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Neet 2016 Paper
Neet 2016 Paper
Neet 2016 Paper
01-05-2016
Time: 3 Hrs. l e;: 3 ?kaVs CODE-C / R / Y Max. Marks : 720 v f/kd re v ad : 720
INSTRUCTIONS (funs
'k)
Z
Important Instructions: egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k %
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you 1. mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrd k d svUnj j[kk gSA t c vkid ks
are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer ijh{kk iqfLrd k [kksy usd ksd gk t k,] rksmÙkj i=k fud ky
Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2
d j i`"B-1 ,oai`"B-2 ij d soy uhy s@ d ky sckWy ikWbaV isu
carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
lsfooj.k HkjsaA
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains
2. ijh{kk d h vof/k 3 ?ka VsgS,oaijh{kk iq fLrd k esa180 iz 'u
180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each
gS
A iz
a R;sd iz 'u 4 va d d k gS A izR;s
d lgh mÙkj d sfy,
correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted ijh{kkFkhZd ks4 va
d fn, t k,a xs
A izR;s
d xyr mÙkj d sfy,
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. dq y ;ksx esals,d va d ?kVk;k t k,xkA vf/kd re va d 720
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars gSaA
on this page/marking responses. 3. bl i` "B ij fooj.kva fd r d jus,a
o mÙkj i=k ij fu'kku yxkus
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this d sfy, d osy uhys u d k iz
@ d kysckyW ikbWVa is ;kxs d js
Aa
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. jQ d k;Zbl ijh{kk iqfLrd k esafu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh d jsaA
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
5. ijh{kk lEiUu gksusij] ijh{kkFkhZd {k@gkWy NksM uslsiwoZ
havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the
mÙkj i=k d {k fujh{kd d ksv o'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZv ius
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them. lkFk iz'u iqfLrd k d ksy st k ld rsgSaA
6. The CODE for this Booklet is C. Make sure that the CODE 6. bl iqfLrd k d k lad sr gSC A ;g lqfuf'pr d j ysafd bl
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as iqfLrd k d k lad sr] mÙkj i=k d si`"B-2 in Nislad sr ls
that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate feyrk gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gks rks ijh{kkFkhZ nwl jh ijh{kk
should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator
iqfLrd k vkSsj mÙkj i=k ysus d s fy, fujh{kd d ks rqjUr
for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the
voxr d jk,aA
Answer Sheets.
7. ijh{kkFkhZlq
fuf'pr d jsafd bl mÙkj i=k d kseksM+k u t k,
7. The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
,oaml ij d ksbZvU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZviuk
Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in vuqØ ekad iz'u iqfLrd k@mÙkj i=k es fu/kkZfjr LFkku d s
the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. vfrfjDr vU;=k uk fy[ksaA
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on
8. mÙkj i=k ij fd lh izd kj d sla'kks/ku gsrqOgkbV ¶+y wbM d s
the Answer Sheet.
iz;ksx d h vuqefr ughagSA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksad sv uqokn esafd l h v Li"Vrk d h fLFkfr esa] v axzst h l aLd j.k d ksgh v fUre ekuk t k;sxkA
Selections
(from 20012-2015)
Selections @ 2015
66
(YCCP: 51 | DLP+eLP: 15)
35
(YCCP: 20 | DLP+eLP: 15)
AIPMT
Selections
(from 20012-2015)
Selections @ 2015
1559
(YCCP: 1128 | DLP+eLP: 431)
447
(YCCP: 337 | DLP+eLP: 110)
rd
Selection of every 3 student from
classroom coaching program in
AIPMT 2015
1. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates :
(1) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
(2) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
(3) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
(4) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
ijh{kkFkhZizl ad j.k esa] ft lesaF1 f}lad j efD[k;k¡'kkfey Fkha] iqu;ksZ
xt izd kj d h larfr;ksad h rqy uk esat ud &izd kj
d h larfr;k¡vf/kd mRiUu gq;hA blesalad sr fey rsgSafd %
(1) nks
uksagh y {k.kksad k fu;a=k.k ,d lsvf/kd t huksa}kjk gksrk gSA
(2) nkst hu nksvy x xq.klw=kksaij fLFkr gSaA
(3) v/kZ
l w=k.k d snkSjku
xq.klw=k iF̀kd ughagksik,A
(4) nkst hu lgy Xu gS
avkSj ,d gh xq.klw=k ij fo|eku gSaA
Ans. (4)
Sol. If a plant with genotype Aa Bb is crossed with aabb then Independent Assortment would result in
production of 4 type of offsprings in equal proportion.
Aa Bb – Gametes AB Ab aB ab
aa bb – Gametes ab ab ab ab
Since parental percentage is more then recombinants it is due to linkage between genes A and B.
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 1
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
3. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?
gkWeksZuksad sfuEufy f[kr ;qXeksaesalsd kSu&lk ;qXe ,d nwl jsd sfojks/kh ¼foijhr izHkko oky k½ ughagS\
Ans. (1)
+2
Sol. Parathormone increases blood Ca level
+2
Calcitonin decreases blood Ca level
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 2
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
6. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high
rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In
which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?
(1) Nitrogen fixer (2) C3 (3) C4 (4) CAM
vkid sm|ku esa,d ikni izd k'k 'olu lsgksusoky h gkfu lscprk gS] mld h t y mi;ksx d h n{krk mUur gS] og
mPp rki ij izd k'k la'y s"k.k d h mPp nj d ksn'kkZrk gSvkSj mld h ukbVªkst u mi;ksx d h n{krk mUur gSA vki bl
ikni d ksfuEufy f[kr esalsfd l ,d d kf;Zd h lewg esaj[ksaxs\
(1) ukbVª
kst u fLFkfjd kjd (2) C3
(3) C4 (4) CAM
Ans. (3)
Sol. C4 plants have high rate of photosynthesis at higher temperature.
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 3
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
7. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously
(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
belZu nh?khZd j.k izHkko vkSj y ky cwan ¼jsM Mªki½ fd ld h [kkst esaizeq[k ;a=k jgsgSa\
(1) vkW
DlhMsfVo Q kLQ ksfjy s'ku
(2) iz
d k'kQ kLQ ksfjy s'ku
vkSj vpØ h; by sDVªkWu vfHkxeu
(3) nksiz
d k'k rU=kksad k ,d lkFk d k;Zd juk
(4) iz
d k'kQ kLQ ksfjy s'ku vkSj pØ h; by sDVªkWu vfHkxeu
Ans. (3)
Sol. Red drop occur due decreased functioning of ps-II beyond 680 nm and when both ps I and ps II are
functioning together their is enchancement in quantum yield.
8. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?
Tissue Location
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(2) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(3) Areolar tissue Tendons
(4) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Å rd fLFkfr
(1) ?kukd kj mid y k vkek'k; vkLrj
(2) fpd uh is'kh vka=k fHkfÙk
(3) ,sfjvksy h Å rd d aM jk
(4) ifjorhZmid y k ukfld kxz
Ans. (2)
9. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model
is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
(1) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
(2) when N/K is exactly one.
(3) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(4) when N/K equals zero.
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| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
y kWft fLVd ekWM y d k vuql j.k d jrsgq, fd lh lef"V d h of̀) nj 'kwU; d scjkcj d c gksxh \ y kWft fLVd ekWM y d ks
fuEufy f[kr lehd j.k lsn'kkZ;k x;k gS%
dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
(1) t c t Uenj d h vis{kk eR̀;qnj vf/kd gksA
(2) t c N/K Bhd ,d gks
(3) t c N i;kZ
okl d h /kkfjrk {kerk d slehi gksA
(4) t c N/K 'kw
U; d scjkcj gksA
Ans. (2)
dN N
Sol. rN 1
dt k
dN
rN 1 1 0
dt
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| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
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15. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:
(1) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
(2) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
(3) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian
tube.
(4) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.
ekuoksaesafu"ksp u izfØ ;k O;kogkfjd r% rHkh laHko gksxh t c%
(1) xz
hok uky d sHkhrj 'kqØ k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k xHkkZ'k; esav.Mk.kqd sfueqqZDr gksusd s48 ?kaVsd sHkhrj gksrk gksA
(2) 'kq
Ø k.kqv ksad k ;ksfu d sHkhrj LFkkukUrj.k v.Mk.kqd sQ SYkksfi;u ufy d k ughaesaNksM +st kusd sBhd ckn gksA
(3) v.Mk.kqvkS
j 'kqØ k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k Q SYkksfi;u ufy d k d s,aiq
y jh&bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksA
(4) v.Mk.kqvkS
j 'kqØ k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k xzhok d s,aiqy jh bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksrk gksA
Ans. (2,3)
17. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
(1) Animalia (2) Monera (3) Protista (4) Fungi
Ø kblksQ kbV] ;qXy hukW
bM] Mkbuks¶y st sy sV vkSj voiad Q Q aqnh fd l t ho t xr~esalfEefy r gSa\
(1) t a
rqt xr~ (2) eks
usjk (3) iz
ksfVLVk (4) d od
Ans. (3)
18. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as :
(1) Tonus (2) Spasm (3) Fatigue (4) Tetanus
mÙkjksÙkj mn~nhiuksad schp foJkafr d h d eh d sd kj.k gksusoky h nh?kZd kfy d is'kh lad qp u d gy krk gSaS%
(1) Vksul (2) ,aBu ¼LikT+e½
s (3) Fkd ku (4) fVVsul
Ans. (4)
Sol. Tonus low level activity of muscles at rest to maintain posture.
Spasm Sudden involuntary muscle contraction
fatigue decline in muscle activity
Tetanus Sustained muscle contraction in response to successive stimuli
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 7
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
'ba
fgfcu' d sckjsesalgh d Fku igpkfu, %
(1) ;g o`"k.kksad h /kk=kh ¼ulZ½ d ks
f'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSvkSj LH - ò o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(2) LH,FSH vkS
j izksy SfDVu ò o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(3) ;g v.Mk'k; d h d f.kd h; d ksf'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSA vkSj FSH ò o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(4) ;g v.Mk'k; d h d f.kd h; d ksf'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSvkSj LH ò o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
Ans. (3)
20. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
(1) Respiratory alkalosis (2) Emphysema
(3) Asthma (4) Respiratory acidosis
/kweziku d jusd sd kj.k iz/kkur% mRiUu gksusoky snh?kZd ky h 'olu&fod kj d k uke crkb, %
(1) 'olu {kkje;rk (2) okrLQ hfr
(3) vLFkek (4) 'olu vkEy jDrrk
Ans. (2)
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23. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) lactose and galactose (2) glucose
(3) galactose (4) lactose
y Sd izp ky s
d d h vfHkO;fDr d sfy , fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu ,d izsjd d s: i esad k;Zd jusd sfy , vko';d gksxk \
(1) y SDVkst vkSj xSy sDVks
t (2) Xy w
d kst
(3) xS
y sDVkst (4) y S
DVkst
Ans. (4)
Sol. As lae operon becomes active after inducing lactose but glucose & galactose can't do so.
Pure tall Pure dwarf
TT tt
T t
F1 generation = Tt
T t
F2 generation T TT Tt
t Tt tt
Genothypes = 1 : 2 : 1
TT Tt tt
Pure Tall heterogygous tall pure dwarf
24. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the
F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of :
,d y ECksrn~: i iz
t uu m|ku eVj ikni d ks,d ckSusrn~: i izt uu m|ku eVj ikni lslad fjr d jk;k x;kA t c
F1 ikniks
ad ksLoijkfxr fd ;k x;k rkst hu izk: i d k ifjek.k fd l vuqikr esaFkk \
(1) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
(1) 3 : 1 : : ckS
us: y ECks
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : y Ecsle;q Xet h : y Ecsfo"ke;qXet h : ckSus
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : y ECksfo"ke;q
Xet h : y Ecsle;qXet h: ckSus
(4) 3 : 1 : : y Ecs: ckSus
Ans. (2)
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 9
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
25. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
rEckd wd sikS/ksd k d kS
u&lk Hkkx fey ks
bMks
xkbu bUd ks
fXuVk }kjk laØ fer gksrk gS\
(1) Root (2) Flower (3) Leaf (4) Stem
(1) t M+ (2) iq
"i (3) iRrh (4) ruk
Ans. (1)
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
d kf;d d ksf'kd kvksaes
alelw
=k.k d snkSjku fuEufy f[kr es
alsd kSu&lk y {k.k ughaik;k t krk \
(1) Synapsis (2) Spindle fibres
(3) Disappearance of nucleolus (4) Chromosome movement
(1) lw=k;qXeu (2) rd q
Z: ih rarq
(3) d s
fUnzd k d k foy ksiu (4) xq
.klw=k xfr
Ans. (1)
Sol. Synapsis is pairing of homologous chromosomes which occurs during meiosis but it is absent in mitos.
27. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
mRifjorZu d slaca/k esad S
al j d ks
f'kd kvksad sfy , fuEufy f[kr d Fkuksaesalsd kSu&lk lgh ughagS\
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomeres.
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes acceleration the cell cycle.
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(1) mRifjorZ u Vhy ksejst d smRiknu d kslanfer d j nsrsgSaA
(2) iz
kd ~d Sal jt huksaesamRifjorZu d ksf'kd k&pØ d ksRofjr d j nsrsgSA
(3) mRifjorZ u Vhy ksejst laned d ksu"V d j nsrsgSA
(4) mRifjorZ u d ksf'kd k&fu;a=k.k d ksfuf"Ø ; d j nsrsgSaA
Ans. (1)
Sol. Cancer will be caused by increased telomerase activity making the cancerous cells immortal & not by
inhibition of telomerase production.
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 10
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
30. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?
,d uXu pV~Vku ij ,d vxzxkeh t ho d s: i esafuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu vk;sxk \
(1) Green algae (2) Lichens (3) Liverworts (4) Mosses
(1) gfjr 'kS
oky (2) y kbd s
u (3) fy ojoVZ (4) ekW
l
Ans. (2)
Sol. Lichens are pioneer organisms on bare rocks as they corrode the rocks by secreting enzyme &
converted into soil.
32. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body
contain :
izfrvkfo"k Vhd ksaesaiwoZfufeZr izfrj{kh gksrsgSat cfd iksfy ;ksd h cw¡nksaesaft Ugsaeq¡
g }kjk fny k;k t krk gS] gksrsgSa%
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens
(3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin
(1) {kh.k d j fn, x, jks
xt ud (2) lfØ f;r jks xt ud
(3) cuk, x, iz frj{kh (4) xkek Xy ks
C;qfy u
Ans. (1)
OPV is of 2 types :
(i) OPV sabin – Live attenuated vaccine
(ii) OPV salk – Killed vaccine
34. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :
}kj d ksf'kd kvksad ks?ksjusoky h fof'k"Vhd r̀ ckgkzRoph; d ksf'kd kvksad ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
(1) Lenticels (2) Complementary cells
(3) Subsidiary cells (4) Bulliform cells
(1) okrjU/kz (2) iw
jd d ksf'kd k,a
(3) lgk;d d ksf'kd k,¡ (4) vko/kZRod d ksf'kd k,a
Ans. (3)
Sol. As subsidiary cells & guard cells both are modification of epidermal cells in which guard cells have
chloroplasts which is absent in surroundings subsidiary cells.
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| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
35. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?
fuEufy f[kr y {k.kkasesalsd kSu&lk y {k.k Q kby e&vkFkzkZ
siksMk easughaik;k t krk \
(1) Jointed appendages (2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Metameric segmentation (4) Parapodia
(1) laf/kr mikax (2) d kbfVuh ckgkz
d ad ky
(3) fo[kaM h [kaM hHkou (4) ik'oZikn
Ans. (4)
Sol. Parapodia is a characteristic of Annelida.
36. Reduction in pH of blood will :
: f/kj d spH esagksusoky h d eh d sd kj.k
(1) release bicarbonate ions by the liver,
(2) reduce the rate of heart beat.
(3) reduce the blood supply to the brain
(4) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
(1) ;d r̀ }kjk ckbd kcks
ZusV d k fu"d klu gksusy xsxkA
(2) ân;&Lia nu d h nj d e gkst k;sxh
(3) efLr"d d k : f/kj la Hkj.k d e gkst k;sxkA
(4) vkWDlht u d slkFk gheksXy ksfcu d h ca/kqrk ?kV t k;sxhA
Ans. (4)
37. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd ks
u&lsfof'k"V y {k.k ges'kk gh t arqv ksad svuq: ih oxZesaik, t krsgSa?
Ans. (2)
This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal PAGE # 12
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Sol. Reptilia has an order crocodilia which shows 4 chambered heart. In mammals, prototheria group shows
oviparity while metatheria & eutheria show viviparity. Chordates can be gnathostomata & agnatha
(without jaws). Only cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes) show cartilaginous endoskeleton without
exception
38. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column IIand choose the correct option:
d kWy e I d h 'kCnksad ksd kWy e II esafn, x, mud so.kZu lseSp d hft ;srFkk lgh fod Yi pqfu,:
Column I Column II
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters
LrEHkI LrEHkII
(a) izHkkfork (i) vus d t hu ,d y y {k.k d k fu;a=k.k d jrsgSa
(b) lgiz Hkkfork (ii) fo"ke;qXeut h t ho esad soy ,d gh ,sy hy Lo;ad ksvfHkO;Dr d jrk
gS
(c) cgq
izHkkfork (iii) fo"ke;qXeut h t ho esanksuksagh ,sy hy Lo;ad ksiwjh rjg vfHkO;Dr
d jrsgSaA
(d) cgq
t huh oa
'kkxfr (iv) ,d y t hu vus d y {k.kksad ksizHkkfor d jrk gSA
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ill) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (ill)
(3) (ii) (ill) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (ill)
Ans. (3)
39. A typical fat molecule is made up of :
,d izk: ih olk d k v.kqfd ld k cuk gksrk gS\
(1) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(2) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(3) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(4) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(1) rhu Xy hljkW y vkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqv ksad k
(2) rhu Xy hljkW y v.kqv ksavkSj ,d olk vEy v.kqd k
(3) ,d Xy hljkW y v.kqvkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqv ksad k
(4) ,d Xy hljkW y vkSj ,d olk vEy v.kqd k
Ans. (3)
Sol. fat is a triglyceride which is made up of 3 molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol
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41. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u&lk d Fku xy r gS\
(1) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
(2) Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(4) Uracil is a pyrimidine.
(1) Xy kbflu ,d lYQ j;q Dr vehuksvEy gSA
(2) lqØ ksl ,d MkblSd sjkbM gSA
(3) lsY;wy ksl ,d ikWfy lSd sjkbM gSA
(4) ;w
jSfly ,d fifjfeMhu gSA
Ans. (1)
Sol. Glycine is the simplest amino acid which is devoid of sulpher content
42. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal
opening carbon. dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements
using one of following options :
ikni iÙkh lst y ok"i jU/kzksad s}kjk ckgj vkrk gSizd k'k la'y s"k.k d snkSjku mlh jU/kzlsd kcZu MkbvkWDlkbM ikni
lsfolfjr gksrh gSA mi;qZDr d Fkuksaesa¼d kj.kksaij fopkj d j½ ,d fod Yi pqfu, %:
(1) One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
(2) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
(3) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient ofwater and CO2 is different.
(4) The above processes happen only during nighttime.
(1) ,d iz fØ ;k fnu esarFkk nwl jh izfØ ;k jkr esagksrh gS
A
(2) nks
uksaizfØ ;k,sa,d lkFk ughagksld rhA
(3) nks
uksaizfØ ;k,a,d lkFk gksld rh gS aD;ks
afd t y vkSj CO2 d k folj.k xq.kkad fHkUu gSA
(4) mi;q ZDr izfØ ;k,ad soy jkr esagksld rh gSa A
Ans. (3)
45. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
(1) Co – extinctions (2) Over - exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
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t Urqv ksavkSj ikniksad h foy qfIr d k fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu&lk ,d lclseq[; d kj.k gS\
(1) lg&lekfIr (2) vfr nks
gu
(3) fons 'kh t kfr d h p<+kbZ (4) vkokl gkfu vkS
j [kaM u
Ans. (4)
46. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in :
gjfr y od esaizksVkWu d h vf/kd re la[;k d gk¡ik;h t krh gS\
(1) Antennae compIex (2) Stroma
(3) Lumen of thylakoids (4) Inter membrane space
(1) ,sUVsuk leqPp (2) ihfBd k
(3) Fkkby s
d ksbM d h vod kf'kd k (4) vUrj d y k LFkku
Ans. (3)
47. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at
present?
Mh-,u-,– vaxqfy Nkiu d h fd lh Hkh rd uhd d sfy , fuEufy f[kr esalsfd l ,d d h vko';d rk ughagksrh \
(1) DNA -DNA hybridization (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Zinc finger analysis (4) Restriction enzymes
(1) Mh–,u–,&Mh–,u-,– la d j.k (2) ikW
y hejst Jà[ky k vfHkfØ ;k
(3) ft a
d vaxqfy fo'y s"k.k (4) iz
frca/ku ,at kbe
Ans. (3)
48. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals,
include the :
(1) Eubacteria (2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Methanogens
osvkfne izkd ~d sUnzd h izk.kh] t ks jks
eUFkh t arqv kasd sxkscj ls ck;ksxSl &mRiknu d sfy , mÙkjnk;h gksrsgS] fd ld s
varxZr vkrsgS\
(1) lq
t hok.kqv kasd s (2) y o.kjkfx;ks
ad s
(3) rki&vEy jkfx;kad s (4) ehFkS
ut ud ksad s
Ans. (4)
49. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
(1) Metamerically segmented body
(2) Schizocoelom as body cavity
(3) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(4) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u&lk y {k.k isfjIy SusVk vesfjd kuk esaugh ik;k t krk gS\
(1) fo[ka
M 'k% [kafMr nsg
(2) ns
gxqgk d s: i esanh.kZxqgk
(3) Hkw
z.kh; ifjo/kZ
u d snkSjku vfu/kkZfjr vkSj vjh; fony u
(4) N– ,ls
fVy Xy wd ksl ,sehu lsfufeZr cká d ad ky
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Ans. (3)
Sol. Periplaneta Americana shows indeterminate and spiral cleavage
50. A system of rotating crops with legume or gras pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
(1) Shifting agriculture
(2) Ley farming
(3) Contour farming
(4) Strip farming
eǹk lajpuk vkSj moZjd rk es
alq/kkj y kusd sfy , Q ly ksad ksQ y hnkj ikS/kksa¼y sX;we½ ;k ?kkl pkjxkg d slkFk cny d j
y xkusd ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
(1) LFkkukUrjh Ñ f"k
(2) y s[ks
rh
(3) leks
Ppjs[kh; [ksrh
(4) iV~
Vhnkj [ksr
Ans. (2)
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uhpsnh x;h rkfy d k esaxy r fey k;h x;h enksad kspqfu, ?
Ans. (1)
52. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
(1) Hepatic Portal Vein
(2) Renal Vein
(3) Dorsal Aorta
(4) HepaticVein.
Lru/kkfj;ksaesad kSu&lh : f/kj&okfgd k lkekU;r% lclsvf/kd ;w
fj;k ogu d jrh gS\
(1) ;Ñ r fuokfgd k f'kjk
(2) oD̀d &f'kjk
(3) i`
"B egk/keuh
(4) ;Ñ r&f'kjk
Ans. (4)
Sol. Urea/Ornithine cycle takes place in liver so the vein leaving liver possesses maximum urea which is
hepatic vein
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lgh d Fku pqfu, %
(a) gheks
Q hfy ;k fy ax&lgy Xu vizHkkoh jksx gSA
(b) Mkmu flaM ªkse vlqxqf.krk d sd kj.k gksrk gSA
(c) Q s
fuy d hVksuesg ¼fQ ukby d hVksU;wfj;k½ ,d vfy ax lw=kh vizHkkoh t hu fod kj gSA
(d) nk=k d ks
f'kd k jDrkYirkX-lgy Xu vizHkkoh t hu fod kj gSA
(1) (a), (b) vkS
j (c) lgh gSA
(2) (a) vkS
j (d) lgh gSA
(3) (b) vkSj (d) lgh gSA
(4) (a), (c) vkS
j (d) lgh gSA
Ans. (1)
Sol. Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal codominant disorder
54. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Semilunar valve
(3) Ileocaecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter.
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u&lh lajpuk ;Ñ nXU;kl d h okfguh d sxz
g.kh esa[kqy usoky sja/kzd h ns[kHkky d jrh gS\
(1) vks
M kbZd ksvojksf/kuh (2) v/kZ
p anzkd kj d ikV
(3) f=kd ka
=k d ikV (4) t BjfuxZ
e vojksf/kuh
Ans. (1)
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56. The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
(1) Free nuclear endosperm (2) Endocarp
(3) Fleshy mesocarp (4) Free nuclear proembryo
d Ppsukfj;y eas] ukfj;y ikuh D;k gS\
(1) LorU=k d s
Unzd h Hkzw.kiks"k (2) vUr%Q y fHkfÙk
(3) xw
nsnkj e/;Q y fHkfÙk (4) LorU=k d s
Unzd h Hkzw.kiwohZ
Ans. (1)
Sol. In tender coconut, edible part is liquid endosperm that represents free nuclear endosperm
(3) lks
y Sus
lh
(4) Q S
csl h
Ans. (2)
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60. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as :
(1) Scales (2) Cladodes
(3) Phyllodes (4) Phylloclades
ifÙk;ksad k d k;Zd jusoky s
] piVsgjsvax esa: ikUrfjr rusd ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
(1) 'kYd (2) ik.kkZ
Hk ioZ
(3) i.kkZ
Hk oÙr (4) i.kkZ
Hk LRkEHk
Ans. (4)
61. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self, If this property
is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :
(1) Active immunity
(2) Allergic response
(3) Graft rejection
(4) Auto-immune disease
mPprj d 'ks: fd ;kasesa] izfrj{kk ra=k Lo&d ksf'kd kvksavkSj xSj&d ksf'kd kvksaesaHksn d j ld rk gSA ;fn ra=k d k vkuqoaf'kd
vilkekU;rk d sd kj.k ;g xq.k u"V gkst k, vkSj og Lo&d ksf'kd kvks
ad ksu"V d jusy xsrksbld sifj.kkeLo: i D;k
gksxk\
(1) lfØ ; izfrj{kk
(2) ,s
y t hZvuqfØ ;k
(3) fujks
i vLohd kj d j nsuk
(4) Loiz
frj{kk fod kj
Ans. (4)
Sol. If self & non-self recognization power is lost than immune cells can attack our own body cells and cause
auto immune disease
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62. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules
of nomenclature.
(1) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
(2) Biological names can be written in any language
(3) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
(4) The names are written in Latin and are italicised
uke&i) fr d qn fo'ks"k lkoZt fud ekU; fu;eksa}kjk fu/kkZfjr gks
rh gSA fuEufy f[kr easalsd kSu lk ,d d Fku uke
i) fr d sfu;eksad sfo: ) gS\
(1) uke d kst c gkFk lsfy [krsgSrks mlsjs[kkafd r fd ;k t krk gS
(2) t S
fod uke d ksfd lh Hkh Hkk"kk easfy [kk t k ld rk gSA
(3) t S
fod uke esaigy k 'kCn oa'k uke vkSj nwl jk 'kCn t kfr lad sr in d ksiznf'kZr d jrk gSSA
(4) ukeks
ad ksy SfVu Hkk"kk esavkSj frjNsv{kjksaesafy [kk t krk gS
Ans. (2)
(2) iou
(3) d hV
(4) i{kh
Ans. (1)
Sol.
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mYcos/ku d slanHkZesa] fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lk d Fku xy r gS\
(1) bls[ka
M rky q¼Dy s¶V iSy sV½ d k irk y xkusd sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
(2) ;g vkerkSj lsrc fd ;k t krk gSt c L=kh d ks14 -16 lIrkg d schp d k xHkZgks
rk gS
A
(3) blsiz
l oiwoZfy ax&fu/kkZj.k d sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
(4) blsMkmu flaM ªkse d k irk y xkusd sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
Ans. (1)
Sol. Cleft palate is a structural defect and cannot be determined by amniocentesis.
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Sol. kinetochore of chromosome facilitates the attachment of spindle fibre (chromosomal fibre) and pole
67. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
(1) Sea- horse
(2) Gangetic shark
(3) River dolphin
(4) Blue whale
Hkkjr d k jk"Vªh; t y h; izk.kh d kSu lk gS?
(1) leq
æh- ?kksM +k
(2) xa
xk d h 'kkd Z
(3) unh d h MkW
fYQ u
(4) Cy wg~
osy
Ans. (3)
Sol.
68. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
(1) Nuclei
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplasts
(4) Lysosomes
fuEufy f[kr eslsd kSu lk d ksf'kd kax d soy ,d y d y k lsf?kjk gksrk gS?
(1) d s
Uæd
(2) lw
=kd f.kd k
(3) gfjry od
(4) y ;ud k;
Ans. (3)
Sol. Except Lysosome, all three are bounded by double membrane
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Ans. (1)
70. In which of the following, all three are macronutrients ?
(1) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
(2) boron, zinc, manganese.
(3) Iron,copper, molybdepum
(4) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u lHkh rhu cg̀Ùkiks"kd gSa\
(1) ukbVª
kst u, fufd y , Q kLQ ksjl
(2) cks
jkWu ft ad , eSaxt hu
(3) y kS
g, rkez, eksy hCMsue
(4) eks
y hCMsue, eSXuhf'k;e, eSaxuht
Ans. (1) or bonus
Sol. No answer is correct
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Ans. (3)
73. Select the incorrect statement:
(1) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
(2) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
(3) LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
(4) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
xy r d Fku d kspqfu,
(1) LH y hfMx d ksf'kd kvksals,aM ªkst u d sL=kko d ksiz
sfjr d jrk gSA
(2) FSH lVks
Zy h d ksf'kd kvksad ksmíhfir d jrk gSt ks'kqØ k.kqt uu eslgk;rk d jrk gSA
(3) LH va
M k'k; esvaM ksRlt Zu d ksizsfjr d jrk gSA
(4) LH vkS
j FSH iqVd voLFkk d snkSjku /khsjs-/khjs?kVrk t krk gSA
Ans. (4)
Sol. LH and FSH both increase during follicular phase.
74. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? .
(1) Warm blooded nature (2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Breathing using lungs (4) Viviparity
fuEufy f[kr y {k.kksaesalsd kSu lk ,d y {k.k if{k;ksavkSj Lru/kkfj;ksanksuksaesaughaik;k t krk gS
(1) fu;rrkih iz
Ñ fr (2) vfLFkHkw
r var% d ad ky
(3) Q s
Q M+ksa}kjk 'olu (4) lt hoiz
t d rk
Ans. (4)
Sol. birds are oviparous while mammals are oviparous(prototherians) and viviparous(metatherians and
eutherians).
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76. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of :
(1) Apomixis (2) Sporulation
(3) Budding (4) Somatic hybridization
iq"ih ikniksaesfcuk fu"ksp u d scht cuuk fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lh izfØ ;k gSa\
(1) vla
xt uu (2) cht k.kq
d t uu
(3) eq
d qy u (4) d kf;d lad j.k
Ans. (1)
Sol.
77. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(1) Vasectomy prevents
spermatogenesis
(2) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(3) Intra uterine devices increase phagocytosis
of
sperms, suppress
sperm
motility and fertilizing
capacity of sperms
(4) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of
Contraceptives sperms, prevent
ovulation
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and fertilization
Ans (1)
Sol. vasectomy causes sterilization by preventing transfer of sperms into semen
78. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :
(1) Cortisol and Cortisone
(2) Melatonin and Serotonin
(3) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine .
(4) Estrogen and Progesterone
vehuks
avEy fVªIVksQ Su fd ld sla'y s"k.k d sfy , iwoZxkeh gksrk gS\
(1) d ks
fVZl ksy vkSj d ksfVZl ksu
(2) es
y kVksfuu vkSj lsjksVksfuu
(3) Fkk;jkW
fDlu vkSj VªkbZv k;ksM ksFkk;jksfuu
(4) bZ
LVªkst u vkSj izkst sLVsjkWu
Ans. (2)
Sol.
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79. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :
(1) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
(2) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(3) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(4) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
,d unh esat c d kcZfud vif'k"V lsHkjiw
j ?kjsy wokfgr ey cgd j fxjrk gks] rksmld k ifj.kkke D;k gksxk \
(1) vkW
Dlht u d h d eh d sd kj.k eNfy ;kWej t k;saxhA
(2) 'kS
oky izLQ qVu d sd kj.k unh t Ynh gh lw[k t k;sxh A
(3) t y h; Hkkst u d h lef"V esaof̀) gkst k;sxhA
(4) ck;ks
fMxzsM scy iks"k.k d sd kj.k eNy h d k mRiknu c<+t k;sxkA
Ans. (1)
Sol.
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Wing or alae
Keel or carina
Sol.
Papilionaceous corolla
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(4) DNase I
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u lk ,d izfrca
/k ,aM ksU;wfDy ,t gSA
(1) vkj,u,t
(2) fgUn II
(3) iz
ksfV,t
(4) Mh,u,t I
Ans. (2)
Sol.
84. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
(1) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
(2) It is easier to carry a small body weight.
(3) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(4) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
cMs+vkd kj d st arqv ksad eqd kcy sesNksVsvkd kj d st arqv ksad fy , igkM+h ij p<+uk vklku gksrk gSA D;ksafd
(1) Nks
Vst arqv ksad seqd kcy sescM+st arqv ksad h isf'k;ksad h d k;Z{kerk d e gksrh gSA
(2) Nks
Vs'kjhj d sHkkj d ksÅ ij y st kuk vis{kkÑ r vklku gksrk gSA
(3) Nks
V vd kj oky si'kqv ksad h mikip;h nj vis{kkÑ r vf/kd gksrh gSA
(4) Nks
Vsvkd kj d st arqv ksad hO2 vko';d rk vis{kkÑ r d e gksrh gSA
Ans. (3)
Sol. smaller animals have higher BMR related with sustained energy production and delayed muscle
fatigue
85. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(2) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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86. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher
that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the
cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result
in
(1) Polyteny
(2) Aneuploidy
(3) Polyploidy
(4) Somaclonal variation
[ksr lsy k;sx, ,d ikni d ksf'kd k esa,d fo|kFkhZ}kjk vaR;koLFkk ns[kh x;hA og viusf'k{kd lsd grk gSfd ;g
d ksf'kd k vUR;koLFkk ij vU; d ksf'kd kvksalsfHkUu gSA blesad ksf'kd k Iy sV ugah curh vkSj bl d kj.k bl d ks
f'kd k esa
vU; foHkkt u oky h d ksf'kd kvksad h vis{kk vf/kd xq.klw=k gSA bld k ifj.kke D;k gksxk\
(1) cgq
iV~Vrk
(2) vlq
xqf.krk
(3) cgq
xqf.krk
(4) d k;Dy ks
uh fofHkUurk
Ans. (3)
Sol.
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87. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
(1) Methane
(2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Ozone
(4) Ammonia
okrkoj.k esafd l xSl d h d eh gksusij Ropk d sd Sal j d svolj c<+t k,axsa\
(1) ehFks
u
(2) ukbVª
l vkWDlkbM
(3)vks
t ksu
(4) veks
fu;k
Ans. (3)
Sol.
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Ans. (3)
PART B – PHYSICS
91. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that
it can complete the loop ?
R f=kT;k d sfd lh Å /okZ/kj ik'k (y wi) esam nzO;eku d sfd lh fi.M+d ksfd l fuEure osx lsiz
os'k d juk pkfg, fd
og ik'k d ksiw.kZd j ld s?
(1) 5gR (2) gR (3) 2gR (4) 3gR
Ans. (1)
Sol. To complete the vertical loop, the minimum speed required at the lowest point = 5gR
So ans is (1)
92. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the
angle between these vectors is :
;fn nkslfn'kksad s;sx d k ifjek.k mu nkslfn'kksad svUrj d sifjek.k d scjkcj gS] rksbu lfn'kksad schp d ks.k gSA
(1) 180° (2) 0° (3) 90° (4) 45°
Ans. (3)
Sol. A B A B
7
93. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitational potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 10 J
–2 –2
kg and 6.0 ms respectively ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
: Roh; foHko vkSj xq: Roh; Roj.k g d seku Ø e'k% – 5.4 × 107 J kg–2 rFkk
iF̀oh d si`"B lsfd ruh Å ¡p kbZij xq
6.0 ms
–2
gksrsgS? iF̀oh d h f=kT;k 6400 km y hft ,A
(1) 2000 km (2) 2600 km (3) 1600 km (4) 1400 km
Ans. (2)
GM 7
Sol. = 5.4 × 10
r
GM
=6
r2
dividing both the equations, r = 9000 km.
so height from the surface = 9000 – 6400 = 2600 km
94. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with
–3
each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
fd lh y Ech ifjukfy d k esa Q sjksa d h la[;k 1000 gSA t c bl ifjukfy d k ls 4A /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS] rc bl
ifjukfy d k d sizR;sd Q sjslslac) pqEcd h; ¶y Dl 4 × 10–3 Wb gksrk gSA bl ifjukfy d k d k Lo&izsjd Ro gS:
(1) 1H (2) 4H (3) 3 H (4) 2H
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Ans. (1)
Sol. self = Li
–3
(4 × 10 )(1000) = (L)(4)
L = 1 Henry
95. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 F and a resistor. 40 are connected in series across a source of
emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is
fd lh L=kksr ft ld k emf, V = 10 sin 340 t gS] lsJs.kh esa20 mH d k izsjd , 50 F d k la/kkfj=k rFkk 40d k
izfrjks/kd la;ksft r gS
A bl izR;korhZ/kkjk ifjiFk es
a'kfDr {k; gSA
(1) 0.89 W (2) 0.51 W (3) 0.67W (4) 0.76W
Ans. (2)
L = 6.8
R=400
1/c=58.8
Sol.
96. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths ,
are initially at a distance d(d << ) a part because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak
from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity
v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :
–1 1/2 –1/2
(1) v x (2) v x (3) v x (4) v x
fd lh mHk;fu"B fcUnqls
] y EckbZd h nksæO;ekughu Mks
fj;ksalsfuy afcr] nksloZl e vkos
f'kr xksy s] vU;ksU; izfrd "kZ.k
d sd kj.k] vkjEHk esa,d nwl jslsd(d<< ) nwjh ij gSA nksuksagh xksy ksals,d fu;r nj lsvkos'k d k {kj.k vkjEHk
gksrk gS] vkSj bld sifj.kkeLo: i xksy s,d nwl jsd h vksj osx vlsvkrsgS
A rc xksy ksad schp d h nwjh] x d sQ y u d s
: i esaosx fopj.k fd l : i esagksrk gS?
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–1 1/2 –1/2
(1) v x (2) v x (3) v x (4) v x
Ans. (4)
Sol.
Tcos
T
Tsin
kq2
x2 x
mg
kq2
Tsin =
x2
Tcos = mg
Dividing the equations
kq2 x
tan = here tan sin =
mgx 2 2
x kq2
= 2
2 x
3/2
qx
dq 3 1/ 2 dx dx –1/2
x x
dt 2 dt dt
97.
1 2
V
2F 8F
A capacitor of 2F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the
percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
(1) 80% (2) 0% (3) 20% (4) 75%
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1 2
V
2F 8F
vkjs[k esan'kkZ;svuql kj 2F /kkfjrk d sfd lh la/kkfj=k d k vkos'ku fd ;k x;k gSA t c fLop S d ksfLFkfr 2 ij ?kqek;k
t krk gS] rksblesalafpr Å t kZd k izfr'kr {k; gks
xkA
(1) 80% (2) 0% (3) 20% (4) 75%
Ans. (1)
1 2 2
Sol. Initial energy stored in the 2F capacitor is = (2)V = V J
2
Energy less =
C1C2 2
(V1 – V2) =
2 8 (V – 0)2
2 C1 C2 2 2 8
5 2
Eloss = V J
4
5 4 V2
% loss = × 100 = 80%
V2
98. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r cos txˆ sin tyˆ . Where is a constant.
Which of the following is true?
(1) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r .
(3) Velocity is acceleration both are parallel to r .
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
d ksbZd .k bl izd kj xeu d jrk gSfd mld k fLFkfr lfn'k r cos txˆ sin tyˆ }kjk fu: fir fd ;k x;k gS] ;gk¡
,d fu;rkad gS?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u lk d Fku lR; gS?
(1) os
x r d sy Ecor~gSrFkk Roj.k ewy fcUnqlsnwj d h vksj funsZf'kr gSA
(2) os
x vkSj Roj.k nksuksagh r d sy Ecor~gSaA
(3) os
x vkSj Roj.k nksuksagh r d slekUrj gSA
(4) os
x r d sy Ecor~gSrFkk Roj.k ewy fcUnqd h vksj funsZf'kr gSA
Ans. (4)
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Sol. V cos t i sin tjˆ
ˆ
dr
V = – sint î + cost ĵ
dt
dV 2 2
a = – cost î – sint ĵ
dt
since r.V = 0 so r r V
and a – 2 r
so a will be always aiming towards the origin.
99. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the
centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about at perpendicular axis,
passing through the centre ?
nzO;eku M rFkk f=kT;k R d h fd lh fMLd lsR O;kl d k d ksbZoÙ̀kkd kj fNnzbl izkd j d kVk t krk gSfd mld h usfe
fMLd d sd sUnzlsxqt jsA fMCcsd s'ks"k Hkkx d k] fMLd d sy Ecor~mld sd sUnzlsxqt jusoky sv{k d sifjr% t M+Ro
vk?kw.kZD;k gS?
2 2 2 2
(1) 9MR /32 (2) 15MR /32 (3) 13MR /32 (4) 11 MR /32
Ans. (3)
M, R
M/4
R/2
Sol.
MR 2
I1 =
2
2
M R
2
4 2
M R 3MR 2
I2 =
2 4 2 32
MR 2 3MR2 13MR2
Inet = I1 – I2 = – so answer is 3.
2 32 32
100. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean
density are twice as that of earth is :
iF̀oh ij iy k;u os x (ve) rFkk ml xzg ij iy k;u osx (vp) esaD;k vuqikr gksxk, ft ld h f=kT;k vkSj vkSl r ?kuRo
iF̀oh d h rqy uk es
anksxqusgS?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 4
Ans. (3)
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4
2G R3
2GM 3
Sol. Ve =
R R
Ve R
V1 R V1 1
1 1
V2 R2 2 V2 2 2
so answer is 3.
101. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two
cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance
points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of
emf's is :
fd lh fOkHkoekih d srkj d h y EckbZ100 cm gSrFkk bld sfljksad schp d ksbZfu;r foHkokUrj cuk, j[kk x;k gSA nks
lsy ksad ksJs.khØ e esaigy s,d nwl jsd h lgj;rk d jrsgq, vkSj fQ j ,d &nwl jsd h foijhr fn'kkvksaesala;ksft r fd ;k
x;k gSA bu nksuksaizd j.kksaesa'kwU;&fo{ksi fLFkfr rkj d s/kukRed fljsls50 cm vkSj 10 cm nwjh ij izkIr gksrh gSA
nksuksalsy ksad h emf d k vuqikr gS:
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
Ans. (1)
Sol. E1 + E2 = K(50)
E1 – E2 = K(10)
E1 E2 5
E1 E2 1
E1 3
E2 2
102. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed
–1
of 15 ms . Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :
–1
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms )
800 Hz vkof̀Ùk d h /ofu mRiUu d jusoky k d ksbZlk;ju fd lh izs{kd ls,d pV~Vku d h vksj 15 ms–1 d h pky ls
xfreku gSA rc ml /ofu d h vkof̀Ùk] ft lspV~Vku lsijkofrZr izfr/ofu d s: i esaog izs{kd lwurk gS] D;k gksxh?
(ok;qea
s/ofu d h pky = 330 ms–1 y hft ,)
(1) 885 Hz (2) 765 Hz (3) 800 Hz (4) 838 Hz
Ans. (4)
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15 m/sec.
Sol.
f0
103. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is :
A
B Y
C
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
uhpsfn, x, ifjiFk esa] fuxZr 1 izkIr d jusd sfy , fuos'k d k lgh p;u gS%
A
B Y
C
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
Ans. (1)
A=1 Output = 0 +1=1
Sol.
Output = 1.1=1
B=0
C=1
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104. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a' the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when
light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle
of :
–1 3 –1 1 –1 2 –1 2
(1) sin (2) sin 4 (3) sin 3 (4) sin
4 3
t c pkSM +kbZ'a' d h fd lh ,d y f>jh ij 5000 Å rjaxnS/;Zd k izd k'k vkiru d jrk gS] rksf>jh d sd kj.k mRiUu
foorZu iSVuZesa30° d sd ksa.k ij igy k fufEU"B fn[kkbZnsrk gSA igy k f}rh;d mfPP"B ft l d ksa.k ij fn[kkbZnsxk] og
gS%
3 1 2 –1 2
(1) sin–1 (2) sin
–1
4 (3) sin
–1
3 (4) sin
4 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. Path difference between the extreme rays at first minima = a sin =
a sin(30°) = a = 2
3
Path difference between the extreme rays at first secondary maxima = a sin' =
2
3 –1 3
(2)sin' = ' = sin
2 4
105. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength ' the stopping potential is V. If the
V
same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping potential is . The threshold
4
wavelength for the metallic surface is :
5
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4)
2
t c fd lh /kkfRod i`"B d ksrajxnS/;Zd sfofd j.kksalsiznhIr fd ;k t krk gS] rksfujks/kh foHko V gSA ;fn blh i`"B d ks
V
rajxnS/;Z2d sfofd j.kksalsiznhIr fd ;k t k,] t ksfujks/kh foHko gkst krk gSA bl /kkfRod i`"B d h nsgy h rajxnS/;Z
4
gS%
5
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4)
2
Ans. (1)
hc
Sol. KEmax. = eVst = –
hc
eV = – ...(i)
V hc
e – ...(ii)
4 2
hc hc
Solving equation (i) and (ii) = th = 3
3 th
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106. When an -particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity ' v ' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze' its
distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as :
1 1 1
(1) m (2) (3) (4)
m m m2
t c æO;eku 'm' rFkk osx ' v ' lsxfreku d ksbZ-d .k 'Ze' vkos'k d sfd lh Hkkjh ukfHkd ij ceckjh d jrk gS] rks
mld h ukfHkd lsfud Vre mixeu d h nwjh m ij bl izd kj fuHkZj d jrh gS%
1 1 1
(1) m (2) (3) (4)
m m m2
Ans. (2)
Sol. At closest approach
KE gets converted to PE
1 k(2e)(ze) 1 1
mV 2 m or r
2 r r m
107. Match the corresponding entries of column–1 with column–2. [Where m is the magnification produced
by the mirror]
d kWy e–1 d h laxr izfof"V;ksad k fey ku d kWy e–2 d h izfof"V;ksalsd hft ;sA [;gk¡m niZ.kksa}kjk mRiUu vko/kZu gSa]
Column–1 Column–2
(A) m = –2 (a) Convex mirror
1
(B) m= (b) Concave mirror
2
(C) m = +2 (c) Real image
1
(D) m= (d) Virtual image
2
(A) m = –2 (a) mÙky niZ.k
1
(B) m= (b) vory niZ.k
2
(C) m = +2 (c) okLrfod izfrfcEc
1
(D) m= (d) vkHkklh izfrfcEc
2
(1) A c and d; B b and d; C b and c; D a and d
(2) A b and c; B b and c; C b and d; D a and d
(3) A a and c; B a and d; C a and b; D c and d
(4) A a and d; B b and c; C b and d; D b and c
(1) A c o d; B b o d; C b o c; D a o d
(2) A b o c; B b o c; C b o d; D a o d
(3) A a o c; B a o d; C a o b; D c o d
(4) A a o d; B b o c; C b o d; D b o c
Ans. (2)
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Sol. (A) m = –2, so image is magnified and inverted. Which is possible only for concave mirror. since image
is i inverted so it will be real.
1
(B) M = , so image is inverted and diminished. since image is inverted, so it will be real, and the
2
mirror will be concave.
(C) M = +2, image is magnified so the mirror will be concave. Image is erect so it will be virtual.
1
(D) m = , image is erect so image will be virtual. Image is virtual and diminished, so the mirror
2
should be convex.
Ans. will be (2)
108. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration.
What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to
–4
8 × 10 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ?
10 g æO;eku d k d ksbZd .k 6.4 ls-eh– y Ech f=kT;k d soÙ̀k d svuqfn'k fd lh fu;r Li'kZ& js[kh; Roj.k lsxfr d jrk
gSA ;fn xfr vkjEHk d jusd si'pkr~nksifjØ ek,saiwjh d jusij d .k d h xfrt Å t kZ8 × 10–4 J gks t krh gS] rks
bl Roj.k d k ifjek.k D;k gS\
2 2 2 2
(1) 0.2 m/s (2) 0.1 m/s (3) 0.15 m/s (4) 0.18 m/s
Ans. (2)
Sol. W all = KE
1 2
(mat)(s) = mv
2
(10 × 10–3)(at) (4 × 6.4 × 10–2) = 8 × 10–4
at = 0.1 m/s m/s
Ans. will be (2)
109. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sint is applied across an ideal capacitor C :
d ksbZy ?kqflXuy oksYVrk V(t) = V0 sint fd lh vkn'kZla/kkfj=k C d sfljksaij vuqiz;qDr d h x;h gS:
(1) Current (t), leads voltage V(t) by 180°
(2) Current (t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°
(3) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
(4) Current (t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
(1) /kkjk (t), oksYVrk V(t) ls180° vxzgSA
(2) /kkjk (t), oks
YVrkV(t) ls90° i'p gSA
(3) ,d iw.kZpØ esala/kkfj=k C oks
YVrk L=kksr lsd ksbZÅ t kZmiHkqDr ughad jrkA
(4) /kkjk (t), oks
YVrkV(t) d h d y k esagSA
Ans. (3)
Sol. Capacitor does not consume energy effectively over full cycles
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110. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first ?
d sbZfMLd vkSj d ksbZxksy k] ft ud h f=kT;k,saleku ijUrqæO;eku fHkUu gSa] leku mUurka'k vkSj y EckbZd snksvkur
lery ksaij y q<+d rsgSaA bu nksuksafi.Mksaesalsry h rd igy sd kSu igq¡p sxk?
(1) Depends on their masses (2) Disk
(3) Sphere (4) both reach at the same time
(1) bud sæO;ekuks
aij fuHkZj d jrk gS (2) fMLd
(3) xks
yk (4) nks
uksa,d gh le; igq¡p saxs
Ans. (3)
Sol. Time does not depend on mass, else
k2
t 1 2
R
k2
is least for sphere and hence least time is taken by sphere
R2
111. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are 1 and 2 . Lengths of brass and steel rods
are 1 and 2 respectively. If (2 – 1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following
relations holds good ?
ihry ¼czkl½ vkSj LVhy d h NM+ksad svuqnS/;Zizl kj d sxq.kkad Ø e'k% 1 vkSj 2 gSaA ihry vkSj LVhy d h NM+ksad h
y EckbZ;k¡Ø e'k% 1 vkSj 2 gSaA ;fn (2 – 1) d kslHkh rkiksad sfy , leku cuk;k t k;s] rc uhpsfn, x, laca/kksaesals
d kSu&lk lR; gS\
(1) 11 = 2 2 (2) 12 = 2 1 (3) 122 = 2 12 (4) 122 = 22 1
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2 = 2 (1 + 2())
22 = 11
112. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To
view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :
fd lh [kxksy h; nwjchu d svfHkn`';d vkSj usf=kd k d h Q ksd l nwfj;k¡Ø e'k% 40 cm vkSj 4 cm gSaA vfHkn`';d ls
200 cm nw
j fLFkr fd lh fcEc d ksns[kusd sfy ,] nksuksay sal ksad schp d h nwjh gksuh pkfg, :
(1) 54.0 cm (2) 37.3 cm (3) 46.0 cm (4) 50.0 cm
Ans. (1)
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Sol. Tube length = v0 + fe
1 1 1
for objective –
V0 u 0 f
put u0 = –200 and f = 40 cm we get v0 = 50 cm
L = 54 cm
113. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its
plane and passes through its centre. it is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular
–2 –2
acceleration of 2.0 rad s . Its net acceleration in ms at the end of 2.0 s is approximately :
fojkekoLFkk esafLFkr 50 cm f=kT;k d h d ksbZ,d leku oÙ̀kkd kj fMLd viusry d sy Ecor~vkSj d sUæ lsxqt jusoky s
v{k d sifjr% ?kweusd sfy , Lora=k gSA bl fMLd ij d ksbZcy vk?kw.kZd k;Zd jrk gS] t ksblesa2.0 rad s–2 d k fu;r
d ks.kh; Roj.k mRiUu d j nsrk gSA 2.0 s d si'pkr~ms–2 esabld k usV Roj.k gksxk y xHkx:
(1) 3.0 (2) 8.0 (3) 7.0 (4) 6.0
Ans. (2)
Sol. The angular speed of disc increases with time, and hence centripetal acceleration
also anet = a 2t a 2c
2
ac =
R
= tangential speed
R = Radius = 0.5 m
V = 2m/s at t =2
ac = 8m/s ; at = R = (0.5)(2)
anet = 8 2 12 ~ 8
114. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. it is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second
in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is :
(Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
d ksbZjs
fÝ t jsVj 4°C vkSj 30°C d schp d k;Zd jrk gSA iz'khru fd , t kusoky sLFkku d k rki fu;r j[kusd sfy ,
600 d S
y ksjh Å "ek d ksizfr lsd .M ckgj fud ky uk vko';d gksrk gSA bld sfy , vko';d 'kfDr pkfg, %:
(1 cal = 4.2 Joules y hft ;s
)
(1) 2365 W (2) 2.365 W (3) 23.65 W (4) 236.5 W
Ans. (4)
Heat extracted T2
Sol. C.O.P. = ; (T2 < T1)
effort put T1 – T2
for 1 second analysis
(600 )( 4.2) 277
Effort put 26
Effort put = 236.5 J Power = 236.5 watt
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115. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately
through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then :
(1) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas
(2) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done
(3) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done
(4) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work
fd lh xSl d kslerkih; : i lsmld svk/ksvk;ru rd laihfM+r fd ;k t krk gSA blh xSl d ksiF̀kd : i ls: n~/kks"e
izfØ ;k }kjk mld svk/ksvk;ru rd laihfM+r fd ;k t krk gSA rc :
(1) pkgslerkih; izfØ ;k }kjk laihfMr d jsavFkok : n~/kks"e izfØ ;k }kjk laihfMr d jsa] fd l izd j.k esavf/kd d k;Z
d jusd h vko';d rk gksxh] ;g xSl d h ijek.kqd rk ij fuHkZj d jsxkA
(2) xS
l d kslerkih; izfØ ;k }kjk laihfMr d jusesavf/kd d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gksxhA
(3) xS
l d ks: n~/kks"e izfØ ;k }kjk la
ihfMr d jusesavf/kd d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gksxhA
(4) xS
l d kslerkih; izfØ ;k vFkok : n~/kks"e izfØ ;k nksuksaesagh leku d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gks
xhA
Ans. (3)
Sol. Directly from graph the magnitude of work done = Area under p-v plot is larger for adiabatic
compression
p
Adiabatic
Iso
thermal
v
vf vi
116. The intensity at the maximum in Young's double slit experiment is 0. Distance between two slits is
d = 5, where is the wavelength of light used is the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of
one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d ?
;ax d sfd lh f} f>jh iz;ksx esamfPp"B d h rhozrk 0 gSA nksuks
af>fj;ksad schp d h nwjh d = 5gS, ;gk¡iz;ksx esa
mi;ksx fd , x, izd k'k d h rjaxnS/;ZgSA fd lh f>jh d slkeusnwjh D = 10d ij fLFkr insZij rhozrk D;k gksxh?
0 0 3
(1) (2) 0 (3) (4) 0
2 4 4
Ans. (1)
y D
Sol. max cos2 10
d
y for a position in front of a slit
5 (2.5 )
2.5 0 cos2
2 2 10
0
0 cos2
4 2
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117. Two non-mixing liquids of densities and n(n > 1) are put in container. The height of each liquid is h.
A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical
and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to
,d nwl jsesafefJr u gks
usoky snksnzo] ft ud s?kuRo rFkk n(n > 1) gSa] fd lh ik=k esaHkjsgSA izR;sd nzo d h
Å ¡p kbZh gSA y EckbZL vkSj ?kuRo d d sfd lh csy u d ksbl ik=k esaj[kk t krk gSA ;g csy u ik=k esabl izd kj jSrjk
gS] fd bld k v{k Å /okZ/kj jgrk gSrFkk bld h y EckbZpL (p < 1) l?ku nzo esagksrh gSA ?kuRo d d k eku gSA
(1) {1 + (n – 1)p} (2) {1 + (n + 1)p} (3) {2+(n + 1)p} (4) {2 + (n – 1)p}
Ans. (1)
L–pL
pL
n
Sol.
wt of body = upthrust by the two liquids
If A = Area of section then
(d A.L) g = [A (L – pL) + n ApL] g
On solving
d = (1+ (n – 1)p)
118. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :
laf/k Mk;ksM d ksvkn'kZekud j fopkj d hft ,A AB lsizokfgr /kkjk d k eku gS%
A 1k B
+4V –6V
–3 –2 –1
(1) 10 A (2) 0 A (3) 10 A (4) 10 A
Ans. (3)
Sol. For diode as ideal
V 4 – (–6 ) –2
i= 3
= 10 A
R 10
119. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the care and the road is s. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
d ksbZd kj f=kT;k R d h ofØ r lM+d ij xfreku gSA ;g lM+d d ks.k ij >qd h gSAd kj d sVk;jksavkSj lM+d d schp
?k"kZ.k xq.kkad s gSabl lM+d ij d kj d k vf/kd re lqj{kk osx gS%
g s tan s tan s tan g s tan
(1) 2
(2) gR 2 (3) gR (4)
R 1 – s tan 1 – s tan 1 – s tan R 1 – s tan
Ans. (3)
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Sol. For maximum speed the tendency of body is to slip up the incline
2
Vmax tan
hence =
Rg 1 – tan
tan
or Vmax = Rg
1 – tan
120. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its
a
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B, at a radial distances and 2a respectively,
2
from the axis of the wire is:
f=kT;k a d sfd lh y Ecslh/ks rkj ls d ks
bZLFkk;h /kkjk I çokfgr gks jgh gSA bl rkj d h vuqçLFk d kV ij /kkjk
a
,d leku : i lsforfjr gSA rkj d sv{k lsf=kT;k nwfj;ksa vkSj 2a ij Ø e'k% pqEcd h; {ks=kksaB vkSj B d k vuqikr
2
gS&
1 1
(1) 4 (2) (3) (4) 1
4 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. If r = radial separation
i 0i R i 1
B = Binside = 0 2 r = 2
= 0
2 R ( 2 R ) 2
2 R 2
0i i 1
B = Boutside = = 0 B : B = 1 : 1
2r 2R 2
7 –1
121. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10 m , the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum will be :
fjMcxZfu;rkad d k eku 107 m–1 fn;k x;k gS] gkbMªkst u LisDVªe d h ckej Js.kh d h vafUre y kbu d h rjax la[;k
gksxh %
7 –1 4 –1 7 –1 7 –1
(1) 2.5×10 m (2) 0.025 ×10 m (3) 0.5 ×10 m (4) 0.25×10 m
Ans. (4)
1 1 1 107 m –1
Sol. R 2 – 2 wave number =
2 4
2
122. If the velocity of a particle is = At + Bt , where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
between 1s and 2s is
;fn fd lh d .k d k osx = At + Bt2 gS;gk¡A rFkk B fLFkjkad gS] rksbl d .k }kjk 1s vkSj 2s d schp py h x;h nwjh
gS%
A B 3 3 7
(1) (2) A B (3) 3A + 7B (4) A B
2 3 2 2 3
Ans. (4)
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Sol. Distance
2 2
s vdt At Bt 2
1 1
3A 7B
2 3
123. The angle incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45º. The angle of prism is 60º.
If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive
index of the material of the prism respectively, are
fçTe d sfd lh viorZd i`"V ij fd lh çd k'k fd j.k d sfy , viru d ks.k d k eku 45º gSA fçTe d ks.k d k eku 60º
gSA ;fn ;g fd j.k fçTe lsU;wure fopfy r gksrh gS] rksU;wure fopy u d ks.k rFkk fçTe d sinkFkZd k viorZukad
Ø e'k% gS%
1 1
(1) 30º; (2) 45º ; (3) 30º ; 2 (4) 45º ; 2
2 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Give A = 60 and i = e = 60
min = i + e – A = 45 + 45 – 60 = 30
A
sin m
2 2
A
sin
2
–1 5 –2
124. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms at 27ºC and 1.0×10 Nm
5 2
pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127ºC and 0.05×10 Nm ,
–1
the r.m.s. velocity of velocity of its molecules in ms is ;
rki 27ºC rFkk 1.0×105 Nm–2 ij fd lh fn, x, æO;eku d h xSl d sv.kqv ks
ad k oxZek/; ewy (r.m.p.) osx 200
ms gSA t c bl xSl d srki vkSj nkc Ø e'k% 127ºC vkSj 0.05×105 Nm2 gS] rksms–1 esabl xSl d sv.kqv ksad k
–1
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125. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonantes with a tuning fork when the
smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same
tuning fork is:
,d fljsij cUn rFkk nwl jsfljsij [kqy k d ksbZok;qLrEHk fd lh Lofj=k f}Hkqt d slkFk ml le; vuqukn d jrk gS
t c bl ok;qLrEHk d h d e lsd e yEckbZ50 lseh gks
rh gSA blh Lofj=k f}Hkqt d slkFk vuqukn d jusoky h LrEHk d h
vxy h cM+h y EckbZgS&
(1) 200 cm (2) 66.7 cm (3) 100 cm (4) 150 cm
Ans. (4)
Sol. First harmonic at
4
3
3rd harmonic
4
1st length = 50 cm
3rd harmonic length 150 cm
126. The magnetic susceptibility negative for
(1) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials (2) diamagnetic material only
(3) paramagnetic material only (4) ferromagnetic material only
pqEcd h; lqxzkfgrk _ .kkRed gksrh gS%
(1) vuq
p qEcd h; vkSj y kSg&pqEcd h; inkFkksZd sfy , (2) d soy çfrpqEcd h; inkFkZd sfy ,
(3) d soy vuq
p qEcd h; inkFkZd sfy , (4) d s
oy y kSg&pqEcd h; inkFkZd sfy ,
Ans. (2)
Sol. r = 1 + x
appropriate is diamagnetic
127. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Brogli wavelengths
associated with them is:
æO;eku m d sby sDVªkWu rFkk fd lh Q ksVkWu d h Å t kZ, E ,d leku gSA buesalac) nsczkXy h rjaxnS/;ksZd k vuqikr gS%
1 1 1
1 2m 2 1 E 2 E 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) c(2mE )1 / 2
c E c 2m 2m
Ans. (2)
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h
Sol. electron = …(1)
2ME
For photon
hc
E = h = …(2)
photon
from these two ratio obtained by dividing these (2)
1/ 2
1 E
1 : 2 =
c 2M
128. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F (2t î 3 t 2 ĵ )N , when
î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t ?
1 kg æO;eku d k d ksbZfi.M fd lh d ky fJr cy F (2t î 3t 2 ĵ)N , ;gk¡ î rFkk ĵ , x vkSj y v{k d svuqfn'k ek=kd
lfn'k gS] d sv/khu xfr vkjEHk d jrk gS] rksle; t ij bl cy }kjk fod flr 'kfDr D;k gksxh?
3 5 2 3 2 4 3 4
(1) (2t + 3t )W (2) (2t + 3t )W (3) (2t + 4t )W (4) (2t + 3t )W
Ans. (1)
Sol. M = 1 kg
F 2t 3t 2
a= î ĵ
M (1) 1
2
V= adt = 2t dt 1 + 3t dt
2 3
V = t î + t ĵ
2
129. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt , where a and b are positive
constants. The total heat produced in R is :
fd lh çfrjks/k R lsçokfgr vkos'k d k le; t d slkFk fopj.k Q = at – bt2 d s: i esagksrk gS] t gk¡a rFkk b /kukRed
fu;rkad gSA R esamRié d qy Å "ek gS%
a 3R a 3R a 3R a 3R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
b 6b 3b 2b
Ans. (2)
2
Sol. Q = at – bt
dQ a
i= = a – 2bt i=0t=
dt 2b
t t 2
2 a 3R
H= i Rdt = Rdt
6b
0 0
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a/2b 2 3 2
4b t 4bat
it (a – 2bt)2 Rdt = a2 t –
3 2
0
a a3 R
Put t H=
2b 6b
130. A npn transistor is connected in common emittet configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of
800 is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current
amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 , the voltage gain and the
power gain of the amplifier will respectively be :
fd lh fn, x, ço/kZd esad ksbZnpn Vªkaft LVj mHk;fu"B mRlt Zd foU;kl esala;ksft gSA 800 d ksd ks
bZy ksM çfrjks/k
laxzkgd ifjiFk esals;ksft r gSvkSj bld sfljksaij 0.8 V foHkoikr gSA ;fn /kkjk ço/kZd xq .kkad 0.96 gSA rFkk ifjiFk
d k fuos'k çfrjks/k 192 gSA rksbl ço/kZd d h oksYVrk y fC/k rFkk 'kfDr y fC/k Ø e'k% gksxh%
(1) 4,3.69 (2) 4,3.84 (3) 3.69, 3.84 (4) 4, 4
Ans. (2)
Sol. Voltage gain = [current gain] [resistance gain]
800
[.96]
192
power gain = [current gain] [resistance gain]
[.96] [4] = 3.84
131. a piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted in to heat during its fall. The value of h is :
5
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10 J/Kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(1) 68 km (2) 34 km (3) 544 km (4) 136 km
cQ Zd k d ksbZVqd Mk Å ¡p kbZ h lsbl izd kj fxjrk gSfd og iw.kZr% fi?ky t krk gSA mRiUu gksusoky h m"ek d k d soy
,d &pkSFkkbZ Hkkx gh cQ Z }kjk vo'kksf"kr fd ;k t krk gS rFkk cQ Z d h leLr Å t kZ bld s fxjrs le; Å "ek esa
: ikUrfjr gkst krh gSA ;fn cQ Zd h xqir Å "ek 3.4 × 105 J/Kg rFkk g = 10 N/kg gSa] rksÅ ¡p kbZh d k eku gS%
(1) 68 km (2) 34 km (3) 544 km (4) 136 km
Ans. (4)
Mg h
Sol. = mL
4
4L
h= = 136 km
g
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132. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY
carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :
d ksbZoxkZd kj ik'k (y wi) ABCD ft lls/kkjk i, iz
okfgr gksjgh gS] fd lh y Ecslh/kspky d XY ft lls/kkjk I izokfgr
gksjgh gSd sfud V ,d gh ry esaj[kk gSaA bl ik'k ij y xusoky k y sV cy gks
xk %
Y B C
L
i
X A D
L/2 L
0 iL 20 i 0 i 20 iL
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 2 3
Ans. (2)
FBC
B C
FAB FCD
A D
FAD
Sol.
FBC cancels FAD
0 iL iL 2 0 Ji 2 0 i
FNet = FAB – FCD = – 0 = =
L 3L 3 3
2 2
2 2
133. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end
of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is 2. The ratio 1/2 is :
m1 m2 m1 m1 m2 m2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m1 m2 m2 m1
nzO;eku m1 rFkk y EckbZL d h d ksbZ,d leku jLlh fd lh n`< Vsd lsÅ /okZ/kj y Vd h gS
A bl jLlh d seqDr fljsls
nzO;eku m2 d k d ksbZxqVd k t qM k gSA jLlh d seqDr fljsij rjaxnS/;Z1 d k d ksbZvuqiz
LFk LiUn mRiUu fd ;k t krk
gSA ;fn jLlh d s'kh"kZrd igq¡p usij bl LiUn d h rjaxnS
/;Z2 gkst krh gSA rc vuikr 1/2 d k eku gS%
m1 m2 m1 m1 m2 m2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m1 m2 m2 m1
Ans. (3)
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T
Sol. v
m/
1 M2 Tension = M2g
2 M2 M1 Tension = M2g
T2 = (M1 + M2)g
M1
T1 = M2g
M2
2 M1 M2
1 M2
134. A block body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength
6
250 nm is U1 at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10
nmK. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) U2 > U1 (2) U1 = 0 (3) U3 = 0 (4) U1 > U2
d ksbZd f̀".kd k 5760 K rki ij gSaA bl fi.M }kjk mRlft Zr fofd j.kksad h Å t kZ] rjaxnS/;Z250 nm ij U1 rja
xnS/;Z
500 nm ij U2 rFkk rja
xnS/;z1000 nm ij U3 gSA ohu&fu;rkad ] b = 2.88 × 106 nmK gSA uhpsfn;k x;k d kSu lk
lac/k lgh gS\
(1) U2 > U1 (2) U1 = 0 (3) U3 = 0 (4) U1 > U2
Ans. (1)
Sol. min T = b
1
T
4 1
u (T)
( )4
so
u1 > u2
135. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?
(1) An accelerating charge (2) A charge moving at constant velocity
(3) A stationary charge (4) A chargeless particle
uhpsfn, x, fod Yiksaesalsfd ld k mi;ksx ,d lap fjr fo|qr pqEcd h; rjax mRiUu d jusesafd ;k t k ld rk gS\
(1) d ks
bZRofjr vkos'k (2) fu;r osx lsxfreku d ksbZvkos'k
(3) fLFkj vkos'k (4) vkos
'kghu d .k
Ans. (1)
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PART C – CHEMISTRY .
136. Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?
(1) G and S are negative but H is positive
(2) G is negative but H and S are positive
(3) G, H and S all are negative
(4) G and H are negative but S is positive
fuEUkfy f[kr y {k.kksaesalsd kSu lk vf/k'kks"k.k lslEcfU/kr gS\
(1) G rFkkS _ .kkRed y sfd u H /kukRed gksrk gSA
(2) G _ .kkRed y sfd u H ,oaS /kukRed gksrsgSA
(3) G, H ,oaS lHkh _ .kkRed gksrsgSA
(4) G ,oaH _ .kkRed y sfd u S /kukRed gksrk gSA
Ans. (3)
Sol. According to Gibbs Helmholtz equation, G = H TS
Adsorption is a spontaneous process (where S < 0, G < 0 and H < 0)
fxCl gsYegkWV~t lehd j.k d svuql kj G = H T S
vf/k'kks"k.k ,d Lor% izØ e gksrk gS(t gk¡ S < 0, G < 0 rFkk H < 0)
137. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
–4
(1) 10 atm
–14
(2) 10 atm
–12
(3) 10 atm
–10
(4) 10 atm
298 K ij 'kq
) t y esaH2 by sDVªksM d k foHko 'kwU; d jusd sfy ;svko';d H2 d k nkc gSA
–4
(1) 10 atm
(2) 10–14 atm
(3) 10–12 atm
(4) 10–10 atm
Ans. (2)
+
+ 2e H2 (reduction reaction) (vip;u vfHkfØ ;k)
–
Sol. 2H (aq.)
0.059 PH2
E = Eº – log 2
2
H(aq.)
0.059 PH2
0=0– log 2
2 10 7
(In order to make log1 = 0) (log1 = 0 d jusd sfy ,)
-7 2
PH2 = (10 )
= 10–14 atm
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138. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
(1) Activation energy (2) Entropy
(3) Internal energy (4) Enthalpy
fd lh jklk;fud vfHkfØ ;k esamRis
zsjd d s;ksx lsfuEUkfy f[kr esalsd kSu lh ek=kk cny rh gSA
(1) lfØ ;.k Å t kZ (2) ,s
UVªkWih
(3) vka
rfjd Å t kZ] (4) ,s
aFkSYih
Ans. (1)
Sol. Catalyst can affect only activation energy of the chemical reaction and cannot alter any thermodynamic
parameters :
(ie. H , G , S )
mRizsjd d soy jklk;fud vfHkfØ ;k d h lfØ ;.k Å t kZd ksizHkkfor d jrk gS] vU; Å "ek xfrd h; ekin.M d ksugha%
(vFkkZ
r~H , G , S )
Br
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
(2) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
(3) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
(4) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reaction.
fuEu vfHkfØ ;kvksad sfy ;s%
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O
(b) H3C CH3 H3C CH3
+ KOH + KBr
Br OH
Br
(c) + Br2
Br
fuEu esalsd kSu lk d Fku lR; gS?
(1) (a) iz
frLFkkiu, (b) vkSj (c) ;ksXkt vfHkfØ ;k,¡gSA
(2) (a) vkS
j (b) foy ksiu vfHkfØ ;k,¡gSrFkk (c) ;ksxt vfHkfØ ;k gSA
(3) (a) foy ks
iu vfHkfØ ;k, (b) izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ ;k vkSj (c) ;ksxt vfHkfØ ;k gSA
(4) (a) foy ks
iu vfHkfØ ;k, (b) vkSj (c) izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ ;k,¡gSA
Ans. (3)
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Sol. (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O Elimination reaction
Formation of -bond and conversion of saturated compound into unsaturated compound by the removal
of groups or atoms is known as Elimination reaction
(b) H3C CH3 H3C CH3 Substitution Reaction
+ KOH + KBr
Br OH
Replacement of one group by other group known as Substitution Reaction
Br
(c) + Br2 addition reaction
Br
Conversion of unsaturated compound into saturated compound by the addition of groups or atoms is
called as addition reaction.
140. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :
(1) Aromatic acid (2) Schiff base
(3) Ketone (4) Carboxylic acid
,sfYMgkbM ,oaizkFkfed ,sehu d h vfHkfØ ;k lscuk mRikn gSA:
(1) ,s
jksesfVd vEy (2) f'kQ ~{kkj
(3) d hVks
u (4) d kcks
ZfDlfy d vEy
Ans. (2)
Sol. C=O + H2N–R C=N–R
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141. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :
(1) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is
sp-hybridized.
(2) Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are
delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring electrons system.
(3) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are
not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring electron system.
(4) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
,sjhy ,sehu d s{kkjd rk d sfy ;slgh d Fku gS:
(1) ,s
jhy ,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gSD;ksfd ,sjhy ,sehu esaukbVªkst u ijek.kqsp-lad fjr gSA
(2) ,s
jhy ,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsd e {kkjh; gSD;ksfd ukbVªkst u d s,d kd h ;qXe by sDVªks
u ,sjksesfVd oy ; d s
by s
DVªkWu d slkFk foLFkkfud r̀ gksrsgSA
(3) ,s
jhy ,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gksrh gSA D;ksfd ukbVªkst u d s,d kd h-;qXe by sDVªksu ,sjksesfVd
oy ; d s by sDVªksu d slkFk foLFkkfud r̀ ugh gksrsgSA
(4) ,s
fjy lewg d sd kj.k ,sjhy ,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gSA
Ans. (2)
Sol. NH2 Delocalised lone pair of nitrogen atom with Benzene ring in aryl amine
aryl amine
RNH2 lone pair of electrons of nitrogen atom are not delocalized in alkyl amine.
(Alkyl amine)
,fjy ,ehu
RNH2 ,fYd y ,ehu esaukbVªkst u d sby sDVªkWu ;qXe foLFkkfud r̀ ughagksrsgSA
(,fYd y ,ehu)
142. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which
both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen
to escape ?
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/8
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gkbMªkst u ,oavkWDlt hu xSl ksad sleku eksy ksd ks,d ik=k esaj[kk x;k gSA t ksfd lw{e fNnzd s}kjk iy k;u d j
ld rsgSA gkbMªkst u d svk/ksiy k;u esay xsle; esavkWDlht u d k fd ruk va'k iy k;u d jsxkA?
(1) ½ (2) 1/8
(3) ¼ (4) 3/8
Ans. (2)
Sol. Equal moles are given so partial pressure is equal (let = x)
leku eksy fn;sx;sgSblfy , vkaf'kd nkc leku gS(ekuk fd x gS)
rO2 MH2
=
rH2 MO2
nO2 / t 2 1
= =
x 32 4
/t
2
nO2 / t 1 nO2 1
= =
x 4 x 8
/t
2
1
fraction of oxygen escaped = .
8
1
iy k;u gq, vkW
Dlht u d k va'k =
8
143. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
(1) The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because
staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
(2) The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has torsional strain.
(3) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed
conformation has no torsional strain.
(4) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the
eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
,Fksu d slkarfjr ,oaxz
Lr la: i.k d h rqy uk d sfy ;slgh d Fku gS&
(1) ,Fksu d k lkarfjr la: i.k] xzLr la: i.k ls vf/kd LFkk;h gS D;ksafd lkarfjr la: i.k es
a ,saBu ruko ¼ ejks
M +h
fod r̀h½ ughagSA
(2) ,Fksu d k lkarfjr la: i.k] xzLr la: i.k lsd e LFkk;h gSD;ksafd lkarfjr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ¼ ejksM +h fod r̀h½
gSA
(3) ,Fksu d k xzLr la: i.k] lkarfjr la: i.k lsvf/kd LFkk;h gSD;ksafd xzLr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ¼ ejksM +h fod r̀h½
ughagSA
(4) ,Fksu d k xzLr la: i.k] lkarfjr la
: i.k lsvf/kd LFkk;h gSt cfd xzLr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ¼ ejksM +h fod r̀h½
gSA
Ans. (1)
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H H
H H H
Sol.
H H
H H H H
H
Staggered Eclipsed
Newmann Newmann
conformation conformation
due to bond pair – bond pair repulsion (Torsional strain) Eclipsed conformation is less stable than
staggered conformation.
H H
H H H
H H
H H H H
H
lkarfjr U;wesu xzflr U;wesu
la: i.k la: i.k
cfU/kr ;qXe – cfU/kr ;qXe izfrd "kZ.k(,saBu ruko) d sd kj.k xzflr la: i.k] lkarfjr la: i.k d h rqy uk esad e LFkk;h
gksrk gSA
144. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property
indicated against it ?
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3+ 2+ + –
(2) Al < Mg < Na < F (increasing ionic size)
(3) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u lk Ø e fn;sx;sxq.k/keZd sifjorZu d svuql kj lger ughagS\
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (c<+
rh gqbZ/kkfRod f=kT;k)
3+ 2+ +
< Na < F (c<+
rsgq;svk;fud vkd kj)
–
(2) Al < Mg
(3) B < C < N < O (c<+
rk gqv k izFke vk;fud ,UFkSYih)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (c<+
rh gqbZby sDVªksu y fC/k ,UFkSYih)
Ans. (3 & 4)
Sol. Incorrect option are 3 & 4
Correct order of increasing Ist I.E B < C < O < N
correct order of increasing electron gain
Enthalpy I < Br < F < Cl (in magnitude)
Values (in KJ/mol) 296, 325, 333, 349.
vlR; fod Yi 3 & 4 gS
izFke vk;uu Å t kZd k lgh c<+rk Ø e B < C < O < N
by sDVª
kWu y fC/k ,UFkSYih d k lgh c<+rk Ø e I < Br < F < Cl (d soy ifjek.k)
eku (KJ/mol esa) 296, 325, 333, 349.
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–1 –1 –1 –1
145. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol s at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol s at 20 seconds
after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :
,d izFke d ksfV d h vfHkfØ ;k d k osx vfHkfØ ;k izkjEHk gksusd s10 sec ckn 0.04 mol –1 s–1 rFkk 20 sec ckn 0.03
mol
–1
s
–1
gSA bl vfHkfØ ;k d h v) Zvk;qd ky gS&
(1) 54.1 s (2) 24.1 s (3) 34.1 s (4) 44.1 s
Ans. (2)
r2 C2
Sol. ( for first order reaction) (iz
Fke d ksfV vfHkfØ ;k d sfy ,)
r1 C1
1 C 1 r
k= n 2 n 2
t 2 – t1 C1 t 2 – t1 r1
1 0.04 1 4
k= n n
20 – 10 0.03 10 3
n2 n2
t1/ 2 10
k n4 / 3
2.3 0.3
= 10
2.3(0.6 – 0.477)
= 24.4 sec.
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R1 R2
H2N — CH — C — OH + H2 N — CH — C — OH
O O
amino acid
(,ehuksvEy ½
Sol. R1 R2
H2N — CH — C — NH — CH — COOH
O
Peptide Bond
(isIVkbM cU/k)
149. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(a) Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge
(b) Froth floatation process (ii) Dressing of ZnS
(c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) Extraction of Al
(d) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni
Code d ks
M +:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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LrEHk I d smYy s[k d ksLrEHkII d smYy s[k lsfey k;saA lgh lad sr i) fr gS&
LrEHkI LrEHkII
(a) lkW;ukbM izØ e (i) vfr'kq) Ge
(b) (ii)
Q su Iy ou fof/k ZnS d k iz
l k/ku
(c)
fo|qr vi?kVuh vip;u (iii) Al d k fu"d "kZ
.k
(d)
eaM y ifj"d j.k (iv) Au d k fu"d "kZ
.k
(v) Ni d k 'kks
/ku
d ksM +:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Cyanide process Leaching process of Au
O2 – +
Au + 2NaCN Au(CN)2 + Na
aq.
Froth floatation process Pressing of ZnS (It is applicable for concentration of sulphide are)
Electrolytic reduction Extraction of Al
Zone refining Purification of Si, Ge
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(1) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbckslvkSj DNA es a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSA
(2) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA
(3) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd jkbcksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA
(4) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd jkbcksl gSA
Ans. (3)
Sol. DNA RNA
152. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is :
(1) H < 0 and S < 0 (2) H < 0 and S = 0
(3) H > 0 and S < 0 (4) H < 0 and S > 0
lHkh rki ij Lor% vfHkfØ ;k d sfy , lgh Å "ekxfrd h; 'krsZgS&
(1) H < 0 rFkk S < 0 (2) H < 0 rFkkS = 0
(3) H > 0 rFkkS < 0 (4) H < 0 rFkkS > 0
Ans. (4)
Sol. G = H – TS
For spontaneous process (G = -Ve) at all temperature, H < 0 & S > 0.
lHkh rki ij Lor% izØ e d sfy, (G = -Ve), H < 0 & S > 0.
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O
H OH OH
Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid) H3PO2 (monobasic)
O
H H OH
–13
154. MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 x 10 at room temperature,
which statements would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
(1) The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
(2) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical.
(3) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3.
(4) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
MY ,oaNY3, nksy xHkx vfoy s; y o.kksad k d ejsd srki ij Ksp d k eku 6.2 x 10–13 ,d leku gSA fuEu esals
d kSulk d Fku MY ,oaNY3 d slanHkZesalR; gS\
(1) KY y o.k d ksMY ,oaNY3 d sfoy ;u esaMky usij bud h foy s;rk ij d ksbZiz
Hkko ughaiM+rk gSA
(2) MY ,oaNY3 d h t y esaeksy j foy s;rk leku gSA
(3) MY d h t y esaeksy j foy s;rk NY3 lsd e gSA
(4) MY ,oa NY3 d sy o.k 'kq
) t y d h rqy uk esa0.5 M KY esaT;knk foy s; gSA
Ans. (3)
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 × 10
–13 –14
Sol. = 62 × 10
S1 = 7.9 × 10–7 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water
MY3 KSP = 27 S24 = 6.2 × 10–13 = 62 × 10–14
S2 _
~ 10–3.5 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water
rd
Solubility of NY3 > solubility of MY so 3 statement is true
Addition of KY will decrease the solubility due to common ion effect.
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 × 10
–13 –14
Sol. = 62 × 10
S1 = 7.9 × 10–7 eks
y /y hVj = 'kq) t y esafoy s;rk
S24
–13 –14
MY3 KSP = 27 = 6.2 × 10 = 62 × 10
S2 _
~ 10–3.5 eks
y /y hVj = 'kq) t y es
afoy s;rk
NY3 d h foy s
;rk > MY d h foy s;rk blfy , rhljk d Fku lR; gSA
KY fey kusij levk;u izHkko d sd kj.k foy s
;rk ?kVrh gSA
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(1) Chloromycetin
(2) Novalgin
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptomycin
fuEu esalsd kSulh nok ,d ihMkgkjh gS\
(1) Dy ks
jksekblhfVu
(2) uks
oy ft u
(3) is
fuflfy u
(4) LVª
sIVksekbflu
Ans. (2)
Sol. Novalgin is an analgesic it is a fact.
156. The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C C , is present in which of the following orbitals?
fn;sx;sd kcZ& _ .kk;u CH3C C , d s;qXe by sDVªkWu fuEu esalsfd l d {kd esamifLFkr gS\
(1) sp
(2) 2p
3
(3) sp
2
(4) sp
Ans. (1)
Sol. CH3–CC
sp hybridisation
sp lad j.k
f=kfoe la[;k (1 + 1_ .kkos'k) sp
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158. Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
solution?
(1) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
(2) The solution turns blue
(3) The solution is decolourized.
(4) SO2 is reduced.
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
ulk d Fku lR; gS] t c SO2 d ksvEy h; K2Cr2O7 d sfoy ;u esalsikl fd ;k t krk gS\
(1) gjkCr2(SO4)3 curk gS
A
(2) foy ;u uhy k iM+t krk gSA
(3) foy ;ujaxghu gkst krk gSA
(4) SO2 vipfr; gksrk gSA
Ans. (1)
Sol. K2Cr2O7 Cr2(SO4)3 green solution obtain where as SO2 oxidise into sulphate SO2–
4
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–
Sol. Same orbital can have two different values of spin of e of +½ and –½ (spin quantum number)
leku d {kd esaby sDVªkWu d spØ .k d sfy , nksfHkUu eku gksld rsgSA (+½ rFkk –½) (pØ .k Dok.Ve la[;k)
163. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u Ø e gSy kst u v.kqv ksad h vkca/k fo;kst u ,UFkSYih d sfy ;slgh gS\
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) I2 > Br2 > CI2 > F2
(3) CI2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) Br2 > I2 > F2 > CI2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Bond dissociation enthalpy (cU/k fo;ks
tu ,UFkSYih)
CI2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
242.6 192.8 158.8 151.1 (kJ/mole)
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164. The reaction :
Me
NaH Me–I
OH O Na O
can be classified as :
(1) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction (2) Williamson ether synthesis reaction
(3) Alcohol formation reaction (4) Dehydration reaction
vfHkfØ ;k &
Me
NaH Me–I
OH O Na O
d ksoxhZd r̀ fd ;k t k ld rk gS&
(1) fofy ;Elu ,Yd ks gy la'y s"k.k vfHkfØ ;k (2) fofy ;Elu bZFkj la'y s
"k.k vfHkfØ ;k
(3) ,Yd ks
gy fojpu vfHkfØ ;k (4) fut Z
y hd j.k vfHkfØ ;k
Ans. (2)
Sol. OH + NaH O Na
acid-ase
Reaction
2
SN CH3—I
O–CH3
–3 –1
165. Lithium has bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol . Calculate the
23 –1
edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 10 mol )
fy fFk;e d hbbc lajpuk gSA bld k ?kuRo 530 kg m–3 rFkk ijek.kqnzO;eku 6.94 g mol–1 gSA fy fFk;e /kkrqd s,d d
d ksf"Bd k d sd ksj d h y EckbZgSA (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 264 pm (2) 154 pm (3) 352 pm (4) 527 pm
Ans. (3)
ZA
Sol. d= for BCC Z=2
NA a3
3 2 6.94 10 3
530 kg/m =
6.02 1023 a3
a3 = 43.50 × 10–30
a = 3.52 × 10–10 m
= 352 pm.
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+ – –10 –10
166. The ionic radii of A and B ions are 0.98 × 10 m and 1.81 × 10 m. The coordination number of
each ion in AB is
+
A ,oaB– vk;uksad h vk;fud f=kT;k,¡Ø e'k%0.98 × 10–10 m ,oa1.81 × 10–10 m gSA AB esaizR;sd vk;u d h
milgla;kst u la[;k gSA
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8
Ans. (2)
rA 0.98 10 10
Sol. = = 0.54
rB
1.81 10 10
r
Octahedral range (v"VQ y d h; lhek) 0.414 < 0.732
r
Co-ordination no. of each ion is 6 like NaCl structure.
izR;sd vk;u d h leUo; la[;k NaCl lajpuk d sleku N% gSA
167. At 100º C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52,
the boiling point of this solution will be :
,d 6.5 g foy s; d k 100 g t y esafoy ;u d k 100º C ij ok"Ik nkc 732 mm gSA ;fn Kb = 0.52 rksbl foy ;u
d k DoFkukad gksxk %
(1) 103º C (2) 101º C (3) 100º C (4) 102º C
Ans. (2)
Sol. At B.P. P0 = 760 torr for elevation of B.P.
DoFkukad fcUnqij P0 = 760 torr DoFkukad mUu;u d sfy ,
6.5
P0 Ps WA / MA 32
= TB = I Kbm = 1 × 0.52 × × 1000 = 1
Ps WB / MB 100
760 732 6.5 / M
= =1
732 100 /18
On solving M = 32. So B.P. = 100 + TB = 101ºC
168. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63) Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are :
7 2 7 1 2 9 2
(1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 6s
7 2 8 2 8 1 2
(2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
6 1 2 7 1 2 9 1 2
(3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
6 1 2 7 1 2 8 1 2
(4) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
Eu (i-l-63) Gd (i-l-64) vkS
j Tb (i-l-65) d sby sDVªksfud foU;kl gS%
7 2 7 1 2 9 2
(1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s vkSj [Xe]4f 6s
7 2 8 2
(2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s vkSj [Xe]4f8 5d16s2
6 1 2 7 1 2
(3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s vkSj [Xe]4f9 5d16s2
(4) [Xe]4f6 5d16s2, [Xe]4f7 5d16s2 vkSj [Xe]4f8 5d16s2
Ans. (1)
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7 2
Sol. 63Eu [Xe] 4f 6s
7 1 2
64Gd [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
9 0 2
65Tb [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
X and Y are :
(1) X = 1-Butyne ; y = 2-Hexyne
(2) X = 1-Butyne ; y = 3-Hexyne
(3) X = 2-Butyne ; y = 3-Hexyne
(4) X = 2-Butyne ; 2 = 2-Hexyne
vfHkfØ ;k esa
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH3 (1)NaNH2 / liq.NH3
H–CCH
(2) CH CH Br
x
(2) CH CH Br
y
3 2 3 2
X vkS
j Y gS:
(1) X = 1-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 2-gsDlkbu
(2) X = 1-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu
(3) X = 2-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu
(4) X = 2-C;w
Vkbu ; 2 = 2-gsDlkbu
Ans. (2)
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NaNH2 / NH3
Sol. HCCH
NH3
HCC —Na+CH3–CH2–Br
S N2
SCH3CH2–Br
CH3–CH2–CC–CH2–CH3 Hex-3-yne
d( nP) Hº
=
dT RT 2
172. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25ºC. (Given,
Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, Benzene = 12.8kPa, toluene = 3.85kPa)
(1) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
(2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(3) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
(4) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
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csUt hu ,oaVkWy wbZu d s1 : 1 vkn'kZeksy j feJ.k d sok"i la;kst u d sfy ;sfuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lk d Fku lR; gS\
d Yiuk d jsafd rkieku 25ºC ij fLFkj gSA (fn;sx;sok"i nkc 25ºC csUt hu = 12.8kPa, VkWy wbZu = 3.85kPa)
(1) vi;kZ
Ir lwp ukvksad sd kj.k d ksbZiwokZuqeku ughay xk;k t k ld rk gSA
(2) ok"i es
acsUt hu d h vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh
(3) ok"i esaVkWy wbZu d h vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh
(4) ok"i esaleku ek=kk esacsUt hu ,oaVkWy wbZu gksxhA
Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to high partial vapour pressure of Benzene as compare to that of toluene so the mole fraction of
Benzene will be higher than that of toluene. As a result the vapour will contain a higher percentage of
Benzene.
csat hu d smPp vkaf'kd ok"i nkc d sd kj.k bld k eksy fHkUu vf/kd gksrk gSA blfy , ok"i esacs
at hu d h izfr'krrk
vf/kd gksxhA
(1) (2)
CH3 I
Br Br I
(3) (4)
I I I
Ans. (3)
Sol. O-substituted biphenyls are optically active as both the rings are not in one plane hence their mirror
mages are non-super imposable.
vkWFkksZizfrLFkkfi ckbZfQ ukbZy esanksuksfjax ,d ry esaugh gSvr% blesaizd kf'k; leko;ork gSA
174. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2- diol from the trans-isomer ?
(1) Aluminium isopropoxide (2) Acetone
(3) Ozone (4) MnO2
fuEu esalsd kSu lk vfHkd eZd fll~& lkbDy ksisUVk-1,2-MkbZv kWy ,oabld sVªkal leko;oh esaHksn d jsxk \
(1) ,s
Y;qfefu;e vkblksizksiksDlkbM (2) ,s
l hVksu
(3) vks
t ksu (4) MnO2
Ans. (2)
OH CH3 O CH3
O=C C
CH3
OH CH3
Sol. O
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175. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is :
(1) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this processes is known as keto-enol tautomerism .
(2) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.
(3) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
(4) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known a carbonylation.
d kcksZfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMªkst u mifLFkr gS] d sfy , lgh d Fku gS%
(1) d kcksZfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMªkst u ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g bud s vuq: i bZukWy esa vklkuh ls
lkE;koLFkk esagksrsgSavkSj ;g izØ e fd Vks& bZukW
y py ko;ork d gy krhgS
A
(2) d kcks
Zfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMªkst u ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g bud s vuq: i bZukWy ls d Hkh Hkh
lkE;koLFkk esaughagksrsgSA
(3) d kcksZfuy ;kS
fxd d kcZu ij gkbMªkst u ijek.kqmifLFkr gS] ;g bud svuq: i bZukWy esavklkuh lslkE;koLFkk es
gksrsgSvkSj ;g izØ e ,sfYMgkbM&d hVksu lkE;koLFkk d gy krk gS A
(4) d kcks
Zfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa-d kcZu gkbMªkst u ijek.kqmifLFkr gS] ;g bud svuq: i bZukWy lsvklkuh lslkE;koLFkk
esagksrsgSvkSj ;g izØ e d kcksZfuy hd j.k d gy krk gSA
Ans. (1)
Sol. It is known that basic need for the existance of Keto-enol tautomers is the presence of at least one
3
hydrogen atom at adjacent sp carbon of carbonyl carbon.
d hVksbZukWy leko;ork d sfy , d kcksZfuy sp3 d kcZu ij d e lsd e ,d gkbMªkst u d h mifLFkfr vko';d gSA
176. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statement is false ?
(1) The H–C–H bond angle is CH4 is larger than the H–N–H bond angle is NH3
(2) The H–C–H bond angle is CH4 the H–N–H bond angle in NH3 and the H–O–H bond angle in H2O are
all greater than 90º.
(3) Then H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
(4) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H–N–H bond angle in NH3
CH4, NH3 vkS
j H2O v.kqv ksad sfy ;suhpsfn;sx;sd Fkuksaesalsd kSu lk v l R; gS\
(1) CH4es
aH–C–H vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaH–N–H vkca/k d ks.k lsvf/kd gSA
(2) CH4 es
aH–C–H vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaH–N–H vkca/k d ks.k rFkk H2O esaH–O–H vkca/k d ks.k] lHkh esa90º ls
vf/kd gSA
(3) H2O esaH–O–H vkca/k d ks.k] CH4 esaH–C–H vkca/k d ks.k lsvf/kd gSa
(4) H2O esaH–O–H vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaH–N–H vkca/k&d ks.k lsd e gSA
Ans. (3)
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H
3
Sol. CH4 sp C Bond angle = 109º 281
H H
H
3
N
NH3 sp H H Bond angle = 107º
H
H2O sp
3 O
Bond angle = 104º 5
H H
177. Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark
the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(b) XeO3 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(d) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
LrEHk esaI esafn;sx;s;kSfxd ksad ksmud slad j.k ,oavkd kj t ksfd LReHk II esafn;sx;s gSad ksfey k;srFkk lgh
fod Yi d ksfpfUgr d hft ,A
LrEHk-I LrEHk II
(a) XeF6 (i) foÑ r v"VQ y d h;
(b) XeO3 (ii) oxZlery h
(c) XeOF4 (iii) fijkfeMh
(d) XeF4 (iv) oxZfijkfeMh
d ksM :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans. (2)
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3 3
Sol. XeF6 sp d distorted octahedral fod r̀ v"VQ y d h;
F
F F
Xe
F F
F
3
XeO3 sp pyramidal fijkfeMh;
Xe
O O
O
3 2
XeF4 sp d square pyramidal oxZfijkfeMh;
F F
Xe
F F
O
3 2
XeF4 sp d square planar oxZlery h;
F F
Xe
F F
178. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3 . If a larger amount of KHSO4 is
added to the mixture the rate of nitration will be :
(1) doubled (2) faster (3) slower (4) unchanged
csUt hu d k ukbVªhd j.k laknzH2SO4 ,oaHNO3 d h mifLFkfr esagksjgk gSA ;fn bl feJ.k esaT;knk ek=kk esaKHSO4
Mky rsgSrksukbVªhd j.k d k osx gks
xk%
(1) nq
xquk (2) rs
t (3) /khjs (4) vifjofrZ
r
Ans. (3)
Sol. If large amount of KHSO4 is added, Concentration of NO2+ will decrease and hence the rate of nitration
will be slower.
;fn KHSO4 d ksvf/kd ek=kk esafey k;k t krk gSrksNO2+ d h lkUnzrk ?kVrh gSft llsukbfVªd j.k d h nj /kheh gks
t krh gSA
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| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 | Code-C,R,Y
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS
u lk d Fku vlR; gS\
2+
(1) Mg vk;u ikS /kks
ad sgfjr Hkkxksad sfy ;segRoiw.kZgSA
2+
(2) Mg vk;u ,-Vh-ih- d slkFk ld qy cukrsgSA
2+
(3) Ca vk;u jDr d kst ekusd sfy ;segRoiw.kZgSA
(4) Ca2+ vk;u ân; xfr d ksfu;fer j[kusesegRoiw.kZughagSA
Ans. (4)
+2
Sol. Ca are important in blood clotting and are also important in maintaining the regular beating of the
heart.
2+
Ca vk;u jDr d kst ekusd sfy ;srFkk ân; xfr d ksfu;fer j[kusesHkh egRoiw.kZgSA
180. Which of the following has longest C–O bond length ? (Free C–O bond length in CO is 1.128Å)
fuEufy f[kr esalsfd ld h C–O vkca/k y EckbZvf/kd re gS\ (eqDr C–O vkca/k y EckbZCO esa1.128Å gSA)
(3) [Co(CO)4]
+ 2–
(1) [Mn(CO)6] (2) Ni(CO)4 (4) [Fe(CO)4]
Ans. (4)
Sol. Fe C O
Due to back bonding between metal-carbon bond length of C–O increase (B.O of M–C B.O of C–
CB.L. of C–O ) Higher is negative charge on metal, higher is back bonding (synergic effect) so bond
2–
length is higher so answer is [Fe(CO)4]
Fe C O
i'p vkcU/ku d sd kj.k /kkrqd kcZu cU/k y EckbZc<+rh gS(B.O of M–C B.O of C–CB.L. of C–O ) /kkrqij
ft ruk vf/kd _ .kkos'k gksxk mruk vf/kd i'p vkcU/ku gksxkA blfy , cU/k y EckbZHkh vf/kd gks
xhA
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etcwr 'kq:vkr PRE-MEDICAL DIVISION
Academic Session: 2016-17
csgrj Hkfo";
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in Yearlong Classroom Contact Programs (YCCPs)
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