SE Question Bank

You might also like

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 25

THE YENEPOYA INSTITUTE OF ARTS, SCIENCE, COMMERCE AND MANAGEMENT

A Constituent unit of Yenepoya (Deemed to be University)

BCS401 - IV Semester BCA (Big Data Analytics and Cloud Computing)

DC0IRM-4CI - IV Semester BCA (Robotics, Machine Learning & Aritificial Intelligence)

DC0ICF-4C1 - IV Semester BCA (Cyber Forensic, Data Analytics & Cyber Security)

Software Engineering – Question Bank

1. Software is defined as ___________


a) set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
b) set of programs
c) documentation and configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a) set of programs, documentation & configuration of data

2. What is Software Engineering?


a) Designing a software
b) Testing a software
c) Application of engineering principles to the design a software
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Application of engineering principles to the design a software

3. Who is the father of Software Engineering?


a) Margaret Hamilton
b) Watts S. Humphrey
c) Alan Turing
d) Boris Bezier
Ans: b) Watts S. Humphrey

4. What are the features of Software Code?


a) Simplicity
b) Accessibility
c) Modularity
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Modularity

5. ____________ is a software development activity that is not a part of software processes.


a) Validation
b) Specification
c) Development
d) Dependence
Ans: d) Dependence
6. CASE stands for
a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering
b) Control Aided Science and Engineering
c) Cost Aided System Experiments
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering

7. ________ is defined as the process of generating analysis and designing documents?


a) Re-engineering
b) Reverse engineering
c) Software re-engineering
d) Science and engineering
Ans: b) Reverse engineering

8. The activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating
the effort to specific software developing tasks is ____________
a) Project scheduling
b) Detailed schedule
c) Macroscopic schedule
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a) Project scheduling

9. What is a Functional Requirement?


a) specifies the tasks the program must complete
b) specifies the tasks the program should not complete
c) specifies the tasks the program must not work
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a) specifies the tasks the program must complete

10. Why do bugs and failures occur in software?


a) Because of Developers
b) Because of companies
c) Because of both companies and Developers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Because of both companies and Developers

11. Attributes of good software is ____________


a) Development
b) Maintainability & functionality
c) Functionality
d) Maintainability
Ans: b) Maintainability & functionality

12. What does SDLC stands for?


a) System Design Life Cycle
b) Software Design Life Cycle
c) Software Development Life Cycle
d) System Development Life cycle
Ans: c) Software Development Life Cycle

13. Who proposed the spiral model?


a) Barry Boehm
b) Pressman
c) Royce
d) IBM
Ans: a) Barry Boehm

14. . Which of the following are CASE tools?


a) Central Repository
b) Integrated Case Tools
c) Upper Case Tools
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d) All of the mentioned

15. Software patch is defined as ______________


a) Daily or routine Fix
b) Required or Critical Fix
c) Emergency Fix
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Emergency Fix

16. __________ software development team has no permanent leader.


a) Controlled Centralized (CC)
b) Controlled decentralized (CD)
c) Democratic decentralized (DD)
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Democratic decentralized (DD)

17. _________ is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software development.
a) Evolution
b) Design and implementation
c) Validation
d) Verification
Ans: d) Verification

18. What are agile manifesto principles?


a) Customer satisfaction
b) Face-to-face communication within a development team
c) Changes in requirements are welcome
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d) All of the mentioned

19. ________ is a software development life cycle model that is chosen if the development team
has less experience on similar projects.
a) Iterative Enhancement Model
b) RAD
c) Spiral
d) Waterfall
Ans: c) Spiral

20. Agile Software Development is based on which of the following type?


a) Iterative Development
b) Incremental Development
c) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
d) Linear Development
Ans: c) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

21. _______________________ is a software developing team has a defined leader who


coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks.
a) Democratic decentralized (DD)
b) Controlled centralized (CC)
c) Controlled decentralized (CD)
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Controlled decentralized (CD)

22. 4GT Model is a set of __________________


a) Programs
b) CASE Tools
c) Software tools
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Software tools

23. Engineers developing software should not


a) be dependent on their colleagues
b) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment
c) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence
d) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers
Ans: a) be dependent on their colleagues

24. __________ is not suitable for accommodating any change?


a) RAD Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Build & Fix Model
d) Prototyping Model
Ans: b) Waterfall Model

25. The model which has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life
cycle model is ________
a) Rad Model
b) Spiral Model
c) 4GT Model
d) Waterfall Model
Ans: c) 4GT Model

26. Adaptive Software Development(ASD) has which of the following three framework activities?
a) speculation, collaboration, learning
b) analysis, design, coding
c) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a) speculation, collaboration, learning

27. Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the
structure of software developing teams?
a) The rigidity of the delivery date
b) The degree of sociability required for the project
c) High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction
among team members
d) The difficulty of the problem to be solved
Ans: b) The degree of sociability required for the project

28. . What is the full form of the “COCOMO” model?


a) Cost Constructive Estimation Model
b) Constructive Cost Estimation Model
c) Constructive Case Estimation Model
d) Constructive Cost Estimating Model
Ans: b) Constructive Cost Estimation Model

29. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?


a) Visibility
b) Timeliness
c) Productivity
d) Portability
Ans: d) Portability

30. Cleanroom software development process complies with the operational analysis principles by
using a method called known as
a) referential transparency
b) degenerative error correction
c) box structure specification
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c) box structure specification

31. What is system software?


a) computer program
b) Testing
c) AI
d) IOT
Ans: a) computer program

32. _____________ is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard
approach for the creation of software documentation.
a) Data/data integration
b) Information sharing
c) Document standardization
d) Data integrity
Ans: c) Document standardization

33. ______________ is an indirect measure of software development process.


a) Cost
b) Effort Applied
c) Efficiency
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c) Efficiency

34. According to an IBM research, “31% of projects are abandoned before they are completed,
53% exceed their cost projections by an average of 189 percent, and 94 projects are restarted
for every 100 projects.” What is the significance of these figures?
a) Lack of software ethics and understanding
b) Management issues in the company
c) Lack of adequate training
d) All of the mentioned
Ans c) Lack of adequate training

35. Which of the following document contains the user system requirements?
a) SRD
b) DDD
c) SDD
d) SRS
Ans: d) SRS

36. _____________ specification is also known as SRS document.


a) white-box
b) grey-box
c) black-box
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c) black-box

37. Which of the following is not a part of Software evolution?


a) Re-engineering activities
b) Maintenance activities
c) Development activities
d) Negotiating with client
Ans: d) Negotiating with client

38. ___________ is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity.


a) Explicit specification of different algorithms
b) Different programming languages
c) Different design methods and tools
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d) All of the mentioned

39. In which step of SDLC actual programming of software code is done?


a) Development and Documentation
b) Maintenance and Evaluation
c) Design
d) Analysis
Ans: a) Development and Documentation

40. Software Debugging is known as _________________


a) identifying the task to be computerized
b) creating program code
c) creating the algorithm
d) finding and correcting errors in the program code
Ans: d) finding and correcting errors in the program code

41. The word which describes the importance of software design is?
a) Complexity
b) Quality
c) Efficiency
d) Accuracy
Ans: b) Quality

42. The incorrect activity among the following for the configuration management of a software
system is ________
a) Version management
b) System management
c) Change management
d) Internship management
Ans: d) Internship management

44.What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?


a) System Design
b) Coding
c) System Testing
d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Ans: d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis

43. What does the study of an existing system refer to?


a) Details of DFD
b) Feasibility Study
c) System Analysis
d) System Planning
Ans: c) System Analysis

44. Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a) Sizing
b) Parallel run
c) Specification freeze
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

45. What does RAD stand for?


a) Rapid Application Document
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Relative Application Development
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Rapid Application Development

47. Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
a) Domain Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Horizontal Prototype
d) Diagonal Prototype
Ans: d) Diagonal Prototype

48. The major drawback of RAD model is __________.


a) It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
b) It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c) It increases the component reusability.
d) Both (a) & (c)
Ans: d) Both (a) & (c)

49. Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?
a) Incremental Model
b) Concurrent Development Model
c) WINWIN Spiral Model
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

50. What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?


a) Higher amount of risk analysis
b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c) Additional functionalities are added later on
d) Strong approval and documentation control
Ans: b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects

51. Model selection is based on __________.


a) Requirements
b) Development team & users
c) Project type & associated risk
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

52. Which of the following option is correct?


a) The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.
b) RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
Ans: c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components

53. Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the
lifecycle?
a) RAD & Waterfall
b) Prototyping & Waterfall
c) Spiral & Prototyping
d) Spiral & RAD
Ans: c) Spiral & Prototyping

54. When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the
desired output?
a) Prototyping & Waterfall
b) Prototyping & RAD
c) Prototyping & Spiral
d) RAD & Spiral
Ans: b) Prototyping & RAD

55. Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an
advanced version of the existing software in the market?
a) Spiral
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) RAD
d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: Both (b) and (c)

56. Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?
a) First Generation Language
b) Second Generation Language
c) Third Generation Language
d) Fourth Generation Language
Ans: d) Fourth Generation Language

57. __________ is identified as fourth generation language.


a) Unix shell
b) C++
c) COBOL
d) FORTRAN
Ans: a) Unix shell

58. The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT.


a) True
b) False
Ans: b) False

59. Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing small-
scale products, programs, and applications?
a) The productivity of software engineers is improved.
b) The time required for developing software is reduced.
c) CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by providing a credible solution to
their problems.
d) None of the above.
Ans: b) The time required for developing software is reduced.

60. Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in
terms of the coding phase?
a) 4GT Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model
d) Spiral Model
Ans: a) 4GT Model

61. Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
a) Firmware, CAD
b) Embedded, CAM
c) Customized, Generic
d) CAD, Embedded
Ans: c) Customized, Generic
62. Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a) True

63. Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
a) Deployment
b) Planning
c) Modelling
d) Construction
Ans: a) Deployment

64. Which of the following refers to internal software equality?


a) Scalability
b) Reusability
c) Reliability
d) Usability
Ans: b) Reusability

65. RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________.


a) Rational Unified Process, IBM
b) Rational Unified Program, IBM
c) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
d) Rational Unified Program, Infosys
Ans: a) Rational Unified Process, IBM

66. The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice.
What is the purpose of static perspective?
a) It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the process.
b) It displays all the enacted process activities.
c) It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time.
d) All of the above.
Ans: b) It displays all the enacted process activities.

67. Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software
engineering?
a) Software Evolution
b) Software Verification
c) Software Testing & Validation
d) Software designing
Ans: b) Software Verification

68. The agile software development model is built based on __________.


a) Linear Development
b) Incremental Development
c) Iterative Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Ans: d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

69. On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development
process?
a) Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
b) Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development
process.
c) Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.

70. Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
a) Producing only the essential work products.
b) Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.
d) All of the above
Ans:c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.

71. Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software
Development (ASD)?
a) Assumption, Association, Learning
b) The investigation, Strategy, Coding
c) Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Assumption, Association, Learning

72. The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behaviour.
a) Object Model
b) Context Model
c) Behavioural Model
d) Data Model
Ans: c) Behavioural Model

73. The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral
model.
a) Diagonal, Perpendicular
b) Perpendicular, Radial
c) Angular, diagonal
d) Radial, Angular
Ans: d) Radial, Angular

74. Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of
legacy systems?
a) Reengineering
b) Forward engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering
Ans: d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering

75. An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged as?
a) System failure
b) Human error or mistake
c) System error
d) System fault
Ans: c) System error

76. What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a problem?
a) An Algorithm
b) A Plan
c) A List
d) Sequential Structure
Ans: a) An Algorithm

77. Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Efficiency
d) Accuracy
Ans: a) Quality

78. Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?


a) Gane and Sarson methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

79_________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).


a) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
b) Functional decomposition
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure

80. What does a directed arc or line signify?


a) Data Flow
b) Data Process
c) Data Stores
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Data Flow

81. What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?
a) Logical File
b) Physical File
c) Data Structure
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

82. __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.


a) Effort
b) Cost
c) Efficiency
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Efficiency

83. What is the main task of project indicators?


a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
b) To evaluate the ongoing project's status.
c) To track potential risks.
d) None of the above
Ans: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.

84. What is the main intent of project metrics?


a) For strategic purposes
b) To minimize the development schedule.
c) To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a
daily basis
Ans: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's
quality on a daily basis

85. Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics data.
a) Function point analysis
b) Control Chart
c) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Control Chart
86. Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost?
a) Hardware and Software Costs
b) Effort Costs
c) Travel and Training Costs
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

87. Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Change management
b) System management
c) Internship management
d) Version management
Ans: c) Internship management

88. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software
functions, which is known as
a) Planning process
b) Decomposition
c) Association
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b) Decomposition

89. Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort
estimation?
a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
b) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort
estimates.
c) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
d) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
Ans: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and
dollars

90. Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a
potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth?
a) Empirical estimation models
b) Decomposition techniques
c) Automated estimation tools
d) Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation tools
Ans: a) Empirical estimation models

91. Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?
a) Costs of lunch time food
b) Costs of support staff
c) Costs of networking and communications
d) Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space
Ans: c) Costs of networking and communications

92. Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing reusable
components, scripts, and database programs?
a) The reuse model
b) An early designed model
c) An application-composition model
d) A post architecture model
Ans: c) An application-composition model

93. Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) COCOMO
b) FP-based estimation
c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
d) Process-based estimation
Ans: c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation

94. Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be established.
Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement?
a) Application composition model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Early design stage model
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Application composition model

95. Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software?
a) Business risks
b) Potential risks
c) Technical risks
d) Known risks
Ans: c) Technical risks

96. Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain the
threats to any project plan?
a) Performance risk
b) Risk identification
c) Risk projection
d) Support risk
Ans: c) Risk projection

97. What are the major activities of the spiral model of software engineering?
a) Planning, Risk Analysis, Engineering, Customer Evaluation
b) Defining, Prototyping, Testing, Delivery
c) Requirements
d) Quick Design, Build Prototype, Evaluate Prototype, Refine Prototype
Ans: a) Planning, Risk Analysis, Engineering, Customer Evaluation

98. Prototyping is appropriate for


a) Data-oriented applications
b) Applications with emphasis on the user interface
c) Applications which are highly interactive
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

99. Software measurement is useful to


a) Indicate quality of the product
b) Track progress
c) Assess productivity
d) All of the above
Ans: b) Track progress
100. Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management
plan?
a) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
b) The techniques and case tools to be used
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) None of the above
Ans: c) The life cycle model to be used

101. Which of the following is a life-cycle concern?


a) Testing
b) Portability
c) Programming
d) Planning
Ans: d) Planning

102. The degree of interaction between two modules is known as


a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
Ans: d) Coupling

103. Which of the following is not viewed as a primary mover in improving the software process?
a) Increased Effectiveness
b) Better Product Quality
c) Improved Staff Satisfaction
d) Tighter managerial control
Ans: d) Tighter managerial control

104. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of __________ coupling.


a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
Ans: c) Control

105 Software engineering is the systematic approach to the


a) Development of software
b) Operation of software
c) Maintenance of software
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

106. In planning a software project one would


a) Find ways to produce results using limited resources
b) Pad the schedule to accommodate errors
c) Overestimate the budget
d) Structure the team to prevent administrative interference
Ans: a) Find ways to produce results using limited resources

107. Software Engineering:


a) Is a set of rules about developing software products
b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production
Ans: d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production

108. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with
each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Risk analysis
Ans: d) Risk analysis

109. The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
Ans: b) Inspection

110. Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on


a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
b) Lines of Code (kLOC)
c) Function Points (FP)
d) Operands and operators
Ans: d) Operands and operators

111. Software configuration activities would not include


a) Identify change
b) Control change
c) Ensure improper implementation of change
d) Report change to interested parties
Ans: c) Ensure improper implementation of change

112. To which software category does Knowledge based system belongs?


a) System software
b) Real time software
c) Embedded software
d) Artificial Intelligent software
Ans: d) Artificial Intelligent software

113. The purpose of earned value analysis is to


a) Determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
b) Provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
c) Provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
d) Set the price point for a software product based on development effort
Ans: b) Provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress

114. Which best captures the nature of the quality paradigm?


a) The Nature of Quality, A Process Perspective, Defect Elimination
b) Process, Product, People, Problem
c) Measurement, Quality Control, Validation
d) Feasibility, Requirements, Economics, Customer’s Needs
Ans: a) The Nature of Quality, A Process Perspective, Defect Elimination

115. The information we need to capture during requirements analysis not include
a) Hiring Authority
b) Communication Paths
c) Synchronization
d) Temporal Dependencies
Ans: a) Hiring Authority

116. Which box specification is not associated with clean-room approach?


a) Black box
b) Clear box
c) State box
d) White box
Ans: d) White Box

117. Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?


a) The speed with which it can be developed
b) The speed with which it can be modified
c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the ‘how not to do it’
variety
Ans: c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs

118. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organizations may be different for the same
application development, because
a) Different organizations consider complexity factors differently
b) Different organizations may use different programming languages
c) Developers’ skills may vary
d) All of the above may be true
Ans: d) All of the above may be true

119. Which of the following is not a ‘concern’ during the management of a software project?
a) Money
b) Time
c) Product quality
d) Product quantity
Ans: d) Product quantity

120. Which of the following is not an objective for building analysis models?
a) Define set of software requirements that can be validated
b) Describe customer requirements
c) Develop a solution for the problem
d) Establish basis for software design
Ans: c) Develop a solution for the problem

121. Which of the following is not a logical layer of the application in client server system?
a) Presentation layer
b) Application layer
c) Data Management layer
d) Programming layer
Ans: d) Programming layer
122 Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

123. Which of the following could be a deliverable for a software system?


a) Source Code
b) Reference Manual
c) Requirements Document
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
124. The entity relationship diagram
a) Depicts relationships between data objects
b) Depicts functions that transform the data flow
c) Indicates how data are transformed by the system
d) Indicates system reactions to external events
Ans: a) Depicts relationships between data objects

125. An example of the risk involved in software development is


a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time
system) may go bankrupt
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
d) All of these are risks involved in software development
Ans: d) All of these are risks involved in software development

126. Internal costs include


a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
Ans: a) Developers salaries

127. The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is


a) Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c)Delivered within budget
d) All of these are the aims of software engineering
Ans: d) All of these are the aims of software engineering

128. What are the factors to be considered when planning a software development effort?
a) Performance, Problem, Product, Planning
b) People, Problem, Product, Process
c) People, Problem, Productivity, Performance
d) People, Problem, Product, Portability
Ans: b) People, Problem, Product, Process

129. Symptoms of the software crisis would include


a) Software delivered behind schedule
b) Software exceeding cost estimate
c) Difficult to maintain
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

130. Which among the following measures how strongly the elements within a module are
related?
a) Coupling
b) Cohesion
c) Aggregation
d) d)Inheritance
e) Ans: b) Cohesion

131. Why do bugs and failures occur in software?


a) Because of Developers
b) Because of companies
c) Because of both companies and Developers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c) Because of both companies and Developers

132. Which is not involved in software development process?


a) People
b) Problem
c) Practice
d) Process
Ans: c) Practice

133. Which of the following is not an area of concern in the design model?
a) Architecture
b) Data design
c) Interfaces design
d) Project scope
Ans: d) Project scope

134. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module


a) Can be written more compactly
b) Focuses on just one thing
c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) Is connected to other modules
Ans: d) Is connected to other modules

135. Which of the following is true for a thin-client?


a) Processes application logic
b) Performs data management task
c) Places heavy processing load on the server
d) Makes use of processing power of the client
Ans: c) Places heavy processing load on the server

136. The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is
referred to as the waterfall model. Which phase defined as “The concept is explored and refined,
and the client’s requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements
b) Specification
c) Design
d) Implementation
Ans: a) Requirements

137. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is
known as _________ testing.
a) Unit
b) Integration
c) Regression
d) Module
Ans: c) Regression

138. ____________ is a software development activity that is not a part of software processes.
a) Validation
b) Specification
c) Development
d) Dependence
Ans: d) Dependence

139. What is system software


a) computer program
b) Testing
c) AI
d) IOT
Ans: a) Computer Program

140. The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project
Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organizations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

141. Which of the following document contains the user system requirements?
a) SRD
b) DDD
c) SDD
d) SRS
Ans: d) SRS

142. Software Debugging is known as _________________


a) identifying the task to be computerized
b) creating program code
c) creating the algorithm
d) finding and correcting errors in the program code
Ans: finding and correcting errors in the program code

143. The word which describes the importance of software design is?
a) Complexity
b) Quality
c) Efficiency
d) Accuracy
Ans: c) Efficiency

144. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________


a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
Ans: b) licensing

145. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Normal, Expected, Exciting
d) Functional, Non-Functional
Ans: c) Normal, Expected, Exciting

146. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement: “Conformity to a
standard is maintained”?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
Ans: b)Complete

147. CASE stands for


a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering
b) Control Aided Science and Engineering
c) Cost Aided System Experiments
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering

148. What is the essence of software engineering?


a) Requirements Definition, Design Representation, Knowledge Capture and Quality Factors
b) Maintaining Configurations, Organizing Teams, Channeling Creativity and Planning
Resource Use
c) Time/Space Tradeoffs, Optimizing Process, Minimizing Communication and Problem
Decomposition
d) Managing Complexity, Managing Personnel Resources, Managing Time and Money and
Producing Useful Products
Ans: d) Managing Complexity, Managing Personnel Resources, Managing Time and
Money and Producing Useful Products

149. Which of the following is not a description of planning?


a) Planning is used to find credible ways to produce results with limited resources and limited
schedule flexibility
b) Planning is finding new personnel resources to support labor intensive development
c) Planning is identifying and accommodating the unforeseen
d) Planning is negotiating compromises in completion dates and resource allocation
Ans: b) Planning is finding new personnel resources to support labor intensive
development
150. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii, v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii
Ans: c) ii, i, v, iv, iii

Unit I

Short Answers (5 Marks):

1. Define Software. Briefly explain the software problem.


2. Define Software Engineering. Explain the various problems faced in software
engineering.
3. Explain any four qualities attributes of software engineering.
4. Briefly explain the various characteristics of a software process.
5. Explain the prototyping model.
6. Briefly explain the phases of management process.
7. Write a note on capability maturity model.
8. Write a note on quality improvement paradigm and GQM.
9. Explain the software configuration item (SCI).

Long Answers (10 Marks):

1. Explain different phases of phased development process.


2. With the help of a diagram explain the working of the waterfall model. Also
List the limitations of the waterfall model.
3. Explain the working of an iterative enhancement model with the help of a
diagram.
4. Explain the prototyping model. List the advantages and disadvantages of the
prototype model.
5. With the help of a neat diagram explain the various phases of Spiral model
along with its merits and demerits.
6. Briefly explain the various activities of software configuration management
process.
7. Explain the SCM lifecycle of an item.

Unit II
Short Answers (5 Marks):

1. Explain need of SRS.


2. What is meant by Feasibility study?
3. Explain the characteristics of a good SRS
4. Mention the guidelines of Use case diagrams.
5. Define Relationships. Explain the various types of relationships.
6. List and explain the different types of Requirement Review process.
7. What are the various activities carried out during the change in the requirements?
8. What is Software Design? Explain the framework of the design with the help of neat
diagram.
9. What is coupling? Explain the factors that affect coupling.
10. Define Software Design Process and Explain the various Software design patterns.

Long Answers (10 Marks):

1. Explain the activities of requirement process with a proper diagram.


2. List and explain the different types of Software Requirements.
3. Explain the various components of an SRS
4. What is meant by Requirement elicitation? List and explain the various
methods used for elicitation.
5. Briefly explain the Railway reservation problem using Use case with the help of a neat
diagram.
6. Explain the various steps involved in Organization of SRS. Or Explain the general
structure of an SRS document.
7. List and explain different levels of cohesion.

Unit III

Short Answers (5 Marks):

1. Explain the various features of a software code.


2. Explain Top-down and Bottom –Up approach used in Programming practices.
3. Differentiate between top-down and Bottom –Up approach.
4. Mention the different types of Code Documentation Tools available. (Any 5)
5. Explain the various Software Testing Tools.
6. Briefly Explain two methods used to generate test cases
7. What is meant by test case specification?
8. Explain the various software testing strategies.

Long Answers (10 Marks):

1. Explain the various guidelines followed during Software Coding.


2. Describe Coding Methodology.
3. Write a note Coding Verification Techniques.
4. Explain the various levels of software testing.
5. Explain V Model of Software testing with a neat diagram.

Unit IV

Short Answers (5 Marks):

1. What is Software Maintenance? Explain the categories of Maintenance.


2. Mention the various problems faced during Maintenance.
3. Explain Boehm’s Model with a neat diagram.
4. Explain the attributes of software maintenance life cycle
5. Write a note on Re-engineering.
6. Mention and briefly explain different tools used for software maintenance.
7. Define Software Quality. Mention and explain the different quality methods associated
with a software product.
8. Mention the benefits of Software Quality Assurance.
9. Write a note on major Software Quality Assurance activities.
10. Explain the different types of software reviews.

Long Answers (10 Marks):

1. What is meant by software Maintenance? Explain the different types of Maintenance


models.
2. Explain the Maintenance Process with the help of a neat diagram.
3. Explain the Software Maintenance Life Cycle.
4. Briefly explain Software Quality Assurance.
5. Explain the process of software reviews with a neat diagram.

Unit V

Short Answers (5 Marks):

1. Define Software Metrics and also mention the advantages and disadvantages of software
metrics.
2. Explain the different types of software metrics.
3. Mention the guidelines for software metrics.
4. Differentiate between Measures, Metrics and Indicators.
5. Explain the classification of software metrics.
6. Write a note on Project scheduling.
7. Briefly explain Project Planning.
8. How is the quality of the software measured?
Long Answers (10 Marks):

1. Write a note on Software Metrics.


2. Explain the various levels of measurement and process improvement.
3. Explain the framework for software measurement.
4. Why are Object-Oriented Software Engineering Metrics Different?
5. Write a note on Risk Management.
6. Explain Risk Management Activities and Risk Control.

**********

You might also like