JEE Main February 1 Shift 2 - 20240202104110

JEE Main
1st Feb Shift 2
Embibe: AI Powered Personalised Adaptive Learning & Outcomes Platform 1

Questions
Q.1. Which of the following have colour due to d-d transition?

A) KMnO4 B) K2 Cr2 O7
C) K2 CrO4 D) CuSO4 .5 H2 O
Answer: CuSO4 .5 H2 O
Solution: Hydrated copper sulphate CuSO4 .5 H2 O is blue. In this complex, the oxidation state of Cu is +2and valence shell
electronic configuration is 3d9 . The ligand (water) molecules cause splitting of d orbitals. This facilitates d-d transition
which leads to the colour of the complex. In the other compounds KMnO4 , K2 Cr2 O7 and K2 CrO4 have d0 valence shell
electronic configuration of central atoms.
Q.2. Which of the following has intramolecular hydrogen bonding in it?
A) NH3 B) H2 O
C) D)
Answer:
Solution: Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are those which occur within one single molecule. This occurs when two functional groups
of a molecule can form hydrogen bonds with each other. H- Bonding occurs in o-nitro phenol because the nitro group is
present close to the -OH group enough for Hydrogen and Oxygen interaction.
Hence option C is the answer.

Q.3. Which of the following set of elements can be detected by Lassaigne's Test?
A) N, P and S only B) N and S only
C) N, S and halogens D) P and halogens only
Answer: N, S and halogens

Solution: Nitrogen, sulphur, and halogens present in organic compounds are detected by Lassaigne’s test. Here, a small piece of Na
metal is heated in a fusion tube with the organic compound. The principle is that, in doing so, Na converts all the elements
present into ionic form.
Na + C + N → NaCN
2Na + S → Na2 S
Na + X → NaX (X = Cl, Br or I)
The formed ionic salts are extracted from the fused mass by boiling it with distilled water. This is called sodium fusion
extract.
Q.4. Which of the following has highest third ionisation energy?
A) V B) Mn
C) Cr D) Fe
Answer: Mn
Solution: The electronic configuration of these metals is:
Cr : [Ar]3d5 4s1
V : [Ar]3d3 4s2
Mn : [Ar]3d5 4s2
Fe : [Ar]3d6 4s2
The amount of energy required to take an electron from a dispositive cation is called the third ionisation enthalpy.
[ ]
Cr2+ : Ar 3d4
V2+ : [Ar]3d3
[ ]
Mn2+ : Ar 3d5
Fe2+ : [Ar]3d6
The third ionisation enthalpy of Mn means removal of the electron from the stable configuration of 3d5 . The metal having
the highest third ionisation enthalpy is Mn.
Q.5. What is the order of reducing character for AsH3 , NH3 , PH3 (group 15 hydrides)?
A) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 B) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
C) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 D) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
Answer: AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
Solution: Hydrides: Hydrides are those chemical compounds that are formed by the reaction of hydrogen with other elements.
Reducing the character of hydrides in group 15:

The reducing character of a compound depends upon the ease of production of the hydrogen atom.
As we move down the group, the bond strength M-H bond of group 15 hydrides decreases due to an increase in the
size of atoms.
Hence, the reducing character of group 15 hydrides increases down the group.
Therefore, the trend of the reducing strength is: AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
Hence, the reducing character of hydrides of group 15 elements increases from top to bottom.
Q.6. Among the following which shows negative resonance effect.
A) − COOH B) − CH3
C) − NH2 D) − OH
2
Answer: − COOH
Solution: A negative resonance effect occurs when the groups withdraw the electrons from other molecules through the process of
delocalisation.
Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon, meaning it has a stronger pull on shared electrons. In the resonance
structures, the double bond between the carbon and oxygen can shift such that the oxygen bears a negative formal charge.
This delocalisation means that the oxygen atoms are effective at drawing electron density toward themselves and away
from other parts of the molecule through the conjugated system.
Due to this effect, the carboxyl group can pull electron density away from adjacent parts of a molecule through the pi
electron system (resonance), hence the description as having a resonance (-R) electron-withdrawing effect.
Q.7. [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ and [CoF6 ]3− are-
A) Inner orbital complex and outer orbital complex respectively

B) Outer orbital complex and inner orbital complex respectively
C) Both are Inner orbital complex.
D) Both are outer orbital complex.
Answer: Inner orbital complex and outer orbital complex respectively
Solution: In [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ Oxidation state of cobalt = +3
Electronic configuration of Co3+ = d6
NH3 being a strong field ligand causes the pairing. Therefore, Ni can undergo d2sp3 hybridization.
Hence, it is an inner orbital complex.
In [CoF6 ]3− F is weak field ligand for Co3+ , thus pairing of d-orbital electrons does not happen, so it forms: outer orbital
complex of hybridisation sp3d2
Hence, option A is the answer.
Q.8. Which of the following will have highest boiling point?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Answer:
Solution: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.
This is due to weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of dipole-dipole interactions. Also, their
boiling points are lower than those of alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of intermolecular hydrogen
bonding.
Hence,
has highest boiling point.

Q.9. Statement I: Among Mn2+ and Cr2+ , Cr2+ is better reducing agent.
Statement II: Half filled electronic configuration is more stable.
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. B) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong.
C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is wrong. D) Statement I is wrong and Statement II is correct.
Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Solution: If an element is behaving as reducing agent that means, it itself is undergoing oxidation that is there is loss of electrons.
while for reduction there is gain of electrons.
Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 . It can loose electron to form 3d3 which has stable configuration as it has half filled t2 g level.
Hence it is better reducing agent than Mn2+ which has a stable half filled configuration.
Hence Statement I is correct.
The stability of exactly half-filled orbitals in degenerate orbitals is stronger than that of other partially filled configurations.
Hence, Statement II is correct.
Q.10. Solubility of Ca3 (PO4 )2 in 100 mL of pure water is W gm. Find out Ksp of Ca3 (PO4 )2 is:
(Molar mass of Ca3 (PO4 )2 = M )
W 5 W 5
A) 108 × 105 × ( )M
B) 108 × ( )
M
W 5 W 5
C) 108 × 10 × ( )
4
M
D) 108 × 106 × ( )
M
W 5
Answer: 108 × 105 × ( )
M

Solution: Given the solubility of Ca3 (PO4 )2 is Wg /100 mL. The solubility in mol /L is S = W 1000
M
× 100
mol /L.
The equilibrium reaction of calcium phosphate is
Ca3 (PO4 )2 ⇌ 3 Ca2+ + 2 PO3−

4
At equilibrium 3S 2S
3 2
[ ] [PO ]
Now, Ksp = Ca2+ 3−
4
⇒ Ksp = (3S)3 (2S)2 = 108 × S5

5
⇒ Ksp = 108 × ( W
M
) × 10
W 5
⇒ Ksp = 108 × 10 × ( )
5
M
alc.KOH /Δ Br2 / CCl4

Q.11. C H Br − KCN Excess H 3O+
2 5 −−−−−→ A −−−−−→ B −−−−−−−→ C −−→ D
The final product D in the above reaction is
A) Succinic acid B) Malonic acid
C) Gluconic acid D) Oxalic acid
Answer: Malonic acid
Solution: The ethyl bromide undergo elimination reaction with alc.KOH gives ethene. Ethene gives dibromoethane with bromine in
carbon tetra chloride. The dibromoethane converts to dicyanoethane with excess KCN. The dicyanoethane on hydrolysis
gives malonic acid.
alc.KOH /Δ
C2 H5 Br −−−−−−→ CH2 = CH2
Br2 / CCl4
CH2 = CH2 −−−−−→ Br − CH2 − CH2 − Br
KCN Excess
Br − CH2 − CH2 − Br −−−−−−−→ NC − CH2 − CH2 − CN
H 3 O+
NC − CH2 − CH2 − CN −−→ HOOC − CH2 − CH2 − COOH malonic acid ( )
Q.12. Which one of the following has meta directing group?
A) NO2 , CHO, CN, SO3 H B) NO2 , NH2 , CN, OH
C) NO2 , CN, OR, COOH D) NH2 , CH3 , CN, SO3 H
Answer: NO2 , CHO, CN, SO3 H
Solution: Meta-directing deactivating groups are those that either do not donate electrons by resonance (sulfonic acid groups and
ammonium ion groups) or actually withdraw electrons by resonance (carbonyl, nitrile, and nitro groups).
They are meta-directing not because they decrease the electron density at ortho-para positions.
Hence, these are NO2 , CHO, CN, SO3 H meta directing group.
Q.13. Match the following:
Column I Column II
1. Phenol + CO2 + NaOH P. Salicylaldehyde
→
Δ
2. Phenol + Zn→ Q. Salicylic acid
3. Phenol + conc. HNO3 R. Picric acid
4. Phenol + KOH + CHCl3 S. Benzene
A) 1 − Q, 2 − S, 3 − R, 4 − P B) 1 − S, 2 − Q, 3 − R, 4 − P

C) 1 − Q, 2 − S, 3 − P, 4 − R D) 1 − Q, 2 − R, 3 − S, 4 − P
Answer: 1 − Q, 2 − S, 3 − R, 4 − P
Solution: 1.Kolbe’s reaction, also known as Kolbe Schmitt Reaction, is a type of addition reaction named after Hermann Kolbe and
Rudolf Schmitt. When phenol is treated with sodium hydroxide, phenoxide ion is generated. The phenoxide ion generated
is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction. Hence, it undergoes an electrophilic
substitution reaction with carbon dioxide, which is a weak electrophile. Ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid) is formed
as the primary product. This reaction is popularly known as Kolbe’s reaction.
2. When phenol is heated with zinc dust, the product formed is benzene only.
3. With concentrated nitric acid, phenol is converted to 2,4,6−Trinitrophenol. The product is commonly known as picric
acid.
4. When phenol reacts with chloroform in the presence of bases KOH / NaOH) an aldehyde group (− CHO) ) gets
introduced in the ring at a position ortho to the phenol group and salicylaldehyde is formed. This reaction is called
the Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
Hence, answer is A.
Q.14. Statement I: In p and d block both metal and non metal are present.
Statement II: Electronegativity and ionisation enthalpy of metal is greater than non-metals.
A) Both Statement I and II are correct. B) Both Statement I and II are wrong.
C) Statement I is correct and statement II is wrong. D) Statement I is wrong and statement II is correct.
Answer: Both Statement I and II are wrong.

Solution: In p block both metals and non metals are present whereas in d block only metals are present. Hence statement I is
wrong.
Non-Metals are electronegative elements and tend to share or accept electrons in a chemical reaction. Due to the
electrons accepting nature of non-metals, they gains more electrons to complete their octet. So, non-metals have high
ionisation enthalpy due to their small size and high electronegativity as compared to metal.
Hence statement II is wrong.
Q.15. The total number of monochlorination products of isopentane is
A) 4 B) 6
C) 10 D) 12
Answer: 6
Solution: The structure of isopentane is
The above molecule contain two types of primary hydrogen, one type of secondary hydrogen and one type of tertiary
hydrogen. Hence, a total of 4 structural isomers are possible.
Among the four, the products 2,3 are having chiral centers. Hence, the total number of isomeric monochlorinated products
for isopentane is 6.
Q.16. Statement1: In π BMO electron density is not present above and below the internuclear axis.
Statement 2: In π ABMO two nodal planes are present.
A) Both statements are correct B) both statement are incorrect
C) Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect D) Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
Answer: Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct

Solution:
Statement1: In π BMO electron density is present above and below the internuclear axis.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: In π ABMO two nodal planes are present.
This statement is correct.
Hence, the answer is D.
Q.17. Match the following
Compound Uses
(i)CCl4 (p) Refrigerator and AC
(ii)CH2 Cl2 (q) Non biodegradable
insecticide
(iii) Freons (r) Fire Extinguisher
(iv) DDT (s) Paint Removal
A) (i)-r, (ii)-s, (iii)-p ,(iv)-q B) (i)-p, (ii)-s, (iii)-r ,(iv)-q

C) (i)-s, (ii)-r, (iii)-p ,(iv)-q D) (i)-r, (ii)-s, (iii)-q ,(iv)-p
Answer: (i)-r, (ii)-s, (iii)-p ,(iv)-q
Solution: CCl4 is used in the manufacturing of refrigerants, as a cleaning agent and was also used as a fire extinguisher.
CH2 Cl2 is used as paint removal.
Freons are used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
DDT (p, p’-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is a colourless, crystalline, tasteless and almost odourless organochloride
known for its insecticidal properties.
Hence option A is the answer.
Q.18. Statement I: Ni2+ with DMG shows red colouration.
Statement II : Both Fe2+ and Fe3+ are blue coloured.
A) Statement I is correct Statement II is wrong. B) Statement I is wrong Statement II is correct.
C) Both statements I and II are correct. D) Both statements I and II are wrong.
Answer: Statement I is correct Statement II is wrong.

Solution: On addition of dimethylglyoxime (DMG) to nickel ion solution and on adding little bit of ammonia to make solution
basic, it will give a red precipitate. This is a very specific test for nickel +2 cation.
The reaction is as follows,
Hence statement I is correct.

Ferrous ion is a divalent iron compound ion. It has +2 oxidation state and is light green in color while ferric ion is trivalent
ion and is very pale violet or brown in colour.
Hence statement II is wrong.
Q.19. Number of radial nodes present in 3p are:

Answer: 1
Solution: 3p orbital the principal quantum number n = 3, placing it on the third energy level and the angular quantum number l = 1
gives the shape of p−orbital.
We can calculate the number of radial nodes using the formula,
N =n−l−1
The value of n is 3 and the value of l is 1.
N =3−1−1
N=1
The number of radial nodes in 3p orbitals is 1.
Q.20. A 10 mL hydrocarbon (Cx Hy ) on combustion gives 40 mL CO2 and 50 mL H2 O. Calculate the value of x + y.
Answer: 14
Solution: The combustion reaction can be represented as
(
Cx H y + x +
y
4
)O → xCO + yH O
2 2 2
At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22. 4 L

10 mL of hydrocarbon, 50 mL of water and 40 mL of carbon dioxide corresponds to 0. 45, 2. 23, and 1. 79 moles
respectively.
Hence, the combustion of 1 mole of hydrocarbon will produce 5 moles of water and 4 moles of carbon dioxide.
Thus, the molecular formula contains 4 carbon atoms and 10 hydrogen atoms.
The hydrocarbon is C4 H10 and the combustion reaction is
C4 H10 + 6. 5O2 → 4 CO2 + 5H2 O
x + y = 4 + 10 = 14
Q.21. In Kjeldahl's method of estimation of nitrogen, containing 1 gm organic compound nitrogen is converted to ammonia which
is further treated with 10 mL, 2M H2 SO4 . Find the percent of nitrogen?
Answer: 56

Solution: Equivalent of NH3 =Equivalent of H2 SO4
2×10×2
moles of NH3 (nNH3 )×1 = 1000
= 4 × 10−2 moles
Moles of nitrogen= 4 × 10−2 moles
Weight of Nitrogen
= 4 × 10−2 × 14
= 56 × 10−2 gm
Percent of nitrogen
−2
= weight of56×10
the compound
× 100
56×10−2
= 1 × 100 = 56%
Q.22. Find Δr G∘ (in kJ / mol), 300 K, if Keq is 10.

Given R = 8. 314 J/ molK
Give an answer to the nearest integer value.
Answer: 6
Solution: Δr G∘ = − RTlnK
= −2. 303 RT logK
= −2. 303 × 8. 314 × 300 log 10 J/ mol
−2.303×8.314×300
= 1000
kJ / mol
= 5. 77 ≈ 6 kJ / mol
Q.23. For a given first order chemical reaction A(g) → 2Bg . If the initial pressure of A is 0. 1 atm and total pressure of the system
after 100 sec is 0. 18 atm. Value of the rate constant (sec−1 ) is n × 10−2 , Give the value of n.
Answer: 16
Solution: A(g) → 2B(g)
at t = 0 0. 1 −
at t = 100 0. 1 − P 2P
PTotalt=100 = 0. 1 − P + 2P = 0. 18
0. 1 + P = 0. 18 atm
P = 0. 18 − 0. 1 = 0. 08 atm
Pinial = 0. 1 atm
Pt = 0. 1 − 0. 08 = 0. 02 atm
K = 1t ln ( 0.1
0.1−P
)
K = 2.303
100
log 0.1
0.02
= 0. 016 = 16 × 10−2 = n × 10−2
⇒ n = 16
Q.24. If α and β be the roots of equation px2 + qx − r = 0, where p ≠ 0. If p, q, r be the consecutive terms of a non-constant GP
and α1 + β1 = 34 , then the value of (α − β)2 is:
A) 80 B) 16
9 9
C) 9 D) −9
16 16
Answer: 80
9
9
Solution: Given,
α and β be the roots of equation px2 + qx − r = 0
So, α + β = − pq , αβ = − pr
1 1 3
It is given that, α + β
= 4
α +β 3
⇒ αβ
= 4
q 3
⇒ r = 4
Now, p, q, r are in GP
q 4
So, common ratio of this GP will be p = rq = 3
⇒ px2 + qx − r = 0
⇒ x2 + pq x − pr = 0
4 2
⇒ x2 + 43 x − ( ) =0
3
⇒ 9x2 + 12x − 16 = 0
⇒ (α − β)2 = (α + β)2 − 4αβ
−12 2
⇒ (α − β)2 = ( ) −4( )
9
−16
9
⇒ (α − β)2 = 16
9
+ 64
9
⇒ (α − β)2 = 80
9
Q.25. The number of solutions of the equation 4 sin2 x − 4 cos3 x + 9 − 4 cos x = 0, x ∈ [−2π, 2π] is:
A) 1 B) 0
C) 2 D) 3
Answer: 0
Solution: Given: 4 sin2 x − 4 cos3 x + 9 − 4 cos x = 0
⇒ 4 − 4 cos2 x − 4 cos3 x + 9 − 4 cos x = 0
⇒ 4 cos3 x + 4 cos2 x + 4 cos x − 13 = 0
⇒ 4 cos3 x + 4 cos2 x + 4 cos x = 13
We know that, −1 ≤ cos x ≤ 1
So, the maximum value of LHS is (4 + 4 + 4) = 12
But, RHS is 13.
So, no solutions are possible for the given equation.
Q.26. If the domain of the function f (x) = √ x 2−25
+ log (x2 + 2x − 15) is (−∞, α) ∪ [β, ∞), then α2 + β 2 is equal to
4−x 2
A) 50 B) 100
C) 20 D) 10
Answer: 50

Solution: Given: f (x) = √ x 2−25
+ log (x2 + 2x − 15)
4−x 2
⇒ x2 − 25 ≥ 0
⇒ (x − 5) (x + 5) ≥ 0
⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5] ∪ [5, ∞) . . . (i)

4 − x2 ≠ 0
⇒ x ≠ 2, −2 . . . (ii)
⇒ x2 + 2x − 15 > 0
⇒ (x + 5) (x − 3) > 0
⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5) ∪ (3, ∞) . . . (iii)

Using (i), (ii) and (iii)
⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5) ∪ [5, ∞)

So, on comparing with x ∈ (−∞, α) ∪ [β, ∞) we get,
⇒ α2 + β 2 = (−5)2 + (5)2
⇒ α2 + β 2 = 50
Q.27. If ∫ π3 cos4 x d x = aπ + b√3 then find the value of a2 + b
0
A) 1 B) 1
2
C) 1 D) 1
9 8
Answer: 1
8

Solution: Let,
π
I = ∫03 cos4 x d x
π
2
⇒ I = 14 ∫03 (2 cos2 x) d x
π
⇒ I = 14 ∫03 (1 + cos 2x)2 d x
π
⇒ I = 14 ∫03 (1 + cos2 2x + 2 cos 2x) d x
π π
⇒ I = 14 ∫03 (1 + 2 cos 2x) d x + 18 ∫03 2 cos2 2xdx
π π
⇒ I = 14 ∫03 (1 + 2 cos 2x) d x + 18 ∫03 (1 + cos 4x)dx
π
⇒I= [ 1
( + sin 2x) + 18
4 x
(x + sin 4x
4
)] 3
0
sin 43π
⇒I= 1
4
( π
3
+ sin 23π + ) 1
8
( π
3
+ 4
)
⇒I= ( π
12
+
√3
8
)+( 24
π
−
√3
64
)
π 7√3
⇒I= 8
+ 64
So, on comparing with given value we get,

1 7
a2 + b = 64 + 64
8 1
⇒ a2 + b = 64
= 8
Q.28. The probability that Ajay will not go to office is 15 and probability that Ajay and Vijay will go to office is 27 , if their visits to
office is independent of each other, then find the probability that Ajay will go to the office, but Vijay will not go, is
A) 18 B) 12
35 28
C) 24 D) 13
35 35
Answer: 18
35
Solution: The probability that Ajay will not go to office is, P (A′ ) = 1
5
4
⇒ P (A) = 5
2
The probability that Ajay and Vijay will go to office is, P (A ∩ V ) = 7
2
⇒ P (A) × P (V ) = 7
⇒ P (V ) = 27 × 5
4
5
⇒ P (V ) = 14
The probability that Ajay will go and Vijay will not go is,
⇒ P (A ∩ V ′) = 4 × 9
5 14
18
⇒ P (A ∩ V ′ ) = 35
Q.29. If A (2, 3, 1), B (3, 2, −1), C (−2, 1, 3) are vertex of △ ABC and AD is angle bisector of angle A, then projection of −
−→
AD on
−−→
AC is

A) 2 B) √2
√3 3
C) √ 2
3
D) 1
√3
Answer: √ 2
3
Solution: Given,
A (2, 3, 1), B (3, 2, −1), C (−2, 1, 3) are vertices of △ ABC and AD is angle bisector,
AB BD
Since AD is angle bisector, so BC
= DC
√6 BD
⇒ =
2√6 DC
BD 1
⇒ DC
= 2
Now, using the section formula, the coordinates of D ≡ ( 6−2 4+1 −2+3
3
, 3 , 3 )≡( 4 5 1
, ,
3 3 3
)
−−→ −2 −−→
So, AD = 3
î − 43 ĵ − 23 k̂ and AC = −4 î − 2 ĵ + 2k̂
−−→ −−→
Now, projection of AD on AC is given by,
−−→ −−→ 8 8 4
+ −
AD ⋅AC
−−
→
∣∣AC ∣∣
= 3 3 3
√16+4+4
= 4
√24
= 4
2√6
= √ 2
3
∣ ∣
Q.30. 18
If m and n be the coefficient of 7th and 13th terms in the expansion of ( 1 13
3
x + 1
2
2x 5
) 1
, then the value of ( mn ) 3 is:
A) 4 B) 9
9 4
C) 2 D) 3
3 2
Answer: 4
9

Solution: 18
Given expansion is ( ) 1 13
3
x +
2x 5
1
2
.
12 6
⇒ T7 = 18C6 ( )( )
1 13
3
x
1
2
2x 5
1 12 1 6
⇒ m = 18C6 ()() 3 2
6 12
⇒ T13 = 18C
12 ( )(
1 13
3
x
1
2
)
2x 5
1 6 1 12
⇒ n = 18C12 ( )( )
3 2
18C 1 12 1 6
() ()
m 6 3 2
⇒ n =
18C 1 6 1 12
( )( )
12 3 2
m
( 13 )6
⇒ n =
( 12 )6
2 6
⇒ m
n = () 3
1
4
⇒ ( mn ) 3 = 9
Q.31. Find the minimum value of ∣∣z + 3+4i ∣

2 ∣
such that |z| ≤ 1
A) 3 B) 5
2
C) 3
D) 5
2
Answer: 3
2

Solution: Given: ∣∣z + 3+4i ∣
2 ∣
; |z | ≤ 1
Let, z = x + iy
⇒ |z| = 1 gives x2 + y2 = 1, which represents a circle having centre at (0, 0) and radius as 1 unit.
Now, ∣∣z + 3+4i ∣

2 ∣
gives the distance of z from ( 3
2
, −2 )
So, we need to find the minimum distance of AP .

⇒ AP = OP − OA
2
⇒ AP = √(− − 0) + (0 + 2) − 1
3
2
2
⇒ AP = √ 9
4
+4−1
⇒ AP = 52 − 1
3
⇒ AP = 2
Q.32. If dx 1+x −y 2
dy
= y
and x (1) = 1, then 5x (2) is equal to _____.
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
Answer: 5

Solution: Given: dx 1+x −y 2
dy
= y
dx 1+x
⇒ dy
= y
−y
dx 1+x
⇒ dy
− y = −y
dx dt
Now let 1 + x = t ⇒ dy
= dy
dt
⇒ dy
− yt = −y
1
⇒ IF = e∫ − y dy
⇒ IF = e− log y
1
⇒ IF = elog y
1
⇒ IF = y
So, the solution of the given differential equation is

t 1
y =∫ y × (−y)dy
(1+x ) 1
⇒ y =∫ y × (−y)dy
(1+x )
⇒ y = −y + c
Also, x (1) = 1
2
⇒ 1 = −1 + c
⇒c=3
(1+x )
⇒ y = −y + 3
Putting y = 2
(1+x )
⇒ 2 = −2 + 3
⇒ (1 + x) = 2
⇒x=1
⇒ 5x = 5
Q.33. If Sn be the sum of first n terms of an AP and if S10 = 390 and the ratio of the 10th term to 5th term is 15 : 7, then find the
value of S15 − S5
A) 885 B) 790
C) 800 D) 700
Answer: 790

a 10 15
Solution: Given: a5 = 7
a +9d 15
⇒ a +4d
= 7
⇒ 7a + 63d = 15a + 60d

⇒ 3d = 8a
Also, S10 = 390
10
⇒ 2
[2a + 9d] = 390
⇒ 2a + 24a = 78
⇒a=3
⇒d=8
15
⇒ S15 − S5 = 2
(6 + 14 × 8) − 52 (6 + 4 × 8)
15
⇒ S15 − S5 = 2 × 118 − 52 × 38
⇒ S15 − S5 = 885 − 95
⇒ S15 − S5 = 790
Q.34. If the mirror image of the point P (3, 4, 9) in the line x −1 y+1 z −2
3
= 2 = 1
is (α, β, γ) then find the value of 14 (α + β + γ)
Answer: 108
Solution: The given point is P (3, 4, 9)
Let, Q (α, β, γ) be the image of P (3, 4, 9) and 'O' be the mid-point of PQ which is on the given line
x −1 y+1 z −2
3
= 2 = 1 = λ (say)
⇒ x = 3λ + 1, y = 2λ − 1, z = λ + 2
let (3λ + 1, 2λ − 1, λ + 2) be the co-ordinates of O.
Direction ratios of the line is a1 = 3, b1 = 2, c1 = 1
Also, direction ratios of PO are
(3λ − 2, 2λ − 5, λ − 7)
As, PO is perpendicular to the line
3 (3λ − 2) + 2 (2λ − 5) + λ − 7 = 0
⇒ 14λ − 23 = 0
23
⇒λ= 14
∴ O point is (3 ⋅ 2314 + 1, 2 ⋅ 2314 − 1, 23

14
+2 )
Since, O is mid-point of PQ
∴ (3 ⋅ 2314 + 1, 2 ⋅ 2314 − 1, 23
14
) (
+2 = 3+α 4+β 9+γ
2
, 2 , 2 )
So, on comparing we get,
62 4 −12
α = 7 , β = 7, γ = 7
Hence, 14 (α + β + γ) = 108

Q.35. If the system of the equation x + 2y + 3z = 5, 2x + 3y + z = 9 & 4x + 3y + λz = μ have infinite number of solutions then find
the value of λ + 2μ
Answer: 17
Solution: Given,
The system of equations,
x + 2y + 3z = 5
2x + 3y + z = 9
4x + 3y + λz = μ have many solutions,
So, △=△1 =△2 =△3
∣1 2 3 ∣
Now, finding △= ∣∣ 2 3 1 ∣∣ = 0
∣4 3 λ∣
⇒ 1 (3λ − 3) − 2 (2λ − 4) + 3 (6 − 12) = 0
⇒ λ = −13
∣1 2 5 ∣
∣ ∣
Now, finding △3 = ∣ 2 3 9 ∣ = 0
∣ ∣
∣4 3 μ∣
⇒ 3μ − 27 − 4μ + 72 − 30 = 0
⇒ μ = 15
Hence, the value of λ + 2μ = −13 + 30 = 17
Q.36. (
( √x +1) x 2−√x )
If y = x √x +x +√x
+ 1
15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x) then find the value of 96y′ ()
π
6
Answer: 105

Solution: Given,
( √x +1) x 2−√x( ) 1
y=
x √x +x +√x
+ 15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
(
( √x +1) x 2−√x ( √x −1)) 1
⇒y= + 15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
( x √x +x +√x )( √x −1)
(
( √x +1) x 2−√x ( √x −1)) 1
⇒y= + 15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
√x ( x +√x +1)( √x −1)
( )
( √x +1) x 2−√x ( √x −1)
⇒y= + 151 (3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
√x (( √x ) 3−1)
( √x +1) √x (( √x ) 3−1)( √x −1) 1

⇒y= + 15 (3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
√x (( √x ) 3−1)
1
⇒ y = (√x + 1) (√x − 1) + 15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
1
⇒ y=x−1+ 15
(3 cos5 x − 5 cos3 x)
dy 1
⇒ dx
=1+ 15
(15 cos4 x (− sin x) + 15 cos2 x sin x)
dy
⇒ dx
= 1 + (cos4 x (− sin x) + cos2 x sin x)
⇒ y′ ( ) = 1 + (cos ( )(− sin ( )) + cos ( ) sin ( ))

π
6
4 π
6
π
6
2 π
6
π
6
( )=1+ ⎛( √3 )4
( )+− 12
(√3)2 1 ⎞
⇒ y′ π
6 ⎝ 24 22
× 2 ⎠
⇒ y′( )=1− + =
π
6
9
32
3
8
32−9+12
32
= 35
32
⇒ 96y ( ) = 35 × 3 = 105
′ π
6
Q.37. If there are 20 lines numbered as 1, 2, 3, . . . , 20 and the odd numbered lines intersect at a point and all the even numbered
lines are parallel, then find the maximum number of points of intersection.
Answer: 101
Solution: Given:
Out of 20 numbered lines, odd numbered lines are concurrent, even number lines are parallel.
So, the maximum number of intersection points will be given by,
N = (1 → point of intersection when both lines are odd) + (0 → point of intersection when both lines are parallel) + (10C1 × 10C1
⇒ N = 1 + 0 + 100
⇒ N = 101
Q.38. In a isobaric process work done by gas is 200 J. Adiabatic constant for the gas is 1. 4, then find the heat supplied to the gas
during the process.
A) 600 J B) 400 J
C) 500 J D) 700 J
Answer: 700 J

Solution: The work done for the given process can be written as
W = P Δ V = nR Δ T . . . (1)
For an isobaric process, the formula to calculate the heat supplied is given by
Q = nCP Δ T . . . (2)
Since the adiabatic gas constant is 1. 4, it indicates that the gas is a diatomic gas.
Hence, the expression for CP for the gas can be written as
1
CP = 2 fR + R (as CP − CV = R)
= 52 R + R
= 72 R . . . (3)
Equations (1), (2) and (3) imply that
( )
Q=n 72 R Δ T
= 72 nR Δ T
= 72 W
= 72 × 200 J
=700 J
Q.39. Train A moves with velocity 20 m s−1 towards North and train B moves with velocity 30 m s−1 towards South. Then find the
velocity of train B with respect to train A.
A) 10 m s−1 B) 50 m s−1
C) 60 m s−1 D) 0 m s−1
Answer: 50 m s−1
Solution: The formula to calculate the velocity of train B with respect to train A is given by
→ → →
V BA = V B − V A . . . (1)
Since the trains are approaching from the opposite directions, from equation (1), it follows that
∣∣→ ∣ −1 −1
∣V BA ∣∣=30 m s − (−20 m s )
=50 m s−1
Q.40. In the given circuit, the galvanometer has 2 Ω resistance. Find the ratio of charge stored in 4 μF and 6 μFcapacitors.
A) 1 B) 3
3 5
C) 1 D) 5
2 9
Answer: 1
2

Solution: Let's consider the following diagram:
When the capacitors are fully charged, there will be no current through them. The direction of the current in the steady
state is depicted in the above diagram.
The current in the circuit in the steady state is given by
6V
i= 4 Ω+2 Ω+6 Ω
=0. 5 A
With reference to the above diagram, the potentials at points A, B, C and D are given by
VC = 0 V (Let), then
VB = 6 Ω × 0. 5 A = 3 V,
VD = 3 V + (2 Ω × 0. 5 A) = 4 V and
VA = 6 V
Thus, the charge (q1 ) across the 4 μF capacitor is
q1 =(4 × 10−6 ) (VA − VB )
=12 μC
And, the charge (q2 ) across the 6 μF capacitor is
q2 =(6 × 10−6 ) (VD − VC )
=24 μC
Hence, the required ratio is given by
= 12 1
q1
q2 24 = 2
Q.41. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R, is rolling with velocity of center of mass v. If it starts moving upwards on an
inclined plane, then find the height achieved by the sphere before coming to rest.
A) 5v 2 B) 7v 2
7g 10g
C) 3v 2 D) 7v 2
10g 5g
Answer: 7v 2
10g

Let's consider that the angular velocity of the sphere is ω and the sphere will rise up to a vertical height H along the
inclined plane before coming to rest.
The initial kinetic energy of the sphere can be written as
1 1
K = 2 Mv2 + 2 Iω2
2
= 12 Mv2 + 1
2
( 2
5
MR2 )( )
v
R
= 107 Mv2 . . . (1)
The final potential energy of the sphere can be written as

U = MgH . . . (2)
From the conservation of mechanical energy, equations (1) and (2) imply that
7
10
Mv2 = MgH
7v 2
⇒H= 10g
Q.42. In the figure shown, find the ratio of the tensions in the strings T1
T2
.
A) 1 B) 1
2 4
C) 4 D) 1
1 3
Answer: 4
1

Solution:
From the given figure, it is clear that the tension T2 will be equal to the weight of the lower block, whereas the tension T1
will have a combined weight from both the blocks.
Thus, from the given figure, it follows that
T2 = 1 kg × g
And,
T1 = (3 kg + 1 kg) × g

T1 4
T2
= 1
TI
Q.43. Find the ratio of of time periods of the two pendulums shown in the figure below. Given that, m1 > m2 .
T II
A) 2 B) 1
3
C) 1 D) 1
2
Answer: 1
Solution: The formula to calculate the time period of a simple pendulum is given by
T = 2π √ l
g
where, l, g are the effective length of the pendulum and the acceleration due to gravity respectively.
From the above equation, it can be concluded that the time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is independent of the
mass of the pendulum bob.
Hence, for the given scenario, the ratio of the time periods of two pendulums will be 1.
Q.44. There are two cubical Gaussian surfaces carrying charges as shown(C1 is inside C2 ). Find the ratio of the flux through
surfaces C1 and C2 .

A) 2 : 5 B) 1 : 1
C) 2 : 3 D) 5 : 2
Answer: 2 : 5
Solution: From the given figure, it is clear that the total charge enclosed by the cubical surface C1 is 2Q, whereas, the total charge
enclosed by the surface C2 is (2Q + 3Q) = 5Q.
Thus, using Gauss's law, the flux through surface C1 is
2Q
ϕ1 = ε0
And, the flux through surface C2 is

5Q
ϕ2 = ε0

2Q
ϕ1 ε
ϕ2
= 5Q0
ε0
= 25
Q.45. A source produced electromagnetic wave of frequency 60 MHz. Find wavelength of this wave in air.
A) 3 m B) 4 m
C) 5 m D) 6 m
Answer: 5 m
Solution: Given here: ν = 60 × 106 Hz
Using the relation between wavelength and frequency, we have
c 3×108
Wavelength λ = ν = = 5 m.
60×106
Q.46. If a bulb of 40 W is producing a light of wavelength λ = 4000 Å . Then find the number of photons emitted by the bulb per
second.
A) 8 × 1019 B) 7 × 1019
C) 6 × 1019 D) 5 × 1019
Answer: 8 × 1019
Solution: Given that,
Power of monochromatic light is, P = 40 W
Wavelength of monochromatic light is, λ = 4000 Å
Expression for energy of a photon is given by,
hc
E= λ
6.63×10−34×3×108
⇒E= = 5 × 10−19 J
4000×10−10
Energy emitted by 40 W source per second, TE = 40 J

Number of photons emitted per second,
T
n = EE = 40−19 = 8 × 1019
5×10
Q.47. 1000 drops of total surface energy E coalesce to form a bigger drop of surface energy E ′ . Find the value of E ′ .
E
A) 10
B) E
C) 10E
D) 100E

E
Answer: 10
Solution: As we know, surface energy E = T A, where T =surface tension and A =surface area.
Now, total volume of the drops will remain same. Therefore,
1000 ( πr ) =
4
3
3 4
3
πR3
⇒ R = 10r
Now,
(
T 4πR2 ) 2
E′
E
=
T ( 1000×4πr 2)
= 1
1000
× ( )=
R
r
1
10
E
⇒ E′ = 10
→ →
Q.48. A body of mass m = 4 kg is acted upon by two forces, F ( ) ( )
1 = 5 î + 8 ĵ + 7 k̂ N and F 2 = 3 î − 4 ĵ − 3 k̂ N. Find the
magnitude of acceleration of the body.
A) √3 m s−2 B) √11 m s−2
C) √7 m s−2
D) √6 m s−2
Answer: √6 m s−2
Solution: In this problem: m = 4 kg
→ →
( ) (
F 1 = 5 î + 8 ĵ + 7k̂ N & F 2 = 3 î − 4 ĵ − 3k̂ N )
→ → −→
Resultant force= F = F 1 + F2
( ) (
= 5 î + 8 ĵ + 7k̂ + 3 î − 4 ĵ − 3k̂ )
= (8 î + 4 ĵ + 4k̂ )
→∣
∣∣F √ 2 2 2
∣ ∣∣ = 8 + 4 + 4 = √64 + 16 + 16 = 4√6 N
F
⇒ F = ma ⇒ a = m
∴ a = 4√6 N
4 kg
= √6 m s−2
Q.49. A particle is moving in circular path of radius r with speed v such that speed is proportional to radius as v ∝ r− 32 . Then
the time period of revolution depends on r as T ∝ rn . The value of n is
A) 5 B) − 12
2
C) 1 D) − 52
2
Answer: 5
2

Solution: The relation between the angular velocity and the linear velocity for the given particle is
v = ωr . . . (1)
Also, the time period of revolution of the particle is

2π
T= ω . . . (2)
Equations (1) and (2) imply that
2πr
T= v . . . (3)
3
Since, v ∝ r− 2 , from equation (3), it can be written that
2πr
T= 3
. where c is constant
−
cr 2
5
= kr 2
5
⇒ T ∝ r2
Here, c, k are proportionality constants.
Hence, n = 52 .
Q.50. Initially the balance point of the meter bridge is at 40 cm. Now if unknown resistance (X) is shunt by 2 Ω resistance then
the new balance point is found to be at β × 10−1 cm. Find the value of β.
Answer: 625

For the first case, from the balanced condition of the meter bridge, it can be written that
2 X
40
= 100−40
2
⇒ X = 60 × 40
Ω
=3Ω
When the shunt is used, the equivalent resistance for the EB part of the above diagram becomes,
1
Req = 1 1
+
3Ω 2Ω
= 65 Ω
Thus, for the second case, if l be the required balanced length in the meter bridge, it follows that
6
2 5
l
= 100−l
⇒ 2 × 56 (100 − l) = l
⇒ 500 − 5l = 3l
⇒ 8l = 500
⇒ l = 500
8
= 62. 5
= 625 × 10−1 cm
Hence, β = 625.
Q.51. Find the number of significant digits in the value 10. 05.
Answer: 4
Solution: Rule for significant digits:
1. All non-zero numbers are significant.
2. Zeros between two non-zero digits are significant.
3. Leading zeros are not significant.
4. Trailing zeros to the right of the decimal are significant.
Therefore, number of significant digits are 4.
Q.52. A ball of mass 120 g moving with initial velocity 25 m s−1 is stopped by an external force F in 0. 15 s. Find the magnitude of
F in newton :
Answer: 20

Solution: Given that,
Mass of the ball, m = 120 g = 0. 12 kg
Initial velocity of the ball, u = 25 m s−1
Final velocity of the ball, v = 0 m s−1
Time taken for the velocity change, t = 0. 15 s
We know that,
Force = mass × acceleration
⇒F=m ( )=v−u
t
0.12(0−25)
0.15
= −20 N (− ve sign represents opposite direction)
Therefore, required magnitude is 20.

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JEE Main

1st Feb Shift 2

Embibe: AI Powered Personalised Adaptive Learning & Outcomes Platform 1

Q.1. Which of the following have colour due to d-d transition?

Hence option C is the answer.

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Reducing the character of hydrides in group 15:

A) Inner orbital complex and outer orbital complex respectively

Electronic configuration of Co3+ = d6

Hence, it is an inner orbital complex.

Q.8. Which of the following will have highest boiling point?

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has highest boiling point.

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The equilibrium reaction of calcium phosphate is

Ca3 (PO4 )2 ⇌ 3 Ca2+ + 2 PO3−

⇒ Ksp = (3S)3 (2S)2 = 108 × S5

alc.KOH /Δ Br2 / CCl4

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A) (i)-r, (ii)-s, (iii)-p ,(iv)-q B) (i)-p, (ii)-s, (iii)-r ,(iv)-q

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Hence statement I is correct.

Q.19. Number of radial nodes present in 3p are:

At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22. 4 L

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Q.22. Find Δr G∘ (in kJ / mol), 300 K, if Keq is 10.

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⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5] ∪ [5, ∞) . . . (i)

⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5) ∪ (3, ∞) . . . (iii)

⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −5) ∪ [5, ∞)

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So, on comparing with given value we get,

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Q.31. Find the minimum value of ∣∣z + 3+4i ∣

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Now, ∣∣z + 3+4i ∣

So, we need to find the minimum distance of AP .

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So, the solution of the given differential equation is

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⇒ 7a + 63d = 15a + 60d

∴ O point is (3 ⋅ 2314 + 1, 2 ⋅ 2314 − 1, 23

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( √x +1) √x (( √x ) 3−1)( √x −1) 1

⇒ y′ ( ) = 1 + (cos ( )(− sin ( )) + cos ( ) sin ( ))

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Equations (1), (2) and (3) imply that

Embibe: AI Powered Personalised Adaptive Learning & Outcomes Platform 22

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= 107 Mv2 . . . (1)

The final potential energy of the sphere can be written as

Embibe: AI Powered Personalised Adaptive Learning & Outcomes Platform 24

Hence, the required ratio is given by

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And, the flux through surface C2 is

Hence, the required ratio is given by

Energy emitted by 40 W source per second, TE = 40 J

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