TRƯỜNG THPT HỒ NGHINH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 - LÂN 1

NĂM HỌC: 2021-2022 - MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
MĐ: 132

SECTION I. LISTENING
You will hear two parts each twice. Then you choose the best option A; B; C or D for each
question by marking them into the answer sheet from question 1 to question 15.
Part 1: You will hear people talking in eight diffferent situations. For questions 1-8, choose the
best answer (A, B or C)
1. You hear a restaurant manager talking about the cooks who work for him. What does he say about
them?
A. They dislike cleaning tasks B. They have a choice of jobs C. They help to decide the
menu
2. You hear a woman talking about a new book. What does she particularly like about the book?
A. It’s educational B. It’s well organized C. It’s enjoyable
3. You hear the writer of a television soap opera being interviewed about the programme. What will
happen next in the story?
A. Someone will make an important decision
B. Someone will go away unexpectedly
C. Someone will learn the truth at last
4. You hear part of a radio interview. Who is speaking?
A. a taxi driver B. a porter C. a tourist guide
5. You hear a woman talking about how she keeps fit. Why did she decide to take up line dancing?
A. She thought the pace would suit her.
B. She had heard about it on television..
C. She wanted to try exercising to music
6. You overhear a conversation in a restaurant. What does the woman think about the food she has
just eaten?
A. it was expensive B. It was delicious C. It looked wonderful
7. You turn on the radio and hear a man talking. What is he talking about?
A. drawing a picture B. writing fiction C. composing music
8. You overhear a student phoning her parents. What’s her opinion of the place she’s living in while
at college?
A. She’s not sure she’ll have enough room to study
B. She has difficulty in working because of the noise.
C. She doesn’t get on well with her room-mates.

Part 2:
You will hear a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job. For each
question, put a tick (√) in the correct box.
9. Where is Angela working at the moment?
A. Britain B. The USA C. Asia
10. Angela likes her job because she …………….
A. loves being in dangerous situation.
B. never knows where she’ll go next.
C. enjoys watching important events happen.
11. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?

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 A. pictures B. carpets C. furniture

12. What time does Angela’s working day begin?

A. 6.30 a.m. B. 10.00 a.m. C. 8.30 a.m.
13. Where did Angela meet her boyfriend?
A. at her sister’s house B. at university C. in Hong Kong
14. What’s her boyfriend’s job?
A. a lawyer B. a teacher C. a news reporter
15. What does Angela do to relax?
A. She cooks a meal. B. She goes sailing. C. She goes shopping.
SECTION II. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
16. If I had a lot of money, I would put it into an account to get a high ………… rate.
A. interesting B. interest C. interested D. uninteresting
17. His father prefers …………
A. that he attends a different university B. that he attend a different university
C. he attends a different university D. he attend a different university
18. …….. I ask Martha for a date and she laughs at me?
A. As if B. What should C. What would D. What if
19. It came as a ………. surprise to me when she married him.
A. full B. complete C. entire D. comprehensive
20. This is ………… the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by heart B. by far C. by chance D. by myself
21. ………. cold and exhausted, Andrew managed to walk home.
A. Despite B. In spite of C. Whatever D. Although
22. The restaurant is very popular with film stars, artists and the …………
A. like B. similar C. such D. same
23. If this flood had occurred in the old days, the peasants would have had nothing to ………….
A. fall back on B. take notice of C. get rid of D. put up with
24. Jean is ……….. that he can sing, but everyone else thinks he’s terrible.
A. persuaded B. convinced C. believed D. determined
25. The teacher said the test would be easy. Despite ………., we’d better study hard.
A. what she said B. she said it C. she said D. that she said
26. Marta looks great. She’s really dressed to ………..
A. kill B. destroy C. murder D. slaughter
27. The imagist movement in poetry arose during the second decade of the twentieth century
……… against romanticism.
A. as a revolt B. when a revolt C. a revolt was D. that a revolt
28. Put your socks …………. or you won’t pass your exams.
A. down B. up C. over D. by
29. Don’t believe Samuel. He just ………… an act that he is the most miserable person in the
world.
A. settles up B. puts on C. puts into D. settles in
30. It’s a ………… shame that so little is done nowadays to help the homeless in our large cities.
A. sweeping B. crying C. dying D. pitying
31. ……… virtue of his youth, he was free from charged.
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 A. With B. On C. By D. For

32. On no account ……….. be touched.

A. must this switch B. must this switch not C. you must D. this switch
must
33. It’s me who’s at……….. so I’ll have to pay for the damage.
A. error B. guilt C. fault D. responsibility

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
34. The differences between British and American English are comparatively small.
A. relatively B. extremely C. surprisingly D. straightly
35. Meanwhile, California was now using up its entire entitlement and still growing by leaps and
bounds.
A. very unexpectedly B. very slowly C. very quickly D. very suddenly

Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
36. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much
money
37. Since it is to be a surprise, don’t let the cat out of the bag.
A. let the bag away from the cat B. reveal the true story
C. keep the cat inside the bag D. hide the secret

Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
38. Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?” - Kyle: “
”
A. It’s my honour. B. Let’s do it then. C. The more, the merrier. D. That’s
right.
39. Barbara is at the clinic.
- Barbara: “Can I make an appointment to see a doctor, please?” - Receptionist:
“………...”
A. Not at the moment. He can’t be disturbed.
B. OK, let me just check my diary
C. Have a seat and I will be with you in an hour.
D. OK, you will need to check my diary.

Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
40. Pasteurization is the process of heating milk to destroy disease-caused organisms and bacteria.
A. disease-caused B. of heating C. to destroy D. bacteria
41. If either of you take a vacation, we won’t be able to finish the work.
A. of B. won’t C. the work D. take

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42. The purpose of the United Nations, broad speaking, is to maintain peace and security and to
encourage respect for human rights.
A. broad speaking B. of C. is D. to encourage

SECTION III. READING

PART 1: For questions from 43-52. Read the text below and decide which option(A,B,C or D)
best fits each of the numbered gaps. Write your answers on the Answer sheets.
WHALING
Rock carving suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200
B.C. Such (43) ________ hunting is still practiced today in a number of (44) ________ including
the Inuit people of Greenland and North America.
Whaling became big business from the seventh century as the (45) ________ for whalebone
and whale oil rose, and humpback and sperm whales were hunted in (46) ________ large numbers.
But just as stocks of these species began to fall, the explosive harpoon-gun was (47) ________. This
weapon, together with the development of steam-power ships, (48) ________ the whalers to hunt
the fast-moving fin and blue whales.
In 1905 the whaling (49) ________ moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of
massive factory ships enabled the whales to be processed at sea. As a result, the blue whale had (50)
________ disappeared by the 1950s. In 1946 the International Whaling Commission was
established to maintain the declining whale populations. Quotas were (51) ________ but these were
often (52)________ and numbers continued to fall. Hunting of many species continued until 1986
when the IWC finally responded to international pressure and a ban on commercial whaling was
introduced.

43. A. survival B. essential C. basic D. subsistence

44. A. groups B. societies C. races D. nationalities
45. A. demand B. desire C. request D. reliance
46. A. repeatedly B. frequently C. continually D. increasingly
47. A. invented B. discovered C. assembled D. applied
48. A. managed B. employed C. enabled D. empowered
49. A. lines B. troops C. staff D. fleets
50. A. virtually B. possibly C. uniquely D. commonly
51. A. made B. set C. placed D. done
52. A. refused B. denied C. ignored D. exempted

Part 2: Read the following passages and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
INTERNET JOBS
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online.
Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the
growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a
minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities
is the job of webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The
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qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster
to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and
software that the website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and
software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will
be running internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers).
Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working
independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be
considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest
computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills
remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as
a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set
of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-
ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital
music, computer illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions.
With many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and
contracting of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet
provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers are able to work
on projects with companies outside their own country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to
today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay
people with technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start
at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been
known to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.

53. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. name B. estimate C. discount D. encounter
54. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. companies B. new job opportunities
C. hardware and software D. webmasters
55. According to the passage, which of the following is true of webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. They require a minimal level of expertise.
C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
D. They do not support software products.
56. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _____.
A. There are online job available for workers with minimal computer skills.
B. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
C. Online workers cannot free themselves from the office.
D. “New media” is not easy to define.
57. Which of the following is not mentioned as part of “new media”?
A. websites B. Internet technology C. writing skills D. video games
58. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. online workers can work full-time online
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 B. only skilled workers make good money
C. it is easy to become a webmaster
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot work online
59. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster.
B. To inform people about the computer industry.
C. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

60. Which of the following is true of the job of freelance writers?

A. They may work with others at the company.
B. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.
C. They manage hardware and software.
D. It is considered a “content” job.

Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this
short amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working
memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The
most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested
that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is
defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a
letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term
memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to
long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an
exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again,
one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only
succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the
information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people
often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the
dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely
forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass
information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice
"elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so
that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving
information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are
stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it
may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures),
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the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for
subjects that require a lot of memorization.
61. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
62. The word “ elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
63. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT
the________
A. STM B. long term memory C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area

64. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?

A. To give an example of a type of memory
B. To provide a type of interruption
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
65. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
66. The author believes that “rote rehearsal” is __________ .
A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary interruption
67. The word “ elaborate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. complex B. efficient C. pretty D. regular
68. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to __________
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
69. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
70. The word “ cues” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests

SECTION IV. WRITING

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
71. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
72. We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
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C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
73. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
74. She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don’t know about her great performance at the festival.
B. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.
C. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don’t know she has artistic talent.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn’t know about her artistic talent now.

75. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions
76. His eel soup is better than any other soups I have ever eaten.
A. Of all the soups I have ever eaten, his eel soup is the best.
B. I have ever eaten many soups that are better than his eel soup.
C. His eel soup is the worst of all soups I have eaten.
D. His eel soup is good but I have ever eaten many others better.
77. There is no doubt that Martin is the best candidate for the job.
A. Martin is by all means the best candidate for the job.
B. Without question, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
C. In all likelihoood, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
D. Quite by chance, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
78. Because it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
79. Most of the public believes that cancer is caused by toxic substances.
A. Most of the population thinks that poisonous substances play a role in the
increase in cancer case.
B. It is generally believed that poisonous chemicals are the main factor in the
development of career.
C. The majority of the population is of the opinion that poisonous substance are the
reason behind the development of cancer.
D. The fact that toxic chemicals cause cancer disease is well-known among the public.
80. It would have been better if he had told us his new address.
A. He should have told us his new address.
B. He might have told us his new address.
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C. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new address.
D. He must have told us his new address.

THE END

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