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Contents
1 Agronomy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Principles of Agronomy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Principles of Meteorology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
1.3 Water Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 149
1.4 Crop Production . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171
1.5 Weed Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 203
1.6 Pesticides, Herbicides, and Fertilizers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 207
1.7 Farming System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 209
1.8 Sustainable Agriculture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 212
1.9 Organic farming . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 221
1.10 Management of natural resources . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226
1.11 Watershed Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 243
2 Soil Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 252

2.1 Fundamentals of Soil Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 252
2.2 Soil Chemistry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 315
2.3 Soil Nutrients . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 324
2.4 Manures Fertilizers Agrochemicals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 329
2.5 Biochemistry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 344
3 Horticulture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 437
3.1 Principles of Horticulture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 437
3.2 Fruit Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 514
3.3 Olericulture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 530
3.4 Floriculture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 531
3.5 spices agriculture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 548
3.6 Medicinal Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 550
4 Agril Botany . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 558

4.1 Principles of Genetics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 558
4.2 Crop Physiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 666
4.3 Plant Breeding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 677
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.4 Plant Biotechnology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 788
4.5 Seed Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 861
5 Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 864
5.1 Principles of Plant Pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 864
5.2 Microbiology agriculture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 866
5.3 Plant diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 888
6 Extension Education . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 894

6.1 Rural Sociology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 894
6.2 Educational Psychology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 898
6.3 Entrepreneurship Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 917
6.4 Agricultural Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 954
7 Agril Engineering . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 960

7.1 Computer Application . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 960
7.2 Water Conservation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1038
7.3 Soil Conservation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1066
7.4 Farm Machinery and Power . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1086
7.5 Greenhouse . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1090
7.6 Post Harvest Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1134
7.7 Renewable Energy Sources . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1136
8 Entomology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1202
8.1 Entomology Forensic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1202
8.2 Pest Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1225
8.3 Pest and Diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1258
9 Agriculture Economics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1259

9.1 Principles of Agriculture Economics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1259
9.2 Farm Managements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1266
9.3 Production Economics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1272
1
9.4 Agricultural Finance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1319

9.5 Agricultural Marketing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1322

9.6 Agriculture Business Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1331
10 Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1356

10.1 Veterinary Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1356
10.2 Animal Husbandry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1366
1. Agronomy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Principles of Agronomy
1. What type of flowering plant takes 12-24 C. Geographic Information System (GIS)
months to complete its life cycle? It grows D. National Air and Space Association
vegetative the first year and then repro- (NASA)
duces the second year.
A. annual plant 4. What are national regulatory agencies
regulating manure applications most con-
B. biennial plant cerned about?
C. triennial plant A. excessive phosphorus
D. perennial plant B. phosphorus deficiency
2. What causes clay soils to often drain C. excessive potassium
slower than loam soils following heavy D. potassium deficiency
rain or irrigation?
A. clay soils have more sodium 5. Visual symptoms of zinc deficiency usually
appear as:
B. clay soils have smaller diameter pores
A. chlorosis
C. loam soils have less total pore space
B. twisted stems
D. clay soils often have less organic mat-
ter C. pale foliage on older leaves first
D. stem pitting
3. Which system uses a constellation of or-
biting satellites to identify a location on 6. What is one job available?
Earth based on longitude and latitude co-
ordinates along with altitude? A. CAD Drafter
A. Geographic Directional Coordinates B. Planter

(GDC) C. Construction Worker
B. Variable Rate Technology (VRT) D. Chef
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B
1.1 Principles of Agronomy 3
7. When do broadcast applications of dry fer- D. a susceptible plant, insect pests, and
tilizer become plant available? freezing temperatures

A. when crop residues are decomposed
12. Traci is making plans to seed her field to
B. after irrigation or rainfall dissolves the winter six-row malting barley on her farm
fertilizer and moves into the root zone in Maryland. The field is capable of pro-
C. when is tilled 6 to 8 inches into the soil ducing 135 bu/acre under irrigation. The
with a tillage tool field has a center pivot irrigation system
D. when soil temperatures rise above 70 with eight 156 ft spans and an end gun
degrees Fahrenheit that effectively reaches 50 ft. Traci will
plant in concentric circles under the pivot
8. After an herbicide drifts onto a plant, only and leave the dry corners fallow. She is
small spots on the plant leaves and stem targeting 1.25 million plants per acre, the
are dead. The herbicide that drifted was seed she had purchased has 13, 500 seeds
most likely what type of herbicide? per pound and 92% germination. Barely
A. contact weighs 48 pounds per bushel. Total nitro-
gen for the crop will be 1.2 pounds of ni-
B. systemic trogen per bushel of grain. She plans on
C. adsorptive applying 30 pounds of nitrogen broadcast
D. generic preplant and the remainder in two spring
(top-dress) applications. Soil tests were
9. A weed is described as? used to make fertilizer recommendations,
A. a plant that is not valued where it is the recommendations call for 83.7 pounds
growing of P2O5 and 47.3 lbs/ac K20 to be broad-
cast preplant.If Traci uses UAN 28-0-0
B. a fast-growing plant
for her spring nitrogen applications, how
C. a plant that lives for more than one many total gallons of UAN per acre will
year she need for her split spring top-dress
D. a plant growing from a seed applications? (1 gal UAN weighs 10.67
pounds)
10. Nutrient leaching is most likely to occur in
what soil type? A. 10.0 gallons/ac
A. silty clay soil B. 17.2 gallons/ac

B. clay soil C. 23.8 gallons/ac
C. compacted soil D. 44.2 gallons/ac
D. sandy soil
13. of soil compaction severity occurs with the
11. Plant diseases occur when the following tire pass although the depth of the
occur at the same time: compaction is determined by the axle
A. a susceptible plant, a virulent load.
pathogen, and a favorable environment A. first, lightest
B. a susceptible plant, a virulent B. first, heaviest
pathogen and insect pests
C. last, lightest
C. a virulent pathogen, an environment
favorable for disease and insect pests D. last, heaviest
8. A 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C

14. In small grain production, jointing refers to 19. A sodic soil is characterized by having
which of the following? a disproportionally high concentration of
A. tiller production what exchangeable cation in the Cation Ex-
change Capacity (CEC) complex?
B. the head is in the boot
A. calcium
C. the first node is visible above the soil
surface B. chloride
D. the flag leaf has emerged C. magnesium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. Which type of insecticide moves through- D. sodium
out the plant? 20. A plant has a fibrous root system and
A. photosynthetic parallel venation.
B. systemic A. annual
C. contact B. biennial
D. juvenile C. dicot
16. Current university research shows a soy- D. monocot
bean yield response to the application
of 20 pounds of sulfur preplant. How 21. At which stage of growth should plant tis-
much 21-0-0-24 per acre do you need to sue samples should be taken?
spread? A. sufficiently in advance of fertilization
A. 4.2 pounds/ac to allow time for analysis and return of re-
sults from the lab
B. 4.8 pounds/ac
B. any time before bloom
C. 83.3 pounds/ac
D. 93.3 pounds/ac C. early season shortly after emergence
D. the stage that corresponds to those
17. What is the name of the group of nitrogen- used to develop interpretive guidelines
fixing bacteria in legume nodules?
A. nitrosomonas bacteria 22. A fertilizer spreader has an effective appli-
cation width of 37.5 feet. If 21.6 pounds
B. nonsymbiotic bacteria
of fertilizer is collected from the spreader
C. rhizome bacteria in 60 seconds. When traveling 6.8 mph,
D. rhizobium bacteria what is the rate of fertilizer that is being
applied per acre with this spreader?
18. What do the 4R’s of fertilizer application
refer to? A. 3.2
A. The Right price, Right brand, Right B. 11.1

rate, Right place C. 41.9
B. The Right source, Right rate, Right D. 54.5
price, Right form
23. What is the conversion of ammonium to ni-
C. The Right source, Right rate, Right
trate known as?
time, Right place
D. The Right price, Right rate, Right form, A. ammonification
Right analysis B. denitrification
15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. D

C. mineralization 29. Which of these is an example of biological

D. nitrification aphid control?

A. using an insect growth regulator
24. What is the growth of a plant toward any
B. introduction and protection of natural
stimulus is called?
predators
A. tropism
C. destroying all-natural predators
B. hormones D. setting and maintaining traps
C. receptors
30. Spray drift is the least when which of the
D. vernalization following conditions exist?
25. Approach Prima Fungicide is used at the A. droplet size increases, wind speed in-
rate of 6.8 fl oz/ac on soybean for the creases
control of Frog Eye and Brown Spot. How B. droplet size decreases, wind speed de-
many acres will a 2.5-gal jug treat? creases
A. 5.9 acres C. droplet size decreases, wind speed in-
B. 11.8 acres creases
D. droplet size increases, wind speed de-
C. 23.6 acres
creases
D. 47.1 acres
31. pH is the measurement of the concentra-
26. Name the condition in which stalks or tion of what ion in the soil?
stems break or fall over above the soil sur- A. hydroxide
face because of weak stalks, weak roots,
damage, or weather events. B. hydrogen
A. germination C. phosphorus
D. helium
B. lodging
C. maturation 32. UAN fertilizer at 28% nitrogen costs
$226.50 per ton. The liquid fertilizer
D. emergence
weighs 10.67 pounds per gallon. What is
27. Compaction is the reduction of: the per pound cost for the nitrogen?
A. soil CEC A. $0.37/pound

B. $0.40/pound
B. soil weight
C. $0.55/pound
C. soil pore space
D. $0.63/pound
D. soil density
33. The point at which soil holds moisture
28. is adsorbed as a cation and is part of so tightly that plants cannot extract it is
the chlorophyll molecule. called?
A. Na+ A. the permanent wilting point
B. H+ B. the drought point
C. Ca+2 C. field capacity
D. Mg+2 D. the transient wilting point
24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. A
34. When thinking of crop nutrient fertiliza- applying 30 pounds of nitrogen broadcast
tion, what does agronomic rate of appli- preplant and the remainder in two spring
cation mean? (top-dress) applications. Soil tests were
A. applying a balanced amount of nutri- used to make fertilizer recommendations,
ents the recommendations call for 83.7 pounds
of P2O5 and 47.3 lbs/ac K20 to be broad-
B. matching fertilizer inputs with crop re- cast preplant.What is the area of Traci’s
quirements under given soil conditions field?
C. applying both a broadcast and starter
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 19 acres
fertilizer along with a side-dress treat-
ment B. 112.3 acres
D. applying only a broadcast and starter C. 121.4 acres
fertilizer D. 485.8 acres
35. Soil samples for distinctly different areas
38. Which of the following definitions best de-
of the field should be (i.e. different soil
scribes a petiole?
types or hill tops vs. bottom lands):
A. the surface of the leaf
A. analyzed separately
B. mixed together to represent a single B. the small stem attached to the leaf
production unit C. the vein structure in the leaf
C. ignored as being meaningless D. the edge of the leaf
D. mixed together for large fields and
39. How does soil texture influence the devel-
kept separate for small fields
opment of soil compaction?
36. What does IPM stand for? A. Clay soils are more likely to suffer com-
A. Intensive Pesticide Management paction than are sandy soils.
B. Intensive Personnel Management B. Sandy soils are quite subject to com-
C. Integrated Pest Management paction when dry.
D. Intensive Pest Manipulation C. It is basically impossible to compact a
silt loam.
37. Traci is making plans to seed her field to
winter six-row malting barley on her farm D. The amount of water present is far
in Maryland. The field is capable of pro- more important than its textural class.
ducing 135 bu/acre under irrigation. The
40. A wheat farmer is budgeting expenses for
field has a center pivot irrigation system
his coming growing season as this time he
with eight 156 ft spans and an end gun
projects his total expenses to be $412.80
that effectively reaches 50 ft. Traci will
per acre. His average wheat yield is 80
plant in concentric circles under the pivot
bu/ac. What is his breakeven price per
and leave the dry corners fallow. She is
bushel?
targeting 1.25 million plants per acre, the
seed she had purchased has 13, 500 seeds A. $5.16
per pound and 92% germination. Barely B. $5.29
weighs 48 pounds per bushel. Total nitro-
gen for the crop will be 1.2 pounds of ni- C. $6.49
trogen per bushel of grain. She plans on D. $7.74
34. B 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. A 41. C

1.2 Principles of Meteorology 7
41. What is the key benefit to banding phos- B. carotenoid

phorus fertilizers? C. anthocyanin

A. less phosphate leaching D. xanthophyll
B. a concentrated alkaline zone
46. Epinasty in plants is described as:
C. less tie up in the soil leading to better
plant availability A. the twisting and bending of plant
leaves and stems due to an auxin
D. required for higher fertilizer rates
B. the discoloration of leaves caused by a
42. Growing two or more crops together in the toxin
same field at the same time is known as?
C. interveinal yellowing of leaves caused
A. intercropping by a nutrient deficiency
B. strip till D. spotting of leaves from a contact her-
C. continuous cropping bicide
D. double crop 47. What soil contains significant amounts
43. What is a horizontal layer of soil, created of naturally occurring calcium carbonate?
by soil forming processes, that differ in These soils are characterized by a high soil
physical or chemical properties from adja- pH and fizz when a dilute acid is applied.
cent layers called? A. calcareous soil
A. hardpan B. mineral soil
B. soil horizon C. volcanic soil
C. fragipan D. organic soil
D. tillage pan 48. What is the starting salary for an
44. is an eroded material deposited by run- agronomist?
ning water including gravel, sand, silt, and A. $50, 391
clay.
B. $40, 578
A. Bedrock
C. $100, 000
B. Glacial till
D. $89, 992
C. A loess deposit
49. Select the condition that could help reduce
D. An alluvial deposit
pesticide volatilization.
45. What is the pigment associated with sugar A. high air temperatures
metabolism, when it accumulates in the
plant, it gives the plant a reddish/purple B. low relative humidity
color? C. incorporation
A. chlorophyll D. small droplets
1.2 Principles of Meteorology
42. A 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. C

1. What is evaporation? 6. This instrument measures air pressure

A. The part of the water cycle when the A. thermometer
sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid B. rain gauge
into water vapor or steam. It rises from
the ground into the air. C. anemometer
B. The part of the water cycle when the D. barometer

water vapor in the air gets cold. The water 7. What’s the hottest layer of the Earths At-
turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosphere
C. The part of the water cycle when A. Friday
clouds get heavy and can no longer hold
the liquid water. This causes the water to B. Ozone Layer
fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow, C. Exposphere
sleet, or hail.
D. Thermosphere
D. none of above
8. A cloudlike mass or layer of minute water
2. The biggest storms happen at fronts. droplets or ice crystals near the surface of
Earth, appreciably reducing visibility
A. Warm
A. Fog
B. Occluded
B. Dew
C. Cold
C. Steam
D. Beach
D. Hail
3. What is the visibility (in miles) in order to
be categorized as a blizzard? 9. Hurricanes typically form over
A. 1/2 A. cold ocean water
B. 3/4 B. tropical rain forests

C. warm ocean water
C. 1/4
D. very dry land masses
D. 1
10. Which describes air pressure?
4. What weather does a warm front bring?
A. the amount of gravity the air has
A. Long periods of precipitation
B. the weight of the air against a given
B. Strong winds area
C. Storms a mind tornandoes C. how much volume air has
D. Gentle rain and mild weather D. how high or low you are to the ground
5. Clouds form when water vapor in the air 11. Radio detecting and ranging
A. evaporates A. radar
B. condenses B. radiosonde
C. falls C. thermometer
D. precipitates D. none of above
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C

12. METAR LKNA 282100Z 07006KT 3000 17. Which of the following refers to the tem-
BR OVC004 08/08 Q1004 RMK YLO= Visibility cooled to reach saturation?

A. 4000 m A. dew point
B. 3000 ft B. vapor
C. 3000 m C. adiabatic rate
D. 10000 ft D. relative point
13. Why do sea breezes occur during the day? 18. A front formed when a cold front over-
takes a warm front
A. Land cools off slower than water, so
the air above water is cooler. A. warm front
B. Water cools off faster than land, so the B. cold front

air above land is warmer. C. stationary front
C. Land heats up faster than water, so D. occluded front
the air above the land is warmer.
19. What is the best explanation for these
D. Water cools off slower than land, so two statements?1. Some mountains lo-
the air above water is warmer. cated near the Earth’s Equator have snow-
covered peaks. 2. Icecaps exist at the
14. and affect the ocean’s density and
Earth’s poles.
cause the Global Conveyor Belt to travel
A. High elevation and high latitude have a
A. gravity and the Coriolis Effect
similar effect on climate.
B. temperature and salinity B. Both mountain and polar regions have
C. wind and climate arid climates.
D. temperature and the Coriolis Effect C. Mountain and polar regions receive
more energy from the Sun than other re-
15. When creating air pressure maps, you gions.
should always
D. An increase in snowfall and an in-
A. Connect points of equal values crease in temperature have a similar ef-
B. Draw the line so it leaves the page fect on climate.
C. Draw the lines as circles or lines that 20. What instrument tells wind direction
exit the page A. rain gauge
D. All of the above B. barometer
16. Farmers prefer this type of front. What C. wind vane
type of front? D. anemometer
A. Warm
21. Where would the highest air pressure be
B. Cold measured?
C. Stationary A. in a vacuum
D. none of above B. outer space
13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. A
C. Mt. Everest 26. What term describes people who study

D. sea level weather and try to predict it?
A. meteorologist
22. Land and water absorb and release the
sun’s heat in different ways. One result B. Scientist
of this is a sea breeze. Which statement C. chemist
is true of sea breezes?
D. Mathematician
A. They originate in the day and blow to-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ward the land. 27. What is an isotherm
B. They originate in the day and blow to- A. A line connecting equal temperature
ward the water.
B. A line connecting equal humidity
C. They originate in the evening and blow
C. A line connecting equal wind speed
toward the land.
D. none of above
D. They originate in the evening and blow
toward the water. 28. Where did Earth’s atmosphere come from?
23. As altitude increases, pressure A. Radiation from the sun
A. increases B. Volcanic eruptions and meteorite im-
B. decreases pacts releasing gas
C. stays the same C. Gases from outer space
D. rises D. none of above
24. What is the definition of CONDUCTION? 29. BR
A. When heat is transferred from objects A. Mist
like rays of light or electromagnetically.
B. Broken
B. a hot liquid or air that expands, be-
comes less dense, and rises or becomes C. Fog
more dense, and sinks. D. none of above
C. When heat transfers from objects that
30. Satellites show clouds on earth, while
are touching.
radar shows what?
D. When heat transfers through the
A. Precipitation
heater or AC in your house.
B. Cable tv
25. What effect does a large body of water
usually have on a nearby landmass? C. sun light
A. The water causes cooler summers and D. temperatures

colder winters.
31. What three items are necessary for a
B. The water causes cooler summers and weather forecast?
warmer winters.
A. Temperature, Humidity, Pressure
C. The water causes hotter summers and
B. Heat, Cold, Rain
warmer winters.
D. The water causes warmer summers C. High, Low, Occluded
and colder winters. D. Big Macs, Whoppers, Baconators
23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. A 32. A
32. As you go higher in the troposphere, the B. weather watch

temperature C. weather wonder

A. decreases D. weather apocalypse bulletin
B. increases
38. Which of the following increases air’s abil-
C. stays the same ity to hold water vapor?
D. gets very hot A. Increase in wind speed
33. What statement best describes the ozone B. Decrease in temperature
layer of Earth? C. Increase in temperature
A. Doesn’t let storms into our atmo- D. Decrease in air pressure
sphere
39. The curving of moving objects, such as
B. Protects us from aliens wind, by the Earth’s rotation is called:
C. Keeps the fog away for airplanes A. sea breeze
D. Keeps the sun’s radiation from frying B. Coriolis effect
us
C. horse latitudes
34. Earth experiences unequal heating because D. doldrums
of
40. Which would be most useful outside based
A. Wind currents moving warm air on the following weather conditions:Temp
around. 72 degrees, Dew Point 72 degrees.
B. Presence of water nearby. A. Sun glasses
C. Tilt of Earth’s axis. B. Warm coat
D. All of these C. An umbrella
35. What does it mean when the prefix “alto” D. Ski gloves
is added to the names of clouds?
41. Which is true about the troposphere?
A. The clouds are at a middle altitude. A. This layer is the coldest layer of all
B. The clouds produce precipitation. B. You will find the International Space
C. Baby cherubs that play harps live in the Station and the Aurora Borealis in this
clouds. layer
D. The clouds are dark in color. C. This layer is where all of the weather
occurs
36. the larger the difference in air pressure,
D. Meteor showers are common in this
A. the slower the wind layer
B. the greater the high pressure system
42. Differences in cause air to move from
C. the lower the low pressure system one place to another.
D. the faster the wind A. air pressure
37. A warning issued when severe weather is B. rainfall
already occurring is called a C. weather
A. weather warning D. elevation
33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. A
43. If your latitude is close to 90 degrees 49. When the front passes, the weather turns
North, you live in which zone? colder. What type of front?
A. Polar Zone A. Warm
B. Temperate zone B. Cold
C. Tropical zone
C. Stationary
D. End zone
D. none of above
44. What does carbon dioxide in the atmo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sphere do? 50. Where you will find Aurora Borealis
(Northern Lights)
A. it absorbs heat energy
B. it provides a place for water vapor to A. troposphere
condense B. ionsophere
C. it absorbs harmful uv radiation C. exosphere
D. It protects from the solar wind D. mesosphere
45. High-altitude, high-velocity “rivers” of air
are called 51. The March 2019 North American Blizzard
was called a “bomb cyclone”. What
A. cyclones causes these events?
B. jet streams
A. Intense flooding after the snow melts
C. anticyclones “bomb” urban areas
D. tornadoes B. Snow and sleet falling in the area is so
46. As altitude increases, temperature in the heavy it is like a “bomb”
decreases (cools). C. 30 tornadoes were generated, de-
A. troposphere, thermosphere stroying buildings like a “bomb”
B. stratosphere, mesosphere D. Air pressure dropped 0.89 inHg in 24
C. troposphere, mesophere hours producing winds over 100 mph
D. stratosphere, thermosphere 52. Which weather instrument do you use to

47. When a warm air mass overtakes a re- measure air pressure
treating cold air mass, it forms a(n)- A. barometer
A. stationary front B. thermometer
B. cold front C. anemometr
C. warm front
D. psychrometer
D. occluded front
53. Weather occurs
48. An anemometer measures
A. only in the troposphere
A. wind speed
B. air pressure B. in the troposphere and statosphere
C. amount of rain C. in the stratosphere
D. temperature D. above the stratosphere
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

54. Which term is best described as the move- B. troposphere, mesosphere, thermo-
ment of air from land to sea? sphere, exosphere, stratosphere

A. global winds C. thermosphere, stratosphere, meso-
sphere, troposphere, exosphere
B. sea breeze
D. troposphere, stratosphere, meso-
C. land breeze
sphere, exosphere, thermosphere
D. local winds
60. What gas is important for weather to oc-
55. The temperature at which air becomes sat- cur in the troposphere?
urated A. carbon dioxide (CO2)
A. Humidity B. water vapor (H2O)
B. Front C. nitrogen (N)
C. Dew Point D. trace gases
D. Cold Front
61. A metal spoon heating up in a hot bowl of
56. What is it called when two air masses soup
meet? A. radiation
A. Front B. conduction
B. Air Mass C. convection
C. Storm D. none of above
D. none of above 62. Lightning and thunder, strong winds,
heavy rain, and sometimes hail are all
57. Forces such as friction and air drag acts
characteristics of
across the boundary surface of an object.
These forces are considered as what? A. a cold front
A. Body Forces B. a warm front
B. Surface Forces C. a stationary front
C. Limited Forces D. a thunderstorm
D. Charot Forces 63. What is the energy source for the water
cycle?
58. Average weather over a period of time
A. the sun
A. Rain Gauge
B. the earth
B. Climate
C. water
C. Meteorologist
D. the moon
D. Thermometer
64. All forms of water that fall from clouds
59. Which of the following is the correct or- A. latent heat
der of the atmosphere layers from Earth
to space? B. precipitation
A. troposphere, stratosphere, meso- C. radiation

sphere, thermosphere, exosphere D. stability

65. what is happening when heat rises B. Clouds form

A. density C. Temperatures stay the same
B. conduction D. No clue
C. radiation 71. The air in the troposphere has a greater
D. convection density than the air in any other layer of
the atmosphere.
66. It is hypothesized that in the next 200
A. True
NARAYAN CHANGDER
years, the lowest land areas on Earth
could be submerged beneath rising oceans. B. False
Which climate change would most likely
C. Huh?
cause this to occur?
D. none of above
A. global warming
B. decreased winds 72. Which statement best describes the
weather shown by the red semicircles on
C. the start of an ice age
a line on a weather map?
D. increased desertification
A. A warm front brings drizzly weather.
67. How many hurricanes occur in the Atlantic B. A cold front can cause heavy rain, thun-
Ocean each year? der, and lightning.
A. About 5 C. A stationary front may produce rainy
B. About 10 or snowy weather for several days.
C. About 15 D. An occluded front can cause light to
heavy precipitation that may last several
D. Around 25
days.
68. Earth is unevenly heated due to its?
73. Weather in the United States moves
A. oceans and moon
A. East to West
B. tilt and shape
B. West to East
C. gravity and clouds
C. North to South
D. climate and weather
D. South to North
69. Large clouds that often produce thunder-
74. The Coriolis effect is due to the of
storms are called
Earth.
A. stratus clouds
A. revolution
B. cumulonimbus clouds
B. rotation
C. cirrus clouds
C. shape
D. nimbostratus clouds
D. density
70. As a warm moist air mass moving north-
ward collides with a strong cold air mass 75. Air masses from northern Canada. Often
moving southward, what observations associated with drops in temperature
will most likely be made? A. maritime polar
A. No observations B. maritime tropical

C. continental polar C. Fog

D. continental tropical D. Cirrus

76. The air pressure above the ocean off the 81. Where does the energy that powers a hur-
coast of Florida is much higher compared ricane originate?
to the air pressure above the coast. What A. from funnel clouds
direction would the wind blow in this situ-
ation? B. outside a stationary front
A. from the ocean, vertically(up) into the C. outside a subliming water
sky D. from warm and moist air
B. from the ocean to the coast
82. What does air moving from areas of high
C. from the coast to the ocean pressure to low pressure cause?
D. from the coast, vertically(up) into the A. weather
sky
B. wind
77. Warm air mass that does not carry water: C. worldwide wind belts
A. continental tropical D. none of above
B. continental polar
83. Polar and tropical regions maintain fairly
C. maritime tropical constant average temperatures because
D. maritime polar A. the Sun always strikes these regions
at the same angle.
78. Which of these gases have the most signif-
icant impact on the temperature of Earth’s B. air masses remain stationary near the
Atmosphere? poles and equator.
A. nitrogen and Argon C. Earth radiates extra energy back into
space.
B. oxygen and sulfur dioxide
D. the continual motion of air and water
C. hydrcholoric acid and hydrogen
reallocates heat energy throughout Earth.
D. carbon dioxide and water vapor
84. What decreases as you go up in the atmo-
79. What are Isobars? sphere?
A. Lines of Equilibrium A. Altitude
B. Lines of Iso B. Air pressure
C. Lines of equal air pressure measured C. Meteors
in millibars
D. none of above
D. none of above
85. Moisture on an object caused by outside
80. Form at high altitudes. Look long and temperature of reaching the dewpoint
feathery. Made of ice crystals. They are
often seen before weather changes and A. fog
precipitation. B. dew
A. Stratus C. frozen rain
B. Nimbostratus D. rain

86. Which is likely to occur after moist air is 91. Of these four storms, the smallest in terms
cooled below its dew point? of actual size (diameter) is:
A. Evaporation increases A. Thunderstorm
B. Ice crystals melt
B. Hurricane
C. Water condenses
C. Tornado
D. Winds are generated
D. Middle Latitude Cyclonic Storm
87. A student heard the weather forecaster on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
television say that an area of low pressure
was located over his region of the state. 92. When a large, warm air mass quickly rises
What type of weather is the area most above a cold air mass, what happens?
likely to experience? A. A stationary front appears.
A. sunny skies
B. A thunderstorm occurs.
B. clear skies
C. Nighttime begins.
C. cloudy skies
D. none of these D. All of these
88. What is the relationship between temper-

93. A hurricane’s storm surge is caused by a
ature and humidity?
combination of high winds and
A. Humidity depends on how close a loca-
tion is to a body of water. A. high pressure
B. The warmer the air temperature, the B. low pressure
greater the humidity.
C. weak winds
C. As temperature rises, the amount of
water vapor in the air decreases. D. much snow
D. The warmer the temperature, the
more likely for precipitation. 94. What cloud indicates a lot of rain
89. In a high pressure area A. stratus clouds

A. the winds will be moving clockwise B. Cumulonimbus clouds
B. the winds will be moving counter- C. Stratocumulus clouds
clockwise
C. the winds will be calm D. none of above
D. the air will be rising

95. If a scientist were trying to figure out
90. Boarding up windows would be one emer- what direction the wind from a storm were
gency action most likely taken to prepare coming from, what tool would they use?
for which natural disaster?
A. thermometer
A. earthquake
B. sling psychrometer
B. hurricane
C. flood C. anemometer
D. tsunami D. wind vane

96. Which is the best explanation for how air B. north to south
masses move across the United States?
C. west to east

A. The prevailing westerlies move air
D. south to north
masses from west to east across the
United States but may be deflected by the 101. Wind moves from an area of high to
jet stream. pressure
B. The trade winds move air masses from
A. Equal
west to east across the United States.
B. High
C. The jet stream moves air masses
from the Pacific Ocean across the United C. Low
States. D. none of above
D. The warm air of the Gulf Stream
causes air masses to move from the At- 102. Air that is Dry and Cold is considered
lantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean. what kind of air mass?
97. Winds blow clockwise around the system. A. Maritime Tropical

Characterized by sinking cool air. Associ- B. Maritime Polar
ated with Fair weather
C. Continental Tropical
A. high pressure system
D. Continental Polar
B. low pressure system
C. worldwide wind belts 103. A is used to measure relative humid-
ity.
D. none of above
A. Thermometer
98. The name given to the periodic warming
B. Barometer
of the ocean that occurs in the central
and eastern Pacific; can cause extreme C. Hygrometer
weather in many parts of the world D. Isotherm
A. El Nino
104. The 2 main gases in the atmosphere?
B. La Nina
C. hurricane A. carbon dioxide and oxygen
D. typhoon B. nitrogen and carbon dioxide

C. nitrogen and oxygen
99. Regions that receive less than 25 centime-
ters of rain annually are called D. oxygen and carbon dioxide
A. tundras 105. Name the weather satellite observation
B. savannas system that is useful for tracking clouds
C. deserts only.
D. steppes A. Infrared imagery

B. Doppler weather radar
100. In North America, weather GENERALLY
moves from C. Visible light imagery
A. east to west D. Water vapor imagery

106. This strongly absorbs UV radiation in the A. Maritime Tropical

stratosphere.
B. Maritime Polar
A. Ozone
C. Continental Tropical
B. Water Vapor
D. Continental Polar
C. Greenhouse Effect
D. Oxygen 111. occurs when colder air advances toward
warmer air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. What is the effect of greenhouse gases
A. Warm Front
in the atmosphere?
B. Cool Front
A. Water evaporated from the oceans
into the atmosphere is trapped by green- C. Cold Front
house gases, preventing it from precipitat- D. Hot Front
ing, increasing atmospheric humidity.
B. Water evaporated from the oceans 112. A balloon-borne package of sensors that
into the atmosphere is reflected by green- gathers upper-level temperature, air pres-
house gases, preventing it from condens- sure, and humidity is
ing, decreasing atmospheric humidity. A. a radiosonde
C. Heat radiated by the Earth into the B. a satellite
atmosphere is trapped by greenhouse
gases, preventing it from escaping into C. a hygrometer
space, increasing global temperatures. D. Doppler radar
D. Heat radiated by the Sun is re-
flected by greenhouse gases, preventing 113. The surface of Earth is constantly chang-
it from entering the atmosphere, decreasing, primarily due to the
ing global temperatures. A. uneven flow of magnetic energy
108. In orographic lifting, clouds form when B. pull of gravity from the Moon.
moist winds C. uneven heating of the surface that cre-
A. flow over sea. ates weather.
B. encounter mountains. D. pull of gravity from the Sun.
C. become drier.
114. Which environmental factors most likely
D. warm up the ground. impact the formation of tornadoes in Tor-
nado Alley?
109. Which layer of the atmosphere is the
hottest? A. High pressure systems colliding with
other high pressure systems
A. Troposphere
B. Cold dry air and warm dry air moving
B. Exosphere
towards each other
C. Mesosphere
C. Low evaporation rates and windy con-
D. Thermosphere ditions
110. Air that is Wet and Warm is considered D. Cool dry air colliding with warm moist
what kind of air mass? air

115. Warm air mass overtakes cold mass. 121. It is the tendency of fluid to resist to
Less dense warm air slides over heavy flow.
cool air. Much more gradual front. Associ-

A. viscosity
ated with precipitation
A. warm front B. lubricant
B. stationary front C. tension
C. cold front D. homogeneity
D. occluded front
122. winds will circulate around a high pres-
116. How hot or cold something is -
sure system
A. friction
A. to the right
B. temperature
C. gravity B. to the left
D. none of above C. not enough information to tell
117. Which force generates winds? D. none of above

A. the Coriolis effect
123. What type of weather is usually found in
B. gravity low pressure areas?
C. pressure differences
A. hot and dry
D. friction
B. wet and stormy
118. Which of these states is most famous for
tornadoes? C. cold and snowy
A. Missouri D. sunny and humid
B. Texas
124. An air mass that forms over the Gulf of
C. Illinois
Mexico is a (n)
D. Kansas
A. cP air mass
119. Typical COLD Front clouds
B. mP air mass
A. CB, TCU, CU
B. NS, CU C. cT air mass
C. NS, ST D. mT air mass

D. ST, CU
125. Clouds, precipitation and strong wind ac-
120. What is the name for this air company these regions. Warm moist air is
mass?Formed over ocean in a cold region rising in the center
so the air is wet & cold with high pressure
A. high pressure system
A. Continental polar
B. low pressure system
B. maritime polar
C. Continental tropical C. tornado
D. maritime tropical D. none of above

126. Forms when water vapor condenses 131. What is an isobar?

around condensation nuclei- tiny particles A. A line of equal pressure
such as smoke or dust in the atmosphere.
Water droplets become so large that they B. A line of equal temperature
cannot be held in the cloud. Falls as a liquid C. A line of equal humidity
A. Hail D. none of above
B. Rain 132. A physicist is measuring the temperature
C. Freezing rain of particles in motion in different atmo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Snow spheres, what unit of measure will the
physicist use?
127. High thin, white, feathery clouds made of
A. Kelvin
ice crystals
B. Fahrenheit
A. Cirrus
C. mg of Mercury
B. cumulus
D. Celsius
C. Isobar
D. Barometer 133. ST
128. What two properties are used to identify A. Stratus

clouds? B. Standard
A. atmospheric height and what they look C. Standard temperature
like D. none of above
B. atmospheric height and amount of wa-
ter 134. In which main layer of the atmosphere is
the ozone located?
C. what they look like and amount of wa-
ter vapor A. Thermosphere
D. density and chemical composition B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
129. About 2.0 billion years ago, complex or-
ganisms began to inhabit Earth. These D. none of above
complex organisms developed primarily
135. When air moves from an area of high
because of -
pressure to an area of low pressure, it
A. sunlight being absorbed by land causes-
B. the eruption of volcanoes A. an increase in temperature
C. changes in atmosphere gases B. rain
D. the impact of comets C. wind
130. What is the percentage of oxygen in D. a decrease in elevation
Earth’s atmosphere?
136. When molecules of air come in direct con-
A. 1% tact with Earth’s surface, this process is
B. 21% called
C. 78% A. radiation
D. none of above B. conduction

C. convection 142. Which statement best describes the

D. deflection weather shown by the blue triangles on
a line on a weather map?

137. Which idea should a student include in a
A. A warm front brings drizzly weather.
model to explain differences in tempera-
ture between the equator and the North B. A cold front can cause heavy rain, thun-
and South poles? der, and lightning.
A. density of air at different altitudes C. A stationary front may produce rainy
B. intensity of sunlight at different angles or snowy weather for several days.
C. movement of thermal energy by ocean D. An occluded front can cause light to
currents heavy precipitation that may last several
D. none of above days.
138. Which is true about the thermosphere? 143. Science of studying and predicting
A. This is the coldest layer of all weather
B. This is the hottest layer of all A. Biology

C. Airplanes like to fly in the jest stream B. Psychology
in this atmospheric layer C. Meteorology
D. You will find the International Space
D. Weatherology
Station and the Aurora Borealis in this
layer 144. Cumulus is a
139. What type of front usually brings thun- A. Low level cloud
derstorms?
B. High level cloud
A. warm front
C. Medium level cloud
B. cold front
C. stationary front D. none of above
D. occluded front 145. Volcanic Outgassing

140. There is an area of low pressure at the A. Created earth’s first atmosphere
equator because
B. Emits little CO2
A. It is warmer there, and warm air sinks
C. Emits large amounts of water vapor
B. It is warmer there, and warm air rises
D. Had little effect on earth
C. It is colder there, and cold air sinks
D. none of above 146. What kind of scientist gathers data or in-
formation about the atmosphere and envi-
141. What is the name of an air mass that is
ronment?
wet and cold?
A. Paleontologist
A. Maritime Tropical
B. Polar Continental B. Archaeologist
C. Maritime Polar C. Meteorologist
D. none of above D. Geologist

147. Forms when tiny ice balls are drawn up C. thermal energy
into a cumulonimbus cloud by strong winds. D. conduction
Is larger ice balls before the fall
A. Rain 153. When reentering FROM SPACE, what is
the first layer that an astronaut must pass
B. Hail
through?
C. Freezing rain
A. troposphere
D. Sleet
B. stratosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
148. Wind speed and direction is determined C. thermosphere
using a
D. mesosphere
A. Anemometer
B. Barometer 154. Mass of cold air taking over where warm
air has been is
C. Thermometer
A. stationary front
D. Wind Vain
B. cold front
149. Which of these drives the energy to pro-
C. warm front
duce winds?
D. funny
A. water
B. fossil fuels 155. Which of the following is one of the rea-
C. the sun sons a sea breeze occurs during the day?
D. hydroelectricity A. The land cools faster than the water.

B. The land cools slower than the water.
150. A funnel-shaped cloud that touches
Earth’s surface is called a C. The land warms faster than the water.
A. Hurricane D. The land warms slower than the water.
B. Tornado 156. If you are standing north of a smoke
C. Cold Front stack and smoke from the stack is drifting
over your head, the wind direction would
D. Thunderstorm
be:
151. This front may bring steady, gentle A. South
rain/drizzle; if cold enough, steady, light
snow. B. East
A. cold front C. West

B. warm front D. North
C. stationary front 157. What type of cloud forms at high alti-
D. occluded front tudes and appears wispy and feathery?
A. Stratus
152. Heat moves by when it travels from
one solid to another solid. B. Altocumulus
A. radiation C. Cumulus
B. convection D. cirrus

158. which layers contains the ozone layer? B. 30

A. Troposphere C. 21

B. Stratosphere D. 1
C. Mesosphere 164. Typhoon is another name for
D. Thermosphere A. wave cyclone
159. On hot sunny days, the temperature over B. hurricane
the land is warmer than the temperature C. tornado
over the water. The warmer air rises and
the cooler air moves over the land, produc- D. thunderstorm
ing sea breezes. This means that- 165. What must the wind speed be in order for
A. soil warms up more slowly than water a storm to be classifies as a hurricane?
B. water has a higher specific heat capac- A. 39 mph
ity than land B. 54 mph
C. the air above the land becomes cool C. 74 mph
and rises
D. 89 mph
D. land has a higher specific heat capac-
ity than water 166. Dendrochronology is the study of data
from tree ring growth. A scientist might
160. Which tool measures wind speed? study tree rings to learn more about -
A. Anemometer A. past climate of an ecosystem in which
B. Hygrometer a tree was located
C. Barometer B. weather events that affected the
D. Wind Vane growth of the tree
C. damage to the tree caused by insects
161. Weather is the current state of the or wildfires
A. troposphere D. all of the above
B. lithosphere
167. Which part of the country do MOST tor-
C. mesosphere nadoes occur in?
D. none of above A. Southcentral
162. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of B. Southeast
hurricanes? C. Northeast
A. winds up to 300 mph D. Northwest
B. 100s of miles wide
168. A group of students observes and records
C. can last for weeks information about their area’s current
D. measured by the Saffir-Simpson Scale weather conditions, while another group
researches the climate of the region in
163. Oxygen makes up percent of the at- which they live. Which question can best
mosphere. be answered from the contributions of
A. 78 both groups’ investigations?

A. What conclusion can be made when 173. What will cause a hurricane to increase
comparing the climate of two different re- in strength?
gions? A. It moving over cool ocean water.
B. What tools and methods should be B. It moving over land.
used to conduct this investigation?
C. It moving over warmer ocean water.
C. What is the difference between cli-
mate and weather? D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. How valid is the information collected 174. A prolonged period of abnormally hot
on weather and climate? weather (or higher than average temper-
atures) is called a
169. What are the 3 major climate zones in or-
A. drought
der from equator to the poles?
B. heat wave
A. polar, temperate, tropical
C. blizzard
B. tropical, temperate, polar
D. tropical storm
C. temperate, polar, tropical
175. A storm is a(an)
D. none of above
A. “dome” of water that sweeps across
170. What general trend does a world isother- the coast where a hurricane lands
mal map show?
B. huge body of air that has similar tem-
A. temperatures decrease going from the perature, humidity, and air pressure at
tropics toward the poles any given height
B. temperatures increase going from the C. boundary where unlike air masses
tropics towards the poles meet and do not easily mix
C. temperatures decrease going from the D. violent disturbance in the atmosphere
poles to the tropics
176. Measures air pressure
D. temperatures increase going from the
poles to the tropics A. barometer
B. hygrometer
171. what does the L mean on a weather map
C. anemometer
A. Low temperature
D. none of above
B. Low pressure
177. Which of the following are most closely
C. Low radiation related?
D. Low precipitation A. anemometer/barometer
172. Which of these cloud types bring rain B. sling psychrometer/rain gauge
and/or storms? C. thermometer/wind vane
A. Nimbostratus D. wind vane/weather vane
B. Cumulonimbus
178. In what layer of the atmosphere would
C. Stratus you find clouds and weather?
D. All of these A. troposphere

B. stratosphere C. both types of air sink

C. mesosphere D. both types of air rise

D. thermosphere 184. When the warm, moist air moves inland
over hot, dry land in Florida,
179. A city near the ocean experiences thun-
derstorms on a frequent basis. Which of A. the warm air will sink, causing water
these is the BEST explanation for this? vapor to condense and form snow.
A. The cold fronts that only form over B. the warm air will rise, causing water
coastal areas cause thunderstorms. vapor to evaporate from the air and gen-
erate winds.
B. The tidal variations in coastal areas
causes thunderstorms. C. the warm air will rise, causing water
vapor to condense and form clouds.
C. The uneven heating of land and water
in coastal areas creates fronts that cause D. the warm air will become cool, caus-
thunderstorms. ing water vapor to evaporate and be ab-
sorbed by the land.
D. The interactions of the waves with
the landmass change the air pressure to 185. Uneven heating of Earth’s surface by the
cause thunderstorms. sun causes which of these?
A. wind patterns
180. The horizontal movement of air.
B. cloud formation
A. Wind
C. volcanic activity
B. Coriolis Effect
D. nutrient cycling
C. Migration
D. Evaporation 186. A(n) front may bring many days of
rain.
181. In the troposphere, the temperature A. occluded
as altitude increases.
B. warm
A. Increases
C. cold
B. Decreases
D. stationary
C. Stays the same
187. What are the characteristics of maritime
D. Goes up and down
polar air masses?
182. What can occur in the Doldrums? A. Cold and dry
A. Heavy rain and strong thunderstorms. B. Cold and wet
B. Sudden bursts of wind that only last for C. Hot and wet
a few seconds. D. Hot and dry
C. Water Spouts
188. As a cold front passes through
D. Hurricanes
A. Temperatures will rise
183. How do convection currents flow? B. Temperatures will drop
A. cool air rises and warm air sinks C. Temperatures will stay the same
B. warm air rises and cool air sinks D. None of these

189. What happens to a parcel of air when C. Differences in pressure between two
it rises farther and farther into the tropo- regions
sphere? D. All of these are true
A. it cools and becomes denser
195. When convection occurs in the atmo-
B. it warms up and becomes denser sphere,
C. it cools and becomes even lighter A. cool air rises and warm air sinks
D. it never returns to the surface
B. cool air sinks and warm air rises
NARAYAN CHANGDER
190. Most clouds are formed in what layer? C. cool and warm air sink
A. Mesosphere D. cool and warm air rise
B. Thermosphere
196. involves three air masses of different
C. Mesosphere temperatures-cold air, cool air and warm
D. Troposphere air
A. Stationary Front
191. When a warm air mass overtakes a cold
air mass, it forms a(n) B. Occluded Front
A. stationary front C. Warm Front
B. occluded front D. Cool Front
C. warm front 197. How much advance warning do people
D. cold front have that a tornado is coming?
A. 15-30 minutes
192. Planes fly here to avoid weather.
B. 45 minutes
A. Troposphere
C. 1 hour
B. Stratosphere
D. 2 1/2 hours
C. Mesosphere
D. Ionosphere 198. Which most likely produces clear, cool
weather?
193. Which weather condition will most likely
A. zero air pressure
occur when the atmospheric pressure in an
area begins falling? B. stable air pressure
A. dry C. a low pressure system
B. cold D. a high pressure system
C. rainy 199. Due to the Coriolis effect, winds in the
D. sunny Northern Hemisphere are deflected to the
194. Which of these causes wind?

A. left
A. Differences in humidity between two
regions B. right
B. Differences in temperature between C. bottom

two regions D. top

200. What type of air mass will bring warm, A. If the hurricane moves over warmer
humid air? water

A. Continental Polar B. if the hurricane moves over colder wa-
B. Continental Tropical ter
C. Maritime Polar C. if the hurricane moves over dry land
D. Maritime Tropical D. if the hurricane moves into drier air
201. The average decrease in air temperature 206. Tornado Alley has many tornadoes be-
with increasing height above the surface. cause the jet stream brings cool, dry, high-
pressure air masses from Canada. What
A. Density type air mass does it collide with to form
B. Pressure a tornado?
C. Lapse Rate A. dry, warm, high-pressure air masses
from the Atlantic Ocean
D. Altitude
B. moist, cool, low-pressure air masses
202. winds will circulate around a low pres- from Canada
sure system
C. dry, cool, high-pressure air masses
A. the the right from Alaska
B. to the left D. moist, warm, low-pressure air masses
C. Not enough information to tell from the Gulf of Mexico
D. none of above 207. What is the hottest and fourth layer of

the atmosphere?
203. A student examines the temperature and
precipitation on a given day using a Cel- A. troposphere
sius thermometer and a rain gauge. The B. mesosphere
student is measuring -
C. stratosphere
A. temperature only
D. thermosphere
B. climate only
208. Which of the following is an example of
C. wind speed only
weather system?
D. specific weather conditions
A. ENSO
204. As you travel from the surface of the B. Tropical Cyclones
Earth up through the atmosphere into
C. Global Warming
outer space, the gases become
D. PDO
A. more dense
B. less dense 209. what are the convection zones
C. higher in temperature A. global trade westerlies
D. consistently lower in temperature B. cold warm atlantic
205. Which of these circumstances will cause C. tropical, temperate, polar

a hurricane originate? D. abdc

210. How does humidity affect body tempera- C. Precipitation

ture?
D. Condensation
A. Makes the body colder with more wa-
ter on the skin’s surface. 216. Which layer has the greatest concentra-
B. Makes the body hotter since sweat tion of gas particles (greatest density)?
can’t evaporate. A. Troposphere
C. Both of these are true B. Mesosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Neither of these are true C. Thermosphere
211. Heat would best be transferred by con- D. none of above
duction between
217. The study of physics, chemistry, and dy-
A. a candle and the air.
namics of atmospheric occurrences is
B. an oven and a glass dish.
A. Climate
C. a stove and a copper pot.
B. Weather
D. water and a wooden spoon.
C. Imbalanced heating
212. Air pressure pushes in directions. D. Meteorology
A. all
218. When rapidly moving cold air mass runs
B. two
into a warm air mass the cold air slides
C. three under the warm air. This is called a
D. none of above A. cold front
213. A large body of air with similar character- B. warm front
istics throughout C. stationary front
A. Air Mass
D. none of above
B. Precipitation
C. Cyclone 219. Low pressure means skies.
D. Isotherm A. Clear
B. Cloudy
214. Thunder is caused by
C. Vanishing
A. the discharge of ultraviolet energy
D. Empty
B. the electric barrier
C. the rapid expansion of superheated air 220. The current condition of the air outdoors,
D. the impact of electricity hitting the such as temperature, cloud cover, wind
Earth speed, and rain fall.
A. Climate
215. The stage of the water cycle when water
turns from a gas to a liquid. B. Prediction
A. Evaporation C. Weather
B. Transpiration D. Warm Front

221. The small sub-layer of the atmosphere C. A scientist who studies rocks.
that contains charged particles (ions) is the D. A scientist who studies plants.

A. magnetosphere 227. High pressure is where
B. mesosphere A. air is falling
C. ionosphere B. air is rising
D. troposphere C. air is stagnate
222. The large puffy (cotton candy looking) D. none of above

are very pretty, but are they fair weather 228. Where would you expect to find the
clouds or storm clouds? strongest wind?
A. Fair weather clouds
A. forest
B. Ocean clouds
B. desert
C. Storm clouds
C. city
D. Desert clouds
D. mountains
223. Lines on a map that connect points of
equal temperature are 229. When a rapidly moving cold air mass re-
places and forces a slower-moving warm
A. boundaries. air mass up, the result is a(n)-
B. isobars. A. stationary front
C. isotherms. B. cold front
D. station models.
C. warm front
224. occurs when colder air advances toward D. occluded front
warmer air and collides head on
230. A(n) is a fast-moving front that often
A. Warm Front
brings thunderstorms followed by clear
B. Cool Front skies.
C. Cold Front A. cold front
D. Hot Front B. warm front
225. when a rapidly moving cold air mass runs C. occluded front
into a slow moving warm air mass, the re- D. stationary front
sult is a(n)
A. occluded front 231. Earth’s ozone layer is
B. cold front A. has been thickening over the past sev-
eral years
C. warm front
B. filters harmful ultraviolet radiation
D. stationary front
from the sun
226. What is a Meteorologist? C. exists only over Antarctica
A. A scientist who studies dinosaurs. D. traps carbon dioxide in the strato-
B. A scientist who studies weather. sphere

232. Most hurricanes 238. A pot is heated on a stove. Which pro-

A. cannot be seen from space cess causes the metal handle of the post
to all become hot?
B. cross exposed land
A. combustion
C. become dangerous category 5 storms
B. convection
D. lose their power when they move into
cooler waters or moves over land C. radiation
D. conduction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
233. air pressure is the that air has on a
surface or object 239. High pressure means skies.
A. height A. Clear
B. distance B. Cloudy
C. force C. Pink
D. protuberance D. Grey
234. The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly made 240. condition of Earth’s atmosphere at a par-
of ticular time and place
A. water A. climate
B. snow B. atmosphere
C. wax C. weather
D. air D. precipitation
235. A red line on a weather map represents 241. Which tool should be used to measure wa-
a front. ter vapor in the air?
A. Warm A. anemometer
B. Cold B. barometer
C. Stationary C. hygrometer
D. Store D. thermometer
236. How does air pressure change as you 242. Where can you find pressure systems and
climb a mountain? weather front analysis?
A. it decreases (less air pressure) A. in METARs
B. it increases (more air pressure) B. in TAFs
C. stays the same C. on Synoptical charts
D. the temperature gets warmer D. none of above
237. Which water cycle stage creates clouds? 243. In nature, heat always flows from a:
A. Transpiration A. cold object to a warm object.
B. Evaporation B. small object to a big object.
C. Condensation C. warm object to a cold object.
D. Runoff D. large object to a small object.

244. When air is heated, it will MOST likely C. Tsunamis

A. expand and fall D. Faults

B. expand and rise 250. What factors influence deep ocean cur-
C. condense and fall rents
D. condense and rise A. temperature
B. salinity
245. This tool measures air pressure.
C. density
A. Hydrometer
D. all of these
B. Barometer
251. Solid particles in the atmosphere include
C. Thermometer
salt and
D. None of these
A. leaves.
246. Areas maintain certain average tempera- B. ozone.
tures because: C. dust.
A. An air mass forms over an area D. lightning.
B. Earth’s rotation on its tilted axis and
252. If the air is only holding one-third as much
the spherical shape of Earth that causes
moisture as it can possibly hold, what is
different angles to face towards the sun
the relative humidity?
C. The constant movement of air and
A. 50%
movement of water in the water cycle
B. 25%
D. Short term variations in atmospheric
occurrences C. 33%
D. 67%
247. An air mass’s ability to resist rising
A. latent heat 253. Thin, curly-looking clouds seen high in the
sky are called
B. stability
A. cumulus clouds
C. dew point
B. stratus clouds
D. precipitation
C. cirrus clouds
248. What produced oxygen in the early D. storm clouds
stages of our atmosphere’s formation?
254. A volcanic ash layer is a good geologic
A. Plate Tectonics time marker for correlating rock layers be-
B. Volcanos cause the ash layer was deposited over a
C. Nebula A. limited geographic area over a short
time
D. cyanobacteria
B. limited geographic area over a long
249. The atmosphere protects the Earth from time
C. wide geographic area over a short
A. Earthquakes time
B. Comets and Meteors D. wide geographic area over a long time

255. Barometric pressure drops significantly. C. Temperature remains constant with

What type of front? greater altitude
A. Warm D. none of above
B. Cold
261. What tool measures air temperature?
C. Stationary
A. Thermometer
D. none of above
B. Barometer
256. Most of Earth’s atmosphere is composed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Anemometer
of
D. Rain gauge
A. oxygen and hydrogen.
B. hydrogen and nitrogen. 262. The unequal heating rates of India’s land
and water are caused by
C. nitrogen and oxygen.
A. land having a higher density than wa-
D. carbon and ozone.
ter
257. The boundary between two adjoining air B. water having a higher density than
masses having contrasting characteristics land
A. front C. land having a higher specific heat than
B. hurricane water
C. cyclone D. water having a higher specific heat
than land
D. anticyclone
258. The force exerted by the weight of a col- 263. forms a HIGH pressure region of the
umn of air above a given point Earth.
A. air pressure A. warm, sinking

B. prevailing winds B. warm, rising
C. front C. cool, sinking
D. pressure gradient D. cool rising
259. How many tornadoes occur each year in 264. The bigger the hail the more times it was
the U.S.? carried by into freezing air.
A. 10-20 A. Updrafts
B. 200-300 B. Downdrafts
C. 500-600 C. Leftdrafts
D. 800-1, 000 D. Rightdrafts
260. What is the Air temperature change with 265. The center of a hurricane is called the
altitude?
A. storm surge
A. Temperature increases with greater
B. eye wall
altitude
B. Temperature decreases with greater C. eye
altitude D. funnel cloud

266. Where can convection happen? C. troposphere

A. In oceans D. mesosphere

B. In the atmosphere 272. What is a source region?
C. In a pot of water A. geographic areas where an air mass
D. All of the above originates
267. A can from when a rapidly spinning B. a place where all natual resources can
column of low pressure air, called a funnel be found.
cloud touches the ground. C. when all types of clouds can be formed
A. thunderstorm here.
B. hurricane D. where an air mass is conjoined with

rain and many many other clouds.
C. tornado
D. none of above 273. A large amount of humid air that cools
below 0◦ C can produce a(an) storm.
268. What is the Greenhouse Effect? A. rain storm
A. The rising of sea level over time B. hurricane
B. The Earth’s atmosphere losing heat C. tornado
C. The trapping of the Sun’s warmth in D. snow storm/blizzard
the Earth’satmosphere
D. The way we get energy to our holmes 274. What is the freezing point of water in
CELCIUS?
269. The coldest layer. A. 32
A. troposphere B. 0
B. thermosphere C. 100
C. exosphere D. 210
D. mesosphere
275. Which two factors will increase the rate
270. movement of air from sea to land during of a stream’s flow?
the day when cooler air from above the A. decreased precipitation and de-
water moves over the land, forcing the creased slope
heated, less dense air above the land to
rise B. decreased precipitation and increased
slope
A. wind
C. increased precipitation and decreased
B. land breeze slope
C. sea breeze D. increased precipitation and increased
D. low air pressure slope
271. In which layer of the atmosphere do we 276. Which event occurred more than 10 bil-
live? lion years ago?
A. stratosphere A. Big Bang
B. thermosphere B. origin of life on Earth

C. Pangaea begins to break up B. A place where many earthquakes oc-

D. origin of Earth and its Moon cur
C. An area in the sea with little to no wind
277. High Pressure is associated with this activity
type of weather
D. Book by Nicholas Gannon
A. Cloudy/Overcast Weather
283. Which gas makes up the largest portion
B. Cold Weather
of air in the atmosphere?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Warm Weather
A. oxygen
D. Fair Weather B. nitrogen
278. A heavy storm that is accompanied by C. carbon dioxide
rain, thunder, lightning, and strong winds. D. methane
A. Hurricane
284. A scientist specializing in the study of
B. Tornado weather is called a(n)
C. Thunderstorm A. astronomer
D. none of above B. geologist
279. What tool measures air pressure? C. meteorologist
A. Thermometer D. oceanographer
B. Barometer 285. The amount of water in the air

C. Anemometer A. Dew point
D. Rain gauge B. Rain
C. Isobar
280. Study of earth’s atmosphere including cli-
mate and weather is known as D. Humidity
A. Geology 286. During a house fire, the smoke flames
B. Astrology rise up, but the air down near the floor is
cooler and less smoky. This is an example
C. Climatology of what type of heat transfer-
D. Meteorology A. radiation
281. What tool measures wind speed and di- B. conduction
rection? C. convection
A. Thermometer D. microwave
B. Barometer
287. The layered mixture of gases surrounding
C. Anemometer Earth is called the
D. Rain gauge A. atmosphere
282. What are Doldrums? B. hydrosphere
A. An area in the sea with high wind ac- C. lithosphere

tivity D. hemisphere

288. A loud rumbling or crashing noise heard C. latent heat

after a lightning flash due to the expan- D. basic heat
sion of rapidly heated air is

294. When looking at a storm’s relative mo-
A. a front
tion, it is important to look at
B. hail A. Where the tornado is located
C. heat lightning B. Where the radar is located
D. thunder C. Where the cold front is located
289. Which type of weather is associated with D. Where the storm is located
high pressure? 295. Which statement is related to climate?
A. clouds and precipitation A. The temperature has never dropped
B. clear skies below 0 degrees Celsius in April.
C. thunderstorms B. The barometric pressure is high today.
D. tornadoes C. The sky is dark and cloudy.
D. There is a severe thunderstorm warn-
290. Cloudy nights can be warmer than clear ing for the Dallas area.
nights because clouds trap heat
296. Revolution and cause the seasons
A. produced by the friction of air particles
A. Tilt
B. generated from tropical winds
B. Rotation
C. released from Earth’s interior
C. Longitude
D. absorbed by Earth during daylight
D. Latitude
hours
297. A dry and cold air mass would be
291. what is the study of atmosphere
A. Maritime polar
A. astronomy
B. Continental polar
B. meterology
C. Maritime tropical
C. astrology D. Continental tropical
D. none of above
298. When a cold front moves over a land re-
292. Lake-effect snow is associated with a(n) gion that has warm, moist air, a transfer
of energy occurs. Cold air sinks and pushes
warmer air upward. As energy is removed
A. mP air mass
from the air, which change will most likely
B. cP air mass take place?
C. mT air mass A. Less ultraviolet radiation will reach the
D. cT air mass land
B. Ozone in the atmosphere will decrease
293. The heat absorbed or released during a
C. More water will be absorbed from the
change of state is called
area lakes
A. standard heat D. Water in the atmosphere will undergo
B. average heat a phase change

299. The ozone layer protects the Earth from C. Tropsphere

what? D. none of above
A. comets
305. Clouds are made up of tiny drops of
B. stars
or ice. The moisture in the cloud affects
C. uv radiation the weather.
D. wind A. dust
300. The layer of the atmosphere that contains
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. water
most of the water vapor and weather is
C. cloud particles
the
D. precipitation
A. troposphere
B. thermosphere 306. Lines on a map that connect points of
C. mesosphere equal pressure are
D. stratosphere A. boundaries.
B. isobars.
301. Heat energy from the sun is transferred
to Earth by: C. isotherms.
A. conduction. D. station models.
B. radiation.
307. Which of the following is NOT an aspect
C. convection. of thermometers?
D. insulation. A. Measures temperature
302. On the beach, does the land or sea heat B. Tube contains mercury
up faster? C. Tells you how much it rained last night-
A. Land ght
B. Sea D. Tells you if it is hot or cold outside
C. They heat at the same rate
308. air is more dense and tends to sink
D. none of above
A. cold
303. Why do we use salt to clear ice off roads B. warm
in the winter?
C. moist
A. Salt increases the freezing point
D. dry
B. Salt decreases the freezing point
C. Salt makes the roads grittier to drive 309. a large body of air that has properties
on similar to the part of Earth’s surface over
D. None of these which it develops
A. Meteorology
304. In what layer of earth’s atmosphere do
meteoroids burn up? B. Air front
A. Mesosphere C. Air mass
B. Thermosphere D. none of above

310. The flow of air due to pressure differ- 316. Very high combo cloud
ences is known as A. Cumulus

A. Wind B. Stratus
B. Humidity C. Cirrostratus
C. Current D. Nimbostratus
D. Air Mass
317. How do we name air masses?
311. Which process does NOT lead to a de- A. Water and temperature
crease in the salinity of water?
B. Air pressure
A. runoff from land
C. Humidity and temperature
B. precipitation D. Cold and warm
C. sea ice melting
318. METARs and TAFs report cloud base and
D. evaporation top?
312. A severe storm that develops over trop- A. in 100’s feet AAL
ical oceans and has reached a minimum B. in 100’s feet AMSL
wind speed of 119 km/hr.
C. meters AGL
A. hurricane
D. none of above
B. tornado
319. What cools off faster during a land
C. thunderstorm
breeze?
D. none of above
A. the ocean
313. When two unlike air masses meet, what B. the land
usually keeps them separate? C. cold front
A. temperature difference D. warm front
B. moisture difference
320. Once the sun’s energy reaches the earth’s
C. differences in density atmosphere through radiation, it is circu-
D. differences in pressure lated within the atmosphere and oceans
through
314. Very high feathery clouds are called
A. conduction
A. cumulus
B. convection
B. stratus
C. insulation
C. cirrus
D. radiation
D. cumulonimbus
321. when air is cooled near its dewpoint near
315. Liquid water precipitation. the ground
A. Sleet A. Columbus
B. Rain B. cumulus
C. snow C. Cirrus
D. hail D. Stratus

322. When a warm air mass takes over a cold 327. Where is the LOWEST pressure region on
air mass and causes drizzly rain, what Earth?
type of front occurs? A. The Poles
A. warm front B. The Midlatitudes
B. stationary front C. The Tropics
C. cold front D. The Equator
D. occluded front
NARAYAN CHANGDER
328. What is the freezing point in degrees CEL-
CIUS?
323. Why do winds spin around high pressure
and low pressure systems? A. 100
B. 0
A. The Coriolis effect
C. 32
B. the layer of the atmosphere
D. 212
C. the pressure gradient
D. the temperature 329. A record of weather data for a particular
time is a(n)
324. Why does hurricane season not end until A. station model
October? B. topographic map
A. it takes water a long time to cool down C. isopleth model
B. water cools down pretty quickly D. climate map
C. it takes water a long time to heat up 330. What season occurs in the Southern Hemi-
D. water heats up quickly and it cools sphere in August?
down quickly A. Summer
325. Which statement below describes B. Winter
weather? C. Spring
A. Weather is the average temperature D. Fall
of an area over several years.
331. Air masses that form over Mexico. Bring
B. Weather is recorded yearly. hot air
C. Weather changes and is recorded A. maritime polar
daily.
B. maritime tropical
D. Weather can not be predicted. C. continental polar
326. The ozone layer in the stratosphere D. continental tropical
blocks
332. land and water heat at
A. UV rays from the sun A. the same rate
B. carbon dioxide B. more slowly than grass
C. infrared rays C. a greater rate
D. visible light D. different rates

333. Warm fronts bring C. the wind speed

A. periods of rain D. the amount of precipitation that day

B. day & night temperatures that are mild
339. Instrument that measures wind direction
for the time of year
A. barometer
C. warmer temperatures after the front
moves through B. anemometer
D. all of these C. wind vane
334. Which of the following is NOT a method D. thermometer

of heat transfer?
340. When a cold front or a warm front stays
A. conduction in place for several days without invading
B. condensation another front, it is called a
C. convection A. stationary front
D. radiation B. cold front
C. occluded front
335. Differences in thermal energy can be de-
tected with D. warm front
A. infrared imagery 341. Why is our atmosphere important to liv-
B. Sonar ing things?
C. Radar A. it gives us food
D. none of above B. it gives us gravity
336. Earth’s weather is primarily caused by C. it keeps us from exploding
the D. it provides all of the gasses needed to
A. uneven heating of Earth’s surface live
B. changing distance between Earth and 342. Earth’s atmosphere contains more
the Sun than any other substance.
C. gravitational attraction of the Moon A. hydrogen and nitrogen
D. drifting of Earth’s crustal plates B. helium and oxygen
337. What does a barometer measure? C. nitrogen and oxygen
A. temperature D. carbon and nitrogen
B. air pressure
343. A narrow band of fast westerly moving
C. dew point air that is fueled by a large temperature
D. humidity change and the Coriolis effect
A. Coriolis effect
338. The strength of a sea breeze depends on
B. Imbalanced heating
A. the heat of the day
B. the difference between the tempera- C. Jet stream
ture of the sea and the land D. Doldrums

344. What decreases as you go all the way up C. trade winds

in the atmosphere? D. local winds
A. latitude
350. The wind direction is-
B. air temperature
A. always from an area of low pressure
C. air quality toward high pressure
D. air pressure B. always from an area of high pressure
toward low pressure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
345. The jet stream usually moves from
A. north to south C. always toward the ocean
B. west to east D. always toward the land
C. east to west 351. What measures wind speed?

D. south to north A. Barometer
346. The shortest day of the year is called the B. Wind vane
A. Autumn Equinox C. Anometer
B. Summer Solstice D. none of above
C. Winter Solstice 352. Which of the following determines the

D. Vernal Equinox properties of an air mass?
A. The conditions of the area over which
347. Because the Earth is spinning. Glob- it forms
ally winds cannot travel in a straight line.
What is this effect called? B. The phase and position of the moon
when it forms
A. Nefario effect
C. The exact time of year when it forms
B. gravitational effect
D. The geology of the area where it forms
C. coriolis effect
D. weather effect 353. A pellet of hail
A. Sleet
348. Describe an air mass that forms over wa-
ter in the gulf of mexico in terms of its B. Snow
temperature and moisture C. Frost
A. wet and warm D. Hailstone
B. wet and cold
354. After a period of steady increase, the
C. dry and warm rate of coal consumption was 50% higher
D. dry and cold during 2009 than it was during the year
2000. If this trend continues, which
349. Near the top of the troposphere is a nar- impact will coal consumption most likely
row band of high speed winds called the have on the environment after the year
2010?
A. westerlies A. Decreased rates of deforestation
B. jet stream B. Decreased atmospheric temperatures

C. Increased amounts of radioactive 360. Where a warm air mass is caught be-
waste tween two cooler air masses, a(n)
front occurs

D. Increased levels of greenhouse gas
emissions A. cold
355. What is responsible for warming the B. warm
Earth’s surface and creating wind?
C. stationary
A. The Moon
D. occluded
B. Earth’s interior (inside)
C. Coriolis effect 361. What types of air masses form over
D. The Sun oceans?
356. Which weather instrument is most useful A. Maritime

in measuring relative humidity? B. Continental
A. barometer C. Polar
B. anenometer
D. Tropical
C. psychrometer
D. wind vane 362. What type of front is this? When a cold
air mass collides with a warm air mass
357. Every raindrop, snowflake, and hailstone and slides under it, pushing it up very
must form around a nucleus made of a sin- quickly, making huge tower of cumulonim-
gle speck of . bus clouds; results in colder weather, thun-
A. dust or bacteria derstorms and/or possibly tornadoes.
B. stone A. Cold front
C. magma B. Warm Front
D. Gatorade C. Stationary Front
358. What is albedo? D. Occluded Front
A. line that connects points with the same
temperature 363. NS
B. trapping of heat in Earth’s atmosphere A. No change
C. fraction of total radiation reflected by B. No Significant Report
a surface
C. Nimbo stratus
D. transfer of heat by movement within a
substance D. none of above
359. How much advance warning do people 364. The most common gas in the atmosphere.
have that a hurricane is coming?
A. Nitrogen
A. 3-7 days
B. 1 day B. Oxygen
C. 2 weeks C. Carbon Dioxide

D. 4-5 hours D. Trace gases

365. The science and study of atmosphere 371. How are air masses described?
A. Relative Humidity A. by their size and number of clouds
B. Meteorology B. by their temperature and speed
C. Air Density C. by their location and altitude
D. none of above D. by their temperature and moisture
366. the horizontal movement of air from an content
area of higher pressure to an area of lower
NARAYAN CHANGDER
372. Micro vs Macroburst
pressure
A. Microbursts damage less than a mile,
A. high air pressure Macrobursts damage more than a mile.
B. atmosphere
B. Microbursts damage less than 2.5
C. convection current miles, Macrobursts damage more than 2.5
D. wind miles.
C. Microbursts damage less than 3 miles,
367. Which of the following steps SHOULD
Macrobursts damage more than 3 miles.
NOT be taken in preparation for a cyclonic
storm? D. They are the same thing; Macrobursts
A. Have battery operated radios and are the British term
flashlights 373. The Coriolis effect causes
B. Leave town even though you weren’t
A. the Earth to rotate on its axis
ordered to evacuate
B. continental deflection
C. Board up your house
C. global winds and surface currents to
D. Have plenty of food and water
move in a curved path instead of a straight
368. what is the definition of fog line
A. a torpedo underwater D. global winds and deep ocean currents
B. a cloud in the exosphere to move in a curved path instead of a
straight line.
C. a low lying cloud
D. a thin layer of multiple clouds 374. Which word best describes the eye of a
hurricane?
369. - the amount of water vapor in the air.
A. stormy
A. weather
B. windy
B. humidity
C. cold
C. fog
D. calm
D. dew point
375. Which type of weather is associated with
370. what is a meterologist
an occluded front?
A. a person who forcast weather
A. heavy rain, thunderstorms, and/or
B. a spokes person for a weather channel snow showers for short periods of time
C. a weather man B. Steady, gentle rain/drizzle; steady
D. a person who geuses the weather light snow if cold enough

C. strong winds and heavy precipitation C. continental Polar

D. light to moderate rain or snow for sev- D. continental Tropical

eral days; also clouds and fog
381. What is a warm front
376. Cold air mass that moves rapidly and
overtakes a warm front A. slow
A. cold front B. mass of warm air taking over where
cold air has been
B. warm front
C. stationary front C. fast
D. occluded front D. mass of cold air taking over where

warm air has been
377. Maritime polar (northern Pacific, Bering
Sea) 382. Nimbus is a large rain cloud.
A. warm and humid A. gray
B. cold and dry B. pink
C. cool and humid C. puffy
D. warm and dry D. white
378. Air masses from the warm waters of the
Gulf of Mexico, also found in South At- 383. The ozone layer is in the upper portion of
lantic and pacific. Carry moist air. Usually this part of the Earths atmosphere
means precipitation A. stratosphere
A. maritime polar B. ionosphere
B. maritime tropical C. mesosphere
C. continental polar D. troposphere
D. continental tropical
384. what is the coriolis effect
379. Which has the greatest influence on wind
speed? A. when wind appears to curve because
earth’s spinning
A. differences in the density of interact-
ing air masses B. wind speed
B. differences in atmospheric nitrogen C. wind direction
concentrations D. wind temperature
C. differences in carbon dioxide concen-
trations 385. Why do we have seasons on earth?
D. differences in ozone levels in the A. The tilt of the Earth means that the an-
stratosphere gles of the sun’s rays change.
380. What would a warm, dry air mass be B. The Earth gets closer to the sun during
named? summer.
A. maritime Polar C. The sun gets hotter during summer.
B. maritime Tropical D. There are more clouds during winter

386. A storm is a pressure area. C. Indian

A. Low D. Artic
B. High
392. A wind that constantly blows from one
C. Peer direction more than from another
D. Cold
A. prevailing winds
387. Which of the following sources of B. Coriolis Effect
weather data would enable a meteorolo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gist to follow the path of an approaching C. air mass
thunderstorm? D. cyclone
A. a chart of data from previous storm
surges 393. Fuel for a hurricane
B. radar A. warm, rising vapor

C. a network of aneroid barometers B. cool, sinking vapor
D. weather balloons C. strong wind
388. Precipitations, wind, thunder, and light- D. occluded fronts

ening all happen in the
394. What atmospheric layer has the highest
A. stratosphere temperature?
B. exosphere A. Troposphere
C. mesosphere
B. Stratosphere
D. troposphere
C. Mesosphere
389. The Coriolis effect occurs as a result of D. Thermosphere
Earth’s
A. rotation 395. Humidity is to blame for that muggy,
B. revolution steamy feeling you experience on some
hot summer days. What gas in the atmo-
C. tilted axis sphere causes humidity?
D. magnetic field A. oxygen
390. What global wind is located from 0 to 30 B. helium
degrees North and South of the Equator?
C. methane
A. Trade Winds
D. carbon dioxide
B. Prevailing Westerlies
C. Polar Easterlies 396. Meteorology is the study of the changes
of the Earth’s
D. Doldrum
A. Lithosphere
391. Which ocean would be the least likely to
have hurricanes? B. Asthenosphere
A. Atlantic C. Atmosphere
B. Pacific D. Hydrosphere

397. Large clouds that produce thunderstorms C. temperature

are called D. dew point

A. cirrus
403. Winds blowing inland from oceans tend
B. cumulus to have greater moisture than winds blow-
C. cumulonimbus ing over land. How does the high moisture
content affect the coastal area climate?
D. stratus
A. Dry period
398. This layer is the hottest layer of the at- B. Heavy Precipitation
mosphere?
C. Lots of Fog
A. Troposphere
D. Sunshine
B. Stratosphere
404. A sudden change in temperature can af-
C. Mesosphere
fect current weather conditions in a spe-
D. Thermosphere cific area. However, changes in average
weather conditions over 30 years or more
399. Low-pressure zone usually have
result in the area’s -
weather.
A. precipitation
A. cold
B. climate
B. rainy
C. air mass
C. hot
D. forecast
D. clear
405. air always wants to move to an area of
400. Compared to a warmer air mass, a colder
A. high pressure
air mass
B. lower altitude
A. can hold more water
C. warm air
B. can hold less water
D. low pressure
C. is less dense
406. When the front passes, the temperature
D. is lighter
warms and becomes humid. What type of
401. Equal areas of which surface would ab- front?
sorb the greatest amount of insolation on A. Warm
a sunny day?
B. Cold
A. light-colored, smooth surface C. Stationary
B. light-colored, rough surface D. none of above
C. dark-colored, smooth surface
407. Weather maps can help predict weather
D. dark-colored, rough surface patterns. I am the lines that indicate high
or low pressure systems. What am I?
402. The different layers of Earth’s atmo-
sphere can be categorized by variations in A. isotherms
B. isobars
A. air pressure C. radar
B. humidity D. satellite

408. what is climate 413. What causes a polar vortex to leave

A. long term weather it’s place of origin and affect the U.S &
Canada?
B. short term weather
A. El Nino
C. rain
B. La Nina
D. over all conditions for a long term pe-
riod of time C. A low pressure system
D. The vortex becoming weak
NARAYAN CHANGDER
409. The end of a glacier is a curved shape
called a 414. List the layers of the atmosphere in cor-
rect order from Earth’s surface to outer
A. medial moraine
space.
B. quiche lorraine
A. troposphere, stratosphere, meso-
C. terminal moraine sphere, thermosphere
D. lateral moraine B. thermosphere, mesosphere, strato-
sphere, troposphere
410. The hottest layer.
C. troposphere, mesosphere, strato-
A. troposphere sphere, thermosphere
B. thermosphere D. weathersphere, ozonesphere, meteor-
C. exosphere sphere, hottestsphere
D. mesosphere 415. Why does hurricane season not peak until
411. Wind is caused mainly by air pressure dif- August?
ferences that result from A. it takes water a long time to increase
A. uneven heating of the Earth’s atmo- in density
sphere. B. water takes a long time to cool down
B. absorption of ultraviolet radiation by C. it takes water a long time to heat up
Earth’s land masses. D. water heats up quickly and it cools
C. radiation of heat from Earth’s land down quickly
masses to water bodies.
416. The atmosphere is divided into four main
D. rotation of Earth on its axis. layers. Which layer is where all weather
takes places?
412. Why is the sun important to the water
cycle? A. thermosphere
A. The sun is the source of energy that B. troposphere
powers the water cycle. C. mesosphere
B. The sun gives light so that people can D. stratosphere
see the water cycle happening.
C. The sun’s gravity causes the tides 417. The transfer of energy through space by
which are important to the water cycle. electromagnetic waves
D. The sun isn’t important to the water cy- A. latent heat

cle. B. precipitation

C. radiation A. doldrums
D. stability B. westerlies

C. trade winds
418. Why does a heating parcel of air rise as
it gains thermal energy? D. jet streams
A. the molecules in the air slow down and 423. Which layer of the atmosphere is the
come closer together; this increases the ozone layer located in?
air mass’s density
A. Mesosphere
B. the molecules in the air speed up and
B. Troposphere
become farther apart; this lowers the air
mass’s density C. Thermosphere
C. the air becomes more dense D. Stratosphere
D. the iar moves according to gravity 424. The temperature to which air must be
cooled at constant pressure to reach sat-
419. Moisture condensed from the atmo- uration
sphere and deposited in the form of small
drops upon any cool surface A. latent heat
A. Dew B. stability
B. Frost C. dew point

D. precipitation
C. Rain
D. Fog 425. Sinking cool air creates an area of
A. High pressure
420. A major difference between fronts is that
B. Low pressure
A. in cold fronts, air masses are moving
in the same direction C. Clouds, with a chance of meatballs
B. in warm fronts, air masses are moving D. none of above
in opposite directions 426. What is a type of severe weather?
C. in cold fronts, air masses are moving A. Tornado
in different directions
B. Hurricane
D. air masses are moving against each
other in both fronts C. Thunderstorm
D. All of the above
421. Which term best describes how the
earth’s atmosphere is heated? 427. El Nino & La Nina are associated with
A. Spirally A. movement of air along the Polar East-
erlies
B. Unevenly
B. movement of large areas of warm wa-
C. Circularly
ter in Atlantic Ocean
D. Kinetically C. movement of large areas of warm wa-
422. Which of the following are narrow belts ter in Pacific Ocean
of strong winds found in the upper tropo- D. movement of air pollution across the
sphere? US

428. The climate on the leeward side of a C. 62%

mountain differs from that on the wind- D. 78%
ward side mostly in
A. the strength of the winds 434. The layer of the atmosphere above the
stratosphere and below the thermosphere
B. the direction of the winds is the This is the coldest layer (-85
C. the angle of sunlight degrees). As altitude increases, temper-
atures decrease in this layer.
D. the amount of rainfall
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Troposphere
429. What do hurricanes, tornadoes, and thun-
B. Stratosphere
derstorms all have in common?
C. Mesosphere
A. Cold temperatures
D. Thermosphere
B. Low-pressure air
C. Storm surge 435. Why is the equator so much warmer than
the poles?
D. High-pressure air
A. The sun’s rays are coming in at a steep
430. What pushes weather from place to angle and are more concentrated
place?
B. The sun’s rays are coming in at a shal-
A. magic low angle and are spread out over a large
B. water area
C. wind C. The Greenhouse Effect traps a greater

amount of gases around the equator
D. clouds
D. Convection currents in the Earth’s
431. When two substances are in contact, mantle are more focused on the equator
what type of heat transfer takes place?
436. What would you name a warm and dry
A. convection air mass?
B. conduction A. Tropical Continental
C. radiation B. Tropical Polar
D. none of above C. Polar Continental
432. Where does the initial source of energy D. none of above
come from that creates winds?
437. What causes the Earth’s seasons?
A. the moon
A. Tilt of the Earth
B. the sun
B. Tilt of Earth and location of Earth in re-
C. the Earth’s surface lation to the sun
D. the rotation of the Earth C. How close the Earth is to the sun
433. What percent of the earths atmosphere D. none of above
is nitrogen? 438. Lines joining places on a map that have
A. 1% the same air pressure are called
B. 21% A. isobars

B. isotherms 444. Warm air rises because it is since the

C. barometric lines particles are more spread out.
A. less dense

D. pressure lines
B. more dense
439. When is it winter in the southern hemi-
C. less viscous
sphere?
D. more viscous
A. June 21
B. September 22 445. Dangerous phenomena related to THUN-
DERSTORMS?
C. December 21
A. CAVOK, Hails, Turbulence, Icing
D. none of above
B. Light showers, Turbulence, Good visi-
440. Name the two most abundant gases in bility, Hails
the atmosphere C. Icing, Hails, Low visibility, Turbulence
A. nitrogen & oxygen D. none of above
B. carbon dioxide & methane 446. When cold air in the winter passes over
C. oxygen & methane large bodies of warm water, moisture is
D. oxygen & neon picked up. As the air mass rises rapidly
over land,
441. A line connecting points having the same A. lightning generally occurs.
atmospheric pressure reduced to a com-
mon datum, usually sea level. B. precipitation generally occurs.
A. Isobar C. cold fronts become warm fronts.

D. hurricanes are formed
B. Isobathytherm
C. Isobath 447. Maritime tropical (Gulf of Mexico)
D. Isoclinal A. warm and humid
B. cold and dry
442. Which of these is NOT true about straight
line winds? C. cool and humid
A. They can blow as fast as 150 mph D. warm and dry
B. They are associated with mesoscale 448. The abnormal rise of the sea along a
convective systems shore as a result of strong winds
C. They are caused by strong updrafts A. storm surge
and downdrafts B. high tides
D. They are common in hurricanes and C. spring tides
tornadoes D. neap tides
443. Precipitation is 449. What is O3?
A. rain, sleet, snow, or hail. A. Oxygen
B. only rain. B. Ozone
C. only snow, sleet, or hail. C. Oranges
D. none of above D. Opposites

450. What is the Air pressure change with al- 455. A thunderstorm is most intense during its
titude?
A. Pressure increases with greater alti- A. mature stage
tude B. cumulus stage
B. Pressure decreases with greater alti-
C. wave stage
tude
D. dissipating stage
C. Pressure remains constant with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
greater altitude 456. Humidity is measured using a:
D. none of above A. Anemometer
451. At what angle is the Earth’s Axis tilted B. Thermometer
A. 52.3 degrees C. Barometer
B. 23.5 degrees D. Hygrometer
C. 90 degrees 457. What makes up 99% of the atmosphere?
D. 25.3 degrees A. nitrogen
452. Which is caused by differences in air pres- B. oxygen
sure?
C. carbon dioxide
A. Snow
D. nitrogen and oxygen together
B. Rain
458. The process of turning from liquid to va-
C. Clouds
por is?
D. Wind
A. Matter
453. Which statement best describes the B. Spongebob
weather shown by the purple combination
of semicircles and triangles on a line on a C. Evaporation
weather map? D. Relative Humidity
A. A warm front brings drizzly weather. 459. Falling barometric pressure means what?
B. A cold front can cause heavy rain, thun- A. fair weather is on the way
der, and lightning.
B. a storm is on the way
C. A stationary front may produce rainy
or snowy weather for several days. C. nice light rain is coming
D. An occluded front can cause light to D. cloudy skies
heavy precipitation that may last several
460. What type of front occurs when a warm
days.
air mass gets cut-off from the ground by
454. This tool measures humidity. two cool air masses?
A. Barometer A. Cold front
B. Hydrometer B. Warm front
C. Thermometer C. Occluded front
D. None of these D. Stationary front

461. The study of weather 466. A stratus cloud formed near the ground
A. astronomy is called

A. A thunderstorm
B. meteorology
B. A tornado
C. archaeology
C. fog
D. none of above
D. rain
462. These type of clouds are found highest in
the atmosphere and contain ice crystals. 467. Condensation nuclei are particles of atmo-
spheric dust around which
A. cumulus
A. ozone collects.
B. cirrus
B. cloud droplets form.
C. alto
C. evaporation occurs.
D. nimbus
D. winds form.
463. The measure of the force with which air
468. The science that tracks the Earth’s larger
molecules push down on Earth’s surface is
atmospheric systems over a long period of
time is known as
A. air pusher
A. meteorology
B. air pressure
B. climatology
C. air temperature
C. cartography
D. air conditioner D. physical geography
464. The atmosphere is divided into spherical 469. What do you call a wind that is traveling
layers based upon the TOWARDS the East?
A. amount of precipitation contained A. Easterly wind
within each layer of the atmosphere.
B. Westerly wind
B. concentration of oxygen contained
within each layer of the atmosphere. C. Northerly wind
D. Southerly wind
C. variation in the concentration and
amount of ozone contained within each 470. What causes the temperature to increase
layer in the stratosphere?
D. temperature changes from variations A. Nitrogen
in absorption of solar energy within each
B. Ozone Layer
layer of the atmosphere
C. Water Vapor
465. Which two mantle hot spots are located
D. none of above
at midocean ridges?
A. Iceland and Yellowstone 471. Which type of electromagnetic radiation
has theshortest wavelength?(1) ultravio-
B. Galapagos and Tasman
let (3) radio waves(2) gamma rays (4) vis-
C. St. Helena and Hawaii ible light
D. Easter Island and Bouvet A. ultraviolet

B. gamma rays 477. Earth’s atmosphere is unique among the

C. radio waves planets and is able to support life because
it contains a large amount of
D. visible light
A. oxygen
472. People who try and predict the weather
B. helium
are called
C. methane
A. meteorologists
D. water vapor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. astronomers
C. ecologists 478. When a warm air mass gently slides on
D. geologists top of a cold air mass, and you have driz-
zly rain and then warmer weather, what
473. What ocean can hurricanes not develop type of front is it?
in?
A. warm front
A. Atlantic
B. cold front
B. Pacific
C. occluded front
C. Indian
D. stationary front
D. Southern
474. The prevailing westerlies, the major wind 479. What is the name of the steady winds
belts over the continental United States, that flow from west to east between lati-
generally push air masses from tudes 30*N and 60*N and 30*S and 60*S?
A. east to west A. trade winds
B. west to east B. land breeze

C. north to south C. westerlies
D. south to north D. jet stream
475. A(n) is a large body of air that has 480. TS

the same properties as the Earth’s surface
A. Tower cumulus
over which it develops.
A. front B. Thunderstrom
B. air mass C. Temporary

C. cloud D. none of above
D. tornado 481. The average, year-after-year conditions
476. Which type of bedrock contains these oil of temperature, precipitation, winds, and
and gas deposits? cloud in an area are known as its
A. extrusive igneous rock A. climate

B. intrusive igneous rock B. weather
C. metamorphic rock C. global warming
D. sedimentary rock D. seasons

482. Heat index is associated with which two C. infrared imagery

properties of the atmosphere?
D. sonar imagery

A. Temperature and pressure
B. Temperature and humidity 488. Balloon borne package of sensors that
gathers upper-level weather data
C. Humidity and pressure
A. radiosonde
D. none of these
B. radar
483. Cold air mass overtakes warm air mass.
Warm air rises rapidly. Often associated C. hygrometer
with severe weather D. none of above
A. warm front
489. High pressure will usually bring what
B. stationary front kind of weather?
C. cold front A. Good
D. occluded front
B. Bad
484. Which air mass produces Seattle’s heavy C. Both Good and Bad
winter precipitation?
D. none of above
A. Continental polar
B. Continental tropical 490. What causes the wind to blows?
C. Maritime polar, north Pacific ocean A. difference in longitude
D. Maritime polar, north Atlantic ocean B. the rotation of the Earth
485. Instruments used to measure air pressure C. the moon’s gravitational pull
are called D. differences in air temperature and
A. thermometer pressure
B. anemometer
491. How often does a El Nino happen?
C. rain gauge
A. Once every month
D. barometer
B. A few years
486. Lightning and thunder can form during
C. Every day
unstable atmospheric conditions in which
types of clouds? D. Once every week
A. Altostratus
492. Most scientists agree that an increase in
B. Alto cumulus the amount of greenhouse gases entering
C. Cumulonimbus Earth’s atmosphere causes
D. Nimbostratus A. an increase in melting of polar ice caps
487. Differences in thermal energy can be de- B. an increase in crustal plate movement
tected with C. a decrease in average surface temper-
A. ultraviolet imagery atures
B. visible light D. a decrease in sea level

493. A cold, dry air mass that moves over 499. Water vapor condenses into water
warm, tropical waters will likely become droplets (around some tiny particles like
A. colder and drier dust, etc). This can only happen when the
temperature in the air is below the dew-
B. warmer and drier point. What does this form?
C. colder and wetter A. rain
D. warmer and wetter
B. cloud droplets
NARAYAN CHANGDER
494. Valleys carved out by glaciers are always C. clouds
shaped.
D. hail
A. W
B. V 500. Which process must occur for clouds to
form?
C. U
D. Q A. condensation
B. precipitation
495. A device that is used to measure atmo-
spheric pressure is a C. erosion
A. barometer D. conduction
B. thermometer
501. Frigid air that travels southward from
C. kilometer Canada would be what type of air mass?
D. micrometer A. continental polar
496. During winter, the Earth B. continental tropical
A. is further away from the sun C. maritime polar
B. is tilted away from the sun D. arctic
C. is tilted toward the sun
D. is closer to the sun 502. A high-pressure center characterized by a
clockwise flow of air in the Northern Hemi-
497. Why would a hurricane lose strength? sphere
A. It goes into warmer waters. A. anticyclone
B. It hits land. B. cyclone
C. It goes into more equatorial regions. C. storm surge
D. A thunderstorm occurs. D. El Nino
498. Which layer of the ocean receives the
503. Maritime tropical air masses form
most sunlight for plant survival?
A. photic zone A. over water near the equator
B. twilight zone B. over land near the equator

C. abyssal zone C. over cold waters
D. loading zone D. none of above

504. Which group of gases are all GREEN- 509. How do hurricanes form and move?
HOUSE GASES? A. The storms form at the equator and ini-

A. Carbon Dioxide, Methane, Water Va- tially move west
por B. The storms form at the equator and ini-
B. Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide, Ozone tially move south
C. Oxygen, Carbon monoxide, Amonia C. The storms form at the northern mid-
latitude and initially move west.
D. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Helium
D. The storms form at the northern mid-
505. What gas makes up 21% of Earth’s at- latitude and initially move south.
mosphere?
510. How is the surface of the Earth heated?
A. Nitrogen
A. Conduction
B. Oxygen
B. Convection
C. Ozone
C. None of the above
D. None of these
D. none of above
506. Juan noticed the sunny skies suddenly be-
511. What happens after a hurricane makes
came stormy. Which most likely happened
landfall or moves into cooler waters?
when the weather changed in this way?
A. it gets stronger
A. Winds weakened
B. it gets weaker
B. Humidity decreased
C. its winds pick up speed
C. Air pressure dropped
D. it starts hailing
D. Temperatures increased
512. What is the process that is responsible
507. Why do land breezes occur at night? for adding moisture to the atmosphere
A. Land cools off slower than water, so that could fuel a hurricane?
the air above water is cooler. A. evaporation of ocean water
B. Water cools off faster than land, so the B. precipitation due to condensation
air above land is warmer.
C. condensation of water vapor into
C. Land heats up slower than water, so clouds
the air stays cooler during the day.
D. movement of clouds through the tropo-
D. Water cools off slower than land, so sphere
the air above water is warmer.
513. As the relative humidity goes up what is
508. The transfer of heat through space as likely to happen to the dew point?
electromagnetic waves is called
A. It will increase
A. conduction
B. It will decrease
B. convection
C. Sometimes it increases, sometimes it
C. radiation decreases
D. photosynthesis D. It will not change

514. What was causing the hole in the Ozone? C. thermometer, magnifying glass,
A. CO2 barometer, spring scale
B. CFCs D. none of above
C. Methane 519. Which wind region is responsible for mov-

ing the United States’ Weather?
D. Greenhouse gases
A. Doldrums
515. The average monthly rainfall in the Sa-
B. Polar Westerlies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
hara Desert is 1 cm, and the average
monthly temperature is 35 degrees Cel- C. Prevailing Westerlies
sius (or 95 degrees Fahrenheit). Which D. Trade Winds
statement correctly describes the Sahara
Desert? 520. If an air mass is sinking, it must be
A. The Sahara Desert has a cold, dry cli- A. cold and less dense
mate. B. cold and more dense
B. The Sahara Desert has a hot, dry cli- C. warm and more dense
mate.
D. warm and less dense
C. The Sahara Desert has hot, dry
weather every day. 521. What is the difference between weather
and climate?
D. The Sahara Desert has cold, dry
weather every day. A. Weather is measured over a period of
years, and climate changes daily.
516. TEMPO is indicator for? B. Weather changes daily and can be pre-
A. Permanent gradual change dicted, but climate can not ever be pre-
B. Permanent immediate change dicted.
C. Temporary change C. Weather can not be predicted, but cli-

mate is certain.
D. none of above
D. Weather conditions describe the daily
517. On a weather map, what are the lines atmospheric conditions, and climate is the
that connect points of equal temperature average weather of an area measured
called? over many years.
A. isobars 522. What tool do we use to measure temper-
B. contour lines ature?
C. isotemps A. Thermometer
D. isotherms B. Ruler
C. Balance
518. What does a meteorologist need to accu-
rately measure and predict the weather? D. Magnifying Glass
A. thermometer, triple beam balance, 523. What is the symbol on a weather map
rain gauge, anemometer for a cyclone and what type of weather
B. thermometer, barometer, wind vane, can you expect with it?
anemometer, rain gauge A. Big blue H, clear skies & sunshine

B. Big blue H, clouds & rain C. an increase in precipitation

C. Big red L, clear skies & sunshine D. an increase in air pressure

D. Big red L, clouds & rain 529. As water vapor rises into the atmosphere
how does this impact the atmospheric con-
524. It is a layer of the atmosphere where
ditions?
temperature increases with elevation.
A. Relative humidity will increase as
A. Troposphere
clouds form
B. Stratosphere
B. Relative humidity will decrease as
C. Mesosphere clouds dissipate
D. Thermosphere C. Relative humidity will increase as
clouds dissipate
525. What is the approximate percentage of
Earth’s history during which humans have D. Relative humidity will decrease as
existed, compared to the age of Earth? clouds form
A. 0.04% 530. What percentage of our atmosphere is

made up of other gases such as argon, wa-
B. 1.79%
ter vapor, and carbon dioxide?
C. 4.65%
A. 1%
D. 8.32%
B. 21%
526. The form of oxygen that combines three C. 78%
oxygen atoms into each molecule is called D. 90%
A. Diatomic Oxygen 531. In which direction do prevailing wester-

lies flow?
B. Ozone
A. FROM the east
C. Oxyacetylene
B. FROM the west
D. Its final form
C. FROM the south
527. A storm with spiraling winds that (1) D. FROM the north
forms over warm ocean water, (2) is sev-
eral hundred miles wide, (3) lasts up to 532. Warm air tends to move which direction
three weeks, (4) and usually has winds of in the northern hemisphere?
less than 180 mph is a A. Towards the north
A. tornado B. Towards the south
B. hurricane C. Towards the east
C. water spout D. Towards the west
D. thunderstorm 533. Stratus is a
528. Which is most often a result of a warm A. Low level cloud
air mass moving over a cooler air mass? B. High level cloud
A. a decrease in wind speed C. Medium level cloud
B. a decrease in cloud cover D. none of above

534. Weather is a term effect but climate 539. The temperature at which water vapor
is term. condenses is the
A. Short, long A. relative humidity
B. Long, short B. humidity
C. Warm, Cold C. freezing point
D. High, Low D. dew point
540. what are the wind zones
NARAYAN CHANGDER
535. What is the name for this air
mass?formed over land in a warm region A. global trade westerlies
so the air is dry & warm with low pressure B. tropical temperate polar
A. Continental polar C. abcdefg
B. maritime polar D. wind speed
C. continental tropical
541. What is the relative humidity if the dry
D. maritime tropical bulb temperature is 160C and the wet bulb
temperature is 100C?
536. What type of cloud is a stratus cloud?
A. 45%
A. Low
B. 33%
B. High
C. 14%
C. Middle
D. 4%
D. Vertical
542. What happens when a warm moist air
537. The gradual increase in the temperature mass and a cooler dry air mass meet at
of the atmosphere is known as Earth’s surface?
A. Greenhouse Effect A. The sky becomes clear
B. Global Warming B. Winds die down
C. Carbon Dioxide Gases C. There are fewer clouds
D. Methane D. Stormy weather builds up
538. What is the best reason tornadoes form 543. What is a true fact about the meso-
most often in the “Tornado Alley” area of sphere?
the central United States? A. it is the hottest layer
A. Warm, humid air from the south meets B. meteors burn up here
cold, dry air from the north over the
C. the ozone layer is found here
plains.
D. Northern Lights happen here
B. The heavy winter snowfall in the plains
causes tornadoes in the spring. 544. When a warm air mass and a cold air
C. The calm winds on the plains all collect mass meet and no movement occurs, the
into tornadoes. result is a(n)
D. The central US is not really affected by A. occluded front

hurricanes, so they get tornadoes instead. B. stationary front

C. warm front B. Stratosphere

D. cold front C. Ionosphere

545. Whats the third layer of the atmosphere D. Atmosphere
that has meteors and is the coldest layer?
551. The force exerted by the air above is
A. troposphere called
B. mesosphere A. convergence
C. stratosphere B. air pressure
D. thermosphere C. divergence
546. Which of the following best describes the D. the Coriolis effect
general air temperature on a cloudy night?
552. This tool photographs clouds from high
A. lower than on a clear night above Earth, and sends data to meteorol-
B. higher than on a clear night ogists.
C. the same as on a clear night A. camera
D. less predictable than on a clear night B. iPhone 5
547. in which of the following can convection C. satellite

currents be set up? D. radar
A. air 553. Jet planes tend to fly in the to avoid
B. plastic severe weather
C. a vacuum (void of matter) A. troposphere
D. solid aluminum B. mesosphere
548. Measures wind speed and distance C. thermosphere
A. thermometere D. stratosphere
B. barometer 554. During the Winter Solstice in the North-
C. anemometer ern Hemisphere, what area will receive 24
hours of DAYLIGHT
D. none of above
A. North Pole
549. What’s the humidity and temperature of
B. Equator
a continental tropical air mass?
C. South Pole
A. Wet and cold
D. Tropic of Caner
B. Dry and warm
C. Wet and warm 555. Water boiling- hot water rising, cooling,
then falling- is an example of
D. Dry and cold
A. Radiation
550. The layer of the Earth‘s atmosphere up
to 30.000ft AMSL (according to ISA at the B. Conduction
equator) is called? C. Convection
A. Troposphere D. none of above

556. In a high pressure systems A. a line with triangles on it

A. there are few clouds because the air B. a line with semi-circles on it
in moving downward C. a line with squares on it
B. there are many clouds because the air
D. a line with circles on it
is very humid
C. there are few clouds because the air 561. The study of earth’s atmosphere and its
is moving outward phenomenon.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. there are many clouds because the air A. Water Cycle
is moving upward B. Geology
557. When a rapidly moving cold air mass C. Meteorology
overtakes a slow-moving warm air mass, D. Chemistry
the result is a(an)
A. cold front 562. Connected lines of equal pressure
B. occluded front A. lines of altitude

C. warm front B. barometer
D. stationary front C. Isobars
D. longitude
558. Local winds differ from global winds be-
cause local winds 563. What are two factors determining both
A. are caused by unequal heating within climate and weather?
a small area and blow in specific direc- A. Latitude and humidity
tions (only north or only south, for exam-
ple) over short distances. B. Meteorologists and Hydrologists
B. are caused by unequal heating within C. Wind patterns and upwellings

a small area and can change directions. D. Personality and Ethics
C. are caused by unequal heating within a 564. Describe an air mass which forms over
large area and blow in specific directions canada in terms of temperature and mois-
over short distances. ture
D. are caused by unequal heating within a
A. Wet and warm
large area and can change directions. un-
equal heating within a large area and can B. wet and cold
change directions. C. dry and warm
559. A polar climate is? D. dry and cold
A. warm and cool 565. What percent of the Earth’s atmosphere
B. consistently moderate is Oxygen?
C. consistently cool A. 1%
D. consistently warm B. 78%
560. The symbol on a weather map for a cold C. 21%

front is what? D. 62%

566. What type of clouds produce tornadoes? 572. What drives the water cycle to continue?
A. Circocirrus A. Salt in the Ocean

B. Cumulonimbus B. The Sun
C. Nimbostratus C. Clouds
D. Cumulous D. Gravity
567. The amount of water vapor in the air 573. What direction does wind move?
A. High pressure to low pressure
A. humidity
B. It doesn’t move
B. climate
C. Low pressure to high pressure
C. generalization
D. It’s random
D. none of above
574. Increase in which gas is primarily respon-
568. Brings gentle rains. What type of front? sible for increased global warming?
A. Warm A. Carbon dioxide
B. Cold B. Water vapor
C. Stationary C. Methane
D. none of above D. Nitric oxides
569. Before it becomes a hurricane, it is called 575. What is the Freezing Level?
a A. Level where air temperature drops to
A. tropical cyclone 0◦ C, importatnt for icing condition
B. tropical typhoon B. Level where air becomes saturated

C. Air humidity reaches 100%
C. tropical storm
D. none of above
D. tropical storm surge
576. As a hurricane moves through warm wa-
570. Scientists who study weather and try to ters, the water evaporates and the storm
predict it are called intensifies. What is the most likely effect
A. astronomers as a hurricane moves inland?
B. climatologists A. The hurricane gains moisture.
C. meteorologists B. The hurricane gains wind speed
D. weatherologists C. The hurricane becomes weaker.
D. The hurricane becomes stronger.
571. What percent of the Earth’s atmosphere
CO2, Argon, and other gases? 577. Which of these best describes climate
rather than weather?
A. 1%
A. Wind speed is changing as a storm
B. 21%
moves through an area.
C. 62% B. The temperature is decreasing in a
D. 78% slow-moving cold front.

C. Annual high temperatuers in the sum- B. distance from the Gulf Stream current
mer have increased over many decades.
C. location of latitude north of the equa-
D. The rainfall during one year was tor
greater than the rainfall during the next
D. warm air moving in from the Atlantic
year.
Ocean
578. The rotation of the Earth causes the
change in here on Earth 583. What causes wind?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. day and night A. convection currents
B. seasons B. conduction currents
C. moon phases C. radiation currents
D. temperature D. tropical currents
579. What does it mean when a form of the 584. what is a fast moving ribbon of air that
word “nimbus” is added to the names of moves from west to east in the northern
clouds? hemisphere
A. The clouds are at a middle altitude.
A. jet stream
B. The clouds produce precipitation.
B. polar
C. A storm is coming.
C. agriculture
D. The clouds are dark in color.
D. mariculture
580. Tundra and ice cap climates are examples
of climates. 585. what is the meaning of conduction
A. temperate continental A. when heat transfers from objects that
B. temperate maritime are not touching
C. tropical B. heat rise
D. polar C. cold fall
581. What is a GAMET? D. when heat transfers from objects that

are touching
A. Chart of wind and temperature aloft
B. Area forecast for particular FIR and 586. Outgassing refers to
low levels (GND up to FL100) A. changes in the total amount of water
C. Synoptical analysis chart on Earth through evapotranspiration.
D. none of above B. a steady-state equilibrium in the water
system caused by cycles of evaporation
582. The average yearly rainfall for Miami,
and condensation.
Florida is about 58 inches. During the year,
Miami goes through a dry period where it C. the dynamic equilibrium between sur-
receives very little rainfall. Which factor face and ocean water.
is most likely responsible for the dry pe- D. the process in which water and water
riod? vapor emerge from deep layers within and
A. cold air moving in from the north below the Earth’s crust.

587. The atmosphere is made up primarily of C. Radiation

A. Nitrogen D. Subjection

B. Oxygen 593. Rose makes a cup of hot tea. She places
C. Carbon Dioxide the cup of tea on the kitchen table and
waits for it to cool off. When she picks up
D. Water Vapor
the cup a few minutes later, she notices
588. The instrument used to measure air pres- the kitchen table is warm where the cup
sure is used to be. Which best explains the flow
of energy between the cup and the table?
A. a barometer
A. Heat transferred from the cup to the
B. a thermometer
table to warm the table.
C. a meter stick B. Cold transferred from the table to the
D. none of above cup to cool the tea.
589. in witch direction does low pressure ro- C. Heat transferred from the cup to the
tate table, and cold was exchanged between
both.
A. left to right
D. Cold transferred from the table to the
B. counter-clockwise cup, and heat was exchanged between
C. up and down both.
D. clockwise 594. The second layer of the atmosphere is the
590. Which factor is NOT a part of hurricane A. Troposphere
formation? B. Stratosphere
A. warm, moist air rises rapidly C. Mesosphere
B. area of high pressure created D. Thermosphere
C. as the air rises, it cools and condenses 595. How does the latitude of a region affect
to form clouds its climate?
D. winds are drawn into the area and be- A. By increasing the length of days
gin to spin throughout the year
591. A storm with thunder and lightning and B. By increasing the amount of energy
typically also heavy rain or hail the land can absorb
A. hurricane C. By determining the angle of sunlight
throughout the year
B. thunderstorm
D. By determining the rate that tectonic
C. tornado
plates move
D. earthquake
596. If an area is experiencing consecutive
592. Sun rays warm the sand on a beach, what days of cloudy weather with light/heavy
kind of heat transfer is this? precipitation, this weather is called ?
A. Conduction A. Stationary front weather
B. Convection B. Warm-front weather

C. Cold-front weather 602. A front along which a cold air mass

D. Occluded-front weather thrusts beneath a warmer air mass
A. warm front
597. movement of air from land to sea at
B. cold front
night, created when cooler, denser air
from the land forces up warmer air over C. stationary front
the sea D. occluded front
A. sea breeze
NARAYAN CHANGDER
603. What type of weather does a cold front
B. low pressure create?
C. altitude A. Light rain/fog
D. land breeze B. Heavy rain
598. Clouds have an anvil top because that is C. Warm weather
where is found. D. none of above
A. the bottom of the mesosphere
604. Which front leads to steady rain for sev-
B. the bottom of the troposphere eral days?
C. the top of the troposphere A. warm front
D. the top of the stratosphere B. cold front
599. Electromagnetic waves traveling through C. stationary front
empty space is an example of- D. occluded front
A. conduction
605. This protects Earth from harmful UV rays:
B. convection
A. Ozone
C. radiation
B. Clouds
D. potential
C. Troposphere
600. Which of the following are the effects of D. Exosphere
an occluded front?
A. Cooler weather and rain or snow 606. Air pressure is greater
B. Drizzly rain then warm weather A. at the top of the mountain
C. Clear skies then rain B. at the bottom of the mountain
D. Thunderstorms, heavy rain, or snow C. at the center of the mountain

D. none of above
601. Generally all wind will travel from to
607. as altitude decreases
A. High pressure to Low pressure A. air pressure decreases
B. Low pressure to high pressure B. air pressure increases
C. Cold fronts to warm fronts C. air pressure stays the same
D. warm fronts to cold fronts D. a low pressure system develops

608. What is the 2nd most abundant gas in the B. abrasion by colliding with other rocks
atmosphere?
C. deposition in well-sorted layers

A. Nitrogen
D. resistance to weathering and erosion
B. Oxygen
C. Argon 614. Which statement best describes the
weather shown by the blue triangles go-
D. Carbon Dioxide
ing one way and the red semicircles going
609. Energy transfer through convection is pri- the other way on a line on a weather map?
marily restricted to- A. A warm front brings drizzly weather.
A. fluids
B. A cold front can cause heavy rain, thun-
B. liquids der, and lightning.
C. gases C. A stationary front may produce rainy
D. all of these or snowy weather for several days.
610. The tropical winds running from 0 to 30 D. An occluded front can cause light to
degrees latitude are called: heavy precipitation that may last several
days.
A. subtropical westerlies
B. polar westerlies 615. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere ab-
C. trade winds sorb radiation from Earth’s surface and
re-radiates some of it back to Earth.
D. polar winds
A. ultraviolet
611. What organization tracks the weather in
the United States? B. sound
A. National Air and Space Administration C. radio

B. The National Oceanic and Atmospheric D. infrared
Administration
616. Cloud droplets collide to form larger
C. The Meteorological Society
droplets in a process called
D. National Weather Service
A. coalescence
612. As altitude increases, temperature in the
B. convection
increases (warms).
A. troposphere, thermosphere C. condensation
B. stratosphere, mesosphere D. composition

C. troposphere, mesophere
617. Which location on Earth receives the most
D. stratosphere, thermosphere solar radiation in any given year.
613. As a quartz pebble is transported by A. The Poles
a stream, the pebble will become more B. The Oceans
rounded as a result of
C. The Tropics
A. dissolving as water is running over the
rock D. The Continents

618. What type of front creates 623. What is the boundary line between air
strong/severe thunderstorms a possib- masses of different densities and temper-
lity? atures?
A. Cold A. Cyclone
B. Warm B. Front
C. Air mass
C. Occluded
D. Weather System
D. Stationary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
624. Significant weather charts report cloud
619. Sun light, radio waves, and UV light are base and top?
all examples of this method of heat trans-
A. meters AGL
fer. This type of energy can travel through
a vacuum of space. B. in 100’s feet AAL
A. Conduction C. in 100’s feet AMSL

D. none of above
B. Convection
C. Radiation 625. as altitude increases
A. air pressure decreases
D. none of above
B. air pressure increases
620. How do we characterize an air mass that C. air pressure stays the same
forms over the ocean?
D. a high pressure system develops
A. Dry
626. Where did oxygen in our atmosphere
B. Wet come from?
C. Cold A. Volcanoes
D. Warm B. Outer space
C. Photosynthesis
621. Stratus clouds formed at ground level are
called what? D. none of above
A. fog 627. What cloud is hair like

B. sleet A. cumulus
C. snow B. cirrus
C. all of the above
D. freezing rain
D. stratus
622. Winds and currents are deflected in
628. An increase in ocean temperature can
different directions in each hemisphere.
cause
Why?
A. an increase in the number of hurri-
A. Because of the Coriolis Effect
canes
B. Because of the greenhouse effect B. most forms of ocean life to flourish
C. Because the Jet Stream C. a decrease in sea level
D. Because of the Doldrums D. global wind patterns to stabilize

629. Which of the following is true? 634. air is heavy and sinks, cool, clear, dry,
fair weather with little to no precipitation
A. Climates at high latitudes are very

warm A. low pressure
B. A nearby lake causes a climate to be B. high pressure
colder C. air pressure
C. Vegetation can increase the amount of D. altitude
precipitation that falls over an area
635. A storm which contains large amounts of
D. Places at lower elevations generally snow OR blowing snow, with winds in ex-
have lower temperatures cess of 35 mph and visibilities of less than
1/4 mile for an extended period of time
630. When a hurricane reaches land, its inten- (at least 3 hours) is called a
sity decreases as the area of
A. tropical storm
A. increase in pressure and temperature
B. snow storm
B. lack of cold, dry air to fuel the storm
C. blizzard
C. friction and the lack of warm, moist air D. snow spout
D. successive updrafts into the eye wall
636. What happens when the air temperature
631. What kind of clouds are most likely to drops to its Dew Point?
produce thunderstorms? A. The air will be fully saturated
A. cumulonimbus B. The air will be fully saturated
B. cirrus C. Water freezes
C. cumulus D. none of above
D. stratus 637. Where does warm water originate from

on our planet?
632. Which air masses have the greatest ef- A. North Pole
fect on weather conditions in much of the
United States? B. South Pole
A. cP and mT C. Equator
D. Both the North and South Pole
B. mP and cP
C. mP and cT 638. What 2 gases make up 99% of the gases
in Earth’s atmosphere?
D. mT and cT
A. Carbon Dioxide and Argon
633. Differences in thermal energy can be de- B. Nitrogen and Oxygen
tected with
C. Nitrogen and Carbon Dioxide
A. ultraviolet imagery D. Oxygen and Neon
B. visible light
639. Which Physics principle is the basis for
C. infrared imagery Conservation of Momentum?
D. sonar imagery A. Laws of Motion

B. Law of Universal Gravitation C. convection

C. Laws of Thermodynamics D. x-rays
D. Bernouli’s Principle 645. What happens to air pressure as you
move upward into the atmosphere?
640. Thunder is
A. increases
A. The sound made when lightning strikes
an object. B. decreases
C. stays the same
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The sound of air rapidly expanding and
contracting around a lightning bolt. D. none of above
C. The sound a tornado makes. 646. front forms when warm air moves
D. none of above over cold air and slowly replaces the cold
air
641. Which best describes climate?
A. warm front
A. Summers are typically hot and dry.
B. cold front
B. It rained this week.
C. occluded front
C. Yesterday it was cold and windy.
D. stationary front
D. none of above
647. In heat transfer, which process uses air
642. Which situation would cause faster wind flowing from one location to another in the
speeds? atmosphere
A. Midwest region has humidity of 90% A. absorption
and Southern region has a humidity of
B. convection
20%.
C. radiation
B. Midwest region has a temperature of
50 and Southern region has a temperature D. conduction
of 90. 648. All of the following tools are useful in
C. Midwest region is experiencing ex- measuring local weather conditions EX-
tremely high pressure and Southern re- CEPT -
gion has extremely low pressure. A. thermometers
D. All of these B. rain gauges
643. What protects life on earth from harmful C. wind socks
UV radiation? D. telescopes
A. Ionopshere
649. The layers of the atmosphere in order
B. Stratosphere from bottom to top are
C. Ozone Layer A. troposphere, stratosphere, meso-
D. Auroras sphere, thermosphere, exosphere
B. troposphere, mesosphere, atmo-
644. Energy transferred by waves or rays sphere, thermosphere
A. conduction C. mesosphere, thermosphere, tropo-
B. radiation sphere, stratosphere, exosphere

D. thermosphere, stratosphere, meso- 655. Instrument that measures temperature

sphere, troposphere, exosphere A. barometer

650. The seasons are caused by B. anemometer
A. Earth’s varying distance from the sun C. thermometer

D. wind vane
B. Earth’s changing rate of rotation
C. the tilt of Earth’s axis as Earth revolves 656. In which layer of the atmosphere do me-
around the sun teors burn up?
D. shifting climates on Earth’s surface A. Troposphere
B. Mesosphere
651. height above sea level (above the Earth’s
C. Thermosphere
surface)
D. Exosphere
A. atmosphere
B. sea level 657. A student has been asked by her teacher
to investigate the following scientific ques-
C. air pressure tion:Why are sea breezes felt during the
D. altitude day and land breezes at night? Which of
the following data sources would best help
652. occurs when lighter, warmer air ad- him to answer the question and why?
vances over heavier, colder air A. The tidal charts for the month, be-
A. Warm Front cause high tides cool off the beach, caus-
ing a sea breeze at night and a land breeze
B. Hot Front during the day.
C. Cool Front B. The tidal charts for the month, be-
D. Cold Front cause high tides cool off the beach, caus-
ing a land breeze at night and a sea breeze
653. The main factors that affect an area’s during the day.
are prevailing winds and mountains. C. Day and night temperatures of the
A. rain fall beach and ocean, because the land and
the air above it heats and cools faster than
B. precipitation the water, causing a land breeze at night
C. temperature and a sea breeze during the day.
D. pressure D. Day and night temperatures of the

beach and ocean, because the land and
654. If the dew point is 44◦ farenheight, at the air above it heats and cools slower
what point does dew start to form on the than the water, causing a sea breeze at
grass night and a land breeze during the day.
A. 46◦ farenhight 658. The form of oxygen that combines three

oxygen atoms to each molecule, is found
B. 55◦ farenhight
in the stratosphere and shields out harm-
C. 32◦ farenhight ful UV rays from the sun is:
D. 45◦ farenhight A. Argon

B. Methane 664. Miss Murdock wants to know if hold-

C. Chlorofluorcarbon ing kittens for different amounts of time
will increase the number of As she gives
D. Ozone her students. When she graphs her data,
what would a good title be?
659. The ocean zone were some sunlight
reaches but where no photosynthesis can A. Kittens and Miss Murdock’s Grading
happen. Scale
B. The only way to get an A in Miss Mur-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Sunlight zone
dock’s class
B. Twilight zone
C. How # of A’s affects kitten holding
C. Midnight zone
D. End zone D. How kitten holding times affect num-
ber of A’s
660. Studying air masses would be studying
meteorology at which level? 665. Air under high pressure forming in a val-
ley and moving up a mountain leads to a
A. Micro
A. Mountain breeze
B. Synoptic
B. Land breeze
C. Macro
C. Valley breeze
D. Global
D. none of above
661. What is a boundary area where air
masses meet but do not mix? 666. Low pressure brings
A. low pressure system A. cool, wet air.
B. super cell B. hot, dry air.
C. front C. sunny with no clouds.
D. high pressure system D. none of above
662. Water vapor in the atmosphere is the
667. The farther you live from an ocean, the
source of
more likely your climate will be a
A. clouds and rain.
A. marine climate
B. pollution.
B. tropical climate
C. carbon dioxide.
C. continental climate
D. wind.
D. subtropical climate
663. Which way does wind generally move in
our area? 668. Instrument used to measure air pressure
A. North to South A. Anemometer
B. West to East B. Barometer
C. East to West C. Psychrometer
D. none of above D. Thermometer

669. Biologic activity can change the amount B. 5 years

of -
C. 15 years

A. salinity in the ocean
D. 30 years
B. silicon in the ocean
C. oxygen in the air 675. What tool helps us measure the temper-
ature?
D. water on the earth
A. Your finger
670. When air warms up it causes water va-
B. Hammer
por to form. The amount of water vapor
in the atmosphere is called C. Thermometer
A. clouds D. Paper
B. humidity
676. When was the Fujita scale replaced with
C. dew point the Enhanced Fujita Scale
D. air pressure A. July 2008
671. An area in the atmosphere that has lower B. February 2007
pressure than the surrounding areas and
C. January 2010
has wind speeds that spiral toward the
center D. December 2006(Shaan’s birth-month!)
A. Tornado 677. The study of weather is called
B. Anitcyclone
A. Weather Man
C. cyclone
B. True
D. Psychrometer
C. False
672. The planet whose atmosphere is mainly D. Meteorology
nitrogen and oxygen:
A. Earth 678. What is this symbol? ∇
B. Mars A. inverse delta
C. Venus B. delta
D. Jupiter C. nabla
673. Relative humidity can be measured with D. blabla
a(n)
679. What is the name for this air
A. thermometer mass:Formed over land in a cold region
B. barometer so the air is dry & cold with high pres-
C. anemometer sure.This air mass is called ?
D. psychrometer A. Continental polar

B. maritime polar
674. At what point do scientists classify an
area’s weather as its climate? C. Continental tropical
A. 1 year D. Maritime tropical

680. Centers of low pressure are called A. Rising sea level and habitat destruc-
A. anticyclones tion
B. air masses B. Rising sea level and increased biodi-

versity
C. jet streams
C. Lower sea level and habitat destruc-
D. cyclones tion
681. A weatherman predicts that a warm air D. Lower sea level and increased biodi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mass and a cold air mass will meet and versity
stop moving over your vacation place.
What weather should you expect and how 685. Where radio signals bounce back to
should you pack? Earth.
A. A cold front that will bring quick rain, A. ionosphere

snow, or hail means packing rain gear B. thermosphere
but hoping not to need it after the front C. troposphere
passes.
D. mesosphere
B. A stationary front that will cause an ex-
tended period of clouds or precipitation 686. How can you compare the formation of
means packing rain gear and planning for tornadoes and hurricanes?
precipitation during your trip.
A. Tornadoes form over warm, moist
C. A warm front that may cause a few ocean water but hurricanes form over
days of clouds and rain, followed by clear land.
weather means packing rain gear and
B. Tornadoes form over land, but hurri-
planning outdoor activities for later in the
canes form over warm, moist ocean wa-
trip.
ter.
D. none of above
C. Hurricanes form over land, and torna-
682. What layer of the atmosphere to we live does form over land.
in? D. Hurricanes form over moist ocean wa-
A. Thermosphere ter, and tornadoes form over moist ocean
water.
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere 687. The greenhouse effect is a process by
which atmospheric gases, including CO2
D. Mesosphere
help warm the atmosphere and surface of
683. Wind circulation patterns cause Earth. Some scientists think the green-
house effect is increasing due to human ac-
A. deep currents tivities. Which of these human activities
B. surface currents has caused the greatest increase in concen-
C. the jet stream trations of atmospheric CO2?
D. penguins A. replanting forests

B. air pollution in cities
684. Which of the following is likely to occur
from continued climate change and melting C. burning fossil fuels
polar ice caps? D. increased use of nuclear energy

688. Convection currents are formed in the at- 693. What is the relative humidity if the dry-
mosphere when cold air pushes warm air bulbtemperature is 16◦ C and the wet-
upward. Which property of the air is most bulbtemperature is 10◦ C?

responsible for the formation of convec- A. 45%
tion currents?
B. 14%
A. Chemical consumption
C. 33%
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Density differences D. 4%
D. Specific heat 694. What can you infer about low- and high-
pressure weather systems?
689. A sea breeze blows from the ocean to-
ward the shore. Why does this occur? A. low pressure systems are associated
with stormy weather
A. High pressure over the land causes a
downdraft to occur. B. high pressure systems are associated
with cyclones
B. The tide carries the wind to the shore
as it moves back and forth. C. low and high pressure systems must
C. Conduction of heat from the warm wa- meet to form a hurricane
ter produces wind from the ocean. D. low pressure systems are associated
D. Air over land heats faster than air over with the southern hemisphere
water, which causes convection.
695. Thermal energy is-
690. Weather forecasts are more accurate to- A. heat
day than in the past due to
B. water
A. use of images from space and com-
puter models C. matter
B. plate tectonics and computer models D. light
C. air-quality control and global warming 696. Therm means heat. A thermometer mea-
D. global warming and plate tectonics sures the heat of a substance. Which layer
of the atmosphere has the highest temper-
691. Which layer of the atmosphere contains atures (hottest layer)?
the ozone?
A. Thermosphere
A. Troposphere
B. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesophere
C. Mesosphere
D. Sunosphere
D. Exosphere
692. High pressure systems are associated 697. A gaseous envelope surrounding the
with what type of weather? earth
A. cool, wet weather A. Sky
B. clear, dry weather B. Oxygen
C. cloudy, wet weather C. Atmoshere
D. cloudy, dry weather D. none of above

698. Suppose the parcel of the air rises adia- 703. During the Summer Solstice, The sun is
batically. What happens with its TEMPER- in the sky
ATURE? A. lowest
A. Remains constant B. directly above you
B. Decreases C. highest
C. Increases D. on the horizon
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
704. What do isobars represent on a weather
map?
699. What instrument measures air pressure?
A. humidity
A. barometer
B. location
B. hydrometer
C. temperature
C. rain gauge D. air pressure
D. anemometer
705. Cloudy nights can be warmer than clear
700. An analog forecast: nights because clouds trap heat -
A. Has complex interactions in the atmo- A. produced by the friction of air particles
sphere that make it difficult to pinpoint ex- B. absorbed by Earth during daylight
act weather hours
B. Applies physical principles and mathe- C. released from Earth’s interior
matics to make predictions and forecasts D. generated from tropical winds
C. Looks at patterns from the past to look 706. Which layer of the atmosphere blends
for similarities that are happening cur- into outer space?
rently
A. Thermosphere
D. Is the most accurate forecast
B. Mesosphere
701. In which layer of the atmosphere does C. Ionosphere
weather occur?
D. none of above
A. Thermosphere
707. When is it winter in the Northern Hemi-
B. Mesosphere sphere?
C. Stratosphere A. June 21
D. Troposphere B. September 22
C. December 21
702. Climates are classified according to two
major factors D. none of above
A. elevation and precipitation 708. When a siren’s pitch changes and gets
louder as it gets closer and then quieter
B. latitude and temperature
as soon as it passes by you is what type
C. elevation and latitude of effect?
D. precipitation and temperature A. Coriolis Effect

B. Doppler Effect 714. A(n) front may bring many days of

rain because neither air mass can move the
C. Convergence Effect
other.

D. Radar Effect
A. occluded
709. What happens to the density (thick- B. warm
ness)/air pressure of the air as you in- C. cold
crease in altitude?
D. stationary
A. density increases
715. Hurricanes and tornadoes are associated
B. density decreases with
C. density stays the same A. high pressure systems
D. density disappears B. low pressure systems
C. medium pressure systems
710. Scientist that predicts weather
D. none of above
A. Wind Vane
B. Climate 716. Temperature is measured in
A. degrees
C. Meteorologist
B. inches
D. Anemometer
C. centimeters
711. The layer of the Earth’s atmosphere that D. feet
ozone can be found in is the
717. Virginia is in the mid latitudes. Which
A. Troposphere best describes Virginia’s climate?
B. Stratosphere A. Temperate
C. Mesosphere B. Tropical
D. Thermosphere C. Subtropical
D. Subpolar
712. this is the boundary between 2 air
masses 718. What do we call the temperature at
A. front which air becomes saturated?
A. dew point
B. isotherm
B. saturation
C. isobar
C. fall point
D. millibar
D. rain
713. Follows aircraft
719. Heat from a campfire reaches you by
A. Cirrus A. convection
B. Contrails B. conduction
C. Stratus C. radiation
D. Cumulus D. none of above

720. Form at low altitude. Sheet 724. Many clouds have a high albedo and
like:associated with steady rain, snow or therefore tend to
very cloudy days A. absord sunlight
A. cirrus B. relfect sunlight
B. nimbostatus C. transmit sunlight
C. stratus D. radiate sunlight
D. cumulus 725. What is the science of studying and pre-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dicting the weather?
721. What protects Earth from ultraviolet rays
from the sun? A. astronomy
B. meteorology
A. ozone layer
C. astrology
B. mesosphere
D. weatherology
C. air pressure
726. Low pressure will usually bring what
D. troposphere
kind of weather?
722. Which statement bests explains why the A. Sunny
force of a hurricane diminishes as the hur- B. Calm
ricane moves over land?
C. Stormy
A. a high pressure system develops
D. none of above
B. the sea levels rises on the coast
727. large body of air with the same temper-
C. the winds start to spin clockwise ature and humidity
D. the supply of warm, moist air de- A. weather
creases B. front
723. The temperature in the troposphere, C. wind
the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere, D. air mass
ranges from 17◦ C to -51◦ C, decreasing as
altitude increases. However, in the layer 728. What can cloud seeding cause?
above the troposphere, the stratosphere, A. Keep you dry
the temperature gradually increases to - B. Allow rain to fall over a very large
15◦ C as the altitude increases. Why does area.
the temperature increase with altitude in
C. Cause rain to fall from a cloud that nor-
the stratosphere?
mally wouldn’t produce rain.
A. because ozone reflects energy from
D. Rain to fall from clear skies.
the Sun because it is not a greenhouse gas
B. because ozone absorbs energy from 729. Whats the lowest layer of the atmo-
the Sun because it is a greenhouse gas sphere where weather happens?
A. Troposphere
C. because meteoroids break apart in
this layer B. Mesosphere
D. because meteoroids absorb light in C. Stratosphere
this layer D. Thermosphere

730. Water vapor is one of the components of 734. When compared to current average con-
the air in the atmosphere. What change ditions, what term would best describe
causes the vapor in the air to form clouds? conditions in Earth’s lower atmosphere if

A. As air rises in the atmosphere, it be- greenhouse gases were absent?
comes warmer and cannot hold as much A. Colder
water. B. Hotter
B. As air cools, water vapor in the air con- C. Humid
denses to liquid or solid state.
D. Cloudy
C. Air rises, the water becomes heavier
and changes form. 735. These organisms were responsible for
changing the Earths atmosphere by adding
D. none of above Oxygen.
731. Which of the following supports the Uni- A. Aliens
versal Law of Gravitation? B. Volcanoes
A. A more massive object has greater at- C. Dinosaurs
traction force than the less massive ob- D. phytoplankton
ject.
736. The is an instrument to be installed
B. A less massive object has greater at-
on the next generation of weather satel-
traction force than the more massive ob-
lites that maps total lightning (in-cloud and
ject.
cloud-to-ground) activity continuously day
C. A more massive object has equal at- and night over the Americas and adjacent
traction force with the less massive ob- ocean regions.
ject.
A. Geostationary lightning mapper (GLM)
D. No attraction force is felt by two ob- B. In - Ground Precipitation Monitor
jects with great distance. (IGPM)
732. Lightning happens when the charges C. Lighting Detection System (LDS)
in the bottom of the cloud are attracted to D. Lighting Mapper (LM)
the charges in the ground.
737. Down wellings take down to the
A. positive; negative
deep ocean.
B. negative; positive A. water
C. neutral; negative B. oxygen
D. It does not matter as long as they are C. tourists
opposite charges
D. fish
733. Cool sinking air causes pressure, re- 738. An air mass that moves from the equator
sulting in over the Gulf of Mexico would be?
A. high, rain A. Continental Tropical
B. low, rain B. Continental Polar
C. high, clear skies C. Maritime Polar
D. low, clear skies D. Maritime Tropical

739. Which of these is most responsible for C. In circles

a city located near the ocean to have a D. To new houses
smaller temperature range than a city lo-
cated in the middle of the US? 743. Meteorologists are scientists who study
A. daily high wind speeds weather patterns and make forecasts
about upcoming weather. Which of the
B. slow moving cold fronts
following would a meteorologist analyze
C. heat from deserts when predicting weather?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. nearby coastal waters A. The movement of fronts.
740. Sarah has been asked by her teacher to B. The sun and the moon.
investigate the following scientific ques- C. The growth of plants
tion:Why are sea breezes felt during the
day and land breezes at night? Which of D. none of above
the following data sources would best help 744. What kind of heat transfer happens when
Sarah to answer the question and why? the sun is heating your body?
A. Day and night temperatures of the
A. Conduction
the air above it heats and cools faster than B. Radiation
the water, causing a land breeze at night C. Convection
and a sea breeze during the day.
D. Density
B. The tidal charts for the month, be-
cause high tides cool off the beach, caus- 745. How do we characterize an air mass that
ing a sea breeze at night and a land breeze forms over land?
during the day. A. Dry
C. Day and night temperatures of the B. Wet
the air above it heats and cools faster than C. Cold
the water, causing a sea breeze at night D. Warm
and a land breeze during the day.
746. Which cloud is NOT high up in the atmo-
D. The tidal charts for the month, be-
sphere?
cause high tides cool off the beach, caus-
ing a land breeze at night and a sea breeze A. cirrus
during the day. B. cumulus
741. Deep Ocean currents are a result of C. cirrocumulus
A. Global Wind Patterns D. cirrostratus
B. Earth’s Rotation
747. The largest storm in our atmosphere, in
C. Density terms of actual size (diameter), is the:
D. All of the above A. Tornado
742. Down wellings move water B. Hurricane
A. Down C. Middle Latitude Cyclonic Storm
B. Up D. Thunderstorm

748. Wind always blows from areas of to- C. air pressure

wards areas of . D. altitude

A. low pressure, high pressure
754. Which region would be the warmest dur-
B. high pressure, low pressure ing the winter as a result of its air mass?
C. cold, warm A. central Canada
D. hot, hotter B. Mexico
C. northern California
749. A large body of air that is characterized
by similar temperatures and amounts of D. Maine
moisture at any given altitude 755. Freezing rain (ice storm) or sleet occurs
A. air mass when
B. front A. both surface and upper air are warm
C. hurricane B. upper air is cold and surface air is
warm
D. storm surge
C. both surface and upper air are cold
750. The atmosphere keeps the Earth D. upper air is warm and surface air is
A. Warm enough for life cold
B. Too Cold for Life 756. An air mass forms over the Gulf of Mex-
C. Spinning ico and moves northeast across Georgia.
What weather conditions are likely to oc-
D. Orbiting the sun cur in Georgia?
751. Low pressure areas would likely have A. Cool and dry
A. cloudy weather B. Cool and humid
B. clear weather C. Warm and dry
C. sunny weather D. Warm and humid
D. storms 757. A long-lasting storm that begins over the

warm surface of the ocean and has winds
752. What will happen when the relative hu- of 119 kilometers per hour or higher is
midity of an air mass reaches 100%? a(an)
A. The relative humidity will continue to A. tornando
increase. B. typhoon
B. Precipitation will likely stop, decreas- C. hurricane
ing the relative humidity.
D. monsoon
C. Precipitation is likely to occur, de-
creasing the relative humidity. 758. El Nino is a(n) phenomenon that af-
fects the weather.
D. none of above
A. Ocean
753. air surrounding the earth. B. Altitude
A. mesosphere C. Gravitational
B. atmosphere D. Arctic

759. What can you infer about low- and high- 764. What is the definition of CONVECTION
pressure air masses?
A. When heat transfers through waves.
A. low pressure systems are associated
B. When heat transfers from objects that
with stormy weather
are touching.
B. high pressure systems are associated
with cyclones C. a hot liquid or air that expands, be-
comes less dense, and rises or becomes
C. low and high pressure systems must more dense, and sinks.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
meet to form a hurricane
D. Heat traveling from the sun
D. low pressure systems are associated
with the southern hemisphere 765. Rising barometric pressure means what?
760. What type of front will create rain for A. a storm is on the way
hours or days? B. fair weather is on the way
A. Cold Front C. light rain is coming
B. Warm Front
D. there will be cloudy skies
C. Stationary Front
D. none of above 766. Tropical seas have a high rate of evapora-
tion because of the direct rays of the sun.
761. Wind on Earth, including massive storms Because of this high rate of evaporation,
like hurricanes, are deflected. What is the we would expect the water in tropical seas
cause of this phenomena? to have than seas in colder climates.
A. Red Shift A. less algal growth
B. Doppler Effect B. cooler temperatures
C. Coriolis Effect C. higher salt concentrations
D. Blue Shift D. a lower density
762. Tierra del Fuego at the southern tip of 767. Which type of air mass most likely has
South America is very cold with not much highhumidity and high temperature?
vegetation. What could cause this type of
climate? A. cP
A. cold ocean currents B. cT
B. warm ocean currents C. mT
C. a lack of mountainous terrain D. mP
D. a lack of sea ice in the area
768. Temperature at which water condenses.
763. Upwellings bring to the surface Varies depending on the air mass
A. Life jackets A. Dew point

B. Oxygen B. Fog point
C. Nutrients C. dew Temperature
D. Nike shoes D. Condensation point

769. Which statement best predicts the 772. In which direction does high pressure ro-
weather for Denver, Colorado on day 3. tate

A. A high-pressure system will bring A. counter clockwise
warm, dry temperatures. B. clockwise
B. A low-pressure system from the east C. up and down
will bring rain.
D. right to left
C. Thunderstorms should be expected.
773. In what layer of the atmosphere does
D. A maritime air mass will make the area weather occur?
humid.
A. troposphere
770. When a warm air mass and a cold air B. stratosphere
mass meet and neither can move the other,
the result is a(n)- C. mesosphere
D. thermostphere
A. warm front
B. stationary front 774. Which type of air rises faster?
C. cold front A. cold
D. occluded front B. warm

C. stormy
771. Sabah has been asked by her teacher to
D. clam
investigate the following scientific ques-
tion:Why are sea breezes felt during the 775. What is the mixture of gases surrounding
day and land breezes at night? Which of the Earth called?
the following data sources would best help
A. carbon
Sabah to answer the question and why?
B. concentration
A. The tidal charts for the month, be-
cause high tides cool off the beach, caus- C. atmosphere
ing asea breeze at night and a land breeze D. emissions
during the day.
776. Long term variations in weather make up
B. The tidal charts for the month, be- the
cause high tides cool off the beach, caus-
ing aland breeze at night and a sea breeze A. climate
during the day. B. weather
C. Day and night temperatures of the C. air mass
beach and ocean, because the land and D. none of above
the airabove it heats and cools faster than
the water, causing a land breeze at night 777. Which of the following is NOT a type of
and asea breeze during the day. radiation given off by our Sun.
D. Day and night temperatures of the A. Ultra violet
beach and ocean, because the land and B. Gamma
the airabove it heats and cools faster than
the water, causing a land breeze at night C. Sound
and asea breeze during the day. D. Radio

778. Why does air have pressure? 784. Winds are caused by differences in
A. wind moves it A. humidity
B. it has mass B. weather
C. it is clear C. precipitation
D. the stratosphere is big D. air pressure
779. What is the term for where air masses 785. Which layer of the atmosphere contains
NARAYAN CHANGDER
meet? our ozone layer that protects us from ul-
A. Battlefield traviolet light?
B. Front A. troposphere
C. Tectonic plate B. mesosphere
D. Barometer C. stratosphere
780. When the air has reached 100% humid- D. thermosphere

ity, what will most likely follow?
786. Which air mass may produce an occa-
A. Fog sional “nor’easter” during winter?
B. Lightning A. mT
C. Rain showers B. cP
D. Wind C. mP
781. This pressure system is associated with D. cT
bad weather, high humidity, many clouds,
rain or snow. 787. What direction would the wind be blow-
ing in a high pressure system in the north-
A. High
ern hemisphere?
B. Medium
A. clockwise
C. Low
B. counterclockwise
D. none of above
C. upwards
782. Know as mare tails above 18, 000 D. none of these
A. Nimbostratus
788. A short-term weather forecast:
B. Altocumulus
A. Has complex interactions in the atmo-
C. Cirrus sphere that make it difficult to pinpoint ex-
D. Cirrostratus act weather
783. Moisture falling from the sky is B. Applies physical principles and mathe-
matics to make predictions and forecasts
A. rice
C. Looks at patterns from the past to look
B. cotton for similarities that are happening cur-
C. petals rently
D. precipitations D. Is the most accurate forecast

789. Warm, rising air forms a region of the C. Cumulonimbus

surface of Earth. D. Cumulus

A. low pressure
795. - the condition of the atmosphere at a
B. high pressure given time and place.
C. neutral pressure A. climate
D. dew point
B. weather
790. What is the main source of energy that C. relative humidity
drives all weather patterns?
D. heat indes
A. the sun
796. Which climate zone receives the most di-
B. oceans
rect sunlight throughout the year? The
C. the moon least?
D. the mountains A. Most:temperate zone, Least:tropic
zone
791. Stratus clouds that form near the ground
B. Most:Tropic zone, Least:polar zone
A. dew
C. Most:polar zone, Least:temperate
B. nimbostratus zone
C. fog
D. Most:tropic zone, Least:temperate
D. stratus zone
792. What unit is used to measure humidity? 797. The atmosphere is composed of
A. Percent A. mostly oxygen
B. Degrees Fahrenheit or Degrees Cel- B. all hydrogen
sius
C. a mixture of gases
C. Miles per Hour or Kilometers per Hour
D. H20
D. Cardinal Directions
798. Which factor causes the motion of surface
793. Most water vapor in the atmosphere ocean currents?
comes from
A. the sun
A. Evaporation from oceans.
B. the wind
B. Evaporation from soil.
C. the moon
C. Transpiration from plants.
D. hurricanes
D. The burning of fossil fuels.
799. High pressure is known for
794. These clouds are the closest to the
ground. Their name means layer- or sheet A. bad weather like rain and clouds
like. They bring rain or snow and cover B. good weather like clear skies and calm
most of the sky. breezes
A. Cirrus C. Not enough information to tell
B. Stratus D. none of above

800. air is light and rises, warm, wet, cloudy, C. Occluded Front
precipitation D. Stationary Front
A. low pressure
806. How are tropical storms in the Northern
B. high pressure Hemisphere different from tropical storms
C. air pressure in the Southern Hemisphere?
D. land breeze A. the winds spin faster in the Southern
Hemisphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
801. Strong winds are formed and followed by
B. tropical storms cause more rain in the
heavy rain, thunder, and lightning. What
Southern Hemisphere
type of front?
C. tropical storms don’t turn into hurri-
A. Warm
canes in the Southern Hemisphere
B. Cold
D. the winds spin in opposite directions
C. Stationary
807. In which situation would you use
D. none of above weather instruments?
802. A intense rotating column of air that ex- A. To predict an upcoming storm
tends downward from the base of the B. To decide what to eat for lunch
thunderstorm.
C. To figure out why your head hurts
A. Tornado
D. To predict the future
B. Whirlpool
808. In which atmospheric layer of Earth do
C. Hurricane
thunderstorms occur?
D. Super Cell
A. thermosphere
803. Which layer of the atmosphere contains B. mesosphere
the ozone layer?
C. stratosphere
A. Troposphere D. troposphere
B. Thermosphere
809. What is the exact definition of CAVOK?
C. Mesosphere
A. visibility 10 km or more clouds
D. Stratosphere no clouds below 5000ft no signifi-
cant weather NSW
804. Heated air moves which direction
B. visibility 10 000 ft or more clouds no clouds below 5000 m
B. down
C. visibility 10 km or more Sky
C. right Clear
D. left D. none of above
805. occurs when a boundary between air 810. Clouds that Form in flat layers are know
masses stops advancing as?
A. Warm Front A. Cumulus
B. Cold Front B. Stratus

C. Altostratus 816. What type of air mass would be associ-

ated with the formation of a hurricane?
D. Cirrus

A. maritime Tropical
811. Which planet has the strongest green-
B. maritime Polar
house effect?
C. maritime Continental
A. Mars
D. continental Tropical
B. Venus
C. Earth 817. This is the layer where meteors, or shoot-
ing stars, burn up.
D. none of above
A. Troposphere
812. Tornados and hurricanes rotate which di- B. Stratosphere
rection in the northern hemisphere.
C. Mesosphere
A. Clockwise
D. Thermosphere
B. Counterclockwise
C. Vertically 818. What causes pollution to be trapped
closer to the Earth in temperature inver-
D. South sion?
813. The condition of the atmosphere at a A. Less dense air

given location for a certain short period of B. More dense air
time is called
C. Low pressure systems
A. the watch
D. High pressure systems
B. the weather
C. the relative humidity 819. Winds that blow from east to west steer-
ing tropical storm systems across oceans
D. a contingency table
A. trade winds
814. What is water vapor? B. easterlies
A. gas C. westerlies
B. solid D. polarlies
C. liquid
820. Why does precipitation often happened
D. plasma along the boundary of a warm and cold air
mass?
815. What atmospheric layer has the lowest
A. The warm air cries because the cold
temperature?
air mass is pushy
A. Troposphere
B. Warm air is cooled causing vapor to
B. Stratosphere condense
C. Mesosphere C. The boundary causes evaporation
D. Thermosphere D. The boundary is always over water

821. What is the strongest category of hurri- C. Radiation

cane? D. Electromagnetic Waves
A. Category 5
827. The lowest layer of the atmosphere,
B. Category 10
where weather occurs and where we are
C. Category 1 right now is the In the layer temper-
D. F-5 atures decrease as altitude increases. It
gets colder the higher up you go.
822. What most likely happens when a cold
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Troposphere
air mass comes into contact with a warm,
moist air mass? B. Stratosphere
A. Sunshine C. Mesosphere
B. Fog D. Thermopshere
C. Precipitation 828. A group of students collected data about
D. Temperature stays the same wind speed, wind direction, humidity, and
temperature. They wanted to know what
823. Which type of weather is associated with would happen when they saw fog. In
low pressure? which situation will they see fog over the
A. clouds and precipitation ocean?
B. clear skies A. warm, humid air from land cooling as
C. hurricanes it moves over cold ocean water
D. torndadoes B. cold, humid air from land warming as
it moves over warm ocean water
824. It is a cloudy and rainy day in Con-
C. cold, dry air warming and becoming
nersville; what type of weather system
more humid as it moves over warm ocean
are we having?
water
A. High-Pressure
D. none of above
B. Low-Pressure
C. Medium-Pressure 829. Three things controlling wind speed and
direction are:
D. No Pressure
A. pressure, temperature, and Earth’s ro-
825. What happens to the air pressure the tation
higher up in space you go? B. pressure, temperature, and the sun’s
A. the air pressure increases rotation
B. the air pressure decreases C. pressure, humidity, and Earth’s rota-
C. the air pressure stays the same tion
D. there is no air pressure D. stress at work, at home, and on the
news
826. The transfer of heat through a SOLID is
called 830. Medium height cloud
A. conduction A. Alto cumulus
B. Convection B. Cirrus

C. Cumulonimbus 836. What causes differences in air pressure?

D. Cirrostratus A. even heating of the Earth

B. Even cooling of the earth
831. Which rock has never melted, but was
produced by great heat and pressure, C. uneven heating of the earth
which distorted and rearranged its miner- D. global warming
als?
837. The largest producers of Carbon Dioxide
A. siltstone
into our atmosphere are
B. breccia A. People
C. pegmatite B. Trees
D. metaconglomerate C. Factories
832. Made out of water vapor in the atmo- D. Phytoplankton
sphere
838. Living near the affects climate by pre-
A. clouds venting it from getting to hot or too cold
B. pressure A. mountains
C. wind B. oceans
D. moisture C. equator
D. poles
833. Practically all clouds & storms occur in
this layer of the atmosphere. 839. Wind blows always
A. Stratosphere A. From high pressure to low pressure
B. Thermosphere B. From low pressure to high pressure
C. Troposphere C. From left to right
D. Mesosphere D. none of above
834. What is one condition that is necessary 840. Cold air masses tend to
for a hurricane to form? A. be less dense and float above warm air
A. a strong cold front masses
B. be more dense and flow under warm
B. warm ocean water
air masses
C. cold ocean water
C. mix easily with warm air masses
D. a strong warm front D. none of above
835. Getting a sunburn while at the beach. 841. Land closer to the equator is
A. radiation A. colder.
B. conduction B. warmer.
C. convection C. dry.
D. none of above D. none of above

842. A situation in which the surface position 848. Choose the correct term for lines on a
of a front does not move map that connect points with the same
A. warm front temperature.
B. cold front A. albedos
C. stationary front B. altitudes
D. occluded front C. latitudes
D. isotherms
843. What characteristics are used to classify
NARAYAN CHANGDER
air masses? 849. What does a tornado warning mean?
A. temperature and humidity A. A tornado has been spotted by ob-
B. pressure and temperature servers or indicated by weather radar.
C. latitude and longitude B. A tornado hasn’t been spotted, but con-
D. wind speed and location ditions are favorable for tornadoes to oc-
cur.
844. In a sea breeze, the air is warmer above C. It’s a new Discovery Channel special
the on storm chasers.
A. land D. The conditions will be right for a tor-
B. ocean nado to form within your area in the next
C. sky day or two.
D. beach 850. In what direction would the wind be
blowing in a low pressure system?
845. The exchange of heat or moisture with
the surface over which an air mass travels A. inwards
is known as B. outwards
A. intertropical convergence C. downwards
B. air mass modification D. none of these
C. occlusion
851. Cold air is denser than warm air, so it
D. air mass exchange sinks. What kind of pressure area does
846. Which statement best describes a temper- this create?
ature inversion? A. Dense pressure
A. Air temperature decreases with height B. High Pressure
B. air temperature increases with height C. Low Pressure
C. low-altitude air is unstable D. No pressure
D. high-altitude air is unstable
852. Which of the following could contribute
847. Which material will heat up faster? to an increase in pollution?
A. Light sediment A. high wind velocity
B. Water B. occurrence of rain and snow
C. Dark sediment C. change in amount of sunlight
D. none of above D. heavy auto traffic

853. is the fuel a hurricane needs to form. 859. Electricity caused by the rapid rush of air
A. warm, dry air in a cumulonimbus cloud is

A. a front
B. cold, dry air
B. lightning
C. warm, moist water
C. thunder
D. none of the above
D. a tornado
854. Our weather occurs here.
860. Which cloud brings nice weather?
A. Mesosphere
A. Cumulonimbus
B. Troposphere
B. Cumulus
C. Thermosphere C. Stratus
D. Stratosphere D. none of above
855. A cT air mass is 861. What is the most abundant greenhouse
A. cold and dry gas?
B. cold and wet A. Nitrogen
C. hot and dry B. Oxygen

C. Carbon Dioxide
D. hot and wet
D. Water Vapor
856. What is a TAF?
862. Which of the following was primarily re-
A. Report of real weather observed at sponsible for the development of life out-
given aerodrome at certain time side of the oceans?
B. Forecast of weather for given aero- A. A decrease in atmospheric carbon
drome and time period dioxide
C. Meteorologigal area report for given B. An increase in atmospheric oxygen
FIR
C. An increase in atmospheric nitrogen
D. none of above
D. A decrease in atmospheric hydrogen
857. Tool to measure rainfall 863. What is Earth’s hydrosphere?
A. Rain Gauge A. The gases in the air
B. Symbols B. The solid rocky part of Earth
C. Weather C. All of the water on the planet
D. Thermometer D. The electrons in the water vapor
858. What is Dew Point? 864. Why does sand heat up faster than wa-
ter during the daytime, and then cool off
A. Temperature of freezing point
faster at night?
B. Temperature of saturation
A. Water has a higher heat capacity than
C. Heat Exchange sand.
D. Preasure drops down B. Water moves around more.

C. Water starts of colder than sand. C. altimeter

D. Water evaporates allowing it to cool. D. wind vane
865. What does ELR mean? 871. How do we characterize an air mass that
forms near the poles?
A. Environmental lapse rate
A. Dry
B. It is lapse rate of unsaturated air
B. Wet
C. It is lapse rate of saturated air
C. Warm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
D. Cold
866. What would a maritime Tropical air mass
872. Wind speed is measured with
be described as?
A. anemometer
A. warm, dry
B. thermometer
B. warm, moist
C. barometer
C. cold, dry
D. hygrometer
D. cool, moist
873. Any form of water that falls from clouds
867. What type of weather map shows cloud is called
coverage from space?
A. dew
A. satellite
B. evaporation
B. radar
C. condensation
C. isotherm
D. precipitation
D. isobar
874. Heat that is stored in a substance
868. Which air masses form over oceans? A. latent heat
A. Maritime B. stability
B. Glacial C. radiation
C. Continental D. dew point
D. none of above
875. Instrument used to measure temperature
869. Where were weather instruments first A. compass
set up? B. anemometer
A. Airport C. barometer
B. Houses D. thermometer
C. Cars
876. Which of these instruments measures air
D. Schools pressure?
870. instrument that measures atmospheric A. Anemometer
(air) pressure B. Hydrometer
A. thermometer C. Hygrometer
B. barometer D. Barometer

877. Where is the Sun directly overhead dur- 882. Which statement best describes the cli-
ing the Equinoxes mate of an area?

A. Tropic of Cancer A. At 4:00 pm the relative humidity in
B. Tropic of Capricorn southern Nevada was 10%
C. Equator B. at 3:00 am a winter storm warning was
D. Prime Meridian issued for Lake Tahoe
C. The average yearly rainfall in Nevada
878. Water is found in the atmosphere. is approximately 23 cm
A. True
D. The lowest temperature last week in
B. False Carson City was 9 Degrees
C. True and False
883. The small sub-layer that contains charged
D. None of the above particles (ions) is the
879. This is sometimes called a thunderhead A. magnetosphere
cloud. It looks very tall like mountains and
heavy rain comes from it. B. mesosphere
A. Cumulus C. ionosphere
B. Cirrus D. troposphere
C. Stratus 884. In the United States, prevailing wind and
D. Cumulonimbus weather patterns are most likely to move
in which direction?
880. When a warm front moves into an area
A. north to south
A. usually the skies are gray and there is
often a drizzle B. west to east
B. there is often heavy precipitation fol- C. east to west
lowed by clearing when the front has
D. south to north
moved throught
C. there is usually little change in the 885. Which gas is the MOST abundant green-
weather house gas in the lower atmosphere?
D. none of above A. ozone
881. A rawinsonde is: B. methane
A. A tool that detects the specific location C. water vapor
of precipitation
D. carbon dioxide
B. A tool that measures temperature,
pressure, humidity and wind speed and 886. The outpouring of gases from Earth’s hot
wind direction interior.
C. A tool for upper atmosphere data that A. Evaporation
has sensors and a radio transmitter sus-
B. Out Gassing
pended from a balloon
C. Global Warming
D. A way to develop a consistent uniform
process for meteorology D. none of above

887. They are highest clouds in the sky. They 892. What type of air mass brings extremely
are made of frozen ice crystals. They are cold weather?
described as whispy, curly, white or feath- A. mP
ery. They are seen when there is good
weather. B. cP
A. Cumulus C. cT
B. Cumulonimbus D. mT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cirrus 893. The eye of a hurricane
D. Stratus A. has the greatest wind speeds
B. is warmer than the rest of the storm
888. When a warm air mass and a cold air
mass meet and neither can move the other, C. experiences high pressures
the result is a(an) D. is responsible for heavy precipitation
A. occluded front
894. Which winds control weather in the US?
B. warm front
A. Prevailing Westerlies and Jet Streams
C. stationary front
B. Trade Winds
D. cold front
C. Polar Easterlies
889. Which type of cloud indicates fair D. Doldrums
weather?
895. Which front often produces hours of
A. nimbus moderate-to-light precipitation over a
B. cumulus large area?
C. cirrus A. polar
D. cumulonimbus B. warm
C. cold
890. High pressure will most likely result in
which type of weather? D. maritime
A. cloudy 896. what is wind

B. snowy A. jet stream
C. clear B. temperature
D. sunny C. air
D. moving/blowing air
891. Instrument measures atmospheric pres-
sure 897. Surface currents are a result of
A. barometer A. Global Wind Patterns
B. anemometer B. Earth’s Rotation
C. thermometer C. Density
D. wind vane D. All of the above

898. The temperature of an air mass depends 904. Which process is responsible for cloud for-
on its mation?

A. composition A. Evaporation
B. source region B. Transpiration
C. area C. Sublimation
D. location D. Condensation
899. Getting storm that causes Highwinds and 905. What is the safest place to be in a tor-
destruction nado?
A. Hurricane A. Outside
B. Blizzard B. In the basement of a house or building
C. Tornado C. Upstairs or in the attic
D. Flood D. none of above
900. Typical WARM Front clouds 906. Which type of air has a relative humidity
A. CB, TCU of 100%?
B. NS, CU A. space
C. NS, ST B. hot
D. ST, CU C. dry
D. saturated
901. Which types of winds cause weather in
North Carolina? 907. What does the h mean on a weather map
A. polar easterlies A. High pressure
B. prevailing westerlies B. High temperature
C. prevailing easterlies C. high Storms
D. none of above D. High clouds
902. During the land breeze, what starts mov- 908. As you go higher in the troposphere (the
ing the cooler air out and warmer air in? layer of the atmosphere that is closest to
A. conduction Earth) the temperature
B. convection A. Increases
C. radiation B. Decreases
D. none of above C. Stays the same
D. first decreases then increases
903. In which location of the Earth would
the number of daylight hours remain con- 909. The boundary that separates different air
stant? masses is called a(n)-
A. North Pole A. storm
B. Prime Meridian B. air mass
C. Antartica C. front
D. Equator D. cyclone

910. What are the 2 most abundant gases in 916. The ozone layer is a sublayer of the
Earth’s atmosphere? layer.
A. carbon dioxide and oxygen A. Troposphere
B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen B. Stratosphere
C. nitrogen and oxygen
C. Exosphere
D. nitrogen and hydrogen
D. Mesosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
911. In which of the following can convection
currents form? 917. Lines connecting points of equal pressure
A. air A. Isobar
B. plastic
B. Isotherm
C. a vacuum (empty space)
C. Front
D. solid aluminum
D. Relative Humidity
912. Moisture moves from pressure zones
to pressure zones. 918. Miss Murdock wants to know if holding
A. High, low kittens for different amounts of time will
increase the number of As she gives her
B. Low, high
students. On her X axis, a student labeled
C. Emotional, social it “Amount of Time Holding Kittens”. Is
D. Hot, cold this correct?
913. Low Pressure is associated with this type A. Yes this is the IV
of weather B. No this is not the IV
A. Cloudy/Overcast Weather C. Yes this is the DV
B. Cold Weather
D. No this does not include units
C. Warm Weather
D. Fair Weather 919. TEMPO
914. Warm air moving upwards from the Gulf A. Temporary

of Mexico is: B. Temporary change
A. continental tropical
C. Temperature
B. continental polar
D. none of above
C. maritime tropical
D. maritime polar 920. of the Earth’s atmosphere is and
21% of the Earth’s atmosphere is
915. CB
A. Oxygen, Nitrogen
A. Tower cumulus
B. Cumulonimbus B. Nitrogen, Oxygen
C. Cumulus C. Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide

D. none of above D. Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide

921. On a weather map, what are the lines 925. Which condition is MOST likely to cause
that connect points of equal air pressure the formation of a temperature inversion?
called?

A. rapid cooling of the ground at night
A. isobars
B. high wind on a sunny morning
B. contour lines
C. saturation of soil with warm water
C. isotemps
D. rapid collision of warm and cold fronts
D. isotherms
926. How long does it take Earth to go around
922. Which of these is NOT a factor that de-
the sun?
termines the climate of a place?
A. 24 hours
A. latitude
B. 365 years
B. wind patterns
C. longitude C. 365 days
D. elevation D. none of above
923. From the center of a high pressure sys- 927. The force of molecules pressing on a sur-
tem, winds spiral- face.
A. outward toward areas of lower pres- A. Air pressure
sure B. Air current
B. inward toward areas of lower pres- C. Wind
sure
D. none of above
C. upwards towards areas of lower pres-
sure 928. What instrument measures wind speed?
D. none of these A. anemometer
924. When people think about what it’s like in B. barometer
Central Texas, they always think to them- C. thermometer
selves that it’s terribly hot and it’s dry like
a desert. On February 14, 2010 however, D. rain gauge
it snowed in Austin! Choose the statement
929. Where you will find the ozone layer.
that best explains what is happening in
this scenario. A. stratosphere
A. Climate is just another word for B. thermosphere
weather. C. exosphere
B. The climate in Texas is hot and dry, but D. mesosphere
the WEATHER on February 14th was cold
and snowy. 930. The boundary between two air masses is
C. The weather for Texas is always hot known as:
and dry, all the time, which matches the A. front
climate in Texas perfectly.
B. storm
D. The weather in Texas is always hot and
dry, but on February 14 the CLIMATE was C. climate
cold and snowy. D. flood

931. In the United States, the move C. land heats more rapidly and cools
weather from west to east more rapidly than water
A. easterlies D. land heats more slowly and cools more
B. westerlies slowly than water
C. western currents 937. A creates bad thunderstorms while
D. eastern currents the front moves through, but cool, fair
weather is likely to follow.
932. Local winds blow over:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Warm Front
A. short distances
B. Cold Front
B. long distances
C. Occluded Front
C. the poles
D. Stationary Front
D. the equator
933. A violent, dangerous, rotating column of 938. This layer of the atmosphere contains
air that is in contact with both the surface most of the ozone
of the earth and a cloud. A. troposphere
A. Hurricane B. thermosphere
B. Tornado C. mesosphere
C. Thunderstorm D. stratosphere
D. none of above
939. What gas makes up the majority of the
934. This type of forecast applies physical prin- atmosphere?
ciples and mathematics to make predic-
A. oxygen
tions and forecasts
A. short-term forecast B. nitrogen
B. long-term forecast C. water vapor

C. digital forecast D. carbon dioxide
D. analog forecast 940. the direction and speed of the moving air
935. measure of the amount of water vapor in A. clouds
the air B. pressure
A. humidity
C. wind
B. hygrometer
D. moisture
C. condensation
D. evaporation 941. Which layer of the atmosphere do thun-
derstorms take place in?
936. Which statement is correct?
A. Troposphere
A. land heats more rapidly and cools
B. Stratosphere
more slowly than water
B. land heats more slowly and cools more C. Mesosphere
rapidly than water D. Thermosphere

942. Air that has a 100 percent relative humid- A. El Nino

ity is said to be B. La Nina

A. stable C. Coriolis effect
B. dry
D. Santa Anna Winds
C. saturated
948. The phenomenon that causes straight line
D. unstable
winds to curve is called the-
943. What are the parameters of the Atmo- A. Butterfly Effect
sphere at MEAN SEA LEVEL according to
B. Coriolis Effect
ISA model?
C. Newton’s First Law
A. Preassure 1013 hPa Temperature +
10◦ C Density 1, 2 kg/m3 Humidity 0, 0% D. Greenhouse Effect
B. Preassure 1013 hPa Temperature + 949. Which gas is the most important gas in
10◦ C Density 5, 2 kg/m3 Humidity 100, 0% atmospheric processes?
C. Preassure 1013 MPa Temperature + A. oxygen
10◦ C Density 1, 2 kg/m3 Humidity 0, 0%
B. nitrogen
D. Preassure 1013 hPa Temperature +
15◦ C Density 1, 2 kg/m3 Humidity 0, 0% C. water vapor
D. carbon dioxide
944. Which direction do air masses move?
A. North to South 950. the temperature the air must be cooled to
reach saturation
B. East to West
A. humidity
C. South to North
D. West to East B. cold
C. air pressure
945. Continental polar (central Canada)
D. dew point
A. warm and humid
B. cold and dry 951. This prevents damaging ultraviolet radia-
tion from the sun from reaching the earth.
C. cool and humid
A. Stratosphere
D. warm and dry
B. Hemisphere
946. The factor that has the greatest effect on
C. Ozone Layer
wind speed is
D. Ionosphere
A. Air pressure
B. Rainfall 952. A cold front usually brings what kind of
weather?
C. Air temperature
A. snow
D. Hurricane
B. sunny and fair
947. Which causes the subtropical jet stream
to bring cold, wet winter weather to the C. rain and/or thunderstorms
southeastern United States? D. cool and dry

953. The is the trapping of energy from the A. Stationary front

sun by Earth’s atmosphere.
B. Occluded front
A. greenhouse atmosphere
C. Warm front
B. greenhouse effect
D. Cold front
C. clear cutting
D. climate change 959. As altitude increases, air pressure
A. decreases
NARAYAN CHANGDER
954. Winds found north and south of the equa-
tor that blows toward the equator from B. increases
the northeast and southeast C. remains the same
A. Jet Steam D. none of above
B. Trade Winds
960. An envelope of gases and small parti-
C. Doldrums
cles that surrounds the Earth and stretches
D. Polar Easterlies outward from Earth’s surface for 6, 000
miles.
955. How does heat energy reach the Earth
from the Sun A. clouds
A. Convection B. atmosphere
B. Radiation C. wind
C. Conduction D. air
D. Insulation
961. The electrified upper region of the atmo-
956. What is relative humidity? sphere.
A. humidity that is related to other humid- A. Ionosphere
ity
B. Exosphere
B. condensation
C. Auroras
C. clouds
D. Troposphere
D. the amount of water in the air com-
pared to the amount of water the air can 962. Of the four locations, which one would
hold - a ratio have the most humid air and why?
957. The weather element that always de- A. Virginia is a coastal state and should
creases with increasing height. be the most humid because of the ocean
bordering one side.
A. Pressure
B. Florida should be most humid because
B. Density
it is semi-tropical and surrounded by wa-
C. Out Gassing ter on three sides.
D. Gravity C. Arizona because it is the warmest of
the four states.
958. Which type of front forms when cold air
runs into a mass of warm air, causing the D. Alaska because it is the coldest of the
warm air to rise quickly? four states and is bordered by the ocean.

963. Miss Murdock wants to know if holding 968. How can a weather satellite be useful in
kittens for different amounts of time will preparation for cyclonic storms?
increase the number of As she gives her

A. Satellites can change the direction of
students. What is her IV? the storm
A. Number of A’s B. Satellites can tell people how long the
B. Amount of time holding kittens storm will last
C. Same kitten softness C. Satellites can change the effect of the
D. Same kitten degree of cuteness storm on the beach
D. Satellites can warm people about the
964. Wind is caused by horizontal differences
approaching storm
in
A. temperature 969. A cool and dry air mass would be named
and have pressure.
B. height
A. continental polar; high
C. weight
B. maritime polar; low
D. air pressure
C. continental polar; low
965. What is the correct sequence of layers of
the atmosphere from innermost to outer- D. maritime polar; high
most? 970. Most clouds form in the atmosphere
A. mesosphere-stratosphere-thermosphere- when moist air
troposphere A. rises, expands, and cools to the dew-
B. troposphere-stratosphere-mesosphere- point
thermosphere B. rises, expands, and warms to the dew-
C. stratosphere-thermosphere-troposphere- point
mesosphere C. sinks, compresses, and cools to the
D. thermosphere-stratosphere-mesosphere- dewpoint
troposphere D. sinks, compresses, and warms to the
966. In this atmospheric layer, temperature is dewpoint
constant for the 1st 10 kilometers, then it
971. Condensation occurs on a cool night be-
increases:
cause the temperature has dropped below
A. Thermosphere the
B. Stratosphere A. barometric pressure
C. Troposphere B. dew point
D. Mesosphere C. humidity level
967. Most of Earth’s weather events take D. horizon
place in the
972. The name for heat transfer between two
A. thermosphere solids which are in direct contact or touch-
B. mesosphere ing one another is
C. stratosphere A. conduction
D. troposphere B. convection

C. insulation B. the oceans contain a wider variety of

D. radiation organisms than the continents
C. the oceans store and transfer more
973. Low clouds (like fog), that are thick, heat than the continents
cover the sky, and block the sun. Usu-
D. ocean water contains more salt than
ally bring continuous precipitation (rain or
most continental lake water
snow).
A. stratus 978. How is air pressure measured?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cumulus A. celcius
C. cirrus B. grams
D. nimbo C. millibars
D. thermobars
974. Water vapor in the atmosphere is called
979. Local winds that come from the sea are
A. dew
called
B. frost
A. Land breezes
C. humidity
B. Valley breezes
D. rain C. Sea breezes
975. All of these statements describe weather D. none of above
rather than climate EXCEPT -
980. Why is the troposphere the densest layer
A. Air pressure is higher today than it was of the atmosphere?
yesterday.
A. Convection
B. Annual average temperature has
B. The sun’s heat energy pushes the air
steadily increased over the last 50 years.
molecules down
C. A warm front is moving in to the area
C. The air molecules are attracted to the
next week.
Earth’s surface due to gravity
D. Lightening strikes increase as a thun-
D. none of above
derstorm approaches.
981. Why does convection happen?
976. Low-pressure systems are usually asso-
ciated with weather. A. magic
A. cold and dry B. contact with cooler/warmer surfaces

C. warm air is less dense than cold air
B. cloudy and rainy
D. cold air is less dense than warm air
C. sunny and dry
D. warm and humid 982. What type of weather is associated with
a warm front?
977. Why do oceans have a greater impact A. Warm weather with light precipitation
on the weather than areas over the con-
tinents? B. Cold weather with no precipitation
A. ocean waves move more easily than C. Warm weather and thunderstorms
continental rock D. Cool weather and thunderstorms

983. In this heat generating layer of the atmo- 988. When a warm air mass moves into an
sphere, you can find the northern lights. area with a cold air mass, it is a front.

A. Troposphere A. warm front
B. Exosphere B. cold front
C. occluded front
C. Stratosphere
D. stationary front
D. Thermosphere
989. Maximum concentrations of ozone are
984. How are a greenhouse and Earth’s atmo- found in what layer?
sphere most alike?
A. Troposphere
A. Both contain large amounts of carbon B. Stratosphere
dioxide.
C. Ionosphere
B. Both lower the temperature to be suit-
D. Mesosphere
able for life.
C. Both trap heat inside and prevent it 990. Meteorologists measure
from escaping. A. Meteorology
D. Both prevent harmful radiation from B. Height
reaching Earth. C. Time
985. What instrument measures tempera- D. Weight

ture? 991. Which weather condition occurs along ev-
A. rain gauge ery type of frontal boundary?
B. hydrometer A. precipitation
B. clear skies
C. thermometer
C. warm temperatures
D. wind vane
D. dry air
986. What is the temperature lapse rate in Tro- 992. The change of state from a gas to a liquid
posphere according to ISA? is called
A. -2◦ C/1000 ft A. evaporation
B. +20◦ C/1000 ft B. sublimation
C. -2◦ C/1 km C. condensation
D. -2◦ F/10000 ft D. deposition
993. The tropics are hotter then the poles be-
987. What type of air mass will bring cold, dry
cause the sun strikes this area of the earth
air?
more
A. Maritime Tropical
A. directly
B. Maritime Polar B. indirectly
C. Continental Tropical C. at 90 degrees
D. Continental Polar D. none of above

994. How long does it take the Earth to com- C. cirrus

plete 1 full revolution? D. cirrostratus
A. 365. 5 days
1000. High pressure systems are associated
B. 365 1/2 days with weather.
C. 365 days 12 hours A. rainy
D. 365 days 6 hours B. hot
995. Two factors to determine climate are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. clear, fair
A. precipitation and temperature D. cloudy
B. hurricanes and tornadoes
1001. A student planning to visit the rainfor-
C. humidity and pressure est in Cuba packed cool clothing for the hot,
D. none of above humid climate. Why does Cuba have warm
and muggy weather?
996. Which tool measures humidity or the
A. to attract tourists
amount of moisture in the air?
B. a lack of snowfall
A. wind vane
C. cold ocean currents
B. barometer
D. warm ocean currents
C. anemometer
D. sling psychrometer 1002. At the equator and at 600 latitude,
warm air rises creating a windless area
997. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap known as the
heat near Earth’s surface. What are the
A. doldrums
greenhouse gases?
B. horse latitudes
A. CO2, water vapor, methane, nitrous ox-
ide C. westerlies
B. CO2, gas, carbon monoxide, CFCs D. polar easterlies
C. Water vapor, fumes, carbon monoxide, 1003. The sun warms a large area of an ocean.
methane This causes a large amount of water to
D. nitrous oxide, ozone, UV radiation, gas evaporate into the air. Which weather
event might occur?
998. A hurricane that occurs over the Pacific
Ocean is called a A. Tornado
A. water spout B. Hurricane
B. typhoon C. Tidal wave
C. tornado D. Freezing rain
D. tropical storm 1004. On an August afternoon in North Car-

olina, the barometric pressure is 29.92
999. Which cloud type can produce the most inches and falling. What weather condi-
rain? tion is likely to happen?
A. altocumulus A. clearing skies and cooler tempera-
B. nimbostratus tures

B. continued fair weather 1010. Where do most hurricanes that hit the
C. an imminent storm United States begin?

D. conditions will slowly improve A. North Pacific, near Alaska
B. South Pacific, near Australia
1005. Which choice confirms that one air mass
is being replaced by another air mass in a C. Atlantic Ocean, near the equator
given area? D. Indian Ocean, near Indonesia
A. high wind speed 1011. High, thin wispy
B. high air pressure A. Cirrus
C. high air temperature B. Cumulus
D. none of above C. Stratus
1006. A force that is the result of the weight D. Cumulonimbus
of a column of air pushing down on an
area. 1012. How does the air move in a land
breeze?
A. anemometer
A. From east to west
B. air pressure
B. From west to east
C. barometer
C. From the land to the ocean
D. cyclone
D. From the ocean to the land
1007. the study of weather. A meteorologist
that studies weather. 1013. Which would be best categorized as
heat transfer by conduction?
A. Weather Man
A. Feeling the heat from a light bulb while
B. True holding your hand from 6 inches away.
C. False B. Feeling the heat from a light bulb with
D. Meteorology your hand when touching the bulb.
1008. Pressure at a point acts equally in di- C. Warming your body under the sun in
rections due to random molecular motion. summer.
A. single D. Wearing a white shirt to stay cool on a

summer day.
B. dual
C. all 1014. This front can produce storms.
D. one sided A. Cold

B. Warm
1009. What type of storm most likely devel-
ops as air masses interact with warm wa- C. Occluded
ter? D. Two of these are true
A. Hurricane 1015. The boundary where a warm air mass
B. Tornado replaces a cold air mass.
C. Blizzard A. Cold Front
D. Monsoon B. Warm Front

C. Weather 1021. Layer of the atmosphere closest to the

D. none of above earth where most weather phenomena oc-
curs.
1016. METAR LKNA 282100Z 07006KT 3000 A. Exosphere
BR OVC004 08/08 Q1004 RMK YLO= wind direction and strenght B. Mesosphere
A. 070◦ /6 km C. Troposphere
B. 070◦ /6 kt D. Stratosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 282◦ /10 kt
1022. What do land and water absorb and lose
D. none of above at different rates that can affect weather
patterns?
1017. the pressure caused by the weight of a
column of air pushing down on an area A. heat
A. air pressure B. pressure
B. weight C. cold
C. altitude D. mass
D. high pressure
1023. What happens with Relative Humidity,
1018. Which gas is considered a major green- when air is cooled?
house gas? A. RH increase
A. methane B. RH decrease
B. oxygen C. RH remains constant
C. hydrogen
D. none of above
D. nitrogen
1024. Earth’s current atmosphere is
1019. Which layer of the atmosphere does
“All weather” occur in? A. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% ar-
gon and 0.037% carbon dioxide
A. troposphere
B. 78% oxygen, 21%nitrogen, 0.9% argon,
B. mesosphere 0.037% carbon dioxide
C. stratosphere
C. 78% nitrogen, 21% argon, 1% oxygen
D. thermosphere
D. 78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% carbon
1020. What is specific humidity? dioxide
A. Mass of water vapor in air; total mass 1025. A record of weather data for a particu-
of the mixture of air and water vapor. lar site at a particular time is a(n)
B. Saturation A. station model
C. The atmospheric temperature below
B. topographic map
which water droplets begin to condense
and dew can form C. isopleth model
D. A Ceilometer D. climate map

1026. Low pressure is known for B. They move from high altitude to low al-
A. good weather titude

B. bad weather C. They move from low humidity to high
humidity
C. none of the above
D. The move from low temperature to
D. none of above high temperature
1027. Katabatic wind blows 1032. Climate change may have an impact on
A. Down the hill when temperature drops the following:
(late afternoon-evening) A. Energy and human health
B. Uphill when temperature increase B. Air quality, oceans, and coastal zones
C. From east to west C. Agriculture
D. Always in right direction on the North- D. All of the above
ern hemispehre
1033. How do cold surface currents affect an
1028. What type of weather is associated areas climate?
with a cold front?
A. Since they carry warm water, they will
A. Thunderstorms make the air warmer, which will make the
B. Clear skies land warmer
C. Warmer temperatures and tornadoes B. Since they carry cold water, they will
make the air warmer, which will make the
D. Cool temperatures and thunderstorms,
land warmer
rain
C. Since they carry cold water, they will
1029. What are the two most common gases make the air colder, which will make the
in Earth’s atmosphere? land colder
A. Helium and Hydrogen D. Since they carry cold water, they will
B. Nitrogen and Oxygen make the air colder, which will cause
snowstorms and polar bears to move in
C. Hydrogen and Nitrogen
D. Oxygen and Hydrogen 1034. The layer of the atmosphere that con-
tains the ozone layer is the
1030. Over the past 200 years, the level of A. troposphere
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has
B. ionosphere
A. decreased slightly
C. stratosphere
B. increased until recently, and then de-
creased D. mesopsphere
C. increased steadily 1035. What weather condition could be mea-
D. stayed about the same sured by a Celsius thermometer?
A. Precipitation
1031. What statement describes the general
movement of air masses? B. Temperature
A. They move from high pressure to low C. Wind Speed

pressure D. Cloud Cover

1036. Layer that contains ozone 1041. Warm ocean currents generally come
from
A. Stratosphere
A. The North Pole
B. Exosphere
B. The South Pole
C. Mesosphere
C. The Equator
D. Thermosphere
D. Both A and B
1037. Current, short-term variations in the at-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosphere are referred to as 1042. Upwellings move water
A. humidiy A. Down
B. lapse rate B. Up
C. weather C. In circles
D. the ionosphere D. Fast
1043. Which do meteorologist NOT use to col-

1038. An island is surrounded by ocean water.
lect data?
Due to the large amounts of water evapo-
rating around an island, an island is most A. Time of sunrise
likely to experience B. Air pressure
A. low humidity C. Air temperature
B. little precipitation D. Humidity
C. dry air
1044. Which of the following occurs in our
D. large amounts of precipitation oceans as a result of the unequal heating
across our globe?
1039. What kind of weather is associated
with high air pressure? A. winds
A. Clouds and rain B. waves
B. Clouds without rain C. gravity
C. Clear skies D. ocean currents
D. Tornadoes 1045. Which statement is about weather is

true?
1040. What causes warm air to rise?
A. It does not change very much from day
A. the fact that it is more dense than cold to day.
air
B. It is made up of all the weather condi-
B. the fact that it weighs more than cold tions in one place in a single moment.
air
C. It includes only the temperature and
C. the fact that it’s less dense than cold air pressure in one place at a single mo-
air ment.
D. the fact that it is higher pressure than D. It does not change very much from mo-
cold air ment to moment.

1046. A low-pressure center characterized by 1051. Which gas makes up the largest compo-
a counter-clockwise flow of air in the nent of Earth’s atmosphere?
Northern Hemisphere

A. oxygen
A. anticyclone B. nitrogen
B. cyclone C. argon
C. storm surge D. carbon dioxide
D. El Nino 1052. A light rain system with thin clouds has
moved through Oklahoma. What has oc-
1047. Which term describes the average curred to produce this type of precipita-
weather conditions during a season over tion?
many years?
A. a warm front
A. Climate
B. a massive buildup of high air pressure
B. Weather
C. a hurricane is forming in the Gulf of
C. Rainfall Mexico
D. Temperature D. a cold front
1048. In which layer do most meteorites va- 1053. Which term refers to the atmospheric
porize? conditions that prevail from season to sea-
son and year to year at a certain location?
A. Stratosphere
A. climate
B. Troposphere
B. weather
C. Thermosphere C. equilibrium
D. Mesosphere D. ecosystem
1049. How does a cold front form? 1054. Click on the answer that is NOT a Fossil
A. Warm air advances and replaces cold Fuel
air. A. Coal
B. Cold air advances, forcing warm air to B. Carbon Dioxide
rise. C. Oil
C. Warm and cold air masses meet and D. Natural Gas
mix.
1055. What are the four mechanisms that can
D. Warm and cold air masses have no rel- cause air to rise?
ative advancement.
A. orographic lifting, frontal wedgie, con-
1050. Clouds that form near the ground are densation, localized convention lifting
called? B. oceanic lifting, frontal wedgie, convec-
A. Stratus tion, localized convention lifting
C. orographic lifting, frontal wedging,
B. Cirrus
convection lifting, convergance
C. Cumulus
D. orographic lifting, frontal wedging,
D. Fog convergence, localized convective lifting

1056. In precipitation mode, the radar com- C. 24 hours

pletes a volume scan every how many min- D. 365 days
utes depending upon which volume cover-
age pattern (VCP) is in operation? 1061. Darker stratus clouds that contain more
moisture. Produce heavier rain
A. Every 5 - 10 minutes
A. nimbostratus
B. Every 1 hour
B. fog
C. Every 4 - 6 minutes
C. cumulonimbus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Every 30 minutes
D. cumulostratus
1057. What is a METAR? 1062. A circular shaped area on top of a moun-
A. Report of real weather observed at tain carved by a glacier is called a
given aerodrome at certain time A. square
B. Forecast of weather for given aero- B. cirque
drome and time period C. cube
C. Meteorologigal area report for given D. arete
FIR
1063. When are hurricanes most likely to oc-
D. none of above
cur and why?
1058. Air is warmer and less dense at the A. Early Winter, because the ocean water
equator because the equator receives is very cold
more B. Early Spring, because the ocean water
A. wind is starting to warm
B. solar radiation C. Late Summer, because the ocean wa-
ter is at it’s warmest
C. air pressure
D. Late Fall, because the ocean water has
D. condensation cooled off
1059. Earth’s interior at a depth of 3500 kilo- 1064. The US is primarily affected by this
meters is believed to be global wind belt.
A. liquid at a temperature of approxi- A. Coriolis
mately 4900◦ C B. Westerly
B. solid at a temperature of approxi- C. Easterly
mately 4900◦ C
D. Trade
C. liquid at a temperature of approxi-
mately 5400◦ C 1065. Carbon dioxide, methane, water vapor,
and ozone trap heat in the atmosphere.
D. solid at a temperature of approxi- Because of this function, what term do we
mately 5400◦ C use to refer to them?
1060. How long does it take the Earth to Ro- A. greenhouse gases
tate one complete time? B. decomposers
A. 365 days 6 hours C. humidity
B. 29 days D. low pressure

1066. What is virga? 1071. Warm air is dense so it has air

A. Clouds that look like they are harmless, pressure

but are very dangerous. A. less, high
B. Clouds that never drop rain B. less, lower
C. Rain that evaporates before reaching C. more, high
the ground D. more, lower
D. It does not exist
1072. The result of the weight of a column of
1067. An air mass is air pushing down on an area is called
A. A large parcel of air that takes on the A. altitude

characteristics of the area over which is B. pressure
forms C. density
B. A large parcel of weather that takes on D. air pressure
the characteristics of the area over which
is forms 1073. Which most likely produces clear, sunny
weather?
C. Windy and brings wet weather
A. zero air pressure
D. none of above
B. stable air pressure
1068. which element of weather has the defi-
C. a low pressure system
nition “The distance one can see”
D. a high pressure system
A. air pressure
B. density 1074. Land breezes near bodies of water occur
because
C. precipitation
A. land cools off much faster than water.
D. visibility
B. water cools off much faster than land.
1069. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface C. water heats up much faster than land.
winds tend to blow this way around an
D. land and water heat up at the same
area of surface low pressure.
rate.
A. They blow counterclockwise and out-
ward 1075. What type of weather is associated
with a high pressure system?
B. They blow counterclockwise and in-
ward A. Rain
C. They blow clockwise and inward B. Tornados
D. They blow clockwise and outward C. Clear skies

D. There is no such thing as a high pres-
1070. The condition of the air outdoors is- sure system
A. climate
1076. Which type of fronts causes precipita-
B. weather tion?
C. average temperature A. Cold
D. none of above B. Warm

C. Occluded 1082. Weather varies in different parts of the

world depending on what time of year it
D. All of these
is. What causes this seasonal variation?
1077. This layer is where weather occurs A. Earth’s tilted axis
A. troposphere B. Earth’s chemical composition
B. thermosphere C. Earth’s gravitational pull
C. exosphere D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. stratosphere 1083. Which statement correctly defines
wind?
1078. Isobars are lines on a map joining places A. Wind is the movement of air from ar-
that have the same eas of low pressure to areas of high pres-
A. temperature sure
B. weather B. Wind is the movement of air to a colder
area in the atmosphere.
C. air pressure
C. Wind is the movement of air from ar-
D. climate eas of high pressure to areas of low pres-
sure.
1079. What is climate?
D. Wind is the movement of air pushed
A. A day-to-day observation made for a around and bouncing off Earth’s surface.
region
1084. A narrow band of strong winds that
B. An observation made for a region over
blows from west to east
several years
A. Polar Easterlies
C. The weight of the air above you
B. Trade Winds
D. Water in the atmosphere
C. Jet Stream
1080. What are snowdrifts D. Doldrums
A. huge mountains of snow that winds 1085. What is weather?
make
A. A day-to-day observations made for a
B. sleet, hail, and snow region
C. rain and snow mixed together B. An observations made for a region
D. another term for snowstorm over several years
C. The weight of the air above you
1081. Two cold air masses collide and push a D. Water in the atmosphere
warm air mass between them
A. warm front 1086. Increased carbon dioxide may cause
global warming by
B. stationary front
A. allowing more sunlight into the atmo-
C. cold front sphere
D. occluded front B. reflecting more sunlight from clouds

C. reducing the amount of oxygen in the 1092. What is the Air density change with al-
air titude?

D. trapping more heat in the atmosphere A. Density increases with greater alti-
tude
1087. Rain that falls and hits a frozen surface.
It freezes on contact. Temperatures are B. Density remains constant with greater
below freezing. It forms ice altitude
A. Sleet C. Density decreases with greater alti-
tude
B. Freezing rain
D. none of above
C. Hail
D. Snow 1093. What gas makes up the largest compo-
nent of the atmosphere?
1088. Which of these describes an air mass A. Oxygen
that is located above the ocean close to
the equator? B. Carbon Dioxide
A. Maritime Polar C. Ozone
B. Continental Polar D. Nitrogen
C. Maritime Tropical 1094. The following data were recorded over
D. Continental Tropical the course of an afternoon in Gaston
County:Measurement 4:00 PM 6:00 PM
1089. Which Planet has a thick atmosphere 8:00 PMWind Speed 5 12 20Temperature
mostly of Carbon Dioxide causing it to 95 87 81Humidity (%) 50 73 85What
have a runaway greenhouse effect? type of front more than likely came
A. Earth through?
B. Mars A. Cold Front
C. Venus B. Warm Front
D. Mercury C. Stationary Front
D. Occluded Front
1090. The Coriolis effect greatly affects the
paths of air circulation on Earth. What 1095. A line joining points of equal air temper-
causes the Coriolis effect? ature
A. the sun A. isobar
B. the moon B. isotherm
C. Earth’s rotation C. thermometer
D. Earth’s revolution D. barometer
1091. a line drawn to connect points of equal 1096. Where a glacier is melting faster than it
atmosphere. is gaining snow is called the
A. Isobar A. zone of wastage
B. Barometer B. zone of accumulation
C. Thermometer C. visitors center
D. Anemometer D. zone of dripping

1097. Where does most of Earth’s weather oc- 1102. What causes seasons on Earth?
cur? A. the sun
A. Troposhere B. the Earth’s rotaion
B. Thermosphere C. the Earth’s revolution
C. Mesosphere D. the Earth’s tilt
D. Stratosphere
1103. What steps are in the water cycle?
1098. masses of puffy, white clouds, often
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ground flow, evaporation, precipita-
with flat bases. They sometimes tower to tion, run-off
great heights and can be associated with
fair weather or thunderstorms B. sublimation, rain, sleet, boil
A. Stratus C. rain, snow, sleet, hail

B. Cumulus D. None of these
C. Cirrus 1104. The so-called “ozone hole” is observed
D. Cloud above:
A. Australia
1099. ASOS is a weather system that
B. Africa
A. Provide essential weather information
for aviation, weather forecasting, and re- C. Antarctica
search D. none of above
B. Is useful for tracking clouds only 1105. Climates are classified according to two
C. Is useful for showing moisture and major factors:
cloud patterns A. elevation and precipitation
D. Detects different frequencies of ther- B. latitude and temperature
mal energy to map cloud cover or surface
temperatures C. elevation and latitude
D. precipitation and temperature
1100. The constant movement of water be-
tween the atmosphere and Earth’s surface 1106. Coldest Layer
is A. Mesosphere
A. cloud formation. B. Stratosphere
B. the water cycle. C. Thermosphere
C. precipitation. D. Exosphere
D. temperature inversion.
1107. Approximately how many million years
1101. Which of the following is a component ago (mya) were all of Africa and South
of the temperature which changes very lit- America inferred to be located south of the
tle? equator?
A. water vapor A. 59 mya
B. nitrogen B. 119 mya
C. carbon dioxide C. 232 mya
D. ozone D. 359 mya

1108. The way heat moves in liquids and 1113. Round, grape like
gases is called A. Mammatus

A. convection B. Contrail
B. radiation C. Lenticular
C. conduction D. Stratus
D. temperature
1114. Water droplets that condense from the
1109. Which states are most known for tor- air onto cool surfaces near the ground are
nadic activity, also known as tornado al- called
ley? A. fog
A. Texas, Washington, New York, Mon- B. precipitation
tana C. dew
B. Texas, Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska D. icicles
C. Florida, California, Tennessee, Nevada
1115. What is the BOILING point in Degrees
D. Oklahoma, Louisiana, Georgia, Al- FARENHEIT?
abama
A. 100
1110. After a rain, a puddle of water remains B. 0
on a sidewalk. After a day of sunshine,
C. 212
the puddle is gone. Which process is most
responsible for the disappearance of the D. 32
puddle?
1116. The boundary between two air masses
A. precipitation A. front
B. transpiration B. mass
C. evaporation C. source region
D. condensation D. none of above
1111. The most common gas in the atmosphere 1117. The dominant west-to-east motion of
(78%). the atmosphere that characterizes temper-
A. Nitrogen ate zones
B. Oxygen A. polar easterlies
C. Carbon Dioxide B. trade winds
D. Trace gases C. easterlies

D. westerlies
1112. Which below is not a process by which
CO2 enters the atmosphere? 1118. A long-term weather forecast:
A. Condensation A. Has complex interactions in the atmo-
sphere that make it difficult to pinpoint ex-
B. Volcanic Eruptions
act weather
C. The decay of vegetation B. Applies physical principles and mathe-
D. The burning of fossil fuels matics to make predictions and forecasts

C. Looks at patterns from the past to look C. Stratus Clouds

for similarities that are happening cur- D. nimbus clouds
rently
D. Is the most accurate forecast 1125. If you see #1 on a surface map, what
type of weather would you expect?
1119. What gas makes up the majority of the A. heavy precipitation along the front fol-
Earth’s atmosphere? lowed by cooler weather
A. oxygen B. heavy precipitation along the front fol-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. nitrogen lowed by warmer weather
C. ozone C. clouds with possible drizzle along the
front followed by cooler weather
D. carbon dioxide
D. cooler weather with no significant pre-
1120. Rain, snow, sleet, and hair are all types cipitation
of , which comes from some clouds.
1126. Wind is caused by
A. precipitation
A. differences in altitude
B. condensation
B. difference in pressure
C. evaporation
C. differences in temperature
D. runoff
D. differences in latitude
1121. Global warming is caused by
1127. What is the most abundant gas in to-
A. greenhouse gases day’s Atmosphere?
B. fossil fuel use A. Oxygen
C. cars and boats B. Carbon Dioxide
D. all of the above C. Nitrogen
1122. Meteor showers occur in the D. Methane
A. troposhphere 1128. Winds that blow from the west are
B. mesosphere called
C. stratosphere A. Easterlies
D. exosphere B. Polars
C. Westerlies
1123. A rain gauge measures what?
D. Temperates
A. Air pressure
B. Wind speed 1129. Earths Ancient Atmosphere contained
gases such as Amonia, Methane, and lots
C. Amount of precipitation
of Carbon Dioxide. These gases were re-
D. Wind direction leased into the early atmosphere by
1124. What type of clouds are layered and A. Humans
covers most of the sky? B. Volcanoes
A. Cumulous C. Plants
B. Cirrus clouds D. The moon

1130. The Northern Lights appear in which B. different materials heat up at different
layer of the atmosphere? rates.

A. Troposphere C. sunlight does pass through water
B. Thermosphere D. different materials absorb the same
C. Exosphere amount of heat.
D. Mesosphere 1135. When convection occurs in the atmo-

sphere
1131. What kind of heat transfer is related to
wind formation? A. warm air sinks and cool air rises
A. conduction B. warm air rises and cool air sinks
B. convection C. cool air and warm air sink
C. radiation D. cool air and warm air rise
D. none of above 1136. Two air masses that meet and do not
advance
1132. The is the layer above the tropo-
sphere where temperatures increase as al- A. cold front
titude increases. It gets warmer in this B. warm front
layer the higher up you go because this
C. stationary front
layer contains the ozone layer that ab-
sorbs UV rays from the Sun. D. occluded front
A. Troposphere 1137. What is the percentage of nitrogen in
B. Stratosphere Earth’s atmosphere?
C. Mesosphere A. 1%
D. Thermosphere B. 21%
1133. Transpiration is - C. 78%
A. Water flowing from high elevations to D. none of above

lower elevations.
1138. The layers of the atmosphere are classi-
B. Water falling from the sky. fied by changes in
C. Water evaporating the leaves of A. altitude
plants.
B. temperature
D. Water gathering together to make a
C. weather
lake, stream, or ocean.
D. percent of air molecules
1134. Louisa put a bowl of water and a bowl
of sand in the sun. She put a thermometer 1139. In which layer of the atmosphere do all
in each bowl. Then she recorded the tem- storms occur?
perature at the start and after 30 minutes. A. Stratosphere
After 30 minutes, the sand had heated
more than the water.Louisa’s experiment B. Thermosphere
proved that C. Troposphere
A. sunlight heats liquids more than solids. D. Mesosphere

1140. Long, gray, dark C. radiation

A. Cirrus D. conduction
B. Cumulus
1146. What most likely occurs when a fast
C. Stratus moving cold air mass moves into a region
D. Cirrostratus of warmer, moist air?
1141. The hot and humid weather in Texas dur- A. It causes light precipitation for a long
time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing the summer is most likely due to what
type of air mass? B. It causes light precipitation for a short
A. continental polar time
B. continental tropical C. It causes heavy precipitation for a long
time
C. maritime polar
D. maritime tropical D. It causes heavy precipitation for a
short time
1142. Usually happens and is over quickly.
What type of front? 1147. What causes wind to blow?
A. Warm A. Differences in longitude
B. Cold B. Shock waves from clouds
C. Stationary C. Differences in air temperature and
D. none of above pressure
D. The rotation of the earth
1143. Suppose the parcel of the air rises adi-
abatically. What happens with its PRES-
1148. What is the second layer of the atmo-
SURE?
sphere that contains the ozone layer?
A. Remains constant
A. troposphere
B. Increases
B. mesosphere
C. Decreases
C. stratosphere
D. none of above
D. thermosphere
1144. When was weather data in
Saskatchewan first recorded? 1149. The weather forecast tomorrow says
A. Yesterday there will be a 15 mph northeast wind and
a high temperature of 52 degrees. What
B. 1883 three instruments will a meteorologist use
C. 1800 to make this prediction?
D. 1983 A. anemometer, wind vane, thermometer
1145. heat energy traveling through space is B. barometer, hygrometer, wind vane
an example of C. thermometer, satellite image, hygrom-
A. convection eter
B. density D. wind vane, satellite image, barometer

1150. When did meteorology begin? 1156. What is the name of the wind belt found
A. 17th century between 0 degrees and 30 degrees on
Earth?

B. 20th century
A. Tradewinds
C. It hasn’t started yet
B. Prevailing Westerlies
D. Yesterday
C. Polar Easterlies
1151. The Coriolis effect causes global winds D. none of above
to
1157. A balloon-borne package of sensors that
A. rotate
gathers upper-level temperature, air pres-
B. change directions sure, and humidity is
C. become stronger A. a radiosonde.
D. curve B. a satellite.
1152. Wind flows from what to what C. a hygrometer.
A. Low pressure to high pressure D. Doppler radar.
B. High pressure to low pressure 1158. Which of these weather conditions is

necessary for the formation of a cyclonic
C. Hot to cold
storm?
D. none of above
A. A cold rain falling to the ground
1153. Contains ozone layer B. Air masses combining in a high pres-
A. Stratosphere sure system
B. Exosphere C. Winds spiraling downward and away
from the center of a storm
C. Ionosphere
D. Air moving toward the center of a
D. Thermosphere storm and rising into the atmosphere
1154. Clouds that look like flat blankets and 1159. Weather forecasting has improved
are usually the lowest clouds in the sky greatly recently because of
are called
A. computers
A. cumulus clouds
B. television
B. cirrus clouds
C. fewer weather forecasters
C. stratus clouds
D. more experienced meteorologists
D. storm clouds
1160. The boundary where unlike air masses
1155. Heat that travels through the air in meet but do not easily mix is called a(an)
waves is called
A. Conduction A. precipitation
B. Radiation B. front
C. Convection C. air mass
D. none of above D. pressure

1161. Air at the poles is colder and denser so 1167. Cold, dense air displaces warm air,
it forces warm air up
A. rises A. cold front
B. circulates B. warm front
C. stagnates C. stationary front
D. sinks D. occluded front
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1162. Directly from gas to solid 1168. The study of science that focus on the
A. Cumulation atmosphere, climate, and weather
B. Sublimation A. biology
C. Milination B. meteorology
D. Creamation C. evolution
D. astronomy
1163. What does nimbus mean
A. Rain 1169. The layers of the atmosphere are classi-
fied according to changes in
B. Snow
A. altitude
C. Lightning
B. density
D. Thunder
C. composition
1164. What causes the winds to veer to the D. temperature
right in the northern hemisphere and to the
left in the southern hemisphere? 1170. Moisture will form on a glass faster
A. rotation of the Earth when
B. orbit of the Earth around the sun A. the glass is warm and the air is dry
C. moon phases B. the glass is cold and the air is humid
D. air resistance C. the glass is cold and the air is dry

D. the glass is warm and the air is humid
1165. A front along which a warm air mass
overrides a retreating mass of cooler air 1171. Cirrus is a
A. warm front A. Low level cloud
B. cold front B. High level cloud
C. stationary front C. Medium level cloud
D. occluded front D. none of above
1166. A radiator heating a room. 1172. The study of weather is

A. conduction A. astronomy
B. radiation B. astrology
C. convection C. atmospherology
D. none of above D. meteorology

1173. Tall, dark, anvil shaped. These clouds C. occluded front

are associated with thunder, hail, light- D. stationary front
ning, and possibly tornadoes

A. Nimbostratus 1179. The well-mixed region of Earth’s atmo-
sphere is known as the:
B. Cumulus
A. homosphere
C. Cumulonimbus
B. thermosphere
D. Stratus
C. heterosphere
1174. Temperature increases with height in
the due to the ozone trapping heat. D. ionosphere
A. troposphere 1180. front forms when rapidly moving

B. stratosphere cold air moves under slower moving warm
air and pushes the warm air up. This can
C. mesosphere bring thunderstorms, heavy rain, or snow
D. thermosphere then cooler drier air after.
1175. What is wind caused by? A. cold front
A. differences in density B. warm front
B. differences in air pressure C. stationary front
C. differences in peer pressure D. occluded front
D. differences in temperature 1181. In what Hemisphere do cyclones move
1176. Name the weather satellite observation in a clockwise direction?
system that is useful to show moisture A. Northern Hemisphere
and cloud patterns. B. Eastern Hemisphere
A. Infrared imagery
C. Southern Hemisphere
B. Doppler weather radar
D. Western Hemisphere
C. Visible light imagery
1182. Hurricanes decrease in strength when
D. Water vapor imagery
they
1177. a mixture of gases that surround the A. enter warmer water
earth
B. enter cooler water
A. thermosphere
C. enter an area with drier air
B. Troposphere
D. none of above
C. Atmosphere
D. Ozone Layer 1183. A stationary air mass over the Gulf of
Mexico would typically be
1178. A(n) is a fast-moving front that
A. Warm and dry
often brings thunderstorms followed by
clear skies and cooler temperatures. B. Warm and humid
A. cold front C. Cool and dry
B. warm front D. Cool and humid

1184. What happens immediately after a hur- 1190. What causes the differences in the air
ricane makes landfall? masses that permit hurricanes to form
A. it gets stronger over oceans?
B. it gets weaker A. Ocean water is cool and cools the air

above it.
C. its winds pick up speed
B. Ocean water is warm and heats the air
D. it starts hailing above it.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1185. Air moves from C. Ocean water contains salt that reacts
with air, changing the air pressure.
A. high to high pressure
D. Ocean water contains algae that make
B. low to high pressure
oxygen, changing the air’s composition.
C. high to low pressure
1191. Which of these shows the equation for
D. low to low pressure
converting from Celsius to Fahrenheit or
1186. It is the principle where all terms in the Fahrenheit to Celsius?
equation have same physical dimensions. A. F + 273= C
A. Principle of Dimensional Homogeneity B. C + 273= F
B. Conservation Laws of Physics C. C= (F-32) X .556
C. Continuum Approximation D. F= (C-32) X .556
D. Taylor Series
1192. What is a cloud made of?
1187. How do we characterize an air mass A. Water Vapor
that forms over near the equator?
B. Cotton candy
A. Dry
C. Thunder
B. Wet
D. Cotton Balls
C. Cold
D. Warm 1193. The Jet Stream brings polar air to the
United States. What does the Jet Stream
1188. Which is the most abundant gas in do to the weather?
Earth’s atmosphere? A. It makes the areas colder.
A. Oxygen B. It makes the areas warmer.
B. Troposphere C. Some areas have longer winters.
C. Nitrogen D. Some areas have shorter winters.
D. Helium
1194. a circular pattern of rising air, sinking
1189. If an air mass is rising, it must be air and wind
A. cold and less dense A. air pressure
B. cold and more dense B. low pressure
C. warm and more dense C. convection cell
D. warm and less dense D. wind

1195. Meteorology is the study of 1200. What are caused by unequal heating of
the earth. Convection currents form over
A. wheat
the equator. From the equator to 30◦

B. worms north and south. There is also one that
C. smiles runs from 30◦ to 60◦ . The winds form due
to the spinning of the earth
D. weather
A. wind
1196. In June, it is summer in India (North- B. worldwide wind belts
ern Hemisphere) and Winter in Australia
(Southern Hemisphere). What is the main C. tornadoes
reason the seasons are opposite in two D. weather
countries?
1201. How does the air move in a sea breeze?
A. because Earth is tilted on its axis
A. wind moves from north to south
B. because the Sun rotated on its axis
B. wind moves from ocean to the land
C. because Earth revolves around the sun
C. wind moves from the land to the ocean
D. because of the distance between the
countries D. wind moves from south to north
1197. Which of these cloud types would NOT 1202. Often occurs where air masses meet
bring rain?
A. tornadoes
A. Cirrus
B. hurricanes
B. Cumulus
C. weather
C. Cirrocumulus
D. lightning
D. All of these
1203. How long does it take the Earth to ro-
1198. A funnel-shaped cloud that touches tate once on its axis?
Earth’s surface is called a
A. 24 hours
A. hurricane
B. 365 years
B. cyclone
C. 365 days
C. tornado
D. none of above
D. thunderhead
1204. If the frontal boundary of a cold front is
1199. Which is NOT a characteristic of global currently passing through the city of Den-
winds? ver, what type of weather conditions is
Denver most likely experiencing?
A. They occur as global wind belts.
A. warm, foggy weather
B. They occur within small areas.
B. cooler, dry weather
C. They occur over large areas.
C. hot, dry weather
D. They blow steadily over long dis-
tances. D. thunderstorms

1205. What protects us from dangerous ultra- 1210. The temperature at a location is 75 de-
violet radiation from the sun? grees, but the dewpoint is 73 degrees.
What do we know based off of this infor-
A. Ozone
mation?
B. Carbon Dioxide
A. It is cold in this location
C. Mr. Fahler
B. It is most likely humid in this location
D. none of above C. It is most likely drier air in this location
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1206. Why do planes fly in the stratosphere, D. It is likely sunny in this location
the second-lowest layer of the atmo-
1211. Which temperature air holds the most
sphere?
water?
A. to avoid storms and other weather
A. cold
events
B. room-temperature
B. to receive better radio communication
C. hot
C. to fly at supersonic speeds without air
D. none of above
resistance
D. to avoid changes in air pressure 1212. As air cools, it tends to forming an
area of pressure.
1207. At the beach in the summertime, the A. sink; low
transfer of heat from the sand to the bot-
toms of your feet is called B. rise; high
C. rise; low
A. radiation
D. sink; high
B. fission
C. conduction 1213. Have been mistaken for UFOS
D. convection A. Contrail
B. Alto stratus
1208. When a warm air mass and a cold air
C. Alto cumulus
mass meet, but they push at each other
and neither one can move, it is called a/an D. Lenticular
-
1214. Where there is lots of snow falling on
A. warm front a glacier and its getting bigger, it’s called
B. cold front the
A. zone of accumulation
C. occluded front
B. zone of wastage
D. stationary front
C. zone of skiing
1209. The scale on a thermometer may be D. end zone
A. Celsius, Fahrenheit, or both
1215. Why does cool air sink over the poles?
B. Heat
A. the air warms and becomes less dense
C. Inches
B. the air warms and becomes more
D. Grams dense

C. the air cools and becomes more dense 1221. Why is the ozone content of the strato-
D. the air cools and becomes less dense sphere important to living organisms?

A. Ozone gives living organisms more wa-
1216. Air density normally:
ter
A. Decreases with increasing height
B. Ozone protects from the Sun’s infrared
B. Remains constant with increasing radiation
height
C. Ozone gives living organisms rain
C. Increases with increasing height
D. Ozone protects from the Sun’s ultravi-
D. none of above olet radiation
1217. A measure of the amount of water va-
1222. A student predicts that if the air is
por in the air is called what?
calm on a specific night, a temperature
A. Rigidity inversion may occur. How could strong
B. Moisture winds prevent a temperature inversion
from forming?
C. Humidity
A. By stopping gases from forming
D. Fog
B. By carrying cold air to cold high alti-
1218. How are local and global winds differ- tudes
ent?
C. Mixing warm air at the top with cool air
A. local wind happens over shorter dis- at the bottom
tances, global wind happens over longer
distances D. Causing the water cycle to speed up
B. local wind happens over longer dis- 1223. - the percent of water vapor in the air
tances. relative to the total amount the air can
C. global wind happens over shorter dis- hold
tances A. humidity
D. They are the same B. heat index
1219. A force that holds the planets atmo- C. weather
sphere close to it’s surface. D. relative humidity
A. Gravity
1224. Air masses take on the conditions of the
B. Greenhouse Effect
area where they form. Which air mass
C. Global Warming would you expect to have warm, dry air?
D. The slight tilt of the earth A. continental tropical
1220. They are highest clouds in the sky. They B. maritime polar
look curly, white and feathery. Usually C. maritime tropical
mean good weather.
D. continental polar
A. Cumulus
B. Cumulonimbus 1225. What is the function of the ozone layer?
C. Cirrus A. to allow UV rays to get to Earth
D. Stratus B. to block UV rays from getting to Earth

C. To keep oxygen in 1231. Which gas is most abundant in Earth’s

D. to allow meteors to get to Earth atmosphere?
A. oxygen
1226. Most common carriers of meteorology is
B. nitrogen
A. climate changes
C. carbon dioxide
B. weather forecasting
D. ozone
C. climate post casting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1232. A Polar Vortex is
D. broadcasting
A. A movie about Santa Claus
1227. Lines on a weather map that connect
B. A type of bear
equal points of air pressure
C. A warm winter
A. Dew point
D. Low pressure and cold air
B. Fronts
C. Air masses 1233. Any energy coming from the Sun is
called
D. Isobars
A. Insolation
1228. In low pressure systems the air circu-
B. Insulation
lates and
C. Convection
A. clockwise, downward
D. Interpretation
B. clockwise, upward
C. counter clockwise, downward 1234. A large body of air characterized by a
similarity of temperature and moisture is
D. counter clockwise, upward referred to as a(n)-
1229. Which processes lead to cloud formation A. air cell
when humid air rises over India? B. air mass
A. compression, warming to the dew- C. front
point, and condensation
D. pressure system
B. compression, warming to the dew-
point, and evaporation 1235. Long term average of weather in an
C. expansion, cooling to the dewpoint, area is:
and condensation A. climate
D. expansion, cooling to the dewpoint, B. meteorology
and evaporation
C. imbalanced heating
1230. is the average pattern for weather D. weather
over a long period of time.
1236. What is true about anticyclones?
A. climate
A. The air here sinks, the symbol is a big
B. weather blue H, they bring clouds and rain
C. forecast B. The air here rises, the symbol is a big
D. sunlight red L, they bring clouds and rain

C. The air here sinks, the symbol is a big C. Density

blue H, they bring clear skies and sun-
D. Cyclone
shine

D. The air here rises, the symbol is a big 1242. The the isobars on a map are
blue H, they bring clouds and rain to/from one another the the wind.
1237. The circular patterns caused by the ris- A. closer, slower
ing and sinking of air:
B. closer, faster
A. convection cells
C. farther, faster
B. radiation
D. none of above
C. trade winds
D. polar easterlies 1243. Winds are named after the direction
they are blowing
1238. What characteristic do thunderstorms,
hurricanes, and tornadoes all share? A. to
A. They all form over dry and hot desert B. from
regions
C. at
B. They are all easily predicted by
weather forecasters D. none of above
C. They are all formed when warm and
moist air rapidly rises 1244. Which statement BEST describes how
photosynthesis affects Earth’s energy bud-
D. They always cause severe damage to get?
land and property
A. Photosynthesis destroys a significant
1239. Large, fluffy-looking clouds with flat amount of incoming solar radiation.
bottoms are called
B. Photosynthesis transforms a small
A. cumulus clouds amount of solar radiation into chemical en-
B. cirrus clouds ergy.
C. stratus clouds C. Photosynthesis increases the amount
D. storm clouds of solar energy that is reflected back into
space.
1240. When a rapidly moving cold air mass re-
places a warm air mass, the result is a(n)- D. Photosynthesis prevents most of the
incoming solar energy from heating
A. stationary front Earth’s atmosphere.
B. cold front
C. warm front 1245. Planetary winds in the Northern Hemi-
sphereare deflected to the right due to the
D. occluded front
A. Doppler effect
1241. Whats the force exerted by weight of
the air above it B. Coriolis effect
A. Atmosphere C. tilt of Earth’s axis

B. Air Pressure D. polar front jet stream

1246. How would life on Earth be affected 1250. A city near the coast experiences local
if the atmosphere did not contain green- breezes on a frequent basis. Which of
house gases? these is the BEST explanation for this?
A. There would likely be a few less organ- A. The cold fronts that form only over
isms on Earth because the lack of green- coastal areas cause thunderstorms.
house gases would make Earth a little
B. The amount of sunshine received by
cooler.
coastal areas causes thunderstorms.
B. There would likely not be life on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The uneven heating of land and water
Earth because Earth’s surface would be
in coastal areas creates fronts that cause
much hotter without the Sun’s rays being
thunderstorms
blocked.
D. The interactions of the waves with
C. The diversity of life on Earth would
the landmass change the air pressure to
increase because of the lack of green-
cause thunderstorms.
house gases would make Earth just a little
warmer. 1251. A force exerted on a unit area describes
D. There would likely not be life on Earth Air
because its surface would be much colder A. Density
and Earth’s water would be frozen.
B. Temperature
1247. Suppose the parcel of the air rises adi-
C. Pressure
abatically. What happens with its RELA-
TIVE HUMIDITY? D. none of above
A. Remains constant 1252. Advancing warm air that displaces cold
B. Decreases air
C. Increases A. cold front
D. none of above B. warm front
1248. Which of the following is not a process C. stationary front

that decreases the salinity of seawater? D. occluded front
A. runoff from land
1253. How does altitude affect an area’s cli-
B. icebergs melting mate?
C. precipitation A. The higher the altitude, the cooler the
D. evaporation climate, since air gets colder as you as-
cend in the troposphere
1249. The greenhouse effect is
B. The higher the altitude, the warmer
A. the absorption of energy by clouds the climate, since air gets warmer as you
B. a gradual increase in the temperature ascend in the troposphere
of the atmosphere C. Altitude has no effect on an area’s cli-
C. the reflection of solar energy into the mate
atmosphere D. The lower the altitude, the cooler the
D. the process by which gases hold heat climate, since air gets colder as you de-
in the atmosphere scend in the troposphere

1254. A percent that compares the actual 1259. How are hurricanes and tornadoes re-
amount of water vapor in the air with the lated to air masses?
maximum amount the air can hold at a A. They form within air masses.

given temperature is called
B. They form where air masses meet.
A. saturation point
C. They form where air pressure is the
B. relative humidity same.
C. isobar D. They form where air temperatures are
D. none of above the same.
1255. When air masses meet but neither 1260. Most of the energy needed for all the
pushes forward into another is known as processes on earth comes directly or indi-
a rectly from the sun. There is no medium or
material connecting the sun to the earth.
A. Cold Front Therefore, the only type of heat transfer
B. Warm Front possible to transfer energy from the sun
to the earth is
C. Stationary Front
A. condensation
D. Localized Convective Lifting
B. convection
1256. line on a map connecting points having C. conduction
the same temperature
D. radiation
A. isobar
1261. Which of the following is not a type of
B. isotherm
severe weather?
C. prevailing winds
A. Blizzard
D. saturated B. Tsunami
1257. A funnel-shaped cloud of swirling winds C. Severe Thunderstorm
that (1) forms over land, (2) is no more D. Drought
than 1/4 mile wide, (3) lasts no more than
an hour, and (4) has winds of up to 300 1262. Any form of water-snow, sleet, hail, or
mph is a rain falling from the clouds to Earth.
A. hurricane A. Precipitation
B. tornado B. Evaporation
C. Condensation
C. thunderstorm
D. Transpiration
D. tropical storm
1263. In an activity, students look at differ-
1258. When a warm air mass catches up to ent climatic regions of the United States to
and overtakes a retreating cold air mass, determine what types of plants will grow
it forms a(n)- in certain regions. One group chooses to
A. stationary front look at a region with heavy annual rain-
B. cold front fall and an average annual temperature of
18 degrees Celsius (64.4 degrees Fahren-
C. warm front heit). Which plant could best be grown in
D. occluded front that climatic region?

A. A plant that needs constant sunlight C. Thermosphere

and no watering
D. none of above
B. A plant that needs constant sunlight
and heat 1268. When a cold air mass moves into an
C. A plant that needs partial shade and lit- area with a warm air mass, it is front.
tle watering A. a warm front
D. A plant that needs lots of rain and mild B. a cold front
NARAYAN CHANGDER
air temperatures
C. an occluded front
1264. On a weather map, which type of front
D. stationary front
is shown by a line with semicircles extend-
ing from one side?
1269. What is the temperature at
A. warm front 12000AMSL according to ISA (on a stan-
B. cold front dard day)?
C. stationary front A. -9◦ C
D. occluded front B. +9◦ C
1265. How long does it take the Earth to spin C. -19◦ C
once on its axis? D. +19◦ C
A. 24 minutes
B. 24 hours 1270. What gas in our atmosphere is responsi-
ble for blocking out Ultra Violet Radiation
C. 365 hours
A. Ozone
D. 365 days
B. Carbon Dioxide
1266. A student heats salt water in a beaker
on a hot plate to model how ocean currents C. Oxygen
are generated. What is the most impor- D. Nitrogen
tant way in which this model fails to accu-
rately show how ocean currents are gen- 1271. Mid level puffy cloud
erated?
A. cumulonimbus
A. oceans have fresh, not salt water
B. altocumulus
B. oceans are heated from the top, not
the bottom C. stratocumulus
C. water in the ocean cannot move up and D. Nimbostratus
down
1272. The letter ‘H’ on a weather map stands
D. ocean water is not contained within
for a zone.
something solid
A. High pressure zone
1267. What is the first layer of the atmo-
sphere? (the one we live in) B. Low pressure zone
A. Troposphere C. Humid zone
B. Stratosphere D. Halitosis zone

1273. What weather would you find at a sta- C. Hurricanes form in regions of warm
tionary front? ocean waters, with high moisture and
light winds above the water surface.

A. Many days of wet weather
D. Hurricanes form in regions of cool
B. Dry, warm temperatures
ocean waters, with high moisture and
C. A mix of dry and wet days heavy winds above the water surface.
D. Mild weather 1277. Cold, dry air affecting the northern
United States in winter often comes from
1274. When a rapidly moving cold air mass re-
places and pushes up on a slower-moving
warm air mass, the result is a(n)- A. maritime polar air masses
A. stationary front B. maritime tropical air masses
B. cold front C. continental polar air masses

D. continental tropical air masses
C. warm front
D. occluded front 1278. The major difference between a tropical
storm and a hurricane is
1275. Auroras occur where Earth’s magne- A. rainfall amounts
tosphere traps high-energy particles in
which region of the atmosphere? B. wind speed
C. air temperature
A. Troposphere
D. latitude
B. Stratosphere
C. Thermosphere 1279. Either rain or snow that melted as it
falls. The upper atmosphere is warm. Liq-
D. Mesosphere uid in the air. As it falls, The bottom tem-
perature is below freezing and it forms ice
1276. A student is studying the formation of balls.
hurricanes. He reads a news item that
describes a hurricane that formed in the A. Hail
eastern Pacific Ocean with wind speeds of B. Freezing rain
120 kilometers per hour. In class, the stu- C. Sleet
dent says that if the hurricane had formed
in the northern Pacific Ocean near Alaska, D. Snow
it would have had stronger winds. The
1280. What is the atmosphere?
teacher tells the student that this is not
possible. Why does the teacher tell the A. the layer that contains the ozone layer
student that the suggestion about hurri- B. the layer in which weather occurs
canes is not possible?
C. the layer of gases that surrounds Earth
A. Hurricanes form in regions of warm D. the layer of water in the ocean
ocean waters, with dry air and heavy
winds above the water surface. 1281. When rain forms in relatively warm air
B. Hurricanes form in regions of cool falls through a layer of freezing air what
ocean waters, with dry air and light winds does it produce?
above the water surface. A. Rain

B. Sleet C. there is no pressure

C. Dew D. downward
D. Frost 1287. How do greenhouse gases increase our
temperatures?
1282. FM means?
A. Allow UV radiation to reach earth’s sur-
A. Permanent gradual change
face
B. Permanent immediate change
B. Create a hole in the ozone layer that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Temporary change lets in heat
D. none of above C. Trap thermal energy from returning to
space
1283. Which of the following is not a con-
tributing factor to the uneven warming of D. none of above
Earth’s surface? 1288. How does oxygen in the atmosphere
A. Land and Water warm at different help protect and support life on Earth?
rates. A. provides the air necessary for the sur-
B. Different color surfaces retain energy vival of living things
differently. B. creates cool temperatures on Earth by
C. The sun is farther from the Earth dur- reflecting UV rays
ing the winter. C. provides the gravity that all things
D. The sun’s rays hit the surface at vari- need to keep from floating away
ous angles. D. forms nutrients for plants by condens-
ing and falling to the ground
1284. What is a weather front?
A. Boundary between two air masses 1289. When cloud droplets combine to form
larger drops, they fall to Earth as
B. Where thunder and lightning are
A. ozone.
C. Large body of air with similar moisture
B. condensation.
and temperature
C. water vapor.
D. Gases that surround the earth
D. precipitation.
1285. The deflects moving air to the right
in the northern hemisphere and to the left 1290. What protects humans from UV rays?
in the southern hemisphere A. greenhouse gas
A. Coriolis effect B. asthenosphere
B. Wind effect C. ozone layer
C. Air mass effect D. troposphere
D. Wax on Wax off 1291. What is a dew point(best answer)
1286. In what direction(s) does air exert pres- A. The Clouds
sure? B. Pressure and Humidity
A. everywhere C. Capacity
B. no where D. Saturation

1292. In the global pattern of prevailing 1297. Continental tropical ( southwest desert
winds, winds that blow from polar high to- of the United States)
ward the subpolar low

A. warm and humid
A. polar easterlies B. cold and dry
B. trade winds C. cool and humid
C. easterlies D. warm and dry
D. westerlies 1298. Falling ice crystal are called
A. Snow
1293. The has a major effect on both
global wind patterns and surface currents B. Hail
in the ocean, and is even responsible for C. freezing rain
the direction that hurricanes spin.
D. rain
A. The water cycle
1299. What atmospheric layer contains most
B. The Coriolis effect of the mass of Earth’s atmosphere?
C. The ozone layer A. thermosphere
D. The tilt of the Earth’s axis B. troposphere
C. stratosphere
1294. When the Sun’s UV rays reach Earth, it
is D. mesosphere
A. conduction 1300. What is the lowest layer of the atmo-

sphere?
B. radiation
A. Troposphere
C. diffusion
B. Stratosphere
D. convection C. Mesosphere
1295. Cold air tends to move which direction D. The ocean
in the northern hemisphere? 1301. Valley glaciers are in the mountains but
A. Towards the north the ones that cover whole continents are
called
B. Towards the south
A. ice ages
C. Towards the east
B. ice sheets
D. Towards the west
C. icebergs
1296. How are decreasing temperatures likely D. icecream
to affect air density
1302. The existence of which group of organ-
A. They will increase the air density isms spans the shortest geologic time?
B. They will decrease the air density A. birds
C. They will stabilize the air density B. humans
D. They can either increase or decrease C. dinosaurs
air density D. placoderm fish

1303. What is the percentage of oxygen in the 1308. What impact does the Coriolis effect
atmosphere? have upon global winds in the northern
A. 78% and southern hemispheres?
B. 0% A. Global winds blow counterclockwise in
the northern hemisphere and clockwise in
C. 21%
the southern hemisphere.
D. 1%
B. Global winds blow clockwise in the
1304. An area is described as having mild tem- northern hemisphere and counterclock-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
peratures in the summer and being cool wise in the southern hemisphere.
and rainy in the winter. On a day in May, C. Global winds flow clockwise in both
the area experienced snow. What best de- the northern and southern hemispheres.
scribes this day in terms of weather and
climate? D. The Coriolis effect has no impact upon
global winds in the northern and southern
A. The weather was different from the hemispheres.
normal climate
B. The climate was different from the nor- 1309. which is not an element of weather and
mal weather climate
C. Weather and Climate are no different A. precipitation
D. Weather and Climate are changing into B. lake
new properties C. humidity
1305. In what layer do people live? D. wind
A. Mesosphere
1310. Bodies of water are to heat and hold
B. Stratosphere heat than rocks and soil.
C. Thermosphere A. quicker, less
D. Troposphere B. quicker, longer
1306. Constantly moving system of deep- C. slower, longer
ocean circulation driven by temperature D. quicker, longer
and salinity. It moves water around the
globe. 1311. The temperature at which air reaches a
A. California Current state where it can hold no more water.
B. Global Conveyor Belt A. Boiling point
C. Surface Currents B. Condensation
D. Gulf Stream C. Dew Point
1307. Neither air masses move. What type of D. none of above
front?
1312. What type of weather does the area at
A. Warm the equator most likely have?
B. Cold A. cooler weather and less rain
C. Stationary B. warmer weather with evaporation and
D. none of above rain

C. cooler weather and more rain 1318. What air mass brings warm, humid tem-
D. warmer weather with dry air peratures?

A. cP
1313. what does a thermometer do
A. measures air temperature B. cT
B. measures temperature C. mT
C. tells wind D. mP
D. tells convection zones
1319. degrees Celsius would be how many
1314. What type of front may be rainy or Kelvin?
foggy for several days? A. 473
A. Cold
B. 100
B. Stationary
C. 32
C. Occluded
D. 0
D. Warm
1315. If the ozone layer were to be completely 1320. Two belts if wind that blow almost con-
destroyed life on Earth would stantly from easterly directions and are lo-
cated on the north and south sides of the
A. grow larger equator
B. get smaller
A. polar easterlies
C. die from too much solar radiation
B. trade winds
D. stay the same
C. easterlies
1316. What causes global winds and convec-
D. westerlies
tion in the atmosphere?
A. continental deflection 1321. How do tornadoes form
B. the rotation of the Earth A. A thunderstorm only makes it happen
C. Moon’s gravity
B. High and cold air meets
D. unequal heating of the Earth by the sun
C. Rain
1317. Which of the following maps is best for
D. a tropical storm
analyzing changes in climatic patterns of
diverse ecosystems?
1322. What is the definition of weather?
A. A map that shows the weather temper-
A. a period of abnormally dry weather
atures for the continental United States
that lasts at least 2 years
B. A map that shows the climate zones for
different regions around the world B. the specific condition of the atmo-
sphere at a particular place and time
C. A map that shows the local weather in-
formation for a specific area C. a complex community of organisms
and the community’s environment
D. A map that shows the locations of
mountains and oceans D. a release of toxic gas

1323. What cloud is most likely associated 1328. The apparent deflective force of Earth’s
with severe weather rotation on all free-moving objects, includ-
ing the atmosphere and oceans
A. Pink
A. Coriolis Effect
B. Cumulonimbus
B. Revolution
C. Nimbus
C. Cain’s Effect
D. Cumulostratus
D. Jet Stream
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1324. What term describes the process by
which gases hold heat in the atmosphere 1329. ways clouds can form (ways of cooling
(like a blanket)? required for saturation)?
A. Green house effect A. Precipitation, High preasure uplift,
Convection
B. clouds
B. Frontal uplift, Convection, Low prea-
C. wind
sure uplift
D. water
C. Cold front, 100% RH, wind shear
1325. A radiosonde is: D. none of above
A. A tool that detects the specific location
1330. The primary source of oxygen for
of precipitation
Earth’s atmosphere during the past half bil-
B. A tool that measures temperature, lion years or so appears to be:
pressure, humidity and wind speed and
A. Photosynthesis
wind direction
B. Photo-dissociation
C. A tool for upper atmosphere data that
has sensors and a radio transmitter sus- C. The exhalation of animal life
pended from a balloon
D. Volcanic Eruptions
D. A way to develop a consistent uniform
process for meteorology 1331. What happens to a moist air mass as it
moves upward in the atmosphere?
1326. Which layer is the furthest from the sur-
A. it becomes warmer and forms clouds
face of Earth?
B. it becomes cooler and forms clouds
A. exosphere
C. its temperature remains the same
B. troposphere
D. its temperature varies greatly
C. stratosphere
D. mesosphere 1332. During a El Nino event the coast of
South America gets and the coast of
1327. Low combo cloud Indonesia gets
A. Cirrus A. dirty, clean
B. Cirrocumulus B. warmer, colder
C. Stratus C. colder, warmer
D. Stratocumulus D. taller, shorter

1333. Where weather occurs. 1338. The ratio of air’s water-vapor content
to its capacity to hold water vapor at that
A. stratosphere
same temperature is the

B. thermosphere
A. vapor pressure
C. troposphere B. relative humidity
D. mesosphere C. specific humidity
1334. During the daytime, the land warms up D. wet adiabatic rate
faster than water causing the air above 1339. Coastal cities are most likely to have
the land to be less dense and rise into the
atmosphere. This causes A. very hot climate
A. land breeze B. moderate climate

C. very cold climate
B. sea breeze
D. unpredictable climate
C. global winds
D. jet stream 1340. What’s the humidity and temperature of
a maritime tropical air mass?
1335. Currents move water as well as dis- A. Wet and cold
tribute and around the world B. Dry and warm
A. Sand, Fish C. Wet and warm
B. Heat, Nutrients D. Dry and cold
C. Waves, salt water 1341. A large, swirling, tropical low pressure
D. none of above system with fast winds
A. hurricane
1336. How do air masses contribute to
weather? B. thunderstorm
A. They move all the weather in the C. tornado
United States. D. flood
B. They can collide and cause fronts. 1342. When isobars are closer together, what
C. They bring the different seasons. does that signify?
D. All of these are true. A. stronger winds
B. an area of no wind
1337. When a molecule of air comes in contact
C. clear skies
with a warm surface, some of its heat is
transferred to the molecule. This makes D. clouds
the air molecule vibrate faster. What kind 1343. This type of cloud is thin and wispy and
of heat transfer is this? is found high up in the atmosphere
A. Conduction A. altocumulus
B. Convection B. cirrus
C. Radiation C. cumulonimbus
D. none of above D. stratus

1344. Where warm and cold air masses collide B. The equator has a larger area than the
are called North Pole.
A. Convective Lifting C. The equator is closer to the Sun than
B. Orographic Lifting to the North Pole.
C. Fronts D. The equator receives more direct sun-

light than the North Pole.
D. Convergence
1350. Air masses that have the greatest in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1345. What is the condition of the Earth’s at- fluence on weather in the mid-western
mosphere at a certain time and place? United States are
A. climate A. mT and cT air masses
B. temperature B. cP and mT air masses
C. weather C. mP and cP air masses
D. air pressure D. cT and cP air masses
1346. What instrument is used to measure hu- 1351. Which of the following clouds produces
midity? precipitation?
A. hygrometer A. nimbostratus
B. barometer B. cirrostratus
C. anamometer C. cumulus
D. thermometer D. fog
1347. The boundary where a cold air mass re- 1352. When we see lightning, which are we
places a warm air mass most likely seeing?
A. Warm Front A. Stepped leader
B. Climate B. Return stroke
C. Cold Front C. Dart leader
D. none of above D. Dart Stoke
1348. Which factor contributes to global 1353. The Corliolis Effect can cause
warming? A. global winds to seem to curve.
A. increased burning of fossil fuels B. surface currents to seem to curve
B. increased use of solar-powered cars C. deep ocean currents to seem to curve
C. better long-term weather forecasts D. both global winds and surface currents
D. changing distance between Earth and to seem to curve
the Sun
1354. What tool measures wind speed?
1349. Which of the following statements best A. Thermometer
explains why it is warmer at the equator
than at the North Pole? B. Barometer
A. The equator has more daylight hours C. Anemometer

per year than the North Pole. D. Rain gauge

1355. This landslide is an example of 1361. What conditions form a tornado?

A. wind abrasion A. Strong winds

B. glacial deposition B. Winds moving in different directions
C. wave action
C. Warm and cool air meeting
D. mass movement
D. All of these
1356. Which layer of the atmosphere has all
of Earth’s weather? 1362. Which of the following occurs because
of convection within the ocean?
A. mesosphere
B. stratosphere A. algae blooms
C. troposphere B. waves
D. thermosphere C. gravity
1357. Which of the following is known for ex- D. ocean currents

tremely calm winds AND sudden and se-
vere rain/thunderstorms? 1363. An air mass that forms over the North
Pacific Ocean brings what kind of weather
A. Doldrums to the Pacific coast?
B. Horse Latitudes
A. Dry and warm
C. Polar regions
B. Dry and cold
D. Westerlies
C. Wet and warm
1358. Thunderstorm cloud
D. Wet and cold
A. Cumulonimbus
B. Nimbostratus 1364. The amount of pressure change occur-
ring over a given distance
C. Cirrus
D. Contrail A. pressure gradient
B. pressure steepness
1359. What is air pressure?
A. Putting pressure on air to fill a balloon C. jet stream
B. Peer pressure D. prevailing winds

C. Wind
1365. How do differences in air pressure af-
D. The weight of the air pushing down on fect the movement of air?
the earth
A. Air always moves from areas of high
1360. The coldest layer of the atmosphere is pressure to areas of low pressure.
B. Air always moves from areas of low al-
A. Troposphere titudes to high altitudes.
B. Stratosphere C. Air always moves from areas of low
C. Mesosphere pressure to areas of high pressure.
D. Thermosphere D. Air always moves from east to west.

1366. A storm of tropical origin with winds A. a blizzard

sometimes in excess of 64 knots (74 B. a tornado
ml/hr).
C. a hurricane
A. Hurricane
D. a tsunami
B. Cyclonic Storm
C. Thunderstorm 1372. Where would you find a tropical mar-
itime air mass?
D. Tornado
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. over the ocean, near the equator
1367. The bottom layer of the atmosphere
B. over the ocean, near the poles
closest to earth is the
C. over a continent, near the equator
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere D. over a continent, near the poles
C. Mesosphere 1373. Measures temperature

D. Thermosphere A. thermometer
1368. What layer of the atmosphere is subdi- B. barometer

vided into the ionosphere and exosphere? C. anemometer
A. Troposphere D. none of above
B. Mesosphere
1374. What are the two main factors that de-
C. Stratosphere termine the climate of an area?
D. Thermosphere A. precipitation and humidity
1369. The warmest layer of the atmosphere is B. temperature and air pressure
C. wind conditions and humidity
A. Troposphere D. temperature and precipitation
B. Stratosphere
1375. Fossil evidence indicates that the earli-
C. Mesosphere est forms of life that appeared on Earth
D. Thermosphere were most likely -
1370. Measures relative humidity A. bacteria
A. thermometer B. trilobites
B. anemometer C. protists
C. hygrometer D. diatoms
D. none of above 1376. Which layer of the atmosphere has the
ozone layer?
1371. An area of low pressurehas formed in
the Texas Gulf. News reports concern- A. the stratosphere
ing the warm surfacetemperatures of the B. the troposphere
ocean water and the rotational movement
of the clouds areannounced hourly. What C. the mesosphere
may be forming? D. the thermosphere

1377. What type of weather front causes C. mesosphere

thunderstorms and tornadoes? D. thermosphere

A. cold
1383. Study of atmospheric phenomena
B. occluded
A. meteorology
C. stationary
B. weather
D. warm
C. atmosphereology
1378. What characteristic do global winds and D. none of above
local winds share?
1384. When a warm air mass and a cool air
A. They are both wind.
mass converge what is likely to happen as
B. They are both created by unequal heat- a result?
ing of the Earth’s surface.
A. The sky becomes clear
C. They both occur in small areas. B. Winds die down
D. They both occur in small areas. C. Cloud formation decreases
1379. What type of of air mass is dry and D. Stormy weather patterns develop
cold?
1385. Which gas in our atmosphere is most
A. mP abundant (available in large quantities;
B. mT plentiful)?
C. cP A. Carbon dioxide
D. cT B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
1380. Climate is the average weather condi-
tions recorded over a span of D. none of above
A. days 1386. Why is Earth’s atmosphere important to
B. weeks living things?
C. years A. It is a weather pattern that forms over

tropical Pacific Ocean
D. none of above
B. They are calm to weak winds located
1381. Rotating low-level storm that spawns near the equator and it is a global wind
tornadoes C. It provides underground water
A. Wall cloud D. It provides all the gases needed to
B. Jet stream surive and allows water to exist as a liq-
uid
C. Cumulonimbus
D. none of above 1387. What causes land breezes and sea
breezes to flow at the shore?
1382. All weather activity occurs in which A. Uneven heating and cooling of the land
layer of the atmosphere? and water.
A. stratosphere B. Prevailing winds driven by the angle of
B. troposphere the sun’s rays

C. The pull of the moon’s gravity and the 1393. Cold ocean currents generally come from
tides
A. The North Pole
D. The Coriolis effect
B. The South Pole
1388. Which dew point would result in a very C. The Equator
humid day?
D. Both A and B
A. 40 degrees
1394. Instrument used to measure wind speed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 50 degrees
A. Anemometer
C. 60 degrees
B. Barometer
D. 80 degrees
C. Psychrometer
1389. What is needed for animals and humans
D. Thermometer
to survive?
A. Oxygen 1395. What type of weather does a stationary
front bring?
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Mr. Fahler A. Sunshine
D. none of above B. Thunderstorms

C. Clouds
1390. What causes pressure differences in the
atmosphere? D. Several days of rain
A. unequal heating of the earth 1396. When I cold front is approaching, what
B. unequal amounts of humidity happens?
C. clouds A. warm air is pushing under cold air

causing humid weather and lower temper-
D. weather atures
1391. Formed at mid altitude. Often associ- B. warm air is pushing under cold air
ated with Fairweather causing humid weather and higher tem-
peratures
A. Cumulonimbus
C. warm air rises, cools, and causes rain
B. Cumulus and thunderstorms
C. Stratus D. cold air is pushed over warm air caus-
D. Cirrus ing rain and thunderstorms
1392. A sudden change in the weather at a cer- 1397. Global winds are named after the direc-
tain location is most likely caused by tion they are blowing
A. the arrival of an air mass A. to
B. a severe earthquake B. from
C. a high ocean tide C. at
D. an eclipse of the Moon D. none of above

1398. Which is most likely associated with an 1403. If the Earth stopped rotating winds
increase of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in would not curve because there would be
the environment? no Coriolis Effect.

A. an increase in health risks associated A. True
with UV radiation
B. False
B. an increase in levels of methane gas in
C. Orange juice
the atmosphere
D. none of above
C. an increase in ozone levels in the up-
per atmosphere 1404. Why are coastal cities warmer in the
D. an increase in acid precipitation winter than inland cities?
A. Water cools off slower than land, so
1399. Cold air mass that is carrying water is: the water in winter is warmer than the in-
A. continental tropical land cities.
B. continental polar B. Water cools off faster than land, so wa-
ter in winter is warmer than the inland
cities.
D. maritime polar
C. Water cools off faster than land, so wa-
ter in winter is cooler than the inland cities
1400. The change in wave frequency of energy
as it moves toward or away from an ob- D. Water cools off slower than land, so
server is the water in winter is cooler than inland cities.
A. Coriolis effect. 1405. a model that shows the weather condi-
B. Doppler effect. tions at a specific location on Earth’s sur-
face
C. convergence effect.
A. Foot model
D. radar effect.
B. Weather Model
1401. The layer of the atmosphere that most
C. Station Model
human activity occurs in.
D. Grocery Model
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere 1406. The ocean plays an important role in the
formation of storm systems such as hurri-
C. Mesosphere canes because
D. Thermosphere A. the wide, open area allows strong
winds to develop
1402. Air mass over the Northern Pacific and
Atlantic oceans. They carry cool moist air B. the warm, tropical waters provide the
energy that drives the storm
A. maritime polar
C. the high tides push the water higher
B. maritime tropical
on the beaches
C. continental polar
D. salt water holds thermal energy longer
D. continental tropical than fresh water

1407. Where does weather occur in the atmo- C. Tornado

sphere?
D. Anticyclone
A. stratosphere
B. thermosphere 1413. Swift high-altitude “river like” winds;
in the US these winds travel west to east
C. troposphere
A. jet stream
D. mesosphere
B. easterlies
1408. Cool air is dense so it has air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pressure C. air mass
A. less, high D. occluded front
B. less, lower
1414. Winter clouds, brings snow
C. more, high
A. Cirrus
D. more, lower
B. nimbostratus
1409. Atmospheric pressure at mean seal level
is 1000hPa. What approx. pressure do C. Cumulonimbus
you expect at 3000ft AMSL? D. Alto cumulus
A. 1013 hPa
1415. In addition to oxygen, which gases
B. 500 hPa make up the largest percentage of Earth’s
C. 900 hPa atmosphere?
D. 1013 kPa A. carbon dioxide, water vapor, and nitro-
gen
1410. What is the SI unit for temperature?
A. Celsius B. carbon dioxide, methane, and helium
B. Farhenhieght C. hydrogen, methane, and ozone

C. Gram D. hydrogen, helium, and water vapor
D. Kelvin
1416. Meteorologists are scientists who study
1411. What kind of weather is most closely patterns of change in temperature, precipi-
associated with low pressure systems? tation, humidity, and air pressure. Time is
spent collecting and recording data to ana-
A. Cold and dry
lyze long-term patterns as well as to make
B. Sunny and dry predictions of future conditions of the local
C. Warm and humid area. Which of the following are meteorol-
ogists investigating to determine average
D. Cloudy and rainy
patterns, such as those mentioned above,
1412. What is a destructive, rotating column over a long period of time?
of air that has very high wind speeds and A. Climate
that may be visible as a funnel-shaped
cloud? B. Temperature changes
A. Thunderstorm C. Weather
B. Hurricane D. Hurricanes

1417. In the Northern Hemisphere, winds B. stationary front

traveling north appear to curve east be- C. cold front
cause of the:

D. occluded front
A. trade winds
B. convection currents 1423. Layer of Earth’s atmosphere closest to
the ground; weather occurs here
C. Coriolis effect
A. stratosphere
D. polar easterlies
B. thermosphere
1418. They are low in the sky and look soft
C. troposphere
and fluffy.
A. Cirrus D. mesosphere
B. Cumulonimbus 1424. Which of these best describes tempera-

C. Cumulus ture inversion?
D. Stratus A. Temperature decreases in the upper

troposphere and pollution moves away
1419. Which instrument tells you the direction from the Earth.
from which the wind is blowing? B. Temperature decreases in the up-
A. compass per troposphere and pollution is trapped
B. wind vane closer to the Earth.
C. anemometer C. Temperature increases in the upper
troposphere and pollution moves away
D. a compass and a wind vane from Earth.
1420. Compared to cold air, warm air has the D. Temperature increases in the upper
potential to troposphere and pollution is trapped
A. Carry less water vapor closer to the Earth.
B. Carry more water vapor 1425. On a summer day in July, Marsha
C. The amount of water vapor is the same stepped barefoot onto the hot sand from
the cool ocean water. Why did the sand
seem so much warmer?
D. none of above
A. The sand has a lower specific heat and
1421. is air that flows from areas of high heats up rapidly
pressure to areas of low pressure.
B. The water has a lower specific heat
A. Convection Cells and heats up slowly
B. Wind C. The sand has a higher specific heat
C. Atmospheric Pressure and heats up slowly
D. none of above D. The ocean has a higher specific heat
and heats up rapidly
1422. Not much moves either mass. It remains
in place. Continuous precipitation occurs 1426. Which of these is NOT a scale that me-
along the front teorology is studied at?
A. warm front A. Micro

B. Synoptic 1432. Which ocean floor feature is a result of a

C. Macro ocean-ocean convergent plate boundary?
D. Global A. trench
B. mid-ocean ridge
1427. Three towns are located at similar lati-
tudes. Which town will have the least dif- C. continental shelf
ference between the average high temper- D. gyout
ature and the average low temperature?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a town in a desert 1433. Which instrument is used to determine
atmospheric pressure?
B. a town near the ocean
A. Thermometer
C. a town high in the mountains
D. none of above B. Barometer
C. Wind vain
1428. Electromagnetic energy traveling
through empty space (vacuum) is an ex- D. Anemometer
ample of-
1434. Growth of ice crystals by collisions with
A. conduction water droplets chilled below freezing
B. convection
A. aggregation
C. radiation
B. accretion
D. potential
C. coalescence
1429. In the name “thermosphere”, the prefix D. baiging
“thermos” refers to what?
A. heat 1435. A front is
B. atmospheric gases A. where warm air is cooling at earth’s
surface
C. altitude
D. meteors B. a line where hot and cold air are sepa-
rating
1430. Layered clouds that often cover much of
C. a line where two different air masses
the sky are called
meet
A. cumulus
D. where cold air is rising and forming
B. cirrus rain clouds
C. stratus
1436. Due to the angle of the sunlight hitting
D. cumulonimbus the Earth, unequal heating of the Earth’s
1431. Layer of the atmosphere where all surface occurs. This unequal heating pro-
weather occurs duces
A. troposphere A. the Greenhouse Effect

B. mesososphere B. the Coriolis Effect
C. Stratosphere C. winds
D. Thermosphere D. clouds

1437. The Coriolis effect is the curving of 1442. A blue line on a weather map represents
wind across Earth. What causes winds to a front
curve?

A. Warm
A. Earth’s revolution B. Cold
B. Earth’s magnetic field C. Occluded
C. Earth’s rotation D. Battle
D. Earth’s gravitational pull 1443. When a warm air mass gets caught be-
tween two cooler air masses and is cut off
1438. What is a weather pattern over a long from the ground, it is front.
period of time, such as a year?
A. a warm front
A. Weather B. a cold front
B. Climate C. an occluded front
C. El Nino D. a stationary front
D. La Nina 1444. Cottony, billowy, pictures
1439. In order for a hurricane to form, the A. Cirrus

Ocean waters must be B. Cumulus
A. Cool C. Stratus
B. Warm D. Nimbostratus
C. Salty 1445. In this layer, temperatures reach -85 de-

gree. Which layer of the atmosphere is the
D. Brackish coldest?
1440. A warning issued by the National A. Thermosphere
Weather Service when the conditions are B. Troposphere
right for a type of severe weather but
C. Memsophere
the weather is not currently happening is
called a D. Northpolesphere
A. weather happening 1446. Why do certain areas of the globe re-

ceive more direct sunlight than others?
B. weather watch
A. sunspots on the surface of the sun
C. weather warning
B. interference of other planets
D. weather bulletin
C. tilt of the Earth’s axis
1441. A line joining points of equal air pres- D. lines of latitude and longitude
sure
1447. An air mass takes on its source regions
A. isotherm
A. temperature and humidity
B. millibar B. elevation
C. isobar C. oxygen make up
D. barometer D. none of above

1448. Climate is determined by 1453. What phenomenon naturally warms

Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface?
A. latitude and precipitation
A. The formation of sunspots
B. dew point and wind
B. Changes in the shape of Earth’s orbit
C. temperature and latitude
C. Global warming
D. precipitation and temperature
D. The greenhouse effect
1449. What is the highest destruction level for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1454. Source of all energy in our atmosphere
a tornado on the Enhanced Fujita scale?
A. ions
A. 0
B. water cycle
B. 2
C. The Moon
C. 4 D. The Sun
D. 5
1455. During the day, the Sun heats the ocean
1450. a boundary between two air masses of and the ocean stores this energy. During
different density, moisture, or tempera- the evening the land cools and the ocean
ture sends the energy back to the air. As a re-
sult, you get a cool breeze. Which direc-
A. Station model tion would the breeze blow?
B. Front A. From land to water
C. Low pressure B. From water to land
D. Radio Model C. From the moon to the ocean
D. From the ocean to the moon
1451. Which of the following best explains
why a hot air balloon rises 1456. Isobars are lines on a map joining places
A. The heating of the air causes the pres- that have the same
sure inside the balloon to decrease A. wind speed
B. the heated air inside the balloon is less B. temperature
dense than the cooler air outside the bal- C. humidity
loon
D. air pressure
C. less dense air wants to be on top of
more dense air 1457. another word for air pressure
D. all of these A. air pressure

B. weight
1452. What instrument measures wind direc-
C. pushing down on Earth
tion?
D. atmospheric pressure
A. wind vane
1458. Review Earth’s four spheres. Where
B. hydrometer
would you place the clouds you see each
C. rain gauge day?
D. barometer A. lithosphere

B. hydrosphere 1464. Cold air traveling south from Canada is:

C. biosphere A. continental tropical

D. atmosphere B. continental polar
1459. Who discovered the Coriolis effect?
D. maritime polar
A. Albert Einstein
1465. What connects places on a weather map
B. Gustave Gaspard Coriolis that have the same pressure?
C. James Mathison Coriolis A. Thermolines
D. Thomas Luis Coriolis B. Baromolines
C. Thermobars
1460. If a rain gauge has 4 cm of precipita-
tion before a storm and 7 cm after a storm, D. Isobars
how much rain fell during the storm?
1466. Which value would you add to convert
A. 7 cm Celsius to Kelvin?
B. 4 cm A. 100
C. 3 cm B. 273
D. 11 cm C. 300
D. 98.6
1461. An instrument that measures atmo-
spheric pressure 1467. In what layer of the atmosphere does
all weather events occur?
A. isotherm
A. Stratosphere
B. barometer
B. Exosphere
C. isobar
C. Mesosphere
D. millibar D. Troposphere
1462. Large areas of air with similar charac- 1468. The outermost layer of the Earth’s atmo-
teristics sphere that is cold but gets much hotter as
A. Front you gain altitude is
B. Air masses A. Troposphere

B. Twilight zone
C. Anemometer
C. Mesosphere
D. Moisture
D. Thermosphere
1463. Ozone in Earth’s atmosphere is impor-
1469. Without the the wind would not
tant because it
blow and the water would not flow.
A. causes rain to fall. A. Clouds
B. absorbs harmful radiation. B. Gravitational Pull
C. absorbs harmful pollution. C. The Coriolis effect
D. helps clouds form. D. Sun

1470. Instrument that measures wind speed 1475. The symbol on a weather map for a
warm front is what?
A. barometer
A. a line with triangles on it
B. anemometer
B. a line with circles on it
C. wind vane
C. a line with semi-circles on it
D. thermometer
D. a line with circles on it
1471. Why do you think pirates despise the
1476. A tropical cyclonic storm having winds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
doldrums.
in excess of 119 km/hr
A. Because their wind turbines wouldn’t
A. hurricane
power their ships
B. tornado
B. Because they couldn’t get their pin-
wheel toys working C. storm surge
D. lightening
C. Because they don’t get a nice breeze
in their long pirate beards 1477. What causes air pressure to change
D. Because the calm winds interfered A. Population
with their treasure hunting
B. Air density
1472. In some years there are more hurricanes C. Precipitations
than usual. This is probably because D. none of above
A. the ocean is warmer than usual.
1478. If a cold front is currently passing
B. the ozone layer is very thin. through the city of Denver, what type of
C. there are more windy days than usual. weather conditions is Denver most likely
experiencing?
D. the gravitational pull of the Moon is
stronger. A. warm, foggy weather
B. cooler, dry weather
1473. Which of the following is NOT a reason
C. hot, dry weather
why the atmosphere is important?
D. thunderstorms
A. It is made of many layers.
B. It provides gases living things need. 1479. The temperature is so low, below freez-
ing. Condensation cannot occur. Water va-
C. It provides warm temperatures. por turns directly into solid. Forms a six
D. It protects us from UV rays and mete- sided snowflake.
ors. A. Rain
1474. The area over which an air mass forms B. Freezing rain
is: C. Snow
A. source region D. Hail
B. climate 1480. A Meteorologists study what?
C. weather A. Living Things
D. water vapor imagery B. Matter and Energy

1.3 Water Management 149
C. Climate and Weather A. Earthquakes

D. Weather and Animals B. Thunderstorms

1481. Which is NOT a severe weather we C. Blizzards
learned about D. Tornadoes
1.3 Water Management

1. Which water conservation technique is B. Agricultural
best for home gardeners? C. Domestic
A. water at night D. Municipal
B. drip-irrigation
6. What is a watershed?
C. xeriscaping
A. Land that collects and channels water
D. none of above
froma small body of water to a larger body
2. Property that allows water molecules to of water
stick together & perform hydrogen bond- B. the shape of the land determined by el-
ing: evation
A. solvation C. A natural stream of water of consider-
B. polarity able volume
C. thermodynamics D. a river and all its tributaries
D. evaporation 7. More that 80% of available water is used
every year is known as what?
3. of the world’s water resources are found
in A. Stressed Water
A. fresh water B. Water Usage
B. salt water C. Active Water Uses
C. icecaps and glaciers D. Water Stress
D. ground water 8. Agriculture in the Central Valley of Califor-
nia is only possible because of
4. Primary treatment of domestic sewage ef-
fluent is designed to effectively reduce A. groundwater
which of the following? B. dams/reservoirs
A. Nutrients C. water diversion projects
B. Metals D. all of the above
C. Organic material
9. Area where aquifer water naturally flows
D. Synthetic compounds to land under natural pressure; no pump-
5. Type of water use covered by hydroelectric ing.
dams: A. artesian well
A. In-stream B. aquiclude

C. aquitard 15. Which of the following is an effective way

D. plezometric surface of reducing phosphates in wastewater ef-
fluent?
10. You are selecting a new dishwasher. You A. Addition of iron salts.
do about 150 loads per year. The less ef-
ficient model uses 9 gallons per load. The B. Addition of bromates.
more efficient model uses 6 gallons per C. Addition of chlorine.
load. How many gallons of water will be
D. Addition of ozone.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
saved over the course of one year?
A. 45 gallons 16. A(n) is all of the land area that sup-
B. 250 gallons plies water to a particular river system
(also known as a drainage basin).
C. 450 Gallons
A. aquifer
D. 500 Gallons
B. watershed
11. Water pollution that comes from a single
source is considered C. river
A. point source pollution D. estuary

B. nonpoint source pollution 17. “Ensuring availability of water for future
C. thermal pollution generations” is a
D. ocean pollution A. Goal of water conservation
12. What is a flash flood? B. Strategy of water conservation
A. A sophisticated flood C. Key activity of water conservation

B. Power lines fallen in flood waters D. none of above
C. A deep flood 18. What percent of water is used for indus-
D. A flood that happens fast with little trial use?
warning
A. 5%
13. The water held behind a dam is called a B. 19%
A. natural lake C. 40%
B. reservoir D. 67%
C. nature preserve
19. The 3 major global uses of fresh water are
D. river
A. manufacturing goods, wastewater dis-
14. At the average American home, most wa- posal, and irrigation
ter use takes place
B. drinking, bathing and growing crops
A. in the kitchen
C. drinking, manufacturing goods, and
B. in the afternoon generating power
C. outdoors in the yard D. residential, agricultural, and industrial
D. during bathtime uses

20. Which planet is also known as blue planet? 25. Water turns from liquid into vapor.
A. Mercury A. Condensation

B. Venus B. Runoff
C. Earth C. Precipitation
D. Mars D. Evaporation
21. % of all water on Earth is in the oceans. 26. The amount of water on average used
Which of the following is the correct or- by individuals, based on domestic is and
der of the Earth’s water storage compart- agricultural or industrial consumption is
ments from largest to smallest? termed
A. ocean, lakes, groundwater, rivers, ice A. transpiration
caps B. fresh water
B. ocean, groundwater, rivers, ice caps, C. water scarcity
lakes
D. water footprint
C. ocean, ice caps, groundwater, lakes,
rivers 27. Desalination involves
D. ocean, lakes, ice caps, groundwater, A. Transferring water from one drainage
rivers basin where there is a surplus of water to
one where there is a deficit.
22. What is a source of pollution that can be
identified? B. The removal of salt and other minerals
from sea water.
A. non-point source pollution
C. The recycling of sewage water - this
B. weathering involves treatment and removal of solids
C. best management practice and impurities.
D. point source pollution D. Recharging of groundwater supplies
with reclaimed (recycled water).
23. Wetlands are beneficial to a water conser-
vation program because: 28. What percent of water is used for Agricul-
A. they remove excess nutrients tural use?
B. break down pollutants A. 5%
C. clean up agricultural runoff B. 19%
D. All of the Above C. 40%
D. 67%
24. nutrients that run off from the land, form-
ing nitrogen-rich algae blooms. 29. One reason polluted groundwater pollu-
A. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Ad- tion is difficult to clean is that
ministration (NOAA) A. the location of underground storage
B. Environmental Protection Agency tanks is not always known
(EPA) B. pollutants cling to the materials that
C. Bureau of Land Management (BLM) make up aquifers
D. United States Geological Survey C. runoff contaminates the water supply
(USGS) D. all of these

30. Chemical required by microbes to break 35. When water changes from a GAS to a LIQ-
down organic waste. UID?
A. O2 A. Condensation
B. NO2 B. Evaporation
C. SO2 C. Precipitation
D. none of above
D. N & P
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. When there is a location living without a
31. Which of the following does not make up sufficient supply of water because of the
part of Earth’s surface water? high demand for water is called what?
A. wetlands A. Water Insecurity
B. rivers B. Insufficient Water Supply
C. aquifers C. Water Deficit
D. lakes D. When there is water supply however
the efficiency of it being clean is less that
32. Soil salinization is common in fields that: higher income countries.
A. are constantly irrigated 37. An aquifer is
B. use polyculture crops A. a man-made “artificial” lake that is
C. use conservation tillage built to store water
D. are situated above aquifers B. ozone

C. smog
33. Which of the following would be the best D. an underground layer of rock and soil
way for a desert farmer to reduce water that has pores and is capable of absorbing
loss from evaporation and seepage and water
thus conserve water?
A. dig deeper wells 38. Process used in wastewater treatment
process where colonies of bacteria are
B. recycle cooling water and wastewater used to break down and ingest solid
C. install low-flow toilets waste.
D. install a drip irrigation system A. filtration

B. chlorination
34. Water contains C. coagulation
A. one hydrogen atom and one oxygen D. bioreactors
atom
39. Removing salt from sea water to create
B. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen
fresh water is referred to as what?
atom
A. Desalinisation
C. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen
atoms B. Desaltation
D. three hydrogen atoms and two oxygen C. Filtration

atoms D. Water Correction

40. Ground water is accessed by C. existing ecosystems changed, displac-

A. Drilling wells ing species and humans

B. Drip irrigation D. flood control
C. Check bunds 46. How is fresh water used in industry?
D. Constructing canals A. in manufacturing processes
41. What is the main reason why water is not B. in the disposal of waste products
desalinated?
C. to generate power
A. don’t know how
D. all of these
B. too expensive
C. difficult to transport 47. Which of the following treatments in-
volves addition of chlorine?
D. inaccessible
A. Primary treatment
42. Average American uses liters of water
B. Secondary treatment
daily.
C. Tertiary treatment
A. 400
B. 250 D. Initial treatment
C. 15 48. “The Clean Water Action Plan in the United

D. 310 States restricts factories from releasing
toxic waste into rivers.”How is water
43. While expensive and inefficient now, this water sustainably managed in the United
process of removing salt from ocean wa- States based on the paragraph above?
ter may help create more potable water in
A. Improve water consumption habits
the future
A. water transport B. Improve water quantity
B. towing icebergs C. Improve water quality

C. desalination D. Improve water technologies
D. xeriscaping 49. Large trash items are removed in
44. Which of the following is the major source A. coagulation.
of fresh water which is available in India? B. first filtration.
A. Ocean water
C. second filtration.
B. River water
D. aeration.
C. Pond water
D. Ground water 50. A hole that is dug into the ground to obtain
fresh water is called
45. Which of the following is a disadvantage
A. the recharge zone
of dams and reservoirs?
B. a well
A. man made lakes used for drinking wa-
ter, recreation and industry C. an aquifer
B. hydroelectric power D. a watershed

51. Point-source pollution and nonpoint- 56. Diseases that are found within water
source pollution differ in sources?
A. the kind of biological agents causing A. Airborne Diseases
the pollution
B. Waterborne Diseases
B. whether the source of the pollution is
agricultural or industrial C. Illness Through Water
C. the number or sources from which the D. Water Treatment Schemes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pollution is discharged
57. An underground zone from which ground-
D. whether the pollutants are chemical or
water can be obtained is:
physical agents
A. Recharge Zone
52. After the clarification step in wastewater
treatment, the solid waste called is B. An Aquifer
sold off and the liquid waste called C. Discharge Zone
moves on the be filtered and disinfected
D. Water shed
A. sewage and dirty water
B. sludge and effluent 58. Fertilizer, sewage, and animal feces can
C. effluent and slude wash in to water, leading to
D. dirty water and sewage A. thermal pollution
53. includes water that is absorbed into B. artificial eutrophication

the ground and flows below the Earth’s C. desalination
surface.
D. biomagnification
A. surface water
B. ocean water 59. What is fecal coliform a measure of?
C. groundwater A. A direct measurement of feces concen-
D. polar ice caps tration.
B. Number of bacteria (like E. coli) com-
54. Toxins often appear at higher concentra-
monly found in sewage.
tions in higher trophic levels due to
A. bioaccumulation C. The ability of water to transmit viruses
such as influenza.
B. biomagnification
D. The brownness of the water.
C. bionicle
D. bioengineering 60. A method of increasing water supplies that
has been successful, but expensive is
55. Phosphorus-containing fertilizer is a possi-
ble source of A. Desalination
A. biological pollution B. Cloud seeding
B. toxic chemical pollution C. Towing icebergs by ship from polar re-
C. nutrient pollution gions
D. none of these D. None of these is correct.

61. Most of the oil that pollutes the ocean C. Eutrophication

comes from
D. Non-point source contamination

A. operating boats and personal water-
craft 67. The process of changing a liquid into vapor
B. spills from oil tankers A. transpiration
C. runoff from cities and towns B. evaporation
D. leaking underground storage facilities C. excavation
62. Which of the following is NOT a desired D. condensation
effect in streams?
68. Process used in water treatment process
A. a pH of about neutral
where water is pushed through screens,
B. low salinity sand, gravel and coal to remove organisms
C. high temperature and trash
D. low nitrates A. filtration

B. chlorination
63. Layers of sand, gravel, and hard coal re-
move impurities in C. coagulation
A. coagulation. D. bioreactors
B. first filtration.
69. Los Angeles supports millions of people in
C. second filtration. a desert because they get their water from
D. chlorination. A. aqueducts
64. Groundwater provides % of the drink- B. groundwater
ing water in the USA. C. dams/reservoirs
A. 5
D. none of above
B. 50
C. 18 70. What percent of all water is fresh water?
D. 67 A. 2%
B. 33%
65. What is the term for an land above an
aquifer. C. 72%
A. river system D. 98%
B. recharge zone
71. How far can dam water travel when it is
C. aquifer unleashed from a broken dam?
D. watershed A. Tens of thousands of kilometres down-
stream
66. Excessive richness of nutrients in a lake or
other body of water. B. Thousands of kilometres
A. Groundwater C. Tens of kilometres
B. Run-off D. Less than 10 kilometres

72. What is causing cholera? 77. Which sector uses the most the water?
A. Mosquitoes in tropical parts of the A. Agriculture (farming)
world B. Industry (manufacturing)
B. People not using hand-sanitizers C. Domestic (home use)
C. Drinking water contaminated with D. none of above
sewage
78. Hydrograph is a graphical representation
D. Muddy water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of
73. is the dry, leeward side of a mountain A. surface run off

range receive little B. Ground water flow
A. Rain gague C. Rain fall
B. Rain shadow D. discharge flowing in the river
C. Rain cloud 79. Water diversion projects may involve the
D. None of the above movement of water to dry regions using
A. canals
74. What provides crops with water from B. dams
sources other than direct precipitation?
C. reservoirs
A. Aeration
D. sprinklers
B. Irrigation
80. The percentage of Earth surface which is
C. Coagulation covered by oceans and seas is
D. Xeriscaping A. 50%
75. The least efficient agricultural irrigation B. 65%
technique is C. 85%
A. overhead sprinklers D. 97%
B. water filled ditch 81. A huge lake is made behind the dam, which
C. drip irrigation is called a
D. none of above A. reservoir

B. canal
76. What is a disadvantage of an aqueduct? C. well
I. Diversion from the natural river chan-
nel flow II. Loss of water due to evapora- D. tank
tion III. Political problems due to location
82. Which one of these is a biological process
of water bodies
of treating water?
A. I and II A. Screening of sewage
B. II and III B. Aeration of sewage
C. I and III C. Exposure to ultraviolet light
D. I, II and III D. Addition of Chlorine water

83. Approximately what percentage of Earth’s C. 90%

water is fresh water? D. 60%

A. 97%
89. What is the project name in Lesotho?
B. 50% A. The Lesotho Highlands Water Project
C. 10% (LHWP)
D. 3% B. The Water Project of Lesotho (WPL)
C. The International Water Scheme of
84. In nature water may occur as
Lesotho (IWSL)
A. liquid D. The Lesotho Project for Water Man-
B. solid agement (LPWM)
C. vapours 90. Migratory behavior of salmon in the Pa-
D. All the above. cific Northwest is assisted by
A. Warmer temperatures
85. is a disposal method in which solid
organic wastes are subjected to combus- B. Building new Dams
tion so as to convert them into residue and C. Fish Ladders
gaseous products. D. cutting new migration channels paral-
A. Vermicast lel to rivers.
B. Screening 91. Includes pollution from mining activities
C. Incineration and erosion.
D. Bioaccumulation A. toxic chemical pollution
B. sediment pollution
86. The measure of the size and number of
C. biological pollution
spaces in the substrate.
D. none of these
A. wellsize
92. For what purpose is most of the water
B. porosity
used in American households?
C. aquitard
A. washing machine
D. friable B. dishwasher
87. Often water must be treated to become C. lawns
, safe to drink D. showering
A. pathogen
93. Storage, dams, reservoirs, water trans-
B. potable fers and desalination are examples of
C. clarified what?
D. bonifide A. How to increase the water supply

B. How to decrease the waterborne dis-
88. The percentage of surface of Earth which ease chance
is covered by water is
C. Keeping water safe and contained
A. 70% D. Contaminating the water to make it in-
B. 85% sufficient

94. what is the solid waste that settles at the 99. Sponge-like formations of rock, sand, or
bottom of the in the primary treatment of gravel that hold groundwater are called
waste water called?
A. Sludge A. aquifrers
B. Clarified water B. reservoirs
C. Scum C. oxbow lakes
D. Compost D. none of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. Runoff of sewage and agricultural wastes 100. Which of the following examples is con-
into coastal waters introduce sidered potable?
A. algae growth A. sewage
B. rainwater B. lead paint
C. surface runoff C. bottled water
D. oil spill D. standing water
96. Which of the following is not a source of 101. How much of Earth’s water is fresh wa-
wastewater? ter?
A. Hospitals A. 1%
B. Rain B. 3%
C. Mining C. 77%
D. Domestic activities D. 97%
97. Which of the following statements about 102. Groundwater is contain in rock forma-
use of fertilizers is correct? tions called
A. Apply as much organic fertilizer as pos- A. reservoirs
sible to agriculture land to ensure maxi- B. tanks
mum plant use and production.
C. pools
B. Only apply fertilizers during dry peri-
D. aquifers
ods.
C. Apply fertilizer before it rains to allow 103. The higher level of floods and droughts
nutrients to be washed into the soil for are led by
root systems to readily absorb. A. sand storms
D. Dig the fertilizers into the soil as deep B. lower precipitation
as possible. C. higher precipitation
98. What is the first step in the water treat- D. none of the above
ment process?
104. An example would be eutrophication; a
A. coagulation buildup of nutrients in the water that can
B. filtration lead to lower oxygen levels
C. flocs A. toxic waste pollution
D. concentation B. nutrient pollution

C. sediment pollution 110. Process used in water treatment pro-

cess where chemicals like alum is added
D. biological pollution
to water causing flocs- globs of trash that

pathogens stick to.
105. Water that has been used by humans, but
doesn’t contain sanitary waste is called A. filtration
B. chlorination
A. gray water
C. coagulation
B. septic water
D. bioreactors
C. potable water
111. What is the driving force of the water cy-
D. none of these cle?
106. This step removes odors and improves A. evaporation from the ocean
taste. B. heat from the sun
A. coagulation C. precipitation from rainfall
B. first filtration D. runoff from mountains
C. second filtration
112. Industrial water use includes which of the
D. aeration following activities?
107. What amount of the water on the earth A. irrigation

is salt water? B. power generation
A. 25% C. drinking
B. 72% D. car washing
C. 97%
113. What is the term used when a location
D. 99% has access to clean water to sustain good
health?
108. A paper towel has permeability. A rock
can have it too. Permeability is A. Water Insecurity
A. the inability to hold water B. Water Security
B. the ability to hold water C. Water Surplus
C. allowing water to pass through D. Efficiency Of Water Supply
D. none of above 114. Which of the following is one way that a

person can conserve water?
109. Globally the largest user of freshwater is
A. take a bath instead of a shower
A. residential
B. wash laundry in small, partial loads
B. industry
C. use a low-flow shower head to take
C. agriculture short showers
D. none of above D. water the lawn daily and at mid-day

115. Climate, geology, pollution, over absorp- 120. With landscaping, the best ways you can
tion, poverty are all examples of what? save water are by:
A. Factors affecting water security A. keeping your sprinklers running all day
B. Factors affecting water supply B. using plants that don’t need a lot of
C. Factors affecting water availability water and watering them sparingly during
D. Factors affecting water insecurity early morning or evening hours
C. uprooting all the flowers and plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
116. When it rains or snows, most water that
from the garden
doesn’t evaporate soaks into the ground.
This is called - D. not watering anything and lighting a lot
A. Ice of fires on your lawn
B. Groundwater 121. Water that falls to Earth as rain, snow,

C. Habitat sleet or hail is called
D. Freshwater A. condensation
117. Grit Chamber are used in which of the fol- B. evaporation
lowing process?
C. precipitation
A. Grit removal
D. transpiration
B. Screening
C. Aeration 122. Which of the following is a porous layer
D. none of above of an aquifer:
118. The SF Bay is fed by two watersheds, A. aquiclude

which of the below is NOT one of the two. B. artesian well
A. San Jaoquin River C. aquitard
B. Columbia River
D. bedrock
C. Sacramento River
D. none of above 123. Aquifer found between 2 aquicludes.
119. Which one of the following statements A. confined aquifer

is correct about the use of macro- B. unconfined aquifer
invertebrates in monitoring water qual-
ity? C. artesian well
A. Macro-invertebrate species are not af- D. aquitard
fected by seasonal changes.
B. Some macro-invertebrates can be dif- 124. Earth’s surface water is found in
ficult to identify. A. lakes
C. Sampling for macro-invertebrates is B. rivers
difficult.
C. streams
D. Use of macro-invertebrates is expen-
sive. D. all of these

125. What is a sewage treatment plant? C. Clean Water Act

A. The place where water is cleaned, fil- D. Endangered Species Act

tered and tested before re-entering the
water cycle. 130. An impermeable layer of soil and rock
B. The place where water is cleaned, fil- A. has few or no pores
tered and tested before going to our B. has many large pore and spaces
houses.
C. is likely to contain pollution
C. The network of pipes that carry
D. is Justin Beaver
sewage (dirty water) from our houses.
D. The place where water is bottled for 131. Conserving water for residential use
drinking. would involve
A. xeriscaping
126. Plentiful supply of water with water
amount exceeding the demand is an exam- B. drip irrigation
ple if what? C. reusing cooling water
A. Water Surplus D. manufacturing goods
B. Water Security
132. of the following are disadvantages of
C. More than enough water to encourage dam and reservoir systems; one is not.
growth of surrounding areas Choose the one that is not.
D. Water Scarcity A. Dams and reservoirs disrupt migration
of some fish.
127. Reusing the water used from houses (eg.
sinks, baths) is known as what? B. Dams and reservoirs displace people
behind the dam
A. Recycled Water
C. Dams and reservoirs lead to devastat-
B. Black Water
ing flooding if there is a failure.
C. Desalinisation
D. Dams and reservoirs increases down-
D. Grey Water stream flooding.
128. The electricity produced by dam is called 133. Which of the following test parameters
is a direct measure of pollution?
A. Hydroelectricity A. Conductivity
B. Water electricity B. Turbidity
C. Dam electricity C. Suspended solids
D. River electricity D. BOD
129. The made it illegal to release point- 134. Where is Lesotho based?
source pollution without a permit, set
water pollution standards, and funded A. North Africa
sewage treatment plant construction. B. Just outside of South Africa
A. Toxic Substances Control Act C. It is surrounded by South Africa
B. National Environmental Policy Act D. No where near Africa

135. Aquifers closest to the vadose zone. B. 97% of water is in the oceans and too
A. unconfined salty to drink.
B. confined C. Only 2.5% is drinkable and is stored in

icecaps, rivers, and lakes.
C. artesian well
D. none of above
D. aquitards
141. What 2 important nutrients are tested
136. Includes plastics and industrial waste, for in a body of water to check for eutroph-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
which can poison organisms, cause cancer, ication levels?
etc.
A. nitrates and phosphates
A. toxic chemical pollution B. dissolved oxygen and pH
B. biological pollution C. CO2 and O2
C. sediment pollution D. nitrates and dissolved oxygen
D. nutrient pollution
142. Pollution from mining is considered:
137. Hydrology helps in A. agricultural
A. deciding the minimum reservoir capac- B. industrial
ity
C. marine
B. forecasting the availability of quantity D. municipal
of water at reservoir site
C. predicting the effects on the river wa- 143. Regulation of water quality standards in
ter level on completion of dams the USA:
D. all the above. A. Brockovich Bill

B. Qualitative Water Usage Act
138. Water borne disease, pollution, food pro-
C. Potable Drinking Water Act
duction, potential conflict are all examples
if what? D. Clean Water Act
A. Factors affecting water security. 144. Which one of these is a mechanical pro-
B. Factors affecting water supply cess of treating water?
C. Nothing they are all their own thing A. Screening of sewage
D. Factors affecting water insecurity B. Aeration of sewage
C. Digestion of sewage
139. Removing salt, or saline, from sea water
is called D. Addition of chlorine to water
A. dehydration 145. Pumping water out of the ground faster

than it’s replaced by rainfall causing wells
B. demoralization
to dry up and high pumping costs is known
C. deconstruction as what?
D. desalination A. Over Usage Of Water
140. Why is fresh water a limited resource? B. Over Absorption
A. It isn’t because it is a renewable re- C. Over Pumping
source D. Over Extraction

146. What is the best way to CONSERVE wa- 152. Gray Water is suitable for
ter use in an agricultural setting A. cooking

A. low flow toilets B. Swimming pools
B. reuse cooling water C. Washing cloths
C. drip irrigation D. watering plants
D. high power overhead irrigation
153. Fluoride may be added in
147. What is Palar pani? A. coagulation.
A. Spring B. additional treatment.
B. Milk C. second filtration.
C. River water D. aeration.
D. Rain water
154. Which water source is the most reliable
148. pollutants entering waterways from a to use?
general area, such as runoff from farmland A. ice
or suburban communities
B. groundwater
A. Pollution
C. surface water
B. Point Source Pollution
D. none of above
C. Non-point Source Pollution
D. Turbidity 155. Includes pathogens, or disease-causing
organisms and viruses; this can come from
149. When a volcano ejects acid lava, the erup- human or animal waste
tion is usually A. nutrient pollution
A. light and less violent B. toxic chemical pollution
B. soft and less violent C. sediment pollution
C. loud but less violent D. biological pollution
D. loud and more violent
156. The nutrient-rich water mixed with chem-
150. Sardar Sarovar Project has been con- ical fertilizers and pesticides, promotes
structed on the growth of weeds resulting in
A. Narmada A. De-eutrophication
B. Kaveri B. Eutrophication
C. Mahanadi C. Aeration
D. none of above D. None of these
151. Most of Earths fresh water is frozen 157. Using groundwater at a rate faster than
into? it is naturally re-supplied is called:
A. Lakes A. Over draft
B. Rivers B. Wetland
C. Ice C. Water budget
D. Groundwater D. Influent streams

158. Desalination is a promising source of wa- 162. Polluted ground water is difficult to clean
ter for some locations because: up because
A. desalinated water can be delivered at A. groundwater is deep in the ground and
a lower cost than many water sources dispersed through large areas of rock
B. desalination produces water purer B. pollutants cling to the materials that
than surface water make up the aquifer and contaminate the
clean water
C. desalination requires less energy than
NARAYAN CHANGDER
transporting water over long distances C. the recycling process of groundwater
can take hundreds or thousands of years
D. desalination is a potential water
source for even the most arid (dry) coastal D. all of the above
area
163. Which of the following activities accounts
159. Which of the following environmental is- for the greatest fresh water used world-
sues impact oceans. wide?
A. oil spills A. drinking
B. toxic chemicals such as Mercury B. washing
C. nutrients that run off from the land, C. manufacturing
forming nitrogen-rich algae blooms D. irrigating crops
D. All of the above
164. What does chlorination do to the water?
160. Which of the following best describes A. Removes microorganisms
how a frozen river can cause a flood?
B. Cleans the water
A. The water behind the ice dam collects
C. Makes the water taste nice
and when the dam breaks, it causes flood-
ing upstream. D. Removes twigs and sediment
B. The ice in the river cracks into pieces- 165. When surface water makes its way
that eventually create a dam causing the through porous rock and into an aquifer,
water to overflow. it is called:
C. The ice in the river cracks causing the A. porosity
water to overflow.
B. groundwater
D. The ice in the river melts too quickly
and causes a flood. C. runoff
D. saline
161. Surface water becomes groundwater
when it 166. Which of the following fish would likely
A. moves below the water table have the largest amount of Mercury.
B. condenses to form drops of liquid wa- A. shrimp

ter B. salmon
C. percolates into the recharge zone C. shark
D. flows onto the ground through a spring D. tuna

167. Layers of sand, gravel, or rock lying be- B. freeze

low the water table are called
C. evaporate

A. Aquducts
D. boil
B. Aquifinas
C. aquifers 173. Categorically, the largest consumer of
water in the U.S. is for what purpose?
D. Recharge zone
A. agriculture
168. The supply of water to land or crops to
B. industry
help growth, typically by means of chan-
nels is the process of? C. municipal
A. Interrogation D. recreation
B. Instigation
174. The step that prevents bacterial growth
C. Irrigation is
D. Interdependance A. coagulation.
169. What all shouldn’t be thrown in the B. additional treatment.
drains
C. second filtration.
A. Leftover food
D. chlorination.
B. Solid wastes
C. none of the above 175. Boiling water and collecting steam to iso-
late fresh water from salt water is best
D. both of the above known as
170. is the total amount of water taken A. water purification
form any given natural source
B. water pollution
A. The Figi effect
C. groundwater recharging
B. The Nestle Water effect
D. desalination
C. withdrawal
D. disgard 176. Water treatment involves
A. adding pathogens
171. A factory is located next to a river. The
factory has a sewage pipe running straight B. adding mercury
out of the factory and into the river. This
C. adding chlorine
is an example of
D. removing flouride
A. point source pollution
B. non-point pollution 177. A well or spring results from which water
C. tertiary receiving stream gushes without being pumped.
D. primary treatment A. artist

B. artesian
172. In the water cycle, energy from the sun
causes water to C. Articulation
A. condense D. resevoir

178. What is the correct definition to describe A. Tamil Nadu

an area with water surplus? B. Kerala
A. An area where water demand is C. Assam
greater than the water supply.
D. Goa
B. An area where the supply is more than
enough to meet the needs of people and 183. Which describes a benefit of dams? I.
industries. Creates a reservoir for drinking water II.
Powers turbines that generate electricity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. An area in which has just the right
III. Improves salmon migration
amount of water to meets needs.
A. I and II
D. An area in which most of the time has
enough water to meet needs. B. I and III
C. II and III
179. Use of water from the Ogallala aquifer
in the Great Plains region of the United D. I, II and III
States is not sustainable because 184. Select the correct order for the water
A. it is recharged more slowly than it is treatment process.
being used. A. Sedimentation - Chlorination - Filtra-
B. industrial use has fallen off but house- tion
hold use has expanded. B. Sedimentation - Filtration - Chlorina-
C. it originated many centuries ago. tion
D. Increase usage for agriculture to pro- C. Filtration - Chlorination - Sedimenta-
duce ethanol tion
D. Filtration - Sedimentation - Chlorina-
180. A reservoir is
tion
A. a place where seawater is stored for
desalination. 185. Many areas of the world that do not have
adequate fresh water have become habit-
B. an artificial lake formed in front of a able because
dam.
A. rainfall patterns have changed
C. the place where all the toilet paper is
hoarded. B. water management projects have di-
verted water to the areas
D. an artificial lake formed behind a dam.
C. icebergs have been towed in to pro-
181. Percent of world population that does not vide fresh water
have access to clean drinking water. D. people have practiced water conserva-
A. 5% tion
B. 25% 186. Which of the following is a source of
C. 50% point-pollution
D. 19% A. unlined landfill
B. runoff from city streets
182. Which is the first state in India to make
roof top rain water harvesting compulsory C. precipitation containing air pollution
to all the houses? D. runoff from farms

187. Which of the following statements helps 192. Bacteria, viruses, and parasitic worms
to explain why fresh water is a limited re- are considered and must be removed
source? from water.

A. Most of Earth’s water is salt water A. heavy metals
B. About 71% of Earth’s surface is cov- B. solid waste
ered by water C. pathogens
C. Most of Earth’s fresh water is not liq- D. poisons
uid water usable by humans
193. Mine site drainage can often cause this:
D. Most water is salt water & most fresh
water is not usable by humans A. Cultural eutrophication
B. Acidic runoff
188. It is difficult to predict when this natural
disaster will occur. C. Saltwater intrusion
D. none of above
A. Flood
B. Drought 194. The rainfall at any place is described by
C. Both A. its intensity
D. none of above B. its duration

C. its frequency
189. when there is no access to sufficient safe
D. All the above.
water?
A. Water Insecurity 195. Water on the top the earth can form lakes
or rivers, these are termed
B. Water Deficiency
A. fresh water
C. Lack of clean water
B. infiltration
D. Water Deficit
C. surface water
190. The United Nations estimates that D. groundwater
people live in regions that have a scarcity
of water. 196. Freshwater accounts for what percent of
total water in the world?
A. 500 Million
A. 97%
B. 1.2 Billion
B. 22%
C. 3.5 Billion
C. 77%
D. 2 billion
D. 3%
191. What is the most effective type of irriga- 197. Water that fills the cracks and spaces in
tion? underground soil and rock layers is called
A. center pivot method A. salt water
B. flood irrigation B. rainwater
C. drip irrigation C. groundwater
D. using sprinklers D. water vapor

198. Sources of ocean pollution include 204. The largest single use of water for indus-
A. oil spills trial purposes is for
B. direct dumping of wastewater A. canning and food processing.
C. activities on land B. cooling.
D. all of these C. power production.

D. washing produce in food processing in-
199. Which is not a use of fresh water in industries.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dustry?
A. cooling 205. Many areas of the world without ade-
quate fresh water have become habitable
B. waste disposal because:
C. electricity generation A. water conservation has been imple-
D. crop irrigation mented.
B. icebergs have been towed in to provide
200. During secondary treatment in the aera-
fresh water.
tion tanks, what is working on the sewage
waste? C. water management projects have di-
verted water to the area.
A. microorganisms
B. humans D. rainfall patterns have changed.
C. air titration 206. Against the construction of which one of

D. oxidation/reduction the following multipurpose projects was
the Narmada Bachao Andolan launched?
201. Sewers are made of? A. Sardar Sarovar
A. Polyvinyl Chloride B. Bhakra Nangal
B. Stainless steel (SS) C. Rihand
C. Plastic D. Tehri
D. Ammonium Chloride
207. In , waste from homes and businesses
202. Water pollution that comes from many is piled into large, carefully-engineered
sources is considered mounds.
A. point source pollution A. sanitary landfills
B. nonpoint source pollution B. hazardous waste landfills
C. thermal pollution C. waste incinerators
D. ocean pollution D. none of these
203. Over-irrigation can result in 208. of industrial water use is:

A. sediment capture A. used for cooling
B. water diversion B. nonconsumptive
C. recharge C. from surface water
D. salinization D. all of these

209. Nutrients in water that require microbial 215. All of the following are valid criteria for
decomposition. the sustainable use of water except:

A. biochemical oxygen demand A. Develop water efficient technologies
B. dissolved organic matter B. develop sufficient water supplies to
C. bioaccumulated pollutants guarantee human health and well-being
D. nitrogen oxides C. give volume discounts to the largest
water consumers
210. Where most freshwater is stored is in
A. Groundwater D. promote the use of water-efficient
technology
B. pH
C. Glaciers 216. Fertilizers are classified as which kind of
D. Sea water water pollutant?
211. is the fraction of withdrawn water A. organic chemical

that is lost B. inorganic chemical
A. degraded C. heavy metals
B. Wihrawal
D. physical agents
C. Consumption
D. Water 217. Which water source is the easiest to use?
212. At what time usually rainfall is recorded A. ice

in India? B. groundwater
A. 4 P.M. C. surface water
B. 6 P.M.
D. none of above
C. 8 P.M.
D. 10 P.M. 218. In order to have a reservoir you must
213. Plants absorbing groundwater and pump- A. dig a well

ing it into the atmosphere is called B. construct a dam
A. Transpiration C. build an aquaduct
B. Sublimation
D. none of above
C. Evaporation
D. None of the above 219. A resevoir is
214. In general, water use worldwide is dom- A. a man-made “artificial” lake that is
inated by built to store water
A. Agricultural use B. ozone
B. Domestic needs C. spongebob round head
C. Industrial activities D. an underground layer of rock and soil
D. All of these are sectors that use water that has pores and is capable of absorbing
about equally water

220. While expensive and inefficient now, the A. 3, 650 liters

removal of salt from ocean water may help B. 36, 500 liters
create more potable water in the future
C. 365, 000 liters
A. water transport
D. 3, 650, 000 liters
B. towing icebergs
C. desalination plants 225. Precipitation is another term for:
D. xeriscaping A. climate change
NARAYAN CHANGDER
221. Which of the following group of practices B. rain/snow
reduces water pollution from agriculture C. evaporation
activity? D. transpiration
A. Use of buffer zones, field drains and
tillage. 226. Which Act strengthened the laws against
dumping waste in U.S. waters?
B. Use of buffer zones, contour farming
and tillage. A. Marine Protection, Research, and
Sanctuaries Act
C. Contour farming, leaving land fallow
and use of field drains. B. Clean Water Act
D. Contour farming, use of field drains C. Water Quality Act
and buffer zones. D. Both the Marine Act & the Clean Water
222. Improved water quality can be achieved Act
by 227. You are selecting a new dishwasher. You
A. appropriate use of water do about 150 loads per year. The less
B. careful water storage and handling efficient model uses 9 gallons per load.
The more efficient model uses 6 gallons
C. proper land management per load. How much money will be saved
D. all of the above on water if you select the more efficient
model and the price of water is $0.75 per
223. Water scarcity occurs when 1, 000 gallons?
A. Renewable water supplies are slow to A. $0.34
recover.
B. $3.30
B. Populations are evenly dispersed.
C. $330
C. Renewable water supplies are slow to
diminish. D. $3, 000
D. The demand for water exceeds the 228. What type of system targets individual
available amount or when poor quality re- plants and introduces water directly into
stricts its use. the soil?
224. If 20 square meters of lawn requires A. reverse osmosis
about 50 liters per square meter per day, B. waterlogging
how much water is needed in one year
to water it, assuming the rate does not C. drip irrigation
change throughout the year? D. desalination

1.4 Crop Production 171
229. A rock’s ability to allow the flow of wa- 231. Water security refers to
ter through it is called
A. when there is a reliable supply of clean

A. permeability
water for the social and economic well-
B. porosity being of people in an area.
C. recharge
B. when there is not a reliable supply of
D. distribution clean water for the social and economic
230. Water is a what type of resource? well-being of people in an area.
A. renewable resource C. when there is water in an area but the
B. non-renewable resource countries lacks the money and infrastruc-
ture to access it.
C. continuous resource
1.4 Crop Production

1. Watering of crops depends on 5. In which season Rabi crop is grown
A. kind of plants A. Winter
B. type of season B. Rainy season
C. type of soil C. Summer
D. all of the above D. Autumn season
2. Which irrigation system saves most water
6. WHAT IS CROP?
and is used for fruit trees
A. Drip irrigation A. WHEN DIFFERENT PLANTS ARE CUL-
TIVATED ON SAME PATCH OF LAND ON
B. Sprinkler irrigation LARGE SCALE
C. Rahat system B. WHEN SAME TYPE OF PLANTS ARE
D. All CULTIVATED IN SAME PATCH OF LAND ON
LARGE SCALE
3. Harvesting is a process ofanswer choices
C. WHEN SAME TYPE OF PLANTS ARE
A. separating grains from stalk
CULTIVATED IN DIFFERENT LANDS IN
B. preparing soil for sowing seeds LESS NUMBER
C. collecting ripened crops from the field D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
D. removing undesired plants from the
crop field 7. Which of the following initiatives does not
belong to the green revolution?
4. which of the following is not a Kharif crop
A. Improvement in the irrigation facilities
A. paddy
B. Application of better scientific meth-
B. maize ods
C. groundnut C. Providing disease resistant and high
D. peas yielding seeds

D. Distribution of organic fertilisers and 14. These are accessories usually used in the
pesticides to farmers preparation of land that is either pulled by
a working animal or mounted to a machine.
8. What does NPK stand for?answer choices
A. Farm Hand Tools
A. Nutrients,
B. Farm Implements
B. Pancakes
C. Farm Equipment
C. Kittens
D. none of above
D. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. Crop rotation prevents
9. Seed drill is used for
A. Badgers
A. cleaning the seed
B. A build up of pests
B. sowing
C. The farmer having to plough
C. harvesting
D. Water pollution
D. weeding
16. A nonpolluting control for insect eggs is
10. The management and care of farm animals
by humans for profit is known as
A. Fumigants
A. Granary
B. Aerial chemicals
B. Animal husbandry
C. Spray oil
C. Poultry farm
D. Chemical powder
D. Warehouse
17. The practice of leaving the field unculti-
11. Winnowing is done by which machine vated is called
A. Tractor A. wheat
B. Winnower B. harvesting
C. Winnowing C. fallowing
D. Bike D. weeding
12. A disease, common in tropical areas of the 18. This plant flowers when day length is
world, that is caused by the the protist shortest
plasmodium
A. long day
A. E. Coli B. short day
B. Black Plague C. day neutral
C. Malaria D. day positive
D. Smallpox
19. Which of the following is NOT a major food
13. Bakelite is an example of or fiber crop in the western region?
A. thermosetting plastic A. Corn
B. thermoplastic B. Orange
C. synthetic fiber C. Wheat
D. none of the above D. Cotton

20. The unwanted plants that that grow along 26. Which of these is not a method of soil re-
with the crops are called plenishment?

A. fertilisers A. Crop rotation
B. manure B. Using fertilizers
C. weeds
C. Field fallow
D. kharif crops
D. Transplantation
21. Some plants secrete chemicals that
27. What are the advantages of preparing the
A. Stimulate roots
soil?
B. Inhibit root growth
A. Makes decomposition by microbes
C. Decay roots easier.
D. Increase root growth
B. Makes the top soil nutrient rich.
22. The process of rearing silkworms on a C. Allows roots to penetrate the soil eas-
large scale is called ily.
A. Vermiculture
D. All of these.
B. Pisciculture
C. Sericulture 28. To improve the varieties of crop the tech-
nique employed is
D. Apiculture
A. Transplantation
23. Which of these crops is suitable for grow-
ing in the monsoon season? B. Broadcasting
A. Linseed C. Hybridisation
B. Soya beans D. Cultivation.
C. pea
29. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAN FEED A
D. Barley GROWING POPULATION?
24. How do crop rotation increase soil nutri- A. TRADITIONAL METHOD OF CROP PRO-
ents DUCTION
A. They add nutrients to soil B. MODERN METHOD OF IMPROVED
B. They use different nutrients from soil CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT
C. Both C. INDUSTRIAL EVOLUTION
D. none of above D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
25. This is made from animal dung and dead
30. What are weeds?
leaves to provide nutrients to the crops-
A. Food grain plants
A. Fertilizers
B. Insecticides B. Oil yielding plants
C. Manures C. Unwanted plants
D. Weedicides D. none of above

31. The branch of science that deals with grow- C. Weeding

ing plants and raising livestock for human
D. Tilling
use is
A. agriculture 37. Weeds can be removed by using
B. horticulture A. Pesticides
C. pisciculture B. Bactericides
D. animal husbandry
C. Fungicides
NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. Combines are used for: D. Weedicides
A. harvesting and threshing both.
B. threshing 38. The cultivation of one type of plants, on a
large scale, is called.
C. harvesting the crops
A. Agriculture
D. sowing of seeds
B. Crop production
33. What we call the process of cross breed-
ing of two different varieties for improv- C. Agricultural practices
ing the yield? D. Al the above
A. Hybridization
39. The cultivating land for growing crops is
B. Emasculation
known as.
C. Harvesting
A. Crop production
D. Lodging
B. Agriculture
34. Supply of water to crop at the regular in-
C. Kharif and Rabi
terval is known as
A. harvesting D. All are correct
B. sowing 40. THE ORGANIC SUBSTANCE OBTAINED

C. threshing FROM DEAD PLANTS AND ANIMALS
D. irrigation WASTES IS
A. MANURE
35. Propagation method in which roots form
on the stem of the plant while it is still B. FERTILIZER
attached to the parent plant. C. IRRIGATION
A. Air layering
D. AGRICULTURE
B. Cloning
C. Grafting 41. Which of the following is rich in organic nu-
trients?
D. Cutting
A. Potash
36. Supply of water to plants at regular inter-
vals is called B. Ammonium Sulphate
A. Crop rotation C. Urea
B. Irrigation D. Compost

42. Which of the following is not a Harvest C. for, on

Festival? D. at, above

A. Holi
48. Odd one out
B. Pongal
C. Diwali A. Wheat
D. Dussehra B. Linseed
C. Cotton
43. WHICH OF THESE IS A KHARIF CROP?
D. Muskmelon
A. WHEAT
B. RICE 49. Nylon is not used for making
C. PEAS A. ropes for climbing
D. POTATO B. blankets
44. For the accurate application of herbicides, C. parachutes
a sprayer should be properly D. seat belts in cars
A. Cleaned
50. If you are given a piece of land for cultiva-
B. Calibrated
tion what will you do
C. Trimmed
A. Adequate watering to retain moisture
D. All of the above in soil
45. The process of loosening and turning of the B. Ploughing and Tilling the soil
soil using a tool or an implement is called C. Levelling and adding Manure to the soil
D. All the above options to be followed
A. Ploughing
B. Levelling 51. Why is it necessary to maintain distance
between two crops while the sowing of
C. Sowing
seeds?
D. Broadcasting
A. To prevent overcrowding
46. Which of the following procedure is NOT B. To prevent competition between the
correct in sharpening shears? crops for sunlight, nutrients, water, etc.
A. Step 1 Use some oil, like WD-40
C. Because its fun
B. Step 2 Start scrubbing with wire brush
D. To protect it from weeds
C. Step 3 Using your finger, to check, to
feel how sharp the blade is. 52. This is the process of removing the api-
D. Step 4 Use water to helps your pruner cal meristem to produce a bushy well
open and close smoothly without catching branched plant
A. pinching
47. Farmers often rely rainfall the nec-
essary moisture. B. forcing
A. on, for C. budding
B. in, at D. bushing

53. It is the cultivation of flowering and orna- 59. Use of automatic or controlled systems to
mental plants. apply water to the soil
A. Floriculture A. Fiber Crops
B. Horticulture B. Exports
C. landscape design C. Irrigation
D. pomology
D. Organic Agriculture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. A ploughed field has big pieces of soil
called. 60. Giving water to roots drop wise is called
A. Crumbs A. Drip irrigation

B. Seed drill B. Sprinkler irrigation
C. Sowing C. Rahat system
D. Broadcasting D. All
55. Modern method of irrigation is 61. The practice of growing two or more dis-
A. tubewell similar crops in the same field one after
B. sprinkle irrigation another is
C. moat A. tilling
D. pumps B. plantation
56. Using mechanical assistance and /or lifting C. weeding

aid D. crop rotation
A. manual handling
62. Which of the tips on landscaping design
B. reducing that, is NOT limited with planting of trees
C. move smoothly in turf lawn?
D. keep head up A. Nourish regularly
57. This type of plant is unaffected by day B. Maintain a distance
length C. Study the climate
A. long day D. Maintain a focal point
B. short day
C. day neutral 63. Which of the following statements about
fertilisers is correct?answer choices
D. day positive
A. Fertilisers increase the water-holding
58. One of the advantages for irrigation is: capacity of soil
A. crops grow quickly B. Fertilisers are weedicides
B. water evaporates quickly C. Fertilisers contain decomposed mat-
C. a layer of salt may form on the surface ter
of the soil can be toxic to plants D. fertilisers contains inorganic chemi-
D. none of above cals

64. When grafting, what is the name of the 70. What is seed drill used for?
newly installed shoot or top of the plant? A. Sowing seeds uniformly

A. Tissue B. Sowing seeds close together
B. Rootstock C. Water the seeds
C. Corm D. Prepare soil for seeds
D. Scion 71. Electrical switches are made up of
65. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED FOR A. melamine
STORGAGE B. bakelite
A. SILOS C. PVC
B. GRANARIES D. polythene
C. BOTH A AND B 72. Which of the following statements about
D. NONE OF THESE fertilisers is correct?
A. Fertilisers increase the water-holding
66. Name the method by which seeds are scat-
capacity of soil.
tered in the field manually.
B. Fertilisers increase soil fertility in the
A. Harvesting
long run.
B. Broadcasting
C. Fertilisers contain decomposed mat-
C. Logging ter.
D. Protecting D. Fertilisers contain inorganic salts.
67. What is the desired system for watering 73. THE PROCESS OF LOOSENING AND TURN-
cut flowers? ING THE SOIL IS CALLED
A. Overhead sprinklers A. BRODCASTING
B. Mist systems B. IRRIGATION
C. Ooze tubes and perimeter irrigation C. PLOUGHING
D. House with water breaker D. LEVELLING
68. Legumes are grown in season 74. synthetic fiber made from coal, water and
air is
A. Winter
A. rayon
B. Summer
B. nylon
C. Monsoon C. acrylic
D. Spring D. polyester
69. In which of the following methods of irri- 75. The process of loosening and turning the
gation rotating nozzles are used? soil is known as:
A. Moat A. Winnowing
B. Drip system B. Ploughing
C. Chain pump C. Harvesting
D. Sprinkler system D. Threshing

76. A seed drill helps in i and ii 81. It refers to the terrain of the soil whether
. The information in which alternative it is in the hill or low land. It determines
completes the given statement? the ease of transporting farm implements
and produce kind of plant.
A. sowing seeds at a uniform distance,
harvesting the produce A. climate
B. sowing seeds at a uniform distance, B. soil
saving time C. topography
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. saving time, spreading manure D. accessibility
D. harvesting the produce, spreading ma-
nure 82. Select the traditional system of irrigation
from these.
77. In today’s world, where water is a scarce A. Sprinkler system
resource, which among the following irri-
gation methods is most feasible and sus- B. Pulley system
tainable? C. Drip irrigation
A. Sprinkler system D. Field fallow
B. Drip system 83. Terminal or stem tip cuttings are prepared
C. Tube well from:
D. Chain pump A. A second year tissue
B. New growth
78. Weeds are the:
C. The bases of stems
A. unwanted plants growing along the
crop D. Any part of the plant
B. insects and pests 84. Which part of a vegetable crops need large
C. main crop plants amounts of potash fertilizer?
D. chemical substances A. Pod

B. Leaf
79. A famous harvesting festival is-
C. Fruit
A. Makarsankranti
D. Root
B. Lohri
85. THE MANAGEMENT AND CARE OF FARM
C. Baisakhi
ANIMALS BY HUMANS FOR PROFIT IS
D. All of them KNOWN AS
80. Chronic toxicity is a danger caused bu A. GRANARY

chemicals that accumulate in B. ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
A. 50 gallon drums C. POULTRY FARM
B. Building floors and walls D. WAREHOUSE
C. Bodies of animals
86. Another way of improving yield is develop-
D. Fallen trees ing new varities of crops, This can be done

by cross breeding two different varieties . C. workplace assessment

This phenomenon is known as.
D. hazardous

A. Winnowing
B. Green Revolution 92. It is a system of growing crops in blocks
or strip or more rows.
C. Hybridisation
A. Multiple row arrangement
D. Emasculation
B. spatial arrangement
87. Cereals generally provide
C. rows planting arrangement
A. Proteins
D. none of above
B. Sugars
C. Fats 93. The process of budding is actually a form
D. Vitamins. of
A. Seeding
88. Crops planted in rows far enough apart
to allow operation of machinery between B. Grafting
rows C. Nursing
A. Agricultural Purposes D. Chipping
B. Field Crops
C. Row Crops 94. Select the method(s) of irrigation which
can be employed in an uneven land.(i)
D. Exports Moat (ii) Sprinkler(iii) Chain Pump(iv) Drip
89. The word “pests” is used referring System
weeds, plant diseases, and harmful in- A. (ii) and (iv)
sects.
B. Only (iv)
A. to, in
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. to, at
D. (i) and (ii)
C. for, of
D. in, to 95. The chemicals that destroys the weeds are
called
90. Preparation of the soil involves loosening
and turning it. This process is known as. A. pesticide
A. Crumbs B. insecticide
B. Nursery C. weedicide
C. Ploghing and Tilling D. fungicide
D. Sowing
96. Out of these select a kharif crop.
91. Which considered as its outcome is conjunc- A. Paddy
tion with other factors including the expo-
sure are the number of persons. B. Wheat
A. risk assessment C. Mustard
B. hazard assessment D. Linseed

97. Cold frames are used in greenhouse oper- C. Giving nutrients to plants
ations in spring primarily to: D. Giving nutrients to plants at definite in-
A. harden off bedding plants tervals
B. produce cut flower crops 103. system has rotating nozzles
C. winter over bulb stock A. Drip
D. start seedlings B. Lever
NARAYAN CHANGDER
98. During which process under nitrogen cycle, C. Sprinkler
the inorganic nitrogen is converted into us- D. Pulley
able organic compounds?
104. The process of separation of grains from
A. Nitrification
the chaff is called
B. Nitrogen uptake
A. Winnowing
C. Denitrification
B. Fallow
D. Nitrogen fixation
C. Combining
99. Scientists have developed varieties D. Harvesting
crops that are more resistant diseases
and insects. 105. The process of loosening of the soil is
called
A. of, to
A. harvesting
B. for, in
B. spraying
C. at, above
C. tilling
D. to, of
D. weeding
100. The tool used to harvest is known as
106. What does NPK stand for?
A. Winnow
A. Nutrients, Pancakes, Kittens
B. Combine
B. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
C. Sickle
C. Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus
D. None of the above
D. none of above
101. What color is the true color of the poin-
107. Which of the following is neither a kharif
settia?
crop nor a rabi crop?
A. Red
A. Paddy
B. Yellow
B. Wheat
C. Pink
C. Maize
D. White
D. Watermelon
102. What is irrigation 108. IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METH-
A. Giving water to plants ODS OF IRRIGATION ROTATING NOZZLES
B. Giving water to plants at definite inter- ARE USED?
vals A. MOAT

B. DRIP SYSTEM 114. What type of temperatures do carnations

C. CHAIN PUMP require?

A. Extremely warm
D. SPRINKLER SYSTEM
B. Temperature
109. This is a type of fungus you can eat
C. Cool
A. Mushrooms D. Humid
B. Mold
115. Unsatisfactory weed control may result
C. Yogurt from the use of the wrong
D. Pickles A. Herbicide
110. The first step before growing crops is B. Fumigant
of the soil. C. Repellent
A. Wedding D. Toxicity
B. Sowing 116. D is an example of
C. Preparation A. Fertilizers
D. Threshing B. Manures
111. Which of the following is NOT a fruit crop C. Weedicides
in Oregon? D. None
A. Pears
117. Rabi crops are grown in season.
B. Cherries A. Rainy
C. Blueberries B. Summer
D. Bananas C. Winter
112. WHAT IS IRRIGATION? D. Spring
A. ARTIFICIAL SUPPLY OF WATER TO 118. What is a crop?
CROPS WHEN NEEDED
A. A house plant
B. REMOVAL OF UNWANTED PLANTS
B. A cultivated plant that is grown on a
THAT GROW WITH CROPS
large scale
C. OLD METHOD OF REPLENISHING LOST C. A succulent
NUTRIENTS OF SOIL
D. none of above
119. Organic wastes can be decomposed to
113. Name the process in which excessive sup- form , which can sustainably enhance
ply of water reduces air in soil spaces. the nutrient content of the soil.
A. Water logging A. compost
B. Lodging B. cow dung
C. Weeding C. fertiliser
D. Irrigation D. pesticide

120. Which is a physical method of pest con- D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

trol?
126. Identify the type of chemical used to con-
A. Spraying trol rats and mice
B. Using insect predators A. Fungicide
C. Installing barriers on greenhouse B. Pesticide
doors
C. Nematocide
D. Using sticky boards
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Rodenticide
121. The removal of weeds is called.
127. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A
A. Wedding
FERTILIZER?
B. Weeding
A. UREA
C. Weeds
B. NPK
D. All are wrong
C. POTASH
122. The richest soil lies and just the D. RHIZOBIUM
surface.
A. to, under 128. The tool used both for harvesting and
threshing
B. at, below
A. Truck
C. of, in
B. Tractor
D. below, at
C. Combine
123. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NEITHER D. none of above
KHARIF CROP NOR RABI CROP?
A. PADDY 129. Side veneer grafting in evergreens is
used to produce the right
B. WHEAT
A. Color
C. MAIZE
B. Size
D. WATERMELON
C. Wood type
124. With what plants do rhizobium bacteria
D. Stems
attach
A. Rice 130. Which is correct
B. Wheat A. I
C. Potato B. I
D. Leguminous C. I
125. FOOD D. I
A. HELPS IN GROWTH 131. It is something currently in, or many in fu-

B. PROTECTS US FROM DIFFERENT DIS- ture be in, the work environment that has
EASES the potential to cause harm to people.
C. GIVES ENERGY TO TO PERFORM DIF- A. Control

FERENT ACTIVITIES B. hazard

C. risk 137. is the process of loosening and turn-

ing of the soil.
D. harm

A. Threshing
132. An Example of a kharif crop is B. Ploughing
A. Wheat C. Levelling
B. Maize D. Manuring
C. Gram
138. These materials that are used in various
D. Barley farm operations are usually light and are
used without the help of a working animal
133. Keeping beneficial insects from leaving or a machine.
your greenhouse is referred to as:
A. Farm Hand Tools
A. Rolling B. Farm Implements
B. Escaping C. Farm Equipment
C. Termination D. none of above
D. Wiping out 139. Which of the following statements about
the sowing of seeds is incorrect?answer
134. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CEREAL
choices
CROP?
A. Seeds should be sown at proper depth
A. PADDY
B. Seeds should be sown close to each
B. MAIZE other
C. BARLEY C. ..Sowing should be done after loosen-
D. ALL OF THESE ing the soil.
D. Sowing should be done with the help of
135. The method of loosening the soil is called seed drill.
A. harvesting
140. Farmers plan their methods soil man-
B. ploughing agement well advance the growing
C. leveling season.
A. for, to, at
D. threshing
B. in, at, above
136. Instead of relying almost entirely on C. of, in, of
chemical pesticides, greenhouse growers
today use a combination of methods to pre- D. of, in, for
vent and/or control pests safely and effec- 141. The main purpose of winnowing is to
tively. This method is called: answer choices
A. Identify, press, measure A. separate grains from the straw
B. Integrated pest management B. separate the chaff and the grain
C. Initial pest management C. dehydrate the grains
D. Interval poly measurement D. grind the grains

142. Which of the following is not an agricul- 148. The breeding and raising of livestock in-
tural implement cluding poultry is called
A. seed drill A. Poultry Farming
B. silos B. Bee Keeping
C. leveller C. Animal Husbandary
D. sickle D. none of above
149. Out of these select a Rabi crop
NARAYAN CHANGDER
143. Last step of farming is-
A. Spraying Pesticides A. Maize
B. Weeding B. Wheat
C. Providing water to the crops C. Soybean
D. Harvesting D. Groundnut
144. When is wheat harvested in the state of 150. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CROP
Colorado? GROWS IN WINTER?
A. Late summer to mid-fall A. PEA
B. Early to late summer B. PADDY

C. MAIZE
C. Late fall to early winter
D. SOYABEAN
D. Late spring to early summer
151. WHICH OF THESE IS A ANNUAL CROPS?
145. Impact of green revolution in India was
more effective in the production of A. WHEAT
A. barley and oat B. CARROTS
B. maize and rice C. APPLE
C. rice and wheat D. BANANA
D. wheat and barley 152. Identify an effective natural pesticide
that is environmentally safe.
146. Which of these is correct full form of
N.S.C. A. Atrazine
B. Furadan
A. National Seed Company
C. Round-up
B. National Seed Community
D. Azadirachtin
C. All of these
D. None of these 153. It is necessary to remove sediment, silt,
vegetation and debris to ensure an easy
147. The process of supplying water to crops passage of water and to prevent flower
in the field is called blockages.
A. Irrigation A. Ditch maintenance
B. Winnowing B. Steps in sharpening edge- cutting tools
C. Fallowing C. Maintenance
D. Broadcasting D. cleaning the pruning shears

154. Which of the following tool helps in uni- B. Irrigation

form distribution of seeds while sowing?
C. Warm Season Crops

A. Thresher
D. Forage Crops
B. Seed drill
C. Funnel connected to pipes 160. is the cutting and gathering of the ma-
ture crop from the fields
D. Broadcasting
A. Threshing
155. does not include Agricultural prac-
B. Harvesting
tices.
C. Grinding
A. Irrigation
B. Marketing D. none of above
C. Harvesting 161. Which of the following is not provided to

D. Multiple cropping the soil by fertiliser
A. Humus
156. Which of the following is a primary crop
of Nevada? B. improved texture
A. Apples C. better water holding capacity
B. Almonds D. All of the above
C. Coffee
162. This is an underground stem that does not
D. Garlic have a dry leaf covering
157. Which of the following statement is COR- A. corm
RECT in planning tractor maintenance?
B. rhizome
A. Use tool for the joy
C. bulb
B. Ensure workers are knowledgeable in
safe procedures. D. tuber
C. Use and maintain pruner tools accord- 163. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED TO
ing to there instructions. PRESERVE FOOD GRAINS AT HOME?
D. Stay well clean of rotating PTO cleanli- A. SPINACH LEAVES
ness.
B. CURRY LEAVES
158. Which among the following is a kharif
C. NEEM LEAVES
crop?
D. TULSI LEAVES
A. wheat
B. mustard 164. Which of the following is not a traditional
C. linseed irrigation method?
D. rice A. Moat
B. Chain pump
159. Food production which avoids the use of
biocides and synthetic fertilizers C. Drip system
A. Organic Agriculture D. Thekli

165. Biological classification which describes a C. for, in, among

single kind of plant with certain character-
D. to, for, above
istics separating it from others
A. Irrigation 171. The crops which are grown in the rainy
B. Crop Species season are called
C. Forage Crops A. Rabi crops
D. Field Crops B. Seasonal crops
NARAYAN CHANGDER
166. Cops other than fresh fruits or vegeta- C. Monsoon crops
bles grown for agricultural purposes
D. Kharif crops
A. Cool Season Crops
B. Row Crops 172. WHICH AGRICULTURAL PRACTICE HELPS
IN TURNING AND LOOSENING OF SOIL?
C. Field Crops
D. Fiber Crops A. SELECTION AND SHOWING OF SEEDS
B. IRRIGATION
167. It is an area concerned with protecting
the safety, health, and welfare of people C. WEEDING AND CROP ROTATION
engaged in work of employment.
D. SOIL PREPARATION
A. Environmental safety and health
B. Employment safety and health 173. The main purpose of winnowing is to
C. Occupational safety and health A. separate grains from the straw
D. Operational safety and health B. separate the chaff and the grain
168. which of these are the traditional metods C. dehydrate the grains
of irrigation
D. grind the grains
A. Chain pump
B. Moat ( pulley - system ) 174. Which of the following statements about
C. Rahat the difference between fertilizers and ma-
nures is correct?
D. all of these
A. Fertilisers decrease soil fertility in the
169. When are pecans harvested in the state long run, whereas long term use of ma-
of New Mexico? nures does not affect soil fertility.
A. Late summer to mid-fall B. Fertilisers are made of organic matter,
B. Early to late summer while manures are chemical in nature.
C. Fall to early winter C. Fertilisers are poor in plant Nutrients,
D. Late spring to early summer while manures contain higher amount of
plant nutrients.
170. Crops differ the amount nutrients
they require healthy growth. D. Fertilisers increase the water-holding
capacity of soil in the long run, whereas
A. at, of, for long term use of manures does not affect
B. in, of, for the water-holding capacity of soil.

175. Raising of fish in inland waters and B. manures are rich in inorganic matter
coastal waters are called while fertilisers are not rich in inorganic
matter

A. Pissiculture
B. Fishery C. manures can be stored for a long time
whereas fertilisers cannot be stored for
C. Fish culture
long time
D. Harvesting
D. manures are prepared in factories
176. What are the advantages of preparing of while fertilisers are prepared in the fields
soil?
181. Traditional methods of irrigation are
A. Allow roots to penetrate the soil easily
A. Well, tube well, canal, dam
B. Make the soil nutrients rich
C. Make decomposition by microbes eas- B. Drip irrigation
ier C. Sprinkler irrigation
D. All of these D. All
177. Which of the following statement is NOT 182. In which process the harvested crops, the
correct in lifting safely? grain seeds need to be separated from the
A. Adapt a stable position chaff.
B. Think before handling or lifting A. Harvesting
C. Use mechanical assistance and/or lift- B. Threshing
ing aid
C. Winnowing
D. Ensure a good hold on the wood
178. In which season karif crops grow
A. June to September 183. Anthers from a plant are removed. This
process is called.
B. September to June
A. Hybridisation
C. March to April
B. Emasculation
D. June to July
C. Sickle
179. This is the process of getting a bulb to
grow and produce flowers D. Green Revolution
A. manipulation 184. WHILE SOWING OF SEEDS PROPER DIS-
B. propagation TANCE MUST BE MAINTAINED BETWEEN
EVERY SEED .WHY?
C. forcing
D. budding A. TO PREVENT FROM OVERCROWDING
B. TO PREVENT FROM COMPETITION
180. Manures are considered better than fer-
FOR NUTRIENTS, WATER, SHELTER, SUN-
tilisers because
LIGHT ETC.
A. manures provide humus to the soil
C. TO PROTECT FROM DISEASE
whereas fertilisers do not provide humus
to the soil D. TO PROTECT FROM WEEDS

185. This concerned with protecting the safety, C. September/October

health and welfare of people engage in D. November/December
work or employment.
A. occupational safety and health 191. How hazards become a distance?
A. hazardous becomes a disaster when it
B. environmental hazard
happens when may people are living
C. eliminates the hazard
B. hazard becomes a disaster when it
D. hazardous substances happens when may people are having
NARAYAN CHANGDER
their livelihood.
186. What structure on the underside of the
leaf allows the leaf to breathe or tran- C. hazard becomes a disaster when peo-
spire? ple trying to make it possible in their daily
live
A. Pistil
D. hazardous becomes a disaster when
B. Stem
people make everything that is not like-
C. Stoma able into the environment
D. Chloroplast
192. Chemicals inhaled are absorbed through
187. Formation occurs during the storage pe- the
riod of cuttings A. Liver
A. Tip B. Heart
B. Callus C. Kidneys
C. Leaf D. Lungs
D. Stem 193. WHAT IS PLOUGHING
188. Rescue and Summerred are two popular A. TILLING
varieties of apples grown in which state? B. TILLING OR PLOUGHING
A. California C. TELLING
B. Arizona D. TILLING
C. Alaska
194. which of the following is the example of
D. Colorado Kharif crop
189. What happens if the seedling are sown A. wheat
without leaving a gap between them? B. gram
A. They will grow quickly C. paddy
B. They will become strong D. none of these
C. They will get lost
195. The process of beating out grains from
D. They will become unhealthy the harvested wheat crop is called
190. The ideal months for harvesting kharif A. beating
crop are B. crushing
A. June/July C. threshing
B. August/September D. harvesting

196. Which crop is related to green revolution 202. First step of farming is-
in India? A. Preparing land

A. Rice B. Harvesting
B. Wheat C. Watering the soil
C. Maize D. Spraying Pesticides
D. Sugarcane
203. Threshing is a process of
197. Harvesting is the process of A. Separating grains from the stalk
A. separating grains from stalk B. preparing soil for sowing seeds
B. preparing soil for sowing seeds C. collecting crops from the field
C. collecting ripened crops from the field D. removing undesired plants from the
D. removing undesired plants from the crop field
crop field 204. Rabi crop is harvested in
198. Which part of vegetable crops need large A. January
amounts of nitrogen fertilizer? B. March
A. Leaf C. October
B. Fruit D. September
C. Root
205. Which tool is used for cutting grasses?
D. All of these
A. Shovel
199. A tomato that has a limited height B. Bolo
growth and is normally used in pots is con- C. Crowbar
sidered to be a?
D. Pick Mattock
A. Legume
B. Interminate 206. What is the total annual value of Wash-
ington’s food crop exports?
C. Determinate
A. $2.2 billion
D. Cool weather crop
B. $4.4 billion
200. DURATION OF RABI CROP IS C. $5.5 billion
A. JUNE TO SEPTEMBER D. $1.1 billion
B. JUNE TO DECEMBER
207. How does risk assessment help human in
C. OCTOBER TO MARCH controlling OHS hazards and risk?
D. MARCH TO JUNE A. It controls the risk
201. Which bacteria add nitrogen to soil B. It helps human identify hazards easily
A. Rhizobium C. It provides knowledge to make in-
formed decisions controlling hazard and
B. Streptococcus risks
C. Staphylococcus D. Serves as the guide for human in
D. None choosing an area to plant in

208. Which part of the root absorbs the mois- B. Soil

ture and minerals? C. topography
A. Medium Roots D. watering
B. Root roots
214. This plant flowers when the day is long.
C. Root canal
A. long day
D. Root hairs
B. short day
NARAYAN CHANGDER
209. Which of the following statements about C. day neutral
fertilisers is correct?answer choices. in D. day positive
the long run..Fertilisers contain inorganic
salts. 215. WHEN YOU WILL PUT SEEDS IN WA-
A. Fertilisers increase the water-holding TER, WHAT WILL HAPPEN TO DAMAGED
capacity of soil SEEDS?
A. THEY WILL SINK
B. Fertilisers are weedicides
B. THEY WILL FLOAT
C. Fertilisers contain decomposed mat-
ter C. THEY ARE HEAVIER
D. fertilisers contains inorganic chemi- D. ALL OF THESE
cals 216. Lady bugs are most often used to con-
210. till B.C.E the people are nomadic trol?
A. 2ooo B.C.E. A. Fungus gnats
B. 100 B.C.E B. Aphids

C. Rust
C. 290 B.C.E
D. Root worms
D. 10, 000 B.C.E
217. Which of the following statements about
211. THE PROCESS OF SEPARATING GRAIN
manure is incorrect?
FROM CHAFF IS CALLED
A. Manure improves the texture of the
A. THRESHING soil.
B. WEEDING B. Manure adds inorganic matter to the
C. SOWING soil.
D. WINNOWING C. Manure increases the water-holding
capacity of the soil.
212. Which chemical controls pests
D. Manure enhances the growth of
A. Fertiliser friendly bacteria in the soil.
B. Pesticide
218. The plant roots contain nitrogen fixing
C. Herbicide bacteria
D. Fungicide A. Orange
213. The basic foundation for plant growth B. Pea
and development. C. Mango
A. Land D. Tomato

219. Which of the following is a rabi crop? 225. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT ECO
A. Rice FRIENDLY?

B. Mustard A. VERMICOMPOST
C. Soyabean B. GREEN MANURE
D. Maize C. BIO FERTILIZER LIKE Rhizobium
220. A disease that killed nearly 1/3 of the D. AMMONIUM SULPHATE
world’s population in the 1300s
A. E. Coli 226. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOL HELPS
B. Black Plague IN UNIFORM DISTRIBUTION OF SEEDS
WHILE SOWING?
C. Malaria
A. THRESHER
D. Smallpox
B. SEED DRILL
221. It is use in pricking fruit tree seedlings.
A. Hand shovel C. FUNNEL CONNECTED TO PIPES
B. Garden rake D. SPRINKLER

C. Garden rake
227. Which of the following has correct
D. trowel spelling.
222. This type of fertilizer contains all the pri- A. Chain phump
mary nutrients
B. Chain punp
A. complete fertilizer
C. Chain pump
B. primary fertilizer
C. essential fertilizer D. All of these
D. incomplete fertilizer
228. RHIZOBIUM BACTERIA IN THE ROOT
223. At what temperature should soil for seed NODULES OF LEGUMINOUS PLANTS HELP
germination be sterilized by heating for IN FIXING
one-half hour?
A. SULPHUR
A. 212 degrees F
B. OXYGEN
B. 180 degrees F
C. NITROGEN
C. 100 degrees F
D. 300 degrees F D. HYDROGEN
224. Irrigation means 229. Soil consists chiefly mineral particles

A. growing new plants in the desert. mixed organic matter.
B. using the date palm trees to build A. of, with
houses.
B. for, at
C. putting water on to dry land so that
crops will grow well. C. for, at
D. none of above D. in, of

230. Supplying water to crops in the fields at 236. A cutting that includes a small portion of
specific intervals is called the leaf attached?
A. crop rotation A. Root cutting
B. fertilizing B. Stem cutting
C. weeding C. Leaf cutting
D. irrigation D. Leaf bud cutting
231. Monitoring to detect the pest problem is 237. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAN FEED A
NARAYAN CHANGDER
done by regular GROWING POPULATION?answer choices
A. Liquid application A. TRADITIONAL METHOD OF CROP PRO-
DUCTION
B. Inspection of plants
B. MODERN METHOD OF IMPROVED
C. Plant fumigation
CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT
D. Dusting of plants
C. INDUSTRIAL EVOLUTION
232. Land use related to production of crops or D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
livestock
238. Herbicides work by upsetting the plant’s
A. Row Crops
B. Field Crops A. Metabolism
C. Agricultural Purposes B. Mineral supply
D. Warm Season Crops C. Weed potential
233. Crops grown primarily to provide feed for D. Final size
livestock
239. Which chemical controls weeds?
A. Forage Crops
A. Fungicide
B. Fiber Crops B. Pesticide
C. Row Crops C. Insecticide
D. Exports D. Herbicide
234. The branch of science that deals with 240. Spraying water in plants using rotating
growing plants and raising livestock for nozzles is called
human use is
A. Sprinkler irrigation
A. horticulture
B. Drip irrigation
B. agriculture
C. Rahat irrigation
C. pisciculture
D. All
D. animal husbandry
241. Supply of water to crops at appropriate
235. A seed drill helps in intervals is called
A. sowing seeds at a uniform distance A. cultivation
B. spreading manure B. irrigation
C. harvesting C. harvesting
D. threshing D. sowing

242. A seed drill helps in The information C. Legs, head, abdomen

in which alternative completes the given
D. Legs, thorax, abdomen
statement?

A. sowing seeds at a uniform distance 248. The conversion of Nitrogen into nitrates
B. spreading manure is known as
C. harvesting A. Nitrate assimilation

D. threshing B. Nitrogen fixation
243. What is the first stage of growth called C. Ammonification

after a cutting starts to grow? D. Nitrogen cycle
A. Softwood formation
249. DURATION OF RABI CROP ISanswer
B. Stem formation choices
C. Scab formation
A. JUNE TO SEPTEMBER
D. Callus formation
B. JUNE TO DECEMBER
244. Crops grown for their fibers to make pa- C. OCTOBER TO MARCH
per, cloth or rope
D. MARCH TO JUNE
A. Cool Season Crops
B. Fiber Crops 250. Same kind of plants grown in a large
C. Row Crops scale.
D. Irrigation A. Crop
B. Agriculture
245. The process of separating grain from
chaff is called C. Implements
A. Threshing D. none of above
B. Weeding
251. Which of the following is NOT included in
C. Sowing maintenance of tractor?
D. Winnowing A. Charging batteries
246. Rhizobium bacteria in the root nodules of B. checking tube pressure
leguminous plants help in fixing:
C. Removing /exchanging wheels
A. Sulphur
D. checking and filling fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen 252. Implanting a branch or bud of one plant
into another
D. Hydrogen
A. Cloning
247. The three body regions of an insect are
the B. Grafting
A. Head, legs, thorax C. Cutting
B. Head, thorax, abdomen D. Layering

253. Manures are 259. How many activities are there in basic
A. Organic in nature agricultural practices?
A. 5
B. Inorganic in nature
B. 6
C. Organic as well as inorganic in nature
C. 7
D. None of above
D. none of above
254. Why do plants need water
260. The organic substance obtained from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. For growth and development dead plants and animal wastes is
B. For seed germination A. Manure
C. For transport of water and minerals B. Fertilizer
D. All C. Irrigation
D. Agriculture
255. The chemicals used for weeding are called
261. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NEITHER
KHARIF CROP NOR RABI CROP?answer
A. Weedecides
choices
B. Weedicides
A. PADDY
C. Weidicides B. WHEAT
D. None of these C. MAIZE
256. This is done by holding the sharpened D. WATERMELON
edge toward a light. 262. Harvesting is a process of
A. Sharpness testing A. separating grains from stalk
B. smoothing B. preparing soil for sowing seeds
C. grinding C. collecting ripened crops from the field
D. Oiling D. removing undesired plants from the
crop field
257. Which of the following should be used by
a farmer with a large farm to harvest his 263. The process in which grains are turned
crops quickly and efficiently? into breakfast cereals is called-
A. Winnowing machine A. Weeding
B. Combine B. Harvesting
C. Sickle C. Milling
D. Tilling
D. Seed drill
264. The three types of pots used in green-
258. Sickle is for house are:
A. Sowing A. Clay, metal, standard
B. Harvesting B. Bulb, geranium, gallon
C. Levelling C. 2 gallon, azalea, geranium
D. None D. Standard, azalea, bulb

265. Which of the following statements about 270. Rainy season crops are also known as
the tilling of soil is incorrect? A. Zaid

A. It helps in aerating the soil. B. Kharif
B. It helps in increasing the fertility of the C. Rabi
soil. D. none of above
C. It helps in increasing the water con-
271. The main kharif and Rabi crops are.
tent of the soil.
A. Paddy and Maize ; Wheat, Gram and
D. It helps in the growth of helpful mi-
Barley .
crobes in the soil.
B. Wheat, Gram and Barley ; Paddy and
266. The chemical substances rich in nutrients Maize.
are called C. Paddy ; Wheat
A. fertiliser D. Only b is correct
B. weedicide 272. Any unwanted plants that grow in a field
C. pesticides along with crops are called
D. herbicides A. Wilt
B. Weeds
267. In order to obtain a higher yield, farmers
must undertake various agricultural prac- C. Stalks
tices. Which is the first step in this pro- D. none of above
cess?answer choices
273. NPK stands for
A. Addition of manure
A. Nitrogen, Potassium, Nickle
B. Preparation of soil B. Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Kinetic
C. Harvesting C. Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Potassium
D. Irrigation D. None of these
268. Tubers are distinguished by their 274. Irrigation is an important part of crop pro-
duction. Irrigation increases crop yield by
A. Crowns
A. increasing the dependence of crops on
B. Leaves
monsoons
C. Eyes B. reducing the dependence of crops on
D. Stems monsoons
C. increasing pest attacks on crops
269. IDENTIFY THE AGRICULTURAL METHOD
IN WHICH DIFFERENT CROPS ARE D. reducing pest attacks on crops
GROWN ON A PIECE OF LAND SEASON 275. At what percentage should the humidity
AFTER SEASON be kept for new cuttings?
A. IRRIGATION A. Close to 100%
B. MONOCULTURE B. Close to 50%
C. CROP ROTATION C. Close to 25%
D. SHIFTING CULTIVATION D. Close to 10%

276. How many months it takes for a cereal C. Field Crops

crop to mature D. Exports
A. 1 to 2
282. VERMICOMPOST IS A
B. 2 to 3
A. FERTILISER
C. 3 to 4
B. PESTICIDE
D. 4 to 5
C. MANURE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
277. WEEDS CAN BE REMOVED BY USING D. NONE OF THESE
A. PESTICIDES
283. Animals like horse, donkey that carries
B. FUNGICIDES that carries load are called
C. WEEDICIDES A. Drought species
D. BACTERICIDES B. Load carrying animals
278. Products obtained from the crops are C. Dairy animals

called D. Drought animals
A. yield 284. When healthy seeds are dipped in water,
B. produce seeds
C. crop A. Sink in water
D. fertilisers B. Float in water
C. Neither sink nor float
279. Which of the following common methods
is NOT include in checking the effective- D. All of these
ness of controls?
285. is a modern tool driven by tractor for
A. Testing and measuring ploughing.
B. Analyzing records and data A. Cultivator
C. Inspecting the work place B. Seed drill
D. Using available facts C. Plough
D. None of these
280. The or scaly bulb has no tough outer
coverings 286. What process helps in increasing nutri-
A. Tunicate ents in soil
B. Nontunicate A. Crop rotation
C. Bulbets B. Crop production
D. Laminate C. Crop harvesting
D. None
281. Commodities, such as raw materials and
agricultural products, sold to other coun- 287. This is an example of a short swollen un-
tries derground stem
A. Forage Crops A. bulb
B. Warm Season Crops B. corm

C. rhizome 293. Crop rotation means

D. tuber A. Growing different crops in same field

one after other
288. Which type of bud is necessary for prop- B. Growing same crops in same field
agation?
C. Growing same crops in different field
A. Vegetative
D. Growing different crops in different
B. Big fields
C. Fruit 294. Crops harmed by frost and which grow
D. Small best at temperatures above 70◦ F (21◦ C)
A. Warm Season Crops
289. What are common examples of nutrients
that plants can take from soil B. Cool Season Crops
A. Nitrogen C. Row Crops

D. Fiber Crops
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium 295. The crops are divided into two types-
summer crops called Kharif Crops and win-
D. All ter crops called crop.
290. Identify the agricultural method in which A. Kharif Crop
different crops are grown on a piece of B. Horticulture
land season after season. C. Rabi Crop
A. Irrigation D. Sericulture
B. Monoculture
296. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CROP
C. Crop rotation GROWS IN WINTER?answer choices
D. Shifting cultivation A. PEA
B. PADDY
291. The cutting of crops after mature is called
C. MAIZE
A. Tilling D. SOYABEAN
B. Maturing 297. What is the annual value of agricultural

exports within the western region?
C. Harvesting
A. $15 Billion
D. Winnowing
B. $16 Billion
292. Plant reproduction method using a very C. $14 Billion
small plant part and a sterile medium?
D. $13 Billion
A. Stem cutting
298. The process of loosening and turning the
B. Autoclense soil is called
C. Root cutting A. Ploughing
D. Tissue culture B. Leveling

C. Broadcasting 304. Identify the form of asexual reproduction

D. Irrigation that eliminates burying part if the parent
plant in the soil
299. Irrigation is an important part of crop A. Seed strings
production. Irrigation increases crop yield
byanswer choices B. Upright layering
A. increasing the dependence of crops on C. Girdle layering

monsoons D. Air layering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. reducing the dependence of crops on 305. When can bulbs be separated?
monsoons
A. During the alert stage
C. reducing pest attacks on crops
B. During scaly stage
D. none of these
C. During the crown stage
300. which of these is not a harvest fastival D. During the dormant stage
A. Bihu
306. Weeds are also controlled by using cer-
B. baisakhi tain chemicals, called
C. pongal A. manures
D. Diwali B. fertilisers
301. Two short-season crops that may be used C. weedicides
in successive plantings are: D. none of above
A. radishes and lettuce
307. IPM addresses all the following EXCEPT:
B. beets and horseradish
A. Biological control
C. tomatoes and corn
B. Pesticides
D. peppers and turnips
C. Physical control
302. Layering is a method of D. Poisoning
A. Stacking seeds
308. Crops which grow best at temperatures
B. Asexual reproduction between 60◦ F to 65◦ F (15◦ C to 18◦ C)
C. Budding A. Row Crops
D. Producing vegetables B. Warm Season Crops
303. Tilling helps in loosening the soil, which C. Exports
promotes growth of and in the soil.The in- D. Cool Season Crops
formation in which alternative completes
the given statement? 309. Leveling of soil helps to prevent
A. earthworms, microbes A. drought
B. microbes, rodents B. growth of microbes
C. rodents, insects C. growth of weeds
D. insects, earthworms D. soil erosion

310. In order to have a successful graft, the C. Mixing of manure with soil
two plants must be D. Harvesting of crops

A. Friends
316. WHICH OF THESE IS A TRADITIONAL
B. Related METHOD OF IRRIGATION?
C. Neighbors A. SPRINKLER IRRIGATION
D. Exactly the same size B. DRIP IRRIGATION
311. what are the egs of rabi crops C. SWING BASKET METHOD
A. Gram D. TRICKLE IRRIGATION
B. Maize 317. Based on seasons, crops can be broadly
C. Paddy categorized into
D. none of above A. Three types
312. In order to obtain a higher yield, farmers B. Two types

must undertake various agricultural prac- C. Four tyoes
tices. Which is the first step in this pro- D. none of above
cess?
A. Addition of manure 318. Cutting and gathering of crops, after mat-
uration, is known as.
B. Preparation of soil
A. Threshing
C. Harvesting
B. Winnowing
D. Irrigation
C. Harvesting
313. Rhizobium bacteria fix atmospheric D. Emasculation
to the soil.
A. oxygen 319. First step of agricultural practices
B. carbon dioxide A. Sowing
C. nitrogen B. Irritation
D. hydrogen C. Storage
D. Preparation of soil
314. OUT OF FERTILIZER AND MANURE
WHICH ONE IS EASILY ABSORBED BY THE 320. Using sticky traps to control whiteflies is
ROOTS? a form of:
A. FERTILIZER A. Greenhouse sanitation
B. MANURE B. Chemical pest control
C. BOTH MANURE AND FERTILIZER C. Physical pest control
D. NONE OF THESE D. Biological pest control
315. Which of the following tasks cannot be 321. bacteria are present in the nodules of
achieved through ploughing? the roots of leguminous plants
A. Deep air circulation into the soil A. Amoeba
B. Plucking out weeds from the soil B. Rhizobium

C. Rhizopus 327. Which instrument is used for spraying

D. none of above weedicides?
A. Sprayer
322. A condition in the locality determines the
B. Cultivator
kind of crop to produce.
C. Plough
A. soil
D. Combine
B. climate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. accessibility 328. Where are rhizobium bacteria present in
leguminous plants
D. topography
A. Leaf nodules
323. A seed drill helps in and . The in- B. Stem nodules
formation in which alternative completes
the given statement? C. Root nodules
A. sowing seeds at a uniform distance, D. Flower nodules

harvesting the produce 329. The soil matter formed by decayed or-
B. sowing seeds at a uniform distance, ganic matter is called
saving time A. pesticide
C. saving time, spreading manure B. fertiliser
D. harvesting the produce, spreading ma- C. humus
nure
D. biocide
324. is the process by which water is sup-
330. which of these is correct about FER-
plied to crops at different intervals.
TILISER
A. Irrigation
A. Fertiliser not provide any humus to the
B. Sowing soil
C. Ploughing B. Fertiliser was prepared in fields
D. Tilling C. Fertiliser is less rich in plant nutrition
325. Linseed is an example of Crops D. Fertiliser was made using cattle dung
and plant residues
A. Kharif crops
B. Zaid crops 331. Which of the following statements re-
garding the advantages of using manure
C. Rabi crops is incorrect?
D. None of these A. It enhances the water holding capacity
of the soil.
326. Identify the moist substance wrapped
around a girdled area B. It increases the number of friendly mi-
crobes in the soil.
A. Sphagnum moss
C. It adds nutrients like nitrogen and
B. Electricians tape phosphorus to the soil.
C. Wax D. It improves the exchange of gases be-
D. Cambium tween the soil and the atmosphere.

332. It is the administrative controls include A. crop rotation

adopting standard operating procedures. B. tilling

A. Eliminate the hazard C. plantation
B. Isolate the hazard D. weeding
C. Use engineering controls
338. Seeding is when seeds are sown in a
D. Use administrative controls separate place from where the plants will
333. Which of the following statements about eventually grow to maturity
the sowing of seeds is incorrect? A. Sideways
A. Seeds should be sown at proper depth. B. Indirect
B. Seeds should be sown close to each C. Top
other. D. Direct
C. Sowing should be done after loosening
the soil. 339. WHEN YOU WILL PUT SEEDS IN WATER,
WHAT IS TRUE ABOUT DAMAGED SEEDS?
D. Sowing should be done with the help of
seed drill. A. THEY WILL SINK
B. THEY WILL FLOAT
334. What is the total economic value of crops
within the western region? C. THEY ARE HEAVIER
A. $37 billion D. ALL OF THESE
B. $28 billion 340. Farmers also use other methods pest

C. $52 billion control addition pesticides.
D. $41 billion A. of, in, to

B. to, of, in
335. Which of the following is drawback of hy-
bridization? C. in, at, of
A. It provide less fodder D. below, of, above
B. It requires lesser amount of nutrients 341. The already use biological control
C. It is not a drought-resistant methods and may be able to teach us more
about them.
D. It is not a disease-resistant
A. Chinese
336. Weeds can be defined as B. Japanese
A. Useful plants present in the field C. Koreans
B. Undesirable plants present in the field D. English
C. Plants that cannot be used at all
342. WRITE ONE TYPES OF CROPS
D. Undesirable insects present in the
field. A. RABI CROPS
B. KHARIFI CROPS
337. The practice of growing two or more dis-
similar crops in the same field one after C. KARFI CROPS
another is D. KHARIF CROPS

343. Which of the following is a fruit food crop A. Increasing land under cultivation
in Utah? B. Using more manures and fertilisers
A. Cotton C. Less wastage in storage
B. Coffee D. Using better varieties of crop plants
C. Apricots
349. Which of the following crop will enrich
D. Apples the soil with nitrogen?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
344. These are machines used in crop produc- A. apple
tion which need a highly-skilled operator B. pea
to use.
C. paddy
A. Farm Hand Tools
D. potato
B. Farm Implements
C. Farm Equipment 350. Which one is used to store grains on large
scale
D. none of above
A. Jute bags
345. This involves the removal of unwanted B. Silos
plants
C. Metallic bins
A. Tilling
D. All of these
B. Weeding
C. Seedling 351. Which implement is used to harvesting
the crop manually?
D. Milling
A. Plough
346. After harvesting, grains are seperated B. Harrow
from the cut crop. This process is called
. This can be done manually or by a C. Sickle
machine called D. Wooden plank
A. Thresher, Threshing. 352. Which of the following substances will
B. Threshing, Thresher. not affect the fertility of soil when added
C. Harvesting to it for a long period of time?
D. Winnowing A. Urea
B. Ammonium sulphate
347. Which of these crops requires less water
for growth? C. Compost
A. Paddy D. Super phosphate
B. Groundnut 353. Grains can be stored on a large-scale in

C. Wheat structures called
D. cotton A. Silos
B. Granaries
348. Which method, according to you, can
bring about the maximum increase in crop C. Both Silos and Granaries
production in our country in future? D. none of above

1.5 Weed Management 203
354. How soon after T-budding should an in- B. COMPOST

spection be made to see if the bud has C. NEEM CAKE
taken?

D. none of above
A. Three days
B. One week 357. The process of loosening the husk from
the grain is called
C. Three weeks
A. Winnowing
D. Eight weeks
B. Harvesting
355. An example of root crop is
C. Threashing
A. Beetroot
D. Weeding
B. Potato
C. Tapioca 358. The process of loosening the soil using a
plough is called-
D. Sweet potato
A. Milling
356. WHAT MANURES DID THE INDIAN FARM-
ERS TRADITIONALLY USED AS FERTILIS- B. Tilling
ERS? C. Grilling
A. NPK FERTILISER D. Weeding
1.5 Weed Management

1. Which of the following is considered a bio- B. mugwort
logical method of seed control? C. buckhorn plantain
A. use of natural predators and D. yellow nutsedge
pathogens
B. use of organic mulch 4. Which one of the following plants is on
Pennsylvania’s noxious weed list?
C. flaming weeds
A. oriental bittersweet
D. soil solarization
B. japanese stilt grass
2. The weed that has entered into India with C. garlic mustard
helicopter tyres is
D. purple loosestrife
A. Parthenium
5. Weed that propagate s by stem cutting is
B. Tribulus
A. Leucas
C. Wild oats
B. Cuscutta
D. Xanthium
C. Striga
3. What is the grass-like weed with D. Xanthium
yellowish-green foliage and a three-sided
stem that grows in lawns and moist ar- 6. Which is NOT categorized under herbicide
eas? classification?
A. chicory A. Method of application

B. Mode of action 12. Weed that dessiminate due to stiff hair is

C. Chemical structure A. Achyranthes
D. Habitat B. Cenchrus
C. Tribulus
7. The use of antidotes to protect crop from
D. Argemone
herbicide damage
A. Herbicide- insecticide interaction 13. Which one is formula for herbicide indepen-
dent effect
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Herbicide- fertilizer interaction
A. 1 + 2 = 2
C. Herbicide safeners
B. 1 + 1 = 2
D. Herbicide pathogen interaction C. 1 + 1 = 3
8. Weeds dispersed by man are called D. 1 + 1 = 1
A. Arthrophte 14. The buds in hydrilla are called

B. Anthophtye A. Sobole s
C. Anthesite B. Turions
C. Nuts
D. Awnthopyte
D. Rhizome
9. Disc like reduced vegetaive bud is seen in
15. Post-emergence broadleaf herbicides are
A. Wild onion best applied:
B. Lantana A. when daily temperatures are between
C. Hydrilla 65◦ and 85◦
B. when temperatures are below 65◦
D. Pistia
C. in the summer, when temperatures
10. Which of the following statements about are above 90◦
portable propane flamers is false? D. in the fall, after several hard freezes
A. they eliminate perennial weeds
16. A hoe works best when the weather con-
B. they cause plant cells to rupture ditions are:
C. they cause weeds to wilt A. warm and wet
D. their effects are similar to vinegar and B. hot and dry
contact chemicals C. cool and wet
D. cold and dry
11. Which is NOT the disadvantage of herbi-
cide 17. An exotic species whose introduction
A. Mammalian toxicity causes economic or environmental harm or
harm to human life is the federal govern-
B. Residue in soil environment ment’s definition of a(n):
C. Herbicide tolerance A. noxious species
D. Increase production cost B. invasive species

C. quarantined species 23. A neighbor asks your advice about the best
D. weed species way to eradicate weeds that are growing
in driveway cracks. Suggest any of the

18. The product Preen can contain the herbi- following except:
cide:
A. boiling water
A. Trifluralin
B. hand weeding
B. Glyphosate
C. 5% acetic acid (vinegar)
C. 2, 4-D
D. glyphosate
D. All of these
19. Which one of the following weeds is a bi- 24. Weed that propagate s by offset is
ennial? A. Cyanodon
A. ground ivy B. Cyperus
B. canada thistle C. Amaranth
C. garlic mustard
D. Pistia
D. dandelion
25. Perennial weeds that live for more than
20. Which major element is NOT contained in two years and grow year after year from
organic herbicide? the same root include:
A. Carbon
A. dandelion and pokeweed
B. Ammonium
B. chickweed and henbit
C. Nitrogen
C. mullein and garlic mustard
D. Phosphorus
D. ragweed and lamb’s quarter
21. When using herbicides, it is important to:
A. use broadcast application whenever 26. All of the following about glyphosate and
possible triclopyr are true except:
B. have separate sprayers for each herbi- A. both can control perennial and woody
cide weeds
C. apply immediately before rain is pre- B. both can control grasses and sedge
dicted weeds
D. apply on a windy day C. both have systemic post-emergent ac-
tivity
22. In controlling perennial grasses such as
quackgrass and nimblewill, it is best to: D. both can be applied to “cut surfaces.”
A. apply water sparingly before treat- 27. Mode of action:Inhibit cell division or mito-
ment sis
B. apply pre-emergent herbicides in early A. Cell membrane disruptor
spring
B. Inhibitors of fatty acid
C. spot treat with glyphosate
C. Cell growth inhibition
D. water the foliage thoroughly after ap-
plication D. Seedling growth inhibitor

28. When is the appropriate time to spray her- C. Both

bicide D. Striga
A. Afternoon
B. Morning tilling is false:
C. During windy A. it destroys young annual weeds
D. Evening B. it includes digging, cultivating, rototill-
ing, and plowing
29. Which statement is NOT TRUE?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. it quickly starves perennial roots to
A. Cultivation can injure crop roots death after initial contact
B. Herbicide provide early season weed D. it was used extensively before herbi-
control cides were introduced
C. Herbicide cannot reduce the need for
35. The quanity of dormant seeds in the soil
tillage
changes from year to year. What is this
D. Herbicide is important when labour is collection of seeds called?
expensive
A. seed bank
30. Weeds can: B. seed reservoir
A. indicate unsuitable growing conditions C. seed supply
for desired plants D. seed accumulation
B. affect yield and quality of agricultural
36. What is the purple-flowered, square
products
stemmed weed that tolerates close mow-
C. harbor pests ing:
D. all of these A. lamb’s quarter
31. What is the ten foot tall plant with B. deadnettle
bamboo-like stems that grows near C. hairy beittercress
streams and spreads aggressively? D. common purslane
A. oriental bittersweet
37. Guidelines for pre-emergent herbicides in-
B. tree of heaven clude:
C. japanese honeysuckle A. apply before installing sod
D. japanese knotweed B. apply after crabgrass germinates (be-
low 55 degrees)
32. The dispersal by ants is seen in
C. aerate after application
A. Boerria
D. water after application
B. Polygonum
38. Weeds with high value dessiminate by
C. Avena
wind
D. Echinocloa
A. Test weight
33. Birds dessiminate the seeds of B. Voilure coefficient
A. Loranthes C. Volume
B. Lantana D. Height

1.6 Pesticides, Herbicides, and Fertilizers 207
39. What is pre emergence herbicide? 40. What is the herbicide?

A. Before crop planted A. Unretarded the plant growth

B. Before weed emerge B. Chemicals that kills plant
C. After weed emerge C. Not change the chemical environment
D. After crop is harvested D. Not injure the weed root
1.6 Pesticides, Herbicides, and Fertilizers

1. What is any life form that competes for re- B. Toxic substance to plants used to de-
sources or can be dangerous to another’s stroy unwanted vegitation
health? C. Substance that helps plants grow
A. Pests faster
B. Disease D. none of above
C. Parasite 6. What two brands are make the most ge-
D. Insecticide netically modified seeds?
A. Monsanto Liberty Walk
2. What typically lives longer than a year,
but no longer than two years? B. Liberty and RoundUp
A. Biennial Weeds C. Roundup Ready and Air Walk
B. Annual Weeds D. Liberty Link and Roundup Ready
C. Perennial Weeds 7. What kills microorganisms present in the
D. none of above shortest time with no damage to the con-
taminated substrate?
3. What is a substance that reduces, pre- A. Disinfectants
vents, repels, or eliminates insects?
B. Herbicides
A. Insecticide
C. Pesticides
B. Pesticide
D. Insecticides
C. Herbicide
D. Disinfectants 8. One is one pro of Herbicide use?
A. It makes weeding easier and cheaper
4. An insect or other organism that can dam- for farmers
age crops.
B. It keeps animals away from crops
A. Parasite
C. Plants grow taller and stronger
B. Pest
D. It makes more organic crops
C. Integrated Pest Management
9. What is a substance that reduces, pre-
D. Disease
vents, repels, or eliminates weeds?
5. What is a herbicide? A. Herbicides
A. Toxic seed that kills plants around it B. Pesticides

1.6 Pesticides, Herbicides, and Fertilizers 208
C. Insecticides 15. What will live for several years and usu-
D. Disinfectants ally produce seeds every year?
A. Perennial Weeds
10. What has a complete life cycle from germi-
nation to producing a seed, within a year? B. Annual Weeds
A. Annual Weeds C. Biennial Weeds
B. Biennial Weeds D. none of above
C. Perennial Weeds 16. Where is genetically-modified herbicide
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above tolerant crops mostly grown commer-
cially?
11. What is a source of plant nutrients used to A. North and South America
supply one or more of the essential nutri-
ent elements to the plant? B. North and South Africa
A. Fertilizer C. North America and Canada
B. Pesticide D. East and West Europe
C. Integrated Pest Management 17. What is an organism that sustains life and
D. Insecticide gains nutrition through another life form?
A. Parasite
12. What is a source of plant nutrients used to
supply one or more of the essential nutri- B. Pest
ent elements for plant growth? C. Integrated Pest Management
A. Fertilizer D. Disease
B. Pesticide 18. What is any substance that reduces, pre-
C. Integrated Pest Management vents, repels, or eliminates pests?
D. Insecticide A. Pesticide
13. What is an effective, useful, and environ- B. Insecticide
mentally sensitive approach to pest man- C. Herbicide
agement that relies on a combination of D. Disinfectants
common-sense practices?
A. Integrated Pest Management 19. Who discovered Glyphosate?
B. Insecticides A. John E. Franz
C. Herbicides B. Adam Ertz
D. Pesticides C. Franz E. Ferdinand
D. John Fez
14. What is any condition in a plant caused by
living and nonliving agents that interferes 20. When were herbicide Tolerant crops intro-
with its normal growth and development? duced?
A. Disease A. 1920
B. Pests B. 1981
C. Parasites C. 1996
D. Pesticides D. 1969

1.7 Farming System 209
1.7 Farming System

1. Which of the following is a useful output 6. How do humans negatively impact the hy-
of the farming system? drosphere?
A. Stubble A. fertilizer washes into streams and may
increase the growth of algae
B. Weeds
B. they cut down trees for their wood
C. Vegetables
C. they raise large amounts of livestock
D. Sewage
D. none of above
2. Farming and raising livestock for profit is
called 7. Using natural substances instead of fertil-
izers and chemicals to increase crop yields
A. Subsistence farming
A. Open-Field Farming
B. Commercial farming
B. Organic Farming
C. Arable farming
C. Y E S
D. none of above
D. Terracing
3. Which of these is a farming output?
8. What is the main aim of commercial farm-
A. Tractor ing?
B. Milk A. Sell everything the farm produces
C. Milking B. Feed the farmer’s family
D. Investment C. Reduce the number of outputs
D. Protect the local environment
4. using the Earth’s resources to grow plants
and raise animals for the purpose of 9. How do humans negatively impact the at-
eating/survival or for making money is mosphere?
known as
A. Humans raise large amounts of live-
A. Agriculture stock, which produce large amounts of
B. Crop methane.
C. Subsistence Agriculture B. Mining can contaminate the soil.
D. Commercial Agriculture C. Humans can cut down trees.

D. none of above
5. Most farmers pollute soil by purposefully
adding 10. Commercial Farming is done in
A. fertilizer A. small scale
B. fossil fuels B. large scale
C. methane C. cm scale
D. acid rain D. km scale

11. Flowers, animal waste and lambs are all C. building dams along the river
examples of D. warming the water in a nearby river
A. Outputs
17. Commercial farming is a type of farming in
B. Inputs which crops are grown for use only.
C. Processes A. commercial
D. Farms B. public
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. When only crops are grown, we refer to C. personal
this as D. none of above
A. Arable farming
18. Which of the following is NOT a physical
B. Subsistence farming input of the farming system?
C. Commercial farming A. Land
D. none of above B. Rainfall
13. Which of these is a farming input? C. Fertiliser
A. Tractor D. Sunshine
B. Ploughing the fields 19. What is the benefit of contour plowing?

C. Milk A. It reduces soil erosion.
D. Harvest B. It deposits extra soil.
C. It takes out fertilizer
14. Which of the following is a human input of
the farming system? D. It adds nutrients to the soil
A. Machinery 20. Ploughing and sowing are the examples of
B. Weeds the of farming system.
C. Soil A. physical inputs
D. Land B. human inputs

C. outputs
15. Where can we find farmlands in Hong
D. processes
Kong?
A. Northern New Territories 21. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of wheat-sheep farming?
B. Outlying Islands
A. Arable farming
C. Hong Kong Island
B. Commercial farming
D. Kowloon
C. Extensive farming
16. Using nuclear power to produce electricity D. Mixed farming
can cause water pollution by
A. blocking sunlight from reaching part of 22. Which of the following is the largest fresh
a river food supplier of Hong Kong?
B. removing trees from the bank of the A. U.S.A

river B. Brazil

C. China 28. Which of the following is the major output

D. Thailand of Hong Kong?
A. Rice

23. Why is temperature a factor that affects
farming? B. Eggs
A. Each type of crop requires specific con- C. Fish

ditions for growth D. Vegetables
B. Crops can grow in a wide range of con- 29. How do humans negatively impact the geo-
ditions sphere?
C. Farmers prefer working in warmer A. The stream becomes dead when over-
conditions run by algae
D. Cows don’t like the rain B. Mining can contaminate the soil with
chemicals
24. Which of these is a physical factor affect-
ing farming? C. Humans mine landforms in order to
get raw materials to sustain factories.
A. Amount of rainfall
D. Both 2 and 3
B. Amount of machinery
C. Availability of workers 30. Which type of agriculture is mainly prac-
ticed in developed nations?
D. Amount of capital
A. hunting and gathering
25. A form of garden design to improve soil B. subsistence agriculture
drainage and general quality, piling soil
or compost on the surface of the natural C. commercial agriculture
ground D. fishing
A. Raised Beds 31. Sunlight needed for vegetables
B. Full Sun A. Hydroponics
C. Strip Cropping B. Greenhouse
D. Contour Farming C. Terracing
26. This provides food for direct consumption D. Full Sun
for farmer and family 32. What is one benefit of farming?
A. Agriculture A. Cheaper
B. Crop B. Convenient
C. Subsistence Agriculture C. Healthier
D. Commercial Agriculture D. All of the above
27. Dairy farming in the United Kingdom is a 33. Growing crops and raising live stock to
type of meet family needs is called
A. arable farming A. Commercial farming
B. subsistence farming B. Mixed farming
C. mixed farming C. Subsistence farming
D. pastoral farming D. none of above

1.8 Sustainable Agriculture 212
34. Which of the following is a characteristic A. things put into the farm, such as seeds
of rice farming in Thailand?
B. activities or changes, such as irrigat-
A. It is a type of mixed farming ing the fields
B. The crops are mainly for family use C. items produced by the farm, such as
C. Labour input is high crops
D. Farm area is large D. none of these options
35. What is a toxic material?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
37. Which of the following is NOT a character-
A. puts a lot of oxygen into the air istic of farming in Hong Kong?
B. causes injury or death to an organism A. Farms are small
C. leaks into the different earths systems B. Crops are sold overseas
D. occurs naturally C. Vegetables is the major output
36. Inputs into a farm are D. Crops are grown in high density
1.8 Sustainable Agriculture

1. What change would best aid a farmer B. cover crops
in making the transition from traditional C. monoculture
farmer to sustainable farming?
D. tillage
A. Irrigate the crops using well water
4. Which of the following accounts for the
B. Rotate the types of crops grown
largest portion of carbon footprint when
C. Plant only genetically modified crops it comes to food?
D. Reduce the ratio of essential elements A. Processing
in the fertilizer
B. Transportation
2. What is sustainability? C. Cooking
A. Meeting the needs of the community D. Waste disposal
NOW and planning for the needs of the
community in the FUTURE. 5. The industry generates nearly one-
fifth of the man-made greenhouse gas
B. Meeting the needs of the community emissions worldwide.
NOW only.
A. Meat
C. Meeting the needs of the community in
B. Dairy
the FUTURE only.
C. Processed Food
D. Both the positive and negative out-
come of a decision. D. none of above
3. Growing a single crop or plant species 6. What is land called that is suitable for
over a wide area and for many consecu- farming?
tive years. A. Growable
A. clear cutting B. Fallow

C. Arable 12. Which of the following are environmental

impacts of extensive aquaculture?
D. Plantable

A. spread of disease
7. relating to living things; made without the B. pollution
use of artificial chemicals
C. introduced species
A. market
D. all of the above
B. innovation
13. Which of the following are harmful effects
C. organic material of agriculture?
D. fertilizer A. Algal blooms due to fertilizer runoff
8. the wealth and resources of a country or B. Climate change associated with
region, especially in terms of the produc- methane emissions from livestock and
tion and consumption of goods and ser- rice paddies
vices C. Pesticide residue in food, water, and
A. economy air
D. All of the above
B. conservation tillage
C. best management practices 14. In organic farming, how is food grown?
D. crop residue A. in a “natural” way

B. in a barn
9. Why do people like organic products? C. in a factory
A. Because they are cheaper D. using lots of pesticides and fertilizers
B. Because they have less pesticide
15. Cultivated rows run sideways, rather than
C. Because they are more expensive up and down. Slows down water erosion.
D. none of above A. Shelter belt
B. Strip cropping
10. The rearing of aquatic animals and plants
for human consumption or use. C. Terracing
A. ranching D. Contour plowing
B. aquaculture 16. Process by which human activities or cli-

mate change make areas more desert-like
C. agriculture
A. Desertification
D. cultivation
B. Domesticated
11. Rainwater harvesting is C. Arable
A. reducing the need to water the crop D. Overharvesting
B. Targeting the delivery of water 17. Which kitchen appliance uses the most en-
C. automation of the process ergy?
D. water collection from buildings & hard A. Refrigerator

standing areas B. Toaster

C. Oven C. the plants clean the fish and the water

D. Microwave feeds the plants
D. the fish fee the fish and the plants
18. the simple planting of seed starts a chain feeds the plants
of events that help the farmer, community,
and eventually the world 23. The benefits of managing the grazing in-
cludes
A. market
A. preventing the scrub-land plants from
B. population density
NARAYAN CHANGDER
establishing & maintaining the soil fertility
C. ripple effect
B. efficient use of available fertilizers
D. riparian area
C. a wider diet for farmers
19. a place where products are bought and D. reducing the need of irrigation
sold
24. What do conventional farmers do to keep
A. market
pests off their crops?
B. innovation A. zap them with an electric fence
C. irrigation B. burn their grass yearly
D. fertilizer C. spray the crops with pesticides
20. This prevents soil erosion and sup- D. grow the crops close together
presses/reduces weeds.
25. Amount of crops produced per unit area
A. cover crops
A. Diet
B. crop rotation
B. Famine
C. monoculture
C. Malnutrition
D. tillage
D. Yield
21. Which would NOT be a reason to use GM
26. Organic fertilizers
crops?
A. are a waste product
A. Using GM crops can increase crop
yields. B. uses a lot of energy
B. Using GM crops can reduce use of in- C. improves the soil structure
secticide sprays. D. act faster
C. Using GM crops may be able to feed
27. the science, art, or practice of cultivating
more people faster.
the soil, producing crops, and raising live-
D. Using GM crops can increase pesticide stock and in varying degrees the prepara-
resistance in pests. tion and marketing of the resulting prod-
ucts
22. Aquaponics is an ecosystem where
A. agriculture
A. The fish feeds the plants and the
plants clean the water for the fish B. 4R Nutrient Stewardship System
B. the farmer feeds the fish and then C. conservation tillage

feeds the plants D. crop residue

28. helps farmers apply the right source of nu- C. monoculture

trients at the right rate, time, and place on D. slash and burn
their fields

34. plant material remaining in a field after
A. agriculture
harvesting, including leaves, stalks, and
B. 4R Nutrient Stewardship System roots
C. conservation tillage A. career
D. crop residue B. conservation tillage
29. Sustainability is to C. best management practices
A. maintain our resources for the future D. crop residue

generation 35. Which movement encourages us to buy lo-
B. not to use the natural resources cal produce and make home cooked meals?
C. not to pollute the environment A. Slow Food
D. use only clean energy B. Organic
C. Biodynamic
30. is the well known example of early
chemical insecticide D. none of above
A. Boric Acid 36. any material of natural or synthetic origin

that is applied to soils or plant tissues to
B. Diazinon, Dursban, toxaphene
supply one or more nutrients essential to
C. Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane plant growth
D. Malathion A. economy
31. The agricultural practice of growing a sin- B. conservation tillage
gle crop, plant, or livestock species at one C. best management practices
time. D. fertilizer
A. Uniculture
37. meeting the economic, social, and environ-
B. Biculture mental needs of the present without com-
C. Monoculture promising the needs of the future
D. low input farming A. market
B. sustainable
32. a new method, idea, or product
C. ripple effect
A. infastructure
D. riparian area
B. innovation
38. The loss of the Atlantic Cod around New-
C. habitat
foundland occurred because those fisheries
D. fertilizer were
33. Most or all trees in an area are uniformly A. Underexploited
cut down. B. Fully exploited
A. clear cutting C. Overexploited.
B. cover crops D. None of the above.

39. Whole foods require less processing since 44. Which of the following is NOT a way of
they are whole, therefore conserving topsoil:
A. use less fossil fuels to process A. Build terraces when planting crops on
hillsides
B. are usually grown in monoculture
B. Till down the slope instead of across it
C. cost society money and lost time in the
work force C. Do not till the soil between plantings
D. require more pesticides causing air, D. Leave strips of land untilled between
NARAYAN CHANGDER
water and soil pollution fields
40. A is a prolonged period of below aver- 45. The is a government agency that
age precipitation in an area. serves us by enforcing and forming laws
that protect the environment.
A. Famine
A. DDT
B. Drought
B. EPA
C. Yield
C. CIA
D. Green Revolution
D. FBI
41. What does sustainability mean?
46. Agriculture is best defined as
A. Using lots of resources.
A. the hunting and gathering
B. Maintaining the world we live in for fu-
B. the altering genetic material of plants
ture generations.
C. the cultivation of plants/domesticating
C. Cutting down trees.
animals
D. Using lots of water and electricity.
D. using technology to increase produc-
tion
42. Composting can help reduce household
waste, but which one of these should not 47. methods that can improve efficiency, opti-
be used? mize resources, and prevent or help reduce
A. Egg shells pollution
B. Meat trimmings A. agriculture
C. Fruit Peels B. 4R Nutrient Stewardship System
D. Seeds C. best management practices
D. crop residue
43. Growing different crops in succession in
the same field. This helps r eplenish soil 48. *If not packaged properly, canned foods
nutrients. are vulnerable to what type of bacteria?
A. clear cutting A. E. Coli
B. crop rotation B. Salmonella
C. monoculture C. Botulinum
D. tillage D. Campylobacter

49. Which are crops that can grow in a Green- A. Pole Fishing
house? B. Long Line Fishing

A. Strawberries, Oranges, Peaches C. Purse Seining
B. Carrots, Beans, Beets D. Trawling
C. Spinach, Lettuce, Kale 55. The ability to maintain an ecological bal-
D. All the above ance in an ecosystem is
50. I can’t think of any more questions. What A. engineering

are our names? B. sustainability
A. Ariel, Karen, Arora C. natural ecosystem
B. Kate, Akeelah, Anaika D. balanced ecosystem
C. Ambika, Kara, Anira 56. Step like ridges are built and arranged
D. asdfghjkl, qwertyuiop, zxcvbnm sideways on a hill. Slows down water ero-
sion.
51. The Swordfish has an MSC Certification la- A. Shelter belt
bel on it. What does this mean?
B. Strip cropping
A. The fish is certified to be organic and
C. Terracing
free of pesticides and antibiotics.
D. Contour plowing
B. The fish comes from a facility that fol-
lows sustainable fishing practices. 57. the basic equipment and structures (such
C. The fish was not harvested using any as roads and bridges) that are needed for
form of seining, netting, or trawling. a country, region, or organization to func-
tion properly
D. The fish came from a Marine Reserve.
A. infastructure
52. A space between the land and the wa- B. conservation tillage
terway ideally filled with native grass,
C. habitat
bushes, and trees
D. fertilizer
A. market
B. population density 58. Junk food promotes overeating because -
A. It offers more calories in small quanti-
C. organic material
ties
D. riparian area
B. It’s low in fiber
53. GMOs can be C. It’s high in fat, sugar and salt
A. plants only D. It tastes good
B. animals only 59. The cutting and burning of plants in forests
C. plant, animal, and bacteria or woodlands to create fields.
D. plant and animal only A. crop rotation
B. slash and burn
54. Which type of fishing has high rates of
bycatch and highly destructive of benthic C. tillage
communities. D. cover crops

60. Most or all trees in an area are uniformly B. Domesticated

cut down at one time. C. Overharvesting
A. clear cutting D. Yield
B. cover crops
66. The process of growing and distributing
C. monoculture food, as well as raising animals, in and
D. slash and burn around a city.
A. Cooperative Farming
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. Agriculture can be harmful to the litho-
sphere because fertilizers and can pol- B. Urban Farming
lute the water. C. Rural Farming
A. pesticides D. Community Farming
B. monoculture
67. What type of farming is practiced to pro-
C. hydrofracking duce food for sale off the farm?
D. uranium A. Commercial
62. the natural home or environment of an an- B. subsistence
imal, plant, or other organisms C. seed
A. economy D. vegetative
68. A “conventional” farm is where
C. habitat
A. food is grown naturally
D. fertilizer
B. typically only one crop is grown on a
63. someone who identifies with being part of large scale
an emerging world community and whose C. only water from a lake is used
actions contribute to building this commu-
D. more than one crop is grown
nity’s values and practices
A. economy 69. the area of land where all of the water
that falls in it and drains off of it goes into
the same place
C. global citizen
A. market
D. fertilizer
B. sustainable agriculture
64. Adding a layer of manure, mulch, or com- C. ripple effect
post D. watershed
A. cover crops
70. What do we call it when an ecosystem is
B. clear cutting able to maintain its structure and be stable
C. monoculture over time?
D. soil enrichment A. It is dependable.
65. Removing more organisms from a popula- B. It is sustainable.

tion than can be replaced C. It is independent.
A. Livestock D. It is adaptable.

71. Which of the following is NOT a nega- B. sustainable agriculture

tive side effect of modern agricultural tech- C. ripple effect
niques versus traditional techniques?

D. technology
A. Increased use of fossil fuels
B. Increased crop yields 77. What would happen if industrial farmers
stopped using inorganic chemical fertiliz-
C. Increased use of fertilizers ers?
D. Increased use of pesticides A. Crop yields would decrease dramati-
72. Which of the following is NOT a factor that cally
affects soil erosion in agriculture? B. Crop yields would increase dramati-
A. Climate cally
B. Type of vegetation C. Farmers would use much more water
C. Altitude D. The need for pesticides would de-
crease
D. Slope steepness
78. Washing your fruits and vegetables with
73. GMO stands for
a mix of water and can help remove
A. genetically made organism pesticide residues.
B. genetically modified organism A. Lime
C. gene manipulated organism B. Baking Soda
D. Genetic mutant organism C. Sugar
74. Growing only one type of crops does what D. Vinegar
to the soil?
79. How are aquatic dead zones created?
A. takes water out of the soil
A. Using fertilizers and runoff
B. takes oxygen out of the soil
B. Spraying pollen and rockslides
C. takes pests out of the soil
C. Climate change
D. can contribute to nutrient depletion
D. Walls changing migration patterns
75. If a food label says ‘organic’, what does
80. an occupation is undertaken for a signifi-
it mean?
cant period of a person’s life and with op-
A. It contains no genetically modified or- portunities for progress; generally, a pro-
ganisms fession requiring special training
B. It was produced using the best sus- A. career
tainable agricultural methods.
B. 4R Nutrient Stewardship System
C. It is free of antibiotics, growth hor-
mones and pesticides C. best management practices
D. All of the above D. crop residue
76. the application of scientific knowledge for 81. A poison used to destroy pests
practical purposes A. Biological Pest Control
A. market B. Pesticide

C. Genetic Engineering 87. How might scientists check to make sure

D. Overharvesting their GMO worked?
A. Add a fluorescent (glowing) gene (with
82. an approach to agriculture that focuses on
the gene of interest) to see if the final
producing food while improving the eco-
product glows
nomic viability of farms, protecting natu-
ral resources, and enhancing the quality of B. Add another gene (with the gene of
life for farmers and society as a whole interest), like a resistance to herbicide
gene, to test for its addition in the final
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. market
product.
B. sustainable agriculture
C. Add pests to the final product to see if
C. ripple effect they live or die!
D. riparian area D. All of the above!
83. artificial application of water to the land
88. Why is biodiversity important in fighting
or soil to assist plant growth
disease in food crops?
A. infastructure
A. It prevents one disease from wiping
B. innovation out an entire food crop.
C. irrigation B. It prevents habitat loss of native
D. fertilizer species.
84. A measure of human demand on the C. It provides different foods for differ-
Earth’s ecosystems. It compares human ent populations.
demand with planet Earth’s ecological ca- D. It prevents fungal disease from wiping
pacity to regenerate out corn crops.
A. Ecology
89. Raising of aquatic plants or animals for hu-
B. Ecological Footprint
man use
C. Environment
A. Aquaculture
D. none of above
B. Overharvesting
85. a measurement of population per unit area C. Arable
or unit volume
D. Famine
A. market
B. population density 90. farming methods that reduce the intensity
C. organic material or frequency of tilling in order to maintain
some ground cover throughout the year
D. fertilizer and disturb the soil as little as possible
86. All of the following are benefits of pesti- while still providing the conditions needed
cide use EXCEPT to grow a productive crop
A. disease control A. career
B. crop protection B. conservation tillage
C. genetic resistance C. best management practices
D. lower food costs for consumers D. crop residue

1.9 Organic farming 221
91. Rows of trees are planted close together 95. What is the official definition for sustain-
to help force wind movement upward, ability?
away from the ground.

A. Understanding how to meet the needs
A. wind break of the present generation
B. Strip cropping B. Understanding how to meet the needs
C. Terracing of the present without compromising the
D. Contour plowing needs of the future generation
C. Understanding how to meet the needs
92. Practice that modifies the genome of living
of future generations
organisms for industrial use
D. none of above
A. Domesticated
B. Livestock 96. Because it uses less pesticides, organic
C. Biological pest control farming pollution to the soil and the
air.
D. Genetic engineering
A. reduces
93. Desertification is caused by:
B. reducing
A. An increase in the eating of desserts
C. reduced
B. A decrease in population in desert ar-
eas D. none of above
C. The degradation of soil in semi-arid re-
97. The aims of sustainable agriculture include
gions
the following
D. Droughts in tropical regions
A. meeting the need of the population
94. Preparing a field by digging, stirring, or while sustaining the economic Indepen-
overturning soil dence
A. clear cutting B. making efficient use of nonrenewable
B. cover crops resource
C. monoculture C. supporting natural ecosystem
D. tilling D. all of the above
1.9 Organic farming

1. The chickens that are bred to be eaten are A. Crop Rotation
called B. Cover Crops
A. Perdue C. Balanced Host Predator Relationships
B. Broilers D. All of these
C. Hen
3. good for your health (of food and drinks
D. Peacocks only)
2. Which of the following does organic farm- A. nutritious

ing promote? B. non-organic

C. organic 9. Which of the following is an organic farm-

ing practices that help to maintain soil
D. none of above
health
4. Use of crop rotation is solution to which A. synthetic fertilizer
problem B. monoculture
A. soil erosion C. crop rotation
B. monoculture D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both of the above 10. is usually more expensive.
D. none of above A. pet food
B. non-organic food
5. Egg-laying chickens take weeks to be-
come mature. C. organic food
A. 2 D. none of above
B. 5 11. grown naturally without the use of pesti-

cides
C. 6
A. nutritious
D. 8
B. non-organic
6. What does organic farming uses to enrich C. organic
the soil D. none of above
A. Chemicals
12. One role of educators to promote nature
B. Manure farming is ?
C. Chemical fertilisers A. implement
D. Rotten plants B. research
C. study
7. Which is not an effect on the environment
from using chemical in farming? D. none of above
A. chemical run offs in water ways for do- 13. What is used to control the growth of
mestic use. weeds in an organic farm?
B. chemical run offs can cause problem A. Hay
to aquatic life B. Straw
C. growth of plants and animals C. Wood Chips
D. air pollution that leads to acid rain D. All of these
14. Who is considered the father of modern or-
8. The amount of pesticides in a food chain:
ganic farming?
A. decreases along the chain A. M.S. Swaminathan
B. stays the same along the chain B. Norman Borlaug
C. increases along the chain C. Albert Howard
D. disappears at the start of a chain D. Katherine Esau

15. Is organic food healthier than food produce 20. Alternative to use of pesticides is biologi-
from conventional farm. cal pest control . This means

A. yes A. Use of natural predators to kill the
pests
B. no
B. Use of herbal pesticides
C. maybe
C. Use of mixed cropping
D. none of above
D. none of above
16. What is monoculture 21. Below is Examples techniques in organic
A. Growing of multiple crops in an area farming except.
B. leaving the land without any cultivation A. Effective Microorganisms (EM)
C. Growing of a single crop in an area for B. Polyculture

a long period of time C. Using herbicide
D. none of above D. Composting
17. Which type of soil can hold the greatest 22. All of the following are things you need to
amount of water? start a chicken farm, except
A. Sand, because it has great particles A. Chickens

B. Chicken House
B. Silt, because its particles are smaller
than sand C. Perch
C. Clay, because its particles are very D. An Extremely Big Backyard
small 23. Which method of farming is better for en-
D. Loam, because it is a combination of vironment
different types of soil A. Conventional Farming
18. What is the main difference between or- B. Organic Farming
ganic and non-organic food? C. Inorganic Farming
A. size of the farm D. Unconventional Farming
B. use of pesticides 24. What is the definition of organic food?
C. location of the farm A. Food that is produced using chemicals
D. none of above B. Food that is produced using methods
of both organic and conventional farming
19. Which food could be raised, grown, pro-
C. Food that is produced using methods
cessed as an Organic Food?
of conventional farming
A. Chicken D. Food that is produced using methods
B. Chocolate Chip Cookies of organic farming
C. Granny Smith Apples 25. Which of these can be added to soil and
D. All could possibility be certified or- plants in the organic production of food?
ganic. A. herbicides

B. pesticides 31. Which of the following is a benefit of non-

C. fertilizers organic farming?
D. manure A. crops mature faster in short time

B. produces are less expensive
26. Which of the following is prohibited for an
C. antibiotics are used to enhance ani-
organic farmer to cultivate crops?
mals
A. Fertilizers
D. crops spoils easily
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Hormones for the growth of plants
32. A chemical that stops insects from destroy-
C. Pesticides ing crops is called
D. All of these A. ingredients
27. How many days does it take for a chicken B. organic
egg to hatch? C. pesticide
A. 12 D. weeds
B. 50 33. Which of these is a plant root used for
C. 21 food?
D. 5 A. lettuce
28. Which is the first state of India to com- B. carrot
pletely practice organic farming? C. mango
A. Sikkim D. banana
B. Haryana 34. the sticker, tag, etc. with information
C. Punjab about a product
D. Uttarakhand A. pesticide
B. process
29. The following are disadvantages of non-
organic farming EXCEPT: C. label
A. Creates a higher chance of plant dis- D. none of above

eases and damage to animals 35. Who developed the organic method?
B. Harmful to the soil. A. F.H. King, Sir Albert Howard and
C. Not as healthy or as beneficial to hu- Roudlf Stiener
mans B. Roberto Abraham, Sir Albert Howard
D. Farming practices reduce pollution C. Sarah Youligh and Roberto Abraham
and soil erosion D. none of above
30. What is another name for homemade ma- 36. Which method of organic farming helps to
nure? refresh the nutrients in the soil
A. manure A. Addition of chemicals
B. useful garbage B. Stubble burning
C. compost C. Crop rotation
D. weedicide D. Irrigation

37. Is Manuring/Compostion, Mulching, Raw- C. Mud

ing of meat and Sanitation apart of organic D. Silt
farming practices???

A. Yes 43. The widespread of chemicals began after
B. All except Sanitation A. World War II
C. All except Rawing of Meat B. World War I
D. none of above C. Civil War

D. Korean War
38. the different foods, spices, etc used to
make a meal or a dish 44. What is the percentage of crops cultivated
with organic techniques?
A. label
A. 40%
B. ingredients
B. 30%
C. product
C. 60%
D. none of above
D. 10%
39. Which of the following would you NOT put
in a compost for your own manure? 45. All of the following are advantages of or-
ganic farming EXCEPT
A. peelings from ground provision
A. Organic foods can be expected to have
B. meat scraps lower levels of pesticides and pesticide
C. eggs shells residue
D. dried leaves B. Organic foods are usually more expen-
sive
40. There are how many principles of organic
farming? C. Organic foods provide better nourish-
ment to people and animals alike.
A. 5
D. Organic foods are better for the envi-
B. 4 ronment.
C. 3
46. Learning about Chickens is Fun and Inter-
D. 6 esting
41. Which of these is an organic method of A. True
farming? B. False
A. using pesticide C. Absolutely Not
B. weeding D. none of above
C. using antibiotics
47. Which country is the leading producer of
D. giving growth hormone to animals organic crops?
42. Which of the following is NOT one of the A. Australia
best soil for planting crops? B. India
A. Clay C. United States of America
B. Loam D. Mexico

1.10 Management of natural resources 226
48. Which of the following is not a type of or- 50. What is soil a mixture of?
ganic farming? A. dirt and leaves
A. Animal Husbandry B. rocks and water
B. Natural Farming C. air and food
C. Biofertilizers D. rock particles, minerals, decayed or-
D. Greenleaf Manures ganic material, air and water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. a chemical that stops insects from destroy- 51. Broiler Chickens take to become ma-
ing crops ture.
A. pesticide A. 10 weeks
B. organic B. 2-3 weeks
C. ingredients C. 7 weeks
D. none of above D. 1 week
1.10 Management of natural resources

1. A product that comes from petroleum is B. Artificial
A. paper C. Some artificial, some natural
B. popsorn D. none of above
C. plastic 5. Natural resources that are used up at a
D. pollution rate faster than they can be replaced
2. Where is most water insecurity found? A. renewable resources
A. On the equator B. nonrenewable resource
B. 30 degrees above the equator C. recycle
C. 30 degrees below the equator D. conserve
D. none of above 6. where is coliform bacteria present
3. clear cutting is a harvesting method in A. intestine

which B. liver
A. trees that provide shelter to seedlings C. stomach
are left uncut D. mouth
B. only some mature trees in an area are
cut 7. Green legislation are
C. only immature trees in an area are cut A. laws that force manufacturers to recy-
cle
D. all of the trees in an area are cut
B. laws that force manufacturers to re-
4. The factors encompassed by the environ- duce pollution
ment are: C. laws and regulations that are based on
A. Natural conservation and sustainability principles,

followed by designers and manufacturers 13. Which group has the greatest influence in
when creating green products determining what goods and services will
be produced in a communist economic sys-

D. none of above
tem?
8. How can you prevent the soil erosion
A. Farmers
A. Overgrazing
B. Government officials
B. Deforestation
C. Removal of vegetation C. Consumers
D. Afforestation D. Business leaders
9. What are considered as biodiversity 14. soil, fresh water, wild animals, and timber
hotspots? are examples of
A. Ecosystem A. renerable resources
B. Forests
B. inexhaustible resources
C. Zoos
C. nonrenewable resources
D. Oceans
D. forest resources
10. What are the 3 key elements of D4S?
A. People - Planet - Profit 15. Designed to protect the ozone layer by
phasing out substances responsible
B. Plastic - Pollution - Problems
C. Planet - Pollution - Plastic A. Montreal Protocol
D. none of above B. Kyoto Protocol
11. All are benefits to Reusing resources ex- C. Madrid Protocol

cept: D. Yucca Protocol
A. More damage to the environment
through extraction of materials 16. A catalytic converter is a good example of
B. Less damage to the environment, ex- what
traction is not needed A. End-of-pollution and waste technology
C. Reduce the cost of products B. End-of-manufacturing technology
D. Reduce the waste we produce
C. End-of-process technology
12. What is the goal of ecosystem-based for- D. End-of-pipe technology
est management?
A. To gather data for areas managed in 17. An internal driver of eco design from an
different ways, and develop a customized economic perspective is
plan based on the results
A. Government legislation
B. To harvest resources while minimizing
effects on the rest of the ecosystem B. Pressure from competitors
C. To harvest maximum resources with- C. The need to improve a product and

out compromising future harvests company image
D. none of above D. Demand from the market

18. What are two causes for desertification? B. Ozone levels, acidification, winter
A. drought and development smog, heavy metals
B. drought and overgrazing from live- C. Pollution of rivers, regional waters

stock and watersheds
C. mining and fishing D. none of above
D. mining and overgrazing from livestock 24. At what stages of a products lifecycle does
a manufacturer have the least impact?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
humans practicing conservation? A. Pre-production, production & distribu-
tion
A. Flushing the toilet more often.
B. Production and distribution
B. Running smaller, more frequent loads
C. Utilization and disposal
of laundry
D. none of above
C. Letting the faucet run while brushing
teeth 25. When does a designer have the most im-
D. Collecting water in rain barrels to irri- pact in a products lifecycle?
gate gardens A. Pre-production and production
20. polluted water has the following qualities B. Production and distribution
A. high E.coli concentration C. Utilization and disposal
B. low or high pH D. none of above
C. Foul color, odour and cause diseases 26. Which one of the following is an example
D. all of these of renewable resource?
A. Coal
21. What group was used by the RUF as sol-
diers? B. Petroleum
A. Women C. Wildlife
B. Children D. Natural gas
C. Elderly 27. When does the user have the least impact
D. none of above in a products lifecycle?
A. Pre-production, production & distribu-
22. Why are some diamonds nicknamed tion
“Blood Diamonds”
B. Production and distribution
A. They are red in color
C. Utilization and disposal
B. They are bought by terrorists
D. none of above
C. They are passed down through family
generations 28. To use less of something is to
D. They are mined in a war zone A. renew
23. Global pollution is associated with what? B. reuse
A. Climate change, sea level rises, impact C. reduce

on the ozone layer D. recycle

29. In the forest range of Midnapore dis- 33. System level solutions to reduce pollution
trict involvement of villagers helped to re- and waste
cover trees of sal

A. deal with the whole system, rather
A. Amazon forest than just one or two components
B. Arabari B. deal with one or two important compo-
nents
C. Vandalur forest
C. use end-of-pipe technology only
D. Sundrban forest
D. none of above
30. Which statement provides an important
reason why countries and regions special- 34. Select the MOST correct definition for Nat-
ize in their economic activities? ural Resources
A. Items the business uses that come
A. they become more self sufficient.
form the natural environment. Examples
B. they do not wish to compete. include land, water, people and raw mate-
C. they have different productive re- rials.
sources. B. Items the business uses that come
from the natural environment. Examples
D. they are unable to overcome trade bar-
include land, water and raw materials.
riers.
C. Items the business uses that come
31. Which of the following is the age old con- from the natural environment. Examples
cept of water harvesting system in Mad- include land, water, machines and raw
hya Pradesh? materials.
A. Bundhis D. Items the business uses that come
from the natural environment. Examples
B. Bandharas
include land, water, capital and raw mate-
C. Ponds rials.
D. Nadis 35. Select the MOST correct term for the defi-
nition of Resources
32. Examples of Green Design are A. man-
ufacture and producing products using less A. Resources are objects needed for the
energyB. choosing non-toxic, sustainably- business to function properly.
produced or recycled materials which don’t B. Resources are objects and people who
need as much energy to processC. produc- are needed for the business to function
ing products that are long lasting and bet- properly.
ter functioning so there is less replacement
and use of productsD. designing products C. Resources are the things, including ob-
using the concept of being able to be recy- jects that are needed for the business to
cled when it has outlived its use function properly.
D. Resources include the people and ob-
A. A & B only
jects that are needed for the business to
B. B & C only function properly.
C. A & D only
36. Which of the following are renewable re-
D. A, B, C & D sources?

A. sunlight B. petroleum
B. water C. fossil fuels
C. air D. none of the above
D. all of the above 42. Select the Most correct definition for Cap-
37. Which of these is the most likely result of a ital Resources
well-planned national transportation net- A. The tools, labour and machinery that
work? are used to produce goods or provide ser-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Government projects are more prof- vices.
itable B. The tools, knowledge, labour and ma-
B. Damage to fragile items is minimized chinery that are used to produce goods or
provide services.
C. Consumers have access to a wider va-
riety ofproducts C. The capital that is used to produce
goods or provide services.
D. Raw materials are more difficult to get
to market D. The tools and machinery that are used
to produce goods or provide services.
38. Which of the following is not an use of for-
est 43. The Chipko Movement in the Himalayas to
protect the forest cover was started by
A. control floods
A. Dr Aruna Roy of Kisan Mazdur Vikas
B. used to make paper
B. Medha Patkar
C. causes soil erosion
C. Sunder Lai Bahuguna
D. Resins, gums are obtained
D. Dr Anil Agarwal of CSE
39. From the list given below pick the item
that is not a natural resource 44. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on
which river?
A. Soil
A. Ganga
B. Water
B. Sutlej
C. Electricity
C. Cauvery
D. Air
D. Narmada
40. Maximum sustainable yield, ecosystem-
based management, and adaptive manage- 45. Electricity produced by moving water.
ment are three approaches to A. geothermal
A. poaching B. hydroelectric
B. overharvesting C. wind
C. resource management D. solar
D. none of these are correct 46. Which of the following is a characteristic
41. natural resources, such as coal, oil and nat- of soil?
ural gas are also known as A. color
A. renewable resources B. texture

C. ability to retain water 52. Plants and animals are considered

D. all of the above A. renewable resources

47. What word MOST NEARLY means:to pro- B. nonrenewable resources
cess materials, such as paper, plastic, alu- C. all of the above
minum, steel, and glass, so they can be
used to make new items?
A. reduce 53. Resources that can be replaced or restored
B. reuse A. non renewable
C. recycle B. natural resources
D. conserve C. renewable
48. In recent years, companies from more de- D. biotic factors

veloped nations have often built new pro- 54. Which set of factors most likely corre-
duction facilities in less developed nations. sponds to a country that is classified as
This outsourcing has occured because less more developed?
developed nations frequently have -
A. Literacy rate=low, life ex-
A. a favorable climate pectancy=high
B. capital resources B. Literacy rate=high, infant mortal-
C. a supply of inexpensive labor ity=high
D. greater political stability C. Life expectancy=high; infant mortal-
ity=low
49. Where did the Chipko Movement begin?
D. Life expectancy=low; infant mortal-
A. Reni in Gharhwal
ity=high
B. Gharhwal in Reni
C. Reni in Sanchi 55. Which of the following is an age old con-
cept of water harvesting system in Ra-
D. Sukratoda in Gharhwal jasthan?
50. The tools and machinery that are used to A. Bandharas
produce goods and perform services are B. Surangams
called
C. Khadins
A. human resources
D. Kattas
B. capital resources
C. natural resource 56. What do companies often need in order
to implement green legislation success-
D. labour resources
fully?A. Time to implement legislationB.
51. What percent of earths land animals and Tax breaks to offset costsC. Large facto-
plants live in forests? riesD. A large number of employees
A. 50% A. A & D only
B. 90% B. B & C only
C. 70% C. A, B & C
D. 65% D. A & B only

57. What was done to those teens and kids C. African countries were left with no sta-
that didnt do what they were told immedi- ble economy or infrastructure after Euro-
ately? peans left
A. tortured / killed D. European’s left all the money to their
African colonies
B. they had to climb mountains
C. they had to work in farms 63. The three approaches to resouce man-
agement are maximum sustainable yield,
D. they had to watch the cattle ecosystem-based management and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. To use something again and again is to A. adaptive management
A. renew B. forestry managememt
B. reuse C. natural resources based management
C. reduce D. sustainability management
D. recycle 64. Any useful material that is found in nature:

A. Natural Resource
59. In which year Ganga action plan was
launched B. Human Resource
A. 2085 C. Plants
D. none of above
B. 1985
C. 1785 65. Construction, food processing, furniture
making are examples of what level of eco-
D. 1885 nomic activity?
60. What does D4S stand for? A. Primary
A. Design for Stability B. Secondary
B. Design for Safety C. Tertiary
C. Design for Sustainability D. Quaternary
D. none of above 66. The term that describes a technology used

to reduce pollutants and waste at the end
61. What are some outcomes of the wars of a manufacturing process is
caused by Blood Diamonds? A. End-of-pollution and waste technology
A. friends and family members lost B. End-of-manufacturing technology
B. lives shattered C. End-of-process technology
C. physical and emotional scars D. End-of-pipe technology
D. all of the above 67. How is biodiversity measured?
62. How did European Colonization impact the A. Number of animals present
economy of African? B. By the interdependence of animals and
A. Africa and European have equal plants
economies C. By the number of species found
B. Africa now has no resources D. Number of plants present

68. How many categories of resources does a 73. Countries generally specialize in producing
business need to plan for? particular goods. What is one result of
such specialization?

A. 4
B. 3 A. Production and consumption gradually
decrease.
C. 2
B. Countries depend on trade to obtain
D. 5 other goods.
69. Which of the following in not a reason for C. Countries become less interdepen-
deforestation? dent.
A. Fuel D. Prices increase as many goods be-
come more scarce.
B. Farm land
C. Settlements/ housing 74. Which of the following is an example of
conservation?
D. room for solar pannels
A. Rotating which crops grow in a field
70. National and State Parks help conserve each year so the soil does not loose its nu-
trients.
A. Land, animals, and plants
B. Cutting down only specific types of
B. fossil fuels
trees and then planting new ones in their
C. wind and solar energy place.
D. nuclear power plants C. Riding your bike to school.
71. In our country, vast tracts of forests are D. Only keeping fish of a certain size and
cleared and a single species of plant is cul- throwing small fish back so they can re-
tivated. This practice promotes produce.
A. biodiversity in the area 75. Environmental considerations of Eco-

B. monoculture in the area Design are A. Water and soil pollu-
tion - water and soil degradation - air
C. growth of natural forest contamination - noise - energy consump-
D. preserves the natural ecosystem in tion - consumption of - natural resources -
the area pollution - effect on ecosystemsB. Water
and soil degradation - air contamination -
72. Select the MOST correct definition for noise - energy consumption - consumption
Labour Resources . of - natural resources - pollutionC. Energy
A. The people that provide their skills, ef- consumption - consumption of - natural
fort and knowledge to the business. resources - pollution - effect on ecosys-
temsD. Air contamination - noise - energy
B. The people that provide their skills, consumption - consumption of - natural
money and knowledge to the business. resources - pollution
C. The people that provide their skills, A. A
labour and knowledge to the business.
B. B
D. The people that provide their, labour,
money, skills and knowledge to the busi- C. C
ness. D. D

76. The process of planting trees or sowing do not need to invest in major changes to
seeds in a barren patch of land to create the processes or technologyC - Tried and
a forest or a stand of trees is called tested technologies can be used - so low
A. Agriculture risk
B. Aestivation A. A only
C. Vegetation B. B only
D. Afforestation C. A & C only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A, B & C
77. For the United States, one benefit of en-
couraging the development of renewable 82. Which BEST explains what scientists are
sources of energy is referring to when they use the term con-
A. a reduction in the cost of energy servation?
B. less reliance on foreign sources of oil A. nonliving parts of the environment
C. increased mining of domestic stores of B. living organisms in the environment
fossil fuels
C. health of the living organisms in the en-
D. heavy reliance on resources that are vironment
replaced by artificial processes
D. protection, management, and renewal
78. Which of these isn’t a component of re- of resources
source management?
83. To process previously used materials so
A. Food they can be used to make something else
B. Water is known as
C. Energy A. renewing
D. Air B. reusing
79. When we destroy a forest, we destroy C. recycling
A. the trees D. reducing
B. population of wildlife 84. Continuity and availibility of forests is a
C. the environment demand of which stakeholder?
D. food and shelter of wild animals A. Forest department
80. Water pollution measurement is made by B. Industrialists
A. BOD C. Forest dwellers
B. Coliform count D. Environmentalists
C. pH 85. Ganga Action plan started by
D. All the aove
A. 1983
81. What is an advantage of ‘incremental’ so- B. 1971
lutions to dealing with waste and pollu-
C. 1973
tion?A - Companies can respond to legis-
lation quickly and efficientlyB - Companies D. 1985

86. How will a mass transit system, like a sub- B. conservation

way system, affect an urban area?
C. renewable resources

A. decrease air pollution
D. fossil fuels
B. decrease traffic congestion
C. decrease the use of fossil fuels 92. Plants, water, solar energy are all exam-
ples of what kind of resources?
D. all of these
A. renewable
87. An examples of government regulation
B. soil and land
leading to green design are A. banning
the use of Styrofoam as it contains harm- C. nonrenewable
ful CFC’sB. labelling the different types D. biosphere
of plastic to help with recyclingC. banning
plastic strawsD. recycling schemes 93. Which type of management is being contin-
A. A, B, C & D ually monitored and adjusted
B. A & B only A. adaptive forest management
C. A only B. ecosystem-based forest management
D. A, B & C only C. Maximum sustainable yield
88. What is a good example of Eco-Design? D. none of above
A. A satellite phone 94. Deforestation has the greatest impact on
B. A corded phone (landline) biodiversity
C. A cordless phone system (landline) A. on private lands
D. A smart phone B. in tropical areas and arid regions
89. Forests are.. C. in densly populated urban areas
A. Biosphere reserves D. on public lands
B. Bio conserve
95. Khadin is atraditional water harvesting
C. Both system in
D. None A. Himachal pradesh
90. Which is NOT part of Labour B. Maharashtra
A. Knowledge C. Bihar
B. Subcontractor D. Rajastahan
C. Time
96. The protection, preservation and manage-
D. Tools ment of natural resources is known as
91. A fuel, such as coal, oil, or natural gas, A. recycling
formed in the geological past from the de-
B. consumption
cayed remains of ancient organisms, such
as plants and animals? C. conservation
A. reduce D. restoration

97. Which resource is used most in the UK? C. Jawahar lal Nehru Canal
A. Petrol D. Mahatma Gandhi Canal
B. Natural gas
C. Oil 103. Which of the following is an advantage
of using hydroelectric power?
D. none of above
A. It doesn’t harm the environment.
98. Which is not a reason for increases in wa-
ter consumption? B. It doesn’t pollute.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Rising population C. It is nonrenewable.
B. Agricultural needs D. It only works during the daytime.
C. Poverty
104. A resource not easily replaced.
D. none of above
A. nonrenewable
99. Fluvial pollution is associated with what?
B. renewable
A. Acidification, winter smog and heavy
metals C. alternative
B. Noise, smell and air pollution D. none of above
C. Pollution of rivers, regional waters
and watersheds 105. The pH range most conducive for life of
D. none of above fresh water plants and animals is
100. is a natural resource made up of hu- A. 6.5 - 7.5

mus, air, water, minerals, and rock parti- B. 2.0 - 3.5
cles
C. 3.5 - 7.0
A. soil
D. 9.0 - 10.5
B. coal
C. petroleum 106. rocks, minerals, and metals are?
D. iron
A. renewable resources
101. Name the bacteria whose presence in wa- B. nonrenewable resources
ter indicate contamination of water
C. natural resources
A. Coliform
B. Pneumonia D. B and C
C. Mycoplasma
107. Guidelines that should be used for the ex-
D. Bacillus traction and management of resources
102. Which of the following community in Ra- A. Natural Resource Management
jasthan has a religious tenet of conserva-
tion of forest and wildlife? B. Sustainable Development
A. Rajiv Gandhi canal C. Best Management Practices

B. Indira Gandhi Canal D. none of above

108. A Fossil Fuel is 113. What is called for the practice of regulat-
ing forest resources to meet the needs of
A. Materials that are found on Earth that
society and industry while preserving the

people use
forest’s health?
B. Rock that contains metal
A. Environmental protection
C. Fuels that formed years ago from the B. Sustainable Forest Management
remains of things that lived millions of
years ago. C. Forest policy framework
D. Resources that cannot be replaced D. Unsustainable Forest Management

quickly enough to keep from running out. 114. Design for the environment (DfE) soft-
ware A. helps designers and engineers
109. Ganga action plan was a multi crore
select materials and manufacturing tech-
project to
niques that reduce environmental impactB.
A. clean river ganga allows designers to carry out LCA using
CAD softwareC. can run simulations to
B. establish sewage treatment plants
help reduce materialsD. optimizes designs
C. all of these to get cost effective products that are en-
D. none of these vironmentally concerned.
A. A & B only
110. What is a disadvantage of coal mining?
B. A, B, & C only
A. Increase in tourism C. A & D only
B. Disturbs local communities D. A, B, C & D
C. Minerals bring income
115. most of the worlds remaining forests are
D. none of above either boreal forests or
A. tropical rain forest
111. Why were women forced to participate
in the Chipko aandolan? B. temperate forest
A. Women are more sensitive and thus, it C. tree plantations
is easier to convince the contractors. D. deciduous forests
B. Men were supporting the contractors.
116. Which of the following is the ‘biodiver-
C. Men were not at home. sity hot spots’?
D. Men had already participated in the A. River
aandolan before and they were beaten up; B. Forests
so they refused to participate this time.
C. Desert
112. Which is a good use of grey water? D. Ocean
A. Cooking 117. Why might a country not sign up to an
B. Cleaning international agreement to reduce waste
and pollution?A - It may be too costly
C. Drinking
to implement for some countriesB - Some
D. Flushing the toilet countries may feel that it will make them

uncompetitive economically C - A country 122. The Kimberly Process

may not be part of the UN Security Coun- A. Ensures countries are buying conflict
cilD - A country may be too small to sign diamonds
the agreement
B. Ensures countries are buying the most
A. A & B are correct
exclusive diamonds
B. B & C are correct
C. Ensures countries are buying conflict
C. A & D are correct free diamonds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. B & D are correct D. Ensures countries are buying the
118. Among the statements given below se- cheapest diamonds
lect the ones that correctly describe the 123. What happens when a forest is clear-cut?
concept of sustainable development (i)
Planned growth with minimum damage A. The mature trees are left for shade
to theenvironment(ii) Growth irrespective B. Only the valuable trees are cut and the
of the extent of damage caused tothe rest are left
environment(iii) Stopping all developmen-
C. All of the trees are removed from an
tal work to conserve theenvironment(iv)
area
Growth that is acceptable to all the stake-
holders D. Trees are planted between rows of
other crops
A. (i) and (iv)
B. (ii) and (iii) 124. Expand the abbreviation GAP
C. (ii) and (iv) A. Government Action Plan
D. (iii) only B. Ganga Action Plan
119. Environment Day falls on C. Government Agency for Pollution Con-
trol
A. 28th February
B. 23rd March D. Government Animal Protection Plant
C. 5th June 125. Where is the Aswan Dam located?

D. 16th August A. USA
120. Which countries will see steady and grad- B. Egypt
ual increases energy consumption? C. Saudi Arabia
A. Developed countries D. Ghana
B. Developing countries
126. What drives manufacturers to become
C. Emerging countries
more sustainable?A - Local communi-
D. none of above ties, pressure groups such as ‘Friends of
the Earth’ and government regulations
121. Glaciers are a source of
(laws)B - Government regulations (laws)
A. Electricity - onlyC - Pressure groups such as ‘Friends
B. Pollution of the Earth’ - only
C. Petroleum A. A
D. Water B. B

C. C C. The avoidance or minimization of pro-

D. none of above ducing waste in relation to the production,
use and disposal of a product

127. Continental pollution is associated with D. none of above
what?
A. Climate change, sea level rises, impact 132. Resources that are either always avail-
on the ozone layer able, or can be renewed in a relatively
short amount of time are?
B. Ozone levels, acidification, winter
smog, heavy metals A. renewable resources
C. Pollution of rivers, regional waters B. nonrenewable resources
and watersheds C. none of the above
D. none of above D. all of the above
128. Resources that exist in a limited supply
133. The main cause for abundant coliform bac-
and are used up at a faster rate than they
teria in the river Ganga is
can be replaced are?
A. disposal of human excreta directly
B. nonrenewable resources B. discharge of effluents from electroplat-
ing industries
C. none of the above
C. washing of clothes
D. all of the above
D. immersion of ashes.
129. An example of radical green design is
134. Any material, substance, or organism
A. changing the materials used to manu-
that is found in nature and used by people
facture a product
is a?
B. overhauling the manufacturing pro-
A. renewable resource
cess of a product
B. nonrenewable resources
C. introducing design for disassembly
D. none of above C. natural resources
130. Materials in nature that sustain life or
can be used by humans 135. Carbon Capture and Sequestration (CCS)
A. biotic factors involves what?
B. renewable A. Trading in CO2
C. natural resources B. Capturing the CO2 produced from fos-
sil fuels, compressing it under high pres-
D. community
sure, and then transporting it via pipelines
131. What is the prevention principle? or ships for storage deep in the ocean or
in underground geological reservoirs
A. The anticipation of potential problems
B. The anticipation of potential problems C. Filtering CO2 from the ambient air
in relation to the environmental impact of around us
the production, use and disposal of a prod- D. Preventing energy companies from
uct creating CO2

136. What is one economic value of forests 142. The UN released a manual on Eco design
A. provide habitat for orgamisms in 1996. It outlined which major consider-
ations?
B. purify water
A. Reduce the creation and use of toxic
C. timber for lumber and fuel
materials increase recyclability Reduce
D. prevent erosion energy consumption Increase use of
renewable resources Increase product
137. Which of the following is not a natural
durability - reducing planned obsoles-
resource?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cence Reduce material requirements for
A. Mango tree products and services
B. Snake B. Increase recyclability Reduce energy
C. Wind consumption Increase use of renewable
D. Wooden house resources Increase product durability Re-
ducing planned obsolescence
138. What goal led to the formation of both
C. Reduce the creation and use of toxic
the North American Free Trade Agreement
materials Increase recyclability Reduce
(NAFTA) and the European Union (EU)?
energy consumption
A. to keep communism out of Western Eu-
rope D. none of above
B. to reduce environmental pollution 143. Which is not a strategy for designing
C. to increase economic cooperation be- green products?
tween member nations A. Dematerialization
D. to eliminate global climate change
B. Using bio plastics
139. example of reduce waste would be C. Designing to last - reducing obsoles-
A. switch off lights and fans cence
B. car pooling D. Using PVC plastic as a replacement
C. all of these material
D. to use both sides of paper 144. Which of the following are to be managed
140. Resources are part of which Environment for sustainable development?
A. Macro A. Industries
B. External B. Forest
C. Internal C. Crops
D. Operating D. Resources
141. Amrita devi bishnoi sacrificed her life for
145. Which of the following can be recycled?
the protection of
A. sal tree A. paper
B. Pine trees B. glass

C. Khejri trees C. plastic
D. alpine meadows D. all of the above

146. The variety and variability seen in plants 150. Which is NOT a level of protection for nat-
and animals is.. ural resources?

A. Bio diversity A. Government
B. Non bio diversity B. Private
C. Both C. Commons
D. Business
D. None
151. Sierra Leone had good railroads, high-
147. An example of a radical solution to clean- ways, schools. What are these examples
ing up manufacturing is of?
A. Existing technology such as a filter on A. reform
a chimney that filters out air pollutants
B. tertiary activities
B. Existing technology such as a filter on C. infrastructure
the end of a pipe to filter out water pollu-
tants D. none of above
C. A new and untried innovation to re- 152. A pattern of resource use that aims to
duce pollution requiring expensive and meet human needs while preserving the
timely R&D environment
D. none of above A. Natural Resource Management
B. Sustainable Development
148. What is the other name for Blood Dia-
C. Best Management Practices
monds?
D. none of above
A. Black diamonds
B. Evil Diamonds 153. Design objectives for green products fall
into which categories:
C. Scary Diamonds
A. Materials and energy
D. Conflict Diamonds B. Energy, pollution and waste
149. An environmental impact assessment C. Materials, energy, pollution and waste
matrix assesses a product on which
criteria?A - Pre-production:Transport of D. none of above
all materials to factory, and Produc-
tion:Manufacturing process waste outputB 154. China’s Three Gorges Dam is the largest
- Distribution:Transport of product to re- in the world. It has many supporters and
tailers, and Distribution:Manufacturing of critics. In terms of how it might affect her
packagingC -Utilization:Use of product dur- work, a factory owner might support the
ing working lifeD - Disposal:Disassembly dam mainly because it
and recycling of materials A. created a reservoir some 400 miles
A. A & D long
B. improved irrigation of agricultural ar-
B. A & B
eas
C. A, B & C
C. forced millions of people to relocate to
D. A, B, C, & D new areas

D. improved the reliability of electricity the production, use and disposal of a prod-
throughout China uct
155. Which fossil fuel is conserved when we D. none of above

save on electricity 160. Japan has few natural resources, but
A. Petroleum it has one of the most highly developed
B. Water economies in the world. What best ex-
plains this achievement?
C. Fuel coal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. It impored manufactured goods.
B. It developed technologies that can be
156. The most rapidly dwindling natural re- exchanged for the resources it needs.
source in the world is C. It printed more money whenever living
A. Water standards started to decline.
B. Forests D. It produced goods and services with-
out using natural resources.
C. Wind
D. Sunlight 161. The Human Development Index (HDI), a
standard of a country’s well being, is a
157. By constructing Khadin check-dams in comparative measure of ?
level terrains, A. Oil production, health, and child wel-
A. underground water level decreases fare
B. underground water level increases B. Education, environment, and life ex-
C. vegetation in the nearby areas are de- pectancy
stroyed due to excess moisture C. GDP per capita, goods produced, and
D. underground water gets polluted resources
D. Education, life expectancy, and GDP
158. What is runoff? per capita
A. the washing of substances from the
surface into water sources 162. Local pollution is associated with what?
A. Noise, smell, air pollution, soil and wa-
B. movement of substances
ter pollution
C. washing of substances from land to
B. Ozone levels, acidification, winter
water resources
smog, heavy metals
D. movement of substances from water
C. Pollution of rivers, regional waters
to land
and watersheds
159. What is the precautionary principle? D. none of above
A. The avoidance or minimization of
163. What are the majority of diamonds used
waste production
for?
B. The avoidance or minimization of pro- A. Gifts of Love
ducing waste in relation to the production,
use and disposal of a product. B. Industrial Cutters
C. The anticipation of potential problems C. Scientific research
in relation to the environmental impact of D. Laser Technology

1.11 Watershed Management 243
164. Natural resources include? C. The Paris Agreement - 2015

A. people, land, water and raw materials D. The Manhattan Project - 1942-1946

B. land, water, machines and people 167. In southwestern India, the climate is
C. land, water, and raw materials warm and dry most of the year. From
June to September, the climate changes
D. subcontractors, land, water and raw
when winds crossing the Indian Ocean
materials
bring heavy monsoon rains. In contrast,
165. The given picture of peoples participation Southern China is also warm but receives
depicts rain throughout the year. What is one ef-
fect of these differences?
A. Van Mahotsav
A. Indian farmers grow wet rice, but Chi-
B. Chipko Andolan nese farmers cannot.
C. Amrita devi bishnoi movement B. India has two growing seasons, while
D. Save the Sal trees China has only one.
C. Both Indian and Chinese farmers grow
166. Which of these is not an international cli-
rice in the summer, but China also has a
mate agreement or treaty?
second growing season in the winter.
A. The Earth Summit - Rio 1992 D. Indian farmers grow rice, but Chinese
B. The Kyoto Protocol - 1997 farmers are only able to grow wheat.
1.11 Watershed Management

1. During a thunderstorm, 1725 liters of wa- B. Estuary
ter fall on a watershed. Of this amount,
C. Bay
322 liters run off into a river and 35 liters
evaporate. What is the maximum amount D. Watershed
of water that can become groundwater?
4. What is a definition of wetlands?
A. 1725 liters
A. a very large expanse of sea, in particu-
B. 1368 liters lar, each of the main areas into which the
C. 322 liters sea is divided geographically.
D. 35 liters B. a large natural stream of water flow-
ing in a channel to the sea, a lake, or an-
2. What is not a type of wetland other such stream.
A. bog
C. and consisting of marshes or swamps;
B. swamp saturated land.
C. marsh D. a small body of still water formed nat-
D. cranberry urally or by hollowing or embanking.
3. What is a stream or river that feeds into 5. Plants release water into the atmosphere
a larger body of water? through a process called:
A. Tributary A. evaporation

B. transpiration 11. Define tributaries

C. infiltration A. small rivers or streams that flow into
D. precipitation a large river or stream
B. a natural stream of water of consider-
6. Why do many birds that live in wetland able volume
areas have long, thin legs?
C. precipitation that flows over the land
A. so they can run very fast to streams
B. so they can swim more easily
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. a continuous ridge that separates a
C. so they can kick predators watershed
D. so they can walk in the shallow water 12. The use of pesticides and herbicides is care-
7. Which human activity directly affects the fully monitored because of the effect they
quality of freshwater resources? can have on the environment.Which of the
following is a possible negative effect of
A. depleting the ozone layer
the use of these chemical on the environ-
B. burning gasoline in car engines ment?
C. throwing trash out of car windows A. Runoff carries these chemicals into
D. allowing runoff from agricultural fields lakes and streams.
8. What is the relationship between ground- B. Theses chemicals cannot be pur-

water and surface water? chased in large bulk.
A. Surface water percolates (moves) C. These chemicals are expensive to pro-

through the soil to form groundwater. duce.
B. There is no relationship between sur- D. Storage space for these chemicals is

face and groundwater. limited.
C. Groundwater filters through the soil to 13. When fertilizers enter surface water, they
form surface water. cause problems in the watershed by -
D. Surface water is found in lakes directly A. increasing the amount of nutrients
above underground water sources. available to fish in lakes and streams.
9. Of all the water on earth what percent is B. clogging narrow streams and prevent-
fresh? ing water from flowing properly.
A. 3 C. raising the water level in nearby rivers

to levels leading to flooding.
B. 10
D. causing rapid algal growth that de-
C. 50 crease oxygen levels and choke aquatic
D. 97 life.
10. All of the following are animals found in 14. watershed management increases
the wetlands EXCEPT A. flood
A. frog B. drought
B. turtle C. income and productivity of local com-
C. mosquito munity
D. polar bear D. none of these

15. What are the 3 types of wetlands? D. the movement of surface water
A. swamp, ocean, river through impermeable rock

B. pond, river, marsh 21. According to the chapter what factors play
a role in the boundaries and characteristics
C. marsh, marsh, marsh
of a watershed? Choose the best answer.
D. swamp, marsh, bog
A. geology and climate
16. Where is used water treated and cleaned? B. climate and place on earth
A. A filter C. geology, climate and vegetation
B. A power plant D. none of the above
C. A water treatment plant 22. forest whose ground is covered in shallow
D. A dam water
17. Toxic runoff can pollute a stream and also A. swamp
A. produce acid rain. B. bog
B. cause soil erosion. C. marsh

D. cranberry
C. create algae blooms.
D. pollute groundwater. 23. What is erosion?
A. When rocks and sand are moved by wa-
18. Explain how a marshland could prevent
ter
flooding in a nearby town.
B. When water gets contaminated
A. it acts like a funnel
C. When plants grow next to a river
B. it acts like a magnet
D. When rocks are broken apart by water
C. it acts like a sponge
D. it acts like a detractor 24. How could a long-term decrease in precip-
itation impact an area?
19. A land area that is covered with water for A. It could increase the average water
part of the year is called: level of lakes in the area.
A. lake B. It could increase the amount of flood-
B. wetland ing in the area.
C. river C. It could decrease the amount of possi-
ble infiltration in the area.
D. wasted land
D. It could decrease the possible amount
20. What is most responsible for the presence of damage to crops in the area.
of groundwater in an area?
25. What force acts to turn surface water into
A. the movement of water from a con-
groundwater?
fined aquifer into surface water
A. friction
B. the movement of surface water and
precipitation through the soil and rock B. the flowing water in a river
C. the movement of water from streams C. heat energy
and rivers to watersheds D. gravity

26. Secondary aim of watershed management D. The shape of the land determined by
is to develop the elevation
A. plants
31. What is the percentage of wetlands on the
B. animals Earth’s surface?
C. biomass A. 3
D. all of these
B. 6
NARAYAN CHANGDER
27. Imagine you see a shallow-water area C. 10
with large trees whose trunks grow from
underwater. What type of wetland are D. 97
you most likely seeing?
32. What kind of marshes are found along the
A. bog coastline of the USA? Hint - higher in salin-
B. swamp ity than its counterpart.
C. marsh A. non-tidal marsh
D. rainforest B. tidal marsh
28. A rural, forested area receives a lot of rain C. coastal swamps
in a short amount of time. What would
D. none of above
most likely cause potential flooding in the
area?
33. any land that is flooded with shallow wa-
A. if the area has a large uncharged ter
aquifer beneath it
A. tundra
B. if the water level in the area is below
the zone of saturation B. grassland
C. if the ground of the area is already sat- C. desert
urated with water
D. wetland
D. if the ground of the area is mostly
sandy soil 34. large reptile with sharp teeth that lives in
some wetland areas
29. In our homes, here in the USA, what is the
average use of water per day per person? A. iguana
A. 100-200 liters B. piranha
B. over 500 liters C. barracuda
C. under 100 liters D. crocodile
D. 300-400 liters
35. Where is most fresh water stored?
30. What is topography?
A. lakes
A. a graph showing all the different topos
B. streams
B. A map of all the waterways in an area
C. ice caps and glaciers
C. A map of different mountains in a
mountain range that share watersheds D. oceans

36. Due to increase in population of rats C. a body of fresh water naturally or man-
and rodents on a boardwalk facing the made found in low lying areas
Ocean, workers and janitors have installed

D. none of above
traps and poison throughout the board-
walk area. The rodent population has de- 41. Which of the following is NOT true about
creased, but poison has also fallen into the ponds and lakes?
Ocean. What possible impact might this A. Ponds are deeper than lakes.
have on the Ocean?
B. Ponds contain more algae than lakes.
A. The runoff might pollute the water
C. Lakes are larger than ponds.
B. The runoff might cause native organ-
isms to leave the area D. Lakes are colder than ponds.
C. There will be no impact 42. The use of pesticides and fertilizers is care-
D. The runoff will lower the water level in fully monitored because of the effect they
the Ocean can have on the environment. Which of
the following is a possible negative effect
37. moving in the direction of the current of the use of these chemical on the envi-
ronment?
A. upstream
A. Runoff carries these chemicals into
B. confluence
lakes and streams.
C. downstream
B. Theses chemicals cannot be pur-
D. undertow chased in large bulk.
38. Pollutants from a factory enter a stream C. These chemicals are expensive to pro-
or creek and travel to a river. River water duce.
tested with the pollutant found is called D. Storage space for these chemicals is
A. point source pollutionAvailable space limited.
for crops 43. Wetlands help control flooding by
B. nonpoint source pollution. A. absorbing runoff from heavy rains
C. eutrophic pollution B. collecting water behind dams
D. riparian pollution C. providing natural water filtration
39. Where do deltas form? D. quickly releasing water
A. Desert Areas 44. Which of the following make up part of
B. At river mouths Earth’s groundwater?
C. On the Banks of Rivers A. wetlands
D. In Valleys Formed by Glaciers B. rivers
C. aquifers
40. What is a lake?
D. lakes
A. a natural stream of water of consider-
able volume 45. Wetlands are important because
B. small rivers or stream that flow into a A. they help filter water of toxins and ex-
larger river or stream cess nutrients

B. they support many species 51. A simple and effective way to help re-
duce nonpoint source pollution from run-
C. they protect areas from floods
ning into our rivers, lakes, and streams is
D. all of these choices to
46. Smaller watersheds within a larger one is A. reroute the source of the pollution
called a away from the watershed
A. watershed B. protect the riparian zone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. reduce the pollution being emmitted
B. watershed divide
D. none of the answers will work
C. sub-watershed
D. transpiration 52. Which of these would water run off of?
A. Farmland
47. type of wetland that is covered with a
thick layer of decomposing plant matter B. Lawn
A. swamp C. Baseball field
B. cranberry D. Parking lot
C. bog 53. Which of these would water soak into?

D. marsh A. Driveway
B. Street
48. What are tributaries?
C. Garden
A. People who honor others
D. Sidewalk
B. Smaller rivers that flow into larger
rivers 54. What is a river?
C. A lake or an ocean A. a costal inlet or bay where fresh water
mixes with salty water
D. Large ships
B. a body of fresh water found in low ly-
49. Management decisions on water are made ing areas
based on combinations C. a small narrow passage of water
A. of science, and who you know. D. a natural stream of water of consider-
B. of science, politics and values. able volume
C. of politics alone. 55. The use of pesticides and fertilizers must
D. of values and what you believe is right. be carefully monitored because of the ef-
fect they can have on the environment.
50. The place where a river begins is called the Which of the following is a possible neg-
ative effect of the use of these chemicals
on the environment?
A. Mouth
A. Runoff carries these chemicals into
B. Riverbed
lakes and streams.
C. Bank
B. Theses chemicals cannot be pur-
D. Source chased in large bulk.

C. These chemicals are expensive to pro- C. change in one way

duce.
D. continuously change in many ways.

D. Storage space for these chemicals is
limited. 61. the only continent that does not have wet-
lands
56. What is a divide?
A. Greenland
A. a natural stream of water of consider-
able volume B. South America
B. a continuous ridge that separates one C. Antarctica
watershed from another
D. North Pole
C. small rivers or streams that flow into
a larger river or stream 62. Large areas of Texas are made up of
D. a body of fresh water found in low ly- flat farm land covered by layers of soil.
ing areas Underground, there is a large aquifer
that stretches beneath most of the region.
57. A lake that stores water for human use is Over a period of many years, much of the
called a water in the aquifer is removed through
A. dam wells and used to irrigate crops. If the
amount of precipitation does not increase
B. oxbow lake
over the same period of years, what ef-
C. reservoir fect could the irrigation of crops have on
D. crater lake the aquifer?
58. A industrial powerplant dumps its heated A. The groundwater will decrease
wastewater straight from a pipe into a B. The groundwater will increase.
stream. This is an example of -
C. The groundwater will stay the same.
A. eutrophic pollutionover-treated drink-
ing water. D. The groundwater will expand.
B. riparian pollutionflooding in the local 63. How would you describe the SOIL in the
aquifer. wetlands?
C. point source pollution.
A. always very dry
D. nonpointsource pollution.
B. always very wet
59. The boundary around a watershed is called C. like a sponge
the
D. none of above
A. watershed.
B. watershed divide. 64. The place where a river empties into a
C. sub-watershed. larger body of water is called the
D. transpiration. A. Mouth
60. Dynamic systems, like streams B. Riverbed

A. do not change C. Bank
B. change in little ways D. Source

65. Overflow during a heavy rainstorm from a 71. What is a headwater?

wastewater treatment plant would result A. A large sea
in -
B. The mouth of a river
A. over-treated drinking water.
C. The source of a river
B. flooding in the local aquifer.
D. A small creek
C. polluted runoff into nearby ponds.
72. A drainage basin or river basin is
D. weakened housing foundations.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the channel of a stream
66. moving against the flow of the river
B. the land covered by floodwaters
A. downstream
C. the land area that contributes water to
B. upstream a river
C. current D. all streams that flow directly to the
D. confluence ocean
67. where are wetlands found? 73. wetlands are good for everything EXCEPT
?
A. only in south carolina
A. they help filter dirty water
B. all over the USA
B. they provide a habitat for many plants
C. only in ohio and animals
D. in the ocean C. they help control flooding
68. The build up of nutrients in a lake is a pro- D. throwing old tires in
cess called
74. What do we call the land area that sup-
A. eutrophication plies water to a river system?
B. volcanic eruption A. runoff
C. algae buildup B. recharge
D. pond death C. watershed
69. watershed management decreases D. valley
A. income 75. Primary aim of watershed management is

B. flood and drought to develop
A. soil and air
C. productivity
B. air and water
D. none of these
C. water and soil
70. A collection of watersheds all discharging
D. soil and air
into the same major body of water is re-
ferred to as a 76. All water eventually empties into
A. watershed. A. an ocean
B. drainage basin B. a river
C. river system C. the ground
D. wetland D. a lake

77. A small well supplies water for a family C. fens

and their ranch. Water enters from a se- D. saddles
ries of small aquifers in the area. For many

years the shape of the aquifer, the amount 80. A city has decided to build a restaurant on
of water, and the species of wildlife have the edge of a large lake. What is the most
remained stable. There has been an in- possible impact this may have on the lake?
crease in new homes, new roads and new A. There will be no impact from the
sprinkler systems in the area. What effect restaurant
have the changes likely had on the family’s
water supply? B. The noise from the restaurant might
distract the fisherman and boaters out on
A. The supply of water will increase
the lake
B. The supply of water will decrease
C. The runoff from the restaurant will pol-
C. The supply of water will stay the same lute the water supply
D. - The water will change direction. D. The runoff from the restaurant will
lower the water level of the lake
78. A community decides to upgrade its wa-
ter purification and management systems. 81. A region has large areas of flat farm land
What lasting impact could this have on covered by layers of soil. Underground,
available freshwater? there is a large aquifer that stretches be-
A. It could cause a decrease in water de- neath most of the region. Over a period
mand. of many years, much of the water in the
underground aquifer that normally is re-
B. It could cause a decrease in water lev-
moved through wells and used to irrigate
els.
crops is no longer used by farmers and lo-
C. It could cause an increase in water- cals. If the amount of precipitation main-
borne diseases. tains over the same period of many years,
D. It could cause an increase in the fresh- what effect could the lack of irrigation of
water supply. crops have on the aquifer?
79. Wetlands include all of the following ex- A. The groundwater will decrease
cept B. The groundwater will increase
A. marshes C. The groundwater will stay the same
B. bogs D. The groundwater will expand

2. Soil Science
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2.1 Fundamentals of Soil Science
1. It is a type of soil physical properties that C. Tissue Culture
you may identify according to its soil par- D. Grafting
ticle groupings.
A. Soil texture 5. What is soil?
B. Soil consistency A. It is the loose material in which plants
C. Soil structure can grow in the upper layer of Earth.
D. Soil densities B. It is the leaf that grows on the plant.

C. It is the food that can be found inside
2. Organic Material adds what to the soil?
the seed.
A. Minerals
D. none of above
B. AIr
C. Nutrients 6. All soils have that can be observed or
measured
D. none of above
A. properties
3. This is the largest soil particle
B. color
A. Clay
C. smooth
B. Silt
D. beaker
C. Sand
D. Loam 7. What layer is the primary layer of soil
where plants and animals live?
4. Splitting a root system into 2 or more
A. topsoil
pieces that will each become a new plant
is called B. Organic
A. Cuttings C. Parent material
B. Division D. Bedrock

2.1 Fundamentals of Soil Science 253
8. Topography is the arrangement of the nat- C. Plastic

ural and artificial physical features of an
D. none of above
area. The following are the effects of to-

pography in soil formation EXCEPT. 13. No water stays in this when poured
A. It can enhance or retard the effect of through.
climate on soil formation
A. loam
B. May affect the absorbance of solar en-
B. clay
ergy in a given landscape
C. It ca inhibit the structure of soil in the C. gravel
area D. topsoil
D. Steep slopes generally enhance soil
erosion and decrease soil infiltration 14. We can protect soil from erosion and main-
hence slowing down soil formation tain its quality by
A. cutting trees
9. Which of the following is the correct order
of soil particles in order of increasing par- B. throwing garbage on land
ticle size? C. destroying embankments along river
A. clay-sand-silt banks
B. sand-clay-silt D. planting different crops at different
C. silt-clay-sand time
D. clay-silt-sand 15. The other name for phosphorus is
10. It is an approach of studying soil in which A. Potash
it focuses to its origin and classification
B. Phosphate
as its occurs in the environment. This is
knows as C. Nitrogen
A. Pedalogical approach D. Manganese
B. Edapological approach
16. Which soil would retain the least amount
C. Pedological approach of water?
D. Edopological approach A. gravel
11. The Soil Family includes different sized par- B. silt
ticles called
C. sand
A. dirt, clay, sand and silt
D. clay
B. clay, loam, sand and silt
C. loam, organic matter, sand and silt 17. Which of the following is not considered a
fossil fuel?
D. clay, loam, sand and soil
A. coal
12. Soil is made up tiny pieces of rocks, air,
fragments of plants, animals and B. natural gas
A. Gas C. metal
B. Water D. oil

18. rocks form under intense heat and 23. How are microorganisms responsible in
pressure. the formation of soil?
A. sedimentary A. They erode the rocks
B. igneous B. They get the water from the plants
C. metamorphic C. They recycle organic matter and help
in formation of humus
D. magma
D. They help in the formation of humus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. How do scientists classify different types
24. When nutrients are taken out with soil wa-
of soil?
ter as it drains, it is called
A. Scientists classify soil into major
A. bleaching
groups based on climate, plants, and soil
composition. B. loaching
B. Scientists classify soil into groups C. leaching
based on where they are in the country D. draining
and what kind of animal bones are in it.
25. To use wisely, and not be wasteful.
C. Scientists classify soil into groups
based on what Lowe’s it came from. A. decompose
D. none of above B. composition

C. conserve
20. What is the process utilized by scientists
D. reserve
to derive solutions to problems.
A. Scientific Method 26. It is a dynamic natural body that composed
of minerals and organic materials in which
B. Questions plant grow. This is called
C. Probability A. Land
D. Mayofication B. Soil
21. The texture of soil depends mainly on C. Minerals
A. the types of plants that grow in the D. Nutrients

soil. 27. After heavy rain, the farm area of Mang
B. the size of the particles in the soil. Kanor is fully filled up with water. What
type of soil moisture coefficient happened
C. the color of the soil.
in the field?
D. the number of worms in the soil.
A. Field capacity
22. What are the three things in soil that help B. Hydroscopic coefficient
plants grow? C. Saturation point
A. air, water, and nutrients D. Permanent wilting point
B. air, rocks, and clay
28. The asexual reproduction method that is
C. rocks, silt, and nutrients commonly used by orchards on trees is
D. water, silt, and clay A. Cuttings

B. Division C. the contain seeds to grow new life

C. Tissue Culture D. they help speed up the rock cycle

D. Grafting 33. Plants and animals become part of soil
when they
29. What color of soil has a lot of humus?
A. Grow and Develop
A. black soils
B. Produce offspring
B. white soils
C. Grow and Develop
C. reddish colored soils.
D. Die and Decay
D. none of above
34. Physically breaking down rocks and mate-
30. What percentage of farms in the North- rials is called weathering.
east sells products directly to consumers? A. Chemical
A. 14 % B. Mechanical
B. 25 % C. Biological
C. 12 % D. Permeable
D. 75 % 35. Soil formation begins with weathering of:
31. There are two types of igneous rocks (in- A. Bedrocks
trusive and extrusive), assess the two B. Rocks
types of igneous rocks. C. Humus
A. Intrusive rocks are those rocks that D. none of above
reaches the earth surface, while extrusive
rocks are those rocks found below the 36. What are the 2 MAIN groups of plants?
earth surface. A. seed plants and seedless plants
B. Intrusive rocks are those rocks that B. gymnosperms and angiosperms
found above the horizons, while extrusive
C. horsetails and ferns
rocks are those rocks found below the soil
horizons. D. vascular and nonvascular
C. Extrusive rocks are those rocks that 37. In which phase does the cell replicate its
reach the earth surface, while intrusive DNA?
rocks are those rocks found below the A. M phase
earth surface.
B. Gap 1 phase
D. Extrusive rocks are those rocks that
C. synthesis phase
found above the horizons, while intrusive
rocks are those rocks found below the soil D. Gap 2
horizons. 38. What type of erosion is slowed down by
contour plowing and terracing?
32. How are decomposed animals helpful to
soil? A. wind
A. the contain valuable nutrients that be- B. water
come food for all kinds of organisms C. air
B. they provide shad to the soil D. none of above

39. Bulk density is an indication of soil poros- 44. Humus is made up of what materials?
ity and soil texture. A. small bits of shells and bones
A. True B. decomposing plants and animals
B. Probably true C. quartz and feldspar minerals
C. False
D. silt and clay
D. Probably false
45. Which two states in the Midwest Region
40. What is “relief” and how does it affect
NARAYAN CHANGDER
are soybeans primarily grown?
soil formation?
A. Indiana and Minnesota
A. Topography influences sunlight hours,
B. Iowa and Illinois
water runoff, temp, erosion, and organic
matterbuildup C. Kansas and Iowa
B. Relief is a type of soil the mixes with D. Ohio and Michigan
others
46. What is one way a person can help to con-
C. Relief is something that builds up serve or save energy?
D. Influence Sunlight A. Drive a big car with no passengers.
41. When a farmer has to use many different B. Cut off lights when they exit a room.
pesticides to keep the same bug out of his
C. Brush teeth with hot water.
crop we call it
D. Ask to get driven to school.
A. pesticide overuse syndrome
B. the chemical effect 47. Which is a factor that affects soil develop-
ment?
C. pesticide syndrome
A. time
D. the treadmill effect
B. slope
42. Gardeners will sometimes add lime to soils
that are too acidic. Lime acts as a fertilizer C. type of rock
and raises the pH of the soil to an appropri- D. all of the above
ate level.What soil pH most likely requires
the application of lime? 48. Which of the following is not an example
of mechanical weathering
A. 4
A. reaction with carbonic acid
B. 7
B. animal action
C. 9
C. freezing and thawing
D. 11
D. plant action
43. When there are not enough plants to hold
topsoil in place, water and carry the 49. Which type of soil has the smallest parti-
topsoil away, leaving the subsoil exposed cles?
A. sunlight A. Loam
B. birds B. Clay
C. magnetic fields C. Silt
D. wind D. Sand

50. What two things determine the property C. texture, color, how well it holds water,
of the soil created? and particle size, ability to support plant
growth

A. the particle weight and climate
D. how well it holds water, shape, ability
B. the particle size and type of parent ma-
to support plant growth
terial
C. the particles biota and topography 55. Which cell structure has a double mem-
brane surrounding it?
D. the particle color and shape
A. golgi apparatus
51. Why is soil important to us? B. cytoplasm
A. it takes a very long time to produce C. chloroplasts
B. we use it for our crops and other food D. mitochondria
sources
56. This is termed used for a true soil or A and
C. it is finite (limited) B horizons.
D. all of the above A. Solum
B. Regolith
52. Which of the following best describes how
soils are formed? C. Saprolite
A. As plants and animals break down, the D. Liholith
carbon in their bodies turns into minerals 57. The strength of a ped is called its
that plants eat to survive.
A. structure
B. Over thousands of years, rocks are
B. structure type
weathered down to small particles that
mix with small amounts of decaying or- C. structure grade
ganic matter and living organisms. D. structure class
C. As animals consume plants, they con- 58. The rotting dead matter in the soil is
vert the plant matter into minerals. The fe- called-
ces from the animals then forms the soil.
A. Humus
D. Over thousands of years, carbon diox-
ide in the air converts into minerals that B. Gravel
fall to the ground and form soil. C. Sand
D. none of above
53. Which soil is the best for growing plants?
A. Sand 59. Summer season when mang Kanor planted
his cucumber plant. a few weeks after, his
B. Loam plants begin to wilt and later the plants
C. Silt die. What type of soil moisture coeffi-
cients happened in the field?
D. Clay
A. Field capacity
54. Properties of soil consist of B. Hydroscopic coefficient
A. location, size, shape, color C. Saturation point
B. size, shape, color D. Permanent wilting point

60. What percent of a U.S. landfill is made up C. bedrock

of food scraps and yard clippings? D. the A horizon
A. 25%
65. Eolian soils are moved by
B. 18%
A. wind
C. 11%
B. water
D. 5%
C. gravity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. What is true about Humus? D. glaciers
A. dark and soft
66. Decaying living things in topsoil makes it?
B. contains much of what plants need for
growth A. moist
C. The more humus a soil has, the better B. sandy
plants will grow! C. clay like
D. All the previous. D. a dark color
62. How is mechanical weathering different 67. Which layer is a the layer below soil that
from chemical weathering? is made up of large rock?
A. Chemical weathering happens over A. Bedrock
much shorter time frame than mechanical
B. Humus
weathering.
C. Parent Material
B. Chemical weathering changes the
chemical composition of rocks; mechan- D. Topsoil
ical weathering does not.
68. What conservation method refers to grow-
C. Chemical weathering occurs only in ing crops perpendicular to the slope of a
tropical climates; mechanical weathering hill?
occurs only in cool climates.
A. windbreaks
D. Chemical weathering occurs only in
the mountains; mechanical weathering oc- B. contour plowing
curs only on flat land. C. terrace farming
63. In soil the air present comes from D. strip cropping

A. the atmosphere 69. What is the correct composition of soil?
B. respiration of soil organisms. A. Soil is old pizza, ramen noodles, and
C. the atmosphere and from respiration chocolate milk.(That’s why it’s brown.The
of soil organisms. chocolate milk. ;D)
D. water B. Soil is the loose layer of dead leaves
on the surface.
64. Soil formation begins with the weathering C. Soil is rock particles, minerals, de-
of cayed organic material, water, and air.
A. litter D. Soil is acid rain, plant growth, and lime-
B. humus stone.

70. Which of these slows down soil erosion on 75. What is the other half made up of?
construction sites? A. dead animals

A. clear cutting B. rocks
B. strip mining C. gases and liquids
C. contour plowing D. plasticlike material
D. sandbags and nylon fencing
76. Which of the following plants live and re-
71. Choose which of the following master hori- produce for multiple years?
zon did topmost mineral matter occurs? A. annual
A. Horizon O B. perennial
B. Horizon E C. biennial
C. Horizon A D. fillial
D. Horizon B
77. Weathering is the process of physical and
72. soil lets least water pass through it: chemical alteration of rocks or minerals at
A. Clay or near the earth surface. Which of the fol-
lowing did crystallization of salts belong?
B. sand
A. Chemical weathering
C. loam
B. Physical weathering
D. none of above
C. Mechanical weathering
73. The best way to increase water holding ca- D. Cultural weathering
pacity and nutrient supplying capacity of a
coarse-textured soils is to 78. Compared to the primary minerals, the sec-
A. Apply large quantity of liming materi- ondary minerals are those minerals that
als form from
B. Add and incorporate by deep plowing A. Weathering of rocks

voluminous amount of clay B. Weathering of primary minerals
C. Incorporate adequate amount of or- C. Weathering of rocks and minerals
ganic matter D. All of the above
D. Apply the recommended rate of com-
mercial fertilizer 79. A student wants to know which soil is the
best to plant tomatoes in. Which of the
74. definition of “soil horizon” following experiments can he complete to
A. a layer of soil that differs in color and figure it out?
texture from the layers above or below it A. Plant seeds in each type of soil.
B. a dark-colored substance that forms B. Pour 200 mL of water into each soil to
as plant and animal remains decay see how much water is retained.
C. a crumbly, dark brown soil that is a C. Compare the color of the soil to a color
mixture of humus, clay, other minerals chart
D. the solid layer of rock beneath the soil D. Wet the soil and feel the texture.

80. Soils have layers. 86. Which plant part absorbs light energy to
A. 2 produce plant sugar?
B. 1 A. stem
C. 5 B. leaves
D. none of above C. roots
D. flower
81. Which layer of soil is home to many ro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dents and insects? 87. Agents of weathering of
A. subsoil A. Heat
B. humus B. Wind
C. topsoil C. Rain
D. farmland D. All of the above
82. Soil is 88. Which soil is formed with the smallest rock
A. Dirt particles?
B. Where plants grow A. loam
C. Weathered rock fragments B. sand
D. none of above C. silt
83. Very fine mineral particles of soil D. clay
A. Sand 89. It is fairly coarse and loose so water is
B. Silt able to drain through it easily.
C. Clay A. Clay
D. Horizon B. Sand
84. Which is the correct order of weathered C. Loam

rocks from smallest to largest? D. none of above
A. sand, clay, silt, gravel 90. Loam is clumpy, dark and has , ,
B. clay, silt, sand, gravel A. clay, silt, and sand
C. gravel, sand, silt, clay
B. bark, mud, and dirt
D. clay, sand, silt, gravel
C. plants, mud, and bark
85. The higher the cation exchance capacity D. none of above
(CEC) of a soil sample, the
91. What is the largest particle that makes up
A. Weaker the soil’s capacity to hold onto
soil called?
water and nutrients
A. humus
B. Stronger the soil’s capacity to hold
onto water and nutrients B. erosion
C. Greater the risk of nutrient leaching C. clay
D. Greater the porespace D. sand

92. Colluvial Soils are moved by 98. Two types of water holding in the soil, as-
A. wind sess which of this statement belongs “af-
ter the rain, water from raindrops attracts

B. water to the available water present in the soil”.
C. gravity A. Adhesion
D. glaciers B. Chelation
93. A seed with two cotyledons is called a C. Cohesion
A. Monocot D. Abrasion
B. Dicot 99. What soil organisms like lime.
C. Flower A. beetles
D. Fruit B. ants
C. earthworms
94. Plants and animals become part of soil
when they D. none of above
A. Die and Decay 100. Which of the following is a native species
B. Produce offspring in Connecticut?
C. Grow and Develop A. white walnuts
D. Take in nutrients B. black walnuts
C. butternut walnuts
95. There are terms called for a major factor
in soil formation, choose the correct term D. persian walnuts
for each factor of soil formation. 101. Which of the following best describes a
A. Climosequence for climate dichotomous key?
B. Biosequence for organisms A. Uses a branching diagram called a
cladogram to show relationships
C. Chronosequence for time
B. Identifies plants by a series of choices
D. Lithosequence for topography
between pairs of alternatives
96. Phosphate deficiency is seen by what col- C. Is the systematic arrangement of
oring of the plant? plants into groups and subgroups based
A. purple on common characteristics
B. bluish D. Is a type of plant classification which

uses a hierarchy system for classification
C. brown
102. What type of soil water forms as a very
D. yellow
thin film surrounding soil particles and is
97. What percent of soil is water? generally not available to the plant? It
is bound so tightly to the soil by adhe-
A. 25
sion properties that very little of it can be
B. 45 taken up by plant roots.
C. 5 A. capillary
D. none of above B. gravitational

C. hygroscopic C. Clayey Soil

D. flowing D. none of above
103. What type of soil has large particles and 108. What are small organelles found in large
can’t hold water good? numbers in the cytoplasm of a cell?
A. Sandy A. vacuoles
B. Peaty B. mitochondria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Silty C. ribosomes
D. Clay D. chloroplasts
104. Returning crop stubble can improve lev- 109. Big tree roots grow up to layer
els of organic matter in the soil. This is
A. Top soil
when
B. Substartum
A. The type of crops grown in a paddock
is changed regularly in a planned order. C. Subsoil
B. Fast-growing crops are grown and D. Bedrock
ploughed back into the soil before they
seed. 110. In the early 1700s, a farmer named
Charles Townsend experimented with
C. Part of a crop not harvested for sale
can be returned to the soil A. growing plants without water
D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are B. how different rocks melt
sown directly into the soil. C. turning rocks into soil
105. It is a formation of rocks through the D. crop rotation

process of heat and pressure or chemical 111. If you increase the surface area of a rock,
action, generally harder than the original how will it affect the rate at which it
rocks. weathers?
A. Sedimentary rocks A. It will weather more quickly.
B. Igneous rocks B. It will have no effect because surface
C. Metamorphic rocks area is not a factor in weathering.
D. Intrusive rocks C. It will weather more slowly.
106. decomposition is important because it D. It will have no effect because a rock

does not have a surface area.
A. gets rid of dead organisms
B. returns nutrients to the soil 112. In addition to the rock particles the soil
contains-
C. creates soil
A. Air and water
D. is a part of the circle of life
B. Water and plants
107. It is made up of small grains: C. Minerals, organic matter, air and wa-
A. Loamy Soil ter
B. Sandy Soil D. none of above

113. A gardener wants to add humus to his 118. Which of the following processes will
soil because it contains a lot of nutrients most likely contribute to the development
and helps retain water. What does humus of soil?

form from? A. Volcanic eruptions that make new land
A. Sand B. Building up of snow in very cold areas
B. Rocks and minerals
C. Breaking down of rock by wind, water,
C. Decayed animals and plants and ice
D. Volcanic lava D. Migration of animals to warmer cli-
mates
114. soil used for construction
A. clay 119. This land is capable of a wide variety of
B. loam agricultural uses that involve regular cul-
tivation where in fact, the easiest land to
C. silt farm. Which land and soil class does it re-
D. sand fer to?
115. Soil layers are called horizons because A. Land and Soil Capability Class 8
B. Land and Soil Capability Class 3
A. The layers are all different C. Land and Soil Capability Class 2
B. The layers are vertical D. Land and Soil Capability Class 1
C. The layers are horizontal
120. Sand feels
D. The layers are above one another
A. soft
116. A large chemical company disposes of its B. gritty
toxic chemical waste in a landfill, where
the toxic chemical waste slowly leaks into C. wet
the soil. Which result will most likely oc- D. none of above
cur because of the toxic chemical leak into
the soil? 121. Which of these IS NOT affected by soil
pH?
A. The soil’s fertility will decrease.
A. Availability of most of the essential nu-
B. The soil’s fertility will increase. trients
C. The soil’s fertility will increase and B. Activity of Microorganisms
then decrease
C. Performance of some herbicides
D. The soil’s fertility will remain the
same. D. The soil water holding capacity
117. Which of these characterized as having 122. Which of the following is the combination
the finest particles that holds the greater of two different copies of an allele for a
amount of water? gene?
A. Clay A. homozygous dominant genotype
B. Loam B. heredity
C. sand C. homozygous recessive gentoype
D. none of above D. heterozygous genotype

123. In a soil profile with O, A, E and B hori- 129. If erosion occurs, which of the following
zons, evaluate which of the following is negative effects may happen?
the least amount of clay in the horizon. A. landslides
A. O B. destruction of homes and animal habi-
B. A tats
C. B C. pollutes water with soil
D. E D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
124. control the cell’s activities; contains the 130. Which of the following affects the weath-
cell’s DNA ering rate?
A. mitochondria A. climate
B. type of rock
B. cell membrane
C. both A & B
C. nucleus
D. Neither A nor B
D. golgi body
125. What does weathering mean? soil?
A. To form or create new A. minerals
B. To build up B. clay
C. To break down C. topsoil
D. To completely destroy D. sand
126. Loamy soil with a dark color is good for 132. The remains of something that was once
alive.
A. farming
A. pores
B. construction
B. abiota
C. a lake
C. organic matter
D. nothing
D. decomposition
127. How many years does soil take to form?
133. Which is not a type of soil?
A. 5 Years
A. Loam
B. 1000 Years
B. Sand
C. 100 Years C. Dirt
D. 50 Years D. Silt
128. All of the layers of soil together can be 134. The soil containing same amount of large
called a and small particles is called-
A. profile A. Sandy soil
B. horizon B. Loamy soil
C. row C. Clayey soil
D. layer D. none of above

135. Which statement is not true about sand? 140. Which plant hormone is known as the
stress hormone?
A. sand has small particles that feel

smooth A. auxins
B. water quickly passes through sand par- B. ethylene
ticles C. cytokinins
C. sand particles feel gritty and rough D. abscisic acid
D. sand has the largest particles of rock
141. Humus is:
136. Which of the following is the first step in A. the part of soil made up of decayed
mitosis? parts of once-living things.
A. anaphase B. a dip that is made of beans.
B. telophase C. a bone that can be found in the upper
C. prophase arm.
D. metaphase D. a sound people make when their lips

are together.
137. what is a crumbly, dark brown soil that
is a mixture of humus, clay, other minerals 142. A student wants to find out which type
of soil holds the most water. He uses four
A. bed rock identical pots with holes in the bottom. He
B. subsoil fills each pot with a different type of soil
and waters the pots with the same amount
C. loam of water. How can he find out how much
D. top soil water stays in the soil in each pot?
A. By planting seeds and measuring plant
138. Which of the following is a nonrenewable
growth in each pot
resource?
B. By measuring the amount of water that
A. Animals, because they grow old and
drains from each pot
die
C. By observing which soil looks wettest
B. Plants, because there are so many
after the water has been added to the pots
kinds
D. By feeling the soil before and after
C. Minerals, because they are replaced
adding water to each pot.
slowly
D. Wind, because sometimes it doesn’t 143. Factors that determine specific soil char-
blow acteristics are
A. climate
139. This is the most ideal soil for plant
growth and productivity B. parent material
A. Clay C. time and slope
B. Silt D. all of the above
C. Sand 144. Why does sand not hold water well?

D. Loam A. sand has too many bits of shells in it

B. the rocks in the sand are too small to 150. which soil suitable to plant Paddy?
hold water A. sand soil
C. the large particles allow water to flow B. clay soil
through quickly
C. g
D. sand is made of silt which does not
hold water D. none of above
145. Soil erosion is the process by which the 151. Which type of soil does water quickly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pass through?
A. the land surface(top soil) is removed
by wind, water or ice A. sand
B. formation of soil form rocks B. clay
C. rusting of soil C. humus
D. None of the above D. silt
146. To break down organic matter to become 152. When a soil is lacking a nutrient it is
part of the soil. called a
A. nutrients A. deficiency
B. materials B. drought
C. decompose C. disaster
D. decompress D. none of above
147. If the amount of mineral matter is 43% 153. Which is NOT a type of soil?
and the water is 7%, how much the avail-
ability of organic matter and the soil Air A. Sand
present in the soil sample? B. Silt
A. 25% and 25% respectively C. Mud
B. 43% and 7% respectively D. Loam
C. 7% and 43% respectively
154. The soil containing greater portion of big
D. 50% and 50% respectively particles is called -
148. What soil is sticky when wet? A. Sandy soil
A. Clay B. Loamy soil
B. Loam C. Clayey soil
C. Sand D. none of above
D. none of above
155. The Humus layer in soil is also known
149. This type of soil is sticky when wet and as the because it is composed of dead
powdery when dry. plant and animal remains
A. clay A. organic layer
B. silt B. decomposed layer
C. sand C. topsoil
D. gravel D. subsoil

156. What is the structure that produces pro- C. soil made of mostly clay
tein for the cell? D. a mixture of gravel and sand

A. golgi
162. Which soil can’t hold water holding wa-
B. mitochondria ter for a long period of time?
C. chloroplast A. silt
D. ribosome B. clay
C. sand
157. What is the common name for Horizon A?
D. humus
A. bedrock
B. topsoil 163. Which soil particle is the largest?
C. parent material A. Sand

B. Silt
D. subsoil
C. Clay
158. The B horizon is D. none of above
A. rockier than the C horizon
164. Which of these phases of mitosis take
B. richer in humus than the A horizon place first?
C. less nutrient rich than the A horizon A. anaphase
D. thicker than the C horizon B. telophase
159. A student is investigating the effect of C. prophase

nutrients on plant growth. For this inves- D. metaphase
tigation, the student needs to add a spe-
165. This has the smallest amount of pore
cific amount of powdered nutrients to the
space for air and water
soil.Which tool should the student use to
measure the nutrients? A. Clay
A. barometer B. Silt
B. beam balance C. Sand

D. Loam
C. graduated cylinder
D. spatula 166. The rock which soaks water is
A. permeable
160. Bedrock is made of
B. impermeable
A. humus, living things, and decaying
C. Marble
plants
D. none of above
B. large rocks
C. sand particles and clay 167. The inorganic matter content of soil is
formed from
D. dirt and worms
A. inorganic material
161. What is loam? B. breakdown of rocks
A. an even mixture of sand, silt, and clay C. organic matter
B. soil made of mostly sand D. rocks

168. Which of the following increases demand D. pH indicates how basic or acidic the
that pushes the environment to its limit? soil is, a pH of 6 is ideal
A. use of fossil fuels 174. The four types of soil are
B. pollution A. humus, gravel, pebbles, sand
C. population growth B. sand, silt, clay, loam
D. tecnology C. sand, rock, pebbles, granite
D. sand, clay, bedrock, topsoil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
169. How can time affect soils?
A. Soils gets to old 175. Gymnosperms produce seeds usually in
B. Older soils are less weathered than A. cones
younger ones B. flowers
C. Time don’t affect soils C. fruit
D. Older soils are more weathered than D. spores
younger ones
176. what word fits w/ soil that is made up
170. Which type of nutrients are replaced of about equal parts of clay, sand, and silt
most often by fertilizer?
A. litter
A. non-mineral
B. decomposers
B. required nutrients
C. subsoil
C. macronutrients
D. loam
D. micronutrients
177. Some soils have particles which allow
171. Which type of soil is best for planting? water to drain very easily.
A. Loam A. small
B. Clay B. large
C. Sand C. medium
D. none of above D. rough
172. Cranberries are a primary crop for which 178. Rocks that are formed when red-hot
state? magma cools down.
A. Nebraska A. sedimentary rocks
B. Missouri B. metamorphic rocks
C. Iowa C. igneous rocks
D. Wisconsin D. magma rocks
173. Which of the following is an accurate 179. Which of the following is not biotic?
statement in regards to soil pH? A. Tree roots
A. pH is a measure of the particle size B. Insects
B. a pH of 7 indicates very acidic soil C. Gravel
C. a pH of 7 indicates high organic matter D. Seeds

180. Crop rotation can improve levels of or- 185. What is the repeated movement of nitro-
ganic matter in the soil. This is when gen compounds between the atmosphere,
the soil, and living organisms?

is changed regularly in a planned order. A. the carbon cycle
B. Fast-growing crops are grown and B. the water cycle
ploughed back into the soil before they C. the nitrogen cylce
seed.
D. none of above
can be returned to the soil 186. the grinding away of rock by rock parti-
cles carried by water, ice, wind, or gravity
D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
is called
sown directly into the soil.
A. abrasion
181. An ideal soil structure would be
B. animal action
A. Clumpy - forms aggregates that hold
C. mining
their shape
D. plant action
B. Loose - the soil does not form aggre-
gates or shape 187. In which asexual reproduction method
C. Granular - forms small crumbly aggre- does the parent plant provide water and
gates nutrients until the new plant develops
roots?
D. Solid - the soil is impermeable like ce-
ment A. Cutting
B. Division
182. All of the following processes help form
topsoil except C. Tissue Culture
D. Layering
A. movement of oceans
B. decay of plants 188. Most plant roots grow in the
C. weathering of rocks A. A horizon
D. decomposition of animals B. B horizon
C. C horizon
183. Soil that is rich in humus has high
D. D horizon
A. fertility.
B. water content. 189. What is the total economic value for the
Southern region?
C. sand content.
A. $48 billion
D. clay content.
B. $52 billion
184. The starting material of soil C. $45 billion
A. parent material D. $55 billion
B. daughter material
190. Soil conservation includes all of the fol-
C. topography lowing EXCEPT
D. biota A. Desertification

B. Contour plowing B. humus

C. vegetative cover C. subsoil
D. Crop rotation D. none of above
191. Which of the following is a cool season 197. What do plants and animals need to
crop? grow?
A. egglpant A. nutrients
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. tomatoes B. soil
C. potatoes C. loam
D. pumpkins D. humus
192. is a blend of the three main types of 198. How is soil formed?
soil.
A. Soil forms as rock is broken down by
A. Topsoil weathering and mixes with other materi-
B. Subsoil als on the surface. Soil is constantly being
formed wherever bedrock is exposed.
C. Loam
D. Bedrock B. Soil is formed by weathering.
C. Soil is formed by storms. Storms
193. What two main phases comprise the cell change the shape of rocks.
cycle?
D. Soil is formed by people. People can
A. mitosis and cytokinesis place it in many different places. The soil
B. two growth phases gets affected with other surroundings.
C. interphase and mitosis 199. How would you describe the texture of
D. interphase and cytokinesis “sandy” soil?
194. Soil is made of small A. sticky
A. icicles B. gritty
B. particles C. smooth
C. plastics D. slimy
D. bricks 200. What are the names of the four types of
Soil?
195. The way soil feels is called its
A. humus, sand, silt, clay
A. type
B. humus, sand silt, bark
B. texture
C. sand, silt, clay
C. particle
D. none of above
D. grain size
196. is the upper layer of soil on the sur- 201. This is a termed used for A, B and C hori-
face of Earth that is dark in color and has zons.
the smallest particles. A. Solum
A. topsoil B. Regolith

C. Saprolite 208. There are processes in chemical weath-

D. Ligolith ering, distinguish which process did this
statement belongs “incorporation of wa-

202. Which property of soil can be described ter molecules into the structure of miner-
with the words, “smooth, “ and “rough”? als”.
A. Shape A. Hydrolysis
B. Texture B. Hydration
C. Size C. Carbonazation
D. none of above
D. Oxidation
203. This type of soil does not hold water
209. Students poured 200 mL of water
A. Loam through a soil sample. They collected and
B. Sand measured the water that drained out of
C. Clay the soil. The water collected measure 110
mL. How much water did the soil retain?
D. none of above
A. 90 mL
204. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
B. 310 mL
A. sex cells
C. 110 mL
B. somatic cells
D. 200 mL
C. body cells
D. skin cells 210. Determine the moisture content of the
soil. Given the mass of the wet soil = 450
205. Soil formation begins with the weather- g, the mass of dry soil = 353 g.
ing of
A. 78 %
A. Humus
B. 22 %
B. Subsoil
C. Litter C. 27 %
D. Rock D. 12%
206. In which bin would you deposit a plastic 211. Which soil feels sticky when wet?
toy? A. sand
A. A
B. loam
B. B
C. clay
C. C
D. none of above
D. D
207. What is a synonym for soil conservation? 212. What can erosion lead to?
A. neglect A. landslides
B. protection B. pollution
C. destruction C. flooding
D. waste D. all of the above

213. Which method is suitable to obtain the 219. What is the layer of rock that is below
field density for silt & clay the soil?
A. Sand replacement method A. subsoil
B. Core cutter method B. topsoil
C. Field compaction using grid roller
C. humus
D. Field compaction using the smooth
D. bedrock
wheeled roller
NARAYAN CHANGDER
214. Which of the following is a macronutri- 220. The layer of soil which the topsoil is
ent? found.
A. iron A. Horizon A
B. boron B. Horizon B
C. calcium C. Horizon C
D. manganese
D. Horizon D or R
215. Subsoil layer is made of
221. Bulk density is a measure of compaction
A. sand and clay or looseness of the soil, therefore, the
B. silt and sand higher the bulk density is an indication of
C. gravels and stones higher porosity.
D. large rocks A. True
216. Clay is a type of soil that can be used in: B. Probably true
A. pottery. C. False
B. sand boxes. D. Probably false
C. recipes.
222. is the breaking down of rocks, soils,
D. none of above and minerals, etc.
217. Minerals found in the B horizon were dis- A. Weathering
solved in water and carried there by a pro-
B. Soil profile
cess called
A. oxidation C. Soil
B. leaching D. All of the above

C. weathering
223. This rock was formed when molten rock
D. littering cooled into a solid. What type of rock is
it?
218. Soil texture is determined by
A. Igneous Rock
A. its composition
B. the percent of each grain size B. Metamorphic Rock
C. its origins C. Sedimentary Rock
D. their porosity & permeability D. none of above

224. Which of the following soil types would 230. Which of the following is the most impor-
contain the most nutrients? tant determinant of the biodiversity and
abundance of microbial communities?

A. Soil with many large rock particles
B. Soil with bedrock close to the surface A. Particle size
C. soil that drains well through it B. Availability of NPK
D. soil with decomposed organic material C. Porespace

D. Abundance of soil organic matter
225. How does climate affect soil formation?
A. Weather 231. Which of the following is the BEST way
to test a soil’s ability to hold water?
B. Climate Reaction
A. adding soil to a beaker full of water
C. Sunlight and seeing if the soil sinks
D. Temperature speeds up or slows down B. pouring water through a funnel of soil
chemical reactions and seeing how much water drips out
226. What is the process of rocks being broken C. stirring soil into a bowl of water and
down over time called? seeing if the soil disappears
A. Weathering D. mixing water with a pile of soil and see-
B. Accumulation ing if the water changes temperature
C. Condensation 232. Which of the following types of soil has

D. Evaporation the largest particles?
A. sand
227. Lowering the pH makes nutrients
available to plants. B. silt
A. less C. humus
B. equally D. clay
C. more 233. What material is found on the surface of

D. none of above the earth consisting of a mixture of rock,
sand, clay, dead plants, and animal re-
228. Alluvial soils are moved by mains?
A. wind A. Humus
B. water B. Soil
C. gravity C. Rocks
D. glaciers D. none of above
229. Which is NOT a sign of poor drainage 234. Which part of the flower is the peduncle?
A. Surface water A. flower stem
B. yellow leaves B. leaves
C. Rushes, buttercups and other weeds C. roots
D. soil warms quickly D. carrot

235. This is found in the topsoil and is made of C. The water will drain through the soil
decaying plants and animals. quickly.
A. dirt D. The water will immediately dry up.
B. water 241. What language is used for scientific clas-
C. humus sification?
D. subsoil A. English
B. Latin
236. Horizon O had three sub-horizons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
namely:Oi, Oe and Oa. Choose which of C. Spanish
the following is the correct paired of sam- D. French
ple according to the decomposition.
242. Soil Formation is -
A. Oi- hemic
A. Slow process
B. Oa- fibric
B. Fast process
C. Oe- sapric
C. Rapid process
D. Oi- fibric
D. None of these
237. Which layer of soil often contains litter? 243. In which layer does the roots of the
A. the A horizon plants grow?
B. the B horizon A. Humus
C. the C horizon B. Subsoil
D. the bedrock C. top soil
D. bedrock
238. Which of the following crops are grown
primarily to provide feed for livestock? 244. The tiny animal can be found in soil is
A. field crops A. Elephant
B. forage crops B. Spider
C. row crops C. Worm
D. vegetable crops D. Duck
239. Under the subsoil layer is a layer of rock 245. Which soil particle is the smallest?
called A. Sand
A. bedrock B. Silt
B. this is too hard Alby C. Clay
C. parent rock D. none of above
D. none of the above 246. Where do rock particles in soil come
from?
240. If a plant is placed in a pot that contains
sandy soil, what will happen when the A. frozen water
plant is watered? B. bigger rocks
A. The soil will hold the water. C. the sky
B. The water will puddle on top of the soil. D. rain

247. Which statement about climate and C. metamorphic

weather is correct?
D. sedimentary

A. Weather is the amount of precipitation
in an area, but climate takes other factors 252. takes place because of weathering of
into account. rocks.
B. Climate is the same all over the globe A. Mountains
and weather differs from place to place.
B. Soil Formation
C. Climate is the average weather of an
C. Rock Formation
area.
D. Weather is the average climate over D. None of the above
a large area. Weather is the average cli-
253. The shape and steepness of the land-
mate over a large area.
scape.
248. Define Parent material. A. topography
A. Parent material is the substance from B. hill
which humus is formed
C. landslide
B. Parent material is the substance from
which soil is formed. D. volatile
C. Parent material is the substance 254. Which are the two main climatic factors
where water gets contaminated responsible for soil formation?
D. Parent material is air, plants and wa- A. Ocean currents and Temperature
ter
B. Temperature and Rainfall
249. Which layer of soil is a combination of
C. Humidity and Rainfall
rocks and soil?
A. Humus
B. Subsoil 255. What land capability class has severe re-
C. Parent Material strictions but is still suitable for cultivation
with careful management?
D. Bedrock
A. Class 4
250. Two methods of soil conservation in farm-
B. Class 5
ing are
C. Class 7
A. reclamation and subsurface mining
D. Class 8
B. landscaping and nylon fencing
C. selective harvesting and replanting 256. Which type of soil has a reddish brown
D. contour plowing and windbreaks color?
A. sand
rock? B. loam
A. igneous C. clay
B. magma D. none of above

257. Soil is a precious resource because it C. rocks in streams

A. is very expensive D. rocks in a warm, humid climate
B. takes million years to form
263. Plants cannot grow without
C. is very heavy
A. rocks
D. cannot be moved easily
B. soil
258. What is the first stage of mitosis?
C. moss
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. prophase
B. telophase D. pesticides
C. anaphase 264. How do plants help prevent erosion?

D. metaphase A. they dead leaves pile up to prevent ero-
259. What do we call the layers of soil? sion
A. Deposits B. plants attract animals that build
homes to prevent erosion
B. Horizons
C. Minerals C. they don’t
D. Rocks D. plant roots help keep the soil in place

to prevent erosion
260. Decayed organic material in soil is called
265. Nutrients are lost from the soil when
A. Litter A. products from plants are harvested
B. Silt B. animals are harvested
C. Humus
C. animals are removed from the farm
D. Clay
D. all of the above
261. Soil formation is the process by which
soil is formed as a result of interactions 266. Organic matter is made of materials that
over time between parent materials, cli-
mate, topography and organisms. Choose A. Were once living
which of the following is NOT a function of
organism in soil formation? B. Were once nonliving
A. Organic matter accumulation and de- C. Were once living and nonliving
composition
D. none of above
B. Reduction of soil erosion
C. Structure less formation 267. What physical property of soil deter-
mines if it retains water?
D. Biochemical weathering
A. color
262. Which rocks are exposed to more wind,
rain and ice? B. particle size
A. rocks at a lower elevation C. texture
B. rocks at a higher elevation D. weight

268. When you hear the word “potash”, what C. Clay

element does it refer to?
D. none of above

A. Phosphorus
B. Nitrogen 274. Chemical weathering occurs at a greater
rate in climates that are
C. Potassium
A. cold and wet
D. Iron
B. warm and wet
269. This type of soil is made of tiny pieces of
C. hot and dry
rock.
D. cold and dry
A. sand
B. clay 275. What is the topmost layer of the earths
C. humus crust?
D. loam A. Soil
B. Loam
270. This is the unconsolidated material under-
lying the solum, relatively unaffected by C. Sand
the soil genetic processes. D. Caly
A. Horizon A
276. Which name starts with a lower case let-
B. Horizon B
ter?
C. Horizon C
A. Common Name
D. Horizon E
B. Genus
271. Why is soil so important? C. Species
A. Eaten by animals
D. none of above
B. Eaten by people
C. Keeps Earth clean 277. In what type of climate is Chemical
weathering more rapid?
D. Provides food and support for plants
A. wet
272. This type of weathering occurs when rock B. hot
is physically broken down into smaller
pieces of rock. C. both A & B
A. mechanical weathering D. Neither A nor B
B. chemical weathering
278. Soil contains organic material. What is
C. erosion weathering organic material?
D. deposition A. Anything that is alive.
273. In which soil type would water have dif- B. Anything that is dead and has never
ficulty draining? lived.
A. Sand C. Anything living or once living
B. Silt D. dirt

279. The breaking down of rocks into smaller A. The type of crops grown in a paddock
pieces. is changed regularly in a planned order.
A. erosion B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
B. weathering ploughed back into the soil before they
seed.
C. sediment
D. sand can be returned to the soil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
280. There are three classes of rocks, iden- D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
tify which of the following did magma be- sown directly into the soil.
longs?
A. Sedimentary rocks 285. The name below that NOT including rocks
is
B. Igneous rocks
A. Granite
C. Metamorphic rocks
B. Marble
D. Intrusive rocks
C. Baloon
281. Where do the minerals (inorganic materi-
D. Limestone
als) that form soil come from?
A. Plant and Trees 286. Soil is a loose mixture of:
B. Weathering and Erosion of rocks A. Organic materials.
C. Climate and Air B. Organic and inorganic materials.
D. Sunlight, Plants and Dirt C. Dead and decaying micro organisms.
282. A soil with bulk density of 1.30g/cm3 D. none of above
and a particle density of 2.60g/cm3 will
have a porosity of 287. Why do nonvascular plants grow close to
A. 5% the ground?
B. 25% A. to get less sunlight
C. 50% B. for protection

D. 75% C. for space
D. to absorb water
283. Which of the following has led to an es-
timated 70 to 90 percent increase in food
288. Horizon O is an organic horizon that com-
production according to the World Bank?
prises three sub-horizons. Which of the
A. hydroponics following did sapric (highly decomposed
B. sustainable agriculture organic horizon) belongs?
C. fertilizer A. Oa
D. increased acreage B. Oe
C. Oi
284. Green manuring can improve levels of or-
ganic matter in the soil. This is when D. Ou

289. Soil is composed of all of these natural 295. Which layer of soil helps in purification of
materials EXCEPT water?

A. weathered rock A. topsoil
B. plant matter
B. parent rock
C. plastic substances
C. humus
D. animal remains
D. sub soil
290. Plants need the following except one
A. water 296. Which type of soil feels soft and airy?
B. air A. sand
C. light B. loam
D. pizza
C. clay
291. Fossils are made from
D. none of above
A. plastic toys
B. Sedimentary rocks 297. Students poured 400 mL of water
through a soil sample. They collected and
C. Water
measured the water that drained out of
D. none of above the soil. The water collected had a volume
292. In soil there is of mineral content of 210 mL. How much water did the soil
retain?
A. 25%
A. 210mL
B. 5%
C. 45% B. 190mL
D. none of above C. 200mL
293. The water holding capacity is the highest D. 210mL

in -
298. Washing out a plastic ziploc bag and us-
A. Sandy soil
ing it again is known as-
B. Clayey soil
A. recycling plastic
C. Loamy soil
D. none of above B. reusing an object
294. SWBAT describe how scientists classify C. reducing the amount of water used
soil. D. recycling glass
A. They base them into climate, plants,
and soil groups. 299. Which is NOT a layer of soil?
B. They base them into different soil A. bedrock
groups
B. topsoil
C. They place them into soil composition
and soil type C. undersoil
D. They place them by colors. D. subsoil

300. what is word fits w/ the organisms that 305. Layered rocks that are weathered by
break the remains of dead organisms into wind and water are called
smaller pieces and digest them with chem- A. sedimentary rocks
icals
B. igneous rocks
A. subsoil
C. metamorphic rocks
B. humus
D. magma rocks
C. loam
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. decomposers 306. How does soil form?
A. Soil forms as rock is broken down by
301. Scientific names of plants are expressed weathering and mixed with other materi-
in Latin because als on the surface.
A. it is a dead language. B. Soil forms when someone takes a
B. it is easy for all nationalities to pro- shovel and breaks rocks, and then mixes
nounce. it with dirt.
C. it is an international language and was C. Soil forms when an you throw rocks
used by the early scholars to express and dirt into a pond.
plant names. D. Soil forms when you mix water and
D. it is an easy language to learn. rocks together, then add air.
302. The texture of soil depends on 307. In which layer of soil do plant roots
grow?
A. How much water it can retain
A. humus
B. Particle size
B. topsoil
C. Soil color
C. subsoil
D. Soil mass
D. bedrock
303. A substance is composed of organic mate-
rial such as dead plants. To which category 308. If you dug up some soil and put it in
does the substance belong? a warm place what would happen to the
dirt?
A. magma
A. it would become rocks
B. mineral
B. the water would evaporate from the
C. ore
soil
D. soil
C. it would become clay
304. Which soil can be compacted to higher D. it would become humus
density?
309. Which of these is the correct definition for
A. Poorly graded sand
the term sustainable?
B. Well graded very gravelly SAND
A. The responsible development and
C. Uniform silty soil management of areas
D. Clay of high plasticity B. Improvement of a run down area

C. Meeting the needs of people without 315. The top layer of soil is called
damaging the ecological, economic, or so- A. topsoil
cial components of the environment.

B. subsoil
D. People take responsibility for improv-
C. bedrock
ing their living conditions
D. none of above
310. Breaking down of rocks is called
316. What are plants?
A. Weathering
A. living things like radishes, trees, roses,
B. soil erosion and grass
C. photosynthesis B. rocks in soil
D. none of above C. animals
D. none of above
311. What term refers to the living organisms
in soil? 317. How does soil play an important role to
life on Earth?
A. biota
A. The soil helps clean our water.
B. pH
B. Plants get nutrients from soil to grow.
C. parent material C. Soil releases gas such as carbon diox-
D. topography ide into the air.
D. All of the above
312. Water can drain easily through -
318. Which structure produces energy for the
A. Sandy soil
cell?
B. Loamy soil A. mitochondria
C. Clayey soil B. nucleus
D. none of above C. golgi
D. endoplasmic reticulum
313. Which soil has the smallest particles?
A. clay 319. Which particle is the most porous and al-
lows for the most water to travel between
B. loam them?
C. sand A. silt
D. silt B. sand
C. clay
314. Which of the following items is a primary
D. loam
ingredient of humus?
A. Dead plant material 320. The two main factors that determine the
rate of weathering are the TYPE of rock
B. Rocks from Earth’s crust and
C. Minerals A. Music
D. Metals B. Climate

C. Size of rock 326. Place the following layers in order from

D. Weight of rock top to bottom:bedrock, topsoil, subsoil, or-
ganic, parent material.
321. What is the total value of crops exported A. Organic, Topsoil, Subsoil, Parent Mate-
from South Dakota annually? rial, Bedrock
A. $1.4 billion B. Organic, Topsoil, Parent Material, Sub-
B. $431.2 billion soil, Bedrock
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. $5 billion C. Topsoil, Organic, Subsoil, Parent Mate-
D. $225 billion rial, Bedrock
D. Topsoil, Organic, Parent Material, Sub-
322. Why is soil important to living things? soil, Bedrock
A. Forms part of the earth where animals
live 327. Which particle holds the least amount of
water?
B. Provides the necessary nutrients
needed by plants A. Clay
C. Serves as a place where people live B. Silt
D. All of the above C. Sand
D. none of above
323. Soil is composed of three particle sizes.
Which answer shows the arrangement 328. Caterpillars are the larval form of which
from largest to smallest? of the following insects?
A. Sand, Silt, Clay A. moths
B. Clay, Silt, Sand
B. beetles
C. Sandy, Clay, Silt
C. ladybugs
D. Silt, Sand, Clay
D. snails
324. Based on the virtual museum experiment,
which type of soil retained the most wa- 329. What is humus?
ter? A. the bottom layer of soil
A. sand B. the largest particle that makes up soil
B. gravel C. remains of decayed plants and animals
C. clay in the soil
325. Which of the following is a term for het- 330. Which of the following is the result of
erosis? high temperatures?
A. homozygous A. inevitable plant death
B. hybrid vigor B. necrosis
C. heterosis C. off-color pigmentation
D. heredity D. heat stress

331. we can find rocks at C. 100-200 years

A. Mountain D. forever

B. Market 337. What is the best soil to grow plants in?
C. Mall A. sand
D. School B. silt
332. Select the definition of soil C. loam
A. layers of soil with distinct physical D. clay
properties in a soil profile 338. A rock formed from fragments of other
B. mixture of weathered rock, organic rocks is a(n)
material, water, and air A. Metamorphic Rock
C. decomposed organic matter B. Sedimentary Rock
D. vertical section showing the soil hori- C. Extrusive Rock
zons
D. Igneous Rock
333. Sand, silt and clay are the components of 339. Soil is composed of
soil texture and classify as
A. sand, silt and clay
A. Soil particles
B. air and water
B. Soil separates
C. humus
C. Soil fragments
D. gravel
D. Soil composition
340. The soil horizons are different from the
334. This type of soil is grainy, light brown, other based on their
and would be the size of a basketball in A. Chemical and physical features.
comparison to other soils.
B. Physical features mainly colour and
A. sand texture.
B. clay C. Chemical features only.
C. humus D. none of above
D. loam
341. What kind of soil holds the most water?
335. What percent of an ideal soil is organic A. sandy soil
matter? B. clay
A. 20-30 C. rocks
B. 45 D. plants
C. 5
342. Which soil component makes up about
D. none of above 5% of a loamy soil?
336. How long does it take for soil to be cre- A. Water
ated? B. Organic Matter
A. 5 years C. Air
B. 1 million years D. Minerals

343. What are the components of soil? A. The texture of the soil
A. Dirt, Plants, Minerals, Water B. The soil’s ability to support life
B. Climate and Weather C. The color of the soil
C. Minerals, rocks, inorganic materials, D. The processes that formed the soil
organic materials, water, air 349. Calculate the gravimetric moisture con-
D. Sun, Grass, Materials, Rock, Sunlight, tent of the soil sample if it’s fresh weight
and Oxygen (FW) is 25 grams and its oven dried
NARAYAN CHANGDER
weight (ODW) is 20 grams.
344. Which plant growth regulator is applied
to fields of fruit allowing them to ripen at A. 15%
the same time for harvest? B. 20%
A. abscisic acid C. 25%
B. ethylene D. 30%
C. auxins 350. Peter wants to grow some bell peppers
D. gibberelins in his garden. Peter tests the pH of the soil
and finds that the plants will thrive in the
345. Decomposition is soil. What was the most likely pH reading
A. nature’s way of recycling. of the soil?4
A. 1
B. the breaking down of once living plants
and animals. B. 3
C. decaying C. 6
D. all of the above D. 14
351. Which soil has the largest particles?
346. Where is the rough endoplasmic reticulum
located? A. clay
A. cytoplasm B. sand
B. ribosomes C. loam
C. nucleus D. silt
D. orange 352. What are the categories of soil composi-

tion??
347. When water dissolves minerals in one
A. Organic and Inorganic matter
layer of soil and moves them to another
this is called B. Air
A. fertilizing C. Water and minerals
B. leaching D. All of the above
C. chemical erosion 353. Which plant can be planted in sand?

D. decomposing A. paddy plant
B. mango tree
348. Which property of soil could students de-
termine by rubbing a sample between their C. rose plant
fingers? D. coconut tree

354. What happens to soil if no plants are in 360. What types of crops account for 83 per-
them and it rains? cent of the total United States’ economic
value of crops?

A. soil erosion
B. soil absorbs the water A. fruits and nuts
B. commercial vegetables
C. soil becomes mud
C. field and miscellaneous crops
D. soil becomes sand
D. forage crops
355. Which is the top layer of soil?
361. There are types of soil
A. Loam
A. 4
B. Bedrock
B. 5
C. Humus
C. 3
D. Parent Material
D. none of above
356. What are the smallest particles that
make up soil called? 362. In alternate leaf patterns, how many
leaves are produced at each node?
A. sand
A. two
B. bedrock
B. three
C. clay
C. zero
D. humus
D. one
357. It is important for soil to retain water to
363. How we can prevent erosion?
withstand
A. build retaining walls
A. weathering
B. plant grass and shrubs
B. help plants to grow
C. improve drainage
C. keep it from being dry
D. all of the above
D. none of above
364. soil is infertile.
358. Sandy is good for farming.
A. Subsoil
A. True
B. Substratum
B. False
C. Topsoil
C. Ham
D. All of the above
D. Burgers
365. What is not a benefit of adding lime?
359. How can a large rock become a part of
A. Less acidic soil encourages soil organ-
soil?
isms.
A. Break the rock into tiny pieces.
B. Lime can flocculate clay particles, mak-
B. Bury the rock in the ground. ing pores larger.
C. Pile the rock with other rocks. C. Adds calcium
D. Melt the rock and let it cool down. D. Lowers the pH.

366. Which structure provides protection to 372. Which of the following shows where soil
the plant cell and gives it its shape? formation happens at a faster rate?
A. plasma membrane A. Cold dry climate
B. vacuole B. Steep slopes
C. cell wall C. Valleys and flat areas
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. none of above
373. Which of the following shows that soil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
367. what is a dark-colored substance that
forms as plant and animal remains decay erosion is happening?
A. humus A. The soil is deep and grows grass on

top.
B. loam
B. Pavement is placed on the soil for a
C. soil horizon road.
D. bedrocl C. A forest of pine trees grows in the soil.
368. How does soil help in supporting life on D. The soil has deep gullies.
Earth? 374. ’A horizon’ is also called
A. It filters the water A. Substratum
B. It helps recycle nutrients like carbon B. Bedrock
and nitrogen
C. Topsoil
C. Many plants grow in the soil
D. Subsoil
D. All of the above
375. What does humus contain?
369. What does retain mean? A. sand
A. to hold in B. glass
B. to let fall out C. clay
C. to decompose D. decayed plants and animals
D. to dissolve 376. Breaking down or wearing away of rocks
370. What is Humus made up of? is called
A. weathering
A. decompose
B. humus
B. decayed animal and plant parts
C. erosion
C. decayed soil
D. none of above
D. none of above
377. The removal of land surface by water,
371. Soil is formed by wind or ice is known as -
A. cooling A. Erosion
B. heating B. Retention
C. weathering C. Percolation
D. freezing D. none of above

378. Soil profile is a vertical section of the soil A. Pedalogical approach

showing its horizons. Arrange the follow- B. Edapological approach
ing according to the correct sequence of a

Master horizons? C. Pedological approach
A. O, A, B, C, E D. Edopological approach
B. A, B, C, E, O 384. The rock and mineral fragments in soil
C. O, A, B, E, C come from rock that has been
D. O, A, E, B, C A. blasted
379. This refers to a type of water that can B. carved
escape from the soil. C. weathered
A. capillary D. chemically treated
B. hygroscopic
385. Factors that affect soil formation
C. flowing
A. climate
D. gravitational
B. slope
380. Sedimentary rocks are formed from the
C. vegetation
weathering of rocks exposed at the earth
surface. The process involved the follow- D. all of the above
ing EXCEPT.
386. Mechanical Weathering breaks down
A. Fragmentation rocks through
B. Transformation A. Force
C. Transportation
B. Chemical Reactions
D. Cementation
C. Magic
381. Which land class is hardest to farm? D. Erosion
A. Class 1
387. What are the two ways nitrogen gas is
B. Class 2 turned into a form plants and animals can
C. Class 5 use?
D. Class 8 A. lightning & bacteria
382. The topmost layer of land which is com- B. bacteria & worms
posed of grainy substance is called . C. lightning & worms
A. Weathered Rock D. bacteria & fungi
B. Bedrock
388. What is the movement of soil from one
C. Soil
place to another?
D. All of the above
A. weathering
383. Mang Kanor is a farmer, he produces B. deposition
many types of vegetable crops in his gar-
den. What type of approach did Mang C. discharge
Kanor belongs? D. erosion

389. Breaking down of rocks by the action of 395. Why does a soil that has only sand and
wind and climate is called- gravel not support plant growth well?
A. Weathering A. It holds in too much water
B. Cultivating B. it holds in too little water
C. Percolation C. it has too many decomposers
D. none of above D. it has too many minerals
390. Identify the right matcha. Sand i. smaller
NARAYAN CHANGDER
396. What is the total economic value of crops
than sand, larger than clayb. silt ii. large grown in the Western region?
particlesc. clay iii. smallest particles
A. $37 billion
A. a - ii, b - i, c - iii
B. $28 billion
B. a - ii, b - iii, c - i
C. $52 billion
C. both are correct
D. $41 billion
397. Plant evaluation is part of which indus-
391. Angiosperms produce seeds in try?
A. cones A. mechanics
B. fruit B. agricultural
C. leaves
C. textile
D. roots
D. media
392. The average time estimate it takes for
398. Forage crops are used to achieve which
mature soils to develop
of the following?
A. 8-10 months
A. decrease water drainage
B. 5-10 years
B. increase weed populations
C. 50 years
C. increase soil quality
D. thousands of years
D. maintain crop yield
393. Which of the following is NOT an organic
material 399. About how much of soils volume is made
up of solid material?
A. Worms
A. all
B. Decayed animals
B. a quarter
C. Rocks
C. half
D. Decayed plants
D. none
394. In which state is corn often grown for
silage? 400. What is the soil that is good for planting?
A. Pennsylvania A. Loam
B. Vermont B. Sand
C. New York C. Clay
D. New Hampshire D. none of above

401. Which of the following best describes 406. Sandy soil have a high water holding ca-
vascular tissue? pacity, more micro-pores and very difficult
to till.

A. provides a protective covering for the
plant A. True
B. comprises the majority of the primary B. Probably true
plant body C. False
C. specializes in storage, photosynthesis D. Probably false
and support
D. transports food, water, hormones and 407. Which one of these uses the nutrients in
minerals throughout the plant soil to grow
A. Plant matter
402. The four main ingredients of soil are
B. Weathering
A. wind, water, ice, and humus
C. Decompose
B. water, air, rocks, and humus
D. Trees
C. worms, ice, rocks, and air
D. water, air, rocks, and worms 408. The rate of weathering and formation of
soil is determined by:
403. When plants, animals, and other organ- A. Number of micro organisms present in
isms die, they break down and become the soil.
part of the soil. What is this part of the
soil called? B. Temperature and rainfall.
A. sand C. The types of rocks.
B. silt D. none of above
C. clay 409. What is a popular apple grown in West

D. humus Virginia?
A. Gala
404. Water is temporarily stored in soil for
plant use, which soil type is most likely B. Red Delicious
to hold that water storage the longest? C. Golden Delicious
A. sand D. Granny Smith
B. silt 410. What is the land class that restricts the
C. clay use of plants?
D. None, all equal A. Class 2
405. An animal that lives in an underground B. Class 3

by making a hole and mixing up air, water C. Class 5
and humus in the soil is called a D. Class 7
A. Decomposer
411. condition of not having enough food
B. Burrower or not having the right kind of food for
C. Humus Source good health
D. none of above A. Malnutrition

B. Pesticide 417. Which of the following is NOT an element

C. Nutrition of erosion?
A. Water
D. Food Waste
B. Wind
412. Large mineral particles of soil
C. Chemical
A. Sand
D. Electrical Current
B. Silt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
418. George Washington Carver was a profes-
C. Clay sor of agriculture. He is famous for his
D. Horizons studies of ?
A. onions
413. This is the least likely to undergo com-
paction, but most at risk for erosion B. corn
A. Clay C. soy beans
B. Silt D. peanuts
C. Sand 419. ASSET QUESTIONIn which group will all
D. Loam the three items dissolve after mixing with
water
414. At one time or another, most rocks be- A. salt, ice, clay
come
B. sand, sugar, oil
A. igneous
C. salt, ice cube, sugar
B. metamorphic
D. ice cube, sugar, oil
C. sedimentary
420. An organism, especially a soil bacterium,
D. all the above
fungus, or invertebrate, that breaks down
415. Adding lime improves soil structure be- organic material is a
cause clay particles , which makes them A. Decomposer
easier to cultivate and for roots to grow B. Burrower
in.
C. Humus source
A. flatulate
D. none of above
B. flubulate
C. flocculate 421. The seed is made up of which of the fol-
lowing parts?
D. fartulate
A. seed coat
416. Which process allows plants to make B. cotyledon
their own food and convert it to energy?
C. embryo
A. nitrogen cycle
D. all of the above
B. respiration
422. A type of soil structure that is cube-like
C. phototropism and common in B horizon especially in the
D. photosynthesis humid regions.

A. Prismlike B. micro-propagation
B. Platelike C. genetic engineering

C. Spheroidal D. conventional genetics
D. Blocklike
428. A resistance to pesticides can cause
423. Why is topsoil darker than all other lev-
A. cancer
els of soil?
A. It contains all the darker colored min- B. altered DNA
erals C. biotech foods
B. It contains volcanic rock D. super bugs
C. It contains more organic matter
429. Which soil has high nutrient content?
D. It contains bits of burned trees
A. clayey soil
424. Primary mineral is formed from the crys-
tallization of magma. Which of the follow- B. sandy soil
ing is Not a type of primary minerals? C. silty soil
A. Quartz D. loamy soil
B. Feldspar
430. The division bryophyta includes which of
C. Kaolinite the following types of plans?
D. Hornblende
A. Mosses
425. Which Method involves taking parts B. Ferns
(leaves, stem, etc) and placing them
in growing media to develop into new C. Fungi
plants? D. Flowering plants
A. Cuttings
431. Which type of soil is characterized as
B. Division having the finest particles holding greater
C. Tissue Culture amount of water?
D. Grafting A. Loam
426. Which of the following is the most impor- B. Clay
tant soil formation factor C. Sand
A. Time D. none of above
B. Climate
C. Slope 432. When grafting the part that becomes the
stem and leaves is the
D. Organisms
A. Union
427. Which of the following terms best de-
B. Scion
scribes a collection of many techniques cur-
rently used to genetically improve plants? C. Style
A. agriculture biotechnology D. Ovary

433. Which of the following soil types has the B. soil can grow crops
largest particles and allows water to flow
C. soil comes from bedrock
through it easily?
D. soil is full of mircobes
A. clay
B. silt 439. Where do plants get minerals from
C. loam A. soil
D. sand B. rain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
434. Which best describes forest soil? C. sun
A. More clay in the humus layer than in D. animals
deeper layers
B. More rock fragments in the humus 440. What is a solution to stop wind erosion
layer than in deeper layers on a farmer’s field?
C. More sand-sized particles in the hu- A. Plow up all of the plants
mus layer than in deeper layers B. Build a pond
D. More organic matter in the humus
C. plant trees and shrubs on the edge
layer than in deeper layers
D. none of above
435. Different types of soil contain different
amount of: 441. What natural resource has minerals from
A. humus weathered rocks and decomposing plant
and animal remains?
B. living things
C. pieces of rocks A. fresh water
D. none of above B. soil

C. animals
436. The five soil forming factors to deter-
mine the soil characteristics. D. plants
A. Interacts
442. The science of classifying and identifying
B. Act independently organisms is:
C. Act solely A. Science
D. All of the above
B. Anatomy
437. The R horizon is also know as. C. Taxonomy
A. Partly Weathered rock D. none of above
B. Topsoil
443. Soil is made up of:
C. Subsoil
D. Bedrock A. Sand
B. Silt
438. Why is soil an important natural re-
source? C. Clay
A. soil is used to make buildings D. All of these

444. Name the layer that is between sand and C. C

clay
D. D

A. Silt
B. Humus 450. Which of the following are the macronu-
trients that can be absorbed atmospheri-
C. Gravel cally?
A. Phosphorus, Nitrogen and Carbon
445. Which type of soil do you usually expect B. Carbon, Nitrogen, Potassium
if the community is along the seashore?
C. Nitrogen, Oxygen and Carbon
A. Loam
D. Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen
B. Clay
C. Sand 451. What is the soil that is good for making
D. none of above pots?
A. Loam
446. How do decomposers work hand-in-hand
with humus? B. Sand
A. by removing gravel and sand from soil C. Clay
B. by breaking down gravel into silt D. none of above
C. by eating animals that may harm the
soil 452. What is the main purpose of microbes in
the soil?
D. by breaking down the remains of dead
plant and animal matter A. to release the nutrients in rocks
B. to cause disease
447. Which of the following is the most com-
mon plant part used to identify plants? C. to feed animals
A. roots D. none of above
B. stems
453. One property of soil is it’s
C. flowers
A. worms
D. leaves
B. temperature
448. How do plants help soil?
C. name
A. The roots help the soil stay in place.
This helps the soil not erode as fast. D. texture
B. Plants feed the soil. 454. About 2% of American homes use
C. Plants help soil erosion happen. geothermal heat pumps. What percent of
Swedish homes use this technology?
D. All of the above.
A. 10%
449. The layer of soil that contains the most
organic material is which horizon? B. 20%
A. A C. 30%
B. B D. 40%

455. How do organisms affect soils? 461. What composes the organic matter in
A. Soil get eaten by animals soil?
B. Chemically alters and physically mixes A. pieces of rock that has been split apart
soils B. pore spaces
C. Plants grow through the soil C. liquids
D. Organism don’t affect the soils D. decomposed remains of once living
456. The MAIN thing Decomposers do for the things
NARAYAN CHANGDER
soil is the following:
462. Below the C horizon is
A. Store moisture
A. topsoil
B. Burrow deep in the soil
B. rock
C. Make space for air and water
C. clay
D. Break down and digest dead organ-
isms D. humus
457. Plants get the minerals they need to 463. What exactly is bedrock?
flourish from:
A. Any organic rock or mineral
A. Sun
B. Rock that has not been weathered
B. Rain
C. Rock that lies underneath water
C. Clean air and carbon dioxide
D. Especially soft rock
D. Soil
458. This type of soil is best for plant growth. 464. Which soil do plants grow best in?
A. rock A. clay
B. sand B. silt
C. loam C. loam
D. clay D. sand
459. Which of the following is the species 465. Soil is made of

name for soybeans?
A. weathered rocks and minerals
A. Zea mays
B. dead plants and animals
B. Glyxine max
C. air and water
C. Solanum tuberosum
D. All of the above
D. Malus domestica
460. Which describes the soil layers in order 466. Which of the following is a quantitative
from the surface? trait?
A. top soil, bedrock, horizon C, subsoil A. flower color

B. top soil, subsoil, horizon C, bedrock B. seed yield
C. top soil, horizon C, subsoil, bedrock C. pod shape
D. none of above D. stem length

467. Small grains that contain a plant’s male C. moss

reproductive cells.
D. clay

A. stamen
B. pollen 473. is the process of rocks breaking down
and becoming other rocks.
C. anther
A. erosion
D. stigma
B. weathering
468. At the same level of organic matter, eval-
uate which are the highest water holding C. rock cycle
capacity? D. water cycle
A. Loamy sand
B. Clay loam 474. The is what we call all three hori-
zons and the bedrock together.
C. Clay
A. soil layers
D. Sandy loam
B. top soil
469. There are different types of soil look,
smell, and feel different. Why soil have C. sub soil
different color. D. loam soil
A. we paint them
475. What layer of soil is the best for growing
B. we add color in it
plants?
C. they come from different rocks and dif-
A. Horizon D
ferent places
D. none of above B. Topsoil
C. Bedrock
470. Which vegetable is a major food crop in
Rhode Island? D. Clay
A. potatoes
476. This generally has the highest cation ex-
B. corn change capacity? (CEC)
C. pumpkins A. Clay
D. cabbage
B. Silt
471. Subsoil is made mostly of C. Sand
A. parent material
D. Loam
B. humus
C. clay and silt 477. How many farms in Massachusetts pro-
duce organic crops?
D. bedrock
A. more than 300
472. Soil is a mixture of weathered rock, min-
eral fragments, water, air and B. 72
A. sand C. more than 1, 000
B. decayed organic matter D. 20

478. If you want to make your soil better for C. decompostion of the remains of plant
plant growth what can you do to fix the and animal remains.
soil? D. plants and animals
A. Add clay
484. What soil is best for growing plants?
B. Add subsoil
A. clay
C. Add nutrients
B. sand
D. Take away air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mud
479. There are approximately how many dif- D. topsoil
ferent kinds of soil in the United States?
A. 5 types 485. How do you determine the texture of
soil?
B. 10 types
A. use a spring scale
C. 1, 000 types
B. observe color of particles
D. 100 types
C. rub particles between fingers
480. Conservation plowing is
D. taste particles
A. not plowing the soil before planting
new crops 486. What is the total value of the food crops
exported annually from Vermont?
B. plowing the soil 8-12 inches deep to al-
low air and water to penetrate A. $3.8 million
C. when strips of legumes and strips of B. $1 million
row crops are planted C. $464.8 million
D. none of above D. $22.9 million
481. Which primary plant nutrient promotes 487. Which element makes plant green?
strong root growth in young seedlings?
A. Potassium
A. Phosphorus
B. Nitrogen
B. Potassium
C. Phosphorus
C. Nitrogen
D. Magnesium
D. Iron
488. In soil there is of air
482. Why are good conservation practices im-
portant for lumber companies to follow? A. 45%
A. It adds groundwater B. 25%
B. it increases soil erosion C. 5%
C. it decreases soil erosion D. none of above
D. the soil is shaded 489. A soil from a field had mass of 47.80
grams and a volume of 32.50 cm3. The
483. Organic matter is formed when oven dry mass of a soil was 35.50 grams.
A. dead animals Calculate the bulk density of a soil.
B. rotten plants A. 1.10g/cm3

B. 1.90g/cm3 495. This consists of an even mixture of differ-

C. 1.50g/cm3 ent sizes of soil particles
A. Clay

D. 1.09g/cm3
B. Silt
490. Which particle of soil is the largest?
C. Sand
A. sand
D. Loam
B. gravel
C. silt 496. what is the solid layer of rock beneath
the soil
D. clay
A. soil
491. Weathering is the process of physical and B. top soil
chemical alteration of rocks and minerals
C. bed rock
at or near the earth surface. Which of the
following did water molecules incorporate D. loam
into the structure of minerals belongs? 497. The three groups of rocks are classified
A. Chemical weathering by
B. Physical weathering A. How they form
C. Mechanical weathering B. Color
D. Cultural weathering C. Grain size
492. Which of the following is not a primary D. Chemical Composition
nutrient required for plant growth? 498. Which of the following is the largest par-
A. Calcium ticle in soil?
B. Phosphorus A. sand
C. Potassium B. silt
D. Nitrogen C. humus
493. Which of the following is the correct D. clay

botanical nomenclature for a plant with 499. Soil is formed by the breaking down of
the genus Bellis and the species perennis? rocks by the action of wind, water and cli-
A. Bellis Perennis mate. This process is called
B. Bellis perennis A. Humification
C. Perennis bellis B. Weathering
D. Perennis Bellis C. Soil erosion
494. When testing the soil texture of each soil
sample, what is the next step after wet- 500. The break down of rock into smaller
ting each sample? pieces is called
A. rub the sample between your fingers A. Plant matter
B. plant a flower in each sample B. Weathering
C. examine each sample with a hand lens C. Decompose
D. look at the color of each sample D. Trees

501. How is rice planted? 507. is the type of soil used most often
A. a seed drill with plants and on farms. It is a mixture
of clay, sand, and silt.
B. a seed spreader
A. humus
C. a row planter
B. soil
D. it seeds itself
C. loam
502. What are the three types of soil we D. dirt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
learned about?
A. insects, sand, topsoil 508. soil has large grains.
B. clay, sand, humus A. Sandy
C. topsoil, subsoil, bedrock B. clay
D. earthworms, sand, silt C. loamy

D. none of above
503. Where does most of the water go when
it rains? 509. weathering
A. in the ocean A. can cause droughts
B. in the rivers B. starts erosion
C. in the gutters C. creates nutrients
D. it absorbs into the soil D. creates soil
504. Name the Climatic factors that can affect 510. Which of the following organisms is con-
soil. sidered beneficial to plants?
A. Temperature A. thrips
B. Temperature and wind B. moths
C. Wind and rain C. spiders
D. Temperature, wind and rain D. spittlebugs
505. Which of the following plants does well 511. Which of the following is a true state-
in below freezing temperatures? ment about photosynthesis?
A. watermelons A. There are three stages in the photosyn-
B. carrots thesis process?
C. corn B. Photosynthesis is essentially evapora-
tion of water and is similar to perspiration
D. cacti
in humans.
506. Soils form in layers, or C. Photosynthesis creates a net energy
A. top soils production of 36 units of ATP.
B. mixtures D. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and
water react with light energy to form
C. horizons photosynthates and release oxygen as a
D. levels byproduct.

512. Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. 517. Decayed remains of plants and animals
She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty are called
and the ball falls apart. What property of A. litter

soil is Ellen testing?
B. clay
A. color C. humus
B. texture D. soil
C. ability to support plant growth 518. is darkest colour soil.
D. water retention A. Subsoil
B. Bedrock
513. What is true about silt?
C. Topsoil
A. silt has larger particles than sand and
is sticky D. None of the above
B. silt has smaller particles and holds wa- 519. What is soil made of?
ter better than sand A. Soil comes from other minerals.
C. silt is made from humus and loam B. Soil comes from, mainly, bedrock. and
is with other weathered materials.
D. plants grow well in silt because it holds
nutrients C. Soil comes from rocks.
D. Soil is broken down rocks and is
514. Carlos Linnaeus is known as: smoothed out, through a process.
A. ”Godfather” of taxonomy 520. A proportion of 30% sand, 35% silt and
B. Creating all the common names for 35% clay. Identify what type of soil is
plants this?
C. Neither of these A. Sandy soil

B. Clayey soil
D. Both of these
C. Loamy soil
515. Rock particles of soil come in what three D. Silty soil
sizes.?
521. dig through the soil which loosens it
A. sand, silt, clay so plants grow better.
B. humus, silt, bark A. Ladybugs
C. sand, texture, color B. Earthworms
D. none of above C. Caterpillars
D. Dogs
516. Which plant structure is most involved in
photosynthesis? 522. What is a soil made up of very small bro-
ken pieces of rock?
A. stems
A. soil
B. leaves B. loam
C. roots C. silt
D. flowers D. bedrock

523. Mrs. Davis is comparing soil for reten- 529. Three kinds of soil are
tion. Retention of water depends on- A. sandy, loam, clay
A. the sizes of a soil’s particles
B. gravel, humus, sand
B. the amount of water the soil can hold
C. loam, silt, humus
C. the color of the soil
D. clay, gravel, silt
D. the types of plants that will grow in it
530. A single layer of soil is called a
524. What is the middle layer of soil which is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a combination of soil and rocks? A. profile
A. humus B. horizon
B. subsoil C. row
C. topsoil D. column
D. bedrock 531. Which grain is grown in Mississippi?
525. What is the primary crop of Nevada? A. wheat
A. apples B. rice
B. almonds C. maize
C. coffee D. milo
D. garlic
532. What is the solid mass of rock below soil
526. Soil give to the plant. called?
A. Air A. Subsoil
B. Sunlight B. Bedrock
C. Nutrients C. Parent material
D. Leaves 3 types of soil, clay and organic D. Organic
!
533. What emerges from the seed and pushes
527. What effect do plans roots have on a into the soil?
rock?
A. embryo
A. They hold it together
B. endosperm
B. They made it turn to sand
C. They cause it to undergo chemical C. cotyledons
changes D. radicle
D. They break it apart 534. The most important property for plan
528. The stalks in a flower that produce the growth is the ability of the soil to wa-
male reproductive cells ter
A. pistil A. retain
B. stamen B. drain
C. filament C. particles
D. stigma D. smell

535. Which soil hold too much water and does B. light brown
not allow air in it?
C. dark brown

A. Sand
D. white
B. Loam
C. Clay 541. Plants get the light it needs from:
D. none of above A. Rain
536. In which layer of soil does the under- B. Sun

ground water gets collected? C. Soil
A. bedrock D. Clean air and carbon dioxide
B. parentrock
542. The bottom layer of soil is called
C. childrock
D. subsoil A. topsoil
B. subsoil
537. Which of the following describes how
well soil can grow plants? C. bedrock
A. soil texture D. none of above
B. soil fertility
543. Color of the soil can tell you
C. soil structure
A. soil pollution
D. soil arrangement
B. a quick answer if the soil is healthy for
538. Which soil will allow the water to pass farming
through easily.
C. whether you need to add more nutri-
A. Clay ents
B. Sand D. how much it has rained
C. Silt
544. What soil is a mixture of sand, silt, and
D. none of above
clay?
539. The practice of planting different things A. soil
each year, in order to maintain the nutri-
ents in the soil of a field. B. silt
A. soil rotation C. clay
B. soil conservation D. loam
C. crop managing
545. As surface area of a rock increases, the
D. crop rotation rate of weathering
540. Most gray soil contains silt. Sandy soil is A. Decreases
usually light brown. Many dark soils con-
B. Increases
tain dead plants and animals. Which color
of soil most likely contains humus? C. Stays Constant
A. gray D. none of above

546. What layer is considered the ‘B’ layer of 551. Which of the following is NOT a property
soil? of soil?
A. Organic A. Color
B. Topsoil B. Texture
C. Subsoil C. Where it’s located
D. Parent material D. Ability to retain water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
547. what do we call dirt 552. How many layers does a typical soil pro-
A. air file contain?
B. soil A. 4 Layer
C. water B. 5 Layers
D. ice C. 15 Layers
D. 100 layers
548. All of the following are plant remains EX-
CEPT 553. Several students investigate the charac-
A. Dead leaves teristics of soil. The students observe sam-
ples of common soils. In one sample they
B. Sand Particles observe that water drains through the soil
C. Seed covers easily. When they rub the soil between
their fingers, it feels rough and scratchy,
D. Dried twigs
and its particles feel hard. The soil the stu-
549. Vertical section through the soil showing dents observed is most likely -
different layers is called A. clay
A. Types of soil B. silt
B. Soil texture C. loam
C. Soil profile D. sand
554. The very top layer of soil is mostly made
550. Compaction is defined as of
A. the mechanical process to increase A. Solid rock

soil density, to increase void and reduce B. Clay and mineral deposits
permeability
C. A mixture of minerals and organic ma-
B. the mechanical process to increase terial
soil density, to reduce void and reduce
D. Mostly organic material (humus)
permeability
C. the mechanical process to decrease 555. Glacial till is the soil deposited by
soil density, to reduce void and reduce A. wind
permeability
B. water
D. the mechanical process to decrease
soil density, to increase void and reduce C. gravity
permeability D. glaciers

556. A rock containing iron is soft, crumbly, C. organic

reddish in color. It’s been chemically D. none of above
weathered by

562. In which soil type would water drain eas-
A. Carbon Dioxide
ily?
B. Oxygen A. Sand
C. Nitrogen B. Silt
D. Sulfer C. Clay
557. Which soil would retain the most water? D. none of above
A. loam 563. Which particle reduces the water holding
B. sand capacity of soil?
A. Sand
C. silt
B. Silt
D. clay
C. Clay
558. Soil is formed when are broken down D. none of above
by weather, water and living things over
long periods of time. 564. Which of the following plants completes
its life cycle in one year?
A. trees
A. annual
B. rocks
B. perennial
C. insects
C. biennial
D. animals
D. fellial
559. Which of the following is a disadvantage 565. The color of the soil indicates some chem-
of using hydroponics? ical conditions.
A. slower plant growth A. Dark or black color soil indicates high
B. costs are higher than soil culture organic matter
C. lower crop yields B. Dark or black color soil indicates that
the soil is high in oxides of iron
D. weeding and cultivation are required
C. Dark or black color soil indicates that
560. The average weather condition in an area the soil is at oxidized state
over a long period of time is called D. All of the above
A. temperature
566. Why would you NOT find soils on Mars
B. climate or Venus?
C. weather A. Not all materials that make up soil can
D. humidity be found on other planets, such as water,
organic materials
561. soil has black color and its best for grow- B. You can find soil on Mars or Venus
ing plants
C. Mars and Venus have to much air
A. clay D. Mars and Venus does not have enough
B. sand air

567. Which of these BEST describes the prop- 572. What must occur in order for plants to
erties of clay-rich soils? grow?
A. medium sized particles, very good A. The rate of photosynthesis must be
drainage, feels rough and gritty greater than the rate of respiration.
B. small particles, good drainage, feels B. The rate of respiration must be greater
like flour than the rate of photosynthesis.
C. different sized particles, good C. The rate of photosynthesis must be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
drainage, rich in organic matter equal to the rate of respiration.
D. very small particles, poor drainage, D. Alternating rates of photosynthesis

feels sticky when wet and respiration.
573. Which soil has the lowest water holding

568. Roots absorb which of the following?
capacity?
A. sunlight A. clayey soil
B. pests B. sand
C. water and nutrients C. loamy soil
D. water and sunlight D. None of the above
569. The name for plants that have “identifi- 574. What is the soil that holds water very
able flowers” and produce enclosed seed well?
is: A. Sand
A. Gymnosperms B. Loam
B. Angiosperms C. Clay
C. Bryophyta D. none of above
D. Thallophyta 575. Why are sand particles different colors?
570. You would probably find the most decom- A. because sand is made from silt, clay,
posers in the soil layer called and loam
B. because the shells are brightly colored
A. topsoil
and rocks are dark
B. loam
C. because the particles come from dif-
C. litter ferent colored rocks
D. bedrock D. because water changes the color of
sand
571. What are the three types of soil parti-
cles? 576. Mrs. Edwards is comparing soil for tex-
ture. Texture of a soil depends on-
A. insects, sand, topsoil
A. the sizes of the particles in the soil and
B. clay, sand, silt how they feel
C. topsoil, subsoil, bedrock B. the amount of water the soil can hold
D. earthworms, sand, silt C. the color of the soil

D. the types of plants that will grow in 582. Calculate the dry density of the soil, if
that soil the bulk density is 2.0 Mg/m3 and Water
content is 20%.

577. What living thing are in soil.
A. 0.09 Mg/m3
A. sand
B. 2.4 Mg/m3
B. glass
C. minerals C. 0.6 Mg.m3
D. earthworms D. 1.67 Mg/m3
578. What is a method for growing plants in 583. How can a plant become a part of soil?
water without soil? A. The plant’s roots can grow deep in the
A. crop rotation ground.
B. hydrosphere B. The plant’s seeds can drop on the
C. organic foods ground and get eaten.
D. hydroponics C. The plant’s flower can stick pollen to a
bee.
579. Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand.
She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty D. The plant’s leaves can decompose af-
and the ball falls apart. What part of the ter they fall.
topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel
584. Medium-sized mineral particles of soil
gritty?
A. Sand
A. clay
B. sand B. Silt
C. silt C. Clay
D. humus D. Horizons
580. Water present in soil comes from 585. Why is water such an important compo-
A. rainfall or irrigation. nent of soils?
B. air A. Soil formation would be possible with-
out water
C. drains
D. watering plants B. Soils doesn’t need water
C. Water is a great help for soil
581. Your science teacher gives you a glass jar
filled with water, decaying material, top- D. Soil formation would not be possible
soil, dirt, and small rocks. She has the im- without water
age of the soil profile on the board. Which
layer in the jar would you find at Horizon 586. The process by which minerals in soil are
A? removed or washed away is called
A. subsoil A. carbonation
B. topsoil B. leaching
C. humus C. fertilizing
D. bedrock D. hydrolysis

587. When rain falls, water passes through C. the smallest and finest of the three
the soil, washing minerals, humus and nu- particles. Packs extremely well. Feels
trients from the A horizon into the B hori- slimy and sticky
zon. This process is called?
D. none of above
A. Leaching
592. What layer is also called the humus layer
B. Washing out
and is made up of plant remains like leaves
C. Deforestation and twigs?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Transportation A. Organic
588. Which layer of soil is the middle layer? B. Bedrock
A. Bedrock C. Parent material

B. Humus D. Bedrock
C. Subsoil 593. How does each soil types differ?
D. Parent Material A. Texture
589. It is considered as the basic structural B. Color
unit of soil. C. Both texture and color
A. Peds D. none of above
B. Aggregates
594. Which soil is good for farming?
C. Land
A. Clay
D. Gravel
B. Silty
590. Physical weathering is the alteration of
C. Peat
the physical properties of the materials
without changing its chemical composition. D. Sandy
All of this are the processes of physical
weathering EXCEPT. 595. Which type of soil does water have diffi-
culty moving through easily?
A. Unloading of erosion
A. Sandy
B. Diurnal fluctuation in temperature
B. Humus
C. Alternate freezing and thawing
C. Loam
D. Solidification of materials due to heavy
rain D. Clay
591. Which answer choice describes the char- 596. Soil horizons, in order, from the surface
acteristics of sand? are:
A. the middle size of the three compacts A. A, O, B, C, R
really well. Feels like flour and is smooth
B. O, A, B, C, R
when wet
C. A, B, C, R, O
B. is the biggest of the three particles
does not compact well. Feels Gritty. D. R, A, B, C, O

597. Calculate the percent of volumetric mois- C. Silt

ture content if the gravimetric is 25%, D. Sandy
bulk density of 1.20g/cm3 and water den-

sity of 1.00g/cm3. 603. Based on the problem above, calculate
A. 15% the pore space of a soil if the bulk density
is 1.09g/cm3 and a particle density was
B. 20%
2.65g/cm3.
C. 25%
A. 58.90%
D. 30%
B. 60.00%
598. The shape of a ped is called its
C. 58.00%
A. structure
D. 59.00%
B. structure type
C. structure grade 604. Which type of soil is used to make toys
and pots
D. structure class
A. clayey soil
599. What type of soil is good for the plants?
B. loamy soil
A. Clay
C. silty soil
B. Loam
D. sandy soil
C. Sand
D. none of above 605. This term describes decayed organic mat-
ter such as dead plants and animals
600. How many primary roots are in a taproot
A. topsoil
system?
A. one B. subsoil
B. two C. humus
C. three D. soil
D. bajillion 606. Which is the upper, outermost layer of
soil, usually the top 5-10 inches?
601. How is the air found in soils different
from the air in the atmosphere? A. Bedrock
A. Has no humid all Carbon Dioxide B. Topsoil
B. Much more humid and moist and is rich C. Subsoil
in carbon dioxide but has less oxygen
D. Partly weathered rock
C. Much more humid and moist and is rich
in Oxygen but has less Carbon Dioxide 607. This type of soil is yellowish in colour and
D. Has no humid all Oxygen can be found in the desert.
A. sand
602. What type of soil has the smallest parti-
cles? B. garden soil
A. Clay C. clay
B. Peaty D. none of above

608. Decayed organic material turns into dark 614. This type of soil is sticky when wet and
colored material called hard when dry.
A. litter A. clay soil
B. clay B. sand
C. humus C. garden soil
D. soil D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
609. The middle layer of soil in a soil profile is 615. What is weathering?
called the
A. Layer of soil
A. bedrock
B. An example of a mineral
B. parent rock
C. The breaking down of larger rocks
C. subsoil
D. none of above
D. topsoil
616. What is the main thing you need to stop
610. What does soil consist of? or minimise to make your house energy ef-
A. Animal Remains ficient?
B. Dead Plants A. Heat gain and heat loss
C. Fungi B. Water gain and water loss
D. All of the above C. Use of appliances
611. If something breaks during a lab, what is D. Heat from the sun
the first thing you should do?
617. Cross-sectional view of soil
A. Step over it
A. Profile
B. Clean it up
B. Horizon
C. Tell your neighbor
C. Master Horizons
D. Tell Mrs. Mayo
D. Leached
612. A soil with high in particle density is also
known as more porous. 618. Which of the following plant types makes
up about 80 percent of all plants?
A. True
A. non-native plants
B. Probably true
B. native plants
C. False
C. vascular plants
D. Probably false
D. non-vascular plants
613. If wind, water, or ice move sediment
from one place to another, it is called 619. The pH scale ranges from 0 to ?
A. erosion. A. 10
B. weathering. B. 12
C. a sinkhole. C. 14
D. none of above D. 16

620. There are four process of soil formation. B. broccoli

Which of the following that this statement C. potatoes
belongs “movement of soil materials from

one place to another mainly due to wa- D. eggplant
ter”.
626. The practice of growing plants without
A. Transformation soil, but by adding the plants’ nutrients di-
B. Translocation rectly to the water.
C. Addition A. hydrosphere
D. Losses B. hydroglyphics
C. hydroponics
621. What is the top layer of soil made up of
broken down pieces of dead plants and an- D. hydrocycle
imals?
627. After heavy rain, the percent water re-
A. bedrock maining in soil 2 to 3 days after filled
B. humus up and after free drainage has practically
ceased.
C. topsoil
D. subsoil A. Field capacity
B. Hydroscopic coefficient
622. Which type of soil can hold a lot of wa-
ter? C. Saturation point
A. Silty D. Permanent wilting point
B. Sandy 628. Soil is a mixture of

C. Peaty A. air, minerals and water
D. Clay B. living and non-living things
623. soil is important for C. sand, silt, clay and nutrients
A. agriculture D. all of the above
B. food 629. What is the relationship between particle
C. plants size and permeability?
D. All of the above A. As particle size increases, the perme-
ability decreases.
624. well carrying out capillarity, the follow-
B. As particle size increases, the perme-
ing should be the same EXCEPT
ability increases.
A. amount of soil
C. As permeability decreases, the parti-
B. type of soil cle size decreases.
C. diameter of tubes D. As permeability increases, the particle
D. size of the cotton wool size remains constant.
625. Which of the following is a warm season 630. To break down or decay living things is
crop? called:
A. oats A. Plant matter

B. Weathering 636. What is a material found on the surface

of the earth consisting of rock, sand, clay,
C. Decompose
dead plants, and animal remains?
D. Trees
A. silt
631. what consists of clay and other particles B. soil
washed down from the A horizon, but lit- C. bedrock
tle humus
D. loam
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. humus
B. subsoil 637. which one of these soil holds water
C. bedrock A. organic
B. sand
D. loam
C. clay
632. Which of these plants is nonvascular?
D. none of above
A. Apple tree
638. Which of the following best describes soil
B. fern erosion?
C. dandelion A. the breakdown of soil
D. moss B. the improvement of soil
633. Farm effluent is the waste from dairy fac- C. the addition of soil
tories, dairy sheds and piggeries and in- D. the movement of soil by wind or water
cludes dung, urine and udder wash.
639. What makes up the scientific name of an
A. It adds nutrients to the soil.
organism?
B. It adds organic matter to the soil. A. Kingdom and Phylum
C. It adds water to the soil. B. Family and Genus
D. All of the above. C. Genus and Species
634. Which type of soil is a mixture of the D. none of above
other types of soil?
640. Humus is formed from rotting
A. Sand
A. Clay and soil
B. Loam
B. Animal and plants
C. Silt C. Wood and rocks
D. Clay D. none of above
635. Name the particles that is smallest in size 641. The organic matter in humus is made of
A. Silt A. dead worms
B. Sand B. stems
C. Gravel C. roots
D. Clay D. all of the above

642. Many plants cannot grow in sandy soil. C. answer

Why is this true? D. fact

A. Sandy soil does not hold enough water.
648. What land class that restricts the use of
B. Air cannot pass through sandy soil. plants?
C. Roots cannot easily push through A. Class 2
sandy soil.
B. Class 3
D. Sandy soil has too many nutrients.
C. Class 5
643. Soil profile refers to an arrangement D. Class 7
within a soil of -
649. The middle layer of soil is called
A. Its horizontal layout
A. topsoil
B. Vertical layout
B. subsoil
C. Size of soil particles
C. bedrock
D. none of above
D. none of above
644. What process breaks down bedrock to be-
gin soil formation? 650. No tillage can improve levels of organic
matter in the soil. This is when
A. leaching
B. weathering is changed regularly in a planned order.
C. decomposition B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
D. humus ploughed back into the soil before they
seed.
645. An example of an angiosperm is
A. pine tree can be returned to the soil
B. sunflower D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
C. moss sown directly into the soil.
D. fern 651. the experiment done by heating the soil

in a glass container then smoke is ob-
646. What is the layer under the Humus that served shows that is in the soil
provides support and nutrients to plants?
A. organic matter
A. humus
B. water
B. bedrock
C. animals
C. topsoil
D. air
D. subsoil
652. Which of the following is the correct or-
647. Often phrased as an “If, Then” state- der of the taxonomic hierarchy?
ment, this is an educated guess for a so- A. Kingdom, division, class, order, family,
lution to a scientific problem. genus, species
A. solution B. Kingdom, division, class, order, family
B. hypothesis species, genus

C. Kingdom, class, division, order, Mayo, 658. A seed with only one cotyledon is called
species a
D. Kingdom, division, order, class, family, A. Dicot
genus, species B. Monocot
653. What is a resource? C. Flower

D. Fruit
A. Anything that is used for a purpose.
659. What type of soil water is used by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Anything that has a purpose.
plants?
C. Anything that we use for information.
A. hygroscopic
D. Anything that is renewable.
B. capillary
654. What is the main function of the flower C. gravitational
of a plant? D. all types of soil water
A. provide food for insects
660. Which type of soil has a DARK BROWN
B. sexual reproduction color?
C. store food for the plant A. sand
D. provide surface area for the plant B. loam
C. clay
655. The Midwest Regions’ economic value
of crops equal what percent of the total D. none of above
United States’ agricultural products? 661. Which of the following involves the com-
A. 26 bination of two haploid sex cells to create
an individual?
B. 83
A. Asexual reproduction
C. 70
B. Sexual reproduction
D. 58
C. Vegetative propagation
656. Rusts are classified as which of the fol- D. Induced propagation
lowing?
662. If your soil sample has 35% sand, 40%
A. fungus silt and 25% clay, identify the soil texture
B. bacteria using the soil texture triangle provided to
you.
C. virus
A. silt
D. cancer
B. clay loam
657. Humus usually gives soil a color. C. loam
A. Light D. silt loam
B. Medium 663. What material is soil mostly made of?
C. Dark A. nutrients
D. Purple B. bits of bone

C. shells 669. One component of soil is decayed plant

and animal remains, but the major compo-
D. pieces of rock
nent of soil is -

664. overgrazing, overcropping, and defor- A. Fossil Fuels
estation impact erosion because of B. Weathered rocks
A. weathering C. Iron ore
B. soil D. Salt water
C. humans 670. Pick the TRUE statement:
D. wind A. Topsoil is a type of soil
B. Loam is a layer of soil
665. Which type of soil is best for growing
plants and has the remains of decayed C. Loam is a type of soil
plants and animals? D. Topsoil is a layer of bedrock
A. sand 671. There are four major components of soil.
B. clay Evaluate which of the following compo-
nents comprises least amount of material
C. gravel
incorporated into the soil?
D. humus A. Mineral matter
666. This type of soil is carried by water and B. Soil Air
left as sediment. C. Soil water
A. bedrock D. Organic matter
B. loam 672. According to our lab on soil and water ab-
C. silt sorption, which soil held the most amount
of water?
D. clay
A. Clay
667. The arrangement of different layers of B. Potting Soil
soil at a place is called C. Gravel
A. Partly weathered Rock D. Sand
B. Weathering 673. layer of soil is not porous
C. Bedrock A. Subsoil
D. Soil Profile B. Substratum
C. Top soil
668. Which layer of soil has the most humus?
D. Bedrock
A. topsoil
B. subsoil 674. Which of these is made of smallest parti-
cles of rocks, decayed matter of plants and
C. bedrock animals?
D. none of above A. A. Clay

B. B. Loam 679. You dig a small hole in the soil and the
next day it rains. The hole fills with wa-
C. Silt
ter, but does not empty even after sev-
D. Sand eral days of dry weather. What is the soil
mostly made of?
675. where do plants get light from? A. clay
A. sun B. sand
B. sea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. humus
C. star D. silt
D. school 680. In Nebraska, what primary crop is used
for making brooms?
676. A student takes a rectangular piece of
A. proso millet
soap and writes the word “soap” on one
of the soap’s surfaces using a toothpick. B. hay
The student then places the piece of soap C. wheat
below a dripping faucet with the lettering
D. cotton
facing upward.Which question can be best
studied using this model? 681. The layers of soil are also known as
A. How do the minerals in water affect A. horizons
landforms? B. humus
B. How is a mountain created using flow- C. loam
ing water?
D. dirt
C. Do all minerals dissolve in rainwater?
682. Which is the correct order of weathered
D. Does dripping water cause erosion of rocks from largest to smallest?
land?
A. clay, silt, sand, gravel
677. Movement of soil and rocks from one B. sand, silt, clay, gravel
place to another is called C. gravel, sand, silt, clay
A. weathering D. gravel, sand, clay, silt
B. humus 683. Which horizon has smaller rock and min-
C. erosion eral particles than the other layers?
D. none of above A. A
B. B
678. Which is another name for a non-vascular C. C
plant?
D. D
A. Bryophyte
684. Which type of soil is best for growing
B. gymnosperm plants?
C. angiosperm A. sand
D. seedless vascular plant B. clay soil

2.2 Soil Chemistry 315
C. garden soil C. help plants to grow

D. none of above D. keep it from being dry

685. Most of the lime that is applied is calcium 687. It is important for soil to hold water to
carbonate. This is finely ground limestone.
A. withstand weathering
Adding lime makes the soil acid and
the pH. B. erode more slowly
A. less raises C. help plants to grow
B. more raises D. keep it from being dry
C. less lowers 688. It lets most water pass through it:
D. more lowers A. Sandy Soil
686. It is important for soil to retain water to B. Loamy Soil
A. withstand weathering C. Clayey Soil
B. erode more slowly D. none of above
2.2 Soil Chemistry

1. Is loamy soil good for growing plants? C. From the food they eat
A. Yes, it is the best. D. From the sun
B. Yes, but only when it is in a pot.
5. A Horizon is also called
C. No, it holds too much water.
A. Topsoil
D. No, it does not hold enough water.
B. B horizon
2. What is the main component of soil?
C. C horizon
A. Humus
D. Bedrock
B. Water
C. Air 6. pH is important because
D. Rock particles A. it determines a soil’s suitability for life

B. it determines whether nutrient ele-
3. What is the only process that removes car-
ments are at optimal, deficient, or toxic
bon from the atmosphere?
levels
A. combustion
C. it determines the fate of soil pollution
B. cellular respiration
D. all answers are correct
C. photosynthesis
D. decomposition 7. What is the role of soil microorganisms?
A. make soil porous
4. How do animals get the nitrogen they
need? B. make soil rich in humus
A. From the air they breathe C. Both the above options
B. From the water they drink D. none of above

8. It is the loss of soil by the action of both 13. Which type of soil has the largest parti-
water and wind. cles?
A. Soil Erosion A. sand
B. Deforestation B. silt
C. Desertification C. clay
D. Transpiration D. loam
14. Which of the following soil has the small-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. If the atmosphere is 78% N2, why can’t est particles
we just get our nitrogen by breathing?
A. Clayey Soil
A. We have no mechanism to break
the triple bond of nitrogen between the B. Loamy Soil
atoms. C. Sandy Soil
B. Our lungs would be damaged by the D. Silt Soil
N2.
15. Toys, Pots and Statues are made of which
C. We need Oxygen for cellular respira- soil type?
tion. A. Sandy Soil
D. The legumes take it up first. B. Clayey Soil
10. The alternate freezing and thawing ofthe C. Loamy Soil
water during the winter causes the cracks D. None of these
to enlarge, breaking off small pieces of
rocks. 16. Water cannot penetrate through which
layer?
A. topography
A. B-Horizon
B. climate
B. Bedrock
C. organism C. O-Horizon
D. time D. A-Horizon
11. The following are products of decomposi- 17. Which layer is interaction between A-
tion except: Horizon and B-Horizon
A. carbon dioxide A. E-Horizon
B. water B. Bedrock
C. nutrient minerals C. 0-Horizon
D. oxygen D. C-Horizon
18. What is sandy soil
12. Soil water has certain functions in the soil.
A. Containing greater proposition of big
A. Anchors the roots particles
B. Infiltration B. Have fine particles relatively higher
C. Increases Cation Exchange Capacity C. The mixture of sandy and clayey soil
D. none of above D. A bedrock

19. A solution with a pH greater than 7 would 25. Which of the following is true. In a soil
be considered: with a high clay content

A. neutral A. More lime is required to correct pH
B. alkaline/basic B. Nitrogen leaching is more likely
C. acidic C. There is a low water-holding capacity
D. none of above D. Will drain much faster and better than
sandy soil.
20. In which soil does the water seeps out
very fast 26. What do you mean by humas
A. Loamy soil A. The rotting of dead matter in the soil
B. Sandy Soil
B. Rocks
C. Clayey Soil
C. action of breaking rocks by wind
D. Silt Soil
D. A vertical session
21. The presence or absence of mountains and
valleys, is also involved in soil formation. 27. Which element causes soil to appear red?
A. topography A. calcium
B. time B. iron
C. climate C. silicon
D. organism D. nickel
22. What is the pH range which provides for 28. These are pesticides that come from natu-
the optimal availability of plant essential ral sources such as plants or bacteria.
nutrients (elements)?
A. Insecticides
A. 12.3-14.2
B. Biopesticides
B. 6.3-7.2
C. Rodenticides
C. 2.3-3.3
D. Herbicides
D. none of the answers are correct
29. Capillarity occurs due to
23. is the topmost layer of soil.
A. cohesion and adhesion
A. Topsoil
B. gravitational movement
B. Subsoil
C. Nitrogen C. hygroscopic adhesion
D. Bedrock D. none of above
24. What type of molecule is water? 30. Which type of soil has a gritty texture?
A. Polar A. sand
B. Negative B. silt
C. Positive C. clay
D. Universal D. loam

31. What do the letters PH stand for? 36. Soil that is saturated is said to have a wa-
ter potential of
A. Potassium Hydrate
A. Zero
B. Potential Hydrogen
B. Negative
C. Potassium and Holding
C. Positive
D. Acidic solution
D. none of above
32. When soils are waterlogged it is likely 37. Water potential can be defined as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
that this nutrient will be lost through
A. the ability for water to bond
leaching, resulting eventually in the older
leaves of the plant yellowing. B. the adhesion of water
A. N2O - Nitrous Oxide C. the ability for water to move in soil
D. water moving through a substance
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen 38. What process occurs when dead plant and
animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is
D. Atomospheric gases (Air) released back into the atmosphere?
33. In which state of energy will water move? A. Assimilation
B. Fixation
A. high energy to low energy
C. Ammonification
B. low energy to high energy
D. Denitrification
C. high energy to high energy
39. Soil acidity results from many sources. Se-
D. low energy to low energy
lect a natural process which can cause soil
34. During which process is nitrogen moved acidity.
from the air to the soil to be used by plants A. The reaction of Carbon Dioxide and
and then returned to the atmosphere to be Water
used again? B. Use of organic fertilizers
A. ammonification C. Nitrification of ammonium fertilizers
B. nitrogen cycle D. An inherently sandy soil
C. Fixtation 40. is the conversion of organic nitrogen
D. water cycle into ammonia
A. Nitrogen Fixation
35. Why is it important to plant row crops di- B. Ammonification
rectly near the water line?
C. Denitrification
A. So the plant can get as much grav-
D. Assimilation
itational water as it can before it runs
through. 41. In which soil hold water is called
B. So the water front can reach the plant. A. Moisture
C. So the dry soil can pull the water to- B. Soil Moisture
wards plant. C. Soil
D. none of above D. Soil Erosion

42. Which soil layer is made up of small lumps 48. If a soil or solution is acidic then it is
of rocks? A. Above 8 PH

A. A-Horizon B. Near 7 PH
B. B-Horizon C. Below 6 PH
C. C-Horizon D. none of above
D. Bedrock
49. The removal of land surface by
43. What is the property of water that allows A. Water
it to stick to other water molecules?
B. Crops
A. Capillary Action
C. Soil
B. Solubility D. Moisture
C. Adhesion
50. Most soil group in Ilocos Sur
D. Cohesion
A. Ultisol
44. Which one of these is NOT a macro- B. Inceptisol
nutrient
C. Entisol
A. Nitrogen
D. Oxisol
B. Calcium
51. Gravitational water moves more rapidly
C. Boron
due to
D. Potassium
A. small pore space
45. Which of the following has the biggest soil B. small particle size
particles C. large pore space
A. Silt Soil D. none of above
B. Loamy Soil
52. Infiltration is
C. Sandy soil
A. Waters ability to enter the surface
D. Clayey soil layer of the soil
46. What are the three components of soil? B. An inverted filtration occurrence
A. insects, sand, topsoil C. The ability to maintain correct water
balance
B. clay, sand, humus
D. Liquid slowly passing through a filter
C. topsoil, subsoil, bedrock
D. earthworms, sand, silt 53. Soil is known for its importance in differ-
ent aspects except:
47. The deposition of leached material in the
A. the production of food
lower layers of soil.
B. maintaining the balance of carbon, ni-
A. illuviation trogen, and phosphorus
B. percolation C. for the construction of building materi-
C. leaching als
D. aeration D. none of the above

54. What is the property of water that allows C. Transpiration

it to stick to other surfaces?
D. Desertification
A. Surface tension
B. Cohesion 60. The bits of decayed living organisms in the
soil are called
C. Adhesion
A. Mineral nutrients
D. Solubility
B. Humus
55. - is important for the life of earth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Compost
A. Percolation
D. All of the above
B. Water
C. Soil 61. It is made up of small particles:
D. Plant A. Loamy Soil
56. from the atmosphere that are con- B. Sandy Soil
verted to nitrates are eventually de- C. Clayey Soil
posited in soil.
D. none of above
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Particulate lead 62. If one nutrient is absent or toxic then what
C. Nitrogen oxides could happen to a plant
D. Sulfur oxide A. Alter the cellular structure of the plant

resulting in defects or deficiencies
57. Which soil horizon contains humus?
B. Nothing will happen to the plant
A. A-Horizon
C. Possible create a new variation of that
B. B-Horizon plant due to the plant stress
C. C-Horizon D. The plant could join a union and protest
D. Bedrock the maltreatment
58. the layer which is generally harder and 63. If a soil or solution is alkaline then it is
more compact
A. Above 8 PH
A. Bedrock
B. Near 7 PH
B. A - horizon
C. Below 6 PH
C. C - Horizon
D. B - Horizon D. none of above
59. The is the aqueous portion of soil that 64. Which topsoil is best suited for growing
contains dissolved matter from the chem- plants
ical and biochemical processes in soil and A. Sandy Soil
from the exchange with the hydrosphere
and biosphere. B. Loamy Soil
A. Soil solution C. Clayey Soil
B. Organic matter D. None of these

65. The process in which Nitrogen circulates C. Loamy soil

and is recycled is called
D. None of these

A. The nitrogen cycle
B. The water cycle 71. As soil particle size decreases, the water
holding capacity of the soil
C. The carbon cycle
A. decreases
D. Nitrogen Fixation
B. increases
66. Jisna conducted an experiment in the field
related to the rates of percolation. she C. stays the same
observed that it took 50 min for 2.5 l of D. none of above
water to percolate through the soil sample.
Calculate the rate of percolation. 72. Organisms that need nitrogen to survive
A. 50ml/min A. only plants
B. 40ml/min B. only animals
C. 55ml/min C. only bacteria
D. none of above D. all living organisms
67. Lentils (masoor) and other pulses are
grown in which of the following soil type? 73. (Choose the best answer). Percolation is:
A. Sandy Soil A. Liquid slowly passing through a filter

B. Clayey Soil B. Liquids ability to enter the surface
layer of soil
C. Loamy Soil
D. None of these C. Water being absorbed into the atmo-
sphere
68. Roots of plants can go deep to which D. none of above
layer?
A. Bedrock 74. Which layer is important for healthy grow-
B. E-Horizon ing of plants?
C. B-Horizon A. O-Horizon
D. none of above B. A-Horizon
C. Bedrock
69. Soil is the most important resources
A. Abiotic D. C-Horizon
B. Natural 75. What is the process of combining nitrogen
C. Biotic gas with other elements to make nitrogen
into usable compounds?
D. Dirty
A. nitrogen composition
70. Which of the following soil type is loosely
packed with large air spaces? B. ammonia
A. Sandy Soil C. nitrogen fixation
B. Clayey Soil D. denitrification

76. Which of the following types of soil water C. fungi

is available to plants? D. none of above
A. gravitational
82. The soils which are suitable for growing
B. hygroscopic cereals like wheat and gram
C. Capillary A. sandy and clayey soil
D. none of above B. Loamy and Sandy soil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
77. The optimum soil pH for most plant growth C. clayey and loamy soil
is because most nutrient minerals D. none of above
needed by plants are available in that pH
range. 83. In order to increase water retention, you
should add the following to soil:
A. 6 - 7
A. organic matter
B. 4 - 5
B. loose gravel
C. 7 - 8
C. nitrogen pellets
D. 5 - 6
D. coarse sand
78. How many types of soil are there
84. In soil, water will only move
A. 1
A. by being pulled by dry soil.
B. 2
B. by being pushed by gravitational wa-
C. 4 ter.
D. 3 C. from moist to dry soil
79. Soil has how many layers? D. none of above
A. 5 85. Nitrification happens in the
B. 6 A. Air
C. 2 B. Soil
D. 3 C. Ground Water
D. Plants
80. How is nitrogen “fixed” into a usable
form for plants? 86. Which of these particles in soil has the
A. Through action of bacteria only most water retention?
B. Through lightning only A. clay
C. Through action of bacteria and light- B. gravel
ning C. silt
D. Through photosynthesis D. sand
81. Organisms that breakdown organic mate- 87. Which type of soil has medium sized parti-
rials into nutrients. cles?
A. worms A. sand
B. ants B. silt

C. clay 94. Soil is mostly made of

D. none of above A. mineral particles

88. If water runs out of the bottom of the pot B. organic matter
this is an example of C. water
A. available water D. air
B. hygroscopic water
95. What happens when organisms die and de-
C. gravitational water
cay?
D. none of above
A. Their bodies are lifted up
89. Plants cannot penetrate through which B. Their nitrogen returns to the soil
layer?
C. they keep their nitrogen
A. A-Horizon
D. They stay on earth forever
B. Bedrock
C. C-Horizon 96. Most abundant soil group in the Philip-
D. E-Horizon pines.
A. Ultisols
90. Properties of soil can be observed and
measured. Which is a property of soil? B. Entisol
A. Texture C. Alfisols
B. Streak D. Spodosols
C. Luster
97. Which soil retains the most amount of wa-
D. Size ter
91. Soil is essential for A. Silt Soil
A. Planting trees B. Loamy Soil
B. Agriculture C. Sandy soil
C. Growth of plants D. Clayey Soil
D. none of above
98. O-Horizon is how much thick
92. What type of texture does clay have?
A. 3 Inch
A. gritty
B. 4 Inch
B. shiny, smooth and sticky
C. 10 Inch
C. flaky and dark
D. 1 Inch
D. none of above
93. The best topsoil for growing plants is 99. Percolation rate of soil is least in
A. sand A. Sandy Soil

B. clay B. Clayey Soil
C. loam C. Loamy Soil
D. none of above D. None of these

2.3 Soil Nutrients 324
100. Organisms that aerate the soil. C. humus, topsoil, clay

A. worm D. loam, topsoil, humus
B. ants
103. Gravitational flow occurs more rapidly in
C. fungi
A. fine particle soils
D. none of above
B. coarse particle soil
101. What is the best characteristics of soil.
C. all soils
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Soil is a mixture of wind and waves
D. none of above
B. Soil has not living organisms.
C. Soil contains particles of water and air. 104. In addition to rocks particles the soil con-
tains
D. none of above A. Minerals
102. Soil is made up of three types of particles B. Organic matter, minerals, air And wa-
called ter
A. loam, humus, sand C. Organs
B. sand, silt, clay D. Crops
2.3 Soil Nutrients

1. Select the secondary macronutrients re- 4. In plant science a nutrient is “essential” if
quired by plants.
A. N, P, K A. it is necessary for plant growth
B. C, O, H B. it is found on the periodic table
C. Ca, Mg, S C. it is found in the soil
D. Zn, Fe, Co D. it is used by the human body
2. Which of the following is not a Micro Nu- 5. Which fertilizer can be applied anytime
trient during the growing season?
A. Iron A. Synthetic
B. Copper B. Organic
C. Selenium C. Both
D. Magnesium D. none of above
3. Which fertilizer is sourced from natural in- 6. Which fertilizer is, typically, “slow-
gredients? release”?
A. Synthetic A. Synthetic
B. Organic B. Organic
C. Both C. Both

7. Which one is a micronutrient? B. fire flies

A. Sulfur C. shooting stars

B. Nitrogen D. heat lightning
C. Zinc
13. Select the structural elements found in
D. Calcium
plants.
8. Select the macronutrients required by A. N, P, K
plants.
B. C, O, H
A. N, P, K
C. Ca, Mg, S
B. C, O, H
D. Zn, Fe, Co
C. Ca, Mg, S
D. Zn, Fe, Co 14. This nitrogen fixing bacteria lives in the
roots of beans, clovers and peas
9. Weak stalks leading to lodging in cereals
indicates a deficiency in A. ribosomes
A. Potassium B. rhizobia
B. Nitrogen C. radicals
C. Phosphorus D. roots
D. none of above
15. Which of the following is a sign of nitrogen
10. Pale green or yellow plants due to lack of deficiency in plants
chlorophyll would indicate a deficiency in
A. Blue colour leaves
A. Nitrogen B. Purple colour leaves

B. Phosphorus C. Pale or Yellow colour leaves
C. Potassium D. No germination of seed
D. none of above
16. The chemical symbol for phosphorus is
11. Nutrient deficiency can be defined as a con- A. P
dition where
B. K
A. the plant has too much of a certain nu-
trient. C. S
B. the plant cannot hold its own weight D. Ph
and, therefore, droops.
17. Discoloured blue-purple leaves indicates a
C. the plant turns yellow.
deficiency in
D. the plant is not getting enough of an
essential nutrient. A. Nitrogen
B. Phosphorus
12. In the atmosphere, energy from lightning
causes nitrogen and oxygen to form C. Potassium
A. nitrates D. none of above

18. The tendency of cereal crops to bend over 24. Helps form chlorophyll; helps with pro-
so that they lie almost flat on the ground tein production and making plant oils; in-
is called creases crop yields and improves quality
A. Lodging of produce
B. Bending A. magnesium
C. Distorting B. sulfur
D. Necrosis C. phosphorus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. Component of chlorophyll, amino acids, D. calcium
DNA and ATP are all functions of
A. Nitrogen 25. carries airborne nitrates to the soil dur-
ing a storm.
B. Potassium
C. Phosphorus A. clouds
D. none of above B. rain
20. A deficiency in causes whiptail in C. lightning

cauliflower D. tornadoes
A. Molybdenum
26. Heart rot/crown rot in sugar beet and car-
B. Zinc
rots is caused by a deficiency in
C. Iron
A. Boron
D. Copper
B. Zinc
21. Which fertilizer contains N, P and K?
C. Copper
A. Synthetic
D. Iron
B. Organic
C. Both 27. How many essential nutrients are required
D. none of above by plants?
22. Which fertilizer is usually applied early in A. 10

the growing season? B. 20
A. Synthetic C. 16
B. Organic
D. 15
C. Both
D. none of above 28. A deficiency in causes yield reduction in
cereals, stunted growth and reduced flow-
23. Weak stalks leading to lodging in plants ering in legumes
indicates a deficiency in
A. Iron
A. Potassium
B. Nitrogen B. Zinc
C. Phosphorus C. Manganese
D. none of above D. Molybdenum

29. Scorching of leaves (browning) along leaf A. they convert organic N to a form that
margins indicates a deficiency in is usable by plants

A. Nitrogen B. they create sugars that feed plants
B. Potassium C. the filter pollutants in the soil
C. Phosphorus D. they provide root protection during
harsh weather conditions
D. none of above
35. What is the definition of synthetic?
30. A deficiency in causes shortened in-
ter nodes and bunched leaves on ends of A. occurs naturally (”in nature”)
brunches due to low auxin production B. made by chemical synthesis (human-
made)
A. Iron
C. made of plastic or metal
B. Zinc
D. organically sourced
C. Manganese
D. Molybdenum 36. What is the process where nitrogen is
moved from the air to the soil to be used
31. Swayback is a deficiency disease in sheep by plants and then returned to the atmo-
due to the lack of which element sphere to be used again?
A. Zinc A. ammonia cycle
B. Iron B. nitrogen cycle
C. Cobalt C. bacterial cycle
D. Copper D. water cycle

37. What two kinds of material make up soil?
32. The primary function of this element is
to contribute to the general health of the A. dirt and worms
plant and encourage root growth and fruit B. dirt and minerals
formation
C. organic material and minerals
A. nitrogen D. topsoil and rocks
B. potash
38. Dying growing tips and bushy stunted
C. potassium growth is caused by a deficiency in
D. oxygen A. Boron
33. is needed for cell wall formation in a B. Zinc
plant C. Copper
A. Calcium D. Iron
B. Magnesium 39. A deficiency in causes anaemia in pigs
C. Sulfur A. Iron
D. none of above B. Zinc
34. What important role do soil microorgan- C. Copper
isms play in the Nitrogen Cycle? D. Boron

40. is the only metal micronutient that B. nitrogen

does not exhibit multiple valences and C. oxygen
not subjected to oxidation-reducation re-
actions in soil-plants system D. phosphorus
A. Iron 46. Which of the following are other beneficial
B. Zinc micronutrients?
C. Manganese A. Cobalt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Molybdenum B. Nickel
C. Vanadium
41. Which of the following is NOT one of the
micronutrients are required by plants? D. All of the above
A. Zn 47. is important parts of plants’
B. Fe oxodation-reduction reactions
C. Cl A. Iron
D. Co B. Zinc
42. You have a 40lb bag of fertilizer with an C. Copper

analysis of 16-7-2. How many lbs of P D. Boron
are in the bag?
48. This bacteria in the soil returns nitrogen
A. 6.4 lbs of P to the atmosphere by converting nitrogen
B. .8 lbs of P from nitrates into atmospheric nitrogen
C. 28 lbs of P A. hydrogen bacteria
D. 2.8 lbs of P B. oxygenizing bacteria
43. is part of enzyme nitrate reductases C. nitrifying bacteria
and N-fixing nitrogenase. D. denitrifying bacteria
A. Molybdenum
49. Improves strength of the stems, increases
B. Zinc disease resistance and helps plants over-
C. Iron come drought stress
D. Copper A. nitrogen
B. phosphorus
44. Blood meal is an organic source of which
nutrient? C. calcium
A. N D. potassium
B. P 50. The three most important mineral nutri-
C. K ents for plants are , , and
D. Ca A. hydrogen, oxygen, and water
45. This element is essential for cell division B. nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
and promotes plant maturation C. phosphorus, potash, and salt
A. potassium D. phosphorus, fertilizer, and bacteria

2.4 Manures Fertilizers Agrochemicals 329
51. Wood ash is an organic source of which nu- D. the plant is not getting enough of an
trient? essential nutrient.

A. N 55. Which of the following is not a micronutri-
B. P ent?
C. K A. Iron
D. Ca B. Copper
C. Calcium
52. You have a 25lb bag of fertilizer with an
analysis of 5-10-0. How many lbs of N D. Chlorine
are in the bag? 56. The nutrient that stimulates growth of
A. 1.25 lbs of N leaves and gives plants a rich green color
B. 2.5 lbs of N A. nitrogen
C. 12.5 lbs of N B. potassium
D. 0 lbs of N C. phosphorus
D. potash
53. Which is not a primary macronutrient?
A. Calcium 57. The chemical symbol for potassium is
B. Nitrogen A. K
C. Potassium B. P
C. Po
D. Phosphorus
D. N
54. Nutrient toxicity can be defined as a con-
dition where 58. Which fertilizer, typically, has higher num-
bers in its fertilizer analysis?
A. the plant has too much of a certain nu-
trient. A. Synthetic
B. the plant cannot hold its own weight B. Organic
and, therefore, droops. C. Both
C. the plant turns yellow. D. none of above
2.4 Manures Fertilizers Agrochemicals

1. What can be added to the environment good green growth for the leaves and
around the plant that contain essential stems of her houseplants. The fertilizer
plant nutrients? will most likely contain the primary ele-
A. Water ment:
B. Sunlight A. chlorine.
C. Fertilizer B. copper.
D. Food C. nitrogen.
2. Angel selects a fertilizer that will promote D. zinc.

3. What is the fertilizer that is usually con- 8. How does nitrogen help a plant grow
centrated and is to be mixed with water?
A. Dark green leaf
A. Powder B. Root growth
B. Liquid C. Fruit growth
C. Granular D. none of above
D. none of above
9. Which of the following is TRUE of inorganic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4. Nitrogen for the Haber process is formed fertilizers?
by A. They release nutrients through decom-
A. Fractional distillation of air posers
B. Fractional distillation of crude oil B. They are not synthetically manufac-

tured
C. Electrolysis of water
C. They release nutrients quickly
D. Fixation of nitrogen by pea plants
D. none of above
5. Which of the following is untrue for the
10. If number of bacteria increases this
haber process?
A. increases algal bloom
A. ammonia gas is cooled and collected
as a liquid B. increases nitrate levels
B. a really high temperature is used to C. consumes all the oxygen in water in-
speed up the reaction creasing biodiversity
C. hydrogen and nitrogen are the raw ma- D. consumes all the oxygen in water de-
terials for the reaction creasing biodiversity
D. vary high pressure 11. What is one of the most important soil
properties that affects the availability of
6. Which elements are considered non- nutrients?
mineral nutrients?
A. Moisture
A. Carbon, Hydrogen & Oxygen
B. Texture
B. Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen
C. Organic material
C. Carbon, Potassium, Hydrogen & Nitro-
gen D. pH
D. none of above 12. What is deficiency?

A. That does not relate to plants.
7. The irrigation system that adds water by
flooding furrows is B. The lack of water in a plant.
A. surface C. This is when it has rained for several
days and there is no sun reaching the
B. subirrigation
plant.
C. sprinkler
D. A shortage of given nutrient needed by
D. trickle a plant.

13. If nitrate levels in soil get low 19. When looking at a fertilizer bag and the ra-
A. crops will grow bigger tio is 15-25-10. What percent of nitrogen
is in this bag?

B. crops will grow slower
A. 10%
C. crops wont grow as well
D. animals will die B. 25%
C. 0%
14. Which of the following would be a suitable
fertilizer? D. 15%
A. nitrogen dioxide
20. What has to happen before nutrients can
B. potassium nitrate
be taken up by the roots of a plant?
C. copper phosphate
A. scarification
D. nitrogen oxide
B. leaching
15. If Luke Warm needed to apply 50lbs of
potassium per acre and was using 0-0-60 C. dissolve in water
(potash) as his K source how many total D. none of the above
pounds of Potash would he need to put on?
A. .08 21. What is phosphorus used for in a complete
fertilizer?
B. 30
C. 50 A. For green foliage.
D. 83 B. For roots & bloom.
16. How is fertilizer added? C. For overall plant health.

A. Irrigation Water D. none of above
B. Soil
22. What nutrients are usually lacking in the
C. Air or sprayed on leaves soil?
D. All of the above A. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
17. What is the function of nitrogen in plant B. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Zinc
growth?
C. Sodium, Potassium, Hydrogen
A. Makes seeds
D. Iron, Cobalt, Copper
B. Produces a healthy green color
C. Produces a yellow color in leaves 23. What do the nutrients in the soil have
D. Protects plants against winterkill to do before being absorbed through the
plant’s roots?
18. What three element do plants obtain from
the atmosphere? A. It needs to wait for the seed to germi-
nate before it does anything.
A. Carbon Dioxide, Boron, Sodium
B. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen B. It needs to transpire.
C. Oxygen, Hydrogen, Magnesium C. It needs to evaporate.

D. Hydrogen, Copper, Zinc D. It has to be dissolved in the water

24. What are elements that are required for C. Special purpose
plant growth which are needed but in only D. Slow-release
very small amounts?
A. Macronutrients 30. Sue uses a fertilizer that promotes early
formation and growth of roots and in-
B. Sunlight creases the plant’s hardiness and disease
C. Water resistance vigor. Her fertilizer will most
D. Micronutrients likely contain what primary element?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Boron
25. These nutrients include iron, zinc, & boron
B. Chlorine
and are needed in very small amounts.
C. Phosphorus
A. macro
D. Zinc
B. macoroni
C. micro 31. why do we need Potassium in fertiliser
D. miniscule A. help plant to produce its proteins and
to resist from plant disease
26. How many percent of nitrogen does Urea
B. help plant produce chlorophyll and its
have?
other proton
A. 46% C. helps root to grow and help crops to
B. 16% ripen
C. 60% D. none of above
D. 50% 32. What word has a definition of - is the
27. Which of the following is a benefit of keep- spraying of liquid fertilizer directly onto
ing records of fertilizer application? the leaves of plants.
A. To ensure effective application A. Broadcasting
B. To prevent runoff B. Side-dressing
C. To prevent nutrients from seeping into C. Foliar application

groundwater D. Fertilizer application
D. All of the above 33. Algal blooms
28. When the plants die from no sun this A. increases number of bacteria
A. increases number of bacteria B. block light from reaching under water
plants
B. increases nitrate levels
C. reduces biodiversity
C. reduces biodiversity
D. consumes all the oxygen in water
D. consumes all the oxygen in water
34. What is fertilizer labeled with?
29. Which type of fertilizer will be missing
at least one major component of nitrogen, A. 5 Numbers
phosphate and potassium? B. 3 Numbers
A. Complete C. 2 Numbers
B. Incomplete D. Nothing

35. What is potassium used for in a complete C. to lessen the effect of excessive
fertilizer? potash application.

A. For green foliage. D. none of these.
B. For roots & blooms.
41. Which is true of macronutrients?
C. For plant health.
A. All six are listed on the fertilizer label.
D. none of above
B. They are present in the soil in the
36. When you add fertilizer to the stems of smallest amounts.
plants, you are C. They are used by the plants in large
A. Top dressing amounts.
B. Side dressing D. They are used by the plants in small
C. Bottom dressing amounts.
D. Getting dressed 42. Which element is not added to anh fer-

tiliser?
37. Nitrogen’s symbol is a?
A. Aluminium
A. Ni
B. Nitrogen
B. NH
C. Phosphorus
C. N
D. Potassium
D. none of above
38. Why do we need phosphorus in fertiliser 43. Which of the following are salts containing
various plant nutrients?
A. helps root to grow and help crops to
ripen A. Fertilizers
B. help plant produce chlorophyll and its B. Water
other proton C. Macronutrients
C. help plant to produce its proteins and D. Micronutrients
to resist from plant disease
44. Which body of water does the early Egyp-
D. none of above
tian used to water their plants?
39. What are the three essential elements that A. Red Sea
plants require?
B. Nile River
A. nitrogen phosphate potassium
C. Mediterranean Sea
B. nitrogen sulphur potassium
D. Caspian Sea
C. nitrogen potassium phosphorous
D. nitrogen potassium polonium 45. What is added to fertilizer so that it will
spread easily and prevent burning?
40. Nitrogenous fertiliser is required
A. Filler
A. during the early stage of growth to pro-
B. pH Balancer
mote development of stem and leaves.
B. for accelerating fruit formation in later C. Lime
stage of growth. D. Nitrogen

46. are required in relatively large pro- C. Fruit growth

portion for the growth anddevelopment of
D. none of above
plants.
A. Fertilizers 52. What factors need to be considered when
B. Water choosing fertilizer?
C. Macronutrients A. Nutrients needed

D. Micronutrients B. Soil structure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
47. Which of the following is NOT a problem C. Soil chemistry
in our current food system D. All of the above
A. Food waste
53. What is the meaning of the term c hloro-
B. Algal blooms caused by fertilizer use sis?
C. Selectively bred crops for high yield
A. Stunted growth
D. Food insecurity
B. Chlorophyll
48. are called commercial fertilizers be- C. Yellowing of the plant
cause they can be bought from the local
market. D. Nitrate deficiency
A. fertilizers 54. If you purchased a 10 pound bag of fertil-
B. organic fertilizers izer labeled 5-10-5, how much potassium
C. inorganic fertilizers would it contain?
D. none of above A. 2 pounds

B. 5 pounds
49. This is a method of applying fertilizer close
to the seed or around the growing plant. C. 1 pound
A. top dressing D. .5 pound
B. band application
55. What is Potassium’s symbol?
C. foliar application
A. K
D. broadcast application
B. Na
50. A common symptom of a plant that has a
phosphorus deficiency is: C. Mg
A. cupped or curled leaf tips. D. none of above

B. a purplish color in older leaves. 56. How many essential nutrients are needed
C. rotting fruit on young plants. by plants in different amounts?
D. rotting fruit on young plants. A. 12
51. How does phosphorus help a plant grow B. 10- 15

A. Leaf growth C. 16 or 17
B. Strong root D. All of them

57. The Haber process is the name we give to 63. is an organic material consisting of
the industrial production of very fine thoroughly rotted manure, plant
parts, and other organic matter.

A. Ammonia
A. compost
B. Salt
B. green manure
C. Sodium Hydroxide
C. animal manure
D. Soap
D. none of above
58. Lived by hunting small animals and gather-
ing plants 64. What are three examples of trace ele-
ments?
A. Scientists
A. Zinc, Hydrogen, Sodium
B. archeologist
B. Iron, Boron, Maganese
C. Romans
C. Copper, Chromium, Calcium
D. Hunter-gatherers D. Chlorine, Potassium, Titanium
59. Which is dried cow manure an example of? 65. Calcium, magnesium, and sulfur are:
A. Fertilizer Application A. macronutrients.
B. Inorganic Fertilizer B. micronutrients.
C. Organic Fertilizer C. primary elements.
D. none of above D. secondary elements.
60. Where is sprinkler irrigation popular? 66. fertilizer materials are solid, homoge-
neous mixtures of fertilizermaterials.
A. deserts
A. Special purpose
B. vegetable gardens, crops, lawns, golf
courses B. Fluid
C. organic hydroponics C. Fertilizer combined with pesticides
D. blueberry farms D. Granulated
61. Potassium’s symbol is a? 67. Soluble fertilizers dissolve in:

A. air.
A. K
B. ammonia.
B. Na
C. hydrogen.
C. Mg
D. water.
D. none of above
68. Jack and Jill went up the hill and noticed
62. What is needed in the greatest amount by the grass was very yellow. Which nutri-
plants for maximum growth? ent is deficient?
A. Water A. Sulfur
B. Micronutrients B. Nitrogen
C. Macronutrients C. Phosphorus
D. Sunlight D. Potassium

69. What is nitrogen used for in a complete A. Organic

fertilizer? B. Inorganic
A. For green foliage. C. Complete
B. For the roots & blooms.
D. Application
C. For plant health.
75. Fruit and vegetable peelings, egg shells,
D. none of above
and manure are all examples of what type
of fertilizer?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. All fertilizers are labeled with three
numbers, showing the percentage by A. Organic
weight ofavailable nitrogen, phosphate
B. Chemical
and potash which is defined as the fertil-
izer C. Inorganic
A. Number D. none of above
B. Analysis 76. The analysis of a fertilizer shows the
C. Content amount of:
D. All of the above A. boron, calcium, and water.
71. Excessive use of fertilizers can cause B. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
pollution C. nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
A. Noise D. zinc, sulfur, and iron.
B. Wind
77. method, the fertilizer is dissolved in
C. Earth the water and applied as a spray.
D. Water A. broadcast application
72. Which element is not added to fertilizer? B. foliar applicationtop
A. Aluminium C. top dressing
B. Nitrogen D. band application
C. Phosphorus 78. what is the essential temperature for
D. Potassium Haberprocess
73. If there is 24% N, 5% P, and 11 % K in A. 1000◦ c

a bag, how much will be the remaining nu- B. 30◦ c
trients and filler?
C. 450◦ c
A. 30%
D. none of above
B. 50%
79. What is manure?
C. 60%
A. Chemicals
D. 80%
B. Decaying organic matter
74. What kind of fertilizer have a higher anal-
ysis of soluble nutrients that have been C. By-products of oil production
blended together for a specific purpose? D. none of above

80. Which is the analysis of an incomplete fer- 86. Which group includes micronutrients?
tilizer? A. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

A. 5-10-10
B. Copper, manganese, and zinc
B. 10-10-10
C. Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
C. 15-0-14
D. Sulfur, magnesium, and water
D. 20-10-20
87. Which elements do plants need in the
81. How do nutrients improve plants smallest amounts?
A. Stunted growth A. Macronutrients
B. Healthy processes
B. Micronutrients
C. Discoloration
C. Primary elements
D. Damaged tissues
D. Secondary elements
82. Which of the following nutrients is NOT
one of the 3 nutrients lacking in soil due 88. What type of fertilizer is applied only to
to the large amounts needed by plants. leaves?
A. Nitrogen (N) A. liquid
B. Potassium (K) B. granular
C. Phosphorous (P) C. foliar
D. Sulpher (S) D. organic
83. If you purchased a 10 pound bag of fertil- 89. living things need nitrogen to
izer with analysis 5-10-10. What percent
A. make energy
of phosphate is in the bag?
B. to make proteins
A. 5%
C. to make fats
B. 10%
C. 15% D. to make antibodies
D. 25% 90. If you purchased a 10 pound bag of fertil-

izer labeled 5-10-5, it would contain
84. What is the elemental symbol for Nitrogen
A. 5 % phosphorus
A. N
B. 20 % phosphorus
B. P
C. K C. 10 % phosphorus
D. Ag D. 8 % phosphorus
85. What is the importance of calculating fer- 91. The percentage of N-P-K is referred to as
tilizer costs? the?
A. To make price comparisons A. Complete
B. To sharpen your math skills B. Analysis
C. To realize how cheap fertilizer is C. Amount
D. All of the above D. Options

92. The ‘Haber process’ is the manufacture of 98. What are the 3 nutrients that a complete
which industrially important product? fertilizer contains?
A. Ammonia A. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Hydrogen
B. Sulphuric acid B. Phosphorus, Nitrogen, Potassium
C. Methane C. Potassium, Hydrogen Nitrogen
D. Water D. Hydrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. Which is a secondary nutrient? 99. When looking at a fertilizer bag and the
A. Manganese ratio is 15-20-5. What percent of potas-
sium is in this bag?
B. Zinc
A. 15%
C. Calcium
B. 5%
D. Iron
C. 20%
94. What could happen to plants if you apply D. 0%
too much fertilizer?
A. You can burn the plant 100. What do fertilizers do?
B. You can drown the plant A. Make them grow
C. It will grow too tall B. Make them healthy
D. You can never over fertilize C. Replenish the nutrients in the soil
D. none of above
95. Which one of these is NOT a point of expo-
sure for chemicals to damage your body? 101. method, the fertilizer is scattered uni-
A. Dermally formly on the soil by hand or machine.
B. Wearing PPE A. broadcast application
C. Orally B. foliar application
D. Inhalation C. top dressing

D. band application
96. It is a chemical product, not from animals
or plants 102. How did the Agricultural Revolution im-
A. Organic pact the people?
B. Inorganic A. More food
C. Soluble B. People were healthier
D. none of above C. Population increased greatly

D. All of these
97. What is the catalyst used in the Haber pro-
cess? 103. Johnny planted 2 acres of beans because
A. Vanadium Pentoxide he has a full market of customers in the
community. At the end of the season he
B. Iron picked 50 bushels/acre. What is this har-
C. Nickel vest called?
D. Sulphuric Acid A. Timing

B. Yield 109. Peat moss, seaweed, and manure are all

examples of what type of fertilizer?
C. Tissue Analysis

A. Organic
D. Shield
B. Chemical
104. What are nutrients?
C. Inorganic
A. the available minerals and chemicals
D. none of above
in soil
B. things you eat 110. What are enclosures?
C. fertilizers added to plants A. Gates that go around a house
D. none of above B. Large farming land that were enclosed
to boost crop yields
105. Which of the following is NOT a primary
C. When a bank takes back property be-
nutrient?
cause lack of payment
A. N
D. None of these
B. P
111. What is organic fertilizer?
C. K
A. The nutrients in a product come from
D. S
remains or byproducts of once a living
organisms.
106. Nitrogen
B. The nutrients in a product come from
A. never runs out as is part of a cycle
a factory.
B. evaporates
C. The nutrients in a product are mixed
C. can run out together by a farmer.
D. is in light energy D. The nutrients in a product are man
made.
107. What are organic fertilizers?
A. animal manure, compost 112. Fertilizers are made in
B. liquid, granular A. Fields
C. soluble B. Markets
C. Factories
D. foliar
D. Homes
108. The process of changing plant and animal
waste into the simplest form of organic 113. Hydrogen for the Haber process is made
material is called from
A. fertilizing A. Methane in natural gas
B. manuring B. Fractional distillation of air
C. composting C. Fractional distillation of crude oil
D. none of above D. Electrolysis

114. is anything added to the soil that will 120. Plants absorb nitrates
increase the yield of the crops. A. through leaves
A. root crops
B. through air
B. fertilizer
C. through sun
C. water
D. through roots
D. none of above
121. Which nutrient do plants need in the
115. What are the most needed nutrients in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
greatest quantity?
the largest amounts?
A. Calcium
A. Macro nutrients
B. Nitrogen
B. Primary nutrients
C. Sulfur
C. Miro nutriets
D. Non mineral nutrients D. Zinc
116. It is any material of natural or synthetic 122. What type of fertilizer is dry, tiny pel-
origin that is applied to soil or to plant tis- lets?
sues to supply one or more plant nutrients A. liquid
essential to the growth of plants.
B. foliar
A. Fertilizer
C. granular
B. Left over
D. organic
C. Pesticide
D. Insecticide 123. Which of the following indicates a plant
has a disease?
117. We fertilize because we
A. Stunted growth
A. Need to improve protein
B. Spots on leaves
B. Remove nutrients from soil
C. Decay or rot
C. Farm a lot of land
D. All of the above
D. Enjoy playing in feces
124. What is fertilizer?
118. The nitrogen in the soil is called
A. nutrients added to the ground
A. Nitrogen
B. nutrients already in the ground
B. Water
C. Nitrates C. nutrients depleted from the ground
D. Phosphates D. nutrition for the plant
119. decomposers breakdown dead material 125. Which elements are present in NPK fer-
to tiliser?
A. get bigger A. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
B. to die B. Nitrogen, Potassium, Calcium
C. to put nitrates back into soil C. Sodium, Phosphorus, Potassium
D. to algal bloom D. Sodium, Phophorus, Calcium

126. Which of the following is an advantage C. magnesium, manganese, and molyb-

of a natural fertiliser? denum.

A. Improves the structure of the soil D. nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
B. Quicker than artifical fertiliser to ef-
fect plant growth 132. What can be added to increase nutrients
in the soil?
C. mineral concentration is higher than
artificial fertiliser A. Fertilizer
D. none of above B. Fertilizer and Compost
127. are the green, growing plants that C. Water

are plowed under D. Compost
A. green manure
133. Which piece of information below is NOT
B. compost required by law to be on fertilizer bags?
C. animal manure A. Name and address of manufacturer
D. none of above
B. Net Weight
128. Phosphorus’s symbol is a? C. Guaranteed analysis of each nutrient
A. L in fertilizer
B. P D. Salt Index
C. Ph
134. What are the elements that plants need
D. none of above in large amounts called?
129. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, what A. micronutrients
percentage of people were farmers?
B. macronutrients
A. 60%
C. trace elements
B. 70%
D. atmospheric elements
C. 80%
D. 90% 135. if nitrates leach into water, and rivers
130. Which application method is done by A. can cause algal bloom

evenly spreading the recommended rate B. increase number of bacteria
offertilizer over the growing area?
C. cause plants to grow more
A. Foliar feeding
D. increase crop yeild
B. Direct feeding
C. Broadcasting 136. What does the term ‘deficiency’ mean?
D. None of the above A. Administering a poison
131. The three primary nutrients necessary for B. A lack of key nutrients
plant growth are: C. Too much of a key nutrient
A. boron, calcium, and iron. D. How harmful a substance can be to an-
B. chlorine, sulfur, and zinc. imals

137. Nitrogen getting into fresh water 143. Fertilizer is an inorganic

A. increases number of bacteria A. Salt
B. increases algal growth B. Base
C. reduces biodiversity C. Acid
D. consumes all the oxygen in water D. none of above
144. After an algal bloom the biodiversity is
138. fertilizer contains the elements
decreased by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. N-P-K A. the increase in bacteria using up all
B. N-C-K oxygen
C. N-P-S B. sunlight being blocked
D. S-P-K C. the increased nitrate levels
D. algal bloom eating all the fish
139. are derived from decaying plant and
animal products such blood meal, bone 145. provide a lot of humus to soil
meal, manure, plant parts, and left overs. A. Fertilizers
A. organic fertilizers B. Cow dung
B. inorganic fertilizers C. Manure
C. fertilizers D. Leaves
D. none of above 146. An advantage of organic fertilizer is that
it:
140. Gas that makes up 78% of our atmo-
sphere. A. improves the physical condition of soil.
A. Oxygen B. is sterile.
C. leaches quickly through the soil.
B. Nitrogen
D. releases into the soil rapidly.
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon Dioxide 147. What are the 3 most important minerals?
A. NPQ
141. A complete fertilizer is made from
B. NPL
A. N P K C. NPK
B. Ca Mg S D. none of above
C. C H O
148. Fertilizer containing 15- 10- 26 contains:
D. All of these A. 15% nitrogen, 10% phosphate, 26%
142. What is the rate of Nitrogen in the 15- potash
10-5 fertilizer? B. 15% phosphate, 10% nitrogen, 26%
potash
A. 15
C. 15% potash, 10% phosphate, and 26%
B. 10
nitrogen
C. 5 D. 15% Nitrogen, 26 % Potassium, 10%
D. none of above Phosphorus

149. What is the method of fertilizer applica- C. the crop yield is increased
tion where fertilizer is applied in bands D. the number of pests increases
near where the young plant?

A. Broadcast Application 155. The element in urea is
B. Spray Application A. Potassium
C. Band Application B. Nitrogen
D. none of above C. Phosphorus

D. Calcium
150. This is the term used when the fertilizer
is broadcast over growing crops. 156. increases the absorptive power of
the soil and improves the physical condi-
A. foliar application
tion of the soil.
B. band application
A. compost
C. broadcast application
B. green manure
D. top dressing
C. animal manure
151. why do we need nitrogen in fertiliser D. none of above
A. Plant need nitrogen for respiration
157. Farmers make up about % of the pop-
B. help plant to produce its proteins and ulation today
to resist from plant disease A. 2
C. help plant produce chlorophyll and its B. 10
other proton
C. 15
D. none of above
D. 20
152. Which of the following is a positive effect
of fertilizer use 158. What is the reason why Crop Rotation is
used in farming?
A. Groundwater contamination
A. A three-field system to rotate crops to
B. Increased nutritional properties keep the soil healthy.
C. Overfertilization B. Rotating crops from wheat to root
D. Runoff/ Erosion crops to barley to keep the nutrients in the
soil.
153. How does potassium help a plant grow
C. So maximum crop yields can be
A. Leaf growth achieved.
B. Root growth D. All of These
C. Fruit growth
159. What is the percentage of filler in a 14-
D. none of above 8-6 fertilizer?
154. When crops are harvested, A. 28
A. nitrogen is taken out of the cycle so B. 29

needs to be replaced. C. 72
B. biodiversity is increased D. 100

2.5 Biochemistry 344
2.5 Biochemistry
1. What is the name of the smallest unit that 6. Why is carbon such an important atom?
can carry out all activities associated with A. it’s atom number 6 on the periodic ta-
life? ble
A. the atom B. it’s found in organic compounds
B. the tissue C. it must easily forms hydrogen bonds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the cell with water in our bodies, which helps wa-
ter become more soluble
D. the organelle
D. it readily forms bonds with itself and
2. What suffix is used in the names of most other atoms because of its desire to get 4
carbohydrates? more valence electrons
A. -ase 7. The on the enzyme is where the chem-

B. -nic ical reaction actually occurs.
A. Active site
C. -ose
B. Substrate
D. -yme
C. Chemical body
3. With what 3 letters do enzymes typically D. Mouth
end?
A. -ose 8. Lactose is found in
B. -ase A. Milk
B. vegetables
C. -ese
C. Fruits
D. -tic
D. All of the above
4. Which of the following is not a product of
glycolysis? 9. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by
A. FADH2
A. lowering the potential energy
B. NADH
B. lowering the activation energy
C. ATP
C. raising the specific heat
D. Pyruvate
D. altering the pH
5. A degradative process such as cellular res- 10. Which group consists entirely of organic
piration can also be known as molecules?
A. catabolic pathway A. protein, oxygen, fat
B. kinetic pathway B. protein, starch, fat
C. endergonic pathway C. water, carbon dioxide, oxygen
D. anabolic pathway D. water, starch, protein

11. The function of nucleic acids is to C. water

A. Main source of energy & provide struc- D. none of above

tural support
17. The basic building block of carbohydrates
B. Store energy, provide and steroids
A. nucleotides
C. transport substances, speed up reac-
B. amino acids
tions, provide support, fight disease, regu-
late cell processes, and provide hormones C. monosaccharides
D. stores, transmits, & communicates ge- D. fatty acids
netic information 18. Also known as “Suicidel bags” of the
12. What is a monomer of nucleic acids made cell. Rich in hydrolitic enzymes and
of 3 parts, a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate macrophages
group and a nitogenous base A. Peroxisomes
A. DNA B. Lysosomes
B. Nucleotide C. White blood cells
C. Deoxyribose D. Golgi Apparatus
D. RNA 19. What is the monomers for carbohydrate?
13. How does your body use lipids? A. Amino acid

B. Glucose
A. Primary source of energy
C. Polypeptide
B. energy storage and insulation
D. Monosaccharides
C. speeds up chemical reaction
D. defense 20. RNA contains the sugar
A. ribose
14. With waht reacts tyrosine?
B. deoxyribose
A. Carboxyl group
C. glucose
B. Millon’s reagent
D. lactose
C. Millon’s agent
21. Which of the following elements make up
D. Nitrogen
nucleic acids?
15. Which of these atoms is NOT found in a A. C, H, O
Carbohydrate? B. C, H, O, N
A. Carbon (C) C. C, H, O, N, P
B. Oxygen (O) D. C, H, O, Ca, S
C. Hydrogen (H)
22. They are tiny, dark bodies madeof protein
D. Phosphorous (P) and ribosomal RNA
16. Which of these is broken down into pyru- A. Ribosomes
vic acid? B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
A. glucose C. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. oxygen D. Golgi Apparatus

23. The building blocks (or monomers) of pro- C. Tertiary

teins are
D. Quaternary
A. Amino Acids
B. Nucleic Acids 29. Which biomolecule helps to build muscle
and acts as chemical catalysts for reac-
C. Monosaccharides
tions?
D. Glycerols
A. Protein
24. Which of the following is NOT involved in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Lipids
capillary action in plants?
C. Carbohydrate
A. Capillary ActXylem (transport tis-
sue)ion D. Nucleic Acid
B. Adhesion
30. Glucose is a
C. Cohesion
A. carbohydrate
D. pH
B. lipid
25. Neutral fats (triglycerides) can be used for
all of the following functions except C. protein
A. Insulation D. nucleic acid

B. Energy Storage
31. Made of glycerol and fatty acids
C. Quick energy
A. Carbohydrates
D. Cushioning
B. Lipids
26. Which of the following tasks listed below
C. Proteins
is most associated with enzymes?
A. catalyze chemical reactions D. Nucleic Acids
B. store genetic information 32. From what are constructed out proteins?
C. store chemical energy in the cell A. D-alfa-amino acids
D. dissolve nutrients and minerals
B. aminoacids
27. Which organic molecule serves as a cata- C. L-alfa-amino acids
lyst?
D. L-beta-amino acids
A. lipids
B. proteins 33. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
C. nucleic acid dissolve in water?
D. carbohydrates A. nonpolar fats and oils
28. What level of protein structure is seen in B. polar sugar molecules

proteins with more than one polypeptide C. salt made of a positive sodium ion and
chain? a negative chloride ion
A. Primary D. all of the substances will dissolve eas-
B. Secondary ily in water

34. What is the subatomic particle that gives D. carbohydrates contain nucleic acids
the nucleus its positive charge?
40. What was the result of the Miller-Urey Ex-

A. Proton periment?
B. Neutron A. amino acids
C. Electron
B. nucleotides
D. Galvatron
C. lipids
35. What are the 3 structures that make up an D. glucose
atom?
41. Carbohydrate monomers are typically
A. Proteins, carbs, & lipids
molecules of what shape?
B. Protons, neutrons, & electrons
A. capital E
C. Carbon, oxygen, & hydrogen
B. chains
D. none of above
C. rings
36. A series of amino acids linked in a linear D. none of above
fashion
A. Polypeptide 42. What are the monomers of proteins?
B. Nucleotide A. Amino acids
C. RNA B. Monosaccharides
D. Polymer C. Triglycerides
D. Nucleotides
37. Between which subatomic particles to
bonds form? 43. What does pH measure?
A. Quarks A. the amount of hydrogen (H+) ions
B. Protons B. the amount of hydroxide (OH-) ions
C. Neutrons C. amount of water
D. Electrons D. all of the above
38. Also known as simple sugars, these are 44. Which term refers to water having partial
the monomers of carbohydrates. positive and a partial negative charge?
A. lipids
A. cohesion
B. nucleotide
B. surface tension
C. monosaccharide
C. polarity
D. monomer
D. adhesion
39. How are carbohydrates difference from
45. Which functional group is a base?
other biological molecules?
A. carbohydrates always have rings A. Amine
B. carbohydrates contain nitrogen B. Carboxyl
C. carbohydrates consist of a carbon C. Methyl

bonded to hydrogen and a hydroxyl group D. Sulfhydryl

46. Which of the following is true regarding 51. Which is the strongest base?
enzymes? A. ph of 1
A. operate according to the lock and key B. ph of 4
model
C. ph of 7
B. can be reused for same type of reac-
D. ph of 9
tion
C. have specific temperature and pH op- 52. Which organic molecule is primarily used
NARAYAN CHANGDER
erating ranges by cells as a source of energy?
D. All of the above A. Amino Acid
B. Fatty Acid
47. In the final step of glycolysis ATP is made
through the process of: C. Glucose
D. Protein
A. Substrate Level Phosphorylation
B. Oxidative Phosphorylation 53. Which is a function of a protein?
C. Photo-Phosphorylation A. Fat storage
D. RedOx Reactions B. To provide the body with fast energy

C. Makes up the cell membrane
48. Different types of Vitamins are:
D. To catalyze chemical reactions
A. fat-soluble
54. Which of these describes a saturated fatty
B. water-soluble acid?
C. both A and B A. All C-H bonds are full
D. none of the above B. They form straight chains
49. Which of these is NOT a nucleic acid? C. They are solids at room temp.
A. DNA D. All of the above
B. RNA 55. Examples of amino acids with nonpolar

chains
C. Fatty Acid
A. Alanine
D. All of these are Nucleic Acids
B. Valine
50. What is the significance of nucleic acids for C. Leucine
cells?
D. All the anteriors
A. They generate energy for the cell.
56. Which type of bonding causes all of wa-
B. They restrict what enters and leaves
ter’s unique properties?
the cell.
A. hydrogen bonding
C. They support and maintain the shape
of the cell. B. ionic bonding
D. They provide all instructions for cellu- C. Van der Waals bonding
lar activities. D. covalent bonding

57. What enzyme bypasses (glucose + ATP 62. The building blocks of nucleic acids are
→ glucose-6-phosphate + ADP) in gluco- called
neogenesis

A. amino acids
A. Hexicokinase B. nucleotides
B. phosphofructokinase C. carbohydrates
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase D. proteins
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase
63. Which of the following properties explains
58. What is the main difference between these why water is such an important part of
two polymers:Proteins vs Carbohydrates life? (more than one possible answer)
A. Proteins are made up of amino acids A. The fact that water is non polar makes
it unable to interact with other molecules
B. Proteins are made up of monosaccha- causing water to be very stable
rides
B. The ability of water to be attracted
C. Proteins are made up of nucleotides to substances other than itself allows for
D. Proteins are large molecules and car- transport of water in plants.
bohydrates are not C. Water contracts when it freezes, al-
lowing a level of protection to life in a
59. which of the following molecules is classi- frozen lake or pond.
fied as organic?
D. Water absorbs a large quantity of heat
A. water and changes temperature rapidly.
B. oxygen
64. What is an example of a nucleic acid?
C. protein
A. A strand of RNA
D. sodium chloride
B. vegetable oil
60. The liver is an animal organ that removes C. collagen found in human skin
and processes waste materials from the
D. A sweet potato
blood. Which of the following organelles
would be found in a higher-than-normal 65. A compound consists of
frequency in liver cells?
A. one type of atom bonded to itself
A. ribosomes
B. two or more different types of atom
B. lysosomes bonded to each other
C. mitochondria C. two or more different types of atom
D. Golgi apparati mixed with each other
D. all of these
61. Which is the “good” cholesterol?
66. Monomer that forms DNA and has a phos-
A. starches
phate group, a sugar, and a nitrogen-
B. HDL containing base
C. LDL A. Amino Acid
D. amino acids B. Nucleotide

C. Fatty Acid 72. Which of the following is not one of

D. Monosaccharide the main classes of macromolecules within
cells?
67. Molisch reagent may contain which of the A. Carbohydrates
following reagents?
B. Proteins
A. Alpha napthol
C. Nucleic acids
B. thymol
D. Water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. resorcinol
D. all of these 73. This type of atomic bonding happens when
two or more atoms share electrons. It is
68. Waxes, oils and fats are examples of the strongest of all the bonding types.
A. Carbohydrates A. Covalent Bonds
B. Lipids B. Ionic Bonds
C. Proteins C. Hydrogen Bonds
D. Nucleic Acids D. Metallic Bonds
69. Cardinals are birds that spend the win- 74. The main difference among amino acids is
ter in Maryland. Many people feed them the
sunflower seeds during the winter months. A. kind of atom in the center of the
What are the monomer units of a carbohy- molecule
drate?
B. type of bonding involved
A. amino acid
C. number of bonds involved
B. sugar
D. R groups
C. fatty acid
D. nucleotide 75. Which best explains the purpose of the ac-
tive site of an enzyme?
70. It is considered as the acidity or basicity of A. The active site is for the attachment of
a substance the substrate.
A. pH B. The active site changes to fit any avail-
B. Buffer able substrate.
C. electrode C. The active site determines how many
D. meter reactions will be catalyzed.
D. The active site determines how fast
71. Chemical formula for Caffeine is the reaction is allowed to occur.
C8H10N4O2, which element in the for-
mula has the most atoms? 76. A monosaccharide is a subunit of a:
A. Carbon A. nucleic acid
B. Hydrogen B. lipid
C. Nitrogen C. carbohydrate
D. Oxygen D. protein

77. Name the bond that links amino acids to- 83. Which group of organic molecules serve as
gether. long-term energy storage and make the
cell membrane is?

A. Phosphodiester bond
B. O-Glycosidic bond A. proteins
C. Peptide bond B. carbohydrates
D. N-glycosidic bond C. lipids
78. What is the negative subatomic particle D. nucleic acids
that orbits the nucleus
84. This particle has a positive charge
A. Proton
B. Neutron A. electron
C. Electron B. proton
D. Voltron C. neutron
79. The following are cations, except: D. atom

A. bicarbonate 85. Which of the following is not a function of
B. potassium a carbohydrate?
C. iron A. Short term energy storage
D. magnesium, B. Long term energy storage
80. Isotopes of the same element differ in C. Identification of cells
which of the following?
D. Storage of inherited genetic infroma-
A. Their number of neutrons. tion
B. Their number of protons.
86. Another name for fats and oils
C. Their number of electrons.
D. none of above A. proteins
B. sugar
81. Monosaccharides are use in the body as a
form of C. lipids
A. Building Block D. nucleic acids
B. Storage
87. The copper sulfate in Fehling’s solution
C. Quick Energy
specifically reacts to reducing sugars as
D. Instructions
A. it is in a chelate form with rochelle’s
82. What are two functions of polysaccha- salt
rides? B. it can interact with free aldehyde
A. Storage and Energy groups only
B. Energy and Structure C. it can not act with other redicing
C. Structure and Storage groups
D. Structure and Protection D. all of these

88. In what differs the side chains? 93. Carbohydrate-containing layer at the sur-
A. elemental composition, spatial struc- face of the plasma membrane
ture, size, electric charge, the hability to A. glycocalyx
generate H2 bonds and chemical reactiv- B. cholesterol
ity.
C. triglyceride
B. elemental composition, spatial struc-
ture, size, electric charge, D. phospholipid
C. he hability to generate H2 bonds and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. What color forms proline and hydroxypro-
chemical reactivity. line containing the imino group?
D. elemental composition, spatial struc- A. Yellow
ture, size, electric charge, the hability to
B. Red
generate H2 bonds
C. Blue
89. It is the cellular material outside the nu-
D. Green
cleus and inside the plasma membrane
A. Cytosol 95. Which of the following is NOT a
B. Cytoplasm biomolecule?
C. Cell Membrane A. Water

D. Vesicles B. Nucleic Acid
C. Protein
90. Which type of cell has membrane-bound or-
ganelles? D. Lipid
A. animal cell 96. How do we get energy from food?
B. plant cell A. drinking water
C. prokaryotic cell B. sleeping
D. eukaryotic cell C. breaking chemical bonds
91. What are the four macromolecules? D. exercising
A. proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, 97. Which term includes all others in the list?
and lipids
A. monosaccharide
B. monosaccharides, lipids, polysacca-
harides, and proteins B. polysaccharide
C. RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohy- C. starch
drates D. carbohydrate
D. proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
98. Which of the following macromolecules is
92. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed responsible for LONG-TERM energy stor-
to a simpler carbohydrate age?
A. Monosaccharide A. Proteins
B. Polysaccharide B. Lipids
C. Disaccharide C. Carbohydrates
D. Oligosaccharide D. Nucleic acids

99. A polymer is a 105. Michael Faraday

A. small molecule A. The one who invented the structure of

B. macromolecule benzene ring.
B. Discovered the hydrocarbons
C. biomolecule
C. Discovered the different structures.
D. large molecule made out of small sub-
units D. none of above
100. Which organic compounds necessary for 106. Which level of organization is listed cor-
life are formed by a sugar bondedto a rectly from simple to complex?
phosphate group and a nitrogenous base? A. Organelle, organ, organ system, tis-
A. lipids sue, cell
B. proteins B. Organism, organ system, organ, tis-

sue, cell
C. nucleic acids
C. Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, or-
D. carbohydrates ganism
101. C6H12O6 is the molecular formula for D. cell, tissue, organ system, organ, or-
what carbohydrate? ganelle
A. Sucrose 107. made up of one or more of the same type
B. Glucose of atom
C. Fructose A. atom
D. Both glucose and fructose B. element

C. molecule
102. Dinitrogenase is a protein.
D. compound
A. Pentameric
108. What is Cellular Respiration?
B. Octameric
A. The process where cells turn sugar
C. Tetrameric into energy.
D. Dimeric B. The way the cells in the human lungs
103. Cellulose is a type of help humans breathe.
A. carbohydrate C. How cells die.

D. none of above
B. nucleic acid
C. lipid 109. In an experiment, a student mixed a sub-
strate and an enzyme at varying pH levels
D. protein
and then measured the amount of product
104. Denaturation breaks all of the following produced. Which of the following ques-
bonds except tions can best be answered from this in-
vestigation?
A. hydrogen bonds
A. How do enzymes and substrates inter-
B. covalent disulfide bonds act?
C. ionicbonds B. Are enzyme catalyzed reactions re-
D. peptide bond versible?

C. A. What is the optimum pH of the en- 115. Which of these has dispersion forces?
zyme being tested? A. I2
D. How does temperature impact enzyme B. NH3
function? C. OCl2
110. act as catalysts to speed up chemical D. SH2
reactions within cells. 116. Lipids store what type of energy?
A. Lipids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Short Term
B. Carbohydrates B. Immediate
C. Enzymes C. Long Term
D. Endurance
D. DNA
117. How many calories per gram do carbohy-
111. An example of a nucleic acid would be drates provide?
A. Fructose A. 4
B. Wax B. 9
C. DNA C. 20
D. 1
D. Steroid
118. Biomolecules are essential to all liv-
112. What are the building blocks of lipids? ing things. Which of the following
biomolecules are composed of the ele-
A. Glucose
ments C, H, O, and N
B. Amino acids A. lipid
C. Fatty acids and glycerol B. carbohydrate
D. Nucleic acids C. protein
D. nucleic acid
113. How many atoms can a Carbon atom po-
tentially bind to? 119. A polysaccharide is a polymer of which of
the following biomolecules?
A. 1
A. carbohydrate
B. 2
B. lipid
C. 3 C. protein
D. 4 D. nucleic acid
114. What is the name for the mechanism of 120. Which of the following is NOT a function
enzyme activity? of proteins?
A. build tissues such as bone and muscle
A. Lock and key
B. store and transmit heredity
B. jigsaw puzzle
C. control the rate of reactions and regu-
C. hammer and nail late cell processes
D. two hands pattern D. help to fight disease

121. The part of the enzyme that the substrate C. neutrons

bonds to is called the D. protons

A. active site
127. Plants use polysaccharides such as cellu-
B. activation energy lose for
C. bond site A. Energy Storage
D. peptide bond B. Cell Structure
122. Van der Waals forces are dependent on C. Cell Identification
the between atoms or molecules D. none of above
A. distance
128. Monomers like glucose and fructose are
B. magnetic force examples of:
C. Gravitational force A. monosaccharides
D. Viscosity B. polysaccharides
123. What happens if you eat more carbohy- C. amino aicds

drates then your body needs? D. triglycerides
A. becomes DNA 129. The scientific name for table sugar is
B. turns to fat A. lactose
C. creates extra energy B. sucrose
D. becomes waste C. galactose
124. It contains genetic material (DNA), that D. glucose
is like a blueprint that contains all the in-
130. Polymers are made of repeating units
structions needed for building the whole
called
body. Control center of the cell
A. Monomers
A. Cytoplasm
B. Glucose
B. Nuclear Envelope
C. Fatty acids
C. Nucleus
D. Monosaccharides
D. Ribosomes
131. The polysaccharide is stored in the
125. A diet lacking in leads to the develop- muscles of animals as stored energy.
ment of a disease known as scurvy.
A. cellulose
A. Vitamin A
B. starch
B. Vitamin B
C. glycogen
C. Vitamin C
D. keratin
D. Vitamin D
132. This type of bond results from equal shar-
126. The positive particles of an atom are ing of valence electrons.
A. electrons A. polar covalent bond
B. nucleus B. nonpolar covalent bond

C. hydrogen bond 138. All of the following have hydrophilic

D. ionic bond parts EXCEPT
A. proteins
133. Lipids are essentially just ? B. nucleic acids
A. Fats and Oils C. carbohydrates
B. Proteins and Fats D. lipids
C. Simple Sugars and Complex Carbs 139. Made of nucleotides
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. DNA and Proteins A. Carbohydrates
134. Chemicals that help chemical reactions oc- B. Lipids

cur at faster rates in living organisms are C. Proteins
known as D. Nucleic Acids
A. Biotic resources 140. the color of positve result of Ninhydrin
B. Simple sugars Test is
C. Oxygen molecules A. pink
D. Organic catalysts B. Blue
C. yellow
135. Matter is made up of atoms which:
D. red
A. Can easily be seen
141. What is the molecular formula of ribose?
B. have no weight
A. C2H40
C. have mass and volume B. CH71207
D. don’t take up any space C. C5H10O5
136. What 3 letters do enzymes typically end D. C6H1206
in? 142. Why do lipids have more energy than car-
A. -ose bohydrates?
B. -ase A. carbohydrates have more chemical
bonds
C. -ese
B. lipids taste better so we eat more of
D. -tic them
137. The function of proteins is to C. carbohydrates taste better so we eat
more of them
A. Main source of energy & provide struc-
D. lipids have more chemical bonds
tural support
B. Store energy, provide and steroids 143. The anthocyanin indicator turns greenish
if the solution is
A. acidic
tions, provide support, fight disease, regu-
late cell processes, and provide hormones B. basic
D. stores, transmits, & communicates ge- C. neutral
netic information D. none of the above

144. Which category of carbon-based B. 5

molecules includes sugars and starches? C. 7

A. carbohydrates D. 9
B. lipids
150. chemical breakdown is also referred to
C. proteins
as:
D. nucleic acids
A. anabolic
145. How does an enzyme affect the rate of a B. catabolic
reaction?
C. metabolic
A. It raises the activation energy of the
D. lolabolic
reaction, decreasing the reaction rate
B. It lowers the activation energy of the 151. Waterproofs, insulates, and stores en-
reaction, decreasing the reaction rate ergy long-term
C. It lowers the activation energy of the A. Carbohydrates
reaction, increasing the reaction rate B. Lipids
D. It raises the activation energy of the C. Proteins
reaction, increasing the reaction rate
D. Nucleic Acids
146. The digestion of sucrose (table sugar) re-
sults in what two monosaccharides? 152. Which characteristic of water will allow
a paperclip to remain floating on water
A. Fructose and glucose when the paperclip is gently placed on top
B. Maltose and glucose of the water?
C. Glucose and galactose A. adhesion
D. Galactose and fructose B. surface tension
147. Which of the following enzyme is not a C. solvent properties
protein? D. nonpolar
A. Amylase
153. Why are enzymes essential to all multi-
B. Carboxypeptidase cellular organisms?
C. DNAse A. They provide insulation.
D. Ribozyme B. They produce living tissue.
148. Pinakagwapo sa MD 1Y1-7 C. They contain genetic information.
A. Kevin Ortiz D. They catalyze metabolic reactions.
B. Lance Monasterio 154. The enzyme that produces G3P & DHAP
C. Nijel Castro is:
D. none of above A. Hexokinase
149. The pOH of sea water is 5. What is its B. Aldolase

pH? C. PhosphoFructoKinase
A. 6 D. Enolase

155. What makes Nitrogen Fixers unique? 161. Proteins are made up of long chains of
A. Genetic Components
B. Biochemical Components A. Amino Acids
C. All of the above B. Lipids
D. None of the above C. Saccharides

D. Polysaccharides
156. Plants use polysaccharides for such as
starch for 162. Which biochemistry area that describe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the language for communication inside and
A. Structure
between cells?
B. Energy storage
A. Conformational
C. Protection
B. Metabolism
D. none of above
C. Informational
157. Found the nucleus of human cells and con- D. none of above
trols the transmission of genetic informa-
tion. 163. Inorganic Compounds do NOT contain Hy-
drogen and together.
A. proteins
A. Potassium
B. nucleic acids
B. Oxygen
C. carbohydrates
C. Carbon
D. lipids
D. Nitrogen
158. What is the main element of organic com-
164. What is the mass of an atom if it has 11
pound?
protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons?
A. Oxygen
A. 22
B. Hydrogen B. 11
C. Nitrogen C. 34
D. Carbon D. 23
159. What is a solution that has an excess of 165. Which nutrient provides the body with
hydroxide (OH-) ions? the ready source of energy?
A. pH=6.5 A. Fats
B. acid B. Carbohydrates
C. neutral C. Protein
D. base D. Fiber
160. The particle involved in chemical reac- 166. All organic compounds contain the ele-
tions is the ment
A. proton A. carbon
B. neutron B. nitrogen
C. electron C. phosphorus
D. none of above D. sulfur

167. Butter and oil are examples of food com- 173. The building blocks (or monomers) of
posed of Complex Carbohydrates are

A. carbohydrates A. Amino Acids
B. lipids B. Nucleic Acids
C. proteins C. Monosaccharides
D. nucleic acids D. Glycerols
168. Which is an example of a nucleic acid? 174. Examples of nucleic acids?

A. oil A. DNA and RNA
B. sugar B. carbohydrates
C. DNA C. potatoes
D. red meat D. meats
169. Which macromolecule contains phospho- 175. What are the monomer units of a pro-
rus? (Always true, not Sometimes true) tein?
A. Carbohydrates A. Fatty Acid
B. Lipids B. Amino Acid

C. Nucleotide
C. Nucleic Acids
D. Sugar
D. Proteins
176. A type of bond, unequal sharing of elec-
170. Which is the correct formula for a polysac-
trons; otherwise, assymetrical.
charide?
A. covalent
A. C6H12O6
B. ionic
B. C12H24O12
C. polar covalent
C. C12H22O11
D. single covalent
D. (C6H10O5)n
177. Which of the following options correctly
171. What kind of molecule is water? pairs a polymer and its monomer?
A. Ionic A. collagen, nucleic acids
B. Polar Covalent B. RNA, ribose
C. Nonpolar Covalent C. cellulose, amino acids
D. Metallic D. DNA, nucleotides
172. Which of the big 4 is your body’s main 178. What level of protein structure is the fold-
source of quick energy? ing into a complex shape?
A. Lipids A. Primary
B. Proteins B. Secondary
C. Nucleic acids C. Tertiary
D. Carbohydrates D. Quaternary

179. Organic compounds are all bonded C. carbohydrates

A. Covalently D. nucleotides
B. Ionically 185. Photosynthesis creates
C. Well A. Sugars
D. with Hydrogen bonds B. Proteins
180. The distortion (change in shape) of en- C. Fats
NARAYAN CHANGDER
zyme molecules which occurs at high tem- D. none of above
peratures is known as
186. Steroids are a type of
A. synthesis
A. Protein
B. specificity
B. Lipid
C. replication
C. Nucleic Acid
D. denaturation
D. Carbohydrate
181. The difference between one amino acid 187. An example of lipids is
and another is found in the
A. Pasta
A. amino group
B. Chicken
B. carboxyl group
C. Oils
C. R-group
D. DNA and RNA
D. peptide bonds
188. Which of the following would test posi-
182. What are the four molecules of life? tive with Benedict’s Reagent?
A. carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nu- A. vegetable oil-lipid
cleic acids B. corn starch-polysaccharide
B. water, earth, wind, fire C. glucose-monosaccharide
C. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, helium D. lactose-disaccharide
D. monomers, polymers, disaccharides,
189. What are lipids mostly made of?
glucose
A. Monosaccharides
183. Two monosaccharides combine to make a B. Glycerol and Fatty Acids
C. Nucleic Acids
A. disaccharide
D. Amino Acids
B. polysaccharide
190. What is the Definition of Biochemistry?
C. dipeptide
A. Study of Chemistry in Living Organisms
D. polypeptide
B. Study of Life
184. All organisms contain DNA and RNA.
C. Study of Mechanisms and Functions of
What are the subunits of DNA and RNA?
Molecules
A. simple sugars D. Study of Chemical Components in the
B. amino acids Environment

191. Which statement describes the polarity 196. The apparatus in the experiment was
of a water molecule? used to mimic what?

A. The oxygen end has slight positive A. proteins
charge and the hydrogen end has a slight B. Earth’s present conditions
negative charge
C. early Earth’s conditions
B. The oxygen end has a slight negative
charge and the hydrogen end has a slight D. they didn’t mean to mimic anything in
positive charge particular
C. Electrons are shared evenly between 197. Nucleic acids bond together via a
the hydrogens and the oxygen. bond
D. The charge on each end of the A. phosphodiester
molecule is balanced. B. peptide
192. This group functions in padding and insu- C. glycosidic
lation in animals D. hydrolysis
A. Carbohydrates
198. Used as energy storage
B. Proteins
A. Cellulose
C. Lipids B. Glycogen
D. Nucleic Acids C. Starches
193. A large molecule made up of many similar D. none of above
or identical subunits.
199. This carbohydrate is used by animals to
A. Monomer store energy in the liver.
B. Lipids A. chitin
C. Polymer B. glycogen
D. Enzyme C. glucose
194. The is the negatively charged particle D. starch
in an atom. 200. A building block is
A. proton A. product
B. neutron B. monomer
C. electron C. protein
D. none of above D. polymer
195. Which of the following best characterizes 201. Triglycerides, the monomers of lipids. are
the reaction A + B + energy → AB made of a glycerol and 3
A. exergonic A. monosaccharides
B. endergonic B. amino acids
C. re-dox C. nucleotides
D. hydrolysis D. fatty acids

202. This particle has a negative charge 207. Which elements are found in carbohy-
drates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids (in
A. electron
that order)?
B. proton A. CHO 1:2:1, CHO, CHON, CHONP
C. neutron B. CHO, CHO 1:2:1, CHON, CHONP
D. atom C. CHO 1:2:1, CHO, CHONP, CHON
D. CHO, CHO 1:2:1, CHONP, CHON
203. How are covalent bonds different from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ionic bonds? 208. Potatoes are examples of
A. covalent bonds involve the valence A. proteins
electrons, whereas ionic bonds do not. B. carbohydrates
B. Covalent bonds are extremely weak, C. lipids
whereas ionic bonds are extremely strong
D. nucleic acids
C. Covalent bonds involve electron shar-
ing, whereas ionic bonds involve electron 209. It passes the electrical signals to the me-
transfer. ter and displays it as the result.
A. reference electrode
D. Covalent bonds consist of just two
atoms, whereas ionic bonds consist of B. sensor electrode
three or more ions. C. electrode
204. What do we call of the bonds between D. probe

nucleotides? 210. It comes from animal-derived foods and
A. covalent bond is a type of “pre-formed” vitamin A that
can be used directly by the body.
B. phosphodiester bonds
A. Retinol
C. nucleotide bonds
B. Carotene
D. all of the above C. Beta-carotene
205. What activities are powered by glucose? D. Beta-retinol
A. walking 211. RNA and DNA are which type of organic

macromolecule?
B. thinking
A. Carbohydrate
C. breathing
B. Lipid
D. all of the above
C. Protein
206. Subunit is to Macrocolecule like is to D. Nucleic Acid
212. Which is an example of a protein?
A. Building is to Bricks.
A. oil
B. Brick is to Building. B. sugar
C. Carpenter is to Building. C. DNA
D. Building is to Carpenter. D. red meat

213. Lipids are C. Peptide bonds

A. Water Fearing D. hydrophobic interactions

B. Hight Fearing
219. This phase produce nicotinamide adenine
C. Chicken Fearing dinucleotide phosphate hydrogen
D. Scratch Fearing A. non-oxidative phase
214. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitro- B. oxygen phase
gen base form the building blocks of which C. oxidative phase
organic compound?
D. non-oxygen phase
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids 220. This process removes a water molecule in
order to bond monomers together:
C. nucleic acids
A. Dehydration Synthesis
D. proteins
B. Exocytosis
215. Which is a function of lipids?
C. Osmosis
A. to supply cells with quick-release en-
D. Hydrolysis
ergy
B. to provide the body with insulation 221. Structure of Water
C. to store genetic information A. two oxygen atom and one hydrogen
D. to regulate cell processes atom
B. one oxygen atom and one hydrogen
216. Most enzymes: atom
A. speed up the chemical reaction
C. two oxygen atom and two hydrogen
B. have no effect on the rate of the chem- atom
ical reaction
D. two hydrogen atom and one oxygen
C. slow the rate of the chemical reaction atom
D. keep the rate of the chemical reaction
222. How many electrons does a carbon have?
the same
A. 1
217. Which type of lipid is solid at room tem-
perature B. 2
A. All fatty acids C. 3
B. Unsaturated fatty acids D. 4

C. Amino acids 223. How many different amino acids are
D. Saturated fatty acids there?
A. 4
218. What bonds hold the primary structure of
proteins together? B. 20
A. Hydrogen bonds C. 6
B. Ionic bonds D. 46

224. Which is not a chemical element needed A. monosaccharide

to build sugars?
B. protein
A. Carbon
C. lipid
B. Oxygen
D. nucleic acid
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen 230. The energy actually available to do work
225. Amino acids are the subunits of is known as ?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. proteins A. free energy
B. carbohydrates B. Entropy
C. nucleic acids C. Law conservation of energy
D. lipids D. Dynamic potential
226. What colour forms the raction of trypto-
phan indole ring with glyoxylic acid in the 231. What is the main similarity between
presence of sulphuric acid (VI)? these two polymers:Proteins vs Carbohy-
drates
A. red-violet
A. Both polymer provide energy
B. red-blue
C. blue-yellow B. Both polymers are needed for insula-
tion
D. blue-brown
C. Both polymers provide genetic infor-
227. Which of the following decreases the ac- mation
tivation energy necessary to initiate the
chemical change within the body? D. Both polymers make up enzymes
A. nucleotides
232. Enzymes are capable of increasing the
B. enzymes rate of a chemical reaction within a liv-
C. amino acids ing cell. Enzymes accomplish this through
which of the following means?
D. fatty acids
A. reducing the number of products
228. What are called the fragments of
molecules of amino acids that are fixed B. reducing the activation energy
with the alfa-carbon? C. increasing the temperature of the cell
A. Radical
D. increasing the concentration of reac-
B. Side chains/side substituents tants
C. Substituents
D. peptides 233. Made of amino acids
A. Carbohydrates
229. The following characteristics are true of
which macromolecule? compose cell mem- B. Lipids
branes contain many high-energy bonds in-
C. Proteins
clude waxes and steroids contain more en-
ergy per gram than others D. Nucleic Acids

234. Four most common elements that make 240. Examples of amino acids with polar
up all living things are carbon, hydrogen, chains without charge.
A. Cysteine

A. nitrogen, and iron.
B. calcium, and phosphorus. B. Serine
C. oxygen, and nitrogen. C. Tyrosine
D. oxygen, and iron. D. All the anteriors
235. What is syneresis? 241. Which chemical elements make up the ma-
jority of living biological matter?
A. when carbohydrates are heated
A. Carbon
B. when a sauce becomes thick
B. MASS
C. overcooking a protein which causes
C. V
it to become rubbery as the water is
squeezed out D. The chemical elements that make up
the majority of the molecules of living or-
D. whisking to make a foam ganisms are oxygen (O), carbon (C), hydro-
236. All organic compounds contain the ele- gen (H) and nitrogen (N).
ment 242. Enzymes are that speed up or carry
A. Phosphorus out chemical reactions.
B. Nitrogen A. lipids
C. Sulfur B. polysaccharides
D. Carbon C. carbohydrates
D. proteins
237. Which nif gene is responsible for “posi-
tive regulation” 243. Which type of lipid is liquid at room tem-
A. nif B perature
A. All fatty acids
B. nif D
B. Unsaturated fatty acids
C. nif A
C. Amino acids
D. nif L
D. Saturated fatty acids
238. Gluconeogenesis is a process.
244. What makes up the cell membrane?
A. anabolic
A. Lipid Monolayer
B. catabolic
B. Lipid Bilayer
C. hyperbolic C. Protiens
D. androbolic D. Carbohydrate Chains
239. What measures energy in food? 245. Which is the strongest acid?
A. Calories A. ph of 1
B. Ruler B. ph of 4
C. Thermometer C. ph of 7
D. Food label D. ph of 9

246. What is the role played by sodium- bicar- C. reactants

bonate in Benedict’s solution?
D. substrate
A. Chelate to copper sulfate
B. maintain pH 252. What is the product of transcription?
C. Supply carbon di oxide to the solution A. DNA
D. As an additive B. mRNA
247. Which of the following describes an iso- C. tRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tope? D. proteins
A. same number of neutrons, different
number of protons 253. What type of reaction builds macro-
B. same number of neutrons, different molecules? What is the byproduct?
number of electrons A. dehydration ; water
C. same number of protons, different B. dehydration ; no byproduct
number of electrons
C. hydrolysis ; water
D. same number of protons, different
number of neutrons D. hydrolysis ; no byproduct
248. What does protein do for your body? 254. A major type of lipids found in cell mem-
A. Build and repair muscle branes is:
B. Aid in hormone development A. phospholipids
C. Increase strength B. waxes
D. All of the above C. glycerol
249. Substances that have a pH less than 7 are D. triglycerides
considered:
A. acidic 255. Amylase breaks down alpha-glycosidic
linkages. Which of the following could
B. basic amylase break down?
C. neutral A. glycogen and starch
D. none of above
B. glycogen and cellolose
250. Amino acids are the monomers of C. starch and chitin
A. Carbohydrates
D. cellulose and chitin
B. Lipids
C. Proteins 256. Which of the following processes re-
quires energy?
D. Nucleic Acids
A. osmosis
251. When an enzyme is denatured it loses its
and cannot function any longer. B. diffusion
A. shape C. active transport
B. products D. facilitated diffusion

257. Phospholipids are 263. If someone is lactose intolerant, they lack

A. Hydrophobic the enzyme

A. lipase
B. Hydrophilic
B. lactose
C. Both Philic & Phobic
C. lactase
D. Non-polar
D. milk
258. What happens when there is a mutation
in the Cytochrome C gene. 264. Which is a least likely primary function of
proteins?
A. The organism breathes better.
A. to act as an organic catalyst
B. The organism dies.
B. to supply short-term energy
C. The organism gains super strength.
C. to build and repair damaged cells
D. none of above D. to defend against foreign invaders
259. Nucleotides are monomers of 265. The process to go from DNA to mRNA is
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids A. translation
C. Proteins B. transcription
D. Nucleic Acids C. replication
D. none of above
260. What type of bond gives a water
molecule its unique properties? 266. The enzymes of H2O2catabolism present
in peroxisomes are
A. Nonpolar
A. Sulfuric Acid and Peroxidase
B. Covalent
B. Peroxidase and Catalase
C. Ionic
C. Oxidase and Peroxidase
D. Hydrogen
D. Catalase and Oxidase
261. Why is Carbon so important to living
things? 267. Vitamin D is abundant in the following
foods:
A. It forms molecules easily
A. milk fortified with vitamin D
B. It can form many shapes
B. fish
C. It is in most organic molecule C. egg yolks
D. All of these D. all the above
262. This type of reaction links monomers to- 268. Which 2 kinds of particles make up the
gether. nucleus of an atom?
A. photosynthesis reaction A. electrons and neutrons
B. condensation reaction B. electrons and nuclei
C. chemical reaction C. protons and neutrons
D. hydrolysis reaction D. protons and kryptons

269. When choosing carbohydrates, choose 275. The proteins made in the ribosomes
ones low in added migrate into the tubules of the rough
A. Fiber ER where they fold into their functional
three-dimensional shapes and then are dis-
B. Sugar patched to other areas of the cell
C. Fat A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. Vitamins B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
NARAYAN CHANGDER
270. What bonds hold the secondary structure C. Lysosome
of proteins together? D. Peroxisome
A. Hydrogen bonds 276. Which of the following is NOT a function
B. Ionic bonds of lipids?
C. Peptide bonds A. long term energy
D. hydrophobic interactions B. provides flavor in food
C. used to make hormones
271. Products are known as alditols
D. building of muscles
A. Reduction to alcohols
B. Oxidation 277. Six sided ring
C. Osazonne Formation A. Glucose
D. Benedict’s Test B. Sucrose
C. Maltose
272. The characteristic that all lipids have in
common is D. Lactose
A. made of lots of double bonds 278. What is the purpose of an enzyme?

B. acidic when mixed with water A. give permission for the reaction
C. no high energy content B. raise activation energy
D. do not dissolve in water C. speed up reactions
D. control how many reactions occur
273. Which of the following binds to the active
site of an enzyme? 279. What bond occurs between two between
A. substrate neutral atoms? This bond can be attractive
or repulsive, depending upon the distance
B. product of the two atoms.
C. codon A. Hydrogen bond
D. none of the above B. Hydrophobic bond
274. The Precipitation of Protein is a form of C. Ionic bonds
A. hydrolysis D. van der Waals forces
B. catalytic reactions 280. Vegetable oils are examples of
C. lysis A. proteins
D. Denaturation B. carbohydrates

C. lipids C. Hydrogen Bonds

D. nucleic acids D. Metallic Bonds

281. Some poisons and drugs will not allow 287. Will and Juan decided to make a snack
the substrate to bind to the active site of after school:peanut butter and jelly sand-
an enzyme. This is an example of wiches and a glass of cold milk. They as-
A. cofactors sembled the following ingredients:-whole
wheat bread -peanut butter -grape jelly
B. inhibitors
-whole milk Which food likely has the
C. coenzymes FEWEST calories per gram of serving and
D. substrates why?
A. peanut butter because it contains
282. Which of the following macromolecules is
plant-based fats
responsible for controlling cell activities?
B. grape jelly because it is mostly simple
A. Carbohydrates
sugars
B. Lipids
C. whole wheat bread because it con-
C. Nucleic acids tains a combination of complex carbohy-
D. Proteins drates, simple sugars, and plant-based,
unsaturated fats
283. Copper sulfate is a/an
D. whole milk because most of the animal
A. strong oxidising agent fat remains
B. weak oxidising agent
288. Proteins are composed of what smaller
C. strong reducing agent building blocks?
D. weak reducing agent
A. amino acids
284. A peptide is a compound consisting of 2 B. nucleic acids
or more
C. fatty acids
A. amino acids
D. nucleotides
B. nucleic acids
C. lipids 289. Which best describes the role of
hemoglobin in red blood cells?
D. carbohydrates
A. It hydrates human body tissues.
285. The Basic Unit of life B. It supplies support to human body tis-
A. Cell sues.
B. Atom C. It transports oxygen to human body
C. Molecule tissues.
D. Tissue D. It increases the rate of reactions in
body tissues.
286. This type of atomic bond forms between
polar substances, like water. 290. All of the following are Lipids except
A. Covalent Bonds A. Fatty Acids
B. Ionic Bonds B. Steroids

C. Starch 296. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair

with this partial strand ATG TGA CAG
D. Phospholipids
A. ATG TGA CAG
291. The structure of a protein is the se-
B. TAC ACT GTC
quence of its amino acids.
C. GTA AGT GAC
A. primary
D. CAT TCA CTG
B. secondary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. tertiary 297. DNA & RNA are examples of this type of
macromolecule.
D. quartenary
A. Carbohydrates
292. Which is false? B. Lipids
A. Enzymes bind to a substrate. C. Proteins
B. Enzymes slow down chemical reac- D. Nucleic Acids
tions.
C. Enzymes lower the activation energy. 298. What level of protein structure is the or-
der and sequence of amino acids?
D. Enzymes are affected by temperature
and pH. A. Primary
B. Secondary
293. Made of monomers of monosaccharides
C. Tertiary
A. Carbohydrates
D. Quaternary
B. Lipids
C. Proteins 299. All of the following are correct about en-
zymes EXCEPT?
D. Nucleic Acids
A. they enable reactions to occur that
294. Which of these breakfast foods will pro- would not normally occur.
vide you with the most energy? B. they lower the energy activation
A. Candy bar C. they are polymers of amino acids
B. Whole grain cereal or oatmeal D. they generally denature at tempera-
C. Potato chips tures above 40 degrees Celsius
D. none of above 300. Enzymes play a key role in many bio-

chemical processes; one of these roles is
295. Organic molecules are organic because to speed up a reaction. An enzyme speeds
they contain up a reaction by
A. oxygen A. Releasing energy
B. hydrogen B. Decreasing the activation energy
C. water C. Absorbing energy
D. carbon D. Increasing the activation energy

301. What is/are the function(s) of carbohy- 307. Which of the following are true regarding
drates? enzymes?

A. storing genetic information A. catalysts
B. producing glucose B. proteins
C. storage and structure C. lock and key
D. building membranes D. all of the above
302. A quaternary structure of protein that 308. In order to be used as energy, polysac-
folded to a more and less spherical shape charides & disaccharides must be
is called as?
A. Broken down
A. Fibrous protein
B. Heated
B. Holoprotein
C. Put together
C. Simple protein
D. Stored
D. Globular protein
309. General test to detect charbohydrates
303. The basic building blocks of a protein are
A. biurt test
A. glucose molecules
B. Anthrone Test
B. amino acids
C. Benedict’s Test
C. hormones
D. Barfoed’s Test
D. fats
310. A monomer splits from a polymer through
304. They are also called as microbodies
A. ATP synthesis
A. Microvilli
B. Lysosomes B. monomerization
C. Peroxisomes C. hydrolysis
D. Ribosomes D. condensation reaction
305. What do monomers do? 311. Hydrolysis literally means
A. Bond to make a Polymer A. To join with water

B. Creates Protiens B. To split with oil
C. Stores energy C. To split with water
D. Splits to make more cells D. To join with oil.
306. Monomers, like the one in the picture, are 312. Which is the dominant form of an amino
found in: acid?
A. lipids A. zwitteria
B. proteins B. zwitterion
C. carbohydrates C. zwitter
D. nucleic acids D. zwaer

313. what is the storage(s) form of carbohy- B. Positive charge

drate found in mammals? C. Negative charge
A. Glucose and glycogen D. none of above
B. Glycogen
319. An enzyme serves as a place where a
C. starch chemical reaction can occur because-
D. Fiber and glycogen A. the enzyme is a substrate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
314. Pasta is an example of what biomolecule B. the charge on the enzyme’s active site
A. Polysaccharide is the same as the charge on the sub-
strates.
B. Polypeptide
C. the enzyme is one of the reactants in
C. Triglyceride the reaction
D. Nucleic Acids D. the shape of the substrates fits per-
fectly into the shape of the enzyme’s ac-
315. If a scientist turns a polymer into
tive site.
monomers in the laboratory, would the re-
sulting material be larger or smaller than 320. What is the function of a nucleotide?
the starting reactants?
A. Storing Energy
A. larger
B. Catalyzing cellular reactions
B. smaller
C. Building tissue
C. not enough information to answer
D. Storing genetic information
D. stays the same
321. What is the major component of plasma
316. The structural level of a protein least af- membranes?
fected by hydrogen bonds is
A. lipids
A. primary level
B. carbohydrates
B. secondary level
C. proteins
C. tertiary level
D. nucleic acids
D. all levels are equally affected
322. Provide quick energy and serve as struc-
317. A feature of organic compounds NOT tural components of plant cells
found in inorganic compounds is the pres- A. Carbohydrates
ence of
B. Lipids
A. ionizing chemical groups
C. Proteins
B. electrons
D. Nucleic Acids
C. carbon items covalently bonded to
each other 323. Protein catalyst.
D. hydrogen bonds A. enzyme
318. What happens when an atom loses an B. carbohydrate

electron? C. lipid
A. Neutral (no charge) D. nucleic acids

324. How many bonds can one carbon atom 330. Which two subatomic particles are lo-
make? cated in the nucleus?

A. 4 A. Protons and Electrons
B. 3 B. Protons and Neutrons
C. 1
C. Electrons and Protons
D. unlimited
D. none of above
325. A function of a lipid is
A. Short term energy 331. Formally known as paraffins
B. Energy storage A. Alkanes
C. Structures and enzymes B. Alkenes
D. Hereditary information C. Alkynes
326. It is a semitransparent fluid that sus- D. none of above
pends the other elements
A. Peroxisome 332. It is most commonly known for its role in
fetal health and development as it plays a
B. Cell Membrane
critical role in the proper development of
C. Cytoplasm the baby’s nervous system.
D. Cytosol A. Biotin
327. Which of the macromolecules contain ni- B. Folic Acid
trogen?
C. Cobalamin
A. proteins only
D. Thiamin
B. nucleic acids only
C. proteins and lipids 333. A dog gets many nutrients from its food
D. nucleic acids and proteins including amino acids. Which of these can
be build directly using the amino acids?
328. Which are the building blocks of most
lipid molecules? A. Proteins
A. glucose and protein B. Carbohydrates
B. glucose and fatty acids C. Lipids
C. fatty acids and glycerol D. Minerals
D. amino acids and glycerol
334. If dipeptides carboxyl group reacts with
329. Which of the following is able to convert the amino group, what is formed?
pyranoses to furfuraldehydes?
A. The next peptide bond
A. Conc nitric acid
B. Conc. hydrochloric acid B. The next protein
C. Conc sulfuric acid C. The next amino acid

D. 5N Hydrochloric acid D. The next ionic bond

335. The entire spectrum of chemical reactions, C. have double bond

occurring in the living system are collec-
D. liquid in room temperature
tively referred to as
A. Metabolism 341. How do the number of H atoms compare
B. Synthesis to the number of O atoms in a carbohy-
drate?
C. Condensation
A. There are TWICE as many H
D. Recovery
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. They are the same amount
336. ATP is a very important molecule because
of the energy it provides. What functional C. There are THREE times as many H
group provides this energy? D. There are TWICE as many O
A. Hydroxyl
342. Which of the following are rarely found
B. Carboxyl in plant cells?
C. Amine A. vacuoles
D. Phosphate
B. lysosomes
337. Monosaccharides are monomers of C. chloroplasts
A. Carbohydrates D. cytoskeletons
B. Lipids
C. Proteins 343. Acts as the cell’s “bones and muscles”
by furnishing an internal framework that
D. Nucleic Acids determines cell shape, supports other or-
338. Carbohydrates (or sugars) typically end ganelles
with what letters? A. Cytosol
A. - ASE B. Cell Membrane
B. - OSE C. Cytoskeleton
C. - OTE D. Cytoplasm
D. - OES
344. This indicates an acidic substance:
339. What is the smallest bit of an element
you can have that has all the properties of A. [H+]<[OH-]
that element? B. [H+]>[OH-]
A. a molecule C. [H+]:[OH-]
B. a compound D. none of above
C. an element
345. Wax is an example of a
D. an atom
A. lipid
340. Below are the saturated fats characteris-
tics. EXCEPT B. carbohydrate
A. linear in structure C. nucleic acid
B. from animal D. protein

346. Proline and hydroxyproline are amino D. all of the above

acids?
352. What are the single sugars that are the

A. Yes building blocks of carbohydrates?
B. Yes, because of its amino group A. monosaccharides
C. No, are imino acids B. disaccharides
D. No, are proteins C. polysaccharides
347. Proteins, starch, and DNA are similar in D. amino acid
that they are all 353. Monomer is to Macrocolecule like is
A. organic compounds to
B. parts of genes A. Building is to Bricks.
C. made of amino acids B. Brick is to Building.
D. made of simple sugars C. Carpenter is to Building.
348. Which molecules form the plasma mem- D. Building is to Carpenter.

brane of an animal cell? 354. The following statements about enzymes
A. Phospholipids are true, except:
B. Nucleic acid A. Complex organic compound which has
the ability of speeding chemical reactions
C. Glucose
w/out being themselves affectedin the
D. Polypeptide process.
349. Enzymes are that chemical reac- B. They are protein in nature
tions by lowering the activation energy of C. They target any molecule that goes in-
the reaction. side our body
A. proteins, slow down D. They have unique characteristics such
B. proteins, speed up as shape, specifity and function
C. lipids, slow down 355. It is the region of the enzyme that
D. lipids, speed up binds the substrate, to form an enzyme-
substrate complex, and transforms itinto
350. The basic building block of nucleic acids product.
A. nucleotides A. Active Site
B. amino acids B. Activator
C. monosaccharides C. Inactive Portion
D. fatty acids D. Co-Factor
351. Which if the following foods are rich in 356. Nucleotides are made up of three parts.
Vitamin A? The three parts are
A. milk fortified with vitamin A A. DNA, RNA, and a sugar
B. liver B. a lipid, a fat, and an oil
C. orange fruits and vegetables (like can- C. a carbohydrate, a protein, and a fat
taloupe, carrots, sweet potatoes) D. a sugar, a phosphate, and a base

357. What type of macromolecule are en- 361. “mad scientist” who took this photo, pro-
zymes? viding evidence for the structure of DNA,
and had it stolen?
A. Protein
A. Hooke
B. Carbohydrate
B. Crick
C. Lipid
C. Franklin
D. Nucleic Acid
D. Watson
NARAYAN CHANGDER
358. Water is essential for life. Its special 362. What element is found in proteins but not
properties make water the single most im- carbs nor lipids?
portant molecule in plant life. Which of the
following properties of water enables it A. carbon
to move from the roots to the leaves of B. hydrogen
plants? C. nitrogen
A. Water expands as it freezes. D. oxygen
B. Water is an excellent solvent.
363. These chemicals help the body resist
C. Water exhibits cohesive and adhesive changes in pH. They are particularly use-
behavior. ful in the blood.
D. Water is able to moderate tempera- A. Buffers
ture. B. Acids
359. What bond occurs between two op- C. Bases
positely charged particles which is the D. Salts
stongest noncovalent force that occurs
over greater distances? This bond also 364. Combination of anabolic and catabolic re-
can be weakened significantly by water actions
molecules which water can interfere with A. metastasis
bonding. B. anacatabolism
A. Hydrogen bond C. catabolism
B. Hydrophobic bond D. metabolism
C. Ionic bonds 365. Meats are examples of
D. van der Waals forces A. proteins
360. After eating a large plate of spaghetti, an B. carbohydrates
organism must break down the starch into C. lipids
it smaller monomer sugars using which re-
D. nucleic acids
action?
A. dehydration 366. In plants, a storage product that results
from the dehydration synthesis of many
B. hydrolysis glucose molecules is
C. rehydration A. protein
D. photosynthesis B. a phosphate

C. an oil 372. Beans, seeds, and meats are a few exam-

ples of foods with this macromoleucle.
D. starch

A. Carbohydrates
367. Which of the following has the HIGHEST B. Lipids
pH?
C. Proteins
A. stomach acid
D. Nucleic Acids
B. lemon juice
373. An organism has numerous amino acid
C. human blood
monomers that need to be changed into a
D. sea water protein chain, which reaction will be used?
A. Dehydration
368. Which of the following environmental
changes could denature an enzyme? B. Hydroloysis
A. too high a concentration of substrate C. Photosynthesis
B. too high a concentration of enzyme D. Respiration
C. pH too low 374. The categories of carbohydrates based on

structural complexity are:
D. too low a concentration of substrate
A. Monosaccharide, disaccharide,
369. Which enzyme adds a phosphate to F-6- oligosaccharide, polysaccharide
P? B. glucose, maltose trehalose, starch
A. PhosphoFructoKinase C. Aldoses and ketoses
B. Hexokinase D. There are no categories of carbohy-
drates based on structure
C. Aldolase
D. Pyruvate Kinase 375. are 1-2% of your body mass.
A. Carbs
370. What are genes?
B. Lipids
A. Coded DNA instructions that control
C. Nucleic Acids
the production of protiensset of plans for
their specific job D. Proteins
B. set of plans for their specific job 376. How many calories per gram do proteins
C. Sequence of genetic messages provide?
A. 4
D. A blueprint
B. 9
371. Which of the following is the strongest C. 20
base?
D. 1
A. 4
377. Identify the products in this reac-
B. 14
tion:6H2O + 6CO2 → C 6H12O6+ 6O2
C. 7 .
D. 15 A. 6H2O and 6CO2

B. 6CO 2 and C6H12O6 383. Foods that are high in the organic com-
C. 6H2O, C6H12O6, and 6O2 pound “Carbohydrates”
D. C6H12O6 and 6O2 A. Meats, beans, seeds/nuts, eggs
B. Bread, candy, crackers, potatoes
378. Which particle carries a negative charge?
C. Cheese, butter, milk, and cereal
A. protons
D. Sausage, Eggs, Pancakes & syrup
B. neutrons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. electrons 384. Enyzmes are a very important type of
D. none of above protein used to
A. Build bones in skeleton
379. are particularly important in the
metabolism of sugars to provide energy. B. Send hormonal signals throughout
body
A. Phosphoric Esters
C. Speed up chemical reactions
B. Glucose
D. Photosynthesize glucose in plants
C. Glycosidic Bond
D. Polysaccharides 385. Acts as a storage of nutrients or cell prod-
ucts
380. Which best explains how the structure of
enzymes is related to theirfunction? A. Nucleus
A. Enzyme structures release the energy B. Ribosomes

in their substrates. C. Inclusions
B. Enzyme structures react with their D. Golgi Appartus
substrates.
386. A graduated cylinder measures:
C. Enzymes’ unique active site allows it to
fit with only one substratemolecule. A. mass
D. Enzymes interact with their substrates B. volume
like welders building a steelskyscraper. C. weight
381. Larger polymers are formed when D. force ability
monomers are joined together by a
reaction. 387. Enzymes are considered to be
A. dehydration synthesis A. Lipids
B. digestion B. Carbohydrate
C. hydrolysis C. Protein
D. redox D. Nucleic Acid
382. How many amino acids exist? How many 388. Which group of organic compounds con-
of them are present in almost all proteins? tains fatty acids?
A. 300, 20. A. Carbohydrates
B. 200, 30. B. Lipids
C. 300, 10 C. Nucleic Acids
D. 200, 20 D. Proteins

389. When an Apoenzymes and co-factor like B. Decreasing activation energy

co-enzymes or metal ion combined to-
C. Increasing deactivation energy
gether to become an active enzymes, they

will become: D. Decreasing deactivation energy
A. Whole Enzymes
395. What suffix (word ending) is used in the
B. Complete Enzymes names of most carbohydrates?
C. Holoenzymes
A. -ase
D. Wholenymes
B. -nic
390. Choose the polysaccharide that functions C. -ose
as energy storage.
D. -yme
A. Pectin
B. Chitin 396. Which of these is most likely an enzyme?
C. Starch A. Sucrose
D. Peptidoglycan
B. Galactose
391. This type of bond results from unequal C. Fructose
sharing of electrons
D. Amylase
A. polar covalent bond
B. nonpolar covalent bond 397. Which biomolecule provides all living or-
C. hydrogen bond ganisms with genetic information?
D. ionic bond A. Nucleic Acid
392. If an atom has 10 protons, 10 neutrons, B. Protein

and 10 electrons, what is the mass of the C. Carbohydrates
atom?
D. Lipids
A. 10
B. 20 398. What type of bond transfers electrons?
C. 30 A. ionic
D. none of above B. covalent
393. Examples of amino acids with acid side C. hydrogen
chains.
D. van der waals
A. Glutamic acid
B. Aspartic acid 399. Which biomolecule is mainly hydrocar-
bons and therefore very hydrophobic?
C. Both
A. carbohydrate
D. none of above
B. nucleic acid
394. How do enzymes speed up chemical reac-
tion? C. protein
A. Increasing activation energy D. lipid

400. Stomach cells need to package and se- C. Disaccharide

crete large amounts of enzymes for use D. Fatty Acid
in digestion. Which of the following or-
ganelles would be found in a higher-than- 406. Water striders can walk across the sur-
normal frequency in stomach cells? face of calm water. Their feet push the sur-
face of the water down slightly, but they
A. ribosomes
do not break the surface. Why?
B. lysosomes
A. The insects are light enough so they do
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. chloroplasts not break the hydrogen bonds holding the
D. Golgi apparati water molecules together (cohesion)
B. The insects actually use their wings to
401. All atoms want how many electrons to be
hover slightly above the water’s surface
‘happy’?
and they only skim it with their feet.
A. 2 or 8 C. The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they
B. 8 or 9 are repelled by the polar water molecules
C. 5 or 6 and are pushed away from the water’s
surface.
D. 7 or 12
D. The insects are small enough to see
402. Lactose is composed of the individual water molecules, so they
A. glucose + fructose are able to step carefully from one
molecule to the next
B. glucose + glucose
C. glucose + sucrose 407. ATP is called a cell’s “energy currency”
because
D. glucose + galactose
A. ATP catalyzes all metabolic reactions.
403. Fatty acids such as butter and oils and B. most of the energy that drives
phospholipids are examples of this organic metabolism is supplied by ATP.
molecule:
C. glucose is made of ATP.
A. Carbohydrates
D. ATP allows one organelle to be ex-
B. Lipids changed for another between cells.
C. Proteins 408. What type of substance is made up of
D. Nucleic Acids atoms held together by covalent bonds?
404. When these bond together, they form a A. ion
protein B. molecule
A. Amino Acids C. isotope
B. Peptide Bonds D. element
C. Ribose 409. Proteins have many different functions in
D. Nucleotides a cell. Which of the following are possible
functions of a protein?
405. What makes up a protein? A. catalysts and building blocks of DNA
A. Monosaccharide B. enzymes and actively transports
B. Amino Acid molecules across the cell membrane

C. building blocks of DNA and structural C. the color of the nitrogen bases
components of cell membrane D. the frequency (number) of nitrogen

D. components of the cell membrane and bases
main source of energy in cellular respira-
tion 415. Disaccharides -
A. glucose
410. Monosaccharides are the monomers for
which major macromolecules? B. sucrose
A. Photosythesis C. glycogen
B. Monosaccharides D. fructose
C. Carbohydrates
416. = energy storage for animals in liver
D. none of above & muscles
411. Proteins are compounds formed in the A. Starch
cells of plants and animals. Which element B. Glycogen
is included in every protein molecule?
C. Cellulose
A. calcium
D. Chitin
B. carbon
C. fluorine 417. Why do lipids provide longer lasting en-
ergy than Carbohydrates?
D. sodium
A. They have many more C-H bonds
412. Dopamine and Epinephrine are derived
B. They have fewer C-H bonds
from:
C. They have more Oxygen
A. Tryptophan
D. They have less Oxygen
B. Glutamic acid
C. Valine 418. Which of the following processes gener-
D. Tyrosine ates the most ATP?
A. Citric acid cycle
413. What is the ratio carbon:hydrogen:oxygen
in carbohydrates? B. Fatty acid oxidation
A. 1:1:1 C. Glycogenolysis
B. 1:2:1 D. Glycolysis
C. 2:1:1 419. It serve as a minicirculatory system for
D. 2:1:2 the cell because it provides a network of
channels for carrying substances from one
414. What determines the code, or informa- part of the cell to another
tion, of a DNA molecule?
A. Ribosomes
A. the shape (structure) of the nitrogen
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
bases
B. the order (sequence) of the nitrogen C. Nucleus
bases D. Golgi Apparatus

420. The three elements that make up most of C. surface tension of water surface
all 4 types of macromolecules D. expansion of water when it freezes
A. Water, Oxygen, & Hydrogen
426. This particle has a neutral charge
B. Carbon, Hydrogen, & Oxygen
A. electron
C. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, & Oxygen
B. proton
D. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, & Sulfur
C. neutron
421. An anthocyanin found in cabbage is used
NARAYAN CHANGDER
as a indicator in pH papers is called D. atom
A. Flavone 427. What resembles the structure of the pep-

B. Flavin tide bond?
C. Flavine A. Millon’s reagent
D. Flaveine B. Biuret
C. Xanthoproteic process
422. Which of the following lists the bonds in
order from weakest to strongest? D. Any of the anteriors
A. Covalent, Hydrogen, Ionic 428. A pure substance that cannot be broken
B. Hydrogen, Ionic, Covalent down into any other substance by chemical
C. Ionic, Covalent, Hydrogen or physical means. There are about 100 of
us shown in the Periodic Table
D. Hydrogen, Covalent, Ionic
A. compound
423. Neutrons have a charge. B. mixture
A. positive
C. molecule
B. negative
D. element
C. neutral
429. What is the function of proteins?
D. none of above
A. store genetic information
lipid polymer? B. store energy (long-term)
A. Steroids C. store energy (short-term)

B. Meat D. build skin, hair, nails, muscles
C. Triglycerides 430. All but one are the physicochemical na-
D. Phospholipids ture of enzymes:
A. They are water soluble
425. Water is essential to all living things.
One important attribute of water allows it B. Work best at temperatures between
to maintain a constant environment within 35-40*C
cells. Which property of water allows it to C. Have unique characteristics such as
do this? shape, specificity, and function.
A. moderates temperature D. Are used up or permanently changed
B. breaking of covalent bonds by the reaction.

431. Which lipid polymer is primary responsi- C. cheese and avocados

ble for storing long-term energy in plants D. peanut butter
and animals?

A. Steroids 437. The structure of biomolecules is closely
related to the functions they perform in
B. Meat living cells. Which statement below best
C. Triglycerides illustrates this concept?
D. Phospholipids A. Lipids may be saturated or unsatu-
rated.
432. A general definition of cohesion is the at-
B. Carbohydrates such as starch are long
traction of:
chains of sugar monomers.
A. particles of the same substance
C. The active site of a protein enzyme
B. particles of a different substance precisely fits the shape of its substrate
C. particles of both the same and differ- molecules.
ent substances D. Proteins may be made up of chains
D. particles of neither the same or differ- that are folded or coiled.
ent substances
438. Glucose is
433. The metabolic machinery of the cell A. fruit sugar
A. Mitochondria B. table sugar
B. Lysosomes C. blood sugar
C. Inclusions D. milk sugar
D. Organelles 439. Gibbes free energy?
434. Which of the following statements is A. G=H-TS
true? RNA contains deoxyribose B. G=H+TS
A. DNA is single-stranded C. G=H/TS
B. RNA is single-stranded D. G=H-T/S
C. DNA contains uracil
440. When water freezes the molecules form
D. RNA contains deoxyribose a matrix by forming hydrogen bonds and
435. The polymer of monosaccharides are A. sinking in water
called B. becomes more dense than water
A. Glycerol and fatty acids C. becomes less dense than water
B. Nucleotides D. becoming more tightly packed
C. Amino Acids
441. Which of the following is not a require-
D. Polysaccharides ment for glycolysis?
436. Which type of food gives you the most A. Oxygen
proteins? B. ATP
A. salad and spaghetti C. NAD+
B. steak and shrimp D. Glucose

442. are some functions of lipids. C. Tyrosinase

A. storing energy and cell membrane D. Rennin
structure
448. Which of the following subatomic parti-
B. providing actin & providing myosin cles are used between atoms to create
C. cellulose structure and digestive assis- molecules?
tance A. Protons
D. storing & transferring genetic info
B. Electrons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
443. The basic unit of any molecule; The C. Neutrons
six common ones necessary for life are
D. none of above
CHONPS
A. Element 449. Nutrients that build and repair tissues
and cells e.g. meat, milk, eggs.
B. Monomer
A. Fat
C. Polymer
B. Minerals
D. Compound
C. Vitamins
444. What is the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen
D. Protein
in carbohydrates?
A. 1:1 450. How many molecules are required to hy-
drolyze a polymer that is 10 monomers
B. 2:1
long?
C. 3:1
A. 10
D. 4:1
B. 9
445. Substances that have a pH of 7 are con- C. 5
sidered:
D. 1
A. acidic
B. basic 451. In the process of polymers can be bro-
ken down into monomer pieces by the ad-
C. neutral dition of water.
D. none of above A. Condensation Cutting
446. What is the pOH of a solution that has a B. Dehydration Synthesis
pH of 2? C. Pyrolysis
A. 10 D. Hydrolysis
B. 12
452. What is the function of carbohydrates in
C. 14 your body?
D. 1 A. Speed up chemical reactions.
447. All but one are examples of Proteases? B. Give immediate energy.
A. Pepsin C. Help to store energy.
B. Trypsin D. Build cell walls in plants.

453. To which class of organic compounds do 459. What is an example of a carbohydrate?

enzymes belong? A. Fish

A. proteins B. Steak
B. fatty acids
C. Chicken
C. nucleic acids
D. Pasta
D. monosaccharides
460. Which of the following options is NOT
454. The pH of most of your body fluids would true of the enzyme lactase?
be -
A. lactase breaks down lactose into
A. 6.5-7.5 galactose and glucose
B. 3-4 B. lactase speeds up the breaking down
C. 9-11 of lactose
D. 12-14 C. lactase has a specific substrate called
lactose
455. Enzyme that catalyses the transfer of
functional group of atoms from one D. lactase is an enzyme that can break
molecule to another. This enzyme is down multiple sugars
A. Isomerases 461. Which property makes water molecules
B. Transferases stick to other water molecules?
C. Oxidoreductase A. adhesion
D. Lyases B. cohesion
456. Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that C. capillary action
will fit its active site. What is this called? D. polarity
A. reusable
462. Reactions that build up molecules
B. catalyst
A. catabolic reaction
C. specific
B. anabolic reaction
D. fragile
C. thermal expansion
457. All polymers are made up of D. reactants and products
A. monosaccharides
463. What does the overall shape and folding
B. monomers
of a protein relate to its function?
C. proteins
A. The folding and shape determine
D. None of these whether the protein can provide the nec-
essary energy the cell needs to function.
458. It is responsible for the production of en-
ergy in the form of ATP. B. The folding and shape play a important
role in how many different atoms carbon
A. Lysosomes
can bond with.
B. Peroxisomes
C. The folding and shape determine the
C. Mitchondria role the protein plays in maintaining home-
D. Nucleus ostasis.

D. The folding and shape have nothing to 470. What is the function of fats for living or-
do with how a protein functions. ganisms?
464. The maintenance of a constant internal A. short term energy storage
environment is known as B. store hereditary information
A. Homozygous C. long term energy storage
B. homologous
D. catalyze metabolic reactions
C. Homeostasis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Homeothermic 471. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes be-
cause eukaryotes have
465. What is the monomer of carbohydrate?
A. DNA
A. chitin
B. cytoplasm
B. starch
C. a cell membrane
C. sucrose
D. membrane-bound organelles
D. glucose
466. In which type of molecule is the ratio of 472. If Fructose-1, 6-BisPhosphate is put
hydrogen to oxygen usually 2 to 1? through glycolysis the net result would be:
A. lipid A. 2 ATP
B. protein B. 4 ATP
C. carbohydrate C. 4 NADH
D. glycerol D. 2 FADH2
467. Copper sulfate is an ingredient of 473. What is the function of nucleic acids?
A. Molisch’s Reagent
A. Stores energy
B. Benedict’s Reagent
B. Stores genetic information
C. Seliwanoff’s reagent
C. Movement
D. Iodine solution
D. Physical structure
468. Bromelain, an enzyme found in pineapple,
breaks down: 474. Which vitamin helps your eyes?
A. lipids A. Vitamin A
B. proteins B. Vitamin B
C. carbohydrates C. Vitamin C
D. nucleic acids D. Vitamin D
469. Most human enzymes work best at
475. Sugar present in DNA is
around what temperature?
A. 150 degree Fahrenheit A. Ribose
B. 98 degree Fahrenheit B. Deoxy Ribose
C. 32 degree Fahrenheit C. Glucose
D. none of above D. No sugar is present in DNA

476. Forming a chain of amino acids would pro- 482. It is referred to as the Hexose monophos-
duce a molecule. phate shunt

A. Carbohydrate A. Phosphate pathways
B. Protein B. Pentose phosphate pathways
C. Nucleic Acid C. pentose pathways
D. Lipid D. all of the above
477. Building blocks of polymers. 483. Galactose and glucose are both monosac-
A. monomer charides with the molecular formula
B. polypeptide C6H12O6. When these two molecules
undergo dehydration synthesis, they form
C. monosaccharide
lactose, milk sugar. What is the structural
D. glycerol formula of lactose?
478. Which of the following is the strongest A. C11H22O12
acid? B. C12H24O12
A. 1 C. C12H23O11
B. 5
D. C12H22O11
C. 3
484. The basic building blocks (monomers) of
D. 8
carbohydrates are:
479. Which is NOT true of Lipids? A. nucleotides
A. They are commonly called fats and oils B. monosaccharides
B. They are “hydrophobic” and do not in-
C. amino acids
teract with water
D. triglycerides
C. They are good for energy storage
D. They are polar like water 485. are molecules that boost the immune
system. They do so by protecting cells
480. The bond that joins two amino acids to- from harmful molecules called free radi-
gether cals.
A. double bond A. Antbodies
B. hydrogen bond
B. Surfactants
C. ionic bond
C. Anti free radicals
D. peptide bond
D. Antioxidants
481. Which statement is true about beta-
carotene? 486. Lipids are not soluble in water because
they are while water is
A. It is absorbed up to four times more
efficiently than retinol. A. cold, hot
B. It is found in fruits and vegetables. B. polar, non-polar
C. It is found in dairy products. C. non-polar, polar
D. It is found in liver. D. hydrolyzed, cohesive

487. What is the function of carbohydrates? 492. Which type of food gives you the most
A. store genetic information lipids?
B. store energy (long-term) A. salad and spaghetti
C. store energy (short-term) B. steak and shrimp

D. build skin, hair, nails, muscles C. cheese and avocados
D. peanut butter
488. Thermodynamics deals with the relation-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ships between and other forms of en-
493. Which of the following is NOT a part of
ergy
the cell theory?
A. Heat
A. Cells are the basic units of life.
B. Biomolecules
B. All living things are made of at least
C. Electrons one cell.
D. Organelles C. Very few cells reproduce.
489. Carbon chains are principal features of D. All cells arise from existing cells
both carbohydrates and lipids. What is
the primary difference between these two 494. This type of atomic bond forms when
types of macromolecules? atoms give or take electrons therefore al-
tering their charge and become attracted
A. Lipids always have longer carbon
to one another.
chains than carbohydrates.
A. Covalent Bonds
B. Carbohydrates cannot form rings like
lipids can. B. Ionic Bonds
C. Lipids provide energy, but carbohy- C. Hydrogen Bonds
drates cannot.
D. Metallic Bonds
D. Carbohydrates form ring structures,
lipids form long chains 495. The chemical reactions taking place in a
cell will most likely speed up if the
490. Examples include:glucose and fructose,
sucrose and maltose, starch and glycogen A. genetic material stops replicating
A. examples of carbohydrates B. the size of the cell increases
B. extra energy, insulation, protection C. the enzymes involved become inactive
C. alanine, serine D. the concentration of the reactants is in-
creased
D. triglycerides
491. Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cyto- 496. What two monosaccharides make up mal-
sine and guanine tose?
A. DNA A. glucose + galactose

B. BOTH B. glucose + glucose
C. RNA C. glucose + fructose
D. none of above D. glucose + glycogen

497. Ionic Bonding involves A. Polarity

A. The transfer of protons B. Cushioning

B. The transfer of nuetrons C. High Heat Capacity
C. The transfer of electrons D. Reactivity
D. None Of the above
503. What property of water makes it the
498. How do you recognize a glycerol? ‘universal solvent’?
A. It is a very long carbon skeleton with A. it is a polar molecule
a carboxyl group at one end.
B. it is an ionic compound
B. It always consists of C, H, and O in a
1:2:1 ratio. C. it contains hydrogen bonds
C. It consists of a variable R group and D. it steals electrons from other atoms

an amine group.
504. The resulted sugers of the hydrlosis of
D. It is a 3 carbon compound with hy- the sucrose are
droxyl on each carbon.
A. polsacharides
499. Nitrogenous bases present in the DNA B. oxdizing sugers
can be grouped into two categories:
C. reducing sugers
A. adenine and guanine
D. pentoses
B. cytosine and uracil
C. purines and pyrimidines 505. How would you prepare 10.00 mL of
D. cytosine and thymine 0.6520 M HCl solution from a 1.255 M
HCl solution?
500. The study of the chemistry of the living A. I would add 4 ml of 0.6520M HCL to a
world. tube then add 6 ml of distaled water.
A. organic chemistry
B. I would add 5.19 ml of 0.6520M HCL to
B. molecular chemistry a tube then complete the volume up to 10
C. Biochemistry ml using distaled water.
D. none of above C. I would add 5.19 ml of 1.255 M HCL to
a tube then complete the volume up to 10
501. A sugar, a phosphate group and a nitro- ml using distaled water.
gen base make up the building blocks of
D. I would add 4 ml of 1.255M HCL to a
which organic compound?
tube then add 6 ml of distaled water.
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids 506. The monomer of a nucleic acid is
C. Nucleic Acids A. Monosaccharide

D. Proteins B. Amino Acid
C. Nucleotide
502. Our cells do not instantly change temper-
ature on a hot day. This is mostly because D. Triglyceride (3 Fatty Acids and 1 Glyc-
of water’s erol)

507. If the pH of a solution is 8, it is a C. 5N Hydrochloric acid

A. strong acid D. Conc hydrochloric acid
B. weak base
513. Which of the following best compares the
C. strong base
structures of lipids and carbohydrates?
D. weak acid
A. Both are made up of monosaccharide
508. Which of the following organic com- monomers, but lipids are hydrophobic and
pounds is the main source of energy for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
carbohydrates are hydrophilic.
living things?
B. Both contain carbon and hydrogen, but
A. carbohydrates carbohydrates also contain oxygen and
B. lipids lipids contain nitrogen.
C. nucleic acids C. Both consist of carbon, hydrogen, and
D. proteins oxygen, but carbohydrates have repeating
structural units and lipids do not.
509. Which of these should you drink every-
D. Both have a carbon backbone, but
day?
lipids also have an amino group and car-
A. Milk bohydrates have a carboxylic acid group.
B. Water
514. Polymers are joined together by:
C. Orange juice
D. Pepsi A. synthesis
B. hydration synthesis
510. What would happen if your body has fin-
ished up breaking down carbohydrates in C. dehydration synthesis
your body?
D. polymer synthesis
A. You’ll die.
B. It will start breaking down mus- 515. What property of water allows it to be
cle/protein. such a versatile solvent that it is often
C. It will start breaking down fat. called the “universal solvent?”
D. You’ll become lazy. A. Purity
511. How many calories per gram do lipids B. Polarity and cohesion
provide? C. High heat capacity
A. 4 D. Expansion upon freezing
B. 9
C. 20 516. With enzymes, biochemical reactions
would occur far too slowly to sustain life.
D. 1
A. TRUE
512. Which one of the following is present in
Seliwanoff’s reagent? B. FALSE
A. Conc Sulfuric acid C. DI AKO SURE

B. conc nitric acid D. none of above

517. An atom that loses an electron becomes D. Each enzyme is specific because of
which of the following? its shape and catalyzes only certain reac-
tions

A. A negatively charged ion.
B. A neutral ion. 522. Which pair is incorrect?
C. A positively charged ion. A. carbohydrates - provide energy
D. none of above B. lipids - provide insulation
518. The primary purpose the body uses C. nucleic acids - store hereditary infor-
monosaccharides for is? mation
A. Building muscles D. proteins - provide energy

B. Helping the Immune System 523. A(n) is the part of the enzyme the
C. Immediate Energy substrate fits into.
D. Generating Heat A. product
B. active site
519. Acetylcholine is an important chemical
signal in the nervous system. It is C. enzyme
broken down into other chemicals by D. substrate
cholinesterase.Cholinesterase is which of
the following? 524. Which of the following is not a dis-
A. enzyme achcharide?
B. hormone A. Lactose
C. lipid B. Maltose
D. organelle C. Sucrose
D. fructose
520. Which of the following items is NOT a
polysaccharide? 525. Which of the following macromolecules
A. chitin are responsible for speeding up chemical
reactions?
B. lactose
A. Proteins
C. starch
D. glycogen B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
521. Which statement about enzymes in NOT
true? D. Nucleic acids
A. Enzymes are composed of polypeptide 526. An atom with atomic number 6 would
chains have how many protons?
B. Enzymes form a temporary bond with A. 6
a reactant
B. 12
C. Enzymes are destroyed when they are
C. 3
used and must be made each time a reac-
tion takes place D. cannot be determined

527. WHO made a model of the DNA molecule 532. Where in our cells does translation occur?
with two strands wound around each A. nucleus
other called a double helix?
B. mitochondria
A. Chargaff
C. ribosome
B. Hershey and Chase
D. chloroplast
C. Avery
533. Proteins are compose of the elements
D. Watson & Crick
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. C, H, O
528. What is a substance in which the atoms B. C, H, O, P
of two are more elements are combined in C. C H, O P, N
a fixed proportion?
D. C, H, O, N
A. Compounds
534. Covalent compounds
B. Elements
A. Share electrons
C. Atoms
B. transfer electrons
D. Quarks
C. contain a sea of electrons
529. Enzymes and hormones are both exam- D. conduct electricity
ples of:
535. Movement:Makes up muscle tissue (Actin
A. proteins and Myosin)Transport:Carries oxygen in
B. lipids organisms (Hemoglobin) Immunity:Helps
fight off foreign invaders (Antibodies) En-
C. nucleic acids zymes:Speed up chemical reactionsSmall
D. carbohydrates source of energy
A. Functions of carbohydrates
530. when Tyrosine is found in a protien
B. Functions of lipids
A. The protien gives blue color withlead
acetate C. Functions of nucleic acids
D. Functions of proteins
B. The protien gives blue color with Mil-
lon’s 536. How many atoms/elements are in H3?
C. The protien gives red color with Mil- A. 1
lon’s
B. 0
D. The protien gives red color with Hop- C. 2
kins Cole
D. 3
531. are the building blocks of life.
537. Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
A. solids A. 2 ATP
B. gases B. 4 ATP
C. atoms C. 4 NADH
D. nutrients D. 2 Acetyl CoA

538. The energy needed to start a reaction 544. A monosaccharide is a:

A. activation energy A. nucleic acid

B. adhesion energy
B. lipid
C. chemical energy
C. carbohydrate
D. cohesion energy
D. protein
539. . What is it called when one strain of
bacteria is CHANGED by a gene Translation 545. What are the repeating units that form a
Mutation Transformation Hox Gene DNA molecule?
A. Translation
A. Fatty acids
B. Mutation
B. Nucleotides
C. Transformation
C. Amino Acids
D. Hox Gene
D. Chromosomes
540. How many atoms/elements in K?
A. 1 546. DNA and RNA are examples of
B. 2
A. proteins
C. 3
B. nucleic acids
D. 0
C. carbohydrates
541. In , either amino acid or carbohydrate
monomers bond together. D. lipids
A. dehydration synthesis
547. Why is the “lock and key” analogy often
B. hydrolysis used to describe enzymefunction?
C. phosphodiester bonding A. Each enzyme is the same as its sub-
D. hydrogen bonding strate.
542. Find the correct law related to “Energy B. Each enzyme will fit with only one spe-
can neither be created nor destroyed, but cific kind of substrate.
it can be changed from one form to an-
C. Each enzyme can only be used once in
other”
a reaction and cannot be usedagain.
A. Zeroth law
D. Each enzyme has its own active site
B. First law that will not fit with other activesites.
C. Second law
D. Third law 548. Glucose enters cells and is committed to
glycolysis with the addition of:
543. In a covalent bond, atoms
A. PFK Enzymes
A. share electrons
B. -PO4 from ADP
B. transfer electrons
C. attract water molecules to each other C. -PO4 from ATP
D. do not bond D. Electrons from ATP

549. You are analyzing a compound in the lab 554. Guanine bonds with
and you find it’s made up of carbon, hy- A. Adenine
drogen and oxygen in a ratio of C6H12O6.
How would you classify the compound? B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
A. carbohydrate
D. Thymine
B. lipid
C. protein 555. Which is not a use or function of protein?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. nucleic acid A. forms enzymes and hormones
B. forms transport channel in cell mem-
550. Which biomolecule is the main source of brane
short term energy? C. forms structural proteins in the body
A. carbohydrate D. quick energy
B. lipid
556. This polysaccharide is referred to as di-
C. nucleic acid etary fiber; helps aid in the digestive pro-
D. protein cess in animals and humans.
A. cellulose
551. Which of the following is the process B. starch
used to bond the monomers together?
C. triglyceride
A. Hydrolysis
D. glycogen
B. Water Removal
557. are the main source of energy for
C. Dehydration Synthesis cells.
D. Water Synthesis A. Proteins
552. Carbohydrates are more easily metabo- B. Lipids
lized than lipids. However, on a gram-for- C. Nucleic acids
gram basis lipids provide cells with more-
D. Carbohydrates
A. nitrogen
558. Which of the following properties of wa-
B. proteins ter enables it to move from the roots to
C. structure the leaves of plants?
D. energy A. Water expands as it freezes.

B. Water is an excellent solvent.
553. What color changes the biuret reacton
C. Water exhibits cohesive and adhesive
in the presence of NaOH and sodium-
behavior.
potassium tetrate?
D. Water moderates temperature.
A. From blue to brown
559. Amino acids are joined together by chem-
B. From blue to green
ical bonds. When these bonds are broken,
C. From blue to red the process is called
D. From blue to purple A. coagulation

B. gelatinisation 565. A(n) is a protein that speeds up that

rate of a chemical reaction.
C. denaturation

A. Muscle
D. shortening
B. Ketone
560. A bond that is formed when a electron is
C. Alpha helix
transferred to form ions
D. Enzyme
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond 566. What is the most common and most abun-
dant disaccharide?
C. Metallic Bond
A. sucrose
D. Barry Bonds
B. maltose
561. Where do substrates bind on an enzyme? C. lactose
A. voltage-gated channels D. glucose
B. surface receptor
567. Which statement about polymers is not
C. calcium channels true?
D. active site A. polymers consist of more than one
type of monomer
562. What type of substance regulates the pH
B. polymers are broken down through hy-
of the body by releasing and capturing H+
drolysis
ions?
C. polymers are synthesized through de-
A. Alkalines
hydration synthesis
B. Buffers D. All are untrue
C. Neutralizers
568. Enzymes are examples of
D. Hydrogenators
A. proteins
563. he process to go from mRNA to a protein B. carbohydrates
is called
C. lipids
A. transcription
D. nucleic acids
B. rRNA
569. Having meals high in protein and carbo-
C. replication
hydrates will provide the body with the
D. translation following benefits
A. Build muscle and provides body with
564. Animals store carbohydrates as while
energy
plants store carbohydrates as
B. Helps immune system and provides ge-
A. glycogen, starch
netic information
B. sugar, starch
C. Provides long term energy & increase
C. starch, glucose the rate of reactions
D. glycogen, glucose D. Provides insulation & long term energy

570. These lipids are used for protection and 576. Denaturing an enzyme results in the en-
keeping water inside of plants/insects. zyme’s loss of:
A. steroids A. net electrical charge
B. triglycerides B. ability to catalyze a reaction
C. waxes C. storage of a large amount of chemical
energy
D. pigments
D. storage of inherited information
NARAYAN CHANGDER
571. The main function of a carbohydrate is 577. instant dipole - induced dipole forces are
A. waterproofing also called as
B. storing genetic info A. London dispersion forces
C. energy B. Hydrogen bond
C. Hydrophobic bond
D. immune system
D. Keesom force
572. What are the monomers of nucleic acids?
578. Which of following are storage polysac-
A. Monosaccharides charides?
B. Amino acids A. starch and glucose
C. Nucleotides B. chitin and cellulose
D. Triglycerides C. starch and glycogen
D. chitin and glycogen
573. Atoms joined together by SHARING elec-
trons are? 579. are salts dissolved in the body that
carry electrical impulses, like in the mus-
A. Ionic bonds
cles and nervous system.
B. Covalent bonds A. Electrolytes
C. Metallic Bonds B. Proteins
D. James Bonds C. Acids
574. Enzymes are D. Monosaccharides
A. nucleic acids 580. Which is the characteristic of water?

B. proteins A. Non polar molecule
B. Bad solvent
C. lipids
C. Amphiprotic
D. carbohydrates
D. Amphiphatic
575. Glucose molecules commonly enter cells
581. What is the bond called between a metal
through
and a nonmetal?
A. GLUT4 Transporters A. Ionic bonding
B. Symports with Sucrose B. Covalent bonding
C. Antiports with Na+ C. Hydrogen bonding
D. Na/K Pump action D. Atomic bonding

582. Which organelles that has a series of flat- C. -nic

tened membranes, involved in secretion D. -yme
proteins from cells and in reactions that

link sugar to other cellular components? 588. pH of coffee is considered as
A. Endoplasmic reticulum A. basic
B. Peroxisomes B. neutral
C. Golgi apparatus C. acidic
D. Mitochondria D. none of the above
583. Fats & oils are examples of this type of 589. These organic molecules are used by the
macromolecule body to store and release energy.
A. Carbohydrates A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids B. Lipids
C. Proteins C. Proteins
D. Nucleic Acids D. Nucleic Acids
584. CPS-I is used in which pathway: 590. The function of lipids is to

A. Urea cycle A. Main source of energy & provide struc-
tural support
B. TCA cycle
B. Store energy, provide and steroids
C. Purine synthesis
D. Pyrimidine synthesis tions, provide support, fight disease, regu-
585. Which 4 elements make up most of all liv- late cell processes, and provide hormones
ing matter? D. stores, transmits, & communicates ge-
A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen netic information
B. Carbon, Oxygen, Sodium, Potassium 591. Which polysaccharides are found in

plants only?
C. Carbon, Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen
A. glycogen and chitin
D. Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur
B. glycogen and cellulose
586. The element is found in all of the or-
C. starch and cellulose
ganic compounds.
D. chitin and starch
A. Iron
B. Nitrogen 592. Which best explains enzyme specificity?
C. Carbon A. An enzyme reacts best at a certain pH.
D. Oxygen B. An enzyme reacts best at a certain
temperature.
587. Which suffix is used in the names of most C. An enzyme is able to react with only
enzymes? one substrate.
A. -gen D. An enzyme is able to react with many
B. -ase different substrates.

593. What is the location in the cell for tran- 599. DNA & RNA are composed of what two
scription? general types of molecules?
A. nucleus A. purines & pyrimidines
B. cytoplasm
B. protactids & peroxides
C. ribosome
C. phosphotines and puradines
D. mitochondria
D. pantomimes & pastelines
594. The particles that are found in the nucleus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of an atom are 600. All organic compounds contain the ele-
A. neutrons and electrons ment , but inorganic compounds do not
B. electrons only have it.
C. protons and neutrons A. Sulfur

D. protons and electrons B. Carbon
595. Acquisition of Nitrogen form the atmo- C. Nitrogen
sphere requires breaking of bond.
D. Phosphorous
A. Triple bond
B. Double bond 601. This type of fat comes from animals and
is often solid at room temperature.
C. Single bond
D. Hydrogen bond A. saturated fat
596. Fats, oils, and waxes are examples of: B. unsaturated fat
A. proteins C. transfat
B. lipids D. phospholipid
C. carbohydrates
602. Phospholipid tails face , while the
D. nucleic acids
heads face
597. All enzymes end in -ase. Which means
A. the water, the center
that lactose (a carb) is broken down by
which enzyme? B. left, right
A. Galactase C. the center, the water
B. Sucrase D. up, down
C. Lactase
D. Fructase 603. What are the main atoms of a protein
molecule?
598. Which of the following is true regarding
lipids? A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxy-
gen
A. 2nd energy source
B. Nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous
B. padding & protection
C. keeps you warm C. Oxygen, sulfur, and nitrogen
D. all of the above D. Carbon, phosphorous, and hydrogen

604. Water is polar because C. Carbohydrates are a source of energy.

A. The unequal sharing of electrons gives D. Carbohydrates carry the genetic infor-

the water molecule a slight negative mation in plants.
charge near its oxygen atom and a slight
positive charge near its hydrogen atoms. 609. What are the monomers of carbohy-
drates?
B. The molecule has two poles, at which
the it is colder than other regions of the A. Monosaccahrides
molecule.
B. Triglycerides
C. The unequal sharing of electrons gives
C. Amino acids
the water molecule a slight negative
charge near its hydrogen atoms and a D. Nucleotides
slight positive charge near its oxygen
atom. 610. Water is attracted to the sides of a glass
tube due to which of its properties?
D. The water molecule is neutral.
A. Cohesion
605. Lactose is made up of D-galactose and
one unit of D-glucose joined by a gly- B. Adhesion
cosidic bond. C. Heat Capacity
A. a-1, 4 D. Universal Solvency
B. b-1, 4
611. Which sugars are best providing consis-
C. a-1, 2 tent energy over time?
D. b-1, 2 A. monosaccharides
606. It is the inactive portion of an enzymes? B. disaccharides
A. Holoenzymes C. polysaccharides
B. Apoenzymes D. none of above
C. Co-Enzymes
612. What are the monomer units of a nucleic
D. Metal Ions acid?
607. Where does glycolysis take place in cells? A. Sugar
A. Cytoplasm B. Fatty Acid
B. Mitochondrion C. Nucleotide
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Amino Acid
D. Ribosomes
613. The human body stores sugar (in muscles
608. Which statement is true about carbohy- & liver) in the form of -
drates?
A. cellulose
A. Carbohydrates are a major component
B. glucose
of the cell membrane.
C. starch
B. Carbohydrates form enzymes - biolog-
ical catalysts. D. glycogen

614. In a closed thermodynamic system, C. lipids:to regulate metabolic processes

A. The transfer of energy take place but D. carbohydrate:to provide quick-release
the transfer of temperature or mass does energy
not take place
620. Which of the following is NOT a B Vita-
B. The transfer of both energy and tem- min?
perature or mass take
A. B 1
C. Cannot exchange both energy and
B. B 12
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mass with its surroundings
D. none of above C. B 36
D. Folid Acid
615. Which is an example of a carbohyrdate?
A. wax 621. Starch and glycogen are important
polysaccharides. In what way are they
B. bread different?
C. DNA A. Starch is soluble in water while glu-
D. red meat cose is not.
616. Enzymes are composed of what organic B. Starch is composed of cellulose while
molecule? glycogen is composed of glucose.
A. Sugars C. Glycogen is found in animals while

starch is found in plants.
B. DNA
D. They both function as a source of en-
C. Proteins ergy.
D. Fatty Acids
622. Symbiotic Nitrogen Fixers create an
617. DNA and RNA are made up of nucleotides. anaerobic environment with the help of
Each nucleotide is composed of
A. sugar, nitrogenous base and an acid A. Hemoglobin
B. sugar, nitrogenous base and a phos- B. Dinitrogenase
phate group C. Nodulin
C. sugar, ATP, and a phosphate group D. Leghemoglobin
D. amino acids
623. Which of the following sugars will not
618. Vitamin C is present in: test positive in Molisch’s test?
A. tomatoes A. Triose
B. papaya B. pentose
C. guava C. ketohexose
D. all of the above D. aldohexose
619. Which organic molecule is paired with its 624. Which of these amino acids contains sul-
function? phur?
A. nucleic acid:to store energy A. Alanine
B. proteins:to provide insulation B. Lysine

C. Proline 630. The type of polysaccharide which serves

D. Cysteine as a strengthening tissue in the cell wall
of plants is

625. The maintenance of constant internal A. cellulose
body conditions is referred to as which of
the following terms? B. glucose
A. Buffering C. lactose
B. Neturalizing D. fructose
C. Homeostasis 631. Fluoride inhibits which enzyme?
D. Osmoregultion A. Transolase
626. Which of the following molecule can be B. Enolase
used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis? C. Cytochrome oxidase
A. Glycerol D. Cysteic acid
B. Maltose
632. Who helps clot the bleeds?
C. DNA
A. vitamin A
D. Lipoproteins
B. vitamin C
627. The basic building blocks (monomers) of
C. vitamin E
proteins are:
D. vitamin K
A. nucleotides
B. monosaccharides 633. Charged particles are called
C. triglycerides A. ions
D. amino acids B. atoms
628. Capillary Action C. elements
A. The property of water that allows ice D. compounds

to float on the surface of liquid water 634. It is needed for cellular and macrocellular
B. The property of water that allows it to syntheses?
dissolve polar substances A. Vit. B12
C. When water molecules stick to other
B. Vit. K
surfaces
C. Vit. E
D. The property of water that allows wa-
ter to move up a thin tube (or the stem of D. Biotin
a plant) by itself
635. What type of reaction is shown be-
629. Glucose stored in plants is commonly low?glucose + fructose < sucrose +
called water
A. starch A. dehydration
B. glycogen B. dehydrolysis
C. yeast C. hydrolysis
D. none of above D. covalent

636. The shape of the peptide is 642. In organisms, macromolecules are made
A. maintained by bonding between parts up of subunits. Which of these pairs cor-
of the polypeptide rectly describeshow a macromolecule is
constructed?
B. ultimately dependent on the primary
structure A. DNA is made up of nucleic acids.
C. necessary to function B. Protein is made up of amino acids.
D. all of the above C. Nucleic acids are made up of DNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
637. Steroids are an example of which D. Amino acids are made up of protein.
biomolecule?
A. carbohydrates 643. Which of the following statements about
enzymes is NOT true?
B. proteins
C. lipids A. enzymes are reusable
D. nucleic acids B. enzymes work best at specific pH and

temperatures
638. What are the monomer units of a lipid?
C. enzymes are lipids
A. Fatty acid
D. enzymes are proteins
B. Amino Acid
C. Nucleotide 644. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the
D. Sugar RNA strand that would be complementary
to the following strand:GTAGTCA
639. What are the monomer units of a carbo-
hydrate? A. ACGACTG
A. Starch B. CAUCAGU
B. Sugar C. CATCAGT
C. Amino Acid D. none of above
D. Nucleotide
645. Substances that contain carbon
640. It is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-
moval of water from a compound. A. Bioinorganic substances
A. catalyst enzyme B. Bioorganic substances
B. carbonic enzyme C. Biochemical substances
C. anhydrase D. Chemical substances
D. carbonic anhydrase
646. Any substance that is acted upon by an
641. Particles in an atom that are neutral and enzyme is called a(n)?
have no charge are
A. Coenzyme
A. negatrons
B. electrons B. Substrate
C. neutrons C. Vitamin
D. protons D. Polypeptide

647. The monomer or building blocks of pro- 653. Rochelle’s salt is used in which of the fol-
teins are lowing solutions?

A. monosaccharides A. Fehling’s
B. fatty acids B. Benedict’s
C. amino acids C. Seliwanoff’s
D. nucleic acids D. Molisch’s
648. Enzymes are 654. Which of these biological functions is
A. nucleic acids made more effective by the hydrogen-
bonding properties of water?
B. proteins
A. lubrication of joints as a means of pre-
C. lipids
venting injury
D. carbohydrates
B. sweating as a means of regulating
649. Which of the following is a food source body temperature
for a carbohydrate? C. transmitting signals and information
A. Apple as a means of body movement
B. Bread D. breathing as a means of taking in oxy-
C. Rice gen and releasing carbon dioxide
D. all of the above 655. Which of the big 4 is used for long-
term energy storage, insulation, and pro-
650. This type of bond results from an elec- tection?
tronegative atom bonded to a hydrogen at-
tracted to another electronegative atom. A. Lipids
A. polar covalent bond B. Proteins
B. nonpolar covalent bond C. Nucleic acid
C. hydrogen bond D. Carbohydrates
D. ionic bond 656. Which two body systems interact to send
651. What makes up the SIDES of a DNA lad- oxygen throughout the body?
der? A. Nervous and Digestive
A. nitrogen bases B. Excretory and Endocrine
B. sugars & phosphates C. Respiratory and Circulatory
C. genes & chromosomes D. Circulatory and Skeletal
D. RNA
657. Water is classified as an inorganic com-
652. A molecule that enzymes work on is? pound because it
A. an ensyme A. does not contain carbon
B. a substrate B. does not contain nitrogen
C. a product C. contains hydrogen
D. an active site D. contains oxygen

658. The enzyme and co-enzyme can besepa- 664. What molecule is used for LONG term en-
rated easily by: ergy storage?
A. Chemotheraphy A. carbohydrates
B. Surgery B. lipids
C. Dialysis C. protiens
D. Blood Transfusion D. nucleic acid
665. How many atoms/elements are in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
659. What is another name for enzymes?
CaCO3?
A. chemical catalysts
A. 3
B. microorganisms
B. 4
C. biological catalysts
C. 5
D. inorganic catalysts D. 6
660. Polysaccharides are polymers of 666. Viruses are made up of either DNA or
A. Carbohydrates RNA surrounded by a coating of protein.
B. Nucleic Acids When the two main substances that make
up a virus are broken into smaller frag-
C. Proteins ments, the fragments are
D. Lipds A. fatty acids and amino acids
661. This type of bond results from the gain or B. amino acids and simple sugars
loss of electrons. C. amino acids and nucleotides
A. polar covalent bond D. fatty acids and glycerol
B. nonpolar covalent bond 667. Which one is a non reducing sugar?
C. hydrogen bond A. Glucose
D. ionic bond B. Galactose
662. These lipids have all their carbon atoms C. Maltose
fully filled with hydrogen atoms; found in D. Sucrose
animal fats and dairy products.
668. Good fats -
A. unsaturated fats
A. cholesterol
B. saturated fats
B. unsaturated
C. waxes C. saturated
D. steroids D. trans fats
663. Which is the wrong polymer/monomer 669. Which type of RNA takes the instructions
pair? from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A. nucleic acids:nucleotides A. mRNA
B. lipids:monosaccharides B. tRNA
C. carbohydrates:monosaccharides C. rRNA
D. proteins:amino acids D. RNA polymerase

670. Why do oil and water not mix? 676. This vitamin is important for keeping
A. both water and oil are non polar body tissues, such as gums and muscles in
good shape. It is also a key if you get a

B. both water and oil are polar cut because it helps you heal. This vitamin
C. water is polar and oil is non polar also helps your body resists infections like
cold.
D. water is non polar and oil is polar
A. vitamin A
671. Which of the following is not a lipid?
B. vitamin C
A. triglyceride
C. vitamin D
B. phospholipids
D. vitamin K
C. steroids
D. enzymes 677. Water heating up slowly on the stove is
an example of
672. It is known as the study of enzymes? A. adhesion
A. Enzymology B. cohesion
B. Enzymatics
C. high heat capacity
C. Enzymtology
D. surface tension
D. Enzymotology
678. Fructose and sucrose should give positive
673. What is the characteristic of a pancreatic results for
juice as it contains a rich supply of bicar-
bonate? A. Fehling’s test
A. very basic B. Seliwanoff’s test
B. basic C. Molisch’s Test
C. acidic D. All of these

D. very acidic 679. Water attracts molecules and forms hy-
dration layers. It is also the best solvent
674. Amino acids with basic side chains.
in our body. This is because of water’s
A. Lysine
A. Polarity
B. Arginine
B. Cushioning
C. Histidine
C. High Heat Capacity
D. All the anteriors
D. Reactivity
675. Pyruvate carboxylase is located predom-
inantly in 680. Which is not a class of macromolecule?
A. mitochondria A. Lipid
B. cytosol B. Protein
C. extracellular C. Nucleic Acid
D. peroxisomes D. Amino Acid

681. Most carbohydrates in the human body C. both ends are slightly positive
are D. neither end is positive
A. Used as building blocks for proteins
687. What is the difference between DNA and
B. Used as a catalysts for reactions in RNA in terms of bases?
cells
A. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
C. consumed as a source of energy B. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
D. not easily absorbed into the blood- C. RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
stream
682. Type of matter made of two or more ele- D. none of above

ments
688. What is the isoelectric point?
A. element
A. The pH in which the amino acid is a
B. mixture zwitterion ion a
C. compound B. The resultant electrostatic charge is
D. none of above equal to 0
C. The pH in which the amino acid is a
683. Two examples of carbohydrates are zwitterion ion and the resultant electro-
A. fatty acids and glycerol static charge is equal to 0
B. fats and waxes D. The pH in which the amino acid is a
C. sugars and starches zwitterion ion and the resultant electro-
static charge is equal to 5
D. amino acids and alcohol
689. Which organelle is responsible for energy
684. When a protein is it can no longer production in eukaryotic cells?
function due to destruction of its sec-
A. nucleus
ondary, tertiary, and quartenary structure
B. cytoskeleton
A. dead
C. mitochondrion
B. inhibited
D. Golgi apparatus
C. denatured
690. What is the correct order to make a pro-
D. bonded
tein?
685. Which part of an amino acid determines A. Protein, DNA, RNA
what type it is (makes it unique)?
B. DNA, RNA, Protein
A. Carboxyl group C. Protein, RNA, DNA
B. Amine group D. none of above
C. R group
691. What happens when the sodium atom
D. H group loses an electron?
686. Which end of the water molecule has a A. It become negatively charged
slightly positive charge? B. It become positively charged
A. the oxygen end C. none
B. the hydrogen end D. none of above

692. Which of the following is not a unique 697. What determines the side chain struc-
property of water? ture?

A. Water molecules stick together by co- A. The role of the amino group in a pro-
hesion. tein.
B. Frozen water is less dense than liquid B. The role of the carboxyl group in a
water. amino acid.
C. Water molecules stick to other polar C. The role of the protein in a amino acid.
substances. D. The role of the amino acid in a protein.
D. Hydrogen bonds allow water to heat
and cool very quickly. 698. Made of monosaccharides
A. Carbohydrates
693. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
B. Lipids
about enzymes?
C. Proteins
A. they are proteins
D. Nucleic Acids
B. they can change shape when tempera-
ture or pH changes 699. The 20 different amino acids found in
C. they are used up in chemical reactions polypeptides exhibit different chemical
and physical properties because of differ-
D. they speed up the rate of chemical re- ent
actions
A. amino groups attached to an alpha car-
694. Phospholipids are used in the construc- bon
tion of the B. asymmetric carbons.
A. Ribosomes C. carboxyl groups attached to an alpha
B. Proteins carbon
C. Nucleus D. side chains (R groups).
D. Cell Membrane 700. Which organelles that has a continuous
membrane throughout the cell? The rough
695. What is the monomer of nucleic acids? part studded with ribosomes.
A. Glycerol A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Monosaccharides B. Peroxisomes
C. Amino Acids C. Golgi apparatus
D. Nucleotides D. Mitochondria
696. These are called the “quick energy” 701. Nitrogenous bases are joined by which
foods type of bond?
A. carbohydrates/sugars A. covalent bond
B. protein B. hydrogen bond
C. fats/lipids C. polar bond
D. nucleic acids D. non polar bond

702. Fructose tests positive in Fehling’s test B. Amino Acid

as it is a/an
C. Nucleic Acid
A. ketohexose
D. Carbohydrate
B. alpha- hydroxy ketohexose
C. aldohexose 708. A substance with a pH of 4 is considered
a(n)
D. pentose
A. base
NARAYAN CHANGDER
703. Sugars usually end in
B. neutral
A. -ose
C. acid
B. -ace
D. none of above
C. -ats
D. -ids 709. What molecule is a ringed structure with
carbon and nitrogen alternating in the ring.
704. What is/are the main elements of hydro-
It may be a single ring of a double ring?
carbons
A. carbohydrate
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen B. nitrogenous base
C. Nitrogen C. nucleotide
D. Hydorgen and Carbon D. amino acid
705. Which of the following is not a job of a 710. Water has both a positive and negative
protein side. We call it
A. Act as hormones and enzymes A. Polar
B. Do much of the work in cells and trans- B. Non-Polar
port materials
C. Soluble
C. Build tissues and muscles
D. store and transmit genetic information D. Hydrogen Bond
706. Bond angle of water 711. pH is the measure of in solution.

A. 104.6 degrees A. OH-
B. 105.4 degrees B. H+
C. 102.5 degrees C. NaCl
D. 104.5 degrees D. Electrons
707. A scientist removed the cell membranes
712. Example of bioinorganic substances
from bacteria cells in a culture. She an-
alyzed the cell membranes for specific A. Water
molecules. Which of these was probably
B. Inorganic salts
the most common type of molecule present
in the bacteria cell membranes? C. All of the above
A. Lipid D. None

713. Potassium iodide has to be added to pre- B. frucotose

pare an iodine solution as
C. maltose

A. it helps iodine to solubilize
D. sucrose
B. it forms triodide ion which is soluble in
water 719. Which of the following environmental fac-
C. iodine itself is sparingly soluble in wa- tors does NOT affect enzyme function?
ter A. enzyme or substrate concentration
D. All of these B. pH
714. Which best explains the function of the C. temperature
sequence of nucleotides? D. all of the above affect enzyme function
A. It provides energy.
720. Which of the following vitamins play a
B. It carries genetic information.
very key role in eyesight including night
C. It allows DNA to be successfully vision and color recognition?
copied.
A. vitamin A
D. It determines the shape of the DNA
molecule. B. vitamin B
C. vitamin K
715. These organic molecules are used by the
body to store the genetic code. D. all of the above
A. Carbohydrates 721. Study about the chemical process in living
B. Lipids things refers to?
C. Proteins A. Biology
D. Nucleic Acids B. Biomolecules
716. the major site of metabolism occurs in: C. Biochemistry
A. large intestine D. Chemistry
B. small and large intestine
722. Which energy level has the highest
C. small intestine amount of energy?
D. intesine A. first shell (closest the nucleus)
717. Which type of food gives you the most B. second shell
carbs?
C. third shell (farthest from nucleus)
A. salad and spaghetti
D. none of above
B. steak and shrimp
C. cheese and avocados 723. are examples of carbohydrates
D. peanut butter A. glucose & fructose

B. guanine & cytosine
718. C6H12O6 is the formula for which
sugar? C. glycine & glutamine
A. glucose D. samose & deanose

724. It supports carbohydrate, protein and fat C. A molecule that has the same atoms,
metabolism and may help support healthy but is structurally different.
hair, skin and nails D. A molecule that can be put together to
A. Biotin make bigger molecules.
B. Folic Acid 730. It is a system of fluid filled tubules or-
C. Cobalamin canals that coil and twist through thecyto-
plasm
D. Niacin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Ribosomes
725. Which function do lipids and carbohy-
B. Golgi Apparatus
drates have in common?
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
A. They store energy
D. Cell membrane
B. They help build proteins
C. They make up cell walls 731. None of the compounds in this group dis-
solve in water
D. They provide insulation
A. Carbohydrates
726. What is the function of lipids? B. Proteins
A. store genetic information C. Lipids
B. store energy (long-term) D. Nucleic acids
C. store energy (short-term)
732. are nucleic acid functions
D. build skin, hair, nails, muscles
A. store & transfer genetic info
727. In what process is mRNA synthesized? B. store & create energy
A. Transcription C. structure & energy for cells
B. Translation D. membrane structure and nutrient
C. DNA Replication transfer
D. Mitosis 733. Which biomolecule contains the most en-
ergy per gram?
728. The following are functions of proteins
except A. carbohydrates
A. transport molecules B. lipids
B. store energy C. proteins
C. defensive D. nucleic acids
D. structure 734. Amylase is a biocatalyst that hydrolyzes
starch into simple sugarmolecules in the
729. Which best describes an isomer? pancreas. Which best describes amylase?
A. A molecule that provides immediate A. lipid
energy.
B. protein
B. A molecule that is structurally the
same, but has a different number of C. fatty acid
atoms. D. carbohydrate

735. Which statement applies to hydrolysis A. Energy can neither be created nor be
destroyed, it can only be transferred from
A. breaks down polymers
one form to another

B. produces water
B. The entropy of any isolated system al-
C. creates glycogen from glucose ways increases
D. creates proteins from amino acids C. If two thermodynamic systems are in
thermal equilibrium with a third system
736. Creating a chain of sugar monomers separately are in thermal equilibrium with
would result in a molecule. each other
A. Protein D. the measurement of energy in a ther-
B. Starch modynamic system
C. Lipid 741. When an enzymes active site loses it
D. Nucleic Acid shape it stops working or stops break-
ing down other molecules. What is this
737. Which of these solutions is an acid? called?
A. Dish Soap:pH of 12 A. Denatured
B. Tomato Soup:pH of 4 B. Disinfected
C. Baking Soda:pH of 9 C. Dinosaur
D. Drain Cleaner:pH of 14 D. Diluted
738. Which best describes how an enzyme af- 742. What kind of bond is formed when a hy-
fects the rate of a chemicalreaction? drogen and a hydrogen shares a electron..
A. It increases the temperature of the re- A. Covalent Bond

action. B. Ionic Bond
B. It lowers the activation energy of the C. Metallic Bond
reaction.
D. Treasury Bond
C. It changes the products created in the
reaction. 743. Fat soluble Vitamins are:
D. It causes the reaction to proceed in an A. vitamin A
unfavorable direction. B. vitamin D
739. Involves in Lipid Synthesis and detoxifi- C. vitamin E
cation of drugs and pesticides D. all of the above
A. Ribosomes
744. What element must be present for a
B. Rough endoplasmic Reticulum molecule to be considered organic?
C. Smooth endoplasmic Reticulum A. nitrogen
D. Golgi Appartus B. water
740. The 2nd law of thermodynamics stated C. hydrogen

that the D. carbon

745. The building block of a Lipid is a 751. What elements make up carbohydrates?
A. fatty acid A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
B. saccharide B. sulfur, carbon, hydrogen
C. sugar C. glucose and fructose
D. amino acid D. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
746. Which level of protein structure detrem-
752. What elements are in a Lipid?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ines the function of a protein?
A. CHO
A. primary
B. secondary B. CHP
C. tertiary C. CHN
D. quarternary D. CH
747. What makes up the disaccharide sucrose? 753. What is the empirical formula of
a polysaccharide that has 5 sug-
A. glucose + glucose
ars?(C6H10O5)n
B. glucose + fructose
A. C12H22O11
C. glucose + galactose
B. C6H12O6
D. glucose + maltose
C. C6H10O5
748. The main function of proteins in the cell
D. C30H50O25
is
A. providing the body with energy 754. The building blocks of proteins are
B. structural components of the cell mem- A. lipids
brane
B. DNA
C. providing the instruction for synthesiz-
C. nucleotides
ing proteins
D. catalyzing chemical reactions in the D. amino acids
cell
755. Which of the following best summarizes
749. What food provides carbohydrates? the relationship between dehydration re-
actions and hydrolysis?
A. Eggs
A. Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary
B. Meat
system, and dehydration reactionsonly oc-
C. Fruit cur in the digestive tract.
D. Natural fats B. Hydrolysis creates monomers, and de-
hydration reactions break downpolymers.
750. What type of bond shares electrons?
A. covalent C. Dehydration reactions can occur only
after hydrolysis.
B. ionic
D. Dehydration reactions assemble poly-
C. hydrogen mers, and hydrolysis breaks downpoly-
D. van der waals mers.

756. What is the purpose of the protein called 761. Fructose, sucrose, and starch are all ex-
an enzyme? amples of

A. To speed up or catalyze a chemical re- A. Carbohydrates
action B. Lipids
B. Slow the rate of a chemical reaction C. Nucleic Acids
C. keep the rate of the chemical reaction D. Proteins
the same
762. The substances that enzymes react on are
D. have no effect on the rate of the chem-
called
ical reaction.
A. catalysts
757. In DNA, T is referred to as thymine, how-
B. polar molecules
ever, in RNA, it is represented by what
nitrogenous base? C. substrates
A. U (Uracil) D. reactants
B. C (Cytosine) 763. What happens at physiological pH (7, 4)?
C. A (Adenine) A. Most of the carboxyl groups are disso-
D. G (Guanine) ciated and most of the amino groups bind
O2
758. Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are B. Most of the carboxyl groups are disso-
part of what level of protein structure? ciated
A. primary C. Most of the carboxyl groups are disso-
B. secondary ciated create anion NH3-
C. tertiary D. Most of the carboxyl groups are disso-
ciated, create anion COO- and most of the
D. quaternary
amino groups bind H+ creating cation -
759. Which statement describes the major role NH3+
of lipids within a cell? 764. What is it called when two atoms share
A. They cause DNA to replicate electrons?
B. They move RNA in the cytoplasm A. Ionic bonding
C. They catalyze chemical reactions in B. Covalent bonding
the cell cytoplasm C. Hydrogen bonding
D. They are the main structural compo- D. Atomic bonding
nents of membranes
765. What are the common 3 states of mat-
760. What type of substance has an equal con- ter? (Yes, this is a lie, there are 4. In
centration of H+ and OH- ions? fact, the 4th, plasma, is the most common
A. Acid thing found in our entire universe because
all stars are made of it and the total mass
B. Base
of stars far outweighs the mass of other
C. Neutral objects in space. Grrrrr.)
D. none of above A. solid, liquid, gas

B. solid, gas, vapor B. monomers

C. liquid, solid, fire C. Proteins
D. density, solubility, boiling point D. enzymes
766. Molecule ‘z’ contains chains of fatty 772. Which is the monomer (building block) for
acids. What molecule is ‘z’? lipids?
A. nucleic acid A. fatty acids & glycerol
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. lipid B. nucleotide
C. protein C. amino acids
D. nucleotide D. monosaccharide
767. What are the monomers of lipids? 773. Industrial conversion of N2 to NH3 is car-
A. Monosaccharides ried out by which process?
B. Amino acids A. Howarth
C. Triglycerides B. Borlaug-Bodirsky
D. Nucleotides C. Erisman et al
768. Which of these foods is the best source D. Haber-Bosch
of calcium?
774. The elements found in nucleic acids but
A. Bread not carbohydrates and lipids are
B. Milk A. nitrogen and sulfur
C. Apples B. nitrogen and phosphorus
D. tomato C. carbon and hydrogen
769. These substances resist changes in pH. D. iron
A. acids 775. It is an example of gluconeogenesis
B. bases
A. biogeochemical cycle
C. buffers
B. glyoxylate cycle
D. enzymes
C. chemical cycle
770. Amino acids are monomers to which poly- D. oxalate cycle
mer
A. Carbohydrate 776. Large, nonpolar organic molecules that in-
clude waxes and store more energy per
B. Lipid gram than other organic compounds are
C. Protein
D. Nucleic Acid A. nucleic acids
B. lipids
771. The building blocks of organic compounds
are also known as C. carbohydrates
A. polysaccharides D. proteins

777. After performing Benedict’s test, which 782. Lipid is to insulation as carbohydrate is
colour in the resulting solution corresponds to
to the highest concentration of educing

A. insulation
sugar present?
B. quick energy
A. light blue
C. heredity
B. green
D. enzymes
C. orange
783. Which of the following are the 4 essen-
D. red tial elements that make up 96% of living
matter?
778. Which of the following is correct about
the molecule cholesterol? A. H, O, N, P
B. C, O, N, H
A. it is a polar molecule
C. C, O, S, H
B. it is a protein
D. O, S, P, N
C. it stores energy as a charbohydrate
784. A substance that is dissolved in a liquid
D. it is hydrophobic
is called the
779. Which macromolecule contains sulfur? A. solvent
A. Carbohydrates B. solution
B. Lipids C. solute
D. polar
C. Nucleic Acids
D. Proteins 785. You might end up with very weak bones
without sufficient quantities of this Vita-
780. It is a five-carbon sugar molecule that min
helps form the phosphate backbone of A. vitamin B
DNA molecules
B. vitamin C
A. Ribose C. vitamin D
B. Deoxyribose D. vitamin K
C. RNA
786. Which nutrient is our body’s MAIN source
D. DNA of energy?
A. Carbohydrates
781. Nucleotides
B. Fats
A. contain a sugar, nitrogen base, and
phosphate group C. Water
D. Minerals
B. are monomers of fats and polysaccha-
rides 787. What particles are found in the nucleus of
C. join together by covalently bonding an atom?
their bases A. electron and proton
D. are not present in DNA and RNA B. proton and neutron

C. electron and neutron 793. Changes in pH and temperature can dam-

D. none of above age an enzymes active site. What is this
called?
788. All of the following biological molecules A. reusable
are important factors in food and nutrition
except B. catalyst
A. Protein C. specific
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Carbohydrates D. denature
C. Lipids
794. Starch is a because it is made of many
D. Nucleic Acids sugars sub units
789. In the modern Periodic Table, elements A. monosaccarhides
are arranged by:
B. Disaccarhides
A. atomic mass
C. Polysaccharides
B. atomic number
D. Protein
C. valence electrons
D. number of isotopes 795. DNA and RNA are examples of:
790. Which type of lipid forms the primary A. proteins

structure of the cell membrane? B. nucleic acids
A. triglycerides C. carbohydrates
B. wax
D. lipids
C. cholesterol
D. phospholipid 796. From what are derived amino acids?
A. Inorganic acids
791. Which biochemistry area that describe
the structure and three dimensional ar- B. Organic acids in which the hydrogen
rangements of biomolecules? atom is substitued by the carboxyl group
A. Conformational C. Organic acids in which the hydrogen
B. Metabolism atom is substitued by the amino group.
C. Informational D. Organic acids in which the hydrogen

atom is substitued by the aldehyde group
D. none of above
797. organisms whose cells have a nucleus en-
792. Which substance is formed as a result of
closed within membranes
chemical breakdown of glycogen?
A. Cellulose A. Virus
B. Glucose B. Bacteria
C. Starch C. Eukaryotes
D. Glucagon D. Prokaryotes

798. Which is true about the structure of 803. Apples are considered as
starch molecules and proteinmolecules? A. acidic

A. Starches and proteins are both poly- B. basic
mers.
C. neutral
B. Starches and proteins are both amino
acids. D. none of the above
C. Starches and proteins are both built 804. When atoms share electrons unequally
from simple sugars.
D. Starches and proteins are both built A. a nonpolar covalent bond is formed.
from nucleic acids. B. an ionic bond is formed.
799. have the lowest (weakest) inter- C. a polar covalent bond is formed.
molecular forces of attraction. D. a hydrogen bond is formed.
A. Vander Waals forces 805. Substances that do not contain carbon
B. Hydrogen Bond A. Bioinorganic substances
C. Hydrophobic interaction B. Bioorganic substances
D. Covalent Bond C. Biochemical substances
800. What is Biochemistry? D. Chemical substances
A. The study of life 806. The human body maintains a temperature

of around 98.6 degrees at all times. En-
B. The study of chemicals
zymes are involved in almost every chem-
C. The study of the chemicals of life ical reaction in the body. Which of the fol-
D. none of above lowing describes the connection between
these two statements?
801. What are the three components of a nu- A. Enzymes function best at a specific
cleotide? temperature
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base B. The body needs to be warm to prevent
hypothermia.
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
C. The body is kept relatively warm to pre-
C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
vent too much enzyme action
D. sugar, phosphate, protein
D. There is no connection between the
two statements.
802. What bond occurs between and within
molecules which stabilize structures such 807. Which macromolecule is used for long
as proteins and nucleic acids? term energy storage?
A. Hydrogen bond A. carbohydrates
B. Hydrophobic bond B. lipids
C. Ionic bonds C. proteins
D. van der Waals forces D. nucleic acids

808. Joining two adjacent amino acids is called 814. increase the presence of H+ ions and
A. a peptide bond are below 7 on the pH scale.
B. a dehydration reaction A. Acids

B. Bases
C. a covalent bond
C. Electrolytes
D. all choices are correct
D. Salts
809. Adenine bonds with
815. Why is carbon able to be the building
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Guanine block of organic compounds?
B. Thymine A. able to make 4 bonds
C. Cytosine B. light in atomic weight
D. Adenine C. large
810. may be fats, oils, or waxes. D. non-reactive element
A. Lipids 816. Which of the following are termed as re-
B. Carbohydrates ducing sugars?
A. aldohexoses
C. Proteins
B. trioses
D. Nucleic Acids
C. ketohexoses
811. What happens during translation? D. none of above
A. Messenger RNA is made from a DNA
code 817. A disaccharide is a carbohydrate that con-
tains
B. The cell uses a messenger RNA code
A. 3 or more sugars
to make proteins.
B. one sugar
C. Transfer RNA is made from a messen-
ger RNA code. C. two sugars
D. Copies of DNA molecules are made. D. fatty acid chains
812. Which of the following is NOT a type of 818. Which macromolecule stores energy, in-
macromolecule? sulates us, and makes up the cell mem-
brane?
A. Water
A. lipids
B. Nucleic Acid
B. proteins
C. Protein C. carbohydrates
D. Lipid D. nucleic acids
813. building reactions needed to maintain life 819. In which type of bond are electrons trans-
is considered as: ferred?
A. catabolic A. Non-polar Covalent Bonds
B. lolabolic B. Polar Covalent Bonds
C. metabolic C. Ionic Bonds
D. anabolic D. Hydrogen Bonds

820. What is the chemical formula for water? 826. If Carbon’s atomic number is 6, how
A. H3O many protons Carbon have?

B. H2O2 A. 4
B. 2
C. H2O3
C. 6
D. H2O
D. 7
821. What is the essence of the denaturation?
827. You should eat grains a day
A. Desintegration of low-energy bonds
A. 4 or more a day
B. Desintegration of peptide bonds
B. 5 or more a day
C. Desintegration of amino acids
C. 6 or more a day
D. Desintegration of proteins
D. 7 or more a day
822. Bananas are considered as
828. Which one of the following will test neg-
A. acidic ative for Iodine test?
B. basic A. glycogen
C. neutral B. starch
D. none of the above C. cellulose
823. Breads, rice, & pasta are examples of D. amylose
foods that contain this macromoleucle
829. Which of the following does water NOT
A. Carbohydrates do?
B. Lipids A. lubricant
C. Proteins B. dissociates substances
D. Nucleic Acids C. energy molecule
824. Water is often called the “universal sol- D. essential component of metabolism
vent” because many substances can be dis- 830. Alli is having a problem with her hair and
solved in water. What property of water nails becoming fragile and breaking easily.
allows it to be such a versatile solvent? She went to the store to buy vitamins to
A. purity help her, but is unsure of what type of sup-
plement she needs. Which macromolecule
B. polarity
should Alli look for on the vitamin labels?
C. high heat capacity
A. carbohydrate
D. expansion upon freezing
B. nucleic acid
825. What is a biuret reaction? C. lipid
A. A colour reaction D. protein
B. A denaturation reaction 831. Which chemical is classified as an en-
C. An oxydation reaction zyme?
D. A reduction reaction A. Galactose

B. Lipid B. chemical composition of a specific

C. Protease amino acid can vary
D. Manganese dioxide C. sequence and number of amino acids

can be different in each protein
832. All carbohydrates are: D. same amino acid can have many differ-
A. made of amino acids ent properties
B. composed of carbon, hydrogen and 837. What does hydrolysis mean?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
oxygen atoms
A. breaking of water molecules
C. made of fatty acids
B. Formation by water
D. composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxy-
C. Splitting by water
gen and nitrogen atoms
D. Getting rid of water molecules
833. You suspect that a chemical that you are
testing in the lab is strongly acidic. What 838. What is the function of an enzyme?
might be its pH? A. enzymes break themselves into small
A. 14 pieces
B. enzymes slow down chemical reac-
B. 11
tions
C. 7
C. enzymes speed up chemical reactions
D. 2
D. enzymes combine products to form re-
834. All of the following are examples of lipids actants
except:
839. An example of a carbohydrate is
A. oil A. Butter
B. wax B. Cheese
C. fatty acid C. Steak
D. cellulose D. Bread
835. What do carbohydrates provide for the 840. Examples of lipids are
body?
A. Hair, Skin, Fingernails
A. Helps build and repair body tissue
B. Fats, Waxes, Oils
B. Helps hydrate your body
C. DNA, RNA
C. Provides your body’s main source of
D. Sugars, Cell Wall
energy
D. Helps vital processes 841. A scientist analyzing an unknown sub-
stance has determined that it consists only
836. Even though human proteins are synthe- of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. During
sized from only 20 different amino acids, experimentation, she determines that the
there are thousands of different proteins substance is soluble, or dissolves, in OIL
found in human cells. This great variety of but not in water. Which of the following
proteins is possible because the macromolecules is the unknown substance
A. size of a specific amino acid can vary most likely to be?
within a protein A. carbohydrate

B. lipid C. Fats
C. nucleic acid D. Sugar

D. protein 848. Types of disaccharides include following
except for?
842. Which of the following is not a mineral?
A. Maltose
A. iron
B. Glucose
B. zinc
C. Sucrose
C. Starch
D. Lactose
D. Flouride
849. Which biomolecule stores genetic infor-
843. What is the monomer of proteins? mation?
A. amino acids A. Carbohydrate
B. polypeptides B. Lipid
C. nucleotides C. Nucleic Acid
D. monosaccharides D. Protein
844. these are converted to glucose for use by 850. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
body cells
A. sucrose
A. fructose B. starch
B. ribose C. chitin
C. galactose D. amino acid
D. deoxyribose
851. molecular formula of deoxyribose
845. Which of the following in not a hydrate A. C6H12O6
of carbon?
B. C5H12O5
A. Dihydroxy acetone
C. C5H10O4
B. Acetic acid
D. C5H10O5
C. Deoxy ribose
852. Because enzymes speed up chemical reac-
D. All tions, they are called
846. Which is NOT a job of a lipid? A. catalysts
A. long term energy storage B. metabolism
B. water resistant C. viruses
C. insulation D. living
D. short term energy 853. The hydrolysis of ATP is a example of
847. adenosine triphosphate; gives energy to A. exergonic reaction
cells B. endergonic reactio
A. ATP C. Isothermic reaction
B. Enzymes D. All of the above

854. What colour forms the aromatic rings C. proteins

of phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
D. water
under the effect of nitric acid? What’s the
name of this process? 860. The most abundant polysaccharide on
A. Yellow, Xanthophobic reaction. Earth is
B. Yellow, xanthoproteic reaction. A. Glycogen
C. Blue, xanthophobic reaction. B. Starch
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Blue, xanthoproteic reaction. C. Cellulose
855. All matter contains - D. Pectin
A. living materials
861. When water is added to split a molecule,
B. water the reaction is known as a(n) reaction.
C. mass A. dehydration synthesis
D. amino acids
B. condensation
856. Amino acids all have the same general C. hydrolysis
morphology except for the:
D. super magical
A. Amino Group
B. Carboxyl Group 862. These are filament like structures made
C. ’R’ Group up of proteins present in cytoplasm
D. Carbonyl Group A. Cytosol

B. Cytoplasm
857. Which of the following elements are NOT
considered a main component of living C. Cytoskeleton
things? D. Inclusions
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium 863. Which is the strongest non covalent
bond?
C. Carbon
A. hydrogen bond
D. Sulfur
B. dipole-dipole interaction
858. Which of these makes cellulose nondi-
C. ionic interaction
gestible in humans?
A. a polymer of glucose subunits D. London dispersion force
B. a fibrous protein 864. Why does the shape of an enzyme deter-
C. the linkage between glucose mine its function?
molecules A. enzymes are specific to substrates
D. peptide linkage between amino acid (lock and key)
859. Your body’s first energy source. B. enzymes are activated by molecules
A. carbohydrates C. enzymes can work with any substrate
B. lipids D. enzymes are found everywhere

865. The basic unit of matter is 871. Why does ice float?
A. atom A. As water freezes, it expands and its

density decreases.
B. proton
B. As water freezes, it takes up more hy-
C. neutron
drogen from the atmosphere, causing it to
D. electron have a greater buoyancy.
C. As water freezes, air becomes trapped
866. Which carbohydrate provides the most
between the hydrogen bonds of water
bulk to the diet?
molecules.
A. Fructose
D. As water freezes, it takes up more oxy-
B. Lactose gen from the atmosphere, causing it to
C. Fiber have a greater buoyancy.
D. Sucrose 872. When electrons are shared between two

atoms, the bond formed is
867. Water is of your body.
A. ionic
A. 60-80%
B. covalent
B. 50% C. hydrogen
C. 25% D. peptide
D. 90-95%
873. A large molecule made up of multiple
868. These are composed of amino acids. monomers
A. proteins A. Polymer
B. lipids B. Polysaccharide
C. carbohydrates C. Macromolecules
D. nucleic acids D. Protein
874. Large bodies of water do not quickly fluc-

869. How do lipids function for cells?
tuate in temperature. Why?
A. store information
A. Water is a solvent.
B. store energy B. Water has a high heat capacity.
C. breakdown wastes C. Water acts as a buffer.
D. join with substrates D. Water is non-polar.
870. Which of the following is an organic com- 875. What property of water molecules
pound? causes surface tension and cohesion?
A. H2O A. Covalent bonds
B. C6H12O6 B. Bent shape
C. NH2 C. All non-metal atoms
D. OH D. Polarity

876. What forms nitrophenols? 882. pH of NaOH is

A. Red-colored complexes with silver A. 11
B. Red-colored complexes with copper B. 13
C. Red-colored complexes with mercury C. 14
D. yellow-colored complexes with copper D. 4
877. Molecule ‘y’ contains chains of amino 883. What are the building blocks of carbohy-
acids. What is molecule ‘y’?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
drates called?
A. nucleotide A. Monosaccharides
B. protein
B. Disaccharides
C. adenine
C. Polysaccharides
D. nucleic acid
D. Amino Acids
878. Which of the following is organic?
884. The central part of an atom that contains
A. H2O (water) the protons and neutron is called?
B. O2 (oxygen gas inhaled)
A. Cloud
C. C6H12O6 (glucose)
B. Orbit
D. CO2 (carbon dioxide)
C. Nucleus
879. Lactase is an enzyme that has a specific D. Valency
substrate it breaks down called lactose.
When lactase breaks down lactose both 885. A solution with a pH of 8.6 would be
galactose and are formed as products.
A. Acid
A. fructose
B. Base
B. glucose
C. Neutral
C. sucrose
D. Acid and Base
D. cellulose
886. What level of protein structure is the coil-
880. Lipids make up the main components of ing into a helix, or folding into a sheet?
A. Primary
A. enzymes
B. Secondary
B. cell membranes
C. genetic materials C. Tertiary
D. glucose D. Quaternary
881. Which pair of answers correctly matches 887. When a carbohydrate polymer breaks
the monomer and the polymer? apart using water it is called
A. Glucose- Protein A. hydrolysis
B. Amino Acid- Nucleic Acid B. carbolysis
C. Nucleotide - Nucleic Acid C. dehydration synthesis
D. Fatty Acid- DNA D. metabolism

888. Some people cannot digest milk prod- C. Bioorganic substances

ucts because they lack a specific enzyme. D. Building blocks
Which enzyme would be used to break

down the lactose in milk? 894. Enzymes are that chemical reac-
tions.
A. galactase
A. proteins, slow down
B. maltase
B. proteins, speed up
C. lactase
C. lipids, slow down
D. none of above
D. lipids, speed up
889. carbohydrate is found in exo skeleton
of insects 895. Conversion of Atmospheric Nitrogen into
Ammonia is called as
A. Pectin
A. Nitrogen Assimilation
B. Peptidoglycan
B. Nitrogen Fixation
C. Chitin
C. Nitrogen Absorption
D. Inulin
D. Nitrogen Adsorption
890. Which is not part of the net products of 896. How many nucleotides make a codon?
Glycolysis?
A. 1
A. 2 ATP
B. 2
B. 2 NADH
C. 3
C. 2 Pyruvate
D. 4
D. 2 CO2
897. Name the process:DNA Protein
891. Peptide bonds are formed when link A. Transcription
to form a polymer.
B. Central Dogma
A. nucleic acids
C. Translation
B. amino acids
D. Replication
C. monosaccharides
898. The is the particle in an atom that has
D. polypeptides
no charge.
892. One steroid, needed to stabilize the A. proton
plasma membrane, is B. neutron
A. Cholesterol C. electron
B. Fentenol D. none of above
C. Membranase
899. Glycolysis results in the total production
D. Triglycerol of:
893. A chemical substance found within a liv- A. 2 ATP
ing organism. B. 4 ATP
A. Biochemical substance C. 4 NADH
B. Bioinorganic substances D. 2 Acetyl CoA

900. It forms bonds by addition of the water 906. A compound is made of up

component. A. Two or more atoms
A. hydrolases B. Two or more different elements
B. helicase C. Two molecules
C. ligase D. Water and Oxygen
D. isomerases
907. Which of the following would be correctly
classified as a protein?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
901. Which is an organic compound found in
most cells? A. cellulose
A. glucose B. cholesterol
B. water C. an enzyme
C. sodium chloride D. starch
D. oxygen gas 908. Where does carbohydrate digestion be-
902. What is the function of the graduated gin?
Cylinder? A. In the nose
A. To hold liquid measured in volume. B. In the ear
B. To add liquid drop by drop C. In the mouth
C. Use to dispense small quality of liquid D. In the shoulder
D. none of above 909. Which 2 molecules form the sides (back-
bone) of the DNA ladder?
903. Vegetable oils, such as corn oil, belong to
which general class of organic substances? A. deoxyribose sugar and adenine
A. lipids B. deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen
bond
B. proteins
C. deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
C. carbohydrates
D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
D. salts
910. Which of the following is an incorrect as-
904. What is reducing sugar? sociation.
A. A reaction of monosaccharides A. Fatty acids, lipids
B. An oligosaccharide B. Nucleotides, nucleic acids
C. A function of polysaccharides C. Monosaccharides, lipids
D. A chemical property D. Amino acids, proteins
905. are the main components of fats and 911. Glycolysis has a net gain of how many
oils. ATP molecules?
A. lipids A. 2
B. amino acids B. 4
C. nucleic acids C. 6
D. carbohydrates D. none of above

912. The basic building block of proteins 918. NADH is produced by the oxidation of:
A. nucleotides A. G3P

B. amino acids B. DHAP
C. monosaccharides C. PEP
D. fatty acids D. 1, 3 BPG
919. This macro-molecule has a glycerol back-
913. is called carbohydrate though it is not
bone attached to hydrocarbon chains.
a hydrate of carbon
A. Carbohydrate
A. Acetic acid
B. Lipid
B. Glucose
C. Protein
C. Deoxy ribose
D. Nucleic Acid
D. Di hydroxy acetone
920. A carbohydrate that contain two
914. Normal human blood has a pH of monosaccharide units bound together by
a covalent bond.
A. 7.2
A. monosaccharide
B. 7.3
B. disaccharides
C. 7.4
C. saccharides
D. 7.5
D. polysaccharides
915. In order to enter cells and be useful to the 921. Which macro-molecules store and commu-
body, starch must be nicates genetic information?
A. absorbed through the skin A. Carbohydrates
B. broken down into fats and water B. Lipids
C. digested into simple sugars C. Proteins
D. converted to carbon dioxide D. Nucleic Acids
916. The is the positively charged particle 922. Which are the two building blocks of
in an atom. lipids.
A. proton A. polysaccharides and amino acids
B. neutron B. glycerol and fatty acids
C. electron C. glucose and fructose

D. peptide chains
D. none of above
923. Salts are an compound. They have
917. The first step of glycolysis results in the a positive and negative atom that make
formation of: them up.
A. Glucose-6-Phosphate A. Ionic
B. Fructose-6-Phosphate B. Covalent
C. ATP C. Hydrogen
D. 1, 6 Bis-PhosphoGlycerate D. Basic

924. Which of these statements describes C. The molecule that binds to a place
how monomers combine and create macro- other than the active site, and caused the
molecules? enzyme to carry out a task.
A. Amino acids combine to make pro- D. A water molecule that breaks down
teins. monomers.
B. Glucose molecules combine to make 929. Once a new product leaves an enzyme,
nucleic acids. the enzyme is unchanged and ready for the
next substrate. What is this called?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Nucleic acids combine to make starch.
D. Proteins combine to make glucose. A. reusable
B. catalyst
925. Dehydration synthesis removes water to
C. specific
join two simple sugars into a disaccharide.
This reaction is considered to be D. fragile
A. Anabolic 930. How are the subunits of proteins linked
B. Catabolic together?
C. Inefficient A. ionic bonds

B. amino acids
D. Entropic
C. monomers
926. How does this relate to evolution. D. peptide bonds
A. It does not.
931. What is a substance called if it speeds up
B. The more or less Cytochrome C the a chemical reaction?
more or less the organism has evolved.
A. reusable
C. The animal will die.
B. catalyst
D. none of above
C. specific
927. What happens when enzymes are heated D. fragile
to a high temperature?
932. Sugars (glucose) and starch are examples
A. The enzymes die. of this organic molecule:
B. The shapes of the enzyme are altered A. Carbohydrates
denature
B. Lipids
C. The enzymes’ amino acid sequence C. Proteins
changes.
D. Nucleic Acids
D. The enzymes remain the same
933. All organisms contain four organic
928. What is a substrate? molecules. Which group of molecules con-
A. The molecules that binds to the en- tains fatty acids and glycerol, is insoluble
zyme at the active site, and causes the en- in water, and functions in long term en-
zyme to carry out a task. ergy storage?
B. The molecule that does not fit into an A. carbohydrates

enzyme, and has no effect on the enzyme. B. nucleic acids

C. proteins 939. Carbohydrates are made of

D. lipids A. C H O

B. C H O N
934. An unknown molecule contains a sugar
and a phosphate group. It is likely what? C. C H O N P
A. carbohydrate D. C H O N S
B. protein 940. A researcher wants to determine the ef-

C. lipid fectiveness of an enzyme at various tem-
peratures. Which of the following would
D. nucleic acid best help the researcher determine how
well the enzyme is working?
935. What type of reaction is shown be-
low?monomer + monomer → polymer + A. The researcher should measure the
water rate of the reaction.
A. dehyrolysis B. The researcher should measure the

amount of enzyme remaining after the re-
B. dehydration action.
C. hydrolysis C. The researcher should measure the
D. covalent temperature during the reaction.
D. The researcher should measure the
936. First law of thermodynamics, also known amount of product at the beginning of the
as reaction
A. law of conservation of energy
941. all the 20 amino acids answer the Ninhy-
B. law of conservation of entropy drin Test except
C. law of conservation of studies A. glycin
D. All of the above B. tryptophan
937. The bond between amino acids within a C. Proline

protein chain is called a D. valine
A. peptide bond 942. Which molecule is an isomer of
B. hydrogen bond Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (G3P)?
C. ionic bond A. DHAP
D. sulfur bridge B. PEP

C. Pyruvic Acid
938. Which of the following foods are a good
D. 1, 3 BPG
source of Vitamin B?
A. whole grains, such as wheat and oats 943. Carbohydrates are mostly soluble in
B. fish and seafood A. protein
C. eggs, dairy products, like milk and yo- B. water
gurt C. oil
D. all the above D. small quantities only

944. Which of these is NOT true? or their action is best illustrated by this
A. Enzymes can denature (change shape) model?
when the temperature gets too high. A. The sensitivity of enzymes to changes
B. Enzymes can only be used once in a in pH
chemical reaction. B. The change in activation energy the en-
C. Extreme pH can denature enzymes. zymes cause
D. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. C. The specificity of fit between an en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
zyme and a substrate
945. What is a polypeptide with more than
D. The increase in reaction rate due to
100 amino acids?
the action of the enzyme
A. Amino acid
B. Polypeptide 950. Which type of substances serves as a cat-
alyst for reactions that break large food
C. Oligopeptide molecules intosmaller useful molecules?
D. Protein A. enzymes
946. Which colour form the amino acids that B. vitamins
cointauins an alfa-amino group in a reac-
C. lipids
tion with ninhydrine?
D. nucleotides
A. violet-red
B. violet-blue 951. Reactions that break down molecules
C. red-blue A. anabolic
D. yellow-blue B. burning
947. Substances that have a pH more than 7 C. catabolic
are considered: D. thermal
A. acidic
952. What is Comparative Biochemistry
B. basic
A. The study of relationships of evolution
C. neutral
between organisms.
D. none of above
B. The study of disease.
948. These organic molecules are used by the C. The study of chemistry and how it af-
body for long term storage of energy and fects disease.
make up the structure of cell membranes.
D. none of above
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids 953. Retinol can be found in all of the follow-
ing, EXCEPT
C. Proteins
A. liver
D. Nucleic Acids
B. meat
949. A lock and key is sometimes used as
C. yellow fruit
a model to promote understanding of en-
zymes. Which characteristic of enzymes D. eggs

954. An unique carbohydrate found in bacterial 960. This type of fat is can be found in plants
cell wall is and is often liquid at room temperature.

A. Peptidoglycan A. saturated fat
B. Cellulose B. unsaturated fat
C. Pectin C. monosaccharide
D. All of the above D. polysaccharide
955. Phospholipids make up the cell’s 961. Simple sugars are also called , the
A. Mitocondrea monomers of all carbohydrates.
B. Cell Wall A. monsaccharide
C. Cell Membrane B. disaccharide
D. DNA C. polysaccharide
956. Which of the 4 major macromolecules pro- D. starch
vides a quick burst of energy?
962. Enzymes are types of
A. Carbohydrates
A. Lipids
B. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Proteins
C. Nucleic Acids
D. Nucleic Acids
D. Carbohydrates
957. Which property of water allows it to
stick to other water molecules and create 963. What makes a compound organic?
surface tension?
A. it must contain hydrogen atoms
A. Cohesion
B. its only found in living things
B. Adhesion
C. it must contain carbon atoms
C. Heat Capacity
D. it must contain water
D. Universal Solvency
964. Which of the following should give a pos-
958. Polysaccharides are use in the body as a itive result for Seliwanoff’s test?
form of
A. Fructose
A. Building Block
B. glucose
B. Storage
C. Quick Energy C. starch
D. Instructions D. lactose
959. Which of the following are NOT a prop- 965. It is a lipid bi-layer. It also consistof pro-
erty of water that makes it vital to life? teins and small amountsof carbohydrates
A. Density A. Nucleus
B. Heat capacity B. Cell Membrane
C. Polarity C. Cytoplasm
D. Solvent ability D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

966. Makes up the plant’s cell wall and is fiber 972. The property where water molecules are
in our diets attracted to other water molecules.
A. Starch A. adhesion
B. Glycogen B. capillary action
C. Cellulose C. cohesion
D. Chitin D. universal solvent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
967. Two classes of hydrocarbons 973. The monomer for a lipid is called
A. Aliphatic and Aromatic A. Amino acid
B. Alkenes and Alkynes B. Nucleic acid
C. Saturated and Unsaturated C. Simple Sugar
D. none of above D. Fatty acid
968. Which kingdoms contain Eukaryotes? 974. Enzymes work in the body by chemi-
A. Bacteria and Archaea cal reactions.
B. Bacteria and Animalia A. Slowing down
C. Fungi and Protista B. Catalyzing
D. Archaea and Plantae C. Simplifying

D. Eliminating
969. Which of the following molecules stores
hereditary information? 975. Seliwanoff’s Resorcinol Test gives a posi-
A. lipid tive result with all of below sugers except
B. nucleic acid A. ployscharides of Xylose
C. protein B. polysacharides of fructose
D. carbohydrate C. sorbose
D. Glactose
970. ATP is used as simple cell
A. Energy 976. What is Carbon’s atomic number?
B. Building Blocks A. 4
C. Enzymes B. 6
D. Vitamins C. 3
D. 5
971. This law states that matter cannot be cre-
ated or destroyed. 977. Which of these describes hydrolysis?
A. Law of Superposition A. M + M → P + WATER
B. Law of Gravity B. P + WATER →M+M
C. Law of Conservation of Mass C. BOTH OF THESE SHOW HYDROLYSIS
D. Law of Stratigraphy D. NEITHER OF THESE

978. What are the building blocks of proteins? 984. ATP synthase in the inner mitochondrial
A. amino acid and chloroplast membrane

B. fatty acid A. cholesterol
C. nucleotide B. triglyceride
D. lipid C. phospholipid
D. protein
979. What bond has a very weak interaction
between non-polar molecules that is im- 985. What can reduce or destroy enzyme ac-
portant in protein shape and membrane tivity?
structure?
A. Excessive heat
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Strong acid
B. Hydrophobic bond
C. Strong base
C. Ionic bonds
D. All of the above
D. van der Waals forces
986. cellulose, glycogen, starch, or chitin
980. Which is not a use or function of lipids?
A. carbohydrates
A. forms hormones
B. lipids
B. forms the cell membrane
C. proteins
C. provides warmth and cushioning
D. nucleic acid
D. quick energy
987. Fats are specialized lipid molecules, and
981. What is the highest level of protein struc- enzymes are specialized protein molecules.
ture is seen in insulin? How dothe functions of fats and enzymes
A. Primary differ?
B. Secondary A. Fats are structural building materi-
C. Tertiary als, while enzymes are transportation
molecules.
D. Quaternary
B. Fats provide support for cells, while
982. The anthocyanin indicator turns when enzymes lower the pH of gastric fluids.
the solution is considered basic.
C. Fats regulate body functions, while en-
A. green zymes denature invasive bacteria.
B. purple D. Fats are storage molecules, while en-
C. red zymes are catalytic molecules.
D. orange 988. Can you identify this Vitamin? This vita-
983. What are the building blocks of carbohy- min maintains a lot of your body’s tissues,
drates? like the ones in your eyes, skin and liver.
It protects your lungs from becoming dam-
A. simple sugars (glucose) aged by polluted air and is important for
B. amino acids the formation of red blood cells.
C. glycerol A. vitamin K
D. DNA B. vitamin E

C. vitamin C 994. What are the monomers of a polysaccha-

ride?
D. vitamin A
A. glycerol
989. Which macromolecule is made of simple B. amino acid
and complex sugars?
C. fatty acid
A. lipids
D. glucose
B. proteins
995. Made of monomers of nucleotides
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. carbohydrates
A. Carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids B. Lipids
990. on an enzyme, the site that attaches to a C. Proteins
substrate D. Nucleic Acids
A. Polypeptide 996. Which of the following substances would
B. Base have the greatest concentration of H+
ions?
C. Substrate
A. Ammonia with pH 13
D. Active site
B. Water with pH 7
991. The central region of an atom where its C. Milk with pH 5
neutrons and protons are is its D. Lemon juice with pH 2
A. nucleus
997. Which of the following is not an RNA ni-
B. electron cloud trogenous base?
C. core A. Adenine
D. proton B. Thymine
C. Guanine
992. A particle that moves around the nucleus D. Uracil
is a(n)
A. Proton 998. cells aggregate to form tissues or organs
and these are further organized to form
B. Neutron whole organism.
C. Electron A. Prokaryotes
D. Quark B. Eukaryotes
C. Fungi
993. Which is the monomer (building block) for
D. Bacteria
nucleic acids?
A. amino acid 999. It is an enzyme that catalyzes the decom-
position of carbonic acid into carbon diox-
B. fatty acid & glycerol ide and water
C. nucleotide A. carbonic anhydrase
D. monosaccharide B. enzymes

C. catalysts A. The oxygen end is slightly negative and

D. anhydrase the hydrogen end is slightly positive

B. The hydrogen end is slightly negative
1000. Debye Interaction deals with ?
and the oxygen end is slightly positive
A. a permanent and induced dipole
C. The hydrogen and oxygen ends change
B. Induced and induced dipole in polarity
C. Two permanent dipole
D. Because it is hydrophobic
D. instant dipole - induced dipole forces
1005. RNA differs from DNA in that:all of
1001. What element do organic compounds
these
contain?
A. hydrogen A. it has a different kind of sugar
B. oxygen B. it has uracil

C. carbon C. it is single stranded
D. sulfur D. all of these
1002. may be saturated or unsaturated
1006. Which of the following are the
A. carbs monomers of lipids?
B. lipids
A. glycerol and fatty acids
C. proteins
B. nucleotides
D. nucleic acids
C. amino acids
1003. Which are the denaturising factors?
D. monosaccharides
A. Elevated temperature, organic sol-
vents, acids, alkalis, heavy metal ions, 1007. Which is a monomer of carbohydrates?
concentrated solutions of urea or guani-
dine hydrochloride A. amino acid
B. Elevated temperature, acids, alkalis, B. monosaccharide
heavy metal ions, concentrated solutions
of urea or guanidine hydrochloride C. nucleotide
C. Elevated temperature, organic sol- D. polysaccharide

vents, alkalis, heavy metal ions, concen-
trated solutions of urea or guanidine hy- 1008. What is the reason why oil and water
drochloride don’t mix?
D. Elevated temperature, organic sol- A. Oil is too heavy to mix with water
vents, acids, heavy metal ions, concen-
trated solutions of urea or guanidine hy- B. Water can only mix with polar
drochloride molecules
C. Water can only mix with non-polar
1004. Why can water have no net charge but
molecules
have slight charges in different parts of
the molecule? D. Oil is too light to mix with water

1009. Living organisms are made of organic 1013. Which macromolecule is used for short
and inorganic substances. How can each term energy storage?
of these substances be classified based on A. carbohydrates
the complexity of their molecules?
B. lipids
A. organsims are made of molecules
C. proteins
B. inorganic substances, such as water,
mineral salts, molecular oxygen and car- D. nucleic acids
bon dioxide, are small molecules made up
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1014. What is the atomic number for an ele-
of few atoms. Organic substances, in gen-
ment with three protons?
eral, such as glucose, fatty acids and pro-
teins, are much more complex molecules A. 2
made of sequences of carbons bound in B. 1
carbon chains. The capacity of carbon to
C. 3
form chains is one of the main chemical
facts that allowed for the emergence of D. 6
life on the planet.
1015. The part of the atom that carries a neg-
C. biochemistry is nonsense ative charge is
D. none of above A. the proton
1010. Which of the following is an example of B. the neutron
a hydrogen bond?
C. the electron
A. The peptide bond between amino acids
D. the nucelus
in a protein
B. The bond between an oxygen atom and 1016. What kind of charge do protons have?
a hydrogen in the carboxyl group of a fatty A. positive
acid.
B. negative
C. The bond between Na+ and Cl- in salt
C. neutral
D. The attraction between a hydrogen of
one water molecule and the oxygen of an- D. none of above
other water molecule.
1017. What is the first enzyme that trans-
1011. Which of the following is a topic that forms glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
would not help with the concept of bio- (G6P)?
chemistry? A. Hexokinase (HK)
A. DNA B. Triose phosphate isomerase (TIM)
B. Enzymes C. Phosphoglycerate kinase (PGK)
C. Niches
D. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)
D. Receptors
1018. A fatty acid is unsaturated if it
1012. Gluconeogenesis predominanly occurs is
A. contains hydrogen
A. liver
B. contains carbon - carbon double bonds
B. brain
C. contains a carboxyl group
C. sketelal muscle
D. skeletal and cardiac muscles D. bonds to a nucleotide

3. Horticulture
3.1 Principles of Horticulture

1. Mass flowers used in floral designs have: C. environment (soil)
A. flowers on the end of stems D. seed coat
B. small sprays of flowers
5. Part of a plant is removed to grow another
C. tall spikes with florets plant for propagation
D. unique shapes or colors A. cutting
2. In North Carolina, a tree that has no leaves B. planting
in the winter is:
C. transplanting
A. deciduous
D. dividing
B. evergreen
C. herbaceous 6. What should you do first if you get cut or
injured?
D. turgid
A. Put a band aid on it
3. Propagating nursery plants using a piece
B. Wash your hands
of stem or root is known as:
C. Tell the teacher
A. cutting
D. None of these
B. grafting
C. layering 7. When flowers look too big for contain-
D. budding ers, the design principle the floral designer
failed to follow is:
4. The protects the undeveloped plant
A. balance
(embryo) against injury and from drying
out. B. focal point
A. flower C. repetition
B. cotyledon D. Rhythm

3.1 Principles of Horticulture 438
8. The part of biology that deals with plants C. Pole pruner

A. annual D. Pruning shears
B. forestry
14. Foliages such as sprengeri ferns are used
C. biennial
in floral designs to:
D. botany
A. add mass
9. which of these jobs requires college educa- B. create outline
tion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. establish width
A. greenhouse employee
B. national park employee D. fill empty spaces
C. farm management consulting 15. What type of immersion Supervised Agri-

D. garden shop owner cultural Experience would have an entry
recorded as engaging local stakeholders?
10. What type of shoes need to be worn in the
greenhouse? A. placement
A. Sandals B. experimental
B. Closed Toe C. service learning
C. Flip Flops D. entrepreneurship
D. Slides
16. Find the perimeter of a square shaped rose
11. Angela has a part-time job working after garden with sides measuring 6.5 ft each.
school and on Saturdays at a local florist.
A. 13.0 ft
In what type of Supervised Agricultural Ex-
perience is Angela participating? B. 19.5 ft
A. analytical C. 42.25 ft
B. improvement D. 26.0 ft
C. placement
D. supplementary 17. a balled and burlapped plant should be
picked up and carried by the:
12. Plants that take three or more years to A. Buds
complete their life cycle are:
B. Dead flowers
A. annuals
B. biennials C. Limbs
C. millenniums D. Root ball
D. perennials
18. Three primary nutrients
13. Becky needs to cut some rose srems from A. Magnesium, Sulfur, Potassium
her bed of roses. What tool should she
use? B. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Calcium
A. Axe C. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
B. Chain saw D. Nitrogen, Calcium, Potassium

19. When cleaning the greenhouse, you should A. Chewing

A. Sweep all the dirt and debris from the B. Sponging

floor in your area C. Piercing and sucking
B. Make sure the tables are organized D. Siphoning
C. Put all materials back in their desig-
nated area 25. What is the genus name for all boxwoods?
D. All of the above A. buxus

B. ilex
20. Sherry SAE is to identify an agricultural
problem that cannot be solved by exper- C. acer
iments.It does involve designing a plan D. quercus
to investigate and analyze the problem .
What type of SAE is Sherry working on? 26. If a fertilizer formula contains the follow-
ing label, 24 - 8 - 16. How many pounds
A. Analytical of Potassium are we applying if we broad-
B. entrepreneurship cast 500 pounds on our pasture?
C. experimental A. 120
D. exploratory B. 40
C. 80
21. What is the female part of the flower
called? D. 240
A. pistil 27. What can Vijay add to his soilless mix at
B. stamen planting to add weight and keep his gallon
nursery stock from blowing over?
C. leaf
A. bark
D. petal
B. peat moss
22. What are the two main types of roots?
C. perlite
A. Tap and tape
D. vermiculite
B. Tap and Fibrous
28. The component of the horticulture instruc-
C. Long and short
tional program that gives students an op-
D. none of above portunity to explore interests and gain
work experience is the:
23. refers to roots arising from an unusual
place; roots growing from stems or leaves A. classroom
A. adverse B. FFA
B. secondary C. state FFA convention.
C. phloem D. Supervised Agriculture Experience.
D. adventitious 29. if you become a greenhouse employee,

what is one of your job responsibilities
24. Insects with this type of mouthpart are
most likely to damage plants by carrying A. aerate the soil
and spreading diseases. B. produce out-of season plants

C. work with customers 35. form flowers are used in floral design to:
D. maintain the grass A. add mass
30. Field-grown, container, and PNP plants B. cover frame

should be watered in the morning for: C. create focal point
A. maximum absorption D. establish outline
B. minimum absorption 36. What does a biennial plant do in it second
year of life?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. more water pressure
D. less water pressure A. it starts growing
B. it just dies randomly
31. If a turfgrass farm has total assets of
$250, 000 and total liabilities of $150, C. it starts flowering
000, which number should be recorded on D. none of the above
the net worth line of the financial state-
ment? 37. Caroline is careful to use tissue culture
in laboratory conditions that are aseptic.
A. $50, 000
Therefore, the laboratory environment is:
B. $100, 000
A. dirty
C. $150, 000
B. humid
D. $400, 000
C. pretty
32. What type of garden needs windbreaks? D. sterile
A. Vertical
38. How many points of contact should you
B. Raised bed have when using a ladder
C. rooftop A. 4 points of contact
D. container B. 3 points of contact
33. India has emerged as a world leader in pro- C. 2 points of contact
ducing a variety of D. 1 points of contact
A. Fruits and vegetables
39. Trees that keep their functional leaves
B. Vegetables and flowers throughout the year are:
C. Flowers and fruits A. auxins
D. none of above B. deciduous
34. Is Turf Grass Management the establish- C. evergreen
ment and care of a grass surface in a res- D. inhibitors
idential, business, sports- facility, or park
setting? 40. An SAE that identifies a problem that can-
not be solved by experiments, and in-
A. Yes volves designing a plan to investigate and
B. No analyze the problem is:
C. Maybe A. analytical
D. none of above B. entrepreneurship

C. experimental 46. Which cool-season grass grows from rhi-

D. exploratory zomes and has fine-textured, medium- to
dark-green leaves?

41. Which is the best inorganic growing me-
A. Bermuda
dia?
B. Centipede
A. bark
C. Kentucky bluegrass
B. compost
C. peat moss D. St. Augustine
D. vermiculite 47. Which describes the loss in value of ma-

chinery or buildings due to age, use, or
42. Which of the following is NOT an environ-
change in market demands?
mental benefit of plants?
A. assets
A. Provide shade
B. Increase erosion B. depreciation
C. Provide cooler temperatures C. inventory

D. Filter air D. profit
43. Principles of design for Focal Point are? 48. Which demonstrates the “proportion”
landscape design principle?
A. Balance and equilibrium comparing
one part to other parts or to the whole A. Install foundation plantings.
B. Overall size compared to other flow- B. install privacy fence
ers, surrounds, or the design itself C. maintain size relationship between
C. Area of interest formed by size, color, plants
texture, spacing, shape, etc.
D. Repeat colors, construction materials,
D. Flow or movement of the eye through or plants.
a design
49. Which of the following is NOT a form of
44. Angela has a part time job working after propagation?
school and on Saturdays at a local florist.
In what type of SAE is Angela participating A. pruning
in B. cuttings
A. analytical C. grafting
B. improvement D. tissue culture
C. placement
50. what should you do to prepare for a job
D. supplementary interview
45. Something tangible of value that a person A. all of them
owns is:
B. anticipate questions the interviewer
A. a liability. will ask you
B. Ban asset. C. write down several things you do well
C. equity D. find out about the interviewing com-
D. .net worth pany

51. Mortgages that are not due this year are nursery and shadows employees to learn
entered on a financial statement as: about careers?
A. current assets A. Analytical
B. current liabilities B. Entrepreneurship
C. non-current assets C. Exploratory
D. non-current liabilities D. Supplementary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
52. Which of the following describes aesthet-
ics? 57. Which medium-evergreen shrub has
yellowish-green new leaves, and “ to 1”
A. curative long and “ to “ wide medium-green ma-
B. efficiency ture leaves?
C. beauty A. Grape ivy
D. hobby B. Japanese boxwood
53. What area of horticulture is concerned C. Thorny elaeagnus

with growing, selling, designing, and ar- D. Warneckii dracena
ranging flowers
A. Nursery production 58. Nutrients that a plant needs in large
amounts
B. Landscaping
A. Micro Nutrients
C. Turfgrass management
D. Floriculture B. Fertilizer
C. Soil
54. The beginning of the food chain for all liv-
ing things is the process of photosynthesis. D. Macro Nutrients
Most photosynthesis takes place in plant:
59. A shallow circular transparent dish with
A. flowers flat lid, that has wet paper and solution
B. leaves containing the seeds that should be grown.
C. roots A. Rag-doll method
D. stems B. Seed box method
55. Which type of immersion Supervised Agri- C. Petri dish method
cultural Experience requires a research D. Floating in water method
plan to include all safety requirements?
A. placement 60. Which of the following was NOT listed as
B. experimental a career in the plant production industry?
C. service learning A. Quality control inspector
D. school based enterprise B. Herdsmen

C. Landscape service
56. What type Supervised Agricultural Experi-
ence is Jose doing if he visits a wholesale D. Food production

61. Emily has a business that installs land- 66. The landscape designer who uses plants
scape timbers around raised bed gardens with only a few different colors or shapes
for home owners. Mrs Jones hires Emily’s is demonstrating the landscape design

company to edge her beds that measure principle of:
16 ft long and 4 ft wide. How many feet A. balance
of landscape timbers does Emily need to
buy for this job? B. focalization
A. 16 C. proportion
D. simplicity
B. 20
C. 32 67. Using a socket pot to hold a potted plant
is what type of production?
D. 40
A. Pot-in-pot
62. Mass flowers are used in floral designs to B. Container
add mass and to: C. Field-grown
A. create the accent or focal point D. Greenhouse
B. draw attention to the focal point
68. Joel operates a design-build landscape
C. fill empty spaces and hide the frame business, but he wants to get someone
D. outline the shape and size else to install the pools, stonework, and
electrical work. Who should he get to do
63. a device designed to take the place of a this work?
sprinkler head for trickle irrigation A. floral designer
A. emitter B. landscape designer
B. spray heads C. landscape maintenance crew
C. rotary irrigation D. subcontractor
D. sprinklers 69. Which FFA CDE will help develop knowl-

edge and skills needed to effectively par-
64. Garden Centers are retail outlets that sell ticipate in a horticulture organization’s
A. Biology kits business meeting? Hint:this process is
used in most professional, government,
B. Plants and garden supplies and civic organizations.
C. Fruits and Nuts A. Floriculture
D. none of above B. Introduction to Horticulture
C. Nursery/Landscape
65. Fruit with leather skin, juicy and high in
vitamin C. D. Parliamentary Procedure
A. tropical 70. Which cool-season grass is used on golf

greens but requires cooling fans on the
B. citrus
greens during the hot weather of summer
C. vine in the South?
D. melon A. Tall Fescue

B. Bentgrass 76. This type of SAE deals with planning, im-

plementing, operating and assuming finan-
C. St. Augustine
cial risks in an agricultural business or
D. Bahia grass farming activity.
A. Placement
71. The cultivation, processing and marketing
of flowers, ornamental plants, vegetables, B. Entrepreneurship
fruits and nuts is: C. Improvement
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. floriculture D. Supplementary
B. pomology 77. The Purpose of the SAE is to
C. olericulture A. volunteer in your community.
D. horticulture B. gain work experience and life skills in
agriculture.
72. Which SAE record heading would be used
by Hannah is she has an entrepreneurship C. pass this class.
type SAE? D. communicate to people.
A. hypothesis 78. Which of the following sectors of the econ-
B. review of literature omy are NOT affected by horticulture?
C. training agreement A. mining

B. plant production
D. type of enterprise
C. sales and marketing
73. What does GMO stand for? D. research
A. Genetically Modified Organism
79. Governments can predict areas of food in-
B. Generically Modified Organism security and vulnerability using
C. Genetic Magnification Organization A. Poverty
D. Global Microbe Organization B. Employment level
C. Software tools
74. What is the genus name for all hollies?
D. none of above
A. Quercus
80. A tree with the scientific name Acer palma-
B. Acer
tum. What is the plant’s common name?
C. Cornus
A. Japanese Maple
D. Ilex B. Sugar Maple
75. form flowers used in floral designs have: C. Red Maple
A. florets on tall spikes D. Red Oak
B. flowers on end of stems 81. A large, shade-loving evergreen growing

in the edge of forests on his last trip to
C. small sprays of flowers
the mountains. If the shrub has dark green
D. unique shapes or colors leaves that are five inches long and two

inches wide and has many large flowers, 86. Increasing the appearance, comfort and
it is most likely a: value of your home is which type of SAE?

A. Catawba Rhododendron A. analytical
B. Red Oak B. entrepreneurshp
C. Red Maple C. improvement
D. Japanese Barberry D. experimental
82. If a high school student’s career objective 87. Which is the best growing media if an in-
is to be a greenhouse operator, an activ- organic media is desired?
ity he/she might include in his/her foun- A. leaf mold
dational SAE to obtain employability skills
would be: B. perlite
C. sawdust
A. taking a small-engine short course at
the community college D. wood shavings
B. finding a mentor in the welding indus- 88. Soil for container plant production should
try be:
C. obtaining a hunter safety certification A. porous
D. testing for a pesticide license B. clayey
83. Nursery production involves: C. nonporous
A. Maintaining golf courses D. sandy
B. Growing fruit 89. When compared to the amount of oxygen
C. Growing plants for a sale produced in the process of photosynthesis,
the amount of oxygen used in plant respi-
D. Seeding turf
ration is:
84. How can Tracie reduce stress on A. about the same
greenhouse-produced seedlings at trans-
B. less
planting time before removing them from
the greenhouse? C. more
A. fertilizer seedlings more D. much more
B. harden off the seedlings 90. An immersion SAE that requires records of
C. mist the seedlings often items bought & sold is:
D. water the seedlings more A. research
B. ownership/entrepreneurship
85. What is interveinal chlorosis?
C. service based learning
A. Yellowing of leaves between green
veins D. placement/internship
B. Darkening of leaves between green 91. What should you do immediately after ap-
veins plying chemicals or fertilizer?
C. Small developing leaves A. Wash your hands
D. Removal of veins in a leaf B. Eat Lunch

C. Water your plants C. quarter moon

D. none of above D. triangle
92. a very prominent line planting; plants are 97. Sales and marketing of horticulture prod-
planted along the foundation of a building, ucts in the United States generates how
the entry way or a building to soften and much revenue for the industry?
blend into the landscape. A. More than $57.8 billion
A. corner planting B. More than $55.5 billion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. foundation planting C. More than $70 billion
C. line planting D. More than $75.5 billion
D. mass planting
98. Which type of tree was the partridge sit-
93. Which is an application of the landscape ting in, according to the popular Christmas
design principle of proportion? song?
A. install foundation plantings and a pri- A. Pear
vacy fence B. Apple
B. maintain size relationships between C. Oak
plants and the building
D. Maple
C. raise porches, patios, and decks to the
level of doors 99. In the mountains, Naomi saw an evergreen
D. repeat colors, construction materials, tree with flat needles 1/2 inch long with
or plants 2 white bands on the underside of the nee-
dle. What tree did she see?
94. A group of cells of similar structure that A. Canadian hemlock
performs a specific function is referred to
as B. Chinese dogwood
A. Proteins C. Ginkgo
B. Vacuoles D. Zelkova
C. Tissues 100. Installing a corner planting to draw the

D. Lipids eyes of the viewer to that place demon-
strates this design principle:
95. The part of a flower that develops into a A. balance
fruit is the:
B. focalization
A. Anther
C. rhythm and line
B. Filament
D. unity
C. Ovary
D. Petal 101. A disadvantage of producing field-grown
nursery stock compared to container-
96. A crescent floral arrangment is shaped like grown nursery stock is that field-grown
a: stock:
A. circle A. has higher start-up cost
B. fan B. has more shock when moved

C. requires more water 107. Which stepladder type should be avoided

D. requires more winter protection when working near electrical power
sources? -

102. Which is a flowering plant that has flow- A. Wood
ers from 3” to 6” in diameter?
B. Aluminum
A. American arborvitae
C. Fiberglass
B. Evergreen candytuft
D. All types
C. Peony
D. Sycamore 108. The term that comes from a Latin word
that means “garden cultivation” and in-
103. Which type of landscape plan will likely cludes fruits, vegetables and ornamental
be changed several times to include clients plants is:
wishes
A. Agronomy
A. bubble diagram
B. Horticulture
B. construction plan
C. Floriculture
C. final plan
D. Zoology
D. preliminary design
109. What type of immersion SAE is Mark
104. Which plants are grown for their foliage? completing by building and maintaining the
A. Croton and parlor palm compost units at the school?
B. Gloxinia and amaryllis A. school-based enterprise
C. Snapdragon and gladiolus B. entrepreneurship
D. Zinnia and peony C. invention
105. Marcy mixes perlite in her soilless mix. D. research
What is perlite?
110. Disregarding Sales tax, how much will
A. Bark from a pecan tree you save when you buy a $ 12.00 plant
B. Dead plant material that is on sale for 20 % off?
C. Natural volcanic rock A. $ 0.48
D. Product of seaweed B. $ 1.20
106. A pesticide is applied to a hay field at C. $ 2.40

1/4 quarts per acre. The hayfield is 24 D. $ 3.60
acres in size, how many gallons of the pes-
ticide do we need to use to eradicate the 111. Grown on approximately 1% of the
pest? (4 quarts equals 1 gallon) available US Cropland
A. 24 A. Fruit
B. 12 B. Vegetables
C. 6 C. Trees
D. 4 D. Shrubs

112. Pomology is: 117. Who is responsible for displaying and

selling bedding plants?
A. The production of pom poms
A. Garden center employee
B. The industry of cut flowers
B. Greenskeeper
C. The science of vegetables
C. Landscape designer
D. The production of fruit and nut crops
D. Lawn maintenance employer
113. Mandy and Jordan bought some of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
118. selects and position visually strong items
same plants from Lowe’s. Mandy paid
into the landscape. A focal point catches
$5.85 for three coleus and 1 verbena. Jor-
the eye of the viewer and draws it to a
dan paid $4.65 for 2 coleus and 1 verbena.
key feature in the landscape.
What is the cost of one coleus?
A. balance
A. $ .75
B. line
B. $ 2.25
C. focalization
C. $ 1.80
D. texture
D. $ 1.20
119. Pesticide used to kill undesirable plants,
114. Which horticulture division includes veg- which are commonly referred to as weed
etable production? is known as
A. floriculture A. Fungicide
B. forestry B. Herbicide
C. olericulture C. Insecticide
D. turfgrass D. None of the Above
115. Which type of immersion Supervised Agri- 120. What is the release of water vapor from
cultural Experience could require financial leaves of plants to cool plants down?
and operational reports that are presented A. Transpiration
to an oversight committee? B. Photosynthesis
A. school based enterprise C. Respiration
B. entrepreneurship D. Translocation
C. experimental
121. Plant production provides for how many
D. placement American jobs?
116. When planning a speech, the speaker A. More than 5.5 million
should consider the purpose, the occasion, B. More than 7 million
and the C. More than 1.3 million
A. Audience D. More than 1.9 million
B. Cost of clothes
122. Two warm-season grasses that do not
C. Fee for speaking grow well in “high-traffic” areas are:
D. Temperature A. Bermuda and Tall Fescue

B. Centipede and St. Augustine 128. Which type of garden saves the MOST
C. Kentucky Bluegrass and Tall Fescue space for the most plants?

D. Perennial and Annual Ryegrass A. Vertical
B. Flat Bed
123. What does every paragraph of the FFA
Creed begin with? C. Container
A. I believe D. Raised bed
B. I imagine
129. Hydroponics means growing food in ?
C. I farm
A. Water
D. I am
B. Specially formulated soil
124. Jodi examines a preliminary design and
a functional design. She observes that the C. Special chemicals
amount of detail in the functional diagram D. none of above
is:
A. more 130. The roots of nearly all plants in the wild
are associated with which are fungi
B. less
that assist in plant uptake of nutrients and
C. same water.
D. none of above A. mycorrhiza
125. When indicating or measuring pH, the B. nonliving organic components
lower the pH number, the:
C. arthropods
A. less acid
D. mushrooms
B. more acidic
C. more alkaline 131. The eagle is an important part of FFA tra-
dition because it symbolizes the national
D. more neutral
scope of the FFA. Students most likely will
126. An example of a placement Supervised find an eagle in the FFA:
Agricultural Experience is: A. colors
A. working at the school greenhouse as- B. emblem
sisting customers for the FFA plant sale
C. motto
B. advertising for a food drive at the local
food bank D. pledge
C. growing and selling pumpkins
132. The related products and services sector
D. working at a florist of the horticulture industry provides how
many jobs?
127. Safety is the responsibility of?
A. Everyone A. More than 100, 000
B. Owner of the facility B. More than 10 million

C. Veterinary Technician C. More than 250, 000
D. Veterinarian D. More than 750, 000

133. High moisture holding capacity is a char- C. Plants anchor themselves in the soil
acteristic of D. All of the above
A. sand
139. What type of business does Sara have
B. silt if her landscape company handles every-
C. clay thing from the first contact with the client
D. perlite through design and construction as well as
long-term care and maintenance?
134. What is the sticky part of the flower that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Design-build firm
catches pollen?
B. Landscape installer
A. style
C. Landscape maintenance
B. stigma
D. Subcontractor firm
C. ovary
140. What surrounds the stomates and regu-
D. petal
lates the open and close of the stomates?
135. rock is generally unconsolidated and A. Guard Cells
composed of rock fragments that have
B. Epidermis
been transported and deposited by wind,
water, or glaciers. Limestone, sandstone, C. Apex
and shale are examples D. Chlorplasts
A. metamorphic 141. Jennifer is using Rootone on her poinset-
B. igneous tia cuttings. She knows that an advantage
C. bedrock of using hormones on cuttings is that they:
D. sedimentary A. aid in photosynthesis.

B. decrease water needs
136. Which tropical plant has a flower similar
to a lily? C. C. keep the leaves from dropping.
A. Amaryllis D. spread root development
B. Croton 142. Phosphorus is needed in large amounts

by the plant to
C. Snapdragon
A. have dark green leaves
D. Zinnia
B. stimulate flower and seed develop-
137. Which of the following is NOT a benefit ment
of trees?
C. Prevent dead stem tips
A. Pollution reduction
D. Assist in translocation
B. Shade
143. Most flowers, shrubs, and lawn grasses
C. Color
grow best in a pH ranging from:
D. Shelter A. 1.0 to 2.5
138. Why is soil important to plants? B. 3.0 to 5.0
A. Plants extract water from the soil C. 5.5 to 7.0
B. Plants extract nutrients from the soil D. 7.5 to 9.0

144. Suzy has weeds that are hard to control 149. An individual whose profession includes
in her lawn. These are examples of: the planting of trees and shrubs, as well
as construction of patios, walls, and other

A. Debris
outdoor features is a:
B. Inert material A. Landscape nurseryman
C. viable seeds B. Landscape Contractor
D. Noxious weeds C. Landscape designer
D. Home Gardener
145. Which is the most likely effect of adding
perlite to the growing media? 150. The cultivation of trees and shrubs.
A. decreases drainage A. Arboriculture
B. increases drainage B. Agriculture
C. Horticulture
C. increases weight
D. Floriculture
D. makes media acidic
151. Which large evergreen shrub has white,
146. * The area of horticulture associated with pink, or red 1 “ - 2” flowers in October
producing, transporting and using cut flow- and November?
ers, potted plants, and annual bedding A. Cape jasmine
plants.
B. Chinese dogwood
A. Floriculture C. Japanese yew
B. Forestry D. Sasanqua camellia
C. Landscape 152. The terms annual, biennial, and perennial
D. Design describe plant:
A. leaf loss
147. Carl keeps accurate records including
B. life cycle
amounts of items bought and sold for his
SAE. What type of SAE is this? C. production practices
A. analytical D. leaf type
B. entrepreneurship 153. What is grafting?
C. improvement A. Growing plant from seed

B. Growing one part of a plant on a part
D. placement
of another plant
148. Which deciduous tree has bright, yellow C. Dividing a plant
3” fan-shaped leaves on 3” petioles and D. Growing from a bulb
also has foul-smelling berries with seeds?
154. what is a sexual propagation?
A. Ginkgo
A. growing plants from roots
B. Live oak B. growining plants from seeds
C. Sasanqua camellia C. growing plants from water
D. Sycamore D. none of above

155. What is the genus name for all dog- C. floriculture

woods? D. forestry
A. Quercus
161. What type of garden needs a profes-
B. Acer sional architect to help you plan it?
C. Cornus A. Raised bed
D. Ilex B. Container
156. In which stage of growth do plants rest
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Rooftop
or grow very little? D. Flat bed
A. dormant
162. The scientific study of plants, including
B. indeterminate
their physiology, structure, genetics, ecol-
C. juvenile ogy, distribution, classification, and eco-
D. reproductive nomic importance.
A. Botany
157. Which of the following special purpose
footwear should you wear to avoid a B. Agronomy
buildup of static electricity? C. Forestry
A. Metatarsal guards D. Horticulture
B. Safety toe shoes
163. This type of SAE involves identifying an
C. Electrically conductive shoes agricultural problem that cannot be solved
D. Foundry shoes by experiments and designing a plan to in-
vestigate and analyze the problem.
158. What part of the plant attracts bees to
A. Experimental
aid in pollination?
B. Analytical
A. Petals
C. Improvement
B. Sepals
D. Supplementary
C. Stamen
D. none of above 164. gallons per minute. Measures amount of
water that flows through an irrigation sys-
159. If in a landscape drawing 1” equals 3 tem
feet, how many feet would a line that is
A. GMP
4.0” long represent?
B. GPH
A. 7
B. 6 C. PSI
C. 12 D. none of above
D. 15 165. A plant that lives more than two years
160. Which division of horticulture focuses on A. zoology

tree grown fruits? B. botany
A. pomology C. perennial
B. viticulture D. forestry

166. The term horticulture literally means C. 6

A. The culture of a garden D. 9

B. The storing of plants 172. When placing a ladder against a platform
C. The selling of plants or roof, the top of the ladder should ex-
D. none of above tend above the point where the ladder
touches the platform or roof by at least
167. What do deciduous plants do during the
dormant season? A. 2 ft
A. they die B. 3 ft
B. they lose their leaves C. 4 ft
C. retain their leaves
D. 5 ft
D. all of the above
173. Neil is sexually propagating some plants.
168. The component of a high school agricul- Which plant parts will he use?
ture education program that provides a
A. leaves
part-time job for students to gain work ex-
perience to help in career planning is B. roots
A. Adult education C. seeds
B. Classroom instruction D. stems
C. FFA 174. Sean is working on the training agree-
D. Supervised Agricultural Experience ment part of his SAE. It is signed by him-
self, parent or guardian, and his employer
169. creates particular beauty or interest in and supervisor this is what type of SAE?
the landscape. It draws the observer’s
A. analytical
eye to a particular plant or area. It may be
one or a mass of plantings or hardscapes. B. entrepreneurship
A. foundation planting C. improvement
B. line planting D. placement
C. mass planting 175. the growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
D. accent planting cessing, and marketing of vegetables
170. What is the percentage of solid soil par- A. olericulture

ticles in an ideal soil? B. landscape horticulture
A. 5 C. pomology
B. 20 D. horticulture
C. 50 176. A 10-6-4 formula of fertilizer to feed
D. 90 azaleas was purchased at the co-op. If the
consumer bought a 100# of this fertilizer,
171. Which pH reading is alkaline? how many pounds of Nitrogen would the
A. 1 consumer have purchased?
B. 3 A. 10

B. 6 182. What is a turgid?

C. 4 A. a type of soil to use on plants
D. 20 B. a type of flower
177. When planning a vertical garden what is C. a plants that doesn’t have enough
most important to pay attention to? moisture
A. Sun
D. a plant that is swollen or filled with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. water moisture
C. soil
183. applies water under pressure over the
D. temperature
tops of plants
178. On a financial statement, items that can A. sprinkle irrigation
be quickly converted to cash or that will
be sold within 12 months are: B. Drip or trickle irrigation
A. current assets C. Spray heads
B. current liabilities D. Rotary sprinklers
C. equity
D. net worth 184. Ribbon with a higher number is:
A. wider
179. A place that specializes in starting plants,
shrubs and ornamental trees which can be B. thinner
transplanted to landscape areas is called a
C. shorter
A. Nursery
D. longer
B. Vineyard
C. Orchard 185. The science and practice of growing, har-
D. Farm vesting, storing, processing and marketing
tree grown fruits is:
180. Container-grown plants need to have
their roots untangled or cut before they A. pomology
are: B. olericulture
A. decayed C. horticulture
B. planted
D. Viticulture
C. pruned
D. dried 186. Which oak tree has dark-green large
leaves with a round base and 3 to 5 lobes
181. What two areas of horticulture make up with bristle tips?
ornamental horticulture?
A. Live
A. Landscape and Floriculture
B. Floriculture and Forestry B. Pin
C. Forestry and Viticulture C. Southern Red

D. none of above D. Water

187. The science most associated with the 192. What is the volume of a cubic plant con-
study of plants grown for food or beau- tainer that sides all equal 5” in length?
tification is:

A. 15
A. agronomy B. 25
B. forestry C. 125
C. horticulture D. 150
D. physics
193. While the pH of most commercial horti-
culture soilless mixes is neutral, the pH of
188. If a business has $10, 000 cash on hand,
bark, peat moss, and sphagnum moss is:
$25, 000 in a checking account and land
valued at $300, 000, on which line of a A. acid
financial statement should the $335, 000 B. alkaline
total be entered?
C. basic
A. current assets
D. neutral
B. net worth
194. A soccer field is 120 yards long by 60
C. total assets
yards wide. We are going to add sand to
D. total liabilities top dress the soccer field and smooth it out.
If we use 1 truckload of sand for every
189. The science of growing fruit 400 square yards of the field, how many
A. Landscape/Nursery truckloads of sand do we need to order?
B. Pomology A. 72
B. 36
C. Olericulture
C. 18
D. Floriculture
D. 9
190. WHat tacky material is used to wrap
wire 195. Which officer position is stationed by the
flag?
A. floral foam
A. President
B. floral tape
B. Vice-President
C. flroal picks
C. Reporter
D. floral wire
D. Treasurer
191. If Shanice plants a shrub with small, 196. Suzy needs to help the designer get an
glossy entire margined leaves, she most idea of the general layout of the property.
likely is planting a: Which plan does she need?
A. Japanese boxwood. A. construction diagram
B. helleri holly. B. Contractor plan.
C. gold mop. C. final plan
D. Japanese andromeda. D. functional diagram

197. The proper time of the year to plant C. $500, 000

warm-season lawn grasses is: D. $800, 000
A. fall
203. Hannah is hardening off some tomatoes
B. spring started in the greenhouse. Which is she
C. summer reducing to harden off her plants?
D. winter A. fertilizer and air
B. humidity and water
198. Lettuce is an example of which part of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the plant? C. lime and phosphate
A. leaves D. soil and fertilizer
B. stem 204. What part of the horticulture instruc-
C. roots tional program provides the most oppor-
tunities to develop leadership, teamwork,
D. none of above
citizenship, and personal growth?
199. Which type of employee cares for the A. FFA
land area and plants surrounding a busi-
B. Horticulture Knowledge
ness, industry, church or school?
C. Plant Nursery
A. Garden Center
D. Supervised Agricultural Experience
B. Golf Course (SAE)
C. Grounds Maintenance
205. What information would you find on a
D. Nursery MSDS?
200. Candytuft is a bedding plant about 6” to A. Product Identification
12” tall an has: B. Health Hazard Data
A. dark blue 1” fruit C. Storage and Handling precautions
B. orange 3” flowers D. All of the above
C. red 2” flowers
206. The upper portion of a graft is known as
D. white 1” flowers what?
201. Olericulture deals with growing A. Understock
A. Vegetables B. Upperstock
B. Fruits C. Rootstock
C. Nuts D. Scion
D. Hibiscus 207. The tall bedding plant with clusters of col-
orful flowers at the end of the stem that
202. If a plant farm has total assets of $500,
Sherilee planted is most likely a/an:
000 and total liabilities of $300, 000,
what number is the correct entry on the A. snapdragon
net worth line of a financial statement? B. astilbe
A. $200, 000 C. evergreen candytuft.
B. $300, 000 D. Dutch iris.

208. What form of documentation would Alex 213. The 1020 flat of plants normally sales for
need as he starts his internship with a $27.00 per flat.If the flats go on sale for
county’s soil scientist? 25% off the current price, what will be

A. peer reviews of his publication the sale price of the 1020 flat of plants?
B. scholarship application A. $6.75
C. business plan B. $20.25
D. training plan C. $22.00

D. $26.75
209. keeps leaves and remains green year
round 214. * A place which specializes in growing
A. turgid and caring for plants, shrubs and ornamen-
tal trees that can later be transported to
B. evergreen landscape areas.
C. deciduous A. Nursery
D. agronomy B. House
210. How many areas of the horticulture in- C. Temple
dustry are there? D. Fort
A. 1
215. Cutting down a tree is called
B. 5
A. Felling
C. 3
B. Knelling
D. 7
C. Dropping
211. Participating in FFA public speaking, D. Chopping
extemporaneous public speaking, creed
speaking, parliamentary procedure, agri- 216. Which branch of horticulture produces
cultural sales career development events, fruits and nuts?
and oral reasons for livestock, dairy, and A. Olericulture
poultry career development events each
help students develop: B. Pomology
A. animal science technical skills C. Fruitology
B. communication skills D. Agronomy
C. interest in animal science 217. Victoria spent 2 hours on Saturday prun-
D. plant science technical skills ing a fruit tree although her SAE program
is producing bedding plants in her own
212. A tropical plant with a glossy, green, scal- greenhouse. In which section of the SAE
loped leaf that has a long-lasting flower is record would she enter the fruit tree prun-
most likely a/an: ing activity?
A. Christmas cactus. A. analytical
B. wax plant. B. experimental
C. emerald-ripple peperomia. C. placement
D. kalanchoe. D. supplementary

218. Aaron is working in landscape mainte- B. garden center employee

nance. What does he do?
C. maintenance employee
A. Cares for the landscape.
D. golf course employee
B. Designs, installs and contracts the
landscape. 224. How is Earth a greenhouse?
C. Designs landscape plans. A. Earth’s atmosphere does the same
D. Installs landscape plants. thing as the greenhouse.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
219. Of these materials, which is the best for B. Carbon Dioxide, a gas in Earth’s atmo-
use in an organic growing media? sphere, does what the roof of a green-
house does.
A. bark
C. The Sun shines through the atmo-
B. perlite sphere, warming the Earth’s surface.
C. Styrofoam beads
D. All of the above
D. vermiculite
225. Which is an application of the landscape
220. The term for an undeveloped shoot or design principle of unity?
flower is:
A. Install foundation plantings and pri-
A. Stamen
vacy hedge
B. Bud
B. install same amount of plants on each
C. Node side of door
D. Margin C. maintain size relationship between
221. Various numbers of taps of the gavel plants and house
have different meanings, but overall the D. raise decks, patios, and porches to
gavel is the symbol of: door level
A. authority
226. Who funds the Cooperative Extension
B. FFA Service in each state?
C. Voting A. The federal government
D. weakness
B. State government
222. when choosing a career in horticulture C. Local community organizations/charities
you should
A. select a job with variety D. The land grant university in each state
B. select a job with opportunity for pro-
motion 227. Are you allowed to borrow tools to take
home?
C. consider the job responsibilities
D. all of them A. Yes
B. No
223. what job in horticulture prepares
seedbeds for the replanting of forests C. Maybe
A. nursery employee D. none of above

228. The leadership quality that causes animal C. Silt

science workers to be willing to proceed D. Rock
under difficult conditions is:

A. Courage 234. Advantages of sexual (Seed) Propaga-
tion
B. Integrity
A. to make multiples of them in days
C. Public Speaking
B. to produce many in a short amount of
D. Tact time
229. A cool-season grass that has coarse- C. Produce large numbers in a large
textured, medium-green leaves and bunch- amount of time
type growth is: D. more in an hour than in a day
A. bermuda grass
235. Plants that complete their life cycles in
B. centipede grass
two years are:
C. St. Augustine grass
A. annuals
D. tall fescue
B. biennials
230. Which country is one of the world’s top C. minerals
producers of fruits and nuts?
D. perennials
A. Canada
236. Latoya is a landscape architect. What
B. Austrailia
does she do at work?
C. United Arab Emirates
A. Cares for plants after they are in-
D. United States stalled
231. The floral design shaped like an L is: B. constructs pools, fences and drive-
ways.
A. Diagonal
C. installs landscape plants
B. Horizontal
D. Plans and designs the outdoor enviro-
C. Right angle
ment
D. Triangular
237. Plant production generates how much in
232. The best tool for Becky to remove 1/4”- the United States?
1/2” rose stems from her bed of roses is
A. More than $70 billion
a/an:
B. More than $350 billion
A. axe
B. chain saw C. More than $150 billion
C. pole pruner D. More than $500 billion
D. pruning shear 238. Which is part of a stem?
233. Which of the following is not a soil parti- A. Anther

cle? B. Filament
A. Sand C. Leaf scar
B. Clay D. Root cap

239. Computerizing production records for a 244. Deciduous is a biological term used to de-
local nursery operation is which type of scribe certain plants. As an example of a
SAE? deciduous tree is a:
A. analytical A. Southern Red Oak
B. entrepreneurship B. Red cedar
C. improvement C. Long Leaf Pine
D. placement D. Short Leaf Pine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. Which of the following is an example of 245. A round floral arrangement is shaped like
prevention of waste? a:
A. Shredding woody waste to make wood A. circle
chip mulch.
B. quarter moon
B. Careful measuring so you don’t order
C. semicircle
too much turf
D. triangle
C. Sending green waste to a recycling
centre 246. Which flowers does a floral designer use
D. Burning woody waste on a bonfire. to establis the width and height of an ar-
rangement?
241. Applying half of the material in one di-
A. Bird of paradise
rection and the other half at a 90 degree
angle from the first pass is used when: B. carnations
A. Sodding C. Chrysanthemums
B. Sprigging D. Snapdragons
C. Sowing 247. The greatest percent of the wholesale
D. Plugging floriculture market is attributed to:
A. Flowering potted plants
242. Which of the following is not one of the
four distinct processes of chemical weath- B. Foliage plants
ering? C. Cut flowers
A. exfoliation D. Bedding plants
B. hydrolysis
248. If we offer a 20% discount to teachers in
C. hydration a flash sale on opening day of the Spring
D. dissolution FFA Plant sale, how much would be teacher
owe if she picked up $115 retail priced
243. Wire with a higher gauge number is: plants from the greenhouse?
A. thinner A. $138.00
B. thicker B. $95.00
C. shorter C. $92.00
D. longer D. $102.00

249. Kimberly is interested in designing, in- 254. Which of the following was listed as a
stalling, and maintaining the outdoor en- career in the field of research?
vironment around homes. What profes-

A. Irrigation analyst
sional area will provide careers in her area
of interest? B. Landscape service
A. accounting C. Quality control inspector
B. floristry D. Food processing
C. landscaping 255. An installation of plants decorating the
D. soil science inside of a building
250. Propagating nursery plants using a scion A. Landscaping

and rootstock is known as: B. Interiorscaping
A. cutting C. Interior Design
B. grafting D. Land Design
C. layering
256. Floriculture is the area of ornamental hor-
D. budding ticulture that deals with the
251. Which of these causes more plant dis- A. Designing plans for landscapes and
ease? turf areas
A. Fungi B. Production and use flowers potted
plants and annual bedding plants
B. Bacteria
C. Production of vegetables, fruits and
C. Algae
nuts for retail sales
D. Virus
D. Producing plants for culinary uses
252. if you were interested in creating and de-
veloping better varieties of plants, what 257. Which SAE Record heading would be used
is a good career for you by Hannah if she has an entrepreneurship
type Supervised Agricultural Experience?
A. teacher
A. Hypothesis
B. researcher
B. Review of literature
C. marketing specialist
C. Training agreement
D. stock broker
D. Type of enterprise
253. If Jessica is preparing a summary presen-
tation on her research with organic and in- 258. The part of the horticulture industry most
organic fertilizers, her SAE project would associated with growing, maintaining, and
be identified as a/an: processing grapes is:
A. school-based enterprise A. floriculture
B. entrepreneurship B. olericulture
C. experimental C. pomology
D. placement D. viticulture

259. The leadership trait that gives the energy B. Deciduous

to do a job and the inspiration to encour-
C. Evergreen
age others is called:
D. Inhibitors
A. courage
B. enthusiasm 265. Finish the Statement:If there is a rule,
C. honesty there is a
D. tact A. answer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
260. In which part of a foundational SAE B. reason
would Avery create a risk assessment of C. problem
a sweet potato packing facility?
D. issue
A. personal finance management and
planning 266. What are the three parts of agriculture
B. career exploration and planning education?
C. agricultural literacy A. Classroom/Lab, CDE, SAE
D. workplace safety B. Classroom/Lab, FFA, SAE
261. If a plant is turgid, it is: C. Classroom, SAE, Agricscience
A. Drowned and dropping D. Lab, Classroom, FFA
B. Pale green or yellow
267. Coffee, Rubber, Tea crops falls under
C. Swollen with moisture
A. Cash Crop
D. Wilted from lack of water
B. Medicinal Crop
262. The procedure for growing container
C. Plantation Crops
stock that Bill uses to shape his azalea
plants in the nursery is: D. Spice Crops
A. fertilizing.
268. What should be the shape of the bottom
B. liming of a hole used to plant a bare-root tree?
C. pruning A. Dome
D. transplanting
B. Flat
263. What are you allowed to cut with C. Pointed
pruners?
D. Square
A. Branches or leaves on a plant
B. Clothing 269. Nursery plants that are produced by cut-
tings are propagated:
C. Fingers
D. Hair A. sexually.
B. by seed.
264. Trees that keep their functional leaves
throughout the year are called: C. asexually.
A. Auxins D. by amending.

270. Victoria spent two hours on Saturday 274. The growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
pruning a fruit tree although her Super- cessing, and marketing of VEGETABLES
vised Agricultural Experience program is

A. Floriculture
producing bedding plants in her own green-
house. In which section of the SAE Record B. Olericulture
would she enter the fruit tree pruning ac- C. Pomology
tivity? D. Landscape
A. analytical
275. Which crop accounted for the greatest
B. experimental percentage of total nursery production
sales?
C. placement
A. Broadleaf evergreens
D. supplementary
B. Deciduous shrubs
271. Wendy has problems getting flowers to C. Deciduous trees
grow in one of her flower beds. If she
D. Ground covers
sends a soil sample to the laboratory to
get recommendations to correct her prob- 276. Botany is the study of
lem, she should take cores or slices of soil
A. Plants
from:
B. Animals
A. all the flower beds
C. Insects
B. all the flower beds except the problem
D. Bottles
one
C. the entire lawn 277. What can Sammy do to cause his nursery
plants to grow more compact?
D. the problem flower bed
A. Lime
272. If Joel gets someone else to install the B. Prune
pools, stonework, and electrical work for C. Transplant
his design-build landscape business, he is
most likely using a: D. Water
A. floral designer 278. When are you allowed to throw tools?

B. landscape designer A. Never
B. Sometimes
C. landscape maintenance crew
C. Always
D. subcontractor
D. none of above
273. Malik wabts to plant a running type of
279. secondary line of an irrigation system
grass in a shady area in his lawn. What
that has water pressure only when valve
should he plant?
is open
A. Tall Fescue A. lateral line
B. Bentgrass B. main line
C. Creeping Red Fescue C. cycle
D. Bahai D. zone

280. If a 10” azalea pot takes up 1 square 285. Which plant is used for its variegated
foot of bench space in a greenhouse, how green and yellowish-white leaves?
many Geraniums planted in 10” Azalea A. Arrowhead vine
pots be placed on a bench that measures
6 ft wide and 17 ft long? B. Evergreen candytuft
C. Snapdragon
A. 23
D. Zinnia
B. 46
286. what is an Asexual (Vegatative) Propa-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 102
gation
D. 204
A. growing plants from vegatation part at
281. The green color of leaves is caused by tiny existing
particles in the food producing cells called: B. Growing form the inside of your house
A. Guard cells in a plant bowl
B. Epidermis C. growing from the ourside in the back
yard in a graden
C. Chloroplast
D. in rows of plants so tat they will grow
D. Starch together
282. When carrying hand shears, you should 287. Alex believes that Jessica is discussion a
carry them with the blade motion that is not debatable. To correct
A. facing down this mistake, Alex should:
B. facing straight up A. call for a division
C. facing towards your body B. move to adjourn

C. move to amend
D. open
D. rise to a point of order
283. Victoria is careful to study the tempera-
ture, moisture, and seed viability for the 288. The science of vegetable growing, deal-
plants she plans to grow. These are facing with the culture of non-woody plants
tors that affect: for food. It is the production of plants for
use of their edible parts
A. germination rates.
A. Landscape/Nursery
B. hardwood cuttings
B. Pomology
C. softwood cuttings
C. Olericulture
D. tree grafts
D. Floriculture
284. Insects with toothed jaws that bite and 289. device that ensures water from irriga-
tear their food have what type of mouth tion system does not return to main water
parts? source
A. Chewing A. remote control valves
B. Grinding B. contoler
C. Compound C. back flow preventer
D. Piercing D. cycle

290. A large deciduous tree that has greenish- 295. conducts food and metabolites from
yellow flowers in early spring before it the leaves to the stem, flowers, roots, and
has leaves and 2” to 3” winged samara storage organs.

fruit is the:
A. Phloem
A. Japanese yew.
B. Xylem
B. Norway maple.
C. Parenchyma Tissue
C. Norway spruce.
D. Cork tissue
D. Savannah holly.
296. Fran stops watering container-grown
291. What type of work does Aaron do as he nursery stock when:
works in landscape maintenance?
A. she gets tired
A. Cares for the landscape
B. water stands in the pot
B. Designs, installs, and contracts the
C. water runs over the top of the pot
landscape
D. water runs through the bottom of the
C. Designs landscape plans
pot
D. Installs landscape plants
297. The purpose of a speech that convinces
292. Butting two strips of grass together in a people to believe or to do something is to:
brick pattern is used when
A. Entertain
A. sodding
B. Inform
B. sprigging
C. Introduce
C. sowing
D. Persuade
D. Plugging
298. In which part of the foundational SAE
293. What is a bedding plant that has large 6” would Karen schedule interviews with
colorful flowers? three professionals in the floral industry
and record findings in a written summary?
A. Zinnia
A. workplace safety
B. Japanese pachysandra
B. agricultural literacy
C. Madagascar periwinkle
C. career exploration and planning
D. Kalanchoe
D. personal financial planning and man-
294. What does a landscape architect do? agement
A. Cares for plants after they are in-
299. The first step in making a floral arrange-
stalled.
ment is to:
B. Constructs pools, fences and drive-
A. Attach foam to container
ways.
B. cut flower stems
C. Installs landscape plants.
C. establish outline
D. Plans and designs the outdoor environ-
ments. D. select design shape

300. Should you eat while outside on the C. Olericulture

farm?
D. Floral production
A. Yes
306. Spotted lanternfly nymphs:
B. No
C. Maybe A. are red, black and white as early in-
stars
D. none of above
B. are red, black and white as fourth in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
301. The high carbon-to-nitrogen ratio of non- stars
decomposed sawdust and wood shavings C. have gray and pink fully functional
affects nitrogen in growing media by: wings with black spots
A. acting as a fertilizer
D. are black and white as fourth instars
B. increasing availability for plant use
307. Carl keeps accurate records including
C. making it unavailable for plant use
D. stimulating plant growth Supervised Agricultural Experience. What
type of SAE is Carl working on?
302. Pesticide used to control insects is known
as: A. Analytical
A. Fungicide B. Entrepreneurship
B. Herbicide C. Improvement
C. Insecticide D. Placement
308. If a turfgrass producer’s inventory shows
303. What type of nursery structure uses ma- 10 mowers valued at $100 each, 10 tons
nure or hay as a source of heat? of fertilizer worth $300 per ton, pesti-
cides worth $2, 000 and 10 acres of land
A. Shade house
valued at $4, 000 per acre, what amount
B. Hotbed should be entered on the total value on
C. PNP the non-depreciable inventory line of the
inventory page?
D. cold frame
A. $6, 400
304. A shrub that has scale-like or awl-like
B. $40, 000
needles is most likely a:
C. $45, 000
A. Chinese fringe.
B. gold mop. D. $46, 000
C. Nellie R. Stevens. 309. A leaflike part that protects a flower bud

D. helleri is a
A. sepal
305. Producing and using plants to beautify
the environment B. ovary
A. Floriculture C. reproduce
B. Landscape horticulture D. none of above

310. Which type of business handles every- 315. FFA helps students develop leadership be-
thing from the first contact with the client yond the class, local school chapter, and
through design and construction as well as federation. What is the first level of par-

long-term care and maintenance? ticipation above the federation level?
A. design-build firm A. International
B. landscape installer B. National FFA Organization
C. landscape maintenance C. North Carolina FFA Association
D. subcontractor firm D. Region
311. The major energy input for the earth 316. What does PPE stand for?
comes from the A. Personal Party Equipment
A. Moon B. Personal Protective Equipment
B. Equator C. Purple People Eater
C. Sun D. Purposeful Protection Equipment
D. Clouds
317. What is the genus name for all maples?
312. What are the structural framework of the A. Quercus
leaf?
B. Acer
A. Veins
C. Cornus
B. Midrib
D. Ilex
C. Apex
D. Blade 318. An aquarium or botanical garden is an ex-
ample of:
313. A greenhouse has a dirt floor. The owner A. Horticultural Therapy
has made some money from his fall shrub
sales the last three years and decides to B. Zoological Horticulture
pour a concrete floor. How many square C. Plant Propagation Environment
feet is his greenhouse if it measures 36’ D. Landscape and Nursery
wide and 72’ long?
A. 108 319. What is the first line of the FFA Motto?
B. 216 A. Living to Serve
C. 1296 B. Earning to Live
D. 2592 C. Learning to Do
D. Doing to Learn
314. The science and practice of growing, har-
vesting, storing, processing and marketing 320. The goal in grafting is to unite two plants
vegetables is: A. so they grow as one
A. floriculture B. in a physical union so that they grow
B. pomology together
C. olericulture C. all of these choices
D. horticulture D. none of above

321. *The production and use of plants to beau- C. Medium Small Data Stuff
tify the environment.
D. Made Something Doing Something
A. nursery/ landscape
B. floriculture 327. Plant roots take water from the soil
through the process of:
C. pomology
A. absorption
D. none of above
B. photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
322. The green pigment in vegetables is called
what? C. reproduction
A. Flavones D. respiration
B. Carotene 328. the continuity of a landscape. Geometric
C. Chlorophyll shapes and curved patterns allow the ob-
D. Anthocyanin server’s eye to move around the landscape
A. form
323. What type of SAE is Jose doing if he visits
a wholesale nursery and shadows employ- B. line
ees to learn about careers? C. texture
A. analytical D. balance
B. entrepreneurship
C. exploratory 329. Floriculture is the study of:
D. supplementary A. bedding and garden plants

B. foliage plants
324. A deciduous tree:
A. Dies each year in the winter C. potted flowering plants
B. Drops its functional leaves in the dor- D. all of the above

mant season
330. Which of the following is NOT a way gar-
C. Keeps its functional leaves in the dor- den plants impact the environment?
mant season
A. Cleaning the air
D. Remains green all year
B. Absorbing carbon dioxide
325. Information technology plays a signifi-
cant role in achieving C. Releasing fragrance
A. Poverty D. Eliminating pests

B. education 331. The flower that has a large lily-type
C. sustainable development flower on a 1’ to 2’ stem is:
D. none of above A. amaryllis
326. What does MSDS stand for? B. evergreen candytuft.

A. Material Safety Data Sheet C. gladiolus.
B. Modern Safety Day Special D. snapdragon.

332. Which of the following is responsible for C. three years

recycling raw materials? D. ten years

A. Air
338. Indoor Christmas-season plants with
B. Plants bracts or modified leaves that are red,
C. Soil pink, or white on different plants. What
is the name of these plants?
D. Animal life
A. Poinsettia
333. The plant process by which all food is
B. Spider plant
manufactured is:
C. Florist chrysanthemum
A. absorption
D. Geranium
B. photosynthesis
C. respiration 339. Anchoring plants, storing food and ab-
sorbing water are functions of plant:
D. translocation
A. Flowers
334. Perlite and vermiculite are most likely ex- B. Fruits
amples of:
C. Leaves
A. hydroponics
D. Roots
B. organic growing media
C. soil growing media 340. Lee is making a hedge row of hollies. He
uses the heading back pruning method to:
D. soilless growing media
A. Cut off branches at same height
335. A warm-season grass that has coarse B. cut roots prior to transplanting
textured medium-to-dark green leaves
and grows from stolons is: C. open up a tree or shrub
A. Annual Ryegrass D. remove old branches to rejuvenate
B. Fine Fescue 341. The use of horticultural plants and meth-

ods as therapeutic tools with disabled and
C. Kentucky Bluegrass
disadvantaged people
D. St. Augustinegrass
A. Allopathy
336. If DeShawn bought a tropical that has B. Homeopathy
a thick, rounded leaf, he most likely pur-
C. Horticultural Therapy
chased a/an:
D. Naturopathy
A. jade plant
B. aglaonema 342. Placing the desires and welfare of oth-
ers above oneself is a leadership quality
C. false aralia
called:
D. red-edged dracaena.
A. enthusiasm
337. Annual plants complete their life cycle in B. parliamentary procedure
A. one year C. tact
B. two years D. unselfishness

343. The process of moving synthesized and C. write minutes of meetings

absorbed food and nutrients within the D. write news reports
plant is:
A. photosynthesis 349. The ability of a seed to germinate is
known as:
B. respiration
A. Inert
C. reproduction
B. Viable
D. translocation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Grading
344. shape of the individual plants D. Debris
A. form
350. An immersion SAE that is a student-led
B. line business that offers goods or services to
C. texture people in the community is:
D. sustainability A. placement/internship
B. research
345. What is a perennial that produces a
long-lasting colorful flower often used by C. service based learning
florists? D. school-based enterprise
A. Christmas cactus
351. Which is an itemized list of things owned
B. Wax plant by a business?
C. Gerber daisy A. Equity
D. Nerve plant B. Inventory
346. Why is a wilted plant limp? C. Liabilities
A. it does not have enough moisture D. Net worth
B. filled with moisture 352. What is landscape horticulture?

C. it got knocked over A. The design, installation, and mainte-
nance of landscapes
D. a certain breed of bird likes to stand
on it B. The science of growing grass for
sports play, lawns, and roadways
347. The gas form of an insecticide is a
C. Cultivation of vegetables and herbs for
A. Wettable powder the home or market
B. Fumigant D. Fruit trees that are grown for display
C. Granular in a yard.
D. Concentrate 353. A beef cattle farmer using people, re-
sources, and processes to reach a goal is:
348. Serving as FFA Treasurer can help Juan
gain experience that he might later use in A. Managing
an horticulture organization to: B. Owning
A. cook steaks C. Planning
B. keep financial records D. Selling

354. The most commonly used method to start C. Environmental value

a lawn is: D. Resource protection

A. Plugging
360. Which deciduous tree produces white
B. Seeding
bracts after the leaves appear?
C. Sodding
A. Ginkgo
D. Sprigging
B. Chinese dogwood
355. Applying the engineering design process C. Southern red oak
to create a new product or service.
D. Zelkova
A. Experimental
B. Analytical 361. Melanie finds aphids on her plant. She
is most concerned the aphids will damage
C. Placement her plants by:
D. Invention
A. chewing
356. Area of horticulture that involves the pro- B. piercing and sucking
duction of vegetable crops
C. rasping and sucking
A. Floriculture
D. sponging
B. Olericulture
C. Pomology 362. Which plant has feather-like foliage
D. Landscape Horticulture A. Fortune tea olive

B. Plume asparagus fern
357. In the sequence of landscape plan devel-
opment, the one between the “bubble” di- C. Southern red oak
agram and the plan used by the landscape D. Sycamore
contractor is the:
A. construction plan 363. Victor joins a new variety of pecan tree
to some rootstock he has grown from
B. final plan seeds. Which propagation method does he
C. functional diagram use?
D. preliminary design A. grafting
358. Process of creating new plants B. hardwood cuttings
A. Germination C. layering
B. Propagation D. softwood cuttings

C. Fertilization 364. Soil does NOT provide which of the fol-
D. Pollination lowing?
A. Stability
359. Which of the following is NOT provided
by lawns? B. Oxygen
A. Aesthetics C. Nutrients
B. Windbreak D. Water

365. The beginning of the food chain for all liv- B. more
ing things is the process of photosynthesis C. one-half
which takes place in plant:
D. same
A. Flowers
B. Leaves 371. A plant that completes its life cycle in two
years is a(n):
C. Roots
A. annual
D. Stems
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. biennial
366. From the time a seed is planted until the
C. perennial
time that a seed is produced is known as
D. none of above
A. Growth Cycle
B. Dormancy 372. is the seed’s capability of grow-
ing and developing.
C. Life Cycle
A. seed viability
D. Plant Cycle
B. seed stability
367. Horticulture includes the production of
C. seed probability
plants for food, comfort and
D. germination rates
A. Technology
B. Beauty 373. It is the process of seeds developing into
new plants.
C. Style
A. Germination
D. none of above
B. Plants
368. Lemon leaf and gerber daisies are used in
C. Plants shoot
arrangements are:
D. Seeds
A. line flowers
B. mass flowers 374. Which warm-season grass grows from
C. form flowers stolons and has medium-textured light
green leaves?
D. filler flowers
A. Centipede
369. Cash and things owned by the individual B. Kentucky bluegrass
or the business for which a financial state-
ment is prepared are listed as: C. Perennial ryegrass
A. assets D. Zoysia
B. equity 375. Which part of a foundational SAE would a

C. liabilities student be fulfilling by finding three schol-
arship applications that would support ed-
D. working capital ucation towards his/her future career?
370. Which is true of the amount of detail A. employability skills for college and ca-
in the landscape functional design as com- reer readiness
pared to the final landscape plan? B. personal financial planning and man-
A. less agement

C. agricultural literacy 381. Chris is interested in producing the most

new plants in the shortest time period.
D. workplace safety
What is the best propagation method for

376. Which foliage plant has yellow and or- him to accomplish his goal?
ange in its leaves? A. budding
A. Amaryllis B. cutting
B. croton C. grafting
C. peony D. tissue culture
D. snapdragn 382. Who created the naming system for

plants?
377. The seed endosperm provides A. Gregor Mendel
A. protection to the embryo B. Carl Linnaeus
B. food for the embryo C. Bill Nye The Science Guy
C. an attractant D. Albert Einstein
D. pollination for the flower 383. The low temperature for the day in Al-
berta is -7 degrees. Later the same day
378. When applying the waste hierarchy to the temperature reaches a high of 21 de-
workplace waste disposal, which is the grees. How many degrees did the temper-
first and top option? ature change during the day?
A. Prepare for re-use A. 32
B. Recycle B. 28
C. Prevention C. 21
D. 14
D. Disposal
384. If the seed mixture in a deer plot formula
379. A person who must be skilled in checking says it has 25% Omega Ryegrass in the
horticultural products for diseases, insects, mixture, how many pounds of Omega Rye-
and quality is a/an: grass seed are in a 50# bag of the deer
A. accountant plot mix?
B. inspector A. 25#
C. sales representative B. 12.5#

C. 50#
D. teacher
D. 6.25#
380. Which is best for cutting limbs and trees
385. Which is MOST interested in reducing the
larger than 3” in diameter?
carbon footprint
A. Chain saw A. Garden center salesperson
B. Hedge shears B. Golf course attendant
C. Lopping shears C. Green industry employee
D. Power pole pruner D. Park ranger

386. Filler flowers are used in floral designs C. Botany

to: D. horticulture
A. add mass and draw attention
392. The most important step prior to using
B. draw attention to the focal point any pesticide is to
C. establish height, width, and outline A. Mix it correctly
D. fill empty spaces and hide ties B. Read the label directions
C. Determine the formulation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
387. What part of Dawn’s foundational SAE
gave her a better understanding of per- D. Properly store it
sonal finance and planning? 393. What type bud is on the side of a stem?
A. creating a cover letter A. Apical
B. creating a personal budget B. Lateral
C. interviewing a soil scientist C. Lentical
D. completing a career interest survey D. Terminal
388. The science and art of growing plants for 394. An indoor flowering plant grown for
use and beauty; an important segment of hanging baskets and pots that has red,
the agriculture industry white, or pink flowers and green leaves
with long petioles, and is popular for
A. Horticulture
Mother’s Day is a:
B. Olericulture A. Boston Fern
C. Landscape Hort B. Geranium
D. none of above C. Hosta
389. When was the Smith Hughes Act passed? D. Impatiens
A. 1955 395. On a scale drawing of Roger’s house,
1/4 inch equals 1 foot actual length.
B. 1930
What is the area of Roger’s small back-
C. 1917 yard heated swimming pool if the drawing
D. 1928 shows a measurement of 3 inches wide by
4 1/2 inches long?
390. Two examples of Ornamental Horticul- A. 13.5 sq ft
ture include
B. 144 sq ft
A. Olericulture and Pomology
C. 216 sq ft
B. Floriculture and Landscape Horticul-
D. 232 sq ft
ture
C. Pomology and vegetative growing 396. Plants remove which of the following
from the atmosphere?
D. none of above
A. Oxygen
391. Which part of biology deals with plants? B. Helium
A. oncologists C. Carbon dioxide
B. gardener D. Argon

397. The study of plants and plant processes C. eliminating the need for job interviews
A. Entomology D. providing a resume template

B. Pomology
403. Plants grown for their visual appeal are
C. Zeriscaping called
D. Botany
A. Olericulture
398. An immersion SAE that is a chance to use B. plant propagation
the knowledge & skills gained from school
to address real needs in the world is: C. Botany
A. research D. Ornamentals
B. service based learning 404. Plants produce
C. school based enterprise A. Oxygen
D. placement/internship
B. Air
399. The open portion of the soil that holds air C. Nitrogen
or water is
D. Pollution
A. parent material
B. field capacity 405. The president calls for a voice vote on a
C. pore spaces main motion and announces that the mo-
tion passes. If a member wants to canted
D. bedrock vote, he or she should:
400. Filler flowers are used in floral design A. amend the motion
for:
B. call for a division
A. add mass and draw attention
C. move to adjourn
B. draw attention to focal point
D. take the motion from the table
C. establish height, width, and hide ties
D. fill empty spaces and hide ties 406. Plants produce which of the following?
401. The type of pruning a landscape mainte- A. neon

nance worker uses to cut old branches back B. sulfur
to the ground is:
C. carbon dioxide
A. heading back.
D. oxygen
B. renewal.
C. root 407. What type of immersion SAE is Belle com-
pleting by growing and selling red worms
D. thinning
used to produce compost?
402. A career plan helps students by: A. entrepreneurship
A. identifying courses and skills needed
B. service learning
to pursue a specific profession
C. placement
B. creating a personality profile of
prospective employers D. invention

408. What percent of the world’s water is in B. keep roots dry

the oceans? C. keep water standing
A. 67.6 D. prevent wilting
B. 97.6
414. low volume emission device that waters
C. 87.6
the entire hydrozone and operates simi-
D. 77.6 larly to a conventional spray head but at
much lower flow rates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
409. The science or practice of planting, man-
aging, and caring for forests. A. sprinkles
A. Botany B. drip irrigation
B. Agronomy C. emitter
C. Forestry D. micro spray
D. Horticulture 415. When a nursery plant reaches the max-
imum recommended size for its container,
410. The culture of flowers
it should be transplanted to a larger con-
A. Landscape Horticulture tainer to prevent the plant from:
B. Pomology A. becoming pot-bound
C. Olericulture B. becoming too compact
D. Floriculture C. growing too tall
411. What is a plant that is used in the D. growing too wide
landscape for their colorful greenery or
leaves? 416. The three main areas of the horticulture
industry are
A. Herbaceous Perennial
A. plant, water, grow
B. Biennial
B. pomology, olericulture, ornamental
C. Tree horticulture
D. Foliage Plant
C. growing, sprouting, harvesting
412. Janet uses stem cuttings to propagate D. horticulture, agriculture, aquaculture
her prize-winning azaleas. What is the
best time of day for Janet to take the cut- 417. The most effective way for animal sci-
tings from her azaleas? ence students to develop leadership quali-
ties is through:
A. early evening
A. participation in FFA activities
B. early morning
B. studying animal science
C. late afternoon
C. trips to livestock farms
D. mid-day
D. watching videos
413. When Eric develops the watering part of
his maintenance schedule for his new land- 418. *The culture of plants for food, comfort,
scape, he should water often enough to: and beautification purposes.
A. have water runoff A. Horticulture

B. Forestry 424. Jesus spent several days landscaping his

C. Floriculture home to help the appearance and to in-
crease the comfort and value. What is he

D. Agriculture doing?
419. On a financial statement, net worth is: A. analytical
A. current assets minus current liabilities B. experimental
B. current liabilities plus current assets C. improvement
C. total assets minus total liabilities D. placement
D. total assets plus total liabilities 425. Pruning a fruit tree is which SAE?
420. A Hogarth curve floral design is shaped A. analytical
like a/an: B. experimental
A. fan C. placement
B. inverted T
D. supplementary
C. oval
426. What shade tree did Sandy most likely
D. S
see with deep-green leaves having a
421. Line flowers used in floral designs have: toothed or serrated margin?
A. florets blooming on tall spikes A. ginkgo
B. flowers on the end of stems B. Chinese dogwood.
C. small sprays of flowers C. southern red oak.
D. unique colors or shapes D. zelkova
422. Discipline of horticulture concerned with 427. Which flowers have long stalks or spikes
the growing and maintaining landscape with florets?
plants and related products, the use of A. Amaryllis and zinnia
equipment, and landscape design concepts.
B. Ginkgo and croton
A. Arboriculture
C. Peony and fuchsia
B. Floriculture
D. Snapdragon and gladiolus
D. Turfgrass Management 428. Sean is working on the training agree-
ment part of his Supervised Agricultural
423. The beginning of the food chain for all liv- Experience. It is signed by himself, his par-
ing things on Earth is caused by the biolog- ent or guardian, and his employer or super-
ical process known as: visor. This is part of what type of SAE?
A. Root hairs A. Analytical
B. Structure B. Entrepreneurship
C. Leaves C. Improvement
D. Photosynthesis D. Placement

429. Vegetative growth is the growth of: 435. What is the highest FFA degree one can
A. flowers and fruits receive?
B. fruits and roots A. State FFA Degree
C. leaves, stems, and roots B. Chapter FFA Degree
D. roots, seeds and flowers C. Greenhand FFA Degree
430. A fan floral design is shaped like a: D. American FFA Degree
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. circle 436. Chilling seeds to stimulate winter condi-
B. quarter moon tions before germination is known as:
C. semi-circle A. scarification
D. triangle B. stratification
431. When were girls allowed to join the FFA? C. budding
A. 1989 D. amending
B. 1969
437. What happens when concrete gets wet?
C. 1999
A. It gets slippery
D. 2009
B. It melts
432. Which medium-evergreen shrub has C. Nothing happens
yellowish-green new leaves, and 1/2” to
1” long and 1/2” to 1/4” wide medium- D. None of the above
green mature leaves?
438. The primary function of a flower is
A. Grape Ivy
A. to look nice
B. Japanese Boxwood
B. produce sugars
C. Thorny Elaeagnus
C. reproduction
D. Warneckii Dracena
D. store food
433. Which SAE record heading would be used
if you have an entrepreneurship SAE? 439. Someone who propagates and cares for
A. Hypothesis plants is:
B. Review of literature A. Greenhouse worker
C. training agreement B. Landscape designer
D. type of enterprise C. Floral designer
434. Within the research immersion SAE, D. Lawn maintenance worker
which of the following applies the scien-
tific method? 440. The scientific study of plants.
A. experimental A. Pomology
B. analysis B. Botany
C. invention C. xylem
D. none of above D. horticulture

441. The cultivation of flowers, which includes C. Hand Shear

the production, distribution, and process- D. Pole Pruner
ing of flowering and foliage plants

447. An interior plant that is about 4 feet tall
A. Floriculture
and looks similar to a little pine or cedar
B. Horticulture tree with dark green leaves. It is a/an:
C. Design by flower A. Eastern White Pine
D. none of above B. Norfolk Island Pine
442. What type of work does Thomas do as a C. Fraiser Fir
landscape nursery worker? D. Eastern Redbud
A. Design landscape plans 448. This occurs after a tube grows down from
B. Install the plants the pollen grain through the style to the
ovary.
C. Keep financial records
A. pollination
D. Plan and design the outdoor environ-
ment B. germination
C. fertilization
443. Snapdragons and Foxglove are used in ar-
rangements as: D. seed dispersal
A. line flowers 449. What is the career title of a person who

designs landscapes inside a mall?
B. mass flowers
A. Landscape designer
C. form flowers
B. Interiorscape designer
D. filer forms
C. Floral designer
444. What year was FFA established? D. Landscape technician
A. 1928
450. stargazer and calla lillies are used in ar-
B. 1929 rangements as:
C. 1930 A. line flowers
D. 1954 B. mass flowers
445. looses leaves during dormant season C. form flowers
A. deciduous D. filler flowers
B. turgid 451. Which most likely represents the FFA

goal to make a positive difference in the
C. evergreen
lives of students by developing their po-
D. wilted tential for premier leadership, personal
growth, and career success?
446. Which pruning tool should Sarah use to
remove 1/4” diameter growth from her A. colors
azaleas? B. mission statement
A. Axe C. motto
B. Chainsaw D. official dress

452. FFA helps students develop beyond class, A. Interiorscaping

local school chapter, and federation. What B. Landscape Design
is the first level of participation above fed-
eration level? C. Horticulture
A. International D. Agronomy
B. National FFA Organization 458. Find the area of petunia garden that mea-
C. North Carolina FFA Association sures 5.75 ft by 3.0 ft.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Region A. 8.75 ft
B. 17.5 ft
453. The cultivation of flowers
C. 17.25 ft
A. Olericulture
B. Viticulture D. 34.5 ft
C. Floriculture 459. Medicinal horticulture is NOT used for

D. Horticulture which of the following?
A. Veterinary practices
454. The most expensive method of establish-
ing a lawn is: B. Therapeutic practice
A. plugging C. Acupuncture
B. seeding D. Preventative medicine
C. sodding 460. Marigolds and other warm-season plants
D. sprigging grow best during:
A. early spring
455. the coarseness or fineness of the materi-
als in a landscape B. midsummer
A. line C. late fall
B. texture D. midwinter
C. balance 461. Which state ranks first in wholesale sale
D. form of floriculture and olericulture crops?
456. Which FFA CDE will help develop knol- A. California
wedge and skills needed to effectively B. Florida
participate in a horticulture organization’s
C. Texas
business meeting?
D. Illinois
A. Floriculture
B. Introduction to Horticulture 462. The process of breaking, scratching, or
softening the seed coat so that water can
enter and initiate germination is called:
D. Parliamentary Proceedure
A. initiation
457. Which branch primarily contains walk- B. scarification
ways, ponds, outdoor accents such as foun-
tains, and color coordination in planting to C. forcing
abide with the center of focus? D. sprouting

463. MOST cool-season grasses grow very lit- 468. The part of a net worth statement that
tle during the hottest months of summer. shows all debts is:
What is this conditioncalled? A. current liabilities

A. dead B. debt-to-equity ratio
B. dormant C. inventory
C. turgid D. total liabilities
D. wilted 469. seeks to make the viewer feel comfort-
able within the landscape
464. Water loss from the leaf surface through
evaporation is the plant process called: A. Simplicity
A. absorption B. Proportion
C. Rhythm and line
B. photosynthesis
D. Unity
C. respiration
D. transpiration 470. Michele is computerizing the production
records for a local nursery operation. This
465. Hazards associated with specific chemi- is an example of what type of SAE?
cals are described in the A. Analytical
A. Material Safety Data Sheets B. entrepreneurship
B. OSHA Pathogen Standard C. improvement
C. Hazard Communication Standard D. placement
D. OPIM Guidelines 471. Which plant has florets on a stalk and is
used in floral designs?
466. FFA helps students develop leadership be-
A. Cape jasmine
yond the class, local school chapter, and
federation. What is the first level of B. Hetzi holly
participation above the federation level? C. Japanese flowering cherry
Hint:Our federation is the Randolph Fed- D. Snapdragon
eration & is made up of all middle/high
schools in Randolph County, NC. 472. the culture of plants for food, comfort,
and beauty
A. International
A. horticulture
B. National FFA Organization
B. pomology
C. North Carolina FFA Association
C. floriculture
D. Region (West Central is our Region)
D. olericulture
467. plant is limp because it doesn’t have 473. The purpose of a speech that gives knowl-
enough moisture edge or information to the audience is to:
A. agronomy A. Entertain
B. botany B. Express anger
C. wilted C. inform
D. evergreen D. persuade

474. Pollination is the process by which the C. preside over meetings.

pollen grains are transferred from the
D. write minutes of meetings.
to the
A. anther ovary 480. Part of plants that holds into the soil.
B. anther stigma A. roots
C. stigma ovary B. stem
D. stigma filament C. flower
NARAYAN CHANGDER
475. Carl keeps accurate records including D. branch
SAE. What type of SAE is Carl working on? 481. Which is an example of a physical haz-
A. analytical ard?
B. entrepreneurship A. Spilled disinfectant

C. improvement B. Bodily fluids
D. placement C. Animal bite
476. The primary function of fruit is to: D. Chemical fumes

A. Absorb water and nutrients from soil 482. The procedure Cathy uses to shape her
B. Carry, nourish and protect seeds container-grown nursery stock and re-
C. Connect roots to leaves move dead and diseased limbs is:
D. Manufacture food for the plant A. chemical pruning.

B. disbudding.
477. The green color of leaves is caused by
the: C. hand pruning.
A. Chloroplasts D. liming
B. Epidermis
483. Spotted lanternfly can be accidentally
C. Guard cells moved to other locations as:
D. Margin A. egg masses
478. A soil report will include: B. nymphs
A. cost of lime C. adults
B. suggested fertilizer rate D. all of the above
C. cost of fertilizer
484. have no separate subcellular units.
D. recommend planting time
Examples include bacteria and blue-green
479. What Brian learns while serving as FFA algae.
Chapter Secretary could be used after A. organelle
graduation in horticulture organizations
to: B. eukaryotic
A. count money. C. cytoplasm
B. prepare budgets. D. prokaryotic

485. The leaves on a gladiolus plant are: B. Centipede grass

A. shaped like palm trees. C. St. Augustine grass

B. shaped like swords. D. tall fescue.
C. variegated green and yellow.
491. An example of a pomology career would
D. velvety textured and quilted. be
486. A person who cultivates and markets sod A. Lawn care
is a: B. Florist
A. Field crop technician C. veterinarian
B. Nursery manager D. Pecan Farmer
C. Turfgrass producer
492. line flowers are used in floral design to:
D. greenhouse manager
A. Add mass and weight
487. “Protection against accidents and break- B. establish height and width
age” is
C. draw attention to accent area
A. Accident Protection
D. fill empty spaces
B. Safety
C. Workplace Correctness 493. About 74% of all U.S. households par-
ticipated in lawn and garden activities in
D. Prevention 2016.
488. Suzy is attending an FFA meeting and A. Yes
hears the gavel tap twice. This signifies: B. No
A. that the meeting is adjourned C. Maybe
B. that the meeting was called to order D. none of above
C. for everyone to be quiet and orderly
494. Content and composition of the speech
D. for everyone to be seated
are determined:
489. Which FFA Career Development Event A. after the speech is given
(CDE) will help develop knowledge and
B. before the speech is given
skills needed to effectively participate in a
horticulture organization’s business meet- C. during the questioning time
ing? D. during the oral speech
A. Floriculture
495. Joey knows butterflies cause little or no
B. Introduction to Horticulture damage to his plants. The basis for his
C. Nursery/Landscape opinion is most likely because butterflies
have what type of mouthparts?
D. Parliamentary Procedure
A. Chewing
490. A cool-season grass that has coarse tex-
tured medium green leaves and has bunch- B. Piercing and sucking
type growth is: C. Rasping and sucking
A. Bermuda grass D. Siphoning

496. Erosion control is most difficult to control B. 5”

in what type of growing environment? C. 10”
A. PNP
D. 30”
B. Container
502. What type of nursery structure protects
C. Field-grown
plants from adverse weather conditions
D. Cold frame when covered in white plastic?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
497. , the economic system of the United A. Shade house
States, allows people to do business with B. hotbeds
a minimum of government interference
C. PNP
A. Sole proprietorship
D. Shed
B. Incorporation
C. Capitalism 503. Aside from economic value, what is a
value associated with ornamental horticul-
D. Free enterprise
ture?
498. Rory is studying the pH scale. What num- A. High-quality food
ber represents neutral?
B. Pharmaceutical proteins
A. 3
C. Psychological well-being
B. 5
D. Superior lumber
C. 7
D. 9 504. When is baby’s breath addes to a floral
design
499. The following are potential safety haz-
A. first
ards in the greenhouse
A. water hoses B. second
B. fertilizer C. third
C. electrical outlets D. last

D. All of the above 505. Which of the following is responsible for
the creation of large-scale windbreaks?
500. What percent is 5 of 7?
A. trees
A. 14 %
B. grass
B. 35 %
C. 71 % C. bushes
D. 140 % D. flowers
501. The general rule for root pruning is 10” 506. Current liabilities are debts that are:
of circle diameter for each 1” of plant stem A. due in the next ten years
diameter. What diameter circle should be
B. due in the next seven years
made for a plant that has a 3” diameter
stem? C. due this year
A. 3” D. past due.

507. What is one thing soil is not made up of? B. Recreational value
A. Organic material C. Food production

B. Living decomposers D. Therapeutic value
C. Air 513. What are the degrees that can be earned
D. Nurtients in FFA? Please select the answer choice
that is listed in order.
508. This type of SAE involves placing stu-
A. Chapter, Discovery, American, State
dents in jobs outside the regular classroom
hours. They may be paid or unpaid (volun- B. Chapter, Greenhand, State, American
teer) work. C. Greenhand, Chapter, State, American
A. Exploratory D. Discovery, Chapter, State, American
B. Placement 514. William examines a landscape functional
C. Entrepreneurship diagram and a final landscape plan. He no-
tices that the amount of detail in the final
D. Improvement
landscape plan is:
509. The main difference between sodding and A. less
plugging is that sodding uses strips of sod
B. more
to cover the whole lawn, but plugging
starts the lawn by using: C. same
A. plant runners or cuttings D. none of above
B. seeds 515. The lower portion of a graft is known as
C. small pieces of sod what?
D. stolons and sprigs A. Rootstock

B. Lowerstock
510. Which type of root system causes plants
C. Understock
to be easier to transplant?
D. Scion
A. Fibrous
B. Long 516. What holly has 1-3 terminal spines and
reaches heights of 15’-25’?
C. Sharp
A. Compacta
D. Tap
B. Nellie R. Stevens
511. What is the study of grapes? C. Carissa
A. Viticulture D. Helleri
B. Forestry
517. The total perimeter of the square garden
C. Olericulture bed is 48 feet. What is the total area of
D. Pomology the bed in square feet?
A. 12
512. Fruits, nuts and vegetable production are
classified as which of the following bene- B. 96
fits of the horticulture industry? C. 144
A. Aesthetic value D. 192

518. Fertilizers that dissolve in water and are B. has a lot of weight
applied as a liquid solution are C. is cheap
A. Inorganic D. is sterile
B. Organic
524. The planting, harvesting, storing, pro-
C. Soluble
cessing, and marketing of fruit and nut
D. Insoluble crops
A. Pomology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
519. Sue wears a white collared shirt, black
shoes, black skirt, FFA scarf, and FFA B. Horticulture
jacket zipped halfway to the top. What
C. Floriculture
component of official FFA dress is she miss-
ing? D. Olericulture
A. Her black shoes should be brown. 525. Which is a lightweight, inorganic mica
B. Her jacket should be zipped to the top. mineral capable of absorbing a large
amount of water in growing media?
C. Her shirt should be blue rather than
white. A. bark
D. Her skirt should be navy blue. B. compost
520. Advantages of Asexual vegetative prop- C. leaf mold

agation D. vermiculite
A. All off spring are true to type (identical 526. A speech about Hereford cattle given at
to the parent) and produce. the annual meeting of purebred Angus cat-
B. True tle breeders would be inappropriate be-
C. Mostly smaller seeds cause of the:
D. False A. audience
B. length of speech
521. Which pH reading is acid?
C. location
A. 3.5
D. speaker
B. 7
C. 8 527. Which one is responsible for maintaining
fairway and greens turf as well as sand
D. 9.5
traps and irrigation?
522. When storing seeds, it is important to: A. florist
A. keep seeds in a cool, dry place B. garden center employee
B. maintain temperatures at 70◦ F C. golf course employee
C. provide humidity above 50◦ F D. greenhouse worker
D. place seeds in a plastic zip-lock bag
528. Which grass should a homeowner in
523. Zoey uses a soilless horticultural mix for western NC plant if the grass needs to tol-
her greenhouse because it: erate high use or wear?
A. comes from the garden A. Centipede grass

B. Kentucky Bluegrass 534. reactions form oxides of parent ma-

C. St. Augustine grass terial by reaction with oxygen.

A. Hydrolysis
D. Zoysia grass
B. Oxidation
529. The by-product of photosynthesis is:
C. Aseptic
A. carbon dioxide
D. Septic
B. nitrogen
535. What do we call the tiny pores on the un-
C. oxygen derside of the leaf?
D. water A. Buds
530. one of the most natural locations for a B. Stamens
focal point. This planting is placed in the C. Cuticle
corner of the landscape.
D. Stomates
A. line planting
536. The main product of photosynthesis is:
B. foundation planting
A. carbon dioxide
C. corner planting
B. nitrogen
D. mass planting
C. sugar
531. Clayey textured soils are characterized D. water
by:
537. You can tell where a terminal bud was
A. being loose and single grain.
located by it’s:
B. having high moisture-holding capacity. A. lateral buds
C. having large soil particles. B. leaf scar
D. having low moisture-holding capacity. C. bud scale scars
532. Which of the following statement is true? D. xylem
A. Horticulture have decreased employ- 538. Jack helps set up the community gardens
ment opportunities for women beds as a part of his SAE. What type of
B. The increase in horticultural produc- SAE does he have?
tion has increased the vulnerability A. Placement
C. Horticulture is emerging as an impor- B. Research
tant source of livelihood in the rural C. School-Based
D. none of above D. Service Learning
533. Which division of horticulture focuses on 539. Which type of garden takes up less
grasses, annuals, shrubs, and trees. space?
A. pomology A. Flat bed
B. landscape and nursery B. Container
C. floriculture C. Raised beds
D. olericulture D. Rooftop

540. Newly planted trees should be stalked B. cultura

to: C. cultivar
A. Hold plant straight
D. flora
B. Hold water
546. when plants rest and grow very little
C. Prevent soil erosion
D. provide mulch A. floriculture
B. deciduous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
541. The leaves on a plume asparagus fern
are: C. agronomy
A. dark green and feather-like. D. dormant
B. shaped like a sword. 547. A method where tube of wet paper con-
C. shaped like palm trees. taining the seeds that should be grown.
D. variegated in green and white. A. Rag-doll method
542. Even though the parent material my have B. seed box method
been present for many centuries, soils C. Petri dish method
without well-developed horizons are clas- D. floating in water method
sified as
A. Undeveloped Soils 548. The germination rate represents the num-
ber of plants that:
B. Old Soils
A. are planted from seed
C. Incomplete Soils
D. Young Soils B. begin growth after being started from
seed
543. What is the TISSUE that carries food from C. are in the greenhouse
a plant’s leaves to its cells?
D. are seeds incased in the fruit of a plant
A. xylem
B. phloem 549. The edge of a leaf is the:
C. photsynthesis A. Margin
D. vascular tissue B. Midrib
544. The perennial flowering vine Amy C. Terminal bud

planted in her garden is most likely a: D. Veins
A. Japanese pachysandra.
550. The plow reminds agricultural students
B. clematis. and FFA members of what important prin-
C. Gerber daisy. ciple?
D. coneflower. A. Common agricultural interest of all stu-
dents
545. The term horticulture is derived from two
B. Importance of knowledge to success
Latin words hortus, meaning ‘garden’, and
meaning ‘cultivation C. National scope of the FFA
A. futura D. Value of hard work

551. Production and cultivation of fruit and nut C. John Deere

crops refers to which of the following? D. George Washington

A. Floriculture
557. As part of regular biological processes, a
B. Olericulture
deciduous tree:
C. Cut flowers
A. dies each year in the winter.
D. Pomology
B. keeps its functional leaves in the dor-
552. If a plant has holes in the leaves or miss- mant season.
ing plant parts, it is likely that the damage C. drops its functional leaves in the dor-
came from a chewing insect such as a: mant season.
A. catepillar or japanese beetle D. remains green all year.
B. aphid or whitefly
558. In this method, seeds are put in a con-
C. mealybug or catepillar tainer of water for 15 minutes.
D. grasshopper or spidermite
A. Rag-doll method
553. Jamie has a tray of marigold seedlings B. Seedbox method
she started from seed. She transplants
C. Petri dish method
the seedlings from the seedling flat to cell
packs when the: D. Floating in water method
A. first mature roots appear 559. Mark takes some soil samples from his
B. first true leaves are on the plant lawn and some from a field where he
C. plants are two weeks old grows vegetables. Compared to the field
samples, his samples from the lawn should
D. seedlings are 6 inches tall be taken:
554. Because roses produce flowers on wood A. about 2 inches deeper.
produced the same growing season, the B. about 8 inches deeper.
plants should be pruned in the:
C. about 2 inches shallower.
A. early spring.
D. at the same depth
B. early summer.
C. late spring. 560. What is the genus name for all oaks?
D. late summer. A. Quercus
555. Modified leaves that show color B. Acer
A. Evergreen C. Cornus
B. Annual D. Ilex
C. Needles 561. What is a deficiency symptom?
D. Bracts A. Gives dark green color
556. Who wrote the FFA Creed? B. Necessary to develop cell proteins
A. E.M. Tiffany C. Slow and Dwarfed Plant Growth
B. Henry Groseclose D. Older leaves are purplish

562. The horticulture industry allows produc- C. line

ers to market their products: D. mass
A. Only during holidays
567. On each side of a school parking lot,
B. Only during summer months Glenn observed medium-size deciduous
C. Globally trees that have white flowers in spring
D. Only in North Carolina and reddish purple leaves in autumn. They
grow in a symmetrical shape with little or
563. Andrew selects a unique azalea plant. no pruning. These trees are:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
The propagation method that he uses to A. border forsythias
rapidly increase the number of identical
plants is: B. bradford pears
A. grafting C. dwarf burfod
B. leaf cuttings D. japanese aucubas
C. seeding 568. Which procedure should Thomas use to re-

D. tissue culture move dead or diseased branches from his
nursery plants?
564. Spotted lanternfly first arrived from Asia A. Fertilize
to which state in 2012?
B. Landscape
A. Virginia
C. Prune
B. New Jersey
D. Transplant
C. Pennsylvania
D. Delaware 569. The turf play area is 3 feet longer than
it is wide and has an area of 550 square
565. Which activity might a group of students feet. How many feet long is the turfed
conducting a School-based Enterprise using play area?
the school greenhouse complete as they be- A. 20
gin their immersion SAE?
B. 22
A. brainstorm potential employers for the
experience C. 25
B. develop a research plan including all D. 28

safety requirements 570. A plant that completes its life cycle in two
C. complete necessary paperwork to ob- years
tain a small business loan A. forestry
D. create and distribute a survey to ex- B. turgid
plore marketplace needs and buyer pref-
erences for bedding plants C. perennial
D. biennial
566. The type of floral design flowers that
have tall spikes with florets along the 571. Water enters and exits the guard cells
stem such as gladiolus are: by:
A. filler A. osmosis
B. form B. photosynthesis

C. diffusion C. agronomy
D. active transport D. deciduous

572. What is the texture of soils that have 578. The science of soil management and crop
about equal parts of sand, clay, and silt? production.
A. clayey A. Botany
B. loamy B. Agronomy
C. sandy C. Forestry
D. silty D. Horticulture
573. Celery is an example of that plant what? 579. The leadership quality that means reli-
able support for an individual, group, or
A. roots
cause is:
B. Stem
A. enthusiasm
C. Flower
B. loyalty
D. none of above C. tact
574. Conditioning the soil includes: D. unselfishness
A. adding fertilizer and lime 580. What are the three layers of a typical soil
B. grading the slope profile starting at the soil surface?
C. selecting quality grass seeds A. Bedrock, subsoil, and topsoil
D. sowing grass seeds B. Subsoil, topsoil, and bedrock
575. what is division C. Topsoil, bedrock, and subsoil
A. Separation of a plant into an individual D. Topsoil, subsoil, and bedrock

clump making sure it has a growth point 581. Which deciduous shrub produces large
leaf and root blue, pink, or white “snowball” flowers?
B. None of the above A. Compacta holly
C. All of these B. Indian hawthorn
D. A Separation of the two that makes it C. Japanese yew
one
D. French hydrangea
576. What is the main purpose of flowers?
582. If a net worth statement shows that a
A. Make people happy business has $5, 000 cash on hand, $20,
B. Produce Seeds 000 in a checking account, and land val-
ued at $600, 000, which amount should
C. Produce food
be entered on the total assets line of a net
D. Food for the bees worth statement?
577. The part of biology that deals with ani- A. $25, 000
mals B. $575, 000
A. horticulture C. $600, 000
B. zoology D. $625, 000

583. the growing and using of plants for their 588. A part-time job at a florist is which type
beauty of SAE?
A. pomology A. anyalytical
B. landscape horticulture B. improvement
C. olericulture C. placement
D. ornamental horticulture D. supplementary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
584. The main expense for using plugging to 589. After fertilization, this part of a plant
establish a lawn is: eventually becomes the fruit.
A. Fertilizer A. seed
B. labor B. ovary
C. pesticides C. sepel
D. seeds D. petal
590. What is a good choice for pencil hardness

585. The component of the animal science in-
when drawing landscape designs?
structional program that gives students an
opportunity to explore interests and gain A. HB-2H
work experience is the: B. 2B-B
A. classroom C. 2B-HB
B. FFA D. HB-B
C. state ffa convention
591. Specimen plants generally are
D. Supervised Agricultural Experience
A. used alone
586. Sara wants to own and operate a land- B. usually expensive
scape business that handles everything C. often large trees/floor plants
from the first contact with the client
through design and construction as well D. All of the above
as long-term care and maintenance. which 592. Carrots are an example of which part of
type of business will she have? the plant?
A. Design-build firm A. roots
B. landscape installer B. stem
C. landscape maintenance C. flower
D. subcont D. leaves
587. The first step in the landscape project 593. the growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
maintenance process is: cessing, and marketing of fruits and nuts
A. bill customer for work done A. Ornamental horticulture
B. Determine the need or objective. B. Olericulture
C. purchase lawnmower C. Pomology
D. subcontract pest control D. Floriculture

594. Why might propagation via seed be ben- 599. Where can a horticulturist work?
eficial to vegetative propagation? A. Greenhouse or nursery production and

A. It can be less expensive management
B. You cannot wait until the plant is fully B. Food Sevice
developed C. Business Management
C. You need to produce plants quickly D. Building & Construction
D. You may want to produce new vari- 600. What does the word horticulture mean?
eties that resist disease A. farm development
595. When a floral design looks too small for B. plant growing
the area where it is used, the design prin- C. garden cultivation
ciple the floral designer failed to follow is:
D. plant science
A. accent
601. The part of the plant which grows in the
B. rhythm ground.
C. scale A. leaf
D. unity B. stem
C. root
596. The most desirable soil for non-container
outdoor plant production is: D. seed
A. clay 602. The science and practice of growing, har-

vesting, storing, designing, and marketing
B. loam flowering plant is:
C. sand A. floriculture
D. silt B. pomology
C. olericulture
597. Area of horticulture that involves fruit
and nut production D. horticulture
A. Pomology 603. The plant tissue that carries food DOWN-

WARD from the leaves to the rest of the
B. Olericulture
pant is the
C. Floricultre A. Phloem
D. Horticulture B. Stomata
598. Disadvantages of sexual (Seed) propaga- C. Chlorophyll

tion D. Xylem
A. they are all long and large 604. What are the official FFA colors?
B. Most seeds are very slow and germi- A. National Blue and Corn Gold
nate B. National Blue and Corn Yellow
C. True C. Navy Blue and Corn Gold
D. False D. Blue and Gols

605. #22 gauge wire is used for wiring: C. keep financial records
A. boutonnierres D. Plan and design the outdoor environ-
B. corsages ment.
C. bows 611. Dwarf Yaupon, Helleri Holly and Dwarf
D. heavy flowers Burford Holly are all in the genus called:
606. On the map 1/4 inch equals 12 miles. If A. Ilex

a road on the map is 60 miles long, how
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Maple
long is the line to draw this road?
C. Pinus
A. 1/4 inch
D. Querkus
B. 1/2 inch
C. 1.0 inch 612. If Dave has a bag of fescue that has a
seed germination rate of 80%, he can ex-
D. 1 1/4 inches pect:
607. What type of Supervised Agricultural Ex- A. 20 out of 80 seeds to germinate.
perience would involve researching the ef-
B. 80 out of 100 seeds to germinate.
fect of various planting times on the yields
of radishes? C. all seeds to germinate.
A. analytical D. 20 out of 100 seeds to germinate.
B. placement
613. Which division of horticulture focuses on
C. experimental flowering plants?
D. school based enterprise A. pomology
608. What area of horticulture is concerned B. landscape and nursery
with providing commercial source of C. floriculture
plants?
D. olericulture
A. Nursery Production
B. Pomology 614. What happens to plants during their dor-
mant stage?
C. Turf grass management
D. Floriculture A. die
B. grow abundantly
609. Net worth is the same as:
C. they start flowering
A. current assets
B. equity
C. inventory 615. There has been a considerable rise in the
D. total liabilities income levels of families engaged in
A. Livestock farming
610. Thomas is a landscape nursery worker.
The type of work he does is: B. animal husbandry
A. Design landscape plans. C. Horticulture production
B. Install the plants. D. none of above

616. Safety Colors - The color red indicates 621. What is the best explanation as to why
what? vegetable production has steadily grown?

A. Danger A. Consumer demand has increased
B. warning B. Fewer families are growing their own
C. Caution C. More land is under cultivation
D. Safety D. Vegetables are more profitable
617. is the science that deals with the mi- 622. The growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
croscopic structure of plant or animal tis- cessing, and marketing of FRUITS & NUTS
sues. A. Floriculture
A. Histology B. Horticulture
B. Morphology C. Pomology
C. Cytology D. Ornamental Horticulture
D. Hypocotyl 623. The traditional nursery method of grow-
ing plants in the field is what type of pro-
618. Jesus spent several days landscaping his
duction?
home to help the appearance and to in-
crease the comfort and value. What Su- A. Pot-in-pot
pervised Agricultural Experience is Jesus B. Container
conducting?
C. Field-grown
A. Analytical
D. Cold frame
B. Experimental
624. If a cut flower grower has a $500, 000
C. Improvement
mortgage on her land and buildings, and
D. Placement she owes Farm Credit Service $60, 000
for this year’s mortgage payment, what
619. What is the best running-type grass for amount should be entered on the current
Malik to plant in a shady area of his lawn? liability line?
A. Tall fescue A. $60, 000
B. Bent grass B. $440, 000
C. Creeping red fescue C. $500, 000
D. Bahia grass D. $560, 000
620. What must happen for a plant to grow 625. The “balance” landscape design principle
seeds? is demonstrated by:
A. nectar must move from one flower to A. Installing equal plants on each side of
another a door.
B. an animal must eat the flower B. Installing foundation plantings and pri-
C. pollen must move from flower to vacy fences
flower C. Installing plants to block a view.

626. The green pigment in plants is due to the C. New Farmer Associations
presence of D. New Farmers of America
A. chlorophyll
632. What are the 4 main sections of horticul-
B. Chlorine ture?
C. Chlorophyta A. Floriculture, Pomology, Landscape,
D. chromatophores and Olericulture
B. Gardening, Harvesting, Growing, and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
627. The planting, harvesting, storing, pro- Composting
cessing, and marketing of vegetable crops
C. Seed production, Sowiculture, Opto-
A. Horticulture mology, and Lanscaping
B. Olericulture D. Apology, Orangeculture, Nursery, and
C. Floriculture Garden Cultivation
D. Pomology 633. Which comes from a Latin word meaning

“garden cultivation” and includes vegeta-
628. An immersion SAE that asks “why” or bles, fruits and ornamental plants?
“how” something occurs, followed by a
A. agronomy
collection of data, and analysis of data to
answer the question is: B. forestry
A. analysis C. horticulture
D. zoology
B. entrepreneurship
C. experimental 634. * Raising livestock, cultivating the soil,
and producing row crops, including some
D. invention fruits and vegetables.
629. The “rhythm and line” landscape design A. Landscape
principle is illustrated by: B. Agriculture
A. foundation plantings C. Forestry
B. Repeating colors. D. none of above
C. Repeating plant species. 635. Who would be responsible for displaying
D. none of above and selling bedding plants?
A. Garden center employee
630. Which of the following is NOT provided
to plants by soil? B. Greenskeeper
A. stability C. Landscape designer

D. Lawn maintenance employer
B. nutrients
C. run-off 636. Plants with which root system are easier
to transplant?
D. oxygen
A. fibrous
631. The NFA stood for: B. long
A. National Farmers of America C. sharp
B. New Farmers of American D. tap

637. is the growing, harvesting, storing, 642. producing and using plants to make out-
processing, and marketing of vegetables. door environments more appealing

A. Horticulture A. landscape horticulture
B. Olericulture B. pomology
C. Pomology C. horticulture
D. Landscape Horticulture D. floriculture
638. The plant part that attracts insects for 643. When the plant roots or the entire plant
pollination is the: may be cut into sections to make two or
more plants from the original, what type
A. flower
of asexual propagation is that?
B. leaf
A. Separation
C. root
B. Layering
D. stem
C. Grafting
639. A tree that has no leaves in the winter is D. Division
considered:
644. Because trees live many years, they are:
A. Deciduous
A. annuals
B. Evergreen
B. biennials
C. Herbaceous
C. perennials
D. Turgid
D. semiannuals
640. How long does a perennial plant typically
live? 645. What is a greenhouse?
A. 1 year A. A house made of glass and the glass
traps heat from sunlight.
B. 6 months
B. A house that stays warm inside.
C. 2 years
C. A house that people grow plants, fruits,
D. beyond 2 years
and vegetables in.
641. Horticulture is a science, as well as, an D. All of the above
art of production, utilisation and improve-
ment of horticultural crops, such as fruits 646. This type of SAE involves planning and
and vegetables, spices and condiments, or- conducting an agricultural experiment us-
namental, plantation, medicinal and aro- ing the scientific process or scientific
matic plants. method.
A. False A. Entrepreneurship
B. True B. Improvement
C. somewhat true C. Exploratory
D. others D. Experimental

647. Use the tool for the job. C. the hard work associated with agricul-
A. Correct ture.
B. Biggest D. the national scope of the FFA.
C. Smallest 653. The co-op has Hibiscus priced at $14.00

each. On Wednesday the Hibiscus are go-
D. none of above
ing on sale for 15% off making them cost
648. What type of immersion Supervised Agri- $ 11.90 each. Any Hibiscus not sold by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cultural Experience involves volunteering Saturday will be marked off another 20%.
to teach floral design at a local assisted- What percent of the original price is the fi-
living facility? nal price?
A. Invention A. 82.5 %
B. Experimental B. 68 %
C. Service Learning C. 65 %
D. School based Enterprise D. 35 %
649. Which plant has a serrated or toothed 654. Which characteristics of sandy textured
leaves, and blooms in the fall season? soils?
A. Christmas cactus A. small packed together soil particles
B. Peperomia B. high moisture-holding capacity
C. Thanksgiving cactus C. high nutrients-holding capacity
D. Wax plant D. low moisture-holding capacity
650. An example of an Entrepreneurship SAE 655. Pedro likes to add compost to condition
is his soil. What is compost?
A. Cutting grass A. Clayey Soil

B. Decayed organic matter
B. Observing a greenhouse manager
C. Vermiculite
C. Planting a garden
D. Volcanic Rock
D. Starting your own produce company
656. Which large evergreen shrub has white,
651. If the scientific name is Ficus benjamina,
pink, or red 1 1/2” - 2” flowers in Octo-
what plant is it?
ber and November?
A. peace lily
A. Cape jasmine
B. weeping fig
B. Chinese dogwood
C. english ivy
C. Japanese yew
D. impatiens
D. Sasanqua camellia
652. The rising sun is an important part of the 657. Jenny needs to construct some beds to
FFA emblem because it represents: use for rooting azalea cuttings. How deep
A. agricultural knowledge and wisdom. should the rooting media be?
B. agricultural opportunity and progress. A. 1 inch

B. 4 inches 663. A tropical plant with palm-like leaves is

C. 12 inches A. croton.

D. 24 inches B. live oak.
C. parlor palm
658. Which branch primarily focuses on plant
and soil interaction? D. Savannah holly.
A. Floriculture 664. Where is the FFA National Convention

held?
B. Horticulture
A. Indiana
C. Agronomy
B. Kentucky
D. Turfgrass Management
C. North Carolina
659. The growing of flowers or foliage plants D. Missouri
A. Floriculture 665. gallons per hour. Measures amount of
B. Landscape horticulture water that flows through an irrigation sys-
tem.
C. Floral production
A. GPM
D. Olericulture
B. GPH
660. The primary function of plant seeds is: C. PSI
A. Absorption D. none of above
B. Photosynthesis 666. Which of the following is not an economic
C. Plant identification value of horticulture?
D. Sexual reproduction A. Increases values of homes through
landscaping
661. Which soil particles are the smallest? B. Cleans air
A. clay C. Provides jobs
B. rocks D. Produces food
C. sand 667. When making a cutting you should al-
D. silt ways cut
A. above the node
662. Jacob learns a disadvantage of propagat-
ing using cuttings is that when cuttings are B. below the node
removed from the parent plant, the: C. on the node
A. cuttings’ absorption process stops. D. anywhere
B. cuttings are cut off from their source 668. After a student has evaluated his or her
of water. own interests and has narrowed the field
C. parent plant needs more light. of jobs, then the student should:
D. parent plant needs additional fertil- A. apply for a job

izer. B. complete a job application

C. go for a job interview 674. Pores in the leaf’s surface are

D. study the requirements of the job A. stomata
669. Small, deciduous tree with heart-shaped B. stomates

leaves, three- to five-inch long brown C. stigmas
bean-type pods, and pink-purple colored
D. Both a and b
seasonal flowers is an:
A. ajuga 675. Growing pumpkins to sell is an example
NARAYAN CHANGDER
if what type of Immersion SAE.
B. japanese maple
A. Foundational
C. eastern redbud
B. Placement
D. red oak
C. Ownership
670. Uneek is making leaf cuttings. She must
D. School-based Enterprise
be certain that she cuts the leaf:
A. margin 676. If a nursery owner has a $250, 000 mort-
gage on his land and he owes Farm Credit
B. petiole
Service $30, 000 for this year’s payment,
C. stomate what amount should be entered on the non-
D. vein current liability line of the financial state-
ment?
671. Using plants for their beauty A. $30, 000
A. Ornamental Horticulture B. $220, 000
B. Animal Science C. $250, 000
C. Pomology D. $280, 000
D. Olericulture
677. The person planting hanging baskets can
672. when something repeats itself enough plant 40 hanging baskets of petunias in
times with a standard distance between one hour. How many hanging baskets can
repetitions, a rhythm is established he plants in 90 minutes?
A. simplicity A. 45
B. rythum and line B. 60
C. unity C. 150
D. proportion D. 360
673. What is the first degree in FFA for high 678. A growing method for seedlings that can
school members? grow in a multiple seedlings in one flat.
A. Greenhand A. Rag-doll method
B. American B. Seedbox method
C. State C. Petri dish method
D. Discovery D. Floating in water method

679. A of pH 7.0 is: 684. Elements needed by a plant to promote

healthy tissue, processes, and growth.
A. Acidic
A. Nutrients

B. Basic
B. Soil
C. Neutral
C. Water
D. Odd D. Sunlight
680. Watering is more important for container- 685. As a garden center worker, Julie should:
grown plants than field-grown plants be- A. be a high school dropout
cause:
B. be unfriendly to customers
A. spacing the pots in the nursery would C. enjoy working with people and plants
have to increase.
D. expect to work in an air conditioned
B. plants would have to be hand watered. area
C. roots can go no deeper or spread any 686. Marigolds and other warm-season plants
wider than the container. grow BEST during:
D. plants can only live in a container for A. early spring
one year.
B. late fall
681. What does NRCS stand for? C. midsummer
A. National Rural Conservatory Service D. midwinter
B. Natural Resource Conservation Ser- 687. A plant that has spikes with florets and is
vice used to make floral arrangements is a/an:
C. North Richmond Conservation Service A. arrowhead vine.

B. gladiolus.
D. National Reservation of Conserving
Soil C. parlor palm.
D. zinnia.
682. Forcing roots to develop while the plant
is still connected to the parent plant prior 688. What is the primary reason for pruning
to separation is known as: nursery plants?
A. Produce desired shape
A. cutting
B. Rejuvenate plant
B. grafting
C. Remove dead flowers
C. layering
D. Thin branches
D. budding
689. What should you do if you are unsure
683. The study and cultivation of grape vines. about something?
A. Ask Questions
A. Olericulture
B. Use Common Sense
B. Viticulture
C. Don’t touch it and wait for the teacher
C. Floriculture to help you
D. Horticulture D. All of these

690. Callie is propagating her African violet by B. preliminary

taking leaf cuttings. She is confident that
C. final
leaf cuttings will work because she is us-
ing: D. none of above
A. axillary buds
695. A warm-season grass that grows from
B. herbaceous plants both stolons and rhizomes and has fine-
C. stem tissue textured leaves that vary in color from
light green to dark green is:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. woody plants
A. Annual Ryegrass
691. . are stems that grow horizontally
above ground. B. Bermuda
A. Bulbs C. Kentucky Bluegrass
B. Rhizomes D. Tall Fescue
C. Tubers
696. Small deciduous trees that flower all sum-
D. Stolons mer and into early fall with a flower color
692. Which step in the SAE process would stu- that may be white, pink, red, or purple.
dents complete after finishing their foun- What is the plant?
dational SAE? A. Crepe myrtle
A. get coaching and feedback from a B. Evergreen euonymus
teacher or mentor
C. Prayer plant
B. fill out paperwork to obtain a personal
loan D. Red maple
C. sign up for community college courses
697. During a business meeting, Romero
D. begin an entrepreneurship SAE moved to enter a float in the homecoming
parade. Before action can take place, the
693. Christy enjoys mound layering her prize-
motion has to be:
winning azalea. Which is true of her
mound layering technique? A. amended
A. The plant has to be dug and separated B. defeated
first.
C. referred to a committee
B. A trench has to be dug for each stem
being propagated. D. seconded
C. Only one inch of bark has to be re-
698. The part of the plant that transports wa-
moved.
ter and nutrients up from the roots to the
D. Soil has to be heaped up around the stems and leaves is called the:
plant.
A. phloem
694. Jones Landscape Company needs to in- B. cambia
stall materials at a job site. Which draw-
ing will employees likely use on the job? C. xylem
A. functional D. bark

699. A plant with large green leaf-like growth A. Red

that looked similar to a long vein down the
B. White
middle. It had many little leaf-like struc-

tures called fronds, but it had no flowers C. Blue
or seeds. This plant is a: D. No berries
A. catawba rhododendron.
704. If a bedding plant grower’s inventory
B. geranium.
shows plants worth $40, 000, supplies
C. weeping fig. worth $1, 000, and land valued at $200,
D. boston fern. 000, what amount should be entered on
the non-depreciable inventory line of the
700. Sheri’s Supervised Agricultural Experi- financial statement?
ence is to identify an agricultural problem
A. $400
that cannot be solved by experiments. It
does involve designing a plan to investi- B. $41, 000
gate and analyze the problem. What type C. $200, 000
of SAE is Sheri working on?
D. $241, 000
A. analytical
B. entrepreneurship 705. Which of the following is provided by
landscape horticulture?
C. experimental
A. Tax benefits
D. exploratory
B. Aesthetics
701. What is the FFA Motto?
C. Medicine
A. Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earn-
ing to Live, Living to Serve D. Fruits
B. Learning to Work, Working to Earn, 706. If no more than one half the total leaf
Earning to Live, Living to Breathe surface should be removed, and the rec-
C. Making Our Mark, One Dream at a comended mowing height is 2 1/2” what
Time, Living the Life, It was Meant to Be is the max height the grass should be be-
fore it’s mowed
D. Leading to Educate, Following to Learn,
Competing in Contests, Winning is All A. 2 1/2”
702. The drawing that employees of Jones B. 4”

Landscape Company will use to install ma- C. 5”
terials at a jobsite is most likely the:
D. 8”
A. bubble diagram.
B. final plan. 707. Which division of horticulture focuses on
vegetables?
C. functional plan.
A. olericulture
D. preliminary design.
B. pomology
703. Everyone is familiar with the mistletoe
C. agronomy
tradition. What color are the berries of
the plant? D. floriculture

708. Which of the following is NOT a branch C. London plane tree

of horticulture? D. Wintergreen barberry
A. Agriculture
714. Tamicka uses a commercial blend of horti-
B. Pomology culture soil because she can depend on the
C. Floriculture pH of the product being:
D. Olericulture A. acidic
709. Monocot stems have the xylem and B. alkaline
NARAYAN CHANGDER
phloem: C. basic
A. In small bundles scattered throughout D. neutral
the stem
715. Trevor sees a tropical plant at the mall
B. In ten layers or ten circles that has thin red bands along the margin.
C. On each side of the cambium layer What plant does he see?
D. On the outside of the stem A. Jade plant
710. Where should tools be returned? B. Aglaonema
A. Tool Shed C. False aralia
B. Greenhouse D. Red-edged dracaena
C. Barn 716. Seth has a few plants left to sale, he has

D. Classroom 4 red Gerbera daisies left and 5 yellow
Gerbera daisies left. If Seth just randomly
711. The female part of the flower is called grabs one of these plants off the table to
what? give away, what is the probability that
A. Pistil Seth grabs a red Gerbera Daisy?
B. Stamen A. 1/5
C. Petal B. 1/4
D. none of above C. 4/9

D. 4/5
712. All of the following are environmental
values of horticulture except: 717. National blue and Corn gold are the:
A. Cleans air A. FFA Emblem
B. Provides jobs B. FFA Colors
C. Prevents erosion C. FFA Motto
D. Provides shade D. FFA Slogan
713. Which large deciduous tree has 6” long 718. Caroline moved to sell candy to raise
and 4” wide medium-green leaves with 3 money for scholarships. Adam wants to
to 5 pointed lobes and 1” - 1 “ fuzzy round sell flowers. To change the motion, Adam
fruit? moves to:
A. Clematis A. adjourn
B. Snapdragon B. amend

C. appeal 724. One big problem of vegetative propaga-

D. argue tion is excessive water loss. What is one
thing you could do to prevent this from

719. Each year he horticulture industry puts killing your cutting?
over 25 billion dollars in the economy at A. Soak the plant with heavy amounts of
this level” water each day
A. County B. Remove nodes and most stem tissue
B. State C. Water plant only once
C. National D. Remove lower leaves of cutting
D. World
725. Which grass is used on golf greens and
720. Which is most directly related to reducing requires fans to keep the greens cool?
the carbon footprint? A. tall fescue
A. Garden center salesperson B. bentgrass
B. Golf course superintendent C. St. Augustine
C. Green industry employee D. Bahia
D. Park ranger
726. Which of the following is NOT considered
721. If Susan is planting one nursery plant per a recreational value for plants?
container, the plant should be: A. Crop production
A. cut back to the media B. sports
B. planted in the center of the container C. gardening
C. planted near the edge of the container D. lawns
D. root pruned
727. Sean is working on the training agree-
722. What type of immersion SAE benefits an ment part of his SAE. It is signed by him-
organization, group, or individuals other self, his parent, or guardian, and his em-
than the FFA chapter? ployer or supervisor. This is part of what
type of SAE?
A. placement
A. analytical
B. service learning
B. entrepreneurship
C. entrepreneurship
D. school-based enterprise C. improvement
D. placement
723. Because azaleas produce flowers on
wood grown the previous growing season, 728. What is a potential source of danger
the shrubs shoud be pruned in the late: called?
A. Fall A. Accident
B. spring B. Hazard
C. summer C. Right - to - know
D. winter D. Materials safety data sheet

729. Filler flowers used in floral designs have: C. Less expensive

A. flowers on the stems ends D. Only way for some plants to reproduce
B. small sprays of flowers 735. Seedlings that receive too little light will
C. tall spikes with florets have:
D. unique colors or shapes A. Brighter Flower colors
B. Dark green leaves
730. The “unity” landscape design principle is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
demonstrated by: C. Short thick stems
A. foundation plantings D. Tall Slender Stems
B. maintaining size relationships 736. Which is a characteristic of sandy tex-
C. privacy fences tured soils?
D. repeating plant species A. High moisture-holding capacity
B. High nutrient-holding capacity
731. is a complex polysaccharide carbohy-
drate. The form of food commonly stored C. Low moisture-holding capacity
by plants. D. Small packed together soil particles
A. ribosome 737. Which country was the first to use the
B. lipid tradition of a Christmas tree?
C. protein A. England
D. starch B. Germany
C. United States
732. What should be used to determine if
amendments are needed in native soil? D. Netherlands
A. Aeration 738. filler materials used in floral design may
B. Fertilizing be:
C. Treatment A. Baby’s breath
D. Soil test B. daisies

C. gladiolus
733. Producing field-grown nursery plants is
D. open roses
being replaced by container-grown plants
because container-grown plants: 739. What is not a type of soil?
A. have lower start-up costs. A. Sand
B. receive less shock when moved. B. Dirt
C. require less water. C. Loam
D. require less protection in winter. D. Clay
734. Which of the following is NOT correct 740. How big should the gap between garden
about asexual reproduction? rows and boxes?
A. Less time required to produce a plant A. 4 ft
B. Plants are genetically identical B. 3 inches

C. 10 ft B. placement
D. 2 ft C. service learning

741. plant is filled with moisture D. entrepreneurship
A. hortifculture 747. If no more than one half the total leaf
B. zoology surface should be removed and the recom-
mended mowing height is 1”, grass should
C. evrgreen be mowed before its height reaches:
D. turgid
A. 1”
742. When a plant first begins growing from B. 2”
a seed, the stage of growth is:
C. 3”
A. dormant
D. 4”
B. juvenile
748. What does a “3 point contact” mean
C. mature
when climbing on the ladder?
D. reproductive
A. using two hands and a foot
743. The pH test on a soil sample determines B. using two feet and a hand
the:
C. using two hands and a foot or two feet
A. acidity or alkalinity. and a hand
B. air and water movement. D. Using two feet and an elbow
C. amount of nitrogen.
749. The male part of the flower is the
D. salinity or salt content.
A. petal
744. The inner part of an ovary that contains B. sepal
an egg is the:
C. pistil
A. ovule
D. stamen
B. seed
C. stamen 750. What is the leaf stalk or part that con-
nects the leaf to the stem?
D. none of above
A. Midrib
745. Which of the following is NOT an environ-
B. Apex
mental factor impacted by plants?
C. Petiole
A. animal life
D. Blade
B. tides
C. run-off 751. sprinklers in which the water is dis-
tributed in a set pattern over a fixed area
D. erosion
A. sprinkle irrigation
746. What type of immersion SAE is Monica
completing by working at a local garden B. spray heads
center? C. rotary irrigation
A. analytical D. drip irrigation

752. The production, transportation, and use 757. What is a term for planting, harvesting,
of flowers and foliage plants. processing and marketing fruits and nuts
A. Pomology A. Pomology
B. Olericulture B. Floriculture
C. Floriculture C. Olericulture
D. Horticulture D. Apple
758. a garden center employee usually works
NARAYAN CHANGDER
753. Which is the first type of landscape plan
in a environment
that uses free form shapes to show plants
and buildings to help the designer with the A. unpleasant
layout? B. unclean
A. functional C. clean
B. preliminary D. volatile
C. final 759. Compared to entry level jobs, profes-
D. none of above sional careers usually require special li-
censes and:
754. Cuttings, layering, division, grafting, and A. less educatio
tissue culture are all methods of what? B. more manual labor
A. Sexual propagation C. more outside work
B. Asexual propagation D. more paperwork
C. Trisexual propagation 760. When is it best to Harvest Peaches?
D. Vegetables A. May - September
755. During the plant sale we hit a time where B. July Only
we don’t sell as many plants. We sell 90 C. May only
on day 15, 79 on day 16. If we sell on D. August- March
65 on day 17, what is our average plants
sold during the stretch of day 15 thru day 761. What warm-season grass, produced by
17? stolons and rhizomes, grows best in the
eastern and coastal Piedmont areas?
A. 68
A. Red Fescue
B. 78
B. Tall Fescue
C. 88
C. Zoysia
D. 117
D. Kentucky bluegrass
756. What type flower has ONLY male or 762. What occurs when sperm enters the
ONLY female flower parts? ovule to combine with the egg?
A. Asexual A. fertlization
B. Complete B. pollination
C. Incomplete C. stem cutting
D. Pretty D. tuber

763. Which is the BEST inorganic growing me- C. Margins

dia? D. Xylem

A. Bark
769. Which of the following is not a rule in the
B. compost
Greenhouse?
C. Peat moss
A. Remove tripping hazards
D. Vermiculite
B. Only use chemicals for the intended
764. Renee needs about 1, 000 petunia plants. purpose
If the seed germination rate is 50%, what C. Wear the appropriate PPE’s
is the minimum number of seeds she should
D. Chemicals can be stored at your sta-
sow?
tion.
A. 50
B. 1, 000 770. Within the research immersion SAE which
of the following involves using a design
C. 1, 200 process to develop a product that solves a
D. 2, 000 problem?
765. The process by which the surface of the A. experimental

earth gets worn down is described by B. analysis
C. invention
A. Run-off
D. none of above
B. Phytoremediation
771. What term describes money or services
C. Decay
that a person owes?
D. erosion
A. Assets
766. Candytuft is a bedding plant about 6” to B. Inventory
12” inches tall and has:
C. Liabilities
A. dark blue 1” fruit.
D. Net worth
B. orange 3” flowers.
C. red 2” flowers. 772. When measuring pH, the higher the soil
pH number, the:
D. white 1” flowers.
A. less alkaline
767. The scientific name is made up what?
B. more acidic
A. Genus and Species
C. more alkaline
B. Genus and Phenotype
D. more neutral
C. First and Last Name
D. Species and Family 773. What type of work does Latoya do as a
landscape architect?
768. The openings or stomates in the lower A. Cares for plants after they are in-
leaf surface are opened and closed by the: stalled
A. Guard cells B. Constructs pools, fences, and drive-
B. Lateral buds ways

C. Installs landscape plants 779. when Gene makes a floral design, the
D. Plans and designs outdoor environ- flowers he uses to add mass are:
ments A. Baby’s breath
774. A place where plants are propagated and B. Carnations
grown to usable size
C. Gladious
A. Conservatorium
D. orchids
B. Nursery
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. National Park 780. We planted 500 Zinnia seeds in 1020
flats. If we have a 85% germination rate
D. Apiary
how many Zinnias will we need to trans-
775. a plant that completes its life cycle in one plant to containers?
year A. 325
A. annual
B. 425
B. deciduous
C. 485
C. biennial
D. 500
D. horticulture
776. *The area of horticulture that involves 781. Low moisture-holding capacity is a char-
the planting, harvesting, storing, process- acteristics of
ing and marketing of fruit ad nut crops. A. clay
A. Flolriculture B. silt
B. Landscape
C. sand
C. pomology
D. none
D. Olericulture
782. Horticulture is the cultivation of which of
777. What is an annual plant?
the following?
A. a plant that completes its life cycle in
1 year A. Gardens
B. a plant that completes its life cycle in B. Golf Courses
2 years C. Forests
C. a plant that lives more than 2 years
D. Deserts
D. a plant that starts flowering in the sec-
ond year 783. Compared to other layers of a typical soil
profile, the amount of organic matter in
778. Which of the following is NOT a type of
the O horizon is:
pesticide?
A. about the same
A. Insecticide
B. Herbicide B. less
C. Fungicide C. more
D. Plant Propagation D. none

784. Zoey prefers to use a soilless horticul- C. vermiculite

tural mix for her greenhouse because the
D. volcanic rock
mix:

A. Comes from the garden 789. The tree with a fan-shaped leaf that Joan
B. Has a lot of weight noticed in front of the bank is most likely
a:
C. Cheap
A. ginkgo
D. Sterile
B. Chinese dogwood.
785. An example of a foundational Supervised
Agricultural Experience activity in the ca- C. southern red oak.
reer exploration and planning area is: D. zelkova
A. creating a personal budget and track-
ing monthly financial activity. 790. Which of the following is NOT included as
a plant?
B. converting a career plan into a career
portfolio to use in interviews A. Lawns
C. making a list of 10 personal strategies B. Plastic
that enhance verbal and non-verbal com- C. Bushes
munication.
D. Gardens
D. making a poster with commonly used
tools in a chosen career and the proper 791. Shears should not go into your
safety procedures associated with each.
A. Pocket
786. Which of the following does not make up
B. Bag
soil texture?
A. clay C. House
B. organic matter D. All of the above

C. sand 792. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
D. silt ple of PPE?
787. Michele is computerizing the production A. Boots

records for a local nursery operation. This B. Long Sleeve Shirt
is an example of what type of Supervised
C. Baseball cap
Agricultural Experience?
A. analytical D. Safety Glasses
B. entrepreneurship 793. is the science and practice of grow-
C. improvement ing, processing and marketing fruits, veg-
etables, and ornamental plants.
D. placement
A. Science
788. Pedro adds compost to condition his soil.
What is compost? B. Horticulture
A. clayey soil C. Marketing
B. decayed organic matter D. Agriculture

794. An immersion SAE that involves the stu- A. 6%

dent working for an industry and gaining B. 11%
knowledge through experience is which
SAE? C. 13%
D. none of above
A. research
B. ownership 800. Which of the following is a common in-
door plant?
C. placement
A. Fern
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. school-based enterprise
B. Corn
795. Aesthetics is all about: C. Hibiscus
A. increasing yield D. Sorghum
B. increasing production 801. pounds per square inch. Measures the
C. producing plants that are pleasing in force at which water moves in an irriga-
appearance tion system
D. none of the above A. GPM
B. GPH
796. Which shrub has a red-to-pink feathery
flower 1” in length? C. PSI
A. Chinese fringe D. none of above
B. Nellie R. Stevens 802. *The area of horticulture that involves
C. Gold mop the planting, harvesting. Storing, process-
ing and marketing of vegetable crops.
D. Japanese andromeda
A. Pomology
797. The government agency that is responsi- B. Olericulture
ble for enforcing safety regulations in the
C. Floriculture
workplace is
D. Landscape
A. CDC
B. FAA 803. If you work for the Cincinnati Reds mow-
ing grass, what branch of agriculture are
C. DOT you participating in?
D. OSHA A. Turfgrass Management
798. The young plant surrounded by a protec- B. Ornamental Horticulture
tive covering is called a C. Landscape and Nursery
A. seed D. Floriculture
B. stigma 804. After the egg in the ovule is fertilized, it
C. style becomes a
D. sepal A. seed
B. root
799. Horticulture sector contributes nearly
one-third of the value of agriculture out- C. flower
put & per cent of GDP D. fruit

805. is a complex organic molecule that A. division

traps light energy for conversion through B. grafting
photosynthesis into chemical energy

C. layering
A. cytoplasm
D. seeding
B. endoplasmic reticulum
811. Why should you be careful when pulling
C. chlorophyll
weeds?
D. ribosomes
A. They can have thorns
806. When Robert makes a floral design, B. They might bite
which flowers does he use to make the out-
C. They can run away
line of the arrangement?
D. They can be poisonous
A. Bird of paradise
B. Chrysanthemums 812. A soil test report will include:
C. Gladious A. cost of fertilizer
D. Orchids B. cost of lime

C. recommended planting time
807. The scientific name for an azalea is:
D. suggested fertilizer rate
A. Cornus florida.
813. The area of horticulture that includes
B. Ficus benjamina.
growing and harvesting flowers and mak-
C. Rhododendron kiusianum. ing and selling flower arrangements is:
D. Saintpaulia ionantha. A. agronomy
808. is the reaction between a compound B. floriculture
and water to form a more soluble product. C. forestry
A. chemical reaction D. pomology
B. hydration 814. area of lawn and a group of sprinklers
C. degredation operated by one remote control valve also
D. hydrolysis called a block of heads
A. zone
809. the even distribution of materials on op-
B. cycle
posite sides of a central axis
C. main line
A. balance
D. lateral line
B. texture
C. focalization 815. Voice, stage presence, power of expres-
sion, response to questions, and general
D. texture
effect are factors used to evaluate the:
810. Samantha is cutting the iris rhizome in A. Audience
sections. This method of asexual propaga- B. Judges
tion in which plants are broken or cut into
smaller pieces or clumps and are planted C. Oral delivery
to form new plants is: D. Written speech

3.2 Fruit Science 514
816. A soil test report with a pH of 7.2 is: B. Landscape Design, Interiorscaping
A. extremely acid C. Interiorscaping, Floriculture
B. extremely alkaline D. Floriculture, Agronomy
C. mildly acid
820. The last step in the landscape project de-
D. mildly alkaline velopment is:
817. Field-grown, container, and pot-in-pot A. bill the customer for the work done
plants should be watered in the morning
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Determine the need or objective.
for:
C. develop a maintenance schedule
A. maximum absorption.
D. Select maintenance contractor.
B. minimum absorption.
C. more water pressure. 821. What is the FFA Salute?
D. less water pressure. A. I believe in the future of agriculture

B. The Pledge of Allegiance
818. India is largest producer of fruits and
vegetables C. The National Anthem
A. Second D. America the Beautiful
B. First 822. Soils do not provide which of the follow-
C. Fifth ing?
D. none of above A. Stability
819. Which branches involve the principles of B. Oxygen

horticulture and placement of plants? C. Nutrients
A. Floriculture, Landscape Design D. Water
3.2 Fruit Science

1. Watermelon artinya A. gymnosperms
A. Melon B. angiosperms
B. Jeruk C. flowers
C. Semangka D. mosses
D. Anggur
4. I have air spaces within my fruit. What is
2. What are the benefits of eating fruit likely my dispersal method?
salad? A. wind
A. Make your body weak B. water
B. Make your body sick C. animals
C. Make your body health D. explosive action
D. none of above
5. Which of these foods is a source of vitamin
3. Plants with seeds in cones are called? C?

A. Pineapples 12. What is the Fleshy and sweet part of the

B. Strawberries fruit or of the Pericarp?

C. Oranges A. Epicarp
D. All of the above B. Mesocarp
6. Which fruit is from Patagonia C. Endocarp
A. Oranges D. Seed
B. Rose hips
13. Which flower is used to make perfume?
C. Apples
A. Lavender
D. Pinapple
B. Kachnar
7. Is a tomato a fruit or vegetable?
C. Dahlia
A. Yes
D. China Rose
B. No
C. Both 14. Choose the odd one out
D. none of above A. Rice
8. Which is the capital fruit of philippines? B. Wheat
A. Davao C. Maize
B. Mango D. Potato
C. Mongo
15. How do animals help plants?
D. Custard apple
A. they help eat their fruit
9. Vegetable that contain seeds.
B. they help protect the fruit
A. stem
C. they help spread the seeds
B. seeds
C. vine D. they help plant the seeds
D. melon 16. Flower develops from
10. Q4. Which of the following fruit has many A. Big Seeds
seeds?
B. Small seeds
A. blackberry
C. Non of above
B. plum
D. none of above
C. peach
D. pear 17. An example of fruit we usually think of as
a vegetable is
11. What is the scientific name of a mango?
A. Musa indica A. a carrot
B. Indica mangifera B. lettuce

C. Mangifera sinensis C. a potato
D. Mangifera indica D. A tomato.

18. I am something yellow but not a light. 24. Q10. It is useful for curing wounds and
A. Lemon injuries-
B. Orange A. zenia
C. Water melon B. marigold
D. none of above C. arnica

D. banana
19. has only one seed.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Watermelon 25. Which flower among the following bloom
singly?
B. Mango
A. Rose
C. Lemon
B. Lily
D. Apple
C. Lotus
20. Which fruit has no seed?
D. All of the above
A. Apple
B. Mango 26. The process of a seed coming out of its dor-
mant state.
C. Strawberry
A. germination
D. Banana
B. pollination
21. This fruit category has a central leathery C. reproduction
core of seeds surrounded by flesh of the
fruit. D. symbiosis
A. drupes 27. Which of the following is not a melon?
B. pomes A. cantaloupe
C. citrus B. honeydew
D. berries C. watermelon
22. What is an example of a “science fruit” D. gourd
that is normally called a vegetable in the
grocery store? 28. Wolffia globosa is also known as
A. cucumbers A. Water
B. lettuce B. Meal
C. celery C. Water meal
D. none of above D. Arnoldi
23. Which fruit is eaten as vegetable? 29. Female reproductive part of flower
A. Potato A. pistil
B. okra B. stamen
C. cucumber C. petals
D. none of above D. sepals

30. Which category does a pineapple belong 36. Which of the following part of plant pro-
to? vides support to the upper part of the
plant?

A. multiple fruit
A. Root
B. Aggregate fruit
B. Shoot
C. Berries
C. Stem
D. Pomes
D. Leaves
31. What is the scientific name of a pineapple? 37. What is the part of the fruit from where
A. Malus comosus another plant grows?
B. Comosus ananas A. Epicarp
C. Ananas comosus B. Mesocarp
C. Endocarp
D. Malus domestico
D. Seed
32. What is nectar?
38. I am a fruit.I have yellow color outside and
A. Nectar is found of the leaves of non- white colour inside.I have sour taste.What
flowering plants. fruit am I?
B. A sweet substance flowers make. A. Apple
C. It is a type of pollinator. B. Lemon
D. none of above C. Watermelon
D. none of above
33. Flower used for making colours
39. Which option best describes what helps
A. Chameli
plants reproduce (make more of)?
B. Lily A. Roots, stem, and seeds.
C. Zenia B. Seeds, flowers, and fruits.
D. China Rose C. Stems, seeds, flowers.
34. How many servings of fruits and vegeta- D. Leaves, roots, stem.
bles should you eat per day? 40. Banana reproduces through its
A. 1 A. bud
B. 5 B. root
C. 10 C. stem
D. 3 D. seed
41. Which of the following is not a part of
35. It is the part of the plant that makes seeds.
plant?
A. flower A. Root
B. fruit B. Shoot
C. leaf C. Shrubs
D. none of above D. Leaves

42. Why do you think a cucumber it’s called a 48. Grapes belong to which fruit category?
vegetable in the grocery store?
A. Tropical
A. It has seeds
B. Berries
B. It is green.
C. It isn’t sweet. C. Drupes
D. They aren’t scientist. D. Melons
43. I have parachute like structures. What is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
likely my dispersal method? 49. Which of the following is a large, juicy
fruit produced by plants in the gourd fam-
A. wind ily with thick rinds and many seeds?
B. water
A. berries
C. animals
D. explosive action B. pomes
44. Which of the following can be eaten only C. melons

after cooking? D. tropical fruits
A. Fruits
B. Grains 50. My pod splits open and seeds are thrown
out with a force. What is likely my disper-
C. Vegetables
sal method?
D. All of the above
A. wind
45. How many lemon does it need to JUST
power AN LED light B. water
A. 1 C. animals
B. 12 D. explosive action
C. 72
D. None of the above 51. Which group of flowers blooms in winter?
46. What is the scientific name of a straw- A. chameli, lily, rose

berry? B. sada-bahar, rose, dahlia
A. Ananassa fragaria
C. rose.china rose, lotus
B. Fragaria ananassa
C. Frigerio ananasso D. dahlia, rose, jasmine
D. Fresa
52. How many Volts can a BAKED potato
47. A honeydew belongs to which fruit cate- give?
gory?
A. 1V
A. Berries
B. 0.75V
B. Drupes
C. modified berries C. 5V
D. nuts D. 0V

53. What are cloves? C. Jack fruit

A. Dried flowers used as a medicine and D. Any other

spice
B. Dried flower buds used as a medicine 59. What happens when fruits and seeds de-
and spice velop?
C. Dried fruits used as a medicine and A. The insect carries pollen to another
spice flower.
D. Dried stem used as a medicine and B. The fruit falls to the ground and the
spice seeds get back into the soil.
54. What is the scientific name of an apple? C. The flower dies.
A. Malus domestica D. The seeds germinate inside the fruit.

B. Malus domestico 60. What is the scientific name of a water-
C. Domestic Malus melon?
D. Apple Malus A. Luna Citrus
55. What do fruits have that make them B. Citrullus lanatus
sweet? C. Lanatus citrullus
A. Vitamin C D. Citrus Sinensis
B. Fiber
C. Fructose 61. You should avoid buying fruits that are
D. Protein A. well-shaped
B. heavy for their size
56. Q5. Which of the following flower is used
to make colours? C. too hard
A. marigold D. firm to touch
B. lavender
62. This fruit category has thick rinds with thin
C. motia membranes inside that separate the flesh
D. keora into segments.
57. Which of the following is the green part of A. citrus

a plant where food is made? B. tropical
A. Root C. pomes
B. Shoot D. drupes
C. Leaves
63. Which category does a banana belong to?
D. Stem
A. modified berries
58. Nishi wants to eat the largest fruit of the
world which of these fruit she eat?? B. melons
A. Mango C. pomes
B. Orange D. nuts

64. Which part of flower develops into fruit 70. Name the dried flower buds whose oil is
A. ovule used as a medicine.
B. style A. Rose
C. stigma B. Arnica
C. Marigold
D. ovary
D. Clove
65. Flowers of this plant are cooked and eaten
71. The purpose of seed dispersal is for the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
as vegetable.
seeds to
A. Okra
A. germinate at the same time
B. Pumpkin
B. move to the same place and grow
C. Kachnar
C. move further away from the parent
D. Mango plant
66. What do flowers do for the plant? D. compete with one another for minerals
A. They make the plant attractive. in the soil
B. They attract insects to the plant. 72. The smallest flower is -

C. They make fruits and seeds that grow A. Watermeal
into new plants. B. motia
D. They make food for the plant. C. ixora
67. Multiple flowers, many flowers on a 1 D. azolla
stalk, form 1 fruit
73. Leather-like exocarp with oils, mesocarp
A. Multiple Fruit has a white layer, endocarp can be broken
B. Achene into segments.
C. Aggregate A. Multiple Fruit
D. Pome B. Achene
C. Hesperidium
68. What part of an apple reminds you that it
was once a flower? D. Pome
A. The stem 74. Which of the following is a vegetable?

B. The seeds inside the apple. A. Pineapple
C. The skin B. Tomato
D. The flesh C. Brinjal
D. Both (a)and (b)
69. Dry fruits are usually eaten in which sea-
son? 75. Which category does a pear belong to?
A. Summer A. drupes
B. Monsoon B. pomes
C. Autumn C. citrus
D. Winter D. berries

76. Type of fruit that has a pit. 82. What is the scientific name of a tomato?
A. drupe A. Lycopersicum solanum

B. pome B. Solanum lycopersicum
C. stem C. Tomeeeeeeeeeeeeto
D. seed D. Citrus solanum
77. What is a dried grape called 83. pick the odd one out
A. raisin A. Kachnar
B. Sahjan
B. date
C. Arnica
C. potato bug
D. Banana flower
D. none of above
84. When are fresh fruits the most expensive?
78. Fruits are sources of which of the follow-
ing? A. during their peak growing season
B. when they are out of season
A. Folate
C. fresh fruit is always expensive
B. Vitamin D
D. fresh fruit is always cheap
C. Calcium
D. Protein 85. Potassium is a nutrient that many Amer-
icans don’t get enough of. Which of the
79. The flower that is eaten as vegetable is following is a good fruit source of this min-
eral known to help regulate blood pres-
sure?
A. Rose
A. Dried apricots
B. Jasmine
B. Bananas
C. Sahjan
C. Orange juice
D. Lily
D. All of the above
80. Which category does an orange belong to?
86. What is the Thin, leathery part of the fruit
A. drupes or of the Pericarp?
B. modified berries A. Epicarp
C. pomes B. Mesocarp
D. grains C. Endocarp
D. Seed
81. This flower is not colourful but it has a
very pleasant fragrance. 87. Pomegranate artinya
A. Keora A. Anggur
B. Motia B. Delima
C. Rose C. Rambutan
D. Lave6 D. Durian

88. Why do flowers grow fruit? C. arnica

A. Animals eat them and help seeds D. banana
move, so a new plant grows.
94. Vegetables such as green beans and corn.
B. To hold the seeds when they are too
big to fit in the flower A. flower
C. So animals know where to look for B. stem
seeds C. seeds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To scare away predators that want to D. stalk
steal the seeds.
95. Tick the odd one out
89. Which of these foods is actually a fruit in
A. Apple
plant biology?
B. Mango
A. Onion
C. Pears
B. Pepper
D. Watermelon
C. Mushrooms
D. All of the above 96. All layers are fleshy, exocarp could be
tough. Ex) raspberries and blackberries
90. Seeds and fruits of plants need to be dis-
A. Multiple Fruit
persed because
B. Drupe
A. to ensure the survival of their species
C. Aggregate
B. to make the plants happy
D. Pepo
C. to clean the environment
D. none of above 97. Flowers are used for making -
A. Colours
91. How could you tell if something is a “sci-
ence fruit?” B. medicines
A. If it is sweet it is a science fruit C. cosmetics
B. If it looks like a science fruit D. all of them
C. Taste it to find out. 98. Fruit grown in warm climates.
D. Cut it open and check if there are A. citrus
seeds inside.
B. mediterranean
92. How many volts does a Lemon give? C. tropical
A. 1.V D. pome
B. 0.5V
99. Which of the following is not a color of
C. 0.75V berry?
D. 12V A. Purple, with pink polka-dots
93. It is useful for curing wounds and injuries B. Blue
A. Zenia C. Black
B. marigold D. Red

100. How many Volts needed to power an LED 106. Why do you think some plants grow fruit
light around their seeds?

A. 1V A. It tastes yummy!
B. 3V B. So animals/people will eat the fruit
C. 4V and carry the seeds to another location to
D. Depends on the colour grow.
C. So animals/people will get used to eat-
101. This fruit category is juicy and large with
ing different fruits.
a thick rind and many seeds.
A. berries D. So animals/people don’t get bored of
eating the same thing all the time.
B. citrus
C. melons 107. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
D. tropical is called
102. What happens when pollen reaches the A. germination

egg? B. transpiration
A. It destroys the eggs C. photosynthesis
B. It makes the fruit
D. pollination
C. It makes the eggs
D. It makes a seed 108. Saumya wants to eat the largest fruit in
the world. Which fruit should she eat?
103. Which of the following counts as part of
the Fruit Group? A. Dragon fruit
A. Canned peaches B. Jack fruit
B. Dried apricots C. Litchi
C. 100% orange juice Fresh D. Jamun
D. All of the above
109. Male reproductive part of flower
104. It grows around a seed and keeps the
seed safe. A. pistil
A. flower B. stamen
B. fruit C. petals
C. root D. sepals
D. none of above
110. After all fruit chopped, put them all into
105. which of the following flower is used for
making colours for dyeing cloths
A. Spoon
A. Watermeal
B. Zenia B. small bowl
C. Kachnar C. big bowl

D. Clove D. none of above

111. what color is a orange 117. What is a pollinator?

A. orange A. A living thing that carries pollen from
the anther to the stigma of a flower.
B. purple
B. A living thing that carries pollen from
C. yellow
the seed to the stigma of a flower.
D. red
C. A type of non-flowering plant.
112. Fruit salad contains D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Vitamins 118. Q7. Which of the following is the largest
B. Carbohydrate fruit in the world?
C. Protein A. mango
D. none of above B. watermelon
C. muskmelon
113. Which vegetable is a flower that we eat?
D. jack fruit
A. Broccoli
119. Choose the ideal characteristics of seed
B. Potato
which is disperses by wind
C. Lettuce
A. Attractive colour, explode when dry
D. Brinjal B. Small, edible, waterproof
114. This is a long yellow fruit. Monkeys love C. Light, float on water, have air space
to eat them ! D. Small, light, have wing-like structure
A. banana
120. Which is an orange root that we eat?
B. orange
A. Orange
C. apple
B. Carrot
D. none of above C. Potato
115. What are the characteristics of fruits that D. none of above
are dispersed by animals?
121. How do dandelions spread their seeds?
A. Have latex
A. water
B. Edible and tasty flesh
B. earth
C. Light C. fire
D. have wing like structure D. wind
116. Which fruit is known as a “dragon 122. Which part is how most plants reproduce
fruit”? and is where seeds are usually found?
A. Pitaya A. Flower
B. Pipaya B. Bud
C. Pineapple C. Fruit
D. Coconut D. Leaf

123. The part of the plant which we use as C. 0.72V

cloves is - D. 0.58V

A. Leaves
129. What is the scientific name of a pear?
B. buds
A. Papyrus
C. roots
B. Papaya
D. bark
C. Pyrus domestico
124. Surya wants to see the largest flower in D. Pyrus
the world which of these She see??
130. What is the scientific name of a bitter or-
A. Globosa
ange?
B. Watermeal
A. Sinensis Citrus
C. Wolffia globosa B. Citrus Sinensis
D. Rafflesia Arnoldi C. Citrus aurantium
125. The shape of my body looks like a half- D. Bitter Sinensis
moon. I covered by a yellow skin. What
am I? 131. What are Sepals?
A. Lemon A. Bright coloured parts of the plant that

attract insects.
B. Cherry
B. Parts of the plant that make food for
C. Banana the plant.
D. none of above C. Small green leaves that protect the
flower before it opens.
126. What is pollination?
D. Parts of the plant the absorb minerals.
A. The creation of pollen.
B. When pollen is found on the petals of 132. Where do fruits develop?
a flower. A. on the flower
C. The creation of a seed. B. Near the roots
D. When pollen travels from the anther to C. Only at the top of a plant
the stigma of a flower. D. none of above
127. Vegetables that includes spinach, and let- 133. Grape artinya
tuce.
A. Anggur
A. stem
B. Semangka
B. flower
C. Durian
C. leaf
D. Melon
D. pome
134. What part of the flower swells up to cre-
128. How many Volts can an apple give? ate fruit?
A. 1V A. Stem
B. 2.01V B. Roots

C. Ovary 140. Neetu wants to eat the fruit that only

have one seed which of these can she
D. Petals
eat??
135. What does the flowers, fruits and seeds A. Grapes
of a plant help it to do B. Papayas
A. Grow new plants C. Peach
B. Make food D. Banana
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Get water 141. Type of fruit that has a core with seeds
D. none of above and grows on trees.
A. Pome
136. Jackfruit artinya
B. drupe
A. Labu C. citrus
B. Tomat D. tropical
C. Nangka
142. Which is the largest fruit?
D. Cempedak A. Water Melon
137. I can’t be used to make marmalade. B. Jack fruit
C. Musk Melon
A. Mango
D. pumpkin
B. Apple
C. Banana 143. Which of the following is the most colour-
ful part of a plant which change into fruit?
D. Bitter gourd
A. Root
138. One of the most common examples of B. Leaves
fruit rich in vitamin C and also a good way C. Flower
to get important dietary fiber is
D. Stem
A. orange
144. Banana artinya
B. papaya
A. Tomat
C. pineapple
B. Pisang
D. none of above
C. Mentimun
139. This fruit category has thick rind covering D. Pepaya
the fruit with thin membranes inside that
145. How many Watts does it take to power
separate the flesh into segments.
a WHITE LED light
A. modified berries A. 1W
B. grains B. 2.9W
C. pomes C. 3W
D. drupes D. 2.90001W

146. This fruit category has skin covering a 152. This is not a spice
soft flesh that surrounds a singular hard A. Papaya seed
pit

B. Mustard
A. berries
C. Pepper
B. drupes
C. pomes D. Cumin
D. citrus 153. which of the following is used for making
jams?
147. Which nutrient is NOT commonly found in
fruit? A. bitter gourd
A. fiber B. Okra
B. vitamin C C. Brinjla
C. cholesterol D. Strawberry
D. Calcium
154. What has to happen before a plant can
148. Why do fruits taste sweet? make seeds?
A. So people buy them A. They have to grow fruit.
B. So animals eat them and disperse the B. They have to make seeds.
seeds inside
C. They have to be pollinated.
C. Insects are attracted to them
D. They have to turn into a fruit.
D. So they will grow better
149. The flowers from plants turn into 155. Arnica flower is used to cure -
A. Fruits A. Diarrhoea
B. Trees B. arthritis
C. Leaves C. injuries
D. Vegtables D. bark
150. Broccoli and cauliflower are in this classi- 156. How do animals help disperse seeds?
fication of vegetables.
A. Wind
A. leaf
B. They are farmers
B. flower
C. They eat fruits
C. stem
D. Fire
D. seed
151. How many volts can a NORMAL potato 157. Fiber found in fruit is associated with
give which of the following health outcomes?
A. 1V A. Strengthening bones
B. 0.5V B. Maintaining proper bowel function
C. 0.75V C. Building muscle
D. 0V D. Making new blood cells

158. Q1. Which of the following is the world’s 164. How do coconuts disperse their seeds?
largest flower? A. wind
A. Wolffia globosa
B. water
B. Water lily
C. earth
C. Lotus
D. heart
D. Rafflesia Arnoldii
165. Flowers develop from
159. What ingredients can we put to make
NARAYAN CHANGDER
fresh fruit salad? A. Bud
A. Brocoli B. Seed
B. Carrot C. Fruit
C. Strawberry D. Leaf
D. none of above 166. It can grow to a new plant.
160. This fruit category has small and juicy A. flower
thin skinned fruits with an ovary divided
B. fruit
into sections that contain the seeds.
C. seed
A. capsules
D. none of above
B. pomes
C. berries 167. Fleshy fruit, has a core. Examples:apples,
D. drupes pears
A. Pepo
161. Small, Juicy fruits that contain tiny seeds.
B. Pome
A. seed
C. Multiple Fruit
B. melon
C. berries D. Achene
D. drupe 168. This is red fruit, when you visit Malang

you will get this one.
162. What is the innermost hard part of the
fruit or of the Pericarp? A. Coconut
A. Epicarp B. Quince
B. Mesocarp C. Apple
C. Endocarp D. none of above
D. Seed 169. Exocarp is a thick rind (no oils), fleshy
163. Fruits are the part of the plant that has meso & endocarp. Seed quantity can vary,
could be eaten with the fruit.
A. leaves A. Pepo
B. seeds B. Pome
C. bright colors C. Drupe
D. flowers D. Aggregate

170. Fleshy fruit, seeds can be eaten with. A. Vitamins

Ex)Tomato, grapes, peppers
B. Minerals

A. Drupe
C. Fiber
B. Pepo
D. Sugar
C. Berry
D. Aggregate 176. which of the following flower is used for
flavoring dishes, desserts and drinks?
171. What is the scientific name of a sweet
A. Banana Flower
orange?
A. Citrus Sinensis B. Marigold
B. Sinensis Citrus C. Lotus

C. Orange Citrus D. Rose
D. Citrus aurantium 177. How can you tell something is a science
172. What tools that you need for make fruit fruit?
salad? A. you can taste it
A. Big bowl, small bowl, spoon B. you can cut it open and find seeds
B. spoon, fork, plate C. you can see if it grows in the ground
C. Small bowl, scissor, ruler D. you can cut it open and not find seeds
D. none of above
178. Part of flower that protects flower in bud
173. A sweet smelling flower stage
A. Lotus A. pistil
B. Sunflower B. stamen
C. Rose
C. petals
D. Hibiscus
D. sepals
174. What does pollinate mean?
179. Rice is an example of
A. It’s a verb, telling us about the process
of moving seeds from fruit to help them A. Pulses
grow. B. Grains
B. It’s a verb, telling us about the process C. Seed
of moving pollinators to flowers.
D. None
C. It’s a verb, telling us about the pro-
cess of moving pollen from an anther to 180. The plants having the largest fruit is -
the stigma of a flower of the same kind.
A. Mango
D. none of above
B. jackfruit
175. Which of these nutrients can you get from
C. plum
eating whole fruit that is not usually found
in juice? D. litchi

3.3 Olericulture 530
181. Fill the missing letters.Gr p s B. Dragon fruit

A. a, s C. Jack fruit
B. a, e D. None of these
C. e, e 186. Fleshy fruit with a stony seed/pit
D. none of above A. Drupe
182. What is a dish consisting of various kinds B. Pepo
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of fruits? C. Pome
A. French Fries D. Hespiridium
B. Fresh Fruit Salad
187. Q3. A flower develops from a
C. Creamy soup
A. sepal
D. none of above
B. bud
183. Name the flower that blooms in summer C. petal
A. Rose D. fruit
B. dahlia
188. Can ONE lemon power a LED light
C. chrysanthmum
A. Yes
D. Chameli
B. No
184. Banana is a seedless fruit. It reproduces C. Positive
through its -
D. none of above
A. Leaf
189. What ingredients do you need for make
B. Flower salad dressing?
C. Fruit A. Ketchup and honey
D. Stem B. Lemon juice and Salt
185. which is the largest fruit in the world? C. Lemon juice and honey
A. Muskmelon D. none of above
3.3 Olericulture
1. Olericulture means cultivation of B. Commercial gardening
A. Fish C. Kitchen gardening
B. Mushroom D. all the above
C. Pot herbs 3. is the method of vegetable growing,
D. Oyster green house
2. production of vegetables in a large scale A. vegetable forcing
to be sold in markets is called as B. commercial forcing
A. Vegetable forcing C. fruits farming

3.4 Floriculture 531
3.4 Floriculture

1. Which of the following is NOT true A. wire service
regarding advantages of tissue cul-
B. commercial grower
ture/micropropagation?
A. The ability to grow a large number of C. horticulture
plants in a small space. D. hard good
B. The ability to produce pest free plants.
6. The most important consideration in set-
C. The low cost of labor and equipment. ting up an irrigation system is
D. The uniformity of clones produced. A. air
2. A very lightweight pea-sized rock that B. water
increases drainages and comes from vol-
canos. C. soil
A. Peat Moss D. piping
B. Sphagnum Moss 7. The use of beneficial insects in pest man-

C. Perlite agement is an example of control.
D. Vermiculite A. physical
3. The science and practice of growing veg- B. mechanical

etable crops is called C. biological
A. Ornamental and landscape Horticul- D. chemical
ture
B. Floriculture 8. When several types of smaller specimens
of foliage plants are placed in a brass or
C. Olericulture
pottery container, a is created.
D. Pomology
A. split complementary design
4. Greenhouse production often requires in- B. triad design
secticides to be sprayed to prevent insect
damage on flowers. Insecticides that are C. garden dish
applied in gaseous from are . D. floral leaf bowl
A. Systemic
9. A standard water analysis usually includes
B. Fumigants
, , and
C. Contact
A. pH, EC, alkalinity
D. Repellents
B. fluoride, aluminum, zinc
5. Support materials and supplies, such as
C. iron, sulfates, boron
glassware, floral foams, wire, ribbon,
packaging products, and tools. D. potassium, calcium, sulfates

10. The process of taking and passing a course 15. When an arrangement is too small for its
or exam to provide evidence that a person surroundings, it is said to be out of
has the knowledge and skills required to A. Harmony
perform well.
B. Tone
A. Continuing education
C. Rhythm
B. monofloral
D. Proportion
C. portfolio
16. A palmately compound leaf has:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. certification
A. Parallel Venation
11. Which of the following plants has the same B. a rachis
common and genus and species names?
C. leaflet
A. Acer rubrum
D. a midrib
B. Cornus florida
17. Planned arrangement of plants in an in-
C. Forsythia suspensa
door environment such as an office or ho-
D. Ceris candensis tel, or even a private home.
12. Scientific names of plants are expressed in A. hard good
Latin because B. certification
A. it is a dead language C. interiorscape
B. it is easy for all nationalities to pro- D. propagation
nounce
18. Traditional temperature regimes for green-
C. it is an international language and was house production are to run days and
used by the early scholars to express nights.
plant names
A. cool, warm
D. it is an easy language to learn
B. warm, cool
13. Which color harmony uses two hues that C. cool, cool
are directly opposite to each other on color
D. warm, warm
wheel?
A. Complementary 19. The word horticulture, a Latin word,
means
B. Analogous
A. ”grower of crops”
C. Monochromatic
B. ”plant cultivator”
D. Triadic
C. ”lover of plants”
14. Flowers, which are worn by men and D. ”garden cultivation”
pinned on a lapel, are called:
20. Flower arrangements are more pleasing to
A. Falcon corsage
the eye when their outline creates a
B. Potpourri corsage pattern.
C. Boutonnieres A. geometric
D. Hand-tied bouquet B. round

C. triangular 25. Which color scheme or color harmony in-

cludes hues that are adjacent to each other
D. crescent
on the color wheel?

21. You have a 90 foot long greenhouse with A. Complementary
an end-wall area of 240 square feet. You B. Analogous
have decided to fumigate utilizing Methio-
carb PT 1700 aerosol canisters. If each C. Monochromatic
canister will treat a maximum if 2, 500 cu- D. Triadic
bic feet, how many canisters are required
for a single treatment? 26. In writing a resume, list jobs that you have
held, awards, and education
A. 7 canisters
A. so most recent activities are listed first
B. 9 canisters
B. honestly
C. 12 canisters
C. to include dates
D. 13 canisters D. all of the above
22. Soil texture describes the relative propor- 27. Monocot plants, such as grasses, are good
tion of different grain sizes of mineral par- examples of root systems.
ticles in a soil. Particles are grouped ac-
A. fibrous
cording to their size into what are called
soil separates. B. tap
A. sand, silt, and clay C. foliar
B. granular, blocky, and prismatic D. air
C. adhesion, cohesion, and stability 28. In a horticulture business, the product you
choose to produce and retail should be
D. organic, inorganic, and humus
at what price above the total production
and marketing costs (all fixed and variable
23. A Hogarth Curve floral design is created
costs) to make it feasible to produce and
by
sell?
A. An “O” Shape A. 100%
B. A “C” Shape B. 150%
C. A “S” Shape C. 250%
D. A “H” Shape D. 500%
24. Commercial growers 29. Your FFA Chapter has partnered up with
the school cafeteria to grow lettuce to be
A. produce live plants, flowers and fo- used on the school salad bar. You are
liage growing 3 different varieties of lettuce in
B. grow plants in fields and greenhouses 3 different raised beds using drip irriga-
tion. The raised beds are 15 feet long
C. need to know how to care for a variety
and are 4 feet wide allowing you to run
of plants
two rows of lettuce with irrigation per
D. All of the above bed. You have spaced the lettuce 12 inches

apart giving you enough room to have 14 greenhouse for 15 weeks, what is the to-
heads of lettuce per row with a drip emit- tal fixed costs to be assigned to each 5-
ter on each head of lettuce. Each drip emit- inch poinsettia pot?
ter puts out 0.5 gallon of water per hour. A. $5.00
The irrigation system is set to run 4 days
a week for 30 minutes each day on each B. $1.50
bed. How much water are you using in a C. $0.90
week to grow the lettuce? D. $3.00
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1 gallons
34. Acid is injected water to neutralize the
B. 14 gallons
A. growth
C. 42 gallons
B. volume
D. 84 gallons
C. alkalinity
30. A common flaw in establishing a focal area D. light
is to:
35. What color adaptation is created by adding
A. using flower that are too large gray to a pure hue?
B. using flowers that are too small A. Chroma
C. crowd the flowers together very B. Tint
closely
C. Tone
D. not using enough flowers
D. Shade
31. Nursery Workers
36. Soil pH is based on the concentration of
A. Spend a great deal of time outdoors ions in the soil.
B. Spend most working hours in the A. calcium
greenhouse B. hydrogen
C. Can always depend on steady work C. oxygen
D. Do not need to be able to identify D. sulfur
plants
37. Your agriculture teacher has explained the
32. Wreaths, garlands, loose flowers and benefit of using multiple chemicals with
petals were the floral design styles used differnet MOAs to tackle though green-
during which historical floral period? house pests. You currently have scale on
A. Greek and Roman your greenhouse crop and your teacher
is looking for two different pesticides
B. Victorian
that treat the scale in all life stages.
C. Art Deco Your teacher has also requested that both
D. Art Noveau of these pesticides can be sprayed after
school once the students leave (5:00pm)
33. Suppose a 5-inch poinsettia crop is spaced but would also allow students to enetr the
12 inches by 12 inches on the benches greeenhouse the next day when they ar-
of a greenhouse. If the fixed costs for rive to school (7:00am). Which two chem-
this greenhouse operation are $0.20 per icals would you recommend the school pur-
square foot week and the crop is in the chase.

A. Safari and Target B. Floriculture

B. Tallus and Enstar II C. Olericulture

C. Safari and M-Pede D. Pomology
D. Ultra-Fine Oil and Acephate Pro 75 42. A species can be defined as
38. Haley wants to operate a plant rental busi- A. a group of plants that are alike in al-
ness for special events as her SAE. To bemost every feature and consistently pro-
gin her business she has determined that duce like plants.
she will have the following expenses:10 B. A group of plants that have more in
Peace Lilies $15 each15 Ficus $10 common with each other than with the
each10 Ferns $12 each12 Nephytis plants of any other group
$8 each3 cases (12 cans/case) Leaf
C. plants that are all the same size
Shine $39 per caseIf Haley avarages
20 plants per month rental with all plants D. plants that all have the same flower
rented at the same price, how much would color
that rental price need to be per plant to
43. Crossing two different species or sub-
cover all expenses for the year in addition
species of plants to obtain seeds that have
to making $50 profit per month?
characteristics of both.
A. $5.50
A. horticulture
B. $3.15
B. hybridization
C. $6.18
C. employability
D. $5.14
D. propagation
39. The production and distribution of flowers. 44. Your greenhoushe production business has
A. Horticulture a contract to grow 320 flats of seed-
B. Floriculture propagated petunias to local landscaping
contractor. Each flat has an 0606 cell pack
C. Forestry insert. You will source the plugs from
D. Aquaculture a greenhouse supplier, which offers the
plugs in 288-size plug trays. Each plug
40. A bouquet is a round bouquet that is tray is guaranteed to have 280 usable
based on the English nosegay of the Geor- seedlings. What is the number of 288 plug
gian and Victorian eras. trays of petunias that you must order to
A. cascade be able to grow the plants to meet this
contract?
B. colonial
A. 36 plug trays
C. arm
B. 40 plug trays
D. crescent
C. 42 plug trays
41. The science and practice of growing and D. 320 plug trays
harvesting tree fruits, small fruits, and
tree nuts is called? 45. Auxins and gibberellic acid are hormones
A. Ornamental and Landscape Horticul- in plants the promote growth through .
ture A. Cell division

B. Cell enlargement 50. The most common acids used for alkalinity
C. Cell specialization control are , , and
A. phosphoric, sulfuric, nitric
D. Cell protection
B. sodium, calcium, potassium
46. The wholesale pricing method is based on C. sulfuric, magnesium, manganese
the concept that of the retail selling
price is made up of the wholesale value of D. citric, ethanoic, tartaric
materials being used. 51. Deluxe floral foam is used to:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 20% A. Hold heavy stemmed flowers
B. 40% B. Absorb water quickly
C. 60% C. Hold soft stemmed flowers
D. 50% D. Act as a perservative
47. Clogged stems in cut flowers are caused 52. to find out what jobs are available locally,
by air embolism. An air embolism is the student should
A. make a survey of local horticultural
A. Where disease organisms move into
businesses
the flower from the air clogging the stem.
B. check with the Department of Labor
B. Where a bubble of air enters the
xylem preventing water from reaching the C. check with a local employment agency
flower D. all of the above
C. Where the different between room 53. The general pH range for greenhouse crops
and flower cooler temperature clog the in a soil-less medium is
stem
A. 5.4-6.8
D. Where the flower stem clogs when the
B. 4.0-6.0
flower cooler temperature drops below 36
degrees F. C. 7.2-8.1
D. 4.5-8.6
48. Fertigation is the process of adding fertil-
izer to 54. refers to the brightness or dullness of
the color within a hue.
A. water
A. value
B. soil
B. intensity
C. air
C. chroma
D. organic matter
D. triad
49. A lightweight material made of small 55. An acid loving crop grows best at a pH of
pieces of mica that readily absorbs water. .
A. Peat Moss A. 6.8 - 7.4
B. Sphagnum Moss B. 6.2 - 6.8
C. Perlite C. 4.5 - 5.8
D. Vermiculite D. 5.8 - 6.2

56. A person who identifies and classifies 61. Which nutrient plays a critical role in pho-
plants is known as an tosynthesis by playing a key role in the
opening and closing of stomata?

A. Taxidermist
A. nitrogen
B. Taxonomist
B. phosphorus
C. Agronomist
C. potassium
D. Horticulturist
D. calcium
57. The area of emphasis on an arrangement
is called the 62. Botrytis often presents itself on flowers
as gray mold. This disease is caused by
A. recessed focal point a(an) .
B. radiation focal point A. Fungus
C. weak focal point B. Virus
D. focal point accent C. Bacteria
58. In floral design, gives the illusion that D. Environmental Condition
all of the flower stems are coming from
63. is exposure of plants to low tempera-
one point.
tures to stimulate flowering.
A. radiation
A. . Vernalization
B. physical balance
B. Thermalization
C. visual balance
C. Hardening Off
D. symmetrical balance D. Thermotropism
59. The sum of a person’s “people skills” and 64. Scientific names are used to
personal characteristics that make the per-
son a valuable employee; a measure of A. show the chemical makeup of plants
a potential employee’s worth to the em- B. avoid confusion concerning the names
ployer. of plants
A. employability C. increase the number of names of
B. continuing education plants
D. all of the above
C. cuteness
D. number of instagram followers 65. Commercial growers sell plants and flow-
ers to
60. The horticulture industry maintains a pro-
A. the general public
fessional image by providing their clients
with expert knowledge. This may be ac- B. farmers
complished through C. wholesale florists
A. FBI D. retail florists
B. CPH and CLP
66. A grounds maintenance employee should
C. FCC A. enjoy working outdoors and working
D. AGR alone

B. enjoy mowing grass as part of the job 72. which country is considered the leader in
C. enjoy repairing equipment and walks the floriculture industry?
D. all of the above A. United States
B. Columbia
67. Line-mass arrangements which are based
on straight lines include vertical, diagonal, C. Netherlands (Holland)
L-shaped, and D. South Africa
A. crescent 73. The Occidental style of flower arranging
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. inverted- T began in
C. S-curve A. Egypt
D. Hogarth curve B. South Korea
68. Who of the following would be responsible C. North Korea
for maintaining fairway and greens turf as D. Japan
well as sand traps and irrigation?
74. The part of the plant stem that produces
A. florist
all new cells is the
B. golf course employee
A. Heartwood
C. garden center employee
B. Xylem
D. greenhouse worker
C. Phloem
69. The science and practice of growing and D. Cambium
harvesting flowering plants is called
75. Horticulture and floriculture are the study
A. ornamental and landscape horticul-
of
ture
A. automobiles
B. floriculture
B. plants and flowers
C. olericulture
C. fashion and design
D. pomology
D. food
70. The design makes an excellent canter-
piece because it is attractive when viewed 76. Seedlings have distinct, observable
from either the front or the back. stages of growth.
A. right-triangular A. 2
B. horizontal B. 3
C. equilateral triangular C. 4
D. vertical D. 5
71. When selecting a job, 77. Which one of these positions listed below
A. be sure you like the work involved is never related to horticulture?
B. take the highest-paying job A. researcher
C. don’t consider how well you may get B. teacher
along with the boss C. marketing specialist
D. don’t worry about possible promotion D. stock broker

78. As the population grows and more people A. it helps them to know the product they
build homes, the horticulture industry will are selling

A. remain at the present level of employ- B. it helps them talk to growers
ment C. it helps them to know which items to
B. grow also as the demand for plants in- offer for sale
creases D. all of the above
C. get smaller, because homeowners will
grow their own plants 83. Light inside a greenhouse is measured in

A. solar energy
79. The generic name of the plant is B. foot light
A. placed last and begins with a small let- C. foot candles
ter
D. solar candles
B. placed first and begins with a small let-
ter 84. Which of the following greenhouse cover-
C. placed first and begins with a capital ing is the least expensive, lightest weight,
letter and easiest to install?
D. placed in the middle of the name in the A. Glass

parentheses B. Polyethylene film
80. For a plant to contract a disease, there C. Polycarbonate fiberglass

must be 3 things present which are the D. Vinyl
pathogen, the , and the appropriate en-
vironment. 85. A mum cultivar with a single flower more
than 4 inches in diameter, having all lat-
A. host eral buds removed is called a
B. insect A. Standard mum
C. water B. Spray mum
D. greenhouse C. Disbud mum
81. How many 3.8 Ft3 bags of compressed D. Miniature mum
potting soil will it take to fill the follow-
ing containers? Round up to the near- 86. Double layer poly should have how much
est whole bag. 325-12” Hanging Baskets space between layers for proper inflation
250-6” Standard Pots 550-4” Standard and full insulation?
Pots[Then there’s a table] A. 1 inch
A. 24 B. 12-14 inches
B. 15 C. At least 2 feet
C. 19 D. 6-8 inches
D. 18 87. One type of product wholesalers do NOT
82. Horticulture salespeople should have a sell in addition to flowers and foliage is
background in horticulture because A. glassware

B. hot dog buns C. a large casket piece that is placed in

C. floral foam the center of a closed full couch
D. wire D. a floral piece that is placed on the right

of side of a half couch
88. The premier student organization for
young people interested in the floral indus- 93. A genus can be defined as
try is the A. a group of pants that have more in com-
A. National Florist Association mon with each other than they have with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the members of any other genus
B. National FFA Organization
B. a group of plants that are all alike
C. National Horticulture Association
C. a group of plants that have the same
D. Future Business Leaders Organization flower structure
89. The greenhouse industry began in the D. none of the above
1600s in the western world, more specifi-
94. is the application of water-soluble fer-
cally
tilizers through the irrigation of water.
A. Holland
A. fertigation
B. Italy
B. irrigation
C. Japan
C. pre-plant fertilization
D. Korea
D. water motor-controlled injection
90. What has made the international floral
95. In your school greenhouse there are three
market possible?
growing benches that run the length of the
A. Air traffic linking the world greenhouse. Each bench measures 4’ x
B. worldwide peace 75’. Your teacher typically likes to grow
the school bedding plants in 606 web in-
C. automated production systems
serts which require a 1020 Web Flat to
D. low prices hold them. The web flats measure 11”
x 21”. What is the approximate “maxi-
91. Successful advertising to a target audience mum” number of 1020 flats that could be
is based on three profit “P”’s. Which one placed on these benches?
of the following is not part of the three
profit “P”s? A. 76
A. Persuasive B. 187
B. Pleasant C. 561
C. Planned D. 1250
D. Persistent 96. Which irrigation is also called zero runoff

irrigation?
92. A half-couch casket spray is:
A. Hand watering
A. a triangular one-sided, hand-tied de-
sign B. Subirrigation
B. a small design displayed inside the cas- C. Drip irrigation

ket lid D. Boom irrigation

97. The maximum amount of water that a soil A. 74.8 oz.

can hold is known as B. 89.7 oz.

A. gravitational water C. 71.3 oz.
B. capillary water
D. 59.4 oz.
C. field capacity
103. The amount of light a plant receives
D. cohesion
greatly influences root growth, shoot
98. The container is 1/2 as high as it is wide. growth, flowering. The highest quality
greenhouse plants need foot candles of
A. Standard pot light per day?
B. Bulb pan
A. 500 - 1, 000
C. Azalea pot
B. 2, 000 - 3, 000
D. Mum pot
C. 4, 000 - 6, 000
99. A collection of copies of a person’s best D. 7, 000 - 8, 000
work, awards, and other achievements
that can be shown to prospective employ- 104. As the owner and/or manager of a full
ers. service flower shop you need to
A. Hard good A. work with the customers
B. employability B. take care of ordering paperwork
C. portfolio C. oversee employees
D. wire service D. all of the above
100. Chrysanthemums, Asters, Daisies, and 105. You want to mix 20-10-20 fertilizer con-
other flat-faced flowers are wired for cor- centrate in a 25-gallon tank that will be
sages using which method? injected into the irrigation line through a
A. Pierce Dosatron proportioner at a rate of 1:100.
You will apply 150 ppm N to the crop.
B. Hook-Wiring How much fertilizer do you weigh out for
C. Stitch this concentrate tank, in pounds? 1 lb. has
16 oz.
D. Clutch or Wrap-Around
A. 0.63 lbs. 20-10-20 fertilizer in 25-
101. is the amount of moisture in the air. gallons
A. gases B. 15.6 lbs. 20-10-20 fertilizer in 25-
B. humidity gallons
C. dew point C. 62.5 lbs. 20-10-20 fertilizer in 25-
gallons
D. temperature
D. 250 lbs. 20-10-20 fertilizer in 25-
102. As a greenhouse employee you are mix- gallons
ing cycocel to drench potted plants at a
high rate. You are mixing in a 55 gallon 106. Many orchid species will develop a
container. How many ounces of cycocel do swollen, fleshy stem, structure called a
you mix in the 55 gallons?

A. pseudocorm 111. Which of the following elements of de-

sign allows each flower/ form to have its
B. pseudotuber
own individual importance?
C. pseudobulb A. Depth
D. pseudorhizome B. Space
107. is the art of organizing the design C. Form

elements inherent in plant materials, con- D. Line
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tainer, and accessories according to the
principles of design. 112. As a garden center worker, Julie should
A. color design
A. be a high school worker
B. flower arrangement
B. be expect to work indoors
C. proportional balance C. enjoy working with people and plants
D. floral design D. expect to not interact with people
108. Considerations when planning a wedding 113. The pierce wiring technique works best
include: on flowers that have a
A. location of the wedding A. Thin Calyx
B. time of the year B. Limp stem
C. budget range C. Thick Calyx

D. Fuller Bloom
D. all of the above
114. Which historical floral period includes
109. Immediate steps to lower the medium’s floral design styles that were massed,
EC are and rounded and fan shaped?
A. increase fertilizer rate, increase fertil- A. Egyptian
ization frequency
B. Art Deco
B. lower fertilizer rate, decrease fertiliza- C. American Colonial
tion frequency
D. Oriental
C. increase alkalinity levels, increase
potassium bicarbonate 115. Makayla works for a florist and is com-
pleting and order for a birthday arrange-
D. lower potassium-calcium-magnesium
ment. She used the materials listed below.
ratio, decrease magnesium sulfate
What will the customer be charged assum-
ing a 60% markup, 5.3% tax, and a $12
110. An appropriate lightweight wire to use
delivery charge? There is no tax on the
for corsage construction is:
delivery charge.
A. # 18 gauge A. $61.22
B. # 9 gauge B. $57.77
C. # 22 gauge C. $43.47
D. # 28 gauge D. $45.77

116. Floriculture is derived from two words. 121. The greenhouse worker has a job that
‘Flor’ means and ‘cultura’ means consist of

A. flora, culture A. very irregular and seasonal work
B. flower, culture B. very strenuous manual labor
C. ornaments, culture C. regular hours that are steady through-
out the year
D. none of these
D. constant outside work
117. Which wiring method should be used for
carnations when they are to be used in cor- 122. A garden center employee should
sages and boutonnieres? A. enjoy meeting people
A. Piercing B. enjoy a job that is mostly paper work
B. Clutch C. enjoy working alone
C. Hook D. not be concerned about finishing high
D. Stitch school
123. Which bouquet style would be best for a

118. The science and practice of propagating,
full wedding gown with a long train
growing, maintaining, and using grasses,
annual plants, shrubs, and trees in the A. Tussy Mussy
landscape is called B. Cascading
A. ornamental and landscape horticul- C. Presentation
ture
D. Round Cluster
B. floriculture
C. olericulture 124. By tradition, on Mother’s Day, a
flower or corsage is worn by a daughter
D. pomology as a symbol of love and honor for a liv-
ing mother, and flowers are worn as
119. Budding is a type of in which a single a memorial for a mother who is no longer
bud is taken from one plant and grown on living.
another plant.
A. white, pink
A. seperation
B. yellow, white
B. division
C. red, white
C. layering
D. pink, yellow
D. grafting
125. Describes the products that are sold for
120. The tube is used to provide a stem for cash and then immediately carried away
tube-shaped flowers. by the customer.
A. stephanotis A. cash and carry
B. hairpin B. certification
C. skeleton C. commercial grower
D. corsage D. wire service

126. Certain plants are quite suitable for use C. with nursery stock only
in terrariums. Which, if any, of the follow- D. alone
ing are suitable for this use?
A. Both of these 130. is a specific propagation technique
used with plants that produce bulbs or
B. Creeping Fig corms.
C. None of these A. Separation
D. Needlepoint Ivy B. Division
NARAYAN CHANGDER
127. Which item is a floral piece worn by a C. Layering
man and typically worn on the right-side D. Herbaceous
jacket lapel, near the buttonhole?
131. High or low fertility levels can crop
A. Corsage
susceptibility to and
B. Wristlet
A. decrease, heat, cold
C. Boutonniere
B. increase, insects, mites
D. Clutch C. increase, heat, cold
128. As a grower for a greenhouse produc- D. decrease, insects, mites
tion operation, you have decided to pre-
plant incorporate a low rate of the slow- 132. Nitrogen deficiency, ammonium toxicity
release fertilizer Osmocote 14-14-14 into and phosphorus deficiency are some of the
your soil less root medium prior to potting common reasons of disorders in green-
up hanging baskets. You will grow the house crops.
crop with typical application of soluble fer- A. media
tilizer, but you are adding in the low rate B. nutrient
of slow-release fertilizer to provide some
nutrition in the market channel and during C. water quality
the time that the customer is caring for the D. heating
basket. You want tp mix just enough root
133. The name of the person who developed
medium to pot up 100-12-in hanging bas-
the binomial system for naming plants is
kets (2.2 gal each).Conversion:202 gal per
cubic yard A. Carolus Linnaeus
A. 3.5 lb Osmocote 14-14-14 per cubic B. Plato
yard root medium C. Socrates
B. 5.0 lb Osmocote 14-14-14 per cubic D. Hortus
yard root medium
134. Accented neutral, monochromatic, anal-
C. 8.5 lb Osmocote 14-14-14 per cubic
ogous, and split complementary are the
yard root medium
most common used by florists in de-
D. 16 lb Osmocote 14-14-14 per cubic signs.
yard root medium A. color schemes
129. A greenhouse employee works B. floral arrangements
A. mostly outdoors C. texture arrangements
B. mostly indoors D. lines

135. Correcting high pH can be achieved by 139. Roots that begin growth from the stem
or a leaf, and not from the root tissue, are
A. using high-ammonium fertilizer com-
known as

bined with low alkalinity
A. adventitious roots
B. using a low-ammonium fertilizer com-
bined with high alkalinity B. fibrous roots
C. applying potassium bicarbonate C. tap roots
D. drenching soil with flow-able lime D. cap roots
140. The art and science of cultivating garden

136. Your greenhouse production business has
plants, including fruits, vegetables, flow-
a contract to grow 125 flats of bedding
ers, and ornamental plants.
impatients to local landscaping contractor.
Each flat has an 0804 cell pack insert. You A. Horticulture
will source the plugs from a greenhouse B. Interiorscape
supplier, which offers the plugs in 288-
C. Floriculture
size plug trays. Each plug tray is guaran-
teed to have 280 usable seedlings. What D. Cash and Carry
is the number of 288 plug trays of petu-
141. A brown, water-holding material har-
nias that you must order to be able to
vested from bogs that is made from aged,
grow the plants to meet this contract?
decomposed plant and animal matter.
A. 5 plug trays
A. Peat Moss
B. 14 plug trays B. Sphagnum Moss
C. 15 plug trays C. Perlite
D. 19 plug trays D. Vermiculite
137. The art and science of growing and mar- 142. Three jobs in horticulture that require out-
keting flowers and ornamental plants, and door work and that are done with hand-
the designing and marketing of flower ar- operated tools and equipment are
rangements. A. tree surgeon, researcher, and land-
A. horticulture scape gardener
B. propagation B. teacher, orchardist, and turf worker
C. floriculture C. tree surgeon, turf worker, and small

fruit grower
D. hybridization
D. nursery worker, pruner, and plant
138. A poinsettia crop that is four weeks late breeder
in flowering for Christmas was very likely 143. The larger the gauge of florist wire indi-
exposed to: cates that the thickness is:
A. Lighting at night A. Thinner
B. A gas leak B. Thicker
C. A herbicide C. Longer
D. Too much CO2 D. Shorter

144. The orchid is the largest o the orchid B. (day temperature x hours) / 12
types used by florists for corsages C. (day temperature x hours) / (nighttime
A. cattelya temperatures x hours) / 24
B. cymbidium D. (day temperature x hours) / (nighttime
temperatures x hours) / 12
C. dendrobium
D. phalaenopsis 150. . Together the genus name and the
form the scientific name of a species.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
145. cuttings are taken from wood that
A. family
has stopped actively growing and is dor-
mant. B. variety
A. Softwood C. specific epithet
B. Hardwood D. cultivar
C. Semi hardwood 151. Foliage below the water line should be

removed to:
D. Herbaceous
A. Prevent photosynthesis
146. In the following list of pesticides the must
B. Prevent leaves from using stored food
be mixed with water to apply.
in the stem
A. Emulsifiable concentrate
C. Prevent the leaves from decaying,
B. Granules which foul the water
C. Dusts D. All of these
D. Baits 152. The four elements of design in floral ar-
147. DIF is defined as: rangements are , , , and
A. the difference in daytime temperature A. simplicity, beauty, custom, symbolism

and the nighttime temperature B. custom, line, color, texture, space
B. the difference in fertilization C. line, form, texture, color
C. data interchange format D. none of the above
D. difficulty in fertilization 153. The most idely used mechanics item for
supporting flowers in arrangements is:
148. A once living moss that comes from bogs
and is harvested, dehydrated, and often A. chicken wire
compressed used to hold moisture and pro- B. plastic grid
vide space for plant roots. C. tape
A. Peat Moss D. floral foam
B. Sphagnum Moss
154. Which watering system is considered to
C. Perlite be the most inefficient use of labor?
D. Vermiculite A. Hand watering
149. The formula for determining average B. Sub irrigation
daily temperature (ADT) is: C. Drip irrigation
A. (day temperature x hours) / 24 D. Boom irrigation

155. packing foiled plants for removal from 161. In a greenhouse, are mounted over-
the shop is most easily done by using: head around the greenhouse to guide
warm air in a circulating pattern.

A. a plastic tub
B. a cardboard box A. exhaust fans
C. a sleeve B. louvers
D. a large bag C. cooling systems
156. The process of pinching a plant removes D. HAF fans
the factory and eliminates the con-
centration of the hormone from the up- 162. Sales and income revenue are highest for
per portion of the plant. retail flower shops during what part or
parts of the year?
A. auxin, high, inhibitory
B. tunic, low, hibitory A. Summer months due to weddings
C. auxin, low, hibitory B. Thanksgiving and Christmas seasons

D. high, low, inhibitory C. January to May
157. Most jobs in horticulture require D. October through May

A. a high school diploma 163. A salesperson in a retail flower shop
B. excellent physical condition
A. does not need to know anything about
C. an ability to meet people flowers
D. a person who enjoys being along B. will not have to work on holidays and
158. Which principal of design is defined as “a weekends
oneness or being complete in itself?” C. should be friendly and knowledgeable
A. Harmony D. does not need good communications
B. Unity skills
C. Proportion
164. In a job interview it is very important
D. Line that you be
159. Which is not a primary color? A. honest
A. Orange B. well dressed
B. Red C. on time
C. Blue
D. all of the above
D. Yellow
165. Wholesale florists buy plants from
160. In plant nutrition, EC refers to
A. commercial growers
A. economic conditions
B. electrical conductivity B. retail florists
C. environmental conditions C. the grocery store
D. electrical conduit D. event florists

3.5 spices agriculture 548
166. The biggest insect problem in plugs are D. used only dried flowers
and
169. During a interview, salary should be
A. fungus gnats, shore flies
A. your first question
B. foxglove aphids, chrysanthemum
aphids B. not mentioned
C. silverleaf whiteflies, banded wing C. first mentioned by the employer

whiteflies D. your most important discussion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. broad mites and bulb mites 170. analysis can be conducted to deter-
167. For a plant with the scientific name of mine the nutrient status of the crop or for
Acer rubrum cv. ‘Red Sunset, ‘ Red Sun- problem solving
set is the name. A. stem
A. genus B. foliar
B. species C. pH
C. family D. chemical
D. cultivar 171. Latin names of plants are italicized
168. Floral designers A. to make them appear important
A. do not need to know about basic de- B. because it is conventional to italicize
sign patterns words and phrases that are expressed in
B. create arrangements to fill the display a different language
cooler and incoming orders C. because it helps to remember them
C. do not need to be creative D. because all plant names are italicized
3.5 spices agriculture

1. The social order is accounted as the prod- D. Economics
uct of natural selection of those persons
best suited to existing living conditions 3. An economic system in which investment
and in accord with which a position of and ownership of the means of produc-
laissez-faire is advocated. tion, distribution, and exchange of wealth
is made and maintained chiefly by pri-
A. Social Darwinism vate individuals or corporations, especially
B. Guilds as contrasted to cooperatively or state-
C. Feminism owned means of wealth.
D. Minorities A. Liberalism
B. Economics
2. use, invention, innovation of tools and
technology C. Socialism
A. Interactions D. Capitalism
B. Technology 4. the doctrine that there is only one god.
C. Political A. Polytheistic

3.5 spices agriculture 549
B. Monotheistic B. Nationalism
C. Theistic C. Columbus Exchange

D. Omnitheistic D. colonialism
5. The policy of extending the rule of au- 10. creation, expansion and interaction of eco-
thority of an empire or nation over for- nomic systems- agriculture system, labor
eign countries, or of acquiring and holding systems,
colonies and dependencies. A. Cultural
A. colonialism B. Political
B. imperialism C. Economy
C. Fascism D. Technology
D. Communism
11. State Building, Expansion, and conflict -
6. a virtue of respect for one’s parents, el- leaders, wars, revolutions, laws, govern-
ders, and ancestors, This is a Confucian be- ments
lief. A. Government
A. Confucianism B. Political
B. Filial Piety C. Economy
C. Respect D. Interactions
D. The Golden Rule
12. People forced to work for little to no com-
7. Political system based on reciprocal rela- pensation
tionships between overlords, vassals & A. Chattel Slavery
peasants over pieces of land called fiefs,
B. Coerced Labor
This system was used in Medieval Europe.
C. Guilds
A. Manoralism
D. Servitude
B. Monarchy
C. Feudalism 13. A formal division within, or separation
from, a church or religious body over some
D. Kingdom
doctrinal difference.
8. The hierarchical or vertical division of soci- A. Syncretism
ety according to rank, caste, or class.
B. Schism
A. hierarchy
C. Theology
B. pyramid
D. Separation of church and state
C. Elites
14. The development and transformation of
D. stratification social structures- family, racial/ ethnic fac-
9. The control of governing influence of a na- tors, lifestyles, genders, social and eco-
tion over a dependent country, territory, nomic, entertainment
or people. A. Technology
A. imperialism B. Political

3.6 Medicinal Plants 550
C. Interactions officials rather than by elected representa-

D. Social tives
A. autocracy
15. A theory or system of social organization
that advocates the ownership and control B. theocracy
of the means of production and distribu- C. democracy
tion, capital, land, etc., by the community
as a whole, usually through a centralized D. bureaucracy
government.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. development and interaction of cultures-
A. Socialism holy books, religion, innovation, writing
B. Politics A. Political
C. Economy
B. Cultural
D. Liberalism
C. Interactions
16. the doctrine that there is more than one D. Social
god or many gods.
A. Monotheistic 19. between humans and the environment -
war, disease, cities, trade, migration
B. Theistic
C. Omnitheistic A. Interactions
D. Polytheistic B. Innovations
17. a system of government in which most of C. Technology

the important decisions are made by state D. Economy
3.6 Medicinal Plants

1. Medicinal Plants cure us from C. Medication
A. Common Cold D. Curing
B. Fever 4. Hatha yoga is a system of yoga introduced
C. Build Immunity by Yogi .
D. All of the above A. Avadhesh
2. Identify the plant which is a natural Immu- B. Sri Sri Ravindranath
nity Booster. C. Swatmarama
A. Sunflower D. Akhileskchandra
B. Cactus
5. Which plant is used to treat coughs or
C. Giloy arthritis?
D. Spinach A. Lignum Vitae
3. A way to cure illness B. Rooster Comb
A. Remedy C. Fever Grass
B. Healing D. Life Leaf

6. Dhanvantari was defined as God of . 12. Name the medicinal plants

A. medicine A. Tulsi

B. plants B. Rose
C. herbal C. Lotus
D. vedas D. Tamato
13. Which plant is responsible for starting two

7. The national tree of the Bahamas is the:
wars?
A. yellow elder A. Poppy
B. lignum vitae B. Rosy Periwinkle
C. gumelemi C. Foxglove
D. none of above D. Quinquina
8. What is the correct benifit of garlic 14. If you have nervous problems, what of
this plants would you use?
A. Adis sleep
A. Ginger
B. Reduces inflammation
B. Rue
C. Helps prevent heart diesease
C. Lemon Balm
D. Strengthens eyes
D. Marigold
9. This drink is very famous from China. 15. What herbal remedy is commonly used as
A. milkshake a laxative?
B. coffee A. Flax seed
C. green tea B. Cat’s Claw
D. honey tea C. Chamomile
D. Green Tea
10. Which ornamental plant is used as a skin
treatment in traditional medicine? 16. recommends a tenfold examination of
the patient.
A. Ginger
A. The Charaka Samhita
B. Aloe vera
B. The Shushrut Samhita
C. Tulsi
C. The Vyas Samhita
D. Neem
D. The Omkar Samhita
11. Who is traditionally regarded as the 17. The Siddha science is a traditional treat-
founder of Ayurveda? ment system generated from:
A. Kamadhenu A. Malyalam culture
B. Shri Laxmi B. North-east culture
C. Airavata C. Kashmiri culture
D. Dhanvantari D. Tamil culture

18. Which of the following is the closest 24. Panchakarma includes all of the following,
English traditional of the Sanskrit word except:
‘Ayurveda’? A. Blood purification
A. Wind in the trees B. Cleansing of intestines with enemas,
B. Grain of wheat laxatives or purgatives
C. Water on the knee C. Massages
D. Science of life D. Acupuncture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. What is the main goal of an Ayurvedic 25. As per Indian Mythology, who of the fol-
treatment? lowing is not concerned with Siddha Sci-
A. Cleansing or detoxifying the body ence?
B. Maintaining optimal weight A. Lord Vishnu

B. Lord Shiva
C. Treatment compliance
C. Lord Muruga
D. None of above
D. Sage Agasthya
20. THE WORD HERB IS DERIVED FROM THE
LATIN WORD 26. The practice of adding minerals to herbal
medicine is known as .
A. HYBRO
A. Mantra shastra
B. HEROB
B. Khan Shaatra
C. HERBA
C. Rasa Shastra
D. HEBAR
D. Dugdha Shastra
21. Bush medicines can be used for:
27. Which of the following parts of the body
A. Traditional use
would be the focus of a Shirobhyanga mes-
B. Physical healing sage?
C. Spiritual healing A. Feet
D. All of the above B. Head
22. Name two medicinal plants which we can C. Stomach
grow at home . D. Legs
A. Neem, plarsley
28. How is papain used medically?
B. Tamato, onion A. break blood clots
C. Rose, lotus B. meat tenderizer
D. Brinjal C. treat Alzheimers
23. BOOST THE LIVER FUNCTIONING D. cure diabetes
A. TURMERIC 29. Which property of herbs is used to treated
B. ALOEVERA exterior wind heat pattern?
C. ROSEMARRY A. salty & warm
D. BASIL B. sweet & warm

C. sour & cold C. Cinchona Succirubra

D. acrid & cold D. Erythroxylum coca

30. Which of the following is most useful for 36. Identify this herbal plant.
cough, cold, bronchitis and loss of ap- A. Ashwagandha
petite.
B. Akodi
A. Tulsi
C. Origano
B. Pudina
D. Blood plant
C. Mehndi
37. Which of these is not a use of plant?
D. Neem
A. Plant can be edible.
31. It is used to treat sunburn
B. Plant can be used to clean floors.
A. peppermint
C. Plant can be used in making medicines.
B. basil
C. neem D. none of above
D. aloevera 38. What compound, is used as a heart stimu-
32. can be used to cure diarrhea. lant by over 3 million Americans?
A. water A. Digitoxin
B. sweet milk B. Vinblastine
C. coffee C. Vincristine
D. black tea D. Cortisone
33. Which one of the following is NOT a San- 39. The Ministry of AYUSH is headed by
skrit text on Ayurveda? A. Shri Shripad Yesso Naik
A. Charak Samhita B. Shri Rajnath Singh
B. Susutra Samhita C. Smt Smrirti Irani
C. Astadhyayi D. Shri Y K V Rao
D. Asthang Hidayam 40. How long is the blooming of the Marigold?
34. Which one is not a medicinal plant? A. Every six months
A. Tulsi B. Spring
B. Turmeric C. All the year
C. Venus Flytrap D. In December
D. Aloe Vera 41. Ayurvedic medicine includes most of the
following, except:
35. Which plant is used by the indigenous peo-
ple of Brazil and Peru with no addictive A. Herbs
side effects? B. Diet modifications
A. Digitalis purpurea C. Life style changes
B. Panax quinquefolius D. Needles

42. At which place “Jawahar Lal Nehru Trop- 48. Which of the following is used as an anti-
ical Botanic Garden And Research Centre” cancer?
is situated? A. Aloe Vera
A. Thirrvananthpuram - Kerala B. Tulsi
B. Madurai - Tamilnadu C. Brinjal
C. Shilong - Meghalaya D. Lady fingers
D. Izol - Mizoram
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. Synonym of reduce
43. What medicinal also called A. Lessen
A. Medicinal herbs B. Incresae
B. Medicinal plants C. Maximize
C. Synthesis plants D. none of above
D. Traditional medicine
50. What are the life forces, which influence
44. What form of herbal medicine is widely the functioning of the body?
practiced in India? A. Vata dosha (space and air)
A. Western B. Pitta dosha (fire and water)
B. Greek C. Kapha dosha (water and earth)
C. Chinese D. All of the above
D. Ayurveda
51. WHICH MEDICINAL PLANT IS WORSHIPED
45. Medicine for Malaria is prepared from the BY HINDUS
bark of one of the following plant. A. ROSE
A. Pudina B. LEMON BALM
B. Tulsi C. BASIL
C. Neem D. MARI GOLD
D. Cinchona
52. Bloated stomach usually happens when
46. What is the clear gel extracted from aloe you have
vera leaves used for medically? A. headache
A. Treating burns B. dengue fever
B. Healing ulcers C. cough
C. Treating bunions D. influenza
D. Correcting earaches
53. The food and agricultural estimated in
47. Herbal medicine is based on the use of 2002 that is over plants
A. Plants & Plant Extracts A. 50, 000
B. Water B. 10, 000
C. Animal Sacrifice C. 1, 00, 000
D. Chemicals D. 1, 009

54. This herb is spicy and can make your body 60. Which medicinal plant is useful in inhibit-
feel warm. ing the growth of germs, bacteria and mi-
crobes

A. curcuma
B. ginger A. Tomato
C. aloe vera B. Turmeric
D. betel leaves C. Beans

D. Mint
55. Which of these is the most common ele-
ment used in the Ayurveda medical prac- 61. Which of the following plant(s) are endan-
tice Shirodhara? gered?
A. Custard A. Madeira
B. Chocolate B. Caribbean Pine
C. Oil C. Lignum Vitae
D. Stones D. All of the above
56. Psidium guava is good for our body be- 62. plays a major role in TMs or eth-
cause it contain nomedicine
A. vitamin A A. Local knowledge
B. zinc B. Text books
C. mineral C. Internet
D. vitamin C D. none of above
57. Which of following is the richest source of 63. Which plant is used to treat joint pain?
Vitamin - C (Ascorbic Acid) A. Lignum Vitae
A. Amla B. Rooster Comb
B. Lemon C. Fever Grass
C. Orange D. Life Leaf
D. Chilli
64. Which helps headache pain?
58. Name two categories of herbal plants A. Marigold
A. External, internal B. Rue
B. Complexity, non uniformity C. Good Grass
C. Cultivation, rarity D. Elderberry
D. Bio resources, de bio resources
65. What part of the ginger plant is used in
59. The main herb for hair is health and medicine products?
A. turmeric A. Seed
B. tulsi B. Underground Stem
C. marigold C. Flower
D. bhringraj D. Petal

66. How many Shlokas are there in 72. National Institute of Ayurveda is located
Bagavadgita? in which city of India?
A. 650 A. Jaipur
B. 700 B. Kolklata
C. 750 C. Varanasi
D. 850 D. Delhi
73. A herbal concoction made from ginger can
NARAYAN CHANGDER
67. WHAT ARE THE PROBLEMS INHERENT IN
Sorethroat symptoms
HERBAL EXTRACT
A. Relieve
A. MISIDENTIFICATION
B. Worse
B. TOXIC COMPONENT
C. Increase
C. CONTAMINATION
D. Decrease
D. ALL OF ABOVE
74. In herbal medicine, garlic is used most com-
68. IN AFRICA AND ASIA % OF POPULA- monly as what?
TION STILL USES TRADITIONAL HERBS A. Antibacterial
A. 60 B. Treatment For Insomnia
B. 70 C. Weight Reduction Tool
C. 50 D. Seasoning
D. 80 75. Which of the following is NOT a reason
why lands are cleared?
69. Which Veda is connected with Ayurveda
A. create new shopping centers
A. Atharveda
B. Build new airports
B. Rigveda
C. create new roads
C. Yajurveda
D. create new homes for animals
D. Samveda
76. Herbal medicine is based on the use of
70. How many fundamental qualities are there what?
in Ayurveda? A. Plants & Plant Extracts
A. 10 B. Water
B. 8 C. Animal Sacrifice
C. 20 D. Human Hair
D. 6 77. What are the ways in which we can grow
medicinal plants at home?
71. GRIT KUMARI IS ALSO KNOWN AS
A. Preparing and potting your herb gar-
A. GARLIC den
B. ALOEVERA B. Caring for your herb garden
C. NEEM C. Both of these
D. GINGER D. None of these

78. Which of the plants smells strong? 82. The annual Global export value of the thou-
A. Ginger sand types of the plant with suspected
medicinal properties with estimates to be

B. Elderberry USD in 2012 to 2017
C. Lemon Balm A. 9.1$
D. Rue B. 3.4$
79. Rahul decides to grow pepper, rose, cab- C. 2.2$

bage and cauliflower in his garden. Which D. 4.9$
one of the above plant will Rahul choose
that can be used as a medicine? 83. Which plant is an effective remedy for
Cough and its also used for religious pur-
A. Rose poses.
B. Cauliflower A. Peppermint
C. Pepper B. Asoka
D. None of the above C. Bay Plant
80. Sam has dry skin, which among the follow- D. Tulsi
ing will he use for his dry skin
84. What herb that is liquid, sweet and good
A. honey for your body?
B. coriander A. soy sauce
C. chilly powder B. olive oil
D. Aloe Vera C. honey
D. vegetable oil
81. Which plant is used for speeding up the
process of healing of burns and other 85. What is a medicinal Plant
wounds?
A. A plant with long leaves
A. Tulsi
B. it is a kind of a climber
B. Turmeric
C. It is a shrub
C. Neem D. A plant with some medicinal proper-
D. Aloe Vera ties

4. Agril Botany
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.1 Principles of Genetics
1. Bacteria are organisms that reproduce 4. An organism that has two identical genes
asexually. How is this better for them for a trait is said to be
than reproducing sexually? A. hybrid for the trait
A. They produce more tetrads for repro- B. incompletely dominant for the trait
duction.
C. heterozygous for the trait
B. They have more genetic variation
D. homozygous for the trait
within their population.
C. They can grow to larger populations 5. Each pea-plant gamete has how many al-
more quickly. leles for the height gene?
D. They use more cellular energy to repro- A. 1
duce B. 2
2. The trait that is covered over by another C. 3

form of the trait; it seems to disappear D. 4
A. dominant 6. If two parents have type AB blood, what
B. recessive is the probability that their child will have
type O blood?
C. weak
A. 0%
D. strong
B. 25%
3. A version or variation of a gene C. 50%
A. trait D. 100%
B. gene
7. Which of the following correctly identifies
C. allele the allele combination of tt?
D. DNA A. heterozygous

4.1 Principles of Genetics 559
B. homozygous dominant 13. Yellow seed color is dominant over green

C. homozygous recessive seed color in pea plants. Two plants that
are heterozygous for the yellow seed trait

D. none of above are crossed and 200 seeds are produced.
How many of the seeds would you expect
8. the study of heredity
to be green?
A. Biology
A. 50
B. Heredity
B. 100
C. Genetics
C. 125
D. Genotype
D. 200
9. function of recessive gene
14. When you flip a coin, what is the probabil-
A. produuce functional protein ity that it will come up tails?
B. produce no protein
A. 0.5
C. produce less functional protein
B. 0.25
D. b and c
C. 0.125
10. Which of the following is an example of a D. 1
GENOTYPE?
A. 25% 15. Human skin color occurs in a continuous
range because it is affected by the dinter-
B. Blue action of several genes, making it
C. 1:2:1 A. autosomal trait
D. Bb
B. polygenic trait
11. What is a gene? C. sex-linked trait
A. An entire chromosome that codes for D. codominant trait
a trait
B. a piece of clothing 16. When not one trait is dominant over the
other you see both traits
C. a piece of a DNA on chromosome that
codes for a trait A. co-dominance
D. Chemical messengers in your brain B. blending inheritance

that code for a trait C. incomplete dominance
12. Which of these substances stores and D. polygenic inheritance
transmits the information that specifies
the traits of an organism? 17. What is formed at the end of meiosis
A. DNA A. two genetically identical cells
B. RNA B. four genetically different cells
C. enzymes C. four genetically identical cells
D. carbohydrates D. two genetically different cells

18. The trait that appears in hybrid offspring 22. Homozygous phenotypes are Black and
WhiteA heterozygous organism will have
A. dominant
flowers if the trait is incompletely
B. recessive dominant.
C. polygenic A. Only Black
D. codominance B. Gray
C. Only White
19. Eye color in fruit flies is sex-linked. The
NARAYAN CHANGDER
color Red is dominant to the color white. D. Both Black and White
If a female fruit fly that is heterozygous
23. Gametes are eggs and sperm (sex cells).
for eye color is crossed with a male fruit
Human have 46 chromosomes, but how
fly expressing the dominant trait, the off-
many are found in their liver cells?
spring will have what color eyes?
A. 11.5
A. white
B. 23
B. red
C. 46
C. pink
D. 92
D. red and white
24. Biotechnology
20. how is it possible that two different geno-
A. Breeding technique that involves
types can make one phenotype?
crossing dissimilar individuals to bring
A. Heterozygous dominant and homozy- together the best traits of both organism
gous dominant B. Process of manipulating organisms,
B. Homozygous recessive and homozy- cells, or molecules to produce specific
gous dominant products
C. homozygous recessive and heterozy- C. Continued breeding of individuals with
gous recessive similar characteristics to maintain the de-
rived characteristics of a kind of organism
D. its not
D. Method of breeding that allows only
21. Selective Breeding those organisms with desired character-
istics to produce the next generation
A. Process of manipulating organisms,
cells, or molecules to produce specific 25. The physical characteristic that shows up
products in an organism (what you see)
B. Breeding technique that involves A. Phenotype
crossing dissimilar individuals to bring
B. Genotype
together the best traits of both organism
C. Genes
C. Continued breeding of individuals with
similar characteristics to maintain the de- D. Homozygous
rived characteristics of a kind of organism
26. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed
D. Method of breeding that allows only with a short plant. The probability that
those organisms with desired character- the F1 plant will be short. (F1 generation
istics to produce the next generation are the offspring)

A. 25% 31. Which is a difference between mitosis and

B. 50% meiosis?

C. 75% A. mitosis is sexual, meiosis is asexual
D. 100% B. mitosis has two divisions, meiosis has

one division
27. Transgenic C. mitosis produces genetically diverse
A. Breeding technique that involves cells, meiosis produces identical cells
crossing dissimilar individuals to bring D. mitosis produces diploid cells, meiosis
together the best traits of both organism produces haploid cells
B. Term used to refer to an organism that
contains genes from other organism 32. An individual that has two different alleles
for a trait
C. Process of changing a gene to treat a
medical disease or disorder; an absent or A. Homozygous
faulty gene is replaced by a normal work- B. heterozygous
ing gene
C. Homologous
D. none of above
D. heredity
28. Which of the following is NOT true of the
Principle of Dominance? 33. How are Alleles represented in your Geno-
type?
A. Some alleles are dominant and some
are recessive A. They are a form of a trait that is repre-
sented by an uppercase or lowercase let-
B. Dominant alleles will always be shown ter to show if they are dominant traits or
if present recessive traits
C. Recessive alleles will only be seen B. They are ordered from most common
when here are no dominant alleles to least common
D. Recessive alleles are never inherited C. They are ordered by which trait you in-
herited from your mother followed by the
29. Gregor Mendel studied inheritance of
trait you inherited from your father
traits in which organism?
D. They are represented by a number
A. fruit flies
to signify which chromosome they come
B. caper tigers from
C. honey bees
34. What is a gene map?
D. pea plants
A. DNA coding that dictates where chro-
30. Chromosome that is not a sex chromosome. mosomes are arranged within the nu-
Also called autosomal chromosome cleus.
A. Genomics B. It was a layout designed by Gregor
Mendel that shows where pea plants grew
B. Autosome in his garden.
C. Karyotype C. An organized layout of the relative lo-
D. Genome cations of each gene on a chromosome.

D. A set of directions folded in multiple C. multiple allele

ways that chromosomes use to navigate
D. recessive
through a cell rather than stopping and
asking for directions.
39. A genotype is
35. Which represents the genotype of a ho- A. physical appearance
mozygous condition?
B. made up word for genes
A. Bb
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. BC C. not a genetically related word
C. bb D. two alleles
D. bc
40. A is a segment of DNA that codes for
36. Gene Therapy a particular protein, which leads to a par-
ticular trait.
A. Tool used by biologists that analyzes
an individual’s unique collection of DNA A. Gene
restriction fragment; used to determine
B. Allele
whether two samples of genetic material
are from the same person C. Codon
B. Scientific study of crime scene evi- D. Nucleotide
dence
C. Process of changing a gene to treat a 41. Some humans can roll their tongues, while
medical disease or disorder; an absent or others cannot. Simple dominant traits,
faulty gene is replaced by a normal work- such as tongue rolling, are determined in
ing gene humans by
D. Glass slide or silicon cup that carries A. cleaved DNA
thousands of different kinds of single-
B. a point mutation in the X chromosome
stranded DNA fragments arranged in a
from the mother only
grid. A DNA microarray is used to detect
and measure the expression of thousands C. dominant alleles from the father only
of genes at one time
D. dominant alleles from either the father
37. A is the location where genetic infor- or the mother, or both
mation is stored within the nucleus of a
cell. 42. Purple flower is dominant to white flower
color. Yellow seeds are dominant to green
A. chromosomes
seeds. Two parent pea plants are crossed
B. genes that are both heterozygous for flower
C. DNA color and seed color. What would be the
genotypes for both parents?
D. none of above
A. Ppyy, Ppyy
38. A gene that has more than two possible
alleles B. ppyy, ppyy
A. purebred C. PpYy, PpYy

B. hybrid D. ppyy, PPYY

43. Mitosis and meiosis both produce new phenotype is a combination of each ho-
cells through cell division. However, the mozygous phenotype.
division process differs due to the kind of

A. simple inheritance
cell being produced. How is meiosis differ-
ent from mitosis? B. law of segregation
C. codominance
A. Mitosis produces 4 daughter sex cells
with half the number of chromosomes D. law of segregation
which divide twice. Meiosis produces 2
47. what’s a dominant allele?
daughter body cells with the full number
of chromosomes which divide once. A. describes the genotype of a trait for
which the two alleles an individual carries
B. Mitosis produces 2 daughter sex cells
are the same
with half the number of chromosomes
which divide twice. Meiosis produces 4 B. an individual that is heterozygous at
daughter body cells with the full number two genetic zygous
of chromosomes which divide twice. C. all answers are correct
C. Meiosis produces 4 daughter sex cells D. describes an allele that masks the phe-
with half the number of chromosomes notypic effect of the other
which divide twice. Mitosis produces 2
daughter body cells with the full number 48. When Mendel crossed purebred pea plants
of chromosomes which divide once. having green pods with purebred plants
have yellow pods the offspring were all
D. Meiosis produces 2 daughter sex cells
A. purebred peas with green pods
with the full number of chromosomes
which divide once. Mitosis produces 4 B. purebred peas with yellow pods
daughter body cells with half the number C. hybrid peas with all green pods
of chromosomes which divide twice.
D. hybrid peas with some green and
44. different variations of a biological inheri- some yellow pods
tance factor 49. Which sex chromosomes would indicate a
A. trait typical human male?
B. gene A. XX
C. allele B. X
D. hybrid C. XY
D. XXY
45. If a cross between white flowers (W) and
purple flowers (w), which color flower is 50. In mussels, the allele for brown coloring
dominant? (B) is dominant, and the allele for blue col-
A. dominant oring(b) is recessive. For which parental
genotypes are 100% of the offspring ex-
B. white pected to be blue?
C. recessive A. BbxBb
D. purple B. bbxbb
46. What is it called when both alleles are C. BBxbb
dominant. As a result, the heterozygous D. BBxBB

51. The passing of traits from parent to off- 56. An individual with two different alleles for
spring a specific trait is said to be
A. Heredity A. homozygous
B. Genetics B. heterogenous
C. Hybrid C. homogenous
D. Probability D. heterozygous
52. What does the notation TT indicate to ge- 57. Dominant alleles are-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
neticists studying this family of newly dis- A. capital
covered dragons?
B. lowercase
A. two dominant alleles
C. both
B. heterozygous alleles
D. neither
C. at least one dominant allele
D. homozygous recessive alleles 58. What is the relationship between pheno-
type and genotype?
53. In the P generation, a tall plant is crossed A. The phenotype determines the geno-
with a short plant. The probability that an type.
F2 plant will be tall is
B. The genotype determines the pheno-
A. 75%. type.
B. 50%. C. There is no relationship between phe-
C. 25%. notype and genotype.
D. 100%. D. none of above
54. a well-substantiated explanation of some 59. Jamal was creating a science-fair model
aspect of the natural world, based on a for each of the three types of boundaries
body of facts that have been repeatedly between Earth’s tectonic plates. What are
confirmed through observation and exper- the three types of boundaries?
iment A. divergent, convergent, and transform
A. law boundaries
B. theory B. rift, trench, and convergent bound-
C. hypothesis aries
D. evidence C. tectonic, convergent, and divergent
boundaries
55. Which of the following supports the claim D. divergent, convergent, and plate
that the environment can affect genetic boundaries
traits?
A. Oak trees get taller as they grow. 60. When one allele is dominate and the other
is recessive
B. Hydrangea flower color varies with
soil pH. A. Heterozygous
C. Dandelion plants are self pollinating. B. Homozygous
D. Pinion trees bear cones every other C. Oh no
year D. This isn’t a thing that happens

61. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of seeds. Which of the following terms best
describes the allele for yellow seeds?

A. Modern Medicine A. codominant
B. Father of the Green Revolution B. recessive
C. Father of Genetics C. dominant
D. The Pea Plant Man D. sex-linked
62. An organism’s expressed physical trait, 67. What does phenotype mean?
such as color or shape, is called its
A. an organism has two identical alleles
A. genotype
for a trait
B. phenotype
B. an organism has two different alleles
C. gamete for a trait
D. none of above C. the physical characteristics of a trait
63. The observable traits of an organism are D. the actual genetic makeup of a charac-
known as its teristic
A. allele 68. What is called when a organism has two
B. dominance identical alleles for a trait. TT or tt. RR or
C. phenotype rr
D. genotype A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous
64. A cell with only one set of chromosomes is
called and abbreviated as C. Domozygous
A. diploid, N D. Thermozygous
B. haploid, 4N 69. What is an effect of Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
C. diploid, 2N
A. Blackened gums
D. haploid, N
B. Paralyzation
65. If a plant that has round seeds has a par- C. Abnormally thick mucus
ent that has wrinkled seed, what is its
genotype? Assume that round is domi- D. Loss of eyesight
nant.
70. A homozygous dominant round pea plant
A. RR is crossed with a wrinkled pea plant. If
B. Rr the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-
pollinate,
C. rr
A. the offspring will be slightly wrinkled.
B. all of the offspring will be round.
66. Pea plants can have green or yellow seeds.
C. all of the offspring will be wrinkled.
In a pea plant that is heterozygous for
seed color, the allele for yellow seeds D. some of the offspring will be round and
masks the effects of the allele of green some will be wrinkled.

71. A gene for corn has two alleles, one for 76. Why does the DNA run to the positive
yellow kernels and one for white kernels. probe?
Cross pollination of yellow corn and white
A. DNA is negatively charged
corn results in ears of corn that have an ap-
proximately even mix of yellow and white B. DNA is positively charged
kernels. Which term best describes the re-
C. gravity pushes DNA to the positive
lationship between the two alleles?
probe
A. Codominance
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Chimarism 77. whats heterozygous
D. Dominance A. describes the genotype of a trait from
parents to offspring from genetic informa-
72. Physical characteristics studied in genetics
tion
are known as:
A. traits B. holds both a dominant and recessive
trait.
B. offspring
C. generations C. all of the above
D. hybrids D. none of above
73. Which Mendelian law is represented by 78. A chart that traces the inheritance of a
the ratios seen in a monohybrid cross? trait in a family is called a
A. Law of Segregation A. Pedigree
B. Law of Independent Assortment
B. Karyotype
C. Incomplete dominance
C. Genome
D. Heterozygous alleles
D. Autosome
74. When chromosomes fail to separate dur-
ing meiosis it is referred to as , which 79. What is called when a organism has two
can cause down syndrome and other ge- different alleles for a trait. Tt or Rr
netic disorders.
A. Heterozygous
A. translocation
B. Homozygous
B. nondisjunction
C. relocation C. Domozygous
D. chromosome alteration D. Thermozygous
75. The Law of Segregation states that each 80. An allele whose trait always shows up in
parent donates copy/copies of each the organism when the allele is present.
gene duringmeiosis.
A. recessive allele
A. 1
B. 2 B. dominant allele
C. 3 C. hidden allele
D. 4 D. present allele

81. Dogs that have parents of different breeds B. are always expressed in the pheno-
are very popular. Pomchis have one type.
Pomeranian parent and one Chihuahua

C. are usually codominant.
parent. Labradoodles have a Labrador
retriever parent and a poodle parent. D. tend to be masked by the characteris-
Crossbred dogs are hybrids and have a tics of dominant genes.
combination of traits from both parents’ 84. Each parent contributes one of the genes
breeds.What genotype would the puppies for a particular trait. The genes of the pair
have if two labradoodles were bred to- are called:
gether?
A. variables
A. homozygous B. gametes
B. purebred C. hybrids
C. heterozygous D. alleles
D. F1 generation 85. What would be the result if crossing over
did not happen during meiosis in humans?
82. Geologists have been on a quest to drill
down to the mantle for several decades. A. Children would have more chromo-
The goal is to learn more about volca- somes.
noes, earthquakes, and how the planet B. Parents would be more likely to look
works. The deepest hole so far is the Kola like their children.
Superdeep Borehole in Russia. Over 20 C. There would be less genetic variation
years, a team drilled down 40, 230 feet. in humans.
That’s only halfway to the mantle in that
D. The human population could not repro-
spot. The team encountered unexpectedly
duce.
high temperatures that ruined their equip-
ment. In addition, high pressure caused 86. In Deoxyribonucleic acid, cytosine pairs
the rocks to ooze and fill the borehole over with the nitrogen base
and over.How does pressure change as A. adenine
you move from Earth’s surface to the in-
ner core? B. thymine
C. guanine
A. Pressure is highest in the crust, then
decreases steadily in the mantle and core. D. uracil
B. Pressure decreases as temperature 87. In guinea pigs, the alleles for black hair(B)
increases in the mantle and core. is dominant to the allele for brown hair(b).
Two black-haired guinea pigs are crossed.
C. Pressure increases steadily as the
One of the pigs is homozygous for black
weight of rocks above increases.
hair and one is heterozygous. What per-
D. Pressure increases and decreases de- centage of their offspring are expected to
pending on the density of the rock layer. have black hair?
A. 25%
83. The genetic characteristics of recessive
genes B. 50%
A. tend to mask the characteristics of C. 75%
dominant genes. D. 100%

88. A flower that is heterozygous for the color C. body cell

purple has
D. dame
A. two identical alleles for the trait.
B. only one allele for the trait. 94. The offspring of the P1 generation are
C. two different alleles for the trait. called the generation.
D. two recessive alleles A. F1
89. A heterozygous purple flowered pea plant B. lost
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is crossed with a pure recessive white C. F2
flowered pea plant. What is the expected
phenotypic outcome of the offspring? D. P2
A. 100% white flowered plants
95. The tiny fruit fly is a superstar of genetics
B. 100% purple flowered plants research. Thousands of experiments have
C. 50% purple flowered plants and 50% explored how flies inherit traits. Wing
white flowered plants shape, body color, eye color, and head
D. 75% white flowered plants and 25% shape are a few traits under investiga-
purple flowered plants tion. Fruit flies make good study subjects
because they are inexpensive, take little
90. Two traits produce a blended phenotype. space, and breed quickly. In addition, hu-
A. polygenic inheritance mans and fruit flies share 75% of their dis-
ease genes. By studying fruit-fly genetics,
B. incomplete dominance we can learn about human illness. Which
C. multiple alleles of these terms describes the expression of
D. simple dominance an organism’s genes?
91. Which of the following assort indepen- A. genotype

dently? B. inherited factor
A. chromosomes C. phenotype
B. multiple alleles
D. masked trait
C. genes on the same chromosome
D. codominant alleles 96. what is incomplete dominance?
92. What’s missing in this sequence?DNA → A. describes the genotype of a trait from
Genes → → Genome parents to offspring from genetic informa-
A. homozygous tion
B. chromosome B. the greater resemblance of offspring

of to parents than to other individuals in
C. allele
the population
D. RNA
C. the case in which the the heterozygote
93. gamete has a phenotype intermediate between
A. wife/husband those of the two homozygotes
B. gender D. none of above

97. All of these can be inherited by people EX- 102. A dihybrid trait crosses
CEPT - A. 3 traits.

A. language B. one trait.
B. blood type C. 2 traits.
C. eye color D. none of above
D. height 103. A phenotype is the
98. Meiosis involves divisions and results A. letter combination

in genetically different daughter cells. B. dominant gene
A. 1, 2 C. recessive gene
B. 2, 2 D. physical appearance
C. 1, 4 104. A dihybrid cross (AaBb x AaBb) will re-

sult in what offspring ratio?
D. 2, 4
A. 4:4:2:2
99. Long chains of molecules that make up B. 1:3:1
chromosomes are known as
C. 3:1
A. Traits
D. 9:3:3:1
B. DNA
105. A cell that has two complete sets of chro-
C. Genes mosomes (one from each parent) is called
D. none of above and abbreviated as
A. diploid, N
100. A Punnett square shows all of the follow-
B. haploid, N
ing EXCEPT
C. diploid, 2N
A. all possible results of a genetic cross.
D. haploid, 4N
B. the genotypes of the offspring.
106. What traits could scientists potentially
C. the alleles in the gametes of each par-
manipulate by genetically engineering hu-
ent.
man babies.
D. the actual results of a genetic cross. A. hair color
101. A man and a woman who are both B. gender
heterozygous for normal skin pigmenta- C. disease resistance
tion (Aa) produce an albino offspring (aa).
D. all of the above
Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s)
why the offspring is albino? 107. In mice coat color is incompletely domi-
A. dominance and segregation nant. Black and white are homozygous.
Brown mice are heterozygous.What is the
B. dominance only genotype for a brown mouse?
C. independent assortment only A. BB
D. segregation only B. Bb

C. bb B. 25%
D. none of above C. 75%
108. A is the specific genetic makeup or D. 1%

“code” for a particular trait. 113. In human beings, which parent deter-
A. genotype mines the sex of the offspring
B. phenotype A. Mother
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. traits B. Father
D. none of above C. Neither
D. Both
109. states that allele pairs separate or seg-
regate during gamete formation and ran- 114. Which pair of alleles shown below are
domly unite at fertilization both RECESSIVE ALLELES?
A. sex-linked A. AA
B. dominance B. aa
C. segregation C. Aa
D. independent assortment D. none of above
110. Which phrase best describes the outcome 115. In a punnet square where are the parent
of meiosis? alleles written?
A. results in diploid cells A. Top and inside the boxes
B. occurs in body cells B. Only on the left and right side of the
C. results in genetically identical cells boxes.
D. produces haploid gametes C. outside of the boxes (top and left side)
D. All on the top side of the boxes
111. A father is heterozygous for his type A
blood and a mother is heterozygous for her 116. What law states that in Tt the person will
type B blood. What percentage of their only show the dominant allele
offspring would you expect to have?
A. law of segregation
A. 50% all blood types B. law of independent assortment
B. 25% Type A, 50% Type B, 25% Type O C. law of dominance
C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B D. law of punnett squares
D. Type A 25%, Type B 25%, Type AB 25%,
Type O 25% 117. In a certain species of insect, eye color is
controlled by a single gene. The dominant
112. The X-linked recessive trait of color- allele (E) codes for black eyes, while the re-
blindness is present in 5% of males. If cessive allele (e) codes for red eyes. How
a mother who is a carrier and father who could two parents with black eyes have a
is unaffected plan to have children, what red-eyed female offspring?
is the probability of having a male who is A. The parents are heterozygous for eye
color-blind? color, so their offspring must inherit the
A. 50% recessive allele from both parents

B. The parents are homozygous reces- C. genotype is the genetic make up, phe-
sive for eye color, so all of their offspring notype is the physical make up
will inherit red eyes

D. IDK
C. Since the offspring is female, it did not
inherit any Y chromosomes with the gene 122. A pea plant is heterozygous for height
for black eyes, and thus has red eyes (Tt) and it is crossed with a homozygous
short (tt) plant. Use a Punnett square to
D. Since the offspring is heterozygous for determine the probability of one of their
eye color, environmental factors are caus- offspring being short.
ing it to produce more red pigment than
black and thus has red eyes. A. 100%
B. 75%%
118. In a species of mouse, brown fur (B) is
dominant over white fur (b). If a het- C. 50%
erozygous brown mouse is crossed with a D. 25%
white-colored mouse, what would be true
of their possible offspring? 123. Allele
A. 100% BB A. Sex cells
B. 25% BB, 25% bb, and 50% Bb B. One of the different forms of a gene
C. 50% Bb and 50% bb C. One of Mendel’s principles that states

that genes for different traits can segre-
D. 75% BB and 25% Bb gate independently during the formation
of gametes
119. Micrograph of the complete diploid set
of chromosomes grouped together in pairs, D. Process in sexual reproduction in
arranged in order of decreasing size which male and female reproductive cells
join to form a new cell
A. Karyotype
B. Autosome 124. Brown hair (B) is dominant to blonde hair
(b). Cross a homozygous dominant hair
C. Genomics
colored person with a homozygous reces-
D. Genome sive hair colored person. What percentage
of their children will have brown hair?
120. Which type of plant did Gregor Mendel
use to conduct a large portion of his re- A. 0%
search? B. 25%
A. Rose bush C. 50%
B. Tomato plant D. 100%
C. Pea plant
125. Round (R) seeds are dominant to wrin-
D. none of above kled (r) seeds.What is the genotype for a
homozygous dominant offspring?
121. What is the major difference between a
genotype and a phenotype? A. RR
A. genotype is the physical make up, phe- B. Rr

notype is the genetic makeup C. rr
B. genotype is the same as phenotype D. none of above

126. A person heterozygous for wet earwax 130. What is another name for heterozygous?
(Ww) mates with a person homozygous A. Hybrid
recessive for dry earwax. What is the
chance their baby is heterozygous? B. Purebred
C. Codominant
A. 0%
D. Mixed Breed
B. 25%
C. 50% 131. different forms of the same gene
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 100% A. alleles
B. genes
127. Chromosomes form tetrads during
C. phenotype
A. metaphase I of meiosis
D. heterozygous
B. interphase
132. When an organism has two different al-
C. prophase I of meiosis leles, it is called
D. anaphase II of meiosis A. homozygous
128. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment B. heterozygous
A. the principle that assorted alleles are C. recessive
independant D. dominant
B. the principle that allele pairs for differ- 133. What is the term for the different “fla-
ent genes separate independently in meio- vors” or versions of genes?
sis, so the inheritance of one trait gener-
ally does not influence the inheritance of A. Chromosomes
another trait B. Ally
C. principle that independent organisms C. Alleles
can’t assort their genes to change their D. none of above
genetic material, meaning an organism is
born only with the traits it inherits. 134. Who is known as father of genetics?
D. none of above A. Gregor Mendel
B. Augustinian friar
129. In guinea pigs, short fur (S) is dominant
to long fur (s) and brown fur (B) is dom- C. Norman Borlaug
inant to white fur (b). A Heterozygous D. M.S Swaminathan
brown guinea pig with long fur is crossed
135. Normal red blood cells slide easily
with a white guinea pig that is heterozy-
through narrow blood vessels. In sickle
gous for short fur. What is the probability
cell disease, many red blood cells change
that the offspring will be brown with long
to a crescent shape like a slender moon.
fur?
Crescent-shaped blood cells cause block-
A. 25% ages in blood vessels. These blockages
B. 50% decrease the transport of oxygen. People
with sickle cell disease often have sharp
C. 75% pains due to the lack of oxygen in parts
D. 100% of the body.Sickle cell disease is caused by

an abnormal type of red blood cell gene in- 140. A scientist is observing pea plant seed
herited by the parents. What is the name color and seed shape. This data will be
for different forms of the same gene? used to predict future offspring. What tool

A. recessive genes should be used to show the data being
tracked?
B. dominant genes
A. Monohybrid
C. traits
B. Dihybrid
D. alleles
C. Pedigree
136. Which of the following are shown in a D. Graph
karyotype?
A. homologous chromosomes 141. When one allele is not dominant over the
other, the heterozygous phenotype is a
B. sex chromosomes
blend of the two (such as pink flowers
C. autosomes from a red flower parent and white flower
D. all of these parent)
A. Incomplete Dominance
137. Examples are:Temperature, Time and pH
B. Codominance
A. environmental factors
C. Multiple Alleles
B. heredity
D. Polygenic Traits
C. pedigree
D. codominance 142. Which of the following would produce a
recessive phenotype?
138. Trait
A. hh
A. A specific characteristic of an individ-
ual B. Rr
B. One of Mendel’s principles that states C. Ww

that genes for different traits can segre- D. BB
gate independently during the formation
of gametes 143. The study of heredity is known as
C. Genetic Makeup of an organism A. Hereditology
D. Sequence of DNA that codes for a pro- B. Genetics
tein and thus determines a trait; factor C. Biology
that is passed from the parent to offspring
D. Law of Heredity
139. Situations in which one allele for a gene
is not completely dominant over another 144. A trait that is masked unless 2 copies are
allele for that gene are called present is
A. multiple alleles A. recessive
B. incomplete dominance B. dominant
C. polygenic inheritance C. weak
D. multiple genes D. hidden

145. Another name for sex cells or reproduc- 150. Which of the following genetic screening
tive cells is techniques is BEST used to see if someone
has trisomy #2?
A. genes
A. Karyotype
B. alleles
B. Punnett square
C. gametes
C. Gel electrophoresis
D. phenotype
D. Pedigree
NARAYAN CHANGDER
146. which statement does not describe sex- 151. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-
ual reproduction breeding tall plants (TT) with true-
A. male and female aphids combine ge- breeding short plants (tt), all the offspring
netic material were tall because
A. the allele for tall plants is recessive
B. female aphids produce young by them-
selves B. the allele for short plants is dominant
C. Young aphids have a mother and a fa- C. the allele for tall plants is dominant
ther D. none of above
D. it produces aphids better to respond to 152. whats an Allele?
their environment
A. an individual who carries one allele for
147. What is a Genotype? a recessive trait and does not exhibit the
trait.
A. a physical characteristic of a trait
B. the genes that an organism carries for
B. a type of mutation a particular trait
C. a type of characteristic that you inherit C. alternative versions of a gene
from your parents D. manifested structure, functions, and
D. the genetic make up of a trait behaviors of an individual
153. What is the process by which the num-
148. Human females produce egg cells that
ber of chromosomes per cell is cut in half
have
through a process of separating homolo-
A. one X and one Y chromosome gous chromosomes?
B. one X or one Y chromosome A. meiosis
C. two x chromosomes B. crossing-over
C. replication
D. one x chromosome
D. mitosis
149. When a red and white individual produce
154. What are the genotypes for type A
pink offspring it is called:
blood?
A. codominance
A. AA, O
B. multiple alleles B. IAIA, IAi
C. incomplete dominance C. AO, O
D. epistasis D. OO, AA

155. Principle/Law of Segregation is defined B. An organism that has different genes

as for a trait (Tt)

A. Some alleles are dominant over oth- C. When neither gene is fully dominant;
ers. offspring is a mixture of both
B. Allele pairs separate during gamete D. the different forms of a trait (hair
formation and randomly unite at fertiliza- color→ brown, blonde, red
tion.
C. During gamete formation genes for dif- 161. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals
ferent traits separate without influencing (BB) and white individuals (bb) are ho-
each other’s inheritance mozygous. Heterozygous individuals are
grey (Bb). What is the genotype ratio for
D. none of above
a cross between a grey fowl and a white
156. Tt is- fowl?
A. homozygous dominant A. 2 BB:2 Bb:0 bb
B. homozygous recessive B. 0 BB:4 Bb:0 bb
C. heterozygous C. 0 BB:2 Bb:2 b
D. none of these D. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb
157. Dominant alleles are represented by a(n) 162. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
A. phenotype yellow plant is
B. lower case letter A. GG
C. upper case letter B. Gg
D. punnett square C. gg
158. Mendel pea plants to study traits. D. all of the choices result in yellow
A. cut
163. If you crossed two heterozygous plants,
B. naturally pollinated how many of the offspring will also be het-
C. crossed erozygous?
D. none of above A. all
159. an assumption, an idea that is proposed B. half
for the sake of argument so that it can be C. 3/4
tested to see if it might be true
D. 1/4
A. law
B. theory 164. In a pedigree, a SQUARE represents
a(an)
C. hypothesis
D. evidence A. male
B. female
160. What does heterozygous mean?
C. child
A. An organism that has the same genes
for a trait (TT or tt) D. adult

165. Cross Two Homozygous plants ( RRYY C. The chromosomes must replicate.
x rryy ) R = round seeds, r = wrinkled D. Four haploid cells are produced.
seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow 170. The arctic fox is blue-gray in the summer
seeds? and white in the winter. What most likely
influence(s) this change?
A. 0%
A. genes and the environment
B. 25%
B. dominant alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50%
C. the environment alone
D. 100%
D. codominant alleles
171. A trait that is expressed only when the
codominance?
dominant allele is NOT present is known
A. a pink snapdragon flower color as
B. crossing a tall plant and a short plant A. recessive
to make a medium plant
B. dominant
C. crossing a pea plant with round seeds C. timid
and a pea plant with wrinkled seeds to pro-
duce a pea plant with round seeds D. shy
D. crossing a white horse and a black 172. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a
horse to produce a horse with both black baby. What is the chance the baby is blue
hairs and white hairs eyed?
A. 0 %
167. Malaria is a disease caused by a
B. 25%
A. Gene mutation
C. 50%
B. Defect in red blood cells
D. 75%
C. Bacterium found in water
D. Parasite carried by mosquitoes 173. In Ooglies, orange hair color is codom-
inant to green hair. If two orange and
168. What is the end result of meiosis? green haired Ooglies reproduce, what is
the expected genotypic ratio?
A. 2 genetically identical diploid somatic
cells A. 4:0
B. 2 genetically different haploid somatic B. 0:4
cells C. 1:2:1
C. 4 genetically identical diploid gametes D. 2:2
D. 4 genetically different haploid ga- 174. (External)The physical appearance of an
metes organism
169. What must happen before meiosis can be- A. Phenotype
gin? B. Genotype
A. The cell splits into four parts. C. Glenotype
B. DNA must duplicate four times. D. none of above

175. How many alleles affect human blood A. Type A, 25%, Type B 25%, Type AB 25%,
type? Type O 25%

A. 2 B. Type A 50%, Type B 25%, Type AB 25%,
B. 3 Type O 50%
C. 4 C. Type A blood 50%, Type B 50%, Type

AB 0%, Type O Blood 0%
D. none of above
D. Type A blood 100%
176. Physical or observable appearance
181. According to the laws of segregation
A. Heterozygous
and independent assortment, how would
B. Genotype the following alleles and genes dis-
C. Phenotype tribute:GgTt
D. Homozygous A. Gg, GT, Tt, gt
B. Gg, Tt
177. states that the alleles of two (or more)
different genes get sorted into gametes C. GT, Gt, gT, gt
independently of one another. In other D. GT, gt
words, the allele a gamete receives for one
gene does not influence the allele received 182. Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink
for another gene. and white. What type of inheritance is
A. sex-linkage this?
B. dominance A. Complete Dominance
C. segregation B. Incomplete Dominance
D. independent assortment C. Codominance

D. Polygenic Inheritance
178. If one of your parents is blood type A and
the other is type B, which of the following 183. In humans, wet earwax (E) is dominant
blood types would you likely be? to dry earwax (e) Dad:Homozygous reces-
A. O sive Mom:Heterozygous How many poten-
tial offspring have wet earwax? /4
B. AB
A. 1/4
C. A or B
B. 2/4
D. Any
C. 3/4
179. is equal to
D. 4/4
A. 0%
B. 25% 184. What does it mean when pea plants are
described as being true-breeding?
C. 50%
A. If allowed to self-pollinate, the plants
D. 75% will mutate into different offspring
180. A father has type AB blood and the B. If allowed to self-pollinate, the plants
mother has type O. What percentage of will produce offspring identical to them-
their offspring would you expect to have? selves.

C. They are only able to reproduce 189. a single male or female cell that carries
through self-pollination only one allele of each trait
D. They are unable to reproduce through A. gamete
self-pollination B. gene
185. Study of hereditiy C. probability
A. Genotype D. hybrid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Phenotype 190. In some carnations, flower color exhibits
codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and
C. Genes
white (W) flowers make speckled flowers
D. Genetics (RW) that show both colors.Complete a
cross between 2 speckled flowers and find
186. The passing of traits from one generation the genotype ratio.
to the next is called A. 0 RR:4 RW:0 WW
A. genetics B. 2 RR:2 RW:0 WW
B. heredity C. 1 RR:2 RW:1 WW
C. a monohybrid cross D. 0 RR:2 RW:2 WW
D. DNA synthesis 191. An organism that has two different alle-
les for a single trait is said to be for
187. What is true of the allele pair of someone
that trait.
with a genotype TT?
A. Haploid
A. It has two different forms of the allele
for a gene. B. Diploid
B. It is homozygous dominant. C. heterozygous

D. homozygous
C. It is heterozygous.
D. It is homozygous recessive. 192. What are the blood types of the possible
children that a woman (type O) and man
188. The inheritance of short wings in (type AB) can have?
Drosophila fruit flies is an x-linked, re- A. O and AB
cessive trait. Which most likely result if
a short-winged female mates with a long- B. O and A
winged male? C. O and B
A. All offspring will be short-winged. D. A and B
B. All females will be long-winged, and all 193. The trait of having dimples (D) is domi-
males will be short-winged. nant to having no dimples (d). If heterozy-
C. All females will be short-winged, and gous man for dimples and a woman with
all males will be long-winged. no dimples have a child, what is the prob-
ability the child will have dimples?
D. Half of the males and females will
be short-winged, and half will be long- A. 75%
winged. B. 50%

C. 25% 199. Which of the following is homozygous

D. 0% DOMINANT?

A. Yy
194. Human eye color, which is controlled by
B. Y
more than one gene, is an example of
C. yy
A. codominance
D. YY
B. incomplete dominance
C. polygenic inheritance 200. A plant that has purple flowers is crossed
with one that has white flowers. The off-
D. simple dominance
spring were half white and half purple.
195. The physical characteristics, or traits, of What were the genotypes of the parents?
an individual organism is called the A. Pp x pp
A. Genotype B. Pp x Pp
B. Phenotype C. PP x pp
C. Dominant D. PP x WW
D. Recessive 201. Orange (A) flowers are dominant over
yellow flowers (a). A orange flowered
196. What is the definition of Homozygous?
plant pollinates a yellow flowered plant.
A. When one allele is dominant and one If half the offspring are orange and the
is recessive other half are yellow, what are the geno-
B. When an individual has two sets of the types of the parents?
same allele. A. Aa x Aa
C. when it is neither dominant or reces- B. aa x aa
sive C. AA x aa
D. none of above D. Aa x aa
197. A trait that is expressed whenever an al- 202. Gregor Mendel is the father of genetics.
lele for it is present is known as What type of plants did he study?
A. recessive A. tea plants
B. dominant B. pepper plants
C. mean C. pea plants
D. scary D. tomato plants
198. The hereditary material that controls all 203. All offspring plants in the F1 generation
cellular activities is called - were purple because purple is the trait.
A. ATP A. Heterozygous
B. chloroplast B. Homozygous
C. DNA C. Dominant
D. cytoplasm D. Recessive

204. physical characteristics are called the 209. At the end of telophase II, what is the
A. gamete result
B. dominant A. 2 haploid daughter cells
C. genotype B. 2 diploid daughter cells
D. phenotype C. 4 haploid daughter cells

D. 4 diploid daughter cells
205. A female guinea pig homozygous domi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nant for black fur color is mated with a 210. Which of the following could be another
male homozygous for white fur color. In a term used for heterozygous?
litter of eight offspring, probability would A. Purebred
predict there would be
B. Hybrid
A. 8 black guinea pigs
C. Same
B. 4 black and 4 white guinea pigs
D. Clone
C. 2 black, 4 gray, and 2 white guinea pigs
D. 8 white guinea pigs 211. Why is it necessary for meiosis to pro-
duce cells with fewer chromosomes?
206. Gene maps are based on A. It saves energy for the organism to
A. the frequencies of crossing-over be- produce fewer chromosomes.
tween genes. B. Asexual reproduction requires fewer
B. independent assortment. chromosomes than sexual reproduction.
C. genetic diversity. C. Organisms reproduce sexually by join-
D. the number of genes in a cell. ing two tetrads together.
D. If it did not, the chromosome number
207. In pigs, having a curly tail (T) is domi- would double in each generation.
nant over having a straight tail (t). Par-
ent 1:Heterozygous Parent 2:Heterozy- 212. If a person has a genotype of RR, what
gousWhat are the genotypes of the off- do you know about their gametes (sex
spring from the Punnett square? cells)?
A. Tt, Tt A. They will all carry the R allele.
B. TT, Tt. tt B. They will all carry RR.
C. 1 TT, 2 Tt, 1 tt C. Some will carry R, some will carry r.
D. 3 curly, 1 straight D. They will all carry the r allele.
208. How many amino acids are coded for by 213. The outward physical appearance and be-
this sequence of nucleotides:ATG GGA ACT havior of an organism as a result of its
CCA genotype
A. 4 A. Dominant
B. 2 B. Phenotype
C. 6 C. Recessive
D. 12 D. Punnett Square

214. Which of the following demonstrates non- 219. Males are more likely to suffer from a
disjunction during the formation of sperm? sex-linked disease or disorder because

A. 22 autosomes and one Y-chromosome A. males are the weaker sex
B. 22 autosomes and one X-chromosome B. males have less DNA
C. 44 autosomes and two X- C. males have 1 X chromosome, so the
chromosomes disorder is more likely to be expressed
D. 23 autosomes and one X-chromosome D. none of above
215. In a cross between flowers where white 220. Clone

is dominant and purple is recessive, which A. DNA produced by combining DNA from
allele combination represents a purple different sources
flower? B. Member of a population of genetically
A. WW identical cells produced from a single cell
B. Ww C. Term used to refer to an organism that
contains genes from other organism
C. Pp
D. none of above
D. ww
221. Yellow is dominant over green. If a het-
216. Which of the following is true about peo-
erozygous plant were crossed with a ho-
ple who are heterozygous for sickle cell
mozygous recessive plant, what percent of
disease?
the progeny are green?
A. they are resistant to malaria A. 0%
B. They have some normal hemoglobin in B. 25%
their red blood cells.
C. 50%
C. they are generally healthy
D. 75%
D. all of the above.
222. what is a males 23rd chromosome pair
217. A genotype refers to
A. XY
A. the alleles that manifest and we can
B. XX
see (attached earlobe)
C. YX
B. a homozygous nature
D. none of above
C. the alleles for a gene written in sym-
bols (RR, Rr rr) 223. What is Bb?
D. none of above A. Recessive
B. Double Dominant
218. Phenotype
C. Heterozygous
A. Genetic makeup of an organism
D. I don’t know
B. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
tains only a single set of genes 224. The alleles that an organism has
C. one of different forms of gene A. genotype
D. none of above B. phenotype

C. chromosome 229. In the ABO blood group system in hu-

mans, if a person of type-B blood has chil-
D. recessive
dren with a person of type-AB blood, what
225. Which of the following is an example of blood types could their children have?
a homozygous dominant genotype? A. Type-AB, type-A, and type-B
A. RR B. Type-A and type-B
B. Rr C. Type-B and type-AB
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Type-AB, type-A, type-B, and type-O
C. rr
D. none of above 230. Which of these would best be described
as a phenotype?
226. The heterozygous condition of sickle cell A. blue eyes
anemia (a recessive disorder) results in
B. mutation
resistance to malaria. If a homozygous
normal father and a heterozygous mother C. Bb
have a child, what are the chances of that D. Tt
child being resistant to malaria but not
having sickle cell anemia? 231. How many chromosomes are in a human
gamete?
A. 25%
A. 46
B. 50%
B. 23
C. 75%
C. 22
D. 100%
D. 44
227. The small segments of a chromosome 232. Mendel studied pea traits including all ex-
that help code for a trait are called - cept
A. genes A. Pea seed shape
B. genotypes B. Root growth
C. proteins C. Pea flower arrangment
D. nucleotides D. Pea pod color
233. Homologous
228. Which phrase best describes the process
of crossing over? A. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
tains only a single set of genes
A. Pairs of homologous chromosomes ex-
change segments B. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
tains two sets of homologous chromo-
B. Pairs of sister chromatids exchange somes
segments
C. Term used to refer to chromosomes in
C. Pairs of homologous chromosomes be- which one set comes from the male parent
come linked and one set comes from the female parent
D. Pairs of sister chromatids become
linked D. none of above

234. In Mendel’s experiments, the symbol 239. Gregor Mendel’s “P” generation con-
“gg” represents the recessive geno- sisted of purple flower plants crossed with
type for pod color. white flower plants. What were the re-

A. homozygous sults of this cross?
B. heterozygous A. All purple flower offspring
C. homologous B. All white flower offspring
D. genomes C. Some purple flowers and some white
flowers
235. Purebred is the same meaning as
D. none of above
A. heterozygous
B. homozygous 240. Gregor Mendel developed all of the fol-
lowing principles (laws) of genetics except
C. hybrid
A. Principle of Dominance and Recessive-
D. none of above ness
236. How do recessive alleles work? B. Principle of Mutation
A. The trait only shows up when there is C. Principle of Independent Assortment
two of them.
D. Principle of Segregation
B. They always show up
241. In both parents contribute i alleles, their
C. They don’t
child will have which blood type?
D. none of above
A. A
237. Haploid B. B
A. Term used to refer to a cell that con- C. AB
tains only a single set of genes
D. O
B. Term used to refer to chromosomes in
which one set comes from the male parent 242. Nondisjunction
and one set comes from the female parent A. Process in which epigenetic chemical
C. Term used to refer to a cell that con- marks can be passed from one generation
tains two sets of homologous chromo- to the next in a sex-specific way
somes
B. Enzyme that cuts DNA at a sequence of
D. none of above nucleotides
238. whats homozygous? C. Error in meiosis in which the homolo-
gous chromosomes fail to separate prop-
A. the case in which the the heterozygote
erly
has a phenotype intermediate between
those of the two homozygotes D. none of above
B. describes the genotype of a trait for 243. A woman with type A blood, marries a
which the two alleles an individual carries man with type A blood(his mother had
are the same type O blood). Under normal circum-
C. in genetics a type of family tree that stances which genotype could not occur in
maps the occurrence of a trait in a family their children?
D. none of above A. AA

B. OO 247. Why is crossing over during Prophase I

C. AO important?
D. AB A. It purifies the dna to decrease the like-

lihood of genetic diseases being trans-
244. Pedigree ferred to offspring.
A. Entire set of genetic information that B. It insures the offspring are exactly like
an organism carries in its DNA the parents creating organisms that are
virtually identical to one another in a pop-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Chart that shows the presence or ab-
sence of a trait according to the relation- ulation.
ships within a family across several gen- C. The process creates additional chro-
erations mosomes so the offspring have more chro-
C. Error in meiosis in which the homolo- mosomes than the parents and are there-
gous chromosomes fail to separate prop- fore more likely to survive.
erly D. New combinations of alleles are pro-
D. none of above duced leading to genetic variation in off-
spring which in essence adds to variation
245. why was Gregor Mendel important for in the population of that species
modern genetics
248. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive genetic dis-
A. he was the first man to understand cer-
order that results from a defective gene on
tain patterns of inheritance
chromosome 7. For an individual to have
B. he was the first person to find out symptoms of this disease, which of the fol-
about Karyotypes lowing must be true? (3B2)
C. he was the first man to understand the A. He or she must get a defective gene
amino acid chain from either the mother or the father but
D. none of above not from both
B. He or she must get a defective gene
246. DNA Microarray
from both the mother and the father
A. Tool used by biologists that analyzes
C. He or she must get a normal gene from
an individual’s unique collection of DNA
the mother and a defective gene from the
father
whether two samples of genetic material
are from the same person D. He or she must get a defective gene
from the mother and a normal gene from
B. Chart that shows the presence or ab-
the father
sence of a trait according to the relation-
ships within a family across several gen- 249. Eggs and sperm are called a zygote when
erations they combine during fertilization. If human
C. Glass slide or silicon cup that car- sex cells each have 23 chromosomes, how
ries thousands of different kinds of single- many are there when they form a zygote?
stranded DNA fragments arranged in a A. 11.5
grid. A DNA microarray is used to detect
and measure the expression of thousands B. 23
of genes at one time C. 46

250. A set of genes for one trait One 255. The passing of physical characteristics
comes from mom and one comes from dad. from parent to offspring is
Always exist as “pairs”

A. genetics
A. genotype B. heredity
B. phenotype C. genes
C. gene D. traits
D. alles
256. an organism where both alleles for a par-
251. characteristic that is inherited; can be ei- ticular trait are the same
ther dominant or recessive A. purebred
A. genes B. hybrid
B. allele C. recessive
C. chromosome D. dominant
D. trait
257. is the study of the inheritance of
252. Which phrase best describes the ending traits and their variations.
outcome of crossing over? A. Heredity
A. Crossing over results in 2 identical B. Evolution
cells, resulting in diversity in living things.
C. Disruptive Selection
B. Crossing over results in 2 different
D. Genetics
cells, resulting in diversity in living things.
C. Crossing over results in 4 different 258. Which of the following is a circular DNA
gametes, resulting in diversity in living from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
things. A. plasmid
D. Crossing over results in 4 identical B. restriction enzyme
cells, resulting in diversity in living things
C. ligase
253. Which of the following is an example of D. protein expression
a heterozygous genotype?
259. Both versions of the trait are expressed
A. RR
in the phenotype of the offspring. Which
B. Rr pattern of inheritance best classifies the
C. rr observed trait?
D. none of above A. dominance
B. sex-linkage
254. Gregor Mendel was:
C. co-dominance
A. an English scientist who carried out re-
search with Charles Darwin D. incomplete dominance
B. a little known Central European monk 260. What are male gametes called and how
C. an early 20th century Dutch biologist many are produced?
who carried out genetics research A. sperm, 4
D. none of above B. sperm, 2

C. eggs, 1 266. Gregor Mendel was born in what country

D. polar body, 3 A. Austraila
B. Austria
261. In each case where Mendel crossed true-
breeding plants as parents, the offspring C. Africa
displayed only one of the traits seen in the D. Alaska
parents. This observation supports which
267. When animal cells divide, they follow a
principle of genetics?
specific sequence of events. Which event
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. segregation happens during mitosis of an animal cell?
B. independent assortment A. The cell divides its nucleus into two
new nuclei.
C. dominance and recessiveness
B. The cell grows larger in size to prepare
D. allele frequency
for duplication.
262. Name the pattern:a gene has more than C. The cell produces structures, such as
two possible alleles centrioles, to help with the division.
A. incomplete dominance D. The cell replicates its DNA, which re-
sults in the formation of chromosomes.
B. multiple alleles
268. When traits are controlled by two or
C. polygenic inheritance
more genes (such as skin color)
D. codominance A. Incomplete Dominance
263. What does the notation TT represent? B. Codominance
A. two dominant alleles C. Multiple Alleles
B. two recessive alleles D. Polygenic Traits
C. a hybrid 269. Homozygous means what

D. heterozygous recessive A. same
B. different
264. When two identical alleles for a trait are C. two different genes
in an organism, the organism is said to be
? D. Aa
A. Heterozygous 270. Another word for homozygous is

B. Homozygous A. purebred
B. hybrid
C. allele
C. heterozygous
D. resseive
D. dominant
265. The different forms of a gene are called
271. My favorite biology teacher is
A. traits A. Mrs. Galegor
B. pollinations B. Mrs. Galegor
C. alleles C. Mrs. Galegor
D. hybrids D. Mrs. Galegor

272. How many different allele combinations 276. The way a trait looks is called
would be found in the gametes produced A. heterotype
by a pea plant whose genotype was

RrYY? B. phenotype
A. 2 C. zelotype
B. 8 D. genotype
C. 4 277. What part of a person’s body breaks

D. 16 down due to Huntington’s Disease?
A. Nerve cells in the brain
273. Which genotype would result in an
B. Bone marrow
individual with medium-colored skin?
(Hint:Look at the number of dominant vs C. White blood cells
recessive alleles, not the letter). D. Arteries
A. AabbCC
278. Gregor Mendal first crossed P (parent)
B. AABBcc plants to produce F1 (first filial genera-
C. AaBbcc tion) plants. The F1 generation displayed
only the trait of one of the parents. What
D. Aabbcc
genetic Principle or Law was displayed in
274. Before Mendel how did people think you this case?
got your traits A. Principle of Dominance
A. equal from each parent B. Law of Segregation
B. more from the dad C. Principle of Independent Assortment
C. more from the mom D. Law of Probability
D. from a stork
279. This type of phenotype is less likely to be
275. A short-haired cat has a litter of kittens. prominent in offspring
Some of the kittens have long hair and A. Dominant genotype
some have short. Which of the following B. Recessive genotype
statements best explains why some kit-
tens look different from their mother? C. Dominant phenotype
A. The kittens with long hair received mu- D. Recessive phenotype
tated genetic material. 280. Flowers can be white, red, or pink. This
B. Some kittens may look different from is an example of what type of inheritance?
their mother because they received some A. complete dominance
traits from their father.
B. codominance
C. The kittens with long hair interacted
differently with their environment than C. incomplete dominance
the kittens with short hair. D. sex-linked traits
D. Some kittens may look different from 281. Phenotype refers to an organism’s
their mother because not all physical
traits are inherited through genetic mate- A. genetic code
rial. B. physical apperance

C. ratio 287. Which is NOT true of a hybrid?

D. Parents A. it has a pair of chromosomes
B. its genotype is homozygous
282. Having one dominant and one recessive
allele- C. its genotype is heterozygous
A. Heterozygous D. it has one recessive allele
B. Genotype 288. A Mm mouse is crossed with a mm mouse.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
What genotypes would you expect the off-
C. Phenotype
spring to have?
D. Homozygous A. all Mm
283. Which of the following combinations of B. all mm
sex chromosomes represent a female? C. some Mm some mm
A. XY D. some MM, some Mm and some mm
B. XXY 289. Both alleles are lower case and the dom-
C. XX inant trait is not expressed at all; Exam-
ple:ee
D. none of above
A. Dominant
284. Genes that are located on the same chro- B. Law of Independent Assortment
mosome and that are inherited together
are known as C. Recessive
D. Incomplete dominance
A. haploid
B. diploid 290. Which best describes Mendel’s law of
dominance? (3B1)
C. linked genes
A. When an organism has two different al-
D. gene map leles of the same gene, both genes will be
expressed equally in the organism.
285. A trait that is not expressed when a dom-
inant allele is present. B. When an organism has two different
alleles of the same gene, one of the genes
A. Recessive will be expressed and the other will be hid-
B. Co-dominant den
C. Incomplete Dominant C. When an organism has two of the
same alleles for a gene, that allele is al-
D. Dominant ways dominant
286. How many genes are crossed in a dihy- D. When an organism has two of the
brid cross? same alleles for a gene, the stronger of
the two genes will be expressed in the or-
A. 1 ganism
B. 2
291. When an organism has two alleles that
C. 3 are the SAME for a trait
D. 4 A. heterozygous

B. homozygous 297. A dihybrid cross between 2 heterozygous

C. hybrid parents will typically result in which phe-
notypic ratio?

D. recessive
A. 1:2:1
292. What is heredity? B. 9:3:3:1
A. How different genes and traits are C. 4:4:4:4
passed down from parents to children D. 3:1
B. How different genes and traits are
passed down from children to parents 298. Light, Temperature, Time and pH
C. How traits are identical to parents A. environmental factors

B. pedigree
D. How traits are different between sib-
lings C. mutagens
D. true breeding
293. Who was the father of genetics
A. Sagan 299. What happens between meiosis I and
meiosis II that reduces the number of chro-
B. Issac Newton mosomes?
C. Gregor Mendel A. Crossing-over occurs.
D. C.jenkins B. Replication occurs twice.
294. Geneticists use to represent , the C. Metaphase occurs.
different forms of a gene. D. Replication does not occur.
A. Numbers ; Alleles
300. Two brown haired parents (B) had a
B. Letters ; Factors blonde haired child (b). What do the par-
C. Letters ; Alleles ent’s genotypes have to be?
D. Numbers ; Factors A. BB
B. bb
295. Meiosis produces
C. Bb
A. eggs (ova)
D. ABCDEFG
B. sperm
301. A characteristic that an organism can
C. gametes pass on to its offspring through its genes
D. all of the above is
A. Trait
296. If two parents are heterozygous for type
A blood, what is the probability that their B. Gene
offspring would have type O blood? C. Allele
A. 100 % D. Dominant
B. 75%
302. Which will most likely cause a gene to
C. 50% mutate?
D. 25% A. water

B. radiation 308. In a heterozygous genotype, the al-

C. soil lele takes over in the phenotype.
D. none of above A. recessive

B. dominant
303. What kind of allele is Bb?
C. lower case letter
A. Heterozygous
D. both
B. Homozygous Dominant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Homozygous Recessive 309. When more than two alleles for a gene
occur (such as blood type in humans)
D. none of above
304. Organisms that have different alleles for B. Codominance
a particular trait are said to be
C. Multiple Alleles
A. Hybrid
D. Polygenic Traits
B. Homozygous
C. Heterzygous 310. What is the process by which organisms
with certain adaptations survive to pass
D. Dominant
on their traits to a greater number of off-
305. His work brought about the chromosome spring?
theory of heredity A. artificial selection
A. James Watson B. genetic drift
B. Walter Sutton C. natural selection
C. Gregor Mendel D. population genetics
D. none of above
311. What is the approximate probability that
306. In snapdragons, Tallness (T) is dominant a human offspring will be female?
to dwarfness (t). In a cross between two A. 10%
plants that are heterozygous for this trait,
the percent of offspring expected to ex- B. 25%
hibit dwarfness is C. 50%
A. 25% D. 75%
B. 100% 312. Diploid
C. 50% A. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
D. 0% tains only a single set of genes
307. The failure of chromosomes to separate B. Term used to refer to chromosomes in

during meiosis is called which one set comes from the male parent
and one set comes from the female parent
A. nondisjunction
C. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
B. X-chromosome inactivation. tains two sets of homologous chromo-
C. Turner’s syndrome. somes
D. Down syndrome. D. none of above

313. What is the probability of producing a tall C. Reginald Punnett

pea plant from a genetic cross between D. Johann Nester
two hybrid tall pea plants?

A. 1/4 319. Pp is an example of this type of genotype
B. 2/4
A. homozygous
C. 3/4
B. heterozygous
D. 4/4
C. pedigree
314. In the human Karyotype, what term is
used to describe the pair of chromosomes D. heredity
in each numbered group? 320. Which term correctly describes an individ-
A. homozygous chromosomes ual with a pair of the same alleles for a
B. autosomes trait?
C. homologous chromosomes A. homologous
D. autosomes B. heterozygous
C. homozygous
315. An organism whose genotype is Tt
D. heterologus
A. purebred
B. hybrid 321. An allele whose trait only shows up when
C. codominance no dominant allele is present.
D. polygenic A. hidden allele

B. dominant allele
316. A person has brown hair, brown eyes,
and is extremely tall. These characteris- C. recessive allele
tics are commonly referred to as what? D. present allele
A. Heredity
322. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis
B. Genetics
A. only two gametes may form instead of
C. Alleles four c. the chromatids do not separate.
D. Traits B. only two gametes may form instead of
317. Two or more genes that interact to pro- four
duce a single trait C. some gametes may have an extra copy
A. polygenic inheritance of some genes.
B. purebred D. it occurs during prophase.
C. hybrid 323. An example of a heterozygous genotype
D. dominant is
A. Tt
318. Name the Austrian monk who is consid-
ered the Father of Heredity. B. DD
A. Charles Darwin C. aa
B. Gregor Mendel D. TTRR

324. Which notation could be used to repre- C. less likely they are to assort indepen-
sent the recessive allele for green pea dently.
seeds? D. less likely they are to be separated by
A. G a crossover during meiosis.
B. G 330. Who was the Austrian Monk who studied
C. Y Heredity in the 1800’s
D. y A. Charles Darwin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Gregor Mendel
325. In an individual, particular combination of
genes is called C. Benjamin Franklin
A. serotype D. Reginald Punnent
B. genotype 331. If an individual possesses two recessive

alleles for the same trait, the individual is
C. phenotype
said to be
D. prototype
A. homozygous for the trait.
326. What happens to sister chromatids in B. heterozygous for the trait.
meiosis II? C. haploid for the trait
A. they duplicate D. mutated
B. they are divided
332. non
C. they remain together
A. not
D. they triple in size
B. same as
327. Which plant Gregor Mendel had cross C. always
breed for his experiment? D. idk
A. Onion plant
333. The study of whole genomes, including
B. Carrot plant genes and their functions, is called
C. Pea plant A. Bioinformatics
D. Lily plant B. Information science
328. an organism’s outward appearance C. Life science
A. genotype D. Genomics
B. phenotype 334. Neither allele is completely dominant

over the other in This special inheri-
C. alles
tance causes heterozygous individuals to
D. hybrid have a blended phenotype (red and white
alleles causing pink flowers for example).
329. The farther apart two genes are located
on a chromosome, the A. codominance
A. less likely they are to be inherited to- B. multiple allele traits
gether. C. incomplete dominance
B. more likely they are to be linked. D. none of above

335. Two sets of chromosomes, one set from 340. What is an organism called that has two
mom and one from dad. different genes for a trait? (examples:Mm
or Rr)

A. Heterozygous
B. Allele A. A purebred
C. Homologous B. A hybrid
D. Genetics C. An endangered species

D. A mutation
336. Heredity information for traits is located
in 341. homo
A. chromosomes on genes A. opposite
B. genes of chromosomes B. different
C. lysosomes in cytoplasm C. same
D. the mitichondria D. also
337. What happened to the green trait in 342. In the F1 generation of a monohybrid
Mendel’s pea plants? cross, the phenotypic ratio would be
A. It disappeared, further proving Dar- A. 3:1
win’s theory of evolution B. 1:2:1
B. The pea plants produced 50% less C. 2:1:1
green seeds
D. 1:1:2
C. It was hidden by the dominant yellow
gene 343. crosssing over
D. Nothing happened to the green gene A. does not occur in humans
338. Like mitosis, meiosis begins with one par- B. is an important factor in increasing va-
ent cell. How many final daughter cells are riety among sexually reproducing organ-
produced during the process of meiosis? isms
A. four daughter cells, each with half of C. refers to genes being located close to
the parent cell’s chromosomes each other on a single chromosome
B. four daughter cells, each identical to D. linked to obesity

the parent cell 344. Which of the following can be observed
C. two daughter cells, each with half of in a karyotype?
the parent cell’s chromosomes A. a change in a DNA base
D. two daughter cells, each identical to B. an extra chromosome
the parent cell
C. genes
339. the specific genes an organism has D. alleles
A. phenotype
345. Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair
B. homozygous (s).What is the genotype for an offspring
C. genotype with long hair?
D. heterozygous A. SS

B. Ss 351. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-

C. ss 1, which of the following is true about the
offspring resulting from the cross?
D. none of above
A. About three fourths are expected to be
346. In humans mid-digital hair is dominant. tall
What is the genotype of a man who has
mid-digital hair, but his mother did not? B. About half are expected to be short
A. Heterozygous C. All are expected to be short
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Homozygous Dominant
D. All are expected to be tall
C. Homozygous Recessive
D. Heterozygous Recessive 352. an observable characteristic
347. the likelihood that a particular event will A. trait
occur
B. gene
A. Punnett Square
B. trait C. allele
C. probability D. DNA
D. hybrid
353. Which of these is due entirely to inheri-
348. Mendel used the principles of to pre- tance in humans?
dict what percent of offspring would show
a particular trait. A. Eye color
A. purebred B. Endurance
B. hybrid
C. Reading skill
C. dominant
D. Broken bones
D. probability
349. What is the first step in DNA replication? 354. Unit of inheritance is called
A. base pairing with DNA polymerase A. Genotype
B. unzipping the helix with helicase
B. Phenotype
C. priming the DNA with primase
D. putting everything together with ligase C. Gene
350. How did Mendel produce the F2 genera- D. Chromosome

tion of pea plants?
355. Which term means two copies of chromo-
A. by self-pollinating two F1 generation
somes (2N)?
plants that had the same traits
B. by cross-pollinating true breeding A. diploid
plants B. haploid
C. by self-pollinating true breeding plants
C. chromosomes
D. by self-pollinating two F1 generation
plants that had different traits D. gene

356. If a pea plant has a recessive allele for 361. The physical appearance of a trait is
green peas, it will produce known as the-

A. both green peas and yellow peas if it A. genotype
also has a dominant allele for yellow peas B. phenotype
B. green peas if it does not also have a C. characteristics
dominant allele for yellow peas
D. intelligence
C. green peas if it also has a dominant al-
lele for yellow peas 362. The process of deliberately manipulating
the genes in an organism in ways other
D. yellow peas if it does not also have a than natural processes is called
dominant allele for green peas
A. genetic engineering
357. Error in meiosis in which the homologous B. genetic drift
chromosomes fail to separate properly
C. genetic swap
A. Nondisjunction
D. natural selection
B. Karyotype
363. Identify the heterozygous dominant
C. Restriction Enzyme genotype:
D. Gel Electrophoresis A. TT
358. When forming sex cells, the paired alleles B. Tt
separate so that each egg or sperm only C. tt
carries one form of the allele D. none of above
A. principle of independent assortment
364. Principle/Law of Dominance is defined as
B. principle of segregation
C. law of dominance A. Some alleles are dominant over oth-
D. law of recessiveness ers.
B. Allele pairs separate during gamete
359. Mendels principles of genetics apply to formation and randomly unite at fertiliza-
A. plants only tion.
B. animals only C. During gamete formation genes for dif-
ferent traits separate without influencing
C. pea plants only
each other’s inheritance
D. all organism
D. none of above
360. For any particular trait, the pair of alleles 365. How did Mendel refer to the two kinds
of each parent separate and only one allele of traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
from each parent passes to an offspring is coming from the father, one from the
Mendel’s principle of: mother)?
A. independent assortment A. Gametogenic
B. hybridization B. Elective traits
C. segregation C. Alleles
D. none of above D. Sequals

366. This type of allele is expressed whether 371. Which of the following describes the Law
there are one or two copies present. of Segregation?
A. dominant A. Alleles separate from each other dur-
B. recessive ing formation of gametes
C. homozygous B. Dominant alleles will always be shown
if present
D. heterozygous
C. Recessive alleles will only be seen
367. Which of the following is an example of when here are no dominant alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a homozygous recessive genotype? D. Recessive alleles are never inherited
A. RR
372. females 23rd chromosome pair is
B. Rr
A. XY
C. rr
B. XX
D. none of above
C. YX
368. An organism’s genotype is its D. none of above
A. genetic makeup
373. Who is Gregor Mendel?
B. physical appearance
A. A monk that experimented with plants
C. feather color to study the inheritance of traits
D. eye color B. A man that cared for plants
369. Which is an example of codominance? C. An animal breeder that studied the in-
A. A cow with white hairs and a cow with heritance of traits
black hairs mate and produce a cow with D. A scientists assistant that helped with
both white and black hairs. the discovery of Genetics
B. A person with blue eyes and a person 374. If long ears (E) are dominant over short
with brown eyes mate and have a child ears (e), what is the phenotype of an or-
with brown eyes. ganism that has genotype ee?
C. A sheep with white fur and a sheep A. long ears
with black fur mate and produce a sheep
with gray fur. B. one long ear; one short ear
D. A red-flowered plant and a white- C. medium length ears
flowered plant mate and produce a pink- D. short ears
flowered plant.
375. What is an “allele”?
370. If you cross one short-winged fly (ww) A. a specific characteristic that varies
with a wild-type fly (WW), what is the from one individual to another
probability of getting a short-winged off-
spring in the F1generation? B. the different form of a gene like “T” vs
“t”
A. 0%
C. chemical factors that determine phe-
B. 25% notypes
C. 50% D. the offspring of crosses between par-
D. 100% ents with different traits

376. The best genome representation for het- 381. Cells of organisms must replicate for
erozygous what purposes?

A. AA A. growth
B. Aa B. repair of damaged cells
C. aa C. reproduction
D. none of above D. All of the above
377. Asexual reproduction has certain advan- 382. How many alleles affect blood type?
tages. This sort of reproduction needs only A. 1
one parent and can occur by budding and
fragmentation. What is an advantage of B. 10
sexual reproduction over asexual repro- C. 5
duction? D. 3
A. exact copy of the genes
383. The Punnett square in Figure 11-2 shows
B. reproduce quickly that the gene for pea shape and the gene
C. greater genetic variation for pea color
D. finding a mate A. have the same alleles
378. Meiosis B. are always homozygous
A. Entire set of genetic information that C. assort independantly
an organism carries in its DNA D. are linked
B. Structure containing four chromatids
384. Calico cats are female because
that forms during meiosis
A. the males die during embryonic devel-
C. Process in which the number of chro-
opment.
mosomes per cell is cut in half through the
separation of homologous chromosomes B. the Y chromosome has a gene blocking
in a diploid cell orange coloration
D. none of above C. only females can have Barr bodies.
D. a male inherits only one of the two X-
379. What is a series of events a cell goes
linked genes controlling hair color.
through as they grow and divide?
A. Cell Division 385. Punnett Square
B. Cell Cycle A. Micrograph of the complete diploid
set of chromosomes grouped together in
C. Cytokinesis
pairs, arranged in order of decreasing
D. Mitosis size
380. How many alleles does an individual B. Chart that shows the presence or ab-
have for each trait? sence of a trait according to the relation-
A. 1 ships within a family across several gen-
erations
B. 2
C. Tool used by biologists that analyzes
C. 3 an individual’s unique collection of DNA
D. 4 restriction fragment; used to determine

whether two samples of genetic material 391. What do you mean by law of dominance?
are from the same person A. When offspring shows the characters
D. Diagram that can be used to pre- of generation.
dict the genotype and phenotype combina- B. When Offspring of cross breed parent
tions of a genetic cross only show dominant characters in F1 gen-
eration.
386. The different forms of genes are known
as C. When offspring of cross breed parent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
only show dominant characters in F2 gen-
A. environment eration.
B. probability D. In F2 generation both the character
C. traits which is governed by gene are separated.
D. alleles 392. If a pea plant were homozygous reces-
sive for height, how would its alleles be
387. Recessive alleles are- represented?
A. capital A. TT
B. lowercase B. Tt
C. both C. tt
D. neither D. tT
388. Condition in which one allele does not to- 393. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short
tally mask the other allele plant (tt). If the tall F1 pea plants are al-
lowed to self-pollinate,
A. the offspring will be of medium height
B. Phenotype
B. all of the offspring will be tall
C. Multiple Alleles
C. all of the offspring will be short
D. none of above D. the offspring can be tall or short
389. Which of the following is a possible result 394. What do the letters in each box of a Pun-
of a disruption in the cell cycle? nett square tell you?
A. cancer A. how to assemble a genetic map of the
B. photosynthesis chromosome on which the alleles are lo-
cated
C. cellular respiration
B. the full pedigree of a species
D. protein synthesis
C. that both parents show characteristics
390. An example of a genotype is of the dominant trait
A. Tt D. the possible combinations of alleles in

offspring based on the parents’ genetic
B. Tall makeup
C. Wrinkled
395. Gregor Mendel is commonly referred to
D. 50% as which of the following?

A. The Father of Life 401. Reproductive process in which fertiliza-

B. The Father of Genetics tion occurs within a single plant

C. The Father of Biology A. Self-Pollinating
D. none of above B. Monohybrid
396. Different forms of a gene are called C. Homozygous Recessive
A. alleles D. none of above
B. traits
402. What did Mendel discovery in his second
C. genotype
experiment?
D. phenotype
A. The recessive trait reappeared!
397. Cystic fibrosis can be caused be
B. The dominant trait reappeared!
A. Nondisjunction of an autosome
C. The ratio was a 1:4
B. A change of three base pairs in DNA
C. Nondisjunction of a sex chromosomes D. All the offspring were true-breeding
D. Deletion of an entire gene from a chro- 403. A normal human egg cell contains
mosomes
A. 22 autosomes and one X-chromosome
398. A strand of DNA with the sequence A-C-T-
T-G serves as a template to form a strand B. 22 autosomes and one Y-chromosome
of mRNA with the sequence U-G-A-A-C. C. 44 autosomes and XX-chromosomes
During which process would this happen?
A. replication D. 44 autosomes and XY-chromosomes
B. transcription 404. Who is the father of genetics?

C. translation
A. Thomas Morgan
D. meiosis
B. Pena Nieto
399. How many alleles (letters) does a child
get from each parent for each trait? C. Gregor Mendel
A. 1 D. Donald Trump
B. 2
405. What is a punnett square?
C. 3
A. a square used to predict the possible
D. 4
genotypes of offspring in a given cross
400. a unit of biological factor (DNA) that is B. a square used to predict the possible
inherited from one generation to the next birth rate of offspring.
A. trait
C. a square used to predict the possi-
B. gene ble behavioral characteristics an offspring
C. allele could have
D. hybrid D. None of the above

406. Genotype 411. What is it called when one allele is not

A. Term used to refer to chromosomes in completely dominant over another. As a
which one set comes from the male parent result, the heterozygous phenotype is in-
and one set comes from the female parent termediate between the two homozygous
phenotypes.
B. Genetic makeup of an organism
A. codominance
C. Process in sexual reproduction in
B. law of segregation
which male and female reproductive cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
join to form a new cell C. codominance
D. none of above D. incomplete dominance
407. the trait appears only in the absence of 412. Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
the other alleles A. not inherited by offspring.
A. dominant B. inherited through the passing of fac-
B. recessive tors from parents to offspring.
C. simple C. determined by dominant factors only.
D. phenotype D. determined by recessive factors only.
413. What are the physical traits of an organ-

408. What is the product of meiosis I?
ism, determined by the genotype?
A. Four haploid cells
A. Hair color
B. Two haploid cells
B. Long Legs
C. Two diploid cells
C. Phenotype
D. Four diploid cells
D. Genotype
409. Chromosomes that carry genes that code 414. Which of the following genotypes is het-
for the same products, such as hemoglobin erozygous?
or eye pigment, are said to be:
A. Bb
A. homologous
B. BB
B. heterozygous
C. bb
C. heterogeneous
D. B
D. homozygous
415. Which of the following is the main reason
410. One dog carries homozygous, long-haired Punnett Squares are useful?
traits (SS), and its mate carries homozy-
A. The can accurately predict all of an off-
gous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Pun-
spring’s trait
nett square to determine the probability
of one of their offspring having long hair. B. The can used to determine if a male or
female will be born
A. 100%
C. The can be used to calculate the prob-
B. 75%
ability of ab offspring’s combination of al-
C. 50% leles
D. 25% D. none of above

416. The long, threadlike structures that are C. Gel electrophoresis

located in the nucleus of each cell in the D. Pedigree
body are called

A. genomes. 422. In rabbits, there are four different ver-
sions of the gene for coat color. What pat-
B. spirals. tern of inheritance is this?
C. RNA. A. polygenic inheritance
D. chromosomes. B. codominance
417. How many alleles (letters) do each per- C. multiple alleles
son carry for a trait? D. incomplete dominance
A. 1
423. Physical characteristics of an organism.
B. 2
A. Genotype
C. 3 B. Phenotype
D. 4 C. Genes
418. Who is called the “Father of Genetics”? D. Homologous
A. Walter Sutton 424. Crossing over during Prophase 1 of Meio-
B. Albert Einstein sis is important because
C. Gregor Mendel A. It prevents mutations from entering
D. Charles Darwin the gametes.
B. It allows for even distribution of chro-
419. What is the genotype of a person who mosomes in the gametes.
has type B blood but their parent had type
C. It allows for more genetic diversity of
O blood?
gametes.
A. IBi
D. It allows for genetic uniformity of ga-
B. IBIB metes.
C. ibO
425. The Austrian Monk who discovered the
D. OB basic principles of heredity was
420. Select the correct genotype:Heterozygous A. Gregor Mendel
A. Jj B. Dr. James
B. HH C. Ms. Kytola
C. KK D. none of above
D. rr 426. The tectonic plates move due to the con-
vection cycles within the mantle of the
421. Which of the following genetic screening Earth. A pot of water on a hot stove also
techniques is BEST used to see how genes has convection cycles that heat up the wa-
are passed on from one generation to the ter. Which of the following best describes
next? what convection is?
A. Karyotype A. warmer, more dense fluid rises and
B. Punnett square cooler, less dense fluid sinks

B. warmer, more dense fluid sinks and D. a trait that can be inherited from your
cooler, less dense fluid rises parents
C. warmer, less dense fluid rises and
431. The random change in the ratio of alleles
cooler, more dense fluid sinks
in a population over time is known as
D. warmer, less dense fluid sinks and
cooler, more dense fluid rises A. genetic engineering
B. natural selection
427. The process in which characteristics are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
passed from parents to offspring is known C. codominance
as D. genetic drift
A. Traits
432. Strands of DNA that are twisted together
B. Heredity
are called -
C. DNA
A. nitrogen bases
D. none of above
B. genotypes
428. Succulents, like cacti and aloe, are plants
C. chromosomes
that can store water in their leaves or
stems. Succulents often have multiple D. recessive
methods of reproduction. Which of the fol-
lowing reproductive methods represents 433. What special type of inheritance involves
sexual reproduction? both alleles being dominant for a trait, and
both being shown equally?
A. A succulent leaf lying on the ground
grows roots and leaves to form a new A. incomplete dominance
plant.
B. codominance
B. A piece of stem grows into a new plant.
C. A bud forms on the side of a succulent
plant and produces a stem and roots of its D. none of above
own.
434. Heterozygous alleles are also considered
D. A bee carries pollen from one succu- to be:
lent plant to the flower of another, which
produces seeds. A. Hybrid
B. Purebred
429. If man has type a blood, he can be:
C. Phenotype
A. ii
B. IAIB D. Genotype
C. IAi 435. Two or more genes interact to produce a
D. IBi single trait.
430. What is a Phenotype? A. polygenic inheritance
A. A type of Genetic disorder B. incomplete dominance

B. A physical characteristic of a trait C. multiple alleles
C. the genetic make up of a trait D. simple dominance

436. Of 12 hamsters just born, 9 have brown 440. Multiple Alleles

fur and 3 have white fur. The trait for
A. Trait controlled by two or more genes
white fur is considered to be

B. Gene that has more than two alleles
A. recessive
C. Entire set of genetic information that
B. weak
an organism carries in its DNA
C. strong
D. none of above
D. dominant
441. A crosses one trait.
437. A allele is represented by lowercase
letters and will only show up if paired with A. dihybrid cross
a similar allele. B. trihybrid cross
A. dominant C. monohybrid cross
B. recessive D. none of above
C. traits
442. In 1866, Gregor Mendel published the re-
D. none of above
sults of experiments involving pea plants.
In one experiment, Mendel crossed plants
438. What did Mendel observe in the F2 off-
that produced smooth, yellow peas with
spring that showed him that the alleles
plants that produced green, wrinkled peas.
for seed shape segregate independently of
Every pea in the first generation crop from
those for seed color?
this cross was yellow and smooth. What
A. whether the offspring had round vs conclusion did Mendel draw from this ex-
wrinkled and yellow vs green seeds was periment?
completely separate
A. Some inherited traits are dominant
B. all the offspring had round seeds, only while other traits are recessive
color changed
B. Some traits are inherited, but a pea’s
C. the results were half round yellow and appearance is determined by its environ-
half wrinkled green ment
D. all of the offspring had yellow seeds, C. Pea plants do not inherit traits from ei-
only shape changed ther parent
439. The number of possible genetically differ- D. Pea plants inherit traits from only one
ent gametes for an organism equals 2N, parent.
where N is the number of pairs of chro-
mosomes. If an organism has four pairs 443. Gametes are eggs and sperm (sex cells).
of chromosomes, how many different ga- Human have 46 chromosomes, but how
metes can it produce? many are found in their gametes?
A. 8 A. 11.5
B. 4 B. 23
C. 32 C. 46
D. 16 D. 92

444. In Mendel’s experiments, what is the B. Depends in the interaction of two

approximate ratio of dominant to reces- genes like retrievers being black, brown
sive expression when both parents are hy- or yellow
brids? C. human eye color being controlled by
A. . 4:1 sixteen different genes
B. 2:1 D. red bull crossed with a white cow to
make a pink calf
C. 3:1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1:1 449. When 2 pea plants heterozygous for
height (Tt) are crossed, what is the ratio
445. Mendel discovered principles of inheri- of the resulting genotypes (TT:Tt:tt)?
tance because he:
A. 1:2:1
A. Observed simultaneously all of the
B. 2:1:1
many characteristics in which the parents
differed C. 0:3:1
B. Believed that the hereditary charac- D. 0:2:2
teristics of two individuals became thor-
450. What principle states that during gamete
oughly blended in the offspring.
formation genes for different traits sepa-
C. Ignored all characteristics except a rate without influencing each other’s inher-
few markedly contrasting ones in which itance?
he studied.
A. principle of dominance
D. Studied only the offspring obtained
B. a. principle of independent assort-
from a single mating.
ment
446. The offspring of purebred pea plants with C. principle of probabilities
round seeds will always have seeds.
D. principle of segregation
A. round
451. Thomas Hunt Morgan worked with which
B. wrinkled organisms to show that Mendel’s princi-
C. yellow ples applied to living things other than
D. some round and some wrinkled plants.
A. pea plants
447. Genome
B. zebras
A. genetic makeup of an organism
C. fruit flies
B. Entire set of genetic information that
D. bearded dragons
an organism carries in its DNA
C. Gene that has more than two alleles 452. Having freckles is dominant (F), and not
having freckles is recessive (f). A mother
D. Gene located on a sex chromosome
has Ff and a father has Ff. If they have a
448. Which of the following is an example of child, which genotype will make their child
multiple alleles? not have freckles?
A. the gene that controls fur color in rab- A. fF

bits has four different alleles B. Ff

C. FF C. Recessive Phenotype
D. ff D. monotypes

453. In pea plants, the allele for green pods 458. Which phase best describes the process
(G) is dominant and the allele for yellow of meiosis?
pods (g) is recessive. A researcher crosses A. occurs in body cells
two green pea plants, and the in F1 gen-
eration, all of the offspring exhibit green B. results in genetically identical cells
pods. Can you determine the genotypes of C. happens only in haploid cells
both parents
D. produces haploid gametes
A. No, they could be Gg and GG OR GG
and GG 459. A person who codes for a trait but it is
not expressed is called
B. Yes, they are Gg and GG
A. Epistasis
C. Yes, they are GG and GG
B. Heterozygous
D. No, they could be Gg and Gg OR GG and
Gg C. Carrier
D. Homozygous
454. What symbol is used for a dominant
trait? 460. What does genotype mean?
A. capital letter A. an organism has two identical alleles
B. lower case letter for a trait
C. underlined letter B. an organism has two different alleles
D. italicized letter for a trait
C. the physical characteristics of a trait
455. Meiosis produces in gametes.
D. the actual genetic makeup of a charac-
A. enzymes teristic
B. zygotes
461. Heredity describes how are passed
C. genetic variation down from parents to offspring.
D. forty-six chromosomes A. traits
456. If a allele is present, its trait will ap- B. food & water
pear in the organism. C. inheritance & money
A. dominant D. diseases
B. purebred
462. The combination of alleles (letters) that
C. probability is used to describe dominant and recessive
D. none of above alleles.
457. This phenotype is more likely to be promi- A. Phenotype

nent in offspring B. Genotype
A. Phenotype C. Alleles
B. Dominant genotype D. Punnet Square

463. What is the process that occurs in C. DNA

prophase I where two chromosomes ex- D. none of above
change genetic material?
A. sharing 468. What was the first generation of plants
called that resulted from crossing the two
B. crossing over parent plants?
C. splitting A. F1
D. none of the above B. F2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
464. Polygenic Trait C. P
A. A specific characteristic of an individ- D. none of above
ual
469. A sudden change in the molecular struc-
B. Likelihood that a particular event will ture of a gene, called a(n) , may occur
occur spontaneously or may be caused by an en-
C. Trait controlled by two or more genes vironmental event such as radiation.
D. none of above A. devastation
465. James is conducting an experiment to B. deviation

test the effect of insecticides on frogs. C. mutation
What is the control group in his experi- D. alteration
ment?
A. The frogs that were exposed to 15 ml 470. Heterozygous
of insecticide. A. genetic makeup of an organism
B. The frogs that did not survive the ex- B. Having two identical alleles for a par-
periment. ticular gene
C. The frogs that were not exposed to the C. Having two different alleles for a par-
insecticides. ticular gene
D. The frogs that were exposed to 30 ml D. Gene located on a sex chromosome
of insecticide.
471. whats a dihybrid cross
466. Sexual reproduction would be more ad- A. an individual that is heterozygous at
vantageous than asexual reproduction for two genetic zygous
organisms living in an environment that is
diverse and undergoes frequent changes B. a trait controlled by a gene on a sex
chromosome
A. Sometimes true
C. a mating in which the homozygous re-
B. false cessive individuals of unknown genotype
C. true that have the dominant phenotype
467. The scientific study of heredity is known 472. If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its
as haploid number is
A. Heredity A. 12
B. Genetics B. 6

C. 24 478. Ranchers historically have used genetics

D. 3 to produce new varieties of cattle. Buf-
falo can tolerate both hot and cold tem-

473. Name the pattern:both traits are present peratures but have meat that is not as
in hybrid offspring, but without blending tasty and tender as beef. Cattle that are
subjected to severe temperature extremes
A. incomplete dominance produce meat that is neither tender nor
B. multiple alleles good-tasting. What good qualities might
a “beefalo” (cross between cattle and buf-
falo) possess?
D. codominance
A. Animals with good-tasting meat but
474. Who is often referred to as the “Father not tolerance to heat
of Genetics?” B. Animals that tolerate heat and cold but
do not have good-tasting meat
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C. Animals that tolerate cold but do not
B. Charles Darwin
have good-tasting meat
C. Rosalind Franklin D. Animals that tolerate heat and cold
D. Gregor Mendel and have good-tasting meat
475. Heterozygous means what? 479. In guinea pigs, brown fur is dominant to
white fur. If conducting a testcross with
A. same a female brown guinea pig, which of the
B. different following male guinea pigs would you se-
lect for the experiment? (Hint:you need to
C. AA
remember what a testcross is) (3B2)
D. combination of both genes
A. Heterozygous white
476. What are the results when a black B. Homozygous white
rooster is paired with a white hen. If the C. Heterozygous brown
feather color is an example of codominance
D. Homozygous brown
what would the offspring’s feathers look
like? 480. The pollen of flower with red (RR) flow-
A. Black with white speckles ers is transferred to a plant with white (rr)
flowers. The flower produced from this
B. Black and white feathers match is pink. What kind of dominance
C. only black feathers does this represent?
D. only white feathers A. Recessive dominance
B. Incomplet dominance
477. The principle of states that alleles
segregate during gamete formation. C. Codominance
A. multiple alleles D. Assertive dominance
B. Independent assortment 481. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall

plants (TT) with true-breeding short plants
C. Segregation (tt), all of the offspring were tall because
D. none of above

A. The allele for tall plants is recessive. 487. Shows possible outcomes of a genetic
B. The allele for short plants is dominant. cross gives you an idea of the possi-
ble genotypes and phenotypes of offspring
C. The allele for tall plants is dominant
D. none of above A. alles
482. During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA B. genotype
replicated?
C. phenotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. G1 phase
D. punnett square
B. S phase
C. G2 phase 488. B=brown eyesb= blue eyesWhat is true
about these two brothers that have brown
D. M phase
eyes:One has genotype BB the other Bb.
483. Which of the following is homozygous A. they have same phenotype and geno-
dominant? type
A. Jj B. they have different genotypes and phe-
B. Rr notypes
C. MM C. they have same phenotype but differ-
D. ee ent genotypes
D. they have same genotype but different
484. Sequence of DNA that codes for a protein.
phenotypes
A. Heterozygous
B. Allele 489. What does meiosis produce?
C. Gene A. Gametes (sex cells)
D. Genetics B. Somatic (body cells)
485. What is an inherited trait? C. Bacteria
A. a trait that you recieve from your par- D. Fungus

ent
490. A normal human diploid zygote contains
B. Ice Cream Cone
A. chromosomes
C. Gatorade
B. 46 chromosomes
D. the change of an animal
C. 44 chromosomes
486. What is the probability that a homozy-
gous DOMINANT parent and a homozy- D. XXY chromosomes
gous recessive parent will have heterozy-
gous offspring? 491. What kind of allele is GG?
A. 0% A. Homozygous dominant
B. 25% B. Homozygous recessive
C. 50% C. Heterozygous

492. In beetles, red body color is incompletely C. Yellow was the recessive phenotype
dominant to yellow. What is the pheno- D. Green was controlled by a dominant
type of a beetle that is Rr?

trait so the phenotype was green
A. orange
497. If one parent contribues an IA alleale, and
B. black
the other parent contributes an IB allele,
C. red their child will have what type of blood?
D. yellow A. A
493. How many PAIRS of chromosomes do hu- B. AB
mans have? C. O
A. 23 D. B
B. 46
498. Define Chromosome
C. 1
A. Condensed DNA that is visible during
D. 2 cell division.
494. Segregation B. Different versions of the same gene.
A. Situation in which one allele is not com- C. all the chromosomes/DNA that code
pletely dominant over another allele for an individual’s traits.
B. Procedure used to separate and ana- D. 1. A section of DNA that codes for spe-
lyze DNA fragments by replacing a mix- cific proteins/traits.
ture of DNA fragments at one end of a
porous gel and applying an electrical volt- 499. The fraction of the human genome that
age to the gel actually codes for proteins is about
C. Separation of alleles during gamete A. 2%
formation B. 20%
D. none of above C. 98%
495. W=white hairw= non-white hairIf you D. 100%
cross a horse with WW and a horse with
ww what fraction of the offspring would 500. body cells are called
be expected to have white hair? A. gametes
A. none B. skins cells only
B. 3/4 C. somatic cells
C. 1/2 D. sperm cell
D. all
501. Their job is to determine traits
496. When Gregor Mendel bred the pea plants,
A. alleles
he found that the yellow pea phenotype
hid the green colored phenotype. Why? B. genes
A. Yellow was the dominant phenotype C. phenotype
B. Green was the weaker phenotype D. genotype

502. What kind of allele is tt? C. AA and BB

A. Homozygous Dominant D. Bo and oo
B. Homozygous Recessive
508. A diagram showing the relative locations
C. Heterozygous of genes on a chromosome is known as
D. none of above A. haploid
503. Roan cattle show codominance for the B. diploid
color of their hair. There are alleles for red
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. linked genes
hair and white hair. What would you ex-
pect a heterozygous roan bull to look like D. gene map
if the trait showed incomplete dominance
instead? 509. Mendel’s studied Peas and how many
traits
A. It would be red
B. It would be white A. 2
C. It would be spotted B. 3
D. It would be pink C. 5
D. 7
504. Which of the following is heterozygous
A. Ww 510. In the P generation, a tall plant was
B. ii crossed with a short plant. Short plants
reappeared in the F2 generation because
C. DD
A. the alleles for both heights segregated
D. kk
when the F1 plants made gametes
505. function of dominant gene is B. the alleles for tallness begin to disap-
A. produce functional protein pear in the F2 generation
B. produce non functional protein C. the allele for shortness becomes dom-
C. produce less functional protein inant in the F2 generation
D. produce no protein D. the allele for shortness becomes more
common in the F2 generation
506. What are the possible blood types of a
man whose child has type A and whose 511. For any given trait there may be more
wife has type B blood? than two choices for alleles, the trait may
A. A or B be inherited on more than one gene or chro-
mosome, and there are many types of in-
B. B or AB heritance patterns it may follow, however,
C. A or AB for each trait you may only inherit how
D. B or O many alleles?
A. 1
507. Which of the following genotypes result
in the same phenotype? B. 2
A. AA and Ao C. 23
B. BB and AB D. 46

512. Explain why two genes found on the C. One of the pea plants is heterozygous
same chromosome are not always linked dominant, while the other pea plant is het-
forever. erozygous dominant. This cross of pea

plants would produce 3 offspring that are
A. Small portions of DNA may be ex-
tall, but one of the pea plants is short.
changed through “crossing over”
D. none of the answers are correct.
B. Linked genes can become unlinked dur-
ing meiosis 516. which of the following best describes the
C. Small portions of DNA are lose when genetic material a person receives from his
polar bodies are formed or her father?
A. 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes
D. Some genes can be separated indepen-
and an X and Y chromosome
dently during meiosis
B. 22 haploid cells and an X or Y chromo-
513. A kidney cell is an example of which kind some
of cell C. 23 diploid cells and an X and Y chromo-
A. somatic cell some
B. sex cell D. 22 autosomes and an X or Y chromo-

some
C. germ cell
517. In some carnations, flower color exhibits
D. haploid cell codominance. Identify the correct geno-
types for red, white, and speckled carna-
514. The pod color of pea plants is controlled
tions.
by only one gene that has only two possi-
ble alleles. A. Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr
A. polygenic inheritance B. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled =
rw
C. Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled =
C. multiple alleles Rw
D. simple dominance D. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled =
RW
515. How can a tall pea plant crossed with an-
other tall pea plant produce four offspring, 518. Gel Electrophoresis
within which 3 of the offspring are are tall, A. Process in which epigenetic chemical
but one of the pea plants is short? marks can be passed from one generation
to the next in a sex-specific way
A. One of the pea plants is homozygous
recessive, while the other pea plant is ho- B. Process of manipulating organisms,
mozygous recessive. This cross of pea cells, or molecules to produce specific
plants would produce 3 offspring that are products
tall, but one of the pea plants is short. C. Procedure used to separate and ana-
B. One of the pea plants is heterozygous lyze DNA fragments by replacing a mix-
dominant, while the other pea plant is ho- ture of DNA fragments at one end of a
mozygous dominant. This cross of pea porous gel and applying an electrical volt-
plants would produce 3 offspring that are age to the gel
tall, but one of the pea plants is short. D. none of above

519. A mom with type A blood and a dad with 524. Any change in the sequence of DNA is
type B blood have a child with type AB A. transgenic shift
blood is an example of
B. Single Genotype
A. codominance
C. Monohybrid Trait
C. natural selection D. Mutation
D. adaption 525. outward appearance of an organism, re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gardless of its genes.
520. Gregor Mendel developed some basic
principles of heredity by A. phenotype
A. breeding fruit flies B. genotype
B. cutting off the tails of mice C. haploid
C. crossing pea plants D. deploid
D. growing bacteria in a laboratory
526. Inbreeding
521. If a genotype is not known it is crossed A. Process of manipulating organisms,
with recessive parent to reveal what is cells, or molecules to produce specific
hidden then the cross is known as: products
A. Backcross B. Continued breeding of individuals with
B. Monohydrid cross similar characteristics to maintain the de-
C. Test cross rived characteristics of a kind of organism
D. Dihybrid cross C. Method of breeding that allows only
those organisms with desired character-
522. In rats, black coat color is dominant over istics to produce the next generation
white coat color. If some of the offspring
D. none of above
of a cross between a black rat and a white
rat are white, the black rat must have 527. A mutations involving a change in a single
been DNA base pair
A. a polyploid A. Will definitely result in a genetic dis-
B. homozygous ease.
C. heterozygous B. Will have no effect on the organisms
D. a mutation phenotype
C. Will produce a positive change
523. How are meiosis and mitosis different?
A. Meiosis produces haploid cells and mi- D. May have an effect on the organisms
tosis produces diploid cells. phenotype
B. Mitosis produces haploid cells and 528. How is a recessive allele symbolized?
meiosis produces diploid cells.
A. They aren’t represented
C. Tetrads are formed only during the
B. Uppercase letter
process of mitosis.
D. Chromatids are formed only during the C. A circle
process of meiosis. D. Lowercase letter

529. Proteins are formed in the cytoplasm of C. brown and white

cell using genetic instructions from DNA,
D. entirely tan
which is located in the cells nucleus. Which

of the following best explains how the ge- 533. What is the name for different forms of
netic information gets to the site of protein a gene?
synthesis?
A. Chromosomes.
A. DNA is divided during mitosis, and one
strand travels outside the nucleus to bind B. DNA.
with RNA and form a protein C. Homozygous.
B. DNA is copied to make mRNA. The
D. Alleles.
mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the
ribosomes, where the information is used 534. The number of chromosomes in a gamete
to guide protein synthesis. is represented by the symbol
C. Genetic information travels from DNA A. Z
in the nucleus along a strand of mRNA
that is connected to ribosomes in the cy- B. N
toplasm where proteins are made. C. X
D. The genetic code is transferred to ribo- D. Y
somes on tRNA molecules, which can pass
through the nuclear membrane. 535. Gene located on a sex chromosome
530. In Mendel’s famous test cross between A. Genomics
two purebred pea plants, one tall and one
B. Sex-Linked Gene
short, all offspring were
A. short C. Autosome
B. recessive purebred D. Karyotype

C. tall 536. If an organisms has 2 identical alleles (TT
D. medium or tt) for a trait it is called
531. The Law of Segregation states that alle- A. heterozygous

les separate during the process of B. different
A. Mitosis C. twins
B. Meiosis D. homozygous
C. Fertilization
537. What did Mendel call the two kinds of
D. Replication
traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
532. A mouse is heterozygous for alleles that coming from the father, one from the
produce brown fur and homozygous for al- mother)?
leles of an epistatic gene that causes al- A. Genesis
binism. What color fur will the mouse
have? B. Elective traits
A. all white C. Alleles
B. mostly brown D. Quadrants

538. The likelihood that a particular event will show that the allele for black fur is domi-
occur is called nant and the allele for gray-blue fur is re-
A. fertilization cessive.The gene for fur color can be repre-
sented by the letter G or g. The genotype
B. segregation for gray-blue glacier bears is
C. probability
A. GG
D. dominance
B. Gg
NARAYAN CHANGDER
539. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study C. gg
A. flowering
D. none of above
B. gamete formation
C. the inheritance of traits 544. when Mendel Allowed the tall F1 pea
plants (Tt) to self pollinate
D. cross-pollination
A. the offspring were of medium height
540. Consists of the traits coded for by the al-
leles in a genotype B. all of the offspring were tall
A. genetics C. all the offspring were short

B. phenotype D. some of the offspring were short
C. incomplete dominance
545. Which of the following genotypes is ho-
D. recessive mozygous dominant?
541. Human DNA is packaged in the cell into A. A
B. Aa
A. 6 pairs of chromosomes
C. AA
B. 18 pairs of chromosomes
D. aa
C. 23 pairs of chromosomes
D. 12 pairs chromosomes 546. The chemical factors that determine traits
are called
542. A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47,
XXY) is expected to have any of the fol- A. genes.
lowing EXCEPT B. characters.
A. lower sperm count. C. traits.
B. increased testosterone.
D. alleles.
C. possible breast enlargement.
D. female body characteristics. 547. What would population of foxes with
large ears do in the desert?
543. Glacier bears are an Alaskan subspecies
A. increase
of the American black bear. Glacier bears
have a rare dark grayish-blue fur. Some B. decrease
glacier bears live in the same areas as
C. remain the same
black bears. A glacier bear and a black
bear can mate and produce cubs. Studies D. change randomly

548. Gene 552. A gene has more than two possible alle-
A. Sequence of DNA that codes for a pro- les.

tein and thus determines a trait; factor A. polygenic inheritance
that is passed from the parent to offspring B. incomplete dominance
B. A specific characteristic of an individ- C. multiple alleles
ual
D. simple dominance
C. Physical characteristics of an organ-
ism 553. Which of the following does a creationist
not believe about natural selection?
D. Trait controlled by two or more genes
A. Natural selection affects the existing
549. What is the correct abbreviation for de- traits that God designed in DNA
oxyribonucleic acid?
B. Natural selection allows the ratios of
A. DOA certain traits to increase or decrease
B. DNA C. Natural selection can eliminate alleles
C. DM, Inc for specific traits
D. RNA D. Natural selection is the means by
which all creatures descended from an
550. Mendel proposed that traits observed in original common ancestor
pea plants resulted from a combination of
“factors” inherited from each parent. His 554. A cross between F1 hybrids with either
description of these “factors” can be con- of the parent is called
sidered the first scientific definition of the A. Back-cross
role of - B. Test-cross
A. meiosis C. Reverse-cross
B. genes D. None of these
C. ribosomes
555. In humans, a male has
D. cell nuclei
A. one X chromosome only.
551. Why is the Principle of Probability essen- B. two X chromosomes.
tial for predicting the genetic make up of
C. one X chromosome and one Y chromo-
offspring?
some.
A. Parents can now know the probability
D. two Y chromosomes.
of their offspring having certain traits that
can be harmful to their health 556. Recombinant DNA
B. It allows for parents to genetically en- A. DNA produced by combining DNA from
gineer the offspring they want different sources
C. Doctors can now give you the traits B. Alleles that produce detectable pheno-
that you want based on the probability of typic differences useful in genetic analy-
your genetic make up sis
D. The principle of probability is not es- C. Member of a population of genetically
sential to for predicting the genetic make identical cells produced from a single cell
up of offspring

D. none of above D. one of several possible forms of a

gene
557. what do we use to calculate Mendels
Probablilties 562. What would NOT represent an inherited
trait for a plant?
A. a Hypothesis
A. How tall it grows
B. monohybrid cross
B. The type of fruit it produces
C. a testcross
C. If it receives enough rain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. punett square
D. The color of its flowers
558. Genomic Imprinting
563. When an organism has two alleles that
A. Process in which epigenetic chemical are DIFFERENT for a trait
marks can be passed from one generation
to the next in a sex-specific way A. heterozygous
B. Hybrid
B. Method of breeding that allows only
those organisms with desired character- C. Pheotype
istics to produce the next generation D. DNA
C. Procedure used to separate and ana- 564. A segment of DNA that codes for a trait
lyze DNA fragments by replacing a mix-
ture of DNA fragments at one end of a A. gene
porous gel and applying an electrical volt- B. allele
age to the gel C. chromosome
D. none of above D. chromatid
559. The pattern of inheritance in which there 565. One way that meiosis I is different from
are three or more possible alleles for a mitosis is that
trait is A. replication occurs during interphase
A. Incomplete dominance before mitosis, but not before meiosis I
B. Codominance B. meiosis I produces 2 haploid daugh-
C. Polygenic Inheritance ter cells, but mitosis produces 2 diploid
daughter cells
D. Multiple Alleles
C. homologous chromosomes are segre-
560. the passing of genetic traits from parent gated during mitosis, but remain together
to offspring. during meiosis I
A. heredity D. sister chromatids are pulled apart dur-
B. trait ing meiosis I, but not during mitosis
C. gene 566. Human hair color, which is controlled by

more than one gene is an example of
D. allele
what?
561. An allele is A. simple dominance
A. another word for a gene B. codominance
B. a heterozygous genotype C. polygenic inheritance
C. a homozygous genotype D. incomplete dominance

567. Mark is a tall, 11 year old boy. He has 572. Gamete

a scar on his right cheek. He is intelligent A. Structure containing four chromatids
and an excellent drummer. Which of his

traits did he most likely inherit?
B. Sex cells
A. height
C. Gene that has more than two alleles
B. the scar
D. one of different forms of gene
C. his intelligence
573. Karyotype
D. ability to play drums
A. Small, circular piece of DNA located in
568. Cutting DNA into small pieces that can be the cytoplasm of many bacteria
sequences is accomplished by B. Process in which epigenetic chemical
A. Restriction enzymes marks can be passed from one generation
to the next in a sex-specific way
B. DNA polymerase
C. Scientific study of crime scene evi-
C. Gel electrophoresis dence
D. RNA polymerase D. Micrograph of the complete diploid
569. Gametes are produced by this process pairs, arranged in order of decreasing
A. mitosis size
B. mitochondria 574. Which correctly orders the stages of cell
C. cellular respiration division?
D. meiosis A. interphase, telophase, prophase,

anaphase, metaphase, cytokinesis
570. Name the chromosome found in the cells B. interphase, prophase, telophase,
which are responsible for characters other anaphase, metaphase, cytokinesis
than sex chromosomes?
C. interphase, prophase, anaphase
A. Autosomes metaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
B. Genome D. interphase, prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
C. Mitochondrial chromosome
D. Y chromosome 575. Offspring generation of P1 (parental gen-
eration) is classified as
571. R=round seedr=wrinkled seed.Cross A. F2 generation
a homozygous round with a wrinkled.
Which statement predicts the results? B. G1 generation
C. F1 generation
A. offspring will be Rr
D. P2 generation
B. offspring will be RR
C. round seeds will be recessive to wrin- 576. Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to
kled as
D. Wrinkled will be observed in half of off- A. sex chromosomes

spring B. sister chromatids

C. a karyotype C. RNA
D. autosomes D. allele
577. What forms the chemical code within a 582. These types of alleles are only expressed
molecule of DNA? if the organism has two copies
A. The arrangement of the sugars and A. dominant
bases
B. recessive
B. The arrangement of the nitrogenous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bases C. homozygous
C. The arrangement of the chromosomes D. heterozygous
D. The arrangement of the phosphates
583. Some flowers are controlled by codom-
and sugars
inance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
578. Offspring that result from crosses be- (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross a
tween parents with different traits red flower with a speckled flower. What
is the phenotypic ratio?
A. are true-breeding
B. make up the F2 generation A. 2 red, 2 speckled
C. make up the parental generation B. 2 red, 2 blue

D. are called hybrids C. 2 blue, 2 speckled
D. none of above
579. According to the principle of dominance,
when dominant allele and recessive allele 584. B = brown eyesb = blue eyesOne brother
are present has genotype BB and the other brother
A. the dominant will always win has genotype Bb.Which statement is true
B. the recessive will always win about these two brothers?
C. no allele will win A. They have same phenotype and geno-
type
D. both will win
B. They have different phenotypes and
580. When Mendel crossed a true-breeding genotypes
plant with purple flowers and a true-
breeding plant with white flowers, All off- C. They have same phenotype, but differ-
spring had purple flowers. This is because ent genotypes
white flowers are * D. They have different phenotypes, but
A. dominant the same genotype
B. heterozygous 585. In Mendel’s model of segregation, what
C. polygenic was the ratio of tall plants to short plants
D. recessive in the F2 generation?
A. 4:1
581. piece of DNA that tells about a specific
trait B. 3:1
A. chromosome C. 2:1
B. gene D. 1:1

586. Tool used to predict the probability of 591. Which of the following is a genetic cross
certain traits in offspring that shows the between two purebred pea plants?
ways the alleles can combine A. Tt x Tt

A. recessive B. Tt x tt
B. Punnett Square C. TT x tt
C. genotype D. None of the answers are correct
D. DNA 592. Which BEST describes the phrase incom-

plete dominance?
587. A characteristic passed from parents to A. Genes on the X and Y chromosomes
their offspring is called a trait.
B. One gene winning over another gene
A. acquired C. Genes whose phenotypes are a mix
B. inherited D. Two copies of each gene
C. dominant 593. The best genome representation for a ho-
D. recessive mozygous dominant
A. AA
588. Why did Thomas Hunt Morgan use fruit
B. Aa
flies in his studies?
C. aa
A. Fruit flies produce a large number of
offspring. D. none of above
B. Fruit flies take a long time to produce 594. Known as the “Father of Genetics”. He
offspring. discovered the principles of heredity.
C. Fruit flies share certain characteristics A. Einstein

with pea plants. B. Chase
D. Fruit flies have a long lifespan. C. Mendel
D. Franklin
589. Which of the following is determined by
multiple alleles? 595. Punnett Squares reflect the of off-
spring genotypes resulting from a cross be-
A. PKU tween parents.
B. Huntington’s disease A. probability
C. Rh blood group B. certainty
D. ABO blood group C. genetics
D. DNA
590. A is a segment of DNA that has the
code for a specific trait. 596. What is the diploid number in human
cells?
A. DNA
A. 2
B. Gene B. 23
C. trait C. 46
D. chromosome D. 92

597. If one parent contributes a type A allele, 601. During what process does independent
and the other parent contributes a type B assortment and segregation of alleles oc-
allele, their child will have what type of cur?
blood?
A. Mitosis
A. A
B. Meiosis
B. AB
C. Fertilization
C. O
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. B
602. Who is considered the “Father of Genet-
598. When 2 heterozygous parents (Qq) are ics”?
crossed, what are the alleles of the off-
A. Hans Krebs
spring?
B. Frederick Heredity
A. 25% QQ, 50% Qq, 25% qq
C. Gregor Mendel
B. 100% QQ
D. Charles Darwin
C. 50% Qq
D. none of above 603. in a breeding experiment what are the
first 2 individuals called?
599. Which term refers to an organism’s phys-
ical appearance A. P generation
A. recessive allele B. F1 generation
B. dominant C. F2 generation
C. genotype D. none of above
D. phenotype 604. Which statement is true of Y chromo-

somes?
600. Barry is the oldest of five children in his
family. He wants to demonstrate the Law A. Only men have them.
of Superposition to his siblings and par- B. Only women have them.
ents. Which of the following ways might
Barry use to show his family what the Law C. Women have two of them.
of Superposition is? D. All babies have them.
A. Draw a human pyramid with Barry on
605. A male and female bison that are both
the bottom and the youngest on top.
heterozygous for normal skin pigmenta-
B. Draw a human pyramid with the chil- tion (Aa) produce an albino offspring (aa).
dren at the bottom and the parents at the Which of Mendels principles exlain(s) why
top. the offspring is albine?
C. Draw a human pyramid with one par- A. dominance only
ent at the bottom and one at the top with
B. dominance and segregation
the children in the middle.
C. independent assortment only
D. Draw a human pyramid with the
youngest on the bottom and Barry on top. D. segregation only

606. Which of the following is not an envi- D. that many characters such as pod color
ronmental factor that affects gene expres- and seed shape were controlled by a
sion? dozen or more interacting genes

A. temperature
611. Which human trait is controlled by poly-
B. ph/ acidity of soil genic inheritance?
C. sound waves
A. earlobe position
D. time of year
B. blood type
607. Which is an example of incomplete domi-
nance? C. thumb shape
A. Two white cats having black kittens. D. eye color
B. A white cat and a black cat having grey
kittens. 612. Blue (B) is dominant over tan (b). If Bb
were crossed with BB, what percent of the
C. A white cat and a black cat having progeny will be tan?
white kittens.
A. 0%
D. A grey cat and a black cat having black
kittens. B. 50%
608. The letters that represent the different C. 75%
types of alleles
D. 100%
A. phenotype
B. genotype 613. When two or more characteristics are in-
herited, and the genes are located on sepa-
C. plygenic
rate chromosomes, then they are inherited
D. alleles independently of each other
609. What is NOT a possible genotype for A. unit inheritance
someone with type B blood?
B. segregation
A. BB
C. independent assortment
B. AB
C. BO D. dominance
D. none of above
614. Which is true of an offspring with incom-
610. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study plete dominance?
heredity for all of the following reasons A. every offspring shows the dominant
EXCEPT phenotype
A. that it was relatively easy to cross dif-
ferent pea plants in order to observe the B. offspring phenotype is a combination
resulting offspring of the parents’ phenotypes
B. that their characters, like pod color C. multiple genes determine its pheno-
and height, were east to observe type
C. that the characters Mendel studied D. both alleles can be observed in its phe-
had at least two identifiable traits notype

615. Most sex-linked genes are located on C. Two chromosomes that are identical
A. the autosomes. D. Two sets of sister chromatids
B. the X chromosome only.
621. Ella and Olivia are sisters. Both sisters
C. the Y chromosome only.
are taller than average, but each sister
D. both the X chromosome and the Y chro- has specific traits the other sister does
mosome. not. Ella is a competitive swimmer who
trains outside in the summer. Her hair is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
616. the allele that is hidden by another form bleached blond by the sun and by chlorine
A. recessive in the pool water. Her many hours of prac-
B. dominant tice have made her fit and muscular.Olivia
loves to help people and wants to become
C. genotype a nurse someday. She volunteers every
D. phenotype week at the nursing home where her great-
grandmother lives. She walks the resi-
617. what is the definition of Heterozygous? dents to and from their daily activities,
A. when an individual has two sets of the and in the evening during dinner, she play
same allele the piano beautifully for them.Which of
the following traits is inherited?
B. when it is neither dominant or reces-
sive A. height
C. A pair of genes where one is dominant B. piano skills
and one is recessive.
C. sun-bleached hair
D. none of above
D. strong muscles
618. What organism did Thomas Hunt Morgan
use for his genetic studies? 622. Albinism is a recessive disease. In a
A. Four o’clock flowers cross between two parents with normal
coloration (Aa X Aa), what percent chance
B. Speckled chickens of the offspring being an albino?
C. Himalayan rabbits
A. 0%
D. Fruit fly (aka Drosphila)
B. 25%
619. Which pair of alleles shown below are C. 50%
both DOMINANT ALLELES?
D. 100%
A. aa
B. AA 623. If a father is AA and a mother is AB,
C. Aa what is the probability for a child with AB
blood?
D. none of above
A. 0%
620. What is a gamete?
B. 25%
A. A sperm or egg cell produced by meio-
sis C. 50%
B. A diploid cell that split during meiosis D. 75%

624. what is Mendel’s law of segregation? A. Recessive

A. principle that during the formation of B. Co-dominant

gametes two alleles for the genes sepa- C. Incomplete Dominant
rate so that half the the gametes carry on
allele D. Dominant
B. the principle that allele pairs for differ- 629. Tetrad
ent genes separate independently in meio-
A. Process in which the number of chro-
sis, so the inheritance of one trait gener-
mosomes per cell is cut in half through the
ally does not influence the inheritance of
separation of homologous chromosomes
another trait
in a diploid cell
C. the principle that a trait is determined
B. Structure containing four chromatids
by instructions on one gene only.
D. none of above
C. Process in which homologous chromo-
625. What is the chromosome theory of inher- somes exchange portions of their chro-
itance? matids during meiosis
A. chromosomes are carried from parent D. none of above

to offspring on hybrids 630. the description of an observed phe-
B. genes are carried from parents to off- nomenon. It doesn’t explain why the phe-
spring on chromosomes nomenon exists or what causes it
C. hybrid pairs of chromosomes combine A. law
to form offspring B. theory
D. codominant genes combine to form C. hypothesis
new allele based heterozygous offspring
D. evidence
626. What do you call the physical expression
of a gene? 631. The alleles for round (R) and yellow (Y)
are over the alleles for wrinkled (r)
A. genotype and green (y).
B. dominant A. dominant
C. phenotype B. recessive
D. allele C. codominant
627. The study of how traits are passed from D. polygenic
one generation to the next is called the sci-
ence of 632. A kitten has spots and stripes. The
mother has stripes and the father has
A. genotypes spots. Which law of inheritance does this
B. incomplete dominance show?
C. heredity A. incomplete dominance
D. phenotypes B. codominance
628. A trait that is expressed over other C. multiple alleles

traits. D. polygenic inheritance

633. What is the Human Genome Project? B. phenotype

A. an effort concluding in the 1990s to C. alleles
generate interest in Human DNA D. none of above
B. an ongoing effort to analyze the human
638. Pink snapdragons are an example of
DNA sequence
A. codominance
C. a study conducted alongside the U.S.
Census in 2010 to search for the origin of B. complete dominance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the Human Species C. multiple alleles
D. an effort by Pandora to sort out what D. incomplete dominance
types of music a person prefers listening
to 639. Which of the following is a heterozygous
dominant genotype?
634. What is the cure for Tay Sachs? A. GG
A. no cure yet B. gg
B. nervous system therapy C. GGG
C. surgery to the cerebral cortex to D. Gg
rewire the nerves of the brain to stop Tay
Sachs from occurring and causing further 640. For a second generation, Mendel allowed
damage the F1 (first filial) to self-pollinate to pro-
duce F2 (second filial). The recessive traits
D. removal of the spine
reappeared in the F2 plants but only 1/4
635. Snap dragon color is a incomplete domi- times. What genetic Principle or Law was
nant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed displayed in this case?
with white flower (rr)? What color are A. Principle of Dominance
flowers that are Rr? B. Law of Segregation
A. Red C. Principle of Independent Assortment
B. Red and White D. Law of Probability
C. White
641. What happens in meiosis during
D. Pink telophase II?
636. A cross between purebred peas with A. A total of four daughter cells form.
inflated pods and purebred peas with B. DNA doubles to produce sister chro-
pinched pods resulted in peas with all in- matids.
flated pods. What is the recessive trait?
C. The mitotic spindle forms.
A. hybrids
D. Two diploid cells are produced.
B. inflated pods
642. Snapdragons, a flowering plant popular
C. pinched pods with gardeners, can have red, white, and
D. pod shape pink colored petals. When a snapdragon
with red petals (RR) is crossed with a
637. The letters that help visualize a pea snapdragon having white (rr) petals, the
plant’s genetic makeup are called ? offspring have pink petals. The pink col-
A. genotype oration (Rr) is a phenotype in between the

red and white parental phenotypes. What D. how many offspring will be produced.
is this kind of inheritance pattern called?
648. Which of the following alleles is homozy-

A. Classic dominance gous recessive?
B. Bipolar inheritance
A. Tt
C. Incomplete dominance
B. tt
D. Recessive inheritance
C. TT
643. Which of the following is a phenotype? D. T
A. BB
649. A mutation is a change in
B. Bb
A. DNA
C. bb
B. Appearence
D. Blue eyes
C. Hair
644. Which term means one copy of chromo- D. Arms
somes (N)?
A. diploid 650. Which of the following statements is true
regarding blood types?
B. haploid
A. A and O are codominant, B is reces-
C. chromosomes
sive.
D. gene
B. B and O are codominant, A is reces-
645. having two of the same genes for the sive.
trait (sometimes called purebred). C. A and B are codominant, O is reces-
A. homozygous sive.
B. hetrozygous D. A, B and O are all codominant with
C. protein each other.
D. chromosome 651. Entire set of genetic information that an

organism carries in its DNA
646. What do we call the table used to calcu-
late the probability of an offspring’s geno- A. Pedigree
type? B. Genome
A. Punnett square C. Karyotype
B. Venn diagram D. Autosome
C. Golden ratio
652. In birds the alleles for color show codom-
D. Fibonacci sequence inance. One allele is blue and one allele is
white. What would the heterozygote look
647. A Punnett square determines
like?
A. which genotype an offspring will have.
A. Light Blue
B. which phenotype an offspring will
have. B. Blue
C. how likely an offspring is to have a cer- C. White

tain genotype. D. Blue with White Tipped Feathers

653. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for C. a pea plant farm

round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with D. a petting zoo with dozens of pygmy
a pea plant that is homozygous for round goats
peas but heterozygous for yellow peas
(RRYy), how many different phenotypes 658. Height in humans is an example of
are their offspring expected to show? A. incomplete dominance
A. 8 B. codominance
B. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. multiple alleles
C. 2 D. polygenic inheritance
D. 16
659. In gigantoraptors, green scales are dom-
654. A breed of chicken shows codominance inant to red scales. What is the genotype
for feather color. One allele codes for of gigantoraptors that produce red scales?
black feathers, another codes for white
A. Gg
feathers. The feathers of heterozygous
chickens of this breed will be B. gg
A. black C. GG
B. white D. both GG and Gg
C. gray 660. What did Gregor Mendel discovery in the
D. speckled (black and white) results of his first experiment?
A. Only the dominant trait appeared!
655. A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If
this beetle mates with a female with geno- B. The offspring were all different!
type TTBb, what is the chance their off- C. Only the recessive trait appeared!
spring will have the genotype TtBb?
D. The plants were more healthy
A. 3/16
661. what is heredity
B. 4/16
A. the greater resemblance of offspring
C. 8/16
of to parents than to other individuals in
D. 12/16 the population
656. Mitosis involves this many divisions of B. the case in which the the heterozygote
the nucleus. has a phenotype intermediate between
those of the two homozygotes
A. 1
B. 2 C. genes that are close to each other on
a chromosome
C. 3
D. none of above
D. 4
662. hetero
657. Where would genetic drift most likely oc-
cur? A. different
A. an orchard with thousands of orange B. same

trees C. always
B. a greenhouse of snapdragons D. also

663. If I cross a green pea plant (G) with a B. only the dominant alleles
yellow pea plant (y), what genotypes will C. only the recessive alleles
the plants be?

D. all of Mendel’s 30, 000 crosses
A. All Gy
B. half Gy 669. heterozygous condition wherein the al-
C. some GG, some yy lele that is regarded as dominant com-
pletely masks the effect of the allele that
D. some Gy, yy, GG is recessive
664. In a cross of Bb x Bb, what fraction of A. sex-linked
the offspring can be expected to express B. dominance
dominant alleles?
C. segregation
A. 3/4
D. independent assortment
B. 1/4
C. 1/2 670. What is the result of meiosis?
D. 4/4 A. 2 daughter cells that are haploid and
genetically different
665. incomplete dominance is also called
B. 2 daughter cells that are haploid &
A. blended inheritance
identical
B. mendelian inheritance
C. 4 daughter cells that are diploid & ge-
C. none of these netically different
D. all of these D. 4 daughter cells that are haploid & ge-
netically different
666. What did Gregor Mendel use to discover
the principles that rule heredity? 671. What makes a dominant allele different
A. Pea Plant from a recessive allele?
B. Pigeons A. The dominant allele always mixes with
C. Pear trees the recessive allele.
D. Photosynthesis B. The dominant allele determines the
trait.
667. describes the patterns of inheritance and
C. The dominant allele determines the
presentation when a gene mutation is
trait.
present on a sex chromosome rather than
a non-sex chromosome D. The recessive allele determines the
A. sex-linkage trait.
B. dominance 672. Pink snapdragons are an example of

C. segregation what?
D. independent assortment A. multiple alleles
B. codominance
668. What does a Punnett square show?
A. all the possible outcomes of a genetic C. complete dominance
cross D. incomplete dominance

673. A genetic trait that appears in every gen- 678. Variation in human skin color is a result
eration of offspring is called . of
A. dominant A. incomplete dominance.
B. recessive B. polygenic traits.
C. phenotypic C. codominance.
D. multiple alleles.
D. superior
NARAYAN CHANGDER
679. Epistasis is the interaction between
674. Which of the following is a protein that genes.
acts as DNA scissors?
A. 2
A. plasmid
B. 4
B. restriction enzyme
C. 8
C. ligase D. 16
D. protein expression
680. Down Syndrome is a disorder in which a
675. A mule is the result of a cross between a person has an extra
donkey and a horse. A mule is a A. 22nd chromosome
A. hybrid B. 23rd chromosome
B. genotype C. 21st chromosome
C. tetrad D. 20th chromosome
D. phenotype 681. T = Tall; t = shortIf you cross a homozy-

gous tall plant with a homozygous short
676. On which fruit fly chromosome is the plant, what will the offsprings’ phenotype
gene for purple eye color located? be?
A. Chromosome 2 A. Tall and short
B. it can be on a random chromosome B. All Tall
C. the eye chromosome C. All Short
D. the color chromosome D. none of above
682. which one of these did Mendels Hypoth-

677. Earlobes can be either attached or de-
esis not mention
tached. The allele for attached earlobes is
recessive (e), and the allele for detached A. For each inherited trait, an individual
earlobes is dominant (E). What must be has two copies of the gene - one from each
true if a boy is born with attached ear- parent
lobes? B. Organisms donate only one copy of
A. He has one of each allele. each gene in their gametes
C. There are alternative versions of
B. He has a heterozygous genotype.
genes called alleles
C. He has no recessive alleles.
D. When two different alleles are present
D. He has a homozygous genotype together, one of them might be completely

expressed, while the other may have no 688. What is the chance of having a boy in-
effect on the physical appearance. stead of a girl?

A. 25%
683. Name the pattern:Two traits produce a
blended phenotype B. 50%
A. incomplete dominance C. 75%
B. multiple alleles D. 100%
C. polygenic inheritance 689. How many recessive alleles for a trait

must an organism inherit in order to show
D. codominance
that trait?
684. Cross in first filial generation produces A. 1
generation called B. 23
A. F1 generation C. 46
B. P2 generation D. 2
C. F2 generation 690. A phenotype is
D. G1 generation A. Physical appearance
685. Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics ap- B. made-up word for gene
ply to C. Not a word at all
A. plants only D. Two alleles
B. animals only 691. What is the pattern when you cross red-
C. pea plants only flowering camellia and a white-flowering
camellia to produce camellias with flowers
D. all organisms that are both red and white?
686. Which organisms did Mendel use to form A. incomplete dominance
his principles on the inheritance of traits? B. multiple alleles
A. fruit flies C. polygenic inheritance
B. pea plants D. codominance
C. four-o’clock flowers 692. What do we use pedigrees for?
D. roan cattle A. To look at families
687. Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. B. To make determinations about the off-
She has a scar on her right cheek. She is spring
good at swimming. Which of her traits did C. To track traits in families
Magda most likely inherit? D. none of above
A. height
693. how many PAIRS of chromosomes are
B. the scar there in a karyotype
C. ability to swim A. 23
D. ability to play drums B. 46

C. 48 699. Gamete(sex cells) are produced by the

D. 24 process of
A. mitosis
694. One of the parents of a child has
phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by B. meiosis
recessive alleles. The other parent does C. crossing-over
not have the PKU alleles. What is the D. replication
chance that the couple will have a child
700. Genetics is the study of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
with phenylketonuria?
A. 0% A. anatomy
B. 50% B. heredity
C. 75% C. cardiology
D. 100% D. all of the above
695. How many alleles do we inherit? 701. If an organisms has 1 dominant and 1 re-
cessive allele (Tt) for a trait it is called
A. both from father
A. heterozygous
B. we dont inherit alleles
B. same
C. 1 from each parent
C. twins
D. both from mother
D. homozygous
696. An allele that is fully expressed when car-
ried by only one pair of homologous chro- 702. If we cross TT with tt, what is the prob-
mosomes ability that the offspring will have Tt?
A. Recessive A. 0%
B. Heredity B. 50%
C. dominant C. 75%
D. allele D. 100%
697. Two different forms of a gene 703. What do you get when a black sheep
mates with a white sheep. If the wool
A. Alleles
color is an example of incomplete domi-
B. Genotype nance, the wool color will be?
C. Genes / DNA A. white
D. Phenotype B. grey
698. Which of the following factors could lead C. black and white
to variations in the offspring of asexually D. black
reproducing organisms?
704. D = dimples d = no dimples What is the
A. Crossing over. genotype for a homozygous recessive off-
B. Fertilization. spring?
C. Mutations A. DD
D. Independent assortment B. Dd

C. dd parent.What is the probability that their

D. none of above child will have short big toes?

A. 1/4
705. In dragons, large scales (S) are domi-
B. 2/4
nant and small scales (s) are recessive. A
dragon that is heterozygous for the trait C. 3/4
is crossed with a dragon that has small D. 4/4
scales. What should be the ratio of large-
scaled dragons to small-scaled dragons 710. Heterozygous is when
among the offspring? A. the alleles are the same
A. 1:2 B. the alleles are different
B. 1:1 C. the alleles are absent
C. 2:1 D. the alleles are present
D. 3:1 711. Which of the following would y ou be
least likely to see in a pedigree?
706. The different forms of a gene are known
A. All of the symbols are half-shaded.
as
B. About half of the symbols are circles.
A. Codons
C. All of the symbols are unshaded.
B. Proteins
D. All of the symbols are shaded.
C. Alleles
712. Define Gene
D. Nucleotides
A. Condensed DNA that is visible during
707. What do the letters inside the grid of a cell division.
Punnett square represent? B. Different versions of the same gene.
A. phenotypes of parents C. A section of DNA that codes for spe-
B. genotypes of offspring cific proteins/traits.
C. testcrosses of offspring D. Molecule which contains the genetic in-
formation for an organism.
D. chromosomes of parents
713. Mendel used pea plants to study
708. Which of the following represents a het-
A. flowering
erozygous genotype? (3B1)
B. gamete formation
A. aa
C. the inheritance of traits
B. Ab
D. cross-pollination
C. AA
714. serves to either support or counter a sci-
D. Aa
entific theory or hypothesis
709. Many people have big toes that are A. law
shorter than their second toes. The short B. theory
big toe allele (S) is dominant to the long
big toe allele (s).A Punnett square shows C. hypothesis
a cross between an Ss parent and an ss D. evidence

715. co dominance is exhibited by D. crossing-over always occurs between

A. A, B Blood group the genes
B. ABO blood group 720. Which genotype indicates hybrid?
C. SICKLE CELL ANAEMIA A. GG
D. HAEMOPHILIA B. gg
716. The random change in the ratio of alleles C. Gg
in a population over time.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. GG; gg
A. heredity
721. Multiple allelism is shown by
B. codominance
A. ABO Blood
C. genetic drift
B. AB blood
D. incomplete dominance
C. SICKLE CELL ANAEMIA
717. What is the main reason that colorblind-
ness, a sex-linked disorder, is most often D. HAEMOPHILIA
observed in males? 722. What symbol is used for a recessive
A. The Y chromosome cannot have genes trait?
that cause genetic disorders.
A. capital letter
B. The Y chromosome cannot mask alle-
B. lower case letter
les on the X chromosome
C. underlined letter
C. The X chromosome has genes only for
sex determination D. italicized letter
D. The X chromosome only has genes for 723. What determines the color of western
genetic disorders white butterflies?
718. Define Genome A. temperature and genes
A. Molecule which contains the genetic in- B. genes alone
formation for an organism.
C. the environment alone
B. Different versions of the same gene.
D. exposure to sunlight and genes
C. Condensed DNA that is visible during
cell division. 724. The inheritance of one trait has no influ-
D. all the chromosomes/DNA that code ence on the inheritance of another trait is
for an individual’s traits.
A. Principle of Dominance
719. If two genes are on the same chromo-
some and rarely assort independently, B. Law of Segregation
A. crossing-over never occurs between C. Principle of Independent Assortment
the genes D. Law of Probability
B. the genes are probably located close
725. The principle of dominance states that
to each other
C. the genes are probably located far A. all alleles are dominant
apart from each other B. all alleles are recessive

C. some alleles are dominant and some C. James Square

are recessive D. none of above

D. alleles are neither dominant or reces-
sive 731. The passing of characters from parents to
offspring is called?
726. If both parents are carriers of Tay-Sachs, A. Monohybrid cross
what percentage of their children will also
B. Heredity
be carriers but not have the disease?
(3B2) C. True breeding
A. 0% D. Genetics
B. 25% 732. In dogs, wire hair (H) is dominant to
C. 50% smooth hair (h). In a cross of a ho-
mozygous wire-haired dog with a smooth-
D. 75%
haired dog, what will be the phenotypic
727. Name the pattern:two or more genes in- ratio of the F1 Generation?
teract to produce a single trait A. 0% wire-haired
A. incomplete dominance B. 25% wire-haired
B. multiple alleles C. 50% wire-haired
C. polygenic inheritance D. 100% wire-haired
D. codominance 733. Which is an example of selective breed-
728. Human body cells that have 46 chromo- ing?
somes are called A. A scientist produced a lamb from a
frozen cell of another adult sheep.
A. haploid cells
B. A scientist maintains a group of re-
B. diploid cells
triever dogs by only mating retriever dogs
C. gametes together.
D. sex cells C. A scientist produces a bacteria that
can make human insulin.
729. Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. A scientist changed the genetic make-
A. Term used to refer to an organism that
up of a human’s white blood cells to en-
sure they were healthy.
B. DNA produced by combining DNA from
different sources 734. If a rabbit that is heterozygous for black
& hairy (BbHh) is crossed with a rabbit
C. The technique used by biologists to
that is homozygous for black but hairless
make many copies of a particular gene
hairy (BBhh), how many different phe-
D. none of above notypes are their offspring expected to
show?
730. A is a chart that is used to calcu-
late the probability of an offspring’s com- A. 2
bination of alleles. B. 3
A. Punnett Square C. 8
B. Mendel Square D. 16

735. Gametes have 741. Mendel’s principle of independent assort-

A. homologous chromosomes ment states that
B. twice the number of chromosomes A. phenotypes are typically identical in

found in body cells offspring of the F1 generation
C. two sets of chromosomes B. genes for different traits always stay
together during the formation of gametes.
D. one allele for each gene
C. students who are cunning and re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
736. What is a Tay Sach? sourceful are placed in Slytherin House
A. A non inherited disease D. genes for different traits can segre-
B. A dominant disorder gate independently during the formation
of gametes.
C. a Virus
D. A recessive disorder 742. In a flowering plant species, red flower
color (R) is dominant over white flower
737. Linked genes
color (r). What is the genotype of any
A. are never separated. red-flowering plant resulting from this
B. are on the same chromosome. species?
C. assort independently. A. rr
D. are always recessive. B. R
738. When an organism has two of the same C. RR

alleles, it is called D. RR or Rr
A. homozygous
743. In regards to genetics what is the
B. heterozygous principle of dominance?
C. recessive
A. larger zebras will out compete their
D. dominant smaller counterparts for food
739. An allele represented by a capital letter. B. recessive alleles will “beat out” the
Masks or overshadows the weaker allele. dominant allele 75% of the time
A. Big C. some genes are almost always inher-
ited together
B. Recessive
C. Dominant D. some alleles are dominant and others
are recessive
D. Small
744. Which of the following is NOT an inher-
740. When do the symptoms of Huntington’s
ited trait?
appear?
A. 0 - 10 years old A. reading ability
B. 10 - 30 years old B. blood type

C. 30 - 50 years old C. hair color
D. 50 - 70 years old D. eye color

745. What was the ratio of Mendel’s F2 gen- 751. The physical appearance of the allele com-
eration for the two-factor cross? bination the offspring receives

A. 9:3:3:1 A. genotype
B. 9:6:3:1 B. homozygous
C. 8:4:2:1 C. phenotype
D. 4:3:2:1 D. dominant
746. co dominance means 752. Two chromosomes that are similar in size
A. progeny resembles one of the parent and structure are called
B. progeny resembles none of the protein A. homologous chromosomes
C. progeny resembles both parents B. homozygous chromatids
D. progeny is a blend of both parents C. sister chromatids

D. sex chromosomes
747. A hybrid is the offspring of parents that
have alleles for a trait. 753. Why might potential parents get genetic
A. the same testing done on themselves before having
a baby together?
B. different
A. Doctors could predict likely mutations
C. two leading to extraordinary abilities in the
D. four children.
B. So they could tell if their potential mate
748. Features such as height, color, shape
had plastic surgery to improve their looks.
A. trait
C. Genetic testing is not possible in to-
B. charateristic day’s medical environment but may be
C. alleles within the next 50 years.
D. genetics D. They could discover if their baby might
be born with genetic disorders.
749. Select the correct genotype:Homozygous
Dominant 754. How many chromosomes are in a sex
cell?
A. Gg
A. 46
B. ff
B. 23
C. DD
C. 26
D. Hh
D. 43
750. The passing on of traits from parents to
their offspring 755. All humans have at least one X gene.
Choose the answer below that explains
A. Heredity why all humans do NOT have a y gene
B. Hereditary A. Females pass on only a Y to male off-
C. Genes spring
D. none of above B. Males pass on X genes to all offspring

C. Females pass on X genes to all off- 760. How many letters does a genotype con-
spring tain?
D. Males pass on a Y to male offspring A. 1
and an X to female offspring B. 2
C. 3
756. whats a pedigree?
D. 4
A. in genetics a type of family tree that
maps the occurrence of a trait in a family 761. Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. A contract hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is
Mark’s phenotype?
C. written description of all genes world-
A. Brown Hair
wide
B. Blonde Hair
D. none of above
C. Brown and Blonde Hair
757. Crossing-over D. Black Hair
A. Situation in which the phenotypes pro- 762. Who is considered the father of genetics?
duced by both alleles are completely ex-
A. Darwin
pressed
B. Justin Beiber
B. Process in which the number of chro-
mosomes per cell is cut in half through the C. Gregor Mendel
separation of homologous chromosomes D. Isaac Newton
in a diploid cell
763. Which of the following alleles is homozy-
C. Process in which homologous chromo- gous (purebred) recessive?
somes exchange portions of their chro-
A. Tt
matids during meiosis
B. tt
D. none of above
C. TT
758. specific characteristic determined by a bi- D. t
ological factor
764. Albinism is due to
A. trait
A. absence of melanin
B. gene
B. absence of vitamins
C. allele C. presence of melanin
D. hybrid D. absence of hormone
759. what is genotypic ratio of incomplete 765. What determines the genotype of an or-
dominance ganism?
A. 1:2:1 A. The alleles that are passed from par-
ents to offspring
B. 3:1
B. The amount of sleep the organism gets
C. 1:3:1
C. The number of children the organism
D. 16:1 has

D. The foods the organism eats during its C. A phenotype that has more than 2 pos-
life sible alleles for a gene

766. A white rose and a red rose produce a D. none of above
pink rose, which type of inheritance does 771. What is the chemical called that is found
this show? inside our cell’s nucleus and determines our
A. incomplete dominance inherited traits?
B. codominance A. D.N.A.
C. Multiple alleles B. genes
D. Polygenic inheritance C. chromosomes
D. chloroplast
767. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is
dominant over the trait for short stems. If 772. Whats co-dominance?
two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, A. describes an allele that masks the phe-
what percentage of the offspring would be notypic effect of the other
expected to have the same phenotype as
the parents? B. the case in which the hetero-zygote
displays characteristics of both alleles.
A. 100%
C. describes the genotype of a trait for
B. 75% which the two alleles an individual carries
C. 50% are the same
768. In a pedigree, a square represents a 773. The Australian Shepherds of America

Club discourages from mating two merles.
A. female
Which of the following best explains why
B. adult merle to merle matings are undesirable?
C. male A. The cross has the probability of produc-
D. child ing litters with 50% solid coat color pups.
B. The cross produces all homozygous re-
769. An Tt plant crosses with another Tt plant. cessive pups
What geonotypes would expect the off-
spring to have? C. The cross has the probability of pro-
ducing litters with 25% merle coat pups.
A. all TT
D. The cross has a 25% chance of produc-
B. all Tt ing homozygous dominant pups.
C. some TT and some Tt
774. A wide range of phenotypic variations oc-
D. some TT some Tt and some tt cur in the trait for human height. Which
of the following accounts for these varia-
770. Which option below best describes poly-
tions?
genic inheritance?
A. Polygenic Inheritance
A. More than one set of genes contribut-
ing to the phenotype B. Codominance
B. A blending of genes getting an interme- C. Incomplete dominance
diate phenotype D. Multiple Alleles

775. Principle/Law of Independent is defined B. Mrs. Lloyd would have to breed her
as dog with a dog that has heterozygous dom-
inant gene trait. This means that if you
A. Some alleles are dominant over oth-
cross a heterozygous dominant allele pair
ers.
with a homozygous recessive allele pair,
B. Allele pairs separate during gamete the future offspring will have a 100 per-
formation and randomly unite at fertiliza- cent chance to have the straight ear gene.
tion. C. Mrs. Lloyd would have to breed her
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. During gamete formation genes for dif- dog with a dog that has homozygous re-
ferent traits separate without influencing cessive gene trait. This means that if you
each other’s inheritance cross a homozygous recessive allele pair
and a homozygous recessive allele pair,
D. none of above the future offspring will have a 100 per-
cent chance to have the straight ear gene.
776. Restriction Enzyme
D. The dog is unable to have straight
A. Process in which epigenetic chemical eared puppies, but the puppies future
marks can be passed from one generation offspring may be able to breed straight
to the next in a sex-specific way eared puppies.
B. Enzyme that cuts DNA at a sequence of 778. To perform his experiments, how
nucleotides did Mendel prevent pea flowers from
C. Error in meiosis in which the homolo- self-pollinating and control their cross-
gous chromosomes fail to separate prop- pollination?
erly A. He separated the male plants from the
D. none of above female plants
B. He did not try to prevent the plants
777. Dog breeders around the world want to from self-pollinating
breed certain traits within dogs. One dog, C. He removed the male parts from the
for instance, can have both the floppy ear flowers and manually placed pollen on the
genetic trait, and a straight ear genetic plants
trait. Mrs. Lloyd is a dog breeder who
knows that her dog has the floppy ears D. He removed the female parts from the
gene (tt), but wants all of her dogs future flowers and manually placed pollen on the
offspring to have straight ears. What type plants
of genotype would the other dog have to 779. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alle-
have inherited for Mrs. Lloyd’s dog to les are separated during meiosis?
reproduce puppy’s with the straight ear
gene? A. Law of Dominance
B. Law of Segregation
A. Mrs. Lloyd would have to breed her
dog with a dog that has homozygous dom- C. Law of Independent Assortment
inant gene trait. This means that if you D. Law of Meiosis
cross a homozygous dominant allele pair
and a homozygous recessive allele pair, 780. Application of mathematics and computer
the future offspring will have a 100 per- science to store, retrieve, and analyze bi-
cent chance to have the straight ear gene. ological data

A. Gel Electrophoresis 785. In some carnations, flower color exhibits

codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and
B. Pedigree
white (W) flowers make speckled flowers

C. Bioinformatics (RW) that show both colors.Complete a
D. Genomics cross between A speckled flower and a red
flower. Find the phenotype ratio.
781. Which law states that organisms inherit A. 2 red:2 speckled:0 white
two copies of each gene and donate only B. 4 red:0 speckled:0 white
one copy to each of their offspring?
C. 0 red:4 speckled:0 white
D. 0 red:2 speckled:2 white
B. law of inheritance
786. In tobacco, if the diploid number of chro-
C. law of genetic linkage mosomes is 48, how many chromosomes
D. law of independent assortment will be found in a pollen grain?
A. 96
782. The best genome representation for ho-
B. 48
mozygous recessive
C. 24
A. AA
D. 12
B. Aa
787. The principles of probability can be used
C. aa
to
D. none of above A. predict the traits of the offspring of ge-
netic crosses
783. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant
with a short plant, the new baby plants B. determine the actual outcomes of ge-
inherited netic crosses
C. determine which species should be
A. two alleles from each parent
used in genetic crosses
B. one allele from each parent
D. decide which organisms are best to
C. two alleles from one parent use in genetic crosses
D. four alleles from each parent 788. Hybrid has the same meaning as
A. heterozygous
784. Natural selection has the potential to ac-
complish which of the following? B. homozygous
A. allow a school of fish in the sea to be- C. purebred
come land-dwelling creatures D. none of above
B. change a population of foxes into 789. If a brown-eyed girl’s father has
mountain lions blueeyes, and her mother has brown eyes,
C. change a colony of bacteria into multi- she ismost likely for the eye color
cellular organisms trait.
D. allow finches to develop differently A. heterozygous

shaped beaks B. homozygous recessive

C. not enough information to determine C. 50%

D. homozygous dominant D. 75%
790. Australian Shepherds are a breed of dogs 794. What is the phenotypic ratio of a cross be-
whose coat color is directly impacted by tween two guinea pigs who are heterozy-
two different genes. The gene that de- gous for black fur and short hair (BbLl).
termines basic coat color exhibits a dom- A. 9:3:3:1
inant allele (B) for black coat color and a
recessive allele (b) for red coat color. Addi- B. 3:1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tionally, these dogs can have a solid coat C. 0:8:0:8
color (mm) or a mixed pattern coat color D. 1:2:1
called merle (Mm). The homozygous dom-
inant coat color is called a lethal white 795. What is the probability that a single coin
(MM) which produces pups that are deaf flip will come up heads?
and blind. What is the probability that A. 1 in 2 or 50%
two red Australian shepherds will produce
a black pup? B. 1 in 4 or 25%
A. 0 C. 1 in 8 or 12.5%
B. 1/4 D. 1 in 10 or 10%
C. 1/2 796. If you cross two heterozygous traits (Rr

D. 3/4 x Rr), as Mendel did in his second exper-
iment, what ratio will you get between
791. The physical expression of a trait in an offspring with the dominant and recessive
organism is known as the - phenotypes
A. chromosome A. 1:1
B. genotype B. 2:1
C. phenotype C. 3:1
D. double helix D. 4:1
792. What type of traits “show up” in a pop- 797. When Mendel worked with pea plants,
ulation more often? he noticed that some traits, like round
A. dominant seeds, seemed to hide other traits, like
wrinkled seeds. What do we call the trait
B. recessive that hides or masks another trait?
C. punnett squares A. A recessive trait
D. alleles B. Incomplete dominance
793. One cat has a heterozygous genotype, C. DNA replication
black fur (Bb), and its mate has a homozy- D. A dominant trait
gous genotype grey fur (bb). Use a Pun-
nett square to determine the probability 798. traits that are produced by several genes
of one of their offspring having grey fur. are
A. 100% A. polygenic
B. 25% B. codominant

C. haploid A. Complete Dominance

D. diploid B. Incomplete Dominance

799. Phenotypes refer to the C. Sex-Linked
A. karyotype of chromosomes D. Codominance
B. way we write the allele in symbols (RR, 803. A population of birds migrates into a re-
rr) gion with lots of nut trees. The number of
birds with larger beaks are most likely to
C. physical trait we see (eye color, hair
color, bending thumb)
A. increase
D. none of above
B. decrease
800. In pea plants, green is dominant to yel-
C. remain the same
low. A green pea plant (Gg) is crossed
with a yellow pea plant (gg). What is the D. change randomly
probability that an offspring will be yel- 804. dom-
low?
A. rule
A. 25%
B. king
B. 50%
C. inaccurate
C. 75%
D. different
D. 100%
805. Results from the fusion of two gametes
801. Many plant species are capable of produc-
A. polar bodies
ing offspring through self-pollination. In
self-pollination, gametes formed by meio- B. zygotes
sis and are used to fertilize egg cells from C. sperm
the same plant. Which of the following D. eggs
statements describes why offspring pro-
duced through self-pollination can exhibit 806. In snapdragons, Tallness (T) is dominant
genetic diversity? to dwarfness (t). In a cross between two
A. The genes found in each gamete will plants that are homozygous for the reces-
be genetically identical to one another. sive allele, the percent of offspring ex-
pected to exhibit tallness is
B. The self-pollination gametes are pro-
duced through meiosis and have under- A. 25%
gone DNA replication. B. 75%
C. Homologous chromosomes were C. 100%
sorted into different gamete cells caus- D. 0%
ing separation of allele pairs.
807. How many alleles do you get from each
D. Gametes involved in self-pollination
parent?
only travel a short distance prior to be-
coming involved in fertilization. A. One
B. Two
802. When 2 alleles do not blend but are both
fully expressed (i.e. IAIB blood type), it is C. Three
called D. none of above

808. Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrin- 813. DNA is sometimes referred to as a ladder.
kled seeds (r). What is the genotype for a Which two molecules make up the sides of
wrinkled offspring? the DNA ladder?
A. RR A. phosphate and ribose
B. Rr B. nitrogen base and ribose
C. rr C. phosphate and deoxyribose
D. none of above
D. phosphate and nitrogen base
NARAYAN CHANGDER
809. Two identical twins live in the same city;
one smokes and one doesn’t. The one who 814. When phenotypes produces by both
smokes develops lung cancer. What is the alleles are clearly expressed (such as
best reason for this? chickens with black feathers and chick-
ens with white feathers crossed produce
A. Genetics factors only black/white speckled feathers)
B. Genetics and environmental factors
C. Environmental factors only
B. Codominance
D. It was not related to their genetics or
environment C. Multiple Alleles
D. Polygenic Traits
810. If you made a Punnett square show-
ing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true- 815. The study of how traits are passed form
breeding tall plants and true-breeding one generation to the next is called
short plants, the square would show that
the offspring had A. alleles
A. the genotype of one of the parents. B. heredity
B. a phenotype that was different from C. hybridology
that of both parents. D. simple dominance
C. the genotype of both parents.
816. If two white sheep produce a black off-
D. a genotype that was different from
spring, the parent’s genotypes for colour
that of both parents.
must be
811. Alternate forms of genes are called A. Heterozygous.
A. alleles
B. Homozygous white.
B. characters
C. Homozygous black.
C. genomes
D. Not enough information was given.
D. crosses
817. A tall plant is crossed with a short plant
812. The physical characteristic of an organism
what is the expected outcome? (TT x tt)
A. Genotype A. all short

B. Phenotype B. all tall
C. Blood type C. all medium
D. Prototype D. half tall, Half short

818. In guinea pigs, short hair (S) is dominant 822. Which best describes an inherited trait?
over long hair (s). A short-haired male A. a characteristic one chooses to ex-
and a short-haired female produce mostly

press
short-haired offspring, but a few were
long-haired. What are the genotypes of B. a characteristic one receives from the
the parents? food one eats
A. SS x SS C. a characteristic that is passed on from

one’s parents
B. ss x ss
D. a characteristic that is influenced by
C. SS x ss one’s surroundings
D. Ss x Ss 823. How much of your DNA do you inherit
from your mom?
819. Tay Sachs disease is a fatal genetic disor-
der. Children born with this disorder gen- A. 10%
erally die before they are five years old. A B. 25%
couple has had three children who died of
C. 50%
Tay Sachs. About this couple it can safely
be assumed that: D. it varies
A. any children they have in the future will 824. Enzyme that cuts DNA at a sequence of
also die from this disease nucleotides
B. they are both heterozygous for the Tay A. Protien Enzyme
Sachs trait B. Power Enzyme
C. they are both homozygous for the Tay C. Restriction Enzyme
Sachs trait
D. Unrestricted Enzyme
D. one is heterozygous and the other is
homozygous for the Tay Sachs trait 825. Which of these BEST describes the pri-
mary goal of meiosis?
820. Which term describes multiple genes af- A. The nucleus is divided without muta-
fecting the phenotype of one trait? tion.
A. blending inheritance B. A single cell divides into two daughter
B. polygenic inheritance cells.
C. co-dominance C. All chromosomes are replicated and

passed on to the daughter cells.
D. incomplete dominance
D. Daughter cells are produced with only
821. If a dog has 20 chromosomes in its sperm half the chromosomes of the parent cell.
cell, how many chromosomes would its 826. If red (R) is dominant over white (r),
son have in its tail cell? which genotype will cause a white color?
A. 10 A. RR
B. 5 B. Rr
C. 40 C. rR
D. 80 D. rr

827. specific characteristic of an organism, 831. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the for-
such as body color, is called a mation of
A. genes A. two genetically identical cells.
B. homozygous B. four genetically identical cells.
C. trait C. four genetically different cells.
D. gametes D. two genetically different cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
828. Which of the following are reasons why 832. In a flowering plant species, red flower
Mendel worked with pea plants? color (R) is dominant over white flower
A. he was able to “control” which plant color (r). What is the probability of hav-
bred with which ing a white flowered plant if the parents
B. the had easily observable features / were heterozygous red and homozygous
traits red?
C. they grew rapidly so he was able to do A. 0%
more experiments B. 25%
D. all choices make sense why Mendel C. 50%
would work with pea plants
D. 100%
829. Suppose that in barley plants, the al-
lele for tall stalks is dominant over short 833. Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink
stalks and the allele for wide leaves is and white. Pink is what type of inheri-
dominant over thin leaves. What would tance is this?
be the best way to determine the geno- A. Complete Dominance
type of a barley plant with a tall stalk and
wide leaves? B. Incomplete Dominance
A. Perform a testcross with a barley plant C. Codominance

that has a short stalk and thin leaves D. Polygenic Inheritance
B. Perform a testcross with a barley plant
that has a tall stalk and wide leaves 834. Gregor Mendel removed the male parts
from the flowers of some plants in order
C. Perform a testcross with a known het- to
erozygous barley plant
A. prevent hybrids from forming.
D. Perform a testcross with a barley plant
that has a tall stalk and thin leaves B. prevent cross-pollination.
C. stimulate self-pollination.
830. Which Mendelian Law states that when
an organism is hybrid for a pair of con- D. control crosses between plants.
trasting traits, the dominant trait is the
one that is shown. 835. What is a tetrad?
A. Law of Dominance A. Two sets of sister chromatids
B. Law of Independent Assortment B. A chromatid before meiosis
C. Law of of Segregation C. Another term for a sperm cell
D. none of above D. A haploid cell produced by meiosis

836. One form of a gene is called C. crossing-over

A. a DNA D. replication

B. a Phenotype 842. Two true-breeding parents are crossed
C. a trait similar to Mendel’s P generation. A tall
plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt).
D. an allele
What is the expected outcome for the F1
837. Plasmid generation?
A. DNA produced by combining DNA from A. all short
different sources B. all tall
B. Small, circular piece of DNA located in C. all medium height
the cytoplasm of many bacteria D. half tall, half short
C. Term used to refer to an organism that
843. Instructions for an inherited trait
A. Alleles
D. none of above
B. Genes
838. What is NOT a principle of genetics? C. Phenotype
A. The recessive trait will always show D. Genotype
up.
844. A couple, with the genotypes:XH
B. Traits are determined by gene pairs.
XhandXH Yhave children. If Xh is
C. Traits are passed from parents to off- hemophilia, will any of the male offspring
spring. be hemophiliacs?
D. Genes are usually dominant or reces- A. Yes, there’s a 50% shot that male off-
sive. spring will be
839. An allele is B. Yes, all of the male offspring
A. another word for a gene C. No, none of the male offspring will be
hemophiliacs
B. a homozygous genotype
D. This couple is incapable of having male
C. a heterozygous genotype offspring
D. one of several possible forms of a
845. The genetic makeup of an organism
gene
A. Punnett Square
840. What do we call the result of the geno-
B. DNA
type (for example, the color of the peas)?
C. Phenotype
A. Visible traits
D. Genotype
B. Physiotrait
846. a tool used to predict the possibility of
C. Genotype 2
offspring
D. Phenotype
A. Gene Circle
841. Gametes are produced by the process of B. Gene Square
A. mitosis C. Punnett Circle
B. meiosis D. Punnett Square

847. Why can the principles of probability be C. Most of it is transformed by the engine
used to predict the outcomes of genetic into electrical energy.
crosses?
D. Most of it is transferred to the environ-
A. the way in which the alleles segregate ment in the form of heat.
is completely random like a coin flip
851. At fertilization, what happens to the sex
B. the likelihood of an allele being domi-
cells
nant is completely random like a coin flip
A. they retain half of their chromosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. whether a plant is self-pollinating is
completely random like a coin flip B. half of the cells copy their DNA twice
D. whether a pea plant will grow is com- C. they fuse to form a zygote
pletely random like a coin flip
D. one becomes an egg, and one be-
848. What is a “trait”? comes a sperm cell
A. a specific characteristic that varies 852. Mendel observed during his experiments
from one individual to another that being tall didn’t automatically mean
B. the different form of a gene like “T” vs that the plants would have green pods and
“t” that green pods didn’t have to be filled
only with wrinkled seeds. Into which prin-
C. chemical factors that determine phe- ciple did he translate these observations?
notypes
A. principle of independent assortment
D. the offspring of crosses between par-
ents with different traits B. principle of dominance
C. principle of segregation
849. two copies of each hereditary factor seg-
regate so that offspring acquire one factor D. none of above
from each parent
853. An organism’s is inherited from its
parents.
B. law of meiosis
A. dominance
C. law of gravity
B. genetic drift
D. transcription
C. genotype
850. The purpose of a car engine is to trans- D. phenotype
form the chemical energy of gasoline into
kinetic energy of the car in motion. Gaso- 854. In screech owls, red feathers(R) are dom-
line is burned in the engine to create that inant over gray feathers (r). If two hy-
movement. However, gasoline engines brid red-feathered owls are mated, what
are typically only about 20% efficient. percentage of their offspring would be ex-
What happens to the rest of the energy pected to have red feathers?
released from the burning gasoline?
A. 50%
A. Most of it is destroyed by the process
B. 100%
of the gasoline burning.
C. 25%
B. Most of it is changed through chemical
reaction to a type of nuclear energy. D. 75%

855. What did Mendel use pea plants to C. heterozygous

study? D. genotype

A. Gamete formation
861. Genetic traits are determined by one or
B. Cross pollination more
C. Inheritance of traits A. genes
D. Flower scent B. chromosomes
856. How many alleles can a person have C. random chances
A. 1 D. cells
B. 2
862. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alle-
C. 3 les are distributed to gametes independent
D. 4 of one another?
A. Law of Dominance
857. How can you be sure of getting the ex-
pected 50:50 ratio from flipping a coin? B. Law of Segregation
A. You must flip the coin only one time C. Law of Independent Assortment
B. You must flip the coin two times D. Law of Meiosis
C. You must flip the coin 50 times 863. What is another name for “true breed-
D. You must flip the coin many times ing?”
A. Heterozygous
858. In dogs, the allele for short hair is dom-
inant over the allele for long hair. Two B. Purebred
short-haired dogs are the parents of a lit- C. Hybrid
ter of eight puppies. Six puppies have
short hair, and two have long hair. What D. Cross Pollinating
are the genotypes f the parents? 864. Normal red blood cells slide easily
A. heterozygous Ss through narrow blood vessels. In sickle
B. homozygous SS cell disease, many red blood cells change
to a crescent shape like a slender moon.
C. homozygous ss Crescent-shaped blood cells cause block-
D. heterozygous SS ages in blood vessels. These blockages
decrease the transport of oxygen. People
859. Where does transcription take place? with sickle cell disease often have sharp
A. nucleus pains due to the lack of oxygen in parts of
B. cytoplasm the body.The sickle cell version of the gene
that causes sickle cell disease is recessive.
C. ribosome Suppose that two parents with no symp-
D. none of above toms have a child with sickle cell disease.
What genes did the child inherit from the
860. having two different genes for a trait parents?
(sometimes called hybrid).
A. The child must have inherited the
A. protein sickle cell gene from the mother and the
B. homozygous normal gene from the father.

B. The child must have inherited the nor- B. M phase

mal gene from the mother and the sickle
C. Interphase
cell gene from the father.
C. The child must have inherited sickle D. G1 Phase
cell genes from both parents.
870. Which process is used to make mRNA
D. The child must have inherited normal from the DNA in the nucleus?
genes from both parents.
A. transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
865. The gene makeup of an organism for a
B. translation
particular trait is known as its
A. dominance C. replication
B. phenotype D. none of above
C. allele
871. Which of the following is NOT one of
D. genotype Mendel’s three principles of heredity?
866. What phenotype would result from A. In a cross of purebred parents, all off-
crossing a homozygous dominant purple- spring will show the dominant trait.
flowered pea plant with a homozygous re-
B. In a cross of hybrid parents, all off-
cessive white-flowered pea plant?
spring will also be hybrid.
A. Pp
C. Two alleles for a parent’s gene sepa-
B. Purple rate and then each combines with an al-
C. White lele from the other parent to determine
D. PP and pp the offspring’s trait.
D. Each allele is passed to the offspring
867. What is the random change in the ratio
independently of the other alleles.
of alleles in a population over time?
A. genetic drift 872. In horses, the grey coat color (G) is dom-
B. heredity inant to non-grey coat color (g). Addi-
tionally, some horses have a genetic disor-
C. complete dominance der called hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
D. incomplete dominance or HYPP. HYPP is an inherited autosomal
dominant disorder that affects the sodium
868. The genetic material of all organisms; channels in muscle cells. HYPP (H) is dom-
made up of two twisted strands inant to the normal condition (h). If a non-
A. Recessive grey, normal stallion sires a foal that is not
B. Punnett Square grey and does not have HYPP, which of
the following genotypes are possible geno-
C. Dominant types for the mother?
D. DNA
A. GGhh and ggHH
869. What is the longest stage of the cell cycle B. ggHH and GgHh
called; in other words, in which stage does
a cell spend most of its life? C. GGHH and GGHh
A. Cytokinesis D. GgHh and gghh

873. An is one member of a pair of genes 878. Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds
from either parent that controls a certain with a black-furred rabbit and all of their
characteristic. offspring have a phenotype of gray fur.

A. gene What does the gene for fur color in rabbits
appear to be an example of?
B. allele
A. codominance
C. trait
D. none of above
C. dominance
874. In humans, C genes only give you curly D. mosaicism
hair. S genes only give you straight hair.
If you are a heterozygote then you have 879. Genetic information is stored in which
wavy hair. Parent 1:Curly HairParent part of the cell?
2:Straight HairWhat are the phenotypes A. nucleus
of the offspring from the square?
B. cytoplasm
A. curly and straight
C. cell membrane
B. 1 curly, 2 wavy, 1 straight
D. mitochondria
C. 4 wavy
D. 2 curly, 2 straight 880. What is it called when two forms of a
trait are both dominant at the same time?
875. The parental genotypes (Gg and gg) can A. Incomplete dominance.
be described as being
B. Alleles.
A. Both homozygous recessive
C. Codominance
B. Heterozygous; homozygous recessive
D. Recessive.
C. Both heterozygous
D. Both homozygous dominant 881. When Mendel crossed purebred pea
plants having green pods with purebred
876. An organism’s characteristics are re- pea plants having yellow pods, the off-
ferred to as spring were
A. genes A. pure bread peas with green pods
B. traits B. pure bread peas with yellow pods
C. alleles C. hybrid peas with some green and
D. none of above some yellow pods
D. hybrid peas with all green pods.
877. How might a geneticist look at the vast
numbers of genes in a human? 882. If all four offspring are heterozygous or
A. by looking at sequences of DNA bases. hybrid, what are the genotypes of the par-
ents?
B. by slicing them with a sharp knife and
using a magnifying lens. A. RR, rr
C. high intensity CAT scans. B. rr, rr
D. extensive interviews with tiny aliens C. Rr, Rr

they secretly send into their test subjects. D. rr, Rr

883. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a B. they are sex cells such as sperm and
white chicken (WW) produces all speck- eggs
led offspring (BBWW). This type of inheri- C. a group of monks that studied inheri-
tance is known as tance
A. incomplete dominance. D. a group of kids hanging out at the
B. codominance. GameStop
C. polygenic inheritance.
888. If smooth seeds are dominant to wrin-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. multiple alleles. kled, what percentage of the offspring are
hybrid when a purebred smooth is crossed
884. The study of biological inheritance pat-
with a purebred wrinkled?
terns and variation of organisms is called
A. 100%
A. Genetics
B. 50%
B. Purebred
C. 25%
C. Traits
D. 0%
D. Cross
885. Gregor Mendel studied the inheritance of 889. Hybridization

traits in pea plants. One trait he exam- A. Continued breeding of individuals with
ined was the height of the plant. Pea similar characteristics to maintain the de-
plants with the dominant ‘T’ allele grew rived characteristics of a kind of organism
tall, and pea plants with the recessive al- B. Breeding technique that involves
lele ‘t’ were short. According to Mendel’s crossing dissimilar individuals to bring
principles of heredity, if a homozygous tall together the best traits of both organism
pea plant was crossed with a homozygous
short pea plant, approximately how many C. Process of manipulating organisms,
of their offspring would have the short cells, or molecules to produce specific
phenotype? products
A. 0% D. Method of breeding that allows only
B. 25%
istics to produce the next generation
C. 50%
890. In pea plants, the purple trait is dominant.
D. 100%
If a purebred purple plant crosses with a
886. The process of alleles separating during hybrid purple plant, the offspring will be
gamete formation is related to what?
A. dominance A. mostly white
B. survival of the fittest B. 75% purple; 25% white
C. segregation C. all purple
D. probability D. 50% purple; 50% white
887. What are gametes? 891. Human skin color is an example of what
A. parts of the pea plant that eventually type of inheritance?
become the stem and leaves A. Sex-linked traits

B. incomplete dominance 897. Mendel’s work on garden pea plants re-

C. multiple alleles sulted in the discovery that

A. genetic traits of parents always blend
D. polygenic traits.
together in subsequent generation
892. The process of transfer of hereditary B. genetic traits are passed down to off-
character from one generation to another spring and traceable in a genotype and
is known as ? sometimes in a phenotype.
A. Genes C. Off spring are always identical to par-
B. Mutation ents’ phenotype
C. Variation D. Offspring are never identical to par-

ents’ phenotype
D. Genetics
898. Both traits are present in hybrid off-
893. Having a pair of identical alleles spring, but without blending.
A. Heterozygous A. codominance
B. Genotype B. incomplete dominance
C. Phenotype C. multiple alleles
D. Homozygous D. simple dominance
894. having different alleles for a trait 899. A organism is the offspring of many
A. homozygous generations of organisms that have the
same trait.
B. heterozygous
A. dominant
C. homogeneous
B. probability
D. purebred
C. purebred
895. Define Alleles D. none of above
A. Molecule which contains the genetic in-
formation for an organism. 900. Synonymous (same) name for heterozy-
gous:
B. Different versions of the same gene.
A. heredity
C. all the chromosomes/DNA that code
B. homozygous
for an individual’s traits.
C. hyperactive
D. Condensed DNA that is visible during
cell division. D. hybrid
896. whats genotype? 901. In a Punnett square, all four predicted off-
spring are heterozygous where brown fur
A. physical appearance and inheritance
is dominant over white. Which statement
B. how an animal looks because of genes is true?
C. the genes that an organism carries for A. All four offspring have brown fur.
a particular trait B. Half of the offspring have white fur;
D. none of above half have brown fur.

C. 75% have brown fur. 906. Meiosis will start with one cell with a full
set of chromosomes and end with
D. 25% have brown fur.
A. 4 cells, each with half the amount of
902. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant chromosomes
with a short plant, the F1 (offspring) B. 4 cells, each with full set of chromo-
plants inherited somes
A. one allele from each parent C. 2 cells, each with half the amount of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. two alleles from each parent chromosomes
D. 2 cells, each with full set of chromo-
C. three alleles from each parent
somes
D. four alleles from each parent
907. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant
903. A pedigree CAN be used to with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited
A. determine whether a trait is inherited A. one allele from each parent.
B. show how a trait is passed from one B. two alleles from each parent.
generation to the next. C. three alleles from each parent.
C. determine whether an allele is domi- D. four alleles from each parent.
nant or recessive
908. Haploid means
D. all of the above
A. cells have double the amount of chro-
mosomes as the original cell.
904. In case red flower colour is dominant to
white flower colour which of these state- B. cells have half the amount of chromo-
ments is correct: somes as the original cell.
A. All red-flowered plants from red flow- C. cells have 1/4 of the chromosomes as
ered plants the original cell.
B. A few red-flowered plants from red- D. cells choose how many chromosomes
flowered plants they want it’s a free country!
C. Ration of red-flowered plants from 909. How many chromosomes are shown in a
white-flowered hybrid plants is 1:1 normal human karyotype?
D. Only white-flowered plants from white- A. 46
flowered plants B. 23
C. 2
905. If you sequence short pieces of DNA and
then use a computer to find overlapping D. 44
sequences that map to a much longer DNA
910. An alternative form of a gene is called a
fragment, you are using
A. Genomic A. chromosome
B. Hapmaps B. trait
C. Shotgun sequencing C. genotype
D. Open reading frame analysis D. allele

911. Which of the following is a hybrid? 916. Which blood types have two possible
A. BB genotypes?

B. bb A. Type O and AB
C. Bb B. Type A and AB
D. none of above C. Type B and O
912. The two-letter code that describes the ge- D. Type A and B
netic traits of an organism is called a-
A. Phenotype 917. What does it mean if two sets of chromo-
somes are homologous?
B. Genotype
C. Physical Appearance A. When sister Chromatids that are exact
duplicates of each other separate during
D. Intelligence Meiosis 3
913. T = tall and t = shortWhat is the pheno- B. Chromosomes that do not have corre-
type for Tt? lating genes to one another.
A. short C. Each of the chromosomes in the set
B. tall from the male parent has a corresponding
C. medium sized chromosome from the female parent.
D. neither tall or short D. Matching chromosomes from the male

parent is genetically identical to the one
914. Genetics from the female parent.
A. Gene located on a sex chromosome
918. Extracting a cell from an organism and us-
B. Scientific study of heredity
ing it to create a new organism by mitosis
C. Sex cells and cell differentiation in a lab setting is
D. Genetic Makeup of an organism known as
915. which one of these was not the result of A. transference

Mendel’s first experiments B. transduction
A. When Mendel crossed true breed pur- C. recombinant DNA
ple flowers with true breed white flowers,
all of the offspring in the F1 generation D. cloning
had purple flowers.
919. What did Mendel do to study differ-
B. After the F1 generation was left to self-
ent characteristics in his genetics experi-
pollinate, the F2 generation resulted in
ments?
705 purple flowered plants and 224 white
flowered plants A. he studied asexual plants only
C. Mendel found out that If the two alle- B. he studied only tall and short pea
les of a particular gene present in an indi- plants
vidual are the same, the individual is said
to be homozygous C. he cross pollinated plants
D. Ratio= 705:224 OR 3:1 D. he grew roses that were pink

920. A Heterozygous yellow pea plant’s geno- A. DNA contains thymine, RNA contains
type would be: uracil
A. YY B. DNA is single stranded, RNA is double
stranded
B. yy
C. DNA contains ribose, RNA contains de-
C. Yy oxyribose
D. Yg D. DNA is protein code, RNA is genetic
code
NARAYAN CHANGDER
921. Who is considered to the be the “Father
of Genetics”? 925. What does the prefix hetero- in heterozy-
A. Charles Darwin gous mean?
A. same
B. Robert Hooke
B. different
C. Gregor Mendel
C. dating
D. Matthias Schleiden
D. human
922. Which statement best describes the rela- 926. What phrase best describes meiosis I?
tionship between an allele and a gene?
A. duplication of paired chromosomes
A. An allele is a segment of a DNA
B. fusion of sister chromatids
molecule that controls replication of a
gene C. division of homologous chromosomes
B. An allele is the part of a gene that at- D. none of above
taches to messenger RNA molecules 927. Characteristics are determined by interac-
C. An allele is a variation of a gene that tion between genes and
can be expressed as a phenotype A. the environment
D. An allele is the primary protein made B. gravitational force
by a gene found in a developing embryo C. their host
923. Independent Assortment D. cellular respiration
A. One of Mendel’s principles that states 928. Choose the example of the homozygous
that genes for different traits can segre- genotype
gate independently during the formation A. Tt
of gametes
B. YyRr
B. Method of breeding that allows only
C. RR
istics to produce the next generation D. Dd
C. Mendel’s second conclusion, which 929. Identify the homozygous dominant geno-
states that some alleles are dominant and type:
others are recessive A. FF
D. none of above B. Ff
924. Which is a difference between DNA and C. ff
RNA? D. none of above

930. What did Gregor Mendel’s primary ex- C. 75%

periment consist of? D. 50%

A. Peas
935. An example of a trait that is determined
B. Flowers by multiple alleles is
C. Beans A. Cystic fibrosis
D. none of above B. ABO blood groups
931. A coin is flipped four times and comes up C. Down syndrome

heads each time. What is the probability D. Colorblindness
that the next coin flip will come up heads?
936. If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt,
A. 50:50 what is true of its parents
B. 1:4 A. Both parents were tall
C. 100% B. Both parents were short
D. 25:75 C. Both parents contributed a recessive
allele
932. If two purebred species (BB) are crossed,
D. a. Both parents contributed a domi-
what percentage of their offspring would
nant allele.
be BB?
A. 25% 937. When a capital letter is used, what kind
of allele is being represented?
B. 50%
A. Recessive Allele
C. 75%
B. Codominance
D. 100%
C. Punnett Squares
933. The number of chromosomes in a ga- D. Dominant Allele
mete(sex cells) is represented by the sym-
bol 938. The allele for cheek dimples (D) is domi-
nant to the allele for no cheek dimples (d).
A. 2N
Ben and Melissa both have dimples. Ben’s
B. X genotype is DD and Melissa’s genotype is
C. N Dd.What percentage of Ben and Melissa’s
future children will have dimples?
D. Y
A. 0%
934. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder B. 25%
that is controlled by a recessive allele. If
C. 50%
a person suffering from CF were to marry
an individual who is heterozygous for the D. 100%
trait, what % of their children could be ex-
939. DNA Fingerprinting
pected to unaffected carriers of the trait?
Ignore issues of sterility in persons with A. Tool used by biologists that analyzes
CF. an individual’s unique collection of DNA
A. 0% whether two samples of genetic material
B. 25% are from the same person

B. The technique used by biologists to 944. A HETEROZYGOUS individual would

make many copies of a particular gene have the genotype:
C. Glass slide or silicon cup that car- A. Hh
ries thousands of different kinds of single- B. hh
stranded DNA fragments arranged in a
grid. A DNA microarray is used to detect C. HH
and measure the expression of thousands D. Hi
of genes at one time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
945. What does homozygous mean?
D. none of above
A. an organism has two identical alleles
940. A single gene has 3 or more alleles. for a trait
These are called
B. an organism has two different alleles
A. multiple genes for a trait
B. multiple alleles C. the physical characteristics of a trait
C. codominance D. the actual genetic makeup of a charac-
D. polygenic traits teristic
941. Sex Chromosomes 946. One of two chromosomes that deter-

mines an individual’s sex
A. Offspring of crosses between parents
with different traits A. Sex Chromosome
B. One of two chromosomes that deter- B. Autosome
mines an individual’s sex C. Sex-Linked Gene
C. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo- D. Genome
some; also called autosomal chromosome
947. Which of the following best explains the
D. none of above results of letting the F1 purple hybrids self
pollinate?
942. How do geneticists use Punnett Squares? A. 100% Purple
A. to predict outcomes of genetic crosses B. 100% White
B. to predict which traits will be dominant C. 50% Purple, 50% White
C. to predict if two genes can be crossed D. 75% Purple, 25% White
D. to predict which traits will be reces-
sive 948. What is cross pollination?
A. When pollen from a flower fertilizes it-
943. Green peas are dominant (G) to yellow self or another flower on the same plant
peas (g). What is the genotype for a het-
ereozygous dominant offspring? B. When pollen from one flower fertilizes
a flower on a different plant
A. Gg
C. A plant whose offspring share the
B. gg same traits as the parent
C. GG D. A plant whose offspring is genetically
D. none of above different from the parent.

949. Incomplete dominance means that the probable explanation for these differences
traits are is that

A. expressed equally A. original genes of each twin increased
B. dominant in number as they developed
C. recessive B. one twin received genes only from
the mother while the other twin received
D. blended
genes only from the father
950. How did Gregor Mendel discover the ba- C. environments in which they were
sic principles of genetics? raised were different enough to affect the
A. Study of pea plants expression of their genes
B. Study of mice D. environments in which they were
raised were different enough to change
C. Study of corn
the genetic makeup of both individuals
D. study of bats
954. A cross that involves a single inheritable
951. Coat color in cats is a sex-linked trait con- trait is called a cross
trolled by two genes, black and orange-
brown, located on the X chromosome. Het- A. dihybrid
erozygous cats will have a calico color, and B. test
homozygous cats will be black if they re-
ceived the black gene or orange-brown if C. monohybrid
they received the orange-brown gene. If D. mendelian
a black male and an orange-brown female
have kittens, what percentage of male kit- 955. The sex of a person depends on
tens would be expected to have the calico A. the genetic makeup of autosomes
color? found in the egg cell
A. 0%
B. the genetic makeup of autosomes
B. 25% found in the sperm cell
C. 50% C. whether the unfertilized egg contains
D. 75% an X or Y-chromosome
D. whether the sperm that fertilizes the
952. Hemophilia is a x-linked disorder. A
egg contains an X or Y-chromosome
woman is a carrier for the disorder. Which
is the correct genotype? 956. Genetic Marker
A. Hh
A. The technique used by biologists to
B. XHXh make many copies of a particular gene
C. hh B. DNA produced by combining DNA from
D. XhXh different sources
C. Alleles that produce detectable pheno-
953. Scientific studies show that identical
typic differences useful in genetic analy-
twins who were separated at birth and
sis
raised in different homes may vary in
height, weight, and intelligence. The most D. none of above

957. A Punnett Square shows all the following C. Sequence of DNA that codes for a pro-
EXCEPT tein and thus determines a trait; factor
A. All possible results of a genetic cross that is passed from the parent to offspring
B. The genotypes of the offspring

D. none of above
C. The genotypes of each parent
D. The actual results of a genetic cross 962. The phenotype is the
958. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- A. physical appearance of an organism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
GAA in transcription? B. Genetic makeup
A. AUGCUU C. Alleles acquired from a specific parent.
B. ATGCTT
C. GCATCC D. none of above
D. GCAUCC
963. If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indi-
959. In fruit flies, the gene for eye color is cation that the trait is
located on the X chromosomes, and the A. dominant
red eye allele (R) is dominant to the white
eye allele (r). A female fly with genotype B. recessive
XRXr is mated with a male fly with geno- C. incompletely dominant
type XrY. Which of the following state-
D. co-dominant
ments best describes the expected out-
come of the cross? 964. Principle of Dominance
A. The chance of an offspring having red
A. Micrograph of the complete diploid
eyes is 75%
B. The chance of an offspring having pairs, arranged in order of decreasing
white eyes is 50% size
C. The chance that a male offspring will B. The technique used by biologists to
have white eyes is 0% make many copies of a particular gene
D. The chance that a female offspring will C. Mendel’s second conclusion, which
have red eyes is 100% states that some alleles are dominant and
960. A sudden change in the gene which is others are recessive
heritable from one generation to other is D. One of Mendel’s principles that states
known as? that genes for different traits can segre-
A. Variation gate independently during the formation
of gametes
B. Cloning
C. Totipotency 965. Meiosis results in the formation of
D. Mutation A. diploid cells
961. Sex-Linked Gene B. haploid cells
A. Gene located on a sex chromosome C. 2N daughter cells
B. genetic makeup of an organism D. body cells

966. If a gene is found only on the X chromo- C. They are homozygous for blood type A
some and not the Y chromosome, it is said D. They can have only type O children
to be what?

A. sex-linked trait 972. Mitotic cell division results in two cells
that have:
B. polygenic trait
A. n chromosomes and are genetically
C. codominant trait identical
D. incomplete dominance trait B. n chromosomes and are genetically dif-
967. Chart that shows the presence or absence ferent.
of a trait according to the relationships C. 2n chromosomes and are genetically
within a family across several generations identical.
A. Pedigree D. 2n chromosomes and are genetically
B. Genomics different
C. Genome 973. In Deoxyribonucleic acid, Adenine pairs

D. Nondisjunction with the nitrogen base
A. cytosine
968. Cross between individuals for a single
contrasting trait B. uracil
A. Monohybrid C. guanine
B. Hybrid D. thymine
C. Genohybrid 974. In bunnies, black fur is dominant over

D. none of above white fur. If 50% of one generation of
bunnies have white fur, what were the
969. How many traits did Mendel study in his probable genotypes of the parents?
pea plants? A. TT x tt
A. 1 B. Tt x Tt
B. 3 C. Tt x tt
C. 5 D. tt x tt
D. 7
975. An example of polygenic inheritance is
970. What is an acquired trait?
A. going to walmart A. Skin Color
B. shopping at Target B. hitch hikers thumb
C. a trait that you get during your lifetime C. blood types
D. something cool D. none of above
971. Which is a true statement about people 976. T = Tall; t = short and Y = Yellow seeds;
with the genotype AB for a blood type? y = green seedsWhat is the phenotype for
A. They have two alleles that are codomi- a plant that is Ttyy?
nant A. Tall and green seeds
B. They exhibit a type O phenotype B. Short and yellow seeds

C. Tall and yellow seeds C. recessive alleles

D. Short and green seeds D. dominant alleles
977. The study of heredity 983. A tetrad consists of

A. genetics A. a homologous pair of chromosomes,
B. botany each made of 2 chromatids
C. anatomy B. the 4 copies of a chromosome that are
normally present in cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Zoology
C. 2 sister chromatids that have each
978. condition that causes colorless hair, skin, been replicated during interphase
and eyes
D. a parental chromosome that was repli-
A. homozygous cated to form a pair, then replicated agai
B. genes
984. The measure of the likelihood of an event
C. albinism occurring.
D. Punnett square A. pure line
979. Which of the following BEST describes a B. self-pollinate
genotype with Pp? C. probability
A. Homozygous dominant D. F1 generation
B. Heterozygous
985. In Mendel’s pea plants, the homozygous
C. Homozygous recessive recessive phenotype was white flowers.
D. Heterozygous dominant If Mendel crossed two homozygous reces-
sive pea plants, what color flowers would
980. Which of these characters is dominant be seen in the offspring?
A. Axial position of flowers A. white and purple
B. Apical position of flowers B. white
C. Green colour of cotyledons C. purple
D. Wrinkled shape of seeds D. lavendar
981. Who used pea plants to study the inheri- 986. Hybrid
tance of traits?
A. Offspring of crosses between parents
A. Hippocrates with different traits
B. Gregor Mendel B. Micrograph of the complete diploid
C. Socrates set of chromosomes grouped together in
D. None of the above pairs, arranged in order of decreasing
size
982. Phenotype refers to the of an individ- C. Having two identical alleles for a par-
ual ticular gene
A. genetic makeup D. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo-
B. physical appearance some; also called autosomal chromosome

987. Variation in human skin color is an exam- 993. Why did Mendel carry out an experiment
ple of following two genes as they passed from
one generation to the next?

A. incomplete dominance
B. codominance A. He wanted to determine if the segrega-
tion of one pair of alleles affects another
C. polygenic traits pair of alleles.
D. multiple alleles
B. He wanted to know what determines
988. The scientific study of heredity is called biological inheritance.
C. He wanted to show that some alleles
A. Genetics are dominant and some alleles are reces-
sive.
B. Mitosis
D. He wanted to determine if recessive
C. Meiosis
traits would disappear when genes were
D. Mendelism crossed.
989. Normal human eggs have: 994. The trait that covers up or dominates an-
A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome. other form of the trait
B. 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome. A. recessive
C. 23 autosomes. B. dominant
D. 46 chromosomes. C. strong
990. Sex cells produced by meiosis have D. weak
the number of chromosomes as the parent
995. Homozygous
cells.
A. twice A. Having two identical alleles for a par-
ticular gene
B. half
B. Gene that has more than two alleles
C. thrice
C. Having two different alleles for a par-
D. 100% ticular gene
991. During which stage of meiosis does cross- D. Term used to refer to a cell that con-
ing over occur? tains only a single set of genes
A. Prophase I
996. Holly’s parents both have brown hair and
B. Anaphase I brown eyes. Her mother has pale skin and
C. Telophase II always wears her hair in a ponytail, but
her father has dark skin and keeps his hair
D. Metaphase II
cut very short. Which trait can Holly not
992. Specific colors or features (ex:BLUE eyes) inherit from her parents?
A. charactertistic A. hair color
B. trait B. hairstyle
C. genes C. eye color
D. alleles D. skin color

997. In this Punnett square, the two parents 1002. genetic make-up of an organism is
are heterozygous for green hair (G) What known as its
is the percent probability that they will A. gamete
produce offspring who also have green
hair? B. dominant
A. 25% C. genotype
B. 50% D. phenotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 75% 1003. Mendel selected which of the following
traits for his studies
D. 100%
A. Stem length (tall or dwarf), flower po-
998. Gregor Mendel’s “P” Generation con- sition (apical or axial)
sisted of plants which were with op-
B. Flower colour (purple or white), seed
posite traits.
shape (round or wrinkled)
A. Purebred
C. Colour of pod (green or yellow), cotyle-
B. Hybrid don colour (yellow or green)
C. Heterozygous D. All of these
D. Incompletely Dominant 1004. What type of gene mutation has
occurred here? Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-
999. A recessive trait is observed when an or-
GCGMutant-AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
ganism has recessive genetic factor(s).
A. deletion frameshift
A. 0
B. insertion frameshift
B. 1
C. substitution
C. 2
D. nonsense
D. 3
1005. Organisms that have two identical alle-
1000. Autosomes les for a particular trait are said to
A. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo- A. hybrid
some; also called autosomal chromosome
B. homozygous
B. One of two chromosomes that deter-
mines an individual’s sex C. heterozygous
D. dominant
C. Entire set of genetic information that
an organism carries in its DNA 1006. How is Huntington’s Disease inherited?
D. none of above A. Environmental problems
1001. The section of a chromosome (chemical B. Recessive Trait
factors) that determine traits are called C. Dominant trait
A. alleles D. Problems during pregnancy
B. traits
1007. A homozygous recessive genotype is
C. genes shown by which of the following? (3B1)
D. characters A. TT

B. Tt 1012. results from a crosses between parents

C. TS with different traits

A. gamete
D. tt
B. gene
1008. What type of inheritance do two alleles
C. allele
have if their traits blend together?
D. hybrid
B. Co-Dominance 1013. The color black is dominant in guinea
pigs. The phenotypes of homozygous
C. Mendelian Inheritance (Complete black guinea pigs and heterozygous black
Dominance) guinea pigs are:
D. Homozygous Inheritance A. black
1009. Fertilization B. gray
A. Process in which the number of chro- C. BB and Bb
mosomes per cell is cut in half through the D. white
separation of homologous chromosomes
in a diploid cell 1014. Through conducting many experiments
with pea plants, Gregor Mendel discov-
B. Separation of alleles during gamete ered three basic principles that guide the
formation inheritance of traits. Which concept is a
C. Offspring of crosses between parents part of his explanation?
with different traits A. Codominance
D. Process in sexual reproduction in B. Dominance
which male and female reproductive cells
C. Multiple alleles
join to form a new cell
D. Sex linkage
1010. In pea plants, green is dominant to yel-
low. A green pea plant (Gg) is crossed 1015. In rats, black coat color (B) is dominant
with a yellow pea plant (gg). What are to white coat color (b). When a black rat
all the possible genotypes that result from was crossed with a white rat, some white
this set of parents? offspring occurred. What was the geno-
type of the black rat?
A. GG, Gg, gg
A. BB
B. Gg, gg
B. Bb
C. Gg
C. bb
D. gg D. B
1011. A trait that is always expressed if 1016. Sex-Linked traits affect more
present is
A. Males
A. recessive
B. Females
B. dominant
C. They affect females and males equally
C. strong D. There is no such thing as a sex-linked
D. true trait

1017. The letter P in a “P” Generation stands A. 25%

for: B. 50%
A. Probability C. 75%
B. Puppy D. 100%
C. Punnet 1023. What does the prefix homo- in homozy-
D. Parent gous mean?
A. same
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1018. likelihood that a particular event will oc-
cur is known as B. different
A. fact C. dating
B. guess D. humans
C. probability 1024. What does a Punnent square deter-
D. none of the above mine?
A. the genotype of an offspring
1019. Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
B. the phenotype of an offspring
which organisms?
C. how likely a genotype will appear in an
A. Pea plants only
offspring
B. Plants only
D. how many offspring there will be
C. Animals only
1025. In chickens, feather color is codominant.
D. All organisms If a black chicken BB is mated with one
that is black and white (BW) what are the
1020. What are sex cells that contain only one
chances of having a chicken that is black
set of chormosomes?
and white?
A. gametes
A. 50%
B. zygotes
B. 0%
C. sperm C. 25%
D. eggs D. 100%
1021. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals 1026. reduction division that produces gamete
(BB) and white individuals (bb) are ho-
A. mitosis
mozygous. Heterozygous individuals are
grey (Bb). Cross a black fowl with a white B. meiosis
fowl. What is the phenotype ratio? C. replication
A. 4 black:0 grey:0 white D. translation
B. 2 black:2 grey:0 white 1027. multiple allelism is due to
C. 0 black:4 grey:0 white A. presence of two alleles in population
D. 0 black:2 grey:2 white B. presence of more than two alleles in
population
1022. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed
with a short plant. The probability that an C. none of the above
F1 plant will be tall is D. all the above

1028. Two heterozygous people marry. Each C. the alleles are absent
has a dominant allele C for curly hair and D. the alleles are present
a recessive allele c for straight hair. Using

a Punnette square, determine the pheno- 1033. The genetic makeup of an organism
typic ratio, curly hair:straight hair, in their A. Genotype
children
B. Phenotype
A. 3:1
C. Blood type
B. 9:3:3:1
D. Prototype
C. 1:3:1
D. 1:2:1 1034. When the genotype consists of a domi-
nant and a recessive allele, the phenotype
1029. The different forms of a gene are called will be like the allele.
A. dominant
A. traits
B. recessive
B. Kelly and Wilder
C. both
C. allele
D. neither
D. Chromosomes
1035. An allele represented by a lower case
1030. What is the genotype for a pea plant letter. The allele that masked or hidden.
heterozygous for round seeds (R), and ho-
A. Recessive
mozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
B. Dominant
A. Ry
C. Little
B. rrYy
D. Large
C. RrYy
D. Rryy 1036. why did Mendel conduct experiments on
pea plants
1031. In humans, blood types exhibit both
A. They have many different characteris-
dominance, codominance, and multiple al-
tics that have two distinct forms
leles. The following genotypes are listed
for each blood type.AA or AO= Type A OO= B. They are self-pollinating (can fertil-
Type O BB or BO= Type BAB= Type AB ize themselves) because each flower has
Parent 1:Homozygous for Type A Blood- both male and female parts
Parent 2:Type O BloodWhat is the proba- C. They are “low maintenance” plants-
bility of getting type A? Easy to care for-Rapid life cycle
A. 0% D. all of the above
B. 25%
1037. Identify the homozygous recessive
C. 50% genotype:
D. 100% A. RR
1032. Homozygous is when B. Rr
A. the alleles are the same C. rr
B. the alleles are different D. none of above

4.2 Crop Physiology 666
1038. If two parents who are homozygous C. Homologous

recessive for a certain trait are crossed, D. Genetics
what is the probability of having a child
who does not have their trait? 1042. What is an advantage of sexual repro-
A. 0.5 (50%) duction?
B. 0.25 (25%) A. Allows genetic variation

B. Only needs one parent
C. 1 (100%)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Offspring are exact copies of parent
D. 0
D. none of above
1039. In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked
trait. Red is dominant to white. What 1043. having the same alleles for a trait
would be the percentages of offspring of A. homozygous
a cross of a white eyed female with a red-
B. heterozygous
eyed male?
C. phenotype
A. 1 female white eyes, 1 female red-
eyes, 1 male white eyes, 1 male red-eyes D. gentoype
B. 2 female red eyes, 2 males white eyes 1044. If a man with blood type A and a woman
C. 2 female white eyes, 2 males red eyes with blood type B produce an offspring,
what might be the offsping’s blood type?
D. 2 female red eyes, 1 male red eyes, 1
male white eyes A. A, B, or O
B. AB only
1040. An example of alleles is:
C. AB or O
A. AB and Tt.
D. A, B, AB, or O
B. TT and Tt.
1045. Each pea plant had alleles for each
C. T and t.
trait.
D. X and Y.
A. 1
1041. Different forms of a gene. B. 2
A. Heterozygous C. 3
B. Allele D. 4
4.2 Crop Physiology

1. Which of the following is NOT involved in out of the xylem using active transport
moving water up a plant? D. Casparian Strip in the roots, which
A. Capillary action made possible by the helps maintain high pressure of water in
tube-shaped cells the roots
B. Transpiration in the leaves, which 2. The opening and closing of stomata are
helps maintain low pressure in the leaves regulated by
C. Companion cells pumping water in and A. Guard cells

B. Xylem vessels 8. Contains the male reproductive cells of the

plant
C. Starch

A. hypocotyl
D. Lignin
B. radical
3. What is the cotyledon’s job? C. pollen
A. feed the seed D. ovule
B. protect the seed
9. What are the products of photosynthesis?
C. reproduction A. water and carbon dioxide
D. it has no function B. oxygen and glucose
4. Roots absorb and for plants? C. oxygen and carbon dioxide
A. Water and Nutrients D. oxygen and water
B. Soil and Sun 10. Vascular tissue not only transports mate-
rial it also
C. Warmth and Water
A. protects the plant
D. Soil and Water
B. supports the plant structurally
5. THE VASCULAR CAMBIUM NORMALLY C. transports minerals
GIVES RISE TO
D. transports energy
A. PRIMARY PHLOEM
11. Why does chlorophyll make plants appear
B. SECONDARY XYLEM green?
C. PERIDERM A. Reflecting all colors expect green
D. none of above B. Absorbing all colors and reflecting
back green
6. How is collenchyma and sclerenchyma tis-
sue similar? C. Not absorbing any colors
D. Leaves aren’t green, what do you
A. They both provide protection for the
mean?!
plant
B. They both transport material through- 12. Which term is the part of photosynthesis
out the plant when light energy is captured and trans-
ferred to a molecule, such as ATP?
C. They both provide support
A. light- independent reactions
D. They both provide energy for the plant
B. cellular respiration
7. which of the following is a reactant to pho- C. light- dependent reactions
tosynthesis? D. photosynthesis
A. Oxygen
13. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MADE UP
B. Carbohydrates OF DEAD CELLS?
C. Glucose A. COLLENCHYMA
D. Water B. PHLOEM

C. SCLERENCHYMA 19. what are the elements that are essential

for plant growth?
D. none of above
A. iron zinc and boron
14. Which structure controls what enters and B. copper iron and nitrogen
leaves the cell?
C. nitrogen phosphorus and potassium
A. cell wall
D. nitrogen potassium and calcium
B. nucleus
20. What is the function of companion cells in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. plasma membrane phloem?
D. golgi A. To produce lignin
15. What tissue type defends the plant from B. Control and maintain the sieve tube
physical damage and pathogens? C. Control movement of water in the tra-
cheids
A. Ground tissue
D. none of above
B. Protective tissue
C. Vascular tissue 21. Which structure contains DNA and controls
the cells processes?
D. Dermal tissue
A. mitochondria
16. What is the natural environment for the B. vaculole
root zone? C. nucleus
A. Water D. golgi
B. Air 22. What are the words above and below the
C. Soil equal sign of the photosynthesis equation?
D. none of above A. Light Energy, Chlorophyll
B. Chlorophyll, Light Energy
17. The first root of the embryo is known as
C. Glucose, Water
the
D. Water, Glucose
A. root hairs
B. radicle 23. There are 3 types of transpiration except
A. Cuticular transpiration
C. hypocotyl
B. Stomatal transpiration
D. seed coat
C. Lenticular transpiration
18. Which of the following process creates the D. Chlorophyll transpiration
most ATP during aerobic cellular respira-
tion? 24. Plant nutrition is
A. Glycolysis A. plant food added to the plant pot
B. use of basic chemical elements in the
B. Calvin cycle
plant
C. Electron transport chain
C. chemical process providing plants
D. Citric acid cycle with elements of growth

D. the measuement of acidity (sourness) 30. The part of the plant that water travels
and alkalinity (sweetness) through.
A. xylem

25. What is needed to increase surface area to
absorb more water? B. phloem
A. leaves C. seed
B. stems D. stigma
C. root hairs 31. Which type of meristem is correctly paired
with the type of growth it does?
D. xylems
A. apical - makes plant wider/thicker
26. What is the process is where living cells
B. lateral - makes leaves longer
take in oxygen and give off carbon diox-
ide? C. axillary - makes new leaves and
branches
A. respiration
D. cambium/intercalary - makes plant
B. photosynthesis taller
C. celluar respiration
32. Attracts animals that help the parent plant
D. oxygen with seed dispersal
27. Promotes cell division and prevents senes- A. pollen
cence (cell breakdown) B. leaves
A. Gibberellin C. stems
B. Auxin D. fruits
C. Cytokinins 33. What is the most essential ingredient for
D. Ethylene all living things?
A. Air
28. Where do the light-dependent reactions oc-
B. Water
cur?
C. Soil
A. thylakoid membrane
D. none of above
B. stroma
C. mesophyll 34. What is the site of photosynthesis?
A. Cell Wall
D. mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
29. Chlorophyll
C. Chloroplast
A. Is the substance that gives plant D. none of above
leaves their green color.
35. Site of β -oxidation is and Mitochon-
B. Small membrane bound bodies inside
dria.
the cell that contain the green chlorophyll
pigment. A. Chloroplast
C. Conversion of Carbon Dioxide. B. Glyoxysomes
D. Most important life-sustaining pro- C. Peroxisomes
cess. D. Golgi complex

36. What structure uses light to do photosyn- C. Relative humidity

thesis?
D. Rain
A. vacuole
B. mitochondria 42. What is significance of transpiration
C. chloroplast A. Maintenance of turgidity
D. nucleus B. Helps in gaseous exchange
37. What plant tissue transports material be- C. Cooling effect for plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tween the root and the shoot of the plant D. All of the above
A. Ground tissue
B. Apical tissue 43. A MAJOR CHARACTERISTIC OF MONOCOT
ROOT IS THE PRESENCE OF
C. dermal tissue
A. SCATTERED VASCULAR BUNDLES
D. Vascular tissue
B. VASCULATURE WITHOUT CAMBIUM
38. What is the region of rapid cell division
(growth) in plants? C. OPEN VASCULA BUNDLE
A. Guard D. none of above

B. Stomata
44. Which type of transpiration have maxi-
C. Xylem mum loss of water (80-90% total water
D. Meristem loss)
A. Cuticular transpiration
39. This is a tissue in plant stems and roots.
It transports water and minerals upwards B. Stomatal transpiration
from the roots to the stem, via capillary
C. Leaf transpiration
action.
A. Xylem D. Guard cell transpiration
B. Phloem 45. What part of the plant does photosynthe-

C. Photosynthesis sis occur?
D. Oxygen A. roots
40. The study of structural and functional rela- B. leaves
tionship of plant is known as C. flower petals
A. Plant Embryology
D. pollen
B. Plant physiology
C. Plant Anatomy 46. What structure helps to anchor the plant
in the soil?
D. Plant Ecology
A. leaf
41. Which of the following is NOT external fac-
tors affecting transpiration B. flower
A. Temperature C. stem
B. Wind and air movement D. root

47. Poison Ivy growing on a tree by touch. C. respiration

A. Gravitropism D. photosynthesis

B. Phototropism 52. What is the most important life-sustaining
C. Thigmotropism process?
D. Hydrotropism A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
48. What are the steps of Respiration?
C. Respiration
A. Food is used for plant energy, Occurs
in all cells, Energy is released, Oxygen is D. none of above
used, Carbon Dioxide is produced, Water
53. ROOT HAIRS DEVELOP FROM THE RE-
is produced, It occurs in light and dark
GION OF
B. Food is used for plant energy, Energy
A. MERISTEMATIC ACTIVITY
is released, Occurs in all cells, Oxygen is
used, Water is produced, Carbon Dioxide B. ROOT CAP
is produced, It occurs in light and dark C. MATURATION
C. Food is used for plant energy, Energy D. none of above
is released, Occurs in all cells, Water is
produced, Oxygen is used, Carbon Dioxide 54. How is pith and cortex ground tissue dif-
is produced, It occurs in light and dark ferent.
D. none of above A. pith is external to the vascular tissue
and cortex is internal to the vascular tis-
49. is a stack of thylakoids sue
A. Granum B. Pith is internal to the vascular tissue-
B. Stomata and cortex is external to the vascular tis-
sue
C. Stroma
C. Pith is a vascular tissue and cortex is
D. Chloroplast a ground tissue
50. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACILITATES D. Pith is in the ground and cortex is on
OPENING OF STOMATAL APERTURE? the surface
A. DECREASE IS TURGIDITY OF GUARD 55. What is the function of phloem
CELL
A. To transport food/sugar
B. RADIAL ORIENTATION OF CELLULOSE
B. to transport lignin
CELL WALL OF GUARD CELL
C. To transport water
C. CONTRACTION OF OUTER WALL OF
GUARD CELL D. none of above
D. none of above 56. The walls of xylem tissue are reinforced
with
51. The process through which plants leaves,
stems and roots consume oxygen and give A. Concrete
off carbon dioxide is? B. Lignin
A. absorption C. Starch
B. translocation D. Glucose

57. Where does the Calvin Cycle occur? 62. Citrus growers and the U.S. Horticultural
Research Laboratory have been studying
A. thylakoid
the disease citrus blight since what year?
B. stroma
A. 1891
C. lumen B. 1872
D. mitochondria C. 1895
58. The study of functions and the complex D. 1892
NARAYAN CHANGDER
chemical processes that allow plants to
63. YOU ARE GIVEN A FAIRLY ONLY PIECE OF
grow is known as
DICOT STEM AND A DICOT ROOT. WHICH
A. plant taxonomy OF THE FOLLOWING ANATOMICAL STRUC-
B. plant physiology TURE WILL YOU USE TO DISTINGUISH BE-
TWEEN THE TWO?
C. plant nutrition
A. SECONDARY XYLEM / PHLOEM
D. photosynthesis
B. PROTOXYLEM
59. Damaging the bark of a tree is bad for the C. CORTICAL CELLS
tree for all the the following reasons EX- D. none of above
CEPT
A. bark protects the tree from pathogens 64. In what process does the plant give up wa-
ter vapor to the atmosphere?
B. damaged cambium, which is just under
the bark, could prevent future growth A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. doing so could damage the phloem and
affect sugar transport C. Respiration
D. xylem, which is just under the bark, D. none of above
won’t be able to transport water
65. Transpiration also occurs in what?
60. quanta of light is needed for fixation A. flowers
of 6 CO2 molecules.
B. roots
A. 8 C. stems
B. 12 D. leaves
C. 48
66. The rate at which photosynthesis is carried
D. 6 out depends on
61. Photosynthesis will work best in which A. the amount of fertilizer in the water
temperature range B. the amount of oxygen in the atmost-
A. 50-60 degrees F phere
C. the light intensity, gtemperature, and
B. 60-70 degrees F
concentration of carbon dioxide
C. 65-85 degrees F
D. the amount of respiration carried on
D. 85-95 degrees F durring the daylight hours

67. Plants need carbon dioxide from their en- C. Tracheids and sieve tubes
vironment to produce glucose during which D. Xylem vessels and tracheids
stage of photosynthesis?

A. The light-dependent stage 73. Chloroplasts
B. The light-independent stage (The A. Essential to the process.
Calvin Cycle) B. Small membrane bound bodies inside
C. The electron transport chain the cell that contain the green chlorophyll
pigment.
D. ATP formation
C. Most important life-sustaining pro-
68. What two materials are needed for photo- cess.
synthesis?
D. All living cells carry on the process of
A. Water and soil. repiration
B. Carbon dioxide and water.
74. Helps fruit ripen
C. Carbon dioxide and chlorophyll.
A. Auxin
D. Peanut butter and jelly.
B. Gibberellin
69. Which layer of cells in the leaf conducts the
C. Cytokinins
majority of photosynthesis?
D. Ethylene
A. root cells
B. pallisade 75. What molecule absorbs sunlight for photo-
C. spongy mesophyll synthesis?
D. guard cells A. chloroplast

B. thylakoid
70. AGE OF A TREE CAN BE ESTIMATED BY
C. grana
A. ITS HEIGHT AND GIRTH
D. chlorophyll
B. BIOMASS
C. NUMBER OF ANNUAL RINGS 76. What’s the temperature range of photo-
synthesis?
D. none of above
A. 60-80
71. How does Photosystem II create O2?
B. 70-80
A. It reduces H2O into H+ and O
C. 65-85
B. O2 is actually generated in the Calvin
Cycle D. 75-85
C. It Oxidizes H2O into H+ and O 77. Removing the apical bud of a plant will
D. Oxygen atoms are assembled in Photo- A. stop all further growth
system II
B. promote the production of new axillary
72. Xylem tissue is composed of which two buds, making the plant bushier
types of cells C. make it grow taller, faster
A. Xylem vessels and companion cells D. prevent the plant from getting thicker,
B. Xylem vessels and sieve tubes making it floppy

78. Transpiration 83. VASCULAR BUNDLE IN MONOCOTYLE-

A. Process by which a plant gives up wa- DONS ARE CONSIDERED CLOSED BECAUSE
ter vapor to the atmosphere.
B. A series of processes in which solar A. CAMBIUM IS ABSENT
energy is converted to chemical energy. B. XYLEM IS SURROUNDED ALL AROUND
C. Process by which living cells take in BY PHLOEM
oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide. C. A BUNDLE SHEATH SURROUNDS EACH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Study of how these organs function BUNDLE
and the complex chemical processes that D. none of above
permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
duce. 84. What part of the leaf is responsible for gas
exchange?
79. Transporting sugar from the leaf down to
the roots is done by the A. pallisade cells
A. xylem B. spongy mesophyll
B. phloem C. cotyledon
C. cotyledon D. stomata and guard cells

D. pallisade cells 85. Which structure is made of mature, living,
fully functioning cells?
80. Plant Physiologists are responsible for
studying and researching what? A. vessel elements of xylem
A. process of plant development B. sieve tube cells of xylem
B. how respiration works C. tracheid cells of phloem
C. process of plant growth and develop- D. companion cells of phloem
ment
86. Chlorophyll is important in plants because
D. how photosynthesis works
A. creats an atmosphere where it can de-
81. In woody plants the dermal tissue is called termine the osmotic presure
the
B. allows the plant to make good xylem
A. dermal tissue
B. periderm C. make sit possible for plants to grow
C. epidermis D. it takes carbon dioxide and makes oxy-
D. phloem gen
82. What part of the seed helps to protect the 87. What occurs in the Calvin Cycle of photo-
embryo? synthesis?
A. embryo A. nothing happens there is no energy
B. seed coat B. glucose is synthesized from CO2
C. root C. Oxygen is being converted into sugar
D. leaves D. energy is generated in the form of ATP

88. What is photosynthesis? 93. Which structure is the main site of photo-
synthesis?
A. The process plants use to turn carbon

dioxide and water into food. A. stem
B. The process plants use to chlorophyll B. roots
and sunlight into air. C. leaves
C. The process plants use to turn sunlight D. flowers
and chlorophyll into soil.
D. The process plants use to turn choco- 94. This is plant tissue that conducts nutrients
late and milk into chocolate milk. (food) through the plant.
A. Xylem
89. Which process directly requires energy?
B. Phloem
A. absorption of minerals in the root
C. Photosynthesis
B. movement of water up the xylem
D. DNA
C. transpiration in the leaves
95. Photosynthesis
D. movement of sugar in the phloem
A. A series of processes in which solar
90. What effect does citrus blight have on cit- energy is converted to chemical energy.
rus trees. B. Process by which living cells take in
A. kills them oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide.
B. helps the tree produce more fruit C. Process by which a plant gives up wa-
C. renders a tree worthless for fruit pro-
duction and kills them D. Study of how these organs function
and the complex chemical processes that
D. does stuff
permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
duce.
91. The two main functions of roots are to ab-
sorb water and minerals and to the 96. In the absence of oxygen, follows gly-
plant. colysis.
A. anchor A. Kreb cycle
B. gather sunshine for B. ETC
C. protect C. Fermentation
D. none of above D. Calvin cycle
92. Which of the following is not internal fac- 97. The female reproductive cells are found in
tors affecting transpiration the
A. Plant cuticle A. seed
B. Number of stomata B. pollen
C. Temperature C. ovule
D. Number of leaves D. root

98. Nutrients are absorbed by the root hairs C. respiration

by
D. photosynthesis
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion 103. Respiration
C. Active transport A. Process by which a plant gives up wa-
B. A series of processes in which solar
99. Process in which food substances are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
energy is converted to chemical energy.
moved to the rest of plant by phloem is
known as C. Process by which living cells take in
oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide.
A. transpiration
B. respiration D. Study of how these organs function
and the complex chemical processes that
C. photosynthesis permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
D. translocation duce.
100. Which structure prepares proteins and 104. CORTEX IS THE REGION FOUND BE-
transports them to the golgi? TWEEN
A. golgi A. ENDODERMIS & PITH
B. nucleus
B. ENDODERMIS & VASCULAR BUNDLE
C. chloroplast
C. EPIDERMIS & STELE
D. endoplasmic reticulum
D. none of above
101. Steps of Photosynthesis-
A. Food is produced, Occurs in cells con- 105. Which of the following is the correct
taining chloroplasts, Energy is stored, Car- equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
bon Dioxide is used, Oxygen is released, A. light + carbon dioxide + water → glu-
Water is used, it occurs in sunlight cose + oxygen
B. Food is produced, Energy is stored, B. carbon dioxide + sugar + water →
Oxygen is released, Occurs in cells con- oxygen + light
taining chloroplasts, oxygen is released,
water is used, Carbon Dioxide is used, It C. oxygen + light + water → carbon
occurs in sunlight dioxide + sugar
C. Food is produced, Energy is stored, Oc- D. carbon dioxide + oxygen + water →
curs in cells containing chloroplasts, Oxy- Light+ Sugar
gen is released, Water is used, Carbon
Dioxide is used, It occurs in sunlight 106. THE MORPHOLOGICAL NATURE OF THE
EDIBLE PART OF COCONUT IS
D. none of above
A. COTYLEDONS
102. The purpose of the palisade layer in the
leaf is to carry out B. ENDOSPERM
A. Gaseous exchange C. PERICARP
B. transpiration D. none of above

4.3 Plant Breeding 677
107. P680 is part of while P700 is part of A. Both are plants organ and act as stor-
age

A. Calvin Cycle / Photosystems II and I B. Sugar sink can be either roots, fruit or
B. Photosystem II / Photosystem I mature leaves and sugar source is shoots
C. Photosystems II and I / Calvin Cycle C. Sugar source is where sugar enters
D. Photosystem I / Photosystem II the phloem and sugar sink is where sugar
exits the phloem
108. What is the function of Xylem
D. Companion tube carry food from a
A. To transport food sugar source to a sugar sink
B. To transport lignin
111. What is the first process in photosynthe-
C. To transport water sis?
D. none of above
A. Photosystem I
109. What type of cells makes leaves some- B. Photosystem II
what flexible
C. Calvin Cycle
A. collenchyma, which are unevenly think
D. Dark Reactions
B. parenchyma, which are high in mito-
chondria needed to change shape
112. The membrane enclosed the vacuole is
C. Sclerenchyma (scleroid cells) which called
are gritty
A. plasmalema
D. Sclerenchyma, which have think cell
walls high in lignin B. cell membrane
C. endoplasm
110. What is the best words to describe sugar
source and sugar sink D. tonoplast
4.3 Plant Breeding

1. Which of the following is example for Of- 3. Which 2 are examples of genetic varia-
ten cross pollinated crop? tion?
A. Sorghum A. Scars and gender
B. Almond B. Height and natural hair colour
C. Banana C. Natural eye colour and gender
D. Cherry D. Gender and hair colour
2. What occurs during cytokinesis? 4. A geneticist crossed homozygous, domi-

nant green pod color pea plants (GG) with
A. binary fission takes place homozygous recessive yellow pod color
B. DNA duplicates pea plants (gg). All the plants in the F1
generation had green pods.What ratio of
C. cytoplasm divides
green pod color plants to yellow pod color
D. spindle apparatus forms plants would you predict when you cross

a green pod color F1 plant with a yellow D. The National FFA Organization
pod color plant?
A. Three-quarters of the plants will have 9. What is DNA?
a green pod color and one quarter will A. a type of molecule that performs the
have a yellow pod color. main functions of cells
B. All of the plants will have a green pod
color. B. a type of molecule composed mostly of
amino acids
C. Half of the plants will have a green pod
NARAYAN CHANGDER
color, and half of the plants will have a yel- C. a type of molecule that speeds up the
low pod color. rate of a chemical reaction
D. All of the plants will have a yellow pod D. a type of molecule that determines the
color. traits that an individual inherits
5. Which combination of sex chromosomes re-
sults in a male human being? 10. The passing of physical characteristics
from parent to offspring
A. XX
A. Heredity
B. YY
C. XY B. Chromosome
D. either XX or YY C. Genes
6. Artificial selection is also known as D. Chemistry
A. natural selection
11. Black hair color is dominant to white hair
B. selective hearing
color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ra-
C. genetic manipulation tio for the offpring of a heterozygous black
D. selective breeding mouse and a white mouse.
7. Which type of reproduction creates the A. 4 Black:0 White

greatest biodiversity, and therefore the B. 3 Black:1 White
ability to survive changing environments?
C. 2 Black:2 White
A. fragmentation
B. asexual D. 0 Black:4 White
C. sexual
12. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is inherited as a re-
D. cloning cessive condition. A man with PKU mar-
8. The government organization that over- ries a woman without any alleles for PKU.
sees laws and programs related to food, What is the probability that their child will
nutrition, agriculture, and rural develop- inherit PKU?
ment is called the A. 0%
A. United States Farm Association
B. 25%
B. Farm Bureau
C. 50%
C. United States Department of Agricul-
ture D. 75%

13. Cross a heterozygous brown furred rab- B. Solution

bit with a white furred rabbit. What is C. Probability
the probability that an offspring will have

white fur? D. Procedure
A. 100% 19. How many pairs of chromosomes are in
B. 50% your cells?
C. 25% A. 23
D. 0% B. 19
C. 12
14. Recombinant DNA are currently used to
produce D. 10
A. clothing dye, cheese, and laundry prod- 20. Which human characteristic is controlled by
ucts polygenic inheritance?
B. human antibiotics and vaccines A. weight
C. crops that taste better and stay fresh B. skin color
longer
C. eye color
D. all of these
D. all of the above
15. Agriculture comes from Latin word AGER
and KULTURA. AGER means: 21. Identify the bacterial disease from the fol-
lowing
A. Field
A. Turnip Mosaic disease
B. Grow
B. Black rot of crucifers
C. Planting
C. red rot of sugar cane
D. Cultivation
D. rusts
16. Differences that exist naturally among
members of a population or species ? 22. The phenotype (observable characteris-
tics) is made up of two parts. It is rep-
A. mutation
resented by the equation G x E = P, where
B. adaptation G = genotype, P = Phenotype, and E =
C. variations A. Ecosystem
D. evolution B. Exterior factors
17. Disadvantages of Micropropagation C. Environment
A. expensive and time consuming D. Ecology
B. expensive 23. Which of the following is homozygous re-
C. time consuming cessive?
D. none of above A. PP
18. The chance that an event will occur is B. Pp

called? C. pp
A. Prediction D. none of above

24. What is a trade-off? 28. Which of the following do all living organ-
A. The positive outcome of a decision isms have in common?
only. A. Cells held up by cell walls
B. The negative outcome of a decision B. The method to get water and food into
only. their cells
C. Both the positive and negative out- C. Cells are made from pre-existing cells
come of a decision. D. Special cells that can do many differ-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Trading Pokemon cards with your ent things
lunch friends.
29. Which of the following are NOT the types
25. Gary Goldfish is heterozygous for dark or- of suspension cultures?I BioreactorII Small
ange color. Ginny Goldfish is homozygous batch cultureIII Open continuous cultureIV
dominant. Their baby has light orange Closed continuous culture
color. Is Gary the father? A. I and II
A. Yes, because the light orange color is B. III and IV
dominant
C. I, II and III
B. No, because there is no way they could
produce a homozygous recessive baby D. None of the answers
C. Yes, because Ginny has two alleles for 30. A farmer noticed that some of her sun-
light orange color, so their baby could be flower plants were healthy but most of
light orange the plants were infested with worms that
D. No, because Gary does not have the al- were killing plants. How could the farmer
lele for light color. use selective breeding to try to produce a
greater number of healthy plants next sea-
26. What is the study of heredity called? son? Choose best answer:
A. Physics A. Use plants that require less sunlight
B. Classification B. Use plants that are distasteful to bugs
C. Genetics C. Plant only seeds from the healthy
D. Hydrology plants
D. Plant only seeds that require less wa-
27. Mendel studied 7 traits in pea plants. He ter from growth.
concluded that the factors, or genes, for
the 7 traits sorted independently of one 31. Several compounds are listed as the co-
another. Today, how do scientists explain factors of enzyme which crucial for cellu-
Mendel’s results? lar activities in plants. Which of the fol-
A. The genes for the 7 traits are located lowings are elements in medium composi-
on the same chromosome. tions that act as the cofactors of some en-
zymes?I SulfurII CopperIII ManganeseIV
B. Crossing over events did not occur dur- Magnesium
ing Mendel’s experiments.
A. I and II
C. Crossing over events occurred very
frequently during Mendel’s experiments. B. III and IV
D. The genes for the 7 traits are located C. II, III and IV
on 7 chromosomes. D. All of the answers

32. Synonym for not active. C. Replication

A. dormant D. Exactation

B. sterile
38. In a species of bird, the allele for red color
C. spry (A) is dominant over the allele for blue
D. mobile color (a). Which of the following best de-
scribes the offspring of parents with the
33. The term centres of origin was coined by genotypes AA crossed with aa?
A. Harlan de wet A. All of the offspring willbe purple (mix-
B. Vavilov ture of blue and red).
C. Zhukovosky B. All the offspring will be red (A).
D. Johanssen C. All of the offspring willbe blue (a).
34. How can two parents with brown eyes D. Half of the offspring willbe red and half
have a child with blue eyes? will be blue.
A. The parents may both have recessive 39. Which of the followings are NOT the pro-
genes for blue eyes. cedures involved in artificial seed produc-
B. The child was born during the winter tion?I PollinationII FertilizationIII Induc-
tion of somatic embryosIV Encapsulation
C. Eye color in humans is not an inherited of somatic embryos
trait
A. I and II
D. The child was deprived of oxygen dur-
ing its birth B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
35. In , sperm in the pollen of one plant fer-
tilizes eggs in the flower of another plant. D. All of the answers.
A. asexualreproduction 40. Soil layers, listed from the surface down,
B. cross-pollination include
C. sexualreproduction A. topsoil, surface litter, bedrock, leach-
D. self-pollination ing zone, and subsoil
B. surface litter, subsoil, topsoil, bedrock,
36. Self -pollination is when the pollen lands and leaching zone
on
C. surface litter, topsoil, leaching zone,
A. the person
subsoil, and bedrock
B. another type of plant
D. bedrock, topsoil, surface litter, subsoil,
C. the same plant and leaching zone
D. the next plant over
41. Two cats carry heterozygous, long-haired
37. What is the name of the process that traits. When these cats are crossed, what
makes an exact copy of a strand of DNA will be the probability of one of their off-
called? spring having short hair?
A. Transcription A. 100%
B. Translation B. 50%

C. 25% B. carrots
D. 0% C. peas
42. Mr. Lloyd has been breeding tulip flowers D. mice

for Valentines day. For the parent gener- 46. This is the illegal hunting or capturing of
ation, he decides to cross a heterozygous wild animals, usually associated with land
dominant allele pair (red phenotype) with use rights.
a homozygous recessive allele pair (white
A. Biodiversity Treaty
NARAYAN CHANGDER
phenotype). What is the probability that
the F1 - Generation offspring will be the B. Endangered species
color white? Remember, you must use the
C. Habitat Conservation
same letter of the alphabet, but has to be
capital or lower case! D. Poaching
A. The probability that the F-1 Genera- 47. A companion animal is also known as a
tion offspring will have recessive alleles
(white phenotype) would be 25% A. Livestock Animal
B. The probability that the F-1 Genera- B. Crop

tion offspring will have recessive alleles C. Mammal
(white phenotype) would be 50% D. Pet
C. The probability that the F-1 Genera-
tion offspring will have recessive alleles 48. How many observable pea plant traits did
(white phenotype) would be 75% Mendel study?
D. The probability that the F-1 Genera- A. 3
tion offspring will have recessive alleles B. 5
(white phenotype) would be 100%
C. 7
43. The physical appearance of a gene: D. 9
A. Genotype
49. a true-breeding purple-flower plant
B. Heredity crossed with a true-breeding white-flower
C. Phenotype plant
D. Allele A. all white-flower plants
B. all purple-flower plants
44. change/manipulate the genetic
makeup/DNA of an organism by a tech- C. mostly purple-flower plants
nological process D. none of above
A. Biotechnology
50. Why might you see 3 words in a scientific
B. Chemistry name?
C. Microbiology A. The 3rd name gives you the kingdom
D. Bacteriology B. The 3rd name is for the variety or cul-
45. What organism did Mendel do his famous tivar
studies of genetics with? C. The 3rd name is for the plant group
A. bees D. none of above

51. The hereditary units in cells are called B. Hibernation

A. genes C. Natural selection

B. nuclei D. Hybridization
C. characteristics 56. Which of these is a genotype?
D. traits A. Blue eyes
52. DNA is inside the cells. What part of the B. Big feet
cell is the DNA inside of? C. A unicorn horn
A. cell membrane D. BB
B. cytoplasm 57. If yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y)
C. nucleus and a 100 seeds were collected after a
crossing of two hybrids, how many seeds
D. mitochondria
are going to be green?
53. Which is not a risk of biotechnology A. 100 seeds
A. less gene variation which causes some B. 75 seeds
diseases to become more severe
C. 25 seeds
B. people are more susceptible to genetic D. 0 seeds
diseases
C. harder for organisms to adapt if the 58. A possible abbreviation of the genotype
need arises for a GAMETE of an organism for a mono-
hybrid trait would be which of the follow-
D. producing an organism that is too well- ing?
adapted to the environment
A. TtBb
54. What is the difference between a monohy- B. A
brid cross and a dihybrid cross?
C. TB
A. A monohybrid cross involves a single
D. AA
parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves
twoparents. 59. This is a species that is unique to a defined
B. A monohybrid cross produces a single geographic location or habitat, such as an
progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross pro- island, nation, other defined zone.
ducestwo progeny. A. Exotic species
C. A dihybrid cross involves organisms B. Threatened species
that are heterozygous for two characters C. Endangered species
and amonohybrid only one.
D. Endemic Species
D. A monohybrid cross is performed for
one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross 60. Agriculture accounts for per cent of In-
isperformed for two generations. dia’s GDP
A. 62
55. A characteristic of some animals to enter
a state of deep sleep during the winter B. 30
months C. 33
A. Adaptation D. 70

61. Planting seeds that have been genetically 66. is a farming practice, refer to growing
modified would be considered plants in normal soil.
A. Conventional Farming A. Geoponic
B. Biotechnology (GMO) Farming B. Hydroponic
C. Organic Farming
C. Aeroponic
D. none of above
D. Aquaponic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
62. Common in “complex” living things
67. Scientists must carefully weigh the risks
A. asexual
and benefits of biotechnology. Which of
B. sexual these is a risk that scientists must consider
C. both when genetically engineering a plant?
D. none of above A. what kinds of nutrients the plant will
need
63. Any species which is likely to become an
endangered species within the foreseeable B. how to crossbreed the plant with other
future throughout all or a significant por- plants
tion of its range is considered to be a C. whether the plant will grow well in dif-
A. Extinct Species ferent soils
B. Biodiversity D. whether the plant will cause allergic
C. Exotic Species reaction in humans
D. Threatened species 68. G- Greeng - yellowIf a cross produces 3

64. An obstetrician knows that one of her pa- plants with Green pods and 1 plant with
tients is a pregnant woman whose fetus yellow pods the genotype of the parents
is at risk for a serious disorder that is de- is
tectable biochemically in fetal cells. The A. unknown
obstetrician would most reasonably offer
B. heterozygous
which of the following procedures to her
patient? C. both recessive
A. CVS D. homozygous
B. Ultrasound imaging
69. What is involved in the process of artificial
C. Amniocentesis
selection?
D. Fetoscopy
A. An animals’ genes undergo a mutation
65. If black fur (B) is dominant to white fur that produces a certain trait.
(b). What fur color would the alleles “Bb” B. Humans select animals to breed that
code for? create offspring with desired traits.
A. Grey
C. A new species is created through
B. Brown cloning and recombination.
C. White D. Animals mate randomly, and a benefi-
D. Black cial trait emerges in the offspring.

70. The purpose of selective breeding is to 75. After Mendel crossed a true-breeding pur-
ple plant and a true-breeding white plant,
A. Get bigger animals
what color were the offspring in the first

B. get smaller animals generation?
C. create animals with desirable traits A. white
D. create animals with bad traits B. lightpurple
C. purple
71. Which of the following statements is true
about artificial selection? D. somewere purple and some were
white
A. Breeders can control which animals
mate. 76. Which of the following statements about
reproduction is incorrect?
B. Breeders can control what mutations
will appear in the offspring. A. Sexual reproductionrequires two par-
ents.
C. Both A and B are true.
B. In sexual reproduction, afertilized egg
D. Neither A nor B is true. is called a zygote.
C. In asexual reproduction, the offspring
72. Why are scientific names important?
are identical to the parents.
A. Buyers need to know the correct plant
D. The egg and sperm do notcarry genetic
species
information
B. Scientists need accurate information
about a plant species 77. Selective breeding is
A. a process to create an organism with
C. Common names can be confusing
desired traits from parents with those de-
D. All of these are correct sired traits
B. natural method of producing offspring
73. To create animals that have the character-
with desired traits
istics of both species, some people have
bred buffalo and cattle together. This is C. creating a new species
an example of D. making organisms reproduce during
A. inbreeding times of stress
B. hybridization 78. Mendel concluded that factors control

each inherited trait.
C. genetic engineering
A. one
D. transformation
B. two
74. A heterozygous organism is BEST de- C. three
scribed as which of these?
D. four
A. recessive
79. What must all species do in order to sur-
B. hybrid vive?
C. genotype A. change its behavior
D. pure-breeding B. change its environment

C. change its location 85. In Mendel’s P generation, a true-breeding

D. adapt to changes in its environment tall plant was crossed with a true-
breeding short plant. Short plants reap-
80. The evolution of dogs from wolves is due peared in the F 2 generation because
to: A. the allele for tallness is dominant
A. Natural Selection B. they inherited an allele for shortness
B. Sexual Selection and tallness from each parent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the allele for shortness is lost
C. Artificial Selection
D. the F1 generation plants that were
D. Vestigial Structures
crossed to make the F2 plants were all het-
81. When the two alleles of a particular gene erozygous
are different: 86. Gregor Mendel studied heridity using
A. heterozygous plants.
B. homozygous A. corn
C. genotype B. rose
D. phenotype C. pea
D. daisy
82. What is the function of plasmids in genetic
engineering? 87. change to fit a new or specific situation or
A. Act as vectors to carry a specific gene environment
into the host cell A. species
B. Used during DNA transcritpion B. genetic
C. Used to locate Chromosomes in the C. adapt
cell D. none of above
D. Act as immune defense mechanisms
88. The transfer of a gene from the DNA of
83. Which of the following terms CANNOT be one organism into another organism in or-
used to describe callus der to produce an organism with desired
traits.
A. Regular mass
A. Genetic Engineering
B. Irregular mass
B. Karyotype
C. Unorganised mass
C. Pedigree
D. Undifferentiated mass D. Genome
84. TT, tt, PP, pp, SS, ss are examples of alle- 89. A chameleon’s camouflage is an example
les that are? of
A. homozygous A. Structural Adaptation
B. heterozygous B. Behavioral Variation
C. different C. Organism Interaction
D. homologous D. Sustainability

90. Biotechnology is a science based on: C. A common type of housefly develops

A. chemistry resistance to insect poison

B. biology D. A deaf leopard is unable to hear the ap-
proach of hunters
C. environmental science
95. Tissue culture technique is an efficient tool
D. physics
used in plant breeding for the following
91. Two plants are crossed, resulting in off- reasons EXCEPT
spring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular A. mass propagation of specific clones.
trait. This suggests
B. useful for plant reproduced by asex-
A. that the parents were true-breeding ual.
for contrasting traits.
C. production of high yield diseased
B. incomplete dominance. plants.
C. that a blending of traits has occurred. D. production of healthy or diseased-free
D. that the parents were both heterozy- plants.
gous. 96. What factors can affect a person’s height?
92. What would be the best way to predict A. genes only
the probability of a baby having cystic fi- B. both genes and environmental factors
brosis?
C. a person’s blood type
A. by studying the parents’ karyotypes
D. a person’s karyotype
B. by studying the family’s pedigree chart
97. Making changes in the DNA of an organism
C. by exploring new methods of genetic
is
engineering
A. selective breeding
D. by determining whether the parents
have codominant alleles B. artificial selection
93. The process by which humans take control
of the breeding process to choose favor- D. genetic transformation
able traits to be passed on
98. What is F1 generation?
A. Adaptation
A. Parental generation
B. Hibernation
B. Second generation of the offspring
C. Natural selection
C. none
D. Selective breeding
D. First generation of the offspring
94. Which of the following traits would most 99. Which type of genetic factor can hide or
likely improve the chances that an organ- mask another genetic factor?
ism will survive and reproduce?
A. strong
A. Small size makes it less likely a bull will
find a mate B. huge
B. A giraffe with a shorter neck is unable C. dominant

to reach high tree branches D. recessive

100. Natural selection can operate on preda- 104. is the passing of traits from parents
tor populations as well as on prey. Sup- to offspring (babies)
pose that over time trees became covered A. DNA
in lichen and the proportion of light moths
increased to nearly 100%. What is the B. Heredity
most likely consequence for predator pop- C. Evolution
ulations? D. none of above
A. Bird populations will decrease, at least
NARAYAN CHANGDER
for a while. 105. Which of the following is an example of
an environmental factor?
B. Over time, birds with better eyesight
will become more common. A. diet
B. length of 2nd toe
C. Birds may change hunting strategies
or seek other sources of food. C. 6 fingers
D. All of the above. D. hitchhikers thumb
101. Mendel controlled the pollination of his 106. The process of selecting a few organisms
pea plants in order to produce plants that with desired traits to serve as parents of
were the next generation.
A. different every time A. Gene Therapy
B. hybrids B. Genome
C. recessive C. Selective Breeding

D. Pedigree
D. true breeding
107. occurs when humans take control of
102. Modern horses developed their traits
the breeding process.
through natural selection. What occurs
during the process of natural selection? A. Traits
A. only the fittest organisms survive and B. Selective breeding
reproduce C. Population
B. organisms choose mates from other D. Diverse
species
108. A true-breeding purple plant and a true-
C. breeders cross organisms with desir- breeding white plant cross-pollinate. The
able traits. offspring will be
D. organisms remain exactly the same A. 75% purple and 25% white
over many generations.
B. 100
103. What was the independent variable in C. 100
Mendel’s experiments?
D. 75% white and 25% purple
A. the richness of the soil
109. The term that best describes bacteria that
B. the type of pollination
have genetically modified to produce hu-
C. the color of the flowers man insulin is
D. the height of the stems A. Antibiotic

B. Aseptic 115. Where are the instructions for traits

C. Pathogenic found?

A. in meiosis
D. Transgenic
B. in DNA
110. The different forms of a characteristic
C. in cell membranes
(ex:blue or brown) are called
D. in lysosomes
A. genes
B. traits 116. What is an organism’s physical appear-
ance called?
C. chromosomes
A. codominance
D. eyecolor
B. heterozygous
111. is the process of growing plants in an C. phenotype
air or mist environment without the use of
D. genotype
soil
A. Geoponic 117. Change over time
B. Hydroponic A. Evolution
C. Aeroponic B. Artificial Selection
D. Aquaponic C. Genes
D. Overproduction
112. What is an example of artificial selec-
tion? 118. An organism in which two alleles for a
trait are different is
A. Letting dogs choose their own mate
A. heterozygous
B. Letting plants pollinate on their own
B. hybrid
C. Crossing a labrador and a poodle to
create a labradoodle C. homozygous
D. none of above D. both heterozygous AND hybrid
119. A trait that will appear no matter what

113. What kingdom does wheat belong to?
it is paired with is said to be:
A. animals
A. Recessive
B. plant
B. Dominant
C. funghi C. Hybrid
114. The combination of alleles that an individ- 120. Recessive traits are always shown in an
ual has is organism’s offspring.
A. phenotype A. True
B. genotype B. False; dominant
C. homozygous C. False; hybrid
D. heterozygous D. False; dominant and recessive

121. How is a human’s abiliy to breathe 125. An organism with the genotype DD for a
through lungs like the adaptatoin fish have trait is
developed?
A. heterozygous dominant
A. Fish have gills which allow them to also
B. heterozygous recessive
breathe outside of the water
C. homozygous dominant
B. Fish have lungs just like humans
D. homozygous recessive
C. Fish have gills which allow oxyen to be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
separated from the water as they breathe 126. Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or
D. Fish have gills which help them swim yellow. In a cross of a black female with a
quickle through the water, like lungs help brown male, results can be either all black
a person run faster puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies,
or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.How
122. When Mendel crossed true-breeding many genes must be responsible for these
purple-flowered plants with white- coat colors in Labrador retrievers?
flowered plants, all the offspring had
A. 1
what coloured plants?
B. 2
A. purple
B. white C. 3
C. pink D. 4
D. blue 127. Which of these lists correctly identifies all

four bases in DNA?
123. Originally, Mendel crossed two true
breeding plants (RR x rr) for Round and A. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
Wrinkled peas. What is the genotype(s) B. adenine, uracil, guanine, cytosine
of the offspring that he then allowed to
C. adenine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
self-pollinate in the first generation?
D. uracil, thymine, guanine, cytosine
A. RR x Rr
B. Rr x Rr 128. Gregor Mendel is often called This is
C. rr x RR due to his experiments with pea plant ge-
netics.
D. rr x Rr
A. The Father of Heredity
124. To initially domesticate a plant, you must B. The King of Peas
-
C. The Father of Genetics
A. only farm with perfect plants found in
nature D. The Father of Modern DNA
B. use the seeds of the plants that have 129. Himgiri is a hybrid variety of
the least desirable traits
A. Chilli
C. destroy entire crops if even one plant
B. Cauliflower
shows poor traits
C. Cowpea
D. use the seeds from plants that have
the most desirable traits D. Wheat

130. What is the shape of the molecule of 136. T-Tall R-roundt - short r- wrinkledWhich
DNA? gametes would be produced by a heterozy-
gous tall, wrinkled plant?

A. single helix
B. double helix A. TR, Tr, tR, tt
B. Tr, tr
C. tripe helix
C. TtRr
D. TR, Tr, tr
131. Who is the father of evolution?
137. What is the relationship between DNA
A. Mendel and chromosomes?
B. Newton A. Chromosomes are made of DNA
C. Darwin B. DNA is made of chromosomes
D. Einstein C. DNA and chromosomes are the same
thing.
132. One problem with selective breeding is
D. All of the above are correct
A. creating a new species
B. gene variety is lost 138. Which of the following is not true?
C. extinction of a species A. Annual plants germinate from seed,
then blossom and finally set seeds before
D. none of above dying back.
133. What is a segment of DNA called? B. Perennial plants are plants that grow
A. Chromosome for many growing seasons.
C. Biennials plants require two years to
B. gene
complete their life cycle. But they usually
C. dominant trait live for only 9 months.
D. nucleus D. Annual plants are generally showier
than perennial plants because they have a
134. Which of the following subjects would long bloom period from spring to just be-
someone most likely study if he or she fore the first fall frost.
wanted to work in the biotechnology
field? 139. What is the genotype of a pea plant
A. Chemistry that’s homozygous for height?
B. Genetics A. tt
C. Physics B. Tt
C. TT
D. Environmental Science
D. tall
135. Adaptations can help a species
140. What term describes humans choosing
A. Reproduce
certain organisms because they have use-
B. Defend ful characteristics?
C. Find food A. Artificial selection
D. All of the above B. Natural selection

C. Survival of the fittest family. But there are many varieties of

D. Some theory Darwin came up with onion like green onions, yellow onions,
red onions, etc.
141. What change occurs to food by your teeth
as you chew? 145. are not known to be major crop pests.
A. Fungi
A. physical changes only
B. Insects
B. chemical changes only
C. Weeds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both physical and chemical changes
D. Amphibians
D. neither physical nor chemical change
146. Who was Gregor Mendel?
142. Which of the following is a physical adap-
tation for the underlined animal? A. An Austrian monk who was very inter-
ested in plants.
A. A snake unhinges its jaw to eat a rabbit
it just caught. B. A Chinese monk who was very inter-
ested in plants.
B. A hognose snake rolls over, slows its
breathing, and hangs its tongue out to pre- C. An Australian monk who was very in-
tend to be dead. terested in plants.
C. A herd of buffalo encircle their young D. A Cambodian monk who was very inter-
to protect them from a pack of wolves. ested in plants.
D. A dung beetle rolls a piece of dung 147. Growing plants for use in the outdoor
across the desert. landscape would be considered
143. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian disor- A. Nursery Operation

der in the human population that is inher- B. Floriculture
ited as a recessive. Two normal parents C. pomology
have two children with CF. The probabil-
ity of their next child being normal for this D. agronomy
characteristic is which of the following? 148. Somatic hybridisation is achieved through
A. 1/2 A. Grafting
B. 1/4 B. Conjugation
C. 3/4 C. Protoplast fusion
D. 1/8 D. Recombinant DNA technology
144. Plant variety refers to what? 149. George Guinea Pig met Greta Guinea Pig
A. Planting many types of seeds in close at a dance. George is heterozygous for his
proximity to one another. long hair, but Greta has short hair. What
are the chances that their baby would have
B. Mixing different plants together so long hair?
they benefit each other.
A. 100%
C. The body part of an alien.
B. 75%
D. A specific, individual identity within a
larger plant family or species. For exam- C. 50%
ple, onions are a species within a plant D. 25%

150. Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long C. a recessive allele on the X chromo-
wings (+) but mutations in two different somes will always produced that trait in
genes can result in bent wings (bt) or ves- a male

tigial wings (vg). If a homozygous bent D. any allele on the Y chromosome will
wing fly is mated with a homozygous ves- be codominant with the matching allele on
tigial wing fly, which of the following off- the X chromosome
spring would you expect?
A. All +bt +vg heterozygotes 155. In horses, black coat (B) is dominant over
brown coat (b) and trotter (T) is dominant
B. 1/2 bent and 1/2 vestigial flies
over the recessive allele pacer (t). A dihy-
C. All homozygous + flies brid cross is conducted for these two traits.
D. 3/4 bent to 1/4 vestigial ratio Which combination of traits is likely to ap-
pear in the offspring with a probability of
151. In purple people eaters, one-horn is dom- 1/16?
inant (H) and no horns is recessive (h). If
A. black coat, trotter
you cross a purple people eater who is ho-
mozygous dominant for horns with a pur- B. black coat, pacer
ple people eater who has no horns, what C. brown coat, trotter
is the chance that an offspring will have
horns? D. brown coat, pacer
A. 25% 156. The importance of agitation in suspen-
B. 50% sion culture areI Provides gas exchangeII
Breakdown aggregate cellsIII Breakdown
C. 75%
cell dormancyIV Absorbs phenolic com-
D. 100% pounds
152. What is the main function of RNA A. I and II
A. lipid synthesis B. III and IV
B. carbohydrate synthesis C. I, II and III
C. protein synthesis D. All of the answers
D. none of these
157. father of modern genetics
153. HH, DD, dd A. Bill Sandora
A. Heterozygous B. Charles Darwin
B. Hybrid C. Gregor Mendel
C. Purebred D. none of above
D. Phenotype
158. Scientist known as the father of tissue
154. Why are sex-linked traits more common culture
in males than in females?
A. Scleiden
A. all alleles on the X chromosome are
B. Murashige
dominant
B. all alleles on the Y chromosomes are C. Gottlieb Haberlandt
recessive D. Simon

159. Which list of characteristics describes or- B. He controlled pollination.

ganisms classified as animals? C. He observed only one generation.
A. Unicellular, prokaryotic, autotrophic D. He used plants that reproduct slowly.
B. Multicellular, eukaryotic, het-
erotrophic 165. What did Gregor Mendel do in his second
experiment (to get F2 generation)?
C. Unicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic
A. Allowed the first generation to self-
D. Multicellular, eukaryotic, autotrophic
pollinate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
160. During which phase of meiosis do homol- B. Allowed the first generation to cross-
ogous chromosomes align as tetrads in the pollinate
middle of the spindle?
C. Allowed the first generation to become
A. prophase I true-breeding
B. prophase II D. Allowed the first generation to both
C. metaphase I self-and-cross pollinate
D. metaphase II 166. Heredity can be defined as
161. When a gardener takes a cutting from a A. A characteristic that an organism can
plant he/she likes he has made a pass onto its offspring through its genes.
A. clone B. the passing of traits from parent to off-
B. mutation spring.
C. new species C. the scientific study of phenotypes.
D. new variety D. none of the answers are correct.
162. As selective breeding continues, what 167. In Mendel’s experiments, the recessive
happens to the gene pool of the organ- traits
isms? A. appeared in the second generation.
A. It gets smaller and more similar B. were always hidden by the dominant
B. it gets larger and more diverse trait.
C. It is not impacted C. were altered after cross-pollination.
D. it depends on the type of organism D. disappeared.
163. Who is the father of Green Revolution in 168. Bagging is done to

India? A. Avoid cross pollination
A. Satyendra Nath Bose B. Avoid self pollination
B. Srinivasa Ramanujan C. Achieve desired pollination
C. M.S. Swaminathan D. Prevent contamination from foreign
D. Vikram Sarabhai pollen
164. Which statements best describes 169. Micropropagation is widely used in

Mendel’s experiments? and in floriculture.
A. He began with hybrid plants. A. Wilderness

B. Deforestation A. Budding
C. Sustainability B. Fission

D. Forestry C. Vegetative propagation
D. Regeneration
170. Which of the following mutations would
most likely improve the chances that an or- 174. What is a hybrid?
ganism will survive? A. Crossing two organisms with different
A. A stronger scent that makes a frog eas- traits
ier to find B. A cool car
B. Stronger leg muscles that allow a rab- C. A parent
bit to jump away from danger
D. none of above
C. A weaker scent that makes a flower
less attractive to bees 175. Which of the following explains how
teosinte may have been selectively bred
D. Weaker leg muscles that make a to produce corn?
gazelle slower
A. Teosinte plants with the desired traits
171. A female bird wants to mate with a were hybridized until the desired traits ap-
brightly colored male bird, which can you peared, then the offspring were inbred.
conclude is true? B. Teosinte plants were randomly bred
A. brightly colored feathers are dominant until the desired traits appeared, then the
offspring were hybridized.
B. brightly colored feathers are reces-
sive C. Teosinte plants were hybridized with
corn plants, and the resulting hybrids with
C. birds paint themselves brighter
the desired traits were inbred.
D. Rio is a good movie D. Teosinte plants with similar character-
172. Why are advantageous traits more likely istics were inbred until the desired traits
to be passed onto offspring? were produced.
A. Because they are more likely to sur- 176. Who proposed the centres of Origin the-
vive and reproduce. ory?
B. Because they come from dominant al- A. Mendel
leles. B. Hopkins
C. Because they come from recessive al- C. Vilmorin
leles. D. Vavilov
D. Because the trait is an acquired pheno-
177. It is very common for yellow labs to have
type.
bad hips. This is because owners want
173. Which type of asexual reproduction is purebred yellow labs who are good hunt-
taking place? A planarian is a non- ing dogs. This is an example of
parasitic flatworm. If a planarian was in- A. Natural Selection
jured by a predator, it could re-grow its
B. Selective breeding
body parts. If the body parts were not
eaten by the predator, the part could re- C. Mitosis
grow into a whole new planarian as well. D. Fossil Record

178. Transcription process take places in are the chances of having a baby guinea
A. the ribosome pig with short hair?
A. 100%
B. the cytoplasm
B. 75%
C. the nucleus
C. 50%
D. the mitochondria
D. 25%
179. The tall allele, T, is dominant to the short
184. The main nodal agency for plant introduc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
allele, t, in Mendel’s pea plants. You ex-
tion in India is
amine a pea plant that exhibits the tall
phenotype. What is the genotype? A. IPGRI
A. Tt B. CRRI
B. TT C. NBPGR
C. tt D. DRR
D. Both TT and Tt are possible 185. Which type of inheritance causes both
traits to be expressed equally in the het-
180. In addition to genetics what else can im- erozygote?
pact the action of some genes? A. Complete Dominance
A. the environment B. Incomplete Dominance
B. diet C. Co-Dominance
C. exposure to chemicals D. Sex-linked
D. all of these 186. Which statement best summarizes Gre-
gor Mendel’s contribution to science?
181. T-Tall t - short R-roundr- wrinkledHow
many types of gametes would be produced A. Mendel invented the green pea by
by a plant that is heterozygous tall and cross-breeding thousands of pea plants.
heterozygous round? B. Mendel coined the word genes to de-
A. 2 scribe inherited traits.
B. 4 C. Mendel determined that garden pea
plants can produce flowers in a variety of
C. 8 colors.
D. 16 D. Mendel found evidence that factors for
some traits are inherited from parents.
182. A trait that does not show in a hybrid a
A. recessive trait 187. Gary Goldfish is heterozygous for dark
orange color. Ginny Goldfish is homozy-
B. dominant trait gous dominant. What is the chance that
C. codominant trait they will have a heterozygous offspring?
D. independent allele A. 100%
B. 75%
183. George Guinea Pig met Greta Guinea Pig
at a picnic. George is heterozygous for his C. 50%
long hair, but Greta has short hair. What D. 25%

188. BASIC MEDIA COMPONENTS FOR PLANT 193. A farmer wants to increase the amount
CELL CULTURE IN MS MEDIA FOR GLYCINE of food produced by corn crops. If the
farmer selectively breeds the plants, for

A. 2mg/l
which trait should the farmer select?
B. 12mg/ml
A. Taller stems
C. 7mg/ml
B. Deeper roots
D. 190mg/ml
C. Resistance to pesticides
189. Charles Darwin is credited with the the-
D. More cobs on plant
ory which states that organisms with fa-
vorable traits survive in greater numbers 194. What word describes the amount of use-
than organisms with non-favorable traits. ful product that can be obtained from a
What is the name of this theory? farmed plant or animal?
A. the theory of natural selection A. yield
B. the theory of selective breeding B. efficiency
C. the theory of acquired traits C. crops
D. the theory of plate tectonics D. meat
190. Which are the possible blood phenotypes 195. Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant
for a child who’s mother is type O and fa- to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower
ther is type AB? color is dominant to white (r). The het-
A. Type O and Type A erozygous condition results in pink (Rr)
B. Type O and Type AB flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is
crossed with a plant homozygous for tall-
C. Type A and Type B ness and white flowers. What are the
D. Type AB only genotype and phenotype of the F1 individ-
uals?
a phenotype: A. ttRr-dwarf and pink
A. Aa B. ttrr-dwarf and white
B. an allele C. TtRr-tall and red
C. hair color D. TtRr-tall and pink

D. your genes 196. The goal of transcription is to
192. Colorblindness is an example of a disor- A. Make proteins
der that is more common in males than fe- B. make a molecule of mRNA
males because
C. makes a molecule of DNA
A. the allele is on the Y chromosome
D. make an amino acid
B. it is passed from father to daughter
C. the allele for colorblindness is reces- 197. Which of the following terms refers to
sive and found on the X chromosome the different possibilities of a gene?
D. males get the alleles from both their A. chromosome

mother and their father B. DNA

C. Punnett Squares C. the recipe for making an organism

D. allele D. a coiled strand
198. Ability of a plant to endure extreme con- 204. What is another term for transgenic ma-
ditions by changing growth and develop- nipulation?
ment of plant organs
A. Petiole
B. genetic engineering
B. Micropropagation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cross-pollinating
C. Pathogenic
D. seed saving
D. Plasticity
205. A result of selective breeding is that over
199. Which characteristic cannot be inherited?
time are changed so the desired traits
A. the ability to win a soccer game are always produced
B. length of fur in dogs A. phenotypes
C. shape of ears in pigs B. cells
D. height of stem in a sunflower plant C. nucleus
200. Natural selection can also be referred to D. genes
as:
206. A is a change in the genetic material.
A. Survival of the weakest This means changes to the DNA or to the
B. Survival chromosomes which carry the DNA.
C. Survival of the fittest A. inherited trait
D. Artificial selection B. genetic mutation
201. Which of these is NOT a genetic trait? C. selective breeding
A. color of fur D. genetic engineering
B. length of tail 207. an organism’s appearance or other de-
C. scar on a leg tectable characteristic
D. height of a person A. genotype
202. Species with variation are likely B. phenotype

to survive. C. genetics
A. more, less D. heterozygous
B. less, less
208. Mechanisms that promote cross pollina-
C. less, more tion in maize is
D. more, more A. Dioecious
203. Which is the best definition of DNA? B. Monoecious
A. a spiral ladder C. Protogyny
B. a structure in the cells D. Cleistogamy

209. Organisms within a population have ge- C. funghi

netic differences in their traits called. D. none of above

A. Genotypes
215. when offspring are the same as the par-
B. Variation ent
C. Natural Selection A. true breeding plant
D. Heterozygous B. self pollination
210. Two or more combinations of the same C. genetics
gene D. cross breeding
A. Gene
216. The law that states that the inheritance
B. Genotype of one trait has no effect on the inheritance
C. Phenotype of another since chromosomes orient inde-
pendently during meiosis
D. Alleles
A. the law of independent assortment
211. If mice with white coats are dominant to B. the law of dominance
those with brown coats, what is the geno-
type of a heterozygous mouse? C. the law of segregation
A. WW D. the law of independent orientation
B. Ww 217. The theory of evolution by natural se-

lection means that what is changing over
C. BB
time?
D. bb
A. The inherited traits of a population.
212. In sexual reproduction the female pro- B. The most common traits of a popula-
duces cells. tion.
A. Femalex C. Hair color and eye color
B. Quack D. Attractive features.
C. Egg 218. What is direct seeding (also called direct
D. Sperm sowing)?
A. Planting seeds anywhere.
213. Natural selection relies on the fact that
offspring must compete for B. Planting seeds in containers indoors.
A. Predators C. Planting seeds in the garden, rather
than buying small plants or starting seeds
B. Resources
indoors earlier in the season and trans-
C. Carbon dioxide planting them outside.
D. Oxygen D. Planting seeds in six packs near a win-
dow.
214. What kingdom does mushrooms belong
to? 219. Gametes are
A. animals A. eggs and sperm
B. plant B. zygotes

C. alleles 225. What is transformation?

D. chromosomes A. The process of cutting DNA with re-
striction enzymes.
220. The inheritance pattern in which two al- B. The process of the gene of interest be-
leles are both expressed in the heterozy- ing put in the vector.
gous individual is called
C. The process of the gene of interest be-
A. Polygenic ing taken into the host cell’s DNA & being
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Multiple alleles expressed on the outside of the cell.
C. Codominance D. The process selecting a gene of inter-

est to cut with restriction enzymes.
D. Incomplete dominance
226. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall
221. Which of these traits is controlled by a pea plants with true-breeding short pea
gene with multiple alleles? plants, all the offspring were tall. Then
he allowed the first generation tall plants
A. straight hairline
to self-pollinate. What were the expected
B. smile dimples ratios of phenotypes in the F2 generation?
C. widow’s peak A. Because this is a monohybrid cross of
pea plants that carry two alleles for plant
D. blood type
height, the expected ratio is 3 tall:1 short.
222. A trait that is controlled by multiple B. Because this is a dihybrid cross of pea
genes is an example of a trait plants that carry three alleles for plant
height, the expected ratio is 9 tall:3 inter-
A. monogenic mediate:1 short.
B. Pleiotropic C. Because this is a dihybrid cross of
C. Polygenic pea plants that carry four alleles for plant
height, the expected ratio is 4 tall:1 short.
D. Multiple allele
D. Because this is a monohybrid cross of
223. The law of segregation states that, dur- pea plants that carry two alleles for plant
ing meiosis, each pair of alleles height, the expected ratio is 1 tall:1 short.
A. separates 227. is a process by which organisms best

fit for the environment are most likely to
B. is inherited together
survive and reproduce. *
C. is hybrid
A. Natural selection
D. has one dominant and one recessive B. Traits
224. The gene of interest + vector = C. Adaptation
A. recombinant DNA D. Variation
B. restriction enzyme 228. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or

white. A cross between a red-flowered
C. transformation
plant and a white-flowered plant yields
D. genome all-purple offspring. The part of the radish

we eat may be oval or long, with long be- C. Ragi

ing the dominant characteristic. If true-
D. Cotton
breeding red long radishes are crossed

with true breeding white oval radishes,
233. Why did Mendel use cross-pollination in
the F1 will be expected to be which of the
his experiments?
following?
A. Red and long A. to speed up self-pollination
B. White and long B. to control which plants pollinated

other plants
C. Purple and long
C. to make sure dominant factors were al-
D. Purple and oval
ways produced
229. is growing plants, without soil, by D. none of above
using mineral nutrient solutions in an aque-
ous solvent. 234. Which of the following terms best de-
A. Geoponic scribes when the phenotype of the het-
B. Hydroponic erozygote differs from the phenotypes of
both homozygotes?
C. Aeroponic
A. Incomplete dominance
D. Aquaponic
B. Multiple alleles
230. Bt corn produces a toxin that kills pests
that feed on it. What is one argument C. Pleiotropy
against using genetically engineering the D. Epistasis
corn to produce this toxin?
A. the farmer will make more money 235. Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceed-
ingly rare human genetic disorder in which
B. the corn could crossbreed with non-
there is very early senility, and death, usu-
genetically modified corn and spread the
ally of coronary artery disease, at an av-
gene to natural plants
erage age of approximately 13. Patients,
C. It leads to increased corn yeilds. who look very old even as children, do not
D. none of above live to reproduce. Which of the following
represents the most likely assumption?
231. A pea plant has the alleles “BB” for the
A. All cases must occur in relatives;
purple flower trait. This genotype is
therefore, there must be only one mutant
A. homozygous dominant allele.
B. homozygous recessive B. Successive generations of a family will
C. heterozygous continue to have more and more cases
overtime.
D. none of above
C. The disorder may be due to mutation
232. Which of the following is NOT a normally in a single protein-coding gene.
self pollinated crop?
D. Each patient will have had at least one
A. Barley affected family member in a previousgen-
B. Wheat eration.

236. Suppose a certain species of insect lives D. they developed from other types of or-
in the lush green canopy of the rain for- ganisms.
est. Some of the insects are bright green
in color, and some are bright yellow. As- 240. This kind of breeding gave us the puggle
sume there is a natural predator of the in- and the black baldy. It is where two par-
sect in the area. What do you expect to ents of different breeds but of the same
happen to the populations of the green and species produce an offspring.
the yellow insects over time? A. transgenic breeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The green insect population will in- B. hybrid vigor
crease and the yellow insect population
C. cross breeding
will decrease.
D. genetic engineering
B. The green insect population will de-
crease and the yellow insect population 241. To indicate if a trait is dominant we use
will increase letters and to indicate if a trait is re-
C. Both insect populations will remain cessive we use letters.
constant over time. A. recessive, dominant
D. Both insect populations will increase B. dominant, recessive
over time.
C. recessive, neutral
237. a cross between two hybrid purple- D. dominant, neutral
flower plants (purple and white)
A. all purple flower plants 242. From what source do most proudurs on
earth get energy?
B. mostly white-flower plants
A. Fungi
C. mostly purple-flower plants
B. Bacteria
D. none of above
C. sunlight
238. In which ways can genetic engineering D. Earth’s heat
can improve crops
A. Make them pest or drought resistant 243. The scientific study of heredity
B. Make them more nutritious A. Genetics
C. Make them larger B. Allele
D. All answers are correct C. Dominant

D. Biology
239. Darwin observed 13 species of finches on
the Galapagos Islands. What did Darwin 244. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is
conclude about the finches? dominant over the trait for short stems,
A. a. They evolved from a common ances- and purple flowers are dominant over
tor. white flowers. If a true-breeding tall plant
with white flowers is crossed with a true-
B. They all came from different conti- breeding short plant with purple flowers,
nents. what percentage of the offspring would
C. they evolved from 13 different types of be expected to be heterozygous for both
birds. traits?

A. 100% B. phenotype
B. 75% C. punnett square

C. 50% D. genotype
D. 25%
250. also known as agricultural and
245. Which of these is an example of the ben- biosystems engineering, is the field of
efits of genetic engineering? study and application of engineering sci-
ence and designs principles for agricul-
A. cross-breeding to create disease- ture purposes, combining the various disci-
resistance crops plines of mechanical, civil, electrical, food
B. creating human insulin to treat people science, environmental, software, and
with diabetes chemical engineering to improve the ef-
C. analyzing karyotypes and pedigree ficiency of farms and agribusiness enter-
charts prises as well as to ensure sustainability
of natural and renewable resources.
D. growing a new plant from a cutting
A. Agricultural Engineering
246. Which information was most important B. Agricultural Economics
to the development of genetic engineering
techniques? C. Agronomy
A. the observation of nondominant alle- D. Horticulture
les
251. What are the alleles of a pea plant with
B. the discovery of lethal genes two recessive traits, such as a short white-
C. the formulation of Punnett squares flowered pea plant? (Tall and purple flow-
ers and the dominant traits.)
D. the structure of the DNA molecule
A. S and W
247. Which cross best illustrates Mendel’s
B. s and w
Law of Dominance
C. T and P
A. TtRr x TtRr
D. t and p
B. TTRR x ttrr
C. TT x tt 252. When farmers selectively breed a crop,
they are
D. TR x tr
A. Letting nature choose which plants
248. It is the artificial application of water to from the crop should breed
the land or soil.
B. choosing the worst part of the crop to
A. Irrigation breed
B. Propagation C. choosing to breed the entire crop
C. Revegetation again
D. Soil consolidation D. choosing the trait they want from the
crop to breed
249. Which term describes when one trait is
not completely dominant over another? 253. What does GDP stands for?
A. incomplete dominance A. General Disorder of Pancreas

B. Gross Domestic Product B. Genetics

C. Good Domestic Price C. Genetic Engineering
D. Goods Delay Price D. Biotechnology
254. Gene S controls the sharpness of spines 258. Aquafarming is also known as and in-
in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dom- volves the breeding, raising, and/or har-
inant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas vesting of aquatic animals or the cultiva-
homozygous recessive ss cactuses have tion of aquatic plants for food.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dull spines. At the same time, a sec- A. Waterculture
ond gene, N, determines whether cactuses
have spines. Homozygous recessive nn B. Aquaculture
cactuses have no spines at all.If doubly C. Fishculture
heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed
D. Aquatic harvesting
to self-pollinate, the F2 wouldsegregate in
which of the following ratios? 259. Suggest a characteristic that would be
A. 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless useful in a new breed of sheep.
B. 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spine- A. leaner meat, quicker growing, greater
less yield, disease resistance,
C. 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined B. fattier meat, slower growing, less
wool
D. 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spine-
less C. disease resistance, less wool, smaller
yield
255. The overall function of selective breeding D. none of above
is to
A. Create organisms with desirable traits 260. If “T” is the allele for tall and “t” is the
allele for short, then Tt would produce?
B. Create bigger organisms
A. tall
C. Create smaller organisms
B. short
D. Create animals with more genetic mu-
tations C. medium
D. not enough info
256. Which genetic disorder causes the body
to produce unusually thick mucus in the 261. The variation among domesticated ani-
lungs and intestines? mals is due to
A. hemophilia A. natural selection.
B. Down syndrome B. artificial selection.
C. cystic fibrosis C. genetic modification.
D. sickle-cell disease D. random chance
257. is the deliberate modification of the 262. A mode of reproduction by which an or-
characteristics of an organism by manipu- ganism arises from a single organism and
lating its genetic material. inherit the identical genes of that parent
A. Chromosomal Mutations A. Asexual Reproduction

B. Sexual Reproduction 267. Where are genes located within the cell?
C. Genetic Variation A. Chromosomes

D. Alleles B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
263. Most sex-linked traits are found on the
chromosome. D. tRNA
A. Both the X and the Y chromosome 268. What does the lower case represent?
B. Y chromosome A. Recessive
C. X chromosome B. Dominant
C. both
D. all chromosomes, it takes all of them
for the trait to be expressed D. none
264. An allele whose phenotype always 269. Scientists who proposed cell is the basic
shows up in the organism when the allele unit of life
is present (e.g., in both homozygous and A. Schleiden & Schwann
heterozygous individuals). B. Murashige & Skoog
A. recessive allele C. Gottlieb Haberlandt & Hanning
B. dominant allele D. Simon & White
C. hidden allele 270. When an individual has two of the SAME
D. present allele alleles for a trait, the genotype is
A. phenotype
265. Selective breeding an an agricultural prac-
tice that has been around for centuries for B. genotype
both plants and animals. Which of the fol- C. homozygous
lowing practices would be considered se- D. heterozygous
lective breeding?
271. What is the name of the process in which
A. Raising cows that have been cloned
new breeds and varieties of organisms are
from adult cow tissue
created using artificial selection?
B. Collecting plants from an area that is
A. Artificial selection
about to be destroyed and moving them
to another area B. Natural selection
C. Choosing cows for breeding based on C. Selective breeding
milk production D. Survival of the fittest
D. Growing genetically altered corn 272. Domestic animals, like dog breeds, have
also been bred to be incredibly com-
266. Objective of plant breeding is pared to the diversity of their ancestors.
A. better yield A. Traits
B. better quality B. Selective breeding
C. disease / stress resistance C. Population
D. All of the above D. Diverse

273. A genetic factor that is blocked by the 278. corn with a gene from a bacteria that pro-
presence of a dominant factor is called duces a natural pesticide
A. recessive A. Bt Corn
B. dominant B. Bacteria Corn
C. hybrids C. Healthier Corn
D. heredity D. Remediated Corn
NARAYAN CHANGDER
279. Combining DNA from 2 different organ-
274. What are sources of genetic variation?
isms is called
A. mutations
A. Bioengineering
B. genetic shuffling
B. Biotechnology
C. mutations and genetic shuffling C. Recombinant DNA
D. mutations and migrations D. Genetic Engineering
275. Which of the following would be an ex- 280. The passing of traits from parent to off-
ample of gene therapy technology? spring is called?
A. development of a nasal spray that con- A. reproduction
tains copies of the normal gene that is de-
B. diversity
fective in person with cystic fibrosis
C. heredity
B. cutting DNA into fragments with re-
striction enzymes D. chromosome
C. modifying E. coli to produce indigo dye 281. Which of these is the first step in selec-
for coloring denim blue jeans tive breeding flowers.
D. separation DNA fragments using gel A. Repeat the process only with the off-
electrophoresis spring with the desired traits
B. watch the seeds grow
276. States that during gamete formation
genes for different traits separate without C. Choose plants that have the desired
affecting others? trait to pollinate
A. principle of independent assortment D. chose which trait is desirable
B. principle of segregation 282. If a cross between a true breeding yel-

low seeded plant (dominant) and a true
C. . principle of dominance
breeding green seeded plant (recessive),
D. Principle of recessiveness you would expect the offspring to have
277. What must members of the same popula-

tion be able to do? A. 100 % green seeds
B. 50% yellow seeds and 50 % green
A. Reproduce with each other
seeds
B. Fight each other
C. 100 % yellow seed
C. They must look the same
D. 25% green seeds and 75 % yellow
D. They must act the same seeds

283. when pollen from one plant lands on the B. Larger, brighter feathers make them
pistil of a flower on the same plant more noticeable to predators so they have
become stronger because they have to de-

A. heredity
fend themselves
B. genetics
C. Larger, brighter feathers help the pea-
C. self pollination cocks absorb more sunlight, keeping them
D. cross pollination warm during winter months
D. Larger, brighter feathers weigh more,
284. Skin color in a certain species of fish is so these peacocks are stronger and more
inherited via a single gene with four dif- healthy
ferent alleles. How many different types
of gametes would be possible in this sys- 288. is a branch of Agriculture that deals
tem? with growing of crops.
A. 1 A. Agronomy
B. 2 B. Horticulture
C. 4 C. Forestry
D. 8 D. Enthomology
285. What word describes all the DNA in an 289. A single piece of coiled DNA found in the
organism? cells; contains genes that encode traits.
A. Genome A. gene
B. chromosome
B. Gene
C. trait
C. Allele
D. DNA
D. DNA
290. Green is dominant to yellow. Two het-
286. The favorable to be passed on are erozygous green plants are crossed. What
chosen by the breeder to create a new or are the genotypes of the offspring?
improved variety. Farmers have bred crop
species, like corn, to produce more food in A. 100% Gg
a smaller area. These hybrid plants result B. 50% GG, 50% Gg
by crossing parent plants for their desired C. 25% GG, 50% Gg, 25% gg
traits.
D. 75% Gg, 25% gg
A. Traits
B. Selective breeding 291. W=white hairw= non-white hairIf you
cross a horse with WW and a horse with
C. Population ww what fraction of the offspring would
D. Diverse be expected to have white hair? Create a
punnett square.
287. Peacocks have evolved to have large A. none
bright feathers. Which of the following
best explains why? B. 3/4
A. Larger, brighter feathers are more at- C. 1/2

tractive to mates D. all

292. In gamete formation genes for different mountain lions may vary in several char-
traits separate without influencing each acteristics. If prey becomes more scarce,
other’s inheritance. This illustrates which which variation would provide an advan-
of Mendel’s Laws? tage to the individuals that possessed it?
A. Law of Dominance A. A spotted coat
B. Law of Independent Assortment B. Short fur
C. Law of Segregation C. Long legs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Law of Punnett D. Abundant whiskers
293. What is turgor pressure and how does it 297. Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
cause a plant to return to its upright posi- A. cell membrane
tion after being wilted? B. vacuole
A. the force of water within a plant cell C. chloroplast
pushing against the cell wall which helps
the plant maintain a strong, upright posi- D. nucleus
tion. 298. A variety of plants and animals found in
B. the roots moved so they could reach an escosystem is know as
the water A. Biodiversity
C. the plant growing taller because it is B. Habitat
reacting to the light in the room
C. niche
D. the water that causes the cells to D. adaptation
shrink which helps the plant stand up
straight 299. Physical characteristics that are studied
in Genetics.
294. If T is dominant for tall, what are the pos-
sible phenotypes of the offspring when the A. Generations
following parents are crossed:TT x tt? B. Offspring
A. 50% tall and 50% short C. Hybrids
B. 100% tall D. Traits
C. 100% short 300. What is a genome?
D. 75% tall and 25% short A. all the cells produced in meiosis
295. If the triplets in the mRNA reads “AUC”, B. all the plasmids produced from insert-
which tRNA will bring the amino acid to ing DNA into a cell
the ribosome? C. all the DNA in one cell of an organism
A. ”GAT” D. all the karyotypes of a cell
B. ”AAG” 301. Which statement describes how two or-
C. ”TAG” ganisms may show the same trait, yet
have different genotypes for that pheno-
D. ”UAG” type?
296. Mountain lions are large cats and the top A. Both are homozygous for the dominant
predator in their habitat. A population of trait.

B. One is homozygous dominant, and the 307. Which of the followings are the essential
other homozygous recessive. chemicals to prepare liquid medium for the
micropropagation of Orchid sp.?I AlcoholII

C. Both are heterozygous for the domi-
nant trait. PhytagelIII MS mediumIV Activated char-
coal
D. One is homozygous dominant and the
other heterozygous. A. I and II
B. III and IV
302. A person’s blood type is an example of
C. I, II and III
A. Codominance D. All of the answers.
B. Pleiotropy 308. If a species cannot adapt to their environ-
C. Multiple alleles ment they may
D. Both codominance and multiple alleles A. be killed by disease
303. The scientific study of heredity is B. experience predation
A. Genetics C. become extinct

B. Punnett squares D. experience increased competition
C. Inheritance 309. Which part of a plant cell contains chloro-
D. Biology phyll?
A. The chloroplast
304. Backrossing involves crossing
A. Parent and parent B. The nucleus
B. Hybrid and hybrid C. The vacuole
C. Parent and hybrid D. The cytoplasm

D. none of above 310. The plants that Mendel crossed to pro-
duce the F1 generation made up the
305. A scientist inserts a gene into an apple
generation.
that makes it resistant to drought from a
bacteria. What is this an example of? A. P
A. Genetic engineering B. heterozygous
B. Natural selection C. Tt
C. Mutagenesis D. F2
D. Genetic screening
311. A is the smallest unit of a living or-
306. What is the number of chromosomes in a ganism that is able to grow and reproduce
haploid cell? independently.
A. 1N A. Nucleus
B. 2N B. Cell
C. 3N C. Cell membrane
D. 4N D. Mitochondria

312. is a branch of Agriculture that is also 317. Mycology is the study of

called as Agronomics. A. Viruses
A. Agricultural Engineering B. Bactria
B. Agricultural Economics C. Fungi
C. Agronomy D. All of these
D. Horticulture
318. How does natural selection lead to the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
spread of an adaptation?
313. What are Open Pollinated Seeds?
A. adaptations can be taught to offspring
A. Open Pollinated seed comes from vari-
eties that produce seed that can be har- B. better adapted organisms live longer
vested from the plant, saved, replanted, and have more offspring than other organ-
and the same variety will re-grow year af- ism
ter year. All heirloom seeds are open pol- C. better adapted organisms kill compet-
linated. ing organisms off
B. Open Pollinated seed comes from wild D. adaptations can be traded between or-
native foraging only. ganisms.
C. Open Pollinated seeds occur when 319. An example of a homozygous dominant
placing seeds in water and growing micro- allele par can be:
greens.
A. TT
D. none of above
B. Tt
314. The source of dwarfing gene sd1 in rice C. tt
is
D. none of the answers are correct
A. IR 8
320. To discover whether an animal showing
B. Dee-gee-woo-gen the dominant trait is homozygous or het-
C. ADT 27 erozygous, it must be crossed with an an-
imal that is:
D. Peta
A. homozygous dominant
315. Pure line breed refers to
B. homozygous recessive
A. heterozygosity only C. heterozygous
B. homozygosity only D. choices B & C
C. homozygosity and self assortment
321. A new plant species is discovered. Biolo-
D. heterozygosity and linkage gists note that some flowers have royal
blue (dark blue) petals and that others
316. Another word for trait is have white petals. A biologist cross-
A. characteristic pollinated white flowering plants with
blue flowering plants. What color petals
B. treat
will be observed if there is incomplete
C. genes dominance?
D. jeans A. white

B. spotted B. all tall.

C. light blue C. 1 tall:3 short.

D. royal blue D. 3 tall:1 short.
322. A process where plant breeders intention-
327. Plant breeding is the of plants in or-
ally cross-pollinate two different varieties
der to create desired plant types.
of plants
A. Adaptation A. Breeding
B. Hibernation B. Manipulation
C. Natural selection C. Crossing
D. Hybridization D. none of above
323. What is a dominant allele? 328. What did Gregor Mendel discovery in the
A. A trait that is always shown (capital let- results of his F1 generation?
ter) A. Only the dominant trait appeared!
B. A trait that can be hidden (lower case
B. The offspring were all different!
letter)
C. Only the recessive trait appeared!
C. Alleles that are the same
D. Alleles that are different D. The plants were more healthy
324. In tissue culture technique, any plant 329. Humans have selectively bred animals for
parts grown in a nutrient medium un- many years. Selective breeding helps to
der sterile conditions can give rise to a produce favored traits in the animals. One
whole new plant. Commonly, the nutrient example of animals that are selectively
medium contains the following elements bred is hens. Which of the following traits
EXCEPT is most likely achieved in hens through se-
lective breeding?
A. inorganic salts
B. vitamins A. production of offspring without feath-
ers
C. cytokinins
B. production of larger eggs
D. cytokines
C. production of fewer eggs
325. An inherited pair of alleles.
D. production of offspring with longer
A. DNA legs
B. Phenotype
330. The designation Rr for a pea plant’s
C. Genotype
flower shows that the plant is
D. Genetics
A. purple
326. The height of pea plants from a cross B. heterozygous
between parent plants heterozygous for
height in which tall is dominant would be C. homozygous
A. all short. D. true- breeding

331. If two organisms reproduce sexually, ex- 336. Tropism is a growth or movement ofa
plain the genetic makeup of their off- plant in response to
spring. A. a response
A. identical to only one parent. B. a stimulus
B. identical to all of its siblings. C. a reaction
C. a unique combination of traits of both D. an effect
parents
337. which of the following is a genetic trait?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. a unique combination of traits of both
parents and both grandparents. A. remembering one’s name - a trait peo-
ple get from their parents, and never be
332. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a forgotten
baby. What is the chance the baby is blue
eyed?Create a punnett square to help you. B. cooking ability - a trait people have
from birth, determined by the genes of
A. 0 % their parents
B. 25% C. hair color - a trait found in genes in-
C. 50% side chromosomes, which are inside the
nucleus of a person’s cells
D. 75%
D. music taste - a trait that people
333. a genetic factor that is blocked by the learn from their environment and is pro-
presence of a dominant factor grammed into the brain forever
A. self pollinate
338. Charles Darwin is best known for -
B. cross pollinate
A. His theory of natural selection
C. dominate
B. His theory of selective breeding
D. recessive
C. His work with the animals on the Gala-
334. Offspring that result from crosses be- pagos Islands
tween true-breeding parents with differ- D. His theory of natural selection and his
ent traits work on the Galapagos Islands
A. are true-breeding
339. Which sequence below best represents
B. make up the F2 generation the steps to making a GMO?
C. make up the parental generation A. Isolate the gene of interest, add gene
D. are called hybrids of interest to vector, copy vector through
mitosis in bacteria cell, add bacteria to
335. George Guinea Pig met Greta Guinea Pig plant cells, copy plant cells through mito-
at a party. George is heterozygous for his sis, & test final product after growth pe-
long hair, but Greta has short hair. How riod
can we describe Greta’s genotype? B. Add gene of interest to vector, copy
A. homozygous dominant vector through mitosis in bacteria cell,
B. homozygous recessive add bacteria to plant cells, copy plant cells
through mitosis, isolate the gene of inter-
C. heterozygous est, & test final product after growth pe-
D. none of above riod

C. Copy vector through mitosis in bacte- 343. In humans, acondroplasia “dwarfism”(D)

ria cell, isolate the gene of interest, add is dominant over normal(d). A homozy-
gene of interest to vector, add bacteria to gous dominant person will die before the

plant cells, copy plant cells through mito- age of one. A heterozygous person is
sis, & test final product after growth pe- dwarfed. A homozygous recessive individ-
riod ual is normal. A heterozygous dwarf man
marries a heterozygous dwarf woman
D. Test final product after growth period,
What is the probability of having a normal
isolate the gene of interest, add gene of
child?
interest to vector, copy vector through mi-
tosis in bacteria cell, add bacteria to plant A. 25%
cells, & copy plant cells through mitosis B. 50%
340. The region of domestication for Asian rice C. 75%
is river D. 100%
A. Balsas
344. It can also be described as the production
B. Yangtze and management of farm animals.
C. Niger A. Aquaculture
D. Indus B. Soil Science
C. Animal Production
341. What is selective breeding?
D. Pomology
A. A group of closely related organisms
B. Improve plants + animals by selecting 345. Offspring that are genetically different
+ breeding desirable characteristics from both parents are produced through
C. A reaction affected by light intensity, A. binary fission
temperature, level of CO2 B. budding
D. Detoxifying poisonous substances like C. asexual reproduction
ethanol
D. sexual reproduction
342. Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants 346. Which of the following is NOT a desired
are crossed. One parent has red, axial trait in PLANTS?
flowers andthe other has white, terminal
flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial A. Disease resistance in food crops
flowers. The genes for flower color and B. Wheat plants that produce lots of grain
location assort independently. If 1, 000
F 2 offspring resulted from thecross, ap- C. Large or unusual flowers
proximately how many of them would you D. Create sheep with quality wool.
expect to have red, terminal flowers?
347. In pea plants, height is determined by an
A. 65 allele for tallness (T) that is dominant over
B. 190 an allele for shortness (t). What is the
probability that a gamete, selected at ran-
C. 250
dom, would carry the short allele in a cross
D. ) 565 of heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt x Tt)?

HINT:How many t’s are there amongst the D. None of the above
Punnett square?
352. In 700B.C. Assyrians and Babylonians
A. 1/8
hand pollinated
B. 1/4
A. Maize
C. 1/2
B. Wheat
D. 3/4
C. Date palms
348. What are some of the facts about asex-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Coconut
ual reproduction?
A. Takes only one mate to reproduce and 353. Mitosis and meiosis are processes in-
takes a longer time to reproduce volved in cellular reproduction. Which of
the following describes an event that re-
B. Takes a shorter amount of time to re-
sults from mitosis but NOT meiosis?
produce and it takes two mates to repro-
duce A. two stages of cell division
C. Reproduces diverse offspring and B. replication of cellular genetic material
takes a longer time to reproduce C. daughter cells that are identical to the
D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and parent cell
takes a shorter time to reproduce
D. four daughter cells that are produced
349. The process by which pieces of DNA are from each parent cell
transfered from one organism to another.
354. Fixation of nitrogen in the soil
A. Gene Therapy
A. Virus
B. Genetic Engineering
B. Fungi
C. Chromosomal Mutation
C. Bacteria
D. Bitotechnology
D. Protozoan
350. An organism with two different alleles
for a trait is said to be: 355. What step did Mendel take to be sure
A. recessive that his pea pants cross-pollinated?
B. hybrid A. He used two white plants.
C. dominant B. He used plants that were not true
breeding.
D. purebred
C. He added anthers to both plants.
351. Which of the following statement is cor-
rect? D. He removed the anthers of one plant.
A. RNA is double stranded while DNA is 356. Which describes the ability of a single
made of a single strand gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
B. DNA contains the nitrogen base A. Incomplete dominance
thymine while RNA contains uracil
B. Multiple alleles
C. RNA contains a deoxyribose sugar
molecule in its backbone and DNA con- C. Pleiotropy
tains a ribose sugar molecule D. Epistasis

357. Which term describes the genotype of 362. ’Fairchild’ is the first artificial hybrid of
the offspring of the first generation in A. Carnations and Sweet William
Mendel’s experiment?

B. Daisy and Rose
A. true breeding
C. Sunflower and Rose
B. purebred
D. Rose and Chrysanthemum
C. hybrid
D. homozygous 363. What is the name of the process in which
genes from one organism are transferred
358. Organisms with thicker fur survive a into the genome of another organism?
harsh winter and are able to reproduce the
A. Genetic Engineering
next spring. This is an example of
B. Selective breeding
B. environmental change C. Artificial selection
C. natural selection D. Survival of the fittest
D. mutation 364. Example of often cross pollinated crop is

359. How does a geneticist use a pedigree? A. Maize
A. to create genetic crosses B. Rice
B. to replicate identical strings of DNA C. Pearl millet
C. to prove that sex-linked traits are D. Sorghum
caused by codominant alleles
365. The botanical name of Sugarcane is:
D. to trace the inheritance of traits in hu-
A. Oryza sativum
mans
B. Saccharum barberi
360. T-tallt- shortThe probability that the F2
from the previous cross will be tall is C. Pisum Sativum
( P1 cross is TT x tt F1 cross is Tt x Tt) D. Triticum
)*asking about F2
366. Which process is necessary for sexual re-
A. 25% production but not for asexual reproduc-
B. 50% tion?
C. 75% A. production of new cells
D. 100% B. division of cells
361. Red-green color blindness is an X-linked C. meiosis
recessive trait. A red-green color-blind D. copying of genetic material
woman and a red-green color-blind man
have a son. What is the probability that 367. studies insects and pests that are im-
the son is also red-green color-blind? portant to agriculture.
A. 0% A. Plant Breeding
B. 25% B. Horticulture
C. 50% C. Agricultural Biotechnology
D. 100% D. Enthomology

368. A is a plant, fungus, or algae that for the MN blood group has codominant al-
is grown and harvested for food, clothing, leles M and N. Which of the following is a
livestock feed, biofuel, medicine, or other possible partial genotype for the son?
uses. A. IBIB
A. Fiber B. IBIA
B. Textile C. ii
C. Crop D. IBi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Farm
374. What ratio did Mendel notice in his ex-
369. What macromolecule do genes code for? periments?
A. proteins A. 1:2
B. carbohydrates B. 3:1
C. nucleic acids C. 4:1

D. none of above
D. lipids
375. How are genetic traits passed down from
370. the variety of life in the world or in a par-
generation to generation?
ticular habitat or ecosystem is
A. Chromosomes
A. Biodiversity
B. Reproduction
B. ecosystem
C. DNA
C. earth
D. Genes
D. Biome
376. Which field would most likely NOT incor-
371. Which generation in Mendel’s experi- porate biotechnology?
ments showed a 3:1 ratio of traits?
A. Agriculture
A. The second generation offspring
B. Genetics
B. The first generation offspring
C. Medicine
C. The original parents
D. Mining
377. Both parents of a child have type A blood.
372. is a source of rubber. What might their child’s blood type be?
A. Tectona grandis A. Type A only
B. Hevea brasilensis B. Type A or type B
C. Michelia champaca C. Type A or type O
D. Cedrus depdara D. Type A or type AB
373. A woman who has blood type A positive 378. Pusa komal is resistant to
has a daughter who is type O positive and A. Bacterial blight
a son who is type B negative. Rh posi- B. Black rot and Curl
tive is a trait that shows simple dominance
over Rh negative and is designated by the C. White rust
alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene D. Hill burnt

379. Botanical name of Rice is C. rr

A. Oryza sativa D. None of the Above

B. Zea mays
385. What did Mendel do to make sure his
C. Pennisetum typhoides plants didn’t self-pollinate?
D. Aloe vera A. Removed the anther/pollen.
380. A carrier molecule of DNA that allows the B. Added anthers to the plant
gene of interest to be copied is best known C. Removed the stigma
as a
D. Cut the stems
A. transformation
B. restriction enzyme 386. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of natural selection?
C. vector or plasmid
A. People selectively breeding hamsters.
D. recombinant DNA
B. Insect populations developing resis-
381. Where would you expect to find Archaea tance to certain pesticides.
organisms?
C. Bacteria becoming resistant to antibi-
A. extreme conditions otics.
B. in your stomach D. Male birds of certain species devel-
C. in old buildings oping colorful feathers to attract female
D. none of above mates.
382. Which of the following is not a character- 387. The new varieties of plants are produced
istic of natural selection? by
A. More offspring are born than will sur- A. Introduction and mutation
vive to reproduce. B. Selection and hybridisation
B. Mutations appear randomly. C. Mutation and Selection
C. Breeding pairs are chosen by humans. D. Selection and Introduction
D. Organisms that are better adapted are
more likely to survive. 388. If an environment suddenly changes,
which type of reproduction would be most
383. If something is heterozygous, it is also beneficial? Why?
A. Asexual, because asexual organisms
A. purebred always have variation within species.
B. hybrid B. Sexual, because sexual organisms
C. dominant have variation within species.
D. recessive C. Both Asexual and Sexual reproduction
would be beneficial, because they both
384. Which of the following genotypes is ho- have variation within species.
mozygous recessive?
D. Asexual, because asexual organisms
A. RR have no variation, so they can adapt to a
B. Rr changing environment.

389. When two animals fight for the same C. 0

food in a habitat
D. 1
A. Perish
394. Polar bears have compact ears, a small
B. Overpopulation
tail, and thick fur to keep themselves
C. Competition warm. Are these examples of physical
D. Prey (structural) or behavioural adaptations?
A. Physical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
390. If yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y),
What is the probability to have a homozy- B. Behavioural
gous dominant if you cross two hybrids?
C. Functional
A. 100%
D. none of above
B. 75%
C. 25% 395. The entire set of genes that belongs to an
organism is called its
D. 0%
A. genome
391. is the science and business of pro- B. chromosome
ducing domestic livestock species, includ-
ing but not limited to beef cattle, dairy C. gene
cattle, horses, poultry, sheep, swine, and D. DNA sequence
companion animals.
A. Pet science 396. The basic unit of heredity is known as a
B. Crop science
A. allele
C. Animal science
B. gene
D. Livestock science
C. DNA
392. In a cross between two hybrid roses (Rr),
what percent of the offspring will be Rr? D. genotype
A. 25% 397. Mutations are a change in what?

B. 50% A. DNA
C. 75% B. tRNA
D. 100% C. genotype
393. In humans, the allele for a widow’s peak D. phenotype
(W) is dominant. A woman with the geno-
type “ww” has children with a man with 398. An allele that is fully expressed in an or-
the genotype “Ww”. If the couple has ganism’s appearance is
eight children, how many children would
A. unusual
you logically expect to have a widow’s
peak? B. heterozygous
A. 4 C. homozygous
B. 2 D. dominant

399. The passing of traits from parents to off- 405. In a cross of purple flowered heterozy-
spring is called gous plants (Pp), the letter P represents
the allele for purple flowers and the letter

A. hybrids
p represents the allele for white flowers.
B. heredity What is the probability that an offspring
C. cross pollination of this cross expresses plants with purple
D. pure breeding flower phenotypes?
A. 0
400. Where humans have bred organisms to-
gether based on traits we like. B. 1/4
A. Evolution C. 1/2
B. Natural Selection D. 3/4
C. Extinction 406. The first-generation purple-flowering

plants are called plants.
D. Artificial Selection
A. hybrid
401. A distinguishing characteristic that can be
B. cross-breeding
inherited is a(n)
C. self-breeding
A. cross
D. self-pollinating
B. allele
C. gene 407. a hybrid purple-flower plant (purple and
white) crossed with a true-breeding white-
D. trait
flower plant
402. easily seen characteristics are called A. all purple-flower plants
A. genetics B. mostly purple-flower plants
B. observable traits C. half purple-flower plants and half
C. DNA white-flower plants
D. chromosomes D. none of above
403. What is the phenotypic ratio in the F1 408. All offspring in this generation exhibit
generation of a dihybrid testcross? the dominant trait.
A. 3:1 A. The first parent plants
B. 1:2:1 B. The first generation offspring
C. 9:3:3:1 C. The second generation offspring
D. 1:1:1:1 D. Generation X
404. Why is bagging done? 409. A sexually reproducing animal has two
unlinked genes, one for head shape ( H)
A. To avoid cross pollination and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is
B. To avoid self pollination HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is
C. To achieve desired pollination possible in a gamete from this organism?
D. To prevent contamination from foreign A. HT

pollen B. Hh

C. HhTt 414. Recessive alleles may not be expressed

because they are
D. T
A. masked by the dominant allele
410. is the technique of selective breeding that B. the least common allele in the popula-
maintains desirable characteristics in a line tion
of organisms, but increases the risk of ge-
netic defects in certain animal breeds. C. the most common allele in the popula-
tion
A. inbreeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. not inherited
B. hybridization
415. What did Mendel conclude about inher-
C. mutation
ited traits?
D. pleoploidy A. One factor controls each inherited
trait.
411. is a method widely used in molecular
biology to rapidly make millions to billions B. Two factors control each inherited
of copies of a specific DNA sample allow- trait.
ing scientists to take a very small sample C. Multiple factors control each inherited
of DNA and amplify it to a large enough trait.
amount to study in detail.
D. none of above
A. PCR
416. What characteristic would a child not in-
B. GMO
herit from parents?
C. DNA A. freckles
D. RNA B. eye color
412. Artificial selection is C. hair style
A. the process by which humans select D. dimples

who lives and dies based on traits of an- 417. What is the enzyme that proofread the
imal or plant. newly made bases during replication?
B. the process by which natures selects A. Helicase
who lives and dies.
B. Ligase
C. the process by which animals adapt to
their surroundings. C. DNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
D. the process by which people take over
ecosystems. 418. A is the small section of a chromo-
some that controls hereditary characteris-
413. Chromosomes are found in tics.
A. the nucleus of prokaryotic cells A. genotype
B. plant cells only B. phenotype
C. the nucleus of eukaryotic cells C. gene
D. animal cells only D. dna

419. is the science and craft of creating, C. TT, Tt, tt

managing, planting, using, conserving and D. tt
repairing forests, woodlands, and associ-

ated resources for human and environmen- 424. Which of the following about the law of
tal benefits. segregation is false?
A. Agronomy A. It states that each of two alleles for
B. Horticulture a given trait segregate into different ga-
metes.
C. Aquaculture
B. It can be explained by the segregation
D. Forestry
of homologous chromosomes during meio-
420. Tigers and household cats are members sis.
of the same family. Their sizes and other C. It can be used to predict the likeli-
features are very different. What is the hood of transmission of certain genetic
cause of the differences? diseases within families.
A. biochemical makeup D. It is a method that can be used to de-
B. domestication termine the number of chromosomes in a
plant.
C. genetics
D. habitat 425. A person has a harmful genetic mutation
that causes them to produce a defective
421. If one trait “covers” up another trait, the protein. How can gene therapy be used
trait that covers the other is said to be: to help this person overcome the harmful
A. Dominant effects of this mutation?
B. Heterozygous A. Insert new, functional proteins that
will replace the defective proteins.
C. Recessive
B. Insert new, functional genes that will
D. Hidden
remove the genetic mutation.
422. During which phase of mitosis are sister C. Insert a corrected gene into the cell
chromatids pulled to opposite ends of the that codes for the functional protein.
cell?
D. Insert a corrected, functional protein
A. prophase that will produce more functional pro-
B. metaphase teins.
C. anaphase 426. are produced when DNA from another
D. telophase species is inserted into the genome of an
organism, which then begins to produce
423. Stuart Snail is heterozygous for tall eye- the protein encoded on the recombinant
balls. Sally Snail has tall eyeballs but does DNA.
carry the recessive allele. If their baby
A. vectors
snail has tall eyeballs then what is/are
the possible genotype(s) he could have? B. plasmids
A. TT C. transgenic organisms
B. TT, Tt D. gene guns

427. Mutations can be/have 432. Sam loved flowers as much as Mendel
A. beneficial loved peas. Sam was looking at the re-
sults of a cross between his purebred red
B. harmful and white flowers. Which is the most
C. no effect likely result of a cross that demonstrates
D. all answers are correct incomplete dominance?
A. 25% pink
428. The abbreviation of an individual’s geno-
type in a dihybrid trait would be which of B. Scott gets angry because he only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the following? wanted red flowers
A. TtBb C. 75% red
B. AA D. 100% pink
C. Tall and brown 433. Which of the following is NOT a trait that
D. Tb Mendel recorded?
A. length of leaf
429. The fact that all seven of the pea plant
traits studied by Mendel obeyed the princi- B. flower color
ple of independent assortment most prob- C. seed color
ably indicates which of the following? D. seed shape
A. None of the traits obeyed the law of
segregation. 434. The most obvious difference in Darwin’s
finches was the variation in
B. The diploid number of chromosomes in
the pea plants was 7. A. wingspan
C. All of the genes controlling the traits B. beak size and shape
were located on the same chromosome. C. eye color.
D. All of the genes controlling the traits D. size
behaved as if they were on differentchro-
mosomes. 435. What did Mendel conclude from his ex-
periments about how traits were passed
430. What are Hybrids? from parents to offspring?
A. Second generation of offspring A. Traits are determined by the environ-
B. The offspring of parents with different ment.
traits B. Traits are passed by the sperm only.
C. first generation of offspring C. Traits are passed through the egg only.
D. A happy person D. One trait is passed through the egg
and other comes from the sperm.
431. What do we call traits that increase an
individual’s chance to survive and repro- 436. What applications can gel electrophoresis
duce? be used for?
A. Maladaptations A. Parental Testing
B. Adaption B. Criminal Investigations
C. Variations C. Sequence Endangered Species DNA
D. Adaptations D. All of the above

437. A sequence of DNA that codes for a spe- 443. Heredity is the passing of traits from
cific trait is a to

A. gamete A. predators to prey
B. phenotype
B. water to rain
C. gene
D. heterozygous C. parents to offspring
438. Which form of selective breeding crosses D. fungi to protists

parents with the same or similar sets of
alleles? 444. Which term refers to a farmer choosing
A. fertilization the best corn from this year to plant next
year?
B. inbreeding
C. hybridization A. natural selection
D. cloning B. selective breeding
439. A mutation C. genetic engineering
A. is always bad for an organism
D. genetic transformation
B. is always good for an organism
C. is a change in an organism’s DNA 445. An application of using DNA technology
D. never changes an organism to help environmental scientists would be
440. What is the purpose of mitosis?
A. create genetic diversity A. use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime
scene
B. increase cell volume
C. produce new offspring B. create a tobacco plant that glows in
the dark
D. replace damaged cells and growth
C. clone the gene for human growth hor-
441. What is the F2 generation?
mone to treat pituitary dwarfism
A. Parental generation
D. make transgenic bacteria that can be
B. First generation of offspring
used to clean up oil spills more quickly
C. Second generation of offspring than do the natural bacteria
D. none
442. Which of the following has the disadvan- 446. During the winter months when re-
tage of possibly bringing two recessive al- sources such as food and water may be
leles together and causing a genetic de- scarce, some animals
fect? A. go into estivation
A. inbreeding
B. ignore their circadian rhythms
B. hybridization
C. genetic engineering C. go into hybernation
D. transformation D. use warning colorations

447. An ideal procedure for fetal testing in hu- A. an allele for tallness from the tall par-
mans would have which of the following ent and an allele for shortness from the
features? short parent.
A. Lowest risk procedure that would pro- B. an allele for short from the tall parent
vide the most reliable information and an allele for tall from the tall parent
B. A procedure that provides a 3D image C. an allele from only the tall parent.
of the fetus D. an allele for tallness from each parent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The procedure that can test for the
greatest number of traits at once 452. What word would be INCORRECT to de-
scribe “QQ”
D. A procedure that could test for the car-
rier status of the fetus A. homozygous
B. dominant
448. This is designed to promote the conser-
vation of biodiversity and to ensure the C. genotype
sustainable use and equitable sharing of D. recessive
genetic resources.
453. All of the following are considered behav-
A. Endemic species ioral adaptations EXCEPT -
B. Biodiversity Treaty A. Gills on a fish
C. Biodiversity B. Caribou migrating for food sources
D. Habitat conservation C. A bear hibernating
449. Many people prefer breeds of dog that D. Plant bulbs going into dormancy
have specific traits. Recently there has
been a surge in the business of selectively 454. The term geitonogamy refers to
breeding dogs in order to produce those A. Pollination within same flower of same
specific traits. Which of the following plant
would most likely be a favorable trait that
B. Pollination with different flower of
dog breeders try to produce?
same plant
A. dogs with thin bones
C. Pollination with different flower of dif-
B. dogs that don’t shed ferent plant
C. dogs with small eyes D. None of the above
D. dogs with quiet barks
455. Which of the following is the most vulner-
450. Having two different alleles for a trait. able to disease?
A. protein A. A rice field planted by farmers because
it has only one plant species
B. homozygous
B. A forest in the mountains because the
C. heterozygous trees do not receive enough sunlight
D. genotype C. A natural, short - grass prairie be-
451. When crossin a true-breeding tall plant cause there are too many herbivores
with a true-breeding short plant, the F1 D. A desert ecosystem because the cli-
plants inherited mate is dry

456. stage 1 genetic engineering of insulin B. It can cause unknown defects

A. Plasmid is removed from a bacterial C. It is detrimental to genetic diversity

cell and cut open by enzymes D. All of the above
B. Gene is inserted into the plasmid
which is then put back into the bacterial 461. Few offspring over time
cell A. asexual
C. Insulin gene is cut out from the chro- B. sexual
mosome which is located using enzymes C. both
D. Gene for insulin production is located D. none of above
in the nucleus of a beta cell
462. What are multiple alleles?
457. Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1
ratio in the F 2 generation should have A. more than 2 genes that control a trait
which of thefollowing properties? B. three or more forms of a gene that
code for a single trait
A. Each of the traits is controlled by sin-
gle genes. C. three or more chromosomes that de-
termine a trait
B. The genes controlling the characters
obey the law of independent assortment. D. more than 2 codominant genes in a
chromosome
C. Each of the genes controlling the char-
acters has two alleles. 463. Mendel did test crosses. What is the pur-
D. Sixteen different phenotypes are pos- pose of a test cross?
sible. A. to determine the parents phenotype
(appearance)
458. Can a woman with type A blood and a
man with type B blood have a child with B. to determine the parents genotype
type O blood? C. to determine the chance of producing
A. Yes if they are IAIA and IBIB a particular trait from 2 parents
B. Probably not D. to determine how many offspring can
be produced by 2 parents
C. Yes if they are IAio and IBio
D. Yes if they are IAIA and IBio 464. Olierculture is the area of growing
A. vegetables
459. Cows are selectively bred to produce
milk. Which of the following will cause the B. field crops
next generation to receive the trait to pro- C. horticulture crops
duce large quantities of milk?
D. nursery container plants
A. nutrients in their food
465. Huntingons diseases is caused by a domi-
B. mineral in their water nant allele. How could a doctor determine
C. electrical impulses to their brains the chances that a patient would have
D. information in their chromosomes Huntingtons disease?
A. By identifying if the patient’s parents
460. Why might people be against cloning? carry the dominant allele for Huntington’s
A. It’s creepy disease

B. By identifying if the patient is married 469. the part of the plant where the pollen is
to a person that exhibits symptoms of A. stamen
Huntington’s disease.
B. pistil
C. By identifying if the patient had been in
close contact with someone that exhibits C. stem
symptoms of Huntington’s disease D. leaf
D. By identifying if the patient had been in 470. Parents pass their traits down to their
close contact with someone that carries
NARAYAN CHANGDER
offspring through their
the dominant allele for Huntington’s dis-
ease A. daughter cells
B. reproductive cells
466. What advantage does an onion, which
usually grows from a bulb, have over a C. body cells
tomato plant, which grows from a seed? D. somatic cells
A. An onion bulb can survive long, harsh 471. the study of how traits are passed on
winters, because it can store food and wa-
ter in the bulb A. heredity
B. A tomatom plant cannot grow as tall B. genetics

C. self pollination
C. An onion bulb can survive in topical
conditions because it is camouflaged like D. cross pollination
coconuts
472. Which of these describes how an organ-
D. None of the above ism looks?
467. The physical appearance or the expres- A. its probability
sion of a trait in an organism is called the B. its phenotype
C. its hybrid
A. phenotype
D. its zygosity
B. genotype
473. A set of instructions for an inherited trait
C. heterozygous
A. recessive
D. homozygous
B. dominant
468. R=round seedr=wrinkled seed.Cross a C. gene
homozygous round with a wrinkled by cre-
D. unique
ating a punnett square. Which statement
predicts the results? 474. In homomorphic system of Self incompat-
A. offspring will be Rr ibility, incompatibility due to phenotype of
pollen is termed as
B. offspring will be RR
A. Gametopyhtic SI
C. round seeds will be recessive to wrin-
kled B. Sporohytic SI
D. Wrinkled will be observed in half of off- C. Distyly

spring D. Tristyly

475. Each of the seven traits that Mendel stud- 479. Some harmful bacteria have become able
ied occurred in to resist antibiotics because?

A. one observable form. A. the bacteria adapted to survive the an-
B. two distinct, observable forms. tibiotic
C. all plants B. the antibiotic became weaker over
time
D. animals and plant
C. the environment made the antibiotic
476. What is the difference between genotype not work any more
and phenotype?
D. the number of bacteria is greater than
A. genotype is detectable expression of the antibiotic can kill
the genotype. An expressed and observ-
able trait. e.g. hair color. on the other 480. The Human Genome Project has made di-
hand, phenotype is The genetic makeup of agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
an individual. Refers to the information genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be
contained on two alleles in the cell. used as a possible treatment.
B. Hair color, eye color, weight, and the A. cell cultures
ability to roll one’s tongue are examples of B. gene therapy
genotype. Phenotype is a section of DNA
that may be susceptible to disease. C. DNA fingerprinting
C. phenotype is the detectable expres- D. PCR
sion of the genotype. It is also an ex-
pressed or an observable trait, e.g. hair 481. Mendel’s initial cross (the parent cross)
color. Genotype is the genetic makeup of produced offspring referred to as the
an individual. Refers to the information A. F1
contained on two alleles in the cell, e.g. B. F2
TT, tt, Tt
C. P1
D. none of the answers are correct.
D. P2
477. G- Greeng - yellowIn a cross between GG
x Gg which is true about the probability of 482. Gene S controls the sharpness of spines
the offspring? in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dom-
inant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas
A. 50% will be yellow
homozygous recessive ss cactuses have
B. 100% will be yellow dull spines. At the same time, a sec-
C. 100% will be Green ond gene, N, determines whether cactuses
have spines. Homozygous recessive nn
D. 50% will be Green
cactuses have no spines at all.The relation-
478. The entire collection of genes within hu- ship between genes S and N is an example
man cells is referred to as the of
A. human genome A. incomplete dominance.
B. karyotype B. epistasis.
C. pedigree C. complete dominance.
D. gene map D. pleiotropy.

483. What does a capital letter represent? corresponding recessive phenotype is an

A. Dominant example of
B. Recessive A. a heterozygous cross.
C. both B. an F1 cross.
D. none C. a self cross.

D. a test cross
484. Natural selection occurs -
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Over short periods of time to an entire 489. George Guinea Pig met Greta Guinea Pig
population at a party. George is heterozygous for his
long hair, but Greta has short hair. What
B. Over long periods of time are the chances that they would have a
C. Immediately when the animals need it heterozygous baby?
most
A. 100%
D. It never occurs to animals, just to fish
B. 75%
and invertebrates
C. 50%
485. Plant tissue culture is a practice used to
D. 25%
propagate plants under sterile conditions,
often to produce of a plant. 490. An organism that survives longer is more
A. DNA likely to produce offspring
B. Bacteria A. less
C. Cloning B. the same amount
D. Chromosome C. more
486. is the study of soil as a natural body D. no

that is created by natural forces on the sur-
491. A program for the conservation of threat-
face of the earth on which plants grow.
ened and endangered plants and animals
A. Agronomy and the habitats in which they are found
B. Soil Science is which of the following?
C. Horticulture A. Biodiversity Treaty

D. Olericulture B. Ecotourism
C. Habitat Conservation
487. it means garden culture.
D. Endangered species act
A. Agriculture
B. Horticulture 492. It is the process of removing unwanted
plants.
C. Agronomy
A. Crop filtering
D. Landscaping
B. Grass removal
488. Mating an individual expressing a domi-
C. Weeding
nant phenotype but those genotype is un-
known with an individual expressing the D. none of above

493. Survival of the Fittest and Evolution traits. Which of the following variations
were proposed by what scientist? would have the greatest effect on the abil-
ity of individual barrel cacti to survive in

A. Charles Darwin
an arid climate?
B. Albert Einstein
A. Color of flower petals
C. Steven Hawking
B. Thickness of waxy coating
D. Isaac Newton
C. Length of spines
494. Which scientist is given credit for the the- D. Number of seeds produced in fruit
ory of natural selection?
498. What is the type of gene whose effect
A. Gregor Mendel
can be hidden?
B. Ben Franklin
A. dominant gene
C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
B. inherited trait
D. Charles Darwin
C. recessive gene
495. Leopard seals are animals adapted to sur- D. acquired trait
vive in the freezing conditions of Antarc-
tica. Individual leopard seals vary in their 499. How many chromosomes would a sperm
different traits. Which of the following cell have of an organism whose diploid
variations would give a leopard seal the number was 8?
greatest chance of surviving in its harsh A. 2
environment?
B. 4
A. More spots on its coat
C. 6
B. Thicker layer of blubber
D. 8
C. More elongated head
500. The father of Genetics:
D. Wider, flatter teeth
A. Albert Einstein
496. Serious genetic disorders include cystic fi- B. Gregor Mendel
brosis and Sickle cell disease. What de-
termines whether a person has a genetic C. Robert Hooke
disorder? D. Theodore Schwann
A. epigenetic factors from the environ- 501. The study of is called genetics.
ment
A. mutations
B. whether defective genes were inher-
ited from the parents B. heredity
C. the person’s behavior, such as choices C. dominan
in diet and exercise D. pea plants
D. random events that occur during the 502. Researchers have been working on
person’s growth and development cloning animals such as sheep. Which re-
497. A barrel cactus is a plant adapted to sur- sult is most likely to be a negative result
vive in the harsh conditions of a desert. In- such as cloning?
dividual barrel cacti might vary in several A. development of extra organs

B. premature death 507. A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 gener-

C. a low rate of genetic diseases ation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of
D. delayed aging A. complete dominance.

B. multiple alleles.
503. Name the enzyme that joins DNA
C. incomplete dominance.
A. Restriction
D. polygenic inheritance.
B. Ligase
508. You are given a sample of unknown hu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vector man cells to examine. Analysis of their nu-
D. none of above clei reveals that each cell contains 23 chro-
mosomes. What types of cells might these
504. How do alleles that display codominance be?
differ from alleles that display simple dom-
inance? A. egg cells
B. skin cells
A. If two alleles are codominant then
both alleles will be expressed in heterozy- C. liver cells
gotes. D. white blood cells
B. If two alleles are codominant then
509. when pollen from one plant reaches the
the heterozygous phenotype will be some-
pistil of a flower on a different plant
where between the homozygous pheno-
types A. heredity
C. If two alleles display simple domi- B. genetics
nance then only the recessive allele will C. self pollination
be observed in heterozygotes
D. cross pollination
D. If two alleles display simple domi-
nance then neither allele will be observed 510. Deciduous trees lose their leaves. This is
in heterozygotes. in response to
A. pollution
505. DNA fingerprinting works because
B. temperature change
A. Most genes are dominant
C. amount of hervivores
B. Most people have DNA that contains
repeats D. decreased precipitation
C. The most important genes are differ- 511. Two heterozygous (Tt)tall pea plants are
ent among most people crossed. Which describes their offspring?
D. No two people, except identical twins, A. 50% tall and 50% short
have exactly the same DNA B. 75%tall and 25% short
506. What is the first cloned mammal? C. 100%short
A. goat D. none of above
B. cat 512. What kingdom does cattle belong to?
C. sheep A. animals
D. cow B. plants

C. funghi B. Allowed the first generation to cross-

D. none of above pollinate

C. Allowed the first generation to become
513. A farmer has bred his pineapple plants true-breeding
from the sweetest pineapples from his last
D. Allowed the first generation to both
harvest to get even sweeter pineapple
self-and-cross pollinate
plants. What is this an example of?
A. Selective breeding 518. Latin names are used because:
B. Natural selection A. it is continuously being changed.
C. Extinction B. it is the most common spoken lan-
guage in the world.
D. Mutagenesis
C. it is very descriptive, doesn’t change,
514. R = red and W = white In the RW geno- and was used by scholars.
type = pinkWhat pattern of inheritance is D. none of above
being shown?
519. Single-celled organisms can reproduce
A. dominant/recessive
and create cells exactly like themselves
B. incomplete without combining genes from two differ-
C. multiple alleles ent parent cells. When they do this, they
use a type of
D. polygenic inheritance
A. asexual reproduction
515. Which does not result in soil erosion? B. gamete formation
A. slash and burn agriculture C. natural selection
B. monocropping D. sexual reproduction
C. rotating crops
520. Pomology is the area of crop science that
D. yearly plowing/tilling deals with
516. Tay-Sachs disease is a lethal, autosomal A. growing fruits

recessive genetic disorder. If both parents B. growing vegetables
are heterozygous carriers of the disease, C. growing field crops
what are the chances of them having a
child who is also a heterozygous carrier for D. growing wheat
Tay-Sachs? 521. Genetic disorders are caused by
A. 0% A. pedigrees
B. 25% B. DNA mutations or changes in chromo-
C. 50% somes
D. 75% C. dominant alleles only
D. recessive alleles only
517. What did Gregor Mendel do in his second
experiment? 522. a genetic factor that blocks another fac-
A. Allowed the first generation to self- tor is called..
pollinate A. dominant

B. recessive 527. The is the natural world, the sur-

roundings or conditions a person, animal
C. oppressive
or plant live in. It is the interaction of all
D. angry living species, climate, weather, and nat-
ural resources that affect human activity,
523. How are genes represented within scien- survival, and the economy.
tific context?
A. Ecosystem
A. scientists refer to the “factors” that B. Agronomy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
control traits as genes. Genes are repre-
sented by the phenotype of the plant, e.g. C. Agriculture
Tall Plant D. Environment
B. scientists refer to the “factors” that 528. What is the word for an animal that feeds
control traits as genes. Genes are repre- only on plants?
sented by the allele present within the or-
A. Carnivore
ganisms, e.g. Tt
B. Omnivore
C. scientists refer to the “factors” that
control traits as genes. Genes are iden- C. herbivore
tical copies of the parent offspring. D. Detritivore
D. None of the answers are correct 529. During DNA replication, the nitrogen base
Guanine (G) always pairs with
524. The centre of origin for Maize is
A. cytosine
A. Hindusthan
B. guanine
B. Abyssinian
C. thymine
C. Mexican D. adenine
D. China
530. In pea plants, round seeds (R) are domi-
525. The plants that Gregor Mendel crosses nant over dented seeds (r). If two plants
to produce the F1 generation would be re- that are hybrid for round seeds (Rr) are
ferred to as crossed, what percentage of the offspring
would you expect to have found seeds?
A. P1 and P
A. 100%
B. P1 and P3 B. 50%
C. P1 and P5 C. 75%
D. P1 and P2 D. 25%
526. Mendel recorded all of the following 531. How is RNA different from DNA?
traits except for A. RNA contains the nucleotide base
A. flower color thymine.
B. RNA contains the nucleotide base
B. seed color
uracil.
C. seed shape
C. RNA is a molecule that is present in all
D. length of leaf living cells.

D. RNA is composed of a sugar, a phos- A. Mendel observed green and yellow

phate, and a base. pea pods in a 3:1 ratio because the F1 gen-
eration was heterozygous.

B. Mendel observed green and yellow
about variation in a species?
pea pods in a 4:1 ratio because the allele
A. variation is caused by genes for green pea pods is dominant.
B. variation is caused by the environment C. Mendel observed green and yellow
pea pods in a 1:1 ratio because the F2
C. variation can caused by both genes
generation had the same characteristics
and the environment
as the parent generation.
D. none of the above D. Mendel observed only green pea pods
because both parents had green pea pods.
533. Wild yaks and cattle have a common
ancestor. What process caused them to 536. Why did Mendel remove the stamens
evolve in different ways? from some of the plants?
A. Selective breeding A. He wanted to be able to control the
B. Genetic Engineering breeding of the plants.
B. He wanted the plants to self pollinate.
C. He wanted the plants to cross polli-
D. none of above
nate
534. Selective breeding is a process used by D. He only wanted asexual reproduction.
some farmers. Which of the following is
an example of selective breeding? 537. The measure of how well an organism
survives in its habitat is called
A. A farmer develops corn seeds that are
A. fitness
resistant to a fungal disease by crossing
two disease-resistant plants. B. mutation
B. A farmer found that if the temperature C. carrying capacity
of the barn was kept 5 degrees warmer, D. equilibrium
the cows in the barn would produce more
milk. 538. Which is an inherited trait?
C. A farmer planted corn seeds in the A. speaking in front of a crowd

field two weeks earlier than usual, thus B. having green eyes
yielding more corn. C. knowing math facts
D. A farmer fed his cattle disease- D. becoming and extrovert
resistant corn seed, therefore making
them healthier. 539. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is
dominant over the trait for short stems,
535. Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding and purple flowers are dominant over
plants with green pea pods with true- white flowers. If 2 parents heterozygous
breeding plants with yellow pea pods. The for both traits are crossed, what would
resulting F1 generation all had green pea the expected phenotype ratio be of off-
pods. What did he observe in the F2 gen- spring that have tall stems and purple
eration? flowers?

A. 9:16 544. Johanssen pureline theory was on the ba-

sis of studies on
B. 3:16
A. Phaseolus vulgaris
C. 1:16
B. Pisum sativum
D. 100%
C. Lablab purpureus
540. What type of inheritance occurs when the
D. Vigna mungo
phenotypes of parents blend in the off-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
spring? 545. How are Incomplete Dominance and
A. dominant Co Dominance different than a normal
Mendelian cross?
B. recessive
A. There is no difference
C. incomplete dominance
B. The heterozygous genotype has a
D. codominance unique phenotype
541. An example of a heterozygous dominant C. There is no heterozygous genotype
allele pair can be: D. There is only one phenotype regard-
A. rr less of genotype.
B. RR 546. Mendel studied pea traits including all EX-
C. Rr CEPT
D. none of the answers are correct A. flower color
B. pea shape
542. The following statements refer to
organogenesis EXCEPTI Rhizogenesis in- C. root growth
volves the root formationII Rhizogenesis D. flower position on stems
involves the bud formationIII Caulogenesis
involves the callus formationIV Caulogen- 547. Organisms that contain foreign DNA that
esis involves the shoot formation has been introduced using biotechnology.
A. I and II A. Pure Breeds
B. II and III B. Cross-Pollinators
C. I, II and III C. Eukaryotic
D. All of the answers D. Transgenic
543. What are the chances that two white 548. Brown (B) is dominant over white (b).
flower (pp) pea plants could produce a pur- Which genotype is a purebred for brown
ple flower pea plant? fur?
A. 0% A. BB
B. 25% B. Bb
C. 50% C. bb
D. 75% D. All of the above

549. What is formed as a result of meiosis? habitats and prevent species extinction,
A. four genetically different cells fragmentation or reduction in range?

A. Germ plasm
B. four genetically identical cells
B. Extinction
C. two genetically different cells
C. Biodiversity
D. two genetically identical cells
D. Habitat Conservation
550. What is self-fertilization?
555. The capacity to generate a whole plant
A. When pollen from a flower fertilizes it- from any cell/explant
self or another flower on the same plant A. micropropagation
B. When pollen from one flower fertilizes B. Tissue culture
C. Totipotency
C. A plant whose offspring share the
D. somatic hybridisation
same traits as the parent
D. A plant whose offspring is genetically 556. Lake Victoria in East Africa is home to
different from the parent. many species of fish called cichlids. In
1954 the predatory Nile perch was intro-
551. Personal characteristics that are passed duced to Lake Victoria. The Nile perch be-
to offspring from parents- dimples, eye came the dominant fish species in the lake
color, height by the mid-1980s. The number of cich-
lid species in the lake decreased as the
A. Unique
Nile perch population increased. The perch
B. Inherited Traits preyed heavily on cichlid species that fed
C. Gene on algae and debris on the bottom of the
lake. Algae in the lake increased, and oxy-
D. Genetics gen levels decreased. The surface area
of the gills of some cichlid species has in-
552. Which is a tool that is used to predict ge-
creased in just over 20 years.Which state-
netic crosses?
ment explains the increase in gill surface
A. a slide rule area seen in some of Lake Victoria’s cich-
B. a tally sheet lids?
C. a Venn diagram A. Increased gill surface area has al-

lowed the cichlids to change their diet and
D. a Punnett Square avoid competing with the Nile perch.
553. Nucleic acids B. Increased gill surface area has al-
lowed the cichlids to be camouflaged and
A. Build muscle avoid being eaten by the Nile perch.
B. Can be used as a source of quick en- C. Increased gill surface area has al-
ergy lowed the cichlids to leave Lake Victoria
C. Make up DNA and RNA and establish populations in nearby bod-
ies of water.
D. Are stored as body fat
D. Increased gill surface area has al-
554. What is a management practice that lowed the cichlids to better absorb the lim-
seeks to conserve, protect and restore ited oxygen in the water.

557. What is a recessive allele? 562. A is a region of DNA that encodes

A. A trait that is always shown (capital let- function and is basic unit of heredity.
ter) A. gene
B. A trait that can be hidden (lower case B. keystone species
letter)
C. endemic
C. Alleles that are the same
D. epidemic
D. Alleles that are different
NARAYAN CHANGDER
558. The Human Genome Project can help ge- 563. Natural selection causes
netic engineers produce human proteins be- A. species to change over time
cause
B. mutations to occur
A. identical twins have identical DNA
C. extinction
B. the Human Genome Project has deter-
mined the structure of transfer RNA D. species to become weaker over time
C. the Human Genome Project has deter-
564. A is a small ring of DNA found in a
mined the structure of human proteins
bacterial cell.
D. to produce a protein, geneticists must
A. virus
know the sequence of DNA bases that
codes for the protein B. plasmid
559. A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, C. gene bullet

is called: D. PCR
A. A plasmid
565. Suppose you cross two true-breeding
B. mRNA
plants with purple flowers. What color
C. Ribosome would the flowers of the offspring be?
D. Nucleotide A. 100% purple
560. What type of asexual reproduction grow B. 100% white
from a part of a parent plant? C. 50% purple and 50% white
A. fission
D. 100% pink
B. budding
C. spores 566. When two cats reproduce, two individual
parent cells join together to form offspring.
D. vegetative The resulting offspring is likely to
561. What is the probability that individual III- A. express only recessive traits
1 is Ww?
B. be an exact copy of its parents
A. 3/4
C. share some traits with both of its par-
B. 1/4 ents, but not be identical to either one of
C. 2/3 its parents
D. 1 D. not express a dominant gene

567. A pink flower crossed with another pink 51 plants with white flowers. What are
flower produces six pink flowers and two the genotypes of the parent plants?
white flowers. What conclusion can you

A. Rr and rr
draw about the parent generation?
B. Both are Rr
A. The parents each had only alleles for
the dominant pink flower C. It cannot be determined
D. RR and rr
B. Flower color shows incomplete domi-
nance 572. Tools of biological pest control include
C. The parents each had two alleles for A. pathogens
the recessive white flower gene
B. plant defenses
D. The parents each had one allele for the
C. chemicals from plants
dominant pink flower gene and one reces-
sive white flower gene D. all of the above
568. Concept of gene for gene hypothesis pro- 573. What 2 names are used in the Binomial
posed by System of Nomenclature?
A. Nelson A. Plant Group, Division
B. Flor B. Genus, Species

C. Kingdom, Phylum
C. Vander plank
D. Species, Kingdom
D. Robinsion
574. Which of the following crop is not part of
569. Asexual reproduction can reproduce High - Yielding Varieties Programme?
which offspring?
A. Rice
A. Diverse offspring
B. Wheat
B. Both diverse and uniform offspring
C. Jowar
C. Uniform offspring
D. Pulses
D. Asexual offspring
575. What is the name for different types of
570. A specific characteristic that varies from the same species of plant?
one individual to another is? A. Varieties
A. an allele B. Breeds
B. a gene C. Genus
C. a trait D. Kingdoms
D. a chromosome
576. pH of plant tissue culture medium is
571. In a certain plant, the allele for red flower adjusted to certain range becauseI the
color (R) is dominant over the allele for medium is solid at pH 5.8 II the medium
white flower color (r). A cross is per- is too hard at pH above 6III the medium is
formed between a plant with red flowers semisolid at pH below 5IV the medium is
and a plant with white flowers. The off- solid at pH in the range of 4-5
spring are 47 plants with red flowers and A. I and II

B. III and IV B. Natural Selection

C. I, II and III C. Intelligent selection
D. All of the answers D. none of above
577. The process by which individuals that are 581. A recessive trait is observed when re-
better adapted to their environment are cessive genetic factors are present in off-
more likely to survive and reproduce than spring.
other members of the same species A. 1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. evolution B. 2
B. natural selection C. 0
C. adaptation D. 3
D. scientific theory 582. The physical description of an organism’s
578. Genetically engineered plants, or Genet- trait is
ically Modified Organisms (GMO’s) often A. phenotype
get bad press in the media. These plants B. genotype
are usually a naturally occurring plant,
C. homozygous
with added genes to allow them to sur-
vive better in certain environments or add D. heterozygous
nutritional features for consumers. These 583. Selective breeding is where decides
plants which traits should be passed on
A. are banned throughout the world. A. Nature
B. are more difficult to engineer than an- B. A human
imals.
C. Mr. Holt
C. include a transgenic rice plant that can
D. The illuminati
help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
D. are being rapidly developed, but tra- 584. Marissa and Gene have phenotypes at
ditional plant breeding programs are still the opposite extremes of a polygenic trait.
the only method used to develop new What phenotype will their children most
plants. likely have?
A. They will have the intermediate pheno-
579. After performing a monohybrid cross, it
type for the trait at the middle of the bell
is important to analyze the results with a
curve.
Punnett square. What does each box in a
Punnett square represent? B. They will have either of the two ex-
treme phenotypes of the trait inherited
A. possible genotype from their mother or father.
B. possible phenotype C. They will have a phenotype that is de-
C. one individual termined by the typical distribution of phe-
D. two possible genotypes notypes in the 9:3:3:1 ratio.
D. They will resemble other family mem-
580. Which is another term for selective breed- bers but not their parents, because the al-
ing? leles’ expression is hidden in the F1 gen-
A. Artificial selection eration.

585. The process where organisms best fit for A. his experiments with pea plants which
the environment are more likely to survive showed that certain traits followed pre-
and reproduce dictable patterns of inheritance

A. Adaptation B. his research on the human genome
project
B. Hibernation
C. his research with Charles Darwin
studying evolution and inheritance
D. Selective breeding D. the creation of the Punnett square, a
tool used by biologists to predict possible
586. offspring from parents with different
genotypes of offspring
forms of the same trait
A. hybrid 591. Which of the following is NOT a way
farmers would traditionally modify plants
B. purebred in the past?
C. dominate A. transgenic manipulation
D. true breeding B. selective breeding
587. Where is the genetic material that deter- C. saving seeds
mines the inherited traits of an organism D. cross-pollinating
located inside of a eukaryotic cell?
592. Growing crops using traditional produc-
A. Cytoplasm
tion methods would be considered
B. Vacuole A. Conventional Farming
C. Nucleus B. Biotechnology
D. Ribosome C. Organic Farming
588. An example of a dihybrid cross would D. none of above
look like
593. Gregor Mendel crossed a true-breeding
A. HHBB X hhbb tall plant (TT) with a true-breeding short
B. HH X bb plant (tt ). What are the possible pheno-
types for the offspring?
C. AB X BA
A. all tall
D. ABC X abc
B. all short
589. If a homozygous tall plant is crossed with C. 50% tall, 50% short
a homozygous short plant, D. 75% tall, 25% short
A. the offspring will be short.
594. What is the term for factors that control
B. the offspring will be medium in height. traits?
C. the offspring will be tall. A. Offspring
D. none of above B. Parents
590. For what is Gregor Mendel most well C. Recessive

known? D. Genes

595. What do Eukarya cells have that Archaea 600. Why are chromosomes arranged in pairs?
and Bacteria do not?
A. To fit inside the nucleus
A. They have nuclei and unused sections
B. Because one comes from the mother
of DNA
and one from the father
B. They don’t have a nuclei and no unused
sections of DNA C. Because pairs can divide easier
C. They have a nuclei and no unused sec- D. Because DNA is very long
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tions of DNA
601. What is the likelihood that the progeny
D. none of above of IV-3 and IV-4 will have wooly hair?
596. What is a mutation? A. 25%
A. an organism who is changed or altered B. 50%
either on purpose or by chance C. 75%
B. an animal or plant that is transgenic
D. 100%
C. a result of hybridization
D. a means to create the glowing pigs 602. is a technique used especially for iden-
tification (as for forensic purposes) by ex-
597. is a molecule formed by splicing frag- tracting and identifying the base-pair pat-
ments of DNA from a different source or tern of an individual’s DNA.
from another part of the same source, and A. DNA Replication
then introduced into the recipient (host)
cell. B. DNA Polymerase
A. DNA Polymerase C. DNA Mapping
B. Recombinant DNA D. DNA Fingerprinting
C. DNA Cloning
603. Which of the following are agronomic
D. DNA Fingerprint crops?
598. A pea plant that has two different alleles A. wheat

for the same trait is said to be B. corn
A. P C. soybeans
B. heterozygous D. all of these
C. Tt
604. What did Gregor Mendel do in his first
D. F2
experiment?
599. Mendel hypothesized that each trait is A. Self-Pollinated two pea plants
controlled by a factor, now called a
B. Self-Pollinated two true-breeding pea
A. gene plants
B. chromosome C. Cross-pollinated two pea plants
C. hybrid D. Cross pollinated two true-breeding
D. purebred pea plants

605. Natural selection is when decide who B. 25%

survives and who doesn’t C. 100%

A. nature D. 75%
B. humans
610. Type AB blood is an example of
C. animals
A. codominance
D. years
B. recessive alleles
606. Plants that always produce the same C. incomplete dominance
traits as their parent when they are self-
pollinated are plants. D. blending of traits
A. true breeding 611. a factor that covers up another factor

B. hybrids A. recessi
C. cross pollinated B. domi
D. hybrids C. alleles
D. genetics
607. Much of genetic engineering uses plas-
mids, which are: 612. When a seedling emerges from the soil,
A. Segments of RNA that must be at- it is overcoming the force of
tached to DNA before the DNA can repli- A. gravity
cate.
B. magnetism
B. Small circlets of DNA found in bacteria.
C. heat
C. Repeating sequences that protect DNA
D. friction
from digestion when it is inserted into a
foreign cell. 613. Growing Pine trees, Oak Trees and other
D. Ends of cut DNA molecules that are commercially important species of trees
sticky because they have unpaired base would be considered
sequences. A. Forestry
608. The method of producing thousands of B. Agronomy
plants through tissue culture is called C. Nursery operations
A. somatic hybridiastion D. none of these
B. totipotency 614. When Mendel crossed a true-breeding
C. micro-propagation purple pea plant with a true-breeding
D. none of above white pea plant, the result was only pur-
ple pea plants. Why?
609. In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink A. The color purple was the dominate
flowers, whereas homozygotes have red trait
or white flowers. When plants with
red flowers are crossed with plants with B. The color white was the dominate
white flowers, what proportion of the off- trait.
spring will have pink flowers? C. The white peas were sterile.
A. 50% D. The purple plants got more nutrients.

615. Long ago, most plants lived in water . In C. Dog

order to live on land, plants had to adapt D. Chimpanzee
. Over millions of year, plants developed
a type of tissue that can soak up water 620. What is the passing of traits from par-
from the soil and transport it throught the ents to offspring known as?
plant . Which type of tissue in plants is A. Heredity
the result of this internal adaptation? B. Genetics
A. Phloem C. Punnett Square
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Xylem D. none of above
C. Epidermis
621. Which of the following represents a vari-
D. Leaf ation?
616. This is possible because of the genetic A. One rabbit being slightly larger than
between individuals in a population. another
A. Traits B. A bear hibernating
B. Adaptation C. Gills in a fish
C. Variation D. A snake’s venom
D. none of above 622. Xylem is a plant tissue made up of elon-

gated cells stacked end to end the length of
617. A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n) the plant’s stem. Which function is xylem
created in the lab. specifically adapted to perform in plants?
A. identical twin A. Help prevent water loss
B. GMO B. Exchange gases with the atmosphere
C. science fiction experiment C. Capture sunlight for photosynthesis
D. none of above D. Transport water from roots to leaves
618. Before Mendel’s discoveries, which state- 623. Which of these terms best describes the
ment describes how people believed traits structure of DNA?
were inherited? A. tetrahedron
A. Parental traits blend like colors of B. double helix
paint to produce offspring. C. single strand
B. Parental traits have no effect on thier D. triple octagon
offspring.
624. What is true-breeding?
C. Traits from only the female parent are
inherited by offspring. A. When pollen from a flower fertilizes it-
self or another flower on the same plant
D. Traits from only the male parent are in-
herited by offspring. B. When pollen from one flower fertilizes
619. What animal has the closest DNA to hu- C. A plant whose offspring share the
mans? same traits as the parent
A. Rat D. A plant whose offspring is genetically
B. Baboon different from the parent.

625. When the weather got drier and only C. Endosperm

large seeds were left, birds with small D. MMC
beaks died and large-beaked birds sur-

vived. Overall, the beak size increased in 631. Which of the following best describes re-
the bird population. This process is called: combinant DNA?
A. genetics A. molecules that have undergone DNA
fingerprinting analysis
B. mutations of individuals
B. DNA molecules composed of DNA from
C. evolution by natural selection
different sources
D. energy moving through a food chain
C. genetic information from selectively
626. T3 - Which of the following is a geno- bred organisms
type? D. genetic information that has been cut
A. long hair with restriction enzymes
B. blue eyes 632. What is a karyotype?
C. Gg A. a sex-linked genetic disorder
D. tall B. a picture of a baby before it is born
627. Runners, tubers, and plantlets are exam- C. a picture of the chromosomes in a cell
ples of what type of asexual reproduction. D. fluid that surrounds a baby before it is
A. binary born
B. budding 633. Nobel prize for green revolution was
C. spores given to
D. vegetative A. .M.S. Swaminathan

B. Borlaug
628. The toxin Bt (bacillus thuringiensis)
comes from a cell. C. Thomson
A. bacteria D. Johannesberg
B. protist 634. T = tall and t = shortTT and Tt would re-

sult in the following phenotype. Create a
C. corn plant
punnett square to help you.
D. fungus
A. short
629. Homozygous Alleles are also considered B. tall
to be
C. both tall and short
A. Purebreds
D. neither tall or short
B. Hybrids
635. is a branch of Agriculture that deals
C. Genotype
with growing of ornamentals plants.
D. Phenotype A. Agronomy
630. Triple fusion leads to formation of B. Horticulture
A. Embryo C. Forestry
B. PMC D. Enthomology

636. A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed Then he crossed the F1 offspring with each
with a true-breeding short pea plant, and other to produce the F2 generation. From
all the offspring are tall. What is the most the F2 generation, he counted 6022 yel-
likely genotype of the offspring? low seeds. Which of these is the most
A. tt likely estimate of the number of green
seeds he collected from the F2 generation?
B. Tt
A. 0
C. TT
B. 2000
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. TT and tt are equally likely
C. 6000
637. In fruit flies eye color is carried on the D. 18000
X chromosome. RED (R) is dominant to
WHITE (r). What is the sex and color of 641. is the manipulation of an organism’s
the following:XrY genes.
A. female red A. Genetic Engineering
B. female white B. Selective Breeding
C. male red C. GMOs
D. male white D. none of above
638. Healthy plants can be grown from dis- 642. When farmers breed new plants, they
eased plant by choose the pollen from one variety of plant
A. meristem culture and place it onto the stigma of another va-
riety of plant. What do we call this type
B. leaf culture of plant breeding?
C. stem culture
D. root culture
B. reproductive selection
639. A bison has teeth that ate adapted for C. natural selection
grazing or eating grasses. Suppose a dis-
D. natural breeding
ease were to kill off all the grasses in a
region where the bison live. What would 643. Two or more variations of the same gene
likely happen to the bison?
A. Gene
A. They would adapt to eating a different
B. Genotype
kind of plant.
C. Phenotype
B. They would evolve into a new species
C. They would eventually die from lack of D. Alleles
food 644. In which scenario could natural selection
D. They would not be affected. occur?
640. Mendel crossed a true-breeding plant A. a wolf with a heavy fur coat survives
that produced green seeds with a true- harsh winters better than other wolves
breeding plant that produced yellow seeds and passes the trait on
to produce an F1 generation. The en- B. a woodpecker learns how to eat a new
tire F1 generation produced yellow seeds. type of beetle.

C. a shark receives a neutral mutation 650. Offspring from parents with different
D. a mother passes a deadly mutation on forms of the same trait are called

to her child. A. true breeding
645. What can you say about this genotype B. recessive

“BB”? C. hybrids
A. heterozygous D. dominant
B. homozygous 651. A species which has a disproportionately
C. phenotype large effect on its natural environment rel-
D. recessive ative to its abundance.
A. germ plasm
646. To produce a fruit that has some charac-
teristics of an orange and some of a grape- B. endangered species
fruit, you would use the selective breeding C. keystone species
technique of . D. extinct species
A. hybridization
652. If brown eyes are dominant over blue
B. inbreeding eyes, what would be the parent genotypes
C. mutation if two heterozygous brown eyed persons
D. pleoploidy were crossed?
A. BB and bb
647. What is P generation?
B. BB and Bb
A. First generation of the offspring
C. Bb and Bb
B. Second generation of the offspring
D. bb and Bb
C. Parental generation
D. none 653. Stages of Callus Culture
A. induction > proliferation > morpho-
648. When Mendel cross-pollinated two sec- genesis
ond generation hybrid puple-flowered
plants, he received all purple-flowered off- B. proliferation > induction > morpho-
spring. genesis
A. True C. morphogenesis > induction > prolif-

eration > mutation
B. False; 25 % purple and 75% w
D. induction > mutation > proliferation
C. False; 100% > morphogenesis
D. Fasle; 75% purple and 25% white
654. is the science of producing fish and
649. An example of a homozygous recessive other aquatic resources for the purpose of
allele pair can be: providing human food.
A. Rr A. Agronomy
B. rr B. Horticulture
C. RR C. Aquaculture
D. none of the answers are correct D. Animal Production

655. is the process by which humans use 660. Problems with selective breeding include
animal breeding and plant breeding to A. Better animals
selectively develop particular phenotypic
traits by choosing which typically animal B. More Meat
or plant males and females will sexually C. Animals can have bad health problems
reproduce and have offspring together. D. more diversity
A. Selective Breeding 661. How could crossing a white flower and a
B. Transgenic Organism red flower produce plants with pink flow-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ers?
C. Gel Electrophorsis
A. The gene for pink color isin all flowers,
D. PCR but the genes for red and white color are
only in some of theflowers.
656. ‘s principles can be used to study
heredity in dogs, cats, and sheep. B. The pink flower hasincomplete domi-
nant red and white genes.
A. Darwin
C. The genes for red color andwhite color
B. Mendel do not affect each other.
C. Franklin D. The pink flower only getsthe genes for
color from one of the parent plants.
D. Smith
662. What is the probability that a cross be-
657. What is the name for different types of tween a heterozygous dominant yellow-
the same species of animal? seeded pea plant and a homozygous reces-
A. Breeds sive green-seeded pea plant will produce
green-seeded offspring?
B. Genus
A. 1
C. Kingdoms
B. 1/2
D. Varieties C. 1/4
658. A cross made to study a single trait is D. 1/8
known as a 663. Jose is a 5’2” male weighing 125 pounds.
A. monohybrid cross He has dark brown hair, light brown eyes,
and dark skin. He is very athletic and en-
B. dihybrid cross joys playing baseball. His native language
C. trihybrid cross is Spanish, but he has learned to speak En-
glish as well. The genetic information in-
D. parental generation
side Jose’s chromosomes is most responsi-
659. Which term best describes this geno- ble for
type:BB A. his height and his ability to learn multi-
ple languages
A. homozygous dominant
B. his eye color, skin color and hair color
B. homozygous recessive
C. his height and his native language of
C. heterozygous Spanish
D. none of these D. his weight and his athletic ability

664. Why are punnett squares used? D. Increases the chance that some organ-
A. to know phenotypes isms will survive a major change in the en-
vironment

B. for fun
669. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-
C. To organize your data
breeding purple-flowered plants with true-
D. to predict the possible genotypes of breeding white-flowered plants, all the
offspring offspring were purple because
665. An allele that expresses itself in a hybrid A. the allele for purple is recessive
is a(n) B. the allele for purple-flowered plants is
A. dominant allele dominant.
C. the allele for white is dominant
B. recessive allele
D. they are true breeding
C. independent allele
D. cross bred allele 670. Pea plants that are TT, , or tt have
different genotypes.
666. In plant tissue culture, what is the term A. phenotypes
ORGANOGENESIS means?
B. homozygous
A. Formation of callus culture
C. Tt
B. Formation of root & shoot from callus
culture D. P
C. Genesis of organ 671. What did Mendel discovery in his F2 gen-

eration plants?
A. The recessive trait reappeared!
667. What type of macromolecule is an en- B. The dominant trait reappeared!
zyme?
C. The ratio was a 1:4
A. protein
D. All the offspring were true-breeding
B. carbohydrate
C. lipid 672. A cross between homozygous purple-
flowered and homozygous white-
D. nucleic acid flowered pea plants results in offspring
with purple flowers. This demonstrates
668. Tropical rain forests have the greatest
have the greatest biodiversity of any type A. the blending model of genetics.
of land ecosystem .One advantage of bio- B. true breeding.
diversity is that it
C. dominance.
A. Gurantees that the largest organisms D. a dihybrid cross.
will dominate area
B. Ensures a large amount of indentical 673. An example of selective breeding is
genetic material A. a dog breeder mating 2 dogs to make
C. Develops relationships between that more dogs
are always positive over long period of B. a farmer grows bees to pollinate the
time plants on his farm

C. a person pollinates 2 white rose plants C. Blue offspring only

to only create white roses D. Green and yellow offspring
D. none of above
679. It is the process of growing plants and
674. The reduction division is raising animals for food, clothing, and
other useful products.
A. mitosis
A. Agriculture
B. meiosis
B. Animal Science
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. amitosis
C. Agricultural Engineering
D. None of these
D. Agricultural Science
675. Breeding for disease resistance requires
680. Behavioral adaptations are
A. a good source of resistance
A. the things animals do to survive
B. Planned hybridisation
B. the physical characteristics of an ani-
C. Diseases test mal or plant
D. all of these C. only found in mammals
676. If there is a shift in the environment, or- D. only found in humans
ganisms will respond by or they will
become extinct. 681. Farmers often choose the pollen from one
plant and place it on the flower of another
A. migrating plant. What is this type of plant breeding
B. adapting called?
C. dying A. Natural selection
D. starving B. Artificial selection
C. Genetic cloning
677. What carries the code that tells a plant
what color it will be or how it will taste? D. Random chance
A. Genes 682. What is a cultivar?
B. Stem A. It is a form of plant originating under
C. Leaves cultivation and often is the result of plant
breeding
D. Proteins
B. It is a naturally occurring native plant
678. Feather color in budgies is determined by C. It has existed naturally for over 100
two different genes Y and B, one for pig- years
ment on the outside and one for the inside
of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is D. none of above
green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb 683. Mom is to parent as daughter is to
is yellow; and yybb is white.A blue budgie
is crossed with a white budgie. Which of A. Offspring
the following results is not possible? B. Husband
A. Green offspring only C. Girl
B. Yellow offspring only D. Grandchild

684. Growing crops without the use of syn- B. The genetic material of one organism
thetic fertilizers or chemical would be con- is inserted into the cells of another organ-
sidered ism.

A. Conventional Farming C. Organisms are more likely to be at-
tracted to other organisms that are suc-
B. Biotechnology
cessful in their environments.
C. Organic Farming
D. Specific organisms with the most de-
D. none of above sirable traits are purposely bred to create
offspring that have those same traits.
685. What is a pedigree?
A. a chart that tracks which members of 689. Any heritable change in the nucleotide se-
a family have a particular trait quence caused due to errors in DNA repli-
cation, chemical agents, or environmental
B. a geneticist who studies the inheri- factors.
tance of traits in humans
A. Abnormalities
C. a picture of all the chromosomes in a
cell B. Mutations
D. an allele passed from parent to child C. Nondisjuction

on a sex chromosome D. Radiation
686. If Mendel’s first experiment involved 690. If a pea plant’s genotype is TtYy, what
cross-pollinated a true-breeding round pea are the gametes that this plant could pro-
plant and a true-breeding wrinkled pea duce?
plant, what would the genotypes of the A. TY, Ty, tY, and ty
parents have to be?
B. Tt, Yy, tY, and ty
A. RR x Rr
C. TY, TY, ty, and ty
B. Rr x Rr
D. TT, tt, YY, and yy
C. rr x rr
D. RR x rr 691. The use of living organisms to solve prob-
lems and make useful products is known
687. Which is NOT an example of historical as:
biotechnology? A. biotechnology
A. copying DNA into another organism B. human genome
B. cross breeding C. selective breeding
C. selective breeding D. hybridization
D. artificial selection
692. What is an organism’s genotype?
688. Which statement describes SELECTIVE A. physical appearance
BREEDING?
B. feather color
A. Organisms that are best suited to their
environment are more likely to success- C. genetic makeup
fully reproduce. D. recessive traits

693. A scientist created a Punnett square in- 698. A fetus is a developing baby before birth.
volving plant traits. What is a Punnett Parents are now able to have a karyotype
square? analyzed for a fetus. Based on this anal-
A. A table that describes the number of ysis, what information can parents learn
offspring produced from a genetic cross. about their baby?
B. A diagram that identifies where genes A. a variety of physical traits, including

are located on chromosomes. hair color and eye color
B. the likelihood of acquiring certain dis-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. /a tool used to predict the possible out-
comes of a genetic cross. eases, such as diabetes and cancer
D. A chart that lists the traits expressed C. the presence or absence of a chromo-
by the offspring of a genetic cross. somal disorder, such as Down syndrome
D. the developmental age of the fetus,
694. Adults with Down syndrome can often
and the approximate date when the baby
find work because they have recieved
will be born
A. folic acid
B. physical therapy 699. A genetic factor that blocks another ge-
netic factor is
C. education and training
A. hybrid
D. genetic counseling
B. true breeding
695. Genetic engineering of plants is a faster C. recessive
way of producing the same results as
D. dominant
A. biological pest control
B. plant breeding 700. In Plant Tissue Culture, the callus is
grown in plantlet by altering the concen-
C. integrated pest management
tration of
D. soil conservation
A. Amino acid
696. Which of the following could be used as B. Glucose
a vector for a human gene?
C. Hormone
A. Bacterial Plasmid
D. Al of the above
B. Bacteria
C. A mitochondria 701. People affected with the hereditary dis-
order Marfans syndrome are unusually
D. mRNA
tall, have thin fingers and toes and heart
697. The entire collection (of plants/seeds) problems. All of these can be traced back
having all the diverse alleles for all genes to the mutation of a single gene. This illus-
in a given crop is called trates which type of inheritance?
A. Protoplasm A. Pleiotropic
B. Collection of variability B. Polygenic
C. Germplasm collection C. Multiple alleles
D. Plant collection D. Inbreeding

702. The combination of alleles. 707. What happens when a true-breeding

plant self-pollinates?
A. DNA

A. Some of its offspring have the same
B. Phenotype
traits as the parent.
C. Genotype B. None of its offspring have the same
D. Genetics traits as the parent.
C. All of its offspring have the same traits
703. Which of these human traits is altered by
as the parent.
variations in environment?
D. One of its offspring has the same traits
A. hairline as the parent.
B. height
708. What are the characteristics of offspring
C. smile dimples of an organism produced through asexual
D. blood type reproduction?
A. genetically identical to its parent.
704. When pure-bred plants are allowed to
self-fertilize, they produce B. created by vegetative propagation.
C. made of cells with a cell wall.
A. hybrids
D. different from its siblings.
B. offspring with varying traits
C. only offspring with the same parental 709. All of the following are advantages of
trait GMO’s except
D. the parental generation A. pest resistant crops

B. more nutritional foods
705. A technique of micropropagation is
C. unknown long term health effects
A. Multiple root production
D. creating more human insulin
B. Somatic embryogenesis
710. This selecting of traits is also known as
C. Growth of micro organisms on culture artificial selection. Similar to natural se-
medium lection, the of a species changes over
D. Multiple shoot production and embryo time, and some traits become more
rescue A. Traits
706. What is one problem with selective B. Selective breeding
breeding? C. Population
A. Inbreeding can cause genetic disor- D. Diverse
ders to be more common.
711. Mendel tested plants.
B. It can lead to an increase in desirable
traits. A. 5
C. It costs too much money. B. 50
D. It is not natural to mix genes from 2 C. 2

separate species. D. hundreds

712. One of two major forms of a human con- B. 30, 000

dition called neurofibromatosis (NF 1) is in-
C. 50, 000
herited as a dominant, although it may be
either mildly to very severely expressed. D. 80, 000
If a young child is the first in her family
to be diagnosed, which of the following is 717. A certain species of owl lives only in old
the best explanation? growth forests. If the trees where these
A. The mother carries the gene but does owls lives are removed by loggers what
will most likely happen to the owl popula-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
not express it at all.
tion?
B. One of the parents has very mild ex-
pression of the gene. A. it will decrease to the point of extinc-
tion
C. The condition skipped a generation in
the family. B. it will hibernate until the trees grow
back
D. The child has a different allele of the
gene than the parents. C. it will increase in number
713. What three-letter abbreviation is given D. it will evolve into a new species
to organisms that have been genetically
engineered? 718. If two people with LMLN genotypes have
children, what is the expected ratio of
A. GMO
genotypes among the children?
B. YOLO
A. 1 LMLM:2 LMLN:1 LNLN
C. WHO
B. 9 LMLM:3 LMLN:1 LNLN
D. FOMO
C. 4 LMLM:1 LNLN
714. the different forms a gene has for a trait
D. 1 LNLN:1 LMLM
A. homozygous
B. heterozygous 719. The term that best describes “the better
C. alleles adapted organisms survive to pass traits
along to offspring”.
D. genetics
A. Evolution
715. In which of the following states did the
B. Natural Selection
Green revolution in India first introduced?
A. Uttarakhand C. Extinction
B. Uttar Pradesh D. Artifical Selection

C. Punjab
720. If yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y),
D. Karnataka what would be the genotype for a hybrid?
716. Fill in the blank:Mendel experimented A. YY
with about pea plants in order to dis- B. yy
cover the laws of heredity, or how traits
are passed along. C. Yy
A. 10, 000 D. None of the above

721. Which of these is the second step in se- B. Offspring carry traits and characteris-
lective breeding flowers. tics of both parents

A. Choose which trait is desirable C. Neither answer is correct
B. Watch the seeds grow D. Both answers are correct
C. Choose plants that have the desired
725. When a disease is said to have a multi-
trait to pollinate
factorial basis, it means that
D. Repeat the process only with the off-
A. both genetic and environmental fac-
spring with the desired traits.
tors contribute to the disease.
722. Which of these definitions describes a mu- B. it is caused by a gene with a large num-
tation? ber of alleles.
A. a permanent change in an organism’s C. it has many different symptoms. it
DNA tends to skip a generation.
B. a molecule that is present in all living D. it tends to skip a generation.
cells and plays a role in protein production
726. It involves knowledge of farm machines
C. a subunit of a nucleic acid chain that
or equipment and their proper uses.
consists of a sugar, a phosphate, and a
base A. Agriculture
D. a molecule that is present in all living B. Animal Science
things and stores the information that de- C. Agricultural Engineering
termines inherited traits
D. Agricultural Science
723. A woman who has blood type A positive
has a daughter who is type O positive and 727. Arrange the stages of somatic embryoge-
a son who is type B negative. Rh posi- nesis in CORRECT orderI Heart-shapedII
tive is a trait that shows simple dominance Torpedo-shapedIII Globular-shapedIV
over Rh negative and is designated by the Cotyledonary stage
alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene A. I, II, III and IV
for the MN blood group has codominant al-
B. II, III, I and IV
leles M and N.If both children are of blood
group MM, which of the following is pos- C. III, I, II and IV
sible? D. IV, III, II and I
A. Each parent is either M or MN.
728. The law of independent assortment
B. Each parent must be type M. states what?
C. Both children are heterozygous for A. Gene pairs sort randomly and indepen-
this gene. dently of each other
D. Neither parent can have the N allele. B. gene pairs always are inherited to-
gether
724. Which of the following is considered a to
be a benefit of sexual reproduction? C. one allele is always dominant
A. Only the strongest parent’s character D. only one gene is inherited from each
traits are passed down to the offspring parent

729. What organism did Mendel use to prove C. 1:1:1:1

his 3 main ideas about inheritance? D. 6:3:3:2:1:1
A. ants
734. It is the initial cultivation of the soil in
B. pigeons
preparation for sowing seed or planting to
C. dogs loosen or turn the soil.
D. pea plants A. Ploughing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
730. is the appearance of an organism, or B. Soil Preparation
how it looks C. Leveling
A. phenotype D. Sowing
B. ratio
735. Which cross best illustrates Mendel’s
C. recessive trait Law of Independent Assortment
D. heredity A. TtRr x TtRr
731. Traits such as eye color have more than B. TTRR x ttrr
one allele. This makes them
C. TT x tt
A. polygenic
D. TR x tr
B. dominant
736. The quickest method of plant breeding is
C. recessive
D. single inheritance traits A. introduction
B. Selection
732. Mendel discovered that a trait will
sometimes disappear or go away in the C. Hybridisation
next generation because it is overpowered D. Mutation Breeding
by the trait.
737. Why did Mendel choose to use pea plants
A. dominant;recessive
in his study of heredity?
B. recessive;dominant
A. they were small plants that were easy
C. darker;lighter to use
D. lighter;darker B. he had lots of them
733. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or C. they had a variety of traits to study and
white. A cross between a red-flowered grew quickly
plant and a white-flowered plant yields D. he was told to use the pea plants
all-purple offspring. The part of the radish
we eat may be oval or long, with long be- 738. A short sequence of DNA can best be de-
ing the dominant characteristic.In the F2 scribed as an
generation of the above cross, which of
A. gene
the following phenotypic ratios would be-
expected? B. genome
A. 9:3:3:1 C. chromosome
B. 9:4:3 D. chromatin

739. Which distinguishes the process of cytoki- chances that their baby snail would have
nesis in plants and animals? short eyeballs?

A. A cell plate forms in animal cells, while A. 75%
a furrow forms in plant cells.
B. 50%
B. A cell plate forms in plant cells, while
C. 25%
a furrow forms in animal cells.
C. Cytokinesis results in genetic diversity D. 0%
in animal cells but not plant cells.
744. is any organism whose genetic ma-
D. Cytokinesis results in genetic diversity terial has been altered using genetic engi-
in plant cells but not animal cells. neering techniques.
740. Which statement is true comparing natu- A. GMO

ral selection and artificial selection? B. DNA Fingerprinting
A. In natural selection, traits benefit hu- C. Chromosomal Mutation
mans and in artificial selection, the traits
benefit the species D. Selective Breeding
B. In natural selection, traits benefit the 745. What is pedigree?

species and in artificial selection, the
traits benefit humans A. a chart that tracks which members of
a family have a particular trait
C. In natural and artificial selection, the
process takes hundreds of years to occur B. a geneticist who studies the inheri-
tance of traits in humans
D. In natural and artificial selection, na-
ture determines what traits will be passed C. a picture of all the chromosomes of a
down to offspring. cell
D. an allele passed from parent to child
741. A mule, a hinny, and a zorse are all ex- on a sex chromosome
amples of what type of animal?
A. transgenic 746. Which of the following is NOT a be-
haviour?
B. mutant
A. Migration
C. GMO
D. Hybrid B. Hibernation
C. mimicry
742. A change in DNA or chromosomes
D. Night hunting
A. true breeding
B. self pollination 747. The physical or behavioral appearance of
a trait
C. mutation
A. Phenotype
D. gene
B. DNA
743. Stuart Snail is heterozygous for tall eye-
C. Genotype
balls. Sally Snail has tall eyeballs but does
carry the recessive allele. What are the D. Genetics

748. When Mendel crossed a true breeding B. Hybrid

plant with purple flowers with a true C. Purebred
breeding plant with white flowers, all the
offspring had purple flowers. This is be- D. Recessive
cause white flowers are 753. What is the complementary strand for
A. the dominant trait the given segment of DNA? AAGCTACCG
B. the recessive trait A. UUCGAUGGC
B. TTCGATGGC
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. a trait controlled by multiples alleles
D. a trait controlled by multiples genes C. TTCGAUGGC
D. TTGCATCCG
749. A characteristic that an organism can
pass on to its offspring through its genes 754. In a scientific name, cv. means:
A. protein A. center vein.
B. trait B. color variegated.
C. DNA C. cultivar.
D. gene D. none of above
750. Why did the population of peppered 755. Most genes have many more than two al-
moths in England change from light to dark leles. However, which of the following is
after the Industrial Revolution? also true?
A. At least one allele for a gene always
A. Light moths were killed by soot.
produces a dominant phenotype.
B. Dark moths were produces by indus-
B. Most of the alleles will never be found
trial processes.
in a live-born organism.
C. The birds that ate the dark moths were
C. All of the alleles but one will produce
killed by the soot.
harmful effects if homozygous.
D. Light moths were more obvious
D. There may still be only two phenotypes
against the soot-stained trees.
for the trait.
751. If you look more like your dad than your 756. What part of an organism’s genetic
mom makeup is received from its mother?
A. you have more of your dad’s genes A. 25%
than your mom’s
B. 50%
B. you have more of your mom’s genes
C. 75%
than your dad’s
D. 100%
C. your dad’s genes dominated your
mom’s 757. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is
D. your mom’s genes dominated your dominant over the trait for short stems. If
dad’s two heterozygous tall plants are crossed,
what percentage of the offspring would be
752. An allele whose trait is masked in the expected to have the homozygous domi-
presence of a dominant allele is nant genotype?
A. Dominant A. 100%

B. 75% 763. Mendel determined that each parent con-

C. 50% tributes two factors for each trait in the
offspring.

D. 25%
A. True
758. A possible abbreviation for the genotype B. False;
of a GAMETE of an organism for a dihybrid
C. False; 4
trait would be which of the following?
D. False; no
A. TtBb
B. A 764. Which of the following is an animal that
has been domesticated?
C. TB
A. lion
D. AA
B. zebra
759. T-tall t- shortIf the parent cross is TT x C. goat
tt the probability that the F1 will be tall is
D. wolf
A. 25% 765. In , sperm from one plant fertilizes

eggs of the same plant.
B. 50%
A. asexualreproduction
C. 75%
B. cross-pollination
D. 100%
C. sexualreproduction
760. Pollination of birds is known as D. self-pollination
A. ornithophily 766. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pan-
B. hydrophily creas, the digestive system, and other or-
C. entomophily gans, resulting in symptoms ranging from
breathing difficulties to recurrent infec-
D. anemophily tions. Which of the following terms best
761. A controversial technology that involves describes this?
inserting a gene for a desired trait into the A. Incomplete dominance
genome of another organism is called ge- B. Multiple alleles
netic
C. Pleiotropy
A. slicing.
D. Epistasis
B. cloning.
767. Sean is studying the advantages of selec-
C. modification. tive breeding in plants. He made the fol-
D. deletion. lowing list of possible advantages:1) Can
produce corn that attracts grasshoppers2)
762. A cow with red hairs and white hairs in Can develop grass that can grow with less
its coat is an example of water3) Can develop wheat that can grow
A. codominance in different types of soil4) Can produce or-
B. multiple alleles anges that are not affected by freezing
temperatures Which items on the list pro-
C. polygenic inheritance vide logical arguments in favor of selective
D. incomplete dominance breeding?

A. 1, 2, 3 773. What is the phenotype of a pea plant

B. 2, 3, 4 with a heterozygous genotype for height?
C. 2, 4 A. Tt
D. 3, 4 B. TT
768. Which of these is heterozygous? C. tall
A. TT D. short
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Tt
774. An organism’s gametes have the num-
C. tt ber of chromosomes found in the organ-
D. none of above ism’s body cells.
769. If a cell with 36 chromosomes under- A. half
goes MITOSIS, how many chromosomes B. 23
will each of the two new cells have?
C. twice
A. 9
B. 18 D. 4
C. 36 775. According to the theory of natural selec-

D. 72 tion, why are some individuals more likely
than others to survive and reproduce?
770. Which of the followings are the functions
of activated charcoal supplemented in A. Some individuals pass on to their off-
the culture medium?I induces floweringII spring new characteristics they have ac-
promotes rootingIII inhibits the plant quired during their lifetimes.
growthIV stimulates the plant growth B. Some individuals are better adapted to
A. I and II exist in their environment than others are.
B. III and IV C. Some individuals do not pass on to
C. I, II and III their offspring new characteristics they
have acquired during their lifetimes.
D. All of the answers
D. Some individuals tend to produce
771. What domain do cattle belong to? fewer offspring than others in the same
A. Eukarya environment.
B. Bacteria
776. The primary result of the domestication
C. Archaea of animals has been that domesticated an-
D. none of above imals are now accustomed to -
772. Mendel concluded that traits are A. living among and interacting with peo-
ple
A. not inherited by offspring
B. inherited by the passing of factors B. living in homes as pets
from parents to offspring C. working and living on farms
C. determined by dominant factors only D. tasting better and being healthier for
D. determined by recessive factors only consumption

777. Father of Botany is B. shoot apex

A. Hippocrates C. phloem

B. Theophrastus D. cortex
C. Aristotle
782. Mating two animals that are different
D. Plato breeds but in the same species
778. In a case of incomplete dominance, if a A. hybridization
true breeding white flower is crossed with B. cross breeding
a true breeding red flower, all of the off-
C. selective breeding
spring will be
A. red
B. pink 783. Nobilisation of cane refers to
C. white A. S. spontaneum
D. purple B. S.indicum
779. A woman who has blood type A positive C. S. officianarum

has a daughter who is type O positive and D. S.barberi
a son who is type B negative. Rh posi-
tive is a trait that shows simple dominance 784. If an animal wants to eat a plant, what
over Rh negative and is designated by the adaptations could a plant have in order to
alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene stay alive?
for the MN blood group has codominant al- A. many spines (needles)
leles M and N. Which of the following is
B. deep roots
the probable genotype for the mother?
C. a long stem
A. IAIARR
D. a lot of branches
B. IAIARr
C. IAirr 785. Brown eyes are dominant (B) over blue
eyes (b). If you cross a male that is het-
D. IAiRr
erozygous for eye color with a female that
780. A cross of a white hen with a black is heterozygous for eye color, what is the
rooster produces erminette-color (black chance that they will have a blue eyed off-
AND white) offspring. This type of inheri- spring?
tance is known as A. 25%
A. incomplete dominance. B. 50%
B. polygenic inheritance. C. 75%
C. codominance. D. 100%
D. multiple alleles.
786. Deoxyribonucleic Acid or DNA is the
781. A scientist wants to study the viral ef- chemical molecule that is the basic genetic
fects on plants. Which of the following material found in cells. The structure of
part of the plant should be excluded? DNA is a
A. pith A. spiral staircase

B. twisty ladder known as survival of the fittest and in natu-

C. double helix ral selection, humans decide which traits
are desired and breed animals for those
D. single helix desired traits.
787. When pollen from one plant reaches the C. Natural selection and selective breed-
pistil of a flower on a different plant, ing are the same thing
occurs. D. Natural selection occurs quickly over
A. true breeding 1-2 generations and selective breeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
can take thousands of years.
B. cross pollination
C. dominant traits 791. Artificial Selection is
D. recessive traits A. making a new species
B. making varieties of the same species
788. What must occur for a girl to be color-
blind? C. only occurs in a laboratory
A. each parent must be colorblind D. none of above
B. each parent must have the dominant 792. What were the reasons Mendel selected
allele for colorblindness the pea plant for his genetics experi-
C. each parent must have the recessive ments? Pick as many as apply.
allele for colorblindness A. few traits
D. each parent must have two codomi- B. traits easy to observe
nant alleles for colorblindness C. grow quickly
789. What evidence is most important when D. all of these
using relative dating?
793. The differences among a species, like dif-
A. the half-life of a radioactive element ferent bird beaks, are called
B. the position of sediment in petrified A. genes.
rock
B. variations.
C. the types of minerals in a petrified fos-
C. traits.
sil
D. theories.
D. the position of fossils in sedimentary
rock layers 794. A observation is
790. What is the difference between natural A. anything you see, hear, smell, touch,
selection and selective breeding? or taste
A. In natural selection, nature decides B. Only something you see
which organisms live or die by a process C. A statement about what you think will
known as survival of the fittest and in happen in an experiment
selective breeding, humans decide which D. Your best guess
traits are desired and breed animals for
those desired traits. 795. What is the passing of traits from parent
B. In selective breeding, nature decides to offspring?
which organisms live or die by a process A. heredity

B. hereditary A. Genetic Typing

C. genetics B. Genetic Counseling

D. stamen C. Regeneration
796. A critter that has long spikes is breeded D. Selective Breeding

with a critter that has short spikes. Their
801. When trying to determine the genotype
children have medium length spikes. This
of an organism that is dominant for a trait
shows the inheritance pattern of
you can cross the unknown dominant with
A. Mendelian (dominant/recessive) recessive. This is called a/an
B. Incomplete dominance A. Selective breeding
C. Co-dominance B. Test cross
D. none of above C. Mendel’s 1st law
797. In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. D. genetic engineering
If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a
802. Which of the following is NOT a possible
homozygous tall plant, what is the proba-
cause for extinction of a species?
bility that the offspring will be short?
A. the availability of water is significantly
A. 1
decreased
B. 1/2
B. a population can’t adapt to changing
C. 1/4 environmental conditions
D. 1/6 C. scientists use artificial selection to in-
crease beef production in cows
798. Which of the following represents the
possible genotypes resulting from a cross D. an introduced species drastically low-
between an individual heterozygous (Bb) ers a food source for native organisms
and one that is homozygous (bb)?
803. Once all the members of a population
A. BB and Bb have this favorable trait, then it is re-
B. Bb and bb ferred to as an This selection has oc-
curred with nearly every species on Earth.
C. BB only
The Galapagos medium ground finch, for
D. Bb only example, has developed a beak shape that
is different from other finches on the is-
799. A pureline is the progeny of a single self
land. This adaptation occurred due to dif-
fertilised
ferent food sources.
A. heterozygous line
B. homozygous plant
B. Traits
C. heterozygous plant
C. Adaptation
D. homozygous line
D. Variation
800. When a dairy farmer chooses a specific
bull to mate with her cows in order to pro- 804. is the study of how traits are passed
duce calves that will grow up to produce from parents to offspring.
more milk, this process is called A. Seed production

B. Selective 809. Hemophilia is a sex-linked, recessive

C. Fertilization trait. Which of the following describes the
probability of hemophilia in the offspring
D. Genetics of a man who does not have hemophilia
805. When a plant breeder crossed two red and a woman who is a heterozygous car-
roses, 78% of the offspring had red flow- rier?
ers and 22% had white flowers. Accord- A. There is a 25% chance that their sons
ing to these results, the allele for red flow- will have hemophilia.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ers is most likely:
B. There is a 100% chance that their sons
A. Dominant will have hemophilia.
B. Recessive
C. There is a 0% chance that their daugh-
C. Sex-Linked ters will have hemophilia.
D. Codominant
D. There is a 50% chance that their daugh-
806. What percentage of chromosomes are ters will have hemophilia.
handed down by a sperm cell?
810. A carrier is a person who has
A. 75%
B. 25% A. one recessive and one dominant allele
for a trait
C. 50%
B. two recessive alleles for a trait
D. 100%
C. two dominant alleles for a trait
807. What does it mean when plants are
“purebred”? D. more than two alleles for a trait
A. It means that bakers can use plants to
make breads. 811. The process of choosing parent organisms
for desired characteristics is called
B. The plants always had offspring with
the same characteristics. A. natural selection.
C. The young of an offspring. B. artificial selection.
D. the qualities that make something dif- C. genetic manipulation.
ferent from others; traits
D. random chance.
808. How are genetic engineering and selec-
tive breeding different? 812. Farmers often make observations about
A. Selective breeding leads to a change in the traits of their plants as they prac-
the genes of an organism. tice selective breeding. A farmer might
practice selective breeding to produce corn
B. Humans use genetic engineering to
plants that
produce organisms with desired traits.
C. Genetic engineering involves inserting A. use more water
the desired trait directly into the organ- B. all look the same
ism’s DNA.
C. are resistant to disease
D. Selective breeding can cause negative
health effects. D. can grow human proteins

813. a branch of horticulture that deals B. internal, responds by drinking some-

with study about fruits. thing

A. Olericulture C. external, responds by getting some-
B. Pomology thing to eat
C. Agronomy D. external, responds by blinking
D. Plant breeding
819. Mendel thought the pruple factor was the
814. The genotype of an organism describes only factor seen because it the white
the factor.
A. codons that make up the genes A. blocks
B. number of gene’s on the chromosmes B. cancels out
C. genetic make-up of a trait C. emphasizes
D. type of chromosomes in the nucleus D. adds to
815. Which is not an example of an internal 820. What is the definition for crossbreeding?
adaptation
A. fertilized; transferred grains of pollen
A. Fish gills
from the male to the female parts of
B. Hollow bones in birds plants
C. Tree roots B. breeding two different types of plants
D. Xylem in plants with one another
816. Which of the following is not the main C. the qualities that make something dif-
step in carrying out plant breeding tech- ferent from others
nique? D. the parts of a plant or animal that de-
A. Collection of variability termine what traits will be passed on to
the offspring
B. Cross hybridization among the dis-
eased parents 821. The cross of a BB individual with a bb
C. Selection and testing of superior re- individual will produce what kind of off-
combinants spring?
D. Evaluation and selection of parents A. all bb offspring
817. A nucleotide is made of B. all offspring with Bb genotypes
A. a nitrogen base C. some with BB and some with bb
B. a phosphate group D. All BB offspring
C. a sugar molecule
822. Which produces the most diversity?
D. all of the above
A. asexual reproduction
818. Is thirst internal or external stimulus?
B. sexual reproduction
How would an animal respond?
C. budding
A. Internal, responds by eating some-
thing D. fragmentation

823. Some dairy famers want to increase D. In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes
the amount of milk produced by their can be due to an X-linked gene or to acom-
cows.How can the framers use selective bination of other genes.
breeding to increase milk prounduction?
827. What is the fertilization of one plant to
A. By incrtheasing the age of the cows another?
that are bred
A. cross-pollination
B. By choosing cows that are high milk
producers B. self-pollination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. By limiting the number of offspring per C. true breeding
cow D. dominant
D. By choosing cows that can produce
828. Splicing different pieces of genetic infor-
milk after eating the most food
mation together to form new genetic codes
824. After many generations, the that en- or sequences is
hance survival become more widespread A. Genetic Engineering
through the population over those that do
B. Genetic Conducting
not.
C. Genetic Mutating
D. Genetic Selecting
B. Traits
C. Adaptation 829. An ecosystem that is not sustainable can
break down when a natural disaster occurs
D. Variation
. This can lead to organisms in the ecosys-
825. What is the name of naturally occurring tem either leaving the area or dying off
Auxin in plant? . Increaded biodiversity result in a more
sustainable ecosystem because
A. 1-napthaleneacetic acid (NAA)
A. A greater number of plant species
B. 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2, 4- means that there is less barren land
D)
B. A greater variety of spcies present
C. Indole 3-acetic acid (IAA) allows more organisms to adapt after
D. 1-napthoxyacetic acid (NOA) changes occur
C. The trasition area between two
826. Which of the following provides an exam-
ecosystems is narrower
ple of epistasis?
D. There are fewer species to be aff-
A. Recessive genotypes for each of two tected by environmental stresses
genes (aabb) results in an albino corn
snake. 830. What is the reason farmers cultivate
B. The allele b17 produces a dominant GMO crops?
phenotype, although b1 through b16 do A. increase yields
not.
B. decrease pesticide use
C. In rabbits and many other mammals,
one genotype (cc) prevents any fur color C. save time
fromdeveloping. D. all of the above

831. In an attempt to produce a potato that C. an insertion

taste good and also resists disease, plant D. a substitution
breeders crossed a potato variety that

tastes good with a variety that resists dis- 836. When pollen from one plant lands on the
ease. This technique is an example of pistil of a flower on the same plant,
occurs.
A. genetic engirneering
A. recessive traits
B. inbreeding
B. dominant traits
C. hybridization
C. cross pollination
D. cloning
D. self pollination
832. Concept of Progeny testing was intro-
837. This is something that is introduced to a
duced by
different geographic location, purposefully
A. Van der Plank or accidentally, from a natural range out-
B. Vimorin side of its normal environment.
C. M.S. Swaminathan A. Extinct species
D. Thomas Fairchild B. Endangered species
C. Exotic species
833. Different versions of a gene for the same
D. Endemic Species
trait are called?
A. alleles 838. What is the purpose of the Human
Genome Project?
B. phenotypes
A. to identify the DNA sequence of every
C. purebred gene in the human genome
D. dihybrid crosses B. to clone every gene on a single chro-
mosome in human DNA
834. Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or
yellow. In a cross of a black female with C. to cure genetic diseases
a brown male, results can be either all D. to inbreed the best genes on every
black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown chromosome in human DNA
puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow pup-
pies. These results indicate which of the 839. Which of the following is an example of
following? selective breeding?
A. Brown is dominant to black. A. populations of lizards that have a cer-
tain trait become more numerous after a
B. Yellow is dominant to black. change in climate
C. There is incomplete dominance. B. a population of insects develops resis-
D. Epistasis is involved. tance to a pesticide after farmers repeat-
edly use the same pesticide to kill the in-
835. If one or more nitrogen bases are deleted sects
from the original strand of DNA, the gene
C. a population of bacteria develops re-
mutation is called
sistance to an antibiotic
A. a deletion D. farmers allow only sheep that pro-
B. an addition duces the best wool to breed.

840. When Mendel crossed true breeding pur- B. Helicase

ple flowered plants with true breeding C. Ligase
white flowered plants all of the offspring
were purple because D. RNA polymerase
A. the allele for white flowers is dominant 845. Who discovered the shape of the DNA
B. The allele for purple flowers is domi- molecule?
nant A. Lewis and Clark
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The allele for purple is recessive B. Mendel and Darwin
D. Purple is a better color for the plant C. Watson and Crick
841. How many alleles for each trait does each D. Hershey and Chase
parent pass to the offspring? 846. Floriculture involves growing
A. 1 A. flowering plants
B. 2 B. field crops like peanuts
C. 3 C. watermelons
D. 4 D. container grown plants
842. What did Mendel’s cross-pollination of 847. Scientists have discovered a way to ge-
pea plants prove? netically engineer farm animals such as
A. Certain factors are dominant, and pigs and goats to produce desired proteins
other factors are recessive. in their milk. The milk containing the pro-
tein could then be collected, the protein
B. Crossing a tall plant with a tall plant
could be extracted from the milk, and then
will always result in a tall plant.
the protein could be given to people as
C. Inheritance of certain factors is depen- medicine.Why might a pharmaceutical com-
dent upon the genetic code. pany choose to use this technology to man-
D. All the cells in an organism carry the ufacture medicines?
same hereditary factors. A. To improve the nutrition of the farm an-
imals.
843. Why can Agrobacterium be used to genet-
ically modify a crop? B. To produce a more delicious milk prod-
uct to sell at grocery stores.
A. Agrobacterium causes disease (at-
tacks!) in plants. C. To improve the health of humans with
genetic disorders.
B. Agrobacterium has the ability to trans-
fer a portion of its DNA into plant cells. D. To improve the health of farm animals
with genetic disorders.
C. The Agrobacterium carries the vector
with the gene of interest & helps to incor- 848. An organism’s complete set of genes is
porate its DNA with the crop’s DNA. called its
D. All of the above! A. Genome
844. During the transcription processs, B. DNA
builds the mRNA C. Phenotype
A. DNA polymerase D. Cells

849. A genetic characteristic that allows an or- 854. The flower color trait in radishes is an ex-
ganism to survive and reproduce ample of which of the following?
A. A multiple allelic system

A. Adaptation
B. Hibernation B. Sex linkage
C. Natural selection C. Codominance
D. Selective breeding D. Incomplete dominance
850. Is budding an example of asexual or sex- 855. What is the advantage of having differ-
ual reproduction? ent shaped beaks?
A. sexual A. To look different from other species.
B. both B. To be able to eat the food readily avail-
able in the environment.
C. asexual
C. To protect itself against predators.
D. neither
D. To protect itself against prey.
851. A woman has six sons. The chance that
her next child will be a daughter is 856. a factor that seems to disappear
A. 1 A. recessive factor
B. 1/2 B. dominant factor
C. 1/6. C. alleles
D. 5/6. D. homozygous
857. When crossing an organism that is ho-
852. Which isn’t a reason why species adapt
mozygous recessive for a single trait with
and change
a heterozygote, what is the chance of pro-
A. Producing too many offspring ducing an offspring with the homozygous
B. Too much food recessive phenotype?
C. Competition for resources A. 0%
D. none of above B. 255
C. 50%
853. A scientist discovers a DNA-based test
for the allele of a particular gene. This and D. 75%
only this allele, if homozygous, produces 858. Thale Cress is an example of
an effect that results in death at or about
the time of birth. Of the following, which A. Inbreeding
is the best use of this discovery? B. Hybrid breeding
A. To screen all newborns of an at-risk C. Genetic engineering
population D. none of above
B. To design a test for identifying het-
859. Polyploidy is induced through
erozygous carriers of the allele
A. Irradiation
C. To introduce a normal allele into defi-
cient newborns B. Mutagenic chemicals
D. To follow the segregation of the allele C. Ethylene
during meiosis D. Colchicine

860. Why aren’t new species created by ani- 865. What is the probability of a couple having
mals cross-breeding? four consecutive female children.
A. The different animalsproduce proteins A. 1/6
in different ways
B. 1/2
B. Sexual reproduction betweenspecies
C. 1/4
will not produce fertile offspring
D. 1/16
C. The cell walls of the twoanimals would
NARAYAN CHANGDER
be made of different chemicals 866. is the exploitation of biological pro-
D. The reproductive structureof the two cesses for industrial and other purposes,
different animals would be too different especially the genetic manipulation of mi-
croorganisms for the production of antibi-
861. According to natural selection, which or- otics, hormones, etc.
ganisms are most likely to servive?
A. Genetics
A. The faster organisms
B. PCR
B. The biggest organism
C. Cloning
C. The best adapted oraganisms
D. Biotechnology
D. The most domesticated organisms
867. Mendel crossed tall (TT) plants with short
862. The first word in the scientific name of a
(tt) pea plants. What percent of the off-
plant is the:
spring in the F1 (first) generation were
A. cultivar. tall?
B. genus. A. 25%
C. species. B. 50%
D. variety. C. 75%
863. What is the definition of genetic engineer- D. 100%
ing
868. An organism with one recessive gene and
A. Form of artificial selection one dominant gene is called a
B. deliberate modification of an organism A. gene
by manipulating its genetic material
B. recessive gene
C. The vena Cava
C. hybrid
D. The movement of water molecules
D. dominant gene
864. The gene makeup or combination of alle-
les an organism has for a particular trait 869. A hybrid is an organism that receives dif-
is known as its ferent genetic information from
A. dominance A. each parent.
B. phenotype B. one parent
C. allele C. the grandparents
D. genotype D. the environment

870. Who discovered the unit factors of inher- 875. Feather color in budgies is determined by
itance by doing series of plant hybridisa- two different genes Y and B, one for pig-
tion experiments in 1866? ment on the outside and one for the inside

A. John Hopkins of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is
green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb
B. Muller is yellow; and yybb is white. Two blue
C. Mendel budgies were crossed. Over the years,
D. Hardy they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which
were white. What are the most likely
871. The Father of Taxonomy is known as? genotypes for the two blue budgies?
A. Aristotle A. yyBB and yyBB
B. Linnaeus B. yyBB and yyBb
C. Pasteur
C. yyBb and yyBb
D. Theophrastus
D. yyBB and yybb
872. Biotechnology is the use and applica-
tion of living organisms and biological pro- 876. In farming, many crops are produced by
cesses for specific purposes. One example cloning. One method of cloning crops is to
of biotechnology is cloning. Which of these simply cut off a section of the plant, al-
actions can produce a clone? low it to grow new roots, and then re-
plant this cut section. One of the most com-
A. copying the DNA from one cell and in-
monly cloned food crops is the Cavendish
serting it in another cell, which makes two
banana.Based on this information, which
genetically-identical cells
of the following statements is true?
B. developing new plants by crossing dif-
A. Bananas from the cloned plant will
ferent types of plants
taste different than bananas from the par-
C. removing a gene from the DNA of an ent plant.
existing organism
B. The cloned banana plants will not live
D. inserting a gene into the DNA of an ex- as long as the parent plants.
isting organism
C. Cloning banana plants is a very com-
873. Law of homologous series of variation plex and expensive process.
states that character found in one species
also occur in other D. Growing only cloned banana plants will
limit the genetic variety on the farm.
A. Unrelated species
B. related species 877. Which of the following statements are
the APPLICATIONS of plant tissue culture
C. related genus
technique.I MicropropagationII Genetic im-
D. unrelated genus provementIII Germplasm preservationIV
Production of synthetic seed
874. How do adaptations help animals?
A. To escape animals A. I and II
B. to hunt for food B. II and III
C. to survive in their habitats C. I, II and III
D. All of these are correct D. All of the above.

878. Which is a difference between meiosis I D. none of above

and meiosis II?
A. Cytokinesis occurs during meiosis II 882. In Mendel’s second experiment, where
but not meiosis I he let the first generation plants self-
pollinate, what trait did the offspring
B. Meiosis I has a prophase stage, but
show in the second generation?
meiosis II does not.
C. Meiosis II results in four cells instead A. lightpurple
of two cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. purple
D. Nuclear membranes form during meio- C. somewere purple and some were
sis II but not meiosis I. white
879. Heredity is D. white
A. The study of genes that are found in
DNA 883. Silas saw the scientific name Ilex vomi-
B. The process of passing traits from par- toria ‘Nana’ on a Dwarf Yaupon. Which
ents to offspring word is the plant species?
C. The capital and small letters used to A. Dwarf.
represent the dominant and recessive
B. Ilex.
traits
D. The physical appearance of alleles C. ’Nana’
D. Vomitoria.
880. Pairs of genes that control the same trait
are known as
884. What do we call the process of choos-
A. allelles ing parent organisms for the characteris-
B. gametes tics that we want in their offspring?
C. hybrids A. selective breeding
D. loci B. reproductive selection
881. Assume that you are the president of C. natural selection
a plant biotechnology company and you
want to offer your customers a new va- D. natural breeding
riety of cucumber that tastes great, lasts
longer on the shelf and is less susceptible 885. What is one way selective breeding
to insect damage. Which method will be difers from natural selection?
the most precise, (accurate) and produce A. Selective breeking does not produce
plants with the desired characteristics the offspring
quickest?
B. Humans influence the traits of the next
A. traditional plant breeding
generation in selective breeding
B. research efforts have not focused on
creating organisms with specific combina- C. Nature controls which organisms sur-
tions of characteristics vive and reproduce in selective breeding
C. genetic modification through genetic D. Animals are the only organisms can be
engineering selectively bred

886. is the process by which humans use A. quercus rubra

animal breeding and plant breeding to B. quercus Rubra
selectively develop particular phenotypic

traits by choosing which animal or plant C. Quercus Rubra
will sexually reproduce and have offspring D. Quercus rubra
together.
891. What term denotes the physical expres-
A. Natural Selection
sion of a gene?
B. Artificial Selection A. genotype
C. Lamarkism B. phenotype
D. Sexual Selection C. appearance
887. a genetic factor that blocks another ge- D. homologous
netic factor
892. A liger is created when a tiger and a lion
A. self pollinate breed. This is an example of
B. cross pollinate A. selective breeding
C. dominate B. cross breeding
D. recessive C. hybridization
888. In , resistance to yellow mosaic virus D. artificial selection
and powdery mildew were induced by mu-
tations 893. A type of tourism directed toward exotic,
often threatened, natural environments,
A. Mung bean intended to support conservation efforts
B. Brassica and observe wildlife.
C. Cauliflower A. Ecotourism
D. Wheat B. Poaching
889. Peppered moths often hide on white- C. Endangered species act

colored birch trees because they are sim- D. Walt Disney World
ilarly colored. Which of the following en-
vironmental changes would lead to the en- 894. Why is selective breeding used with ani-
hanced survival of darker moths? mals and plants?
A. Warm weather causes the birch trees A. Desirable characteristics that will be
to grow their leaves back early. of benefit will only be selected
B. Birch trees become covered in black B. It’s a natural process

ash from nearby factories. C. To make the species extinct
C. Heavy rainfall causes birch trees to D. Allows organism to be as genetically
grow taller than normal. diverse as possible
D. Disease kills off more than half of the 895. reproduction requires one parent,
birch tree population. while reproduction requires two par-
890. Which is the correct way to write the ents.
name of Red Oak? A. asexual, sexual

B. sexual, asexual 900. Insects are a major danger to crop plants.

C. animal, bacterial Every year, insect damage destroys many
plants that could be used to produce food.
D. single, double Genetic engineering can be used to insert
896. Genetic engineering has produced goats a gene into crop plants that helps them re-
whose milk contains proteins that can be sist insects. What is one potential risk of
used as medicines. This effect was pro- this use of biotechnology?
duced by A. Crops will not grow as quickly.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. mixing genes into the milk B. Each plant will require more water.
B. injecting genes into the goats udders C. The gene will transfer into wild plants.
C. inserting foreign genes into fertilized D. The plants can no longer undergo se-
goat eggs lective breeding.
D. genetically modifying the nutritional 901. A gardener takes pollen from one orchid
needs of the goats offspring flower and uses it to pollinate a flower on
897. While genetic engineering has positive another orchid plant. What method is this
benefits, there are also concerns associ- a part of?
ated with widespread use of genetic en- A. Selective breeding
gineering in agriculture. If many farmers B. Genetic modification
begin to plant more genetically modified
crops that have an increased tolerance to C. Natural selection
insects, which of the following may re- D. Diffusion
sult?
902. What Plant Hardiness Zone is Los Ange-
A. an increase in the use of pesticides les
B. a decrease in genetic diversity of the A. 9b
crops
B. 10a/10b/11a
C. an increase in the contamination of the
water supply C. 2c
D. a decrease in crop productivity on D. 5a/5b

these treated fields 903. Mutations cause structural changes in a
898. What is variation controlled by? molecule that helps transmit hereditary in-
formation. The molecule is called?
A. The environment
A. a mineral
B. Genes and the environment
B. DNA
C. Genes
C. a protein
D. Your parents
D. a carbohydrate
899. What is genotype?
904. Two heterozygous (Tt)tall pea plants
A. The makeup of an organism are crossed. Which describes their off-
B. The characteristics of an organism spring?Create a punnett square.
C. both A. 50% tall and 50% short
D. none B. 75%tall and 25% short

C. 100%short B. the more offspring the more likely the

D. none of above offspring will survive

C. the more offspring the less likely off-
905. Cloning results in two organisms that are spring will survive
A. both adult mammals D. the more offspring the less competi-
B. produced from cuttings tion
C. genetically similar
910. Which body systems work together to
D. genetically identical send oxygen throughout the body?
906. F1 offspring are crossed to produce F2 A. Respiratory and circulatory
offspring with a 3:1 ratio of dominant B. Integumentary and nervous
to recessive. This illustrates which of
C. Respiratory and excretory
Mendel’s Laws?
D. Nervous and muscular
A. Law of Dominance
B. Law of Independent Assortment 911. Mating a true breeding pink rose plant
with a true breeding pink rose plant will
C. Law of Segregation
produce
D. Law of Punnett
A. plants with pink and white roses.
907. One trait that is ALWAYS present and B. only plants with pink roses.
causes the other traits to disappear is a
C. plants with red or white roses in a 3:1
ratio.
A. recessive trait
D. none of above
B. aggressive trait
C. absent trait 912. Which of the following is a disadvantage
for sexual reproduction?
D. dominant trait
A. a lot of time and energy is required for
908. Mendel verified true-breeding pea plants making gametes and finding mates
for certain traits before undertaking his
B. offspring can be produced more
experiments. The term “true breeding”
quickly than by asexual means
means
C. the genetic diversity makes organ-
A. genetically pure lines.
isms respond differently to environmental
B. organisms that have a high rate of re- changes
production.
D. the offspring are genetically different
C. organisms that will produce identical
copies of themselves upon reproduction. 913. In Plant Tissue Culture, Totipotency
means
D. organisms that are heterozygous for a
given trait. A. Flowering in culture medium
909. Why do frogs and other organism repro- B. Development of Organ from Tissue un-
duce so many eggs or offspring? der medium
A. so that their babies can have friends to C. Development of fruit

play with D. None

914. To study the inheritance of traits Gregor A. Abundant broad leaves to gather the
Mendel used greatest amount of sunlight
A. tomato plants B. Waxy coating on leaves and cones to
B. small shrubs protect against forsest fires
C. pea plants C. Flowers blooming year - round to pro-
duce more seeds
D. various grasses
D. Spines to protect the plant from ani-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
915. What is one argument FOR using geneti- mals that need water
cally modified crops (GMOs)?
A. We do not know if how they effect hu- 919. What term is used to describe pairs of
mans. chromosomes having DNA segments, or
genes, for the same traits?
B. They could also kill beneficial organ-
isms. A. homologous
C. They can lead to an increase in crop B. analogous
production, which will allow more peo-
C. homozygous
ple to be fed and farmers to make more
money. D. parallel
D. They can make cats glow.
920. offspring produced from two different
916. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of these parent types, breeds, or species
is a true statement about the cloned goat? A. hybrid
A. It has new genes and traits B. fertilize
B. It lacks the genes for reproduction
C. DNA
C. It has the genes that are identical to
the original goat D. none of above
D. It looks the same but has different 921. How many chromosomes are found in hu-
genes. man body cells?
917. Hydrangea plants of the same genotype A. 11
are planted in a large flower garden. Some B. 23
of the plants produce blue flowers and oth-
ers pink flowers. This can be best ex- C. 46
plained by which of the following? D. 92
A. Environmental factors such as soil pH
922. It is the process of gathering mature
B. The allele for blue hydrangea being
plants from the fields and marks the end
completely dominant
of the growing season of the crop.
C. he alleles being codominant
A. Marketing
D. The fact that a mutation has occurred
B. Harvesting
918. Which of the following plant character-
C. Gathering
isitcs is a helpful adaptation for living in
a desert environment? D. Selling

923. What is Gel Electrophoresis? D. insert foreign DNA into plant chromo-
A. Is the process of producing genetically somes.

identical individuals of an organism either
naturally or artificially. 928. Jaya and ratna developed for green rev-
olution in India are the varieties of
B. Is a laboratory method used to sepa-
rate mixtures of DNA, RNA, or proteins ac- A. Wheat
cording to molecular size. B. Maize
C. Is a technique used to amplify a seg- C. Rice
ment of DNA of interest or produce lots
and lots of copies. D. sugarcane
D. none of above 929. When Mendel crossed two true breeding
924. Which of the following is NOT an exam- plants in which generation did the reces-
ple of a desirable trait in ANIMALS? sive trait reappear?
A. Giraffes that have long necks A. 1st generation
B. Animals that produce lots of milk B. 2nd generation
C. Chickens that lay large eggs C. 3rd generation
D. Horses that are fine and fast D. 4th generation
925. A complex, global collective of diverse
930. Plant parts (cell, tissue, organ) used in
businesses that supply most of the food
tissue culture called as the
consumed by the world’s population is the
industry. A. import
A. Food B. implant
B. Fiber C. explant
C. Fuel D. export
D. Farm
931. What is a type of organism that is threat-
926. Hemophilia is caused by a(an) ened by extinction?
A. recessive allele on the X chromosome
A. endangered species
B. extra chromosome
B. exotic species
C. dominant allele
C. threatened species
D. codominant allele
D. new species
927. Certain drugs can be used in plant breed-
ing to make polyploid plants. These drugs 932. Which characteristic is necessary for nat-
A. change the number of chromosomes ural selection to occur in a species?
found in cells A. stability
B. change eukaryotic plants into prokary- B. variation
otic plants.
C. complex cellular organization
C. frequently cause mutations, which cre-
ate new alleles and genes. D. a very low mutation rate

933. If Y (yellow) is the dominant allele for C. In asexual reproduction, the offspring
pea plant seed color, which of the follow- are produced with the involvement of two
ing would produce green seeds? parents.
A. yy D. In asexual reproduction, the offspring
are produced with the involvement of
B. Yy
three or more parents.
C. YY
938. The noble-laureate that successfully
D. gg crossed and produced the semi dwarf
NARAYAN CHANGDER
wheat hybrid is:
934. Selective, deliberate change of genes by
man. (Putting genes from one organism A. Norman E Borulag
into another) B. M.S. Swaminathan
A. Genetic Engineering C. Kalyan Sona
B. Cloning D. Jaya Ratna
C. Hybridization 939. Darwin’s finches each lived on a specific

island based on what resource?
D. Inbreeding
A. size of island
935. A trait that is more common B. type of tree
A. rare C. climate
B. dominant D. food
C. recessive 940. The centre of origin for Coffee and
D. unique Sesame is
A. Hindusthan
936. Which of the following statements is true B. Abyssinian
about selective breeding?
C. Mexican
A. Breeders can control which animals
D. China
mate.
B. Breeders can control what mutations 941. In the P generation, a true-breeding tall
will appear in the offspring. plant (dominant) is crossed with a true-
breeding short plant (recessive). The prob-
C. Both A and B are true. ability that an F2 plant will be tall is
D. Neither A nor B is true. A. 100%
B. 50%
937. Which statement correctly describes the
relationship between parents and off- C. 25%
spring in asexual reproduction? D. 75%
A. In asexual reproduction, the offspring 942. Sex-linked genes are genes on
are produced without the involvement of
A. the X chromosome only
a parent or parents.
B. the Y chromosome only
B. In asexual reproduction, the offspring
are produced with the involvement of a C. the X and Y chromosomes
single parent. D. all 23 pairs of chromosomes

943. When there are two alleles that are ex- 949. If yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y),
actly the same, it is called What is the probability to have a green
seed if you cross two hybrids?

A. homozygous
A. 100%
B. heterozygous
B. 75%
C. dominant
C. 25%
D. recessive factor
D. 0%
944. When offspring is the same as the parent
950. Behavioral changes of individuals of a
A. self pollination species that allow for better survival. (Ac-
B. pistil quired traits)
C. true breeding plant A. Variation
B. Adaptation
D. cross pollination
C. Behavior
945. Mendel studied genetics by cross- D. Environment
pollinating the traits of these types of
plants. 951. Which best describes the process for pro-
tein synthesis (the central dogma)?
A. peas
A. DNA → Protein → RNA
B. beans
B. DNA → RNA → Protein
C. celery
C. RNA → DNA → Protein
D. cactus
D. Protein → RNA → DNA
946. is the study of heredity. 952. Which combination is a likely food chain?
A. biology A. Corn, apple, mouse
B. genetics B. Hawk, Mouse, Corn
C. ecology C. Mouse, Apple, Corn
D. cytology D. Corn, Mouse, Hawk
947. Hierarchy of categories was introduced 953. What is the complementary RNA
by strand for the following template
strand?AAGCTTCCGGAT
A. De Candolle
A. UUGCAACCGGUA
B. Bauhin
B. TTCGAAGGCCUA
C. Linnaeus
C. UUCGAAGGCCUA
D. John Ray
D. TTGCAACCGGTA
948. Clove is obtained from 954. Name the enzyme that cuts DNA
A. root A. Restriction
B. stem B. Ligase
C. flower bud C. Vector
D. leaves D. none of above

955. T-Tall t - short R-roundr- wrinkledWhat C. Chipko movement

is the phenotypic ratio of a cross between D. Revolution in electronics
two heterozygous tall and heterozygous
round plants? 960. How is meiosis different from mitosis?
A. 10:2:2:2 A. Mitosis produces 2 daughter cells that
B. 8:4:2:2 are genetically identical. Meiosis pro-
duces 4 daughter cells with half the num-
C. 9:3:3:1
ber of chromosomes and that are not ge-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 8:8 netically identical.
956. It was important that Mendel examined B. Mitosis has one division and meiosis
not just the F 1 generation in his breed- has two divisions.
ing experiments, but the F2 generation as C. Meiosis creates genetic diversity and
well, because mitosis does not.
A. he obtained very few F1 progeny, mak- D. All are correct
ing statistical analysis difficult.
B. parental traits that were not observed 961. How do most fossils form?
in the F1 reappeared in the F2. A. An insect becomes trapped in amber.
C. analysis of the F1 progeny would have B. An entire organism becomes frozen in
allowed him to discover the law ofsegre- ice.
gation, but not the law of independent as-
sortment. C. A dead organism becomes buried in
sediment.
D. the dominant phenotypes were visible
in the F2 generation, but not in the F1. E) D. A dead organism becomes buried in
many of the F1 progeny died. tar.
957. The genetic information inside an individ- 962. If having cystic fibrosis is a recessive dis-
ual. ease, then what would be the genotype of
someone that has cystic fibrosis?
A. Homozygous
A. AA
B. Heterozygous
B. Aa
C. Genotype
D. Phenotype C. aa
D. none of these
958. Mendel used pea plants for his experi-
ment because 963. Several years of drought affect a popula-
A. They reproduce quickly tion of plants in southwest Texas. Which
of the following characteristics would you
B. they have easily observable traits
expect to see more frequently in the plants
C. He was able to control pollination over the next several generations?
D. All of the above A. Abundant broad leaves
959. Green revolution is B. Waxy coating on leaves
A. Revolution in chemical industry C. Flowers blooming regularly
B. Revolution in agriculture yield D. Tall, narrow stems

964. Down syndrome most often occurs when D. they are homozygous like their parents
A. a person inherits a recessive allele
969. The Resurrection Fern can shrivel up into

B. chromosomes fail to separate properly
a ball and remain that way for many years.
during meiosis
When moisture is available, the dry leaves
C. sickle-shaped cells become stuck in absorb the water and unroll. The plant will
blood vessels then turn green and grow. Under which en-
D. blood fails to clot properly vironmental conditions did this ability de-
velop?
965. Down Syndrome, Cystic Fibrosis, color
blindness, and Huntington’s Disease are all A. Atmosphere with little carbon dioxide.
examples of
B. Climate including periods of prolonged
A. Mutations drought.
B. Genetic Engineering C. High density of many competitor plant
C. Selective Breeding species.
D. GMOs D. Abundant insect pollinators of many
966. Organisms that have DNA from a differ- varieties
ent species artificially inserted into their
cells are called 970. Define behavioral adaptation
A. bioremediated A. physical features of an organism like
B. transgenic the bill on a bird or the fur on a bear.
C. cultured B. things organisms do to survive. For ex-
D. a clone ample, bird calls and migration
967. What type of asexual reproduction has C. process whereby organisms better
specialized cells that can survive harsh con- adapted to their environment tend to sur-
ditions for a long period of time? vive and produce more offspring. The the-
ory of its action was first fully expounded
A. binary
by Charles Darwin and is now believed to
B. budding be the main process that brings about evo-
C. spores lution.
D. vegetative D. the close external resemblance of an
animal or plant (or part of one) to another
968. When you cross a true-breeding yellow animal, plant, or inanimate object.
seed plant with true-breeding green seed
plant, and all of the resulting offspring are
green seed plants, this means 971. The unit of inheritance that is responsible
for a character or trait.
A. the allele for green seed plants is dom-
inant A. Allele
B. the allele for yellow seed plants is dom- B. Chromosome
inant
C. Gene
C. the allele for green seed plants is re-
cessive D. Chromatid

972. When the better adapted organisms sur- B. 80

vive to pass traits along to offspring. C. 40
A. Evolution D. 20
B. Natural Selection
978. What genetic disorder results in abnor-
C. Extinction
mally shaped blood cells?
D. Artificial Selection
A. hemophilia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
973. An organism showing the recessive phe- B. Down syndrome
notype will have a genotype that looks
C. cystic fibrosis
like
A. RR D. sickle-cell disease
B. Rr 979. Why did Mendel choose pea plants for his

C. rr experiments?
D. none of above A. The pea plants grew very slowly and

that helped him make better observations.
974. A cross that results in the blending of the B. There were only 2 observable alleles
traits of the two parents is an example of which made it easier to record data.
C. The pea plants reproduced asexually
A. Multiple alleles
which made them easier to control.
B. Incomplete dominance
D. All choices are correct.
C. Codominance
980. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive hu-
D. Polyploidy
man disorder in which an individual can-
975. What is the genotype of individual II-5? not appropriately metabolize a particular
amino acid. This amino acid is not other-
A. WW
wise produced by humans. Therefore the
B. Ww most efficient and effective treatment is
C. ww which of the following?
D. WW or ww A. Feed them the substrate that can be
metabolized into this amino acid.
976. A genetic factor that is masked by an-
B. Transfuse the patients with blood from
other genetic factor is called a(n)
unaffected donors.
A. dominant trait
C. Regulate the diet of the affected per-
B. recessive trait sons to severely limit the uptake of the
C. heredity trait amino acid.
D. genetic trait D. Feed the patients the missing enzymes
in a regular cycle, i.e., twice per week.
977. A muscle cell from a male duck has 80
chromosomes. How many chromosomes 981. Fill in the blank:Mendel kept experiment-
would be found in a sperm cell from this ing and discovered that pairs of deter-
duck? mine each characteristic.
A. 160 A. Characteristics

B. Traits 987. Tropical rain forests have the greastest

biodiversity of any type of land ecosys-
C. Genes
tem.How does biodiversity contribility of

D. Personality an ecosystem
A. The presence of more species whith
982. The evolution from dogs to wolves is due
different adoptation make it more likely
to:
that some organisms will survive an eco-
A. Natural Selection logical disaster
B. Sexual Selection B. Greater genentic variety within
species makes it more likely that some
C. Artificial Selection
individuals will survive a disease outbreak
D. Vestigial Structures C. The presence of a variety of herbivore
species that can feed on my many differ-
983. Mendel realized that organisms get
ent producer species help ensure abun-
of their genetics from each parent.
dant prey for perdators in the ecosystem
A. 1/4 D. All of above
B. 1/3
988. What does a Punnett Square help you
C. 1/8 do?
D. 1/2 A. Determine the ratio of phenotypes
B. Determine the ratio of genotypes
984. Father of Green Revolution is
C. Predict possible traits the offspring
A. G. S. Khush will have
B. M. S. Swaminathan D. All of the above
C. N. I. Vavilov
989. Which describes the ABO blood group sys-
D. N. E. Borlaug tem?
A. Incomplete dominance
985. The physical appearance of an organism
is its B. Multiple alleles
A. expression C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis
B. genotype
C. inheritance 990. What type of chart is used to help orga-
nize study and predict genetic inheritance?
D. phenotype
A. flow chart
986. When an individual has two DIFFERENT B. punnett square
alleles for a trait, the genotype is
C. graph
A. phenotype D. diagram
B. genotype
991. In the scientific name, Ficus elastica ‘Dec-
C. homozygous ora’ the word ‘Decora’ is the:
D. heterozygous A. genus.

B. kingdom. C. exactly the same

C. species. D. different
D. variety.
997. Many characteristics are affected by in-
992. What is the phenotype? teractions between genes and
A. The characteristics of an organism A. chromosomes
B. The makeup of an organism B. the environment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both C. alleles
D. none D. carriers
993. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is 998. The actual genetic makeup of an organism
dominant over the trait for short stems, is called its
and purple flowers are dominant over A. phenotype
white flowers. If 2 parents heterozygous
for both traits are crossed, what would B. genotype
the expected phenotype ratio be of off- C. karyotype
spring that have short stems and white
D. filial concentration
flowers?
A. 9:16 999. Which type of genotype would result in
having blue eyes, if B is dominant for
B. 3:16
brown eyes?
C. 1:16
A. BB
D. 100%
B. Bb
994. What is the cause of some traits “skip- C. bb
ping” a generation?
D. none of above
A. dominant traits
B. recessive traits 1000. Gene S controls the sharpness of spines
in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dom-
C. hybrid alleles inant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas
D. homologous chromosomes homozygous recessive ss cactuses have
dull spines. At the same time, a sec-
995. A pea plant produces 5 seeds. What per- ond gene, N, determines whether cactuses
cent of its alleles come from the mother? have spines. Homozygous recessive nn
A. 10% cactuses have no spines at all.A cross be-
B. 20% tween a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus
and a spineless cactus would produce
C. 25%
A. all sharp-spined progeny.
D. 50%
B. 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined
996. If a hydra plant reproduces asexually, it’s progeny.
offspring will be C. 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined,
A. similar 25% spineless progeny
B. nothing like it D. all spineless progeny.

1001. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a 1006. to make offspring that are similsr to the
white chicken (WW) produce all speckled original living thing
offspring (BW). This type of inheritance is

A. offspring
known as
B. hybrid
A. incomplete dominance
C. reproduce
B. polygenic inheritance D. none of above
C. codominance
1007. A trait that is rare
D. complete dominance
A. recessive
1002. All of these are soil conservation meth- B. dominant
ods except C. unique
A. monocropping D. genetics
B. no-till farming 1008. Mendel did his experiments with pea
C. contour plowing plants because
D. building terraces A. They are easy to breed
B. They have lots of offspring
1003. one of the alternative forms of a gene
that governs a characteristic, such as hair C. They can self pollinate
color D. All of the above
A. allele 1009. The following sequence of letters rep-
B. gene resents the order of bases in a single
strand of DNA. C-T-T-A-G-G-C-T-T-A-C-C-
C. trait A Which of these sequences would be the
D. DNA complementary strand that forms during
replication?
1004. What is the variety of a plant? A. G-A-A-T-C-C-G-A-A-T-G-G-T
A. It is a plant produced in the lab B. C-T-T-A-G-G-C-T-T-A-C-C-A
B. It is a plant bred outdoors by humans C. T-C-C-G-A-A-T-C-C-G-T-T-G
C. It is a naturally occurring group of D. A-G-G-C-T-T-A-G-G-C-A-A-C
plants of less than species rank
1010. Which of the following does NOT cor-
D. none of above rectly match the cause and effect rela-
tionship of an external stimulus to its re-
1005. The important principles of plant tis-
sponse?
sue cultureI TotipotencyII Hormone regula-
tionIII Natural capacity to multiplyIV New A. winter comes - birds fly south
growth from meristematic tissues B. temperature rises - animals come out
A. I and II of hiding
C. animal fur turns white - snow begins
B. II and III
to fall
C. I, II and III
D. food might become scarce - animals
D. All of the answers. store nuts

1011. Why is the enzyme that unwind and 1016. A codon consists of how many bases?
unzip the molecule of DNA during replica- A. 2
tion?
B. 3
A. Helicase
C. 4
B. Polymerase
D. it is always different every time
C. Ligase
D. None of the above 1017. In a population of desert plants, the tim-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing of their blooming varies greatly. Some
1012. a branch of horticulture that deals bloom early in the morning, others at mid-
with study about vegetable. day, and others after dark. What envi-
A. Olericulture ronmental pressure might be an advantage
for those plants that bloom after dark?
B. Pomology
A. There is an increase in the population
C. Agronomy
of nocturnal pollinators.
D. Hydroponics
B. There is a decrease in the strength of
1013. A true-breeding purple plant and a true- solar radiation.
breeding white plant cross-pollinate. The C. There is an increase in herbivores that
offspring will be *Purple is the domi- forage at night.
nant trait
D. There is a decrease in water for root
A. all purple absorption.
B. half purple, half white
1018. Who is considered the “father” of mod-
C. 75% purple, 25% white ern genetics?
D. 75% white, 25% purple
A. Einstein
1014. A living genetic resources such as seeds B. Mendel
or tissues that are maintained for the pur-
C. Disney
pose of animal and plant breeding, preser-
vation, and other research uses. D. Trump
A. Poaching 1019. Any difference between individuals of
B. Germplasm the same species
C. Ecotourism A. variation
D. Gene B. evolution
1015. How many unique gametes could be pro- C. physical

duced through independent assortment by D. fossil
an individual with the genotype AaBbC-
CDdEE? 1020. what are genes
A. 4 A. another word for Mendelian genetics
B. 8 B. related to genetics
C. 16 C. trait-controlling factor
D. 32 D. none of above

1021. The genetic make up of a trait: C. trait

A. Genotype D. characteristic

B. Phenotype
1027. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall
C. Chromosome plants with true-breeding short plants, all
D. Hybrid the offspring were tall because
1022. Polyploidy can be induced using A. the allele for tall plants is recessive.
A. Harmones B. the allele for short plants is dominant.
B. GAA C. the allele for tall plants is dominant.
C. IAA D. they were true-breeding like their par-
D. Colchicines ents.
1023. A hybrid pea plant with round seeds 1028. Researchers have found that many hu-
would have the combination of genes. man activities produce carbon dioxide gas.
Most scientists think that increased levels
A. RR
of carbon dioxide gas in the atmosphere
B. Rr will
C. rr A. block thermal energy from the sun, re-
D. None of these are correct sulting in an ice age
1024. Purple is dominant to white. A het- B. Lead to an increased greenhouse ef-

erozygous purple flower is crossed with fect and global warming
a white flower. What are the genotypes C. reduce the greenhouse effect, result-
and phenotypes of the offspring? ing in milder climates
A. 100% Pp (purple) D. result in warmer, drier conditions that
B. 50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white) will aid crop yields
C. 75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white) 1029. One gene from a pair is called an
D. 25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp75% purple,
A. Trait
25% white
B. Allele
1025. After the F1 generation was crossed,
Mendel discovered that the second gener- C. Genotype
ation resulted in a : ratio. D. Phenotype
A. 1:0
1030. is an application of the human
B. 1:1 genome project that involves the insertion
C. 3:1 of normal genes into cells with defective
D. 4:0 genes in order to correct genetic disorders.
A. gene gun
1026. A is a feature that has different
forms. An example of this is eye color. B. gene mapping
A. allele C. gene linkage
B. gene D. gene therapy

1031. Which term refers to a species creating C. stamen

more offspring than can possibly survive? D. pollen carriers
1036. How does the fossil record help to sup-
B. overproduction port the theory of evolution?
C. evolution A. the fossil record shows that organisms
D. variation slowly change over time
1032. What holds the bases together? B. The fossil record shows that species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
evolve very quickly
A. glue
C. The fossil record does not support the
B. covalent bonds theory of evolution
C. hydrogen bonds D. none of above
D. ionic bonds
1037. A gene gun and a virus may both be clas-
1033. Consider the statement (s) related to sified as because they are mechanisms
the green revolution:1) Increasing agricul- by which foreign DNA may be transferred
tural production by incorporating modern into a host cell.
tools and techniques.2) New high - yield- A. bacteria
ing varieties of wheat were developed by
Prof. Norman Borlaug & were adopted by B. plasmids
a number of countries.Which of the follow- C. vectors
ing is/are correct statement (s)? D. splicers
A. Only 1
1038. What trait would appear in the off-
B. Only 2 spring if you crossed two true- breeding
C. Both 1 and 2 white flowered pea plants?
D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. 100 % would be purple
1034. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. B. 50% would be purple and 50% white
Both of Donna’s parents have brown eyes. C. 100% would have pink flowers
What is the BEST explanation for why D. 100% would have white flowers
Donna has blue eyes?
A. All of Donna’s grandparentsmust have 1039. Which of the following separate inde-
had blue eyes. pendently?
B. Both of Donna’s parentscarry a gene A. chromosomes

for blue eyes. B. genes on chromosomes
C. Donna’s mother probablycarries the C. codominant alleles
gene for blue eyes. D. intermediate alleles
D. Donna’s father probablycarries the
gene for blue eyes. 1040. Lions often hide in the tall grass while
stalking their prey. This is an example of
1035. bees, wind, & water are examples of ..
A. pollination A. camouflage
B. heredity B. warning coloration

C. mimicry 1046. In palnt tissue Cultue, Which part shows

D. hibernation maximum totipotency?

A. Xylem
1041. Which of the following is an example
of an abbreviation of an individual’s geno- B. Phloem
type in a monohybrid trait?
C. Meristem
A. TtBb
D. Stem
B. Tt
C. Tall 1047. What is a genotype?
D. Tb
A. chromatin
1042. When a(n) plant self-pollinates, it
B. DNA
always produces offspring with traits that
match the parent. C. physical appearance of triats
A. true-breeding D. refers to two alleles that control the
B. cross-breeding traits phenotype
C. self-pollinating
1048. A organism has had a foreign gene
D. offspring
inserted into its genome so that the or-
1043. Medicago sativa is a ganism exhibits a new characteristic and
passes that characteristic on to its off-
A. Normally self pollinated crop spring.
B. Normally Cross pollinated crop
A. Transgenic
C. Often cross pollinated crop
B. Hybrid
D. both a & b
C. Selected
1044. Evolution is
A. the process by which species change D. Mutated
over time
1049. In pea plants, green peas (G) are domi-
B. responsible for similarities we see
nant over yellow peas (g), and tall height
across all species
(T) is dominant over short height (t). In a
C. responsible for the great variety of dihybrid cross of the two traits, what is
things on Earth the expected fraction of the offspring that
D. all of the above show the recessive form of both traits,
meaning they are short and have yellow
1045. Which form of selective breeding peas? Assume the traits sort indepen-
crosses parents with the same or similar dently of each other.
characteristics?
A. 1/100
A. fertilization
B. 1/16
B. inbreeding
C. hybridization C. 1/8
D. cloning D. 1/4

4.4 Plant Biotechnology 788
1050. Why did Mendel use a greenhouse? 1054. Suggest a characteristic that would be
A. Mendel used a greenhouse to protect useful in a new variety of lettuce.
his plants from being pollinated by in- A. better taste, quicker growing, greater
sects. yield, disease resistance
B. Mendel used a greenhouse to make B. greener, longer, slower growing
mass production of the plants he is exper- C. bitter taste, smaller yield, yellow
imenting. colour
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mendel use a greenhouse to stabilize D. none of above
the plants.
D. Mendel used a greenhouse because it 1055. A genetic factor that blocks another ge-
helps the environment. netic factor is called a(n)
A. dominant trait
1051. Y for yellow body is dominant over y
for blue body. What alleles would produce B. recessive trait
yellow bodies? C. heredity trait
A. YY, yy D. genetic trait
B. Yy, yy 1056. The exact genetic makeup of an organ-
C. YY only ism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
D. YY, Yy A. phenotype
1052. What synthetic molecule is used to cut B. dominance

DNA open at a specific location and create C. genotype
sticky ends for the gene of interest to be D. trait
attached?
A. vector or plasmid 1057. Yeast is used to make:
B. restriction enzyme A. bread and alcohol
C. DNA scissors B. bread and corn
D. DNA Helicase C. corn and alcohol

D. corn and tomatoes
1053. A couple has 4 girls. What are the odds
of their next child being a boy? 1058. Improved Wheat varieties are
A. 1/4 A. Sonalika
B. 1/5 B. Sharbati Sonora
C. 1/2 C. Kalyan Sana
D. 1/8 D. All the above
4.4 Plant Biotechnology

1. Mildred. the mouse is genetically identical B. A clone.
to her mother. Mildred must be:
A. A twin. C. A hybrid.

D. A mutant. B. Cell Membrane
2. Some types of variation are due to C. Nucleus

changes in the genetic material. What is D. Mitochondria
this type of change called?
7. Which category does the following biotech-
A. Fertilisation
nology fall under?Using bacteria to clean
B. Mutation wastewater in a wastewater treatment
C. Radiation plant.
D. Sterilisation A. Forensic
3. process of removing and inserting genes B. Environmental

from one organism and inserting them into C. Medical
the DNA of another
D. Consumer Goods
A. Gene splicing
8. A chemical agent that destroys plants or
B. Gene mapping
inhibits their growth; especially weeds:
C. Heredity
A. Herbicide
D. Gene
B. Homicide
4. Which procedure is the final step in the pro- C. Pesticide
duction of a transgenic organism?
D. Genocide
A. Recombinant DNA is transferred to a
bacterial cell 9. The main goal of biotechnology is to use
B. A specific gene in a DNA sequence is living organisms and biological processes
identified. to improve life on Earth. Which example
would be most beneficial to global popula-
C. The DNA segment is combined into a
tions?
plasmid.
A. The engineering of rice crops to with-
D. The DNA segment to be inserted is iso-
stand flooding and contain more nutrients
lated.
B. The engineering of fruits so that they
5. Rosalind Franklin was a scientist in Lon- ripen slower and can be shipped farther
don at King’s College in 1950-1952. She
played an important part in the discovery C. The engineering of yeast to contain an
of: enzyme used for making cheese
A. DNA. D. The engineering of eggplant to make it

produce fruit in winter
B. Pasteurization.
C. Stem cells. 10. bt toxin requires which medium to become
active
D. Pea plants.
A. acidic
6. The clear, watery-like material in a cell
B. alkaline
that supports and protects the cell’s or-
ganelles. C. neutral
A. Cytoplasm D. none

11. What are the base-pairing rules in DNA? 16. Biotechnology affects different people and
groups in different ways. Which of these
A. A-C, G-T
uses of biotechnology would be most ben-
B. A-U, G-C eficial for the environment?
C. A-T, G-C A. A treatment of wastewater with mi-
D. A-C, G-U crobes
B. The use of microbes to remove algae
12. The BASF institute in RTP is a biotech com-
C. a liquid for pets to drink to eliminate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pany that specializes in what area?
bad odors
A. Developing Medicines D. a fertilizer for crops to improve growth
B. Agriculture
17. Which would be reduced as a result of the
C. Industrial Products development of pest-resistant crops?
D. none of above A. use of organic fertilizers
B. use of chemical insecticides
13. In 1928 Dr. discovers penicillin, the
first antibiotic? C. practice of crop rotation techniques
A. Norman Borlaug D. practice of hydroponic farming tech-
niques
B. Ben Carson
18. What mutation has occurred here? T-G-A-
C. Ian Wilmut
C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A
D. Alexander Fleming A. Substitution
14. Taking a gene that increases vitamin A con- B. Deletion
tent from a daffodil and inserting into a C. Insertion
rice plant is example of:
D. Frameshift
A. genetic engineering
19. In bread making, what microorganism eats
B. selective breeding the sugar in bread dough which gives off
C. gene therapy carbon dioxide gas and alcohol?
D. CRISPR A. Virus
B. Bacteria
15. Which of the following is a way in which
C. Amoeba
doctors can use biotechnologies in their of-
fices? D. Yeast
A. Input genes into a patient to grow 20. Which of these fields are most likely re-
taller or run faster. lated to the use of biotechnology?
B. Allow patients to choose what traits A. construction and engineering
their babies will show when born. B. medicine and agriculture
C. Doctors can predict if patients will de- C. water treatment and electricity gener-
velop a genetic disease. ation
D. Doctors can give a patient new genes D. communication and computer technol-
to pass on to their children. ogy

21. Which process uses one body cell nucleus B. Many life-threatening diseases such
to create a new organism? as cholera and dysentery are transmitted
from person to person through contami-

A. genetic modification
nated drinking water.
B. cloning
C. The water left behind is generally un-
C. genetic engineering treated and therefore people refuse to
D. none of above drink it, leading to problems caused by
heat and dehydration.
22. What is the definition of base substitu-
tion? D. People tend to forget to drink enough
water when they are in stressful situa-
A. A point mutation where one base pair tions which can make any diseases they
is switched to a different base pair. already have much worse.
B. A point mutation where one base pair
is added. 25. Gregor Mendel mixed different types of
peas to bring out their desirable traits.
C. A chromosome mutation where one This mixing to produce a better crop is
base pair is switched to a different base called:
pair.
A. Pollination.
D. none of above
B. Gene therapy.
23. Stem cells from a donor are cultured
C. Composting.
and then implanted into a person with
Alzheimer’s disease. Why is this proce- D. Selective breeding. (Hybridization)
dure most likely considered controversial?
26. Which category does the following biotech-
A. There are associated ethical and moral nology fall under?Using Roundup Ready
issues. cotton to improve cotton production on a
B. There is an insufficient supply of donor farm.
cells. A. Forensic
C. There is an increased risk of infection. B. Agricultural
D. The patient did not give consent. C. Medical
24. In the aftermath of a natural disaster, such D. Consumer Goods
as severe flooding or a major hurricane,
aid agencies make it a priority to bring 27. Which project is most likely to interest a
drinking water to the affected population scientist working at a biotechnology com-
immediately. Biotechnology-based tests pany?
and filters for clean water become espe- A. study and reconstruction of fossilized
cially useful after natural disasters.Why bones
is drinking water a priority if the flood or
B. conservation of key species within
hurricane has left huge amounts of water
ecosystems
behind?
A. Bringing water is a show of concern C. prevention of sewage leaking into wa-
and allows the aid agencies to get into after supplies
fected areas and assess the needs of the D. development of genetically modified
population. corn plants

28. Which of the following is not an agricul- B. Gel, Electricity, Meiosis and a Buffer
tural biotechnology? C. Scissors, Meiosis, a Microwave and
A. Using vaccines to prevent illness Agarose
among livestock. D. Gel, Electricity, a Buffer and DNA
B. Genetically modifying crops to be pest
32. Someone who is interested in pursuing a
resistant.
marketing career in the biotech industry
C. Genetically modifying crops to be should enjoy:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
drought resistant.
A. Working in a lab with various machines
D. Using a tractor to plow a field in prepa- B. Conducting pharmaceutical research
ration of planting a crop.
C. Caring for a variety of lab animals.
29. Great strides are being made in identify- D. Meeting and talking with people.
ing genetic markers for disease within the
human genome. Which of the following 33. Which aspect of agricultural biotechnology
would be considered an ethical misuse of most benefits farmers and society?
this information? A. increased crop yields (Testing soils)
A. hospitals using genetic information B. increased profits for the economy
about specific patients in order to develop
C. increased environmental science busi-
treatments for those individuals
ness among countries
B. individuals deciding not to have chil-
D. increased knowledge of diseases in ge-
dren based on the results of genetic test-
netically modified plants
ing showing they carry the allele for a fatal
disease 34. The only way to cure a genetic disease is
C. insurance companies refusing to in- to.
sure a person based on information they A. transplant affected tissue
required about the person’s genome indi- B. change the affected DNA sequence
cating a high risk for a certain disease
C. induce mutations in affected gene
D. doctors informing their patients that
D. remove the affected gene
they are likely to develop a debilitating
illness for which there is no treatment 35. Which North Carolina industry profits the
based on patient-requested genetic tests most from biotechnology advancements?
30. Issues that refer to people’s moral values A. textiles
or the code of conduct by which they live B. computer software
A. Social issues C. auto manufacturing
B. Legal issues D. medicine
C. Cultural issues 36. What percent of time is the procedure,
D. Ethical issues DNA microinjection, successful?
A. 3%
31. What are 4 components of gel elec-
trophoresis? B. 30%
A. Scissors, Electricity, a Buffer and a Mi- C. 60%
crowave D. 90%

37. If biotechnology is used to grow potatoes, 42. Amino acids are the building blocks of:
and the use of biotechnology increases A. Fats.
yield, then what would you expect would

happen to the potatoes? B. .Carbohydrates.
A. They would be resistant to pests. C. .Proteins.

D. .Neutrons.
B. They would be larger and more of
them. 43. Which best describes a potential economic
C. They would turn into cucumbers. benefit to the rural areas of North Car-
olina?
D. They would be low calorie.
A. Biotechnology can help farmers de-
38. Sewage plants collecting methane gas to velop disease resistant crops.
fuel generators or air compressors, is B. Biotechnology can help make the har-
which area of biotech? vesting process less efficient.
A. Agricultural Biotechnology C. Biotechnology can reduce the amount
B. Consumer Goods Biotechnology of time required to plant a crop in the field.
D. Biotechnology can help farmers adver-
C. Environmental Biotechnology
tise and sell their produce through the In-
D. Medical Biotechnology ternet.
39. Which of the following is true in regards 44. What is the most useful change biotechnol-
to gene therapy? We insert a ogy has made in agriculture?
A. Vaccine A. Crops need more water
B. Protein B. Crops need more nutrients
C. Gene C. Crops need more time to grow

D. Crops resist more diseases
D. Lipid
45. What technique is used for separating DNA
40. This is the outcome of the experiment. We fragments?
get data and results from this.
A. Gel electrophoresis
A. Independent Variable
B. Chromatography
B. Dependent Variable
C. Transformation
C. Control
D. Transduction
D. Constant
46. Cystic fibrosis results when patients in-
41. Corn with the Bt gene, is which area of herit two copies of a recessive CFTR gene.
biotech? The recessive CFTR genes produce a pro-
tein which causes mucus to build up in
A. Agricultural Biotechnology parts of the body. Having just one dom-
B. Medical Biotechnology inant CFTR gene allows the body to pro-
duce a normal protein. Individuals with
C. Consumer goods biotechnology
one dominant CFTR gene have no cystic fi-
D. Environmental Biotechnology brosis symptoms. Which question would

BEST help researchers identify a potential 51. The process by which water evaporates
treatment for cystic fibrosis? out of a leaf is called
A. Can recessive CFTR genes recombine A. Transpiration
with bacterial DNA to be cloned?
B. Absorption
B. Can a dominant CFTR gene be inserted
in patients’ cells using a virus? C. Transport
C. Can stem cells be used to change the D. Vascular tissue
recessive CFTR genes into dominant CFTR
NARAYAN CHANGDER
genes in patients’ cells?
52. Which best describes a controversial issue
D. Can DNA fingerprinting identify which associated with the use of genetically mod-
individuals have cystic fibrosis and which ified crops?
do not?
A. the use of genetically modified crops
47. A nasal spray flu vaccine, is which area of to increase potential yield
biotech?
B. the short term use of genetically mod-
A. Agricultural Biotechnology
ified crops in famine stricken countries
B. Consumer Goods Biotechnology
C. the development of genetically modi-
C. Environmental Biotechnology fied crops which are resistant to herbi-
D. Medical Biotechnology cides
48. What is recombinant DNA? (*hint think re- D. the long term effects which may arise
combining) from the use of genetically modified crops
A. DNA brought together from two
sources 53. Scientists have produced a genetically en-
gineered orange tree that is resistant to
B. Original Plasmid
disease. Which of the following is the best
C. DNA that restriction enzyme cuts example of a potential benefit to society
D. a cell with DNA that could result from this biotechnology?
49. Of the following, what event happened A. Reduction in orange crop yield
first?
B. A change in the distribution of insects
A. DNA fingerprinting was developed. that pollinate orange flowers
B. First test tube baby was born.
C. Increase in orange crop yield
C. Dolly the sheep was cloned.
D. Increase in the cost of orange crop
D. The Hippocratic Oath was created.
50. BT corn is a genetically modified organism, 54. An example of the benefits of transgenic
(GMO), that is a specific example of an in- animals is:
sect crop.
A. A cow that produces pork.
A. susceptible
B. A chicken that lays hard boiled eggs.
B. persistent
C. resistant C. Larger sheep that grow more wool.
D. none of above D. A pig that makes no waste.

55. When cloning an organism, DNA is re- A. the type of proteins in the organism’s
moved and placed into an empty nuclei

A. virus B. the sequence of nucleotides in the or-
ganism’s DNA
B. sperm cell
C. the number of ribosomes in the organ-
C. bacteria cell
ism’s cytoplasm
D. egg cell D. the size of the mitochondria
56. What have scientists been able to do as a 60. How does knowledge about human genet-
result of mapping the human genome (chro- ics best help doctors?
mosomes/DNA)?
A. Doctors can remove damaged genes
A. Create medicines to fight HIV. from a patient’s body.
B. Engineer genes to eliminate cancers. B. Doctors can change patients’ genes to
C. Identify genes linked with genetic dis- make them resistant to disease.
orders. C. Doctors can give patients new genes
to improve the health of their children.
D. none of above
D. Doctors can predict whether patients
57. How are scientists able to produce a type are at risk of developing a genetic dis-
of corn that will repel insects? ease.
A. by not spraying the corn plants 61. Which area of biotechnology is most likely
B. by soaking corn seeds in insect spray to create ethical problems?
C. by changing the genetics of the corn A. insulin production by bacteria
plants B. organ cloning
D. by altering the temperature of soil so C. genetic engineering to increase crop
the insects will die yields
D. forensic testing of crime scene evi-
dence
about the ethics of creating/designing liv-
ing organisms? 62. Why is DNA fingerprinting used?
A. We should never create a living organ- A. To determine who is the child’s father
ism even if we have the technology to do
B. Link suspects to a crime scene
so.
C. determine if a family relationship exist
B. We should consider the ethical con- between two people
cerns before we decide to create any liv-
ing organism. D. all of the above
C. We do not need to consider any ethical 63. A strawberry farmer finds that, after a
issues when we create living organisms. hard freeze, some of his strawberries are
still alive. Which best explains why some
D. We should create any living organism
of these strawberries were able to sur-
if we have the technology to do so.
vive?
59. The kinds of genes an organism possesses A. They had larger leaves to protect the
is dependent upon: fruit than some other strawberries.

B. They have different genetic variations B. Studying the rate of growth of algae
that cause them to be more resistant to
C. Adding fertilizer to crops
cold temperatures.
C. They are able to reproduce more D. Using a computer program to model
quickly than the others. the shape of a virus
D. The color of the strawberries is darker
68. What does DNA stand for?
and they maintain their temperature bet-
ter than the other strawberries. A. Deoxyribonucleic acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. Which describes a beneficial relationship B. Denitrogenous acid
between biotechnology and North Carolina C. Deribonucleic acid
farmers?
D. Diribonucleic acid
A. Improvements in biotechnology make
farming an obsolete profession.
69. What is an example of how biotechnology
B. Improvements in biotechnology help is used to improve health?
plants become more disease and insect
resistant, increasing farmers’ profits. A. DNA fingerprinting
C. Improvements in biotechnology create B. New fuels
crops that pose biological threats for con-
C. Bioremediation
sumers, hurting farmers’ profits.
D. Biotechnology research leads to a de- D. Development of vaccines
creasing need for traditional food sources
as more synthetic foods are created in lab- 70. Biotechnology uses a procedure called ge-
oratories. netic engineering. Which best describes ge-
netic engineering?
65. Which of the following terms describes the
fertilized egg? A. making artificial DNA in the laboratory
from chemicals
A. oocyte
B. cutting out pieces of DNA from an or-
B. zygote
ganism under a microscope
C. blastocyst
C. adding DNA from one organism into
D. somatic the DNA of another organism
66. Which career field would most likely be in- D. None of these options describe genetic
volved in the creation of transgenic organ- engineering
isms that produce insulin?
A. agriculture 71. Flu vaccine in the form of a nasal spray is
an example of:
B. medicine
C. manufacturing A. Agricultural biotechnology.
D. none of above B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
ogy.
biotechnology? C. Environmental biotechnology.
A. Using yeast to ferment food D. Medical biotechnology

72. Gene therapy is when: B. It has decreased the amount of plants

A. A person’s genes are edited that die due to drought.

B. New genes are added to a person’s C. It has decreased the amount of plants
genome that can be grown in an area.
C. Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the D. It has increased plants’ ability to fight
human genome off pests and reduced the need for pesti-
cides.
D. Stem cells are used to cure a disease
77. Of the following, what happened first in
73. Which would a person who pursues a ca-
the field of genetics?
reer in bioinformatics study?
A. Cloning sheep
A. ways DNA stores information
B. ways of cross-breeding plants B. Mendel’s peas
C. ways of cross-breeding animals C. DNA fingerprinting
D. ways of storing and retrieving biologi- D. Gene therapy

cal data
78. When we cut a gene out of a strand of
74. What is most likely the greatest economic DNA and paste it into another strand of
benefit for North Carolina from biotechnol- DNA, we have:
ogy? A. Ribosomes.
A. improvements in DNA testing leading B. Message DNA or RNA.
to more arrests
C. Lycopene.
B. fewer people who use laboratory-
created human insulin D. Recombinant DNA.
C. increased disease-resistant crops and 79. This is a procedure that allows scientists
greater crop yields to make more copies of DNA in a short
D. none of above amount of time.
75. How is recombinant DNA made? A. DNA replication
A. by joining DNA molecules with RNA B. DNA synthesis

molecules C. Gel electrophoresis
B. by joining DNA molecules from two dif- D. PCR
ferent species
C. by joining DNA molecules with pro- 80. Using methane (natural gas)-producing
teins from a different species bacteria to heat homes in third-world coun-
tries an example of:
D. none of above
A. Agricultural biotechnology.
76. Which least describes how biotechnology
B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
has increased crop production in North Car-
ogy.
olina?
C. Environmental biotechnology.
A. It has increased the growth rate of
plants. D. Medical biotechnology

81. What is a product of the biotechnology in- C. producing cells from nonliving mate-
dustry? rial
A. paper D. preventing weeds from spreading to
B. plastics farmland
C. computers 86. When separated on an agarose gel, DNA
D. medicines fragments can be visualized after staining
with?
82. Which scientific field is responsible for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
developing vaccinations against infectious A. Acetocarmine
diseases? B. Aniline blue
A. Kinesiology C. Ethidium bromide
B. Cardiology D. Bromophenol blue
C. Biotechnology
87. How can agricultural biotechnology have a
D. Endotology
positive impact on the environment?
83. Natural genetic engineer is A. By developing crops that are pest re-
A. Meloidegyne incognitia sistant requiring fewer pesticides to be
B. Agrobacterium tumificians used.
C. Bacillus thuriengiensis B. planting crops in shaded areas.

D. Thermus aquiticus C. Harvesting crops that have thick stems
and leaves.
84. The Human Genome Project began in 1989
D. water crops with a recycled irrigation
with the purpose of identifying the thou-
system.
sands of genes of the human genome. The
first draft of the genome was released in 88. The Human Genome Project that locates
2000 and was completed in 2003. Which and identifies every gene in the human
of the following describes the main benefit body and what it does an example of:
of mapping the human genome?
A. Agricultural biotechnology.
A. the ability to clone humans
B. the abiloty to design new human genes
ogy.
C. the ability to easily identify genetically-
based diseases C. Environmental biotechnology.
D. the ability to patent specific human D. Medical biotechnology.
genes
89. In 1987 this famous surgeon was the first
85. Genetic engineering is the modification to successfully separate Siamese twins
of the characteristics of an organism by joined at the head
manipulating its genetic material/DNA. A. Dr. Norman Borlaug
Which is an application of genetic engineer-
ing? B. Dr Ben Carson
A. destroying all bacteria C. Dr. Jenner
B. creating synthetic insulin D. Dr. Ian Wilmut.

90. Which is a way agricultural biotechnology 94. Which of the following is not a benefit of
can have a positive impact? GMO food?

A. making robots to replace farm ma- A. herbicide tolerance
chines B. disease resistance against fungus in-
B. producing crops that are virus resis- fections
tant
C. gene transfer to other species
C. increasing the use of wind farms that
D. longer shelf life
make electricity
D. none of above 95. Which modifications would help to impact
hunger?
91. What is a fermented alcohol made from
the sugar found in corn? A. breeding transgenic sheep to produce
better wool
A. Oxygen
B. genetically modifying crops to in-
B. Hydrogen
crease nutritional value
C. Acetone
C. genetically modifying goats to produce
D. Ethanol human clotting factors
92. DNA that contains genes from more than D. none of above
one organism.
96. uses biotechnology to improve the
A. replicated products consumers buy and use each day.
B. transgenic or recombinant A. Medical Biotechnology
C. transcribed
B. Agricultural Biotechnology
D. transposed
93. Bioremediation is an application of biotech- D. Consumer goods biotechnology
nology designed to use microbes to clean
up polluted water and soil. Which best 97. A technology in which the genome of a liv-
describes a potential economic benefit of ing cell is modified for medical or industrial
using bioremediation in a North Carolina use.
coastal town experiencing the effects of A. Biotechnology
an oil spill?
B. Genetic engineering
A. The cost of purified drinking water will
increase, creating additional revenue for C. Clone
the town. D. Artificial selection
B. The oil from the spill will be recovered
98. Which is a hypothesis a scientist could test
in the bioremediation process and can be
using principles of biotechnology?
used as fuel.
C. Large treatment facilities for bioreme- A. How long can a wheat plant live with-
diation process will be built in the town, out water?
creating new jobs. B. What are the effects of extreme cold
D. Water and land areas will be cleaned on wheat plants?
of oil, encouraging tourists to continue to C. Can wheat be genetically modified to
visit the town. be resistant to mold?

D. Which variety of wheat tastes best 104. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in-
when made into pasta? vented the technique of DNA cloning and
are responsible for the:
99. What is an example of a life form used in
industrial biotechnology? A. Separation of Siamese twins.
A. Android B. Methods used today to kill microbes in

milk.
B. Bacteria
C. Human Genome Project.
C. Proton
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Biotechnology revolution.
D. Oil
105. In most biotech careers, what rule should
100. Human insulin is being commercially pro-
females follow when it comes to wearing
duced from a transgenic species of
makeup?
A. Rhizobium
A. The more makeup a person wears, the
B. Eschericha prettier she will be.
C. mycobacterium B. Makeup can be used to create a natu-
D. saccharomyces ral appearance.
C. Biotech workers should never wear
101. In order for scientists to clone a sheep
makeup.
they must extract what from a cell?
D. The appearance of biotech workers is
A. cytoplasm
notimportant.
B. cell wall
C. DNA 106. What is an application of genetic engi-
neering?
D. ribosomes
A. destroying all bacteria
102. Human growth hormone to counteract B. creating synthetic (fake) insulin
dwarfism.
C. producing cells from non-living mate-
A. Agriculture
rial
B. Industry
D. preventing weeds from spreading to
C. Environment farmland
D. Medicine
107. How can the use of genetics help law en-
103. In order to create corn with larger ears forcement agencies?
through artificial selection, A. It can help undercover agents disguise
A. the smallest ears need to be used for themselves.
next years crop, B. It can help identify who was at the
B. the medium sized ears need to be used scene of a crime.
for next years crop. C. It can help determine who might be a
C. the largest ears need to be used for victim of future crimes.
next years crop. D. It can help determine who is most
D. none of above likely to become a criminal.

108. Instead of using chemicals to destroy 112. What is most likely the greatest eco-
some insects, scientist are now able to nomic benefit for NC from biotech?
produce a type of corn that will repel in-

A. Improvements in DNA testing leading
sects. How are scientists able to produce to more arrests
this type of corn?
B. fewer people who use laboratory cre-
A. by not spraying the corn plants ated human insulin
B. by soaking corn seeds in insect spray C. increased disease resistant crops and
C. by changing the genetics of the corn greater crop yields
plants D. none of above
D. by using popcorn to change the corn 113. Combining biotechnology and animals re-
sults in advances in what areas?
109. Which is a product of biotechnology?
A. Improved animal and human health
A. video surveillance camera
B. Sales and marketing
B. soil-eating bacteria
C. Less expense and more animals
C. electronic communications devices
D. Ethical and legal concerns
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
114. Which of the below biotechnological ad-
110. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al- vances is MOST beneficial to Florida FARM-
lows researchers to do which of the fol- ERS?
lowing? A. Development of disease resistant
A. identify similarities and differences in plants for higher yields
the genomes of different kinds of organ- B. Development of more effective human
isms. vaccines
B. determine whether a particular allele C. The ability to create more antibiotics
of a gene is dominant or recessive. from bacteria
C. compare the phenotypes of different D. Producing enzymes to eliminate pollu-
organisms. tants
D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes. 115. In what decade was DNA discovered?
111. Some dairy farmers refuse to inject their A. 1950s

cows with recombinant BST, even through B. 1970s
it might make their cows give more milk. C. 1980s
Why would they refuse?
D. 1990s
A. The milk might be unhealthy
116. Using biotechnology to change the ge-
B. The use of recombinant BST is illegal
netic makeup of an organism is called
C. The use would drive down the cost of A. Tissue Culturing
milk
B. Biotechnology
D. Because they are completely unin-
formed about current uses of biotechnol- C. Cloning
ogy D. Genetic Engineering

117. Virus with RNA genome is B. Hybrid

A. bacteriophage C. Transgenic
B. baculovirus D. Freaky
C. retrovirus 122. What is the oldest form of biotechnol-
D. cyanophages ogy?
118. Why do farmers choose to use GM crops
B. GMOs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rather than regular crops?
A. They are safer C. gene therapy
B. They are more productive
C. They are less expensive 123. North Carolina regulations prevent the
destruction of wetlands immediately adja-
D. They are less controversial
cent to large bodies of water. What is one
119. Which of these is a problem without hav- reason it is important to protect these wet-
ing the pasteurization of milk? land areas from development?
A. Diabetes A. Wetland areas contain naturally toxic
water and should not be disturbed.
B. Smallpox
B. Wetland areas that lose vegetation re-
C. Food-borne illness duce the evaporation rate and raise the
D. none of above water table.
C. Wetland areas act as buffers, filter-
120. Rice is a staple food source for much
ing out non-point source pollutants such
of the world’s population. At present,
as nitrogen- and phosphorous-containing
there is a limited region in which rice can
substances
be grown successfully, and if world cli-
mates change as scientists predict, the rice- D. Wetland areas that are developed re-
growing region will become even more lim- duce sedimentation, preventing the devel-
ited. Which of the following is the most opment of deltaic systems.
likely way in which biotechnology could be 124. What are Herbicide Resistant Crops?
employed to keep rice harvests from de-
clining? A. genetically modified seeds that allows
weed to grow near it
A. identifying new areas with soil fertile
enough for rice production B. genetically modified seeds that are re-
sistant to weed killer
B. developing clean energy sources to re-
C. genetically modified seeds that grow
duce CO2 production worldwide
super fast
C. seeding clouds with dry ice to produce
D. genetically modified seeds that are re-
more rainfall where it is needed
sistant to lack of rain
D. genetically engineering rice crops that
can grow well in warmer climates 125. In the article “Herman Becomes a Fa-
ther”, how did scientists get Herman to
121. Organisms that contain genes from differ- carry the human gene for lactoferrin?
ent species are called organisms. A. The gene was added in vitro when Her-
A. Blended man was an embryo.

B. When Herman was a calf, they fed him 130. What is genetic engineering?
with human milk containing lactoferrin. A. Manipulation/addition of genes

C. They did a bone marrow transplant B. Naturally breeding two animals with
with human marrow. desired traits
D. The gene was injected into the nucleus C. Cross-pollinating two crops
of his brain cells.
D. Harvesting stem cells
126. Scientists implant a gene into a species of 131. What is involved in creating genetically
tomato plant that makes them ripen faster modified bacteria?
and stay firm as they are transported to
A. allowing them to reproduce freely
stores. What is the benefit of this technol-
ogy? B. allowing them to reproduce freely
A. Increased toxins in the food. C. using biotechnology techniques
B. Increase shelf life and availablity. D. growing them on selected plants
C. Decreased size of tomatoes. 132. Antibiotics are prescribed to

D. Increased seed production A. kill bacteria.
B. breed bacteria.
127. How can biotechnology affect agriculture
C. work as vaccines.
on a single plot of land?
D. assist in PCR.
A. The land could produce more food than
before. 133. When scientists combine different plants
B. The land could produce several har- in an attempt to grow a plant with the best
vests at once. traits from both parents, the new plant is
called a(an):
C. The land could require more fertilizer
A. Hybrid
for crops to grow.
B. Clone
D. The land could require moderate tem-
peratures for crops to grow. C. Variation
D. Pistil
128. What is the charge of DNA?
134. Which career is found at a customer loca-
A. positive tion, planting, cultivating, and harvesting,
B. negative plants?
C. neutral A. Agricultural equipment operator
D. none of above B. Nursery worker
C. First line supervisor
129. Genome is
D. General farmworker:
A. RNA
135. What substance in flowers attracts bees
B. Genetic makeup and butterflies?
C. a step in PCR A. Embryo
D. used to help restriction enzymes B. Periosteum

C. Carbon dioxide C. 1970s

D. Nectar D. 1990s
136. Genetic engineering is used for all the fol- 141. The type of Supervised Agricultural Expe-
lowing EXCEPT rience Jessica has if she raised her own
beef cattle is:
A. Medicine
A. Analytical
B. Farming
B. Entrepreneurship
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Agriculture
C. Exploratory
D. Machinery D. Placement
137. Microbes that can clean up waste water 142. What type Supervised Agricultural Expe-
before it enters streams and lakes are an rience does John have if he has a part-time
example of: job working on a poultry farm?
A. Agricultural biotechnology. A. Anaytical
B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol- B. Entrepreneurship
ogy. C. Experimental
C. Environmental biotechnology. D. Placement
D. Medical biotechnology 143. Restriction Enzymes are isolated from:
138. Which describes a way scientists use A. .Protozoa
biotechnology in the field of agriculture? B. . Bacteria
A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi- C. .Virus
nals D. .Fungi
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be
144. Sandra is a 30-year-old woman. Af-
more nutritious
ter medical images and blood tests, San-
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live dra’s mother has just been diagnosed with
longer breast cancer. Her mother’s mother died
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil of breast cancer several years ago. Should
spills Sandra be concerned that she might be at
higher risk for breast cancer herself?
139. What is the purpose of the polyethylene A. Yes. Some forms of breast cancer
glycol method? have been linked to a gene mutation which
A. biodiesel production she may have inherited from her mother’s
B. energy production from sewage side of the family.
B. Yes. While there does not seem to be
C. gene transfer without a vector
a genetic link with breast cancer, she has
D. seedless fruit production been exposed to the same environmental
factors as the rest of her family.
140. In what decade was Dolly the sheep
cloned? C. No. The causes of breast cancer have
not been completely identified so she is
A. 1930s probably at no greater risk than any other
B. 1950s woman in the population.

D. No. Detection of and treatments for 150. What does transgenic mean?
breast cancer have improved so dramat- A. An organism that can change its genes
ically in recent years that it is unlikely she

at will
would develop breast cancer.
B. A stem cell that can differentiate into
145. The linking of antibodies resistance gene anything
with plasmid vector became possible with C. An organism that has had another
A. DNA ligase species’ DNA put in it
B. Exonucleases D. A bacteria that reproduces asexually
C. endonucleases
151. In what way is biotechnology useful to
D. DNA polymerase law enforcement agencies such as the po-
lice or FBI?
146. Restriction Enzymes
A. It can help identify who was present at
A. cut DNA at precise locations the scene of a crime.
B. help bacteria to pick up DNA
B. It can help undercover officers dis-
C. move DNA through a gel guise themselves.
D. copy DNA C. It might help determine who might be
the victime of a future crime.
147. crystal contain toxic
D. It can help determine who is most
A. protein likely to become a criminal in the future.
B. carbohydrate
152. A genome is
C. fats
A. part of a chromosome
D. nucleic acids
B. a gene inserted into a chromosome of
148. Which is an example of scientists using bacteria
biotechnology to benefit aquaculture?
C. a sequence of units in a short segment
A. creating pest-resistant crops of DNA
B. making new forms of human antibi- D. the complete sequence of an organ-
otics ism’s DNA
C. developing a rot-resistant gene for
153. Environmental biotechnology involves
trees
the use of science to clean up:
D. producing a faster-growing salmon
A. Pollution
species
B. Space waste.
149. Which of these careers would a student
C. Hands and lower arms.
studying biotechnology most likely have
for a job? D. The language in biotech publications.
A. electrical engineering 154. Insect resistant crops are crops that are
B. electrician modified to produce their own
C. geology A. genetic variation
D. agricultural research B. acids

C. insecticides C. It will engineer a gene to help adults

D. poison lose weight.
D. none of above
155. Which surgery is most like the way a
transgenic organism in made? 160. How has genetic modification most likely
affected the safety and availability of
A. John receives a replacement heart
fruits and vegetables?
valve from a cow.
A. It has decreased the safety and avail-
B. Ann receives an artificial hip to ease
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ability of fruits and vegetables.
her arthritis.
B. It has increased the safety and avail-
C. Jack receives a kidney donated by her
identical twin.
C. It has decreased the safety of food,
D. Anita receives a pacemaker to regu-
but increased the availability of fruits and
late her heartbeat.
vegetables.
156. Sillage contains protein, oil and water D. It has increased the safety of food,
and can be used as: but decreased the availability of fruits and
A. An industrial antiseptic. vegetables.
B. Animal feed. 161. In the fall of the year, the days get
shorter and trees change colors. Why do
C. A gasoline substitute.
leaves change their colors?
D. Hair gel.
A. Because they dry up.
157. Which would be considered a somatic B. They stop making chlorophyll.
cell?
C. They become coated with colorful al-
A. Sperm cell gae.
B. Egg Cell D. The air temperature causes the color
C. Skin Cell change
D. All of these 162. What do graders and sorters of agricul-

turalproducts do?
158. What plant substance turns plants green
and helps the plant capture light? A. Transport, house, and provide meals
forworkers
A. Eosinophil
B. Crop baling, husking, shelling, thresh-
B. Chlorophyll ing, and ginning
C. Slime C. Grade, sort, or classify unprocessed
D. Pollen food
D. Conduct research in production, and
159. How can biotechnology deal with over- yield of plants or crops
population of the Earth?
A. It will slow down the growth rate in hu- 163. Which is a potential ethical issue result-
mans ing from the use of biotechnology?
B. It will allow us to mass produce food A. harming the ozone layer

to provide more food at a quicker rate. B. causing global warming

C. increasing pollution of natural re- 168. Which is the most likely result of having a
sources large number of biotechnology companies
located in North Carolina?

D. introducing a genetically-altered
species A. decrease in available jobs
B. improvement in crop yields
164. Modern biotechnology continues to use
the basic research developed in the early C. increase in antibiotic resistance
1800s by: D. decrease in vaccine effectiveness
A. Hippocrates. 169. Animal biotechnology can be useful to hu-
B. Jonas Salk. mans through xenotransplantation, which
involves:
C. Francis Crick.
A. Fertilizing animals in such a way that
D. Gregor Mendel.
they have multiple births.
165. Which part of the plant captures light en- B. Growing human proteins, such as in-
ergy used in photosynthesis? sulin, in animals.
A. guard cells C. Using animal genes in humans to im-
prove human resistance to disease.
B. chloroplast
D. Using animal organs in human trans-
C. roots
plants.
D. mitochondria
170. What is the benefit to society of using
166. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been de- Ethanol instead of regular gasoline?
signed for A. Less expensive to produce
A. Purification of the product B. Reduces carbon monoxideemissions
B. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the to 25%
culture vessel C. It is makes cars run faster
C. availability of oxygen throughout the D. It is inflammable
process
171. What biotechnology allows a researcher
D. Addition of preservatives to the prod- to make thousands of copies of a DNA
uct 5% strand?
167. Which is a project that a scientist would A. Cloning
most likely work on at a biotechnology B. PCR
company? C. gene therapy
A. study and reconstruction of fossilized D. gel electrophoresis
bones
172. Who was the first adult mammal success-
B. conservation of key species within
fully cloned?
ecosystems
A. Dolly the Sheep
C. prevention of sewage leaking into wa-
ter supplies B. Copy Cat the Cat
D. development of genetically modified C. Double Donald the Duck
corn plants D. Agouti Gout the Mouse

173. uses biotechnology to help reduce our 175. When we refer to a “G.M.O.” we are
negative impact on the environment. talking about
A. Agricultural Biotechnology A. Guaranteed micro-organism
B. Consumer Goods Biotechnology B. Gigantic money organization
C. Genetically modified organism
D. none of above
D. Medical Biotechnology
176. What type of science allows us to alter
NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. Improvements in biotechnology have the DNA of a corn plant so that it will con-
helped advance the fields of medicine, tain more protein?
agriculture, and forensics. Many people A. biology
are concerned with the ethical limits that
B. biotechnology
should be placed on much of the research
for future advances. An example can be C. geology
seen when discussing the human cloning. D. physiology
There are two types of cloning, reproduc-
tive and therapeutic:Reproductive Cloning 177. How many independent variables should
Creating a genetically identical embryo of be tested at a time in a scientific investi-
the donor by inserting their DNA into an gation?
egg and then inserting the embryo into a A. none
surrogate’s uterus to grow and develop B. one
leading to a new individual. Therapeutic
Cloning Creating a genetically identical em- C. two
bryo of the donor by inserting their DNA D. three
into an egg and growing it in a petri dish
178. How does biotechnology most likely af-
in a lab to be used as a source of em-
fect North Carolina’s population?
bryonic stem cells. Reproductive cloning
is considered unethical and there are laws A. Jobs are created and attract more peo-
preventing it. However, human thera- ple to the area.
peutic cloning is not considered as uneth- B. Research advancement causes people
ical. Which of the following questions is a in need of medicines to moveto the area.
likely to address the difference of opinion C. People are not concerned with biotech-
in many people concerning cloning? nology so the overall populationis not im-
A. Should embryos be destroyed in the pacted.
process of therapeutic cloning? D. The issue causes controversy and peo-
B. Is cloning beneficial to produce stem ple hesitate to live in a statewhere a large
cells that lead to medical benefits for amount of research takes place.
many? 179. How does North Carolina’s economy di-
C. Is producing only stems cells by rectly benefit from a growing biotechnol-
cloning a different initial procedure than ogy field?
reproductive cloning? A. Technological advances make jobs eas-
D. Are cloned cells that are not of human ier.
DNA able to become human after it is in- B. Population size in urban areas is in-
serted into a uterus? creased.

C. Advancements in medicine improve 184. The process of making changes in the

overall health. DNA code of a living organism is called

D. More jobs are available to citizens A. selective breeding
across the state. B. genetic engineering
180. Xylem and phloem are examples of what C. inbreeding

tissue type? D. hybridization
A. Vascular tissue 185. What agricultural worker would drive
B. Root tissue and control farm equipment to produce
crops?
C. Dermal tissue
A. Agricultural inspectors
D. Ground tissue B. Agricultural equipment operators
181. Contact lens solutions contain enzymes C. Animal breeders
to break down proteins that build up on D. Farm labor contractors
lenses.
186. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al-
A. Agriculture lows researchers to
B. Industry A. identify similarities and differences in
C. Environmenmt the genomes of different kinds of organ-
isms
D. Medicine
B. determine whether a particular allele
182. Scientists in North Carolina are working of a gene is dominant or recessive
to create liquid fuels from organic matter. C. compare the phenotypes of different
What effect will this discovery most likely organisms
have on careers in the state? D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes
A. It will reduce or eliminate jobs in
187. In what way did gene therapy, the re-
waste management.
placement of a faulty gene with a normal
B. It will create more jobs in the pharma- one, stimulate medical research?
ceutical industry. A. New medications had to be developed
C. It will create more jobs in energy pro- and tested.
duction. B. The effects of viral DNA had to be stud-
D. It will reduce or eliminate the number ied.
of engineering jobs. C. The way in which DNA replicates had
to be determined.
183. Microbes are capable of cleaning up fuel
D. The genes on each chromosome had to
spills from gas stations.
be mapped and described.
A. Agriculture
188. Using amino acids from microbes to make
B. Industry Equal sweetener is which area of biotech?
C. Environment A. Consumer Goods Biotechnology
D. Medicine B. Medical Biotechnology

C. Environmental Biotechnology 194. Which of the following microorganisms

D. Environmental Biotechnology help in the ethanol production?
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
189. Gene therapy is successful if the
B. Zygomonas mobilis
A. DNA can be placed in a virus
C. Saccharomyces uvarum
B. Virus carrying the gene can insert it
into DNA D. All of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. New gene is expressed as a protein 195. Which area of biotechnology would cre-
D. New gene is replicated in DNA ate ethical issues within human society?
A. insulin produced by bacteria
190. The physical traits of an organism that
can be observed is: B. organ cloning for use in transplants
A. genotype C. genetic engineering to improve agri-

cultural yields
B. phenotype
D. DNA and forensic testing of crime
C. chromosomes scene evidence
D. DNA
196. A DNA fingerprint is
191. Using methane-producing bacteria to A. unique sequence of repeating units in
heat homes in third-world countries is a section of DNA
which type of biotech?
B. a gene inserted into a bcteril chromo-
A. Medical Biotechnology some
B. Environmental Biotechnology C. the complete sequence of an organ-
C. Consumer Goods biotechnology ism’s DNA
D. Agricultural Biotechnology D. a copy of a chromosome
192. What is a transgene? 197. In 1973 Stanley Cohen and Herbert

Boyer perform the first successful recombi-
A. A mutant chromosome
nant DNA experiment using bacterial cells.
B. A gene that is different as a result of
A. Separation of Siamese twins.
genetic engineering
B. Methods used today to kill microbes in
C. The offspring of a genetically engi-
milk.
neered animal
C. Human Genome Project.
D. A gene that does not carry any traits
D. Biotechnology revolution.
193. Which process uses a body cell to create
a new organism? 198. Asexual plant reproduction requires:
A. crossbreeding A. Only one organism.
B. cloning B. A male and a female.
C. genetic modification C. A clone.
D. gene splicing D. A pistil and a stamen.

199. PST Hormone injected into pigs to help in- 204. The fermentor can be sterilized by
crease the muscle and decrease the fat. A. Keeping it in the oven

A. Agriculture B. Steam under pressure
B. Industry C. Boiling
C. Environment D. All of these
D. Medicine
205. What naturally occurring soil bacterium is
200. A phenotype is the observable character- a protein that wards off the European corn
istic of an organism. The phenotype of a borer?
laboratory animal can be determined by A. Carotene
looking at:
B. Lycopene
A. A blood sample.
C. Hepatitis B
B. A genome.
D. Bt
C. A picture
206. Several years ago, some crop plants
D. The DNA. were genetically modified to be immune
201. The corn that we eat today to the effects of glyphosate, a weed killer
that worked well on weeds. As a result,
A. was created through selective breed- the crop could be sprayed with glyphosate,
ing of the teosinte plant. and the weeds would be killed, but the
B. was created by natural selection of the crop would survive. From an ecological
teosinte plant. point of view, which of the following is
most important to determine prior to plant-
C. has not changed in thousands of years.
ing the resistant crop in farm fields?
D. none of these
A. What effect does the presence of
202. What would be a direct benefit of biotech- glyphosate-resistant crops have on insect
nology to agriculture in a time of severe populations in adjacent fields?
drought? B. Is it possible for the gene for resis-
A. Planting crops in shaded areas. tance to glyphosate to pass from the crop
plants to weeds under natural conditions?
B. Genetically modifying crops to be re-
sistant to changes in weather C. Does the genetically modified crop pro-
duce yields that are better in quality and
C. Harvesting crops to have thick stems quantity than those of unmodified vari-
and leaves. eties?
D. none of above D. Is the gene for resistance stable
enough in the crop plant that it will be
203. An example of biotechnology used in agri-
passed to the next generation when the
culture is
crop plant reproduces?
A. cloning
207. A particular plant was made using genetic
B. embryo transfer engineering. What do you know about
C. transgenic crops that plant?
D. all the above A. The genetic makeup was changed.

B. It is an artificial plant. C. The crops produced do not taste very

C. It cannot be eaten. good.
D. It increases daily crop production.
D. It was developed for feeding cattle.
213. Plasmids, yeast, and viruses are known
208. Which career may need a know of ar-
as
tificial insemination techniques and equip-
ment use? A. restriction enzymes
A. Nursery workers B. vectors
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. genetically modified organisms
B. Agricultural equipment operators
D. bacteria
C. Animal breeders
D. Farm labor contractors 214. DNA technology is being used to develop
crop plants that are
209. It is the transfer of genetic material for A. less toxic to the pests that normally
the purpose of treating human disease. feed on them
A. chemotherapy B. more susceptible to herbicides
B. gene therapy C. unable to fix nitrogen in the atmo-
C. gene transfer sphere
D. gene editing D. resistant to some diseases
215. What is the purpose of gel electrophore-
210. genetic manipulation of living organisms
sis?
for human needs.
A. helps cut DNA
A. biotechnology
B. count the genes in DNA
B. biomanipulation
C. separates DNA based on size
C. bioaccumulation
D. allows for an exact replicated organ-
D. genetic technology ism
211. Which is an agricultural benefit of 216. All of the following are modern biotech-
biotechnology for farmers in North Car- nology tools except
olina? A. proteins
A. Cost of fuel B. cells
B. Smaller vegetables C. DNA
C. Longer lasting vegetables D. crystals
D. There are no benefits 217. A company that creates hair dye would
212. Genetically engineered crops are cur- most likely employ a bio-technician for
rently being grown by many farmers. which job?
What would be an argument AGAINST A. researching trends
them? B. developing new colors
A. It produces insect-resistant plants. C. creating cost effective packaging
B. Its long-term effects on humans are D. developing a product that will be safe
still being investigated. for consumers

218. Tomatoes are genetically modified to 222. About one-sixth of the world’s popula-
have a longer shelf-life. Which best de- tion does not have access to clean drink-
scribes a concern people have with eating ing water. Biotechnology-based tests and

GM tomatoes? filters for drinking water are being devel-
oped to help alleviate this problem. What
A. GM tomatoes do not taste as good as
is the most direct effect of the lack of clean
organic
drinking water on this portion of our pop-
B. GM tomatoes are more expensive ulation?
C. the DNA used to modify the tomatoes A. Lack of clean water can lead to an in-
could change the DNA of the person eat- crease in poverty and malnutrition.
ing the tomato B. Crops grown with unsanitary water
D. GM tomatoes ripen and rot more will likely spread disease when eaten.
quickly C. The risk of contracting water-borne
diseases, such as cholera, increases.
219. Why could gene therapy be beneficial in
D. Without access to clean water, the risk
medicinal practice?
of dehydration, increases.
A. Gene therapy allows patients to seek
advice for their genetic disorders 223. One example of biotechnology is the pro-
cess of making fuel from
B. Gene therapy treats the cause of dis-
A. Oil Spills
ease
B. Corn
C. Gene therapy is a simple process
C. Steam Cells
D. none of above
D. Cheese
220. growing human tissue and organs in a 224. When an organism is changed or altered
laboratory from its original form it is a:
A. Gene Therapy A. Mutant.
B. Bioremediation B. Chromosome.
C. Tissue Culturing C. Phenotype.
D. Protein.
D. Cloning
225. In which area would biotechnology have
221. Which of the following is not an example the greatest effect on agriculture?
of a use of biotechnology?
A. development of biological weapons
A. Identifying the father of a child by com-
B. development of biopharmaceuticals
paring DNA
C. development of biological pesticides
B. Growing a kidney for transplant in a
lab D. development of biodegradable plastics
C. Injecting stem cells into an injury to 226. The male part of the flower is known as
speed up recovery the
D. Identifying the sex of a child using a A. stamen

sonogram B. pistil

C. ovary 232. Which of these fields has a laboratory

D. petal use for transgenic animals for medicine?
A. environmental research
227. Which agricultural benefit can biotechnol-
ogy provide? B. energy development
A. developing plants that are less depen- C. biomedical research
dent on the sun for energy
D. none of above
B. developing plants that are less suscep-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tible to being eaten by insects 233. What plant is an example of a tuber?
C. developing plants with inheritable A. Spider plant
traits unrelated to the genetic material
they contain B. Geranium
D. developing plants that will not die C. Irish potato
228. Which of the following is the introduction D. Onion

of genes into existing cells to prevent or
cure a wide range of diseases? 234. Which use of recombinant DNA provides
a medical benefit to humans?
A. Gene Therapy
A. E. coli engineered to produce insulin
B. Genetic Engineering
C. Transgenic Changes B. heat resistance engineered into crops
D. Hybridization C. drought resistance engineered into

crops
229. Why is protein an important part of a
D. none of above
healthy diet?
A. It is needed to change glucose to en- 235. Which category does the following
ergy. biotechnology fall under?Fingerprints
B. It is needed to store nutrients. were found at a crime scene and show
a criminal was present during a crime.
C. It is needed to repair tissue.
D. It is needed to produce water. A. Forensic
B. Agricultural
230. In 2001, President Bush decided to per-
mit federal funding for research using: C. Environmental
A. Existing stem cell lines. D. Consumer Goods
B. Human insulin.
236. What benefit will transgenic cow?s milk
C. Rabies vaccines. LIKELY have?
D. DNA fingerprinting.
A. It will contain Vitamin D.
231. Is BT corn harmful to human health? B. Diseases such as PKU and cystic fibro-
A. No, it is not. sis can be treated.
B. Yes, it is. C. It will contain no calories.
C. We aren’t sure yet. D. No refrigeration will be needed be-
D. none of above cause it never spoils.

237. Gene therapy is being looked into as a A. Selective Breeding

possible treatment for B. Test Cross

A. genetic diseases C. Recombinant DNA
B. contagious diseases D. Transgenic Organsim
C. infectious diseases
242. How does selective breeding work?
D. viruses
A. A gene from one organism is inserted
238. Which of these is an example of Biotech- into the genome of another organism us-
nology? ing sticky ends.
A. using vaccines to prevent the spread B. Organisms with a desirable trait are
of disease. breed together until offspring show im-
proved trait
B. using bioindicators to monitor the wa-
ter qualilty. C. Gene are silenced by harnessing our
bodies natural defense system against
C. using fossils to study how Earth’s or-
viruses.
ganisms have changed.
D. An organism is reproduced by remov-
D. using genetically modified bacteria to ing the nucleus from one of its cells and
make human insulin. inserting that nucleus into an egg, which
239. What statement about bioremediation is then develops in a surrogates womb.
and bacteria is true? 243. Many plants prevent the growth of other
A. All bacteria are helpful tohumans competing plants in their habitats by re-
B. All bacteria are harmful tohumans leasing natural herbicides. These sub-
stances are known as allelochemicals. Al-
C. Some bacteria are harmfuland some lelochemicals can alter growth and enzyme
are helpful to humans action, injure the outer covering of a seed,
D. Most bacteria are neitherharmful nor or stimulate seed growth at inappropri-
helpful to humans ate times of the year. How could people
create biotechnology that uses allelochem-
240. Megan has multiple piercings. How icals to improve the yield of agricultural
would this affect her ability to work in a crops?
health care?
A. The chemicals could be used as a bio-
A. Health care settings would allow her logical weed control.
to wear piercings
B. The chemicals could be used to encour-
B. Health care facilities will NOT permit age cross-pollination.
her to wear piercings
C. The chemicals could be used to stimu-
C. Facilities cannot regulate what a per- late crop growth year round.
son wears to work
D. The chemicals could be used as a nat-
D. Health care doesn’t have rules about ural plant fertilizer.
wearing piercings
244. Where in the Supervised Agricultural Ex-
241. Directed breeding to produce plants and perience records should “observing and
animals with desired traits. Also known helping a veterinarian for one day” be en-
as Artificial Selection tered?

A. Analytical B. Hazardous material.

B. Experimental C. Dirty instruments.
C. Exploratory D. Viral infections.
D. Improvement 250. Why are thermophilic bacteria used in the
biomining of gold?
245. In 1982, Humulin was produced by
Genentech. What is significant about Hu- A. They work in high temperatures
mulin? B. They work without oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. It was the first vaccine developed C. They are inexpensive toproduce
B. It was the first antibiotic developed D. They work in California
C. It was the first biotech drug approved 251. What kind of genetically modified crops
by the FDA would be most successful in wet-tropical
D. It was the first approved biotech treat- countries that are overcrowded?
ment for AIDS A. crops that are drought- and pest-
resistant
246. A transgenic crop is a plant that has
genes from a different artificially in- B. high-yield crops that do not need a lot
serted into its genome of sunshine
C. high-yield crops that are pest-
A. species
resistant
B. carrier
D. crops that are drought-resistant and
C. vector need a lot of sunshine
D. bacteria 252. Which of the following statements best
247. To help meet the world’s demand for describes a clone?
food, which biotechnological process is A. An artificial life form
most likely to be used by agricultural in- B. An offspring where all of the genetic
dustries? material in every cell is identical to that of
A. crop rotation both parents
B. crop diversification C. An offspring where all of the genetic
material in every cell is identical to that of
C. use of transgenic crops
one of its parents
D. spraying organic herbicides
D. A type of sheep
248. Bt cotton is not 253. How can using genetically engineered
A. genetically modified plant crops impact North Carolina’s economy?
B. insect resistant A. Improve quality of farm equipment.
C. bacterial gene modified plant B. Decreased availability of productive
land.
D. butterfly
C. Decreased food production and more
249. Bioremediation uses toxin-degrading bac- debt for farmers.
teria to clean up: D. Increased food production and income
A. Gold and silver. for the farmers.

254. Which of these scientists studies genes 259. How does the biotechnology industry
and how traits are inherited? benefit North Carolina?

A. Nutritionist A. Many new, high paying jobs are cre-
B. Genetics ated
C. Entomologist B. The average salary of the worker in NC

decreased.
D. chemist
C. New technologies being developed are
255. The cutting of DNA at specific locations too expensive for people here to afford.
became possible with the discovery of
D. State budget increases from the con-
A. Selectable markers struction of new facilities.
B. Probes
260. Biotechnology may make it possible to
C. Restriction enzymes customize the genetic makeup of crop
D. Ligases plants so they can grow in exceptionally
dry or wet, hot or cold climates.
256. Where would you most likely find a job
involving biotechnology? A. Agriculture
A. On a farm B. Industry
B. At a bank C. Medicine
C. In a restaurant D. Environment
D. Driving a truck
261. The process of changing the genetic ma-
257. Medical research involving stem cells is terial of a living organism
important for A. Genetic Modification
A. to test the effectiveness of new drugs B. Taxonomy
B. the generation of cells and tissues that C. Adapting
can be used in cell based therapies
D. Bioremediation
C. to understand the consequences of
turning genes off and on 262. As biotechnology is used more often in
D. All of the above food production for human consumption,
people may only be able to purchase meat
258. What would be a negative side of genet- that has been injected with hormones.
ically modified foods? Which prediction is the most reasonable?
A. Lower cost of production. A. The hormones will be ingested by con-
B. Long-term health effects, such as pos- sumers and then used by their bodies.
sible allergies to proteins not found in B. People will stop eating commercially
foods before GMO’s. produced meat because they don’t like the
C. Ability to produce more food in less taste of it.
time. C. Farmers will not want to raise
D. Ability to grow more nutritious food in hormone-injected animals because the
less time. process will be more expensive.

D. Food production will become a more 267. Process of adding or changing DNA to al-
time-consuming process because the hor- ter genes within an individual’s cells to
mones will slow down animal reproduc- treat disease.
tion.
A. stem cell research
263. Agrobacterium causes disease in B. cloning
plants
C. gene therapy
A. rust
D. selective breeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. gall
C. smut 268. Stem cells are
D. blight A. cells that grow uncontrollably
264. How has biotechnology helped to im- B. undifferentiated and can be any type
prove the agricultural industry? of cell
A. by developing irrigation systems that C. never go through cell division
cover a large land area D. only found in embryos
B. by creating some crops that resist cer-
tain insects 269. Which is an example of cross breeding?
C. by producing soil free of decomposers A. A plum is bred with an apricot
D. by developing machines that help farm- B. Two dogs are bred to produce a hypoal-
ers harvest crops faster lergenic dog
265. Which describes how DNA is used in C. Race horses are bred to produce
biotechnology? stronger faster horses
A. The genetic information contained in D. none of above
all living cells can be changed, removed,
or added to make products and living or- 270. Genetically altered crops that can grow
ganisms function better. in exceptionally dry or wet, hot or cold cli-
mates are an example of:
B. DNA is not used in biotechnology, only
RNA is used. A. Agricultural biotechnology.
C. Only the DNA in animal cells can be B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
changed to improve products and living or- ogy.
ganisms. C. Environmental biotechnology.
D. Only the DNA in plant cells can be
D. Medical biotechnology.
changed to improve products and living or-
ganisms. 271. Which is most likely a potential health
266. An example of a genetic trait in humans problem for someone with a diet high in
is: sugar and fat and low in protein and fiber?
A. Being left handed or right handed. A. obesity

B. Being happy or sad. B. blindness
C. Having one brother and one sister. C. lung cancer
D. Having a weight problem. D. stomach ulcers

272. Which of the following involves ethics? C. Organisms whose DNA has been
A. Passing a law to allow more crops to copied

be grown per acre in a given area. D. Organisms whose entire genome has
been sequenced
B. Passing a law to allow doctors to euth-
anize humans who are terminally ill. 277. Can biotech foods cause allergic reactions
C. Passing a law to increase fines for peo- in some people?
ple texting while driving. A. Yes, but only if people eat large quan-
D. Passing a law to decrease speed limits tities of the biotech food.
in an area of frequent accidents. B. Yes, if the biotech food contains a gene
from a food known to cause an allergic re-
273. Which of the following is a protein that action.
acts as DNA scissors, meaning it allows
parts of DNA to be cut up C. No. Biotech foods are hypoallergenic.
D. No, because food allergies are psycho-
A. plasmid
logical and not physical.
B. restriction enzyme
278. Tigers and households cats are members
C. ligase
of the same family; however, their sizes
D. protein expression are vastly different. What is the cause of
this difference?
274. Which of the following is/are the method
of transfection for making transgenic ani- A. Biochemical makeup
mals? B. genetics
A. Transfer of whole nuclei C. behavioral makeup
B. Transfer of whole individual chromo- D. habitat size
somes or fragment 279. Which is a genetic engineering advance-
C. Transfer of DNA ment directly related to a career in biotech-
D. All of the above nology?
A. improving solar energy collection
275. All of the following are fields that
B. transporting textiles at higher rates
biotechnology is most likely used in EX-
CEPT: C. creating crop foods that resist insect
pests
A. Medicine
D. repairing historical sites with quality
B. Agriculture materials
C. Food and Nutrition
280. Which type of diet best contributes to a
D. Civil Engineering (engineer of roads healthy lifestyle?
and bridges)
A. a diet high in fat and protein
276. Transgenic Organisms (GMO’s) are: B. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and fat
A. Organisms that have genes from a dif- C. a diet high in carbohydrates and veg-
ferent species etables
B. Organisms who have received new D. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and
stem cells to cure a disease lean protein

281. The term, biodegradable products, Genome Project and was intended to iden-
means: tify the 20, 000 - 25, 000 genes of the
A. The products can be safely eaten by hu- human genome. A working draft of the
mans genome was announced in 2000 and a
complete one in 2003. Which of the fol-
B. All the parts ofthe product are made in lowing describes the main benefit of com-
the laboratory. pleting The Human Genome Project?
C. The products are made up of various A. Cloning humans
NARAYAN CHANGDER
species of bacteria.
B. Designing new human genes
D. The products break downsafely by nat- C. Patenting specific human genes
ural means.
D. Identifying genetically-based diseases
282. Which is a positive result of the use of
286. After the fermentation is over, ethanol is
biotechnology in agriculture?
recovered by
A. Increased use of pesticides
A. Centrifugation
B. Increased cost
B. Distillation
C. Increased yield C. Filtration
D. Increased use of preservatives D. Cell disintegration
283. Klenow enzyme is the product of enzy- 287. DNA fingerprinting is a biotechnology
matic breakdown of method that could be used in which type
A. DNA polymerase I of situation?
B. DNA polymerase II A. Determining the father of a child.
C. DNA polymerase III B. Determining who robbed a bank where

DNA evidence was found.
D. RNA polymerase
C. Identifying a species
284. Which best describes genetic modifica- D. All of the above
tion?
288. When microbes are grown so that their
A. It allows large quantities of medica- amino acids can be used to produce a prod-
tions to be produced. uct such as Spelenda sweetener or Sweet-
B. It is used to alter crops to become n-Low it is an example of:
insect-resistant. A. Agricultural biotechnology.
C. It improves the removal of pollution B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
from soil and water ogy.
D. None of these options describe genetic C. Environmental biotechnology.
modification
D. Medical biotechnology
285. In October of 1990, the US Department 289. Why is a healthy diet important?
of Energy’s Office of Science and the US
National Institute of Health began the pro- A. It maintains a constant body tempera-
cess of mapping the human genome. This ture.
process was referred to as The Human B. It prevents damage to internal organs.

C. It makes oxygen for all the cells in the B. They require no education past high
body. school.

D. It supplies the body’s needs for C. They are an inexpensive way to pro-
growth and energy. vide new food products and medicines.
290. For most agricultural and health care ca- D. They are needed to meet the pub-
reers, what type of shoes should be worn? lic demand for new food products and
medicines.
A. Trendy fashion shoes
B. Tennis shoes 295. Which of these is another name for ge-
netic engineering?
C. Sandals
A. Crossbreeding
D. Shoes appropriate to the profession
B. Kidney surgery
291. Conducting an activity in the daily routine
C. Gene splicing
of our society is said to be
D. use of herbicides
A. lab experience
B. real world experience 296. What is 1 significant issue with many Ge-
netically Modified Organisms?
C. simulation
D. supervised occupational experience A. They are too expensive to be useful
B. Take a long time to make
292. If a company genetically modifies corn to
produce an odor that repels insects, which C. May affect other organisms in their en-
best describes how the corn was modi- vironment
fied? D. Might evolve more quickly
A. by crop rotation techniques
297. How does biotechnology most benefit the
B. by chemical exposure economy of North Carolina?
C. by harvesting at different times A. Creation of hybrid plants
D. by techniques used in biotechnology B. Creation of new medicines
293. Which describes one of the earliest forms C. Creation of transgenic species
of Biotechnology? D. Creation of jobs
A. splicing human genes into bacteria to
298. Which statement reflects the greatest
produce insulin.
concern for genetically modified crops
B. selectively breeding dogs to create a (GMO)?
new breed.
A. High yield crop varieties will reduce
C. producing a clone of a farm animal. the use of fertilizers.
D. determining the sequence of genes in B. Drought resistant crops may die dur-
DNA fingerprinting. ing a rainy season
294. Why is the number of biotechnology ca- C. The cost of agriculture will decrease
reers most likely increasing across the D. Genes for herbicide resistance might
U.S.? be transferred to weeds by cross-
A. They are simple careers to learn. pollination.

299. Which category does the following C. cRNA

biotechnology fall under?Using CODIS to
D. siRNA
link criminals to other crimes they may
have committed. 305. What was the significance of Dolly the
A. Forensic Sheep?
B. Agricultural A. She was the first organism ever cloned
C. Medical B. She was the first clone created from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Consumer Goods an adult animal
300. What is a biggest benefit of using biotech- C. She was the first animal cloned as an
nologies in agriculture? embryo
A. Increase modifications D. She was the first animal to be cloned
B. Increase resistance multiple times
C. Decreased nutrition 306. Which describes a risk of biotechnology?

D. Increase crop yield A. Bacteria can be used to make insulin
301. A clone is and other human chemicals less expen-
sively.
A. recombinant DNA
B. DNA fingerprinting can prove that an
B. a transgenic organsim
accused person did not commit the crime.
C. plasmid
C. Health insurance companies may
D. genetically identical refuse to insure people who have genes
302. DNA microinjection into the egg has been for disease.
used to produce which of the following D. Human gene mapping can lead to treat-
transgenic animals? ment or prevention of disease.
A. Mice
307. In 1750 BC, the Sumerians are credited
B. Chicken with being the first to use biotechnology.
C. Pigs What did they make?
D. All of these A. Penicillin
303. What would a biotechnology engineer B. Beer
not work with? C. Rabies vaccine
A. astronomy
D. Olive oil
B. farming
C. crime 308. Wes graduated with a degree in biotech-
nology. For which job is he best qualified?
D. pharmaceuticals
A. financial manager
304. Both sense and antisense RNA together
form B. automobile mechanic
A. dsRNA C. laboratory researcher
B. ssRNA D. mathematics teacher

309. Most farmworkers and laborers require C. To produce fewer plants

how much educational preparation? D. Improve the nutrition of food grown

A. On-the-job training
314. What is a benefit of using biotechnologies
B. Certificate in agriculture?
C. Associate degree A. Increase modifications
D. Bachelor degree B. Increase resistance
310. How can biotechnology help farmers C. Decreased nutrition
overcome sudden changes in the environ- D. Increase crop yield
ment?
315. What is the WORST question for a farmer
A. by developing crops which are resis- to ask when determining whether or not to
tant to winter weather grow transgenic plants?(
B. by changing the types of soil where the A. Will the transgenic plant help to in-
crops are planted crease the food supply?
C. by rotating the crop within the same B. Will the transgenic plant require more
field by using simple machines pesticides?
D. to grow crops in the laboratory C. Will the transgenic plant help the
farmer to produce more clones?
311. Using oil eating bacteria to clean up an oil
spill is called? D. Will the transgenic plant offer any in-
formation in studying human genes?
A. Biostimulation
B. Bioremediation 316. North Carolina’s #1 Biotech Industry is
C. Phytoremediation A. Biomedical Research
D. none of above B. Environmental Biotechnology
C. Making Clones
312. How are plant cells different from human
cells? D. Agriculture
A. Human cells need food, but plant cells 317. Louis Pasteur was a French scientist in
do not. the 1800s who is well known for his study
of:
B. Human cells need energy, but plant
cells do not. A. Evil spirits that cause disease.
C. Plant cells make their own food, but hu- B. The structure of DNA.
man cells do not. C. Cloning human embryos.
D. Plant cells make their own energy, but D. Germs and the rabies vaccine.
human cells do not.
318. Scientists have inserted genes into rice
313. What is NOT a reason to genetically mod- plants that
ify plants? A. code for enzymes that cause rice to
A. To make the plants poisonous to in- ripen quickly
sects B. increase the iron and beta carotene
B. Make plants drought resistant levels

C. code for substances that cause aller- 324. How can gene therapy positively impact
gies in people society?
D. increase the thickness of the seed coat A. by treating genetic disorders with the
319. Bt toxin genes were isolated from insertion of normal genes
A. beetle B. by mapping all genes in the human pop-

ulation
B. bacillius thuringenesis
C. yeast C. by creating DNA “fingerprints” of crim-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
inals
D. mushrooms
D. none of above
320. The DNA molecule to which the gene of
interest is integrated for cloning is called 325. Clones have the exact same:
A. Transformer
A. Personalities
B. Carrier
B. Physical appearances
C. Vector
D. Template C. Intelligence levels
D. Genetic material
321. Which improvement to agriculture is
most likely a result of biotechnology?
326. Which of the following is the most contro-
A. increased land versial (ethical) issue related to biotechnol-
B. increased fertilizer ogy?
C. increased productivity A. Cloning
D. none of above B. genetic engineering
322. Which potential problem could occur from C. genetic modification
recent increases in genetically modified
crops? D. working with protein in cells
A. increased crop yield
327. What is an example of a biocatalyst?:
B. lower genetic diversity in crop species
A. Enzyme
C. increased risk to crops from environ-
mental stresses B. Corn stalk
D. improved taste, texture, appearance, C. Electronic sensor
and nutritional qualities of food
D. Lubricant
323. Which best describes a North Carolina in-
dustry that has experienced tremendous 328. How long does it take for a Wisconsin
growth and development over the past Fast Plant to mature?
thirty years?
A. 4 days
A. textiles
B. 28 days
B. biotechnology
C. tobacco farming C. 40 days
D. furniture making D. 200 days

329. The process of producing millions of 334. Genetic engineering has directly in-
copies of a specific DNA. creased productivity in which U.S. indus-
try?

A. PCR
A. agriculture
B. PPA
B. automobile
C. RNA
C. media
D. PTB
330. uses bacteria to clean up our sur-
rounding. 335. Which is an example of biomass fuel?
A. Genome A. natural gas
B. Bioremediation B. hydrogen fuel made from water

molecules
C. Genetic Modification
C. ethanol made from corn
D. Crossbreeding
D. none of above
331. Which of following developments is an
336. Which are most closely related to biotech-
advance in medicine that the application of
nology?
genetic science has allowed?
A. medicine and agriculture
A. development of genetic counseling as
a career B. construction and engineering
B. development of a method of DNA fin- C. water treatment and electricity gener-
gerprinting ation
C. production of proteins, such as insulin, D. communication and information tech-
for use as drugs nology
D. cloning of animals and engineeringof 337. Someone who enjoys caring for animals
agricultural crops might consider which biotechnology ca-
reer?
332. The major source of sugar in the world is
A. Research associate
A. Watermelon
B. Laboratory assistant
B. Beetroot
C. Greenhouse technician
C. Sugarcane
D. Veterinarian
D. Dates
338. What microorganism eats the sugar in
333. Lactaid milk products produced using the bread dough which gives off CO2 gas and
enzyme lactose. alcohol?
A. Agriculture A. Virus
B. Industry B. Bacteria
C. Medicine C. Amoeba
D. Environment D. Yeast

339. Which of the following describes a way 344. What is the name of the tiny plant inside
that biotechnology is used. a seed?
A. Developing better tools for heart trans- A. Nectar
plants.
B. Fruit
B. Manufacturing better car parts for
C. Stem
maximum driving safety.
D. Embryo
C. Inserting a gene from a plant into a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bacteria to make fuel. 345. Which example represents a modern
D. Engineering stronger materials used biotechnology technique that raises poten-
for construction. tial ethical issues?
340. Which category does the following A. selective breeding to get better corn
biotechnology fall under?Fungus is used at B. adding animal genes to a plant
paper mills to reduce pollution from soil en- C. using bacteria in the making of food
tering the water table.
D. crossbreeding two different plants
A. Forensic
B. Agricultural 346. James Watson and Francis Crick were re-
warded for their work win the discovery
C. Environmental
of DNA’s structure in 1953. What did they
D. Consumer Goods win?
341. Using poplar trees to remove toxins from A. An academy award
soil is called what? B. A faculty appointment at Duke Univer-
A. Bioremidation sity
B. Biostimulation C. A Nobel Prize
C. Phytoremediation D. A Pulitzer Prize
D. none of above 347. What have scientists been able to do as
342. How many total atoms in H2O? a result of mapping the human genome?
A. 1 A. Create medicines to fight HIV.
B. 2 B. Engineer genes to eliminate cancers.

C. 3 C. Identify genes linked with genetic dis-
orders.
D. 4
D. none of above
343. Scientists have been able to cause some
bacteria to produce insulin. In which area 348. The study of the interaction between a
of science would these scientists most living organism and the environment is
likely work? called
A. biotechnology A. Ecosystem
B. nuclear engineering B. Phytogeography
C. marine biology C. Ecology
D. chemistry D. Phytosociology

349. Gene therapy can be used to do which of C. Four roan

the following? D. Four red

A. Create clones of indiviudals with no ge-
netic disorders 354. Which career field is most related to
biotechnology?
B. By mapping the genetic makeup of non-
living organisms A. journalism
C. By correcting genetic disorders by in- B. medicine
serting normal genes C. meterology
D. Helping genes to work through their D. political science
feelings about being mutated
355. Residents of North Carolina presently
350. Which category does the following burn 5 billion gallons of imported
biotechnology fall under?Using biodiesel petroleum-based liquid fuel per year. How
instead of petroleum based fuels. would the state’s economy be affected if
A. Forensic North Carolina could produce bio-fuels lo-
cally as a replacement?
B. Environmental
A. Tax revenues would decrease.
C. Medical
B. Unemployment would increase.
D. Consumer Goods
C. The economy would decline due to ex-
351. Using a virus to enter a cell and reports.
place defective genes with healthy genes
D. The economy would improve with new
is called
jobs and tax revenue.
A. tissue culturing
356. Farmers implant a gene into a species of
B. bioremediation
tomato plants. The tomato then ripens
C. cloning faster and stays firm. Which best de-
D. gene therapy scribes the benefit for consumers?
A. increased amount of toxins in tomatos
352. In which field would a student most likely
pursue a career after obtaining a degree in B. decreased size of tomatos
biotechnology? C. increased seed production
A. geology D. enhanced flavor and availability
B. civil engineering
357. Stem cell research has been a controver-
C. astronomy sial subject in past years. What is the rea-
D. pharmaceuticals son for this?
353. A calf with a pair of white genes is all A. Cells for study are often taken from hu-
white, a calf with red genes is red, and a man embryos.
calf with one white and one red gene has B. Stem cell techniques will not accom-
a roan coat. If two red cows have four plish the intended purpose.
calves, what color are the calves? C. The cells cannot be isolated.
A. Two red and two roan D. Replacement tissue will never be
B. One red, one white and two roan grown from a person’s own stem cells.

358. Gregor Mendel mixed different types of D. using recombinant DNA to produce hu-
peas to bring out their desirable traits. man hormones from bacteria
This iscalled:
363. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA based
A. Pollination. on its
B. Gene therapy. A. shape
C. Composting. B. diameter
D. Selective breeding.(Hybridization) C. length
NARAYAN CHANGDER
359. A goat whos DNA was changed to make D. numbers of A’s
spider silk is an example of what?
A. Meiosis artificial selection?
B. Mutation A. A species evolving to withstand cold
C. Genetic Egnineering environments
D. Cloning B. A person breeding dogs for long, thick
coats
360. Which best describes stem cells?
C. A species of plant becoming extinct
A. stem cells can only come from em-
bryos D. A snake blending in with its environ-
ment
B. stem cells can only come from adult
bone marrow 365. What do the these industrial prod-
C. stem cells do not ever change ucts have in common:vitamins, antibiotics,
acids, and glues?
D. stem cells can develop into different
specialized cells A. They all prevent infection
B. They are all made with fermentation
361. changes the genetic material of a liv-
ing organism. C. They are all sources of energy
A. Crossbreeding D. They are all made of sugars
B. Genetic Modification 366. Which statement BEST describes what

C. Bioremediation the Biotechnology Industry does?
D. Genome A. Using organisms and cells to make-

products or solve problems.
362. Which technology below would probably B. Health care of animals is the primary-
be the most important to a person who focus of this industry.
had diabetes and had to take insulin every
day? C. Making scientific equipment which
supports DNA research.
A. testing parents for genetic disorders
before they have children D. Study the safety of new drugs and ap-
prove their use.
B. engineering fruits and vegetables that
resist insects and other pests 367. What are the products of cellular respira-
C. developing ways to identify criminals tion?
through DNA fingerprinting A. Oxygen and Sugar

B. Oxygen and Water B. Nectar.

C. Carbon Dioxide and Sugar C. Sugar.

D. Carbon Dioxide and Water D. Steam.
368. In 1982, Humulin was produced by this 373. Farmers use insecticides and fertilizers on
company Genentech which was one of the their fruit and vegetable crops. Which best
first biotechnology in the U.S. for the treat- describes the effect of these chemicals?
ment of diabetese. What is significant A. The crops require less water and nutri-
about this? ents to grow.
A. It was the first vaccine developed B. The crops are more susceptible to in-
B. It was the first antibiotic developed sect damage.
C. It was the first biotech drug approved C. The crops yield smaller fruits and veg-
by the FDA etables.
D. It was the first approved biotech treat- D. The crops yield more fruits and vegeta-
ment for AIDS bles.
369. Who is known as the father of genetics 374. Which of the following careers would
because of his research with pea plants a student studying biotechnology most
and hybridization? likely pursue?
A. Ben Carson A. electrical Engineering
B. Gregor Mendel B. Astronomy
C. Stanley Cohen C. Agricultural research
D. Norman Wilmut D. Geology
370. What type of science allows us to alter 375. The first successful transgenic animal in
the DNA of a bacterial cell to produce hu- 1980 was a:
man insulin?
A. Dog.
A. Geology
B. Cow.
B. Chemistry
C. Horse.
C. Biology
D. Mouse.
D. Biotechnology
376. Which statement best describes a cloned
371. Root knot disease of tobacco is caused by population?
A. Agrobacterium tumificians A. It it usually produced by sexual repro-
B. Meloidegyne incognitia duction
C. Bacillus thuriengiensis B. The individual organisms usually have
varying DNA sequences
D. Thermus aquiticus
C. There are usually no variations in
372. Plants take in carbon dioxide from the air genotypes
and give off: D. Individuals show a variety of pheno-
A. Oxygen. types

377. A vector is C. bacillus thuringiensis

A. a type of insect D. Caenorhabditis elegans
B. DNA that carries and inserts a new 382. How does building new biotechnology re-
gene search facilities in North Carolina most di-
C. the new gene that is to be inserted rectly impact the economy?
D. protein that carries the new gene A. The number of available jobs is in-
creased.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
378. Dr. Norman Borlaug won a Nobel Prize
for Peace in 1970 for his efforts to: B. The average salary of workers is de-
creased.
A. Develop human embryos to be used in
making stem cells. C. New technologies that are developed
are too expensive for consumers.
B. Map the human genome.
D. The state budget debt is decreased
C. Find vaccines to prevent communica- due to construction costs of new build-
ble diseases. ings.
D. Improve wheat to fight starvation in
developing countries. 383. Which was most likely the earliest way
biotechnology was studied by humans?
379. Which of the following could be the A. finding evidence of crimes
source of new applications in biotechnol-
ogy B. making new medicines to cure sick-
nesses
A. bacteria
C. discovering the cause of hereditary
B. water diseases
C. body waste D. breeding better varieties of crops and
D. hair follicles livestock
380. Some people are concerned that geneti- 384. Which is a way the agricultural industry
cally engineered crop plants could could have a positive impact on the envi-
A. transmit their new genes to the wild ronment?
plant species producing “superweeds” A. by increasing the use of wind farms to
B. transmit their new gene to the animals produce electricity
that eat the plants producing “super ani- B. by making robots to produce large
mals” farm machines
C. exchange genes with animals that eat C. by reducing the need for countries to
the plants producing animal plant hybrid import food
D. be wiped out by native plant species D. none of above
381. Nematodes may be free living or par- 385. What process could cure genetic disor-
asitic.A parasitic Nematode of Tobacco ders by replacing defective genes with
plants is working genes?
A. Meloidogyne incognita A. DNA fingerprinting
B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens B. gene therapy

C. cloning C. Using scissors

D. transcription D. Using enzymes

386. The first biotech food on the market that 391. You see a pile of grass clippings, corn-
could be transported without bruising? stalks, and tomato stems that are decay-
A. Cucumber ing. What is it?
A. An ant hill
B. Orange
B. A compost heap
C. Tomato
C. An ethanol pile
D. Strawberry
D. A pile of manure
387. Which of the following would be a bene-
fit of a genetically engineered crop? 392. Dr. Ben Carson gained world-wide recog-
nition for his work in separating Siamese
A. transmission of more plant diseases
twins who were joined at the back of the
B. an increase in the use of pesticides head. Dr. Carson is a:
C. increased pest resistance A. Genetic engineer.
D. increased water usage B. Neurosurgeon.
388. Which best describes the technique of ge- C. Biologist.
netic engineering? D. Pediatrician.
A. Adding foreign DNA to organisms to 393. DNA fragments are
modify the organism’s DNA
A. negatively charged
B. Manufacturing synthetic DNA in the
laboratory from chemicals B. neutral
C. Cutting segments of DNA of an organ- C. either negatively or positively charged

ism under a microscope depending on their size
D. Exposing DNA of an organism to ra- D. positively charged

dioactivity for mutations 394. Which pollutant or pollutants are most
likely to create eutrophic areas?
389. Which of these would be a concern about
the use of genetic engineering crop plants? A. nitrates and phosphates
A. Escape of the modified gene to wild B. heavy metals
plant populations C. synthetic organic compounds
B. The development of antibiotic resis- D. pharmaceuticals
tant bacteria
395. Dogs and wolves are closely related;
C. Producing too much insulin at a time
however, their sizes and shapes are vastly
D. There are no concerns with genetic en- different. What is the cause of this differ-
gineering plants ence?
390. After finding the location of a gene, how A. genetic engineering
can a scientist take it out of a cell? B. selective breeding
A. Using a microscope C. behavioral makeup
B. Using PCR D. habitat size

396. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments mi- 401. Residents of North Carolina presently
grate toward one end of a gel because burn 5 billion gallons of imported
they are petroleum-based liquid fuel per year. How
would the state’s economy be affected if
A. pulled toward that end by gravity
North Carolina could produce biofuels lo-
B. attracted to complementary DNA frag- cally as a replacement?
ments at that end of the gel
A. Tax revenues would decrease.
C. attracted to the positively charged end
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of the gel B. Unemployment would increase
D. repelled by hydrophobic molecules at C. The economy would decline due to ex-

the other end of the gel ports
D. The economy would improve with new
397. Which organisms are used to manufac-
jobs and tax revenue.
ture human insulin?
A. Protozoans 402. The differences that occur within the off-
spring of a particular species are called:
B. Algae
C. Bacteria A. Selection.
D. Amoebas B. Extension.
C. Variation.
398. The Wisconsin Fast Plant is from what
species of plant? D. Closure.
A. Dandelion 403. To obtain bacteria that produce insulin,
B. Brassica genetic engineers
C. Sapian A. remove repressor proteins that inhibit
D. Diffenbachia the expression of the bacterial insulin
gene
399. When using biosensors to fight pollution, B. insert a vector containing the human
the biosensor is helpful in telling us: gene of insulin into bacteria
A. What caused the pollution. C. search for bacteria that grow in a
B. How long the pollution has been medium that lacks insulin
present.
D. grow normal bacteria in a nutrient
C. Who is responsible for the pollution medium that contains a large amount
D. Where and what the pollution is.
404. Which task is best accomplished with
400. Susan has a highschool diploma and expe- the use of specific genetic information in
rience, she could interview for which job? biotechnology?
A. Toxicologist A. Conserving water

B. Biophysicist B. Cleaning up oil spills
C. Veterinary technician C. Producing synthetic hormones
D. Laboratory assistant D. Creating ethanol fuel from corn

405. Water like substance in a cell that sur- 410. Which of the following techniques sep-
rounds the cell parts and transports chem- arates molecules based on size to help
ical and nutrients withing the cell? match DNA samples from crime scenes?

A. Cytoplasm A. gel electrophoresis
B. Nucleus B. gene therapy
C. Chloride C. cloning
D. Gel D. creating transgenic organisms
406. Genes control heredity characteristics. 411. What is the biggest benefit for biotech-
They can be found as a small section of nologies being researched in North Car-
a(an): olina?
A. Computer. A. More animals are modified in NC
B. Chromosome. B. Less farms in NC.
C. Enzyme. C. Fewer scientists move to NC.

D. More jobs move to NC.
D. Protein.
412. Which field of science is most likely
407. What enzyme joins the ends of two
responsible for developing techniques to
strands of nucleic acid?
help a patient who has third-degree
A. polymerase burns?
B. synthetase A. biotechnology
C. ligase B. botany
D. helicase C. ecology
D. virology
408. What is one benefit of giving farm ani-
mals vaccines? 413. Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO’s)
A. It kills insects that attack farm ani- are:
mals. A. Organisms whose genes / DNA have
B. It reduces the cost of farm animals. been edited
C. It produces healthier farm animals. B. Organisms who have received new

stem cells to cure a disease
D. none of above
C. Organisms whose DNA has been
409. Which type of bioengineered foods might copied
provide consumers with a healthier diet? D. Organisms whose entire genome has
A. foods lower in saturated fats been sequenced
B. foods higher in simple starches 414. using living things or parts of living
C. foods that do not need to be refriger- things to produce a product or solve a prob-
ated lem
D. foods with large amounts of preserva- A. biotechnology

tives B. tissue culturing

C. bioremediation 418. Which best describes the process where

D. transgenic genes from one organism are inserted into
the DNA of another organism?
415. Which question may be asked and re- A. genetic coding
searched by someone who is arguing
against the use of genetically modified B. genetic evolution
crops? C. genetic adaption
A. Will the prices of crops increase be- D. genetic engineering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cause the seeds for genetically modified
crops are more expensive and this may 419. Which is a way the agricultural biotech-
drive small farmers out of business? nology industry could have a positive im-
pact on the world?
B. Have genetically modified crops al-
lowed farmers to save money on insecti- A. By producing crops that are not resis-
cides and pesticides? tant to bacteria
C. Will genetically modified crops reduce B. By making robots to replace large farm
the amount of land and energy used by machines
farms because they have high yields? C. By reducing the need for countries
D. Have genetically modified crops to import and transport foods great dis-
shown improvements in nutrition for con- tances
sumers compared to non-genetically mod- D. By increasing the use of wind farms
ified crops? that produce electricity
416. is NOT a common ethical concern re- 420. Which category does the following
lated to human cloning. biotechnology fall under?Doctors have
A. That humans will be created who ex- used genetic testing to devise the first
ist solely as a supply of organs for trans- treatment for MS in 20 years.
plants A. Forensic
B. That clones will be more prone to ab- B. Agricultural
normal development C. Medical
C. That parents will pay to have a child D. Consumer Goods
that is a clone of a famous athlete
D. That cloned humans will have no per- 421. Feeding and treating animals, and main-
sonality taining their living space, is called:
A. Veterinary medicine.
417. Rice does not provide enough of certain
vitamins. How could biotechnology be B. Artificial insemination.
used to change this? C. Animal breeding.
A. Using a high nitrogen fertilzer. D. Animal husbandry.
B. Using herbicide to get rid of weeds. 422. Which could be a serious negative effect
C. Genetic modification of rice plants that of introducing genetically altered species
are pest resistant and to produce vitamins into the general environment?
they cannot make without biotechnology A. The natural species could sicken the
D. Using pesticide to get rid of pests that genetically altered species, making them
can harm the crop. die out.

B. The natural species could be killed by 427. Which is an example of bioremediation?

interaction with the genetically altered A. bacteria is used to produce insulin
species.

B. bacteria is used to clean up oil spills
C. The diversity could be lost because the
genetically altered species would all be C. cells are grown over a scaffold to
similar. make new body parts
D. The environment could have too many D. none of above

species to support, causing the species to 428. Before transgenic animals, farmers prac-
find new habitats. ticed selective breeding. An example is
423. Organisms that have foreign DNA in- crossing a horse with a donkey to produce
serted from a different species are called a:
A. transgenic A. Kangaroo.
B. transmutated B. Mule.
C. adenoviruses C. Gelding.
D. haploid D. Race horse.
424. RNA interference helps in 429. Which best describes how using engi-
neered crops can impact the economy of
A. Cell proliferation
North Carolina?
B. Micropropagation
A. increased jobs in the field of agricul-
C. Cell defence ture
D. Cell differentiation B. decreased availability of productive
425. When using bioremediation, what hap- land
pens to the bacteria when the pollutants C. decreased crop yields and decreased
are cleaned up? income for farmers
A. The area is treated with antibiotics. D. increased crop yields and increased in-
B. The area is treated with concentrated come for farmers
oxygen. 430. A runner is preparing to run a long race.
C. The bacteria run out of food and die off Which would provide the highest level of
naturally. energy for the runner?
D. They die due to a lack of oxygen. A. minerals
426. Which of the following is NOT a concern B. carbohydrates
of biotechnology? C. proteins
A. Ethical concerns with cloning humans. D. vitamins
B. Health concerns about eating geneti- 431. Using genetic engineering to create an ex-
cally modified foods. act copy of your cat is an example of:
C. Concerns that we will harvest too A. gene therapy
much food for the global population.
B. DNA fingerprinting
D. Environmental concerns of releasing
genetically modified organisms into an C. protein synthesis
ecosystem. D. cloning

432. BST hormone that is given to cows to help C. public outrage and debate
increase their milk production by as much
D. increased seed cost
as 20%.
A. Agriculture 438. GM foods look and taste the same as tra-
B. Industry ditional foods and crops. The only differ-
ence is that GM foods can have
C. Environment
A. Better shelf life
D. Medicine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Genes with traits that improve some
433. What is the benefit of geneticially modi- characteristics of a plant.
fied organisms?
C. Addition nutrients
A. They may be better looking or more
productive/effective D. All are possible
B. They are easily reproduced 439. Which of the following is NOT a benefit
C. They are higher in population of biotechnology techniques in agriculture?
D. They live longer/stronger A. The survival rates of crops may be in-
creased.
434. In preparation for an electrophoresis pro-
cedure, enzymes are added to DNA in or- B. The nutritional content of crops can be
der to increased.
A. convert the DNA into gel C. The speed of development for crops
can be increased, resulting in a more pro-
B. cut the DNA into fragments
ductive growing season.
C. change the color of the DNA
D. The freezing point of crops may be
D. produce longer sections of DNA heightened to make sure they freeze
sooner, shortening the growing season.
435. Which of these is a concern about the use
of biotechnology? 440. Strawberries have been genetically mod-
A. increased crop yield ified to resist frost. How does this benefit
B. development of new vaccines farmers?
C. increased job opportunities A. A longer growing season.
D. creation of new pathogens. B. A pest-resistant berry.
436. What does Bio mean? C. A larger berry.

A. Life D. Easier harvesting.
B. Skillfully made; tool 441. Biobased energy companies want to re-
C. Study of place fossil fuels with biofuels like ethanol
D. none of above made from
A. Seaweed.
437. Which of the following is an advantage
of genetically modified crops? B. Corn.
A. resistance to pests C. Viruses.
B. unknown side effects D. Rain water

442. Scientists consider genetically altering 446. Which would most likely increase the
cedar trees so they are more resistant to amount of money made from agriculture
root rot. Which is the most accurate state- in NC

ment regarding the alteration?
A. Tomatoes that are resistant to disease
A. genetic alteration should never be con- B. Tomatoes that taste the same
sidered as an option
C. Tomatoes that are more expensive
B. genetically altering the trees would en-
danger the species D. none of above
C. the population of cedar trees would in- 447. Source of complementary RNA in RNAi is
crease and grow healthier
A. retrovirus
D. the demand for cedar trees would be
B. transposons
reduced because of possible negative con-
sequences of genetic alterations. C. both
D. none
443. What is not a benefit of plant biotechnol-
ogy: 448. Which application of biotechnology is of
A. Is less expensive than traditional agri- greatest economic benefit to North Car-
cultural mehods. olina?
B. Helps preserve the environment. A. development of livestock that are more
domesticated
C. Increases the income of farmers.
B. development of livestock that produce
D. Controls our nation?s obesity problem.
higher quality meat
444. Golden rice is an example of a GMO C. development of crops that can be
that was created to fight malnutrition by grown in extremely dry environments
providing people with more Beta-carotene, D. development of crops that can be
which is needed for the body to make vi- grown in extremely low temperatures
tamin A. Why is Vitamin A important?
A. It prevents malaria 449. Produce energy for cellular process, the
“power house” of the cell
B. too little vitamin A can lead to blind-
ness and illness A. Mitochondria
C. It is essential for building muscle B. Nucleus
D. too little vitamin A can lead to seizures C. Cell Wall

D. Cytoplasm
445. Which is MOST important for biotechnol-
ogy professionals who work with the gen- 450. The process of making changes to a DNA
eral public? code of living organisms is called
A. Have a good fashion sense A. Selective breeding
B. Able to read road maps B. Inbreeding
C. Communicate effectively C. Genetic Engineering
D. Practice lab safety D. Gene Modification

451. The shape of DNA is: 456. Which is a use of genetically engineered
bacteria?
A. double helix
A. making human insulin
B. spiral
B. DNA fingerprint for blood left at a
C. circular crime scene
D. chromosomes C. producing corn that is resistant to her-
bicides
452. What is a good argument for genetically
NARAYAN CHANGDER
modifying animals? D. none of above
A. Produce more meat 457. Personal medical records become more

available and more detailed because of
B. Figure out how to make Spiderman
biotechnological research. Based on this
C. Modifying your kids to make them information, which is a major concern to
more awesome the public?
D. New genes are needed to create new A. transmission of more diseases
species B. an increase in under qualified doctors
453. Dr. Ian Wilmut continues to do stem C. inappropriate use of medical informa-
cell research for the treatment of diseases tion
such as diabetes, but he is best known as D. overdiagnosis of certain medical con-
the scientist who: ditions
A. Cloned Dolly. 458. Two humans believe they are related.
B. Sterilized milk. Which would be the best technique to de-
termine if they are related?
C. Discovered DNA.
A. testing blood types
D. Invented genetically modified foods.
B. comparing DNA
454. Genes from have been inserted into C. examining karyotypes
some major crops as a way to help them
D. testing for genetic disorders
withstand harsh environments.
A. Animals 459. In 1978 the first test tube baby, Louise
Brown, was born in:
B. bacteria
A. Russia.
C. viruses
B. China.
D. weeds C. England.
455. Which of these is an ethical issue in the D. Pittsburgh.
field of biotechnology?
460. A biotechnologist who specializes in
A. The cost is very expensive. aquaculture would work MOSTLY with:
B. We can live longer and healthier lives. A. Plants.
C. Sometimes the harm outweighs the B. Bacteria.
good. C. Fish.
D. Public opinion of the technology. D. Birds.

461. What percentage of the human genome 466. A technique for making millions of copies
codes for proteins of a specific region of DNA.

A. 98% A. DNA ligase
B. 10% B. restriction enzymes
C. 25% C. gel electrophoresis
D. 2% D. polymerase chain reaction
462. Which is an example of genetic engineer- 467. What is the science of forensics deal
ing? with?
A. Corn is modified so it is larger A. Farming (plants and animals)
B. dogs are bred to have favorable traits B. Crime
from both parents
C. Medical
C. cells are grown into body parts
D. Computers
D. none of above
468. It is the transfer of genes into the somatic
463. Which is one possible human benefit from
cells of the patient
biotechnology research?
A. Somatication
A. producing crops that can grow in areas
where they normally do not grow B. Somatic cell gene therapy
B. producing new types of disease- C. cell gene therapy
causing viruses D. somatic cell therapy
C. increasing the ability to turn ocean wa-
ter to freshwater 469. uses biotechnology to improve the
medical field and our health.
D. creating new types of buildings that
can withstand hurricanes A. Medical Biotechnology
B. Consumer goods biotechnology
464. Administers first aid treatment or life
support care to sick or injured persons in C. Environmental Biotechnology
the pre-hospital setting. The first to assist D. Agricultural Biotechnology
with a car accident and emergencies
A. EMT 470. What would be a positive reason to ge-
netically alter Fraser Fir trees in North Car-
B. ENT olina to make them more resistant to rot?
C. ELO
A. By producing crops that are frost resis-
D. EKG tant
465. What are ethics? B. By making robots to replace large farm

machines
A. harm outweighs the evil
C. The population of fir trees would in-
B. good outweigh the good crease and grow healthier.
C. benefits outweigh the harm D. By increasing the use of wind farms
D. none of above that produce electricity

471. Which practice is an example of biotech- 475. Biotechnology is developing a new source
nology? for rennin. The old way to get rennin was
A. monitoring seismic (volcanic) activity from:
B. analyzing the vitamin content of an ap- A. Sheep liver extract.
ple B. Inside a calf?s stomach.
C. observing the migratory habits of but- C. Ground horse?s hooves.
terflies D. Lemon peels.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. altering (changing) tomatoes to grow
in adverse conditions 476. Which use of biotechnology most benefits
North Carolina agriculture?
472. An argument in favour of food biotechnol- A. producing human vaccines
ogy is that it
B. producing disease resistant crops
A. provides foods that cure disease.
C. producing new medicines from bacte-
B. provides a cash crop for low income ria
nations.
D. producing enzymes to eliminate pollu-
C. provides more food to feed a growing tants
population.
D. biotech foods are not controversial 477. An example of post transcriptional gene
silencing is
473. Tomatoes are genetically modified to A. gene therapy
have a longer shelf life, slowing the ripen-
ing and softening of the tomato. Which B. molecular diagnosis
best describes a concern people have with C. RNA interference
eating genetically modified tomatoes? D. Bioinformatics
A. Genetically-modified tomatoes do not
taste as good as regular tomatoes 478. What should a person working in a
biotech laboratory do if he/she has long
B. Genetically-modified tomatoes are hair?
more expensive than regular tomatoes.
A. Cut it short
C. The DNA used to modify the tomatoes
could change the DNA of the person eat- B. Wear a hair net or pin it back
ing the tomato. C. Use hair spray to keep the hair in place
D. The tomatoes taste like chocolate. D. No special care is needed
474. The large size of today’s turkey is a re- 479. Jennie’s friend, Molly, has a beautiful
sult of African violet. Molly removes a stem and
A. genetically modifying the turkey DNA leaves from the African violet and puts it
in soil, hoping to grow an African violet for
B. Selectively breeding the turkey for de- Jennie. This is an example of what type of
sirable traits asexual reproduction?
C. commercially raised turkeys are no dif- A. Cloning
ferent than turkeys found in the wild
B. Creeping
D. Turkey’s DNA have been modified with
the gene of vulture which gives the turkey C. Cuttings
its large size D. Canteens

480. What is the purpose of PCR? 485. Fabric detergents are becoming more ef-
A. To produce millions of copies of DNA. fective because of the addition of enzymes
to their active ingredients. This is an ex-

B. To produce millions of copies of a spe- ample of:
cific region of DNA
C. To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence A. Agricultural biotechnology.
D. To watch polymerase work. B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
ogy.
481. Process of both finding and recording the
locations of genes C. Environmental biotechnology.
A. cloning/micropropagation D. Medical biotechnology
B. gene mapping
C. biofuels 486. The variable that is changed on purpose
D. base pairs is:
482. Which of the following describes how we A. Control

could use genetic modification? B. Dependent
A. It allows for a large amount of medica-
C. Independent
tions to be produced
B. It helps with the pollution in Earth’s D. Outcome
oceans
C. It can help us alter genes in crops to 487. Which is a step in the process of produc-
become insect-resistant ing transgenic bacteria?
D. It can increase the amount of non- A. A plasmid is used to replace a faulty
renewable resources gene in a human cell.
483. Which project is most likely to be worked B. A human gene is inserted into a bacte-
on by a biotechnician? rial plasmid.
A. developing plants with resistance to
C. A mutation is produced in a bacterial
high temperatures
cell.
B. developing architectural designs for
houses in floodplains D. none of above
C. discovering different isotopes of exist-
ing elements in the periodic table 488. What is one of the main purposes for
why scientists study the human genome
D. designing lightweight, strong metallic project?
alloys for use in car manufacturing
A. To understand human disease and aid
484. Bioinformatics deal primarily with biolog- in creation of treatments.
ical information maintained in:
A. A logbook. B. To understand why humans exist.
B. A database. C. To study how the human brain is like a
C. A locked safe. computer.
D. A storage facility. D. none of above

489. Which are most closely related to 494. What are some examples of biotechnol-
biotech? ogy being used in agriculture?
A. medicine and agriculture A. Crop irrigation
B. water treatment and electricity gener- B. DNA fingerprinting
ation C. Gentically modified crops
C. construction and engineering D. Crop rotation
D. communication and information tech-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nology 495. DNA is wound tightly to form a ?
A. DNA
490. A cloned pig has a diploid chromosome
number of 35. What is the diploid B. Chromosome
C. Gene
A. 17.5
D. none of above
B. 70
C. 35 496. Why do you use a new pipette tip on
the micropipette every time you get a new
D. 23
sample?
491. A cloned daughter organism receives A. To avoid contaminating the other sam-
from the identical parent organism. ples
A. An egg B. To use as many tools as you can.
B. The DNA (nucleus) C. The pipette tips disappear after being
used.
C. The DNA and egg
D. None of these reasons
D. none of above
497. To cut DNA molecules into pieces at spe-
492. Roderick recently earned his doctoral de-
cific sequences of nucleotides, genetic en-
gree Which job is he MOST LIKELY pursu-
gineers use
ing?
A. cloning
A. Research scientist
B. insulin
B. Sales representative
C. bacteria
C. Technical writer
D. restriction enzymes
D. Veterinary technician
498. What is the science of agriculture deal
493. What would be a benefit of a genetically with?
modified fish?
A. Farming (plant and animals)
A. It eats more than regular fish.
B. Crime
B. It grows faster than regular fish.
C. Medical
C. producing cells from nonliving mate-
rial D. Computers
D. preventing weeds from spreading to 499. How can it be verified that an animal is
farmland a transgenic organism?

A. its DNA contains a gene(s) from an- 504. Which is a way the agricultural biotech-
other organism nology industry could have a positive im-
pact on the environment?

B. its DNA can be found in a bacterium
A. by producing crops that are virus resis-
C. it lacks any DNA
tant
D. none of above
B. by reducing the need for countries to
500. How would smoking tobacco most likely import food
have a negative impact on the ability of an C. by making robots to replace large farm
individual to succeed at physical activities? machines
A. It interferes with balance and coordi- D. by increasing the use of wind farms
nation. that produce electricity
B. It decreases the ability to make deci-
505. Which type of Genetic Engineering can as-
sions rapidly.
sist detectives in a forensic investigation
C. It decreases stamina and cardiovascu- at a crime scene.
lar efficiency.
A. DNA fingerprinting
D. It decreases the speed and power of
B. Cloning
muscle contractions
C. Recombinat DNA technology
501. The process in which large numbers of D. Selective breeding
identical recombinant DNA molecules are
produced is called? 506. Original:ATC CATMutation:ATC GCATWhat
A. test cross mutation occurred?
B. selective breeding A. deletion
C. transgenic organism B. insertion
D. cloning C. silent
D. transverse
502. All of the following are advantages
(things that are helpful) of GMO’s EXCEPT: 507. Which of these is not a way in which
biotechnology can benefit agriculture?
A. pest resistant crops
A. increasing crop yield
B. more nutritional foods
B. reducing the loss of crops to insects
C. unknown long term health effects
C. producing better-tasting fruits
D. improving farm machinery
503. Which group of plants has the greatest
diversity (i.e. the most species) living to- 508. What was one of the foals of the Human
day? Genome Project?
A. Bryophyta A. to determine how DNA was copied in
humans
B. Lycophyta
B. to determine the nucleotide sequence
C. Gymnosperms and gene location of the entire human
D. Angiosperms genome

C. to determine how proteins were made B. An architect

in humans C. A doctor
D. to determine particular mutations in
D. A pharmacist
the human genes
514. A rhizome is a(n):
509. What would increase the money made by
farmers in North Carolina through biotech- A. Plant cutting.
nology? B. Underground stem.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Tomatoes that are different in color. C. Flower.
B. Tomatoes that are smaller.
D. Bulb.
C. Tomatoes that taste the same.
515. SAEs should be planned
D. Tomatoes that are resistant to dis-
ease. A. at home with parent/guardian
510. Which would most likely increase the B. in the classroom

amount of money made from agriculture C. on the job with employers
in North Carolina?
D. all of the above
A. Sweet potatoes that are resistant to
disease. 516. There is a fungus which is used to break
down a wood preservative that contami-
B. Sweet potatoes that are more expen-
nates the soil near old sawmills.
sive.
C. Sweet potatoes that are a different A. Agriculture
color. B. Industry
D. Sweet potatoes that taste the same. C. Environment
511. DNA fingerprinting is used in D. Medicine

A. Forensic science 517. The human practice of breeding animals
B. Paternal disputes or plants that have certain desired traits.
C. Research work A. Artificial selection
D. All of the aove B. Clone
512. What is recombinant DNA? C. Genetic engineering
A. DNA containing genes foreign to that D. biotechnology

organism
518. A scientist who works in forest biotech-
B. DNA which has been impacted by epi- nology might use biotechnology to pro-
genetics duce:
C. DNA that has restriction enzymes A. Better irrigation systems.
D. DNA that has been sequenced B. Better tools for chopping down trees.
513. Which person would not use biotechnolo- C. Trees that won?t burn during forest
gies in their job? fires.
A. A farmer D. Insect-resistant trees.

519. Joan loves to solve problems using com- D. Removing the ovaries and uterus from
puters and she also likes biology. What female livestock so they cannot have ba-
field of biotechnology would be good for bies.

Joan?
524. If starch containing substrates are used
A. Fermentation for ethanol production, yeast strain can’t
B. Mutation be used directly because
C. Bioprocessing A. It doesn’t contain amylases to hy-
drolyze starch
D. Bioinformatics
B. Starch is not a suitable substrate for
520. To produce industrial ethanol, one needs the production of ethanol
corn, water, and what? C. It is converted to pentose sugar
A. Sodium and Chlorine D. None of the above
B. Vitamins and minerals
525. Some consumers are opposed to the use
C. Enzymes and yeast of biotechnology because of
D. Gas and oil A. ethical questions
B. fear of the unknown health risks
521. open and close the stomata.
C. biotech products are more costly
A. Guard cells
D. any of the above
B. Xylem
526. What is unique (special) about a stem
C. Roots
cell?
D. Phloem
A. It can become a plant stem.
522. James exercises for 30 minutes each day, B. It can reproduce by itself.
five days a week. What would be a bene- C. It can become any type of animal cell.
fit of this lifestyle choice?
D. It can become any type of plant cell.
A. loss of bone and muscle strength
527. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
B. increased blood pressure
A. separate DNA fragments
C. improvement in overall health
B. cut DNA
D. decreased energy levels
C. recombine DNA
523. Scientists use biotechnology to increase D. extract DNA
the productivity of livestock by using em-
bryo transplants, which involves: 528. John is looking at a strand of DNA and
he identifies an adenine nucleotide. Which
A. Taking the DNA out of one animal and
of the following nucleotide would be pair
injecting it into an embryo to make an ex-
with adenine?
act duplicate.
A. Thymine
B. Selecting the biggest male and female
livestock and allowing them to breed. B. Guanine
C. Collecting eggs and sperm and to allow C. Cytosine
fertilization in a laboratory dish. D. Adenine

529. The pistil is the: 534. This project was established to identify
A. Part of the plant where flowers first ap- all 300, 000+ genes found in our DNA.
pear. A. Human genome project
B. Part of the flower that breathes. B. Animal DNA study
C. Female part of the flower. C. Human genetics road map project
D. Male part of the flower.
D. The DNA solution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
530. Which statement describes a benefit of
biotechnology in the field of agriculture? 535. Which area of biotechnology would most
likely create ethical issues within human
A. development of tools that improve soil society?
quality
A. insulin production by bacteria
B. development of crops that are disease
resistant B. human organ cloning for use in trans-
plants
C. development of plants that do not re-
quire water for growth C. genetic engineering to improve agri-
cultural yields
D. development of plants that do not re-
quire oxygen D. DNA and forensic testing of crime
scene evidence
531. Norman Borlaug began his research in
crop improvement in order to 536. What would be an economic benefit of
A. Feed more livestock quickly bioremediation in a coastal town that just
experienced an oil spill?
B. Feed the world’s growing population
C. Make the United States the wealthiest A. The cost of purified water will increase
country resulting in more revenue for the town.
D. Increase the price of wheat B. Water and land areas will be cleaned
of oil, encouraging more tourists to visit
532. Which situation is most likely to raise eth- the town and spend money there.
ical questions about using biotechnology?
C. The oil from the spill will be recovered
A. increased crop yields from bioremediation and used as fuel in
B. new vaccine development future.
C. increased job opportunities D. none of above

D. genetically modified food crops 537. Golden rice is a genetically modified or-
ganism that has high vitamin A content.
533. Which is not a purpose or benefit of SAEs
What is golden rice attempting to do?
A. Become established in an agriscience
occupation A. Grow rice in salty soil.
B. permit early graduation B. Grow rice under drought conditions.

C. permit individualized instruction C. Create rice that contains more nutri-
ents.
D. provide educational and practical ex-
periences D. Create better looking rice.

538. Before transgenic animals, farmers prac- 543. What should you do when shaking
ticed selective breeding. An example is: hands?

A. Kangaroo A. Grasp the other person’s fingertips
withyour fingertips.
B. Mule
B. Pump the other person’s hand ten
C. Gelding times.
D. Race Horse C. Use your left hand to pat the person on
theshoulder.
539. Which is a benefit of genetically-modified
foods? D. Maintain eye contact and a sincere
smile.
A. The cost of research is included in the
cost to the consumer 544. What living organism did the Egyptians
B. The cost of food decreases and the discover that made bread rise?
quality of food increases A. Helium
C. genetically modified foods won’t need B. Egg
to be studied C. Yeast
D. ”gmo’s” are completely resistant to D. Bacteria
disease and drought
545. Which is most important when investigat-
540. What is a product of biotechnology? ing ethical issues in biotechnology?
A. transgenic crop (GM crop) A. cost of the technology
B. humulin B. advantage of the technology
C. biofertilizer C. public opinion of the technology
D. All of these D. benefits of the technology outweighing
the harm
541. Which of the following is a preventative
measure, and is used before to prevent 546. Hippocrates was a Greek physician who
someone from getting sick? is known as the:
A. antibiotic resistance A. Father of Medicine.

B. Founder of Infection Control.
B. gene therapy
C. Greek Dr. Freud.
C. stem cells
D. Ancient Wonder of the World.
D. vaccines
547. Using microbes like bacteria to remove
542. Another name for GMO (Genetically Mod- harmful toxins from the environment is
ified Organsim) is called
A. Transgenic A. bioremediation
B. Transplanted B. transgenic
C. Transducted C. tissue culturing
D. Plasmid D. gene therapy

548. How is artificial selection different from 552. What is the function of phloem tissue?
genetic engineering? A. Transport water and minerals
A. Artificial selection is used to make ge- B. Support plants
netically identical copies of an organism,
C. Photosynthesis process occur
cell, or piece of genetic material
D. Transports glucose and other nutri-
B. Artificial selection does not directly ents
change a single organisms dna
553. Scientists have inserted a gene into a pop-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Artificial selection is not related to ge-
ulation of ants. This gene gives the ants
netics
immunity to a common insecticide (a chem-
D. Artificial selection is not an example of ical that kills insects). Which of the state-
biotechnology ments below best explains the impact of
inserting the gene for insecticide immunity
549. In which year, Dolly the first mammalian into the ant population?
clone was born?
A. The ant population will be more likely
A. 1995 to survive a drought.
B. 1997 B. The population of ants will be able to
be sprayed with the insecticide and re-
C. 1996
main unaffected.
D. 1998 C. The grasshoppers will learn to feed
in areas where no insecticides are being
550. How does biotechnology benefit energy
used.
production?
D. The insects will use more energy to re-
A. fossil fuels create pollution sist the insecticide which will cause a de-
B. biomass products are used to make cline in their population.
fuel for cars
554. All living things receive ALL their genetic
C. energy from the sun is used to make traits from their:
solar energy A. Parents.
D. none of above B. Mother.
551. North Carolina has over 400 biotechnol- C. Father.

ogy companies. How would the economy D. Brother.
most likely change if that number were re-
555. One of the goals of the Human Genome
duced by half?
Project is to
A. The economy would decline because of A. increase the number of genes in the
job loss. human genome
B. The economy would suffer as funding B. map the location of only the most im-
for research decreases. portant genes on each chromosome
C. The economy would increase due to an C. clone the entire human genome in bac-
increase in production. teria
D. The economy would improve when the D. determine the nucleotide sequence of
government offers assistance. the entire human genome

556. Biotechnology is working with , , A. Doctors would be able to tell patients

and to create useful products for soci- whether or not they would survive a dis-
ety. ease based on the patient’s DNA.

A. food, sun, water B. Knowing which drugs or treatments
worked best on specific genotypes would
B. cells, proteins, genes
help pinpoint treatments more quickly
C. dogs, sheep, pigs
C. It would allow doctors to alter a pa-
D. none of above tient’s genome so that he or she could
be treated more effectively with current
557. In what way is genetic engineering of drugs.
crops similar to the more traditional prac-
tice of artificial selection of crop varieties? D. Knowing the patient’s genome would
provide information about how long the
A. Both methods result in a crop that has treatment would take once the correct
some desirable characteristic. drug was identified.
B. Both techniques produce plants that
have higher yields than previously. 561. Which molecule provided by plants ac-
counts for the energy in an animal’s diet?
C. In both cases, two different crop
plants are crossed to develop a new one. A. glucose
D. In both procedures, genes from unre- B. protein

lated organisms can be added to the plant. C. salt
D. oxygen
558. Flu vaccine that is not a shot-it is a nasal
spray. 562. What do all forms of biotechnology have
A. Agriculture in common?
B. Industry A. They all involve modifying an organ-
ism’s genetic makeup
C. Environment
B. They all create intense public debate
D. Medicine
when they are first introduced.
559. Which technique would most likely be C. They all make use of living organisms
used by forensic scientists? to do a job or provide a service.
A. Cloning D. They all combine the use of machines
B. Gene Therapy with living organisms in some way.
C. DNA Fingerprinting 563. Which is the most useful change made to

crops using applications of biotechnology?
D. Karyotyping
A. Crops use more nutrients.
560. Treating most diseases involves a certain
B. Crops need more fertilizer.
amount of trial and error, because some
drugs or treatments are more effective for C. Crops resist more diseases.
some individuals than for others. How D. Crops take more time to grow.
could more precise information about vari-
ations within the human genome help doc- 564. Which is an ethical issue surrounding the
tors? use of genetically modified foods?

A. cost of production 569. What process occurs when bacteria are

B. long-term health effects used to clean up oil spills?
A. biomedication
C. ability to grow more nutritious foods
B. bioremediation
D. ability to produce a lot of food quickly
C. bioaccumulation
565. If you want to make a GM crop that is
D. none of above
purple, what is the first thing you need to
do?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
570. Which best represents a direct benefit
A. Find a plant that is naturally purple from biotechnology to agriculture during
an extended drought period?
B. Paint a plant purple
A. watering crops with a recycled-water
C. Use an enzyme to cut a gene out of a
irrigation system
plant
B. planting crops only in shaded areas
D. Use a virus to insert a gene into a plant
C. genetically modifying crops to be
566. Small section of DNA is called? stress-tolerant
A. DNA D. harvesting crops that have thick stems
and leaves
B. Gene
C. Clone 571. The technique that Sumerians used to pro-
duce beer and bread is called
D. Double Helix
A. Penicillin
567. Test strips that indicate the level of glu-
B. Fermentation
cose in the blood is which area of biotech?
C. Aviation
A. Environmental Biotechnology
D. Hybridization
B. Medical Biotechnology
C. Consumer Goods Biotechnology 572. Artificial selection, genetic engineering,
and cloning are examples of biotechnology.
D. Agricultural Biotechnology Which phrase best defines biotechnology?
568. Which of the following statements about A. the application of living things and bio-
biotechnology is not true? logical processes
A. Biotechnology is the use of nonliving B. the application of living things and bio-
substances to make living organisms or logical processes
parts of living organisms. C. the process of creating a genetically
B. Biotechnology causes an increase in identical organism, cell, or piece of ge-
job opportunities in the research field netic material
C. Biotechnology is a quickly growing D. the use of computer and other elec-
field with many questions and ethical is- tronic devices in the field of biology .
sues associated with it
573. What does the term economics refer to?
D. Biotechnology is the use of living or-
ganisms to produce food, drugs or other A. Health
items. B. Safety

C. Money C. Biomining
D. Ethics D. Composting

574. Which is a negative result of the use of 578. Studying Biotechnology is least likely to
biotechnology in agriculture? be helpful for which career?
A. Increased crop yields A. Agricultural Researcher
B. Reduction in pesticide use B. Pharmacist
C. Unknown side effects C. Auto Mechanic
D. Higher nutritional values D. Livestock Breeder
575. A farmer is presented with two options. 579. Biopesticides are microorganisms that do
One option is to use a genetically modi- not harm humans, animals, fish or birds,
fied corn plant and the other option is to but are:
use a non-genetically modified corn plant. A. Toxic to certain crop pests.
Which of the following questions would a B. Harmful if swallowed by livestock.
farmer ask to decide which corn plant to
use? C. Too expensive for use by most farm-
ers.
A. “If I use GMO corn, am I able to plant
D. Hard to grow in a laboratory.
them earlier in the year and grow them
later into the year because they are more 580. When animal feed products are enhanced
resistant to colder temperatures?” with proteins to boost nutrition and con-
B. “Will I be able to increase the amount trol disease it is an example of:
of corn I grow due to each plant producing A. Agricultural biotechnology.
more?”
C. “Will I be able to sell my corn for a ogy.
higher price to earn a higher profit be-
C. Environmental biotechnology.
cause it is a GMO corn?”
D. Medical biotechnology
D. “Will I be able to use less insecticides
because the corn will be more insect re- 581. Which project is MOST LIKELY to be
sistant?” worked on by a biotechnician?
576. Mobile genetic elements A. developing plants with resistance to
high temperatures
A. therapeutics
B. developing architectural designs for
B. transposons houses in floodplains
C. telophase C. discovering different isotopes of exist-
D. thyllakoid ing elements in the periodictable
D. designing lightweight, strong metallic
577. What process uses bacteria to eat away
alloys for use in carmanufacturing
at minerals, leaving the silver, copper and
gold behind? 582. The fertilized egg is termed a/an
A. Fermentation A. gamete
B. Bioremediation B. allele

C. homolog C. a drug that kills bacteria and slows

D. zygote their growth
D. a drug that kills viruses and slows their
583. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller growth
strands?
588. Identify the DELETION mutation from the
A. restriction enzymes following DNA sequence:ATG CCA AAT
B. scissors A. ATG TCA AAT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. ligase B. ATG CCT AAA T
D. agarose C. ATC CA AT
584. What type of job would a person who D. ATG CCA AAT
studied biotechnology in college be likely 589. Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cyto-
to have? sine are called?
A. A job making medicines A. Base Pairs
B. A job studying stars. B. Genes
C. A job studying the physical features on C. Double Helix
Earth. D. Chromosome
D. none of above 590. What is one of the pros of Herbicide use?
585. Which is what scientists think may be A. It makes weeding easier and cheaper
a disadvantage of genetically modifying for farmers
plants? B. It keeps animals away from crops
A. Plants will pass on diseases to animals C. Plants grow taller and stronger
B. There will be a decrease in biodiversity D. It makes more organic crops
C. Pesticide manufacturers might lose 591. Which is a question a scientist could in-
money vestigate using principles of biotechnol-
D. Plants will have a longer growing sea- ogy?
son A. How long can a wheat plant live with-
out water?
586. An example of a product developed
through biomanufacturing is: B. What are the effects of extreme cold
on wheat plants?
A. Canned beans.
C. Can wheat be genetically modified to
B. Pain medicine. be resistant to mold?
C. Soccer balls. D. Which variety of wheat tastes best
D. Hospital beds. when made into pasta?
587. What is an antibiotic? 592. “Trans” means:

A. ”Across”
A. a substance that changes the body’s
DNA B. ”New”
B. a substance that helps the body fight C. ”Different”
an infection D. ”Many”

593. Which food provides the most energy for 598. Which of these would be a concern about
the body in the shortest amount of time? the use of biotechnology?

A. potato A. creation of new pathogens
B. meat B. making of new vaccines
C. milk C. increased opportunities for jobs
D. fruit D. increased crop yield
599. Which of the following best describes a

594. Which DNA strands move the fastest
gene?
through the gel when the electricity is
turned on? A. A section of DNA
A. The long strands B. A bundle of DNA
B. The short strands C. Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of
genes
C. The medium strands
D. All of the genetic material in your cells
D. They all move the same
600. Customizing the genetic makeup of crops
595. Gel electrophoresis is used for so they can grow in dry or hot climates, is
A. Construction recombinant DNA by join- what area of biotech?
ing with cloning vectors A. Consumer Goods Biotechnology
B. Cutting of DNA into fragments B. Medical Biotechnology
C. separation of DNA fragments accord- C. Agricultural Biotechnology
ing to their size D. Medical Biotechnology
D. Isolation of DNA molecules
601. Hippocrates studied medicine in ancient
596. Which is an application of genetic engi- Greece. How did he think illness should
neering? be treated?
A. destroying all bacteria A. By praying to the ancient Gods

B. With chants, ringing bells and dance
B. creating synthetic insulin
C. With rest, a good diet, fresh air and
C. producing cells from nonliving mate-
cleanliness
rial
D. By bleeding the victim to release the
D. preventing weeds from spreading to
bad spirits
farmland
602. Human cells need energy to survive.
597. Which term is not related to the word From which source does this energy orig-
“agriculture”? inally come?
A. farming A. plants
B. crops B. animals
C. cultivation C. sunlight
D. physics D. water

603. Influenza is caused by 609. Why would a scientist put a microorgan-

A. a virus ism in a culture?
B. fungus A. To look at the DNA
C. parasite B. To manufacture fats
D. bacterium C. To break apart chromosomes
D. To grow the microorganism
604. A disease caused by mutation in the ge-
netic material or DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
610. The manipulation of DNA is called
A. Cloning Disease A. Genetic engineering
B. Mutant disease B. Karyotype
C. Genetic disease C. Plasmid
D. All of the Above D. Gel electrophoresis
605. Which careers are most closely related to 611. Which would most likely result in the
biotechnology? largest economic benefit to North Car-
A. Construction and engineering olina?
B. Water treatment and electricity gener- A. North Carolina partnering with farm-
ation ers for use of agricultural biotechnology
C. Medicine and agriculture B. North Carolina being a lead consumer
D. Communication and information tech- state in pharmaceutical manufacturing
nology C. North Carolina making the world’s
best-trained workforce for biomanufac-
606. Endonuclease which cleaves dsRNA is
turing
A. ricer
D. North Carolina making a long-standing
B. dicer commitment to biotechnology develop-
C. RISC ment
D. slicer 612. creating an exact genetic duplicate of an-
607. Which of the following traits is not the other organism
most common one in GM foods? A. cloning/micropropagation
A. Stay fresh longer B. gene mapping
B. Resist insects C. biofuels
C. Tolerate herbicides D. base pairs
D. Resist viruses
613. Many countries in the world eat a diet
608. The colour of flower is due to the pres- that consists mostly of rice. While this
ence of type of food is filling, it does not provide
A. Chlorophyll much nutritional value. Which of these
biotechnologies could be used to create
B. Xanthophylls more nutritional rice?
C. Florigen A. Genetic engineering of current rice
D. Chromoplast or anthocyanin plants

B. Growing more and eating more cur- D. by producing faster ways to harvest
rent rice plants crops

C. Cloning of current rice plants
619. Rice is the common diet in many devel-
D. Antibiotics delivered to the rice plants oping countries, but is low in nutritional
value. Which one of these biotechnologies
614. What process was used in prehistoric
could be the best option in creating a more
times to make cheese and wine?
nutritional rice?
A. Bioremediation
A. selective breeding of current rice
B. Composting plants
C. Fermentation B. cloning of current rice plants
D. Lactation C. using a nitrogen rich fertilizer
615. What is a risk of GMOs? D. genetic modification of current rice
A. Radioactive plants
B. Food that taste too good 620. Biotechnology uses a procedure called ge-
C. the long term effects are unknown netic engineering. Which best describes ge-
netic
D. produce too much food
A. making artificial DNA in the laboratory
616. Which genes would most likely be in- from chemicals
serted into a crop to aid in its survival
B. cutting out pieces of DNA from an or-
against insects and low temperatures?
A. freeze resistance and decreased yield
C. adding DNA from one organism into
B. freeze resistance and pest resistance the DNA of another organism
C. heat resistance D. none of above
D. drought resistance
621. Regions containing actively dividing cells.
617. uses biotechnology to improve how
A. Phloem
we produce food and fiber.
B. Guard Cells
A. Agricultural Biotechnology
B. Medical Biotechnology C. Meristem
C. Environmental Biotechnology D. Xylem
D. Consumer Goods Biotechnology 622. Crop biotechnology involves genetic mod-

ification techniques for the purpose of:
618. How has genetic engineering helped
farming? A. Increasing the amount of time it takes
for crops to grow.
A. by developing better fertilizer for
crops B. Growing vaccines and other plant-
produced drugs.
B. by creating crops that resist some dis-
eases C. Improving the yield and quality of food.
C. by producing soil that makes crops D. Growing plants without water or oxy-
grow better gen.

623. What is plant biotechnology? A. The pig lives to adulthood

A. Adding chemicals to foods to preserve B. The pig does not have any seizures
them.
C. The pig?s offspring inherit the new
B. Making synthetic foods using artificial, gene
manmade proteins.
D. The pig is able to reproduce
C. Inserting a gene with a beneficial trait
into a plant cell. 628. All of the following are benefits of GMOs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Taking immature plants and adding except
steroids to make them grow bigger and A. pest resistant crops
stronger.
B. unknown long term health effects
624. Which of the following is not an example C. more nutritional foods
of a transgenic organism?
A. taking a gene for flying and putting it
into a lizard 629. What are some benefits of Biotechnol-
B. placing an eel gene coding for fast ogy?
growth into a fish A. It can improve health and reduce
C. combining a gene from a strawberry hunger simultaneously.
and a banana B. It creates flexibility within the food
D. taking a lion and mating it with a tiger chain.
to make a liger
C. It offers medical advancement oppor-
625. Which is a career that would use microor- tunities.
ganisms to remove pollutants from wa- D. All of the above
ter?
A. medical specialist 630. Which of the following is an application
of agricultural biotechnology?
B. DNA fingerprint specialist
A. genetic testing and screening
C. Environmental Protection Agency spe-
cialist B. vaccine therapy
D. Center for Disease Control C. transgenic crops
D. genetically engineered enzymes
626. The way that crimes are solved today
was affected by which of the following
631. What is biotechnology?
technologies?
A. The history and experiences of techno-
A. gene therapy
logical advances
B. DNA fingerprinting
B. Using living organisms to modify pro-
C. genetic testing cesses and create new products
D. Genetic modification C. Living in a world where technology is
everywhere
627. Scientists in a lab attempt to create a
transgenic pig. How can they tell if they D. Creating new social media sites for liv-
were truly successful? ing organism

632. Which is an agricultural benefit of 637. Which statement is true of genetically al-
biotechnology in North Carolina? tered foods?

A. farmers’ growing cost of fuel A. Genetically altered foods have been
B. farmers growing smaller vegetables proven to be harmful for human consump-
tion.
C. farmers growing longer lasting vegeta-
bles B. No human should ever eat a genet-
D. none of above ically altered food product until further
testing is done.
633. Through the use of biotechnology, cotton
C. All foods would be of more value if ge-
crops have been developed so they are re-
netically altered, as they would not be sub-
sistant to the boll weevil. Which would be
ject to disease or weather hazards.
the most likely effect in North Carolina?
A. The quality of the cotton would de- D. Genetically altered foods can effec-
crease. tively increase the human food supply but
should be clearly labeled, allowing free
B. Less cotton would be grown and har- choice in consumption.
vested.
C. More money would be spent on insec- 638. Which is the primary source of energy for
ticides. most cells in the body?
D. Each acre of land would have a higher A. Sugar
yield of cotton.
B. Fat
634. RNA interference is a method of cellular C. Protein
defence mechanism in
D. Vitamin
A. eukaryotes
B. prokaryotes 639. What agricultural worker works primar-
C. bacteria ily with plants?
D. cyanobacteria A. Geneticist
B. Horticulturist
635. This is the practice of producing a geneti-
cally identical cell or organism C. Animal breeder
A. Cloning D. First line supervisor
B. Gel Electrophoresis
640. How can biotechnology help farmers
C. Genetic Engineering overcome sudden changes in the global cli-
D. DNA Fingerprinting mate?
636. Using living things or parts of living A. by changing the types of soil in which
things to make a product or solve a prob- the crops are planted
lem: B. by developing crops that are resistant
A. biotechnology to adverse weather
B. biological evolution C. by rotating the crops within the same
C. geological evolution field
D. transgenic D. by only planting crops in the winter

641. Which of the following are in the correct 646. A/an “ “ gene is introduced into the
order? patient to replace an “ “ disease caus-
ing gene.
A. proteins determine traits → genes
code for proteins → DNA divided into A. normal - abnormal
genes B. good - bad
B. proteins determine traits → DNA di- C. abnormal - normal
vided into genes → genes code for pro-
teins D. bad - good
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. DNA divided into genes → proteins de- 647. The process of creating an exact copy of
termine traits → genes code for proteins the parent plant.
D. DNA divided into genes → genes code A. crossbreeding
for proteins → proteins determine traits B. cloning
642. bt toxin is coded by which genes C. genetic modification
A. cry D. gene splicing
B. iac 648. Which of these careers would a student

studying biotechnology most likely pur-
C. lap
sue?
D. noy
A. electrical engineering
643. Which of these has to do with genetic B. astronomy
modification? C. agricultural research
A. Crossbreeding D. geology
B. Kidney surgery
649. What did Gregor Mendel use to conduct
C. Gene deletion his experiments?
D. use of herbicides A. Wisconsin Fast Plants
644. Making Lactaid®milk products with the B. Pea plants

enzyme lactase, is which are of biotech? C. Mice
A. Agricultural Biotechnology D. Daisies
B. Consumer goods biotechnology 650. What is the process by which microor-
C. Medical Biotechnology ganisms to change harmful chemicals into
harmless ones called?
D. Environmental Biotechnology
A. eutrophication
645. What two types of asexual reproduction B. bioremediation
are the MOST similar?
C. chemosynthesis
A. Runners and tissue cultures
D. cellular respiration
B. Bulb and corms
651. Which process uses oxygen and food
C. Clones and cell cultures
molecules to produce energy for animal
D. Rhizomes and cuttings cells.

A. digestion 656. What statement about leadership is

B. glycolysis true?

C. cellular respiration A. Leaders praise and give credit to oth-
ers
D. photosynthesis
B. Effective leaders are born that way
652. Mr. McNeice wanted to know if differ-
ent types of music affected people’s heart C. The president or chairperson is always
rates, so he played different music and the leader
checked their pulses. What is the depen- D. A leader is always chosen by others in
dent variable? an election
A. type of music
657. Which of the following statements be-
B. heart rate low is accurate describing the difference
C. how long they listend to music between adult and embryonic stem cells?
D. Mr. McNeice A. Adult stem cells can become a lim-
ited number of cell types while embryonic
653. Which would least likely be a result of
stem cells can become any cell type.
biotechnology in agriculture?
A. increase in soil erosion B. Adult stem cells are found in embryos
while embryonic stem cells are found in
B. decrease in use of pesticide adults.
C. increase in nutritional value of food
C. Adult stem cells can become any cell
D. decrease in amount of land used for type while embryonic stem cells can be-
farmland come a limited number of cell types.
654. How are plant and animal cells the same? D. There is no difference between embry-
A. They can produce their own oxygen. onic stem cells and adult stem cells.
B. They can make their own food from 658. Development of agriscience skills is im-
sunlight. portant because
C. They can receive nutrients through the A. a skill inventory is part of a career port-
cell wall. folio
D. They use mitochondria to release en- B. personal agriscience skills help iden-
ergy from sugars tify career interests
655. Which is a concern of scientists when ge- C. skills lead to part time jobs
netically modifying plants?
D. all of the above
A. Plants will pass on diseases to ani-
mals. 659. Which food is most likely a product of
B. There will be a decrease in biodiver- biotechnology today?
sity. A. potato
C. Plants will have a longer growing sea-
B. chicken
son.
C. beef
D. There will be a decrease in revenue for
pesticide manufacturers. D. corn

660. Which is a disadvantage of the use of 665. ONE cell from a carrot taproot is put into
biotechnology in agriculture? a tube of water with plant nutrients, and
can regenerate into an entire plant. This is
A. increased crop yields
an example of a:
B. reduction in pesticide use
A. Clone.
C. unknown side effects B. Runner.
D. higher nutritional values C. Cell culture.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
661. All of the following are biotechnology D. Throat culture.
tools except 666. What is the biggest negative to using
A. Protein cloned crops?
B. DNA A. Disease could wipe out an entire crop
C. Cells B. All the plants would look the same

C. You are increasing genetic variation
D. Crystals
D. There are no negatives to using cloned
662. The process of fermentation uses microor- crops
ganisms to decompose carbohydrates,
which means to: 667. Test Strips that indicate the level of glu-
cose in the blood.
A. Feed them.
A. Agriculture
B. Cause them to multiple.
B. Industry
C. Change them to proteins. C. Environment
D. Break them down. D. Medicine
663. In 1988, Congress funded the Human 668. Which lunch choice is best for a healthy
Genome Project, a massive effort to: lifestyle?
A. Research the use of gene therapy to A. hamburger
treat immune disorders. B. turkey sandwich
B. Perform DNA fingerprinting on all crim- C. fried fish sandwich
inals.
D. pizza
C. Clone farm animals.
669. When an electrical current is used to sep-
D. Map the human genetic code. arate a mixture of DNA
664. The characteristics of plasmids being used A. electricity
as a cloning vector are: B. restriction maps
A. It should have many origin of replica- C. gel electrophoresis
tion D. electron map
B. It should have a selectable marker
670. Which of these is used as a vector to in-
C. It should have no restriction sites sert new DNA into an organism?
D. None of the above A. Enzymes

4.5 Seed Technology 861
B. Yeast D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil

C. Viruses spills.

D. Plants 673. An example of biotechnology being used
as a nutritional application is
671. Which of the following is not a concern of
A. biodegredable plastics
biotechnology?
B. industrial strength fibers
A. Ethics concerns with cloning humans.
C. xenotransplantation
B. Health concerns about eating geneti-
cally modified foods. D. golden rice
C. Concerns that we will harvest too 674. What characteristic is MOST LIKELY bred
much food for the global population. for in grapes?
D. Environmental concerns of releasing A. Cost
genetically modified organisms into an B. Seedlessness
ecosystem.
C. Bruising
672. Which of the below biotechnological ad- D. Carbohydrates
vances is MOST beneficial to North Car-
olina FARMERS? 675. Which molecule from humans is inserted
into bacteria to cause them to produce in-
A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi-
sulin?
nals.
A. DNA
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be
more nutritious. B. Lipids
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live C. Proteins

longer. D. Carbohydrates
4.5 Seed Technology

1. Difference between seed and grain is 3. Hilum of seed is
A. seed processing A. Scar of funiculus
B. genetic purity B. Scar of micropyle
C. seed quality C. Area through which pollen tube enters

the ovule
D. Cost
D. Glandular and attractant region of
2. A seed which is unable to germinate in the ovule
presence of light is 4. Foundation seed production is taken up by
A. Viscum A. Qualified breeder
B. Bean B. Originating breeder
C. Onion C. Seed corporations
D. Maize D. Scientists of ICAR

5. Epigeal germination occurs in 11. In exalbumious seed the food is generally

A. Castor stored in
A. endosperm initially but hypocotyls
B. pea
later on
C. Gram
B. endosperm from the beginning
D. Maize C. cotyledons
6. What is the source of foundation seed? D. Testa
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Nucleus seed 12. For bajra, recommended size of submitted
B. Breeder seed sample for Grow-out Test is
A. 1000 g
C. Foundation seed
B. 200 g
D. Certified seed
C. 500 g
7. An endospermic seed is D. 100 g
A. Pea
13. Integumentary outgrowth present over
B. Gram the micropyle of castor is
C. Castor A. Aril
D. Bean B. Chalaza
C. Caruncle
8. No. of plants / heads per count required
for castor D. Wing
A. 1000 plants 14. A dicot exalbuminous seed is
B. 200 plants A. castor
C. 500 plants B. rice
D. 100 plants C. wheat
D. Pea
9. the hormone which can break seed dor-
mancy is 15. In exalbumious seeds, there is
A. coumarin A. Consumption of endosperm during de-
velopment of seed
B. ferulic acid
B. Abundant protein
C. ABA
C. Nonformation of endosperm
D. GA
D. Abundant formation of endosperm
10. the first process which occurs when the 16. Sample received from other than seed cer-
seed is placed in the soil is tification agencies and seed inspectors is
A. Imbibitions A. Service sample
B. photosynthesis B. Certified sample
C. respiration C. Official sample
D. solubilisation of food D. Working sample

17. Minimum standards for genetic purity for B. Endocarp

certified seed is C. endosperm

A. 100
D. Aril
B. 98
C. 99 21. Cotyledon is absent in
D. 95 A. Polygonum
B. cuscutta
18. What is the colour of nucleus seed?
A. No tag C. santalum
B. Golden yellow D. shorea

C. Azure blue 22. The seed in which dormancy can be broken
D. White by red light is
19. During germiantion, micropyle of seed A. Pea

takes part in B. Lettuce
A. Absorption of water C. Gram
B. Forming weak for emergence of radi- D. castor
cle
C. passage of gases 23. Outer seed coat is
D. leaching inhibitors A. Funiculus

B. Tegmen
20. The remnants of nucellus present in the
seed constitute C. Hilum
A. perisperm D. Testa

5. Pathology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.1 Principles of Plant Pathology
1. In which phase of growth curve, the cells C. Thrips
undergoing division is equal to the number D. Green Leafhopper
of cell death?
A. lag phase 5. Pathogen can survive in
A. Crop residue
B. log phase
B. weeds
C. stationary phase
C. seeds
D. decline phase
D. all of these
2. In which technique, the ‘L rod’ is used?
6. Tomato spotted wilt virus is transmitted
A. streak plate method by
B. spread plate method A. Aphids
C. serial dilution method B. Whitefly
D. pour plate method C. Thrips
3. Pick up the odd one. D. Green Leafhopper
A. Amphitrichous 7. What is a pure culture?
B. Ammonotrichus A. a mixed group of colonies
C. Lophotrichous B. a group of few dis-similar bacteria
D. Peritrichous C. a colony of single bacterium
D. only one bacterium
4. Indian Cassava Mosaic virus is transmitted
by 8. Rice tungro virus is transmitted by
A. Aphids A. Aphids
B. Whitefly B. Whitefly

5.1 Principles of Plant Pathology 865
C. Thrips 15. Which plant pathogen structure is delicate,

D. Green Leafhopper threadlike filaments called hyphae

A. fungi
9. Bhendi Yellow Vein Mosaic virus is trans-
mitted by B. nematodes
A. Aphids C. algae
B. Whitefly
D. virus
C. Thrips
D. Leafhopper 16. In Resazurin quality test for milk
colour indicates excellent quality milk
10. Find out the advantage of turbidostat de-
vice? A. Blue
A. open culture device B. Pink
B. photoelectric device C. Purple
C. no need for current supply
D. White
D. cell density increases
17. Banana Bunchytop virus is transmitted by
11. Plant pathogen includes
A. fungi A. Aphids
B. bacteria B. Whitefly
C. viruses C. Thrips
D. all the above D. Green Leafhopper
12. What is the shape of Bacillus cereus
18. Find out the correct choice of events of ‘lag
A. Diplococci
phase’?
B. Spirochetes
A. start synthesising the necessary pro-
C. Coccobacilli teins and start dividing
D. Single rods
B. cellular metabolism is accelerated and
13. Mention the different sources of potable start dividing
water
C. adapt to the environment
A. ground water
D. cellular metabolism is accelerated and
B. snow pack water the cells are increasing in size
C. spring water
D. all of these 19. Visible effects of disease on plants are
called
14. Bacterial ooze is an example of
A. Signs
A. Signs
B. symptoms
B. symptoms
C. both C. both
D. none D. none

5.2 Microbiology agriculture 866
20. Pasteurization is heating every particle of D. discontinuous culture

milk to 0c to 30 minutes.
22. What is the other name for fermenter?
A. 73
A. Oxidation pond
B. 63
B. bioreactor
C. 53
C. biosensor
D. 103
D. Oximeter
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. Among the following, in which culture tech-
nique the chance of contamination is mini- 23. Water purification can be done using
mum? A. sugar
A. batch culture B. salt
B. fed-batch culture C. vinegar
C. continuous culture D. liquid chlorine bleach.
5.2 Microbiology agriculture

1. Studying biotechnology is most likely to be 4. Which of these is best described as a pan-
useful for which career? demic?
A. computer scientist A. A student catches the flu from her
B. nuclear physicist younger brother.
C. agricultural researcher B. Three members of a soccer team come

down with the flu.
D. archaeologist
C. Dozens of people in two neighboring
2. Why are people encouraged to get the flu towns have flu at the same time.
shot? D. Tens of millions of people worldwide
A. A flu shot is a vaccine that prevents are infected with flu in the same year.
people from catching the flu.
5. Which type of microbe generally affects
B. A flu shot is an antibiotic that kills bac- the skin?
teria in the human body.
A. Bacteria
C. A flu shot is an antiviral that slows
down the multiplication of viruses in cells. B. Viruses
D. A flu shot is a chemical that kills para- C. Fungi
sites in the human body. D. Protists
3. Which process releases energy from food 6. Which is an example of biotechnology?
molecules?
A. developing hydropower energy
A. meiosis sources
B. photosynthesis B. studying how viruses cause diseases
C. cellular respiration C. developing crop plants that are resis-
D. symbiosis tant to weed killers

D. using bioindicators to monitor water B. antibiotic

quality
C. anti-bacterial

7. What cell structure controls which materi- D. none of above
als enter or leave a cell?
A. nucleus 12. Why do doctors suggest that people get a
B. cytoplasm flu vaccine each year?
C. cell membrane A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over

time.
D. vacuole
B. Viruses can mutate from year to year.
8. Examples of bacterial diseases
C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af-
A. Strep throat, pneumonia, leprosy, tu-
ter a year.
berculosis, Lyme disease
B. Athletes foot, ring worm, candida, jock D. Vaccines get stronger over time.
itch
13. Which best describes a beneficial relation-
C. Influenza (flu), common cold, chicken- ship between biotechnology and NC farm-
pox. measles, AIDS, yellow fever ers?
D. tick, flea, tapeworm, mosquito, leech,
A. Improvements in biotechnology is
lice, bedbug
making farming unnecessary.
9. Bacteria that live in habitats that lack oxy- B. Improvements in biotechnology help
gen are called what? plants become more disease resistant, in-
A. aerobic creasing farmers’ profits.
B. pathogens C. Improvements in biotechnology create
C. anaerobic crops that pose biological threats for con-
sumers, hurting farmers’ profits.
D. fungi
D. Biotechnology research leads to a de-
10. A form of genetic modification in which a creasing need for traditional food sources
gene from one organism is inserted into because synthetic food can be produced
the DNA of another organism. Exam- instead.
ple:human gene for making insulin inserted
into the DNA of bacteria 14. Which best explains how a virus affects
A. Crossbreeding other organisms?
B. Kidney surgery A. Viruses increase the survival of other
C. Gene splicing organisms.
D. use of herbicides B. Viruses immediately destroy all cells
they come in contact with.
11. Juan’s doctor diagnoses him with a virus,
then writes a prescription for a medica- C. Viruses live and reproduce in between
tion. What type of medication did the doc- the cells of other organisms.
tor probably give Juan? D. Viruses invade the cells of other organ-
A. anti-viral isms, using them to reproduce.

15. Which has had the greatest impact on pre- 20. Under which condition is a person most
venting epidemics in the twenty-first cen- likely to contract E. coli poisoning? (E coli
tury? is a bacterium)
A. immunizations A. eating burnt pork
B. new medicines B. eating unhealthy food
C. good hygiene C. eating undercooked beef
D. insurance D. eating transgender chicken
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. Examples of fungal diseases
16. Why do doctors suggest that people get a
flu vaccine every year? A. Strep throat, pneumonia, leprosy, tu-
berculosis, Lyme disease
A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over
time. B. Athletes foot, ring worm, candida, jock
itch
B. Viruses can mutate from year to year.
C. Influenza (flu), common cold, chicken-
C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af- pox. measles, AIDS, yellow fever
ter a year.
D. tick, flea, tapeworm, mosquito, leech,
D. Vaccines get stronger over time. lice, bedbug
17. Which of the following is needed as a re- 22. Which best explains why a contagious dis-
actant for cellular respiration? ease is likely to become an epidemic?
A. carbon dioxide A. failure to follow safety rules when han-
B. oxygen dling bacteria
C. water B. lack of understanding as to how the

disease is spread
D. chlorophyll
C. creation of supergerms due to the
18. Lyme disease is spread by ticks and peo- overuse of antibiotics
ple affected with Lyme disease often ex- D. none of above
hibit a rash and symptoms similar to the
flu. Which is the cause of Lyme disease? 23. Which explains why a fungus attaches to
a host?
A. fungi
A. The fungus provides hydration to the
B. virus host.
C. bacterium B. The fungus acquires nutrients from the
D. none of above host.
C. The fungus injects the host with a toxin
19. Organism that is genetically engineered by when it attaches.
inserting a gene from another organism.
D. The fungus cannot survive without an-
A. bacteria other living organism.
B. forensics
24. Which of the following reproduces by in-
C. transgenic organism jecting its genetic material into a host cell?
D. penicillin A. parasite

B. virus 29. Which of the following reproduce through

C. bacterium binary fission?

A. virus
D. microorganism
B. parasites
25. Which was the BEST way to prevent the
C. fungus
spread of pathogens?
D. bacteria
A. Wear gloves while outside
B. Educate the public about disease 30. Which statement about fungi is not true?
transmission A. All fungi are multicellular.
C. Wash hands frequently with antibacte- B. All fungi are heterotrophic.
rial soap C. All fungi are poisonous.
D. Stay at home during flu season when- D. Fungi are important to our ecosystems
ever possible because they serve as decomposers.
26. Which is the best method for preventing a 31. A city has an outbreak of a disease that af-
parasitic disease? fects an unusually large portion of its pop-
A. vaccination ulation at the same time. Which term best
describes the outbreak?
B. wearing a mask
A. pandemic
C. limiting physical contact with others
B. plague
D. avoiding contaminated food and water
C. epidemic
27. Which best explains why researchers are D. infection
working to improve microbial drugs?
32. The overuse of antibiotics has MOST
A. Microbes are becoming more resistant
LIKELY resulted in the development of re-
to current drugs.
sistant strains of which organisms?
B. Microbes are learning to detect cur-
A. bacteria
rent drugs and avoid them.
B. fungi
C. Microbes are growing too large to be
stopped by drugs. C. protozoa
D. Scientists want to make more money. D. viruses
33. Which best describes a controversial con-

28. Which best describes the size of a virus
cern associated with genetically modified
compared to the size of bacteria?
crops?
A. Bacteria are small, while viruses are
A. the use of genetically modified crops
larger.
to increase potential crop yield
B. Bacteria are large, while viruses are
B. the short-term use of genetically mod-
larger.
ified crops in famine-stricken countries
C. Bacteria are small, while viruses are C. the development of genetically modi-
smaller. fied crops which are resistant to herbi-
D. none of above cides

D. the long-term effects which may arise B. Caynobacteria

from the use of genetically modified crops
C. Cyiobacteria
34. Which vector could lead to a malaria epi-
D. Cyenobacteria
demic?
A. mosquitoes 40. How is Lyme disease transmitted from an
B. bats infected mouse to a human?
C. flies A. A tick that feeds on the mouse then
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above bites the human.
B. The human breathes in dust containing
35. Which helps humans to resist an infectious
dried urine from the mouse.
disease?
A. heredity C. The infected mouse bites the human.
B. immunity D. The human cleans the litter box of a pet
C. vectors cat that ate the mouse.
D. none of above 41. Which type of microbe can be treated with

36. Fungi has a cell wall composed of what? antibiotics?
A. Peptidoglycan A. Bacteria
B. Chitin B. Viruses
C. Cellulose C. Fungi
D. Protists
37. What do you call an organism that causes
diseases 42. Which is the final product of meiosis?
A. toxin A. 2 cells, each with the same number of
B. pathogen chromosomes as the parent cell
C. microscopic B. 4 cells, each with the same number of
D. protozoa chromosomes as the parent cell
C. 2 cells, each with half as many chromo-
38. Using living organisms in a useful way to
somes as the parent cell
produce commercial products like pest re-
sistant crops. D. 4 cells, each with half as many chromo-
A. protein somes as the parent cell
B. bioremediation
43. Mushrooms are a type of what?
C. forensics
A. bacteria
D. biotechnology
B. virus
39. Other name of algae, believed to be the
origins of green land plants. C. protozoa
A. Cyanobacteria D. fungi

44. Why do some antibiotics become ineffec- C. protein

tive over time?
D. forensics

A. because they only kill certain viruses
B. because they mutate before being 50. Branch of biotechnology that alters the
used genes in biological organisms to achieve a
medicinal or agricultural purpose.
C. Because they are overused for treat-
ments A. genetic modification
D. because they only work a few hours a B. sexual reproduction
day
C. bioremediation
45. Which microorganism could trigger an D. selective breeding
asthma attack in a child?
A. bacteria 51. Which of the following roots is in the word
B. fungi agriculture?
C. virus A. agri
D. none of above B. amyl
46. This root means to touch C. a, an
A. aph D. alg
B. aqu
52. Deer Ticks are vectors for Lyme disease.
C. arteri What type of pathogen is Lyme disease
D. ase A. fungal
47. Protozoa are divided based on their mode B. bacterial
of locomotion, which of the following is
C. viral
FALSE?
A. Flagellates have a whip like structure D. transphobia
B. Ciliates have a tiny hair 53. An organism in the earliest stage of devel-
C. Amoeboids have false feet opment.
D. Sporozoans are motile A. DNA
48. Which environmental conditions contribute B. cell
MOST to the spread of bacteria. C. embryo
A. cold temperatures and low humidity
D. bacteria
B. warm temperatures and low humidity
C. cold temperatures and high humidity 54. The root in the word amphibian means
D. warm temperatures and high humidity A. field, soil
49. Scientific study of crime scene evidence. B. both

A. bacteria C. change
B. cloning D. high

55. Which is a distinction between an epidemic 60. What is the most common method by
and a pandemic? which AIDS is spread?
A. the symptoms of the disease A. animal bites
B. the geographical area affected B. contaminated food
C. the species infected C. shared body fluids

D. none of above
D. the season when the disease spreads
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. What do all viruses need to reproduce?
56. Which is the best way to treat athlete’s
foot? A. They need insulin
B. They need a host cell
A. antibiotic
C. They need bacteria
B. vaccine
D. none of above
C. fungus-killing medicine
D. antiviral medicine 62. How are viruses different from most other
microbes?
57. Antibiotics would be LEAST useful against A. They can cause disease
which type of disease-causing organism? B. Only seen with a microscope
A. bacteria C. They contain genetic material
B. fungus D. They are nonliving
C. parasite 63. Which process best describes how pure-
D. virus bred dogs have produced?
A. cloning
58. Which is the easiest way for a person to
prevent microbial infections? B. selective breeding
A. Avoid contact with animals. C. cross-breeding

D. creating hybrids in a lab
B. Isolate themselves at home.
C. Sterilize everything in the home. 64. How do animals obtain the carbon and ni-
trogen they need for building materials?
D. Wash hands frequently with hot water
and soap. A. by eating food
B. by breathing
59. Humans occasionally become infected with C. by performing photosynthesis
common colds and flu after flying on
crowded airplanes. Which microscopic bi- D. by performing cellular respiration
ological hazard is MOST LIKELY responsi-
65. Which term refers to the spread of disease
ble?
in a small region?
A. food-borne bacteria A. antibiotic
B. airborne contagions B. epidemic
C. vector-born parasites C. pandemic
D. environmental mutagens D. parasitic

66. The study of the function and diversity of B. People do not develop an immunity to
microbes in their natural environment. a virus and can be infected over and over.

A. Plant microbiology C. There are many kinds of viruses that
B. Environmental Microbiology cause colds and the person can be in-
fected by different cold viruses each time.
C. Soil microbiology
D. People share food and drinks more of-
D. Agricultural Microbiology ten than they think.
67. Which type of microbe is the smallest?
72. Examples of viral diseases
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses berculosis, Lyme disease
C. Fungi B. Athletes foot, ring worm, candida, jock
D. Protists itch
68. Many diseases transmitted by vectors
pox. measles, AIDS, yellow fever
lead to the death of millions of people
in the world. Which best explains why D. tick, flea, tapeworm, mosquito, leech,
African countries are harder hit than other lice, bedbug
regions of the world?
73. Are non-cellular entities that consist of a
A. increased number of insects nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein
B. increased climatic variations coat.
C. increased pressure from human activ- A. Bacteria
ities B. Fungi
D. none of above C. Protozoa
69. Found in the nucleus of all living cells; D. Virus
carries the organism’s hereditary informa-
tion. 74. Humans with HIV can transmit HIV virus
to other humans even though they do not
A. DNA show the symptoms of the disease. which
B. cell term BEST describes the unaffected individ-
C. embryo uals?
D. cloning A. carrier
B. contagion
70. Which type of microbe is not a living thing?
C. mutagen
A. Bacteria
D. vector
B. Viruses
C. Fungi 75. What is the function of the mitochondria?
D. Protists A. to make food
71. Why can a person catch a cold many times? B. to make proteins
A. Changes in weather conditions can C. to release energy

cause a person to get a cold. D. to store proteins

76. Which is the most effective defense 81. This root means to have the character of
against the chicken pox virus?
A. al
A. antibiotics
B. alb
B. diet
C. amyl
C. vaccines
D. alg
D. none of above
82. Making a genetically identical copy of DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
77. A mosquito that transmits malaria from or of an organism.
one person to another is
A. DNA
A. a bacterium
B. cell
B. a parasite
C. cloning
C. an infection
D. protein
D. a vector
83. A reproduction cycle of a specific bacterium
78. Health department officials are trying to
in ideal conditions is 10 minutes. As-
identify the source of an outbreak of an in-
suming that the conditions are ideal, how
testinal virus. Which is the MOST LIKELY
many bacteria are present after 2 hours?
source of the virus?
A. 20
A. polluted air
B. 200
B. lack of exercise
C. 1024
C. contaminated water
D. 4096
D. poor nutritional habits
79. Which is a possible result of overusing an- 84. Which of the following is a primary way
timicrobial substance? in which proteins are used in the body?
A. decreased number of disease-causing A. Proteins form a layer of insulation.

viruses B. Proteins help the body lose weight.
B. increase number of disease- causing C. Proteins provide materials for growth
bacteria. and repair.
C. increased number of antibiotic- D. Proteins provide a quick energy
resistant bacteria source.
D. increased number of antibiotic-
sensitive bacteria 85. A scientist examining a specimen in a mi-
croscope sees that it is a single-celled mi-
80. Which tool is most responsible for prevent- croorganism. What does the scientist ob-
ing future pandemics of smallpox? serve?
A. worldwide vaccinations for smallpox A. bacteria
B. global education about smallpox B. virus
C. better worldwide sanitation C. fungi
D. improved global quarantine facilities D. none of above

86. How do viruses differ from other disease- 91. Given favorable conditions, which disease-
causing organisms? causing agent could quickly multiply into
colonies of billions of cells in the space of

A. Viruses can be treated with antibi-
otics. a drop of water?
A. bacteria
B. Viruses are transmitted through
coughing or sneezing. B. fungi
C. Viruses are not made up of cells. C. protists
D. Viruses multiply inside infected cells. D. viruses
92. This microbes differ from true bacte-
87. The practice of farming.
ria in their cell wall structure and
A. selective breeding lack peptidoglycan. Have the follow-
B. agriculture ing groups:methanogen, halophiles, ther-
mophiles, and psychrophiles.
C. bioremediation
A. Bacteria
D. cloning
B. Fungi
88. This root means water C. Archaea
A. aqu D. Protozoa
B. apo 93. Which type of microbe can be prevented
C. ate with vaccines?
D. ase A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
89. How can the rate of an infectious disease
be drastically reduced? C. Fungi
A. by taking medication daily D. Protists
B. by preventing transmission between 94. Which characteristic makes bacteria suit-

people able for scientific research of disease?
C. by wearing clean clothing daily A. They are multicellular.
D. by performing dental hygiene three B. They reproduce rapidly.
times each day C. They keep virus populations under con-
trol.
90. Which would have MOST LIKELY occurred
if antibiotics had not been discovered? D. They grow in four stages allowing
growth control.
A. All people would have bacterial in-
fecitons. 95. Which would be least effective in prevent-
ing the spread of a disease-causing organ-
B. All people would have died from bacte-
ism?
rial infections.
A. using vaccines
C. There would have been decreased nat-
ural immunity to bacteria. B. decreasing pesticide use
D. There would have been an increased C. using antibiotics
number of childhood deaths. D. none of above

96. Which leads to the conclusion that strep C. common cold

throat is a bacterial infection? D. Lyme disease
A. Strep throat is treated with vaccines.
102. How does a prokaryotic cell differ from a
B. Strep throat is treated with antibiotics. eukaryotic cell?
C. A strep infection will go away without A. A prokaryotic cell does not contain ri-
being treated. bosomes.
D. A person who has strep throat can B. A prokaryotic cell does not have a cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
never have it again. wall.
C. A prokaryotic cell does not contain ge-
97. How do viruses cause disease?
netic information.
A. by secreting toxins D. A prokaryotic cell does not have a nu-
B. by producing excess waste cleus.
C. by damaging or killing cells 103. Which of the following is not a living or-
D. by competing with healthy cells for nu- ganism?
trients A. virus
98. A compound that kills or slow the growth B. bacteria
of bacteria C. fungus
A. Antiseptics D. parasite
B. Antibiotics 104. The bacteria that causes bubonic plague
C. Vaccines is transmitted to humans by fleas. Which
term BEST describes the role of the fleas
D. Viricides in transmitting bubonic plague
99. Bacterial infections are treated with A. decomposer
A. vaccines B. parasite
B. antibiotics C. pathogen
C. antivirals D. vector
D. antifungals 105. Which microorganisms requires a host

cell to reproduce?
100. Which person would benefit most from A. bacteria
biotechnology?
B. fungi
A. a cook
C. viruses
B. a farmer
D. none of above
C. an architect
106. Which is the BEST way to help prevent
D. an automobile engineer the flu from becoming a pandemic?
101. Which disease can be successfully treated A. getting a vaccination
with antibiotics? B. taking antibiotics
A. polio C. eating fruits and vegetables
B. influenza D. washing hands often

107. Study of agriculturally relevant microor- 112. Ten people became sick with the flu after
ganisms. attending a school dance. What scenario
could BEST explain how people got sick?

A. Microbial Biotechnology
B. Industrial Microbiology A. Contact with environmental sources
C. Agricultural Microbiology B. Contact with an infected animal
D. Environmental Microbiology C. Contact with a contaminated object
D. Contact with an infected person
108. A large number of patients in a hospital
have all developed the same bacterial in- 113. Which is true regarding bacterial and vi-
fection. Which is MOST LIKELY the cause ral infections?
of the infection spreading from patient to
A. Bacterial infections are treated with
patient?
antibiotics, while viral infections can be
A. polluted air prevented through use of vaccines.
B. contaminated water B. Viral infections are treated with vac-
C. unsanitary practices cines, while bacterial infections are pre-
vented through use of antibiotics.
D. unhealthy eating habits
C. Viral infections are treated with an-
109. Which statement correctly describes a tibiotics, while bacterial infections are
way that bacteria are used in biotechnol- treated with vaccines.
ogy?
D. Both viral infections and bacterial in-
A. Bacteria make human cells that make fections are treated with vaccines.
insulin.
B. Human insulin made by bacteria is in- 114. Which pair correctly matches a vector and
jected into humans. the infectious disease it carries?
C. Bacteria that make insulin are im- A. human - influenza
planted in humans B. opossum - rabies
D. Human insulin coding bacterial genes C. mosquito - malaria
are spliced into human cells. D. none of above
110. Which process describes how many pure-
115. Which of the following characteristics of
bred dogs have been produced?
bacteria is FALSE?
A. cloning
A. Peptidoglycan cell wall
B. crossbreeding
B. Eukaryotic cells
C. selective breeding
C. Divide by binary fission
D. none of above
D. One of its is bacillus
111. Which type of microbe reproduces by bi-
116. Which is the main risk associated with be-
nary fission?
ing a disease carrier?
A. Bacteria
A. A carrier is more difficult to cure than
B. Viruses others.
C. Fungi B. A person is more likely to die once he
D. Protists or she becomes a carrier.

C. A carrier unknowingly spread the dis- 121. Which of these describes a pandemic
ease to others. rather than an epidemic?
D. A carrier can use up all of the available A. Many people in an area become sick
medicine in a local area. from a disease.
B. Public health scientists monitor an try
117. Why do doctors suggest getting the flu to stop the spread of a disease.
vaccine every year?
C. The origin of a disease remains a mys-
A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tery.
time.
D. A disease spreads internationally over
B. Viruses can mutate from year to year. the course of a year.
C. Vaccines are absorbed in the body af- 122. The overuse of antibiotics has most likely
ter a year. resulted in the development of resistant
D. Vaccines get stronger over time. strains of which organisms?
A. bacteria
118. Which most likely spreads diseases such
B. fungi
as rabies or Lyme disease?
C. protozoa
A. contact with an infected animal
D. viruses
B. contact with an infected human
123. Which statement best describes the size
C. ingesting contaminated food
of a virus compared to the size of a bacte-
D. breathing contaminated air ria?
A. Bacteria are small, while viruses are
119. Which makes it possible for a person who
larger.
has recovered from a cold to catch another
cold? B. Bacteria are large, while viruses are
larger.
A. A cold is a viral infection with many dif-
ferent strains. C. Bacteria are small while viruses are
smaller.
B. A cold is a bacterial infection that re-
mains active in the body. D. Bacteria and viruses are the same
size.
C. A cold is a bacterial infection present
only during the winter months. 124. The point of genetic engineering is to
transfer useful traits/characteristics such
D. A cold is a viral infection that remains as:
active until treated with antibiotics.
A. pest resistance
120. is a poison produced by disease- B. disease resistance
causing organisms
C. drought tolerance
A. antigen D. All of the above
B. pathogen
125. In which organ system of the human body
C. toxin would a doctor most likely find a parasite?
D. microorganism A. skeletal system

B. digestive system 131. How can a single bacterium grow and re-
C. muscular system produce exponentially?

D. nervous system A. It reproduces sexually.
126. Which of the following is not a vector? B. It reproduces asexually.
A. Bacteria C. It reproduces through spores.

B. Rat D. It reproduces using a host cell.
C. Tick
132. Which is the MOST LIKELY result of hav-
D. Mosquito
ing a large number of biotechnology com-
127. Which is an example of a parasitic dis- panies located in North Carolina?
ease? A. decrease in available jobs
A. strep throat
B. improvement in crop yields
B. Polio
C. increase in antibiotic resistance
C. Malaria
D. decrease in vaccine effectiveness
D. tuberculosis
128. Which type of microbe is prokaryotic? 133. The study of viruses is

A. Bacteria A. Bacteriology
B. Viruses B. Scientology
C. Fungi
C. Virology
D. Protists
D. Herbology
129. Bacteria are used to make the all of the
following foods except what? 134. Which situation would most favor the
A. apples spread of infectious disease?
B. bread A. Overcrowding
C. cheese B. Use of vaccines
D. yogurt C. Small populations
130. Which would most likely prevent a cold D. none of above
virus form spreading through a classroom?
A. Have a large supply of tissues on the 135. What process involves an individual im-
teacher’s desk. mune system being fortified against an
agent?
B. Have all students was their hands reg-
ularly with soap. A. Antiseptics
C. Have all students shake hands regu- B. Immunization
larly with all students.
C. Vaccination
D. Have all students wipe desks with dry
paper towels at the end of class. D. Chemotherapy

136. An amoeba frequently causes an infec- B. Both outbreaks were epidemics.

tion in hikers who drink untreated water. C. The influenza outbreak was a pan-
Which precaution should hikers take while demic. The plague outbreak was an epi-
hiking? demic.
A. taste test the water before drinking D. The influenza outbreak was an epi-
B. filter or boil the water before drinking demic. The plague outbreak was a pan-
demic.
C. check the pH of the water before drink-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing 141. Mitosis produces
D. check the color of the water before A. 2 cells, each with half as many chromo-
drinking somes as the parent cell
137. Why should people wash their hands? B. 2 cells, each with the same number of
chromosomes as the parent cell
A. To protect harmless bacteria
C. 4 cells, each with the same number of
B. To change viral and bacterial nucleic chromosomes as the parent cell
acids
D. 4 cells, each with half as many chromo-
C. To release mutated cells from pores somes as the parent cell
D. To remove viruses and bacteria from 142. A member of a large group of unicellular
the skin microorganisms lacking organelles and an
138. Which BEST explains why viruses are organized nucleus; can cause disease
dangerous to humans? A. protein
A. They are all airborne. B. embryo
B. They are easily spread. C. bacteria
C. They are better suited to live in cold D. cell
environments. 143. If a mosquito is a vector for an infectious
D. They cannot be treated for several disease, which describes how it transmits
months after infection. the disease into the human population and
becomes an epidemic.
139. Basic unit of life.
A. The mosquito inhales contaminated
A. cell drops from the air.
B. embryo B. The mosquito bites the human.
C. DNA C. The mosquito gets in the human’s
D. cloning food.
D. The mosquito gets the disease from
140. In 1918, an outbreak of influenza in- humans.
fected 500, 000 people all over the world.
Tens of millions of those infected died. In 144. Which sentence best describes a pan-
1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague demic?
spread quickly through the city of Surat in A. The disease causes high fever and
India, killing 52 people. Which statement vomiting.
best describes the two events? B. The disease passes through direct con-
A. Both outbreaks were pandemics. tact with an infected person.

C. The disease is fatal if not treated im- C. eating fruits and vegetables
mediately. D. washing hands oftens

D. The disease has spread to every coun-
try in the northern hemisphere. 150. Which BEST explains how a nonliving
virus is able to reproduce?
145. Mitosis is not a process for
A. A virus becomes living when in contact
A. growth with a host organism.
B. repair B. A virus infects a host organism by in-
C. sexual reproduction jecting its DNA into the cells of the host
organism.
D. asexual reproduction
C. A virus infects a host organism by
146. What kind of disease cannot spread from pulling the DNA from the cells of the host
one person to another? organism into itself.
A. a pathogenic disease D. A virus becomes living when a suffi-
B. an infectious disease cient number of viruses invade a host or-
ganism and cause an infection.
C. a noninfectious disease
D. none of above 151. Which statement best contrasts a bac-
terium and a virus?
147. Why is the prevention of epidemics usu- A. A bacterium can reproduce, where a
ally easier than the prevention of a pan- virus will not reproduce.
demic?
B. A bacterium does not invade living liv-
A. The diseases in an epidemic are less ing things where a virus does.
severe than in a pandemic.
C. A bacterium is a one-celled living or-
B. Diseases causing pandemics are more ganism, whereas a virus is a nonliving or-
contagious than diseases in an epidemic. ganism.
C. Affected individuals in epidemics are D. none of above
usually more concentrated in one area
than in pandemics. 152. Which vector is associated with the West
D. none of above Nile virus?
A. ticks
148. Which of these foods is a major source of
both protein and fat? B. mosquitos
A. peas C. taquitos
B. bread D. fleas
C. cheese 153. What parasite is most often responsible
D. oil for the spread of Lyme disease?
A. Mosquito
149. What is the best way to help prevent the
flu from becoming a pandemic? B. Deer tick
A. getting a vaccination C. Crane Fly
B. taking antibiotics D. none of above

154. What is the source of energy for photo- 159. How has genetic modification MOST
synthesis? LIKELY affected the safety and availability
A. sunlight of fruits and vegetables?
B. carbon dioxide A. It has decreased the safety and avail-
C. glucose
B. It has increased the safety and avail-
D. water
155. In the midwestern United States, the oc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It has decreased the safety of food,
currence of influenza was greater than but increased the availability of fruits and
expected. Which best describes this in- vegetables.
fluenza outbreak?
D. It has increased the safety of food, but
A. A pandemic, because influenza is an in- decreased the availability of fruit and veg-
fectious disease. etables.
B. An epidemic, because influenza is an
infectious disease. 160. Why are viruses considered to be nonliv-
ing organisms?
C. A pandemic, because it occurred in
more than one state. A. They do not have genetic information.
D. An epidemic, because it occurred in B. They are not able to move on their
one region of the U.S. own.
156. Which BEST describes how athlete’s foot C. They do not interact with their environ-
is spread to other individuals? ment.
A. inhaling fungal spores in the air D. They are not able to reproduce without
B. eating food contaminated with fungus a host cell.
C. having contact with fungus on a 161. Ten people became sick with the flu af-
shower floor ter attending a school dance. What is the
D. swimming in a lake that has a large scenario that could BEST explain how the
amount of algae people got sick?
A. contact with enviromental sources
157. Which of the following is a virus?
A. Influenza B. contact with an infected animal
B. Malaria C. contact with contaminated object

C. Strep throat D. contact with an infected person.
D. Athlete’s Foot 162. What is most unique about E. coli?
158. Which type of microbe reproduces by A. It is a bacteria that causes illness in
causing a host cell to make more copies of humans.
it?
B. It is a bacteria that has caused out-
A. Bacteria breaks through contaminated food.
B. Viruses C. It is harmless in animals’ intestines,
C. Fungi but if ingested may cause illness.
D. Protists D. none of above

163. Which BEST compares bacteria and D. Bacteria have genetic material, but
viruses? viruses do not.

A. Bacteria are smaller than viruses.
168. For which disease would a doctor MOST
B. Bacteria causes disease, but viruses LIKELY prescribe an antibiotic?
do not.
A. flu
C. Bacteria are living organisms, but
viruses are not. B. cold
D. Bacteria have genetic material, but C. chickenpox
viruses do not.
D. strep throat
164. Which pathogen reproduces in the lytic cy-
cle? 169. Which BEST distinguishes an infectious
A. bacteria disease from a noninfectious disease?
B. parasites A. Infectious disease can be cured with

antibiotics; noninfectious disease cannot.
C. fungi
D. viruses B. Infectious diseases can be prevented
with vaccines; noninfectious diseases
165. Alan noticed that his foot itched between cannot.
his toes after coming home from the gym.
C. Infectious diseases can be spread
He now believes he may have contracted
from one organism to another; noninfec-
athlete’s foot. What type of pathogen
tious diseases cannot
MOST LIKELY caused this possible infection
of his foot? D. Infectious diseases cannot be trans-
A. bacterium mitted from one organism to another; non-
infectious diseases can.
B. fungus
C. virus 170. Which microorganism could cause asthma
D. none of above in a child?
A. bacteria
166. A disease caused by a pathogen is called
a(n) B. fungi
A. virus C. virus
B. immune disease D. e-coli
C. infectious disease
D. non infectious disease 171. The Anopheles mosquito transmits the
parasite Plasmodium to humans. Plas-
167. Which best compares bacteria and modium causes malaria. In this situation,
viruses? which is the vector of the disease?
A. Bacteria are smaller than viruses. A. Anopheles mosquito
B. Bacteria cause disease, but viruses do B. Plasmodium
not.
C. human
C. Bacteria are living organisms, but
viruses are not. D. malaria

172. Which disease-causing agent could B. the raccoon was the vector that trans-
quickly multiply into colonies of billions mitted the airborne disease to the dog
of cells in the space of a drop of water? C. the raccoon was the vector that trans-
A. fungi mitted the disease to the dog through a
B. viruses bite
C. bacteria D. all of these are correct
D. protists 177. Which of these is most likely to be spread
NARAYAN CHANGDER
when two people drink from the same wa-
173. Which contagion is correctly matched to ter bottle?
the disease it causes?
A. malaria
A. influenza - virus
B. hay fever
B. rabies - fungus
C. asthma
C. polio - parasite
D. strep throat
D. chicken pox - bacteria
178. this root means star
174. Which diseases are most likely to be
treated with antibiotics? A. aster
A. those caused by viruses B. arthr
B. those caused by fungi C. ary
C. those caused by parasites D. aqu
D. those caused by bacteria 179. A woman gets sick with Lyme disease.
175. What is the biggest difference between Which was the MOST LIKELY vector that
an epidemic and a pandemic? infected her?
A. A pandemic occurs in a small region, A. a flea

while an epidemic occurs in a much larger B. a deer tick
region.
C. a mosquito
B. A pandemic is spread by humans,
D. a cockroach
while an epidemic is spread by insects and
rodents. 180. A tape worm lives in the intestines of its
C. An epidemic affects a small population host. Which example BEST describes the
of humans, while a pandemic affects a relationship between the tapeworm and
large population of humans. its host?
D. none of above A. The tapeworm benefits from its host;
however, the host is not affected.
176. Ta’Lisha’s dog was bitten by a raccoon
B. The tapeworm does not benefit from
that was infected with rabies. Which of
its host, but the host does benefit.
the following correctly explains how the
pathogen was transmitted? C. The tapeworm benefits from its host,
A. the dog was a vector was infected by and the host is negatively affected.
a raccoon D. none of above

181. Which kind of organisms are disease- 186. Which treatment is best for bacterial in-
causing yeasts and molds? fections?

A. bacteria A. vaccines
B. fungi B. antibiotics
C. parasites C. rest
D. viruses D. drink plenty of fluids
182. Which is the BEST method for preventing 187. How do viruses and bacteria compare?
a parasitic disease? A. They are both living
A. vaccination B. They both have DNA
B. wearing a mask C. They are both nonliving
C. limiting physical contact with others D. none of above
D. avoiding contaminated food and water 188. What kind of disease is spread from one
person to another?
183. Which has made the possibility of an epi-
demic becoming a pandemic much MORE A. a contamination disease
LIKELY in the 20th century? B. an infectious disease
A. increased deforestation C. a noninfectious disease
B. increased global travel D. none of above
C. increased vaccinations 189. This root means joint, articulation
D. increased air pollution A. anter
184. the creation of genetically identical organ- B. archaeo
isms C. arthr
A. Bioremediation D. aster
B. Cloning
190. Which of these can reproduce only when
C. Tissue Culturing inside a host cell?
D. none of above A. bacterium
B. virus
185. Genetic engineering is a procedure used
in biotechnology. Which best describes ge- C. fungus
netic engineering? D. parasite
A. making artificial DNA in the laboratory
191. How does the reproductive potential of
from chemicals
bacteria affect illnesses caused by bacte-
B. cutting out pieces of DNA from an or- ria?
A. long generation time results in many
C. adding DNA from one organism into bacteria
the DNA of another
B. short generation time results in many
D. none of above bacteria

C. long generation time results in only a B. Bacteria reproduce more efficiently in

few bacteria warm, moist conditions.
D. short generation time results in only a C. There are good bacteria and bad bac-
few bacteria teria.
192. Which disease is caused by a virus? D. Bacteria are not living organisms.
A. rabies
197. After World War I, an outbreak of Span-
B. AIDS ish Flu killed 50 million to 100 million
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. lyme disease people around the world. Which best de-
scribes this occurrence?
D. none of above
A. Epidemic, because it happened within
193. Which is true about viruses? a relatively short time span.
A. Each virus has its own seasonal activ-
B. Epidemic, because it affected many in-
ity.Viruses increase the survival of other
dividuals in multiple countries.
organisms.
B. Each virus is transmitted through the C. Pandemic, because it happened within
air. a relatively short time span.
C. Each virus has its own shape and struc- D. Pandemic, because it affected many in-
ture. dividuals in multiple countries.
D. Each virus is transmitted through poor 198. A is a disease-causing microorganism
sanitation
A. Genus
194. Examples of parasites
B. Fermentation
berculosis, Lyme disease C. Pathogen
B. Athletes foot, ring worm, candida, jock D. Species
itch
199. Which statement is true about fungi?
pox. measles, AIDS, yellow fever A. All fungi are scavengers.
D. tick, flea, tapeworm, mosquito, leech, B. All fungi are multicellular.
lice, bedbug
C. All fungi are producers.
195. Which cause athlete’s foot & ringworm?
D. All fungi cause diseases.
A. protozoa
B. bacteria 200. Which aspect of modern life could most
likely cause an epidemic to turn into a pan-
C. viruses
demic?
D. fungi
A. vaccination
196. Which of the following statements is not B. communication
true concerning bacteria?
C. transportation
A. Bacteria reproduce through binary fis-
sion. D. sanitation

201. Which is a concern of scientists when ge- 206. Which of the following is not a common
netically altering plants? shape of a virus?

A. Plants will pass on disease to animals. A. crystals
B. There will be a decrease in the biodi- B. spheres
versity of plants. C. cylinders
C. Plants will have a longer growing sea- D. spirella
son.
207. Which type of microbe is eukaryotic?
D. There will be a decrease in the rev-
enue for pesticide manufacturers. A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
202. Which pathogen exhibits a diversity in
C. Fungi
form, size, and shape?
D. none of above
A. virus
B. bacteria 208. How do plant cells release the energy
they need to carry out their life processes?
C. fungi
A. by photosynthesis in the chloroplasts
D. parasite
B. by respiration in the mitochondira
203. Which of the following is protected by a C. by mitosis in the nucleus
protein coat?
D. by absorption in the cell membrane
A. bacteria
209. Which bacteria lives in the human in-
B. virus testines and breaks down food into sim-
C. e-coli pler substances?
D. fungi A. lactobacilli
B. E.Coli
204. What helps prevent viral diseases?
C. salmonella
A. Vaccines
D. Ebola
B. Antibiotics
C. Herbal tea
four major types of human pathogens
D. none of above
A. Bacteria
205. Which is the most likely reason for a de- B. Viruses
cline in antibiotic use? C. fungi
A. Antibiotics have severe health side ef- D. plants
fects.
211. Which of the following is not a subfield
B. Companies find antibiotics too expen-
of microbiology?
sive to produce.
A. bacteriology
C. Most health insurance does not cover
treatment with antibiotics. B. Botany
D. Bacterial infections have become re- C. clinical microbiology
sistant to present antibiotic treatment. D. virology

5.3 Plant diseases 888
212. Customizing crop plants to grow in differ- What type of pathogen most likely caused
ent climates. this possible infection of his foot?
A. medicine A. bacterium
B. agriculture B. fungus
C. environment C. bacterium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
213. Which organisms require a host cell to re- 217. Which characteristic do all microbes
produce? share?
A. protozoans A. They are all microscopic in size

B. They all need oxygen to survive
B. bacteria
C. They all exist in similar conditions
C. viruses
D. none of above
D. none of above
218. This root means both
214. Which characteristic makes fungi easy to
spread, but difficult to treat and prevent A. amphi
fungal infections? B. amyl
A. Fungi are multicellular. C. alg
B. Fungi are heterotrophic. D. alb
C. Fungi reproduce by spores. 219. Which is the BEST requirement for viruses
D. Fungi grow in dry environments. to reproduce?
A. The virus must be inside a living cell.
215. The use of living organisms to detoxify
and restore polluted and degraded (broken B. The virus must produce a toxin.
down) ecosystems. C. The virus must be a pathogen.
A. bioremediation D. none of above
B. bacteria 220. Which product would be most effective in
C. penicillin preventing the spread of a cold virus?
D. protein A. Hand soap
B. Mouth Wash
216. Alan noticed that his foot itched between
his toes after coming home from the gym. C. Cough Drops
He now believes that he has athlete’s foot. D. Antibiotic cream
5.3 Plant diseases

1. Which one of the following statements is B. a plant bred for specific disease resis-
true? tance will never get that disease
A. Resistant varieties of plants resist all C. a disease does not readily infect resis-
diseases common to the species tant plants unless factors are favorable

D. resistant plants can develop immunity 7. The glucose made in photosynthesis is

to a disease after they are exposed to it A. converted into insoluble substances

like oils, fats and starch for storage.
2. Tannins are an example of what type of
defence? B. used in respiration to release energy
A. Physical C. converted into other substances in
plants. For example:Cellulose for cell
B. Passive Chemical walls Proteins for growth and repair.
C. Active Chemical D. All of the above
D. none of above
8. Symptoms of anthracnose include:
3. What is waterproof and indigestible? A. dead areas on leaves usually along
A. Layer of dead skin leaf margins and veins
B. Leaves falling of B. localized areas of dead bark and under-

lying wood on twigs, branches, and trunks
C. Waxy cuticle
C. root tips that are brown and dead
D. Cellulose cell wall
D. a dry, powdery, reddish-orange sub-
4. Why do plants infected with TMV have stance on leaves
stunted growth? 9. Antibiotics can be used to treat what type
A. TMV kills new cells of infection?
B. TMV causes water loss, causing the A. Fungal
plant to shrink B. Viral
C. The plant is unable to photosynthesise C. Bacterial
D. none of above
D. none of above
10. How does TMV damage a plant?
5. Plants have cellulose walls - what type of A. They reduce the area for photosynthe-
defence mechanism is this? sis.
A. Physical B. They destroy cells.
B. Chemical C. They act as a vector, transferring
C. Mechanical viruses, bacteria and fungi between the
plants.
D. none of above
D. They prevent plants from acquiring the
6. What is the result of nitrate deficiency in water and minerals it needs.
a plant
11. Which of the following are entry points for
A. Cellulose walls are strengthened bacteria?
B. Increased growth A. mechanical injuries and woulds made
C. Yellowing of the leaves by insect feeding
D. Stunted growth, older leave may go B. spores

yellow C. stomata and nectaries

D. both mechanical injuries, wounds from 17. Which of the following is a chemical plant
insect feeding, stomata, and nectaries defence?
A. Producing antibacterial substances
12. Farmers will often spray plants with pes-
ticides, why? B. Thorns and spikes
A. Reduce the spread of pathogens. C. Layers of dead cells
D. Mimicry
B. So other people don’t eat them
18. Stomatal closure is an example of what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. So children don’t pick at the plant
type of defence?
D. So the pathogens can spread
A. Physical
13. What is the result of magnesium deficiency B. Passive Chemical
in a plant
C. Active Chemical
A. Cellulose walls are strengthened D. none of above
B. Increased growth
19. What is the name of a growth that blocks
C. Yellowing of the leaves the xylem?
D. Stunted growth A. Callose
B. Lignin
14. Why do mint plants smell minty?
C. Tylose
A. Antibacterial chemicals
D. none of above
B. Poisons
20. As well as Glucose what is the second
C. Pathogens
product of photosynthesis?
D. none of above A. Nitrates
15. How does black spot damage a plant? B. Toffee
A. They reduce the area for photosynthe- C. Oxygen
sis. D. Nitrogen
B. They destroy cells. 21. Some glucose is used by plants to produce
C. They act as a vector, transferring Proteins examples of proteins are
viruses, bacteria and fungi between the A. Starch and Fatty Acids
plants.
B. Chlorophyll and Starch
D. They prevent plants from acquiring the C. Starch and Enzymes
water and minerals it needs.
D. Enzymes and Chlorophyll
16. Viral diseases can be transferred from
22. Which of the following are ways to iden-
plant to plant by:
tify plant diseases?
A. vegetative propagation A. Using a gardening manual
B. mites, nematodes, and thrips B. Take infected plant to be tested in a lab
C. hands and tools C. Using monoclonal testing kits
D. all of these D. All of the above

23. What is needed to make chlorophyll? B. Carbon dioxide concentration, Temper-

A. Magnesium ature, Water

B. Photosynthesis C. Temperature, Water, Light intensity
D. Carbon dioxide concentration, Temper-
C. Magnesum
ature, Light intensity
D. none of above
29. When a plant responds to a pathogen by
24. What benefit does lignin provide? signalling other parts of the plant to pre-
A. It is waterproof pare for infection by the pathogen.
B. It strengthens the cell membrane A. Hypersensitive response
C. It is antibacterial B. Systemic Acquired response
D. none of above C. Barrier Defenses
D. Cytokine Storm
25. What can insects do to a plant?
A. Turn Leaves Yellow 30. Addition of lignin to cell walls is an exam-
ple of what type of defence?
B. Stunt growth
A. Physical
C. Damage the stem and leaves
B. Passive Chemical
D. Drop Leaves Early
C. Active Chemical
26. What are the advantages of using insolu- D. none of above
ble substances such as starch for storage,
rather than soluble substances such as glu- 31. Which of the following is a physical plant
cose defence?
A. They do not affect the water concen- A. Producing antibacterial substances
tration inside cells B. Thorns and spikes
B. They do not move away from the stor- C. Tough waxy cuticles
age areas in the plant
D. Mimicry
C. Both are correct
32. How do insects damage a plant?
D. Neither are correct
A. They reduce the area for photosynthe-
27. What is the function of a physical defence? sis.
A. Prevent entry and spread of a B. They destroy cells.
pathogen
C. They act as a vector, transferring
B. Kill a pathogen viruses, bacteria and fungi between the
C. Deter a pathogen plants.
D. none of above D. They prevent plants from acquiring the
28. What 3 factors are limiting factors of pho-
tosynthesis? 33. What are magnesium Ions needed for?
A. Carbon dioxide concentration, Oxygen A. Protein Synthesis

concentration, Water B. Making Chlorophyll

C. Communists 39. What prevents water from collecting on

the surface?
D. none of above
A. Leaves falling of
34. How is rose black spot spread? B. Layer of dead skin
A. By spores C. Waxy cuticle
B. By aphids D. cellulose Cell wall
C. By pollinating bees
NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. What is stunted growth caused by?
D. By Seeds A. Water deficiency
35. How do nematode worms damage a plant? B. Nitrate deficiency
A. They reduce the area for photosynthe- C. Magnesium deficiency

sis. D. CO2 deficiency
B. They destroy cells. 41. How do plants use nitrate ions that are ab-
C. They act as a vector, transferring sorbed from the soil.
viruses, bacteria and fungi between the A. To make fats
plants.
B. To make sugars
D. They prevent plants from acquiring the
C. To make proteins
D. To make starch
36. What is chlorosis caused by?
42. Which disease is correctly paired with the
A. Water deficiency cause of the disease?
B. Nitrate deficiency A. athlete’s foot - fungi
C. Magnesium deficiency B. malaria - viruses
D. CO2 deficiency C. influenza - bacteria
D. pneumonia - protists
37. How does Callose prevent the spread of
pathogens? 43. Which of these does not cause plant dis-
eases
A. Blocks the xylem
A. viruses
B. Blocks the sieve plates in the xylem
B. fungi
C. Blocks the sieve plates in the phloem
C. mineral deficiencies
D. Causes abscission
D. ladybirds
38. What type of disease is tobacco mosaic? 44. Black sigatoka is an example of a
A. Fungal A. Virus
B. Viral B. Protist
C. Bacterial C. Bacteria
D. Deficiency D. Fungus

45. Plants also need nitrates to make proteins. 51. What is meant by the term stunted
They obtain these from growth?
A. The air as nitrate ions A. A plant grows too quickly and dies

B. The soil as nitrate ions B. Increased growth
C. The air as nitrogen C. Reduced growth
D. The soil as nitrogen D. None of the above
46. What are the facultative parasites most 52. Which plants are vunerable to black siga-
likely to attack stressed plants? toka?
A. fungi A. Potato
B. epiphyte B. Banana
C. galls C. Tomato
D. moss D. Papaya
47. What has sharp mouths that helps it feed 53. Which of the following is a mechanical
on phloem? plant defence?
A. Vector A. Producing antibodies
B. The stem B. Thorns and spikes
C. Aphids C. Tough waxy cuticles
D. Water D. Dead leaves
48. When a plant responds to a pathogen by 54. Which isn’t a plant pathogen?
signalling all infected cells to induce apop- A. TMV
tosis. B. Black spot
A. Hypersensitive response C. Aphids
B. Systemic Acquired response D. Poisons
C. Barrier Defenses
55. Which nutrients are required in relatively
D. Cytokine Storm large amounts for plant growth?
49. Some plants have thorns - what type of A. manganese, iron, and copper
defence mechanism is this? B. nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and
A. Physical calcium
B. Chemical C. zinc, sulfur, and boron
C. Mechanical D. all of these
D. none of above 56. which of the following is the correct defi-
50. Some glucose is used by plants to produce nition of autotrophic
Cellulose, this is used to A. Organism that can produce their own
A. build cell membranes food through photosynthesis
B. strengthen cell walls B. The process of loss of green in leaves
C. make the nucleus C. The overload of nutrient uptake
D. make ribosomes D. Organism that can’t produce their own
food through photosynthesis
6. Extension Education
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6.1 Rural Sociology
1. Society is looked upon as A. megacity
A. caste and class. B. urbanization
B. social stratification. C. human ecology
C. simple society. D. none of above
D. system of parts. 5. When two or more person meet it can be
2. Who has defined the family as “the biolog- called as
ical social unit composed of husband, wife A. Social group
and children”? B. Social system
A. Sorokin C. Society
B. Burgress and Locke D. Social organization
C. Durkheim
6. Which is the unit of the rural society
D. Eliott and Merrill
A. Taluka
3. It is the tendency of a society to consider B. Block
its own culture as best, and others as in-
feriors C. Village
A. Self Culture D. District
B. Out Culture 7. This is the production of desirable changes

C. Ethnocentrism in knowledge
D. Xenocentrism A. Extension
B. Education
4. A process where a greater percentage of
the population lives in cities and suburbs C. Extension Education
than in rural areas. D. Sociology

6.1 Rural Sociology 895
8. The are urban residents who can- C. value free

not move when community or personal D. sociology
changes occur or when other groups move

in. 14. How is the father of Sociology?
A. cosmopolites A. Max Weber
B. singles B. Auguste Comte
C. deprived C. Emile Durkheim
D. Herbert Spenser
D. trapped
15. Industrial Revolution was characterised by
9. permanent concentration of large number
of people for non-farming activities
A. migration to cities
A. overurbanization
B. emergence of clock time
B. urbanization
C. bad sanitation and general squalor
C. city
D. All the above.
D. rural town
16. Sense of belongingness in rural society is
10. examines the human interactions, A. Less
social organization, and life in urban areas.
B. More
A. Urban surveys
C. Neutrol
B. Urban sociology D. None of the above
C. Urban planning
17. Slums in urban areas denote
D. none of above
A. division of labour.
11. Classification of societies was based on B. overpopulation and migration.
A. urbanization. C. education and development.
B. de-centralization. D. illiteracy.
C. industrialization. 18. Ur, a Mesopotamian city, is one example
D. non-industrialization. of an early city.
A. postindustrial
12. What condition is necessary for the devel-
opment of modern cities? B. industrial
C. preindustrial
A. Farmers
D. none of above
B. Suburbs
C. Factories 19. Which among these is the type of family
where authority lies with woman and she
D. Monuments is the head of the family
13. the degree to which people feel a part of A. Matriarchal family
social groups B. Patriarchal family
A. social interaction C. Matrilineal family
B. social integration D. Patrilineal family

20. They are the customs which is used for the 26. Louis Wirth, with his urban anomie theory
negative action and for the things that one described the city as isolated and discour-
ought not to do and more over they are aging to
forbid. A. building relationships
A. Folkways B. finding love
B. Mores C. meeting job demands
C. Culture D. health and wellness
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Taboos
27. People who own homes pay
21. The city is one in which global finance A. Water Tax
and electronic information dominate.
B. General Tax
A. postindustrial
C. Education Tax
B. industrial
D. Property Tax
C. preindustrial
D. none of above 28. The word ‘extension’ came to be used orig-
inally in
22. A place of dense human settlement, or in A. UAE
other words, a location where many peo-
ple live close together. B. USA
A. city C. England
B. suburbs D. Italy
C. rural area 29. Which of the following is not a character

D. none of above of Social Group
A. We-feeling
23. Social control brings to society
B. Reciprocal Communication
A. social order
C. Common interest
B. deviance
D. All of these
C. disobedience
D. violence 30. It is the pattern of behaviour or cere-
monies, which has become the customary
24. The theory proposed by August Comte is way of dealing with certain situations
A. Cyclic Theory A. Mores
B. Stage Theory B. Taboos
C. Theory of Deterioration C. Rituals
D. Deterministic theory D. Customs
25. What is the basic unit of Society? 31. Sociology is
A. Neighborhood A. Science and art both
B. Group B. A social philosophy
C. Family C. A Science
D. Community D. An art

32. Theory that states the city is an anony- 38. This event is the primary reason why rural
mous and unfriendly place populations move to urban areas.

A. subcultural A. Disease spreading through popula-
B. compositional tions or crops
C. social cultural B. Urban sprawl
D. Urban anomie C. Industrialization
33. The classification of in-group and out- D. Switching from barter to money eco-
group was given by nomic systems
A. Chitamber 39. is an area with a dense population that

B. Summer encompasses more than one city.
C. Gillin and Gillin A. Suburb
D. Max Weber B. Edge city
34. The scientific study of population is called C. Megalopolis
A. Rural Ecology D. none of above
B. Demography 40. One of the features of modern societies is

C. Urban Ecology A. specialisation of work.
D. Malthusianism B. face to face interaction of members.
35. Representation of simulation of an object C. urbanisation and factory production.
or theory D. agricultural production.
A. concept
41. Which is NOT a structure of a city?
B. make
A. Concentric
C. model
B. sector
D. structure
C. center zoned
36. The concept of primary group was intro-
duced by: D. multiple nuclei
A. Ginsberg 42. What system that lied in urban society
B. Durkheim A. Gemeninschaft
C. Cooley B. Gesselscahft
D. Sorokin C. Modern
37. Which of the following countries has exer- D. Independent
cised population control on its population
through the use of one-child policy? 43. Caste system is a class gained by
A. Russia A. Birth
B. China B. Power
C. Japan C. Status
D. India D. Social culture

6.2 Educational Psychology 898
44. Which theory of city growth emphasizes 47. What is a favela?

the idea that growth in any one area of
A. A Brazilian food made with rice
a city is largely influenced by politics and
economics? B. A slum or shantytown
A. concentric zone C. An area of a city where rich people live
B. multiple nuclei D. A Brazilian storm with high winds
C. peripheral
48. This approach examines the relationship
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. sector between city people and the urban envi-
45. more people live in a city that it can sup- ronment
port A. urbanization
A. overurbanization B. urban ecology
B. urbanization
C. environmental relations
C. city
D. Malthusian theory
D. rural town
49. What is true about culture
46. Family is included under the following so-
cial group A. Culture is an acquired quality
A. Secondary group B. Culture is not innate
B. Primary group C. traits learned through socialisation
C. Pertaining group habits
D. Personal group D. All of these
6.2 Educational Psychology

1. Unconditioned stimulus is 3. The ability to think abstractly and to learn.
readily from experience is
A. stimulus not connected to a response
A. Memory
B. stimulus that automatically produces
an emotional or physiological response B. Intelligence
C. naturally occurring emotional or phys- C. Learning
iological response D. Thinking
D. stimulus that evokes an emotional or
4. Adolescents are in an increased state of
physiological response after conditioning
emotional highs and lows also known as:
2. The word Psychology is derived from A. Risky behavior
which word? B. Enthusiasm
A. Latin C. Happiness
B. Greek D. Moodiness
C. English
5. A teacher confronted with frequent emo-
D. None of the Above tional outbursts on the part of pupil should

A. Consider the suitability of demands 10. The primary task of the teacher is
made upon them. A. To teach the prescribed curriculum.

B. Allow them to release tensions in this B. To stimulate and guide student learn-
way. ing.
C. Let them express this outside the C. To promote habits of conformity to
class. adults demands and expectations.
D. None of these. D. To provide diagnostic and remedial aid
wherever indicated.
6. Which perspective believed psychology
11. Theory of classical conditioning
should only study observable and objec-
tively described acts? A. Ivan Pavlov
A. Humanistic B. Edward L.Thorndike
B. Behaviorism C. Gustav Fechner

D. Carl Jung
C. Functionalism
D. Structuralism 12. Which one is not a theory of emotions
A. James-Lange theory
7. Which of the following scenarios presents B. Cannon Bard theory
the best example of encode?
C. Schachter-Singer theory
A. Tamara is playing dolls in her room.
D. Lewin’s Field theory
B. Brian is tickling his favorite stuffed toy.
13. One attribute seems to be characteristic of
C. Joan remembers her first day of outstanding teachers:intentionality. What
school do intentional teachers do?
D. Julie is listening to a new song. A. They have a vast knowledge of the sub-
ject.
8. Unconditioned response is
B. They are creative.
A. stimulus not connected to a response C. Intentional teachers are those who
B. stimulus that automatically produces are constantly thinking about the out-
an emotional or physiological response comes they want for their students and
about how each decision they make
C. naturally occurring emotional or phys- moves children toward those outcomes.
iological response
D. They are dedicated.
physiological response after conditioning 14. The teacher’s major contribution towards
the maximum self realization of the child
9. Educational psychology is concerned with is best effected through
A. The learner A. Constant fulfillment of the child’s
needs.
B. The learning process
B. Strict control of class-room activities.
C. The learning situation
C. Sensitivity to pupil needs, goals and
D. All of these purposes.

D. Strict reinforcement of academic stan- 20. Which among the following is not associ-
dards. ated with educational psychology
15. learning takes place in this zone, chal- A. It is a positive science not a normative
lenges students and has it where they can science
not achieve without the help of others, B. It is static
things that a child has not yet learned but
is capable of learning at a given time C. It combines education and psychology.
D. It concerned with factors, principles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Piaget
B. ZPD and techniques which related aspects of
child’s growth and development.
C. Vygotsky
D. none of above 21. Who described educational psychology as
branch of Psychology which deals with
16. Which of the strategies below listed do not teaching and learning
promote expertise?
A. E A Peel
A. Taking good notes
B. Using a study system B. Crow and crow
C. Memorization C. Skinner
D. Asking themselves questions D. Williams
17. see beyond here and now, problems are 22. Father of intelligence testing
solved through experience
A. Stanford
A. Sensorimotor operational
B. Concrete operational B. Alfred Binnet
C. Formal operational C. Terman
D. Preoperational stage D. Weschsler
18. It refers to the ability of processing infor- 23. Which is not a kind of forgetting?
mation with little or o effort for instance
a child who have learned to read they do A. Active
not think about each letter they just read. B. Passive
A. strategy of construction
C. Natural
B. automaticity
D. Artificial
C. metacognition
D. acclimation 24. Which group test was designed during
world war I for persons who could not
19. How many systems are part of Bronfen- read or who did not speak English?
brenner’s ecological theory?
A. Army Alpha
A. 2
B. 3 B. Army Beta
C. 4 C. WAIS
D. 5 D. Stanford-Binet.

25. Intelligence is the ability of 30. What shall be the child’s position in the so-
ciety on the basis of social and economic
A. Abstract thinking
conditions?

B. Adjusting in new situations
A. Reprehensible
C. Availing of past experiences
B. Considerable
D. All of these
C. Bad
26. Rehearsal is a strategy best used when D. Pre-supposed.
students need to
31. things you already know that affect your
A. generate examples of a concept.
behavior, babies will use past ones to fig-
B. encode information for long-term ure out what an object is by eating it, bang-
memory. ing, etc.
C. remember a list of items for a brief pe- A. Seriation
riod of time.
B. Schemes/schema
D. organize information.
C. Teacher appliance
27. The third stage of Piaget’s theory is D. none of above
This includes ages 7 to 11 years old.
32. This developmental issue focuses on the
A. Preoperational (egocentric & intuitive)
extent of influence that biology and envi-
B. Formal operational (idealistic & logical ronment play on development.
ways of thinking)
A. Continuity and Discontinuity
C. Sensorimotor (involves seeing & hear-
B. Nature and Nurture
ing)
C. Early and Later Experience
D. Concrete operational (logical reason-
ing & operations) D. none of above
28. Elements of conciousness related to which 33. As the infant grows his mental ability
school of psychology?
A. Decreases
A. Structuralism
B. Increases
B. Functionalism
C. Fluctuates
C. Rationalism
D. Stagnates
D. Connectionalism
34. There are 3 levels to Kohlberg’s Moral De-
29. What kinds of associative-reflex learning velopment Theory. This level is character-
is divided into? ized by certain standards, but are the stan-
dards of laws or parents.
A. habituation and imprinting
A. Preconventional Reasoning
B. relationship, transference and sign
learning B. Conventional Reasoning
C. sensory, motor and sensorimotor C. Postconventional Reasoning

35. What means overly narrow view of the 40. Giana and Sophia are doing their home-
objects or events that a concept includes? work. Sophia can focus on reading her
A. schema lesson from start to finish and then do-
ing her end-of-the lesson activities with-
B. script out stopping. Giana on the other hand nor-
C. overgeneralization mally takes several breaks during the les-
D. undergeneralization son, usually taps restlessly on the desk,
and has to be reminded often not to play
36. thinking logically, difficult with abstract with her pencil, eraser, etc. as she often
NARAYAN CHANGDER
thought, inferred reality, seriation, 3rd likes to balance them on her nose or try to
A. Preoperational stage stack them in various formations. Giana
and Sophia are demonstrating differences
B. Sensorimotor
in their
C. Formal operational
A. sustained attention
D. Concrete operational
B. executive attention
37. knowing you read from left to right, front C. critical thinking skills
to back, and the paces mean something
D. memory
A. Concepts of print
B. Emergent literacy 41. assistance provided and slowly taken
away once the child can do things on his
C. Seriation
own, each child needs a different amount
D. none of above
A. Egocentric
38. Educational psychology should provide B. Scaffolding
prospective teachers with
C. Continuous
A. Insight into the various aspects of
modern education. D. Preoperational stage
B. Principles, insights and attitudes as 42. Conditioned stimulus is

points of departure for effective teaching. A. stimulus not connected to a response
C. Research procedures by means of B. stimulus that automatically produces
which to evaluate correct teaching proce- an emotional or physiological response
dures.
C. naturally occurring emotional or phys-
D. Validate procedures to use in their
iological response
teachings.
39. . Which of the following scenarios best physiological response after conditioning
demonstrates automaticity?
43. Learning tasks that encourage divergent
A. Margie knows that 3 times 4 equals 12
thinking are part of a teacher’s effort to
without even thinking about it.
encourage in their students.
B. Jordan counts the number of apples in
A. Critical thinking
a basket.
C. Kara practices how to print the alpha- B. Problem-solving
bet. C. Meta-cognition
D. Harry uses his fingers to add 5 plus 4. D. Creative thinking

44. What is sensory in psychology? B. Concerned with children’s learning

A. Something that has to do with the and development

senses C. Theory and research derived from dif-
B. The motor system drives the sensory ferent types of learning
stimulation and sensory stimulation D. none of above
C. A skill that requires an organism to uti-
49. The WAIS like the Stanford-Binet is a/ an
lize their skeletal muscles effectively in a
test.
goal directed manner
A. School
D. none of above
B. General
45. Emily is having difficulty studying for a
C. Individual
spelling test. She can hear her brother’s
loud music in the other room as well as D. Social
seeing that all of her friends are playing
outside on the street. Emily is having dif- 50. milk poured into a narrower glass, doesn’t
ficulty with mean there is more in the glass, spreading
out pennies
A. attention.
A. Preoperational stage
B. deep processing.
B. Centration
C. acclimation.
C. Conservation
D. encoding.
D. none of above
46. Which schools of psychology gave empha-
sis to sensation, feelingsand ideas 51. paying attention to only one aspect, like
color, shape, size; focusing on the height
A. Functionalism
of the glass and not the fact that more milk
B. Structuralism was not added
C. Behaviourism A. Egocentric
D. Gestalt B. Centration
47. A bright child’s MA (mental age) is above C. Emergent literacy
his CA (Chronological age); a dull child has D. Dominic
a MA below his CA. This statement is
A. True 52. What is declarative knowledge?
B. False A. knowledge concerning how to do

something
C. Partly right
B. knowledge concerning appropriate
D. Can’t be said ways to respond under different circum-
stances
48. What is meaning of psychology of learn-
ing? C. knowledge concerning the nature of
A. Helps us understand the social, emo- how things are, were, or will be
tional and cognitive processes that consti- D. knowledge that a person is consciously
tute learning throughout the lifespan aware of and can verbally describe

53. The oldest method of the study of behavior 58. An affective disorder in which a person
is swings from one mood extreme to another
is classified as:
A. Observation
A. Manic
B. Standardized Test
B. Depressive
C. Standardized Test
C. Unipolar
D. Introspection
D. Bipolar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. Evaluating alternatives and making- 59. Reasoning from the generalto the spe-
choices among them. cific.
A. critical thinking A. inductive reasoning
B. decision making B. critical thinking
C. mindfulness C. deductive reasoning
55. The second stage of Piaget’s theory is 60. This theorist supports his theory on nine
This lasts from 2 to 7 years old. principles
A. Preoperational (egocentric & intuitive) A. Ausubel

B. Gagne
B. Sensorimotor (involves seeing & hear-
ing) C. Bruner
C. Formal operational (idealistic & logical D. none of above
ways of thinking) 61. The age level at which the child cannot
D. Concrete operational (logical reason- pass any of the items of particular subtest
ing & operations) is called
A. Basal age
56. Choose what DOES NOT belong:Child de-
velopment is the pattern of: B. Specific age
A. Biological changes C. Ceiling age

D. Mental age
B. Cognitive changes
C. Cultural changes 62. Children’s self-esteem is when they be-
gin elementary school than when they com-
D. Socioemotional changes plete it.
57. Analysis of avoidance learning suggest A. higher
that many phobias are acquired through B. not developed yet
conditioning.
C. lower
A. Classical D. the same
B. Operant
63. Boys score in intelligence tests as com-
C. Reinforcement pared to girls
D. Intermittent A. Higher

B. Lower C. To provide the academic background

C. Similar essential for effective teaching.

D. Can not be said D. To provide a theoretical framework for
educational research.
64. Your assignment to develop a module on
ESD is best described as an example of 69. Considering punishment as an insult, how
do adolescents react to it?
A. Project-based learning
A. Fear it very much
B. Inquiry learning
B. Abhore it very much
C. Jigsaw approach
C. Consider it command
D. Problem-based learning
D. None of these
65. The link between what the teacher wants
70. It is the conscious adaptation and manage-
students to learn and students’ actual
ment of students’ thinking strategies dur-
learning is called
ing a problem solving.
A. Instruction
A. Metacognitive activity
B. Analysis
B. Rehearsal
C. Cognition
C. Encoding
D. Comprehension
D. Aclimation
66. This theorist focuses more on the discov-
71. What is pedagogy in psychology?
ery process of learning.
A. The scientific study of the mind and be-
A. Gagne
havior
B. Ausubel
B. A series of steps or mechanisms that
C. Bruner occur in a regular way
D. none of above C. The act of encouraging learning activi-
ties through discovery and aquired knowl-
67. -the child’s development is not smooth, edge
some kind of crisis disrupts it, important
not to take the struggle away D. none of above
A. Conservation 72. What does ABA stand for?
B. Discontinuous A. applied behavior analysis
C. Continuous B. applied behavior application
D. none of above C. analysis behavior application
68. The primary aim of educational psychology D. applied beyond analysis

is 73. School comes in socialisation of a child
A. To contribute to an understanding of A. Through grouping
sound educational practices.
B. At oral stage
B. To provide the teacher with a greater
appreciation of his role in the education of C. After family
the child. D. After society

74. In order to escape punishments, the ado- 78. slide right in, no energy needed, under-
lescent is cautious standing something due to past experi-
A. In his behaviour ence, high schooler uses note cards be-
cause it work for past subjects and they
B. Of rebuke were able to have success
C. In socialisation
A. Scaffolding
D. In demand
B. Class Inclusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
75. Classical conditioning is based on C. Assimilation
A. the principle of contiguity (whenever
D. none of above
two or more sensations occur together of-
ten enough, they will be become associ-
79. What kind of program does study skills
ated)
consist of?
B. behavior modification principle (sys-
tematic application of antecedents and A. Sensory learning consists in the assim-
consequences to change behaviour) ilation of new biologically significant prop-
erties of objects and phenomena of the
C. task analysis principle (system for surrounding world
breaking down a task hierarchically into
basic skills and subskills) B. Sensorimotor consists in developing
new or adapting existing reactions to new
D. positive practice principle (practicing conditions of perception
correct responses immediately after er-
rors) C. Learning skills consists in forming an
action program that ensures the achieve-
76. Which of the following questions does not ment of a certain goal
reflect a cognitive information processing
approach? D. none of above
A. How do children get information into 80. Which branch of psychology would argue
memory, store it, and retrieve it? that a child who is hungry will not be able
B. How can teachers help children im- concentrate on schoolwork or being good
prove their memory and study strategies? in class?
C. How do environmental factors influ- A. Humanistic
ence the age at which a child learns to
B. Behavioral
crawl?
D. What are the best strategies for C. Socio-Cultural
helping children become better problem D. Biopsychosocial
solvers?
81. The Stanford-Binet and the Wechsler
77. Which group test was designed during
scales are
World War I for persons who could read?
A. Stanford-Binet A. Both individual tests
B. Army Alpha B. Both group tests

C. WAIS C. Stanford-Binet is group test
D. Army Beta. D. Wechsler scale is group test

82. The fourth stage of Piaget’s theory is 87. Both Aptitude test and Achievement test
This lasts from age 11 to 15 years old. are
A. Adjustment tests

A. Formal operational (idealistic & logical
ways of thinking) B. Ability tests
B. Concrete operational (logical reason- C. Anxiety tests
ing & operations) D. Attitude tests
C. Preoperational (egocentric & intuitive)
88. Which method has made educational psy-
D. Sensorimotor (involves seeing & hear- chology a science?
ing)
A. Observation Method
83. When does an individual make serious ef- B. Clinical method
fort to pattern his behaviour according to C. Survey method
social acceptance?
D. Experimental method.
A. 13 to 20 years
89. They group objects, events, and char-
B. 14 to 21 years acteristicson the basis of common proper-
C. 10 to 21 years ties.
D. 15 to 23 years A. concepts
B. ideas
84. For testing purposes, the highest level at
which all items of Binet’s test are passed C. images
by a given child is that child’s D. none of above
A. Mental age 90. Wechsler set the mean of the scores equal
B. Basal age to an IQ of
C. Ceiling age A. 150
D. Ground age B. 50
C. 100
85. Stimulus is D. 200
A. event that activates behaviour
91. Wilhem woundt set the first laboratary for
B. observable reaction to a stimulus psychology in the year..
C. association of two events because of A. 1987
repeated pairing B. 1897
D. none of above C. 1877
86. Who invented the correlation coefficient D. 1879
and developed the ideas behind finger- 92. ..A correspondence in some respectsbe-
printing and eugenics? tween otherwise dissimilar things.
A. Charles Darwin A. etaphor
B. Sir Francis Galton B. idea
C. Alfred Binet C. analogy
D. Wechsler D. none of above

93. According to psychology, all education is, 98. What does “experiemental” mean from
Latin?
A. Deliberate
A. trial
B. Functional
B. equality
C. Purposive
C. activity
D. Self-Education D. none of above
94. It is the type of memory that retain infor- 99. Which is not a part of Developmental Psy-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mation such as the first day of school, or chology
whom they had lunch with. A. Child Psychology
A. Short term memory B. Adolescent Psychology
B. Working memory C. Physiological Psychology
C. Nondeclarative memory D. Adult Psychology
D. Episodic memory 100. This theorist’s Subsumption Theory fo-

cuses on verbal learning and meaning.
95. What Do you mean by schools of psychol- A. Ausubel
ogy
B. Bruner
A. Individuals with same concepts Unites C. Gagne
B. Individuals with same strategy D. none of above
C. Individuals in a group 101. Which theory of behavior believes that
D. None of these we think and perceive in whole units
rather than the parts?
96. The first intelligence test was developed A. Introspection
by
B. Gestalt
A. Lewis Terman C. Structuralism
B. Albert Sidney Beckham D. Functionalism
C. David Wechsler 102. Which theory put forth by Thorndike?
D. Alfred Binet A. Classical Conditioning
B. Trial and Error
97. What is learning in psychology term?
C. Insight
A. engagement with learners to enable
their understanding and application of D. Operant conditioning
knowledge, concepts and processes 103. One advantage of a teacher-centered ap-
B. relatively permanent change in behav- proach is
ior that result from experience A. Students don’t need to think much
C. an event that is actually lived through, B. Classroom management is easier
as opposed to one that is imagined or C. Teacher can provide cognitive mod-
thought about elling
D. none of above D. Students perform better in exams

104. Information is stored in memory just as a 109. Benjamin Bloom developed which of the
library stores books this according to this following?
theory

A. An approach to teaching based on op-
A. Schema Theory erant conditioning
B. Network Theory B. A problem-solving algorithm for
C. Fuzzy trace Theory teacher training
D. VerbatimTheory C. A quantitative measure of fluid intelli-
gence
105. seeing things in the context of other
meanings, dissecting the true meaning of D. A taxonomy of cognitive skills based on
a story a hierarchy of objectives
A. Assimilation 110. White coat syndrome describes that peo-
B. Discontinuous ple whose blood pressure (an involuntary
response) goes up when it is tested in a
C. Concrete operational
doctor’s office or usually by someone in a
D. Inferred reality white coat. Blood pressure increase is an
example of
106. What is meaningful learning?
A. cognitive process in which learners re- A. conditioned response
late new information to things they al- B. unconditioned response
ready know C. conditioned stimulus
B. focusing of mental processing on par-
D. unconditioned stimulus
ticular stimuli
C. process of finding information previ- 111. child talks to themselves
ously stored in memory A. Private speech
D. long-term change in mental represen- B. Concrete operational
tations or associations as a result of expe-
riences C. Concepts of print
D. none of above
107. According to the serial position effect, a
student displaying primacy will most likely 112. In what manner the child’s socialisation
remember which words from a list? proceeds in a school?
A. The shortest word(s) A. Considerable
B. The longest word(s)
B. A good manner
C. The first word(s) and last words
C. A bad manner
D. The words in the middle
D. None of these
108. Examinations given at the end of a course
to see how much you have learned are 113. Who is called the father of behaviourism
A. Anxiety tests A. BF Skinner
B. Achievement tests B. E a peel
C. Aptitude tests C. JB Watson
D. Adjustment tests D. Pavlov

114. What is the zone of proximal develop- 119. Are the three components needed for ac-
ment (ZPD)? quiring expertise
A. The difference between what a child A. Talent, attention, practice
can do on their own, and what they can B. Practice, motivation, talent
do with the help of a more knowledgeable
other C. Talent, high IQ, motivation
B. An area of research that is dedicated D. Practice, motivation, intelligence

to developing consistent and useful learn- 120. Information is connected and organized
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing and teaching materials through nodes in memory that help us to
C. The difference between what a child stand labels and concepts this is according
can currently do compared to their long- to this theory
term potential A. Schema Theory
D. The importance of continuity in be- B. Network Theory
havioural methods
C. Fuzzy trace Theory
115. develop and then learn, focused on D. Script Theory
stages
121. grouping things up based on similarities
A. Madison
A. Seriation
B. Vygotsky
B. Vygotsky
C. Piaget
C. Class Inclusion
D. none of above
D. Schemes/schema
116. This theorist learning approach applies
for science and math subject matters. 122. How many structures of pedagogical psy-
chology?
A. Ausubel
A. 5
B. Bruner
B. 3
C. Gagne
C. 6
D. none of above
D. none of above
117. An intelligence test that predicts how
well you will do in college is an 123. use symbols to represent objects, able to
think about things, conservation, centra-
A. Adjustment test
tion, egocentric
B. Anxiety test
A. Preoperational stage
C. Aptitude test
B. Egocentric
D. Achievement test C. Schemes/schema
118. Child’s socialisation is influenced by D. none of above
A. Brain pattern 124. According to the decay theory, which of
B. Communication the following is the cause of forgetting?
C. Biological norm A. Lack of schema
D. Ethnic status B. Disintegration of memory traces

C. Lack of initial encoding punctuation of the sentence on the board,

D. Interference by new information. he consciously adapts and manages his
thinking strategies dealing with grammar

125. unborn behaviors in infants, sucking fin- based on what he has just learned. Tanner
ger, grasping hand is demonstrating
A. Reflexes A. talent.
B. Preoperational stage B. metacognitive activity.
C. Assimilation C. fluent retrieval.
D. Centration D. the keyword method.
126. A drawback in his theory is time consum- 130. According to the Guilford’s (1967) model
ing when applying his approach on teach- of Intelligence the number of identifiable
ing. abilities are
A. Ausubel A. 120
B. Bruner B. 110
C. Gagne C. 100
127. Susan was excited about returning to 131. Piaget’s stage for infancy is:
school after summer vacation. Her first A. Concrete operations
day of middle school was great! Later at
B. Formal operation
home she lay on her bed and happily re-
called that day’s events. Susan’s memory C. Preoperational thought
of the day’s events is called D. Sensory motor thoughts
A. procedural knowledge.
132. restoring balance, children learn when
B. chunking. they are unbalanced
C. episodic memory. A. Egocentric
D. semantic memory. B. Equilibration
128. Jake’s teacher notices that he has diffi- C. Sensorimotor
culty distinguishing between information D. none of above
that is essential to remember from the
unimportant details. Jake is displaying an 133. Pinter-Patterson scale was designed for
example of the stage of expertise. the use of
A. retrieval A. mental age
B. encoded B. deaf and linguistically backward child
C. metacognitive C. general information
D. acclimation D. arithmetic reasoning
129. Tanner’s class is correcting sentences for 134. What does the youngest child receive all
grammar on the board. As Tanner is watch- from the parents?
ing his classmate accurately change the A. Drives

B. All requirements B. Criterion referenced test

C. Affection C. Standardized test
D. Attention D. Validation test
135. How do brothers and sisters affect the
socialisation of the child? 140. “Intelligence is the ability to adjust one-
self to a new situation.” This definition
A. Continuously
was given by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Indirectly
A. Wells
C. Commonly
B. Terman
D. Greatly
C. Merrill
136. The idea of hidden curriculum as a means
of conveying the moral atmosphere that is D. William Stern
a part of every school without having spe-
cific programs in moral education was rec- 141. What does cognitive mean?
ognized by:
A. refers to thinking, conscious and men-
A. John Dewey tal processes
B. Lawrence Kohlberg B. being aware of your surroundings
C. James Marcia
C. being able to take in information from
D. Maria Montessori your environment (e.g. sight)
137. The first stage of Piaget’s theory is D. studying the brain and human be-
This is from birth to 2 years old. haviour
A. Preoperational (egocentric & intuitive)
142. Who is the author of the word “The ex-
B. Sensorimotor (involves seeing & hear- perimental method is a form of the mind
ing) approach that has its own logic and its
C. Concrete operational (logical reason & own technical requirements.”
operations)
A. K.Marx and Zimnaya
D. Formal operational (idealistic & logical
ways of thinking) B. P.Kress and J.Piaget
138. -thinks the world develops around them, C. M.Orlov and N.Druzhinin
there is only one way of seeing things, D. none of above
A. Reflexes
143. He developed the Advanced Organizer
B. ZPD
to prepare the learner’s existing cognitive
C. Egocentric structure for new learning to take place
D. none of above
A. Ausubel
139. A test that measures student perfor- B. Bruner
mance against a specific standard is re-
ferred to as C. Gagne
A. Norm referenced test D. none of above

144. What is educational psychology? 149. In order to remember the order in which
A. Educational psychology isthe study of to perform certain functions on an exam,
Ursula writes the word “GRUMPY” on her

mental illness
paper. She smiles, knowing that this will
B. Educational psychology isthe study of help her reach the right answers. Ursula
learners, learning, and teaching. is using.
C. Educational psychology isthe study of
A. the method of loci.
intelligence tests
B. rhymes.
D. Educational psychology isthe study of
cognitive processes C. an acronym.
145. Who is the founder of psychoanalysis? D. the keyword method.

A. Sigmund Freud 150. This is known as the initial stage of ex-
B. Abraham Maslow pertise in a particular domain
C. Ivan Pavlov A. Rehearsal
D. B.F. Skinner B. Acclimation
146. White coat syndrome describes that peo- C. Encoding
ple whose blood pressure (an involuntary D. Content knowledge
response) goes up when it is tested in a
doctor’s office or usually by someone in a 151. The word Stanford in the Stanford-Binet
white coat.Doctor’s office is an example of test stands for
A. conditioned response A. A Psychologist
B. unconditioned response
B. A University
C. conditioned stimulus
C. A Psychiatrist
D. A Country
147. explore world with senses, uses reflexes,
object permanence, 1st stage 152. A visual presentation of a con-
cept’sconnections and hierarchical organi-
A. Formal operational
zation.
B. Sensorimotor
A. mind map
C. Preoperational stage
B. concept map
D. Concrete operational
C. sketches
148. This theorist proposed the use of a spiral
curriculum that can help Students to learn D. none of above
content by adding something else to it in
153. The need of group tests started with
every stage.
A. Gagne A. World War I
B. Bruner B. World War II

C. Ausubel C. India Pakistan War
D. none of above D. India China War

154. Intelligence is the property of recombin- 159. arranging things logically, lining up sticks
ing our behaviour pattern so as to act bet- smallest to largest
ter in a novel situation. This definition is
A. Seriation
given by
B. Schemes
A. Wells
C. Scaffolding
B. William Stern
C. Hull D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Binet 160. Conditioned response is
155. How many stages in the human lifespan A. stimulus not connected to a response
does Erikson introduce? B. stimulus that automatically produces
A. 12 an emotional or physiological response
B. 8 C. naturally occurring emotional or phys-
C. 9 iological response
D. 6 D. learned response to a previously neu-

tral stimulus
156. knowledge and skills related to reading,
understanding the plot to predict the out- 161. Deciding if an item is amember of
come of the story, looking at pictures a category by comparing it with themost
typical item(s) of the category.
A. Emergent literacy
A. hypothesis testing
B. Equilibration
C. Egocentric B. reasoning
D. none of above C. prototype matching

D. none of above
157. Means being alert, mentally present, and
cognitively flexible while going through 162. This theorist states that New knowledge
life’severyday activities and tasks. Mind- must interact with the learner’s cognitive
ful studentsmaintain an active awareness structure.
of the circumstancesin their lives.
A. Ausubel
A. reasoning
B. Bruner
B. critical thinking
C. Gagne
C. mindfulness
D. none of above
D. none of above
158. Applied aspects of social psychology in- 163. Involvement in has a lot of positive
clude the development and perfection of benefits for adolescents, including lower-
techniques for measuring ing chances of dropping out.
A. Attitude A. Driving
B. Opinion B. Having a job
C. Socialisation C. Extracurricular activities
D. Both a & b D. Disliking school

164. The Stanford-Binet test a revision of Bi- B. Jodi classifies a list of animals she has
net’s original test was made by to remember based on their common fea-
tures.

A. Alfred Binet
B. Lewis Terman C. Adam uses symbols to represent
words that he has difficulty spelling.
C. Theodore Simon
D. Harold and Mohammed work together
D. David Wechsler
when designing a telescope.
165. Intelligence is a composite of seven dis-
tinct primary mental abilities was sug- 169. How many tasks of pedagogical psychol-
gested by ogy?
A. Gardner A. 7
B. Sternberg B. 5
C. Binet C. 3
D. Thurstone D. none of above
166. Experts do all of the following EXCEPT: 170. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale con-
A. approach new situations with the sists of
same strategies.
A. Only verbal items
B. detect meaningful patterns of informa-
B. Only nonverbal items
tion.
C. retrieve key aspects of their knowl- C. Both verbal and nonverbal items
edge with little effort. D. Neither verbal nor nonverbal items
D. acquire knowledge that is organized in
a manner that shows a deep understand- 171. Which of the following modern perspec-
ing of the subject. tive focuses on how unconscious traumas,
experiences, and motives affect human be-
167. change of thinking needed, takes more havior?
energy; ex. Change your studying tech- A. Psychodynamic
niques so you do not fail, I use to study
by memorizing what the teacher wanted B. Behavioral
and it is not going to work for this class C. Humanistic
so I am going to have
D. Cognitive
A. Accommodation
B. Scaffolding 172. Neutral stimulus is
C. Discontinuous A. stimulus not connected to a response
D. none of above B. stimulus that automatically produces
an emotional or physiological response
168. Which of the following examples best il-
lustrates chunking? C. naturally occurring emotional or phys-
iological response
A. Georgia thinks of personal examples
when learning about new concepts in sci- D. stimulus that evokes an emotional or
ence. physiological response after conditioning

173. The extent to which a test actually mea- 178. teacher knows that she can make a dif-
sures what it claims to measure is its ference in the student’s life
A. Reliability A. Schemes
B. Validity B. Teacher appliance
C. Norms C. Centration
D. Split-half reliability D. Assimilation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. Definition:Educational Psychology is that
179. Human Intelligence is affected by
branch of Psychology which deals with
teaching and learning.Given by A. Only heredity
A. Peel (1956) B. Only environment
B. Crow and Crow (1973) C. Both heredity and environment
C. Skinner (1958) D. Neither heredity nor environment
D. Sigmund Freud (1856)
180. Perform a dance, ride a bike, or type on
175. White coat syndrome describes that peo- a computer keyboard are examples of in-
ple whose blood pressure (an involuntary formation retained in ..
response) goes up when it is tested in a A. Declarative memory
doctor’s office or usually by someone in a
white coat.Someone in a white coat is an B. Episodic memory
example of C. Short term memory
A. conditioned response D. Nondeclarative memory
B. unconditioned response
181. What is rote learning?
C. conditioned stimulus
A. repeating information verbatim, either
mentally or aloud
176. Out of the 4 parenting styles described B. learning primarily through repetition
by Baumrind, which is thought to be most and practice, with little or no attempt to
effective? make sense of what’s being learned
A. Authoritarian C. making connections among various
B. Authoritative pieces of new information
C. Neglectful D. adding additional ideas to new infor-
mation based on what one already knows
D. Indulgent
177. The first version of Binest and Simon’s 182. The Raven Progressive Matrices consists
test was published in of
A. 1905 A. Sixty matrices

B. 1914 B. Fifty matrices
C. 1904 C. Thirty matrices
D. 1814 D. Eighty matrices

6.3 Entrepreneurship Development 917
183. In this type of organization in memory, D. Script Theory

two types of memory representation take
place. 184. The deviation IQ is a type of

A. Standard score
A. Schema Theory
B. Mean score
B. Network Theory C. Average score
C. Fuzzy trace Theory D. Raw score
6.3 Entrepreneurship Development

1. Which one of the following gives sugges- 4. Identify the statement which is important
tions for new product and also help to mar- while considering the price of a product?
ket new products? A. 1.It gives a competitive edge to the
A. Existing products and services product/service by also building on per-
ception of product/service quality
B. Federal government
B. 2.It hardly matters as prod-
C. Distribution Channels ucts/services can be priced in any way
D. Consumers C. 3. Prices should be kept in a
way to yield maximum profit to a
2. Memorandum of association of a firm con- seller/manufacturer
tains
D. 4.None of the above
A. rules regarding the internal manage-
ment of the company. 5. A function of creating something new for
an economic activity is called
B. rules regarding the constitution and
activities of the company A. innovation
C. rules regarding the external manage- B. creative
ment. C. initiative
D. rules regarding the constitution. D. none of above
3. It has been said that in business if there 6. does not have to invest any capital
is no risk, there is no reward. How would from his pocket.
an entrepreneur interpret this phrase? A. Intrapreneur
A. Be careful to hire employees who B. Entrepreneur
share your vision for the business C. Government
B. Starting a business may require a sig- D. Customer
nificant financial investment to start a
business 7. The written description of your proposed
venture should be
C. Don’t be afraid to confront poor per-
forming employees A. Persuasive
D. Make time for yourself and your own B. Detailed

personal needs C. As short as possible

D. Completed at the end of the study B. Un-favourable economic conditions

with limited opportunity to gain and grow.
8. The final task in the financial section of fea-
sibility study is performing a C. Lack of understanding of customer
needs and solutions to their problems
A. Organizational assessment
D. Idea generation is not taught in educa-
B. Profitability analysis tional courses
C. Annual review
14. The expenses incurred on the setting up of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Estimate of revenues the enterprise are called as
9. Select the pull factor responsible for A. Cost of financing.
Women Entrepreneurship from the below B. . Cost of promotion..
option? C. Cost of fixed assets.
A. Role of the sole bread earner D. Cost of current assets.
B. Family income is insufficient
15. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibil-
C. Not able to find a suitable employment ity study for starting a new venture
D. Financial Independence A. To identify possible sources of funds
10. EDPs course contents contains B. To see if there are possible barriers to
success
A. General introduction to en-
trepreneurs. C. To estimate the expected sales
D. To explore potential customers
B. Motivation training.
C. Managerial skills. 16. Recognize an entrepreneur must be
D. All of these A. Disorganized
B. Organized
11. The person who creates an enterprise is
called C. Lazy
A. Entrepreneur D. Clumsy
B. Managers 17. The content of the final report typically in-

cludes the following topics
C. Leaders
A. Executive summary
D. Owners
B. review and analysis
12. The best definition for USP is:(C1) C. recommendations
A. Unique Selling Price D. If all the above are correct
B. Unique Sellable Picture
18. The technical or logistical section of
C. Unbeatable Show Price the feasibility study includes information
D. Unique Selling Proposition about
A. Potential profitability
13. Idea generation is one of the most difficult
aspects of entrepreneurship because B. What the target market wants
A. People lack in clarity on the things to C. Where the work will happen
do D. Chain of command

19. What is a business plan? 24. The application for registration of a small
A. Written document that only outlines scale unit should be submitted to the

the business practices of the new busi- A. General manager, DIC
ness.
B. Director, DIC
B. Written document that describes the fi-
C. General manager. NSIC
nancial aspects of the business.
D. Director, NSIC
C. Written document that only describes
the ownership of the business. 25. Which are the limitations on Projected Fi-
D. Written document that describes all nancial Statements
the steps necessary for opening and op- A. Unforeseen Situations
erating a successful business.
B. Narrowed Focus
20. DETERMINATION, BRAVERY AND C. Takes Time
COURAGE
D. All of the above
A. ENTREPRENEURIAL GUTS FRAME
B. ENTREPRENEURIAL HEART FRAME 26. Feasibility studies can help own-
ers/managers to determine
C. ENTREPRENEURIAL MIND FRAME
A. The best place to recruit new employ-
D. none of above
ees
21. An entrepreneur must know.. B. The best time to start a project or ven-
A. Only the parts of the business they like ture
B. No parts of the business management C. What their competitors will do
C. all parts of business:finance, market- D. Where to find goof prices on rare ma-
ing, etc. terials
D. none of above 27. What is Floating of SMEs?
22. Which of the following is a method for A. Registration of firm
gathering data from potential customers B. Applying for Loan
during the market analysis portion of a
feasibility study C. Giving over a percentage of the com-
pany for purchase by the public in the form
A. SWOT analysis
of shares.
B. Social media surveys
C. Research and development
28. Which of the following is correct about
D. Profitability analysis
MSMEs?
23. IDBI stands for:- A. Old classification was based on annual
A. Industrial Developing Bank of India turnover
B. International Development Bank of In- B. New classification based on invest-
dia ment
C. Industrial Development Bank of India C. Based on MSMED Act 2007
D. None of the above D. None of these

29. The first step in determining financial for and on the interests and objectives of the
a feasibility study is to family
A. List all sources of funding D. 4. Family exercises control over fam-
B. Create a budget for start-up costs ily business in the form of ownership or in
the form of management of the firm where
C. Estimate expected revenue family members are employed on key po-
D. Estimate operating expenses sitions in India.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
30. What is a business model? (C1) 34. Which of the following is NOT nature of
Small Business?
A. It is a documentation on how to man-
age company’s employee A. Shoestring Budget
B. It is a blueprint on company’s organi- B. Labour intensive
zational structure C. Non Community-based
C. It is a documentation on how the com- D. Indigenous technology
pany’s capture consumer’s value.
D. It is a blueprint on how an organization 35. What was the name of the company Ryan
creates, delivers and captures value established?
A. Ryan’s Recycling Company
31. Which of the following involves informa-
tion regarding anticipated risks and the B. Ryan’s Bottles company
ways to mitigate them? C. Ryan’s Box Company
A. Management and Organization Plan D. Ryan’s Bag company
B. Contingency Plan 36. Business model canvas consist of
C. Operations Plan blocks to understand the overall picture of
D. Financial Plan the chosen business. (C1)
A. ten
32. What motivates female entrepreneurship?
B. eight
A. Money
C. nine
B. Personal Enrichment
D. six
C. A drive to make societal changes
D. All of the above 37. National Alliance of Young Entrepreneurs
(NAYE) Sponsored an Entrepreneurial De-
33. Identify the characteristics of family busi- velopment scheme with Bank of India in
ness in India?
A. 1.Family business is not common in A. January 1920
the Indian economy like elsewhere in the B. August 1920
world
C. January 1972
B. 2. Family business is a firm that is not
closely identified with at least two gener- D. August 1972
ations of a family 38. Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s
C. 3. Family business in India never has career choice and style are known as which
had a mutual influence on company policy of the following?

A. Moral-support network 43. Related to Entrepreneur, IPR stands for?

B. Role model A. Innovative Policy Resolutions

C. Professional support network B. Industrial Protection Resolutions
D. Support system C. Intellectual property rights
D. Income Plan Rewards
39. Which of the following businesses would
most likely be considered a scalable 44. Project management is ideally suited for a
startup business? business environment requiring all of the
A. Local grocery store following except
B. Agricultural equipment sales dealer- A. . Flexibility

ship, like John Deere B. Innovation
C. A GPS or Drone manufacturer C. speed
D. A food pantry operated as a non-for- D. . Repeatability
profit business
45. Which of the following factors is the most
40. , which is included in the project cost, is important in forcing U.S companies to fo-
estimated on the basis of the year when cus on new product development and in-
the enterprise breaks even. creased productivity?
A. working capital A. Entrepreneurship
B. . cost of capital B. Hyper competition
C. cost of production C. Governmental laws

D. Organizational culture
D. cost of equity
46. The second last step of EDP is
41. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a
chance to introduce a new technique or A. Selection of training personnel
new product? B. Actual training
A. Innovative entrepreneur C. Monitoring and follow up
B. Instigated entrepreneur D. Actual training program
C. Initiative entrepreneur 47. A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where
D. Fabian entrepreneur investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed (According to MSMED Act,
42. Who is an Entrepreneur? 2006):
A. 1. A person who works for someone A. Rs. 15 Lakh
B. 2. A person who purposefully works to B. Rs. 20 Lakh
create or run a business to achieve an ob- C. Rs. 25 Lakh
jective
D. Rs. 30 Lakh
C. 3. A person who a buys a successful
business 48. Decisions taken by an entrepreneur on be-
D. 4. A person who teaches business at half of his enterprise are known as
college A. Organizational decisions.

B. Personal decisions. C. Determine the best marketing tactics

C. Routine decisions. for the venture
D. Strategic decisions D. Convince investors to commit money
to the venture
49. New entrepreneurs entering the field of
medium industry for the first time can 54. Which one of the following is the next
have market studies with the subsidiary stage to the Concept Stage of Product Plan-
of ning and Development Process?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 75% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever A. Idea Stage
is less B. Product Planning Stage
B. 75% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever C. Product Development Stage
is high
D. Test Marketing Stage
C. 50% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever
is less 55. Which one of the following is the process
D. 50% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever of entrepreneurs developing new products
is high that over time make current products ob-
solete?
50. Who created Facebook?
A. New business model
A. Mark Zuckerberg
B. Anatomization
B. Elon Musk
C. None of the given options
C. JK Rowling
D. Creative destruction
D. Walt Disney
56. is a fast developing technique of busi-
51. What is the process by which individuals
ness expansion by transferring rights.
pursue opportunities without regard to re-
sources they currently control? A. Dealership
A. Startup management B. Networking
B. Entrepreneurship C. Franchising
C. Financial analysis D. Technopreneurship
D. Feasibility planning
57. An entrepreneur is
52. Expansion of GDP is A. born
A. Gross domestic product B. made
B. Gross demand of product C. born and made both
C. Grand demand product D. all of these
D. General demand product
58. ROI is referring to:(C1)
53. The end goal of a feasibility study is to
A. Repeat on investment
A. Allow owners/ managers to make a
B. Reorder on investment
sound decision about the venture
B. Ensure that competitiors cannot steal C. Return on investment
the idea for the venture D. Repeat on index

59. Entrepreneurial Guidance Bureau(EGB) 65. As per the new Definition of Micro, Small
was set up by and Medium Enterprises from 2019 on-
wards, a Medium Enterprises is?

A. SISI.
B. SIPCOT. A. Annual turnover is less than Rs.5 cr
C. IIC. B. Annual turnover is between Rs. 5 Cr to
D. SIDCO. Rs. 75 cr.
60. Individuals are motivated by government C. Annual turnover is between Rs. 75 Cr

policies and facilities are known as to Rs. 250 cr.
A. Pure D. Annual turnover more than Rs. 250 cr.
B. Induced
C. Motivated 66. What is Technical Appraisal?
D. Spontaneous A. critical study of environmental effect
61. The level at which an individual is viewed B. Study of Selection of pro-

by society is called: cess/technology
A. Financial status C. Study of market for product/service
B. Qualification D. None of the above
C. Social status
D. Achievement 67. Successful entrepreneurs are innovative.
Which of these traits of a business leader
62. What are the main problems facing female is most consistent with innovative lead-
entrepreneurs? ers?
A. Lack of finance
A. Works well with other employees in
B. Scarcity of raw material the business
C. Limited mobility
B. Manages the financial risk of the busi-
D. All of the above ness
63. Entrepreneurs are referred to as Factor C. Task oriented or someone who sticks
of production. with a job
A. First D. Problem solver who can identify new
B. Second solutions to problems
C. Third
68. Industries producing complete articles for
D. Fourth
direct consumption & also processing in-
64. DIC is headed by General Manager in the dustries is called as
rank of
A. Manufacturing industries
A. Joint Director of industries.
B. Feeder Industries
B. Assistant Director of industries.
C. Non-departmental officer. C. Service Industries
D. Departmental officer. D. Mining or Quarrying

69. A well-executed feasibilty study 75. A business’s computer networking require-

A. Is articulate ments would be listed in which section of
a feasibility study
B. Tells owners/managers what decision
to make A. Technical
C. Doesn’t exceed three papers B. Financial
D. Is rigid in its scope C. Organizational
D. Marketing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. What do you mean by entrepreneurship?
A. Doing old business
76. Imitating entrepreneurs are also known as
B. Starting a new business
C. Doing a job A. Fabian entrepreneur
D. All three
B. Drone entrepreneur
71. Pick the odd one out. C. Pure entrepreneur
A. Social mobility
D. Adoptive entrepreneur
B. Security
C. Need achievement 77. is the analysis of costs and benefits of
a proposed project with the goal of assum-
D. Social marginality ing a rational allocation of limited funds.
72. Idea of new product is tested in potential A. Project formulation.
consumers to determine consumer accep-
tance at stage. B. Project evaluation.
A. Concept C. Project appraisal .

B. . Product development. D. Project Design.
C. Test marketing
78. Business that sells products like food,
D. Commercialization. Clothing and cars
73. Large investment is made in fixed assets, A. Retail Business
the project will be termed as
B. Service Business
A. Capital Intensive.
C. Product Business
B. Labour Intensive.
D. none of above
C. Product Intensive.
D. Market Intensive. 79. When a firm enters into business which is
unrelated to its existing business both in
74. . District Industries Centres are located
terms of technology and marketing
A. . conglomerate diversification.
A. in each district.
B. in each state. B. horizontal integration.
C. only in selected districts. C. vertical integration.
D. only in selected states. D. concentric integration

80. What does the term “boot-strapping” re- 85. The ‘T’ in a PESTLE analysis refers to
fer to? A. Time

A. Strapped with maximum amount of
B. Technology
debt to start a business
C. Training
B. Tying yourself to a business partner to
fund a venture D. Talent
C. Self-funding a business or project 86. Activities which must be finished before a
D. Starting a business with very few as- given event can occur are termed as
sets A. Preceeding Activities.
81. The business that sells products like food, B. Succeeding Activities
clothing and cars.
C. Concurrent Activities
A. Franchises
D. Dummy Activities.
B. Service Business
C. Retail Business 87. Activities which can be accomplished simul-
taneously are termed as
D. none of above
A. Preceeding Activities.
82. PERT stands for:- B. Succeeding Activities.
A. People’s Evaluation & Review Tech-
C. Concurrent Activities
nique
D. Dummy Activities.
B. Project Evaluation & Referring Tech-
nique 88. Which of the following factors has allowed
C. Project Evaluation & Review Technique small companies to act like they are big
D. None of the Above ones?
A. Competition
83. The application of scientific methods, tech-
niques and tools to problems involving the B. Economic growth
operations of a system so as to provide C. Technology
those in the control of the system with op-
D. Customers
timum solutions to the problems is known
as:- 89. Which of the following is not a limitation
A. Operational Research of franchising?
B. Applied Research A. Non renewal of agreement
C. Action Research B. No ownership transfer
D. Actual Research C. Prescribed format
84. Which of the following risks is borne by D. Continuous support
the entrepreneur?
90. The final step in the process of conducting
A. Financial risks a feasibility study is
B. Personal risks A. Writing a brief description of the
C. Psychological risks project
D. All of these B. Assessing technical needs

C. Reviewing your work carefully 96. How can one be an entrepreneur?

D. Presenting the study to the appropri- A. Take an existing product and improve
ate audience or modify it.
B. Think of a completely new idea
91. Entreprendre means to
C. Any of the above
A. Undertake
D. none of above
B. Enterprise
NARAYAN CHANGDER
97. A business that can legally act as a sin-
C. Businessman
gle person, even though many people may
D. All of the above own it
A. Corporation
92. What are the four P’s of marketing
B. Entrepreneurship
A. product, produce, production, price
C. Partnership
B. person, place, produce, practice
D. Sole Proprietorship
C. promotion, product, practice, price
98. A business arrangement where one party
D. promotion, place, price, product
allows another party to use a business
Name and sell its products or services is
93. Which one of the following is the most im-
known as
portant characteristic of a successful busi-
ness website? A. A cooperative
A. Innovation B. A franchise
B. Speed C. An owner-manager business

D. A limited company
C. Graphics
D. Products 99. The Markets and Competitors section of a
business plan should contain
94. Annual turnover of entity under start up A. A statement of the target market
india should be;
B. The size of each market segment.
A. Less than 10 crores
C. The key characteristics of buyers in
B. More than 100 crores each business segment
C. 100 crores D. All the above.
D. Less than 100 crores 100. is primarily concerned with the iden-
tification of the project demand potential
95. . A project, which may not add to the ex- and the selection of the optimal technol-
isting profits, should be financed by ogy.
A. debentures. A. Techno-economic analysis.
B. . preference share capital. B. Feasibility analysis.
C. equity capital. C. Input analysis.
D. public deposits D. Financial analysis.

101. Information regarding all of the following C. 60%

is related to operations, EXCEPT: D. 90%

A. Location
106. can be defined as a specifically
B. Promotion evolved work plan densed to achieve a
C. Raw materials specific objective within a specific period
D. Labor skills of time
A. Idea generation.
102. is a graphical representation of the
various activity and event relating to a B. Opportunity Scanning.
project. C. Project.
A. Network analysis. D. Strategy.
B. Scheduling technique.
107. Owners/Managers should not conduct a
C. Logical Model. feasibility study if they are
D. Network Diagram A. Not ready to start the venture
103. What motivates entrepreneurs to suc- B. Considering a business expansion
ceed? C. Certain the idea is feasible
A. 1. their own need to make as much D. Unsure about the idea
money as possible.
108. Project mission and objectives, proce-
B. 2. Very limited product’s demand moti-
dures and systems used, and organization
vates the individuals to succeed
resources used typically appear in the
C. 3. The hope of success in pursue section of the final project report.
of their purpose makes them produce in-
A. Analysis
novative products or substitute products,
some entrepreneurs fulfil the market de- B. Recommendation
mand by producing complementary goods C. lessons learned
also.
D. financial feasibility
D. 4. Government policies motivate en-
trepreneurs to succeed 109. What is RoC?
A. Draft of the Prospectus
104. A person who never takes risk in his firm
is known as B. Securities and Exchange Board of In-
dia
A. Fabian
B. Imitative C. Registrar of Companies
C. Innovative D. None of the above
D. Drone 110. . A key aspect of the financial section of

the business plan is
105. As per the statistics, Small Medium Enter-
prises accounts how much % of industrial A. A statement of management skills.
output? B. . A realistic sales forecast.
A. 45% C. . Production capacity.
B. 30% D. A description of competitors

111. Which one of the following is an impor- B. can lead to small businesses having re-
tant source of idea generation due to their duced contact with its customers.
familiarity with the needs of market? C. is rarely used in small businesses.
A. Existing products and services D. is used in many different industries
B. Distribution channels and markets
C. Federal government 116. Business enterprises need to be inno-
D. Consumers vative for their survival and better per-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
formance and smaller firms are better
112. Why is entrepreneurship important for equipped for the same as
economic development of an economy? A. 1. Small firms have more intelligent
A. 1. Entrepreneurship promotes capital people
formation by mobilizing the idle saving of B. 2.Small size makes them agile to ex-
the public. periment and create
B. 2. It provides immediate large-scale C. 3. Small firms do not have advantage
employment. Thus it helps to reduce un- of large scale.
employment in the country. D. 4. Small firms are free people to inno-
C. 3. It provides balanced regional devel- vate.
opment.
117. Entrepreneurship can best be described
D. 4. All of the above as
113. What are some of the sources of en- A. . a process that requires setting up a
trepreneurial finance? business.
B. taking a significant risk in a business
A. Bootstrapping
context.
B. Angel investors
C. having a strong vision.
C. Venture capitalists D. a process involving innovation, new
D. All of the above products or services, and value creation.
114. PEST Analysis is referred to:- 118. is used to accomplish the project eco-
nomically in the minimum available time
A. Political, Economical, Social & Techno- with limited resources
logical Analysis
A. Project Scheduling.
B. Personal, Economical, Social & Techno-
B. Network Analysis.
logical Analysis
C. Budget Analysis.
C. Political, Economical, Social & Time
Analysis D. Critical Planning.
D. Political, Economical, Systematic & 119. Under Stand up India scheme bank facili-
Technological Analysis tates composite loan between
A. Rs. 10 lakh to 10 crores
115. Which of the following statements is
false? Electronic commerce: B. Rs. 1 lakh to 1 crores
A. can allow new ventures to compete on C. Rs. 10 lakh to 1 crores
more or less equal terms with large firms. D. None of the above

120. Businesses that are designed to improve 125. What is also innovation?
societal needs, such as efforts to address
A. 1. Creating or finding old products
poverty, are considered:

B. 2.Creating new methods of production
A. Small business entrepreneurship
C. 3. Working in existing markets only.
B. Scalable startup business
D. 4. Using existing sources of raw mate-
C. Large company entrepreneurship
rial
D. Social entrepreneurship
126. The process of preparing an inventory of
121. An entrepreneur needs creative thinking skills needed for effective implementation
for new ideas.How can creative thinking of the project is called as
be developed?
A. Economic viability
A. 1. Keen understanding of concept
B. Financial feasibility
B. 2.Lot of market knowledge
C. Technical feasibility
C. 3. A rigid mindset
D. Managerial competence
D. 4. Legal constraints and regulations
127. Hiring a professional to conduct your fea-
122. People who own, operate, and take risk
sibility study can
of a business venture:
A. Be very inexpensive
A. Aptitude
B. Reduce bias
B. Employee
C. Guarantee profit
C. Entrepreneurs
D. Create demand
D. Entrepreneurship
123. What is provincial registration by SME? 128. Today, many companies are using man-
agerial techniques that are designed to en-
A. Permanent registration courage
B. Registration by SME after making A. increasing profits
profit
B. legal compliances
C. Registration at pre-investment stage
C. Ethical behavior
D. shareholders value
124. Which statement that best describe the
advantages of social media platform? 129. are companies in the financial sector
(C2) that provide a broad range of business and
services including banking, insurance, and
A. Geo target content and are able to gen-
investment management.A)B)C)D)
erate higher converting leads
A. Financial Institutions
B. Slow and difficult in sharing content
B. Venture Capitalist
C. Does not encourage in building rela-
tionship C. Sponsors
D. Real-time results are hard to obtain D. All of the Above

130. What is a customer segmentation? (C1) C. 3. The nature and quality of the re-
A. It is an application on how to get cus- sources, capabilities, and strategies the
tomer’s data. entrepreneur possesses is never a hinder-
ing factor for long-term success..
B. It is an application of clustering tech-
niques to customer data. D. 4. Choosing the resources for a firm,
configuring these resources into a con-
C. It is a customer base sistent strategy, and deploying the re-
D. It is a customer base that obtain sources (implementation) are the typical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
through selling activity entrepreneurial acts for success.
131. Robert Anthony’s Framework for Under- 135. An entrepreneur is someone

standing MIS include:- A. Someone who works for a new busi-
A. Strategic Planning ness
B. Managerial Control B. Someone who starts a new business
C. Operational Control C. Someone who takes over an existing
business
D. All of the Above
D. Someone who does not want to work
132. Members of distribution channels are ex-
cellent sources for new ideas because: 136. What are the objectives of EDP
A. They earn a handsome profit from new A. To Identify and train the potential en-
business trepreneur
B. They are familiar with the needs of the B. To motivate entrepreneurial instinct
market C. To help in team building
C. They do not bother if entrepreneur D. All of these
bears a loss
D. They have well-developed sales force 137. Idea generation is considered important
for an entrepreneur, and it implies
133. The word entrepreneur is derived from A. 1.Doing something simply because no
the word ‘entreprende’ one else did it.
A. Japanese B. 2. Idea generation is not that im-
B. English portant because everyone has an idea in
C. Latin which they can work on.
D. French C. 3. Idea generation is possible through

vision, insight, keen observation, educa-
134. For an entrepreneur when decided which tion, experience and exposure.
industry to enter and what business to be D. 4. Idea generation is a simple exercise
in will ensure success as involving brainstorming.
A. 1.Good resources can only lead to suc-
cess. 138. What is the purpose of a business plan?
B. 2. Deciding to start only is success A. 1. Creates the Business Model for In-
as resources are committed so they will vestor
work. B. 2 It is just a plan on paper

C. 3. Highlights risks and challenges and to assess creditworthiness and capabili-

opportunities for a idea or company ties of industries in the sector. What is
it called?

D. 4. It is just way to do more research
about various businesses A. Performance and Credit Rating
Scheme
139. The organizational section of a feasibility
study may include B. Zero Defect Zero Effect Certification
A. Biographical information about own- C. Performance and Economy Rating

ers/managers Scheme (d)
B. A recommendation of whether or not D. None of the above

to proceed with the venture
144. the process in which you would start a
C. A brief description of the proposed business offering a product or service to
project the targeted customer.
D. A list of computer software require- A. Proprietorship
ments
B. Partnership
140. Promoter is a person who C. Entrepreneurship
A. takes part in the incorporation of a D. Internship
company .
B. is a director 145. is the systematic development of a
project idea for the eventual purpose of ar-
C. is a relative of the managing director. riving at an investment decision.
D. works to publicity to the company. A. Project identification.
141. As per the statistics, Small Medium Enter- B. Project formulation.
prises accounts how much % of the total C. Project feasibility.
exports in India?
D. Project evaluation.
A. 50%
B. 70% 146. Which of the following factors does the
macro-environment not include?
C. 40%
A. political and regulatory factors.
D. 85%
B. customer needs in a given market
142. The term “entrepreneurs” was applied to
C. social and demographic factors.
business initially by the French economist
in the 18th century: D. . technological changes.
A. Cantillon 147. Which of the following is not considered
B. Jan Tinbergen to be a characteristic of a project?
C. J.S.Mill A. An established objective
D. None of above B. Complex tasks
C. A clear beginning and end
143. A performance and credit rating scheme
has been launched by the MSME Ministry D. Only for internal use

148. O & M refers to C. Hindi

A. overall efficiency of business D. French
B. efficiency of office and administrative 154. Which one is NOT a disadvantage of En-
work. trepreneurship?
C. office work measurement A. Risky
D. office and management study.
B. Uncertain Income
NARAYAN CHANGDER
149. Section 80 HHB provides for a deduction C. You are the boss
of of profits and gains earned by a res-
D. Work long hours
ident Indian company
A. 65% 155. Which of these is a social barrier to en-
trepreneurship?
B. 60%
A. Low status
C. 55%
B. Custom of people
D. 50%
C. Both
150. As per the statistics, small medium enter-
D. None
prise create how much jobs every year?
A. 1 million 156. At the end of a feasibility study, own-
ers/managers may decide to
B. 2.4 million
A. Switch industries
C. 3 million
B. Pass the result along to compettiors
D. 1.3 million
C. Run the study a second time
151. A business that performs task for cus-
tomers D. Postpone the venture until a later time
A. Retail Business 157. Which are the problems encountered by

B. Service Business Women while taking up Entrepreneurship?
C. Product Business A. Lack of Finance
D. none of above B. Stepping into new markets

C. Dual Responsibility
152. The small scale unit wishing to export has
to obtain exporters code number from D. All of the above
A. The Reserve Bank of India 158. Which of the following is a true state-
B. The Central Bank of India. ment about feasibility studies
C. Any Regional Bank A. They are especially important for gov-

ernment projects
D. Any International Bank.
B. They are not useful for nonprofit orga-
153. The term Entrepreneur is derived from nizations
the word C. They are inexpensive to conduct
A. English D. They are used by businesses in every
B. Tamil industry

159. identified innovation as a character- C. Bounty.

istic of entrepreneur for the first time in D. Concession.
1934.

A. William Diamond 165. The UK government has implemented
a number of policies to encourage En-
B. A.H.Cole trepreneurship in schools.One such initia-
C. W.B.Gartner tive is
D. J.A.Schuumpeter A. Young Enterprise.
160. SWOT analysis s stands for? B. Youth venture.
A. Success C. Young Business.
B. Strength D. Young Initiative.

C. Strategy 166. A person who adopts the idea from some-
D. Survey body is known as
A. Fabian
161. Seed capital assistance
B. Imitative
A. a long-term assistance.
C. Innovative
B. . initial assistance
D. Drone
C. a help for the purchase of seeds.
D. a short-term assistance. 167. Stability Strategy is consist of:-
A. No change Strategy
162. The term Capitalization is used in relation
to B. Small Exploration Strategy
A. sole-proprietorship. C. Consolidation
B. Partnership. D. All of the Above
C. joint stock companies 168. The business development department of
D. co-operative societies SIPCOT guides entrepreneurs in
A. applying for licences.
163. Dimensions of entrepreneurship does not
include B. approval on collaboration.
A. Resource control C. allocation of scarce raw materials.
B. Management hierarchy D. All the above.
C. Resources commitment 169. . A Company is called an artificial person
D. None of these because
164. The term denotes bonus or financial A. it does not have the shape of a natural
aid which is given by a government to person.
an industry to help it compete with other B. . it cannot be used in the court of law.
units C. . it is invisible and intangible.
A. Incentive. D. it exists only in contemplation of
B. Subsidy. law.Answer:

170. A successful entrepreneur must have a C. Tangible assets

growth mindset, where he or she is: D. Copyright
A. Constantly learning and growing
176. The need for making a substantial initial
B. Making more business contacts capital investment to start the business is
C. Always expanding the business most common with:
D. Focused on financial growth as a pri- A. Small business entrepreneurship
mary goal B. Scalable startup business
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. Typically, what is the first step of the en- C. Large company entrepreneurship
trepreneurial process? D. Social entrepreneurship
A. Obtaining financial resources to start
the business 177. refers to some action which is a time
consuming effort necessary to complete a
B. Analyzing the practicality and feasibil- specific event.
ity of the business
A. A Network.
C. Hiring employees
B. An Activity.
D. Plan for growth and expansion
C. An Event.
172. SIPCOT’s financial assistance is in the D. A Node.
form of
A. term loan. 178. Venture capital is concerned with:
B. seed capital scheme. A. New project having potential for

higher profit
C. underwriting the capital issues.
B. New project of high technology
C. New project having high risk
173. A new or different product D. All the above.
A. Harvesting
179. Kelly is planning to open a Lemonade
B. Innovation stand. In order to sell lemonade, she needs
C. Opportunity to do marketing, selling and making lemon-
D. Risk ade. Which block in Business Model Can-
vas that best describe the situation. (C2)
174. Which of the following is the reason for A. Key Partners
business failure
B. Key activities
A. Lack of market research.
C. Value proposition
B. Poor financial control.
D. Revenue stream
C. . Poor management.
D. All the above. 180. Entrepreneurial mindset has the key fea-
tures as
175. Which of the list below does not form In- A. 1. Maximize the importance of failure
tellectual Property? and rejection in their life.
A. Trade marks B. 2. Feel dejected when things are diffi-
B. Patents cult.

C. 3. Entrepreneurs are able to plan C. . Investment Allowance.

ahead and foresee potential problems
D. Rehabilitation Allowance.

D. 4. Leading a stressful life.
185. What are the functions that an en-
181. “Stay Hungry. Stay Foolish.” Steve
trepreneur performs?
Jobs said this is something he has al-
ways wished for himself, and something A. 1.Idea generation
he would wish for new college graduates
B. 2. determination of business objec-
and entrepreneurs too because it will lead
tives
to
A. 1.Entrepreneurs go without food and C. 3. raising of funds
keep making rash decisions. D. 4. All of the above
B. 2. Will lead to endless goal searching
for entrepreneurs. 186. “Personality, lifestyle, attitudes and
class” can be classified under which seg-
C. 3. Will support to aspire for growth so
mentation? (C2)
entrepreneurs constantly keep improving
themselves. A. Geographic
D. 4. Remaining foolish refers to them B. Demographic
daring to think just different all the time.
C. Micrographic
182. Family business always interested to
handover the change of his business to: D. Psychographic
A. Indian Administration Officers 187. Which of the following is the best state-
B. Professional Managers ment for brainstorming?
C. Next generation A. Coming up with a single solution to a
D. None of the above problem
183. Who is Angel capitalist? B. Coming up with a main and a backup

idea or solution
A. Bank
C. Coming up with many ideas or solu-
B. State Financial Corporations
tions as possible through discussions and
C. Individual who invest their own money consultations
for a business start-up, usually in ex-
change for convertible debt or ownership D. Discarding any risky ideas or solutions
equity for problems.
D. Individual or firm invests in small com- 188. New Small Scale industries are exempted
panies, generally using money pooled from the payment of income tax under sec-
from investment companies, large corpo- tion 80Jis called
rations, and pension funds
A. Development Rebate.
184. is granted to small scale units under
section 33B of the Income tax act, 1961. B. Investment Allowance.
A. Depreciation Allowance C. Rehabilitation Allowance.

B. Development Debate D. Tax Holiday

189. A business owned and run by 2 or more 194. Identify the famous Tagline “ Plug Into
people is called Nirvana “
A. Partnership A. BOAT
B. Sole Proprietorship B. JBL
C. Corporation C. BOSE
D. none of above D. SONY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
195. Which decade was declared The Decade
190. Strategic entrepreneurial marketing has
of Women by the United Nations?
been summarised as the 4Is:identification
of target markets, interactive marketing A. 2005-2015
methods, informal intelligence gathering B. 2015-2025
and what is the fourth?
C. 1975-1985
A. . independence.
D. 1985-1995
B. instructiveness.
196. Which is push factor responsible for
C. innovation.
Women Entrepreneurship?
D. internet.
A. Family income is insufficient
191. A corporate manager who starts a new B. Financial Independence
initiative for their company which entails C. Use of the existing skills and education
setting up a new distinct business unit and
board of directors can be regarded as? D. Higher social status
A. Ecopreneur 197. Advantages of Project Financing are:-

B. Technopreneur A. Effective Debt Allocation
C. Intrapreneur B. Risk Management
D. Social Entrepreneur C. Economies of Scale
D. All of the Above
192. Reserve bank of India is a/an
198. Entrepreneurs are able to create opportu-
A. statutory corporation.
nities from problems because
B. company limited by guarantee.
A. 1. they have access to correct re-
C. company limited by shares. sources
D. unlimited company. B. 2. They are plain lucky to be at the
right place and at the right time.
193. In order to be an entrepreneur you will
C. 3. They keep on trying, trying and
have to
are not being distracted by superficial fea-
A. Face risks tures
B. Innovate D. 4. They think structurally to identify
opportunities by making connections be-
C. Organise and develop product
tween a technology and a market that may
D. All of the above not be obvious.

199. Methods of training are: C. District General of Taxation Deduction

A. Lecture method D. Directorate General of Taxation Deduc-

B. Conferences tion
C. Group instructions 205. Choose the correct statement on the ad-

D. All of the above vantages of social media marketing. (C3)
A. High commitment of resources to man-
200. represents the automation of the fun- aging your social media presence, re-
damental, routine process used to support sponding to feedback and producing new
business operations. content
A. DSS B. ineffective use - for example, using the
B. TPS network to push for sales without engag-
C. ESS ing with customers, or failing to respond
to negative feedback - may damage your
D. BES reputation
201. A person owning and running a small firm, C. Difficult to quantify the return on in-
is known as vestment
A. A manager-owner D. compelling and relevant content will
B. An owner-manager. grab the attention of potential customers
and increase brand visibility
C. A professional adapter.
D. An enterprise worker 206. As per MSMED Act 2006, in service sec-
tor a small enterprises is?
202. The process that motivates a person into A. Investment in equipment in less than
action and induces him to continue the or equal to Rs 10 Lakh
course of action for the achievement of
goals is called as B. Investment in equipment in between
Rs 10 lakh and Rs 2 Cr
A. Hard Work
C. Investment in equipment in between
B. Value Rs 2 Cr and Rs 5 Cr
C. motivation D. Investment in equipment in more than
D. none of above Rs 5 Cr.
203. is an activity-oriented approach. 207. What is Economic Appraisal?

A. CPM A. Study on Scale of operations
B. PERT B. Study on Technical Know-how
C. GERT C. Study on Plant layout
D. WASP D. Study on effect of the project on the
whole economy
204. DGTD stands for
A. Directorate General of Technical De- 208. he granting of cash subs idy on the capital
velopment investment is called
B. District General of Technical Develop- A. Concessional finance.

ment B. Quantum of Subsidy.

C. Interest Subsidy. 214. Primary data is

D. Central Investment Subsidy. A. the most important data.
209. Which is the best statement that best de- B. the data that is collected first.
scribe internet or online marketing? (C2) C. new data specifically collected for a
A. The process of promoting brand, prod- project.
uct or services over the internet D. data that is collected second.
B. The process of promoting product or 215. A brief account of the key points con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
services only over the internet tained in a business plan
C. The process of promoting brand, prod- A. Executive Summary
uct or services through online and offline
B. Company Description
D. The process of promoting brand, prod-
uct or services through offline. C. Mission Statement
D. Vision Statement
210. . Business risks can be
A. avoided 216. LOB stands for
B. reduced A. Line of Business
C. . ignored. B. Line of Balance
D. . erased. C. Loss of Business

D. Loss of Balance
211. Mr. A is keen to purchase branded items
regardless how much does it cost. Which 217. What might be the reason for failure of
customer segments do you think Mr. A bemost of the startups?
longs to? (C2) A. Low Budget
A. Convenience seekers B. Location
B. Brand buyers C. Incorrect Market Analysis
C. Casual buyers D. Management
D. Bargain hunters
218. Psychological factors of entrepreneurial
212. Which of the following is not an element growth includes
of motivation? A. Need achievement & social mobility
A. Motive B. Need achievement & status respect
B. None of these withdrawal
C. Behaviour C. Social mobility & marginality
D. Goal D. None of these
213. The process of Strategic Management 219. Which of the following is a reason to con-
includes:- duct a feasibility study
A. Strategy Formulation A. Choosing an advertising slogan
B. Strategy Implementation B. Considering a new product idea
C. Strategy Control C. Ordering office supplies
D. All of the above D. Hiring a new employee

220. Environmental scanning focuses 225. An entrepreneur into the hosiery busi-
A. Profit ness found out the reason his hosiery was
not selling was due to its color. What

B. Ideas could be the best source of this informa-
C. Production tion?
D. Creativity A. . Supplier.
B. . Retailer
221. An entrepreneur with a technical back-
ground is well suited to start his enter- C. Competition
prise as D. Government bureau
A. 1.Is very educated so can start an en- 226. The majority of businesses in the United
terprise. States are family-owned businesses,
B. 2.Understands innovation so can start which are examples of:
an enterprise easily. A. Small business entrepreneurship
C. 3. Can understand market dynamics B. Scalable startup business
easily.
D. 4. Develops characteristics of qual-
ity consciousness and adoption of modern D. Social entrepreneurship
technology and management technique. 227. What are the Different methods of flota-
tion?
222. The entrepreneur was distinguished from
capital provider in: A. Placing only
A. Middle ages B. Placing, Public offer and Introduction
B. 17th century C. Public offer only
C. 18th century D. None of the above
D. 19th and 20th century 228. Business means
223. One of the component for BMC is:(C1) A. Commerce
A. Sale B. industry and commerce.
B. Business C. trade and commerce

D. selling and buying of goods.
C. Business partner
D. method 229. . what are the components of then
project report
224. is a planned system of collecting,
A. requirement of funds
storing, and disseminating data in the
form of information needed to carry out B. location
the functions of management. C. manpower
A. Management Inclusive System D. all the above
B. Management Information System
230. Which of the following is a characteristic
C. Managerial Information System typical of Most entrepreneurs
D. Management Interpretation System A. Choose high risk ventures.

B. Choose low risk ventures. 235. Underestimation of project cost leads to

C. Choose moderate (or calculated) risk
ventures. A. Time under run
D. Choose no risk ventures. B. Cost under run
C. Time over run
231. gives financial assistance to En-
D. Cost over run
trepreneurs
236. The purpose of soft loan scheme is to en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ICICI
courage units to undertake
B. SBI
A. modernization of plant and machinery.
C. IMF
B. replacement of plant and machinery
D. INDIAN BANK C. renovation of plant and machinery.
232. The policy which stressed the role of cot- D. all the above
tage and small-scale industries for bal- 237. Trademarks relate to
anced industrial development of the coun-
try is A. Practice and knowledge acquired
through experience
A. IPR 1940.
B. The protection of proprietary informa-
B. IPR 1948. tion of commercial value
C. IPR 1956 C. The right to reproduce ones own origi-
nal work
D. IPR 1977
D. Brand identity
233. There are several social media platforms
can be used to promote your brand, prod- 238. What is true about risk for a firm?
ucts and services. Choose the best of so- A. 1. Risk refers to the variability of out-
cial media platforms that can be integrated comes (or returns); and is important for a
into your business. (C3) firm to weigh risks in decisions.
A. Facebook, pinterest and instagram B. 2. if there is risk, the returns are cer-
only tain.
B. Facebook, twitter, pinterest C. 3. A firm operating in a risk-free envi-

ronment will never expand.
C. Instagram, whatsapp, facebook and
D. 4. Risk is lot of knowledge about cur-
website
rent conditions.
D. Instagram, facebook and youtube
239. As per MSMED Act, 2006, in manufactur-
234. Which of the following is not a function ing sector a micro enterprises is?
of an entrepreneur? A. Investment in plant and machinery in
A. Altering the government system between Rs 25 lakh and Rs 5 Cr.
B. Investment in plant and machinery in
B. Arranging finance
more than Rs 10 Cr
C. Staffing
C. Investment in plant and machinery in
D. Risk and uncertainty bearing between Rs 5 Cr and Rs 10 Cr.

D. Investment in plant and machinery in B. 51 per cent

less than or equal to Rs 25 Lakh C. 25 per cent

240. set up for the purpose of financing, D. None of the above
facilitating, and promoting foreign trade of
246. The oldest form of business organization
India
is
A. Repco bank
A. . Partnership
B. SBI B. sole proprietorship
C. EXIM bank C. joint stock company
D. HDFC D. co-operative undertaking.
241. Which type of entrepreneurial businesses 247. Full time job which requires dedication
are the least likely to be motivated by and hard work.
profit?
A. Entrepreneur
B. Enterprise
B. Scalable startup business C. Entrepreneurship
C. Large company entrepreneurship D. none of above
D. Social Entrepreneurship
248. Decisions which are concerned with pol-
242. EXIM bank is a icy matters and exercise fundamental influ-
ence on the objectives of the organization
A. State-level institution
are called as
B. . Regional -level institution
A. Organizational decisions.
C. . All India institution.
B. Personal decisions.
D. International institution. C. Routine decisions.
243. is an event-oriented approach . D. Strategic decisions
A. CPM. 249. State Industrial corporations engage in
B. GERT. the development of
C. PERT A. industrial estates.
D. WASP B. institutional estates.
C. individual investors.
244. Select the odd one out.
D. agricultural entrepreneurs.
A. Pure entrepreneur
250. Entrepreneurial development is the key
B. Business entrepreneur
to achieve all-round through accelera-
C. Induced entrepreneur tion of industrial and entrepreneurial activ-
D. Spontaneous entrepreneur ities.
A. economic development
245. A women entrepreneur is supposed to
have a minimum financial interest in share B. increase in profits
capital of entrepreneur’s enterprise: C. shareholders value
A. 35 per cent D. business development

251. Which of the following are challenges of 256. In , machines and equipments are ar-
entrepreneurship? ranged in the order or sequence in which
A. Requires a substantial amount of they are to be used for manufacturing the
knowledge or skills to manage product
B. Difficulties associated with managing A. Factory Layout.

employees B. Product Layout.
C. Inconsistent cash flow C. Process Layout.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above are challenges D. Combined Layout.
252. Which is not a characteristics of an en- 257. Which phase includes Preparation of
trepreneur. training syllabus
A. Hard work A. Pre-training phase
B. Highly optimistic B. Training phase
C. Future vision C. Post training phase
D. Self starter D. None of these
253. A person who is associated with starting 258. Having less than 50 percent of equity
a business is know as share in an international venture is called:
A. Merchant A. Joint Venture
B. Entrepreneur B. Majority interest
C. Salesman C. Minority interest
D. Businessman D. Exporting
254. is a problem -solving technique de- 259. How a company will make customers
signed to produce numerous ideas in a aware of its products/services
short period A. Marketing Plan
A. Synectics. B. Industry Overview
B. Delphi technique. C. Product and Service Plan
C. Brain storming. D. Growth Plan
D. Nominal group technique. 260. Which is NOT a common characteristic of
255. The process by which top management an entrepreneur?
determines the long-term direction of the A. risk-taker
organization by ensuring that careful for- B. creative
mulation, implementation and continuous
evaluation of strategy take place is known C. organized
as D. irresponsible
A. Strategic Decision Making 261. Which trait or characteristic would de-
B. Strategic Management scribe a successful entrepreneur?
C. Strategic Planning A. Lazy
D. None of the Above B. Shy

C. Bossy 267. Projected financial statements are also

D. Self Starter called

A. Profit and loss account
262. Royalty is the amount paid by the fran-
chisee to the B. Balance sheet
A. Licensor C. Pro forma financial statements
B. License D. None of the above
C. Franchisor 268. The capacity for innovation, investment

D. Legal Advisor and expansion in new markets, products
and techniques.
263. Every entrepreneur should draw an A. Business
for his project to ensure the timely com-
pletion of all activities involved in setting B. Businessman
up an enterprise. C. Entrepreneur
A. cost structure D. Entrepreneurship
B. implementation plan
269. Choose the correct one associated with
C. market structure franchising.
D. . production structure A. Franchisee is the seller
264. TIIC is sponsored by the B. Franchisor pays royalties as fees
A. Government of Karnataka. C. Franchisee provides continuous sup-

port
B. Government of Andhra Pradhesh.
D. Franchisee lacks freedom
C. Government of Kerala.
D. Government of Tamil Nadu. 270. Who said, ‘you cannot get into the busi-
ness for the fashion of it’.
265. Decisions which are non-repetitive and A. Lakshmi Mittal
novel nature and required to solve unstruc-
tured problem is called as B. Ratan Tata
A. Programmed decisions C. Azim Premji

B. Non -programmed decisions D. Dhirubhai Ambani
C. Routine decisions 271. Select the correct statement
D. Strategic decisions A. Drone entrepreneurs follow innovative
methods.
266. Entrepreneurial Development Institute of
India was established by: B. Distributor deals with less product
lines.
A. Gujarat Government
C. Intrapreneurs are independent of the
B. Tamilnadu Government organization.
C. Maharashtra Government D. Fabian entrepreneurs are highly cau-
D. Madhya Pradesh Government tious.

272. In backward areas, term loans for expan- 277. may be defined as the excess of
sion or setting up a new unit are available present value of project cash inflows over
at . that of out flows.
A. concessional terms. A. Net present value technique.
B. differential terms. B. Average rate of return.
C. standard terms. C. Benefit-Cost ratio.
D. specific terms. D. Internal rate of return
NARAYAN CHANGDER
273. PERT stands for
278. A provisional SSI registration certificate
A. Programme Evaluation and Research is valid for a period of
Techniques
A. four Years
B. Project Evaluation and Review Tech-
B. three Years
niques.
C. Programme Evaluation and Review C. two Years
Techniques. D. one year
D. Project Evaluation and Research Tech-
niques. 279. is the reorder quantity that minimizes
the total incremental cost of holding inven-
274. An organization or enterprising entity en- tory and the cost of ordering replenish-
gaged in commercial, industrial, or profes- ment.
sional activities. A. Re-order Level
A. Business B. Economic Order Quantity
B. Businessman
C. Danger Level
C. Entrepreneur
D. None of the Above
D. Entrepreneurship
280. Individuals are motivated by psychologi-
275. implies the availability or otherwise cal and economic rewards
of plant and machinery and technical know
how to produce the product. A. Pure
A. Economic viability. B. Induced
B. Financial feasibility. C. Motivated
C. Technical feasibility. D. Spontaneous
D. Managerial competence
281. In which year or century Entrepreneur-
276. Automobile franchise belongs to which ship is described as the founding of a pri-
category? vate enterprise.
A. Product distribution franchise A. 1848

B. Business format franchise B. 16th Century
C. Management franchise C. 1700 A.D.
D. none D. 18th Century

282. A person who is an innovator who intro- 287. A valid definition of a business purpose
duces new combinations of means of pro- is to
duction is called as

A. create a customer.
A. Entrepreneur
B. maximize profits.
B. architect
C. Layman C. serve the society
D. none of above D. . increase the wealth of the firm.
283. IFCI stands for 288. Schumpeter considered that innovative

A. Industrial finance corporation of India. Entrepreneurs would:
B. Institutional finance corporation of In- A. Thrive
dia.
B. Disappear
C. Industrial funding corporation of In-
dia. C. Be absorbed within large innovative
D. Indian finance corporation and institu- firms
tion. D. Be absorbed within non-innovative
284. Successful entrepreneurs must have firms
strong networking skills. Which trait is
most consistent among business leaders 289. Having clear objectives can help an en-
with strong networking skills? trepreneur as
A. Strong technical skills A. 1. Business objectives are needed to

demonstrate to investors.
B. Proficient communicator
C. Ability to reach out to others and work B. 2. Clear objectives can support the di-
with others around them rection the entrepreneur would want his
enterprise and employees to take.
D. Experienced technical leader
C. 3. Objectives talk about business and
285. is a form of financing especially for are important for branding.
funding high technology, high risk and per-
ceived high reward projects D. 4. Objectives are just a waste of time.
A. Fixed capital.
290. It’s a great time to be an entrepreneur, “
B. Current capital. especially an Internet one as
C. Seed capital.
A. 1.The political and social conditions
D. Venture capital. are apt.
286. Which one of the following is not consid- B. 2. People welcome new ideas as com-
ered as one of the building blocks of the pared to past.
model entrepreneur?
C. 3. The aspiring entrepreneurs of today
A. technical skills are technologically precocious and wide
B. management competencies options can be leveraged through internet
C. business awareness D. 4. People are independent to start on
D. personal attributes their own.

291. The important social consideration for a 297. A Spanish word which means self love; a
project is sense of self-esteem or self-respect that
A. Prevention of environmental damage prevents a person from swallowing his
pride
B. Promotion of employment
A. Amor Propio
C. Introduction of import substitution B. Bahala Na System
D. Development of the local area C. Balimbing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
292. Owners of a stock in a company D. Ningas Kugon
A. Directors 298. “Entrepreneurs are made not born”.
B. Stock Holders Choose which statement identify the same
A. 1. Entrepreneurs constantly seek
C. Share Holders
work from other job providers
D. none of above
B. 2. Entrepreneurs usually stumble
293. A commercial banker would prefer a when the pressures are immense.
debt-equity ratio over the years as it indi- C. 3. Entrepreneur rapidly form his or her
cates financial strength of a unit. own opinion and when frustrated; reject
the system and form his or her own busi-
A. Declining.
ness or enterprise to achieve objective
B. Increasing.
D. 4. Entrepreneur delegates action and
C. Stable. supervises people. It takes most of his
D. Fluctuating. /her and time to do work.
299. EST stands for
294. GATT is established in 1947, under:
A. Earliest Start Time.
A. German leadership
B. Event Start Time.
B. U.S. leadership
C. Effective Start Time.
C. French leadership
D. Essential Start Time.
D. U.K. leadership
300. Managerial Bottleneck arises due to
295. The charter of a company is its A. Lack of managerial capacity
A. prospectus. B. Lack of infrastructure
B. statement lieu of prospectus C. Adequate managerial resources
C. memorandum of association. D. Inadequate managerial resources
D. articles of association. 301. One of the strongest predictors of the fu-
ture success of a developing business is:
296. SBA stands for:
A. The financial status of the business
A. Small business accountants owners
B. Small business administration B. The passion of the business leaders
C. Small business adequacy C. The size of the business
D. Small business advisors D. The primary location of the business

302. An entrepreneur who owns more than 308. Who said “ Scale is important for a
one business at a time is called startup. Think big, but take one day at
a time.”

A. an intrapreneur.
B. a corporate entrepreneur. A. Kunal Bahl
C. a portfolio entrepreneur. B. Anand Mahindra
D. None of the above. C. Ritesh Agarwal
D. Ratan Tata
303. Swot Analysis is a tool
A. Conceptual 309. Before bringing any new product/service
to market an entrepreneur should consider
B. Modern the following aspects about a market -
C. Scientific A. 1.Do not think much about long-run op-
D. Traditional portunities in the market
304. Find the odd one. B. 2. Work without paying attention to
target markets.
A. Determination of objective
C. 3. Identify segmentation variables
B. Good relations and segment the market.
C. Organising funds D. 4.Never consider profiles of customer
D. Gap filling function segments in response to any new product
or service.
305. Name of the project Ryan is currently
working on is: 310. Which of the following types of en-
A. Project A trepreneurship is developed to create so-
lutions to problems in the market?
B. Project R
C. Project3R
D. Project Cycle
306. Entrepreneurs are born not made is the
D. Social entrepreneurship
thing of school
A. Traditional 311. Which type of entrepreneurial businesses
are the most profit driven?
B. Modern
C. Both
D. None of them
307. Good sources of information for an en- D. Social entrepreneurship
trepreneur about competitors can be Ob-
tained from 312. EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Pro-
A. Websites. grammes) is required to help:
B. Product information leaflets. A. Existing entrepreneurs
C. Company reports and published ac- B. First generation entrepreneurs
counts. C. Future generations entrepreneurs
D. All of these D. None of the above

313. What is the key performance index for 319. Which one of the following is the first
sales? (C1) step in the entrepreneurial process?
A. Income A. Developing successful business ideas
B. Profit B. Deciding to become an entrepreneur
C. Minimizing cost
C. Growing the entrepreneurial firm
D. Maximizing sales
D. Moving from an idea to an en-
314. Who said “ You cannot get into the busi- trepreneurial firm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ness for the fashion of it .”
A. Azim Premji 320. The moratorium period for repayment of
loan under Stand up scheme is
B. Ratan Tata
C. Lakshmi Mittal A. 10 months
D. Dhirubhai Ambani B. 8 months
315. A business owned by two people or more C. 18 months

people. D. 16 months
A. Franchise
321. A business’s chain of command can be
B. Sole Proprietorship
found in its
C. Partnership
A. Technical need section
D. none of above
B. Market analysis
316. EDP was first introduced in in 1970.
C. Project description
A. Andhra Pradesh
D. Organizational chart
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat 322. The most significant feature of en-
D. none of above trepreneurship is
317. Ryan Hickman started a business where A. Creative activity

he B. Gap filling function
A. collected reused bottles to recycle C. Economic activity
B. Collected newspapers to recycle
D. Innovation
C. Collected old clothes to recycle
D. Collected old cycles to recycle 323. The minimum amount of , irrespective
of such private participation, could be spec-
318. is primarily concerned with the iden- ified at a minimum 17.5 per cent of project
tification, qualification and evaluation of costs by lending institutions.
the project resources
A. . bank loans
A. Techno-economic analysis
B. Feasibility analysis B. promotors contribution
C. Input analysis C. . fixed capital

D. Financial analysis D. working capital

324. An enterprise created by an entrepreneur B. Hardworking

has following characteristics C. Perseverance

A. Is used at times as a vehicle to gener- D. RiskTAker
ate some ideas.
329. Under section 80J of the income tax act,
B. 2. An enterprise is an already formed
1961, small-scale industries are exempted
business organization that offers some
from the payment of income tax on their
goods or services, etc
profits at
C. 3. The enterprise is some business
A. 6% p.a.
structure/object that usually carries out
some commercial activity, creates new B. 6% p.m.
job positions, gains some profits C. 5% p.a
D. 4. An enterprise structure, culture, D. 5% p.a.
core competence, and endurance can be
residuals of particular human beings striv- 330. A venture capitalist is
ing to forge A. The co-founder of a successful startup
B. The net worth of a company
325. Refusal to adopt and use opportunities
to make changes in production en- C. A manager of a business’s investment,
trepreneurs. aligning with goals
A. Fabian D. An investor in a business providing
capital for startup
B. Imitative
C. Innovative 331. Individuals who starts their organization
through natural talent are known as
D. Drone
A. Pure
326. A Business owned by 2 or more people B. Induced
A. Sole Proprietorship C. Motivated
B. Partnership D. Spontaneous
C. Amalgamation
332. exposes an entrepreneur to the latest
D. Corporation Development which affects him.
327. the attitude of Indian Government Ma- A. Training
chinery towards entrepreneurial develop- B. Programmes
ment programme is . C. Instructions
A. Destructive D. Guidance
B. Negative
333. Over - capitalization arises due to
C. Constructive
A. excess of assets over the liabilities.
D. Non - Cooperative
B. excess of liabilities over the assets.
328. A true entrepreneur doesn’t ask ques- C. actual earnings are lower than the ex-
tions about whether or not they’ll succeed- pected earnings..
they truly believe they will. D. actual earnings are higher than the ex-
A. Creative pected earnings.

334. Entrepreneurs create for themselves C. Techno

and others. D. Drone
A. wealth
340. Entrepreneurship is ?
B. risk
A. Starting and operating a business
C. plans
B. The process of applying for a loan
D. none of these
C. The formal name of closing a business
NARAYAN CHANGDER
335. The activity which occurs when the new D. Teaching a younger person a trade
venture is started is called
341. An undertaking or adventure involving an
A. Motivation
uncertainity and risk and requiring innova-
B. Business skills tion is called
C. Departure point A. Enterprise
D. Goal orientation B. Secretary
336. Additional time which a non-critical ac- C. Employee

tivity can consume without increasing the D. none of above
project duration is called
342. describes the direction, the enterprise
A. Total Float. is going in, what its goals are, where it
B. Free Float wants to be, and how it is going to get
there.
C. Independent Float.
A. project report
D. Dependant Float
B. technical anlaysis
337. Investment in which of the following is
C. market analysis
most risky?
D. financial analysis
A. Equity shares.
B. Preference shares 343. market potential of the project report in-
cludes
C. . Debentures.
A. demand and supply conditions
D. Land
B. market strategy
338. To be feasible, your venture must C. after sales service
A. Be innovatice D. all the above
B. Serve the greater public good
344. Define woman running an enterprise?
C. Fullfill a need for the target market
A. An enterprise owned and controlled by
D. Create a new or improved product a men having a minimum financial interest
of 51% of the capital and giving at least
339. entrepreneurs have the goal of lever- 51% of the employment generated in the
aging business for the betterment of soci- enterprise to women
ety.
B. An enterprise owned and controlled by
A. Green a women having a minimum financial inter-
B. Cultural est of 51% of the capital and giving at least

51% of the employment generated in the B. Middle ages

enterprise to women
C. 17th century

C. An enterprise owned and controlled by
D. 19th and 20th century
a women having a minimum financial inter-
est of 51% of the capital only.
349. When a firm enters into some business
D. An enterprise owned and controlled by which is related with its present business
a women having a minimum financial inter- in terms of technology, marketing or both
est of 40% of the capital and giving at least it is called as
41% of the employment generated in the
A. conglomerate diversification.
enterprise to women
B. horizontal integration.
345. There are 4 (FOUR) sources of income
that you can choose to involve which is em- C. vertical integration.
ployee, business owners, self-employed D. concentric integration.
and investor. Which is the best sources of
income that can lead to the most income in 350. The process of enhancing entrepreneurial
your life? (C2) skills and knowledge through structured
A. Employee training and institution building pro-
grammes is called as
B. Business owners
A. Entrepreneurship Training
C. Self-employed
B. Entrepreneurship Development
D. Investor
C. Entrepreneurship Management
346. Which of the following is used by en-
D. none of above
trepreneurs to acquire experience in an in-
ternational market before making a major 351. There are four main bases of market seg-
commitment? mentation which consist of:- (C2)
A. Merger
A. Location, age, gender and demogra-
B. Minority Interest phy
C. Joint venture B. Age, gender, location and salary
D. Majority interest C. Geographic, psychographic, macro-
scopic and microscopic
347. is a statement of what is to be achiev-
able, measurable and stated with specific D. Geographic, demographic, be-
time frames. havioural and psychographic
A. Vision
352. Having more than 50% ownership posi-
B. Mission tion that provides the entrepreneur with
C. Objective managerial control is called:
D. Goal A. Joint venture

B. Majority interest
348. A person who managed large project was
termed as the entrepreneur in the C. Horizontal merger
A. Earliest period D. Diversified activity merger

353. Which of the following is not correct? 359. Suppose an entrepreneur wants to start
A. Franchisor lacks freedom a new company or wants to build a com-
pany around an idea. Identify the key
B. Distributor is a middleman questions he/she would want to consider
C. None of these
A. 1.I know what works and there is noth-
D. Adoptive entrepreneurs are imitative ing new being offered in the market.
354. Why are small businesses important to a B. 2. The technology is nothing for me; I
NARAYAN CHANGDER
country’s economy? know which technology can do what.
A. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs. C. 3. We have everything in place and
B. They can provide specialist support to with our knowledge nobody can come
larger companies. close to us.
C. They can be innovators of new prod- D. 4. People are independent to start on
ucts. their own.Let me work to understand the
key elements to effectively pursue this op-
D. All the above.
portunity along with demand needs and
355. CPM stands for our offering in line with resources avail-
able to us.
A. Continuous Path Method
B. Clear Path Method 360. Initial/first stage of business
C. Critical Path Method A. Marketing
D. Critical Probabilistic Method B. Staffing
356. Which of the following is a psychological C. Idea generation
factor affecting entrepreneurial growth?
D. Selling
A. Legitimacy of entrepreneurship
B. Social status 361. What is the role of a Business Angel?
C. Need for achievement A. To provide small business advice
D. None of these B. To provide capital for business devel-
opment in exchange for a stake in the Busi-
357. What is the main sales objective? (C1)
ness ownership
A. Maximizing cost and maximizing prof-
its C. To set up a franchise business
B. Minimizing cost and minimizing profits D. To assist an entrepreneur to open a
lifestyle business.
C. Minimizing profits and maximizing cost
D. Minimizing cost and maximizing profits 362. The financial section of a feasibility study
must include sources of
358. What is the initial source of finance?
A. Funding
A. IPO
B. Self Finance B. Materials
C. Investment Firms C. Staffing
D. none of above D. Technology

363. The EDP’s are based on kakinanda Dis- C. statutory corporation.

trict of D. department of union government

A. Kerala
369. The pioneer state to develop and promote
B. Karnataka
agro tourism in a country
C. Andhra Pradesh
A. Maharashtra
D. Orissa
B. Gujarat
364. A feasibility study can form a solid foun- C. Madhya Pradesh
dation for which of the following business
documents D. Punjab
A. Business plan 370. Which of the following are the character-

B. Income statement istics of a Businessman?
C. Annual sales report A. Risk Taker
D. Balance sheet B. Leader
C. People oriented
365. Information can be classified into:-
D. Profit Oriented
A. Strategic Information
B. Tactical Information 371. Entrepreneurs are motivated by
C. Operational Information A. money.
D. All of the Above B. personal values.
366. Which of the following is not an element C. pull influences
of networking? D. All of these
A. Communication
372. One of the disadvantages of a franchise
B. Mutual agreement business for a franchisee is
C. Negotiation A. Lack of independence.
D. Building relationship B. Franchise businesses typically have a
367. Why is becoming an Entrepreneur excit- high failure rate.
ing? C. Lack of brand identity
A. 1.Freedom to work and pursue an op- D. Training is not normally provided by
portunity or purpose the entrepreneur be- the franchisor
lieves in.
373. As a new company grows, the en-
B. 2. Satisfaction of being own boss.
trepreneur will need to
C. 3. Power to do things as he likes.
A. be responsive to changes in the mar-
D. 4. Frustration due to availability of lim- ket
ited capital and other resources.
B. ensure financial controls are main-
368. A public corporation means tained.
A. public company. C. build a management team.
B. government company. D. all the above.

6.4 Agricultural Technology 954
374. MSME stands for B. strategic plan

A. Micro, scale, and medium Enterprise C. Process of managing actual projects
B. Macro, small and medium Enterprise D. both b and c
C. Micro, small and medium Enterprise
377. Which of the following is alternatively
D. Minor, small and medium Enterprise
called corporate venturing?
375. Which one of the following describes un- A. Entrepreneurship
employment?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Intrapreneurship
A. The number of people who voluntarily
choose not to work C. Act of stating a new venture
B. The number of people who are jobless D. Offering new products by an existing
and are actively seeking work. company
C. The number of people who are not ac-
378. Which of the following is not one of the
tively seeking work
4 Ms?
D. The number of people actively seeking
work who find work. A. Organizational decisions
B. Personal decisions.
376. Integration of project management with
the organization takes place with the C. Routine decisions.
A. master budjet D. Strategic decisions.
6.4 Agricultural Technology

1. What Medieval event did NOT lead even- B. Keep weather up to date
tually to stronger centralized government
C. keep harvest fresh
in Europe?
D. helped harvest crops
A. The 100 years war lead to armies not
needing armor anymore, making it easier 3. A group of people who practice the same
for kings to buy their own personal armies trade.
B. The black death lead to the break
A. guild
down of the feudal system decreasing the
power of the lords B. missionary
C. Increased trade from the crusades C. feudalism
meant that kings could tax merchants to
D. monastery
build up their militaries
D. The black death lead people to rely 4. How did the Reformation create shifts in
increasingly on the nobility to help find power?
cures
A. The shift in power was from Protes-
2. What is ONE Way technology could affect tants to the Catholic church and the Pope
agriculture in a bad way? was the most powerful in the country
A. Technology could have a minor mal- B. No shifts in power happened during
function the reformation

C. 95 Theses spread and print, B. Populations in rural areas increased

Lutheranism was the split from the as the Agricultural Adjustment Act gave
Catholic church, Pope loses power to farmers more opportunities

princes, Creation of a hereditary monar- C. All of the counties in Georgia lost many
chy residents as people went to other states
D. none of above in search of jobs
5. As cities grew, what new groups of work- D. Urban populations increased because
ers developed? technology advanced in farming replacing
sharecroppers and forced people to look
A. Guilds for work in cities
B. Knights
10. What are farmers often turning to with
C. Rugby Teams an aim to make their farms more efficient,
D. Manors improve animal welfare standards and re-
duce environmental impact?
6. One positive impact of the crusades was?
A. Technology
A. Christians reclaimed the Holy Land
B. Electronic tractors
B. The decline of the power of European
Kings C. Tax benefits
C. Increased demand for goods from D. Better animals

Asia and the Middle East
11. Which group of people played a large role
D. Defeat of the Islamic Empires in the growth of Medieval Towns?
7. Which of the following was NOT a princi- A. Women

ple of mercantilism? B. Doctors
A. Export more than you import. C. Merchants
B. Import more than you export. D. Priests
C. Settle as many colonies as possible
12. In feudalism, the King gives loyal subjects
D. Gain as much gold and silver as possi- land in exchange for what?
ble.
A. Trade Rights
8. Which activity helped towns and cities B. Military Service
grow?
C. Permission to Marry
A. musicals
D. Horses and other Live Stock
B. colleges
C. parks 13. Which headline BEST describes the impact
agricultural technology had on Post World
D. trade War II Georgia?
9. How did Georgia’s population change after A. Bigger Farms and Fewer Farm-
World War II? ers:Grow More with Less Hired Help
A. All of the counties in Georgia gained B. Agricultural Adjustment Act:Government
residents as soldiers came home Helps to Hire More Farm Workers

C. Crop Yields Falling! - Not Enough for B. As society becomes more secular, they
Returning Soldiers rely less on the church to create solutions
D. Returning Soldiers Means More Farm- for everyday issues, like food
ers for Georgia C. As the rich get richer, they buy more
and more farm land to provide jobs for
14. Which of these was NOT a purpose of the landless farmers
guilds?
D. Europeans start using efficient farm-
A. Make sure the goods were high qual- ing techniques from Native American Em-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ity. pires
B. Teach everyone in town the skill.
19. What is the difference between AI and hu-
C. Guarantee a fair price for goods. mans?
D. Control the quantity or amount of
A. AI can do tasks faster and can go more
goods.
in depth
15. The suspension of feudal laws was a key B. AI can come alive at will
step in the development of
C. AI needs nutrients to survive
A. communism
D. Humans can teach AI how to do some-
B. chivalry thing
C. the market system and capitalism
20. What allowed Europe to become powerful
D. Mediterranean domination and wealthy in the Renaissance era?
16. What is ONE way technology has helped A. Military crusading
after production? B. Increased trade, banking, and educa-
A. It has helped us cook tion
B. It helps us DESTROY C. inefficient theocratic rulers and few
C. It keeps us entertained government regulations
D. none of above D. Low taxes and low immigration rates
17. How is RFID helpful to consumers? 21. introduction of machines such as the trac-
tor and the processor 2. fewer workers
A. It gives them information on the qual- needed on the farm3. more industries
ity of their laptops looking for labor in the city 4. a shift from
B. It gives them information on how their agriculture to manufacturing during World
produce was grown War II What would be the BEST title for
C. It tells them which stores are cheap- the information above?
est A. “The Impact of World War II and the
D. It tells them good sci-fi stories Decline of Cash Crops” as the state turned
away from agriculture to manufacturing
18. Which of the following MOST likely lead during WWII
to increased food production between the B. “The Reasons behind the Population
15th and 17th centuries? Shift to Large Cities” as new technology
A. New technologies and farming tech- reduced the need for farm workers but
niques make farming more efficient called for manufacturing workers

C. “The Change from Cotton to Other C. By learning how to spell climate

Crops” as farmers turned from cotton to change
other cash crops during WWII

D. By learning magic spells that will re-
D. “The Collapse of Farming in Georgia” move the environment
as farming was no longer important to the
economy of Georgia 27. Cloth makers, cobblers, and stone masons
are examples of what?
22. Crops grown on a farm are considered A. Churches
what type of resource?
B. Fairs
A. Exhaustible
C. Crusaders
B. Renewable
D. Guilds
C. Nonrenewable
D. Reusable 28. What is minichromosome technology?
A. A tiny machine inside computers to au-
23. Why are farmers profit margins being
tomatically delete unwanted elements in
squeezed?
your background
A. People are consuming less beef.
B. A tiny structure inside a plant’s roots
B. Because of floods, drought and bush that turns the plant upside down after it
fires. finishes growing
C. They are poor managers of farms. C. A tiny structure inside a plant cell that
D. Their income is reducing while ex- does not have many genes but contains a
penses are increasing. lot of traits
D. A tiny structure inside a plant’s cell
24. On the feudal manor, in exchange for la-
that connects to a computer in order to
bor, what did serfs receive?
share what the plant is feeling on Insta-
A. Noble Titles gram
B. ownership of the land
29. How did the Crusades impact society and
C. protection lead to the decline of the middle ages?
D. high wages A. An increase in trade led to the end of
manorialism
25. What is ONE way technology could affect
technology in a good way B. More trade strengthened the power of
the church
A. Could have a malfunction
C. Many Europeans converted to Islam
B. Keeps produce fresh
D. Kings became weaker
C. Spreads disease to crops
D. fails 30. The role of transportation in industries
such as agriculture is
26. How can we better the environment?
A. Vital
A. By figuring out how to work with na-
ture B. Very important
B. By figuring out how to make our lap- C. Somewhat important

tops come alive D. Not important

31. Agricultural products include: C. The Lords stopped using the system of
A. Buildings, food, fiber, and fuel feudalism
B. . Food, fiber, fuel, and chemicals D. Towns failed during this time period
C. Fiber, food, chemicals, and clothing 37. When designing solutions to technological
D. . Buildings, clothing, food, and fuel problems, engineers use the
A. Scientific Method
32. Agricultural businesses must do three
NARAYAN CHANGDER
things B. Scientific Design Theory
A. Produce, process, and market C. Engineering design process
B. Process, manufacture, market D. Technological theory of design
C. Manufacture, distribute, and market
38. What helped the middle class to grow?
D. Produce, process, and distribute
A. Guild memberships increased.
33. Trade was both a cause and effect of
B. Peasants made more money.
and was also impacted by a growth in
C. More people started businesses.
A. the growth of towns, population
B. dissent, revolts D. The nobles sold land to peasants.
C. religious discord, church dissent 39. Many medieval towns were built near
D. wars, weaponry what geographic feature?
A. farm
34. A good example of a Commercial innova-
tion was what? B. cathedral
A. slavery C. river
B. cash crops D. mountains
C. banking institutions
40. The European system of manorialism is
D. trade routes most closely associated with
35. How can we maximize the amount of crops A. promoting social mobility
that are produced? B. reviving and preserving learning
A. By investing in smart machines, sen-
C. serving the spiritual needs of society
sors, and other tech
D. maintaining economic self-sufficiency
B. By not minimizing our computer tabs
C. By planting in a lot of fields in case a 41. How does technology help with weather?
field fails
A. By keeping the same weather for the
D. By planting fertilizer instead of crops whole week but it’s non-accurate
36. Towns and cities were able to grow be- B. by telling the correct weather and mak-
cause of what on the manors? ing sure the person knows before time!
A. There wasn’t enough food on manors C. Doesn’t even tell the weather
B. Crop surpluses (extra food) were sold. D. none of above

42. What was a result of the rise of the mer- C. Because people will start protesting if
chant class in Europe? this is not the case

A. The end of the Feudal system D. Because we are focusing on technol-
B. A decrease in the slave trade ogy, so it’s only fair that we focus on farm-
ing too
C. A decrease of wealth
D. The end of the Ottoman Empire 44. How will we decrease the amount of land
that must be cleared?
43. Why is it important to focus on the future
A. By blending farms with forests
of farming?
A. Because the population will only con- B. All of the above
tinue to grow and we need to make sure C. By using technology to make the most
we can quickly give people good quality out of what we have
food D. By planting different crops every year
B. Because farmers need money to replenish the nutrients that were lost

7. Agril Engineering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.1 Computer Application
1. An array element can be accessed through: 5. Cut or copied text is stored temporarily in
A. Dot the
B. Name of the array A. Clipboard
C. Index Number B. Character Store
D. All of the above C. Cubboard
2. Which is not a network for distribution of D. Cabinet

information?
6. Which home row letter is missing for the
A. cloud storage right hand - j, l, ;?
B. Several computers to one printer A. p
C. Microsoft Word B. m
D. E-mail
C. k
3. How many homerow keys are there? D. b
A. 12
7. To create a digital file from an old photo, I
B. 6 would use a
C. 9
A. printer
D. 8
B. scanner
4. To apply a slide transition, you must dis- C. monitor
play the task pane.
D. modem
A. Custom Animation
B. Slide Transition 8. Ctrl + V =
C. Animation Effect A. Cut
D. Transition Effect B. Copy

7.1 Computer Application 961
C. Select D. A toolbar on the right side of the

D. Paste screen that lets you quickly search for
commands that you need.

9. A horizontal line that is placed beneath
14. Protocol used when sending Mails
characters.
A. IMAP
A. Bold
B. SMTP
B. Italics
C. POP3
C. Underline
D. HTTPS
D. Subscript
15. Which of the following is the smallest unit
10. Who is the father if the computer? of measure?
A. Bill Gates A. Megabyte
B. Larry Basin B. Gigabyte
C. Charles Babbage C. Petabyte
D. Sir Arthur D. Terabyte
11. This type of software produce slide shows 16. Mr. Barnes made a reservation at the
and multimedia presentations. Metro Hotel. He arrived at 9 P.M. only
A. Desktop Publishing to find that the hotel was full. The room
held for him was released for sale at 6
B. Graphic and Design P.M. Based on this information, which of
C. Accounting the following types of reservations did Mr.
Barnes probably make.
D. Presentation
A. Non-guaranteed reservation
12. You can use Word to create B. Credit card guaranteed reservation.
A. reports C. Travel agent guaranteed reservation.
B. tables D. Corporate guaranteed reservation
C. letters and memos
17. A powerful spreadsheet program that al-
D. all of the above lows users to organize data, complete cal-
culations, make decisions, and graph data.
13. What is the Ribbon?
A. Project
A. A toolbar that goes all the way across
the top of the screen that lets you quickly B. Word
choose any command you need, based on C. Publisher
which tab is selected. D. Excel
B. A toolbar at the bottom of the screen
that lets you quickly see the number of 18. Where in PowerPoint do you set up tim-
words and pages in your document ings and rehearse settings for the slide
show?
C. A toolbar at the top of the screen that
lets you quickly select common commands A. file
like save, undo, and redo B. home

C. insert of the order. J Veronica was told to make

D. slide show this happen. Which Microsoft application
would be most suitable?
19. Webpage is a part of A. Microsoft Publisher
A. WWW B. Microsoft Word
B. HTML C. Microsoft PowerPoint
C. Website D. Microsoft Access
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Internet 24. A .ppt file is what type of file?
20. a software program that enables a spe- A. spreadsheet
cific hardware device to work with a com- B. database
puter’s operating system
C. compression
A. application
D. presentation
B. software
25. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
C. hardware
A. FTP
D. device driver
B. IMAP
21. What type of report multiplies predicted C. SMTP
occupancies by current house rates?
D. POP3
A. Rooms availability rate
26. Which type of computer is commonly used
B. Expected arrivals list
in homes?
C. Revenue forecast report
A. Microcomputer
D. Reservation log file
B. Supercomputer
22. The whole point of having an is that C. Microprocessor
it saves you precious time that you can D. Mainframe computer
spend on more high value tasks, like
putting money back into the business and 27. Which key creates a space in a document?
enjoying quality time with friends A. Spacebar
A. Online reservation or propertyman- B. Enter
agement system
C. Tab
B. Online booking
D. Caps Lock
C. Online Management system
28. One way that businesses maintain the se-
D. All of the above
curity of data that they send over the In-
23. Veronica works for a company that has ternet to clients is by using a software pro-
over 10, 000 clients. The company would gram that prevents.
like to organize their customer data by A. virus from being downloaded.
name, address, phone number and email B. attachment from being included
addresses. They also need to categorize
the same information by the name of the C. document from being forwarded.
person who placed the order and the date D. search engine from being used

29. The concept of the Internet was developed 34. Color and pattern used to fill a closed
by the U.S. Department of Defense as a shape is called
network that in event of an attack.

A. Shape
A. provides point to point connections B. WordArt
B. allows commerce to continue C. Fill Style
C. would not be disrupted easily D. Fill Back
D. would not be easily hacked 35. The two basic types of memory in a com-
puter are
30. Which are the home row keys for the right
hand? A. Primary and major
A. lkjh B. Primary and Secondary

C. Minor and Major
B. jkl;
D. Main and virtual
C. bnm,
D. kl;’ 36. Keyboard shortcut “Ctrl-P” does what?
A. Delete
31. Which is the largest type of network? B. Print
A. Home network C. Paste
B. Local Area Network (LAN) D. Copy
C. Wide Area Network (WAN) 37. Which of the following is a storage device?
D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) A. Monitor
32. As a chief engineer or engineering man- B. Scanner
ager, you would be responsible for over- C. Speaker
seeing: D. Flash Drive
A. Safety and Security
38. A is a grid of rows and column in which
B. Safety and security, controlling costs you enter text, numbers and the results of
and legal and regulatory compliance calculations.
C. Legal and regulatory compliance and A. Document
controlling costs B. Spreadsheet
D. Controlling costs and safety C. Table
33. Madisons teacher has asked her to delete D. Publisher
3 rows from a 5 x 5 table. which group 39. If you want a picture facing the left in-
on the table tools layout tab would allow stead of the right which menu item would
her to delete the rows? be best to choose?
A. alignment group A. flip horizontal
B. cell size group B. flip vertical
C. merge gorup C. rotate right 90 degrees
D. rows and columns group D. rotate left 90 degrees

40. What are the vertical sections of a table 46. Which of the following is a cybercrimee?
called? A. Firewall
A. Cells B. Trojan Horse
B. Rows C. Spam
C. Columns
D. Spyware
D. Ranges
47. Before data transmission begins, devices
41. What does a computer allow you to do?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
send messages to one-another, completing
A. Type documents and send email a task called?
B. Browse the Internet A. Data Transmission
C. Store and retrieve data B. Handshaking Process
D. All of the above C. Network Protocol
42. If a Windows program has become unre- D. Packet Switching

sponsive, which keys do you press to open 48. What is the best way to make sure a com-
the Task Manager? puter is safe from Internet Hackers?
A. Shift, Tab, Enter A. use a firewall
B. Home, Control, Shift B. do not use your name on Social medi
C. Space bar, F1, Tab
C. make sure you log off of your computer
D. Control, Alt, Delete
D. disconnect the internet connection
43. Which bar show the used formula of se- when you shut off the computer
lected active cell?
49. How might creating a template help a busi-
A. Formula bar ness?
B. Ribbon A. Documents become standardized
C. Menu bar B. Confussion in the office place
D. Scroll bar C. Creating a new document every time
44. The facilities management department is a D. Non of the above
major contributor to:
50. Which command means “paste”?
A. Guest Satisfaction
A. ctrl + c
B. Revenue
B. ctrl + v
C. Sales
C. ctrl + x
D. Marketing
D. ctrl + alt + delete
45. tools enable people to connect and ex-
change ideas. 51. Processor speed is measured in
A. Social media A. Ghz
B. Crowdsourcing B. Bus Speed
C. Debugging C. Hyperthreads
D. Affective computing D. Cores

52. Ctrl + N 58. If you insert an image into your Word doc-
A. Opens a New Document ument and you want the picture facing the
left side instead of the right. Which menu

B. Closes a document item would be your best choice?
C. Print A. flip horizontal
D. Save B. flip vertical
53. The conversion from string to primitive C. rotate right 90 degrees
type data is possible when it contains only D. rotate left 90 degrees
A. numbers
59. The is a class that contains a primitive
B. arrays data type.
C. classs A. Array
D. letters B. object
54. In which decade were the earliest comput- C. User defined data type
ing devices developed? D. wrapper class
A. 40s
60. Which type of connector can you find at the
B. 50s end of a telephone landline?
C. 70s A. DVI
D. 30s B. VGA
55. personal hygiene and cleanliness of staff C. DB-9
reflect D. RJ-11
A. The occupancy of the Hotel
61. If I sort a table alphabetically A to Z, which
B. the standard of the establishment word would go first.
C. The harmfulness of the bacteria A. Animals
D. the importance of the washing hands B. Ball
56. An example of a commonly used web C. Car
browser is: D. Dinosaur
A. Google Chrome
62. COUNT is a variable used in a game. The
B. OpenOffice Calc. following script is used within the game.
C. Microsoft Outlook SET COUNT TO 3 IF <KEY “X” PRESSED>
D. Microsoft Windows THEN INCREASE COUNT BY 2 ELSE DE-
CREASE COUNT BY 1 When the game is
57. You changed the color of some text to red. run, X is pressed 2 times. What is the fi-
What did you just change? nal value for “COUNT”?
A. A paragraph style A. 2
B. A font B. 5
C. A font effect C. 7
D. A font style D. 11

63. When showing your slide show, you can 69. The browser feature which enables tabs
move to the next slide by to work independently from one another
A. clicking the mouse button so if one crashes, the others may continue
to work is known as
B. pressing the spacebar
A. pinned tabs
C. pressing the down arrow key
B. tab isolation
D. all of the above
C. free tabs
64. Which of the following is performed during
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. privacy browsing
the departure phase of the financial report-
ing cycle? 70. A checks front office accounting
A. Secure guest’s form of payment records for accuracy and, on a daily basis,
summarizes and compiles reports about
B. Monitor guest account balances the various aspects of the hotel’s financial
C. Establish guest folio performance.
D. Provide guest with receipt of final bill A. Cashier
65. To capitalize the first letter of a word, use B. Night Auditor
the C. Reservationist
A. Caps lock key D. Front Desk Representative
B. Shift Key 71. If you are needing to create a list of some
C. Enter Key information in which group would you find
D. Backspace a numbered list in Word?
A. page layout
66. is a composite data type that uses sim-
ilar type of primitive data. B. paragraph
A. class C. references
B. array D. review
C. character 72. What is software?
D. object A. Anything connected to the computer
that is soft
67. I tried to make my pony jump the stream,
but she balked. B. Anything connected to the computer
that you can touch
A. forgot
C. Any set of instructions that you can
B. slept work with
C. refused D. Any set of instructions that tells the
D. leaped hardware what to do
68. WHAT’S THE MEANING OF FAP? 73. All memory is measured in what?
A. FAMILY AMERICAN PLAN A. Meters (m)
B. FULL AMERICAN PLAN B. Volume (v)
C. FOOD AMERICAN PLAN C. Giga Bytes (GB)
D. FILL AMERCAN PLAN D. Inches (in)

74. What finger do you use to type the “L” C. Read mode, Web layout and Print lay-
key? out

A. Right little finger D. Zoom, Web layout and Read mode
B. Left index finger 80. Google cloud is what?
C. Right ring finger A. Is a suite of cloud computing services
D. Left middle finger that runs on the same infrastructure that
Google uses internally for its end-user
75. Which network model is the least secure? products,
A. Client/server network B. Is cloud platform that will allow you to
compute services that runs on two differ-
B. Local area network (LAN)
ent infrastructures.
C. Peer-to-Peer (P2P) network
C. Google cloud platform, offered by
D. Mainframe/terminal network google, is a suite of computing that runs
on the same infrastructure that internal
76. Use the left pinky to strike this key:
users use.
A. A D. Google Cloud Platform, offered by
B. K Google, is a suite of cloud computing ser-
C. J vices that runs on the same infrastructure
that Google uses internally for its end-
D. L user products, such as Google Search,
Gmail, file storage, and YouTube
77. Identify the component that protects the
internal hardware of a computer system 81. The reservation system offers a uniform
unit. booking experience across the devices be-
A. RAM ing a robust responsive solution
B. Case A. Booking
C. Hard drive B. Responsive Booking Engine

C. Online booking
D. Power supply
78. The left shift key is found under what but-
ton? 82. When writing an email to multiple people
(a group email), which of the following is
A. Enter an important rule to bear in mind?
B. Tab A. Use the bcc field if the recipients might
C. CapsLock not want others in the group to see their
email address
D. Ctrl
B. Treat it like an instant messaging or
79. The document view allows you to see a text messaging group chat it’s basi-
Word page in three different views. What cally the same thing
are the views?
C. Feel free to send interesting or funny
A. Read mode, Internet mode and Wide things you found online
view D. Say hello to every person on the list in-
B. Zoom, Scroll and Word count dividually in the first line of the email

83. Ctrl will allow the selection of all in- C. templates

formation on your screen.
D. format painter
A. D
B. C 89. By default, when you create formulas, the
cell references are formatted as refer-
C. B
ences.
D. A
A. absolute cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
84. The reservations module creates a reser-
B. relative cell
vation record.
A. Reservations inquiry C. mixed cell
B. Determining availability D. functions
C. Creating reservation records
90. Which of these is not applications soft-
D. Confirming the reservation ware?
85. Letters confirming reservations are nor- A. Spreadsheet
mally printed by a hotel’s property man-
agement system: B. Database
A. Immediately after creating a reserva- C. Word Processor

tion record. D. Anti-Virus
B. While determining room availability in-
formation. 91. A PowerPoint presentation also called
C. During the daily system update A. slide stack
D. After each shift.
B. slide show
86. The home row keys for the right hand are C. slide set
A. jkl;
D. slide file
B. jlk;
C. jk;l 92. The IT department has rejected the pass-
word you submitted for approval to join
D. jkk;
the network. Your suggestion was “bob-
87. Spam is bie.” Why did IT reject your choice?
A. Unsolicited email A. Someone else is already using “bob-
bie.”
B. A virus
C. A picture B. The word does not meet your com-
pany’s policy for choice of passwords.
D. A browser
C. It will be confusing because it could be
88. Set of coordinated colors, fonts & effects written down as “Bobby” by mistake.
which can be applied to documents
D. Because everyone knows you have a
A. themes dog called Bobbie, so the password is too
B. style sets predictable.

93. Which of the following is an example of B. Motherboard

processing a transaction with a debit card:
C. Magnetic drive

A. Jayden purchased a new video game
D. Solid state drive (SSD)
from Great Deal Electronics using a store-
issued card given to him by his grandfa- 98. The CPU acts as the of a computer
ther.
A. The CPU acts as the of a computer
B. Tyler provided his card number and ex-
piration date to the online-travel agency B. Blood
so he could obtain his airline tickets now C. Brain
and receive his bill for the tickets later.
D. All of above
C. After Ava finished her meal at an
upscale restaurant, she presented the 99. When keyboarding you should be looking
server with a card that provided Ava with at
a special discount off her bill.
A. your fingers
D. When Naomi purchased office sup-
plies, she presented the cashier with a B. your screen
card that automatically withdrew funds C. your cell phone
from her business’s checking account.
D. none of above
94. Which of the following is an output de-
vice? 100. Which keys are supposed to be typed by
the right ring finger?
A. Mouse
A. 3, E, D, C
B. Monitor
B. 8, I, K, ,
C. Keyboard
D. Microphone C. 1, Q, A, Z
D. 9, O, L, .
95. What does HTTP stand for?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol 101. Which option correctly describes the
spinal posture while typing?
B. Hypertext Transferal Protocol
C. Hyper-Transfer Protocol A. Straight
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure B. Slouched forwards

C. Slouched backwards
96. Marketers and businesses can use graph-
ics programs to do which of the following? D. Turned at an angle
A. Create logos and letterheads 102. Which of the following is performed dur-
B. Manage Businesses assets ing the arrival phase of the financial re-
C. Schedule projects porting cycle?
D. Track sales and services A. Process guest payment

B. Post late charges
97. Which type of hard drive has no moving
parts? C. Secure guest’s form of payment
A. RAM D. All of the above

103. What mobile operating system comes C. It’s a True or False Declaration
preloaded with an online store called The D. It’s a String of Text
App Store?
A. Mac OS 109. is a concatenation operator in php
B. Apple iOS A. + (plus)
C. Google Android B. +=
D. Microsoft Windows C. . (dot)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
104. To display the number of entries contain-
ing values in a range of cells, you would 110. When will it be appropriate to use UDP
use the function. instead of TCP?
A. Max A. Sending an email
B. Min B. Sending an image
C. Count C. Streaming Live
D. Sum D. Sending a music file
105. mobile operating system developed by 111. Graphic object which can be inserted to
Apple create diagrams in a document
A. AOS A. SmartArt
B. EOS B. text box
C. UOS C. template
D. IOS D. building blocks
106. To check the grammar we should go to 112. This function finds the lowest number
which or the following menus? A. =MAX( )
A. Insert menu B. =MIN ( )
B. view menu C. =LOW ( )
C. Edit menu D. =SUM ( )
D. Tools menu 113. Which table option enables you to com-
bine the content of several cells into one
107. The group reservation usually reserve by
cell?
A. Columns
A. personal
B. Insert
B. individual
C. Merge cells
C. travel agent
D. Position
D. company
114. Ben is so APPREHENSIVE about appear-
108. What is a integer? ing in the play that he has an upset stom-
A. It’s a Whole Number ach.
B. It’s a Decimal Number A. thrilled

B. modest 120. Object in which text can be added &

C. bored placed anywhere on a page

D. nervous A. SmartArt
115. Which of the following describes a local B. template
area network (LAN)?
C. text box
A. The protocol used for sending outgo-
ing e-mail D. building blocks
B. Computers connected within a small
geographic area 121. Text or graphics linked to a destination
file or location are called:
C. A network connection within a large
city or multiple small cities A. cell
D. Used to share information with exter- B. hyperlink
nal businesses or individuals
C. gallery
116. One of the statement is incorrect?
A. MS Word cannot add highlights. D. transitions
B. MS Word can check the spelling

122. The smallest unit of storage in the follow-
C. Mailing tab is in MS Word 2016 ing list is a
D. In MS word we can insert pictures
A. byte
117. Which file extension is used for files that
B. nanobyte
execute multiple commands from within a
Windows command prompt? C. megabyte
A. .cmd D. gigabyte
B. .bat
C. .exe 123. an application that is accessed over anet-
D. .scexe work such as the Internet
118. Bluej is a based platform A. mobile app

A. DOS B. web app
B. CUI C. software app
C. Window
D. desktop app
D. None
119. What word processing feature moves 124. Which among the following is a search en-
text to the next line by striking the enter gine?
key?
A. Firefox
A. Default Tab
B. Google
B. Hanging Indent
C. Hard Return C. Flash
D. Word Wrap D. Internet Explorer

125. Out of the following constraints, select B. Organizing

the one which doesn’t require start or fin-
C. Leading
ish date to be added in order to schedule a
task in MS Project. D. All of the above
A. SNET 131. Jeremy has written an academic paper
B. FNLT and realized after typing 5 pages; he
C. ALAP typed yearn instead of year. Which
method would be the quickest way for him
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. MFO to correct his mistake.
126. Which one of these is not an example of A. From the Home tab, click on the
a Operating System? style command and select the appropriate
A. Windows style.
B. Gate B. From the Home tab, click on the find
command, type the word and then replace
C. Android
it with the correct word.
D. IOS
C. Just leave it spelled wrong; no one will
127. Which command means “copy”? notice.
A. ctrl + c D. Go through and carefully read all five
B. ctrl + v pages and correct the mistake.
C. ctrl + x 132. What spacing should be used between

D. ctrl + alt + delete the complimentary close and the keyed sig-
nature line?
128. When inserting a hyperlink with an un-
A. Single
usually long URL address into a paragraph
of a word processing document, which op- B. Double
tion would be used to avoid altering the
C. Triple
length of the paragraph too much?
D. Quadruple
A. insert, external hyperlink
B. link to current folder 133. What is the aim of an IP address?
C. remove hyperlink A. To uniquely identify a point on a net-
D. text to display work to allow packets to be sent to the
correct destination
129. Data is referred to as
B. To uniquely identify every device, so
A. Processed information that communication between devices can
B. Unprocessed information be achieved
C. Unprocessed documents C. To generally identify an end-point in
D. Process documents a network to support communication and
packet routing
130. The front office manager is responsible D. To identify a sub-set of end points, de-
for: vices or network components during any
A. Planning given communication

134. You want to move an image from your C. Presentation Software

title slide to the third slide in your presen- D. Communications programs
tation. What technique would you use to

complete this task? 140. Which file extension is correct for MS
A. Cut and paste Publisher?
B. Copy and paste A. .pub
C. Duplicate B. .doc
D. Copy and place C. .ppt

D. .xls
135. Hyperlinks can be in:
141. company that provides customer connec-
A. Text
tions to the Internet
B. Pictures
A. E-Commerce
C. Drawing Objects
B. Internet Service Provider
D. All of above
C. Web Browser
136. What letter is missing in this series D. Domain Name
“zcvbnm” from the bottom row?
142. int m[] = {2, 4, 6, 8};Sys-
A. X
tem.out.println(m[1] + “ “ + m[2]);What
B. Q is the output
C. O A. 26
D. P B. 2 6
137. This enables you to organize information C. 26

into rows and columns D. none of the above
A. Cells 143. What is google Docs?
B. Table A. Google Docs is available as a web
C. Rows application, mobile app for Android, iOS,
D. Columns Windows, BlackBerry, and as a desktop
application on Google’s ChromeOS.
138. It enables worldwide business activities B. The app is compatible with Microsoft
taking place on the internet at a low cost. Office file formats.The application allows
A. E-Commerce users to create, view and edit files on-
line while collaborating with other users
B. Electronic Money
in real-time.
C. Office Automation
C. Is a word processor included as part
D. none of above of a free, web-based software office suite
offered by Google within its Google Drive
139. Applications that store and organize in- service.
formation is which of the following?
D. The application allows users to create,
A. Word-processing programs view and edit files online while collaborat-
B. Database programs ing with other users in real-time.

144. Identify the most common type of connec- In what group in Word would you find the
tor for a keyboard and mouse. option of changing the brightness?
A. USB A. adjust
B. VGA B. arrange
C. RJ-45 C. picture styles
D. DB-45 D. size
NARAYAN CHANGDER
145. The cell reference for cell range of A2 to 150. It specifies the arrangement of text and
M12 is graphics on the slide.
A. A2!M12
A. Tesk pane
B. A2.M12
B. Placeholder
C. A2;M12
C. Charts
D. A2:M12
D. Layout
146. Sample files which contain some format-
ting & can be customized to serve as a 151. a set of programs containing instruc-
starting point for a new document tions that work together to coordinate all
the activities among computer hardware
A. templates resources
B. word processing
A. Operating system
C. format painter
B. System Software
D. style sets
C. Application software
147. The front desk is the starting point for D. Utility program
involving guests in the various green pro-
grams in use by the hotel. Hotel green 152. In Microsoft Word, what feature do you
practices include: use to create a newspaper like document?
A. Refusing, recycling, reducing A. Bullets and Numbering
B. Reusing, recycling, reducing B. Tab stops
C. Reusing, reclaiming, reducing C. Format bar
D. Reusing, recycling, remaining D. Columns
148. Which file format is used on optical me-
153. What type of devices allow you to save
dia, such as CD-ROMs?
your file, and then take the file with you
A. .iso to access on a different computer?
B. .dgm A. Jump drive, floppy disk or memory
C. .rar card
D. .zip B. Hard drive or MP3 player
C. Floppy disk or hard drive
149. If you need to change the brightness of a
picture you insert into Word to be +20%. D. Camera phone or hard drive

154. is a type of system software allows A. Hyper Threading

that allow a user to perform maintenance- B. Multiplier
type tasks

C. Cores
A. Operating system
D. Bus Speed
B. System Software
C. Application software 160. Which of the following is NOT a media
element?
D. Utility program
A. Graphic
155. THE FORM TO COLLECT GUEST INFORMA- B. Sound
TION OF RESERVATION
C. Watermark
A. RESERVATION FORM
D. Text
B. RESERVATION SLIP
C. RESERVATION DIARY 161. is a revenue management statistic
that measures the revenue generating ca-
D. DENCITY CHART pability of a hotel.
156. Word processing, spreadsheets, and A. ADR
presentation software are examples of B. Forecasting
what?
C. RevPar
A. Productivity software
B. Collaboration software
C. Utility software 162. If you have three images on your page in
Word and you want them to be on large
D. Operating system add-ins graphic instead of three. What should you
157. What is the only key on the keyboard do to these graphics to make this change?
that can be hit with more than one finger? A. select the graphics and align left
A. Return Key B. select the graphics and bring forward
B. Space Bar C. select the graphics and group
C. Backspace D. select the graphics and rotate
D. none of above 163. text, button, or graphic in an electronic
158. Behavior when using the computer that document that, when clicked, takes the
conforms to accepted standards of con- user to a new location
duct. A. Hyperlink
A. Uniform use agreement B. Uniform Resource Locator
B. All use agreement C. Domain Name
C. Acceptable use agreement D. Web Browser
D. computer use agreement 164. Which of the following results from a
159. What enables different parts of the CPU communication problem between house-
to work on different tasks at the same keeping and the front office?
time A. Lock-out situations

B. Late check-out 170. The purpose of using presentation soft-

ware to prepare multimedia presentations
C. On-change rooms
often is to use those presentations to
D. Room status discrepancies
A. support report findings.
165. How many steps are there in the regis- B. develop web sites.
tration cycle? C. maintain customer files.
A. Four D. access online resources.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Eight
171. What type of reservations are front desk
C. Nine employees required to handle?
D. Twelve A. Guaranteed and non-guaranteed
reservations
166. Microsoft Excel, OpenOffice Calc, and
Google Sheets B. Non-guaranteed reservations
C. Guaranteed reservations
A. Word Processors
D. Non-voucher reservations
B. Spreadsheets
C. Presentation Graphics 172. Which element is represented by a[10]?
D. DBMS A. 9th
B. 10th
167. A predefined set of colors, fonts, fills, etc.
for an entire workbook C. 11th
D. 1st
A. theme
B. cell style 173. What do device drivers do?
C. conditional formatting A. Allows the OS to communicate with
hardware
D. font
B. Drives around the motherboard
168. Which device is used to connect LANs to C. Increases the amount of storage
each other?
D. none of above
A. Routers
174. Any part of the computer with a physical
B. Hubs
structure, including the parts inside.
C. Access Points
A. hardware
D. Gateways B. software
169. Press this when you are done entering a C. screen
function or formula D. computer tower
A. enter
175. The number of columns in a table is equal
B. backspace to:
C. tab A. The number of row titles
D. shift B. The number of row titles, plus one

C. The number of column headers, plus 181. Which protocol is responsible for trans-
one ferring computer files between client and
server on a computer network?

D. The number of column headers
A. SMTP
176. Identify the component that stores the in- B. FTP
formation being accessed by the CPU.
C. TCP/IP
A. RAM
D. HTTP
B. Hard drive
182. the individual safe deposit boxes system
C. Power supply
A. is a new department
D. Motherboard
B. is where guest are offered strong en-
177. By default, all the Pagemaker document velope.
have a master page already created C. each box is secured by two locks
A. Master page D. none of all above.
B. Document Master 183. When typing the name Wendi which shift
C. Document Page key do you use?
D. Page Master A. Left
B. Right
178. Which of the following file formats were
C. CapsLock
designed to replace .mp3?
D. None
A. .mp4
B. .flac 184. applications that can be installed for free
A. trialware app
C. .aac
B. open source app
D. .ppt
C. subscription based
179. A reservation system that provide speed D. closed source app
reliability and versatility is;
185. is a DTP software
A. a chart system
A. Lotus-1-2-3
B. a computerized system
B. Pagemaker
C. a centralized booking office
C. Maya
D. a room status board system
D. Flash
180. Which of the following is not a output de- 186. Way in which a rectangle page is orien-
vice? tated for normal viewing
A. Monitor A. page orientation
B. Speaker B. style sets
C. Printer C. template
D. Mouse D. alignment

187. is a wrapper class that contains prim- D. computers used by Social Security ad-
itive data type ministrators
A. Integer, int 193. What are the two main categories of soft-
B. int, int ware?
C. Int, Integer A. Applications & Systems
D. Array, int B. Systems & Utilities
C. Utilities & Applications
NARAYAN CHANGDER
188. What was the first computer invented?
D. Applications & Operations
A. Abacus
B. Napier’s Bone 194. It can transfer files and communicate
with colleagues via e-mails, instant mes-
C. PCs sengers, video conferencing or other com-
D. Electric Computer munication applications through the inter-
net.
189. A is a PowerPoint file that contains
the colors, background format, font styles A. Telephone Conferencing
and accent colors. B. Contact centers
A. slide C. Telecommuting
B. templates D. none of above
C. ribbon 195. To change page size and orientation in
D. title Word, you’ll need to go to the Menu
Item
190. Horizontal block of cells running across
A. Page Tools
the range of the table.
B. Page Design
A. Cells
C. Page Layout
B. Tables
D. Page Format
C. Rows
D. Columns 196. What finger do you use to press the CAPS
LOCK
191. What is a QWERTY keyboard A. Right pinky
A. a funny keyboard B. Left ring finger
B. a keyboard that makes you laugh C. All of the fingers
C. a keyboard that makes you type faster D. None of the above
D. The most commonly used keyboard ar-
197. Which tab includes the command for in-
rangement
serting charts that illustrate or compare
192. Which of the following situations would data?
not require knowledge of networking? A. File
A. stand-alone home computer B. Home
B. all the computers of a banking system C. Insert
C. a typical classroom of computers D. Draw

198. RAM and ROM are of a computer. [1] B. allows the data to run outside of the
A. backup storage column

B. temporary storage C. cuts off the data displayed
C. peripherals D. all of the above
D. main memory 204. What is the output?int a = 63, b =

36;boolean x = (a b )? a:b ;
A. to move the cursor down a line A. x= true, y=65
B. to indent B. x= true y= 63
C. to place spaces between words C. x= false y= 64
D. to delete D. x= false y=63
200. Documents created in PowerPoint are 205. What is the file extension for an Excel
called file?
A. slidesheets A. .jpg
B. transparencies B. .excl
C. presentations C. .doc
D. datashows D. .xlsx
201. What will the following code out- 206. The default unit of measurement for row
put?String s = “malayalam”;System.out.println(s.indexOf(’m’));System.out.println(s.lastIndexOf(’m’));
height in Excel is
A. 08 A. centimeters
B. 0 8 B. inches
C. 1 7 C. pixels
D. 17 D. points
202. The front desk is responsible for the fol- 207. The “s” in “https” stands for socket
lowing EXCEPT: layer.
A. Obtaining uniformed services for A. semantic
guests B. secure
B. Providing concierge services C. server
C. Assigning guestrooms and issuing key D. social
cards
D. Conducting minor repairs in gue- 208. enables users to edit both text and
strooms graphics in a document.
A. Presentation Software
203. When the data is too wide for the cell,
Excel B. Spreadsheet programs
A. displays a series of number signs C. Desktop Publishing programs

(####) D. Accounting Programs

209. Close current document 215. Location where the test or object will be
A. Ctrl + C entered based on the location of the cursor
B. Ctrl + End A. word wrapping
C. Ctrl + S B. page orientation

C. overtype
D. Ctrl + W
D. insertion point
210. Columns are identified by
216. Correct keyboarding posture requires
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. numbers
that the body be
B. field names
A. reasonably erect in front of the key-
C. column names board
D. letters B. leaning over the keyboard
211. Where on the ribbon would you add a ta- C. slightly to the right of the keyboard
ble to a word document? D. slightly to the left of the keyboard
A. file 217. It is a non volatile random access digital
B. home storage device.
C. insert A. DVD
D. view B. USB
C. Hard disk
212. is known as the program instructions
that tell the computer what to do. D. none of above
A. Hardware 218. is a spreadsheet application used to
B. Software organize, analyze, and chart data.
C. Operating System A. Access
D. Spreadsheet B. File
C. Excel
213. A student has keyed 25 strokes in a
D. Publisher
minute, what was his/her GWAM?
A. 1 219. What is the aim of MAC address?
B. 5 A. To uniquely identify a point on a net-
work to allow packets to be sent to the
C. 10
correct destination
D. 25
B. To uniquely identify every device, so
214. Typing with capital letters and exclama- that communication between devices can
tion points in an email is an example of: be achieved
A. mixing personal and company busi- C. To generally identify an end-point in
ness. a network to support communication and
packet routing
B. using emoticons.
D. To identify a sub-set of end points, de-
C. poor etiquette. vices or network components during any
D. getting your point across. given communication

220. Indents from the left margin A. The receiver may be confused and de-
A. right indent cide to delay opening it.

B. left indent B. The receiver may not consider the mes-
sage important.
C. hanging indent
C. The receiver may think the message is
D. first line indent spam.
221. Your left hand pointer keys all of the fol- D. The email will not be transmitted with-
lowing keys: out that information.
A. R, T, G, H, V and B 226. You have just purchased licensed soft-
B. R, T, H, Y, V and B ware and want to install it. Which of the
C. R, T, F, G, V and B following are you required to enter to in-
stall this software?
D. R, T, F, G, Y and B
A. Your name and contact information
222. Wendy decided that she wants the title B. The product key
to stand out with a darker font. What for-
matting option would she use? C. The serial number of your processor
A. Bold D. None of the above
B. Italics 227. Which component is the brain of the com-

C. Underline puter?
D. Superscript A. CPU
B. RAM
223. How can a user display the ruler in Mi-
crosoft Word? C. Hard drive
A. Double-click the far left side of the D. Motherboard

screen. 228. The front desk is considered the of
B. Double-click the vertical scroll bar. the hotel.
C. In the Customize tab of the Word Op- A. Brain
tions dialog box B. Heart
D. Check the Ruler check box in the Show C. Stomach
group on the View tab of the ribbon.
D. Center Point
224. “Top”, “middle”, “bottom”, “center”
and “left” are all types of this: 229. You can easily a document in Word
to change its magnification level. You can
A. Fonts click and drag the slider left, towards the
B. Alignment options minus symbol (-), to shrink the magnifica-
C. Styles tion level.
D. Charts A. Scroll
B. Insert
225. Which of the following is not a reason
that the subject line should never be left C. Zoom
blank? D. Close out

230. What document type is a formal corre- 235. What does RAM and ROM have in com-
spondence sent from a business to another mon?
business or to an individual?
A. They both deal with memory
A. Flyer
B. They were both invented by Bill Gates
B. Business Letter
C. They do not have anything in common
C. Academic Report
D. Minutes D. Their initials are similar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
231. Which keys are supposed to be typed by 236. is the location in which you save or
the left middle finger? protect your data
A. 3, E, D, C A. File
B. 8, I, K, ,
B. Storage
C. 1, Q, A, Z
C. Input
D. 9, O, L, .
D. Output
232. How can we view slide show repeated
continuously? 237. The main circuit board in a computer is
A. Repeat continuously called the
B. Loop continuously until Esc A. RAM
C. loop more B. dongle
D. None of these C. motherboard
233. When a person is keying copy, the hands D. power supply unit
and arms should
A. move forward and back as each key is 238. is a presentation application.
struck A. U-torrent
B. move from side to side as each key is
B. Mozilla Firefox
struck
C. remain relatively stationary as each C. MS PowerPoint
key is struck D. Slide Panel
D. be raised and lowered as each key is
struck 239. You just installed an antivirus program on
your laptop computer. Given a scenario in
234. Function of system software is to serve which you want to maintain proper levels
as the between the user, the applica- of security, how often should you update
tion software, and the computer’s hard- the software?
ware
A. At least once a week
A. interface
B. program B. At least once a month
C. application C. At least twice a year

D. server D. Only when a new virus is discovered

240. Sy has typed the names of each of his 244. To save an existing file with the same
classmates. Now he needs to put them name; which button is used?
in alphabetical order using Microsoft Word.

A. exit
Is it possible, if so, how? Which response
best answers the question? B. close
A. This is not possible using Microsoft C. save as

Word. D. save
B. It is possible in Microsoft Word but will 245. When you cells, you combine several
take a lot of time. cells into a single cell.
C. Yes, it is possible. Go the paragraph A. merge
group and click on sort text - sort in as-
cending order. B. split
D. Yes, it is possible. Go to the font group C. span and center
and click on change case and then upper- D. merge and span
case.
246. Density chart adalah tabel pemesanan
241. In Microsoft Word 2016, if you need to kamar untuk hotel dengan jumlah kamar
add a page border or change the page yang banyak. biasanya untuk menandai
color, which of the following would you pesanan menggunakan tanda
need to click on? A. garis lurus (-)
A. Layout B. garis miring (/)
B. Review C. bintang (*)
C. Home D. garis sambung ( )
D. Design
247. What key allows you to go from column
242. Michael recieves an email from an un- to the next?
known user with a file attachment in it A. indent
yhat has an .exe extension. What should
michael do with this file? B. section break
A. delete the email C. spacebar
B. double-click the file to open D. tab
C. save the file to his desktop and then 248. Vickie has written a poem and need to go
open it. back and capitalize the first letter of each
D. right click the file to identify its product word. How can she do that?
key and install it A. Go to the font group, click on change
case and then sentence case.
an open-source operating system? B. Go to the font group, click on change
case and then capitalize each word.
A. Linux
C. Go to the design group, click on design
B. Windows 10 and then change the color.
C. Mac OS D. Go back and capitalize each individual
D. Chrome word using the shift key and the letter.

249. When you store a lot of information, you C. Excel

would probably choose which of the fol-
D. PS3
lowing type of program?
A. Word-Processing 255. The fact that companies can store and ac-
B. Accounting cess emails sent or received on their equip-
ment limits which of your rights?
C. Database
A. Freedom of Information
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Best Practices
250. What are the home row keys for the right
hand? C. Privacy
A. ghjkl D. Free Speech
B. asdf
256. The basic unit of a worksheet into which
C. jkl; you enter data
D. hjkl A. Cell
251. $b$17 is what type of reference? B. Tile
A. absolute C. App
B. relative
D. Record
C. mixed varying column
D. mixed varying row 257. To hide or view ruler we should go to
which of the following menus?
252. What is the etiquette one should follow
A. Insert menu
while working online?
A. Anything goes providing he/she re- B. View menu
mains anonymous. C. Edit menu
B. Netflix D. Tools menu
C. Netiquette
D. Piracy 258. A is a set of instructions that a com-
puter follows to perform a task.
253. Which of the following file extensions A. compiler
is a worksheets created in a Microsoft
spreadsheet application likely to have? B. program
A. .spd C. interpreter
B. .ppt D. bit
C. .mss
259. when did the first pc come out?
D. .xls
A. 1800
254. Which of these is an example of an oper-
ating system? B. 1000
A. Windows C. 1492
B. Word D. 1979

260. Which of the following peripheral devices C. Personal information management

can be used for both input and output? D. Spreadsheet

A. mouse
266. Where should your thumbs go on the key-
B. printer board?
C. CPU A. space bar
D. touch screen on a tablet computer B. shift
261. The facilities management department C. v, n
oversees: D. none of the above
A. Utilities
267. Susan needs to create as well as mod-
B. Equipment ify some images on her upcoming presen-
C. Building and equipment tation. Which program will be most bene-
ficial?
D. Utilities, the building, and equipment
A. Spreadsheet
262. What is Hadoop? B. Communication
A. A programming language. C. Desktop Publishing
B. A software framework for supporting D. Graphic and Design
distributed data processing and storage.
C. A new type of computer. 268. The brain of the computer. This part does
the calculation, moving and processing of
D. A new network device. information?
263. If Sandy wants to print a table that has A. CPU
20 columns and 6 rows, which orientation B. RAM
should she select?
C. Motherboard
A. Columns
D. Hard Drive
B. Landscape
269. Which of the following computers is
C. Rows
large, expensive, and is designed to ex-
D. Portrait ecute a few programs as fast as possible?
264. Instead of a mouse, many laptops use A. Desktop computer
a(n) B. Supercomputer
A. optical drive C. Mainframe computer
B. touchpad D. Embedded computer
C. scanner
270. What are “Times New Roman” and “Ar-
D. laser pointer ial”?
265. Which of the following is NOT a type of A. Cursors
a productivity software application? B. Fonts
A. Image editing C. Graphics
B. Word processing D. Templates

271. Create or Design a new device or process 276. What does PDF stand for?
A. Invent A. Portable Document Files
B. Design B. Printed Document Files
C. Technique C. Put Dem Far
D. Innovate D. Portable Document Format
277. Name an operating system for a phone

272. What are the horizontal sections of a ta-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ble called? A. Nintendo
A. Cells B. Kit Kat

C. Safari
B. Columns
D. Windows
C. Rows
D. Ranges 278. When writing a personal business letter
without letterhead, what should be keyed
273. What is the easiest and quickest way to FIRST?
get the paragraph back if you’ve acciden- A. Dateline
tally deleted a paragraph that you had se-
B. Return Address
lected?
C. Inside Address
A. Exit the document without saving it.
D. Salutation
B. There is no easy way to do it.
C. Use the Ctrl+Z keyboard shortcut. 279. In an email to a client, Luis is requesting
that they follow up with him by phone at
D. Use the keyboard to retype the para- their earliest convenience. Which feature
graph. will Luis want to use to provide his contact
information?
274. In proper work area arrangement, the
copy should be A. Signature block
B. Subject line
A. to the right of the monitor and key-
board C. To
B. directly in front of the keyboard D. Closing
C. to the left of the keyboard 280. can be used to ensure that a user en-
ters exactly 6 characters in Excel.
D. in any position where it can be read
A. Data Entry
275. What desktop operating system is most B. Data Sorting
likely to get infected with a computer
virus? C. Data Protection
A. Linux D. Data Validation
B. Mac OS 281. Based on context clues in the passage

below, truncated means I was upset
C. Windows Phone
that the ebook file was truncated because
D. Microsoft Windows I couldn’t find out how the story ended.

A. Finished 287. Which of the following is NOT a learning

B. Cut short style?

C. Boring A. Auditory
D. Too long B. Tactile/Kinesthetic
C. Linguistic
282. Mac OS X disk image files have what ex-
tension? D. Visual
A. .osx 288. Which are the Home Keys for the right
B. .img hand?
C. .dgm A. A, S, D, F
D. .iso B. J, K, L, ;
283. Formatting that appears only when the C. Q, W, E, R, T, Y
cell value meets certain terms you specify. D. U, I, O, P
A. style
289. A is a constant data item.
B. conditional
A. Number
C. specific
B. Character literal
D. custom
C. Literal
284. This key is used to strike the space bar
A. Right small finger
B. Index finger 290. You key “c” with what finger?
C. Middle finger A. Pinky

D. Either thumbs B. Pointer
C. Middle
285. A, B and C are variables in a program.
What value will C have when the follow- D. Ring
ing program has been run? SET A to 10
291. The most popular operating system for
SET B to 20 SET C to 0 IF A > B THEN IN-
personal computers is
CREASE C BY 1 IF B > A THEN INCREASE C
BY 2 A. Mac OS X
A. -1 B. Facebook
B. 0 C. Microsoft Windows
C. 1 D. Ubuntu Linux
D. 2 292. Which of the following companies is
286. What do you call the intersection of a row known for manufacturing computer proces-
and a column in MS Excel sors?
A. Cell A. CPU
B. Text Box B. Intel
C. Label C. Sony
D. none of above D. Corel

293. In Football how many points equal a 299. To organize, calculate and analyze numer-
touch down ical data you will need programs.
A. 8 A. Desktop Publishing
B. 6 B. Graphic and Design
C. 7 C. Presentation software
D. 1 D. Spreadsheet
294. Which of the following provides a simple 300. The cloud allows you to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
point-and-click user interface? A. access your email from any computer
A. System software with an Internet connection
B. Open-source software B. automatically back up your data
C. Command-line interface C. easily bring your files with you
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) D. do all of the above
295. Terry typed 250 strokes, how many 301. What are the basic rectangular building
words did she type? blocks of a spreadsheet?
A. 25 A. Cells
B. 250 B. Zoom slider
C. 50 C. Help button
D. 10 D. All of these
296. Joe wants to use pictures from the Inter- 302. What is the message of the letter called?
net in a word processing program. Which A. Complimentary Close
is the most important aspect that Joe
should consider while choosing a picture? B. Data Line
A. color C. Body
B. copyright D. Salutation
C. resolution 303. Which of the following describes the pur-

D. size pose of a variable in a game?
A. To generate and use random numbers
297. Who is the owner of Microsoft? in games.
A. Charles Babbage B. To move an object.
B. Bill Gates C. To troubleshoot any errors in coding.
C. Blaise Pascal D. To stop the game.
304. UDP and TCP are both layer proto-
298. Indents from the right margin cols.
A. left indent A. data link
B. right indent B. Network
C. hanging indent C. Transport
D. first line indent D. none of the above

305. You have just plugged in a new HP printer 310. Which are the homerow keys for the left
to your Mac. You can’t find a printer hand?
driver. What should you do given the cir-

A. sdfg
cumstances?
B. zxcv
A. Uses the default HP printer driver for
Mac OS X C. asdf
B. Visit Apple’s website to download the D. erty
printer driver 311. Which Menu item do I use to format my
C. Visit HP’s website to download the font styles and paragraph settings?
printer driver A. File
D. Run Software Update to automatically B. Home
install the printer driver
C. Insert
306. When you create a new database, the D. View
first object you need to create is a
A. form 312. Denver is working on a financial project
that involves a lot of statistical informa-
B. report tion. He needs software that allows him
C. query to enter numerical data and show it in form
D. table of graphs. Which type of software could
he use?
307. AutoFormats include A. database software
A. borders B. spreadsheet software
B. shading C. multimedia software
C. data formatting D. word processing software
D. all of the above
313. What is an intranet?
308. In the context of security in networking, A. The global network used to transfer
the letters AAA in the term “AAA servers” data all over the world
stand for
B. A network used exclusively by internal
A. allowing access automatically employees of a company
B. accessing all appliances C. A group of computers connected
C. access, applications, and accounting within a small geographic area
D. authentication, authorization, and ac- D. A network used to share information
counting with external businesses or individuals
309. If you were a tactile/kinesthetic learner, 314. In which group would you find the num-
you might find helpful? bered list in Microsoft Word?
A. Color coding your work A. page layout
B. Putting things in order B. paragraph
C. Listening to a lecture C. references
D. Reading a book D. review

315. Which home row key is missing for the C. CTRL C

left hand s, d, f??? D. CTRL V
A. w
321. Split folios are most often requested by
B. z travelers.
C. a A. Pleasure/leisure
D. x B. Business
NARAYAN CHANGDER
316. Which one is not a category that business C. International
needs information? D. Elderly
A. Financial
322. The enter key is controlled by the
B. Production
A. left thumb
C. Human Relations
B. left little finger
D. Grades
C. right thumb
317. Copy and Paste instructions:Select the in- D. right little finger
formationCopy the information Paste
the information 323. What is Gmail?
A. Deselect the information. A. Is a free email service developed by
Google.
B. Make sure the information in on the
clipboard. B. Users can access Gmail on the web
and using third-party programs that syn-
C. Go to the desired location. chronize email content through POP or
D. Double Click IMAP protocols
318. To find multiple records containing the C. Gmail is a free email service devel-
same value in one or more fields, you oped by Google. Users can access Gmail
would create a on the web and using third-party pro-
grams that synchronize email content
A. sort through POP or IMAP protocols
B. find D. All of the above
C. query
324. Fingers in the keying position are best de-
D. report scribed as
319. jpeg stands for A. curved
A. joint phto B. straight
B. join C. smi rigid
C. joint photographic experts group D. straight
D. none of above 325. Alexis is creating a table with numbers.
She would like the numbers to be dis-
320. If you make a mistake you can do what? played as currency. Which tab stop should
A. CTRL Z she use?
B. CTRL X A. Bar tab

B. Decimal tab 331. How many ruler bars are there?

C. Left tab A. 1

D. Right tab B. 2
326. Name two things you can do with a com- C. 3
puter D. 4
A. Write letters
332. What is Mr. Welch’s favorite operating
B. Surf the web system?
C. Process data A. Android OS and Chrome OS
D. All of the above B. IOS and Mac OS
327. the group’s need room with 3 times C. Windows OS
meals as long as stay, the name of this D. Mr. Welch doesn’t have a preference
service is
A. American Plan 333. When you select a clip art image, ap-
pear on the border of the graphic.
B. European Plan
A. clip art handles
C. Full American Plan
B. sizing handles
D. Modified American Plan
C. selection handles
328. What are the home row keys for the left
hand? D. placeholders
A. asdr 334. Predesigned drawing objects in common

B. asdf shapes are called
C. jkl; A. AutoObjects
D. qwerty B. Drawing Objects
C. Drawing Shapes
329. The best control of the eyes involves
D. AutoShapes
A. watching the keys most of the time
B. reading copy 335. What is the correct name of a keyboard?
C. watching the screen most of the time A. QWASFHF
D. looking at the copy most of the time B. ASDFGHJKL;
330. To select a very large group of cells, you C. QWERTYUIOP,

can click on the first cell in the group, hold D. QWERTY
down the key, and then click on the
last cell in the group. 336. They are input devices
A. Shift A. Keyboard and scanner
B. Alt B. Printer and speakers
C. Tab C. DVD and CD
D. Ctrl D. none of above

337. int arr[] = new int[10]; This statement C. ROI statement

declares an array of elements. D. Java statement
A. double, 10
343. How does SMTP and POP3 differ?
B. int, 10
A. SMTP and POP3 operate in the same
C. integer, 10 way
D. point value, 10 B. SMTP transfers e-mails to clients from
338. To toggle between magnification and re- servers, POP3 does not
NARAYAN CHANGDER
duction, press key C. POP3 transfers e-mails to clients from
A. Alt servers, SMTP does not
B. Ctrl D. SMTP is the old version of the newer
POP3 Protocol
C. Shift
D. Esc 344. Which type of room rate system includes
all meals, beverages, and activities during
339. In php the keyword to be used before a stay?
function name is
A. American plan
A. Function
B. Modified American plan
B. Static
C. European plan
C. function
D. All-inclusive resort
D. FUNCTION
345. Which type of room rate system includes
340. Which of the following is a primary stor- three meals per day?
age media?
A. American Plan
A. Hard Disk
B. Modified American Plan
B. Memory Card
C. European Plan
C. Random Access Memory
D. All-inclusive resort
D. Thumbdrive
346. are programs that designed to help
341. A computer software package that sup- users to be more productive with their per-
ports a variety of applications related to sonal tasks.
the front office and back office activities
A. Software
A. Property Management System (PMS)
B. System Software
B. software
C. Application software
C. Reservation system
D. Utility program
D. all of the above
347. They are optical devices
342. In order to justify the cost of cloud stor-
age, a computer analyst may be asked to A. USB and DVD
create a/n B. CD and DVD
A. SSD statement C. Hard drive and USB
B. open source statement D. none of above

348. Which are the Home Keys for the left 353. Which network topology is connected by
hand? a single network device?

A. A, S, D, F A. Bus
B. J, K, L, ; B. Star
C. Q, W, E, R, T, Y C. Ring
D. U, I, O, P
D. Mesh
349. what is Google Drive?
354. Which of the following front office appli-
A. Google Drive is a file storage and syn- cations of a computer-based property man-
chronization service developed by Google. agement system monitors predetermined
B. Google Drive allows users to store guest-credit limits?
files on their servers, synchronize files A. Reservations module
across devices, and share files
B. Guest accounting module
C. Google Drive is a file storage
C. Rooms management module
D. Google drive allows you to store files
and copy and paste to other application D. Point-of-sale module6
350. programs that control or maintain the 355. If you are wanting to add sound to your
operations of the computer and its devices. Powerpoint. On which tab on the ribbon
A. Software will this be located?
B. System Software A. animations
C. Application software B. design
D. Utility program C. insert
351. Give TWO types of cyber threat classifi- D. transitions
cation.
356. It’s expected that, by 2016, there will be
A. Software Related and Hardware Re-
almost global network connections.
lated.
B. Physical Related and Environment Re- A. twelve billion
lated B. nineteen billion
C. Technology Related and Cyber Content C. three trillion
Related
D. Internal Related and External Related
357. Which of the following is a universal in-
352. State the method that:Converts a string
stant messaging service?
to a primitive float data type
A. float.parsefloat()String; A. Skype
B. Float.parseFloat(String) B. WhatsApp
C. Float.Parsefloat(String); C. Google Hangouts
D. Float.parseFloat(String); D. Yahoo! Messenger

358. When Jennifer’s cursor gets to the end of A. ON the screen in the options menu
the last line of the paragraph, what is the B. In the windows updates
BEST way for her to get the cursor to the
next line? C. On the internet
A. Just Keep Typing D. In an email from the manufacture
B. Press the Escape Key 364. Auditory learners might study best by:
C. Press the enter key A. Reading text aloud
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Press the tab key B. Discussing ideas verbally
359. How many layers are there in the OSI ref- C. using a tape recorder during lesson to
erence model? replay and listen to later
A. 7 D. All of the above
B. 4 365. What is the operating system for a Mac?
C. 5 A. OS X
D. 9 B. Windows
360. You can store your data in which device? C. Safari
A. Input devices D. Opera
B. Storage devices 366. Since the days when storage devices
C. Output devices were first made available to the public,
they have now become
D. Software devices
A. more expensive and have greater ca-
361. In a full-service property, the room super- pacity
visor works under the direct supervision of B. more affordable and have smaller ca-
the pacity
A. Front office manager C. physically smaller with greater stor-
B. Executive housekeeper age capacity
C. Human resources director D. physically larger and faster
D. None of the above 367. When you drag the fill handle to the
362. Which letter does the left pointer/index right, what would be the next number that
finger key? would fill in the series 3, 6, 9?
A. F A. 10
B. K B. 18
C. J C. 12
D. L D. 27
363. Your boss calls you on the phone while he 368. refers to the horizontal dimension
is trying to install software. It is telling of a column in a table and is measured in
him that he needs a product key. Where inches.
should you tell him to look for it? A. column width

B. row height 374. IF THE GUEST RESERVE ROOM ON 5TH

C. table size MAY 2020 FOR A WEEK, WHAT THE DATE
GUEST CHECKING OUT?

D. auto size
A. 10TH MAY 2020
369. Kay was calculating a mathematical for- B. 11TH MAY 2020
mula on an electronic spreadsheet. She
C. 12TH MAY 2020
used multiple values to recalculate the for-
mula. Where will the CPU store data D. 13TH MAY 2020
for easy access and quick retrieval during
these computations? 375. The entry point to a website is also
known as the
A. Write only memory
A. HTML
B. Random-access memory
B. ERP
C. Keyboard
C. Home Page
D. Using DOS
D. Communication Point
370. Slavery was abolished in the U.S. after
376. Which term describes the collection of
the Civil War.
physical equipment within a computer sys-
A. outlawed tem?
B. exchanged A. User
C. running B. Data
D. common C. Software
371. A is a line drawn around the edges of D. Hardware

an element, such as a table or a table cell. 377. A series of dialog boxes that guides you
A. diagram through creation of a form or report is
B. column called a
C. border A. Datasheet
D. transitions B. Wizard
C. Step-by-Step
372. Margins is under which tab?
A. Layout
378. refers to the vertical dimension of
B. Insert
a row in a table and is measured in inches.
C. View
A. column width
D. References
B. row height
373. Microsoft PowerPoint is a: C. cell size
A. presentation application D. grid lines
B. spreadsheet application 379. All other database objects rely on the ex-
C. word processing application istence of the
D. none of the above A. query

B. form B. Transition effects

C. table C. Slide show
D. macro D. Reherse time
380. Which finger should be used to press the 385. Which computer type is the most expen-
Spacebar? sive?
A. Thumbs A. Supercomputer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pointer finger B. Microcomputer
C. Middle finger C. Notebook computer
D. Ring finger D. Mainframe computer
381. Which is one of the reasons people 386. is the final product of entered data
did not have home computers before the or commands as processed and revealed
1970s? through a monitor, speakers, or a printed
document.
A. People didn’t want to learn about com-
puters. A. Import
B. Export
B. There were no reasons to have a home
computer. C. Data
C. Most people thought computers were D. Information
a passing fad and would go away.
387. A central reservation system is used for
D. Most computers were too large and ex- which of the following:
pensive for home use.
A. hotel reservations
382. software application designed to run on B. payment processing
smartphones, tablet computers and other
C. guest profiles
mobile devices
D. all responses are correct
A. desktop app
B. installer app 388. Marketers use database programs to
help with which of the following business
C. mobile app needs?
D. web app A. Create product manuals
383. Examples of computer applications B. Create Announcements
A. key board C. Manage time and track billable hours
B. Zoom D. Write contracts
C. computer 389. When would performance standards not
D. All of thee above be applied when assessing an employee?
A. When multi-tasking
384. It is an animation effect which tells how
a slide appears on the screen at the time B. At the onset of a task
of presentaion. C. When communicating
A. Custom animation D. When using technology

390. Why has email communication grown so 395. The correct keystroke technique is to use
quickly as a business tool? A. slow, diliberate strokes

A. Because email is easy to use, fast, and B. slow, down and in motion
inexpensive.
C. quick snappy strokes
B. Because it is appropriate for every
D. any comfortable stokes
business purpose.
C. Because it is the best way to ensure 396. Which command on the Home tab allows
privacy. a user to change the case of selected text
to all uppercase, lowercase, sentence case,
D. Because everyone has computers toggle case, or capitalize each word?
now.
A. Modify Case
391. The component that allows you to make B. Change Case
a paper-based copy of a body of text is C. Superscript
the
D. Increase Font
A. printer
397. The correct step in calculating a total is
B. scanner
A. Sum=(B2:B12)
C. monitor
B. =SUM(B2:B12)
D. modem
C. =SUMB2:B12
392. To guard against malware, you will need D. none of above
to have
398. The front office operation is headed up by
A. antivirus software the:
B. a can of compressed air A. Manager on Duty
C. a word processor B. Front Office Manager
D. spyware C. Front Office Supervisor
D. Front Desk Manager
393. Which of the following is a desktop oper-
ating system? 399. What if we want a block of code to exe-
A. Mac OS cute several times?
A. Use a Variable
B. Apple iOS
B. Use a Function
C. Google Android
C. Use a Loop
D. Windows Phone
D. Use a Leap
394. An arrangement of letter, figure, symbol, 400. Which of the following is not phase of
control function and numeric keypad. Compiler:
A. CPU A. Lexical Analysis
B. Mouse B. Intermediate Code
C. Disk Drive C. Code Optimization
D. Keyboard D. Lexical Optimizer

401. Which input device can verify a person’s C. Ctrl + Tab

identity for security purposes? D. None Of these
A. Stylus
407. Johana typed a ten paragraph essay. She
B. Gamepad is now editing her paper and would like to
C. Barcode reader strike-through several sentences. Is this
D. Fingerprint scanner possible using Microsoft Word?
A. Yes
402. Which of the following should Publisher
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. No
NOT be used for?
C. Sometimes
A. Designing a flyer
D. I do not know
B. Creating a Holiday Card
C. Designing a newsletter 408. Computer can’t perform the following
function:
D. Calculating money
A. Read & Write
403. What is standard keyboarding word
B. Compute & Compare
A. Five characters or any combination of C. Execution of task without command
five characters and spaces
D. Access the data
B. Qwerty
C. Spaces between words 409. The formula that multiplies the contents
of cell B4 by 18.5
D. used to insert spaces
A. 18.5*b4
404. You would like to see a list of all the B. =18.5*b4
resources and the tasks that they are as-
signed to. What view best displays this C. 18.5*b4=
information? D. 18.5(b4)
A. Task Usage 410. How many strokes does it take to make
B. Resource Sheet a standard keyboarding word?
C. Gantt Chart A. 10
D. Resource Usage B. 5
C. 3
405. A computers long term memory is stored
on the D. 7
A. Random access memory 411. X, Y and Z are variables in a program.
B. CPU What value will Z have when the follow-
ing program has been run? SET X TO 10
C. Motherboard
SET Y TO -20 SET Z TO Y+X IF Z>0 THEN
D. Hard Drive SET Z TO Z+1 IF Z<0 THEN SET Z TO Z-1
406. Which key combination moves the cursor A. 10
to the previous cell? B. 11
A. Tab + Alt C. -10
B. Shift + Tab D. -11

412. Which of the following is a shortcut key C. Uniformed services

to Redo any Operation?
D. Housekeeping

A. Ctrl +R
B. Ctrl +Y 418. Businesses use word-processing to do
C. Ctrl +X
A. Write letters and memos
D. Ctrl +Z
B. Produce research papers and projects
413. A prewritten formula built into Excel
C. Take notes and record meeting min-
A. Function utes
B. Formula D. All of the above
C. Operation
419. Which key is used to lock the keyboard
D. Cell into capital letters?
414. A is a chart or graph usually used to A. Caps Lock
illustrate a concept or describe the relation-
B. Shift
ship of parts of a whole.
C. Enter
A. table
B. default D. Spacebar
C. diagram 420. You can quickly change font style and

D. column point size using tools on the toolbar.
A. Standard
415. Which keys are supposed to be typed by
the left pinky finger? B. Drawing
A. 3, E, D, C C. Formatting
B. 8, I, K, , D. Common Tasks
C. 1, Q, A, Z
421. This software manages computer re-
D. 9, O, L, . sources and provides programmers with a
vehicle to access those resources.
416. The two types of area networks men-
tioned in the text are A. Hardware
A. wide and narrow B. Software
B. wide and local C. Operating System
C. local and remote D. Spreadsheet
D. public and private
422. How Many Megabytes Are in 1 Gigabyte
417. Which of the following departments em- A. 1
ploys the largest staff in the rooms divi-
sion? B. 132
A. The front office C. 1000
B. Reservations D. 1024

423. allows the user to enlarge a window, 429. Which type of classroom enables stu-
usually making it fill the entire screen or dents to attend lectures without being
the program window in which it is con- physically present with the teacher?
tained. A. Digitally exposed classrooms
A. Minimize
B. Virtual classrooms
B. Close
C. Traditional classrooms
C. Help
D. These classrooms do not exist.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Maximize
430. The system means, all hotel bookings
424. The ribbon mainly consist of
and reservations will be computerized.
A. Tabs, comments and zoom control
A. Computerized hotel reservation
B. Groups, backstage view and word
B. Computerized
count
C. Commands, rulers and account C. Reservation
D. Tabs, commands and groups D. online booking
425. To apply character formatting 431. Special effects used to introduce slides in
a presentation are called
A. Type→character
B. File→character A. Present animations
C. Format→character B. Transitions
D. Edit→character C. Custom animations
D. Effects
426. JVM is a
A. java Compiler 432. To add a new slide,
B. java Interpreter A. open the Insert menu and choose New
C. both Slide
D. None B. click the New Slide button on the For-
matting toolbar
427. What does RAM stand for?
C. Open the Edit Menu and Choose Insert
A. Random Accurate Maps Slide
B. Read Only Memory D. either a or b
C. Really Awesome Memory
433. Octavia has received an email from a cus-
D. Random Access Memory
tomer, asking her a question about a prod-
428. Programs that store financial records and uct. Unfortunately, Octavia doesn’t know
process all business transactions in known the answer. However, she has a team
as: meeting in two days time where she might
be able to learn the answer to this cus-
A. Accounting programs
tomer’s question. What should Octavia do
B. Spreadsheet programs in this situation?
C. Graphic and Design programs A. Call the customer on the phone to ex-
D. Desktop Publishing programs plain the problem.

B. No action is required. The customer 438. What is the advantage of using MS Pub-
will assume she needs more time or is lisher instead of Word?
away.

A. It is less complcated
C. Send a quick reply explaining that she B. It works on all devices.
needs more time to consider the question.
C. There are many templates for easy
D. Email her supervisor so that he can re- project creation.
spond to the sender’s question.
D. none of above
434. All of the following are areas of a hotel 439. Skype is a
with which the front office staff regularly
interacts EXCEPT: A. crowdfunding app
B. Voice over IP service
A. Housekeeping
C. Social network
B. Offsite shopping outlets
D. Wi-fi hotspot
C. Local food and beverage outlets
440. Which of the following settlement op-
D. Transportation providers
tions will work with express check-out
435. $a = 4 ; $b = 6; $c = $a + $b; What is and self check-out?
the value of variable “c”? A. Cash payment
A. 6 B. Credit card payment
B. 8 C. Direct billing
C. 10 D. B and C
D. None 441. Which step is part of the computing cy-

cle?
436. Should color and design be used in A. Data
emails?
B. Import
A. No, because it is hard to read color
C. Output
font.
D. Software
B. Yes, to make your email stand out from
the others. 442. To get color palette, press
C. No, never. It is not professional. A. Shift+J
D. Yes, but only sparingly, to emphasize a B. Alt+J
point. C. Del+J
437. The feature enables you to transform D. Ctrl+J
text into a graphic.
443. Word’s default line spacing is
A. TextArt A. single
B. WordText B. 1.5
C. WordArt C. double
D. WordGraph D. none of the above

444. Which of the following would be an ex- C. Creating reservation records

ample of software?
D. Confirming the reservation
A. mouse
B. mousepad 450. RAM is what kind of memory?
C. PowerPoint A. Permanant
D. RAM B. Forever
445. What type of computer program helps C. Slow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
protect digital business information from D. Temporary
the negative effects of malware?
A. Spyware 451. b17 is what type of reference?
B. Cookies A. absolute
C. Firewalls B. relative
D. Shareware C. mixed varying column
446. All this are the properties of the account- D. mixed varying row
ability in digital world EXCEPT.
A. Integrity 452. What is the main function of the Operat-
ing System?
B. Transparency
A. Checks and scans the computer for
C. Liability
viruses.
D. Standards
B. Calculates values based on formula.
447. When you open a new project file, the
C. Manages and runs utility software.
default view is:
A. Gantt View D. Manages the input, process and output
operations in the computer.
B. Network View
C. Resource 453. The Director of Engineering (DOE) posi-
D. none of above tion will typically require:
A. A letter of recommendation
448. Which activity is a common use for com-
puters in the workplace? B. Proper job-related training
A. Video gaming C. A high school degree
B. Watching live television D. A college degree
C. Completing homework assignments
454. In the American Plan, the cost of the gue-
D. Storing employee and customer infor-
stroom includes per day.
mation
A. One Meal
449. The reservations module prints a confir-
mation letter. B. Two Meals
A. Reservations inquiry C. Three Meals
B. Determining availability D. No Meals

455. To remove text to the right of the inser- C. if the minimum hardware require-
tion point, use the key. ments are met

A. Backspace D. If the software comes with automatic
B. Delete updates
C. Remove 461. What is an organized system of process-

ing and reporting information in an organi-
D. Enter
zation
456. Which is used to move quickly from one A. Microsoft Information Systems
slide to another
B. Management Information Systems
A. Compass
C. Management Information Scales
B. Navigator
D. Microsoft Information Scales
C. Page border
462. What are the shift keys used for
D. Fill color
A. Indent
457. What is a String? B. capitalize
A. Text C. move
B. Number D. play games
C. True
463. The symbol that tells Excel what mathe-
D. Loop matical operation to carry out is the
458. What application can you use to create A. operator
letters and reports? B. operand
A. Word C. argument
B. Power Point D. function
C. Excel
464. Adobe Pagemaker is a software
D. Outlook
A. Word Processor
459. a type of software that allows you to B. Page layout
perform specific tasks
C. System
A. driver
D. Animation
B. system software
465. The front office manager works with se-
C. application software
curity, department managers, and the gen-
D. desktop app eral manager in the planning and man-
agement of incidents like power failures,
460. When thinking of software compatibility, floods and fires. This is known as:
which two factors matter most?
A. Disaster planning and management
A. If the software will work with other
software on the computer B. Disaster planning and mapping
B. if the software will work with the oper- C. Disaster placement and mapping
ating systems D. Disaster placement and management

466. The dialog box launcher is best described C. Normal view

as
D. Slide sorter view
A. a small arrow in the bottom-right cor-
ner of the group that you can click for even 471. How to go to next slide in PowerPoint?
more options. A. Tab
B. an arrow in the upper-right corner of B. Next Key Arrow
the Ribbon that allow you to select more
options. C. Spacebar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. a tab at the top of the ribbon that con- D. Shift
tain several groups.
472. Score is a variable used in a game. The
D. an arrow in the upper left hand corner following script is used within the game.
that lets you access common commands SET “SCORE” TO 0 REPEAT UNTIL EN-
no matter which tab is selected. TER KEY PRESSED IF <MOUSE CLICKED?>,
467. Kevin opened his Microsoft Word page CHANGE “SCORE” BY 1 IF <SPACE KEY
and could not see his ribbon. What should PRESSED?>, CHANGE “SCORE” BY -1
he do? LOOP AGAIN When the game is run, the
mouse is clicked 4 times, the space key is
A. Click on the quick access toolbar pressed twice, followed by the enter key.
B. Click on the ribbon What is the final value for “SCORE”?
C. Click on the ribbon display option A. 1
D. Click on the ruler B. 2
468. Which of the following is not an example C. 3

of an operating system? D. 4
A. Windows Server
473. A assists guests with arranging in-
B. Apple hotel activities and/or making reserva-
C. iOS tions, providing information, giving direc-
tions, and obtaining transportation for off-
D. Linux
site attractions, facilities, or services.
469. Which of the following methods you CAN- A. Comptroller
NOT use to zoom in?
B. Concierge
A. Holding Ctrl key and scrolling the
mouse wheel C. Conductor
B. Using the zoom tool in the “view” tab D. Cashier
C. Ctrl+Shift+z 474. What are the types of constraint avail-

D. Using the zoom slider at the bottom able in MS project?
right corner A. A. As soon as possible
470. The default view in impress B. B. As late as possible
A. Notes view C. Both A and B
B. Slide show view D. None of these

475. This is not a function category in Mi- 480. What category of software is a Compiler
crosoft Excel. A. Productivity software

A. Logical B. Development tools
B. Text C. Business software
C. Financial D. none of above
D. Data series 481. One of the roles of ethics in finance is to
encourage business employees to
476. N, M, U and Y are keyed with which
hand? A. make the right decisions.
B. increase company profits.
A. Left
C. sell to customers.
B. Right
D. prepare operating budgets
C. Either
D. none of above 482. Which button on the file tab will let you
click to add columns to a table?
477. Cynthia’s teacher asked her to type a re- A. design
port with a minimum of 1, 200 words. B. page layout
Which best describes what she should do?
C. review
A. Use the zoom control to see all the
words. D. view
B. Use the scroll bar to go up and down 483. The reservation is classified.
so they do not miss any words. A. Reservations inquiry
C. Use page and word count. B. Determining availability
D. Use the quick access toolbar to and C. Creating reservation records
add quick print. D. Confirming the reservation
478. Can be used to move from cell to cell in a 484. How are feet supposed to be placed while
spreadsheet: typing?
A. tab A. Flat on the floor
B. enter B. Curled under the legs
C. arrow keys C. Hooked on the chair legs
D. all of the above D. Braced against the wall
485. Which of the following is an ADVAN-

479. If you park your car on the , it might
TAGE of Hard Disk Drives over Solid State
roll all the way down.
Drives?
A. slope A. Faster Performance
B. driveway B. Usually More Storage Space
C. level C. More QuietMore Quiet
D. sidewalk D. None of the Above

486. One reason why ethics is important in ac- C. style set

counting is because financial records can be D. match style
A. made available to the public.
492. The reservations module suggests an al-
B. reviewed by government agencies. ternative room type or rate.
C. interpreted in different ways. A. Reservations inquiry
D. communicated in writing. B. Determining availability
NARAYAN CHANGDER
487. A graphic may be to remove a portion C. Creating reservation records
and customize for a publication. D. Confirming the reservation
A. Cropped
493. A combination of numbers and symbols
B. Cut used to express a calculation. Always be-
C. Purged gins with an = sign.
D. Trimmed A. Cell address
B. Worksheet
488. Which protocol is used as the transport
protocol for a video application? C. Formula
A. TCP D. None of these
B. UDP 494. Software that prevents unauthorized
C. FTP users from accessing a private network is
called a
D. RDC
A. virus checker
489. One megabyte is equal to kilobytes, B. gateway
A. 10 C. firewall
B. 100 D. sentry
C. 1, 000
495. determine the changes in the display
D. 1, 000, 000 that occur as you move from one slide to
another in Slide Show view.
490. What is a server?
A. Entrance effects
A. A device that connects computers in a
network. B. Exit effects
B. A device that is used to receive and C. Emphasis effects
send data from the Internet. D. Slide transitions
C. A central computer used for huge stor-
496. Which one of the following compression
age and processing.
file extensions doesn’t actually use com-
D. A type of file server used in a network. pression?
491. A is a collection of styles that A. .rar
have coordinated colors and fonts. B. .tar
A. animation set C. .7z
B. slide sorter D. .gz

497. Double-clicking between rows or columns 503. To cut a selected text, you should press
will keys on the keyboard.

A. Autofit cells A. Ctrl + V
B. Highlight cells B. Ctrl + X
C. Fill cells C. Ctrl + C
D. Do nothing D. Ctrl + Z
498. If you are needed to indent a paragraph, 504. The CTRL B shortcut allows you to do
you use what button? what?
A. enter A. Underline
B. indent B. Font Style
C. space bar C. Bold
D. tab D. Text Size
499. The main function of memory is to 505. is an input entered to the computer
A. Store instructions through a keyboard, mouse, disks, etc.
B. Store devices A. Import
C. Store binary numbers B. Export
D. Store processor C. Data
500. Binary Language is: D. Information
A. 1 to 10 506. This area of the hotel is responsible for

B. Binary providing a clean sanitary place to stay.
C. A to Z A. Security
D. Punjabi B. Engineering
C. Sales and Marketing
501. Which tool is used to draw circle?
D. Housekeeping
A. Circle
B. Ellipse 507. Which of the OpenOffice suite program is
use to create presentation.
C. Rectangle
A. Calc
D. Square
B. Writer
502. A assists guests throughout all
C. Impress
stages of the guest cycle and acts as the
main representative to guests for the prop- D. Draw
erty.
508. What is the difference between data and
A. Cashier information?
B. Night Auditor A. Data represents a fact. Information is
C. Reservationist data that has been organized.
D. Front Desk Representative B. They are essentially the same thing

C. Data is numbers. Information is words A. to make sure the text is in wordart

D. Data represents a process. Informa- style
tion is the stored data B. to add text to the document about the
topic
509. ALT +F4
C. to manipulate the word wrap features
A. Open a document
of the text
B. Close a document
D. to modify the position of the graphic in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Save relation to the text
D. Increase font
515. Complete set of characters in a specific
510. Which part of the table is optional? face, style & size
A. Row titles A. themes
B. Column headers B. style sets
C. Table title
C. font size
D. Table body
D. font
511. Apple Pages, Google Docs, and Corel
WordPerfect 516. Which part of the table is centered, bold,
and all caps?
A. Word Processors
B. Spreadsheets A. Main Title
C. Presentation Graphics B. Secondary Title

D. DBMS C. Column Heading
512. An electronic that accepts raw data and D. Entry

processes it into information that is mean-
517. In the Pre-Arrival phase of the Financial
ingful
reporting cycle, the representative does
A. Processor not:
B. Hardware A. Assign room number
C. Computer
B. Establish guest folio
D. Input Device
C. Accept room guarantee/deposit
513. Where would you go to insert WordARt? D. Assign room rate
A. home
518. The Board informs guests about
B. insert
what, where, and when things are happen-
C. layout ing at the property.
D. references A. Reader
514. Why would you select the graphic and B. Notice
use wrap text options when inserting a
C. Posting
graphic into text filled word processing
document? D. Writing

519. Computer includes the physical, tan- 524. A mouse can connect to the computer
gible parts or components of a computer, with a connection.
such as the monitor, keyboard, graphics

A. USB
card, speakers and motherboard.
B. PS/2
A. software
C. Bluetooth
B. hardware
D. All of the above
C. wifi
D. programs 525. What is a different name for laptop?
A. Notebook
520. A machine that can reduce the manpower
required on handling tickets B. Laptop
A. Point-of-sale terminal C. moniter

B. Online Ticketing D. phone
C. Value Adding Machine 526. The writer’s name of a letter is keyed
D. none of above four lines below the complimentary close
to leave space for the:
521. Which file name extension is associated A. Address
with webpages?
B. Date
A. .txt
C. Signature
B. .mp3
D. Message
C. .docx
D. .html 527. Microsoft Word would most likely be
used to do
522. What application allows you to access A. Do a computer search in the media
and view websites? Choose the BEST an- center
swer.
B. Type a biography
A. Wifi
C. Create a budget
B. Windows Tab
D. Creating a unified grading system
C. Local Area Network
D. Browser 528. What is used to illustrate and compare
data from a spreadsheet?
523. Mr. X checks into room 207 for a one- A. Shapes
night stay. Early the next morning, Mr.
X leaves the hotel without paying the bill. B. Charts
When checking the 4 P.M. housekeeping C. Online Pictures
report, the front desk finds room 207 D. Sheet tab
listed as vacant and ready for sale and re-
alizes that the guest was a: 529. A font can be defined as
A. Due out. A. paragraph in a specific style
B. Sleeper. B. artistic elements you can add to text
C. Skipper. C. text in a specific style and size
D. Sleep out D. text that has been made bold

530. To end the Slide show in PowerPoint: 535. applications that run in a personal com-
puter and laptops.
A. End
A. desktop app
B. Esc
B. web app
C. Delete
C. mobile app
D. Shift D. application software
531. RESERVATION IS THE PART OF FRONT 536. Arrays are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
OFFICE DEPARTEMEN THAT HANDLING A. Objects
GUEST NEED ROOM ON THE FUTURE PE-
B. Object References
RIOD. RESERVATION ATTENDANT IS
C. Primitive datatype
A. RECEPTIONIST
D. Identifiers
B. RESERVATIONIST
537. Which of the following characteristics is
C. BELLBOY used to compute dynamically the results
D. MANAGER from Excel data?
A. Chart
532. Spellings are corrected automatically in
B. Formula and Function
the writer because of which of the follow-
ing Features? C. Table
A. Auto text D. Diagram
B. Auto correct 538. Which tab do you go to in PowerPoint to

set the slideshow to play by itself?
C. Auto Complete
A. animations tab
D. All of the above
B. design tab
533. All of the following are examples of soft- C. slide show tab
ware packages EXCEPT D. view tab
A. Microsoft Office 2016 539. Google is an example of:
B. LibreOffice A. E-mail
C. Apple iWork B. Spam
D. Microsoft OneNote C. Search engine
D. A bad website
534. Which of the following is what fingers
you use to type SAD 540. Why is a clipboard used in a word proces-
sor?
A. Ring finger, Middle finger, and pinky
A. To hold pages together
B. left ring finger, right pointer, Right B. To type text
thumb
C. To store a library of graphics for use in
C. Left pinky, Left ring finger, and left mid- a document
dle finger
D. To transfer text and graphics from one
D. All of the above document to another

541. Which of the following reduces travel for 546. Ctrl + X =

meetings and is a very convenient way to A. Copy
communicate business.

B. Paste
A. Home Pages
C. Cut
B. ERP D. Select
C. HTML
547. Which of the following is the default page
D. Videoconferencing set-up orientation for notes pages, out-
lines and handouts?
542. Tanya frowned as she tapped the keys of
A. Vertical
her keyboard. “I’m sorry, Ms. Voigt, we
don’t have any suites available that week- B. Portrait
end. Would you like to reserve a room C. Landscape
with two queen-size beds for $20 a night D. All of these
less?” What activity is Tanya performing?
548. When you are using the 10-key numeric
A. Reservation inquiry
keyboard. Which of the following fingers
B. Determining availability controls the zero?
C. Creating the reservation record A. right index finger
D. Generating a report B. right middle finger
C. right ring finger
543. Height of an uppercase letter in a font
D. right thumb
set; measured in points
A. theme 549. Computer system has a unit, which dis-
plays the results from it?
B. font size
A. Central Processing Unit
C. style set
B. Input Unit
D. font C. Memory Unit
544. The most widely used operating system D. Output Unit
for personal computers is 550. Which of the following is NOT a wireless
A. Mac OS X technology?
B. Facebook A. Bluetooth
C. Microsoft Windows B. Global Position Systems (GPS)
C. Infrared
D. Ubuntu Linux
D. Local Area Network (LAN)
545. Which function is used to calculate the to-
551. Which type of software license must be
tal in a spreadsheet
purchased by a user?
A. Average A. Application license
B. CountA B. Commercial license
C. Sum C. Open-source license
D. Mode D. Operating system license

552. What is the black blinking line located on 558. What type of language is PHP
a document called? A. Client Side
A. cursor B. Server Side
B. mursor
C. Browser Side
C. font
D. Web Side
D. insert
559. Visual learners might find useful
NARAYAN CHANGDER
553. The function is executed first in a java tools when studying.
program.
A. Color coding their notes
A. first one in the order
B. Reading the material
B. static functions
C. Both A and B
C. main()
D. none of above
560. What does the term ICT stand for?
554. Which command means “cut”?
A. Information and Cultural Technology
A. ctrl + c
B. Information and Communication Tech-
B. ctrl + v nology
C. ctrl + x
C. Identification of Current Transfers
D. ctrl + alt + delete
D. Information for Compliance Technol-
555. Which keyboard shortcut will CUT infor- ogy
mation to the clipboard?
561. There are many differences between on-
A. Ctrl+Z line postings and face-to-face communica-
B. Ctrl+C tion. What one critical difference should
users remember?
C. Ctrl+V
A. Written communication should be
D. Ctrl+X
more polished and formal than real life
556. What operating system do we use in the verbal communication
lab? B. While cursing is Ok in real life, it’s pro-
A. OS X hibited online
B. Internet Explorer C. Your face can’t be seen, so it’s harder
to convey your thoughts and intentions
C. Windows 7
and easier to be misunderstood
D. Win Zip
D. You are virtually invisible, so you can
557. Output device is used for printing get away with a lot more
building plan.
562. Performance standards must be:
A. Thermal printer
A. Specific, observable, mental, and mea-
B. Plotter surable
C. Dot matrix B. Specific, observable, meaningful, and
D. inkjet printer measurable

C. Specific, observable, meaningless, 568. Collections of styles which contain coor-

and measurable dinated colors & fonts

D. Special, observable, meaningful, and A. themes
measurable
B. templates
563. Formulas can be defined as C. fonts
A. calculation in excel and they depend on D. style sets
what you calculation meaning you can cre-
ate your own. 569. Which is not a task performed by the op-
B. are already defined by excel meaning erating systems?
you cannot create your own. A. Managing RAM
C. Can be created depending on the state- B. Sending Error Messages
ment given
C. Saving files to the Hard Drive
D. both A and C
D. Sending Emails
564. ROM means
570. What is it called when you combine two
A. Read only Memory
or more cells in to one?
B. Random access memory
A. Merge
C. A & B
B. Combine
C. Join
565. What is an en electronic tool that allows
D. Union
information to be input, processed, and
output called? 571. The button is among the three but-
A. Operating system tons at the right end of the title bar. This
B. Motherboard button has a small dash that shrinks the
window and places it on the task bar while
C. Computer leaving the program running.
D. CPU A. Maximize
566. What operating system is on a pc? B. Close
A. OS X C. Minimize
B. Vista D. Help
C. Safari
572. Which feature of Microsoft Word auto-
D. Windows matically corrects typing, spelling, capital-
567. My father’s favorite SALUTATION is ization, or grammar errors as they are
“Howdy, friend!” typed?
A. signal A. AutoCorrect
B. greeting B. Spell & Grammar Check
C. sentence C. AutoSpell
D. question D. AutoCheck

573. Shortcut to print a document in Page- 578. Which of the following is not a task of an
maker is application software?
A. Ctrl+ A A. Compressing a file.
B. Ctrl+P B. Drawing beautiful graphics.
C. Ctrl+C C. Creating a word document.
D. Ctrl+V D. Plotting a line chart.
574. A fox habitat has enough food for 15 579. Tanya composed a document and would
NARAYAN CHANGDER
foxes, enough water for 30 foxes, and like to provide additional information at
enough space for 10 foxes. How many the bottom of the page. She does not want
foxes can this habitat support? this information to be part of the body.
A. 10 This is called
B. 15 A. The subject
C. 30 B. The salutation
D. 55 C. The closing note
D. The footer
575. One way that the use of computer tech-
nology benefits human resources manage- 580. Cut and Paste instructions:Select the in-
ment is by formation Go to the desired location-
A. reducing the need to interview candi- Paste the information
dates. A. Deselect the information.
B. electronically processing information. B. Make sure the information in on the
C. quickly delegate work assignments clipboard.
D. analyzing valuable feedback. C. Cut the information.
D. Double Click
576. When accepting credit card payments
A. the receptionist should know the credit 581. When you move the mouse pointer on a
limit of the guest button in the tool bar, a short text that
appears is called
B. the receptionist should know which
cards are accepted and the methods of A. Tool tip
processing them B. Text
C. the hotel cannot make charges for C. Show text
more than the bill under any circum- D. Short text
stances.
D. the guest signature needs not to be 582. In Microsoft PowerPoint, what are visual
checked. effects in the form of movements from
one slide to another during a presentation
577. Which tag is used for php called?
A. <?php?> A. Animations
B. <style> B. Transitions
C. <php?> C. Bulleted List
D. <php/php> D. Numbered List

583. You can print B. FORECASTING

A. a presentation outline C. BOOKING

B. individual slides D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
C. handouts for a slide show 589. What are the pieces of information that
D. all of the above describe the appearance of a cell’s con-
tent?
584. When we can create a chart on a separate
sheet in the same workbook, it is called a A. Paste attributes
B. Format attributes
A. Chart sheet C. Active attributes
B. Embedded chart D. Edit attributes
C. View sheet 590. In Excel, a heavy black border designates
D. View chart the
A. main cell
585. What initiates the guest cycle at a hotel?
B. active cell
A. Printing a room status report
C. default
B. Creating a reservation record
D. cell
C. Assigning a room and rate
D. Creating a customer master file 591. You have a graphic that is on your flyer
and the graphic is facing down and needs
586. One of the advantages of UDP? to be facing up. Which menu item would
A. Secure you select to change the graphic?
B. Larger A. flip horizontal
C. Smaller B. flip vertical
D. Faster C. rotate left 90 degrees
D. rotate right 90 degrees
587. Position of lines in a paragraph in relation
to the documents left & right margins 592. A Microsoft application that allows a user
A. alignment to create a word processing documents.
B. first line indent A. Microsoft Publisher
C. hanging indent B. Microsoft Word
D. format painter C. Microsoft Excel
D. Microsoft PowerPoint
588. In large hotels reservations departments
one of the most intricate functions is 593. Which of the following is an email proto-
the availability of rooms ( also the revenue col?
analysis & forecast ) their booking histo- A. TCP
ries, any future events that are supposed
to take place in coming months, group B. IMAP
booking opportunities etc C. UDP
A. RESERVATION D. FTP

594. Performance standards clearly state coded as proprietary, open-source or uni-

what job skill and tasks an employee must versity projects.
know, define how each skill or task is to D. All of thee above
be performed, and provide a consistent
method of how well employees per- 599. What does FTP stand for?
form each one. A. File Transfer Protocol
A. Measuring B. Folder Transfer Protocol
B. Mapping C. File Transmission Protocol
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Defining D. Find That Pigeon
D. Explaining 600. Which of the following arranges the size
595. Microsoft Publisher is a of computer storage measurement from
smallest to largest?
A. Web Browser
A. Byte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte
B. Operating System
B. Byte, Gigabyte, Megabyte, Terabyte
C. Desktop Publisihing Program
C. Kilobyte, Gigabyte, Megabyte, Ter-
D. Word Processor abyte
596. The automatic conversion of primitive D. Terabyte, Gigabyte, Megabyte, Byte
data type into an object is known as
601. In view, the current slide fills the
A. autoboxing whole computer screen. You use this view
B. unboxing when you present the show to your audi-
ence.
C. converting
A. Slide Show
D. automation
B. Normal
597. Microsoft Outlook, Apple Mail and AOL
C. Skide Sorter
Instant Messenger are all examples of
which of the following? D. Slide
A. Communication Programs 602. The feature that automatically moves
B. Wi-Fi text to the next line is called wrap.
C. Home Page A. word

B. page
D. Presentation Software
C. line
598. What is a Computer application?
A. Application program, is a software pro-
gram that runs on your computer. 603. If you need to make your table bigger
that you have placed into your Word doc-
B. Computer Applications is designed to
ument what is the quickest way to in-
test students’ abilities to use word pro-
crease the size of the table?
cessing, spreadsheet, and database appli-
cations software, including integration of A. file button on the ribbon
applications. B. home tab on the ribbon
C. The computer and its system soft- C. left click table and move mouse right
ware or published separately, and may be or left

D. point mouse to edge of the table you A. Backstage view

want to extend, when double arrow ap- B. Group commands
pears stretch table to size you want

C. Quick Access Toolbar
604. Shortcut key to start slide show D. Account
A. F5
610. Was is the correct finger to key “r”
B. Up arrow with?
C. Esc A. Pinky
D. Enter B. Ring
605. are lines that indicate the edges of a C. Middle
cell in a table. D. Pointer
A. border
611. A variable
B. diagram
A. can be displayed
C. dividers
B. cannot be changed
D. cell
C. is always a random value
606. Which finger to use to hit letter “o” on D. is added up together
the keyboard
612. In a large, full-service resort property,
A. Left Ring Finger
the front office manager reports to the
B. Right Ring Finger
A. Executive housekeeper
C. Thumb
B. Director of Sales & Marketing
D. Right small finger
C. General Manager
607. What does SMTP stand for? D. Rooms Division Manager
A. Simple Messaging Transferal Protocol
613. EXPECTED ARRIVAL LIST IS THE FORM
B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol TO COLLECT THE GUEST INFORMATION
C. Simplified Mail Transfer Protocol THAT HAVE RESERVATION, BASED DATA
FROM
D. Simple Mailman Trail Protocol
A. RESERVATION FORM
608. A is a way to ask questions about the B. RESERVATION SLIP
information stored in the table.
C. RESERVATION CHART
A. form
D. RESERVATION DIARY
B. query
C. macro 614. What is formed when Bluetooth devices
are paired with one another?
A. Local area network (LAN)
609. Which of the following contains the com- B. Wide area network (WAN)
mands you use often such as New file,
Save, Undo, and Redo? You are able to C. Personal area network (PAN)
customize it with your preferences. D. Metropolitan area network (MAN)

615. Business people use spreadsheets to per- 620. In order to connect your computer to the
form the following tasks: Internet with a modem, your computer will
have to have a(n) port
A. Develop a budget
A. HDMI
B. Analyze financial performance
B. USB
C. Track loans and mortgages
C. Headphone
D. All of the Above D. Ethernet
NARAYAN CHANGDER
616. Bunthat is working on a document for his 621. Which would be classified as a mobile
school project. He wants to save this doc- computing device?
ument with another name. Which option A. mainframe
should he use?
B. minicomputer
A. Save As C. tablet pc
B. New D. desktop computer
C. Save 622. A set of characters enclosed within single
D. Open quotes is known as
A. String
617. What would be the easiest and fastest
B. Character
way to make all headings on your docu-
ment look the same? C. Integer
A. use Font, Style D. Array
B. use Format Painter 623. Which of the following is an input device?
C. use Insert, Object A. Monitor

B. Projector
D. use Quick Parts
C. Speaker
618. To guests, all hallways lead to the , D. Keyboard
and it will be the first place they turn to
for assistance. 624. Which of the following two operating
systems are used most frequently on
A. Lobby tablets?
B. Front Office A. Windows and iOS
C. Front Desk B. Windows and Android
D. Parking Lot C. Android and iOS
D. BlackBerry and Windows
a Wide Area Network (WAN)? 625. What are the types of task links in MS
project?
A. A network of a big country
A. Start to start link
B. A network within an organization B. Finish to finish link
C. A home-based network C. Finish to start link
D. A network in an ITE campus D. All of three mentioned

626. How do you calculate GWAM? 631. The default orientation of a page in
writer is
A. Divide number of minutes by number

of words A. Portrait
B. Multiply number of words by number B. landscape
of minutes C. book
C. Divide number of words by number of D. None of the above
minutes
632. You need this to actually see the web
D. Subtract number of words from num- pages on the Internet.
ber of minutes
A. Email
627. Which of the following types of front of- B. Spam
fice software enables a hotel to generate C. Web browser
room reports, revenue reports, and fore-
casting reports? D. None of the above
A. General management software 633. What is the most important part of key-
boarding?
B. Guest accounting software.
A. Technique
C. Rooms management software
B. Speed
D. Reservations management software
C. Accuracy
628. key is used to exit slide show view. D. Fingers
A. Del 634. When typing a serial number that in-
B. Backspace cludes both letters and numbers, which fin-
ger controls the number 4 key?
C. Esc
A. left middle finger
D. Enter
B. left index finger
629. Multiplication operator used when the op- C. right index finger
eration should be division.What kind of er- D. left ring finger
ror is this?
A. Syntax error 635. Which function will you use to enter cur-
rent time in a worksheet cell?
B. Typo
A. =currentTime()
C. Logical error B. =Time ()
D. Run-time error C. =now()
630. In the URL http://www.microsoft.com/surface, D. All of the above
the portion labeled “surface” is the 636. The start of any formula or function
A. protocol A. =
B. domain name B. *
C. subdirectory C. cell reference
D. top-level domain D. /

637. When is it more professional not to send 642. NUMBER OF ROOM, MEANS
a business email?
A. JUMLAH KAMAR
A. When a written record is needed.
B. TYPE KAMAR
B. When a number of people should be in-
cluded. C. HARGA KAMAR
C. When the content is highly sensitive or D. NOMER KAMAR
emotional.
643. MS Publisher has many pre-created doc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. As a cover letter for an attachment.
uments that you can edit. These are called
638. Color or patterns used to fill in the back-
ground of a cell is called A. edits
A. Shading
B. templates
B. autoshapes
C. slides
C. hyperlink
D. images
D. animation gallery
639. The way you sit or stand is called 644. A device that makes it possible for mul-
tiple customers to share one address is
A. technique called a/n
B. posture
A. NAT
C. stand up
B. WLAN
D. erect
C. DSL
640. Why do we need to use Composite Data
types instead of primitive data type? D. URL
A. During programming, primitive types 645. If you need to delete 3 rows from a 5 x
are not always sufficient to handle com- 5 table. Which group on the Table tools
plex operations. layout tab would allow her to delete the
B. Primitive data types are the funda- rows?
mental or basic data types which are re- A. alignment group
created by the system developers.
B. cell size group
C. Java Language allows the user to cre-
ate a data type by including a set of prim- C. merge group
itive data types.
D. rows and columns group
D. none of above
646. We store small snippets of information
641. Which of the following image formats
inside what?
produces the best quality images?
A. Functions
A. .tiff
B. .bmp B. Loops
C. .jpg C. If Statements
D. .gif D. Variables

647. Which of the following keyboard actions 653. The characters used to calculate numbers
allows you to exit from a presentation within the formula?
that is playing?

A. Arithmetic operators
A. Press Ctrl+X B. Formula Bar
B. Press ESC C. Formula
C. Press Q D. none of above
D. Press Ctrl+C
654. You want an image to go behind the text
648. The Line Spacing button is located in the on your brochure, which command do you
group on the Home tab / menu item use?
A. Syles A. Align
B. Paragraph B. Bring forward
C. Font C. Send backward
D. none of above D. Rotate
649. A1:G5 is a 655. What function adds all of the numbers in

a range of cells?
A. range
A. Difference
B. formula
B. Sum
C. chart
C. Average
D. function
D. none of above
650. Identify the input device
656. Which key(s) are used to capitalize let-
A. Printer ters?
B. Mouse A. Shift
C. Plotter B. Enter
D. Projector C. Tab
651. Keyboard shortcut to italicizes the se- D. CTRL
lected text is 657. www stands for:
A. Ctrl+ U A. World wide webulugam
B. Shift+ U B. World Wide wonder
C. Ctrl+ I C. World wide web
D. Shift+ I D. World Wide wizard
652. Which is the first of the four layers in the 658. A is an Access feature that makes it
TCP/IP model? easy to enter data.
A. Internet A. form
B. Transport B. query
C. Application C. table
D. Link D. report

659. What is the part of the webpage that con- B. The device that allows memory to
tains the URL of a website called? store data
A. address bar C. The device that conveys information to
B. browser bar people
C. search bar D. The device that helps printers to print

the output
D. status bar
665. Which of the following file formats indi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
660. Which of the following cannot be copy- cates a program that can be run on a Mac-
righted? intosh computer?
A. Cooking Recipe
A. .msi
B. Drawing
B. .bat
C. Music
C. .app
D. Photograph
D. .prog
661. The number of individual networking ad-
dresses required for the Internet is cur- 666. It is a system that can provide updated
rently sales reports, comprehensive inventory
controls and better customer services.
A. more than 4.3 billion
A. Bar codes
B. more than 19 billion
B. Electronic Service Delivery Kiosk
C. unknowable
C. Computer Clearance System
D. one per country
D. none of above
662. How can you create a uniform appear-
ance by adding a background image to all 667. Most companies have some type of an-
slides? nual evaluation process which requires the
use of a simple to use tool for observing an
A. Use the autocorrect wizard employee while working. Typically, this
B. Create a template tool is a(n) that allows the manager to
C. Edit the slide master score the employee’s level of performance.
D. None of these A. Notebook computer

B. Smart phone
663. Which function displays row data in a col-
umn or column data in a row? C. Observation checklist
A. Rows D. Supervisor’s personal opinion
B. Transpose 668. Nonprinting lines that can be displayed
C. Hyperlink around cells in a table are called:
D. Index A. gridlines
B. dividers
664. What is the function of an output device?
A. The device that allows users to do a C. border
specific task D. notes

669. What is the primary purpose of Microsoft A. Cashier

Excel? B. Night Auditor

A. To write essays C. Reservationist
B. To show a slide presentation D. Front Desk Representative
C. To solve problems involving numbers. 675. To select a large block of text you need
D. To keep students updated in the latest to click at the start of the block, hold the
Microsoft Office product key down and then click at the end of
the block of text.
670. Who is known as father of PHP
A. Alt
A. Rasmus Lerdorf
B. Ctrl
B. Brendan Eich
C. Shift
C. Hakon Wium Lie
D. Enter
D. none of above
676. The process used to predict the sales of
671. We can change the thickness of a line guestrooms and the rate that should be
from charged for a specific time of year is called:
A. Line width A. Fortune telling
B. Line Height B. Formalizing
C. Line Thick C. Fore-knowledge
D. Line Style D. Forecasting
677. To create an absolute cell reference, in-
672. Which group on the Table Tools Layout
sert a(n) before the column letter
tab would allow you to delete rows for
and/or row number.
a table?
A. >
A. alignment group
B. &
B. cell size group
C. $
C. merge group
D. #
D. rows and column group
678. What are the categories of tasks used in
673. What is the most appropriate definition MS project?
of an object?
A. Summary tasks
A. Object is a blueprint of a class.
B. Subtasks
B. Object is the prototype of a class. C. Recurring tasks
C. Object is an instance of a class. D. All of these
D. Object is the copy of a class
679. How many wrapper classes are there?
674. A posts revenue center charges to A. 5
guest accounts, balances guest accounts, B. 6
and performs a variety of banking service
for guests; typically found only in large C. 12
full-service properties and resorts. D. 8

680. The front of the house is the: 685. What websites would provide accurate
A. Functional area in which employees and reliable information when completing
conduct meetings and training research on the internet?
B. Functional area in which employees A. .biz .edu .net

prepare guestrooms B. .com .biz .org
C. Functional area in which employees C. .edu .gov .org
prepare food
D. .gov .mil .net
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Functional area in which employees ex-
tensively interact with guests 686. Based on the context clues in the sen-
tence below, ecstatic means:They were ec-
681. The movie star’s large and beautiful
static at the birth of their baby. They
home was palatial .
couldn’t stop smiling for days.
A. ugly
A. Nervous
B. tiny
B. Discouraged
C. for dogs
C. Exciting
D. like a palace
D. Relieved
682. Relational operators are often used in
game design. What is the purpose of using 687. Susan has keyed 300 strokes in 5 min-
relational operators? utes, what is her GWAM?
A. To determine the error in coding. A. 60
B. To make Comparisions. B. 30
C. To evaluate the game. C. 12
D. To allow interaction between a user D. 300
and the game.
688. Which of the following skill sets is impor-
683. Which of the following provide the best tant for the next generation of hard drive
proof of identity when accepting a trav- engineers to have?
eler’s cheque from a foreigner guest.
A. Chemistry and physics
A. the guest passport
B. Motion control
B. the guest cheque card
C. Software development
C. the guest-driving license
D. the guest credit card
684. In a night audit, all of the following are 689. You can tell when a graphic is selected
performed EXCEPT: because it is surrounded by
A. Monitor guest account balances A. graphic handles

B. Balance front desk’s cash bank B. selections handles
C. Assign room numbers C. sizing handles
D. Close current day’s sales D. a border

690. The form and keying style that a typ- C. HTTP is a theoretical model, HTTPS is
ist uses while operating the keyboard is the application
called

D. HTTP has levels of data protection
A. posture
696. Which protocol is used to connect to the
B. technique Internet?
C. touch keyboarding A. POP
D. movement B. IMAP
C. SMTP
691. In the following sentence, calculate the
number of strokes. The cow jumped over D. TCP/IP
the moon. A. 5 B. 30 C. 6 D. 39 697. Header and footer is available in which
A. 5 of the following menus?
B. 30 A. Insert menu
C. 6 B. View menu
D. 39 C. Edit menu
D. File menu
692. Typewriters became obsolete with the
development of personal computers. 698. What keys consist of the home row?
A. popular A. Qwertyuiop
B. out-dated B. ;lkjgdsa
C. careful C. Abcdefgh
D. round D. Asdfjkl;
699. A(n) effect controls the animation as
693. In the Excel worksheet, the mouse
text or objects leave a slide.
pointer displays as a(n)
A. entrance
A. pointer finger
B. emphasis
B. arrow
C. exit
C. thick plus sign
D. trigger
D. crosshair
700. RAM stand for:
694. Variables used in php A. Real awesome monkeys
A. $a=5; B. Rotten apple money
B. var a=5; C. Random access memory
C. int a=5; D. Rugs and mud
D. none of above 701. Power point slides can have?
695. What is the difference between HTTP and A. title, text, graphs
HTTPS B. drawn objects, shapes
A. HTTPS uses encryption C. clipart, drawn art, visual
B. HTTPS is only used in Wi-Fi networks D. any of the above

702. Choose the wrapper classes from the fol- A. Microsoft Excel
lowing: B. Microsoft Word
A. char C. Microsoft Access
B. Byte D. Microsoft PowerPoint
C. integer
708. John purchases a single-user software li-
D. long cense for an application and installs it on
his desktop. Then he installs it on it his
NARAYAN CHANGDER
703. In the following sentence, calculate the
number of words. The cow jumped over laptop computer. In this scenario, which
the moon. of the following statements is true?
A. 4 A. John can use the application on both

computers at the same time
B. 30
B. John can use the application on both
C. 6 computers but only one at a time
D. 29 C. John can use the application on only
one of the computers
704. is basically anything you can touch
with your fingers. D. John can share the application with his
friends to install on their computers
A. Hardware
B. CPU 709. All of the following are functions per-
formed by a reservation module of a com-
C. Network
puter based hotel property management
D. Software system except:
705. Which of the following is the online stor- A. Determination of room availability.
age system affiliated with a Microsoft ac- B. Creation of a reservation record.
count?
C. Generation of a room status report.
A. iCloud
D. Confirmation of a reservation.
B. Chrome
710. Which one of these is incorrect?
C. OneDrive
A. String objects are immutable.
D. iOS
B. String objects are actually arrays of
706. To show how individual items relate to charcters.
a whole unit, you would create a(n) C. String is a primitive datatype.
chart.
D. none of above
A. area
B. pie 711. The front office manager sets financial
goals through forecasting occupancy, av-
C. bar erage daily rate (ADR), revenue per avail-
D. scatter able room (RevPAR), and other statistical
formulas. This is known as
707. If you need to make a presentation at a
business meeting, what Microsoft Office A. Leadership
product would work best? B. Guest service

C. Revenue management 717. Good posture means

D. Green practices A. Keeping your fingers on the home keys

B. Sitting up straight on your chair
712. Ctrl + C =
C. Using your left thumb on the space bar
A. Cut D. Keeping your fingers relax
B. Copy
718. Posture is important to successful keying;
C. Paste the body should be well back in the chair
with the
D. Select
A. feet elevated
713. Which is an example of computer hard- B. back fairly straight
ware ?
C. one arm higher than the other
A. a Web Browser D. feet hanging loosely
B. a Keyboard
719. To convert text to default bullets means
C. Microsoft Word to what
D. an Operating System A. Change words into bullets
B. Make it into a list with bullets
714. Name computer applications
C. Talk to the words and make them like
A. fire fire bullets
B. Plastation D. none of above
C. Safari 720. What is Google Slide?
D. Xbox A. Google Slides is a presentation pro-
gram included as part of a free, web-
715. A is a group of related fields in a based software office suite offered by
database. Google within its Google Drive service.
A. field key B. The service also includes Google Docs
and Google Sheets, a word processor and
B. primary key spreadsheet respectively.
C. record C. Sheets is a spreadsheet program in-
D. datasheet record cluded as part of a free, web-based soft-
ware office suite offered by Google within
716. Having a network of resources within the its Google Drive service.
, along with the skill of reading the D. All of the above
guest, makes it possible to offer options
most likely to meet guest expectations. 721. FUNCTION OF RESERVATION CHART TO
KNOW
A. Local Community
A. ROOM AVAILABLE
B. Statewide Area B. GUEST REQUEST
C. Geographic region C. ROOM RESERVATION
D. Property D. GUEST RESERVATION

722. are pre-designed documents that con- B. Application

tains formatting, styles, and sample text C. Patch
that you can use to create new documents
the way you like. D. Virtual
A. Backstage views 728. Ashley decided to give her daughter an

B. Tabs elaborate 16th birthday party. She hired
a DJ, rented a room for 200 people and
C. Various documents had it catered by Memphis’ top chef. Be-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Templates cause she had taken a computer class in
school she decided to create invitations,
723. What is considered the brain of the com- thank you cards, table and food labels her-
puter? self. Which Microsoft application would be
A. Central Processing Unit most suitable for Ashley to use?
B. Monitor/Display Screen A. MS Access
C. Mouse B. MS Publisher
D. Printer C. MS Excel
D. MS PowerPoint
724. Statistical calculations and preparation of
tables and graphs can be done using: 729. The robber tried to the scene of the
A. Adobe Photoshop crime, but the police managed to catch him.
B. Excel A. select
C. Notepad B. conceal
D. Power Point C. organize
D. flee
725. The information you create in Microsoft
Excel, can be used to create 730. Sam typed 100 words in 5 minutes.
A. A new time zone What is Sam’s GWAM?
B. Pie charts and column charts. A. 100
C. Slides in Microsoft Word B. 500
D. A report in Paint C. 105
D. 20
726. What Microsoft Office Application would
be the best choice to use if you needed to 731. Mechelle is employed by a multinational
write an essay? firm, and works hours on a desktop com-
A. Microsoft PowerPoint puter. Recently, she experienced back
pain and visited her doctor. Which of these
B. Microsoft Excel is a guideline that the doctor would advise
C. Microsoft Access Mechelle to follow?
D. Microsoft Word A. Sit on the edge of the chair.
727. What software is designed to let the OS B. Sit back on the chair.
talk to hardware? C. Use a nonadjustable chair.
A. Driver D. Avoid sitting on a chair.

732. One exabyte = 1, 000 736. VIP status could be given to the guests
A. petabytes because;

B. nanobytes A. every guests needs to hava a VIP
C. megabytes B. all the guests should be treated same
D. gigabytes C. because they have to go through spe-

cial check-in procedures
733. Rose opens her software application and D. there are special occasions guests are
gets a message stating that she has only singled out for special attention because
16 more uses of the product available. of their social status.
Given this scenario, what is her best
course of action in order to use it more 737. Which of the following is a guideline for
than 16 additional times? properly naming files and folders?
A. Activate the software A. Use short and simple file names.
B. Register the software B. Use all capital letters for folder names.
C. Uninstall and reinstall the software C. Use a numbering scheme instead of
words.
D. Not close the application any more
D. Use special characters or symbols in-
734. When operating a keyboard, wrist should stead of spaces.
be
738. What is a source of data for MIS?
A. touching the frame of the keyboard
A. External data
B. arched
B. Grades
C. low but not touching the frame of the
keyboard C. Internet
D. curved over the keyboard D. Website
735. what is Google slide? 739. multimedia disadvantage

A. The application allows users to create, A. cost
view and edit files online while collaborat- B. adaptability
ing with other users in real-time. C. cheap
B. Google Sheets is a spreadsheet pro- D. none of above
gram included as part of a free, web-
based software office suite offered by 740. What is a Boolean
Google within its Google Drive service. A. It’s Just Text
C. The app is compatible with Microsoft B. It’s a Number
Office file formats.The application allows
users to create, view and edit files on- C. It’s Just True
line while collaborating with other users D. It’s True or False
in real-time.
741. Prezi, Google Slides, and OpenOffice Im-
D. Google Docs is available as a web press
application, mobile app for Android, iOS,
Windows, BlackBerry, and as a desktop A. Word Processor
application on Google’s ChromeOS. B. Spreadsheets

C. Presentation Graphics D. The front desk representatives and

D. DBMS Sales & Marketing
742. What do layouts allow you to do? 747. Melanie has a prom picture saved on her
flash drive. She would like to place that
A. Change the colors and fonts for a
picture on her Word document. How could
whole presentation
Melanie get this prom picture on her Word
B. Create a slide with predefined location document?
of text boxes and images
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Insert-Clipart
C. Populate your presentation with pre-
defined slides related to a topic B. Insert-Picture
D. none of above C. Insert-SmartArt
743. The front desk provides a way for a guest D. Insert-WordArt

to express his or her opinion with the use
748. What icon is usually used to indicate an
of:
attachment feature?
A. Guest Complaint Cards
A. Paper clip
B. Guest Comment Cards
B. Folder
C. Grievance/Complaint Cards
C. Suitcase
D. Grievance Comment Cards
D. Plus sign in front of a paper
744. allows you to write letter, design a flyer,
and create many other kinds of documents 749. It is an electronic spreadsheet that lest
A. web browsers you enter, analyze, and calculate data?
B. word processors A. Worksheet
C. media players B. Workbook
D. personal finance C. Form
745. www mean D. none of above
A. word wide web 750. Fonts are measured in
B. wide wide web
A. Points
C. world wide web
B. Pixels
C. Inches
746. During the guest cycle, a number of finan-
D. Centimeters
cial processes occur that are a primary re-
sponsibility of the 751. From the file menu which command would
A. The front desk representatives and ex- allow you to open an existing document?
ecutive housekeeper A. new
B. The front desk representatives and
B. file
manager
C. open
C. The front desk representatives and
reservations D. print

752. According to Metcalfe’s law, if a second 757. Define and explain the e-Collaboration
computer is joined to a first, the value of system?
the network created is how many times

A. Software for supporting and enabling
greater than the value of the original com-
connection people in shared projects, pro-
puter?
cesses and teams within organizations
A. two times use.
B. four times B. Software for supporting and enabling
C. one time communication, coordination and collabo-
ration between people in shared projects,
D. eight times processes and teams within organizations
753. operator, combines multiple refer- and for cross-organizational use.
ences into one reference. C. Software for communication for peo-
A. Ampersand ple in shared projects, processes and
teams within organizations use
B. Space
D. Software for supporting and enabling
C. Comma business people in shared projects, pro-
D. Colon cesses and teams within organizations
and for cross-organizational use.
754. Which of the following is not a vector
graphic effect? 758. Which is not an example of single func-
A. Exclusion tion software?
B. Union A. Microsoft Word

C. Difference B. Microsoft Excel
D. Copy C. E-mail
D. Microsoft Office
755. When a front desk representative ac-
tively engages in , his or her goal is
759. In Microsoft Word, what does the ‘Word
to convert the guest’s dissatisfaction into
Wrap’ feature do?
satisfaction with the situation.
A. Allows you type over text
A. Guest recovery
B. Automatically moves text to the next
B. Accommodating special needs request
line when necessary
C. Providing guest comment cards
C. Allows you to view the horizontal lines
D. Maintain the reader board
D. Controls printing
756. After inserting wordart with a blue fill
and white accent into word, which of the 760. This is one thing you can’t create with MS
following is least likely step to take next? Publisher
A. alter the text direction or alignment A. brochure
B. convert the wordart to a graphic B. greeting cards
C. customize the word art shape style C. spreadsheet
D. modify the wordart text message D. flyer

761. function add(){$a=10;echo $a;}This is an 766. Susan wants to play the games that come
example for with Windows on her computer, but they
A. Call by value are not on the Start menu. What should
she do in this scenario?
B. Call by reference
A. Install the games from Control Panel
C. None
B. Install the games from Windows Up-
D. Both
date
NARAYAN CHANGDER
762. is when someone steals another per- C. Install the games from System Update
sons identity.
D. Delete and reinstall Windows
A. Cyberbullying
B. Identity Theft 767. Mrs. Wright is preparing a financial docu-
ment and she needs to use the dollar sym-
C. Identity Phase bol placed above the number key 4. Which
D. Cyber Know How key will Mrs. Wright use along with the
number key, to get the dollar symbol?
763. What does a blue “wavy” underline ap-
pearing under a word mean? A. Tab
A. The word is out of context B. Fn
B. The word is misspelled C. Shift
C. There is a grammar issue with the D. Alt
word
768. Which key creates a new line in a docu-
D. The word appears twice in succession
ment?
764. What program creates text documents A. Enter
that may contain a few graphics.
B. Shift
A. Database programs
C. Caps Lock
B. Word-Processing programs
D. Backspace
C. Spreadsheet programs
D. Desktop Publishing programs 769. Which protocols provide reliable data
transfer
765. Without changing the size of the text
what is the most likely next step in order A. UDP
to accommodate a table when you need to B. TCP
add 3 columns to the right.
C. Both TCP and UDP
A. go to properties, text wrap to show the
D. None of them
text options
B. go to page layout to modify the orien- 770. CTRL + B
tation to landscape
A. Bold
C. go to view table gridlines to show the
B. Underline
necessary guide lines
C. Right Align
D. go to the column settings to change the
right with line between D. Select All

771. Which of the following will not be in- 776. What does a projector do?
cluded in the check list at the time of ar- A. Print
rival on duty by a receptionist.

B. Take pictures
A. is the reception guest free from dust
C. Puts the computers screen on a larger
B. are plants and flowers arranged well screen
C. ashtrays are empty D. stores stuff
D. are there enough registration cards on 777. The space bar is typed by which finger?
the counter for the guests to help them-
selves A. Ring finger
B. Index finger
772. How can you say if the device drivers are
C. Thumbs
not properly installed?
D. Small finger
A. no sounds input and output
B. not able to connect to the network 778. One of the functions of an operating sys-
tem is to
C. not able to print
A. Organizing files in folders
D. all of the above
B. Detect and remove viruses
773. What part of the table describes the main C. Allow programs to communicatewith
categories of information in a table? the hardware of the PC or device
A. Table title D. Organize data in rows and columns
B. Column headers 779. The home row keys for the left hand:
C. Row titles A. A S D F
D. none of above B. J K L ;
774. Marcia is preparing a business report. C. A S D G
Which type of keys will she use to type D. H J K L ;
in letters, numbers, symbols and punctua-
tion? 780. Which type of computer is commonly
used to quickly process multiple transac-
A. typing keys tions?
B. navigation keys A. Mainframe computer
C. function keys B. Supercomputer
D. control keys C. Microprocessor
775. If you are trying to add two columns to D. Microcomputer
a table in a Word document. Which button 781. How charts and graphs can be developed
on the file tab will let you click to add the to help illustrate key points in the report?
columns?
A. Better understanding through visual
A. design pictures
B. page layout B. better detailed pictures to get idea
C. review C. quick summarized report status
D. view D. all of the above

782. In Microsoft Excel, sheet tabs can be re- 787. In a limited-service property, what is the
named by general manager responsible for oversee-
A. Double-clicking any column ing?
A. Housekeeping
B. Double-clicking any row
B. Food and beverage
C. Double-clicking on the sheet tab; en-
tering the new name. C. Front office
D. Going to File, and clicking Save As. D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
788. Which of the following is used to measure
783. Use the right middle finger to strike this
computer storage capacity?
key:
A. Megahertz
A. F
B. Microgram
B. K
C. Petabyte
C. J
D. Pixel
D. L
789. A computer-based video game, like
784. Wrapping up of data and functions into a Minecraft, is considered a/an:
single unit called class is known as A. Software Application
A. Abstraction B. Operating System
B. Inheritance C. Web Browser
C. Polymorphism D. Computer Hardware
D. Encapsulation 790. Which of the following is an example of
good file name?
785. Why would you copy an individual in-
A. essay.doc
stead of listing that name on the To line?
B. FIRSTQUARTER!!!.xlsx
A. When the person is manager of the re-
cipient. C. vacationSummer2015.pptx
B. When the person is not directly in- D. my$diary.txt
volved in the message but has a need to 791. Excel displays this when the cell is not
know about it. wide enough
C. When the person is the subject of the A. ERROR
message. B. !INVALID!
D. When the person is your manager. C. ######
786. This bar is located at the top of the Word D. #REF!
screen. The contains the name of the 792. Which of the following is a type of moni-
file and/or application. tor port?
A. Title bar A. VGA port
B. Status bar B. DisplayPort
C. Zoom bar C. HDMI port
D. Quick access toolbar D. All of the above

793. What is the space bar used for 799. What does GB stand for?
A. to indent A. Gigabyte

B. to move to the next line B. Giantbyte
C. to insert spaces between characters C. Giagabyte
D. to move D. Giggabyte
794. A computer that is designed to be used 800. Microsoft Excel can be used
on a desk or table. A. To create a budget, average grades,
A. Laptop and to control inventory.
B. To create a memo or a brochure.
B. Tablet
C. To create a slideshow presentation.
C. Desktop computer
D. To search the internet.
D. Netbook
801. “Ctrl + V” is a shortcut that means to
795. What does GWAM stand for?
A. Cut
A. Gross weight after measuring
B. Copy
B. Gross words a minute
C. Paste
C. Great words a minute
D. Undo
D. Gross weight a minute
802. Sometimes we only want certain code to
796. Portrait and Landscape are execute if a condition is true. How do we
test for that?
A. Page layout
A. Loop
B. Paper size
B. If Statement
C. Page orientations
C. Integer
D. All of the above
D. Variable
797. -A hardware device that is capable of ex-
ecuting a sequence of instruction is called 803. At the restaurant we were offered a va-
riety of beverages, like milk and ice tea.
A. CU
A. bread
B. Processor
B. silverware
C. CPU C. drinks
D. ALU D. milk
798. A is used to print documents, photos, 804. Internet address in alphabetic form, such
and anything else that appears on your as .gov or .edu, that can provide some in-
screen. sight into the purpose of the site
A. camera A. Internet Service Provider
B. scanner B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. printer C. Domain Name
D. e-reader D. Web Browser

805. Which feature starts a new line when- 810. char x = ‘A’ ; int m;m=(x==’a’)?
ever a word or sentence reached a border ‘A’:‘a’;System.out.println(”m=”+m);Give
A. Text Line the output:
B. New Line A. 9 7
C. Text Wrapping B. 97
D. Text Align C. 9 6
D. 96
NARAYAN CHANGDER
806. The helps to identify various plotted
data series.
811. Which of these is NOT part of TCP’s role?
A. X-axis
A. Sets the rules for how devices connect
B. Y-axis on a network
C. Gridlines
B. Makes sure data is correctly send and
D. Legend delivered
807. Which of the following represent the best C. To direct packets between routers
response? Computer hardware is/are D. Splits data into packets
A. Located outside the computer only.
B. Components located inside and out- 812. WhatsApp messages are encrypted.
side the computer. How does encryption work to protect your
online activities?
C. Located on the inside of the computer
only. A. It protects you from spammers.
D. a set of instructions that allow the com- B. It protects you from viruses online.
puter to process information such as an C. It prevents people from hacking into
application. your account.
808. What does right justifying text in a doc- D. It prevents people from reading infor-
ument mean? mation sent and received.
A. Changing the right margin.
813. The rooms division consists of two de-
B. Aligning the text to the right margin partments:
C. Aligning the text to the right and left A. Housekeeping and engineering
margin
B. Security and front office
D. Proof reading the text
C. Housekeeping and the front office
809. Which of the following is not a responsi-
bility of the front desk? D. Front office and engineering
A. Making sure the guest has a safe stay 814. Formulas in Excel start with
B. Registering guests and confirming A. #
room rates
B. %
C. Assigning guestrooms and issuing key
cards C. =
D. Acting as a cashier D. +

815. Henry keyed a business letter at work. 820. Dots per inch is used to measure
All lines in the paragraphs start at the left A. density of a bitmap image on a screen.
margin. Which paragraph format did he

use? B. colour of a bitmap image on a screen.
C. size of a bitmap image on a screen.
A. Block
D. quality of a bitmap image on a screen.
B. Centered
C. Indented 821. This formatting option changes the way
data appears in a cell. (Often used for
D. Hanging Indent dates, percentages, time, etc.)
816. With what extensions file are saved in A. Number formats
impress. B. Cell Style
A. .odt C. Cell Shading
B. .odg D. Borders
C. .ods 822. What key is hit with your left index fin-
D. .odp ger?
A. g
817. Java expression for (under root of B. e
2as+u2) is:
C. u
A. Math.sqrt ( 2 * a * s + Math.pow ( u,
2)) D. y
B. Math.cbrt(2 x a x s) + u x 2 823. Which of the following sets of acronyms

is concerned with encoding data for secure
C. Root over of 2 *a*S + u*u transmission?
D. Math.sqrt ( 2 * a * s + Math.pow ( u, A. WAN, LAN
2 ) );
B. VPN, NIC
818. Which of the following options can be C. IPsec, SSH
called data?
D. NAT, SSL
A. Text
824. Which of these is NOT a factor to consider
B. Numbers when upgrading software?
C. Images A. What patches are applied to your cur-
D. All of the above rent version?
B. Do you use the software frequently
819. This allows me to quickly copy func- enough?
tions/formulas.
C. Is the new upgrade stable?
A. Tab D. Is the upgrade sufficiently different?
B. Fill Handler
825. The intersection of a single row and a sin-
C. Auto Sum gle column is called a
D. NOW( ) A. cell

7.2 Water Conservation 1038
B. cell reference B. 8, I, K, ,
C. field C. 1, Q, A, Z
D. frame D. 9, O, L, .
826. Which is Not a computer application?
831. The Homerow Keys consist of what let-
A. TV ters?
B. Zoom
A. ASDFGHJKL;
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Microsoft Word
B. ASDFJKL:
D. Google Crome
C. ASDFJKL;
827. Which network device sends data to ev-
D. none of above
ery device that is connected to it?
A. Hub 832. What are alphabetic keys
B. Router A. abcdefg
C. Switch
B. hijklmnop
D. Modem
C. Letter keys on the keyboard
828. are special visual and sound effects
D. letters on the ipad
contained in presentation graphics file.
A. Animations 833. To close an opened document we should
B. Attractions to go to which of the following menus?
C. Simulations A. File menu
D. Graphics B. Insert menu
829. Which of the following is the default ex- C. View menu
tension of the writer file? D. Edit menu
A. .obt
B. .doc 834. When calculating the number of females
in a row the function used is:
C. .odt
A. CountIF
D. .docx
B. Sum
830. Which keys are supposed to be typed by
the right middle finger? C. Max
A. 3, E, D, C D. CountA
7.2 Water Conservation

1. How much water could you save by wash- B. 3 gallons a minute
ing your bike with a bucket and sponge
rather than letting the hose run? C. 4 gallons a minute
A. 1 gallon a minute D. 5 gallons a minute

2. The practice of maintaining personal clean- 7. What energy source is responsible for all
liness to prevent illness. of the fossil fuels, the water cycle, and
even biomass energy?

A. Hygiene
A. Petroleum
B. Sanitation
B. Coal
C. Clarity
C. The Sun
D. Water
D. Wind
3. What property of water allows it to move
8. What property of water allows it to dis-
up a narrow tube?
solve substances?
A. cohesion
A. cohesion
B. adhesion B. adhesion
C. capillarity C. capillarity
D. solvent D. solvent
4. How much water do you use when you 9. What percent of fresh water is available
flush the toilet? and fit for human use?
A. None A. 2 %
B. .5 Gallons B. 1 %
C. 100 Gallons C. 1.3 %
D. 8 Gallons D. 2.7 %
10. Reprocessing of a resource so that it can

5. Without water there is no !
be used again Ex. paper
A. time
A. Reduce
B. tasks B. Reuse
C. mobile C. Recycle
D. life D. Conservation
6. How has the Indian practice of cremating 11. Which step in the water cycle involves re-
their dead been a problem for the river? turning of fresh water to the Earth?
A. People are not allowed to go near the A. precipitation
river when cremations are taking place. B. evaporation
B. The banks along the river catch fire C. respiration
and threaten Indian homes built there.
D. condensation
C. Factory owners cannot use the water
once human ashes have been thrown into 12. How much water (in gallons) does a fam-
it. ily of four (mom, dad, brother, and sister)
use everyday?
D. The dead bodies of animals, as well
as the ashes of human beings, have been A. 50
placed in the river causing pollution, B. 100

C. 250 D. Meteran air - Water Quality - Deep

D. 400 Well Reduction
13. Which of these is the best way to wash 18. Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples
your car and conserve water? of
A. In your driveway with a hose A. evaporation
B. drive it into a lake B. condensation
C. at a carwash that recycles water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. accumulation
D. none of above
D. precipitation
14. Which of the following do farmers do to
decrease erosion on gently sloping land? 19. As a part of the water cycle, water from
A. Terracing Earth’s surface enters the clouds and fi-
nally falls back to the ground in the form
B. Crop rotation of rain. What is the correct sequence of
C. Contour plowing processes water undergoes?
D. Plant trees to slow down the wind. A. Evaporation, Condensation, Precipita-
tion
15. Why do we need to conserve water?
A. We do not need to conserve water B. Precipitation, Condensation, Evapora-
tion
B. Water is limited and we may run out
C. Condensation, Evaporation, Precipita-
C. There is a lot of water- so we do not
tion
need to worry about conserving it
D. none of above D. Evaporation, Precipitation, Condensa-
tion
16. Based on our articles and class information,
predict what will happen to the percentage 20. What is the only example of point source
of water frozen in glaciers and ice Caps pollution below:
over the next 20 years?
A. A leak from a city sewer pipe.
A. It will increase from 68.7%
B. Car exhaust getting caught in the rain.
B. It will stay the same at 68.7%
C. Road grime on cars being washed in
C. It will decrease from 68.7%
many peoples’ driveways.
D. none of above
D. Emissions from all of the vehicles.
17. berikut adalah beberapa kriteria penilaian
WAC untuk bangunan baru, manakah yang 21. Which of these problems could happen
benar? if we don’t look after the resources we
A. Fitur air - Daur Ulang - Water Manage- have?
ment policy A. Loss of animal homes
B. Water Sub-Matering - Portable Water B. Climate change
- Efisiensi penggunaan air lanskap
C. Increase in pollution
C. Pengurangan penggunaan air - Fitur
air - Efisiensi penggunaan air lanskap D. All of the above

22. What is the first stage of the water cycle? C. Increasing urbanisation
A. Precipitation D. All of the above

B. Condensation
28. What is the name of the biggest river in
C. Sublimation the United States?
D. Evaporation
A. Missouri
23. Crescent shaped earthen check dam B. Ohio
A. TOHAD C. Colorado
B. JOHAD D. Mississippi
C. MULTIPURPOSE
D. CONTOUR PLOUGHING 29. occurs because the water droplets com-
bine to make bigger droplets and the air
24. Salah satu upaya untuk memenuhi WAC 8 cannot hold any more water.
(water tap efficiency) adalah dengan A. Condensation
A. Memasang portable water di setiap da-
B. Evaporation
pur
C. Sublimation
B. Mengganti keran di area publik dengan
fitur auto stop D. Precipitation
C. Menggunakan air daur ulang
30. Who is the first person to be nominated
D. Mengurangi penggunaan air dari deep for two positions in the NFL Pro-Bowl?
well
A. Cam Newton
25. Where does most of the water go after a
B. Khalil Mack
puddle dries up on a sunny day?
A. Animals drink it C. JJ Watt
B. It goes in the air D. Calvin Harris Jr.
C. It soaks into grassy areas 31. Why animals need water?

D. It becomes a different substance A. To cook.
26. Which of the following is not a domestic B. To survive.
use of water
C. To learn.
A. Irrigation
D. none of above
B. Cooking
C. Bathing 32. Other places where freshwater can be
found on Earth are
D. Drinking
A. lakes, ponds, streams and rivers
27. Identify the major factor responsible for
shortage of fresh water B. lakes, sea, streams and rivers
A. Increasing population C. ponds, wells, lakes and rivers
B. Demands for cash crops D. rain, sea, well and lakes

33. Factories use water. 38. Which of the following is not a factor caus-
A. Rain ing shortage of water?
B. Snow A. Planet
C. underground B. Using Manual Sprinklers

D. none C. Watering
D. Setting-Up-Factories
34. Put missing letters. SCA CI Y
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. C, T 39. the process of a liquid slowly passing
through a porous substance.
B. R, T
A. Permeable
C. T, R
B. Percolation
D. C, R
C. Precipitation
35. Bagaimana cara untuk mereduksi limbah
D. none of above
plastik dan jejak karbon pada Greenship
IS WAC? 40. Which of the following is a way to con-
A. Dengan memasang water fixtures serve water?
pada peralatan plumbing A. stop washing
B. Dengan mengkonsumsi air minum B. use cold water
lewat proses pemurnian air/filtrasi
C. fix a leaky faucet
C. Mengadakan kampanye dan memben-
tuk kebijakan konservasi air D. water the lawn each day
D. Semua benar 41. Which of these warms most of the air, wa-
ter, and land on the Earth?
36. At high altitudes the water vapors change
into very tiny particles of ice or water A. coal
droplets because the temperature at high B. electricity
altitudes is low. What stage of the water
cycle does this describe? C. sunlight
A. Precipitation D. wind
B. Sublimation 42. Who is known as the blue planet?

C. Evaporation A. Mars
D. Condensation B. Earth
37. It refers to the preservation, control and C. Mercury
development of water resources, both sur- D. Venus
face and groundwater, and prevention of
pollution. 43. What uses the most water?
A. Water Prevention A. Lawn sprinklers
B. Water Conservation B. Dishes
C. Water Hygiene C. Car washing
D. Water Lily D. Showers and Baths

44. Most of the water on Earth is unusable be- 49. is a main source of water among the
cause it is located where? following.

A. Icecaps A. Snow
B. Streams B. Well
C. Groundwater C. Tap
D. Oceans D. Handpump
45. Which one is an example of recycling? 50. The largest ocean on earth is
A. Reusing a paper bag for lunch. A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Using less water to take a bath. B. Pacific ocean
C. Making new glass bottles from old C. Arctic Ocean

ones. D. none of above
D. Using plastic cups instead of paper 51. Why do water sources need to be con-
cups. served?
46. THE ACT OF PRESERVING, GUARDING, A. We have an unlimited amount of fresh
PROTECTING AND USING THINGS WISELY water.
A. CONDENSATION B. Pollution reduces the amount of usable
water.
B. CONVERSATION
C. Because we need to save it for the
C. CONSERVATION whales
D. COMMENDATION D. none of above
47. What should you do if you see or hear a 52. What word describes water when
leaky faucet in your house? molecules are attracted to each other?
A. Ignore it-drips are no big deal A. cohesion
B. Do nothing-there is no way to fix a B. adhesion
drippy faucet
C. capillarity
C. Ask your parents to fix it
D. solvent
D. none of above
53. Choose the best answer:What is conserva-
48. Manakah pernyataan yang benar menge- tion?
nai Fresh Water Efficiency A. Saving natural resources.
A. Pemeriksaan dan pengujian kualitas B. Studying natural resources
air
C. Using natural and human resources.
B. Pemeriksaan dan pemantauan sistem
plumbing D. Leaving the watering running.
C. Penghematan penggunaan air bersih 54. Which way can you conserve water?
dalam gedung
A. Sending money to Flint instead of send-
D. Kelayakan Air Bersih ing water

B. Sending a ton of 24 packs of water 59. Why are fossil fuels considered to be non-
across the country for no reason renewable?
C. You cant A. They are used up faster than they can
be made.
D. Who cares about water anyway
B. They contain fossils.
55. This aquatic ecosystem is a large shallow C. They were made long ago.
body of water near coastlines that is high
in biodiversity and helps to reduce flood- D. They are very expensive.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing. 60. Where is pollution found on the earth?
A. bay A. only in the air
B. wetland B. only on the land
C. lake C. only in the water
D. creek D. on land, in the air, and in the water
56. How much energy is produced in a year by 61. An area underground that water flows
water in the Hoover Dam? through is called an
A. 7 Hours A. Water Table
B. 4.2 Billion Kilowatt-Hours B. Zone of Aeration
C. 72 Billion Hours C. Aquifer
D. None D. Drainage Basin
62. Earth is known as the blue planet because

57. Water is a renewable resource so, which
of the presence of
of the following is true
A. Water
A. We will not face water scarcity be-
cause it is renewable B. Sky
B. We will face water scarcity because C. Atmosphere

pollution and overuse make it unfit for use D. none of above
C. Both of the above are true 63. Which of the following is an example of
D. Both of the above is false conserving (using less of a resource)?
A. Collect water from warming up the
58. Which of these would help protect forests shower to water plants.
and trees?
B. Recycle your plastics, glass, and met-
A. Drive electric cars so you won’t use als.
gasoline.
C. Shorten your showers by 1 minute.
B. Melt aluminum cans to make new
D. Reuse sink water to wash the car tires.
ones.
C. Make diamonds in a lab instead of min- 64. Which of the following do farmers do to
ing them. prevent soil erosion on steep slopes?
D. Cut down fewer trees by recycling pa- A. Contour plowing

per. B. Terracing

C. Plant trees to slow the wind 70. What SDG No. is the Clean Water and San-
D. Crop Rotation itation?

A. No. 1
65. A lack of water in an area is called
B. No. 17
A. water scarcity
C. No. 6
B. water usage
D. No. 5
C. water conservation
D. water withdrawal 71. What does “conservation” mean?
A. Using up all our natural resources
66. What percentage of the earth’s water is
salt water? B. Protecting supply and quality of natu-
ral resources
A. 3%
C. Trading our natural resources with
B. 25%
other countries
C. 71%
D. Fighting against climate change
D. 96.5%
72. This aquatic ecosystem contains ground-
67. About what percent of Earth’s Water is water and is a major source of fresh drink-
drinkable? ing water.
A. 3% A. lake
B. 21% B. aquifer
C. 70%
C. estuary
D. Less than 1%
D. reservoir
68. This is the relationship between human
73. Manakah penilaian dari kategori konser-
population and water usage.
vasi air yang benar?
A. as the population increases water us-
age decreases A. Mengelola air limbah untuk menghin-
dari pencemaran pada badan air
B. as the population increases water us-
age increases B. Menggunakan strategi penghematan
dalam penyiraman tanaman
C. as the population increases water us-
age stays the same C. Memanfaatkan air hujan sebagai sum-
ber air alternatif
D. none of above
D. Semua benar
69. Water that is underground either in pools
or moving towards the surface. 74. Major threat to fresh water is
A. well A. Dying up of water resources
B. aquifer B. Water pollution
C. groundwater C. Both of the above
D. irrigation D. None of the above

75. Which one BEST describes a nonrenewable C. Setting up of factories

resource?
D. All
A. It is one that will run out one day and
can’t be replaced. 81. During condensation water changes from
B. It will last for about 100 years. A. gas to liquid
C. It can be replaced again and again. B. solid to liquid
D. It will never run out. C. liquid to gas
NARAYAN CHANGDER
76. Most of Earths fresh water ( 70%) is used D. liquid to solid
for ?
A. Agriculture (farming) 82. Which of the following is a solution to wa-
ter pollution?
B. Industry (making products)
A. burn cleaner fuels
C. Domestic (at home)
B. Build and maintain sewage treatment
D. none of above
plants
77. What is the water cycle? C. limit driving
A. The 3 states of water D. burn all the trash
B. When water spins in a cycle
C. the movement of water on, above, or 83. what is water pollution?
below the surface of the Earth A. water being contaminated with pollu-
D. When clouds form tants
B. when you get water dirty
78. It is the process of cleaning and purifying
water so it is safe for use. C. when fish over populate a lake
A. Water Clarification D. when your water tastes bad
B. Septic Tank
84. What percentage of freshwater is unus-
C. Water Septage able and frozen in icecaps?
D. Water Sanitation A. 70%
79. Proper and careful utilisation of water, B. 97%
avoiding it’s wastage, and maintaining the
C. 2%
amount of water in its different sources, is
called- D. 1%
A. Rain water harvesting
85. Which of the following is a way of conserv-
B. Water conservation ing water?
C. Both A. leave the water running while you
D. None brush your teeth
80. Factors causing shortage of water are B. use the hose to wash the car
A. Population C. use a full load in the washing machine
B. Deforestation D. take a long shower

86. Berikut tujuan penerapan WAC 1-4 pada C. Turn the shower off when you get out
Existing Buiding, kecuali: D. Fill up your sink with water an wash

A. Mengetahui jumlah volume air yang di- your dishes with that water
gunakan
91. Our Earth is often called as BLUE PLANET
B. Mencegah terjadinya kebocoran pada
sistem plumbing A. ABOUT 71 % OF TOTAL SURFACE IS
COVERED WITH WATER
C. Mengetahui metode memfilter untuk
air hujan B. ABOUT 70 % OF TOTAL SURFACE IS
COVERED WITH WATER
D. Menghemat penggunaan air bersih
dalam bangunan C. ABOUT 7 % OF TOTAL SURFACE IS COV-
ERED WITH WATER
87. Water moves from Earth’s surface to the
atmosphere and back to Earth’s surface D. ABOUT 75% OF TOTAL SURFACE IS
again in a process known as the water COVERED WITH WATER
cycle.Which of the following is the major 92. What percentage of freshwater on Earth
form of energy driving the water cycle? is available for drinking?
A. solar energy
A. 3
B. nuclear energy
B. 97
C. geothermal energy
C. 1
D. chemical energy
D. 2
88. (A):Water shortage may be a consequence
of variation in seasonal or annual pre- 93. When it is hard to breathe, it could be
cipitation.(B):Or the scarcity is caused by caused by this type of pollution:
over-exploitation and contamination of A. air
water sources. B. wind
A. Only B is true
C. land
B. Both A and B are True
D. water
C. Only A is true
94. Approximately how many gallons of wa-
D. Neither A nor B is true
ter does it take to grow sugar cane?
89. The wise use of natural resources to avoid A. 20- 25 gallons
using them all up; this includes recycling.
B. 2-4 gallons
A. Natural Resources
C. 180-200 gallons
B. Renewable Resources
D. none of above
C. Conservation
D. Pollution 95. What does conserving water help do?
A. Save the dinosaurs
90. Which way can you not conserve water?
B. Nothing
A. Leave the water running
B. Turn the water off while you brush your C. Save water
teeth D. save the panda’s

96. Which of following is not as source of fresh 102. of household watering is for outdoors.
water What are good irrigation practices for
A. Rivers lawns or gardens?
B. Ground Water A. Avoid watering in the heat of the day

so it doesn’t evaporate.
C. Ponds
B. Don’t water on windy or rainy days
D. Oceans
C. Do not water lawns between 10 AM -4
PM
NARAYAN CHANGDER
97. Where is water found?
A. Volcanos D. All of the above
B. Mountains 103. The supply of freshwater under the
C. Oceans, Ice, Rivers, Lakes, groundwa- Earth’s surface.
ter A. watershed
D. Valleys, caves and holes B. glacier
98. It is essential for the survival and develop- C. headwaters
ment of all children. D. groundwater
A. H200 104. Which of the following means of trans-
B. Water portation uses a renewable resource for
its energy source?
C. Air
A. solar powered car
D. Chemicals
B. coal powered steam train
99. Having pores or openings that permit liq-
C. natural gas car
uids or gases to pass through is called
D. gasoline truck
A. Absorption
B. Permeable 105. what is the water division of earth
C. Impervious A. ocean water 97.5 per cent, freshwater
frozen as ice 1.5 per cent and freshwater
D. Saturation 1 per cent
100. Cutting of trees in forests. B. ocean water-47%, freshwater 50%,
A. Afforestation freshwater frozen as ice 3%
C. ocean water 1%, freshwater frozen as
B. Deforestation
ice-90%, freshwater9%
C. Pollution
D. freshwater-33.33%, freshwater frozen
D. Conservation as ice 33.33%, ocean water 33.33%
101. What generally accounts for the greatest 106. What is the process where water at the
use of household water used in the house? surface turns into water vapors?
A. Washing Machine A. Sublimation
B. Dishwasher B. Evaporation
C. Shower C. Condensation
D. Flushing the toilet D. Precipitation

107. What State uses the most water? 112. A factory could help conserve river water
as a natural resource by
A. California

A. filter the water before dumping into
B. Michigan
the river
C. Idaho
B. remove all of the animals from the
D. Mexico area for their protection
C. set up nets down river to remove con-
108. Trash in the environment is a problem be-
taminated fish
cause
D. post signs of “No swimming in the
A. birds can eat it and die.
river”
B. animals can get their heads stuck in
containers. 113. combines to form channels and then
rivers and ends up into lakes, seas and
C. it can kill ocean plants and animals. oceans.
D. all of the above A. Runoff
109. What will most likely happen if the hu- B. Soil
man population continues to grow at cur- C. Rain
rent rates?
D. Salt water
A. There will be fewer natural resources
available for future generations. 114. What planet has the most water
B. There will be an increase in nitrogen A. Mars

levels in the atmosphere. B. Venus
C. There will be a decrease in water pol- C. Earth
lution. D. Mexico
D. There will be an increase in the num-
115. Who is the natural sources of water?
ber of strong hurricanes
A. Tap water
110. By fixing a dripping tap we may save B. Rain
litres of water in a year.
C. None of these
A. 1000
D. none of above
B. 1100
116. What is the biggest lake in the united
C. 1200
states?
D. 1300
A. Lake Michigan
111. When conserving water, the 3Rs we B. Caspian Sea
need to remember are: C. Lake Superior
A. Remove, Reuse, Recycle D. Eagle Lake
B. Report, Remove, Reduce
117. The top of the zone of saturation is called
C. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle the
D. Reduce, Reuse, Rethink A. Water Table

B. Aquifer C. Avoiding any damage to water quality.

C. Zone of Aeration D. Any beneficial reduction in water loss,
D. Ozone use and waste of resources.
123. What percentage of water is usable

118. Which of the following is NOT a way to
freshwater?
conserve soil?
A. 97%
A. Plant trees or vegetation.
B. 3%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Create wind barriers.
C. 2%
C. Allow water to runoff and erode bare
soil. D. 1%
D. Terrace land for farming. 124. Put missing letters.HARV -S -
119. A picture that shows every layer of soil A. E
is called a B. S, E
A. Soil Profile C. E, T
B. Horizon D. T, E
C. Soil Sandwich 125. (A) Fresh water accounts for only about
D. Watershed 2.7 per cent. (B) 70 per cent of this occurs
as ice sheets and glaciers.
120. Air daur ulang dapat digunakan untuk
keperluan A. Only B is true
A. Irigasi B. Neither A is true nor B is true
B. Flush toilet C. Both A and B are true

D. Only A is true
C. Cooling tower
D. Semua benar 126. Rain water can be collected in
A. Overhead tanks
121. When rainwater, does not soak into the
ground, but runs into streams and rivers, B. Underground tanks
it is called C. Both
A. Ground water D. None
B. Aquifer
127. We can avoid wastage of water by
C. Drainage basin
A. Using water sprinkler for irrigation
D. Surface water
B. Over irrigation of fields
122. Which of the following is NOT a key ac- C. Washing our car with a jet of water
tivity of water conservation? D. Allowing water to leak from taps
A. Improving water management prac-
tices that reduce the use or enhance the 128. Which of the following can conserve wa-
beneficial use of water. ter and save money monthly?
B. Practicing sustainable methods of uti- A. watering your lawn at noon

lizing groundwater resources B. washing one item of clothing

C. repairing leaky faucets 133. THE USE OF MANAGEMENT OF WATER

D. planting trees to stop water erosion FOR THE GOOD OF ALL CONSUMERS.

A. WATER HARVESTING
129. Approximately 75 percent of the Earth’s
B. WATER CONVERSATION
surface is covered in water. So why is wa-
ter considered such a precious resource? C. WATER CONSERVATION
A. The greenhouse effect is causing most D. WATER COMMENDATION
of the world’s freshwater to be trapped in
134. What is a renewable resource?
the atmosphere
A. one that can be replaced quickly
B. Only a small fraction of the Earth’s wa-
ter is freshwater available for drinking B. one that is man-made
and irrigation C. one that comes from the sun
C. Each year, more freshwater is being D. one that will never run out
trapped in icecaps located at the North
and South Poles 135. World Water Day is celebrated on
D. Global warming caused by greenhouse A. 21 july
gas emissions will likely cause Earth’s B. 6 January
oceans to evaporate
C. 22 march
130. What are our basic needs? D. none of above
A. clothing, water, air 136. In general, most country’s renewable wa-
B. food, air, clothing ter supplies are generally made up of
C. food, water, shelter A. seasonal flooding and infiltration into
accessible aquifers
D. Music, money, interpetative dance
B. rivers running through the country
131. Which of the following is effective in con- C. surface runoff and infiltration into ac-
trolling water pollution cessible aquifers
A. Discharge sewage in water body di- D. water used from an aquifer
rectly
B. Overuse of chemical fertilisers and 137. Why is it important that people conserve,
pesticides or save, resources?
C. Treating industrial discharge suitably A. They will become renewable.

before realising them in water bodies B. They will be used up quickly.
D. None of the above C. Their supplies will increase.
D. They will last longer.
132. The layer of soil that contains living
things is the 138. Collecting of rain water for use is called
A. Subsoil A. Rain water harvesting
B. Topsoil B. Water conservation
C. Bedrock C. Filtration
D. Parent Material D. none of above

139. What is the proper definition of water 144. What is transpiration?

conservation? A. Excess water being released from the
A. Water conservation refers to the aerial parts of plants in the form of water
preservation, control and development vapor
of water resources, both surface and B. Excess sugar being released from the
groundwater, and prevention of pollution. leave
B. It mean nothing C. The way a plant makes its food
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. To use water and not care how much D. When the plant uses sugar for energy
you use
145. What separates water sheds?
D. Send it to mars
A. Water Table
140. Which of the following is NOT a way that B. Drainage basins
clean water is damaged? C. Aquifer
A. Pesticides and fertilizer runoff from D. Divide
yards.
146. How many gallons (or liters) does the av-
B. Pesticide and fertilizer runoff from
erage washing machine use per load?
farms/agriculture.
A. 8 (30 liters)
C. Toxic waste dumped by industries.
B. 25 (95 liters)
D. Natural filtration through grasslands
C. 41 (155 liters)
and forests.
D. 64 (242 liters)
141. What is a way to conserve water?
147. Aquaculture water use is water associ-
A. Keep your water pressure in check ated with?
B. Leave water running A. Raising plants that live in water
C. Water your yard everyday B. Raising organisms that live in water
D. Throw away half-full water bottles C. None
D. none of above
142. Which of the following would help con-
serve natural resources? 148. Which of the following is major pollu-
A. Recycling cans tants in water bodies
A. Agricultural chemicals
B. Planting trees
B. Industrial Chemicals
C. Carpooling
C. Untreated sewage
D. all of the above
D. All of the above
143. Collecting of rain water in day to day use. 149. A region of land that drains into a river.
A. Conservation A. water reclamation
B. Rain water Harvesting B. watershed
C. Deforestation C. aquifer
D. none of above D. irrigation

150. What drives the water cycle? 156. Approximately what percent of freshwa-
A. The Sun ter is accessible to humans?

B. The Clouds A. less than 1%
C. The Wind B. 2%
D. Magic C. 70%
D. 97%
151. What percent of water on earth is FRESH
WATER? 157. An area of land that is drained by a river
A. 97 is called a
B. 3 A. Divide
C. 2 B. State
D. 96 C. Watershed
D. Fan
152. Which of the following is a way that
farmers conserve soil in a windy area? 158. What is the best pH for growing plants?
A. Terracing A. 0-14
B. Crop rotation B. 3-8
C. Plant trees as wind barriers C. 5-7
D. Contour plowing D. 7-12
153. Rain water can be collected in - 159. Why is clean water important?
A. Overhead tanks A. All life on Earth depends on clean wa-
B. Underground tanks ter to live and grow.
C. Both B. We need clean water for recreational
activities.
D. None
C. We need bodies of water for trans-
154. We cannot drink water from sea/ocean portation
because it is?
D. We need water to regulate the temper-
A. bitter ature on Earth.
B. salty
160. Some of the water that precipitates does
C. creepy not runoff into the rivers and is absorbed
D. tangy by the plants or gets evaporated. It moves
deep into the soil. What is this process
155. These are the sources of water. called?
A. Lakes A. Sublimation
B. Sea B. Transpiration
C. River C. Runoff
D. All of the above D. Infiltration

161. is the process where water runs over C. Throw away water used for washing
the surface of the earth. vegetables..
A. Sublimation D. Do not use a mug and bucket to take
bath..
B. Transpiration
C. Runoff 167. Water Cycle includes to process of
D. Infiltration A. Evaporation
B. Precipitation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
162. Dams are constructed to , and
C. Run-off
A. check floods
D. All of the above
B. store huge quantity of water
168. Factors causing shortage of water are-
C. generate electricity
A. Population
D. all of the above
B. Deforestation
163. What is the second stage of the water C. Setting up of factories
cycle?
D. All
A. Sublimation
169. We can avoid wastage of water by-
B. Precipitation
A. Using water sprinkler for irrigation
C. Condensation
B. Over irrigation of fields
D. Evaporation
C. Washing our car with a jet of water
164. The area of soil underground that is filled D. Allowing water to leak from taps
with water is called the
170. How has India’s need to develop more in-
A. Zone of Aeration
dustry ended up creating problems along
B. Watershed the Ganges River?
C. Zone of Saturation A. Factories along the river dump indus-
D. Water table trial waste and chemicals into the river.
B. No one is allowed to cremate dead bod-
165. What is the perfect soil for growing ies along the river since factories have
plants? been built.
A. Loam C. Industries use so much water along
B. Silt the river that the Ganges is almost dry.
C. Sand D. Factory owners have refused to allow
the Indians living along the river to bathe
D. Clay
or to use the water for cooking.
166. Which of the following are the ways to
171. Which of the following policies would be
conserve Water?
a disincentive, or “stick, “ that would en-
A. Keep the tap running while brushing courage water conservation in a municipal-
teeth or washing hands.. ity?
B. Take only that much of water used for A. Increasing water costs to reflect wa-
washing vegetable.. ter shortages

B. Increasing the availability of re- A. Both A and R are true and R is the cor-
claimed water rect explanation of A

C. Providing rebates for low-flow toilets B. R is true but A is false
and shower heads C. A is true But R is False
D. Providing rain barrels to catch rainwa- D. Both A and R are true but R is not the
ter for watering lawns correct explanation of A
172. How does most of the water in the water 177. What is the name of the Speaker of the
cycle move from lakes and rivers directly Water Sanitation and Conservation?
back into the atmosphere?
A. Engr. Jenny Tunac
A. precipitation
B. Engr. Julie Anne Tunac
B. respiration
C. Engr. Julie Ann San Jose
C. evaporation
D. Engr. Julie Bee
D. condensation
178. What is the name of process to clean wa-
173. Utilities of dam - 1. To check flood 2. To ter using filters?
store large quantity of water. Choose the
A. Drinking water
correct option.
B. Purification
A. Only 1
C. Deforestation
B. Only 2
D. none of above
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None 179. Which region of the world is not facing
scarcity of water
174. In which way do humans have a negative A. Western Europe
impact on the environment?
B. South Asia
A. burn fossil fuels
C. Most of Africa
B. recycle cans
D. North West Mexico
C. reuse a paper bag
180. What does water vapor do before it re-
D. protect endangered species
turns to the Earth as rain or snow?
175. What is one way you and your family can A. It turns to hail.
help to conserve water at home?
B. It forms into puddles.
A. watering the garden at the hottest
C. It gathers underground.
time of the day
D. It forms droplets in the clouds.
B. using the longest cycle to wash clothes
C. turning off the faucet while brushing 181. Reusing a product in a different way
your teeth without having to reprocess it
D. none of above A. Reduce
B. Reuse
176. Assertion (A):The Earth is called as ‘Wa-
ter Planet’. Reason (R):One-third of the C. Recycle
Earth Surface is covered with water. D. Resources

182. Berikut dibawah ini tentukan yang bukan 188. A scientist studies a sample of swamp
merupakan tujuan dari konservasi air pada water. She finds that there are many dead
bangunan baru! plants and fish in the water. in the wa-
A. Untuk melakukan penghematan air ter could be the main cause of this.
B. Untuk mengurangi beban pemakaian A. oxygen

air B. litter and pollution
C. Untuk mengatur debit air
C. mud and silt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Untuk melakukan pengelolaan air
D. pebbles and sand
183. When is the best time of day to water
your garden? 189. The water cycle is the movement of wa-
A. Early morning or late evening ter from the Earth’s surface to the and
back to the surface again.
B. In the afternoon
A. ocean
C. All day long
D. At night B. air
184. What is the last stage of the water cycle? C. river
A. Sublimation D. mountain
B. Transpiration
190. The movement of soil from one are to an-
C. Runoff other by wind or water is called
D. Infiltration A. Erosion
185. Which type of soil is the most permeable? B. Natural Hazards
A. Loam C. Landslides
B. Sand
D. Renewable resources
C. Silt
D. Clay 191. How much water is wasted in a day?
186. When is the best time of day to water A. None

your lawn? B. 10 Million Gallons
A. Early morning or late evening
C. 526 Gallons
B. In the afternoon
D. 156 Gallons
C. All day long
D. At night 192. Setting up of factories cause a in the
level of underground water.
187. What is NOT a sustainable practice?
A. Decrease
A. recycling
B. reducing B. Increase
C. reusing C. Both
D. buying D. None

193. Which actions taken by a school environ- 198. Which is one reason that trash and litter
mental club would make a positive human can hurt wildlife?
impact?

A. Wildlife are afraid of human garbage.
A. planting native trees along the border B. Trash covers the scent of other ani-
of the school property mals they are hunting.
B. making wooden benches by harvesting C. Wildlife may try to eat plastics and
local trees choke on them.
C. introducing a new population of foxes D. Trash and litter removes their camou-
to school grounds flage.
D. clearing an area to make room for ad- 199. Which of the following is not one of the
ditional student parking 3 R’s?
194. Rainwater that flows over land without A. Reduce
sinking into the soil. B. Reuse
A. runoff C. Recycle
B. spring D. Resources
C. groundwater 200. What do you do when you recycle a re-
source?
D. aqueduct
A. divide it into many parts
195. To what is most of the water used in agri- B. use much less of it
culture (farming) lost?
C. make it into a different material
A. Evaporation
D. make new products out of an old one
B. Runoff
201. Which represents the distribution of wa-
C. Pollution ter on Earth?
D. Plants A. 3% freshwater, 97% salt water
196. Which of these things are you most likely B. 97% freshwater, 3% salt water
to NOT find in a sustainable home? C. 71% freshwater, 29% salt water
A. LED Lightbulbs D. 29% freshwater, 71% salt water
B. Low-Flow Toilets & Showers 202. How is air pollution a problem in the rural
C. A wood burning stove areas?
A. Waste from nuclear power plants has
D. A Hummer (SUV) in the garage
made the air in rural areas dangerous to
197. Which of the following decreased the breathe
amount of fresh water we can use? B. People living in small villages drive a
A. water pollution long distance to work in cars and trucks
C. Many heavy industries have relocated
B. too many plants
in rural areas because the land is cheap
C. rich topsoil
D. Millions of people cook over wood and
D. fast-running rivers coal fires

203. What is it called when water vapor C. Marine life explorations

changes back to a liquid? D. none of above
A. Precipitation
209. Earth is known as planet.
B. Condensation
C. Saturation A. Blue
D. Evaporation B. Green
C. Red
204. Which country harvest rainwater for agri-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cultural need? D. None
A. Brazil 210. Why could erosion be BAD for soil?
B. Australia
A. It forms new rocks
C. Pakistan
B. It makes the soil healthier
D. Iran
C. It washes away important nutrients in
205. Oceans cover what portion of the Earth the soil
surface D. It allows too many trees to grow
A. Two-thirds
211. Which of the following is a renewable
B. One-thirds
source of energy?
C. Three-fourths
A. Coal
D. Almost Half
B. Natural Gas
206. what is the main cause of water pollu- C. Ethanol from soybeans
tion?
D. Petroleum
A. invasive species
B. animals 212. Which of the following is NOT a goal of
water conservation?
C. plants and insects
D. human impact and decision making A. Ensuring availability of water for fu-
ture generations
207. Which of these ways to wash the car B. Energy conservation
saves the most water?
C. Improving water management prac-
A. Wash it in the driveway with the gar-
tices that reduce the use or enhance the
den hose
beneficial use of water.
B. Drive it into the lake
D. Habitat conservation
C. Take it through a car wash that recy-
cles water 213. Which of these countries uses the most
D. Make your little brother wash it water per person per year?
A. United States
208. Water conservation battles which prob-
lem? B. Egypt
A. Air Pollution C. India
B. Water Scarcity D. Germany

214. How much water does a family of four 220. put missing letters.WA ER
(mom, dad, brother, and sister) use every- A. T
day?

B. E
A. 50
C. R
B. 100
D. W
C. 250
221. Which is NOT a strategy of water conser-
D. 400
vation?
215. What area underground does not store A. Rain water harvesting
water and is left dry?
B. Practicing sustainable methods of uti-
A. Aquifer lizing groundwater resources
B. Zone of Saturation C. Protecting groundwater resources
C. Zone of Aeration D. Avoiding any damage to water quality.
D. Water Table 222. is a process similar to evaporation
216. Importance of Water Conservation where liquid water is turned into water va-
por by the plants.
A. To prepare for future droughts
A. Sublimation
B. To preserve the environment
B. Transpiration
C. To strengthen communities
C. Runoff
D. All of the above
D. Infiltration
217. What are the 3 Rs of Conservation?
223. The life on the Earth began in
A. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
A. Frozen Mountains
B. Reuse, Reminder, Recycle B. Primitive Oceans
C. Recycle, Rent, Running C. Hot Deserts
D. Reading, Reduce, Resist D. River Plains
218. What does WASH stands for? 224. What two elements make up water?
A. Water, Sanitation, Hydrogen A. helium and oxygen
B. Water, Septage, Hygiene B. hydrogen and carbon
C. Water, Sanitation, Hygiene C. hydrogen and oxygen
D. Water, Sustainable, Hygiene D. oxygen and carbon
219. What word describe water when it is at- 225. Runoff water that is absorbed by subsur-
tracted to surfaces? face of soil and rock.
A. cohesion A. Groundwater
B. adhesion B. Infiltration
C. capillarity C. Wetland
D. solvent D. Saturation

226. Which of the following is an example of C. The government has passed laws to re-
recycling ( using a resource more than one strict access to the water to discourage
time)? pollution and contamination
A. Check for leaks in pipes and repair D. The government of India has worked
them. to dam the river flow so people can prac-
B. Collect water used to warm up show- tice ritual bathing without contaminating
ers and use it to water plants. the water.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Water at night to reduce evaporation. 231. Which of the following is an example of
D. Run washing machine and dishwasher conserving (using less of a resource, re-
only when full. duce)?
A. Collect water from kitchen to water
227. How much water is not wasted in a day? plants.
A. 1 Gallon
B. Recycle your plastics, glass, and met-
B. About 526 Gallons als.
C. None C. Shorten your bath by 1 minute.
D. About 30, 000 Gallons D. Reuse sink water to wash the car tires.
228. Which of the following uses the MOST 232. Which of the following is an underground
water? layer of gravel, earth or porous rock which
A. Homes contains water?
B. Yards A. Aquifer
C. Hospitals B. Watershed
D. Agriculture C. Ice cap
229. Most water can be found in the D. Glacier
A. Ocean 233. How much water is drank in a day? by

B. Sea glasses.
C. River A. 1 glass
D. Pond B. 64000000000 Glasses
C. 10 Glasses
230. In the Hindu religion the Ganges River is
considered holy, and ritual bathing in its D. 10000000000 Glasses
waters is practiced by an estimated 60,
000 people per day. What is the MOST 234. Which of these everyday objects is a
LIKELY effect of this practice? water-saving tool?
A. Such use of the river has raised major A. A bucket
health risks for the population of the area.
B. A clock
B. Tourism in the area has increased, and
C. A broom
many new settlements are being estab-
lished along the river. D. All of the above

235. What country is does not have a Clean C. Deforestation

water? D. Increasing the rainfall

A. Nigeria
241. Which of the following is another term
B. Philippines for salt water?
C. USA A. Tears
D. India B. Brackish
236. How much of the earth’s surface is cov- C. Saline
ered by water? D. NaClH2O
A. 75%
242. Where is most of the freshwater found
B. 65% on Earth?
C. 50% A. lakes
D. 70% B. glaciers
237. How are reservoirs, rivers, and wells C. oceans
alike? D. groundwater (aquifers)
A. They are all polluted water sources.
243. includes all the policies, strategies
B. They all stay full even without a lot of and activities to sustainably manage the
rain. natural resource of fresh water, to protect
C. They are unlimited water sources. the hydrosphere, and to meet the current
and future human demand.
D. They are all sources of water for the
community. A. Sublimation
B. Infiltration
238. Where does a typical household use most
of their water? C. Water Conservation
A. Washing Machine D. Runoff
B. Dishwasher 244. Poin manakah yang bertujuan untuk men-

gawasi, mengontrol, dan memelihara kon-
C. Shower
disi alat plumbing?
D. Landscaping (watering the lawn)
A. WAC P - Water Conservation Campaign
239. What is an effect of the water cycle? B. WAC 3 - Potable Water
A. Regulates the temperature of the sur- C. WAC 2 - Water Use Monitoring
roundings
D. Semua salah
B. Changes weather and creates rain
245. can be rain, sleet, snow, hail, or driz-
C. Helps in conversion of rocks to soil
zle.
D. All of the above
A. Precipitation
240. Planting of more trees will help in B. Condensation
A. Reducing the ground water level C. Evaporation
B. Setting up more factories D. Sublimation

246. Steam is the form of water. C. brushing your teth

A. Solid D. drinking water
B. Liquid
252. Which of these is an example of precipi-
C. Gaseous tation?
D. none of above A. snow
247. Which of the following is NOT an impor- B. air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tant a reason why water is an important
C. clouds
resource for people and living organisms?
D. vapor
A. Humans need water to drink.
B. Animals need water to survive 253. What percentage of the earth is water?
C. Water helps plants grow. A. 50%
D. People enjoy looking at water. B. 60%
248. In general, surface water always flows C. 71%
A. from south to north D. 80%
B. toward the equator
254. is a major natural source of water.
C. from north to south
A. Snow
D. downhill
B. Well
249. During transpiration, the extra water is C. Tap
moved out of the leaves through the
as water vapor. D. Handpump
A. Chloroplasts 255. The relationship between water demand
B. Stomata and policies that subsidize water-thirst
C. Chlorophyll crops demonstrates a
D. Air A. loophole
B. positive feedback loop
250. You are living is a dry region with high
rates of evaporation. Which of the follow- C. negative feedback loop
ing technique you use for irrigation D. lag time
A. Drip or Trickle irrigation
256. As water vapor rises, it enters into a
B. Irrigation through canals
colder atmosphere, causing the water to
C. Irrigation trough sprinklers condense into liquid water and clouds are
D. None of the above formed
A. Condensation
251. What usually uses more water in the
home? B. Evaporation
A. Washing machine C. Transpiration
B. taking a shower D. Interception

257. Which of these activities wastes the 263. Development that meets the need of the
MOST water per day in the average present without compromising the abiity
home? of the future generation to meet their own

A. Running the tap while washing dishes needs.
B. Using a garbage disposal A. Sustainable Department
C. A leaky toilet B. Sustainable Development
D. Long showers C. Sustainable Goals

D. Sustain
258. have calm waters
A. All of these 264. Sustainable means
B. Lakes A. using a lot of energy
C. Ponds B. being able to last for a long time by cre-

ating as much as you use
D. none of above
C. Being able to cause a stain
259. In which area would the rate of evapora- D. none of above
tion be the lowest?
A. Over the ocean 265. Which of the following measure of water
conservation is related to rain Water col-
B. Over the mountains lection
C. Over the rainforest A. Drip irrigation
D. Over the desert B. Afforestation
260. What country has polluted their water C. Use of Sprinklers
sources by tossing cremated remains into D. Rain water harvesting
the river?
A. India 266. Where does the Ganges River empty into
the sea?
B. Japan
A. South China Sea
C. North Korea
B. Yangtze River
D. China
C. Bay of Bengal
261. Forest & vegetation covers helps in D. none of above
A. Slow down the surface run off
267. TWO TYPES OF RAIN WATER HARVEST-
B. Replenish underground water ING
C. Both of the above A. SURFACE RUN OFF HARVESTING,
D. None of the above RAIN WATER HARVESTING
262. Water Man of India B. SUNRISE RUN OFF HARVESTING,

ROOF TOP HARVESTING
A. Rajeshchandra Singh
C. SURFACE RUN OFF HARVESTING,
B. Ramendra Singh ROOF TOP HARVESTING
C. Ravindra Singh D. SURFACE CROP HARVESTING, ROOF
D. Rajendra Singh TOP HARVESTING

268. It helps to regulate water flow and dis- 274. What is the sixth stage of the water cy-
tribute water evenly cle?
A. river A. Sublimation
B. dams
B. Transpiration
C. sprinkler
C. Runoff
D. drip irrigation
D. Infiltration
269. Save of water is called what?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Water conservation 275. Which of the following is a method to con-
B. Purification serve water?
C. Filtration A. run the dishwater instead of using run-
D. none of above ning sink water
270. Changing the amount of resources that B. use a water efficient shower head
you use or changing to an ecofriendly al- C. when washing your hands let the wa-
ternative. Ex. Cutting of the water when ter run
you brush your teeth
D. take longer showers
A. Reduce
B. Reuse 276. Each layer of soil is called a
C. Recycle
A. Soil Profile
D. Resources
B. Horizon
271. Planting of more trees will help in-
C. Humus
A. Reducing the ground water level
B. Setting up more factories D. Parent Material
C. Deforestation
277. What occurs during the process of conden-
D. Increasing the rainfall sation in the water cycle?
272. People need water to A. a change in state from solid to liquid
A. transport minerals to all body parts. B. a change in state from liquid to gas
B. run.
C. a change in state from gas to liquid
C. drawing the tree.
D. a change in state from liquid to solid
D. none of above
273. Water that is stored in layers of rock and 278. Why water is important for plants?
soil beneath the Earth’s surface is called
A. To carry out the process of photosyn-
thesis.
A. groundwater
B. To take shower.
B. sewage
C. a reservoir C. For drinking.
D. an underground stream D. none of above

279. How can carpooling or walking help re- C. Soil Pores

duce air pollution? D. Porosity

A. It is less expensive than driving alone.
285. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
B. We would build more bicycles. ple for saving water for domestic use?
C. We would burn fewer fossil fuels (gas A. shorter showers
and coal)
B. stopping leaks
D. We would produce less trash
C. washing dishes efficiently
280. When is the best time of day to water D. taking tub baths
your lawn or garden?
A. Early morning or late evening 286. The Klamath River agreement
B. In the afternoon A. is an agreement to remove dams to
save migrating salmon populations.
C. All day long
B. provides for the increase in value of
D. At night
water rights for fish and aquatic organ-
281. prevent excess use of tap water, we can isms.
collect C. is a less-used strategy to help regulate
A. Rain water water diversion for local farmers.
B. River water D. provides a water diversion project for
the city of Los Angeles.
C. Sea water
D. none of above 287. Which source of freshwater is not easily
available for human use?
282. Manakah kriteria bangunan rumah yang
A. oceans
tidak bisa dinilai dengan Greenship Home?
B. freshwater lakes
A. Desain rumah baru (redevelopment)
C. rivers
B. Rumah susun / apartment
D. icecaps/glaciers
C. Rumah terbangun (existing)
D. Single landed house 288. Put missing letters.CO SERVA
ION
283. What is the largest use of water in the
A. N, T
U.S. AND the largest contributor to water
pollution? B. T, N
A. Agriculture C. N, S
B. Industrial D. N, I
C. Household 289. What generally accounts for the greatest
D. Entertainment use of household water?
284. How fast that water flows through the A. Washing Machine
soil is called the B. Dishwasher
A. Groundwater C. Shower
B. Permeability D. Landscaping

7.3 Soil Conservation 1066
290. In which country does the Ganges river D. None of the above
flow after it leaves India?
295. Which of the following do farmers do to
A. China
keep soil from being depleted of nutrients?
B. Bangledesh
A. Contour Plowing
C. Japan
B. Terracing
D. North Korea
C. Plant trees to slow the wind
291. What is the third stage of the water cy-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Crop rotation
cle?
A. Sublimation 296. What uses the most water per year in
B. Condensation American households?
C. Evaporation A. Bath
D. Precipitation B. Shower
C. Dishwasher
292. What is soil composed of?
A. rocks, clay and air D. Toilet
B. rock, humus, air, water 297. Conservation is the act of conserving, or

C. chemicals and fertilizers protecting the environment, plants, and
animals. Why is this so important? What
D. dirt and bacteria
are some things you can do to help con-
293. Goose and Harley are cruising down the serve our environment?
interstate on some motorcycles. They’re A. leave water on, leave TV on, run dish-
burning gas like crazy. What would be an washer with 1 plate
effect on the environment?
B. run the washing machine with 1 shirt
A. water pollution
C. leave the refrigerator door open
B. land pollution
D. turn off water, turn off lights, turn off
C. air pollution
TV
D. none of above
298. Use of sprinkler for irrigation reduces the
294. In your school you observed that a tap the water.
leaking what will you do
A. Decrease
A. Let the tap leak
B. Wastage
B. Share this with your friends
C. Inform your school administration C. Harvesting
about this D. none of above
7.3 Soil Conservation

1. planting crops across or perpendicular to A. mulching
slopes to follow the shape of a slope of a
field
B. terracing

C. contour farming 7. Water power can be replaced naturally in

D. matting a short period of time, so it is a

2. The solid rock that forms Earth’s surface is
called B. metamorphic rock
A. sediment. C. nonrenewable resource

B. bedrock. D. mineral
C. clay. 8. Which of the following takes up approxi-
D. sand. mately 50% of soil?
A. water and humus
3. It is known as the Sorrow of China
B. water and loam
A. Yellow river
B. Black river C. air and loam
C. Blue river D. air and water
D. none of above 9. is when you prevent soil erosion or

keep soil from being contaminated.
4. Which of the following is not true about
using inorganic fertilizer to enrich the soil? A. Soil conservation
A. It adds specific amounts of major plant B. Soil erosion
nutrients:NPK C. crop rotation
B. It is doesn’t add organic matter to D. none of above
the soil, which gives it carbon and better
structure. 10. Which of the following is not a cause of
C. It can easily dissolve and infiltrate the soil erosion?
soil or to runoff into a body of water. A. Overgrazing
D. It contains manure and compost. B. Landslides
5. Two main forces of erosion are: C. Afforestation
A. rain and snow. D. Rain wash
B. wind and water. 11. Consider the following statements regard-
C. sunlight and wind. ing the soil and land conservation:I. Soil
D. pH and salinity. erosion is the loosening and displacement
of topsoil particles from the land.II. Soil
6. The process by which wind, water, or erosion is a natural process that occurs on
gravity transports soil and sediment from all lands.III. Land degradation is the dete-
one location to another rioration in the quality of land.
A. Erosion A. Only I
B. desertification B. I and II
C. habitat C. II and III
D. soil conservation D. All of the above

12. Mass movement of rocks down the hills 17. What is conservation plowing?
could be a sign of: A. Conservation Plowing is a method
A. Landslides of planting and planting and harvesting
B. Floods where stalks and other residue from the
previous year are left on the ground into
C. Deforestation the next season.
D. Weathering B. Conservation plowing is plowing along
the contours of the land in order to mini-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. The wearing off or carrying away of soil
mize soil erosion.
by the action of water or wind is called
C. Conservation plowing is the practice
A. Storm
of growing a series of dissimilar or differ-
B. Deforestation ent types of crops in the same area in se-
C. Flood quenced seasons.
D. Soil erosion D. none of above
14. What are the layers in soil called? 18. Human activities that increase soil erosion
include
A. Layers
A. mining
B. Horizons
B. overgrazing by cattle
C. Gradients
C. afforestation
D. Profiles
D. Both mining and overgrazing by cattle
15. Mrs. Amerson placed a soil sample in a
bottle and put some water in it. She shook 19. Soil conservation done on hill slopes
it up and let the soil settle. She noticed A. Ploughing
some dark stuff floating at the top of the
B. terrace farming
bottle. The dark stuff was most likely
C. Erosion
A. silt
D. All of the above
B. clay
C. sand 20. Which of the following describes the ar-
rangement of particles in soil?
D. humus
A. soil texture
16. What is soil conservation?
B. soil fertility
A. when people collect different types of
C. soil structure
soil
D. soil arrangement
B. when people grow plants in their front
yard 21. Afforestation is a term which means
C. when farmers move the soil in order to A. felling of trees
make room for cattle and tractors
B. overgrazing
D. is a way of managing soil that reduces
erosion and maintains the nutrients plants C. growing trees
need. D. making dams

22. The dust bowl happened because 28. Acid rain contains rainwater mixed with
A. farmers plowed all the prairie grasses sulfuric acid or

and then a drought happened. A. oxygen
B. it was just a drought B. silicon
C. because the area should not have been C. nitric acid
farmed D. hydrochloric acid
D. it was a little thing don’t worry about
29. Most types of plants grow best in soil with
it.
a pH of
23. This may lead to soil erosion A. between 1 & 2
A. terrace farming B. between 6 & 8
B. growing of crops C. between 10 & 12
C. afforestation D. either 1 or 14
D. deforestation 30. Overgrazing is responsible for causing:
24. What soil is made of? A. Soil depletion
A. Rocks B. Floods
B. Organic materials C. Earthquake
C. Small rocks and organic matter D. Landslides
D. none of above 31. Sandy soil has a lot of
25. Which soil component has the least capac- A. rocks and minerals
ity for holding water? B. clay and leaves
A. Sand C. organic matter
B. Silt D. sea shells
C. Clay 32. The fariming method in which the plant ma-
D. Humus terial remains in the field to decay over the
winter is called
26. What type of resource is soil considered?
A. contour
A. secondary resource
B. no-till
B. renewable resource
C. terracing
C. non-renewable resource
D. crop rotation
D. none of above
33. Which soil texture do scientists believe to
27. which soil is on the bottom? be the “ideal soil”?
A. Bedrock A. 30% Sand, 40% Silt, 30 % Clay
B. Topsoil B. 45% Sand, 5% Silt, 50% Clay
C. Subsoil C. 40% Sand, 40% Silt, 20% Clay
D. Bottom soil D. 25% Sand, 25% Silt, 50% Clay

34. If you were to put the 3 types of soil in a 39. Why is soil is a valuable resource?
tube, which would fall to the bottom first? A. is important to all living things on land
A. clay B. contains sand and gravel
B. humus C. is rich in decomposers
C. sand D. has all three soil horizons
D. silt 40. What type of process forms soil?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. Over time, a large boulder has gotten A. weathering
smaller and smoother. Why has the rock B. erosion
changed?
C. deposition
A. Wind and water have weathered the
D. compaction
boulder, wearing away it’s surface.
B. The boulder wanted to smooth out its 41. Mrs. Bennett has 2 soil samples. One soil
wrinkles sample is darker in color and the other is
lighter in color. Which soil sample most
C. The boulders layers have cemented to- likely has more organic matter?
gether
A. the lighter soil sample
D. The heat of the Sun smoothed the boul-
B. both have equal amounts
der out.
C. the darker soil sample
36. Soil is mostly conserved by D. neither, soil can’t have organic matter
A. Afforestation
42. Which of the following can cause weather-
B. Deforestation ing?
C. Overgrazing A. fertilizing the land
D. none of above B. minerals and humus
C. water, wind, plants, and animals
37. The lowermost layer of the soil is called:
D. none of above
A. Weathered Rock
B. Parent Rock 43. Which of the following is not a source of
organic fertilizer?
C. Sub Soil
A. turning crop residue into a field
D. None of these
B. compost
38. The process that breaks down rocks and C. animal manure or guano
other materials into tiny pieces on Earth’s D. pellets of N-P-K
surface is called
A. Weathering 44. How are earthworms good for soil?
A. Worms eat decayed material and
B. Erosion
break it down
C. Soil conservation
B. They drink all of the water in the soil
D. Decomposition and dry it out.

C. Worms break dance and break up 50. What is the soil conservation technique in
rocks in the soil which rows of trees are planted along the
edges of a field to block the wind from

D. Worms chemically weather rocks in
the soil. eroding fields and trap the soil?
A. Terracing
45. You notice that the leaves of a particular
plant species are turning yellow and have B. Cover Crops
stunted growth. Which nutrient chemical
C. Windbreaks
test will be low?
D. Conservation Plowing
A. nitrogen
B. phosphorus 51. What is something that you can put over
C. potassium your flower garden to keep the moisture
in and slow soil erosion?
D. none of above
A. crop rotation
46. What is a problem all farmers face?
B. mulch
A. Soil hardening
B. Soil spoiling C. no till farming
C. Soil erosion D. none of above

D. Soil pollution 52. when trees or shrubs are planted to
47. Which type of farming is used when plant- act as a barrier to protect soil from wind
ing along the natural shape of slopes of erosion.
the land? A. Contour plowing
A. contour B. Windbreaks
B. terracing
C. terracing
C. no-till
D. none of above
D. crop rotation
48. Farming with very little tilling of the soil 53. Which layer of soil has the most rocks and
to preventerosion. Stubble is left on the the least amount of organic matter?
field for protection andorganic matter. A. topsoil
A. Contour Farming B. subsoil
B. Cover Crop C. bedrock
C. Wind Break
D. organic layer
D. No-till Farming
54. Weathering and and living organisms ac-
49. Which type of climate will have faster
tivity combine to create
chemical weathering?
A. bedrock
A. Hot and Wet
B. Cold and Dry B. soil
C. Hot and Cold C. minerals
D. Cold and Wet D. crystals

55. Rows of trees planted around a farmstead 61. Which part of soil is fit for vegetation?
or field toprotect it from the wind A. Sub soil
A. Terraces B. Top soil
B. Cover Crop C. Weathered rock fragments
C. Contour farming D. Clay soil
D. Windbreak
62. What can happen if the soil is left bare af-
56. Why would Farmer Joe use the conserva- ter harvesting?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion method of growing cover crops? A. it will not affect the soil
A. Contour plowing B. the soil can change color
B. Terracing C. can result in wind and rain erosion
C. To D. the soil will produce more fruits and
D. To prevent weeds from growing, add vegetables
nutrients to soil, and
63. Heavy rains cause in mountainous re-
57. what threat to soil can cause compaction gions every year.
and soil pollution? A. Earthquake
A. farming B. Tsunami
B. urbanization C. Landslide
C. overgrazing D. Accident
D. deforestation
64. Which is NOT a disadvantage of deforesta-
58. The effects of soil erosion. tion?
A. forest harvesting A. loss of wildlife
B. excess sediment B. loss of topsoil
C. overgrazing C. increased flooding
D. all of the above D. maintenance of biodiversity
59. Which of the following would have more 65. Kai found a fossil. Which is most likely the
porosity? type of rock the fossil was found in?
A. sand A. sedimentary
B. gravel B. metamorphic
C. silt C. intrusive
D. dust D. extrusive
60. What are the crops that are harvested in 66. what is soil conservation
3/4 of the U.S. soil? A. falling of trees
A. avocados, mangos and coffee B. soil conservation is the protection of
B. bananas, corn and sorghum soil from erosion
C. sugar, pineapples and coconuts C. same as soil erosion
D. corn, cotton and wheat D. both A and B

67. Which of the following is another name for C. Pedologist

the minerals in soil?
D. Zoologist

A. Rocks
B. Humus 73. Which method of soil conservation adds nu-
trients to the soil?
C. Organic Matter
A. crop rotation
D. Loam
B. contour plowing
68. Soil erosion can be limited by which of the
following? C. strip farming
A. Reducing trees and shrubs that pro- D. wind breaks

vide a habitat for wildlife.
74. the spaces that allow air and water to
B. Increasing the size of the field. move through the soil
C. Allowing water to run freely.
A. soil horizon
D. Covering fields with vegetation.
B. soil porosity
69. A wall or fence of earth or stone built to C. soil permeability
prevent a river flooding an area is known
as D. none of above
A. barrier 75. Soil conservation includes all the following
B. step farming except?
C. Dam A. Deserfication
D. Embankment B. Terracing
70. Which activity can increase soil fertility? C. Contour planting
A. Cutting trees D. Crop rotation
B. Burying trash in the ground
76. making steps on the sides of hills to
C. Plants die and decay help control soil erosion.
D. Taking earthworms out of the soil. A. cover crops
71. Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock B. Erosion
is called
C. Terracing
A. Erosion
D. none of above
B. Deposition
C. Compaction 77. Crop rotation and erosion prevention are
two great example of what?
D. Weathering
A. soil conservation
72. A scientist who studies about soil is called
a B. soil destruction
A. Botonist C. soil sample
B. Archaeologist D. soil to the boil

78. Which anthropogenic erosion is caused by 83. Brandon dug a hole in his backyard. He
cutting down trees and leaving the land- found soil that was smooth when dry,
scape bare? sticky when wet, and has very small
grains. When he poured water into the
A. Deforestation
hole, it took a long time for it to percolate.
B. Overcropping Brandon’s soil probably contained a large
C. Overgrazing amount of
D. Over harvesting A. not enough information to tell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. sand
79. What effect did over plowing and cutting C. humus
down trees in the Great Plains during the
1930’s? D. clay
A. It had little effect 84. when farmers plow across the slope
of hills to prevent soil erosion.
B. It increased soil fertility
A. Contour Plowing
C. It was a primary cause of the Dust
Bowl B. Terracing
C. No-Till Farming
D. Farmers had a great harvest
D. none of above
80. The conservation of soil is important be-
cause 85. What is wind-breaking?
A. Windbreakers are crops grown for the
A. It is impossible to replace soil
protection and enrichment of the soil.
B. Most of the Earth’s land is arable B. Wind breaking is a method of planting
C. It takes a very long time to replace lost and planting and harvesting where stalks
soil and other residue from the previous year
are left on the ground into the next sea-
D. Food cannot be grown anywhere else
son.
81. Which of the following practices within C. Windbreaks are linear planting of
agriculture does NOT contribute to soil trees and shrubs designed to enhance
degradation? crop production, protect people and live-
A. Using irrigation stock, and benefit soil and water conser-
vation.
B. Using tillage
D. Wind breaking is planting rows of
C. Using fertilizers trees at wide spacings with a companion
D. Using pesticides crop grown in the alleyways between the
rows.
82. Planting with the shape of the land to pre-
86. excessive irrigation in drier climates leads
vent erosion is called?
to
A. Cover Crop A. local and regional flash flooding
B. Terraces B. increased water tables
C. No-Till Farming C. increased soil salinization
D. Contour Farming D. increased crop yields

87. Farmers grow crops like grass and creep- B. Clay and Sand
ers after a harvest and before raising the C. Loam
next crop. These are known as

D. none of above
A. healthy crops
B. back-up crops 93. The way a mineral reflects light is its
C. cover crops A. luster
D. Substitute crops B. hardness
C. streak
88. Soil is mostly conserved by
D. fracture
A. afforestation
B. deforestation 94. why is it important to plant trees in soil
conservation
C. making dams
D. overgrazing A. their roots bind the soil
B. their trunks are strong
89. Mr. Daniels observed limestone that had
holes in it like Swiss cheese. What type of C. ALL of the above
weathering most likely occurred? D. NONE of the above
A. chemical weathering 95. Plant roots can cause weathering by
B. cheese weathering
A. making it rain on the rock
C. abrasion
B. Plants keep the rock cool, making it
D. mechanical weathering freeze and thaw
90. What are windbreaks? C. growing under the rock
A. strips of tall plants in between sec- D. growing in the cracks of rocks. This
tions of crops causes the crack to widen and break the
rock into smaller pieces
B. mounts of soil that get blow away be
the wind 96. The Grand Canyon was formed by
C. when the wind stops blowing and the A. water and flowing rivers wearing away
soil does not erode the rock
D. a group of windmills B. wind deposited sand and silt, forming
mountains
91. Substances that fill the spaces between
soil particles are C. rivers carried sand and deposited,
A. water and air over time this formed mountains
B. humus and weathered rock D. Rain fell really hard, forming the
canyon.
C. sand and clay
D. moss and lichens 97. sloped plane that has been cut into a se-
ries of successively receding flat surfaces
92. Which of these types of soil can are often or platforms, which resemble steps, for
used in CONSTRUCTION the purposes of more effective farming
A. Hummus A. terracing

B. planting vegetation B. rock cycle

C. contour farming C. renewable resource
D. strip cropping D. luster
98. when farmers plant different crops in 104. Which is an example of erosion caused by
order to use less nutrients from the soil. human activity?
A. Soil Conservation A. Water erosion
B. WInd erosion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Crop Rotation
C. overgrazing
C. Soil Erosion
D. Ice erosion
D. none of above
105. a way of growing crops without dis-
99. As lava or magma cools, a(n) is turbing the soil through tillage.
formed.
A. No-Till Farming
A. igneous rock
B. Crop Cover
B. metamorphic rock
C. Vegetative Cover
C. sedimentary rock
D. none of above
D. rock cycle
106. What is conservation?
100. River Hwang Ho is also known as A. Using resources only when needed
A. Blessing of China B. Taking care of resources when not us-
B. Sorrow of China ing them.
C. Happiness of China C. Using up resources as much as possi-
ble.
D. Wealth of China
D. Using resources only when needed
101. Which layer of the soil cannot be weath- and taking care of resources when not
ered? needed.
A. R Horizon 107. Name the river that is called as “SOR-
B. A Horizon ROW OF BIHAR”
C. C Horizon A. River Ganga
D. B Horizon B. River Kaveri
C. River Kosi
102. Type of rock and humidity effect
D. River Beas
A. new soil formation
B. climate formation 108. Continuous hills made in a field to stop
water fromrunning off the field and caus-
C. the Dust Bowl ing erosion.
D. bedrock A. Terraces
103. The protection of Natural Resources is B. Contour Farming
called C. No-Till Farming
A. Conservation D. Cover Crop

109. Movement of soil and rocks from one 114. When is “ Earth Day “ Celebrated every
place to another is called? year?

A. Erosion A. 15 july
B. Weathering B. 28 may
C. Humus C. 22 april
D. None of the above D. 10 August
110. What layer of soil will you find topsoil? 115. Which of the following is a disadvantage
A. O Horizon of no-till?
B. A Horizon A. It reduces biodiversity.
C. B Horizon B. It can allow weeds to persist.
D. R Horizon C. It reduces the soil structure.
111. Terrace farming is a method common in D. It is more expensive.

region.
116. What is the difference between contour
A. Forest plowing and conservation plowing
B. Mountain A. Contour plowing saves energy, while
C. Coastal conservation plowing reduces waste
D. Plains B. Contour plowing reduces waste, while

Conservation plowing saves energy.
112. No-till farming is C. There is no difference, they both do
A. not plowing the soil before planting the same thing.
new crops
D. They have different names, therefore
B. plowing the soil 8-12 inches deep to al- they are different
low air and water to penetrate
117. When farmers plow so that the plowing
C. when strips of legumes and strips of
is not straight up and down the hill it will
row crops are planted
slow down erosion. This is called.
D. none of above
A. erosion proof plowing
113. Which of the following statements is not B. contour plowing
true about fertilizers?
C. hill side plowing
A. Both inorganic and organic add N, P,
and K to soil. D. plowing
B. Both types add humus to soil which 118. What is it called when you plow across
adds carbon and structure to soil. the slope of hills?
C. Both inorganic and fertilizer can in- A. crop-rotation
crease crop yields by enriching soil fertil-
B. no-till farming
ity.
C. terracing
D. It is easier for inorganic to leach into
a surface body of water by runoff. D. contour plowing

119. What is arable land? C. erosion

A. land covered in trees D. abrasion
B. land usable for farming 125. covering the soil with bark, wood chips,
C. land that is unusable dry leaves, and other organic material, to
conserve the soil
D. land too steep to build on
A. matting
120. In order for crop rotation to be success, B. mulching
which of the following must be true?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. terracing
A. You must alternate what is planted ev-
ery two years on a plot of land. D. planting vegetation
B. You must alternate fruit, root, and 126. Which of the following can be used as fer-
leafy vegetables every three years. tilizer that increases pH and makes soil nu-
trients more accessible?
C. A soybean, pea, or other legume plant
must be included in the rotation. A. organic material
D. Crop rotation is only done in alley crop- B. water
ping. C. humus
121. In rain forests plants have D. lime
A. Deep roots 127. What conservation method refers to

forming steps in a hill to prevent water
B. Wide roots
erosion?
C. No roots
A. windbreaks
D. none of above
B. contour plowing
122. A solid natural material made from non- C. terrace farming
living substances in the ground is a D. strip cropping
A. mineral
128. Why do contour farming and terracing
B. soil slow erosion?
C. gem A. Their parallel rows slow the velocity of
D. pollution falling water.
B. It provides more space and time for
123. Cutting all the trees and plants can cause
water to percolate instead of running off.
A. decreased carbon dioxide levels C. They designed to prevent or slow wind
B. more homes for wildlife erosion.
C. increased soil erosion D. They are used in arid areas to de-
D. urban sprawl crease salination
129. Decay organic material in soil is called?
124. Roots of a plant growing through a rock
and breaking it into smaller pieces is an A. Litter
example of B. Humus
A. mechanical weathering C. Silt
B. chemical weathering D. Clay

130. How can farmers prevent soil erosion? 136. example of a plant dispersed by wind
A. Cover their crops with a tarp. A. coconut

B. Water the soil everyday in order to B. cotton
weigh it down
C. rose
C. Plant crops to hold the soil in place.
D. none of above
D. Cut down all of the trees and crops.
137. The process by which rock is broken
131. How much time is taken to form 1 cm of down intosmaller pieces.
soil?
A. Erosion
A. 10+ years
B. Weathering
B. 5 years
C. Deposition
C. 100s of year
D. Few months D. none of above
132. What is the indirect source of most of 138. What is a main crop grown in the United
Earth’s energy? States?
A. Solar power A. pasture for cattle
B. Geothermal energy B. pigs
C. Hydroelectricity C. chickens
D. Biomass D. soil
133. Which horizon is bedrock? 139. Most plants cannot grow well in soil with
A. Horizon A too much clay because:
B. Horizon C A. It doesn’t hold enough water.
C. Horizon B B. It holds too much water.
D. Horizon D or R C. It is too sandy.
134. Water seeps down into the crack of a D. It doesn’t have enough nutrients.
rock, freezes, expands, and weathers the 140. Which of the following would NOT be con-
rock. This is an example of sideredorganic mateial in the soil?
A. frost wedging
A. earthworms
B. abrasion
B. minerals
C. wind erosion
C. animal matter
D. deposition
D. dead plant matter
135. The moisture of soil can be retained by
the process of: 141. soil is mostly conserved by-
A. Contour Barriers A. afforestation
B. Mulching B. deforestation
C. Rock Dams C. making dams
D. Planting grass D. overgrazing

142. Cutting down of trees 148. The continuous process in which rocks
A. Afforestation change from one kind into another is called
A. rock cycle
B. forestation
B. sedimentary rock
C. Deforestation
C. metamorphic rock
D. conservation
D. circle of life
143. Plants and trees hold soil together with
149. planting trees or shrubs in rows to pro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the help of their
vide shelter from the wind and to protect
A. Leaves soil from erosion
B. Stem A. mulching
C. Roots B. matting
D. None of the above C. contour farming
D. windbreaker
144. What has the smallest particles in soil?
150. The process of water or wind carrying
A. sand
away top loose soil is called
B. clay
A. Flowing away
C. silt B. Blowing away
D. loam C. erosion
145. What term describes the management of D. conservation
soil to prevent its destruction? 151. The protection of soil against erosion is
A. soil exhaustion called
B. soil decomposition A. Soil pollution
C. soil conservation B. Soil conservation
D. soil fertility C. Weathering
D. Soil ploughing
146. Which of the following describes the size
and proportions of particles in soil? 152. This prevents soil erosion and suppresses
weeds.
A. soil texture
A. Plant cover
B. soil fertility
B. crop rotation
C. soil structure
C. monoculture
D. soil arrangement
D. tillage
147. Which of the following is NOT an ingredi- 153. What is the decline in the soil health sta-
ent of loam tus?
A. clay A. soil degradation
B. sand B. soil erosion
C. shale C. deforestation
D. silt D. Overgrazing

154. is a material that is found in nature 160. How can farmers prevent/slow down
and that is used by living things. soil erosion?

A. nonrenewable resource A. Cover their crops with a tarp
B. natural resource B. Water the soil everyday in order to
C. renewable resource weigh it down
D. none of above C. Plant crops, plants, etc. to hold the soil

in place
155. what is soil erosion D. Cut down all of the trees and crops.
A. making of soil
161. Salination of soil involves all of the fol-
B. breaking of soil lowing except
C. removal of the top most layer of soil A. Overirrigation of soil in arid areas,
D. none of the above leaving salts forming on top the soil.
B. dehydrating soil even more, which in-
156. The properties of soil
creasing its erosion
A. are similar in all layers.
C. adding compost to the soil
B. are different from place to place.
D. the accumulation of salts disrupting
C. are the same in all environments. root growth
D. can only be observed with scientific
equipment. 162. why is it important to have soil conser-
vation
157. Which process wears rock down and A. save the soil
breaks it into smaller pieces?
B. prevent erosion
A. infiltration
C. prevent another dust bowl
B. weathering
D. all of the above
C. erosion
D. deposition 163. What makes up a soil profile?
A. the percentages of air, water, miner-
158. The region where a plant or animal lives als, and humus
A. soil conservation B. the type of minerals in the soil
B. habitat C. the horizons in soil
C. terracing D. the type of organic matter in the soil
D. erosion
164. Which of the following farming tech-
159. A rock created by heat and pressure is niques do not involve the use of cover
called a crops?
A. metamorphic rock A. no-till/conservational tillage
B. igneous rock B. conventional tillage
C. mineral C. alley cropping
D. sedimentary D. none of above

165. The process of piling up rocks to prevent 171. What is a factor that leads to soil degra-
water flow is called: dation?
A. Rock Dam A. Deforestation
B. Erosion B. Overgrazing
C. Mulching C. Excessive use of pesticides
D. Landslide D. All of the above
172. The Hwang Ho river which changes its
NARAYAN CHANGDER
166. What 2 things make up soil?
A. rocks and minerals course every year is in
B. organic matter A. Holland

B. China
C. earthworms
C. India
D. weathered rocks and decayed organic
matter D. Sri Lanka
167. The removal and transpotation of weath- 173. Most of Earth’s freshwater is found in
eredmaterial which of the following?
A. Erosion and deposition A. ice near the poles
B. Physical Weathering B. lakes and ponds
C. Chemical Weathering C. lava
D. none of above D. air
168. which of the following is a soil conserva- 174. A soil conservation method
tion method A. shelter belt
A. Deworming B. deforestation
B. Deforestation C. overgrazing
C. green manuring D. none of above
D. bush burning
175. Farmers that produce food that they need
169. Most plant roots grow in to survive on a daily basis are called
A. topsoil A. Commercial agriculture
B. subsoil B. Industrial agriculture
C. bedrock C. Slash-and-burn agriculture
D. smog D. subsistence agriculture
170. How does soil help plants? 176. How can rock type within the parent rock
affect the type of vegetation that grows
A. It contains organic material and nutri- there?
ents
A. Different rocks provide different root
B. it provides plants sunlight stability for plant growth.
C. it contains fruits and vegetables B. Different rocks create different depths
D. none of above of parent rock that affect plant growth

C. Different rocks make water absorp- 182. What is the correct order of soil layers,
tion more difficult. from top to bottom?

D. Different rocks provide different nutri- A. organic material, top soil, subsoil, par-
ents for plant growth. ent material, bedrock
B. bedrock, sub soil, top soil, parent ma-
177. What type of soil is best for gardening?
terial, organic material
A. Sandy soil C. top soil, bedrock, parent material, or-
B. Silt soil ganic material, sub soil
C. Clay soil D. top soil, organic material, parent ma-
terial, bedrock, sub soil
D. Loam soil
183. Which is NOT one of the three layers of
178. refers to covering soil with plants to soil
prevent soil erosion from wind and rain.
A. Bedrock
A. Vegetative Cover
B. Subsoil
B. Cover Crops
C. Topsoil
C. Soil Erosion
D. Undersoil
D. none of above
184. When fossil fuels are burned, the result-
179. Meaning of soil erosion ing particles can cause
A. vanishing of soil A. smog
B. the process of wearing away of soil B. smoke
over a period of time C. fog
C. none of the above D. rainbows
D. none of above
185. What process forms soil over time?
180. Topsoil is darker than other layers of soil A. weathering
because it has more B. erosion
A. rocks C. deposition
B. organic material D. none of above
C. oreos
186. How does erosion compare to weather-
D. sand ing
181. Sand dune is a major feature of ero- A. Weathering breaks down rock and ero-
sion. sion carries the sediment away
B. Both move sediment from place to
A. water
place
B. gully
C. Erosion breaks down rock and weath-
C. coastal ering carries sediment away
D. wind D. Both form mountains

187. is one of the ways to prevent soil C. erosion

erosion. D. sedimentation
A. Trees cutting
193. The rate at which water and air move
B. Clearing of forest for agriculture
through the soil
C. Contour ploughing
A. soil horizon
D. Building dams
B. soil porosity
188. You notice leaf fungal rust and smut
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. soil permeability
growing on a corn plant. After chemically
testing the soil, you find the soil low in D. none of above
A. nitrogen 194. Which of the following is not a type of
B. phosphorus organic fertilizer?
C. potassium A. crop residue from a previous harvest
D. none of above or other green manure
B. animal manure
189. The Hwang Ho river changes its course
every year is in C. a bag of 10-20-10 NPK fertilizer from
Lowe’s
A. Holland
B. China D. bone meal
C. INDIA 195. What is it called when a farmer plants dif-

D. Sri LANKA ferent crops in order to use less nutrients
or different nutrients from the soil?
190. planting of trees and grass to cover and
A. terracing
bind the soil with their roots to prevent
erosion B. cover crops
A. terracing C. crop-rotation
B. contour farming D. contour plowing
C. tree planting
196. This soil conservation measure is prac-
D. planting vegetation ticed in coastal and dry regions:
191. A fast growing crop planted to protect A. Shelter belts
the soil fromerosion is called? B. Terrace Farming
A. Wind break
C. Mulching
B. Cover Crop
D. Rock Dam
C. Contour Farming
D. No-Till Farming 197. Desert plants have
A. No roots
192. Mrs. Davis dissolves a rock in a beaker
of acid. This is an example of B. Wide roots
A. chemical weathering C. Deep roots
B. physical weathering D. none of above

198. Which of the following is NOT be found 204. AFFORESTATION is a them which means
in topsoil? A. felling of trees

A. humus
B. overgrazing
B. minerals
C. growing trees
C. sediment
D. making dams
D. bedrock
205. What are the natural forces that cause
199. One or more rows of trees or shrubs soil erosion
planted on farmland.
A. wind
A. strip mining
B. rain
B. exposed soil
C. running water
C. shelterbelts
D. nutrients D. all of the above
200. Limiting herd sizes, rotating herds, and 206. New objects are made from old objects
multiple watering holes are all solutions when you
to what? A. recycle
A. overfarming B. reduce
B. overgrazing C. reuse
C. deforestation D. conserve
D. global warming
207. Which soil has the greatest capacity to
201. The wearing off or carrying away of soil retain water?
by the action of wind or water is called
A. silt
A. storm
B. sand
B. flood
C. clay
C. soil erosion
D. loam
D. deforestation
208. What 3 kinds of mineral material are
202. What layer of soil will you find clay form- found in soil?
ing?
A. dirt, rock, mud
A. B Horizon
B. peat, wood, worms
B. C Horizon
C. A Horizon C. sand, silt, clay
D. none of above D. glass, brick, loam
203. What is the uppermost layer of the soil? 209. Another name for organic material is
A. Solid rock A. Topsoil
B. Top soil B. humus
C. Rocks C. deposition
D. Sub soil D. rocks

7.4 Farm Machinery and Power 1086
210. Sand is the largest type of sediment, B. sand

while is the smallest type of sediment. C. clay
A. loan D. loam
B. clay
213. The process of land becoming a desert be-
C. humus cause there are no plants to help hold and
D. none of above cycle water
A. soil conservation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
211. What is the term for the technology in
which genetic material in a living cell is B. desertification
modified for medical an industrial use? C. cover crops
A. biological pest control D. habitat
B. organic farming
214. How can we protect soil?
A. Afforestation
D. selective breeding
B. Crop rotation
212. What has the largest particles in soil? C. Terrace Farming
A. silt D. All of these
7.4 Farm Machinery and Power

1. Pliers used by linemen, electrical contrac- A. To increase the free enterprise econ-
tors and other tradesmen primarily for omy
gripping, twisting, bending and cutting B. To send tourists to see the Wild West
wire, cable and small metalwork compo-
nents. C. To increase the command economy
A. Needle-Nose Pliers D. So loved ones in the west could their

family in the north
B. Lineman’s Pliers
C. Kleins 4. In the late 1800s, which factor directly
contributed to the growth of heavy indus-
D. Power Gripper try in the United States?
2. In the second half of the 19th C, which de- A. increased government regulation of in-
velopment led to the other three? dustries
A. use of mass production B. employee ownership of heavy indus-

tries
B. the formation of corporations
C. new production techniques that in-
C. growth of industrializatoin creased efficiency
D. increase in factory workers D. court decisions that allowed unions in
heavy industries
3. After 1812, why was there such a focus
on building transportation systems in the 5. Equipment used to spread materials in agri-
United States? cultural area.

A. Plow 10. Drill that utilizes electricity as a power

source to provide greater force than a per-
B. Tractor
son could provide.

C. Cultivator
A. Lineman’s Pliers
D. Spreader B. Needle Nose Pliers
6. how many square feet is and acre? C. Power Sander
A. 43, 560 feet D. Power Drill
B. 4, 000 feet 11. a large farming implement with one or

more blades fixed in a frame, drawn by
C. 20, 000 feet a tractor or by animals and used for cut-
D. 12, 345 feet ting furrows in the soil and turning it over,
especially to prepare for the planting of
7. What major population trend occurred in seeds.
the U.S. during the industrial expansion of A. Tractor
the late 19th C?
B. Plow
A. The number of people living on farms
increased. C. Rake
D. Cultivator
B. The migration from cities to rural ar-
eas grew. 12. A power saw with a rapidly rotating
C. The flow of immigration to the U.S. de- toothed disk.
creased. A. Power Drill
D. The size and number of cities in- B. Safety Glasses
creased dramatically. C. Circular Saw
8. What caused the manufacturing of goods D. Power Saw

to change from homes to factories? 13. a mechanical implement for breaking up
A. Industrialization the soil and uprooting weeds.
B. Bessemer Process A. Plow
B. Spreader
C. Cotton Gin
C. Cultivator
D. Plantation development
D. Planter
9. What was a major effect of mechaniza-
14. It is a knife-like instrument used mostly
tionof farming in the United States in the
as a chopping tool. It is commonly used
late 1800s?
for the cutting of trees, the cutting of tall
A. The size of farms decreased weeds and grasses, and the chopping of
B. U.S. farm exports decreased tree branches.
A. Bolo
C. food supplies increased to feed urban
dwellers B. Crowbar
D. unemployed factory workers could find C. Shovel
jobs in agriculture D. Rake

15. a vehicle specifically designed to deliver a 20. A unit of powered machinery that uses a
high tractive effort at slow speeds, for the rotating blade or blades to cut vegetation.
purposes of hauling a trailer or machinery
A. Reel Mower
used in agriculture or construction.
B. Rotary Mower
A. Tractor
C. Planter
B. Cultivator
C. Plow D. Cultivator
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Planter 21. What was the principle reason for the
rapid economic growth in the United Staes
16. A screwdriver having a cross-shaped tip
during the late 1800s?
rather than the rectangular tip of a stan-
dard (flat-blade) screwdriver. A. decline in U.S. agriculture
A. Standard Screwdriver B. development of cheap sources of en-
ergy
B. Phillips Screwdriver
C. Measuring Tape C. increases of American imports
D. Power Drill D. greater spending on defense
17. A tool utilized for measuring. Commonly 22. Machine used for planting precisely and ac-
used for carpentry. curately.
A. Standard Screwdriver A. Cultivator
B. Wire Strippers B. Plow
C. Measuring Tape C. Planter
D. Curved Claw Hammer D. Rake
18. The change brought about by mechaniza- 23. A type of machine-powered saw in which
tion in American agriculture in the late the cutting action is achieved through a
1800s led farmers to push-and-pull motion of the blade.
A. grow more crops at a reduced cost to A. Reciprocating Saw
consumers
B. Power Saw
B. request and end to agricultural tariffs
C. Circular Saw
C. demand a greater role for government
in agriculture D. Power Drill
D. become more dependent on animal 24. What does “laissez-faire” mean?
power in planting seeds
A. The government leaves businesses
19. Glasses utilized to protect the eyes of alone and does not make lots of rules.
wearers.
B. The government makes lots of rules
A. Costas for businesses to follow.
B. Safety Glasses C. An economy which is planned by gov-
C. Ray Bans ernment officials
D. Shades D. A fair system of redistribution

25. New inventions such as the steel plow and 30. Machine used to diffuse chemicals into
the stem engine brought America smaller airborne particles to be spread in
a desired area.

A. goods produced more efficiently
B. gigher cost of goods A. Rotary Mower
C. new competition between rival makers B. Baler
D. items too expensive to purchase C. Rake
26. What are the 4 most essential pieces of D. Sprayers

farm equipment?
31. Pliers with long slender jaws used for
A. Tractor, Cultivator, Planter, and har- grasping small or thin objects.
vester
A. Wire Strippers
B. Gator, tractor, disc harrow, and Build-
ings B. Lineman’s Pliers
C. Muscles, tractor, gator, and har- C. Needle-Nose Pliers
vesters
D. Power Drill
D. none of above
32. Also called rear actor or back actor - is a
27. Machine used to gather dried hay for bal- type of excavating equipment, or digger.
ing.
A. Front-End Loader
A. Baler
B. Backhoe
B. Rake
C. Fluffer C. Conductor
D. Tedder D. Baler
28. In the second half of the 19th C, agricul- 33. During the late 1800s, industrialization in
ture in the United states was transformed the U.S. led to
most ty the A. greater numbers of people living on
A. increase in prices paid for farm prod- farms
ucts
B. an overal decline in factory workers
B. decline in the population growth rate
of the U.S. C. the creation of new inventions and in-
novations.
C. decline in the demand for agricultural
products D. a decrease in the use of natural re-
sources.
D. increase in the use of farm machinery
34. Screwdriver with flat tip. Commonly re-
29. What raised the demand for slaves in the
ferred to as flat head screwdriver.
southern United States?
A. The cotton gin A. Measuring Tape
B. The Bessemer Process B. Standard Screwdriver

C. Interchangeable Parts C. Flathead Screwdriver
D. The War of 1812 D. Phillips Head Screwdriver

7.5 Greenhouse 1090
35. A piece of farm machinery used to com- A. Combine

press a cut and raked crop into compact B. Picker
bales that are easy to handle, transport,
and store. C. Backhoe
A. Rake D. Cultivator
B. Baler 40. An agricultural machine that cuts, threshes,
C. Dryer and cleans a grain crop in one operation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Hay Spinner A. Baler
36. The moving from rural areas to big cities B. Rake

is known as: C. Combine
A. urbanization D. Cultivator
B. industrialization
41. The development of mass production is di-
C. Americanization rectly related to -
D. zationzation A. the creation of interchangeable parts
37. A type of hammer used mainly for pound- B. Bessemer Process
ing nails into, or extracting nails from C. Women’s Suffrage
wood.
D. new safety regulations
A. Curved Claw Hammer
B. Measuring Tape 42. What is used to harvest grain?
C. Standard Screwdriver A. Chopper/ forage harvester
D. Power Drill B. combine

C. tractor
38. Railroads became stronger and able to
carry more people and goods due to - D. hands
A. The Bessemer Steel Process 43. heavy equipment machine used in construc-
B. interchangeable parts tion to move aside or load materials.
C. cotton gin A. Front-End Loader
D. the production of canals B. Baler
39. A machine used to assist with the harvest- C. Rake

ing of crops. D. Backhoe
7.5 Greenhouse
1. What action is Marie performing when she B. Deadheading
removes the spent or dead flower from her C. Transplanting
zinnia?
D. Planting
A. Sowing 2. A greenhouse gas is

7.5 Greenhouse 1091
A. a gas in the atmosphere that absorbs 8. What do humans do that releases green-
infrared radiation and emits it back to house gases into the atmosphere?
Earth.

A. Burn fossil fuels (like gas and coal)
B. oxygen B. Build cement buildings
C. nitrogen C. Ride bikes and use solar energy
D. a gas that is poisonous to us
D. Compete in the Olympics
3. Which layer in the atmosphere is responsi-
9. Which list shows all the things plants
ble for the weather?
MUST HAVE to survive?
A. stratosphere
A. water, sunlight, soil
B. ionosphere
B. air, water, soil
C. troposphere
C. air, water, sunlight
D. exosphere
D. sunlight, soil, water
4. The main human activity that releases
10. Which of the following is a TRUE state-
greenhouse gases is
ment about plant growth?
A. using bottled water
A. Plants can grow without soil.
B. burning fossil fuels
B. Plants can grow without Sun’s energy.
C. texting on cellphones
C. Plants can grow without water.
D. eating meat
D. Plants can grow without air.
5. Solar energy is best absorbed by what ma-
terial? 11. What are the two main gases that make
up the atmosphere.
A. dirt
A. nitrogen and oxygen
B. sand
B. oxygen and methane
C. snow
C. carbon dioxide and helium
D. water
D. methane and water vapor
6. Fossil fuels were formed from
12. The solid form of fossil fuels is
A. the remains of once living organisms.
A. petroleum
B. the earth.
B. crude oil
C. solids, liquids, and gases, made mil-
lions of years ago. C. natural gas
D. sun and water. D. coal
7. Global climate change is responsible for: 13. Which gases are greenhouse gases?
A. sunny days A. Carbon dioxide
B. colder weather on Earth B. Methane
C. warmer temperatures on Earth C. Nitrous oxide
D. more drinking water D. All of the above

7.5 Greenhouse 1092
14. Greenhouse gases keep the Earth warm by D. Land and water heat up and cool down
at the same rate.
A. Reflecting the heat from the sun
19. Which is the atmospheric layer that most
B. Trapping the heat reflected by the people spend their entire lives in?
Earth
A. Troposphere
C. Blocking the heat from the sun
B. Mesosphere
D. Making more heat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Stratosphere
15. Which of the following natural events is
NOT a source of carbon dioxide? D. Thermosphere
A. Wildfire 20. How has the percentage of carbon dioxide

B. Decomposing plants and animals in the atmosphere changed over time?
C. Volcanic eruption A. Increased
D. Earthquake B. Decreased
16. If humans didn’t exist, would there still be C. Stayed the same
a Greenhouse Effect? Why? D. Does not exist
A. No, the greenhouse effect is not natu-
ral 21. The majority of Earth’s energy comes from
B. Yes, the greenhouse effect is natural
and keeps Earth warm enough to live on A. the Earth’s core
C. No, humans created the Greenhouse B. the Sun
Effect C. hydroelectric power
D. Yes, the greenhouse effect is natural
D. burning fossil fuels
and keeps Earth cool enough to live on
17. What is the meaning of “to take in or soak 22. Why is the greenhouse effect a good
up”. thing?
A. Radiation A. It supplies CO2 to plants
B. System B. It cools the earth enough for life to ex-
ist
C. Absorb
D. Reflect C. It keeps earth warm enough for life
D. It is not a good thing
18. Which statement accurately compares the
heating and cooling rates for water and 23. Electromagnetic waves from the sun are
land? small waves that pass through our atmo-
A. Water heats up and cools down at a sphere on their way to Earth’s surface
faster rate than land. A. True
B. Land heats up and cools down at a
B. False
slower rate than water.
C. It depends on the time of day
C. Water heats up and cools down at a
slower rate than land. D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1093
24. what greenhouse gas acts like the glass in 29. Compared to the variations over the last
an actual greenhouse? 400, 000 years, which has increased most
dramatically in the past 100 years?

A. carbon dioxide
B. methane A. Atmospheric CO2 concentration
C. water vapor B. Global Temperatures
D. none of above C. Sea level
25. what is the greenhouse effect D. none of above
A. the process where specific gases reg- 30. Increased carbon dioxide may cause global
ulate our climate by absorbing heat from warming by trapping more in the atmo-
the sun and preventing it from leaving sphere.
B. The process in which humans burn fos-
A. water
sil fuels and they’re released into the air
creating pollution. B. gases
C. The process where so much Carbon C. heat
dioxide is created and causes heat to es- D. water vapor
cape the atmosphere.
D. The problem that we are having where 31. Which of the following natural events
one by one houses are turning green. would be most likely to contribute to the
rise in greenhouse gases in Earth’s atmo-
26. What type of waves get trapped inside the sphere?
greenhouse?
A. Earthquake
A. Sunlight
B. Hurricane
B. Ultraviolet
C. Microwaves C. Volcano erupting
D. Infrared D. Monsoon
27. Which of the following is the best descrip- 32. A major source of methane production is
tion of what the Greenhouse Effect is?
A. When sea levels rise. A. driving cars
B. When certain gases cause the sun’s B. burning coal
radiation to stay trapped in Earth’s atmo-
C. agriculture
sphere.
C. When the Earth’s average tempera- D. volcanoes
ture increases.
33. How does heat always move?
D. When Ice melts
A. from hotter locations to cooler loca-
28. The most abundant greenhouse gas is tions
A. carbon dioxide B. from cooler locations to hotter loca-
B. water vapour tions
C. methane C. anyway it wants
D. nitrous oxide D. always up and down

7.5 Greenhouse 1094
34. In which Layer of Our Atmosphere Does 40. Which of the following is a direct obser-
the Ozone Reside In? vation scientists can make about climate
A. Exosphere change
B. Photosphere A. tree ring analysis
C. Mesosphere B. sediment analysis
D. Stratosphere C. ice core samples
D. this year’s hurricanes
35. How does carbon dioxide get into the at-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosphere? 41. What is Albedo?
A. By burning fossil fuels A. How much solar radiation a surface re-
B. From the respiration of plants and ani- flects
mals B. How much solar radiation a surface
C. From organisms that break down dead traps
plants and animals (organic material) C. How much solar radiation a surface ab-
D. All of the above sorbs
36. It’s extremely cold. D. none of the above

A. polar 42. Over an extended period of time, the
B. temperate United States has been responsible for the
majority of global CO2 emissions, at 25%
C. tropical
of the total for all countries. In 2008, the
D. none of above largest emitter was
37. Which type of greenhouse is curved, but A. United States
comes to a point at the top? B. Japan
A. Quonset C. China
B. A-Frame D. Russia
C. Evenspan
43. What is the main reason people want
D. Gothic rolling benches in their greenhouse?
38. What kind of energy is infrared? A. They are fun to move
A. heat energy B. Have the ability to gain additional pro-
B. electrical energy duction space
C. nuclear energy C. Give you less space
D. sound energy D. none of above
39. What is the Primary Source of Carbon 44. What role does the ocean play in the car-
Dioxide (CO2) bon cycle?
A. Respiration (Breathing) A. It releases CO2 into the air
B. Volcanic Eruptions B. It absorbs CO2 from the air
C. Burning Fossil Fuels C. Neither A or B
D. Bactria in the Soil D. Both A and B

7.5 Greenhouse 1095
45. International limits on CFC production to 50. What is one reason that carbon dioxide is
protect the ozone layer increasing in the atmosphere today?

A. Montreal Protocol A. There are more volcanoes than there
were in the past.
B. New York Protocol
B. People are riding bicycles instead of
C. Paris Protocol
driving cars
D. Tokyo Protocol
C. There are more people doing things
46. Why does cutting down trees increase that use combustion
global warming? D. People are using solar power.
A. trees soak up carbon dioxide
51. Which is a true statement?
B. trees provide shade which counteracts
A. Humans depend on oxygen, plants de-
global warming
pend on carbon dioxide
C. trees absorbs the sun’s energy with-
B. Plants produce carbon dioxide
out radiating back into the atmosphere
C. Humans depend on carbon dioxide,
D. trees drain greenhouse gases like
plants depend on oxygen
methane from soil
D. Humans don’t depend on plants for the
47. A decrease in forest land results in a net air they need
of CO2 in the atmosphere.
52. Where we live.
A. decrease
A. stratosphere
B. increase
B. thermosphere
C. no change
C. troposphere
D. fluctuation
D. mesosphere
48. Which type of greenhouse covering is ex-
pensive to install, but is long-lasting and 53. Which of the following does NOT offset
has great light transmission? carbon emissions?
A. Acrylic A. ocean intake of CO2
B. Plastic B. planting trees
C. Glass C. turning off lights when not in use
D. Fiberglass D. burning forests to make room for cat-
tle
49. The increase in Earth’s average tempera-
tures as a result of increased greenhouse 54. have no natural source/do not come
gases in the atmosphere is called: from nature.
A. The greenhouse effect A. CFC’s
B. Climate change B. water vapor
C. Global Warming C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Fantasy D. methane

7.5 Greenhouse 1096
55. In which plant part does water enter? 61. A super powerful greenhouse gas that
A. stomata traps up to 4 times more heat in Earth’s
atmosphere is:
B. xylem
A. oxygen
C. flower
B. methane
D. roots
C. water vapor
56. which chemical is responsible for breaking D. gasoline
NARAYAN CHANGDER
up the ozone?
62. The main function of a greenhouse is to:
A. carbon dioxide
A. beautify where it is located.
B. Nitrogen
B. produce corn, soybeans, and wheat.
C. Chloroflorocarbons
C. provide a protective environment to
D. the greenhouse effect grow plants.
57. Climate change brings more harm than D. supply carbon dioxide and nitrogen for
good. plant growth.
A. Not sure. 63. “My feet crackling splinters of glass and
B. True. dried putty” is a good example of
C. False. A. rhyme
D. none of above B. personification.
C. imagery.
58. Contains all living things on Earth.
D. metaphor.
A. Biosphere
64. What causes there to be longer number of
B. Geosphere
hours of light during the summer
C. Atmosphere
A. Earth tilt’s away from the sun in sum-
D. Hydrosphere mer
59. What are all of the climate zones that re- B. Earth’s revolves slower in summer
sult from the unequal heating of Earth? C. Earth tilts toward the sun in summer
A. tropical and polar D. Earth is closer to the sun
B. temperate and polar 65. Which gas is not a greenhouse gas?
C. temperate and tropical A. Oxygen
D. tropical, temperate, and polar B. Carbon Dioxide
60. What activity is increasing green house C. methane
gases? D. water vapour
A. Ocean and air currents
66. What absorbs ultraviolet rays in the atmo-
B. Volcanic activity sphere?
C. Plants activity A. troposphere
D. Human activity B. stratosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1097
C. ozone layer D. Livestock have high body tempera-

D. greenhouse gases tures and emit infrared radiation, adding
to global warming

67. Which of the following is an example of a
fossil fuel? 72. Why does the Greenhouse Effect cause
A. Firewood global warming?
B. Dead leaves A. Heat is trapped in the atmosphere

C. Seashells B. Holes are in the crust
D. Gasoline C. The gases are very hot
68. What is the emission of particles or waves D. none of above
of energy, as by radioactive material or by
electrical circuits or devices. 73. In “Child on Top of a Greenhouse, “ the line
“elms plunging and tossing like horses” is
A. Greenhouse Effect
a
B. Radiation
A. simile
C. Greenhouse Gas
B. metaphor
D. Climate Change
C. personification
69. destroy good ozone in the strato-
sphere. D. hyperbole
A. methane 74. Which one of these does not add CO2 to

B. carbon dioxide the atmosphere?
C. CFC’s A. cooking with gas
D. water vapor B. planting trees
70. Which nation did not sign the Kyoto Proto- C. burning wood
col, a treaty that aims to reduce CO2 lev-
D. riding in a bus
els?
A. China 75. what is the major impact of the green-
B. India house effect>
C. Russia A. global cooling
D. United States of America B. global warming
71. What effect do cows and livestock have on C. nothing

global warming? D. something else
A. They eat trees and grass, which adds
to global warming 76. Nearly all life on Earth is in the
B. Their digestive systems produce A. stratosphere
methane, a powerful greenhouse gas B. troposphere
C. Humans use lots of fossil fuels to cook
C. thermosphere
the meat they produce, adding to global
warming D. mesosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1098
77. Climate change can lead to C. chickens

A. sea level rise and floods in coastal ar- D. none of above
eas
83. Which of the following are greenhouse
B. droughts gases?
C. spread of dengue fever and malaria A. Carbon dioxide
D. all of the above B. Methane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
78. What wavelength enters the atmosphere? C. Water vapor
A. short wave D. All answers are correct
B. long wave 84. the vertical distance of an object above sea
C. no wave level
D. none of above A. altitude
B. height
79. Too many greenhouse gases in the atmo-
sphere may block heat from escaping into C. atmosphere
space and trap too much heat next to the D. exosphere
Earth’s surface causing
85. All of the following are natural sources
A. another ice age
that can change the climate except
B. global warming A. Volcanoes:They release sulfur dioxide
C. earthquakes and dust particles that can reflect light.
D. volcanic eruptions B. Changes in Solar Radiation from the
Sun.
80. The warming of the atmosphere by the
trapping of heat being radiated to space C. The burning of coal and other fossil fu-
is called els by humans.
A. evaporation D. Clouds:They reflect light back into

space before it reaches the surface.
B. condensation
86. Gasoline, diesel, natural gas, and coal are
C. the greenhouse effect
all Burning them releases CO2 into the
D. radiation atmosphere.
81. What is the PH Scale used for? A. fossil fuels
A. To measure something as an acid or B. renewable resources
base. C. clean fuels
B. To measure acids only. D. liquid dinosaurs
C. To measure bases only.
87. All of Earth’s water.
D. none of above
A. Cryosphere
82. what animal releases the most Methane? B. Geosphere
A. sheep C. Hydrosphere
B. Cows D. Biosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1099
88. Which of the following is the most trou- 93. Without the “greenhouse effect”
bling greenhouse gas being produced by A. Overnight temperatures would plunge
humans?

downward
A. Water Vapor B. the earth would catch on fire
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. the earthe would heat up drastically
C. Methane
D. the atmosphere would leave
D. Nitrous Oxide
94. How are greenhouse gasses harming our
89. Which of the following is not true about an environment?
increasing greenhouse effect?
A. They aren’t
A. the consensus of scientists is that the
B. Less heat is able to escape causing the
problem warrants drastic action
Earth to cool down
B. nighttime temperatures may increase,
C. Less heat is able to escape causing the
but daytime temperatures will not
Earth to warm up
C. the coldest, driest regions of the
planet will warm first D. More heat is able to escape
D. none of above 95. For what kinds of crops might a manager

choose to use carbon dioxide supplementa-
90. Which of the following represents ozone tion?
A. O1 A. Low value crops
B. O2 B. High value crops
C. O3 C. All crops
D. O4
91. In “I Stepped from Plank to Plank” the
96. Certain gases in the atmosphere - water
phrase “my final inch” and the words
vapor, carbon dioxide, methane and ni-
“cautiously” and “precarious” conveys a
trous oxide - help maintain the Earth’s
sense of
temperatures and climate. These are
A. determination. called: .
B. safety. A. ozone gases
C. certainty. B. solar gases
D. danger. C. greenhouse gases
92. What happens to most solar radiation D. stomach gases
when it reaches the surfaces of the earth?
97. What is the warming trend on the surface
A. It reflects right back into space and in the lower atmosphere of a planet,
B. It’s collected in solar panels held by scientists to occur when solar radi-
C. It’s soaked up by land, water, and ation is trapped, as by emissions from the
plants planet.
D. It disperses throughout the earth’s at- A. Climate Change

mosphere B. Atmosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1100
C. Global Warming C. need help to get down.

D. Greenhouse Effect D. dislike what he has done.
98. What gas from the list below is a cause 103. excess carbon in the atmosphere results
for global warming? in
A. Urethane A. ozone depletion
B. Oxygen B. Greenhouse effect
C. CFC release
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Carbon Dioxide
104. ventilation allows warm air to escape
99. Temperature changes according to the sea-
while drawing in fresh, cooler air.
sons.
A. Active
A. polar
B. Passive
B. temperate
C. Natural
C. tropical
D. Automatic
D. none of above
105. You are considering making an energy
100. Which process accurately describes the saving change to your house. Which of
formation of the greenhouse effect? these would save energy?
A. The Sun’s rays are reflected from the A. Updating your appliances to “Energy
land back into the atmosphere. Saver” appliances
B. Increased solar energy is entering B. Using less insulation in your walls and
through the hole in the ozone layer. attic
C. Aerosol gases become trapped and C. Plant fewer trees around your home
build up in the atmosphere. D. Use dark colored materials on your
D. Heat radiating from the land and roof
oceans is trapped in the troposphere.
106. In lakes that are exposed to acid rain,
101. How have humans contributed to green- fish populations are declining. This is pri-
house gas emissions? marily due to changes in which lake condi-
tion?
A. Increased emissions through burning
fossil fuels A. size
B. Increased emissions through produc- B. pH
ing methane in landfill C. temperature
C. Increased emissions through defor- D. location
estation
107. The primary anthropogenic activity that
D. All of the above releases greenhouse gases is
102. In “Child on Top of the Greenhouse, “ the A. using bottled water
boy seems to B. burning fossil fuels
A. be frightened. C. texting on cellphones
B. love the danger. D. refrigerating meat

7.5 Greenhouse 1101
108. The Greenhouse Gases are like what B. Carbon Dioxide

around our earth? C. Methane

A. A Cushion D. Water Vapour
B. A Pillow
114. What is the definition of “Greenhouse Ef-
C. A Blanket fect?”
D. A Cover A. Gases that increase Earth’s tempera-
109. What is the main purpose of a green- ture
house? B. when the gases in Earth’s atmosphere
A. Grow plants in a controlled environ- trap heat from the Sun and keep the
ment planet warm
B. To look pretty C. the pattern of weather that occurs
over time
C. protect you from the sun
D. When our climate changes
D. none of above
115. How much Carbon dioxide (CO2) is in
110. The percentage of global warming caused
Earth’s atmosphere today?
by CO2, Methane, Nitrous Oxide is
A. 10% or greater
A. 72%, 18%, 5% B. 2% to 10%
B. 18%, 5 %, 72% C. less than 1/10th of 1%
C. 5%, 72%, 18 % D. none of above
D. 72%, 5%, 18% 116. Which sets of three items produce CFCs
111. All of the following are Greenhouse A. cars, factories, cardboard
gasses except B. spray cans, refrigerant, deoderant
A. Nitrogen C. factories, oxygen, bug spray
B. Nitrous oxide D. refrigerant, Chlorine, aerosol sprays
C. Carbon dioxide
117. If more energy is released by the Earth
D. Water vapour than absorbed, what will happen to global
temperatures?
112. This greenhouse gas is a byproduct of hu-
man activities like industrialization A. they will stay the same
A. Nitrous Oxide B. they will flutate
B. Chloroflurocarbons C. they will increase
C. Carbon Monoxide D. they will decrease
D. Methane 118. What is the best way to determine of the
113. Use of fertilizers and pesticides raises young plants in your 6-paks need water?
the level of this gas resulting depletion of A. check the top of the soil for moisture
surface ozone B. check near the roots of the plant for
A. nitrous oxide moisture

7.5 Greenhouse 1102
C. add water everyday 124. is infrared visible to the human eye?

D. keep the plants soaked with water A. obviously
throughout the day B. no
119. What is a group of related things or parts C. yes
that function together as a whole. D. i don’t really care
A. Reflect 125. Several greenhouse gases occur in the at-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Asbsorb mosphere. Carbon dioxide is one of them,
but so are methane and oxides of nitro-
C. System
gen. Why are oxides of nitrogen classed
D. Atmosphere as greenhouse gases?
A. they trap some of the long wave radia-
120. The heat trapped by greenhouse gases is
tion emitted by Earth’s surface
released via
B. they prevent short wave radiation
A. ultraviolet radiation from reaching Earth’s surface
B. infrared emissions C. they dissolve rainwater to produce
C. radiowaves acid rain
D. soundwaves D. they are only produced by human activ-
ity whereas carbon dioxide and methane
121. What type of covering do we have on our are produced naturally
greenhouses? (over the top, not on the
126. Without the Greenhouse Effect the Earth
ends
would be
A. polycarbonate
A. warm
B. polyethylene B. cold
C. glass C. dead
122. What is the most critical environmental 127. what is a natural source of Carbon diox-
factor of greenhouse plant production? ide?
A. Temperature A. the moon
B. Light Intensity B. People and animals
C. Humidity C. the suns rays

D. burning trash
D. Bottom Heat
128. In a warmer world, we would expect
123. what happens when air is heated? more
A. it rises A. Hurricanes
B. it decreases B. Droughts
C. no effect C. Desert expansions
D. none of above D. All of these

7.5 Greenhouse 1103
129. What is the defining characteristic of a 134. Consequences of climate change include:
water cycle?
A. Stronger hurricanes

A. The water passes through at least five
different locations. B. Increased flooding
B. It does not include any human water C. Frequent droughts
usage.
D. All of the above
C. It passes through plants, animals and
the ocean.
135. Which greenhouse gas is currently at the
D. It has the same starting and ending highest ever recorded levels in our atmo-
point. sphere?
130. There are two main types of material A. water vapour
that we construct greenhouses out of, one
is PVC. What is the other one? B. carbon dioxide
A. Glass C. methane
B. Galvanized Steel D. ozone
C. Water
D. Wood 136. How can global warming cause sea levels
to rise?
131. What do greenhouse gases do?
A. By causing it to rain more often
A. absorb Earth’s outgoing infrared pho-
tons B. By melting glaciers and polar ice caps
B. reflect Earth’s incoming infrared pho- C. By increasing the number of undersea
tons volcanic eruptions
C. magnify ultraviolet radiation in the at- D. By creating bigger and more powerful
mosphere hurricanes
D. block the Sun’s infrared radiation
137. Which of the following gases DOES NOT
132. Which of the following is a method used
trap heat?
to provide bottom heat?
A. Unit heater with a fan A. carbon dioxide
B. Electric heating pad B. nitrogen
C. Radiant heaters C. water vapor
D. All of the above
D. methane
133. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to the at-
mosphere by each of the following EXCEPT 138. what do Greenhouse gases do?
A. burning fossil fuels. A. eat all the radiation given from the sun
B. decay of organic matter and animal
B. absorb harmful ultraviolet radiation
waste.
C. water vapor. C. reflect all radiation
D. eruption of volcanoes. D. absorb everything

7.5 Greenhouse 1104
139. Definition of Greenhouse Effect B. The Greenhouse Effect

A. the process in which the absorption of C. Greenhouse Gases
short wave radiation by the atmosphere
D. Mesosphere
heats up a planet
B. the process in which water turns into 144. The Montreal Protocol banned the use of
gas CFCs. What so they hope this will do for
C. when gases in the atmosphere catch the ozone layer?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
on fire A. Deplete it completely
D. when gas is turned into a solid B. Make the ozone hole smaller
140. Why do Scientist use Models like the C. Make the ozone hole larger
Greenhouse Model to describe Scientific
D. Thin the layer to allow more gas to es-
Phenomenon.
cape
A. It is easy to describe
B. Models make it more difficult to under- 145. The consequences of climate change in-
stand scientific Phenomenon clude:
C. Difficult concepts like Climate change A. Stronger hurricanes
are made easier to understand using a B. Increased flooding
model .
C. Frequent droughts
D. Models don’t have the limitations that
specific descriptions have. D. All of the above
141. “The half grown chrysanthemums star- 146. What can you infer from the fact that
ing up” in “Child on Top of a Greenhouse” global warming has only been a problem
is an example of for the last 100 years or so?
A. metaphor. A. Prior to 100 years ago, the greenhouse
B. personification. effects on the earth was too minor to be
detected
C. alliteration
B. The earth moved significantly closer to
D. irony
the sun about 100 years ago
142. The following is NOT a greenhouse gas: C. People have only been pumping large
A. methane quantities of greenhouse gases into the
B. propane atmosphere for 100 years or so
C. water vapor D. The movement of glaciers was a major

problem for people 100 years ago
D. CO2
147. Where is most of Earth’s Water?
143. This traps heat and absorbs gases (car-
bon dioxide, methane..) and keeps the A. in glaciers
earth warm. Allowing heat to go back into
B. in rivers
space prevents Earth from becoming too
warm C. in the ground
A. Ozone Layer D. in oceans

7.5 Greenhouse 1105
148. What is greenhouse effect? 153. Full form of IPCC is

A. The greenhouse effect is a natural A. Intergovernmental Pollution Control

process that warms the Earth’s sur- Committee
face. When the Sun’s energy reaches
the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is B. Indian Policies for Change in Climate
reflected back to space and the rest is C. International Pollution Control Com-
absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse mittee
gases.
D. Intergovernmental Panel for Climate
B. The absorbed energy warms the atmo- Change
sphere and the surface of the Earth.
C. Both a & b 154. Which one of the choices below is NOT a
D. none of above cause for global warming?
A. Having too many cows
149. Which of the following gases, released
by animals as a waste product of diges- B. Burning Fossil Fuels
tion, can add to global warming?
C. Planting new trees
A. Carbon Dioxide
D. none of above
B. Methane
C. Chlorofluorocarbon 155. What is air pollution?
D. Nitrogen A. Any harmful substance that builds up
150. What layer of the atmosphere protects in the air
us? B. pollen, dust, gases
A. the ozone layer C. industrial pollution
B. troposphere
D. chemicals in the water
C. Thermosphere
D. stratosphere 156. What the most common type of detached
greenhouse for commercial production?
151. One thing people in the United States
could do to reduce air pollution is A. Lean-To
A. drive their cars more. B. Ridge
B. burn more fossil fuels. C. Quonset
C. use more public transportation. D. Detatched
(Which would mean less vehicles on road)
D. build more factories. 157. produced by microbial processes in
soil and water, including those reactions
152. The gas that is most abundant (highest which occur in fertilizer containing nitrogen
percentage) in the atmosphere is
A. methane
A. nitrogen (N2)
B. oxygen (O2) B. Nitrous Oxide
C. argon (Ar) C. Water vapor

D. carbon dioxide (CO2) D. Carbon dioxide

7.5 Greenhouse 1106
158. Which of the following gasses is a bad A. CO2

greenhouse gas
B. methane
A. H2O
C. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
B. CO2
D. water vapour
C. C3PO
D. none of above 164. Why do we need greenhouse gasses?
159. What gas from the list below is green-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. We don’t! All greenhouse gasses are
house gas and a cause for global warming? bad
A. Nitrogen B. They help regulate Earth’s climate
B. Oxygen
C. They decrease Earth’s temperature
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. none of above
160. As greenhouse gasses increase, what 165. Contains solid inner metal core, liquid
happens to heat flow out? outer core, and rocky mantle and crust.
A. Increase A. Hydrosphere
B. Decrease B. Geosphere
C. Stays the Same C. Biosphere
D. No Trend
D. Atmosphere
161. What would be Earth’s temperature with-
out green house gases? 166. How does carbon dioxide in the atmo-
sphere affect climate?
A. Earth’s temperatures would be cold,
oceans would freeze A. As carbon dioxide increases, tempera-
B. The same, green house gases do not tures decrease.
affect Earth’s temperature B. As carbon dioxide increases, tempera-
C. Earth’s temperature would be 90 tures increase.
Fahrenheit C. Carbon dioxide concentrations have no
D. none of above affect on climate.
162. How do enhanced greenhouse effect af- D. As carbon dioxide concentratons in-
fect people crease, temperatures become more ran-
dom.
A. The sun will die off
B. The Earth will dry up 167. What gas from the list below is a one of
C. Electricity will run out the greenhouse gases?
D. The Earth’s temperature will change A. Urethane
163. In the past, refrigerators, aerosol spray B. Oxygen
propellants, hair spray, and cleaning sol-
C. Carbon Dioxide
vents were all sources of a greenhouse gas
known as D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1107
168. At what point in human history did global B. Greenhouse effect

carbon dioxide levels start to rise?
C. Global Warming

A. World War I
D. Solar Attack
B. World War II
C. The Industrial Revolution 174. Without the ozone layer,
D. The invention of the car A. rainfall becomes more acidic.
169. Which of the following are greenhouse B. infrared radiation is inhibited.

gases?I. Oxides of nitrogenII. carbon diox- C. harmful ultraviolet rays can enter the
ideIII. Methane earth’s atmosphere.
A. I and II only D. the earth’s rotation becomes slower.
B. I and III only
175. “Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that
C. II and III only traps heat in our atmosphere.”How might
D. I, II, and III humans help to prevent too much carbon
dioxide from entering the atmosphere?
170. Which of the following activities remove
CO2 from the atmosphere? A. burn fewer fossil fuels like coal and oil
A. respiration B. burn more fossil fuels like coal and oil
B. photosynthesis C. build more greenhouses around the
C. burning of fossil fuels world
D. decomposition in landfills D. build fewer greenhouses around the

world
171. What can happen to Earth’s temperature
when humans burn fossil fuels? 176. what is Carbon Dioxides chemical for-
A. stay the same mula
B. flutuate A. CO1
C. increase B. CO2
D. decrease C. C + 2O
172. When the Sun’s energy is trapped by D. C+1=O+2

greenhouse gases, how does this affect
the temperature of the Earth? 177. How does increased carbon dioxide lev-
els affect the oceans
A. temperatures will decrease
A. it decreases the amount of available
B. temperatures will increase oxygen
C. temperatures will stay the same
B. it causes the pH to become lower and
D. temperatures will fluctuate more acidic
173. When more heat is trapped in the atmo- C. it cause the pH to become higher and
sphere and makes the earth warmer it is more basic
known as D. it causes the amount of salt to de-
A. Global cooling crease

7.5 Greenhouse 1108
178. Which type of bench is in the MMHS C. use solar or wind power instead of fos-
greenhouse? sil fuels
A. Slat Bench D. all of the above
B. Soil Bench 184. Which of the following was NOT an effect
C. High Bench of this hurricane:
D. Rolling Bench A. Homes were obliterated.
B. Children could not go to school.
179. What type of benches do we have at
NARAYAN CHANGDER
CRHS? C. Residents used the water for irrigating
plants.
A. Slotted
D. People died.
B. Slatted
185. Thin envelope of gases surrounding the
C. Netted
Earth and contains the weather.
D. Rolling
A. Atmosphere
180. Both poems deal mainly with the speak- B. Hydrosphere
ers’ attitudes toward C. Biosphere
A. despair. D. Geosphere
B. excitement.
186. What can humans do to help keep car-
C. experiencing life. bon dioxide and methane in Earth’s atmo-
D. enjoying nature. sphere from increasing?
A. Drive their cars less often
181. When water , dew forms.
B. Eat less meat so that fewer livestock
A. Melts
need to be kept
B. Evaporates C. Humans can’t affect the amount of
C. Condenses carbon dioxide or methane in the atmo-
D. Precipitates sphere.
D. Both A and B
182. In the 1800’s why did CO2 levels in-
crease significantly? 187. Where is the ozone located?
A. New factories were being built that A. troposphere
caused more pollution B. stratosphere
B. The civil war caused more pollution C. mesosphere
C. Scientists figured out how to clean up D. thermosphere
pollution in the air
188. The 2018 IPCC report on Climate Change
D. It did not increase looked at trying to limit global warming
change to
183. What can you do to help slow down
global warming? A. 1 degree
A. Decrease your carbon footprint by eat- B. 1.5 degrees
ing locally produced food C. 2 degrees
B. recycle and reuse plastics D. 2.5 degrees

7.5 Greenhouse 1109
189. As preventive maintenance for possible 194. what percentage of greenhouse gases
structural problems, which will Matthew does water vapor take up?
check and repair in his greenhouse?

A. 27%
A. Exhaust fan belt B. 15%
B. photocell C. 75%
C. plastic greenhouse cover D. none
D. trash can lid
195. Where I find clouds.
190. If there were no Greenhouse Gases earth A. thermosphere
would be
B. stratosphere
A. Cold
C. troposphere
B. Hot
D. ionosphere
C. It’s Summer Time!
D. All of the above 196. Which of the following is a principal type
of heating systems used in greenhouse
191. The greenhouse effect is caused by production?
A. Too much heat in the atmosphere A. Hot water tubes
B. Too much sunshine reaching Earth B. Electric cables
C. Greenhouse gases in the lower at- C. Steam or hot water
mosphere absorbing radiation from the D. All of the aboe
Earth’s surface, and preventing much of
it escaping into space 197. In which plant part does sunlight enter?
D. Greenhouse gases in the lower atmo- A. stomata
sphere absorbing solar radiation B. xylem
192. What do greenhouse gases do in our at- C. top of leaf
mosphere? D. roots
A. They absorb radiation given off by the
Earth 198. Global warming is due to
B. They block harmful radiation from A. Greenhouse gases

reaching the Earth B. Nitric and sulfuric acids
C. They keep all the air within the Earth C. CFCs
D. They make the Earth cooler D. Ozone depletion
193. Which of these will reduce our carbon 199. Atmospheric carbon dioxide blocks
footprint? A. all out going Infra Red radiation
A. Eating more meat B. all IR radiation at certain wavelengths
B. Using the car less C. about half of the IR radiation at certain
C. Using less public transport wavlengths
D. Putting more waste in landfill D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1110
200. Which of these actions increase green- 205. which of the following protects living or-
house gases in our atmosphere? ganisms from UV rays
A. Turning on the lights in a room A. the sun
B. Buying a bottle of water
B. the ozone
C. Using hot water
C. the Greenhouse
D. All of the above
D. houses and cars
NARAYAN CHANGDER
201. What is the hydrosphere’s function/job?
A. support a network of life. 206. The component of the atmosphere that
B. plays an important role in regulating protects us form harmful UV radiation is
heat on earth.
C. absorbs and interacts with harmful so- A. Ozone
lar rays.It protects the earth from natural B. Troposphere
and human-caused space debris.
C. Ionosphere
D. controls the distribution of minerals,
rocks and soils and generates natural haz- D. Exosphere
ards that shape the land and impact hu-
mans 207. Which of these is a MAJOR cause of acid
rain?
202. Which type of greenhouse does Adam
most likely build if he uses curved half- A. spraying pesticides on crops
moon roof bars that he covers with plas-
tic? B. burning fossil fuels for energy
A. Lean-to C. dumping sewage in river systems
B. even span D. using uranium to generate electricity
C. uneven span
208. Which is the opposite of condensation?
D. Quonset
A. runoff
203. What is causing climate change
A. wind B. evaporation
B. the sun C. precipitation

C. green house gasses D. transpiration
D. water
209. Which of the following is a principal way
204. What is the weather conditions most pre- of decreasing light intensity in the green-
vailing in a place, averaged over several house?
years.
A. Saran
A. Climate
B. Windows
B. Greenhouse Gas
C. Climate Change C. Shading compound
D. Radiation D. Both A and C

7.5 Greenhouse 1111
210. What is the definition of RADIATION? C. Heat rays are absorbed by all gases in
A. hot liquid or air that expands, becomes the atmosphere
D. Heat rays are absorbed by greenhouse

less dense, and rises or becomes more
dense, and sinks. gases in the atmosphere
B. When heat is transferred from objects 215. Which gas is the second most abundant
like rays of light or electromagnetically. in the atmosphere?
C. When heat transfers from objects that A. oxygen
are touching. B. nitrogen
D. When heat transfers through the C. carbon dioxide
heater or AC in your house.
D. argon
211. Burning fossil fuel (coal & oil) releases
216. Why is the increase of Greenhouse
into Earth’s atmosphere.
gasses a big issue?
A. water vapor (H2O)
A. It causes climate change and increase
B. oxygen (O2) in the global temerature
C. methane (CH4) B. It can lead to a major increase in
D. carbon dioxide (CO2) Greenhouses
C. It leads to more factories
212. Which type of glazing material is like
plastic and easy to use? D. It causes a major decrease in people
A. Fiberglass 217. I can cut down on carbon dioxide emis-

sions by
B. Polyethylene
A. Walking to the store
C. Glass
B. Driving to the store
D. none of above
C. Throwing everything away
213. how are greenhouse gases let into the at- D. none of above
mosphere?
218. To throw back (light, heat, sound, or the
A. from both natural ways and also from
like), as from a surface is called what?
the burning of fossil fuels
A. Radiation
B. from just the burning of fossil fuels
B. Climate
C. from the earth (all naturally created)
C. Absorb
D. from when particles collide and then
magically turn green then float into the D. Reflect
sky 219. By cutting down our demand for meat
derived from cattle, we can actually con-
214. Which of the following best describes
tribute to less greenhouse gas emissions
heat rays interactions with gases in the at-
in terms of
mosphere
A. Carbon dioxide
A. Heat rays bounce off all gases in the
atmosphere B. Nitrous oxide
B. Heat rays bounce off greenhouse C. Methane
gases in the atmosphere D. Water vapour

7.5 Greenhouse 1112
220. Which of the following gases is NOT a 225. What is the cause of rising surface tem-
greenhouse gas? peratures of the Pacific Ocean, drought in
the western United States, and flooding on
A. carbon dioxide (CO2)
the Pacific coast of South America?
B. nitrogen gas (N2)
A. the Gulf Stream
C. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
B. the Jet Stream
D. methane (CH4) C. La Nina
NARAYAN CHANGDER
221. What is any atmospheric gas that ab- D. El Nino
sorbs and emits radiant energy and con-
tributes to the greenhouse effect. 226. Do we need greenhouse gases around the
Earth?
A. Greenhouse Effect
A. Yes - they keep the Earth warm
B. Climate
B. Yes - they keep all the gases on our
C. Reflect planet
D. Greenhouse Gas C. No - they only cause terrible climate
change
222. Which of the following is not an effect of
D. No - they only block some of the Sun’s
climate change?
rays
A. Plant habitats shift to higher altitudes
227. What is one major difference between
B. Robins migrate earlier in the year the earth’s greenhouse effect and an ac-
C. Polar bear loses hunting habitat tual greenhouse?
D. Improved health of coral reefs A. Heat escapes form a greenhouse more
easily than it does from Earth’s atmo-
223. Electromagnetic waves from the sun are sphere
just like thermal waves B. The glass in a greenhouse traps heat,
A. True they are both heat waves while greenhouse gases in the atmo-
sphere absorb and recycle heat
B. False electromagnetic waves can pass
through our atmosphere and some ther- C. Actual greenhouses are cold in winter,
mal waves are trapped by our atmosphere while the greenhouse effect has led to
warm winters across the earth
C. It depends on the time of day because
wavelengths get shorter in the morning D. There is no significant difference; both
and afternoon. work pretty much the same way
D. none of above 228. Greenhouse gases are
224. the force exerted by gases pushing on an A. About half of the gases in the atmo-
object sphere
B. About one quarter of the gases in the
A. greenhouse effect
atmosphere
B. atmosphere
C. Most of the atmosphere
C. air pressure
D. A very small part of the gases in the
D. density atmosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1113
229. Which is a better term to use when de- 234. H2O + CO2 → H2CO3 is the formula for
scribing our current problem with the rise which can make it difficult for corals to
in overall temperature on Earth. build their skeletons.

A. Climate Change A. ocean acidification
B. Global Warming B. coral bleaching
C. The Greenhouse Effect C. global warming
D. none of above D. the greenhouse effect
235. Why does snow and ice on the ground

230. What occurs when cool air moves from
prevent polar climates from getting
the ocean toward the beach during the
warmer?
day?
A. because it absorbs solar readiation
A. a land breeze
B. because it absorbs UV light
B. a prevailing wind
C. because it reflects UV light
C. a sea breeze
D. because it reflects solar radiation
D. an updraft
236. “I Stepped from Plank to Plank” is
231. What is the source of energy for the mostly about how the speaker
Earth’s water cycle? A. moves through life.
A. Sun’s radiation B. watches the sky.
B. ocean currents C. feels grief.
C. trade and prevailing winds D. enjoys the ocean.
D. Moon’s gravitational attraction
237. What is an increase in global tempera-
tures believed to be caused in part by the
232. have no natural source
greenhouse effect.
A. CFC
A. Climate
B. water vapor B. Global Warming
C. Carbon Dioxide C. Climate Change
D. methane D. Greenhouse Effect
233. Which of the following is an example of 238. “Greenhouse gases trap heat in the at-
how climate change could effect agricul- mosphere.”The text describes the effect
ture? of greenhouse gases on the Earth. What
A. Increased droughts could reduce the effect do these gases have on the Earth?
amount of water available for irrigation A. These gases cool the surface of the
Earth and help it stay at a comfortable
B. Too cold to grow certain crops
temperature
C. Fewer storms - so more nice weather
B. These gases clean the surface of the
for planting and harvesting
Earth and lower the amount of pollution
D. Fewer pests and weeds on the ground

7.5 Greenhouse 1114
C. These gases freeze the surface of the C. Both are causes for Global Warming
Earth and help create icebergs in different
D. none of above
parts of the ocean
D. These gases warm the surface of the 244. How are humans making greenhouse
Earth and help it stay at a comfortable, gases of our own?
warm average temperature
A. burning fossil fuels in our cars
239. Which of the following does NOT happen B. burning forests
to solar energy when it reaches Earth?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. with large scale agriculture
A. Some solar energy reflects off the at-
mosphere, back to space D. all of these
B. Some solar energy passes through
Earth and comes out the other side 245. is the amount of CO2 emissions that
a person or group is responsible for.
C. Some solar energy is absorbed by land
and water A. ecological footprint
D. Some solar energy is radiated from the B. nitrogen footprint
Earth’s surface and trapped by the atmo- C. carbon footprint
sphere
D. energy footprint
240. The ozone layer protects us from
A. UV rays 246. How is Methane gas made naturally?
B. CFCs A. in the air
C. Increased atmospheric heat B. When we breathe
D. Decreased atmospheric heat C. When cow digest food
241. Adding can cool the greenhouse and D. when we walk
raise the relative humidity.
A. Fans 247. Which one is not a fossil source?
B. Fog A. petrol
C. Steam B. sun
D. Bottom Heat C. coal
242. are used to control mist systems. D. natural gas
A. Automatic time clocks
248. One benefit of using nuclear power is
B. Remote controls
A. Using nuclear energy does not release
C. Manual controls greenhouse gases
D. Electric cables B. Using nuclear power is extremely
243. Which is one cause for Global Warming cheap
we discussed today? C. Using nuclear power does not produce
A. Burning Fossil Fuels any waste
B. Pollution from factories D. Uranium is a renewable resource

7.5 Greenhouse 1115
249. What is the mass of gases surrounding C. spray cans, refrigerant, cardboard
the earth or any other celestial body. D. spray cans, refrigerant, insulation

A. Atmosphere
255. Climate changes may be linked to changes
B. Radiation in the number of on the surface of the
C. Absorb sun.
D. Reflect A. rays
B. sun flares
250. Which glazing has the best light transmis-
sion? C. gases
A. Polycarbonate D. clouds
B. Polyethylene 256. How many layers of the atmosphere is
C. Fiberglass there?
D. Glass A. 3
B. 5
251. The environmental factor Jason is trying
to change when he adjusts the greenhouse C. 4
thermostat is: D. 8
A. CO2
257. How many Greenhouse Gases are there
B. Light in our ozone layer?
C. Temperature A. 5
D. Water B. 4
252. What is currently happening to polar re- C. 7

gions? D. 6
A. nothing 258. In general, what happens to the climate
B. freezing (of the Earth) if more greenhouse gases
are released (through human activities and
C. moving
natural occurrences) into the atmosphere?
D. melting
A. Average temperature goes up
253. Which of the following gasses is pro- B. Average temperature goes down
duced by burning Fossil Fuels
C. Average temperature remains the
A. H2O same
B. CO2 D. None of the above
C. C3PO
259. What are chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s)?
D. none of above
A. rays that hit the earth
254. Which of these sets of three items pro- B. gases used in aerosols, hairsprays and
duce CFCs foam plastics that can be dangerous
A. cars, factories, and cardboard C. gases that deplete the ozone layer
B. spray cans, cardboard, insulation D. both b and c

7.5 Greenhouse 1116
260. The atmosphere is all of the on Earth. A. It is used by plants for photosynthesis
A. gases and is absorbed in water
B. rocks B. It is used for respiration in animals
C. life C. It is used by factories
D. water D. none of above
261. What type of glazing material is very 266. What is the most common gas in the at-
mosphere?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
flammable as time goes on?
A. Glass A. nitrogen
B. Polyethylene B. oxygen
C. Acrylic C. water vapor
D. Fiberglass D. carbon dioxide
262. When did climate change (CO2 in the at- 267. Which of the following is the least energy
mosphere) increase significantly? efficient behavior?
A. 1800s Industrial Revolution A. Installing LED light bulbs
B. 1600s Industrial Revolution B. driving a hybrid or electric car
C. 1800 Crusades C. leaving the TV on for the dog
D. 1600 Crusades D. turning off lights when you leave a

room
263. Choose the answer that best completes
this sentence.Greenhouse gases help our 268. At which time of day is the heat flow en-
Earth keep a comfortable, warm average tering Earth’s atmosphere (H-in) highest?
temperature. , too many greenhouse A. sunrise
gases can be a bad thing
B. middday
A. In conclusion
C. sunset
B. Specifically
D. midnight
C. However
269. why does deforestation create more
D. In addition
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
264. These are all important greenhouse A. trees use O2 and give off CO2, so the
gases. less trees we have the more CO2 remains
A. Oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen in the atmosphere
B. Carbon dioxide, helium and clouds B. trees use CO2 and give off O2, so the
less trees we have the more CO2 remains
C. Carbon dioxide, water vapor and in the atmosphere
methane
C. trees use CO2 and give off 02, so the
D. Methane, ethane and hydrogen less trees we have the less CO2 remains
265. Where does carbon dioxide in the atmo- in the atmosphere
sphere go? D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1117
270. Who were the two heaviest polluters? 276. One drawback of using nuclear power is
A. China and Europe

B. China and the U.S.A A. Nuclear waste is difficult to get rid of
C. U.S.A and Africa B. Nuclear reactors release lots of car-
D. none of above bon dioxide
C. Nuclear reactors release lots of
271. What is the mood of the poem “Child on
methane
Top of a Greenhouse”?
A. exhilaration and fear D. No countries actually use nuclear
power yet
B. sad and depressing
C. joy and happiness 277. The main human activity that releases
D. despair and anguish greenhouse gases is
272. What greenhouse gas is released by vol- A. using bottled water

canoes? B. burning fossil fuels
A. CFCs C. texting on cellphones
B. CO2
D. eating meat
C. N2O
D. CH4 278. Which of the following have been linked
to climate change?
273. Which of the following is NOT needed for
plant growth? A. droughts
A. soil B. flooding
B. water C. melting of polar ice caps
C. air D. all of the above
D. Sun’s energy
279. what is the most abundant gas in the at-
274. What will happen if a plant does NOT get mosphere?
air?
A. oxygen
A. It can still live as long as it has Sun’s
energy. B. nitrogen
B. It can still live as long as it has water. C. carbon dioxide
C. It can’t make food so it will die. D. argon
D. It can still live as long as it has soil.
280. What is the weather conditions in an area
275. Which is one cause for Global Warming over a long period of time?
we discussed this week?
A. climate
A. Burning Fossil Fuels
B. Pollution from factories B. temperature
C. Both are causes for Global Warming C. elevation

D. none of above D. precipitation

7.5 Greenhouse 1118
281. What structure is both poems written in? C. most U.S. cattle ranches
A. Sentences & paragraphs D. cars
B. Sentences & stanzas 286. How is acid rain formed?
C. Lines & paragraphs A. Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
D. Lines & stanzas mix with water in the ocean.
B. Carbon dioxide and oxygen mix with
282. When the levels of greenhouse gases in
water in the air.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the atmosphere increase, which statement
is true? C. Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide
mix with lake water.
A. Earth’s temperature increases be-
cause the flow of heat into Earth in- D. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide mix
creases. with water in the air.
B. Earth’s temperature increases be- 287. Increased carbon dioxide may cause
cause the flow of heat into Earth de- global warming by
creases. A. allowing more sunlight into the atmo-
C. Earth’s temperature increases be- sphere.
cause the flow of heat out of Earth in- B. reflecting more sunlight from clouds.
creases.
C. reducing the amount of oxygen in the
D. Earth’s temperature increases be- air.
cause the flow of heat out of Earth de-
creases. D. trapping more heat in the atmosphere.
288. What are CFCs?

283. Which greenhouse gas is responsible for
most of the global warming on earth? A. cholorofluorocarbons
A. carbon monoxide CO B. chlorinefluoridecarbons
B. carbon dioxide CO2 C. chloridefluoridecarbons
C. methaneCH4 D. none of above
D. water vapor H2O 289. Which 3 Greenhouse Gases are all Man-
Made?
284. The key component to any greenhouse is
A. Sulphur Dioxide, Water Vapour, Ni-
trous Oxide
A. that it is in the mountains.
B. Water Vapour, Carbon Dioxide,
B. that it is made of glass or clear mate- Methane
rial.
C. Methane, Nitrus Oxide, Sulphur Diox-
C. that it is made of bricks. ide
D. that it has plenty of water. D. Carbon Dioxide, Sulphur Dioxide, Ni-
trous Oxide
285. Which of the following does NOT produce
massive amounts of greenhouse gas 290. Part 1Which do all plants need to grow?
A. bicycles A. Air
B. factories B. Rocks

7.5 Greenhouse 1119
C. Darkness 296. what does keeling curve explain?

D. Hot temperatures A. the ongoing change of fossil fuels on

the earth’s surface
291. How do the molecules in hot substances B. the ongoing change of carbon dioxide
move? on the earth’s surface
A. slow C. it doesn’t explain anything
B. fast D. none of above
C. molecule movement is not determined
297. Things you can do to help decrease global
by temperature
warming include:
D. anyway they want A. Eat more ice cream.
292. In “I Stepped from Plank to Plank, “ the B. Keep your freezer door open.
“precarious gait” is caused by C. Keep your air conditioner on high.
A. always moving carefully. D. Turn off your lights when you’re not us-
B. refusing to take chances. ing them.
C. the struggle to survive. 298. In a warmer world, we would expect

more
D. the desire to give up.
A. droughts
293. Where most FRESHWATER is stored is in B. hurricanes
C. desert expansions
A. Groundwater
D. all of these
B. pH
299. Which of the following is NOT an effect
C. Glaciers of Global Warming?
D. Sea water A. Polar ice caps will melt.
294. which is not a source of carbon dioxide? B. Coastal regions will be covered with
rising sea levels.
A. fossil fuels
C. Some areas will experience serious
B. deforestation droughts
C. water vapor D. The Earth’s rotation will slow down
D. none of above and eventually stop
300. Carmen is going to the market to pur-

295. Which planet is much warmer than Earth
chase food for her family. She is very con-
because it experiences a much stronger
scious of her choices and is working to re-
greenhouse effect than Earth’s?
duce her carbon footprint. Which of the
A. Venus following would help her to be successful
in her goal?
B. Jupiter
A. Purchasing meats packaged at the lo-
C. Mars
cal supermarket, but trucked in from out
D. Pluto of state

7.5 Greenhouse 1120
B. Purchasing fresh fruits and vegeta- C. desertification

bles at the local supermarket that were D. pestilence
shipped from out of state
C. Purchasing fresh fruits and vegetables 306. Cutting down large forests (deforesta-
from the local farmer’s market tion) can result in:
D. None of these choices will reduce her A. little to no changes
carbon footprint B. more homes for animals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
301. emit infrared radiation, which heats C. less plants to absorb carbon dioxide, a
only those objects in its path. greenhouse gas
A. Electric heating pads D. none of above
B. Radiant heaters 307. Which best identifies what plants receive
C. Electric cables from sunlight?
D. Radial heaters A. Energy
B. Nitrogen
302. Which method is Gerrard using when he
plants his cucumber seeds straight into the C. Oxygen
soil? D. Sugars
A. indirect sowing
308. If Taylor installs a thermostat to get the
B. direct sowing most accurate readings in his greenhouse,
C. transplanting he should ensure it is hung at:
D. deadheading A. ground level
303. which is not a type of greenhouse gas B. one foot above ground level
A. oxygen C. plant level
B. carbon dioxide D. six feet above ground level
C. methane 309. is a technique where water-soluble
D. water vapor fertilizers can be applied through irrigation
systems.
304. As greenhouse gasses increase, what
A. Aquafertilization
happens to heat flow in from the sun?
B. Chemigation
A. Increase
C. Fertigation
B. Decrease
C. Stays the same
D. No Trend 310. The gas that is the second most abundant
in the atmosphere is
305. Which of the following is NOT a factor
A. oxygen
contributing to the increase in greenhouse
gas concentration? B. nitrogen
A. burning fossil fuels C. carbon dioxide
B. deforestation D. argon

7.5 Greenhouse 1121
311. the mass of an object divided by its vol- C. Trees take in carbon dioxide from the
ume more dense = heavier less atmosphere during photosynthesis.
dense = lighter

D. Trees block the release of greenhouse
A. density gases from soil.
B. mass 317. In “Child on Top of a Greenhouse” which
C. weight poetic device is not used?
D. none of above A. rhyme scheme
B. similes
312. All BUT the following are greenhouse
gases: C. imagery
A. Water vapor D. personification
B. Carbon Dioxide 318. If more energy is absorbed by the Earth
C. Neon than released, what will happen to global
temperatures?
D. methane
A. they will stay the same
313. The gas form of fossil fuels is
B. they will decrease
A. petroleum C. they will increase
B. natural gas D. they will fluctuate
C. coal
319. Without any greenhouse effect the Earth
D. heat would be
314. How does Sunlight effect the Earth’s sur- A. Fine
face? B. Too Cold to Support Life
A. It warms the Earth. C. Very Hot
B. It cools the Earth. D. none of above
C. It has no effect.
320. What percentage of the Earth is covered
D. none of above by water?
315. Why do plants need air to grow? A. 50%
A. Plants must anchor themselves B. 30%
B. Plants cannot keep cool on their own C. 70%
C. Plants need heat to release their en- D. 90%
ergy
321. What is a change in global and regional
D. Plants use carbon dioxide to make climate patterns attributed to an increase
food in atmospheric carbon dioxide from the
burning of fossil fuels.
316. How can the planting of new trees help
reduce climate change? A. Radiation
A. Trees help create breezes. B. Climate Change
B. Trees release moisture that cools the C. Greenhouse Gas
atmosphere. D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1122
322. How does convection work? 327. How many countries have signed the Ky-
A. cool air rises, hot air sinks oto Protocol?
A. 156
B. hot air rises, cool air sinks
B. 168
C. hot and cold air do not change
C. 192
D. 154
323. What is the most common gas in our at-
328. Which of the following natural events
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosphere?
would be most likely to contribute to the
A. Nitrogen cooling of Earth’s atmosphere?
B. Oxygen A. Earthquake
C. Carbon Dioxide B. Hurricane
D. Methane C. Volcanism
D. Monsoon
324. Which of the following can ADD carbon to
the atmosphere? 329. What is enhanced greenhouse effect
A. photosynthesis A. A row of green houses
B. fossil fuel formation B. Climate Change
C. evaporation C. There is no such thing
D. burning fossil fuels D. SPACE FILLER
325. “The atmosphere helps humans to sur- 330. Which of the following do your plants
vive on Earth.”What information from the need to grow?
text best supports this statement? A. water
A. Scientists are worried that human ac- B. gatorade
tivities have led to an increase of green- C. rocks
house gases in the atmosphere
D. emotional support
B. Oxygen is a common gas found in the
atmosphere that humans breathe in to live 331. Where do greenhouse gas emissions
come from?
C. Living organisms and decaying organ-
isms release carbon dioxide into the atmo- A. Factories and vehicles
sphere B. Use of chemical fertilisers
D. Some factories and power plants re- C. Deforestation
lease nitrous oxide into the atmosphere D. All of the above
326. A greenhouse gas which is present in 332. Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps
very high amounts is
A. will result in cooler temperatures in
A. propane the Arctic
B. ethane B. will result in sea-levels rising
C. methane C. Will have no effect on ecosystems
D. CO2 D. None of the above

7.5 Greenhouse 1123
333. What is the product made from plants 338. Without the Greenhouse Effect the Earth
during photosynthesis? would be

A. carbon dioxide gas A. warm
B. glucose B. cold
C. Sun’s energy C. dead

D. none of above
D. water
339. Why is the Ozone important to life on
334. What Would Happen to Earth if the En- Earth?
hanced Greenhouse Effect Did Not Exist?
A. A. The Ozone reflects all the Ultra Vio-
A. Earth’s temperature would continue to let radiation
Increase.
B. A. The Ozone absorbs all the heat that
B. Earth’s temperature would decrease. come up from the Earth.
C. Earth’s temperature would stay the C. The Ozone provides all the oxygen to
same. Earth.
D. none of above D. The Ozone protects the Earth’ s atmo-
sphere and the life on Earth from harmful
335. Which environmental control should Joe radiant energy emitted by the sun
use to cause lights to automatically turn
on and off at certain times? 340. Which of the following is an example of
a greenhouse gas?
A. CO2 meter
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Sterilizer
B. Nitrogen
C. Thermostat C. Oxygen
D. Timer D. Neon
336. What is glazing? 341. Which one of these is not a greenhouse
A. Something sweet for a donut. gas?
A. Water vapor
B. The covering for a greenhouse.
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. The framing material for a green-
house. C. Neon
D. What the headhouse is made out of. D. Methane
342. The Greenhouse Effect is

337. Which type of equipment cools down the
greenhouse by pulling hot air from the in- A. Greenhouse gases act as a blanket
side of the greenhouse to the outside? and trap heat on Earth
A. Exhaust fan B. Greenhouse gases protect us from

harmful UV rays
B. vent
C. Greenhouse gases allowing heat to es-
C. lights cape from our planet.
D. circulation fans D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1124
343. Volcanoes can cool the climate by 347. What SUPPLIES energy that plants need
to make sugars for food?
A. increasing wind speeds
A. air
B. using up Earth’s energy
B. Sun’s energy
C. releasing gas and particles
C. soil
D. increasing air pressure.
D. water
344. why does an over population create more 348. Which do seeds need to germinate?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
greenhouse gases
A. Soil
A. as less people continue to use fossil fu-
els for their everyday needs, more green- B. Water
house gases are being produced C. Minerals
B. as more people continue to use D. Sunlight
cars for transportation, more greenhouse
349. Currently, about 10% of Earth is covered
gases are being admitted into the air.
with ice year-round. If this ice melts, what
C. as more people continue to use fos- could happen to Earth’s temperature?
sil fuels for their everyday needs, more A. Increase
greenhouse gases are being produced
B. Decrease
D. none of above
C. Remain the Same
345. Which of the following is NOT a major D. Not enough information
source of methane in our atmosphere?
350. What would the speaker in “I Stepped
A. Livestock farming from Plank to Plank” most likely do if she
B. Decomposition in landfills saw the boy in “Child on Top of the Green-
house”?
C. Combustion of fossil fuels
A. join him on the roof
D. Rice farming
B. ignore him
346. The oceans make up 70% of Earth’s sur- C. point and shout
face. They regulate the overall temper-
D. laugh
ature of the earth by absorbing a great
deal of solar energy and heating up slowly. 351. What is Global Warming?
What is true about the oceans’ release of
A. An increase in the earth’s temperature
heat?
B. To many greenhouse gases in our at-
A. The oceans release heat rapidly and mosphere
add to the greenhouse effect.
C. A Thicker ozone layer
B. The oceans release heat more slowly
D. Eating ice-cream
than the land.
C. The oceans release heat more rapidly 352. Which of the following is not a green-
than the land. house gas?
D. The oceans release heat at the same A. Carbon dioxide

rate as the land. B. Methane

7.5 Greenhouse 1125
C. Water vapour 358. The Frigid zone are also called

D. Nitrogen A. Equatorial zone

353. Which of the following is NOT one of the B. Polar zone
FOUR main greenhouse gases? C. Tropical zone
A. carbon dioxide D. none of above
B. mathane
359. the enhanced greenhouse affect is
C. oxygen
A. caused by us / bad
D. water vapor
B. natrualy occuring / bad
354. Which do plants need for photosynthe-
sis? C. natrually occuring / good
A. Water D. caused by us / good

B. Soil 360. “Sunlight passes through the atmosphere
C. Flowers during the day. It warms the surface of
the Earth. The greenhouse gases stop
D. Carbon monoxide
some of the heat that the sunlight brings
355. what are the four main green house from leaving the atmosphere. Green-
gases? house gases help our Earth keep a comfort-
able, warm average temperature.”Based
A. Water Vapor, oxygen, Methane, Ni-
on the text, what does the word “surface”
trose Oxide
mean?
B. Water Vapor, Carbon Dioxide,
Methane, Nitrose Oxide A. the outside of something
C. Carbon Dioxide, Methane, Nitrose Ox- B. the inside of something

ide. C. something that cools the air
D. Water Vapor, Carbon Dioxide, Metals, D. something that warms the air
Nitrose Oxide
361. Why do plants need water to germinate?
356. Which of the following is NOT a green-
house gas? A. It keeps the seed cool and dark
A. Carbon dioxide B. It releases energy stored in the seed
B. Methane C. It causes the seed to swell and break
open
C. Water vapor
D. It allows the seed to make food for the
D. nitrogen
young plant
357. How does an evaporative cooling system
cool down a greenhouse? 362. Which layer in the atmosphere protects
us form harmful UV radiation?
A. Uses mostly electricity like A/C
A. Ozone
B. Uses dripping water to cool down the
greenhouse B. Troposphere
C. circulation fans C. Ionosphere
D. venting system D. Exosphere

7.5 Greenhouse 1126
363. Carbon Dioxide levels in our atmosphere 368. During the night, Earth loses heat to
are space. What kind of radiation is heat
A. At an all time high in Earth’s history A. solar
B. At an all time low in Earth’s history B. UV
C. About the same as it was 800, 000 C. infrared
years ago D. visable
D. Lower than it was 75 years ago 369. What do scientists think the effect will
NARAYAN CHANGDER
be of having more greenhouse gases in our
364. Which of these sets lists the major green-
atmosphere?
house gases?
A. More warming of the atmosphere
A. Nitrous Oxide, Carbon Dioxide, and
Methane B. More cooling of the atmosphere
C. More air in the atmosphere
B. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon
D. Less air in the atmosphere
C. Nitrous Oxide, Oxygen, and Methane
D. Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, and 370. who is Dr. keeling
Methane A. he invented keeling curve
B. he invented keeling crave
365. Which layer is the outermost layer?
C. he invented keeling measure
A. troposphere
D. he didn’t do anything
B. thermosphere
371. What is something that you can do to de-
C. exosphere crease the carbon dioxide in the environ-
D. mesosphere ment?
A. Tear down trees
366. What do we call gases such as carbon
dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water va- B. Recycle
por, and ozone in the atmosphere which C. Carpool
are involved in the greenhouse effect? D. Start forest fires
A. Bad Gases
372. The last line in “Child on Top of the Green-
B. Ozone Gases house” suggests a sense of
C. Greenhouse Gases A. joy
D. Atmospheric Gases B. danger
C. love
367. Where have some of the strongest and
earliest impacts of global warming oc- D. safety
curred? 373. What happens to MOST of the sun’s en-
A. in the tropics ergy that reaches the earth?
B. in the northern latitudes A. It is absorbed by land and water
C. impacts of global warming are dis- B. It is reflected back to space
tributed equally all over the planet C. It is trapped by greenhouse gases
D. none of above D. It is stopped by the ozone layer

7.5 Greenhouse 1127
374. Which of the following is an accurate ex- 379. Which planet has a thick atmosphere
ample of climate made up mostly of carbon dioxide and a
strong greenhouse effect?

A. the daily temperature in charlotte, NC
A. Mercury
B. The weekly forecast in Denver, CO
B. Venus
C. the average rainfall in Charlotte, NC
C. Earth
D. The average temperate on Thursday in
Denver, CO D. Mars
375. What are the 3 main greenhouse gases? 380. The activities responsible for increase in
green house gases are:
A. carbon, sulfur dioxide, methane
A. Burning fossil fuels, Deforestation
B. carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide,
methane B. Planting trees
C. carbon dioxide, water, sulfur dioxide C. Using electric vehicles.
D. carbon dioxide, wtaer vapour, D. Usage of eco-friendly products

methane
381. Which of the following is a long term ef-
376. Which type of structure does the school fect of the greenhouse effect?
have if its greenhouse is built against the A. Ice caps and glaciers melt.
agriculture building and has a roof that
B. Change in weather patterns and cli-
slopes in only one direction?
mate.
A. Lean-to C. Rising sea levels.
B. even span D. All of the above
C. uneven span
382. Which layer of the atmosphere gener-
D. Quonset ates the aurora borealis (aka “Northern
Lights”)?
377. When humans burn fossil fuels, most of
the carbon quickly enters the as carbon A. Troposphere
dioxide. B. Stratosphere
A. Water C. Thermosphere
B. Atmosphere D. Ionosphere
C. Sun
383. Scientists who study the atmosphere of-
D. Air ten need to take samples of the atmo-
sphere in order to learn more. They
378. When we discuss greenhouse gases what take some atmosphere samples near the
is the main one we discuss? ground. They take other atmosphere sam-
A. Methane (CH4) ples high in the air, while flying in a heli-
copter. What would the scientists find out
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
about the samples?
C. Nitrous oxide (N2O)
A. Both samples are made of one kind of
D. Flourinated gases gas.

7.5 Greenhouse 1128
B. Both samples are made of a mix of sev- C. Weather is determined by average cli-
eral different kinds of gases. mate conditions.
C. Neither sample is made of anything. D. None of these answers are accurate.
D. The samples are different from each 388. In which layer of the atmosphere is the
other because each gas forms its own ozone layer
layer in the atmosphere.
A. troposphere
384. Which order is correct from the earth to B. stratosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
space?
C. mesophere
A. thermosphere troposphere exo- D. thermosphere
spheremesospherestratosphere iono-
sphere 389. Electromagnetic waves from the sun are
B. thermosphere troposphere strato- large waves.
sphere exospheremesosphere iono- A. True they are the same size as thermal
sphere waves
C. exosphereionospherethermosphereme- B. False Electromagnetic waves are
sosphere stratospheretroposphere much smaller and pass through our at-
mosphere
D. tropospherethermosphere tropo-
sphere stratosphere exospheremeso- C. It depends on the time of day
sphere D. none of above
385. How can global warming cause sea levels 390. What are the names of the three climatic
to rise? Choose the best answer. zones?
A. by causing it to rain more often A. summer, winter, spring
B. by melting glaciers and ice caps B. polar, temperate, tropical
C. by increasing the number of undersea C. fauna, flora, temperate
volcanic eruptions D. none of above
D. by creating bigger and more powerful
391. What is the greenhouse effect?
hurricanes
A. The warming of a planet due to
386. The gas that is most abundant in the at- trapped radiation.
mosphere is B. The cooling of Earth due to air pollu-
A. oxygen tion.
B. nitrogen C. The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
C. carbon dioxide D. none of above
D. argon 392. As ocean temperatures , algae in
corals die, leading to coral bleaching.
387. Which statement is the most accurate?
A. rise
A. Climate is determined by average
weather conditions. B. fall
B. Climatologists examine data from one C. stay the same
to a few years to estimate weather. D. rise, then fall

7.5 Greenhouse 1129
393. Name a massive hurricane occurring 399. Eleanor wants to do an experiment in or-
within the last twenty years: der to analyze what is in the atmosphere.
What do you think she will find?

A. Bobina
B. Matthew A. The atmosphere is made of one kind of
gas.
C. Katarina
B. The atmosphere is made of different
D. Jeremiah kinds of gases, and each forms its own
394. Which natural process removes carbon layer.
dioxide from the atmosphere? C. The atmosphere is made of a mix of dif-
A. forest fires ferent kinds of gases
B. volcanic eruptions D. The atmosphere isn’t made of anything
C. cellular respiration 400. In “I Stepped from Plank to Plank, “ you
D. photosynthesis can infer that the speaker
A. enjoys taking risks.
395. The average temperature for a day in Syl-
vania is an example of what. B. is terrified by life.
A. climate C. is lonely and depressed.
B. precipitation D. approaches life cautiously.
C. climate change 401. After class discussions, which causes
D. weather Global Warming?
A. Burning Fossil Fuels
396. why is infrared radiation good?
B. Pollution from factories
A. it stops the earth from warming up
C. Both are causes for Global Warming
B. helps to block out harmful radiation
D. none of above
C. it maintains earths ideal surface tem-
perature 402. What gases are in CO2?
D. stops the icecaps from melting A. Carbon and Helium
397. Which is a natural source of greenhouse B. Oxygen and Hydrogen
gases? C. Carbon and Oxygen
A. aerosols D. Nitrogen and Carbon
B. deforestation 403. How do scientists collect evidence about
C. volcanic eruptions climate?
D. burning fossil fuels A. using remote sensing from space with
satellites
398. Which is major cause for Global warm-
ing? B. by ground-based measurements of
surface temperatures, carbon dioxide con-
A. Burning Fossil Fuels centration and sea level
B. Pollution from factories C. by collecting “proxy data” from tree
C. Both are causes for Global Warming rings, ice cores, and historical records
D. none of above D. all of the above

7.5 Greenhouse 1130
404. Greenhouse gases are able to absorb and C. precipitation

re-radiate D. climate
A. other gases
410. How do the molecules in cold substances
B. UV radiation move?
C. infrared radiation A. slow
D. visible light B. fast
NARAYAN CHANGDER
405. Which of the following can increase car- C. molecule movement is not determined
bon dioxide to the atmosphere? by temperature
A. photosynthesis D. anyway they want
B. fossil fuel formation 411. In the past, refrigerators, aerosol spray
C. evaporation propellants and cleaning solvents were all
sources of a greenhouse gas known as
D. combustion cars
A. carbon dioxide
406. Where is the ozone layer located? B. methane
A. Mesosphere C. chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
B. Thermosphere D. nitrous oxide
C. Stratosphere
412. Which of the following things could in-
D. Troposphere crease Earth’s temperature?
407. Which of the following actions REMOVES A. A decrease in the amount of green-
carbon from the atmosphere? house gases in the atmosphere
A. wildfires B. Planting more trees
B. decomposing plants C. Widespread removal of tropical
forests
C. volcanoes
D. A reduction in the use of fossil fuels
D. absorbed by oceans
413. Which greenhouse gas has the highest
408. Which of the following activities con-
warming potential?
tributes the most to carbon emissions glob-
ally? A. methane
A. Deforestation B. CFCs
B. Agriculture C. Nitrous oxide
C. Burning fossil fuels D. carbon dioxide
D. Respiration 414. Which of the following is a greenhouse
gas created form cows and other cattle?
409. The average temperature in Northwest
Ohio over a two year period is an example A. CO2
of what B. Methane
A. weather C. Chloroflorcarbon
B. climate change D. water vaopur

7.5 Greenhouse 1131
415. What might happen if the greenhouse ef- 420. The tropical regions are warmer than the
fect didn’t exist? polar regions due to the angle of the Sun’s
rays. As a result, there is generally higher

A. It would be too cold for humans to sur-
pressure at the poles and lower pressure
vive on the earth
at the equator, so which way does the
B. The earth’s temperature would be wind blow on the Earth’s surface?
much more comfortable
A. The wind blows cold air toward the
C. The sun’s rays would never reach the equator from the poles.
surface of the earth
B. The wind blows warm air from the
D. The earth wouldn’t have an atmo- poles to the equator.
sphere
C. The wind blows cold air from the equa-
tor to the poles.
416. What Gases Make Up an Ozone
Molecule? D. The wind blows warm air from the
equator to the poles.
A. 3 Oxygen Atoms
B. 5 Helium Atoms 421. What can we do to slow down enhanced
greenhouse effect
C. 1 Atom of Chlorine
A. Take private cars
D. 13 Atoms of Hydrogen
B. Take public transport
417. Which greenhouse is completely curved C. Deforestation
like a crescent moon?
D. Just do nothing
A. Quonset
422. Global warming is best described as
B. Gothic
A. the temperature of the earth observed
C. Lean-To
over a period of time.
D. Evenspan B. the average rise in temperature over a
period of time.
418. What is one possible effect on people’s
health due to climate change? C. the warming of the earth at by land
breezes.
A. Diseases might spread to new areas
D. the cooling of the atmosphere by spe-
B. People would become shorter
cific substances.
C. More animals might have diseases like
rabies 423. In what form is radiation emitted from
the earth’s surface back into the atmo-
D. Fewer hospitals would be built sphere?
419. What is the main purpose of benches? A. As light
A. To make the greenhouse pretty. B. As greenhouse gases
B. To keep plants from growing. C. As gamma rays
C. To hold plants off the ground. D. As heat
D. To have a place to sit in the green- 424. In “Child on Top of the Greenhouse, “
house. which words best help you feel the wind?

7.5 Greenhouse 1132
A. ”crackling” and “glass” 430. What are the two most common green-
B. ”flashing” and “sunlight” house gases?
C. ”pointing” and “shouting” A. Water Vapor (H2O) and Methane (CH4)
D. ”plunging” and “billowing” B. Carbon Dioxide CO2 and Methane
(CH4)
425. Do we need greenhouse gases on Earth?
C. Water Vapor (H2O) and Carbon Diox-
A. Yes - they keep the Earth warm ide CO2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Yes - they keep all the gases on our D. Water Vapor (H2O) and Nitrous oxide
planet (N2O)
C. No - they only cause terrible climate
change 431. Carbon dioxide is released in the atmo-
sphere MAINLY by
D. No - they only block some of the Sun’s
rays A. Burning fossil fuels like coal and oil
B. Bacteria in soil and ocean
426. A group of components (parts) that work
together is a C. Cows
A. Sphere D. Growing rice
B. System 432. Green House gases
C. Habitat
A. absorb the sun’s radiation and trap
D. Cycle heat
427. is the first greenhouse gas demon- B. are good for our health
strated to be increasing in atmospheric con- C. absorb gravity and keep us attached to
centration. Earth
A. Water vapor D. expulse radiation to the sun and pre-
B. Methane vent us from getting to warm
C. Neon 433. Island nations like the Maldives are con-
D. Carbon dioxide cerned most with which effect of global cli-
mate change?
428. Which one of these is NOT a direct result
of acid rain? A. increased temperatures
A. damage to monuments B. rising sea levels
B. dying fish C. impact on forestry
C. spread of disease D. impact on coral reefs
D. weakened trees
434. Which 2 greenhouse gases contribute the
429. Most abundant greenhouse gas MOST to global warming of Earth?
A. CO2 A. N2O and H2O
B. methane B. O3 and H2O
C. Nitrous oxide C. CO2 and CH4
D. water vapor D. none of above

7.5 Greenhouse 1133
435. About 30% of the sun’s incoming energy 439. What are the effects of enhanced green-
never reaches Earth because it is house effect

A. absorbed by the ocean A. The Earth’s temperature will change
B. trapped by the gravitational pull be- B. The people will faint
tween the moon and the Earth C. People’s eyes will be well rested
C. reflected back into space D. Swimming pools will be dried up
D. destroyed by the ozone layer
440. The temperature is hot.
436. What is the main idea of this text? A. polar
A. Nitrogen is a gas that can be found in B. temperate
all living things, including humans. Oxy- C. tropical
gen is a gas humans breathe in to survive
D. none of above
B. A greenhouse is a building with glass
walls and a glass roof that let in sunlight 441. Sulphur Dioxide can remain in our atmo-
and trap in heat. Plants can be grown in sphere for
greenhouses all year long because they A. 3 Years
stay warm throughout the year
B. 20 Years
C. Greenhouse gases trap heat in our at-
mosphere, just like the glass walls and C. 10 Years
roofs of greenhouses. An increase of D. 2 Years
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has
caused our Earth to warm up very quickly 442. what percentage of greenhouse gases is
Carbon Dioxide?
D. Humans have been adding more and
A. 2%
more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
Most scientists believe that this increase B. 20%
of carbon dioxide caused by human activi- C. 60%
ties is the main cause of global warming
D. 14%
437. Greenhouse gas emissions remain in the
443. This protects us from harmful UV rays
for a very time
from the sun
A. ocean; short
A. Troposphere
B. ocean; long B. Stratosphere
C. atmosphere; short C. Greenhouse Effect
D. atmosphere; long D. Ozone Layer
438. What is the United Nations trying to con- 444. What gas is not the most common in the
trol? human body?
A. Population rise A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Climate change B. Water Vapor
C. Temperature rise C. Methane
D. All of the above D. Nitrous Oxide

7.6 Post Harvest Technology 1134
445. how much cooler would the planet be C. Cooler and more dense than deep
without the greenhouse effect? ocean currents
A. 62 degrees D. Cooler and are created by wind
B. 34 degrees 447. What is the most important thing the
C. 54 degrees Ozone does for us?
D. 20 degrees A. Helps stop dangerous high frequency

wavelengths
NARAYAN CHANGDER
446. Surface currents B. Sits in the Atmosphere
A. Warmer and are created by wind C. Catches pollution
B. Warmer and are more dense than D. Allows suns high frequency waves to
deep ocean currents pass through to Earth
7.6 Post Harvest Technology

1. why do farmers need to have proper post- A. Carcass
harvest handling? B. Abattoir
A. sell quickly C. Lairage
B. ensure good quality of produce D. none of above
C. increase the quantity/yield or crops
5. All of these are the methods to determine
D. reduce insect attack to the crop maturity indices except
2. Which of the following statements is NOT A. Skin colour
true. B. Shape
A. Workers must never harvest covered C. Size
produce contaminated with feces
D. Amount of leaves
B. Workers must never harvest or dis-
tribute dropped covered produce 6. Surface areas close to, but not in direct
Food contact surfaces that can contami-
C. Workers must never clean before san-
nate crops fall in
itizing.
A. Zone 1
D. none of above
B. Zone 2
3. grain is harvested in condition and can C. Zone 3
be stored in before selling
D. Zone 4
A. wet, cooler
B. dry, cooler 7. While cleaning and sanitizing food contact
surfaces:Apply a sanitizer approved for
C. wet, bin storage use on food contact surfaces. Rinsing may
D. dry, bin storage be necessary. Let the surface air dry. is
which step?
4. is a place where animals are slaugh-
tered and butchered in order to provide A. Step 1
meat. B. Step 2

7.6 Post Harvest Technology 1135
C. Step 3 13. is the first step of handling.

D. Step 4 A. Washing and cleaning

B. Pre-sorting
8. Areas within the facility such as the floor
that can contaminate crops fall in C. Packaging
A. Zone 1 D. Dumpling
B. Zone 2 14. While cleaning and sanitizing food contact
C. Zone 3 surfaces:Remove any obvious dirt and de-
bris from the food contact surface is which
D. Zone 4 step?
9. Production practices effect of fruits A. Step 1
and vegetables on postharvest quality and B. Step 2
shelf life.
C. Step 3
A. taste
D. Step 4
B. colour
15. Direct Food contact surfaces that can con-
C. quality taminate crops fall in
D. appearance A. Zone 1
10. is completed natural growth and devel- B. Zone 2
opment, ready for harvest C. Zone 3
A. Ripe D. Zone 4
B. Mature 16. During marketing stage, supplying the
C. Senescence market at the “wrong time” and poor pur-
D. none of above chasing power of buyers/consumers will
affected the
11. cooling of fresh produce should be done to: A. market
A. increase rate of maturity B. quality
B. delay the ripening and spoilage C. physical
C. improve sugar content in fruits and D. none of above
vegetables
17. Areas outside the facility that can contam-
D. increase respiration and the fruit will inate crops fall in
get sweeter
A. Zone 1
12. While cleaning and sanitizing food contact B. Zone 2
surfaces:Apply an appropriate detergent
C. Zone 3
and scrub the surface is which step?
D. Zone 4
A. Step 1
B. Step 2 18. While cleaning and sanitizing food contact
surfaces:Rinse the surface with clean wa-
C. Step 3 ter, making sure to remove all the deter-
D. Step 4 gent and soil is which step?

7.7 Renewable Energy Sources 1136
A. Step 1 C. Step 3
B. Step 2 D. Step 4
7.7 Renewable Energy Sources

1. It is important to conserve nonrenewable B. there is no limit to the supply of fossil
resources because these resources- fuels
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Form from the remains of plants or an- C. the population of the world is decreas-
imals ing
B. May be used up in the near future D. the supply of fossil fuel is diminishing
C. Have less stored energy than renew- 6. An advantage of using solar cells to gener-
able resources ate electricity is that
D. Are easier to find than other resources A. Solar radiation can be blocked by trees
and tall buildings
2. Which nation relies on nuclear power for
the greatest percentage of its electrical B. Solar cells are non-polluting
power? C. Electricity storage is difficult and ex-
A. United States pensive
B. Russia D. Solar radiation intensity varies region-
ally and seasonally
C. France
D. Japan 7. Today, nuclear power provides approxi-
mately what percentage of the world’s
3. What is a non-renewable resource? electricity?
A. Solar energy A. 10%
B. A resource that cannot be reused/ re- B. 14%
cycled
C. 24%
C. Wind energy
D. 5%
D. Biomass
8. which type of renewable energy is cur-
4. Which of the following communities serves rently creating the most electricity gener-
as a model for renewable energy? ation?
A. Greesburg A. geothermal
B. Joplin B. hydroelectric
C. Tuscaloosa C. solar
D. Moore D. wind
5. One reason alternative energy sources are 9. Heating and cooling buildings by exchange
needed is because with shallow groundwater systems is con-
A. the energy needs of the world are de- sidered a form of energy.
creasing A. geothermal

B. solar B. Energy from burning fossil fuels.

C. kinetic C. Energy from the sun.

D. potential D. Energy from turbines.
10. Why do we use non-renewable resources 15. Which of the following is NOT true about
instead of renewable resources? fossil fuels?
A. Less Expensive A. They are non-renewable
B. More Energy B. They occur naturally in the environ-
C. All of the above ment
D. none of above C. They are easily produced
D. They take millions of years to repro-
11. Which of the following is true of infrastruc-
duce
ture.
A. Infrastructure is the money needed to 16. Which of these is a disadvantage of wind-
build a large-scale power plant. mills?
B. Infrastructure is needed only for ma- A. amount of land required
ture technologies. B. time to construct one
C. Infrastructure is the construction and C. the availability of wind
pipelines (or wiring) necessary for larger
scale operations. D. the location of reliable wind
D. none of above 17. Daily choices that humans make affect the
environment. Sometimes, our lifestyles
12. What does the term nonrenewable energy
can harmthe environment. For example,
sources mean?
fossil fuel power plants generate waste
A. Energy can be used more than once in the form of airemissions, thermal re-
B. Energy that can be replenished leases and climatic impacts. Which of the
following statements would bemost help-
C. Energy can be lost once used
ful in protecting the environment from fos-
D. none of above sil fuel power plants?
13. Ethanol can be used as an additive or re- A. Using solar power to generate electric-
placement for petroleum-derived gasoline ity.
A. Ethanol produces more air pollution B. Buying fewer mass produced prod-
than regular gasoline ucts.
B. Ethanol is currently produced mainly C. Buying paper products made from har-
from corn, which can influence food prices vested trees.
C. Ethanol is actually nonrenewable and D. Using natural gas as a fuel source in-
must be extracted from the ground stead of petroleum
D. All other choices 18. Which extremely flammable gas is most
14. Solar energy is commonly burned for fuel in a home
A. Energy from the uneven heating of the A. oxygen

earth. B. natural gas

C. ethanol B. geothermal plants

D. none of above C. fuel cells
19. What is biomass energy? D. hydroelectric plants

A. any organic matter that can be used by 24. What of this set of words belongs to the
burning wood and other plant life. spelling words of the week.
B. Radiant energy emitted by the sun. A. to, too, two, break, brake, peace,
piece.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. made by tapping into steam or hot wa-
ter reservoirs underground B. however, boundary, trout, couch,
D. none of above shout.
C. boundary, elephant, table, chair.
20. Ethanol comes from what type of renew-
able energy resource? D. none of above
A. Geothermal 25. What is a possible downside to hydroelec-
B. Hydroelectric tric energy?
C. Solar A. generates high levels of pollution
D. Biomass B. high startup cost
21. Some power plants pump water down C. low functional lifespan
deep holes into hot rock. The hot rock D. high operation and maintenance cost
heats the water, which turns the water
into steam. The steam rushes back to 26. Nuclear energy is the process of splitting
Earth’s surface and is used to make elec- the nucleus of uranium atoms. While this
tricity. This plant is generating which al- process of producing energy is highly ef-
ternative energy resource? ficient and simple it is still controversial.
Why?
A. biomass
A. If there is a mechanical malfunction at
B. wind
a nuclear energy plant the health and en-
C. solar energy vironmental consequences from radioac-
D. geothermal energy tive particles (radiation) is very harmful
B. It emits enormous amounts of CO2
22. Which type of energy produces Carbon
Dioxide, which can be harmful to our C. It emits enormous amounts of
planet and cause pollution? methane
A. Solar Energy D. If there is a mechanical malformation
enormous amounts of benzene will be re-
B. Wind Energy
leased into the atmosphere
C. Fossil Fuels (Coal, oil, and gas)
27. Energy we get from burning living things
D. Nuclear Energy
A. Hydroelectricity
23. The devices that use ongoing electrochemi-
cal reactions to produce an electric current B. Wind Energy
are called C. Biomass Fuel
A. wind turbines D. Hydrogen Power

28. Which is most impacted when transform- 32. Which of these is non renewable
ing solar energy into electricity? A. natural gas

A. land use B. water in a dam
B. air quality C. solar power
C. water quality D. wind energy
D. weather conditions 33. Hydroelectric dams and tidal power both
use what to turn turbines?
29. What conversion of energy takes place in a
generator for a hydroelectric dam or wind A. water pumped uphill
turbine? B. flowing water
A. Mechanical → Sound C. electricity to split water
B. Electrical → Mechanical D. steam
C. Electrical → Sound 34. Plant materials or animal waste used as

fuel
D. Mechanical → Electrical
A. Coal
30. A hydroelectric dam produces renewable B. Geothermal
energy for the local are. Which best ex-
C. Wind
plains why more hydroelectric dams are
not built? D. Biomass
A. The dam causes air population. 35. Renewable energy technologies must be
B. The dam pollutes the water surround- A. replenishable and sustainable
ing the area. B. replenishable or sustainable
C. The dam disrupts the river wildlife and C. replenishable or sustainable and clean
ecosystem.
D. clean or sustainable
D. The dam disrupts river flow, and the
river runs out of water. 36. Which of the following DOES NOT use a
turbine?
31. How does a dam work? A. Hydroelectric
A. A constant electric current is sent B. Wind
though the water and it provides energy C. Solar
B. A machine creates mini-waves that D. Nuclear
spin a turbine, similar to a windmill
37. Statement:Should India immediately stop
C. Water gates open and close allowing
digging coal from its mines?Arguments:i)
water to flow through channels that con-
Yes. The present stock of coal will not last
tain turbines. The water spins the blade
long if we continue mining at the present
of a turbine. These blades are attached
rate.ii)No. We do not have alternate en-
to a shaft that spins a generator
ergy source of sufficient quantity.iii)No.
D. The addition of water to an area cre- This will put millions of people at a disad-
ates wind currents. These currents of vantage and their lives will get adversely
wind power nearby windmills. affected and also the industry.

A. Only i) and ii) are strong 43. Why do lawmakers have so much to con-
B. Only ii) and iii) are strong sider when debating effective energy poli-
cies?
C. All are strong
A. Petroleum is the ideal fuel source, as
D. None is strong its use has the least impact on the environ-
38. Which country is the world’s leading pro- ment.
ducer of hydroelectricity? B. Nuclear energy is approved by many,
A. China because it is the least risky but cost the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
most to produce.
B. Brazil
C. Hydroelectric power is most useful to
C. United States
the largest number of people and has not
D. France effect on the environment.
39. Why are governments most likely to en- D. Different ways of distributing energy
courage use of other energy sources other have different short-term and long-term
than oil? environmental consequences.
A. Oil is renewable
44. According to the second law of thermody-
B. Oil is nonrenewable namics, whenever one form of energy is
C. Oil is too expensive to use as an energy transformed into another,
source A. all of the energy is put to work
D. Oil is the least efficient source of en- B. all of the energy is converted into a
ergy available. less usable form, like heat
40. Energy can neither be created or , En- C. some of the energy is converted to a
ergy can only be transferred from one less usable form, like heat
place to another. D. 50% of the energy is put to work, the
A. melted rest is lost as heat
B. produced
45. If a 100 W incandescent light bulb uses
C. destroyed 360 kJ of energy per hour, and a compact
D. none of above fluorescent bulb uses as much, how much
energy would a compact fluorescent bulb
41. Which is the largest dam in the world? use in 30 minutes?
A. Hoover Dam, United States A. 4.5 kJ
B. Three Gorges Dam, China B. 9 kJ
C. Itaipu Dam, Brazil and Paraguay C. 45 kJ
D. Cragside Dam, England D. 90 kJ
42. What is the most plentiful fossil fuel?
46. Which of the following countries generates
A. Oil the majority of its electricity from renew-
B. Natural Gas able sources?
C. Petroleum A. Germany
D. Coal B. China

C. Scotland C. Natural Gas

D. Brazil D. Sunlight

47. What do hydroelectric, wind and sunlight 52. Which of the below statement proves that
resources have in common? renewable energy is being effectively used
in the UAE?
A. They are all based on fossil fuels.
A. Shams 1 in Abu Dhabi is the world’s
B. They are al traditional sources of en-
largest solar panel
ergy.
B. Masdar city in Abu Dhabi uses wind en-
C. They are all renewable.
ergy & solar energy
D. They are all nonrenewable.
C. Mohammed Bin Rashid Al Maktoum So-
48. buildings are oriented according to the lar Park is a one-of-a-kind renewable en-
yearly movement of the sun. In summer, ergy project in Dubai. Also known as the
the sun’s path is high in the sky and the Dubai Solar Park, it is the largest single-
overhang of the roof shades the building site concentrated solar energy plant in the
and keeps it cool. In winter, the sun’s path world.
is lower in the sky, so sunlight shines into D. All of the above.
the house and warms it.
53. When a new lake is built for a hydroelec-
A. Photovoltaic energy
tric plant, the new lake floods old forc-
B. Passive solar ing animals to relocate.
C. Active solar A. Deserts
D. Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) B. Cities
49. How do we produce energy from fossil fu- C. Habitats

els? D. None of these
A. Burning it 54. is an energy resource that WILL run
B. Melting it out in the next several hundred years.
C. Using it to turn a turbine A. Renewable Energy
D. Decaying it B. Fossil Fuels
C. Nonrenewable Energy
50. This renewable resource is often captured
by large panels on rooftops. D. none of above
A. Wind Energy 55. what is a renewable resource used for?
B. Solar Energy A. food
C. Geothermal B. diging
D. Biomass C. energy
51. Which of the following resources is sus- D. smelting
tainable? 56. All of the following are types of fossil fu-
A. Coal els EXCEPT
B. Petroleum A. coal

B. oil or petroleum 61. Scientists are currently researching new

C. uranium ways to obtain energy from our natu-
ral, renewableresources. Which state-
D. natural gas ment gives the best explanation of the
benefits of renewable resources.
57. If a river is located in a deep canyon, and
has changing amounts of water, how can A. Renewable resources are nonrenew-
this be developed as an energy source? able and expensive to produce.
B. Renewable resources are versatile
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A dam could be built to store water
and emit various amounts of pollution.
B. A well could be dug to hold the water
C. Renewable resources generates en-
C. Wind turbines could be built on the ergy that produces no greenhouse gases.
banks.
D. Renewable resources are natural, but
D. You could fish in the river. cause destruction of land surrounding pro-
duction.
58. What is the relationship between CO2 and
temperature over time? 62. Energy from deep within the Earth is called
A. CO2 is decreasing, temperature is in- energy.
creasing A. solar
B. CO2 is increasing, temperature is de- B. wind
creasing
C. biomass
C. They’re both increasing together
D. geothermal
D. They both are staying constant
63. If some resources are renewable, like wa-
59. Hydroelectric power plants can cause dis- ter and soil, polluting them
ruptions to ecosystems. What steps have
been taken to help keep fish populations A. is not harmful because they will rapidly
in balance? renew themselves
A. Scientists have added more bears to B. is not harmful because humans can fix
the area. any problems quickly
B. Scientists have removed all bears from C. is harmful because it hurts humans
the area. D. is harmful because it hurts all organ-
C. They posted no fishing signs. isms
D. They added “fish ladders”. 64. Thermal energy from Earth’s interior is
called energy
60. Why are we researching new fuel sources?
A. geothermal
A. so we can use more nonrenewable re-
sources B. microthermal
B. so we can make more money C. potential
C. so we can use less nonrenewable re- D. action

sources 65. Which of the following describes
D. none of above economies of scale?

A. A system that weighs the amount of 70. Water is renewable because it

coal necessary for each megawatt pro- A. can be frozen
duced.

B. important to all life
B. A country whose economy is based on
the metric system. C. can be replaced constantly
C. A pricing scheme that allows entr- D. can evaporate
preneurs to charge different prices.
71. Carbon neutrality refers to I. using renew-
D. A concept that says when more units able sources of energy. II. an activity that
are produced, each unit has a lower cost. does not change atmospheric CO2 concen-
66. The sunny is shining on a cold winter day. trations. III. implementing efficient mea-
When you get into your car, the inside is sures to reduce carbon emissions.
warm. How can this be? A. I only
A. Nuclear energy B. II only
B. Passive solar energy C. III only
C. Active solar energy D. I and II
D. All of these choices
72. Which of these is a practice that sustains
67. UAE is blessed in abundance with renew- or conserves natural resources?
able source of energy which is A. leaving the TV on all dayleaving the TV
A. Wind Energy on all day
B. Tidal Power B. filling the bathtub to the top
C. Solar Energy C. recycling cans
D. none of above D. burning newspapers
68. What are two negative impacts that dams 73. Deforestation is the clearance, or removal
have on the environment? of a forest from land which is then con-
A. Pollution from run off and displace- verted to anon-forest use. Deforestation
ment of ecosystems can involve the conversion of forest land
to farms, ranches, orurban use. The most
B. Displacement of ecosystems and po-
concentrated deforestation occurs in tropi-
tential risk of major flooding
cal rainforests. Deforestation ofareas con-
C. Mass extinction of fish and displace- sidered to be rich sources of genetic mate-
ment of ecosystems rial could limit future agricultural andmed-
D. Risk of flooding and mass extinctions ical advances for future generations. How
of fish could deforestation limit agricultural and
medicaladvances?
69. This pumps a heat absorbing fluid medium
A. It can maintain the ecosystem equilib-
through a relatively small collector.
rium.
A. cogeneration
B. It can deplete the ecosystem’s ozone
B. photovoltaic cells layer.
C. concentrating solar power system C. It can decrease the ecosystem’s biodi-
D. active solar system versity.

D. It can increase the ecosystem’s carry- B. Wind, coal and gas

ing capacity. C. Biomass, wind and geothermal
74. Which if the following is NOT true? D. Oil, natural gas and coal
A. Natural gas is a non-renewable re- 79. What is energy from the sun called?
source and should be conserved
A. solar energy
B. Water is a renewable resource and
B. nuclear energy
should be conserved
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. hydroelectric power
C. Plants are a non-renewable resource
because they produce food D. none of above
D. Carbon Dioxide is a renewable re- 80. Energy created from wood, peat moss, and
source that is all around us manure is called energy.
75. Which of the following is not a method of A. Biomass
generating hydroelectricity? B. Natural
A. run-of-the-river C. Geothermal
B. water impoundment D. Solar
C. tidal systems 81. A hydroelectric power plant’s rate of elec-
D. ground source pumps tricity generation depends onI. The flow
rate of the waterII. The vertical distance
76. What do you believe could be the long term the water fallsIII. The amount of water be-
effects of coal mining on the environment? hind the dam
A. It can cause a decrease in human A. I only
health by causing black lung disease.
B. I and II only
B. Coal mining could lead to black snow,
where ash falls from the sky. Common C. II only
with volcanic eruptions. D. I and III only
C. Mining in the area could strip the land 82. The intense heat from Earth’s interior that
of its natural resources in that area. warms the magma beneath Earth’s surface
D. Coal from mining can wash into bodies is called
of water and cause an overgrowth of al- A. solar energy.
gae.
B. tidal energy.
77. Which country generates the most electric- C. geothermal energy.
ity from wind energy?
D. hydrogen power.
A. China
83. Uses the motion of water to turn turbines,
B. United States
creating electricity.
C. Denmark
A. Hydro
D. Germany B. Wind
78. Which of these are FOSSIL fuels? C. Biomass
A. Oil, natural gas and solar D. Solar

84. What is one disadvantage of using water C. wind

power? D. hydroelectric

A. Dams are expensive to build
90. Sustainable energy source used for single
B. It creates a lot of electricity family use that requires a year round run-
C. It is renewable ning stream is called
D. none of above A. algae
B. hydroelectric plant
85. Which of the following type of energy is
nonrenewable C. micro hydro generators
A. Wind D. fuel cells
B. Geothermal 91. What is one benefit of using renewable re-
C. Coal sources to produce energy?
D. Biomass A. Renewable resources cannot be used
up permanently.
86. A resource that is used faster than we can B. Renewable resources are available ev-
replace it is known as a erywhere.
A. renewable resource C. Producing energy from renewable re-
B. non renewable resource sources is easy.
C. natural resource D. Producing energy from renewable re-
D. income resource sources relies on weather.
87. Hydroelectricity and Wind Power are both 92. Sources of energy made from prehistoric
indirect forms of what? plants and animals.
A. the sun
A. Hydrogen
B. the wind
B. Geothermal Energy
C. fossil fuels
C. Solar Energy
D. none of above
D. Nuclear
88. When energy from the sun is used to heat
alternative energy (renewable)?
something directly (with no moving parts),
it is called A. hydroelectric dams
A. active solar heating B. wind farms
B. passive solar heating C. geothermal energy
C. photovoltaic cells D. all of the above
D. none of above 94. Why is it beneficial to use natural gas?
89. Which of the following renewable re- A. there is a limited supply
sources does emit greenhouse gases? B. it releases low emissions
A. biomass C. it is nonrenewable
B. solar D. none of above

95. what is a fossil fuel C. The set-up cost is too expensive.

A. oil D. The machines are too large.
B. biomass 101. Which of the following is not a renewable
C. wind resource?
D. hydro A. wind
B. sunlight
96. Which of the following can NOT trace their
NARAYAN CHANGDER
original energy source back to the sun? C. water
A. hydropower D. fossil fuels
B. geothermal 102. What device would change electricity into
C. wind both heat and light?
D. solar A. electric motor
B. loudspeaker
97. Which is NOT an example of biomass?
C. calculator
A. wood
D. light bulb
B. crop leftovers (the part of the plant
that isn’t consumed) 103. Which fossil fuel is created from the de-
cayed remains of plants?
C. manure and/or trash
A. Oil
D. petroleum
B. Coal
98. Which two energy sources require open
C. Natural Gas
space?
D. none of above
A. biomass and natural gas
B. wind and solar 104. Which type of resource is coal?
C. hydropower and wind A. non-renewable energy resource
D. none of above B. renewable energy resource

C. green energy resource
99. Which of the following energy resources is
D. green living resource
considered to be nonrenewable?
A. water 105. Which energy source uses agriculture and
forest byproducts?
B. wind
A. wind
C. coal
B. biomass
D. biomass
C. solar
100. Why don’t we use solar energy or D. none of above
geothermal energy as much as we could?
A. The sun and geothermal energy are 106. The energy resource that is most affected
limited. by change in weather is ?
B. The sun and geothermal are too weak A. geothermal

in certain areas. B. wind

C. nuclear C. A new company with several share-

D. natural gas holders.

D. A renewable technology in a develop-
107. Plant materials and animal waste used ing country.
especially as a source of fuel.
A. BIODEGRADABLE 112. Which of the following terms refers to a
device that generates electricity by chemi-
B. BIOMASS cal reactions involving hydrogen?
C. REDUCE A. power tower
D. RECYCLABLE B. alternative energy
108. Which of the following energy sources is C. fuel cell
energy that comes from within the earth? D. biofuel
A. Wind
113. One problem with energy is that it
B. Solar produces radioactive waste.
C. Geothermal A. nuclear
D. Biomass B. solar
109. This renewable energy is created using C. tidal
heat from the earth to boil water, create D. geothermal
steam and turn turbines
114. If an energy sources is considered green,
A. Wind what does that mean?
B. Solar A. its emissions come out green colored
C. Hydroelectric B. it is better for the environment be-
D. Geothermal cause it has little to no emissions
110. Which is incorrect about a hydroelectric C. it has more emissions and pollution
plant? than most energy sources
A. reservoir is a large body of water be- D. they have recently been approved by
hind the dam the Environmental Protection Agency
B. dam opens and water travels through 115. Which is a nonrenewable source of en-
reservoir to spin turbine ergy?
C. penstock is the tube that water travels A. nuclear
through B. wind
D. moving water spins turbine, attached C. sunlight
to generator, which sends electric current
D. biomass
111. Which of the following best describes
116. Which of the following is nonrenewable
what investment is?
A. Solar
A. A required payment to owners of a
company. B. Wind
B. An amount of money to pay for larger C. Hydroelectric
operations. D. Nuclear

117. When learning new information about al- C. table, chair, couch, sofa, lamp.
ternative energy sources, what is a good D. none of above
practice to use?
122. This is formed from heat deep within the
A. never apply new information to your
earth.
life
A. Nuclear
B. always take what someone tells you as
a true statement B. Geothermal
C. Hydropower
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. research ideas on your own to make
sure you have enough information D. Biomass
D. ignore new ideas and information if it 123. Units of light energy from the Sun are
goes against what you already know called
A. rays.
118. Which disaster led to the Oil Pollution Act
in 1990 B. phases.
A. Deep Horizon drilling rig C. photons.
B. Gulf of Mexico Oil Spill D. solar cell.
C. Exxon Valdex Oil Spill in Alaska 124. Of the various non-conventional energy
sources that are being tapped, which has
D. California Coast Oil Spill of 2000
the largest potential?
119. Biomass energy A. Water power
A. requires fossil fuel input to produce B. Wind power
B. produces no greenhouse gases when C. Solar power
burned D. Biomass power
C. can be created by microbial action or 125. How is the concept of tidal energy and
burned directly as wood or dung wind energy similar?
D. is a form of fossil fuel A. They can both be used anytime and
anywhere on earth
120. Which renewable energy source is the
largest contributor of energy sources in B. They both need external energy
the U.S.? sources to power a turbine, so they are
very inefficient.
A. solar
C. They both have to be located directly
B. hydroelctric on a coast to work effectively
C. wind D. They both use a turbine with blades
D. tidal that spins a rotor attached to a shaft that
spins a generator
121. This set of words belongs to the new
words vocabulary 126. What is hydroelectric power?
A. electricity produced by flowing water
A. boundary, trout, shout, couch, how-
ever. B. wind power
B. brilliant, chorus, coward, gleamed, C. energy from the sun
shimmering. D. none of above

127. Why is petroleum the primary fuel used C. They are only found in limited quanti-
for transportation in the United States? I. ties.
It has a high energy value per unit volume.

D. They cannot be replenished.
II. It has quick start and stop times for
providing energy. III. It produces a low 132. Which energy source contributes to air
amount of pollution per Joule. pollution?
A. I and II only A. hydropower
B. I, II, and III B. solar
C. I, and III only C. geothermal
D. II, and III only D. biomass
128. When you turn off the water between 133. Which would most likely happen to a lo-
washing dishes, which conservation effort cal population of owls if their food source
are you practicing? of field mice were eliminated?
A. reducing A. The owls would immediately starve to
death.
B. reusing
B. The owls would prey on another simi-
C. recycling
lar animal as food source.
D. all of the above
C. The owls would begin eating berries
129. Renewable energies generate from natu- found in the same habitat area.
ral sources that can be replaced over a rela- D. The owls would live off stored fat re-
tively short time scale. The following are serves until mice returned to the area.
examples of renewable energy resources
except 134. Nuclear fusion promises to be a virtually
limitless supply of energy. However at
A. solar present, it is not used to produce any elec-
B. fossil fuels tricity at all, because:
C. wind A. environmental sentiment has put nu-
D. biomass clear power into disfavor
B. scarcity of appropriate fuel
130. Which type of fuel produces the most sul-
C. current technology is insufficient
fur?
D. there are no safe sites to store the
A. wind
highly toxic waste produced by fusion
B. coal
135. To produce the same intensity and color
C. biomass
of light, you can choose from a 60-watt
D. nuclear fission incandescent bulb, a 17-watt compact flu-
orescent bulb, or a 10-watt LED bulb
131. Why are fossil fuels considered nonre-
newable? A. The incandescent bulb
A. They are replenished by processes B. The compact fluorescent (CFL) bulb

that take millions of years. C. The LED bulb
B. They are formed from living things. D. All other choices

136. Of all fossil fuels, which is considered the 141. This burn wood chips, agricultural waste
“dirtiest”? or other biomass fuels to power electric
A. Gas generating turbines.
B. Oil A. passive homes

C. They are all equally as dirty B. reformer
D. Coal C. flex fuel boilers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. Which of the methods of generating elec- D. feed in tariffs
tricity does NOT use alternative energy re-
sources? 142. Which activity uses a nonrenewable re-
A. Burning natural gas in a power plant source?
B. Turbines spinning in dam A. heating a building with solar panels
C. Solar panels taking in light energy B. building a house with timber
D. Drilling wells to reach hot rocks deep C. driving a car that uses gasoline
inside the earth
D. pumping water with wind power
138. A reservoir is a large man-made lake
important to what renewable energy re- 143. Oil is used to make
source?
A. gasoline & other types of fuel
A. Geothermal
B. plastics, DVDs, and tires
B. Hydroelectric
C. Biomass C. Energy
D. Wind D. All of the above
139. which best describes a negative conse- 144. Which form of sustainable energy is the
quence of cutting down large areas of rain cheapest form of new energy?
forest?
A. wind turbines
A. an increase in rain fall in the areas
B. geothermal plants
B. a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in
the aarea C. fuel cells
C. the contamination of soil and water in D. hydroelectric plants
the areas
D. a decrease in the habitats of many 145. Which statement is true?
species of plant and animals.
A. Oil is an example of a renewable re-
140. Created from the mineral uranium, a non- source.
renewable energy source. B. Humans are a renewable resource
A. Coal
C. Wood is an example of a nonrenew-
B. Nuclear able resource.
C. Oil D. Fish are an example of a renewable re-
D. Natural Gas source.

146. Renewable resources are NOT wisely 151. Which of the following are the most en-
managed when ergy efficient light bulbs?

A. the government passes laws to encour- A. incandescent
age their use B. compact florescent
B. people buy products that are made C. LED
with these resources
D. halogen
C. people do not use them whenever it is
possible to do so 152. wich word completes the following set of
wordsin the open, outside
D. none of above
A. camping
147. Which of the renewable energy sources B. garden
creates the cheapest electricity?
C. outdoors
A. Biomass
D. none of above
B. Solar
153. Energy from the uneven heating of the
C. Wind Earth is called -
D. Geothermal A. solar
148. What type of renewable energy comes B. wind
from tapping heat generated inside the C. geothermal
Earth?
D. biomass
A. Wind power
154. Wind turbines are used for what purpose
B. Solar power in a wind mill
C. Wave and tidal power A. For giving aesthetic look
D. Geothermal energy B. For creating noise pollution
149. Geothermal energy is created when C. For rotating and making kinetic energy
into mechanical energy
A. cold water is pumped into ground,
heated by magma and turned to steam D. All the above
B. when wind blows and creates electric- 155. Fossil fuels are nonrenewable resources
ity because they
C. when running water turns turbines A. take millions of years to form
and creates electricity B. are easily replaced
D. none of above C. are in high demand
150. Which is not a form of biomass? D. don’t pollute the air
A. Coal 156. Hydropower generates over 60% of the

world’s renewable energy. What could be
B. Ethanol
an environmental impact of this method of
C. Charcoal power generation?
D. Manure A. It emits greenhouse gases.

B. It produces air pollutants. B. they are not powerful

C. It contaminates groundwater re- C. they don’t create much pollution
sources. D. none of above
D. It results in the destruction of plant
and animal habitats. 161. What is a disadvantage of wind power?
A. We have too many rainy days in US
157. Which of the following is a disadvantage
of nonrenewable energy resources? B. It is not always windy in some places
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Resources such as geothermal or hy- C. Companies charge too much to make
droelectric are not available at all loca- the wind blow
tions. D. The sun is not always out
B. Resources such as biofuels, even 162. What is the renewable source of energy
though they are replaceable, still produce that comes from extreme heat within the
pollution. Earth?
C. Resources such as natural gas are fi- A. Solar
nite in their availability and are not re-
placed for millions of years. B. Hydroelectric
D. Resources such as wind power or so- C. Geothermal

lar are not available at all times and re- D. Biomass
quire other resources as backup.
163. Why is developing renewable energy im-
158. People can save the earth from global portant to life on Earth?
warming by doing which one of these A. Other energy sources will be used up
things. and gone forever
A. stop using the sun for resources. B. We will run out of energy
B. recycling products made from carbon. C. Renewable energy produces less pol-
C. putting more natural gas in their vehi- lution
cles. D. All of the above
D. using more energy that makes a car-
164. comes from tiny animals that died in
bon copy.
the ocean millions of years ago.
159. what is a drawback of using ethanol as a A. Natural gas
fuel alternative to gasoline?
B. Oil
A. it is produced from a food item
C. Gasoline
B. produces more pollution than gas
D. Coal
C. nonrenewable and comes from the
ground 165. In this diagram of an electric circuit, what
is actually flowing through the wires, pro-
D. burns worse than gasoline
viding the energy needed to power the
160. Solar power, wind power, and water light bulb?
power are good because A. Electrons
A. they are expensive B. Protons

C. Neutrons 171. Energy conservation in the United States

D. Large atoms

A. can be accomplished only through
166. Which of the following energy sources
changes in environmental laws
can meet all energy needs?
B. is unlikely to ever occur
A. solar
C. can be accomplished by changes in tax
B. hydroelectric
laws
C. biomass
D. can be improved as individuals make
D. geothermal conscious choices to reduce personal con-
167. Nuclear fussion releases energy which sumption
is used to heat water, which produces
172. A disadvantage of solar energy is
steam, which drives turbines to produce
what ? A. that the clouds can block the sunlight
A. Electricity B. it is not available at night
B. Uranium C. that the clouds can block the sunlight
C. Natural Gas and it is not available at night
D. none of above D. the sun is too hot to be absorbed in so-
lar panels
168. These fuels are made from living things
such as leaves, food wastes, and manure. 173. Petroleum is mainly used in the United
States for
A. geothermal fuels
B. hydrogen fuels A. gasoline for cars
C. biomass fuels B. running coal burning power plants

D. none of above C. making windmills turn
D. burning for heat
169. All of the following renewable resources
are derived from the sun in some way EX- 174. Energy that comes from natural resources
CEPT that can be replenished are called?
A. biomass A. nonrenewable
B. wind
B. energy in motion
C. hydroelectric
C. untapped energy
D. geothermal
D. renewable
170. Renewable energy resources
175. Which form of renewable energy does
A. have a limited supply and will eventu- not rely on physically spinning a large tur-
ally be gone bine to generate electric current?
B. have the ability to regrow or regener-
A. Hydrokinetic
ate over short time periods
B. Geothermal
C. take 100’s to 1000’s of years to regen-
erate C. Wind farms
D. have pollution contents D. Photovoltaic solar cell

176. Oil, natural gas and coal are called 181. The uneven heating of Earth’s surface by
resources because they are not easy to re- the Sun contributes to which of the follow-
place. ing sources of renewable energy?
A. fossil fuels A. Solar
B. cheap B. Geothermal
C. natural resources C. Biomass

D. Wind
D. nonrenewable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
182. Which energy source below does NOT use
177. Which renewable energy source is used a turbine to make energy?
by 90% of people in Iceland?
A. coal
A. Solar
B. nuclear
B. Geothermal
C. hydroelectric
C. Biomass D. photovoltaic cells
D. Hydroelectric
183. What is the best title for the follow-
178. Which energy resource would be most ing?geothermalsolarwind
beneficial in an area that experiences A. fossil fuels
hot summer days, little rain, and calm B. nonrenewable energy
weather?
C. heat energy
A. Hydroelectric
D. renewable energy
B. Geothermal
184. Fossil Fuel are?
C. Solar
A. A group of energy resources that were
D. Wind formed from ancient plants and organ-
isms
179. How is energy transported in a circuit
with a solar panel and an electronic de- B. A group of dinosaur fossils
vice? C. A type of gas used for planes
A. neutrons D. none of above
B. electrons 185. What is an advantage of using wind and
C. protons solar energy?
D. ions A. they will not run out

B. they will harm the environment
180. Besides coal and natural gas, another fos-
C. they will produce emissions
sil fuel is
D. they will eventually run out
A. petroleum/oil
186. Resources that are not able to be re-
B. biomass
produced as quickly as they are used are
C. electricity called
D. none of above A. renewable resources

B. replaceable resources 192. If the capacity of a power plant is 1, 000

MW and its capacity factor is 0.9, how
C. non renewable resources
much energy in MWh can the power plant

D. non replaceable resources produce in 1 day?
187. Which of the following sources of renew- A. 27, 000 MWh

able energy is used by NASA to propel B. 26, 700 MWh
rockets into orbit?
C. 21, 600 MWh
A. Hydropower
D. 2, 160 MWh
B. Wind
C. Hydrogen 193. Wind energy is caused by the uneven
of the atmosphere by the sun.
D. Tidal Energy
A. Heating
188. which of the following is the least energy B. Cooling
efficient light bulbs?
C. Distribution
A. incandescent
D. Gravity
B. compact fluorescent
C. LED 194. The majority (82%) of our energy is gen-
erated from
D. halogen
189. Which location would be best for wind en-
B. fossil fuels
ergy?
C. alternative energy
A. Arizona
D. nuclear energy
B. Oklahoma
C. Hawaii 195. which part of an atom moves to create
D. Colorado current?
A. proton
190. What is the waste (exhaust) from a hy-
drogen fuel cell? B. neutron
A. electricity C. electron
B. water D. none of above
C. oxygen 196. All of the following describe PV cells ex-

D. hydrogen cept
A. are made up of silicon
191. Energy we get from earth’s interior heat
B. is the most efficient
A. Geothermal
C. heat causes electrons to flow and they
B. Solar Energy cause mechanical energy which allows
C. Wind Energy generator to send an electric current
D. Hydroelectricity D. all of the above describe solar energy

197. Name two advantages of nuclear energy. A. the heat produced by radioactive de-
A. Very concentrated and produces cay boils water, which drives a turbine
greenhouse gases. generator
B. spontaneous decay of radioisotopes
B. Does not produce greenhouse gases
creates a strong magnetic field
and is extremely cheap
C. thermoelectric cells in the core con-
C. Very concentrated and does NOT pro-
vert heat into electricity
duce greenhouse gases.
D. alpha decay emits electrons, which are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Does not produce greenhouse gases collected by the control rods
and is extremely expensive
202. Generators are used to produce electric-
198. What is a major reason for switching ity from all of these sources EXCEPT
from fossil fuels as an energy source to
A. solar
renewable energy sources?
B. wind
A. fossil fuels do not produce a lot of en-
ergy C. tidal
B. fossil fuels emit a lot of pollutants D. nuclear
when burned for energy 203. A layer of material that helps block the
C. fossil fuels are hard to obtain transfer of heat between the air inside and
outside a building is called
D. fossil fuels are more expensive than
renewable energy source A. solar cell.
B. insulation.
199. What is the best pro about renewable re-
sources? C. an active solar system.
D. a heat exchanger.
A. The are inexpensive
B. They are always available 204. What are the two main advantages and
disadvantages of renewable energy
C. They are expensive
A. Abundant and cheap; dirty and they
D. They create pollution never renew
200. All of the following are true about nuclear B. Abundant and clean; dirty and never
power plants EXCEPT renew
A. one benefit is large amounts of elec- C. Can be used repeatedly and they are
tricity produced clean; expensive and not accessible every-
where
B. one benefit is radioactive waste is pro-
duced D. Accessible everywhere and cheap;
dirty and limited
C. one consequence is radioactive waste
is produced 205. What is given off as waste in a hydrogen
fueled car?
D. one benefit is very little pollution is pro-
duced A. H2
B. O2
201. Exactly how does a commercial nuclear
power plant convert the energy of atomic C. H2O2
nuclei into electricity? D. H2O

206. A drawback of this renewable energy is 211. It is electricity produced from hy-
the death of birds and bats dropower.

A. Wind A. geothermal energy
B. Solar B. hydroelectric energy
C. Hydroelectric C. tidal energy
D. Geothermal D. none of above
207. What happens if humans use a large 212. All of the following are considered alter-
amount of a resource, such as oil, in a rel- native energy sources EXCEPT -
atively short period of time? A. Wind
A. The Earth produces more of the re- B. Coal
source very rapidly.
C. Biofuel
B. Humans produce more of the resource
very rapidly. D. Solar
C. The resource can become scarce or 213. An advantage of this energy source is it
disappear altogether. uses resources that can be renewed.
D. Nothing happens because all re- A. Coal
sources are in infinite supply. B. Oil
208. Hot water is pumped up from deep inside C. Biomass
Earth and is used to heat homes or to gen- D. Natural Gas
erate electricity. This describes
A. biofuels 214. All of the following are considered renew-
able energy sources EXCEPT -
B. hydroelectric energy
A. Wind
B. Coal
D. hot water heating
C. Geothermal
209. This is formed from plants, garbage, and D. Solar
waste.
A. Biomass 215. To generate electricity, moving water
spins a , which then spins a
B. Coal
A. generator; turbine
C. Geothermal
B. turbine; generator
D. Solar
C. dam; turbine
210. Which energy source consumed by hu- D. generator; dam
mans is considered a nonrenewable re-
source? 216. Nuclear power uses for fuel.
A. fossil fuels A. steel
B. hydroelectricity B. coal
C. solar energy C. uranium
D. wind power D. hydrogen

217. What is one disadvantage of using solar C. Coal and Trees

power?
D. Oil and water
A. It is free
B. At night, no power can be made 222. What is one advantage to using fossil fu-
els as a primary energy source?
C. It is renewable
D. none of above A. Fossil fuels are made from decaying
plant and animal remains in a short pe-
218. Which of the following best explains how
NARAYAN CHANGDER
riod of time, making them a good energy
solar energy works? source.
A. We harness energy straight from the B. The technology for fossil fuel combus-
sun’s core with orbiting satellites, and tion is well understood, and the energy
that energy is transferred here through can be produced relatively cheaply.
radio waves
C. Fossil fuel combustion creates less
B. Photons (light energy) from the sun en- pollution than getting energy from hy-
ters earth’s atmosphere, and these light droelectric, solar, and nuclear energy
particles react with particles on earth. sources.
When these particles collide with one an-
other energy is released D. There is no way to store energy made
from other sources, but fossil fuels can be
C. When the sun’s rays react with earth’s
combusted 24 hours a day.
magnetic field, it generates electricity.
D. The heat from the sun warms solar 223. In 1976, Congress passed the Resource
panels, and the heat generated from the Conservation and Recovery Act to in-
solar panel is what we use. crease recyclingand conservation efforts
as waste became a bigger problem in an ur-
219. This renewable resource comes from
banized world. The slogan“reduce, reuse,
deep within the Earth.
recycle” was used to educate the commu-
A. Biomass nity on environmentally friendlypractices.
B. Geothermal Energy Which of the following is a benefit of such
conservation efforts?
C. Hydropower
D. Solar Energy A. An increase in pollution
220. What was the main source of energy for B. A decrease in land availability
the world until the mid-1800’s? C. A decrease in human population
A. wind D. An increase in sustainable practices
B. solar
C. geothermal 224. wich word completes the following set of
wordseyelash, mustache
D. biomass (wood)
A. eyes
221. Which is an example of Earth’s renew-
able resource? B. eyebrown
A. Natural gas and sunlight C. nose

B. Water and Plants D. none of above

225. What 2 countries use more energy than C. renewable energy

us? D. conservation

A. Canada and England
231. Which of the following is caused by the
B. United Arab Emirates and Canada
gravitational pull of the Moon?
C. United Arab emirates and England
A. Sunlight
D. Canada and Russia
B. Hydrogen
226. uses the sun’s energy to heat some- C. Biomass
thing directly, which is considered the sim-
plest form of solar energy. D. Tides
A. Active solar heating 232. Why are greenhouse gases so bad?

B. Photovoltaic cells A. They cause people to get sick
C. Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) B. They trap heat in the atmosphere
D. Passive solar heating C. They have destroyed the entire ozone
layer
227. Which renewable resource gets its direct
energy from the sun? D. They trap heat in the atmosphere and
have destroyed the entire ozone layer.
A. Geothermal
B. Solar 233. Which is NOT an advantage of geother-
C. Wind mal power?
D. Hydrogen A. renewable
B. no pollution
228. Wind Energy is
C. you don’t have to transport it
A. Energy that comes from harnessing
the movement of the air D. geysers and volcanoes are every-
where
B. Energy that comes from the Sun
C. A source of renewable energy, such as 234. What two renewable energy sources are
solar, wind, or geothermal energy best options for developing countries?
D. Fuel from plant material A. wind and water
229. What are two advantages of geothermal B. solar and wind

energy? C. geothermal and solar
A. cheap and a lot pollution D. biomass and solar
B. expensive and a lot of pollution
235. Sunlight, water, and wind are examples
C. cheap and little pollution of inexhaustible forms of energy. What
D. expensive and little pollution does inexhaustible mean?
A. We will run out at any minute.
230. The wise use and protection of natural re-
sources. B. We will never run out.
A. natural resources C. We will run out in 100 years.
B. green D. We will run out in 20 years.

236. Hydroelectric power produces electricity 242. Which of the following is the largest
using renewable energy source in the United
A. Wind States today?
B. Sunlight A. Coal
C. Moving water B. Natural gas
D. Dung C. Hydropower
237. The energy generated from heat within D. Wind
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Earth. 243. What is the primary energy source on
A. Earth crustal energy Earth?
B. Geothermal energy A. gravity
C. Inner heat energy B. the sun
D. Molten fuel C. fossil fuels
238. Which example is NOT a renewable re- D. the atom
source?
244. What phrase correctly describes energy
A. Trees
being changed from one form into an-
B. Wind other?
C. Solar A. energy transformation
D. Uranium (Nuclear) B. power conservation
239. Which of the following are ways by C. conservation of momentum
which geothermal energy finds its way to
D. law of gravity
the Earth’s surface?
A. hot springs 245. How can people reduce the amount of re-
sources they use?
B. mountains
C. islands A. make more landfills and garbage
dumps
D. none of above
B. buy products with lots of packaging
240. What type of renewable energy comes
C. use water, electricity, and gas con-
from building dams on rivers?
servatively and recycle metal, paper, and
A. Wind power glass
B. Solar power D. Think only about what you need right
C. Hydropower now and don’t worry about the future
D. Geothermal energy 246. Which renewable energy does not require
241. What is biomass? spinning a turbine?
A. energy from the sun A. hydroelectric
B. energy from water B. wind
C. energy from wind C. tidal
D. energy from plant and animal waste D. photovoltaic cells

247. Which energy source uses turbines that 252. As countries become more developed, the
spin in open air? demand for

A. nuclear A. commercial energy sources increases.
B. hydropower B. subsistence energy sources increases
C. wind C. nuclear energy sources decreases.
D. none of above D. commercial energy sources de-
creases.
248. Which will most likely be a consequence
253. A major disadvantage of nuclear power
as fossil fuel reserves are depleted?
is -
A. pollution will increase
A. creates a small amount of energy
B. the cost of gasoline will increase
B. no greenhouse gases produced
C. Dependence on renewable energy will C. creates radioactive waste
decrease.
D. none of above
D. The demand for energy production will
decrease 254. What is needed to convert solar energy
into electricity?
249. Fuel cells produce using .
A. Wind turbines
A. electricity; hydrogen or methanol
B. Solar Panels
B. heat; electricity C. Dams
C. carbon dioxide; biofuel D. None of these
D. light; heat
255. A large number of species on Earth be-
250. Plant or animal material used for energy came extinct during a short time period
production, or in various industrial pro- about 65 million years ago. Based on this
cesses as raw substance for a range of pattern of extinction, which is the most
products. likely cause?
A. geothermal energy A. gradual climate change

B. continued climate stability
B. biomass
C. sudden global climate change
C. fossil fuel
D. gradual ecosystem succession
D. none of above
256. These capture solar energy and convert
251. An energy resource that can be regener- it directly to electrical current by separat-
ated indefinitely, as long as it is not over- ing electrons from their parent atoms and
harvested, is a. perpetual. b. nonrenew- accelerating them across a one way elec-
able. c. nondepletable. d. unsustainable. trostatic barrier.
A. perpetual A. cogeneration
B. unsustainable B. photovoltaic cells
C. nonrenewable C. concentrating solar power system
D. potentially renewable D. active solar system

257. What are fossil fuels? 262. what was the art work this week?
A. coal, oil, uranium A. Feelings faces
B. oil, natural gas, uranium B. a mandala rock
C. coal, oil, natural gas
C. a perspective drawing.
D. geothemals, coal, natural gas
D. none of above
258. Which of the following is NOT true about
263. is energy from a source that is re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the benefits of renewable energy.
plenished quickly enough that it will not
A. The majority of sources do not produce
be used up faster than it can be produced
greenhouse gases
B. It’s initial cost is cheap A. Non-renewable energy
C. The sources can be used as much as B. Renewable energy

needed without depleting the supply C. Nuclear energy
D. They’re safe to use
D. Recycled energy
259. What % of the energy in the U.S. comes
from renewable energy? 264. Which of the following renewable energy
sources is most used in the world?
A. 5.5%
A. wind
B. 14%
C. 26% B. hydroelectric power
D. 85% C. biomass
260. Which type of alternative energy source D. coal

has the potential for visual and noise pol-
265. Which is NOT a way to conserve energy?
lution?
A. Geothermal energy A. Using a desktop computer rather than
a laptop
B. Hydroelectric energy
B. Consolidating errands while to make
C. Wind power
fewer car tips
D. Solar power
C. Replacing incandescent bulbs with
261. Two clear solutions are mixed together compact fluorescent bulbs
in a beaker. Which would most likely indi-
D. Lowering thermostats during cold
cate a chemical change had occurred?
months
A. separation of the two liquids within the
beaker 266. Which of the following uses organic ma-
B. increase in volume of the liquid in the terials?
beaker A. Wind
C. increase in mass of the liquid in the B. Hydrogen
beaker
C. Hydropower
D. change of color of the liquid in the
beaker D. Biomass

267. Which is NOT a purpose for a hydroelec- D. The cost of oil has dropped in many de-
tric dam in a river? veloped countries.

A. to generate electricity
271. An advantage of this nonrenewable en-
B. to raise the level of the water before ergy source is it’s reliable during all cli-
the dam mates/seasons.
C. to stop the flow of water A. Solar
D. to control the flow of water B. Wind
268. Put the items below in correct sequence C. Coal
for the generation of electricity using the D. Biomass
wind 1 - generator converts mechanical en-
ergy into electrical energy 2 - wind turns 272. What is the renewable source that pro-
the wind turbine blade 3 - the gear box duces energy from the movement of flow-
transfers mechanical energy to the genera- ing water?
tor 4 - electricity is transferred to the grid
A. Hydroelectric
A. 1-2-3-4
B. Solar
B. 2-1-3-4
C. Geothermal
C. 2-3-1-4
D. Biomass
D. 2-4-3-1
273. The Hoover Dam uses energy
269. The disadvantage of using nuclear
energy- A. Hydropower
A. energy is its negative impact on B. Solar
aquatic ecosystems
C. Geothermal
B. nuclear energy produces radioactive
D. Water
wastes
C. nuclear energy produces radioactive 274. It is a solid material that is burned to cre-
wastes ate heat in homes, or used in power plants
D. none of above to produce electricity.
A. coal
270. Oil is one of the most common non-
renewable resources on Earth. Human con- B. natural gas
sumption of oilis happening at a rate that C. oil
may cause concern. Which of the follow-
D. none of above
ing would be evidence thathumans have
reached peak oil consumption? 275. which location would be best for solar en-
A. There is a decreased demand for oil ergy?
globally.
A. Arizona
B. Oil is easily accessible in many loca-
B. Oklahoma
tions on Earth.
C. Hawaii
C. Oil requires greater lengths and ex-
penses to obtain. D. Colorado

276. Most forms of renewable energy pro- 281. Which one of these is NOT a type of re-
duce a small amount of pollution from the newable energy?
generators that help to produce electricity.
A. solar
Which form of energy below does not use
a turbine and generator for electricity? B. wind
A. Hydroelectric C. biomass
B. Wind
D. nuclear
C. Solar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Coal 282. What is an advantage of Oil?
277. What sustainable energy generation uses A. Chance of a spill

natural earth forces such as wind gener- B. High amounts of gas released when
ated waves to drive pistons to create an burned
electrical current?
C. Nonrenewable
A. ocean thermal electric conversion
B. tidal stations D. Inexpensive
283. To produce hydroelectric power, humans
D. ocean wave energy build a across a powerful river.
278. What type of energy is created from A. dam
wind tubines
B. road
A. Wind power
C. bridge
B. Solar power
C. Hydropower D. none of above
D. Wave and tidal power
284. Which of the following terms refers to a
279. A major advantage of using renewable device that generates electricity by chem-
natural resources rather than nonrenew- ical reactions involving hydrogen and /or
able natural resources is that renewable methanol?
resources A. power tower
A. produce pollution.
B. alternative energy
B. do not have to be conserved.
C. fuel cell
C. are replenished more quickly.
D. are the only resources that can be D. biofuel
used to generate electricity.
285. What percentage of energy used in the
280. Which of the following is considered to be U.S. comes from renewable energy?
an example of “passive” solar energy?
A. 5%
A. solar collectors
B. 10%
B. photovoltaic cells
C. building walls that absorb solar heat C. 50%
D. solar thermal generators D. 80%

286. This uses trough shaped parabolic mirrors 290. Uranium atoms are split to create a
to concentrate the power of the sun to tremendous amount of heat in a power
heat fluid which is passed to a heat explant.

changer. A. biomass
A. cogeneration B. geothermal
B. photovoltaic cells C. nuclear
C. concentrating solar power system D. hydroelectric
D. active solar system 291. Where would the best location for solar
power be?
287. Which is an application of passive solar
technology? A. Florida
B. Pennsylvania
A. Photovoltaic cells
C. Maine
B. Heat pumps
D. Montana
C. Solar Water Heating
292. One problem with renewable energy is
D. Solar ovens
the difficulty in storing energy
288. Coal mining is the process of extracting A. Lead-acid
coal from the ground. Coal is valued for its B. Nickel-Metal Hydride
energycontent is widely used to generate
C. Lithium Ion
electricity. Steel and cement industries use
coal as a fuel for extraction of iron from D. Alkaline
iron ore and for cement production.Predict 293. Which best describes an environmental
a negative effect that could occur over the advantage of solar energy?
next 50 years if coal mining increased.
A. It is available at night.
A. Coal mining could produce acid rain
B. It is a renewable resource.
causing burns to human skin.
C. t is only available when it rains.
B. Coal mining creates nuclear energy
that causes immediate death D. It requires a backup energy source
C. Coal mining could negatively impact 294. Which of the following is NOT a type of
the natural environment in the surround- solar energy in use today?
ing land. A. Passive solar heating
D. Coal from mining can wash into bodies B. Active solar heating
of water and cause an overgrowth of al- C. Photovoltaic cells
gae.
D. Sun beam accelerator
289. if a tractor trailer truck is 20% efficient,
295. Can be used for cooking, heating, or gen-
what happened to the other 80%
erating electricity.
A. energy is destroyed A. ethanol
B. energy is lost as heat B. water
C. the 80% is still in the gas tank C. oil
D. energy is converted into matter D. none of above

296. Coal mining is the process of extracting 300. Fossil fuels include coal, oil and natural
coal from the ground. Coal is valued for gas. Fossil fuels are classified as nonre-
its energycontent and since the 1880s has newable because they -
been widely used to generate electricity. A. Take many, many years to be replaced
Steel and cementindustries use coal as a
fuel for extraction of iron from iron ore B. require expensive equipment
and for cement production.Predict a neg- C. Can be found all over Earth’s surface
ative effect that could occur over the next D. Provide much of the energy we use
50 years if coal mining increased.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Coal mining could produce acid rain 301. which of the following is not a drawback
causing burns to human skin. of solar energy?
A. sunlight does not have energy
B. Coal mining creates nuclear energy
that causes immediate death B. cost
C. Coal mining can reduce the natural en- C. sun is not always out
vironment in the surrounding land. D. solar energy is diffuse and hard to col-
D. Coal from mining can wash into bodies lect
of water and cause an overgrowth of al- 302. What are the environmental concerns for
gae. wind turbines?
297. An advantage of this energy source is A. increased temperature
that it won’t run out and does not pollute. B. increased noise pollution
A. Nuclear C. increased radiation
B. Wind D. increased greenhouse gases
C. Coal 303. Geothermal energy uses heat from to
D. Oil produce electricity.
A. the earth
298. What is the most expensive aspect of
wind farms? B. coal
C. oil
A. building the wind farm
D. natural gas
B. finding a good location to place wind
turbines 304. Smog is best described as which kind of
C. keeping the wind turbines moving pollution.
A. air pollution
D. harnessing the wind power
B. land pollution
299. Which of the following is NOT a renew- C. noise pollution
able energy resource?
D. water pollution
A. hydroelectric
305. Energy produced by burning organic mat-
B. wind
ter such as wood, food scraps, and animal
C. coal matter is called energy.
D. solar A. Biomass

B. Thermal energy 310. Which changes the most in a balloon as it

C. Solar is inflated?

A. density
D. Wind
B. conductivity
306. The fossil fuels formed hundreds of mil- C. temperature
lions of years ago from the remains of
dead? D. volume
A. Animal and plants 311. Energy stored by plants hundreds of mil-

B. Plants and bones lions of years ago that are buried under-
ground are the energy we find in
C. Fungus and animal
A. electricity
D. Rock and Plants
B. fossil fuels
307. What is the main purpose of a turbine? C. natural gas
A. it directly generates electrical energy D. geothermal
B. its spins using a kinetic energy source 312. Plant material, manure, and any other
C. in transmits electrical energy organic matter that is used as an energy
source is called a
D. a device that converts direct current
(DC) to alternating current (AC) A. Nature’s fuel
B. Biomass fuel
308. Biomass is different than fossil fuels be-
cause: C. Pure fuel
D. Farm fuel
A. Biomass is made of different organic
matter. 313. which one of the following is not a renew-
B. Biomass and fossil fuels use the same able energy source?
organic matter (plants and dead animals) A. Sunlight
but biomass hasn’t laid around for millions
B. Petroleum, Gas and Coal
of years or long enough to turn to coal.
C. Water
C. They are not different.
D. Wind
D. Biomass and fossil fuels use the same
organic matter (plants and dead animals) 314. Which of the following technologies could
but biomass takes longer to form than fos- be used as a stand-alone source of energy
sil fuels and can’t be replaced as quickly. for one home?
A. Hydropower
309. Identify a con of using solar power as an
energy resource. B. Wind
A. It causes pollution C. Hydrogen
B. It is only available when there is sun- D. Tidal Energy
light
315. When energy from the sun is used to heat
C. It is nonrenewable something directly it is called
D. It will not run out A. solar heating

B. thermal heating D. Industries would not be able to pro-

C. photovoltaic cells duce and transport as many goods.
D. none of above 321. Conservation is

A. the practice of increasing the use of
316. Photovoltaic panels, photovoltaic cells
natural resources in order to use them
harness energy.
B. the practice of increasing the use of
A. solar
natural resources in order to save them
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. wind
C. the practice of decreasing the use of
C. biomass natural resources in order to use them
D. tidal D. the practice of decreasing the use of
natural resources in order to save them
317. What issue did the Simpsons keep run-
ning into with using a wind turbine to sup- 322. Our oceans offer a variety of renewable
ply electricity? and nonrenewable resources that we use
A. The wind turbine didnt work unless it for variouspurposes. One such resource is
was sunny sea salt. Sea salt can be extracted from
the ocean through aprocess called desalina-
B. The wind turbine required gasoline to tion. While this process helps provide an
work important resource (such assalt and clean
C. The wind turbine would not supply water) to human populations, it can also
power unless there was wind be costly. Removing large amounts ofsalt
D. none of above from the Ocean can affect the pH of aquatic
environments.pH is an important quantity
318. Which fossil fuel is liquid? thatreflects the chemical conditions of a so-
A. Natural Gas lution. The pH can control the availabil-
ity of nutrients, biological functions, mi-
B. Methane crobial activity, and the behavior of chem-
C. Petroleum icals. Which statement bestclassifies sea
salt and describes its costs and benefits?
D. Coal
A. Sea salt is a renewable resource that
319. What was the name of the Game System is readily available, but production is not
Lisa and Bart were playing? costeffective.
A. Wii B. Salt is a renewable resource that is
B. Zii processed with little energy input, but har-
vesting thesalt disrupts coastal ecosys-
C. Nintendo
tems.
D. Playstation
C. Sea salt is a nonrenewable resource
320. How would depletion of mined resources that requires no processing, but at current
negatively impact the global economy? rates, itwill eventually become unsustain-
able.
A. Ait pollution would increase.
D. Sea salt is a nonrenewable resource
B. Prices of products would decrease. that has a wide variety of uses, but har-
C. Renewable resources would quickly vesting fromthe ocean can disrupt coastal
run out. ecosystems.

323. Which of the following is true about non- 329. What is the most widely used source of
renewable energy sources? renewable energy in the world today?
A. hydroelectric power

A. They took thousands of years to form.
B. They do not need to be conserved. B. biomass fuels
C. They will never run out. C. tidal power
D. none of above D. solar power
324. What is the renewable source that pro- 330. Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenew-
duces energy from the sun? able because they
A. Hydroelectric A. require expensive equipment

B. take millions of years to replenish
B. Solar
themselves
C. Biomass
C. can be found all over
D. Geothermal D. provide all the energy we use
325. Choose the most efficient 331. Which of the following energy sources
A. geothermal has the lowest negative environmental im-
B. solar pacts?
A. Biomass
C. wind
B. Nuclear
D. biomass
C. Natural Gas
326. Wich word completes the following set of D. Solar
wordssoil, seed, water
A. computer 332. Which of the following is NOT one of the
disadvantages of water impoundment?
B. flowerpot
A. CO2 emission from cement manufac-
C. outdoors ture to build the impoundment
D. none of above B. lowered siltation
327. What is produced when light hits a solar C. methane released as organic matter
cell/panel? decomposes once covered by water
A. electric current D. loss of habitat
B. solar heating 333. Which of the following statements de-

scribe “pump storage” in generating elec-
C. hydroelectric power
tricity?
D. none of above
A. off-peak energy is used to store water
328. Energy resources that, once used, cannot in an elevated reservoir, and that water is
be replaced are called: used to generate hydroelectricity during
peak hours
A. Non-renawable
B. generating electricity by impounding
B. Renewable ocean water during different tides
C. Infinite C. hydroelectricity from many small
D. Potential reservoirs

D. taking advantage of temperature con- C. Biomass filters CO2 to make it more

trasts between shallow groundwater and environmentally stable.
the surface D. Biomass doesn’t release any CO2
334. Hydropower is produced by what? when burned.
A. water 339. Renewable energy in the movement of
B. wind that much water.
C. moving water A. tidal energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the Sun B. geothermal energy
C. hydroelectric energy
335. Which combustible compound can be
made from anaerobic decomposition of any D. none of above
moist organic material?
340. Solar Thermal technologies capture the
A. methane energy from the sun and use it for heat-
B. nitrogen ing and/or the production of electricity
C. carbon dioxide A. heat
D. none of above B. light
C. Wave
336. How so we get energy from the sun?
D. temperatue
A. Sunlight can generate electricity
straight from the sky. 341. Give examples of alternative energy
B. Solar panels use the sun to power tur- sources
bines. A. wood
C. Solar panels can convert sunlight into B. Fossil fuels
electrical energy.
C. Wind power
D. Solar panels generate their own elec-
D. tidal power
tricity.
342. What form of renewable energy requires
337. Which of the following not a way to pro-
a dam?
duce hydroelectric energy
A. Water Currents A. solar
B. Tides B. nuclear
C. Jetstreams C. biomass
D. Dams D. hydroelectric
338. How does biomass reduce our carbon 343. The major petroleum producing countries
footprint by producing less CO2 than fossil of the world from the greatest amount pro-
fuels? duced to the least amount produced are
A. Plants absorb the same amount of CO2 A. Saudi Arabia, Canada, China.
that is released when it is burned. B. Saudi Arabia, the United States, Mex-
B. Plants remove CO2 from the atmo- ico.
sphere and put it permanently into the C. Saudi Arabia, Russia, the United
ground. States.

D. the United States, Russia, Saudi Ara- D. Offshore drilling can lead to a con-
bia. tamination of marine ecosystems that
threaten theorganisms living there.

344. A common drawback of solar and wind
energy is that they 348. Which energy source is considered nonre-
A. Cause erosion newable? I. Solar energy II. Nuclear en-
ergy III. Fossil fuel
B. Are very noisy
A. I only
C. Require batteries for storage of en-
ergy B. I, & II
D. Displace large groups of people C. I, & III
345. A home is built with clear glass panels D. II, & III
that allow sunlight to pass through. This
349. Which is NOT a disadvantage of using nu-
is an example of
clear energy?
A. Active solar
A. Radioactive waste disposal
B. Passive solar
B. The amount of CO2 released by the re-
C. Parabolic collector actors
D. Photovoltaic Cells C. Possible terrorist use of nuclear
346. A benefit of this renewable energy is weapons
flood control D. Mining uranium
A. Biomass
350. Dams are built to harness the power of
B. Hydropower this renewable resource.
C. Geothermal A. Sun
D. Hydrogen Fuel Cells B. Wind
347. Offshore drilling is a common practice for C. Water
obtaining oil for human use. Oil can be
D. Geothermal
used fortransportation fuels, production
of plastic, and making electricity.Which of 351. Which of the following best explains why
the followingstatements best describes an we trying to move from non renewable to
environmental concern with using offshore renewable resources?
drilling to obtain oil?
A. Renewable resources produce less
A. Offshore drilling requires a large
pollution, like greenhouse gasses.
amount of energy input to obtain a small
amount of oil. B. Renewable resources are more expen-
sive to make so that means they are more
B. Offshore drilling produces oil that can-
efficient.
not be used directly, therefore requiring
furtherexpensive processing. C. Nonrenewable does not make enough
energy for what we require
C. Offshore drilling is not cost effective
because it requires specialized equipment D. Renewable is unlimited but causes de-
to drill theoil. struction to the environment.

352. Fossil fuels are considered a B. global warming

A. renewable energy source C. skin cancer
B. non-renewable energy source D. none of the above
C. alternative energy source
358. Which type of renewable energy uses
D. conservation energy source heat stored below the Earth’s surface?
353. The disadvantage of water- A. Geothermal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. energy plants are far from urban areas B. Wind
B. energy can be affected by drought C. Water
C. energy is its negative impact on D. Tidal
aquatic ecosystems
359. is NOT a renewable energy resource
D. none of above
A. The sun
354. a downside to relying on biomass as a
primary fuel source for a nation is that B. Natural gas
A. it can cause soil erosion, water pollu- C. moving water

tion, and habitat loss D. none of above
B. it requires little land use
360. Renewable energy is often referred to as
C. it produces no pollution
D. it produces more pollution than coal A. Clean Energy
355. What does electrolysis refer to? B. Smart Energy
A. A process where wind turns a turbine C. Silly Energy
to power a generator D. none of above
B. A process of creating electromagnetic
fields 361. Strontium-90 has a half-life of 29 years.
If a site held 2000 kg of this isotope, ap-
C. A process where electricity and water
proximately what mass of Strontium-90
produce hydrogen and oxygen
would be left after 116 years?
D. A process of using energy from the sun
A. 1000 kg
356. Before 2004 Bonaire relied on which of B. 500 kg
the following energy sources for power?
C. 250 kg
A. Petroleum
D. 125 kg
B. Coal
C. Natural Gas 362. fuel made from plant or animal waste (or-
ganic matter)
D. Diesel Fuel
A. hydropower energy
357. Fossil fuels are a major source of air pol-
B. solar energy
lution and therefore, a major contributor
to ! C. green
A. ozone depletion D. biomass energy

363. A greenhouse is built with clear glass or 367. Water is considered which type of re-
plastic panels that allow sunlight through; source?
trapping the heat inside

A. inexhaustible
A. Active heating solar structure B. renewable
B. Passive heating solar structure C. nonrenewable
C. Photovoltaic cell D. none of above
D. High temperature parabolic collector
368. Fossil fuels are formed from organic ma-
364. Nonrenewable energies come from re- terial underground over
sources that are not replaced or are re- A. millions of years
placed only very slowly by natural pro- B. billions of years
cesses. The following are non-renewable
energy sources except: C. hundreds of years
A. Fossil fuels D. thousands of years
B. natural gas 369. Biofuel is

C. nuclear energy A. Energy that comes from harnessing
the movement of the air
D. geothermal energy
B. Energy that comes from the Sun
365. What does it mean if a resource is consid-
C. A source of nonrenewable energy
ered to be inexhaustible?
D. Fuel from plant material
A. It causes major pollution when being
used 370. Which of the following is the best expla-
B. It is very expensive to use for energy nation of energy conservation
C. It exists in a supply that will run out A. Limiting the amount of resources you
use or only using resources such as wa-
D. It exists in a supply that will never run ter and electric when you need them, such
out as turning off the lights when you leave a
room.
366. Because the temperature of the ground
is nearly constant year-round, uses B. Going off the grid, living off the land,
stable underground temperatures to warm and never using energy resources.
and cool homes. A is simply a loop of C. Using a 50% renewable energy and
piping that circulates a fluid underground. 50% non-renewable energy
In warm summer months, the ground is
D. Limiting the amount of resources you
cooler than the air, and the fluid is used
use or only using resources such as wa-
to cool a home. In cooler winter months,
ter and electric when you need them, such
the ground is warmer than the air, and the
as turning off the lights when you leave a
fluid is used to warm the home.
room.
A. Geothermal heat pump
371. Burning of this energy source is responsi-
B. Hydroelectric heat pump
ble for the major of greenhouse gas emis-
C. Biomass heat pump sions such as CO2 (carbon dioxide)
D. Solar heat pump A. Plastic

B. E-waste B. Solar
C. Oil and Gas C. Hydroelectric
D. Coal D. Geothermal
372. Coal is burned to heat water so that the 377. What is one disadvantage of using wind
can turn turbines. power?
A. fire A. It is renewable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. steam B. The wind is everywhere
C. water C. It is not always windy
D. heat D. none of above
373. Moving water contains energy that 378. Presently, which source of renewable
can be harnessed and converted to en- electricity makes up the greatest portion
ergy using a dam. of total electricity generation?
A. potential; electrical A. Solar
B. kinetic; chemical B. Hydroelectric
C. kinetic; electrical C. Wind
D. potential; kinetic D. Geothermal
374. A device that converts motive power (me- 379. are needed to create energy from
chanical energy) into electrical power for wind.
use in an external circuit.
A. Wind turbines
A. motor
B. Solar panels
B. generator
C. Heat pumps
C. engine
D. Water turbines
D. none of above
380. What form of alternative energy uses a
375. Which of the following determines dam?
whether a resource is a renewable or non-
A. hydroelectric power
renewable resource?
A. The cost for obtaining and using the re- B. geothermal power
source. C. biomass power
B. The effect of the resource on the envi- D. solar power
ronment
381. Which statement best describes renew-
C. whether the resource is used to gener- able and nonrenewable energy sources?
ate energy or is made into products
A. All energy sources affect he environ-
D. the rate at which the resource can be ment in the same way.
replaced
B. Different types of energy resources
376. This renewable energy is created using have different environmental impacts.
the movement of water through turbines C. All methods of energy production
A. Wind cause large amounts of pollution.

D. The most commonly used methods of C. Biomass

energy production have no environmental D. Geothermal
consequences.

387. Salmon consumption worldwide is three
382. Which is most associated with using fos- times higher than it was in 1980. What
sil fuels to produce energy? was once aluxury food is now among the
A. increase in the formation of thunder- most popular fish species consumed in the
storms U.S., Europe, andJapan. How did humans
B. a production of radioactive substances adjust to the high demand for this limited
natural resource and allowthe salmon pop-
C. production of greenhouse gases ulations to rebuild and stabilize?
D. decrease in water pollution A. Salmon farming was introduced to
383. The recovery of oil and gas by injecting help produce more salmon for market.
large amounts of fluids under high pres- B. Restaurants increased the sale of
sure into a single well as the surrounding salmon to reduce the consumption of
rock is broken up is called: salmon.
A. pressure drilling C. Fish companies reduced the price of
B. hydraulic fracturing salmon to allow for more human consump-
tion
C. deep will drilling
D. Fisherman created more jobs to look
D. disruptive recovery for more salmon and allow for more hu-
384. What is a benefit of using green energy manconsumption.
such as biofuels, solar, or wind power? 388. Which renewable energy source uses the
A. they are renewable and produce little superheated water below earth’s surface
pollution to spin a turbine and generator?
B. there is no benefit for using them A. hydroelectric dam
C. they are more expensive than using B. geothermal power
fossil fuels C. wind farm
D. they are likely to run out of supply in D. hydrogen fuel
the near future
385. Using the heat from the Earth to generate of clean energy sources?
electricity would be called
A. They emit air pollutants but do not
A. Hydroelectric harm habitats
B. Biometric B. They do not harm the environment,
C. Geothermal people, or animals.
D. Fossil Fuels C. They pllute both water and air.
386. Which energy sources advantage is that D. They are not sustainable.
it has multiple uses? 390. Renewable energy resources produce
A. Solar less than fossil fuels.
B. Hydroelectric A. pollution

B. energy B. solar
C. wind C. wind
D. light D. biomass
391. Which fossil fuel has the least amount of 396. Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable
pollution produced? because they
A. Coal A. do not produce pollution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Oil B. are no longer used by humans
C. Natural Gas C. are created so quickly
D. Solar D. take millions of years to form, so once
they’re gone, they’re gone
392. what is a non renewable resource?
A. water 397. Problems with exploiting oil shale and tar
sand deposits as an alternative to crude oil
B. wind include all of the following except:
C. coal A. the deposits are usually deeply buried
D. biomass and difficult to extract
393. Residents of a town are concerned about B. the conversion process to fuel re-
water pollution in a nearby river. Which of quires a lot of energy
these actions would likely have the most C. the mining and conversion process re-
positive impact on the river? quires a lot of water
A. planting more trees along streets in D. mining would involve widespread dis-
the town ruption of the land surface
B. installing solar panels on buildings in 398. Disadvantage of solar-
the town
A. energy is its negative impact on
C. increasing public transportation op- aquatic ecosystems
tions in the town
B. energy is that it is less energy efficient
D. spraying fewer chemicals on crops than fossil fuels
grown in the town
C. energy use is that it is limited to cer-
394. What sustainable energy generation tain times of the day
works like a hydropower dam which spin D. none of above
turbines as the tide flows through them?
A. ocean thermal electric conversion 399. The Union Ministry of New and Renew-
able energy proposed which scheme to in-
B. tidal station terconnect renewable energy by sharing
C. geothermal energy solar resources with more than 140 coun-
D. ocean wave energy tries of West Asia and SouthEast Asia?
A. One Sun One World One Grid
395. On a worldwide basis the fastest grow-
ing renewable source for generating elec- B. One Sun for Human One Grid
tricity is C. Our Sun Our World Our Grid
A. water D. Our Sun Our World One Grid

400. What is a fossil fuel? C. British Petroleum

A. oil D. Organization of Petroleum Exporting

Countries (OPEC)
B. biomass
C. wind 406. The state of Pennsylvania has a law that
requires 18% of electricity in the state be
D. hydro
produced by renewable energy sources by
401. Which of these is renewable energy? the year 2021
A. coal A. A distributional surcharge
B. petroleum B. Green pricing
C. oil C. A renewable portfolio

D. All other choices
D. biomass
407. Which location saw the most damaging
402. Wind energy is actually an indirect form
nuclear accident?
of
A. Bhopal, India
A. solar energy.
B. Chernoby, l Urkraine
B. magnetic energy.
C. Three Mile Island, United States
C. nuclear energy.
D. Yo Ma Ma’s, Georgia
D. electricity.
408. Large arrays of wind turbines are called
403. How is nuclear waste currently stored?
A. Waste is stored on site. A. Wind gathering sites
B. Waste is contained in drums and B. Wind reservations
stored on the ocean floor. C. Wind farms
C. Waste is stored in a geologically stable D. Wind cities
site away from human habitation.
409. What term describes any substance that
D. Waste is sent into space on a rocket.
can be used as a source of energy?
404. Biomass energy comes from burning ma- A. Nonrenewable Resource
terials that were once
B. Renewable Resource
A. Buried C. Energy Resource
B. Under Water D. Energy
C. In Cars.
410. Which of the following is true of nonre-
D. Alive newable technologies?
405. Which of the following was meant to A. They can be sustainable in managed
unify petroleum policies and secure fair correctly.
prices but ended up causing inflated B. They have existing infrastructure.
prices?
C. They refer to sustainable resources
A. Trans Alaska Pipeline D. They do not need infrastructure to
B. Standard Oil work.

411. Which of the following would be consid- 416. Which of the following statements is true
ered a renewable resource? of a mature technology?
A. trees A. It is more expensive than immature
B. ‘oil technologies
B. It enjoys economies of scale.
C. coal
C. It requires a lot of continual building
D. natural gas
and engineering.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
412. Which is an advantage of biomass en- D. It needs large investments to build in-
ergy? frastructure.
A. It’s a clean energy
417. Which of the following is true regarding
B. There will always be waste produced non-renewable energy?
that can be used for energy. A. These are energy sources that never
C. It creates greenhouse gases when renew, so when they are used up they are
burned. gone forever.
D. Farmers opt to grow biofuel crops in- B. These are energy sources that take
stead of other types of foods. millions of years to renew, and we are
currently using them at a rate faster than
413. which of the following is not a biofuel or they renew
a biomass?
C. These are energy sources that take
A. wood thousands of years to renew, and we are
B. ethanol from corn currently using them at a rate faster than
they renew
C. dung
D. These are energy sources that renew
D. methane in a few years, but cause pollution and
414. what is renewable energy ( definition) other environmental issues.
A. Fossil Fuels 418. convert the sun’s energy into electric-

ity, This kind of solar power has no moving
B. Solar power, wind power, hydroelec-
parts, and it runs on nonpolluting power
tric
from the sun.
C. Energy from a source that is not de-
A. Active solar heating
pleted
B. Passive solar heating
D. Alex Halama
C. Nuclear fusion
415. What sustainable energy captures en-
D. Photovoltaic cells
ergy from temperature differentials be-
tween upper and lower layers of the 419. Which of the following is the basis of any
ocean’s water? free market society?
A. ocean thermal electric conversion A. OPEC
B. tidal station B. Economics of scale
C. geothermal energy C. Supply and Demand
D. ocean wave energy D. Clean Energy

420. What is an advantage of the energy pro- A. during construction.

duced by hydroelectric power plants com- B. when they are not in use.
pared to the energy produced by fossil fuel

plants? C. in times of high electricity production
A. Hydroelectric power plants take up D. none of above
less space than fossil fuel plants.
425. What is and example of cogeneration?
B. Hydroelectric power plants use a more
A. heat energy normally wasted is used
efficient method than fossil fuel plants.
to power a turbine
C. Hydroelectric power plants require
B. a power plant that gets energy from
fewer people to operate than fossil fuel
both nuclear and hydroelectric
plants.
C. a type of wind turbine that can be pow-
D. Hydroelectric power plants use a re-
ered by wind or steam
newable energy resource while fossil fuel
plants use a nonrenewable energy re- D. harvesting natural gas and petroleum
source. from the same field
421. Which of the following is a disadvantage 426. Why is TN so reliant on non-renewable

of fossil fuels? energy?
A. Not easily available A. because nonrenewable sources pro-
duce more energy with fewer power
B. causes pollution when burned plants
C. only available at certain times B. Because non-renewable sources do
D. creates long lasting waste not produce as much energy as renewable
sources
422. Non-Renewable resources are also
known as what? C. Because non-renewable sources will
not run out.
A. Fossil Fuels
D. Because non-renewable sources have
B. Renewable the most plants in TN therefore make the
C. Scarce fuels most electricity.
D. Hydroelectric Energy 427. wich word completes the following set of
wordssleepy, tired
423. What type of renewable resource am I?
I power large turbine generators that gen- A. drowsy
erate electricity. B. sleep
A. solar C. bed
B. geothermal D. none of above
C. biofuels
428. Liquid Biofuels are often produced using
D. wind
A. Corn, Algae, and Sugarcane
424. Hydroelectric power plants to not re- B. Methane from livestock manure
lease pollution emissions when in opera-
tion. However, they do account for some C. Wheat, Corn, and Rice
emissions D. Legumes, Corn, and Algae

429. Use of overhangs that block sunlight in C. Heat from electricity, it is very danger-
summer but allow the sunlight in winter to ous and hard to manage
warm up the building is an example of:a) D. Heat from earth’s oceans, it creates a
solar pond technology b) passive solar en- lot of waste in aquatic environments
ergy c) Greek and Roman temple architec-
ture d) photovoltaics 434. Which energy source does NOT use tur-
bines?
A. solar pond technology
A. wind
B. Passive solar heating
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. hydropower
C. Active solar heating
C. solar
D. photovoltaic
D. nuclear
430. All the following materials are generally
435. A disadvantage of this energy source is
considered examples of biofuels except:
that it pollutes the air with gases.
A. Peat
A. hydropwer
B. Wood
B. wind
C. Coal C. coal
D. Methane D. solar
431. It is a liquid fossil fuel, used to produce 436. Most of the developing countries in the
gasoline. world depend on for their main source
A. coal of energy.
B. natural gas A. renewable sources
C. oil B. nuclear
D. none of above C. biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
D. coal
432. Disadvantage of using biomass energy-
437. A sustainable resource , whereas a re-
A. it is less energy efficient than fossil fu-
plenishable resource
els
A. is maintained at acceptable levels; re-
B. it can harm fish and other organisms
produces
C. energy is its negative impact on B. is infinite; reproduces
aquatic ecosystems
C. is maintained at acceptable levels; is
D. none of above infinite
433. What is geothermal energy, and what is D. is infinite; is not reproducible
one major disadvantage of it?
438. Thermal energy generated and stored in
A. Heat from earth’s atmosphere, it cre- the Earth.
ates a lot of pollution in the form of
A. geothermal energy
methane
B. wind energy
B. Heat from molten rock/lava located in
volcanoes and geysers; it is only available C. tidal energy
to specific regions on earth D. none of above

439. Oil and Natural gas are both known as B. energy are non-polluting, but large-
types of what? scale use of these resources is limited to
certain areas

A. Coal
C. energy are non-polluting, but large-
B. Geothermal Energy
scale use of these resources is limited to
C. Renewable Resources certain areas
D. Petroleum D. none of above
440. Which of these biomass fuels would be 445. A large tract of land is purchased by a
best suited for the efficient generation of commercial agricultural company. The land
electricity? is cleared of its native flora (plants), and
a single crop is planted instead. What is
A. methane harvested from a cattle farm
the effect of this action?
B. ethanol from the fermentation of corn A. There is an increase in the variety of
C. wood harvested from the savanna foods.
D. dried water buffalo dung B. The biodiversity of the area is reduced.
C. There is a reduction in the size of the
441. What natural resource is harnessed to land
generate hydro-electric power (HEP)?
D. The cost of the planted crop increases
A. Wind
446. Which of earth’s renewable resource
B. Water
moves a turbine?
C. Light A. Coal
D. Heat B. Water
442. A disadvantage of solar panels is that: C. Air
A. They do not use an abundant energy D. Natural Gas
source 447. Which best describes a way energy can
B. They are expensive be conserved?
C. They have little availability A. drilling new oil wells off the coastline
D. They have few advantages B. reducing transportation by automo-
biles
443. Wind energy is a resource. C. decreasing the collection of energy
A. nonrenewable through solar panels
B. renewable D. increasing the amount of electricity
produced in nuclear power plants
C. hydroelectric
D. solar 448. Which location would make the most
sense for a geothermal electricity plant?
444. The availability of using water- A. An exceptionally windy area off the
A. energy can be affected by drought a coast of Massachusetts
process in which mined land is recovered B. Along a wide and powerful river flow-
with soil and replanted with vegetation ing through Colorado

C. In a hot and dry area like Arizona B. Pollution

D. In a volcanically active area like Wash- C. Heat
ington state D. Both Heat and Energy
449. The following sequence of activi- 454. Which would NOT save energy?
ties:mining, enrichment, use, reprocessing,
A. Using Energy Star electronics and ap-
and disposal, is characteristic of:
pliances
A. a radioactive decay chain
B. Using public transportation instead of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. beta decay private vehicles
C. the nuclear fuel cycle C. Applying sustainable design principles
D. the half-life of uranium to new construction
D. Replacing fluorescent bulbs with incan-
450. What is one disadvantage of using hy- descent bulbs
dropower?
455. A disadvantage of hydroelectric power is
A. Hydropower is a renewable energy re-
source. There are no disadvantages. A. energy use is that it is limited certain
times of the day
B. The power is used as electricity to
power large buildings instead of homes. B. it can harm fish and other organisms
C. Building dams can damage natural C. nuclear energy produces radioactive
wildlife and water systems like lakes and wastes
rivers. D. none of above
D. Most of the time there isn’t enough wa- 456. This is the simultaneous production of
ter power to create electricity. both electricity and steam or hat water in
451. The slow decay of radioactive particles the same plant.
in the Earth’s core is the source for which A. cogeneration
type of renewable energy? B. photovoltaic cells
A. biomass C. concentrating solar power system
B. nuclear D. active solar system
C. geothermal
457. When coal is used by humans, it is typi-
D. wind cally used to
452. This is a renewable energy resource that A. Heat homes directly
must be conserved. B. Heat water
A. Wood C. Generate electricity
B. Oil D. Heat food
C. Natural gas 458. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
D. Coal A. Wind
453. Both renewable and non-renewable re- B. Coal
sources give us what? C. Solar
A. Energy D. Biomass

459. These requires utilities to buy surplus C. it is the proposed site for disposal of
power from small producers at a fair price. high-level nuclear waste

A. passive homes D. further oil migration there is blocked
B. reformer by a trap
C. flex fuel boilers 464. Why does wind cause tree branches to
D. feed in tariffs sway, or move?
A. moving air attracts wind
460. What are the two main advantages
and disadvantages of non-renewable re- B. moving air has energy
sources C. moving air contains moisture
A. Cheap and currently abundant; Renew D. moving air supplies oxygen
very slowly and dirty
B. Very clean and cheap; not abundant 465. This source can harm migratory birds:
and renew slowly A. Solar energy
C. Renew fast and clean; expensive and B. Wind energy
not abundant
C. Geothermal energy
D. Clean and renew quickly; expensive
D. Tidal energy
and not abundant
461. What is a disadvantage of renewable en- 466. What is another term used to mean re-
ergy? newable?
A. Electricity is cheaper A. Sustainable

B. Third world countries can have more B. Finite
energy C. Infinite
C. People are more independent D. none of above
D. Most sources are expensive to get
467. The use of wind to provide the mechan-
started
ical power through wind turbines to turn
462. Which public policy requires a small per electric generators and traditionally to do
kwh charge is levied on all utility cus- other work, like milling or pumping.
tomers to help finance renewable energy A. turbine energy
research a development?
B. wind energy
A. green pricing
C. wave energy
B. renewables portfolio
D. none of above
C. distributional surcharge
D. the Wickersham effect 468. Renewable resources
A. are not replaceable
463. The Alaska National Wildlife Refuge
(ANWR) has made headlines because: B. are used more frequently than non re-
newables
A. it is the leading source of coal in North
America C. are never going to run out
B. of proposals to explore for oil there D. going to run out

469. Which one of these is not renewable? 474. A drawback of using municipal solid
A. Trees waste (trash) to generate electricity is
B. Wind A. limited geographical options
C. Solar B. high initial costs
D. Uranium C. aesthetic issues

D. release of toxic metals into the atmo-
470. Which of the following is an example of sphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a renewable energy source?
A. Gasoline 475. Which is the fastest growing source of
electricity in the country?
B. Solar power
A. wind
C. Coal
B. solar
D. Fossil fuels
C. hydroelectric
471. Which is not an advantage of Wind en- D. biomass
ergy?
A. Land can be used for other purposes 476. When we use electricity to power our
electronics, what other two, less useful,
B. Can be quickly built; not too expensive forms of energy are produced?
C. Long operating life A. carbon dioxide and water
D. Danger to birds B. light and heat
472. Which is an aspect of geothermal energy? C. kinetic and potential
I. Geothermal energy emits almost no car- D. heat and carbon
bon dioxide. II. Geothermal energy is a
renewable source of energy. III. Geother- 477. What sustainable energy captures the
mal energy can be used to produce heat heat around magma chambers or captured
and electricity. heat of the earth?
A. I and II A. ocean thermal electric conversion
B. II and III B. tidal station
C. I and III C. geothermal energy
D. I, II and III D. ocean wave energy
473. The town of Clarksville is reviewing op- 478. What is not a drawback in using solar en-
tions for energy with the goal of reducing ergy?
their production of greenhouse gases. In- A. The total amount of solar energy that
creased use of which energy source would reaches the Earth is too low to be useful
reduce the town’s greenhouse gas produc-
tion? B. The solar energy that reaches the
Earth is diffuse and hard to collect
A. coal
C. Solar cells and other equipment are ex-
B. natural gas pensive
C. petroleum fuel D. Sunlight is not always available, de-
D. sunlight pending on season and time of day

479. These are homes that are highly insu- electricity generated using renewable en-
lated, virtually airtight and are heated ergy sources?
primarily by solar gain and by energy

A. A fall in the cost of the technology re-
released by people, electrical appliances, quired to use renewable energy sources
cooking and other ordinary activities.
B. More widespread global incorporation
A. passive homes of renewable energy sources
B. reformer C. More education on the environmental
C. flex fuel boilers benefits of the renewable resources
D. feed in tariffs D. Converting infrastructure to accommo-
date renewable energy sources
480. How is electricity consumption measured
(e.g. on your electric bill)? 485. What is a disadvantage to Hydroelectric-
ity?
A. In watts(W).
A. lots and lots of pollution
B. In kilowatts(kW).
B. Kills wild bird population
C. In watt-hours(Wh).
C. Radioactive waste
D. In kilowatt-hours(kWh).
D. Increases potential for flooding
481. Which of the following statements is NOT
true about conservation? 486. Which one of these does NOT add CO2 to
the atmosphere?
A. It helps preserve plant and animal life
A. cooking with gas
B. It makes the environment safe and
healthy B. planting trees
C. It keeps rivers and streams polluted C. burning wood
D. It protects plant and animal life D. riding in a bus
482. One advantage of burning coal is - 487. What is a disadvantage for using wind
energy?
A. it is expensive to burn
A. It is efficient and cheap.
B. it is an inexpensive source of energy
B. Wind is inconsistent.
C. it is renewable
C. Dependent on rain.
D. none of above
D. It uses expensive power plants.
483. Geothermal Power plants generate
power , 488. An example of a biofuel is
A. Anytime A. gasoline
B. Sometimes B. oil
C. Daylight hours C. animal waste
D. none of above D. minerals
484. Which of the following is most likely to 489. Hydroelectric plants

cause a quicker increase in the amount of A. produce a lot of greenhouse gases

B. create a reservoir that may bury natu- 494. What is an advantage of hydropower en-
ral or cultural resources ergy?
C. release sediment that can bury a land- A. Dams can have a massive negative im-
scape pact on the ecosystem.
D. produce nitric acid that falls as acid B. It’s good for salmon who swim up-
rain stream to spawn.
C. Hydropower is clean energy.
490. Photovoltaic panels, or solar cells are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
made mostly of D. There is plenty of water unless the
river or lakes dry up.
A. methane.
B. hydrogen. 495. How is the post-industrial era different
to any other era with regards to the car-
C. gold. bon cycle?
D. silicon. A. Less people are working in agriculture
491. Some renewable and non-renewable re- B. industry has actually reduced regard-
sources can hurt the environment. Which ing the overall production of green house
statement is true? gases
A. Burning wood can pollute our atmo- C. Energy demands have increased dra-
sphere matically
D. The internet allows for faster commu-
B. Burning coal releases gases and
nication
smoke into the atmosphere.
C. Oil spills in the ocean can affect ships. 496. Which is the largest component of energy
generated from renewable sources in the
D. Wind energy can cause harm to plants.
United States?
492. Which of these actions can best replenish A. wind
natural materials? B. biomass
A. refining trees into paper C. hydroelectric
B. the slow breakdown of once-living or- D. solar
ganisms
497. What are two unintended consequences
C. planting trees every time an area is
of wind turbines on the environment?
logged (reforestation)
A. Decline in land animal populations and
D. using technology to extract natural gas soil pollution
with minimal pollution
B. Decline in bird populations and noise
493. What are two main things that determine pollution
price? C. Soil and air pollution
A. Need and scarcity D. Noise pollution and air pollution
B. size and scarcity
498. Which location would be best for geother-
C. need and input costs mal energy?
D. size and input costs A. Arizona

B. Oklahoma 504. Ultimately, all biofuels are , because

C. Hawaii they are the result of

D. Colorado A. geological; sedimentation
B. solar; photosynthesis
499. Which form of renewable energy does
generate some air pollution as it operates? C. inefficient; decomposition by microor-
ganisms
A. Photovoltaic solar cells
D. synthetic; chemical manipulation of hy-
B. Wind farms
drocarbons
C. Hydrokinetic
505. Photovoltaic cells convert sunlight into:
D. None of these generates air pollution
A. Heat
500. Biomass comes from
B. Motion
A. Plants
C. Light
B. Microorganisms
D. Electricty
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these 506. One disadvantage of geothermal energy
is -
501. Which is not an environmental cost asso-
A. has little impact on the environment
ciated with natural gas?
A. Pipelines built through environmen- B. low cost to maintain
tally sensitive areas C. not found everywhere
B. The release of methane into the atmo- D. none of above
sphere
507. Energy from the sun can be gathered by
C. Trace metals released during combus-
collectors and used to heat water or to
tion
heat a building. This technology is known
D. Groundwater contamination as More than 1.5 million homes in the
United States use this type of solar power
502. All are examples of Nonrenewable en-
to heat water.
ergy sources EXCEPT
A. Passive solar heating
A. Coal
B. Active solar heating
B. Petroleum
C. Hydropower C. Photovoltaic cells
D. Uranium (Nuclear) D. Concentrating Solar Power (CSP)
503. What is the primary energy created by 508. Which of the following renewable energy
Photovoltaic systems? sources come from plants and animals?
A. light energy A. geothermal
B. heat energy B. coal
C. electrical energy C. solar
D. mechanical energy D. biomass

509. Which of these are NON-RENEWABLE en- B. loamy soil with good drainage
ergy sources? C. plants, usually adapted to full sun and
A. Wind, solar, oil requiring low maintenance.
B. Oil, natural gas, geothermal D. additional heating for the structure be-
neath.
C. Oil, coal, nuclear
D. Nuclear, geothermal, coal 515. Passive solar design includes all of the
following except
NARAYAN CHANGDER
510. Which renewable energy sources has be- A. large windows on the south side of the
come cost competitive with fossil fuels? house
A. Tidal B. floor and walls that will store heat in
B. Geothermal the winter
C. Wind C. overhang that blocks the sun in the
D. Solar photovoltaic summer, but allows it inside in the winter
D. trees that block the sun for the entire
511. What is the meaning of the word, “con- year
serve”?
516. Identify three technological challenges
A. consistent
that limit the use of solar power in the
B. waste United States.
C. save A. Storage, weight, fragility
D. serve B. Weight, cost, toxicity
512. What type of power plant uses scraps C. Aesthetics, toxicity, efficiency
from farming, waste products and wind to D. Cost, storage, efficiency
generate electricity?
517. As water flows across the land, the en-
A. Hydroelectric Power Plant ergy in its movement can be used to gen-
B. Geothermal Power Plant erate electricity. , which is energy pro-
duced from moving water, is a renewable
C. Biomass Power Plant
resource that accounts for about 20 per-
D. Nuclear Power Plant cent of the world’s electricity
513. Renewable energy source is described as A. Liquid electricity
a clean energy source. What does this B. Flowing fuel
mean? C. Water flow energy
A. It has no diseases D. Hydroelectric energy
B. No green house gas emissions
518. Which of the following best describes re-
C. It burns without any smoke newable energy?
D. none of above A. Energy from fossil fuels
514. Installing a green roof requires all of the B. Energy that is generated by burning up
following except something
A. a reinforced structure to carry the C. An energy source that is not used up
added weight D. None of the Above

519. Which of the following countries is 100% C. Plants absorb the carbon dioxide ex-
powered by Katse Dam. haled by animals and use it to perform
photosynthesis, releasing oxygen back

A. South Africa
into the air for animals.
B. Lesotho
D. Topsoil forms slowly to replace soil
C. Mozambique that has been removed from the bank of
D. Zimbabwe a river by erosion from the river’s flowing
water.
520. Which of the following would be con-
sidered good evidence that the over- 523. If countries such as Germany, Switzer-
exploitation of resources in an environ- land, and Norway have switch their power
ment harms organisms living in that envi- grid to run primarily on renewable energy,
ronment? why haven’t countries such as the United
A. When people cut down and log trees States, China, India, and Russia done this
in a forest, many species of animals lose as well?
their habitats. A. The latter mentioned countries are
B. Mining a mountain top for coal results cheap and don’t want to spend the money
in cheaper electricity for consumers in ur- B. There are no renewable resources
ban areas. available to countries such as the United
C. Water levels in a reservoir go down States, China, India, and Russia.
when water evaporates from the surface. C. The latter mentioned countries are too
D. Large solar energy panels in the large, and it would be impossible to switch
desert don’t work well when they get cov- to renewable energy
ered in sand and dust. D. Germany, Switzerland, and Norway
521. Which of these is a true statement about are small countries with small popula-
nuclear power? tions, while the latter mentioned coun-
tries are very large with large popu-
A. It’s waste can destroy habitats and lations.Switching to renewable energy
ecosystems. would create a huge economic burden on
B. It doesn’t cost a lot of money to build. these countries.
C. It does not produce radioactive waste.
524. A photovoltaic cell captures to be
D. It produces very little amounts of en- used for power.
ergy.
A. wind
522. Which statement describes the depletion B. water
of a nonrenewable resource through hu-
man processes? C. coal
A. Fossil fuels from plants and animals liv- D. sunlight
ing 300 million years ago are extracted
525. What characteristic do all renewable re-
from the ground for use as an energy
sources share?
source.
B. Water falls from clouds as raindrops A. Produced by waste products
and lands in a river, where it flows over a B. Form underground from dead organ-
dam to create hydroelectric power. isms.

C. Replaced in a short period of time 531. Which of the terms below refers to the
process in which a nuclear fuel, such as
D. Allow energy to pass through them
Uranium, is split into smaller particles plus
easily
energy?
526. Why is natural gas a better energy A. Curie
source than oil and coal?
B. fission
A. It produces fewer greenhouse gases.
C. radiation absorbed dose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. It is renewable.
D. breeder reactor
C. It is not a natural resource.
D. none of above 532. Describe how a hydroelectric dam har-
nesses the energy of stored water
527. Why are fossil fuels like coal, oil, and nat- A. A dam holds the water from a stream
ural gas called nonrenewable resources? behind it to create a reservoir. The wa-
A. They can never be replaced. ter in the reservoir has a lot of potential
energy. The water flows downhill through
B. They cannot be easily replaced.
a turbine. The moving water has kinetic
C. They can be recycled. energy, which it transfers to the turbine,
which is collected to a generator, which
D. They can be made in factories.
makes electricity.
528. Wind velocity generally increases:I. over B. A pond holds the water from a stream
hilltops and mountains II. in mountain behind it to create a river. The water
passes III. over sea cliffs in the river has a lot of kinetic energy.
A. I only The water flows downhill through a tur-
bine. The moving water has kinetic en-
B. II and III ergy, which it transfers to the turbine,
C. I and II which is collected to a generator, which
makes electricity.
D. I, II and III
C. A dam holds the water from a stream
529. Which of the following resources uses the behind it to create a reservoir. The wa-
Earth’s gravitational force? ter in the reservoir has a lot of kinetic en-
ergy. The water flows downhill through
A. Solar
a turbine. The still water has no energy,
B. Wind which it transfers to the turbine, which
C. Biomass is collected to a generator, which doesn’t
makes electricity.
D. Hydropower
D. A dam holds the water from a stream
530. The cleanest burning fossil fuel is behind it to create a reservoir. The water
in the reservoir has a lot of potential en-
A. coal ergy. The water flows downhill through a
B. oil turbine. The moving water has potential
energy, which it transfers to the airplane,
C. wind
which is collected to a generator, which
D. natural gas makes no electricity.

533. what is a drawback to hydroelectric 538. What is a natural resource?

power? A. Material from the Earth that people

A. fish being isolated on one side of the use for their needs.
dam B. A place hidden in the mountains.
B. water in the reservoir becomes warm C. An object made from natural things.
C. increases the dissolved oxygen D. none of above
D. increases the rate of nutrient flow
downstream 539. Which of the following is the best expla-
nation of energy efficiency?
534. fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to A. Using 75% renewable energy and 25%
generate electricity are using non-renewable energy
A. hydrogen gas B. Replacing resources that do not maxi-
B. methane gas mize the use of energy and produce a lot
of waste with resources that maximize en-
C. water ergy and produce little waste. An example
D. oil is replacing incandescent lights with LED
or fluorescent lights
535. When energy is generated from the burn- C. Turning off the lights when you leave a
ing of wood or other organic matter, we room so you don’t waste electric
call it
D. Using 100% renewable energy at all
A. Solar Energy costs.
B. Biomass Energy
540. Fossil fuels are non-renewable but they
C. Thermal Energy can be good because
D. none of above A. They are cheap
B. They create lots of jobs
536. What byproduct of mining has caused
damage to aquatic environments located C. They are free
near coal mines? D. They are always hard to get
A. Arsenic
541. Air, water, trees, rocks and minerals,
B. Aluminum soil, coal and oil are all examples of which
C. Mercury type of resource?
D. Lead A. Renewable resources

B. Nonrenewable resources
537. Which is mostly likely a consequence of
using wind farms for energy production? C. Natural resources
D. Inexhaustible resources
A. air popultion
B. overuse of metal resources 542. Which of the following best describes
why scientists are exploring the use of
C. disruption of bird migrations
other types of renewable energy sources
D. increased weathering and erosion along with solar energy?

A. The collection of solar energy is limited C. temporarily hold construction of new

to daylight hours. nuclear power plants until the Yucca
B. Solar energy can be transformed only Mountain site is operational
into electrical energy. D. replace all existing nuclear reactors in
C. The collection of solar energy requires the U.S. by pebble-bed reactors by 2010
constant monitoring.
547. What is the correct order of how energy
D. Solar energy is less popular than other is produced in a powerplant?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
types of energy.
A. heat water, make steam, steam spins
543. What type of energy is able to be regen- a turbine, generator changes mechanical
erated in a short amount of time or are energy to electric energy
continuous? B. make steam, heat water, steam spins
A. Renewable Energy turbine, generator changes mechanical
B. Nonrenewable Energy energy to electric energy
C. All Energy C. heat up water, hot water spins a tur-

bine, turbine powers electric current
D. Generational Energy
D. turn on a generator, spin a turbine,
544. What waste product(s) is/are released make steam
by hydrogen fuel cell vehicles?
548. Energy resources that, once used, can re-
A. Carbon dioxide and water vapor
plenish themselves and can be used again
B. Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide and again are called:
C. Carbon dioxide only A. Non-renewable
D. Water vapor only B. Renewable
545. Which of the following is a disadvantage C. Finite
of solar energy?
D. Potential
A. It can only be used effectively in cer-
tain regions and certain times of day 549. Coal, gas, and petroleum are all exam-
B. It produces greenhouse gases during ples of
use A. Recycled fuels
C. It is a nonrenewable energy source B. Fossil Fuels
D. It is inexpensive compared to other C. Renewable fuels
sources
D. Fancy Fuels
546. The Energy Policy Act of 2005 considered
the role of nuclear power in the U.S. en- 550. The sun produces energy using
ergy mix. Its recommendation was to: A. fission
A. resume building new nuclear power
B. fusion
plants in the U.S.
C. biomass
B. halt to construction of all new nuclear
power plants in the U.S. D. geothermal

551. Hydroelectric dams can be responsible for 556. What are the 3 fossil fuels?
the emission of which greenhouse gas, as A. coal, oil, uranium
a result of the dam?

B. coal, hydroelectric, oil
A. carbon monoxide
C. natural gas, oil, coal
B. ozone
D. none of above
C. oxygen
D. methane 557. Which alternative energy source is gener-
ated beneath Earth’s crust and can be used
552. Erosion and Deforestation are major dis- to heat buildings?
advantages of this renewable energy A. Hydroelectric energy
A. Solar B. Geothermal energy
B. Wind C. Wind energy
C. Geothermal D. Solar energy
D. Biomass
558. Corn, wheat, and soybeans can be made
553. The primary barrier (prevent) to solar en- into a substance called ethanol. In some
ergy use is that it places, ethanol is part of a mixture used
A. is not technically feasible (possible). to power cars and trucks. What type of
alternative energy resource is ethanol?
B. causes major pollution problems .
A. Hydroelectric
C. is too expensive compared to other en-
ergy sources. B. Geothermal
D. all of these. C. Biofuels

D. Solar
554. What is an example of a non-renewable
energy source? 559. What is an advantage of using hy-
A. Sunlight dropower as an energy source?
B. Wind A. uses existing bodies of water.
C. Oil B. may divert water and alter normal wa-

ter flow.
D. none of above
C. might disrupt the movements of ani-
555. Which best explains why it is important mals.
to conserve energy resources? D. sometimes causes flooding in sur-
A. They are all renewable rounding areas.
B. They are all nonrenewable 560. Renewable energies generate from natu-
C. As the use of fossil fuels increase, it ral sources that can be replaced over a rela-
becomes more difficult to find alternative tively short time scale. The following are
energy sources. examples of renewable energy resources
D. As the most readily available re- except:Examples of renewable energies in-
sources run out, it becomes more difficult clude solar, wind, hydro, geothermal and
to obtain additional resources from the biomass.
earth. A. solar

B. fossil fuels 565. Wind power

C. wind A. comes indirectly from solar energy
D. biomass B. is cheap to harness on a large scale
561. Where does most of earth‘s energy come C. is welcomed by people everywhere
from? D. produces a lot of greenhouse gases
A. The sun 566. Which public policy requires power sup-
pliers to obtain a minimum percentage of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Mars
their energy from sustainable sources?
C. Wind
A. green pricing
D. Water
562. Some bacteria, fungi, and insects can de-
C. distributional surcharge
compose other organisms. Which best de-
scribes the role of the insect in the decom- D. the Krabath effect
position process?
567. Water is a renewable resource because
A. insects help break down organic mate-
rial. A. it evaporates
B. insects are the final step in the nutri- B. it can be frozen
ent cycle.
C. it can constantly be replenished
C. insects provide the nitrogen needed
for producers D. it is important
D. insects consume fungi and bacteria to 568. One benefit of geothermal energy is that
produce carbon.
563. What energy resource produces energy A. a plant can be built ANYWHERE
from recently living organisms such as B. it doesn’t cost a lot of money to build
leaves or plants? These materials can be C. it can provide power 24 hours a day
burned to release energy.
D. it harms ecosystems where it’s built
A. Geothermal
569. Bacteria breaking down wastes produces
B. Solar
this type of biofuel.
C. Biomass
A. ethane
D. Hydroelectric
B. methane
564. Which is an environmentally sound way C. propane
to maximize our energy resources? I. In-
D. ethanol
creasing energy efficiency II. Increasing en-
ergy conservation III. Using fewer renew- 570. Wind power generators use the power of
ables the wind to generate
A. I and III A. Electricity
B. II and III B. Biomass
C. I and II C. Cloud energy
D. I, II and III D. None of these

571. Which of the following energy sources 575. This strips hydrogen from fuels such as
uses Magma? natural gas, methanol, ammonia, gasoline,
ethanol, or even vegetable oil to power

A. Geothermal
fuel cells.
B. Solar
A. passive homes
C. Wind
B. reformer
D. Hydrogen
C. flex fuel boilers
572. Why are coal, oil, and natural gas classi- D. feed in tariffs
fied as nonrenewable resources?
A. They are limitless 576. What is the term for the technology
that generates electricity when sunlight in
B. They exist in many places on Earth.
semiconductors, causing them to move?
C. They are originally from once-living
A. active solar heating
things.
B. passive solar heating
D. They take millions of years to form.
C. photovoltaic cells
573. There are 10 ways to conserve energy.
D. none of above
Which is not a correct way to conserve en-
ergy?1. Take advantage of a home energy 577. Who built the first power plant in the
audit .2. Repair any electrical issues in United States?
the home. 3. Invest in energy-efficient
appliances for the home. 4. Use power A. Augusten Mouchot
strips wherever possible 5. Switch to LED B. John D Rockefeller
light bulbs 6. Set the water heater to the C. Thomas Edison
lowest comfortable setting. 7. Do laundry
often and iron every morning.8. Turn off D. Thomas Newcomer
televisions, radios and computer monitors
578. Read the text and choose the correct
when not in use. 9. Program the thermo-
answer. 1. Nowadays, finding a good
stat 10. Check that the home is insulated
source of renewable energy is important.
properly.
I think that winder energy is the best
A. Statement number 1. form of renewable energy. Wind power
B. Statement number 5. uses the wind to create electricity, and
electric power is created by the turbines.
C. Statement number 7.
This type of renewable energy is great for
D. Statement number 10. many reasons. First of all, in my opinion,
wind energy is the best source for us be-
574. Which environmental factor is most asso- cause it doesn’t pollute the air like power
ciated with extensive deforestation of the plants. I believe power plants use danger-
rain forest? ous fossil fuels that can cause many health
A. increase in soil erosion problems like asthma. To sum up, I believe
B. decrease in global warming as long as there is enough wind blowing,
then turbines will create useful electric en-
C. increase in available ground water ergy for us all. 2. Some people might
D. decrease in atmospheric carbon diox- think that finding a good source of renew-
ide able energy is too difficult. However, if

you think about the size of our oceans B. Nonrenewable Energy

you must agree that wave power is the C. All Energy
best form of renewable energy. Basically,
wave power is the transport of energy D. Generational Energy
by waves to generate electricity. Elec- 580. What is a negative aspect of using solar
tric power is created when ocean water energy?
is pumped into machines, and the stronger
the waves, the more power that is created. A. the sun is not strong enough to provide
In my opinion, wave power is the best of energy for a long time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
renewable energy because it is pollution B. solar energy can only be used during
free and there is plenty of water around the daytime
the world for everyone to benefit from C. solar energy cannot be stored to use
it. In addition, the best thing about using later
wave power is that it will never run out. 3.
D. it is expensive to transfer stored solar
Today, it is so important to find a reliable
energy to another location
source of renewable energy. I believe that
getting energy from the sun is the best op- 581. As water flows through a dam, a genera-
tion for us. First of all, we should all con- tor is turned and creates enough electricity
sider using solar power to get the energy for thousands of homes. This describes
we need in our daily lives. Even though
A. biofuels
there is a large supple of light from the
sun, few people use solar power. Solar B. hydroelectric energy
power is when energy from the sunlight is C. geothermal energy.
converted into electricity. I think we can
D. potential energy
easily use solar panels to capture the sun-
light, in order to produce power. The rea- 582. Photovoltaics is a technology from which
son I think that solar power is the best energy source?
type of clean energy is because it is pollu-
A. Solar
tion free. In addition, the sun rises every
day and that will allow us to always be B. Wind
able to produce electric energy. Question- C. Hydropower
Which choice best describes the author’s
D. Hydrogen
opinion in Paragraph 1?
A. The best form of renewable energy is 583. Solar energy is energy from what?
wind power. A. The inside of the Earth
B. It is important to find a good sources B. The Sun
of wind energy. C. Mars
C. Renewable electric power can be cre- D. Any plant that has died in the past.
ated in many ways.
584. Which is a disadvantage of solid biomass
D. none of above
as an energy source?
579. What type of resources are considered fi- A. Expensive costs that can be prohibitive
nite and cannot be replenished in a short in developing countries
amount of time? B. Emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
A. Renewable Energy the atmosphere

C. Emission of particulate matter and car- 590. Which public policy allows utilities to
bon monoxide profit for conservation programs and
charge premium prices for energy from re-

D. Release of more methane than other
fuels newable sources?
A. green pricing
585. Wind, water, geothermal-
A. energy are non-polluting, but large-
scale use of these resources is limited to C. distributional surcharge
certain areas D. the Xiong effect
B. energy use is that it is limited to cer-
tain times of the day 591. What is the process used in nuclear reac-
tors today to generate energy called?
C. less energy efficient than fossil fuels
A. Nuclear Fusion
D. none of above
B. Nuclear Fission
586. What is a group of wind turbines called? C. Nuclear Generation
A. Wind farm D. Nuclear Chemical Synthesis
B. Solar farm
592. What is an example of a non renewable
C. Sheep farm resource?
D. Water farm A. Wind
587. Which of the following energy sources is B. Water
responsible for smog?
C. Coal
A. Coal
D. Biomass
B. Gas
593. Daily choices that humans make af-
C. Nuclear
fect the environment. Sometimes, our
D. Oil lifestyles can harm the environment. For
example, fossil fuel power plants gen-
588. which of the following batteries is the erate waste in the form of air emis-
most powerful and most expensive? sions, thermal releases and climatic im-
A. lead-acid pacts. Which of the following statements
would be most helpful in protecting the en-
B. lithium-ion
vironment from fossil fuel power plants?
C. nickel-metal hydride
A. Buying fewer mass produced prod-
D. alkaline ucts.
589. Solar energy is energy from the B. Using solar power to generate electric-
ity.
A. Moon
C. Buying paper products made from har-
B. Stars vested trees.
C. Wind D. Using natural gas as a fuel source in-
D. Sun stead of petroleum

594. When scientists and interested citizen B. Nuclear

groups attempt to improve the quality of C. Biomass
life for Earth’spopulation there are some
D. Fossil Fuels
factors that need to be considered. To
make a well roundeddecision it is impor- 598. choose the rhymming words.
tant to look at environmental and eco-
A. trout, shout
nomic concerns. What is generalconsidera-
tion that can be made when making policy B. too, two.
decisions?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. towel, rock.
A. To require that all natural areas sur- D. none of above
rounding Florida peninsula become mari-
599. When did the petroleum industry become
nesanctuaries.
technologically advanced?
B. To remove regulations and monitoring
A. Just before World War I
efforts when they conflict with the devel-
opment ofnew residences. B. After the American Civil War
C. To enact and enforce laws regarding C. Before the Industrial Revolution
the environment but without compromis- D. After the dissolution of Standard Oil
ing theneeds of future generations.
D. To resettle areas where toxic dumps all fossil fuels is true?
were found after natural bioremediation
A. Fossil fuels are liquids.
has removedall dangers to humans.
B. Fossil fuels are found only on land.
595. What is one disadvantage of coal? C. Fossil fuels are renewable.
A. Coal produces air pollution. D. Fossil fuels form from the remains of
B. There isn’t a lot of coal left which ancient organisms such as plants and ani-
makes it expensive. mals.
C. The world isn’t using a lot of coal which 601. If your car is about 30% efficient in pro-
makes it an undesirable job. ducing motion, what is happening to the
D. You can only use it to roast hot dogs other 70% of the energy it takes in?
and cook hamburgers. A. The energy is destroyed
596. solar energy is a technology used B. The energy is lost as heat due to fric-
in solar panels to gather and store solar tion
energy to heat homes, using no moving C. The other 70% is still in the gas tank
parts. D. All other choices
A. Potential
602. What is the difference between Renew-
B. Passive able and Non-renewable energy sources?
C. Active A. Renewable energy is energy that is
D. Postaction used only once, and non-renewable en-
ergy can be used over and over again
597. Which of the following sources of energy B. Non-renewable energy is energy that
will run out first? is used only once, and renewable energy
A. Solar can be used over and over again

C. There is no difference 608. a home is fitted with pumps that pipe wa-
D. Non-renewable energy is cheap enter to the roof of the home to be heated by
the sun. This is an example of

ergy and renewable energy is expensive
energy A. passive solar
603. Renewable energy resources are re- B. active solar
sources that:
C. parabolic collector
A. can be used only once
D. photovoltaic cell
B. get used. up then are gone.
C. can be naturally replaced. 609. What type of power plant uses the po-
tential energy of water trapped behind a
D. produce free energy
dam?
604. Which of these converts light from the A. nuclear power plant
sun into thermal energy and distributes
the heat using pumps and fans? B. hydroelectric power plant
A. a concentrated solar plant C. solar station
B. a passive solar system D. coal burning power plant
C. an active solar system
610. What is used to describe a resource that
D. a photovoltaic systema solar cell can be replenished naturally over time?
605. power is electricity produced by flow- A. Energy Resources
ing water.
B. Nonrenewable Resources
A. Solar
C. Fossil Fuels
B. Wind
C. Hydroelectric D. Renewable Resources
D. water 611. Which energy source has the least nega-

tive environmental impact?
606. This renewable energy is created using
photovoltaic cells/panels A. Biomass
A. Wind B. Nuclear
B. Solar C. Natural Gas
C. Hydroelectric
D. Solar
D. Geothermal
612. Most of our electricity (in the US) comes
607. Which of these is an example of a from
biomass fuel?
A. Burning gasoline
A. coal
B. oil B. Burning coal and Natural Gas
C. natural gas C. Burning Nitrogen

D. wood D. Burning Petroleum

613. Energy from the wind is used to turn A. 5.5%

windmills. These windmills then spin a B. 14%
generator and produce electricity. Which
statement would NOT support the claim C. 26%
that wind energy is considered a clean, re- D. 85%
newable resource?
618. Which type of sustainable energy can be
A. Wind energy is produced naturally. carbon negative?
B. Wind energy is used without giving off A. algae
NARAYAN CHANGDER
greenhouse gases or pollution.
B. windturbines
C. There is an abundant supply of wind
C. micro hydro genergators
energy available for use.
D. fuel cells
D. There are only certain places that are
suitable for collecting wind energy. 619. Which is an advantage for using wind en-
ergy?
614. What is a liquid fuel created completely
from biomass? A. It is clean without any pollutants.
A. methane B. Wind is inconsistent.
B. ethanol C. It is a great source because it is windy

everywhere.
C. gasohol
D. It is dangerous to birds.
D. electrons
620. What is a fuel?
615. The original source of energy for fossil fu-
A. Anything that makes electricity
els comes from the
B. Anything that makes energy
A. sun
C. Anything that burns to make energy
B. Earth’s crust
D. Anything that makes light
D. oceans 621. How do solar power plants turn sunlight
into electricity
616. Why are fossil fuels considered nonre- A. Mirrors focus sunlight onto a receiver.
newable resources if they are still forming A liquid is heated and transfers heat by
beneath the surface today? conduction. That energy is usedto make
A. They are being formed as a type of electricity.
methane which we cannot use. B. Mirrors focus sunlight onto a trans-
B. They are being formed too far beneath mitter. A liquid is heated and transfers
the surface. heat by convection. That energy is usedto
make electricity.
C. The fossil fuels are being broken down
by a natural process. C. Mirrors focus moonlight onto a re-
ceiver. A frying pan is heated and trans-
D. We are depleting the fossil fuels much fers heat by conduction. That energy is
faster than they can form. usedto make electricity.
617. What % of the energy in the WORLD D. Mirrors focus sunlight onto a receiver.
comes from renewable energy? A window is heated and transfers heat

by conduction. That energy is not usedto 624. One disadvantage to this source is that
make electricity. it’s not effective in certain weather.

A. Sun
622. Governments can encourage energy con-
servation by I. raising taxes on fossil fuel B. Coal
use. II. offering tax credits to replace old C. Nuclear
appliances with new energy-efficient ap-
D. Biomass
pliances. III. investing in smart grid tech-
nology. 625. Cause of pollution in our air and water is
A. I, II, and III
A. geothermal
B. I, and II
B. fossil fuels
C. II, , and III
C. biomass
D. I, and III
D. politics
623. Wind and hydroelectric power are both
626. A disadvantage for using coal to produce
indirect forms of
energy -
A. nonrenewable energy. A. is abundant everywhere
B. solar energy. B. is not friendly to the environment
C. biomass fuel. C. formed over a few years
D. nuclear energy. D. none of above

8. Entomology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
8.1 Entomology Forensic
1. The process of transformation from an im- B. liver
mature form to an adult form in two or
C. armpit
more distinct stages.
D. stomach
A. mutation
B. metamorphosis 5. Insects help forensic investigators deter-
C. puberty mine
D. catabolism A. time of death

B. whether the body sustained trauma
2. Insects such as blowflies tend to lay their
eggs in C. whether the body has been moved
A. dry, cold areas D. all of these
B. dry, warm areas
6. wormlike stage of insect development af-
C. moist, cold areas ter egg
D. moist, warm areas A. larva
3. Pooling of blood in the areas of the body B. pupa
closest to the ground is called
C. grub
A. Pooling
D. crop
B. Grounding
C. Puddling 7. Which after death process is permanent?
D. Lividity A. ALGOR MORTIS

B. LIVOR MORTIS
4. to take a corpse’s temperature, forensic in-
vestigators insert a thermometer into the C. RIGOR MORTIS
A. mouth D. none of above

8.1 Entomology Forensic 1203
8. feeding on carrion; from the greek word C. coffin fly

phagos, to each, and necro, meaning dead D. blowfly

A. entomology
14. cases formed by the hardening of the last
B. necrophagous larval skin in which the pupa is formed.
C. carrion color starts out white and turns brown
D. none of above with time.
A. eclosion
9. What does PMI refer to?
B. puparia
A. time that has past since the victim was
at the scene C. mites
B. time that has past since the victim died D. none of above
C. time that has past since the suspect 15. tiny eight legged creatures belonging to
was at the scene the order acarina, related to spiders and
D. time that has past since the insects ar- ticks. some mites live freely, others as
rived at the scene parasites
A. ambient
10. The insect uses what body part to hear
B. mites
A. Spiracle
C. eclosion
B. Tympanum
D. none of above
C. Ovipositor
D. Compound Eye 16. Rigor mortis peaks at about hours af-
ter death
11. What do the flies eggs hatch into?
A. 2
A. Adult Flies
B. 6
B. Pupas
C. 8
C. Worms
D. 12
D. Maggots
17. Algor mortis is Latin for:
12. This stage occurs when the body becomes
A. STIFFENING AT DEATH
distended and the splitting of the skin al-
lows bad smelling gases to escape. B. COLORED DEATH
A. bloated stage C. COOLING DEATH
B. post-decay stage D. none of above
C. decay stage 18. predictable sequence of changing species
D. fresh stage that inhabit a decomposing body
13. The first species to arrive on a dead body A. insect succession

is the: B. accumulated degree hours (ADH)
A. carrion beetle C. instar
B. trapdoor spider D. complete metamorphosis

19. Axillary sclerites form points of attach- 25. Which is the most reliable bone to deter-
ment for muscles that control the: mine the sex of a skeleton?
A. wings A. Femur
B. Legs B. Skull
C. mouthparts C. Pelvic bone
D. antennae D. Collarbone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. An important clue to the condition of a 26. Which Arthropod group lives mostly in wa-
body at death is the location of the ter?
A. beetles A. Insects
B. heart B. Arachnids
C. flies C. Centipedes
D. larval mass D. Crustaceans
21. How long does it take adult flies to emerge 27. The 3 basic body parts of an insect are:
from pupa cases? A. head, eyes, tail
A. 1-3 days B. head, wings, legs
B. 6-8 days C. head, abdomen, wings
C. 10-12 days D. head, thorax, abdomen
D. 14-16 days
28. According to forensic entomologists, which
22. What color is normal Lividity? “witness” is the first to arrive at the crime
A. Red scene?
B. Pink A. mite
C. Purple B. spider
D. none of above C. carrion beetle

D. blow fly
23. Blow flies will be the main insects used to
determine time since death in the after 29. Which is not one of the two major types
death. of insects entomologists observe?
A. first days A. bees
B. first hours B. flies
C. first weeks C. beetles
D. first months D. none of above
24. Which is an example of a pest insect? 30. The MEANS by which a person dies
A. Tick A. Manner of Death
B. Orb Weaver Spider B. Cause of Death
C. Water Bug C. Mechanism of Death
D. Praying Mantis D. Time of Death

31. Rate of cooling helps in determining 37. During the stage, blow fly larvae are
A. Manner of death delicate and prone to desiccation.

B. Time of death A. first instar
C. Place of death B. second instar
D. Cause of death C. third instar

D. fourth instar
32. How long does it take for rigor mortis to
set in? 38. Suture Lines on the are helpful in de-
A. immediately after death termining the of a victim
B. 1-2 hours after death A. skull, age

B. name, number
C. 4-6 hours after death
C. jaw, race
D. 8-12 hours after death
D. none of above
33. Forensic entomologists use their knowl-
edge of to help them solve a crime 39. environmental factors that affect insect
development
A. Pasta
A. temperature, wind and moisture
B. Insects
B. forensic anthropology
C. Painting
C. osteobiography
D. Music
D. facial reconstruction
34. The fact that insect development is al-
lows insects to be used to determine time 40. The insect’s body is made up of what three
since death. body parts:
A. irregular A. Head, thorax, flagellum
B. predictable B. Head, thorax, abdomen
C. constant C. Vertebrae, Deltoid, Femur
D. unpredictable D. Thorax, Anthrax, Typhoid
35. the thigh bone 41. Predators as nymphs and adults; larvae
have unusual mouthparts; help signifi-
A. femur
cantly to control mosquito populations
B. phalanges A. Odonata- Dragonflies and Damselflies
C. fibula B. Plecoptera- Stoneflies
D. frontal bone C. Hemiptera- True Bugs
36. Use insects to determine time and location D. Trichoptera- Caddisfly
of death
42. Developmental stage of arthropods, gen-
A. Psychology erally referring to changes in the size of
B. Toxicology the larvae
C. Pathology A. Metamorphosis
D. Entomology B. Moly

C. Instar 48. The stage where skin and soft tissues are
no longer present is called?
D. Oviposition
A. Fresh Body Stage
43. If you have Hide Beetles on the body which B. Bloat Stage
stage of decomposition is the body in?
C. Putrefaction
A. Fresh
D. Putrid Dry Remains
B. Early Putrifaction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. After a meal, the average time it takes for
C. Advanced decay the stomach to empty is
D. Dry or Skeletal A. 1-2 hours
44. body development in 4 stages:egg, larva, B. 4-6 hours
pupa, & adult C. 8-12 hours
A. complete metamorphosis D. 24 hours
B. grub 50. Normal body temperature is
C. oviposition A. 96.5 ◦ F
D. spiracles B. 97.2 ◦ F
C. 98.6 ◦ F
45. What is Botany?
D. 100 ◦ F
A. Study of Marines
B. Study of Terrestrials 51. the process of rotting and break down
A. rigor mortis
C. Study of Plants
B. decomposition
D. Study of Microbes
C. livor mortis
46. The major variable in the fly’s life cycle is D. putrefaction
52. blowflies are of little forensic value,

A. moisture
as it is unclear whether they have just ar-
B. pressure rived at the scene or have developed on
C. temperature the body.
A. adult
D. barometer
B. juvenile
47. What is insect succession? C. larval
A. The sequence in which an egg be- D. pupal
comes an adult fly.
53. post-mortem examination
B. A sequence of changing species that in-
habit a decomposing body. A. adipocere
C. The depositing of eggs. B. autolysis
D. When the alpha fly is overthrown by his C. autopsy

son. D. entomology

54. The insect’s skeleton is called 60. During this stage, the larvae have a feed-
A. Exoskeleton ing frenzy.

B. Endoskeleton A. fresh
C. Red Skeleton B. bloat
D. Halloween Skeleton C. active

D. advanced
55. wormlike beetle larva
A. grub 61. the process of recreating a face from skele-
tal remains (often for the purpose of iden-
B. crop
tification)
C. pupa
A. temperature, wind and moisture
D. maggot
B. forensic anthropology
56. This stage begins with the splitting of the C. osteobiography
skin to allow the gases to escape.
A. bloated stage
B. post-decay stage 62. Which represents the normal sequence of
decomposition?
C. decay stage
A. fresh, decay, post decay, bloated, dry
D. fresh stage
(skeletal)
57. Which of the following would be effected B. bloated, dry (skeletal), decay, post de-
first by rigor mortis? cay, fresh
A. Upper legs C. fresh, post decay, bloated, decay, dry
B. Face (skeletal)
C. Abdomen D. fresh, bloated, decay, post decay, dry
(skeletal)
D. Lower legs
63. an elected official who usually has no spe-
58. The study of insects is
cial medical training.
A. anthropology
A. medical examiner
B. pathology
B. coroner
C. entomology
C. forensic anthropologist
D. zoology
D. Rokitansky Procedure
59. The stage where soft tissues rapidly dis-
appear due to autolysis, bacterial, insect 64. the classification of things in an orderly
and other animal activity is called? way that indicates natural relationships
A. Fresh Body Stage A. dichotomous
B. Bloat Stage B. taxonomy
C. Putrefaction C. arthropods
D. Putrid Dry Remains D. none of above

65. Carcass of a dead and decaying animal 70. The initial rate of body heat loss shortly
after death is about
A. Entomology
B. Carrion A. 0.7 degrees F
C. Arthropod B. 1.0 degrees F
D. Taxonomy C. 1.4 degrees F

D. 2.4 degrees F
66. # of hours it takes for insect species to de-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
velop to a given stage 71. Which of the following is the correct order
A. accumulated degree hours (ADH) of the life cycle of a blow fly?
B. insect succession A. egg, pupa, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar,
3rd instar), adult
C. instar
B. larva, egg, pupa, adult
D. complete metamorphosis
C. adult, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar, 3rd
67. Necrophilous insects are instar), egg
A. species such as ants, wasps, and D. egg, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar, 3rd
some beetles that feed on the corpse and instar), pupa, adult
associated maggots
B. beetles, true flies, and wasps that par- 72. What is the reason for autopsy?
asitize immature flies A. Candy
C. the first species feeding on corpse tis- B. Old age
sue
C. Unnatural cause
D. pill bugs, spiders, and mites that use
D. Declined by family
the corpse as an extension of their habi-
tat
73. Why does an infants skeleton contain a
68. Which part of the exoskeleton lies be- higher number of bones?
tween the exocuticle and the wax layer? A. They are born with many bones that
A. procuticle have not fused completely
B. cement layer B. They are mutant ninja bebes
C. cuticulin layer C. They are born with bones that eventu-

ally turn into cartilage
D. endocuticle
D. all of the above
69. Degree days or degree hours are the num-
ber of days/hours multiplied by the num- 74. the spontaneous breakdown of cells as
ber of above a threshold temperature. they self-digest
A. degrees A. rigor mortis
B. months B. algor mortis
C. days C. pupa/pupae
D. weeks D. autolysis

75. In general, the older the insects around the C. Homicide

dead body are D. Accidental Death

A. the longer the body has been dead
81. the stage in an insect’s life cycle when the
B. the less time the body has been dead larva forms a capsule around itself and
C. the more blood the body lost transitions into its adult form
D. the hotter the temp. around the body A. instar
is B. pupa/pupae
76. each of the 3 different larval stages of C. larva/larvae
flies in species that undergo complete D. death
metamorphosis
82. How many hours does it take livor mortis
A. instar
to be fully settled? (Choose the best an-
B. insect succession swer choice)
C. maggot A. Five hours
D. oviposition B. 12 hours
77. During what stage does house flies begin C. Two hours
to show up and lay eggs? D. Six hours
A. Post-Decay Stage
83. Which of the following best describes rigor
B. Fresh Stage mortis?
C. Decay Stage A. It is the pooling of blood after deaath
D. Bloated Stage B. It is the stiffening of muscles after
death
78. wormlike fly larva
C. It is the cooling of the body after death
A. maggot
B. crop D. none of above
C. grub
84. Forensic entomologists use insects to gain
D. pupa information about
79. Blister beetles have what substance in A. time since death
their bodies that can be toxic to livestock? B. wounds present
A. serotonin C. drugs/toxins in the body
B. chitin D. all of the above.
C. cantharadin
85. This type of mortis includes stiffening of
D. resilin muscles
80. Disease, cancer, heart attack and old age A. Liver mortis
would be classified as B. Rigor mortis
A. Natural Death C. Algor mortis
B. Suicide D. Stiffo mortis

86. How is entomology used in crimes C. maggot

A. To prove how Cops only like donuts D. entomology
B. To examine how long the infestation in 92. In centipedes, the “fangs” are what type
the body is with how long it is of structure?
C. To show how crimes are caused by in- A. mandibles
sects
B. modified legs
D. To show that many crimes use insects
C. maxilla
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in food
D. modified mouthparts
87. The Agonal Period means
93. One type of insect typically arrives within
A. Before Death
minutes after death. Therefore this type
B. Moment of Death of insect is considered to be timekeepers
C. After Death for postmortem intervals. Which type of
insect is this?
D. Period of time between death and
when the body is found. A. sexton beetle
B. blowflies
88. is a broad term meaning the applica-
tion of the study of insects to legal cases. C. flesh flies
A. Forensic anthropology D. houseflies
B. forensic odontology 94. depositing, or laying, of eggs
C. forensic pathology A. oviposition
D. forensic entomology B. insect succession
89. The entomologist must be able to identify C. spiracles

the of blow fly because each de- D. grub
velops at a different rate.
95. The majority of native bees nest in what
A. family type of habitat?
B. genus A. flowering plants
C. order B. bamboo stems
D. species C. trees
90. Term that refers to the larval stage of a D. soil
fly
96. Why do Forensic entomologists look at
A. egg blow fly larvae at a crime scene?
B. maggot A. They are the last insects to arrive at a
C. pupa body
D. adult B. They have the fastest life cycle
C. We know the least about their life cy-
91. another name for instar cle
A. post mortem interval (PMI) D. They are the first insects to arrive at
B. accumulated degree hour (ADH) the body

97. What is done by a medical examiner to de- 103. The insect has two metamorphosis types.
termine the cause of death? What are they?

A. Biopsy A. Annual, Complete
B. Autopsy B. Incomplete, Periennial
C. Forgery C. Incomplete, Complete
D. Sonogram D. Complete, Transformation
98. biological process in the development of 104. Pada tahun berapa Rentokil beroperasi di
animals, usually involving conspicuous Indonesia
changes in the animal’s form or structure A. 1999
A. metomorphosis B. 1989
B. malt C. 1979
C. instar D. 1969
D. none of above
105. What is Zoology?
99. Oviposition is A. Study of Aves
A. the laying of eggs. B. Study of Mammals
B. the depositing of dead bodies. C. Study of Amphibians
C. the area where bugs can be found. D. Study of Animals
D. position of a dead body.
106. During which stage does the body take
100. the cessation, or end, of life on a compressed appearance and give off
A. instar a powerful odor.
B. pupa/pupae A. decay stage
C. death B. bloated stage
D. putrefaction C. fresh stage

D. post-decay
101. Decomposition of a mammal begins at
this stage: 107. the stiffening of the skeletal muscles
A. post-decay stage shortly after death
B. bloated A. livor mortis
C. fresh stage B. autolysis
D. decay stage C. rigor mortis

D. algor mortis
102. Species That Has Destroyed the US re-
cently 108. In what kingdom are maggots classified?
A. Japanesse Beetle A. Plants
B. Lady Bug B. Animals
C. Spotted Lanternfly C. Fungi
D. Dragon Fly D. none of above

109. Entomology is: 115. Immature form of an animal that looks

A. The study of arthropods different from the adult (Ex. Maggot, Tad-
pole)
B. The study of the skin
A. Eclosion
C. The study of arachnids
B. Fly Development Stages
D. The study of insects
C. Pupa
110. Cause of death refers to
D. Larva
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. When a person died
B. The reason they died 116. Algor mortis stands for
C. Who killed them A. Telling time of death using body stiff-
D. Specific body part failure ness
B. Telling time of death using blood
111. Which structures would be found in an pulling
eruciform larva, but not in a scarabaeiform
larva? C. Telling time of death using tempera-
ture loss
A. prolegs
B. mandibles D. none of above
C. spiracles 117. The four types of information one needs

D. ocelli to know when using maggot evidence are
112. What are the two most important in-

sects? A. Genus of insect, oldest stage of
blowfly, temperature data, and develop-
A. Blowflies and Beetles ment data
B. Bees and Mosquitoes B. Species of insect, oldest stage of
C. Wasps and Butterflies blowfly, temperature data and develop-
D. Ants and Lady Bugs ment data
C. Genus of insect, youngest stage of
113. the pooling of the blood blowfly, temperature data and develop-
A. lividity ment data
B. algor mortis D. Species of insect, youngest stage of
C. rigor mortis blowfly, temperature data and develop-
ment data
D. livor mortis
118. Carrion beetles prefer
114. the shedding of an insects outer skeleton
during a growth stage A. corpse in stage 1 decomposition
A. metamorphosis B. corpse in a dry stage, as well as eggs
B. malt & larvae of other insects
C. instar C. corpse in any stage of decomposition
D. none of above D. just the eggs & larvae of other insects

119. Which term below is not an example of A. post-decay stage

an open wound? B. decay stage

A. bruise C. fresh stage
B. abrasion D. bloated stage
C. puncture
125. the scientific study of insects
D. laceration
A. carrion
120. Time elapsed since death B. entomology
A. Post Mortem Interval C. necrophagous
B. Putrefaction D. none of above
C. Adipocere
126. one of the three larval stages of insect
D. Ambient development
121. Prior to hours after death, algor mor- A. death
tis, livor mortis and rigor mortis are used B. instar
instead of entomology evidence. C. pupa/pupae
A. 36 D. autolysis
B. 48
127. the period of time between time of death
C. 72 and when the body was first discovered
D. 96 A. post mortem interval (PMI)
122. animals characterized by jointed legs, a B. accumulated degree hour (ADH)
segmented body, and a hard, nonliving ex- C. maggot
oskeleton. the exoskeleton does not keep
up with the growth of the insect, and so D. entomology
must be shed periodically 128. All of the following features of the skull
A. dichotomous can be used to determine the sex of a
skeleton EXCEPT
B. taxonomy
A. shape of the jaw
C. arthropods
B. shape of the nasal cavity
D. none of above
C. shape of the eye orbits
123. Which is NOT one of the five Arthropod
D. shape of the forehead
groups we covered in class?
A. Insect 129. Case 1:Police Report:The body of a fe-
male deer was found behind a fence along
B. Crustacean
a busy two-lane road on the edge of
C. Mantids the city limits of Charlotte. Animal Con-
D. Arachnids trol was called and reported no apparent
wounds on the body. It was not hunting
124. This stage occurs because of the activity season.Weather Report:Daytime tempera-
bacteria which produces gases inside the tures have been fairly consistent for the
body. past three weeks, ranging from 70 to 74◦

F.There were 2 house fly larvae that mea- C. The number of hours a body has been
sure 29 & 20 mm, 2 blow fly larvae at 29 dead.
& 25 mm, 1 flesh fly larvae that was 29
D. The number of hours it takes for an in-
mm a skipper fly larvae that was 9 mm
sect species to develop to a given stage.
and 1 flesh fly pupae that measured 39
mm.Why are there larvae of different ages
134. What stage of a fly’s life cycle are mag-
for the same type of fly found on the body
gots?
of the deer?
A. Adult
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. They measured wrong
B. The different flies come to the deer at B. Pupa
different times. C. Larva
C. Adult flies of the same species came D. none of above
to the deer at different times
D. none of above 135. the carcass of a dead and decaying animal
130. a unit of measure of the energy absorbed A. carrion

by a biological system, causing growth B. entomology
A. degree-day C. arthropods
B. mites
D. none of above
C. eclosion
D. none of above 136. The eastern population of monarch but-
terflies overwinter in
131. Exoskeletons are made from
A. Florida
A. Hair
B. Central Mexico
B. Bone
C. Baja California
C. Nails
D. Chitin D. Texas
132. Prior to 72 hours after death, livor mor- 137. the depositing or laying of eggs.
tis, rigor mortis and algor mortis are used A. instar
instead of evidence.
B. oviposition
A. anthropological
B. odontological C. malt
C. entomological D. none of above
D. pathological
138. nonfeeding stage of development be-
133. What is Accumulated Degree Hours tween larva & adult
(ADH)? A. pupa
A. The number of hours a dead body has B. spiracles
been outside.
C. grub
B. The number of hours it takes for an in-
sect species to become an adult. D. crop

139. The living insect in the stage prior to 145. During this stage/phase, the larvae
metamorphosis in the blow fly life-cycle is stops feeding and travels several feet
called the away from the corpse.

A. pupae A. initial decay
B. pupal case B. migration phase
C. puparium C. fresh stage
D. none of these D. bloated stage
140. The three levels of certainty are ,
and 146. How long does it take a blowfly egg to
hatch into maggots?
A. possibility, consistency, certainty
A. 1 hour
B. maybe, possibly, probably
B. 2-4 hours
C. probability, consistency, certainty
D. probability, consistency, absolutely C. 8-10 hours
D. 12-24 hours
141. The process where cells begin to die
A. Bursting 147. What is a maggot?
B. Cell disintigration A. Wormlike fly larva.
C. Autolysis B. Wormlike stage of insect development
D. Autocleaving after egg.
142. The life cycle of a blow fly begins with: C. Wormlike beetle larva
A. oviposition D. A wormlike person who has no respect

for themselves or others. HIDE ANSWER
B. decay
C. pupation 148. A forensic investigator may be able to
D. migration phase use to determine if a body was
moved after death
143. Which of the following is not a common A. Rigor mortis
factor that could have an effect on insect
evidence? B. Liver mortis
A. where the body was located C. Algor mortis
B. the weather conditions D. Hyper mortis
C. age the person was when they died
149. Insect evidence should be collected
D. drugs or poisons present
A. at the scene by a forensic entomolo-
144. What are the respiratory organs of in- gist or trained investigator.
sects called?
B. upon the finding of the decedent by the
A. Pupas first responding officer.
B. Crops C. only from the body.
C. Spiracles D. at the crime laboratory by forensic an-
D. Instars alysts.

150. What is a reason why insect evidence is C. Pathology

often not collected? D. Autopsy
A. Most insect are active at night.
156. What is the wormlike stage of insect de-
B. insect evidence is only found during ac- velopment after the egg?
tive decay.
A. Pupa
C. investigators are often not properly
B. Maggot
trained to find and collect insects.
C. Grub
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. insects can not be found if the body is
buried or covered. D. Larva
151. What are wormlike beetle larva called? 157. What is ADH?
A. The number of hours a dead body has
A. Grub
been outside
B. Larva
B. The number of hours a body has been
C. Pupa dead.
D. Maggot C. The number of hours it takes for an in-
sect species to become an adult.
152. Application of entomology to civil and
criminal legal cases D. The number of hours it takes for an in-
sect species to develop to a given stage.
A. Forensic botany
158. concerning the surrounding area or envi-
B. Forensic Serology
ronment
C. Forensic Entomology
A. malt
D. Forensic Anthropology
B. instar
153. the immediate reason for a person’s C. ambient
death D. none of above
A. death
159. A forensic entomologist is
B. mechanism of death
A. A person who studies insects to gain
C. cause of death clues about a crime
D. manner of death B. a person who studies bones to gain
clues about a crime
154. The monophagous pest of mango crop is
C. a person who studies DNA to gain
A. Mango hopper clues about a crime
B. Mango stone weevil D. a person who studies fire and arson
C. Mango thrips
160. The three different larval stages of flies
D. Mango whitefly is a what?
155. In the case of a suspicious or unnatural A. Crop
death a pathologist would conduct a(n) B. Pupa
A. Inspection C. Instar
B. Diagnosis D. Spiracle

161. How does temperature have an effect on 166. The body loses how many degrees per
insect evidence? hour after death
A. 1.5 ◦ F

A. temp. does not effect insect evidence
B. high temp. speeds up insect’s life cy- B. 2 ◦ F
cle C. 3 ◦ F
C. low temp. speeds up insect’s life cycle D. 4 ◦ F
167. Which stage of mortis results in the

D. none of above
changing of color in the body?
162. Abrasion Mark A. Rigor Mortis
A. A mark produced when a surface B. Algor Mortis
slides accros another surface
C. Liver Mortis
B. A mark produced alog the edge as a D. none of above
surface is cut
C. A mark or impression made by a tool 168. Estimations of the postmortem interval
on a softer surface (PMI) using entomological evidence must
take into account
D. Any impression or scratch or imbra-
sion made when contact occurs betweena A. the species of insect present
tool and another object B. weather conditions
163. application of entomology to civil & crim- C. geographical locations of the dece-
inal legal cases dent’s body
D. all of these
A. forensic entomology
B. forensic anthropology 169. What is the insect stage after the egg
hatches called?
C. forensic odontology
A. Pupae
D. forensic epidemiology
B. 1st instar
164. What is the body development in four C. 2nd egg stage
stages called?
D. Adult
A. Insect Succession
B. Complete Metamorphosis 170. Necrophages are
C. Incomplete Metamorphosis A. species such as ants, wasps, and

some beetles that feed on the corpse and
D. Oviposition associated maggots
165. Insects, or Hexapods, have how many B. beetles, true flies, and wasps that par-
legs? asitize immature flies
A. 2 C. the first species feeding on corpse tis-
sue
B. 6
D. pill bugs, spiders, and mites that use
C. 8 the corpse as an extension of their habi-
D. 10 tat

171. one of four means by which someone dies 177. “divided into two parts”; there, dichoto-
A. death mous keys always give two choices in each
step in identifying an organism.
B. manner of death
A. dichotomous
C. cause of death
B. taxonomy
D. mechanism of death
C. arthropods
172. Crustaceans are a good source of for D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
humans.
178. Which of the following is NOT a part of
A. Food
insect development cycle.
B. Fear
A. Pupa
C. Fun B. Grub
D. Pets C. Egg
173. Which of these is NOT true of insects? D. Adult
A. 3 body segments 179. Rigor mortis means
B. 6 pairs of jointed legs A. Death stiffness
C. wings at some point B. Death color
D. belong to Phylum Arthropoda C. Death bloat
174. If an insect’s subesophageal ganglion D. Death heat
were paralyzed, it would be unable to
180. What does a forensic entomologist
A. eat study?
B. fly A. worms
C. walk B. insects
D. see C. spiders
175. How long does it take adult flies to lay D. none of above
eggs on a dead body? 181. The nonfeeding stage of develpment for
A. 10 hours an insect is what?
B. 18 hours A. Crop
C. 24 hours B. Pupa
D. 48 hours C. Larva
D. Instar
176. the specific body failure that leads to a
person’s death 182. study of insects & related arthropods
A. mechanism of death A. entomology
B. decomposition B. epidemiology
C. manner of death C. oncology
D. cause of death D. anthropology

183. How can a blowfly help an investigation? C. 55◦

A. Helps investigators determine time of D. 65◦

death.
189. What mineral causes eyes to appear
B. Helps investigators determine how a cloudy after death?
person was killed.
A. Sodium
C. Helps investigators determine what
B. Calcium
the person ate at his/her last meal.
C. Potassium
D. none of above
D. Chloride
184. Developmental process usually involving
changes in the animal’s form 190. A body found with no food in the stom-
ach or small intestines has been dead for
A. Metamorphosis at least hours
B. Moly A. 2
C. Instar B. 6
D. Oviposition C. 12
185. What is the life cycle of an insect called D. 24
A. pupa 191. The stage where gasses released by bac-

teria causes the body to swell is called?
B. larva
A. Fresh Body Stage
C. metamorphosis
B. Bloat Stage
D. levimorphosis
C. Putrefaction
186. When the insect sheds it’s exoskeleton, D. Putrid Dry Remains
it is known as
A. Shedding 192. Weather (temperature and humidity) af-
fects
B. Peeling
A. the types of insects that colonize re-
C. Molting mains
D. Melting B. the amount of time an insect takes to
develop from egg to adult
187. Pupae will be found in the same areas as
third-instar larvae. C. the size of the adult insect
A. wandering D. all of the above
B. resting 193. What does post mortem interval mean?

C. propagating A. time that has past since the victim was
at the scene
D. metamorphosing
B. time that has past since the victim died
188. What is the lowest temperature that in-
C. time that has past since the suspect
sect development will occur?
was at the scene
A. 35◦ D. time that has past since the insects ar-
B. 45◦ rived at the scene

194. Insect at the crime scene stops the B. forensic anthropology

clock on the insects. C. osteobiography
A. collection
B. preservation
200. During this stage, beetles begin to colo-
C. development
nize the body and consume the dry, less
D. degradation nutrient-rich components.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
195. The third stage of metamorphosis / larva A. decay stage
develops into an adult insect. B. bloated stage
A. Eclosion C. fresh stage
B. Fly Development Stages
D. post-decay stage
C. Pupa
201. Species that was known for destroying
D. Larva
wildlife about a 6 years ago.
196. Name means “case-bearer”. Build cases A. Chinese Wasp
from materials in rivers (pebbles, leaf lit-
ter, twigs, etc.). Most cases about 1.5 cm B. Dragonfly
long. C. Japanese Beetle
A. Diptera (Flies) D. Brazillian Beetle
B. Coleoptera- Beetles
202. What is the average temperature drop
C. Trichoptera- Caddisfly during the first 12 hours after death?
D. Lepidoptera- Butterflies and Moths A. .25◦ C every hour
197. What is the proper name for insects B. .50◦ C every hour
with a hard, outer-body casing and jointed C. .75◦ C every hour
legs?
D. 1.00◦ C every hour
A. mammals
B. arthropods 203. a given amount of heat needed to de-
velop from one stage of an insect life cycle
C. snails
to the next
D. crustaceans
A. post mortem interval (PMI)
198. The pelvis of a female is as compared B. accumulated degree hour (ADH)
to a male.
C. maggot
A. wide and circular
D. entomology
B. wide and heart-shaped
C. narrow and circular 204. emergence of an adult from its pupal case
D. narrow and heart-shaped A. ambient
B. mites
199. the story of a persons life as told by his
or her bones C. eclosion
A. temperature, wind and moisture D. none of above

205. respiratory organs of insects that are 211. This stage of death is defined huge loss
used by researchers to identify a larval of mass, to the point where only skin and
stage as first, second or third instar bones are likely to remain

A. spiracles A. Fresh
B. crops B. Bloat / Putrification
C. maggots
C. Active Decay
D. instars
D. Dry Remains
206. What do entomologists learn by studying
the insects at a crime scene? 212. Immatures called “hellgramite” (fierce,
3”+long, strong jaws to pinch); Like fast
A. who the victim is
moving water in rocky streams; a dults
B. PMI have giant jaws but they do not pinch
C. who probably commited the crime A. Diptera (Flies)
D. the crime autopsy
B. Megaloptera/Neuroptera:Alderflies
207. During this stage house flies begin to ap- and Dobsonflies
pear and deposit eggs C. Lepidoptera- Butterflies and Moths
A. fresh stage
D. Coleoptera- Beetles
B. post-decay stage
C. bloated stage 213. A parsley worm is in the order and
the adult turns into a
D. decay stage
A. Lepidoptera, cabbage looper
208. SERANGGA MEMPUNYAI BERAPA BI-
LANGAN KAKI B. Coleoptera, weevil
A. 8 C. Lepidoptera, swallowtail
B. 6 D. Diptera, mosquito
C. 4
214. Heat units required for insect develop-
D. 2 ment are
209. rigor mortis peaks how many hours after A. PMI
death?
B. ADH
A. 36
C. CODIS
B. 18
D. AFIS
C. 8
D. 12 215. Loss of body heat after death is known
as
210. Entomologists studies
A. Algor mortis
A. fossils
B. insects B. Rigor mortis
C. animals C. Temperature drop
D. plants D. Liver mortis

216. The reason someone dies is called the: C. 6 hours

A. type of death D. 12 hours
B. manner of death 222. Bees and Butterflies are considered ?
C. cause of death A. Pests
D. mechanism of death B. Pets
217. What is the name for the forensic scien- C. Pollinators
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tist that studies insects? D. Predators
A. Anthropologist
223. What can entomologists know by study-
B. Entomologist ing the insects at a crime scene?
C. Toxicologist A. who the victim is
D. Botanist B. PMI
218. Which is the correct sequence of develop- C. who probably commited the crime
mental stages for blowflies? D. the crime autopsy
A. egg, larvae, pupa, adult
224. What is the definition of Pathology?
B. egg, second instar, 3rd instar, pupa, A. The branch of medicine concerned
adult with diseases.
C. egg, pupa, maggot, adult B. The scientific study of the nature, ori-
D. 1st instar, 2nd nstar, 3rd instar, pupa, gin, process, and cause of disease.
adult C. The branch of medicine which deals
219. Normal body temperature in degree Cel- with the incidence, distribution, and pos-
sius is sible control of diseases.
A. 37 D. The study of life.
B. 98 225. Nymphs during most of life cycle; af-

ter several years, emerge from water as
C. 24
adults, quickly mate and die (few hours or
D. 50 days)
220. What is the body development of an in- A. Odonata- Dragonflies and Damselflies
sect in four stages called? B. Ephemeroptera (Mayflies)
A. Insect Succession C. Plecoptera- Stoneflies
B. Complete Metamorphosis D. Megaloptera/Neuroptera:Alderflies
C. Accumulated Degree Hours and Dobsonflies
D. Oviposition 226. the time elapsed since a person has died
221. How long does it take food to leave the A. postmortem interval (PMI)
small intestine? B. carrion
A. 2 hours C. entomology
B. 4 hours D. none of above

227. In most cases, forensic entomology will C. salt water

only determine a time since death. D. soil

A. approximate
232. The stage of the fly cycle during which
B. maximum the larvae are voracious feeders is called
C. minimum the stage.
D. probable A. first instar
228. Explain the difference between a cut and B. second instar

a scrape wound. C. third instar
A. A cut is shallow, whereas a scrape is D. fourth instar
deep.
233. the study of insects
B. An cut has irregular edges and an abra-
A. post mortem interval (PMI)
sion is a straight, even wound.
B. accumulated degree hour (ADH)
C. A cut, or laceration, is a straight, even
wound made with a sharp object like a C. maggot
knife or razor blade. A scrape, or abra- D. entomology
sion, is caused by sliding impact between
the skin and a rough surface. 234. How can ADH of insects help in an inves-
tigation?
D. A scrape bleeds a lot, whereas a cut
bleeds very little. A. Provides range for time of death
B. Provides exact time of death
229. Insect stage after the egg hatches
C. Provides cause of death
A. 1st instar
D. Provides manner of death
B. pupae
C. 2nd egg stage 235. The nonliving part of the insect in the
stage prior to metamorphosis in the blow
D. adult fly life-cycle is called the:
230. How are entomology and forensic ento- A. pupae
mology different? B. pupal space
A. Entomology studies insects while C. puparium
forensic entomology studies insects in ap-
plication to civil and criminal legal cases. D. none of these
B. Entomology studies insects in applica- 236. Case 2:Police Report:The body of a large
tion to civil and criminal legal cases while pit bull terrier was found inside a walk-
forensic entomology studies insects. in basement at a home in Cary. Mag-
C. Trick! They are both the same. gots were found concentrated in the head
and region behind the shoulder. The win-
D. This is not the answer. dows were closed, although the open cur-
231. Aquatic insects spend at least part of tains allowed sunlight to enter, and the
their life cycle in or around air conditioner was set at 72◦ F. Weather
Report:Daytime temperatures have been
A. water variable over the past three weeks, rang-
B. plant life ing from 75 to 94◦ F. Skies have been

sunny. What effect did the outside tem- B. no metamorphosis

perature have on the development of the C. complete metamorphosis
larva?
D. gradual metamorphosis
A. It is hot outside so it sped it up.
B. It is hot outside so it slowed it down. 242. Why do insects have many different
types of mouth-parts?
C. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside
and the AC is on so it had no effect. A. To speak French
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside B. To eat a variety of different things
and the AC is on so it sped it up. C. To be annoying
237. a digestive organ used for storage of D. Because they are all different animals
food
243. An entomologist needs to know the type
A. crop
of fly and the of the larva in order
B. maggot to help investigators. (Which words best
C. larva fill in the blanks?)
D. instar A. age; weight
238. the cooling of body temperature after B. species; age

death C. actions; smell
A. rigor mortis D. none of above
B. algor mortis
244. the study of human remains (often bones)
C. livor mortis to aid in legal investigations
D. autolysis A. temperature, wind and moisture
239. Feeding on a dead animal B. forensic anthropology
A. Livor Mortis C. osteobiography
B. Algor Mortis D. facial reconstruction
C. Rigor Mortis
245. What is the highest temperature that in-
D. Necrophagous sect development will occur?
240. How long does it take for rigor mortis to A. 65◦
complete? B. 75◦
A. immediately after death C. 95◦
B. 1-2 hours after death D. 105◦
C. 4-6 hours after death
246. Decomposition begins at this stage.
D. 8-12 hours after death
A. advanced decay
241. Insects that pass through the egg, larva,
B. bloat
pupa, and adult stages in their life cycle
have C. fresh
A. incomplete metamorphosis D. active decay

8.2 Pest Management 1225
247. breakdown of once living matter by living B. larva

organisms C. decomposition

A. instar D. insect succession
8.2 Pest Management

1. A pesticide is if it does not break down B. Regulatory
easily or quickly in the environment. C. chemical
A. Persistent D. mechanical
B. Domesticated
6. A clean and safe operation offers pests lit-
C. Compost tle and
D. Aquaculture A. food, water
2. What is the pest way to eliminate pests B. water, shelter
that have entered an operation? C. access, shelter
A. Contact the PCO D. none of above
B. The Establishment’s manager sets
7. What temp is the sanitizer sink set to for
traps and/or spray’s pesticides.
manual dishwashing?
C. The Establishment’s Chef sprays with
A. 171
pesticides
B. 180
D. none of above
C. 90
3. Which individual should apply pesticides in
D. 110
a restaurant or food service operation?
A. Pest control operator. 8. Biopesticides are derived from all of the
following EXCEPT?
B. Owner / operator.
A. Plants
C. Operational director.
B. Synthetics
D. Line cook.
C. Animals
4. What is the 100% effective way to pre- D. minerals
vent backflow in plumbing?
A. Create an air curtain 9. Used to make antibiotics and other drugs:
B. Create a cross connector A. Endophyte
C. Create an air gap B. Exophytes
D. Install a vacuum breaker C. Growth Regulators

D. GMOs
5. Which pest control technique can be harm-
ful to the environment if not appliedCor- 10. Dodder is a plant parasite that lives on a
rectly? host plant. It survives by:
A. Biological A. taking nutrients from the host plant

B. attracting insects to the host plant B. Atrazine

C. pollinating the host plant C. BPA
D. taking nutrients from the soil D. Vectorite
11. How have modern synthetic pesticides
saved human lives? 16. Food in the dry storage room should be
stored off the floor
A. Prevented death from insect-
transmitted diseases A. three inches
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Prevented crop loss B. two inches
C. Prevented death from insect diseases C. five inches
D. Increased amount of available fresh
D. six inches
water
12. A danger or threat to health that requires 17. A hand washing station is NOT required in
immediate correction or closure to prevent what areas?
injury is a(n) A. Dry storage and broom closet.
A. physical hazard
B. Food preparation.
B. regulatory hazard
C. Service.
C. critical control hazard
D. imminent health hazard D. Ware-washing.
13. What alternative source is acceptable if 18. Lighting is measured in all EXCEPT
drinkable (potable) water is not available
A. Foot-candles
through the public water system?
A. Bottled drinking water B. Lux
B. Mountain strem water C. Decibels
C. Filtered rain water D. All of the above
D. Shallow well water
19. Who should apply pesticides? (unit 6)
14. What is one way to keep an operation
pest-free? A. Shift manager
A. Deny pests access to the operation. B. Person in charge

B. Keep outdoor garbage containers C. Pest control operator
open.
D. Designated pest staff member
C. Clean up food spills at the end of each
shift. 20. Americans waste % of their food
D. Store food and supplies one inch of the
A. 10-20
floor in storage.
B. 25-30
15. Which of the following is NOT an endocrine
disruptor? C. 30-45
A. DDT D. 65+

21. Which of the following best describes an 26. Select the option that is TRUE.
Endocrine Disruptor? A. Rachel Carson’s book caused the gov-

A. A chemical that disrupts the growth ernment to ban pesticides.
and development of organisms B. Rachel Carson was a zoo keeper.
B. A chemical that disrupts the digestion C. Rachel Carson campaigned for pesti-
of organisms cides to be banned because they harmed
C. A chemical that disrupts the blow flow wildlife.
of an organism D. Rachel Carson asked for more re-
D. A chemical that disrupts the bone search to be done about the harm caused
structure of an organism by pesticides.
27. Which is NOT a requirement for a hand

22. All of the following are means of control-
washing station?
ling plant pests EXCEPT?
A. Hand sanitizer.
A. Sanitary means
B. Hot and cold running eater.
B. Chemical means
C. Soap and disposable paper towels.
C. Biological means
D. Waste container and signage for em-
D. Mechanical means ployees to wash hands.
23. Who should apply pesticides? 28. The main reason food handlers must not
A. shift manager eat or drink when preparing or serving
food is because
B. person in charge
A. there will be less food for customers
C. pest control operator
B. they may choke while working
D. designated pest staff member
C. it creates an unpleasant work environ-
ment
24. When choosing floors, walls, and ceilings,
pick those that are: D. saliva may transfer to food
A. Absorbent and durable 29. What is sanitizing?
B. Smooth and durable A. Reducing dirt from a surface
C. Porous and durable B. Reducing the pH of a surface
D. Hard and durable C. Reducing the hardness of water
D. Reducing pathogens to safe levels
25. Children who live in agricultural areas
where there is heavy pesticide use are 30. What was the positive effect of the green
likely to be exposed to pesticides revolution?
A. suspended in the air. A. excess use of fertilizer
B. attached to dust particles. B. excess use of pesticides
C. In the water supply. C. profit for small farms
D. all of these D. high yields of grains

31. A farmer discovers pests have become re- 36. A behavior that helps an organism avoid
sistant to the atrazine she’s been using so or protect itself from predators is called:
she must use larger, more frequent doses. A. Hibernation
This is known as
B. Migration
A. the pesticide treadmill
C. Defense Mechanism
B. both an acute and a chronic effect
D. Mimicry
C. a synergistic effect
37. Which is an unsafe guideline for commer-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. an antagonistic effect cial kitchen facilities?
32. PCO stands for (unit 6) A. purchase equipment that is NSF ap-
A. Pest Coordination Organization proved
B. Pizza Control Orderer B. put floor-mounted equipment on legs

at least 6 inches high
C. Pest Control Operator
C. create an air gap to prevent backflow
D. Pest Condition Organization
D. clean garbage containers near food-
33. Pests are defined as storage areas
A. Any species that interferes with hu- 38. DDT was banned in the USA in 1972, yet
man welfare it continued to be manufactured and ex-
B. Chemicals that can kill ported for use on crops that were subse-
quently imported. This illustrates pesti-
C. Any species that can be beneficial to cide
humans
A. bioaccumulation
D. none of above
B. persistance
34. What scenario can lead to pest infesta- C. drift
tion?
D. circle of poison
A. Storing recyclables in paper bags by
the backdoor 39. Which must be cleaned and sanitized, as
opposed to just cleaned and rinsed?
B. Cleaning up spills around garbage con-
tainers A. kitchen walls
C. Sealing cracks in floors and walls and B. storage shelves
around pipes C. prep tables
D. Installing air curtains above doors D. garbage containers
35. The three basic rules of an integrated 40. Which of the following is NOT a reason
pest management program are:work with why the environment in which aquacrops
a PCO, deny access, and grow harbors diseases and pests?
A. keep food on the floor A. High concentrations of aquacrops al-
lows for more rapid transfer of diseases
B. give access through cracks and holes and pests from one individual to anther.
in the walls and floors.
B. Uneaten feed, fish excrement, and ex-
C. deny shelter cess fertilizer provide nutrients for the
D. none of above growth of weeds.

C. Handling causes stress, and stress, B. Place a towel in the floor drain to pre-
in turn, reduces resistance to some dis- vent additional backup, and clean and san-
eases and pests. itize the area

D. High populations in ponds, open tanks, C. Contact the local regulator authority
and raceways are protected from preda- and stop food prep immediately
tors.
D. Inform the event planner and allow
41. A pest is any species that interferes with that person to decide what action to take.
human welfare by competing with us for
what? 46. Which of the following statements
best describes the position held by the
A. Food
U.S.Department of Agriculture concerning
B. Water the use of pesticides in the 60s?
C. Air A. Unrestricted use of pesticides is nec-
D. Tacos essary to feed and clothe the world’s peo-
ple.
42. Refers to land that can be used to grow
crops B. Although pesticides are necessary, al-
ternative chemical pesticides should be
A. Desertification
used whenever possible.
B. Domesticated
C. Use of pesticides should be restricted
C. Arable to people who have been trained in the
D. Overharvesting proper procedures.
43. Under the integrated pest management D. Pesticides are upsetting the balance of
system, the first line of defense during an nature.
infestation is to use
47. From left to right, what goes in each com-
A. biologic methods partment of a three-compartment sink?
B. DDT
A. detergent and water, water and sani-
C. genetic engineering tizer, clean water
D. broad range pesticides B. water and sanitizer, detergent and wa-
44. Berikut ini Non Pestisida untuk kecoa ter, clean water
adalah C. clean water, detergent and water, wa-
A. Sanitation ter and sanitizer
B. Spot treatment D. detergent and water, clean water, wa-
C. Residual treatment ter and sanitizer
D. Bait 48. One disadvantage of pesticides is it puts

farmers on a finical treadmill by
45. A manager, preparing for a large catered
event, notices sewage backup in the prep A. Pay more and less effective
area. What should the manager do?
B. Pay less and less effective
A. Clean and sanitize workstations contin-
C. Pay less and more effective
ually and instruct all kitchen personnel to
wear glvoes D. Pay more and more effective

49. Pests can be which of the following? C. People are being attacked more often
A. Weeds by wild animals.
B. Trees D. More people are becoming sick from

new kinds of illnesses.
C. Vegetables
D. Ornamental crops 55. Which predator will eat corn borer eggs?
50. A is a plant, animal, or other organism A. Boll weevil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
that is detrimental to a species. B. Ladybug
A. disease C. Blister beetle
B. pest D. Crickets
C. parasite
D. predator 56. Introducing a predator to feed on the plant
pest describes which means of pest con-
51. After pesticides have been applied, food- trol?
contact surfaces should be A. Sanitary means
A. used only after a 20-minute wait
B. Chemical means
B. checked with a sanitizer test kit
C. Mechanical means
C. washed, rinsed and sanitized
D. Biological means
D. replaced with new equipment
57. Biological control’s Natural Agents in-
52. Which control measure involves the use of
cludes all of the following, EXCEPT:
living organisms to control pests?
A. Bilogical A. Fertilizers
B. Cultural B. Pathogens
C. Sanitation C. Parasites
D. Physical D. Predators
53. Which pest that live and breed in dark, 58. is a poison used to destroy pests.
warm, moist, and hard to clean place
A. Biological Pest Control
A. Cockroach
B. Pesticide
B. Rat
C. Genetic Engineering
C. Cat
D. Fly D. Overharvesting
54. In the first chapter from Silent Spring, why 59. What is a PCO?
are doctors in the town puzzled? A. Pest Containment Officer
A. More children are being born with
B. Pest Control Operator
birth defects.
C. People Control Officer
B. People are reacting more violently to
insect stings. D. People Control Operator

60. what organization creates national stan- C. Pesticide Use

dards for foodservice equipment? D. Herbicide Use

A. CDC
66. Americans spend % of their disposable
B. EPA income on food
C. FDA A. <10
D. NSF B. >20
61. Flies can spread the pathogens C. <50
A. salmonella D. >70
B. e-coli 67. There is a buildup of grease and condensa-

tion on the walls and ceilings. What is the
C. mad cow disease
problem?
D. shigella
A. Improper cleaning
62. Which of the following is an example of a B. Grill is not hot enough
chewing insect? C. Hood or other ventilation isn’t working
A. aphids correctly
B. grasshoppers D. none of above
C. mites 68. Established by Congress in 1947 which re-
D. leaf hoppers quires EPA approval for use of all commer-
cial pesticides and establishes a tolerance
63. A behavior that disguises an organism as level that can be legally found on a crop
a different organism by acting like some- when consumers eat it.
thing else is called:
A. Food Security Act
A. HIbernation B. Soil Conservation Act
B. Migration C. FIFRA
C. Defense Mechanism D. Conservation Reserve Program
D. Mimicry
69. Weeds are considered as plant pests. They
64. Before applying pesticides to crops, a survive by:
farmer must have knowledge about all of A. Taking nutrients from the soil
the following except
B. Taking nutrients from the host plants
A. the proper dose C. attracting insects to the host plant
B. days to harvest D. pollinating the host plant
C. tolerance level
70. If you need to dispose of pesticides, how
D. weather conditions should you do so? (unit 6)
65. is the most efficient method of pest A. Pour down a utility sink drain
control. B. Pour down the toilet
A. Integrated Pest Management C. Check with the regulatory authority
B. Biological Controls D. Seal tightly, and put in trash can

71. Below is the right way to control pest, ex- C. Do not put allow a hose to sit in the
cept mop bucket
A. Close pest access D. Ensure your sinks faucet sits above the
rim of the sink
B. Deny hiding place
C. Work with pest a Pest Control Officer 77. Approximately 26 million children suffer
to eliminate pest brain damage from a lack of
D. Always use poison in every place of A. iron
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pest hiding B. vitamin A
72. A disadvantage of using aquaculture is C. iodine
A. high yield D. vitamin C
B. uses grain for feed 78. Which of the following is not required of
dumpsters or trash cans?
C. reduces overharvesting
A. Be Leak-proof
D. high profits
B. Be Pest-proof
73. Most of the industrialized livestock that C. Be Water-proof
generates excess greenhouse gases comes
from D. Be Tilt proof
A. chicken manure 79. IPM stands for

B. pig manure A. Individual Program Managment
C. cattle belching B. Integrated Pest Management
D. cattle manure C. Initial Pest Manager
D. none of above
74. Mention one common pest in hotel?
A. Cockroach 80. Suffering the impact of swarms of locusts,
a farmer uses an airplane to spray an in-
B. Snake secticide over 1, 500 acres of his corn field.
C. Bird This farmer is trying to address this pest
problem by using?
D. Scorpio
A. A Chemical treatment.
75. What types of smell may be a sighn that
B. An Agricultural treatment.
cockroachhes are present?
C. An Ecological control.
A. strong, oily
D. Integrated pest management.
B. warm, spicy
81. This type of study follows people through
C. sharp, musty
time to look at their risks and disease
D. mild, seaweed rates
76. The only sure way to prevent backflow is A. Case-series
to B. Cohort
A. Install a vacuum breaker C. Intervention
B. Create an air gap D. Prevention

82. The boll weevil is most commonly found on 87. the characteristic of how long a pesticide
what crop? stays deadly in the environment is called:

A. corn A. lethal dose
B. soybeans B. persistence
C. pepper C. history
D. cotton D. impact
83. A(n) may be due to improper diet, poor 88. What temp is an automatic dishwasher’s
environment, chemicals, and/or physiolog- final sanitizing rinse at?
ical changes.
A. 171
A. direct disease
B. 180
B. indirect disease
C. 210
C. infectious disease
D. 90
D. noninfectious disease
89. Integrated Pest Management consists of
84. An integrated pest management approach how many steps?
to pest control emphasizes which of the
A. One
following?
B. two
A. Eradication of the pest population
C. three
B. Reduction of crop damage to an eco-
nomically tolerable level D. four
C. Use of plant monoculture to simplify 90. ESC is a disease in fish caused by the bac-
spraying terium Edwardsiella ictaluri. It is easily
D. Elimination of the use of second gener- transmitted from one fish to another. It
ation pesticides is an example of a(n)
A. infectious disease
85. Where should garbage cans be cleaned?
B. noninfectious disease
A. Away from food and utensils.
C. parasite
B. Next to food prep areas.
D. predator
C. In cold-storage areas.
D. In food-storage areas. 91. What is a cross-connection?
A. When one allergen contaminates an-
86. Tabletop equipment on legs must be at
other surface or food causing someone to
least how many inches above the counter-
have an allergy attack
top?
B. When bacteria cross from one surface
A. 3”
or food to another
B. 4”
C. When there is a physical link between
C. 5” safe water and dirty water
D. 6” D. None of the above

92. What temp should the soapy water be for 97. Which of the following statements
manual diswashing? best describes the position held by the
A. 110 U.S.Department of Agriculture concerning
the use of pesticides in the 60s prior to
B. 70 Silent Spring?
C. 90
A. Unrestricted use of pesticides is nec-
D. 80 essary to feed and protect the world’s
people.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. Chemicals used to kill insects, weeds, and
other pests B. Although pesticides are necessary, al-
A. Salinization ternative chemical pesticides should be
used whenever possible.
B. Pesticide
C. Use of pesticides should be restricted
C. Biological pest control
to people who have been trained in the
D. Genetic engineering proper procedures.
94. A food handler who is receiving a food de- D. Pesticides are upsetting the balance of
livery observes signs of pests in the food. nature.
What should be done?
A. The head chef should be warned of the 98. To ensure food safety from pests an oper-
pests ation should deny
B. The food handler should remove all ev- A. access, food, water, shelter
idence of the pests B. food, water, shelter
C. The shipment should be refused and
prevented from entering the operation C. access, food, shelter
D. The shipment should be stored outside D. water

the kitchen until a manager inspects it
99. Who assumes downstream liability for the
95. Synthetic pesticides are the last step in disposal of hazardous waste brought to a
IPM. This indicates they are WI Clean sweep site?
A. The intervention of choice A. The EPA
B. Less toxic, safer, and lower cost that
B. OSHA
biorational pesticides.
C. More toxic, riskier, and higher cost C. The County
than cultural and mechanical practices. D. The State
D. Considered a good preventative mea-
sure. 100. It is important to identify pests and
now their characteristics
96. Crop rotation prevents
A. Flying
A. badgers
B. a build up of pests B. Biting
C. the farmer having to plough C. Sucking

D. water pollution D. Key

101. You just purchased a new disinfectant. If C. Diatomaceous Earth

you want to know how safely to store this
D. Growth Regulator
pesticide product, where would you look?

A. Ask your supervisor 107. Cups and bowls should be stored
B. On the DPR website A. on the floor
C. On the Safety Data Sheet for the old B. against the wall
product
C. upside down
D. On the pesticide label
D. right side up
102. Pest control includes which of the follow-
ing? 108. If a targeted pest is established, this pro-
gram is implemented
A. Crop rotation
A. Absolute
B. Planting pest-resistant varieties
B. Population
C. Targeted spraying
D. Proper irrigation C. Eradication
D. Monitoring
103. How far off the floor should mounted
equipment be stored? 109. TOO MANY CATERPILLARS ARE DE-
A. 2 inches STROYING THE TOMATO GARDEN. WHAT
CAN BE USED?
B. 4 inches
A. HERBICIDE
C. 6 inches
D. 8 inches B. INSECTICIDE
C. BACTERICIDE
104. In what type of places are cocroaches typ-
ically found? D. FUNGICIDE
A. cold, dry and light 110. What is caused by environmental im-
B. warm, dry and light balances and cannot be spread to other
C. cold, moist and dark plants?
D. warm, moist and dark A. Infectious Disease

B. Mosaic
105. We keep pests out of storage areas by
using what in the dry storage areas? C. Pathogen
A. High intensity foot candles D. Noninfectious Disease
B. low intensity foot candles
111. How often should the floor, ceiling, and
C. no lighting wall be maintained?
D. a scarecrow in the storage area A. never
106. Which insecticide is not organic? B. every five years
A. Garlic Spray C. Regularly
B. Neem Oil D. every 10 years

112. The 3 basic rules of an integrated pest 117. Stable chemicals and persistent in the en-
management program are:work with a vironment, have a low solubility in water
PCO; deny pests access; and but a moderate solubility in organic sol-
vents, and accumulate in mammalian body
A. deny pests food, water, and a nesting
fat
or hiding place
A. Organochlorines
B. document all infestations with the lo-
cal regulatory authority B. Organophosphates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. prepare a chemical application sched- C. Carbamates
ule and post it publicly D. Neonicotinoids
D. notify the EPA that pesticides are being 118. One in people suffer from vitamin de-
used in the operation ficiency
113. Which pest control technique uses benefi- A. 3
cial insects to control pests? B. 5
A. Biological C. 10
B. Mechanical D. 100
C. Chemical 119. Which of the following is NOT associated
D. Cultural with water in the degradation from food
production?
114. is the isolation of fish from each
A. Waterlogging
other.
B. Water waste
A. Quarantine
C. Aquifer pollution
B. Treatment
D. Algal blooms
C. Prevention
120. Before writing Silent Spring, Rachel Car-
D. Sanitation
son had studied and worked as a:
115. Food equipment must meet all of the fol- A. conservationist
lowing standards, EXCEPT: B. doctor
A. Easy to clean C. scientist
B. Must be 6” above the ground D. senator
C. Easy to clean around
121. ANSI stands for:
D. Stationary
A. American National Standards Institute
116. Which type of plant completes its life cy- B. American National Safety Institute
cle within one growing season? C. American National Safety Initiative
A. Annual D. None of the above
B. Perrenial
122. Which of the following predators do NOT
C. Biennial help control fall webworms?
D. none of above A. wasps

B. lacewings B. the risks to human health.

C. stink bugs C. both the benefits and the risks.

D. birds D. the risks to the environment.
123. Which best defines a cultural control 128. Many of the world’s poor suffer from
method for pest management? A. chronic undernutrtion
A. Using beneficial insects to control pest B. chronic malnutrition
populations C. hunger
B. Using pesticides D. famine
C. Changing preparation and manage-
129. Pesticide can become contamination
ment practices such as time of day to wa-
if near by the food.
ter, pruning, sterile pots and soil, etc.
A. Chemical
D. Using modified organisms (GMOs) to
grow resistant plants B. Physical
C. Microbiology
124. Which thermometer should be used to
monitor the temperature of the sanitizing D. none of above
rinse in a dishwashing machine? 130. Jenis nyamuk yang benar adalah
A. Glass A. Aedes aegypti hidup di wadah air bu-
B. Bimetallic atan manusia
C. Maximum Registering B. Aedes Albopictus hidup di wadah air
buatan manusia
D. Infrared
C. Culex Sp hidup digenangan air bersih
125. Alternatives to using pesticides include D. none of above
(all of these except)
131. Which area of cockroach can laid the eggs
A. using monocultures to single out pests
A. Pile of papers
B. using genetic engineering within
plants B. Cracks of wall
C. using pheromones to lure pests C. Walls behind dish washing machine
D. using hot water to scald the pests D. All correct
132. A pest in foodservice is considered
126. Which of the following is likely to mini-
mize soil erosion? A. a rat only
A. No till agriculture B. a bug only
B. Herbicide use C. any bug or rodent
C. High Yield crops D. an employee who talks non-stop
D. Deforestation 133. Who should dispose of pesticides?

A. Establishment’s manager
127. Before a pesticide is registered by the
EPA, the agency must evaluate: B. PCO
A. its ability to protest against pests and C. Establishment’s cleaning crew
diseases. D. Establishment’s Chef

134. A village that uses endosulfan has a high A. Spraying broad-spectrum chemical
number of newborns with defects. To in- pesticides as the first line of defense
vestigate and find a link between the pes- B. Complete elimination of all chemical
ticide and the birth defects, which study pesticides
design is most appropriate?
C. Implementing a variety of cultivation
A. prospective cohort and biological techniques and only spray-
B. retrospective cohort ing pesticides as a last resort
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. case series D. Utilizing only trap cropping and crop ro-
tation
D. cross-sectional
140. What should be installed around the back
135. A food handler drops the end of a hose
door in the kitchen to prevent flies from
into a mop bucket and turns the water on
entering?
to fill it. What has the food handler done
wrong? A. security camera
A. Created a cross-connection B. air curtains
B. Created an air-gap separation C. doorbell
C. Prevented backflow D. air gap
D. Prevented atmospheric vaccuuming 141. A broken water main has caused the wa-
ter in an operation to appear brown. What
136. What is cleaning? should the manager do?
A. Reducing dirt from a surface A. Boil the water for 1 minute before use.
B. Reducing the hardness of water B. Contact the local regulatory authority
C. Reducing the pH of a surface before use.
D. Reducing pathogens to safe levels C. Use the water for everything except
dishwashing.
137. A PCO is
D. Use the water for everything except
A. Pest-Control Operator handwashing.
B. Personal Control Organization 142. losses result when the environment
C. Private Control Owner in which an aquacrop is living is less than
ideal.
D. none of above
A. direct
138. What are one-celled or unicellular micro-
B. indirect
scopic organisms that cause disease?
C. proportionate
A. Bacteria
D. disproportionate
B. Fungi
C. Mites 143. As a pesticide kills off weaker individuals
and leaves stronger individuals, the gene
D. Viruses
pool of the pest changes. This is an exam-
139. Which of the following best describes In- ple of
tegrated Pest Management? A. genetic resistance

B. synergistic doses B. Monitoring and identifying

C. the pesticide treadmill C. Pest control

D. a threshold dose D. Pest prevention
144. What is the only completely reliable 149. Which of the following is a small organ-
method for preventing backflow? ism with an exoskeleton, two body parts,
A. air gap and eight legs?
B. ball valve A. Mites
C. cross connection B. Nematodes
D. vacuum breaker C. Insects
145. A(n) disease is caused by germs or D. Parasite

pathogens that may be transferred from
one fish to another. 150. Floor mounted equipment on legs must be
at least how many inches above the floor?
A. direct
A. 3”
B. indirect
B. 4”
C. infectious
C. 5”
D. noninfectious
D. 6”
146. All of the following are types of plant
pests EXCEPT? 151. Who Should apply pesticides
A. Other plants A. PCO
B. Insects B. Establishment’s manager
C. Dust C. Establishmen’st Serv Safe Certified
D. Other animals Manager
D. Establishment’s food handler
147. Teddy is getting ready to wash dishes in
a three compartment sink. What should be 152. What is the first step of sanitizing?
his first task?
A. wash with soap
A. Remove leftover food from the dishes
B. wet with warm water
B. Fill the first sink with detergent and
water C. scarpe food off
C. clean and sanitize the sinks and drain D. sanitize
boards
153. In an IPM each crop and pest are evalu-
D. make sure there is a working clock ated as part of a
with a second hand
A. Ecological system
148. Which step in Integrated Pest Manage-
B. Environmental system
ment reduces the use of pesticides when
unnecessary? C. Economical system
A. Action thresholds D. Judicial system

154. Weeds grow in water, tying up nutrients B. preparation area

and making harvest difficult. This is an ex- C. refrigerated- storage
ample of a(n) loss.
D. service area
A. direct
B. indirect 160. repeated irrigation in dry climates leads
to
C. proportionate
A. waterlogging
D. disproportionate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. desertification
155. Pesticide can become contamination,
C. salinization
if mistakenly sprayed on food.
D. erosion
A. Chemical
B. Physical 161. Outdoor garbage containers or dump-
sters must be on a surface that is NOT
C. Microbiology
D. none of above A. Smooth
B. Porous
156. The order of soil horizons from top to bot-
tom is C. Durable
A. O, E, C, B, A D. Non-absorbent
B. O, C, A, B, E 162. What scenerio can lead to pest infesta-

C. O, A, E, B, C tion? (unit 6)
D. A, B, C, E, O A. Storing recyclables in a cardboard box
B. Using the FIFO method of storage
157. All of the following are reasons soil is im-
portant to plants EXCEPT? C. inserting air curtains above doors
A. It is the medium in which plants grow. D. cleaning up spills around garbage con-
tainers
B. Plants use soil for photosynthesis.
C. Plants use the soil to anchor them- 163. Which would increase the likelihood of
selves in a stable position. pesticide resistance?
D. Plants get their nutrients from soluble A. An insect has only one generation per
minerals in the soil. year.
B. Continual use of the same pesticides
158. Less developed countries spend % of
or pesticides from the same chemical
their income on food
class.
A. 20
C. Applying a pesticide that has little or
B. 30 no residual effect.
C. 60 D. Limiting the number of pesticide appli-
D. 70 cations.
159. Which area of the operation is usually re- 164. In America, the 4 top 10 causes of death
quired to be the brightest? due to diet are all except:
A. dry-storage A. Diabetes

B. heart disease D. Water that may only be used for cook-

C. Down’s Syndrome ing

D. Stroke 170. Despite using soil conservation measures,
soil erosion may still take place because of
165. What is a cross connection which of the following reasons?
A. backflow of clean water to dirty water A. Deforestation
B. backflow of dirty water to clean water B. Earthquakes
C. physical link of clean water and dirty C. Animal activity
water
D. Severe weather events
D. water transport vehicle
171. Which of the following conditions is most
166. A farmer wants to protect his crop likely to result if you once were sprayed
against attack by insects. What could he directly with a pesticide?
spray onto his crop?
A. Birth defects
A. Pesticide
B. Lung Cancer
B. Fungicide
C. Dermatitis
C. Herbicide D. Liver disease
D. Fertilizer
172. A goal of industrialized agriculture is to
167. When installing tabletop equipment on increase:
legs, the space between the base of the A. weed toleranceThis is a wrong answer
equipment and the tabletop must be at
least? B. drought toleranceThis is a wrong an-
swer
A. 2 inches
C. crop yield
B. 4 inches
D. aesthetic qualities
C. 6 inches
173. Each year hundreds of thousands of chil-
D. 8 inches
dren go blind from a lack of
168. Adding water until it envelopes the roots A. vitamin A
is known as:
B. calcium
A. salinization
C. iodine
B. overwatering
D. iron
C. waterlogging
174. A pesticide that is classified as a “re-
D. overgrazing
stricted use” pesticide cannot be bought
169. What is potable water? and used by a
A. Water that is safe to irrigate plants A. certified commercial applicator.
with, but not safe to drink B. farmer who has passed a written ex-
B. Water that is safe to drink amination.
C. Water that requires boiling in a pot to C. homeowner.
clean bacteria out of it D. trained farm worker.

175. What should be done with food-contact 181. Pesticides should be disposed of by
surfaces after pesticides have been ap- A. the manager
plied? (unit 6)
B. the PCO
A. Used only after a 20-minute wait
C. pouring them out and recyling the con-
B. Checked with a sanitizer test kit tainers
C. Washed, rinsed, and sanitized D. throwing them in an outdoor garbage
D. Replaced with new equipment container
NARAYAN CHANGDER
176. Water used for handwashing must be 182. Which of the following is an example of
A. distilled biological control?
B. non-drinkable A. Bees pollinating crops
C. reclaimed B. Integrated pest management
D. drinkable C. Ladybirds eating aphids
D. The application of glyphosate
177. Which pest control technique prevents
the introduction of pests from foreign coun- 183. The was the period between 1950
tries? and 1970 when increases in crop yields re-
A. Regulatory sulted from the use of new crop varieties
B. Host-plant resistance and the application of modern agriculture
techniques.
C. Mechanical
A. drought
D. Biological
B. persistent
178. DDT is considered to be a C. Green Revolution
A. 1st generation pesticide D. Industrial Revolution
B. 2nd generation pesticide
184. Water birds and other predators can
C. 3rd generation pesticide catch and eat or injure fish. This is an ex-
D. 4th generation pesticide ample of a(n) loss.
179. Which section of the restaurant should A. direct
provide the brightest lighting? B. indirect
A. Service area C. proportionate
B. Walk in refrigerator D. disproportionate
C. Prep area
185. Which situation is considered an immi-
D. Dishwashing area nent health hazard and requires the oper-
180. The government agency responsible for ation to be closed?
setting tolerance levels is the A. A guest slips and falls on gravel in the
A. USDA parking lot, breaks a hip, and requires
emergency transport.
B. EPA
B. A food handler is rushed to the emer-
C. FDA gency room unconscious with an unidenti-
D. Department of Agriculture fied illness

C. A fire starts in the kitchen and spreads 191. If pesticides are stored in the operation,
to other areas of the operation where should they be kept? (unit 6)

D. The sanitize dispensers in the re- A. In a secure location, away from food
strooms are empty and delivery of more and equipment
is expected in the next half hour. B. In a glass container, in a walk-in
cooler
186. What should be installed around the back
door in the kitchen? C. In dry storage, on a shelf below the
food
A. security camera
D. In a plastic container, in any location
B. air curtains
C. screen door 192. The process of accumulating higher and
higher doses through the food chain is
D. none of above called:
187. What is the wash temperature? A. Bioaccumulation
A. 90 degrees B. Biofiltration
C. In-place pollutants
B. 180 degrees
D. Biomagnification
C. 160 degrees
D. 150 degrees 193. is the practice of keeping fish and
other aquacrops healthy and free of dis-
188. When should the garbage be taken out? ease.
A. as quickly as possible A. Quarantine
B. when it overflows B. Treatment
C. when pests are seen C. Prevention
D. when the inspector comes D. Sanitation
189. Mention the pest access through the 194. The largest cause of soil erosion and re-
building moval of topsoil is/are
A. flowing water
A. Guest, employee, and supplier
B. strong wind
B. Building material
C. industrial monooculture
C. Expired food
D. clear-cutting forests
D. Cold food
195. DDT was banned in the USA in 1972, yet
190. A living organism that can cause injury or eggshells of many birds still show effects.
loss of a plant is ? This illustrates pesticide
A. Pest A. bioaccumulation
B. Insect B. persistance
C. Instar C. drift
D. none of above D. circle of poison

196. Prevention is critical in pest control. C. lungs

Which of the following is not a basic rule D. digestive system
to keep the facility pest free:
A. Deny pests access to the operation. 201. What are the mandatory parts of a hand-
washing station?
B. Deny pests food, water, and shelter.
A. sink, running water, garbage, mirror,
C. Ignore signs of pest feces, black pep-
signage
per signs.
B. hot and cold running water, disposable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Work with a licensed pest control op-
one-use towels, garbage can, soap, sig-
erator.
nage
197. What food safety features are the most C. sink, soap, water, mirror, directions
important to look for when selecting floor-
ing, wall and ceiling materials? D. sink, soap, sign in sheet, water, sig-
nage
A. Absorbent and durable.
B. Hard and durable. 202. In order for organic farmers to make a
profit (and thus be economically sustain-
C. Porous and durable. able)
D. Smooth and durable.
A. manure must be found in abundance in
198. Which best describes an economic thresh- close proximity to the farm.
old in IPM? B. the government must continue to pro-
A. Comparing costs of resolving pest is- vide an “organic” subsidy.
sue vs money lost by not resolving it C. conventional farmers must pay a tax to
B. Looking at the health of the plant to subsideze the organic farmers.
see if it is past the point of revival D. consumers must be willing to pay
C. Looking at the appeal of the plant to higher costs associated with organic pro-
determine if customers are willing to buy duce.
the plant in the state it is in.
203. The Food Quality Protection Act passed
D. none of above in 1996 requires the EPA to regulate pes-
199. Integrated pest management: ticides in a way that
A. Includes prevention, observation, and A. guarantees no harm to the environ-

intervention to minimize insect damage ment.
B. Is more eco-friendly than pesticide B. provides a reasonable certainty of no
use alone harm.
C. Tries to reduce or eliminate pesticide C. guarantees no harm to agricultural
use workers.
D. All choices are correct D. all of these
200. The primary route of exposure to most 204. What factors effect sanitizing?
pesticides is via the A. Concentration, contact time, pH, water
A. brain hardness
B. skin B. concentration, absorption, salinity, pH

C. conentration, air temperature, mois- 210. Rachel Carson was

ture, and pH A. against the use of all pesticides.

D. concentration, density, water absorp- B. against the use of synthetic pesticides.
tion, and selenity
C. for the use of all pesticides.
205. are undesirable fish in a fish crop. D. for the restricted use of pesticides.
A. predators
211. What is the largest cause of soil erosion?
B. parasites A. wind
C. trash fish B. moving water
D. pests C. standing water
206. All of the following are categories of soil D. sinkholes
EXCEPT?
212. When does a restaurant need an MSDS?
A. Clay A. For every chemical they have
B. Sandy B. For chemicals they should have to keep
C. Silt pests away
D. Loam C. When they are using a Pest control op-
erator
207. Which of the following agencies approve D. When they are using FIFO
pesticide labels?
A. USDA 213. What types of odor may be a sign that
cockroaches are present?
B. EPA
A. Strong, oily
C. FDA
B. Warm, spicy
D. KY Dept of Ag
C. Sharp, musty
208. How much of the world’s potential hu- D. Mild, seaweed
man food supply is lost to pest?
214. Which one of the following is NOT a good
A. 55 way to conserve soil (i.e. to prevent soil
B. 22 erosion)?
C. 25 A. Terracing
D. 52 B. Increasing plant coverage
C. Allowing animals to graze
209. The maximum amount of pesticide that is
considered “safe” when present in food is D. Contour ploughing
the 215. Pesticides from agricultural crops may
A. maximum pesticide alowance drift into fish ponds or water supplies.
Fish may become stunted or die due to
B. recommended exposure level
chemical toxicity. This is an example of
C. maximum contaminant level a(n)
D. tolerance level A. infectious disease

B. noninfectious disease 221. What is the first step in Integrated Pest

C. parasite Management?
D. predator A. Action Thresholds
216. When the garbage can was full, an em- B. Monitoring and Identifying
ployee placed the full garbage bag on a C. Pest Control
prep table and tied it securely. Then he
carried it to the dumpster and disposed of D. Pest Prevention
NARAYAN CHANGDER
it. What was done incorrectly?
A. The employee waited until the garbage 222. A study in which people with a disease
was full. are put into a group and compared to peo-
ple without the disease
B. The bag was disposed of in a dump-
ster. A. cohort study
C. The bag was placed on a prep table. B. case-control study
D. The employee tied the bag shut. C. natural experiment
217. IPM is about D. ecologic study
A. Pest eradication
B. Pest management 223. losses occur when the aquacrop is at-
tacked or injured.
C. Eliminating the use of pesticides
A. direct
D. The safest possible pesticides
B. indirect
218. To reduce the risks from certain pesticides
in our food and water, their use has been C. proportionate
A. limited to certain crops. D. disproportionate
B. restricted to “certified” applicators.
C. restricted to certain soil types. 224. A is a condition that develops in an or-
ganism and then damages it in some way
D. all of these
A. disease
219. Carbamates include
B. pest
A. Herbicides, insecticides and nemati-
cides C. parasite
B. Insecticides, nematicides and rodenti- D. predator
cides
C. Insecticides only 225. When the productive potential of soil
D. fungicides, herbicides and insecticides falls because of drought or human activi-
ties it’s
220. Ada beberapa jenis lalat yaitu
A. soil erosion
A. semua jawaban benar
B. salinization
B. Lalat rumah
C. Lalat buah C. desertification
D. Lalat hijau D. overgrazing

226. Food is rotated during storage so the old- 231. Which of the following best describes
est products are coved flooring?

A. FIFO A. Flooring that is slip-resistant
B. IFOF B. Flooring that is permeable
C. IFFO C. Flooring that has rounded edges on its

sides and rounded corners
D. FFIO
D. All of the above are examples of coved
227. Handwashing sinks must be easily acces- flooring
sible so that food handlers can 232. Insects are part of which phylum?
A. clean utensils A. Nematoda
B. wash their hands B. Arthropoda
C. maintain its drain C. Crustacea
D. rinse produce D. Mollusca
228. Check all deliveries before they 233. A is an organism that lives on or in
another organism and causes it harm.
A. are opened
A. predator
B. are brought into the establishment
B. prey
C. are cooked C. parasite
D. are consumed D. pest
229. When raw sewage backs up onto the 234. is the practice of keeping water and
floor of the kitchen, the operation must facilities clean.
A. section off the area where garbage A. Quarantine
has been spilled and continue service B. Treatment
B. immediately close the operation, cor- C. Prevention
rect the problem, and thoroughly clean
D. Sanitation
the facility
C. notify the water department and close 235. What temperature must a high-
the restrooms until corrections are made temperature dishwasher’s final sanitizing
rinse be?
D. correct the problem by the end of the
shift and hire a professional to clean the A. at least 150◦ F (65◦ C)
garbage B. at least 160◦ F (71◦ C)
C. at least 170◦ F (76◦ C)
230. Soil is made up of
D. at least 180◦ F (82◦ C)
A. Dead animals
236. DDT is in the environment. This
B. Dead trees
means it doesn’t break down/decompose.
C. Dead animals and trees It lasts a long time.
D. Weathered rock A. persistent

B. synergistic 241. What is the minimum amount of distance

C. acute a trash receptacle should be placed from
the building?
D. threshold
A. 10 ft.
237. The lively movement of a fish in water is B. 12 ft.
called
C. 15 ft.
A. lesion
D. 20 ft.
B. diagnostic laboratory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. symptom 242. Rat poison is considered to be what
means of pest control?
D. vigor
A. Biological means
238. Known as selective pesticides because B. Chemical means
they target only one specific type of insect
C. Mechanical means
A. organic pesticide
D. Sanitary means
B. inorganic pesticide
243. Walls, floors, and ceilings should be make
C. broad-spectrum pesticide
of what type of construction materials?
D. narrow-spectrum pesticide
A. rough and durable
239. Which of the following is known as slash B. pitted and durable
& Burn Agriculture?
C. smooth and durable
A. Commercial Farming
D. none of above
B. Shifting Cultivation
244. Which of the following are the two main
C. Mixed Farming
ways dishwashers sanitize?
D. Plantation
A. Hot water & Chemical solution
240. An operation received a violation in the B. Scrubbing & Hot water
outside area of the facility. The man-
C. Spraying a sanitizer & wash dishes af-
ager reviewed the area and saw that the
ter afterwards
dumpster was placed on a freshly graveled
drive. The lids were closed, and the drain D. Chemical Solution & Scrubbing
plug was in place to prevent the dumpster 245. Disorder of nutrition resulting from im-
from draining. What was the problem? proper balance of nutrients
A. The dumpster lids should have been A. Diet
open to allow it to air out.
B. Famine
B. The drain plug should have been re-
moved to allow the dumpster to drain C. Malnutrition
coreectly. D. Yield
C. The surface underneath the dumpster 246. Which soil type drains water very easily?
should have been paved with concrete or
A. Clay
asphalt.
B. Sandy
D. The dumpster should have been
freshly painted so that food drbris would C. Loam
not stick to surfaces. D. Silt

247. What does FIFO mean? 253. Which is NOT a characteristic of pest pre-
A. Fast In, Fast Out vention?

B. First In, Fast Out A. Crop rotation
C. First In, First Out B. Cost effectiveness
D. none of above C. Highly selective chemicals

D. Has little to no effect on the environ-
248. IPM addresses which of the following
ment
pests?
A. Fungi 254. is the process of removing unwanted
plants.
B. Various vertebrates
A. Crop filtering
C. Insects
D. All of these, plus a few more B. Grass removal
C. Weeding
249. What is VF and BLS?
D. none of above
A. It is a variety of GMO plants
B. It is a code for specific plant diseases 255. Which of the following is an insect?
C. VF=ventilation fan; BLS=bio- A. beetles
leverage spray B. spiders
D. It describes natural pesticides C. tick
250. Which of the following is a weed that will D. scorpion
live for only two growing seasons?
256. What is the proper order of most insect’s
A. Biennial Weed
life cycle?
B. Perennial Weed
A. Egg, Pupa, Larvae, Adult
C. Annual Weed
B. Egg, Larvae, Pupa, Adult
D. none of above
C. Larvae, Egg, Pupa, Adult
251. The root cause for food insecurity is D. Pupa, Egg, Larvae, Adult
A. political upheaval
257. The three basic rules of an integrated
B. war pest management program are:1. work
C. climate with a licensed PCO 2. deny pest access
3.
D. poverty
A. deny pests food, water, and shelter
252. Which part of a sink prevents backflow
of dirty water? B. document all infestations with the lo-
cal regulatory authority.
A. The air gap.
C. prepare a chemical application sched-
B. The tap valves. ule and post it publicly.
C. The floor grate. D. notify the EPA that pesticides are being
D. The aerator. used in the operation.

258. Crop rotation is effective because: B. Braconid Wasp

A. The soil is better in other places. C. Endophytes
B. Flying insects have trouble finding the D. Insect Growth Regulator
target crop.
264. Which one of the following can be a rea-
C. Non-mobile insects cannot reach the son for soil erosion?
target crop.
A. Too much sunshine
D. hand-picking insects is time consum-
B. Too much snowfall
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing.
C. Too much wind blowing
259. A pesticide that kills a large range of D. None of the above
pests and non-pest insects would be clas-
sified as a 265. Which of the following is an example of
A. Narrow-range pesticide biodiversity loss from food production?
A. Fish kills from pesticide runoff
B. Broad-range pesticide
B. Loss of fertility
C. Targeted pesticide
C. Aquifer depletion
D. Micro-pesticide
D. Bacterial contamination of meat
260. Pesticide used to kill rats and mice is
called? 266. The cabbage looper grows to be how
long?
A. Insecticide
A. 1 inch
B. Herbicide
B. 1.5 inch
C. Rodenticide
C. 6 inches
D. Fungicide
D. 3 inches
261. A pest in foodservice is considered
267. Which of the following is not a problem
(unit 6)
stemming from the use of synthetic or-
A. a rat only ganic chemical pesticides?
B. a bug only A. Resurgences and secondary pest out-
C. any bug or rodent breaks
D. an employee who talks non-stop B. Increase in diversity of insect pests
C. Adverse environmental and human
262. which of the soil horizons is considered health effects
topsoil
D. Development of resistance by pests
A. O
268. A patient presents with parasthesia and
B. A
skin irritation. He works in an agricultural
C. R area. He was mostly likely exposed to
D. C A. Pyrethroids
263. Disrupts how insects grow and repro- B. DDT
duce, sometimes making them sterile: C. Atrazine
A. Crop Rotation D. Chlorpyrifos

269. An imminent health hazard, such as a wa- C. Area where food is prepped
ter supply interruption, requires immedi-
D. Area where customer service takes
ate correction or:

place
A. A HACCP plan.
B. Closure of the operation. 274. Which pest leaves behind a strong oily
smell and droppings that resemble black
C. Evaluation of the situation. pepper?
D. Normal operating procedures. A. Rodent
270. An operation has a buildup of grease B. Cockroach
and condensation on the walls and ceiling.
C. Bird
What is most likely the problem?
A. The ventilation system is not working D. Reptile
correctly
275. Throw out garbage quickly and
B. the cleaning chemicals are not being
used correctily A. put in a new bag
C. the staff are not cleaning the wall cor- B. spray “Lysol” in the container
rectly C. wash, sanitize, and dry the container,
D. the grill is not being operated at a high then put in a new bag
enough temperature D. none of above
271. Mixture of decomposing organic matter
276. The four general categories of natural or
used as a fertilizer
biological pest control are
A. Domesticated
A. Synthetic organic chemicals, synthetic
B. Biological pest control inorganic chemicals, natural organic
C. Aquaculture chemicals, and natural inorganic chemi-
cals
D. Compost
B. Spraying, dusting, picking, and wash-
272. Desertification usually occurs when ing
A. humans leave an area alone to un- C. Cultural control, control by natural en-
dergo secondary succession emies, genetic control, and natural chem-
B. soil productivity decreases due to ical control
drought and poor farming practices
D. Insect-to-insect, human-to-insect, in-
C. winds carry large amounts of sand terspecies, and parasitic
from nearby deserts
D. irrigation water is continually used in 277. How many impacts are there for the
arid regions of the country degradation from food production?
A. 5
273. What area of the operation must have
the most light? B. 4
A. Area where food is cooked C. 7
B. Area where dishes are washed D. 8

278. Pesticides do which of the following? 284. How many types of metamorphosis is
A. Reduce pests there?
B. Promote pest growth A. One
C. Fertilize plants B. Two
D. Reduce crop yield C. Three
279. Leaving a hose in a mop bucket or having D. Four

a faucet that goes below the rim of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
285. Which of the following kills fungi?
sink will cause:
A. Anti-microbials
A. Backflow
B. Algaecides
B. Backsiphonage
C. Fungicides
C. Cross-connection
D. All of the above D. Herbicides
280. To ensure food safety from pests an op- 286. What are the most important food safety
eration should deny (unit 6) features to look for when selecting floor-
ing, wall, and ceiling materials?
A. access, food, water, shelter
A. Absorbent and durable
B. food, water, shelter
B. Hard and durable
C. access, food, shelter
C. porous and durable
D. water
D. smooth and durable
281. For IPM to be successful, you need a
procedure 287. Which is a characteristic of an insect?
A. Pesticide A. Two pairs of antennae
B. Threshold B. Two body segments
C. Fertilizing C. Four pairs of legs
D. Scouting D. Two pairs of wings
282. Which soil type contains the most hu- 288. Which type of soil becomes waterlogged
mus? very easily?
A. Clay
A. Clay
B. Sandy
B. Sandy
C. Loam
C. Loam
D. Silt
D. Silt
283. Which of these is a biological control
agent? 289. Anemia results from deficiency
A. Lady bugs A. iodine
B. Pesticides B. vitamin A
C. Herbicides C. iron
D. Pulling up plants D. calcium

290. How can insect perfumes control pest? C. Pray Mantises

A. Pheromones lure pest into traps D. Monarch Butterflies

B. Make them smell good
295. If a chemical kills weeds, what is that
C. Reduce pest hunger chemical?
D. Genetically modify the pest A. A fertilizer
291. Will insects develop resistance to the tox- B. A medicine
ins produced in Bt corn over time? C. A pesticide
A. It is almost certain that insects will de- D. An adjuvant
velop resistance to Bt corn.
B. It is unlikely that insects will develop 296. Vertebrate pests can be which of the fol-
resistance to Bt corn. lowing?
C. Insects are already resistant to the A. Raccoons
toxins produced in Bt corn. B. cattle
D. It is impossible for insects to develop C. horses
resistance to Bt corn.
D. cats
292. To deny pests food and shelfter in outside
dining areas and around your operation, it 297. Grease and condensation buildup on sur-
is important to faces can be avoided with correct:
A. mow the grass A. Garbage disposal.

B. place extra garbage containers out- B. Lighting.
side C. Sanitizing.
C. spray pesticides around the ouside of D. Ventilation.
the facility
298. If pesticides are stored in the operation,
D. plant flowers
where should they be kept?
293. Why should you clean first before sanitiz- A. In a secure location, away from food
ing or disinfecting? and equipment
A. Because dirt reduces the effective- B. In a glass container, in a walk-in
ness of the disinfectant/sanitizer cooler
B. Because one-step cleaning disinfec- C. In dry storage, on a shelf below the
tants are too expensive food
C. Because it’s safer D. In a plastic container, in any location
D. Because it’s easier
299. What gov’t agency requires an MSDS
294. Significant Agricultural monetary losses sheet
are due to the destruction of through
A. FDA
pesticide spray and drift and residues on
flowers. B. OSHA
A. Ladybirds beetles C. USDA
B. Honeybees D. PHA

300. PCO stands for C. Grass

A. Pest Coordination Organization D. Soybeans
B. Pizza Control Orderer
305. What is NOT true about Coving?
C. Pest Control Operator
A. The color should be different from the
D. Pest Condition Organization tile floor
301. If there is a build-up of grease and con- B. Seals edges between a floor and wall
NARAYAN CHANGDER
densation on the walls and ceiling above
the fryers, then you most likely have a C. It is glued tightly against the wall to
prevent pest hiding places
A. Ventilation system is not working cor-
rectly D. It protects the wall from moisture
B. Cleaning chemicals are not being used 306. Which is an acceptable source of water?
correctly
A. Jugs of water
C. Staff are not cleaning the walls cor-
rectly B. a commercial tanker of water
D. The grill is not being operated at a high- C. Water source regulated by authorities
enough temperature
D. All of the above
302. What is the best way to eliminate pests
that have entered the operation? 307. The industrialized agriculture system
shuts down without what key ingredient?
A. Raise the heat in the operation after-
hours A. cheap fossil fuel energy
B. Lower the heat in the operation after- B. genetically modified organisms
hours C. efficient food processing plants
C. Work with a licensed pest control op- D. The Food Quality Protection Act
erator (PCO).
D. Apply over-the-counter pesticides 308. Widespread malnutrition and starvation
around the operation in an area due to food shortage
303. Which pest cuts the young plant at the A. Diet

soil level? B. Famine
A. Lady bug C. Malnutrition
B. Cutworm D. Yield
C. Alfalfa Weevil
D. Grasshopper 309. What should be at the handwashing sta-
tion
304. Grasshoppers can commonly be found A. A way to dry your hands
feeding off the stem and leaves of what
type of crop? B. garbage container
A. Corn C. hot and cold running water
B. Cotton D. All of the above

310. What must staff members do when trans- B. Blower

ferring chemicals to a new container C. Air curtains

A. create a new MSDS sheet
D. Vents
B. make a MSDS transfer request
316. People only eat % of the estimated
C. lock the new container in a locked cab-
50, 000 plant species worldwide
inet
A. 14
D. label the new container
B. 24
311. All of the following are problems of
overuse of pesticides, EXCEPT: C. 34
A. Pest resurgence D. 44
B. Pesticide resistance 317. Which of the following would not be con-
C. Environmental pollution sidered an imminent health hazard and con-
ditions to close after its health inspection?
D. Crop resistance
A. a restaurant with a backup of sewage
312. Nitrates in drinking water contributes to
B. a restaurant with hot foods at im-
which of the degradation impacts of food
proper temperatures
production?
C. a restaurant with an infestation of in-
A. Human health
sects
B. Soil
D. a restaurant with a lack of refrigera-
C. Air pollution tion
D. Water
318. Store recyclables in clean
313. What is another name for manual dish-
A. containers
washing?
B. containers with loose fitting lids
A. 3 compartment sink
C. containers with tight fitting lids
B. high temperature dishwasher
D. none of above
C. chemical dishwasher
D. chemical sanitizing 319. What is the final rinse temperature?
314. The use of certain organisms by humans A. 180 degrees

to control pests B. 100 degrees
A. Biological pest control C. 160 degrees
B. Pesticides D. 90 degrees
C. Yield
320. Which is not a characteristic of shifting
D. Overharvesting cultivation?
315. A device that blows a steady stream of A. Land is cleared by slashing the vegeta-
air across the entryway, in a kitchen to tion
prevent infestation B. Debris is burned to provide the soil
A. Fan with nutrients

C. A new site is designated every few 326. What factors influence the effectiveness
years of a chemical sanitizer?
D. All of the above are characteristics A. concentration, temperature, contact
time, pH, and water hardness
321. How far off the table should mounted
B. concentration, absorbency, moisture,
equipment be stored?
alkalinity, and salinity
A. 2 inches C. concentration, protein, acidity, air tem-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 4 inches perature, and strength
C. 6 inches D. concentration, water activity, reactiv-
ity, pressure, and density
D. 8 inches
327. Which of the following is not an alterna-
322. The alfalfa weevil primarily feeds on al- tive to using pesticides?
falfa, but can also be found on which of
the following? A. Electric zapper
B. Scald the pests
A. vetch
C. Insect perfumes
B. Bermuda grass
D. Implant genetic resistance
C. cotton
D. bluegrass 328. For every dollar spent on pesticides an es-
timated dollars is made from increased
323. Chronic health effects include crop yields.
A. damage to the liver, kidneys, lungs and A. 2
other body organs. B. 3
B. brain and nervous system damage C. 4
C. All the previous answers D. 5
D. none of the previous answers 329. Which IPM control relies on predation
and parasitism?
324. A is an animal that attacks and feeds
on other animals. A. Biological Control
A. predator B. Mechanical Control
B. prey C. Cultural Control
C. parasite D. Genetic Control
D. pest 330. What type of agriculture is carried out

for survival-with few or no crops avail-
325. Herbicides are used to kill what? able for sale? Its usually organic, simply
for lack of money to buy industrial inputs
A. Weeds
such as fertilizer, pesticides, or gentically
B. Fruits modified seeds.
C. Insects A. Substainable agriculture
D. Fungi B. Subsistance agriculture

C. LDC agriculture 336. Pesticides used to control plant such as

D. Slash and Burn agriculture atrazine and round up to kill pests are
called

331. An herbicide is a type of pesticide that A. fungicides
kills
B. toxicols
A. insects
C. weed agents
B. plants
D. herbicides
C. fungi
337. A severe shortage of food leading to
D. rodents
mass starvation is:
332. Glyphosate was shown in several stud- A. malnutrition
ies to be safe. Studies were problematic B. undernurishment
because
C. hunger
A. they didn’t include enough people
D. famine
B. they only tested on animals
C. they tested the chemical in the ab- 338. Which best defines a chemical control
sence of activators that usually accom- method for pest management?
pany it A. Using beneficial insects to control pest
D. they tested the chemical on skin only populations
B. Using pesticides
333. Which of the following is a characteristic
C. Changing preparation and manage-
of cultural pest control?
ment practices such as time of day to wa-
A. Targeted spraying ter, pruning, sterile pots and soil, etc.
B. Mulching D. Using modified organisms (GMOs) to
C. Pest resistant plant varieties grow resistant plants
D. Insect traps 339. A vacuum breaker
334. Why is DDT an environmental concern? A. Prevents dirty water from getting into
a clean water source
A. It is very persistent
B. Prevents dust from getting into electri-
B. It accumulates in fatty tissues cal panels
C. It can travel long distances in the at- C. Used to clean out grease condensation
mosphere
D. Can be used for all of these
D. All of the above
340. The term used to describe the excessive
335. Which of the following is an example of growth of algae due to increased runoff of
a sucking insect? fertilisers to the water bodies
A. grasshoppers A. Eutrophication
B. aphids B. Biomagnification
C. beetles C. green revolution
D. caterpillars D. none of above

8.3 Pest and Diseases 1258
8.3 Pest and Diseases

1. Which is not a pest? C. Apple blight
A. Fire blight D. none of above
B. Apple tree borer
3. Which is not a step when treating leaf
C. Apple Scab mine
D. Apple Blight A. Dispose it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2. Which is not a disease? B. Bag it
A. Apple Scab C. Cook it
B. Resinosis D. Remove it

9. Agriculture Economics
9.1 Principles of Agriculture Economics

1. Farm Policy programs main elements are 4. What is subsistence farming?
designed to support:
A. farm is based in one location
A. both answers are correct
B. crops are grown to be sold in the mar-
B. support prices when farmers sell their ket
crops
C. farmers grows crops to feed his family
C. support income to farmers only
D. none of above D. only cattle are raised on the farm
2. The Neolithic Revolution refers to the time 5. A rapid population growth during the
when early humans- 1900s contributed to the aimed to in-
crease food supplies to support the grow-
A. mastered fire.
ing population.
B. developed agriculture and settled
A. 1st Agricultural Revolution
down.
B. 2nd Agricultural Revolution
C. migrated from Africa.
C. 3rd Agricultural Revolution
D. organized governments
D. 2nd Industrial Revolution
3. in farming the land is used for grow-
ing food and fodder crops and rearing the 6. A place where people and machines join to-
livestock. gether to mass produce goods.
A. Mixed farming A. Cartel
B. separate farming B. Corporation
C. plantation agriculture C. Factory
D. nomadic herding D. Urbanization

9.1 Principles of Agriculture Economics 1260
7. Among the following which Indian state 12. pastoral farming is

produces the largest quantity of pulses?
A. growing crops commercially
A. Maharashtra B. raising cattle
B. Uttar Pradesh C. nomadic farming
C. Madhya Pradesh D. horticulture
D. Rajasthan
13. How introduced the First “Five” year plan
NARAYAN CHANGDER
8. The Freedom to Farm Act of ended in India? (year 1951)
price supports and acreage allotments for A. Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru
many farm products.
B. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
A. 1996
C. Mr. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B. 1906
D. Dr. Manmohan Singh
C. 1706
14. A country that is mostly rural and engages
D. none of above
in mainly primary level of economic activ-
ity is probably a
9. According to Von Thunen, what type of
agriculture is produced closest to market? A. developed nation
A. dairying B. developing nation
B. grain agriculture C. industrialized nation
C. ranching D. primary nation
D. plantation farming 15. Crop rotation & the enclosure movement
were hallmarks of:
10. type of farming produces rather small
amount of produce from a large area of A. The First Agricultural Revolution
land. B. The Second agricultural revolution
A. Extensive C. the Third agricultural revolution
B. intensive D. the Green revolution
C. pastoral
16. There are some serious issues in the ag in-
D. subsistence dustry
A. One major cause of the instability is
11. What is “support price” for an agricultural
the ag industry is dependence on world
commodity
markets to export to.
A. The minimum price at which Govern-
B. All are correct
ment is prepared to buy it
C. It suffers frequently from short-run
B. Money paid to agriculturist for cause
price
damaging crops due drought
D. It suffers frequently from income in-
C. Subsidy paid by the government
stability, which may prevent firms from en-
D. All of the above tering the market.

17. Why do some farms still profitable? A. First Five year plan
A. True B. Second Five year plan

B. Farm subsidies (money given to farms C. Third Five year plan
from government)
D. Fourth Five year plan
C. On average, only about 16 percent of
the farm income is from farming activities.
23. If Country A has a low growth rate, high
D. Members of farm households increas- literacy rate, and largely tertiary level eco-
ingly hold jobs outside the farm (espe- nomic activity, then it is
cially in winter when there is no farming
being done) A. developing
18. the technique to create farmland by burn- B. in transition

ing or cutting the forest is called C. developed
A. intensive farming D. in North Africa
B. lumbering
C. subsistence farming 24. Shift cultivation and slash-and-burn farm-
ing are often associated with
D. Slash and burn
A. subsistence farming
19. Imports are products
B. agribusiness
A. imported from another country to the
US C. Rostow’s TAKE OFF stage
B. All are correct D. more developed countries (MDCs)
C. Ex:Honda van imported from Japan
25. Which of the Agricultural Revolutions did
D. Ex:Coffee beans imported from Brazil
not include increased usage of complex ma-
20. Farmers have been given subsidies since: chines?
A. 1930s A. First Agricultural Revolution
B. 1850 B. Second Agricultural Revolution
C. 2020 C. Third Agricultural Revolution
D. 1999
D. Green Revolution
21. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs)
and hybrid seeds are often associated with 26. Agriculture also includes farm commodities
A. 1st Agricultural Revolution (ex:raw materials that can be sold like cop-
per). Agriculture also includes what:
B. 2nd Agricultural Revolution
A. raw materials like coffee
C. 3rd Agricultural Revolution
D. subsistence farming B. All are correct
C. food products that are sold through
22. Agriculture, Irrigation and Power Projects
restaurants or grocery stores
were given highest priority in which
among the following plans? D. none of above

27. Price floors can result in both positive and 31. While agriculture remains a industry,
negative outcomes. it is a industry, especially in the realm
of the smaller operations.
A. All answers are correct
A. non profitable, declining
B. Result will be a product surplus
B. profitable, declining
C. Since the consumers are not willing
to buy the quantity produced at the price C. profitable, increasing
floor, the government will end up buying
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the surplus to maintain the price.
D. Price floors create benefits to the 32. Why did farming lead to permanent vil-
farmers at the expense of the consumers lages?
as they must pay higher prices and con- A. people grew too much food to travel
sume less.
B. people needed to build storage for
28. Which of the following is not a primary crops
economic activity? C. people needed to stay and tend their
A. carpenter crops
B. lumberjack D. people had to make pottery to hold fo
C. orange grower 33. Which of the following describes the enclo-
D. police officer sure movement of the eighteenth century?
A. The land was divided into long, narrow
29. the invention of farm machinery led to the
strips that were not enclosed by fences or
revolution.
hedges.
A. Industrial
B. The land was not divided but worked
B. plantation communally as villages labored in large
fields side by side.
C. Agricultural
C. The land was divided into plots
D. green
bounded by fences to farm more effec-
30. What factors contribute to the decline in tively.
the agriculture industry? D. The land was not divided, so the lord
A. Supply of ag products has increased of the manor could directly control agri-
dramatically because of technological ad- cultural techniques and introduce farming
vances. innovations.
B. Land that was once considered unsuit- 34. Approximately, what percentage of total
able for agriculture can now be farmed workforce of India is engaged in agricul-
due to irrigation and other advances. tural and allied sector activities?
C. Demand has increased much more A. 45
slowly, especially in the United States.
B. 55
This is because demand is tied to popula-
tion growth, which has not been rapid. C. 65
D. all are correct statements D. 75

35. Exports are products C. Agricultural Produce Market Commit-

A. US sells to other countries tee Act enacted by States

B. All are correct D. Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat
and Food Products Order, 1973
C. Ex:US selling airplanes to Germany
D. Ex:US selling corn to China 41. What is the basic support system needed
to keep an economy going called?
36. “Future value of present money” which A. economic activity
means
B. infrastructure
A. Compounding
C. Gross Domestic Product
B. Discounting
D. Skills of workers
C. Cost
42. The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act in
D. Returns
, provided cash subsidies such as direct
37. Which of the following agricultural prod- payments to farmers based on their his-
ucts are not cash crops? torical production patterns and CCPs which
were payments made to fill the gap be-
A. cocoa
tween the target price of the farm product
B. coffee and the actual market price of the current
C. cotton year. It also provided marketing loans
for when the crop prices fell below a cer-
D. corn
tain price; the loan could be paid for with
38. A Country with an HDI of .92 is most likely the crop with no additional payment nec-
what type of country essary.
A. MDC A. 2008
B. LDC B. 1908
C. In between C. 1778
39. The movement to fence in fields in order 43. Which agency is responsible for procure-
to farm more effectively, at the expense ment, distribution and storage of food
of poor peasants who relied on common grain production in India?
fields for farming and pasture A. Ministry of Agriculture
A. Enclosure B. Food Corporation of India
B. Crop Rotation C. NAFED
C. Agricultural Revolution D. TRIFED
D. Industrious Revolution 44. The undiscounted measure for choosing
among the alternative projects
40. Who regulates the markets in agricultural
products in India? A. Payback Period
A. Essential Commodities Act, 1955 B. NPV
B. Agricultural Produce (Grading and C. B:C Ratio
Marking) Act, 1937 D. IRR

45. There are many different reasons behind B. Rainfall

farm subsidies. Without farms there
C. Land area
would be little food and life would be much
more difficult. Which are true statements? D. Fertilizer
A. both answers are correct 51. What is a cause of desertification?
B. It is critical to insure that there are
A. Cutting down trees
farms to provide food for the nation.
B. Dumping a sand box
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It becomes necessary to help ensure
that those farmers are able to earn a liv- C. Flooding
ing. D. Dehydration
D. none of above
52. In India National Food security Act(NFSA)
46. Agriculture is an extremely diverse indus- was introduced in the year
try because it includes:
A. 2013
A. All are correct
B. 2014
B. Pig farms
C. 2017
C. Cattle ranches
D. 2019
D. Vegetable plots and grain farms
47. Life Expectancy is a factor in a country’s 53. Mining and farming are part of which eco-
nomic sector?
A. Human Development Index A. Primary
B. Human Division Indigo B. Secondary
C. Gross Domestic Product C. Tertiary
D. Literacy Rate D. Quaternary
48. Farms can be 54. Which of the following works to protect
A. small against the exploitation of agricultural la-
bor?
B. All are correct
C. family-based farms A. fair trade
D. large, multi-national conglomerates B. all agribusiness

C. plantation farming
49. Typically, slash & burn agriculture leads to:
D. suitcase farming
A. shifting cultivation
B. plantation farming 55. forestry, lumbering, agriculture, hunting
C. aquaculture and fishing all are economic activities.
D. pastoralism A. secondary
B. primary
50. Which among the following is most impor-
tant for agricultural productivity? C. tertiary
A. Irrigation D. quaternary

56. Humans have obtained food in a variety B. Jobs on the farm

of ways. Which method below emerged
C. Family
last?

A. Hunting & gathering D. Friends
B. Vegetative planting
62. Parity concept
C. Seed agriculture
A. All answers are correct
D. The Colombian Exchange
B. In international exchange, parity
57. What stage of Rostow’s Development In- refers to the exchange rate between the
dex does technology first get introduced? currencies of two countries making the
A. 1-Traditional Society purchasing power of both currencies sub-
stantially equal.
B. 2-Preconditions of takeoff
C. Equality in price, rate of exchange, pur-
C. 3-takeoff
chasing power, or wages
D. 4-drive to maturaty
D. none of above
58. What is the rank of India in fruit produc-
tion? 63. Production of agricultural products for the
A. 1 market is called:
B. 4 A. hunting and gathering
C. 2 B. sedentary cultivation
D. 5 C. subsistence agriculture
59. nomadic herding and livestock ranching are D. commercial agriculture
different in the sense that
A. one is nomadic and the other is seden- 64. Which sector of the economy is agriculture
tary based on?
B. one is small scale the other is large A. primary
scale
B. secondary
C. one is environment friendly the other
is not C. tertiary
D. one happens only in Mediterranean D. quarternary
60. Low birth rate 65. What does Gross Domestic Product
A. More developed (GDP)?
B. Less developed A. total value of all goods and services
C. Newly industrialized produced in a country in one year
D. none of above B. total value of all goods and services
made by one person
61. Why did people move to the cities during
the Industrial revolution? C. something that is really yucky at home
A. Jobs in factories D. total value of a country’s exports

9.2 Farm Managements 1266
66. The demand and supply changes over time D. Large corporate firms, collectively
in ag industry have called agribusiness, have emerged in
A. all are correct some areas of farming.
B. Increased the minimum efficient scale 67. A surplus in farming could be growing too
in agriculture and reduced crop prices much corn that is not needed. What can be
(now tractors instead of horse and mule). done to prevent this?
C. Some producers have become more ef- A. All answers are correct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ficient; firms that are too small to take ad- B. Restrict supply with acreage allot-
vantage of economies of scale get priced ments (can only farm 40 acres)
out of the market and their financial
losses have resulted in a mass exodus of C. Use corn to make gasohol and
workers from the industry to other sec- biodiesel and ethanol
tors of the economy. D. Will create higher food prices
9.2 Farm Managements

1. The operator knows that the value of the C. Deprived Demand
dollar on the world market can have an D. Bull
impact on grain markets. If the dollar in-
creases in value related to other curren- 4. A “limited” partnership in one in which:
cies, it will impact U.S. corn and wheat
prices in what way? A. some partners do not participate in
management, and have limited liability.
A. Make corn and wheat prices higher on
world market B. the maximum number of acres is fixed
by state law.
B. Make corn and wheat prices lower on
world market C. the number of partners may not ex-
ceed 50.
C. Make no difference on world market
D. only limited enterprises are carried
D. Make rest of world prices higher
out.
2. What could you do if the cash position in
5. An increase in the number of buyers in an
a certain month indicated that there would
area will result in a
be more expenses than income?
A. terminate the enterprise causing the A. Movement up the demand curve
cash flow problem that month B. Movement down the demand curve
B. switch accounting methods C. Leftward shift in the demand curve
C. move up sales D. Rightward shift in the demand curve
D. change depreciation methods
6. Basis in a futures market is the difference
3. Price movement across months within the between:
year is variability. A. a cash price and a non cash price.
A. Seasonal B. a cash price today and a cash price in
B. Short the future

C. two different futures prices for the B. Price will decrease and quantity may
same commodity. decrease

D. a futures contract price and a cash C. Price will decrease and quantity will in-
price. crease
D. Price will increase and quantity will in-
7. If an increase in income results in an in-
crease
crease in the demand for chicken, then
chicken is 12. Accrued interest on a balance sheet refers
A. A neutral good to:
B. A luxury good A. interest that is past due.
C. A normal good B. interest that has accumulated since
the last loan payment.
D. An inferior good
C. interest on a short-term debt.
8. The general economic term used to de- D. interest forgiven by the lender.
scribe where and when buyers and sell-
ers interact regarding a specific product is 13. A farmer has determined that his total
called: variable cost per acre for corn will be ap-
proximately $248. His fixed cost per acre
A. a franchise.
is $95 per acre. If he is raising 2, 500
B. a contract. acres of corn and expects a yield of 125
C. a market. bushels per acre, what is his breakeven
price per bushel?
D. a partnership.
A. $0.63
9. The middlemen in the marketing system B. $2.40
operate on
C. $2.74
A. Turst
D. $18.52
B. Loans
14. The price where demand and supply inter-
C. Price
sect is known as
D. Margin
A. Deprived Demand
10. The relationship between quantity sup- B. Equilibrium
plied and price is known as C. Supply Curve
A. Demand Curve D. Demand Curve
B. Deprived demand
15. When an increase in the level of production
C. Supply Curve of one enterprise causes a reduction in the
D. Direct Marketing level of production in another enterprise,
these two enterprises are said to be
11. Suppose that the supply curve shifts right. A. Independent
What is the most likely effect on price and
quantity? B. Supplementary
A. Price will increase and quantity may C. Competitive

change D. Complimentary

16. The dynamic process of searching for the C. motivated.

equilibrium or market - clearing prices is D. diversified.
called
A. Margin 21. Selling through a farmers’ market or road-
side market is known as
B. Supply
C. Discovery A. Equilibrium
D. Demand B. Call Option
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Direct Marketing
17. On a chart, a line that connects all the high
points as the markets move higher forms D. Demand
a trend line. When projected out, it forms
points of 22. An agriculture producer learns what from
the production function?
A. Support
A. Output responses to an input
B. Interest
B. Whether or not to operate in the long
C. Resistance
run
D. Understanding
C. How to accolate resources throughout
18. What does stage two in production func- an enterprise
tion graph determine? D. ALL of the above
A. The beginning point of increasing re-
turns 23. If the market is said to be “bearish, “
prices are expected to:
B. The stage where you should not pro-
duce A. increase.
C. The lowest point in increasing B. decrease.
marginal returns C. remain the same.
D. The amount of variable input to use
D. fluctuate greatly.
19. When a farmer writes a check for $5, 000
24. Your ability to plan loan payments is best
to pay off the remainder of a machinery
determined by analyzing your:
loan:
A. assets, liabilities, and equity each de- A. checkbook balance.
crease. B. profit and loss statement
B. assets and liabilities decrease and eq- C. projected cash flow statement.
uity is not affected
D. enterprise budgets.
C. liabilities decrease and equity in-
creases. 25. When a market has huge swings on a daily
D. assets and equity decrease. basis, it is described as ?
A. Stable
20. By dropping hay sales from a beef cattle
operation, a producer becomes more: B. Comfortable
A. specialized. C. Volatile
B. integrated. D. Variable

26. Net farm income from operations for a sole B. $155.00.

proprietorship business refers to: C. $166.67.

A. total market value assets minus total D. $183.75.
liabilities.
B. current assets minus current liabili- 31. What is stage II (2) of the production func-
ties. tion?
C. accrual adjusted revenues minus ac- A. Thw lowest point
crual adjusted expenses. B. The highest point
D. cash income minus cash expenses. C. The point of demolishing returns
27. Comparing the retail price to the farm price D. The decision making stage
for an agricultural commodity allows you
to determine the portion of each dollar 32. At a price of $15, Marta buys 3 CD’s
spent at the retail level that farmers re- per month. When the price increases to
ceive for their commodities. The difference $20, Marta buys 2 CD’s per month. Luz
between retail value and the farm value is says that Marta’s demand for CD’s has de-
creased. Is Luz correct?
A. Profit
A. Yes
B. b. Net farm revenue
B. No her demand increased
C. c. Farm to city transportation cost
C. No, Luz is incorrect. Marta’s quan-
D. d. Marketing margin
tity demanded has decreased, but her de-
28. On March 1, JD Farms borrowed $15, 000 mand has stayed the same.
to plant soybeans. On November 1, they D. No, Luz is incorrect. Marta’s quantity
repaid the $15, 000 along with $500 in demanded has increased, but her demand
interest. What annual interest rate was has stayed the
paid on the loan?
33. The price of beef is determined by the
A. 3.33%
supply of beef and the demand for beef.
B. 5.00% A change in price occurs when the de-
C. 7.50% mand for beef increases or decreases
even though the supply remains constant.
D. 10.00%
Which of the following causes a change in
29. On a production function graph MC=MR demand for beef?
A. Where losses will be the least A. decrease in the number of cattle
B. Where change in cost and chage in rev- B. increase in the number of beef cattle
enue are the same producers
C. Where the profits are the greatest C. increase in the cost of producing beef
D. ALLof the above D. decrease in the income of beef con-
sumers
30. The present value of $175 that will be re-
ceived at the end of one year, given a 5% 34. The relationship between quantity pur-
interest (discount) rate is: chased and price is known as
A. $87.50. A. Demand

B. Supply 39. On an agricultural producer’s balance

C. Call Option sheet, which of the following contains only
current assets?
D. Equilibrium
A. tractor, livestock barn, herd bull
35. What does the Production Function indi-
cate for an agricultural producer? B. fertilizer, breeding cows, truck
A. How to allocate resources throughout C. cash, corn silage, feeder calves
a business
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. land, combine, growing crop
B. How output responds to inputs
C. Whether to operate in the long run 40. The most common element of federal gov-
D. ALL of the above ernment programs has been to:
36. Which of the following is an opportunity A. lower production.

cost of farming your own land? B. provide price support.
A. equipment cost
C. have a food reserve.
B. labor cost
D. fund research activities.
C. eroded soil
D. potential rent 41. Three financial indicators that can be calcu-
lated from the net worth statements are
37. When a farmer increases his investment in
liquidity, solvency, and equity. Solvency
land, buildings, and equipment without in-
is the:
creasing the total units of production, cost
per unit: A. ability of all assets, if sold at market
A. increases. value, to cover all debts.
B. remains the same. B. ability of a business to generate
C. decreases. enough cash to pay bills without disrupt-
ing business.
D. varies with the operator.
C. amount of cash received by a farm
38. Which one of the following can increase business in a one-year period.
the retained earnings of the farm busi-
ness? D. amount of money that will need to be
borrowed to cover expenses .
A. net farm income less than business
withdrawals for family living expenses
and income 42. The primary purpose of the production
function is to determine
B. net farm income greater than business
withdrawals for family living expenses A. Whether or not to operate in the long
and income taxes run
C. an operating loss for the accounting B. How to Accolade resources through-
period out a business
D. an increase in the amount of money
C. How much to produce
withdrawn from the business for family liv-
ing expenses and income taxes D. ALL of the above

43. A farm business where it can be ex- A. Losses are the greatest
posed to changes in demand and therefore
B. Profits will be greatest
changes in price that is totally beyond its

control is referred to as being: C. Costs are minimized
A. a price maker. D. Production is maximized
B. a price taker.
49. What does marginal cost measure?
C. price neutral.
A. The change in cost from one enterprise
D. profitable. to another
44. This financial statement explains changes B. The output cost from production at the
in net worth. level of inputs
A. balance sheet C. The change in the cost by adding an-
B. statement of owner equity other unit of input
C. income statement D. The change in cost by producing an-

other unit of output
D. statement of cash flows
50. Which of the following is true about the re-
45. The is King in the market place
lationship between price and quantity sup-
A. Farmer plied?
B. Adviser A. There is always a direct relationship
C. Consumer B. There is always an inverse relation-
D. Processer ship
46. If Max’s demand for hot dogs falls as his C. There is usually a direct relationship
income rises, then hot dogs are D. There is usually an inverse relation-
A. A bad good ship
B. An inferior good 51. Any time a consumer will take more only
C. A normal good at lower prices is called
D. A preferable good A. Margin
47. When determining the effect of growing B. Supply

more acres of a crop in an enterprise bud- C. Discovery
get, the cost most likely to change would
D. Demand
be:
A. operating costs per acre. 52. The point where Marginal Costs =
B. rent per acre. Marginal Revenue is
C. crop insurance per acre. A. Where production reaches maximum

point
D. fixed costs per acre.
B. Where all of your resources are used
48. The point on a production function graph
C. Where profits are at a maximum
where marginal cost equals marginal rev-
enue is where D. ALL of the above

9.3 Production Economics 1272
53. The goal of tax management is to: combine?

A. maximize profit before taxes. A. 468
B. minimize taxes. B. 714
C. maximize depreciation deductions. C. 1, 364
D. maximize profit after taxes. D. 4, 625
54. A grain combine can be purchased for 55. A demand for a product at the farm level
NARAYAN CHANGDER
$148, 000. Total annual fixed costs will is a(n)
be $15, 000 and variable costs per acre A. Equilibrium
will be $21. If a custom operator can be B. Demand Curve
hired to combine grain for $32 per acre,
what is the minimum number of acres one C. Supply Curve
should plan to harvest to justify buying the D. Deprived Demand
9.3 Production Economics

1. There are very little personal freedoms 4. a delivery driver
when it comes to resources and decisions A. Natural Resource
about what to sell and how to sell it.Which
economic system does this represent? B. Human Resource
A. Mixed C. Capital Resource
B. Command D. Entrepreneurship
C. Traditional 5. The best definition of economies of scale is
D. Market A. average revenue rises as output rises
2. A country produces $12 billion worth of B. total costs rise as output increases
goods, $7 billion worth of services overall. C. total costs fall as output rises
If the amount they spent on depreciation is
$380 million, what is the country’s NNP? D. average cost falls as the scale of out-
put increases
A. $19 billion
B. $5 billion 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the
3 Basic Economic questions?
C. $84 billion
A. What To Produce
D. $18.62 billion
B. When to Produce
3. An individual’s knowledge or skills that
C. How to Produce
make production of a good/service more
efficient D. For Whom To Produce
A. Human Capital 7. How do you satisfy your unlimited wants
B. Physical Capital in a world of limited resources?
C. Investment Capital A. by making more money
D. Enterprise Capital B. by making choices

C. by stealing 14. This factor involves money, equipment,

D. by setting a budget and tools and any items to produce goods
and services?

8. Which should not be considered as capital? A. capital
A. A share of corporate stock
B. entrepreneur
B. An automobile used by a person
C. land
C. A crane used by a building contractor
D. labor
D. A razor used by a barber
15. When the amount of a factor increases the
9. The pattern of demand for silk and gold by total output
men should be
A. Decreases
A. zero
B. is maximum
B. infinitive
C. Increases
C. decrease to one
D. becomes zero
D. more than zero but less than one
16. In determining the optimal level of output,
10. To “use again”
a firm should aim for the
A. depletion
A. point where decreasing returns be-
B. reduce come negative returns.
C. recycle B. output level where fixed costs exceed
D. none of above variable costs.
11. A herd of cattle is an example of C. point of maximum profitability for the
company.
A. Land
D. output level where marginal returns
B. Labor
are still increasing.
C. Entrepreneurship
17. Entrepreneurs are considered a factor of
D. Capital
production because?
12. The break-even level of output is that num- A. They are land owners
ber of units where:
B. They are great workers at factories
A. profit is at its highest level
C. Provide money by investing
B. variable costs equal revenue
D. They create companies and foster busi-
C. total costs equal revenue
ness innovation by having creative ideas
D. variable costs equal fixed costs
18. Capital refers to
13. What is classified as one of the four eco-
A. the “gifts of nature” or natural re-
nomic resources?
sources not created by human effort
A. consumption
B. people with all their efforts and abili-
B. enterprise ties
C. production C. the tools, equipment, and factories
D. trade used in production of goods and services

D. individuals who start a new business B. Going bankrupt [losing everything]

or bring a product to market C. Not having a steady job/paycheck
19. The enterprising spirit that allows an indi- D. All of these are risks!
vidual to spot gaps in the market and take
risks (including starting a business): 25. What is not a reason for the decline
in manufacturing industries in developed
A. Entrepreneurship
economies in recent years?
B. Capital
A. growth of newly industrialised com-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Land petitor countries
D. Labor B. invention of automated production
methods
20. What does the saying “There is no free
lunch” mean? C. rising costs of factor inputs in the steel
industry
A. some things cost nothing
B. most things cost nothing D. considerable skill shortages as school-
leavers prefer to work in the service sec-
C. most things cost something tor
D. everything costs something
26. Bill Gates is an example of
21. Harvesting less corn than the land is capa- A. Land (seriously though, come on)
ble of producing is an example of
B. Labor
A. marginal costs
C. An Entrepreneurs
B. opportunity costs
D. Capital
C. efficiency
D. underutilization 27. Profit is equal to:
A. Total Cost - Total revenue
22. The most basic economic problem that
forces us to make choices is B. Total revenue - Total cost
A. the lack of skills C. Fixed cost + variable cost - total rev-
B. the lack of money enue
C. the shortage of goods. D. Revenue + Fixed costs

D. scarcity 28. The short run is a time period
23. Total Revenue - Total Cost = A. which is less than 3 months.
A. Profit B. which is very short.
B. Revenue C. in which there is at least 1 fixed factor.
C. Marginal Revenue D. in which all factors are variable.
D. Variable Revenue 29. Anything within the production process,
24. What is a risk an entrepreneur takes in whether human or technological, that
running a business? makes production more efficient
A. Losing the money invested in starting A. Entrepreneurship

the business B. Capital

C. Land 35. Which is not an example of land?

D. Labor A. Tree

B. Saw
30. Objects that can be purchased.
C. Horse
A. goods
D. Gold
B. services
36. A steel factory is an example of
C. products
A. Land
D. objects
B. Labor
31. In the SHORT RUN, what is true? C. Entrepreneurship
A. AVC declines as output is expanded D. Capital
B. Variable cost will exceed total cost 37. IS KNOWN AS THE MANMADE RE-
C. if inputs are increased, output will ex- SOURCES USED TO PRODUCE GOODS AND
pand by a diminishing amount SERVICES.
D. all inputs are variable A. Entrepreneurs
B. Capital
32. Buisness owner, starts and runs the buis-
C. Labor
ness
D. Land
A. Entrepreneur
B. Educator 38. Two farmers are picking apples on a farm
and placing them on the bed of a truck.
C. Elephant This is an example of which factor of pro-
D. none of above duction(s)?
A. Land and labor
33. In which of the following situations would
a business be wise to shut its factory? B. Labor only
C. Capital
A. When revenue exceeds variable costs
D. Land, labor, and capital
B. When marginal costs exceed fixed
costs 39. The knowledge a taxi driver uses to navi-
C. When fixed costs exceed revenue gate the city is an example of
A. Land
D. When total costs exceed marginal
costs B. Labor
C. Capital
34. These are the things we desire to have.
D. Entrepreneurship
A. Wants
40. When is a firm considered more capital-
B. Goals
intensive than another firm?
C. Opportunity Costs
A. when it has a lower ratio of workers to
D. none of above machines than the other firm

B. when it has fewer workers than the B. Command

other firm C. Market
C. when it has higher variable costs than D. Traditional
the other firm
D. when it has more machines than the 46. What would be classified by an economist
other firm as the factor of production known as land?
A. a discovery of oil in the South China
41. Formula for Marginal Product (MP) is: sea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
∆T P
A. ∆Qinput B. an oil rig bought by an oil company
TP C. money held by the oil companies in
B. Qinput
their bank accounts
Qinput
C. Total product D. the productivity of oil workers
Change in Quality
D. Change in price 47. Oil is an example of
42. factory worker A. Natural Resources
A. Natural B. Human Resources
B. Labor C. Capital Resources
C. Capital D. Entrepreneurship
D. ???????? 48. If a firm does not produce any output, its
total cost is equal to
43. Assembly line worker
A. Zero
A. Land
B. Its fixed costs
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Its variable costs
C. Capital
D. Its marginal cost
D. Labor
49. If the production of good X increases by 3
44. Which change will make a manufacturing units and production of good Y decreases
company replace labour with capital to by one unit, then the opportunity cost of
maintain the most efficient combination of one unit of X is unit(s) of Y.
factors of production?
A. 3
A. The price of machinery has increased.
B. 1
B. The productivity of labour has in-
C. 1/3
creased.
D. 4
C. The productivity of machinery has in-
creased. 50. Which of the following are all considered
D. The supply of labour has increased. to be land?
A. factories, buildings, workers, bees
45. An economic system where the govern-
ment and individuals decide how to use B. corn fields, tractors, computers, rakes
their resources is which of the following? C. dams, bridges, gravel pits, oil wells
A. Mixed D. natural gas, coal, trees, water

51. all the people who have jobs or are looking C. how to reach full employment
for a job
D. how to use scarce resources

A. labor force
B. employed 57. Total Product is
C. division of labor A. the Quality of Input
D. none of above B. The Quality of Output

C. The Quantity of Output
52. At an output of 25 units, a firm’s total cost
is $250. If that firm’s average variable D. The Quantity of Input
cost is $4 per unit, what is its total fixed
cost? 58. All of the economic inputs that are required
to produce goods and services are called:
A. $100
A. Factors of production
B. $150
B. Supply
C. $10
D. $5 C. Demand
D. Capital for goods
53. To make cars, you use machines; these are
59. In recent years more golf courses, which
A. human resources use large quantities of water, have opened
in China. What may be the opportunity
B. natural resources
cost of this?
C. factors of production
A. cost of water
D. capital resources
B. loss of farmland
54. ATC x =TC C. sales of golf equipment
A. Variable Cost
D. wages of golf course staff
B. Quantity
C. Price 60. The physical development of a country in-
cluding roads, ports, utilities
D. None of the Above
A. Land
55. Factory Worker B. Labor
A. Land/Natural Resources
C. Infrastructure
B. Labor
D. Entrepreneurship
C. Capital
D. Entrepreneurship 61. All of the things necessary for production
are known as:
56. What is the basic problem facing all A. Production
economies?
B. Entrepreneurship
A. how to achieve a stable balance of pay-
ments C. Outputs
B. how to maximise tax revenues D. Resources

62. a system in which people produce, sell and 67. Higher productivity is important as it:
buy goods and services A. increases average costs
A. economy
B. lower profits
B. ecosystem
C. reduces average cost
C. education
D. reduces the firm’s ability to complete
D. none of above internationally
NARAYAN CHANGDER
63. What is the function of the factors of pro- 68. If a firm does not produce any output, its
duction in an economy? costs are equal to
A. to make goods and services to fulfil
A. zero
wants and needs
B. its fixed costs
B. to provide an even distribution of in-
come C. its variable costs
C. to provide tax income for the govern- D. its implicit costs
ment
69. What do economies aim to achieve in tack-
D. to reduce the existence of external
ling the economic problem of scarcity?
costs
A. equal balance between public and pri-
64. People who help stock the shelves at the vate sectors
store are called
B. equal reward for equal effort
A. human resources
C. increased competition in the use of re-
B. capital resources sources
C. factors of production D. optimum allocation of finite resources
D. natural resources
70. is the study of the production, distri-
65. What best describes the problem of bution, and consumption of goods and ser-
scarcity? vices.
A. All consumer wants must be satisfied. A. School
B. All resources are free at the point of B. Capitalism
use.
C. Economics
C. There are limited resources and unlim-
ited wants. D. Government
D. There are unlimited resources and lim- 71. Whay are the average total, average vari-
ited wants. blae, and marginal cost curves U shaped?
66. Which of these terms is the BEST synonym A. They show the products increasing and
for the word “entrepreneur”? decreasing quanitty in a market based on
A. business owner the laws of demand
B. homeowner B. They show increasing marginal re-

turns f or small quantities of output fol-
C. employee lowed by decreasing marginal returns for
D. student larger quantities of output

C. They demonstrate the relationship be- 77. What is a variable cost to a firm producing
tween creating and buying with in a mo- bicycles?
nopolistic market

A. the component parts of the bicycles
D. All of the above answer choices
B. the interest in money borrowed
72. unlimited wants and limited resources lead C. the rent of the bicycle factory
to a condition called
D. the salaries of the senior managers
A. economics
B. scarcity 78. Underutlization shows an economy that is
C. opportunity costs A. inefficient
D. risk B. maximizing production

C. experiencing growth
73. Which of the following are NOT the objec-
tives of a Muslim producer? D. trading with other economies
A. Improve the conditions of society 79. Which of the following examines the costs
through the use of resources and expected benefits of a choice?
B. Maximize level of profits. A. choice-benefit analysis
C. Obtain the blessings of Allah SWT.
B. cost-profit analysis
D. Achieve reasonable amount of profits.
C. cost-benefit analysis
74. Cashiers at McDonalds are examples of D. choice-profit analysis
A. Land 80. All natural resources that go into the pro-

duction of a good or service:
B. Labor
A. Capital
C. Entrepreneurs
B. Entrepreneurship
D. Capital
C. Land
75. Cashiers at McDonalds are examples of D. Labor
A. Land
81. Why a man will get zero reward while he
B. Labor
is consuming legitimate things?
C. Entrepreneurship
A. He has no conscious intentions regard-
D. Capital ing his consumption.
76. Any technology/machinery involved in the B. He is ready to refrain from consuming

production process: anything that God prohibits.
A. Human Capital C. He is sharing some of his consumption

with others example by paying zakah.
B. Physical Capital
D. He is changing the composition of his
C. Investment Capital consumption through substituting halal
D. Enterprise Capital for haram things.

82. The garbage truck is an example of which 87. IS KNOWN AS THE NATURAL RE-
Factor of Production? SOURCES USED TO PRODUCE GOODS AND
SERVICES
A. labor
A. Entrepreneurs
B. land
B. Capital
C. entrepreneurship
C. Labor
D. capital
D. Land
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. Marginal product curve and the average
product curve intersect 88. Why are the factors of production impor-
tant?
A. at the maximum point of the marginal
product curve. A. They are not important
B. where total product is at a maximum. B. They are resources we get from the
land
C. where marginal product equals zero.
C. They give us what we want
D. at the maximum point of the average
product curve. D. They are the building blocks of the
economy and are used to produce goods
84. The introduction of robots has meant that and services.
many firms now require fewer workers to
produce their goods and services. Accord- 89. Which factor of production can a firm
ing to this statement, which factor of pro- change in the short run?
duction is replacing workers?
A. Labor
A. capital
B. Land
B. enterprise
C. Capital
C. labour
D. Entrepreneurship
D. land
90. What is the process of using natural re-
85. The production possibilities curve is an il- sources or goods and services?
lustration of what?
A. production
A. Opportunity costs and trade-offs
B. consumption
B. Only opportunity costs
C. distribution
C. Only trade-offs
D. none of above
91. Natural Resources/Land, Labor, Capital,
86. Long run production function means and Entrepreneurship are the four main
categories of ?
A. Some factors are variable
A. Economics
B. Some factors are constant
B. Infrastructure
C. Some factors are variable and some
are constant C. Factors of Production
D. All the factors are variable D. Factors of Bricklandia

92. Forests are examples of 97. The people who decide to buy.
A. Land A. Producers

B. Labor B. Consumers
C. Economist
C. Entrepreneurs
D. Entreprenuers
D. Capital
98. Sum of the fixed cost and variable costs
93. Use the following two statements to an-
A. Average Cost
swer this question:I. Production functions
describe what is technically feasible when B. Total Cost
the firm operates efficiently.II. The produc- C. Marginal Cost
tion function shows the least cost method D. Variable Cost
of producing a given level of output.
A. Both I and II are true.
“services?”
B. I is true, and II is false. A. Mrs. Brickley gets her hair cut.
C. I is false, and II is true. B. Mrs. Brickley buys yarn at Michael’s.
D. Both I and II are false. C. Mrs. Brickley invents a new video
game.
94. What do points inside the PPF indicate?
D. Mrs. Brickley volunteers at the San An-
A. The combination of goods that employ tonio Food Bank.
goods efficiently
100. What is the definition of production
B. The combination of goods that employ based on Kahf?
resources fully
A. Produce and manufacture such things
C. The combination of goods that do not which are quite essential for human lives.
employ resources fully B. Fulfilment of one’s own needs in mod-
D. none of above eration, family and future with contribute
to cause of Allah.
95. What is the main problem in economics? C. Man’s effort to improve material con-
A. scarcity dition and moral to obtain his goal in the
hereafter.
B. shortage
D. Process that transforms resources
C. choices into finished goods to fulfil consumer’s
D. unemployment needs.
101. If Mr. Dawson is given a pay raise, what
96. Difference between wants and needs and
would be the most likely effect?
available resources
A. a decrease in the cost of his labor
A. Economy
B. a decrease in the opportunity cost of
B. Factors of Production quitting his job
C. Resources C. an increase in his human capital
D. Scarcity D. an increase in his standard of living

102. Which of the following would be an ex- C. Fixed Cost

ample of a fixed cost on a farm?
D. Average Cost
A. Mortgage on the land
107. Efficiency along the PPC implies
B. Costs of seed
C. Fuel to operate machinery A. Goods are produced quickly.
D. Charge for fertilizer for the growing B. The state of technology is maximized.
season C. , In order to get more of a good, some
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of another must be given up.
103. What happens when there is a limited
supply of one of the factors of production? D. Goods are distributed equitably.
A. It has no impact 108. A microeconomist would study
B. It could cause the other factors to be
A. a general decline in prices
in limited supply
B. a rise in tea prices
C. Labor becomes less skilled
C. the ups and downs of business cycles
D. It causes the supply to go up for the
product D. the impact of national tax policies
104. After more than 70 years of production, 109. Average product is at its maximum, when
a German car manufacturer, Volkswagen, average variable cost is at its?
has decided to locate the production of its
biggest selling car in developing countries, A. Turning Point
rather than Germany. What is the main B. Minimum
advantage of this policy?
C. Maximum
A. to access new management tech-
D. Stable Point
niques
B. to make use of better infrastructure 110. How can you increase your human capi-
C. to sell the car only to customers in de- tal?
veloping countries A. Take an online class
D. to train and employ labor at a lower B. Work an extra shift
cost
C. Buy a car
105. To increase marginal return, a company D. Go to Sonic after school
might consider
A. stopping production 111. The main difference between the SR and
the LR is that
B. purchasing more machinery
A. the law of diminishing returns applies
C. increasing output
in the LR
D. reducing output
B. all resources are variable in the LR
106. Extra cost of producing one more unit C. fixed costs are more important to deci-
A. Marginal cost sion making in the LR
B. Variable Cost D. in the SR all resources are fixed

112. The term, “capital goods” means: 116. In the long run, firms should decide to
A. Goods not created for their own use, shut down if what condition holds?

but to make other goods/services. A. Price is less than both average cost
B. Work the people do to produce goods and average variable cost.
and services. B. Price is less than both average cost
C. Person who organizes the factors of C. Price is less than average variable
production to produce goods/services; cost.
business owners.
D. Price is less than average fixed cost.
D. The natural resources used to produce
goods or services. 117. A Teacher is an example of
113. A production function is an expression of
relation between inputs and outputs. B. Human Resources
A. quantitative C. Capital Resources
B. qualitative D. Entrepreneurship
C. monetary
118. The creation of any kind of good or ser-
D. economic vice is known as:
114. When the total product is maximum, the A. Input

marginal product is B. Resources
A. positive. C. Production
B. zero. D. Entrepreneurship
C. negative.
119. Which is an example of entrepreneur-
D. maximum. ship?
115. Production is a very significant process in A. Working for Wal-Mart
Islamic economics because B. Being a member of the USWNT soccer
A. humans have been appointed by Allah team
as His khalifah to manage the earth and C. Managing the Shell station for you
build civilization. friend
B. most of the raw materials created by D. Creating a new product
Allah must be transformed into final goods
and services before they are fit for con- 120. The Chromebooks you are using are ex-
sumption. amples of (Think about the purpose of
C. production activities are the main schools, and what they are trying to pro-
sources of income for humans to support duce.)
their survival on earth and achieve falah. A. Land
D. it contributes directly to the creation B. Labor
of wealth which the country needs to pre-
C. Entrepreneurs
serve social order and promote economic
development. D. Capital

121. Additional cost associated with producing 126. The initiative and creativity to produce
one additional unit of output: something new describes which factor of
A. Fixed Costs production?
B. Average Costs A. Land
C. Marginal Costs B. Labor
D. Emplicit Costs C. Capital

D. Entrepreneur
NARAYAN CHANGDER
122. The long-run ATC curve:
A. will rise if there are diminishing re- 127. What is the term for a person who pur-
turns chases goods and services for personal
use?
B. will fall if there are diminishing returns
A. Demander
C. will rise if economies of scale are in-
curred B. Consumer
D. is based on the assumption that all re- C. Borrower
sources are variable D. Supplier
123. In marketing strategy, Islamic producer
128. Why would a producer want to increase
should
the productivity of his/her workers?
A. create barriers to entry
A. to increase costs
B. follow the fair rules in all its dealing
B. to decrease costs
C. use the deceptive advertising to pro-
C. to increase profits
mote
D. to decrease profits
D. participate in lending or borrowing
money at fixed price 129. In which of the following situations
124. Scenario:In country Z, people rarely ex- would a business be wise to shut down
change money for goods or services. They (close) its factory?
grow their own crops and raise their own A. When revenue exceeds variable costs.
livestock.Which economic system is being
B. When marginal costs exceed fixed
described?
costs.
A. Command
C. When fixed costs exceed revenue.
B. Market
D. When total costs exceed marginal
C. Mixed costs.
D. Traditional
130. Production function shows the technolog-
125. A bulldozer is an example of ical relationship between
A. Land A. Owner and Manager
B. Labor B. Owner and Labor
C. Entrepreneurs C. Manager and Labor
D. Capital D. Inputs and Output

131. The best definition of fixed costs are 136. An opportunity cost is
those that do not vary with:
A. the most desirable alternative given

A. time up as the result of a decision.
B. seasons B. any good or service we barter for an-
C. output other good or service.
D. number of workers. C. the cost in dollars and time of any de-
132. An example of natural resource. cision.
A. trade off D. a choice between two equally desir-

able goods or services.
B. grill
C. tractor 137. Scarcity of resources forces nations, busi-
D. tree nesses and people to make
133. The definition of Scarcity is A. problems.

A. An unlimited amount of resources to B. choices.
meet limited wants and needs C. barters.
B. A limited amount of resources to meet
D. trades.
unlimited wants and needs.
C. When people use time and energy to 138. The United States decides what goods to
create events produce by letting
D. a city where individuals commit them- A. only the government decide
selves to unlimited wants and needs
B. the producers and the government de-
134. As one of the factors of produc- cide
tion/productive resources, capital can be
defined as C. only the producers decide
A. the goods and services a business pro- D. the producers and consumers decide
duces
B. the supply of labor needed to produce 139. Which of the following is a fixed cost for
goods owning a vehicle?
C. the people that purchase goods and A. Gas

services B. Oil Change
D. the equipment and factories needed to
C. Tires
produce goods
D. Car Payment
135. What is the term for the total supply of
a specific good or service available to con- 140. A Pizza Oven is an example of
sumers?
A. Scarcity
B. Demand B. Human Resources
C. Interdependence C. Capital Resources

D. Supply D. Entrepreneurship

141. Your garbage man is an example of 147. An external economy of scale is when
A. Land A. average costs fall as a result of the ex-
B. Labor pansion of the industry as a whole
C. Entrepreneurship B. firms can bulk buy

C. costs rise for firms that are in compe-
D. Capital
tition with each other
142. Capital in Economics is defined as D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The man-made items used in produc-
148. Which best of the following best de-
tion.
scribes economics as a social and an ap-
B. The cash in bank a firm has. plied science?
C. The amount borrowed by the firm. A. The study of products we need to sur-
D. The amount invested in the firm. vive
B. The study of how customer make
143. An increase in total production due to an choices when there is unlimited supply of
increase of one unit of variable input is resources
known as
C. The study of human personalities
A. Marginal cost
D. The study of how buyers make choices
B. Average cost when there is limited supply
C. Marginal product
149. Your cafeteria cook is an example of
D. Average product
A. Land
144. The computers you are using are exam- B. Labor
ples of
C. Entrepreneurship
A. Land
D. Capital
B. Labor
150. Things that you use for your survival are
C. Entrepreneurship called
D. Capital A. needs
145. The market value of all the inputs a firm B. wants
uses in production. C. resources
A. Implicit Costs D. factors of production
B. Explicit Costs
151. Labor refers to
C. Total Costs
A. people with all their efforts and abili-
D. Marginal Costs ties
146. The term production in economics means- B. individuals who start a new business
or bring a product to market.
A. creation of economic utilities
C. the tools, equipment, and factories
B. rendering of a service only used in production of goods and services.
C. creation of a physical product only D. The “gifts of nature” or natural re-
D. none of the above sources not created by human effort.

152. Land includes marginal product followed by diminishing

A. The “gifts of nature” or natural re- marginal product. The corresponding cost
curves show an initial phase of declining

sources not created by human effort.
marginal costs, followed by increasing MC
B. the tools, equipment, and factories after diminishing returns have set in.
used in production of goods and services
A. False
C. people with all their efforts and abili-
ties B. It depends
D. individuals who start a new business C. True

or bring a product to market. D. Contradictory
153. Which of the following costs are gener- 157. Total Costs / Quantity =
ally assumed to be fixed? A. Marginal Cost
A. utilities B. Average Total Cost
B. wages for employees C. Implicit Cost
C. rent D. Explicit Cost
D. transportation expenses
158. A trained automobile mechanic would be
154. Which of the following is NOT a reason an example of:
for Depreciation (aka Capital Consumption A. Capital goods
Allowance) occurring?
B. Entrepreneurship
A. Capital goods become technologically
C. Human Capital
inferior.
D. Natural Resources
B. Capital goods are damaged or destroy
by natural disasters. 159. The people who work and contribute to
C. Foreign manufacturers produce more the economy
capital goods than domestic manufactur- A. Natural Resources
ers.
B. Human Resources
D. Capital goods exceed their useful life
C. Entrepreneurship
(meaning they know longer can produce
goods). D. Capital Resources
155. Fixed cost 160. Adam Smith argued that a nation would
be wealthier if it engaged in
A. long run ATC rises as output increases
A. mercantilism
B. long run ATC falls as output rises
B. free trade
C. costs that do not vary with the quantity
of output produced C. state-controlled mercantilism
D. long run ATC stays the same as the D. state-controlled trade
quantity of output changes 161. The relationship between the factors of
156. In the short run, when factors such as production and the output of goods and
capital are fixed, variable factors tend services.
to show an initial phase of increasing A. Marginal Product

B. Law of Variable Proportions C. motor bikes

C. Production Function D. biscuits
D. Stages of Production 167. Which of the following is an economic
good
162. Which of the following inputs are vari-
able in the long run? A. Air
A. Labour B. Newspapers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Capital and equipment C. Sunlight
C. Plant size D. Water
D. all of above 168. Anna bought a lamp at a garage sale. She
repaired it and painted it, then she sold it
163. Minimum wage
for a profit. The list below is what she
A. The lowest hourly wage permitted by did:*paid for the lamp $5*cost to paint
law $3*cost for new shade $7*selling price
B. The highest hourly wage permitted by $30What was Anna’s profit from selling
law the lamp?
C. The lowest salary permitted by law A. $25
D. The highest salary permitted by law B. $15
C. $20
164. Which of the following is a role of an en-
trepreneur? D. $35
A. producing final accounts to measure 169. If there is improved technique of Produc-

performance tion in both the goods, how the PPC will
B. specializing be affected?
A. Leftward shift of PPC
C. training
B. Rightward shift of PPC
D. organizing
C. Rotation of PPC
165. Which statement about factors of produc-
tion is correct?
A. A Capital is the amount of money bor- 170. Economists refer to factors of production.
rowed from a bank. Which is not a factor of production?
B. Labour is output made by an employee. A. the fields of a farm
C. Land includes commercially grown rice B. the machinery in a factory
crops C. the shares of a company
D. Profit is the reward for enterprise D. the staff in an office
166. which of these products is most likely to 171. The property whereby long-run average
be produced using labour intensive produc- total cost falls as the quantity of output
tion methods? increases.
A. wedding gowns A. Economies of Scale
B. smartphones B. Efficient Scale

C. Constant Returns to Scale 177. Deciding to go to a football game rather

D. Diseconomies of Scale than doing your homework is an example
of a(n)

172. What is the term for a consumer’s desire A. production possibility
and willingness to pay a price for a specific
good or service? B. marginal cost
A. Demand C. trade-off
B. Supply D. opportunity expense
C. Wants 178. After the stuffed animals are made they
D. Needs are brought to the stores in large trucks;
this is called
173. A production function shows about the re-
A. production
lationship between
B. consumption
A. Input and cost
B. Outputs and cost C. distribution
C. Products and cost D. none of above
D. Input and Output 179. The best definition of variable costs is:
174. The average amount of output produced A. They vary with the number of units pro-
by each labor employed is duced.
A. Total Product B. They vary over time.
B. Marginal Product C. They vary with the prices charged by
suppliers.
C. Average product
D. They vary with tax rates set by govern-
D. Production function
ment.
175. Costs that do not change when the
quanity of output produced changes? 180. Costs that do not change when the
quanity of output produced changes is
A. Fixed Costs called
B. Variable Costs A. Fixed Costs
C. Explicit Costs B. Variable Costs
D. Implicit Costs C. Explicit Costs
176. If a bakery can produce 100 cupcakes for D. Implicit Costs
$100 and 200 cupcakes for $150, what is
the marginal cost per cupcake for the addi- 181. An objective of production in Islam is to
tional 100 cupcakes?
A. $0.25 A. attract investor
B. $1.00 B. make a lot of production
C. $0.50 C. fulfill necessity moderately
D. $0.75 D. use production factors maximal

182. Government leaders meet to decide what sold 15 blankets. What is Kelly’s total
products will be produced. They then tell COST?
businesses what and how much to pro- A. $25
duce.Which economic system is being de-
scribed? B. $225
A. Market C. $525
B. Command D. $750
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mixed 187. All of the things that a company needs to
D. Traditional make their products are called
A. economics
183. an addition to the total production by
the employment of an extra unit of a fac- B. human resources
tor. C. capital resources
A. Average Product D. factors of production
B. Total Product
188. What is the reward to land?
C. Marginal Product
A. wages
D. Output
B. capital
184. The amount a firm receives after all costs C. rent
have been paid.
D. interest
A. Revenue
B. Marginal Profit 189. In the acronym GDP, the P stands for
C. Profit A. possibility
D. Marginal Revenue B. probabilty
C. product
185. Which factor of production completes the
excerpt:” are a vital engine of eco- D. percentage
nomic development creating some of the
largest firms in the world as well as small 190. Private multinational clothing companies
businesses. prosper in economies operate in developing countries to reduce
where they have the freedom to start busi- their average costs of production. Which
nesses and buy resources freely.” feature of developing countries attracts
them for this purpose?
A. Land
A. In developing countries, clothing work-
B. Labor ers receive low wages.
C. Capital B. In developing countries, foreign man-
D. Entrepreneur agers are allowed to pay no income tax.
186. Kelly makes and sells quilted blankets C. In developing countries, multination-
out of her home. She charges $50 per blan- als are allowed to take profits out of the
ket. For each blanket she makes, she must country.
spend $1 on thread, $2 in electricity and D. In developing countries, there is a
$12 on cloth. This month she made and large market for fashion clothing.

191. heavy machinery B. To the left

A. capital C. To the right

B. entrepreneurship D. Outward on one axis only
C. land
197. Who wrote The Wealth of Nations?
D. labor
A. Alexander Hamilton
192. If a mass immigration occurs, the produc- B. Thomas Malthus
tion possibilities curve can shift
C. Karl Marx
A. No shift
D. Adam Smith
B. To the left
C. To the right 198. Rent is a:
D. Outward on one axis only A. Fixed expense
193. A person who uses and buys goods and B. Discretionary Expense
services C. Variable expense
A. money D. Intermittent expense
B. producer
199. When a shoe manufacturer doubles all
C. consumer factors of production output more than
D. economics doubles. Which economic concept does this
illustrate?
194. What are the four factors of production?
A. diseconomies of scale
A. land, labor, capital, and entrepreneur-
ship B. economies of scale
B. land, labor, money, and entrepreneur- C. increasing profits

ship D. opportunity cost
C. resources, labor, capital, and en-
200. When a worker has special training or ed-
trepreneurship
ucation to perform a task
D. resources, labor, money, and en-
A. Automation
trepreneurship
B. Specialization
195. Input costs that may not have a direct
outlay of money but rather an opportunity C. Ellimination
cost: D. none of above
A. Fixed Cost
201. What is an example of the purchase of a
B. Variable Cost capital good?
C. Implicit Cost A. a farm owner purchasing additional
D. Explicit Cost land
B. a farm owner purchasing a television
196. If a natural disaster strikes, the produc-
tion possibilities curve can shift C. a farm owner purchasing a tractor
A. No shift D. a farm worker purchasing some seeds

202. Tradeoffs, Opportunity costs, marginal 207. Which would not be classified by
costs, marginal benefits, and personal pri- economists as land?
orities are all important to consider when
A. Two thousand acres of forest
A. Dealing with fiscal policy
B. A hydroelectric dam
B. Using credit
C. Crude oil reserves
C. making a rational economic choice
D. Iron ore deposits
D. responding to monetary policy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
208. Why is NNP used in economics?
203. Concentration of economic activity on the
A. To measure how successful a nation is
production of a few particular goods or ser-
at maintaining minimum production stan-
vices is
dard.
A. diminishing returns
B. It is a more detailed version of GNP.
B. specialization
C. To measure how much a nation pro-
C. comparative advantage duces goods and services as a whole,
only.
D. utility
D. To measure Depreciation.
204. The human factor of production is
209. An example of labor.
A. Capital
A. tractor
B. Land
B. programming computers
C. Labor
C. tree
D. All of these
D. Chef
205. When you make a choice, you often have
to give up other options those things 210. If a point lies on the curve this means
are called the the company is being efficient. If a point
lies inside the curve, this tells the company
A. Opportunity Cost
what?
B. Missed Opportunities
A. They are being over efficient
C. Misused Resources
B. They are not efficient
D. Scarce Options
C. It is impossible
206. A person bought a shop and stocked it D. None of the above
with fresh fruit. He employed one mem-
ber of his family to help in the shop. Which 211. These costs are calculate by diving the
factors of production have been used? cost by the output
A. Labor and capital only A. Fixed Cost
B. Land and labor only B. Average Cost
C. Labor, capital and enterprise C. Total Cost
D. Land, labor, capital and enterprise D. Variable Cost

212. What are tangible objects that can be pur- 218. Which of the following involves using re-
chased? sources to produce the maximum amount
of goods and services?

A. Goods
B. Services A. utilzation
C. Products B. underutilization
D. Objects C. efficiency
213. a delivery truck D. overefficiency
A. Natural Resource
219. If the current productivity level of work-
B. Human Resource ers in your business is 20 shoes per
C. Capital Resource worker, which answer describes a higher
productivity level than the current level?
D. Entrepreneurship
A. 1 worker produces 7 shoes
214. What would be classified as the factor of
production capital for an airline? B. 2 workers produce 10 shoes
A. the aircraft operated by the airline C. 2 workers produce 40 shoes
B. the money the airline keeps in the bank D. 1 worker produces 21 shoes
C. the pilots the airline uses
220. Fixed Cost divided by the quantity of out-
D. the shares of the airline quoted on the put.
stock market
A. Average Fixed Cost
215. All natural resources that go into produc-
tion of a good and services B. Average Variable Cost
A. Labor C. Marginal Cost

B. Land D. Marginal Fixed Cost
C. Capital
221. Anything used to produce a good or ser-
D. Entrepreneurship vice is
216. A computer is an example of A. Labor
A. Land B. Factor of Production
B. Labour C. Capital
C. Entrepreneurs
D. a change in elasticity
D. Capital
222. The Chromebooks you are using are ex-
217. The following are examples of customers’
amples of
basic needs.
A. Land
A. Water and shelter
B. Iced Tea B. Labor
C. Laptop and smart phones C. Entrepreneurs
D. Expensive bags D. Capital

223. In a competitive economy, which firms 228. When people love a product, a business
will have the most access to the factors will increase the
of production (productive resources)? A. production
A. The firms that are most successful in B. consumption
meeting consumer demand
C. distribution
B. The firms that are least successful in D. none of above
meeting consumer demand
229. Considering all the questions above, it all
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The firms that have the most produc-
comes down to These are decisions we
tion experience
all must make due to scarcity.
D. The firms that offer the greatest vari-
A. trade offs
ety of goods/services
B. scarcity
224. In which field of economics is NNP the C. choice
MOST useful?
D. incentive
A. Microeconomics
230. When there are not enough goods or ser-
B. Macroeconomics vices to satisfy the wants and needs of the
C. International Economics people, this is known as
D. Environmental Economics A. Scarcity
B. Nothingness
225. Which of the following is not a variable
cost of owning a vehicle? C. Scraps
A. Gas D. Supply
B. Oil Change 231. What is not a factor of production?

C. Vehicle Registration A. a $20 banknote
D. Air filters B. an office

C. a photocopier
226. a wrench D. a secretary
A. Natural Resource
232. The human effort involved in the produc-
B. Human Resource tion of goods and services is known as:
C. Capital Resource A. Capital
D. Entrepreneurship B. Entrepreneurship
C. Labor
227. Overconsumption is condemned in Islam
and is termed israf which means D. Land
A. spending in the wrong way 233. Which of the following buys goods for
B. spending in the prohibited activities personal use?
A. consumer
C. spending the lawful matters such as
food, clothes and shelter B. producer
D. overspending on lawful matters such C. advocate
as food, clothes and shelter D. client

234. Scarcity is a basic economic problem be- 239. Bill Gates is an example of
cause A. Land

A. resources are limited B. Labor
B. governments limit production C. Entrepreneurship
C. people have trouble making choices D. Capital
D. opportunity costs limit demand 240. A bulldozer is an example of
235. Alyssa is planning to open a small cloth- A. Land
ing business. Which of the following repre- B. Labor
sents the factor of production called labor?
C. Entrepreneurship
A. people hired to sew the clothes to-
D. Capital
gether
B. money 241. Which of the following is an example of
“goods?”
C. the sewing machines used to put the
A. Mrs. Brickley starts her own business.
clothes together
B. Mrs. Brickley goes out to eat at Red
D. chalk for the chalk sticks used to mark
Robin.
clothes
C. Mrs. Brickley spends money on can-
236. Occurs when each addition of an input re- dles at Bath & Body Works.
sults in declining quantity of the output D. Mrs. Brickley gets her nails done at a
A. Diminishing Marginal Utility nail salon.
B. Diminishing Marginal Costs 242. Factory
C. Diminishing Marginal Returns A. Entrepreneurship
D. Diminishing Marginal Profits B. Capital
C. Labor
237. Which of the following would not shift an
economy’s PPC? D. production
A. An increase in population. 243. How many factors of production do we
B. Doubling the amount of capital in the have?
economy. A. 3
C. An increase in the money supply. B. 6
D. A technological advance. C. 8
D. 5
238. The term for costs that cannot be avoided
in the short run 244. Which of the following describes an even-
tual decline in the productivity of factor in-
A. Total Cost
puts as additional units of variable factors
B. Fixed Cost are added to fixed resources?
C. Average Cost A. Law of diminishing marginal utility
D. Variable Cost B. Law of diminishing marginal returns

C. Laffer curve C. David is a the entrepreneur, Frank and

D. Law of diminishing total product Gene are both labor, and Mike is a con-
sumer.
245. Law of variable proportion is also called D. Frank and Gene are both en-
trepreneurs, David is the owner, and Mike
A. The law of increasing returns has just made a capital investment
B. The law of diminishing returns 249. Amanah is one of the most significant val-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The law of constant returns ues in producer behavior since
D. Long run production function A. widespread dishonesty may destroy
the functional role of the market.
246. The formula for Average cost is
B. producers have absolute ownership
A. Total Cost/ total revenue over resources.
B. Total revenue/ output C. trust is a sufficient condition to ensure
C. Total Cost/ output a maximum level of profit.
D. Output/total cost D. labor must be paid their wage once
they have performed their work.
247. is equipment or goods (machinery,
tools, factories, stores, vehicles, etc.) that 250. In farming, what is an example of what
are used to produce other goods and ser- economists call capital?
vices.
A. savings the farmer has in the bank
A. human resource
B. shares in a farming company
B. natural resource
C. the money the farmer set aside to pay
C. capital resource taxes
D. production D. the tractor owned by the farmer
248. David decides to start his own business.
251. Why does scarcity exist?
He opens a shop that manufactures sports
equipment. He pays Frank an hourly wage A. Each year workers tend to produce
to make baseball bats, and Gene a salary less than previously
to manage his finances. Three days after B. There are not sufficient resources to
his grand opening, he is ecstatic because meet everyone’s wants
Mike, who runs the town’s parks and
recreation department, calls him and or- C. Machines wear out in time
ders equipment for six Little League base- D. There is a limit to people’s wants
ball teams. Which of the following state-
ments is TRUE? 252. WHAT IS LABOR?
A. Davis is a producer, Frank is labor, A. work people do for pay to produce
Gene is the entrepreneur of the business, good and services
and Mike has just ordered capital goods.
B. actions people do for other people
B. David is producer, Frank and Gene are
C. any physical object
consumers, and Mike has just made an in-
vestment. D. The money people get for inheritance

253. an economic principle which states that 258. A natural resource was discovered in a
as production shifts from making one good country. The exploitation of this resource
or service to another, more resources are allowed the country to double its gross do-

needed to increase production of the sec- mestic product within ten years. Why did
ond good or service this not solve the basic economic problem?
A. law of increasing costs A. Exploiting the resource required high
expenditure on capital equipment.
B. efficiency
B. Exploiting the resource caused signifi-
C. production possibilities curve
cant environmental damage.
D. production possibilities frontier C. Gross domestic product was unevenly
254. Which of the following would consumers distributed in the country.
MOST OFTEN need to consider when try- D. Wants still exceeded the resources
ing to make a rational economic decision? available to meet those wants.
A. The impact of government subsidies 259. The people who work in both the public
B. Potential opportunity costs and private sector
C. Factors of Productions A. Land
D. Net Exports B. Labor
C. Entrepreneurahip
255. Which economic system is based on eco-
D. Capital
nomic decisions being made by traditions
and cultures? 260. What does the saying “There Ain’t No
A. Market Such Thing As A Free Lunch” mean?
B. Traditional A. some things cost nothing
C. Command B. most things cost nothing

C. most things have a cost
D. Mixed
D. everything costs something
256. What are the three economic questions?
261. Which items are allowed in production
A. What to produce? How to produce? output based on Islam?
For whom to produce?
A. Magazines which are entertainment-
B. Who to produce? Why you produce? oriented and gossip.
Like to produce?
B. Clothing degrading someone.
C. Why to produce? Tell who to produce?
C. Cough medicines and painkillers.
Things to produce?
D. The video shows the violent action.
D. none of above
262. All the units of a product produced in a
257. Variable Cost/Quantity = give period of time is called
A. Marginal Variable Cost A. Average Product
B. Average Fixed Cost B. Total Product
C. Average Variable Cost C. Marginal Product
D. Marginal Total Cost D. None of these

263. natural gas C. Prices determine the position on the

A. capital PPC.
B. entrepreneurship D. All the above.
C. land 268. Iron, minerals, coal and plants are exam-

D. labor ples of which factor of production?
A. Natural Resources/Land
264. A company supplying water spent $470
million creating a network of pipes to dis- B. Labor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tribute water more efficiently. It em- C. Entrepreneurship
ployed local workers and boosted the local D. Capital
economy. It also provided better facilities
for the tourist industry. What cannot be 269. Fixed costs
concluded from the above?
A. Rise less than proportional to
A. The company increased its profits.
B. Labour costs overtime
B. There was a decrease in regional un-
C. Fuel costs delivery van
employment.
D. Do not change in relation to the volume
C. There were fixed costs of $470 million.
of production
D. There were positive externalities.
270. What type of factor of production is a
265. Alyssa is planning to open a small cloth- road?
ing business. Which of the following rep-
A. Capital
resents capital needed to start such a busi-
ness? B. Land
A. people hired to sew the clothes to- C. Labor
gether D. Enterprise
B. money
271. The perpetual problem in economics is:
C. the sewing machines used to put the
A. the inability of people to work together
clothes together
effectively.
D. chalk for the chalk sticks used to mark
B. the inability to satisfy everyone’s
clothes
wants with the resources available.
266. Economics is the study of C. the gap between the income of the rich
A. money and the poor.
B. chicken D. how to supply enough to earn a consis-
C. the Government tent profit
D. choices 272. What is likely to happen when the rate

of interest increases?
267. Which of the following are assumptions
underlying the PPC? A. consumer spending increases
A. Only two goods are produced. B. firms buy fewer machines
B. Technology, population, and capital C. people hold more cash

are variable. D. savers earn lower rewards

273. The addition of new resources often en- C. A worker in a factory

ables a nation to
D. A person who starts a new business.

A. produce more goods and services
B. produce less goods and services 279. A person who purchases a good or ser-
vice
C. produce more goods but fewer ser-
vices A. consumer
D. produce fewer goods but more ser- B. taxes
vices C. supply
274. Labor is defined as . D. good
A. The workers on the factory floor.
280. The best definition of productivity is:
B. The employees in an office.
A. how efficient a firm is
C. The human activity involved in produc-
tion. B. Total output/total input
D. The population available for work. C. The total amount produced by a busi-
ness
275. When “wants are greater than the re-
sources available to satisfy them, “ it is D. total inputs/ total outputs
called
281. When the demand for cultural services
A. Scarcity and leisure increases, it will adversely af-
B. Needs fect the demand for
C. Opportunity Cost A. luxuries only
D. None of these answers B. material comfort and luxuries of life
276. Which of the following is a free good? C. material comfort only
A. Wind coming from the sea D. social needs only
B. Inoculation provided without charge
by the state 282. What are the gifts of nature that make
production possible?
C. Recycled paper
A. Consumer goods
D. Products given away by a supermarket
to attract customers B. Human capital
C. Natural resources
277. Natural resources come from
A. nature and are limited D. Input
B. nature and are unlimited 283. Which of these is not a decision which is
C. a factory and we can make more made to solve the basic economic problem?
D. none of above A. What to produce
278. What is an entrepreneur? B. Why to produce

A. A student in college C. How to produce
B. A leader of a country. D. For whom to produce

284. WHAT ARE THE 4 FACTORS OF PRODUC- C. Goods not created for their own use,
TION? but to make other goods/services.
A. Land, Capital, Need & Want D. Person who organizes the factors of
B. Land, Labor, Capital, Entrepreneurs production to produce goods/services;
business owners.
C. Water, Air, Food & Shelter
D. Land, Capital, Good & Service 290. A person who makes goods or provides
a service
NARAYAN CHANGDER
285. Why will scarcity continue to be a prob- A. goods
lem in the future?
B. service producer
A. World population will fall
C. producer
B. Wants will continue to increase
D. consumer
C. Price will rise
D. The quantity of resources will decline 291. The people who work in both public and
private sector are called:
286. Total cost of producing 35 t-shirts is £70. A. Land
Average cost per t - shirt is:
B. Labour
A. £2
C. Capital
B. £4
D. Entreprenuership
C. £0.5
D. £70 292. What is opportunity cost?
A. a graph that shows how much an econ-
287. What factor of production is a tractor?
omy can produce between 2 goods
A. Land
B. how much money something is
B. Labor
C. the opportunity one has to give up in
C. Capital order to gain something else
D. none of above D. land, labor, capital, entrepreneurs
288. A doctor attending a conference focused 293. Which of the following are factors of pro-
on new methods of treatment for heart dis- duction?
ease would be an example of
A. scarcity and shortages
A. an increase labor
B. capital and land
B. a market failure
C. technology and productivity
C. an increase in human capital
D. economics and business decisions
D. a decrease in labor
294. Which is NOT a factor of production?
289. The term, “land” means:
A. Land
A. The natural resources used to produce
goods or services. B. money
B. Work the people do to produce goods C. a bulldozer

and services. D. a special skill

295. A truck driver is an example of which Fac- B. budgeting

tor of Production? C. cutting back

A. labor D. motivating
B. land
301. Which of these is NOT one of the 4 fac-
C. entrepreneurship
tors of production?
D. capital
A. Labor
296. What is the fundamental problem of ev- B. Land
ery society?
C. Entrepreneurship
A. labor costs
D. Work Skills
B. scarcity
C. economic interdependence 302. Reena makes a living by selling paintings
of the town in which she lives. She sells
D. market fluctuation them in an open-air market once a week.
297. Owning your own business is an example In order to be able to sell more pictures
of in a week she decides to buy a studio, pay
someone to help in the studio and try to in-
A. Land crease demand by advertising in the local
B. Labor paper. Which factors of production were
changed?
C. Capital
A. capital only
D. Entrepreneurship
B. labour and land
298. You crave Tacos, Salad, or Chicken Strips
for lunch. You choose to have Tacos. What C. labour and capital
is the opportunity cost of your lunch deci- D. labour only
sion?
303. Your friend and you decide to open a
A. Tacos snow-cone stand. The stand and the snow
B. Salad and Chicken Strips cone machine are examples of which factor
C. Salad and Tacos of production?
D. Chicken Strips only A. Natural Resources
B. Capital Resources
299. Which of these is an example of land as
a factor of production? C. Entrepreneurship
A. machinist D. Labor Resources
B. robotic welder 304. is workers and their abilities, tal-
C. water ents, training, skills, and knowledge used
to produce goods or services
D. tractor
A. human resource
300. Which term means “making decisions
based on what you believe is the best com- B. capital resource
bination of costs and benefits”? C. natural resource
A. economizing D. production

305. Land, labor, capital and entrepreneurship D. There is unlimited supply of the re-
are the source
A. basis of employment 310. The difference between a good and a ser-
B. results of production vice is that:
C. factors of production A. Goods are available in unlimited quan-
D. results of supply and demand tities and services are not
B. Services are available in unlimited
306. Which factor of production might include
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quantities and goods are not
calculators for office work or tractors for
a farming business? C. Goods are tangible and services are
not
A. land
B. labor D. goods help satisfy unlimited wants and
services do not
C. capital
D. entrepreneurship 311. Hospital services are provided by the
government and paid for through taxation.
307. things must remain assumed when look- People cannot always get the treatment
ing at production possibilities. 1. no tech- they require because of long waiting lists.
nological advances and 2 Of what is this an example?
A. All resources are being used and uti- A. external cost
lized efficiently
B. market system
B. there is only one assumption
C. perfectly inelastic supply
C. the boss must stay the same
D. scarcity
D. all of the above
312. Which of the following is the best defini-
308. A group of farmers form a partnership. tion of economies of scale?
They buy more machinery which they
share in the production of cereals. What A. Costs fall as output increases.
is a benefit of using more machinery? B. Costs per unit fall as the firm expands.
A. it eliminates the need to train labour C. Average costs rise as the firm ex-
B. it encourages more labour-intensive pands.
methods D. Fixed costs fall as output increases.
C. it increases the productivity of each
313. How should a Muslim man spend his
farmer
money?
D. it reduces total capital costs of produc-
A. He makes savings as gold and other
tion
jewels.
309. What identifies a finite resource? B. He makes a demonstration for con-
A. The resource does not renew itself sumption
B. The supply of the resource is greater C. He spends all consumption to his
than demand needs without limit
C. There is no opportunity cost for the re- D. He spends at first for his consumption
source to satisfy his needs

314. An example of scarcity. 319. The law of diminishing returns suggest

that if a pizza shop hires one more cook,
A. air in Georgia
the marginal product of labor for the pizza

B. water in the Ocean shop will
C. water in California A. increase at a decreasing rate
D. shoes in footlocker B. increase at an increasing rate
C. decrease
315. Which of the following is NOT used to cal-
culate Net National Product (NNP)? D. not change
A. GNP 320. What do points outside of the PPF indi-
B. Foreign manufacturers cate?
C. Depreciation A. Unattainable combinations of goods

B. Ideal combinations of goods
D. Exports
C. Inefficient combinations of goods
316. A period during which the amounts of all D. none of above
inputs can be changed is
A. the long run 321. P x Q=?What is this the equation for?
B. the short run A. Total Cost

B. Total Production
C. time period
C. Total Revenue
D. returns to scale
D. Total Output Price
317. Scenario:There is little competition
among society because of proximity to 322. Choose the effects of consumption on pro-
others selling the same good.Which eco- duction summarized by Siddiqui.
nomic system has this stated advantage? A. More resources would be allocated in
A. Command the quantity of luxury goods demand.
B. Increase the supply of labour.
B. Market
C. More resources would be allocated to
C. Mixed
the primary comforts of life.
D. Traditional
D. Fewer resources would be allocated
for prohibited goods and services.
318. Entrepreneurs are
A. people with all their efforts and abili- 323. The equipment of the coffee shop to pro-
ties duce cups of coffee, are what kind of
goods or products?
B. individuals who start a new business
or bring a product to market. A. Consumer goods
C. The “gifts of nature” or natural re- B. Either consumer goods or capital

sources not created by human effort. goods
D. the tools, equipment, and factories C. Capital goods

used in production of goods and services D. Economic goods

324. Which of the following best describes C. Capital

wants? D. Entrepreneurship
A. limited and ever changing
329. Which is an example of an economic
B. unlimited and ever changing
shortage?
C. limited and never changes
A. a farmer without enough water for
D. unlimited and never changes crops
325. If variable costs are £6 per unit, then to-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. a toy store without dolls
tal variable costs of producing 7, 000 units
C. too many jobs available
will be:
D. too much bread on the store shelves
A. £7, 000
B. £70, 000 330. things you buy and use
C. £2, 100 A. producer
D. £42, 000 B. services
326. What can cause a production possibilities C. goods
curve to move to the right? D. none of above
A. thousands of people move out of the
country 331. The skills of people who are willing to in-
vest time and money to run a buainess
B. an epidemic kills thousands of young
men and women A. Labor
C. a new invention lowers the cost of pro- B. Land
duction C. Capital
D. the population is growing increasingly
D. Entrepreneurship
old
332. Which of the following is not an example
327. The term, “entrepreneurship” means:
of land?
A. Person who organizes the factors of
production to produce goods/services; A. Giraffe
business owners. B. Baker
B. Goods not created for their own use, C. Grass
but to make other goods/services.
D. Sunshine
C. Work the people do to produce goods
and services. 333. The analyses of the correlation of costs,
D. The natural resources used to produce sales and profit to production and sales
goods or services. volume is known as
A. The contribution margin
328. A farm is buying tractors to help increase
production. Which factor of production are B. Variable costs
they investing in? C. Break even analysis
A. Land D. Linearity between production and
B. Labor sales

334. Market activities involve production for C. Large firms can find cheaper sources
the purpose of of finance

A. exchange D. Large firms often have poor communi-
B. earning income cation, which slows down decision making
C. earning profit 339. Which change will make a manufacturing

D. all the above company replace machines with labour to
maintain the most efficient combination of
335. The BEST explanation of why there will factors of production?
always be scarcity is because A. The price of the product manufactured
A. people and their tools are inefficient. has increased.
B. natural disasters created by frequent B. The productivity of labour has in-
shortages. creased.
C. governments create scarcity to keep C. The productivity of machinery has in-
people wanting more. creased.
D. while peoples’ wants are unlimited, re- D. The wages of labour have increased.
sources are limited.
340. If costs rise the supply curve shifts:
336. Production possibilities curve in Islamic A. right
economic shows those in underdeveloped
countries, the production of B. left
A. luxury and necessity good is balanced C. stays the same
B. luxury goods increased and necessity D. none of above

good increased 341. The physical effort of people to produce
C. luxury goods decreased and necessity goods or services describes which factor of
good increased production?
D. luxury goods increased and necessity A. Natural Resources
good decreased B. Capital Resources
337. What influences productivity, economic C. Human Resources
growth, and future standards of living? D. Entrepreneurship
A. Government Regulations
342. Everything contained in the earth or
B. Public goods and services found in the sea ex:coal and crude oil
C. Factories, machinery, technology, and A. Land
education
B. Labor
D. Income, full employment, and market
failures C. Resources
D. Infrastructure
338. Which of the following is NOT a reason
for economies of scale to exist? 343. An increase in the labor force would cause
A. large firms can buy in bulk the PPF to
B. large firms can afford to employ spe- A. Shift inward

cialist managers B. Shift outward

C. Do nothing 349. Which of the following calculations would

D. Turn into a straight line you use to find total costs?
A. Fixed Costs + Variable Costs
344. Human capital includes
B. Selling Price - Fixed Costs
A. the salary paid to an accountant.
C. Total Fixed Costs / Selling Price - Vari-
B. the knowledge a taxi driver has of the able Cost
city streets.
D. Total Fixed Costs/Variable Cost Per
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the machinery run by a seamstress to Item
weave cloth.
D. the equipment used by a doctor to cure 350. An Iso-quant shows the same level of
a patient. throughout the curve.
A. satisfaction
345. Which of the following is considered “un-
skilled labor?” B. production
A. a cashier C. expenditure
B. a doctor D. profit
C. a teacher 351. Which of the following is counted as cap-

D. an electrician ital goods when assessing Depreciation?
A. An oven
346. What are expenses?
B. All of the above
A. The money a company makes.
C. A Petroleum Engineer
B. Costs of operating a business.
D. A Power Plant Operator
C. The act of buy items.
D. There is no such thing. 352. When we use up or significantly reduce
our resources
347. Which is not considered a need? A. recycling
A. food B. surplus
B. clothing C. depletion
C. shelter D. dilution
D. television
353. A government wishes to increase agricul-
348. What is the best explanation of factors tural output. It gives farmers the tools to
of production? irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors
of production are provided by the farm-
A. Money and financing
ers?
B. Raw materials used to produce prod-
A. Capital and enterprise
ucts
B. Labor and land
C. Labor and materials
C. Enterprise and labor
D. Resources used by a company to pro-
duce good and services D. Land and capital

354. Kaylee decides to subscribe to Hulu in- C. the resources of the government
stead of Netflix. Netflix is her: D. how society creates jobs

A. Production Possibility
360. Economics textbooks identify the exis-
B. Opportunity Cost tence of scarcity as the basic economic
C. Barter problem. What is it that makes scarcity
D. Choice a problem?
A. It can cause inflation and unemploy-
355. Economic growth affects the PPF by ment.
A. Shifting inward B. It is impossible to satisfy unlimited
B. Shifting outward wants.
C. causing no change at all C. It is the first priority of governments
D. turning it into a straight line D. It only affects the richest countries.
356. Groceries are a: 361. Which if these is an advantage of labour
A. Fixed expense intensive production?
B. Variable expense A. lower unit costs
C. Intermittent expense B. more flexibility
D. Discretionary expense C. more consistent in production
D. people are easier to manage than ma-
357. An economic system based on businesses
chines
relying on competition and individuals
making decisions is which of the follow- 362. A laptop is an example of
ing?
A. Market
B. Human Resources
B. Command
C. Capital Resources
C. Mixed
D. Entrepreneurship
D. Traditional
363. Which factor of production involves risk-
358. When is a firm most likely to reduce its taking?
demand for labour?
A. Capital
A. when the demand for the final good in-
B. Labor
creases
B. when the firm’s profitability increases C. Enterprise
C. when the price of labour decreases D. Land
D. when the productivity of labour de- 364. What does a point inside the curve of a
creases PPC indicate?
359. The term “factors of production” means: A. all resources are fully employed
A. things or skills needed to produce B. not all resources are fully employed
goods or services C. more resources are required
B. how we spend our money D. less resources are required

365. What is the cause of the economic prob- B. trade off, natural resources, labor
lem facing all countries? C. natural resources, human resources,
A. A.Climate change and global warming capital resources
B. Uneven distribution of income and D. natural resources, human capital,
wealth scarcity
C. Significant quantities of unemployed
371. The opportunity cost of building a new
resources
high school is:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Unlimited wants in relation to limited
A. the expense of hiring more teachers
resources
for the new high school.
366. Unlimited wants and or needs describes B. the expense of new desks, chalk-
what economic concept? boards and books for the new high school.
A. Economy C. Other goods and services, which must
B. Factors of Production now be sacrificed to build the new high
school.
C. Resources
D. Overcrowded classrooms.
D. Scarcity
367. When marginal cost is below average 372. Capital refers to

cost.. A. The “gifts of nature” or natural re-
A. average cost will be rising sources not created by human effort.
B. average cost will be falling B. people with all their efforts and abili-
ties
C. marginal cost will be negative
C. the tools, equipment, and factories
D. average cost will be the same as mag- used in production of goods and services
inal cost
D. individuals who start a new business
368. Gold, trees, coal, oil are examples of or bring a product to market.
which factor of production?
373. A PPC shows,
A. Land
A. The best combination of goods to pro-
B. Labor
duce.
C. Capital
B. The plans for increasing output in the
D. Entrepreneurship short run.
369. What is Depreciation? C. What can be produced with various
combinations of resources.
A. Inflation
D. Resources are constrained by choices.
B. Taxes
C. Capital Consumption Allowance (CCA) 374. A Factory Worker is an example of
D. All of the above. A. Natural Resources
370. Name the 3 factors of production. B. Human Resources
A. opportunity costs, natural resources, C. Capital Resources

labor D. Entrepreneurship

375. To a student, pencil and paper would be C. Production Function

considered a resource. D. Labour

A. land
381. What is the term for doing work for oth-
B. labor ers in exchange for pay?
C. capital A. Jobs
D. entrepreneurship B. Secret
376. This is the factor of production that is mo- C. Socialism
tivated to take a risk by combining the fac- D. Service
tors of production.
382. What is the difference between a short-
A. Entrepreneur
age and scarcity?
B. Human Resources
A. Scarcity always exists.
C. Physical Capital
B. Scarcity results from falling prices.
D. Natural Resouces C. Scarcity concerns a single item.
377. A garbage truck driver is an example of D. There is no real difference.
which Factor of Production?
383. What is the productivity level of 4 work-
A. labor ers that produce a total of 20 shirts?
B. land A. 100 shirts per worker
C. entrepreneurship B. 20 shirts per worker
D. capital C. 5 shirts per worker
378. AN ENTREPRENEUR IS A PERSON WHO D. 4 shirts per worker
384. The total revenue of a business is:
A. owns their own business
A. the same as profit
B. uses goods and services to produce la-
B. equal to total costs
bor, land, and capital.
C. quantity of units produced times unit
C. use land, labor, and capital to produce
production cost
good and services.
D. quantity of units sold multiplied by the
D. loves nature and runs a business
sellingprice.
379. In economics, the value of the next best
385. The term, “labor” means:
alternative is called
A. Work the people do to produce goods
A. Scarcity and services.
B. Productivity B. The natural resources used to produce
C. Opprotunity Cost goods or services.
D. Supply and Demand C. Person who organizes the factors of
production to produce goods/services;
380. is a function of inputs. business owners.
A. Raw Materials D. Goods not created for their own use,
B. Output but to make other goods/services.

386. A factory worker is an example of which A. Total variable cost is zero when output
factor of production? is zero.
A. Land/Natural Resources B. Variable cost is paid for the use of vari-
B. Labor able factors.
C. Capital C. Total variable cost rises with a con-

stant slope as output rises.
D. Entrepreneurship
D. Total cost rises as output rises.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
387. The study of how individuals, institu-
tions, and scarcity make choices under the 392. What is the process of making goods and
conditions of scarcity is services?
A. allocation A. production
B. scarcity B. distribution
C. economics C. consumption
D. specialization D. none of above
388. a farmer 393. Scarcity requires people to make choices.

Why?
A. Natural
A. People have more wants than needs.
B. Labor
B. There are not enough resources to
C. Capital make everything we want.
D. ???????? C. Services are easier to get than goods.
389. What does marginal cost (MC) tell us? D. Producers rarely make enough of a
good.
A. Is cost from fixed input
B. Is variable cost 394. What is labor?
C. The increase in output that arises from A. Any man made object used to produce
an additional unit of input goods or services.
D. The increase in total cost that arises B. Any work done by humans to make
from producing an additional unit of out- goods or provide services.
put C. Any natural resource used to produce
goods or services.
390. Average variable cost (AVC) is
D. All of these.
A. Explicit costs
B. Variable cost divided by output 395. Which one of the following costs is most
likely to be variable for a fast food restau-
C. The increase in output that arises from
rant?
an additional unit of input
D. Costs that do not vary with the quantity A. the salary of the manager
of output produced B. the rent of the restaurant
391. Which of the following statement is NOT C. the cost of the food supplies
true of variable cost? D. the machinery used to cook the food

396. the iPad the waitress uses to take your C. work

order D. fun

A. Natural Resource
402. An oil company announced in 2015 that it
B. Human Resource was starting its drilling operations for oil
C. Capital Resource deposits in the Arctic Ocean. What will be
the effect of this?
D. Entrepreneurship
A. to increase the supply of raw materials
397. The term used to describe the way a na-
B. to reduce the level of technology avail-
tion provides for the needs and wants of
able
its people
C. to solve the economic problem
A. resources
D. to worsen resource allocation
B. economy
C. factors of production 403. What shape does a marginal cost curve
take
D. Infrastructure
A. u shaped
398. Land, labor, capital, and entrepreneur- B. nike swoosh
ship
C. Loop de loops
A. Economy
D. Logarithmic
B. Infrastructure
C. Factors of production 404. Land includes
D. Capital A. the “gifts of nature” or natural re-

399. Land, Labor, Capital, and Entrepreneur- B. the tools, equipment, and factories
ship used in production of goods and services
A. Diversification C. people with all their efforts and abili-
B. Deductions ties
C. Portfolio D. individuals who start a new business
or bring a product to market
D. Factors of Production
405. A herd of cattle is an example of
400. Ray Kroc, the founder of the fast-food
chain McDonald’s, would be an example of A. Land
this factor of production: B. Labor
A. Capital Goods C. Entrepreneur
B. Human Capital D. Capital
C. Entrepreneurship
406. doing work for others
D. Natural Resources
A. service
401. A synonym for labor B. secret
A. hard C. socialism
B. easy D. none of above

407. Which factor of production is the least 412. What does a high Depreciation value in-
mobile? dicate?
A. Capital A. That the NNP is only low.
B. Labor B. That the GNP is only low.
C. Enterprise C. That the GNP and NNP are both low.
D. Land D. There is poor economic growth.
408. Any point on the Production Possibilities
NARAYAN CHANGDER
413. What is it called to move goods and ser-
Frontier represents vices directly to or near consumers?
A. Underutilization A. production
B. Unattainable Level of Production B. consumption
C. a Tradeoff C. distribution
D. Inefficiency D. none of above
409. What is the production possibilities
414. Tony opens up a hot chocolate stand for
curve?
two hours. He spends £10 for ingredients
A. a graph that shows how efficient an and sells £60 worth of tasty beverages.
economy can produce a combination of 2 In the same two hours, he could have pro-
goods vided Uber services (illegally because he
B. a graph that shows how much money isn’t 18) and earned £40. Tony’s account-
something is ing profit is and his economic profit is
C. a graph that shows the opportunity a
country has to give up in order to lose A. £50, £10
something else B. £90, £50
D. a visual representation of how land, C. £10, £50
labor, capital, entrepreneurs are dis-
D. £50, £90
tributed
410. a person who purshases ( buys) and uses 415. The amount a firm receives for the sale
a good or service of its output.
A. communism A. Profit
B. capital B. Total Revenue
C. consumer C. Marginal Revenue
D. none of above D. Average Profit
411. The basic economic conditions that exist 416. Which of the following is the Marginal
when unlimited wants exceed limited pro- Cost formula?
ductive resources is called A. Change in TC/ Change in output
A. capital B. Change in P/Change in Q
B. scarcity C. Change in VC/Change in output
C. economics D. Both Change in TC/ Change in output
D. factors of production & Change in VC/Change in output

417. Suppose that a new machine that speeds 422. Additional cost associated by producing
up automotive production is introduced one additional unit of product.
into the auto industry. This would cause

A. Fixed Costs
the PPF to
B. Average Costs
A. Shift outward
C. Marginal Costs
B. Shift inward
D. Emplicit Costs
C. Do nothing
D. Not enough information is provided 423. I went to college right out of high school
and did not get a full time job until four
418. What is the term for mutual dependence years later. What was the biggest cost to
between people or countries? go to college?
A. Co-Dependence A. The tuition
B. Co-Ownership B. books
C. Independence C. missing my family
D. Interdependence D. the money I didn’t make at the job I
didn’t have
419. What is revenue?
424. The physical effort of the manpower to
A. All income that a business receives
produce the basic needs of the consumers,
over a period of time; government in-
describes which factor of production?
come.
A. Land
B. The money a company pays out.
B. Labor
C. The money a company pays its employ-
ees. C. Capital
D. The money a company loses. D. Entrepreneur
420. In general, it is a bad move for a company 425. Should our government use limited re-
to produce more of a good or service if, by sources to build a post office, repair a
doing so bridge, or build a new park? What is the
economic question asked?
A. marginal cost exceeds marginal rev-
enue. A. Why is this being produced?
B. variable costs exceed fixed costs. B. How is it produced?
C. demand exceeds supply. C. Who will consume these goods and
services?
D. fixed costs exceed marginal revenue.
D. What is produced?
421. what is labor?
426. What is meant by ‘enterprise’ in eco-
A. economics word nomics?
B. the work people are paid to doto pro- A. Hard physical work used to produce
duce goods and services. manufactured goods
C. all people who work for money. B. Natural resources used in the produc-
D. actions one person does for another. tive process

C. Human mental and physical effort B. The government and individuals

used for producing goods and services C. The Government
D. Risk taking and organizing the factors D. Traditions and culture
of production
431. Which factor of production is most af-
427. The law of diminishing marginal returns fected by a hurricane destroying crops in
states that Florida?
A. as more of a variable input is used, A. Land
NARAYAN CHANGDER
while other inputs and technology are
B. Labor
fixed, the average product of the variable
input will increase. C. Capital
B. as more of a variable input is used, D. Entrepreneurship
432. A self-employed fortune teller earns a liv-
fixed, the marginal product of the variable
ing by reading the palms of people’s hands.
input will eventually decrease.
Which factors of production are essential
C. as more of a variable input is used, to this activity?
A. A capital and enterprise
fixed, the average product of the fixed in-
put will eventually decrease. B. enterprise and labour
D. as more of a fixed input is used, while C. labour and land
other inputs and technology are variable, D. land and capital
the marginal product of the variable input
will eventually increase. 433. A graphical representation of the alterna-
tive combinations of goods and services an
428. The goods used in the production process economy can produce.
such as factories, machinery and equip- A. Production Frontier Curve
ment
B. Production Possibilities Frontier
A. Land
C. Production Performance Curve
B. Labor
D. Production Alternative Frontier
C. Resources
434. Which factor of production include any
D. Capital
form of human effort exerted in produc-
429. Iron, minerals, coal and plants are exam- tion?
ples of which productive resource? A. Land
A. land B. Labor
B. labor C. Capital
C. entrepreneurship D. none of above
D. capital 435. Labor refers to
430. Who makes the decisions on how goods A. people with all their efforts and abili-
and services will be produced in a com- ties
mand economy? B. individuals who start a new business
A. Individuals or bring a product to market

C. the tools, equipment, and factories C. Borrowing by a firm to pay for electric-
used in production of goods and services. ity

D. the “gifts of nature” or natural re- D. Total savings by individuals in a coun-
sources not created by human effort try
436. The following items (accountant’s com- 441. What does an economist mean by the fac-
puter, carpenter’s drill, and a tailor’s tor of production called capital?
sewing machine) are all examples of which A. goods that can be used to produce
factor of production? other goods
A. capital B. money used to start a business
B. entrepreneurship C. money used to start a business
C. land D. the profits of a company
D. labor
442. A Factor of Production is
437. What is not enough supply or a very A. Used in the Production of things that
small supply? are useful.
A. demand B. Used in the production of goods and
B. supply services.
C. scarcity C. Used in the production of goods.
D. competition D. Used in the production of services.
438. Total Revenue - (Explicit +Implicit 443. gold

Costs)=?What is this the equation for? A. Natural Resource
A. Total Cost B. Human Resource
B. Economic Profit C. Capital Resource
C. Normal Profit D. Entrepreneurship
D. Marginal Profit 444. Term for costs that change with produc-
tion
439. To be a successful entrepreneur requires
a willingness to A. Fixed Cost
A. play it safe B. Average Cost
B. borrow money C. Variable Cost
C. take risks D. Marginal Cost
D. limit risks 445. What is a leading factor in predicting the
life expectancy of a country?
440. What would an economist regard as an
example of the factor of production capi- A. the production of a country
tal? B. the amount of land of a country
A. An individual’s purchase of stocks and C. the amount spent on healthcare for a
shares country
B. The building of a new factory D. the average temperature of a country

446. The financial director of a company adds 451. a plumber

up the cost for the firm of rent, insurance,
A. Natural Resource
new machinery and the chief executive’s
basic salary. The director then divides that B. Human Resource
total by the firm’s output. What has the
C. Capital Resource
director calculated?
A. average fixed cost D. Entrepreneurship
B. average revenue 452. Which of the following is NOT one of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. average total cost PPF model’s assumptions?
D. average variable cost A. The model focuses on production dur-
ing a given time period
447. A short run production function is one in
which- B. The resources available are fixed in
quantity and quality
A. at least one factor is fixed
B. at least one factor is variable C. The model focuses only on consumer
goods
C. all factors are fixed
D. Available technology does not change
D. all factors are variable
during a given time period
448. Money used to re-invest in a firm and fur-
ther its business objectives 453. The average fixed cost is equal to the
A. Human Capital A. total cost divided by total output
B. Physical Capital B. total variable cost divided by total out-
C. Investment Capital put
D. Enterprise Capital C. marginal cost divided by total output
449. Opportunity Cost is best defined as D. total fixed cost divided by total output
A. the value of the next best alternative 454. The price of a good multiplied by the
that is given up due to the choice you made quantity of that good sold is
B. The price you pay to purchase some- A. Change in Demand
thing
B. Total Revenue
C. The benefit you gain by making a deci-
sion C. Supply Curve
D. The amount of debt you take on by mak- D. Surplus
ing a decision
455. Which of the following would macroeco-
nomics study?
4 Factors of Production?
A. a general rise in prices
A. Land
B. Government B. a decline in coffee prices
C. Labor C. the success rate of sandwich shops
D. Capital D. the work habits of students

456. In the short run production function, as 461. When MC > AC, it is
the quantity of variable factor is increased
A. pulling down AC
the output also increases but after a cer-

tain point output B. none of the above
A. Starts being constant C. pulling up AC
B. Declines D. MRS will have a U-shaped curve
C. Also increases 462. Because of scarcity, people are forced to

D. Doesn’t effect make about how to use resources.
A. Choices
457. Labor, human capital, entrepreneurship,
natural resources, and capital are all ex- B. Opportunities
amples of which of the following? C. Houses
A. Outputs D. Desires
B. Substitutes in Production 463. What is a firm’s goal?
C. Absolute Advantage A. to maximize profit
D. Factors of Production B. run a profitable Ponzi scheme
458. The amount a firm receives for the sale C. Increase labor
of its output. P x Q = D. Create a new form of bacon soap
A. Profit
464. Which resource would be considered the
B. Total Revenue factor of production called land?
C. Marginal Revenue A. timber (wood)
D. Average Profit B. a factory
459. The AC curve is always pierced at its min- C. money

imumpoint by a rising MC curve D. a farmer working their fields.
A. by a rising MC curve 465. The concept of taskhir implies that
B. by a falling MC curve A. producers are free to manipulate the
C. by a constant average variable curve natural resources made available to them
by Allah.
B. producers have been given the ability
460. When many workers specialize and help to manipulate the natural resources by Al-
perform an individual task that results in lah.
a finished product. C. producers should avoid damaging
A. productivity the earth with pollution and imbalanced
ecosystem management.
B. labor force
D. producers should produce goods and
C. division of labor
services that preserve the five fundamen-
D. none of above tals of daruriyyat.

466. What is the definition of the economic 471. What is an example of the purchase of a
term Opportunity Cost? consumer good?
A. the value of the next best alternative A. A farm owner buys a television
that is given up due to the choice you made B. A farm owner buys additional land
B. The price you pay to purchase some- C. A farm owner buys fertiliser for their
thing crops.
C. The benefit you gain by making a deci- D. A farm owner buys some farming
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sion equipment.
D. The amount of debt you take on by mak-
472. What is the amount of a product or ser-
ing a decision
vice that is available for consumers to
467. Entrepreneurs are buy?
A. people with all their efforts and abili- A. demand

ties B. supply
B. individuals who start a new business C. scarcity
or bring a product to market D. profit
C. the “gifts of nature” or natural re-
473. The concept of khalifah as a successor is
reflected in production where
D. the tools, equipment, and factories
A. a producer has the authority to ensure
used in production of goods and services
all business activities must be halal.
468. Revenue generated by producing one ad- B. specialization and division of labor
ditional unit of product. take place to enhance efficiency and pro-
A. Marginal Revenue ductivity levels.
B. Marginal Profit C. a market mechanism with minimum

government intervention is preferred in
C. Total Revenue Islamic economics.
D. Average Revenue D. a producer should not be biased to-
wards profit maximization over Islamic
469. Your Mail lady is an example of
law.
A. Land
474. A point inside the PPC indicates
B. Labor
A. Full and efficient utilization of re-
C. Entrepreneurs sources
D. Capital B. inefficient utilization of resources
470. The satisfaction received from using one C. Unemployment
more unit of a good or service is called D. Both B & C
A. opportunity cost
475. A person who makes a good or provides
B. opportunity benefit a service is called a
C. marginal cost A. consumer
D. marginal benefit B. producer

9.4 Agricultural Finance 1319
C. provider A. assembling cars

D. customer B. designing clothes

476. Some agricultural co-operatives have C. farming cereals
changed from labour-intensive to capital- D. manufacturing steel
intensive methods of production. What
might be a cause of this change? 478. How do fixed costs affect marginal cost?
A. Average productivity of agricultural A. Increase by the amount of MC
workers has increased.
B. Decrease by the MC
B. Farming equipment has become more
C. Not at all
efficient.
C. People are eating less food for health D. just a wee bit
reasons. 479. The production function means relation-
D. Some agricultural land has been sold ship between
for housing.
A. cost of input
477. There has been a move away from labour- B. Physical input to physical output
intensive to capital-intensive production in
developed economies. Which type of activ- C. cost of output
ity remains labour-intensive? D. wages for production
9.4 Agricultural Finance

1. In India, Demerit of non-institutional credit D. co-operatives, commercial banks and
is RRBs
A. Indebtedness 4. The full form of NABARD is
B. Easy access A. National Bank for Rural Finance
C. simple procedures B. National Bank for Agriculture and Ru-
D. No restriction ral Development
C. New Bank for Agriculture, Research
2. Major part of agricultural credit is supplied and Development
by
D. New Area for Agriculture Bank and Ru-
A. Money lenders ral Development
B. Commercial banks
5. In which year ARC was renamed
C. co-operative banks
A. 1974
D. landlords
B. 1971
3. NABARD provide finance through C. 1975
A. money lenders and landlords D. 1970
B. large entrepreneurs
6. NABARD provides long term loans to
C. direct finance to farmers government.

A. State C. promote commercial banks in rural ar-

B. Central eas
D. Regulate the use of credit
C. Both a and b
D. None of these 12. RRB ‘s were established to provide credit
to
7. Long term loan is required farmers for a A. Only to non-agricultural activities in ru-
period of ral areas
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. more than 4 years B. Both agricultural and non-agricultural
B. more than 10 years activities
C. more than 5 years C. Only to agricultural activities
D. Only industrial activities in urban ar-
D. more than 20 years
eas
8. The co-operative banks provide long term 13. scheme was introduced by NABARD
credit through in 1992 as a pilot project under which
A. Primary Land development banks formal banking system reaches the micro-
B. State co-operative societies entrepreneurs and farmers
A. Micro-finance
C. Primary agricultural credit societies
B. macro-finance
D. commercial banks
C. external finance
9. RRBs were established in D. high value finance
A. 1970
14. Co-operative credit societies were estab-
B. 1974 lished to provide
C. 1975 A. rural credit at a higher cost
D. 1979 B. urban credit at a lowest cost
C. rural credit at a lowest cost
10. ARDC was renamed as
D. urban credit at a higher cost
A. Agricultural refinance and develop-
ment corporation 15. Regional Rural Banks were established to
provide finance to
B. Agricultural refinance and undevel-
oped corporation A. Small and marginal farmers
C. Agricultural reform and development B. Big farmers
corporation C. Rich entrepreneurs
D. Agricultural reunited and development D. All individual persons who wants loan
corporation 16. The co-operative bank provide short term
11. Lead Bank Scheme is designed to and medium term loan through
A. Land Development Banks
A. Have more concentrated effort of a
bank in a particular district B. commercial banks
B. Control the activities of non-banking fi- C. RRBs
nancial institutions D. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies

17. commercial banks nationalised in the year C. 12th July 1982

A. 1965 D. 12th July 1983

B. 1967 22. In India NABARD does not provide refi-
C. 1969 nance to
D. 1971 A. Scheduled Commercial Banks
B. Regional Rural Banks
18. Virtual water trade is being looked at by
experts as a solution to the world’s water C. Export - Import Bank
crisis. What does virtual water imply? D. State Land Development Banks
A. Volume of heavy water required to re- 23. The department of refinance deals with
place ordinary water
B. Volume of water required to produce a A. Short term
commodity
B. Long term
C. Volume of water saved by using rain-
water harvesting C. Both a and b
D. Volume of water utilized by an effec- D. None of these

tive flood control 24. To meet expenses, the loans required are
short term, that is, a period of upto
19. Farm Income Insurance scheme was intro-
duced to provides A. 15 months
A. income protection to the farmers B. 16 months
B. income protection to the en- C. 17 months
trepreneurs D. 18 months
C. interest protection to the farmers
25. In India, Non- institutional credit is pro-
D. interest protection to the en- vided through
trepreneurs A. Commercial banks
20. Micro Finance scheme has been imple- B. Co-operative banks
mented through C. Regional Rural banks
A. Self-Help Groups and bank linkage pro- D. Money lenders
gram
26. Medium term finance are for period of
B. RRBs and co-operative bank linkage
program A. 18 months to 2 years
C. RRBs and commercial bank linkage B. 15 months to 5 years
program C. 18 months to 4 years
D. Co-operatives and commercial bank D. 15 months to 3 years
linkage program
27. KCC (Kisan Credit Card) was launched in
21. The NABARD was established in which year?
A. 12th July 1980 A. 1998-99
B. 12th July 1981 B. 1999-2000

9.5 Agricultural Marketing 1322
C. 2000-01 C. It is a website launched by the Ministry

D. 2002-03 of Commerce to showcase the handicrafts
in order to promote financial interest of
28. Direct finance in agricultural sector for traditional commodities
purchasing pumpsets, tractors and other
D. None of these
agricultural machinery etc. are provided
through 32. Which of the following banks functioning
A. Money lenders in rural India is subject to inspection by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
NABARD?1. Commercial banks 2. State
B. RRBs
cooperative banks 3. District control co-
C. Co-operative banks operative banks 4. Regional rural banks
D. Commercial banks Select the correct answer using the code
below:
29. The major drawback of institutional fi-
nance is A. 2 and 3 only
A. No collateral security B. 1, 2 and 3
B. Non-productive loan C. 2, 3 and 4
C. Corruption and Red tapism D. 1, 3 and 4
D. Informal loans 33. In India, Institutional credit is provided
30. Lead bank scheme launched by the through
A. RBI to make individual commercial A. Money lenders
bank responsible for the development of B. commercial banks
individual district
C. Landlords
B. Govt. to make individual RRBs respon-
D. Traders and commission agents
sible for the development
C. co-operative banks to make individual 34. The rural infrastructure development fund
commercial bank responsible for the de- has been created under
velopment of individual district A. Reserve Bank of India
D. RBI to make individual Co-operative B. NABARD
bank responsible for the development of
individual district C. Ministry of Agriculture
D. Ministry of Rural Development
31. What is e -NAM?
A. It is a pan - India Electronic Trad- 35. Reserve Bank of India set up the agricul-
ing Portal for agricultural commodities tural refinance in
launched by the Ministry of Agriculture A. 1960
and Farmers Welfare
B. 1963
B. It is an application to know the prices
of various commodities to safeguard the C. 1970
interest of the consumers D. 1973
9.5 Agricultural Marketing

1. This method is common in villages, for 6. In duopsony market there will be?
farmers are indebted to the local money A. One buyer
lenders.

B. One seller
A. Mughum Sale Method
C. Two buyers
B. Moghum Sale Method
D. Two sellers
C. Moghom Sale Method
D. Mugham Sale Method
processed meats?
2. Which of the following is illegal in some A. Tonyo’s sisig
states?
B. Youngpork’s Tocino
A. Everyday low prices (EDLP) C. Lucban Longganisa
B. Loss-leader pricing D. Theobroma Meat Extract from Cebu
C. Special event pricing
8. In the broadest sense, means activities
D. Geographical pricing aimed at the use of natural resources for
human welfare
3. Perfect competition is a market in which
Buyers and sellers sell products A. management
A. Different B. marketing
B. slightly different C. agriculture

D. economics
C. Identical
D. Slightly identical 9. Which type of discount is used to encour-
age early payment?
4. Marketing process wherein buyers and
A. Quantity discount
sellers come together, goods are trans-
ferred from seller to buyer, and the pos- B. Season discount
session utility is added to the commodi- C. Cash discount
ties.
D. Early discount
A. trading
10. The following are types of Agricultural In-
B. barter
puts EXCEPT;
C. market selling A. Seeds
D. buying and selling B. Fertilizers
5. There are three marketing functions in- C. Agro Chemicals
volved in this, i.e., assembling, prepara- D. Commodities
tion for consumption and
11. All of the following are Characteristics of
A. Distribution
Agricultural Products and Production EX-
B. trading CEPT:
C. customer A. Perishability of products
D. demand B. Seasonality of Production

C. Bulkiness of Products 17. The storage function adds to the prod-

D. Regular supply of Agricultural Prod- ucts by making them available at the time
ucts when they are needed.
A. place utility
12. Which of the following is not a defect of
Indian agricultural market B. form utility
A. Lack of standard measures and weight C. time utility
B. Inadequate transport facility D. posession utility
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Insufficient price incentives by govern-
ment 18. Central government organisation, who are
involved in agricultural marketing
D. Agricultural produce not graded prop-
erly A. IARI
B. NBPGR
13. the problems faced in rural banking are
A. insufficient rural credit C. FCI
B. growing overdues D. IGBI

C. inadequate amount of sanction 19. Marketing of fertilizer, pesticides and oth-
D. all of these ers.
14. Storing milk creates? A. Input marketing

A. Place utility B. product marketing
B. Form utility C. agricultural marketing
C. Time utility D. agricultural supply dealership
D. Possession utility
20. It adds the time utility to products
15. A full form of APMC is A. storage process
A. Agriculture Product Material Commit-
B. storage management
tee
C. storage function
B. Agriculture Product market Commis-
sion D. storage development
C. Agricultural Produce Market competi-
21. Includes all the activities associated with
tion
agricultural production and with food,
D. Agricultural Produce Market Commit- feed, and fiber assembly, processing, and
tee distribution to final consumers, including
analyses of consumer’s needs, motiva-
16. Which of the following refers to a gradual
tions, and purchasing and consumption be-
increase in price due to economic factors
havior.
and purchasing power?
A. Inflation A. farming
B. Deflation B. gardening
C. Shortage C. agricultural marketing
D. Surplus D. processing

22. Which of the following is considered C. rural

Drivers of Growth of Agricultural Market-
D. none of these
ing in the Philippines?

A. Rural Planning 28. This refers to machinery, mechanical de-
B. Extension Work and Immersion vices, including tractors and implements,
used in farming to save labor
C. Technological Change in Agriculture
D. Planning and Analysis A. Farm Tools
B. Farm Machineries
23. The word market originated from the latin
word C. Farm Implements
A. agora D. Farm Tractors
B. maractus
29. A latin word which means merchandise or
C. mercado
trade or a place where business is con-
D. none ducted.
24. Del Monte Philippines is one of the Pineap- A. marcatos
ple’s Leading company operating in
B. mercatos
A. Bukidnon
C. marcatus
B. Lanao Del Norte
C. Misamis Occidental D. marcetus
D. Davao 30. The following are CHARACTERISTICS OF A

25. Short term credit is needed for DEVELOPED MARKET except:
A. period of 15 months A. No harmful products should be offered

for sale in the market
B. period of 1 year
C. period of 15 years B. provide a wide variety of products to
the consumers
D. period of 20 years
C. provide commodities which the con-
26. The institutional aource of credit whose sumers
area of operation is the one where bank-
ing facilities and cooperatives are absent D. presence of pressure on the con-
and which operate at the district level is: sumers to buy products from a particular
trader or class of traders
A. Regional rural bank
B. Commercial bank 31. why is minimum support price fixed by the
C. self help group government
D. NABARD A. for government own benefit
27. Diversification in agriculture activities B. to safeguard the interest of farmers

means finding alternate employment in C. to safeguard the interest of con-
A. non farm sumers
B. urban D. none of these

32. Knowledge of marketable surplus helps C. non-institutional finance

the D. Constructions of buildings
A. Farming population
38. This is known as the THE CONSUMER ACT
B. Non farm population OF THE PHILIPPINES
C. Both a and b A. Republic Act No. 7394
D. Neither a nor b B. Republic Act No. 7349
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. All the following have positive relation- C. Republic Act No. 7493
ship with marketable surplus except D. Republic Act No. 7934
A. Size of family
39. It prolongs the storage quality of the prod-
B. Size of holding ucts by providing protection from the ill ef-
C. Quality of production fects of weather, specially for fruits, veg-
etables and other perishable goods.
D. Size of a and b
A. handling
34. the scheme of Micro Finance is extended
B. transporting
through
C. exporting
A. SHGs
D. packaging
B. land development Banks
C. NABARD 40. All of these are BUSINESSES THAT AF-
FECTS AN AGRICULTURAL COMMODITY
D. Regional Rural Banks
BETWEEN PRODUCTION AND CONSUMER
35. Human activity directed at satisfying except:
needs and wants through exchange pro- A. Nestle producing yogurt and milk in
cesses tetra packs
A. marketing B. Manufacturing company producing
B. economics pesticides
C. agriculture C. Manufacturing Firms producing pro-
cessed corned beef
D. social science
D. Manufacturing firms producing
36. Deals with the marketing of agricultural aerosols
outcome products.
41. Which of the following types of research
A. input marketing is also known as opinion research?
B. product marketing A. Qualitative research
C. distribution B. Attitude research
D. none of above C. Media research
37. A good agricultural market infrastructure D. Product research
includes
42. For a satisfactory market performance,
A. Unregulated market the market structure should keep pace
B. Warehousing facilities with the following changes, except:

A. Production pattern 47. Which of the following is considered a pro-

motional pricing strategy?
B. Demand pattern
A. Odd-even pricing

C. Supply pattern
B. Multiple-unit pricing
D. Technological change in Industry
C. Prestige pricing
43. Financial agents and processing agents are D. Special event pricing
involved in secondary market in addition 48. During the pandemic, this industry is the
to primary market functionaries. lone survivor and not affected by lock-
A. primary down.
B. secondary A. government
B. agriculture
C. tertiary
C. tourism
D. none of above
D. retail business
44. All of these is included in the THREE PART 49. Process of producing goods such as crops
SYSTEM OF AGRICULTURAL MARKETING and livestock.
except:
A. marketing
A. AGRICULTURAL INPUT SECTOR B. agriculture
B. PROCESSING MANUFACTURING SEC- C. buisness development
TOR
D. none of above
C. PLANNING AND MARKETING SECTOR
50. Which of the following is considered a psy-
D. PRODUCTION SECTOR chological pricing strategy?
A. Everyday low prices (EDLP)
45. Risks in Storage includes the following, ex-
cept: B. Loss-leader pricing
C. Special event pricing
A. Price Risk
D. Geographical pricing
B. Quality control
51. Marketable surplus will be more in case of
C. Quality loss
A. Rice
D. Quality Deterioration
B. Jowar
46. The process of segregating the huge C. Cotton
amount produce into different categories D. Gram
on the basis of variety, quality, size, etc.
This can help to establish standards for 52. Which of the following combines natu-
those produce. ral observation with interviewing tech-
niques?
A. concentgration
A. Interviews
B. packaging B. Observations
C. grading C. Point-of-sale research
D. warehousing D. Experiments

53. Secondary function of marketing includes 58. What is the role of National Agriculture
Market e-NAAM?
A. Assembling
A. Online trading platform
B. Grading
B. Online information platform
C. Insurance
C. Digital registration platform
D. Banking
D. Online license platform
54. Focus groups should be comprised of how
NARAYAN CHANGDER
many people? 59. The producer/farmer/cultivator, pre-
harvest contractor, itinerary merchants,
A. Three to five people
transport agents.
B. Six to eight people
A. Primary market
C. Eight to 12 people
B. Secondary
D. 10 to 12 people
C. Tertiary
55. market is wholesale market where D. none of above
buying and selling is regulated and con-
trolled by the state government through 60. The sector providing alternate livelihood
the market committee. options to 70 million small and marginal
farmers is:
A. State trading
A. live stock
B. Restricted
B. agro processing
C. Co-operative
C. apni mandi
D. Regulated
D. Fisheries
56. The last function performed in all market-
ing is distribution of products from the 61. NABARD is source of rural credit
place of warehouse to retail outlet for fi-
A. institutional source
nal consumption.
B. cooperative society
A. warehousing
C. non institutional
B. grading
D. regional
C. sorting
D. distribution 62. Commercial analyst and shipping agents
are also involved in this market stage.al,
57. By this method, prices are fixed by mutual based on technical and economic consider-
agreement. and this method is common in ations, and includes pre- and post-harvest
unregulated markets or village markets. operations,
A. private negotiation A. primary
B. private bid B. secondary
C. private deal C. tertiary
D. private sale D. none of above

63. Which of the following is NOT a primary C. Thomsen

source of data? D. Thomson

A. Observations
69. When producers of agricultural commodi-
B. Government agencies ties form a society with an objective of car-
C. Experiments rying out marketing of their produce, such
society is called as
D. Interviews
A. Regulated Marketing
64. Regulated markets aim to protecting
B. Co-operative Marketing
A. Farmers
C. State Trading
B. Traders
D. Restricted Marketing
C. Middlemen
70. Full form of NAFED is
D. Villagers
A. National Agriculture Cooperation Mar-
65. Transport function of marketing creates? ket Fund of India
A. Place utility B. National Agreement of Cooperative
Marketing fund
B. Form utility
C. National Agricultural Cooperative Mar-
C. Time utility
keting Federation of India Ltd.
D. Possession utility
D. National Agricultural compromising
66. Which of the following is related to pro- Market Federation of India Ltd.
duction system?
71. From the following which is not a non-
A. Perishable products institutional source of credit in India.
B. Consumption continuous o daily basis A. money lenders
C. Seasonality in production B. traders
D. Bulky nature of products C. commercial banks
D. commission agents
67. AGMARK enables to ensure
A. Quality of product 72. It is a marketing function which facilitates
the movement of produce.
B. higher price
A. Fixed Grading and Mandatory
C. lower price
B. Permissive Grading and Variable
D. Quantity of product
C. Grading and Standardization
68. According to the study of agricultural D. Centralized Grading
marketing, comprises all the operations,
and the agencies conducting them, in- 73. Factors that cannot be controlled (politi-
volved in the movement of farm-produced cal and legal, economic, law and regula-
foods, raw materials and their deriva- tion, social & culture, technologies, & de-
tives. mographic).
A. Thumsen A. Environmental
B. Thomsin B. consumer

C. marketing mix 79. Which of the following types of research

D. internal is used infrequently due to cost and time?
A. Interviews
74. The transportation function adds to
B. Observations
products by shifting them to a place of
need from the place of plenty. SHOW AN- C. Point-of-sale research
SWER D. Experiments
A. Place utility
NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. Which of the following is the imperfect
B. form utility market?
C. time utility A. Monopoly
D. Possession utility B. Oligopoly
C. Both a and b
75. All of the following are related to consump-
tion EXCEPT: D. None of these
A. Production of joint products 81. Market information reduces exploitation

B. Varying quality of products of
A. Traders
C. Perishable products
B. Villagers
D. Inelastic demand for most products
C. Farmers
76. These countries are large importers of D. Middlemen
Philippine Dried Mangoes EXCEPT:
A. United States 82. Demand for agricultural commodities
A. very elastic
B. China
B. unit elastic
C. United Kingdom
C. less elastic
D. Other Asia Pacific Countries
D. more elastic
77. The ‘Golden Revolution’ was a period of
very high productivity in: 83. Agricultural market faces the problem of
A. food grain production A. seasonal price fluctuation

B. low price when crop fails
B. horticulture
C. high price when there is bumper crop
C. fishing
D. price stability
D. agriculture
84. Marketable surplus will be less in the case
78. Converting groundnut into oil creates? of
A. Place utility A. Rice
B. Form utility B. Sugarcane
C. Time utility C. Cotton
D. Possession utility D. Tomato

9.6 Agriculture Business Management 1331
9.6 Agriculture Business Management

1. Agribusiness is the science and art of mobi- C. ghost town
lizing, utilizing and managing economic re- D. progressive town
sources to produce goods and services to
generate profit. 6. Which of the following is the most common
A. Agribusiness as a Field of Study form of business ownership?
B. Agribusiness as an Investment A. Sole Proprietorship
C. Agribusiness and Agriculture B. Partnership
D. none of above C. Corporation
2. What’s sub system 2 in agribusiness refer D. Franchise

to Bungaran saragih
7. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
A. Production or usaha tani budgeting?
B. Manufacturing A. Setting up emergency funds
C. Agricultural facilities B. Relying on debt
D. Distribution and marketing C. Improving credit score
3. At one time, New York state raised sheep. D. Establishing a projected goal
Today those farms produce milk because
the popularity of milk and the potential 8. When an economy is not doing well, this
profit that can be generated from milk is called a
products is greater than that of sheep pro- A. boom
duction. This scenario is an example of
B. bust
what economic law?
C. good day
A. Law of Comparative Advantage
D. bear
B. Law of Diminishing Returns
C. Law of Opportunity Costs 9. What is an example of a liability?
D. Law of Supply and Demand A. Charge account
4. Which of the following moves finished B. Land

goods from one business to another? C. Market Steer
A. Intermediaries D. Pickup
B. Manufacturers
10. It refers to the ability of the agribusiness
C. Service Firms firm to recover all its investments and gen-
D. Producers erate sufficient income.
A. Environmental Sustainability
5. In the early 1900s many towns developed
around the discovery of oil, this is called a B. Social Sustainability
A. boomtown C. Economic Sustainability
B. bust town D. none of above

11. Agriculture has focused in recent years on A. analyzing farm production characteris-
using communication technology to help tics
promote the industry as a whole. In the B. fair comparisons between all farms
state of Kentucky for example, the in-
dustry has been helped greatly through C. fair comparisons between farms in for-
programs such as Kentucky Proud. How eign countries
has this form of communication technology D. analyzing competitive advantages
helped the perception of agriculture?
15. Land, labor, capital and entrepreneur are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The promotion of agriculture through
medial sources allow agriculturalists to called as
have the chance to advertise positive at- A. Factors of marketing
tributes in various outlets with state back- B. Factors of production
ing with a limited cost.
C. Factors of business
B. By allowing agriculturalists the chance
to learn more about technology through D. none of above
low cost programs operated by state and
federal agencies. 16. Which of the following develops products
for distribution from raw goods?
C. By basic training programs in commu-
nication technology to help an aging agri- A. Producers
cultural producer sector to learn more B. Processors
about promotion within their industry.
C. Manufactureres
D. Through providing grants to help ru-
D. Intermediaries
ral America receive technology that then
could be used to help develop a cam- 17. Approximately 75% of the milk sold in
paign for communication technology for the US is sold through farmer-owned, milk-
increased positive perceptions. marketing organizations known as what?
12. Loans used to purchase land and buildings A. direct sellers
are classified as what type of loan?
B. terminal marketers
A. short-term
C. cooperatives
B. intermediate-term
D. vertical integrators
C. long-term
D. non-risk 18. Organic farmers aim to sell their product
to health-conscious consumers. The health-
13. What is the number 1 agriculture state in conscious consumers are a
the US?
A. mass market
A. Alabama
B. secondary market
B. West Virginia
C. primary market
C. California
D. niche market
D. Kansas
14. Farm Financial Standards Council promotes 19. A drought in South America will
uniformity of farm financial records for the A. increase the chance for rain in the
purpose of: United States

B. decrease the amount of snow that falls C. in terms of invention in advanced tech-
in the Rocky Mountains nology in manfacturing or cultivation
D. agribusiness 4.0 and all aspects above

C. increase demand for U.S. grain
D. decrease the price of U.S. grain 25. Succession planning refers to:
20. Whole farm budgets are NOT used for A. planning to raise a new variety of soy-
which of the following? beans that have not been tried before
A. Comparing profitability of several farm B. planning for next year’s success of the
plans business
C. planning to move the business to the
B. Determining income possibilities
younger generation
C. Totaling the number of acres
D. planning to increase the size of the
D. Learning the worth of a ranch farm business
21. Into what lending agency was the Produc- 26. Which of the following bring nonimmigrant
tion Credit Agency and the Federal Land foreign workers to the United States?
Bank merged? A. Fair Labor Standards
A. Commodity Credit Corporation B. Child Labor Law
B. Farmers Home Administration C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural
C. Fannie Mae/Fannie Mac Workers Protection Act
D. Farm Credit Services D. H-2A Program
27. A disadvantage of being an employee is:
22. What is a current liability?
A. overtime pay
A. Long-term debt you owe within 12
months B. regular hours
B. long-term debt you owe past 12 C. little or no control over future job
months D. fringe benefits
C. What you own within 12 months 28. Which is an example of an asset?
D. none of above A. Land
23. Change raw goods into a more finished B. Bank Loan

form using facilities such as cotton mils, oil C. Note
refineries, textile mills D. none of above
A. Processors 29. A company only updates their inventory at
B. Producers the end of the year and associates the old-
C. Manufacturers est costs first with the cost of goods sold.
Which of the following best describes this
D. Intermediaries scenario?
24. agribusiness challenges covered in land A. Periodic FIFO
A. expertise of agribusiness worker in ev- B. Periodic LIFO
ery sub system C. Periodic Average
B. there are conversin in productive land D. Perpetual FIFO

30. Which of the following is NOT a factor that 35. Farm Bureaus are considered which of the
influences the supply of products? following?
A. Weather A. Non-profit agricultural organization
B. Ability to buy items needed to produce B. Producer
that product
C. Manufacturer
C. Cost & availability of credit
D. Processor
D. Quantity of delivery trucks
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. What does a cost-basis balance sheet mea-
31. agribusiness means business based on sure?
agricultural and it’s covered
A. Measures business’ performance over
A. all commodity in fishery
time
B. food crops, holticulture and plantation
B. Measures liquidation value of a busi-
C. all commodity and product in forestry ness
D. all forestry, fishery, livestock, food C. Only measures business’ failures
crops and plantation products
D. Only measures business’ success
32. Four sections of land are how many square
miles? 37. What is the government lending agency
called that is operating under the author-
A. 1 square mile
ity of the U.S. Department of Agriculture
B. 2 square miles
A. Agriculture Lending Agency
C. 3 square miles
B. Farm and Ranch Agency
D. 4 square miles
C. Farm Systems Agency
33. A local farm lending agency has operat- D. Farm Services Agency
ing loans for 3.5% on up to $25, 000 a
year with no additional charges. You se- 38. Special interest groups exist throughout
cure your loan for the $25, 000 for a 1 the agricultural sector on the state and fed-
year period, but complete the payments in eral level. These groups represent food
5 months. Through changing your financial processors, agricultural insurance compa-
option how much did you save your farm nies, animal rights, labor groups, etc.
business in interest? These special interest groups employee
A. $510.39 to represent them through making con-
tact with legislators.
B. $611.27
A. Lobbyists
C. $574.98
D. $482.16 B. Producers
C. Economists
34. What is the top state for Dairy Produc-
tion? D. Regulators
A. New York 39. Inventory is recorded as which of the fol-
B. Pennsylvania lowing on the company’s balnce sheet?
C. California A. Asset
D. Wisconson B. Expense

C. Liability 45. Develop products for distribution from raw

D. Cost goods, such as forestry, farming & mining

A. Producers
fixed expense? B. Processors
A. Utility bill C. Intermediaries
B. Insurance D. Service Firms
C. Gas 46. Organization in which agriculturalists

D. Animal health care bring together their resources in a specific
area of activity
41. An identifying symbol for a company or A. Non-Profit Organizations
product is called a
B. Service Firms
A. logo
C. Agricultural Co-ops
B. picture
D. Ag businesses
C. symbol
D. app 47. How does a business/sender know that
their message/promotion was successful?
42. If a farmer is deciding whether to rent ad- A. feedback (attendance, contributions,
ditional land, this would fall under what purchases)
decision making category?
B. shares on social media
A. operational
C. cash sales only
B. capital outlay
D. advertisements
C. organizational
D. long-term 48. What is an example of a non-current as-
set?
43. What is the leading agency that has a role A. Fertilizer
in agriculture commodity marketing in the
United States? B. Land
A. United States Department of Agricul- C. Bill for Lumber

ture D. Feed
B. Agriculture Marketing Service 49. Marian and Sara borrow $175, 000 on
C. Foreign Agricultural Service March 15. They expect to repay $100,
D. Food Safety and Inspection Service 000 on October 15 and the remaining bal-
ance on November 15. Calculate the to-
44. If a farmer is deciding whether to sell cat- tal interest obligation if the interest rate
tle this week or next, this would fall under is 8% and interest is charged on the daily
what decision making category? outstanding principle balance.
A. organizational A. $6, 904
B. operational B. $8, 718
C. capital outlay C. $8, 666
D. short-term D. $7, 500

50. Which is a major advantage of owning 55. Specialization in the production of crops
your own agribusiness? and/or livestock generally results in
A. shorter work week A. increased returns and decreased risk
B. financial responsibility B. increased returns and increased risk
C. control over your own destiny C. decreased returns and decreased risk
D. use personal money for business ex- D. decreased returns and increased risk
penses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. Which is the business function that in-
51. What do the letters S.A.E. stand for? volves selecting a product or service to be
marketed for profit?
A. Supervised Agricultural Experience
A. selling function
B. Supportive Agricultural Education
B. buying function
C. Supervised Animal Experience
C. promoting function
D. Supervised Agricultural Entrepreneur- D. financing function
ship
57. The ability of the firm to maintain
52. What type of organization is licensed to an environment-friendly operation and
manage the buying and selling of goods us- healthy business condition at all times is
ing a licensed broker? called
A. direct sales agency A. Environmental Sustainability
B. trade exchange B. Social Sustainability
C. commodity exchange C. Economic Sustainability
D. wholesale market D. none of above
53. When a good is completed it is moved 58. Rent is an example of which of the follow-
from work-in-progress inventory to which ing?
of the following? A. Fixed
A. Raw goods inventory B. Variable
B. Finished goods inventory C. Net worth
C. Overhead inventory D. Asset
D. Overhead cost pool 59. What is the top corn producing state?
54. Which of the following operates on dona- A. Iowa
tions and volunteers rather than income B. Illinois
and profit?
C. Indiana
A. Service firms
D. Minnesota
B. Production firms
60. The government has set a price floor for
C. Non-profit organizations
milk at $14/cwt (cwt = 100 pounds), but
D. Producers organizations market conditions indicate that the market

equilibrium is $11/cwt. What effect will D. The cash method does not use an in-
the price floor have? ventory to keep track of unsold products
or unused supplies.

A. stimulate establishment of new dairies
B. cause a shortage of milk in the market 65. If a worker is untrained and exposed to
C. no effect on the supply of milk chemicals while working on a farm, this is-
sue would be related to what government
D. cause a surplus of milk in the market agency?
61. Which one of the following can influence A. OSHA
the value of crop land? B. USDA
A. interest rate of the mortgage C. EPA
B. national gross farm income D. FDA
C. a mortgage on the land
66. To achieve domestic market leader in fish-
D. what it produced last year ery product
62. Which of the following is NOT an example A. planning
of an asset? B. organizing
A. Cash C. leading
B. Equipment D. controlling
C. Credit cards
67. Less workers are needed for farm produc-
D. Livestock tion due to
63. Which of the following compares the A. technology
sources of cash to the uses of the cash over B. organic farming
a specific period of time?
C. specialization
A. Net worth statement D. education
B. Net income statement
68. Encourages appropriate standards of con-
C. Statement of cash flow servation, restoration management and
D. Statement of ownership equity the proper use of soil, water and natural
resources
64. Which of the following would not be an ad-
vantage of using cash accounting in agricul- A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association
tural business? B. Farm Bureaus
A. Revenue is often recorded in a year C. National Pork Producers Council
where the production did not actually take D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
place such as selling corn harvested in servation Districts
2016 in 2017 after storage.
B. Simplicity in record keeping through- 69. Which of the following is the minimum age
out the process. of employment during school hours for chil-
dren working in agriculture?
C. The cost of an item is deductible within
the year the transaction occurred for tax A. 12
purposes. B. 14

C. 16 C. Investment
D. 18 D. none of above
70. Which of the following defines budgeting? 75. After the Civil War where was cattle de-
manded the most?
A. The amount of income received before
the cost of goods and taxes A. California
B. Canada
B. The allocation of monetary funds
based on a determined structure C. Europe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The amount of income after cost of D. Northern States
goods and taxes are deducted 76. As a financial record, what is the role of a
D. Assets minus liabilities cash flow statement?
A. project costs and other expenses
71. Nationally, what has the Census of Agricul-
ture shown is happening to the total num- B. availability of funds
ber of farms in the U.S.? C. identify the units of product on hand
A. increasing D. verify the business makes a profit each
B. decreasing year
C. staying the same 77. A farmer produces most of what his family
needs. This kind of farming is called
D. none of above
A. marginal
72. It means the establishment of standards B. communal
for matters such as quality, size, weight,
C. corporate
and color; and once these are set it uses
the criteria established in the standards D. subsistence
A. standardization and grading 78. A lender will only lend money to an
B. standardization and size agribusiness or farmer if there is enough
and/or the agribusiness or farmer will
C. standardization and modification make enough money to pay off the loan.
D. standardization and criteria A. Collateral
73. When the U.S. dollar is considered to be B. Character
weak, the demand for agricultural imports: C. Contracts
A. none are correct D. Equity
B. have no change 79. If you are examining a change in a farm
C. increase business that affects only a few items in
the total farm budget, the change could
D. decrease most easily be evaluated through the use
74. An occupational cluster, which focuses in of a:
creating and going into business in agricul- A. Partial Budget
ture is known as B. Enterprise Budget
A. Agriculture C. Cash Flow Statement
B. Agribusiness D. Total Farm Budget

80. In the agricultural market, is deter- A. buying

mined by either supply or demand. B. distribution

A. products C. promoting
B. beef D. selling
C. price
86. If you estimate your local cash price will
D. surplus
be $.15 under the future price at the time
81. Provide intangible goods to consumers and you deliver your corn, the approximate net
other businesses selling price you can lock in by selling a fu-
tures contract at $8.50 is
A. Intermediaries
A. $8.60
B. Service firms
B. $8.35
C. Intangible good
C. $8.50
D. Agricultural Co-op
D. $8.65
82. What’s we learn from VUCA
A. to prepare/internal response from 87. The government agency that regulates
changing situation drainage of cattle yards and protects wet-
lands is the
B. to prepare from political issues
A. FDA
C. to prepare from technical invention
B. EPA
D. to prepare internally
C. USDA
83. The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act D. FTC
passed by the U.S. Congress in 2008 also
is called 88. Which of the following is subject to more
A. the Patient Protection and Affordable governmental regulations?
Care Act A. Cooperative (co-op)
B. the Green Energy Initiative B. Partnership
C. the Farm Bill C. Corporation
D. the Farmers Full Employment Act D. Franchise
84. What is a disadvantage of being an em- 89. What is the length of time current covers?
ployee instead of an owner?
A. 0-12 months
A. receiving overtime pay
B. 12+ months
B. working regular hours
C. 36+ months
C. getting fringe benefits
D. 24+ months
D. having little or no control over our fu-
ture 90. The length of time required at a specific
temperature to destroy 90% of the mi-
85. Which business function includes studying croorganisms present is referred to as the
the product or service to determine the rea-
sons that customers will want and need A. F-value
the product or service? B. G-value

C. C-value 96. evaluating worker performance and coach-

D. D-value ing for development is part of
A. controlling
91. Production, Marketing, Finance, Corporate
B. leading
Planning are called as
C. planning
A. Tools of trade
D. organizing
B. Economic resources
97. Which of the following is the roadmap of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Business types
where the business is going?
D. none of above
A. Business plan
92. Holding combinations of investments is B. Business agenda
called
C. Executive plan
A. diersification
D. Executive agenda
B. verification
98. Which would be the most effective way
C. dissatisfaction
that a farmer could keep accurate records?
D. variations
A. Utilizing electronic records and back-
93. An example of a Research SAE is: ing them up to another source.
A. logging journal hours after rid- B. Having a master paper and pencil copy
ing/training your family’s horse of all records.
B. working for the local florist C. Keeping all records on their smart
phone with no back up.
C. raising breeding goats
D. Creating a public website for all
D. conducting an experiment to see which records where they can be accessed by
type of growing media for plants produces anyone.
the most flower blooms
99. Which of the following is NOT a true state-
94. Which of the following types of business ment
ownership includes contract farming?
A. creating a budget which consists of
A. Corporations tracking spending
B. Sole proprietorship B. creating a budget which consists of
C. Partnership listing monthly expenses
D. Cooperatives C. creating a budget which consists of

listing monthly income
95. Which type of cooperative receives prod- D. creating a budget which consists of
ucts from its members and then resells having to make investments
those products for the best possible price?
100. What is an SAE?
A. market based
A. a class project which is always com-
B. purchasing based
pleted at school
C. service based B. planned, practical activities conducted
D. sales based outside of class time

C. activities that must only involve raising 105. This connotes that agribusiness should
and showing livestock not focus only on production of goods and
services for self-subsistence.

D. planned activities that your parents
are obligated to help with and pay for A. Profit orientation
101. Many business operators must make B. Consumer orientation
choices on keeping inventory or liquidat- C. Production orientation
ing that inventory. Which of the follow-
D. none of above
ing would be a situation when inventory
should be liquidated? 106. Cattle and ways of ranching were
A. Shelves in the back of a storage room brought to Texas and North America by the
that are not utilized any longer to store
records that are now kept electronically. A. English
B. A computer that is used daily to keep
B. French
records of the business.
C. Spanish
C. A tractor that is only used in the spring
for plowing a plot of land. D. Germans
D. Benches in a greenhouse that are only 107. If the price of wheat goes up relative to
used for overflow plants in the spring of the price of corn
the year.
A. farmers will plant more corn and less
102. Increases opportunities for the success wheat
of US pork producers and other industry
B. farmers will use less corn
stakeholders
C. farmers will plant more wheat and less
A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association
corn
B. Farm Bureaus
D. farmers will not change planing inten-
C. National Pork Producers Council tions
D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
servation Districts 108. An example of a Placement SAE is:
A. working for Tractor Supply daily after
103. Assets may include which of the follow-
school and on weekends
ing?
B. raising and showing market lambs at
A. Feed store bill
the county fair
B. Equipment
C. conducting a research project on the
C. Equipment loans best type of fertilizer for tomatoes
D. Borrowed cash D. planning a community service event
104. Materials derived from natural resources for your FFA chapter
clearly defines which of the following?
109. When seeking a production loan, what in-
A. Processed Goods formation must you provide to a potential
B. Raw Goods credit source?
C. Finished Goods A. personal resume
D. Intangible Goods B. letters of recommendation

C. list of items you will purchase with the 115. For which of the following does the
borrowed money parent company share experiences and
D. personal financial statement and cash proven techniques?
flow projections A. Sole proprietorship
110. What is the top agricultural commodity in B. Partnership
the US? C. Corporation
A. Beef D. Franchise
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Dairy Products
C. Poultry 116. Which of the following is NOT a true
statement about partial budgets?
D. Corn
A. Allows for hiring custom work
111. Which of the following is NOT an advan-
B. Modifies production practice
tage of a C corporation?
C. Adopts new technologies
A. possible income tax savings for high in-
come businesses D. Includes resources which cannot
B. simplification of estate transfer change
C. limited liability for each shareholder 117. Nationally, what has the Census of Agri-
D. assures a profit due to better manage- culture shown is happening to the number
ment of acres farmed?
112. An enterprise which derives a significant A. increasing

portion of its revenue. B. decreasing
A. Agribusiness C. staying the same
B. Business Mangement D. none of above
C. Business
118. Which of the following principles requires
D. Agricultural Services
the amounts recorded in the accounts and
113. Recent trends have seen the rise of a on the financial statements to be the ac-
growing interest in contract farming and tual cost of an item rather than the current
what? value of the item?
A. Albertsons A. Asset principle
B. food B. Inventory principle
C. supermarkets C. Cost principle
D. Costco D. Accuracy principle
114. What are the three main types of cooper-
119. In a perfectly competitive market, which
atives?
one of the following is most correct?
A. market, purchase, and service based
A. Sellers cannot differentiate their prod-
B. market, sales, and serviced based ucts by advertising.
C. sales, purchasing, and service based B. A firm’s demand curve is perfectly in-
D. market, purchasing, and sales based elastic.

C. There are many sellers but very few 125. A major advantage of owning a business
buyers. This means sellers have market is:
power.

A. control over your destiny
D. Sellers can increase their profits by
B. financial responsibility
charging a higher price for their goods.
C. the relationship of business income
120. The country who consumes the greatest and family finances
amount of pork per capita is
D. a shorter work week
A. Denmark
B. Hong Kong 126. Which of the following is required as a
C. United States part of a company’s financial reports?
D. Argentina A. Net worth statement

B. Net income statement
121. Determining reasons that customers may
wish to buy a product or service is called C. Statement of cash flow
the:
D. Statement of ownership equity
A. buying function
B. distribution function 127. When analyzing competing products or
services, which is not a function?
C. promoting function
A. price
D. selling function
B. quality
122. What is West Virginia’s top agricultural
product? C. service
A. corn D. supply
B. eggs 128. Which agricultural commodity must be im-
C. beef ported to the United States?
D. apples A. sugar
123. What government agencies oversees the B. rice
collection of federal taxation? C. wheat
A. Internal Revenue Service D. coffee
B. Tax Collection Administration
C. Tax Service Administration 129. As an agribusiness manager, what is one
of the best ways to minimize risk?
D. National Taxation Service
A. fail to pay loans on time
124. What is the equation for calculating
B. maintain a proper debt to income rela-
owner’s equity?
tionship
A. Total Assets-Total Liability
C. increase the amount of loan if given
B. Total Assets + Total Liability the opportunity
C. Total Assets X Total Liability D. take out multiple lines of credit
D. Total Assets/ Total Liability through different credit sources

130. consists of real estate (land), build- C. Tangible good

ings, house, and various types of improve- D. Processed good
ments to real estate
A. suburban property 136. What are the five basic ways American
business is organized?
B. personal property
C. agricultural property A. buy, sell, profit, distribution, finance
D. real property B. buy, sell revenue, marketing, finance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. buy, sell, promote, distribution, financ-
131. The average U.S. farm size has done
ing
what?
D. buy, sell, marketing, profit, financing
A. increased
B. decreased 137. Supports the members management of
C. stayed the same the financial risks of everyday life and suc-
cessfully recover from any insured loss
D. none of above
132. A depreciable asset’s book value will
B. Farm Bureaus
equal its salvage value
C. National Pork Producers Council
A. every year of its useful life
B. only at the mid-point of its useful life D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
servation Districts
C. only at the end of the useful life
D. only on the purchase date 138. What should a proper debt-to-net worth
ratio not exceed?
133. Which of the following is a firm or busi-
A. 1:1
ness owned and operated by its members?
A. Cooperative (co-op) B. 2:1
B. Partnership C. 3:1
C. Corporation D. 4:1
D. Franchise 139. What is an example of a current asset?
134. What is our chapter number on the AET A. Bank account balance
website? B. Credit card bill
A. WV0023
C. Land
B. WV0051
D. Tractor
C. WV0076
D. WV0125 140. Which of the following is the first step in
the product flow chart?
135. A good which cannot be physically
A. Processor
touched; usually involving a service, such
as going to the doctor B. Producer
A. Manufactured good C. Manufacturer
B. Intangible good D. Raw Goods

141. When a market moves up & down adjust- 146. The quantity of a product that is available
ing the quantity of supply & the quantity to buyers at a given time
of demand until they are equal is called the

A. Supply
price
B. Credit
A. market
C. Demand
B. equilibrium
D. Economics
C. demand
D. value 147. Which of the following are temporary
agricultural programs?
142. Development of a plan to identify ways
to make potential customers aware of a A. H-2A Programs
product or service is called the: B. Fair Labor Standards Programs
A. buying function C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural
B. distribution function Worker Protection
C. promoting function D. Safe Labor Standards Program

D. selling function 148. Which of the following changes raw or
processed goods into finished goods?
143. On what document does a borrower sign
to indicate the loan will be paid on or be- A. Producers
fore a specified date? B. Processors
A. registration form C. Manufactureres
B. promissory note D. Intermediaries
C. installment document
149. In what state did irrigation increase the
D. reliability voucher
corn yield by 400 to 500% from 1940 to
144. What type of organization is created, 1997?
owned, and controlled by its members? A. Florida
A. cooperative B. California
B. entrepreneurial C. Misssouri
C. mid-marketing D. Colorado
D. small business
150. What is the definition of a boom/bust
145. Capital is defined by economy?
A. equipment, factories, or money used A. Equipment, factories, or money used
to produce goods or services to produce goods or services
B. equipment, people, and banks used to B. A business cycle of highs and lows
produce goods or services C. farm related business such as crops
C. Not sure and livestock
D. Factories and money only D. Don’t know

151. Who famously predicted that the earth 156. Respect someone whatever their duties
would not be able to support its growing so that he feels his presence in the group
population, but technologies such as the or organization becomes important.
Green Revolution have allowed the world
A. organizing
to produce a surplus of food
A. Jeremy Bentham B. planning
B. John Stuart Mill C. leading
C. Thomas Robert Malthus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. controlling
D. David Ricardo
157. One strategy to manage financial risk is
152. Goals are important for any agribusi-
ness. Goals should be written down and A. maintaining a low debt/asset ratio
recorded with the goal setting format B. hedging the market
used for clarity.
C. playing the futures market
A. SMART
B. Compatible D. borrowing money
C. Financial
158. The regulatory authority for grain eleva-
D. Whole Farm tors in Kentucky is:
153. Provides goods and services to individu- A. Kentucky Department of Agriculture
als and operates on donations, volunteers,
and philanthropists B. Commodity Futures Trading Commis-
sion
A. Non-Profit Organizations
C. Farm Bureau Federation
B. Service Firms
C. Agricultural Co-ops D. USDA
D. Ag businesses
159. Which of the following gives a snapshot
154. Which of the following describes strate- of the borrower’s business at a specific
gies for branding, packaging, advertising time?
and promoting the business and its prod- A. Net income statement
ucts?
A. Executive agend B. Net worth statement
B. Business description C. Statement of ownership equity

C. Marketing plan D. Statement of cash flows
D. Financial plan
160. to be a transformation young leader is
155. The net income statement is also known my aims
as which of the following?
A. vision
A. Profit and loss statement
B. mission
B. Personal financial statement
C. Statement of cash flows C. goal
D. Balance sheet D. strategic

161. dividing total job into specific job, design 166. Move finished goods from one business
connecting, span of control, are to another, also known as the “middle-
men”

A. planning
A. Processors
B. organizing
B. Manufacturers
C. leading
C. Producers
D. controlling
D. Intermediaries
162. Which of the following is NOT a factor 167. An Exploratory/Foundational SAE:
that affects demand?
A. requires a small time investment from
A. Desire to purchase the student (short-term project)
B. Weather B. requires little to no monetary ($) in-
C. Quantity available and price vestment from the student
C. helps students explore the world of
D. Population growth
agriculture and potential careers
163. Liquidity is the same as what financial D. all of these are true of Exploratory
term? SAEs
A. Current 168. What type of business is expensive to set
B. Non-current up, but has no personal liability?
C. Asset A. sole proprietorship

B. corporation
D. Liability
C. LLC
164. What government owned credit source D. partnership
provides loans for specific crops like grain
and peanuts? 169. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
A. Commodity Credit Corporation ple of a liability?
A. Equipment loans
B. Fannie Mae
B. Feed store bills
C. Farmers Home Administration
C. Car loans
D. Freddie Mac
D. Feed
165. Agricultural marketing is a series of inter- 170. LDP stands for:
connected activities such as planning pro-
duction, growing and harvesting, grading, A. Loan Deficiency Payment
packing, transport, storage, agro- and B. Leader Development Program
distribution and sale
C. Less Demand for products
A. food chemistry D. Lower Demand for Programs
B. food microbiology
171. Agriculture accounts for what percentage
C. food processing of child labor worldwide?
D. nutrition A. 50%

B. 60% C. Debt due within 2 months

C. 70% D. Debt due within 1 week
D. 80%
177. In the long run, a farm business manager
172. Which management style is when the should try to cover:
leader dictates and controls all decisions
A. fixed costs
in the job?
B. total costs
A. Authoritative style
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pacesetting style C. all costs
C. Coaching style D. variable costs

D. Affiliate style 178. When evaluating records liquidity is a
173. Cattle on feed should be marketed when key element of determining the true finan-
cial picture of an agribusiness. In terms
A. they have reached their maximum of cash dollars which liquidity measure
weight gives the greatest indication of financial
B. their marginal cost of gain is no longer efficiency?
below their selling price A. Working Capital
C. their average cost of gain is no longer
B. Current Ratio
below their selling price
D. their marginal cost of gain is no longer C. Leverage Ratio
below their original purchase price D. Return to Assets
174. Compare implementation or results with 179. The use of a net worth statement can al-
standards low a person to determine such financial
A. planning factors as liquidity and solvency. The over-
B. organizing all equity of a farm firm can be determined
through what calculation from the balance
C. leading sheet?
D. controlling A. Total Assets- Total Liabilities
175. It refers to the ability of the firm to B. Total Current Assets- Total Current Li-
maintain its employees, serve customers abilities
and sustain community relationships in the
C. Net Worth- Total Liabilities
long run.
A. Environmental Sustainability D. Total Farm Liabilities + Net Worth
B. Social Sustainability 180. Which person or component starts and

C. Economic Sustainability ends the Ag Production cycle?
D. none of above A. farmer
176. What is a non-current liability? B. consumer

A. Long-term debt due in 12+ months C. retailer
B. Debt due within 12 months D. harvester

181. Compensation after taxes and other de- A. An employer must provide free hous-
ductions is called ing for all laborers including individuals
that live within a close proximity and could

A. wages
return home each day.
B. credit
B. An employer must have a labor certifi-
C. net income
cate from the Department of Labor before
D. gross income employing H-2A workers.
182. How is net worth calculated? C. Transportation from and back to the
A. Net worth = assets - liabilities country of origin.
B. Net worth = liabilities - assets D. Guaranteed employment for seventy-

five percent of the period specified in the
C. Net worth = net Income - gross In-
work contract.
come
D. Net worth = liabilities + assets 187. Farmers and agribusiness organizations
such as Farm Bureau will often take a pro-
183. The selection of a product or service to be tective stance when it comes to important
sold for profit is called the: issues related to agriculture. For exam-
A. buying function ple each time the Federal Farm Bill is reau-
B. distribution function thorized agricultural groups try to take a
proactive approach to impacting the legis-
C. promoting function lation. Why do groups take this approach?
D. selling function
A. By being proactive this allows for
184. Creating a budget does NOT consist of groups to protect their interests and im-
which of the following? pact the policies that would shape their in-
dustry.
A. Tracking spending
B. Throwing away financial records B. A proactive approach primarily fo-
cuses on working with legislators after
C. Knowing your net income the approval of a bill.
D. Eliminating unnecessary expenses
C. By being proactive a farm organization
185. Which of the following is NOT a type of only focuses on events that would be mi-
farming budget? croeconomic to the overall industry.
A. Enterprise D. Agricultural groups try to influence leg-
B. Whole farm islation to be felt if prices for commodities
are over regulated.
C. Partial
D. Liability 188. Defined as the quantity of a product that
buyers will purchase at a specific given
186. H-2A workers play an important role in price at a given time
the agribusiness sector. These migrant
workers provide a labor force that helps A. Supply
in various aspects of the agricultural indus- B. Demand
try. Which of the following is not a guide-
C. Quantity
line related to H-2A workers in the United
States? D. Service

189. Which of the following is NOT a disadvan- C. training

tage of a sole proprietorship?
D. opportunities
A. Owner has limited skills
B. Harder to raise money 195. What is the owner’s equity?
C. High start-up costs A. Net worth
D. Higher governmental regulations B. Asset
190. What does a market-basis balance sheet
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Liability
measure?
D. Current
A. Measures the liquidation value of a
business
196. a statement where the company aspires
B. measures business’ performance over - appealing to the future as aims, means
time
A. vision
C. Only measures business’ failures
D. Only measures business’ success B. mission
C. strategic
191. Which of the following formulas calcu-
lates net amount? D. goal
A. Revenue - losses
197. A well-known restaurant chain has an
B. Losses - revenues
outbreak of salmonella poisoning from
C. Revenues + net worth tomatoes. Business has declined for the
D. Revenues + losses restaurant chain since the report of the
salmonella. The customer response to this
192. What are the two basic parts of a bud- situation represents economic
get?
A. elasticity
A. Income and expenses
B. Assets and liabilities B. inelasticity
C. Cash and loans C. downturn

D. Savings and bills D. instability
193. To show ownership of cattle what did
198. The most important reason for complete
ranchers perform?
farm financial records should be
A. Tattooing
A. for income tax reporting and to meet
B. Branding the requirement for reporting hired labor
C. Cutting
B. to settle insurance claims
D. Stamping
C. to inform the bank of the success of
194. SWOT analysis involves considering all of the farm business
the following elements EXCEPT
D. to combine with production records to
A. weakness provide information for management deci-
B. strength sion making

199. In terms of marketing a product, what is A. Whole farm budget

a promotion?
B. Enterprise budget

A. a catchy phrase or jingle
C. Partial budget
B. letting people know about goods & ser-
vices in a positive way that will make them D. Cash flow budget
want to buy
204. An example of an Entrepreneurship SAE
C. letting people know about goods & ser- would be:
vices, but not encouraging them to buy it
A. John raises laying hens and sells the
D. feedback via attendance, contribu- eggs to his neighbors
tions, or purchases
B. Jill has a lawn mowing business in her
200. What is the purpose of a cash flow bud- community
get?
C. Jeff raises a garden every summer,
A. To determine if available cash and then uses the produce to can and feed his
earnings will be sufficient to meet expen- family through the winter
ditures
D. All of these are Entrepreneurship SAEs
B. To only include resources which will be
changed 205. The term for “additional pay for a job
C. To summarize expected income, ex- done” is
pense, and profit for an entire farm A. collateral
D. To design a general framework for any
B. commission
farmer to evaluate his operation
C. finance charge
201. Which of the following is true about net
income? D. gross income
A. It is the amount of income after cost of 206. Which of the following is NOT a true
goods are deducted statement concerning budgets?
B. It is also known as “pre tax” A. Are a specific plan on how to spend
C. It raises fees on interest rates and save money
D. It improves credit scores B. Are numerical records which do not
express spending results over a specific
202. Which of the following is a true state- time period
ment?
C. Are a blueprint
A. Budgeting allows for raising interest
rates D. Are used as a planning guide
B. Budgeting allows for impulse buying
207. What is the length of non-current?
C. Budgeting generates a map of finan-
cial practices A. 2 months
D. Budgeting allows for enhanced debt B. 6 months

C. 12+ months
203. Which of the following budgets is usually
prepared on a “per unit” basis? D. 0-12 months

208. Enhances profit opportunities for cattle & A. Oklahoma

beef producers by increasing business and B. Nebraska
creating consumer demand
C. Colorado
D. Texas
B. Farm Bureaus
213. A farmer increases an investment in land,
C. National Pork Producers Council building, and equipment to increase the to-
D. The Association of Soil and Water Con- tal units of production. The cost per unit
NARAYAN CHANGDER
servation Districts of production
A. decreases
209. Change raw or processed goods using fa-
cilities such as boot factories, furniture fac- B. increases
tories, cotton processing and citrus fruit C. varies with the operator
processing
D. remains the same
A. Producers
214. When an agribusiness enterprise produce
B. Processors beyond family consumption to have mar-
C. Manufacturers ketable surplus, it is called as
D. Intermediaries A. Consumer oriented
B. Profit oriented
210. Assume that the cross-price elasticity of
pork for chicken is 1.2. This cross-price C. Market oriented
elasticity indicates that: D. none of above
A. pork and chicken are complementary 215. Which of the following requires appli-
goods cants to qualify?
B. there is no relationship between the A. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
demand for pork and the price of chicken
B. Child Law for Agricultural Employment
C. a 1.2 percent increase in the price of C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural
chicken will lead to a 1 percent increase Worker Protection Act
in the price of pork
D. H-2A Program
D. a 10 percent increase in the price of
check should lead to a 12 percent increase 216. Which of the following is a subsidiary
in the demand for pork ledger for specific inventory?
A. Liability record
211. It is occupational cluster, which focuses
in creating and going into business in agri- B. Expense report
culture. C. Stock record
A. Agriculture D. Stock entry
B. Agribusiness 217. What law refers to the amount of profit
C. Economics generated by additional inputs (i.e.., at
what point does the cost of adding more
D. none of above
fertilizer outweigh the benefit of getting
212. What is the top state for Beef Cattle pro- a higher yield)?
duction? A. Law of Diminishing Returns

B. Law of Comparative Advantage 223. Where do food retailers (grocery stores)

C. Law of Opportunity Costs primarily purchase their food?

A. food stores
D. Law of Resource Substitution
B. farm outlets
218. Which of the following is NOT a reason C. food cooperatives
for budgeting?
D. food wholesalers
A. Provides company or personal finan-
cial stability 224. What is the major reason agribusinesses
fail?
B. Generates a map of financial practices
A. poor management
C. Guides efficient business decisions
B. death of the manager
D. Allows companies to spend as much
money as they want C. labor problems
D. lack of capital
219. What is the name of the one page sum-
mary of information about a job applicant? 225. What is an asset?
A. resume A. What you own
B. interest survey B. What you owe

C. Prize possession
C. job application
D. none of above
D. letter of recommendation
226. Why should a person know what their
220. The first major discovery of oil was lo- business is worth?
cated at
A. To sell the business right away
A. Spindletop
B. To evaluate the financial health of the
B. Houston business
C. Texas City C. To keep others from stealing the pro-
D. Dallas duce
D. To keep business at a consistent level
221. What are the 2 basic parts of a budget?
227. What is an example of a current liability?
A. Income and expenses
A. Credit Card Bill
B. Assets and liabilities
B. Property mortgage
C. Cash and loans
C. Trailer
D. Savings and bills
D. Tractor
222. About what percentage of your food dol- 228. Which of the following is NOT a factor
lars goes back to the farmer? that price is determined by?
A. 20% A. Supply of the item
B. 35% B. Demand of the item
C. 15% C. Time the item has been manufactured
D. 30% D. General price level

229. Which of the following should serve as 234. What causes change in demand?
a detailed outline of the company and con- A. income
vince the audience to read the rest of the
business plan? B. tastes
C. competing products
A. Executive summary
D. all of these can cause change in de-
B. Business description
mand
C. Marketing plan
235. Which of the following is the least com-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Financial plan mon form of business organization?
230. Which of the following is an inventory A. Sole proprietorship
method which requires a business to iden- B. Parternship
tify each good with the good’s cost of
C. Corporation
goods sold?
D. Franchise
A. LIFO
B. FIFO 236. What does economy mean?
A. The wealth and resources of a nation
C. Average
and how they are managed.
D. Specific Identification
B. A risk-taking business person
231. The price of beef goes up in the grocery C. Money, wealth, power
store due to a shortage of beef production D. Country’s power standing.
in the country. This represents the eco-
nomic concept of 237. Which economic factors determine the
price a producer receives for his or her
A. supply and demand
products?
B. inelasticity
A. supply and demand
C. elasticity
B. amount invested in the crop
D. inflation C. futures market
232. What is Preston County’s top agricultural D. breakeven prices
commodity?
238. Which of the following accounts is cre-
A. beef ated when production labor costs are
B. corn recorded?
A. Overhead cost pool
C. hay
B. Wages expense
D. buckwheat
C. Raw materials inventory
233. Which is not a function of managers? D. Merchandise inventory
A. actuating
B. controlling and evaluating partial budgeting?
C. organizing people and resources A. Totaling acres
D. setting policy B. Crop enterprise budget

C. Helping the operator analyze impor- 242. Companies that are serious about health
tant adjustments in the farm operation initiatives who implement exercises and
weight reduction programs for employees

D. Deciding what crop to plant on a small
plot A. decrease the price of health insurance
240. What are the 4 types of SAEs? B. increase the amount of employee re-
sentment
A. Entrepreneurship, Internship, Leader-
ship, Exploratory C. increase the number of sick leave days
taken by employees
B. Production, Livestock, Plants, Technol-
ogy D. increase the price of health insurance
C. Entrepreneurship, Placement, Re- 243. The federal government subsidizes the

search, Exploratory/Foundational cost of insurance that covers the loss of
D. Production, Placement, Agriscience, revenue to a farmer as a result of:
Internship A. Damage to a crop due to severe
drought.
241. Which type of business is inexpensive to
set up, but has personal liability? B. Higher costs for distributing and mar-
keting a product.
A. sole proprietorship
C. A drop in prices due to oversupply of a
B. corporation commodity.
C. LLC D. Lower prices due to competition with
D. sub-chapter S corporation foreign producers.

10. Veterinary Science and Animal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Husbandry
10.1 Veterinary Science

1. Give another name for phalanges. 5. Horses are a source of food (meat and
A. Wrist milk) but more important they were and
are still used for transportation and
B. Ankle
A. pets
C. Kneecap
B. housing
D. Toes
C. work (draft work)
2. Porcine stands for D. eating grass
A. Horses
6. List the two bones located in the lower
B. Dogs forelimb.
C. Pigs A. Tibia and fibula
D. Mouse B. Humerus and femur
3. What is it called when the temperature of C. Metacarpals and metatarsals
an animal is below normal? D. Radius and ulna
A. shock
7. Bone marrow produces
B. inspiration
A. Blood cells
C. hypothermia
B. Periosteum
D. expiration
C. Calcium and phosphorus
4. The most important nutrient is D. Spongy bone
A. protein 8. What type of plague occurs when the bac-
B. fat or oil teria enters the lymphatic system?
C. water A. Bubonic plague
D. carbohydrates B. Cutaneous plague

10.1 Veterinary Science 1357
C. Inhalation plague 14. A dog weighing 88 lbs requires a dose of

D. Septicemic plague Simplicef at at 5mg/kg. The tablets are
available in 100 mg per tablet. How many

9. Reports critical patient information to a tablets will you give?
veterinary technician. A. 1 tablet
A. Groomers B. 1.5 tablets
B. Veterinary technicians C. 2 tablets
C. Kennel Assistants D. 2.5 tablets
D. Veterinary Assistants
15. Sheep tails are removed in order to:
10. Complete authority over the facility which A. Limit disease
means they are in charge of paying the fa-
cilities bills, setting budgets for the facility, B. Spread disease
planning events and creates structure. C. Sell them
A. Hospital administrators D. Eat them
B. Vet techs 16. The removal of female sex organs is
C. Groomers known as:
D. Vet tech specialist A. Castration
11. Which organ system identifies foreign B. Neuter
agents and protects us from infections? C. Spay
A. cardiovascular D. Surgery
B. endocrine 17. Which of the following bones is part of the
C. excretory axial skeleton?
D. immune A. Sternum
12. How does the sagittal plane divide the B. Scapula
body? C. Femur
A. front from back D. Pelvis
B. left side from right side 18. What direction is cranial?
C. head from tail A. towards the tail
D. none of above B. towards the stomach or chest
13. A Veterinarian orders Amoxicillin for a C. towards the head
110 lb dog. The dose is 5 mg/kg. The D. towards the vertebrae
Amoxicillin is available in 250 mg tablets.
How many tablets will you give in one 19. Which of these is the scientific name for
dose? hookworm?
A. 1 tablet A. Dipylidium Caninum
B. 2 tablets B. Toxocara Canis
C. 1.5 tablets C. Ancylostoma Caninum
D. 2.5 tablets D. None of these

20. The Yersinia pestis bacteria causes what B. grain

disease? C. a diet
A. Ringworm D. a ration
B. Plague
26. Which type of plague is contagious be-
C. Rabies tween humans?
D. Hantavirus A. Bubonic plague
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. They keep the entire team working to- B. Septicemic plague
gether and report back to the hospital man- C. Cutaneous plague
ager.
D. Pneumonic plague
A. Office manager
27. Poly- is the prefix for
B. Practice manager
A. Many
C. Vet technologist
B. One
D. Vet assistant
C. Around
22. Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all
D. After
have similar arm bones. What is the rea-
son for this? 28. Peter the barn cat developed a nasty ab-
A. The function of these bones is the scess on his leg. After looking at the
same in all animals wound, the veterinarian prescribed Clava-
mox BID for 10 days. The dosage is 25
B. They live in similar environments
mg/kg twice a day. The concentration of
C. They have a common ancestor Clavamox is 50 mg/mL. If Peter weighs
D. All organisms resemble humans 12 lbs, how many mL of Clavamox should
be dispensed?
23. The medical abbreviation for immediately
A. 54.5 mL
is:
B. 2.7 mL
A. Stat
C. 30.1 mL
B. Now
D. 70 mL
C. Pronto
D. Immediatamente 29. Dehorning is the process of:
A. Removing their head
24. An immature male of the equine species:
B. Removing the horns
A. Stallion
C. Removing the tail
B. Colt
D. Removing an ear
C. Mare
D. Foal 30. Anesthesia is the processes of
A. Putting an animal to sleep for surgery
25. The process of providing or obtaining the
nutrients necessary for health and growth B. Killing an animal
C. Causing the animal pain
A. nutrition D. Eating the animal

31. The pigs left ear represents the 37. Swine are descended from two wild stock.
A. Litter number One is the Sus vittatus (East Indian wild
pig) and

B. Individual pig number
A. Sus cofra (South American wild boar)
C. Day of birth
B. Sus scrofa (European wild boar)
D. Gender
C. Sus Africa (African wild boar)
32. ot/o is the root for D. Sus dr sues (American wild boar)
A. Brain
38. The composition of the feed, the feedstuffs
B. Ears and the manufacturers location
C. Teeth A. is listed at the store
D. Thorax B. is listed on the feed sack
33. Where are the lumbar vertebra located? C. is listed on the feed tag
A. Neck D. is not be listed anywhere
B. Rib cage 39. They take care of calls, receives money,
C. Lower back helps the staff, and greets customers.
D. Pelvis A. Vet assistant
B. Vet tech specialist
34. The is a thin connective tissue that cov-
ers bones. C. Office manager
A. Epiphysis D. Receptionist
B. Diaphysis 40. Veterinary science studies what aspect of

animals?
C. Medullary cavity
A. Habitat
D. Periosteum
B. Predators
35. Which system is in charge of transmitting
C. Disease
signals to the body and operates basic
functions like breathing and digestion? D. Herbivores
A. cardiovascular 41. This method of dehorning uses a hot iron
B. digestive or electrical cauterization.
C. neurologic A. Caustic
D. endocrine B. Guillotine Shears

C. Horn Scoop
36. This term refers to a collection of pus (dead
D. Heat disbudding
white blood cells) that has accumulated in
a cavity formed by the tissue due to an 42. Turkeys are named after the country
infection or other foreign material. Turkey. But likely originate in
A. Abscess A. Asia
B. Slab B. Canada
C. Antigen C. Africa
D. Bruise D. Mexico and North America

43. Calcium and phosphorus are found in the C. Practice managers

bone as crystals of: D. student
A. Collagen fibers
49. They bath, clip nails, and trim hair of ani-
B. Hydroxyapatite mals.
C. Osteoclasts A. Groomers
D. Bone matrix B. Kennel Assistants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vet Tech Specialist
monogastric? D. Vet assistant
A. Deer
50. A balanced (nutrients) portion of feed
B. steer given an animal each feeding is called
C. lamb A. a diet
D. horse B. a ration
45. Which nutrient provides amino acids and C. feed
nitrogen for maximum growth and liveli- D. food
hood?
A. Carbohydrate 51. Hypo- is the prefix for
B. Nucleic Acid A. Abnormally high
C. Protein B. Abnormally low
D. Fats and oils C. Excessively fast

D. Excessively slow
46. They analyze lab data, evaluate animals,
and assist veterinarians, and collect sam- 52. A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nu-
ples trients to an animal is
A. Vet technician A. feed
B. Vet assistant B. a diet
C. Veterinarian C. food
D. Vet specialist D. a ration
47. Which type of bone cell is responsible for 53. Which of the following terms means near
maintaining the bone matrix? the tail?
A. Osteoblasts A. cranial
B. Osteocytes B. caudal
C. Osteoclasts C. proximal
D. none of above D. rostral
48. They help at the front staff and make sure 54. Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of
everything is going well. feed for
A. Office Managers A. cattle
B. Receptionists B. horses

C. sheep and goats 60. Equus is latin for

D. dogs and cats A. Horses

B. Dogs
55. The rabies virus is most commonly trans-
ferred through what? C. Pigs
A. Saliva D. Mouse
B. Plant material 61. A continuous suture has how many knots?
C. Air A. 2
D. Food B. 1
56. The pigs right ear represents the pigs C. 100

D. As many as necessary
A. Litter number
B. Individual pig number 62. Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are
usually fed to provide
C. Day of birth
A. carbohydrates
D. Gender
B. fat
57. What is the average heart rate/pulse for C. oil
a cat?
D. protein
A. 120-130bpm
B. 120-140bpm 63. Canine stands for
A. Birds
C. 110-130bpm
B. Dogs
D. 32-42bpm
C. Cats
58. An 11 pound cat is being prescribed Amoxi-
D. Mouse
cillin at 50 mg/kg. The Amoxicillin is avail-
able in 100 mg tablets. How many tablets 64. Zeus bit Zack on the foot. After looking
will you give? at the wound the doctor prescribed Zack
A. 1.5 tablets antibiotic BID for 10 days. The dosage is
5 mg/lb twice a day. If Zack weighs 45
B. 2 tablets kg how many 500 mg capsules should be
C. 2.5 tablets dispensed?
D. 3 tablets A. 10 tablets
B. 15 tablets
59. This method of castration uses small rub-
ber rings to cut off the circulation to the C. 20 tablets
testicles: D. 25 tablets
A. Surgical cutting method
65. There are two main genera of cattle. One
B. Burdizzo is Bos taurus (taurine cattle) and
C. Emasculator A. Bos africus
D. Banding B. Bos mississippus

C. Bos indicus (indicine cattle from the In- 71. An otherwise health vet tech, Anna is
dus River) bitten by a 2-year-old mixed breed dog,
“Tow Tow, “ while restraining her for a
D. Bos californicus
pedicure. The bite does not cause severe
tissue damage, but the canine teeth pen-
66. -logyis the suffix for?
etrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow
A. Cell Tow is currently on all his vaccinations in-
B. Tumor cluding rabies. He lives primarily in the
backyard of his owner’s suburban home.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Breathing What is the best, first action Anna should
D. Study of take following the bite?
A. Tell a coworker about it, but take no
67. Any animal we raise for the purpose of more action regarding the incident
eating, or deriving some other value out
B. Wash the wound immediately with
of is called
soap and water, then with povidone-
A. Pets iodine, and follow with a thorough irriga-
tion with water, then inform the veterinar-
B. Livestock
ian or office manager.
C. Exotic C. Ignore the bite until she has time to
D. Scientific wash it, even though this may not be for a
few hours. Once there is time, also inform
68. Unlike exocrine glands, endocrine glands the veterinarian or office manager.
D. Wait until she gets home and clean
A. are ductless the wound, without notifying the veteri-
narian because she fears she will be rep-
B. have ducts rimanded.
C. do not secrete hormones
72. Where is the most accurate place to read
D. do not secrete directly into the blood. an animal’s temperature?
A. mouth
69. Dent/o is the root for
B. ear
A. Brain
C. belly
B. Ears
D. rectally
C. Teeth
73. The bones of the tail are called:
D. Thorax
A. Gluteals
70. Which of the following is defined as la- B. Alveoli
bored breathing?
C. External abdominal oblique
A. dsypnea D. Coccygeal vertebrae
B. anemia
74. Which of the following is the meaning for
C. hypothermia the abbreviation, TID?
D. shock A. Once a Day

B. Every other day 79. A bony structure that distinguishes most

C. Three times a day laboratory animals as vertebrates is the

D. Four times a day
A. Cranium
75. What does the Kennel Assistant do? B. Tailbone
A. Keep patients clean and notice C. Vertebral column
changes in behavior D. Dorsal nervous system
B. Reports critical patient info to a vet.
80. Rx is the abbreviation for:
tech
A. Prescription
C. Perform technical skills to care for pa-
tients and satisfy clients B. Heart Rate
C. Red Blood Cell
D. Keep the entire team working together
and report to hospital manager D. Dead on Arrival
76. The hollow center of the long bone is called 81. The phalanges are the
the A. Fingers
A. Epiphysis b. B. Pelvis
B. Diaphysis C. Ankle
C. Medullary cavity D. Shoulder
D. Periosteum 82. A 33 pound dog needs 100 mg/kg of med-

ication that comes in tablets of 500 mg.
77. A vet in a critical care unit determines that How many tablets do you give?
one calf was given the following intra- A. 1.5 tablets
venous solutions in a 24 hour period:745
mL of .9% normal saline, 420 mL of lac- B. 2 tablets
tated ringers, 1, 250 mL of 5% dextrose, C. 3 tablets
and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution. How D. 4 tablets
many total mL of IV solution did the pa-
tient receive? 83. Which of the following is an example of a
long bone?
A. 2430 mL
A. Scapula
B. 3430 mL
B. Mandible
C. 4430 mL
C. Carpal bones
D. 1430 mL
D. Femur
78. Pelleting, hammering, roller milling and 84. The technique used to veterinarians to pre-
steam flaking are examples of pare themselves before surgery is:
A. extrusion A. Sterilization Technique
B. processing B. Hand Washing Technique
C. rations C. Aseptic Technique
D. diets D. Gloving Technique

85. The abbreviation for Intensive Care Unit C. 100

is: D. As many as necessary
A. IDU
91. This surgical procedure is used to improve
B. IKU meat qualities and control breeding:
C. ICU A. Dehorning
D. IDK B. Castration
86. A simple definition of Domestication is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Docking
A. selecting animals with desirable char- D. Suturing
acteristics and breeding them
92. Fat soluble vitamins are
B. one that lives in the wild but is de-
scended from domesticated specimens. A. B and C
C. the process of converting feed into B. zinc and copper

food (meat) C. calcium and potassium
D. to adapt the behavior of an animal to D. A, D, E and K
fit the needs of people
93. Dried bone consists of % inorganic and
87. Avis the latin for % organic materials.
A. Birds A. 70% and 30%
B. Sheep B. 60% and 40%
C. Cattle C. 80% and 20%
D. Rats D. none of above
88. Which nutrient is the major source of en- 94. A sunburn (which animals can suffer from)
ergy for animals? might be an example of a..
A. carbohydrate A. 1st degree burn
B. nucleic acid B. 2nd degree burn
C. protein C. 3rd degree burn
D. fat D. 4th degree burn
89. What is the average temperature for both 95. Horses evolved from a tiny four-toed an-
cats and dogs? cestor called
A. 98-100 A. Draft
B. 99-104 B. Morgan
C. 97-101 C. DeSoto
D. 99-102 D. Eohippus (dawn horse)
90. An interrupted suture has how many 96. What molecule directly provides stimula-
knots? tion and growth of bone and cartilage?
A. 2 A. Vitamin D
B. 1 B. Somatotropin

C. Somatomedin C. endocrine
D. Thyroxine D. skeletal

97. Modern goats come from the Pasang (Per- 103. In charge of of bills, budgets, planning
sian Ibex) also close related to the events, and creating structure for the prac-
A. Bezoar Ibex tice.
B. Mouflons A. Practice Manager
C. Wild bighorn sheep B. Veterinarian assistant
D. Asiatic Urial C. Hospital Manager
98. They diagnose the animals, perform D. Kennel Assistant
surgery, and they care for the animal .
A. Veterinarian 104. Poultry rely on a , a strong muscular
organ that may contain grit, to grind their
B. Vet technician food.
C. Vet assisting A. Gizzard
D. Practice manager
B. Gosling
99. Bird wings and butterfly wings are an ex- C. Gaggle
ample of
D. Gander
A. Homologous structure
B. Analogous structure 105. The vascular layer of the skin is the
C. Mimicry A. Dermis
D. Camouflage B. Epidermis
100. Define Dysotomy C. Hypodermis
A. Difficulty looking at the ear D. Stratum basale
B. Difficulty cutting into the ear
106. Which of the following prefixes means
C. Difficulty seeing the ear “above”?
D. Difficulty listening A. sub
101. What is fed to provide amino acids, but B. supra
generally not used to provide energy?
C. peri
A. carbohydrates
D. post
B. fats
C. protein 107. This method of castration crushes the
spermatic cord while also cutting it:
D. nutrients
A. Surgical cutting method
102. Which organ system removes waste
from the body? B. Burdizzo
A. excretory C. Emasculator
B. cardiovascular D. Banding

10.2 Animal Husbandry 1366
108. Which of the following terms means 112. A cat weighing 8.8 lbs needs insulin at
“NEAR the center of the body”? 1.5 IU per kg. The insulin comes in a
A. proximal strength of 10 IU per mL. How much in-
sulin will you give?
B. caudal
A. 0.3 mL
C. ventral
B. 0.6 mL
D. saggital
C. 0.8 mL
NARAYAN CHANGDER
109. A 11 lb cat needs an antibiotic at a D. 1 mL
dose of 15 mg/kg. The antibiotic comes
in liquid form at a concentration of 125 113. Our modern sheep are descended from
mg/5mL. How many mL do you give? possibly three different sources. The most
A. 5 mL popular one is
B. 3 mL A. Mouflons
C. 7 mL B. Zebras
D. 2.5 mL C. Mountain goats

D. Bighorn sheep
110. For every pound of feed consumed by the
animal 114. Which of the following systems is made
A. two to five pounds of water will be con- up of the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi,
sumed and lungs?
B. six to nine pounds of water will be con- A. Integumentary

sumed B. respiratory
C. 10-14 pounds of water will be con- C. digestive
sumed D. endocrine
D. 15 - 18 pounds of water will be con-
sumed 115. What does the word ethics mean?
A. no rules at all
111. Which of the following is a word which
has two or more roots? B. moral principles that govern a per-
son’s behavior or the conducting of an ac-
A. compound word tivity
B. root word C. a set of rules for everyone
C. combining word D. being inappropriate in behavior or in
D. prefix conducting an activity
10.2 Animal Husbandry

1. What are the food requirements for cat- C. None of these
tle?
D. Milk producing requirements
A. Both b and d
2. Which of the following are exotic breeds?
B. Maintenance requirement (i) Brawn (ii) Jersey (iii) Brown Swiss (iv)

Jersey Swiss 8. To solve the food problem of the country,

A. (i) and (iii) which among the following is necessary?

B. (ii) and (iii) A. Increased production and storage of
food grains
C. (i) and (iv)
B. Easy access of people to the food grain
D. (ii) and (iv)
C. People should have money to purchase
3. What is another name for aquatic hus- the grains
bandry
D. All of the above
A. Horticulture
B. Sericulture 9. Cattle husbandry is done for the follow-
ing purposes (i) Milk Production (ii) Agri-
C. Pisciculture cultural work (iii) Meat production (iv) Egg
D. None of the above production
4. what is the common cause of human in- A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
jury? B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
A. failure to use protective gear C. (iii) and (iv)
B. being to protective D. (i) and (iv)
C. being to contentious
10. Proper animal handling facilities should in-
D. non of the above
clude
5. animals attack humans when? A. small spaces for animals
A. fed B. poor lighting
B. petted C. faulty equipment
C. left alone
D. safe footing
D. provoked out of fear
11. As Suzy vaccinates her dairy herd, the
6. Animal husbandry is the scientific manage- piece of equipment she most likely will not
ment of (i) animal breeding (ii) culture of use is a
animals (iii) animal livestock (iv) rearing
of animals A. headgate
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) B. halter

B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) C. squeeze chute
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. muzzle
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) 12. Animals typically do not attack humans un-
7. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of less or out of
A. Marine fishes A. provoked, fear
B. Fresh-water fishes B. scared, control
C. Finned fishes C. shy, fear
D. Shell fish D. provoked, love

13. Animals will move away in fright when 19. What are common causes of injuries
handlers caused by animals?
A. make loud noises A. poor judgement, and improper training
B. walk towards the animals B. Knowing exactly what to do
C. wear boots and gloves C. pushing the animals
D. turn on the barn lights D. yelling
20. Which of the following are Indian cattle?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. witch is not a sign of suspicion or they are
scared (i) Bos indicus (ii) Bos domestica (iii) Bos
A. head raised bubalis (iv) Bos vulgaris
B. wide eyes A. (i) and (iii)

B. (i) and (ii)
C. ear positions
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. laid down
D. (iii) and (iv)
15. Animal husbandry is the scientific manage-
ment of 21. As Charlie approaches the herd, several an-
imals have wide eyes, flaring nostrils, and
A. (i) Feeding of animals
tense muscles. These are indications that
B. (ii) Breeding of animals the animals are
C. (iii) animal livestock A. happy
D. (iv) All of the above B. scared
16. Excessive noise animals. C. interested
A. pleases D. lethargic
B. scares 22. Rohu and catla are types of
C. encourages A. Freshwater fish
D. confuses B. Marine water fish
17. Carlos walks through his sheep herd daily C. Both I and II
to D. None of these
A. improve genetics of the flock
23. Apiculture involves
B. acclimate the animals to human con- A. Rearing and management of bees.
tact
B. Rearing and management of fish
C. check for weather conditions
C. Rearing and management of wild ani-
D. deworm the animals mals
18. Eggs provide us D. Rearing and management of hens
A. Proteins 24. Which one of the following fishes is a sur-
B. Carbohydrates face feeder?
C. Vitamins A. Rohus
D. None of these B. Mrigals

C. Common carps 30. Poultry farming is undertaken to raise do-

mestic fowls for and
D. Catlas

A. Egg and Meat Production
25. Pasturage is related to B. Meat and Milk Production
A. Cattle C. Milk and Egg Production
B. Fishery D. none of above
C. Apiculture 31. Why should you use caution when you ap-
D. Sericulture proach a cow and newborn calf
A. if the calf gets scared it could easily die
26. What piece of equipment makes it easier
B. calves can get infectious diseases for
to vaccinate large animals such as cows?
the first 24 hours
A. water hose
C. The cow might become aggressive pro-
B. tractor tecting her newborn calf
C. Squeeze chute D. the cow will be less likely to produce
milk if she is scared after giving birth
D. air horn
32. what is a human error?
27. Poultry farming is undertaken to raise fol-
A. beating animals
lowing (i) Egg production (ii) Feather pro-
duction (iii) Chicken meat (iv) Milk produc- B. poor judgment
tion C. scaring animal
A. (i) and (iii) D. pushing animal
B. (i) and (ii) 33. The place where bees are reared are called
C. (ii) and (iii) A. Apiary
D. (iii) and (iv) B. Apiculturing
C. Bee wax
28. Layers are fed in food rich with
D. Bee hives
A. Protein
34. Which one of the following is an exotic
B. Vitamin a and k breed?
C. Fiber A. Red sindhi
D. Fat B. Jersey
C. Sahiwal
29. The imaginary circle around an animal that
causes them to move away when a human D. None of the above
enters the circle is the
35. Facilities must?
A. stop zone A. have a safe interment
B. flight zone B. not care about employees
C. headgate C. under pay employees
D. contact zone D. ignore employees

36. Cultivation of fishes in artificially prepared 42. The management and production of fish is
ponds or water bodies is called as called
A. Aquaculture A. Pisciculture
B. Vermiculture B. Apiculture
C. Pisciculture C. Sericulture
D. Agriculture D. Aquaculture
37. Agricultural chemicals used at a livestock
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. Which of the following is a fungus disease
operation should not have
causing maximum deaths of poultry birds?
A. proper labels
A. Pullorum
B. material safety data sheets
B. Coryza
C. trained workers
C. Rickets
D. colored storage containers
D. Aspergillosis
38. Signs such as an animal raising its’ head,
widening its’ eyes, flaring its’ nostrils, 44. Birds grown for is called layers.
tensing its’ muscles, and moving its’ ears
A. Meat production
are signs that an animal is
B. Egg production
A. mad
B. thinking deeply C. None of these
C. happy D. Milk Production

D. scared 45. Animals remember experiences.
39. A common cause of human injury when A. amazing
working with livestock animals is B. negative
A. certified employees
C. positive
B. wearing PPE
D. mediocre
C. proper ventilation
D. improper training 46. What must be placed with stored chemi-
cals?
40. loud noises
A. Directions to use it
A. scare animals
B. Safety sheet
B. comfort animals
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
C. make animals pass out
D. A cotton ball to absorb leaks
D. do nothing to animals
41. Leghorn is related to 47. chimerical s must be?
A. Apiculture A. be labeled
B. Dairy farming B. left out
C. Pisciculture C. thrown away
D. Poultry D. dumped out

48. The imaginary circle that surrounds an ani- 52. Which one of the following species of hon-
mal or herd, that if penetrated the animals eybee is an Italian species?
will react in an unpleasant way, is known

A. Apis dorsata
as?
B. Apis florae
A. flight zone
B. My space C. Apis mellifera
C. Margin of error D. Apis cerana indica

D. run zone 53. What are the consequences for not wear-
ing PPE?
49. As Doug approaches a cow and her new-
born calf, what signs does he watch for to A. You don’t get hurt
indicate the cow is upset B. Injuries occur from slippery floors,
A. chewing the cud dusty conditions, etc
B. head raised C. Animals will not like you
C. licking the calf D. You will rip your pants
D. relaxed muscles
54. Poultry fowl are susceptible to the follow-
50. What is the correct definition of a layer? ing pathogens
A. A mature female chicken that pro- A. Viruses
duces eggs.
B. Bacteria
B. A young female chicken
C. Fungi
C. A chicken that is raised for meat con-
sumption D. All of the above
D. All of the above 55. Cattle Husbandry is done for the follow-
51. Domesticated animals of different breed ing purposes:(1) Milk Production (2) Agri-
kept in an agricultural land for the bene- cultural Work(3) Meat Production (4) Egg
fit of human beings Production
A. Livestock A. and (2)

B. Poultry B. , (3) and (4)
C. Cattle C. and (4)
D. Animal stock D. and (4)

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