1.Which of the following do photoautotrophs use as A.

ESCHERICHIA COLI
their energy and carbon source? B. escherichia coli
A. CO2 as both an energy source and a carbon C. Escherichia coli
source. D. Escherichia coli
B. Light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon E. Escherichia Coli
source. 8. Who is credited with developing the first
C. H2S as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon microscope?
source. A. Antonie Van Leuwenhoek
D. N2 as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon B. Frederick Griffith
source. C. Oswald Avery
E. Light as an energy source and methane as a D. Paul Ehrlich
carbon source. E. Robert Koch
2.Which of the following terms describes an 9. Who is described as the father of the
organism that thrives in high pressure microbiology lab?
environments? A. Alexander Fleming
A. Acidophile B. Antonie Van Leuwenhoek
B. Barophile C. Edward Jenner
C. Halophile D. Louis Pasteur
D. Psychrophile E. Robert Koch
E. Thermophile 11. What is the main benefit of a phase contrast
3.Which of the following techniques is the best way microscope over a transmitted light microscope?
to isolate single bacterial colonies? A. It can provide increased resolution through an
A. Spread plating directly from an overnight broth alternative illumination source
culture B. It can be used to measure the refractive index of
B. Streak plating a specimen
C. Spread plating from a serial dilution of an C. It allows for observation of opaque specimens
overnight broth culture D. It increases the contrast of a sample without the
D. Broth culturing need for staining
E. Gram staining E. It allows for visualisation of emitted fluorescence
4.The cell walls of bacteria, fungi and plant cells and 12. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the
the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all haematoxylin stain? It:
external to the plasma membrane. Which of the A. dyes DNA
following is a characteristic common to all of these B. dyes RNA
extracellular structures? C. binds to basophilic substances
A. They are composed of a mixture of lipids and D. stains nuclei blue/purple
nucleotides. E. is an acidic dye
B. They are composed of peptidoglycan or lignin. 13. The aim of dehydration is to:
C. They must block water and small molecules to A. add water to the tissue.
regulate the exchange of matter and energy with B. add paraffin to the tissue.
their environment. C. remove fixative and water from the tissue.
D. They are constructed of polymers that are D. remove paraffin from the tissue.
synthesised in the cytoplasm and then transported E. prevent postmortem decomposition.
out of the cell. 14. Clearing is done by placing the tissues in:
E. They must provide a rigid structure that
maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area A. Suza
to volume. B. Bouin
5. Which one of the following statements is true of C. Zinker
eukaryotic cells? D. Xylene
A. They contain circular DNA and plasmids. E. Alcohol
B. They do not typically contain mitochondria and NOT15. Which of the following is a function of
lysosomes. epithelial cells?
C. They always have a cell wall.
D. They are smaller than prokaryotic cells. A. Absorption
E. Most of the DNA is involved in control of gene B. Impulse conduction
expression rather than coding for protein. C. Protection
6.Which of the following occurs in peroxisomes? D. Secretion
A. Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide E. Transport
B. Krebs cycle 16. Which of the following statements is true of
C. Intracellular digestion of fats blood?
D. Synthesis of proteins
E. Synthesis of fatty acids A. It is a specialist form of epithelium.
B. It is formed from the endoderm layer of the
7. blastocyst.
Which one of the following is correctly written?
C. It is formed from the ectoderm layer of the 24. Which of the following are the proteins that
blastocyst. regulate the cell cycle and show fluctuations in their
D. It develops from muscle cells. concentration throughout the cell cycle?
E. It is a specialist form of connective tissue. A. Cyclins
17. Simple squamous epithelial cells are specialised B. Enzymes
to perform which function? C. Growth factors
D. Protein kinases
A. Filtration and diffusion E. Second messengers
B. Movement 25. How do growth factors initiate cell
C. Secretion proliferation?
D. Sensory reception A. By decreasing time spent in G1 phase
E. Support B. By decreasing time spent in G2 phase
18. Which of the following best describes skeletal C. By promoting entry into M phase
muscle? D. By promoting entry into S phase
E. By promoting exit from G0 phase
A. Striated and voluntary 26. Which cyclin regulates passage through the G2
B. Nonstriated and involuntary checkpoint?
C. Striated and involuntary A. Cyclin A
D. Nonstriated and voluntary B. Cyclin B
E. Involuntary and continuous 19. Which of the C. Cyclin C
following are phagocytic cells found in nervous D. Cyclin D
tissue? E. Cyclin E
A. Astrocytes 27. When progesterone binds its intracellular
B. Ependyma receptor the resulting complex is able to do which
C. Microglia of the following?
D. Oligodendroglia A. Open channels in the membrane for other
E. Satellite cells substances to enter.
20. What is the major function of neurons in B. Open channels in the nuclear envelope for
nervous tissue? cytoplasmic molecules to enter.
C. Mediate the transfer of phosphate groups
A. Produce myelin to/from ATP.
B. Provide nutrients D. Act as a transcription factor in the nucleus.
C. Regulate blood flow E. Make water-soluble molecules able to diffuse
D. Repair across membranes.
E. Transmit electrical signals 28. Extracellular signals:
21. What is the major function of oligodendrocytes A. bind to any receptor present in the target cells.
in nervous tissue? B. can directly bind to a DNA sequence promoting
gene expression.
A. Produce myelin C. bind to specific receptors present in the target
B. Provide nutrients cells.
C. Regulate blood flow D. bind to the extracellular matrix.
D. Repair E. bind to ribosomal proteins.
A. Transmit electrical signals 29. Normal cell types in a multicellular organism
22. Why is it difficult to observe individual become different from one another because:
chromosomes with a light microscope during A. they contain different chromosomes
interphase? B. they contain different atomic elements.
C. they synthesize different sets of RNA and protein
A. They leave the nucleus and are dispersed to molecules.
other parts of the cell. D. they synthesize different sets of RNA but contain
B. The spindle must move them to the metaphase the same protein molecules.
plate before they become visible. E. they accumulate mutations in their genetic
C. Sister chromatids do not pair up until division material.
starts. 30. Which of the following is a distinctive property
D. The DNA has not been replicated yet. of stem cells?
E. They have uncoiled to form long, thin strands. A. They can renew themselves and give rise to
23. Division of daughter cells occurs in which phase different cell types.
of the cell cycle? B. They lose chromosomes as they divide.
C. They are fully differentiated cell types.
A. G0 phase D. They are no longer able to divide.
B. G1 phase E. They are unable to renew and replace tissues.
C. G2 phase 31. One important function of apoptosis is:
D. M phase A. to remove cells transiently needed during
E. S phase development.
B. to eliminate pathogens.
C. promote the growth of a particular organ or
tissue.
D. eliminate cells infected by a virus.
E. to renew certain cell types.
32. Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have
DNA binding domains as well as other domains that
are also specific for binding. In general, which of the
following would you expect many of them to be
able to bind?
A. Repressors
B. ATP
C. Protein-based hormones
D. Other transcription factors
E. tRNA
33. What is considered to be the first evidence of
differentiation in the cells of an embryo?
A. Cell division occurring after fertilization
B. The occurrence of mRNAs for the production of
tissue-specific proteins
C. Determination of specific cells for certain
functions
D. Changes in the size and shape of the cell
E. Changes resulting from induction
34. What would occur if the repressor of an
inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind
the operator?
A. Irreversible binding of the repressor to the
promoter
B. Reduced transcription of the operon's genes
C. Buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled
by the operon
D. Continuous transcription of the operon's genes
E. Overproduction of catabolite activator protein
(CAP)
1.A phenotype produced by a recessive gene that is
located on the X chromosome is called a(n) _____.
A . sex-linked trait
B. sex limited trait
C. codominant trait
D. non-dominant trait
2. The chromosomes in the genome which are not
sex chromosomes are called _____.
A. autosomes
B.karyotypes
C.phenotypes
D.genotypes
3. A dihybrid cross produces _____ different
phenotypes.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 16
D. 32
4. Which of the following correctly match the stage
of meiosis I with its events?
I. Prophase I: Chromatin condensation and
centrosomes move to opposite poles.
II. Metaphase I: Alignment of the tetrads at the
middle of the cell.
III. Anaphase I: Formation of the nuclear membrane
and the chromosomes decondense
IV: Telophase I: Separation of the homologous
chromatids.
I and II
I, II and IV
II and III
I and IV
6. Which of the following correctly explains the
relationship among DNA, histones and chromatin?
A. DNA is wrapped around histones to form
chromatin.
B. DNA is broken down into pieces by histones to
form chromatin.
C. Chromatin is broken down into pieces by histones
to form DNA
D. Chromatin is wrapped around histones to form
DNA.
7. Which of these best describes the events that
occur during the anaphase of mitosis?
A.The physical connection between sister
chromatids is severed, allowing the chromatids to
move toward their respective spindle pole.
B. The chromosomes condense, the centrosomes
move to opposite sides of the cell and the mitotic
spindle begins to form.
C. The mitotic spindle breaks down, the
chromosomes uncoil and the nuclear membrane
forms again.
D. All of the chromosomes are aligned at an
imaginary line in the middle of the cell.
8. Which of the following correctly orders the
events of protein translation?
A. tRNA, amino acids, mRNA
B. tRNA, mRNA, amino acids
C. mRNA, tRNA, amino acids
D. amino acids, mRNA, tRNA
9.Amino acids are joined by _____ bonds which
release _____ when formed.
A. peptide, water
B. phosphodiester, water
C. peptide, carbon
D. phosphodiester, carbon
10. Which amino acid is coded by the codon AUG?
A. Methionine
B. Arginine
C. Serine
D. Glycine
11. Which of these statements about DNA
replication is correct?
A. The cell has the ability to fix the errors that may
occur during DNA replication.
B. DNA replication occurs inside the smooth
endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Pyrimidine dimers are commonly formed during
DNA replication and they do not affect protein
synthesis.
D. All of these are correct.

12. In which of these DNA repair mechanisms is a

single, damaged base recognized and removed, but
the rest of the nucleotide is left in place?
A. Base excision repair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Direct repair
D. Photo reactivation

13. Which of these can cause mutations?

A. All of these are correct.
B. Chemical substances
C. Irradiation
D. Ionization

14. Dr. Babaran works in a molecular genetics

laboratory. He would like to combine a gene found
in Bacteria A with a gene found in Bacteria B to
create a new DNA sequence. Is this possible? If so,
how can he achieve it?
A. Yes, he must cut the DNA of both bacteria with
the same restriction enzyme so they can bond.
B. Yes, he must cut the DNA of both bacteria with a
complementary restriction enzyme so they can
bond.
C. Yes, he needs to cultivate both strains of bacteria
with the same RNA polymerase.
D. No, this is not doable because bacterial DNA
cannot be changed.

15. Which of the following is true about DNA ligase?

A. It joins the DNA fragments created by restriction
enzymes, making a new DNA strand.
B. It unwinds the DNA double helix so that
restriction enzymes can cut the strand.
C. It removes the sticky ends of a DNA fragment so
that it won't bind to other molecules.
D.It replicates a specific DNA sequence so that it can
later be used for research purposes.

16. A single DNA molecule combined from two

different sources of DNA is known as a _____.
A. recombinant DNA plasmid
B. bacteriophage
C. cloned DNA plasmid
D. DNA primer