic ento-
mologist who testified for the prosecution
87. As a dead body decomposes, two gases in the trial on Casey Anthony, who was ac-
putrescine and are released that alert cused of murdering her daughter? He was
blowflies to a possible location to lay their also the subject of the Career in Forensics
eggs. for this chapter.
A. cadaverine A. Paul Catts

5.5 Entomology 1081
B. Bill Bass 97. What is the correct order for insect body
C. Neil Haskell development?

A. Larva, egg, pupa, adult
D. Lloyd Cunningham
B. Pupa, egg, larva, adult
93. What is a forensic pathologist? C. Egg, pupa, adult, larva
A. a medical doctor specifically trained to D. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
perform autopsies to determine the pres-
ence or absence of disease, injury, or poi- 98. What stage of a fly’s life cycle are mag-
soning gots?
B. a coroner A. Adult
C. a physician who performs autopsies B. Pupa
and determines the cause and manner of C. Larva
death
D. none of above
D. A scientist who applies the study of in-
sects and other arthropods to criminal in- 99. Species that was known for destroying
vestigation wildlife about a 6 years ago.
A. Chinese Wasp
94. The process of transformation from an im-
mature form to an adult form in two or B. Dragonfly
more distinct stages. C. Japanese Beetle
A. mutation D. Brazillian Beetle
B. metamorphosis 100. Insects help forensic investigators deter-
C. puberty mine
D. catabolism A. time of death
B. whether the body sustained trauma
95. What is adipocere?
C. whether the body has been moved
A. a fatty or waxy substance produced
during the decomposition of dead bodies D. all of these
exposed to moisture 101. Why do Forensic entomologists look at
B. the breakdown of cells as they self- blow fly larvae at a crime scene?
digest A. They are the last insects to arrive at a
C. the breakdown of once-living matter body
D. the stiffening of skeletal muscles B. They have the fastest life cycle
C. We know the least about their life cy-
96. During what stage does house flies begin cle
to show up and lay eggs?
D. They are the first insects to arrive at
A. Post-Decay Stage the body
B. Fresh Stage
102. Which of the following is NOT a part of
C. Decay Stage insect development cycle.
D. Bloated Stage A. Pupa

5.5 Entomology 1082
B. Grub 108. How can ADH of insects help in an inves-

tigation?
C. Egg
A. Provides range for time of death
D. Adult
B. Provides exact time of death
103. What do the flies eggs hatch into?
C. Provides cause of death
A. Adult Flies
D. Provides manner of death
B. Pupas
NARAYAN CHANGDER
109. Degree days or degree hours are the num-
C. Worms ber of days/hours multiplied by the num-
D. Maggots ber of above a threshold temperature.
A. degrees
104. What is the body development of an in-
sect in four stages called? B. months
A. Insect Succession C. days
B. Complete Metamorphosis D. weeks
C. Accumulated Degree Hours 110. How can a blowfly help an investiga-

D. Oviposition tion?
A. Helps investigators determine time of
105. Insects are rare. death.
A. True B. Helps investigators determine how a
B. False person was killed.
C. I dont know C. Helps investigators determine what

the person ate at his/her last meal.
D. I was sleeping
D. none of above
E. I know
111. What is a medical examiner?
106. What is the proper name for insects
A. a sheriff
with a hard, outer-body casing and jointed
legs? B. same as a coroner
A. mammals C. a physician who performs autopsies
and determines the cause and manner of
B. arthropods
death
C. snails D. a medical doctor specifically trained to
D. crustaceans perform autopsies to determine the pres-
ence or absence of disease, injury, or poi-
107. How long does it take adult flies to soning
emerge from pupa cases?
112. This stage results in the remains consist-
A. 1-3 days
ing primarily of bones, some dried skin and
B. 6-8 days cartilage
C. 10-12 days A. Fresh
D. 14-16 days B. Bloat

5.5 Entomology 1083
C. Active Decay 118. Time elapsed since death

D. Advanced Decay A. Post Mortem Interval

E. Dry Skeletal B. Putrefaction
C. Adipocere
113. What country had the first case in which
analysis of human DNA isolated from the D. Ambient
digestive tract of maggots used to identify
119. If an insect’s subesophageal ganglion
a victim in a criminal case?
were paralyzed, it would be unable to
A. United States A. eat
B. France B. fly
C. Ecuador C. walk
D. Mexico D. see
114. Rate of cooling helps in determining 120. What is Botany?
A. Manner of death A. Study of Marines
B. Time of death B. Study of Terrestrials
C. Place of death C. Study of Plants
D. Cause of death D. Study of Microbes
115. Which of the following factors affect the 121. Necrophages are
rate of decay? A. species such as ants, wasps, and
A. Depth of burial some beetles that feed on the corpse and
associated maggots
B. Temperature
B. beetles, true flies, and wasps that par-
C. Access by insects asitize immature flies
D. None of the above C. the first species feeding on corpse tis-
sue
116. Which of the following are the main body
parts of an insect? D. pill bugs, spiders, and mites that use
the corpse as an extension of their habi-
A. Abdomen tat
B. Cephalothorax
122. Species That Has Destroyed the US re-
C. Head cently
D. Thorax A. Japanesse Beetle
B. Lady Bug
117. A parsley worm is in the order and
the adult turns into a C. Spotted Lanternfly
A. Lepidoptera, cabbage looper D. Dragon Fly
B. Coleoptera, weevil 123. Did you have fun?
C. Lepidoptera, swallowtail A. Yesssssssssssssss
D. Diptera, mosquito B. Nooooooooooooo i wanna go home

5.5 Entomology 1084
C. I was playing Fortnite, PUBG, Apex C. Mango thrips

Legends D. Mango whitefly
D. I was taking a nap
129. A medical doctor specifically trained to do
E. I was watching Frozen 2
autopsies to determine the presence or ab-
124. On a decomposed body, the feeding lar- sence of disease, injury or poisoning.
vae may have human tissue stored in their A. medical examiner
crops that can be analyzed to determine:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. forensic psychologist
A. whether the body was moved after
death. C. forensic entomologist
B. whether the deceased was exposed D. forensic pathologist

to either toxic chemicals or recreational
130. What is an autopsy?
drugs.
A. medical examination to determine
C. whether the body was covered, buried,
cause of death
or submerged in water.
B. the cause of death
D. whether the deceased was restrained
while alive. C. proximate cause of death
125. Pupae will be found in the same areas as D. an exam

third-instar larvae. 131. is a broad term meaning the applica-
A. wandering tion of the study of insects to legal cases.
B. resting A. Forensic anthropology
C. propagating B. forensic odontology
D. metamorphosing C. forensic pathology
126. nonfeeding stage of development be- D. forensic entomology
tween larva & adult
132. In most cases, forensic entomology will
A. pupa only determine a time since death.
B. spiracles A. approximate
C. grub B. maximum
D. crop C. minimum
127. Feeding on a dead animal D. probable
A. Livor Mortis
133. What was the name of the video?
B. Algor Mortis
A. Study of animals
C. Rigor Mortis
B. study of how summer is short
D. Necrophagous
C. PUBG Elmo’s World
128. The monophagous pest of mango crop is D. Study of water
A. Mango hopper E. Meet a scientist:NHM Entomologist
B. Mango stone weevil Elizabeth Long

5.5 Entomology 1085
134. Carcass of a dead and decaying animal 140. Decomposition begins at this stage.
A. Entomology A. advanced decay

B. Carrion B. bloat
C. Arthropod C. fresh
D. Taxonomy D. active decay
135. The life cycle of a blow fly begins with: 141. each of the 3 different larval stages
of flies in species that undergo complete
A. oviposition metamorphosis
B. decay A. instar
C. pupation B. insect succession
D. migration phase C. maggot
136. Insects that pass through the egg, larva, D. oviposition
pupa, and adult stages in their life cycle 142. Forensic entomologists use their knowl-
have edge of to help them solve a crime
A. incomplete metamorphosis A. Pasta
B. no metamorphosis B. Insects
C. complete metamorphosis C. Painting
D. gradual metamorphosis D. Music
137. The stiffening of the skeletal muscles af- 143. What do entomologists learn by studying
ter death is known as the insects at a crime scene?
A. algor mortis A. who the victim is
B. lividity B. PMI
C. livor mortis C. who probably commited the crime
D. rigor mortis D. the crime autopsy
138. The insect’s body is made up of what 144. According to forensic entomologists,
three body parts: which “witness” is the first to arrive at
the crime scene?
A. Head, thorax, flagellum
A. mite
B. Head, thorax, abdomen
B. spider
C. Vertebrae, Deltoid, Femur C. carrion beetle
D. Thorax, Anthrax, Typhoid D. blow fly
139. What is the name for the forensic scien- 145. The three different larval stages of flies
tist that studies insects? is a what?
A. Anthropologist A. Crop
B. Entomologist B. Instar
C. Toxicologist C. Pupa
D. Botanist D. Spiracle

5.5 Entomology 1086
146. The three levels of certainty are , D. blue bottles, green bottles, and silver
and bottles.
A. possibility, consistency, certainty
151. Immature form of an animal that looks
B. maybe, possibly, probably different from the adult (Ex. Maggot, Tad-
C. probability, consistency, certainty pole)
D. probability, consistency, absolutely A. Eclosion
147. What does PMI refer to? B. Fly Development Stages
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. time that has past since the victim was C. Pupa
at the scene
D. Larva
B. time that has past since the victim died
C. time that has past since the suspect 152. What kind of insects come right after
was at the scene most flies?
D. time that has past since the insects ar- A. spiders
rived at the scene
B. beetles
148. Algor mortis stands for
C. skipper flies
A. Telling time of death using body stiff-
ness D. wasps
B. Telling time of death using blood 153. The study of insects is
pulling
A. anthropology
C. Telling time of death using tempera-
ture loss B. pathology
D. none of above C. entomology
149. How is entomology used in crimes D. zoology
A. To prove how Cops only like donuts
154. All of the following features of the skull
B. To examine how long the infestation in can be used to determine the sex of a
the body is with how long it is skeleton EXCEPT
C. To show how crimes are caused by in-
A. shape of the jaw
sects
D. To show that many crimes use insects B. shape of the nasal cavity
in food C. shape of the eye orbits
150. Blowflies, also known as bottle flies, in- D. shape of the forehead
clude:
A. blue bottles, yellow bottles, and silver 155. the thigh bone
bottles. A. femur
B. brown bottles, green bottles, and B. phalanges
bronze bottles.
C. fibula
C. blue bottles, green bottles, and bronze
bottles. D. frontal bone

5.5 Entomology 1087
156. The pooling of blood in tissues after 161. An adult fly emerges from the
death due to gravity that results in a red A. Oviposition (egg laying)
skin color is called

B. Pupa
A. algor mortis
C. larval mass
B. rigor mortis
D. Egg
C. livor mortis
162. How long does it take for rigor mortis to
D. decomposition complete?
157. # of hours it takes for insect species to A. immediately after death
develop to a given stage B. 1-2 hours after death
A. accumulated degree hours (ADH) C. 4-6 hours after death
B. insect succession D. 8-12 hours after death
C. instar 163. The body loses how many degrees per
D. complete metamorphosis hour after death
A. 1.5 ◦ F
158. What is a reason why insect evidence is
B. 2 ◦ F
often not collected?
C. 3 ◦ F
A. Most insect are active at night.
D. 4 ◦ F
B. insect evidence is only found during ac-
tive decay. 164. application of entomology to civil & crim-
C. investigators are often not properly inal legal cases
trained to find and collect insects. A. forensic entomology
D. insects can not be found if the body is B. forensic anthropology
buried or covered. C. forensic odontology
159. Which skinny insect drains blood from D. forensic epidemiology
people and causes many diseases? 165. How long does it take a blowfly egg to
A. Fortnite Beetle hatch into maggots?
B. PUBG Fly A. 1 hour
C. Mosquito B. 2-4 hours
D. Spotted Lantern Fly C. 8-10 hours

D. 12-24 hours
E. Apex Legends Wasp
166. Blow flies will be the main insects used
160. The initial rate of body heat loss shortly to determine time since death in the
after death is about after death.
A. 0.7 degrees F A. first days
B. 1.0 degrees F B. first hours
C. 1.4 degrees F C. first weeks
D. 2.4 degrees F D. first months

5.5 Entomology 1088
167. Axillary sclerites form points of attach- 173. In centipedes, the “fangs” are what type
ment for muscles that control the: of structure?
A. wings A. mandibles
B. Legs
B. modified legs
C. mouthparts
C. maxilla
D. antennae
D. modified mouthparts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
168. Which structures would be found in an
eruciform larva, but not in a scarabaeiform 174. Which of these is NOT true of insects?
larva?
A. 3 body segments
A. prolegs
B. mandibles B. 6 pairs of jointed legs
C. spiracles C. wings at some point
D. ocelli D. belong to Phylum Arthropoda
169. How long does it take for rigor mortis to
set in? 175. Loss of body heat after death is known
as
A. immediately after death
A. Algor mortis
B. 1-2 hours after death
C. 4-6 hours after death B. Rigor mortis
D. 8-12 hours after death C. Temperature drop
170. Entomologists studies D. Liver mortis

A. fossils
176. Developmental stage of arthropods, gen-
B. insects erally referring to changes in the size of
C. animals the larvae
D. plants A. Metamorphosis
171. Forensic entomologists use insects to B. Moly
gain information about
C. Instar
A. time since death
D. Oviposition
B. wounds present
C. drugs/toxins in the body 177. Blister beetles have what substance in
D. all of the above. their bodies that can be toxic to live-
stock?
172. Here are the types of Rentokil services?
A. serotonin
A. Pest Control
B. chitin
B. Termite Control
C. fumigation C. cantharadin
D. All true D. resilin

5.5 Entomology 1089
178. What is a coroner? 183. What are the respiratory organs of in-
sects called?
A. an medical doctor specifically trained

to perform autopsies A. Pupas
B. a physician who performs autopsies, B. Crops
determines the cause and manner of C. Spiracles
death D. Instars
C. an elected official either a layman or a
184. breakdown of once living matter by living
physician who certifies death and can or-
organisms
der additional investigation of suspicious
deaths A. instar
D. the sheriff B. larva
C. decomposition
179. Normal body temperature is
D. insect succession
A. 96.5 ◦ F
185. In what kingdom are maggots classi-
B. 97.2 ◦ F fied?
C. 98.6 ◦ F A. Plants
D. 100 ◦ F B. Animals
C. Fungi
180. When the insect sheds it’s exoskeleton,
it is known as D. none of above
A. Shedding 186. What color is normal Lividity?
B. Peeling A. Red
C. Molting B. Pink
D. Melting C. Purple
D. none of above
181. A predictable sequence of changing
species that inhabit a decomposing body 187. Which of the following are ways that can
is known as slow down the rate of decomposition?
A. insect succession A. Cold temperature
B. ADH B. Warm temperature

C. Closed windows
C. PMI
D. Open windows
D. life cycle
E. Deep burial
182. How long does it take food to leave the
188. The majority of native bees nest in what
small intestine?
type of habitat?
A. 2 hours A. flowering plants
B. 4 hours B. bamboo stems
C. 6 hours C. trees
D. 12 hours D. soil

5.5 Entomology 1090
189. blowflies are of little forensic value, C. 2nd egg stage

as it is unclear whether they have just ar- D. Adult
rived at the scene or have developed on
the body. 195. a digestive organ used for storage of
A. adult food
B. juvenile A. crop
C. larval B. maggot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. pupal C. larva
D. instar
190. How do insects get into an area, except?
A. Walk 196. The stage where cells begin to go through
autolysis is:
B. Creeping
A. fresh
C. fly
B. bloat
D. carried away
C. active
191. An important clue to the condition of a D. advanced
body at death is the location of the
E. dry
A. beetles
B. heart 197. What is a crop?
C. flies A. Food we eat.
D. larval mass B. A digestive organ used to digest food.

C. A digestive organ used for storage of
192. respiratory organs of insects that are food.
used by researchers to identify a larval
stage as first, second or third instar D. Respiratory organs of insects.
A. spiracles 198. a scientist who studies insects to gain

B. crops clues about a crime
C. maggots A. forensic anthropologist
D. instars B. forensic psychologist

C. forensic pathologist
193. Normal body temperature in degree Cel-
sius is D. forensic entomologist
A. 37 199. Who was the forensic pathologist that

B. 98 testified in the George Floyd case that
Floyd’s death was due to mechanical as-
C. 24 phyxiation and manner of death was homi-
D. 50 cide?
194. What is the insect stage after the egg A. Dr. Neil Haskell
hatches called? B. Dr. Bill Bass
A. Pupae C. Dr. Henry Lee
B. 1st instar D. Dr. Michael Baden

5.5 Entomology 1091
200. The MEANS by which a person dies 206. This type of mortis includes stiffening of
A. Manner of Death muscles

B. Cause of Death A. Liver mortis
C. Mechanism of Death B. Rigor mortis
D. Time of Death C. Algor mortis
201. Algor mortis is Latin for: D. Stiffo mortis
A. STIFFENING AT DEATH
207. Scabies (scabies) are caused by which
B. COLORED DEATH
vector?
C. COOLING DEATH
A. punch
D. none of above
B. Scabies mite(scabies)
202. Which of the following is not a common
factor that could have an effect on insect C. Blow fly
evidence? D. louse
A. where the body was located
208. The most important specimen collected by
B. the weather conditions
a forensic entomologist is:
C. age the person was when they died
A. the oldest life stage present on the
D. drugs or poisons present body.
203. Which is NOT one of the three body seg- B. the number of eggs deposited in the
ments of an insect. body
A. Head C. the newest life stage present on the
B. Legs body
C. Thorax D. the number of flies on the body.
D. Abdomen
209. The 3 basic body parts of an insect are:
204. Within minutes of death, odor emitted
from a dead body can be detected by blow A. head, eyes, tail
flies from: B. head, wings, legs
A. a mile away. C. head, abdomen, wings
B. a half-mile away.
D. head, thorax, abdomen
C. a quarter-mile away.
D. a 50 yard radius. 210. The stage of the fly cycle during which
the larvae are voracious feeders is called
205. body development in 4 stages:egg, larva, the stage.
pupa, & adult
A. first instar
A. complete metamorphosis
B. grub B. second instar
C. oviposition C. third instar

D. spiracles D. fourth instar

5.5 Entomology 1092
211. If you have Hide Beetles on the body 216. The breakdown of once living matter
which stage of decomposition is the body A. decomposition
in?
B. autolysis
A. Fresh
C. adipocere
B. Early Putrifaction
D. algor mortis
C. Advanced decay
217. How long does it take adult flies to lay
D. Dry or Skeletal eggs on a dead body?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
212. What order of insects is generally consid- A. 10 hours
ered most important from a medical and B. 18 hours
veterinary standpoint? C. 24 hours
A. Diptera D. 48 hours
B. Coleoptera 218. Term that refers to the larval stage of a
C. Lepidoptera fly
D. Orthoptera A. egg
B. maggot
213. During which stage does the body take
C. pupa
on a compressed appearance and give off
a powerful odor. D. adult
A. decay stage 219. The eastern population of monarch but-
B. bloated stage terflies overwinter in
A. Florida
C. fresh stage
B. Central Mexico
D. post-decay
C. Baja California
214. Insect evidence should be collected D. Texas
A. at the scene by a forensic entomolo- 220. How are insects helpful?
gist or trained investigator.
A. help you realise fast food is fake
B. upon the finding of the decedent by the
first responding officer. B. Help you not be single
C. Help you study for the upcoming exam
C. only from the body.
D. Helpful in real life events
D. at the crime laboratory by forensic an-
alysts. E. Helps cure Pewdiepie from T-Series
221. Which is not one of the two major types

215. Blowfly eggs usually hatch in less than:
of insects entomologists observe?
A. 6 hours. A. bees
B. 24 hours. B. flies
C. 36 hours. C. beetles
D. 48 hours. D. none of above

5.6 Biostatistics 1093
5.6 Biostatistics

1. Determine the type of correlation for the 6. X axis is also known as
following cases: Air temperature and the
A. Abscissa
number of people wearing thick clothing.
B. Ordinate
A. positive correlation
B. Negative correlation C. Both a and b
C. Perfect correlation D. None of the above

D. Not correlated 7. Example of ratio data is
2. The value of the variable which occurs A. Weight
most frequently in a distribution is called
B. Temperature
A. Median
C. Gender
B. Mean
D. Blood group
C. Mode
D. None of the above 8. the process of gathering a representative
portion of the population to be used in re-
3. usually used when quantitative data to be search study?
shown by geographical location?
A. Sampling
A. Pictogram
B. Population
B. Statistical maps
C. Target population
C. Scatter diagram
D. Scatter plot D. Sampling population
4. assumes values which are associated with 9. Number of times a patient sees her physi-
points on an interval of the number line, cian during the year is:
usually obtained through the process of A. nominal variable
measurement with corresponding units?
B. constant
A. Discrete
C. interval variable
B. Continuous
C. NOTA D. discrete variable
D. none of above E. continuous variable
5. The scale that shows the “range” of indi- 10. it is a line chart which is constructed by
vidual measurements of the attribute: plotting the classmarks against the class
A. non-comparative frequencies?
B. interval A. The histogram
C. ratio B. The frequency polygon

D. ordinal C. The Ogives
E. nominal D. none of above

11. A number that shows how many times the 16. The random variable that takes separate
observation occurs in the sample: from each other numeric values is called:
A. variance A. nominal
B. mode B. interval
C. frequency C. constant
D. quantile D. continuous
E. median E. discrete
NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. What is the first stage in statistics?
12. Which of the following does not describe a
standard normal distribution? A. Collect data
A. It is a normal distribution with a mean B. Identify the group of variables to be
of 0 and a standard deviation of 1 . studied
B. The total area under the curve must be C. Review the materials
equal 1 . D. Analyze data
C. The graph is uniform E. Summarize data
D. The graph is symmetric c
18. What does this equation represent? c+d -
a
a+b
13. The frequency distribution is characterized
by measures of: A. Odds Ratio (OR)
B. Relative Risk (RR)
A. qualitative and quantitative
C. Attributable Risk (AR)
B. random and determined
D. Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)
C. complete and partial
E. Relative Risk Reduction (RRR)
D. discrete and interval
19. most simple data collection technique
E. central tendency and dispersion
where this is obtained by observing the be-
14. The observation which occurs most fre- havior of the subjects at a particular time
quently: of occurrence
A. mean A. Observation method
B. standard deviation B. Experimental method
C. variance C. Archival method

D. Registration method
D. mode
E. Survey method
E. median
20. refers to categories which are simply used
15. Which of the following is a two- as labels to distiguish one group from an-
dimensional diagram. other?
A. Sub-divided bar A. Constant
B. Percentage component bar chart B. Variable
C. Sub-divided rectangles C. Quanlitative
D. Multiple bar diagram D. Quantitative

21. this technique do not make use of random D. ordinal

sampling thus, it is quite difficult to know E. interval
if the samples are representative of the

population 26. The Mean of Distribution is 14 & Standard
Deviation is 5. What is the Value of the
A. Probability sampling
Coefficient of Variation?
B. Non-probability sampling
A. 60.4%
C. AOTA
B. 48.3%
D. NOTA
C. 35.7%
22. The scale that shows the ratio of the mea- D. 27.8%
sured values of the attribute:
27. Software that is NOT used for statistical
A. nominal processing of biomedical data:
B. ratio A. SAS
C. non-comparative B. Statistica
D. interval C. SPSS
E. ordinal D. Word
23. The chi square test is done to analyse what E. Excel
types of data 28. Given the dataset {3, 8, 5, 8, 5, 8, 12,
A. Test of suffering 15}, what is the mode?
B. Goodness of Fit A. 5
C. Contingency Test B. 8
D. observatory test C. 12
D. There is no mode in this dataset
24. Which of the following describes a t-test?
A. Checks the differences between 29. What proportion of men aged 25-30 years
means of 2 groups are obese (BMI >= 30kg/m2)? Popula-
tion mean BMI:25kg/m2; population stan-
B. Checks differences between means of dard deviation:3kg/m2Just calculate the
3+ groups z-score!
C. Checks differences between 2+ per- A. z-score = 1.675% are obese
centages or proportions
B. z-score = .75723% are obese
D. Checks differences between 3+ per-
centages or proportions C. z-score = .80021% are obese
D. z-score = 1.903% are obese
25. The scale in which the numbers are as-
signed to the objects to determine the rela- 30. The budgets of two families can be com-
tive extent to which certain characteristic pared by
is possessed: A. Sub-divided rectangles
A. nominal B. Pie diagram
B. non-comparative C. Both (a) and (b)
C. ratio D. pictograms

31. Which one is a positional average? C. ANOVA

A. Mean D. Mann Whitney
B. Median 36. A sample of manatee who mate is ob-
C. Mode served and the average (mean) number of
offspring is 3.8.
D. Both b and c
A. Parameter
32. is the most widely used practical device ef-
B. Statistics
NARAYAN CHANGDER
fective in showing a trend over a period?
C. population
A. Bar graph
D. nominal
B. Line graph
C. Pie chat 37. What type of error is a beta error?
D. NOTA A. Type I
B. Type II
33. it is more reliable and effective way of
C. False Positive
showing relationships or comparison data
with tables? D. False Negative
A. Textual presentation E. True Positive
B. Tabular 38. Body weight is:
C. Graphical displays A. interval variable
D. none of above B. constant
34. Which of the following does not describe C. nominal variable

the normal distribution of a random vari- D. continuous variable
able? E. discrete variable
A. The graph is centered around 0
39. Which is/are related to a cross-sectional
B. The graph is centered around the study?
mean
A. Frequency
C. The graph of the distribution is sym-
B. Disease prevalance
metric
C. Risk Factors
D. The graph of the distribution is bell-
shaped D. Series of treatments
E. Participants are their own controls
35. You have conducted a study comparing
Arts, Science and Engineering students on 40. Function that can display a different value
a measure of leadership skills. There depending on a condition is:
are unequal group sizes and the data A. SUM
is skewed so you need to use a non-
parametric test. Which test would you B. TEST
choose? C. AVERAGE
A. Wilcoxon D. IF
B. Kruskal Wallis E. CONDITION

41. is a particular form of procedure for accom- 46. using data gathered on a group to describe
plishing or approaching, esp. a systematic or reach conclusions about that same group
or established one. Or a way of doing only

things? A. Population data
A. Interpretation B. Sample data
B. Method C. descriptive statistics
C. Inference D. inferential statistics
D. Process 47. basic sampling design
E. Data A. Non-probability sampling
42. A conclusion reached on the basis of evi- B. Probabilistic sampling
dence and reasoning? It is also an intelli- C. AOTA
gent guess?
D. NOTA
A. Interpretation
48. Which is not a characteristic of a good es-
B. Method timator?
C. Inference A. Unbiased
D. Process B. Efficient
E. Data C. Consistency
43. There are typesof variables D. Persistent
A. 2 49. What are the different types of variables
B. 3 A. Quantitative
C. 4 B. Qualitative
D. 5 C. Formulative
44. to give meaning of the analysis of data or D. Single

information? 50. Which of the Following is not a Measure
A. Interpretation of Central Tendency?
B. Method A. PERCENTILE
C. Inference B. QUARTILE
D. Process C. STANDARD DEVIATION
E. Data D. MODE
51. Methods dealing with the collection, orga-
45. What ) equation represent? 1 −
( a doesc this nization and analysis of a set data with-
a+b ÷ c+d out making conclusions, predictions or in-
A. Odds Ratio (OR) ferences about a larger set?
B. Relative Risk (RR) A. Descriptive Statistics
C. Attributable Risk (AR) B. Inferential Statistics
D. Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) C. AOTA
E. Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) D. NOTA

52. Greater than CF (>CF) shows the num- D. NOTA

ber of observations greater than UCBLess
than CF (<CF) shows the number of obser- 57. Consider data that are normal distribution,
vations less than UCB spread is increased and height of curve is
decreased for the
A. First statement is true and the second
statement is false A. Smaller value of variance
B. First statement is false and the second B. Larger value of means
statement is true C. Larger value of standard deviation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both statements are True D. Smaller value of standard deviation
D. Both statements are False
58. a brance of science which deals with the
53. Marital status is: collection, presentation, analysis of data
A. discrete variable and observations?
B. constant A. Singular sense
C. nominal variable B. Plural sense
D. interval variable C. Either
E. continuous variable D. Neither
54. is numeric data in which the values can 59. refers to the method of obtaining neces-
come only from a list of specific values. sary, relevant and noteworthy informa-
A. Ratio tion from the given data through the use
of statistical tools?
B. continuous
A. Collection of data
C. discrete
B. Presentation of data
D. random
C. Analysis of data
55. Suppose you want to copy a formula while
keeping one of the cell references locked D. Interpretation of results
on the same cell. Which of the following
60. refers to the entire group of individuals or
would you use?
items of interest in the study?
A. Partial reference
A. Sampling
B. ReferenceLock
B. Population
C. Pivot Table
D. Relative reference
D. Sampling population
E. Absolute reference
61. N in the hypothesis test formula is
56. is made up of adjacent or equally spaced
vertical rectangles of uniform width put on A. The number of sample sizes that are
a common horizontal base line? characteristic
A. Horizontal bar graph B. the number of pairs
B. Vertical bar graph C. the number of hypotheses available
C. The one hundred percent bar D. the number of sample sizes

62. What does this equation represent? 67. are catergories which cannot be pre-
a+b ÷ c+d
a c
dicted?

A. Odds Ratio (OR) A. Constant
B. Relative Risk (RR) B. Variable
C. Attributable Risk (AR) C. Qualitative
D. Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) D. Quantitative
E. Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) 68. data in its original form and structure are
called?
63. In the graph quadrant III is A. Raw data
A. X axis positive, Y axis Negative B. Array
B. X axis Negative, Y axis Negative C. Nature of grouped data
C. X axis positive, Y axis Positive D. Frequency Distribution Table (FDT)
D. X axis Negative, Y axis Positive 69. the midpoint is the middle value of a class
interval
64. A company’s Human Resources depart-
ment distributes a survey which asks em- A. Class size
ployees to rate their current benefits as B. Classmark (CM)
“excellent, “ “good, “ “fair, “ or “poor.”
C. Cumulative frequency (F)
This is an example of a(n):
D. NOTA
A. nominal scale
B. interval scale. 70. is a number that describes a sample statis-
tic?
C. ratio scale.
A. Population
D. ordinal scale.
B. Sample
65. which best describes the population vari- C. Parameter
ance D. Statistic
A. σ
71. In the estimation of proportions, the pro-
B. σ 2 portion of the population can be estimated
C. s by?
D. s2 A. π
B. p
66. these are the Non-probability sampling EX-
C. δ
CEPT:
D. µ
A. Purposive sampling
B. Accidental sampling 72. uses pictorial symbols and immediately
suggests the nature of the data being
C. Quota sampling shown?
D. Snow-ball sampling A. Pictogram
E. Cluster sampling B. Statistical maps

C. Scatter diagram 78. are categories which can be measured and

D. Scatter plot ordered according to quantity?
A. Constant
73. The average of a data is called a Measure
of B. Variable
A. Central tendency C. Quanlitative
B. Dispersion D. Quantitative
C. Both a and b
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above 79. Which of the formulas below is valid:
74. The data are drawn in the form of rectan- A. *M2-A3

gle B. =A+B+C
A. Bar diagram C. =1-2M
B. Line diagram
D. =J5+C21/D21
C. Pie diagram
E. C8+C7
D. Pictogram
75. these are the graphs of cumulative fre- 80. using sample data to reach conclusions
quency distributions? about the population from which the sam-
ple was taken
A. The histogram
A. Continuous statistics
B. The frequency polygon
C. The Ogives B. Discrete statistics
D. none of above C. Inferential statistics
76. What IS true about the z-score D. descriptive statistics

A. It can only be positive
81. Which of these is NOT a probability distri-
B. We use the sample mean, population bution?
mean and population SD to calculate z-
score A. F
C. We use the sample mean, sample SD B. Binomial

and population mean to calculate z-score C. Normal
D. We can use the z-score and the stan-
D. Paranormal
dard normal distribution table to get the
areas (probabilities) under the standard E. Weibull
normal curve
82. most effective way of presenting data us-
77. Coefficient of variation measure is devel- ing statistical graph?
oped by
A. Textual presentation
A. Karl Pearson
B. Fisher B. Tabular
C. Both a and b C. Graphical display

D. None of the above D. none of above

83. is a graph which is primarily composed of D. nominal variable

vertical bars that are interconnected mak- E. discrete variable
ing it an appropriate and a clear graph for

continuous data? 89. Traditionally those engaging this research
A. The histogram spend years in the place of study, also
known as the “field.” Which research de-
B. The frequency polygon
sign is this statement related to?
C. The Ogive
A. Experimental
D. none of above
B. Case study
84. Measures of central tendency is C. Ethnography
A. Mode D. none of above
B. Range
90. The different laws of probability are
C. Standard deviation
A. additive law
B. destructive law
85. Poisson distribution is used when event
C. multiplicative law
has
D. obstructive law
A. rare occurrence
B. high occurrence 91. The number of children in a family is:
C. no occurrence A. nominal variable
D. none B. interval variable
86. Two events are , if occurrence of one C. continuous variable

does not affect the other event D. discrete variable
A. exhaustive E. constant
B. dependent
92. is a sampling procedure in which every el-
C. independent ement in the population has a known non-
D. none of above zero chance of being included in the selec-
tion of sample?
87. it has an absolute zero point and the mag-
A. Probability sampling
nitudes of the data can be compared?
B. Non-probability sampling
A. Nominal data
C. AOTA
B. Ordinal data
D. NOTA
C. Interval data
D. Ratio data 93. Why does larger sample size leads to a
smaller standard error of the mean?
88. Gender is:
A. Larger samples have greater variabil-
A. constant ity
B. interval variable B. Larger samples provide more informa-
C. continuous variable tion about the population

C. We are more confident with obtaining 98. a circle graph divided into components
detailed information with a smaller sam- parts whose sizes are proportional to
ple the magnitude or percentages they repre-
D. Larger sample size does not lead to a sent?
smaller SEM A. Bar graph
94. a descriptive measure of the population B. Line graph
A. data C. Pie chart
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. parameter D. NOTA
C. normal 99. Find mean value of this data 5, 9, 6, 4, 1

D. ratio A. 7
95. is a sampling procedure wherein the pop- B. 5

ulation is divided into a sequence of sam- C. 6
pling units corresponding to the different
D. 1
sampling stages?
A. Simple random sampling 100. The commonly used measures of central
tendency
B. Stratified random sampling
A. Mean
C. Systematic sampling
B. Median
D. Cluster sampling
C. Mode
E. Muti-stage sampling
D. All of them
96. this method makes use of the sampling in-
terval taken every kth unit from a ordered 101. these are numeric in nature and distances
population? between any two numbers are known.
Also, it does not have an inherent zero?
A. Simple randomsampling
A. Nominal data
B. Statified random sampling
B. Ordinal data
C. Interval data
D. Cluster sampling
D. Ratio data
E. Multi-stage sampling
102. study of 300 households in a small town
97. What IS true about the median?
revealed that 20 percent had at least one
A. Most values in the distribution will be school-age child present. What is the sam-
higher than the median ple in this study?
B. More values in the distribution will be A. all families of the city
lower than the median
B. 300 selected families
C. Is the middle observation of all the ob-
servations. C. there is no school child in the family
D. Is the most common value in the distri- D. there is a school child in the family
bution E. 20 percent of families

103. In the graph quadrant IV is 109. Which is/are true of a case-control

study?
A. X axis positive, Y axis Negative

A. Odds Ratio
B. X axis Negative, Y axis Negative
B. Relative Risk
C. X axis positive, Y axis Positive
C. Prospective
D. X axis Negative, Y axis Positive
D. Retrospective
104. Which of the following graphs is com-
E. Frequency
monly use to check for normality?
A. Histogram 110. What will cause power to increase?
B. Box plot A. increased sample size
C. Q-Q plot B. decreased sample size
D. P-P plot C. increased measurement precision
D. increased measurement accuracy
105. The probability of impossible event is
A. 0 111. What conditions would produce a nega-
tive z-score?
B. 0.5
A. Z-score corresponding to a value lo-
C. 0.75 cated to the left of the mean
D. 1 B. z-score corresponding to the negative
area
106. , 65, 26, 18, 36 This data is example of
C. an area in the top 10% of the graph
A. Unimodal
D. z-score corresponding to a value lo-
B. Bimodal
cated to the right of the mean
C. Trimodal
112. Which is/are true of a cohort study?
D. All the above
A. Odds Ratio
107. Accepting a false null hypothesis is an ex- B. Relative Risk
ample of what?
C. Prospective
A. Type I error
D. Retrospective
B. Type II error
E. Frequency
C. Chance
D. Experimenter bias 113. Chi-square test for independence as-
sesses which of the following?
108. Which is used to rule out disease? A. It assesses whether there is a signif-
A. Sensitivity icant difference between two categorical
variables
B. Specificity
B. It assesses whether there is a rela-
C. PPV
tionship between the population and the
D. NPV sample

C. It assesses whether there is a re- 118. Which is used for disease screening?
lationship between two categorical vari-
A. Sensitivity
ables
B. Specificity
D. It assesses whether there is signifi-
cant difference between scores taken at C. PPV
time 1 and those taken at time 2 D. NPV
114. Which is based on disease prevalance? 119. when the scores are arranged either in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Sensitivity ascending or descending magnitude, then
such arrangement is called an?
B. Specificity
A. Raw data
C. PPV
B. Array
D. NPV
C. Nature of grouped data
115. Statistics which studies the issues re- D. Frequency Distribution Table (FDT)
lated to the development and use of sta-
tistical methods in biology, medicine, phar- 120. is a collection of procedures and prin-
macy, hygiene and health care, is called: ciples for gathering data and analyzing in-
A. population health statistics formation to help people make decisions
when faced with uncertainty.
B. biostatistics
A. Data
C. health system statistics
B. Parameter
D. medical statistics
C. Statistics
E. social statistics
D. sample
116. factors that determine sample size
121. What does this equation represent?
A. Study design used TP
T P + FN
B. Magnitude of the parameter being es- A. Sensitivity
timated
B. Specificity
C. Variability of the parameter being esti-
mated C. PPV
D. NPV
D. Level of precision desired
E. Data analysis plan 122. refers to the units which are chosen in se-
lecting the sample and may be made-up of
117. What is NOT true about a positively non-overlapping collection of elements or
skewed distribution? elementary units?
A. Median < Mean A. Sampling frame
B. Is not normally distributed B. Sample
C. Median > Mean C. Elementary unit
D. Is not symmetrical D. Sampling unit

123. Patient’s diagnosis is: 128. Height is:

A. discrete variable A. discrete variable

B. nominal variable B. interval variable
C. constant C. nominal variable
D. interval variable D. constant

E. continuous variable
E. continuous variable
129. Which of the following is not a require-
124. What should we NOT do if we want to ment for determining whether there is
reduce sampling variability? a linear association between two vari-
A. Reduce the sample size ables?
B. Use random sampling A. If r > 1, there is a positive linear cor-
relation.
C. Use a more representative sample
B. Any Outliers should be removed if they
D. Use more precise measurement tools are known to be errors
125. A table that displays the frequency of C. . A scatterplot should visually show a
various results in a sample: straight line pattern.
D. The sample paired data is a simple ran-
A. sample
dom sample of quantitative data
B. ordered array
130. For a two-factor experiment with 2 lev-
C. frequency distribution els of factor A and 3 levels of factor B and
D. random variable n = 10 in each treatment condition, there is
a total of subjects in each level of fac-
E. population
tor A and a total of subjects in factor
B
126. An RCT study was conducted to test
the effectiveness of periodontal treatment. A. 10, 10
What type of sampling design is appropri- B. 20, 30
ate for this study?
C. 30, 20
A. Simple random sampling
D. 60, 60
B. Systematic sampling
131. Likert scale is an example of
C. Randomization
A. Data on Nominal Scale
D. Snowball
B. Data on Ordinal Scale
127. Amount of income tax paid, weight of a C. Data on Interval Scale
student or height would fall under D. Data on Ratio Scale
A. Discrete
132. The number of ambulance calls per hour
B. Quantitative is:
C. continuous A. interval variable
D. dichotomic B. nominal variable

C. continuous variable 138. Conducting multiple t-tests increases the

likelihood of which of the following?
D. discrete variable
A. Homogeneity
E. constant
B. Type I error
133. Which is used for disease confirmation? C. Type II error
A. Sensitivity D. Establishing normality
B. Specificity 139. Standard deviation is also called as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. PPV A. Root mean square deviation
D. NPV B. Mean error
C. Mean square error
134. Data is presented in the form of graph is
called D. All the above
A. Graphical presentation 140. A random variable that takes all values

from a certain interval is called:
B. Diagrammatic presentation
A. discrete
C. Both a and b
B. nominal
C. interval
135. refers to the collection of all counts, mea- D. continuous
surements and responses that are of inter- E. constant
est?
141. Popular average is also known as
A. Population
A. mean
B. Sample
B. median
C. Parameter
C. mode
D. Statistics
D. µ
136. The statistical data are represented in the 142. Which of these measures can be used to
form of straight line present an average for data?
A. Bar diagram A. Standard deviation, range and mean
B. Pictogram B. Mean, beta and normal distribution
C. Pie diagram C. Median, range, normal distribution
D. Line diagram D. Mean, median and mode
143. What is meant by estimation?

137. ND changes to SND when
A. Estimation is a part of inferential
A. u = 1 and sigma = 0 statistics which is a statement about the
B. u = 0 and sigma = 1 parameters of a population that is not
known based on information from a ran-
C. u = 2 and sigma = 5
dom sample taken from the population
D. u = 3 and sigma = 6 studied.

B. Estimation is a part of descriptive A. standard deviation

statistics which is a statement about the B. mean
parameters of a population that is not

known based on information from a ran- C. variance
dom sample taken from the population D. mode
studied. E. median
C. Estimation is a part of inferential
147. All formulas in Excel begin with the fol-
statistics which is a statement regarding
lowing symbol:
the statistics of an unknown population
based on information from a random sam- A. =
ple taken from the population studied. B. -
D. Estimation is a part of descriptive C. +
statistics which is a statement regarding D. /
the statistics of an unknown population
based on information from a random sam- E. *
ple taken from the population studied. 148. Which of the following statements about
144. A study of 250 patients admitted to correlation is true?
a hospital during the past year revealed A. We say that there is a negative corre-
that, on the average, the patients lived 15 lation between x and y if the values of x
miles from the hospital. What is the sam- increase as the corresponding values of y
ple in this study? increase.
A. 250 patients B. We say that there is a positive correla-
tion between x and y if the values of x in-
B. the number of patients in the last year
crease with the corresponding decrease
C. distance from home to hospital in the values of y.
D. number of city hospitals C. We say that there is a positive corre-
lation between x and y if the values of x
E. 15 miles
increase as the corresponding y values in-
145. Which of the following is Not a descrip- crease.
tor of a normal distribution of a random D. We say that there is a positive correla-
variable? tion between x and y if there is no distinct
A. The graph is centred around 0. pattern in the scatterplot
B. The graph of the distribution is sym- 149. criteria of a good sampling design
metric. A. Sample should be representative of
C. The graph of the distribution is bell- the population
shaped. B. Sample size should be adequate
D. The graph is centered around the C. Practicality and fesibility of the sam-
mean. pling procedure
146. The observation that divide the set of or- D. Economy and efficiency of sampling de-
dered observations into two equal parts sign
such that half of the data are before it and E. Magnitude of the parameter being es-
the other are after it: timated

150. If the population mean is not known, then C. Archival method

the average can be estimated by? D. Registration method
A. τ E. Survey method
B. α
155. provides means for visual inspection of
C. π data wich a list of values for two variables
D. x If the population mean is not known, cannot?
then the mean can be estimated with? A. Pictogram
NARAYAN CHANGDER
151. What is the first stage of the research B. Statistical maps
process? C. Scatter diagram or scatter plot
A. Collect and analyze the data D. NOTA
B. Develop and implement the research
plan 156. Bio statistics can be used for
C. Report the findings A. designing experiment
D. Define the research problem B. collecting data

C. analysis of data
152. In estimating the average interval, if the
number of samples taken is more than 30 D. all the above
samples (large sample), then the size of 157. classification is done on the basis of
the distribution used is the? localities.
A. distribution t A. Quantitiative
B. Z B. Qualitative
C. I distributed Chi Square C. Geographical
D. Distribution of students D. Chronological
153. Assume that the weight loss for the first 158. Which is NOT true about the mean?
month of the diet program is between
6 bounds and 12 bounds, and is spread A. Useful for symmetric distributions
evenly over the range of possibilities, so B. Calculated as:(x1+x2+ xn)/n
that there is a uniform distribution. Find
C. Commonly reported as summary
the probability that the given range of
statistics
bonds lost is between 8 and 11 bonds.
D. Not affected by outliers (extreme val-
A. 0.5
ues)
B. 0.25
159. is the difference between two consecu-
C. 0.3 tive upper limits or two consecutive lower
D. 0.75 limits?
154. the data are coming from the information A. Class size
in compliance with existing laws? B. Classmark (CM)
A. Observation method C. Cumulative frequency (F)
B. Experimental method D. Crossfire

160. what is the process of calculating the 166. Data is presented in the form of diagram
range is calleda. Graphical presentationb. Dia-
A. |x| grammatic presentationc. Both a and bd.

None of the above
B. x
A. Graphical presentation
C. xmax − xmin
D. mid point B. Diagrammatic presentation
C. Both a and b
161. In t-distribution, if sample size increases,
it becomes close to D. None of the above
A. Z-distribution 167. data is continuous, ordered, has stan-
B. F distribution dardized differences between values, and
C. Binomial-distribution a natural zero
D. Chi-square distribution A. A. Ratio
B. B. Nominal
162. What type of error is a alpha error?
A. Type I C. C Ordinal
B. Type II D. none of above
C. False Positive 168. Pie diagram represents the components
D. False Negative of a factor by
E. True Positive A. Circles
163. shows the number of occurrences, in each B. Sectors
of several categories C. Angles
A. normal distribution D. Percentages
B. frequency distribution
169. Nationality is:
C. binomial distribution
A. continuous variable
D. expected value
B. nominal variable
164. Column headings are known as
C. discrete variable
A. stub
D. interval variable
B. caption
C. title E. constant
D. footnote 170. is a variation of stratified random sam-
pling in which the strata correspond to
165. the researcher gathers or measures data
clusters?
from a primary source for publication?
A. Observation method A. Simple random sampling
B. Experimental method B. Stratified random sampling

C. Archival method C. Systematic sampling
D. Registation method D. Cluster sampling
E. Survey method E. Multi-stage sampling

171. What is NOT true about the standard nor- 176. is series of steps and decisions involve in
mal distribution? the way work is completed? Also a step-
A. Has a mean of 1 wise decision?
B. z-score = (original variable- A. Interpretation
population mean) / population standard B. Method
deviation
C. Inference
C. Has a standard deviation of 1
D. Process
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Any normally distributed variable can
be related to the standard normal distri- E. Data
bution.
177. assumes finite or countably infinite val-
172. shows the number of observations falling ues?
in the class?
A. Discrete
A. Class interval
B. Continuous
B. Class frequency (f)
C. NOTA
C. Class boundaries
D. Class record D. none of above
173. Function that can find the highest value 178. In Excel, a group of cells is called a:
in a cell range is: A. cell cluster
A. SUM
B. active cell
B. HIGHEST
C. cell range
C. TOP
D. chmulticellart
D. MAXVALUE
E. MAX 179. Find mode value of this data:24, 36, 14,
15, 28, 14, 65
174. The prerequisites that must be met in the
correlation analysis are A. 24
A. Both variables have a numeric data B. 14
type C. 28
B. Variables have categorical data types
D. 65
C. Nominal data scale
D. There is no right answer 180. A study of 300 households in a small
town revealed that 20 percent had at least
175. Determine the type of correlation for the one school-age child present. What is the
following cases: Biostatistics test scores population in this study?
with the type of ballpoint pen used during
A. all families of the city
the exam.
A. positive correlation B. there is no school child in the family
B. Negative correlation C. there is a school child in the family

C. Perfect correlation D. 20 percent of families
D. Not correlated E. 300 selected families

ad
181. What does this equation represent? bc 186. referring to numbers or nonnumerical
labels (male/female) collected from a set
A. Odds Ratio (OR)
of entities (people, cities, etc)

B. Relative Risk (RR) A. sample
C. Attributable Risk (AR) B. data
D. Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) C. variables
E. Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) D. statistics
187. is a collection from the subset of the
182. Which is used to rule in disease?
population
A. Sensitivity A. raw data
B. Specificity B. random sample
C. PPV C. population sample
D. NPV D. random data
183. the desired information is obtained 188. Standard deviation was introduced by
through asking questions? A. Karl Pearson
A. Observation method B. Fisher
B. Experimental method C. Both a and b

C. Archival method
D. Registation method 189. Which distribution is used in case of 2
possible outcome from single event
E. Survey method
A. Poisson distribution
184. is a listing which is actually a collection B. Binomial distribution
of all sampling units? C. Normal distribution
A. Sampling frame D. F-distribution
B. Sample 190. The simplest form of secondary data re-
C. Elementary unit search is:
A. fact finding
D. Sampling unit
B. data conversion
185. Observations that divide a ordering sam- C. model building.
ple into one hundred equal-sized sub-
D. input management.
groups:
A. quintiles 191. is a number that describes a population
characteristic?
B. deciles
A. Population
C. quantiles B. Sample
D. quartiles C. Parameter
E. percentiles D. Statistic

192. In the Pictogram the data is drawn in the C. discrete variable

form of
D. nominal variable
A. Picture
E. interval variable
B. Bar
C. Line 198. Band Graph is also known as
D. Circle A. Layer Chart
B. Component part line chart
NARAYAN CHANGDER
193. Group A was given health education in-
tervention. What type of analysis should C. Both a and b
be conducted for this study data?
A. Chi-square
B. Kruskall Wallis 199. consisting of the end numbers called
C. Independent t-test namely the upper limit and lower limit?
D. one-way ANOVA A. Class limits
194. the population is divided into strata con- B. Class frequency

sisting of homogenous units? C. Classmate
A. Simple random sampling D. Class boundaries
B. Statified random sampling
200. The Middle Value of an Ordered Array of
Numbers is
D. Cluster sampling
A. MODE
B. MEAN
195. Which is inversely related to disease
C. MEDIAN
prevalence?
A. Sensitivity D. MID-POINT
B. Specificity 201. is a subset or portion of the population?
C. PPV
A. Sampling frame
D. NPV
B. Sample
196. The probability of man’s death is C. Elementary unit
A. 0
D. Sampling unit
B. 0.5
C. 0.75 202. if z is a standard normal variable, find
P(-0.73<z<2.27)
D. 1
A. 0.4884
197. The number of patients admitted per day
is: B. 1.54
A. continuous variable C. 0.7557
B. constant D. 0.2211

203. Which of the following is the correct way 208. A statement or assumption that may be
to write the IF function? true or false is called
A. Z value

A. =IF(condition, condition if false, con-
dition if true) B. Conclusion
B. =IF(condition! condition if true! con- C. hypothesis
dition if false)
D. P and Po
C. =IF(condition:condition if true:condition
if false) 209. which one of the following is a measures
of dispersion
D. =IF(condition, condition if true, condi-
tion if false) A. Mean
E. =IF(condition if false, condition if true, B. mode

condition, ) C. median
D. standard deviation
204. Data classified under the basis of some
attributes is known as classification. 210. all of the following are roles of biostatis-
A. Qualitative tics EXCEPT
B. Quantitative A. Assessment
C. Geographical B. monitoring
D. chronological C. evaluation
D. planning
205. are individual piece of factual information
recorded and used for the purpose of anal- 211. Observations that divide a ordering sam-
ysis? ple into four equal-sized subgroups:
A. Interpretation A. quintiles
B. Method B. percentiles
C. Inference C. deciles
D. Process D. quantiles
E. quartiles
E. Data
212. The most common graphical presentation
206. these are the so called “true class limits”
of quantitative data is a
A. Class interval
A. Histogram
B. Class frequency (f) B. Bar diagram
C. Class boundaries C. Pie chart
D. Class record D. Relative frequency
207. Which measure of central tendency is af- 213. When the Sample size =/< 30 the test
fected by outliers in a dataset? used is
A. Mean A. Z test
B. Median B. Chi square test
C. Mode C. t test
D. All of the above D. F test

214. it uses numbers of symbols for the pur- 220. The value of most frequent item is
pose of categorizing subjects into groups
A. Mean
or categories which are mutually exclu-
sive? B. Mode
A. Nominal data C. Average
B. Ordinal data D. Median
C. Interval data
221. Advantages of Sampling
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Ratio data
A. It is cheaper and faster
215. this data can be ranked or ordered?
B. sample size should be adequate
A. Nominal data
B. Ordinal data C. Better quality of information ca be col-
lected
C. Interval data
D. More complrehensive data may be ob-
D. Ratio data
tained
216. Determine the type of correlation for the
E. Only possible method for destructive
following cases: Amount of water drunk
procedures
and frequency of urination.
A. positive correlation 222. For what is the ‘Variable View’ in IBM
B. Negative correlation SPSS’s data editor used?
C. Perfect correlation A. Writing Syntax
D. Not correlated B. Entering data
217. data has a logical order, but the dif- C. Viewing output from data analysis.
ferences between values are not constant D. Defining characteristics of variables.
A. Interval
B. Nominal 223. is made up of adjacent or equally spaced
horizontal rectangles of uniform width
C. Ordinal placed with their left hand ends lying along
D. none of above a common vertical line?
218. The first step in hypothesis testing A. Horizontal bar graph
A. State Ha B. Vertical bar graph
B. state Ho C. The one hundred percent bar
C. find the critical value D. NOTA
D. state the level of significace
224. What is the P Value?
219. Type I error is an error due to
A. Positive Value
A. reject H0 even though H0 is true
B. accept H0 even though H1 is true B. Probability Value
C. accept H0 even though H0 is true C. Permeability Value
D. reject H1 even though H1 is wrong D. Percentage Value

225. Which of the following describes an D. Mann-Whitney test

ANOVA test? E. Whitney Houston test

A. Checks the differences between
230. referes to the different gathering tech-
means of 2 groups
niques?
B. Checks differences between means of
A. Collection of data
3+ groups
B. Presentation of data
C. Checks differences between 2+ per-
centages or proportions C. Analysis of data
D. Checks differences between 3+ per- D. Interpretation of results
centages or proportions 231. is used to test relationships between
226. Marital status would more than likely fall quantitative variables. In other words,
under it’s a measure of how things are related
A. ordinal A. Regression
B. Correlation
B. ratio
C. Variance
C. nominal
D. none of above
D. interval
232. Which measure of spread should I use for
227. Blood pH is: a skewed distribution?
A. constant A. Median and mean
B. interval variable B. Median and IQR
C. nominal variable C. Mean, SD, Percentage
D. continuous variable D. Mean, mode, median
E. discrete variable
233. Which is/are related to a crossover
228. Which of the following is an example of study?
interval data in a research study? A. Frequency
A. Temperature B. Disease prevalance
B. Age C. Risk Factors
C. Number of children D. Series of treatments
D. Likert scale responses E. Participants are their own controls
229. A researcher measured the same group of 234. For which of the following correlations
peoples’ reactions while watching horror should the data points be clustered most
films and compared them to when watch- closely around a straight line?
ing romance films. The resulting data were A. r = 0.1
skewed. What test should be used to anal-
B. r = 0.5
yse the data?
C. r =-0.8
A. Independent t-test
D. There is no relationship between the
B. Chi square test value of r and how close the data points
C. Wilcoxon signed-rank test are to a straight line

235. Pie diagram is also known as 241. is the population from which a sample
A. Bar diagram will actually be taken?
B. Line diagram A. Sampling

C. Pie diagram B. Population
D. Circle diagram C. Target population
236. refers to the tools of drawing out conclu-
sions, descriptions, inferences and gener-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
242. these are the numbers defining the
alizations from the analyzed data? class?
A. Collection of data A. Class interval
B. Presentation of data B. Class frequency (f)
C. Analysis of data
C. Class boundaries
D. Interpretation of results
D. Classmate
237. Brain volume is:
243. Temperature scale is an example of
A. discrete variable
B. continuous variable
C. constant
C. Data on Interval Scale
D. interval variable
D. Data on Ratio Scale
E. nominal variable
244. CI is similar with
238. The positional Average is
A. z = 1.96
A. Mean
B. Median B. AUC = 0.90
C. Geometric Mean C. µ + 1.96sd
D. Harmonic Mean D. confidence limit
239. Weight is an example of 245. What is true about the sampling distribu-
tion?
A. If we draw 100 different samples from
the same population, the means would be
C. Data on Interval Scale the same
D. Data on Ratio Scale B. Researchers often re-sample the
same population multiple times in order
240. is the simplest form of graphic presenta-
to achieve the most reliable estimates
tion? It is generally intended for compari-
son of simple magnitude? C. The mean of the sampling distribution
A. Bar graph will be exactly the same as the population
mean
B. Line graph
D. The mean of the sampling distribution
C. Pie chart will unlikely be the same as the population
D. NOTA mean

246. procedure of organizing data in groups is 251. is the group from which representative
called a? information is desired and to which infer-
ences will be made?

A. Raw data
A. Sampling
B. Array
B. Population
C. Frequency Distribution Table (FDT)
D. Frequency Distribution Chair (FDC)
247. Hypothesis is
252. portion or subset of the population?
A. A predictive statement
A. Population
B. A scientific statement B. Sample
C. A reasonable statement C. Parameter
D. A conclusive statement D. Statistic
248. The countries in which you are can be clas- 253. The factory made observations regarding
sified as a variable. the longevity of a brake light, according to
A. Discrete them the 44 brake lights could be used on
average for 4900 days with a standard
B. Binary deviation of 220 days, with an interval of
C. Continuous 95
D. Nominal 254. Function that would you use to add sev-

eral numeric values is:
E. Ordinal
A. ADD
249. What is the main difference between in- B. Total
terval data and ratio data?
C. Average
A. Ratio data has a meaningful zero point,
interval data does not. D. COUNT
E. SUM
B. Interval data has a meaningful zero
point, ratio data does not. 255. F-test is done using
C. Interval data can be measured and A. t-test
compared using ratios, ratio data cannot
B. Z test
D. Ratio data can be ranked or ordered,
C. Chi square test
interval data cannot.
D. ANOVA
250. What does this equation represent?
TN 256. is a sampling procedure in which every
T N + FP
element in the population has an equal
A. Sensitivity chance of being chosen as a sample?
B. Specificity A. Simple random sampling
C. PPV B. Stratified random sampling
D. NPV C. Systematic sampling

D. Cluster sampling 261. In interval estimation, if the population

standard deviation is not known, then
use?
257. If z is a standard normal variable, find A. S
the probability that z lies between-2.41 B. S2
and 0
C. σ
A. 0.4920
D. ρ
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 0.2919
262. β error is related to
C. 0.6251
A. Sample size
D. 0.0948
B. Power of study
258. What is the formula for calculating the C. Level of significance
median of a dataset with an even number
of values? D. Rejecting null hypothesis
A. The average of the two middle values 263. if z is a standard normal variable, find
B. The value in the middle of the dataset P(z>0.97)
A. 0.1922
C. The sum of all values in the dataset di-
vided by the number of values B. 0.1685
D. None of the above C. 0.8340
D. 0.1660
259. One-tail hypothesis of 0.05 significant
level exactly look at 264. A subset of a population is
A. p<0.05 A. Number
B. p=0.05 B. Variable
C. p<0.025 C. Sample
D. p<0.01 D. Deviation
260. Assume that an adult female is randomly 265. Histogram is a

selected. Suppose females have pulse A. One dimensional diagram
rates that are normally distributed with a
B. Two-dimensional diagram
mean of 78.0 beats per minute and a stan-
dard deviation of 10.8 beats per minute C. Three-dimensional diagram
. Find P85, which is the pulse rate sepa- D. All the above
rating the bottom 85% from the top 15%
(Hint:Draw a graph) 266. the following rules must be followed in
A. P85=88 constructing a pie chart EXCEPT:
A. Show 100% of the subject being
B. P85=88.9
graphed
C. P85=89.2
B. Put the time units or the independent
D. P85=86 variable on the circular axis

C. Always label the slices with their iden- 271. process of organizing data such as tabu-
tified and with the percentage of the lar display, presentations using charts or
amount it represents graphs?

D. Place the largest slice at 12 o’clock po- A. Collection of data
sition, and move clockwise in descending
order B. Presentation of data
E. Use darker colors for smaller slices C. Analysis of data
267. shows the accumulated frequencies of D. Interpretation of results

successive classes?
272. Gathering data from the entire popula-
A. Class size
tion is known as the
B. Classmark (CM)
A. census
C. Cumulative frequency (F)
B. parameter
D. NOTA
C. sample data
268. Rectangle is a dimensional diagram
D. statistics
A. 1
B. 2 273. data are presented in the form of texts,
C. 3 phrases or paragraphs?
D. none A. Textual presentation
269. a value that remains the same as in the B. Tabular
case of pull of gravity or speed of light?
C. Graphical displays
A. Constant
D. NOTA
B. Variable
C. Quantitative 274. these are the uses of statistics EXCEPT:
D. Qualitative A. Statistics teaches people to use a lim-
ited sample to make intelligent and accu-
270. the following should be followed in con-
rate conclusions about a greater popula-
structing line graphs EXCEPT:
tion
A. Put the time units or the independent
variable on the horizontal axis B. Statistics helps in providing a better
understanding and exact description of a
B. Use different line types when showing
phenomenon of nature
more than one line to enable the reader to
distinguish between them C. Statistics helps in proper and efficient
C. Use a solid line for the primary data planning of a statistical inquiry in any field
of study
D. Include a zero-base line in the graph,
but it is not possible clearly indicate such D. Statistics helps in collecting appropri-
omission by breaking a scale ate quantitative data
E. Always label the slices with their iden- E. Statistics helps the people in providing
tified and with the percentage of the a better understanding in collecting appro-
amount it represents priate qualitative data

275. The number of students at the lecture is: 280. methods of dealing with making infer-
A. continuous variable ences, estimations or predictions about a
larger set of data using the information
B. constant gathered from a subset of this larger set?
C. interval variable
A. Descriptive Statistics
D. discrete variable
B. Inferential Statistics
E. nominal variable
C. AOTA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
276. very useful when the researcher wants D. NOTA
to collect data for cause and effect studies
under controlled conditions? 281. The scale that is used to classify the prop-
A. Observation method erties of an object:
B. Experimental method A. ordinal
C. Archival method B. non-comparative
D. Registration method C. nominal
E. Survey method D. nterval
277. In the formulation of the research prob- E. ratio
lem the researcher needs to give a
282. refers to the object or a person which a
A. Index
measurement is actually taken or an obser-
B. Bibliography vation is made?
C. Title A. Sampling frame
D. Hypothesis
B. Sample
278. Formula to calculate standardized normal C. Elementary unit
random variable (Z score) is
x−µ
D. Sampling unit
A. σ
x+µ 283. Name the measure of central tendency
B. σ
x−σ
that is high in positive skewness.
C. µ
x+σ
A. Mode
D. µ
B. Median
279. Which of the following describes a Chi- C. Mean
square test?
D. none of above
A. Checks the differences between
means of 2 groups 284. What type of data do you need for a chi-
B. Checks differences between means of square test?
3+ groups A. Categorical
C. Checks differences between 2+ per-
B. Ordinal
centages or proportions
C. Scale
D. Checks differences between 3+ per-
centages or proportions D. Interval

5.7 Health Planning 1121
285. Excel documents are stored as files B. Vertical bar graph

called: C. The one hundred percent bar

A. Workgroups D. NOTA
B. Worktables
289. The study in which the investigators at-
C. Workforce tempt to find out after effect of interven-
D. Workplace tion is known as:
E. Worksheets A. Ex-post Facto Research
286. Total angle of the pie-chart is B. Historical Research
A. 45o C. Survey Research
B. 90o D. none of above
C. 180o 290. Binomial distribution is defined by which

D. 360o properties
A. n
287. who was best known to be the father of
Biostatistics B. p
A. Isaac Newton C. s
B. Francis Galton D. q
C. walter Weldon 291. What is missing in the equation for confi-

D. Immanuel Kant dence intervals x ± z (?)?
A. SE
288. used to emphasize the relative magni-
tudes of the component parts of a fixed B. SD
amount? C. Variance
A. Horizontal bar graph D. Proportion
5.7 Health Planning

1. Health Policy Era’s are all of the following C. Your patient is talking on the phone
except one when you come in for a procedure.
A. Postdevelopment era D. All of the above
B. Post-independen
3. Market failure characteristic are all of the
C. Transition period following except one
D. Regulation/deregulation A. High number of customers
E. Market dominance B. Lack of competition or Rising service
costs
2. What could be considered a barrier to com-
munication when working with patients? C. Barriers to entry and exit
A. You patients speaks German. D. Restricted flow of information
B. Your patient is deaf. E. Externalities and social cost

4. What should be in the plan? choose three D. Is the problem an individual problem
correct answers or societal problem?
A. Aims and objectives of the project E. What is the problem costing individu-
als, groups, society as a whole?
B. The budget (how much money is
needed) 8. Which of the following is NOT a step in
C. Pencils and notebooks making a health career plan?
D. Any resources or equipment needed A. Self Assessment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Stickers and colors B. Career Exploration
C. Go Where Majority is Pursuing
5. Policy implementation, Who are involved
and their roles, all of the following are cor- D. Decision Making
rect but one
9. All of the following excpt one are theories
A. Technocrats:Provide information and of Public Policy
remain involved in program planning. A. Institutionalism
B. Interest groups:Advocate for action B. Process
on the policy and work through NGOs and
organizations representing civil society C. Group Theory
C. Bureaucrats:Involved in developing D. The new theory

the enabling legislation. E. Rationalism
D. Politicians:Involved in legislation; allo- 10. Principles of the Ethical Practice of Public
cate the funding for implementation. Health (all are true except one)
E. Donors:often play a major role in fund- A. A code of ethics for public health clar-
ing and setting program priorities. ifies the distinctive elements of public
health and the ethical principles that fol-
6. Acting on an Evaluation Report can be one
low.
of the following (best answer)
B. Last option is wrong
A. Do nothing (Inaction)
C. It makes clear to populations and com-
B. Minor modifications
munities the ideals of the public health in-
C. Major modifications stitutions that serve them.
D. Termination D. A code of ethics thus serves as a
goal to guide public health institutions and
E. All of the above
practitioners and as a standard to which
7. In Landscape-context of policy all of the they can be held accountable.
following are questions to describe the so- E. Codes of ethics are typically relatively
cial context except one brief; they are notdesigned to provide a
A. Are influential, valued groups af- means of untangling convoluted ethical is-
fected? sues.
B. Are vulnerable subgroups dispropor- 11. The Need for a Policy (or not) may be Iden-
tionately, negatively affected? tified by way of following but one
C. Are there equity issues? A. Legislative changes or requirements

B. Information Monitoring System data 16. It refers to an individual’s plan to make a

C. Review of systems; e.g.. accreditation, career choice.

clinical audit A. CAREER PLANNER
D. Response to high risk incident B. CAREER CHOICE
E. Old evidence C. CAREER PLANNING
D. WORK PLANNING
12. Refers to an individual’s plan to make ca-
reer choice, growing in the chosen career 17. Which one of the following statements is
or making a career shift. wrong?
A. Career Growth A. Incrementalism:Public policy as varia-
B. Career Planning tions on the past
C. Career Path B. Rationalism:Public policy as maximum

social gain
D. Career Talk
C. Process Model:Public policy as inte-
13. All of the following are various decision grated process
making process tools except one D. Institutionalism:Public policy as insti-
A. Pareto chart tutional output
B. Cause and Effect tree E. Group Theory:Public policy as group
equilibrium
C. Check Sheets
D. Problem Tree 18. Types of policy evaluation; all of the fol-
lowing are correct but one
E. Fishbone diagram
A. Needs assessment
14. Country Health Information Systems In- B. Process evaluation
clude all of the following but one
C. Feseability analysis
A. Public Health Surveillance
D. Effectiveness
B. Hospital Medical Records
E. Efficiency
C. National health accounts
19. WHAT is POLICY? astatement emphsize on
D. Health policy and regulations all except one
E. Services availability and readiness as- A. content
sessment
B. process
15. Policy actors are those who (all but one) C. power
A. Identify problems or issues as worthy D. no frame line
of attention
E. money spend
B. Prevent problems or issues being con-
sidered 20. choose one, just guess HAHHAHHA
C. Shape the design of proposed policies A. Hobby
D. Develop the strategies through which B. Career
policies are developed and implemented C. Activity
E. Block the implementation D. Study

21. All of the following are level of agenda but 26. The keyword “Target” means
one
A. teaching something (education)
A. public agenda
B. agenda universe B. something that you are trying to do or
achieve (goal)
C. systemic agenda
D. istitutional agenda C. keep something unwanted from hap-
pening, such as a disease (prevention)
E. decision agenda
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Something that you don’t like to do it
22. It is a group of individuals qualified to prac-
tice medicine.
27. In health care policy Evaluation contains all
A. Medical Profession but one of the following
B. Allied Health Profession
A. monitoring
C. Medical Technologists
B. review the implementation
D. Medical Laboratories
C. assessment of the policy
23. All of the following are Methodologies
used in Policy Analysis except one D. criticism
A. Quantitative method
E. analysing
B. Qualitative method
C. Case study 28. The following are all part of target setting
D. Statistical analysis and servey analy- EXCEPT for:
sis
A. aim of the campaign
E. Model building
B. income of the campaign
24. To fullfil rational model (one of Health Pol-
icy Analysis) policy makers must know the C. benefits of the programme
value of all of the following but one D. who will benefit
A. all society value preference/weight
B. all consequences 29. The number one barrier to use researches
C. all alternative policy by policy makers, identified in a system-
atic review of 24 interview studies, which
D. calculate the benefits to cost for each was
alternatives
E. select most effective policy alternative A. Absence of personal contact between
scientists and policy makers
25. Policy contextual factors can be catego-
rizes into (All but one) B. Political instability or high turnover of
policy making staff
A. Situational factors
B. Structural factors C. Poor quality of research
C. Cultural factors D. Power and budget struggles
D. International and exogenous factors E. Mutual mistrust between scientists
E. economic factors and policy makers

30. Common Short Coming of Healthcare Deliv- 35. All of the following are key functions of
ery are the following except Health Information except one

A. Inverse care A. data generation
B. cheap care
B. data gathering
C. Impoverishing care
C. data communication
D. Unsafe care
D. data analysis
E. Misdirected care
E. data compilation
31. Political process includes all but one
A. Consensus 36. Who is your mother?
B. Rule of law A. teresa
C. Competition
B. Marines
D. Monitoring
C. ate baby
E. Inclusion & Governance
D. leticia’s inheritance
32. Is quizzing good?
A. and 37. Questions (categories) relevant to A suc-
B. hindi cessful policy implementation, all are true
but one
C. it’s OK
D. the best atih A. The Policy Formulation, and Dissemi-
nation
33. Which one of following is not an actors in
B. Social, Political, and Economic Context
Private sector in health policy
A. Interest group and Pressure group C. Leadership for Policy Implementation
B. Pressure group D. Stakeholder Involvement in Policy Im-
C. Civic society plementation
D. Stakeholder and Lobbyist E. Efficiency planning and resources

gathering
E. Interest group, Pressure group, and
Civic society
38. All of the following are Barriers of rational
34. All of the following are qualitative method- model except one
ologies used in Policy Evaluations except
A. Benefited only specific group
one
A. Meeting minutes and books and mate- B. Policy makers not motivated to make
rials decision on the basis of societl benefits
B. Diaries/journals C. Heavy consequences/outputs of all al-
ternatives
C. Open-ended surveys
D. Holistic Evaluation D. Segmental/departmentation-lacking
on cooperation
E. Transcripts of interviews and focus
groups E. Information/data-limited

39. Why the health plociy is important? all are 44. Planning a health promotion takes a
true except one lot of time.
A. Size of the sector A. programme
B. a driver of economy B. campaign
C. public funds C. needs
D. large numbers of population in contact D. none of above

with health services 45. What do you need to plan a health pro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. involve life and death motion campaign? choose two important
tasks..
40. Why international arena in health policy is A. “Target setting” goals of the interven-
important? All are true but one tion need to be set
A. Infectious diseases B. Healthy cities and good governance
B. Cross-border travelling C. *A” needs assessment” to identify the
C. Employment-work-force needs of the society.
D. knowledge and education
D. Communication technologies
E. Money movements 46. Policy content invloves (all but one)
A. A purpose statement
41. Exploring different careers and work envi-
B. Applicability and scope
ronments.
C. implementation method
A. CAREER ADVENTURE
D. Responsibilities
B. CAREER FAIRS
E. Definitions
C. CAREER EXPLORATION
47. In agenda setting in public health policy, all
D. TRAVELING
of the following are true but one
42. Developing strategies to reach and orga- A. By understanding the way in which
nize your goals into smaller steps and power operates, we are better able to
identifying actions for each step describes enforce accountability for the decisions
what component? made by our governing bodies
A. Self Assessment B. Power is a complex notion involving
political forces-power is used in various
B. Career Exploration
ways in order to push certain agendas
C. Decision Making C. Policy-making in high-income coun-
D. Plan of Action tries is affected a great deal by interna-
tional socio-political forces
43. You can guess here, after all, just try D. The national health policies of devel-
A. Self-Assessment oping nations are shaped through the
engagement of local governments by a
B. career exploration
global network of actors
C. Hobby
E. Technical expertise is the important ac-
D. Plan of Action tors to improve in low-income countries.

48. This is good for my meal plan C. Its easy

A. Veggies, Protein & Carbs D. none of above

B. Protein and Sugars 54. Who Set Health Policy Choice? all are cor-
C. ALL Veggies and jucie rect but one
D. Fast food once in a while A. Technocrats; epidemiologists, physi-
cians, public health specialists
49. Target group refers to:
B. Bureaucrats; Administrators, man-
A. are individuals or groups in a certain agers, policy analysts, and economists
community
C. Donors:WHO, UNICEF, UNDP, UNHCR
B. your friends
D. Politicians:ministers, members of Par-
C. your family liament, members of the cabinet
D. none of above E. Interest Groups; (insiders / Outsiders)
Consumers / NGOs / Community leaders/
50. Necessary to understand one’s capabilities
Media
and drawbacks.
A. SELF-AWARENESS 55. All of the following are benefits of using
model in policy analysis except one
B. SELF-LOVE
A. Increase variables to get more data
C. SELF-CARE
B. Simplify real situation
D. SELF-ASSESSMENT
C. Understandable
51. I am beautiful?
D. Provide direction of analysis
A. and
E. Save time
B. hindi
56. It keeps illness or injuries from happening
C. just right
A. Assessment
D. let’s go
B. Treatment
52. In governmental health policy arena, all of
C. Prevention
the following are government failures ex-
cept one D. Rehabilitation
A. Externalities and social cost 57. In the Kingdon model all of the following
B. Inability to define social welfare are true but one
C. Inability to define social welfare A. Streams of policy process;-the prob-
lem stream
D. Legal constraints
B. Streams of policy process;-the politics
E. Limits to democracy and the paradox stream
of voting
C. Streams of policy process;-the policy
53. Healthy Meal planning benifets me be- stream
cause D. Agenda-setting opportunities-known
A. Healthier life style as policy windows
B. Boosts my brain skills E. Kingdon model matrix is important

58. Discovering your personal strengths such 62. It is an occupation or profession that re-
as your values, interests, personality and quires special training?
skills are part of which component? A. Vocation
A. Self Assessment B. Livelihood
B. Career Exploration C. Career
C. Decision Making D. Hobby
D. Plan of Action 63. Policy cycle focus on (All but one)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Community
59. campaign is .
B. Process
A. something you wish to achieve
C. Content
B. careful study that is done to find new
D. Context
knowledge about something
E. Actors
C. a series of activities designed to pro-
duce a particular result 64. Deciding on taking a career that works for
you.
A. DECISION MAKING
60. Why do you need to understand health ca- B. DECISION BUILDING
reer pathways?
C. DECISION BAKING
A. Assists you in choosing health career
D. DECISION CHOOSING
B. Helps you develop a plan on how to
prepare for your chosen health career 65. Concerning the Hall model, all the follow-
ing are true but one
C. Makes it easier for you to identify
A. Legitimacy is part of the model
health career professions
B. Feasibility is part of the model
D. All of the above
C. Support is part of the model
61. In politics all statement are true but one D. Legitimacy is a characteristic of is-
A. Workplace:influencing workplace pol- sues with which governments believe they
icy, procedures, funding allocation deci- should be concerned and in which they
sions, and practice models. have a right or even obligation to inter-
vene.
B. Government:influencing local, state
E. Feasibility refers to the potential for
and national policy and legislation.
monitoring the policy.
C. In policy, politic is associated with
community control. 66. what’s the meaning of Achieve?
A. to reach a goal
D. Professional:organizations:influencing
the setting of standards, licensure, and B. understand the requirements of a pop-
credentialing. ulation
E. Community:influencing through en- C. a series of activities designed to pro-
gagement in community activities such as duce a particular result
environmental groups, child care groups, D. a set of actions that have been thought
etc. of as a way to do or achieve something

67. Being exposed to different careers and en- C. Often known as “The 80/20 Rule”
vironments through career fairs, online re-
D. is a chart that contains both bars and
search and internships is in what compo-

a line graph
nent?
E. It is easy to see that the major com-
A. Self Assessment
plaint or problem
B. Career Exploration
C. Decision Making 72. All of the following are different character-
istics between scientists and policy mak-
D. Plan of Action ers, except one
68. How does healthy meal planning save my A. publication patents vs policy practice
money?
B. mathematical symbols vs acronyms
A. I only buy less foods because healthy
meal planning is only for losing weight C. long time to do one research vs an-
swers are needed quickly
B. I get what i want whenever i want
D. the whole career is in one specific area
C. I buy what I NEED for & what i planned vs move rapidly among files
for to avoid wasting food
E. inefficient with the financing vs effi-
D. none of above
cient with the financing
69. In prioritization in public health policy, all
are true but one 73. Where to take a q-quiz?
A. Done at central level A. quizizz

B. Some things, they become a high prior- B. saves
ity because of funding C. tictactoe
C. Sometimes things get funded because
D. Nevermind
they become a high enough priority
D. Often focus on local issue 74. Which of the following is NOT a reason for
E. MDGs often take precedence even pursuing a health career?
over national determination or need A. Job Security
70. Which is good for you? B. Good Salary

A. 1/4 of carbs to balance your meal C. A clear path for advancement
B. Fat in meats to give you rich flavor D. It is your family’s decision
C. 2 cups of fruit juice
75. Policy Process Actors and Their Roles, all
D. Having your plate half protein and half are true but one
veggies
A. Technocrats:Knowledge
71. In Pareto analysis tool all of the following B. Politicians:Power
are true except one
C. Interest Groups:Lobbyist
A. Focuses on qualitative data
D. Bureaucrats:Institutions
B. Use to identify which situations are
most common E. Donors:Influence

5.8 Public Health Administration 1130
76. Main institutions involved in government 78. Types of analysis of health policy includes
policy making (All but one) all but one of the following
A. The financial A. original research
B. The legislature B. Quantitative research
C. The bureaucracy C. Qualitative research

D. Mixed-methods research
D. The executive
E. Secondary research
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. The judiciary
79. Questions you should be able to answer
77. Oh eto seryoso na What component about each of the theories or models you
and steps in making a Health career is will be exposed to in policy analysis, All
being told? “You can explore different but one
careers and work environments through
A. Who participates in policy making?
careers fairs, online research, meetings,
internships, alumni connections, profes- B. How are policy decisions made?
sional resources.” C. Why did the participates make policy
A. Self-Assessment decisions?
B. Career Exploration D. What are the underlying assumptions

of the theory?
C. Decision Making
E. What are the consequences for the
D. Plan of Action general public?
5.8 Public Health Administration

1. Raising money to fund their programs, 3. Which of the following would be a career
providing education, providing service to in the Health Science career cluster?
those affected, and advocating are the ba- A. School Counselor
sic objectives of:
B. Travel Agent
A. philanthropic foundations.
C. Pharmacist
B. voluntary health agencies.
D. Physicist
C. professional health organizations.
4. A statistical average of the number of
D. social, service, and religious organiza- years a human is expected to live
tions.
A. life span
2. Kelly:I listen to other people’s problems. B. life expectancy
What am I?
C. life time
A. A teacher. D. life
B. A singer.
5. A is a group of occupations having re-
C. A model. lated interest.
D. A social worker. A. Career Shadowing

B. College and Career Readiness 10. STI’s are what kind of disease?
C. Career Pathway A. Non-Communicable

D. Career Cluster B. Communicable
C. Both
6. The worlds leading agency for conducting
D. Neither
and supporting medical research
A. NIH 11. This person would work in a mortuary.
He/she would supervise the burial ar-
B. FDA rangements while working with surviving
C. CDC relatives.
D. OSHA A. Health Service Manager
B. Funeral Director
7. Protects the health of all Americans by pro-
C. Public Relations Manager
viding vital human services, especially to
those least able to help themselves D. Construction Manager
A. FDA 12. Includes all efforts to monitor, protect, and
B. USDHHS promote the health of the population as a
whole
C. OSHA
A. Public health
D. NIH B. Personal health
8. Which allow human services workers to C. Physical health
prove they are competent to perform job D. Mental health
duties, and, in some cases, may be re-
quired to keep their job? 13. The study of diseases in a population.
A. salaries and benefits A. Epidemiology
B. professional development opportuni- B. Histology

ties C. Biology
C. licenses, certifications, and creden- D. Diseasology
tials
14. Nutritionists and dietitians are jobs found
D. professional associations in which human services career path-
ways?
9. The agency sponsored by the United Na-
A. early childhood services
tions that compiles statistics on disease
and publishes health information is the B. counseling and mental health services
A. National Institutes of Health (NIH) C. visual arts
D. family and community services
B. Centers for Disease Control and Pre-
vention (CDC) 15. Which of the following is an example of a
C. World Health Organization (WHO) non-infectious disease?
D. U.S. Department of Health and Human A. the flu

Services (USDHHS) B. strep throat

C. ebola 21. Which career pathway best suits someone

D. diabetes who understands psychology and enjoys
working to help people with decisions and
16. Which human services career pathway in- problems?
cludes occupations related to helping dis- A. consumer services
abled, elderly, impoverished, or other
underrepresented populations to secure B. family and community services
housing, employment, financial assistance, C. early childhood services
NARAYAN CHANGDER
or other social services?
D. counseling and mental health services
A. family and community services
B. early childhood services 22. is the prediction of future jobs and
number of job openings expected.
C. consumer services
D. counseling and mental health A. professional level
B. entry-level
17. A person’s life work, which requires plan-
ning, preparation, interest, and time is C. projected outlook
A. an occupation D. advancement
B. a career
23. Who provides the nation with the best sci-
C. a career cluster entific information about health?
D. internship A. HHS Secretary
18. An example of a quasi-governmental B. President
health organization is:
C. Dr. Phil
A. the National Institutes of Health (NIH).
D. Surgeon General
B. a county health department.
C. the National Science Foundation. 24. The NIH and CDC are divisions of the:
D. the American Cancer Society. A. FDA

B. USDHHS
19. This person takes care of animals.
A. Musician C. US Dept of Homeland Security
B. Painter D. OSHA
C. Engineer 25. The power to arrest someone who refuses

D. Vet to undergo treatment for a communicable
disease lies with:
20. This person might work in a hospital or a
nursing home. A. a community health nurse.
A. Health Service Manager B. a member of the local board of health.
B. Farm Operator & Manager C. a local health officer.

C. Administrative Services Manager D. a scientist within the NIH.
D. Loan Officer & Counselor E. Venus

26. Public health agencies operate on four lev- B. Agency for Healthcare Research and
els Quality (AHRQ)

A. local, state, national, and international C. Centers for Disease Control and Pre-
B. private, local, state, national vention (CDC)
C. national, international, voluntary, D. Health Resources and Services Admin-

state istration (HRSA)
D. local, state, international, private 32. Of the following, which is a non-profit

agency?
27. This person makes experiments and works
in a lab. A. American Red Cross
B. Food and Drug Administration
A. Astronaut
C. World Health Organization
B. Firefighter
D. National Institutes of Health
C. Scientist
D. Police Officer 33. CDC is a organization
A. local
28. What does a scientist do?
B. world
A. does experiments in a laboratory
C. national
B. designs buildings
D. state
C. takes care of people’s health
D. treats people’s teeth 34. A nation with low material well being.
A. Developed
29. Agencies that are funded primarily through
tax dollars are referred to as: B. Developing
A. governmental agencies. C. Diseased
B. voluntary agencies. D. Different
C. philanthropic foundations. 35. The contributions of religious groups to
D. professional associations. community health have been:
A. substantial;
30. Nongovernmental health agencies are
funded primarily by: B. minimal;
A. private donations. C. relatively ineffective in the past 100
years;
B. tax dollars.
D. expensive;
C. fees for services.
D. grants from the state health depart- 36. This person takes care of people’s health
ment. and works in a hospital.
A. Scientist
31. Which agency maintains records, analyzes
disease trends, and publishes epidemiolog- B. Doctor
ical reports on all types of diseases? C. Musician
A. National Institutes of Health (NIH) D. Firefighter

5.9 Environmental Health 1134
5.9 Environmental Health

1. Which is closest to the predicted human 6. What is environmental transport?
population in 2050? A. What a substance becomes when it en-
A. 7 billion ters the environment.
B. 8 billion B. How environmental agents travel.
C. 9 billion C. Motion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 9 million D. Media
7. Which cabinet department secretary is as-

2. the study of disease in human populations
signed as the chairman of the Inter-Agency
A. epidemiology Committee on Environmental Health?
B. pathogenology A. DOH
C. toxicology B. DENR
D. biology C. DILG
D. DOST
3. Environment-related health risks in the
Philippines that causes diarrhea, typhoid 8. In developing countries, in what step/s of
and cholera is/ are the supply chain does food waste occur?
A. Water pollution A. Production
B. Sanitation B. Post harvest and storage
C. Hygiene Practices C. Both
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE D. Neither
4. The effect of an organism shows as a re- 9. Replacement level fertility rate is when
sult of exposure. A. a population replaces itself from one
A. Response generation to the next (2.1)
B. more babies are born than people who
B. Dose
die (4.3)
C. Risk
C. more people die than are being born
D. Dose-response (1.5)
D. none of above
5. This is the hardening or tightening of some
patches of the skin. it can affect the skin 10. incineration can reduce the weight of
of any part f the body waste in landfills, but it
A. allergies A. increases the volume of waste
B. dermatitis B. can release hazardous air pollution
C. scleroderma C. cause wildfires
D. eczema D. can only be used in the summer

11. is a group of people living in a large B. Active community involvement

place, sharing a common environment. C. More budget for health problems, in-

A. Community creased supply of medicines
B. Community Health D. More community projects for commu-
nity development
C. Environment
D. Health 17. A disease that has appeared in the hu-
man population for the first time/ or that
12. What is the term for the number of babies has existed for a while but is increasing
out of 1000 that die during their first year repidly
of life A. Infectious disease
A. infant mortality rate B. carcinogens
B. child mortality rate C. emerging disease
C. life expectancy rate D. teratogens
D. growth rate
18. Physical Handling of Chemical Contami-
13. A disease that has appeared in the human nants in Water
population for the first time or that has ex- A. soil type
isted for a while, but is increasing rapidly B. sedimentation
or spreading around the world is called
C. dilution
A. environmental
D. mixing/turbulence
B. pandemic
E. sorption (adsorption/absorption)
C. emerging
19. Disease-causing agents.
D. infectious
A. Epidemiology
14. Solids:USDA classifies them by particle B. Carcinogens
size (diameter):Clay
C. Pathogens
A. > 2mm
D. Toxicity
B. 50 u-2 mm
20. the study of how poisonous substances af-
C. 2-50 u
fect an organism’s health
D. < 2 u
A. environmental health
15. Which of the following is not example of B. toxicology
environmental problems? C. epidemiology
A. Deforestation D. biology
B. Clean-up Drive
21. A powerful storm that forms over the
C. Oil Spill ocean in the tropics is called a (an)
D. Soil Erosion A. earthquake
16. Which best describes the benefits of a B. tornado
healthy environment? C. tsunami
A. Less disease, less health care costs D. hurricane

22. determines how harmful a substance is to C. widening drainage ditches

an organism D. more efficient power lines
A. pathogen
28. The most significant current environmental
B. toxicity health threat in the United Arab Emirates
C. toxicology is:
D. epidemiology A. waste management
B. air pollution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. A place that is permitted to have a desig-
nated smoking area is C. noise pollution
A. School D. seafood contamination
B. Public health center 29. Where are chemical hazards present out-
C. Hospital doors?
D. Office A. air
B. land
24. what does Environmental Health deal
with? C. water
A. Factories D. all of these
B. Cars 30. An ecosystem is defined as

C. Water Pollution A. the transition zone between grassland
and desert
D. All of the above
B. a group of interactive species and their
25. An infection of the small intestine by bac- environment.
teria that contaminate the drinking water.
C. a body of freshwater.
A. cholera D. the lowland area on either side of a
B. amoebiasis river.
C. diarrhea E. all choices are correct
D. heavy metal poisoning 31. Who are the 3 main characters of Harry
Potter?
26. Heavy metal poisoning caused by ingest-
ing food or water with a high amount of A. Harry, Ron, Hermione
lead. B. Williams, Harrison, Nelson
A. mercury poisoning C. Katzung, Robins, Bates
B. Lead poisoning D. Guyton, Netter, Harper
C. toxic encephalopathy
32. Which of the following problems is a lead-
D. arsenic poisoning ing cause of environmental destruction?
27. Which of these would not be an improve- A. Soil Erosion
ment in infrastructure? B. Oil spill
A. building a mansion C. illegal mining
B. fixing a pothole in the road D. deforestation

33. any dirty or harmful substance in the envi- 38. VOCAB:The study of human population
ronment statistics

A. pesticides A. demography
B. pollution B. biology
C. smog C. microbiology
D. hazardous wastes D. ecology
34. Infectious diseases are diseases caused by
39. Mudflows and ash clouds are some of the
organisms known as?
many dangers of
A. Carcinogens
A. storms
B. Toxicants
B. tsunamis
C. Pathogens
C. earthquakes
D. Infections
D. volcanic eruptions
35. viruses, bacteria, fungi and other organ-
isms in the environment that harm human 40. The probability that a hazard will cause
health a harmful response, such as death or dis-
A. environmental health ease.
B. biological hazards A. Dose
C. social hazards B. Risk

D. chemical hazards C. Response
E. physical hazards D. Dose-response
36. can make people more susceptible to dis- 41. Which of the following is not a way to
eases like cancer manage environmental issues in our com-
A. dose-response relationship munity?
B. risk assessment A. Recycling

C. genetics B. Reduce food waste
D. epidemiology C. Car pooling
37. Which of the following is not linked in the D. Increase the use of plastics
way rest have been
42. A type of windstorm in which a funnel of
A. Fragmentation:damage to climatic pa- rotating air drops down from a storm cloud
rameters and touches Earth’s surface.
B. Global warming:Forest Fires A. Hurricane
C. Search for energy resources:large
B. Tornado
scale mining
C. Typhoon
D. Escalating human population:overuse
of natural resources D. Tsunami

43. The Mississippi River Delta wetlands C. can be 100% avoided with some
ecosystem is home to a large number of simple measures.
fish, birds, and other aquatic organisms. D. none of above
During the last century, this ecosystem
has seen a decrease in wetland areas and 47. All of the following are physical features
species diversity due to land development, of the environment EXCEPT:
agriculture, and flooding. Conservation
A. natural resources such as oil and min-
groups have been working to reconnect
erals
the Mississippi River with its flood plain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and restore lost wetlands. One result of B. man-made elements such as buildings
restoring wetland areas in this ecosystem C. geographical locations
would be
D. structure of the society
A. an increase in a biotic factors that
would cause organisms to develop new 48. Determinants of Transport in Soil
adaptations A. soil type
B. the development of an ecosystem that B. sedimentation
will prevent invasive species from settling
there C. nature of the chemical/water solubil-
ity
C. an increase in the carrying capacity of
the ecosystem for wetland organisms D. moisture/pH/temperature
D. to prevent the organisms that live in E. adsorption/leaching/diffusion

this ecosystem from competing for food 49. refers to the range of garbage mate-
and shelter rial, arising from animal and human activi-
44. a shield that protects living things from ul- ties. that are discarded as unwanted and
traviolet radiation useless
A. ozone layer A. Solid waste
B. smog B. toxic waste
C. greenhouse effect C. plastic waste
D. acid rain D. none of above
45. diseases caused by a pathogen such as bac- 50. Which is an old method of waste disposal
teria, viruses, or fungi through burning waste into ashes?
A. infectious disease A. Landfills
B. emerging disease B. Incineration
C. pandemic C. Recycling
D. epidemic D. Dumps
46. Indoor environmental pollution 51. ‘Much sewage is discharged into the
A. is not as dangerous as outdoor pol- ocean’Which environmental problem does
lution. it refer to?
B. can be worse than outdoor pollu- A. water pollution

tion. B. air pollution

C. deforestation 57. Which of these is directly related to mak-

D. global warming ing clean water available in developing na-
tions?

52. Molar concentration A. birth rates
A. dental caries B. fuel wood
B. is moles of solute per liter of solution C. migration
C. is moles of solute per kilogram of sol-
D. age structure
vent
D. sucrose malt 58. The movement of earth caused by shifting
tectonic plates.
53. Which of the following is not a major type
of solutions to collective action problems? A. Thunderstorm
A. Government regulation B. Earthquake
B. Community quarantine C. Landslide
C. Private ownership D. Volcano

D. Community mobilization 59. the study of how environmental factors af-
fect human health and quality of life
54. Which of the following types of people
generally has a greater sensitivity to en- A. environmental health
vironmental hazards than the other types B. toxicology
of people?
C. epidemiology
A. teenagers
D. biology
B. adults
C. infants 60. Pika virus typically affects these areas
D. none; all have equal sensitivity ?
A. Cold and dry
55. The process of measuring a risk.
B. Warm and dry
A. Risk
C. Alaska and Russia
B. Risk assessment
D. Warm and wet
C. Emerging disease
D. Epidemiology 61. Environmental pollution is the release of
waste that causes detrimental effects
56. Social Determinant of health:Health and on the environment. Environmental pollu-
Health Care: tion is often divided into pollution of
A. Access to Health Care supplies, the , and the
B. Access to Primary Care A. chemical / water / atmosphere / soil
C. Incarceration B. chemical / sea / air / garbage
D. Health Literacy C. agents / water / atmosphere / soil
E. Civic Participation D. none of above

62. It refers to the health status of a defined 67. The study of disease in human populations
group of people and actions to protect and is called
and improve the health of the community. A. environmental health
A. Community Health B. epidemiology
B. Health Education C. toxicity
C. Population Health D. toxicology
D. Health Promotion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
68. Exposure to high concentrations of which
63. Matter or energy that is released into the of the following substances can cause kid-
environment. ney and brain damage?
A. Pollutant A. cholera
B. Pollution B. acid rain
C. Emerging diseases C. lead
D. Infectious diseases D. none of above
64. Chemical distribution between phases, Im- 69. Where does plastic go when we throw it
portant attributes of the chemical in the bin?
A. Chemical structure (inorganic/organic) A. Land dump
B. The Ocean
B. Physical State (melting point/boiling C. Recycling Factory
point/desity)
D. All of the above
C. exothermic dextrose
D. endothermic acetate 70. What does the word ‘environment’
mean?
65. As a member of the community, your A. something made up of all the living and
best contribution towards reducing envi- non-living things in an area which interact
ronmental pollution is by with each other
A. taking part in a clean-up-the- B. the presence or introduction to the en-
neighbourhood activity vironment of a substance that has harmful
B. taking part in the burning of community effects
garbage C. the surroundings and conditions
C. taking part in a community bazaar where a person, plant or animal lives
D. taking part in an anti-plastic-bag D. none of above
marathon run
71. What is the cause that makes our commu-
66. A colorless, toxic, radioactive gas is nity unhealthy recently?
A. asbestos A. CoViD 19
B. radon B. Ebola
C. carbon monoxide C. Sars
D. lead D. Birds flu

72. The three kinds of average in a graphic or- 77. rain that is far more acidic than normal
ganizer are A. pollution

A. Mean B. acid rain
B. Range
C. ozone layer
C. Trend
D. smog
D. Mode
78. the saving of resources
E. Median
A. conservation
73. The process through which pollutants get
increasingly more concentrated at each B. non-renewable resources
step up the food chain is C. pollution
A. biomagnification D. greenhouse effect
B. anaphylaxis
79. It refers to people who live and work in
C. toxicity the same place.
D. bioaccumulation A. Race
74. Magnified concentrations of toxic sub- B. A community
stances. C. Resources
A. Bioaccumulation D. Government
B. Biomagnification
80. Which aspect of health impacts a person’s
C. Toxicity interactions with others?
D. Toxicology A. emotional
75. The probability that a hazard will cause a B. social
harmful response is called a(n)
C. physical
A. dose
D. mental
B. pathogen
C. response 81. If your shirt is partly cotton and partly
polyester, what part is biodegradable?
D. risk
A. cotton
76. A substance’s toxicity depends not just on B. polyester
what it is, but alsoA. on whether it was
produced naturally or by people.B. what C. both a and b
its scientific name is.C. how much of it a D. none of the above
person is exposed to.D. where it is found
in the environment. 82. is the health status of a group of peo-
ple situated in the same geographical area.
A. on whether it was produced naturally
or by people. A. Community
B. what its scientific name is. B. Community Health
C. how much of it a person is exposed to. C. Environment
D. where it is found in the environment. D. Environmental Health

83. chemicals in the environment that harm hu- 88. What types of hazards does toxicology
mans deal with?
A. environmental health A. Biological
B. biological hazards B. Social
C. social hazards C. Physical
D. chemical hazards D. Biological and Social
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. physical hazards 89. What is a major issue with emerging dis-
eases?
84. matter or energy released into the environ- A. There are no issues
ment, causing negative effects that impact
people, wildlife, and the environment B. People can get cholera and dengue
fever
A. radon
C. Lack of medecines/vaccines to control
B. pollution them
C. pathogen D. People have social health issues from
D. none of above eating a high fat diet
90. Social Determinant of health:Social and

85. the amount of a substance an organism is
Community Context:
exposed to
A. Early Childhood Education and Devel-
A. response
opment
B. hazard B. Social Cohesion
C. toxicity C. Incarceration
D. dose D. Discrimination
86. When stress built up in tectonic plates is E. Civic Participation

suddenly released, the energy causes the 91. Which of the following WOULD NOT be re-
planet to shake, a phenomenon called a(n) garded as a measure to avoid the impact
A. mudslide of water pollution in our health?
B. earthquake A. Not dump garbage in rivers or around
them.
C. tsunami
B. Drink fruit juices instead of drinking so
D. avalanche much water.
87. a yellow-brown haze that forms when C. Never dispose of cooking fats and oils
sunlight reacts with air pollution by pouring them down the sink.
A. smog D. Encourage your government to imple-

ment environment friendly policies.
B. acid rain
92. Environmental factors known to have a
C. ozone layer
positive impact on wellbeing include all of
D. pesticide the following EXCEPT:

A. biodiversity refers to the variety of 97. Other parts of the body that air pollution
plant and animal life present in the envi- affects are:
ronment

A. Heart
B. an ozone layer that is not depleted and B. Bones
protects humans and animals from harm-
ful UV radiation C. Eyes and skin
D. Immune system
C. plenty of open and green spaces
D. natural events such as floods and 98. The study of disease in human populations
storms is
A. epidermiology
93. What is water pollution?
B. toxicology
A. Something that affects the water
C. a dose-response relationship
B. Something that affects the earth
D. risk assessment
C. Something that affects the earth
99. Which of these is not a specific route of
D. Both A and B exposure
94. ‘Cities emit a large amount of carbon diox- A. Inhalation
ide.’Which environmental problem does it B. Proximity
refer to?
C. Ingestion
A. water pollution
D. Dermal
B. air pollution
100. rock and soil slide down a slope
C. deforestation
A. avalanche
D. global warming
B. mudflow
95. Under the CDC construct for social determi- C. landslide
nants of health, which one of the following
D. all of these
represents the domain where environmen-
tal health determinants can be found? 101. The following statements are the bene-
A. Economic Stability fits of doing recycling except?
B. Health & Health Care A. Conserves natural resources
C. Education B. Saves energy

C. Increases waste sent to landfills
D. Social & Community Context
D. Increases economic security
E. Neighborhood & Built Environment
102. Diseases caused by pathogens, such as a
96. Infectious diseases can be spread by virus or a bacterium.
A. contaminated water A. Risk assessment
B. human contact B. Emerging diseases
C. animals C. Infectious diseases
D. all of the above D. Epidemiology

103. Covid 19, which is now a global outbreak, B. helium poisoning

is one of the first disease-causing agents C. carbon poisoning
discovered in the following countries:
D. none of above
A. RRC
B. Wuhan 109. Which is not a primary method of control-
ling exposures?
C. Xinjiang
A. Substitution
D. Hongkong
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Ventilation
104. Which of the following refers to any C. Isolation
method used to discard unwanted sub-
stances or materials? D. Personal protective equipment
A. Pollution E. All of these
B. Waste Disposal 110. Soil characteristics determine the of-

C. Recycling chemical contaminants placed on or in it
D. Climate Change A. rate

B. spread
105. factors that threaten or are harmful to
human health C. phase
A. risk D. grain
B. hazard 111. Identify the routes of exposure for envi-

C. risk assessment ronmental chemicals. Route & Site of Ex-
posure
D. dose
A. G.I. Tract (ingestion)
106. the governmental agency that is commit- B. Lungs (inhalation)
ted to protecting the environment
C. Skin (topical, percutaneous, dermal)
A. Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA) D. Other parenteral routes (IV, IM etc)
B. conservation E. Inner psychic (IP)
C. precycling 112. disease causing agent

D. landfills A. epidemiology
107. The following ailments are long-term ef- B. toxicology

fects of air pollution EXCEPT C. pathogen
A. emphysema. (hardening of lungs) D. none of above
B. lung cancer. 113. Which of these is an effect of air pollu-
C. headaches. tion?
D. heart disease. A. Respiratory problems
108. It is a type of metal poisoning and medi- B. Reduced food sources for humans
cal condition due to exposure to mercury. C. Increased disease for humans
A. mercury poisoning D. Decrease in global temperatures

114. Which observation describes a change in 119. when an outbreak of a disease becomes
climate rather than a change in weather? worldwide

A. The thunderstorm dropped about A. infectious disease
three centimeters of rain today.
B. emerging disease
B. The average summer temperatures
have increased over the last ten years. C. pandemic
C. The snowfall in this area was more this D. epidemic

week than it was last week.
120. VOCAB:number of males compared to fe-
D. The average wind speed in April was males in a population
less than it was in March.
A. sex ratio
115. Toxicology deals primarily with what B. age structure
types of hazards?
C. growth rate
A. biological and social
D. population shift
B. both chemical and physical
C. Option 3 human-made 121. What is the structure of the atmosphere
D. natural disasters (listed from bottom to top)
A. thermosphere, mesosphere, strato-
116. Which factor makes having many children sphere, troposphere
a burden?
B. stratosphere, troposphere, thermo-
A. working close to home sphere, mesosphere
B. children working on a farm
C. troposphere, stratosphere, meso-
C. children caring for the elderly sphere, thermosphere
D. driving a long distance to work D. none of above
117. Primary health care systems aims to:” 122. Protecting and maintaining the health of
A. strategies to prevent re injury system all the members of the community
B. reduce the impact of the disease once A. Environmental Health
it is occurred
B. Community Health
C. preventing disease or injury before it
C. Health Advocate
occurs
D. none of above
D. the level of care is on rehabilitation
programs
123. This is described as damages to the brain
118. The build up of large concentrations of that result from being exposed to toxic
toxic substances in organism’s body. chemicals
A. Bioaccumulation A. mercury poisoning

B. Biomagnification B. Lead poisoning
C. Toxicity C. toxic encephalopathy
D. Toxicology D. arsenic poisoning

124. Each step up the food chain, concentra- 129. The subdivision of the atmosphere into
tions of toxicants can be greatly multiplied troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere,
in a process called and thermosphere is based on the vertical
A. biomagnification variation of:
B. toxicology A. Air Temperature
C. risk assessment B. Oxygen Concentration
D. epidemiology C. Rain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Air Pressure
125. VOCAB:study of disease in human popu-
lation 130. storm that produces both lightning and
A. epidemiology thunder
B. toxicology A. hurricane
C. biology B. tornado
D. pathology C. blizzard
D. thunder storm
126. Key determinants of transport in soil in-
clude , among others 131. Social Determinant of health:Neighborhood
A. nature of chemical and Built Environment:
B. water solubility A. Access to Access to Foods that Sup-

port Healthy Eating Patterns
C. soil type
B. Access to Primary Care
D. soil moisture
C. Crime and Violence
E. soil PH & soil temperature
D. Environmental Conditions
127. What does the word ‘pollution’ mean? E. Quality of Housing
A. the surroundings and conditions
where a person, plant or animal lives 132. Molal concentration
B. the presence or introduction to the en- A. dental caries

vironment of a substance that has harmful B. is moles of solute per liter of solution
effects C. is moles of solute per kilogram of sol-
C. something done in a way that is vent
planned D. sucrose malt
D. none of above
133. This respiratory disease is a very conta-
128. Which of the following program of the De- gious infection. It is caused by the bacte-
partment of Health promotes community ria that enters the body through nose and
health? mouth. What is this?
A. Maternal health A. influenza
B. Primary Health Care B. asthma
C. Child Health Care C. cough
D. Control of Communicable Disease D. tuberculosis

134. The Term environment refers to: 139. Any substance that poses a chemical haz-
ard is considered a(n)
A. the sum total of the things that make

up our surroundings A. VOC
B. organizations of people, institutions B. carcenogen
and resources that deliver health care ser- C. toxicant
vices
D. allergen
C. the external which are external to hu-
man body 140. refers to all things, conditions, and
D. method used by health care profes- influences that affect the growth, health,
sionals to measure the impact of diseases and progress of living and non-living
things.
135. Soil is complex and includes phases. A. Community
A. solid B. Community Health
B. liquid C. Environment
C. gaseous D. Environmental Health
D. Dimethyl
141. Social Determinant of health:Economic
E. Styrene Stability includes:
A. Health Literacy
136. Which of the following environmental
problems is experienced worldwide? B. Employment
A. Oil Spill C. Food Insecurity
B. Deforestation D. Housing Instability
C. Destruction of the ozone layer E. Poverty
D. Flashfloods 142. A is a waste disposal facility where
wastes are put in the ground and covered
137. The following are environmental sanita- each day with a layer of dirt, plastic, or
tion solution except: both.
A. clean water A. landfill
B. uncontrolled noise pollution B. incinerator
C. clean air C. compost heap
D. none of above D. aquifer
138. viruses, bacteria and fungi that are bio- 143. rubbish to limit its bad effects. Buy
logical hazards things that you really need.
A. pathogens A. Reduce
B. toxicity B. Reuse
C. toxicology C. Recycle
D. epidemiology D. Save water

144. Which of the following factors causes dif- 149. VOCAB:describes the relative numbers of
ferent people to respond differently to en- organisms of each age within a population
vironmental hazards? and is often represented by a graph
A. age A. age structure diagram
B. sex B. population growth rate
C. weaight C. demographic transition
D. all of these D. fertility rate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
145. What are some examples of social haz- 150. Synoptic scale
ards? A. High-and low-pressure systems,
A. Smoking weather fronts, tropical storms, hurri-
canes, Antarctic ozone hole
B. Drugs
B. Gravity waves, thunderstorms, torna-
C. Overeating
dos, cloudclusters, local winds, urban air
D. All of the above pollution
146. Why do we need to ensure community C. 2-2000 km
health in planning for community develop- D. 500-10000 km
ment?
E. Global wind systems, stratospheric
A. To attain luxury of life ozone reduction, global warming
B. To keep the safety of the community
151. Match the following definition to the cor-
C. To live in a clean, safe and comfortable rect term:“the increase in concentration
home of chemicals that occur in some, usually
D. none of above aquatic, food chains at higher trophic lev-
els.”
147. Solids:USDA classifies them by particle A. Bioconcentration
size (diameter):Gravel
B. Bioaccumulation
A. > 2mm
C. Biomagnification
B. 50 u-2 mm
D. Biodispersion
C. 2-50 u
D. < 2 u 152. How long does it take for a plastic bag
to decompose?
148. What does DPSEEA stand for? A. Up to 5 days
A. Delivery, pressure, state, educate, ef- B. Up to 5 years
fect, action
C. Up to 1000 years
B. Driving force, pressure, state, edu-
cate, effect, action D. Never
C. Driving force, pressure, state, expo- 153. What does the word ‘ecosystem’ mean?
sure, effect, action A. something made up of all the living and
D. Delivery, pressure, state, exposure, ef- non-living things in an area which interact
fect, action with each other

B. the presence or introduction to the en- B. biomagnification

vironment of a substance that has harmful C. radon
effects

D. asbestos
C. the surroundings and conditions
where a person, plant or animal lives 159. mineral that forms long, thin microscopic
D. none of above fibers
A. radon
154. Which of these is types of Environmental
Health hazards? B. taratogen
A. Chemical C. allergen
B. Physical D. asbestos
C. Biological 160. Which does not describe a healthy com-

D. All of the above munity?
A. A clean and safe environment.
155. the effect an organism shows as a result
of exposure B. An environment that meets everyone’s
basic needs.
A. dose
C. An environment that is fully aware of
B. response its daily opportunities.
C. toxic D. none of above
D. risk assessment
161. diseases caused by a pathogen, such as a
156. VOCAB:a contrast that refers to the dif- virus or bacteria
ference in assets and income between indi- A. allergen
viduals in a society or between nations
B. emerging disease
A. wealth gap
C. infectious disease
B. developing nations
D. deadly disease
C. demographic shift
D. population growth 162. organisms build up large concentrations
of toxic substances in their bodies
157. In the last few weeks, the virus found a A. bioaccumulation
source of Cesium137 radiation in housing.
What class of radiation does Cesium 137 B. biomagnification
belong to? C. bioluminescence
A. Ionizing Radiation D. none of above
B. Non-ionizing radiation 163. things as much as possible. For ex-
C. Microwave Radiation ample, use plastic bags more than once.
D. Ultraviolet radiation A. Reduce
158. concentrations of toxins increase through B. Reuse

the food chain C. Recycle
A. bioaccumulation D. Repeat

164. determines how harmful a substance is B. It is impossible to know, we can only

A. pathogens imagine because it cannot be quantified.
B. toxicity C. By counting how many people die each

year in a city due to diseases caused by air
C. toxicology pollution.
D. epidemiology D. By calculating the ratio of factories
165. This is a reaction caused by exposure to and inhabitants in an area.
allergens that trigger the immune system.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
170. the trapping of heat by carbon dioxide
A. allergies and other gases in the air
B. dermatitis A. greenhouse effect
C. scleroderma B. global warming
D. ezcema C. pollution
166. this happens when heavy metals like D. smog

mercury arsenic seep into the sources of 171. Which of these is not an ICPD goal for
drinking water in excessive amounts 2015?
A. cholera A. access to family planning methods
B. amoebiasis B. lower maternal mortality
C. diarrhea C. increase infant mortality
D. heavy metal poisoning D. increase life expectancy
167. Which of these is least likely to happen to 172. the study of how poisons affect health
water as a direct result of a rapid increase
in human population? A. pathogens
A. cholera B. toxicity
B. water borne parasites C. toxicology
C. dysentery D. epidemiology
D. hydroelectricity 173. What is a hazard?
168. CDC social determinants of health A. The likelihood and severity of harm oc-
curring
A. Economic Stability
B. An unexpected incident resulting in an
B. Education injury
C. Social and Community Context C. A control measure to prevent harm
D. Health and Health Care D. Anything that can cause harm to a per-
E. Neighborhood and Built Environment son / people
169. How can we know to what extent envi- 174. consists of prevention and control of
ronmental air pollution harms population disease, injury, and disability associated
health? with interactions between people and their
A. Calculating the environmental burden environment.
of disease. A. Community

B. Community Health B. Employment

C. Environment C. Language and Literacy

D. Environmental Health D. Enrollment in Higher Education
175. Below are basic needs for an environ- E. High School Graduation
ment to be called healthy to sustain life
180. The safe distance between the septic
except..
tank and the well is
A. clear air
A. 10 cm
B. safe drinking water
B. 1000 cm
C. social harmony
C. 100 cm
D. none of above
D. 10 km
176. Planetary Scale
181. Which is not assess by environmental
A. 500-10000 km health that related to humans?
B. Gravity waves, thunderstorms, torna- A. control of diseases
dos, cloudclusters, local winds, urban air
pollution B. food management
C. >10000 km C. safety and crime
D. Global wind systems, stratospheric D. none of above
ozone reduction, global warming
182. Transport of contaminants in or is
E. High-and low-pressure systems, usually more complex than in the
weather fronts, tropical storms, hurri-
A. saliva, air, honey
canes, Antarctic ozone hole
B. water, soil, air
177. Which Millennium Development Goal en-
sures the sustainability of the environ- C. honey, mint, saliva
ment? D. mint, soil, air
A. MDG 8
183. Which is not an air pollutant
B. MDG 7
A. HC
C. MDG 6
B. Ill
D. MDG 3
C. petrel
178. A vector is a(n) D. O2
A. kind of pathogen
184. VOCAB:the total fertility rate for a na-
B. organism that carries pathogens tion that would keep its population size
C. type of infectious disease stable
D. type of emerging disease A. replacement fertility rate
179. Social Determinant of health:Education: B. total fertility rate
A. Early Childhood Education and Devel- C. growth rate

opment D. death rate

185. A respiratory Disease that is caused by 190. If you really cannot use something again,
excessive inhalation of a gas produced by remember to it if possible. Someone
burning fossil fuels and other materials. else can use the material to make new
A. Bronchitis products.
B. Pneumonia A. reduce
C. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning B. reuse
D. Tuberculosis C. recycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
186. Are to be designated based on cli- D. repeat
mate, weather, meteorology and topol-
ogy, which affect the mixture and diffu- 191. Food additives that are allowed to be in
sion of pollutants in the air, share common food in a certain amount are?
interests or face similar development prob-
lems A. Nitrite
A. Air Shed B. Formalin

B. Aero Shed C. Arsenic
C. Air Shed Zones D. Cyanide
D. Aircon Shed
192. What is something a greenhouse gas is
187. VOCAB:Introduction of machinery pow- caused by?
ered by fossil fuels, marked by the shift
from a rural, agricultural-based society to A. Cars
an urban, industry-based society B. Coal
A. Industrial Revolution C. Trucks
B. Greenhouse Effect
D. Boats
C. Endangered Species Act
D. Climate Change 193. an opening in Earth’s crust through which
lava, ash, and gases are ejected
188. Which results in a loss of farm land due
to population growth in a city? A. landslide
A. erosion B. mudslide
B. overgrazing C. volcano
C. suburban sprawl D. tsunami
D. no till farming
194. huge pits where wastes are dumped and
189. A dark brown, crumbly material made buried
from decomposed matter is called
A. landfills
A. compost
B. brown sugar B. ozone layer
C. saw dust C. smog

D. non-biodegradable D. pesticides

195. When planning an investigation, what is A. smoking cigarettes

the purpose of an aim? B. pollution from a factory near your

A. It is the variable that is measured in an school
experiment C. lack of exercise
B. It identifies the purpose of your inves- D. a high-fat diet
tigation
C. It is a statement on the topic you are 201. To help our environment, you should
investigating A. reduce, reuse, and recycle
D. It is a statement on the topic that you B. reduce, repair, and recycle
are investigating
C. reuse, replace, and recycle
196. Which chemical was phased out to assist D. none of above
countries to implement Minamata conven-
tion? 202. is improving the cleanliness and the
sanitation of the environment, keeping it
A. cyanide
from air, water, land and even noise pol-
B. mercury lution so that people will live healthy.
C. droxin A. environmental rehabillitation
D. none of above B. environmental health
197. What is air pollution? C. environmental sanitation
A. something that affects the earth D. none of above
B. Something that affects the air 203. Which of the following process(es) in the
C. Something that affects the water water cycle is/are affected by vegeta-
tion? I. Transpiration II. Interception III.
D. both A and C Runoff
198. the process of measuring risk A. I only
A. dose-response relationship B. II only
B. risk assessment C. I and II only
C. genetics D. I and III only
D. epidemiology E. I, II and III
199. Which of the following effects is always 204. Chemicals that cause cancer.
associated with a tornado? A. Asbestos
A. a storm surge B. Neurotoxins
B. funnel of rotating air C. Teratogens
C. lightning and thunder D. Carcinogens
D. landslides and mudslides
205. It addresses all the physical, chemical,
200. Which of the following is an example of and biological factors external to a per-
a social hazard that cannot easily be con- son, and all related factors impacting be-
trolled? haviors.

A. Community Health C. Your cousin, who has been a farmer for

B. Environmental Health years and uses lots of pesticides.
C. Population Health D. Your aunt, who is a nurse and has ot

to manage an x-ray machine from time to
D. Health Promotion time.
206. Neglecting the health of community leads
211. Which is not an example of renewable en-
to all of the following except..
ergy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Higher crime rate
A. solar energy
B. Chronic diseases
B. wind energy
C. More civic rights
C. biomass energy
D. none of above
D. gas and fuel energy
207. What is environmental fate?
212. An ingredient that used in cyanide fishing
A. What a substance becomes when it en-
ters the environment. A. sodium chloride
B. How environmental agents travel. B. sodium cyanide
C. Motion C. cyanate
D. Media D. none of above
208. a rise in the earth’s temperatures 213. If a population grows larger than its en-
A. global warming vironmental carrying capacity, then
B. greenhouse effect A. death rate may rise.
C. smog B. death rate may fall significantly.
D. ozone layer C. birth rate may rise significantly.
209. What environmental problem reduces the D. immigration rate may increase.
ability of soil to store water and support
plant growth? 214. VOCAB:The average number of years an
individual is expected to live.
A. Soil Erosion
A. life expectancy
B. Oil Spill
B. infant mortality
C. Illegal Mining
C. death rate
D. Deforestation
D. growth rate
210. Who of the following people has more
possibilities of being struck by an environ- 215. colorless, odorless, highly toxic radioac-
mental disease, if we take into account ex- tive gas
posure to damaging agents?
A. radon
A. Your teacher, who doesn’t like sun-
B. pollution
bathing at all.
B. Your great grandfather, who was a pi- C. asbestos
rate for 40 years. D. volcanic ash

216. a large ocean wave 222. As a result of rapid growth of population

A. storm surge and excessive urbanization, has also
increased.

B. tsunami
A. pollution
C. hurricane
B. poor health sanitation
D. earthquake
C. poverty
217. How is demography used when studying D. none of above
the human population?
223. Young children are frequently tested for
A. to compare and predict changes what chemical hazard that was used in
B. to control population size paints and pipes in many homes and build-
C. to enforce laws ings?
D. to take humans into space A. radon

B. asbestos
218. a disease that has appeared in the human
C. carbon monoxide
population for the first time
D. lead
A. infectious disease
B. emerging disease 224. Which gas is produced at landfills?
C. serious disease A. Methane
D. contagious disease B. Ethanol
C. Hexane
219. The following are heavy metals or com-
pounds that are carcinogenic, except: D. Diesel
A. Chromium VI 225. Which of the following is the benefit of

proper waste disposal?
B. Mercury (Hg)
A. Increase toxic emissions
C. Arsenic (As)
B. Spread of any diseases
D. Cadmium (Cd)
C. Smelly pollutions
220. How a population changes in size during D. Avoid water pollution
a specific period of time.
A. growth rate 226. Which is not part of COVID-19 Safety
Health Protocol?
B. infant mortality
A. Maintaining social distancing
C. life expectancy
B. Proper handwashing
D. death rate
C. Wearing facemask and faceshield
221. a mass of snow sliding down a slope D. Travelling for some unessential trans-
A. mudslide actions
B. landslide 227. Chemical that causes cancer
C. snowslide A. Carcinogens
D. avalanche B. Landslides

C. Teratogens 233. Which category of country is given top

priority for aid by the United Nations?
D. Risk assessment
A. least developed nations
228. Occurs when rock and soil slide down a B. developing nations
slope.
C. developed nations
A. Landslide
D. post-industrial nations
B. Volcano
234. Molecular Scale
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Earthquake
A. «2 mm
D. Avalanche B. 2 mm 2 km
229. During which stage of the demographic C. Molecular diffusion, molecular viscos-
transition model is growth the fastest? ity (typical size of a gas molecule <5 x 10-
10 m)
A. 1
D. Eddies, small plumes, car exhaust, cu-
B. 2 mulus clouds
C. 3 E. Global wind systems, stratospheric
ozone reduction, global warming
D. 4
235. powerful storm that forms over the
230. what is one risk of environmental haz- ocean in the tropics
ards
A. thunder storm
A. smoking
B. tornado
B. drive a car without seat belt C. blizzard
C. texting while driving D. hurricane
D. all of above 236. Which of the following is NOT one of the
ways in which a toxic chemical is classi-
231. Which event does not help to control fied?
most of the human population?
A. Its chemical class.
A. disease
B. The source of exposure.
B. war
C. Its effect on specific organ systems.
C. old age D. Its effect on human health.
D. predators E. Whether it is a liquid or solid at room
temperature.
232. VOCAB:factors that threaten or are
harmful to human health 237. Which is not an advantage of biomark-
ers over other exposure assessment meth-
A. hazards
ods?
B. pathogens A. Confirms actual absorption
C. risks B. Integrative over all routes of exposure
D. biology C. Accounts for bioavailability

D. Accounts for differences between peo- 243. The following are example of land pollu-
ple in metabolism tion except:

238. What is a DOH program that promotes A. agricultural wastes
zero open defacation? B. oil spill
A. Jowa Jowa Nasaan Ka Na Program C. urban wastes
B. Tunay na Asenso Pag May Inidoro Pro- D. none of above
gram
244. Which of the following is not a benefit of
C. Unli-Asenso Pag May Inidoro Program
developing renewable energy system?
D. Iwan Nakaraan, Tugon sa Move-On
A. increasing the standard of living at the
Program
level of local employment
239. What is NOT an example of an environ- B. ensuring sustainable development of
mental hazard? inaccessible regions
A. Strep Throat C. creating job opportunities in rural ar-
B. Volcanic Eruption eas
C. Earthquakes D. maximize the migration towards the
urban regions
D. Flood
240. diseases that are new to a population or 245. chemicals that affect the nervous system
have moved into a new area A. carcinogen
A. infectious disease B. teratogen
B. emerging disease C. neurotoxin
C. pandemic D. radon
D. epidemic
246. It is an act providing for an ecological
241. Global increases in carbon dioxide emis- solid waste management program, creat-
sions are primarily due to ing the necessary institutional mechanisms
and incentives, declaring certain acts pro-
A. global warming. hibited and providing penalties, appropri-
B. agriculture ating funds therefore, and other purposes.
C. habitat destruction A. RA 3009
D. fossil fuel use. B. RA 9275
242. The environmental burden of disease C. RA 8749
A. quantifies the amount of disability D. RA 9003
and death caused by environmental risks.
247. WHO means
B. tries to prevent early deaths due
A. World Health Office
to environmental risks.
C. quantifies the amount of deaths B. Worldwide Health Organization
caused by environmental risks. C. World Health Organization

248. Which of these problems can be caused 254. Cannot be broken down by biological pro-
by air pollution? cesses
A. Respiratory problems A. plant waste
B. Reduced food sources for humans B. paper
C. Increased disease for humans C. plastic
D. Decrease in global temperatures D. yard waste
249. dangers that arise from where we work,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
255. chemicals that harm embryos and fetuses
what we eat, and how we live
A. teratagen
A. environmental health
B. carcinogen
B. biological hazards
C. social hazards C. neurotoxin
D. chemical hazards D. asbestos

E. physical hazards 256. What do asbestos, radon, volatile or-
ganic compounds, carbon monoxide, and
250. Which is a destructive change in the envi-
lead all have in common?
ronment which harms health?
A. They are chemical hazards that can be
A. Pollution
found indoors.
B. Climate Change
B. They are highly dangerous carcino-
C. Population gens.
D. Incineration C. Exposure to them cannot be pre-
251. Which of these is NOT an example of hu- vented.
man made pollution? D. They are unnatural and made only by
A. Cutting down trees humans.
B. Forest fires 257. The adverse impact of the non-renewable
C. Driving cars resources include all of the following EX-
D. Farming CEPT:
A. increasing health risks
252. Which of the following is not a biodiver-
sity hotspot in India? B. increasing the risk of the climate
change
A. Western Ghats
C. exhausting the globe from these re-
B. Eastern Ghats
sources in the near future
C. Eastern Himalayas
D. sustainability for current economic
D. Western Himalayas needs only
253. What do toxicologists study?
258. According to the book, which is not used
A. How floods affect human health by demographers to predict changes in a
B. How disease affects human health population?
C. How earthquakes affect health A. commerce
D. How Mudlsides affect health B. migration

C. survivorship curve 263. Which of following gases is most re-

sponsible for retaining heat in the atmo-
D. age structure diagram
sphere?

259. VOCAB:how a population changes in size A. Oxygen
during a specific period of time. B. Ozone
A. growth rate C. Carbon monoxide
B. infant mortality D. Water vapor
C. life expectancy 264. A large ocean wave often created by an
D. death rate ocean floor earthquake is a (an)
A. avalanche
260. Which of the following are harmful to the
environment? B. tornado
C. tsunami
A. Pollution
D. mudslide
B. Ozone layer
C. Smog 265. Energy released when tectonic plates
move or shift, causing the Earth to shake.
D. Acid Rain
A. hurricane
261. The following includes the definition of a B. landslide
carrier of diphtheria, except: C. tsunami
A. Someone who has diphtheria germs in D. earthquake
their throat, but they are not sick
266. VOCAB:The average number of children a
B. There is still a risk of spreading the female member of a population has during
virus around her lifetime
C. No treatment is required to remove A. total fertility rate
Corynebacterium diphtheriae from his
throat B. replacement fertility rate
C. growth rate
D. The infectious period of the carriers
lasts up to 6 months D. death rate
267. broken down easily in the environment

262. Chemicals can move between media or
phases. The degree to which they do so A. biodegradable
depends on a number of properties or at- B. non-renewable resources
tributes of the chemical, including whether
C. hazardous wastes
it is , as well as on its and
D. pesticides
A. melting/boiling points
B. organic or inorganic 268. Viruses, bacteria, and other organisms in
the environment that harm human health
C. physical state are classified as
D. maltose content A. biological hazards
E. maize content B. chemical hazards

C. social hazards C. Compost

D. physical hazards D. Ecolabel
269. What is/are the objective/s of the Wa- 274. The H1N1 (swine) flu first appeared in
ter Safety Plan? Mexico in March of 2009. By June, it had
A. To prevent or minimize contamination spread to 70 different countries, infecting
of water source nearly 30, 000 people. H1N1 is an exam-
ple of a(n)(Now COVID-19)
B. To remove contamination through
NARAYAN CHANGDER
treatment A. chemical hazard
C. To prevent recontamination during B. vector

storage, distribution and handling of drink- C. emerging disease
ing water D. social hazard
D. All of the Above
275. Some Environmental Risk factors are
270. Disease-causing agents that infect hu- A. Polluton,
mans and make them sick.
B. Poverty
A. infectious disease
C. Toxins
B. pathogens
D. All the above
C. teratogens
E. none of the above
D. hurricane
271. Which of the following is not soil pollu- depicts the dose-response relationahip?
tant?
A. The effects of a chemical are not de-
A. Man-made elements used in industry pendent on dose, but instead is dependent
B. Acid rain on the person.
C. Accidental oil spills B. The dose-response quantitatively de-
scribes the association between exposure
D. Burning tree woods
& effect of a toxic compound.
272. Which of the following is NOT a typical C. The dose-response relationship can-
measurement unit used to characterize PM not be quantified, because all chemicals
(particulate matter)? are different.
A. Microns D. Nobody pays attention to dose-
B. ppm response anymore..
C. ug/m3 (micrograms per cubic meter) E. The lower the dose, the greater the re-
sponse.
D. all of the above are relevant to partic-
ulate matter 277. Which of these would not increase life ex-
pectancy?
273. The following is one of the uses of both
organic and non-organic waste and has a A. increased infant mortality
selling value, except: B. improved health care
A. Ecoenzyme C. availability of food
B. Ecobrick D. availability of clean water

278. according to the World Health Or- 283. is a disease that has appeared in the hu-
ganization, is a state of complete physi- man population for the first time, or ex-
cal, mental, and social well-being and not isted for a while but is increasing rapidly

merely the absence of disease or infirmity. or spreading throughout the world.
A. Community A. Infectious diseases
B. Environment B. Emerging diseases
C. Environmental Health C. Toxicology
D. Health D. Epidemiology
279. A chronic allergic disorder characterized 284. human-made liquid or solid wastes that
by episodes of severe breathing difficulty, may endanger human health or the envi-
coughing, and wheezing is called ronment
A. Diabetes A. hazardous wastes
B. Stroke B. pollution
C. Hypertension C. smog
D. Asthma D. ozone layer
280. VOCAB:the study of how environmental 285. Choose 2. Main causes of land pollution
factors affect human health and our qual- are:
ity of life A. Industry
A. environmental health B. Sea dumping
B. demography C. Chemicals
C. biology D. Rubbish/garbage
D. hazardology 286. VOCAB:disease-causing agents
281. A large ocean wave. A. pathogens
A. Tornado B. germs
B. Hurricane C. hazards
C. Tsunami D. bugs
D. Landslide 287. VOCAB:Number of babies out of 1000
that die during their first year of life
282. Which of the following refers to the
excessive sound that causes hearing A. infant mortality
loss, stress, fatigue, irritability, tension, B. child mortality
headaches and high blood pressure?
C. life expectancy
A. Air Pollution
D. growth rate
B. Soil Pollution
288. United Nations’ sustainable develop-
C. Water Pollution
ment goals (SDGs) focus on sustainabil-
D. Noise Pollution ity, health and development to achieve

5.10 Demography 1162
a global approach to preventive health C. acid rain

through all of the following EXCEPT: D. ozone layer
A. improved knowledge network
292. What must happen to meet a steady pop-
B. better policies ulation of 9 billion humans by 2050?
C. short term strategies A. growth rates continue to decrease
D. new, less polluting technologies B. replacement level fertility rate by 2050
NARAYAN CHANGDER
289. During which time did the human popula- C. both
tion grow fastest? D. none of above
A. 1, 000-2, 000 CE
293. Which best describes a community health
B. 1-1, 000 CE program?
C. 5, 000-1 BCE A. It maintains, protects and improves
D. 10, 000-5, 000 BCE the health of all members of the commu-
nity through organized and sustained com-
290. What cause water pollution? munity efforts.
A. Factories produce too much smoke. B. B. It maintains and improves the
health of all members of the community
B. People dump things in the countryside.
through organized and sustained commu-
C. Factories produce too much waste wa- nity efforts.
ter and oil.
C. C. It protects and improves the health
D. none of above of all members of the community through
organized and sustained community ef-
291. products used on crops to control insects forts.
and other pests
D. D. It maintains, protects and improves
A. pollution the health of all members of the commu-
B. pesticides nity
5.10 Demography
1. The process of people coming to an urban A. Large deserts provided many mineral
area is called deposits
A. Urbanism B. River valleys provided rich soil to grow
plentiful crops
B. Urbanization
C. Access to the Atlantic Ocean provided
C. Urban sprawl
trade routes
D. Keith Urban D. Large savanna areas provided protec-
tion from invaders
2. Which statement most accurately de-
scribes how geography affected the 3. Life expectancy
growth of the ancient civilizations of Egypt
(Nile) and Mesopotamia (Tigris and Eu- A. Life
phrates)? B. DEATH

C. Life expectancy 9. Emigration

D. rural exodus A. immigration

B. emigration
4. What word means “The belief in many
deities”? C. migration
A. Deity D. rural exodus
B. Religion 10. The average number of children a woman

gives birth to in her lifetime
C. Polytheism
A. Fertility rate
D. Monotheism
B. Total fertility rate
5. The number of babies that die out of 1, C. Replacement fertility rate
000 babies born is the
D. Mortality rate
A. Life expectancy
11. if TFR>2, this a typical indicator for which
B. Population Density countries?
C. Infant Mortality Rate A. Developped countries
D. Fertility Rate B. Developing countries
C. Not related
6. Why was fresh water important for early
civilizations? D. none of above
A. to drink and fish 12. Define life expectancy
B. to eat A. the average number of years a person
C. to swim in can expect to live, if the conditions at the
time of their birth remain the same
D. to plant crops, fish, drink, and bath in
B. the mean number of years a person in
7. The poorest countries where most of the a developed country will live
people still work in farming or mining, and C. the average lifespan of a person if in-
where industries are few. fant mortality decreases
A. Underdeveloped country D. the mean lifespan of a newborn in a de-
veloping country
B. Developing country
C. Developed country 13. Which is an accurate statement about
world population trends?
D. Don’t click me!!!
A. Population trends include live births,
8. What word means “The belief in one de- death rates, and crop distribution.
ity”? B. Rural populations are declining as
A. Monotheism megacities expand.
C. Japan is one of the least populated
B. Deity
countries in the world.
C. Religion
D. Globally, population growth is now
D. Polytheism zero.

14. A long life expectancy is an indicator of 19. An area in which people have many shared
culture traits.
A. good health care available
A. culture trait
B. poor education
B. culture region
C. rapid growth
C. cultural diversity
D. a high percent of the population under
15 D. cultural diffusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. What is the population distribution of the 20. What invention helped cause civilization to
world today, AFTER the Industrial Revolu- begin?
tion?
A. Farming
A. Most people live in densely populated
B. Powered Machines
coastal urban centers
C. Writing
B. Most people live in primitive caves
D. Hunting
C. Most people only live in the tropical
zone 21. What is the global gender gap.
D. Most people live in villages near rivers A. the difference between pay for men
and women
16. The population migrates
B. wrong its gender pay equity
A. To work
C. measures political empowerment, ed-
B. To play
ucational attainment, economic participa-
C. To paint tion and opportunity, and overall health.
D. To run D. none of above
17. What kind of reason for migration is the 22. Which statement is mostly true:
following:A high paying factory opens in
A. A. Populations in developed countries
another city
are stabilizing
A. Pull
B. B. Populations in developing countries
B. Push are decreasing sharply
C. Involuntary C. C. Developed countries are using re-
sources at high rates
D. none of above
D. A and C are correct
18. What kind of reason for migration is the
following:A drought causes much of the 23. The total value of all goods and services
crops in rural areas to die. produced in a country in one year.
A. Push A. Gross Domestic Product per capita
B. Pull B. Human Development Index
C. Involuntary C. Literacy Rate
D. none of above D. Gross Domestic Product

24. All are a good reasons to have a settle- B. Group

ment site near a river EXCEPT? C. Team

A. For washing D. killer
B. For cooking
30. The total number of people in a square mile
C. For growing crops
or kilometer Is
D. To swim in
A. population
25. What term means “The movement of peo- B. population density
ple from the country to cities in modern
C. rate of natural increase
times”?
D. birthrate
A. population
B. population density 31. Better healthcare and improved living con-
ditions reduce the
C. urbanization
D. population distribution A. Birth rate
B. Food Supply
26. The spread of culture traits from one re-
gion to another. C. Population Growth
A. cultural diversity D. Death rate
B. ethnic group 32. development that meets the needs for

C. culture present generation without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet
D. cultural diffusion their own needs, is referred to as:
27. Kanti Devi told that she works in the field, A. Logistic development
but she gets a part of the produce in ex-
B. Sustainable development
change for money, so what does Kanti
Devi do? C. Generation development
A. No work D. Resources development
B. farm worker 33. Why is a social class model shaped like a
C. agriculturist pyramid?
D. none of above A. More of the population is in the lower
class.
28. The movement of people from one place to
B. The Egyptians were the first to have so-
another is called
cial classes.
A. Migration
C. The number of people in each class is
B. Immigration equal.
C. Emigration D. The top is where all the wealth is.
D. Movement
34. Which of the following is NOT a problem
29. *BREAKTIME* A flock of crows is known associated with rapid growth of a human
as a.. population
A. Murder A. Shortage of firewood

B. Access to clean, safe water 40. Which among these answers are consid-
C. a shortage of arable land ered as Advantage of living in a sparsely
populated area
D. better education and economic oppor-
tunities A. low crime rate
B. Development of shanty towns
35. What term means “The total number of
people in a region”? C. More transport cost
A. population D. Less job opportunities
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. population distribution E. easy availability of healthcare services
C. population density
41. The movement of greater number of peo-
D. demography ple into cities.
36. Meena runs WhatsApp and Facebook on A. Industrial Revolution
her husband’s mobile, so what will you en- B. Urbanization
ter in Smart phone?
C. City Migration
A. Yes
D. Urban Renewal
B. No
C. none of these 42. What kind of population growth has oc-
curred since 1800?
D. none of above
A. Exponential
37. Low developed countries tend to have
B. Civilized
A. Less children
C. Agricultural
B. More children
D. Linear
C. Doesn’t affect the child birth numbers
43. .Kamala Devi told that my husband has
D. none of above given the land as a share, the income from
which the family is fed, so what is the
38. What term means “The charting of popu- main work of the husband?
lations and population change”?
A. not working / unemployed
A. population
B. agriculturist
B. demography
C. my job
D. farm worker
D. urbanization
39. The movement of people from one place to 44. The birth rate and death rate determine a
live in another. country’s
A. migration A. Population density
B. rate of natural increase B. Population distribution
C. Human Development Index C. Population growth
D. Gross Domestic Product D. Demography

45. Describes the way the Population is B. Life Expectancy

spread our over time C. Human Development Index

A. Population Distribution D. Population Density
B. Population
51. average number of years members of a
C. population density population are expected to live.
D. population’s average A. Survivorship rates
46. The number of deaths per 100 individuals. B. migration rates
The in India is 31 deaths per 100. In C. life expectancy rates
the US it is 8.4 per 100.
D. carrying capacity
A. mortality rate
E. age structure diagrams
B. fertility rate
C. life expectancy 52. the birth rate minus the death rate is
D. age structure diagram A. percent population increase
B. percent population under 15
47. What is the name of the symbol or charac-
ter in Chinese writing? C. life expectancy
A. Writing D. literacy rate
B. Calligraphy 53. Main areas of sustainable developments
C. Cursive are?
D. None of the above A. Environment
B. Social
48. Which type of cultural change was seen
when American veterans began opening C. Economic
pizzerias after the end of World War II? D. All of the above
A. invention
54. Which religion was started in the Mid-
B. cultural diffusion dle East by Mohammed, and is the most
C. innovation widespread religion in the Middle East?
D. acculturation A. Islam
B. Christianity
49. What term means “moving to a new loca-
tion”? C. Buddhism
A. immigrant D. Judaism
B. suburban 55. Define demography.
C. migration A. The study of how people behave
D. urban B. The study of human populations
50. How many years an average person in a C. The study of living things and their pop-
country or region can expect to live is the ulations
D. The study of graphs about human
A. Fertility Rate statistics

56. Great Great Great Grandpa Heatherly 61. The annual number of births per 1, 000
used to live in County Cork Ireland. He people.
is on a boat pulling into Ellis Island. He is A. population
from Ireland and to the US
B. birthrate
A. emigrating and migrating
C. death rate
B. immigrating and emigrating
D. rate of natural increase
C. emigrating and immigrating
NARAYAN CHANGDER
62. The total value of all goods and services
D. migrating and immigrating produced in a country in one year is the
57. What term means “ a measure of how
close people live together”? A. Gross Domestic Product Per Capita
A. population B. Human Development Index
B. population density C. Literacy Rate

D. Gross Domestic Product
C. demography
D. urbanization 63. How long the average person will live (in
years).
58. The countries where most of the people A. fertility rate
suffer in poverty with low GDP per capita,
high infant mortality rate, and low life ex- B. life expectancy
pectancy rate is classified as C. Human Development Index
A. Less Developed country D. Physicians Density
B. Newly Industrialized country 64. The carrying capacity of the world is
C. More Developed country A. 0 to 5 billion
D. none of above B. 5 to 6 billion
C. 8 to 9 billion
59. Yearly income and material goods are fac-
tors used to determine D. 10 to 15 billion
A. Political systems 65. A mutual relationship or connection be-
B. Language families tween 2 or more things is called
C. Standard of living A. a correlation

B. demography
D. Population density
C. geography
60. Which three of the following things are cul- D. population pyramid
tural?
A. A person’s skin color 66. Which of the following could be a pull fac-
tor?
B. A bank
A. a destructive huricane in Hati
C. A comic book
B. Freedom to practice whatever religion
D. A volleyball game they want

C. Poor quality schools in Cambodia 72. The average person in India lives 68.56
D. Rocky soil that makes growing crops years from birth to death. This is an ex-
ample of

harder
A. mortality rate
67. The study of population trends
B. fertility rate
A. peopleography
C. life expectancy
B. trendography
D. age structure diagram
C. demography
D. populography 73. What is crude birth rate?
A. the average number of babies born to
68. According to the UN, the earth’s popula-
a woman in her reproductive lifetime
tion will level off at billion by 2100.
B. the total number of babies born by re-
A. 8 billion
productively healthy nationals of a coun-
B. 9 billion try
C. 11 billion C. the average number of babies born in
D. 10 billion a country per year as a %
D. the number of babies born in a given
69. Radhika told that the whole house is plas- year in a country per 1000 people
tered, but the courtyard is made of mud,
so what kind of house is it, what will I 74. What term means “located in the city”?
write?
A. rural
A. Raw
B. urban
B. half-baked
C. migration
C. Pucca
D. immigrant
D. none of above
75. An example of racism
70. of India’s population is under 15
A. This means there are lots of old people A. The nazi internment camps
B. This means that there is a high death B. Slavery in europe America Australia
rate and Norway etc.
C. This means there is a high birth rate C. All of the Above
D. This means that India has a high life D. None

expectancy
76. Literacy Rate means
71. Crecimento natural A. the percent of the population that can
A. Life read and write
B. Natural life B. the rate of fertility
C. Natural crecimientetiotos C. the rate of urban growth
D. Natural growth D. the rate of population change

77. The number of children the average C. Because of low literacy rates
woman has.
D. Because of the low birth rate
A. Infant Mortality Rate
B. Gross Domestic Product 83. Countries that are industrialized are said
C. Physicians Density to be
D. Fertility Rate A. Developing
78. If the death rate is less than the birth rate, B. Capitalistic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
what will happen to the total population
C. Developed
that that region?
A. It will increase D. Communistic
B. It will decrease
84. The best definition of an industrialized na-
C. It will stay the same tion is:
D. none of above
A. Based on farming
79. Which of the following is the formula for
B. Based on literacy rate
doubling time?
A. = crude birth rate-crude death rate x C. Based on large industry
70 D. Based on large government
B. = 70 x natural rate of increase / total
population 85. Overpopulation, religious persecution, and
C. = growth rate-70 * 100 lack of job opportunities have been push
factors for
D. = 70 / growth rate
A. life expectancy
80. A population pyramid shows
A. a graph of age groups and gender B. educational reform
B. a chart of births and deaths C. migration

C. a graph of gender and births D. none of above
D. a chart of age groups and deaths
86. Interview is being held for Geeta Devi’s
81. Rate at which a country’s population 18 month old child. In this house she lives
grows with her husband and her brother-in-law
A. Birth rate has come from Delhi, who has got a job
B. Literacy rate here and is living together in this house.
So how many male members are there in
C. Death rate this house in general?
D. Growth rate
A. 1
82. From the reading in Ch.3, Why did the Irish
B. 2
migrate to America
A. Because of War C. 3
B. Because of Starvation (Famine) D. None of these

87. Which of the following is NOT expected C. Invention

from a “describe on a graph” question on D. Acculturation
the IB Geo exam?

E. Evolution
A. statements about the trend/pattern
on the graph 93. A country that has a high level of infras-
B. some reference to quantification or tructure, high GDP per capita, and low in-
graph data fant mortality rate is classified as:
C. identification of anomalies A. Newly Industrialized Country
D. justification of the trend/pattern B. More Developed Country
shown on the graph C. Less Developed Country
88. The percentage ( % ) of people in a D. none of above
country that can read and write is the
94. What do we call the study of human popu-
A. Literacy Rate lations and how they change?
B. Life Expectancy A. Demography
C. Human Development Index
B. Biodiversity
D. Infant Mortality Rate
C. Human geography
89. The total number of people in a given area. D. Life expectancy
A. population
95. The number you get when you subtract the
B. population density birthrate from the deathrate. It tells you
C. rate of natural increase how fast the population is growing
D. birthrate A. rate of natural increase
90. They live in northern and central India B. population density
A. Mongoloid C. fertility rate
B. Nordic Aryan D. infant mortality rate

C. Bold 96. Another way to compare how well the peo-
D. Dravidian ple of a country live. It uses a country’s lit-
eracy rate, life expectancy, and how much
91. If a plane lands in between US and Canada their money can buy to rank the world’s
where do you bury the survivors countries.
A. United States of America A. Urban
B. Canada B. Human Development Index
C. Neither C. Gross Domestic Product
D. Peru D. Rural
92. Which four of these cause cultural 97. Which of these is most likely to be the first
change? thing to draw someone from a rural area
A. Cultural Diffusion to a large urban city?
B. Innovation A. Job opportunities

B. Sporting events 103. If a location is rural, it is

C. Historic sites A. outside towns and cities
D. Shopping bazaars B. far away from main centres of popula-
tion
98. Meena lives with her husband in a rented
house. Which of the following would you C. within towns and cities
enter? D. none of above
A. husband’s house
NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. A country that is among the world’s rich-
B. mother’s house est.
C. Other (Rental House) A. Developing Country
D. none of above B. Developed Country
99. The reason why people migrate from and C. Underdeveloped Country
to an area D. Don’t click me!!!
A. Push-pull theory
105. To understand and compare how people
B. migration of a country live, uses a country’s lit-
C. life expectancy eracy rate, life expectancy, and how much
their money can buy to rank the world’s
D. Migration rate
countries.
100. How many people live in a given area. A. Urban
A. Population density B. Human Development Index
B. Density C. Gross Domestic Product
C. Population area D. Rural
D. Saturation
106. Study characteristics of human popula-
101. Which characteristic is common to all four tions as well as where people settle.
of these areas? 1. Siberian Plains2. Sa- A. Geographer
hara Desert3. Amazon Rainforest4. Rus-
B. Cartographer
sian Steppes
C. Demographer
A. They are all sparsely populated
B. They are all found on the continent of D. Historian
Asia 107. Replacement rate refers to
C. They are all located near the equator. A. the # of people who must join the
D. They are all in mountainous areas. workforce to support the elderly popula-
tion
102. A rapid population growth means
B. the crude death rate in order to bal-
A. longer life expectancy and low birth ance the population pyramid
rate
C. the average # of babies a woman
B. high birth rate and low death rate should have to stabilise the population
C. low death rate and low birth rate D. the average # of people in the de-
D. low birth rate and high death rate pendent population who need to replace

those in the independent population as a 112. Poor countries tend to have

% A. Less children

108. Radhika Devi told that chlorine tablet has B. More children
been put in the well by the government C. Doesn’t affect the child birth numbers
employee and she drinks water from the
same well, then what do you do before
D. none of above
drinking water, which of the following op-
tion will you choose? 113. Which religion was started in India over
A. do nothing 2000 years ago and is still the most pop-
ular religion in India today?
B. heat the water
A. Hinduism
C. bleach/chlorine tablet available
B. Judaism
D. use alum.
C. Christianity
109. What term means “located between the D. Buddhism
country and a city, made possible due to
cars”? 114. Early humans began to settle along what
geographic feature?
A. Rural
A. mountains
B. Urban B. prairies
C. suburban C. rivers/fresh water
D. immigrant D. deserts
110. Which of the following is an example of 115. Because of its rapidly growing popula-
forced migration? tion, China adopted a policy of one child
per family in 1979. The country also out-
A. Africans being taken from Africa to be
lawed early marriage. A man must be
sold into slavery
22 and a woman must be 20 before they
B. A family moving to the US from Mexico can marry. Those policies reduced China’s
in search of work population growth dramatically. In 2015
C. Europeans establishing colonies in the China ended the One Child Policy, but its
New World effects are still being felt. What is one
way the One Child Policy will impact Chi-
D. People leaving Benin for better farm- nese society?
ing conditions
A. Rural areas will gain population.
111. In the year 2010, the UAE recorded a to- B. Urban areas will lose population.
tal population of 8, 264, 000 and 17, 023 C. Within the coming years China will ex-
deaths. calculate the CDR perience a shortage in workers.
A. 2.06 D. Chinese families will grow too large.
B. 0.00206
116. The number of babies that die for every
C. 485 1, 000 babies born.
D. 485460 A. Life expectancy

B. Physicians Density 122. India averages 2.33 births per woman,

the US 2.00 and Pakistan 3.48. This is an
C. Infant Mortality Rate
example of
D. Fertility Rate
A. mortality rates
117. Having a variety of cultures in the same B. life expectancy
area. C. survivorship
A. ethnic group D. fertility rates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. culture trait
123. Countries working towards industrializa-
C. culture diversity tion are said to be
D. culture region A. Developing
B. Capitalistic
118. What is a period of large-scale cultural
change called? C. Developed
A. Revolution D. Communistic
B. Tradition 124. The businesses that provide a manufac-

turing activity is a:
C. Society
A. Farm
D. Conversion
B. Ranch
119. Uses patterns or colors to show how C. Industry
many people live in a given area.
D. Urban area
A. Population map
125. Average number of children parent must
B. Density map have to replace themselves
C. Population density map A. Fertility rate
D. Population saturation map B. Total fertility rate
C. Replacement fertility rate
120. affect were people settle.
D. Mortality rate
A. Factors
B. Environmental Factors 126. These are the South Asian Religions EX-
CEPT one
C. Physical Factors
A. Hinduism
D. Human Factors
B. Islam
121. A graph that shows the distribution of C. Christianity
various age groups in a population is called D. Buddhism
A. a line graph E. Zoroastrianism
B. a bar graph
127. Movement of people to cities and the
C. a pie graph growth of cities
D. a population pyramid A. naturalization

B. push-pull theory 133. of the world’s population now live on less

C. ruralization than % of the Earth’s surface.

D. Urbanization A. 2
B. 5
128. Which type of cultural change is the cre-
ation of the smart phone? C. 10
A. cultural diffusion D. 15
B. innovation
134. How many persons lives in Cairo if its
C. invention area is 528 km2 and the population den-
D. acculturation sity is 46349 people/km2
129. The movement of people living in country A. 52 million

A to living in country B is an example of B. 87.7
C. 24472272
A. migration
D. 46349
B. rate of natural increase
C. Human Development Index 135. The study of the population is called
D. Gross Domestic Product A. Population
130. Predictors of population growth include B. People

all of the following except C. Demography
A. Survivorship rates D. Natural growth
B. migration rates
136. Which are the three parts that make up
C. life expectancy rates a society’s culture?
D. carrying capacity
A. customs
E. age structure diagrams
B. traditions
131. The of Indonesians are Muslim C. beliefs
A. 85% D. nature
B. 97%
C. 88% 137. Which of the following is the most likely
effect of building a railroad to reach an
D. 80% area rich in natural resources?
132. The GDP per capita of a country is A. Railroad owners take control of the
$3600. area.
A. This is an indicator of a more devel- B. The number of people that settle in the
oped nation. area increases.
B. This is near the world average. C. There is a sharp increase in movement
C. This is a indicator of a less developed away from the area.
nation. D. Government leaders close the area to
D. none of above future settlement.

138. Southwest Asia is an extremely arid re- B. culture trait

gion that receives less than 18 inches of C. culture region
precipitation each year. Much of the re-
gion is covered by sand, salt, or rocks. D. culture diffusion
Vegetation is scarce except where areas
143. A graph that shows the number of males
have been irrigated and turned into pro-
on the left side and the number of females
ductive farmland. What best describes an-
on the right.
other effect of irrigation?
A. Population pyramid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Increase of political freedoms
B. Population bar graph
B. Growth of settlements
C. Population statistics
C. Expansion of the desert
D. Population dot map
D. Decline in urban population
144. diagram that shows the age and
139. Population change formula is:
male/female distribution of a population,
A. (Birth + Emigration)-(Death + Immi- where the youngest are at the base and
gration) the oldest at the top
B. (Birth + Emigration) + (Death- A. dependent population
Immigration) B. population pyramid
C. (Birth + Immigration)-(Death + Emi- C. food pyramid
gration)
D. population density distribution
D. (Birth-Emigration)+ (Death-Immigration)
145. What is HDI?
140. Used to study the % of the population
who is likely to survive at a given age. A. Human Development Index
A. Survivorship rates B. Huge Donut Industry
B. migration rates C. High Development Industry
C. life expectancy rates D. Highly Dubious Imagination
D. carrying capacity 146. What determines which social class a per-

E. age structure diagrams son is in?
A. The amount of wealth they have.
141. A country with an aging population is
most likely to face rapidly rising costs for B. How old they are.
which of the following? C. What part of the nation they live in.
A. A growing number of refugees D. What skin color they have.
B. A rising cost in retirement pensions 147. greatly increased the speed of urban-
C. A growing threat of pollution ization.
D. A rise in unemployment A. Civil War
142. The set of beliefs, values, and practices B. Industrial Revolution

that a group of people have in common. C. Great Depression
A. culture D. Population Pyramid

148. Out of every 1000 births, the number of 153. *BREAKTIME* How many times do wood-
babies who die before their first birth day, peckers peck per second?
what is this indicator

A. 120
A. Crude Birth rate
B. 20
B. Total fertility rate
C. 50
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Life expectancy at birth D. 5
149. The number of males per hundred fe- 154. Even though the fertility rates are de-
males. clining globally, why the world population
A. Sex Ratio will still grow for sometime.
B. Dependency Ratio A. TFR and world population are not re-
C. Demographic Ratio lated
D. Population Ratio B. A large number of women are already

in their reproductive years (15-45 years).
150. What was the change from only hunt-
ing for food to farming food in villages C. Food resources will increase
called? D. Medical inventions
A. Architectural Revolution
155. A country that is not yet rich, but no
B. Agricultural Revolution
longer poor.
C. Civilization Revolution
A. Underdeveloped Country
D. Industrial Revolution
B. Developed Country
151. TFR stands for:
C. Developing Country
A. Average number of children for a cou-
ple during their reproductive years D. Don’t click me!!!
B. Average number of children for every
1000 persons during their reproductive 156. What term means “Where people are lo-
years. cated in their region? ”
C. Average number of children born to A. population

women during their reproductive years. B. population distribution
D. Average number children mortality to
women in their reproductive years
D. demography
152. Which of the following can destroy envi-
ronmental development in sustainability? 157. Number of children born each year for ev-
A. Manufacturing electric cars ery 1, 000 people
B. reduced resources consumption pat- A. Birth rate
terns
B. Literacy rate
C. deforestation
C. Death rate
D. Using solar energy instead of Patrol
energy D. Tax rate

158. What was the primary motivation behind C. paint

rural-to-urban migration? D. run
A. steady employment
164. Environment performance is for , so-
B. plentiful land cial performance is for , and economic
C. religious freedom performance is for measures.
D. fear of crime A. people, profit, planet
159. What are the units for Crude Birth Rate B. planet, people, profit
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and Crude Death Rate? C. profit, people, planet,
A. % of total population D. planet, profit, people
B. % of zombie population 165. A country with a rapidly growing youth
C. per 100 people population will need to invest in
D. per 1000 people A. retirement communities
160. Natalie left Bosnia in 1993. At the time, B. schools

the country was at war and she faced dis- C. farms
crimination due to her ethnicity. Based on D. city halls
this information, Natalie was a(n)
A. immigrant to Bosnia 166. Poor medical facilities Low paid jobs
Adult literacy rates 55%-poor education
B. Serbian emigrant prospectsLife expectancy 72 yrs40% Un-
C. seasonal migrant employedare considered as:
D. refugee A. Pull factors for migration
161. Literacy Rate refers to B. Push factors for migration
A. the percent of the population that can C. Features for the developing countries
read and write D. typically applies on stable and declin-
B. the rate of fertility ing populations.
C. the rate of urban growth 167. The GDP divided by a country’s popula-
D. the rate of population change tion. It helps to show how wealthy (or
not) a country’s people are.
162. A long life expectancy is a sign of A. Gross Domestic Product per capita.
A. good health care B. Physicians Density
B. poor education C. Infant Mortality Rate
C. rapid growth D. Gross Domestic Product
D. a high percent of the population under
15 168. which of the following is NOT a goal of
sustainable development?
163. What other cause can cause the arrival of A. Family planning to control population
immigrants in the future? size
A. dance B. create jobs to reduce unemployment
B. climate Change and poverty

C. Use new technologies such as Tesla ve- D. Financially supporting poorer coun-
hicles that run on electricity tries

D. Outbreak of a new disease that is left 174. Phenomenon by which the inhabitants of
untreated the towns went to live in the city to work
169. The % of people in a country that can A. immigration
read and write. B. emigration
A. literacy rate C. migration
B. life expectancy D. rural exodus
C. Human Development Index 175. The per capita GDP for India is $6600
D. Infant Mortality Rate while it is $64, 767 in the US. A lower
standing of living and poor income is
170. Which religion was started in India by A. This is a sign of a developed country
Buddha but today is mostly practiced in
East Asia and Southeast Asia? B. This is near the world average
A. Judaism C. This is a sign of a less developed coun-

try
B. Buddhism
D. none of above
C. Christianity
176. Demography is the science that studies
D. Christianity
A. Population using vital statistics such
171. The turning point in human history that as births, deaths, ages
allowed for rapid growth due to better liv- B. How things change overnight in the
ing conditions news
A. Agricultural revolution C. How people react to their climate
B. Industrial revolution zones
C. The red scare D. When people want to leave the country
D. The era or reconstruction 177. Which religion was started in the Middle
East by Abraham and Moses, and is the
172. Since the mid 1800’s, the human popula- major religion with the fewest followers
tion is experiencing today?
A. exponential growth A. Judaism
B. logistic growth B. Hinduism
C. carrying capacity growth C. Islam
D. limited resource growth D. Christianity
173. Responsibilities on developed countries 178. If Mohini’s husband’s name is Suresh

to reach sustainability: Chowdhary then what is his caste?
A. Reducing TFR A. Pasi
B. More woman education B. Brahmin
C. Conduct research for new energy re- C. information is incomplete
sources D. don’t know

179. Which religion was started in the Middle 184. Physical features often influence where
East by Jesus, and is the most widespread people live. Which type of environment
religion today? typically has the highest population den-
A. Judaism sity?
A. hills, mountains, and plateaus
B. Buddhism
B. flat, fertile plains and river valleys
C. Christianity
C. wet bogs and swamps
D. Islam
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. dry and barren desert regions
180. Average number of people who live in a
square mile 185. A developed country has a /an that
meets the needs of its people. Such as
A. population density roads, water treatment plants, schools
B. population average and hospitals.
C. population distribution A. arable land
D. population B. infrastructure
C. interstate
181. What term means “A person who moves
to a new location”? D. demography
A. migration 186. Land that can be used for farming is called
B. urban A. arable land
C. immigrant B. infrastructure land
D. rural C. interstate land
D. demograpic land
182. The number of doctors for every 1, 000
people in a country. 187. An activity or behavior in which people
A. Physicians Density often take part.
B. Fertility Rate A. culture
C. Gross Domestic Product B. culture trait
D. Gross Domestic Product per Capita C. culture diversity

D. cultural diffusion
183. Population momentum is
188. Where did racism develop.
A. the ability to predict the future using
demographic statistics A. Ancient Greece
B. the temporary growth of a popula- B. Ancient Rome
tion despite falling birth and total fertility C. Ancient Egypt
rates
D. Chinese Dynasty
C. the temporary decline of a population
despite falling death rates & total fertility 189. What is demography
rates A. Geography of the earth
D. the tendency for a population to keep B. Geography of race, ethnicity and gen-
growing despite increasing death rates der

C. geography of humans and there habits 195. of the world’s population live within
miles of an ocean.

D. none of above A. 100
190. A measure of the number of people living B. 200

in an area. C. 300
A. population D. 500
B. population density
196. Used to study the ages of the population
C. rate of natural increase at a given time.
D. migration A. Survivorship rates
191. Percentage of people who can read and B. migration rates
write C. life expectancy rates
A. Birth rate D. carrying capacity
B. Literacy rate E. age structure diagrams
C. Death rate
197. Mr. Lombard’s Great-Great-
D. Growth rate Grandmother was born in Poland and
192. Population pyramids show moved to the US permanently in 1911.
Mr. Lombard’s Great-Great-Grandmother
A. age groups, gender, and population is a(n)
size
A. immigrant to the US and an emigrant
B. Ethnicity, age groups, and population from Poland
size
B. emigrant from the US and an immi-
C. age groups, ethnicity, and religion grant to Poland
D. age groups, gender, and religion. C. immigrant to both the US and Poland
193. What is prejudice D. refugee and a migrant from the US
A. Judging someone without prior knowl-
198. If in Country A in 2013, there were 3000
edge
births, 500 deaths, newly arrived expatri-
B. Judging someone based on appear- ates of 300 and departing expatriates of
ance 500, what was the change in population?
C. Judging someone with prior knowl- A. 3300
edge
B. 2300
D. none of above
C. 4300
194. The basic facilities and services that sup- D. 1300
port a community is the
A. interstate 199. The GDP divided by a country’s working
age population is and it can indicate
B. infrastructure how wealthy (or not) the country’s people
C. mortality are.
D. fertility A. Gross Domestic Product Per Capita.

5.11 Mental Health 1182
B. Physicians Density do?

C. Infant Mortality Rate A. Private Vatan Bhogi
D. Gross Domestic Product B. non agricultural skilled labor
200. On being asked, Geeta Devi told her C. my job
caste as Paswan, so what is her caste? D. Other
A. a Dalit caste
B. Pasi 202. “Demo” means
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. information is incomplete A. study of
D. None of these B. population history
C. Human population statistics
201. Meena’s husband runs coaching classes
at home, so what kind of work does he D. none of above
5.11 Mental Health

1. Assists people with everyday problems. A. Emotionally
A. psychologist B. Actively
B. psychiatrist C. Physically
C. social worker D. Mentally
D. none of above 5. What kinds of people get mental illness
2. Pick a brain gym activity that you remem- A. only young people
ber from our presentation? B. only people that look ill
A. Cross crawls C. only old people
B. The thinking cap D. all groups of people can get mental ill-
C. Double Doodle ness
D. Active arms 6. where would a social worker work?
3. Why did prison reform happen. A. Walmart
A. Prisons weren’t a good place for men- B. Burger king
tal health patients C. A pharmacy
B. Prisons weren’t a good place for run- D. Social services
away children and orphans
E. A school
C. Prison’s needed to be improved over-
all and include education 7. Complete the statement, “A picture is
worth a thousand “.
D. All of the Above
A. Pesos
4. Some one who is active daily, able to per- B. words
form daily activities and has a healthy
body size and weight is said to be C. pixels
Healthy. D. memories

8. May take up to 12 years to become a C. Oxford University

?
D. University of England

A. Psychiatrist
B. Social worker 14. Feelings of hopelessness and sadness that
lasts for more than a few days.
C. Psychologist
A. Major Depression
D. none of above
B. Phobias
9. symptom
C. Eating Disorders
A. something that provides direction or
D. Hypochondria
advice
B. a sensation associated with a particu- 15. Which word corresponds to s’attarder
lar disease sur?
C. a mistaken or unfounded opinion or A. to stop
idea
B. to linger on
D. the failure to follow rules or comply
C. to wait for
10. I can’t get out of bed because I’m filled D. to be late
with sadness.
A. Mental Health 16. The examination period for an Emergency
Examination Authority (EEA) is how many
B. Mental Illness
hours?
C. Both
A. 6
D. none of above
B. 1
11. Who did this study? In other words, what C. 3
university did research on this topic?
D. 24
A. University of Virginia
B. West Virginia University 17. Belief in your ability to achieve something
C. Oxford University A. Self esteem
D. University of England B. Feelings
12. A feeling of uncertainty, lack of conviction. C. Confidence
A. Fear D. Happiness
B. Doubt
18. What are the two most overriding mental
C. Worry health policies created at the federal level
D. Distrust include
A. Mental Health Policy Act of 1996
13. Who conducted this study? In other words,
what university studied this? B. Mental Health Parity Act of 1996
A. University of Virginia C. Americans with Disabilities Act
B. West Virginia University D. Americans with Domestic Abuse

19. Is something we have experienced in the 24. Entry level jobs require a bachelors in psy-
past that reminds us of negative things chology or sociology.
A. bad experience A. psychologist
B. trauma B. psychiatrist
C. trigger C. social worker
D. bad dream D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. All of the following are ways to show re- 25. About how many video game players were
silience in the study? (Which number is the closest
A. have a positive attitude estimate? )
B. build good relationships A. 3, 000

C. ability to regulate and manage emo- B. 30, 000
tions C. 30
D. learn by your mistakes D. 3
E. look after yourself-physically, emotion-
26. If an examination is conducted at a place
ally, etc.
other than a AMHS or PSHSF the subject
21. What is the least effective way of dealing person can be detained at that place for a
with a mental health challenge or mental period of:
illness? A. not more than 1 hour, starting when
A. keeping feelings bottled up inside the person is found at the place
B. telling a trusted adult how you feel B. not more than 6 hours, starting when
the person is found at the place
C. staying at a hospital for a brief period
of time C. not more than 3 hours, starting when
D. meeting with a mental health profes-
sional D. not more than 12 hours, starting when
22. At what gender is more prevalence of any
Mental illness? 27. Which is NOT a symptom of depression?
A. older male A. feeling sad for a long time
B. young male and female B. mood swings
C. older female C. feel hopeless
D. All of the above D. low heart rate
23. This is the stage of the grief reaction in 28. Identifying with and sharing another per-
which deep sadness sets in. son’s feelings.
A. Anger A. Empathy
B. Denial B. Resilience
C. Depression C. Optimistic
D. Bargaining D. Emotions

29. mark a “TIP” to protect our mental health B. social worker

A. DON’T SLEEP C. psychologist

B. EAT FAST FOOD D. none of above
C. THINK POSITIVE 35. Which of the following would most likely
D. none of above be an example of eustress?
30. Who uses a fidget toy? A. death in the family
A. Her sister B. final exams

C. parents’ divorce
B. Her friend
D. physical injury
C. She does not say
D. none of above 36. How did scientists figure out how long the
participants played their games?
31. A friend of yours has experienced some
A. They asked the players how long they
life changes, seems tired all of the time,
played for
has lost weight, and has trouble concen-
trating on schoolwork. What might you B. They guessed
infer about her mental health? C. They used a stop watch
A. He or she is sleeping too much D. They got the information from their de-
B. he or she may be experienceing devices/consoles
pression
37. Being Open-Minded and playing by the
C. he or she is experiencing normal ado- rules
lescent feelings
A. Fairness
D. he or she may not have enough friends
B. respect
32. Which of the following influences a per- C. Citizenship
son’s personality:
D. Responsibilty
A. Heredity
38. What is the MOST likely reason the author
B. Behavior
included information about the COVID-19
C. Environment pandemic?
D. All the above A. to suggest that video games provide a
safe and healthy entertainment option for
33. irrational fear of a particular object, situa- people who are stuck at home
tion, or place
B. to show that people who play video
A. panic attack games are less likely to get or spread
B. OCD COVID-19
C. anxiety C. to suggest that understanding the link
D. phobia between video games and mental health
is more important now than before
34. If you have problems caused by neglect, D. to show that the pandemic has led to
you go to a? booming business for video game compa-
A. psychiatrist nies

39. Body does not recover; wear and tear oc- 44. What is the function of the reptilian com-
curs; risk of injury increases plex?
A. exhaustion A. Balance
B. alarm B. Heart rate & breathing
C. resistance C. Language
D. road rash D. Co-Ordination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. Hiring managers and college admissions of- 45. A college student seeks help from the coun-
ficers are some of the people who use so- seling center because he is experiencing
cial media and other Internet resources to frequent episodes in which he has a rapid
research candidates for employment. heart rate, difficulty breathing, and feel-
A. Maybe ings of impending death. These episodes
often result from feelings of terror for no
B. False apparent reason. A likely diagnosis for
C. True this student’s symptoms could be what?
D. none of above A. Social phobia
41. Marla seeks therapy from a clinical psy- B. PTSD

chologist psychiatrist because she is tense, C. Panic Disorder
has difficulty sitting still, and is continually
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
worried about the future. She most likely
has symptoms of what particular mental 46. Hunter is always aware of the time. He
health disorder? is incredibly driven, competitive, and suc-
A. Panic disorder cessful. However, he is not the most pa-
tient person, and he also has issues with
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
stress. What personality type best de-
C. OCD scribes him?
D. Depression A. Type A
42. Your have/has a lot to do with your B. Type B
physical health. C. Type C
A. Emotions D. None of the above
B. Activity
47. If an egg is broken by outside force, life
C. Sleep ends. If broken by an inside force,
D. Behavior A. chicken lives
43. Feeling sad or about things all the time B. life begins
will affect our mental health. C. egg rotten
A. enjoying D. piyek goes out
B. feeling happy
48. Which of the following factors is most
C. worrying likely a psychological influence on mental
D. playing health?

A. Your parents divorcing while you are C. Stigma

young D. Policies

B. A genetic predisposition
54. When multiple risk factors exist, this can
C. Feeling socially isolated lead to an increased sensitivity. This is
D. Having below-average intelligence A. Social development
49. A protective factor .. B. Cumulative risk
A. Stops someone from getting a mental C. Self-efficacy

disorder D. Genetics
B. Is effective only with people without 55. A psychological dysfunction that involves
genetic vulnerability impairment in the ability to cope with ev-
C. Reduces the risk of getting a mental eryday life distress, and thoughts, feel-
disorder ings or behaviours that are atypical of
the person and may also be inappropriate
D. Is only effective in young people
within their culture.
50. What is the oldest part of the brain? A. Mentally Healthy
A. Human Brain B. Mental Health Problems
B. Mammalian Brain C. Mental Health Disorder
C. Reptilian D. none of above
D. none of above 56. A friend of yours seems to always buy
things. She says shopping keeps her from
51. Which of the following influences on your being bored and she can’t seem to stop.
personality do you have the most control She may suffer from
over?
A. she may have parents that don’t care
A. Behavior about her
B. Heredity B. she may be a perfectionist
C. Enviornment C. she may have an alcohol addiction
D. All The Above D. she may have a shopping addiction
52. An eating disorder in which a person reg- 57. Psyche-
ularly has an uncontrollable urge to eat A. having to do with the nervous system
large amounts of food, without purging
B. having to do with the body
A. Anxiety disorder
C. having to do with the mind
B. Binge eating disorder D. having to do with emotions
C. Phobia
58. The ability to recover from problems or
D. Obsession loss.
53. What characteristics or concerns surround A. Empathy
mental health concerns? B. Optimistic
A. Mystery C. Emotions
B. Misinformation D. Resilience

59. Grief is 64. a positive social-emotional environment

A. a temporary feeling of sadness caused A. improves self-respect.
by mistakes a person has made. B. has severe penalties for mistakes.
B. an avoidable feeling of loss for those C. produces feelings of alienation.
who practice healthful living.
D. all of the above.
C. intense emotional suffering caused by
loss, disaster, or misfortune. 65. Generally being able to handle the
stresses and changes of everyday life.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. almost always experienced prior to a
A. Mental and Emotional Health
loss.
B. Physical Health
60. For an Examination Authority (EA), who C. Overall Health
may examine a person to decide whether
to make a recommendation for assessment D. none of above
for the person? 66. Feeling stressed at school because I have
A. a doctor a deadline coming up
B. an authorised mental health practi- A. Mental Health
tioner B. Mental Illness
C. a police officer C. Both
D. any person D. none of above
67. Which selection from the article BEST sup-

61. in 4 people will experience this in their life.
ports the idea that electronic data is more
A. Mental Health reliable than survey data?
B. Mental Illness A. The research results are based on sur-
vey responses from people who are 18
C. Both
and older.
D. none of above
B. Their responses were then matched
up to the amount of time spent playing the
62. Many people feel ‘bored’ when they
games, which was provided by the game
A. have many things to do companies.
B. forget to do something C. Still, experts who weren’t involved
in the research said it showed some
C. remember to do something
strengths, such as accurately measuring
D. have nothing to do game playing time.
D. We cannot say for sure that increased
63. What is health?
wellness was caused by playing the two
A. It is a state of physical well-being video games.
B. It is a state of mental well-being 68. If you are experiencing symptoms of men-
C. It is a state of social well-being tal illness for a long time, it’s time to:
D. A state of complete physical, mental A. use coping strategies

and social well-being B. keep your feelings private

C. talk to a stranger so they don’t tell any- 74. What is a natural mood lifter
one you know about your feelings A. Physical activities

D. get more sleep B. Mental Activities
69. Seeing one-eyed monsters would be a(n) C. Social Activities
Thinking the bank teller is stealing
your money would be a(n)
A. delusion; compulsion 75. What factor of mental health could help
children?
B. obsession; delusion
A. Love from parents
C. hallucination; compulsion
B. Junk food
D. hallucination; delusion
C. Don’t have enough sleep
70. WHICH one is a good recomendation for
mental health? D. Thinking bad stuff about yourself
A. play video games all night 76. It should be outlined in the policy as to how
B. play sports regularly mental health indicators will be recognized
Ex. All staff will be trained in how to rec-
C. feel sad everyday ognize warning signs of common mental
D. none of above health problems.
71. Fugue State A. Identifying mental health needs and
warning signs
A. when a person completely loses track
of time and self-awareness for an ex- B. Managing disclosures
tended period of time C. Policy Statement
B. sleepwalking D. Confidentiality
C. severe symptoms that affect how you
feel, think, and handle daily activities, 77. What is a key feature of attachment?
such as sleeping, eating, or working A. Enables children to trust, nurtures a
D. having disturbing false fixed beliefs sense of identity and a sense of belonging
and security
72. Which of the following is a benzodi- B. Teaches children to self-regulate emo-
azepine? tion
A. Benzopine C. Teachers how to express how we feel
B. Tazepam as well as give and receive love
C. Diazepam D. Effective our brain development, learn-
D. Lazypram ing and social functioning
73. Which of the following is not a value that 78. People should work out their own mental
helps build character? health problems.
A. compassion A. True
B. aggressiveness B. False
C. honesty C. Not Sure
D. fairness D. none of above

79. ASD Level 2 C. engaging in high-risk behaviors

A. Requires substantial support D. attending a birthday party
B. Deficits in verbal and nonverbal com-
munication, social impairments apparent 84. A perfectionist is
with supports in place, reduced or abnor- A. good for you
mal responses to social situations
B. makes you special
C. Difficulty coping with change, inflexi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ble behaviour, restricted or repetitive be- C. is a roadblock
haviours observed easily and interfere
D. makes you stand out
with functioning
D. Distress and difficulty changing focus 85. are unwanted repetitive thoughts.
or attention
A. Obsessions
80. What causes mental health problems?
B. Compulsions
A. Severe stress
C. Delusions
B. Childhood trauma
D. Halucinations
C. Bereavement
D. All of the above 86. Satisfaction from a career or from being a
student at school is an example of?
81. WHICH DISORDER IS KNOWN FOR RELIV-
ING PAST MEMORIES, OR FLASHBACKS, A. Intellectual Health
THAT DISTURB YOUR CURRENT LIFE?
B. Occupational Health
A. DEPRESSION
C. Mental Health
B. OCD
C. PTSD D. none of above
D. BIPOLAR 87. What is the name of the pyramid for hu-

82. Your friend is making videos and sharing man needs?
them online. In one of the videos he has A. Pyramid of Needs and Desires
his road address and house number. What
should you do? B. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
A. Nothing, it is his decision. C. Pathological Needs Hierarchy

B. Report it to the website. D. none of above
C. Suggest he take it down. He shouldn’t
share videos online. 88. refers to the end of the physical being of a
person that is caused by an illness, aging,
D. Talk to him about personal information or an accident.
and setting privacy settings.
A. death
83. Which of the following is NOT an indicator
that someone may be considering suicide? B. grief
A. giving away belongings C. loss

B. losing interest in hobbies/activities D. none of above

89. Rhonda has been feeling extremely sad D. become different in some particular
lately. She’s not sure why but she just way
can’t seem to do anything that will make

her happy. She used to love going to the 94. What does he say about fidget toys?
park with her friends, but that doesn’t A. He has one.
sound fun any more. She cries all the
B. He has seen them.
time and sleeps a lot. What mental health
disorder is Rhonda most likely struggling C. He has never seen them.
with? D. none of above
A. OCD
95. What are the functions of behaviour?
B. Bipolar Disorder SEAT
C. PTSD
A. Self regulation
D. Depression
B. Escape/ Avoidance
90. According to the biopsychosocial model, C. Attention
lack of employment is:
D. Tangibles
A. A biological factor
96. If the city of Amarillo has a population of
B. A psychological factor
190, 695 and I round to the nearest thou-
C. A social factor sands place. What is the correct answer?
D. none of above A. 191, 695
91. Which of the following is a biological risk B. 191, 000
factor in the development of mental ill- C. 21, 000
ness?
D. 32, 695
A. Low self-efficacy
B. Loss of social network 97. A state of emotional and social wellbeing
in which individuals realise their own abil-
C. Resistance to medication ities, can cope with the normal stresses
D. Poor memory of life, can work productively and can con-
tribute to their community.
92. Whihc help with mental health
A. Mentally Healthy
A. 1
B. Mental Health Problems
B. 2
C. Mental Health Disorder
C. 3
D. none of above
D. 4
98. A person’s condition with regard to their
93. Anxiety
psychological and emotional well-being
A. an unpleasant emotion characterized
A. Mental Health
by extreme worry
B. Well-being
B. a mode of being or form of existence
of a person or thing C. Behavior
C. stay away from D. none of above

99. What are panic attacks often mistaken B. only doctors can make capacity as-
for? sessments
A. Heart attack C. everyone has the right to make unwise
B. Seizure decisons
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. supports people to make their own de-

cisons
D. Concussion
105. the two most common types of treatment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
100. hallucination for mental disorders
A. a belief so strong no matter of evi-
A. therapy and medication
dence or facts can change it
B. medication and withdrawal
B. seeing or hearing something that isn’t
there C. therapy and counseling
C. exhibiting the qualities that identify a D. medication and being alone
group or kind
106. They are linked to emotions and are the
D. of first rank or importance or value body’s way of helping us understand dif-
ferent emotions
101. An illness that affects the mind and re-
duces a person’s ability to function; abnor- A. self-esteem
mal thoughts, feelings or behaviors is a B. behaviour
A. stressor C. feeings
B. mental disorder D. mental health
C. stress
107. Transitions blends mental health into a
D. general adaptation syndrome life skill resource to help transition into
102. What tool is used to record a persons be- into post-secondary settings.
havioural and cognitive functioning A. First-year high school students
A. risk assessment B. First-year secondary school students
B. 5 P model C. First-year elementary school students
C. Risk formulation D. First-year college students
D. MSE
108. How many students will experience a
103. ‘Being mindful of how you feel’ is one of mental health issue?
the following ways to well-being: A. 1 in 5
A. Give B. 5 in 10
B. Keep Learning C. 1 in 100
C. Take Notice D. 1 in 500
D. Be Active
109. A mindset with the belief that you are in
104. Which of the following is not an assump- control of your own ability, and can learn
tion made in the mental capacity act and improve
A. assumes capacity A. Fixed mindset

B. Short Mindset 115. A social-emotional pollutant is

C. Good mindset A. an inadequate law regarding health is-

D. Growth Mindset sues.
B. an unsafe physical environment.
110. Lithium can be described as
C. an interpersonal contact that discour-
A. a mood enhancer
ages responsible choices.
B. a mood stabiliser
D. a support system for people with ad-
C. a mood reflector diction problems.
D. a mood inducer
116. Which of the following is a stigma
111. What did Dorothea Dix teach
A. Labels
A. elementary school
B. negative or incorrect beliefs
B. high school
C. unfair treatment
C. sunday school
D. all of the above
D. ece
117. The following statements are signs of
112. How did the American society view men-
stress EXCEPT
tal illness before Dorothea Dix’s reform
A. You feel all sorts of Positive vibes and
A. Something to be treated with care
feelings
B. Something that should be punished
B. You experience digestive issues
C. Something that should be celebrated
C. You experience sleep issues and low
D. A false idea made up by people to ex- energy
cuse their bad actions
D. Breathing can be difficult sometimes
113. What is the criteria that divides the 3 lev-
els of healthcare? 118. Identify patients strengths and weak-
nesses.
A. Chronicity
B. Severity/Complexity A. social worker
C. Nearness B. psychiatrist
D. Age C. psychologist
D. none of above
114. Displacement is
A. blaming others for actions or events 119. Regarding athlete mental health, policies
for which they are not responsible. may need to address all of the following
B. a healthful way to control and express except:
anger. A. Who pays for the mental health
C. a physical state in which the body is in B. Pre-existing vs developed
the fight-or-flight state at all times.
C. Sport psychology
D. the releasing of anger on someone or
something other than the cause of the D. Screening procedures
anger. E. Who is the athlete

120. What is the title of the Webinar that 125. disorders are illnesses that affect the
Teacher Myka discussed about? mind and reduces a person’s ability to func-
A. Mind Grain:Benefits of Games on Men- tion
tality A. social
B. Mind Games:Benefits of Games on B. eating
Health
C. mental
C. Squid Games
D. physical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. MINDSET:Games for Mental Help
121. Are you a mentally healthy person? 126. Which subheading tells you that the
study in the article still needs to be re-
A. Yes! happiness over mountains and
viewed?
rainbows!
B. Yes! I am. A. Players Played Games, Answered
Questions
C. Yes! Yesterday.
B. Play Time Had A Small Effect
D. none of above
C. Study Still Needs Review
122. A is a way of dealing with or handling
stress D. None of the above
A. coping mechanism 127. Having many networks of friends is
B. to do list known of as a factor in the 4P model
C. strategy A. Predisposing
D. Appointment B. Precipitating
123. is the ability to handle the stresses C. Perpetuating
and changes of everyday life in a reason-
able way. D. Protective
A. Personality 128. People with codependency
B. Empathy A. avoid deep involvement with people
C. Resilience
B. focus on solving their own problems
D. Mental / Emotional Health
C. neglect themselves to try to fix other
124. Defined as “a state of well-being in people’s problems
which the individual realizes his or her
D. talk openly and honestly about their
own abilities, can cope with the normal
feelings
stresses of life, can work productively and
fruitfully, and is able to make a contribu-
129. Which word is NOT a synonym for impair-
tion to his or her community”, according to
ment?
the World Health Organization
A. handicap
A. Mental Disorder
B. Mental Help B. disability
C. Mental Head C. irregularity
D. Mental Health D. none of above

130. Emotional intelligence or EI is the ability B. They are probably just looking for at-
to understand and manage your own emo- tention
tions, and those of the people around you.

C. Immediately tell a parent or trusted
Which of these qualities are characteristic
adult
of individuals high in EI?
D. Talk to your friend about it tomorrow
A. assertive
B. patient 135. What happened in 1841
C. stable A. Dorothea Dix Visited a Jail.
D. good listener B. Dorothea Dix ate a pizza
E. all of the above C. Dorothea Dix was arrested
131. The body changes that occurfrom experi- D. Dorothea Dox Visited a Jail
encing stress is called
A. eustress 136. People relapse when they
B. distress A. return to a previous behavior
C. General Adaption Syndrome B. stick to their plan for recovery

D. none of above C. have a good support network
D. have never had an addiction
132. It must be clear that all disclosures of
mental health concerns remain as confiden-
137. What is the shape of an egg?
tial as possible.-disclosure of self-harm
possibility requires immediate action- A. rectangle
disclosure of a mental health condition
B. oval
only requires a certain number of individu-
als to be informed. C. circle
A. Policy Statement D. none of above
B. Confidentiality
138. This is the stage when aperson experi-
C. Managing Disclosures ences the“Flight or fight” feeling.
D. Policy Aims/Objectives A. alarm stage
133. Which of these is NOT a positive symp- B. resistance
tom of schizophrenia C. exhaustion
A. hallucinations
D. none of above
B. thought disorder
C. apathy 139. Which is NOT one of the three sides of
the health triangle listed in the article
D. delusions
A. Physical
134. A friend is making some dark posts on so-
B. Emotional
cial media about death. What should you
do? C. Mental
A. Ignore it D. Social

140. Artistic B. Sweating

A. talented C. Feeling Sad
B. calm D. Feeling overwhelmed
C. calm 146. Define stress?
D. acetic
A. STRESS IS FEELING PAIN IN YOUR
141. In order, what are the three stages of the BODY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
body’s stress response? B. feeling lonely and tired
A. fatigue, resistance, alarm C. Stress is an avoidable circumstance
B. alarm, resistance, fatigue D. a state of mental or emotional strain
C. resistance, alarm, fatigue or tension resulting from adverse or very
demanding circumstances.
D. alarm, fatigue, resistance
147. When giving help, you should
142. behavior
A. Ask people how they are feeling and
A. something that provides direction or
listen to them talk.
advice
B. Let them know you are there for them
B. characterized by perfect conformity to
and that you care about them.
fact or truth
C. Be positive and invite them to do fun
C. a mistaken or unfounded opinion or
things.
idea
D. all answers are correct
D. clear or deep perception of a situation
148. WHAT DOES NOT HAPPEN DURING THE
143. What is the percentage of people in the
ALARM STAGE?
UAE who suffer from at least one mental
health disorder? A. DIGESTION INCREASES
A. 57% B. BREATHING INCREASES
B. 75% C. HEART RATE INCREASES
C. 85% D. ADRENALINE GETS RELEASED
D. 48% 149. Read the following conclusion. The find-
144. It is the ability to deal with difficult situ- ings of the recent Oxford University study
ation and manages to find solution to the are suggestive, not conclusive. Which sen-
problem. tence from the article provides the BEST
support for the statement above?
A. self-esteem
A. The researchers found that the
B. resilience amount of time spent playing was a small
C. self-concept but significant positive factor in people’s
D. personality well-being.
B. In other words, how happy a game
145. Which of the following is a physical symp- makes you while you play it may have a
tom of stress? bigger impact on mental health than how
A. Feeling angry much time you spend playing it.

C. “The fact that it’s the electronic data 154. When is World Mental Health Day
collected from the device is very good, “ A. October 10
said Paul Croarkin, a psychiatrist.

B. October 01
D. For example, Hilgard pointed out, re-
C. September 10
spondents may have been playing other
games at the same time, for which play- D. October 9
time wasn’t tracked.
155. Select all the examples of unhealthy food
150. When people severely restrict the that should be eaten rarely or in modera-
amount of food they eat because they see tion.
themselves as overweight, they are suf- A. Pepsi
fering from what mental health disorder?
B. Yogurt
A. Anorexia C. Oreos
B. Bulimia D. Honey Nut Cheerios
C. Binge Eating E. Cream Cheese
D. Depression
156. If a person with a mental illness or men-
151. What is the correct order for the stages tal health challenge experiences “stigma”,
of the body’s stress response, otherwise what does that mean?
known as General Adaptation Syndrome? A. labeling someone in a negative way
A. Alert, Resistance, Recovery B. saying bad things about a person;
B. Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion/Fatigue C. believing things about a person that
aren’t true and then making fun of the per-
son
C. Alarm, Resistance, Recovery
D. making someone feel different or pick-
D. Alert, Recovery, Exhaustion/Fatigue
ing on someone because they aren’t like
152. Knowing when and where to seek help, you
and learning skills to apply in the help E. all of the above
seeking interaction, is definition of?
157. uncontrollable fixation on repeated ob-
A. Help seeking knowledge sessions and compulsions
B. Help seeking tendency A. PTSD
C. Help seeking efficacy B. schizophrenia
D. Help seeking literacy C. anxiety
153. What component of health determines D. OCD

how we handle stress, relate to others, 158. Adults are more likely than teenagers to
and make choices? have a mental illness.
A. Physical A. True
B. Mental B. False
C. Emotional C. Not Sure
D. Social D. none of above

159. The general adaptation syndrome (GAS) B. stress

is C. depression
A. a series of body changes that result D. anxiety
from stress.
B. a series of mood swings that result 165. One of the following is an example of a
from stress. compliment:
C. a choice teens can make to help them A. You are late!
NARAYAN CHANGDER
express emotions. B. I like your new haircut!
D. a negative value. C. Your t-shirt is like by brother’s.
160. Being able to adjust to new situations D. You could have done it in a better way.
A. self-concept 166. I feel because he broke my crayons.

B. adapt A. happy
C. self-esteem B. sad
D. change C. scared
161. Benzodiazepines bind to which receptor D. angry

complex 167. Perceive
A. THAT A. become aware of through the senses
B. AND B. of first rank or importance or value
C. BZD C. lacking clarity or distinctness
D. GABA D. characterized by perfect conformity to
162. During which stage of the body’s stress fact or truth
response are hormones released? 168. How you see yourself versus how others
A. Resistance see you will always align?
B. Alarm A. Yes.
C. Fatigue B. No, we are all different.
D. Recovery C. Sometimes, but not always.
163. The ability to handle the stresses and D. none of above

changes of everyday life in a reasonable 169. How is the Oxford University study dif-
way. ferent from past studies on the effects of
A. Emotional Health video games?
B. Personality A. It included measurements of game
C. Mood Swings playing time as well as gamers’ experi-
ences.
D. Confidence
B. It used different mental health and
164. is the body and mind’s reaction to ev- mood metrics than previous studies.
eryday challenges and demands. C. It included device data provided by
A. emotional intelligence game companies.

D. It used popular video games rather 176. Who is more effected by COVID-19 and
than those built for the study. Lockdown Procedures?
A. Under 16

170. The word refers to the things that
make a person stressed. B. 16-29
A. stress C. 30-59
B. stressor D. 60 and over
C. stress management 177. Which of the following word or words de-
scribes anorexia
D. none of above
A. binging
171. She says OCD is disorder. B. purging
A. an anxiety C. self starvation
B. a cognitive D. overeating
C. a psychotic
178. Select all of the following which might be
D. none of above symptoms of poor mental health.
172. Mental health is the health of the A. Anger
A. Eyes B. Feeling Powerless

C. Numbness to Emotions
B. Body
D. Loss of Appetite
C. Mind
E. Lack of interest in activities you nor-
D. Mouth mally love
173. The following are examples of negative 179. Once you have a mental illness, you have
emotions except for: it for life.
A. fear A. True
B. joy B. False
C. anger C. Not Sure
D. nervousness D. none of above
174. A strategy to use time efficiently 180. What is a jail

A. relaxation A. A house
B. physical activity B. A school

C. A doughnut shop
C. time management
D. A place that holds prisoners
D. stress
181. thisstage is a temporary response that
175. The color of Mental Health Ribbon is: carries through the first wave of pain.
A. Blue A. denial
B. Green B. anger
C. Yellow C. bargaining
D. Pink D. none of above

182. Which of the following is an effective 187. Avoidance of experiences that could trig-
way to improve self-esteem? ger memories of a traumatic experience.
A. Use Negative self-talk whenever possi- A. PTSD
ble B. OCD
B. Remind yourself constantly of the poor C. ADHD
choices your made in the past
D. OCBLI
C. Focus on your shortcomings
NARAYAN CHANGDER
188. The Mental Health & High School Curricu-
D. Accept your mistakes and think of
lum Guide is for students aged
them as learning opportunities
A. 6-12
183. Repeated disturbing and unwanted
B. 6-18
thoughts.Ritual behaviors that are per-
ceived as impossible to control C. 12-18
A. PTSD D. 18-22
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder 189. What did the scientists want to find out
C. ADHD in their study? (check all that apply)
D. Phobia A. Which is the best game ever made

B. How games change a player’s mood
184. Resilience is
C. How games teach us English
A. focusing on the negative and expecting
D. How games change our behavior
the worst
B. the ability to recover from life’s difficul- 190. A state of being always angry is called
ties and bounce back from stress A. depression
C. feeling threatened by the stress B. hidden anger
D. ignoring the stress C. procrastination
185. Drinking alcohol D. hostility
A. relieves feelings of anger and depres- 191. What is quarter of 4, 800 litres?
sion A. 400 litres
B. helps solve problems B. 250 litres
C. is a protective factor against depres- C. 4000 litres
sion
D. 1200 litres
D. makes teen depression even worse
192. If a person with mental challenge/illness
186. Which university does Joseph Hilgard experiences a “stigma, “ what does that
teach at? mean?
A. Frederick University A. labeling someone in a bad way
B. George Mason University B. saying bad things about a person
C. Frostburg State University C. calling someone crazy
D. Illinois State University D. all of the above

193. This is a type of mental health that is a 198. All of the following are examples of ma-
natural reaction that involves the mind and jor life changes except
body.

A. Parents getting a divorce
A. Behavior
B. Going away to college
B. Anxiety
C. Mood C. Fighting with parents
D. none of above D. Graduating high school
194. What is an active process of becoming 199. Is mental health important?

aware of and making choices toward a
more successful existence? A. yes
A. Health B. no
B. Wellness C. (blank)
C. Stress D. (blank)
D. Stressor
200. Mental Disorder
195. Something you work towards achieving.
A. low self-esteem A. a state of extreme, sometimes inap-
propriate, happiness
B. goal setting
B. a mistaken or unfounded opinion or
C. refusal skills
idea
D. positive influences
C. an illness that is considered deviant,
196. Ways to manage stress include distressful, and dysfunctional
A. deep breathing. D. an often persistent bodily disorder or
B. exercising disease
C. laughing.
201. Why did Dorothea Dix start helping pris-
D. adopting a positive outlook. oners
E. All of the above.
A. she taught sunday school at a Jail
197. A listed, desired outcome that policy-
B. she had a family member in Jail
makers wish to achieve Ex:At our school,
we will always:-Help students to un- C. she saw the terrible conditions in a Jail
derstand their emotions and experiences
D. She liked prisoners
better-Ensure our students feel comfort-
able sharing any concerns and worries
202. People with a mental illness are generally
A. Policy Aims/Objective shy and quiet.
B. Policy Statement A. True
C. Identifying Mental health needs and
warning signs B. False
D. Managing disclosures C. Not Sure

E. Confidentiality D. none of above

203. Which of the following is NOT a charac- C. Bipolar

teristic of good/mental health?
D. Binge eating disorder
A. Having a sense of purpose
E. Mental Awareness Disorder
B. Being overwhelmed by everyday chal-
lenges 209. -Prevents employers from discriminating
C. Having the ability to make safe, re- against qualified employees on the basis
sponsible decisions of disability-Specifies that mental health
disorders are included in its definition of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Being positive and hopeful about life
disability
204. When did TikTok take off in the US? A. Mental Health Parity Act of 1996
A. In 2018 B. Mental Health Policy Act of 1996
B. During the pandemic
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
C. In 2022
D. Americans with Domestic Act
D. none of above
210. Which of the following is a myth about
205. which of the following refers to sudden
suicide?
and quick onset of symptoms
A. Astute A. Verbal and non-verbal warning signs
often occur before suicide attempts.
B. chronic
B. There is a strong connection between
C. acute depression and suicide.
D. drastic
C. If someone wants to kill themselves,
206. What is NOT a TIP to protect our mental there is nothing that anyone can do.
health? D. Boys successfully commit suicide
A. eat healthy regularly more often than girls.
B. play sports everyday
211. This is a way to help manage stress
C. watch TV every night
A. Emotional Strategy
D. none of above
B. Coping Strategies
207. Where are the neural pathways found
C. Empathy
that are purely instinctual?
A. Cerebrum D. none of above
B. Neocortex 212. Out of these concerns, what do young

C. Mammalian people worry about most during the pan-
demic?
D. Reptilian
A. work
208. Which of the following encompasses men-
tal health conditions? B. school/university
A. Anxiety C. mental health and wellbeing
B. Body Dimorphic Disorder D. household finances

213. Self-respect is C. General Adaptation Syndrome

A. knowing you are better than others D. none of above

B. feeling good about yourself no matter 219. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of
what a mentally healthy person?
C. regard for oneself because of respon- A. Interacts with others in appropriate
sible actions ways
D. excessive appreciation for one’s worth B. Uses adaptive behaviours
214. is the ability to bounce back after a C. Has significant levels of distress
struggle, set back or loss. D. Accepts mistakes and learns from
A. Posititvity them
B. Resilience 220. An overriding statement that effectively

C. Creativity summarizes the purpose and need for the
policy Example:At our school, we are com-
D. Toughness mitted to supporting the mental health and
wellbeing of our students and staff.
215. Which definition defines normality using
numbers? A. Policy Statement
A. Statistical infrequency B. Policy Scope
B. Deviation from social norms C. Policy Aims/Objectives
C. Failure to function adequately D. Identifying Mental Health needs and
warning signs
D. Deviation from ideal mental health
221. If you are formally employed in Ar-
216. Which of the following is NOT a text fea- gentina, you can take care of your health
ture? in
A. Heading A. Public hospital (it will charge it to your
B. Nintendo Switch “obra social”)
C. Subheading B. Private healthcare providers who work
for your “obra social”
D. Caption
C. Private health insurance (only if you or
217. Being healthy includes your employer pays monthly for it)
A. having a body that feels good and D. Any healthcare provider that you
works well choose and you pay for
B. having a healthy mind and body 222. If you wanted to find info in the article
C. not being sick that discussed if play time had an effect on
happiness, which subheading would you
D. all of the above
look for?
218. refers to a stressor’s positive and A. Study Still Needs Review
healthy response from the body. B. Play Time Had A Small Effect
A. Eustress C. Players Played Games, Answered
B. Distress Questions

D. Nintendo Switch game consoles on dis- B. Pulling away from people and usual ac-
play at Nintendo’s official store in Tokyo, tivities
Japan. C. Feeling sad after the loss of a loved
223. This is also referred to as the“gate to- one
ward burnout orstress overload” D. Eating or sleeping too much or too lit-
A. alarm stage tle
B. resistance stage 229. Five emotional responses people go
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. exhaustion stage through when dealing with life crises are
D. none of above A. denying, being angry, escaping with al-
cohol or drugs, being depressed, and re-
224. This is the ability to share and understand covery.
someone else’s feelings
B. denying, being angry, bargaining, be-
A. Forgiveness ing depressed, and accepting
B. Well-Being C. being depressed, running away, bar-
C. Empathy gaining, being angry, and accepting
D. none of above D. none of the above
225. The stress vulnerability model covers bi- 230. Negative self-esteem is
ological, psychological and
A. out of your control
A. impairment of functioning
B. determined by the opinions of others
B. social situation
C. a belief that one is not worthy
C. prediction of future treatment needs
D. not subject to change
D. psychiatric symptomology
231. Warning signs of suicide include
226. She says there are categories of men-
tal health disorders. A. spending a great deal of time with fam-
ily and friends
A. new
B. four B. being concerned with personal appear-
ance
C. five
C. making a direct statement about killing
D. none of above oneself, such as “I wish I were never
227. To have a good mental health avoid born”
A. Thinking D. being concerned with schoolwork on a

day to day basis
B. Speaking about your problems
C. Thinking about your problems 232. What colour is Eric’s jumper?
D. Talking about your problems A. Green
B. Blue
228. All of the following are warning signs of
mental health problems except C. Purple
A. Feeling numb or like nothing matters D. Grey

233. I’ve been feeling optimistic about the fu- B. panic disorder
ture C. specific disorder

A. None of the time D. obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
B. Rarely
239. People may feel ‘jealous’ when
C. Some of the time
A. have something I want
D. All of the time
B. give me something
234. A feeling of sudden or intense fear is C. want something I have
called D. eat something
A. anxiety
240. Frequent changes in emotional state.
B. fear
A. Mood Swings
C. stress
B. Empathy
D. panic
C. Self-Esteem
235. is the ability to recover from prob- D. Emotions
lems or loss
E. Confidence
A. Positive
241. Which of these are a part of the positive
B. Resilience
mental health definition?
C. Remission A. Good self-steem
D. Time B. Controlling everything in our environ-
236. What could be a contributing factor to the ment
development of a mental disorder? C. Feelling happy and well
A. trauma D. Always staying positive, no matter how
B. abuse hard are the cimcurstances
C. genetics 242. PTSD sufferers usually have these that

produce terror and fear of an event
D. injury
A. flashbacks
E. All the above
B. nightmares
237. Which video games were mentioned in
C. vivid memories
the article? Check ALL that apply (there
might be more than one answer) D. all of the above
A. Plants vs. Zombies 243. Read the following selection from the
B. Among Us section “Scientists Debate The Findings.”
He said that this is correlational data.
C. Call of Duty This means that the two kinds of data
D. Animal Crossing in the research-emotional well-being and
video game playtime-are related in a spe-
238. A person feels worried most of the time cific way. But that does not necessar-
when there is little to worry about, and ily mean playing games causes emotional
may have physical symptoms as well. well-being.” Why did the author include
A. general anxiety disorder (GAS) this idea?

A. to explain one of the key limitations of 249. The text feature that describes what is
the study going on in a photograph is called a
B. to show that people who play video A. photograph
games are happier than those who do not B. subheading
C. to explain why the data from the study
C. exclamation point
is unreliable
D. caption
D. to show that some games might have
a greater effect on well-being than others 250. Which one of this is a part of the impor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tance of maintaining mental health
244. I can improve my own mental health and
wellbeing by? A. Helps in the development of desirable
personality
A. Practising mindfulness
B. Exercising and eating a balanced diet. B. All of the above
C. Drinking lots of water. C. Helps in proper emotional develop-

ment
D. Listening to a podcast or facetiming
with a friend. D. Helps in proper social development
245. What is half of eight hundred and fifty? 251. If a person who is physically sick goes to
see a medical doctor, a person who has a
A. 425
mental health problem sees a
B. 400
A. mental health professional
C. 450
B. counselor
D. none of above
C. therapist
246. What percentage of young people saidf D. psychiatrist/psychologist
they feel LONELY during the pandemic?
E. all of the above
A. 15%
B. 67% 252. Some one who is socially healthy will
have the ability to?
C. 51%
A. Keep to themselves at a party or social
D. 82%
event.
247. Which of the following is a social risk fac- B. Problem solve easily and spend a lot of
tor for development of a specific phobia? time alone.
A. GABA dysfunction C. Communicate well with peers and
B. Specific environmental trigger strangers
C. Learning D. none of above
D. Genetic predisposition
253. She says experiences mental health
248. Interviews patients issues.
A. psychologist A. few people
B. social worker B. many people
C. psychiatrist C. everybody

254. One of the best ways to maintain posi- C. Bargaining

tive mental health include D. Anger

A. Connecting with others even if they
are a negative influence on your lifestyle 259. Mental health is a state of well-being in
choices which one suffers from his or her own abil-
ities to cope with things.
B. Getting physically active every day to
improve your body and brain. A. TRUE
C. Ignoring all issues so you don’t yell, B. FALSE

fight, or cry C. MAYBE
D. Use substances like alcohol or drugs D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
to mask personal pain and stress
260. Everybody can go to a public hospital and
255. Which of the following is an example of will receive the care they need but,
health literacy? who pays for it?
A. A friend talks to a friend about STD’s A. Everyone through taxes
B. You read an advertisement on a new B. It is all probono
diet program C. People who use the public hospital’s
C. You look up information on google services and can donate
D. You research a community resource D. none of above
for a friend addicted to drugs
261. Steps to be resilient include
256. If you have tried all of your usual cop- A. working on relationships with mem-
ing mechanisms but still feel stressed out bers of your family
what should you do?
B. choosing friends who are supportive
A. Watch TV and who have responsible behavior
B. Take some time off from everything C. Asking for support when you need it
C. Talk to a trusted adult D. all of the above
D. Take a nap
262. Which word does not belong?
257. medication A. skyrocket
A. something that treats or prevents the B. uptick
symptoms of disease
C. rise
B. exhibiting the qualities that identify a
group or kind D. grow up
C. of first rank or importance or value 263. Select the stakeholders who should not
D. become aware of through the senses be involved in the policy development.
A. Medically trained employees
258. In this stage of the grief reaction, the
pain lessens and you feel ready to move B. Legal
forward with your life, reaching closure. C. Employees
A. Depression D. Human Resourses
B. Acceptance E. Parents

264. Being resilient helps us: D. to receive judgment and treatment

A. Recover from illness faster.
270. Most institutions have certain policies in
B. Do better in our daily activities. place such as:
C. Live longer. A. Attendance
D. All answers are correct. B. Work-related Injury
265. The best way to express your feelings is: C. Injury (athletics)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. calmly verbalize them D. Hiring/termination
B. reacting physically
271. What happens if we don’t have mental
C. keeping your feelings private health?
D. acting first and considering conse- A. Calm and peaceful
quences later
B. Stressed and angry
266. What is the factor that influences person- C. Happy and cheerful
ality?
D. Surprised and excited
A. Personal behavior
B. Environment 272. Parasuicide is
C. Genetics A. two or more people choosing to end
D. All of the above their lives at once.
B. suicides that are connected in some
267. Recognized medical condition way.
A. Mental Health
C. suicide attempts in which a person
B. Mental Illness does not really intend to die.
C. Both D. not to be taken seriously if the person
D. none of above recovers.
268. SSRI drugs act on which monoamine 273. A person has worked through a life crisis
A. Adrenaline when he or she
B. Dopamine A. accepts what has happened, adjusts,
and bounces back
C. Serotonin
B. refuses to believe what is happening
D. Noradrenaline
C. is angry about what is happening
269. Mental health can now be seen as an ill-
ness. Why is mental health awareness im- D. tries to change what is happening
portant? 274. Which one is a part of the 3 healthy cop-
A. to strengthen the stigma of mental ing mechanisms mentioned?
health issues
A. Socialising
B. to increases the chances for early in-
B. Sports
terventions
C. to add negative adjectives that have C. Swimming
been set to describe people illness D. Going out

275. In the school setting, it is essential that 280. Must have a bachelors degree before ap-
mental health literacy interventions are plying to med school.
except?

A. social woker
A. Evidence-based B. psychiatrist
B. Developmentally appropriate C. psychologist
C. Integrated into curriculum D. none of above
D. Applied by professional
281. Adrenaline stops; pupils constrict; mus-
276. A coping skill is: cles relax
A. Skills to use when you disagree with A. exhaustion

someone and want to laugh at them B. alarm
B. Skills to deal with difficult/stressful sit- C. resistance
uations
D. mid-day nap
C. Both A & B
282. How you feel about yourself.
D. Skills to help you watch your favorite
movie A. Empathy
B. Self-Esteem
277. Many people feel ‘angry’ when
C. Confidence
A. they have an argument
D. Mood Swings
B. they sleep a long time
C. someone says ‘hello’ 283. What do you call this condition wherein
you are sad and angry because you can’t
D. they eat an apple do something successfully.
278. What is the percentage of people in the A. Happy

UAE who do more than 1 hour of exercise B. Sunset
to destress?
C. Downset
A. 58%
D. Upset
B. 76%
284. Read the article’s Introduction [para-
C. 67.8% graphs 1-2]. Which sentence from the
D. 85% Introduction suggests that scientists and
video game companies rarely work to-
279. If you have a friend who you think is gether on research?
showing signs of mental illness, it is im- A. Oxford University researchers con-
portant to: ducted a study on how playing video
A. try to fix their problem games affects the mental health of game
players.
B. empathize with others
B. For a long time, scientists have been
C. help them out later
hoping to better understand how playing
D. tell them to keep their feelings private video games impact people.

C. They wanted to understand the effects 290. Which sentence about cluster suicides is
of video games on behavior and the feel- true?
ing of well-being.
A. They account for most teen suicides.
D. However, a lack of transparency from
game makers has been a challenge. B. They sometimes involve pacts among
peers.
285. Mental health includes our emotional,
C. They are a series of suicides that occur
, and social well-being.
over long periods of time.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. political
D. They rarely involve people in the same
B. economical school or community.
C. physiological
291. A full night’s sleep can have multiple
D. psychological
physical benefits, from boosting your im-
286. refers to “the emotional suffering caused mune system to improving your ability to
by a loss, disaster, or misfortune” concentrate and complete projects. How
A. death many hours should you sleep each night?
B. loss A. At least 5 hour

C. grief B. 8 to 10
D. none of above C. 7 to 9
287. Ways to build resilience can be.. D. 6 to 8
A. Nurturing a positive view of yourself
292. How Does Anxiety Effect the Body?
and your abilities.
A. Racing Thoughts
B. Making connections and building your
social support network. B. Unwanted Thoughts
C. Accepting that change is a natural and C. Poor concentration
unavoidable part of life.
D. All of the Above
D. Keeping things in perspective and in
context. 293. A bad , doesn’t mean a bad
288. Most people get their values from A. day:night
A. peer groups. B. day:husband
B. parents, guardians, family, mentors. C. day:life
C. formal education.
D. word:guy
D. experience.
294. Feelings of terror strike suddenly and re-
289. Professional support for people suffering
peatedly without warning
mental health issues or stress, is:
A. general anxiety disorder
A. Seeking help
B. Counselling B. panic disorder
C. Resilience C. specific phobia
D. Mindfulness D. obsessive compulsive disorder

295. A comprehensive description of the policy, C. Desire to kick

including why it is needed, how the policy D. Excessive exercise
will meet the need or solve the problem,

what procedures may be required, what 300. How can stress affect your health?
operational activities may be affected, and
A. stomachaches
in which areas.
A. Policy Scope B. asthma
B. Policy Statement C. headaches
C. Policy Aims/Objectives D. lower resistance to disease
D. Managing disclosures E. all of the above
296. Which of the following is an example of 301. I feel because I lost my teddy bear.
a sign or symptom of depression? A. happy
A. Loss of appetite for a day B. sad
B. Difficulty concentrating for a couple C. scared
days
D. angry
C. Decreased energy or fatigue after an
illness 302. If someone is feeling mentally unwell you
D. Persistent sadness for at least two should
weeks A. tell them to ‘calm down’
297. What causes mental health issues? B. tell them is doesn’t matter
A. Genetic or Biological Factors C. tell them it’s fine
B. Life Experiences including different D. listen to them

stressors
303. What state did Dorothea Dix start her re-
C. Lack of coping skills and supportive en- form.
vironments
A. New York
D. All of the above
B. Massachusetts
298. An authorisation or request to transport C. Maryland
a person who absconds from an EEA is in
force for how many days after the day the D. Florida
person absconds? 304. Which of the following is false regarding
A. 3 school-based health centers?
B. 1 A. They can be seamlessly linked to pri-
C. 7 mary health care providers
D. 14 B. They have a reasonable evidence

C. They are relatively expensive to estab-
299. What is an example of a fight response? lish
A. Hands in Fist D. They can be enhanced by adding hu-
B. Restless leg man resources

305. The following are ways to have a good 309. Which of these are a part of a more com-
relationship with other people plex definition of mental health?
A. learn to trust people A. State of complete wellbeing
B. give people your time B. Abilty to cope with stress in our every-
day life
C. don’t talk to your peers
C. Absence of illness
D. listen to other’s opinion
D. Contribute to the community, wheter it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
306. Which word could NOT go in this sen- is working or not
tence:Teens mental health advice on
TikTok 310. Which celebrities were in the video?
A. seek A. Prince Harry
B. search B. Danny Kose
C. look for C. Danny Rose
D. try to find D. Prince William
311. The ability to recover from problems or

307. Text features are [CHECK ALL THAT
loss is called
APPLY]
A. Resilience
A. things that stand out in a text/article
B. Empathy
B. messages you send
C. Personality
C. used to help you locate information
D. Physical Health
312. A person has excessive and unreasonable
308. What is the relationship between the fear of certain objects, situations or peo-
following selections from the article? ple.
The triangle is made up of three sides,
each representing an important side of A. general anxiety disorder (GAS)
your health:Physical, Mental and So- B. panic disorder
cial.Bolstering each side of the triangle will
C. specific phobia
help you lead a healthy life.
D. obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
A. Both sentences provide specific de-
tails that show how good health is related 313. How does the author respond to people
to a balanced health triangle. who dismiss mental health concerns?
B. The first provides a definition of the A. The author suggests mental health
balanced health triangle and the second concerns affect the health triangle more
gives a positive example. than physical ones.
C. Both sentences make general claims B. The author suggests mental health
about a person’s health as it relates to the concerns are often apparent to mental
three sides of the triangle. health professionals.
D. The first introduces the balanced C. The author states mental health con-
health triangle and the second confirms cerns are just as important as physical
the importance of each side. health concerns.

D. The author states mental and physical 319. This is a form of non-verbal communica-
health concerns are NOT related to social tion
health concerns.

A. Talking
314. The ability to identify with and share an- B. Eye Contact
other person’s feelings is known as C. Sleeping
A. Empathy D. none of above
B. Personality
320. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of
C. Resilience Needs, which of the following is true?
D. Mental / Emotional Health A. Lower level needs, like food, water,
315. In relation to an EEA, a doctor or health and shelter, must be met first.
practitioner may extend or further ex- B. Higher level needs, like self-
tend the examination period to how many actualization, must be met first.
hours in order to carry out or finish the
C. All needs are basic.
examination?
D. Money is everything.
A. 12
B. 6 321. Being accountable for the choices you
make
C. 4
A. Trustworthiness
D. 7
B. Respect
C. Responsibility
ple of emotions?
D. Fairness
A. anger
B. joy 322. Can impact anyone
C. fear A. Mental Health
D. healthy B. Mental Illness
C. Both
317. This type of mental health involves a pat-
tern of disruptive behavior. D. none of above
A. Behavior 323. Messages you receive from others
B. Anxiety A. empathy
C. Mood B. phobias
D. none of above C. feedback
318. State of Mind is D. resilience
A. Character of a person’s thoughts or 324. Applications for an Examination Author-
feelings. ity (EA) are made to the:
B. A person’s mood. A. Public Sector Health Service Facility
C. The effect that mood has on the per- (PSHSF)
son’s thinking and behavior. B. Authorised Mental Health Service
D. All of the above. (AMHS)

C. Mental Health Tribunal 330. This law-impacts employee-sponsored

group health plans at large companies,
D. Queensland Police Service
-Prohibits group plans from imposing
325. What were the TWO games involved in higher annual or lifetime dollar limits for
the study? (Select two) mental health benefits than those appli-
cable to medical or surgical benefits-The
A. Plants vs. Zombies law was strengthened in 2008, adding lan-
B. Pokemon:Mango guage to prevent plans from limiting bene-
fits for mental health and substance abuse
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Pac-Man
A. Mental Health Parity Act of 1996
D. Animal Crossing
B. Mental Health Policy Act of 1996
326. How can you say that you are health? C. Americans with Disabilities Act
A. Clear skin D. Americans with Domestic Act
B. Bright clear eyes 331. Compulsive, ritualistic behaviors often
C. A body neither too fat nor too thin.
D. All of the above A. reduce anxiety
B. stop the voices in your head
327. What can we do to look after our Mental C. lead to irrational beliefs
Health
D. reduce depression
A. listen to or play music
332. Fear caused by a source you cannot iden-
B. play sports
tify or a source that doesn’t pose as much
C. talk to strangers threat as you think
D. don’t get out of bed A. Mental Disorder
B. Bipolar
328. Which of the following can help develop
a positive self-esteem? C. Anorexia
A. Not expecting yourself to be perfect D. Anxiety
B. Practicing positive self-talk 333. Most people are affected by mental

health in some way.
C. Volunteering to help others
A. True
D. All of the above
B. False
329. What is the least effective way to deal C. Not Sure
with a mental health challenge/illness?
D. none of above
A. keeping feelings bottled up inside
334. The last section of the article, “Study Still
B. telling a trusted adult how you feel Needs Review” suggests that
C. staying at a hospital for a brief period A. Video games absolutely 100% help
of time mental health
D. meeting with a mental health profes- B. They are not 100% certain if video
sional games help mental health

C. Video games can help people learn En- 340. What is the correct order of Dr. Elisabeth
glish Kubler-Ross’s 5 Stages of Grief model?

D. Video games make learning fun A. denial, anger, bargaining, depression,
and acceptance
335. Poor mental health is caused by
B. denial, anger, passive-aggressiveness,
A. Being weak depression, and acceptance
B. Not have willpower C. anger, denial, depression, bargaining,
C. A number of factors, including stress, and acceptance
trauma, and poor health conditions. D. anger, denial, bargaining, depression,
D. none of above and acceptance
341. Having a mental illness can affect the
336. Which among the games below is not in-
way that a person
cluded in the discussion of the speaker?
A. behaves
A. Jigsaw Technique
B. thinks
B. Color Word Chase
C. feels
C. Bowel Movement
D. all of the above
D. Words in Letters
342. The NMC Code is structured around 4
337. an unhealthy way to cope with emotions, themes, which one is missing? practice
stress, or traumatic events by piercing the effectively, preserve safety, promote pro-
skin enough to bleed fessionalism and Trust
A. suicide A. emphasise people
B. suicidal ideation B. point up people
C. self-harm C. process people
D. injury D. pprioritise people
338. Which of the following is an emotional 343. is described as a physiological (physical)

symptom of stress? and emotional reaction to a major orunex-
pected change or disturbance in one’s life.
A. Feeling angry
A. stress
B. Shaking hands
B. stressors
C. Sweating
C. stress management
D. Upset Stomach D. none of above
339. Which of the following mental health dis- 344. During which stage of the body’s stress
orders is not considered an affective (or response does your body adapt to the
mood) disorder? stressor and you become irritable?
A. seasonal affective disorder A. Alarm
B. generalized anxiety disorder B. Resistance
C. depression C. Fatigue
D. bipolar disorder D. Exhaustion

345. Potential stressors can include which of 351. According to the biopsychosocial model,
the following? poor sleep is:
A. people A. A biological factor
B. objects B. A psychological factor
C. places C. A social factor
D. all of the above D. none of above
346. Your character is determined by 352. An illness that affects the mind and re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
duces a person’s ability to function, to ad-
A. the amount of stress you have
just to change, or to get along with others
B. your values
A. Mental Disorder
C. your friends
B. Bipolar
D. your level of self-estee
C. Anorexia
347. How many text features are there in the D. Anxiety disorder
article?
353. Having a positive attitude about the fu-
A. 6 ture.
B. 8 A. Confidence
C. 22 B. Optimistic
D. There aren’t any text features in this C. Resilience
article, nice try Mr. Jacobo
D. Mood Swings
348. One letter is missing in the abbreviation
354. What did the players do after playing the
EU-O HA. Choose the letter and its
video games?
meaning:
A. Played outside
A. M-Matters
B. Took a nap
B. I-Internatinal
C. Took a survey
C. S-Safety
D. Read a book
D. none of above
355. About how many video game players
349. What do we show to people when they were in the study?
are upset?
A. 3, 000
A. hatred
B. 30, 000
B. sadness
C. 30
C. sympathy
D. 3
D. sorry
356. According to the biopsychosocial model,
350. hydroxytrptamine is also known as rumination is:
A. Buscopan A. A biological factor
B. serotonin B. A psychological factor
C. Adrenaline C. A social factor
D. 5-BC D. none of above

357. Anything that causes stress is called a 362. How many young people said that
A. healthy lifestyle the pandemic was making thier MENTAL
HEALTH worse?

B. negative stress
A. 23%
C. stressor
D. adrenaline B. 67%
C. 19%
358. What kind of personal information is it
okay to reveal online? D. 42%
A. Your phone number 363. How can you help in removing the
B. The name of your school stigma?
C. Your home address A. Raise awareness about mental health
D. Your favorite actor amongst friends and family.
359. Most often occur as a result of a life stres- B. Self-awareness of your attitudes, bi-
sor and are usually less severe and of a ases, and judgments.
short duration C. Support or volunteer in organizations
A. Mentally Healthy working on community mental health.
B. Mental Health Problems D. Encourage friends and family to seek
professional support if needed.
C. Mental Health Disorder
D. none of above E. All of the above.
360. What is the definition of Mental Health? 364. Who may apply for n Examination Au-
thority (EA)?
A. Relates to the brain and how it func-
tions. A. An administrator of an AMHS
B. Able to work productively and fruit- B. A person authorised by an administra-
fully. tor of an AMHS
C. “A state of well-being in which the in- C. A person with advice from a doctor or
dividual realises his or her own abilities, AMHP about the “clinical matters” for the
can cope with the normal stresses of life, person
and is able to make a contribution to his
or her community” D. A Police Officer
D. Mental health relates to our emotions 365. Carla is a worrier. She gets upset and
and feelings including stress. stresses over everything. She often can-
not sleep and is tired during the day. Carla
361. Treatment for serious depression may in-
seems jumpy. Her constant worrying man-
clude
ifests as chronic pain in her neck and back.
A. physical examination, therapy, and SHE HAS WHAT TYPE OF DISORDER?
medication.
A. General Anxiety Disorder
B. social isolation.
B. Social Phobia
C. spending time in a negative social-
emotional environment. C. Anorexia Nervosa
D. increased use of stressors. D. Depression

366. Which 2 P factors increases susceptibility C. Personality

to getting a mental disorder? D. Self-Esteem
A. Protective and Perpetuating
371. WHICH DISORDER IS KNOWN FOR DIS-
B. Precipitating and Perpetuating ORGANIZED THOUGHT PATTERNS AND
C. Predisposing and Precipitating SOMETIMES HALLUCINATIONS, PARA-
D. Predisposing and Protective NOIA, OR ODD BEHAVIOR, IN WHICH A
PERSON CAN BECOME OUT OF TOUCH
367. Mood disorders include WITH REALITY?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. bulimia A. SCHIZOPHRENIA
B. major depression B. OCD
C. hypochondria C. PTSD
D. obsessive-compulsive sisorder D. PASSIVE-AGGRESSIVE PERSONALITY
DISORDER
368. diagnosis
A. identifying the nature or cause of some 372. sufferers of disorders experience ex-
phenomenon treme shifts in emotions
B. the act of caring for someone A. OCD
C. the failure to follow rules or comply B. PTSD
D. an often persistent bodily disorder or C. mood

disease D. anxiety
369. For an EA, a doctor or AMHP may detain 373. Being healthy includes:
the person at the place at which the per- A. having a body that feels good and
son is examined-if the place is an AMHS works well.
or PSHSF:
B. having a healthy mind to include your
A. for a period, of not more than 6 hours, thoughts and feelings.
starting when the person first attends at
the service or facility for the examination C. not being sick
B. for a period, of not more than 1 hour, D. all the above

starting when the person first attends at 374. This type of mental health is a change in
the service or facility for the examination a person’s mood that interfere with every-
C. for a period, of not more than 10 hours, day life.
starting when the person first attends at A. Behavior
the service or facility for the examination
B. Anxiety
D. for a period, of not more than 3 hours,
starting when the person first attends at C. Mood
the service or facility for the examination D. none of above
370. A combination of your feelings, likes, dis- 375. what are the two social health skills?
likes, attitudes, abilities, and habits. A. eating nutritious foods and getting 7-8
A. Emotional Health hours of sleep
B. Empathy B. communication and refusal skills

C. building self esteem and stress man- 381. post-partum depression affects what
agement skills type of people?

D. none of above A. new mothers and fathers
B. veterans
a healthy coping skill? C. children
A. practicing mindfulness D. siblings of a newborn
B. releasing stress violently 382. One way to manage our Mental Health is
C. get more sleep to
D. isolating yourself A. Sleep 3 hours every night.
B. Sleep 4 hours every night.
377. A criticism of using ideal mental health to
define abnormality is it sets C. Sleep 1 hours every night.
A. people up for failure D. Sleep 8 hours every night.
B. a realistic standards for mental health 383. Where can struggling teens go for help?
C. an unrealistic standard for mental A. Doctor
health
B. Counselor
D. an unrealistic standard for physical C. Friend/ family member
health
D. All of the above
378. How many points does a star have?
384. How many times a day should you brush
A. 6 and floss your teeth?
B. 5 A. 3 times
C. 4 B. 2 times
D. none of above C. At least once
379. Intrusive D. After you eat
A. causing disruption or annoyance 385. According to MHA s. 359 ‘Who is an au-
through being unwelcome or uninvited thorised person’, ‘Authorised persons’ in-
B. subject to a medical analysis clude:
C. beyond normal limits A. the administrator of an AMHS
D. having disturbing false fixed beliefs B. an ambulance officer
C. a health practitioner
380. For police, power to transport and detain
under MHA s.373 infers the power of en- D. a police officer
try under what section of the PPRA? E. a watch house officer
A. s.21
386. What is the most effective treatment for
B. s.609 most mental health disorders?
C. s.615 A. Medication
D. s.16 B. To ignore the problem

C. Counseling 391. What is the first step in handling stress?

D. A combination of medication and coun- A. Practice relaxation techniques.
seling B. Identify what is causing the stress.
C. Use refusal skills to reduce the stress.
387. What emotion do we show when we try
and understand someone? D. Avoid all the stressors in one’s life.
A. excitement 392. Which is a synonym for bite-sized?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. interest A. large
C. happiness B. packaged
C. edible
D. empathy
D. small
388. What is the correct criteria for someone
393. What is positive stress?
to be diagnosed with depression
A. A type of stress that is not THAT bad
A. there isn’t criteria
B. Stress that has no physical or emo-
B. 5 or more symptoms for a month tional symptoms
C. 5 or more symptoms almost every day C. stress that causes you to perform bet-
for at least 2 weeks ter or get things done
D. depressed mood for a month D. Stress that does not last long
389. Define Well-Being? 394. What does mental health effect?

A. Our thoughts
A. refers to a wide range of mental
health conditions-disorders that affect B. Our feelings
your mood, thinking, and behavior. C. Our behaviors
B. a person’s condition with regard to D. All of the above
their psychological and emotional well-
being. 395. what are the mental health skills?
A. eating nutritious foods and getting 7-8
C. -is the experience of health, happiness,
hours of sleep
and prosperity. It includes having good
mental health, high life satisfaction, a B. avoiding risk behaviors
sense of meaning or purpose, and the abil- C. communication and refusal skills
ity to manage stress. D. building self esteem and stress man-
D. All of the above agement skills
390. What are 2 influences on your personal- 396. Which definition bases judgements of ab-
ity? normality on an individual’s inability to
cope?
A. heredity
A. Statistical infrequency
B. money B. Deviation from social norms
C. enviorment C. Failure to function adequately
D. health websites D. Deviation from ideal mental health

397. What is negative stress? 402. Which of the following is a behavioral

A. Stress that prevents you from doing change to stress?

something or functioning in your every day A. overeating
life
B. muscle tension
B. stress that lasts a long amount of time
C. stress that has many symptoms C. nervousness
D. stress that do not speak to anyone D. impatient

about
403. You need a bacholers of social work to be
398. Which of the following factors that influ- a ?
ence health do individuals have the least
control over? A. psychologist
A. Heredity B. Psychiatrist
B. Social environment C. social worker
C. Attitude
D. mcdonalds manager
D. Behavior
404. What is the function of the limbic sys-
399. Which of the following is developed
tem?
through your life experiences, making you
who you are? A. Balance & Co-ordination
A. self esteem B. Breathing
B. self worth
C. Behaviour & Emotion
C. self concept
D. Heart Rate
D. none of above
400. What is mindfulness? 405. What game is this:“You need to list down
as many words as possible based from the
A. acknowledging and accepting
JUMBLED LETTERS given”.
thoughts, bodily sensations, and feelings.
B. a physical state achieved by focusing A. Scrabble
one’s awareness. B. Words in Letters
C. using a planner or phone calendar to
C. Love letters
remember important deadlines
D. using your mind to force yourself to D. Alphabets
think positively when you experience a
negative stressor. 406. People with a mental illness are generally
violent and dangerous.
401. What did Dorothea Dix help create
A. True
A. America
B. False
B. Asylums
C. Answers C. Not Sure
D. Apples D. none of above

407. Tim is often worried at school and upset 412. What is mental health?
when he goes home. His mum asks if he A. ability to interact and form meaningful
wants to express his feelings but he slams relationships with others
the door and listens to his music. These
signs show that Tim might have poor B. well-being of the body and the proper
Health? functioning of the organism of inviduals
A. Occupational C. achieved when you feel at peace with
life.
B. Physical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. a state of well-being in which the indi-
C. Environmental
vidual realizes his or her own abilities.
D. Emotional
413. mental disorder with extreme highs and
408. tantrum lows of emotion
A. a display of bad temper A. stress
B. beyond normal limits B. OCD
C. easily annoyed
C. bipolar
D. exhibiting the qualities that identify a
D. anxiety
group or kind
414. Delayed gratification is
409. are unwanted repetitive actions.
A. Obsessions A. recognizing that something is beyond
your reach
B. Compulsions
B. being honest about you rwants and
C. Delusions needs and going after them
D. Halucinations C. seeking regognition for your accom-
410. What does the term “diagnosis” mean? plishments
A. to have a feeling that you know what is D. postponing an immediate reward in or-
wrong der to gain a greater one later
B. to meet with your medical doctor who 415. False perceptions, such as seeing or hear-
gives you a prescription for medication ing things that aren’t there, are called:
C. to meet with a mental health profes- A. delusions
sional and he or she gives what you are
experiencing a name B. dissociations
D. to be told you have a mental illness C. hallucinations
E. all of the above D. panic attacks
411. “occurs when someone dies or a life situ- 416. What was the main anxiety for those in
ation changes or ends” school and university?
A. death A. uncertainty over exams and essays
B. loss B. quality of education
C. grief C. changing to homeschooling
D. none of above D. learning remotely

417. Having many networks of friends is C. one month

known of as a factor in the biopsy- D. 6 days
chosocial framework

423. Which of these relates to our Mental
A. biological
Health?
B. psychological
A. Being able to work productively and
C. social contribute to society.
D. none of above B. Having strong support networks.
C. Stress, anxiety, happiness, love and
418. What is double of 36?
our overall wellbeing.
A. 16
D. All of the above.
B. 24
424. Differentiate everyday feelings and over-
C. 72 whelming feelings:
D. none of above A. everyday feelings are a normal reac-
tion, overwhelming feelings can be a sign
419. What is the function of the neocortex
of a serious issue.
(cerebrum)?
B. overwhelming feelings are a normal
A. Memory, language, conscious thought
reaction, everyday feelings can be a sign
B. Balance & Co-ordination of a serious issue.
C. Emotions C. everyday feelings hang around for a
D. none of above long time, overwhelming feelings come
and go.
420. Which of the following is a manic- D. overwhelming feelings are always
depressive illness that causes unusual changing, everyday feelings can stop us
shifts in mood, energy, activity levels, and from doing what we want in life.
the ability to carry out day to day tasks?
425. What are 3 types of emotions?
A. Bipolar Disorder
A. greif
B. ADHD
B. CHOCOLATE
C. Anxiety Disorder
C. happiness
D. Depression
D. Discust
421. The end result of a decision. E. fear
A. self-esteem 426. What is Mental Health Literacy?
B. low self-esteem A. Understanding how to obtain and main-
C. consequences tain good mental health
D. good decisions B. Understanding mental disorders and
their treatments
422. How long do SSRI antidepressants begin
C. Decreasing stigma against mental ill-
to have a therapeutic effect
ness and enhancing help-seeking ability to
A. The same day ensure self-care
B. 2-3 weeks D. All of the above

427. Belief in your ability to do what you set 432. They play video games regularly.
out to do. A. Never play video games.
A. Mood Swings B. Always play video games.
B. Empathy C. Play video games regularly.
C. Emotions D. Don’t play video games regularly.
D. Confidence 433. Psychotic symptoms can be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Self-Esteem A. positive and additive
B. Negative and additive
428. Which of the following factors does NOT
contribute to mental health problems? C. Positive and negative
A. Biological factors like genes or brain D. Negative and cumulative

chemistry 434. What causes mental illness
B. Life experiences like trauma or abuse A. diet
C. Substance abuse of alcohol or other B. catching it from someone else
drugs C. being violent
D. Performing well in school D. no one knows
429. is a combination of your feelings, 435. What do our emotions do?

likes, dislikes, attitudes, abilities, and A. They drive our thoughts and behavior
habits.
B. They offer clues into who we are and
A. Resilience how we have been affected in the past
B. Empathy C. Many of our actions are initiated by
emotions
C. Personality
D. All of the above
D. Mental / Emotional Health
436. A person’s mental health affects (check
430. dizziness, sweating, and intense anxiety all that are affected)
in a specific place may be the symptoms of
A. feelings
a
B. digestive system
A. panic attack
C. thinking
B. stroke
D. actions
C. stomach ache
437. Mania
D. depressive episode
A. An abnormally elevated mood state
431. Another way to talk about mental illness characterized by inappropriate excite-
is to say ment or anger
A. mental health blockage B. seeing or hearing things that are not
real
B. mental wellness
C. the failure to follow rules or comply
C. mental malfunction D. an often persistent bodily disorder or
D. disordered mentality disease

438. euphoria 443. When an officer makes a direct referral

A. identifying the nature or cause of some to a AMHS, they should complete and send
a QP0824 ‘Police referral to an AMHS

phenomenon
for voluntary assessment and treatment’
B. a feeling of great elation within how many hours of advising the
C. a display of bad temper subject the referral is to be made?
D. something that treats or prevents the A. 24
symptoms of disease B. 2
439. Is the person’s general ability to cope C. 48
with life, be productive at work/school, D. 72
and have healthy relationships.
A. Mental Health 444. Resiliency is
B. Mental Illness A. a mental disorder characterized by

feelings of sadness of of hopelessness.
C. Both
B. a risk factor for depression.
D. none of above
C. the ability to adjust, recover, bounce
440. A social-emotional booster is back and learn from difficult times.
A. an interpersonal contact that encour- D. none of the above.
ages good character.
445. delusion
B. a medication against the effects of
stress. A. a belief so strong no matter of evi-
dence or facts can change it
C. an interpersonal contact that discour-
ages responsible choices. B. seeing or hearing something that isn’t
there
D. a friend who compliments you no mat-
ter what you have done. C. clear or deep perception of a situation
D. something that treats or prevents the
441. well-being is the values and beliefs symptoms of disease
that determine the way people live, the
search for meaning and purpose in life, and 446. Which two numbers come between 23
personal identity and self-awareness. and 26?
A. Spiritual A. 23, 24
B. Mental and Emotional B. 24, 25
C. Physical C. 25, 26
D. Whanau D. none of above
442. ‘Intangible’ means 447. The sorrow caused by the loss of a loved
A. something is tangled one
B. something doesn’t have a physical ap- A. grief

pearance B. coping
C. something isn’t good C. stressor
D. something doesn’t look happy D. anxiety

448. Hi 453. According to the heading of the article,

what can videogames help with?
A. a
A. Your homework
B. b
B. Sports
C. c
C. Your mental health
D. d
D. Your diet
449. What is NOT a helpful thing to say
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to someone struggling with poor mental 454. What is mental illness?
health? A. a range of disorders that affect behav-
A. “It is okay to feel how you feel.” ior, mood, and thought process.
B. “I’m here for you.” B. not the same thing as a mental disor-
der.
C. “You’ll get over it.”
C. a range of disorders that affect your
D. “You aren’t a burden.” immune system.
450. If a person who is physically sick goes to D. a state of emotional, behavioral, and
see a medical doctor, a person who has a social well-being.
mental health problem sees a ?
455. I’ve been feeling useful
A. mental health professional
A. None of the time
B. dentist
B. Rarely
C. speech therapist
C. Some of the time
D. all the above
D. All of the time
451. A mood disorder that the symptoms are 456. Which is not cited as a reason why many
feeling sad and hopeless for months, being people do not get help for mental health
unable to enjoy activities that were once a problems?
source of pleasure, and sometimes unable
to accomplish daily tasks A. They don’t trust medical experts.
A. Clinical Psychologist B. They can’t afford it.
B. Therapy C. It’s difficult to make an appointment.
C. Clinical Depression D. none of above
D. Cutting 457. The following are signs of good mental

health except which one?
452. What change can we make to make the
A. Taking responsibility for personal be-
social environment more supportive?
havior
A. Being kind and considerate to others
B. Being open-minded and flexible
B. Creating a safe space to share and talk
C. Recognizing the inherent value in each
C. Embracing diversity and acceptance person
D. All of the above D. Engaging in all or nothing thinking

458. Which is an example of cognitive distor- 463. Unfriendly or nasty behavior

tion? A. phobias

A. “I’m always such a failure.” B. hostility
B. “Today I feel sad.” C. resilience
C. “Sometimes I’m clumsy.” D. heredity
D. “I felt really smart after my test.”
464. The social-emotional environment con-
sists of
459. When looking at the experience of mental
illness, perpetuating risk factors are those A. government agencies responsible for
that mental health.
A. Increase susceptibility B. the economic status of the family into
which you are born.
B. Improve the chance of recovery
C. the quality of contacts a person has
C. Inhibit recovery with people.
D. Occur many times during the lifespan D. community organizations.
460. Who helps prevent mental disorders? 465. Mental health is

A. Psychiatrist A. Only important for some people
B. social worker B. An important part of overall health and
well-being
C. psychologist
C. Something I do not have
D. none of above
D. none of above
461. If approved, an Examination Authority
(EA) is in force for how many days? 466. Who was the MOST happy with their
lives during the pandemic?
A. 14
A. 16-29
B. 7
B. 30-59
C. 3 C. 60+
D. 28 D. Under 16
462. Positive mental health allows people to 467. An unreasonable need to behave in a cer-
A. Go through the motions of life without tain way to prevent a feared outcome
really caring about anything A. Compulsion
B. Cope with the demands of daily life and B. Mood Disorder
stress C. Depression
C. Copy assignments from peers just to D. Schizophrenia
get it done
D. Live within the community without 468. Which of the following is NOT an affec-
making productive contributions to soci- tive changes of mind?
ety A. Feeling hopeless or helpless

B. Thinking of harming yourself and oth- 473. An eating disorder characterized by an

ers obstinate and willful refusal to eat, a dis-
C. Feeling numb or like nothing matters torted body image, and an intense fear of
being fat
D. Pulling away from people
A. Compulsion
469. Rocky, who is in his mid-twenties, is con- B. Anxiety
fused about the way that he has been feel-
ing and acting lately. One day he lashes C. Schizophrenia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
out at others, and the next he feels down D. Anorexia Nervosa
and depressed. At other times, he feels
“normal” or at baseline. These fluctuat- 474. Behaviour that the person acts as they
ing periods of highs, lows, and in-between usually do is:
could be a sign Rocky is suffering from A. Typical
what mental health disorder?
B. Atypical
A. PTSD
C. Maladaptive
B. OCD
D. Adaptive
C. Schizophrenia
475. Protecting what is added to your digital
D. Bipolar Disorder
footprint is important because potentially
470. Which definition defines abnormality as embarrassing information can remain on-
behaviour that goes against expecta- line
tions? A. Forever
A. Statistical infrequency B. Until its forgotten
B. Deviation from social norms C. Up to 6 months
C. Failure to function adequately D. Until its removed
D. Deviation from ideal mental health
476. If an individual with mental health con-
471. What university are the scientists who ditions discusses a situation or condition
did the study from? representative of affecting their mental
health status.-the policy should address
A. Columbia how to handle any disclosures of a mental
B. Oxford health concern.
C. Harvard A. Managing disclosures
D. San Diego State University B. Confidentiality
472. which of the following is defined by the C. Policy Statement

confidence and self worth you feel about D. Recognizing mental health conditions
yourself? and awarness
A. self esteem 477. Having a mental illness can affect the
B. self worth way that a person
C. self concept A. behaves
D. none of above B. thinks

C. feels C. All influences associated with mental

D. all the above processes

D. Able to be controlled by the individual
478. Defense mechanisms are mental pro-
cesses that protect individuals from strong 483. People with mental disorders can be
or stressful emotions or situations. Which helped with
of these is not an identified defense mech- A. formal interventions
anism according to your textbook?
B. medications
A. suppression
C. therapy
B. regression
D. all of the above
C. denial
484. Being interested and involved in your
D. retribution
school and community
479. What question is the article trying to an- A. Fairness
swer? (What were the researchers trying
B. Citizenship
to find out? )
C. Responsiblity
A. Do middle schoolers get enough
sleep? D. Respect
B. Do video games improve or harm men- 485. Which sentence from the article supports
tal health? your response?
C. Is the Nintendo Switch too expensive? A. Option 1; Oxford University re-
searchers conducted a study on how play-
D. What is the best video game? ing video games affects mental health,
which is the emotional well-being of a per-
480. Is it okay to ask for help? son.
A. Yes B. Option 2; “We’ll need more and better
B. No data to get to the heart of the effects of
games, for good or ill, on mental health.”
C. Maybe
C. Option 1; The researchers said they
D. none of above found the actual amount of time spent
playing was a small but significant posi-
481. Contacting others when you feel over-
tive factor in people’s well-being.
whelmed, in danger or stressed, is:
D. Option 2; However, the findings do
A. Seeking help
not necessarily suggest a causal effect of
B. Counselling video games on well-being.
C. Mindfulness
486. Medication is the best treatment for men-
D. Supporting tal illness.
482. Biological factors are: A. True
A. Physiologically based or determined B. False

influences C. Not Sure
B. Related to the support from others D. none of above

487. Which of these statements would be 492. I worked to reform the prison system and
MOST important to include in a summary the treatment of the mentally ill, who am
of the article? I?
A. The health triangle is a helpful tool for A. Horace Mann
visualizing your total well being. B. Dorothea Dix
B. Physical health represents your biolog- C. Harriet Tubman
ical welfare and how to protect your body
from illness or injury. D. Henry David Thoreau
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Consuming a well-balanced diet is one 493. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
of the best ways to fuel your physical ple of a mental illness?
health
A. Depression
D. You don’t have to complete in Ultra-
B. Anxiety
Marathons in order to reap the physical
benefits of exercise. C. Eating Disorders
D. Stressors
488. Where does Joseph Hilgard teach?
A. Frederick University 494. What is the cause of mental illness
B. George Mason University A. Diet
C. Frostburg State University B. Catching it from someone else
D. Illinois State University C. being violent
489. A standard or belief is called a D. no one knows
A. behavior 495. Neuroleptic medications are used for
B. Character A. psychosis
C. value B. neurosis
D. gratification C. epilepsy
490. counseling D. parkinsons disease
A. something that provides direction or 496. One of the following disorders can lead
advice to chronic obesity related conditions
B. involving the mind or an intellectual A. Bulimia
process
B. anorexia
C. subject to a medical analysis
C. Body dysmorphia
D. the failure to follow rules or comply
D. Binge Eating Disorder
491. Which of the following behaviors is asso-
ciated with the eating disorder Bulimia? 497. One way to manage our Mental Health is
to talk about it with
A. Binge Eating and Purging
B. Obsessions and Compulsions A. someone you trust
C. Hallucinations and Delusions B. a stranger
D. Grandiose Delusions and Distorted C. cashier a the grocery

Thinking D. a friend

498. Which statement about stress is false? B. EMA

A. Everyone experiences stress. C. ECDC

B. Stress can be both good and bad in na- D. EMCDDA
ture.
503. What does I stand for in ICD classification
C. Eustress is bad stress by definition;
distress is good stress by definition. A. intercntinental
D. Stress can manifest itself in the body B. international
physically as a result of the mind-body C. interrelational
connection, resulting in headaches, high
D. internal
blood pressure, and ulcers.
504. ‘Mental illness is a condition charac-
499. What is one thing you could do to help
terised by a clinically significant distur-
someone who is struggling with a mental
bance of:
illness?
A. thought
A. Act like they are fine.
B. mood
B. Avoid them.
C. perception
C. Ask them how they are doing and how
you can help. D. memory
D. Tell them they are crazy. E. all of the above
500. Being considerate of other and treating 505. The Mental Health Intervention Project
their possessions with care (MHIP) is a collaborative program compris-
ing of:
A. Trustworthiness
A. Queensland Police Service
B. Respect
B. Queensland Ambulance Service
C. Responsibility
C. Queensland Health
D. Citizenship
D. Queensland Fire and Rescue Service
501. What are the main distinctions on the
mental health continuum? 506. How many mental health challenges
young people face today?
A. Mentally healthy, mentally unstable &
mentally sane A. 5
B. Mentally healthy, mental health prob- B. 8
lem, mental disorder C. 9
C. Mental disorder, mentally sane, crazy D. 6
D. Mental disorder, mental health prob-
lem, mentally sane 507. The study of the human mind and behav-
ior
502. You are a journalist who has to write an A. Psychology
article on the (Un)Safety of Covid-19 vac-
cines. Which organisation would not be B. Physiology
useful for further information? C. Philosophy
A. WHO D. philanthropy

508. What are the symptoms of physical C. Physical health is defined as the con-
health dition of your brain, taking into consider-
ation everything from the absence of dis-
A. Weak muscles or aching muscles after
ease to fitness level.
minimal activity.
B. Chronic fatigue and low vitality.
C. Mood swings. 513. What are 2 ways of building self-
esteem?
D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. set realistic goals
509. False beliefs of persecution/paranoia B. ask for help when you need it
that may accompany schizophrenia are C. diets
called
D. accept that no one is perfect
A. delusions
E. chocolate
B. hallucinations
514. What does Anxiety do to your physical
C. compulsions body?
D. obsessions A. Fatigue
510. Behaviour that interferes with the per- B. Restlessness

son’s ability to carry out their usual activ- C. Abnormal Heartbeat
ities in an effective way: D. All of the Above
A. Adaptive
515. When a person binges on food and then
B. Atypical purges, they suffer from what mental
C. Maladaptive health disorder?
A. Anorexia
D. Typical
B. Bulimia
511. What is Anxiety? C. Binge Eating
A. An Eating Disorder D. Depression
B. A Mental Disorder 516. Which of the following is a possible cause
C. A Health Term of a mental disorder?
D. none of above A. environmental factors
B. recent experiences
512. What is physical health?
C. past experiences
A. Physical health is defined as the con-
D. all of these are possible factors
dition of your body, taking into considera-
tion everything from the presence of dis- 517. Influences that develop your personality
ease to fitness level.
A. heredity
B. Physical health is defined as the con- B. environment
dition of your body, taking into consider-
ation everything from the absence of dis- C. behavior
ease to fitness level. D. all of the above

518. Everyone has needs C. He thinks the study has some critical
A. Life flaws that make it scientifically meaning-
less.

B. hierachy of needs
D. He thinks the study conclusively
C. modeling proves the link between video games and
D. emotions improved mental health.
519. How many parts is your total health 523. Another way to talk about mental illness
made up of? is to say
A. 3 A. mental health challenge
B. 2 B. mental malfunction
C. 4 C. disordered mentality
D. 1 D. none of above
520. An I-message 524. It is the basic human ability to be fully

present, aware of where he is and what
A. can help you express emotion in a non-
he does in a specific time.
judgmental way.
A. Mindfulness
B. is self-centered and not helpful to oth-
ers. B. Alertness
C. focuses on nonverbal communication C. Consciousness
such as posture. D. none of above
D. is a way to interrupt another’s attack
on you. 525. Which is a part of the maintenance of
mental health
521. One of the following is a sign of “disor-
A. Talk about your feelings
dered eating”
B. Drink more water and fewer sugary
A. eating when hungry
drinks
B. eating to celebrate
C. Exercise regularly
C. pre-occupation with food, body and ex-
D. Eat more fruits and vegetables and
ercise
less fast food
D. exercising
526. What question is the article trying to an-
522. Which answer choice would BEST de- swer?
scribe Joseph Hilgard’s reaction to the Ox-
A. Do middle schoolers get enough
ford study?
sleep?
A. He thinks the study has some major
B. Do video games improve or harm men-
limitations that affect researchers’ ability
tal health?
to draw conclusions from it.
C. Is the Nintendo Switch too expensive?
B. He thinks the study will open new
doors for cooperative research with video
game makers. D. What is the best video game?

527. Which of the following is the correct or- C. 76%

der of stages for the General Adaptation D. 35%
Syndrome (GAS) associated with stress?
532. what types of people get a mental ill-
A. resistance, exhaustion, alarm
ness?
B. alarm, resistance, exhaustion
A. anyone
C. alarm, exhaustion, resistance
B. young children
D. exhaustion, alarm, resistance C. adults
NARAYAN CHANGDER
528. Adrenaline flows; pupils dilate; muscles D. elderly
tighten
533. If you know someone with poor mental
A. exhaustion health, you can help by
B. alarm A. Reaching out, listening, and providing
C. resistance emotional support.
D. When the ‘5’ gum hits B. Supporting them in accessing mental
health services.
529. What interventions are enabled by posi- C. Learning and sharing facts and lived
tive mental health and a more complex per- experiences about mental health.
spective of health (2nd definition)?
D. All of the above.
A. Encouraging the patient to live well
with an illness rather than diminish the 534. Which of the following is not a diagnosed
symptoms anxiety disorder?
B. Strengthening protective health re- A. Bipolar Disorder
sources B. PTSD
C. Alleviate the symptoms and learn how C. OCD
to cope with the ones that remain D. Panic Disorder
D. All of them are correct
535. A person engages in certain rituals
530. How was Dix able to get the legislature in in response to persistent unwelcome
to approve her proposals? thoughts or images
A. She went to court A. general anxiety disorder
B. She organized protests B. panic disorder
C. She provided data from jails she vis- C. specific phobia
ited D. obsessive compulsive disorder
D. She presented a testimonial before 536. Which is not a symptom of the absence
the legislature of mental illness
531. What percentage of young people have A. Emotionally unstable and easily upset
worried about BORDEM during the pan- B. Apprehensive, suspicious and inse-
demic? cure
A. 54% C. Lack of self confidence and will power
B. 89% D. Shortness of breath during activity.

537. A mental health professional who is 542. A person that is in the bargaining stage
trained to recognize and treat behavior of loss, might say which of the following?
that is not normal

A. I just can’t believe it!
A. Clinical Psychologist
B. I just don’t want to be here anymore.
B. Therapy
C. If you bring so-and-so back, I will
C. Clinical Depression treat him/her with respect for the rest of
D. Cutting his/her life!
538. What is Mental Health for you? D. I am going to give him a piece of his
own medicine!
A. State of mental wellness
B. Well-being of a person’s psychological, 543. Path-
cognitive and behavioral condition A. having to do with the nervous system
C. Mental Disorder
B. having to do with the body
D. MENTAL ORDER
C. having to do with the mind
539. The 7 Dimensions of health are? D. having to do with emotions
A. Health, social, intellectual, occupa-
tional, emotional, environmental and spir- 544. Many people feel ‘afraid’ when they
itual. A. see their best friend
B. Physical, social, school, spiritual,
B. pass an English test
friendship, family and occupational.
C. Physical, social, intellectual, health, C. lose a pen
emotional, environmental and spiritual. D. see a big spider
D. Physical, social, intellectual, occupa-
tional, emotional, environmental and spir- 545. What chemical helps us balance our
itual. mood?
A. oxygen
540. How can we improve our mental health?
B. hydrogen
A. Do something you love
B. Exercising C. serotonin
C. Yoga D. calcium
D. Meditation 546. Actions that promote positive self-
esteem include
541. A technique commonly used to divide
something into two parts which are equal, A. quitting when something becomes too
yet contradicting hard
A. Anarchy B. making responsible decisions
B. Dicotyledon C. conforming to media images
C. Dichotomy D. adopting the smae attitidudes as your
D. Mitochondria peers

547. Steps you can follow to develop good 553. Which of the following is the LEAST effec-
character and improve self-esteem include tive way of dealing with a mental health
A. making and reviewing a list of your re- challenge?
sponsible actions A. Keeping feelings bottled up inside
B. Supporting the interests of family B. Telling a trusted adult how your feel
members and friends
C. Meeting with a mental health profes-
C. getting plenty of excercise to generate sional
feelings of well-being
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Reaching out to a crisis phone line
D. all of the above
554. these types of disorders cause people to
548. Being honest, loyal, and reliable is feel frightened, distressed, or uneasy
A. Trustworthiness A. anxiety
B. Respect
B. phobia
C. Responsibility
C. mood
D. Citizenship
D. behavioral
549. What is mental health about?
555. Troy suffers from OCD, which involves re-
A. Our emotional well-being occurring compulsions and obsessions. He
B. Our psychological well-being is preoccupied with germs, and he often
C. Our social well-being washes his hands to rid himself of them.
The act of washing his hands is considered
D. All of the above
a compulsion or an obsession?
550. Family, friends and teachers are sources A. compulsion
of what
B. obsession
A. feedback
C. neither
B. modeling
D. both
C. personality
D. emotions 556. What is an example of a freeze re-
sponse?
551. Females are more likely to have a mental
A. Feeling Stuck
illness than are males.
A. True B. Restless Leg
B. False C. Hands in fist
C. Not Sure D. Sense of dread

D. none of above 557. Someone with a healthy self image will?
552. They frequently watch TV every day. A. Take on no feedback because their
own thoughts are the only ones that mat-
A. Watch TV 8 hours every day.
ter.
B. Don’t watch TV regularly.
B. Make up their own minds, ignore criti-
C. Watch TV 8 hours every night. cism, develop their strengths and appreci-
D. Never watch TV. ate their own abilities.

5.12 Education Technology 1237
C. Always be critical about their appear- 561. The physically sick go to a medical doctor,
ance and abilities. a person who has a mental health problem
sees

D. Know that everyone has good and bad
days, embrace their flaws and do the best A. counselor
with what they have. B. therapist
558. An unwanted thought or image that C. psychiatrist

takes control of the mind D. all of the above
A. Anxiety disorder 562. Mental Health is our , our , our ,
B. Binge eating disorder and our
C. Phobia A. feelings,
B. body
D. Obsession
C. thinking
559. Must have masters degree, but a doctor- D. moods
ate may also be required.
E. emotions
A. Social worker
563. Did Jesus have days where he felt sad or
B. Psychologist mad?
C. Psychiatrist A. Yes
D. none of above B. No
C. I am not sure
560. WHICH DISORDER IS KNOWN FOR SE-
VERE MOOD CHANGES, IN WHICH A PER- D. none of above
SON FLUCTUATES BETWEEN MANIA, DE-
564. Did Jesus help people with poor mental
PRESSION, AND NORMAL STATES?
health?
A. PTSD A. Yes
B. SCHIZOPHRENIA B. No
C. BIPOLAR C. I am not sure
D. SEASONAL AFFECTIVE DISORDER D. none of above
5.12 Education Technology

1. The following are examples of Visual sym- A. An open window of opportunity for in-
bols except; formation to comprehended in grater de-
A. Poster tail.
B. Stick Drawing B. Only addressed by parents.

C. Faces and Drawing C. Combines all technology.
D. Comic Stripes D. An ability to solve problems.
2. A teachable moment is 3. In school year , the government con-

ducted more state-standardized testing 8. What area of SAMR would you catego-
for elementary and middle levels through rize an assignment where a teacher had
digital platforms instead of the traditional students read an article on the computer
pen and paper method. rather than on printed paper?
A. 2013-2014 A. Augmentation
B. 2010-2011 B. Modification
C. 2016-2017 C. Redefinition
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 2015-2016 D. Substitution
4. Memory which starts computer is 9. Which tool allows you to select and read
books online?
A. ROM
A. Edpuzzle
B. RAM
B. Epic
C. VAN
C. Kahoot
D. LAN
D. Quizizz
5. Students are able to complete work based
10. Who is the first president of the TVEAAP
on their own needs as well as having the
reported the following policies adopted by
versatility of individualized study and it
the association (Casuga, 1988)?
evolves what?
A. Supt. Laberto Catapang
A. Overall learning experience
B. Supt. Arturo P. Casuga
B. Learning experience
C. Supt. Chris Ross
C. Knowledgeable experience
D. Supt. Alex Cabagnot
D. Excessive learning
11. Allows you to write, insert videos, and col-
6. What are the objectives of the Education laborate on documents.
and Manpower Development Sector?
A. Forms
A. To improve the quality and increase
the relevance of education and training; B. OneNote
B. To increase access of disadvantaged C. Padlet

groups in all educational areas; D. Quizizz
C. A and B is correct 12. What is the first commandment of the 10
D. Nothing is correct Commandments of Computer Ethics?
A. THOU SHALT NOT USE A COMPUTER
7. On September 25, 1989, DECS Order No.
TO HARM OTHER PEOPLE
92 was promulgated to carry out the orga-
nization of the Inter-Agency Technical Co- B. THOU SHALT NOT USE A COMPUTER
ordinating Committee. TO STEAL
A. Correct C. THOU SHALT ALWAYS USE A COM-
PUTER IN WAYS THAT INSURE CONSIDER-
B. Not correct ATION AND RESPECT FOR YOUR FELLOW
C. May be correct HUMANS
D. None of the above D. none of above

13. How are the technological environments? C. Students demand it.

A. Innovative and really creative there is D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

no need to go to the library
B. Traditional and they develop their cre- 17. It refers to technology that usually helps
ativity facilitate collaboration in an active learn-
ing environment. It is also a wide ar-
C. Innovative ray of teaching-and-learning-related soft-
D. none of above ware and hardware that’s increasingly be-
ing used in college and university class-
14. What are some results of a technology in- rooms..
tegrated classroom?
A. Technology Education
A. Motivation
B. Technology development
B. Cooperation
C. collaboration C. Technology Advancement
D. All are correct D. Research Development
15. Language dynamics means 18. Which of the following describes the role
of the International Society for Technology
A. The places and times when people can
in Education (ISTE) n relation to teaching
learn, the range of contexts and cultural
technology?
settings
B. New channels and media become avail- A. ISTE provides resources for incorpo-
able for learning and interpersonal com- rating tech standards into subject stan-
munication dards
C. teacher’s personal role and experi- B. ISTE encourages teachers to teach

ence in enacting pedagogy. technology in the context of the academic
curriculum
D. multimodal communication, collabora-
tion and language rehearsal in the course C. ISTE sells computers and other sys-
of everyday or professional settings. tems directly to school districts
16. What is educational technology? D. ISTE creates software for use in

content-area classrooms
A. It refers to technology that is not usu-
ally help’s facilitate collaboration in an E. ISTE produces natinal technology stan-
active learning environment. It is also dards
a wide array of teaching-and-learning-
related software and hardware that’s in- 19. Utilizes hardware, software, and other
creasingly being used in college and uni- IT tools to increase engagement and help
versity classrooms teachers prepare lesson plans, conduct on-
line classes, and perform everyday tasks
B. It refers to technology that usually like grading and attendance.
helps facilitate collaboration in an active
learning environment. It is also a wide ar- A. Educational Technology
ray of teaching-and-learning-related soft- B. Technology Education
ware and hardware that’s increasingly be-
C. Technology
ing used in college and university class-
rooms D. Education

20. One limitation of using instructional game Mr. Blor always lets his students read the
software is the confusion of game-rules basic sight words so the students will be
between real life-rules. Which of the fol- familiarized and will soon remember these
lowing best describe this situation? words. Which of the following theories
A. The game cannot be implemented due best describes Mr. Blor’s teaching style?
to lack of resources A. Connectionism
B. It is difficult to maintain balance be- B. Cognitivism
tween motivation and learning
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Constructivism
C. It draws away attention of students D. Behaviorism
from real purpose of learning
25. Metacognitive instruction should be em-
D. The students may face difficulty in
bedded in the context of the task at
transferring the skills learned through
hand in order to allow for connecting task-
games to real life situations
specific condition knowledge (the IF*side)
21. What is the best reason why technology to the procedural knowledge of “How”
important to education? the skill is applied in the context of the
task (the THEN-side of production rules).
A. Technology is necessary to succeed
outside of primary and secondary educa- A. TRUE
tion. B. FALSE
B. Technology has the ability to enhance C. MAYBE
relationships between teachers and stu-
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
dents.
C. Testing has gone online 26. Who says “Technology will never replace
great teachers, but in the hands of great
D. Learn how to make ppt. teachers, it’s transformational.”
22. “It’s either persons or places in the com- A. Aristotle
munity that contribute useful information B. Plato
in the society”.
C. George Conrus
A. Community Resources
D. John Dewey
B. Field Trips
27. It is an invitation-only online chat and mes-
C. Study Trips
saging platform designed to be used by
D. Stakeholders groups such as K-12 classrooms.
23. This is a malicious software that causes A. Padlet
harm to one or more computers. B. Google Form
A. Spam C. Discord
B. Phishing D. Canva
C. Malware
28. It helps learners to think aloud about their
D. Adware thinking as they undertake a task.
24. In Summer Reading Camp, Grade 3 stu- A. Think aloud

dents are having a daily reading exercise. B. Journalizing

C. Error analysis 33. Which best describes blended learning?

D. Wrapper A. Lesson plan using both ipads and

chromeooks
29. Which of the following reasons why stu- B. Education program that combines on-
dents need technology in the classroom? line digital media with traditional class-
A. Doesn’t help the students to connect room methods.
to the real world. C. Culturally Responsive lessons for our
B. Adds a fun factor to learning diverse classrooms
D. Two courses working together on a les-
C. Access information more easily.
son
D. B and C are correct
34. These are unwanted messages being re-
30. What is an Ethical Conduct toward Prac- ceived through e-mails.
tices and Performance? A. Spams
A. The professional educator looks after B. Spims
students
C. Splits
B. The professional educator does use D. Spy
professional privileges for advantage
35. A range of different technology tools are
C. The professional educator complies
integrated flexibly and seamlessly into
with written local school policies
teaching and learning. Technology tools
D. The professional educator does not are available to meet the needs of all
professionally grow students. Students are able to make in-
formed decisions about when and how to
31. Their work demonstrated a causal rela- use different tools. (e.g.. The teacher
tionship between metacognitive instruc- provides the learning context and the stu-
tion and a statistically significant improve- dents choose the technology tools.)
ment in listening performance.
A. Infusion
A. Go and Luie B. Transformation
B. Goh and Huy C. Entry
C. Go and Liu D. Adoption
D. Goh and Hu 36. It is a software that allows users to access
and view web pages.
32. It is an interactive teaching and audience
quiz tool integrated into Microsoft Power- A. web server
Point that improves presentations and stu- B. wed finder
dent engagement with the class.
C. web looker
A. Quizziz D. web browser
B. Padlet
37. Using the design or framework; materials
C. Quizlet are produced and developed
D. Classpoint A. Design

B. Development 42. During the 1960s, after collaborating with

C. Utization renowned Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget,
Papert developed the and began intro-
D. Management ducing it to children.
38. Characteristic involves using technology to A. Logo programming language
link learning activities to the world be-
B. Google Earth
yond the instructional setting. Technol-
ogy is used to place learning into a mean- C. Microsoft Encarta
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ingful context, increase its relevance to D. Virtual Reality (VR)
the learner, and tap into students’ intrin-
sic motivation. (e.g.. Students use tech- 43. The word ‘Technology’ comes from the
nology tools to link learning activities to original Greek word
the world beyond the instructional setting A. Teknology
rather than working on decontextualized B. Teknologia
assignments)
C. Teknalogi
A. Authentic Learning
B. Goal-Directed Learning
C. Active Learning 44. What does TVEAAP stand for?
D. Collaborative Learning A. Technical and Vocational Education Ac-
crediting Agency of the Philippines
39. What is the focus of systematic instruc- B. Technological and Vocational Educa-
tional planning? tion Accrediting Agency of the Philippines
A. Teacher C. Technical and Vocational Education Ac-
B. Student crediting Agility of the Philippines
C. Administrator D. Technical and Vocabulary Education
D. Parent Accrediting Agency of the Philippines
40. What technology resource is being utilized 45. It means using learning technologies to in-
in traditional schools? troduce, reinforce, supplement and extend
skills.
A. Learning smart
A. Technology in education
B. smart phones
C. KidsLearning B. Technology integration
D. E-learning C. Instructional technology

D. Educational media
41. It allows users to interact with the pro-
gram by means of input coming from the 46. Any high-school or secondary school grad-
user through a pointing device (mouse, uate who is physically fit can almost al-
keyboard etc) then the digital media per- ways seek admission for as long as intake
forms an action in response capacity of the institution is still open.
A. Inactive Digital Media A. True
B. Interactive Digital Media B. False
C. Collaborative Digital Media C. Maybe
D. Attractive Media D. None of the above

47. Is a crucial component of technology inte- 51. What Google app is best used for making
gration. It is a learning theory that de- presentations?
scribes the process of students construct-

A. Sheets
ing their own knowledge through collabo-
ration and inquiry-based learning. B. Docs
A. Constructivism C. Slides
D. Gmail
B. Cognitivism
C. Behaviorism 52. It refers to technology that teaches or
guides individually for a particular pur-
D. Pedagogy pose.
48. What is an Ethical Conduct toward Parents A. Technology as a mindtool
and Community? B. Technology as helper
A. The professional educator mani- C. Technology as tutor
fests a positive and active role in D. technology as navigator
school/community relations
B. The professional educator does not 53. It aims to improve education.
make an effort to inform parents about A. K-12 program
their children in the classroom B. Technology Education
C. The professional educator is prejudice C. Both A and B
toward families of different ethnicity
D. none of above
54. These are channels or avenues or instru-
49. Teacher Renell is a constructivist. Which of ments of communication.
the following is evident in his class? This A. Technology in education
item has more than one answer.
B. Technology integration
A. Word problems are contextualized.
C. Instructional technology
B. In groupings, there should be a fast
D. Educational media
learner to guide the other members.
C. The class is well-ventilated and well- 55. On which principle is your conviction
lighted. based if you provide positive reinforce-
ment whenever a learner performs an ac-
D. Every week, the students are expected ceptable behavior?
to write a journal about what they have
A. Cognitivism
learned.
B. Constructivism
50. It allows user to navigate quickly from one C. Behaviorism
page to another.
D. Connectionism
A. website
56. It refers to any computer-based presenta-
B. URL
tion or application software that uses mul-
C. Homepage timedia elements.
D. Hyperlink A. Digital Media Hardware

B. Digital Media Software other users in any location around the

C. Digital Media Application world.
D. Digital Media Presentation A. Google Drive

B. Google Workspace
57. What does the S in the SAMR model stand
for? C. Zoom
A. Substitution D. Canva
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Modification
62. Opens in new ta, it is a cloud-based quiz
C. Augmentation platform that is ideal for students and
D. Redefinition teachers.
58. The technology is again directly substi- A. Kahoot

tuted for a traditional one, but with sig- B. Quizziz
nificant enhancements to the student ex-
C. Classpoint
perience. Technology acts as a direct sub-
stitute, with functional inprovement. D. Google Form
A. Augmentation
63. When is a teacher’s TPACK evident?
B. Modification
A. Students view YouTube videos at home
C. Redefinition
B. Teachers use their cell phones to call
D. Substitution
parents
59. It has been described as a process to cre- C. A lesson includes a PowerPoint pre-
ate and provideaccess to learning. sentation
A. Distance learning D. An overhead projector is used to dis-
B. Virtual class play a map
C. E-learning
64. It is true that students can learned by their
D. Internet own with the help of technology?
60. Which answer is NOT one of the 10 Com- A. Yes
mandments of Computer Ethics? B. No
A. THOU SHALT NOT INTERFERE WITH
C. Maybe
OTHER PEOPLE’S COMPUTER WORK
B. THOU SHALT NOT USE A COMPUTER D. I don’t have an idea
TO ONLINE SHOP
65. Thou shalt not other people’s intellec-
C. THOU SHALT NOT USE A COMPUTER tual output.
TO BEAR FALSE WITNESS
A. “inappropriate”
D. THOU SHALT NOT APPROPRIATE
OTHER PEOPLE’S INTELLECTUAL OUTPUT B. “discuss”
C. “appropriate”
61. A community-centered video conferencing
tool that allows users to connect with D. “utilize”

66. An online design tool that offers users the B. b) G. O. M. Leith

opportunity to create professional-looking
C. c) S. S. Kulkarni
posters, slideshows, images, event flyers,

resumes, cards, certificates, infographics, D. none of above
and other media.
A. Discord 71. Way back in junior high school, Gemma al-
ways won every Sudoku contest. How-
B. Padlet
ever, since she got in PLV, she stopped
C. Jamboard solving Sudoku. Now that she’s a sopho-
D. Canva more, she’s trying to complete one puzzle
but she can no longer do. Which of the fol-
67. Developing metacognitive thinking among lowing laws will explain Gemma’s strug-
students needs the of the teacher gle?
Using metacognitive strategies facilitates
how learners learn. A. Law of Intensity
A. Creativity B. Law of Exercise

B. Appearance C. Law of Disuse
C. Knowledge D. Law of Effect
D. Beauty
72. Characteristic describes the ways in which
68. How may students use a computer appli- technology is used to set goals, plan activ-
cation as a cognitive tool? ities, monitor progress, and evaluate re-
A. Excel spreadsheet for data analysis sults. This characteristic focuses on the
extent to which technology facilitates, en-
B. drill and practice exercise provides re-
ables, or supports meaningful reflection
hearsal
and metacognition. (e.g.. Students use
C. interactive thinking map organizes technology tools to set goals, plan activ-
ideas ities, monitor progress, and evaluate re-
D. teacher demonstration communicates sults rather than simply completing assign-
strategies ments without reflection.)
69. Sir Jon wants to record his drawing to be A. Goal-Directed Learning

“played back” using Educreations apps. B. Authentic Learning
A. Augmentation C. Constructive Learning
B. Substitution
D. Collaborative Learning
C. Modification
D. Redefinition 73. Virtual and augmented reality, 3D print-
ers, and robotic are utilized in this period.
70. Educational technology is the application
of scientific knowledge about learning and A. Age of naturalism
the conditions of learning to improve the B. During the Renaissance period
effectiveness and efficiency of teaching
and learning has given by C. 19th to 20th century
A. ) E. E. Hadden D. Contemporary times

74. How do you think technology can assist B. LOSE

you in helping students meet learning ob- C. STRENGTHED
jectives?
D. MOTIVATED
A. I am not sure how it fits into what I
teach. 79. The word ‘school’ comes from the Greek
‘schole’ which means
B. It engages students. They are so
wrapped up in using computers to learn. A. Education
B. Establishment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It helps students see things in a differ-
ent way C. Aristocracy
D. Students can learn and create with D. Leisure
tech things they could not before
80. Technology tools are used in conventional
75. Anna, a high school student have a trou- ways. The teacher makes decisions about
ble in answering her homework, in order which technology tool to use and when and
to accomplish it she decided to ask her how to use it. Students’ exposure to indi-
teacher through social media because it is vidual technology tools may be limited to
not school hours single types of tasks that involve a proce-
dural understanding. (e.g.. The teacher di-
A. Kids are the digital native. rects students in the conventional and pro-
B. Technology has the ability to enhance cedural use of technology tools.)
relationships between teachers and stu- A. Adoption
dents.
B. Adaptation
C. None of the above
C. Infusion
D. All choices are correct
D. Transformation
76. It can be used together with think aloud. 81. Miss Gealone attended an emergency
A. Think aloud meeting so her student teacher, Miss
B. Journalizing Joanna, took over. The students were
very noisy and some groups were quarrel-
C. Error analysis ing. Miss Joanna talked to them and called
D. Wrapper their attention but they did not listen. She
could no longer control the whole class.
77. There are multiple forms of digital commu- According to operant conditioning, what
nication including chatrooms, videconfer- should have been done by Miss Joanna?
ences discussions, social networking and
A. Turn off the lights, as well as, the elec-
so on.
tric fans.
A. Educational Technology.
B. Take away “good behavior” tokens
B. Digital Technology. that can be redeemed for prizes.
C. Classroom learning. C. Get their attention by telling a story
D. Distance Learning. and relate it to the topic to be discussed
for that day.
78. Curriculum, testing and standards shall be D. Warn them. If they still continue their
reviewed and behavior, give them a test in order for
A. AVOID them to stop.

82. It entails new approaches of combining 87. In the , computer technology helped ele-
present and future technological improve- vate standards in different schools to con-
ments and incorporating these innovations front various challenges.

into the public education system. A. United States
A. Advancement in technology B. Sweden
B. Technology Education C. United Kingdom
C. Education Technology D. Switzerland
D. Technology
88. Teachers are faced with the challenge
83. . Which software tool allows students to of education through technology. Keefe
develop their own musical compositions? (2007) states that schools must produce
“adaptable individuals” who will keep up
A. Garageband with the rapidly moving development of
B. AutoCAD society. Furthermore, he argues that one
C. Babylon9 of the most basic challenges of teaching is
now to
D. Cute PDF
A. Get digital literacy
84. What does “flipping the classroom” B. Improve their digital devices
mean?
C. Assist to seminars and be autonomous
A. Teacher sits, students stand
D. Create, maintain and improve condi-
B. Defy gravity tions for learning
C. Learn new concepts at home
89. Each webpage has a designed unique ad-
D. No rules dress called
85. Full form of ICT A. hyperlink
A. Information B. website
B. Communication C. URL
C. Technology D. homepage
D. All of the above 90. What is NOT an Ethical Conduct toward

Professional Colleagues?
86. Technology is used to facilitate, enable, or
A. The professional educator does not re-
enhance students’ opportunities to work
veal confidential information concerning
with peers and outside experts. Kinds
colleagues
of technology tools that assist students
working with others. (e.g.. Students use B. The professional educator does not
technology tools to collaborate with oth- willfully make false statements about a
ers rather than working individually at all colleague
times) C. The professional educator should slan-
A. Collaborative Learning der colleagues if he or she does not like
them
B. Constructive Learning
D. The professional educator does not
C. Authentic Learning interfere with a colleague’s freedom of
D. Goal-Directed Learning choice

91. This examination is intended to provide in- control of their learning, an active con-
formation that will help the student make struction of knowledge as well as access
wise career decisions with respect to area to
and duration of the study. A. Multimedia software
A. Technical and Vocational Education Ex- B. Audio and video
amination
C. Collaborative learning environments
B. Federation of Accrediting Agencies of
the Philippines FAAP D. Hipermedia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. PATVEP Philippine-Australia Technical 96. What does Principle I pertain to in the
Vocational Education Project Code of Professional Conduct for Educa-
D. Evaluation of Technical and Vocational tors?
Schools A. Commitment to the Student
B. Commitment to the Community
92. What Google app is best used for writing
an essay? C. Commitment to the Profession
A. Sheets D. none of above
B. Gmail 97. What software tool can be used to cre-
C. Slides ate charts and graphs to illustrate data en-
tries?
D. Docs
A. SmartDraw
93. It focuses on a more narrow subset of tech- B. iStockPhotos
nology use that revolves around the use
of technology in and for education as op- C. .Zoomerang
posed to technology education’s focus on D. . KidPix
technology’s use in general.
98. Device features means
A. Technology Education
A. The places and times when people can
B. Educational Technology
learn, the range of contexts and cultural
C. Use of technology settings
D. Technological Advancement B. New channels and media become avail-
able for learning and interpersonal com-
94. A blended learning platform where teach- munication
ers can push out assignments, create an-
C. Teacher’s personal role and experi-
nouncements, ask questions, collect stu-
ence in enacting pedagogy.
dent work, and more!
D. Mu ltimodal communication, collabora-
A. Microsoft Teams
tion and language rehearsal in the course
B. Microsoft Forms of everyday or professional settings.
C. Microsoft OneDrive
99. It is NOT an example of instructional tech-
D. none of above nologies.
95. Stevenson et al. (2010) state that Web A. Computer based Instructions
2.0 tools provide students with a greater B. Learner Controlled Instructions

C. Controlled Instructions 104. He was recognized for developing the

D. Programmed Instructions first picture book-the Orbis Pictus and
was considered the pioneer in instructional

100. Method that is used to communicate in- technology development.
formation to far off places instantly is A. Herbart
called
B. Johann Amos Comenius
A. miscommunication
C. John Locke
B. telecommunication
D. Francis Bacon
C. information technology
D. electromagnetic communication 105. Roselliza used to forget to return her li-
brary books on time. Then her mother
101. For every topic in Geometry, Teacher started making him clean the toilet every
Paula assures that there is a collaboration time she returned a book late. As a result,
among her students. She strongly believes Roselliza forgets less often to return her
in the theory of Edward Lee Thorndike. books anymore. The change in Roselliza’s
Which of the following is the reason why behavior resulted from
Teacher Paula inculcates team learning in
A. negative punishment
her class?
B. positive punishment
A. intense learning
C. positive reinforcement
B. lighter work
D. negative reinforcement
C. sharing ideas
D. focused attention 106. Quill pens made from feathers were used
for writing.
102. What can be a contrast in using technol-
ogy A. Ancient times
A. Wrong information B. During the Medieval Era
B. Technology replacing schools and C. Renaissance period

teachers . D. Contemporary times
C. Replacing teachers and information
107. Scientific method used to store informa-
can be found on Internet without facilita-
tion and arrange it for communication is
tors.
called
D. No contrast
A. telecommunication
103. In this type of classroom, students learn B. information technology
lessons at home with the help of videos
C. codes
or other instructional materials and spend
their valuable classroom time doing assign- D. information
ments with help from their instructor.
108. Metacognitive teaching practices make
A. electronic classroom learners of their strengths and weak-
B. flipped classroom nesses as they learn.
C. virtual classroom A. Lose
D. All of the above B. Afraid

C. Aware B. Gives educators access to real-time

feedback through digital formative and
D. Alert
summative assessments and data.
109. Soliman (2014) claims that the face-to- C. Empowers educators to efficiently per-
face teaching hours are too few and there- sonalize learning with access to data, con-
fore not enough to develop students’ tent and the cloud.
He further concludes that E-learning is “an D. Doesn’t helps educators create
essential tool that should be used to sup- blended learning environments that make
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plement the EFL face-to-face class” learning relevant to students’ lives.
A. Autonomy
113. It is a visual symbol that brings novelty
B. Social skills to teaching. It tells stories metaphorically.
C. Knowledge A. Cartoon
D. Language skills B. Strip Drawing
C. Diagrams
110. a framework created by Dr. Ruben
Puentedura that categorizes four different D. Charts
degrees of classroom technology integra-
tion 114. A note-taking software that helps you
create and organize digital notes-and
A. SAMR Model keeps them synced across all your devices.
B. ADDIE Model A. Seesaw
C. ASSURE Model B. ClassDojo
D. TIM C. Flipgrid
D. Evernote
111. Teacher wisdom means
A. The places and times when people can 115. What is the definition of traditional as-
learn, the range of contexts and cultural sessments?
settings A. testing in the form of multiple choice,
B. New channels and media become avail- fill in the blank, true/false, short answer,
able for learning and interpersonal com- essay question
munication B. any method used to understand the
C. teacher’s personal role and experi- current knowledge a student possesses
ence in enacting pedagogy. C. an innovative approach to assess-
ment that focuses on assessing student
D. multimodal communication, collabora-
projects
tion and language rehearsal in the course
of everyday or professional settings. D. standard core curriculum
112. Which is not the use of technology in 116. Which best describes “gamification”
teaching and learning? A. The use of game design and mechanics
A. Prepares students for the 21st- to enhance non-game contexts.
century workforce with modern technol- B. Allowing Students to play video games
ogy skills and competencies. in class

C. The study of mathematical models of 121. What was the work of Goh and Hu
conflict and cooperation between intelli- demonstrated?
gent rational decision-makers

A. Causal relationship between metacog-
D. A teaching method in which students nitive instruction and a statistically sig-
gain knowledge and skills by working for nificant improvement in listening perfor-
an extended period of time to investigate mance.
and respond to an authentic, engaging
and complex question, problem, or chal- B. Presence of mind
lenge.
C. Love
117. To enhance knowledge and skills of learn-
D. Communication skills
ers. It is also known as the action phase
A. Design
122. “The study and ethical practice of fa-
B. Deveplment cilitating learning and improving perfor-
C. Utilization mance by creating, using, and managing
appropriate technological processes and
D. Management
resources”
118. “Technology will never replace great
teachers but in the hands of great teach- A. Instructional Technology
ers, it’s transformational.” B. Educational Technology
A. George Couros
C. Informational Technology
B. George Wilson
D. Educational Instruction
C. Albert Enstein
D. Aristotle
123. CALL today consists of three categories
119. During a quiz, Yvonne greatly remembers according to Garrett (2009, p. 722):“tu-
the topics she studied for the first hour of torial, engagement with authentic materi-
her review. Which of the following sup- als, and “
ports this scenario?
A. Istruction
A. Law of Intensity
B. Motivation
B. Law of Recency
C. Law of Primacy C. Learning theories
D. Law of Readiness D. Communication
120. What does TPACK stand for?
124. The following are reason why technology
A. Technological Pedagogical and Con-
is important to education EXCEPT.
tent Knowledge
B. Technological Process of Curricular A. Students demand it.
Knowledge B. Kids are the digital native.
C. Textbook Packaging of Curricular
Knowledge C. Kids can learn at their own pace.
D. Technology Process of Current Knowl- D. They are lazy to browse information
edge from book

125. What is Competency-Based Instruction 128. It is the application of technology to any

(CBI)? of those processes involved in operating
A. Competency-based instruction in tech- the institutions which house the educa-
nical and vocational education has been tional interprise.
officially adopted in the Philippines A. Education media
through DECS Orders. 1989.
B. Instructional
B. Competency-based instruction in tech-
C. Technology in education
nical and vocational education has been
NARAYAN CHANGDER
officially adopted in the Philippines D. Technology integration
through DECS Order No.4, s. 1989.
129. It is also known as hybrid learning. It
C. Competency-based instruction in edu- is a combination of f2f and technology-
cation has been officially adopted in the mediated instructions.
Philippines through DECS Order No.4, s.
1989 A. Blended learning
D. Competency-based instruction in tech- B. Online learning
nical and vocational education has been C. MOOC
officially loose in the Philippines through
DECS Order No.4, s. 1989. D. Game-based learning
126. Evidence that tech is a major part of life 130. Sir Jon wants his digital drawing to share
using collaborative online whiteboard.
A. Computers are quickly adopted
A. Redefinition
B. ATMs and swiping tech
B. Modification
C. Tablets and computers are in class-
rooms C. Augmentation
D. 80% of teens use social media D. Substitution

E. 72% of adults use social media 131. What software tool can be used to help
users widen their vocabulary?
127. Characteristic describes learner-centered
instruction that allows students to use A. Vernier LabQuest
technology tools to connect new informa- B. MapQuest
tion to their prior knowledge. This char-
acteristic is concerned with the flexible C. AutoCAD
use of technology to build knowledge in D. Webopedia
the modality that is most effective for
each student. (e.g..Students use technol- 132. The use of technology in the classroom
ogy tools to connect new information to can
their prior knowledge rather than to pas- A. Help students to find the answers to
sively receive information) their questions
A. Constructive Learning B. Provide collaborative experiences for
B. Authentic Learning students
C. Goal-Directed Learning C. Start conversations ( hook)
D. Active Learning D. All of the above

133. It is a unique reference that identifies a A. PATVEP Philippine-America Technical

website. Vocational Educational Proposal

A. directory B. PATVEP Philippine-Australia Technical
Vocational Education Proposal
B. domain name
C. PATVEP Philippine-America Technical
C. file name
Vocational Education Project
D. folder
D. PATVEP Philippine-Australia Technical
134. Which of the country have an excellent Vocational Education Project
technology of ICT in education?
138. The role of teachers is changing in the
A. China sense that for teachers to become guides,
B. South Korea or facilitators of knowledge, they must
also constantly be up to date on the latest
C. North Korea
D. Poland A. Research
135. How many domains of Knowledge does B. Theory
the TPACK framework consist of? C. Books
A. 3 D. Syllabus
B. 4
139. Sir Jon wants his digital drawing as a
C. 7 background image to use in a canvas to
D. 8 form new drawing or design.
A. Modification
136. A drill and practice software provides
exercises in which students can work on B. Redefinition
items one at a time and receive feedback C. Augmentation
on their correctness. Which of the follow- D. Substitution
ing characteristic should be considered in
selecting the appropriate drill and practice 140. In this stage, you are beginning to move
software? from enhancement to transformation on
A. The graphics in the software must al- the model. Instead of replacement or en-
ways support the topic being discussed hancement, this is an actual change to the
design of the lesson and its learning out-
B. The processes involved should not af- come. Technology allows for significant
fect the pace of the activity task redesign.
C. The answer judging of the software A. Substitution
must be accurate
B. Augmentation
D. The content must highlight positive
messages rather negative ones C. Modification
D. Redefinition
137. It is a continuing effort of the govern-
ment to strengthen the development of 141. It refers to all the ways people use their
middle-and high-level manpower needed inventions and discoveries to satisfy their
for national development. needs and desires.

A. Science A. Physical sciences

B. Technology B. Applied sciences
C. Scientific method C. Behavioural sciences
D. Inventions D. Both A & B
142. In the Philippines, going against the 146. ICT Stands for
agreement is a violation of copyright law A. information connection technology
in which penalties reach up to Php 1, 500,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. information communication technol-
000 and up to years of imprisonment. ogy
A. 1-3 C. fhkf
B. 3-5 D. bvhjv
C. 4-6 147. With the help of technology John able
D. 6-9 to know what skills he needed about him
dream job, what technology benefit was
143. A student is late to submit his/her ac- stated?
tivity on Canvas. If you want to weaken
A. Prepares students for the workforce.
this behavior using a positive punishment,
which of the following should you use? B. Encourages collaboration.
A. For the next activity, give a student C. Improves engagement
an additional point if he/she will submit D. Supports different types of learners.
his/her work on time.
148. Which are the 2 M’s of the cone of expe-
B. Give the student a second chance and riences?
tell him/her that late submission during a
A. Man & mind
pandemic does not equate to negligence.
B. Mind & matter
C. Give a deduction as a sanction.
C. Media & material
D. Investigate the student’s home condi-
tion. D. Man & media
144. What is an example of commandment 149. When did men start to use pointed sticks
number 8 in what not to do? to in-script signs and symbols on the
leaves of trees and knives for the bark of
A. Using someones else photo without trees?
others consent.
A. During the medieval era
B. Copying somethings and claiming it
B. During the Ancient Times
yours.
C. During the Renaissance period
C. Reading through other files and
emails. D. During the age of naturalism
D. Establishing ownership on something 150. Most important piece of hardware is

that is not yours. A. Mouse
E. Downloading a video game B. CPU
145. The first type of educational technology C. Keyboard
(hardware approach) originated from D. Monitor

151. How can students benefit from technol- 156. Who first produced the book ‘ chitra-
ogy in the classroom? may’?

A. Only teacher-directed learning A. Straubo
B. Student-directed learning B. Plato
C. Additional resources to buy C. Comenius
D. Toulemy
D. none of above
157. Which among the following is NOT an ex-
152. Joyce notice that her kids are very example of embedded operating system.
pert when it come in using technology even
though they are just in elementary school. A. Blackberry OS
B. iOS
A. Kid are the digital native
C. Google Android
B. With technology, there are no limita-
tion D. Mac OS X
C. Kids demand it 158. It is also used to support both teach-
ing and learning, technology infuses class-
rooms with digital learning tools, such as
153. Which technology tool allows you and computers and handheld devices; expands
your classmates to play a game against course offerings, experiences, and learn-
each other after entering a code provided ing materials; supports learning 24 hours
by your teacher? a days, 7days a week; build 21st century
skills; increases student engagement and
A. Edpuzzle motivation; accelerates learning.
B. Epic A. Technology
C. Kahoot B. Media
D. Quizizz C. Science
D. Books
154. When you require your students to create
a visual plan prior to working with comput- 159. It is a “systematic approach for us-
ers. ing feedback metacognitively to improve
A. Storyboarding one’s future performance”
A. Wrapper
B. Effective research strategies
B. Journalizing
C. Effective computer scheduling
C. Error Analysis
D. Flow chart
D. Think aloud
155. Check the three reading programs/tech
160. This period has three main lines of con-
tools in the list below:
cern:intellectual, aesthetic, scientific.
A. Read Theory A. Renaissance
B. Readworks B. 19th to 20th century
C. Kahoot! C. Contemporary times
D. Actively Learn D. Medieval era

161. When did Rousseau on his naturalistic B. Non-Formal Education shall not focus
view of education contain in his book on functional literacy, numeracy and citi-
Emile? zenship, and vocational training to meet
the skills required of the economy.
A. Age of naturalism
C. Formal Education shall focus on func-
B. Renaissance period
tional literacy, numeracy and citizenship,
C. Contemporary times and vocational training to meet the skills
requirement of the economy.
D. Ancient times
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
162. Who invented the printing press?
166. The following are reasons why students
A. Frederick I of Bologna needs technology in classroom EXCEPT.
B. Edward Thorndike A. Helps connect students to the real
C. Johannes Gutenberg world.
B. Prepares students for the workforce.
D. Francis Bacon
C. Encourages collaboration
163. The following are educational benefits in D. For them to be able play mobile games
conducting a field trip, except
A. It brings the students to a world out- 167. Advantages of Classroom learning.
side the classroom. A. Improves educational resourses.
B. It makes the learners’ ideas and con- B. Convenience.
cepts learned in the classroom more con- C. Does not offer immediate feedback
crete.
D. Requires advance planing.
C. It is costly to prepare and organize.
168. Monitoring, assessing and giving judge-
D. It nurtures curiosity and builds a zest
ment on the extent of usefulness of learn-
for new experience.
ing materials in achieving the expected
outcomes
164. What is computer ethics?
A. Design
A. Rules and standers to use a computer.
B. Deveplment
B. The good and bad of the use of the com-
puter. C. Evaluation
C. An honest, moral code that should be D. Management

followed when on the computer. 169. Wihch one doesn’t belong to improve lan-
D. All of the above. guage outcomes with MALL?
A. Learning tolerant, developing auton-
165. Where non-formal education does fo- omy
cuses?
B. G etting information from internet
A. Non-Formal Education shall focus on
functional literacy, numeracy and citizen- C. Developing multiple perspectives
ship, and vocational training to meet the D. Learning to learn, developing auton-
skills required of the economy. omy

170. In how many levels does Technical and vo- 175. What is Mrs. Carlier’s favorite sport?
cational institutions/programs are classi- A. football
fied?

B. basketball
A. 5 Levels
C. soccer
B. 3 Levels
D. baseball
C. 4 Levels
176. It means the systematic application of sci-
D. 2 Levels entific knowledge to practical tasks.
171. What is the purpose of the research tool A. Technology
in Google Docs, Presentations, Slides, and B. Books
Drawings?
C. Media
A. To search for new words
D. Research
B. To copy from a website
177. According to the Commandments of com-
C. To research topics, add images, cite in- puter ethics, which of the following repre-
formation sents:spreading rumor, false information,
D. To find a video misinformation?
A. Thou shalt not use a computer to bear
172. A clutter chalkboard may confuse your false witness.
students. This is according to which the-
ory? B. Thou shalt not use a computer to harm
other people.
A. Cognitivism
C. Thou shalt not appropriate other peo-
B. Connectionism ple’s intellectual output.
C. Constructivism D. Thou shalt think about the social con-
D. Behaviorism sequences of the program you write.
178. It covers the human’s ability to shape and

173. Accreditation should be , collegial and
change the physical world to meet needs,
peer group system.
by manipulating materials and tools with
A. Voluntary techniques.
B. Non-voluntary A. Education Technology
C. Expectedly B. Technology Education
D. None of the above C. Versatility
D. Knowledge
174. The two commonly benefits and limita-
tion of different e-learning technics and 179. How do the stages of technological inno-
methods are: vations impact what happens in the class-
room?
A. Synchronous e-learning.
A. Technology remains static with current
B. Digital Technology.
practice.
C. Asynchronous e-learning.
B. Technology makes new and better
D. Social networking. practices possible

C. Technology replaces current prac- 184. In evaluating the effectiveness of edu-

tices. cational technology in classroom use, the
D. Technology improves on current prac- teacher asked herself, “ Will it help me
tices convey the message of the lesson? ” this
question refers to
E. Technology’s role evolves with current
practice A. evaluating befor instruction
B. evaluating after instruction
180. Higher order thinking occurs at all the fol-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lowing levels, EXCEPT: C. evaluating during instruction
A. Create D. evaluating yesterday’s instruction
B. Analyze
185. What is the definition of learning styles?
C. Understand
A. a student are gifted and talent.
D. Evaluate
B. refers to how individuals receive, pro-
181. In what word does technology came from cess, and retain information.
A. Technique
C. the knowledge and skill need to per-
B. Techno form standard in schools.
C. Techne D. appropriate for the learner, meet
D. Tech learning objectives and enhance.
182. Leamers should be informed about the 186. What is an Ethical Conduct that educators
benefit of applying metacognitive skills in need to use toward students?
order to make them exert the initial extra
A. The professional educator deals con-
effort.
siderately and justly with each student
A. TRUE
B. The professional educator reveals stu-
B. FALSE dents’ confidential information
C. MAYBE
C. The professional educator shows fa-
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE voritism to specific students
183. How do teachers integrate tech into pro- D. none of above

fessional work?
187. Mrs Ramos, a college instructor is prefer
A. Collaborate with colleagues
to use her laptop and projector to share her
B. Use tech in place of face-to-face meet- knowledge about their everyday lesson.
ings with parents
A. New teacher demand to use technol-
C. Provide notices and information ogy
through class website
B. With technology, there are no limita-
D. Answer students’ questions about as- tion
signments
C. Both A and B
E. Comply with school policies on use of
social media D. None of the above

188. It is a suite of online tools that allows 193. It is a visual analogy, and like all analo-
teachers to set assignments, have work gies, it does not bear an exact and detailed
submitted by students, to mark, and to re- relationship to the complex elements it

turn graded papers. represents.
A. Classpoint A. Experiences
B. Quizziz B. Cone
C. Google Classroom C. Media
D. Google Drive D. Matrials
194. What do Nearpod, Padlet, and Microsoft

189. Which of the following software support
Teams all have in common?
tool allows users to enrich their knowl-
edge in specialized content? A. They are learning management sys-
tems
A. Research and Reference Tools
B. I have wasted hours trying to make
B. Material Generator Tools each one work!
C. Content Area Tools C. They all help facilitate student engage-
D. Planning and Organizing Tools ment and lead to higher achievement
D. They are behavior management sys-
190. Which is not the benefit of using technol- tems for the classroom
ogy?
195. What help of metacognitive teaching
A. Improves knowledge retention.
practices does the students possess?
B. Encourages individual learning.
A. Metacognitive teaching practices
C. Improves engagement make learners aware of their strengths
D. Students can’t learn useful life skills and weaknesses as they learn.
through technology. B. Metacognitive teaching practices
make learners aware of their money as
191. Monitor and control instructional design they learn.
and development project
C. Metacognitive teaching practices
A. Project management make learners aware of their mistakes
B. Resource Management as they learn.
C. Delivery Management
D. Information management 196. An instructional game software allows
learners to practice their skills in a more
192. This word originally means a computer engaging manner through a game. Which
enthusiast who does well in computer that of the following characteristics should be
benefits other people. considered in selecting the appropriate in-
structional game software?
A. scammer
A. The representation of a particular ac-
B. hacker
tivity is realistic and accurate.
C. poser
B. The processes involved should affect
D. vandal the pace of the activity.

C. The answer judging of the software 201. There are multiple forms of digital com-
must be accurate. munication including chat rooms, video
conferences discussions, social networking
D. The content must highlight positive
and so on. Which one is best related to?
messages rather negative ones
A. Educational Technology.
197. A computer crime when one deliberately B. Digital Technology.
steals information for purposes of study-
C. Classroom learning.
ing how to compete with other companies.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Distance Learning.
A. information theft
202. Which App allows you to assign videos
B. hardware theft
to your students and tracks their progress
C. vandalism and completion?
D. software theft A. Flippety
B. Flipgrid
198. This are some examples of Asynchronous
C. EdPuzzle
e-learning.
D. Apple Classroom
A. E-mails.
203. What software tool can be used to create
B. Discussion boards.
a test or test item bank online?
C. Supports work.
A. Worksheet Work
D. Classroom learning B. Adobe Dreamweaver
199. What period highlights interculturalism C. Easy Test Maker

and multiculturalism; mobile devices and D. Quark Express
media platforms; self-paced and individ-
204. The ability to access, analyze, evaluate
ual study plans; a variety of available re-
and create media.
sources and technologies.
A. media literacy
A. Renaissance
B. media skill
B. Medieval Era
C. media tech
C. 19th to 20th century D. media knowledge
D. Contemporary times
205. Which of these commandments of com-
200. Type of assessment considred as a long- puter ethic, is referring to downloading il-
term assignment in whci students can legally?
see and discover their own strenthgs and A. Thou shalt not use a computer to bear
weaknesses which they can improve as false witness.
they go along the process of learning. B. Thou shalt not use other people’s com-
A. Project based assessment puter resources without authorization.
B. Authentic assessment C. Thou shalt not use or copy software for

which you have not paid.
C. Portfolio assessment
D. Thou shalt use a computer in ways that
D. Traditional assessment show consideration and respect.

206. If the technology does not it is not C. a way to waste time

useful. D. cool

A. meet the students learning objectives
211. Displays to be seen by
B. make the student laugh
A. Participation
C. make the student work
B. Spectators
D. look good to the student
C. Observer
207. In 1980, through what was called the D. Learners
“Futuring Project”, the name of “industrial
arts education” was changed to what? 212. To lessen the level of awareness, inter-
A. Technological Avancement est, and participation in sports and cultural
activities is another objective of the Educa-
B. Technical Vocational
tion and Manpower Development Sector.
C. Technology Education
A. True
D. Educational Technology
B. False
208. The following are examples of browser C. Maybe true
EXCEPT
A. Google
213. Mars suit design was utilized as a topic
B. Safari
for technology education in the
C. Mozilla firefox
A. 19th century
D. Adobe reader
B. 20th century
209. Technology allows for the creation of new C. 21st century
task previously inconceivable. It repre-
D. 22nd century
sents the pinnacle of how technology can
transform a student’s experience. In this 214. Teachers gain tech skills by
case, you ask yourself if the technology
A. online professional development
tools allow educators to redefine a tradi-
tional task in a way that would not be B. intensive off-site courses with follow-
possible without the tech, creating a novel up seminars
experience. technology allows for the cre- C. financial incentives for taking classes
ation of new task previously inconceiv-
able. D. ongoing training accessed at a
teacher’s convenience
A. Redefinition
B. Modification 215. Sir Jon wants to draw a picture using
a traditional brush, paint, paper but he
C. Augmentation changes his mind now he wants to use dig-
D. Substitution ital drawing MS Paint.
210. What does technology need to be in the A. Substitution

classroom? B. Augmentation
A. appropriate for the learner C. Modification
B. fun D. Redefinition

216. It is an activity that fosters learners’ 221. Ms. Balayong wants to help her students
metacognition before, during, and after a retain new information learned from their
class. lesson in Biology. Which of the following
A. Wrapper strategies should she best apply?
B. Journalizing A. Role playing
C. Error Analysis B. Mnemonics

C. Discussion
D. Think aloud
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Games
217. How do current patterns of technology
use contribute to disparities in educational 222. What is one benefit of using technology
quality? in the classroom?
A. Students from poorer families will A. Standing at the copy machine for ex-
most likely use tech for games tended amount of time
B. Internet use is greatest among Asian B. Automatic grading and frequent feed-
and white households back
C. Differences between boys and girls C. Broken and unsharpened pencils
are aggravated by certain technologies D. Out-dated materials and references
D. Middle Class children are more likely 223. Jane able to more information through
to use computers for drill and practice. technology rather than books, what ben-
218. It refers to the art or craft of responding efits of technology was stated?
to our educational needs A. Encourages collaboration
A. Education B. Easily access information
B. Education technology C. Adds a fun-factor to learning.
C. Technology in education D. Teaches students how to be responsi-
D. Education research ble online.
224. To preserve, enrich and propagate the
219. communication happens in real time.
nation’s desirable cultural heritage and
A. Asynchronous e-learning. legacy is one of the objectives of the Ed-
B. Synchronous e-learning. ucation and Manpower Development Sec-
tor.
C. Educational Tecnology
A. True
D. Distance learning.
B. False
220. Which question does the SAMR Model in-
C. Maybe true
spire? (Common Sense Education, 2016)
D. Maybe false
A. What will my students learn from this?
225. The teacher incorporates technology
B. How can I make this activity more ex- tools as an integral part of the lesson.
citing? While the teacher makes most decisions
about technology use, the teacher guides
C. Where is learning taking place? the students in the independent use of
D. How can I do this better? technology tools. S(e.g.. The teacher

facilitates the students’ exploration and C. Educational Technology

independent use of technology tools.) D. Use of Technology

A. Adaptation
231. Implementing and using the learning ma-
B. Infusion terials to enhance knowledge and skills of
C. Transformation learners. It is also known as action phase
D. Entry A. Media Utilization
B. Diffusion of Innovation
226. What software tool can be used to create,
edit and update web pages? C. Implementing and instructionalization
A. RubiStar D. Policies and regulation
B. Microsoft WebMatrix 232. Teacher Micah noticed that most of her
C. SurveyMonkey students had obtained low scores in the
recent quiz about parts of a flower. She is
D. iRespond a constructivist teacher so she presented
227. Finish the Computer Ethics Command- a picture of gumamela. She believes that
ment:“Thou Shalt Not Use A Computer To this flower is what the students know
Harm “ and yet, students got low scores. For
maximum learning, which of the following
A. Other Technology should Teacher Micah employ?
B. Oneself A. She should have presented the parts of
C. Other People a flower in video, not just in picture.
D. none of above B. She should have provided a handout of
the discussion.
228. An organized instructional program in
which the teacher and learners can be C. She should have provided a prize for
physically separated. the top scorer.
A. Distance Education D. She should have assigned her students

to bring an actual gumamela.
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Web Quests
social media?
D. Computer-Based Instruction
A. Facebook
229. What company’s operating system runs B. Twitter
on the Chromebook?
C. Blogging
A. Apple
D. All options
B. Google
234. Jay’s groupmates schedule a meeting for
C. Microsoft their report, however unnecessary event
D. Windows happened and they didn’t able to meet
each other, however they used technology
230. Technical education is entirely different to discuss their agenda. what technology
from what? is being applied?
A. General Education A. Technology connect them to the real
B. Technology Education world

B. Encourage collaboration 239. Academic level is based on what

C. Makes them lazy A. grade level
D. It supports different types of learners B. technical support
235. China has higher developed technology of C. authority

ICT in education compared to Indonesia D. learning content
A. True
240. Among others, the New Secondary Edu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. False cation Curriculum is aimed to:
C. Don’t care A. Acquire work skills, knowledge and in-
D. none of above formation and a set of work ethics essen-
tial for making an intelligent choice of an
236. Based on social constructivism, thinking occupation or career and for specialized
is a result of interaction between the training in specific occupation.
individual and the environment/society.
B. Doesn’t acquire work skills, knowl-
Which of the following supports this idea?
edge and information and a set of work
I. Social interaction plays a role in learn-
ethics essential for making an intelligent
ing. II. Collaborative approach should be
choice of an occupation or career and for
used in the classroom. III. Teacher should
specialized training in specific occupation.
provide hands-on activities.IV. If possible,
topics should be presented in a real-world C. Acquire work skills, knowledge and in-
setting. formation and a set of work ethics essen-
tial for messing an intelligent choice of an
A. I, II, and III
occupation or career and for specialized
B. I and II only training in specific occupation.
C. I, II, III, and IV D. None of the above
D. I, II, and III
241. Can technology be implemented rapidly
237. Information must be accessible to users or slowly worked in through integration?
when, where and in whatever format best A. Slowly worked through integration
serves their needs
B. Technology can be implemented
A. Project Management rapidly with no detriment to retention
B. Resource management C. Technology should be scattered
C. Delivery management throughout the whole school year so the
students can get comfortable with it.
D. Information Management
D. none of above
238. One of the benefits of technology is
242. You can make flashcards to help you
A. Ss do not acquire abilities
study with this tech tool!
B. Ss acquire other abilities and increase
A. Quizizz
their knowledge.
B. Edpuzzle
C. They can use the computer
D. The students are acquiring more skill C. Kahoot
in the learning processes D. Quizlet

243. Technology needs to the students 247. Spreadsheet are composed of thousnads
learning process. of rows and columns. Rows are horizon-
tally arranged which are identified with

A. describe
numbers from 1 to
B. enhance
A. 1, 840, 576
C. be aware of B. 1, 084, 765
D. test C. 1, 048, 576
244. This emergent discipline seeks to con- D. 1, 408, 675
tribute to the learners’ overall scientific
248. Educational technology 1 has truly paved
and technological literacy, and technacy .
the way for the learner to become
A. Versatility equipped, appreciative, and to use edu-
cational technology tools ranging from tra-
B. Knowledge
ditional to modern educational media.
C. Education Technology
A. Evaluate
D. Technology Education B. Assess
245. Students use technology tools flexibly to C. Aware
achieve specific learning outcomes. The D. All are correct
students have a conceptual understand-
ing of the tools coupled with extensive 249. Wrapper is an activity that learners’
practical knowledge about their use. Stu- metacognition before, during, and after a
dents apply that understanding and knowl- class.
edge, and students may extend the use of A. POSTERS
technology tools. (e.g.. The teacher en-
B. FOSTERS
courages the innovative use of technology
tools to facilitate higher-order learning ac- C. FUSTERS
tivities that may not be possible without D. FASTERS
the use of technology.)
250. The tech tool in which teachers create
A. Transformation
a question, and then students can record
B. Entry their video response is
C. Adoption A. Kahoot!
D. Adaptation B. Flipgrid
C. Google Forms
246. These are statements of the type of skills
and knowledge you expect student to be D. Google Meet
able to demonstrate at the end of instruc- 251. Which of the following is NOT an ap-
tion. proach to educational technology?
A. Curriculum A. Hardware
B. Student objectives B. Software
C. Curriculum standards C. Philosophical
D. Curriculum frameworks D. system

252. Which of the following tech tools are 257. What is TCC or Technical Coordinating
games for students? Committee?
A. Kahoot! A. The TCC is a national body composed
of representatives from the formal educa-
B. Quizizz
tion sector (DECS), private industry sector
C. Quizlet Live (PCCI), government-industry sector (DTI),
and employment sector (DOLE).
D. Epic
B. The TCC is a regional body composed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
253. Establishing a framework to guide in of the representatives from the formal
planning the educational technology education sector (DECS), private industry
sector (PCCI), government industry sec-
A. Design
tor (DTI), and employment sector (DOLE).
B. Delopment
C. A and B is correct
C. Utilization D. None of the above
D. Management
258. It addresses the disconnect between
254. Save and store all of your documents on- wide usage and the lack of knowledge
line so that your work will be safe if your about technical components of technolo-
laptop crashes. gies used and how to fix them.
A. Google Drive A. Education Technology

B. Technology Education
B. Padlet
C. Versatility
C. Canva
D. Knowledge
D. Jamboard
259. These are examples of productivity soft-
255. Which of the following tech tools pro- ware EXCEPT
vides articles about current topics and
A. word processing
events?
B. electronic spreadsheet
A. Actively Learn
C. graphics
B. Quizlet
D. tutorial
C. Edcite
260. At this stage, technology is directly sub-
D. Quizizz
stituted for a more traditional one. Tech-
256. According to one definition, can be nology acts as as a direct substitute, with
conceived as a science of techniques and functional change.
methods by which educational goals could A. Substitution
be realized B. Augmentation
A. team teaching C. Modification
B. educational technology D. Redefinition
C. Instructional Technology
261. Basic media skill refers to the capacity
D. Task Analysis and creativity in solving problem.

A. Media fluency B. She’s lazy to write on board

B. Creativity fluency C. She forgot her chalk

C. Solution fluency D. All of the above
D. Attractive fluency 266. The different domains and its effects on
262. What are the four levels of the SAMR the outcomes of learning
model? A. Design
A. selection, achievement, model, re- B. Development
design C. Utilization
B. substitution, augmentation, modifica- D. Management
tion, redefinition
C. substitution, amplification, minimize, 267. Is a concept which is highly related to
recreate blended learning and might be considered
an example of how blended learning can
D. study, application, modification, repre- be put in to practice. Emergence of com-
sentation puters, the Internet, mobile phones, and
other technology has brought up the idea
263. What does Gardner mean by the “app
of ..
generation”?
A. Group control
A. Cell phones are used as alarm clocks
B. Flipping the classroom
B. Today’s generation perceives there ex-
istence as a menu of apps. C. Learning environments
C. Apps make cell phones “Swiss Army D. Web strategies design
Knife” of technology
268. Thomas Edison prediction using technol-
D. Live footage is uploaded and shared to ogy was:
apps.
A. Schools would be completely changed
264. Based on “10 Pros And Cons Of A Flipped in 10 years
Classroom” (2017) Week 4, which of the B. Books would become obsolete in
following is NOT a Pro? schools
A. Students have more control. C. The phonograph would have class-
B. It can be more efficient. room applications
C. It relies on preparation and trust. D. All branches of knowledge could be
taught with motion pictures
D. Lessons and content are more accessi-
ble. 269. Characteristic makes the distinction be-
tween lessons in which students passively
265. Grade 1 students become more interac- receive information and lessons in which
tive during class discussion when their students discover, process, and apply their
teacher use television to discuss her les- learning. Student engagement is a key
son, what technology benefit was ap- component of active learning.(e.g.. Stu-
plied? dents are actively engaged in using tech-
A. Technology adds a fun-factor to learn- nology as a tool rather than passively re-
ing. ceiving information from the technology.)

A. Active Learning 273. The following are objectives of edtech 2

B. Collaborative Learning EXCEPT?
A. Exposing students to the internet with-
C. Constructive Learning
out limitations.
D. Authentic Learning
B. To engage students on information
270. Based on “100+ Tools for Differentiating technology.
Instruction Through Social Media” (2015) C. To impart learning experiences in in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Week 5, what are the guidelines to help structional technology-supported instruc-
ensure that the tool you use will address tional planning.
students’ needs? (Check all that apply) D. To acquaint the students on informa-
A. Be clear about the academic routines. tion technology learning theories.
B. Assess what students know and don’t 274. Why is the use of cognitive tools not
know. necessarily easier for students than tradi-
C. Identify related student background tional teaching tools?
connections. A. Cognitive tools require students to be
D. Provide positive, constructive, and more creative and critical
kind feedback. B. Computer applications manipulate
complex information
271. In , technology as a new subject
emerged from the tradition of crafts sub- C. Teachers provide scaffolds for stu-
jects while in countries like Taiwan and dents in the use of cognitive tools
Australia, its elements are discernible in D. Computer spreadsheet applications
historical vocational programs. are challenging to use
A. Switzerland 275. This process includes identifying needs,
B. Sweden determining to what extent the problem
can be classified as instructional in nature
C. China
A. Problem analysis
D. U.S.
B. Formative and Summative Evaluation
272. The integration of electronic devices into C. Criterion referenced measurement
classrooms has been cited as a possible
D. Summative test
solution to bridge access for students, to
close achievement gaps, that are subject 276. What is the use of technology in teaching
to the digital divide, based on social class, and learning?
economic inequality, or gender where a po-
tential user does not have enough cultural A. Technology is transforming education,
capital required to have access to informa- changing how, when and where students
tion and communication technologies. learn, and empowering them at every
stage of their journey.
A. Pedagogy
B. Doesn’t help the students to connect
B. Constructivism to the real world.
C. Behaviorism C. A and B are correct
D. Cognitivism D. None of the above

277. With technology incorporated into every- 282. It is a form of cooperative vocational
day learning, this creates a new environ- training or on the job training, donation,
ment with new research, scholarship and others.

A. Personalized and blended learning A. Networking
B. Advanced learning B. Linkages
C. Spoon feeding C. Organization
D. Advanced and personalized learning D. Groups
278. Cooperative learning 283. Disadvantages of Distance learning.

A. is a type of learning that occurs when A. Requires advance planing.
students become engaged.
B. Distance learners may feel isolated.
B. is fun.
C. Improves educational resources.
C. is a method of instruction in which stu-
D. Does not offer immediate feedback.
dents work collaboratively in groups.
D. is the method of aspiring. 284. Ma’am Risa remind her students to
think before they share information online,
279. Who ruled the EDSA REVOLUTION? what did Ma’am Risa did?
A. President Rodrigo R. Duterte A. Teaches her student to be responsible
online
B. President Corazon C. Aquino
B. She just want her class to be boring
C. President Ferdinand E. Marcos
C. She forgot what she’s going to say in
D. President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
her class
280. It refers to technology that allow learner D. None of the Above
to stimulate, organize, manipulate, visual-
ize or reflect on data, information and ob- 285. Provides a framework for describing and
jects. targeting the use of technology to enhance
learning.
A. technology as a mindtool
A. Technology Integration Matrix
B. technology as a helper
B. SAMR
C. technology as a tutor
C. ADDDIE Model
D. technology as navigator
D. ASSURE Model
281. If I wanted to make a video recording of
myself and the screen I was working on, 286. The following are the top benefits of tech-
which tech tool would I use? nology in classroom EXCEPT.
A. Screencastify A. Improves engagement.
B. Kahoot! B. Improves knowledge retention.
C. Google Forms C. Encourages collaboration.
D. Readworks D. Makes students lazy

287. Distance learning projects such as 291. It is the study of technology, in which
GSAMS, provide requirements for the type students “learn about the processes and
of management knowledge related to technology”.
A. Delivery Management A. Technology Education
B. Information Management B. Technological Advancement
C. Project Management C. Technological Education
D. Resource management D. Technologies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
288. It is a leading edtech company that pro- 292. This an understanding of how teaching
vides a one-stop solution for digital learn- and learning can change when particular
ing. technologies are used in particular meth-
ods.
A. Google Classro
A. TPK
B. Classin
B. TCK
C. Padlet
C. Tech PACK
D. Edmodo
D. PK
289. Since the nature of technology education
293. It is a proven metacognitive strategy as
is significantly different from its predeces-
many learners learn best when studying
sor, Industrial Arts teachers underwent in-
with peers who are more informed and
service education in the mid-1980s while
skilled than them.
a Technology Training Network was also
established by? A. Peer mentoring
A. New York Central Education Depart- B. Humanism
ment (NYCED). C. Friends
B. New York State Educational Depart- D. Teacher mentoring
ment (NYSED).
294. The TVEAAP shall establish and maintain
C. New York State Department (NYSD). a
D. New York State Education Department A. Comprehensive system in order to
(NYSED). make available technical and vocational
education data related to accreditation.
290. The following are the roles of technology
in learning, except: B. Comprehensive information system in
order to make technical education data re-
A. Information vehicles for explor-
lated to accreditation.
ing knowledge to support learning-by-
constructing. C. Comprehensive information system in
order to avoid available technical and vo-
B. It confines learning only in the class-
cational education data related to accred-
room.
itation
C. It is a tool to support knowledge con- D. Comprehensive information system in
struction. order to make available technical and vo-
D. A revolution of teaching in the new cational education data related to accred-
age. itation.

295. Examples of this are Microsoft Windows 300. Which best describes the Technological
and Mac OS X. Knowledge domain in the TPACK frame-
work?

A. embedded operating system
B. stand alone operating system A. What Teachers Know
C. emerging operating system B. How Teachers Teach
D. operating system C. How Technology is Used
296. What does FAAP stands for? D. none of above
A. Federal of Accrediting Agencies of the
Philippines 301. You can use OneDrive to create
B. Federation of Accredetion Agencies of A. Documents
the Philippines
B. Spreadsheets
C. Federation of According Agencies of
the Philippines C. All of the above
D. Federation of Accrediting Agencies of D. none of above
the Philippines
297. Joy able to gained new knowledge with 302. Is the use of technology resources
the help of technology, what benefit of computers, mobile devices like smart-
technology was stated. phones and tablets, digital cameras, social
media platforms and networks, software
A. Encourage individual Learning applications, the Internet, etc.
B. Improves engagement
A. Technology integration
C. Encourage collaboration
B. Educational Technology
D. Improves knowledge retention
C. Technology in Education
298. What software tool can be used to mod-
ify photos to be inserted into documents? D. Instructional media
A. PowerSchool
303. Typically the teacher uses technology to
B. Adobe Photoshop deliver curriculum content to students. En-
C. Quia Web try level activities may include listening
D. Adobe Pagemaker to or watching content delivered through
technology or working on activities de-
299. “Concentrates on perfectly realizing signed to build fluency with basic facts or
learning objectives by utilizing the suit- skills, such as drill-and-practice exercises.
able personal learning method to watch (e..g.. The teacher begins to use technol-
the best learning style to transfer the ap- ogy tools to deliver curriculum content to
propriate learning skills to the potential students.)
student at the correct time”
A. Entry
A. MALL
B. Adoption
B. Elearning
C. Bl ended learning C. Adaptation
D. CALL D. Infusion

304. What level of technological maturity is B. Federation of Accrediting Agencies of

demonstrated when teachers use technol- the Philippines FAAP
ogy to link to websites or videos? C. PATVEP Philippine-Australia Technical
A. Technology replaces movies and over- Vocational Education Projec
head projectors. D. Evaluation of Technical and Vocational
B. Technology is used to do what was al- Schools
ready done in the past.
308. This is where the webpages are stored.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Technology provides the same capabil-
ity as prior equipment. A. web storage
D. Technology supports and extends what B. web folder

is already done. C. web server
D. web data
305. Learner mobilities means
A. The places and times when people can 309. With the help of technology Bryan able
learn, the range of contexts and cultural to gather information wherever he is.
settings A. With technology, there are no limita-
B. New channels and media become avail- tion
able for learning and interpersonal com- B. He demand it
munication
C. He Is digital native
C. Teacher’s personal role and experi-
ence in enacting pedagogy.
D. Multimodal communication, collabora- 310. A spam sent through instant messaging
tion and language rehearsal in the course devices.
of everyday or professional settings. A. Spim
306. What benefits do teachers have with the B. Split
use of technology? C. Spy
A. There are no benefits because technol- D. Scam
ogy is replacing teachers.
311. A computer crime when a person copies
B. The only benefit is that the government
illegally copyrighted software for per-
give students tables.
sona/business use.
C. Teachers have big opportunities to A. hardware theft
reach goals, but they cannot improve the
SS grades. B. software theft
D. Big opportunities to reach goals and C. information theft
improve students grades D. vandalism
307. It was developed and tried out in prepa- 312. It is also called as learning show?
ration for its installation as one of the ma- A. Educational TV
jor evaluation schemes for technical educa-
tion. B. Education Television
A. A Technician Competency Skills Test C. Educational TV Show

(TCST) D. Learning TV Show

5.13 Demography and Family Planning 1273
313. What is considered as the third revolu- B. meets learning objectives.

tion in education? C. enhances the learning process.

A. Cellphone
D. All of the above
B. Computer
C. Internet 315. Who proposed the Multiple intelligence
theory?
D. Technology
A. John Dewey
314. Evaluating the effectiveness of educa-
B. Edward Thorndike
tional technology can help you assess
whether the technology is C. Howard Garner
A. appropriate for the learner. D. Maria Montessori
5.13 Demography and Family Planning

1. This statistic is calculated by dividing the B. Stage 2
number of economically dependent people C. Stage 3
(younger than age 15 and older than age
65) by the number of working age people D. Stage 4
(ages 15 to 64) and multiplying by 100: E. Stage 5
A. Crude Birth Rate
5. The public health inspector smiles as the
B. Crude Death Rate building of sewers is completed.
C. Dependency Ratio A. Stage 1
D. none of above B. Stage 2
2. Sanitation and diets are very poor C. Stage 3
A. Stage 1 D. Stage 4
B. Stage 2 E. Stage 5
C. Stage 3 6. Identify the stage on the demographic
D. Stage 4 transition model when the population is in
decline.
E. Stage 5
A. Stage 1
3. New home construction is rapidly increas-
B. Stage 2
ing.
A. Stage 1 C. Stage 3
B. Stage 2 D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3 E. Stage 5
D. Stage 4 7. Consumer Behaviour Segmentation based

E. Stage 5 on Schiffman and Kanuk.
A. Behaviour that consumers, whether
4. Fewer children share a bedroom. it’s an individual or group or business or-
A. Stage 1 ganization display in searching for, pur-

chasing using evaluating and disposing of 12. Women are highly educated and choose to
product and services work and have children later in life
B. Market broken down by variables such A. Stage 1
as age, gender, family size, income, occu-
B. Stage 2
pation, education, as well as religion
C. Stage 3
C. Pull census data to determine who,
where, and how you want to market your D. Stage 4
product.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Stage 5
D. none of above
13. There are more grandparents than grand-
8. There are more Golden (50 years) Anniver- children.
saries being celebrated A. Stage 1
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5
E. Stage 5
14. People want to spend their money on
9. The change from high fertility and high other things rather than lots of children
mortality to low fertility and low mortal-
ity as a country develops economically is A. Stage 1
referred to as the: B. Stage 2
A. population age structure C. Stage 3
B. demographic transition D. Stage 4
C. demographic dividend E. Stage 5
D. none of above
15. Grandparents are very rare.
10. Birth control is starting to be used A. Stage 1
A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2
B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5
E. Stage 5
16. Below are all the function of demographic
11. Mr. john loses his job as a grave digger. segmentation. Which one is FALSE?
A. Stage 1 A. Pay proper attention to a particular
B. Stage 2 party
C. Stage 3 B. Understand potential customer
D. Stage 4 C. To know the competitors
E. Stage 5 D. none of above

17. It’s the cultural norm to have a large fam- 22. Which describes the birth and death rate
ily (Tick all that apply) of Stage 1 of the DTM?

A. Stage 1 A. The death rate is high but the birth rate
B. Stage 2 is low
C. Stage 3 B. Both the death and birth rate are high
D. Stage 4 C. The death rate is low but the birth rate
E. Stage 5 is high
D. Both the death and birth rate are low
18. Example of demographic segmentation
A. Religion, race, and nationality 23. Which of these does the DTM not include?
B. Values and attitude A. Birth rate
C. Age B. Population
D. Area C. Migration
19. In which stage of the DTM is the popula- D. Death rate
tion growth the most rapid?
A. 1 24. In what stage of the DTM are traditional
tribes?
B. 2
A. 1
C. 3
B. 2
D. 4
E. 5 C. 3
D. 4
20. According to the Population Reference Bu-
reau map provided, how is Botswana cat- E. 5
egorized in 2018?
25. A mother sobs over the grave of her last
A. High Child Dependency six children who died in a typhoid epi-
B. Moderate Child Dependency demic.
C. Double Dependency A. Stage 1
D. High Old Age Dependency B. Stage 2
E. Low Overall Dependency C. Stage 3
21. A potential economic boost associated D. Stage 4
with a shift from a population with a
E. Stage 5
higher percentage of economically depen-
dent people to a population with a higher
26. What is demographic segmentation?
percentage of economically productive peo-
ple. A. Market by area, such as cities, coun-
ties, regions, countries, and international
A. population age structure
regions.
B. demographic transition
B. According to age, race, religion, gen-
C. demographic dividend der, family size, ethnicity, income, and ed-
D. none of above ucation

C. Method used to group prospective, B. Stage 2

current or previous customers by their
C. Stage 3
shared personality traits
D. Characteristics can help you create D. Stage 4
more dominating marketing programs E. Stage 5
27. According to the Population Reference Bu- 32. Demographic segmentation based on in-
reau map provided, how is the United come?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
States categorized in 2018?
A. A wide scale advertising campaigns.
A. High Child Dependency
B. Demographic segment while putting a
B. Moderate Child Dependency
price tag on the product
C. Double Dependency
C. Different needs based on their varying
D. High Old Age Dependency demographics
E. Low Overall Dependency
D. Family Size
28. In what stage of the DTM is the UK?
33. Function of demographic segmentation.
A. 1
A. To learn about the behavior
B. 2
C. 3 B. To know about family planning.
D. 4 C. To know about the product popularity

based on demographic
E. 5
D. To know the quantity and distribution
29. Strategic investment in may increase of the product
the likelihood that a country will experi-
ence a demographic dividend: 34. Demographic segmentation based on age.
A. health A. Hipster
B. education B. Product
C. good governance
C. Gamer
D. economic policy
D. Babyboomer
30. Billy White loses his job as a grave digger.
35. Which one is false about demographic
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2 A. Segmentation according to gender,
age and income
C. Stage 3
B. Demographics can be segmented into
D. Stage 4
several markets to help an organization
E. Stage 5 target its consumers more accurately
31. Children are warmer in bed each night be- C. Shared personality traits, beliefs, val-
cause they have more brothers and sis- ues, attitudes, interests, and lifestyles
ters. and other factors.
A. Stage 1 D. none of above

36. Parents start to think more about family E. 5

planning.
38. How individual make decisions to spend

A. Stage 1
their available resources?
B. Stage 2
A. Time
C. Stage 3
B. Family
D. Stage 4
C. Money
E. Stage 5
D. Effort
37. In which stage would it be typical for vac-
cines and healthcare to be adequate? 39. What does DTM stand for?
A. 1 A. Demographic Transnational Modelling
B. 2 B. Demographic Transition Model
C. 3 C. Decreasing Thermal Medicines
D. 4 D. Developing Transition Model

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