Youtube» Jam CHEM eae re eee —== X ——- Total No. of Printed Pages : 17 (DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET BEFORE TIME OR UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO) CPG-EE-2019 (Chemistry)-(SET-X) 10357 \ K sr. No, Time : 1% Hours Total Questions : 100 Max. Marks : 100 Roll No. (in figures) (in words) Candidate's Name. CHEM. Date of Birth: Father's Name JAM Mother's Name —$> Date of Exam : —! (Signature of the Candidate) (Signature of the Invigilator) ‘CANDIDATES MUST READ THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION/INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE STARTING THE QUESTION PAPER. 1. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. The candidates are required to attempt all questions 2. The candidate must return this question booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator concerned before leaving the Examination Hall, failing which a case of use of unfalr- means / misbehaviour will be registered against him / her, in addition to lodging of an FIR with the police. Further the answer-sheet of such a candidate will riot be evaluated. 3. Keeping in view the transparency of the examination system, catbonless OMR Sheet is provided to + the candidate so that a copy of OMR Sheet may be kept by the candidate, 4. Question Booklet along-with answer key of all the A, B, C and D code shall be got uploaded on the University Website immediately after the conduct of Entrance Examination. Candidates may raise valid objection/complaint if any, with regard to discrepancy in the question booklet/answer key within 24 hours of uploading the same on the University website. The complaint be sent by the students to the Controller of Examinations by hand or through email. Thereafter, no complaint in any case will be considered. 5. The candidate must not do any rough work or writing in the OMR Answer-Sheet. Rough work, if any, may be done in the question booklet itself. Answers must not be ticked in the question booklet. 6. Use only black or blue ball point pen of good quality in the OMR Answer-Sheet. 7. There will be negative marking. Each correct answer will be awarded one full mark and each incorrect answer will be negatively marked for which the candidate will get ¥ Mark (0.25 Mark) discredit. Cutting, erasing, overwriting and more than one answer in OMR Answer-Sheet will be treated as incorrect answer. 8. Before answering the questions, the candidates should ensure that they have been supplied correct & complete question booklet. Complaints, if any, regarding misprinting etc. will not be entertained 30 minutes after starting of the examination. CPG-EE-2019(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A) SFAT.4. Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength ? Qe Q)p (3) CO (4) S02 2. The geometry of AsFs is : (1) Pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral (3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Octahedral 3. The effective nuclear charge at the periphery of Cr atom, using slater rule is (1) 3.35 (2) 3.70 (3) 1.70 (4) 2.60 4. The theoretical value of magnetic moment of Gd?* is : (1) 7.94 (2) 9.72 (3) 9.57 (4) 7.63 5. Which of the following will not show H-bonding ? (1) HF (2) NH3 (3) H,0 (4) CHy 6. The oxide which gives HO, on treatment with dilute acid is : (1) PbO2 (2) Na,O, (3) MnO, (4) TiO, 7. Inorganic benzene is’: (1) BH30H3 (2) B3N3H6 (3) BoHe (4) BsHio 8. The correct order of increasing size is (1) Nat < Li* ~— Paramagnetic (4) Ni(CO)4—Diamagnetic Formula of pitch blende is : (1) UO, (2) U30g (@) UR (4) None of these Which one of the following is the best method of preparation of acetophenone ? (1) PhCOOEt+CH3MgBr -> (2) PhCOCI+CH3MgBr > (3) PhCONH +CH3MgBr—> (4) PhCN +CH3MgBr—> CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A)20. a. 22. 24. 26. Dilute HCI is used to separate following radical : (1) Ag* (2) Ca?* (3) Sn?* (4) Ba?* Wilson disease is caused by the excess of : (1) Zine (2) Copper (3) Magnesium (4) Lead Inthe compound Fe4[Fe(CN)g] the respective oxidation states of Fe are : (1) IW (Q) It (3) 1, 1 (4) 10, 0 Invitro reaction of excess of Oy with free heme B in aqueous medium, end product is: (1) Hematin (2) Heme B CO, (3) [Oz (4) All of these Fe(III) — protoporphyrin — IX ] The main reason for larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than the corresponding lanthanoids is : (1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and Sd orbitals. (2) Lesser energy difference between Sf and 6d orbitals than between 4f and Sd orbitals. (3) Larger atomic size of actinoids than the lanthanoids. (4) Greater reactive nature of actinoids than the lanthanoids. Which of the following has zero dipole moment ? (1) CIF (2) PCls (3) Sify (4) CFCls The correct order of ionic radii of Y°*, La?*, Eu5* and Luis : (Atomic Nos. Y = 39, La =57, Eu = 63, Lu=71) (1) ¥8+< 3+ < Eu < Lu (2) Y3* (4) None of these CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A)65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 9 In the phenomenon of Larmor pression, the angular frequency of pression, "Larmor frequency" is expressed as : () w=r+B, 2) w=r-B, (3) w=r/B, (4) w=1B, where r= and all the notations have usual meanings. eh 1(h/2n) Which of the following relations represent Clasius-Claypeyron equation ? a H 8 _— — — =H ay [Ren], 7? Q) [Fern], é _ AH? 0, ,_ AH* vaporization @) Spink =F Oop lee Which of the following reaction involves rearrangement of nitrogen yields ? (1) Wittig reaction (2) Von-Richter reaction (3) Sommlet-Hauser reaction (4) Pinacol-Pinacolone rearrangement Following pair of compounds are : q A H Ys Va = \ we =C HC Br H3€ cl (1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers (3) Geometrical isomers (4) Homomers Absolute configuration of : COOH HO —C—H COOH (1) 2S, 3S. (2) 2R, 3R (3) 28,3R (4) 2R, 3S CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A) P.T.O.10 7. 72. 73. 74. Which among the following reagents gives syn addition with alkenes : 1 Br I Dil KMnO,/~OH Il OSO4/NaSO3H/H20 IV HyINi/A Select the answer from the codes given below : (1) Only 1 (2) Wand (3) I, MandIV (4) Only IV Which of the following compounds shows a sharp IR absorption band at 1700 om and a broad band at 300m"! ? (1) Ethanol (2) Ethanoic acid (3) Propanone (4) Diethy! ether ‘A signal in NMR appears at 30Hz on a 60 MHz instrument. Same signal on a 400 MHz. instrament will appear at : (1) 30 Hz (2) 90 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 400 Hz ©ycoa H2/Pd.BaSO4_, 4 NeOH_, product The product in the reaction is (a) (O)-c00Na Q) (o)-cxo Q) (O)-cn0% (a) (0)-cooNa + (O)-cH,0# Which of the following compounds gives iodoform on teaction with NaOH and > ? ou (1) CH,CH,CH,OH (2) CHyCH> CH-CH; t (3) CH3CH3 C CH CH (4) CHsCH, CH ~CHs cHo CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A)75. 76. 78. 11 Stability of (CH3)3C* can be explained by : (1) Inductive effect (2) Mesomeric effect (3) Hyperconjugation (4) Both Inductive effect and Hyperconjugation Which of the following does not react with benzene in presence of anhydrous AICI; ? «y (O)-cocr @ ((O)-co),0 (3) re! 0) (o)-enct Hy Br KMD ig wy, The product obtained in above reaction is : CH; OCH; “ ® ‘NH ‘NH OCH; ) (4) NHy OCH; OCH; Phenol can be converted into salicylaldehyde using : (1) Kolbe's reaction (2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (3) Friedal crafts reaction (4) Cross aldol condensation CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A) P.T.O.2 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. A CyHg0(A) does not reduce Tollen's reagent, does not give iodoform test, but reacts with HI. A can be : (1) CH,COCH, (2) CH3CH,CHO (3) CH, =CH -O-CH, (4) HyC-CH -CHy Ne 18-Crown-6 is represented by : o€> @ (3) Both are correct (4) None is correct Allylic halogen substitution can be done with : (1) Halogen at high temperature (2) NBS in sunlight (3) Sulphuryl chloride in sunlight (4) All of these Allylic alcohol is obtained when glycerol reacts with the following at 260°C : (1) Formic acid (2) Oxalic acid (3) Both (4) None (CHy)3C - CH = CH, —*9(HC),C- cH CH; Xcanbe: oH (1) BH; .THF/H,0).~OH (2) 130° (3) Hg(OAC), / NaBH 4, NaOH (4) None CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)(SET-X)/(A)A 84. 85. 13 m-cresol on bromination gives : CH, Hy Br. Br a 2 Br ‘OH OH r HBr Hy Br @ @ ‘OH ‘OH Br Dipole moment is shown by : (1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane (2) Trans-2-pentene (3) Trans-1,2-dichloroethene (4) 2,2, 3, 3-tetrabromobutane 86. Which of the following does not give white precipitate when boiled with alcoholic silver nitrate ? (1) Methyl chloride (2) Carbon tetrachloride (3) Benzyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride 87. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of (1) Electrophilic addition (2) Nucleophilic addition (3) Electrophilic substitution (4) Nucleophilic substitution 88. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution it gives a precipitate of : 89. (1) Cu (2) Cuo (G3) C0 (4) Cu, CuO, Cu,0 In the cannizaro reaetion given below @ 2PhCHO— “5 PhCHOH + PhCOO® the slowest step is : (1) Attack of SH at the carbonyl group (2) Transfer of hydride to carbonyl group (3) The abstraction of proton from carboxylic acid (4) The deprotonation of PhCH,OH CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A) P.T.O.4 91. 92. 94, Which of the following carboxylic acids undergo decarboxylation easity ? (1) CgHsCOCH,COOH (2) CgHsCOCOOH (3) CgHsCH(OH)COOH (4) CgHsCH(NH,)COOH In benzilic acid rearrangement : (1) Benzaldehyde is converted to benzoin (2) Benzoin is converted to benzilic acid (3) Benzilic acid is converted to benzoin (4) Benzil is converted to benzilic acid Grignard reagent shows addition on : « Sc=0 @ Se=s (G) -C=N (@) All A positive carbylamine test is given by : (1) N, N-Dimethylaniline (2) 2-4- Dimethylaniline (3) N, N-dimethyl-p-nitroaniline (4) p-methyl benzylamine H; (OMgl Ether, 4 Br (iy COp/H30® (iil) KMn04 / OH (nya Ais: is i CH; | 0» Orn op oO 8) ‘omnes “ on ‘COOH CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A)7 ON “NO, 95. lo 122, Product Warm NO, Product is : (1) Picric acid (2) Phenol (3) Chlorobenzene (4) No reaction since (C - Cl) bond is stable * Omen ameeracs Aand Bare: ay H0-XO)-NO, (CHy))NH Q) HO-{O)-OH, (CH3))NH @) H0-{O)-NO, CHyCHNHy (4) None is correct 97. A B-hydroxy carbonyl compound is obtained by the action of NaOH on : (1) RC.CHO (2) CgHsCHO (3) CH;CHO (4) HCHO 98. Which have acidic H, but not reacting with NaHCO; ? I) (1) CH;COOH (2) (pou (3) CH; CCH,CN (4) NH; 99. Predominant product formed when HCI adds to 2,4-hexadiene is : (1) 4-chloro-2-hexene (2) 2-chloro-3-hexene (3) 2-chloro-4-hexene (4) L-chloro-2-hexene CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(A) P.T.O.16 100. Electrophile NOY attacks the following : ® é é é é 1 1 mm Vv In which cases NO® will be at meta position : (1) Mand Iv (2) I, Wand It (3) Mand III only (4) Tonly (CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)(A)Total No. of Printed Pages : 17 (DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET BEFORE TIME OR UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO) CPG-EE-2019 (Chemistry)-(SET-X) y Time : 1% Hours tal Questions : 100 Max. Marks : 100 10358 Sr. No. Roll No. (in figures) (in words) Candidate's Name. Date of Birth: Father's Name Mother's Name. Date of Exam : (Signature of the Candidate) (Signature of the Invigilator) CANDIDATES MUST READ THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION/INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE STARTING THE QUESTION PAPER. 1. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. The candidates are required to attempt all questions. The candidate must return this question booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator concerned before leaving the Examination Hall, failing which a case of use of unfair- means / misbehaviour will be registered against him/her, in addition to lodging of an FIR with the police. Further the answer-sheet of such a candidate will not be evaluated. Keeping in view the transparency of the examination system, carbonless OMR Sheet is provided to the candidate so that a copy of OMR Sheet may be kept by the candidate. Question Booklet along-with answer key of all the A, B, C and D code shall be got uploaded on the University Website immediately after the conduct of Entrance Examination. Candidates may raise valid objection/complaint if any, with regard to disorepancy in the question booklet/answer key within 24 hours of uploading the same on the University website. The complaint be sent by the students to the Controller of Examinations by hand or through email. Thereafter, no complaint in any case will be considered. 5. The candidate must not do any rough work or writing in the OMR Answer-Sheet. Rough work, if any, may be done in the question booklet itself. Answers must not be ticked in the question booklet. 6. Use only black or blue ball point pen of good quality in the OMR Answer-Sheet. 7. There will be negative marking. Each correct answer will be awarded one full mark and each incorrect answer will be negatively marked for which the candidate will get % Mark (0.25 Mark) discredit. Cutting, erasing, overwriting and more than one answer in OMR Answer-Sheet will be treated as incorrect answer. 8. Before answering the questions, the candidates should ensure that they have been supplied correct & complete question booklet. Complaints, if any, regarding misprinting etc. will not be entertained 30 minutes after starting of the examination. CPG-EE-2019(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B) 3. >1. The aqueous solution of which of the following has maximum pH ? (1) Naclo (2) NaClO2 (3) Naclog (4) NaClOg 2. Which one of the following compounds will exhibit linkage isomerism ? (1) [Pt(NH3) Cla] (2) [Co(NH3)5NO2IClp (3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2 ICI (4) [Co(en)2Cly|Cly 3. Which oxide of vanadium is most likely to be basic and ionic ? (1) Vo (2) V203 (3) VOz (4) V205 4. Which of the following complex is non-ionisable ? (1) CoCls .6NH3 (2) CoCls .5NH3 (3) CoCls .4NH3 (4) CoCls .3NH3 5. EAN (Effective Atomic No.) of Fe?* ion in [Fe2*(CNg)]*~ is equal to: (1) 26 (2) 36 (3) 18 (4) 54 6. Which is used in cancer chemotherapy ? (1) Zeise's salt (2) Auranofin (3) Cisplatin (4) None i 7. Which pairing is wrong ? (1) [Fe(H0)g]?* - Paramagnetic (2) [Fe(CN)¢]*-— Paramagnetic (3) [CoFs]°~ - Paramagnetic (4) Ni(CO)4—Diamagnetic 8. Formula of pitch blende is : (1) UO, (2) U305 (3) UFy (4) None of these 9. Which one of the following is the best method of preparation of acetophenone ? (1) PhCOOEt+CH3MgBr > (2) PhCOCI+CH3MgBr > (3) PhCONH3 +CH3MgBr > (4) PhCN +CH3MgBr > CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B) P.T.O.10. 11. 12. 13. 14, Dilute HC is used to separate following radical : (1) Ag* (2) ca?* (3) Sn?* (4) Ba?* In benzilic acid rearrangement : (1) Benzaldehyde is converted to benzoin (2) Benzoin is converted to benzilic acid (3) Benzilic acid is converted to benzoin (4) Benzil is converted to benzilic acid Grignard reagent shows addition on : qa) Se=o (2) Se=s @) -C=N (4) All A positive carbylamine test is given by : (1) N, N-Dimethylaniline (2) 2-4- Dimethylaniline (3) N, N-dimethyl-p-nitroaniline (4) p-methyl benzylamine cH, (Mel ther , y Br (ii) CO7/H30® (89 Kitro4 08 ‘a Ais: oO cH, i «) CK @® OL ye ‘COOH cn i oO COOH COOH © oo ‘COOH CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B)cl ON. “NO, 6 ape Product NO, Product is : () Picrie acid (2) Phenol (3) Chlorobenzene (4) No reaction since (C - Cl) bond is stable am 16. (O)-NCHs)2 Tagger A+B Aaand Bare: ay H0-(O)-N0, (CH3),NH @) HO-{O)y-oH, (CH3))NH (G) He NO, CH;CH,NH, (4) None is correct 17. A B-hydroxy carbonyl compound is obtained by the action of NaOH on : (1) R3C.CHO (2) CgHsCHO (3) CH3CHO.— (4) HCHO 18. Which have acidic H, but not reacting with NaHCO; ? ° Il (1) CH;COOH 2) (©)-o1r (3) CH; CCH,CN (4) NH; 19. Predominant product formed when HCI adds to 2,4-hexadiene is : (1) 4-chloro-2-hexene (2) 2-chloro-3-hexene (3) 2-chloro-4-hexene (4) 1-chloro-2-hexene CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B) P.T.O.20. 21. 23. 24, Electrophile NOP attacks the following : ® CCh ~=-NO;_—NH g I 1 m Iv In which cases NOY will be at meta position : (1) Wand IV (2) I, Wand IT (3) Iand III only (4) Tonly Which of the following compounds shows a sharp IR absorption band at 1700 em™ and a broad band at 3300em™! ? (1) Ethanol (2) Bthanoie acid (3) Propanone (4) Diethyl ether A signal in NMR appears at 30Hz on a 60 MHz instrument. Same signal on a 400 MHz instrument will appear at : (1) 30 Hz (2) 90 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 400 Hz (Oy coc ALFA BISO A, 4 MOH Product The product in the reaction is : a {O)-coona Q) (o)-cxo 8) (o)-cH,0n (4) (0)-coona + (O)-cin0n Which of the following compounds gives iodoform on reaction with NaOH and [> ? oH (1) CHyCH,CH,OH (2) CH3CH, cH-CHt, o 8) CHsCHy CCH, CH; (4) CH3CHy CH -CH; CHO CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B)25. 26. 27. 28. Stability of (CH3),C* can be explained by : (1) Inductive effect (2) Mesomeric effect (3) Hyperconjugation (4) Both Inductive effect and Hyperconjugation Which of the following does not react with benzene in presence of anhydrous A/C/; ? a (0)-coer @) (O)-co),0 @) ora (4) (0) cnc OCH Br _KNH2 hig NH, The product obtained in above reaction is : OCH; OCH, a) Oo 2) orm NH OCH; 8 “ NH OCH; OCH; Phenol can be converted into salicylaldehyde using : (1) Kolbe's reaction (2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (3) Friedal crafts reaction (4) Cross aldol condensation CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B) P.T.O.29, 30. 31, 33. 34, C3HgO(A) does not reduce Tollen's reagent, does not give iodoform test, but reacts with HI. A can be : (1) CH,COCH; (2) CH;CH,CHO (3) CH, =CH-O-CH; (4) HxC-CH-CH, NZ 18-Crown-6 is represented by : (3) Both are correct (4) None is correct The critical temperature of a liquid having boiling point 73°C is : (1) 246°C (2) 219°C (3) 182°C (4) None of these Which of the following will show an ESR spectrum ? (1) Cut ion (2) Np molecule (3) Cu?* ion (4) CH, molecule The ESR spectrum could be used to map molecular orbital by unpaired electron, which is aided by McConnel equation. The said equation is : (1) Q=ap Q) Q=a+p (3) @=Qp (4) Q=a-p where p is the unpaired electron density on carbon atom and a is hyperfine splitting constant. ‘The molecule which is IR inactive and Raman active is (1) Protein (2) HCI (3) S02 (4) No CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B)36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. |. The pH of an aqueous solution of 1 x 10-7 M HCTis : ay7 (2) slightly less than 7 (3) slightly higher than 7 (4) none of these When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, it suffers : (1) Reflection (2) Refraction (3) Scattering (4) All of thiese Dry ice is used in fire extinguishers. It is stored in solid form in the cylinder. When sprayed on a fire, it quickly changes into gas called CO>. The change of state is known as: (1) Sublimation (2) Evaporation (3) Condensation (4) Distillation Milk is a/an (1) Suspension (2) Pare solution (3) Gel (4) Emulsion The IR absorption at 1665 cm”? in salicylic acid is due to (1) C-H bending (2) O-H stretching (3) C=O stretching (4) 0-H bending Strong covalent bonds exist between polymer chains in : (1) Elastomers (2) Thermoplasts (3) Thermosets (4) All polymers In synthesis of Grignards reagent, alkyl halide reacts with Mg in presence of (1) An ester (2) Dryether (3) Alcohol (4) Amide ‘The strongest acidic strength is that of : (1) @Hs0H (2) HO (3) HCN (4) Cls5CCOOH CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B) P.T.O.43. 45. 47. 49. In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three ? (1) PCls (2) SFy GB) 5 (4) sci |. The Compton wave length of an electron, 2, is expressed as : de _h Ae _ he 1) S254 2), Bee Oo m ) on lm he _ ht de _ 3) ea 4) eek rae Dom me If A and B are two operators such that [A, 8]=1, then value of [A, 8 Jis : () B (2) 2B @B) A (4) 2A Which one of the following is correct relation ? (1) S=RinW 2) S=kinW aH 2) 3) Cy =[<— a) c,=(2 © (HF), ® (Fr), (All the symbols have their usual meanings.) ‘The degrees of freedom present in the system comprised of a gas in equilibrium with its solution in liquid will be : (2 Q)1 (3) 3 (4) None of these Polydispersity Index (PDI) of a polymer molecular is expressed as : M, M; 1) Mw 2) Mi o ye Qa GB) MoxMy, ) My+My Where My and M, are mass-average molar mass and number-average molar mass of a polymer sample. ‘The radius of ,24/ nucleous is : () 45x 104m 2) 45x 107m @) 4.5x 10-3 m (4) 4.5 x 107m CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(B)51, 52, 53. 54, 55. |. The temperature at which the virial coefficient of a real gas is zero is called : (1) Boiling point (2) Eutectic point (3) Boyle temperature (4) Critical temperature Wilson disease is caused by the excess of : (1) Zine (2) Copper (3) Magnesium (4) Lead In the compound Feg[Fe(CN)g] the respective oxidation states of Fe are : () 1,0 Q) (3) 11, 1 (4) 1, 1 In vitro reaction of excess of O2 with free heme B in aqueous medium, end product is (1) Hematin (2) Heme B CO> (3) [07—Fe(II1) — protoporphyrin ~ IX ] (4) Alllof these The main reason for larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than the corresponding lanthanoids is : (1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and Sd orbitals. (2) Lesser energy difference between Sf and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals. (3) Larger atomic size of actinoids than the lanthanoids. (4) Greater reactive nature of actinoids than the lanthanoids. Which of the following has zero dipole moment ? () CIF (2) PCl, @) Sify (4) CFCIy The correct order of ionic radii of Y°*, La?*, Eu3* and Lu?* is (Atomic Nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu= 71) (1) Y3¢< a3 pe = \ 4 =¢ HC Br H3C cl (1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers (3) Geometrical isomers (4) Homomers 79. Absolute configuration of = COOH HO —C——-H H—cC— OH COOH (1) 28,38 (2) 2R,3R (3) 28,3R (4) 2R, 38 80, Which among the following reagents gives syn addition with alkenes : TI Bro Il Dil KMnO,/~ OH Ml OS04/NaSO3H / HO IV HyINi/A Select the answer from the codes given below : (1) Only I (2) Wand II (3) II, 1 and IV (4) Only IV 81. Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength ? (1) e& Q)p @G) COz (4) S02 CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/B) P.T.O.14 83. 87. The geometry of AsFs is : (1) Pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral (3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Octahedral The effective nuclear charge at the periphery of Cr atom, using slater rule is : (1) 3.35 (2) 3.70 (3) 1.70 (4) 2.60 |. The theoretical value of magnetic moment of Gd°* is : (1) 7.94 (2) 9.72 (3) 9.57 (4) 7.63 Which of the following will not show H-bonding ? (1) HF (2) NH3 (3) H20 (4) CHy The oxide which gives HO on treatment with dilute acid is : (1) PbO, (2) NagOz (3) MnO, (4) TiO, Inorganic benzene is : (1) BH30H3 (2) BaN3He G) BH, (4) BaHio The correct order of increasing size is : (1) Na*< Li*+ (2) B5*+ ? on (1) CH;CH,CH,OH (2) CHyCH, CH- CH, I} (3) CH3CH, C CH, CH; (@) CHyCH, CH ~CH CHO Stability of (CH3)3C* can be explained by : (1) Inductive effect (2) Mesomeric effect (3) Hyperconjugation (4) Both Inductive effect and Hyperconjugation Which of the following does not react with benzene in presence of anhydrous AICI; ? a) (©)-cocr Q) ((O>-c0),0 B) © a @ 0)-cH,c1 Hy Br _KNH2 tig. NH; ‘The product obtained in above reaction is : OCH, OCH, @ @ om NH OCH; ®@ ' @ NH OCH; OCH; CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(C) P.T.O.12 68. 69. 70. ra 72. Phenol can be converted into salicylaldehyde using (1) Kolbe's reaction (2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (3) Friedal crafts reaction (4) Cross aldol condensation CsH0(A) does not reduce Tollen's reagent, does not give iodoform test, but reacts with HZ. A can be : (1) CH,COCH; (2) CH,CH,CHO (3) CH, =CH -O-CHy (4) HyxC-CH -CHy NZ 18-Crown-6 is represented by : a e Q) (3) Both are correct (4) None is correct Allylic halogen substitution can be done with : (1) Halogen at high temperature (2) NBS in sunlight (3) Sulphury! chloride in sunlight (4) All of these Allylic alcohol is obtained when glycerol reacts with the following at 260°C : (1) Formic acid — (2) Oxalic acid (3) Both (4) None CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)(C)c 73. 74, 75. 76. 77. 13 (CH )3C CH = CH, * »(H,C),C - GH-CHt, Xeanbe: OH (1) BH; .THF/H20; @) #0" (3) Hg(OAC),/ NaBH,,NaOH (4) None m-cresol on bromination gives : CH: », ‘ Br 7 w Q) sal ‘OH OH HBr Hy; Br 8) ) ‘OH ‘OH Br Dipole moment is shown by : (1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane (2) Trans-2-pentene (3) Trans-1,2-dichloroethene (4) 2,2, 3, 3-tetrabromobutane Which of the following does not give white precipitate when boiled with alcoholic silver nitrate ? (1) Methyl chloride (2) Carbon tetrachloride (3) Benzyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride ‘The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of : (1) Electrophilic addition (2) Nucleophilic addition (3) Electrophilic substitution (4) Nucleophilic substitution CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(C) P.T.O.4 78. 81. 82. 83. 85. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution it gives a precipitate of : (1) Cu (2) Cuo (3) CuO (4) Cu, CuO, CuO In the cannizaro reaction given below 2PHCHO CH» PhCHOH + PhCOO® the slowest step is : (1) Attack of 90H at the carbonyl group (2) Transfer of hydride to carbonyl group (3) The abstraction of proton from carboxylic acid (4) The deprotonation of PhCH,OH Which of the following carboxylic acids undergo decarboxylation easity ? (1) CgHsCOCH,COOH (2) CeHsCOCOOH (3) CoHsCH(OH)COOH (4) CoHsCH(NH)COOH The aqueous solution of which of the following has maximum pH ? (1) Naclo (2) NaClOy (3) NaClO3 (4) NaClOg Which one of the following compounds will exhibit linkage isomerism ? (1) [PHKNH3)2Cl] (2) [Co(NH3)5NO2ICla (3) [Co(NH3)4C2ICl (4) [Colen)2Cly]Clz Which oxide of vanadium is most likely to be basic and ionic ? (ly vO (2) V203 (3) VOz (4) V205 Which of the following complex is non-ionisable ? (1) CoCl .6NH3 (2) CoCl; .SNH3 (3) CoCl; ANH (4) CoCl; .3NH3 EAN (Effective Atomic No.) of Fe?* ion in [Fe®*(CNg)]*~ is equal to: (1) 26 (2) 36 (3) 18 (4) 54 CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)(SET-X)(C)86. 87. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 15 Which is used in cancer chemotherapy ? (1) Zeise's salt (2) Auranofin (3) Cisplatin (4) None Which pairing is wrong ? (1) [Fe(H20)¢]** ~ Paramagnetic (2) [Fe(CN)¢]*"— Paramagnetic (3) (CoFs]°- — Paramagnetic (4) Ni(CO)4—Diamagnetic Formula of pitch blende is : (1) UO, (2) U30g (3) UF, (4) None of these Which one of the following is the best method of preparation of acetophenone ? (1) PhCOOEt +CH3MgBr > (2) PhCOCI+CH3MgBr > (3) PhCONH» +CH3MgBr > (4) PhCN +CH3MgBr > Dilute HCT is used to separate following radical : () Ag* @) Gr?* (3) sn? (4) Ba?* The critical temperature of a liquid having boiling point 73°C is : (1) 246°C (2) 219°C (3) 182°C (4) None of these Which of the following will show an ESR spectrum ? (1) Cu* ion (2) Nz molecule (3) Cu2* ion (4) CH, molecule The ESR spectrum could be used to map molecular orbital by unpaired electron, which is aided by McConnel equation. The said equation is : (1) Q=ap (2) Q=atp (3) a=Qp (4) Q=a-p where p is the unpaired electron density on carbon atom and a is hyperfine splitting constant. CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(C) ; P.T.O.16 94, 95. 96. 97. 99. 100. The molecule which is IR inactive and Raman active is : (1) Protein (2) HCl (3) SOz (4) No ‘The pH of an aqueous solution of 1 x 10-7 M HClis : (y7 (2) slightly less than 7 (3) slightly higher than 7 (4) none of these When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, it suffers : (1) Reflection (2) Refraction (3) Scattering (4) All of these Dry ice is used in fire extinguishers. It is stored in solid form in the cylinder. When sprayed on a fire, it quickly changes into gas called CO. The change of state is known as: (1) Sublimation (2) Evaporation (3) Condensation (4) Distillation . Milk is a/an: , (1) Suspension (2) Pure solution (3) Gel (4) Emulsion ‘The IR absorption at 1665 cm” in salicylic acid is due to = (1) C-H bending (2) O-Hstretching (3) C=O stretching (4) O-H bending Strong covalent bonds exist between polymer chains in : (1) Elastomers (2) Thermoplasts (3) Thermosets (4) All polymers CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)(C)Total No. of Printed Pages : 17 (DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET BEFORE TIME OR UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO) CPG-EE-2019 (Chemistry)-(SET-X) 1369 lr Sr.No. . Time : 1% Hours Total Questions : 100 Max. Marks : 100 Roll No, (in figures) (in words) Candidate's Name. Date of Birth. Father's Name Mother's Name Date of Exam (Signature of the Candidate) (Signature of the Invigilator) CANDIDATES MUST READ THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION/INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE STARTING THE QUESTION PAPER. 1. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. The candidates are required to attempt all questions. The candidate must return this question booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator concemed before leaving the Examination Hall, failing which a case of use of unfair- means // misbehaviour will be registered against him/her, in addition to lodging of an FIR with the police. Further the answer-sheet of such a candidate will not be evaluated. 3. Keeping in view the transparency of the examination system, carbonless OMR Sheet is pr the candidate so that a copy of OMR Sheet may be kept by the candidate. 4. Question Booklet along-with answer key of all the A, B, C and D code shall be got uploaded on the University Website immediately after the conduct of Entrance Examination. Candidates may valid objection/complaint if any, with regard to discrepancy in the question booklet/answer key within 24 hours of uploading the same on the University website. The complaint be sent by the students to the Controller of Examinations by hand or through email. Thereafter, no complaint in any case will be considered, 5. The candidate must not do any rough work or writing in the OMR Answer-Sheet. Rough work, if any, may be done in the question booklet itself. Answers must not be ticked in the question booklet. 6. Use only black or blue ball point pen of good quality in the OMR Answer-Sheet. 7. There will be negative marking. Each correct answer will be awarded one full mark and each incorrect answer will be negatively marked for which the candidate will get % Mark (0.25 Mark) discredit. Cutting, erasing, overwriting and more than one answer in OMR Answer-Sheet will be treated as incorrect answer. 8. Before answering the questions, the candidates should ensure that they have been supplied correct & complete question booklet. Complaints, if any, regarding misprinting etc. will not be entertained 30 minutes atter starting of the examination. CPG-EE-2019(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(D) 2 ided to SEAL1. Which of the following compounds shows a sharp IR absorption band at 1700 em~! and a broad band at 3300cm™! 2 (1) Ethanol (2) Ethanoic acid (3) Propanone (4) Diethyl ether 2. A signal in NMR appears at 30Hz on a 60 MHz instrument. Same signal on a 400 MHz instrument will appear at : (1) 30Hz (2) 90 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 400 Hz 3 (oy-coci AHA BSO4 , 4 MOF Product The product in the reaction is : a (O)-cooNa @) O)-cHo (@) (0)-crnoH (4) 0)-co0Na a (O>cinon 4. Which of the following compounds gives iodoform on reaction with NaOH and I, ? oH (1) CHjCH,CH,OH (2) CH3CH, CH-CH i (3) CH3CH,C CH, CH; (8) CHyCHy CH ~CHs CHO 5. Stability of (CH3);C* can be explained by : (1) Inductive effect (2) Mesomeric effect (3) Hyperconjugation (4) Both Inductive eff nd Hyperconjugation CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(D) P.T.O.6. Which of the following does not react with benzene in presence of anhydrous AICI; ? qd) 0)-cocr Q) «> CO),0 @) ore @ (> CHCl Hs ‘The product obtained in above reaction is H3 CH a) (2) ‘NH NH OCH; NH, OCH; OCH; 8. Phenol can be converted into salicylaldehyde using : (1) Kolbe's reaction (2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (3) Friedal crafts reaction (4) Cross aldol condensation 9. C3H0(A) does not reduce Tollen's reagent, does not give iodoform test, but reacts with HI. A can be : (1) CH3COCH; (2) CHyCH,CHO (3) CH =CH-O-CH, (4) HyC-CH -CH, Soy CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(D)10. 1. 12, 13. 15. 16. 18-Crown-6 is represented by : a) c> Q) (3) Both are correct (4) None is correct ‘The critical temperature of a liquid having boiling point 73°C is : (1) 246°C (2) 219°C (3) 182°C (4) None of these Which of the following will show an ESR spectrum ? (1) Cur* ion (2) Np molecule (3) Cu?* ion (4) CH, molecule The ESR spectrum could be used to map molecular orbital by unpaired electron, which is aided by McConnel equation. The said equation is : (1) Q=ap (2) Q=at+p @) a= Op @) Q=a-p where p is the unpaired electron density on carbon atom and a is hyperfine splitting constant. . The molecule which is IR inactive and Raman active is : (1) Protein (2) HCI (3) S02 (4) No ‘The pH of an aqueous solution of 1 x 10-7 M HCTis : qy7 (2) slightly less than 7 (3) slightly higher than 7 (4) none of these When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, it suffers : (1) Reflection (2) Refraction (3) Scattering (4) Allof these CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(D) P.T.O.18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24, Dry ice is used in fire extinguishers. It is stored in solid form in the cylinder. When sprayed on a fire, it quickly changes into gas called CO. The change of state is known as: (1) Sublimation (2) Evaporation (3) Condensation (4) Distillation Milk is a/an : (1) Suspension (2) Pure solution (3) Gel (4) Emulsion The IR absorption at 1665 cm™ in salicylic acid is due to: (1) C-H bending (2) O-Hstretching (3) C=O stretching (4) 0-H bending Strong covalent bonds exist between polymer chains in : (1) Elastomers (2) Thermoplasts (3) Thermosets (4) All polymers In synthesis of Grignards reagent, alkyl halide reacts with Mg in presence of (1) Anester (2) Dry ether (3) Alcohol (4) Amide ‘The strongest acidic strength is that of : (1) CgHs0H (2) H20 (3) HCN (4) Cl;CCOOH In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three ? (1) PCls (2) SFy 6) 5 (4) sbci3- The Compton wave length of an electron, 2 is expressed as : Ae _A A, h d, h a, h 1) 4e-4 yy Se 3) Ae 4 4) eee Doe OQ) on Om Oar on ne CPG-EE-2019/(Chemistry)-(SET-X)/(D)